CBSE Class 6 English Application Writing

Question 1.
Write an application to the Principal of your school for fee-concession.
Answer:
The Principal
M.D. Higher Secondary School
New Delhi
5.3.2007
Sir
I beg to say that my father is a poor man. His monthly income is only three thousand rupees. We are six members in our family. My father is not in a position to pay my fee.
I request you to grant me full fee concession. I shall be highly obliged to you for this act of kindness.
Yours obediently
XYZ
Class VI

Question 2.
Write an application for a week’s leave to the Headmaster of your school as you are unable to attend school because of viral fever.
Answer:
The Headmaster
Model School
Abid Road
Hyderabad-1
16 March, 2007
Sub : Application for leave
Sir
I am in bed with an attack of viral fever. So I will not be able to attend school for a week. I request you to be kind enough to grant me leave for six days. I shall be absent from 17 March 2007 to 22 March 2007.
Yours obediently
Narsingh Rao
Class VI
Sec A

Question 3.
Write an application to the principal of your school requesting him to grant you two days’ leave to attend your brother’s marriage.
Answer:
The Principal
St. James Public School
New Delhi
1.4.2007
Sub : Leave application Sir
Kindly grant me leave for two days from April 5 to April 6. It is on account of the marriage of my elder brother.
I shall be highly obliged.
With thanks
Yours obediently
Kavita (Class VI)
Roll No. 109

Question 4.
You are Amreesh Kumar and you live at 354 Rose Gardens, Bangalore. You have heard that a Talent Search Competition is to be held shortly, in your city. Write an application to the District Education Officer, Bangalore, expressing your desire to participate in the competition.
Answer:
Amreesh Kumar
354 Rose Gardens
Bangalore March 8, …
The District Education Officer
Bangalore
Subject : Participation in Talent Search Competition
Sir
I have come to know that you are going to hold a Talent Search Competition. It is for the boys of VI, VII and VIII classes.
Sir, I am a student of class VI. I topped in my school in class V annual examination. I very much desire to take part in this competition.
Kindly send me the procedure and other information to enable me to participate.
Yours faithfully
Amreesh

Question 5.
You are Rajat Mittal of Sarvodaya Senior Secondary School, Vikas Nagar, Delhi You do not have the facility of learning computers in your school. Write a letter to the Principal of your school requesting him to provide the facility to the students of the school.
Answer:
The Principal
Sarvodaya Sr. Sec. School
Vikas Nagar
Delhi
10 March 200…
Subject : Facilities of learning computer in the school
Sir
These are the times of computers. Most of the schools in our city provide computer education. Our school is definitely better than them. So we must have even better computers and the teachers to teach their working.
So, I request you to start providing us the computer education. All the students will be obliged to you for it.
Yours obediently
Rajat Mittal

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 English

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CBSE Class 6 English Grammar Articles

Three words—a, an and the are called articles. They are divided in two groups.

A. The Definite Article (The)
1. Use of Definite Article
(a) Put the before the words which mean the inhabitants of a country.
The English live in England and the Indians in India.
But do not put the before the names of the language.
English is spoken in England and Hindi in India.
Exception
Plural nouns of a country’s inhabitants do not take the if they are thought of individually.
Indians are generally vegetarians.
Russians drink vodka.

(b) Put the before the names of mountain ranges.
The Alps, the Himalayas
But do not put the before the names of single mountains or hills.
Everest, Mont Blanc (not the Everest, the Mont Blanc)

(c) Use the before the names of rivers, canals, seas, oceans, valleys, deserts and forests :
Lucknow is on the Gomati. (not on GomatQ
Similarly we say—
The North Sea, The Indian Ocean, The Ganges, The Sahara

(d) Use the before the names of ships and trains :
The Rajdhani Express runs fast.
The Titanic was a very big ship.
But do not use the before the vehicles when they indicate a means of transport :
I will go to Delhi by bus.
We are going to Mumbai by train.

2. Omission of the Definite Article
(a) Do not put the before the names of substances if they are used in a general sense.
Gold is a precious metal. (not the golf)
Bread is made from flour. (not the bread … the flour)
Lead is very heavy. (not the lead)
But the must be used if the reference is to a particular kind or type.
The thieves stole the gold from that ship.
The bread in this hotel is of poor quality.

(b) Do not put the before the names of meals if they refer to the meals generally.
When do you have dinner ?
Have you had breakfast ?
Lunch is at 2.00 p.m.
But use the when the meal is a particular one.
The dinner will be taken at Ashoka.
We enjoyed the lunch given by the school.

(c) Do not use the before plural nouns when they are used in a general sense.
Books are necessary for students.
Apples grow in Simla.
Cars can run fast.

(d) Do not use the before the names of games.
Sania Mirza plays Tennis.
Chess is a game which requires skill.

(e) Do not put the before the names of the countries unless the name denotes that it is made of parts.
India, Italy, France and China are all republics.
But
The United States is very rich.
The U.S.S.R. has broken into smaller units.

(f) Do not use the before the names of the offices if these follow the names of the officers :
Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh
President Dr. Abdul Kalam
D.C. Miss. Rajni Kothari
But if the names are not mentioned the must be used.
The Prime Minister, the President etc.

Exercise 1
(Solved)

Fill in the blanks with the where necessary.
1. The table was made of ………. wood.
2. ………. water in that pot is not fit for drinking.
3. ………. sweets we took after meals were tasty.
4. When do you have ………. breakfast ?
5. Are you attending ………. dinner tonight ?
6. Why do we wear ………. clothes ?
Answers:
1. × (No article)
2. The
3. The
4. × (No article)
5. the
6. × (No article)

B. The Indefinite Article (A and An)
(a) A is used before words beginning with a consonant, and an before words beginning with a vowel or with a letter h which is not sounded. The following are the main words which are spelt with unsounded h.

(b) If a word begins with a vowel but is pronounced in the way as ‘y’ in yet, write a and not an before it.
a university, a European.

(c) A/an are to be used only before singular countable nouns.
a book, a city, an animal.
A/an should be used before the adjective if these singular countable nouns have an adjective before them.
a big city, a fine book, an ignorant person.

(d) Use a after the word such when it is applied to things which are countable.
I have never known such a cold winter.
Such a thing has never happened before.

(e) If instead of such, there is the word so, then put a after the adjective, just before the noun.
I have never known so cold a winter.   (not a so cold winter)

(f) When a is placed before the word few, it changes the meaning. Few means a small number when more might have been expected ; a few means a small number when none were expected.
Few boys were present in the class.    (ie., I had expected more)
A few boys were present in the class.
(i..e., I had expected none, still there was a small number of them present)
There is a similar difference between little and a little.
We have little time to spare.
(It means that we do not have as much time as we should like).
We have a little time to spare.
(It means that we are not so short of time that we cannot spare any).

Exercise 2
(Solved)

Fill in the blanks with a or an.
1. ………. man and ………. woman were sitting opposite me.
2. During our holiday, we stayed at ………. hotel.
3. For our dinner, we went to ………. restaurant.
4. As it was raining. I took ………. umbrella.
5. On the way, I saw ………. elephant.
6. I am ………. Indian whereas you are ………. Chinese.
Answers:
1. a, a
2. a
3. a
4. an
5. an
6. an, a

Exercise 3
(For Practice)

Fill in the blanks with ‘a’ or ‘an’.
1. Have you ever seen ………. lion ?
2. Does Sohan have ………. car ?
3. Is there ………. bank nearby ?
4. There isn’t ………. airport nearby.
5. Ram is ………. honest man.
6. He will return in ………. hour.

Exercise 4
(For Practice)

Insert ‘a’, ‘an’ or ‘the’.
Once there was ………. mouse. The mouse was always afraid of ………. cat. A magician took pity on ………. mouse. He turned it into ………. cat. Now cat was afraid of dogs. So, ………. magician turned ………. cat into ………. dog and finally into ………. tiger ………. tiger began to fear hunters in forest.
Then ………. magician said, “Be ………. mouse again. You are no better than mouse at heart.

Exercise 5
(For Practice)

Fill in the blanks with a few, a little, the few, the little.
1. Just ………. persons were present there.
2. I cannot prepare tea ; there is ………. milk in the house.
3. I have consumed ………. sugar you gave me.
4. ………. water of the pond will not last the year.
5. The class was not held as ………. students were present.
6. Don’t worry. I have ………. money in the bank.

Exercise 6
(For Practice)

Fill in the blanks with the where necessary.
1. Some soaps are made of ………. oils and some of only ………. chemicals.
2. ………. iron is found in India.
3. In India more people drink ………. milk than ………. wine.
4. ………. mangoes are grown in India. Pakistan and Srilanka.
5. Will you play ………. cricket ?
6. She plays ………. basketball very well.

Multiple Choice Questions

Read the statements given below and tick the correct option :
I. Identify as directed :
Question 1.
Identify the definite article
(i) a
(ii) an
(iii) the
(iv) it

Question 2.
Identify the indefinite articles
(i) a, the
(ii) an, the
(iii) a, an
(iv) both (i) and (ii)

II. Fill the correct option :
Question 3.
………. English is spoken in England
(i) A
(ii) The
(iii) An
(iv) None of these

Question 4.
Such ………. thing has never happened
(i) a
(ii) the
(iii) an
(iv) none of these

Question 5.
The tourist is ………. European
(i) a
(ii) the
(iii) an
(iv) none of these

Question 6.
………. ignorant person needs to learn
(i) A
(ii) The
(iii) An
(iv) None of these

Question 7.
………. money was in my purse
(i) A
(ii) The
(iii) An
(iv) None of these

III. Choose the correct option :
Question 8.
(i) A water in the pot is unfit
(ii) The water in the pot is unfit
(iii) An water in the pot is unfit
(iv) Its water in the pot is unfit

Question 9.
(i) The table is made of the wood
(ii) The table is made of wood
(iii) The table is made of a wood
(iv) That table is made of a wood

Question 10.
(i) It is great honour for me
(ii) It is a great honour for me
(iii) It is some great honour for me
(iv) It is more great honour for me

Question 11.
(i) I went to its university
(ii) I went to an university
(iii) I went to the university
(iv) I went to this university

Question 12.
(i) We have little time to spare
(ii) We have least time to spare
(iii) We have a little time to spare
(iv) We have the little time to spare
Answers
1. (iii)
2. (iii)
3. (iv)
4. (i)
5. (i)
6. (iii)
7. (ii)
8. (ii)
9. (ii)
10. (ii)
11. (iii)
12. (iii)

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 English

The post CBSE Class 6 English Grammar Articles appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Nutrition in Animals Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 2

Nutrition in Animals Class 7 Science Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is the total number of teeth in an adult human?
Answer:
In an adult human, there are total 32 teeth.

Question 2.
Name the parts of the alimentary canal where
(a) water gets absorbed from undigested food
(b) digested food gets absorbed
(c) taste of the food is perceived
(d) bile juice is produced [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) large intestine
(b) small intestine
(c) tongue
(d) liver

Question 3.
Identify the location of salivary gland.
Answer:
Salivary gland is present in the buccal cavity and it secretes saliva.

Question 4.
You were blindfolded and asked to identify the drinks provided in two different glasses. You could identify drink A as lime juice and B as bitter gourd juice. How could you do it inspite of being blindfolded? [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
Inspite of being blindfolded, one could identify two different drinks with the help of taste buds present in the tongue.

Question 5.
We should not eat hurriedly. Give reason.
Answer:
We should not eat hurriedly because if we ingest food in hurry or we talk or laugh while eating we experience hiccups, coughing or choking sensation.

Question 6.
Name the secretions of stomach which digest food.
Answer:
The inner lining of stomach secretes mucous hydrochloric acid and digestive juices.

Question 7.
Explain the role of mucus secreted by stomach.
Answer:
The function of mucus is to protect the lining of stomach from the action of hydrochloric acid secreted by stomach lining.

Question 8.
The long structure of small intestine is accommodated in small space within our body. Comment. [HOTS]
Answer:
The small intestine is about 7.5 metre long It is accommodated in a coiled form inside our body.

Question 9.
Suggest the organ of digestive system where the digestive juices from liver and pancreas is poured.
Answer:
The digestive juices from liver and pancreas is poured into small intestine which helps in complete digestion and absorption of food.

Question 10.
From which organ of digestive system, the undigested faecal matter is removed?
Answer:
The undigested faecal matter is removed through the anus by the process called egestion.

Question 11.
Mention the position of the rumen in ruminants.
Answer:
The rumen is the sac-like structure which is present between small intestine and large intestine in ruminants.

Question 12.
What is assimilation?
Answer:
The process by which absorbed food is taken by body cells and is used for energy, growth and repair is called assimilation.

Question 13.
Describe alimentary canal briefly.
Answer:
Alimentary canal is the tube running from mouth to anus of human and animals here digestion and absorption of food take place.

Question 14.
Name the simple forms of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
Answer:
The food components and their simple forms are carbohydrates (glucose), fatty (fats) acids and glycerol, proteins (amino acids).

Question 15.
Write the shape of stomach.
Answer:
The shape of stomach is like flattened U-shaped.

Question 16.
Discuss the role of hydrochloric acid secreted by gastric glands.
Answer:
It helps in the breakdown of food particles. It creates an acidic environment which facilitates the action

Nutrition in Animals Class 7 Science Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
With the help of labelled diagram show the gradual decay of tooth.
Answer:
Sweets and Tooth Decay The tooth is covered by white, hard outer covering of tooth called Enamel enamel below which dentine is present. It is similar to bone which Pulp cavity (with nerves and blood vessels) protects the pulp cavity having nerves and blood vessels. Bacteria are Gum present in our mouth but they are not harmful to us. However, if we do not clean our teeth and mouth after eating, many harmful bacteria also begin to live and grow in it. These bacteria breakdown the sugars present from the leftover food and release acids. The acids gradually damage the tooth. This is called tooth decay.
Therefore, tooth decay is defined as the process of rotting of tooth and formation of cavity or holes in it which leads to the toothache.
When the holes or cavity reaches to the pulp cavity, it causes pain. If these cavities are not treated on time it causes severe toothache and may result in tooth loss.

Tooth decay can be prevented by adapting following measures.
(i) One should rinse and clean its teeth thoroughly after every Pulp cavity meal.
(ii) We should clean our teeth with the help of datun or brush Gradual decaying of human tooth and toothpaste, twice a day.
(iii) We should use dental floss which is a special strong thread. It is moved between two teeth to take out
trapped food particles.
(iv) Dirty fingers or unwashed objects must be avoided to put in the mouth.
(v) We should avoid the use of sweets, chocolates, toffees, ice-cream, etc. Much use of cold drink should also be avoided.”

Question 2.
Name the various components of food and their simpler forms.
Answer:
The various components of food and their simpler forms are

Question 3.
‘A’ got her gall bladder removed surgically as she was diagnosed with stones in her gall bladder. After the surgery, she faced problems in digestion of certain food items when consumed in bulk. Can you tell which kind of food items would they be and why? [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
After surgical removal of gall bladder, ‘A’ would face problems in digestion of fat and fatty substances when consumed in bulk. This is because the bile juice stored in the gall bladder helps in digestion of fats.

Question 4.
Discuss the various associated glands of digestive system and their role in digestion.
Answer:
The various associated glands of digestive system and their role in digestion are as follows

1. Salivary gland digestion of starch in mouth.
2. Liver secretes bile juices which help in the digestion of fats.
3. Pancreas secretes pancreatic juices which act on carbohydrate, fats and proteins and change them into simpler compounds.

Question 5.
Boojho took some grains of boiled rice in test tube ‘A’ and Paheli took boiled and chewed rice in test tube ‘S’. Both of them poured 1-2 drops of iodine solution into the test tube and observed the colour change. What colour change would they have observed? Give reasons for your Answer: [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
In test tube A, blue black colour appeared because of presence of starch.
In test tube 6, colour of iodine will not change because of digestion of starch into sugars by the action of saliva in our mouth.

Question 6.
Mention the different steps of nutrition in animals.

Question 7.
List the preventive measures that one should adopt for avoiding tooth decay.
Answer:
Sweets and Tooth Decay The tooth is covered by white, hard outer covering of tooth called Enamel enamel below which dentine is present. It is similar to bone which Pulp cavity (with nerves and blood vessels) protects the pulp cavity having nerves and blood vessels. Bacteria are Gum present in our mouth but they are not harmful to us. However, if we do not clean our teeth and mouth after eating, many harmful bacteria also begin to live and grow in it. These bacteria breakdown the sugars present from the leftover food and release acids. The acids gradually damage the tooth. This is called tooth decay.

Therefore, tooth decay is defined as the process of rotting of tooth and formation of cavity or holes in it which leads to the toothache.
When the holes or cavity reaches to the pulp cavity, it causes pain. If these cavities are not treated on time it causes severe toothache and may result in tooth loss.

Tooth decay can be prevented by adapting following measures.
(i) One should rinse and clean its teeth thoroughly after every Pulp cavity meal.
(ii) We should clean our teeth with the help of datun or brush Gradual decaying of human tooth and toothpaste, twice a day.
(iii) We should use dental floss which is a special strong thread. It is moved between two teeth to take out
trapped food particles.
(iv) Dirty fingers or unwashed objects must be avoided to put in the mouth.
(v) We should avoid the use of sweets, chocolates, toffees, ice-cream, etc. Much use of cold drink should also be avoided.”

Question 8.
Write the difference between milk teeth and permanent teeth.
Answer:
The difference between milk teeth and permanent teeth are

Question 9.
Complete the following table, from the options given below:
(Scraping, chewing, siphoning, capturing and swallowing, sponging, sucking, etc.)

Answer:
The complete table is

Question 10.
Briefly describe the mechanism of producing hiccups while we take food in hurry.

Question 11.
Boojho and Paheli were eating their food hurriedly so that they could go out and play during the recess. Suddenly, Boojho started coughing violently. Think of the reasons, why he was coughing and discuss with your friends?
[NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
Sometimes when we eat hurriedly, talks or laughs while eating, the flap-like valve (called epiglottis) which closes the passage of windpipe remains open. Therefore, the food may enter into the windpipe. Coughing helps to clear the passage and returns the food particle back to the foodpipe.

Question 12.
Gastric glands in stomach release hydrochloric acid, enzyme pepsin and mucus. What will happen if mucus is not secreted by the gastric glands?
Answer:
Mucus protects the inner lining of stomach form the action of hydrochloric acid and enzyme pepsin. If mucus is not released, it will lead to erosion of inner lining of stomach leading to acidity and ulcers.

Question 13.
Choose the odd one out from each group and give reasons.
(a) liver, salivary gland, starch, gall bladder
(b) stomach, liver, pancreas, salivary gland
(c) tongue, absorption, taste, swallow
(d) oesophagus, small intestine, large intestine, rectum [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) Starch, because rest all are glands and starch is a type of carbohydrate.
(b) Stomach, because rest all are digestive glands and stomach is a digestive organ.
(c) Tongue, because rest all are digestive processes and tongue is a part of digestive system.
(d) Small intestine, because it carriers the process of digestion and rest are not involved in digestion.

Question 14.
Following statements describe the five steps in animal nutrition. Read each statement and give one word for each statement. Write the terms that describe each process.
(a) Transportation of absorbed food to different parts of body and their utilisation.
(b) Breaking of complex food substances into simpler and soluble substances.
(c) Removal of undigested and unabsorbed solid residues of food from the body.
(d) Taking food into the body.
(e) Transport of digested and soluble food from the intestine to blood vessels.[NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) Assimilation
(b) Digestion
(c) Egestion
(d) Ingestion
(e) Absorption

Question 15.
Small intestine in herbivores is longer than in carnivores. Do you agree? Support your Answer:
Answer:
Yes, carnivores animals cannot digest cellulose, hence they have a shorter small intestine. In herbivores, digestion of cellulose takes a longer time. Hence, herbivores need a longer small intestine to allow complete digestion of cellulose.

Question 16.
Draw a neat and clean diagram of Amoeba showing the correct location of the following components : nucleus, vacuole, pseudopodia.
Answer:

Question 17.
Draw the labelled diagram of tongue showing different region for taste buds.
Answer:
Refer to figure on page 17.

Question 18.
Ruminants such as cows and buffaloes swallow their food hurriedly and then sit restfully and chew their food. Give reason. [NCERT Examplar; HOTS]
Answer:
Ruminants such as cows and buffaloes swallow their food hurriedly and store it in a part of the stomach called rumen. The cellulose of the food is digested here by the action of certain bacteria which are not present in humans. Later, this partially digested food is returned to the buccal cavity of the animals in small lumps and animal chews it to complete the process of digestion. This process is called rumination.

Question 19.
Discuss the position and number of molars in buccal cavity.
Answer:
Molars are very large teeth which are present behind the premolar, towards the back of our mouth. They are only present in the permanent set of teeth and are 6 in each jaw.

Question 20.
Name the three digestive glands in our body.
Answer:
The three digestive glands are

1. liver
2. Pancreas
3. Salivary glands

Question 21.
The swallowed food moves downwards in the alimentary canal. Explain.
Answer:
The swallowed food moves downwards in the alimentary canal because of the atternate relaxation contraction movement of muscles in the wall of foodpipe called peristalsis.

Question 22.
Explain how assimilation is different from absorption.
Answer:
The process by which nutrients from the digested food are absorbed by the body is called absorption whereas the process by which the absorbed nutrients are utilised by the body for providing energy is called assimilation.

Question 23.
Food moves in the opposite direction during vomiting. How?
Answer:
The intense pressure is formed in the stomach when the food is not accepted by the stomach. The content in the stomach is then pushed back. This returned content is expelled out from the mouth in the form of vomiting.

