CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 12 with Solutions

Students must start practicing the questions from CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions Set 12 are designed as per the revised syllabus.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 12 with Solutions

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions
There are total 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.

1. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D, and E. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21. to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q. 25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no, 30 to 33 are long answer-type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no. from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided n few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each

Question 1.
Which of the following incidents mobilised nationalist feelings among the educated elite class across Europe? (1)
(a) German Unification
(b) Greek War of Independence
(c) Unification of Italy
(d) Unification of Britain
Answer:
(b) Greek War of Independence

Question 2.
In Awadh, peasants were led by which sanyasi who had earlier been to Fiji as an indentured labourer? (1)
(a) Baba Ramdev
(b) Baba Nagarjuna
(c) Baba Ramchandra
(d) Baba Parmanand
Answer:
(c) Baba Ramchandra

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and choose the incorrect ones. (1)
I. In 1925, Ahuri Sitaram Raju was arrested ending a two years armed tribal struggle.
II. In 1932, the Poona Pact was signed between Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi.
III. In 1929, Lord Cornwallis announced a vague offer of ‘dominion status’ for India.
IV. In 1927, Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) was formed.
Codes
(a) I and III
(b) III and II
(c) II and IV
(d) I, II, and IV
Answer:
(a) I and III

Question 4.
Read the facts regarding the Revolution of the Liberals in Europe during 1848. (1)
I. Abdication of the monarch.
II. universal male suffrage had been proclaimed.
Political rights to women were given.
Freedom of the press had been asked Kr.
Codes
(a) I and II are correct
(b) I, II, and III are correct
(c) I and IV are correct
(d) I, II, and IV are correct
Answer:
(d) I, II, and IV are correct

Question 5.
The tricolour flag had a spinning wheel in the center of a red, green, and white banner The red stripe was for Hindus and the green was for Muslims. The white band represented peace and the rest of the communities living in India. Who was the designer of this flag? (1)
(a) Abanindranath Tagore
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Natesa Sastri
Answer:
(c) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 6.
Arrange the following events in chronological order (1)
I. Integration of Italy
II. Greek struggle for independence initiated
III. Unification of Germany
IV Agreement on Vienna Peace Settlement
Codes
(a) I, IV II, III
(b) IV,’ II, III, I
(c) IV, II, I, III
(d) I, II, III, IV
Answer:
(c) IV, II, I, III

Question 7.
What percentage of land in India consists of fertile plains? (1)
(a) 38%
(b) 43%
(c) 46%
(d) 61%
Answer:
(b) 43%

Question 8.
Which of the following statements are not appropriate for defining Joint Forest Management? (1)
(a) JFM programmes have been launched by the Central Government.
(b) Under such programmes, village communities are assigned the responsibility of protecting and managing nearby forests.
(c) The areas concerned are usually degraded or even deforested areas which are managed by the forest department.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) JFM programmes have been launched by the Central Government.

Question 9.
The famous Bcej Bachao Andolan took place in (1)
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Punjab
Answer:
(c) Uttarakhand

Question 10.
While travelling to Meghalava, Suchi found that farmers are using a different style of irrigation method. Which of the following irrigation methods is popular in this Indian state? (1)
(a) Drip irrigation
(b) Guis
(c) Groundwater irrigation method
(d) Kuls
Answer:
(a) Drip irrigation

Question 11.
The Badampahar mine in Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar district is situated in which of the following Indian states?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Odisha
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Jharkhand
Answer:
(b) Odisha

Question 12.
Consider the following statements and choose the incorrect option.
(a) Even in democracy the Constitution can be misused.
(b) In reorganisation the Central Government shares its power with State Government.
(c) In coming together with the federation, all the constituent states have equal powers.
(d) Panchayati Rai is an example of people’s direct participation in decision-making.
Answer:
(b) In reorganization the Central Government shares its power with State Government.

