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AP EAMCET Counselling 2019 | Detailed Procedure, Choice Filling & Seat Allotment

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AP EAMCET Counselling 2019: AP EAMCET 2019 Counselling is starting from 1st July 2019. It is conducted by the Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Kakinada on behalf of APSCHE. EAMCET is a state level examination. It is organized to offer admission in various professional courses offered in University/ Private Colleges in the state of Andhra Pradesh. Read on to find out more. AP EAMCET Results 2019 announced on June 4, 2019

AP EAMCET Counselling 2019

Take a look at the table below to get a general overview of AP EAMCET 2019.

Exam NameAndhra Pradesh Engineering, Agriculture and Medical Common Entrance Test
Conducting BodyJawaharlal Nehru Technological University Kakinada on behalf of APSCHE
Exam LevelState
PeriodicityOnce a year
Mode of RegistrationOnline
Exam ModeOnline (Computer Based Test)
Type and No. of QuestionsObjective, 160 Questions
The validity of AP EAMCET ScoreOne year
AP EAMCET Helpdeskapeamcet19@gmail.com | 0884 – 2340535/ 0884 – 2356255
Official website linkhttps://apeamcet.nic.in/Default1.htm

AP EAMCET Counselling 2019 Important Dates 2019

To make sure that you do not miss any deadlines, we have provided all the important dates for AP EAMCET 2019 here. Note them down and plan accordingly to avoid any hassle.

EventDate
AP EAMCET 2019 Exam Date
Slot 1 – 10.00 AM to 1.00 PM
Slot 2 – 2.30 PM to 5.30 PM
Engg. Exam: April 20 – 23, 2019
Agr. Exam: April 23 and 24, 2019
Both Exams: April 22 and 23, 2019
Declaration of AP EAMCET 2019 ResultJune 4, 2019
Declaration of Merit ListThe first week of June 2019
Commencement of AP EAMCET CounsellingJune 29, 2019
Document / Certificate Verification, Processing Fee Pay OnlineJune 29 to July 8, 2019
Seat AllotmentJuly 11, 2019

AP EAMCET Counselling Schedule 2019

You will be called for counseling based on your rank. The below schedule will help you determine when your counseling session will be held. Prepare all the necessary documents well in advance of the date provided.

For OC/BC/SC/ST/Minority

Certificate VerificationOption Entry
Date FromToDate (tentative)FromTo
June 29, 201918000July 1, 2019130000
June 30, 2019800116000July 2, 2019
July 1, 20191600130000July 3, 20193000160000
July 2, 20193000145000July 4, 2019
July 3, 20194500160000July 5, 20196000190000
July 4, 20196000178000July 6, 2019
July 5, 20197800195000July 7, 201990001120000
July 6, 201995001115000July 8, 2019
July 7, 2019115001130000July 9, 2019  120001Last
July 8, 2019130001LastJuly 10, 2019
July 9, 2019Change of Options
July 11, 2019Release of allotments on web

For PH, CAP, NCC, Sports and Games, Anglo Indians

Date (tentative)CategoryRank Called
FromTo
June 28, 2019PHV, PHH, PHO1Last
ANGLO INDIAN1Last
NCC115000
June 29, 2019NCC1500130000
SPORTSand GAMES120000
CAP120000
June 30, 2019NCC3000150000
SPORTS and GAMES2000140000
CAP2000140000
July 1, 2019NCC5000170000
SPORTSand GAMES4000160000
CAP4000160000
July 2, 2019NCC7000190000
SPORTS and GAMES6000180000
CAP6000180000
July 3, 2019NCC90001110000
SPORTS and GAMES80001100000
CAP80001100000
July 4, 2019NCC110001130000
SPORTS and GAMES100001120000
CAP100001120000
July 5, 2019NCC130001Last
SPORTS and GAMES120001Last
CAP120001Last

AP EAMCET Counselling 2019 – How To Register?

You need to register for the document verification session. The registration is unfortunately not online and can be done only in the AP EAMCET help centers near you. However, the steps to are very straight forward and easy to follow. From the list given, find out the help center nearest to you and register before the Last date. Steps to follow

  1. Reach the venue on time.
  2. Submit your AP EAMCET rank card to the personnel at the entrance.
  3. You will be called in the order of your ranks. You need to pay the counseling fee and obtain the form.
  4. Fill in all the relevant details in the form, taking care to ensure that there are no discrepancies/errors.
  5. After this step, you will be called for document verification.

AP EAMCET Counselling Fee 2019

  1. OC/BC Category: ₹1200
  2. SC/ST Category: ₹600

AP EAMCET Counselling Procedure 2019

There are two phases to the counseling process. First, you will be called for document verification. Once verified, you can fill in your choices and seats will be allotted.

AP EAMCET Counselling Schedule 2019

AP EAMCET Counselling 2019 – Documents Required To Be Submit

When called for certificate verification, you need to provide the following documents

  1. AP EAMCET Hall Ticket 2019
  2. AP EAMCET Rank Card
  3. Intermediate or Equivalent exam mark sheet and passing certificate
  4. 10th and 12th class Mark Sheet and passing certificate
  5. Migration Certificate
  6. Income certificate (issued after January 01, 2019)
  7. Caste certificate (if required)
  8. PH, NCC, CAP, Sports Certificates (if applicable)
  9. Aadhar card
  10. Residence certificate of either of parents
  11. Disability Certificate (if applicable)

You need to bring the original documents along with two photocopies.

After verifying the documents, there are three steps

AP EAMCET Counselling 2019 – Filling of Choices

Follow the below steps to register and fill in your choices:

  1. Go to the candidate registration page.
  2. Fill in the relevant details such as Registration number, Hall ticket number, date of birth, etc. Take care to fill them in properly to avoid any errors/discrepancies.
  3. Click on “Generate Password”.
  4. Now, create a password. (Min. 8 characters, Max. 10, at least one numeric/special character)
  5. Re-enter the password to confirm it. Make sure that you have created a strong password for safety.
  6. Click on “Save password”.
  7. Click “log out” to go back to the homepage.

Now, you need to log in using the password just generated. Click on “Choice filling” and fill in your preferences. Make sure to verify the Engineering colleges and course codes when filling the options.

AP EAMCET Counselling 2019 – Locking Options

You can change your preference order as many times as you like, adding and deleting choices until you’re satisfied. You are allowed to make changes till the Last date. Once you have finalized your choices, you need to “lock” them. Note that your choices cannot be changed once locked. Hence, take your time and go through it a few times before locking.

AP EAMCET Counselling 2019 – Allotment of Seats

Seats are allotted based on various factors such as:

  • Merit
  • Category
  • Gender
  • Special reservation category, etc. (Not in order)

The list of allotments will be available online on the official website. You need to log in to check it. If you are satisfied with your allotment, you may report at the allotted institute. Note that you have to pay the fees and carry the payment receipt at the nearest Helpline Centres.

AP EAMCET Helpline Centres

  1. Andhra University counseling center, opposite School of Distance Education, Visakhapatnam.
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Kakinada.
  3. Acharya Nagarjuna University, Guntur.
  4. Sri Venkateswara University, Old MLA Building Tirupathi.
  5. Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University, Ananthapuram.
  6. Rayalaseema University, Kurnool.
  7. YSR Engineering College, Proddatur.
  8. Andhra Loyola Degree College, Benz Circle, Vijayawada.
  9. SRR and CVR Govt Degree College, Vijayawada.

https://www.learncram.com/ml-aggarwal/ml-aggarwal-class-10-solutions-for-icse-maths-chapter-2-chapter-test/

You need to report at your nearest EAMCET Helpline Centre on the date allotted to you. Once there, you will be provided with the registration form which you need to fill. You also need to pay the counseling fee. The, you need to provide your certificates and documents for verification. Check out the article for a detailed list of all the documents to take along.
Once verified, you will have to generate a new password, using which you will fill in your choices. Once you have finalized the choices, you need to lock the choices. Seats will be allotted based on various factors and can be checked on the official website.

We hope that this article cleared all your doubts regarding AP EAMCET Counselling 2019. Good luck!

The post AP EAMCET Counselling 2019 | Detailed Procedure, Choice Filling & Seat Allotment appeared first on Learn CBSE.


NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019 | Check NEET Bihar MBBS Merit List Here

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NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019: NEET Bihar Merit List will be released by Bihar Combined Entrance Competitive Examination (BCECE) Board for admission to UG Medical Dental Courses. NEET MBBS Bihar Merit List will be released in the month of July 2019 which will be followed by NEET Counselling 2019.

NEET Merit List

85% of Seats are covered by State Quota seats are conducted by BCECE 15% of Seats are covered by All India Quota (AIQ) are conducted by MCC. Students who want to participate in NEET Counselling for state quota seats will have to submit an application form to State counseling authority. All the applications received by state board will be processed they will release NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List. Students whose names are present in the rank list will be called for NEET Bihar Counselling 2019.

Based on the NEET UG 2019 Marks secured by students, NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List will comply. You can download NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List once it will be released by Bihar Officials. Read on to find more about NEET Bihar Counselling NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019.

Latest: NEET Result 2019 has been released on June 5th, 2019, Click here to check results.

NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List for 85% State Quota Seats

Following details are to be noted regarding Bihar NEET Merit List for 85% State Quota Seats:

  • Those Students who qualified NEET 2019 from Bihar State must participate in Bihar NEET Counselling for State Quota Seats by registering with BCECE Board.
  • The board will process the applications will release the Bihar NEET MBBS Rank List 2019
  • NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List will be published on the basis of marks secured in NEET 2019.
  • NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List will be published on the official website of BCECE Board.
  • Students will be called for Bihar NEET 2019 Counselling based on the Bihar NEET MBBS Rank LIst.

How To Download NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019?

BCECE Board will publish the Bihar NEET Rank List on the BCECE official website bceceboard.bihar.gov.in. Follow the following steps to download NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019:

  • Step – 1: Visit the official website bceceboard.bihar.gov.in.
  • Step – 2: Now search for Candidates corner section or the Latest Updates section to download Bihar UGMAC NEET Merit List 2019.
  • Step – 3: Click on the link which shows NEET 2019 Bihar merit list as PDF
  • Step – 4: On-screen NEET 2019 Bihar merit list will display as PDF.
  • Step – 5: Now search your name or registration number by pressing Ctrl + F on your keyboard. Download NEET MBBS Bihar Merit List PDF for future purpose.

Download Links NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019

Once the NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019 is released, you can download them from the table below:

QuotaMerit list 2019
 Government Medical / Dental Available Soon
 Private Medical / Dental Available Soon
 Muslim Minority  Private Medical / Dental Available Soon
 Sikh Minority Private Medical / Dental Available Soon
 NRI Quota Private Medical / Dental Available Soon

Details Mentioned On NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019

The following details will be mentioned on NEET MBBS Bihar rank List 2019:

  1. Student’s Name
  2. Student’s Roll Number
  3. NEET AIR
  4. Date of Birth
  5. Category
  6. NEET Marks
  7. UGMAC ID
  8. NEET Percentile
  9. State Rank

Know Everything about NEET UG Counselling

NEET MBBS Bihar Merit List NEET Cutoff 2019

Candidates will have to clear the NEET cutoff in order to qualify for NEET 2019 counselling admissions. Check out the NEET cutoff percentile the corresponding scores in the table below:

CategoryNEET Percentile CutoffNEET 2019 Cutoff MarksNEET 2018 Cutoff Marks
General50 Percentile701-134691-119
OBC / SC / ST40 Percentile133-107118-96
PwD – Gen45 Percentile133-120118-107
PwD – SC/ ST/ OBC40 Percentile119-107106-96

NEET MBBS Bihar Merit List: NEET Tier Breaker Criteria

When two or more students will get the same NEET marks, the following NEET Tie-breaking criteria will use to break the tie:

  • Students with higher marks in Biology will be considered
  • After this, the tie continues students with higher marks in Chemistry will be considered.
  • After applying the above two tie criteria, tie still continues student with a lower number of incorrect responses will be given a better rank.
  • Even after the tie continues, the candidate older in age will be given preference.

NEET MBBS Bihar Merit List – Bihar NEET Counselling 2019

Bihar NEET MBBS Merit List will comprise all the candidates who have qualified in NEET and have registered for Bihar NEET counseling. The different steps involved in Bihar NEET counseling 2019 are as under:

  1. Candidates will have to visit the verification centers/reporting centers as per the schedule with all the relevant documents to get their documents verified.
  2. Once the documents are verified successfully, candidates can enter their preferences. A seat may be allotted to the candidates based upon their rank, choice preference, availability of seats, reservations and other parameters.
  3. Candidates will have to pay the prescribed fees and report to the college once they accept the allocated seat. by reporting to the college or they can choose to participate in the further rounds of counseling.

NEET MBBS Bihar Merit List – Documents To Get Verified

The documents required for the verification process are listed below

  1. Original Admit Card of NEET (UG) 2019
  2. Passing Certificate/Marks Sheet /Admit Card of Matric or Equivalent Examination
  3. Passing Certificate/Marks Sheet/Admit Card of Intermediate/Equivalent Examination
  4. Certificate for Residence of Bihar duly issued by concerned C.O. countersigned by DM/ SDO(Civil) of permanent residence
  5. Caste Certificate duly issued by concerned C.O. countersigned by DM / SDO (Civil).
  6. Six copies of passport size photograph which was posted on the Admit Card NEET (UG) – 2018
  7. Copy of Aadhar Card
  8. Printout of filling up the online application form
  9. All the certificates in original as per the requirements mentioned on the prospectus of UGMAC – 2019

https://www.learncram.com/ml-aggarwal/ml-aggarwal-class-10-solutions-for-icse-maths-chapter-2-mcqs/

We hope we have provided all the necessary information about NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019. If you have any doubt regarding this post or NEET MBBS Bihar rank List, please comment in the comment section we will get back to you at the earliest.

The post NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019 | Check NEET Bihar MBBS Merit List Here appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths

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NCERT Solutions for class 10 Maths

CBSE Class 10 Mathematics Syllabus for Term 1 (SA1)

Chapter 1 Real Numbers

Formulae Handbook for CBSE Class 10 Science and Maths
Chapter 2 Polynomials

Chapter 3 Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables

Chapter 6 Triangles

Chapter 8 Introduction to Trigonometry

Chapter 14 Statistics

 

CBSE Class 10 Mathematics Syllabus for Term 2 (SA2)

Chapter 4 Quadratic Equations

Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions

Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry

Chapter 9 Some Applications of Trigonometry

Chapter 10 Circles

Chapter 11 Constructions

Chapter 12 Areas Related to Circles

Chapter 13 Surface Areas And Volumes

Chapter 15 Probability

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions

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NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions

NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Exercise 5.1

Choose the correct answers from the given four options:
Question 1.
In an AP, if d = -4, n = 7, an = 4, then a is equal to
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 20
(D) 28
Solution:
(D)
In an AP,
an = a + (n – 1 )d
⇒ 4 = a + (7 – 1) (-4) [by given conditions]
⇒ 4 = a + 6(-4) ⇒ 4 + 24 = a
∴ a = 28

Question 2.
In an AP, if a = 3.5, d = 0,n = 101, then an will be
(A) 0
(B) 3.5
(C) 103.5
(D) 104.5
Solution:
(B)
In an AP,
an = a + (n – 1)d = 3.5 + (101 – 1) × 0
[by given conditions]
∴. an = 3.5

Question 3.
The list of numbers – 10, – 6, – 2, 2,… is
(A) an AP with d = -16
(B) anAP with d = 4
(C) an AP with d = – 4
(D) not an AP
Solution:
(B)
The given numbers are -10, -6, -2, 2,
Here, a1 = -10, a2 = -6, a3 = 2 and a4 = 2,….
Since a2 – a1 = -6 – (-10) = -6 + 10 = 4
a3 – a2 = -2 – (-6) = -2 + 6 = 4
a4 – a3 = 2-(-2) = 2 + 2 = 4
………….
…………
………….
Each successive term of given list has same difference i.e., 4
So, the given list forms an AP with common difference, d = 4

Question 4.
The 11th term of the AP: -5, \frac{-5}{2} , 0, \frac{5}{2},…
(A) -20
(B) 20
(C) -30
(D) 30
Solution:
(B)
Given AP -5, \frac{-5}{2} , 0, \frac{5}{2},…
Here, a = -5, d = \frac{-5}{2}+5=\frac{5}{2}
∴ an = a + (11 – l)d [∵ an = a + (n – 1)d]
= -5 + (10) × \frac{5}{2}
= -5 + 25 = 20

Question 5.
The first four terms of an AP, whose first term is -2 and the common difference is -2, are
(A) -2, 0, 2, 4
(B) -2, 4, -8, 16
(C) -2, -4, -6, -8
(D) -2, -4, -8, -16
Solution:
(C)
Let the first four terms of an AP are
a, a + d, a + 2d and a + 3d
Given, that first term, a = -2 and common
difference, d = -2, then we have an AP as follows
-2, -2 -2, -2 + 2(-2), -2 + 3(-2)
= -2, -4, -6, -8

Question 6.
The 21st term of the AP whose first two terms are -3 and 4 is
(A) 17
(B) 137
(C) 143
(D) -143
Solution:
(B)
Given, first two terms of an AP are a = -3 and a + d = 4
⇒ — 3 + d = 4
Common difference, d = 7
⇒ a21 = a + (21 – 1)d [∵ an = a + (n – 1)d]
= -3 +(20)7
= -3 + 140 = 137

Question 7.
If the 2nd term ofanAPis13and the 5th term is 25, what is its 7th term?
(A) 30
(B) 33
(C) 37
(D) 38
Solution:
(B)
Given a2 = 13 and a5 = 25
⇒ a + (2 – 1)d = 13 [∵ an = a + (n – 1)d]
and a + (5 – 1 )d = 25
⇒ a + d = 13 ……….. (i)
and a + 4d = 25 ………… (ii)
On subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq. (ii), we get
3d = 25 – 13 = 12
⇒ d = 4
From Eq. (i) a = 13 – 4 = 9
∴ a7 = a + (7 – 1)d = 9 + 6 × 4 = 33

Question 8.
Which term of the AP: 21, 42, 63, 84,… is 210?
(A) 9th
(B) 10th
(C) 11th
(D) 12th
Solution:
(B)
Let nth term of the given AP be 210.
Here, first term, a = 21
and common difference, d = 42 – 21 = 21 and an = 210
∵ an = a + (n – 1 )d
⇒ 210 = 21 + (n- 1)21
⇒ 210 = 21 + 21n- 21
⇒ 210 = 21n ⇒ n = 10
Hence, the 10th term of an AP is 210.

Question 9.
If the common difference of an AP is 5, then what is a18 – a13?
(A) 5
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 30
Solution:
(C)
Given, the common difference of AP i.e., d = 5
Now, a18 – a13 = a + (18 – 1)d – [a + (13 – 1)d]
[∵ an = a + (n – 1)d] = a + (17 × 5) – a – (12 × 5)
= 85 – 60 = 25

Question 10.
What is the common difference of an AP in which a18 – a14 = 32?
(A) 8
(B) -8
(C) -4
(D) 4
Solution
(A)
Given, a18 – a14 = 32
⇒ a + (18 – 1)d – [a + (14 – 1)d] = 32
[∵an = a + (n – 1 )d]
⇒ a + 17d – a – 13d = 32
⇒ 4d = 32
∴ d = 8
which is the required common difference of an AP.

Question 11.
Two APs have the same common difference. The first term of one of these is -1 and that of the other is – 8. Then the difference between their 4th terms is
(A) -1
(B) -8
(C) 7
(D) -9
Solution:
(C)
Let the common difference of two APs are d1 and d2, respectively.
By given condition, d1 = d2 = d ……….. (i)
Let the first term of first AP(a1) = -1
and the first term of second AP (a2) = -8
We know that, the nth term of an AP
Tn = a + (n – 1)d
∴ 4th term of first AP,
T4 = a1 + (4 – 1)d = -1 + 3d
and 4th term of second AP,
T4‘ = a2 + (4 – 1)d = -8 + 3d
Now, the difference between their 4th terms is i.e.,
\left|T_{4}-T_{4}^{\prime}\right| = (-1 + 3d) – (-8 + 3d)
= -1 + 3d + 8 – 3d = 7
Hence, the required difference is 7.

Question 12.
If 7 times the 7th term of an AP is equal to 11 times its 11th term, then its 18th term will be
(A) 7
(B) 11
(C) 18
(D) 0
Solution:
(D)
According to the question,
7a7 = 11a11
⇒ 7[a + (7 – 1)d] = 11 [d + (11 – 1)d]
[∵ an = a + (n – 1 )d]
⇒ 7(o + 6d = 11 (a + 10d)
⇒ 7a + 42d = 11a + 10d
⇒ 4a + 68d = 0
⇒ 2(2a + 34d) = 0
⇒ 2a + 34d = 0
⇒ a + 17d = 0 …………. (i)
∴ 18th term of an AP, a18 = a + (18 – 1)d = a + 17d = 0
[from Eq(i)]

Question 13.
The 4th term from the end of the AP: -11, -8, -5, 49 is
(A) 37
(B) 40
(C) 43
(D) 58
Solution:
(B)
We know that, the nth term of an AP from the end is
an = l -(n – 1 )d …………. (i)
Here, l = Last term = 49 [given]
Common difference, d = -8 – (-11) = -8 + 11 = 3
From Eq (i), a4 = 49 – (4 – 1) 3 = 49 – 9 = 40

Question 14.
The famous mathematician associated with finding the sum of the first 100 natural numbers is
(A) Pythagoras
(B) Newton
(C) Gauss
(D) Euclid
Solution:
(C)
Gauss is the famous mathematician associated with finding the sum of the first 100 natural numbers i.e., 1, 2, 3,100.

Question 15.
If the first term of an AP is -5 and the common difference is 2, then the sum of the first 6 terms is
(A) 0
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 15
Solution:
(A)
Given, a = -5 and d = 2
∴ S6 = \frac{6}{2} [2a + (6 – 1)d] [∵ Sn = \frac{n}{2} [2a + (n – 1)d]
= 3[2(-5) + 5(2)] = 3(-10 + 10) = 0

Question 16.
The sum of first 16 terms of the AP: 10, 6 2, … is
(A) -320
(B) 320
(C) -352
(D) -400
Solution:
(A)
Given, AP is 10, 6, 2,
Here, first term a = 10, common difference, d = – 4
∴ S16 = \frac{16}{2} [2a + (16 – 1)d]
[∵ Sn = \frac{n}{2} [2a + (n – 1)d]
= 8[2 × 10 + 15(-4)]
= 8(20 – 60) = 8(-40) = -320

Question 17.
In an AP if a = 1, a„ = 20 and Sn = 399, then n is
(A) 19
(B) 21
(C) 38
(D) 42
Solution:
(C)
[∵ Sn = \frac{n}{2} [2a + (n – 1)d]
399 = \frac{n}{2} [2 × 1 + (n – 1)d] [∵ a = 1]
798 = 2n + n(n – 1)d ………… (i)
and, an = 20
⇒ a + (n-l)d = 20 [∵ an = a + (n – 1)d]
⇒ 1 + (n – 1)d = 20⇒ (n – 1d = 19 ……… (ii)
Using Eq. (ii) in Eq. (i), we get
798 = 2n + 19 n
⇒ 798 = 21n
∴ n = \frac{798}{21}

Question 18.
The sum of first five multiples of 3 is
(A) 45
(B) 55
(C) 65
(D) 75
Solution:
(A)
The first five multiples of 3 are 3, 6, 9,12 and 15.
Here, first term, a = 3, common difference, d = 6 – 3 = 3 and number of terms n = 5
∴ S5 = \frac{5}{2} [2a + (5 – 1)d]
[∵ Sn = \frac{n}{2} [2a + (n – 1)d]
= \frac{5}{2} [2 × 3 + 4 × 3] = \frac{5}{2} (6 + 12) = 5 × 9 = 45

NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Exercise – 5.2

Question 1.
Which of the following form an AP? Justify your answer.
(i) -1,-1,-1,-1,…
(ii) 0,2,0,2,…
(iii) 1,1,2,2,3,3,…
(iv) 11,22,33,…
(v) \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}, \frac{1}{4}, \ldots .
(vi) 2,22, 23, 24, …
(vii) \sqrt{3}, \sqrt{12}, \sqrt{27}, \sqrt{48}, \ldots
Solution:
(i) Here, t1 = -1, t2 = -1, t3 = -1 and t2 = -1
t2 – t1 = -1 + 1 = 0
t3 – t2 = —1 + 1 = 0
t4 – t3 = -1 + 1 = 0
Clearly, the difference of successive terms is same, therefore given list of numbers form an AP.

(ii) Here, t1 = 0, t2 = 2, t3 = 0 and t4 = 2
t2 – t1 = 2 – 0 = 2
t3 – t2 = 0 – 2 = -2
t4 – t3 = 2 – 0 = 2
Clearly, the difference of successive terms is not same, therefore given list of numbers does not form an AP.

(iii) Here, t1 = 1, t2 = 1, t3 = 2 and t4 = 2
t2 – t1 = 1 -1 = 0
t3 – t2 = 2 – 1 = 1
t4 – t3 = 2 – 2 = 0
Clearly, the difference of successive terms is not same, therefore given list of numbers does not form an AP.

(iv) Here, t1= 11, t2 = 22 and t3 = 33
t2 – t1 = 22 – 11 = 11
t3 – t2 = 33 – 22 = 11
Clearly, the difference of successive terms is same, therefore given list of numbers form an AP.

(v)
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 1
Clearly, the difference of successive terms is not same, therefore given list of numbers does not form an AP.

(vi) 2, 22, 23, 24,… i.e., 2, 4, 8,16….
Here, t1 = 2, t2 = 4, t3 = 8 and t4 = 16
t2 – t1 = 4 – 2 = 2
t3 – t2 = 8 – 4 = 4
t4 – t3 = 16 – 8 = 8
Clearly, the difference of successive terms is not same, therefore given list of numbers does not form an AP.

(vii)
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 2
Clearly, the difference of successive terms is same, therefore given list of numbers form an AP.

Question 2.
Justify whether it is true to say that -1, \frac{-3}{2}, -2, \frac{5}{2} forms an AP as a2 – a1 = a3 – a2.
Solution:
False
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 3
Clearly, the difference of successive terms is not same, all though, a2 – a1 = a3 – a2 but a3 – a2 ≠ a4 – a3, therefore it does not form an AP.

Question 3.
For the AP: -3, -7, -11,can we find directly a30 – a20 without actually finding a30 and a20? Give reasons for your answer.
Solution:
True
∵ nth term of an AP, an = a + (n – 1)d
∴ a30 = a + (30 – 1 )d = a + 29d
and a20 = a + (20 -1)d = a + 19d ………… (i)
Now, a30 – a20 = -(a + 29d) – (a + 19d) = 10d
and from given AP,
Common difference, d = -7 – (-3) = -7 + 3 = -4
∴ a30 – a20 = 10(-4) = -40 [From (i)]

Question 4.
Two APs have the same common difference. The first term of one AP is 2 and that of the other is 7. The difference between their 10th terms is the same as the difference between their 21st terms, which is the same as the difference between any two corresponding terms. Why?
Solution:
Let the same common difference of two AP’s is d. Given that, the first term of first AP and second AP are 2 and 7 respectively, then the AP’s are
2, 2 + d, 2 + 2d, 2 + 3d ….
and 7, 7 + d, 7 + 2d, 7 + 3d ….
Now, 10th terms of first and second AP’s are 2 + 9d and 7 + 9d, respectively
[∵ a10 = a + (10 – 1 )d]
So, their difference is 7 + 9d – (2 + 9d) = 5 Also, 21st terms of first and second AP’s are 2 + 20d and 7 + 20d, respectively
[∵ a21 = a + (21 – 1 )d]
So, their difference is 7 + 20d – (2 + 20d) = 5
Also, if the an and bn are nth terms of first and second AP.
Then, bn – an = [7 + (n – 1 )d)] – [2 + (n – 1)d] = 5
Hence, the difference between any two corresponding terms of such AP’s is the same as the difference between their first terms.

Question 5.
Is 0 a term of the AP: 31, 28, 25, …? Justify your answer.
Solution:
Let 0 be the nth term of given AP i.e., an = 0
Given that, first term a = 31,
common difference, d = 28 – 31 = – 3
The nthterms of an AP, is
an = a + (n – 1 )d
⇒ 0 = 31 + (n – 1)(-3)
⇒ 3(n – 1) = 31
⇒ n – 1 = \frac{31}{3}
∴ n = \frac{31}{3}+1=\frac{34}{3}=11 \frac{1}{3}
Since, n should be positive integer. So, 0 is not a term of the given AP.

Question 6.
The taxi fare after each km, when the fare is Rs 15 for the first km and Rs 8 for each additional km, does not form an AP as the total fare (in Rs) after each km is 15, 8, 8, 8,… Is the statement true? Give reasons.
Solution:
Because the total fare (in Rs) after each km is
15, (15 + 8), (15 + 2 × 8), (15 + 3 × 8),…
= 15, 23, 31, 39,…
Let t1 = 15, t2 = 23, t3 = 31 and t4 = 39
Now, t2 – t1 = 23 – 15 = 8
t3 – t2 = 31 – 23 = 8
t4 – t3 = 39 – 31 = 8
Since, all the successive terms of the given list have same difference i.e., common difference is 8. Hence, the total fare after each km form an AP.

Question 7.
In which of the following situations, do the lists of numbers involved form an AP? Give reasons for your answers.
(i) The fee charged from a student every month by a school for the whole session, when the monthly fee is Rs 400.
(ii) The fee charged every month by a school from Classes I to XII, when the monthly fee for Class I is Rs 250, and it increases by Rs 50 for the next higher class.
(iii) The amount of money in the account of Varun at the end of every year when Rs 1000 is deposited at simple interest of 10% per annum.
(iv) The number of bacteria in a certain food item after each second, when they double in every second.
Solution:
(i)The fee charged from a student every month by a school for the whole session is 400, 400, 400, 400,…. which forms an AP, with common difference (d) = 400 – 400 = 0

(ii) The fee charged every month by a school from classes I to XII is
250, (250 + 50), (250 + 2 × 50), (250 + 3 × 50),…
i.e., 250, 300, 350, 400,…
which forms an AP, with common difference (d) = 300 – 250 = 50

NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 4
So, the amount of money in the account of Varun at the end of every year is
1000, (1000 + 100 × 1), (1000 + 100 × 2), (1000 + 100 × 3),….
i.e., 1000, 1100, 1200, 1300,….
which forms an AP, with common difference (d) = 1100 – 1000 = 100

(iv) Let the number of bacteria in a certain food = x
Since, they double in every second .-. x, 2x, 2(2x), 2(2 . 2 . x),…
i.e., x, 2x, 4x, 8x,…
Now, let t1 = x, t2 = 2x, t3 = 4x and t4 = 8x
t2 – t1 = 2x – x = x
t3 – t2 = 4x – 2x = 2x
t4 – t3 = 8x – 4x = 4x
Since, the difference between each successsive term is not same. So, the list does form an AP.

