Important Question for CBSE Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Work, Power and Energy

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

1-MARK QUESTIONS
Question.1 Does work done depend upon the velocity of the body. [SAII-2014]
Answer. No.

Question.2 State the law of conservation of energy. [SAII-2014]
Answer. It states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It can only change its form.

Question.3 In a tug-of-war one team gives way to the other. What work is being done and by whom ?
[SAII-2014]
Answer.
The winning team does work. The work is equal to the product of the resultant force and the displacement undergone by the losing team.

Question.4 What will cause greater change in kinetic energy of a body? Changing its mass or changing its velocity ?
Answer. Changing its velocity.

Question.5 List two essential conditions for work to be done. [SAII-2010]
Answer. (i) A force must act and (ii) There should be displacement in the body.

Question.6 When is 1 joule of work said to be done ?
Answer. When a force of 1 newton acting on a body displaces it in its own direction.

Question.7 What is the SI unit of work done and power ?
Answer. Joule and Watt.

Question.8 What is power? What is its SI unit ?
Answer. It is defined as the rate of doing work. Its unit is watt.

Question.9 Find the energy in kWh consumed in 10 hours by a machine of power 500 W. [SAII-2011]
Answer. W = P x t = 500 x 10 = 5000 Wh – 5 kWh.

Question.10. When is work said to be done against the force of gravity ?
Answer. When a body lifted the work is done against the force of gravity.

Question.11 Write an expression for the work done in lifting a body of mass ‘m’ through a vertical height ‘h’. [SAll-2012]
Answer. Work done W = mgh, where g is acceleration due to gravity.

Question.12 When a book is lifted from a table, against which force work is done ?
Answer. Work is done against the force of gravity.

Question.13 Will work be done by a man who pushes a wall ?
Answer. No.

Question.14 What is the work done when the force acting on the body and the displacement produced in the body are at right angles to each other ?
Answer. Zero.

Question.15 Is it possible that some force is acting on a body but still the work done is zero ?
Answer. Yes, when force acts at an angle of 90° with the displacement.

Question.16 What is the work done on a body moving in a circular path ?
Answer. Zero, because force and displacement are perpendicular to each other.

Question.17 Does every change in energy of the body involve work ?
Answer. Yes.

Question.18 What is the work done in the situation shown below ?

Answer. Zero.

Question.19 A force of 7 N acts on an object. The displacement is, say 8 m, in the direction of the force. Let us take it that the force acts on the object through the displacement. What is the work done in this case ?
Answer.
Given, displacement = 8 m,
Force = 7N
Now, Work done = Force x Displacement
= 7 x 8 = 56 J

Question.20 When do we say that work is done ? ~
Answer.
Work is said to be done when a force causes displacement of an object in the direction of applied force.

Question.21 Write an expression for the work done when a force is acting on an object in the direction of its displacement.
Answer.
Work done = Force x Displacement

Question.22 A pair of bullocks exert a force of 140 N on a plough. The field being ploughed is 15 m long. How much work is done in ploughing the length of the field ?
Answer.
Work done = Force x Displacement = 140 x 15 = 2100 J

Question.23 What is the kinetic energy of an object?
Answer.
The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion is called kinetic energy.

Question.24 Write an expression for the kinetic energy of an object.
Answer.
The expression is KE = 1/2 mv², where ‘m’ is the mass and V is the velocity of the body.

Question.25 Define 1 watt of power.
Answer.
When a work of 1 joule is done in 1s, the power is said to be one watt.

Question.26 A lamp consumes 1000 J of electrical energy in 10 s. What is its power ?
Answer.
Given, W = 1000 J, t = 10 s, R = ?
Using p = W/t = 1000/10 = 100 W

Question.27 Define average power.
Answer.
When a machine or person does different amounts of work or uses energy in different intervals of time, the ratio between the total work or energy consumed to the total time is average power.

Question.28 Define energy.
Answer.
Energy is the ability of a body to do work. It is also defined as the capacity to do work.

Question.29 A body performs no work. Does it imply that the body possesses no energy ?
Answer.
When a body does not perform any work, it never implies that the body has no energy. The body may have energy but still does not perform any work, e.g., a book placed on a table has potential energy but is not performing any work.

Question.30 What is the SI unit of energy?
Answer.The SI unit of energy is joule.

Question.31Does a body at rest possess any kinetic energy ?
Answer.No.

Question.32 What will happen to the kinetic energy of a body if its mass is doubled ?
Answer. Its kinetic energy will be doubled.

Question.33 What will happen to the kinetic energy of a body if its velocity is halved ? [SAII-2012]
Answer. The kinetic energy of the body will become one-fourth.

Question.34 By how much will the speed of a body, of fixed mass, increase if its kinetic energy becomes four times its initial kinetic energy ?
Answer. The speed is doubled.

Question.35 Can a body possess energy even if it is not in motion ?
Answer. Yes, it can possess potential energy.

Question.36 Define potential energy.
Answer. It is defined as the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position or change in shape.

Question.37 Name the energy possessed by a stretched rubber band lying on the table.
Answer. Potential energy.

Question.38 Give the SI unit of potential energy.
Answer. The SI unit of potential energy is.joule.

Question.39 What do you mean by trans- formation of energy ?
Answer. It is the change of energy from one form of energy into another form of energy.

Question.40 Can energy be destroyed? Can energy be created ?
Answer. No,

Question.41 A cell converts one form of energy into another. Name the two forms.
Answer.
It converts chemical energy into electrical energy.

Question.42 Name one unit of power bigger than watt.
Answer. A unit bigger than watt is kilowatt.

Question.43 When an arrow is shot from its bow, it has kinetic energy. From where does it get the kinetic energy ? [SAll-2010]
Answer.
A stretched bow possesses potential energy on account of a change in its shape. To shoot an arrow; the bow is released. The potential energy of the bow is converted into the kinetic energy of the arrow.

Question.44 Name at least three commonly used units of energy.
Answer. (i) Joule (ii) Erg (iii) Kilowatt hour.

Question.45 Name the practical unit of power in engineering.
Answer. Horsepower.

Question.46 Name at least six forms of energy.
Answer.
(i) Chemical energy
(ii) Heat energy
(iii) Light energy
(iV) Electrical energy
(v) Sound energy
(vi)Solar energy

Question.47 How many watt are there in 1 horse – power ?
Answer. 746 watt.

Question.48 What is horsepower ?
Answer. It is a unit of power.

Question.49 A light and a heavy body have equal kinetic energy. Which one is moving fast ? [SAII-2011]
Answer. The lighter body is moving fast.

2 MARKS QUESTIONS
Question.1 State the relation between kW h and joule. Define 1 watt. [SAII-2014]
Answer.
1 kW h – 1000 W h = 1000  Js^-1  x 60 x 60 s = 3.6 x  10⁶ J
1 watt is the power of an agent which can do one joule of work in one second.

Question.2 Is it possible that a body be in accelerated motion under a force acting on the body, yet no work is being done by the force? Explain your answer giving a suitable example. [SAII-2012]
Answer.
Yes, it is possible, when the force is perpendicular to the direction of motion. The moon revolving round the earth under the centripetal force of attraction of the earth but earth does not do any work on the motion of The moon.

Question.3 Define work. How is work measured ? When is work done by a force negative? [SAII-2013]
Answer.
Work is said to be done if force acting on an object displaces it through a certain distance.
It is measured as the product of force and displacement.
Work done is negative if force and displacement are in the opposite direction. ‘

Question.4 What is the work done by the force of gravity in the following cases ?
(a) Satellite moving around the earth in a circular orbit of radius 35000 km.
(b) A stone of mass 250 g is thrown up through a height of 2.5 m. [SAII-2013]
Answer.
(a) Zero, as the displacement in one complete revolution is zero.
(b) Given m = 250 g = 0.25 kg, h = 2.5 m, g = 10 ms^-2, W = ?
Now, W = FS = mg x h = 0.25 x 10 x 2.5 = 6.25 J

Question.5 A mass of 10 kg is at a point A on a table. It is moved to a point B. If the line joining A and B is horizontal, what is the work done on the object by the gravitational force? Explain your answer.
Answer.
The work done is zero. This is because the gravitational force and displacement are perpendicular to each other.

Question.6 The potential energy of a freely falling object decreases progressively. Does this violate the law of conservation of energy? Why? [SAII-2010]
Answer.
It does not violate the law of conservation of energy. Whatever, is the decrease in PE due to loss of height, same is the increase in the KE due to increase in velocity of the body.

Question.7 What are the various energy transformations that occur when you are riding a bicycle?
Answer.
The chemical energy of the food changes into heat and then to muscular energy. On paddling, the muscular energy changes into mechanical energy.

Question.8 Does the transfer of energy take place when you push a huge rock with all your might and fail to move it? Where is the energy you spend going?
Answer.
Energy transfer does not take place as no displacement takes place in the direction of applied force; the energy spent is used to overcome inertia of rest of the rock.

Question.9 An object thrown at a certain angle to the ground moves in a curved path and falls back to the ground. The initial and the final points of the path of the object lie on the same horizontal line. What is the work done by the force of gravity on the object ? [SAll-2011 ]
Answer.
Since the body returns to a point which is on the same horizontal line through the point of projection, no displacement has taken place against the force of gravity; therefore, no work is done by the force due to gravity.

Question.10 A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes involved in the process.
Answer.
Within the electric cell of the battery the chemical energy changes into electrical energy. The electric energy on flowing through the filament of the bulb, first changes into heat energy and then into the light energy.

Question.11 What is the work done by the force of gravity on a satellite moving round the earth? Justify your answer.
Answer.
The work done by the force of gravity on the satellite is zero because the force of gravity acts at right angles to the direction of motion of the satellite. Therefore, no displacement is caused in the direction of applied force. The force of gravity only changes the direction of motion of the i satellite.

Question.12 Can there be displacement of an object in the absence of any force acting on it? Think;
discuss this question with your friends and teacher. [SAII-2012]
Answer.
The answer is. both Yes and No. Yes, because when an object moves in deep space from one
point to another point in a straight line, the displacement takes place, without the application of
force. No, because force cannot be zero for displacement on the surface of earth. Some force is i essential.

Question.13 A person holds a bundle of hay over his head for 30 minutes and gets tired. Has he done some work or not ? justify your answer.
Answer.
The person does not do work because no displacement takes place in the direction of applied force as the force acts in the vertically upward direction.

Question.14 An object of mass, m is moving with a constant velocity, v. How much work should be done on the object in order to bring the object to rest ?
Answer.
Work done to bring the object to rest is equal change in kinetic energy of the object.

Question.15 Soni says that the acceleration in an object could be zero even when several forces are acting on it. Do you agree with her ? Why ?
Answer.
Yes, we do agree when the number of forces act on a body, such that they constitute balanced forces, then net force acting on the body is zero. In such a situation no acceleration acts on the object.

Question.16 A freely falling object eventually stops on reaching the ground. What happens to its kinetic
energy ? [SAI1-2011]
Answer.
The KE on reaching the ground changes into heat energy, sound energy etc. and, therefore, gets
dissipated in air.

Question.17 What kinds of energy transformations take place at a thermal power station ?
Answer.
At a thermal power station, the chemical energy of coal is changed into heat energy which is further changed into electrical energy with the help of an electric generator.

Question.18 Name the transformation of energy involved in the following cases :
(a) When a body is thrown upwards.
(b) When a body falls from the top of a hill.
(c) When coal burns.
(d) When a gas bums.
(e) When water falls from a height.
Answer.
(a) Kinetic energy into potential energy.
(fa) Potential energy into kinetic energy.
(c) Chemical energy into heat energy.
(cf) Chemical energy into heat energy.
(e) Potential energy into kinetic energy.

Question.19 What are the factors on which the work done depends ? [SAII-2010]
Answer.The work done by a force depends upon:
(i) The magnitude of the force.
(ii) The magnitude of the displacement and
(iii) The angle between force and displacement.

Question.20 How are kinetic energy and momentum related ?
Answer.

Question.21 What is the work done by a coolie walking on a horizontal platform with a load on his head ?
Answer.
In order to balance the load on his head, the coolie applies a force on it in the upward direction, equal to its weight. His displacement is along the horizontal direction. Thus, the angle between force F and displacement is 90°. Therefore, work done W = FS cos θ = FS cos 90° =0.

Question.22 We wind our watch once a day, what happens to the energy ?
Answer.
When we wind our watch, we wind the spring inside the watch. As a result, energy is stored in the spring in the form of elastic potential energy. This elastic potential energy is used to make the watch work the whole day. .

Question.23 What is the amount of work done by a force when a body moves in a circular path ?
[SAll-2012]
Answer.
Work done is given by the expression W = FS cos θ. When a body moves in a circular path, then the displacement (S) is zero. Therefore, work done is W = F x 0 = 0.

3 MARKS QUESTIONS
Question.1 Look at the activities listed below.
Reason out whether or not work is done in the light of your understanding of the term ‘work’
(i) Suma is swimming in a pbnd.
(ii) A donkey is carrying a load on its back.
(iii) A wind-mill is filling water from a well.
(iV) A green plant is carrying out photosynthesis.
(v) An engine is pulling a train.
(vi)Food grains are getting dried in the sun.
(vii) A sailboat is moving due to wind energy.
Answer.
(i) Work is done because the displacement of swimmer takes place in the direction of applied force.
(ii) If the donkey is not moving, no work is done as the displacement of load does not take place in the direction of applied force.
(iii) Work is done, as the displacement takes place in the direction of force.
(iV) No work is done, because no displacement takes place.
(v) Work is done, because displacement takes place in the direction of applied force.
(vi)No work is done, because displacement does not take place.
(vii)Work is done because displacement takes place in the direction of the force.

Question.2 Illustrate the law of conservation of energy by discussing the energy changes which occur when we draw a pendulum bob to one side and allow it to oscillate. Why does the bob eventually come to rest ? What happens to its energy eventually ? Is it a violation of the law of conservation of energy ?
Answer.
When the pendulum bob is pulled (say towards left), the energy supplied is stored in it is the form of PE on account of its higher position. When the pendulum is released so that it stars moving towards right, then its PE changes into KE, such that in mean position, it has maximum KE, and zero PE. As the pendulum moves towards extreme right, its -KE changes into PE such that at the extreme position, jf has maximum PE and zero KE.When it moves from this extreme position to mean position, its PE again changes to KE. This illustrates the law of conservation of energy. Eventually, the bob comes to rest, because during each oscillation a part of the energy possessed by it transferred to air and- m overcoming friction at the point of suspension. Thus, the energy of the pendulum is dissipated in air.
The law of conservation of energy is not violated because the energy merely changes its form and is not destroyed.

Question.3
In each of the following a force, F is acting on an object of mass, m. The direction of displacement is from west to east shown by the longer arrow. Observe the diagrams carefully and state whether the work done by the force is negative, positive or zero.

Answer.

Question.4 Distinguish between work, energy and power. State the SI units for each of these quantities.
Answer.
Work: It is defined as the product of force applied and the distance moved by the body on the application of the force. In SI it is measured in joule.
Energy : It is defined as the capacity of a body to do work. In SI it is measured in joule.
Power: It is defined as the rate of doing work. It measures how fast or slow the work is done. In SI it is measured in watt.

Question.5 A girl sits and stands repeatedly for 5 minutes. Draw a graph to show variation of potential energy with time.
Answer.

5 MARKS QUESTIONS
Question.1 Calculate the electricity bill amount for a month of 31 days, if the following devices are used as specified :
(a) 3 bulbs of 40 W for 6 hours.
(b) 4 tubelights of 50 W for 8 hours,
(c) A TV of 120 W fro 6 hours.
Give the rate of electricity is Rs 2.50 per unit. [SAll-2014]
Answer.

Question.2
(a) What is meant by mechanical energy ? State its two forms. State the law of conservation of energy. Give an example in which we observe a continuous change of one form of energy into another and vice-versa.
(b) Calculate the amount of work required to stop a car of 1000 kg moving with a speed of 72 km h”1. [SAII-2013]
Answer.
(a) It is the sum of KE and PE of an object. It states that energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. We observe a continuous change in energy in a simple pendulum and its : explanation. At the mean position, the energy is wholly kinetic while at the extreme position it is wholly potential. As the pendulum oscillates its energy continuously changes between kinetic and potential.

Question.3 State the law of conservation of energy? Show that when a body falls from a certain height the total mechanical energy remains conserved.
Answer.

AT POINT B :

Question.4
(a)Derive an expression for kinetic energy of a body having mass m and moving with a velocity v.
(b)When velocity of a body is increased 5 times, what is the change in its kinetic energy ?
(c)Two masses m and 2m are dropped from heights h and 2h. On reaching the ground, which will have greater kinetic energy and why ? [SAII-2013]
Answer.
(a)For derivation see above questions.
(b)Kinetic energy is given by the expression
KE = 1/2 mv², therefore, if velocity is made 5 times KE will increase by 25 times.
(c)More the potential energy more will be the kinetic energy of the body when it falls. Hence, the body with mass 2m will have greater kinetic energy as it has more potential energy.

Question.5
(a)State the law of conservation of energy.
(b)What is the work done to increase the velocity of a car from 36 km h-1 to 72 km h~1 if the mass of the car is 1500 kg ? Does the work done by the force have a negative or a positive magnitude ?
(c)Where does an oscillating pendulum have maximum PE and KE ? [SAII-2013]
Answer.

APPLICATION BASED QUESTIONS

Question.1 A light body and a heavy body have the same kinetic energy. Which one will have the greater momentum ?
Answer.

Question.2 A light and a heavy body have the same momentum. Which one will have greater kinetic energy ?
Answer.

Question.3
(a) Can a body have energy without having momentum ? Explain.
(b) Can a body have momentum without having energy ? Explain.
Answer.

Question.4 When an arrow is shot from its bow, it has kinetic energy. From where does it get the kinetic energy ?
Answer.
A stretched bow possesses potential energy on account of a change in its shape. To shoot an arrow; the bow is released. The potential energy of the bow is converted into the kinetic energy of the arrow.

Question.5 A spring which has been kept compressed by tying its ends together is allowed to be dissolved in an acid. What happens to the potential energy of the spring ?
Answer.
The PE of the spring gets converted into KE of acid molecules whose temperature rises.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question.1 justify giving proper reasoning whether the work done in the following cases is positive or negative :
(a) Work done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the bucket.
(b) Work done by gravitational force in the above case.
(c) Work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane.
(d) Work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform velocity.
(e) Work done by resistive force of air on a vibrating pendulum in bringing it to rest.
Answer.
(a) Work done is positive as the bucket moves in the direction of force applied by the man.
(b) Work done by the gravitational force is negative, as the bucket moves upwards i.e., opposite to the gravitational force.
(c) Work done is negative, as frictional force acts opposite to the direction of motion of the body.
(d) Work done is positive because applied force acts along the same direction as the direction of motion of the body.
(e) Work done is negative because the resistive force of air always acts opposite of the direction of motion of the vibrating*pendulum.

Question.2 What is the work done by a coolie walking on a horizontal platform with a load on his head?
[SAII-2010]
Answer.
In order to balance the load on his head, the coolie applies a force on it in the upward direction, equal to its weight. His displacement is along the horizontal direction. Thus, the angle between force F and displacement is 90°. Therefore, work done W = FS cos θ = FS cos 90° = 0.

Question.3 The work done in lifting a box on to a platform does not depend upon how fast it is lifted up.
Explain your answer giving proper reasoning. [SAll-2013]
Answer.
The work done (W) in lifting a box through a distance (S) against the gravitational force (F) is given by W = FS. Hence, it is obvious that it is independent of the rate at which the box is lifted.

Question.4 Is it possible that a body be in accelerated motion under a force acting on the body, yet no work is being done by the force ? Explain your answer giving a suitable example.
Answer.
Yes, it is possible, when the force is perpendicular to the direction of motion. The moon revolving round the earth under the centripetal force of attraction of the earth, but earth does no work on the motion.

Question.5 A body moves along a circular path. How much work is done in doing so? Explain.
Answer.
In case of a body moving along a circular path, the force (centripetal) is always along the radius while displacement is tangential. Hence, work done W = FS cos 90° = 0 as angle between F and S is 90°.

Question.6 A man rowing a boat upstream is at rest wjth respect to the shore. Is he doing work ?
[SAII-2012]
Answer.
The man is doing work relative to the stream because he is applying force to produce relative motion between the boat and the stream. But he does zero work relative to the shore as the displacement relative to the shore is zero.

Question.7 What type of energy is stored in the spring of a watch? [SAII-2013]
Answer.
When we wind a watch, the configuration of its spring is changed. The energy stored in the spring is obviously potential in nature (elastic potential energy to be more accurate).

Question.8 What happens to the kinetic energy when :
(i) the mass of the body is doubled at constant velocity?
(ii)the velocity of the body is doubled at constant mass?
(iii)the mass of thesbody is doubled but the velocity is reduced to half?
Answer.

Question.9 When a constant force is applied to a body moving with constant acceleration, is the power of the force constant ? If not, how would force have to vary with speed for the power to be constant ?
Answer.

Question.10 A spring which is kept compressed by tying its ends together is allowed to be dissolved in an acid. What happens to the potential energy of the spring ?
Answer.
The potential energy of the spring gets converted into heat energy (kinetic energy of acid molecules). Due to this heat, the temperature of the acid rises.

Reasoning Questions
Question.1
(a) Define power. Give its SI unit.
(b) Taking the example of a simple pendulum, explain the variations in the forms of energy and the; inter-conversions involved. [SA II-2011]
Answer.
(a) Power is defined as the rate of doing work. Its SI unit is watt.
(b) For a simple pendulum, the inter-conversion of energy is as shown in the table below :

Question.2
(a) How much work is done when a force of 1 N moves a body through a distance of 1 m in its direction?
(b) Is it possible that a force is acting on a body but still the work done is zero? Explain
giving one example. [SA II – 2011]
Answer.
(a) 1 J of work is done.
(b) Yes, it is possible when force acts at right angles to the direction of motion of the body. Example Gravitational force of earth acts on a satellite at right angles to its direction of motion.

Question.3
(a) What is meant by potential energy? Is potential energy vector or scalar quantity?
(b) Give one example of a body having potential energy. [SA II – 2011]
Answer.
(a) The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position or configuration. It is a scalar
quantity.
(b) Stretched string of a bow.

Question.4 When is the work done by a force said to be negative? Give one situation in which one of the forces acting on the object is doing positive work and the other is doing negative work.
[SA II – 2012]
Answer.
We know that work done W = FS cos 0, where 0 is the angle between F and S. Clearly, W will be -ve, if 0 is between 90° and 180° because then cos 0 will be -ve. Consider the case of a body falling under gravity. The body experiences an upward frictional force and downward force due to gravity. Since the body is moving downwards, the work done by force to gravity will be +ve but that is against the upward thrust will be -ve.

Question.5
(a) Is it possible that a body be in accelerated motion under the action of a force, yet no work is being done by the force? Explain with an example.
(b) Two bodies of masses m, and m2 have equal kinetic energies. What is the ratio of their
linear momenta? [SA II – 2012]
Answer.
(a) Yes, it is possible in the case of a body moving in a circular path with a speed v. The body has a centripetal acceleration directed along the radius of the circular path. The
displacement is, however, tangential to the radius i.e., 0 = 90°. Thus, work done, W = FS cos 90° = 0.

Important Topics/Areas/Questions which are
frequently asked in the examination

Question.1 An object of mass mwhen raised To height h possess a potential energy of 1200 J. Find the new potential energy :
(a) if the same object is raised to height h/4.
(b) if the same object is raised to height 4h. [SAll-2014]
Answer.

Question.2 Define 1 watt of power. A lamp consumes 1000 ] of electrical energy in 10 s. Calculate its power. [SAII-2013]
Answer.

Question.3 Explain that the flying bird has; potential and kinetic energy and give their expressions.
[SA1I-2013]
Answer.

Question.4
(a)An arrow moves forward when released from a stretched bow. Explain the transformation of energy in the process.
(b)A boy of mass 50 kg climbs up a vertical height of 100 m. Calculate the amount of potential energy he gains. [SAII-2013]
Answer.

Question.5
(a)What is the commercial unit of energy ? Give its relationship with SI unit of energy.
(b)An electric bulb of 60 W is lighted for 10 hours everyday. How many units of electrical energy is consumed by this bulb in one day ? [SAII-2013]
Answer.

Question.6 Define : (a) power (b) work done (c) kinetic energy. Give SI unit of each. [SAII-2014]
Answer.
(a) The rate of doing work is called power. Its SI unit is watt.
(b) Work is the product of force and displacement. Its SI unit is joule.
(c) It is the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion. Its SI unit is joule.

Question.7 Define power. Write commercial unit and SI unit of electrical energy. An electrical geyser of 1.5 kW works for 2 hours. Find the electrical energy units consumed in a day. [SAII-2014]
Answer.

Question.8 The masses of scooter and bike are in the ratio of 2 : 3 but moving with same speed of 108 km h~1. Compute the ratio of their kinetic energy. [SAII-2014]
Answer.

NUMERICAL PROBLEMS

Question.1 The kinetic energy of an object of mass ‘m’ moving with a velocity of 5 ms-1 is 25 J. What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is doubled? What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is increased three times?
Solution.

Question.2 Certain force acting on a 20 kg mass changes its velocity from 5 ms^-1 to 2 ms^-1. Calculate the work done by the force. [SAII-2013]
Solution.

Question.3. A certain household has consumed 250 units of energy during a month. How much energy is this in joule? [SAU-2011]
Solution.

Question.4 An electric heater is rated 1500 W. How much energy does it use in 10 hours?
Solution.

Question.5 Calculate the work required to be done to stop a car of 1500 kg moving at a velocity of 60 kmh-1? [SAII-2010]
Solution.

Question.6 Find the energy in kWh consumed in 10 hours by four devices of power 500 W each.
Solution.

Question.7 Two bodies of equal masses move with the uniform velocities v and 3v respectively. Find the , ratio of their kinetic energies. [SAII-2013]
Solution.


Thus, the kinetic energy of the second body is nine times the kinetic energy of the first body.

Question.8 A man of mass 60 kg runs up a flight of 30 steps in 40 seconds. If each step is 20 cm high, calculate the power of the man. [SAU-2012]
Solution.

Question.9 Calculate the amount of work done in moving a 50 kg block through a distance of 10 m by applying a force of 100 N.
Solution.

Question.10 A block of mass 5 kg is lying bn a frictionless table. A force of 20 N is applied on it for 10 seconds. Calculate its kinetic energy.
Solution.

Question.11 A girl of mass 40 kg climbs a rope 6 m long at constant speed in 15 seconds. What power she expands during the climb?
Solution.

Question.12 A man weighing 70 kg carries a weight of 10 kg to the top 6f a tower 100 m high. Calculate the work done.
Solution.
We know that work done is given by W = FS = mgh i.e., change in potential energy, therefore, we have
W = mgh = (70 + 10) x 9.8 x100 = 78400 J

Question.13 Calculate the kinetic energy of a body of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of 0.1 ms-1.
Solution.

Question.14 Find the velocity of a body of mass 100 g having a kinetic energy of 20 J.
Solution.

Question.15 A man drops a 10 kg rock from the top of a 5 m ladder. What is its kinetic energy when reaches the ground? What is its speed just before it hits the ground?
Solution.