Question 24.
Briefly explain, why animals like cow cannot chew their food properly at the time they take it in.
Answer:
Animals like cow cannot chew their food properly due to the presence of cellulose in their diet. At the time they take in food, the food is moistend and is sent for cellulose digestion and softening in rumen.

Question 25.
Is there any role of liver in digestion of fats? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, liver produces bile which has bile salts. These salts break large fat molecules to fine droplets. These fine droplets are further converted into fatty acids and glycerol.

Question 26.
Cellulose rich food substances are good source of roughage in human beings. Justify. [HOTS]
Answer:
Cellulose rich food substances are good source of roughage in human beings. It is because the cellulose digesting bacteria are not present in the body of human beings due to which human beings cannot digest cellulose (present in plant foods).

Question 27.
Recall and name the main organs of the digestive system in our body.
Answer:
The different organs of the alimentary canal are as follows :

1. Mouth and mouth cavity
2. Oesophagus
3. Stomach
4. Small intestine
5. Large intestine
6. Anus

Question 28.
Alimentary canal is different from digestive system. Comment.
Answer:
Alimentary canal is a long, muscular coiled tube. It is also known as digestive tract. The alimentary canal with its associated glands constitute the digestive system. These glands are salivary glands, liver and pancreas.

Question 29.
Windpipe runs adjacent to the foodpipe. What will happen if food particles enter the windpipe? Explain.
Answer:
The windpipe carries air from the nostrils to the lungs. It runs adjacent to the foodpipe. If, by chance, food particles enter the windpipe, we feel choked, get hiccups or cough.

Question 30.
Explain how is small intestine designed to absorb digested food.
Answer:
The finger-like projections called villi are present in the inner walls of the small intestine. The villi increase the surface area. The large surface area of small intestine helps in the rapid absorption of the digested food.

Nutrition in Animals Class 7 Science Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Label the given figure as directed below in A to D and give the name of each type of teeth.
(a) The cutting and biting teeth as A
(b) The piercing and tearing teeth as B
(c) The grinding and chewing teeth as C
(d) The grinding teeth present only in adult as D

Answer:

Question 2.
Briefly describe the process of digestion in Amoeba with the help of labelled diagram. [NCERT Examplar]
Answer:
Feeding and Digestion in Amoeba

Amoeba is a microscopic single celled organism, which is found in pond water. It is a very simple animal and cannot be seen by naked eyes. Amoeba has a cell membrane, a rounded dense nucleus and many small bubble-like vacuoles in its cytoplasm. These vacuoles are of two types, i.e. food vacuole and contractile vacuole. Food vacuole contains food surrounded by water while contractile vacuole contains liquid or water and controls water regulation activity in Amoeba. Its shape is not fixed, i.e. it constantly changes its shape and position. The body of Amoeba has finger-like projections, called pseudopodia or false feet. It captures food and helps in locomotion of Amoeba.

The food of Amoeba are microscopic organisms like tiny plants and animals present in pond water. When Amoeba senses its food, it pushes out pseudopodia around the food particle and engulfs it. The two pseudopodia join around the food particle and trap the food particle with a little water forming vacuole around food, thus the food gets trapped. Digestive juices present inside the vacuole, acts on the food and break it into simpler substances. This digested food is then absorbed and is used for growth, maintenance and multiplication of Amoeba. The undigested food residue is expelled outside by the vacuole. The basic process of digestion of food and release of energy is as similar to the other organisms.

Question 3.
Label the following parts of above figure and name them.
(a) The largest gland in our body.
(b) The organ where protein digestion starts.
(c) The organ that releases digestive juice into the small intestine.
(d) The organ where bile juice gets stored. [NCERT Examplar]

Answer:

Question 4.
Little Rishi (student of class VI) was watching his favourite cartoon serial on television. Suddenly he got hiccups. His elder brother Shubham who was sitting near by him gave him a glass of water and suggested not to eat too fast in a hurry. Little Rishi got confused as he had heard that ‘hicki’ comes when someone remembers. He asked his father. His father smiled and explained him that it is only a myth. He also explained him the proper scientific reason behind it.
(a) What is hiccup?
(b) Why do we get hiccup?
(c) What are the values shown by Rishi? [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) Hiccup is a choking sensation that produces a characteristic gulping sound repeatedly. It is called ‘hicki’ in our local language.
(b) Sometimes, when we eat too fast in a hurry or talk too much or laugh while eating, then a little of windpipe remains open due to which food particles may enter the windpipe. It may result in a choking sensation called hiccups.
(c) He is sincere and curious to know about the things at an early age.

Question 5.
Jaya returned from school and found that grandmother was scolding her maid, Rani as she did not come yesterday. The maid told that his son was passing watery stools frequently that’s why she didn’t come. Jaya’s mother who was listening the discussion came to them and told Rani not to come for coming 3-4 days. She also suggested her to give his son a solution of sugar and salt in clean water, many times a day for fast recovery. Jaya was surprised. She rushed to her mother and asked the scientific reason for it. Her mother smiled and explained her the importance of this solution.
(a) Name the term used to describe the condition in which a person passes out watery stools.
(b) Name the solution of sugar and salt in water. Why is it given to a person suffering from diarrhoea?
(c) What are the values shown by Jaya? [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) Diarrhoea.
(b) Oral Rehydration Solution (ORS). It is given to a person suffering from diarrhoea to prevent the dehydration.
(c) She is sincere, curious and has interest in science.

Question 6.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow it.
Bile juice is stored in a sac called, gall bladder, located near its organ of secretion, liver. The gall bladder releases the bile juice into the small intestine whenever food reaches there. Though bile juice is devoid of any digestive enzymes, it is required for the digestion of fats. The fats cannot be digested easily because they are insoluble in water and are present as large globules. Bile juice breaks down big fat droplets into smaller droplets. These are then easily digested by the enzymes released from the pancreas
(a) Which organ secretes the bile juice?
(b) Why is digestion of fats difficult as compared to that of other nutrients?
(c) How does bile juice help in digestion of that of other nutrients?
(d) Where is the digestion of fat completed?
(e) Does bile juice digest fat completely? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) Bile juice is secreted by liver.
(b) Digestion of fats is difficult as compared to that of other nutrients because of insolubility of fat in water.
(c) Bile juice helps in digestion of fat by breaking down big fat droplets into smaller droplet.
(d) Digestion of fat is completed in small intestine.
(e) No, fat is not completely digested by bile juice.

Question 7.
Define oral rehydration solution and when it is given to the patient? How can you prepare ORS at home?
Answer:
Oral rehydration solution is the solution of sugar and salt in a particular ratio in the clean water. When a person passes out watery stools frequently, the disease is called diarrhoea. In this condition there is a loss of water and salt from the body of a person.

This is called dehydration which may be fatal if not cured at proper time. In order to prevent dehydration, the person or patient should be given ORS. ORS makes up the loss of water and salts in the body and sugar provides energy which helps in the recovery of disease. It should be given to a patient suffering from diarrhoea at a regular interval.

At home the ORS can be prepared by dissolving a teaspoonful of sugar and pinch of salt in a glass of clean water. The water used for preparing ORS should be first boiled and then cooled so that all the microorganisms or harmful bacteria may be killed.

Question 8.
Open your mouth, look into a mirror and try to count the different types of teeth of teeth in your mouth. Compare them with figure 2.3 on page 13 of your NCERT textbook. Record your observations in the table below: [NCERT Exemplar]

(a) Did you observe any difference in the number of teeth? If yes, could you identify which type of teeth showed the difference?
(b) Compare the number and type of teeth in an adult (say your parents or cousins who have reached the age of 25-30 or more). Note your observation.
Answer:

(a) Yes, the difference has been observed in the number of molars.
(b) The number and type of teeth varries in an adult as compared to the child. Children have 28 teeth in their mouth.There are only four molars in each jaw.
While, adults have 32 teeth in their mouth which means six molars in each jaw.

Question 9.
Explain how the digestion of cellulose occurs in grass eating animals.
Answer:
Digestion in Grass-Eating Animals

The herbivorous animals such as cow, buffaloes, etc eat grass. These animals quickly swallow the grass and store it in a part of stomach called rumen. The food is not chewed completely. Rumen possess cellulose digesting bacteria which breakdown the food by fermentation. This partially digested food or grass present in the rumen of cow is called cud.

This cud is brought back into the mouth of the cow from the rumen into small lumps and animal chews it again. This process is called rumination and animals are called ruminants.
When this cud is thoroughly chewed in the mouth of the cow, it is swallowed again. This time the chewed cud does not go back to rumen but enter into the other compartments of cow’s stomach and then into the small intestine for complete digestion and absorption of food. The cellulose digesting bacteria are not present in the body of human being, therefore human beings and other carnivore cannot digest cellulose present in plant food items.

Nutrition in Animals Class 7 Science Extra Questions Miscellaneous

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Hydrochloric acid is secreted by
(a) linings of small intestine
(b) inner lining of stomach
(c) pancreas
(d) lining of liver
Answer:
(b) inner lining of stomach

Question 2.
Which of the following pair of teeth differ in structure but are similar in function? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Canines and incisors
(b) Molars and premolars
(c) Incisors and molars
(d) Premolars and canines
Answer:
(b) Molars and premolars

Question 3.
The swallowed food moves downwards in the alimentary canal because of [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) force provided by the muscular tongue
(b) the flow of water taken with the food
(c) gravitational pull
(d) the contraction of muscles in the wall of foodpipe
Answer:
(d) the contraction of muscles in the wall of foodpipe

Question 4.
The acid present in the stomach
(a) kills the harmful bacteria that may enter along with the food
(b) protects the stomach lining from harmful substances
(c) digests starch into simpler sugars
(d) makes the medium alkaline
Answer:
(a) kills the harmful bacteria that may enter along with the food

Question 5.
The simplest form of protein is
(a) fatty acids
(b) glucose
(c) glycerol
(d) amino acids
Answer:
(d) amino acids

Question 6.
The finger-like outgrowths of Amoeba helps to ingest food. However, the finger-like outgrowths of human intestine helps to [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) digest the fatty food substances
(b) make the food soluble
(c) absorb the digested food
(d) absorb the undigested food
Answer:
(c) absorb the digested food

Question 7.
The false feet of Amoeba are used for [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) movement only
(b) capture of food only
(c) capture of food and movement
(d) exchange of gases only
Answer:
(c) capture of food and movement

Question 8.
Read the following statements with reference to the villi of small intestine.
(i) They have very thin walls.
(ii) They have a network of thin and small blood vessels close to the surface.
(iii) They have small pores through which food can easily pass.
(iv) They are finger-like projections.
Identify those statements which enable the villi to absorb digested food.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (iii) and (iv)

Question 9.
The absorption of nutrients or food components in its simpler form takes place in
(a) blood vessels of small intestine wall
(b) large intestine wall
(c) gall bladder
(d) liver
Answer:
(a) blood vessels of small intestine wall

Question 10.
The enzymes present in the saliva convert [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) fats into fatty acids and glycerol
(b) starch into simple sugars
(c) proteins into amino acids
(d) complex sugars into simple sugars
Answer:
(b) starch into simple sugars

Question 11.
Cud is the name given to the food of ruminants which is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) swallowed and undigested
(b) swallowed and partially digested
(c) properly chewed and partially digested
(d) properly chewed and completely digested
Answer:
(b) swallowed and partially digested

Question 12.
Cellulose rich food substances are good sources of roughage in human beings because [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) human beings do not have cellulose: digesting enzymes
(b) cellulose gets absorbed in the human blood and converts into fibres
(c) the cellulose digesting bacteria convert cellulose into fibres
(d) cellulose breaks down into smaller components which are egested as roughage
Answer:
(a) human beings do not have cellulose: digesting enzymes

Question 13.
If, by chance, food particles enter the windpipe, we feel
(a) hiccups and cough
(b) yawning
(c) sleep
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) hiccups and cough

Question 14.
The tip or front of tongue taste
(a) sour
(b) bitter
(c) salt and sweet
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) salt and sweet

Question 15.
Dentine protects which part of human teeth?
(a) Enamel
(b) Pulp cavity
(c) Gums
(d) Dental cavity
Answer:
(b) Pulp cavity

Question 16.
The finger-like projection presents on the inner lining of small intestine is called
(a) villi
(b) stomach
(c) rumen
(d) diarrhoea
Answer:
(a) villi

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
……. is the process of taking food inside the body.
Answer:
Ingestion

Question 2.
….. is the simplest form of carbohydrate.
Answer:
Glucose

Question 3.
The process of breakdown of complex food material into …… is called …….
Answer:
simpler form, digestion

Question 4.
Amoeba digests its food inside ………
Answer:
food vacuole

Question 5.
……. teeth replaces the milk teeth.
Answer:
Permanent

Question 6.
…… is the long tube-like structure which
Answer:
Alimentary canal

Question 7.
Large intestine absorbs ….. and …… from undigested food.
Answer:
water, salts

Question 8.
Animals are …….
Answer:
heterotrophic

Question 9.
Cud chewing animals are called ……..
Answer:
ruminants

Question 10.
Four kinds of teeth present in human are ……, …….., …….. and ……..
Answer:
incisor, cannines, premolar, molar

True/False

Question 1.
Oesophagus is also called as foodpipe.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Simplest form of fat is sugars and glucose.
Answer:
False, simplest form of fat is fatty acid and glycerol.

Question 3.
Ruminant can digest cellulose (carbohydrate).
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Canines are used for grinding of food.
Answer:
False, canines are used for piercing and tearing the food.

Question 5.
Amoeba is a microscopic, single celled animal.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
The nutrition in Amoeba takes place by pseudopodia.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Egestion is the process of removing waste food or undigested food through anus.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Diarrhoea can be treated by only giving water to the patient.
Answer:
False, diarrhoea can be treated by giving a solution of sugar and salt in the clean water for several times in a day. This solution is called ORS.

Question 9.
Source of energy for living being is food.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
The digestion of starch only takes place in the stomach
Answer:
False, digestion of starch normally begins in the mouth where it is broken down into smaller sugar molecules, glucose. Additional breakdown of starch occurs in the small intestine.

Match the Columns

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II. [NCERT Examplar]

Answers:
(a)-(v), (b)-(vi), (c)-(i), (d)-(vii), (e)-(ii), (f)-(iv), (g)-(iii)

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answers:
(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

Extra Questions for Class 7 Science

The post Nutrition in Animals Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Class 6 English Grammar Noun

Definition. Noun is the name given to a thing, person, object (animate or inanimate) or feeling : e.g.,
Ram, man, dog, book, tree, light, love etc.
Kinds of Noun :
Noun can be of two kinds :
A. Countable nouns like book, man etc.
B. Uncountable nouns like light, bread etc.
(a) An uncountable noun is sometimes used as countable noun.
Three teas, please.
Here ‘three teas’ means three cups of tea.
There were dozens of ice-creams.
It means there were dozens of kinds of ice-cream.
Compare :
She has curly hair.
There is a hair in my soup.

(b) Some nouns have different meanings when they are used countably and when used uncountably.
Glass is fragile.
Give me a glass of water.
This is a three-room-house.
There is no room for dishonesty in this company.

(c) Collective nouns such as a group, a crowd, a herd, a team etc are singular.
However, if we think of the members individually, a plural verb may be used.
Compare :
A flock of sheep was grazing.
A flock of sheep were straying all over the road causing confusion in the traffic. In the first sentence the speaker is thinking of the sheep as a group.
In the second sentence, he has different sheep—some straying in one direction and some in the other. So we use a plural verb there.

(d) Some nouns have a plural form but are always treated as singular.
What is the latest news ?

Exercise 1
(Solved)

Fill in the blanks with the proper form of verbs given in the brackets. Use only present tense.
1. All the sugar ……….. been consumed. (have)
2. The English Cricket team ……….. expected to arrive in India today. (be)
3. Good cutlery ……….. expensive. (be)
4. A lot of milk ……….. to be drunk by the patient. (need)
5. Most of the money ……….. now been spent. (have)
Answers
1. has
2. is
3. is
4. needs
5. has

Exercise 2
(For Practice)

Fill in the blanks using the present tense of the verb in the brackets.
1. A large crowd ……….. expected today. (be)
2. These shoes ……….. almost worn out. (be)
3. A pair of gloves ……….. been found in the hall. (have)
4. A great number of people ……….. visited the exhibition. (have)
5. Most of the houses in this street ……….. been built by a single builder. (have)
6. These scissors ……….. sharpening. (need)

Exercise 3
(For Practice)

Supply the appropriate verb to fill the blank spaces. Use present tense.
1. The people waiting for the show ……….. getting impatient.
2. Mathematics ……….. his weakest subject.
3. An epidemic of measles ……….. broken out in the city.
4. The bread ……….. been ordered.
5. There ……….. plenty of water in the house.
6. Most of the students ……….. gone abroad.

Multiple Choice Questions

Read the statements given below and tick the correct option :
I. Identify the type of Noun :
Question 1.
This is a wonderful class
(i) Collective noun
(ii) Proper noun
(iii) Material noun
(iv) Common noun

Question 2.
The house is made of bricks
(i) Collective noun
(ii) Common noun
(iii) Material noun
(iv) Abstract noun

Question 3.
Honesty is the best policy
(i) Collective noun
(ii) Proper noun
(iii) Common noun
(iv) Abstract noun

II. Fill in the missing word :
Question 4.
A of sheep was grazing
(i) group
(ii) bunch
(iii) flock
(iv) herd

Question 5.
How much do you want ?
(i) pens
(ii) windows
(iii) sugar
(iv) notebooks

Question 6.
A bunch of is hanging
(i) leaves
(ii) photos
(iii) keys
(iv) strings.

Question 7.
I like
(i) book
(ii) booked
(iii) booking
(iv) books

III. Tick the correct option :
Question 8.
A meal that is eaten in the morning
(i) breakfast
(ii) lunch
(iii) dinner
(iv) supper

Question 9.
A man who is getting married
(i) bride
(ii) bridesmaid
(iii) bridegroom
(iv) bridesman

Question 10.
A picture that is taken with a camera
(i) movie
(ii) footage
(iii) photograph
(iv) passport
Answers :
1. (i)
2. (iii)
3. (iv)
4. (iii)
5. (iii)
6. (iii)
7. (iv)
8. (i)
9. (iii)
10. (iii)

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 English

The post CBSE Class 6 English Grammar Noun appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Class 6 English Grammar Pronouns and Possessive Adjectives

(a) We may say—
Sheela is absent because Sheela is ill.
But it is better to avoid the repetition of the noun Sheela, and say Sheela is absent because she is ill.
Definition. A word that is used to replace a noun is called pronoun. (The word ‘Pronoun’ means ‘for a noun’.)

(b) If the number of noun is singular, persons of the male sex are referred to by ‘he, him, his, himself. Persons of the female sex take, ‘she, her, hers, herself. Non-living things are referred to by ‘it, its and itself.’

(c) If the number of noun is plural, persons of either sex as also the non¬living things, are referred to by ‘they, them, their, theirs, themselves’.

(d) An animal is generally referred to by the neuter ‘it’, even if the noun denotes one sex only.
I watched the cow as it grazed peacefully. However, if there is something in the situation that draws attention to the sex of the animal, then ‘he’ or ‘she’ may be used.
There is a cow with her calf.
For animals which occur in a story as characters or the animals which are thought of as members of the family, he, she etc may be used.
We have a monkey in the house.
Have you seen him ?

(e) The words ‘his’, ‘her’ and others derived from them are called posses¬sive adjectives. They must agree in gender with the worcjs which they refer back. The gender of these possessive adjectives has nothing to do with the nouns they follow :
Ram gave a present to his mother. (not her mother)
Sita gave a present to her brother as well as to her sister. (not his brother or his sister)
The cycle was restored to its owner. (not his or her owner)
Look at the following table. It will help you to use correct pronoun or possessive adjective.

The table above gives only the third person.
The one below is more exhaustive.

Exercise 1
(Solved)

Fill in the blanks with suitable pronouns.
1. Ram and ………….. were present.
2. Can you sing as well as ………….. ?
3. Wait for Mohan and ………….. .
4. It was ………….. that gave you the alarm.
5. We are not so poor as ………….. .
Answers
1. I/you/he/she
2. he/they/I/she
3. me/them/us/her
4. I/he/she
5. he/they/she/you

Exercise 2
(Solved)

Insert his, her, its or their in the blank spaces.
1. The poor boy has lost ………….. mother.
2. I am two years older than ………….. brother.
3. Ram has taken ………….. wife to the doctor.
4. The manager asked the visitors to wait outside ………….. office.
5. Have you seen ………….. pen anywhere ?
Answers
1. his
2. his
3. his
4. his
5. his

Exercise 3
(For Practice)

Fill in the blanks with pronouns or possessives.
1. Sita has returned the book which you lent ………….. .
2. These girls are very fond of ………….. dog.
3. You must write ………….. letters carefully.
4. The dog followed ………….. master wherever he went.
5. They have gone with ………….. parents.

Exercise 4
(For Practice)

Fill in the blanks with correct pronouns.
1. We scored as many runs as ………….. .
2. Let you and ………….. try.
3. You know that as well as ………….. .
4. Between you and ………….. I do not believe him.
5. Ram is as old as ………….. .

Multiple Choice Questions

Read the statements given below and tick the correct option :
I. Identify the type of pronoun :
Question 1.
Martha likes to do her work herself
(i) possessive
(ii) distributive
(iii) demonstrative
(iv) reflexive

Question 2.
This pen is mine
(i) possessive pronoun
(ii) distributive pronoun
(iii) demonstrative pronoun
(iv) interrogative pronoun

Question 3.
The boy has lost his mother
(i) possessive pronoun
(ii) possessive noun
(iii) possessive adjective
(iv) possessive verb.