Question 8.
Justify whether it is true to say that the following are the nth terms of an AP.
(i) 2n – 3
(ii) 3n2 + 5
(iii) 1 + n + n2
Solution:
Yes. Here an = 2n – 3
Put n = 1, a1 = 2(1) – 3 = -1
Put n = 2, a2 = 2(2) – 3 = 1
Put n = 3, a3 = 2(3) – 3 = 3
Put n = 4, a4 = 2(4) – 3 = 5
List of number becomes -1, 1, 3, 5….
Here, a2 – a1 = 1 – (-1) = 1 + 1 = 2
a3 – a2 = 3 – 1 = 2
a4 – a3 = 5 – 3 = 2
∵ a2 – a1 = a3 – a2 = a4 – a3 = …………
Hence, 2n – 3 is the nth term of an AP.

(ii) No. Here an = 3n2 + 5
Put n = 1, a1 = 3(1)2 + 5 = 8
Put n = 2, a2 = 3(2)2 + 5 = 3(4) + 5 = 17
Put n = 3, a1 = 3(3)2 + 5 = 3(9) + 5 = 27 + 5 = 32
So, the list of number becomes 8, 17, 32,….
Here, a2 – a1 = 17 – 8 = 9
a3 – a2 = 32 -17 = 15
∴ a2 – a1 ≠ a3 – a2
Since, the difference of the successive term is not same,. So, it does not form an AP.

(iii) No. Here an = 1 + n + n2
Put n = 1, a1 = 1 + 1 + (1)2 = 3
Put n = 2, a2 = 1 + 2 + (2)2 = 1 + 2 + 4 = 7
Put n = 3, a3 = 1 + 3 + (3)2 = 1+ 3 + 9 = 13
So, the list of number becomes 3, 7, 13,…
Here, a2 – a1 = 7 – 3 = 4
a3 – a2 = 13 – 7 = 6
∴ a2 – a1 ≠ a3 – a2
Since, the difference of the successive term is not same. So it does not form an AP.

NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Exercise – 5.3

1. Match the APs given in column A with suitable common differences given in column B
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 5
Solution:
(A1) → B4; (A2) → B5; (A3) → B1 and (A4) → B2;
(A1) : 2, -2, -6, -10,…
Here, common difference, d = -2 -2 = -4
(A2) :an = a + (n- 1 )d
⇒ 0 = -18 + (10 – 1)d
18 = 9d
∴ Common difference, d = 2
(A3): fa10 = 6, a = 0
⇒ a + (10 – 1)d = 6 [ ∵ an = a + (n – 1 )d]
⇒ 0 + 9d = 6 [ ∵ a = 0(given)]
d = \frac{6}{9}=\frac{2}{3}
(A4): a2 = 13, a4 = 3
⇒ a + (2 – 1)d = 13 [ ∵ an = a + (n – 1 )d]
⇒ a + d = 13 ………… (i)
and a4 = 3 ⇒ a + (4 – 1)d = 3
∴ a + 3d = 3 …………. (ii)
On subtracting Eq(i) from Eq(ii), we get
2d = -10
⇒ d = 5

Question 2.
Verify that each of the following is an AP, and then write its next three terms.
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 6
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 7
Therefore, the each successive term of the given list has the same difference, So, it forms an AP.
The next three terms are,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 8
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 9
Therefore, the each successive term of the given list has same difference.
It forms an AP.
The next three terms are,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 10

(iv) Here, a1 = a + 6, a2 = (a + 1) + b,
a3 = (a+ 1) + (b +1)
a2 – a1 = (a + 1) + b – (a + b) = a + 1 + b – a – b = 1
a3 – a2 = (a + 1) + (b + 1) — [(a + 1) + b] = a + 1 + b + 1 – a – 1 – b = l
∵ a2 – a1 = a3 – a2 = 1
Therefore, the each successive term of the given list has same difference.
So, it forms an AP.
The next three terms are,
a4 =a1 + 3d = a + b + 3(1) = (a + 2) + (b + 1)
a5 = a1 + 4d = a + b + 4(1) = (a + 2) + (b + 2)
a6 = a1 + 5d = a + b + 5(1) = (a + 3) + (b + 2)

(v) Here, a1 = a, a2 = 2a + 1, a3 = 3a + 2 and a4 = 4a + 3
a2 – a1 = 2a + 1 – a = a + 1
a3 – a2 = 3a + 2 – 2a – 1 = a + 1
a4 – a3 = 4a + 3 – 3a – 2 = a + 1
∵ a2 – a1 = a3 – a2 = a4 – a3 = a + 1
Therefore, the each successive term of the given list has same difference.
So, it forms an AP.
The next three terms are,
a5 = a + 4d = a + 4 (a + 1) = 5a + 4
a6 = a + 5d = a + 5(a + 1) = 6a + 5
a7 = a + 6 d = a + 6 (a + 1) = 7a + 6

Question 3.
Write the first three terms of the APs when a and d are as given below:
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 11
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 12
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 13

Question 4.
Find a, b and c such that the following numbers are in AP: a, 7, b, 23, c.
Solution:
Since a, 7, b, 23, c are in AP.
∴ 7 – a = b – 7 = 23 – b = c – 23
Taking second and third terms, we get
b – 7 = 23 – b
⇒ 2b = 30
∴ b = 15
Taking first and second terms, we get
7 – a = b – 7
⇒ 7 – 8 = 15 – 7 [∵ b = 15]
⇒ 7 – a = 8
∴ a = -1
Taking third and fourth terms, we get
23 – b = c – 23
⇒ 23 – 15 = c – 23 [vh 15]
⇒ 8 = c – 23
⇒ 8 + 23 = c ⇒ c = 31
Hence, a = -1, & = 15, c = 31

Question 5.
Determine the AP whose fifth term is 19 and the difference of the eighth term from the thirteenth term is 20.
Solution:
Let the first term of an AP be a and common difference d.
Given, a5 = 19 and a13 – a8 = 20 [given]
∴ a5 = a + (5 – 1)d = 19 and
[a + (13 – 1 )d] – [a + (8 – 1 )d] = 20
[∵ an = a + (n- 1 )d]
⇒ a + 4d = 19 …………. (i)
and a + 12d – a – 7d = 20 ⇒ 5d = 20
∴ d = 4
On putting d = 4 in Eq. (i), we get
a + 4(4) = 19
8 + 16 = 19
8 = 19 – 16 = 3
So, required AP is a, a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d …. i.e.,
3, 3 + 4, 3 + 2(4), 3 + 3(4),…. i.e., 3, 7, 11, 15, …

Question 6.
The 26th, 11th and the last term of an AP are 0, 3 and -\frac{1}{5} respectively. Find the common
difference and the number of terms.
Solution:
Let the first term, common difference and number of terms of an AP are a, d and n, respectively.
We know that, if last term of an AP is known, then
l = 8 + (11-1 )d …………. (i)
and nth term of an AP is
Tn = a + (n – 1)d …………. (ii)
Given that, 26th term of an AP = 0
⇒ T26 = a + (26 – 1 )d = 0 [from Eq.(i)]
⇒ 8 + 25d = 0 …………. (iii)
11th term of an AP = 3
⇒ T11 = s + (11 – 1)d = 3 [from Eq.(ii)]
⇒ 8 + 10d = 3 ……………… (iv)
and last term of an AP = -1/ 5
⇒ l = a + (n – 1 )d [from Eq (i)]
⇒ -1/5 = a + (n – 1 )d ………… (v)
Now, subtracting Eq(iv) from Eq(iii),
15 d = – 3
⇒ d = -\frac{1}{5}
Put the value of d in Eq.(iii), we get
a + 25\left(-\frac{1}{5}\right) = 0
⇒ a – 5 = 0 ⇒ 8 = 5
Now put the value of a, d in Eq. (v), we get
-1/5 = 5 + (n – 1)(-1/5)
⇒ -1 = 25 – (n – 1)
⇒ -1 = 25 – n + 1
⇒ n = 25 + 2 = 27
Hence, the common difference and number of terms are -1/ 5 and 27, respectively.

Question 7.
The sum of the 5th and the 7th terms of an AP is 52 and the 10th term is 46. Find the AP.
Solution:
Let the first term and common difference of AP are a and d, respectively.
According to the question,
a5 + a7 = 52 and a10 = 46
⇒ a + (5 – l)d + a + (7 – 1)d = 52
[∵ an = a + (n- 1 )d]
and a + (10 – 1 )d = 46
⇒ a + 4d + a + 6d = 52
and a + 9d = 46
⇒ 2a + 10d = 52
and a + 9d = 46
⇒ a + 5d = 26 ………….. (i)
a + 9d = 46 ……………. (ii)
On subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq. (ii), we get
4d = 20 ⇒ d = 5 From Eq. (i) a = 26 – 5(5) = 1
So, required AP is a, a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d …. i.e., 1, 1 + 5, 1 + 2(5), 1 + 3(5)… i.e., 1, 6,11,16,….

Question 8.
Find the 20th term of the AP whose 7th term is 24 less than the 11th term, first term being 12.
Solution:
Let the first term, common difference and number of terms of an AP are a, d and n, respectively.
Given that, first term (a) = 12 Now by given condition,
7th term (T7) = 11th term (T11) – 24
[∵ nth term of an AP, Tn = a + (n – 1 )d]
⇒ a + (7 – 1)d = a + (11 – l)d – 24
⇒ a + 6d = a + 10d – 24
⇒ 24 = 4d ⇒ d = 6
∴ 20th term of AP, T20 = a + (20 – 1)d
= 12 + 19 × 6 = 126
Hence, the required 20th term of an AP is 126.

Question 9.
If the 9th term of an AP is zero, prove that its 29th term is twice its 19th term.
Solution:
Let the first term, common difference and number of terms of an AP are a, d and n respectively.
Given that, 9th term of an AP, i.e., T9 = 0
[∵ nth term of an AP, Tn = a + (n – 1 )d]
⇒ a + (9 – 1)d = 0
⇒ a + 8d = 0 ⇒ a = -8 d ………….. (i)
Now, its 19th term, T19 = a + (19 – 1)d
= -8d + 18d [From Eq.(i)]
= 10d …………… (ii)
and its 29th term, T29 = a + (29 – 1)d
= -8d + 28d = 20d = 2 × (10d)
[from Eq.(i)]
⇒ T29 = 2 × T19
Hence, its 29th term is twice its 19th term.

Question 10.
Find whether 55 is a term of the AP: 7, 10, 13,— or not. If yes, find which term it is.
Solution:
Yes. Let the first term, common difference and the number of terms of an AP are a, d and n respectively.
Let the nth term of an AP be 55. i.e., Tn = 55
We know that, the nth term of an AP,
Tn = a + (n – 1 )d …………….. (i)
Given that, first term (a) = 7
and common difference (d) = 10 – 7 = 3
From Eq. (i), 55 = 7 + (n – 1) × 3
⇒ 55 = 7 + 3M – 3 = 4 + 3n
⇒ 3n = 51
∴ n = 17
Since, n is a positive integer. So 55 is a term of the AP.
Since, n = 17
Therefore, 17th term of an AP is 55.

Question 11.
Determine k so that k2+ 4k + 8, 2k2 + 3k + 6, 3k2 + 4k + 4 are three consecutive terms of an AP.
Solution:
Since, k2 + 4k + 8, 2k2 + 3k + 6 and 3k2 + 4k+ 4 are consecutive terms of an AP.
∴ 2k2+ 3k + 6- (k2 + 4k + 8)
= 3k2 + 4k + 4 – (2k2 + 3k + 6) = Common difference
⇒ 2k2 + 3k + 6 – k2 – 4k – 8 = 3k2 + 4k + 4 – 2k2 – 3k – 6
⇒ k2 – k – 2 = k2 + k – 2
⇒ -k = k ⇒ 2k = 0 ⇒ k = 0

Question 12.
Split 207 into three parts such that these are in AP and the product of the two smaller parts is 4623.
Solution:
Let the three parts of the number 207 are (a – d), a and (a + d), which are in AP.
Now, by given condition,
⇒ Sum of these parts = 207
⇒ a – d + a + a + d = 207
⇒ 3a = 207
a = 69
Given that, product of the two smaller parts = 4623
⇒ a(a -d) = 4623
⇒ 69 . (69 – d) = 4623
⇒ 69 – d = 67
⇒ d = 69 – 67 = 2
So, first part = a – d = 69 – 2 = 67,
Second part = a = 69
and third part = n + d = 69 + 2 = 71
Hence, required three parts are 67, 69, 71.

Question 13.
The angles of a triangle are in AP. The greatest angle is twice the least. Find all the angles of the triangle.
Solution:
Given that, the angles of a triangle are in AP.
Let A, B and C are angles of a ∆ABC
B = \frac{A+C}{2}
⇒ 2B = A + C …(i)
We know that, sum of all interior angles of a ∆ABC is 180° ’
A + B + C = 180°
⇒ 2B + B = 180° [from Eq(i)]
⇒ 3B = 180°
⇒ B = 60°
Let the greatest and least angles are A and C respectively
A = 2C [by condition] …………. (ii)
Now, put the values of B and A in Eq(i), we get
2 × 60° = 2C + C
⇒ 120° = 3 C
⇒ C = 40°
Put the value of C in Eq(ii), we get
A = 2 × 40°
⇒ A = 80°
Hence, the required angles of a triangle are 80°, 60° and 40°.

Question 14.
If the nth terms of the two APs: 9, 7, 5,… and 24, 21, 18,. .. are the same, find the value of n. Also find that term.
Solution:
Let the first term, common difference
and number of terms of the AP: 9, 7, 5,…. are
a1, d1 and n1, respectively
i.e., first term (a1) = 9
and common difference (d1) = 7 – 9 = -2
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 14
Let the first term, common difference and the number of terms of the AP: 24, 21, 18, … are a2, d2 and n2, respectively
i.e., first term, (a2) = 24
and common difference (d2) = 21 – 24 = -3
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 15
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 16
Hence, the value of n is 16 and that term i.e., nth term is -21.

Question 15.
If sum of the 3rd and the 8th terms of an AP is 7 and the sum of the 7th and the 14th terms is -3, find the 10th term.
Solution:
Let the first term and common difference of an AP are a and d, respectively.
According to the questiuon,
a3 + a8 = 7 and a17 + a14 = -3
⇒ a + (3 – 1)d + a + (8 – 1)d = 7
[∵ an = a + (n- 1 )d]
and a + (7 – 1 )d + a + (14 – 1 )d = -3
⇒ a + 2d + a + 7d = 7
and a + 6d + a + 13d = -3
⇒ 2A + 9d = 7 ………….. (i)
and 2a + 19d = -3 …(ii)
On subtracting Eq(i) from Eq(ii), we get
10d = -10 ⇒ d = -1
2a + 9(-1) = 7 [from Eq(i)]
⇒ 2a – 9 = 7
⇒ 2a = 16
⇒ a = 8
∴ a10 = a + (10 – 1)d
= 8 + 9(-1) = 8 – 9 = -1

Question 16.
Find the 12th term from the end of the AP: -2, -4,-6, …,-100.
Solution:
Given AP : -2, -4, -6,…., -100
Here, first term (a) = -2,
common difference (d) = -4 – (-2) = -2
and the last term (l) = -100
We know that, the nth term of an AP from the
end an = l – (n – 1 )d, where l is the last term
and d is the common difference.
∴ 12th term from the end, i.e.,
a12 = -100 – (12 – 1)(-2)
= -100 + (11)(2) = -100 + 22 = -78
Hence, the 12th term from the end is -78

Question 17.
Which term of the AP: 53, 48, 43,… is the first negative term?
Solution:
Given AP is 53, 48, 43,…
whose first term (a) = 53 and
common difference (d) = 48 – 53 = -5
Let nth term of the AP be the first negative term.
i.e., Tn < 0
[∵ nth term of an AP, Tn = a + (n – 1)d]
⇒ [a + (n – 1 )d] < 0
⇒ 53 + (n – 1)(-5) < 0
⇒ 53 – 5n + 5 < 0
⇒ 58 – 5n < 0 ⇒ 5n > 58
⇒ n > 11.6 ⇒ n = 12
i.e., 12th term is the first negative term of the given AP
∴ T12 = a + (12 – 1)d = 53 + 11 (-5)
= 53 – 55 = – 2 < 0

Question 18.
How many numbers lie between 10 and 300, which when divided by 4 leave a remainder 31
Solution:
Here, the first number is 11, which divided by 4 leave a remainder 3 between 10 and 300
Last term before 300 is 299, which divided by 4 leave remainder 3.
∴ 11, 15, 19, 23, 299
Here, first term (a) = 11,
common difference (d) = 15 – 11 = 4
[∵ nth term, an = a + (n – 1)d]
⇒ 299 = 11 + (n – 1) 4
⇒ 4(n – 1) = 288
⇒ (n – 1) = 72
∴ n = 73

Question 19.
Find the sum of the two middle most terms of theAP: -\frac{4}{3},-1,-\frac{2}{3}, \ldots, 4 \frac{1}{3}
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 17
and a10 = -\frac{4}{3}+9\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)=\frac{9-4}{3}=\frac{5}{3}
So, sum of the two middle most terms
= a9 + a10 = \frac{4}{3}+\frac{5}{3}=\frac{9}{3}=3

Question 20.
The first term of an AP is -5 and the last term is 45. If the sum of the terms of the AP is 120, then find the number of terms and the common difference.
Solution:
Let the first term, common difference and the number of terms of an AP are a, d and n respectively.
Given that, first term (a) = -5 and
last term (l) = 45
Sum of the terms of the AP = 120 ⇒ Sn = 120
We know that, if last term of an AP is known, then sum of n terms of an AP is,
Sn = \frac{n}{2} (a + l)
⇒ 120 = \frac{n}{2}(-5 + 45) ⇒ 120 × 2 = 40 × n
⇒ n = 3 × 2 ⇒ n = 6
∴ Number of terms of an AP is known, then the nth term of an AP is,
l = a + (n – 1)d ⇒ 45 = -5 + (6 – 1)d
⇒ 50 = 5d ⇒ d = 10
So, the common difference is 10.
Hence, number of terms and the common difference of an AP are 6 and 10 respectively.

Question 21.
Find the sum:
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 18
Solution:
(i) Here, first term (a) = 1 and common difference (d) = (-2) – 1 = -3
∵ Sum of n terms of an AP,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 19
We know that, if the last term (l) of an AP is known, then
l = a + (n – 1)d
⇒ -236 = 1 + (n – 1) (-3) [∵ l = -236, given]
⇒ -237 = -(n – 1) × 3
⇒ n – 1 = 79 ⇒ n = 80
Now, put the value of n in Eq(i), we get on
Sn = \frac{80}{2} [5 – 3 × 80] = 40[5- 240]
= 40 × (-235) = -9400
Here, the required sum is -9400
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 20
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 21

Question 22.
Which term of the AP: -2, -7, -12,… will be -77? Find the sum of this AP upto the term -77.
Solution:
Given, AP : -2, -7, -12, ….
Let the nth term of an AP is -77
Then, first term (a) = -2 and
common difference (d) = -7 – (-2) = -7 + 2 = -5
∵ nth term of an AP, Tn = a + (n – 1)d
⇒ -77 = -2 + (n – 1)(-5)
⇒ -75 = -(n – 1) × 5
⇒ (n – 1) = 15 ⇒ n = 16
So, the 16th term of the given AP will be -77
Now, the sum of n terms of an AP is
Sn = \frac{n}{2} [2a + (n – 1)d]
So, sum of 16 terms i.e., upto the term -77
S16 = \frac{16}{2} [2 × (-2) + (n – 1)(-5)l
= 8[-4 + (16 – 1)(-5)] = 8(-4 – 75)
= 8 × (-79)= -632
Hence, the sum of this AP upto the term -77 is -632.

Question 23.
If an = 3 – 4n, show that a1, a2, a3,… form an AP. Also find S20
Solution:
Given that, nth term of the series is
an = 3 – 4n …(i)
Put n = 1, a1 = 3 – 4(1) = 3 – 4 = -1
Put n = 2, a2 = 3 – 4(2) = 3 – 8 = -5
Put n = 3, a3 = 3 – 4(3) = 3 – 12 = -9
Put n = 4, a4 = 3 – 4(4) = 3 – 16 = -13
So, the series becomes -1, -5, -9, -13,….
We see that,
a2 – a1 = -5 – (-1) = -5 + 1 = -4,
a3 – a2 = -9- (-5) = -9 + 5 = -4,
a4 – a3 = -13 – (-9) = -13 + 9 =-4
i.e., a2 – a1 = a3 – a2 = a4 – a3 = … = —4
Since, the each successive term of the series has the same difference. So, it forms an AP. We know that, sum of n terms of an AP,
Sn = \frac{n}{2} [2a + (n – 1)d]
∴ Sum of 20 terms of the AP,
S20 = \frac{20}{2} [2(-1) + (20 – 1)(-4)]
= 10 [-2 + (19)(-4)] = 10(-2 – 76)
= 10 × (-78) = -780
Hence, the required sum of 20 terms i.e., S20 is -780

Question 24.
In an AP, if Sn = n (4n + 1), find the AP.
Solution:
We know that, the nth term of an AP is
an = Sn – Sn – 1
an = n(4n + 1) – (n – 1) {4(n -1) + 1}
[∵ Sn = n (4n + 1)]
⇒ an = 4n2 + n- (n – 1)(4 n – 3)
= 4n2 + n – 4n2 + 3n + 4n – 3 = 8n – 3
Put n = 1, a1 = 8(1) -3 = 5
Put n = 2, a2 = 8(2) – 3 = 16 – 3 = 13
Put n = 3, a3 = 8(3) – 3 = 24 – 3 = 21
Hence, the required AP is 5, 13, 21,….

Question 25.
In an AP, if Sn = 3n2 + 5n and ak = 164, find the value of k.
Solution:
∵(nth term of an AP,
an = Sn – Sn – 1
= 3n2 + 5n – 3(n – 1)2 – 5(w – 1)
[∵ Sn = 3n2 + 5n (given)]
= 3n2 + 511 – 3n2 – 3 + 6n – 5n + 5
⇒ an = 6n + 2 …………… (i)
or ak = 6k + 2 = 164 [∵ ak = 164 (given)]
⇒ 6k = 164 – 2 = 162
∴ k = 27

Question 26.
If Sn denotes the sum of first n terms of an AP, prove that S12 = 3(S8 – S4).
Solution:
Sum of n terms of an AP,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 22

Question 27.
Find the sum of first 17 terms of an AP whose 4th and 9th terms are -15 and -30 respectively.
Solution:
Let the first term, common difference and the number of terms in an AP are a, d and n, respectively.
We know that, the nth term of an AP,
Tn = a + (n – 1)d …………….. (i)
∴ 4th term of an AP,
T4 = a + (4 – 1)d = -15 [given]
⇒ a + 3d = -15 ………………. (ii)
and 9th term of an AP,
T9 = a + (9 – 1)d = -30 [given]
⇒ a + 8d = -30 …………. (iii)
Now, subtract Eq. (ii) from Eq. (iii), we get
5d = -15
⇒ d = -3
Put the value of d in Eq.(ii), we get
a + 3(-3) = -15
⇒ a – 9 = -15 ⇒ a = -15 + 9 = – 6
∵ Sum of first n terms of an AP,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 23
Hence, the required sum of first 17 terms of an AP is -510.

Question 28.
If sum of first 6 terms of an AP is 36 and that of the first 16 terms is 256, find the sum of first 10 terms.
Solution:
Let a and d be the first term and common difference, respectively of an AP.
∵ Sum of n terms of an AP,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 24
∴ S10 = \frac{10}{2} [2a + (10 – 1)d]
= 5[2(1) + 9(2)] = 5(2 + 18) = 5 × 20 = 100
Hence, the required sum of first 10 terms is 100.

Question 29.
Find the sum of all the 11 terms of an AP whose middle most term is 30.
Solution:
Since, the total number of terms (n) = 11 [odd]
∴ Middle most term
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 25

Question 30.
Find the sum of last ten terms of the AP: 8,10, 12,……., 126.
Solution:
For finding the sum of last ten terms, we write the given AP in reverse order.
i.e., 126, 124, 122,…., 12, 10, 8
Here, first term (a) = 126,
common difference (d) = 124 – 126 = – 2
∴ S10 = \frac{10}{2} [2a + (10 – 1)d]
[∵ Sn = \frac{n}{2} [2a + (n – 1)d]]
= 5{2(126) + 9(—2)} = 5(252 – 18)
= 5 × 234 = 1170

Question 31.
Find the sum of first seven numbers which are multiples of 2 as well as of 9.
Solution:
For finding the sum of first seven numbers which are multiples of 2 as well as of 9. Take LCM of 2 and 9 which is 18.
So, the series becomes 18, 36, 54 ….
Here, first term (a) = 18,
common difference d) = 36 – 18 = 18
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 26

Question 32.
How many terms of the AP: -15, -13, -11,— are needed to make the sum -55? Explain the reason for double answer.
Solution:
Let n number of terms are needed to make the sum -55
Here, first term (a) = -15,
common difference (d) = -13 + 15 = 2
∵ Sum of n terms of an AP,
Sn = \frac{n}{2} [2a + (n – 1)d]
⇒ -55 = \frac{n}{2} [2(-15) + (n – 1)2]
[∵ Sn = -55 (given)]
⇒ -55 = -15M + n(n – 1)
⇒ n2 – 16n + 55 = 0
⇒ n2 – 11n – 5n + 55 = 0
[by factorisation method]
⇒ n(n – 11) – 5(n – 11) = 0
⇒ (n – 11)(n – 5) = 0
∴ n = 5, 11
Hence, either 5 or 11 terms are needed to make the sum -55 when n = 5,
AP will be -15, -13, -11, -9, -7,
So, resulting sum will be -55 because all terms are negative.
When n = 11,
AP will be -15, -13, -11, -9, -7, -5, -3, -1, 1, 3, 5
So resulting sum will be -55 because the sum of terms 6th to 11th is zero.

Question 33.
The sum of the first n terms of an AP whose first term is 8 and the common difference is 20 is equal to the sum of first 2n terms of another AP whose first term is – 30 and the common difference is 8. Find n.
Solution:
Given that, first term of the first AP (a) = 8
and common difference of the first AP(d) = 20
Let the number of terms in first AP be n.
∵ Sum of first n terms of an AP,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 27
Now, first term of the second AP(a’) = – 30 and common difference of the second AP(d’) = 8
∴ Sum of first 2n terms of second AP,
S2n = \frac{2 n}{2} [2a’ + (2n – 1)d’]
⇒ S2n = n[2(-30)+(2n – 1)(8)]
⇒ S2n = n[-60 + 16n – 8)]
⇒ S2n = n[16n – 68] ………… (ii)
Now, by given condition,
Sum of first n terms of the first AP = Sum of first 2n terms of the second AP
⇒ Sn — S2n
⇒ n(10n – 2) = n(16n – 68)
[from Eqs.(i) and (ii)]
⇒ n[(16n – 68) – (10n – 2)] = 0
⇒ n(16n – 68 – 10n + 2) = 0
⇒ n(6n – 66) = 0
⇒ n = 11 [∵ n ≠ 0]
Hence, the required value of n is 11.

Question 34.
Kanika was given her pocket money on Jan 1st, 2008. She puts ₹ 1 on Day 1, ₹ 2 on Day 2, ₹ 3 on Day 3, and continued doing so till the end of the month, from this money into her piggy bank. She also spent ₹ 204 of her pocket money and found that at the end of the month she still had ₹ 100 with her. How much was her pocket money for the month?
Solution:
Let her pocket money be ₹ x
Now, she puts 11 on day 1, ₹ 2 on day 2, ₹ 3 on day 3 and so on till the end of the month, from this money into her piggy bank.
i.e., 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + … + 31
which form an AP in which terms are 31 and first
term (a) = 1, common difference (d) = 2 – 1 = 1
∴ Sum of first 31 terms is S31
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 28
So, Kanika takes ₹ 496 till the end of the month from this money.
Also, she spent ₹ 204 of her pocket money and found that at the end of the month she still has ₹ 100 with her.
Now, according to the condition,
(x – 496) – 204 = 100
⇒ x – 700 = 100
∴ x = ₹ 800
Hence, ₹ 800 was her pocket money for the month.

Question 35.
Yasmeen saves ₹ 32 during the first month, ₹ 36 in the second month and ₹ 40 in the third month. If she continues to save in this manner, in how many months will she save Rs 2000?
Solution:
Given that,
Yasmeen, during the first month, saves = ₹ 32
During the second month, saves = ₹ 36
During the third month, saves = ₹ 40
Let Yasmeen saves Rs 2000 during the n months.
Here, we have arithmetic progression 32, 36, 40,…
First term (a) = 32,
common difference (d) = 36 – 32 = 4
and she saves total money, i.e., Sn = ₹ 2000
We know that, sum of first n terms of an AP is,
Sn = \frac{n}{2}[2a + (n – 1)d]
⇒ 2000 = \frac{n}{2} [2 × 32 + (n -1) × 4]
⇒ 2000 = n(32 + 2n – 2)
⇒ 2000 = n(30 + 2n)
⇒ 1000 = n (15 + n)
⇒ 1000 = 15n + n2
⇒ n2 + 15n – 1000 = 0
⇒ n2 + 40n – 25n – 1000 = 0
⇒ n(n + 40) – 25(n + 40) = 0
⇒ (n + 40)(n – 25)= 0
∴ n = 25 [ ∵ n ≠ – 40]
[since, months cannot be negative]
Hence, in 25 months she will save ₹ 2000.

NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Exercise – 5.4

Question 1.
The sum of the first five terms of an AP and the sum of the first seven terms of the same AP is 167. If the sum of the first ten terms of this AP is 235, find the sum of its first twenty terms.
Solution:
Let the first term, common difference and the number of terms of an AP are a, d and n, respectively.
∵ Sum of first n terms of an AP,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 29
Now, by given condition,
S5 + S7 = 167
⇒ 5a + 10 d + 7a + 21 d = 16 7
⇒ 12a + 31d = 167 ………..(iv)
Given that, sum of first ten terms of this AP is 235.
∴ S10 = 235
\frac{10}{2} [2a + (10 – l)d] = 235
⇒ 5(2a + 9d) = 235
⇒ 2a + 9d = 47 …(v)
On multiplying Eq(v) by 6 and then subtracting it into Eq(iv), we get
23d = 115
⇒ d = 5
Now, put the value of d in Eq(v), we get
2a + 9(5) = 47 ⇒ 2a + 45 = 47
⇒ 2a = 47 – 45 = 2 ⇒ a = 1
Sum of first twenty terms of this AP,
S20 = \frac{20}{2} [2a + (20 – 1)d]
= 10[2 × (1) + 19 × (5)] = 10(2 + 95)
= 10 × 97 = 970
Hence, the required sum of its first twenty terms is 970.