Question.16 Which would have greater effect on kinetic energy of an object – doubling the mass, or doubling the velocity?
Solution.
We .know that KE∝ m, KE ∝ v2
Therefore, by doubling the mass, the kinetic energy doubles, while by doubling the velocity, the kinetic energy increases four times. Therefore, doubling the velocity will have a greater effect on the kinetic energy of an’object.,

Question.17 A body of mass 4 kg initially at rest is subjected to a force of I6 N. What is the kinetic energy acquired by the body at the end of 10 s? [SAII-2010]
Solution.

Question.18 A crane pulls up a car weighing 500 kg to a vertical height of 4 m. Calculate the work done by the crane.
Solution.
In order to lift the car, the crane has to do work against the force of gravity.
Therefore, the force required = Mg = 500 x 9.8 = 4900 N
Now, displacement undergone by the car, S = 4 m
Hence, work done = FS = 4900 x 4 = 19600 J

Question.19 A force of 10 N displaces a body by a distance of 2 m at an angle 60° to its own direction. Find the amount of work done. [SAII-2012]
Solution.
By definition, Work = Force x Displacement in the direction of force = FD cos θ
Given, F = 10 N;S = 2m;θ = 60°. Therefore,
W = 10 x 2 x cos 60° = 10 x 2 x 1/2 =10J

Question.20 A boy of mass 40 kg runs up flight of 50 steps each 10 cm high in 5 seconds. Find: (i) the work done by the boy. (ii) the power developed, (g = 9.8 ms^-2)
Solution.

Question.21 Calculate the power of an engine required to lift 10s kg of coal per hour from a mine 360 m deep, (Take g = 10ms^-2).
Solution.

Question.22 A man whose mass is 50 kg climbs up 30 steps of a stair in 30 s. If each step is 20 cm high, calculate the power used in climbing the stairs. [Take g = 10 ms^-2]
Solution.

Question.23 A mass of 10 kg is dropped from a height of 50 cm. Find its : (i) Kinetic energy (ii) Velocity just as it reaches the ground. Does the velocity depend upon the mass of the particle? Explain. [Take g = 10 ms^-2] [SAll-2012]
Solution.

Question.24 If you apply 1 J of energy to lift a book of 0.5 kg, how high will it rise? [Take g = 10 ms^-2]
Solution.
We know that PE = mgh
1 = 0.5 x 10 x h
Therefore, h = 0.2 m = 20 cm

Question.25 A woman pulls a bucket of water of total mass 5 kg from a well which is 10 m in 10 s. Calculate the power used by her. [Take g = 10 ms^-2]
Solution.

Question.26
(a) Define average power.
(b) A lamp consumes 1000 J of electrical energy in 10 s. What is its power?
(c) Give the commercial unit of energy in Joules. [SAll-2013]
Solution.

The post Important Question for CBSE Class 9 Science Work, Power and Energy appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Compartment Outside Delhi -2015

Time allowed : 3  hours                                                                                         Maximum marks 100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1.  All questions in both the sections are compulsory.
2. Marks for questions are indicated against each.
3. Questions No. 1-5 and 17-21 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 nick each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
4.  Questions No. 6-10 and 22-26 are? short-answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
5.  Questions No. 11-13 and 27-29 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
6.  Questions No. 14-16 and 30-32 are long-answers questions carrying 6 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
7.  Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit should be adhered to as far as possible.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1. DD’ is a demand curve, A and B are two points on it.
Price elasticity of demand at point A is: (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) less than elasticity of demand at B.
(b) equal to elasticity of demand at B.
(c) greater than elasticity of demand at B.
(d) less than 1.

Answer. (c) Greater than elasticity of demand at B.

Question.2. What economic measure can the Government take to reduce demand for a commodity which is harmful for health?
Answer. The government can reduce the demand for commodity X, which is harmful for health, by imposing taxes on it and thereby making it more expensive.

Question.3. The average fixed cost at 4 units of output is Rs 20. Average variable cost at 5 units of output is Rs 40. Average cost of producing 5 units is: (Choose the correct alternative) (a) Rs 20 (b) Rs 40 (r) Rs 56 (d) Rs 60
Answer. (c) Rs 56

Question.4. Describe the problem of ‘what to produce’.
Answer. This is a problem of allocation of resources among different goods. It involves the selection of goods and services to be produced and the quantity to be produced of each selected commodity. Every economy has limited resources and thus cannot produce all the goods. More of one good or service usually means less of others e g., production of , more war goods is possible only by reducing the production of civil goods. Therefore, on the basis of the importance of various goods, an economy has to decide, what to produce and in what quantities. The guiding principle being used here is to allocate the resources  in such a manner which gives maximum aggregate satisfaction.

Question.5. Explain the meaning and need for ‘maximum price-ceiling’.
Answer. When government imposes an upper limit on the price of a good, it is called price-ceiling. It Is generally imposed on essential items and is fixed below the market determined price. The reason being the equilibrium price is too high for the common people to afford.

Question.6. The Government establishes a large number of Institutes of science and technology.How will it affect the production possibility, frontier? Explain.
Answer. Production Possibility Frontier refers to a graphical representation of possible combination of two goods that can be produced with given resources and technology. A change in the productive capacity of the economy due to change in technology or resources will shift the PPF either towards left or right.
By establishing institutes of science and technology, the government is trying to improve productivity of the economy through promotion of skills and professional qualifications. A skilled and professionally qualified workforce combined with technological up gradation will ultimately lead to a rightward shift in the Production Possibility Frontier. Establishment of these institutes also signifies improvement in educational infrastructure which will further enhance the productive capacity of the economy.

Question.7. Explain the changes that take place in total product and marginal product under diminishing returns to a factor.
Answer. Diminishing returns to a factor signifies the second phase of the Law of Variable Proportions; In this phase, every additional variable factor employed adds lesser and lesser amount of output.
This means that:
TP increases at a diminishing rate and MP falls with increase in variable factor.
This phase ends when TP is maximum and MP is zero.
This happens because beyond the optimum combination of fixed and variable factors, every additional unit of a variable factor will bring in less than proportionate return. Also beyond a limit, it is not possible to substitute factors for each other. It is at this stage the law of diminishing returns sets in.

Question.8. Explain the significance of ‘barriers to entry’ feature of monopoly.
Answer. There exist strong barriers to entry of new firms in a monopoly market These barriers may be due to legal restrictions like licensing or patent rights or due to restrictions created by firms in the form of cartel. Since the monopolist is the only producer, he can always exercise significant influence over market price by changing the supply. It makes the monopolist a price maker. As a result, a monopoly firm can earn abnormal profits and losses in the long run.
Or
Explain the significance of ‘product differentiation’ feature of monopolistic competition.
Answer. Product differentiation refers to differentiating the products on the basis of brand, size, colour, shape, etc. making the products of different firms close but not perfect substitutes of each other. This differentiation helps the buyers to differentiate between the same product produced by different firms. Therefore, they are willing to pay different prices for such differentiated products. This gives monopoly power to an individual firm to fix and charge a price higher than its competitor.

Question.9. Explain with the help of a numerical example, the meaning of diminishing marginal , rate of substitution.
Answer. See Q. 14(Or), 2014 (I Outside Delhi).
Or
Explain the Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility with the help of an example.
Answer. See Q. 7, 2013 (Comptt. I Outside Delhi).

Question.10. Explain the difference between ‘change in demand’ and ‘change in quantity demanded’.
Answer.

Question.11. Explain the effect of the following on market supply of good:
(i) Increase in input prices (ii) Reduction in per unit tax.
Answer. (i) Increase in input prices. Change in price of raw material and remuneration of factors , (rent, wages, interest and profit) influence the cost of production of a commodity and thereby its Supply. An increase in price of inputs, will increase the cost of production leading to a reduction in profit. This will make the producer reduce the supply of the commodity, shifting the supply curve to the left.
(ii) Reduction in per unit tax. Government levies various taxes on production of goods, e.g., excise duty, etc. Such taxes influence supply because it adds to the cost of production. Reduction in per unit tax levied by the government will decrease the cost of production and increase supply by the firms due to higher profit margins. In this case the supply curve will shift towards the right.
Or
State the relationship between:
(i) Marginal cost and average variable cost (ii) Total cost and marginal cost.
Answer. (i) Relationship between MC and AVC. See Q. 10, 2015 (I Delhi).
(ii) Relationship between TC and MC. See Q. 8(Or), 2014 (I Delhi).

Question.12. Explain the effect of the following on the demand for a good:
(i) Increase in income of its consumer.
(ii) Rise in price of its substitute good.
Answer. (i) Increase in income of its consumer:
(a) In case of normal good. If the commodity is normal, an increase in the income of its buyer will increase the demand for that good at the same price and shift the demand curve to the right. Example, if the income of the consumer increases and he reduces consumption of toned milk and increases consumption of full cream milk. Then in this case, full cream milk is a normal good which is showing positive income effect.
(b) In case of inferior good. With increase in the income of the consumer, price remaining the same, the demand for an inferior good will decrease shifting the demand curve towards left. In the. above mentioned example, toned milk is an inferior good whose demand decreases due to increase in consumer income, its price remaining unchanged.
(ii) Rise in price of its substitute good. Substitute goods are those goods which can be used in place of one another for satisfaction of a particular want like tea and coffee. An increase in the price of a substitute leads to an increase in the demand of the given commodity and vice versa, e.g., if price of a substitute (coffee) increases, then demand for the given commodity (tea) will rise as it will become relatively cheaper in comparison to coffee. This will lead to a rightward shift in the demand curve of tea.

Question.13. Giving reasons, state whether Hie following statements are true or false:
(i) The supply curve of a good shifts to the right when prices of other goods rise.
(ii) The difference between average cost and average variable cost is always constant.
Answer. (i) The statement is false. Increase in prices of other goods makes their production more profitable for the producer. As a result the firm shifts its resources from production of the given commodity to the production of other goods. A decline in the supply of the given commodity will shift its supply curve toward left and not towards right.
(ii) The statement is false. The difference between average cost and average variable cost is equaLto average fixed cost. Average fixed cost is calculated by dividing total fixed cost by total output.
\(AFC=\frac { TFC }{ Q } \)
As TFC remain same at all levels of output. Therefore, AFC will fall with increase in output and not remain constant.

Question.14. Explain with the help of a diagram the chain of effects of a rightward shift in demand curve of a good on its equilibrium price, quantity demanded and supplied.
Answer. As shown in the diagram, market demand curve DD and marked supply curve SS intersect each other at point E, which is the market equilibrium where OP is the equilibrium price and OQ the equilibrium quantity.
An increase in demand (assuming no change in supply) leads to a rightward shift in demand curve from DD to D1D1.
When demand increases, it creates an excess demand (equal to EA) at the old equilibrium price of OP. This leads to competition between buyers which increases the price. Increase in price leads to rise in supply (expansion in supply) and fall in demand (contraction in demand). These change continue till new equilibrium is established at point E1 where the equilibrium price rises from OP to OPj and equilibrium quantity rises from OQ to OQ1.

Note: The following question is for BLIND CANDIDATES only in lieu of Q. No. 14 .
Explain the meaning of excess demand of a good. Explain its chain of effects on equilibrium price.
Answer. Excess demand means market demand exceeds market supply at a price which is less than the equilibrium price. In other words, excess demand refers to a situation where quantity demanded is more than quantity supplied at the prevailing market price.
Chain of effects. Same as Q. 14 (above).

SECTION B 
Question.15. Who regulates money supply? (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) Government of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Commercial Banks
(d) Planning Commission 1
Answer. (b) Reserve Bank of India.

Question.16. What are demand deposits?
Answer. Demand deposits’ are the deposits which can be withdrawn from banks on demand by writing cheques.

Question.17. Which of the following is not a revenue receipt? (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) Recovery of loans
(b) Foreign grants
(c) Profits of public enterprises
(d) Wealth tax
Answer. (a) Recovery of loans

Question.18. Which of the following is a correct measure of primary deficit? (Choose the correct. alternative)
(a) Fiscal deficit minus revenue deficit
(b) Revenue deficit minus interest payments
(c) Fiscal deficit minus interest payments
(d) Capital expenditure minus revenue expenditure
Answer. (c) Fiscal deficit minus interest payments

Question.19. Which of the following is a stock? (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) Wealth (b) Saving (c) Exports (d) Profit
Answer. (a) Wealth

Question.20. Describe any three sources of demand for foreign exchange.
Answer. Sources of demand for foreign exchange. See Q. 21, 2015 (Comptt. I Delhi).
Or
Give the meanings of ‘devaluation and depreciation’ of domestic currency.
Answer. Devaluation. It refers to reduction in price of domestic currency in terms of foreign currency under fixed exchange rate regime. This is done by the government, e.g., if the rupee-dollar exchange rate changes from 1$ = Rs 55 to 1$ = Rs 60, it denotes devaluation of rupee.
Depreciation. It refers to fall in value of domestic currency in terms of foreign currency under flexible exchange rate regime (market determined rate of exchange).
The effect of depreciation is the same as devaluation except that it taken place due to market forces of demand and supply.

Question.21. In an economy investment increases from 300 to 500. As a result of this equilibrium level of income increases by 2000. Calculate the marginal propensity to consume.
Answer.

Question.22. Explain the meaning of deflationary gap with the help of a diagram.
Answer. See Q. 24, 2012 (Comptt. I Delhi).
Note: The following question is for BLIND CANDIDATES only in lieu of Q. No. 22.
Distinguish between inflationary gap and deflationary gap.
Answer.

Question.23. In the context of balance of payments account, state whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(i) Profits received from investments abroad is recorded in capital account.
(ii) Import of machines is recorded in current account.
Answer. (i) The statement is false. Profits received from investments abroad is a part of factor income which is included in exports and imports of services. It is recorded in current account as it neither affects foreign exchange assets nor foreign exchange liabilities. Therefore, the given statement is false.
(ii) The statement is true. Export and Import of goods, i.e., visible trade includes import of machines also which is a part of current account. Therefore, the given statement
is true.

Question.24. Describe the expenditure method of calculating Gross Domestic Product at market price.
Answer. In the final expenditure method of calculating national income, we take the sum of final expenditure on consumption and investment. This sum equals \(GD{ P }_{ MP }\). These final expenditures are on the output produced within the domestic territory of the country. Its main components are :
(i) Private final consumption expenditure.
(ii) Government final consumption expenditure.
(iii) Gross domestic capital formation.
(a) Gross domestic fixed capital formation
(b) Change in stock (Closing stock – Opening stock)
(iv) Net exports (Exports – Imports)
The following steps are involved in calculating National Income by Expenditure method:
1. Identify and classify the economic units incurring final expenditure into:
(a) household sector, (b) Government sector, (c) firms, (d) rest of the world.
2. Final expenditure incurred by these economic units is estimated and classified under the following heads, the sum of which gives us \(GD{ P }_{ MP }\).
\(GD{ P }_{ MP }\)= Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption expenditure + Gross domestic capital formation + Net exports.
Or
What precautions (any four) should be taken while estimating national Income by expenditure method.
Answer. Precautions of expenditure method:
(i) Avoid intermediate expenditure. Expenditure on intermediate goods is already included in final expenditure. If included again, it will lead to double counting.
(ii) Purchase of second hand goods will not be included as such expenditure has already been included when they were originally purchased.
However, Payment made for commission or brokerage on such goods is included as it is payment made for productive service.
(iii) Transfer payments are not included. Payments such as charities, donations etc. are – not connected with any productive activity and do not lead to any value addition. Therefore, they are excluded from national income.
(iv) Expenditure on own account production like production for self consumption, imputed value of owner occupied houses etc. will be included in national income, since, these are productive services.

Question.25. Calculate gross value added at factor cost.

Answer.

Question.26. The Government decides to give budgetary incentives to investors for making investments , in backward regions. Explain these possible incentives and the reasons for the same.
Answer. Government prepares the budget for fulfilling certain economic and social objectives. In order to achieve its various objectives, the government tries to adjust its resource allocation by providing more resources into socially productive sectors where private sector initiative is not forthcoming, e.g., public sanitation, rural electrification, etc. and drawn away resources from some other areas to promote balanced economic growth of regions.
In order to encourage investor for making investments in backward regions, the government can give the following budgetary incentives:
(i) Tax concessions and subsidies. There are many economy activities which are not undertaken by the private sector due to lack of profits, inadequate infrastructure, huge investment expenditure, etc. The government, through tax concessions and subsidies, can encourage the private sector to undertake production in public interest.
(ii) Liberal licensing rules. In India, establishment of SEZs (Special Economic Zones) is an important step towards the development of backward regions. Tax laws are more liberal in SEZs compared to other parts of the domestic economy. Liberal taxation laws and licensing rules along with infrastructural development makes SEZs an attractive investment destination. This contributes positively to balanced regional growth. Therefore, the government in its budget should provide for more SEZs.

Question.27. Explain any two functions of money.
Answer. Money performs following functions:
1. Unit of account. Unit of account refers to a common unit as a measure of value.
Money acts as a unit of account.
— It is used for quoting prices of goods and services and comparing the value.
— It is treated as the standard unit for borrowing and lending activities.
— It has made possible keeping of business accounts and thus facilitated trade.
— It has also led to the emergence of the banking system.
This function of money removes the problem of “absence of a common measure of value”, where value of each and every commodity had to be expressed in terms of all the other commodities in the market.
2. Store of value. Store of value function means storing assets for use in future. Money as a store of value means that an individual can hold his earnings until the time he wants to spend the same. The main advantages of holding money are:
— It can be easily exchanged for goods and services.
— It is easily portable.
— It comes in convenient denominations.
— It is not perishable and its storage costs are considerably lower.
This function of money removes the problem of “lack of store of value” as it is readily acceptable for exchange with other goods along with other advantages.
Or
Explain any two main functions of Central Bank.
Answer. The Central Bank is the apex institution of a country’s monetary system. Following are the two main functions performed by it:
(i) Bank of Issue. See Q. 23, 2015 (I Delhi).
(ii) Bankers’ Bank and Supervisor. See Q. 23, 2015 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.28. In an economy planned spending is greater than planned output. Explain all the changes that will take place in the economy.
Answer. Planned spending refers to people planning to purchase final goods and services during the year. Planned output means the production units planning to produce final goods and services during the year. An economy is in equilibrium when planned expenditure or spendings is equal to planned output, i.e.,
AD = AS or C +1 = Y
Consumption Expenditure + Investment Expenditure = Income Equilibrium condition implies that whatever is produced by firms is either consumed by households or invested by the firms. There is neither surplus nor shortage in the economy.
But if in an economy, planned spending is greater than planned output, i.e., AD > AS, the producers find the stock falling below the desired level then this means that consumer and firms together would be buying more goods than firms were producing. This would lead to an unplanned decrease in inventories. Firms would then expand production and . increase employment. As a result, output and income would increase. This process of increase in income will continue until the economy is in equilibrium where AD = AS.

Question.29. From the following data calculate (i) Gross national product at market price and (ii) Net national disposable income:

Answer.

SET II

Question.4. Describe the problem of ‘how to produce’.
Answer. See Q. 6, 2014 (Comptt. I Outside Delhi).

Question.7. Explain the changes that take place in total product and marginal product under increasing returns to a factor.
Answer. Increasing returns to a factor refers to the first phase of the law of variable proportions. In this phase, Total Product (TP) increases at an increasing rate and Marginal Product (MP) increases. The reason for this being that when units of the variable factor increases, efficient utilization of the fixed factors takes place due to specialization and division of labour. This increases the efficiency of the variable factor leading to increase in MP and thus TP also increases at an increasing rate.

Question.8. Explain the ‘inter-dependence of firms’ feature of oligopoly.
Answer. In an oligopoly market, a few firms dominate the market. Therefore, a change in price . and output by any individual firm is likely to influence the profits and output of the rival firms. This may invite reaction from the rival firms. Therefore, an individual firm must .

Question.6. Hie Government establishes a large number of Institutes of science and technology.How will it affect the production possibility frontier? Explain.
Answer. Production Possibility Frontier refers to a graphical representation of possible combination of two goods that can be produced with given resources and technology. A change in the productive capacity of the economy due to change in technology or resources will shift the PPF either towards left or right.
By establishing institutes of science and technology, the government is trying to improve productivity of the economy through promotion of skills and professional qualifications. A skilled and professionally qualified workforce combined with technological up gradation will ultimately lead to a rightward shift in the Production Possibility Frontier. Establishment of these institutes also signifies improvement in educational infrastructure which will further enhance the productive capacity of the economy.

Question.7. Explain the changes that take place in total product and marginal product under diminishing returns to a factor.
Answer. Diminishing returns to a factor signifies the second phase of the Law of Variable Proportions. In this phase, every additional variable factor employed adds lesser and lesser amount of output.
This means that:
TP increases at a diminishing rate and MP falls with increase in variable factor.
This phase ends when TP is maximum and MP is zero.
This happens because beyond the optimum combination of fixed and variable factors, every additional unit of a variable factor will bring in less than proportionate return. Also beyond a limit, it is not possible to substitute factors for each other. It is at this stage the law of diminishing returns sets in.

Question.8. Explain the significance of ‘barriers to entry’ feature of monopoly.
Answer. There exist strong barriers to entry of new firms in a monopoly market. These barriers may be due to legal restrictions like licensing or patent rights or due to restrictions created by firms in the form of cartel. Since the monopolist is the only producer, he can always exercise significant influence over market price by changing the supply. It makes the monopolist a price maker. As a result, a monopoly firm can earn abnormal profits and losses in the long run.
Or
Explain the significance of ‘product differentiation’ feature of monopolistic competition.
Answer. Product differentiation refers to differentiating the products on the basis of brand, size, colour, shape, etc. making the products of different firms close but not perfect substitutes of each other. This differentiation helps the buyers to differentiate between the same product produced by different firms. Therefore, they are willing to pay different prices for such differentiated products. This gives monopoly power to an individual firm to fix and charge a price higher than its competitor. –

Question.9. Explain with the help of a numerical example, the meaning of diminishing marginal rate of substitution.
Answer. See Q. 14(Or), 2014 (I Outside Delhi). [Page 281
Or
Explain the Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility with the help of an example.
Answer. See Q. 7, 2013 (Comptt. I Outside Delhi). [Page 254

Question.10. Explain the difference between ‘change in demand’ and ‘change in quantity demanded’.
Answer.

Question.11. Explain the effect of the following on market supply of good:
(i) Increase in input prices (ii) Reduction in per unit tax.
Answer. (i) Increase in input prices. Change in price of raw material and remuneration of factors ; (rent, wages, interest and profit) influence the cost of production of a commodity and thereby its Supply. An increase in price of inputs will increase the cost of production leading to a reduction in profit. This will make the producer reduce the supply of the commodity, shifting the supply curve to the left.
(ii) Reduction in per unit tax. Government levies various taxes on production of goods, .g., excise duty, etc. Such taxes influence supply because it adds to the cost of production. Reduction in per unit tax levied by the government will decrease the cost of production and increase supply by the firms due to higher profit-margins. In this case the supply curve will shift towards the right.
Or
State the relationship between:
(i) Marginal cost and average variable cost (ii) Total cost and marginal cost
Answer. (i) Relationship between MC and AVC. See Q. 10, 2015 (I Delhi).
(ii) Relationship between TC and MC. See Q. 8(Or), 2014 (I Delhi).

Question.12. Explain the effect of the following on the demand for a good:
(i) Increase in income of its consumer.
(ii) Rise in price of its substitute good.
Answer. (i) Increase in income of its consumer:
(a) In case of normal good. If the commodity is normal, an increase in the income of its buyer will increase the demand for that good at the same price and shift the demand curve to the right. Example, if the income of the consumer increases and he reduces consumption of toned milk and increases consumption of full cream milk. Then in this case, full cream milk is a normal good which is showing positive income effect.
(b) In case of inferior good. With increase in the income of the consumer, price remaining the same, the demand for an inferior good will decrease shifting the demand curve towards left. In the above mentioned example, toned milk is an inferior good whose demand decreases due to increase in consumer income, its price remaining unchanged.
(ii) Rise in price of its substitute good: Substitute goods are those goods which can be used in place of one another for satisfaction of a particular want like tea and coffee. An increase in the price of a substitute leads to an increase in the demand of the given commodity and vice versa, e.g., if price of a substitute (coffee) increases, then demand for the given commodity (tea) will rise as it will become relatively cheaper in comparison to coffee. This will lead to a rightward shift in the demand curve of tea.

Question.13. Giving reasons, state whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) The supply curve of a good shifts to the right when prices of other goods rise.
(ii) The difference between average cost and average variable cost is always constant.
Answer. (i) The statement is false. Increase in prices of other goods makes their production
more profitable for the producer. As a result the firm shifts its resources .from production of the given commodity to the production of other goods. A decline in the supply of the given commodity will shift its supply curve toward left and not towards right.
(ii) The statement is false. The difference between average cost and average variable cost is equal to average fixed cost.
Average fixed cost is calculated by dividing total fixed cost by total output.
\(AFC=\frac { TFC }{ Q } \)
As TFC remain same at all levels of output. Therefore, AFC will fall with increase in output and not remain constant.

Question.14. Explain with the help of a diagram the chain of effects of a rightward shift in demand curve of a good on its equilibrium price, quantity demanded and supplied.
Answer. As shown in the diagram, market demand curve DD and marked supply curve SS intersect each other at point E, which is the market equilibrium where OP is the equilibrium price and OQ the equilibrium quantity.
An increase in demand (assuming no change in supply) leads to a rightward shift in demand curve from DD to D1D1.
When demand increases, it creates an excess demand (equal to EA) at the old equilibrium price of OP. This leads to- competition between buyers which increases the price. Increase in price leads to rise in supply (expansion in supply) and fall in demand (contraction in demand). These changes continue till new equilibrium is established at point Ea where the equilibrium price rises from OP to OP1 and equilibrium quantity rises from OQ to OQ1

Note: The following question is for BLIND CANDIDATES only in lieu of Q. No. 14 .
Explain the meaning of excess demand of a good. Explain its chain of effects on equilibrium price.
Answer. Excess demand means market demand exceeds market supply at a price which is less than the equilibrium price. In other words, excess demand refers to a situation where quantity demanded is more than quantity supplied at the prevailing market price.Chain of effects. Same as Q. 14 (above).

SECTION B
Question.15. Who regulates money supply? (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) Government of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Commercial Banks
(d) Planning Commission
Answer. (b) Reserve Bank of India.

Question.16. What are demand deposits?
Ans. Demand deposits are the deposits which can be withdrawn from banks on demand by writing cheques.

Question.17. Which of the following is not a revenue receipt? (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) Recovery of loans
(b) Foreign grants
(c) Profits of public enterprises
(d) Wealth tax
Answer. (a) Recovery of loans

Question.18. Which of the following is a correct measure of primary deficit? (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) Fiscal deficit minus revenue deficit
(b) Revenue deficit minus interest payments
(c) Fiscal deficit minus interest payments
(d) Capital expenditure minus revenue expenditure
Answer. (c) Fiscal deficit minus interest payments

Question.19. Which of the following is a stock? (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) Wealth (b) Saving (c) Exports (d) Profit
Answer. (a) Wealth

Question.20. Describe any three sources of demand for foreign exchange.
Answer. Sources of demand for foreign exchange. See Q. 21, 2015 (Comptt. I Delhi).
Or
Give the meanings of ‘devaluation and depreciation’ of domestic currency.
Answer. Devaluation. It refers to reduction in price of domestic currency in terms of foreign currency under fixed exchange rate regime. This is done by the government, e.g., if the rupee-dollar exchange rate changes from 1$ = Rs 55 to 1$ = Rs 60, it denotes devaluation of rupee.
Depreciation. It refers to fall in value of domestic currency in terms of foreign currency under flexible exchange rate regime (market determined rate of exchange).
The effect of depreciation is the same as devaluation except that it taken place due to market forces of demand and supply.