Question 13.
Consider the following statements regarding the current ruling party of India ‘Bharatiya Janata party’. (1)
I. The party wants to ban religious conversions and promotes anti-conversion law to stop religious conversion in the country.
II. The party wants full territorial and political integration of Tibet with India.
III. Cultural nationalism or Hindutva is an important element in BJP’s conception of Indian nationhood and politics.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Codes
(a) I, II and III
(b) Only I
(c) Both I and III
(d) Both II and III
Answer:
(c) Both I and III

Question 14.
Anita is appearing in an examination conducted for recruitment to Central Government positions. In how many languages as mentioned in the 8th Schedule can she opt to take the exam? Select the appropriate option. (1)
(a) 18
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 25
Answer:
(c) 22

Question 15.
According to the Human Development Report of UNDP, 2018, the HDI ranking of countries are mentioned below. (1)

Why Sri Lanka has a better rank than India in Human Development Report of 2018?
Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) The per capita income of Sri Lanka is higher than in India.
(b) Sn Lanka has low population as compared to India.
(c) The literacy ratio i.e. enrollment ratio in all levels of schools in Sri Lanka is comparatively better than India.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Question 16.
Which one of the following is not true about a democratic government? (1)
(a) Democratic government is a legitimate government.
(b) Democratic government is a responsive government.
(c) Democratic government is the people’s government.
(d) It does not allow room to correct mistakes.
Answer:
(d) It does not allow room to correct mistakes.

Question 17.
Which of the following terms is defined as the average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth? (1)
(a) Birth rate
(b) Life expectancy
(c) Life span
(d) Mortality rate
Answer:
(b) Life expectancy

Question 18.
Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer from the given options.
Table for Comparison of Three Countries

Rita is an employee of a multinational company who gets transferred to different countries after every three years of service.
She has been allowed to choose any one out of the three countries mentioned in the table above as her next job
location. She calculates the average income of all these countries as per the given data and chooses to be transferred to country A.
Identify the reason for which Rita has chosen country A.
(a) Most of its citizens are rich and stable.
(b) Has the most equitable distribution of income ie
(c) National income of its citizens is higher
(d) Average income of its citizens is lower.

Question 19.
Identify the sector of the economy with the help of given information. (1)
It covers activities in which primary goods are used to produce some other commodity.
This sector mainly includes services such as manufacturing, construction, gas, water electricity supply, etc.
It produces more than half of the total by country’s output.
The employees of this sector are less than half of the working population
(a) Primary sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Secondary sector

Question 20.
Farmers of a milk cooperative society are an example of
(a) organised primary sector
(b) unorganised primary sector
(c) organised secondary sector
(d) unorganised secondary sector
Answer:
(a) organised primary sector

Section B
Section B consists of 4 questions of 2 marks each

Question 21.
Study the map thoroughly, mention any one mineral which is found in the highlighted region. (2)

Answer:
Gaya district is mainly known for deposits of Mica. It is also found in Jamui, Bhagalpur and Munge districts. Bihar comes in the third position with an estimated production of 3,381 tonnes of mica.

Question 22.
Study the world map thoroughly and find out the country that has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralization with participative democracy for the very first time. (2)

Answer:
A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralization with participative democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation operating alongside the Municipal Council, enabling local inhabitants to make real decisions for their city. The city is divided into many sectors or wards.

Question 23.
Name the national political party which espouses secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities. Mention any two features of that party. (1)
Answer:
The national political party which espouses secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities is the Indian National Congress.

• The features of this party are listed below
• It was founded in 1885.
• It dominated Indian politics, both at the national and state levels, tor several decades after Indias independence.

Question 24.
concerning the Indian banking system. illustrate any two important features of demand deposits. (2)
Answer:
Two important features of demand deposits are

• Demand deposits are accepted widely as a means of payment by way of a cheque along with currency.
• Demand deposits are closely linked to the working of the modem banking system, Such deposits earn an amount as interest. On the other hand, mineral-based industries are those industries that are dependent on mineral resources to obtain their raw material.

Section C
Section C consists of 5 questions of 3 marks each

Question 25.
Analyze the data properly and answer the following questions. (1.5+ 1.5)

(i) By reading the data carefully, find out which country is at the top and which is at the bottom.
(ii) What is the main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different countries?
Answer:
(i) Data Top (Country) Bottom (Country)

• Per Capita Income Sri Lanka Nepal
• Lite Expectancy at Birth Sri Lanka Pakistan
• HDI Rank in the World Sri Lanka Pakistan

(ii) The World Bank uses the criterion of per capita income for classifying counties. Countries with income of US $ 2500 or less were classified as low per capita income countries. Countries with per capita income US $ 49,300 per annum and above in 2019 are classified as high-income countries.