II. Fill up the missing word :
Question 4
have done the work
(i) He
(ii) It
(iii) She
(iv) They

Question 5.
You must write alphabets clearly
(i) his
(ii) these
(iii) her
(iv) this

III. Tick the correct option :
Question 6.
(i) This is the boy which 1 met yesterday
(ii) This is the boy who I met yesterday
(iii) This is the boy that I met yesterday
(iv) This is the boy whose I met yesterday

Question 7.
(i) This is the pen whom belongs to me
(ii) This is the pen who belongs to me
(iii) This is the pen which belongs to me
(iv) This is the pen whose belongs to me

Question 8.
(i) The dog whose was sleeping did not bark
(ii) The dog that was sleeping did not bark
(iii) The dog whom sleeping did not bark
(iv) The dog which sleeping did not bark

Question 9.
(i) My brother who is a physician lives in Burma
(ii) My brother which is a physician lives in Burma
(iii) My brother whom is a physician lives in Burma
(iv) My brother that is a physician lives in Burma

Question 10.
(i) The cobra whom is a large snake is poisonous-
(ii) The cobra who is a large snake is poisonous
(iii) The cobra whose is a large snake is poisonous
(iv) The cobra which is a large snake is poisonous
Answers
1. (iv)
2. (i)
3. (iii)
4. (iv)
5. (ii)
6. (ii)
7. (iii)
8. (ii)
9. (i)
10. (iv)

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 English

The post CBSE Class 6 English Grammar Pronouns and Possessive Adjectives appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Small Scale Industries | SSI

Small Scale Industries:  The definition of small business by the Government of India is based on the investment in Plant and Machinery, This approach is justified because we have scarce capital and abundant labour. The small scale industries includes.

• Small scale industries
• Ancillary industrial undertaking
• Export-oriented units
• Tiny units
• Small scale industries owned by women
• Cottage industries
• Khadi and village industries
• Agro based industries
• It has eight sub-groups:
• Handlooms
• Handicrafts
• Sericulture
• Power Looms.
• Small industries and Power Looms come in the category of modern industries and rest are included under traditional industries. Village and small industries together provide the largest employment opportunities in India.

Nature of Small Scale Industries

• The business is organised by individuals in the private sector.
• The use of family labour and locally available talent is made.
• Simple equipments are used.
• Capital investment is small, generally restricted to one crore.
• The ‘use of indigenous technology.
• Businesses can be classified on the basis of size into small, medium and large scale businesses.
• Small business has its own problems and they need some special help from Government to survive in the market.

Small Scale Industries Meaning

• While defining small industries, one can use many parameters like number of employees in the organization, volume of output produced, capital investment in fixed assets etc.
• All these parameters have their own limitations. Which parameter should be used depends on the needed?
• Indian government defines small scale industry on the basis of investment in plant and machinery.
• Moreover, Government has defined only small and tiny units and no definition has been given for medium and large scale enterprises.
• A unit which is not tiny or small can be medium or large scale unit.

Small Scale Industries Ideas

Ideas of Small Scale Industries Examples are as mentioned below.

• Agarbatti Making
• Aluminum Door Window Manufacturing
• Bakery
• Banana Wafer Making
• Bindi Making
• Bio-diesel Production
• Biscuit Making
• Blouse Hook Making
• Bread Production
• Candle Making
• Carton Crates Manufacturing
• Cashew Processing
• Chalk Making
• Cheesecake Making
• Chocolate Making
• Coconut Milk Powder Production
• Coconut Oil Manufacturing
• Concrete Block Manufacturing
• Condensed Milk Production
• Conveyor Belt Manufacturing
• Cotton Buds Making
• Custard Powder Production
• Dalia Production
• Dal Milling
• Designer Lace Making
• Designer Saree Making
• Detergent Powder Manufacturing
• Drinking Straw Making
• Diary Making
• Energy Drink Production
• Envelope Making
• Eraser Making
• Exercise Book Manufacturing
• File Manufacturing
• Flour Production
• Garment Manufacturing
• Fruit Bar Making
• Fruit Juice Production
• Gem Clip Making
• Ginger Garlic Paste Processing
• Ginger Oil Production
• Grape Wine Making
• Groundnut Oil Processing
• Hair Band Making
• Hand Made Paper Making
• Hing Making
• Honey Processing
• Hospital Rubber Goods Consumable
• Ice Block Manufacturing
• Ice Cream Cone Making
• Ice Cream Making
• Invitation Card Making
• Iodized Salt Production
• Jam Jelly Making
• Jute Bag Making
• Latex Rubber Thread
• Lathe Machine Unit
• Leather Bag Making
• Lemonade Making
• Liquid Soap Making
• Livestock Feed Production
• Meat Processing
• Microbrewery
• Milling Business
• Mini Paper Mill
• Naphthalene Ball Making
• Noodles Making
• Nut Bolt Making
• Packaged Drinking Water Production
• Packaging Box Manufacturing
• Palm Oil Processing
• Papad Making
• Paper Bag Making
• Paper Cup Making
• Pasta Making
• Phenyl Floor Cleaner Making
• Pickles Making
• Plastic Product Manufacturing
• Potato Chips Making
• Potato Powder Making
• Rice Bran oil Production
• Rice Mill
• Rubber Band Manufacturing
• Rubber Floor Mat Making
• Rubber Gaskets Making
• Rubber Stamp Making
• Toys Making
• Slipper Manufacturing
• Soap Manufacturing
• Soya chunks Processing
• Soy Sauce Production
• Spice Powder Making
• Staple Pin Making
• Sugar Candy Manufacturing
• Sunflower Oil Processing
• Tissue Paper Making
• Tomato Processing
• Tutti Frutti Making
• Vinegar Manufacturing
• Woodworking

SSI Registration

Types of Small Scale Industries

On the basis of investment in plant and machinery, small scale units may fall under any of the following categories:

• As per MSMED Act 2006: Classification of manufacturing enterprises:
• An industry is a Micro Enterprise if investment in plant and machinery does not exceed ? 25 lakhs.
• An industry is a Small Enterprise if investment in plant and machinery is more than ? 25 lakhs but does not exceed ? 5 crore.
• An industry is a Medium Enterprise if investment in plant and machinery is more than ? 5 crore but does not exceed ? 10 crores.
• Classification of Service Enterprises:
• An industry is a Micro Enterprise if investment in equipment does not exceed ? 10 Lakh.
• An industry is a Small Enterprise if investment in equipment is more than ? 10 lakhs but does not exceed ? 2 crore.
• An industry is a Medium Enterprise if investment in equipment is more than ? 2 crore but does not exceed ? 5 crore.
• Ancillary Small Industrial Unit: This industry supplies minimum of 50% of its production to parent unit and investment in plant and machinery does not exceed ? 1 crore.
• Export Oriented Units: Investment in plant and machinery does not exceed ? 1 crore and its exports at least 30% of its annual production by the end of 3^rd year of commencement of production.
• Small Scale Industries Owned and Managed by Women Entrepreneurs: Women intrepreneurs have share capital of not less than 51% (individually or jointly).
• Tiny Industrial Units: Investment in plant and machinery is not more than ? 25 lakhs.
• Small Scale Service and Business (Industry related) Enterprises: Investment in fixed assets of plant and machinery, excluding land and building, does not exceed ? 10 lakhs.
• Micro Business Enterprises: Investment in plant and machinery does not exceed ? 1 lakh.
• Village Industries: Investment per person does not exceed ? 50,000.
• Cottage Industries: These industries are not defined by capital investment. They are organized by individuals with private resources.

Micro and Small Industries official website: https://msme.gov.in/

Importance of Small Scale Industries

• Personal Character: Ownership of small scale unit is with one individual in sole- proprietorship or it can be with a few individuals in partnership.
• Labour Intensive: Small scale business makes use of labour intensive methods and thereby creates employment opportunities.
• Low Capital Investment: Small industries are fairly labour intensive with comparatively smaller capital investment than the larger units. Therefore, these units are more suited for economics where capital is scarce and there is abundant supply of labour.
• Local Area of Operation: The area of operation of small units is generally localized catering to the local or regional demand. The overall resources at the disposal of small scale units are limited and as a result of this, it is forced to confine its activities to the local level.
• Quick Decisions: A small scale unit is normally a one man show and even in case of partnership the activities are mainly carried out by the active partner and the rest are generally sleeping partners. These units are managed in a personalised fashion. The owner is actively involved in all the decisions concerning business.
• Short Gestation Period: Gestation period is that period after which teething problems are over and return on investment starts. Gestation period of small scale unit is less as compared to large scale unit.

Administrative Set Up for the SSI

Indian government created two ministries to promote and develop small scale industries:

• Ministry of Small Scale Industries:
• Ministry of Small Scale Industries design policies, programmes and schemes to promote small scale industries.
• Small Industries Development Organization (SIDO) is responsible for implementing and monitoring of various policies and progammes formulated by the ministry.
• Ministry of Agro and Rural Industries:
• It is a nodal agency for coordination and development of village and khadi industries, tiny and micro enterprises in urban as well as rural areas.
• Its policies are implemented through Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC), Handicrafts Board, Coir Board etc.

Role of Small Scale Industries

• 95% of industrial units in India fall under the category of small business.
• It contributes 45% in gross industrial value and 45% to exports.
• It is the second largest employment generating sector.
• It provides a large variety of products.
• It promotes balanced regional development.
• It leads to development of entrepreneurship.
• It has low cost of production.
• It has an inherent strength of personal contact.
• Due to small size, these organizations can take quick decisions.
• Small industries are most suitable for those products which need to be customized as per tastes and preference of the customer.

Role of Small Business in India

• It provides employment opportunities to people in rural Indian and thereby prevent disguised and seasonal unemployment.
• It prevents migration of rural people to urban areas in search of jobs.
• It improves their economic condition.
• Promotion of small scale industries and rural industrialization has been a powerful instrument in attaining twin goal of‘accelerated industrial growth and creating additional creative employment potential in rural and backward areas.
• It helps in overall rural development.

Problems of Small Scale Industries

• Shortage of Finance: It is the most severe problem faced by small scale business. They lack credit worthiness to raise funds as borrowed capital.
• Shortage of Raw Materials: Small producers cannot afford to buy in bulk due to limited funds. Therefore, their bargaining power is low.
• Lack of Managerial Skills: Since they are operated by single owners, they lack managerial skills.
• Incompetent Labour: As they cannot afford to pay high wages, they generally do not get competent manpower.
• Marketing Problems: A small business cannot afford to spend too much on advertisement, offers and to get information on customer’s changing tastes and preferences.
• Low Quality Products: Small businesses do not have adequate resources to invest in quality research and maintain the standards of the industry. They also do not have capability to upgrade the technology.
• Idle Capacity: Many of small units operate below their capacity.
• Outdated Technology: Use of outdated technology also makes them incompetent in the market.
• Sickness: Many of SSIs are sick due to internal as well as external problems like lack of trained labour, delayed payments, lack of working capital etc.
• Global Competition: Due to the policy of LPG (Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation) there is increased competition which are further adding o the problems of small business.

Central Government Subsidy Schemes for Small Scale Industries

Indian Government has set up following institutions for the benefit of the small scale industries subsidy.

• National Small Industries Corporation(NSIC): National Small Industries Corporation Ltd. (NSIC) is an ISO 9001-2008 Certified Government of India Enterprise under Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).
• District Industries Centers(DICs): They work under State Directorate of Industries to implement central and state level schemes.
• Small Industries Development Organization: It is the office of the Development Commissioner for Small Scale Industries. SIDO was established in 1954 on the basis of the recommendations of the Ford Foundation. It has over 60 offices and 21 autonomous bodies under its management. These autonomous bodies include Tool Rooms, Training Institutions and Project-cum-Process Development Centres.
• Rural and Women Entrepreneurship Development (RWED): It aims at building Institutional and human capacities that will encourage and support the entrepreneurial activities of rural people and women.
• National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD): It is an apex institution to provide finance for rural development. It was set up in 1982 with its head­quarters in New Delhi.
• The Rural Small Business Development Centre (RSBDC): It is a world level set up. It is sponsored by NABARD. It works for the socially and economically disadvantaged individuals and groups. It covers a large number of rural unemployed youth and women in several trades.
• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI): It was set up to provide direct and indirect financial assistance under different schemes. It caters to the credit and finance requirements of small-scale enterprises.
• The National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganized Sector (NCEUS): It was formed in September 2004 with the objective of improving the efficiency and enhancing the global competitiveness of small-scale industries. It focuses on addressing the problems faced by small enterprises, particularly in the unorganised/informal sector.
• World Association for Small and Medium Enterprise (WASME): It is an international non-governmental organisation that addresses the problems of small and medium scale enterprises. It has set up an ‘International Committee for Rural Industrialization’ with the aim of designing a model for the growth and development of rural industries.
• Rural and Women Entrepreneurship Development (RWED): It aims at building institutional and human capacities that will encourage and support the entrepreneurial activities of rural people and women.
• Scheme of Funds for Generation of Traditional Industries(SFURTI): Government has recently launched the Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI) under which 100 traditional industry clusters (of Khadi, Village industry and Coir) would be taken up for comprehensive development over 5 years. The KVIC and the Coir Board are the nodal agencies for the scheme, which will be the first comprehensive initiative for regeneration of the khadi and village Industries sector, based on the cluster development methodology.

Incentives for Enterprises in Rural, Backward and Hilly Areas

Various incentives offered to industries in backward, tribal and hilly areas are:

• Every state provides land, power and water at concessional rates to small scale industries.
• In all Union Territories, small businesses are exempted from sales tax.
• No octroi is levied on most of the states on small enterprises.
• Preferential treatment is given to SSIs in allotment of scarce raw materials.
• Loans at concessional interest rates are given to SSIs.
• On setting up of industrial estates in backward areas they can also avail of tax holiday.
• Tax exemption for a period of 5 to 10 years.

Small Scale Industries Important Words

• Small Business: Indian Government defines small scale industry on the basis of investment in plant and machinery. A small business is one in which investment in plant and machinery is less than one crore.
• Balanced Regional Development: It refers to development which takes place in all regions of the country in a balanced manner.
• Tiny Industrial Units: Those units in which investment in plant and machinery is not more than ? 25 lakhs.
• Ancillary Small Industrial Unit: This industry supplies minimum of 50% of its production to parent unit and investment in plant and machinery does not exceed ? 1 crore.
• Export Oriented Units: Investment in plant and machinery does not exceed ? 1 crore and its exports at least 30 % of its annual production by the end of 3^rd year of commencement of production.
• Small Scale industries owned and managed by Women Entrepreneurs: Women entrepreneurs have share capital of not less than 51 % (individually or jointly).
• Small Scale Service and Business (Industry related) Enterprises: Investment in fixed assets of plant and machinery, excluding land and building, does not exceed ? 10 lakhs.
• Micro Business Enterprises: Investment in plant and machinery does not exceed ? 1 lakh.
• Village Industries: Investment per person does not exceed ? 50,000 or such other sum as may be specified by the central government from time to time.
• Cottage Industries: These industries are not defined by capital investment. They are organized by individuals with private resources.
• National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC): National Small Industries Corporation. (NSIC) is an ISO 9001-2008 certified government of India enterprise under Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).
• District Industries Centers(DICs): They work under State Directorate of Industries to implement central and state level schemes.
• National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD): It was setup in 1982 for promoting integrated rural development.
• Small Industries Development Organization: It is the office of the Development Commissioner for Small Scale Industries. SIDO was established in 1954 on the basis of the recommendations of the Ford Foundation. It has over 60 offices and 21 autonomous bodies under its management. These autonomous bodies include tool rooms, training institutions and project-cum-process development centres.
• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI): Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI), was set up on April 2, 1990 under an act of Indian Parliament. It is the principal financial institution for the promotion, financing and development of the micro, small and medium enterprise (MSME) sector and for coordination of the functions of the institutions engaged in similar activities.
• The National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganized Sector (NCEUS): The National Commission for Enterprises in the Unorganised Sector (NCEUS) was established by the Government of India as an advisory body on the informal sector to bring about improvement in the productivity of informal enterprises for generation of large scale employment opportunities on a sustainable basis, particularly in the rural areas.
• Rural and Women Entrepreneurship Development (RWED): It aims at building institutional and human capacities that will encourage and support the entrepreneurial activities of rural people ad women.
• World Association for Small and Medium Enterprise (WASME): It is a global non-governmental organization which has its headquarters at Noida, India. It has been spearheading the cause and development of Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) world over since its inception in 1980.
• Scheme of Funds for Generation of Traditional Industries(SFURTI): Government has recently launched the Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries (SFURTI) under which 100 traditional industry clusters (of Khadi, Village Industry and Coir) would be taken up for comprehensive development over 5 years.
• KVIC: It stands for Khadi and Village Industries Corporation. The KVIC and the Coir Board are the nodal agencies for the scheme, which will be the first comprehensive initiative for regeneration of the khadi and village industries sector, based on the cluster development methodology.
• Tax Holiday: When an enterprise is exempted from tax for 5 to 10 years or is taxed at a low rate, it is called tax holiday.

List of Small Scale Industries PDF | SSI in India

• Small Scale Industries in Kerala
• Small Scale Industries in Andhra Pradesh
• Small Scale Industries in Hyderabad
• Small Scale Industries in Chennai
• Small Scale Industries in Coimbatore
• Small Scale Industries in Pune
• Small Scale Industries in India

Read More: Class 11 Business Studies

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CBSE Class 6 English Grammar Adjectives

(a) Read the following sentences :
1. Apporva is an intelligent boy. (What kind of boy?)
2. I don’t like that house. (Which house?)
3. I have five books. (How many books?)
4. There is little time left. (How much time?)
In sentence 1, ‘intelligent’ shows what kind of boy Apporva is.
In sentence 2, ‘that’ points out which house is meant.
In sentence 3, ‘five’ shows how many books I have.
In sentence 4, ‘little’ shows how much time is left.
Definition. A word used with a noun to describe it (kind, place, number,
The word ‘adjective’ means ‘added to’.

(b) Look at the following sentences :
1. The boy is hardworking.
2. The hardworking boy stood first.
In both these sentences, hardworking describes the boy. Hence it is ad¬jective in both the sentences.
In the first sentence ‘hardworking is used along with the verb ‘is’ and is a part of the predicate. It is therefore said to be used predicatively.
In the second sentence, ‘hardworking’ is used along with the noun ‘boy’ le., as an attribute of the boy. It is therefore said to be used attributively.

Kinds of Adjective
(c) Adjectives are of three kinds :

• Adjective of Quality
• Adjective of Quantity
• Adjective of Number (also known as Numeral Adjective).

(d) Adjective of Quality :
It shows the quality of a person or thing.
Kolkata is a big city.
Dr. Singh is an honest man.
The foolish man died of his folly.
This book is of English language.
Adjectives of Quality answer the question : of what kind ?

(e) Adjective of Quantity :
It shows the quantity of the noun it describes.
He has some sense.
Ram had much patience.
He has little intelligence.
He has enough money.
He has no wisdom.
Adjective of Quantity answers the question : How much ?

(f) Adjective of Number :
It gives the number of persons or things.
There are Jive rooms in this house.
Few people can remain hungry.
There are no books in this room.
All men must die.
Most of these mangoes are ripe.
Adjective of Number answers the question : How many ?

Exercise 1
(Solved)

There are ten words given in the box and there are ten sentences. Place these words in those sentences (one each). The words should be used as adjectives.

1. There are boys in the field.
2. I like a pen.
3. It’s a tree.
4. The ship sustained damage.
5. It is the book you gave me.
6. He is a man of few.
7. This is a wire.
8. She has hair.
9. I have read book.
10. She is Mohini nor Sheela.
Answers
1. several boys
2. a fine pen
3. a tall tree
4. heavy damage
5. book that you
6. of few words
7. a live wire
8. long hair
9. every book
10. neither Mohini

Comparison Of Adjectives
or
Degrees Of Adjectives

(a) Read these sentences :
1. My dress is good.
2. Your dress is better than mine.
3. Ram’s dress is the best of all.
In sentence 1, the adjective ‘good’ merely tells us that my dress has the quality of goodness without telling how much of this quality it has.
In sentence 2, the adjective ‘better’ tells us that ‘your dress’ compared to ‘mine’ has more of that quality of goodness.
In sentence 3, the adjective ‘best tells us that Ram’s dress has the great¬est amount of that quality of goodness.
Thus it is clear that an Adjective undergoes a change of form to show comparison.
The Adjective ‘good’ is said to be in Positive Degree.
The Adjective ‘better’ is said to be in Comparative Degree.
The Adjective ‘best’ is said to be in Superlative Degree.

Note. ‘Superlative Degree’ generally has the definite article ‘the’ before it. However, the Superlative with most is sometimes used without any idea of comparison. In that sense the speaker wants to indicate the possession of a quality in a very high degree. In such case ‘the’ is not used.
It is most unfortunate.
He made a most eloquent speech.
His style is most original.
This usage is called ‘Superlative of Eminence or the ‘Absolute Superlative’.

Formation if Comparative and Superlative

(a) Most adjectives of one syllable and some of more than one, form the comparative by adding ‘er’ and the superlative by adding est to the positive.

(b) When the Positive ends in ‘e’ only V and ‘sf are added.

(c) When the Positive ends in ‘y’, preceded by a consonant, ‘y’is changed into ‘f before adding ‘er’ or ‘est’.