Question.21. In an economy investment increases from 300 to 500. As a result of this equilibrium level of income increases by 2000. Calculate the marginal propensity to consume.
Answer.

Question.22. Explain the meaning of deflationary gap with the help of a diagram.
Answer. See Q. 24, 2012 (Comptt. I Delhi).
Note: The following question is for BLIND CANDIDATES only in lieu of Q. No. 22.
Distinguish between inflationary gap and deflationary gap.
Answer.

Question.23. In the context of balance of payments account, state whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(i) Profits received from investments abroad is recorded in capital account.
(ii) Import of machines is recorded in current account.
Answer. (i) The statement is false. Profits received from investments abroad is a part of factor income which is included in exports and imports of services. It is recorded in current account as it neither affects foreign exchange assets nor foreign exchange liabilities! Therefore, the given statement is false.
(ii) The statement is true. Export and Import of goods, i.e., visible trade includes import of machines also which is a part of current account. Therefore, the given statement is true.

Question.24. Describe the expenditure method of calculating Gross Domestic Product at market price.
Answer. In the final expenditure method of calculating national income, we take the sum of final expenditure on consumption and investment. This sum equals \(GD{ P }_{ MP }\). These final expenditures are on the output produced within the domestic territory of the country. Its main components are
(i) Private final consumption expenditure
(ii) Government final consumption expenditure.
(iii) Gross domestic capital formation
(a) Gross domestic fixed capital formation
(b) Change in stock (Closing stock – Opening stock)
(iv) Net exports (Exports – Imports)
The following steps are involved in calculating National Income by Expenditure method:
1. Identify and classify the economic units incurring final expenditure into:
(a) household sector, (b) Government sector, (c) firms, (d) rest of the world.
2. Final expenditure incurred by these economic units is estimated and classified under the following heads, the sum of which gives us \(GD{ P }_{ MP }\).
\(GD{ P }_{ MP }\) = Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption expenditure + Gross domestic capital formation + Net exports.
Or
What precautions (any four) should be taken while estimating national income by expenditure method.
Answer. Precautions of expenditure method:
(i) Avoid intermediate expenditure. Expenditure on intermediate goods is already included in final expenditure. If included again, it will lead to double counting.
(ii) Purchase of second hand goods will not be, included as such expenditure has already been included when they were originally purchased.
However, Payment made for commission or brokerage on such goods is included as it is payment made for productive service.
(iii) Transfer payments are not included. Payments such as charities, donations etc. are not connected with any productive activity and do not lead to any value addition. Therefore, they are excluded from national income.
(iv) Expenditure on own account production like production for self consumption, imputed value of owner occupied houses etc. will be included in national income, since, these are productive services.

Question.25. Calculate gross value added at factor cost.

Answer.

Question.26. The Government decides to give budgetary incentives to investors for making investments in backward regions. Explain these possible incentives and the reasons for the same.
Answer. Government prepares the budget for fulfilling certain economic and social objectives. In order to achieve its various objectives, the government tries to adjust its resource allocation by providing more resources into socially productive sectors where private sector initiative is not forthcoming, e.g., public sanitation, rural electrification, etc. and drawn away resources from some other areas to promote balanced economic growth of regions.
In order to encourage investor for making investments in backward regions, the government can give the following budgetary incentives:
(i) Tax concessions and subsidies. There are many economy activities which are not undertaken by the private sector due to lack of profits, inadequate infrastructure, huge investment expenditure, etc. The government, through tax concessions and subsidies, can encourage the private sector to undertake production in public interest.
(ii) Liberal licensing rules. In India, establishment of SEZs (Special Economic Zones) is an important step towards the development of backward regions. Tax laws are more liberal in SEZs compared to other parts of the domestic economy. Liberal taxation laws and licensing rules along with infrastructural development makes SEZs an attractive investment destination. This contributes positively to balanced regional growth. Therefore, the government in its budget should provide for more SEZs.

Question.27. Explain any two functions of money.
Answer. Money performs following functions:
1. Unit of account. Unit of account refers to a common unit as a measure of value. Money acts as-a unit of account.
— It is used for quoting prices of goods and services and comparing the value.
— It is treated as the standard unit for borrowing and lending activities.
— It has made possible keeping of business accounts and thus facilitated trade.
— It has also led to the emergence of the banking system.
This function of money removes the problem of “absence of a common measure of value”, where value of each and every commodity had to be expressed in terms of all the other commodities in the market.
2. Store of value. Store of value function means storing assets for use in future. Money as a store of value means that an individual can hold his earnings until the time he wants to spend the same. The main advantages of holding money are:
— It can be easily exchanged for goods and services.
— It is easily portable.
— It comes in convenient denominations.
— It is not perishable and its storage costs are considerably lower.
This function of money removes the problem of “lack of store of value” as it is readily acceptable for exchange with other goods along with other advantages.
Or
Explain any two main functions of Central Bank.
Answer. The Central Bank is the apex institution of a country’s monetary system. Following are the two main functions performed by it:
(i) Bank of Issue. See Q. 23, 2015 (I Delhi). [Page 326
(ii) Bankers’ Bank and Supervisor. See Q. 23, 2015 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.28. In an economy planned spending is greater than planned output. Explain all the changes that will take place in the economy.
Answer. Planned spending refers to people planning to purchase final goods and services during the year. Planned output means the production units planning to produce final goods : and services during the year. An economy is in equilibrium when planned expenditure or spendings is equal to planned output, i.e., AD = AS or C +1 = Y
Consumption Expenditure + Investment Expenditure = Income Equilibrium condition implies that whatever is produced by firms is either consumed by households or invested by the firms. There is neither surplus nor shortage in the economy.
But if in an economy, planned spending is greater than planned output, i.e., AD > AS, the producers find the stock falling below the desired level then this means that consumer and firms together would be buying more goods than firms were producing. This would lead to an unplanned decrease in inventories. Firms would then expand production and increase employment. As a result, output and income would increase. This process of increase in income will continue until the economy is in equilibrium where AD = AS.

Question.29. From the following data calculate (i) Gross national product at market price and (ii) Net national disposable income:

Answer.

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Compartment Outside Delhi -2015 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Compartment Delhi 2010

Time allowed : 3  hours                                                                                         Maximum marks 100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
(i) All questions in both the sections are compulsory.
(ii) Marks for questions are indicated against each.
(iii) Questions No. 1-5 and 17-21 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 nick each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
(iv) Questions No. 6-10 and 22-26 are? short-answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
(v) Questions No. 11-13 and 27-29 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
(vi) Questions No. 14-16 and 30-32 are long-answers questions carrying 6 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
(vii) Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit should be adhered to as far as possible.

SET I

SECTION A

Question.1. What is an economy.
Answer. An economy is a system which provides people with the means to work and earn their livelihood.

Question.2. Give meaning of consumer’s equilibrium.
Answer. Consumer’s equilibrium refers to the optimum combination of two goods which, gives a consumer maximum satisfaction given his income and prices of the two goods.

Question.3. What are monotonic preferences?
Answer. Consumer’s preferences are monotonic if and only if between two bundles, consumer prefers the bundle which has more of at least one of the goods and no less of the other good as compared to the other bundle.

Question.4. Define marginal cost.
Answer. Marginal cost is the change in the total cost that takes place when an additional unit of output is produced. In short,
MC = \({ TC }_{ n }\)–\({ TC }_{ n-1 }\)

Question.5. Define oligopoly.
Answer. Oligopoly is a market situation where there are few sellers of the commodity and the demand is indeterminate.

Question.6. Explain the difference between a planned economy and a market economy.
Answer. A market economy is an economic system based on private property and private profit. In this economy there is freedom of enterprise and all economic activities are guided by profit motive. Central problems are solved through price mechanism.
A planned economy, also known as a socialist economy, is an economic system where there is public ownership of property. In this system there is no economic freedom of enterprise. All central problems are solved by a central planning authority constituted by. the government. This authority has complete control on all the economic activities. Central problems are solved keeping in view the welfare of the people.
(or)
Explain properties of a production possibility curve.
Answer. A production possibility curve refers to different combinations of two goods that can be produced fully utilising die given resources in an economy under given technological conditions.
The main features of PP-curve are:
(i) The shape of PP curve is concave to the origin. It is because the marginal rate of transformation or marginal opportunity cost is increasing. This means the Quantity of good Y which is sacrificed or given up for obtaining an additional unit of good X increases. See diagram.

(ii) Given the full utilisation of resources, and technological conditions, all efficient combinations will lie on the PP frontier. In other words, any point (or combination) inside the PP frontier will indicate that either the resources are not fully utilised or inefficiently use.

Question.7.Explain by giving an example.
Answer. The demand for a commodity will be very elastic if some other commodities can be used in place of it. A small rise in‘the price of such a commodity will induce consumers to use its substitutes. When a commodity has large number of close substitutes, demand for it is usually very elastic. For example, gas, kerosene oil, coal, etc. will be used more as fuel if the price of wood increases. On the other hand, the demand of such commodities is inelastic which have no substitutes such as salt.

Question.8. What is an ‘inferior’ good? In what manner is the demand curve of such a good affected when income of the consumer increases?Use diagram.
Answer. Inferior goods are those goods whose demand decreases with rise in the level of income. Therefore when the income of the consumer increases the demand for inferior good decreases as shown in the diagram, in the given situation, DD curve shifts u Quantity to DJDJ curve.

Question.9. Explain any two causes of’decrease’ in supply of a commodity.
Answer. Decrease in supply means decrease in the quantity supplied of a commodity because of factors other than change in the price. The two factors which cause decrease in the supply are:
(i) Government levies tex on every unit : of a commodity sold or bought. Due to levy of taxes, cost of production increases. By implication; “supply decreases at the same price.
(ii) Increase in the price of factor inputs leads to an increase in the cost of production which adversely affects the supply of a commodity. With the result that supply of a commodity will be less at the same price, i.e supply will decrease.

The effect of these two factors, causing decrease in supply, becomes evident by looking at the diagrams.

Question.10.Explain why the equilibrium price of a commodity is determined at that level of output at which its demand equals its supply?
Answer.Equilibrium price is defined as the price at which the consumers are willing to buy the same quantity of a good which the producers are willMg to sell.
• The two opposite forces determining the price of a good are demand and supply,
• Demand for a good is inversely related to price i.e. when the price falls the demand for that good rises and vice versa.
• Supply of a good is directly related to its price, This means that producers are willing to supply more only at a higher price.
• Diagrammatically- equilibrium price is determined at the intersection of demand and supply curves.
• If market price is not the same as equilibrium price
the Quantity demanded will not be equal to Quantity supplied.
Such a situation would lead to interaction between demand and supply in such a manner that price has a tendency to move towards equilibrium.

Question.ll. On the basis of the following schedule, calculate price elasticity of demand by the percentage method:

Answer.

Question.12. A producer can sell any quantity of output of the good he produces at a given price.
Prepare a Total Revenue and Marginal Revenue Schedule for four output levels.
Answer. Let us assume that die given price is Rs. 5 per unit. On this basis total revenue and marginal revenue at four output levels will be as given in the schedule:

Question.13. What is the likely behaviour of Total Product when only one input is increased for increasing production? Use diagram.
Answer. This question relates to the production function related to a short period where for increasing total product, units of a variable factor (one input) are increased. In short, this question pertains to the law of variable proportions. As shown in the diagram, total product passes through three phases:
(i) Total product increases at increasing rate, when marginal , product is increasing.
(ii) Total product increases when marginal product is positive but decreasing.
(iii) Total product starts decreasing. This happens when
marginal product becomes negative. Total product is maximum when marginal product is zero (see diagram). units

Or
what is the likely behaviour of Marginal Product when only one input is increased for increasing production? Use diagram.
Answer. This question relates to the production faction related to a short period where, for increasing total product units of a variable factor (one input), are increased. In short this question pertains to law of variable proportions. As shown in the diagram, marginal product passes through three phases:

(i) Marginal product increases. It is because of the fact that fixed inputs are better utilised.
(ii) Marginal product starts declining and becomes zero.
(iii) Marginal product becomes negative. However, no firm operates in this phase. Every firm operates during second stage wtere MP is dedining fsee diagram).

Question.14. Explain the conditions of consumer’s equilibrium using Indifference Curve Analysis. Use diagram.
Answer. See Q. 14,2010 (I Delhi)

Question.15. Is a producer in equilibrium under the following situations?
(i) When marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost.
(ii) When marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost Give reasons for your answer.
Answer. (i) Producer will not be in a position of equilibrium when marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost. As shown in die diagram (i), in this stage the producer foregoes
profit amount equal to \(\Delta\)EFM when his output is OQ1 Therfore his output should be OQ where marginal cost = marginal revenue. We have explained this case taking the example of a competititve firm (see diagram).Output


(ii) Marginal revenue (MR) befog equal to marginal cost (MC) is a necessary but not sufficient condition for the equilibrium. The sufficient condition is that at the equilibrium/ the MC should be rising. Thus the firm may or may not be at the equilibrium when MR = MC. fo the adjacent diagram, MR = MC at both the points A and B but the equilibrium occurs at point B.

Question.16. Explain the implications of the following features of a perfectly competitive market:
(i) large number of buyers
(ii) large number of sellers.
Answer. (i) The number of buyers under perfect competition is very large. The number is so large that no individual buyer can influence the demand in the market. It is an important factor highlighting the fact that price fo perfect competition is the same for all buyers and sellers.
(ii) The number of sellers is very large under perfect competition. The number is so large that no seller can influence the supply. The share of each seller in the total-market supply is so small that no single seller can influence the price and has to sell the product at the price given by the industry. On the prevailing market price, a firm can sell as much as it likes.

SECTION B
Question.17.Define final product.
Answer.A final product is that which is used for consumption and investment purposes.

Question.18.Define money supply.
Answer.Money supply is the stock of money in circulation at a particular point of time. It includes currency with the public and demand deposits.

Question.19.What are time deposits?
Answer.Those deposits which cannot be withdrawn before the expiry of the stipulated time period for which they are made are called time deposits. Generally the term for these deposits is more than 15 days.

Question.20.What is a ‘revenue expenditure’ in a government budget?
Answer.Expenditure which does not lead to creation of any asset or discharge of any liability is called revenue expenditure such as payment of salaries.

Question.21.Name two ‘invisibles’ of the balance of payments account.
Answer.Insurance and banking.

Question.22.In an economy, the ratio of average propensity to consume and average propensity to save is 5 : 3. The level of income is 6000. How much are the savings? Calculate.
Answer.

Question.23. In an economy, as a result of increase in investment by Rs. 100 crams, national income rises by Rs. 1,000 crores. Find marginal propensity to consume.
Answer.

Question.24. Distinguish between capital receipts and revenue receipts in a government budget. Give an example of each.
Answer. See Q. 26, 2008, 1 Delhi

Question.25. What are autonomous and accommodating transactions in the Balance of Payments account? Give an example of each.
Answer. See Q. 25, 2010, III Delhi

Question.26. Give meanings of fixed, flexible and managed floating exchange rates.
Answer. Fixed and Flexible Exchange Rate: See Q. 26, 2010, II Outside Delhi
Managed floating Exchange Rate: Managed floating is a hybrid of fixed and flexible exchange rates. It is characterised by some intervention in exchange rate movement by monetary authorities. However, intervention is discretionary.

Question.27. Explain why subsidies are added to and indirect taxes deducted from domestic product at market price to arrive at domestic product at factor cost.
Answer. Subsidy is a grant which is given to the producer by the government with the objective that the prices paid by the consumers may be kept low. Subsidies do not involve any burden on the producer like indirect tax rather it is a grant given to the producers. Therefore it is not connected directly with the cost of production, hence not included in the cost like indirect tax. Since it is a grant, therefore it is subtracted from net indirect tax. In short, net indirect tax is the difference of indirect tax and subsidy.
Or
Giving reason, explain how are the following treated in estimating national income by the  income method:
(i) Interest on a car loan paid by an individual.
(ii) Interest on a car loan paid by a government-owned company.
Answer. (i) Interest on a car loan paid by an individual is included in the national income because it is taken for consumption purposes.
(ii) It will be included in the national income whether it is taken for consumption purpose or investment purpose.

Question.28. Calculate ‘Net National Disposable Income’ and ‘Personal Income’ from the following data:

Answer.

Question.29. What is the revenue deficit? Explain its implications.
Answer. Revenue deficit may be defined as the excess of total revenue expenditure of the government over its total revenue receipts.
Revenue Deficit = Total Revenue Expenditure – Total Revenue Receipts Expenditure incurred on the payments of salaries, pensions, interests etc. and maintenance ot services like administrative services and defence services are examples of revenue expenditures. The sources of revenue receipts are tax revenue and non-tax revenue. Implications:
• If there is a revenue deficit, finis means that there is a gap between revenue expenditure and revenue receipts. This gap is to be breached by the surplus of capital budget which involves incurring liabilities or reduction in assets.
• High revenue deficit gives a warning to the government either to cut its expenditure or to increase its tax/non-tax receipts.
• Revenue deficit indicates the fiscal policy of the government. Its simple implication is that fine government is financing its normal expenditure through loans other than normal income.

Question.30. Calculate National Income by the (a) expenditure method and (b) production method from the following data:

Answer.

Question.31. Explain the process of money creation by commercial banks with the help of a numerical example.
Answer. See Q. 27, 2010 (I Delhi)

Question.32. Define and represent ‘inflationary gap’ on a diagram. Explain the role of the ‘varying reserves requirement’ in removing the gap.
Answer. Inflationary gap relates to a situation of excess demand. In such a case, real aggregate demand at the full employment level is more than the aggregate demand which is required to maintain the full employment level. The excess of real aggregate demand over fie full employment level aggregate demand is called inflationary gap. In other words gap is the measure of excess demand.
The concept of inflationary gap can be explained with the help of the given diagram. At full employment level OZ, real aggregate demand is GZ, whereas aggregate demand required to maintain the full employment is FZ. Thus, real aggregate demand exceeds by FG and this is inflationary gap or measure of excess demand.
For removing excess demand, central bank should limit the credit creating capacity of commercial banks. For attaining this objective, reserve ratio should be increased so that the banks are required- to-maintain more cash reserves with the central bank and thus are able to create less credit. So decline in credit availability in the economy will tend to reduce AD and remove the inflationary gap.

Or
How is ‘saving and investment’ approach derived from the ‘aggregate demand and supply’ approach of income determination? Use diagram.
Answer. The equilibrium level of national income is determined at the point where aggregate demand (AD) equals aggreage supply (AS)
AD = AS …(1)
In a two sector Economy aggreage demand (Expenditure) is on consumption (C) and Investment (I) and aggregate supply is value of flow of goods and services (national income) which is either consumed or saved
C + I = C + S as C + I = AD and C + S = AS
I = S or S = I …(2)

Equation (1) and (2) are the two approaches for basic equilibrium for determination of national income.
At the equilibrium level of national income actual saving and investment are also equal. This implies that at equilibrium level of income, the part of income which is left after consumption is demanded by business firms for investment.
At equilibrium level of income, equality of aggregate supply (AS) and aggregate demand (AD) and that of S and I can be explained with the help of the diagram given.
In the diagram, OY is aggregate supply line and (C + I) is aggregate demand line which intersect each other at point E where equilibrium level of income is \({ OY }_{ E }\). In the same diagram saving (SS) and investment (\({ I }_{ 0 }\)I) lines intersect at point R, where the level of income is \({ OY }_{ E }\). Therefore, at \({ OY }_{ E }\) level of income AS is equal to AD and S is equal to I.

SET II

Note : Except for the follounng questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I.
SECTION A
Question.6. When will a good be called inferior or normal? Explain by giving an example.
Answer. If demand for a good increases when income of the consumer increases, die good is a normal good; for example, milk. On the other hand, if the increase in the income of a consumer leads to a fall in the demand of a good, that good is called as inferior; for example toned milk.

Question.9. Explain the relation between Marginal Revenue and Average Revenue.
Answer. (i) When AR is declining, AR is greater than MR. This is the case of monopoly mid monopolistic competition, (diagram (i))
(ii) When AR is constant throughout, MR is equal to AR. This is a case of perfect competition (diagram(ii))

Question.10. Explain the changes that will take place when in a market the demand for a good is greater than its supply at the prevailing price.
Answer. Quantity demanded and supplied will be equal in the case of equilibrium. However, if at the prevailing price demand is greater than supply, then either the demand should decrease or supply should increase, so that there may be equality between supply and demand.

According to the diagram, equilibrium price is OP and equilibrium quantity is OQ. However, if the prevailing price happens to be OPj, demand will be more than supply. As such there will be excess demand (FG). Therefore, for bringing equality between supply and demand, demand needs to be increased and supply decreased.

Question.12. From the following schedule, calculate price elasticity of demand by comparing total expenditures on the good:

Answer.

Since expenditure before and after the change in price remains the same therefore it is unitary elastic, Ed = 1.

SECTION B
Question.18. Define capital expenditure.
Answer. Capital expenditure. An expenditure which leads to creation of assets or reduction in liabilities is called capital expenditure. For Example, expenditure bn acquisition of assets like land, building, equipment, investment in shares etc.

Question.23. If marginal propensity to save is one, what is the value of multiplier? What can you say about the change in national income, given change in investment?
Answer.

Question.29. Calculate ‘Gross National Disposable Income’ and ‘Personal Disposable Income’ from the – following data:

Answer.

Question.31. Calculate Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost by (a) income method and (b) production method from the following data:

Answer.
Net value added at market price by primary sector + Net value added at market price by the secondary sector + Net value added at market price by the tertiary sector – Net indirect tax = (i) + (iv) + (vii) – (xi)
= 1000 + 600 + 1400 – 200
= 3,000 – 200 = Rs. 2,800 crores
NDPFC by income method
Wages and salaries + Social security contributions by employers + Corporation tax + Retained earnings of private corporations + Dividend + Rent + Interest = (ii) + (iii) + (v) + (vi) + (viii) + (ix) + (x)
= 2000 + 100 + 30 + 10 + 60 + 300 + 300 = Rs. 2,800 crores

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Compartment Delhi 2010 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Compartment Outside Delhi -2010

Time allowed : 3  hours                                                                                         Maximum marks 100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1.  All questions in both the sections are compulsory.
2. Marks for questions are indicated against each.
3. Questions No. 1-5 and 17-21 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 nick each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
4.  Questions No. 6-10 and 22-26 are? short-answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
5.  Questions No. 11-13 and 27-29 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
6.  Questions No. 14-16 and 30-32 are long-answers questions carrying 6 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
7.  Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit should be adhered to as far as possible.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1. Define production possibilities curve.
Answer. Production possibility curve is a curve which graphically represents various combinations of two commodities which can be produced with the available resources and technology.

Question.2. What is an indifference map?
Answer. An indifference map contains more than one indifference curve representing different levels of satisfaction.

Question.3. Define utility.
Answer. Utility is the want satisfying power of a commodity or a service.

Question.4. Give two examples of fixed  cost
Answer. Two examples of fixed cost are:
(i) rent of the building; .
(ii) salary of the security guard posted at the gate.

Question.5. Give meaning of monopolistic competition.
Answer. Monopolistic competition is a market situation where there is a large number of buyers and few sellers and the products are differentiated on the basic of colour, packing, brand etc.

Question.6. Explain the meanings of positive economics and normative economics.
Answer. (Out of syllabus for 2012 examination  and  on wards)
Or
Explain the problem of ‘how to produce’.
Answer. See Q. 10, 2008 (U Delhi)

Question.7. Explain the effect of rise in income of a consumer on his demand for a good.
Answer. Consumer’s income influences the demand for commodities. As a result of increasing income, other things remaining the same, demand increases at the same price, with the result that demand curve shifts towards right as shown in the diagram. When rise in income is the cause of increase in demand for a commodity, then it is called a normal good, e.g., fruits.
However, in case of inferior goods, rise in income of the consumer will reduce the demand for inferior good’s e.g., millets, coarse cloth.

Question.8. What is law of demand? Prepare a demand schedule based on the law of demand.
Answer. Law of demand states that quantity demanded of a commodity is inversely related to the price of the commodity, other things being constant. This means that when price falls, demand for the commodity increases and vice-versa. The inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded can be explained with the help of a demand schedule.

According to die schedule, when price is Rs. 6, demand is 15 units end when price increases to Rs. 8, demand falls to 10 units. According to the diagram, demand curve DD slopes downwards to right indicating that when price falls demand increases and vice-versa.

Question.9. What is ‘increase in supply’? State any two factors that can causerie.
Answer. Increase in supply means more supply because of the changes in factors other than price. In the case of increase in supply, as indicated in the diagram, supply curve shifts towards right. The two factors, which can cause increase in supply, are:
(i) fall in the price of inputs, and
(ii) improvement in the technology.

Question.10. Given equilibrium in the^market, explain the chain of effects of ‘increase’ in demand of a good.
Answer. Chain of effects when demand for commodity X increases as supply remains unchanged,
• there would be excess demand, at the given price.
• As a result supply starts expanding due to law of supply.
• Due to rise in price, demand starts contracting as per the law of demand.
These changes continue till the new equilibrium price is established where demand equals supply.
Therefore, the equilibrium price rises and equilibrium quantity also increases.

Question.11. Calculate price elasticity of demand by the percentage method:

Answer.

Question.12. A producer can sell more of a good only by lowering the price. Prepare a Total Revenue and Marginal Revenue Schedule. Take four output levels.
Answer.

Or
A producer can sell more of a good at the same price. Prepare a Total Revenue and Marginal Revenue Schedule. Take four output levels.
Answer. See Q. 12, 2010 (I Comptt. Delhi)

Question.13. Prepare a Marginal Product Schedule when for increasing production only one input is increased. Indicate the phases of the Law of Variable Proportions.
Answer. See Q. 15, 2008 (I Delhi)

Question.14. A consumer consumes only two goods. Explain the conditions of consumer’s equilibrium with the help of Indifference curve analysis.
Answer. See Q. 14, 2010 (I Delhi)

Question.15. Explain the ‘Marginal Cost and Marginal Revenue’ approach for producer’s equilibrium With the help of a schedule.
Answer. See Q. 16 (Or), 2010 (I Delhi)

Question.16. Explain the implications of the following features of a perfectly competitive market:
(i) Perfect knowledge about the market of the good.
(ii) Perfect knowledge about the inputs used in the production of the good
Answer. (i) In a perfectly competitive market, the number of buyers and sellers is very large and all the buyers and sellers have complete knowledge about the market. With the result no individual buyer or seller can influence the price in the market.
(ii) Another important characteristic of perfect competition is that products are homogeneous and carry the same price. By implication, this means the cost of the inputs used by the producers will be same. As a result of this all the sellers have perfect  knowledge about the inputs used in the production.
Or
Explain the implications of the following two features of oligopoly  market:
(i) Few firms
(ii) Barriers to the entry of firms
Answer. (i) Few firms: There are few sellers of the commodity and each sells ,a substantial portion of the output of the industry. The implication of this feature is that the demand curve faced by each firm is downward sloping indicating that each firm has : substantial power to influence the price or output.
(ii) Barriers to the entry of firms: Barriers to the entry of firms can be natural like requirements of huge capital or operating at minimum average cost or. artificial barriers due to patent rights which “‘prevent entry of new firms in the industry.