Question 2.
Find the
(i) Sum of those integers between 1 and 500 which are multiples of 2 as well as of 5.
(ii) sum of those integers from 1 to 500 which are multiples of 2 as well as of 5.
(iii) sum of those integers from 1 to 500 which are multiples of 2 or 5.
Solution:
(i) Since, multiples of 2 as well as of 5
= LCM of (2, 5) = 10
∴ Multiples of 2 as well as of 5 between 1
and 500 is 10, 20, 30,…, 490
which form an AP with first term (a) = 10 and
common difference (d) = 20 – 10 = 10
nth term an = Last term (l) = 490
∴ Sum of n terms between 1 and 500,
Sn = \frac{n}{2} [a + l] …………. (i)
[∵ an = a + (n – 1)d = l]
⇒ 10 + (n – 1) 10 = 490
⇒ (n -1)10 = 480
⇒ n — 1 = 48 ⇒ n = 49
From Eq (i), S49 = \frac{49}{2} (10 + 490)
= \frac{49}{2} × 500 = 49 × 250 = 12250

(ii) Same as part (i),
But multiples of 2 as well as 5 from 1 to 500 is 10, 20, 30,…, 500.
∴ a = 10, d = 10, an = l = 500
∵ an = a + (n – 1)d = 1
⇒ 500 = 10 + (n- 1)10
⇒ 490 = (n – 1) 10
⇒ n – 1 = 49
⇒ n = 50
∵ Sn = \frac{n}{2} (a + l)
⇒ S50 = \frac{50}{2} (10 + 500) = \frac{50}{2} × 510
= 50 × 255 = 12750

(iii) Since, multiples of 2 or 5 = Multiples of 2 + Multiples of 5 – [Multiples of LCM (2,5) i.e., 10],
∴ Multiples of 2 or 5 from 1 to 500
= List of multiples of 2 from 1 to 500 + List of multiples of 5 from 1 to 500 – List of multiples of 10 from 1 to 500
= (2, 4, 6,…, 500) + (5, 10,15,…, 500) – (10, 20,…, 500) ………. (i)
All of these list form an AP.
Now, number of terms in first list,
500 = 2 + (n1 – 1)2 ⇒ 498 = (n1 -1)2
[∵ a1 = a + (n – 1)d]
⇒ n1 – 1 = 249 ⇒ n1 = 250
Number of terms in second list,
500 = 5 + (n2 – 1)5 ⇒ 495 = (n2 – 1)5
[∵ l = 500]
⇒ 99 = (n2 – 1) ⇒ n2 = 100
and number of terms in third list,
500 = 10 + (n3 – 1)10 ⇒ 490 = (n3 – 1)10
⇒ n3 – 1 = 49 ⇒ n3 = 50
From Eq(i) Sum of multiples of 2 or 5 from 1 to 500
= Sum of (2, 4, 6, …500) + sum of (5,10,…, 500) – Sum of (10, 20,…, 500)
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 30
= (250 × 251) + (505 × 50) – (25 × 510)
= 62750 + 25250 -12750 = 88000 -12750 = 75250

Question 3.
The eighth term of an AP is half its second term and the eleventh term exceeds one third of its fourth term by 1. Find the 15th term.
Solution:
Let a and d the first term and common difference of an AP, respectively
Now, by given condition, a8 = \frac{1}{2} a2
⇒ a + 7d = \frac{1}{2} (a + d) [∵ an = a + (n – 1 )d]
⇒ 2a + 14d = a + d
⇒ a + 13d = 0 …………. (i)
and a11 = \frac{1}{3} a4 + 1 [given]
⇒ a + 10d = \frac{1}{3} [a – 3d] + 1
⇒ 3 a + 30d = a + 3d + 3
⇒ 2a + 27d = 3
From Eqs. (i) and (ii)
2(-13d) + 27d = 3
⇒ -26d + 27d = 3
⇒ d = 3
From Eq. (i),
a + 13(3) = 0
⇒ a = -39
∴ a15 = a + 14d = -39 + 14(3) = -39 + 42 = 3

Question 4.
An AP consists of 37 terms. The sum of the three middle most terms is 225 and the sum of the last three is 429. Find the AP.
Solution:
Since, total number of terms (n) = 37 [odd]
∴ Middle term = \left(\frac{37+1}{2}\right)^{t h} term = 19th term
So, the three middle most terms = 18th, 19th and 20th,
By given condition.
Sum of the three middle most terms = 225
a18 + a19 + a20 = 225
⇒ (a + 17d) + (a + 18d) + (a + 19 d) = 225
[∵ an = a + (n – 1 )d]
⇒ 3a + 54d = 225
⇒ a + 18d = 75 …………. (i)
and sum of the last three terms = 429
⇒ a35 + a36 + a37 = 429
⇒ (a + 34d) + (a + 35d) + (a + 36 d) = 429
⇒ 3a + 105d = 429
⇒ a + 35d = 143 ………….. (ii)
On subtracting Eq.(i) from Eq. (ii), we get
17d = 68
⇒ d = 4
From Eq. (i), a + 18(4) = 75
⇒ a = 75 – 72
⇒ a = 3
∴ Required AP is a, a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d,….
i.e., 3, 3 + 4, 3 + 2(4), 3 + 3(4),…
i.e., 3, 7, 3 + 8, 3 + 12,….
i.e., 3, 7, 11, 15,….

Question 5.
Find the sum of the integers between 100 and 200 that are
(i) divisible by 9
(ii) not divisible by 9
Solution:
(i) The numbers (integers) between 100 and 200 which is divisible by 9 are 108, 117,
126,. .., 198
Let n be the number of terms between 100 and 200 which is divisible by 9.
Here, a = 108, d = 117 – 108 = 9 and
an = l = 198
⇒ 198 = 108 + (n -1)9 [∵ an = l = a + (n – 1)d]
⇒ 90 = (n – 1)9
⇒ n = 11
∴ Sum of terms between 100 and 200 which is divisible by 9 is
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 31
Hence, required sum of the integers between 100 and 200 that are divisible by 9 is 1683.

(ii) The sum of the integers between 100 and 200 which is not divisible by 9 = (sum of total numbers between 100 and 200) – (sum of total numbers between 100 and 200 which is divisible by 9) …………. (i)
Total numbers between 100 and 200 is 101, 102, 103, 199
Here, a = 101, d = 102 – 101 = 1 and
an = l = 199
⇒ 199 = 101 + (n – 1)1 [∵ an = l = a + (n – 1 )d]
⇒ (n – 1) = 98
⇒ n = 99
Sum of terms between 100 and 200,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 32
From Eq(i) sum of the integers between 100 and 200 which is not divisible by 9
= 14850 – 1683 [from part (i)]
= 13167
Hence, the required sum is 13167

Question 6.
The ratio of the 11th term to the 18th term of an AP is 2 : 3. Find the ratio of the 5th term to the 21st term, and also the ratio of the sum of the first five terms to the sum of the first 21 terms.
Solution:
Let a and d be the first term and common difference of an AP respectively.
Given that, a11 : a18 = 2 : 3
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 33
and sum of the first 21 terms,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 34
So, ratio of the sum of the first five terms to the sum of the first 21 terms is
S5 : S21 = 30d : 29d = 5:49

Question 7.
Show that the sum of an AP whose first term is a, the second term b and the last term c, is
equal to \frac{(a+c)(b+c-2 a)}{2(b-a)}
Solution:
Given that, the AP is a, b, , c
Here, first term = a, common difference = b – a
and last term, (l) = an = c
∵ an = l = a + (n – 1 )d
⇒ c = a + (n – 1)(b – a)
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 35

Question 8.
Solve the equation -4 + (-1) + 2 +… + x = 437
Solution:
Given equation is,
-4 + (-1) + 2 + … + x = 437 …(i)
Here, -4 – 1 + 2 + …+ x forms an AP with first term = -4, common difference = – 1 – (-4) = 3,
an = l = x
∵ nth term of an AP, an = l = a + (n – 1 )d
⇒ x = -4 + (n – 1)3 ……………. (ii)
\frac{x+4}{3}=n-1 \Rightarrow n=\frac{x+7}{3}
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions 36
Here, x cannot be negative i.e., x ≠ -53
Also, for x = -53, n will be negative which is not possible
Hence, the required value of x is 50.

Question 9.
Jaspal Singh repays his total loan of ₹ 118000 by paying every month starting with the first instalment of ₹ 1000. If he increases the instalment by ₹ 100 every month, what amount will be paid by him in the 30th instalment? What amount of loan does he still have to pay after the 30th instalment?
Solution:
Given that,
Jaspal singh takes total loan = ₹ 118000
He repays his total loan by paying every month
His first instalment = ₹ 1000
Second instalment = 1000 + 100 = ₹ 1100
Third instalment = 1100 + 100 = ₹ 1200 and so on
Let its 30th instalment be n,
Thus, we have 1000,1100,1200,… which form an AP, with first term (a) = 1000
and common difference (d) = 1100 – 1000 = 100
nth term of an AP, Tn = a + (n – 1)d
For 30th instalment, T30 = 1000 + (30 – 1)100
= 100 + 29 × 100 = 1000 + 2900 = 3900
So, ₹ 3900 will be paid by him in th 30th instalment.
He paid total amount upto 30 instalments in the following form
1000 + 1100 + 1200 + …………. + 3900
First term (a) = 1000 and last term (1) = 3900
∴ Sum of 30 instalments, S30 = \frac{30}{2} [a + l]
[ ∵ sum of first n terms of an AP is, Sn = \frac{n}{2} [a + l]
where l = last term]
⇒ S30 = 15(1000 + 3900) = 15 × 4900 = ₹ 73500
⇒ Total amount he still have to pay after the 30 installment
= (Amount of loan) – (Sum of 30 installments)
= 118000 – 73500 = ₹ 44500
Hence, ₹ 44500 still have to pay after the 30th installment.

Question 10.
The students of a school decided to beautify the school on the Annual Day by fixing colourful flags on the straight passage of the school. They have 27 flags to be fixed at intervals of every 2 m. The flags are stored at the position of the middle most flag. Ruchi was given the responsibility of placing the flags. Ruchi kept her books where the flags were stored. She could carry only one flag at a time. How much distance did she cover in completing this job and returning back to collect her books? What is the maximum distance she travelled carrying a flag?
Solution:
Given that, the number of flags = 27 and
distance between each flag = 2 m.
Also, the flags are stored at the position of the middle most flag i.e., 14th flag and Ruchi was given the responsibility of placing the flags. Ruchi kept her books, where the flags were stored i.e., 14th flag and she coluld carry only one flag at a time.

Let she placed 13 flags into her left position from middle most flag i.e., 14th flag. For placing second flag and return her initial position distance travelled = 2 + 2 = 4 m.
Similarly, for placing third flag and return her initial position, distance travelled = 4 + 4 = 8m
For placing fourth flag and return her initial position, distance travelled = 6 + 6 = 12 m
For placing fourteenth flag and return her initial position, distance travelled = 26 + 26 = 52 m
Proceed same manner into her right position from middle most flag i.e., 14th flag.
Total distance travelled in that case = 52 m Also, when Ruchi placed the last flag she return his middle most position and collect her books. This distance also included in placed the flag.
So, these distance form a series 4 + 8 + 12 + 16 + …. + 52 [for left] and 4 + 8 + 12 + 16 + … + 52 [for right]
∴ Total distance covered by Ruchi for placing these flags
= 2 × (4 + 8 + 12 + … + 52)
= 2 × [\frac{13}{2}{2 × 4 + (13 – 1) × (8 – 4)}]
∵ Sum of n terms of an AP Sn = \frac{n}{2} [2a + (n – 1)d]
= 2 × \frac{13}{2} (8 + 12 × 4)
[ ∵ both sides of number of flags i.e., n = 13]
= 2 × [13(4 + 12 × 2)] = 2 × 13(4 + 24)
= 2 × 13 × 28 = 728 m
Hence, the required distance is 728 m in which she did cover in completing this job and returning back to collect her books.
Now, the maximum distance she travelled carrying a flag = Distance travelled by Ruchi during placing the 14th flag in her left position or 27th flag in her right position
= (2 + 2 + 2 + … + 13 times) = 2 × 13 = 26 m
Hence, the required maximum distance she travelled carrying a flag is 26 m.

NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths

The post NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables

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NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Exercise 4.1

write the correct answer in each of the following:

Question 1.
The linear equation 2x – 5y = 7 has
(A) A unique solution
(B) Two solutions
(C) infinitely many solutions
(D) No solution
Solution:
(C) : For every value of x, we get a corresponding value of y and vice-versa in the given equation. Therefore, the linear equation has infinitely many solutions.

Question 2.
The equation 2x + 5y = 7 has a unique solution, if x, y are:
(A) Natural numbers
(B) Positive real numbers
(C) Real numbers
(D) Rational numbers
Solution:
(A): In natural numbers, there is only one pair i.e., (i, 1) which satisfy the given equation. Therefore, if x, y are natural numbers, given equation has a unique solution.

Question 3.
If (2,0) is a solution of the linear equation 2x + 3y = k, then the value of k is
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 2
Solution:
(A) : Put x = 2 and y = 0 in the given equation, we get
2(2) + 3(0) = k ⇒ k = 4

Question 4.
Any solution of the linear equation 2x + 0y + 9 = 0 in two variables is of the form
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 1
Solution:
(A): The given linear equation is 2x + 0y + 9 = 0
⇒ 2x + 9 = 0 ⇒ 2x = -9 ⇒ x = -\frac{9}{2}
x = -\frac{9}{2} and y can be any real number, say m.
Hence, \left(-\frac{9}{2}, m\right) is the required form of the solution of given linear equation.

Question 5.
The graph of the linear equation 2x + 3y = 6 cuts the y-axis at the point
(A) (2, 0)
(B) (0, 3)
(C) (3, 0)
(D) (0, 2)
Solution:
Since, the graph of the linear equation 2x + 3y = 6 cuts the y-axis, then put x = 0, we get
2(0) + 3y = 6 ⇒ 3y = 6 ⇒ y = \frac{6}{3} = 2
Hence, the given linear equation cuts the y-axis at the point (0, 2).

Question 6.
The equation x = 7, in two variables, can be written as
(A) 1.x + 1.y = 7
(B) 1.x + 0.y = 7
(C) 0.x + 1.y = 7
(D) 0.x + 0.y = 7
Solution:
(B) : Here, the coefficient of y in the equation x = 7 is 0. So, the equation can be written in two variables as 1.x + 0.y = 7.

Question 7.
Any point on the x-axis is of the form
(A) (x, y)
(B) (0, y)
(C) (x, 0)
(D) (x, x)
Solution:
(C) : Any point on the x-axis has its y-coordinate equal to zero i.e., y = 0.
Hence, the general form of any point on the x-axis is (x, 0)

Question 8.
Any point on the line y = x is of the form
(A) (o, o)
(B) (0, o)
(C) (o, 0)
(D) (o, -o)
Solution:
(A): Any point on the line y = x has same value of x and y-coordinates i.e., x = a and y = a.
Hence, (a, a) is the required form of point on the given line.

Question 9.
The equation of x-axis is of the form
(A) x = 0
(B) y = 0
(C) x + y = 0
(D) x = y
Solution:
(B): The equation of x-axis is of the form y = 0.

Question 10.
The graph of y = 6 is a line
(A) parallel to x-axis at a distance 6 units from the origin.
(B) parallel to y-axis at a distance 6 units from the origin.
(C) making an intercept 6 on the x-axis.
(D) making an intercept 6 on both the axes.
Solution:
(A) : Given equation of a line can be written as, 0.x +1.y = 6
To draw the graph of above equation, we need atleast two solutions.
When x = 0, then y = 6
When x = 2, then y = 6

x02
y66

Hence, we find two points A(0, 6) and B(2, 6). So, draw the graph by plotting these points and joining them, which is shown as follows:
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 2
∴ The line PQ parallel to x-axis at a distance 6 units from origin is the required graph of y = 6.

Question 11.
x = 5, y = 2 is a solution of the linear equation
(A) x + 2y = 7
(B) 5x + 2y = 7
(C) x + y = 7
(D) 5x + y = 7
Solution:
(C): (A) Consider x + 2y
On putting x = 5 and y = 2, we get
5 + 2(2) = 5 + 4 = 9 ≠ 7
So, (5, 2) is not a solution of x + 2y = 7
(B) Consider 5x + 2y
On putting x = 5 and y = 2, we get
5(5) + 2(2) = 25 + 4 = 29 ≠ 7
So, (5, 2) is not a solution of 5x + 2y = 7.
(C) Consider x + y
On putting x = 5 and y = 2, we get
5 + 2 = 7
So, (5, 2) is a solution of x + y = 7.
(D) Consider 5x + y
On putting x = 5 and y = 2, we get
5(5) + 2 = 25 + 2 = 27 ≠ 7
So, (5, 2) is not a solution of 5x + y = 7.

Question 12.
If a linear equation has solutions (-2, 2), (0,0) and (2, -2), then it is of the form
(A) y – x = 0
(B) x + y = 0
(C) -2x + y = 0
(D) -x + 2y = 0
Solution:
Let us consider a linear equation ax + by + c = 0. …(i)
Since, (-2, 2), (0, 0) and (2, -2) are the solutions of linear equation therefore, it satisfies the equation (i).
At (-2,2), – 2a + 2b + c = 0 …(ii)
At (0, 0), 0 + 0 + c = 0 ⇒ c = 0 …(iii)
and at (2, -2), 2a-2b + c = 0 …(iv)
From (ii) and (iii), we get
c = 0 and -2a + 2b + 0 = 0
⇒ -2a = -2b ⇒ a = b
On putting a = b and c = 0 in (i), we get
bx + by + 0 = 0 ⇒ bx + by = 0
⇒ b(x + y) = 0 ⇒ x + y = 0, b≠0
Hence, x + y = 0 is the required form of the linear equation.

Question 13.
The positive solutions of the equation ax + by + c = 0 always lie in the
(A) 1st quadrant
(B) 2nd quadrant
(C) 3rd quadrant
(D) 4th quadrant
Solution:
(A) : The coordinates of all points in the 1st quadrant are positive. Therefore, if a line passes through the 1st quadrant, then all solutions lying on the line in 1st quadrant must be positive.

Question 14.
The graph of the linear equation 2x+ 3y= 6 is a line which meets the x-axis at the point
(A) (0, 2)
(B) (2, 0)
(C) (3, 0)
(D) (0, 3)
Solution:
(C): Since, the graph of linear equation 2x + 3y = 6 meets the x-axis.
So, putting y = 0 in 2x + 3y = 6, we get
2x + 3(0) = 6 ⇒ 2x = 6 ⇒ x = 3
Hence, the coordinates on x-axis are (3, 0).

Question 15.
The graph of the linear equation y = x passes through the point
(A) (3/2, -3/2)
(B) (0, 3/2)
(C) (1, 1)
(D) \left(\frac{-1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\right)
Solution:
(C): The linear equation y = x has same .value of x and y-coordinates. Therefore, the point (1,1) must lie on the line y = x.

Question 16.
If we multiply or divide both sides of a linear equation with a non-zero number, then the solution of the linear equation:
(A) Changes
(B) Remains the same
(C) Changes in case of multiplication only
(D) Changes in case of division only
Solution:
(B): As we know, if we multiply or divide both sides of a linear equation with a non-zero number, then the solution of the linear equation remains unchanged.
Thus, we can say that the solution remains the same.

Question 17.
How many linear equations in x and y can be satisfied by x = 1 and y = 2?
(A) Only one
(B) Two
(C) Infinitely many
(D) Three
Solution:
(C): Let the linear equation be ax + by + c = 0.
On putting x = 1 and y = 2, in above equation, we get, a + 2b + c = 0, where a, b and c are real numbers.
Here, different values of a, b and c satisfy a + 2b + c = 0. Hence, infinitely many linear equations in x and y can be satisfied by x = 1 and y = 2.

Question 18.
The point of the form (a, a) always lies on:
(A) x-axis
(B) y-axis
(C) On the line y = x
(D) On the line x + y = 0
Solution:
(C): Since, the given point (a, a) has same value of x and y-coordinates, therefore, the point (a, a) must be lie on the line y = x.

Question 19.
The point of the form (a, – a) always lies on the line
(A) x = a
(B) y = -a
(C) y = x
(D) x + y = 0
Solution:
(D): Consider option (D),
x + y = a + (-a) = a – a = 0
[Since, given point is (a, – a)]
Hence, the point of the form (a, -a) always lies on the line x + y = 0.

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Exercise 4.2

Write whether the following statements are True or False? Justify your answers:

Question 1.
The point (0, 3) lies on the graph of the linear equation 3x + 4y = 12.
Solution:
True
If we put x = 0 and y = 3 in L.H.S. of the given equation, we get
L.H.S. = 3(0) + 4(3) = 0 + 12 = 12 = R.H.S.
Hence, (0, 3) lies on the line 3x + 4y = 12.

Question 2.
The graph of the linear equation x + 2y = 7 passes through the point (0,7).
Solution:
False
If we put x = 0 and y = 7 in L.H.S. of the given equation, we get
L.H.S. = 0 + 2 (7) = 0 + 14 = 14 ≠ 7 = R.H.S.
Hence, (0, 7) does not lie on the line x + 2y = 7.

Question 3.
The graph given below represents the linear equation x + y = 0.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 3
Solution:
True
If the given points (-1, 1) and (-3, 3) lie on the linear equation x + y = 0, then both points will satisfy the equation.
So, at point (-1, 1), we put x = -1, and y = 1 in L.H.S. of the given equation, we get
L.H.S. = x + y = -1 + 1= 0 = R.H.S.
Again, at point (-3, 3), put x = -3 and y = 3 in
L.H.S. of the given equation, we get
L.H.S. = x + y = -3 + 3 = 0 = R.H.S.
Hence, (-1,1) and (-3,3) both satisfy the given linear equation.

Question 4.
The graph given below represents the linear equation x = 3. (See fig.)
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 4
Solution:
True
Since, given graph is a line parallel to y-axis at a distance of 3 units to the right of the origin.
∴ It represents a linear equation x = 3.

Question 5.
The coordinates of points in the table:

x01234
y234-56

represent some of the solutions of the equation x – y + 2 = 0.
Solution:
False
The coordinates of points are (0, 2), (1, 3), (2, 4), (3, -5) and (4, 6).
Given equation is x – y + 2 = 0 …(i)
At (0, 2), L.H.S. of equation (i) = 0 – 2 + 2 = 0 = R.H.S.
At (1, 3), L.H.S. of equation (i) = 1 – 3 + 2 = 0 = R.H.S.
At (2, 4), L.H.S. of equation (i) = 2 – 4 + 2 = 0 = R.H.S.
At (3, -5), L.H.S. of equation (i) = 3 – (-5) + 2 = 3 + 5 + 2 = 10 ≠ R.H.S.
At (4, 6), L.H.S. of equation (i) = 4 – 6 + 2 = 0 = R.H.S.
We observed that (3, -5) does not satisfy the equation.
Therefore, it does not represent the solution of given equation.

Question 6.
Every point on the graph of a linear equation in two variables does not represent a solution of the linear equation.
Solution:
False
Since, every point on the graph of the linear equation represents a solution.

Question 7.
The graph of every linear equation in two variables need not be a line.
Solution:
False
Since, the graph of a linear equation in two variables always represents a line.

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Exercise 4.3

Question 1.
Draw the graphs of linear equations y = x and y = – x on the same cartesian plane. What do you observe?
Solution:
The given equation is y = x. To draw the graph of this equation, we need atleast two solutions.
When x = 1, then y = 1
When x = 4, then y = 4

x14
y14

By plotting the points (1, 1) and (4, 4) on the graph paper and joining them by a line, we obtain the graph of y = x.
Similarly, for y = -x.
When x = 3, then y = – 3
When x = — 4, then y = 4

x

3-4
y-3

4

By plotting the points (3, -3) and (-4, 4) on the graph paper and joining them by a line, we obtain the graph of y = -x
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 5
∴ We observe that, the line y = x and y = -x intersect at the point O (0, 0).

Question 2.
Determine the point on the graph of the linear equation 2x + 5y = 19, whose ordinate is 1 \frac{1}{2} times its abscissa.
Solution:
Let x and y be the abscissa and ordinate respectively of the given line 2x + 5y = 19. According to question, we have
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 6

Question 3.
Draw the graph of the equation represented by a straight line which is parallel to the x-axis and at a distance 3 units below it.
Solution:
Any straight line parallel to x-axis and below it i.e., in negative direction of y-axis is given by y = -k, where k units is the distance of the line from the x-axis. Here, k = 3. Therefore, the equation of the line is y = – 3. To draw the graph of this equation, plot the points (1, -3), (2, -3), (3, -3) and join them.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 7
Thus, this is the required graph of equation y = -3.

Question 4.
Draw the graph of the linear equation whose solutions are represented by the points having the sum of the coordinates as 10 units.
Solution:
Let x and y be two coordinates. According to question, the sum of the coordinates is 10 units.
∴ x + y = 10 …(i)
When x = 5, then y = 5
When x = 3, then y = 7

x

53
y5

7

Now, plotting the points A(5, 5) and B(3, 7) on the graph and joining them by a line, we get graph of the linear equation (i).
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 8
Thus the line PQ is the required graph of x + y = 10

Question 5.
Write the linear equation such that each point on its graph has an ordinate 3 times its abscissa.
Solution:
Let abscissa and ordinate of the point be x and y respectively.
According to the question, we have
Ordinate = 3 × abscissa ⇒ y = 3x
When x = 1, then y = 3
When x = 2, then y = 6

x12
y36

Here, we find two points A(1, 3) and B(2, 6). So, draw the graph by plotting these points and joining them.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 9
Hence, y = 3x is the required linear equation.

Question 6.
If the point (3, 4) lies on the graph of 3y = ax + 7, then find the value of a.
Solution:
Since, the point (3,4) lies on the equation 3y = ax + 7, then the equation will be satisfied by the point.
Now, put x = 3 and y = 4 in given equation, we get 3(4) = a(3) + 7 ⇒12 = 3a + 7 ⇒ 3a = 5 ⇒ a = \frac{5}{3}
Hence, the value of a is 5/3

Question 7.
How many solution(s) of the equation 2x + 1 = x – 3 are there on the:
(i) Number line
(ii) Cartesian plane
Solution:
The given equation is 2x + 1 = x – 3
⇒ 2x – x = -3 – 1
∴ x = -4
or 1.x + 0.y = -4
(i) Number line represents all real values of x on the x-axis. Therefore, x = – 4 is exactly one solution of given equation, which lies on the number line as shown below:
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 10

(ii) 1.x + 0.y = -4
Now, when y = 1, x = -4
y = 2, x = – 4
y = -1, x = -4
∴ We get the following table:

x-4-4-4
y12-1

Plotting the ordered pairs (-4,1), (-4, 2) and (- 4, -1) on a graph paper and joining them, we get a line AB as solution of 1.x + 0.y = – 4 i.e., x = – 4
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 11
∴ There are infinitely many solutions of the equation 1.x + 0.y = – 4 i.e. x = – 4 on the cartesian plane.

question 8.
Find the solution of the linear equation x + 2y = 8 which represents a point on
(i) x-axis
(ii) y-axis
Solution:
We have, x + 2y = 8 …(1)
(i) When the point is on the x-axis, then put y = 0 in (1), we get x + 2(0) = 8
⇒ x = 8
Hence, the required point is (8, 0).

(ii) When the point is on the y-axis, then put x = 0 in (1), we get 0 + 2y = 8
⇒ y = \frac{8}{2} = 4
Hence, the required point is (0, 4).

Question 9.
For what value of c, the linear equation 2x + cy = 8 has equal values of x and y for its solution?
Solution:
The given linear equation is 2x + cy = 8 …(i)
According to question, x and y-coordinates of given equation are same, i.e., x = y. Therefore, put y = x in (i), we get
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 12

Question 10.
Let y varies directly as x. If y = 12 when x = 4, then write a linear equation. What is the value of y when x = 5?
Solution:
Given that, y varies directly as x
i.e., y ∝ x ⇒ y = kx, …(i)
where k is an arbitrary constant.
On putting y = 12 and x = 4 in (i), we get
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 13
On putting the value of k in (i), we get
y = 3x …(ii)
When x = 5, then (ii) becomes
y = 3 × 5 ⇒ y = 15
Hence, the value of y is 15.

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Exercise 4.4

Question 1.
Show that the points A(1, 2), B(-1, -16) and C(0, – 7) lie on the graph of the linear equation y = 9x – 7.
Solution:
Firstly, to draw the graph of equation y = 9x – 7, we need atleast two solutions.
When x = 2, then y = 9(2) – 7 = 18 – 7 = 11
When x = -2, then y = 9(-2) – 7 = -18 – 7 = -25

x2-2
y11-25

Here, we find two points P(2, 11) and Q(-2, -25). So, draw the graph by plotting the points P and Q and joining them.
Now, we plot the given points A(1, 2), B(-1, -16) and C(0, -7) on the same graph paper.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 14
From the above graph, we can see that all the points lie on line PQ.

Question 2.
The following observed values of x and y are thought to satisfy a linear equation. Write the linear equation:

x6-6
y-26

Draw the graph using the values of x, y as given in the above table. At what points the graph of the linear equation
(i) cuts the x-axis
(ii) cuts the y-axis
Solution:
Given, points are (6, -2) and (-6, 6).
Let the linear equation y = mx + c is satisfied by the points (6, -2) and (-6, 6), then at (6, -2), -2 = 6m + c …(i)
and at (-6, 6), 6 = – 6m + c …(ii)
On subtracting (ii) from (i), we get
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 15
On putting the value of m in (i),
we get -2 = 6(-2/3) + c
⇒ -2 = -4 + c ⇒ c = 2
y = mx + c, we get
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 16
When the graph of the linear equation
(i) cuts the x-axis
Then, put y = 0 in equation 2x + 3y = 6, we get 2x + 3 – 0 = 6 ⇒ 2x = 6 ⇒ x = 3

(ii) cuts the y-axis
Then, put x = 0 in equation 2x + 3y = 6, we get
2.0 + 3y = 6 ⇒ 3y = 6 ⇒ y = 2
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 17
Therefore, the graph of the linear equation 2x + 3y = 6 cuts the x-axis at the point (3,0) and the y-axis at the point (0, 2).

Question 3.
Draw the graph of the linear equation 3x + 4y = 6. At what points, the graph cuts the x-axis and the y-axis?
Solution:
The given equation is 3x + 4y = 6. To draw the graph of this equation, we need atleast two points lying on the graph of
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 18
When x = 2, then y = 0
When x = 0, then y = \frac{3}{2}

x

20
y0

3/2

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 19
We observed that the line AB cuts the x-axis at the point (2, 0) and the y-axis at the point \left(0, \frac{3}{2}\right).