(d) When the positive is a word of one syllable and ends in a single consonant preceded by a ing er and est. short vowel this consonant is doubled before add-

(e) Adjectives of more than two syllables form the comparative and superlative by putting more and most before the positive.

(f) The following Adjectives can take either er and est or more and most

He is the most cruel person
or
He is the cruellest person.
Similarly
Question no. 2 is simpler than question no. 1.
or
Question no. 2 is more simple than question no. 1.

(g) The comparative is not used when we compare two qualities in the same person or thing.
He is more kind than rich.
Not
He is kinder than rich.

Irregular Comparison
In the case of some adjectives, the Comparative and Superlative Eire not formed from the positive.

Exercise 2
(Solved)

Supply the correct form of the Adjectives given in brackets.
(a) Use later or latter in the following :
1. I prefer the ………….. proposal to the former.
2. They passed the ………….. proposal.
3. The ………….. part of the book is interesting.
4. Is there no ………….. news than yesterday’s.

(b) Use ‘older’ or ‘elder’.
1. He is my ………….. brother.
2. Ram is ………….. than Krishna.
3. The nephew is ………….. than his uncle.
4. He is ………….. than any other person present here.

(c) Use ‘nearest’ or ‘next’.
1. This is the ………….. shop to my house.
2. He sits ………….. to me in the class.
3. What are you going to do ………….. ?
4. The ………….. school is five kilometres from this village.
Answers
(a)
1. latter
2. later
3. latter
4. later

(b)
1. elder
2. older
3. older
4. older

(c)
1. nearest
2. next
3. next
4. nearest

Exercise 3
(Solved)

Supply the proper form (Comparative or Superlative) of the adjectives given in the brackets.
1. Is your father ………….. now. (well)
2. There is no animal ………….. than the dog. (faithful)
3. June is ………….. than April or May. (hot)
4. Her condition is now ………….. than what it was ? (bad)
5. She is ………….. than her sister. (pretty)
6. Sita is the ………….. of the two. (tall)
Answers
1. better
2. more faithful
3. hotter
4. worse
5. prettier
6. taller

Exercise 4
(For Practice)

Supply the correct form of the adjectives given in Comparative or Superlative) the brackets (Only the Comparative or Superlative)
1. He is the ………….. man of our city. (rich)
2. Who is the ………….. man of the 20th century ? (great)
3. Sheela is two years ………….. than Radha. (old)
4. Name the ………….. state of India. (large)
5. This patient needs a ………….. diet. (nutritious)
6. He is the ………….. friend I have. (good)

Exercise 5
(For Practice)

Supply suitable adjectives to fill in the blanks.
1. It was an …………….. question.
2. The …………….. woman lives in a hut.
3. This is a very …………….. matter.
4. It is a …………….. lie.
5. The injured man needs …………….. advice.
6. You cannot have it …………….. ways.

Multiple Choice Questions

Read the statements given below and tick the correct option :
I. Identify the degree of comparison :
Question 1.
This is the tallest building
(i) Positive
(ii) Superlative
(iii) Comparative
(iv) None of the above

Question 2.
Her dress is as good as mine
(i) Positive
(ii) Superlative
(iii) Comparative
(iv) Both (i) and (iii)

Question 3.
His brother is taller than he is
(i) Positive
(ii) Superlative
(iii) Comparative
(iv) None of the above

II. Fill in the blanks :
Question 4.
The weather is …………. today
(i) finer
(ii) finest
(iii) fine
(iv) none of the above

Question 5.
This shop is the ………….. to my house
(i) next
(ii) closer
(iii) nearest
(iv) near

III. Choose the correct option :
Question 6.
(i) It is a lively tree
(ii) It is a tall tree
(iii) It is a studious tree
(iv) It is a standard tree

Question 7.
(i) Intelligent men must die
(ii) Big men must die
(iii) All men must die
(iv) Short men must die

Question 8.
(i) He has black wisdom
(ii) He has no wisdom
(iii) He has good wisdom
(iv) He has small wisdom

Question 9.
(i) The injured man needs much advice
(ii) The injured man needs few advice
(iii) The injured man needs least advices
(iv) The injured man needs many advice

Question 10.
(i) I wish to wear stout pants
(ii) 1 wish to wear thin pants
(iii) I wish to wear sweet pants
(iv) I wish to wear loose pants
Answers
1. (ii)
2. (i)
3. (iii)
4. (iii)
5. (iii)
6. (ii)
7. (iii)
8. (ii)
9. (i)
10. (iv)

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 English

The post CBSE Class 6 English Grammar Adjectives appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Class 6 English Grammar Agreement of Verb and Subject

Present Tense
A verb must agree in number and person with its subject.
(a) When the subject is third, person singular, most English verbs end in -s or -es but there is no -s or -es on third person plural.
He goes to school.
They go to school.
Sita goes to school.
Sita and Rama go to school.
You eat a mango.
Ram eats a mango.

Exceptions
(i) The verb ‘be’ and its forms are exception to this rule :
He is a friend.
I am your friend.
They are friends.

(ii) Can, must, may and ought and the auxiliaries will and shall do not have ‘s’ on either singular or plural.
What the master will ask, the servant shall do.
What the masters will ask, the servants shall do.
When ‘ will is a full verb meaning desire, it follows the rule for most other verbs and takes ‘-s’ when the subject is third person singular.
Whatever God wills, man cannot alter.
Verbs that end with ‘y and have a consonant before this ‘y’, the ‘y’ changes into T and ‘-es’ is added if the subject is third person singular.
Ram relies on me.
He tries his best.
He flies a kite.

(b) A singular subject is sometimes mistaken as plural e.g. when it starts with (one of, either, neither etc.). Remember that these must be taken as singular.
Either of you is wrong.
Neither of them works here.
One of the teachers teaches English.

(c) When a sentence begins with ‘there’ the verb agrees with the real sub¬ject that comes after the verb.
There comes John.
There are fifty students in my class.

(d) When the subject is plural but represents a single figure or quantity, it takes a singular verb.
A hundred kilometres is a long distance.
A thousand rupees is not much these days.
Dal and roti is a common North-Indian food.
A Thousand Leagues Under The Sea is a famous novel.

Exercise 1
(Solved)

Insert the correct form of the present tense of the verbs in the blank spaces in the following sentences :
1. A good dictionary ………….. a lot. (cost)
2. These five chairs ………….. one thousand rupees. (cost)
3. Ten kilometres ………….. a long distance to walk. (be)
4. Sita ………….. next to my house. (live)
5. Bread and butter ………….. a wholesome food. (be)
6. One of these three boys ………….. first in his class every year. (stand)
7. My kite ………….. very high in the sky. (fly)
8. They ………….. gloomy. (look)
9. All the students in this school ………….. English. (learn)
10. My lawn ………….. very beautiful in spring. (look)
Answers
1. costs
2. cost
3. is
4. lives
5. is
6. stands
7. flies
8. look
9. learn
10. looks.

Exercise 3
(Solved)

Insert ‘is’ or ‘are’ after the word ‘there’ in the following sentences :
1. There ………….. two boys standing there.
2. There ………….. many students in the school.
3. Today, there ………….. many boys missing from the class.
4. If you need some money, there ………….. some in my coat pocket.
5. There ………….. sixteen players selected to tour Australia.
6. There ………….. a proper balance of emotions and intelligence in him.
7. There ………….. nothing to be so happy about.
8. ………….. there anybody there ?
9. There ………….. no light here.
10. There ………….. complete darkness inside.
Answers
1. are
2. are
3. are
4. is
5. are
6. is
7. is
8. Is
9. is
10. is

Exercise 2
(For Practice)

Insert the correct form of present tense of the verbs given in brackets in the following sentences :
1. The new aeroplanes ………….. very fast. (fly)
2. The river ………….. beautiful in summer. (look)
3. The mangoes ………….. fresh. (look)
4. One of my friends ………….. in the same school as myself. (reads)
5. The owners of this factory ………….. very rich and ………….. in large houses. (be, live)
6. Some women ………….. travelling by car as it ………….. them sick. (dislike, make)
7. The boys ………….. to school daily. (go)
8. He ………….. to see pictures. (like)
9. I ………….. how he ………….. it. (wonder, do)
10. You ………….. what ………….. me. (know, trouble)

Multiple Choice Questions

Read the statements given below and tick the correct option : Choose the correct option :
Question 1.
(i) Bread and butter is his breakfast
(ii) Bread and butter are his breakfast
(iii) Bread and butter were his breakfast
(iv) Bread and butter am his breakfast

Question 2.
(i) He with all his friends were awarded
(ii) He with all his friends mas awarded
(iii) He with all his friends has awarded
(iv) He with all his friends had awarded

Question 3.
(i) He, and not I, have been fined
(ii) He, and not I, was been fined
(iii) He, and not I, has been fined
(iv) He, and not I, is been fined

Question 4.
(i) One of my friends live in Calcutta
(ii) One of my friends living in Calcutta
(iii) One of my friends will living in Calcutta
(iv) One of my friends lives in Calcutta

Question 5.
(i) Four kilograms of sugar are sufficient
(ii) Four kilograms of sugar were sufficient
(iii) Four kilograms of sugar am sufficient
(iv) Four kilograms of sugar is sufficient

Question 6.
(i) Either of these boys am to blame
(ii) Either of these boys is to blame
(iii) Either of these boys are to blame
(iv) Either of these boys were to blame

Question 7.
(i) Each of the boys was been given a prize
(ii) Each of the boys were given a prize
(iii) Each of the boys are given a prize
(iv) Each of the boys is/was given a prize

Question 8.
(i) The furniture in the classroom were new
(ii) The furniture in the classroom is new
(iii) The furniture in the classroom are new
(iv) The furniture in the classroom are/were new

Question 9.
(i) Mathematics are an interesting subject
(ii) Mathematics were an interesting subject
(iii) Mathematics is an interesting subject
(iv) Mathematics are/were an interesting subject

Question 10.
(i) A pair of scissors are to be brought
(ii) A pair of scissors were to be brought
(iii) A pair of scissors are/were to be brought
(iv) A pair of scissors is to be brought
Answers
1. (i)
2. (ii)
3. (iii)
4. (iv)
5. (iv)
6. (ii)
7. (iv)
8. (ii)
9. (iii)
10. (iv)

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 English

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CBSE Class 6 English Grammar Preposition

A preposition is a word placed before a noun or pronoun to show its relation with some other word in the sentence.

• He works hard in the hope of standing first.
• We met at night.
• The book is on the table.
• We stay at home during the holidays.
• I will be there by ten O’ clock.
• It has rained for three hours.
• He pointed to the tree.

In the above sentences, the italicised words in, at, on, by, for and to are prepositions. The nouns that come after them are called their objects. Thus, ‘hope’ is the object of ‘in’ : home is the object of at; holidays is the object of ‘during’. Ten’ is the object of by ; hours is the object of fof and tree is the object of to.
The Prepositions generally serve three important purposes :
(a) Indication of Time
(b) Indication of Place
(c) As a part of the Verb

The Preposition
(a) Indicating Time
Time is indicated mainly by at, on, in, during, by, and for.
1. At
(i) At is used for a point in time :
We shall meet at 6 O’clock.
He came at midnight.
Similarly, at dawn, at sunset, at the end, at the beginning etc. (uj At it used before festivals :
We have a holiday at Dewali.
Similarly, at Holi, at Christmas, at New year etc.

2. On
(i) On is used for a particular day, whether it is a date (e.g. 5 June, Feb. 14th), a day {e.g. Monday, or a special day in a year (e.g. Dewali Day, Holi Day etc).
I will come on your birthday.
They go to church on Sunday.
(ii) On is used for a particular part of such days as described above.
I will come on the night of 10th July.
We will meet on Friday afternoon.

3. In
(i) In is used before a period of time : in the winter, in July, in the year 2005, in the morning, in the evening.
I first met him in 2005.
Cricket is played in India in winter.
(ii) In is also used to show the total length of time taken to complete an activity or operation.
This train will get you from Delhi to Chandigarh in four hours.

4. During
When an action or a situation continues for sometime, during is used before that specified period.
We enjoyed ourselves during the vacation.
People work during the day.

5. By
(i) By is used to denote the ultimate point by which something was or is to be completed.
I have to complete the work by Monday.
The applications should reach by 14 February.
(ii) By is used with day and night where it means during.
He travelled by day and slept by night.

6. For
For is used before a time phrase to denote that so much time has passed during which an action or a situation continued.
I have not seen him for two years.
We waited for an hour but he didn’t turn up.

Important Points
(i) The prepositions at, on and in are not used if the noun giving time has an adjective with it.
He met me last Sunday.
We will come again next Dewali.
We go for a walk eveiy morning.
I will be twenty next June.

(ii) Yesterday, today and tomorrow do not take a preposition.
I will come again tomorrow.
You met me yesterday.
He is arriving today.

Exercise 1
(Solved)

Fill in the blank spaces in the following sentences :
1. Dewali is …………. 10 November.
2. Gandhiji lived …………. the English rule.
3. They finished work …………. sunset.
4. Gandhiji was born …………. 1869 and died …………. 1948.
5. I will call at your house sometime …………. the evening.
6. Shankar’s birthday is …………. 3 March.
7. The train leaves Delhi …………. 3.00 pm and reaches Chandigarh …………. 7.00 pm.
8. He should be here …………. now.
9. Please come to my office at 11.00 am …………. Tuesday after noon.
10. Parmod will see you …………. Monday …………. 11.00 am.
Answers
1. on
2. during
3. by
4. in, in
5. in
6. on
7. at, at
8. by
9. on
10. on, at

Exercise 2
(For Practice)

1. You must reach there …………. week-end.
2. The robbers entered the house …………. he night.
3. The exhibition will be opened …………. 10 am …………. Friday.
4. The interested candidates should report for interview latest by …………. 3 June 2007.
5. He came to my house …………. my absence.
6. The examinations will commence …………. April 1 …………. 9.00 am.
7. Send your reply …… March 3, the latest.
8. We are having a variety show …………. Holiday.
9. Are you coming to see us …………. Dewali ?
10. A gale got up …………. night and did much damage.

(b) Indicating Place :
1. Residence (Countries, towns etc.)
(i) When the reference is general, use in
Many people live in cities/villages/suburbs/deserts/countries/towns
But
He lives at the seaside.
He lives on an island.
Note. 1. Village, suburb, desert, country and town are imagined as closed entities and hence the preposition in (i.e., inside).
On the other hand seaside means near the sea and hence the preposition at; Island is imagined as something open and so the preposition on.

2. Residence (Houses etc.)
(i) For the general reference use in :
I live in a small house.
She lives in a bungalow.
Do you live in a flat or in a mansion ?
(ii) For a house with a name or address use at:
Mrs Gandhi lives at 10 Janpath.
(iii) For the names of streets and roads use in :
He lives in Mayur Vihar.
I live in Sector-14.

3. Place of Work
(i) If it is a building, use in :
His father works in a bank.
But
In case the place of work is not a building use on :
Ram works on a farm.
(ii) If the name of the place of work is given, use at:
He works at the Public Library.
(iii) For a particular department, use in :
He is a teacher in the Department of English.

Multiple Choice Questions

Read the statements given below and tick the correct option :
I (a) Identify the object of the Preposition :
Question 1.
What are we having for lunch ?
(i) we
(ii) lunch
(iii) having
(iv) what

Question 2.
A breeze was blowing through the house
(i) A breeze
(ii) blowing
(iii) the house
(iv) house

Question 3.
Everybody is certain of passing the exam
(i) everybody
(ii) certain
(iii) passing
(iv) passing the exam

I (b) Identify the Preposition :
Question 4.
(i)I heard shouts from inside
(ii) The robbery was an inside job
(iii) I heard shouts from inside the hut
(iv) Tell the children to come inside

II. Fill in the blanks :
Question 5.
The principal thanked the chief guest ………. the school
(i) because of
(ii) on behalf of
(iii) instead of
(iv) for the sake of

Question 6.
Alka was popular with her friends ………. her good nature
(i) according to
(ii) because of
(iii) instead of
(iv) inspite of

III. Choose the correct option :
Question 7.
(i) will get across the exams
(ii) I will get through the exams
(iii) I will get among the exams
(iv) I will get between the exams

Question 8.
(i) Tears ran under her cheeks
(ii) Tears ran above her cheeks
(iii) Tears ran down her cheeks
(iv) Tears ran on her cheeks

Question 9.
(i) He stayed at Bombay
(ii) He stayed on Bombay
(iii) He stayed by Bombay
(iv) He stayed in Bombay

Question 10.
(i) She sits beside me
(ii) She sits besides me
(iii) She sits across me
(iv) She sits beyond me
Answers
1. (ii)
2. (iii)
3. (iv)
4. (iii)
5. (ii)
6. (ii)
7. (ii)
8. (iii)
9. (iv)
10. (i)

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 English

The post CBSE Class 6 English Grammar Preposition appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Fibre to Fabric Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 3

Fibre to Fabric Class 7 Science Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Name the sources of obtaining fibres.
Answer:
The sources of obtaining fibres are plants and animals.

Question 2.
Name some wool yielding animals.
Answer:
Wool yielding animals are sheep, yak, llama, alpaca, angora goat, angora rabbit and camel.

Question 3.
in which part of India, yak wool is common?
Answer:
Yak wool is common in the hilly regions of Ladakh.

Question 4.
Rampur bushair and Bakharwal are the breeds of which animal-sheep or goat?
Answer:
Rampur bushair and Bakharwal are the breeds of sheep.

Question 5.
How do the hair of certain animals help in keeping their bodies warm? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Hair traps a lot of air which is a poor conductor of heat resulting their body warm.

Question 6.
Write the name of the animal from which wool for pashmina shawls is obtained.
Answer:
Kashmiri goats.

Question 7.
Name the goats which are found in Tibet and Ladakh.
Answer:
In Tibet and Ladakh, angora goats are found.

Question 8.
wool is obtained from which body part of sheep?
Answer:
Wool is obtained from the fleece or hair of sheep.

Question 9.
Name the natural fibre obtained from insects.
Answer:
Silk.

Question 10.
In which part, the wool yielding animals liama and alpaca are found?
Answer:
Liama and alpaca are found in South America.

Question 11.
For what purpose, rearing of sheep is done?
Answer:
The main aim to rear the sheep is to obtain wool.

Question 12.
What term is used for the following process? Washing of sheep’s fleece to remove dust, dirt, dried sweat and grease.
Answer:
Scouring.

Question 13.
Out of scouring or shearing, which process comes first in the production of wool from sheep?
Answer:
The first step is shearing then scouring.

Question 14.
To which class, animal fibre or plant fibre, artificial silk belongs to?
Answer:
Artificial silk is a plant fibre.

Question 15.
Two fibres are made up of proteins. Name them.
Answer:
Silk and wool are two fibres which are made up of proteins.

Question 16.
Name the process of taking out silk fibres from the cocoon for use as silk.
Answer:
The process of taking out threads from the cocoons for use as silk is called reeling the silk.

Question 17.
Name the stage next to caterpillar in the life cycle of silk moth.
Answer:
The stage next to caterpillar in the life cycle of silk moth is called pupa.

Question 18.
which stage in the life cycle of silk moth is called cocoon?
Answer:
The covering of silk fibres inside which the caterpillar covers itself is called cocoon.

Question 19.
Write the maximum length of continuous silk thread that can be obtained from a cocoon.
Answer:
The maximum length of continuous silk thread that can be obtained from a cocoon is more than that of 1000 feet (1000 to 1500 feet) continuous in length.

Question 20.
Define the term ‘selective breeding’.
Answer:
The process of breeding of selective parents for obtaining special characters in their offspring such as soft under hair in sheep, is termed as selective breeding.

Question 21.
Silk fibre belongs to which class of organic substance?
Answer:
Protein.

Question 22.
In the life history of silk moth as
Egg ➝ Larva (or caterpillar) ➝ Pupa ➝ Silk moth which actually makes the silk fibre? [HOTS]
Answer:
The larva (or caterpillar) of a silk moth makes the silk fibre.

Fibre to Fabric Class 7 Science Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Sheep are herbivores, so which type of feed (or food) is provided by shepherds? [HOTS]
Answer:
Sheep are herbivores, and prefer grass and leaves of various trees. Their food also contain a mixture of pulses, corn, jowar, oil cakes (material left after taking out oil from seeds) and minerals.

Question 2.
Write a caption for each of the figures given as figure (a-d).

Answer:
(a) Eggs of silk moth on mulberry leaves
(b) Silkworm
(c) Cocoon
(d) Cocoon with developing moth

Question 3.
Silk yarn of different textures can be prepared. Define the statement.
Answer:
The silk yarn is obtained from the cocoon of the silk moth. There is a variety of silk moths which look very different from one another and the silk yarn they yield is different in textures (coarse, smooth, shiny, etc.) Thus, tassar silk, mooga silk, kosa silk, etc are obtained from cocoons spun by different types of moths.

Question 4.
Write the difference between natural silk and artificial silk.
Answer:
Natural silk is obtained from the cocoons of silkworms and it is made up of a protein. Natural silk is an animal fibre. Artificial silk is obtained from wood pulp and it is made up of modified plant material ‘cellulose’.
If we perform the burning test, then natural silk fibre burns giving a smell of burning hair while artificial fibre burns giving a smell of burning paper.

Question 5.
Sorter’s disease is an occupational hazard. Explain.
Answer:
Wool industry is an important source of livelihood for many people in our country. The people who do the job of sorting (separating) the fleece of sheep into fibres of different qualities are called sorters. The sorter’s job is very risky because sometimes, they get infected by the bacteria called ‘anthrax’ which cause a deadly blood disease called sorter’s disease.