SECTION B
Question.17. Define capital goods.
Answer. Those goods which are man-made and are used for further production are Capital Goods, such as machines.

Question.18. Name the two components of money supply.
Answer. The two components of money supply are currency with the public and demand deposits.

Question.19. What are demand deposits?
Answer. Demand deposits are those bank deposits which can be withdrawn by the depositors at any time they want.

Question.20. Define ‘revenue receipts’ in a government budget.
Answer. Revenue receipts are those which government obtains without incurring any liability or reducing any asset, such as tax revenue.

Question.21. What is trade balance ?
Answer. Trade balance, also known as balance of trade refers to the difference in the value of imports and exports of visible items only, i.e., material goods.

Question.22. In an economy, the consumption expenditure is Rs 8,750 crores and the ratio of average propensity to consume and average propensity to save is 7 : 1. Calculate the level of income in the economy.
Answer.

Question.23. In an economy, investment is increased by Rs 2,000 crores. Calculate the change in total income, if marginal propensity to save is 0.25.
Answer.

Question.24. Give the meaning of revenue expenditure and capital expenditure. Give one example of each.
Answer. See Q. 26, 2008 (I Outside Delhi)
Or
Explain ‘reducing inequalities’ objective of a government budget.
Answer.’See Q. 24, 2009 (I Delhi)

Question.25. Explain the concept of ‘surplus’ in the: balance of payments account.
Answer. The balance of payments is in surplus if the autonomous receipts are greater than autonomous payments. This means that the domestic country has some net claims against the foreign country.

Question.26. What is meant by appreciation and depreciation of domestic currency? Explain.
Answer. In currency, depreciation, there is a fall in the value of domestic currency in terms of foreign currency. In currency appreciation, there is a rise in the value of domestic currency in terms of foreign currency.

Question.27. Distinguish between ‘intermediate and final goods’. Give two examples of each.
Answer. See Q. 25 (Or), 2009 (I Delhi)
Or
Giving reason, explain how are the following treated in estimation of national income by the income method:
(i) Interest paid by banks of depositors.
(ii) National debt interest.
Answer. (i) Interest paid by banks to the depositors is included, because it is the income earned by the depositors and the Banks use these deposits for business purposes.
(ii) National debt interest is not included, as the government takes the loan for both productive and non-productive purposes: It is a transfer payment, hence it is not included.

Question.28. Calculate Gross National Disposable Income and Personal Income:

Answer.

Question.29. What is a government budget? Explain the meanings of fiscal deficit and primary deficit?
Answer. Government budget: “A government budget is an annual financial statement showing item- wise estimates of expected revenue and anticipated expenditure during a fiscal year.” It is a statement of estimates of government receipts and expenditure. Budget estimates pertain to a fixed period, generally a year.
Fiscal Deficit: It is the excess of total expenditure over total receipts Of the government. Fiscal Deficit = Total or Budget Expenditure – Total or Budget Receipts other than borrowings
Fiscal deficit is estimated to know about the extent of borrowing by the government. Primary Deficit : Primary deficit is measured by fiscal deficit less interest payments on previous borrowings.
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest payments Primary deficit indicates the amount of borrowing the government is going to meet its expenses other than interest payments.

Question.30. Calculate ‘Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost’ by the expenditure method and the production method:

Answer.

Question.31. Explain the process of deposit creation by the commercial banks with the help of a numerical example.
Answer. Commercial banks accept deposits from the general public known as primary deposits and , keeping a percentage of these deposits in reserve (known as Legal Reserve Ratio), advance the balance of the deposits to other customers. While advancing them loans banks deposit the amount in their accounts and again keeping a percentage of the deposits (Legal Reserve Ratio), further advance the balance amount to others. This process continues and is known as credit creation by banks. In this way banks create credit many times more than the primary deposits.
The phenomenon of credit creation can be explained by taking a hypothetical example, where primary deposit is Rs 1000 and legal, reserve ratio (LRR) is 20%. Say, Mr A deposits Rs 1000. Keeping Rs 200 (20%) in reserve, the balance of Rs 800 is advanced as loan to B. Keeping Rs 160.(20% of Rs 800) in reserve, the balance of Rs 640 is advanced as loan to C. This process continues and finally total deposits created are Rs 5,000, i.e. 5 times more. So money multiplier is 5. This process becomes clear, looking at the schedule given below:

Question.32. Define and represent deflationary gap on a diagram. Explain the role of Bank Rate in removing it.
Answer. When equilibrium takes place before the stage of full employment, this is a case of deficiency in demand. At this level, aggregate demand is less than aggregate supply at full employment level of output and deflationary gap prevails-. Because of this, given resources of an economy are not fully utilized. Therefore, in such a situation necessary fiscal and monetary measures should be taken so that there is increase in the level of aggregate demand. For doing this bank rate policy of the central bank of a country can play an important role. In such a situation bank rate should be reduced so that interest rate falls and demand for funds increases. In this way aggregate supply will increase matching to the level of aggregate demand.
The concept of deflationary gap can be explained with the help o^the given diagram. In the diagram the equilibrium level of output is OQ but the full employment level of output is  OZ. At this level aggregate demand falls short of aggregate supply = EF. This is deflationary gap.

Or
Define and represent inflationary gap on a diagram. Explain the role of ‘Open Market Operations in removing it.
Answer. When equilibrium level of income takes place after the stage of full employment, this is a case of excess demand. In this case, at the full employment, level of output, aggregate demand is more than aggregate supply. The excess of aggregate demand over the excess of aggregate supply is the inflationary gap.
This gap should be reduced but for doing this aggregate supply cannot be increased because the stage of full employment has been arrived at. Therefore, for bringing up equality between aggregate demand and aggregate supply, aggregate demand should be reduced.
Open market operations can be used as a monetary tool for doing this. Central bank should sell securities in die open market which will be bought by the commercial banks leading to a fall in their cash reserve. As such they will give less credit. Finally aggregate demand will be reduced.
The inflationary gap can be shown in the given diagram. In the diagram equilibrium level of output is OQ whereas full  employment level of output is OZ. At flits level aggregate demand is more than aggregate supply i.e., EF.EF is inflationary gap.

SET II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I.
SECTION A
Question.7. Explain, by giving an example, how is demand for a good affected when price of its substitute rises.
Answer. Substitute goods are those goods which can be used in place of one another^ When there is an increase in the price of a substitute, the demand for the main commodity will increase. For example, when the price of coffee increases, the demand for tea will increase because now tea becomes a cheaper relative to coffee.

Question.12. Calculate price elasticity of demand by the percentage method:

Answer.

Question.20. Define direct tax.
Answer. Direct tax is a tax whose burden cannot be shifted to others. In short, the burden of this tax is finally borne by those upon whom it is levied, for example income tax.

Question.23. Find the value of multipliers  given (i) marginal propensity to consume = 1 and (ii) marginal propensity to save = 1.
Answer.

SECTION B
Question.26. In an economy total savings are Rs 2,000 crores and the ratio of average propensity to save and average propensity to consume is 2 : 7. Calculate the level of income in the economy.
Answer.

Question .29. Calculate Net National Disposable Income and ‘Personal Disposable Income’:

Answer.

Question.31. Calculate Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost by (a) income method and (b) production method from the following data:

Answer.

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Compartment Outside Delhi -2010 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Delhi -2011

Time allowed : 3  hours                                                                                         Maximum marks 100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1.  All questions in both the sections are compulsory.
2. Marks for questions are indicated against each.
3. Questions No. 1-5 and 17-21 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 nick each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
4.  Questions No. 6-10 and 22-26 are? short-answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
5.  Questions No. 11-13 and 27-29 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
6.  Questions No. 14-16 and 30-32 are long-answers questions carrying 6 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
7.  Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit should be adhered to as far as possible.

SET I

PART A
Question.1. What is a market economy?
Answer. Market economy is an economy where central problems are solved through the free force of supply and demand.

Question.2. When is a firm called ‘price-taker’?
Answer. A firm which has no role to play in price fixation and accepts the price determined by market
demand and market supply is called a price-taker. A competitive firm is a price-taker.

Question.3. Define budget set.
Answer. The budget is the set of all possible combinations of two goods which a consumer can afford, given his income and prices in the market.

Question.4. What is meant by increase in supply?
Answer. Increase in supply of a good is defined as “when supply increases due to factors other than the price of that good.”
When supply increases, the supply curve shifts to the right.The factors affecting increase in supply may be fall in price of inputs used in production of the good and favorable government policy.

Question. 5. Define supply.
Answer. Supply is that part of stock of a good which is brought into market for sale at a price at a given time. It means the quantity of a good which a firm is willing to supply at a given price during a period of time.

Question.6. Why is a production possibilities curve concave? Explain.
Answer. A production possibility curve is concave to the origin because marginal opportunity cost is increasing. Marginal opportunity cost of a particular commodity is the rate at which we forego a commodity for producing an additional unit of the particular commodity. As shown in diagram 1, for producing an additional unit of commodity X we forego units of commodity Y at an increasing rate.

Question.7. 8 units of a good are demanded at a price of Rs 7 per unit. Price elasticity of demand is (-) 1. How many units will be demanded if the price rises to Rs 8 per unit? Use expenditure approach of price elasticity of demand to answer this question.
Answer.

Question.8. Giving examples, explain the meaning of cost in economics.
Answer. Cost in economics is the sum of:

1. Explicit cost which is actual money expenditure on inputs, for example purchase of materials etc.
2. Implicit cost is the estimated value of the inputs supplied by the owners including normal profit, for example, estimated salary of the owners etc.

Question.9. Draw average revenue and marginal revenue curves in a single diagram of a firm which can sell more units’of a good only by lowering the price of that good. Explain.
Answer. This is a case of monopoly and monopolistic competitive market situation. In these markets a firm can sell more of its products only when it lowers down the price. This means AR (Price) curve slopes downwards to the right. When AR slopes downwards to the right, has a negative slope. MR is less than it. It can be mathematically derived. Thus, as shown in the diagram, AR > MR. This also becomes evident by looking at the schedule given below.

Distinguish between Average’ and Marginal Revenue with the help of a numerical example.

Question.10. Explain the implication of ‘freedom of entry and exit to the firms’ under perfect competition.
Answer. An important characteristic feature of perfect competition is the freedom of entry and exit to the firms. Because of this aspect a competitive firm in the long run gets only normal profit, i.e. AR = AC. If the existing firms are getting abnormal profit (i.e. AR > AC), few more firms will enter the competition and the same disappears. If, on the other hand, few existing firms are incurring losses (AR < AC), they leave the competition and the remaining firms get normal profit.
Or
Explain the implication of ‘perfect knowledge about market’ under perfect competition.
Answer. Under perfect competition all buyers and sellers have perfect knowledge about the market conditions. With the result, goods being homogeneous, the same price prevails. A firm cannot charge higher price because the buyers know that it is available at a lesser price elsewhere. Similarly, a firm will not charge lesser price, because it will be imprudent to do so, for it can get the same price which other firms are getting. As a result uniform price prevails in the market.

Question.11. A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y. State and explain the conditions of consumer’s equilibrium with the help of utility analysis.
Answer. See Q. 14 (Or), 2009 (I Delhi).

Question.12. Explain how the demand for a good is affected by the prices of its related goods. Give examples.
Answer. Related goods may be of two types—(i) Substitute goods and (ii) Complementary goods.
(i) Effect of change in the prices of Substitute goods. Substitute goods are those which can be used in place of one another, such as tea and coffee. When price of coffee (a substitute good) increases, the demand for tea increases because now coffee becomes costlier in comparison to tea. The reverse of it will happen when the price of coffee falls.
(ii) Effect of change in prices of Complementary goods. Complementary goods are those which cannot be used without one another, such as, pen and ink. If die price of ink (a complementary good) goes up, its demand will fall and this would lead to a fall in the demand for pens. The reverse of it will happen when the price of ink falls.

Question.13. Define ‘Market-supply’. What is the effect on the supply of a good when Government imposes a tax on the production of that good? Explain.
Answer. Market supply is the total supply (supply of all firms in the market) of a good at a price at a time. It is obtained by adding up individual supplies of all the firms. When a government imposes a tax on the production of a commodity, its cost goes up. With the result, its supply falls at a given price. Thus, as shown in diagram 3, supply curve shifts towards left. Supply schedule is a two column table, which shows various quantities supplied corresponding to prevailing market prices at a time. A hypothetical supply schedule of commodity X is given below:

Or
What is a supply schedule? What is the effect on the supply of a good when Government gives a subsidy on the production of that good? Explain.
Answer. A supply schedule is a two column table wherein the quantity supplied corresponding to the given prices of a commodity is indicated. A hypothetical supply schedule is given below. Subsidy is a grant given by the Government to the producers so that they can sell their products at a lesser price. Thus, when Government gives subsidy, the cost of production goes down and this enables the producing firms to increase the supply at the same price. Thus, as shown in diagram 4, a shift towards right in the supply curve takes place.

Question.14. What is meant by producer’s equilibrium? Explain the conditions of producer’s equilibrium through the ‘total revenue and total cost’ approach. Use diagram.
Answer. See Q. 11, 2008 (I Delhi)
For Blind candidates in lieu of Q. No. 14
What is meant by producer’s equilibrium? Explain the conditions of producer’s equilibrium through the ‘total revenue and total cost approach’. Use a schedule.
Answer. See Q. 11, 2008 (I Delhi)

Question.15. Explain the three properties of indifference curves.
Answer. (i) An indifference curve always slopes downwards to the right. In other words, it has a negative slope. To consume more of one good, the consumer must give up some quantity of the other good so that total utility remains the same.

(ii) Higher indifference curve denotes higher level of satisfaction. This is because higher IC represents more of at least one commodity, which means more utility as more is preferred to less.

(iii) Two indifference curves never intersect each other because at the point of intersection, the level of satisfaction is the same but at other points it is hot tire same. It is not possible. Therefore, it is wrong to suggest they intersect as shown in Diagram 7.

Question.16. Market for a good is in equilibrium. There is an ‘increase’ in demand for this good. Explain the chain of effects of this change. Use diagram.
Answer.

• ‘Increase’ in demand shifts the demand curve from D1 to D2 to the right leading to excess demand E1F at the given price OP1.
• Since the consumers will not be able to buy all they want to buy at this price, there will be competition among buyers leading to rise in price.
• As price rises, demand starts falling (along D2) and supply starts rising (along S) as shown by arrows in the diagram.
• This change continues till D and SS are equal atli2.
• The quantity rises to OQ2 and price to OP2.
  

For blind candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 16 Market for a good is in equilibrium. There is an ‘increase’ in demand for this good. Explain the chain of effects of this change. Use a numerical example.
Answer. Chain of Effects: Same as Q. 16.
Market is in equilibrium when quantity demanded and quantity supplied are equal. In the given example, as indicated in the table, equilibrium price and quantity are Rs 7 and 15 respectively. However, when demand increases, say due to an increase in income the new equilibrium price and quantity are Rs 8 and 20. Thus, when demand increases, price and quantity both increase.

Or
Distinguish between collusive and non-collusive oligopoly. Explain how the oligopoly firms are interdependent in taking price and output decisions.
Answer. Collusive oligopoly, also known as cooperative oligopoly, is that where firms cooperate with each other in determining the price or output or both. On the other hand, non-collusive or non-cooperative oligopoly is that where firms compete with each other in determining – price or output or both.
In oligopoly, there are few dominant firms and they are free to determine price and output of their product. However, in real practice, they are not free to do so. They do not change price independently because they have the fear of retaliation by other firms. For example, if they raise the price and other firms do not raise their prices, they lose the market. On the other hand, if they lower the price and other firms also revise the price, the benefit of lowering the price goes away. As such firms mutually depend on each other regarding their decisions about price and output.

SECTION B
Question.17. What is nominal gross domestic product?
Answer. The gross money value of final goods and services at current prices produced within the domestic territory of a country in an accounting year is nominal gross domestic product. When GDP of a given year is estimated on the basis of price of the same year, it is called nominal GDP.

Question.18. Define flow variables.
Answer. Those economic variables whose value can be estimated during a period of time are flow variables such as income.

Question.19. Define cash reserve ratio.
Answer. It is a part/portion of the total deposits with the commercial banks, which they are legally required to keep in reserve with the central bank of the country.

Question. 20. Define money supply.
Answer. It is the total amount of money held by the public at a point of time in an economy.

Question. 21. Define foreign exchange rate.
Answer. Foreign exchange is the price of a foreign currency in terms of domestic currency.

Question. 22. State the components of capital account of balance of payments.
Answer. The components of capital account of balance of payments are the following:

1. Borrowings and lendings to and from abroad.
2. Investments to and from abroad.
3. Changes in foreign exchange reserves.

Question.23. Explain how ‘distribution of gross domestic product’ is a limitation in taking gross domestic product as an index of welfare.
Answer. The manner in which increase in gross domestic product is distributed, also affects economic welfare. It is possible that with rise in GDP, inequalities in the distribution of income may also increase. If increase in GDP increases income inequalities, the increase in economic welfare may not be equal to the increase in GDP. It means gap between rich and poor increases. Increase in the welfare of the rich is less in comparison to the increase in the welfare of the poor.

Question.24. Given that national income is Rs 80 crore and consumption expenditure Rs 64 crore, find out average propensity to save. When income rises to Rs 100 crore and consumption expenditure to Rs 78 crore, what will be the average propensity to consume and the marginal propensity to consume?
Answer.

Question.25. Explain the relationship between investment multiplier and marginal, propensity to consume.
Answer.

It shows a direct relationship between MPC and the value of multiplier. Higher the proportion of increased income spent on consumption, higher the value of the multiplier.

Question.26. When price of a foreign currency rises, its demand falls. Explain why.
Answer. When price of foreign currency rises it becomes costly i.e. more domestic currency is paid for buying a unit of foreign currency. This leads to fall in demand as imports become costlier and it becomes more expensive to invest abroad. Hence the demand for foreign currency falls when its price rises.
Or
When price of a foreign currency rises, its supply also rises. Explain why.
Answer. When the price of foreign currency rises, its supply rises because more domestic currency is paid for obtaining one unit of foreign currency. This makes domestic goods cheaper and encourages exports. Also the foreign residents find it lucrative to invest here and therefore die supply of foreign currency increases.

Question.27. Explain the ‘allocation of resources’ objective of Government budget.
Answer. An important objective of Government budget is to allocate resources for accomplishing socio-economic objectives of the Government. Government can influence allocation of resources through (i) tax concessions, subsidies etc. and (ii) directly producing goods and services. Resources may be allocated for increasing investment, reducing income inequalities, providing better health care and education facilities.
Or
Explain the ‘redistribution of income’ objective of Government budget.
Answer. Through the budget, the Government may like to affect pattern of redistribution of income. For achieving it, Government has a number of fiscal tools at its disposal, such as taxation> subsidies, public expenditure, etc. Government can influence distribution of income by imposing taxes on the rich and spending more on the welfare of the poor. This will reduce income of die rich and raise standard of living of the poor.

Question.28. From the following data about a Government budget, find out (a) Revenue deficit, (b) Fiscal deficit and (c) Primary deficit.

Answer. (a) Revenue Deficit
Revenue expenditure (if) – Revenue receipts (iv)
= 100 – 80 = Rs 20 arab.
(b) Fiscal deficit .
Revenue expenditure + Capital expenditure – Revenue receipts – Capital receipts net of borrowings
= 100 + 110 – 80 – 95 = Rs 35 arab.
(c) Primary deficit
Fiscal deficit – Interest payments
= 35 – 10 = Rs 25 arab.

Question.29. Giving reasons, classify the following into intermediate products and final products.
(i) Furniture purchased by a school.
(ii) Chalks, dusters, etc. purchased by a school.
Answer. These are durable use producers’ goods.
(i) Furniture for a school is a part of capital formation and thus is a final product.
(ii) Chalks, dusters etc. are intermediate products because these are being used up in the process of production of teaching services in a school. They are not needed or their own sake but for producing teaching services.

Question.30. Explain the role of the following in correcting deficient demand’ in an economy:
(i) Open market operations
(ii) Bank rate
Answer. The situation of deficient demand exists when at the full employment level, aggregate demand is less than aggregate supply. This creates the problem of involuntary unemployment. For tackling this problem, the level of aggregate demand needs to be increased for which, besides other things, volume of credit should be increased.
(i) Open market operations refer to the sale and purchase of securities by the central bank. In the situation of deficient demand, central bank buys securities in the open market and makes payment to the sellers. The money flows out of the central bank and ultimately reaches the commercial banks as deposits. This raises the lending capacity of the banks. People can borrow more and this will raise aggregate demand.’
(ii) Bank rate is the rate of interest which central bank charges from commercial banks for giving them credit. However, the relationship between rate of interest and demand for credit is inverse. Thus, when bank rate is increased, rate of interest increases and demand for credit falls. Thus, in case of deficient demand, bank rate should be lowered. This will lead to a fall in the rate of interest, finally leading to an increase in the demand for credit. This will raise aggregate demand.
Or
Explain the role of the following -in correcting ‘excess demand’ in an economy:
(i) Bank rate
(ii) Open market operations
Answer. The situation of excess demand exists when, at the equilibrium level, aggregate demand is more than aggregate supply. This generates inflationary forces and there is no increase in real output. Therefore, the situation needs to be rectified by reducing the level of aggregate demand. For that:,
(i) Bank rate is that rate of interest at which the central bank lends to commercial banks. To correct excess demand, central bank can raise the bank rate. This forces commercial banks to increase lending rates. This reduces demand for borrowing by the public for investment and consumption. Aggregate demand falls.
(ii) Open market operations refer to the sale and purchase of securities by the central bank in the open market, excess demand refers to AD exceeding AS at the full employment level of income. In this situation, the central bank can sell securities receiving payments from its buyers. The money flows out of the commercial banks into the central bank. This reduces the lending capacity of the banks and in turn reduces aggregate demand.
Or
Explain the role of the following -in correcting ‘excess demand’ in an economy:
(i) Bank rate
(ii) Open market operations
Answer. The situation of excess demand exists when, at the equilibrium level, aggregate demand is more than aggregate supply. This generates inflationary forces and there is no increase in real output. Therefore, the situation needs to be rectified by reducing the level of aggregate demand. For that:,
(i) Bank rate is that rate of interest at which the central bank lends to commercial banks. To correct excess demand, central bank can raise the bank rate. This forces commercial banks to increase lending rates. This reduces demand for borrowing by the public for investment and consumption. Aggregate demand falls.
(ii) Open market operations refer to the sale and purchase of securities by the central bank in the open market, excess demand refers to AD exceeding AS at the full employment level of income. In this situation, the central bank can sell securities receiving payments from its buyers. The money flows out of the commercial banks into the central bank. This reduces the lending capacity of the banks and in turn reduces aggregate demand.

Question.31. Explain the process of money creation by the commercial banks with the help of a numerical example.
Answer. The money (or deposit or credit) creation by the commercial banks is determined by die amount of initial deposit and the legal reserve ratio (LRR). Suppose the amount of initial deposit is Rs 10,000 and LRR 0.2. The banks will keep 20% i.e. Rs 2,000 as reserve and lend the remaining Rs 8,000. Those who borrow spend this money. It is assumed that Rs 8,000 comes back to the banks. This raises total deposits to Rs 18,000. Banks again keep 20% of Rs 8,000 i.e. Rs 1,600 as reserve and lend Rs 6,400. This further raises the amount of deposits with the banks. In this way deposits go on increasing @ 80% of the last deposit. How many times will these deposits be is determined by the deposit multiplier.
Money multiple = \(\frac { 1 }{ LRR } =\frac { 1 }{ 0.2 } =5\)
The total deposits will be:
Total money creation = Initial deposit x Money multiplier = 10,000 x 5 = Rs 50,000

Question.32. Calculate National Income and Gross National Disposable Income from the following:

Answer. National Income
= Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption expenditure + Net domestic fixed capital formation + Change in stocks – Net imports – Net indirect tax – Net factor income to abroad = (ii) + (v) + (vii) + (ix) – (viii) – (vi) – (iv)
= 500 + 200 + 120 + (-20) – 30 – 100 – (-10)
= 830 -150 = 7 680 crores
Gross National Disposable Income
= National Income + Consumption of fixed capital + Net indirect tax – Net current transfers to the rest of the world
= 680 + 20 + 100 – (-5) = Rs 805 crores

SET II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I.
SECTION A
Question.1. What is positive economics?
Answer. Positive economics deals with the actual facts without making any value judgements. Positive economics deals with ‘what is’ without making any value judgement.

Question.7. A consumer buys 10 units of a good at a price of Rs 6 per unit Price elasticity of demand is (-) 1. At what price will he buy 12 units? Use expenditure approach of price elasticity of demand to answer this question.
Answer. According to expenditure approach, when elasticity of demand is -1 or 1, the total expenditure does not change when price or demand changes.

Therefore, at a price of Rs 5 the consumer will buy 12 units.

Question.11. Explain the conditions determining how many units of a good the Consumer will buy at a given price.
Answer. Marginal utility of successive units keeps on declining but price remains the same. Consumer keeps on consuming so long as marginal utility is greater than the price. He stops buying at a point where marginal utility is equal to the price. In short,
Marginal Utility = Price.

As shown in the diagram, a consumer will buy OQ quantity of a commodity because at this level MU is equal to price.

Question.15. Explain the concept of Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) by giving an example. What happens to MRS when consumer moves downwards along the indifference curve? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer. Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) may be defined as the amount of Y sacrificed for obtaining an additional unit of X. Say for obtaining an additional unit of X, 4 units of Y are foregone,
Then MRS = \(\frac { \Delta Y }{ \Delta X } =\frac { 4 }{ 1 } =4\)
MRS keeps on declining as we go on using more and more units of Y. This is because of the application of law of diminishing marginal utility. When we go on substituting Y by X, we forego units having more utility. Naturally, more and more units of Y will be foregone for successive additional units of X. This shows MRS is declining.

SECTION B
Question.22. State the components of current account of Balance of Payments.
Answer. Components, of. current account of balance of payments:

1. Exports and imports of goods
2. Exports and imports of services
3. Income receipts and payments to and from abroad
4. Transfers to and from abroad.

Question.24. If National income is Rs 50 crore and Saving Rs 5 crore, find out average propensity to consume. When income rises to Rs 60 crore and saving to Rs 9 crore, what will be the average propensity to consume and the marginal propensity to save ?
Answer.

Question.29. Giving reasons Ossify the following into intermediate products and final products:
(i) Computers installed in an office
(ii) Mobile sets purchased by a mobile dealer
Answer. (i) Computes installed in an office are for investment purpose and hence a final product.
(ii) Mobile Sets are for resale and hence are intermediate products.

Question.32. Find out Gross National Product at Market Price and Net National Disposable Income from the following:

Answer.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have beg# asked in Set I and Set II.
SECTION A
Question.1. What is normative economics?
Answer. Normative economics deals with what ought to be based on value judgement.

Question.7. When the price of a good changes to Rs 11 per unit, the consumer’s demand falls from 11 units to 7 units. The price elasticity of demand is (-) 1. What was the price before change? Use expenditure approach of price elasticity of demand to answer this question.
Answer.