Question 4.
The linear equation that converts Fahrenheit (F) to Celsius (C) is given by the relation, C = \frac{5 F-160}{9}.
(i) If the temperature is 86°F, what is the temperature in Celsius?
(ii) If the temperature is 35°C, what is the temperature in Fahrenheit?
(iii) If the temperature is 0°C, what is the temperature in Fahrenheit and if the temperature is 0°F, what is the temperature in Celsius?
(iv) What is the numerical value of the temperature which is same in both the scales?
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 20
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 21

Question 5.
If the temperature of a liquid can be measured in Kelvin units as x°K or in Fahrenheit units as y°F, the relation between the two systems of measurement of temperature is given by the linear equation
y = \frac{9}{5}(x-273)+32
(i) Find the temperature of the liquid in Fahrenheit, if the temperature of the liquid is 313°K.
(ii) If the temperature is 158°F, then find the temperature in Kelvin.
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 22
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 23

Question 6.
The force exerted to pull a cart is directly proportional to the acceleration produced in the body. Express the statement as a linear equation of two variables and draw the graph of the same by taking the constant mass equal to 6 kg. Read from the graph, the force required when the acceleration produced is
(i) 5 m/sec2
(ii) 6 m/sec2
Solution:
Given that, the force (F) is directly proportional to the acceleration
(a). i.e., F ∝ a
⇒ F = ma,
where, m is a constant mass i.e., m = 6 kg
∴ F = 6a …(1)
(i) If a = 5 m/sec2, then from (1), we get F = (6 × 5) kgm/sec2 = 30 Newton

(ii) If a = 6 m/sec2, then from (1), we get F = (6 × 6) kgm/sec2 = 36 Newton
Here, we find two points A(5, 30) and B(6, 36).
So, draw the graph by plotting these points and joining them.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables 24

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths

The post NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry

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NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Exercise 5.1

Question 1.
The three steps from solids to points are:
(A) Solids-surfaces-lines-points
(B) Solids-lines-surfaces-points
(C) Lines-points-sucfaces-solids
(D) Lines-surfaces-points-solids
Solution:
(A): The three steps from solids to points are solids-surfaces-lines-points.

Question 2.
The number of dimensions, a solid has:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
Solution:
(C): A solid e.g., Cuboid has shape, size, and position. So, solid has three dimensions.

Question 3.
The number of dimensions, a surface has:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 0
Solution:
(B): Boundaries of a solid are called surfaces. A surface (plane) has only length and breadth. So, it has two dimensions.

Question 4.
The number of dimension, a point has
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Solution:
(A): A point is that which has no part
i. e., no length, no breadth and no height. So, it has no dimension.

Question 5.
Euclid divided his famous treatise “The Elements” into
(A) 13 chapters
(B) 12 chapters
(C) 11 chapters
(D) 9 chapters
Solution:
(A): Euclid divided his famous treatise ‘The Elements” into 13 chapters.

Question 6.
The total number of propositions in the Elements are
(A) 465
(B) 460
(C) 13
(D) 55
Solution:
(A): The statements that can be proved are called propositions or theorems. Euclid deduced 465 propositions in a logical chain using his axioms, postulates, definitions and theorems.

Question 7.
Boundaries of solids are:
(A) surfaces
(B) curves
(C) lines
(D) points
Solution:
(A): Boundaries of solids are surfaces.

Question 8.
Boundaries of surfaces are:
(A) surfaces
(B) curves
(C) lines
(D) points
Solution:
(B) : The boundaries of surfaces are curves.

Question 9.
In Indus Valley Civilisation (about 3000 B.C.), the bricks used for construction work were having dimensions in the ratio
(A) 1 : 3 : 4
(B) 4 : 2 : 1
(C) 4 : 4 : 1
(D) 4 : 3 : 2
Solution:
(B) : In Indus Valley Civilisation, the bricks used for construction work were having dimensions in the ratio length : breadth : thickness = 4 : 2 : 1.

Question 10.
A pyramid is a solid figure, the base of which is
(A) only a triangle
(B) only a square
(C) only a rectangle
(D) any polygon
Solution:
(D) : A pyramid is a solid figure, the base of which is a triangle or square or some other polygon.

Question 11.
The side faces of a pyramid are
(A) Triangles
(B) Squares
(C) Polygons
(D) Trapeziums
Solution:
(A) : The side faces of a pyramid are always triangles.

Question 12.
It is known that, if x + y = 10, then x + y + z = 10 + z. The Euclid’s axiom that illustrates this statement is:
(A) First Axiom
(B) Second Axiom
(C) Third Axiom
(D) Fourth Axiom
Solution:
The Euclid’s axiom that illustrates the given statement is second axiom. According to this, if equals are added to equals, the wholes are equal.

Question 13.
In ancient India, the shapes of altars used for household rituals were:
(A) Squares and circles
(B) Triangles and rectangles
(C) Trapeziums and pyramids
(D) Rectangles and squares
Solution:
(A) : In ancient India, squares and circular altars were used for household rituals.

Question 14.
The number of interwoven isosceles triangles in Sriyantra (in the Atharvaveda) is:
(A) Seven
(B) Eight
(C) Nine
(D) Eleven
Solution:
(C): The Sriyantra (in the Atharvaveda) consists of nine interwoven isosceles triangles.

Question 15.
Greek’s emphasised on:
(A) Inductive reasoning
(B) Deductive reasoning
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Practical use of geometry
Solution:
(B) : Greek’s emphasised on deductive reasoning.

Question 16.
In ancient India, altars with combination of shapes like rectangles, triangles and trapeziums were used for
(A) Public worship
(B) Household rituals
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of A, B, C
Solution:
(A): In ancient India altars whose shapes were combinations of rectangles, triangles and trapeziums were used for public worship.

Question 17.
Euclid belongs to the country:
(A) Babylonia
(B) Egypt
(C) Greece
(D) India
Solution:
(C) : Euclid belongs to the country Greece.

Question 18.
Thales belongs to the country:
(A) Babylonia
(B) Egypt
(C) Greece
(D) Rome
Solution:
(C) : Thales belongs to the country Greece.

Question 19.
Pythagoras was a student of:
(A) Thales
(B) Euclid
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Archimedes
Solution:
(A) : Pythagoras was a student of Thales.

Question 20.
Which of the following needs a proof ?
(A) Theorem
(B) Axiom
(C) Definition
(D) Postulate
Solution:
(A): The statements that needs a proof are called propositions or theorems.

Question 21.
Euclid stated that all right angles are equal to each other in the form of
(A) an axiom
(B) a definition
(C) a postulate
(D) a proof
Solution:
(C) : Euclid stated that all right angles are equal to each other in the form of a postulate.

Question 22.
‘Lines are parallel, if they do not intersect’ is stated in the form of
(A) an axiom
(B) a definition
(C) a postulate
(D) a proof
Solution:
(B) : ‘Lines are parallel, if they do not intersect’ is the definition of parallel lines.

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Exercise 5.2

Question 1.
Euclidean geometry is valid only for curved surfaces
Solution:
False
Because Euclidean geometry is valid only for the figures in the plane but on the curved surfaces, it fails.

Question 2.
The boundaries of the solids are curves.
Solution:
Because the boundaries of the solids are surfaces.

Question 3.
The edges of a surface are curves.
Solution:
False
Because the edges of surfaces are lines.

Question 4.
The things which are double of the same thing are equal to one another
Solution:
True
Since, it is one of the Euclid’s axiom.

Question 5.
If a quantity B is a part of another quantity A, then A can be written as the sum of B and some third quantity C.
Solution:
True
Since, it is one of the Euclid’s axiom.

Question 6.
The statements that are proved are called axioms.
Solution:
False
Because the statements that are proved are called theorems.

Question 7.
“For every line l and for every point P not lying on a given line l, there exits a unique line m passing though P and parallel to l is known as Playfair’s axiom.
Solution:
True
Since, it is an equivalent version of Euclid’s fifth postulate and it is known as Playfair’s axiom.

Question 8.
Two distinct intersecting lines cannot be parallel to the same line.
Solution:
True
Since, it is an equivalent version of Euclid’s fifth postulate.

Question 9.
Attempt to prove Euclid’s fifth postulate using the other postulates and axioms led to the discovery of several other geometries.
Solution:
True
All attempts to prove the fifth postulate as a theorem led to a great achievement in the creation of several other geometries. These geometries are quite different from Euclidean geometry and are called non-Euclidean geometry.

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Exercise 5.3

Question 1.
Two salesmen make equal sales during the month of August. In September, each salesmen doubles his sale of the month of August. Compare their sales in September.
Solution:
Let the equal sales of two salesmen in August be y. In September, each salesman doubles his sale of August.

Thus, sale of first salesman is 2y and sale of second salesman is 2y.

According to Euclid’s axioms, things which are double of the same things are equal to one another.

So, in September their sales are again equal.

Question 2.
It is known that x + y = 10 and that x = z. Show that z + y = 10.
Solution:
We have, x + y = 10 …(i)
and x = z …(ii)
On adding y to both sides, we have x + y = z + y …. (iii)
[ ∵ If equals are added to equals, the wholes are equal] From (i) and (iii), we get z + y = 10

Question 3.
Look at the given figure. Show that length AH > sum of lengths of AB + BC + CD.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 1
Solution:
From the given figure, we have
AB + BC + CD = AD
[AB, BC and CD are the parts of AD]
Since, AD is also the part of AH.
AH > AD [ ∵ The whole is greater than the part]
So, length AH > sum of lengths of AB + BC + CD.

Question 4.
In the given figure, we have AB = BC, BX = BY. Show that AX = CY.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 2
Solution:
Given, AB = BC …(i)
and BX = BY …(ii)
On subtracting (ii) from (i), we get AB – BX = BC – BY
[∵ If equals are subtracted from equals, the remainders are equal]
∴ AX = CY

Question 5.
In the given figure, we have X and Y are the mid-points of AC and BC and AX = CY. Show that AC = BC.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 3
Solution:
We have, X is the mid-point of AC.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 4

Question 6.
In the given figure, we have
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 5
Solution:
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 6

Question 7.
In the given figure, we have ∠1 = ∠2 and ∠2 = ∠3. Show that ∠1 = ∠3.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 7
Solution:
We have, ∠1 = ∠2 and ∠2 = ∠3 ⇒ ∠1 = ∠3 [ ∵ Things which are equal to the same thing are equal to one another]

Question 8.
In the given figure, we have ∠1 = ∠3 and ∠2 = ∠4. Show that ∠A = ∠C.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 8
Solution:
Given ∠1 = ∠3 …(i)
∠2 = ∠4 …(ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we get ∠1 + ∠2 = ∠3 + ∠4
[∵ If equals are added to equals, then wholes are also equal]
⇒ ∠A = ∠C

Question 9.
In the given figure, we have ∠ABC = ∠ACB, ∠3 = ∠4. Show that ∠1 = ∠2.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 9
Solution:
Given ∠ABC = ∠ACB …(i)
and ∠A = ∠3 …(ii)
Subtracting (ii) from (i), we get ∠ABC – ∠4 = ∠ACB – ∠3
[ ∵ If equals are subtracted from equals, then remainders are also equal]
⇒ ∠1 = ∠2

Question 10.
In the given figure, we have AC = DC, CB = CE. Show that AB = DE.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 10
Solution:
We have, AC = DC …(i)
and CB = CE …(ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we get
AC + CB = DC + CE
[ ∵ If equals are added to equals, then wholes are also equal]
⇒ AB = DE

Question 11.
In the given figure, if OX = \frac{1}{2}XY, PX = \frac{1}{2}XZ and OX= PX, show that XY= XZ
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 11
Solution:
Given OX = \frac{1}{2}XY ⇒ 20X = XY …(i)
PX = \frac{1}{2}XZ ⇒ 2PX = XZ …(ii)
and OX = PX …(iii)
multiplying (iii) by 2, we get
2OX = 2PX
[∵ Things which are double of the same things are equal to one another]
⇒ XY = XZ [From (i) and (ii)]

Question 12.
In the given figure
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 12
(i) AB = BC, M is the mid-point of AB and N is the mid-point of BC. Show that AM = NC.
(ii) BM = BN, M is the mid-point of AB and N is the mid-point of BC. Show that AB = BC.
Solution:
(i): Given, AB = BC …(1)
M is the mid-point of AB.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 13
and N is the mid-point of BC.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 14
Multiplying both sides of (1) by \frac{1}{2}, we get
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry 15
[ ∵ Things which are halves of the same things are equal to one another]
⇒ AM = NC [Using (2) and (3)]

(ii) Given, BM = BN …(1)
M is the mid-point of AB.
∴ AM = BM = \frac{1}{2}AB
⇒ 2AM = 2BM = AB …(2)
and N is the mid-point of BC.
∴ BN = NC = \frac{1}{2}BC
⇒ 2BN = 2NC = BC …(3)
multiplying both sides of (1) by 2, we get
2 BM = 2 BN
[ ∵ Things which are double of the same thing are equal to one another]
⇒ AB = BC [Using (2) and (3)]

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Exercise 5.4

Question 1.
Read the following statement:
An equilateral triangle is a polygon made up of three line segments out of which two line segments are equal to the third one and all its angles are 60° each.
Define the terms used in this definition which you feel necessary. Are there any undefined terms in this? Can you justify that all sides and all angles are equal in a equilateral triangle.
Solution:
The terms need to be defined are

  • Polygon : A closed figure bounded by three or more line Segments.
  • Line segment : Part of a line with two end points.
  • Line: Undefined term.
  • Point: Undefined term.
  • Angle: A figure formed by two rays with one common initial point.
  • Acute angle : Angle whose measure is between 0° to 90°.

Here undefined terms are line and point.
All the angles of equilateral triangle are 60° each (given).

Two line segments are equal to the third one (given).

“According to Euclid’s axiom, “things which are equal to the same things are equal to one another”, we conclude that all three sides of an equilateral triangle are equal.

Question 2.
Study the following statements:
“Two intersecting lines cannot be perpendicular to the same line.” Check whether it is an equivalent version to the Euclid’s fifth postulate.
[Hint: Identify the two intersecting lines / and m and the line n in the above statement.]
Solution:
Two equivalent versions of Euclid’s fifth postulate are as follows:
(i) For every line l and for every point P not lying on l, there exists a unique line m passing through P and parallel to l.
(ii) Two distinct intersecting lines cannot be parallel to the same line.

From above two statements it is clear that given statement is not an equivalent version to the Euclid’s fifth postulate.

Question 3.
Read the following statements which are taken as axioms:
(i) If a transversal intersects two parallel lines, then corresponding angles are not necessarily equal.
(ii) If a transversal intersect two parallel lines, then alternate interior angles are equal.
Is this system of axioms consistent ? Justify your answer.
Solution:
As we know that, if a transversal intersects two parallel lines, then each pair of corresponding angles are equal, then first is false, so, not an axiom.

Also, if a transversal intersects two parallel lines, then each pair of alternate interior angles are equal, then second is true so, it is an axiom.

So, in given statements, first is false and second is an axiom.

Thus, given system of axioms is not consistent.

Question 4.
Read the following two statements which are taken as axioms:
(i) If two lines intersect each other, then the vertically opposite angles are not equal.
(ii) If a ray stands on a line, then the sum of two adjacent angles, so formed is equal to 180°.
Is this system of axioms consistent ? Justify your answer.
Solution:
As we know that, if two lines intersect each other, then the vertically opposite angles are equal, then first is false, so, not an axiom. Also, if a ray stands on a line, then the sum of two adjacent angles so formed is equal to 180°, then second is true so, it is an axiom.

So, in given statements, first is false and second is an axiom. Thus, given system of axioms is not consistent.

Question 5.
Read the following axioms:
(i) Things which are equal to the same thing are equal to one another.
(ii) If equals are added to equals, the wholes are equal.
(iii) Things which are double of the same thing are equal to one another.
Check whether the given system of axioms is consistent or inconsistent.
Solution:
Since, the given three axioms are Euclid’s axioms.

∴ We cannot deduce any statement from the above three axioms which contradicts any axiom. Thus, the given system of axioms is consistent.

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths

The post NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid’s Geometry appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE 12th Revaluation/ Re-verification 2019 Result (Released) | Check CBSE 12th Exam Result @ cbse.nic.in

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CBSE Class 12 Result 2019: The officials of CBSE will declare CBSE 12th exam results 2019 at the official website of cbse.nic.in. According to the sources, the CBSE 12th Result 2019 Expected to release today at 1 PM. Candidates who have appeared for CBSE Class 12 Board Exam must visit the official website to check their CBSE 12th exam result 2019. CBSE Class 12 Revaluation/Re-verification results have been released on June 28th, 2019

Direct Link to Check CBSE Class 12 Revaluation/Re-verification Results 2019

State Board Results

In order to check CBSE XII, Result 2019 candidates must have their Registration Number & Date of Birth. So in this article, we will provide you with all the necessary information regarding CBSE Class 12th Result 2019. Read on to the find out everything about CBSE Class 12 Result 2019.

Candidates can check CBSE Class 12 Result from the following websites

  1. results.nic.in
  2. cbseresults.nic.in
  3. cbse.nic.in

CBSE Class 12 Result 2019 Latest Update

According to the Hindustan Times, the CBSE Class 12 Results is expected to release today around 1 PM. Also, the sources said that CBSE officials are expected to declare the class 12th result 2019 in the press conference at 1 PM today. However, there is no official confirmation on CBSE class 12 Results.

CBSE Class 12 Result 2019

Before getting into the details of CBSE Class 12th Result 2019, let’s have an overview of CBSE Class 12 Result 2019 Date:

EventsDates
CBSE Class 12 Result 2019 Date3rd Week of May 2019
CBSE Class 12 Result 2019 Time4:00 P.M

How To Check CBSE Class 12 Result 2019?

Follow the steps as listed below to check CBSE Class 12 Result 2019:

Step 1: Visit the official website of cbse.nic.in.

Step 2: A new page will be displayed on the screen. Now hit on the link “Click for CBSE Result”.

Step 3: The page will be directed.

Step 4: Now from the quick links, select CBSE Class 12 Result.

Step 5: Enter your Registration Number/Roll Number & Date of Birth.

Step 6: Click on Submit.

Step 7: Your CBSE Class 12 Results will be displayed on the screen.

Step 8: Now click on download option in order to your CBSE 2019 class 12 Result.

The CBSE Class 12 Result page looks like the following:

CBSE Class 12 Result

Details Mentioned  on CBSE Class 12 Result 2019

The following details will be mentioned on CBSE Class 12 Result 2019:

  • Candidates Name
  • Roll Number of Candidate
  • Candidates Parents Name
  • Candidates Date of Birth
  • Marks obtained in each subject
  • Qualifying Status
  • Candidates Photograph

CBSE Class 12 Result Thorugh SMS

Candidates can also check their 12th CBSE Result through SMS by typing the following SMS:

‘CBSE 12[roll no]’ 

The above SMS has to be sent to any of the numbers listed below:

  • 52001 (MTNL)
  • 54321, 51234 and 5333300 (Tata Teleservices)
  • 54321202 (Airtel)
  • 57766 (BSNL)
  • 5800002 (Aircel)
  • 9212357123 (National Informatics Centre)

CBSE Class 12 Result – Previous Year Statistics

The Previous Year Statistics of CBSE Class 12 Result will is tabulated below:

YearOverall Pass %Total No of Students
201883.0111,86,306
201782.021098480
201683.051065179
201582972762
201482.66791308

CBSE Class 12 result 2019

How to apply for grade verification & obtain a photocopy of your answer book?

Those candidates who are not satisfied with his/her CBSE Class 12 Result can apply for re-evaluation of their CBSE Class 12 Answer Sheets. In order to verify their marks, they must pay Rs.500/- per subject. The links for Re-evaluation will be activated after the declaration of Results on the official website of cbse.nic.in. Students can also obtain a photocopy of their answer sheet by paying Rs 700/-.

CBSE Revaluation

Highlights of CBSE Class 12 Grade Verification

  • Candidates must pay Fee of Rs. 700/- per subject through payment gateway (Credit/Debit card) or through e-challan.
  • If the candidate is paying through offline mode then they have a facility to pay through DD.
  • Only those candidates who have applied for the verification of grades will be able to get their photocopy of evaluated answer books.
    The CBSE Class 12 grade verification application will be accepted only online through the official website of CBSE: cbse.nic.in
  • If candidates come across any mistakes in their answer book then they must write a formal letter will also be sent by speed post.
  • If any of the answers are not evaluated, then candidates must report to their respective Regional Offices of CBSE not later than seven days of receipt with the photocopy of the answer book.

CBSE Class 12 Result –  CBSE Grading System

For awarding the grades, the board will put all the passed students in rank order and the board will award the grades to the students according to the table below:

GradeQualification
A-1Top 1/8th of the passed candidates
A-2Next 1/8th of the passed candidates
B-1Next 1/8th of the passed candidates
B-2Next 1/8th of the passed candidates
C-1Next 1/8th of the passed candidates
C-2Next 1/8th of the passed candidates
D-1Next 1/8th of the passed candidates
D-2Next 1/8th of the passed candidates
EFailed Candidates

How To Calculate CGPA?

CGPA = Sum of grade points obtained in 5 main subjects/5.

So in order to calculate the percentage, follow the formula as the below:

Formula: CGPA X 9.5= Percentage Obtained in Class 10.

For example: If a candidate has obtained 8.0 CGPA then his/her percentage is calculated as 8.0 X 9.5 = 76%.

Now that you are provided all the necessary information regarding CBSE Class 12 Result 2019 and we hope this detailed article on CBSE 12th Class Result is helpful. If you have any query regarding this article or CBSE Class 12 Result, leave your comments in the comment section below and we will get back to you as soon as possible.

Bookmark this page to never miss out on any update on CBSE Results!

The post CBSE 12th Revaluation/ Re-verification 2019 Result (Released) | Check CBSE 12th Exam Result @ cbse.nic.in appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles

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NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles

NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Exercise 6.1

Choose the correct answer from the given four options:

Question 1.
In the figure, if ∠BAC = 90° and AD ⊥ BC. Then,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 1
(A) BD . CD = BC2
(B) AB . AC = BC2
(C) BD . CD = AD2
(D) AB . AC = AD2
Solution:
(C)
In ∆ABC,
∠B + ∠BAC + ∠C = 180°
⇒ ∠B + 90° + ∠C = 180°
⇒ ∠B = 90° – ∠C
Similarly, In ∆ADC, ∠D AC = 90° – ∠C
In ∆ADB and ∆ADC,
∠D = ∠D = 90°
∠DBA = ∠D AC [each equal to (90° – ∠C)
∴ ∆ADB ~ ∆CDA
[by AA similarity criterion]
\frac{B D}{A D}=\frac{A D}{C D}
⇒ BD . CD = AD2

Question 2.
The lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are 16 cm and 12 cm. Then, the length of the side of the rhombus is
(A) 9 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 8 cm
(D) 20 cm
Solution:
(B)
We know that the diagonals of a rhombus are perpendicular bisectors of each other.
Given, AC = 16 cm and BD = 12 cm
∴ AO = 8 cm, BO = 6 cm and ∠AOB = 90°
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 2
In right angled ∆AOB,
AB2 = AO2 + OB2 [by Pythagoras theorem]
⇒ AB2 = 82 + 62 = 64 + 36 = 100
∴ AB = 10 cm

Question 3.
If ∆ABC ~ ∆EDFand ∆ABC is not similar to ∆DEF, then which of the following is not true?
(A) BC . EF = AC . FD
(B) AB . EF = AC . DE
(C) BC . DE = AB . EF
(D) BC . DE = AB . FD
Solution:
(C)
Given, ∆ABC ~ ∆EDF
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 3
Hence, option (B) is true.

Question 4.
If in two triangles ABC and PQR, \frac{A B}{Q R}=\frac{B C}{P R}=\frac{C A}{P Q} then
(A) ∆PQR ~ ∆CAB
(B) ∆PQR ~ ∆ABC
(C) ∆CBA ~ ∆PQR
(D) ∆BCA ~ ∆PQR
Solution:
(A)
Given, in triangles ABC and PQR,
\frac{A B}{Q R}=\frac{B C}{P R}=\frac{C A}{P Q}
which shows that sides of one triangle are proportional to the sides of the other triangle, then their corresponding angles are also equal, so by SSS similarity, triangles are similar i.e., ∆CAB ~ ∆PQR
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 4

Question 5.
In the figure, two line segments AC and BD intersect each other at the point P such that PA = 6 cm, PB = 3 cm, PC = 2.5 cm, PD = 5 cm, ∠APB = 50° and ∠CDP = 30°. Then, ∠ PBA is equal to
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 5
(A) 50°
(B) 30°
(C) 60°
(D) 100°
Solution:
(D): In ∆APB and ∆CPD, ∠APB = ∠CPD = 50°
[vertically opposite angles]
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 6
∴ ∆APB ~ ∆DPC [by SAS similarity criterion]
∴ ∠A = ∠D = 30° [corresponding angles of similar triangles]
In ∆APB, ∠A + ∠B + ∠APB = 180° [sum of angles of a triangle = 180°]
⇒ 30° + ∠B + 50° = 180°
∴ ∠B = 180° – (50° + 30°) = 100°
i.e., ∠PBA = 100°

Question 6.
If in two triangles DEF and PQR, ∠D = ∠Q and ∠R = ∠E, then which of the following is not true?
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 7
Solution:
(B)
Given, in ∆DEF and ∆PQR, ∠D = ∠Q, ∠R = ∠E
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 8
∴ ∆DEF ~ ∆QRP            [by AAA similarity criterion]
⇒ ∠F = ∠P
[corresponding angles of similar triangles]
\frac{D F}{Q P}=\frac{E D}{R Q}=\frac{F E}{P R}

Question 7.
In ∆ABC and ∆DEF, ∠B = ∠E, ∠F = ∠C and AB = 3 DE. Then, the two triangles are
(A) congruent but not similar
(B) similar but not congruent
(C) neither congruent nor similar
(D) congruent as well as similar
Solution:
(B)
In ∆ABC and ∆DEF, ∠B = ∠E,
∠F = ∠C and AB = 3DE
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 9
We know that, if in two triangles corresponding two angles are same, then they are similar by AA similarity criterion.
Since, AB ≠ DE
Therefore ∆ABC and ∆DEF are not congruent.

Question 8.
It is given that ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR with \frac{B C}{Q R}=\frac{1}{3} then \frac { { ar }(\Delta PRQ) }{ { ar }(\Delta BCA) } equal to
(A) 9
(B) 3
(C) \frac{1}{3}
(D) \frac{1}{9}
Solution:
(A)
Given, ∆ABC ~ ∆QR and \frac{B C}{Q R}=\frac{1}{3}
We know that, the ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to square of the ratio of their corresponding sides.
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 10

Question 9.
It is given that ∆ABC ~ ∆DFE, ∠A =30°, ∠C = 50°, AB = 5 cm, AC = 8 cm and DF= 7.5 cm. Then, the following is true:
(A) DE= 12 cm, ∠F= 50°
(B) DE= 12 cm, ∠F= 100°
(C) EF= 12 cm, ∠D = 100°
(D) EF= 12 cm, ∠D = 30°
Solution:
(B)
Given, ∆ABC ~ ∆DFE, then ∠A = ∠D = 30°, ∠C = ∠E = 50°
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 11
Hence, DE = 12 cm, ∠F = 100°

Question 10.
If in ∆ABC and ∆DEF, \frac{A B}{D E}=\frac{B C}{F D}, then they will be similar, when
(A) ∠B = ∠E
(B) ∠A = ∠D
(C) ∠B = ∠D
(D) ∠A = ∠F
Solution:
(C)
Given, in ∆ABC and ∆EDF,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 12
So, ∆ABC ~ ∆EDF if ∠B = ∠D [By SAS similarity criterion]

Question 11.
If ∆ABC ~ ∆QRP, \frac { { ar }(\Delta ABC) }{ ar(\Delta PQR) } =\frac { 9 }{ 4 } , AB= 18 cm and BC = 15 cm, then PR is equal to
(A) 10 cm
(B) 12 cm
(C) \frac{20}{3} cm
(D) 8 cm
Solution:
(A)
Given, ∆ABC ~ ∆QRP, AB = 18 cm and BC = 15 cm
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 13

Question 12.
If S is a point on side PQ of a ∆PQR such that PS = QS = RS, then
(A) PR – QR = RS2
(B) QS2 + RS2 = QR2
(C) PR2 + QR2 = PQ2
(D) PS2 + RS2 = PR2
Solution:
(C)
Given, in ∆PQR,
PS = QS = RS …………. (i)
In ∆PSR, PS = RS [from Eq(i)]
⇒ ∠1 = ∠2 ………… (ii)
[Angles opposite to equal sides are equal]
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 14
Similarly, in ∆RSQ, RS = SQ
⇒ ∠3 = ∠4 …………. (iii)
[angles opposite to equal sides are equal]
Now, in ∆PQR, sum of angles = 180°
⇒ ∠P + ∠Q + ∠P = 180°
⇒ ∠2 + ∠4 + ∠1 + ∠3 = 180°
⇒ ∠1 + ∠3 + ∠1 + ∠3 = 180°
⇒ 2(∠1 + ∠3) = 180°
⇒ ∠l + ∠3 = \frac{180^{\circ}}{2} = 90°
∴ ∠R = 90°
In ∆PQR, by Pythagoras theorem,
PR2 + QR2 = PQ2

NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Exercise – 6.2

Question 1.
Is the triangle with sides 25 cm, 5 cm and 24 cm a right triangle? Give reasons for your answer.
Solution:
False
Let a = 25 cm, b = 5 cm and c = 24 cm
Now, b2 + c2 = (5)2 + (24)2
= 25 + 576 = 601 ≠ (25)2
Hence, given sides do not make a right triangle because it does not satisfy the property of Pythagoras theorem.

Question 2.
It is given that ∆DEF ~ ∆RPQ. Is it true to say that ∠D = ∠R and ∠F = ∠P? Why?
Solution:
False
We know that, if two triangles are similar, then their corresponding angles are equal.
∴ ∠D = ∠R, ∠E = ∠P and ∠F = Q

Question 3.
A and B are respectively the points on the sides PQ and PR of A PQR such that PQ = 12.5 cm, PA = 5 cm, BR = 6 cm and PB = 4 cm. Is 4B||Q/?? Give reasons for your answer.
Solution:
True
Given, PQ = 12.5 cm, PA = 5 cm, BR = 6 cm and PB = 4 cm
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 15
and \frac{P B}{B R}=\frac{4}{6}=\frac{2}{3}
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), \frac{P A}{A Q}=\frac{P B}{B R}
By converse of basic proportionality theorem, AB || QR

Question 4.
In the figure, BD and CE intersect each other at the point P. Is A∆PBC ~ ∆PDE?Why?
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 16
Solution:
True
In ∆PBC and ∆PDE,
∠BPC = ∠EPD [vertically opposite angles]
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 17
Since, one angle of ∆PBC is equal to one angle of ∆PDE and the sides including these angles are proportional, so both triangles are similar.
Hence, ∆PBC ~ ∆PDE, by SAS similarity criterion.