Question 26.
Which is the highest tier of the Panchayati Raj? Explain its composition.
Or
Describe any three features of ‘unitary government’. (3)
Answer:
The highest tier of the Panchayati Raj System in rural areas is the Zila Parishad, The Zila Parishad coordinates the activities of all the Block Samitis in the whole district.
The composition of Zila Parishad are
All the Panchayat Samitis or MandaIs in a district together constitute the Zila Parishad.
Members of the Lok Sabha and MLAs of the district and some other officials of other district level bodies are also its members.
Zila Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the Zila Parishad.
Or
Three features of unitary government are as follows
(i) In unitary system, all powers are centralised in the hands of the Central Government and only centre is the reservoir of all state powers.
(ii) Another feature of unitary form of government is that laws of unitary system, unlike federation, are uniform because laws are made only by a single Central Government for the whole state.
(iii) One of the important feature of this system is that it may become despotic when the rulers are not faithful as there is no check upon the exercise of these unlimited powers.

Question 27.
Briefly explain how caste inequalities are still prevailing in India. (3)
Or
What is secularism? Mention any two provisions of the Indian Constitution which makes it a secular state. (1+ 2)
Answer:
Caste inequalities are still prevailing in India. This can be clear by looking at the following facts
According to the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). the average economic status of caste groups in India remains the same as was in the past. Most of the rich section belongs to higher castes while people of lower castes are generally poor. Despite the Constitutional prohibition. many people are still considered untouchables in the country. Even now most people marry within their own caste or tribe Political parties often field their candidates in a constituency according to the caste prevailing in that constituency. people also tend to vote on the caste lines.

Or
Secularism means all religions are given the same respect and there is no state religion.
Two provisions of the Indian Constitution which make it a secular state are
(i) No religion has a special status.
(ii) Freedom to practice, profess, and propagate one’s religion is allowed by the Constitution.

Question 28.
What are Software Technology Parks? State any two merits of them.
Answer:
Software Technology Parks are a cluster of software export units in which software technology companies develop ana export computer software and other professional services.
Two merits of Software Technology Parks are

• Creation of a large number of sobs with more than 30% women employment.
• Large contribution to the exports of India, bringing in valuable foreign exchange.

Question 29.
Name the national political party that gets inspiration from India’s ancient culture and values. Mention four features of that party. (1+2)
Answer:
Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) founded in 1980 draws inspiration from India’s ancient culture and values. Features of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) Cultural Nationalism (Hindutva) is an important element in its conception of Indian nationhood and politics. They focused on the full territorial and political integration of Jammu and Kashmir with India. They want a uniform civil code for all people living in the country irrespective of religion and a ban on religious conversions. BJP was earlier limited to North and West and urban areas, but the party expanded support in the South-East. the North-East and rural areas.

Section D
Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each

Question 30.
Why did some people fear the effect of easily available printed hooks? Choose one example from Europe and one from India. (5)
Or
Give reason for the following. (2+3)
(i) Martin Luther was in favour of print and spoke out in praise of it.
(ii) The Roman Catholic Church began keeping an Index of Prohibited Books from the mid-16th century.
Answer:
Some people especially those from upper and powerful classes, teared the effect of easily available printed books because not everyone welcomed printed books and those who did, also had fear about them. Many thought that printed words and the wider circulation of books would hurt people’s minds.

They feared that if there was no control over what was printed and read, then rebellious and irreligious thoughts might gain importance. There was also fear in the minds of scholars that the authority of valuable’ literature would be destroyed. The new print medium was criticized by religious authorities and monarchs, as well as by writers and artists.

Example, in Europe, Martin Luther was a German monk, priest, professor, and Church reformer. He wrote ‘Ninety-Five Theses’ in 1517 and openly criticized many of the practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic Church.

A printed copy of this was pasted on a church door in Wittenberg. It challenged the Church to debate his ideas. Luther’s writings were immediately copied in vast numbers and read widely. This led to a division within the Church and led to the beginning of the Protestant Reformation.

In India, the British Government favoured censorship of the press and passed a law to hinder free circulation of newspapers and journals. The Vernacular Press Act provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials
Or
(i) Martin Luther was in favour of printing and spoke out in praise of it because it was a printing press through which he got a chance to criticise many of the corrupt practices of the Catholic Church. In 1517, Martin Luther wrote Ninety-Five Theses’ and pasted a printed copy of this on the Church door in Wittenberg. Very soon, thousands of copies of Luther’s. These were printed, spreading his ideas among people.

(ii) In mid-l6th century, the Roman Catholic Church began keeping an index of prohibited book as print and popular literature encouraged many distinctive interpretations of religious faiths and ideas. For example, in the 16th century, Menocchio. a miller
in Italy. began to read books available readily in his locality. He gave a new interpretation of the Bible and formulated a view of God and Creation which made the Roman Catholic Church angry. As a result. Menocchio was executed when the Roman Catholic Church began its inquisition to repress the heretical ideas.