Question.11. Derive the law of demand from the single commodity equilibrium condition “marginal utility = price”.
Answer. The price and quantity demanded of a good are usually inversely related. This means when price is more, demand is less and vice-versa. This inverse relationship between price and demand can be exhibited using single commodity equilibrium condition. Marginal Utility (MU) – Price.
The law of diminishing marginal utility states that if we successively go on consuming more units of the same commodity, the utility which we derive from such successive unit (i.e., its MU) declines. Knowing this, one will have (or demand) more of a good when its price is less and vice-versa, because now he is having units yielding less satisfaction. The reverse of it will be true in opposite directions.

Thus, given the law of diminishing marginal utility, we have a downward sloping MU curve and. given the equilibrium condition, MU = Price, for a single commodity The demand curve of the commodity coincides with the MU curve (in the positive quadrant only). As shown in Diagram, the equilibrium quantity will be OQ because at this level MU and price of the commodity are equal.

Question.15. What are monotonic preferences? Explain why is an indifference curve (i) Downward sloping from left to right and (ii) Convex.
Answer. A consumer’s preferences are monotonic only if between any two bundles, the consumer prefers that bundle which has more or (east one of the goods and no less of the other good as compared to the other bundle.
(i) An indifference curve slopes downward from left to right. A downward sloping . indifference curve shows that if a consumer has more of one good he will have less of the other good because the level of satisfaction remains the same.
(ii) An indifference curve is convex to the origin. It is because of the fact that marginal rate of substitution is declining. Marginal rate of substitution declines because of the law of diminishing utility. As such, as a consumer has more of good X, he foregoes less units of good Y.

SECTION B
Question.22.What does balance of payments account show? Name the two parts of the balance of payments account.
Answer. Balance of payments account shows a country’s inflows and outflows of foreign exchange. Two parts of BOP are:
(i) The Current Account
(ii) The Capital Account

Question.24. If. National Income is Rs 90 crore and consumption expenditure Rs 81 acre, find out average propensity to save When income rises to Rs 100 crore rod consumption expenditure to Rs 88 crore, what will be the marginal propensity to consume and marginal propensity to save?
Answer.

Question.29.Giving reason identify whether the following are final expenditures or intermediate Expenditure :
(i) Expenditure on maintenance of an office -building.
(ii) Expenditure on improvement of a machine in a factory.
Answer. (i) Expenditure on imaintenance of an office building is an intermediate expenditure because it involves expenditure on goods which are single use producer goods.
(ii) Expenditure on improvement of a machine in a factory will be treated as final expenditure because it is expenditure on investment.

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Delhi -2011 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Compartment Delhi -2011

Time allowed : 3  hours                                                                                         Maximum marks 100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1.  All questions in both the sections are compulsory.
2. Marks for questions are indicated against each.
3. Questions No. 1-5 and 17-21 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 nick each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
4.  Questions No. 6-10 and 22-26 are? short-answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
5.  Questions No. 11-13 and 27-29 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
6.  Questions No. 14-16 and 30-32 are long-answers questions carrying 6 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
7.  Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit should be adhered to as far as possible.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1. Give two examples of microeconomics.
Answer. Demand analysis and price determination of a commodity are two examples of microeconomics.

Question.2. What is meant by consumer’s equilibrium?
Answer. Consumers equilibrium refers to the situation when a consumer spends his gives income on purchase of a commodity in such a way that he is having maximum satisfaction with limited income and has no tendency to change his position if other things remain the same.

Question.3. Define market demand.
Answer. Market demand is the sum of individual demands of a product corresponding to prevailing prices.

Question.4. Define oligopoly.
Answer. Oligopoly is a market situation where there are few sellers and the nature of demand is indeterminate because of interdependence of firms upon one another.

Question.5. Give the meaning of marginal -product.
Answer. Marginal product is the change in total product that takes place by employing an additional unit of a variable factor. In short,

Question.6. Explain the problem of ‘how to produce’.
Answer. The problem of ‘how to produce’ relates to the choice of technique which a producer adopts for producing a commodity. Therefore, in view of the fact that resources are scarce, he adopts a technique which is the cheapest. The decision as to how goods should be produced depends on the price of the factors. Because of this, in a country like India labour intensive technique is adopted and in a country like Japan capital intensive technique is adopted.

Question.7. Explain the meaning of substitute and complementary goods with the help of suitable examples.
Answer. Substitute goods are those which can be used in place of one another to satisfy a given want. For example tea and coffee. On the other hand, complementary goods are a pair Of goods which cannot be used without one another. They are used together to satisfy a given want. For example pen and ink, car and petrol etc.

Question.8. Why is a firm under perfect competition a price taker and under monopolistic competition a price maker? Explain briefly.
Answer.Under perfect competition , a firm is a price taker meaning there by that it has to accept the price fixed by the forces demand and supply of the industry. No firm can deviate from this price because products are homogeneous. On the other hand, a firm is a price maker under monopolistic competition because products are clearly differentiated. Therefore if it raises price of its product , it does not lose the demand for its product.

Question.9.From the following table calculate marginal revenue at each level of output:

Answer.

Question.10. What is a budget line? Why is it negatively sloped?
Answer. A budget line graphically represents various bundles of two commodities that can be bought by the consumer by spending his entire income given the prevailing prices. A budget line has a negative slope indicating that if a consumer buys more of one commodity, given his income and prices, he will be able to buy less of the other. This becomes clear from the given graph where AB is the budget line. Any bundle of two commodities lying on AB such as shown by point A, C, D or B is affordable given the income of the consumer and the prices of two commodities.

Question.11. The price elasticity of demand of a commodity is -03. At a price of Rs 20 per unit, total expenditure on it is Rs 2,000: Its price is reduced by 10 per cent. Calculate its demand at the reduced rate.
Answer.

Question.12. Explain the meaning and the conditions of producer’s equilibrium (under marginal revenue and marginal cost approach).
Answer. See Q. 14, 2011 (I Outside Delhi)
Or
Explain, giving reason, the effect of (i) rise in prices of inputs and (ii) rise in own price of the good, on the supply of a good.
Answer. (i) An increase in prices of inputs will lead to a decrease in the supply of a commodity. Therefore supply curve shifts towards left, as shown in the diagram 1.
(ii) An increase in own price of the good will lead to a movement along the curve which is expansion of die supply. With the result there is an upward movement on the supply curve as shown in the diagram 2.

Question.13. From the following, table, find out the phase during which there are increasing returns to a factor. Give reasons for your answer.

Answer.

Units 1, 2, 3 (first phase) are governed by increasing returns to a factor because in this phase Marginal Product is increasing. This conclusion becomes evident looking at the diagram based on the above schedule.

Question.14. Explain the conditions of consumer’s equilibrium with the help of the indifference curve analysis. Represent the same in a diagram.
Answer. See Q.14, 2010 (I Delhi)
For blind candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 14.
Define indifference curve. Explain the conditions of consumer’s equilibrium with the help of the indifference curve analysis.
Answer. Indifference Curve: Ah indifference curve is a curve which represents all those combinations of two goods that give equal satisfaction to the consumer. See Q. 14, 2010 (I Delhi)

Question.15. Complete the following table:

Answer. Fixed cost = AFC x No. of Units = 18 x 5 = Rs 90

Question.16. How will a fall in the price of tea affect the equilibrium price of coffee? Explain the chain of effects.
Answer. Tea and coffee are substitutes, therefore when the price of tea falls, it becomes cheaper in comparison to coffee. As such those consumers who drink coffee will start drinking tea. By implication, as a result of this, the demand for coffee will decline. As a result of decrease in a demand for coffee its price will fall.

The entire process of the effect of fall in the price of tea on the equilibrium price of coffee can be explained with the help of the given diagram. As shown in the diagram, when price of tea falls from OP to OP1, its demand increases. As, a result of this, there is a decrease in the demand for coffee. Therefore its demand curve shifts from DD to DD1. As a result of this, the equilibrium point which was E is now F, where the price is OP1 and. demand is OQ1.

Or
Explain the term market equilibrium. Explain the series of changes that will take place if market price is higher than the equilibrium price.
Answer. The equilibrium market price is determined at a point where supply and demand are equal. If market price is higher then the equilibrium rises, demand will fall and supply will increase, with the result that there will be excess supply. Therefore, for bringing equality in demand and supply, demand needs to be increased and supply decreased. This is possible only when market prise is brought to the level of equilibrium price.
The entire process can be explained with the help of a diagram. In the diagram, equilibrium price is OP. If the price increases to OPt (higher than the equilibrium price), demand will fall to OQ1 and supply will increase to OQ2. Therefore there will be excess of supply = Q1Q2. This position can be rectified by coming to equilibrium price, i.e. OP.

SECTION B
Question.17. Define capital formation.
Answer. Capital formation means creation of physical assets like buildings and machines for increasing the level of production in an accounting year.

Question.18. What is meant by real gross domestic product?
Answer. Real gross domestic product is the gross money value of final goods and services produced within the domestic territory in an accounting year. Gross money value is calculated using constant prices.

Question.19. What is bank rate?
Answer. Bank rate may be defined as the rate which a central bank charges from the commercial banks for giving them loans.

Question.20. State any two sources of non-tax revenue receipts.
Answer. Two sources of non-tax revenue receipts are: (i) fees and fines and (ii) commercial revenue.

Question.21. What is included in money supply?
Answer. Money supply includes currency and bank deposits.

Question.22. From the following data, calculate “net value added at factor cost”:

Answer.

Question.23. Explain the meaning of marginal propensity to consume. What is its relationship with marginal propensity to save?
Answer. Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) may be defined as that proportion of income which is consumed. In other words, it is the ratio of change in consumption to change in income. Marginal Propensity to Save (MPS) is that part of income which is saved. In other words, it is equal to the ratio of change in saving tor change in income. The relationship between MPC becomes clear looking at the equations given below:

Question.24. State three objectives of a government budget.
Answer.

1.  Government allocates resources through budget keeping in view socio-economic objectives.
2.  Through a budget the government tries to affect the pattern of-distribution of income in the country. It lays emphasis on more equitable distribution of income and wealth to reduce inequalities. It tries to have a pattern where poor people stand-to gain.
3. Through a budget government tries to bring about economic stability with a view to control the conditions of boom and depression.

Question.25. In an economy aggregate demand is greater than aggregate supply.. Explain the changes that will take place in this economy.
Answer. If aggregate demand is greater than aggregate supply at the full employment level of output, this creates a problem of inflationary gap shown as (CD in the adjacent diagram). In such a situation necessary steps should be taken to reduce aggregate demand, for aggregate supply cannot be increased in the short run, so that aggregate supply becomes equal to aggregate demand. The position of excess aggregate demand at full employment level is shown in the diagram at point C. Now contractionary fiscal policy or contractionary monetary policy can be used to reduce AD and bring it down to point D to correct inflationary gap.

Or
Distinguish between voluntary unemployment and involuntary unemployment. What is the significance of this distinction?
Answer. Voluntary unemployment is that form of unemployment when unemployed persons are not willing to accept the job available at the given wage rate. On the other hand, involuntary unemployment refers to a situation when able bodied persons are willing to work but are not able to find jobs at the given wage rate. Such persons are unemployed against their choice. The distinction between voluntary and involuntary unemployment shows that either an economy is facing a problem of deflationary gap or inflationary gap. When there is involuntary unemployment, the output can be increased up to full employment level by simply boosting the demand in the economy. However, when there is voluntary unemployment, output cannot be increased.

Question.26. Explain why is there a fa|l in demand for foreign exchange when its price rises.
Answer. When the price of foreign exchange increases, more foreign exchange is required for importing the same volume of goods. This means imported goods become costlier. Therefore the demand of foreign goods will fall. Consequently, less foreign. exchange will be required or the demand for foreign exchange will fall. For example, when American dollar becomes costlier in terms of Indian rupee, the demand for American dollar falls. This increases the supply of foreign exchange in the market.

Question.27. How can externalities be a limitation of using gross domestic -product as an index of welfare?
Answer. Gross domestic product cannot always be regarded as an index of, welfare. There are many situations when only the GDP increases but not the economic welfare. One such condition is externalities. Externalities refer to the benefits or harms a firm or an individual causes to another for which they are not paid. For example, an oil refinery increases output of oil and, hence, increases GDP but, at the same time, it has a negative effect because it pollutes the water of the nearby water outlets and vitiates the atmosphere. As a result of which people living nearby are adversely affected. Thus externalities are a limitation for treating gross domestic product as an index of welfare.
Or
Giving reasons, categorise the following into stocks and flows:
(i) Losses (ii) Capital
(iii) Production (iv) Wealth
Answer. (i) Losses are flows : because they are related to a period of time.
(ii) Capital is a stock : measured at a point of time.
(iii) Production is a flow : because it is measured over a period of time.
(iv) Wealth is a stock : as it measured at a point of time.

Question.28. Define a government budget. Give meanings of revenue deficit, fiscal deficit and primary deficit.
Answer. Government Budget, Fiscal Deficit, Primary Deficit.
See Q. 29, 2010 Comptt. (I Outside Delhi)
Revenue Deficit. See Q. 29, 2010 Comptt. (I Delhi)

Question.29. Giving reasons state whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) Excess of foreign exchange receipts over foreign exchange payments on account of accommodating transactions equals deficit in the balance of payments.
(ii) Export and import of machines are recorded in capital account of the balance of payments account.
Answer. (i) The statement is false. Excess of outflow from autonomous transactions over inflow payments equals deficit in the balance of payments.
(ii) The statement is false. Export and import machines are recorded in current account of the BOP.

Question.30. How does a central bank influence credit creation by commercial banks through ‘open market operations’? Explain.
Answer. See Q. 25 (Or), 2008, (I Delhi)
Or
Explain the process of credit creation by commercial banks.
Answer. See Q. 31, 2011 (I Foreign)

Question.31. Calculate (i) net domestic product at factor cost, and (ii) gross national disposable income from the following data:

Answer.

Question.32. Explain the steps taken in derivation of the Saving curve from the Consumption curve. Use diagram.
Answer. See Q. 31, 2008 (I Outside Delhi)
For Blind candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 32.
Explain the steps taken in deriving the Saving function from the Consumption function.
Answer. See Q. 31, 2008 (I Outside Delhi)

SET II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I.
SECTION A
Question.9. From the following table calculate the price at each level of output:

Answer.

Question.11. The price of a commodity is Rs 20 per unit and total expenditure on it is Rs 1,000. When its price falls to Rs 18 per unit, total expenditure increases by 8 per cent. Calculate its price elasticity of demand by percentage method.
Answer.

Question.13. From the following table, find out the phase during which there are increasing returns to a factor. Give reasons for your answer.

Answer.

Question.15. Complete the following table:

Answer.

SECTION B
Question.22. From the following data calculate “not value added at factor cost”.

Answer.

Question.30. Calculate (i) national income and (ii) gross national disposable income from the following data:

Answer.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I and Set II.
SECTION A
Question.9. From the following table calculate marginal revenue at each level of output:

Answer.

Question.11. When the price of a commodity falls from Rs 8 per unit to Rs 7 per unit, total expenditure on it increases from Rs 200 to Rs 210. Calculate its price elasticity of demand by percentage method.
Answer.

Question.13.From the following table, find out the phase during which there are increasing returns to a factor. Give reasons for your answer.

Answer.

Question.15. Complete the following table:

Answer.

SECTION B
Question.25. From the following data calculate “net value added at factor cost”.

Answer.

Question.30. Calculate (i) Gross domestic product at factor cost and (ii) Net national disposable income data:

Answer.

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Compartment Delhi -2011 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Science Chapter 14 Natural Resources

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

1-MARK QUESTIONS
Question.1 Name the three processes in which oxygen is used.
Answer. Combustion, respiration and in the formation of oxides of nitrogen.

Question.2 Name two natural resources available on the earth. [SAII -2014]
Answer. Water and air.

Question.3 Give one example of biotic component of the biosphere.
Answer. All animals, plants and microorganisms.

Question.4 Identify which of the following are not the part of biotic environment, soil, plants, fish, air, insects.
Answer. Soil, air.

Question.5 Name two oxides formed by burning of fossil fuels, which are responsible for acid rain. [SAII – 2013]
Answer. The oxides of nitrogen and sulphur:
(i) Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide.
(ii) Nitrous oxide and nitrogen dioxide.

Question.6 Mention the two forms of precipitation in nature when the temperature of air is very low.
Answer. (i) Fog and smog, (ii) Hail, (iii) Mist, (any two)

Question.7 Name the factor responsible for change in rainfall patterns in India. [SAII – 2012]
Answer. Rainfall patterns are decided by the prevailing wind patterns. In large part of India, rains are mostly brought by South-West or North-East monsoons.

Question.8 Combustion of fossil fuels results in the increase of suspended particles in the air. What are these particles ?
Answer. The suspended particles in the air could be unburnt carbon particles or hydrocarbons which lead to smog.

Question.9 How the frozen water between cracked rocks causes the cracks to widen ? [SAII – 2014]
Answer. The water inside the cracked rocks expand on freezing. When it expands, its volume increases and it causes the cracks to widen.

Question.10 Name two gases which cause greenhouse effect.
Answer. (i) Carbon dioxide, (ii) Methane, (iii) Oxides of nitrogen, (any two)

Question.11 Name two biologically important compounds that contain both oxygen and nitrogen.
Answer. Proteins and nucleic acids (DNA and RNA).

Question.12 Name two essential biological molecules in which oxygen is present.
Answer. (a) Proteins, (b) Carbohydrates, (c)‘ Fats aid lipids, (d) Nucleic acids, (any two)

Question.13 Name two biologically important compounds that contain both oxygen and nitrogen. [SAII-2011]
Answer. Proteins and nucleic acids (DNA and RNA).

Question.14 What is the greenhouse effect ? [SAII – 2011]
Answer. Some gases prevent the escape of heat from the Earth. An increase in the percentage of such gases in the atmosphere would cause the average temperatures to increase worldwide and this is called the greenhouse effect.

2-MARKS QUESTIONS
Question.1 The atmosphere acts as a blanket, how ? [SAII – 2012]
Answer. Air is a bad conductor of heat which keeps average temperature of the Earth steady during day and at night. The ozone shield of the atmosphere absorbs most of the harmful radiations coming from Sun.

Question.2 Name four human activities which cause air pollution. [SAII – 2013]
Answer.
(a) Mining activities : Dust released due to mining activities.
(b) Thermal power plants : Fossil fuel burnt in these places causes air pollution.
(c) Firework on festivals : It results in the release of toxic chemicals into air along with hot and toxic gases.
(d) Burning of fossil fuel : In industries, automobiles, domestic purposes etc.

Question.3 Name the stages of the life cycle of aquatic animals which are affected by change in temperature.
Answer. The eggs and larvae of various aquatic animals are susceptible to temperature changes. As the aquatic organisms are used to a certain range of temperature in the water body where they live, and sudden marked change in this temperature would be dangerous for them or affect their breeding.

Question.4 How do sun and wind influence the formation of soil ? [SAII -2014]
Answer. The Sun: The Sun heats up rocks during the day so they expand and at night they cool down and contract. This results in the formation of cracks and rocks ultimately break up into smaller pieces. Wind : Strong winds help in the formation of rock particles by their erosional actions. This helps in formation of soil,

Question.5 Define weathering. Write the different means which cause weathering. [SAII -2014]
Answer. The process of breaking down of rocks into small, fine mineral particles is called weathering.

•  The weathering may occur due to physical, chemical or biological means.

Question.6 Write the composition of soil. On what basis is the type of soil decided ? [SAII – 2013]
Answer. Soil is a mixture. It is composed of small particles of rocks of different sizes, humus (bits of decaying living organism) and various micro-organisms.

•  The type of soil is decided by the average size of particles found in it.

Question.7 What are the consequences of global warming ? [SAII -2012]
Answer.

• An increase in temperature of earth even by 1 °C may lead to melting of ice on the poles.
•  The melting of ice will result in rise of sea level.
•  Due to rise in sea level,many coastal cities will be flooded or submerged.
•  Increase in temperature of earth, results the changes in weather and may cause excessive raining or drought or extreme hot or cold weather conditions.

Question.8 How are clouds formed ?  [SAII – 2013]
Answer. The water evaporates due to heating Up of water bodies and other biological activities. The air also heats and rises. On rising, it expands and cools to form tiny droplets. These droplets grow bigger, expand and form clouds. The collection of dust and other suspended particles facilitate the process.

Question.9 What is the major source of freshwater in the city/town/village where you live ? [SAII -2011]
Answer. The major sources, of freshwater in the city/town/village is the underground water which is mostly taken out with the help of hand pumps or tube wells. The rivers flowing in the nearby areas, lakes and ponds also serve as the source of freshwater.

Question.10 What is soil erosion ? [SAII -2012]
Answer. The removal of topsoil which is rich in humus and nutrients by flowing water or wind is known as soil erosion. If this process continues further, then all soil may get washed away and the rocks underneath may get exposed. It may lead to the loss of all valuable resources because nothing grows as such on the rocks.

Question.11 What are the two forms of oxygen found in the atmosphere ? [SAII -2011]
Answer.
(i) Elemental oxygen is normally found in the form of a diatomic molecule (O₂) in the lower regions of the atmosphere to the extent of 21%. It is non-poisonous form of oxygen.
(ii) But in the upper reaches of the atmosphere (stratosphere), it occurs in the form of ozone, containing three atoms of oxygen and having the molecular formula O₃. It is the poisonous form of oxygen

3-MARKS QUESTIONS
Question.1 Name the various organisms involved in nitrogen cycle. [SAII -2014]
Answer.

1.  Nitrogen fixing bacteria, e.g., Rhizobium, Azotobacter.
2.  Bacteria which convert complex nitrogenous organic compounds (proteins) into ammonia, e.g., Actinomyces.
3.  Nitrifying bacteria which converts ammonia into nitrates, e.g., Nitrosomonas and nitrobactor.
4. Denitrifying bacteria, e.g., Pseudomonas.

Question.2 What are the three ways by which CO₂ is returned back into atmosphere ? [SAII -2011]
Answer. The three ways by which CO₂ is returned back into atmosphere are :

1.  By the decomposition of dead organic matter.
2.  As the product of respiration by both plants and animals.
3.  As the gaseous waste formed by the combustion of fuels like coal, wood, petrol and gaseous fuels.

Question.3 Define biosphere. Name its components. [SAII -2012]
Answer.
(a) The life-supporting zone of the Earth where the atmosphere, the hydrosphere and the lithosphere interact and make life possible is known as biosphere.
(b) Two components of biosphere ate :
(i) Biotic : All living forms such as:plants, animals .and microorganisms.
(ii) Abiotic : Air, water and the soil.

Question.4 Mention three ways by which atmosphere regulates the average temperature on Earth.
Answer.
(a) As the air is a bad conductor of heat, therefore, the atmosphere keeps the average temperature pf the earth fairly steady during the day even during the course of the whole year.
(b) The atmosphere prevents the sudden increase in hours.
(c) During the night, it slows down the escape of heat into the outer space and prevents the earth from excessive cooling.

Question.5
(a) Explain the formation of acid rain.
(b) What does the presence of smog in an area indicate ? [SAII – 2014]
Answer. (a)

•  Acid rain is the rainwater which contains excessive amount of acids/.e., sulphuric acid and nitric acid.
•  These acids are formed in the atmosphere by the reaction of oxides of sulphur and
  nitrogen with water.
• The Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen are produced by combustion of fossil fuels in industries, automobiles, thermal power plants and domestic appliances etc.
•  The sulphur and nitrogen, present in fossil fuels form these oxides by reacting with oxygen of air by the process of combustion.

(b) The presence of smog in an area indicates the high percentage of smoke released in the air by combustion of fossil fuel in industries, thermal power plants or automobiles. It is an indicator of air pollution.

Question.6 What are the harmful effects of air pollution ? [SAII – 2012]
Answer.

1. It may cause respiratory problems like sneezing, allergy, asthma or bronchitis in some persons.
2. It may cause acid rain which leads to deterioration of metals and other building material.
3. It may cause global warming which leads to change in the climate of the Earth.
4. Carbon monoxide may lead to many problems of respiratory system.
5. Smog, which reduces the visibility as well as causes respiratory ailments.

Question.7 Mention any three important roles of water required for organisms on the earth’s surface.
Answer.

1.  All cellular processes take place in water medium.
2.  Water regulates-body temperature.
3. Water is required for transportation of nutrients from one part of the body to the other.

Question.8
(a) Explain how soil pollution is caused ?
(b) Write three ways to prevent soil pollution. [SAII -2014]
Answer.
(a) The soil pollution may be caused by dumping the industrial wastes in vacant sites viz., along the roads, railways tracks or sanitary land fields etc. The wastes from residences, cattle sheds, industries, agricultural fields etc. also pollute the soil. The excessive use of fertilizers and pesticides also pollutes the soil.
(b)

1.  By judicious use of fertilizers and pesticides.
2. By proper management of disposal of household waste.
3. Intensive cropping, terrace farming should be practiced.

Question.9 Explain the following terms:
(i) Nitrogen fixation, (ii) Nitrification, (iii) Denitrification. [SAII – 2013]
Answer.

1. The process in which atmospheric nitrogen is converted into usable forms like ammonia, nitrates, nitrites or N02 etc. is called nitrogen fixation.
2. The process of formation of nitrites and then to nitrates from ammonium compounds is called nitrification.
3. The process of conversion of some ammonium compounds, nitrites and nitrates into molecular nitrogen is called denitrification.

Question.10
(a)ozone layer found ?
(b)What is ozone hole and how is it caused ? Where is
(c)State the harmful effects of ozone depletion. [SAII -2014]
Answer.
(a)Ozone layer is found in stratosphere about 18-50 km above the atmosphere.
(b)Thinning of ozone layer over a restricted area is called ozone hole.
The excessive use of chemical substances like CFCs is the major cause for depletion of ozone layer. These chemicals reach the stratosphere and start reacting with ozone layer and results in thinning of ozone layer over a restricted area.
(c) The depletion of ozone layer may cause :
(i) Skin cancer
(ii) Damage to eyes
(iii) Damage to immune system
(iv) In plants also it may increase the harmful mutations.

Question.11 What causes winds ? [SAII – 2012, 13]
Answer. Winds are caused due to unequal heating of atmospheric air. This phenomena can easily be seen near coastal regions during the daytime. The air above the land gets heated faster and starts rising. As this air rises, a region of low pressure is created and air over the sea moves into this area of low pressure. The movement of air from one region to the other creates winds. During the day, the direction of the wind would be from the sea to the land.

Question.12 List any three human activities that you think would lead to air pollution. ]SAII – 2013]
Answer. Human activities that would lead to air pollution are :

1. Excessive use and burning of fossil fuels like coal and petroleum produces different oxides of nitnopfrand sulphur. These are not only dangerous to our respiratory system but also leads to acid rain.
2. Incomplete combustion of various fuels forms unburnt carbon particles which lowers the visibility, especially in cold weather when water also condenses out of air. This is known as smog and is a visible indication of air pollution.
3. Large usage of automobiles and improperly tuning of engines leads to the formation of carbon monoxide gas and other oxides of nitrogen which causes lot of respiratory problems.
4. Forest fires, excessive mining and ore refining, excessive use of chlorofluorocarbons and v excessive industrialization leads to air pollution.