Question 6.
Write a short note on how first silk industry began in China.
Answer:
According to an old Chinese legend, the empress Si-lung-Chi was asked by the emperor Huang-ti to find the cause of the damaged leaves of mulberry trees growing in their garden. The empress found white worms eating up mulberry leaves. She also noticed that they were spinning shiny cocoons around them.
Accidentally, a cocoon dropped into her cup of tea and a tangle of delicate threads separated from the cocoon. This is how silk was discovered by chance. In this way, the first silk industry began in China.

Question 7.
Various steps involved to obtain wool from fleece are given here.

1. Picking out the burrs
2. Dyeing in various colours
3. Shearing
4. Scouring
5. Sorting

Write the above steps in the correct sequence in which they are carried out. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:

Question 8.
Steps for the production of silk are given below in a jumbled order. Arrange them in their proper sequence. [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Eggs are warmed to a suitable temperature for the larvae to hatch from eggs.
(b) Fibres are taken out from the cocoon.
(c) After 25 to 30 days, the caterpillars stop eating and start spinning cocoons.
(d) The larvae/caterpillars or silkworms are kept in clean trays along with freshly chopped mulberry leaves.
(e) Female silk moths lay eggs.
(f) Cocoons are kept under the sun or boiled in water.
Answer:
The correct order is
(e) Female silk moths lay eggs.
(a) Eggs are warmed to a suitable temperature for the larvae to hatch from eggs.
(d) The larvae/caterpillars or silkworms are kept in clean trays along with freshly chopped mulberry leaves.
(c) After 25 to 30 days, the caterpillers stop N eating and start spinning cocoons.
(f) Cocoons are kept under the sun or boiled in water.
(g) Fibres are taken out from the cocoon.

Question 9.
Cocoon is used to obtain silk thread. How?
Answer:
A pile of cocoon is used for obtaining silk fibre. The cocoon are kept under the sun, boiled water or exposed to steam.
The silk fibres separate out. The process of taking out threads from the cocoon for use as silk is called reeling the silk.

Question 10.
Name different types of silk. Which variety of silk is most common and how it is obtained?
Answer:
Different types of silk are mulberry silk, tassar silk, mooga silk and kosa silk. The most common variety of silk is mulberry silk. It is obtained from the cocoons of mulberry silkworm and is made up of protein. It is a natural silk and is an animal fibre.

Question 11.
Four different types of fibres are given to us. Out of these, two fibres (1 and 2) are obtained from plants and other two (3 and 4) fibres are obtained from animals. Fibre (1) is used in filling quilts and the yarn made of fibre (2) is used in making gunny bags, The yarn made from fibre (3) is used for knitting sweaters and yarn of fibre (4) is used for weaving saries. Name the four given fibres marked 1,2, 3 and 4. [HOTS]
Answer:
Fibre (marked 1) which is used in filling quilts is cotton and fibre (marked 2) is jute. (cotton and jute are plant fibres).
Fibre (marked 3) is wool and fibre (marked 4) which is used for weaving saris is silk. (wool and silk are animal fibres).

Question 12.
Why caterpillars need to shed their skin when they grow bigger but humans do not? Do you have any idea? [HOTS]
Answer:
The caterpillar eats day and night the leaves of mulberry tree and grows big in size whereas its skin does not increase in size, shape or length. During the feeding period, a silkworm sleeps four times (24 h each time) at intervals of six days.

While sleeping, its skin cracks and on awakening, the worm leaves the old skin and comes out in a new one. So, it sheds skin and this phenomenon is called moulting. After the final moulting begins, the last feeding period (of about ten days) after which the worm grows to its full size.

Question 13.
Radhika wanted to buy a silk frock and went to the market with her mother. There they found that the artificial (synthetic) silk was much cheaper and wanted to know why? Do you know why? Find out. [HOTS]
Answer:
Artificial (synthetic) silk called rayon is obtained from wood pulp and it is made of modified plant material cellulose. Synthetic silk can be prepared at a large scale in factories/mills. So, it is cheap. For obtaining pure silk, we have to rear silk moth, their larvae to get pupa.

To get silk thread, we have to dip cocoon in hot water to get silk thread which is wrapped over the cocoon. The pupa inside the cocoon dies. To obtain silk for commercial purposes, a large number of cocoons (containing living pupa) are killed. As a result, natural silk is costly.

Question 14.
From what type of health problems the workers suffered while working in a wool industry? [HOTS]
Answer:
People working in the wool industry sometimes get infected by a bacterium called anthrax, during the sorting (separating) the fleece of sheep into fibres of different qualities.
It leads to a fatal blood disease called sorter’s disease.

Question 15.
Write the different types of fibres that form the hair of sheep.
Answer:
There are following two types of fibres that form the hair to sheep

1. The coarse beard hair.
2. Fine soft under hair close to the skin.

Question 16.
Name the most common silk moth. What are the characteristics of silk fibres obtained from the cocoons of this silk moth?
Answer:
The most common silk moth is the mulberry silk moth. The silk obtained from the cocoons of mulberry silk moth is called mulberry silk. Mulberry silk is soft, lustrous (shiny) and elastic and can be dyed in different colours.

Fibre to Fabric Class 7 Science Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Paheli went to the market to buy sarees for her mother. She took out a thread from the edge of the two sarees shown by the shopkeeper and burnt them. One thread burnt with a smell of burning hair and the other burnt with the smell of burning paper. Which thread is from a pure cotton saree and which one from a pure silk saree? Give reason for your answer.  [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
In first saree, one thread which burnt with a smell of burning hair is from pure silk, silk and hair are protein fibres. So, on burning these threads, a smell of burning hair comes out. In second saree, second thread which burnt with the smell of burning cotton and paper because cotton and paper both are carbohydrates and on burning they give similar smell.

Question 2.
Describe the life history of silk moth with the help of figures of various stages.
Answer:
Life History of Silk Moth Formation of Silkworm
The female silk moth lays eggs on mulberry leaves. The eggs are hatched into very small larvae within a week. The larvae of silk moth are called caterpillar or silkworm. The silkworms feed on the leaves of mulberry tree and grow bigger in size.

Development of Cocoon

When the silkworm (or caterpillar) is ready to enter the next stage of its development called pupa, it first weaves a net to hold itself. Then, it swings its head from side to side. During these movement of head, the silkworm secrets fibre made of protein which hardens on exposure to air and becomes silk fibre (or silk thread). Soon the silkworm (or caterpillar) covers itself by silk fibres and turns into pupa. This covering is known as cocoon. The silkworm continues to develop in the form of pupa inside the cocoon to form the silk moth.

Production of Silk

In order to produce silk, the silkworm developing inside the cocoon (as pupa) is not allowed to mature into an adult silk moth. So, as soon as the cocoon is formed, it is used to obtain silk fibres and the developing silkworm (as pupa) gets killed. Some of the silkworms (as pupae) are however, allowed to live and mature into silk moths so that they can lay eggs to produce more silkworms.

There is a variety of silk moths which look very different from one another and the silk yarn they yield is different in texture (coarse, smooth, shiny, etc). Thus, tassar silk, kosa silk, mooga silk, etc are obtained from cocoons spun by different types of moths. The most common silk moth is the mulberry silk moth. The silk obtained from the cocoons of mulberry silk moth is called mulberry silk. Mulberry silk is soft, lustrous (shiny) and elastic and can be dyed in beautiful colours.

Take a thread of pure silk and another thread of an artificial (synthetic) silk. Burn them separately and observe the smell produced. The thread which burns giving a smell of burning hair will be pure silk thread. The thread which burns giving a smell of burning paper will be artificial silk thread.

Question 3.
How silkworms are reared? Explain in brief.
Answer:
Pure and Artificial Silk
Pure silk is obtained from the cocoons of silkworm and it is made up of protein. Artificial silk is obtained from wood pulp and it is made of modified plant material ‘cellulose’. Just like silk, wool is also made up of proteins. So, a piece of woollen fabric also burns giving the smell of burning hair. The thread which burns giving a smell of burning paper will be cotton fibres. Cotton and paper both are carbohydrates. Paper is made of cellulose obtained from wood pulp. So, on burning cotton and paper both give similar smell.

From Cocoon to Silk
For obtaining silk, silk moths are reared and their cocoons are collected to get silk thread.

Rearing Silkworms
A female silk moth lays hundred of eggs at a time. The eggs are stored carefully on strips of paper or cloth and sold to silkworm farmers. The farmers keep eggs under hygienic condition. They warm them to a suitable temperature for the larvae to hatch from egg.

The larvae are kept in clean bamboo trays along with young and freshly chopped mulberry leaves. After 25-30 days, the silkworms stop eating and start spinning the cocoons. Small racks or twigs may be provided in the trays to which cocoons get attached.

Processing Silk
The cocoons are collected and boiled in water to kill the insect inside them. The resulting fibre is known as raw silk. The silk fibres separate out.

Reeling the Silk
The process of taking out fibres from the cocoon for use as silk is known as reeling the silk. Reeling is done in special machines. Silk fibres are spun into silk threads which are woven into silk cloth by weavers.

Question 4.
Explain the phrase – ‘Unity is Strength’ on the basis of the making of fabric from fibre. [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
Fibres and fabric play a large role in everyday applications. A fibre is a hair-like strand of material. They are the smallest visible unit of a fabric and denoted by being extremely long in relation to their width. Fibres can be spun into yarn and made into fabric. A single fibre is too weak to break but when it once made a fabric it is difficult to tear. Fabric needs more energy to tear apart as compared to a single fibre.

Question 5.
Write various steps for processing fibres into wool. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Processing of Fibres into Wool
The wool which is used for knitting sweaters or for weaving shawls is the finished product of a long process. Processing of fibres into wool involves the following steps:

Step I
The fleece of the sheep along with thin layer of skin is removed from the body. This process is called shearing. The hair of the sheep are shaved off by using a saving machine similar to that used by barbers.
Shearing does not hurt the sheep because the uppermost layer of the skin of sheep is ‘dead’. The shearing (cutting the hair) of sheep is done in hot weather of summer so that sheep may survive without their protective coat of hair. The hair of sheep grow again before the onset of winter and protect them in cold weather. The fleece (or hair) of sheep provides woollen fibres. Woollen fibres are then processed to obtained woollen yarn.

Step II
The fleece of sheep (or cut hair of sheep) contains dust, dirt, dried sweat and grease, etc. So, the sheared hair of sheep are thoroughly cleaned by washing with soap (or detergent) and a lot of water in tanks. This process of washing of sheared hair is called scouring. Scouring makes the fleece of sheep clean. The scoured fleece is then dried. Now-a-days scouring is done by machines.

Step III
After scouring, sorting is done. The process of separating the fleece of a sheep into sections according to the quality of woollen fibres (such as fine, coarse, long, short, etc) is called sorting. In sorting, the hairy skin is sent to a factory where hair of different textures are separated or sorted. Every section of wool obtained after sorting contains the same quality wool. The same quality wool obtained are then mixed together.

Step IV
The small fluffy fibres, called burrs, are picked out from the hair (burrs are soft, fluffy fibres in wool).
(After this, the fibres are scoured again and dried. The wool obtained after this is ready to be drawn into fibres).

Step V
The natural fleece or hair of sheep (or goat) is white, brown or black in colour. The white woollen fibre obtained by sorting can be dyed in different colours.

Step VI
The fibres are straightened, combed and rolled into yarn. The long woollen fibres are spun (or twisted) into thick yarn called wool which is used for knitting sweaters, etc.
The short woollen fibres are spun into fine yarn and then woven on a loom to make woollen clothes (like shawls, etc).
Finally, we conclude that the sheep’s hair is sheared off from the body, scoured, sorted, dyed, combed and spun to obtain wool (for knitting sweaters) and woollen yarn (for weaving cloth). The quality of woollen cloth depends on the breed of sheep from which wool is obtained.

Question 6.
Neha went to the market with her mother to buy a silk saree for her grandmother. The shopkeeper was showing sarees of different varieties of silk but her mother wanted to take only a pure silk saree and not an artificial one. Neha was confused that how to distinguish between a pure silk and an artificial silk saree. But her mother helped her in selecting a pure silk saree for her grandmother and she was quite elated about that.
Now, answer the following questions:
(a) How her mother distinguished between pure silk saree and an artificial silk saree?
(b) Is the pure silk saree more costly than an artificial one?
(c) What values are shown by Neha’s mother? [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) Neha’s mother took a thread of natural silk fabric and another thread of artificial silk fabric and burn them separately. The thread which burns giving a smell of burning hair will be natural silk (or pure silk). The thread which burns giving a smell a burning paper will be an artificial silk.
(b) Yes, pure silk saree is more costly than an artificial one.
(c) Neha’s mother is intelligent and knowledgeable.

Question 7.
Ajay’s father works in a wool industry. In his line of work, he does the job of sorting the fleece of sheep into fibres of different qualities. Ajay noticed that his father and other workers who were doing the similar kind of jobs faced a number of health problems.
Ajay discussed this problem with his friends and he came to know that his father is getting health problems due to the nature of his work.
Ajay is worried about his father’s health. He advised his father to take care of their health and told him about the occupational hazards.
Now answer the following questions.
(a) What do you mean by occupational hazard?
(b) Name the disease that workers may at risk.
(c) What values are shown by Ajay? [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) The risks faced by people working in any industry due to the nature of their work are called occupational hazards.
(b) The people who do the job of sorting, sometimes, get infected by the bacteria called anthrax which cause a deadly blood disease called sorter’s disease.
(c) Ajay is very caring, intelligent and sensible boy.

Question 8.
Name some breeds of sheep reared in our country. Explain the quality of wool they provide and the state where they are found.
Answer:

Nutrition in Animals Class 7 Science Extra Questions Miscellaneous

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The rearing of silkworms for obtaining silk is called [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) cocoon
(b) silk
(c) sericulture
(d) silviculture
Answer:
(c) sericulture

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a type of silk?
(a) Mulberry silk
(b) Tassar silk
(c) Mooga silk
(d) Moth silk
Answer:
(d) Moth silk

Question 3.
Paheli wanted to buy a gift made of animal fibre obtained without killing the animal. Which of the following would be the right gift for her to buy?
(a) Woollen shawl
(b) Silk scarf
(c) Animal fur cap
(d) Leather jacket
Answer:
(a) Woollen shawl

Question 4.
Silk fibre is obtained from [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) fleece of sheep
(b) cotton ball
(c) cocoon
(d) shiny jute stalk
Answer:
(c) cocoon

Question 5.
Wool fibre cannot be obtained from which of the following? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Goat
(b) Llama
(c) Alpaca
(d) Moth
Answer:
(d) Moth

Question 6.
Selective breeding is a process of
(a) selecting the offsprings with desired properties
(b) selecting the parents with desired properties
(c) selecting an area for breeding
(d) selecting fine hair for good quality wool
Answer:
(b) selecting the parents with desired properties

Question 7.
The general process that takes place at a sheep shearing shed is
(a) removal of fleece
(b) separating hair of different textures
(c) washing of sheep fibre to remove grease
(d) rolling of sheep fibre into yarn
Answer:
(a) removal of fleece

Question 8.
The term sericulture is used for [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) culture of bacteria
(b) rearing of silkworm
(c) making silk fabric from silk yarn
(d) production of sarees .
Answer:
(b) rearing of silkworm

Question 9.
Reeling of silk is
(a) a process of making silk reels
(b) spinning of silk fibres
(c) weaving of silk cloth
(d) the process of taking silk threads from cocoon
Answer:
(d) the process of taking silk threads from cocoon

Question 10.
Silkworms secrete fibre made of
(a) fat
(b) cellulose
(c) protein
(d) nylon
Answer:
(c) protein

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1 .
…… and ……. fibres are obtained from animals. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Silk, wool

Question 2.
Silk fibres come from of silk …….. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
cocoons, moth

Question 3.
Wool yielding animals bear …….. on their body.
Answer:
hair

Question 4.
Hair trap a lot of …… which is a poor …… of heat.
Answer:
air, conductor

Question 5.
Silkworms are ……. of silk moth. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
larvae

Question 6.
Silkworms spin …… of silk fibre.
Answer:
cocoons

Question 7.
Lohi and nali are breeds of
Answer:
cocoons

Question 8.
Wool has ……. tensile strength.
Answer:
high

Question 9.
Wool dissolves in and
Answer:
acids and bases

Question 10.
The sleeping period of silkworm is …… hours at intervals of about six days.
Answer:
24

Question 11.
The quality and quantity of wool depend upon the ……… of the sheep.
Answer:
breed

Question 12.
A ……. is a long continuous thread.
Answer:
yarn

Question 13.
…….. is the largest producer of silk.
Answer:
China

Question 14.
Silk is a …… conductor of heat.
Answer:
poor

Question 15.
Silk fibres are made up of a …….
Answer:
protein

True/False

Question 1.
Silkworms are caterpillars of silk moth.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
In India, camels and goats are generally reared for obtaining wool. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
False, generally sheep are reared.

Question 3.
The rearing of silkworms for obtaining silk is called silviculture.
Answer:
False, it is sericulture.

Question 4.
In the process of obtaining wool from fleece, sorting is done after scouring. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Yak hair are not used to make woollen fabric.
Answer:
False, yak hair are used to make woollen fabric.

Question 6.
The angora rabbit yields best variety of wool
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Like wool, silk also keeps us warm as it is a bad conductor of heat.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Silk is a natural carbohydrate fibre.
Answer:
False, silk fibre is made up of a protein.

Question 9.
Silkworm feeds on oak leaves.
Answer:
False, because silkworms feed on mulberry leaves.

Question 10.
Mooga is the strongest variety of wool.
Answer:
False, because mooga is the strongest variety of silk.

Match the Columns

Question 1.
Match the items of Column I with the items given in Column I [NCERT Exemplar]

Answers:
(a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i)

Question 2.
Match Column I with Column II.

Answers:
(a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(i); (d)-(ii)

Question 3.
A wholesale woollen fibre dealer gets the woollen fibre of different textures sorted for various purposes. Match the items in Column I with the woollen fibre in Column II.

Answers:
(a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iv)

Extra Questions for Class 7 Science

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CBSE Class 6 English Grammar Verb

1. Verb. The verb is a word that expresses some action, feeling or exist¬ence. It tells us something about the subject; as
Lions roar. (action)
Boys fly kites. (action)
I feel sorry. (feeling)
Ashoka was a great king. (existence)

2. All the verbs (shown above in black) ‘roar’, ‘fly’, ‘feel’, and ‘was’, are limited by the number and person of their subjects. Therefore, ‘roar’, ‘fly’, ‘feel’, and ‘was’, are Main Verbs—main verbs are also called Finite Verbs.

3. Verbs are divided in two parts :
A. Main Verbs (also called lexical verbs)
B. Helping Verbs (Auxiliaries-Primary and Modals)
All verbs in English except the 24 helping verbs are main verbs. Look at the chart below :

I. Main Verbs

Main Verbs are also of two kinds :
(a) Finite verbs
(b) Non-finite verbs
Finite verbs change their forms according to the person and number of the subject and the tense also, e.g.
He reads. I read
They read. She goes
I go.
They go.
Non-finite verbs do not change their forms according to the number, person or tense of the subject. The iitflnitives, gerunds and participles are called non-Jinites.

4. Read the following sentences :
Lata sang a song.
I wrote a letter.
Children like sweets.
In each of these sentences the verb takes an object. ‘Song’, ‘letter’ and ‘sweets’ are objects. A verb that takes an object is called a Transitive Verb. The object usually answers the question what ? Or whom ?
Now look at the following sentences :
Birds fly.
The sun shines.
These verbs do not require objects. They express the actions by them¬selves and make the sense complete. They are called Intransitive Verbs. Some Verbs can be used both Transitively and Intransitively.

Exercise 1

Pick out the Transitive and Intransitive Verbs in the following sentences. Name the Object of each Transitive Verb :
1. I killed a snake.
2. The ship sank.
3. She jumped into the well.
4. She spoke slowly.
5. The sun rose in the East.
6. I broke the plates.
7. The play lasted an hour.
8. This pen costs five rupees.

II. The Conjugation of Verbs

To Conjugate a Verb means to give its four Principal forms :
Present Past
Past Participle Present Participle
If the Past or Past Participle is formed from the Present Tense by chang¬ing the Vowel of a Verb ; as—
Take, took, taken and do, did, done
The Verb is said to be a Strong Verb. .
If the Verb requires the addition of ‘ed’, ‘d or T to form their Past and Past Participles, they are called Weak Verbs ; as—
Finish, finished, finished ; die, died, died and build, built, built.

Group I
[Where no ‘n’ is added to the Past Participle)

Group II
(Where ‘n’ is added to the Past Participle)

Note. Since the Present Participle is only the ing form of the Present, we are giving below only the first three forms.

Group III—Mixed Verbs
(Partly Strong and Partly Weak)

Group IV
(Conjugation of Weak Verbs)

Exceptions

The Present, Past and Past Participle forms of the following weak Verbs are alike :

The Present and Past Participle forms of certain verbs are alike.