Question 31.
Suggest any five measures to make formal sector beneficial for poor farmers and workers. (5)
Or
Gautam is a farmer who take a loan from a moneylender to do farming on his land. In collateral, the moneylender ask Gaurav for his land. Why do lenders ask for collateral while lending? How the terms of credit becomes difficult for the small and marginal farmers? (3+2)
Answer:
The measures to make formal sector loans beneficial for poor farmers and workers are

• The formal sector like banks and cooperatives should lend more to poor people and workers, particularly in rural areas.
• The formal sector should provide cheap and affordable credit to the poor people so that repayment ¡s easy.
• Formal sector should work out other ways of arranging collateral from the poor people.
• By providing linkage between Self Help Groups and banks, the formal sector of credit can be increased.
• There should be more cooperatives and banks in rural areas and people should be made aware of their presence.

Or
The lenders ask for collateral while lending due to the following reasons
Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid. Lenders ask for collateral as a security against loans. If the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender has the right to sell the asset or collateral to obtain the amount. For a bank in case of taking collateral, the repayment of the loan becomes easy because banks has no risk of non-performing assets.

Question 32.
With the support of examples. illustrate how two groups may have different notions of development.
Or
‘National Development of country depends on the availability of public facilities.” How? (5)
Answer:
Two groups may have different notions of development.
For example, the local community’s notion of development on the case of construction of a dam was that the areas in which they live will be submerged and their will be great environmental degradation.

However, the government’s notion of development, in this case, would be that by raising the height of the dam, they would be able to provide more water to the people of Saurashtra region of Gujarat, which always suffers from water scarcity. In addition, more electricity would be generated with this measure, which would benefit all the people living in that area.
Or
It is right that national development of a country depends on the availability of public facilities. Public facilities are those provided by the government. They may be either highly subsidised or free of cost for the people.

They are important because poor people do not have enough income to be able to avail facilities provided by the private sector, resulting in difficulties faced like inadequate healthcare, poor nutrition, lack of education, etc. The utility of two public facilities available in India are

• The Public Distribution System (PDS) which provides fair average quality of food grains and other essential items to the weaker sections of the population at subsidised price.
• Healthcare in government hospitals and dispensaries, which is provided to all at subsidised rates. This includes outpatient as well as hospitalization facilities.

Question 33.
“Roadways still have an edge over railways in India”. Give reasons. (5)
Or
Describe any five points of importance of mass communication. (5)
Answer:
Roadways still have an edge over railways in India because of the following reasons

• Construction cost of roadways is much lower than that of railways.
• Roads can traverse comparatively more dissecting and undulating plains.
• Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and can traverse mountains like Himalayas.
• Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and small amount of goods over short distances.
• It also provides door to door services.
• Cost of loading and unloading is much lower.
• Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport such as they provide link between railway station, airports and seaports.

Or
Importance of mass communication is discussed as follows
Mass communication is required to spread the flow of information upto the grassroots level. Therefore, government has made special provisions to extend 24 hours STD facility to every village in the country.

All India Radio (Akashwani) broadcasts a variety of programmes in national, regional, and local languages for various categories of people spread over different parts of the country.

Doordarshan broadcasts a variety of programmes for entertainment, educational programmes to sports, etc for people of different age groups. India publishes a large number of newspapers and periodicals annually to provide information.
India is the largest producer of feature films in the world. It produces short films, video feature films and video short films for entertainment.

Section E
Section E consists of 3 Case-based questions of 4 marks each

Question 34.
Read the source given below and answer the questions the follow. On 13th April, 1919, the famous Jallianwala Bagh incident took place. On that day, a large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground at Jallianwala Bagh. Some came to protest against the government’s new repressive measures. Others had come to attend the annual Baisakhi fair. Being from outside the city, many villagers were unaware of the Martial Law that had been imposed. General Dyer entered the area, blocked the exit points and opened fire on the crowd, killing hundreds.

His objects as he declared later, was to produce a moral effect, to create in the minds of satyagrahis a feeling of terror and awe. As the news of Jallianwala Bagh spread, crowds took to the streets in many North Indian towns.