Question.13 Why do organisms need water ? [SAII-2012]
Answer. Organisms need water due to the following reasons :

1. All cellular processes take place in a water medium.
2. All the reactions that take place’Within our body and within the cells occur between substances that are dissolved in water.
3. Substances are also transported from one part of the body to the other in a dissolved form.
4. Water makes-up about 70% of body weight of all living organisms.
5. It helps in the digestion of food and absorption of nutrients in the blood. Hence, organisms need to maintain the level of water within their bodies in order to stay alive.
6. It helps in maintaining body temperature. –

Question.14 Do you know any activity which may be polluting these water sources ?
Answer.There are many activities which cause pollution of water sources such as :

1. Dumping of waste from factories, sewage from our towns and cities into rivers or lakes.
2.  Discharging hot water from cooling towers into the water bodies affects the breeding capacity of aquatic organisms.

Question.15 How is soil formed ? [SAII – 2013, 2014]
Answer. Over long periods of time, thousands and millions of years, the rocks at or near the surface of the Earth are broken down by various physical, chemical and some biological processes. The end product of this breaking down is the fine particles of soil. There are many other factors which play a vital role in the formation of soil. These factors are :

1. The Sun : It causes heating of rocks which causes cracking and ultimately breaking-up into smaller pieces.
2. Water : It breaks rocks both by freezing and fast flow.
3. Wind : It causes erosion of rocks similar to as done by fast flowing water. It also carries sand from one place to the other like water does.
4. Living organisms : Lichens and moss plants grow on the rock surface and cause rock surface to powder down and form a thin layer of soil. The roots of big trees sometimes go into cracks in the rocks and as the roots grow bigger, the crack is forced bigger.

Question.16 What are the different states in which water is found during the water cycle ? [SAII – 2011]
Answer. Three different states of water can be seen during the water cycle. These states are :

1. Gaseous stateTtn the form of water vapour which evaporates from the surface water).
2. Liquid state (It is formed by the condensation of water vapour and can be seen in the form of rain).
   (iii) Solid state (It is formed by the freezing of liquid droplets in the upper layer of atmosphere which can be seen in the form of snow, hail or sleet).

Question.17 List any three human activities which would lead to an increase in the carbon dioxide content of air. [SAII – 2011]
Answer.Three human activities which would lead to an increase in the CO₂ content of air are :

1. Respiration : It is the natural process of release of CO₂  by both plants and animals. But this release is neither dangerous nor it has any adverse effect on our environment.
2. Combustion of fuels : The various types of fuels are burnt to provide energy for various – , needs like heating, cooking, transportation and industrial fuels.
3. Deforestation : Trees help in the conversion of CO₂  into organic compounds such as glucose, starch etc., by the process of photosynthesis. When these trees are cut non- judiciously, then the level CO₂  increases in our environment.

Question.18 How are living organisms dependent on the soil ? Are organisms that live in water totally independent of soil as a resource ? [SAII – 2014]
Answer. Living organisms are dependent on the soil in the following ways :

1.  Soil provides a natural habitat for various different organisms (such as bacteria, fungi, algae) which help in improving the quality of the soil. Thus, they maintain the fertility of the soil.
2. Number of insects, animals like rats, rabbits etc. build their home in the soil.
3.  Earthworms perform all their activities in the soil. They maintain fertility also as their excreta is rich in nitrogen.
4.  Soil pro/ides anchorage and nutrients to the plants for their growth and development.

Yes, all organisms that live in water are totally dependent on soil as a resource : The mineral, nytrients are present in water in the dissolved form. But their recycling takes place only with the help of decomposers which are present in the soil beds. Thus, all water bodies has soil beds which contain decomposers for the recycling of nutrients and to convert them into readily absorbable forms.

Question.19 You have seen weather reports on television and in newspapers. How do you think we are able to predict the weather ?
Answer. Weather observatories collect information regarding the pattern of temperature, speed of wind, air pressure, ocean features and all other features which can affect the weather. This information is collected by remote sensing and weather forecasting satellites. The information collected is then sent to the meteorological departments which prepare a weather report which is displayed on the maps. This information is further transmitted through radio and television.
You might have heard about weather report saying ‘depressions’ in the Bay of Bengal have caused rains in some areas.

Question.20 We know that many human activities lead to increasing levels of pollution of the air, water bodies and soil. Do you think that isolating these activities to specific and limited areas would help in reducing pollution ? [SAII -2012]
Answer. Yes, definitely if these activities are isolated to specific and limited areas, then the level of pollution of the air, water bodies and soil will decrease. For example :
(i) If all the sewage discharge, industrial waste is collected and treated properly before discharging into water bodies, then obviously aquatic life in these water bodies will be  affected to a little extent.
(ii) If hot water from the industries (which is used for cooling machines and other devices) is collected at a commonplace and cooled and aerated properly before discharging into water bodies. Then this will not affect the breeding capacity of aquatic organisms.
(iii) If all the industries and commercial places of a city/town are located in a particular area which is far away from a residential area. Then all diseases resulting from air pollution could be minimised.
(iv) Above all, if we use only biodegradable substances, then they will get decomposed easily and there will be very little pollution of our precious natural resources.

5 MARKS QUESTIONS
Question.1 What are the various causes of soil erosion. [SAII – 2014]
Answer. Causes of Soil Erosion :
(i) Wind causes soil erosion by”carrying away the topsoil particles.
(ii) Rain causes soil erosion on unprotected topsoil by washing it down.
(iii)Improper farming or tilling and leaving the field fallow for long time causes soil erosion.
(iv)Frequent flooding of rivers causes soil erosion by removing the topsoil of the fields near the river banks.
(v) Deforestation also leads to soil erosion.

Question.2 Explain the role of the sun in the formation of soil. Justify “Dust is a pollutant” [SAII -2012]
Answer.
(a)

•  Sun plays an important role in the formation of soil.
•  The rocks heat up and expand under the influence of solar radiations.
•  At night the rocks cool down and contract.
•  Continuous expansion and contraction and uneven heating of different parts of rocks
  tends to break them into smaller pieces. .
•  These smaller pieces of rocks play an important role in the formation of soil.

(b)

•  Dust causes many respiratory problems like asthma, lung cancer, bronchitis etc.
•  Dust along with smoke and water vapour forms smog. It causes respiratory problems in humans and reduces visibility leading to accidents.
•  Inhalation of dust of cement, asbestos or coal etc. may cause sneezing and allergy or TB.

Question.3 How does nitrogen fixation take place during lightning ? How do plants make use of the nitrates and nitrites present in soil ? [SAII -2014]
Answer.

Nitrogen fixing bacteria mostly found in the root nodules of leguminous plants convert
atmospheric nitrogen molecules into nitrates.
During lightning, the high temperatures and pressure created in the air convert nitrogen into
oxides of nitrogen. These oxides dissolve in water to give nitrous and nitric acids that fall on
land along with rain.

•  Nitrogen fixing bacteria which are found in the roots of leguminous plants convert atmospheric nitrogen into  nitrate (the usable form by plants).
•  During lightning and thunder, the high temperature and pressure help to convert atmospheric nitrogen into  oxides of nitrogen and to give nitric and nitrous acids which fall along with rain.
•  The plants use nitrogen in the form of nitrates and nitrites to form amino acids and
  proteins.
•  The plants are used as food by animals.
•  After the death of plants and animals, the bacteria convert these compounds of nitrogen into nitrates and  nitrites, which are used by new plants to grow.
•  Some other types of bacteria convert nitrites and nitrates into molecular nitrogen, which escapes into  atmosphere and becomes a part of it.

Question.4 Draw labelled diagrams of :
(a) Carbon cycle
(b) Oxygen cycle and briefly explain oxygen cycle.[SAII – 2013]
Answer. (a)

(b)

Oxygen cycle:

•  Oxygen from the atmosphere is used up in combustion, respiration and
  in the formation, of oxides of nitrogen.
•  Oxygen is returned to the atmosphere through photosynthesis. This
  constitutes oxygen cycle in nature.

Question.5 What are the methods of preventing or reducing soil erosion ? [SAII -2012]
Answer. The methods of preventing soil erosion are :
(i) Afforestation : Forests reduce erosion as the roots of trees hold the soil in place.
(ii) Shelter belts : Trees planted in lines or hedges around farmland reduce erosion by
reducing the speed of the wind.
(iii) Contour ploughing : Farmers plough land so that furrows lie across the natural slope of
the land. These furrows trap water and do not allow it to flow down carrying the topsoil.
(iv) Terrace (or step) farming : A terraced hillside is less likely to tie eroded than a natural
hillside. Here a series of steps formed by horizontal strips supported by walls, catch the
descending water. It gives the water sufficient time to percolate Into the soil and nourish
the crop.
(v) Soil cover : Soil left bare after harvesting a crop is often covered with dried vegetation to prevent erosion. Steep slopes that cannot be ploughed are covered with grass or pasture crops.
(vi) Preventing overgrazing : As the grass has a tendency to bind soil molecules, so even a very little grass on a field prevents erosion of soil. But if the grass is overgrazed, it exposes the soil to erosion.

Question.6 Why is the atmosphere essential for life ? [SAII-2011]
Answer. Atmosphere is essential for life because of the following reasons :
(i) It keeps the average temperature of the earth fairly steady during the day and even during the course of the whole year.
(ii) It prevents the sudden increase in temperature during the daylight hours.
(iii) It contains all the important gases which are required for sustaining life on earth. These gases are :
(a) Oxygen for respiration of living organisms and oxidation.
(b) Carbon dioxide for photosynthesis in plants and for making food.
(c) Nitrogen foTproviding inert atmosphere and making proteins.
(iv) The stratosphere region (16-23 km from the surface of Earth) of atmosphere contains a thick layer of ozone which filters the harmful UV radiation from Sun. If these radiations reach on the surface of Earth, then they may cause cancer in animals and are also harmful for plants.

Question.7 Write a note on how forests influence the quality of our air, soil and water resources.
[SAII – 2014]
Answer. Forests influence the quality of air, soil and water resources in the following ways :
(i) Influence of forests in controlling the quality of air :
(а) Forests help in minimising the level of CO₂ in the atmosphere. This prevents – , greenhouse effect and global warming.
(b) Forests reduce environmental temperature which in turn increases the rate of photosynthesis in plants in the surrounding regions.
(c) Some of the trees have the abllity to absorb harmful gases present in the atmosphere, e.g., Jamun trees can absorb compounds of lead easily.
(ii) Influence of forests in controlling the quality of soil:
(a) The roots of huge trees spread in a larger area and prevent erosion of topsoil by holding the soil particles tightly.
(b) Forests also regulate biogeochemical cycles which are responsible for cycling of nutrients and making them available for the plants in the soil.
(c) Many of the decomposing bacteria and nitrogen-fixing bacteria live in close association with the roots of the trees.
(iii) Influence of forests in controlling the quality of water :
(a) Forests help in returning pure water back to the surface of earth through rains.
(b) Forests help in maintaining the water cycle as well as water resources of the earth.

APPLICATION BASED QUESTIONS

Question.1 There is mass mortality of fishes in a pond. What may be the reasons ? [SAII -2013]
Answer.

1. Thermal pollution.
2. Addition of poisonous (mercury) compounds in water.
3. Due to blockage of gills with any pollutant.

Question.2 Lichens are called pioneer colonisers of bare rock. How can they help in formation of soil ?
Answer. Lichens release chemical substances to break the rocks into smaller particles and hence make soil.

Question.3 “Soil is formed by water.” If you agree to this statement then give reasons.
Answer. Water helps in the formation of soil in the following ways :

1.  Water causes ‘wear off’ of rocks over a long period of time.
2. It also causes the rocks to rub against other rocks creating small particles which are taken away downstream and deposited as soil.
3. Water expands on freezing in crevices of rocks and crack rocks into smaller pieces.

Question.4 Justify “Dust is a pollutant”. [SAII – 2014]
Answer. Dust remains present in air as suspended particles can cause allergy and other respiratory diseases. It also affects plant growth by covering stomata on leaf surface. It acts as the carrier of toxic compounds like heavy metals.

Question.5 Explain the role of the Sun in the formation of soil. ..
Answer. The rocks are heated by the sun; they contract during night but not at same rate – resulting in cracks in rocks and ultimately to smaller particles.

Question.6 What are the various forms in which oxygen is available ? [SAII -2011]
Answer.

1. In the atmosphere, oxygen is found in the elemental form to the extent of 21 %.
2. In combined form, it occurs as CO₂ both in the earth’s crust as well as in the air.
3. In the crust, it is found as the oxides of most metals and silicon and also as carbonate,  sulphate, nitrate and other minerals.
4. It is also an essential component of most biological molecules like carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids and fats (or lipids).

Question.7 What causes movement of air ? Mention’the factors which influence these winds ? [SAII – 2012]
Answer.

1. Uneven heating of the atmosphere.
2. Rotation of the earth.
3. Presence of mountain range.
4. Difference in cooling and heating of land and water bodies.
5. Formation and condensation of water vapours, (any two)

Question.8 Explain why is there a change in the wind direction in coastal areas during the day and at night. [SAII -2012]
Answer. During the day: Air above the land gets heated faster and starts rising to create a region of low pressure. While the sea water does not get heated so rapidly and the air above it remains cool. This causes the air over the sea to move into the region of low pressure i.e., towards land. During the night : At night, the land and sea starts cooling. The land cools faster than the water, so the air above water is warmer than the air above land and hence, the direction of wind is reversed i.e., from land to the sea.

Question.9 How is the atmosphere of Venus/Mars different from that of the Earth ? Name two main gases present in earth’s atmosphere. [SAII -2013]
Answer.

•  The major component of the atmosphere of Venus/Mars is carbon dioxide while on Earth it is only a fraction of a per cent.
•  The carbon dioxide constitutes upto 95-97% of the atmosphere on Venus and Mars but it constitutes only 0.03 to 0.04% of atmosphere on Earth.
•  Two main gases present in Earth’s atmosphere are nitrogen and oxygen.

Question.10 In what forms the water is found on the earth surface ? Describe in brief. [SAII -2011]
Answer.

•  Most of the water on Earth’s surface is found in the form of liquid in seas, oceans, rivers, lakes, ponds etc.
•  It is found in the form of ice (solid) in the ice-caps on mountain peaks and in polar regions.
•  Water is also found in vapour state when it evaporates at the surface of water bodies, as moisture in the atmosphere, air transpired by plants and air exhaled by animals.

Question.11 ‘A change in temperature in the water body affects aquatic organisms’. Explain in brief.
[SAII -2013]
Answer.Change in the water temperature can affect the aquatic life in the following ways :

1.  It can encourage the growth of some life forms and harm some other life forms.
2. This affects the balance between various organisms which had been established in that – system.
3. This can lead to removal of desirable substances like oxygen and other nutrients from water
   bodies.
4. The eggs and larvae of various animals are particularly susceptible to temperature changes.
   So such aquatic life forms may become extinct from the related water bodies.
5. The breeding of aquatic organisms will be affected.

Question.12
(a) In what ways the water cycle helps the marine organisms ?
(b) ‘The biosphere is a dynamic but stable system.’ Justify this statement. [SAII – 2013]
Answer.
(a)

•  Water is capable of dissolving a large number of substances.
•  Water flows through or over rocks containing soluble minerals.
•  Some of the minerals get dissolved in the water which is carried by water bodies and made available to aquatic organisms.

(b)

•  There is a constant interaction between the biotic and abiotic components of the
  biosphere.
•  These interactions consist of a transfer of matter and energy between the different components of the biosphere and make it a dynamic but stable system.

Question.13 Describe how lichens and big trees influence the formation of soil.
Answer.

1. Lichens grow on the surface of rocks and release substances that powder down the rock surface.
2.  Moss grows on this surface and breaks it further.
3. The roots of trees grow into rocks, form cracks and widen them further to form soil.

Question.14 How is soil formed ? List four factors which play a vital role in the formation of soil. [SAII – 2014]
Answer.
Soil is formed by breakdown of rocks by various physical, biological and chemical processes. Following factors play important role in the formation of soil :
(i) Temperature variations due to solar radiation, (ii) Rainwater, (iii) Wind, (iv) Living organisms.

Question.15
(а) Explain how forests influence the quality of our air, soil and water resources.
(b) State two ways in which atmospheric carbon dioxide is fixed. [SAII -2014]
Answer.
(a) Forests influence the quality of our air, soil and water resources in many ways :

• The vegetation/trees in the forest purify the air by the process of photosynthesis.
• The roots of trees and plants, bind the soil and prevent the soil erosion as well as floods.
•  The roots absorb the water present in the soil as groundwater.
•  The water released by the process of transpiration as water vapour becomes a part of
  atmosphere which helps to bring the rain.
•  The forests also help to regulate the temperature of air.

(b) (i) Carbon dioxide is fixed into carbohydrate by the process of photosynthesis.
(ii) The carbon dioxide is fixed in the form of carbonates and bicarbonates; compounds and endoskeletons  and exoskeletons of various animals are formed from carbonate salts.

Question.16 Carbon dioxide is necessary for plants, justify this statement. Why do we consider it as a pollutant ?
Answer.It is true that carbon dioxide is necessary for plants as it is used in photosynthesis.
In photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is fixed into carbohydrate.
Question.16 Carbohydrate is the major source of food for all heterotrophs.
Excess quantity of carbon dioxide results in greenhouse effect and leads to global warming. The excess carbon dioxide in air may cause several respiratory problems in living beings. Therefore, the carbon dioxide, if produced in excess quantity is considered as a pollutant.

Question.17
(а) Write the name of triatomic molecule of oxygen.
(b) Is its presence necessary in nature ?
(c) How does it affect the environment ? Explain. [SAII – 2013]
Answer.
(a) The triatomic form of oxygen is called ozone.
(b) Yes, its presence is necessary in nature.
(c) Ozone absorbs the harmful radiations from the Sun and, thereby protects many forms of life from getting damaged.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Question

Question.1 Rivers from land, add minerals to sea water. Discuss how. [SAII – 2013]
Answer.Water is capable of dissolving a large number of substances. As water flows over the rocks containing soluble minerals, some of them get dissolved in the water. Thus, rivers carry many nutrients from land to the sea.

Question.2 How can we prevent the loss of topsoil ?
Answer.Loss of topsoil can be prevented by :

1. increasing the vegetational cover
2. checking the falling of trees
3. by preventing excessive grazing by animals.

Question.3 Fertile soil has lots of humus. Why ? [SAII-2012]
Answer. Fertile soils are rich in organisms that decompose dead organic matter forming humus. Humus gives minerals, absorbs water and makes soil porous.
Answer.

Question.4 Following are a few organisms :
(a) lichen (b) mosses
(c) mango tree (d) cactus
Which among the above can grow on stones and also help in formation of soil ? Write the mode of their action for making soil. [SAII – 2014]
Answer. Lichens and mosses (a) and (b). Lichens and mosses release substances which break down the stones resulting in the formation of soil.

Question.5 Soil formation is done by both abiotic and biotic factors. List the names of these factors by classifying them as abiotic and biotic. 
Answer. Abiotic factors making soil — sun, water, wind. Biotic factors — lichens, mosses and trees.

Question.6 A motor car, with its glass totally closed, is parked directly under the sun. The inside temperature of the car rises very high. Explain why.
Answer. Infrared radiations in sunlight pass through the glass and heat the interior of the car. The radiation emitted by upholstery and other inner parts of the car cannot pass out of the glass, so the heat trapped inside raises the temperature of the interior. This is because glass is transparent to infrared radiation from the sun having smaller wavelength than that emitted by the interior of the car which are of longer wavelength to which the glass is opaque.

Question.7 What is the importance of carbon cycle ? [SAII – 2014]
Answer. It helps to maintain a constant level of CO₂ in the earth’s atmosphere which further help in maintaining earth’s temperature through greenhouse effect.

Question.8 What is meant by the following terms :
(i) Soil (ii) Pedogenesis? [SAII – 2012]
Answer.
(i) Soil: It is the humus containing and life sustaining weathered uppermost crust of earth.
(ii) Pedogenesis : The process of formation of soil is called pedogenesis.

Question.9 Give two examples where oxygen is not playing any role in supporting life.
Answer.

1. Some bacteria are poisoned by elemental oxygen.
2. The process of nitrogen-fixing by bacteria does not take place in the presence of oxygen.

Question.10 Name any two kinds of fertilizers whose excessive presence in water bodies result in algal
growth. What is the consequence of eutrophication ? Define eutrophication.
Answer.

1. Nitrates and phosphates.
2. The presence of nitrates arid phosphate fertilizers in sewage water provide a lot of nutrients to the algae present in the water body and causes algal bloom. When the algae die, the aerobic decomposers become active and consume all the dissolved oxygen of water. This results in shortage of oxygen for other aquatic life forms, ultimately resulting in their death.
3. Eutrophication : The process in which the presence of extra quantity of nitrogenous and phosphate fertilizers leads to excessive growth of algae in the water body which further leads to depletion of dissolved oxygen in water, resulting in killing of other aquatic organisms.

Reasoning Questions

Question.1 Why does the percentage of gases like oxygen, nitrogen and carbon dioxide remain almost the same in the atmosphere ? [SAII – 2013]
Answer. Cycling of these gases maintains consistency.

Question.2 Why does moon have very cold and very hot temperature variations, e.g., from -190°C to 110°C even though it is at the same distance from the sun as the earth is ?
Answer. Absence of atmosphere on the moon.

Question.3 Why does Mathura refinery pose problems to the Taj Mahal ? [SAII – 2014]
Answer. Mathura refinery releases toxic gases (like oxides of sulphur) which causes acid rain and hence corrosion of the marbles of Taj Mahal.

Question.4 Why do not lichens occur in Delhi whereas they commonly grow in Manali or Darjeeling ?
Answer. It is a bio-indicator and sensitive to SO₂pollution from automobiles. Delhi has maximum number of automobiles, hence has a highly polluted environment.

Question.5 Why doeswater need conservation even though large oceans surround the land masses ?
Answer. Marine water is not useful for human and plant life directly. Uneven distribution of limited freshwater resources need conservation to cater to the demands.

Question.6 State reasons for the following:
(i) Excess burning of coal causes greenhouse effect.
(ii) Soil isamixtui
(iii) Temperature ranges from -190°C to 110°C on the surface of the moon.
Answer.
(i)

• Excess burning of coal produces greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide and hydrocarbons.
•  These gases have a tendency to trap the heat of the sun, thereby causing greenhouse effect.

(ii) Soil is a mixture as it contains small particles of rock (of different sizes), bits of decayed . living organisms and various forms of microscopic life. It also contains air and water
(moisture) in it.
(iii) The moon has no atmosphere. The atmosphere helps to regulate the temperature. In absence of atmosphere, the temperature on the surface of moon ranges from -190°C to 110°C.

Question.7 Explain why are root nodules useful for the plants ? [SAII-2012]
Answer. Root nodules contain the symbiotic bacteria, Rhizobium which convert/fix the atmospheric nitrogen into usable form /.e., nitrates’Which are utilised by plants for the synthesis of amino acids and proteins.

Important Topics/Areas/Questions which are
frequently asked in the examination

Question.1
(a) What is the outermost layer of our Earth called ?
(b) How is this important to life forms ? ‘
(c) Name four factors that help in the formation of soil from rocks.
Answer.
(a) The outermost layer of our Earth is called crust. The outer crust of Earth is called lithosphere.
(b) The living forms get all substances of their requirement for supporting life form this region.
(c) (i) Winds, (ii) Water, (iii) Living organisms, (iv) Temperature variations (due to solar radiation).

Question.2 Write in brief the harmful effects of water pollution. [SAII – 2014]
Answer.

•  Causes water borne disease.
• Destroys microorganisms thereby affecting self purification of water.
•  Decreases amount of dissolved 02 in water bodies.
•  Changes the temperature of water, oceans, leading to melting of polar ice.
• Disturbs aquatic life.
• Kills aquatic organisms.

Question.3 Mention any three human activities which are responsible for water pollution. [SAII -2013]
Answer.

1.  Excessive use of fertilizers and pesticides.
2. Disposal of industrial waste which contains poisonous substances into nearby water bodies.
3. Sewage discharged into sewers from household/domestic units.
4. Synthetic soap and detergents used during washing in household units.
5.  Hot water released from industrial units.

Question.4 What are the harmful effects of modern farming practices ? Mention any three effects:
[SAII- 2013, 14]
Answer.

1.  Modern farming practices are based on excessive use of fertilizers and pesticides.
2. These are used to increase the crop production as well as for pest and weed control.
3. From the soil, these chemicals enter the food chain and affect the life of living organisms.

The harmful effects are :

1. The excessive use of fertilizers and pesticides affects the fertility of soil and changes its texture i.e., it may become acidic or alkaline and less fertile.
2. Harmful non-biodegradable chemicals enter the food chain and adversely affect the health of animals or even human.
3. Excessive use of fertilizers and pesticides in the long run reduces the crop yield or soil.fertility and kills the diversity of organisms that live in it.

Question.5 What is the chemical formula of ozone ? What essential function does this gas perform and where it is found ? What are CFCs ? [SAII – 2014]
Answer.

1. Ozone (O₃).
2. It absorbs the harmful solar UV radiation to prevent various harmful effects on man, animals and plants.
3. Ozone is found in the stratosphere, i.e., about 18-50 km above the atmosphere.
4. CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) are synthetic harmful chemicals which are used in refrigerators and air conditioners as coolants, in fire extinguishers, in aerosol sprayers etc. They are responsible for depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere.

The post Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Science Natural Resources appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Social Science Chapter 4 Forest Society and Colonialism

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

Very Short Answer Type Questions (I Mark each)
Question.1 What is deforestation ? [CBSE 2015]
Answer. The disappearance of forests is referred to as deforestation.

Question.2 How was increasing population responsible for deforestation ?
Answer. As population increased over the centuries and demand for food went up,peasants
extended the boundaries of cultivation, clearing forests and breaking new land.

Question.3 Mention the impact of the disappearing Oak forests in England.
Answer. Disappearing Oak forests created a problem of timber supply for the Royal Navy.

Question.4 Why were railways essential for the colonial government ?
Answer. Railways were essential for the colonial trade, and for the movement of imperial troops.

Question.5 ‘The ship industry of England was also responsible for deforestation in India’. Give one reason.
Answer. Due to the high demand, oak forests in England were disappearing. This created i a problem of timber supply for the Royal
Navy which required to build ships. To get the supply of oak for the ship industry,
Britishers started exploring Indian forests
on a massive scale.

Question. 6 How far the plantation agriculture was responsible for deforestation in India?
Answer.

1. Large areas of natural forests were cleared to make way for tea, coffee and rubber plantations to meet Europe’s growing need for these commodities.
2. The colonial government took over the forests, and gave vast areas to European planters at cheap rates. These areas were enclosed and cleared of forests, and planted with tea or coffee.

Question.7 Who was Dietrich Brandis ? Why he was invited to India ?
Answer. Dietrich Brandis was a German expert. He was made the first Inspector General of Forests in India.
He was invited to India by the Britishers to save the Indian forests.

Question. 8 Who set up the Indian Forest Service in India ? [CBSE 2015]
Answer. Dietrich Brandis.

Question.9 When was the Imperial Forest Re¬search Institute set up in Dehradun?
Answer. 1906.