Mark the difference between the following Pairs of Verbs :

Exercise 1

Give the Past and Past Participle forms of the following Verbs :

Multiple Choice Questions

Read the statements given below and tick the correct option :
I. Identify as directed :
Question 1.
Identify the Main verb
(i) fly
(ii) ought to fly
(iii) will fly
(iv) can fly

Question 2.
Identify the Modal
(i) is
(ii) ought
(iii) am
(iv) are

Question 3.
Identify the Intransitive verb
(i) Birds fly
(ii) I wrote a letter
(iii) Leela sang a song
(iv) Children love sweets

Question 4.
Identify the Past Participle form
(i) Ringing
(ii) Rung
(iii) Ring
(iv) Rang

II. Fill in the blanks with suitable verbs :
Question 5.
Children ……… to see ‘Three Idiots’
(i) hooked
(ii) booked
(iii) flocked
(iv) shook

Question 6.
Sonia ……… a fairy tale
(i) said
(ii) attended
(iii) showed
(iv) narrated

Question 7.
She ………. to go for a party
(i) will
(ii) can
(iii) dares
(iv) ought

Question 8.
The lizard …….over the books
(i) crashed
(ii) crawled
(iii) floated
(iv) flicked

III. Choose the odd man out:
Question 9.
(i) I killed a snake
(ii) She jumped into a well
(iii) She sang a song
(iv) He wrote a letter

Question 10.
(i) Birds fly
(ii) The horse runs fast
(iii) The sun rises
(iv) He wrote a letter
Answers
1. (i)
2. (ii)
3. (i)
4. (ii)
5. (iii)
6. (iv)
7. (iv)
8. (ii)
9. (ii)
10. (iv)

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 English

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AP EAMCET Results 2019:  AP EAMCET Results 2019 will be announced in the third week of May 2019. The results were supposed to be announced by Today, June 04 2019, earlier but then got postponed to the third week of May. The results will be declared online on sche.ap.gov.in. Candidates who will qualify the AP EAMCET 2019 Examination will be called for counseling and further allotted seats in various colleges of the state

Direct Link to Download AP EAMCET Rank Card

AP EAMCET Results 2019 Latest Update

AP EAMCET Result has been delayed due to the declaration of TS Intermediate revaluation result. As per the officials, once the Telangana Intermediate revaluation result is declared on May 27, AP EAMCET Result date will be announced.

All the details regarding AP EAMCET Result 2019 and steps to view and download the result card are given in this article. Read on to find out.

AP EAMCET Results 2019 Timeline

AP EAMCET Results 2019 Steps to Check the Results

The results can be checked online by following the steps below

1. Go to the official website sche.ap.gov.in.
2. Click on the ‘AP EAMCET 2019 Result’ link.
3. Enter the 10 digit hall ticket number and click the ‘submit’ button.
4. Your result will appear on the computer screen.

AP EAMCET Scorecard

Scorecard of AP EAMCET results consist of following details

1. Hall Ticket Number
2. Candidate’s Name
3. Father’s Name
4. Gender
5. Local Area
6. Category
7. Rank
8. AP EAMCET 2019 Marks
9. Result (Qualifying status)
10. Combined score (AP EAMCET 2019+qualifying exam score)
11. Marks in all the 3 subjects

AP EAMCET Results 2019 Evaluation

One mark is awarded for every correct answer, and there is no negative marking. The candidates will be ranked on the basis of the EAMCET 2019 marks (75% weightage) and 10+2 (25% weightage) in the order of merit. The AP EAMCET 2019 Result will be available in two formats: the total marks of the test and the rank.

AP EAMCET Results 2019 Cutoff for the Merit List

For the unreserved category, the minimum qualifying marks are 25% of the total marks. However, no cutoff has been specified for the reserved category.

We wish all the candidates good luck for AP EAMCET 2019 Results! Keep visiting the official website for further notifications and announcements.

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Respiration in Organisms Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 10

Respiration in Organisms Class 7 Science Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the end products of aerobic respiration.
Answer:
During aerobic respiration, carbon dioxide and water are released along with a large amount of energy.

Question 2.
The cellular respiration process takes place in which cell organelle?
Answer:
Cellular respiration takes place in the mitochondria of the cell.

Question 3.
Name the end products of anaerobic respiration in yeast.
Answer:
The end product formed during anaerobic respiration in yeast are

• Ethyl alcohol
• Carbon dioxide
• Energy

Question 4.
In some animals, exchange of gases takes place through its thin and moist skin. Name one such animal. [HOTS]
Answer:
Earthworm is an animal where exchange of gases during breathing or respiration takes place through its thin and moist skin.

Question 5.
Give the name of respiratory organs in following animals.
(a) Fish
(b) Human being
Answer:
The respiratory organ of the following animals are as follows
(a) Fish – Gills
(b) Human being – lungs

Question 6.
Our nostrils has hair and mucous. What is the need to have them in our nasal cavity? [HOTS]
Answer:
Our nostrils possess hairs and mucous lining. These help in preventing dirt, dust and germs from entering our respiratory system.

Question 7.
Sometimes we see that farmers loosen the soil. What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
The farmers sometimes loosen the soil. This helps the root to respire through the air present in the space between soil particles.

Question 8.
Various organs constitute the respiratory system of human. These organs are located according to their functions. Identify them.
Answer:
The various organs in the respiratory system of human are nostrils, nasal passage, nasal cavity, windpipe and lungs.

Question 9.
The vocal ability of humans is the responsibility of an organ commonly known as voice box. What is its scientific name?
Answer:
The organ that is responsible for speech is larynx or voice box. It lies between pharynx and trachea.

Question 10.
What changes are observed in diaphragm during inhalation?
Answer:
During the process of inhalation diaphragm contracts and moves downwards.

Question 11.
When we exhale or breathe out, percentage of a certain gas is high. Name the gas.
Answer:
The gas, carbon dioxide is in higher percentage or amount, when we exhale or breathe out.

Question 12.
In the experiment, where we exhale into lime water containing glass. What changes were observed by you?
Answer:
When we exhale into lime water its colour changes, into slightly milky white because exhaled air contains CO₂.

Question 13.
Insects have a special organ present to carry out respiration. What is that organ called?
Answer:
Insects possess special organ called spiracles for respiration.

Question 14.
Name the respiratory organs in frogs.
Answer:
Frogs respire through their moist skin as well as through a pair of lungs.

Question 15.
Certain small pores are present on the surface of plant through which gaseous exchange occurs. Identify these pores?
Answer:
Stomata are the tiny pores that are present on the surface of plant through which gaseous exchange occurs.

Question 16.
What happens to your breathing rate when you
(a) exercise
(b) go to sleep
Answer:
The breathing rate during exercise is increased while during sleep it goes down.

Question 17.
Floor of chest cavity refers to which organ of respiration?
Answer:
Diaphragm is known as the floor of chest cavity.

Question 18.
Respiration is a continous process. What is the need for it to be continuous rather than being like photosynthesis?
Answer:
Process of respiration yields energy which is required to perform a variety of routine activities. Thus, it needs to be a continuous process.

Question 19.
A part from stomata another structure is used by plants to respire. Name that structure.
Answer:
Lenticels.

Question 20.
Name the organisms which respire using anaerobic mode. Give an example of ane such organism.
Answer:
Anaerobes respire using anaerobic mode. Yeast is an organism respiring anaerobically.

Question 21.
Explain cellular respiration.
Answer:
The process of braeakdown of food in the cell with the release of energy is called cellular respiration.

Question 22.
All organisms breathe in O₂ and CO₂. Should be less O₂and excess of CO₂ in our environment. [HOTS]
Answer:
The CO₂ released by us is used by plants during the process of respiration and they release O₂ as a result of this process which is used by rest of the organisms.

Question 23.
The process of fermentation is based on which principle?
Answer:
Anaerobic respiration.

Question 24.
When oxygen enters our body it combines with haemoglobin to form a new substance. What is that new product.
Answer:
Oxyhaemoglobin.

Question 25.
Is the rate of breathing same for all the respiring organism?
Answer:
No, different organisms respire at different rate because they all perform different activities at all times.

Question 26.
Which gas present in air is essential for aerobic respiration? What is the role of this gas during respiration?
Answer:
Oxygen present in air is essential for aerobic respiration.
Oxygen breaks down food and releases energy during respiration.

Question 27.
On a very cold morning, Boojho and Paheli were talking with each other as they walked down to their school. They observed that the air coming out of their mouth looked like smoke. They were asumed and wondered how it happened. Help them to find the answer. [HOTSl
Answer:
On a cold day, the warm and moist air exhaled by us condenses into moist when it comes in contact with the cold air of the atmosphere, this looks like white smoke.

Respiration in Organisms Class 7 Science Extra Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Pick the odd one out from each of the groups given below on the basis of respiratory organs. Give reason for your answer.
(a) Cockroach, grasshopper, snail, ant
(b) Lizard, cow, earthworm, snake
(c) Crocodile, whale, dolphin, fish
(d) Snake, tadpole, crow, goat [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) Snail, as it does not breathe by means of trachea.
(b) Earthworm, because it breathes through its skin and it does not have lungs.
(c) Fish, as most fish breathe through their gills and do not have lungs.
(d) Tadpole, as it breathes through gills and do not have lungs.

Question 2.
Insects and leaves of a plant have pores through which they exchange gases with the atmosphere. Can you write two points of differences between these pores with respect to their position, number and extension into the body?
Answer:
Pores present on the sides of insects are called spiracles while pores present on the surface of leaves are called stomata. These structures are responsible for the exchange of gases with the atmosphere.
Differences between these two are as follows

• Spiracles are fewer in number as compared to stomata.
• Spiracles lead to an extensive network of tracheal system which is absent in the leaves.

Question 3.
Frogs are amphibians. They survive on land and water, do they have any respiratory issue? How does frog breathe when they are in water? Do they possess lungs? Explain the role of lungs in frogs.
Answer:
Frog breathe by their moist skin and through lungs also. So, they do not have any, respiratory issue.
When frog enters into water, the skin of frog helps in respiration.
The oxygen rich air enters through the skin. When the frog is on land, a pair of lungs helps in respiration.
The lungs take the oxygen rich air through the nostrils from where the oxygen is absorbed by the blood and carried throughout the body. The carbon dioxide from the blood is diffused back through the skin and lungs into the atmosphere.

Question 4.
After we work hard or perform physical activity, we feel hungry. Explain why.
Answer:
When we work hard or perform physical activity (like running, swimming, cycling), we need mdre energy. To fulfil the energy requirement, we breathe faster. Fast breathing helps in supply of more oxygen to our cells. Due to this, rate of breakdown of food increases and more energy is released. The rapid breakdown of food makes us to feel more hungry.

Question 5.
Name one organism who respires anaerobically. How does this organism help in beverage and baking industry?
Answer:
Yeast is a single celled organism. During anaerobic respiration (also called fermentation), yeast produces ethanol or alcohol as a byproduct which is used in making wine and beer. The carbon dioxide produced by yeast is used in the bread making industry. The CO₂ gas released during this process causes the bread dough to rise.

Question 6.
Smoking is considerd harmful due to certain effects. Explain in brief. [HOTS]
Answer:
Lungs are very delicate organs and essential for breathing, thus beeping us alive. Smoking tobacco in the form of beedi, cigarette or cigar damages our lungs gradually and causes ill health. While smoking, smoke along with chemicals present in tobacco enters our body. These chemicals present in tobacco damages the lungs in many ways tike breathing becomes difficult causes lung cancer, heart diseases, etc. Smoking also affects people around smokers as they also inhale air containing tobacco. This is called passive smoking .
Refer to text on page 141.

Question 7.
Respiration can occur in two different manners. Briefly explain the process of aerobic respiration. How does it differ from anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
Types of Respiration
On the basis of the presence or absence of oxygen, respiration is classified into two types:
1. Aerobic Respiration: When breakdown of glucose occurs with the use of oxygen, it is called aerobic respiration. During aerobic respiration, glucose is completely broken down into carbon dioxide and water and energy is released. Aerobic respiration takes place in mitochondria. It can be shown by the following equation:

Aerobic respiration is seen in most of the organisms such as humans (man), dogs, cats, lions, elephants, cows, buffaloes, goats, snakes, earthworms, frogs, fishes, etc.

2. Anaerobic Respiration: When breakdown of glucose takes place without using oxygen, it is called anaerobic respiration. The glucose is not completely broken down into carbon dioxide and water. An intermediate compound is formed with the release of less amount of energy during this process. It can be shown as follows:

Yeasts such as Saccharomyces cereviseae and certain bacteria carry out anaerobic respiration. These organisms that carry out respiration in the absence of oxygen are called anaerobes.

Question 8.
Breathing rate of a person is not always constant. Give the reason for your answer.
Answer:
The number of times a person breathes in a minute is termed as breathing rate. An adult human being can inhale and exhale 15-18 times in a minute. It is the average breathing rate of an adult human being.

Breathing rate of a person is not always constant. It changes according to the oxygen requirement of the body. Breathing rate is somewhat faster in women than in men and in children it is higher (20-30 times/min) than adults. Breathing rate is slowest while sleeping (as less energy is required) while maximum during heavy exercise like running, weight lifting, etc. (much energy is required). Increased breathing rate provides greater amount of air entry into the lungs, hence blood can absorb oxygen at a faster rate. Faster breathing supplies more oxygen to the body cell for producing more energy, required for heavy exercises.

During heavy exercise the breathing rate can increase upto 25 times per minute. Because of this, food gets broken down at a faster rate and thus make us feel hungry.
When we feel drowsy, sleepy or tired, we yawn (i.e. open our mouth wide to take a long and deep breathe, of air), because our breathing rate slows down and body do not receives sufficient oxygen.

Question 9.
Whenever we feel drowsy or sleepy, we start yawning. Does yawning help us in anyway? [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
When we feel drowsy, sleepy or tired, we yawn (i.e. open our mouth wide to take a long and deep breathe, of air), because our breathing rate slows down and body do not receives sufficient oxygen.

Question 10.
Respiration in fish is different from humans. Explain in brief how fishes can breathe through gills?
Answer:
Fishes are the aquatic animals that live in water. These have a special organ for breathing called gills. The oxygen dissolved in water enters through the gills. Gills are actually the projections of skin and have blood vessels for the exchange of respiratory gases. The fishes breathes by taking in water through its mouth and sending it over the gills. The oxygen dissolved in the water is extracted by the gills and the extracted oxygen is absorbed by the blood.

This oxygen is then carried to all the parts of fishes for respiration. The carbon dioxide produced during respiration is brought back by the blood into the gills and expelled into the surrounding water.

Question 11.
There are three animals named A, B and C. Among them A can stay on land as well as in water. When it stays at land is respire through lungs but when it goes into water, it respires through its moist skin. Animal B has specific organs to respire in the water which is not found in any other water animal. While animal C is a water animal which respires through nostrils and lungs. Now give the name of animal A, B and C. [HOTS]
Answer:
Animal A can live on land as well as in water and can respire through lungs as well as moist skin. The animal is frog.
Animal B lives in water and respires through a specific organ called gills. These are found in the tadpoles besides fishes. The animal B is a fish.
Animal C is also an aquatic animal which lives in sea water and respires through nostrils and lungs not by the gills. The animal is whale.

Question 12.
When breathe is released after holding it for few minutes. What happens and give reason for its occurrence?
Answer:
Releasing breathe after holding it for sometime results in rapid breathing. It occurs to maintain a healthy balance between intake of O₂ and release of carbon dioxide.

Question 13.
Observe the given figures carefully.and answer the following questions.
(a) The amount of CO₂ be the highest in which jar. Why?
(b) The amount of CO₂ be the lowest in which one and why?

Answer:
(a) The amount of CO₂ will be the highest in jar C. It is because the mice kept under the jar will breathe out CO2 continuously increasing its amount in the jar.
(b) The amount of CO₂ will be the lowest in jar A. It is because in jar A, CO₂ released during respiration is used by the plants, i.e. during the process of photosynthesis.

Question 14.
Whales and dolphins are seen many times releasing a fountain of water sometimes at the surface of water. Why do they do so?
Answer:
Sea animals like dolphins and whales live in water but unlike fishes, they do not possess gills for respiration. These possess nostrils which are called blow holes. There blow holes are located on the upper parts of their heads. These animals breathe in through their nostrils and lungs. Dolphins and whales comes to the surface of sea-water from time to time to breathe in air, sometimes whales release a function of water that moves upwards like a spray. This is because when a whale breathes air out of its blow hole it appears as a spray or misp, also called as spont. It can be seen from many miles away. Blow holes are surrounded by muscles that keep the holes closed when the whales or dolphins are under water and opens it when the animal is at the surface and needs to breathe.

Human cannot survive under water because they do not possess any gills to make use of oxygen dissolved in water for breathing. When we go under water we have to take oxygen gas cylinders for breathing.

Question 15.
Observe the given diagram of human respiratory system. List the organs from (A) to (G).

Answer:
The human respiratory system have following organs:
A-Ribs
B-Trachea
C-Pharynx
D-Diaphragm
E-Lungs
F-Nasal passage
G-Oral cavity

Question 16.
A girl was suffering from cold and was sneezing continuously. She joined her family at dinner and suddenly started sneezing without covering her nose, thus sending particles all over the place. On realising her mistake, said sorry and next time covered her nose.
(a) During sneezing, what are the precautionary steps to be followed?
(b) Can infections be passed from one person to another via sneezing?
(c) Is sneezing a respiration process?
(d) What values do we pick from this situation? (Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) When sneezing, you should cover your nose so that the particles expelled by you would not be inhaled by others.
(b) Yes.
(c) No, it is process to remove/clear the particles harmful for us resulting in clean, fresh air to enter the lungs.
(d) Cleanliness and hygiene maintenance.

Respiration in Organisms Class 7 Science Extra Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
A food stall owner was preparing dough for making bhaturas. He added a pinch of yeast and sugar to the dough and left it in a warm place. After few hours, the dough had risen. There was a sour smell too.
(a) Why did the dough rise?
(b) Why did the dough smell sour?
(c) Why was sugar added to the dough?
(d) What would have happened if the dough was kept in the refrigerator, soon after it was prepared?
Answer:
(a) The dough rises due to the release of carbon dioxide during anaerobic respiration by yeast cell.
(b) Yeast, during anaerobic respiration also produces alcohol which results in the sour smell of dough.
(c) Sugar is added into the dough, because it acts as a food for yeast. Yeast upon incomplete breakdown of sugar or food produces CO₂, alcohol and energy (in less amount).
(d) If the dough is kept in the refrigerators after it was prepared, then dough will neither raise nor become sour. Yeast requires high temperature to grow, multiply and to respire. At low temperature, the yeast will not respire to produce the byproducts of anaerobic respiration.

Question 2.
(a) Plants lack a specialised respiratory system. How do they carry out respiratory process? Explain.
(b) The plant roots being underground respire by using which mechanism?
Answer:
(a) The plants do not possess any respiratory system still plants respire. The various parts of the plants like leaves, roots, etc., carry out respiration independently.
These parts take in oxygen from air in different manner and utilise it to obtain energy and give out C02. The leaves of plants possess tiny pores on their surface which is called as stomata. The gaseous exchange during respiration takes place through their stomata.

(b) Roots of the plants respire under the ground. Root cells get oxygen from the air present in the space between the soil particles.
There are several root hairs present on the roots of a plant.
The oxygen from the air (between soil particle) diffuses into root hair and reaches to the cells of the roots. This oxygen is utilised for respiration.

Question 3.
Paheli participated in a 400 m race competition held at her school and won the race. When she came home she had mixed feelings of joy and pain as she had cramps in her leg muscles. After a massage, she was relieved of the pain. Answer the following questions related to the situation.
(a) What can be the possible reasons for the pain in her legs?
(b) Why did she fell comfortable after a massage? [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
(a) Paheli had cramps in her leg muscles after running. She felt pain in her legs because of accumulation of lactic acid in the leg muscles. Lactic acid is formed due to anaerobic respiration in the muscle cells after heavy exercise or running. After heavy exercise, we require large amount of energy.
To produce more energy to meet the oxygen requirement of muscles, muscle cells perform anaerobic respiration for a short duration.
Lactic acid is formed due to partial breakup of glucose. It gets accumulated in the muscle cells and causes pain and muscle cramps.

(b) The massage or hot water bath gives the relief from muscle cramp or pain, because it improves the circulation of blood leading to increase supply of oxygen to the muscle cells. It helps in complete breakdown of lactic acid into carbon dioxide and water.

Question 4.
It is not wise to sleep under a tree during night. Why?
Answer:
During day, plants photosynthesise in the presence of sunlight and uses CO₂ produced during respiration. During this process O₂ is released as a byproduct and a balance between O₂ and CO₂ is maintained in the atmosphere.

But in the night, plants do not photosynthesise. Plants are unable to use CO₂ during night and produces CO₂ and takes O₂ during respiration.
This leads to the increase in the proportion of CO₂ in the air.
So, if one sleeps under a tree at night, he will have problems in breathing as the amount of CO₂ in the air around will certainly be more than oxygen. Therefore, it is not advisable to sleep under trees during night because the person will suffer from suffocation and feel excess weight on chest.

Question 5.
Observe the figures carefully and answer the following questions.

(a) Which process is being tested in the activity?
(b) What is the result of the activity? Give reasons. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) Exhalation process of respiration is being tested in the activity.
(b) The lime water in test tube B turns milky but water in test tube A remains unchanged. Because CO₂ is present in the exhaled air, it mixes with lime water in test tube B and turns it milky.

Question 6.
(a) Respiratory process occurs in two phases, what are those two major steps of respiration? Describe each one.
(b) Define the term breathing rate.
Answer:
(a) Respiration is the process of breakdown of food to produce energy for performing various functions. It involves two major steps:

• Inhalation is the process of taking in of air which is rich in oxygen, inside our body.
• Exhalation is the process of giving out of air which is rich in carbon dioxide from our body to the external environment.

(b) The number of times a person breathes, in a minute is called as breathing rate.
An adult human being can inhale or exhale 15-18 times in a minute. It is the average breathing rate of an adult human being. Breathing rate is not constant always.