Question 5.
In ∆PQR and ∆MST, ∠P = 55°, ∠Q = 25°, ∠M = 100° and ∠S = 25°. Is ∆QPR ~ ∆TSM? Why?
Solution:
False
We know that, the sum of three angles of a triangle is 180°.
In ∆PQR, ∠P +∠Q +∠R = 180°
⇒ 55° + 25 ° + ∠R = 180°
⇒∠R = 180° – (55° + 25 °)
= 180° – 80° = 100°
In ∆TSM, ∠T + ∠S + ∠M = 180°
⇒ ∠T + ∠25° + 100° = 180°
⇒ ∠T = 180° – (25° + 100°) = 180° – 125° = 55°
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 18
In ∆PQR and ∆TSM,
∠P = ∠T, ∠Q = ∠S and ∠R = ∠M
∴ ∠PQR = ∠TSM
[since, all corresponding angles are equal]
Hence, ∆QPR is not similar to ∆TSM, since correct correspondence is P ↔ T, Q ↔ S and R ↔ M.

Question 6.
Is the following statement true? Why? “Two quadrilaterals are similar, if their corresponding angles are equal”.
Solution:
False
Two quadrilaterals are similar if their corresponding angles are equal and corresponding sides must also be proportional.

Question 7.
Two sides and the perimeter of one triangle are respectively three times the corresponding sides and the perimeter of the other triangle. Are the two triangles similar? Why?
Solution:
True
Here, the corresponding two sides and the perimeters of two triangles are proportional, then the third side of both triangles will also in proportion.

Question 8.
If in two right triangles, one of the acute angles of one triangle is equal to an acute angle of the other triangle, can you say that the two triangles will be similar? Why?
Solution:
True
Let two right angled triangles be ∆ABC and ∆PQR
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 19
In which, ∠A = ∠P = 90° and ∠B = ∠Q = acute angle (Given)
Then, by AA similarity criterion, ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR

Question 9.
The ratio of the corresponding altitudes of two similar triangles is \frac{3}{5}.Is it correct to say that ratio of their areas is \frac{6}{5} ? Why?
Solution:
False
Ratio of corresponding altitudes of two triangles having areas A1 and A2 respectively is \frac{3}{5}.
By the property of area of two similar triangles,
\Rightarrow\left(\frac{A_{1}}{A_{2}}\right)=\left(\frac{3}{5}\right)^{2} \Rightarrow \frac{9}{25} \neq \frac{6}{5}
So, the given statement is not correct.

Question 10.
D is a point on side QR of ∆PQR such that PD ⊥ QR. Will it be correct to say that ∆PQD ~ A∆RPD? Why?
Solution:
False
In ∆PQD and ∆RPD,
PD = PD [common side]
∠PDQ = ∠PDR [each 90°]
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 20
Here, no other sides or angles are equal, so we can say that ∆PQD is not similar to ∆RPD. But if ∠P = 90°, then ∠DPQ = ∠PRD
[each equal to 90° – ∠Q and by ASA similarity criterion, ∆PQD ~ ∆RPD]

Question 11.
In the figure, if ∠D = ∠C, then is it true that ∆ADE ~ ∆ACB? Why?
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 21
Solution:
True
In ∆ADE and ∆ACB,
∠A = ∠A [common angle]
∠D = ∠C [given]
∴ ∆ADE ~ ∆ACB [by AA similarity criterion]

Question 12.
Is it true to say that if in two triangles, an angle of one triangle is equal to an angle of another triangle and two sides of one triangle are proportional to the two sides of the other triangle, then the triangles are similar? Give reasons for your answer.
Solution:
False
Because, according to SAS similarity criterion, if one angle of a triangle is equal to an angle of the other triangle and the sides including these angles are proportional, then the two triangles are similar.
Here, one angle and two sides of two triangles are equal but these sides not including equal angle, so given statement is not correct.

NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Exercise – 6.3

Question 1.
In a ∆PQR, PR2 – PQ2 = QR2 and M is a point on side PR such that QM⊥ PR. Prove that QM2 = PM × MR.
Solution:
Given, In ∆PQR,
PR2 – PQ2 = QR2 and QM ⊥ PR
To prove : QM2 = PM × MR
Proof : Since, PR2 – PQ2 = QR2
⇒ PR2 = PQ2 + QR2
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 22
So, ∆PQR is right angled triangle right angle at Q.
In ∆QMR and ∆PMQ, ∠M = ∠M [each 90°]
∠MQR = ∠QPM [each equal to 90° – ∠R]
∴ ∆QMR ~ ∆PMQ [by AA similarity criterion]
Now, using property of area of similar triangles, we get
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 23

Question 2.
Find the value of x for which DE || AB is given figure
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 24
Solution:
Given, DE || AB
\frac{C D}{A D}=\frac{C E}{B E} [by basic proportionality theorem]
\frac{x+3}{3 x+19}=\frac{x}{3 x+4}
⇒ (x + 3)(3x + 4) = x (3x + 19)
⇒ 3x2 + 4x + 9x + 12 = 3x2 + 19x
⇒ 19x – 13x = 12
⇒ 6x = 12
∴ x = \frac{12}{6} = 2
Hence, the required value of x is 2.

Question 3.
In the figure, if ∠1 = ∠2and ∆NSQ ≅ ∆MTR, then prove that ∆PTS ~ ∆PRQ.
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 25
Solution:
Given ∆NSQ ≅ ∆MTR and ∠1 = ∠2
To prove : ∆PTS ~ ∆PRQ
Proof : Since, ∆NSQ ≅ ∆MTR
So, SQ = TR ………….. (i)
Also, ∠1 = ∠2 ⇒ PT = PS ………… (ii)
[since, sides opposite to equal angles are also equal]
From Eqs.(i) and (ii), \frac{P S}{S Q}=\frac{P T}{T R}
⇒ ST || QR            [by converse of basic proportionality theorem]
∴ ∠1 = ∠PQR          [Corresponding angles]
and ∠2 = ∠PRQ
In ∆PTS and ∆PRQ,
∠P = ∠P [common angles]
∠1 = ∠PQR
∠2 = ∠PRQ
∴ ∆PTS ~ ∆PRQ              [by AAA similarity criterion]

Question 4.
Diagonals of a trapezium PQRS intersect each other at the point O, PQ || RS and PQ = 3 RS. Find the ratio of the areas of ∆POQ and ∆ROS.
Solution:
Given PQRS is a trapezium in which PQ || RS and PQ = 3RS
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 26
In ∆POQ and ∆ROS,
∠SOR = ∠QOP     [vertically opposite angles]
∠SRP = ∠RPQ     [alternate angles]
∴ ∆POQ ~ ∆ROS       [by AA similarity criterion]
By property of area of similar triangles,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 27
Hence, the required ratio is 9 : 1

Question 5.
In the figure if AB || DC and AC and PQ intersect each other at the point O, prove that OA . CQ = OC . AP.
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 28
Solution:
Given AC an PQ intersect each other at point O and AB || DC
To prove : OA . CQ = OC . AP
Proof: In ∆AOP and ∆COQ,
∠AOP = ∠COQ [vertically opposite angles]
∠APO = ∠CQO
[since AB || DC and PQ is transversal, so alternate angles]
∴ ∆AOP ~ ∆COQ          [by AA similarity criterion]
Then, \frac{O A}{O C}=\frac{A P}{C Q}
[since, corresponding sides are proportional]
⇒ OA . CQ = OC . AP Hence proved.

Question 6.
Find the altitude of an equilateral triangle of side 8 cm.
Solution:
Let ABC be an equilateral triangle of side 8 cm i.e., AB = BC = CA = 8 cm
Draw altitude AD which is perpendicular to BC. Then, D is the mid-point of BC.
∴ BD = CD = \frac{1}{2} BC = \frac{8}{2} = 4 cm
Now, AB2 = AD2 + BD2 [by Pythagoras theorem]
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 29
⇒ (8)2 = AD2 + (4)2
⇒ 64 = AD2 + 16
⇒ AD2 = 64 – 16 = 48
⇒ AD = \sqrt{48} = 4 \sqrt{3} cm
Hence, altitude of an equilateral triangle is 4 \sqrt{3} cm

Question 7.
If ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF, AB = 4 cm, DE = 6 cm, EF = 9 cm and FD = 12 cm, find the perimeter of ∆ABC.
Solution:
Given AB = 4 cm, DE = 6 cm and EF = 9 cm and FD = 12 cm
Also, ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 30
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 31
Now, perimeter of ∆ABC = AB + BC + AC = 4 + 6 + 8 = 18 cm

Question 8.
In the figure, if DE || BC, find the ratio of ar(∆ADE) and ar(∆ECB).
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 32
Solution:
Given, DE || BC, DE = 6 cm and BC = 12 cm
In ∆ABC and ∆ADE,
∠ABC = ∠ADE         [corresponding angle]
and ∠A = ∠A         [common side]
∴ ∆ABC ~ ∆ADE          [by AA similarity criterion]
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 33
Let ar(∆ADE) = k, then ar(∆ABC) = 4k
Now, ar(∆ECB) = ar(ABC) – ar(ADE) = 4k – k = 3k
∴ Required ratio = ar(ADE): ar(DECB)
= k : 3k = 1 : 3

Question 9.
ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC and P, Q are points on AD and BC, respectively such that PQ || DC. If PD = 18 cm, BQ = 35 cm and QC = 15 cm, find AD.
Solution:
Given, a trapezium ABCD in which AB || DC. P and Q are points on AD and BC, respectively such that PQ || DC. Thus, AB || PQ || DC.
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 34
⇒ AP = 42 cm.
Now; AD = AP + PD = 42 + 18 = 60
∴ AD = 60 cm

Question 10.
Corresponding sides of two similar triangles are in the ratio of 2 : 3. If the area of the smaller triangle is 48 cm2, find the area of the larger triangle.
Solution:
Given, ratio of corresponding sides of two similar triangles is 2 : 3 or \frac{2}{3}
Area of smaller triangle = 48 cm2
By the property of area of two similar triangles,
Ratio of area of both triangles = (Ratio of their corresponding sides)2
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 35

Question 11.
In a ∆PQR, N is a point on PR, such that QN ⊥ PR. If PN . NR = QN2, prove that ∠PQR = 90°
Solution:
Given, ∆PQR, N is a point on PR, such that QN ⊥ PR and PN . NR = QN2
To prove : ∠PQR = 90°
Proof: We have, PN . NR = QNc
⇒ PN . NR = QN . QN
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 36
and ∠PNQ = ∠RNQ [each equal to 90° ]
∴ ∆QNP ~ ∆RNQ        [by SAS similarity criterion]
Then, ∆QNP and ∆RNQ are equiangulars.
i.e., ∠PQN = ∠QRN
⇒ ∠RQN-∠QPN
On adding both sides, we get
∠PQN + ∠RQN = ∠QRN + ∠QPN
⇒ ∠PQR = ∠QRN + ∠QPN …………… (ii)
We know that, sum of angles of a triangle is 180°
In ∆PQR, ∠PQR + ∠QPR + ∠QRP = 180°
⇒ ∠PQR + ∠QPN + ∠QRN = 180°
[ ∵∠QPR = ∠QPN and ∠QRP = ∠QRN]
⇒ ∠PQR + ∠PQR = 180° [using Eq. (ii)]
⇒ 2∠PQR = 180°
⇒ ∠PQR = \frac{180^{\circ}}{2} = 90°
∴ ∠PQR = 90° Hence proved.

Question 12.
Areas of two similar triangles are 36 cm2 and 100 cm2 . If the length of a side of the larger triangle is 20 cm, find the length of the corresponding side of the smaller triangle.
Solution:
Given, area of smaller triangle = 36 cm2
and area of larger triangle= 100 cm2
Also, length of a side of the larger triangle = 20 cm
Let length of the corresponding side of the smaller triangle = x cm
By property of area of similar triangles,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 37

Question 13.
In the figure, if ∠ACB = ∠CDA, AC = 8 cm and AD = 3 cm, find BD.
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 38
Solution:
Given, AC = 8 cm, AD = 3 cm
and ∠ACB = ∠CDA
In ∆ACD and ∆ABC,
∠A = ∠A       [Common angle]
∠ADC = ∠ACB      [Given]
∴ ∆ADC ~ ∆ACB      [By AA similarity criterion]
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 39

Question 14.
A 15 metres high tower casts a shadow 24 metres long at a certain time and at the same time, a telephone pole casts a shadow 16 metres long. Find the height of the telephone pole.
Solution:
Let BC = 15 m be the tower and its shadow AB is 24 m. At that time ∠CAB = θ. Again, let EF = h be a telephone pole and its shadow DE = 16 m. At the same time ∠EDF = θ. Here, ∆ABC and ∆DEF both are right angled triangles.
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 40
Hence, the height of the point on the wall where the top of the ladder reaches is 8 m.

Question 15.
Foot of a 10 m long ladder leaning against a vertical wall is 6 m away from the base of the wall. Find the height of the point on the wall where the top of the ladder reaches.
Solution:
Let AB be a vertical wall and AC = 10 m is a ladder. The top of the ladder reached to A and distance of ladder from the base of the wall BC is 6 m.
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 41
In right angled ∆ABC
AC2 = AB2 + BC2 [by Pythagoras theorem]
⇒ (10)2 = AB2 + (6)2
⇒ 100 = AB2 + 36
⇒ AB2 = 100 – 36 = 64
∴ AB = \sqrt{64} = 8 m
Hence the height of the point on th wall where the top of the ladder reaches is 8 m.

NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Exercise – 6.4

Question 1.
In the given figure, if ∠A = ∠C, AB = 6 cm, BP = 15 cm, AP = 12 cm and CP = 4 cm, then find the lengths of PD and CD.
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 42
Solution:
Given ∠A = ∠C, AB = 6 cm, BP = 15 cm,
AP = 12 cm and CP = 4 cm
In ∆APB and ∆CPD,
∠A = ∠C [given]
∠APB = ∠CPD [vertically opposite angles]
∴ ∆APB ~ ∆CPD [by AA similarity criterion]
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 43
Hence, length of PD is 5 cm and length of CD is 2 cm.

Question 2.
It is given that ∆ABC ~ ∆EDF such that AB = 5 cm, AC = 7 cm, DF = 15 cm and DE = 12 cm. Find the lengths of the remaining sides of the triangles.
Solution:
Given, ∆ABC ~ ∆EDF, so the corresponding sides of ∆ABC and ∆EDF are in the same ratio
i.e., \frac{A B}{E D}=\frac{A C}{E F}=\frac{B C}{D F} ………………. (i)
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 44
Hence, lengths of the remaining sides of the triangles are EF = 16.8 cm and BC = 6.25 cm.

Question 3.
Prove that if a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides, then the two sides are divided in the same ratio.
Solution:
Let a ∆ABC in which a line DE parallel to BC intersects AB at D and AC at E.
To prove : DE divides the two sides in the same ratio.
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 45
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 46
Now, since, ∆BDE and ∆DEC lie between the same parallel lines DE and BC and on the same base DE
So, ar(∆BDE) = ar(∆DEC) ………….. (iii)
From Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii),
\frac{A D}{D B}=\frac{A E}{E C}
Hence proved

Question 4.
In the figure, if PQRS is a parallelogram and AB || PS, then prove that OC || SR.
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 47
Solution:
Given PQRS is a parallelogram, so PQ || SR and PS || QR. Also AB || PS.
To prove : OC || SR
Proof : In ∆OPS and ∆OAB, PS || AB
∠POS = ∠AOB    [common angle]
∠OSP = ∠OBA        [corresponding angles]
∴ ∆OPS ~ ∆OAB           [by AA similarity criterion]
Then, \frac{P S}{A B}=\frac{O S}{O B} ………… (i)
In ∆CQE and ∆CAB, QR || PS || AB
∠QCR = ∠ACB [common angle]
∠CRQ = ∠CBA [corresponding angles]
∴ ∆CQR ~ ∆CAB
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 48
On subtracting 1 from both sides, we get OB CB
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 49
By converse of basic proportionality theorem, SR || OC.
Hence proved

Question 5.
A 5 m long ladder is placed leaning towards a vertical wall such that it reaches the wall at a point 4 m high. If the foot of the ladder is moved 1.6 m towards the wall, then find the distance by which the top of the ladder would slide upwards on the wall.
Solution:
Let AC be the ladder of length 5 m and BC = 4 m be the height of the wall, which ladder is placed. If the foot of the ladder is moved 1.6 m towards the wall i.e, AD = 1.6 m, then the ladder is slide upward i.e., CE = x m.
In right angled ∆ABC,
AC2 = AB2 + BC2     [by Pythagoras theorem]
⇒ (5)2 = (AB)2 + (4)2
⇒ AB2 = 25 – 16 = 9
⇒ AB = 3m
Now, DB = AB – AD = 3 – 1.6 = 1.4 m
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 50
In right angled ∆EBD,
ED2 = EB2 + BD2       [by Pythagoras theorem]
⇒ (5)2 = (EB)2 + (1.4)2 [ ∵ BD = 1.4 m]
⇒ 25 = (EB)2 + 1.96
⇒ (EB)2 = 25 – 1.96 = 23.04
⇒ EB = \sqrt{23.04} = 4.8
Now, EC = EB – BC = 4.8 – 4 = 0.8
Hence, the top of the ladder would slide upwards on the wall at distance is 0.8 m.

Question 6.
For going to a city B from city A, there is a route via city C such that AC ⊥ CB, AC = 2x km and CB = 2 (x + 7) km. It is proposed to construct a 26 km highway which directly connects the two cities A and B. Find how much distance will be saved in reaching city B from city A after the construction of the highway.
Solution:
Given, AC ⊥ CB, AC = 2xkm,CB = 2(x + 7)km and AB = 26 km
On drawing the figure, we get the right angle ∆ACB right angled at C.
Now, In ∆ACB, by Pythagoras theorem,
AB2 = AC2 + BC2
⇒ (26)2 = (2x)2 + {2(x + 7)}2
⇒ 676 = 4x2 + 4(x2 + 49 + 11x)
⇒ 676 = 4x2 + 4x2 + 196 + 56x
⇒ 676 = 8x2 + 56x + 196
⇒ 8x2 + 56x – 480 = 0
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 51
On dividing by 8, we get x2 + 7x – 60 = 0
⇒ x2 + 12x-5x-60 = 0
⇒ x(x + 12) – 5(x + 12) = 0
⇒ (x + 12)(x – 5) = 0
∴ x = -12, x = 5
Since, distance cannot be negative.
∴ x = 5 [∵ x ≠ 12]
Now, AC = 2x = 10 km and BC = 2(x + 7) = 2(5 + 7) = 24 km
The distance covered to reach city B from city A via city C = AC + BC = 10 + 24 = 34 km
Distance covered to reach city B from city A after the construction of the highway is
BA = 26 km
Hence, the required saved distance is 34 – 26
i.e., 8 km

Question 7.
A flag pole 18 m high casts a shadow 9.6 m long. Find the distance of the top of the pole from the far end of the shadow.
Solution:
Let BC = 18 m be the flag pole and its shadow be AB = 9.6 m. The distance of the top of the pole, C from the far end i.e., A of the shadow is AC
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 52
In right angled ∆ABC
AC2 = AB2 + BC2 [by Pythagoras theorem]
⇒ AC2 = (9.6)2 + (18)2
⇒ AC2 = 92.16 + 324
⇒ AC2 = 416.16
∴ AC = \sqrt{416.16} = 20.4 m
Hence, the required distance is 20.4 m.

Question 8.
A street light bulb is fixed on a pole 6 m above the level of the street. If a woman of height 1.5 m casts a shadow of 3m, find how far she is away from the base of the pole.
Solution:
Let A be the position of the street bulb fixed on a pole AB = 6 m and CD = 1.5 m be the height of a woman and her shadow be ED = 3 m. Let distance between pole and woman be x m.
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 53
Here, woman and pole both are standing vertically
So, CD || AB
In ∆CDE and ∆ABE,
∠E = ∠E [common angle]
∠ABE = ∠CDE [each equal to 90°]
∴ ∆CDE ~ ∆ABE [by AA similarity criterion]
Then \frac{E D}{E B}=\frac{C D}{A B} \Rightarrow \frac{3}{3+x}=\frac{1.5}{6}
⇒ 3 × 6 = 1.5(3 + x)
⇒ 18 = 1.5 × 3 + 1.5x
⇒ 1.5x = 18 – 4.5
∴ x = \frac{13.5}{1.5} = 9 m
Hence, she is at the distance of 9 m from the base of the pole.

Question 9.
In the figure, ABC is a triangle right angled at B and BD ⊥ AC. If AD = 4 cm, and CD = 5 cm, find BD and AB.
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 54
Solution:
Given, ∆ABC in which ∠B = 90° and BD ⊥ AC
Also, AD = 4 cm and CD = 5 cm
In ∆DBA and ∆DCB,
∠ADB = ∠CDB [each equal to 90°]
and ∠BAD = ∠DBC [each equal to 90° – ∠C] ;.
∴ ∆DBA ~ ∆DCB [by AA similarity criterion]
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 55

Question 10.
In the figure, PQR is a right triangle right angled at Q and QS ⊥ PR. If PQ = 6 cm and PS = 4 cm, find QS, RS and QR.
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 56
Solution:
Given, ∆PQR in which ∠Q = 90°, QS ⊥ PR and PQ = 6 cm, PS = 4 cm
In ∆SQP and ∆SRQ,
∠PSQ = ∠RSQ [each equal to 90°]
∠SPQ = ∠SQR [each equal to 90° – ∠R]
∴ ∆SQP ~ ∆SRQ [By AA similarity criterion]
Then, \frac{S Q}{P S}=\frac{S R}{S Q}
⇒ SQ2 = PS × SR ………….. (i)
In right angled ∆PSQ,
PQ2 = PS2 + QS2 [by Pythagoras theorem]
⇒ (6)2 = (4)2.+ QS2
⇒ 36 = 16 + QS2
⇒ QS2 = 36 – 16 = 20
∴ QS.= \sqrt{20}=2 \sqrt{5} cm
On putting the value of QS in Eq(i), we get
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 57

Question 11.
In ∆PQR, PD ⊥ QR such that D lies on QR . If PQ = a, PR = b, QD = c and DR = d, prove that [a + b)(a – b) = (c + d)(c – d).
Solution:
Given: In ∆PQR, PD ⊥ QR, PQ = a, PR = b,
QD = c and DR = d
To prove : (a + b)(a -b) = (c + d)(c – d)
Proof : In right angled ∆PDQ,
PQ2 = PD2 + QD2 [by Pythagoras theorem]
⇒ a2 = PD2 + c2
⇒ PD2 = a2 – c2 …………. (i)
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 58
In right angled ∆PDR,
PR2 = PD2 + DR2 [by Pythagoras theorem]
⇒ b2 = PD2 + d2
⇒ PD2 = b2 – d2 ………….. (ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii)
a2 – c2 = b2 – d2
⇒ a2 – b2 = c2 – d2
⇒ (a – b)(a + b) = (c – d)(c + d)
Hence proved.

Question 12.
In a quadrilateral ABCD, ∠A + ∠D = 90°. Prove that AC2 + BD2 = AD2 + BC2 [Hint: Produce AB and DC to meet at E]
Solution:
Given : Quadrilateral ABCD, in which ∠A + ∠D = 90°
To prove : AC2 + BD2 = AD2 + BC2
Construct: Produce AB and CD to meet at E
Also join AC and BD
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 59
Proof: In ∆AED, ∠A + ∠D = 90° [given]
∴ ∠E = 180° – (∠A + ∠D) = 90°
[ ∵ sum of angles of a triangle = 180°]
Then, by Pythagoras theorem,
AD2 = AE2 + DE2
In ∆BEC, by Pythagoras theorem,
BC2 = BE2 + EC2
On adding both equations, we get
AD2 + BC2 = AE2 + DE2 + BE2 + CE2 ………… (i)
In ∆AEC, by Pythagoras theorem,
AC2 = AE2 + CE2
and in ∆BED, by Pythagoras theorem,
BD2 = BE2 + DE2
On adding both equations, we get
AC2 + BD2 = AE2 + CE2 + BE2 + DE2 ………… (ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii)
AC2 + BD2 = AD2 + BC2
Hence proved.

Question 13.
In the given figure, l || m and line segments AB, CD and EF are concurrent at point P. Prove that \frac{A E}{B F}=\frac{A C}{B D}=\frac{C E}{F D}
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 60
Solution:
Given l || m and line segments AB, CD and EF are concurrent at point P
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 61

Question 14.
In the figure, PA, QB, RC and SD are all perpendiculars to a line l,AB = 6 cm, BC = 9 cm, CD = 12 cm and SP = 36 cm. Find PQ,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 62
Solution:
Given, AB = 6 cm, BC = 9 cm, CD = 12 cm and SP = 36 cm
Also, PA, QB, RC and SD are all perpendiculars to line l
∴ PA || QB || RC || SD By Basic proportionality theorem,
PQ : QR : RS = AB : BC : CD = 6 : 9 : 12
Let PQ = 6x, QR = 9x and RS = 12x
Since, length of PS = 36 cm
∴ PQ + QR + RS = 36
⇒ 6x + 9x + 12x = 36
⇒ 27x = 36
∴ x = \frac{36}{27}=\frac{4}{3}
Now, PQ = 6x = 6 × \frac{4}{3} = 8 cm
QR = 9x = 9 × \frac{4}{3}= 12 cm
and RS = 12x = 12 × \frac{4}{3} = 16 cm

Question 15.
O is the point of intersection of the diagonals AC and BD of a trapezium ABCD with AB || DC. Through 0, a line segment PQ is drawn parallel to AB meeting AD in P and BC in Q. Prove that PO = QO.
Solution:
Given ABCD is a trapezium. Diagonals AC and BD are intersect at O.
PQ || AB || DC
To prove : PO = QO
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 63
Proof : In ∆ABD and ∆POD, PO || AB [∵ PQ || AB]
∠D = ∠D [common angle]
∠ABD = ∠POD [corresponding angles]
∴ ∆ABD ~ ∆POD[by AA similarity criterion]
Then, \frac{O P}{A B}=\frac{P D}{A D} …………… (i)
In ∆ABC and ∆OQC, OQ || AB
∠C = ∠C [common angle]
∠B AC = ∠QOC [corresponding angles]
∴ ∆ABC ~ ∆OQC [by AA similarity criterion]
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 64

Question 16.
In the figure, line segment DF intersect the side AC of a ∆ABC at the point E such that E is the mid-point of CA and ∠AEF = ∠AFE. Prove that \frac{B D}{C D}=\frac{B F}{C E}
[Hint:Take point G on AB such that CG || DF]
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 65
Solution:
Given ∆ABC, E is the mid-point of CA and ∠AEF = ∠AFE
To prove : \frac{B D}{C D}=\frac{B F}{C E}
Construction : Take a point G on AB such that CG || DF
Proof : Since, E is the mid-point of CA
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 66
∴ CE = AE
In ∆ACG, CG || EF and E is mid-point of CA
So, CE = GF …………… (ii) [by mid-point theorem]
Now, in ∆BCG and ∆BDF, CG || DF
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 67

Question 17.
Prove that the area of the semicircle drawn on the hypotenuse of a right angled triangle is equal to the sum of the areas of the semicircles drawn on the other two sides of the triangle.
Solution:
Let ABC be a right triangle, right angled at B and AB = y, BC = x
Three semi-circles are drawn on the sides AB,
BC and AC, respectively with diameters AB,
BC and AC, respectively
Again, let area of circles with diameters AB,
BC and AC are respectively A1, A2 and A3
To prove : A3 = A1 + A2
Proof : In ∆ABC, by Pythagoras theorem,
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 68
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 69
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 70

Question 18.
Prove that the area of the equilateral triangle drawn on the hypotenuse of a right angled triangle is equal to the sum of the areas of the equilateral triangles drawn on the other two sides of the triangle.
Solution:
Lett a right triangle BAC in which ∠A is right angle and AC = y, AB = x
Three equilateral triangles ∆AEC, ∆AFB and ∆CBD are drawn on the three sides of ∆ABC.
Again, let area of triangles made on AC, AB and BC are A1, A2 and A3, respectively.
To prove : A3 = A1 + A2
Proof : In ∆CAB, by Pythagoras theorem,
BC2 = AC2 + AB2
⇒ BC2 = y2 + x2
⇒ BC = \sqrt{y^{2}+x^{2}}
NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Triangles 71

NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Maths

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JoSAA 2019 Counselling Round 1 Result Announced | Check Opening and Closing Rank

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JoSAA Counselling 2019: JoSAA Counselling 2019 has been started from 16th June 2019 from 10:00 AM onwards and the last date to fill choices and locking was June 25 at 5:00 PM, 2019. Round 1 results are announced as counseling has been completed. Also, the top 20 percentiles for IITs, NITs, IITs, GFTIs has also been published, candidates can download it from this Post. Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA) has been set up by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) to regulate and manage the seat allocation in around 100 institutes all over the nation. JoSAA seat allocation for IITs, NITs, IIITs, IIEST, and GFTIs. on undergoing through JoSAA Counselling students will get admission into top Engineering and Technical Colleges.

Students who have qualified JEE Main and JEE Advanced are eligible to participate in JoSAA Counselling. JoSAA Counselling will be conducted in 2 rounds of Mock allotment and 7 rounds of actual seat allotment. Candidates must register for JOSA, register options and pay a fixed fee to accept the seat reserved for the next rounds of JoSAA Counseling 2019. Here in this article, we will provide you with all the details of JoSAA eligibility, registration, choice filling, seat allotment, and important dates. Read on to find more about JoSAA Counselling.

JoSAA 2019 Counselling

JoSAA is a single platform which conducts JoSAA Counselling for 23 IITs, 31 NITs, 23 IIITs and 23 Government Funded Technical Institutes (GFTIs). Before getting into the details of the JoSAA Counselling, let’s have a quick overview.

Name of the Counselling Conducting BodyJoint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA)
Eligibility For UG AdmissionsJEE Main and JEE Advanced
PurposeFor admission in IITs, NITs, IIITs, and Other GFTIs
Mock Rounds2
Total Rounds of Seat Allocation7
Official Websitejosaa.nic.in

JoSAA 2019 Important Dates

Let’s go through the JoSAA 2019 important dates 2019. These dates are tentative and the official dates will be updated once the dates are declared officially for JoSAA 2019.