Question.10 What was scientific forestry ?
Answer. In scientific forestry, natural forests which had lots of different types of trees were cut down. In their place, one type of free was planted in straight rows. This is called as plantation. Forest officials surveyed the forests, estimated the area under different types of trees, and made working plans for the forest management. They planned how much of the plantation area to cut every year. The area cut was then to be replanted so that it was ready to be cut again in some years.

Question.11 Name the Act which was enacted to protect the forests.
Answer. The Indian Forest Act, 1865.

Question.12 Name the categories of forests under the 1878 Forest Act.
Answer.

1.  Reserved forests.
2. Protected forests.
3. Village forests.

Question.13 What were reserved forests ?
Answer. These were the best forests which produced commercially valuable timber. No individual was allowed to access to these forests.

Question.14 What were forest villages ?
Answer. The villages which were allowed to stay on in the reserved forests on the condition that worked free for the forest department in cutting and transporting trees, and protecting the forest from fires were called the forest villages.

Question.15 What was the basic cause of the rebellion in the forest of Bastar ?
Answer. Reservation of two-thirds of the forests.

Question.16 What were the result of the Bastar rebellion ?
Answer.

1.  Work on reservation was temporarily suspended.
2. Area to be reserved was reduced to roughly half of that planned before 1910.

Question.17 Where is Bastar located ?
Answer. Bastar is located in the southernmost part of Chhattisgarh, and borders of Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Maharashtra.

Question.18 Name any two local communities of Bastar.
Answer.

1.  Maria Gonds
2. Muria Gonds
3. Dhurwas
4. Bhatras

Question.19 Who was Gunda Dhur ?
Answer. He was a tribal leader of the Dhurwas of the Kanger forest. The tribal people revolted against the unjust forest policies of the British under his able leadership.

Question.20 Mention any two factors which prompted the people of Bastar to rebel against the Britishers.
Answer.

1.  The British government’s decision to reserve two-thirds of the forest.
2. To ban shifting cultivation.

Question.21 Who was Surontiko Samin ?
Answer. He was the tribal leader who was responsible for launching the Samin Movement against the Dutch Government. He argued that the state had not created wind, water, earth and wood, so it could not own it.

Question.22 What was blandongdiensten system?
Answer. Under this sytem, the Dutch exempted some villages from the rent on land if they worked collectively to provide free labour and buffaloes for cutting and transporting timber. Later, instead of rent exemption, forest villagers were given small wages, but their right to cultivate forest land was restricted.

Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
Question.1 Explain what is shifting cultivation. Why did European foresters regard this practice as harmful for forests ? [CBSE March 2012,2013,2014]
Answer. A method of farming in which a patch of ground is cultivated for a period of few years until the soil is partly exhausted or r overrun by weeds, and after which the land is left to natural vegetation while cultivation is carried elsewhere.

1. Shifting cultivation made it harder for the government to calculate taxes. Therefore, the government decided to ban shifting cultivation.
2.  European foresters regarded this practice as harmful for the forests. They felt that land which was used for cultivation every few years could not j grow trees for railway timber.
3.  There was also the added danger of the flames spreading, and burning valuable timber.

Question.2 Who were Saminist ? Mention any if two methods used by the Saminist to revolt against the Dutch.
Answer.

1. The Saminists laid down on their land when the Dutch surveyors came to ‘ reclassify communal and salary  lands,and used to cry out, “Kangoo” (I own it).
2. They refused to pay taxes,fines to accept wages and to leave rented or communal land when their leases expired.

Question.3 What changes one can observe towards forest policy since 1980’s ?
Answer.

1.  Conservation of forests rather than i collecting timber has become a more important goal.
2.  The various governments have realised that the people who live near the forests must be involved.

Question.4 Discuss how the changes in forest management in the colonial period affected the following groups of people:
(a) Shifting cultivators
(b) Nomadic and pastoralist communities.
Answer.
(a) (i) Ban on shifting cultivation: As shifting cultivation was non-profitable to the government, therefore, the government decided to ban shifting cultivation. As a result, many communities lost the source of their livelihood.
(ii) New occupations : Due to a ban on the shifting cultivation, most of the people had to change their occupations. Some started working as labourers.
(iii) Large and small rebellions: When the colonial government proposed to reserve two-thirds of the forest in 1905 and banned shifting cultivation, people got together, and revolted against the decision of the government.
(b) (i) Reduction in Pastures : The various laws which were formulated had an adverse effect on the pastures. Through various acts, some forests were declared ‘Reserved. No pastoralist was allowed an access to these forests. Other forests were classified as ‘Protected’. In these, some customary grazing rights of pastoralists were granted but their movements were severely restricted.

Question. 5 Mention any four factors which prompted the Samins to revolt against the Dutch. [CBSE2014]
Answer.

1.  The Saminists laid down on their land when the Dutch surveyors came to reclassify communal and salary  lands, and used to cry out, “Kanggo” (I own it).
2.  They cut teak despite Dutch efforts to guard the forest.
3.  They refused to pay taxes, fines to accept wages, and to leave rented or communal land when their leases  expired.
4. Some piled stones on the roads which they had been ordered to build.

Question.6 ‘In the colonial period, cultivation expanded rapidly for a variety of reasons.’ Explain any two.
Answer.

1.  Need for raw materials and food
   problem: The Britishers encouraged the production of commercial crops like jute, sugar, cotton and indigo as these were used as raw materials by the British industry. They promoted the production of foodgrains as these were required to feed the growing urban population.
2.  Unproductive forests: In the early nineteenth century, the colonial state thought that forests were  unproductive. They were considered to be wilderness that had to be brought under cultivation so that the land could yield agricultural products and revenue, and enhance the income of the state. So between 1880 and 1920, the cultivated area rose by 6.7 million hectares.

Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
Question.1 Explain the impact of various forest laws and policies which were adopted by the colonial rulers over the colonial people.
Answer.

1.  Various restrictions : The Forest Act meant severe hardship for villagers : across the country. After the Act, all
   their forest activities like cutting wood for their houses, grazing their cattle, collecting fruits and roots,  hunting and fishing became illegal.
2.  Impact on cultivators : Shifting cultivation was the most common cultivation practised by the people. But this  was banned because European foresters regarded this harmful for the forests.
3.  Displacement of the people: To protect the forests, the Europeans started displacing villagers without any  notice or compensation.
4.  Various taxes : The Europeans started imposing heavy taxes on the forest people.
5.  Loss of livelihood: The Europeans started giving large European trading firms, the sole right to trade in the  forest. Grazing and hunting by local people were restricted. In the process, many pastoralists and nomadic communities lost their livelihood.

Question.2 How did the Forest Acts affect the lives of foresters and villagers ? [CBSE 2014]
Answer.

1. Various restrictions : The Forest Act meant severe hardship for villagers j across the country. After the Act, all their forest activities like cutting wood for their houses, grazing their cattle, collecting fruits and roots, hunting and  fishing became illegal.
2.  Impact on cultivators : Shifting cultivation was the most common j cultivation practised by the people. But this was banned because European foresters regarded this harmful for the forests.
3. Displacement of the people: To protect the forests, the Europeans started displacing villagers without any notice or compensation.
4.  Various taxes : The Europeans started imposing heavy taxes on the forest people.
5. Loss of livelihood: The Europeans started giving large European trading firms, the sole right to trade in the f forest. Grazing and hunting by local people were restricted. In the process,
   many pastoralists and nomadic communities lost their livelihood.

Question.3 Explain the rebellion of Bastar people against the British. [CBSE March 2011,13,14,15]
Answer.
(1) Reasons for rebellion:

1.  In 1905, the British Government proposed to reserve two-thirds of the forests.
2.  To ban shifting cultivation.
3.  To ban hunting, and collection of forest produce. All these steps forced the locals to revolt against the British.

(2) Course of rebellion :

1.  People began to discuss all these issues in their village councils, in bazaars, markets and at festivals. The initiative was taken by the Dhurwas of the Kanger forest, where reservation first took place.
2.  In 1910, mango boughs, a lump of earth, chillies and arrows, began – circulating between villages. These were actually messages inviting villagers to rebel against the British. Every village contributed something to the rebellion expenses.
3.  Bazaars were looted, the houses of officials and traders, schools and police stations were burnt and robbed, and grain redistributed. Most of those, who were attacked were in some way associated with the colonial state, and its oppressive laws.

(3) Leaders: Although there was no single leader, many people speak of Gunda Dhur, from village Nethanar, as an important figure in the movement.
(4) Suppression of the revolt : The British sent troops to suppress the rebellion. The Adivasi leaders tried to negotiate, but the British surrounded their camps, and fired upon them. After that, they marched through the villages flogging and punishing those who had taken part in the rebellion. Most villages were deserted as people fled into the jungle forests. It took three months (February-May) for the British to regain control. However, they never managed to capture Gunda Dhur.
(5) Consequences of the rebellion: In a major victory for the rebels, work on reservation was temporarily
suspended, and the area to be reserved was reduced to roughly half of that planned before 1910. The revolt also inspired the other tribal people to rebel against the unjust policies of the British Government.

Question.4 Explain any five causes of deforestation in India under the colonial rule. [CBSE March 2011,2012,2013,2014]
Answer.

1.  Increase in population: AS the population increased over die centuries and the demand for food went-up, peasants extended the boundaries of cultivation, clearing forests and breaking new land.
2.  Commercialisation of agriculture: The British encouraged the production of commercial crops like jute, sugar. The demand for these crops increased in 19th century. For this they cleared forests.
3.  Unproductive forests: The colonial government thought that forests were unproductive. They cleared forests for cultivation.
4.  Introduction of railway: The spread of railway from the 1850’s created a new demand. As the railway tracks spread through India, a larger and larger number of trees were fell down.
5. Tea/ Coffee plantation: Large areas of natural forests were also cleared to make way for tea,coffee and rubber plantations to meet Europe’s growing need for these commodities.
   The colonial government took over the forests, and gave vast areas to European planters at cheap rates. These area were enclosed and cleared of forests, and planted with tea or coffee.

Question.5 “The First World War and the Second World War had a major impact on forests.” Explain the statement with five facts. [CBSE March 2013]
Answer. Forests are affected by wars due to various reasons. The chief among them are the following:

1.  In the modem times, the defending armies hide themselves and their war materials under the coyer of the thick forests to avoid detection. As such, the enemy forces target forest areas to capture the opposing soldiers and their war materials.
2. Because of pre-occupation of the participant countries in the war, many proposals for promoting the forest culture have to be abandoned half way and as such, many forests became a prey of neglect.
3. To meet war needs, sometimes forests are cut indiscriminately, and as a result forests vanished within no time, one after the other.
4. Fearing the capture of forest areas by the enemy, sometimes, the existing governments themselves cut down the trees recklessly, destroy the saw mills 1 and bum huge piles of great teak logs. Such a thing happened in Indonesia when the Dutch Government felt that the area under their control would fall to the Japanese.
5.  Sometimes, the occupying forces recklessly cut down trees for their own war industries as was done by the Japanese during the occupation of Indonesia in the Second World War.
6. Finding the forest staff in difficulty during war times, some people expand their agricultural land at the cost of the forest land. Some people who were excluded from the forest areas, once again tried to reoccupy their lands.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (Hots) Questions/Application Based Questions
Question.1 How was the indroduction of railway responsible for deforestation under the colonial era ?
Or
The introduction of railways had an adverse impact on the forests’. Justify by giving examples.
Answer.

1.  Need for sleepers: Sleepers were the basic inputs required for constructing a railway line. Each mile of a railway track required between 1700 to 2,000 sleepers. To meet this demand, large number of trees were fell down.
2.  Fuel: To run locomotives, wood was needed as fuel. As railway was being spread throughout India, more and more wood was required which could be used as fuel.
3. Expansion of railway tracks :
   From the 1860 s, the railway network expanded rapidly. By 1890, about 25,500 km of track had been laid. Upto 1946, the length of the tracks had increased to over 765,000 km. As the railway tracks spread throughout India, a larger and larger number of trees were felldown. As early as the 1850 s, in the Madras Presidency alone, 35,000 trees were being cut annually for sleepers.
4. Contract to private individuals :
   The government gave out contracts to individuals to supply the required quantities. These contractors began cutting trees indis-criminately. Forests around the railway tracks started disappearing fast.

Question.2 Mention any four ideas of Dietrich Brandis for the management of forests in India during the British period.
Answer.

1. Brandis realised that a proper system had to be introduced to manage the forests and people had to be trained in the science of conservation. This system would need legal sanction.
2.  Rules about the use of forest resources had to be framed. Felling of trees and grazing had to be restricted so that- forests could be preserved for timber production. Anybody who cut trees without following the system had to be punished.
3.  Brandis introduced scientific forestry under which natural forsts which had lots of different types of trees were cut down and in their place,one type of trees were planted in straight rows.
4. He set up Indian Forest Services in 1864.

Question.3 “While people lost out in many ways after the forest department took control of the forests, some people benefitted from the new opportunities that had opened up.” Explain by giving examples.
Answer.

1.  New occupations : Many communities left their traditional occupations and started trading in forest products.
2.  Employment: Before the arrival of the Europeans, the locals were dependent on nature for their livelihood, but now they started getting regular jobs. Many of them joined the forest department as workers and watchmen.
3.  Forest products : After the arrival of Europeans, the waste products of the forests also got the market value.
   Locals started selling latex to the traders.
4.  New class of people : With the development of industry and plantation and other economic activities, a new class of people was created which was not dependent on nature for their livelihood.

Value Based Questions
Question.1 Name any four products which are obtained from forests.
Answer.

1. Paper
2.  Dye
3.  Gum
4. Herbs

Question.2 Mention any two factors which is/are responsible for deforestation.
Answer.

1.  Agriculture
2. Increase in population

Question.3 Why were railways essential for the colonial government ?
Answer. Railways were essential for the colonial trade and for the movement of imperial troops.

Question.4 Mention any two ways to increase area under forests.
Answer.

1.  More trees should be grown on wasteland.
2.  People should plant trees in the backyard of their houses.

Question.5 ‘Most of the environmentalists are of the opinion that the people who live near the forests must be involved in protecting the forests.’ Do you agree? Explain.
Or
Describe the new developments in forestry since the 1980’s. [CBSE March 2013]
Answer.

1.  The scientific and the policy of keeping forest communities away from forests has resulted in many conflicts.
2.  Conservation of forest rather than collecting timber has become a more important goal.
3. The government of various countries have recognized that in order to meet this goal, the people who live near the forests must be involved. In many cases, across India, from Mizoram to Kerala, dense forests have survived only because villages protected them in sacred groves known as sarnas, devarakudu, kan, rai, etc.
4. Some villages have been patrolling their own forests, with each household taking it in turns, instead of leaving it to the forest guards.

The post Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Social Science Forest Society and Colonialism appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Compartment Outside Delhi -2011

Time allowed : 3  hours                                                                                         Maximum marks 100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1.  All questions in both the sections are compulsory.
2. Marks for questions are indicated against each.
3. Questions No. 1-5 and 17-21 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 nick each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
4.  Questions No. 6-10 and 22-26 are? short-answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
5.  Questions No. 11-13 and 27-29 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
6.  Questions No. 14-16 and 30-32 are long-answers questions carrying 6 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
7.  Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit should be adhered to as far as possible.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1. Why is the study of consumer’s equilibrium a subject matter of microeconomics?
Answer. Consumer’s equilibrium is a subject matter of microeconomics because it relates to the problem of an individual unit and not of the entire economy.

Question.2. Define marginal utility.
Answer. Marginal utility may be defined as the change in total utility that takes place as a result of consuming an additional unit of a commodity.

Question.3. What causes an upward movement along a demand curve?
Answer. There will be an upward movement on a demand curve of a commodity when its price increases.

Question.4. Give the meaning of marginal revenue.
Answer. Marginal revenue is the change in total revenue that takes place by selling an additional unit of a commodity. 

Question.5. Which market form has the least number of producers?
Answer. Monopoly.

Question.6. Explain the problem of ‘for whom to produce’.
Answer. The main objective of producing a commodity in a country is its consumption by the people of the country. However, even after employing all the resources of a country, it is not possible to produce all the commodities which are required by the people. Therefore, an economy has to decide as to for whom goods should be produced. This problem is the problem of distribution of produced goods and services. Therefore, what goods should be consumed and by whom depends on how national product is distributed among various people.

Question.7. Define an indifference curve. Why is it convex to the origin?
Answer. Indifference Curve: There are many combinations of two commodities (say X1 and X2) which give equal level of satisfaction to a consumer. When these combinations are graphically, represented, the curve so formed is known as an indifference curve.
An indifference curve is convex to the origin because of the diminishing marginal rate of substitution. Marginal rate of substitution is the amount of commodity X2 which a consumer is walling to surrender for obtaining one unit of commodity X1. Because of the law of diminishing utility the amount of commodity X2 for obtaining a successive unit of commodity X1 keeps on declining. Because of this an indifference curve is convex to the origin.
Or ‘
What are the conditions of consumer’s equilibrium under utility analysis?
Answer. (i) Consumer’s equilibrium, according to utility analysis, is established at a point where marginal utility of money is equal to the price of the commodity.
Marginal utility goes on declining but price remains the same. Therefore in such a situation a consumer shall go on consuming a commodity till he reaches a point where marginal utility is equal to the price.
Consumer’s equilibrium in purchase of single good is attained when MU in money terms = Price i.e..,

(ii) In the case of two commodities the consumer’s equilibrium will be established where marginal utilities of both the goods he consumes are equal, MU of good X = MU of good Y, assuming the price of each good is the same.
If the prices of the two goods are different, then consumer’s equilibrium is when,
[/latex]\frac { { MU }_{ X } }{ PriceofX } =\frac { { MU }_{ Y } }{ PriceofY } =MUofmoney[/latex]

Question.8. How is the demand of a commodity affected by a fall in the prices of related goods?
Answer. Related goods may be substitute goods or complementary goods. Substitute goods are those which can be used in place of one another to satisfy the same want such as pen and pencil and complementary goods are a pair of goods which are used together to satisfy a given want such as car and petrol.
If the price of a substitute good falls it becomes cheaper in comparison to the commodity in question and therefore its demand will fall. For example, fall in the demand for pen because of the fall in the price of the pencil. In case of complementary goods a fall in the price of petrol will lead to an increase in its demand and therefore the demand for cars will also increase. Therefore when there is a fall in the price of a complementary good the demand for related goods increases.

Question.9. Explain the implications of the homogeneous products feature of a perfectly competitive market.
Answer. Because of products being homogeneous in perfect competition, the price of the commodity is the same and remains unchanged. This is so because if a firm charges a higher price nobody will buy the product from that firm because the same product is available at a lesser price. On the other hand, if a firm charges lesser price than the market price, it will be an unwise decision on the part of the firm because it can get the market price which is higher than the price it fixes. In short, a competitive firm is a price taker and has no role to play in fixing the price of the commodity.

Question.10. From the following data, calculate the price at each level of output:

Answer.

Question.11. Explain the effect of the following on price elasticity of demand of a good:
(i) Number of substitutes of the good
(ii) Proportion of income spent on the good.
Answer. (i) Number of substitutes. The demand for a Commodity will be very elastic if some other commodities can be used as a substitute for it. A small rise in the price of such a commodity will decrease its demand as its substitutes are available at a lesser price e.g. in case of firewood and coal, coal will be used more as fuel if the price of wood increases. On the other hand, the demand of such commodities is inelastic which have no substitutes, such as salt.
(ii) Proportion of total income spent on the product. If a small proportion of total income is spent on a commodity, its demand will be inelastic such as demand for salt. On the other hand, if a major portion of total income is spent on a commodity, its demand will be more or highly elastic such as demand for luxury goods.

Or
Give the meaning of price elasticity of demand. Explain the relationship between it and total expenditure.
Answer. Price elasticity of demand may be defined as the ratio of percentage change in the quantity demanded to percentage change in price of a commodity. In short, it is the degree of responsiveness of demand for a change in the price of a commodity. According to total expenditure the elasticity of demand will be as follows when price and total expenditure, change.
(i) If price and total expenditure move in opposite directions, elasticity of demand will be greater than 1.
(ii) If total expenditure remains the same whether price increases or decreases, elasticity of demand will be equal to 1.
(iii) If price and total expenditure change in the same direction, price elasticity of demand wiU be less than 1.

Question.12. State the different phases of returns to a factor in terms of total product. Represent the same on a diagram.
Answer. In the short run, units of variable factors change (or increase) for increasing the total product. In this context, three phases or situations can be possible. All the three phases have been exhibited in the given diagram. These are:
(i) In the beginning,4 when additional units of a variable
factor are employed, marginal product increases and Y total product also increases. This is phase I. I st phase ends where AP is highest or from where MP starts declining;
(ii) After this point, marginal product of the additional units of variable factor employed will start declining.
Therefore, total product increases but at a decreasing rate. This is phase II.
(iii) If additional units of variable factor are still used, marginal product becomes negative and hence total product starts declining. This is phase III.
A producer always operates in the second stage. ‘
For Blind Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 12 State the different phases of returns to a factor in terms of total product. Represent the same in a schedule.
Answer. Read the answer to the above Q.12.

Question.13. The price of a commodity is 110 per unit and total revenue from it is Rs 1,000. Its price elasticity of supply is 0.8. Its price falls by 10 percent. Calculate the total revenue at the reduced price.
Answer.

Question.14. Giving reasons, state whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) Marginal utility can never be negative. .
(ii) A budget set is the collection of all bundles of goods that a consumer wants to buy.
(iii) The demand for a commodity always increases with increase in the price of other goods.
Answer. (i) The statement is false. Marginal utility can be negative also. Marginal utility keeps on declining on using additional units of a commodity successively. Therefore if we go on using additional units, a stage comes, when marginal utility becomes zero and then negative.
(ii) The statement is false. The set of bundles of two goods that are available to a consumer is a budget set. This signifies that the bundles constituting budget set are available to the consumer and does not mean that these are the bundles which consumer wants to buy.
(iii) The statement is false. Increase in the prices of other goods leads to an increase in the demand for a commodity but not always.

Question.15. Complete the following table:

Answer. Total Fixed Cost = AFC x No. of Units = 18 x 4 = Rs 72

Question.16. Explain the sequence of changes that will take place when there is excess demand of a commodity.
Answer. There will be excess demand of a commodity when price is less than the equilibrium price. In the given diagram, OP is the equilibrium price where quantity demanded and supplied are equal. However, when price is reduced to OP1, demand exceeds supply, with the result that there is excess demand = Q2Q1 In such a case the demand should be reduced and supply increased. So that both these may be equal. These would be equal, when price is increased from OP1 to OP, where quantity demanded and supplied are equal.

Or
X and Y are complementary goods. Explain the sequence of effects of a fall in the price of X on the equilibrium price and quantity of Y.
Answer. X and Y are complementary goods. This means both goods are demanded simultaneously. In other words, X cannot be used without Y and Y cannot be used without X. If the price of X falls, its demand will increase because of the application of law of demand.
When demand of X increases, demand of Y will also increase, with the result that there will be a rightward shift in the demand curve of Y.
As a result of this, the equilibrium point will shift to the right from E to F, where price increases from OP to OP1 and demand increases from OQ to OQ1
Therefore, as a result of fall in the price of X, the equilibrium price and quantity of commodity Y both increase. This is clear from the diagrams given below.

SECTION B
Question.17. Define domestic product.
Answer. Domestic product is the value of final goods and services produced within the domestic territory of a country in an accounting year

Question.18. What is transfer payment?
Answer. Transfer payments are unilateral payments which recipients get without adding anything to the current flow of goods and services.

Question.19. What are demand deposits?
Answer. Demand deposits are those bank deposits which can be withdrawn by the depositors whenever they want.

Question.20. How is primary deficit calculated?
Answer. Primary deficit is the difference of fiscal deficit and interest payments .
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payment.

Question.21. What is meant by cash reserve ratio?
Answer. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the portion of total deposits which commercial banks are required to keep as reserve with the central bank of the country.

Question.22. From the following data calculate “net value added at factor cost”:

Answer.

Question.23. Explain the relationship between average propensity to consume and average propensity to save. Which of these can have a negative value and when?
Answer. Average Propensity to Consume (APC) is the ratio of total consumption expenditure to total income. Average Propensity to Save (APS) is the ratio of total savings to total income. In short,

Question.24. Explain the meaning and implications of revenue deficit.
Answer. See Q. 29, 2008 (I Outside Delhi)

Question.25. In an economy aggregate demand is less than aggregate supply. Explain the changes that will take place in this economy.
Answer. If equilibrium is established before the full employment level of output, it is a situation where aggregate demand is less than aggregate supply. The gap between the two is deflationary gap as shown by EF in the adjacent diagram.
This gap can be rectified by increasing the level of aggregate demand. In this case autonomous investment needs to be increased. This situation can be exhibited with the help of a diagram.

Or
Explain the meaning and implications of deflationary gap.
Answer. When aggregate demand and aggregate supply are in equilibrium at less than the full employment level of output, this is a situation of deficient demand.
This happens when aggregate demand in the economy is not sufficient to ensure that level of output which can give employment to all those who are willing to work.
Aggregate demand falls short of aggregate supply at full employment level of output by a certain amount, which is called deflationary gap. The extent of deficiency in demand (deflationary gap i.e., EF) at the full employment level is shown in the adjacent diagram.

Question.26. Explain why there is a rise in demand for foreign exchange when its price falls.
Answer. See Q. 23, 2008 (I Outside Delhi)

Question.27. How can distribution of income be a limitation of using gross domestic product as an index of welfare? Explain.
Answer. It is to be seen as to how the increase in national income is distributed. If national income rises, it is not necessary that income of each individual rises in the same proportion. Individual incomes may rise in different proportions. In some cases, it may fall. In other words, inequalities may rise. Rise in inequalities in incomes may adversely affect the economic welfare of the society. Therefore, for ascertaining the effect of increase in national income, it has to be seen whether it increases income inequalities or reduces income inequalities.
Or
Giving reason, categories the following into stocks and flows:
(i) Profits (ii) Capital (iii) Savings (iv) Balance in a bank account
Answer. (i) Profits are flows because they relate to a period of time.
(ii) Capital is a stock as it relates to a point of time.
(iii) Savings are flows as they relate to a period of time.
(iv) Balance in a bank account is a stock as it relates to a point of time.

Question.28. Distinguish between revenue receipts and capital receipts. Give two examples of each.
Answer. Revenue Receipts: Any receipt which does not either create a liability or leads to reduction in the value of assets is a revenue receipt. Revenue receipts may be tax revenue such as income tax and may be non-tax revenue such as fees and fines.
Capital Receipts: Capital receipts are those receipts which, the government gets either by incurring liability or disposing off some assets. Its examples are mobilising funds through loans from the public. Government may also get funds by disinvestment such as selling a public sector unit. These are examples of public receipts
Corresponding to revenue receipts, there is no liability whereas in the case of capital receipts a liability is created or an asset is sold.

Question.29. Giving reasons, state whether the following statements are true or false:
(i) Current account of Balance of Payments account records only exports and imports of goods and services.
(ii) Foreign investments are recorded in the capital account of balance of payments.
Answer. (i) The statement is false. In current account of balance of payments, besides recording export and import of services, unilateral receipts and payments are also included.
(ii) The statement is true. Foreign investments are recorded in the capital account of balance of payments.