Question 7.
Observe the given figures as A and B and answer the following questions.

(a) Among both figures identify which A or B indicates the process of inhalation and which shows the process of exhalation?
(b) In the figure label the arrows and indicate the direction of

• movement of air
• movement of diaphragm
• movement of ribs [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer:
(a) Figure A indicates inhalation and figure B indicates exhalation.
(b) Movement of air, diaphragm and ribs are indicated in below figure:

Question 8.
List some animals around you. Now group them as follows:
(a) Animals that can breathe only through skin.
(b) The animal that can breathe through skin as well as through lungs.
(c) The animal that can breathe through lungs.
(d) Animals that can breathe through gills.
(e) Animals that can breathe through spiracle and tracheae? [HOTS]
Answer:
(a) Animals that can breathe only through skin are earthworm and leech.
(b) Animals that can breathe through skin as well as through lungs are frogs.
(c) Animals that can breathe through lungs are buffaloes, human, and dolphins.
(d) Animals that can breathe through gills are tadpole and fish.
(e) Animals that can breathe through spiracles and tracheae are grasshopper, cockroaches, ants, housefly and mosquito.

Question 9.
Palak wants to be a great cyclist. She cycles daily for about 2 hours followed by some exercises. Today, she thought she will cycle for longer and managed it for 41/2 hours. Now she is feeling cramped up and her breathing is disturbed. Her mother took her to hospital where the doctor examined and told her not to push herself more than necessary. Palak understood and promised herself to move show and steadily.
(a) Why did Palak had cramps in her legs?
(b) Is breathing rate also affected after doing long hour of exercise. Why?
(c) When there is not enough oxygen supply,
what happens to body and process of respiration? What values you learn from this? [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) Due to extensive exercise, formation of lactic acid occurred as muscles starts to respire anaerobically.
(b) Yes, breathing rate will be faster. Normally we are breathing at a slower rate but during physical activities, to make sufficient amount of O₂ reaching cells we breathe faster.
(c) The body starts respiring anaerobically in the absence of sufficient oxygen. Glucose is partially broken into lactic acid which causes body cramps.
Values learned – We should not force ourselves exercise but not over burn yourself discipline.

Question 10.
A person put some warm water in an aquarium having fish during winter season. He thought that fish will be more comfortable in luke warm water than cold water. But he observed that fishes in the aquarium died. Why the fishes died in warm water? [HOTS]
Answer:
The fishes have special type of organs for respiration called gills. These gills absorbs oxygen dissolved in water and through blood vessels, this oxygen is passed to all the parts of the body. The amount of dissolved oxygen is comparatively less in water than the amount of oxygen in air.
Therefore, the rate of breathing is also high in aquatic animals.
If we add warm water, to the aquarium the dissolved oxygen will dissociate and move into the atmosphere again, leaving the least percentage of oxygen into the water (as it is known that the solubility of gases in water goes down as the temperature rises). Therefore, fishes will have difficulty in breathing in the absence of oxygen and will die.

Question 11.
A group of people were smoking cigarettes in a restaurant. The atmosphere was full of smoke. An old man sitting next to the group asked them to stop smoking while sitting in the premise or move out. They agreed to do so and promised not to repeat then mistake.
Answer the following questions.
(a) Write any three hazards of smoking.
(b) Can smoking also affect the person who does not smoke?
(c) Do you support the group’s decision to not smoke in public or indiviually. What values do we understand
from here. [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) Smoking is very injurious for the respiratory system. It harms lungs.

• It causes blockage in respiratory tract.
• It leads to lung cancer.
• It can cause disease like asthma and heart diseases.

(b) Yes, smoking affects people who are passive smokers, i.e. those present nearby smokers.
(c) Yes, the people should bot smoke in public areas as it can cause discomfort to others.
The values we understand are obedience, respect elders and healthy habits.

Respiration in Organisms Class 7 Science Extra Questions Miscellaneous Questions

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Sometimes when we do heavy exercise, anaerobic respiration takes place in our muscle cells. What is produced during this process? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Alcohol and lactic acid
(b) Alcohol and CO₂
(c) Lactic acid and CO₂
(d) Lactic acid only
Answer:
(d) Lactic acid only

Question 2.
Yeast is used in wine and beer industries because it respires
(a) aerobically producing oxygen
(b) aerobically producing alcohol
(c) anaerobically producing alcohol
(d) anaerobically producing CO₂
Answer:
(c) anaerobically producing alcohol

Question 3.
During the process of exhalation, the ribs move [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) down and inwards
(b) up and inwards
(c) down and outwards
(d) up and outwards
Answer:
(a) down and inwards

Question 4.
Fish breathe with the help of gills which are richly supplied with blood vessels. The gills help the fish to [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) take in oxygen from air
(b) take in oxygen dissolved in water
(c) absorb nutrients present in water
(d) release waste substances in water
Answer:
(b) take in oxygen dissolved in water

Question 5.
Earthworms and frogs breathe through their skin because of which the skin of both the organisms is
(a) moist and rough
(b) dry and rough
(c) dry and slimy
(d) moist and slimy
Answer:
(d) moist and slimy

Question 6.
Minimum loss of energy takes place while we are
(a) walking
(b) swimming
(c) running
(d) sleeping
Answer:
(d) sleeping

Question 7.
The air that we breathe in passes to the tiny sacs called
(a) bronchi
(b) alveoli
(c) bronchioles
(d) pharynx
Answer:
(b) alveoli

Question 8.
Main organ of human respiratory system is
(a) lungs
(b) heart
(c) liver
(d) stomach
Answer:
(a) lungs

Question 9.
The raw material for cellular respiration is
(a) glucose
(b) sucrose
(c) fructose
(d) starch
Answer:
(a) glucose

Question 10.
Choose which among the following can breathe through lungs as well as through skin?
(a) Fish
(b) Frog
(c) Earthworm
(d) Dolphin
Answer:
(b) Frog

Question 11.
Spiracles on the body of insect are connected to a network of thin air tubes called
(a) lungs
(b) tracheae
(c) gills
(d) blow holes
Answer:
(b) tracheae

Question 12.
Yeasts are used in
(a) wine and beer industry
(b) bakery industry
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Fill in the Blanks
1. The roots of a plant take up oxygen from the ………….. trapped between the ………….. particles.
2. Diaphragm forms the ………….. of the chest cavity. [NCERT Exemplar]
3. Exchange of gases in the leaves takes place with the help of ………….. .
4. Cockroaches breathe with the help of air tubes called ………….. .
5. ………….. is an essential phenomenon for the survival of living organisms.
6. During aerobic respiration the food is broken down into ………….. and ………….. and releases a lot of ………….. .
7. Taking in of air rich in O₂ inside the body is called ………….. .
8. Breathing rate of a person is not ………….. always ………….. .
9. Unwanted particles like smoke, dust, pollen, etc., are called ………….. .
10. Lungs are very ………….. organ.
Answers:
1. air, soil
2. floor
3. stomata
4. tracheae
5. Breathing
6. carbon dioxide, water, energy
7. inhalation
8. constant
9. allergen
10. delicate

True/False
1. Oxygen breaks down glucose outside the cells of organisms. [NCERT Exemplar]
2. Frogs can breathe through their skin as well as lungs.
3. Insects have spiracles on the lower surface of the body.
4. Exhaled air has more percentage of CO₂ than inhaled air. [NCERT Exemplar]
5. Living organism respire to get energy from food.
6. Plants respire through leaves and roots.
7. Cell is the smallest structural and functional unit of the body.
8. We take deep breathes after we hold on breath for the one minute.
9. The exchange of gases in plants takes place through stomata.
10. The balance between CO₂ and O₂ is maintained by the plants.
Answers:
1. False, oxygen breaks down glucose inside the cells of organisms.
2. True
3. False, insects have spiracles on the sides of the body.
4. True
5. True
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. True

Match the Columns

Question 1.
Match the names of organisms in Column I with their organs of breathing given in Column II. [NCERT Exemplar]

Question 2.
Match the items in Column I with those in Column II.

Answer:
1.
(a)-(iii)
(b)-(iv)
(c)-(i)
(d)-(ii)

2.
(a)-(x)
(b)-(vii)
(c)-(ix)
(d)-(viii)
(e)-(i)
(f)-(iii)
(g)-(iv)
(h)-(ii)
(i)-(vi)
(j)-(v)

Extra Questions for Class 7 Science

The post Respiration in Organisms Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 10 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Transportation in Animals and Plants Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11

Transportation in Animals and Plants Class 7 Science Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1 .
Name some useful products or materials that are carried by blood.
Answer:
Food, water and oxygen are the products that are carried by blood to every part of the body.

Question 2.
Circulatory system consists of three major organs. Name those organs.
Answer:
The circulatory system consists of three major organs, i.e., blood, blood vessels and heart.

Question 3.
Give the name of blood component which is liquid and contains 90% water.
Answer:
The sticky liquid part of the blood, containing 90% water is called plasma.

Question 4.
Name the organ which is located in the chest cavity with its lower tip slightly tilted towards the left. [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
The heart is located in the chest cavity with its lower tip slightly tilted towards the left.

Question 5.
RBC contains a red coloured pigment which carries oxygen with it. What is the pigment called?
Answer:
The red coloured pigment of RBC that carries oxygen with it is called haemoglobin.

Question 6.
Veins have valves which allow blood to flow only in one direction. Arteries do not have valves. Yet the blood flows in one direction only. Can you explain why? [NCEAT Examplar; HOTS]
Answer:
Veins have valves to prevent blood from flowing backwards and pooling, whereas arteries pump blood at very high pressures, which naturally prevents back flow

Question 7.
In which form, the oxygen is transported to various body parts by haemoglobin?
Answer:
The red pigment, haemoglobin binds with oxygen to form oxyhaemoglobin which is transported to various body parts.

Question 8.
Certain greenish-blue lines appear just below the skin of our hands and leg. What are these?
Answer:
The greenish-blue lines that appear just below the skin of our hands and legs are veins.

Question 9.
Human blood group is divided into how many groups? Name them.
Answer:
Human blood group is divided into four groups. These are A, B, AB and O.

Question 10.
Waste carbon dioxide and urea are removed from our body by which organs?
Answer:
The carbon dioxide is removed by lungs while urea is removed from the body by kidney.

Question 11.
Blood is a fluid connective tissue. Justify.
Answer:
Blood is a fluid tissue which connects all the parts of body with each other.

Question 12.
Blood performs various functions including protection against infections. How?
Answer:
Blood contains WBC which forms the defense of our body. They eat antigens and fights aganist infections.

Question 13.
Pulse rate can indicate the health states of an individual. How?
Answer:
Pulse rate will increase or decrease from normal rate if a person is not well.

Question 14.
Usually veins carry deoxygenated blood except in one case. Specify.
Answer:
Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from lungs to heart.

Question 15.
State the function of valves ?
Answer:
Valves prevent the back flow of blood between chambers of heart.

Question 16.
Name the functional units of the major excretory organ of humans.
Answer:
Kidney is the major excretory organ and nephrons are its functional units.

Question 17.
Exchange of gases, food and other substances occurs between arteries and veins. How does this exchange happen?
Answer:
Exchange of substances between arteries and veins occurs via capillaries.

Question 18.
Measuring of heartbeats is a significant step during health checkups. Name the instrument used for the same.
Answer:
Stethoscope

Question 19.
Kidneys are the major excretory organs in humans. How will the waste products released will be excreted out if the kidneys are damaged or unfunctional? [HOTS]
Answer:
Artificial ways of waste removal are used like dialysis which are referred to as artificial kidneys.

Question 20.
Arteries have a very thick and elastic walls. Why?
Answer:
Arteries carry blood at a very high pressure due to pumping action of heart hence, the need of thicker walls.

Question 21.
Skin is also considered as an excretory organ. Give reason if you agree. [HOTS]
Answer:
Yes, skin is an excretory organ as it secretes waste products by releasing sweat from the surface.

Question 22.
Heart has three chambers, two ventricles and one atrium. Is it right or wrong?
Answer:
Wrong, the heart has four chambers. Two auricles and two ventricles.

Question 23.
Arteries and veins carry blood to and from the heart. Which of these carry the blood?
(a) Back to the heart from all organs.
(b) Away from heart for distribution in all organs.
Answer:
(a) Veins
(b) Arteries

Question 24.
Urine is called an excretory product. Why?
Answer:
Urine is the mixture of urea and other unwanted salts with water which is needed to be excreted out as its presence in blood can make a person ill.

Question 25.
Sponges and Hydra do not possess any circulatory system then how do they carry out distribution of food and other substances?
Answer:
The water in which these organisms live brings them food and oxygen as it enters their bodies.

Question 26.
If the heartbeats of a person are more than 72-80 beats per minute. What does it signify?
Answer:
The faster heartbeats signify that heart is pumping more blood to the organs as they need increased oxygen and energy supply.

Question 27.
What is the purpose of using stethoscope by doctors?
Answer:
A stethoscope reads heartbeats as diaphragm amplies the rounds of heartbeat when placed on specific areas.

Question 28.
Urinary bladder is the part of human excretory system. What is its role in excretion?
Answer:
Bladder stores the excretory product released after filtration from kidney and excrete it out at specific times.

Transportation in Animals and Plants Class 7 Science Extra Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Arrange the following statements in the correct order in which they occur during the formation and removal of urine in human beings.
(a) Ureters carry urine to the urinary bladder.
(b) Wastes dissolved in water is filtered out as urine in the kidneys.
(c) Urine stored in urinary bladder is passed out through the urinary opening at the end of the urethra.
(d) Blood containing useful and harmful substances reaches the kidneys for filtration.
(e) Useful substances are absorbed back into the blood.
Answer:
The correct order of the formation and removal of urine in human beings is
(d) Blood containing useful and harmful substances reaches the kidneys for filtration.
(e) Useful substances are absorbed back into the blood.
(b) Wastes dissolved in water is filtered out as urine in the kidneys.
(a) Ureters carry urine to the urinary bladder.
(c) Urine stored in urinary bladder is passed out through the urinary opening at the end of the urethra.

Question 2.
Name the tissues of a plant which carries
(a) water and minerals from roots to the leaves.
(b) food from the leaves to the other parts of the plant.
Answer:
The tissue which carries
(a) water and minerals from roots to leaves is xylem.
(b) food from the leaves to the other parts of the plant is phloem.

Question 3.
Look at figure and draw another figure of the same set up as would be observed after a few hours.

Answer:
After the few hours, the figure will be shown as follows

This figure shows that there will be an increase in the level of sugar solution in the potato piece. This increase in the level of sugar solution rises due to water that passes throGgh the wall of potato and goes inside it.

Question 4.
(a) Name the only artery that carries carbon
dioxide rich blood.
(b) Why is it called an artery if it does not carry oxygen-rich blood? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) The only artery that carries carbon dioxide rich blood is pulmonary artery.
(b) The main function of artery is to carry blood away from heart. Also arteries have thick wall and do not contain valves in them. Blood flow in arteries, takes place at high pressure. All these characteristics are found in pulmonary artery. It carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs for oxygenation, therefore it is called artery.

Question 5.
Name the process and the organ which help in removing the following wastes from the body.
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Undigested food
(c) Urine
(d) Sweat [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:

Question 6.
Observe given figure and answer the given question.

(a) Name the instrument.
(b) Label the parts A, B and C. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) The name of the given instrument is stethoscope.
(b) Labelled diagram of stethoscope.

Question 7.
What is the relation between the rate of heartbeat and pulse rate? If a pulse rate of an athlete Is 96/min, what will be the number of his heartbeat at the same time? [HOTS]
Answer:
The rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the muscles of the heart is called heartbeat. Whereas, the rhythmical throbbing of the arteries as the blood is pushed forward through them is called pulse. It can be felt in the wrist, temples, etc.
Pulse rate is the number of heartbeats per minutes. The number of heartbeat is equal to the number of pulse per minute.
Therefore, if a pulse rate of an athlete is 96/min then the number of his heartbeat at the same time will also be 96/min

Question 8.
Give one function of each of the following organs,
(a) Blood vessels
(b) Kidney
(c) Blood platelets
(d) Heart
Answer:
The main function of the following organs are as follows:
(a) Blood vessels These run between the heart and the rest of the body. It helps in the transport of blood between heart and various organs of the body.
(b) Kidney It is called as the ‘magic filters’. It helps in the removal of unwanted substances like urea from the blood.
(c) Blood platelets This component of blood helps in blood clotting and prevents the blood loss from the body.
(d) Heart It is a pumping organ which receives blood from the body through veins and pumps it with enough force into the arteries from where it is carried to the various body parts.

Question 9.
Paheli noticed water being pulled up by a motor pump to an overhead tank of a five storeyed building. She wondered how water moves up to great heights in the tall trees standing next to the building. Can you tell why? [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
When the water is pulled up by a motor-pump to an overhead tank of a five storeyed building, it moves to a great height due to the suction pull. This pull forms the continuous column of water and water rises up to a great height. Similarly, when transpiration occurs in the plants, water is evaporated and this creates a suction pull in the plants.

Due to this suction pressure, water from the soil rises up through the roots of the plants and reaches to a great height in tall plants.

Question 10.
How is transpiration and translocation different from each other.
Answer:
The differences between transpiration and translocation are

Question 11.
Make a table depicting the function of all chambers of the human heart.
Answer:
The human heart is divided into four chambers, i. e. upper two atrium and lower two ventricles. The functions of these chambers can be tabulated as follows

Question 12.
How does the water move from root to leaves?
Answer:
The water moves from root to leaves with the help of specialised cells called vascular tissue. Transport of water and nutrients is done by xylem tissue present in plants.

Question 13.
Observe the given diagram of human heart and label all the parts from A to H.

Answer:

The heart is an organ which beats continuously as a pump for the transport of blood carrying other substances with it, through a network of tubes or blood vessels. The heart pumps blood throughout our life without stopping or relaxing.

Question 14.
The given diagram is of human excretory system. Label the marked parts of it.

Answer:
The various parts of human excretory system are as follows

Question 15.
Paheli says her mother puts ladyfinger and other vegetables in water if they are somewhat dry. She wants to know how water enters into them. [HOTS]
Answer:
By soaking the vegetables in water, the skin of the vegetables becomes moist and water starts moving from one cell to another until the vegetables are fresh again.

Question 16.
Why plants absorb a large quantity of water from the soil, then give it off by transpiration?
Answer:
Plants absorb a large quantity of water from the soil because they need nutrients which are dissolved in the water. The excess water evaporates through the stomata present on the leaf surface by the process of transpiration.

Question 17.
List some animals surrounding your locality group them into following groups.
(a) Animals that excrete ammonia in gaseous forms.
(b) Animals that excrete uric acid in the form of pellets.
(c) Animals that excrete urea in the form urine. [HOTS]
Answer:
Some animals that surround us are fish, frog, birds, tadpole larva, snake, cow, man, rat, monkey, lizard, toad and snail.
These can be grouped as follows
(a) Animals that excrete ammonia in gaseous form (i.e. ammonotelics)-Fish, tadpole larva.
(b) Animals that excrete uric acid in the form of pellets (i.e. uricotelics)—Bird, snake, rat, lizard, snail.
(c) Animals that excrete urea in the form of urine (i.e. ureotelics)-Frog, cow, man, monkey, toad.

Question 18.
Human have two major organs that perform transport of materials. Organ ‘A’ is bean-shaped and dark red in colour lie just above the waist. It helps in’removal of ‘Q’, a waste material from blood. The organ ‘S’ is the opening at the end of the urinary bladder through which the waste material is eliminated.
Organ ‘B’ lies in the chest cavity slightly tilted towards the left side. It pumps continuously and pours liquid ‘C’ into arteries and through very fine tube-like structure ‘D’ distributes the liquid to various parts of the body. What are the name of these organs. [HOTS]
Answer:
Organ ‘A’ is kidney which is bean-shaped and helps in the removal of urea (Q) which is a waste material from the blood. ‘S’ is urethra which is the small opening at the end of urinary bladder. Organ ‘B’ is heart which acts as pump. It pumps liquid blood continuously and pours into arteries, and through capillaries (D) which are fine tube-like structure, the blood is distributed to various parts of the body.

Question 19.
The major function of the arteries is to carry to oxygenated blood throughout the body and that of veins is to carry deoxygenated blood from body parts to heart for purification. There is one artery that carries deoxygenated blood and one vein that carries oxygenated blood. Name the artery and vein. [HOTS]
Answer:
The artery which carries deoxygenated blood or blood rich in CO₂ is pulmonary artery while the pulmonary vein is one which carries oxygenated blood. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs while pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart.

Question 20.
Boojho’s uncle was hospitalised and put on dialysis after a severe infection in both of his kidneys.
(a) What is dialysis?
(b) When does it become necessary to take such a treatment?
Answer:
The normal functioning of kidney is necessary for good health of a person. But sometime s the kidney may stop working due to infection or injury. This condition of kidney is called kidney failure which may lead to the accumulation of urea in the blood of a person. Since, urea is a toxic substance which must be removed from the blood. Such person having kidney failure cannot survive unless his blood is filtered periodically through the artificial kidney machine to remove urea. The process used for cleaning the blood of a person by separating the waste product urea from it is called dialysis.This machine removes urea and other waste the product periodically.

The long term solution for the patient suffering from kidney failure is kidney transplantation. In this method, the diseased or damaged kidney is removed and matching kidney is donated by a healthy person. The donated kidney is transplanted in its place by performing surgery.

Question 21.
The internal structure of heart has four chambers.
(a) Name the upper chambers of heart.
(b) Name the lower chambers of heart.
Answer:
The vertical section of heart shows that heart is divided into four compartments called as chambers.
(a) The upper two chambers of heart are called atria or atrium.
(b) The lower two chambers of heart are called ventricles.