Registration and Choice FillingJune 16, 2019 (10 AM)
Release of Mock Test Result – Round 1June 22, 2019 (10 AM)
Release of Mock Test Result – Round 2June 24, 2019 (10 AM)
Last Date to Fill Choices and LockingJune 25, 2019 (5 PM)
Reconciliation of data, Seat Allocation, verification and validationJune 26, 2019
Round 1 of Seat AllotmentJune 27, 2019 (10 AM)
Round 1 of Document Verification, Seat Acceptance and Reporting at CentresJune 28 to July 2, 2019 (10 am to 5 pm)
Round 2 Seat AllotmentJuly 3, 2019 (5 PM)
Round 2 of Document Verification, Seat Acceptance/ Withdrawal and Reporting at CentresJuly 4 to July 5, 2019 (10 am to 5 pm)
Round 3 Seat AllotmentJuly 6, 2019 (5 PM)
Round 3 of Document Verification, Seat Acceptance/ Withdrawal and Reporting at CentresJuly 7 to July 8, 2019 (10 am to 5 pm)
Round 4 Seat AllotmentJuly 9, 2019 (5 PM)
Round 4 of Document Verification, Seat Acceptance/ Withdrawal and Reporting at CentresJuly 10 to July 11, 2019 (10 am to 5 pm)
Round 5 Seat AllotmentJuly 12, 2019 (5 PM)
Round 5 of Document Verification, Seat Acceptance/ Withdrawal and Reporting at CentresJuly 13 to July 14, 2019 (10 am to 5 pm)
Round 6 Seat AllotmentJuly 15, 2019 (5 PM)
Round 6 of Document Verification, Seat Acceptance/ Withdrawal and Reporting at CentresJuly 16 to July 17, 2019 (10 am to 5 pm)
Round 7 Seat AllotmentJuly 18, 2019 (1 PM)
Round 7 of Document Verification, Seat Acceptance and Reporting at CentresJuly 19 to July 23, 2019 (10 am to 5 pm)

JoSAA 2019 Counselling – Eligibility Criteria

There are no specific eligibility criteria for JoSAA Counselling but you should know about some points:

  • Admission to NITs, IIITs and GFTIs must be applied to satisfy the JEE main eligibility criteria.
  • On the other hand, candidates eligible for JEE Advanced can participate in counseling for IITs, NITs, IITs, GFTIs, and other participating institutions.
  • Candidates must also meet the eligibility criteria of the participating institutions.

JoSAA 2019 Counselling Process

JoSAA Counselling will be conducted for all the eligible candidates, follow the following steps to know about JoSAA Counselling Process.

JoSAA Counselling 2019 JoSAA Registration

  • Candidates will have to log in to their account using their credentials and fill the JoSAA Counselling with the basic information such as state eligibility code, Contact information, etc.
  • Students eligible for JEE Advanced will have to enter their login ID and Password, on the other hand, JEE Main eligible students will have to enter roll number and password.
  • For JoSAA Counselling registration is the first step, before submitting students must recheck their details and make sure the details are correct or not.

JoSAA Counselling 2019 – Choice Filling

After the completion of successful registration of the students, available choices will be listed. Candidates will have to fill up the details of the choices in descending order of their preferences and they need to make sure that they fill many choices as possible based on their preferences.

JoSAA Counselling 2019 – Locking of Choices

After filling out the options, candidates will be required to lock for seat allocation. If a candidate does not lock his / her options, their last saved options are automatically locked when the time window is closed to fill the options.

JoSAA Counselling 2019 – Seat Allotment

  • JoSAA will allocate seats considering various factors as per the schedule released by JoSAA. JoSAA will conduct 2 rounds of mock allotment and choice filling and seat allotment process.
  • The mock seat assignment is for students to come up with an idea. Students can modify their options after the mock assignment for the original Round 1 seat assignment.
  • All 7 rounds of seats will be allotted and candidates will have to decide on the seat assigned to them.

JoSAA Counselling 2019 – Seat Acceptance

If the candidates are satisfied with the seat allocated to them then they will have to pay the seat acceptance fee and report to the reporting center. However, if the candidates are not satisfied with the seat allotted then they can exercise the following options.

  1. Freeze: The option indicates that the candidate has accepted the seat allocated to it and is not interested in participating in further rounds of counseling.
  2. Slide: This option indicates that the candidate has accepted the seat but, if the admissions are open in a better course in the same institute, he/ she will go for an up-gradation.
  3. Float: This option will indicate that the candidate wishes to accept the present allocated seat but is also looking for an up-gradation if admissions are open in a better/ higher preferred institute and course.

JoSAA Counselling 2019 – Reporting To the College

Once the candidate has opted for the freeze option, then it indicates that he/she is satisfied with the allotted seat and will have to report to the reporting center. The candidate will have to report to the reporting center to get their documents verified. The candidate will have to report to the college as per schedule with the required documents and fee.

JoSAA Counselling 2019 – Dual Reporting

Candidates who have been allocated a different seat from previous assignments should go to the reporting center again. For example, if a candidate was assigned an NIT in the previous round and is now assigned an IIT, he/she should visit the reporting center once again and vice versa

JoSAA 2019 Counselling  – Documents To Carry

The following documents are important to be carried along to the reporting center for verification.

  1. Provisional Seat Allotment Letter
  2. Passport Size Photograph
  3. Fee Acceptance Receipt
  4. Photo Card ID
  5. JEE Main  Admit Card / JEE Advanced Admit Card
  6. JEE Main Score Card / JEE Advanced Score Card
  7. Undertaking by the candidate as per government
  8. Class 10 Mark Sheet
  9. Class 12 Mark Sheet
  10. Category Certificate (if applicable)
  11. PwD Certificate (if applicable)

JoSAA 2019 – Key Points

  • Candidates who have failed while registration will not be able to participate in JoSAA Counselling
  • Candidates will have to fill in the choices other than this they will not be eligible for any seat allotment.
  • Two times reporting is necessary for students if they get another seat during subsequent seat allotment.
  • Make sure that you are sure with the choices you have entered as you will not be able to change the choices once the choices are locked.

https://www.learncram.com/ml-aggarwal/ml-aggarwal-class-10-solutions-for-icse-maths-chapter-2-ex-2/

We hope we have provided all the necessary information about JoSAA Counselling 2019 if you have any doubt regarding this post or JoSAA Counselling 2019. Please comment in the comment section, we will get back to you at the earliest.

The post JoSAA 2019 Counselling Round 1 Result Announced | Check Opening and Closing Rank appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles

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NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter  Exercise 6.1

Write the correct answer in each of the following:

Question 1.
In the given figure, if AB || CD || EF, PQ || RS, ∠RQD = 25° and ∠CQP = 60°, then ∠QRS is equal to
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 1
(A) 85°
(B) 135°
(C) 145°
(D) 110°
Solution:
(C): Produced PQ to X which intersect AB at Y.
PQ || RS ⇒ PX || RS
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 2
∵ AB || CD and PX is transversal
∠CQP + ∠AYX = 180° [Co-exterior angles]
⇒ 60° + ∠AYX = 180°
⇒ ∠AYX = 180° – 60°
⇒ ∠AYX = 120°
∵ PX || RS and AB is transversal
∠YRS = ∠AYX [Corresponding angles]
⇒ ∠YRS = 120° …(i)
and AB || CD and RQ is transversal
∠YRQ = ∠RQD [Alternate interior angles]
⇒ ∠YRQ = 25° …(ii)
Now, ∠SRQ = ∠SRY + ∠YRQ
⇒ ∠SRQ = 120° + 25° [From (i) and (ii)]
⇒ ∠SRQ = 145°

Question 2.
If one angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of the other two angles, then the triangle is
(A) an isosceles triangle
(B) an obtuse triangle
(C) an equilateral triangle
(D) a right triangle
Solution:
(D): Let the angles of a ∆ABC be ∠A, ∠B and ∠C.
We have given, ∠A = ∠B + ∠C …(i)
In ∆ABC, ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180° …(ii)
[Angle sum property of a triangle]
From (i) and (ii),
∠A + ∠A = 180°
⇒ 2∠A = 180°
⇒ ∠A = 90°
Hence, the triangle is a right triangle.

Question 3.
An exterior angle of a triangle is 105° and its two interior opposite angles are equal. Each of these equal angles is
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 3
Solution:
(B) : Let one of the interior opposite angle of a triangle be x.
∵ Exterior angle
= sum of two opposite interior angles
∴ x + x = 105° [ ∵ Exterior angle = 105° and two interior opposite angles are equal]
⇒ 2x = 105° ⇒ x = 52 \frac{1}{2}°.
Thus, each of the required angles of a triangle 52 \frac{1}{2}°.

Question 4.
The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 7. The triangle is
(A) an acute angled triangle
(B) an obtuse angled triangle
(C) a right triangle
(D) an isosceles triangle
Solution:
(A): We have given, the ratio of angles of a triangle is 5 : 3 : 7.
Let angles of a triangle be ∠A, ∠B and ∠C, where ∠A = 5x, ∠B = 3x and ∠C = 7x Now in ∆ABC, ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°
[Angle sum property of a triangle]
∴ 5x + 3x + 7x = 180°
⇒ 15x = 180°
So, ∠A = 5 × 12° = 60°, ∠B = 3 × 12° = 36° and ∠C = 7 × 12° = 84°
∵ All angles are less than 90°, hence the triangle is an acute angled triangle.

Question 5.
If one of the angles of a triangle is 130°, then the angle between the bisectors of the other two angles can be
(A) 50°
(B) 65°
(C) 145°
(D) 155°
Solution:
(D) : Let angles of a triangle be ∠A, ∠B and ∠C, where ∠A = 130°
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 4
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 5

Question 6.
In the given figure, POQ is a line. The value of x is
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 6
(A) 20°
(B) 25°
(C) 30°
(D) 35°
Solution:
(A) :
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 7
Since, POQ is a line segment.
∴ ∠POQ = 180°
⇒ ∠POA + ∠AOB + ∠Solution:Q = 180°
⇒ 40° + 4x + 3x = 180°
⇒ 7x = 180° – 40° ⇒ 7x = 140° ⇒ x = 20°

Question 7.
In the given figure, if OP || RS, ∠OPQ = 110° and ∠QRS = 130°, then ∠PQR is equal to
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 8
(A) 40°
(B) 50°
(C) 60°
(D) 70°
Solution:
(C) : Draw a line EF parallel to RS through point Q
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 9
∵ OP || RS [Given]
⇒ EF || RS [Construction]
∴ OP || EF and PQ is a transversal
⇒ ∠OPQ = ∠PQF [Alternate interior angles]
⇒ ∠PQF = 110° [ ∵ ∠OPQ = 110°]
⇒ ∠PQR + ∠RQF = 110° … (i)
Now, RS || EF and RQ is a transversal
⇒ ∠QRS + ∠RQF = 180° [Co-interior angles]
⇒ 130° + ∠RQF = 180°
⇒ ∠RQF = 180° – 130° = 50°
Now from (i), we have
⇒ ∠PQR + 50° = 110°
⇒ ∠PQR = 110° – 50°
⇒ ∠PQR = 60°

Question 8.
Angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 4 : 3. The smallest angle of the triangle is
(A) 60°
(B) 40°
(C) 80°
(D) 20°
Solution:
(B) : We have given, the ratio of angles of a triangle is 2 : 4 : 3.
Let the angles of a triangle be ∠A, ∠B and ∠C, where ∠A = 2x, ∠B = 4x and ∠C = 3x
Now in ∆ ABC, ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180°
[Angle sum property of a triangle]
⇒ 2x + 4x + 3x = 180°
⇒ 9x = 180° ⇒ x = 20°
∠A = 2 × 20° = 40°, ∠B = 4 × 20° = 80° and ∠C = 3 × 20° = 60°
Thus, the smallest angle of the triangle is 40°.

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter  Exercise 6.2

Question 1.
For what value of x + y in the given figure will ABC be a line? Justify your answer.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 10
Solution:
For ABC to be a line, the sum of the two adjacent angles must be 180° i.e., x + y = 180°.

Question 2.
Can a triangle have all angles less than 60°? Give reason for your answer.
Solution:
No, because if all angles will be less than 60°, then their sum will not be equal to 180° and that will not be a triangle.

Question 3.
Can a triangle have two obtuse angles? Give reason for your answer.
Solution:
No, because if two angles will be more than 90°, then the sum of angles will not be equal to 180°.

Question 4.
How many triangles can be drawn having its angles as 45°, 64° and 72°? Given reason for your answer.
Solution:
The sum of given angles = 45° + 64° + 72° = 181° * 180°.
Thus the sum of all three angles is not equal to 180°. So, no triangle can be drawn with the given angles.

Question 5.
How many triangles can be drawn having its angles as 53°, 64° and 63°? Give reason for your answer.
Solution:
Since, the sum of given angles = 53°+ 64° + 63° = 180°
Thus, we see that the sum of all interior angles of a triangle is 180°. So, we can draw many triangles of the given angles with different sides. Hence, infinitely many triangles can be drawn.

Question 6.
In the given figure, find the value of x for which the lines l and m are parallel.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 11
Solution:
We have given, l || m and a transversal line n,
∴ x + 44° = 180° [Co-interior angles]
⇒ x = 180° – 44° ⇒ x = 136°

Question 7.
Two adjacent angles are equal. Is it necessary that each of these angles will lie a right angle? Justify your answer.
Solution:
No, because each of the two adjacent angles will be right angles only if they will form a linear pair.

Question 8.
If one of the angles formed by two intersecting lines is a right angle, what can you say about the other three angles? Give reason for your answer.
Solution:
Let two lines AB and CD intersect each other at a right angle.
Let ∠AOC = 90°
∠AOC + ∠AOD = 180° [Linear pair]
⇒ ∠AOD = 180° – 90° = 90°
Now, ∠COA = ∠DOB = 90°
[Vertically opposite angles]
and ∠AOD = ∠COB = 90°
[Vertically opposite angles]
Hence, each of the other three angles are right angles.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 12

Question 9.
In the given figure, which of the two lines are parallel and why?
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 13
Solution:
Left side figure shows the sum of two interior angles = 132° + 48° = 180° because the sum of two interior angles on the same side of a transversal line n is 180°, thus l ||m.
Right side figure shows the sum of two interior angles = 73° + 106° = 179° ≠ 180° because the sum of two interior angles on the same side of a transversal line r is not equal to 180°, thus p is not parallel to q.

Question 10.
Two lines l and m are perpendicular to the same line n. Are l and m perpendicular to each other? Give reason for your answer.
Solution:
No
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 14
Given that the lines l and m are perpendicular to the line n.
∴ ∠1 = ∠2 = 90°
This shows that the corresponding angles are equal.
Thus, l || m.

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter  Exercise 6.3

Question 1.
In the given figure, OD is the bisector of ∠AOC, OE is the bisector of ∠BOC and OD ⊥ OE. Show that the points A, O and B are collinear.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 15
Solution:
Since, OD and OE bisects ∠AOC and ∠BOC, respectively.
∴ ∠AOC = 2∠DOC …(i)
and ∠COB = 2 ∠COE …(ii)
On adding (i) and (ii), we get
∠AOC + ∠COB = 2 ∠DOC + 2 ∠COE
⇒ ∠AOC + ∠COB = 2 (∠DOC + ∠COE)
⇒ ∠AOC + ∠COB = 2 ∠DOE
⇒ ∠AOC + ∠COB = 2 × 90° [∵ OD ⊥ OE]
⇒ ∠AOC + ∠COB = 180°
As, adjacent angles ∠AOC and ∠COB form a linear pair.
∴ AOB is a straight line.
Thus, points A, O and B are collinear.

Question 2.
In the given figure, ∠1 = 60° and ∠6 = 120°. Show that the lines m and n are parallel.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 16
Solution:
We have ∠1 = 60° and ∠6 = 120°
∠1 = ∠3 = 60° [Vertically opposite angles]
Now, ∠3 + ∠6 = 60° + 120°
⇒ ∠3 + ∠6 = 180°
Since the above shows that the sum of two interior angles on same side of a transversal line l is 180°, thus m || n

Question 3.
AP and BQ are the bisectors of the two alternate interior angles formed by the intersection of a transversal t with parallel lines l and m (in the given figure). Show that AP || BQ.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 17
Solution:
Since, l || m and t is a transversal line.
∴ ∠EAB = ∠ABH [Alternate interior angles]
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 18
[On dividing Solution:th sides by 2]
⇒ ∠PAB = ∠ABQ
[∵ AP and BQ are the bisectors of ∠EAB and ∠ABH] Since, ∠PAB and ∠ABQ are alternate interior angles formed by lines AP and BQ and transversal AB. Thus, AP || BQ.

Question 4.
If in the given figure, bisectors AP and BQ of the alternate interior angles are parallel, then show that l || m.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 19
Solution:
Since, AP || BQ and t is a transversal, therefore, ∠PAB = ∠ABQ
[Alternate interior angles]
⇒ 2 ∠PAB = 2 ∠ABQ
[On multiplying both sides by 2]
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 20
⇒ ∠CAB = ∠ABF [ ∵ AP and BQ are the bisectors of ∠CAB and ∠ABF]
Since, ∠CAB and ∠ABF are alternate interior angles formed by lines l and m and transversal t. Thus, l || m.

Question 5.
In given figure, BA || ED and BC || EF. Show that ∠ABC = ∠DEF.
[Hint: Produce DE to intersect BC at P (say)].
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 21
Solution:
Let us produce DE, which meets BC at P.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 22
Since BA || ED ⇒ BA || DP
∴ ∠ABP = ∠EPC [Corresponding angles]
or ∠ABC = ∠EPC …(i)
Again, BC || EF or PC || EF
∴ ∠DEF = ∠EPC …(ii)
[Corresponding angles] From (i) and (ii), we get
∠ABC = ∠DEF

Question 6.
In the given figure, BA || ED and BC || EF. Show that ∠ABC + ∠DEF = 180°.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 23
Solution:
Let us produce FE, which meets AB at P.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 24
BC || EF ⇒ BC || PF
∴ ∠EPB + ∠PBC = 180° …(i)
[Co-interior angles]
Now, AB || ED and PF is a transversal.
∴ ∠EPB = ∠DEF …(ii)
[Corresponding angles]
From (i) and (ii), we get
∠DEF + ∠PBC = 180°
⇒ ∠ABC + ∠DEF = 180° [ ∵ ∠PBC = ∠ABC]

Question 7.
In the given figure, DE || QR and AP and BP are bisectors of ∠EAB and ∠RBA, respectively. Find ∠APB.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 25
Solution:
DE || QR and AB is a transversal
∴ ∠EAB + ∠RBA = 180° (Co-interior angles)
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 26
[On dividing both sides by 2]
∵ AP and BP are the bisectors of ∠EAB and ∠RBA, respectively.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 27
Using these in (i), we have
⇒ ∠BAP + ∠ABP = 90° …(ii)
In ∆APB, ∠BAP + ∠ABP + ∠APB = 180°
[Angle sum property of a triangle]
⇒ 90° + ∠APB = 180° [From (ii)]
⇒ ∠APB = 90°

Question 8.
The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. Find the angles of the triangle.
Solution:
Let the angles of a triangle be 2x, 3x and 4x. Since sum of all angles of a triangle is 180°.
∴ 2x + 3x + 4x = 180°
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 28
∴ The required three angles are 2 × 20° = 40°, 3 × 20° = 60° and 4 × 20° = 80°.

Question 9.
A triangle ABC is right angled at A. L is a point on BC such that AL ⊥ BC. Prove that ∠BAL = ∠ACB.
Solution:
In ∆ABC and ∆ALB,
∠BAC = ∠ALB [Each 90°]…(i)
and ∠ABC = ∠ABL [Common angle]…(ii)
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 29
On adding (i) and (ii), we get
∠BAC + ∠ABC = ∠ALB + ∠ABL …(iii)
Again, in ∆ABC,
∠BAC + ∠ACB + ∠ABC = 180°
[Angle sum property of a triangle]
= ∠BAC + ∠ABC = 180° – ∠ACB …(iv)
In ∆ABE,
∠ABL + ∠ALB + ∠BAL = 180°
[Angle sum property of a triangle]
⇒ ∠ABL + ∠ALB = 180° – ∠BAL …(v)
On substituting the values from (iv) and (v) in (iii), we get
180° – ∠ACB = 180° – ∠BAL
⇒ ∠ACB = ∠BAL

Question 10.
Two lines are respectively perpendicular to two parallel lines. Show that they are parallel to each other.
Solution:
Let two lines m and n are parallel and p and q are respectively perpendicular to m and n.
Since, p ⊥ m ⇒ ∠1 = 90° …(i)
Also, q ⊥ m ⇒ ∠2 = 90° …(ii)
[Since, m || n and q ⊥ n ⇒ q ⊥ m]
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 30
From (i) and (ii), we have
Z1 = Z2 = 90°
As p and q are two lines and m is transversal. Also corresponding angles ∠1 and ∠2 are equal.
Thus, p || q.

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter  Exercise 6.4

Question 1.
If two lines intersect, prove that the vertically opposite angles are equal.
Solution:
Let the two lines AB and CD intersect at a point O.
Since, ray OA stands on line CD.
∴ ∠AOC + ∠AOD = 180° [Linear pair]…(i)
Since, ray OD stands on line AB.
∠AOD + ∠AOD = 180° [Linear pair] …(ii)
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 31
From (i) and (ii), we get
∠AOC + ∠AOD = ∠AOD + ∠BOD
⇒ ∠AOC + ∠BOD
So, vertically opposite angles ∠AOC and ∠BOD are equal.
Also, ray OB stands on line CD.
∴ ∠DOB + ∠BOC = 180° [Linear pair] …(iii)
From (ii) and (iii), we get
∠AOD + ∠BOD = ∠DOB + ∠BOC
⇒ ∠AOD = ∠BOC
Thus, vertically opposite angles ∠AOD and ∠BOC are equal.

Question 2.
Bisectors of interior ∠B and exterior ∠ACD of a ∆ABC intersect at the point T. Prove that
∠BTC= \frac{1}{2}∠BAC.
Solution:
In ∆ABC, produce BC to D and the bisectors of ∠ABC and ∠ACD meet at point T.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 32
In ∆ABC,
∠ACD = ∠ABC + ∠CAB
[Exterior angle property of a triangle]
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 33

Question 3.
A transversal intersects two parallel lines. Prove that the bisectors of any pair of corresponding angles so formed are parallel.
Solution:
Let AB and CD are two parallel lines and intersected by a transversal GH at P and Q, respectively. Also, let EP and FQ are the bisectors of corresponding angles ∠APG and ∠CQP, respectively.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 34
Since AB || CD
⇒ ∠APG = ∠CQP [Corresponding angles]
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 35
[On dividing both sides by 2]
⇒ ∠EPG = ∠FQP
[∵ EP and FQ are the bisectors of ∠APG and ∠CQP, respectively]
As, these are the corresponding angles made by the lines EP and FQ and transversal line GH.
EP || FQ

Question 4.
Prove that through a given point, we can draw only one perpendicular to a given line.
[Hint: Use proof by contradiction].
Solution:
Let a line l and a point P.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 36
Also let m and n are two lines passing through P and perpendicular to l.
In ∆APB,
∠A + ∠P + ∠B = 180°
[Angle sum property of a triangle]
⇒ 90° + ∠P + 90° = 180°
⇒ ∠P = 180°- 180°
⇒ ∠P = 0°
∴ Lines n and m coincide.
Thus, only one perpendicular line can be drawn through a given point on a given line.

Question 5.
Prove that two lines that are respectively perpendicular to two intersecting lines intersect each other.
[Hint: Use proof by contradiction].
Solution:
Let lines l and m are two intersecting lines. Again, let n and p be another two lines which are perpendicular to m and l respectively.
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 37
Let us assume that lines n and p are not intersecting, that means they are parallel to each other i.e., n||p …(i)
Since, lines n and p are perpendicular to m and l, respectively.
But from (i), n || p ⇒ l || m, which shows a contradiction.
So, our assumption was wrong.
Thus lines n and p intersect at a point.

Question 6.
Prove that a triangle must have atleast two acute angles.
Solution:
Let ∆ABC is a triangle.
We know that, the sum of all three angles is 180°.
∴ ∠A + ∠B + ∠C = 180° …(i)
Let us consider the following cases.
Case I: When two angles are 90°.
Suppose two angles ∠B = 90° and ∠C = 90°
So from (i), we get
∠A + 90° + 90° = 180°
⇒ ∠A = 180° -180° = 0
Thus, no triangle is possible.

Case II: When two angles are obtuse.
Suppose ∠B and ∠C are obtuse angles.
From (i), we get ∠A = 180° – (∠B + ∠C)
= 180° – (greater than 180°)
[ ∵ ∠B + ∠C = more than 90° + more than 90°]
⇒ ∠A = negative angle, which is not possible,
Thus, no triangle is possible.

Case III: When one angle is 90°.
Suppose ∠B = 90°.
From (i), ∠A + ∠B + ∠C= 180°
⇒ ∠A + ∠C = 180° – 90° = 90°
So, sum of other two angles are 90°, Hence, both angles are acute.

Case IV: When two angles are acute, then sum of two angles is less than 180°, so that the third angle may be acute or obtuse.
Thus, a triangle must have atleast two acute angles.

Question 7.
In the given figure, ∠Q > ∠R, PA is the bisector of ∠QPR and PM ⊥ QR. Prove that ∠APM = \frac{1}{2}(∠Q – ∠R).
NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles 38
Solution:
Since, PA is the bisector of ∠QPR.
∴ ∠ QPA = ∠ APR
In ∆PQM, ∠PQM + ∠PMQ + ∠QPM = 180°
[Angle sum property of a triangle]
⇒ ∠PQM + 90° + ∠QPM = 180°
[ ∵ PM ⊥ QR
⇒ ∠PMQ = 90°]
⇒ ∠PQM = 90° – ∠QPM …(ii)
In ∆PMR,
∠PMR + ∠PRM + ∠RPM = 180°
[Angle sum property of a triangle]
⇒ 90° + ∠PRM + ∠RPM = 180°
[∵ PM ⊥ QR ⇒ ∠PMR = 90°]
⇒ ∠PRM = 180° – 90° – ∠RPM
⇒ ∠PRM = 90° – ∠RPM …(iii)
On subtracting (iii) from (ii), we get
∠Q – ∠R = (90° – ∠QPM) – (90° – ∠RPM)
[ ∵ ∠PQM = ∠Q and ∠PRM = ∠R]
⇒ ∠Q – ∠R = ∠RPM – ∠QPM
⇒ ∠Q – ∠R = [∠RPA + ∠APM] -[∠QPA – ∠APM]
⇒ ∠Q – ∠R = ∠RPA + ∠APM – ∠QPA + ∠APM
⇒ ∠Q – ∠R = 2∠APM [By using (i)]
∠APM = \frac{1}{2} (∠Q – ∠R)

NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths

The post NCERT Exemplar Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines And Angles appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NEET MBBS MP Rank List To Be Out On June 29 | Check Madhya Pradesh MBBS Merit List 2019 Here

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NEET MBBS MP Rank List 2019: Department of Medical Education (DME). will release NEET MBBS MP Rank List for state quota. Madhya Pradesh NEET Merit List for 85% state quota seats will be prepared by DME for domicile candidates who qualified NEET 2019 and register for admissions on the official website.

NEET Merit List

Students whose names appear in the state merit list must attend the counseling procedure which is conducted by DME. NEET MBBS MP Rank List will contain the candidate’s name, NEET rank and scores, domicile, state merit rank, state category rank, and other details. 1750 MBBS and 1164 BDS seats of Madhya Pradesh colleges are available for the students who are eligible in NEET 2019.

NEET MBBS MP Rank List – Latest Updates

  • NEET 2019 Madhya Pradesh Merit list is expected to be released on June 29, 2019, as per DME, MP official notification. Check NEET MBBS MP Merit List – Click Here (Direct link to be updated after the declaration).
  • The online registration window for NEET MBBS Counselling Madhya Pradesh 2019 will be available till 12 am on June 28. Submit your NEET scores before the deadline to appear in the NEET MBBS MP Rank List 2019.

NEET MP Merit List 2019

In this article, we have provided all the necessary information regarding NEET MBBS MP Rank List 2019, and steps to download the merit list online from the official website. Read on to find more about NEET MBBS MP Rank List 2019.

NEET MBBS MP Rank List 2019 for 85% Seats

PurposeMBBS & BDS Admission in Madhya Pradesh
Counselling AuthorityDirectorate of Medical Education (DME), Madhya Pradesh
Selection CriteriaScores Obtained in National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET)
Exam Conducting AuthorityNational Testing Agency (NTA)
Number of Seats1750 MBBS and 1164 BDS

Know Everything about NEET UG Counselling

How To Download NEET MBBS MP Merit Lit 2019?

Students follow the below-mentioned steps to download NEET MBBS MP Merit List 2019:

  • Step – 1: Visit the official website of MP @ dme.mponline.gov.in.
  • Step – 2: Click on the link NEET MBBS MP Rank List/Merit List 2019
  • Step – 3: you will be redirected to the new page which shows NEET MBBS Rank List PDF.
  • Step – 4: Now press Ctrl + F on your keyboard and search your name in the merit list.
  • Step – 5: Download NEET MBBS Rank List for future reference.

Details Mentioned On NEET MBBS MP Rank List 2019

The NEET MBBS MP rank list will have the following details mentioned on it

  1. Candidate’s name
  2. NEET Rank
  3. NEET Marks
  4. Candidate’s Category
  5. State Merit Rank
  6. NEET Percentile

NEET MBBS MP Rank List 2019 – Direct Links To Download

Name of the QuotaMP MBBS Rank List 2019
Government QuotaAvailable soon
Management QuotaAvailable soon

NEET MBBS MP Rank List 2019 – Previous Year NEET Cutoff

CategoryNEET Cutoff PercentileNEET 2018 Cutoff marks (out of 720)NEET 2017 Cutoff Marks (out of 720) 
General50 percentile691-119697-131
SC/ST/OBC40 percentile118-96130-107
General-PH45 percentile118-107130-118
SC/ST/OBC-PH40 percentile106-96130-107

NEET MBBS MP Rank List 2019 – Tie-Breaking Procedure

When two or more students score the same marks in NEET 2019, DME will follow the following procedure to break the Tie:

  • Candidates with higher marks in Biology will be considered.
  • If the tie exists candidates with Chemistry marks will be considered.
  • If the tie still continues students with lesser number of wrong answers will be considered.
  • If the tie still continues after applying above tiebreak criteria, students who are older in age will be considered.

MP NEET Merit List 2019 – NEET Application Procedure

MP NEET MBBS Merit List will be released in the month of June 2019. Candidates who registered for MP NEET MBBS Counselling by filling in the application form will be considered for the NEET MP Merit List.

  • In order to fill the application form candidates must register online by creating their profile.
  • While filling the application form students must enter details such as personal, academic, category, domicile as per the guidelines and upload the required documents.
  • Candidates must pay an application fee of Rs.1000 in Online mode.
  • Candidates must take a printout of the confirmation page for future purpose.

NEET MBBS MP Rank List 2019 – NEET Counselling

DME will conduct NEET Counselling for MBBS/BDS courses in Madhya Pradesh. Students whose name in the merit list will be able to attend the counseling process. Based on the ranks scored by students will be called for NEET Counselling Procedure. DME, MP will conduct the counseling procedure in three rounds including the mop-up round to fill the vacant seats left from previous rounds. The total number of MBBS seats in Madhya Pradesh is 1170, and the allotment of seat will be based on factors such as choices filled by the candidate, NEET 2019 rank, seats available, and reservation criteria.

NEET MBBS MP Rank List 2019 – Seat Allotment

MP MBBS Seat DistributionAdmission CriteriaCounselling Authority
15% All India Quota SeatsNEET ScoreMCC
85% State Quota SeatsState Merit Rank Based on NEET ScoresDME, MP
Private Colleges AdmissionsState Merit Rank Based on NEET ScoresDME, MP
Central/Deemed Universities AdmissionsNEET ScoreMCC

https://www.learncram.com/ml-aggarwal/ml-aggarwal-class-10-solutions-for-icse-maths-chapter-1-chapter-test/

We hope we have provided all the necessary information regarding NEET MBBS MP Rank List 2019. If you have any doubt regarding this post or NEET MBBS MP Rank List 2019. Please comment in the comment section we will get back to you at the earliest.