There were strikes, clashes with the police, and attacks on government buildings. The government responded with the brutal
repression, seeking to humiliate and terrorise people. Satyagrahis were forced to rub their noses on the ground, crawl on the
streets and do Salam to all sahibs; people were flogged and villages (around Gujranwala in Punjab, now in Pakistan)
were bombed. Seeing violence spread, Mahatma Gandhi called off the movement.
(i) Why did General Dyer opened fire on the peaceful gathering at Jallianwala Bagh on 13th April, 1919? How did the government suppress the protests against Jallianwala Bagh massacre?
(ii) What were the effects of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre? (2)
Answer:
(i) On 13th April. 1919 General Dyer opened tire on the peaceful gathering at Jallianwala Bagh because he wanted to impose Martial Law very strictly in Amritsar in which military commander of a country has unlimited authority to make and enforce laws. The government suppress the protests against Jallianwala Bagh massacre with brutal repression, seeking to humiliate and terrorise people

(ii) The effects of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre were There were strikes, clashes with the police, and attacks on the government buildings. Government took repressive measures and forced satyagraha is to rub their noses on the ground.

Question 35.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow. Another important feature of the Civil Disobedience Movement was the large-scale participation of women. During Gandhi’s Salt March, thousands of women came out of their homes to listen to him. They participated in protest marches, manufactured salt, and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops. Many went to jail. In urban areas, these women were from high-caste families. In rural areas, they came from rich peasant households moved by Gandhiji’s call, they began to see service to the nation as a sacred duty of women.

Gandhiji was convinced that it was the duty of women to look after home and heart, be good mothers and good wives, and for a long time, the Congress was reluctant to allow women to hold any position of authority within the organisation. It was keen only on their symbolic presence.

(i) When did Gandhiji initiate a movement in Champaran in Bihar against the oppressive indigo plantation system? (1)
(ii) What was the reason behind launching the Civil Disobedience Movement? (1)
(iii) State any two impacts of the Civil Disobedience Movement. (2)
Answer:
(i) In 1916, Gandhiji initiated a movement in Champaran in Bihar against the oppressive indigo plantation system.
(ii) Mahatma Gandhiji launched the Civil Disobedience Movement because Lord Irwin ignored Gandhi’s eleven demands including the abolition of the salt tax. Gandhi ji started a Civil Disobedience Movement with the famous Dandi March.
(iii) Two impacts of the Civil Disobedience Movement were
Women and students participated in large numbers in this movement, which was a liberating experience for Indian women who were entering public space in such large numbers for the first time. Due to this movement, women started playing an active role in India’s political movements.

The Civil Disobedience Movement had a far-reaching impact. It instilled distrust in the British government and laid the groundwork for the freedom struggle, as well as popularising new methods of propaganda.

Question 36.
Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
The main characteristic of commercial type of farming is the use of higher doses of modern inputs e.g. High Yielding Variety
(HYV) seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides and pesticides to obtain higher productivity. The degree of
commercial of agriculture varies from one region to another. For example, rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence crop. Plantation is also a type of commercial farming. In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area.

The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. Plantations cover large tracts of land, using capital-intensive inputs, with the help of migrant labourers.

All the produce is used as raw material in respective industries. In India, tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, banana, etc., are important plantation crops. Tea in Assam and North Bengal, and coffee in Karnataka arc some of the important plantation crops grown in these states.

Since the production is mainly for market, a well-developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation areas, processing industries, and markets plays an important role in the development of plantations.
(i) What do you understand about commercial farming? (1)
(ii) What are the required climatic conditions of rubber plants? (1)
(iii) Evaluate the two merits of commercial farming. (2)
Answer:
(i) Commercial farming is a farming method that involves growing crops, raising livestock, selling produce on the market, and making money. Commercial agriculture mainly produces high-demand crops.
(ii) Rubber trees require moist and humid climates with heavy rainfall of more than 200cm. It grows well in equatorial climates and temperatures above 25°C.
(iii) Two merits of commercial farming are Commercial farming boosts the power supply to areas in the suburbs of farmed land since it uses machinery and electricity. It contributes to the improvement of local infrastructure. Roads are paved to facilitate the transit of goods and equipment quickly and comfortably.

Section F
Section F consists of Map based questions of 5 marks

Question 37.
(a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write their correct names on the
lines drawn near them. (2)
A. The place associated with the cotton mill’s worker’s satyagraha
B. The place where an incident occurred due to which Mahatma Gandhi called off the Non-Cooperation Movement.
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols. (3)
(i) A dam in Rajasthan
(ii) Namrup Nuclear Power Plant
(iii) A Software Technology Park in Uttar Pradesh
(iv) A seaport in West Bengal

Answer:

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