Question 22.
Explain in brief the main functions of the structural and functional unit of kidney in excretory system.
Answer:
Kidney is the major excretory organ which consists of thousands of tiny filters called nephrons. The major functions of nephron are

• To filter blood at high pressure which helps in the separation of nitrogenous waste such as urea from the blood.
• It helps in selective re-absorption of some substances (from the initial filtrate which is filtered at a very high pressure). These substances include glucose, amino acid, salts ancf a major amount of water.

Question 23.
What is the special feature present in a human heart which does not allow mixing of blood when oxygen-rich and carbon dioxide-rich blood reach the heart? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
In human, the heart has four chambers. The two upper chambers are called the atria and the two lower chambers are called the ventricles. The partition between the chambers helps to avoid mixing up of blood rich in oxygen with the blood rich in carbon dioxide.

Question 24.
Paheli uprooted a rose plant from the soil. Most of the root tips with root hairs got left behind in the soil. She planted it in a pot with new soil and watered it regularly. Will the plant grow or die? Give reason for your answer. [NCERT Exemplar, HOTS]
Answer:
Possible answers are

• Without the root hairs, the roots will not be able to absorb water and nutrients and the plant will die.
• The stem of the rose plant may grow new roots and the plant will live.
• The rose plant may not be able to survive in a different type of soils.

Transportation in Animals and Plants Class 7 Science Extra Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Priya’s grandfather was taken to the hospital as he was unable to perform excretory processes. Priya heard a nurse talking to her father that her grandfather’s has kidney failure and needs to undergo dialysis. Priya later asked her father as to what is dialysis process and why does grandpa needs it. Her father smiles and tells her all the facts associated with this process.
(a) What do you mean by dialysis?
(b) Why is there a need for dialysis in some people?
(c) Excretion is an important life process. How?
(d) Which is the major excretory organ in humans?
(e) What values do you observe in Priya? [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) Dialysis is the process used for cleaning of the blood by separating the waste products in an artificial medium.
(b) Dialysis is needed when the excretory organ of humans, i.e. kidney becomes damaged on unfunctional due to some injury or infection.
(c) Excretion process removes the waste products released in body after the utilisation of food and other components. These products are toxic and may harm us if not removed from our body.
(d) Kidney
(e) Priya is curious, sincere and aware eager to acquire new knowledge.

Question 2.
While learning to ride a bicycle, Boojho lost his balance and fell. He got bruises on his knees and it started bleeding. However, the bleeding stopped after sometime.
(a) Why did the bleeding stop?
(b) What would be the colour of the wounded area and why?
(c) Which type of blood cells are responsible for clotting of blood? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) When a cut or wound starts bleeding after sometime, a clot is formed which plugs the cut and bleeding stops.
(b) Wounded area becomes dark red in colour due to clotting of blood.
(c) The blood clot is formed due to the presence of the cells called platelets in the blood.

Question 3.
Like humans and animals, transportation of water, mineral and nutrients also take place in plants. How?
Answer:
Transport of Substances in Plants
Plants take up water and dissolved minerals from the soil through their roots and transport it to their leaves. The leaves use this water and mineral for synthesising their food by the process called photosynthesis.The food produced by green plants in transported back to all the parts of plant body.
Therefore, it is clear that plants also need a transport system for carrying water, minerals and food through various parts of their body.

Transport of Water and Minerals
Plant root absorbs the water and mineral from the soil. The roots possess root hair which increase the surface area of the root for absorption of water and minerals nutrient that is dissolved in the water. It is moved from roots up to the stem and leaves through the tube-like tissue called as xylem.

Absorption and flow of water is a continuous process through the xylem tissue. Xylem tissues are the continuous network of channels which connect roots to the leaves through the stem and branches. It thus transports water and minerals to the leaves of the entire plant.

Transport of Food Material
The food manufactured in the leaf is transported to different parts of plants. This transportation of food material from leaves to the other parts of plants is carried out by the tissue called phloem and the process of transport of food material is called translocation. The phloem consists of vessels that are known as sieve tubes.

Question 4.
Blood from heart is carried by certain tube-like structure. What are they? Give the structure and functions of different types of blood carrying tubes.
Answer:
These are tubes or pipes that carry blood throughout the body. It runs between the heart and the rest of the body. There are three major types of blood vessels in the body, i.e. arteries, veins and capillaries.

1. Arteries: These carry blood from the heart to all the parts of body. These lie quite deep under our skin and cannot be seen easily. Arteries have thick elastic walls as the blood flows at high pressure due to pumping action from heart through arteries. No valves are present in the arteries. The main artery, i.e. aorta is connected to the left ventricle of the heart. It carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to all the parts of body except the lungs. Another artery called pulmonary artery is connected to the right ventricle of the heart and carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs.
Note: The arteries normally carry oxygenated blood from the heart but one artery called pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs.

2. Veins: These are the blood vessels that carry blood from all the parts of the body back to the heart. These tube-like blood vessels are situated just under the skin and can easily be seen as greenish-blue tubes or lines below the skin. These carry deoxygenated blood from the body parts to heart. Veins have thin walls and blood flows at low pressure through the veins. Therefore, veins have valves in them which allow the blood to flow in one direction and prevent the back flow of blood in veins.
Usually veins carry deoxygenated blood but pulmonary vein that is connected to the left atrium of the heart, carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.

Functions of Blood
Various functions of blood are

• It transports substances like digested food from the small intestine to the other parts of the body.
• It carries water to all the parts of the body.
• It carries oxygen and C02 during circulation.
• It carries waste products like urea from liver to kidney for excretion in urine.
• It protects the body from disease.

Question 5.
While riding a bike, Mason fell from it due to loss of balance. He got up and realised that he was bleeding from several wounds badly. He panicked and started to run but Mansi who was looking at him, stopped him and told him to clean his wound with a clean cloth and that blood will stop coming in a while. Mason noticed that he has stopped bleeding after sometime and a hard covering was appearing on his wounds.
(a) Why did the bleeding stop after a while?
(b) What is blood and what type of cells are responsible for clotting?
(c) What of values do you think Mansi have? [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) Bleeding stops after sometime because some specialised cells start forming a hard covering called clot at the site of wound.
(b) Bleeding is a fluid connective tissue present in all parts of the body. Platelets are responsible for formation of clot.
(c) Mansi is helpful, knowledgeable and interested in science subject.

Question 6.
Read the following terms given below,
root hairs xylem urethra
arteries kidneys veins
atria capillaries heart
ureter phloem urinary bladder
Group the terms on the basis of the categories given below.
(a) Circulatory system of animals.
(b) Excretory system in human.
(c) Transport of substances in plants. {NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The terms on the basis of the categories can be grouped as follows
(a) Circulatory system of human Arteries, atria, capillaries, veins, heart.
(b) Excretory system in human
Urethra, kidneys, ureter, urinary bladder.
(c) Transport of substances in plants Root

Question 7.
(a) What are the different blood groups in human?
(b) Define blood group compatibility.
(c) Make a table to show the donor blood group and recipient blood group.
Answer:
(a) The blood group of an individual human being always remains unchanged throughout their life. Karl Landsteiner described that human blood can be divided into four groups, i.e. A, B, AB and O. These are named on the basis of substance present in the blood (RBC). Every man has one of these four groups of blood which is inherited from parents to offspring and is never changed.

If a person gets injured and heavy blood loss occurs, there is a need to give blood of other person to the patient. The person who gives the blood is called donor while the person who receives the blood is called
recipient.

(b) The process of donation of blood from one person to another is called blood transfusion. Before donation, the blood group must be matched because transfusion of different groups can be dangerous. The RBCs of the patient receiving blood will stick together and may cause death of the patient. This matching of blood group is called blood group compatibility. It can be shown as follows :

(c)

Transportation in Animals and Plants Class 7 Science Extra Questions Miscellaneous Questions

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
The muscular tube through which stored urine is passed out of the body is called
(a) kidney
(b) ureter
(c) urethra
(d) urinary bladder
Answer:
(c) urethra

Question 2.
Which among the following contain haemoglobin?
(a) Red blood cells
(b) White blood cells
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Red blood cells

Question 3.
They are pipe-like consisting of a group of specialised cells. They transport substances and form a two-way traffic in plants. Which of the following terms qualifies for the features mentioned above?
(a) Xylem tissue
(b) Vascular tissue
(c) Root hairs
(d) Phloem tissue
Answer:
(d) Phloem tissue

Question 4.
The organ which controls the blood circulation in body is
(a) Liver
(b) Lungs
(c) Heart
(d) Kidney
Answer:
(c) Heart

Question 5.
The absorption of nutrients and exchange of respiratory gases between blood and tissues takes place in [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) veins
(b) arteries
(c) heart
(d) capillaries
Answer:
(d) capillaries

Question 6.
A certain type of cells, helps in destruction of disease causing microorganisms are known as
(a) thrombocytes
(b) white blood cells
(c) osteocytes
(d) red blood cells
Answer:
(b) white blood cells

Question 7.
In which of the following parts of human body are sweat glands absent? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Scalp
(b) Armpits
(c) Lips
(d) Palms
Answer:
(c) Lips

Question 8.
The lower chambers of heart is called
(a) atria
(b) ventricles
(c) aorta
(d) vena cava
Answer:
(b) ventricles

Question 9.
Aquatic animals like fish excrete their wastes in gaseous form as
(a) oxygen
(b) hydrogen
(c) ammonia
(d) nitrogen
Answer:
(c) ammonia

Question 10.
The filtration of blood is done by
(a) heart
(b) kidney
(c) blood
(d) urethra
Answer:
(b) kidney

Question 11.
In a tall tree which force is responsible for pulling water and minerals from the soil? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Gravitational force
(b) Transportation force
(c) Suction force
(d) Conduction force
Answer:
(c) Suction force

Question 12.
Transport of water in plants takes place through
(a) xylem
(b) vascular bundle
(c) phloem
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) xylem

Fill in the Blanks
1. Blood consists of …………, ……………, …………….. and platelets.
2. Human heartbeats about ………… times per minute in an adult person.
3. ………… and ………… are removed along with water as sweat.
4. ………… are the vessels which carry CO₂ rich blood from body parts to heart.
5. The ………… is an organ which beats continuously to act as a ………… .
6. Heart is located in the ………… .
7. Doctors use ………… as a device to amplify the sound of heart.
8. The parts or organs involved in excretion to form the ………… .
9. Heart has four ………… called as chambers.
10. The function of kidney is to filter the ………… to ………… remove
Answer:
1. plasma, RBCs, WBCs
2. 70-80
3. Salt, urea
4. Veins
5. heart, pump
6. chest cavity
7. stethoscope
8. excretory system
9. compartments
10. blood, urea

True/False
1. The vascular tissue for the transport of food in plants is called xylem.
2. The rhythmic contraction and relaxation of heart is called heartbeat.
3. Haemoglobin is the red colour pigment present in blood.
4. Atria are the two upper chambers of the heart.
5. Kidney is a rounded structure used to filter the blood.
6. Platelets help in blood clotting.
7. Digested food, oxygen and CO₂ passes through the walls of the capillaries.
8. Nephrons are the tiny filtering units of the kidney.
9. WBC protects the body from diseases.
10. The process of cleaning the blood of human by using a kidney machine is called dialysis.
11 . Sweat is secreted by sweat glands, present in our skin.
Answer:
1. False, the vascular tissue for the transport of food In plant is called phloem.
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False, kidney filters the blood and is a bean-shaped structure.
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. True
11. True

Match the Columns

Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II. [NCERT Exemplar]

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II

Question 3.
Match the Column 1 with Column II

Answers:
1.
(a)-(i)
(b)-(iv)
(c)-(vi)
(d)-(ii)
(e)-(v)
(f)-(iii)

2.
(a)-(ii)
(b)-(iii)
(c)-(i)
(d)-(v)
(e)-(iv)

3.
(a)-(vi)
(b)-(i)
(c)-(v)
(d)-(ii)
(e)-(iv)
(f)-(iii)

Extra Questions for Class 7 Science

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CBSE Class 9 Notes: Studying in class 9 sometimes can suddenly feel like a lot of pressure owing to the class 10 that is imminent. However, worry not, the Revision Notes for Class 9 by LearnCBSE will allow students to cover the most important concepts in that year for the CBSE syllabus for subjects like Physics, Chemistry, Maths, English, Hindi, Social Science and Biology. The basics of the core science subjects are very important to grasp for students as they will utilise them much more in their 10th Grade and the base needs to be strong.

Free Download of CBSE Class 9 Revision Notes

This is where LearnCBSE.in comes in and helps with our CBSE Class 9th revision Notes. They can be downloaded in a free PDF from the link on the site. revision notes have been made with expert teachers in the country with close to 15 years of experience. Also, the papers are made by analysing the 10 years previous question papers after which specific details have been incorporated. The teachers have ensured that the revision notes are very easy to understand and grasp for any student in the new academic year.

Class 9 Revision Notes

9th class revision notes applicable for all the board like CBSE, UP Board, MP Board, Gujrat Board, Bihar, Uttarakhand, KSEEB, Kerala and all other boards who are following the New Updated NCERT Books as a course book.

The revision notes for class 9 have been made in a chapter wise format for the science subjects, Social Science and Languages so that no detail is missed out. They are also available for free download in a PDF format for students to refer to and use. Also, the new academic year has been used for the preparation of these notes so that any changes made by the Central board in the syllabus will be incorporated into all of these notes. The importance of these study notes for class 9 CBSE is that students will not only be able to score well, they will also enjoy learning from them. The notes will also help set the platform for them to prepare better during their tenth where they will take their first board examinations.

By practising with the revision notes and solving model papers, students will find out that the syllabus was not that hard. These are some of the best revision notes for class 9 because students will be able to alleviate any stress that they might face and solve problems faster.

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CBSE Class 8 Notes: Class 8 is an important juncture in a student’s school journey. This is when you start creating a base for yourself and gear up for the final two years before the 10th board exams. Scoring well in Class 8 is also important as it will provide a confidence boost as you step into class 9.

CBSE Quick Revision Notes for Class 8 – Free PDF Solutions

Class 8 CBSE Syllabus is vast and difficult, making it complicated for the students to learn everything and then revise all of it before the exams. Revision, which is an essential aspect to ensure good marks in the exams needs to be precise and cover all the important concepts. It can be a time taking effort for students to prepare qualitative and concise revision notes that can be used as a reference. As a result, most students end up marking key points in the textbook itself. This not only makes revising a little more confusing and time taking, but the risk of missing out on some key concepts is also high. Moreover, the students cannot carry so many textbooks everywhere.

CBSE Class 8 Notes

• Class 8 Maths Notes
• Class 8 Science Notes
• Class 8 Social Notes
• Class 8 English Notes
• CBSE Class 8 English It So Happened
• CBSE class 8 English Honeydew
• CBSE Class 8 Hindi
• CBSE Class 8 Sanskrit

We at LearnCBSE have created CBSE notes for class 8 which can be used by students for revision purposes. We have made class 8 notes pdf for all subjects that can be downloaded from the LearnCBSE.in website. The revision notes are prepared for each chapter in each subject so that there are a clear demarcation and no overlap or mixing of topics. Students can download pdf of the notes chapter wise individually or all the chapters at once, as convenient. The notes are prepared by our team of best faculty who have used graphs, bullet points, illustrations, and diagrams to make it easy to grasp and remember the topics.

The revision notes for class 8 CBSE free pdf download option is available for anyone who wants to make use of them. There is no sign-in or subscription required to access these notes just one click download PDF.

More Resources:

• NCERT Solutions
• NCERT Books

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CBSE Quick Revision Notes for Class 7 – Free PDF Solutions

CBSE Class 7 Notes: If you’re a CBSE student studying in the Class 7, it is important that you enjoy studying. By beginning to prepare comprehensively and grasping concepts better, you will be able to generate a mindset of solving problems in a more streamlined manner. While there isn’t a lot of pressure for you to push yourself from an academic perspective, scoring good marks and better rank is always a mandate, no matter which grade you’re in.

LearnCBSE class 7 revision notes allow you to gain a bit of confidence before writing your examinations on the subject. They will be able to understand the key topics much better, and it’ll help them memorise those hard-to-remember formulae much easily. Our CBSE Notes for Class 7 Quick Revision provides are all up to date and prepared for the latest curriculum. Over time, you’ll begin enjoying studying while also scoring better grades in your examinations

Revision Notes for Class 7

• Class 7 Maths Notes
• Class 7 Science Notes
• Class 7 Social Notes
• Class 7 English Notes
• CBSE Class 7 Sanskrit
• CBSE Class 7 Hindi
• CBSE Class 7 English An Alien Hand Supplementary Reader
• CBSE Class 7 English Honeycomb

For those who wish to prepare well for their class 7 CBSE examinations beforehand, the revision notes provide capacious tips and tricks for the same. The revision notes for class 7 CBSE free PDF download will enable you to learn your subjects without having to by-heart by rote. They are explained simply so that you can understand everything that is being written. The CBSE Class 7th revision notes free PDF can be downloaded directly from LearnCBSE.in and practiced according to your preference. They are prepared by experienced teachers who know the kind of questions that will appear in your examinations. These revision notes are prepared with the new academic syllabus in mind and are updated every year according to changes made by the CBSE.

More Resources:

• NCERT Solutions
• NCERT Books

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CBSE Quick Revision Notes for Class 6 – Free PDF Solutions

CBSE Class 6 Notes: Preparing for an exam is a demanding task which involves recollecting all that you have read and understood in the class in a short span of time. These class 6th revision notes are like a map that navigates you through the complicated web of the CBSE syllabus. With the help of CBSE revision notes for class 6, you can divide your attention properly and save time while revising the chapters. The notes cover a wide range of concepts in a simple and easy to read manner. With the help of these revision notes, going through the chapters at the last minute becomes easier. The revision notes provide a condensed look at all the chapters which makes sure the students spend their attention on important topics. Expert Faculty with more than 15 years of experience have worked on these revision notes.

Revision Notes for Class 6

• Class 6 Maths Notes
• Class 6 Science Notes
• Class 6 Social Notes
• Class 6 English Notes
• CBSE Class 6 Hindi
• CBSE Class 6 Sanskrit

CBSE Class 6th Revision Notes free pdf download are readily available for anyone on the LearnCBSE.in site. The topics discussed in these notes are in accordance with the newly revised CBSE syllabus. The notes cover all the subjects included in the CBSE class 6 syllabus. The students can also have a stronger foundation in important subjects like Maths, biology, and science. This will help them understand the complex topics in higher classes easily. These revision notes are carefully compiled by studying patterns and recurring topics from the Previous 10 Year Question Papers. These easy to access CBSE class 6 revision notes free pdf can be downloaded by anyone from the LearnCBSE.in. You can also find NCERT Solutions, NCERT Books, video lectures and other study material on the site for an free of cost. With this comprehensive guide, you can now channel your focus in the right direction and approach any exam in a stress-free manner

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CBSE Class 3 Notes

CBSE Class 3 Revision Notes for kids will help you revise everything you’ve learnt in class and more. They cover syllabus across boards to provide an all-round learning experience. Available in a PDF format, these chapter wise class 3 revision notes can also be used for assisted learning.

Key Highlights of CBSE Class 3 Revision Notes:

• Important concepts are simplified for better understanding
• Learning made fun using diagrams and illustrations
• Serve as an assisted learning tool

Revision Notes for Class 3

Download Revision Notes for Class 3 All subjects in PDF form. NCERT Solutions in PDF format is also available to download with complete description and explanation for class III. Download CBSE NCERT books for class 3 Hindi (Rimjhim), English (Marigold), Maths (Maths Magic), EVS (Looking Around) in Hindi Medium and English Medium based on latest CBSE Syllabus 2019-20.

• CBSE Class 3 Maths
• CBSE Class 3 EVS
• CBSE Class 3 English
• CBSE Class 3 Hindi
• CBSE Class 3 Paryavaran Adyayan

We hope the Revision Notes for Class 3, help you. If you have any query regarding Revision Notes, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

More Resources:

NCERT Solutions for Class 3

• Class 3 Maths
• Class 3 EVS
• Class 3 English
• Class 3 Hindi
• Class 3 पर्यावरण अध्ययन

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CBSE Class 4 Notes

CBSE Class 4 Revision Notes for kids will help you revise everything you’ve learnt in class and more. They cover syllabus across boards to provide an all-round learning experience. Available in a PDF format, these chapter wise class 4 revision notes can also be used for assisted learning.

Key Highlights of CBSE Class 4 Revision Notes:

• Important concepts are simplified for better understanding
• Learning made fun using diagrams and illustrations
• Serve as an assisted learning tool

Revision Notes for Class 4

Download Revision Notes for Class 4 All subjects in PDF form. NCERT Solutions in PDF format is also available to download with complete description and explanation for class IV. Download CBSE NCERT books for class 4 Hindi (Rimjhim), English (Marigold), Maths (Maths Magic), EVS (Looking Around) in Hindi Medium and English Medium based on latest CBSE Syllabus 2019-20.

• CBSE Class 4 Maths
• CBSE Class 4 EVS
• CBSE Class 4 English
• CBSE Class 4 Hindi
• CBSE Class 4 Paryavaran Adyayan

We hope the Revision Notes for Class 4, help you. If you have any query regarding Revision Notes, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

More Resources:

NCERT Solutions for Class 4

• Class 4 Maths
• Class 4 EVS
• Class 4 English
• Class 4 Hindi
• Class 4 पर्यावरण अध्ययन

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