The post NEET MBBS MP Rank List To Be Out On June 29 | Check Madhya Pradesh MBBS Merit List 2019 Here appeared first on Learn CBSE.

HBSE 10th Revaluation Result 2019 | Check Haryana 10th Rechecking Results, Scores

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HBSE Class 10th Result 2019: HBSE 10th Result 2019 will be announced by Board of School Education Haryana, on its official website, http://www.bseh.org.in/. The results for class 10 Harayana has been declared today 17th May 2019 @ 3:00 PM and the announcement will be made by the Haryana Government. Students who have given the Haryana 10th class exams, the results will be declared for them by the conducting body, very soon.

Direct Link to Check HBSE Class 10th Result 2019

State Board Results

Candidates who want to check Haryana Board Class 10 Result 2019 have to enter their Roll Number as mentioned in their Admit Card. The exam for 10th class Haryana Board was conducted from 8th March to 30th March 2019. As soon as the results will be announced by the Haryana Board, we will be updating here regarding the same. By then, students are requested to have patience and wait for their results.

Students, who have appeared for Haryana Board 10th exam in 2019, should calculate estimated marks as per they have written the exams. Mark yourself for each subject on the question papers, as per the exam, written by you. This will help you to compare the marks obtained by you in the final results. If there is a much of difference between your calculated marks and the marks mentioned in the results, then you can apply for re-evaluation of the particular subject.

Here in this article, we are going to give complete details for the results of Haryana Board class 10th results for the exam conducted this year in 2019. Keep reading with us.

Haryana Class 10th Result 2019

The results for HBSE Class 10th Result 2019, is expected to be released by 20th May 2019, as per estimation is done with respect to previous years results. Let us give here a general description of the Haryana Board 10th Exam 2019.

  • Examination Name – HBSE Class 10th Exam 2019
  • Conducting Body – Board of School Education, Haryana
  • Examination Mode – Offline(Pen and Paper)
  • Exam Dates – 8th March to 30th March 2019
  • Exam Results – Expected till 20th May 2019
  • Result Announcement Mode – Online
  • Result Website – www.bseh.org.in

Steps to Check Haryana Class 10th Result 2019

Haryana State Board Class 10th Result 2019 will be declared on the official website and through online mode only. Later, students can collect their 10th certificate from the respective schools. Below here are the steps to check the results through online mode, for Haryana 10th class exam conducted this year in 2019.

  • Firstly, the candidate has to visit the official Haryana board official website.
  • Click on Enter Website link, you will be directed to the home page
  • Click on Results link available at the home page, again a new webpage will get open.
  • Click on the link given for secondary examination results 2019.
  • A new webpage will get opened where you will be asked to enter the particulars, such as roll number or name.
  • Enter the details and click on submit button.
  • The result of HSEB 10th exam will be displayed on your screen.
  • Download the result for your reference and future use.

Details Mentioned on HBSE Class 10 Result 2019

Marksheet of HBSE Secondary Exam/10th consists of following details

  • Roll Number allocated by the HBSE board
  • Name of the Student
  • Registration number
  • Date of Birth
  • School Name and Code
  • Father’s and Mother’s name
  • Marks scored in each subject
  • Total Marks Secured
  • Percentage
  • Result status
  • Principal’s Signature

Re-evaluation of Haryana Class 10th Results

If the students are not happy with their marks or if they have not passed the exam, they can choose for revaluation of their results, declared by the Board of School Education, Haryana. To apply for it, students will have to download the application form for a re-evaluation of marks available in the Haryana board official website.

Students have to send the filled application form along with a nominal fee deposit fee to the Haryana State Board authority, for re-checking the answer sheets, declaring the name of the subject in the form.  After the submission of the form, the board personnel of Haryana will recheck the answer sheets for the subject, which has to be re-evaluated or for which the objection has been proposed.

Statistics of Previous Years Haryana Class 10th Results

Students who have appeared for this year Haryana 10th Exam will be having some expectations from the results. They can get an idea of statistics for this year results based on the previous year’s results of 10th class HBSE. Have a look at the below-given table

Exam YearNumber of Appeared StudentsOverall Pass Percentage
20183,83,49951.5%
20174,68,45297.68%
20163,78,84094.15%
20152,98,79191.52%
20142,23,78288.96%
20131,20,45185.67%

The results will be announced by the Board of School Education, Haryana.

Some Important Facts For Haryana Class 10th Results

  • Students can check the result through online mode, in the official website of Haryana board, http://haryana.indiaresults.com/hbse.
  • Student’s Matriculation exam roll number, present in the admit card and name is required to check the results.
  • Students have to score the minimum marks in all the subjects, to pass in Haryana class 10th exam.
  • Students can go for the re-evaluation of the answer-sheet if they are not convinced with the results.
  • After the Haryana Board Class 10th results are declared, students can reach to their respective schools to get the secondary school certificate.

About HBSE

The Board of School Education, Haryana, Bhiwani came into existence in 1969 as per Haryana Act No. 11 of 1969 with its head-quarters at Chandigarh later shifted to Bhiwani in January 1981.

Functions Performed By The Haryana Board

  • Prescribing relevant syllabus and textbooks for all the classes.
  • Fairly and Timely conducting board examinations for class 10th and 12th along with evaluation and declaration of results.
  • Using information and communication technology in Boards working to provide better assistance to stakeholder.
  • To adequately provide to the Quality, Equity, Relevance and Access of school education.
  • Timely affiliation of schools for private and government both.
  • Appropriate preparation of Re-checking and Re-evaluation
  • Developing school-based appraisal with the help of Continuous and Overall Evaluation.
  • Developing Contact Programme Evaluation under Open Schooling, on the lines of CCE
  • Serving students of Open learning by providing the system of On Demand Examination and exploring other roads to strengthen access to those who are outside formal schooling.
  • Reconstructing D.Ed curriculum and implementing orientation to Teacher-Educators
  • Regular conduct of eligibility test for prospective teachers
  • Motivating worthy students and schools with suitable awards. Special plan for Girl students
  • Motivating teachers for their participation in fair and smooth conduct of examination by organizing the awards.
  • Exploring means and ways of improving the application of latest information and communication technology in the working of the Board.

We hope the detailed article on HBSE 10th Result 2019 is helpful. If you have any doubt regarding this article or HBSE 10th Result 2019, drop your comments in the comment section below and we will get back to you as soon as possible.

The post HBSE 10th Revaluation Result 2019 | Check Haryana 10th Rechecking Results, Scores appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NEET MBBS Telangana Rank List 2019 (Released) | Check Telangana NEET 2019 Merit List

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NEET MBBS Telangana Rank List 2019: KNRUHS Warangal, released the NEET MBBS Telangana Rank List 2019 on 15th June 2019. Students who want to participate in Telangana NEET MBBS Counseling must register themselves on or before the closing date. Telangana officials publish two types of NEET MBBS Rank list, Provisional NEET Telangana Merit List and Final Telangana Merit List. Students who registered themselves can find their names in Provisional NEET Telangana Merit List. Candidates whose name present in Provisional NEET Telangana Merit List must report to the nodal centers along with the required documents.

NEET Merit List

After the completion of successful document verification Final Telangana Merit List will be released. Candidates whose name appear in final Telangana merit list can be called for NEET MBBS Telangana Counselling. Read on the article to know more about NEET Telangana Rank Lists 2019. Here we provide all the complete information about NEET MBBS Telangana Rank List 2019.

NEET MBBS Telangana Rank List 2019 for 85% Quota Seats

Admission authority prepares a separate Telangana MBBS Rank List 2019 for seats under state quota, management quota, and NRI quota. Rank list will be applicable for filling up 85% state quota seats while the remaining 15% seats are covered under All India quota seats to be filled by Medical Counselling Committee (MCC).

How To Download NEET MBBS Telangana Rank List?

Follow the following steps to download NEET 2019 MBBS Telangana Merit List:

  • Step – 1: Visit the official website @ knruhs.in
  • Step – 2: Click on the link which shows NEET MBBS Telangana Rank List.
  • Step – 3: Telangana MBBS NEET Merit List will display on the screen in PDF Format, Now press Ctrl + F to find your name in NEET Merit List.
  • Step – 4: Now download Telangana MBBS NEET Merit List for future reference.

NEET MBBS Telangana Rank List

YearProvisional NEET Merit ListFinal NEET Merit List
NEET Merit List 2019List of Candidates – Released

Provisional –Released

Available soon

Above NEET Merit List denotes the list of candidates from Telangana state who appeared in NEET UG 2019 and students who secured more than 107 marks. NEET 2019 Cut Off marks for General Category students is 134 marks, for PH category students is 120 marks, for OBC, SC & ST students the cutoff marks are 107.

NEET MBBS Telangana Rank List Eligibility Criteria

CategoryNEET Cutoff Percentile
General50 percentile
SC/ST/OBC40 percentile
General-PH45 percentile
SC/ST/OBC-PH40 percentile

NEET MBBS Telangana Rank List Previous Year Cutoff

CategoryQualifying Percentile
Others50th Percentile
OBC40th percentile
Scheduled Caste (SC)40th percentile
Scheduled Tribe (ST)40th percentile
UR & PH45th percentile
OBC & PH40th percentile
SC & PH40th percentile
ST & PH40th percentile

Tie Breaking Criteria for NEET MBBS Telangana Rank List

If two students will secure the same marks then Telangana officials will determine their ranks using the following tie-breaking criteria:

  • Students who secure more marks in NEET Biology will be considered
  • if the tie still exists, students who score more marks in chemistry will be considered.
  • If the tie still continuos students with less number of incorrect answers in NEET UG will be considered
  • At last, candidates whose age will be less will be taken.

We hope the detailed article on NEET MBBS Telangana Rank List 2019 is helpful. If you have any doubt regarding this article or NEET MBBS Telangana Rank List 2019, drop your comments in the comment section below and we will get back to you as soon as possible.

 

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AP EAMCET Result 2019, Rank Card Released | Direct Link to Download AP EAMCET Rank Card @sche.ap.gov.in

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AP EAMCET Results 2019: AP EAMCET Results 2019 announced on June 4, 2019. The results were supposed to be announced by Today, June 04 2019. The results have been declared online on sche.ap.gov.in. Candidates who will qualify the AP EAMCET 2019 Examination will be called for counseling and further allotted seats in various colleges of the state

AP EAMCET Counselling will start from June 29, 2019, Click Here to check Counselling dates and procedure.

AP EAMCET Results Links

Direct Link to Download AP EAMCET Rank Card

Other websites to check AP EAMCET Result

AP EAMCET Results 2019 Latest Update

AP EAMCET Results 2019 has been Released Today June 04, 2019 @ 11:30 AM

AP EAMCET Result has been delayed due to the declaration of TS Intermediate revaluation result. As per the officials, once the Telangana Intermediate revaluation result is declared on May 27, AP EAMCET Result date will be announced.

All the details regarding AP EAMCET Result 2019 and steps to view and download the result card are given in this article. Read on to find out.

AP EAMCET Results 2019 Timeline

AP EAMCET 2019 ExaminationApril 20, 22 and 24, 2019
AP EAMCET Results 2019June 04, 2019

AP EAMCET Results 2019 – Steps To Check Results

The results can be checked online by following the steps below

  1. Go to the official website sche.ap.gov.in.
  2. Click on the ‘AP EAMCET 2019 Result’ link.
  3. Enter the 10 digit hall ticket number and click the ‘submit’ button.
  4. Your result will appear on the computer screen.

AP EAMCET Scorecard

Scorecard of AP EAMCET results consist of following details

  1. Hall Ticket Number
  2. Candidate’s Name
  3. Father’s Name
  4. Gender
  5. Local Area
  6. Category
  7. Rank
  8. AP EAMCET 2019 Marks
  9. Result (Qualifying status)
  10. Combined score (AP EAMCET 2019+qualifying exam score)
  11. Marks in all the 3 subjects

AP EAMCET Results 2019 Evaluation

One mark is awarded for every correct answer, and there is no negative marking. The candidates will be ranked on the basis of the EAMCET 2019 marks (75% weightage) and 10+2 (25% weightage) in the order of merit. The AP EAMCET 2019 Result will be available in two formats: the total marks of the test and the rank. KEAM is also an entrance exam which is held in the state of Kerala for engineering, Architecture and Medical Students.

AP EAMCET Results 2019 Cutoff for the Merit List

For the unreserved category, the minimum qualifying marks are 25% of the total marks. However, no cutoff has been specified for the reserved category.

We wish all the candidates good luck for AP EAMCET 2019 Results! Keep visiting the official website for further notifications and announcements.

We hope the detailed article on AP EAMCET Results 2019 is helpful. If you have any doubt regarding this article or AP EAMCET Results 2019, drop your comments in the comment section below and we will get back to you as soon as possible.

The post AP EAMCET Result 2019, Rank Card Released | Direct Link to Download AP EAMCET Rank Card @sche.ap.gov.in appeared first on Learn CBSE.

JKBOSE 12th Exam 2019 Date Sheet Released for Bi-Annual Exam for Jammu Division | Check Complete Time Table Here

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JKBOSE Class 12 Bi-Annual Exam 2019: The higher authorities of Jammu and Kashmir Board of School Education (JKBOSE) have been released the date sheet for class 12 students of Bi-Annual Exam (Summer Zone) on 29th June 2019. JKBOSE Officials are going to release Admit Card for class 12 students of Jammu and Kashmir on 2nd July 2019 on its official website. Students from Jammu and Kashmir will have to know about the complete details of important dates and admit card. Here in this article, we will provide you all the necessary and important information about the JKBOSE Bi-Annual Exam.

Download JKBOSE 12th Datesheet 2019 for Jammu Division

JKBOSE Class 12 Bi-Annual Exam Overview

Board NameJammu and Kashmir Board of School Education (JKBOSE)
Examination NameJKBOSE 12th Class Bi-Annual Exams For Jammu Division (Summer Zone)
Jammu Division Bi-Annual Exam DatesJuly 6th to July 29th, 2019
Admit Card Release DateWill Be Released On 2nd July 2019
Mode Of AvailabilityOnline
Official Websitejkbose.ac.in

JKBOSE Class 12 Bi-Annual Exam Date Sheet 2019

Day and DateFaculty of ScienceFaculty of ArtsFaculty of CommerceFaculty of Home Science
Saturday, July 6, 2019Geology, Biotechnology, Microbiology, BiochemistryArabic, Sanskrit, Persian, EconomicsEntrepreneurship, EconomicsHuman Development
Tuesday, July 9, 2019General EnglishGeneral EnglishGeneral EnglishGeneral English
Friday, July 12, 2019Computer Science, Informatics Practices, Environmental Science, Functional English, Physical Education, Islamic Studies, Vedic Studies, Buddhist Studies, ElectronicsComputer Science, Informatics Practices, Environmental Science, Functional English, Physical Education, Islamic Studies, Vedic Studies, Buddhist Studies, Travel, Tourism, and Hotel Management, English LiteratureComputer Science, Informatics Practices, Environmental Science, Functional English, Physical Education, Islamic Studies, Vedic Studies, Buddhist Studies, Travel, Tourism, and Hotel ManagementComputer Science, Informatics Practices, Environmental Science, Functional English, Physical Education, Islamic Studies, Vedic Studies, Buddhist Studies, Travel, Tourism, and Hotel Management
Monday, July 15, 2019ChemistryHome Science (Elective), History, Public AdministrationBusiness Mathematics, Public Administration NA
Thursday, July 18, 2019GeographyPsychology, Geography, Music, Philosophy, Education NAClothing for the family
Monday, July 22, 2019PhysicsUrdu, Hindi, Kashmiri, Dogri, Punjabi, BhotiAccountancyExtension Education
Thursday, July 25, 2019Biology (Botany & Zoology), StatisticsPolitical Science, StatisticsBusiness Studies NA
Monday, July 29, 2019Mathematics, Applied MathematicsSociology, Mathematics, Applied Mathematics NANA

JKBOSE Class 12 Bi-Annual Exam Date Sheet 2019

JKBOSE Class 12 Admit Card Bi-Annual Exam

JK BOSE Class 12 Bi-Annual Exam Admit Card 2019 will be released on July 2nd, 2019, here are the steps how to download JK BOSE Class 12 Bi-Annual Exam Admit Card:

  • Step – 1: Visit the official website of Jammu and Kashmir @ jkbose.ac.in
  • Step – 2: on home pages at left side search for the link download the JKBOSE 12th Class 2019 Admit Card For Jammu Division (Summer Zone).
  • Step – 3: Click on the link and enter the required credentials and press login.
  • Step – 4: On screen, you will get your JKBOSE Class 12 Admit Card
  • Step – 5: Now download your admit card and keep it safe until the complete process end.

Details Mentioned On JKBOSE Class 12 Admit Card Bi-Annual Exam

  • Name of the Candidate’s Father
  • The venue of the Exam Centre
  • Date & Time of the Test
  • Reporting Time to the Exam Hall
  • Gender (Male/ Female)
  • Roll Number
  • Duration of the Online Test
  • Space for Invigilator’s Signature
  • Registration Number
  • Name of the Test Centre
  • Name of the Exam Conducting Board
  • Photograph of the Candidate
  • Applicant’s Date of Birth
  • Name of the Written Test
  • Category of the candidates
  • Space for Applicant’s Signature
  • Important Guidelines for the Exam Takers
  • Full Name of the Applicant
  • Examination Centre Code
  • Signature of the Board Counselor

We hope we have provided all the necessary information about JKBOSE Class 12 Bi-Annual Exam 2019. If you have any doubt regarding this post or JKBOSE Class 12 Bi-Annual Exam 2019. Please comment in the comment section we will get back to you at the earliest.

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NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank List 2019 | Check NEET UG 2019 Merit List Maharashtra From Here

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NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank List 2019: DMER is going to release the NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank List 2019 in the 3rd week of June 2019. 714562 Students have qualified in NEET 2019 Entrance Exam. 85% State quota seat MBBS and BDS will be taken from the NEET 2019 Score in Entrance exam for Maharashtra MBBS NEET Rank List. State Common Entrance Test Cell, Mumbai is responsible for releasing the NEET MBBS Merit List. Those students who have filled the application form and qualified in NEET 2019, will be included in NEET MBBS Merit List 2019. Provisional Merit List will be published before document verification. After the completion of document verification, the provisional merit list will be released.

NEET Merit List

NEET MBBS Maharashtra rank list will consist of the NEET All India Rank, NEET Roll Number, CET online form number, Candidate’s name, gender, category, merit, region and whether eligible for NRI quota. Students whose names include in NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank List will participate in NEET Counselling. Students will be called for seat allocation on the basis of  Maharashtra NEET Merit List. Find out the article to know more about NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank List 2019.

Latest Update: NEET 2019 Result has been released on June 5th, 2019.

NEET MBB Maharashtra Rank List Important Dates

EventsDates
Online Registration/Application formJune 22 to July 26, 2019, up to 5:00 PM
Payment of Registration Fees Through Online Payment GatewayJune 22 to July 26, 2019, up to 5:00 PM
Publication of registered candidate’s listJune 26, 2019, after 10:00 PM
Document verification for NRI Candidate at 9th Floor, Admissions Regulating Authority, A.K. Nayak Marg, Fort, Mumbai – 400 002June 28 to July 1, 2019
Physical Document verification at Respective Centre. (The details of this will be published by way of a notice on 26/06/2019)June 28 to July 3, 2019
Online Preference (Choices) Filling Process for the MBBS/ BDS course.June 28 to July 4, 2019
Publication of Provisional State Merit ListJuly 4, 2019, after 5:00 PM
Declaration of selection list of 1st Round for MBBS/ BDS course.July 5, 2019, after 8:00 PM
Last date of joining to the selected college during the 1st round for MBBS/ BDS course.July 12, 2019
Commencement of Academic Session for MBBS / BDS course.August 1, 2019
Online Preference (Choices) Filling Process for BAMS/ BHMS/ BUMS/ BPTh/ BOTh/ BASLP/ BP&O/ B.Sc (Nursing) course.July 5 to July 11, 2019
Declaration of selection list of 1st Round for BAMS/ BHMS/ BUMS/ BPTh/ BOTh/ BASLP/ BP&O/ B.Sc (Nursing) course.July 15, 2019
Last date of joining to the selected college during 1st round for BAMS/ BHMS/ BUMS/ BPTh/ BOTh/ BASLP/ BP&O/ B.Sc (Nursing) course.July 23, 2019
Commencement of Academic Session for for BAMS/ BHMS/ BUMS/ BPTh/ BOTh/ BASLP/ BP&O/ B.Sc (Nursing) course.August 1, 2019

Know Everything about NEET UG Counselling

NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank List 2019 for 85% State Quota

Here are some highlights about Maharashtra NEET Merit List 2019:

  • Those students whose name included in Provisional Merit List are eligible for Maharashtra MBBS Admission 2019.
  • NEET MBBS Merit List will be published for all those students who have eligibility and who had registered.
  • NEET officials will prepare separate NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank list under three categories, state quota, management quota, and NRI quota.
  • 85% of seats are filled by NEET Maharashtra Merit List while the remaining 15% of seats are filled by All India Quota.
  • Medical Counselling Committee (MCC) will be responsible for filling the seats of the colleges present in Maharashtra accepting NEET score.

How to Download NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank List

Students can download NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank List by following steps:

  • Step – 1: Visit the official website of Maharashtra @ dmer.org.
  • Step – 2: Click on the link Maharashtra NEET Rank List
  • Step – 3: On-screen Maharashtra NEET Rank List will appear in PDF Format.
  • Step – 4: By pressing Ctrl + F in the keyboard search your name or Registration Number in PDF.
  • Step – 5: Now download the PDF Format for future reference.

Details Mentioned On NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank List

These are the details that will be mentioned on the NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank List:

  • Candidates’ name
  • Registration Number
  • NEET Score
  • Maharashtra State Merit List
  • Category of the Candidate

NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank List – NEET Marks And Percentile

CategoryMinimum Required Percentile
General (UR)50th Percentile
SC/ST/OBC(including PwD of SC/ST/OBC)40th Percentile
UR PwD45th Percentile

Tie-breaker Considered In NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank List 2019

When two or more students will score the same rank in NEET 2019 the following criteria will be used to break the tie:

  • Students who got more marks in Biology will be considered.
  • If the Tie Still Exists students who got more marks in Chemistry will be considered.
  • If the tie still not broken students who have got lesser wrong answers in NEET 2019 will be considered.
  • If the tie still continues students with more age will be considered.

NEET MBBS Maharashtra Counselling

Students whose name are in NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank List will be called for NEET Counselling procedure 2019. NEET Counselling will be conducted in online mode. Maharashtra MBBS Admission 2019 will be done on the merit-cum-preference basis.

NEET Important Dates

EventsImportant Dates
Provisional Merit List will be released inThe third week of June 2019
Verification of documents will be done inFourth week of June 2019
Final Merit List will be released inFourth week of June 2019
Online Choice Filling will be done (Counselling)Last week of June 2019
Center-wise list for Document Verification (Round 2)The second week of July 2019

NEET Colleges In Maharashtra

CollegesSeats
American University of Antigua, Antigua –
Armed Forces Medical College, Pune150
Grant Medical College, Mumbai200
Savitribai Phule Pune University, Pune –
Seth GS Medical College, Mumbai180
Topiwala National Medical College and BYL Nair Charitable Hospital, Mumbai120
BJ Government Medical College, Pune200
Lokmanya Tilak Municipal Medical College, Sion, Mumbai150
Government Medical College and Hospital, Nagpur200
Lokmanya Tilak Municipal Medical College, Sion, Mumbai –
Government Medical College and Hospital, Nagpur200
Indira Gandhi Government Medical College and Hospital, Nagpur150
Government Medical College, Aurangabad150
Shivaji University, Kolhapur –
Rashtrasant Tukadoji Maharaj Nagpur University, Nagpur –
HBT Medical College and Dr. RN Cooper Municipal Medical College and General Hospital, Mumbai150
Government Medical College, Akola150
Rajiv Gandhi Medical College and Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Hospital, Thane60
Dr Vaishampayan Memorial Government Medical College, Solapur150
Dr Shankarrao Chavan Government Medical College, Nanded100
Swami Ramanand Tirth Rural Government Medical College, Ambajogai100
Government Dental College and Hospital, Mumbai100
Government Dental College and Hospital, Nagpur50
Rajarshee Chhatrapati Shahu Maharaj Government Medical College and CPR Hospital, Kolhapur150
Government Medical College, Miraj150
Government Medical College, Latur150
Shri Vasant Rao Naik Government Medical College, Yavatmal150
Maharashtra University of Health Sciences, Nashik200
Shri Bhausaheb Hire Government Medical College and Hospital, Chakrabarti100
Nair Hospital Dental College, Mumbai –
Government Medical College, Chandrapur100
Government Medical College and Hospital, Nagpur200
Government Dental College and Hospital, Medical College Campus, Aurangabad –
Government Medical College, Gondia100

https://www.learncram.com/ml-aggarwal/ml-aggarwal-class-10-solutions-for-icse-maths-chapter-1-mcqs/

We hope we have provided all the necessary information about NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank List 2019 if you have any doubts regarding this post or NEET MBBS Maharashtra Rank List 2019. Please comment in the comment section we will get back to you at the earliest.

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JEE Main Preparation

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How to Prepare for JEE Main 2020 – A clear study plan is the key to success in any exam. In this post, we are going to discuss the most successful Tips, Tricks & Strategies to make an actionable study plan to crack the JEE Main exam. Here, we shall help you with the best and most effective JEE Main preparation tips, particularly for JEE Main self-study and JEE Main preparation without coaching.

How to Prepare for JEE Main 2020

Know all about the Exam and stay Updated:

  • JEE Main Exam Pattern
  • JEE Main Eligibility
  • JEE Main Important Dates
  • JEE Main Syllabus
  • JEE Main Application Form
  • JEE Main Scoring and Result
  • JEE Main Normalisation
  • JEE Main Cutoffs
  • JEE Main Admit Card

JEE Main 2020 Syllabus

To crack JEE Main, one needs to be well versed in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics of class 11 and 12. NTA elaborates the syllabus to study from. This allows students to know what to prepare before how to prepare for JEE Main 2020.

One step is to segregate the topics in each subject into class 11 and class 12 to allow for common preparation for both board and entrance exams. Second, the topics from the JEE Main syllabus must be divided into easy, tough and very tough so that the how to prepare for JEE Main plan is made accordingly.

Candidates can check out the below-mentioned syllabus based on class 11th and 12th education.

JEE Main Syllabus

JEE Main Mathematics Marks: 120

JEE Main Mathematics Syllabus PDF

JEE Main Physics Marks: 120

JEE Main Physics Syllabus

JEE Main Chemistry Marks: 120

JEE Main Physical chemistry
  • Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
  • States of Matter
  • Atomic Structure
  • Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
  • Chemical Thermodynamics
  • Solutions
  • Redox Reactions and Electro-chemistry
  • Chemical Kinetics
  • Surface Chemistry
JEE Main Organic chemistry
  • Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
  • General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Metals
  • Hydrogen
  • S – Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals)
  • P- Block Elements
  • d – and f – Block Elements
  • Co-Ordination Compounds
  • Environmental Chemistry
JEE Main Inorganic chemistry
  • Purification and Characterization of Organic Compounds
  • Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
  • Hydrocarbons
  • Organic Compounds Containing Halogens
  • Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
  • Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
  • Polymers
  • Bio molecules
  • Chemistry In Everyday Life
  • Principles Related to Practical Chemistry

JEE Main Chemistry Syllabus

Get to know the exam – understanding JEE Main 2020 exam pattern

Candidates must be familiar with the JEE Main exam pattern to know what to expect in the exam. Understanding the marking scheme allows candidates to calculate how they should attempt their exam

JEE Main Exam pattern – Paper 1

 

Mode of examComputer-based test mode
Duration3 hours
SubjectsPhysics, Chemistry, and Mathematics
Total number of questionsPhysics – 30 Questions (120 Marks), Chemistry – 30 Questions (120 Marks) and Maths – 30 Questions (120 Marks)
Type of QuestionsObjective having 4 options – Single Choice Type Question.

Making how to prepare for JEE Main 2020 plan

One of the biggest questions asked is how to make the JEE Main preparation plan. After segregating the topics, it’s vital to know the weightage. While all topics are equally important, some topics have importance as many questions are generally asked from there. Check the topper interviews, previous year papers to understand the weightage of the topics to make the plan.

JEE Main Preparation Guidelines

  • Give equal weightage to all topics
  • Distribute the time needed to study it.
  • Revision helps you to ace JEE Main Exam.

Action Plan for How to Prepare for JEE Main 2020

  • Study a chapter and understand the concepts. NCERT books are good for this.
  • While studying, make sure to note important points and formulas. This short notes will be useful during revision.
  • After studying a chapter or topic, check how much you can recollect and to what extent you have understood the topic.
  • Then practice questions based on the topic studied. Try to solve yourself, make mistakes and then correct it. This step will help you to crack JEE Main.
  • Make sure to give a mock test after completing the subject. Similarly ensure that you appear for as many mock tests as you can so that you can analyse your preparation levels, understand where you are making the mistakes
  • Use the analysis to know your weak areas and concentrate on improving while revising.
  • Revision is the key for Improvement in your score in JEE Main
  • Clear all your concepts, doubts. Never leave a question unanswered in your mind.
  • Put the brake and take a break – While studying is good, it’s not wise to do it continuously. So take some time off to refresh your mind before you start again. You can listen to music, play games or do what eases your brain. Physical exercise for half an hour or an hour helps in boosting the memory. Eat right.
  • If you have 5-10 months in hand, you can achieve that score provided you are focused and organised.
  • One tool that can help you learn your concepts in a structured way is the Knowledge Tree of Concepts.
  • A well-planned JEE Main preparation timetable and thorough browsing of the entire question paper is especially relevant.
  • Do not leave any stone unturned to make the best of your JEE Main preparation.
  • Remember to solve as many questions as you can during practice.

Exam day tips to crack JEE Main 2020

  • Find your exam centre a day before to check the location of the centre.
  • Keep your exam kit (hall ticket/admit card, Photo ID, pen, etc) ready one day before the exam to avoid misplacing or forgetting them.
  • Ensure that you get a good night’s sleep before the exam day.
  • Avoid stressing during the exam. Instead take one question at a time and try to solve it.

JEE Main Preparation – Previous Year Papers

In order to clear the JEE Main, solving the JEE Main Previous Year Papers must be a part of your JEE Main preparation. They will help you get an idea and feel of the actual exam paper. That will add a whole new dimension to your JEE Main preparation. Furthermore, along with the JEE Main Previous Year Papers, we also provide the Answer Key and Solutions.

JEE Main Cut Off Factors

  1. Number of applications received,
  2. Number of questions asked in the paper,
  3. The difficulty level of the exam,
  4. Performance of the candidates, and
  5. Previous years’ cut off trends

Best Books for IIT JEE

JEE Main Preparation Tips – JEE Main best books NCERT books should be your best friends during your JEE Main preparation. The following are some of the other best books for JEE Main preparation out of all JEE Main preparation books:

Best Books for JEE Mains Preparation Physics

  • Concepts of Physics (Volume 1 and Volume 2) by HC Verma
  • Problems in General Physics by I.E. Irodov
  • Solutions To Irodov’s Problems In General Physics, Vol I
  • Solutions To Irodov’s Problems In General Physics, Vol II
  • Fundamentals of Physics by David Halliday, Robert Resnick, and Jearl Walker
  • 40 Years IIT-JEE Advanced + 16 yrs JEE Main Topic-wise Solved Paper Physics

Best Books for IIT JEE Preparation Chemistry

  • Organic Chemistry by Robert Morrison and Boyd
  • Concise Inorganic Chemistry by J.D. Lee
  • Modern Approach to Chemical Calculations by RC Mukherjee
  • 40 Years IIT-JEE Advanced + 16 yrs JEE Main Topic-wise Solved Paper Chemistry

Recommended Books for IIT JEE preparation Mathematics

  • Problems in Calculus of One Variable by I.A. Maron
  • Calculus and Analytic Geometry by Thomas Finney
  • Higher Algebra by Hall and Knight Buy The Book
  • 40 Years IIT-JEE Advanced + 16 yrs JEE Main Topic-Wise Solved Paper Mathematics
  • SK Goyal would be ideal for Maths (Algebra).

We hope this detailed article on JEE Main Preparation helps you.

The post JEE Main Preparation appeared first on Learn CBSE.

How to Learn Periodic Table

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How is the periodic table of the elements arranged?

Arrangement of elements in the Periodic Table

Figure shows the Periodic Table in use today.

Periodic Table of Elements

Elements are arranged horizontally In ascending order of their proton numbers, from 1 to 116, in the Periodic Table.

Groups

  • Definition: Each vertical column of elements in the Periodic Table is known as a group.
  • Elements with the same number of valence electrons are arranged in the same group.
  • There are 18 vertical columns of elements in the Periodic Table known as Group 1, Group 2, until Group 18.
    • Group 1 elements are known as alkali metals.
    • Group 2 elements are known as alkaline earth metals.
    • Group 3 to Group 12 elements are known as transition elements.
    • Group 17 elements are known as halogens.
    • Group 18 elements are known as noble gases.

Periods

  • Definition: Each horizontal row of elements in the Periodic Table is known as a period.
  • There are 7 horizontal rows of elements in the Periodic Table, known as Period 1, Period 2, until Period 7.
  • Periods 1 to 3 are short periods while Periods 4 to 7 are long periods.
    • Period 1 contains 2 elements.
    • Periods 2 and 3 contain 8 elements respectively.
    • Periods 4 and 5 contain 18 elements respectively.
    • Period 6 contains 32 elements.
    • Period 7 contains 27 elements.
  • Although Period 6 contains 32 elements, elements with proton numbers 57 to 71 are arranged separately at the bottom of the Periodic Table. This series of elements is called lanthanides.
  • Similarly, elements with proton numbers 89 to 103 in Period 7 are arranged separately at the bottom of the Periodic Table. This series of elements is called actinides.

Metallic and non-metallic properties

  • Element in Group 1, 2 and 13 are metals.
  • Transition elements in Group 3 to 12 are also metals.
  • Elements in Group 15, 16, 17 and 18 are non-metals.
  • In Group 14,
    • Carbon and silicon are non-metals.
    • Germanium is a metalloid (semimetal)
    • Tin and lead are metals.

1. Relationship between the electron arrangement and the position of the element in the Periodic Table

Figure shows the electron arrangements of the elements with proton numbers 1 to 20 in the Periodic Table.

2. Relationship between the electron arrangement and the group number of an element

  • Based on above Figure, the group number of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons in an atom of the element.
  • Table shows the relationship between the number of valence electrons and the group number of an element.
    Periodic-Table-3
  • For elements with 1 or 2 valence electrons,
    Group number of that element = Number of valence electrons
  • For elements with 3 to 8 valence electrons,
    Group number of that element = Number of valence electrons plus 10
    Note:
    Helium with an electron arrangement of 2 is placed in Group 18. This is an exception.
    This is because helium has similar inert properties as the other noble gases in Group 18.

Example: Element Q has a nucleon number of 27. An atom of element Q contains 14 neutrons. In which group is element Q located in the Periodic Table?
Solution:
Number of electrons in an atom Q = Number of protons
= 27 – 14 = 13
Electron arrangement of atom Q = 2.8.3
Number of valence electrons = 3
∴ Group number = 3 + 10 = 13
Hence, element Q is located in Group 13 of the Periodic Table.

3. Relationship between the electron arrangement and the period number of an element

  • Based on above Figure, the period number of an element is determined by the number of shells occupied with electrons in an atom of that element.
  • Table shows the relationship between the number of shells occupied with electrons and the period number of an element.
    Periodic-Table-4
  • Hence,
    Period number of an element = Number of shells occupied with electrons in an atom of that element

Example: Element T has a proton number of 19 and a nucleon number of 39. In which period is element T located in the Periodic Table?
Solution:
Number of electrons in atom T
= Number of protons in atom T
= Proton number =19
∴ Electron arrangement of atom T = 2.8.8.1
Atom T has 4 shells occupied with electrons. Hence, element T is located in Period 4 of the Periodic Table.

Example: Element R is located in Group 15 and Period 3 of the Periodic Table. What is the electron arrangement of an atom of element R?
Solution:
Atom R has 5 valence electrons because it is in Group 15.
Atom R has 3 shells occupied with electrons because it is in Period 3.
Electron arrangement of atom R = 2.8.5

4. Elements with the same number of valence electrons will exhibit similar chemical properties.
For example:
Atom W with an electron arrangement of 2.8.2 and atom X with an electron arrangement of 2.8.8.2 exhibit similar chemical properties.
This is because both the atoms of W and X have 2 valence electrons, that is the same number of valence electrons.

Periodic Table Mnemonics

Mnemonics are easy-to-remember lines or phrases one can use to memorize things that are difficult to learn. In this article, you will find Hindi mnemonics – one each for one group – to learn the Periodic Table

The Periodic Table provides the names, atomic numbers, symbols and atomic weights of known elements. It serves as a great tool for solving chemistry problems.

A periodic table is divided into groups (columns), where elements with each group behave similarly while bonding with other elements; and periods (rows), where elements in one period have same number of electron shells.

Here are some fun, interesting and naughty mnemonics in Hindi used by the backbenchers to memorize elements along each group or period:

Key To Reading These Mnemonics Or Hindi Sentence:

• These sentences contain letters denoting symbols of elements in the same order as they occur in a group or period.
• The symbols have been highlighted as bold letters in the sentence. However at the places where the complete symbol could not be included in the sentence, the first letters have been strung together and the second letter is shown in brackets. While reading the sentence you don’t have to read the letters in bracket. Just keep them in mind.
• At some places, phonetics have been used to denote a symbols such as ‘c’ could be replaced by ‘k’,’g’ with ‘j’, ‘I’ with ‘ea’ and ‘o’ with ‘u’, to make the sentence easier to remember.

S-Block Elements

Consisting of the first two groups, S-block elements have quite similar physical and chemical properties. The valence electrons of the elements in this block occupy s-orbitals.

Group 1 is known as alkali metals. It includes Lithium (Li), Sodium (Na), Potassium (K), Rubidium (Ru), Caesium (Cs), and Francium (Fr).

Mnemonic for Group 1: LiNa KRuby CsFriendship hai.

Group 2 is known as alkaline earth metals. It includes Beryllium (Be), Magnesium (Mg), Calcium (Ca), Strontium (Sr), Barium (Br), and Radium (Ra).

Mnemonic for Group 2: Beta MangCaScooter Baap rone se Raazi

P-Block Elements

Consisting of last six groups of the periodic table (Groups 13 to 18), P-block elements have their valence electrons occupying p-orbitals.  This block consists of non-metals, semi-metals and poor metals.

Group 13 is known as Boron group or the group of Icosagens or Triels. It includes Boron (B), Aluminium (Al), Gallium (Ga), Indium (In), and Thallium (Tl).

Mnemonic for Group 13: B A G I T.

Group 14 is known as Carbon group or the group of Crystallogens, Tetragens or Tetrels. It includes Carbon (C), Silicon (Si), Germanium (Ge), Tin (Sn), and Lead (Pb).

Mnemonic for Group 14: Chemistry SiGiveSanki Problems.

Group 15 is known as the group of Pnictogens or Nitrogen group. It includes Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), Arsenic (As), Antimony (Sb), and Bismuth (Bi).

Mnemonic for Group 15: Nahi Pasand AisSab Bhai.

Group 16 is known as the group of Chalcogens or Oxygen group. It includes Oxygen (O), Sulphur (S), Selenium (Se), Tellurium (Te), and the radioactive element Polonium (Po).

Mnemonic for Group 16: Oh! Style Se TePolish.

Group 17 is known as the group of Halogens. It includes Fluorine (F), Chlorine (Cl), Bromine (Br), Iodine (I), and Astatine (At).

Mnemonic for Group 17: Fir Call kar Bahaar AayI Aunty.

Group 18 is known as the group of Noble gases, excluding Helium. Normally, they are all odorless and colorless gases with very low chemical reactivity. The group includes Helium (He), Neon (Ne), Argon (Ar), Krypton (Kr), Xenon (Xe), and the radioactive Radon (Rn).

Mnemonic for Group 18: He Never Arrived; KarXero Run pe out.

D-Block Elements

D-Block elements consist of element groups 3 to 12 that correspond to the filling of the d-orbital subshell of the second outermost shell. Groups 3 to 11 are also known as transitional metals. Group 12 elements, which have its d subshell completely filled, are also known as post-transition elements.

D-block elements and F-block elements show considerable similarities across the periods too.

We can memorize these elements across the periods:

Period 4 elements are quite stable and many of them are very common in earth’s crust or core or both. D-block elements it includes are Scandium (Sc), Titanium (Ti), Vanadium (V), Chromium (Cr), Manganese (Mn), Iron (Fe), Cobalt (Co), Nickel (Ni), Copper (Cu) and Zinc (Zn).

Mnemonic for Period 4: Science Ti(ea)cher Vineeta Criplani Man Fenko (FeCoNi Kyun(CuZaan hai?

Read as: Science Teacher Vineeta Kriplani manfenko ni kyun zaan hai?

Period 5 elements are known to fill their 5s shell first, then 4d shells and then 5p shells, with rhodium being the exception. The elements of this period show many exceptions to Maledung rule. D-block elements it includes are Yttrium (Y), Zirconium (Zr), Niobium (Nb), Molybdenum (Mo), Technetium (Tc), Ruthenium (Ru), Rhodium (Rh), Pd (Palladium), Silver (Ag) and Cadmium (Cd).

Mnemonic for Period 5: Yeh Zarra Nabi bana Mohabaat mein T(c)eri, R(u)o R(h)o P(d)ukarogi Aaj(g) ise Chandni

Read as: Yeh Zarra Nabi bana Mohabbat mein Teri, Ro Ro Pukarogi Aaj ise Chandni

Period 6 includes the lanthanides or rare earths. Some of these transition metals are very valuable such as gold. D-block elements it includes are Lutetium (Lu), Hafnium (Hf), Tantalum (Ta), Tungsten (W), Rhenium (Re), Osmium (Os), Iridium (Ir), Platinum (Pt), Gold (Au) and Mercury (Hg).

Mnemonic for Period 6: L(u)a HafTa Warna ReUs(Os) Irritating Popat ke saath AuHoj(g)a pagal.

Read as: La Hafta Warna Reh Us Irritating Popat ke saath Aur Hoja pagal.

Period 7 contains the radioactive elements only. It includes actinides which include the heaviest naturally occurring element Californium. All other elements are synthesized artificially. D-block elements

it includes are Actinium (Ac), Rutherfordium (Rf), Dubnium (Db), Seaborgium (Sg), Bohrium (Bh), Hassium (Hs), Meitnerium (Mt), and Darmstadtium (Ds).

Mnemonic for Period 7: Ak(c)ele R(f) D(b) S(g)harma ki B(h)ook mein H(s)ain Maths ke Difficult sawaal.
Read as: Akele R D Sharma ki Book mein Hain Maths ke Difficult sawaal.

F-Block Elements

F-block elements have their valence electrons in f-orbitals. They are also known as inner transition elements. They can be divided into Lanthanides (also known as rare earth elements) and Actinides that are highly reactive to halogens and chalcogens like lanthanides but they react more easily.

Lanthanides include Cerium (Ce), Praseodymium (Pr), Neodymium (Nd), Promethium (Pm), Samarium (Sm), Europium (Eu), Gadolinium (Gd), Terbium (Tb), Dysprosium (Dy), Holmium (Ho), Erbium (Er), Thulium (Tm), Ytterbium (Yb) and Lutetium (Lu).

We can learn all these in three parts:

  1. Cerium (Ce), Praseodymium (Pr), Neodymium (Nd), Promethium (Pm), and Samarium (Sm)

Mnemonic for Lanthanides Part 1: Celina aur Priety Ndande se Pammy aur Simmy ko mara.

  1. Europium (Eu), Gadolinium (Gd), Terbium (Tb), Dysprosium (Dy), and Holmium (Ho)

Mnemonic for Lanthanides Part 2: Europe G(d)aya to TB(b) aur Di(y)arrohoea Ho gaya.

Read as: Europe Gaya to TB aur Diarrohoea Ho gaya.

  1. Erbium (Er), Thulium (Tm), Ytterbium (Yb) and Lutetium (Lu)

Mnemonic for Lanthanides Part 3: E re, dekh Tamatar Yellow aur bLue hain.

Actinides include these f-block elements – Thorium (Th), Protactinium (Pa), Uranium (U), Neptunium (Np), Plutonium (Pu), Americium (Am), Curium (Cm), Berkelium (Bk), Fermium (Fm), Mendelevium (Md), Nobelium (No), and Lawrencium (Lr).

We can learn all these in three parts too:

1.Thorium (Th), Protactinium (Pa), Uranium (U), and Neptunium (Np)

Mnemonic for Actinides Part 1: Thode PehelwaUnse Niptengey.

2.Plutonium (Pu), Americium (Am), Curium (Cm), Berkelium (Bk)

Mnemonic for Actinides Part 2: Purane Aam K(C)am Bikenge.

Read as: Purane Aam Kam Bikenge.

  1. Fermium (Fm), Mendelevium (Md), Nobelium (No), and Lawrencium (Lr)
    Mnemonic for Actinides Part 3: ItniFamily aMdani mein No Ladki rajee.

The post How to Learn Periodic Table appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019 Released | Check NEET MBBS Merit List For Karnataka

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NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019: KEA, Karnataka Examination Authority has released the NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019. KEA has released the candidate’s list, those who have registered for medical and dental admissions through NEET 2019. officials released Karnataka NEET Merit List only for the students who qualified NEET 2019 from Karnataka and have registered for counseling on official websites. 85% of seats are for state quota which is conducted by KEA and the rest of 15 % merit list will be released by MCC.

NEET Merit List

The Provisional Karnataka NEET Rank list released does not grant the right of selection or eligibility. Those candidates whose names are there in Karnataka NEET MBBS Rank List will have to attend for document verification at various verification centers across Karnataka. Candidates who have got their documents verified during CET verification will not have to attend the document verification again. After the completion of successful document verification, candidates will now be included in Verified Karnataka MBBS merit list 2019.  Those Students whose name included in verified Karnataka MBBS merit list 2019 he/she will get eligible to participate in further stages of NEET Counselling Procedure for state quota seats. In this article we will provide complete information about NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019, so students stay tuned to this page.

Latest Update

  1.  KEA has released the verified candidate’s list as per the All India Ranks. Check it from the table below.
  2. UG – NEET Registration extended till June 28 (up to 5:30 pm)
  3. UG – NEET Document Verification Schedule Released Click here to check the schedule.
  4. KEA Has released the provisional list of candidates who have registered for the medical and dental admissions for the state quota seats. Check from the table below

NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019 | Provisional List Of  Verified Candidates

All In India RankList of Verified Candidates
1 to 100000Click Here
100001 to 200000Click Here
200001 to 300000Click Here
300001 to 400000Click Here
400001 to 600000Click Here
600001 to 900000Click Here

NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019 – List of Registered Candidates Eligible for Document Verification

KEA has released the list of registered candidates for the UG – NEET medical and dental counseling 2019. NEET MBBS Rank list has been released in PDF Format, students whose names have been included now eligible for document verification. Based on NEET MBBS Rank list officials does not confer any right for selection or eligibility. Eligibility of candidates will only be confirmed after the completion of document verification.

Check the Karnataka NEET Rank List from the table below

Provisional list of Candidates Registered for medical/dental Counselling – KarnatakaProvisional list of Candidates Registered for medical/dental Counselling – All India Rank Holders

NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019 – Seat Matrix Download Links

Name of the QuotaKarnataka NEET Merit List Link
Government Quota – GeneralAvailable Now
Government Quota – Hyderabad – KarnatakaAvailable Now
Government Quota – Special CategoryAvailable Now
Private QuotaAvailable Now
NRI QuotaAvailable Now
Other QuotaAvailable Now

NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019 For 85% State Quota Seats

Admissions into Medical and Dental colleges is based on NEET 2019 Score/Rank. NEET 2019 results have been released and all the qualified as per NEET Cutoff candidates now participate in two basic parts such as All India Quota and State Quota. 85% of seats comes under state Quota and 15% of seats come under All India Quota.

All India Quota seats (15%) will include the medical and dental seats from all the government college which will be filled by MCC. Remaining 85% of seats are covered by state quota and are filled by the respective state governments. Thus KEA will release the Karnataka merit list for 85% of seats under state quota.

NEET 2019 Results have been released on June 5th and KEA officials will take time to prepare and publish Karnataka NEET Merit List 2019. we will update in this page once KEA has released NEET MBBS Karanataka Merit List 2019.

How To Download NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019?

Follow the steps as under to download NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List:

  • Step – 1: Vist the official website cetonline.karnataka.gov.in.
  • Step – 2: Search for the tab Admissions and now Click on the link Medical / Dental.
  • Step – 3: You will be redirected to a new page click on Karnataka NEET merit list link for Karnataka & All India rank holders.
  • Step – 4: On Screen NEET UG 2019 Karnataka state rank list will be displayed as PDF.
  • Step – 5: Now Check Your Name and Registration Number on NEET UG 2019 Karnataka state rank list and download it for future purpose.

Details Mentioned On NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank list 2019

Candidates can find the following details on the Karnataka NEET MBBS Merit List 2019:

  1. Student’s Name
  2. Student’s Application Number
  3. NEET Roll Number
  4. Date of Birth
  5. NEET Score
  6. NEET All India Rank (AIR)
  7. Nationality

NEET 2019 Minimum qualifying Percentile

Candidates will have to obtain a score greater than or equal to the minimum required NEET percentile score to qualify in NEET 2019. Check the NEET 2019 Cutoff score from the table below

CategoryNEET Percentile CutoffNEET 2019 Cutoff MarksNEET 2018 Cutoff Marks
General50 Percentile701-134691-119
OBC / SC / ST40 Percentile133-107118-96
PwD – Gen45 Percentile133-120118-107
PwD – SC/ ST/ OBC40 Percentile119-107106-96

NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019 – NEET Tie Breaking Criteria

If two or more students have the same marks in NEET 2019, following tie break criteria will be used to determine the ranks of the candidates:

  • Students who score more marks in biology will be given the first preference
  • If the tie continues, candidates with higher marks in chemistry will be given higher preference.
  • If the tie still exists, students who gave lesser wrong answers will be considered.
  • If the tie still not exists, students with older age will be given better rank.

NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019 – NEET Counselling 2019

Procedure for attending NEET Counselling for state quota seats are as follows:

  • Firstly students will have to register themselves with KEA to appear for NEET Counseling Procedure for the state Quota seats.
  • After the registration is completed, students must go for Document verification to get their documents verified to prove their eligibility.
  • After the successful completion of Document verification candidates will receive a Secret key to activate their account for the NEET UG counseling for the state quota seats.
  • Now, Candidates can log in to their account as per the given Schedule and Check the seat matrix for choice filling.
  • Candidates can fill the options according to their preference. First, there will be a mock allocation for students to have an idea about the seat allocation process.
  • After the mock seat assignment, a window is opened to modify the options. Candidates can now change or modify their options if they wish to make an allotment for the original Round 1 seat.
  • The candidate can be assigned a seat based on candidate rank, institute cutoff ranks, candidate preference, preference, etc.
  • Candidates can now use their choice to move on to the next round. Candidates can accept the allotted seat and report to the respective college for admission.
  • Subsequent rounds of seat allocation will be held as scheduled and candidates can continue to participate in the next counseling rounds.

Key Points Regarding NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019

Some important points regarding NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019 are as under:

  • Candidates must register themselves with KEA if they have qualified in NEET 2019.
  • Check your details in the rank list and report for the documents verification process as per the schedule with all the necessary documents and photocopies.
  • After the document verification officials will provide an acknowledgment and the secret key through which you will be logging into your account in the online mode.

Karnataka NEET 2019 Medical Colleges

Name of The CollegeNumber of Seats
Adichunchanagiri Institute of Medical Sciences Bellur150
A J Institute of Medical Sciences & Research Centre, Mangalore150
Akash Institute of Medical Sciences & Research Centre, Devanhalli, Bangalore, Karnataka150
Al-Ameen Medical College, Bijapur100
Bangalore Medical College and Research Institute, Bangalore250
Basaveswara Medical College and Hospital, Chitradurga100
Belagavi Institute of Medical Sciences, Belagavi150
Bgs Global Institute of Medical Sciences, Bangalore150
Bidar Institute Of Medical Sciences, Bidar150
Chamrajanagar Institute of Medical Sciences, Karnataka150
Dr. Br Ambedkar Medical College, Bangalore100
East Point College of Medical Sciences & Research Centre, Bangalore150
Employees State Insurance Corporation Medical College, Bangalore100
Employees State Insurance Corporation Medical College, Gulbarga100
Father Mullers Institue Of Medical Education and Research, Mangalore150
Gadag Institute of Medical Sciences, Mallasamudra, Mulgund Road, Gadag150
Government Medical College, Mysore150
Gulbarga Institute of Medical Sciences, Gulbarga150
Hassan Institute of Medical Sciences, Hassan150
Jawaharlal Nehru Medical College, Belgaum200
Jjm Medical College, Davangere245
JSS Medical College, Mysore200
Kanachur Institute of Medical Sciences, Mangalore150
Karnataka Institute of Medical Sciences, Hubli200
Karwar Institute of Medical Sciences, Karwar150
Kasturba Medical College, Mangalore250
Kasturba Medical College, Manipal250
Kempegowda Institute of Medical Sciences, Bangalore120
Khaja Banda Nawaz Institute of Medical Sciences, Gulbarga100
Kodagu Institute of Medical Sciences, Kodagu150
Koppal Institute of Medical Sciences, Koppal150
KS Hegde Medical Academy, Mangalore150
K V G Medical College, Sullia100
Mahadevappa Rampure Medical College, Gulbarga150
Mandya Institute of Medical Sciences, Mandya150
MS Ramaiah Medical College, Bangalore150
Mvj Medical College and Research Hospital, Bangalore150
Navodaya Medical College, Raichur150
Raichur Institute Of Medical Sciences, Raichur150
Rajarajeswari Medical College & Hospital, Bangalore250
Sapthagiri Institute of Medical Sciences & Research Centre, Bangalore150
Sdm College of Medical Sciences & Hospital, Sattur, Dharwad100
Shimoga Institute Of Medical Sciences, Shimoga150
Shri B M Patil Medical College, Hospital & Research Centre, Bijapur150
Shridevi Institute of Medical Sciences & Research Hospital, Tumkur150
S. Nijalingappa Medical College & HSK Hospital & Research Centre, Bagalkot150
Sri Devaraj Urs Medical College, Kolar150
Srinivas Institute of Medical Research Centre, Srinivasnagar150
Sri Siddhartha Medical College, Tumkur130
SS Institute of Medical Sciences& Research Centre, Davangere150
St. Johns Medical College, Bangalore150
Subbaiah Institute of Medical Sciences, Shimoga, Karnataka150
The Oxford Medical College, Hospital & Research Centre, Bangalore150
Vijaynagar Institute of Medical Sciences, Bellary150
Vydehi Institute of Medical Sciences & Research Centre, Bangalore150
Yenepoya Medical College, Mangalore150

Note: That the medical seats indicated can be changed or modified depending on the seats available, approval of seats by MCI, officials decisions, etc. So you can check the table above for reference purpose only.

We hope the detailed article on NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019 is helpful. If you have any doubt regarding this article or NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019, drop your comments in the comment section below and we will get back to you as soon as possible.

The post NEET MBBS Karnataka Rank List 2019 Released | Check NEET MBBS Merit List For Karnataka appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019 (Released) | Check NEET Bihar MBBS Merit List Here

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NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019: NEET Bihar Merit List will be released by Bihar Combined Entrance Competitive Examination (BCECE) Board for admission to UG Medical Dental Courses. NEET MBBS Bihar Merit List will be released in the month of July 2019 which will be followed by NEET Counselling 2019.

Check Bihar NEET Merit List Here

NEET Merit List

85% of Seats are covered by State Quota seats are conducted by BCECE 15% of Seats are covered by All India Quota (AIQ) is conducted by MCC. Students who want to participate in NEET Counselling for state quota seats will have to submit an application form to State counseling authority. All the applications received by state board will be processed they will release NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List. Students whose names are present in the rank list will be called for NEET Bihar Counselling 2019.

Based on the NEET UG 2019 Marks secured by students, NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List will comply. You can download NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List once it will be released by Bihar Officials. Read on to find more about NEET Bihar Counselling NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019.

Latest: NEET Bihar MBBS Merit List 2019 has been released Click Here to check NEET Merit List 2019

NEET Result 2019 has been released on June 5th, 2019, Click here to check results.

Bihar NEET Merit List 2019

NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List for 85% State Quota Seats

Following details are to be noted regarding Bihar NEET Merit List for 85% State Quota Seats:

  • Those Students who qualified NEET 2019 from Bihar State must participate in Bihar NEET Counselling for State Quota Seats by registering with BCECE Board.
  • The board will process the applications will release the Bihar NEET MBBS Rank List 2019
  • NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List will be published on the basis of marks secured in NEET 2019.
  • NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List will be published on the official website of BCECE Board.
  • Students will be called for Bihar NEET 2019 Counselling based on the Bihar NEET MBBS Rank LIst.

How To Download NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019?

BCECE Board will publish the Bihar NEET Rank List on the BCECE official website bceceboard.bihar.gov.in. Follow the following steps to download NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019:

  • Step – 1: Visit the official website bceceboard.bihar.gov.in.
  • Step – 2: Now search for Candidates corner section or the Latest Updates section to download Bihar UGMAC NEET Merit List 2019.
  • Step – 3: Click on the link which shows NEET 2019 Bihar merit list as PDF
  • Step – 4: On-screen NEET 2019 Bihar merit list will display as PDF.
  • Step – 5: Now search your name or registration number by pressing Ctrl + F on your keyboard. Download NEET MBBS Bihar Merit List PDF for future purpose.

Download Links NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019

Once the NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019 is released, you can download them from the table below:

QuotaMerit list 2019
 Government Medical / Dental Available Soon
 Private Medical / Dental Available Soon
 Muslim Minority  Private Medical / Dental Available Soon
 Sikh Minority Private Medical / Dental Available Soon
 NRI Quota Private Medical / Dental Available Soon

Details Mentioned On NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019

The following details will be mentioned on NEET MBBS Bihar rank List 2019:

  1. Student’s Name
  2. Student’s Roll Number
  3. NEET AIR
  4. Date of Birth
  5. Category
  6. NEET Marks
  7. UGMAC ID
  8. NEET Percentile
  9. State Rank

Know Everything about NEET UG Counselling

NEET MBBS Bihar Merit List NEET Cutoff 2019

Candidates will have to clear the NEET cutoff in order to qualify for NEET 2019 counselling admissions. Check out the NEET cutoff percentile the corresponding scores in the table below:

CategoryNEET Percentile CutoffNEET 2019 Cutoff MarksNEET 2018 Cutoff Marks
General50 Percentile701-134691-119
OBC / SC / ST40 Percentile133-107118-96
PwD – Gen45 Percentile133-120118-107
PwD – SC/ ST/ OBC40 Percentile119-107106-96

NEET MBBS Bihar Merit List: NEET Tier Breaker Criteria

When two or more students will get the same NEET marks, the following NEET Tie-breaking criteria will use to break the tie:

  • Students with higher marks in Biology will be considered
  • After this, the tie continues students with higher marks in Chemistry will be considered.
  • After applying the above two tie criteria, tie still continues student with a lower number of incorrect responses will be given a better rank.
  • Even after the tie continues, the candidate older in age will be given preference.

NEET MBBS Bihar Merit List – Bihar NEET Counselling 2019

Bihar NEET MBBS Merit List will comprise all the candidates who have qualified in NEET and have registered for Bihar NEET counseling. The different steps involved in Bihar NEET counseling 2019 are as under:

  1. Candidates will have to visit the verification centers/reporting centers as per the schedule with all the relevant documents to get their documents verified.
  2. Once the documents are verified successfully, candidates can enter their preferences. A seat may be allotted to the candidates based upon their rank, choice preference, availability of seats, reservations and other parameters.
  3. Candidates will have to pay the prescribed fees and report to the college once they accept the allocated seat. by reporting to the college or they can choose to participate in the further rounds of counseling.

NEET MBBS Bihar Merit List – Documents To Get Verified

The documents required for the verification process are listed below

  1. Original Admit Card of NEET (UG) 2019
  2. Passing Certificate/Marks Sheet /Admit Card of Matric or Equivalent Examination
  3. Passing Certificate/Marks Sheet/Admit Card of Intermediate/Equivalent Examination
  4. Certificate for Residence of Bihar duly issued by concerned C.O. countersigned by DM/ SDO(Civil) of permanent residence
  5. Caste Certificate duly issued by concerned C.O. countersigned by DM / SDO (Civil).
  6. Six copies of passport size photograph which was posted on the Admit Card NEET (UG) – 2018
  7. Copy of Aadhar Card
  8. Printout of filling up the online application form
  9. All the certificates in original as per the requirements mentioned on the prospectus of UGMAC – 2019

We hope we have provided all the necessary information about NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019. If you have any doubt regarding this post or NEET MBBS Bihar rank List, please comment in the comment section we will get back to you at the earliest.

The post NEET MBBS Bihar Rank List 2019 (Released) | Check NEET Bihar MBBS Merit List Here appeared first on Learn CBSE.

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