Question.30. How is “bank rate” used by central bank in influencing credit creation by commercial banks? Explain.
Answer. Bank rate is the rate at which central bank discounts first class bills and securities of the commercial banks. In other words, the rate of interest which a central bank charges from the commercial banks, to give them credit can be called as bank rate.
(i) When bank rate is higher, commercial banks will charge higher rate of interest from their customers. Therefore, when bank rate increases, rate of interest on loans will also be more and so credit becomes expensive and the demand for credit is reduced. This . results in credit control.
(ii) With decrease in bank rate, interest rate on loans is also decreased, 50 credit becomes cheap and demand for credit increases. It is called credit expansion. ,
In short, bank rate and volume of credit are inversely related and the effects of changes in the bank rate on the volume of credit is brought about through the changes in the rate of interest.
Or
How does money overcome the problems of barter system? Explain briefly.
Answer. Money overcomes the problems of barter system by the following functions:
Medium of exchange: It means that money acts as an intermediary for the exchange of goods and services. It has helped a lot in promoting trade among people and countries. Money has removed the difficulty of double coincidence of wants.
Measure of value: Money serves as a measure of value. All the goods and services have their prices. This helps in measuring the exchange values of commodities. So value of all goods can be expressed in terms of money.
Standard of deferred payment: The value of money is more stable in comparison to the value of other commodities. It has general acceptability also. It is more durable as compared to other commodities.
Store of value: Money serves as a store of value because it can be stored without loss in its value and it is also convenient to store. Moreover, goods are perishable, whereas money is not perishable in the same sense.

Question.31. Explain the steps taken in derivation of the Consumption Curve from the Saving Curve.Use diagram.
Answer. Total income is the sum of = Consumption Expenditure + Saving. Consumption is the function of income. However, some consumption is always there even if there is no income i.e. zero level of income. This is called as autonomous consumption. Saving is that part of income which is not consumed. Therefore, if we subtract consumption from income, we get saving. When consumption is greater than income, saving is negative when consumption and income are equal, saving is zero; when consumption is less than income, saving is positive.
If we subtract consumption from income, we get saving. In the same way, if we subtract saving from income, we get consumption. In short,
Saving Income – Consumption , Consumption = Income – Saving Thus consumption and saving function can be stated as below: Y C = a + c Y S = a + cY.

In the diagram, CC is consumption curve. OY is 45° line. E is the point of intersection where consumption and income are equal. At this level, saving is equal to zero. Up to OQ level of income, consumption is greater than income and therefore saving is negative. Beyond OQ level of income, consumption is less than income and therefore saving is positive. Because of this SS saving curve does not start from the point of origin but from the point S.
For Blind Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 31.
Explain the steps taken in deriving the consumption function from the Saving function.
Answer. Same Answer…

Question.32. Calculate: (i) GroSs National Product at Market Price and (ii) Net National Disposable Income from the following data:


Answer.

SET II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I.
SECTION A
Question.8. Explain the effect of rise in income of the buyers of a commodity on its demand.
Answer. When income of the buyers increases, they demand more quantity at the same price. As a result of this, there is a shift in demand curve towards the right. This phenomenon can be explained with the help of a diagram. As a result of increase in the income of buyers, the point of equilibrium, which was at E, shifts to F, where the, quantity demanded at price OP increases from OQ to OQ1.

Question.9. Explain any two features of monopoly.
Answer. The two features of monopoly are:
(i) There is a single seller of the commodity in the market.
The monopoly firm has full control over supply of the commodity.
(ii) There are no close substitutes of the commodity sold by the monopolist.

Question.13. When the price of a commodity falls from Rs 10 per unit to Rs 9 per unit, total revenue from it falls from Rs 1,200 to Rs 918. Calculate its elasticity of supply.
Answer.

Question.15. Complete the following table:

Answer. Total Fixed Cost = AFC x No. of Units = 18 x 5 = Rs 90

SECTION B
Question.17. Define intermediate goods.
Answer. Intermediate goods are those which are used during production process. These goods are not included in the estimation of national income.

Question.21. Define money.
Answer. Money may be defined as anything which is used as a medium of exchange and has general acceptability.

Question.24.Distinguish between direct tax and indirect tax.
Answer. Direct Tax: When the liability to pay a tax and the burden of that tax falls on the same person, the tax is called a direct tax. The burden cannot be shifted on others. For example, Income tax. Indirect Tax: When the liability to pay a tax is on one person and the burden of it falls on another person, it is called an indirect tax.’The burden of such a tax is shifted others. For example, series tax.

Question.26. Give the meaning of foreign exchange rate. How is it determined under flexible exchange rate regime?
Answer. The rate at which the currency of a country is exchanged for another currency is known as the rate of exchange. Rate of exchange may be fixed or flexible. Fixed exchange rate is that, – where the exchange rate is fixed by the government of the country deliberately. On the other hand, the flexible exchange rates is that which is fixed by the forces of demand for and supply of foreign exchange. These days, rates of exchange are flexible.
There is an inverse relationship between demand of a foreign currency and its price in terms of domestic currency. On the other hand, there is a direct relationship between file supply of a foreign currency and its price in terms of domestic currency.
The equilibrium exchange rate is determined at a point where demand for and supply of foreign currency is equal. As shown in the diagram, the exchange rate will be OP because at this level the demand for and supply of foreign currency is equal.

SET III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I and Set II.
SECTION A
Question.6. Explain the problem of ‘what to produce’
Answer. The problem of ‘what to produce’ signifies what goods should be produced and in what quantities. This problem arises when due to scarcity of resources we cannot produce each and every thing which we want. Therefore, a decision has to be taken as to what goods should be produced and in what quantities. In short, we have to see whether we should produce consumer goods or producer goods or defense goods or all the goods in some quantity combination. So, on the basis of importance of various goods, an economy has to decide which goods should be produced and in what quantities.

Question.9. Explain the implication of the product differentiation feature of monopolistic competition.
Answer. Under monopolistic competition, artificial differences are created in the product by different producers on the basis of size, packing, brand name, colour, quantity, smell, etc These differences are created with a view to project the product as a separate product from the point of view of consumers. Different brands of toothpaste, such as Colgate, Meswak, Pepsodent are the examples of product differentiation. As a result of product differentiation, if a producer increases the price of his product, he does not lose all the consumers. On the other hand, if he reduces the price of his product, the number of consumers buyers of his product does not increase.

Question.13. From the following data, calculate elasticity of supply:

Answer.

Question.16. Complete the following table:

Answer. Fixed cost = AFC x No. of units = 6×5= Rs 30

SECTION B
Question.17. Define capital goods.
Answer. Capital goods are those goods which form the capital stock of a country at the end of an accounting year and which are used in the production process.

Question.21. What is statutory liquidity ratio?
Answer. Statutory liquidity ratio is the proportion 6f total deposits which commercial banks are legally required to keep with them.

Question.24. Distinguish between revenue expenditure and capital expenditure with one example of each.
Answer. Revenue Expenditure: It is the expenditure of a government which does not create any asset nor reduce liabilities. Its example is the salaries of employees.
Capital Expenditure: An expenditure which results in the creation of assets or reduction in liability, such as construction of roads and bridges.

Question.26. Explain why is there a direct relationship between price and supply of a foreign currency.
Answer. There is a direct relationship between price of a foreign currency and its supply. As such, when the price of a foreign currency increases, its supply also increases and when its price declines it supply also declines. When the price of a foreign currency falls its demand increases. Naturally more and more foreign currency will be required for buying foreign goods, this would lead to a fall in the supply of the foreign currency. On the other hand, when the price of foreign currency increases its supply will also increase.

Question.30. Calculate: (i) Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost and (ii) Gross National Disposable Income from the following data:


Answer.

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Compartment Outside Delhi -2011 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Social Science Chapter 5 Pastnralist in the Modern World

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

Very Short Answer Type Questions (I Mark each)
Question.1 Who are nomads ?
Answer. Nomads are the people who move from one place to another in search of food and fodder.

Question.2 Name any two nomad communities of India.
Answer.

1. Bakarwals
2.  Gaddi

Question.3 Mention the states to which the following communities belong:
(a) Gujjar Bakarwals (b) Gaddi
Answer.
(a) Jammu and Kashmir.
(b) Himachal Pradesh.

Question.4 Name any two pastoral communities of South India.
Answer.

1.  The Gollas
2.  The Kurumas.

Question.5 Who were the Dhangara ?
Answer. The Dhangars were an important pastoral community of Maharashtra. Most of them
were shepherds, some were blanket weavers, and still others, were buffalo herders.

Question.6 How is movement of Dhangar different than that of Gujjars?
Answer. Dhangar’s movement is guided by the annual cycle of monsoon whereas Gujjar’s movement depends upon change of season i.e winter and summer.

Question.7 Name any two pastoralist communities of Andhra Pradesh.
Answer.

1.  Gollas
2. Kurumas

Question.8 Name the act through whichuncultivated lands were taken over and given to select individuals.
Answer. Waste Land Rules

Question.9 Name any two pastoral communities of the Himalayas which followed an annual pattern of cyclical movement.
Answer.

1. Bhotiyas
2. Sherpas
3. Kinnauris
4. Gujjars

Question.10 Who were the Banjaros ? Name any two states where they were found.
Answer. The Banjaras were nomads who used to move from one region to another in search of good pasturel and. They were found in

1.  Uttar Pradesh
2. Rajasthan

Question.11 Name the Act which was passed by the British government to limit the movement of the nomadic people. Mention any two features of the Act.
Answer. The Criminal Tribes Act

1.  By this Act, many communities of craftsmen, traders and pastoralists were classified as Criminal Tribes.
2. Under this Act, various restrictions were put on their movement.

Question.12 Name a pastoral community of Rajasthan.
Answer. The Raikas.

Question.13 ‘Under the Colonial rule, the life of the pastoralists changed dramatically. Explain with two examples.
Answer.

1.  Their grazing grounds shrank because their movements were regulated.
2.  By the Criminal Tribes Act many communities were classified as the Criminal Tribes.

Question.14 Name any two nomadic communities of Africa.
Answer.

1.  Bedouins
2.  Maasai

Question.15 What are the major activities of the nomadic communities of Africa?
Answer.

1.  They raise cattle, camels, goats, sheep and donkeys.
2. They sell milk, meat, animal skin and wool.

Question.16 Name a pastoral community of Kenya.
Answer. Maasai.

Question.17 “Large areas of grazing land were turned into game reserves.” Mention its two impacts on pastoral communities.
Answer.

1.  Pastoralists were not allowed to enter these reserves.
2. The loss of the finest grazing lands and water resources created pressure on the small area of land that the Maasai were confined within.

Question.18 The “Maasai society was divided into two social categories”. Name two categories.
Answer. The Elders and Warriors.

Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
Question.1 Explain the movement of the Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir.
Or
Explain the annual movement of the Gujjar Bakarwals. [CBSE 2015]
Answer. The Gujjar Bakarwals migrated to Jammu and Kashmir in the 19th century in search of pastures for their animals.
Winter : When the high mountains were covered with snow and there was lack of pastures at the high altitude, they moved to low hills of the Shiwalik. The dry scrub forests here provided pastures for their herds. By the end of April, they began their northern march for their summer grazing grounds.
Summer : With the onset of summer, the snow melted and the mountain sides became lush green. By the end of September, the Bakarwals started their backward journey.

Question. 2 “Under the colonial rule, the life of pastoralists changed dramatically.” Mention any four factors responsible for this change.
Or
How did the life of pastoralists change dramatically during the colonial period ? Explain. [CBSE March 2012, 2013]
Answer.

1.  After colonialisation, their mobility was restricted. Now the people had limited area to move.
2. The new rulers encouraged settlement which had an adverse impact on the herds and the people.
3. The colonies were to be used as a source of raw material, so the new rulers encouraged commercial
   agriculture. The pastures were converted into big farms.
4.  To exploit the natural resources of their colonies, the European countries started building roads and railway tracks. This resulted in the loss of pastures.

Question. 3 How did Hie pastoralists cope with the changes brought by the colonial rule ? Explain.
Answer.

1.  Reduction in the number of cattle: When the grazing lands were taken over and converted into fields, this forced many nomads to reduce the member of cattle in their herds.
2.  New pastures : Defining of boundaries forced many nomads to search for new pastures. For example, after the partition of India in 1947, the camel and sheep herding Raikas, for instance, could no longer move into Sindh and graze their camels on the banks of the Indus, as they had done earlier. The new political boundaries between India and Pakistan stopped their movement. So they had to find new places to go. In recent years, they have been migrating to Haryana where sheep can graze on agricultural fields after the harvests are cut. This is the time that the fields need manure that the animals provide.
3.  New occupations : Over the years, some richer pastoralists began buying land and settling down, giving up their nomadic life. Some became settled peasants cultivating land others took to more extensive trading. Many poor pastoralists, on the other , hand, borrowed money from moneylenders to survive. At times, they lost their cattle and sheep and became labourers, working on fields or in small towns.

Question.4 Why the Colonial government introduced the Waste Land Rules ? Explain the impact of Waste Land Rules on the pastoral communities.
Answer. (a) Waste land Rules : Under this, uncultivated land was brought under cultivation.
Reasons :

1. Revenue : The basic aim was to increase land revenue because by expanding cultivation Government could increase its revenue collection.
2. Raw materials : Crops like jute, cotton and indigo were used as raw material in England. So the British government wanted to bring more and more areas under these crops.

Impact on the lives of the pastoralists :

1.  After the Act, the mobility of nomads was restricted.
2. Under the Act the grazing land was given to big landlords. Due to this nomads’ grazing grounds shrank.
3.  Due to shrinking grazing grounds, the agricultural stock of the nomads declined and their trade and crafts were adversely affected.

Question. 5 Why was Criminal Tribes Act passed ? Explain its impact on the pastoral communities.
Answer.

1. British officials were suspicious of nomadic people. They distrusted mobile craftsmen and traders who hawked their goods in villages and pastoralists who changed their places of residence every season, moving in search of good pastures for their herds.
2.  The colonial government wanted to rule over a settled population. They wanted the rural people to live in villages, in fixed places with fixed rights on particular fields. Such a population was easy to identify and control.
3. Those who were settled were seen as peaceable and law abiding: those who were nomadic were considered to be criminals.
4. Through this Act the pastoral communities were not allowed to move freely. This restricted their grazing grounds and the deterioration of animal stock.

Question. 6 Give reasons to explain why the Maasai community lost their grazing lands.
Answer.

1. Colonialism : In the late nineteenth century, the European imperial powers scrambled for territorial possessions in Africa, slicing up the region into different colonies. In 1885, Maasailand was cut into half by an international boundary between British Kenya and German Tanganyika.
2.  Expansion of Cultivation : From the late nineteenth century, the British colonial government in East Africa also encouraged local peasant communities to expand cultivation. As cultivation expanded, pasturelands were turned into cultivated fields.
3.  Setting up of reserves: Large areas of grazing land were also turned into game reserves like the Maasai Mara and Samburu National Park in Kenya and Serengeti Park in Tanzania. Pastoralists were not allowed to enter these reserves; they could neither hunt animals nor graze their herds in these areas.
4. Deterioration of the quality of pastures : The loss of the finest grazing lands and water resources created pressure on the small area of land that the Maasai were confined within. Continuous grazing within a small area inevitably meant deterioration of the quality of pastures.

Question.7 Explain the impact of droughts on the life of pastoralists.
Or
‘From the colonial period, the Maasai were bound down to a area.’ Explain the impact of being bound on the Maasai people.
Or
How do drought affect the life of pastoralists ? Explain. [CBSE March 2012, 2013]
Answer.

1.  Limited grazing area : Because of the restrictions on the movement of- nomads, they were bound down to a fixed area. They were cut off from the best grazing lands, and forced to live within a semi-arid tract prone to frequent droughts.
2.  Death of animals : Since lots of restrictions were imposed on their movements, so they could not move to places where pastures were available. Due to this, there was shortage of fodder. A large number of Maasai cattle died of starvation and disease.

Question.8 “Under the colonial rule, the life of pastoralists changed dramatically.” Mention any four factors responsible for this change.
Or
How did the life of pastoralists change dramatically during the colonial period ? Explain.
[CBSE March 2012, 2013]
Answer.

1.  After colonialisation, their mobility was restricted. Now the people had limited area to move.
2. The new rulers encouraged settlement which had an adverse impact on the herds and the people.
3. The colonies were to be used as a source of raw material, so the new rulers encouraged commercial
   agriculture. The pastures were converted into big farms.
4. To exploit the natural resources of their colonies, the European countries started building roads and railway tracks. This resulted in the loss of pastures.

Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
Question.1 Describe the cycle of seasonal movement of the Gaddi shepherds of Himachal Pradesh.
Answer.

1.  They spent their winter in the low hills ; of the Shiwalik range, grazing their flocks in the scrub forests.
2.  By April, they moved north, and spent the summer in Lahul and Spiti. When the snow melted and the high passes were clear, many of them moved on to higher mountain meadows.
3. By September, they began their return movement.
4.  On the way, they stopped once again
   in the villages of Lahul and Spiti, reaping their summer harvest, and sowing their winter crop.
5.  Then they descended with their flock to their winter grazing grounds, on the Shiwalik hills.
6. Next April, once again, they began their march with their goats and sheep, to the summer meadows.

Question. 2 Explain the annual cycle of seasonal movement of the Dhangars.
Answer.

1.  The Dhangars were an important ! pastoral community of Maharashtra.
2.  The Dhangar community used to stay in the semi-arid central plateau of | Maharashtra during the monsoon.
3. Due to low rainfall, only dry crops could be grown there. In the monsoon, this region became a vast grazing ground for the Dhangar flocks.
4. By October, the Dhangars harvested their dry crops. During this season, there was shortage of grazing grounds so the Dhangars had to move towards the west.
5.  By mid-September, they used to reach the Konkan. In this region, the locals used to welcome them as the flocks of Dhangars provided manure to the field.
6. With the onset of the monsoon, the Dhangars, after collecting supplies of rice and other foodgrains, used to leave the Konkan.

Question.3 Under colonial rule, the life of pastoralists changed dramatically. Explain.
Or
Explain the various laws introduced by the British and explain how these laws changed the lives of the pastoralists. [CBSE2011,2012,2013]
Answer. (a) Waste land Rules : Under this, uncultivated land was brought under cultivation.The basic aim was to increase land revenue because by expanding cultivation Government could increase its revenue collection.
Impact on the lives of the pastora- lists :

1. After the Act, the mobility of nomads was restricted.
2.  Under the Act the grazing land was given to big landlords. Due to this nomads’ grazing grounds shrank.
3. Due to shrinking grazing grounds, the agricultural stock of the nomads declined and their trade and crafts were adversely affected.

(b) Forest Acts: Under the Forest Acts forest were classified into :

1.  Reserved Forests
2. Protected forests

Impact on the lives of the pastora- lists :

1.  They were now prevented from entering many forests. So there was a reduction in their grazing grounds.
2. After the laws, their movements were regulated.

(c) Criminal Tribes Act: In 1871, the colonial government in India passed the Criminal Tribes Act. By this Act, many communities of craftsmen, traders and pastoralists were classified as Criminal Tribes. They were stated to be criminal by nature and birth. Once this Act came into force, these communities were expected to live only in notified village settlements. They were not allowed to move out without a permit. The village police kept a continuous watch on them.
This restricted their grazing grounds. Their agricultural stock declined, and their trades and crafts were adversely affected.
(d) Grazing Tax: The Grazing tax was imposed on the pastoralists. Pastoralists had to pay tax on every animal they grazed on the pastures. In most pastoral tracts of India, grazing tax was introduced in the mid-nineteenth century.
Impact on the lives of pastora-lists:

1. As the tax had to be paid in cash so pastoralists started selling their animals.
2. The heavy burden of taxes had an adverse impact on their economic status. Now most of the pastoralists started taking loans from the money lenders.

Question.4 Give reasons to explain why the Maasai community lost their grazing lands. [CBSE March 2011,2013]
Or
Why did the Maasai face the problem of continuous loss of their grazing lands under the colonial rule? Give reasons. [CBSE March 2012]
Or
How did the new territorial boundaries and restrictions suddenly change the lives of pastoralists in Africa ? Explain any five points. [CBSE March 2013]
Or
Give any four reasons to explain why cattle stock of Maasais decreased under colonial rule ? [CBSE 2011]
Answer.

1.  Closing the borders : In the late nineteenth century, the Europeanimperial powers scrambled for territorial possessions in Africa, slicing up the region into different colonies. In 1885, Maasailand was cut into half with an international boundary between British Kenya and German Tanganyika. Subsequently, the best grazing lands were gradually taken over for the White settlement and the Maasai were pushed into a small area in South Kenya and North Tanzania. The Maasai lost about 60 per cent of their pre-colonial lands. They were confined to an arid zone with uncertain rainfall, and poor pastures.
2.  Expansion of Cultivation : From the late nineteenth century, the British colonial government in East Africa also encouraged local peasant communities to expand cultivation. As cultivation expanded, pasturelands were turned into cultivated fields. In pre-colonial times, the Maasai pastoralists had dominated their agricultural neighbours, both economically and politically. By the end of colonial rule, the situation had reversed.
3.  Setting up of reserves: Large areas of grazing land were also turned into game reserves like the Maasai Mara and Samburu National Park in Kenya and Serengeti Park in Tanzania. Pastoralists were not allowed to enter these reserves; they could neither hunt animals nor graze their herds in these areas. Very often, these reserves were in areas that had traditionally been regular grazing grounds for the Maasai herds. The Serengeti National Park, for instance, was created over 14,760 km. of the Maasai grazing land.
4. Deterioration of the quality of pastures : The loss pf the finest grazing lands and water resources created pressure on the small area of land that the Maasai were confined within. Continuous grazing within a small area inevitably meant a deterioration of the qualify of pastures. Fodder was always in short supply. Feeding the cattle became a persistent problem.
5.  Droughts and death of animals : Since lots of restrictions were imposed on the movement of pastoralists, so they could not move to places where pastures were available. Due to this, there was shortage of fodder. A large number of Maasai cattle died of starvation and disease.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (Hots) Questions/Application Based Questions
Question.1 “The Pastoral groups had sustained by a careful consideration of a host of factors”. Explain these factors.
Answer.

1.  Climatic Factor: They had to judge the climatic conditions of the regions where they wanted to move. They had to judge how long the herds could stay in one area, and where they could find water and pasture.
2.  Timing: They needed to calculate the timing of their movements, and ensure that they could move through different territories.
3.  Relationships : They had to set up a relationship with farmers so that the herds could graze in harvested fields, and manure the soil.

Question.2 “In the nineteenth century, African pastoralists could move over vast areas in search of pastures. When the pastures were exhausted in one place, they moved to a different area to graze their cattle. From the late ninteenth century, the colonial government began imposing various restrictions on their mobility.” Explain its impact on the pastoralists of Africa.
Answer.

1.  Special permits were issued to the people. They were not allowed to move out with their stock without special permits. And it was difficult to get permits without trouble and harassment.
2.  Pastoralists were also not allowed to enter the markets in the White areas. In many regions, they were prohibited fromparticipating in any form of trade. So now they were fully dependent on their stock.
3. When restrictions were imposed on pastoral movements, grazing lands came to be continuously used, and the quality of pastures declined. This, in turn created a further shortage of forage for animals, and the deterioration of animal stock.
4. Now most of the nomads were forced to live within a semi-arid tract prone to frequent droughts.

Value Based Questions
Question.1 By which Act many pastoralist communities were classified as criminal Tribes ? Was it fare to declare them as criminals ?
Answer. Criminal Tribe Act. No it was not fare.

Question.2 Why did feeding the cattle become a persistant problem for the Massais ?
Answer. Because continuous grazing in small area deteriorated the quality of pasture.

Question.3 “Pastoralists of Africa were not allowed to enter the markets in white areas”. Which immoral value is being reflected?
Answer.

1.  Discrimination
2.  Inequality

Question. 4 Do you think all the grazing lands or forests should be transformed into cultivable forms ? Justify your answer.
Answer. No, all the grazing lands or forests should not be transformed into cultivable lands because this will disturb the ecological balance.

Question.5 ‘Many ecologists believe that in dry regions and in the mountains, pastoralism is still ecologically the most viable form of life’. Do you agree? Justify by giving reasons.
Answer. Yes I do agree that in dry regions and in the mountains, pastoralism is still ecologically the most viable form of life because

1.  In winter, when the high mountains are covered with snow the pastoralists need to move in the low hills in search of pastures.
2. The people of central plateau of Maharashtra need to move out of the plateau during the dry season in search of pastures. They migrate towards the Konkan region manuring the fields of the Konkan farmers.
3.  In the hilly areas or dry regions if the pastoralists do not move the , continuous intense grazing of the pastures will lead to deterioration of pastures.

Question.6 “Maasai the Pastoralist of Africa were discriminated by the White people.” Explain.
Answer. Pastoralists were also not allowed to enter the markets in white areas. In many regions, they were prohibited from participating in any form of trade. White settlers and European colonists saw pastoralists as dangerous and savage people with whom all contact had to be minimised. Cutting off all links was, however, never really possible, because white colonists had to depend on black labour to bore mines and, build roads and towns.

The post Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Social Science Pastnralist in the Modern World appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Social Science Chapter 4 Climate

Important  Questions

Question.1. What is climate ? [CBSE 2014]
Answer. The climate refers to the sum total of weather conditions and variations over a large area for a long period of time.

Question.2. What is weather ?
Answer. ‘Weather’ refers to the state of the atmosphere over an area at any point of time.

Question.3. Name the. elements of weather and climate.
Answer. Temperature, atmospheric pressure, wind, humidity and precipitation.

Question.4.. What does ‘monsoon’ imply ?
[CBSE 2015]
Answer. The word, ‘monsoon’ comes from the Arabic word’ mausim’ which means season. It implies a seasonal reversal in the wind direction throughout the year.

Question.5. Which are the rainest months of India ?
Answer. June to September

Question.6. Name the month in which the withdrawl of monsoon begins.
Answer. September

Question.7. Which region of India receives most of its rainfall in winter ?
Answer. Tamil Nadu coast.

Question.8. Name the two branches of the monsoon.
Answer. (i) The Arabian Sea branch.
(ii) The Bay of Bengal branch.

Question.9. What is burst of monsoon ?
[CBSE 2015]
Answer. Around the time of its arrival, the normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues constantly for several days. This is known as the ‘burst’ of the monsoon.

Question.10. What me the ‘retreating monsoons’ ?
[CBSE 2014]
Answer. During the months of October and November, the temperature in the Northern plains begins to decrease, and because of low temperature, the pressure starts rising and the low pressure is no longer strong enough to attract the monsoon winds. This results in the retreat of the monsoon.

Question.11. With reference to the ‘Cold weather season in India, answer the following questions.
(i) What is its time period ?
(ii) Name the winds which prevail over the country during this season.
Answer. (i) Mid November to February.
(ii) North-East trade winds.

Question.12. Name the winds from which the Tamil Nadu coast receive winter rainfall ?
Answer. North-East monsoons which reach there after passing over the Bay of Bengal, and picking moisture from there. .

Question.13. Name two coldest areas in India.
Answer. Dras and Kargil (Temperature – 40°C)

Question.14. Which is the wettest place in India ?
Answer. Mawsynram in the southern ranges of the Khasi hills.

Question.15. What is a jet stream ?
Answer. A jet stream is a fast blowing wind blowing in a narrow zone in the upper atmosphere.

Question.16. ‘The peninsular region does not have a well defined cold season.’ Give reason.
Answer. Due to the moderating influence of the sea, the peninsular region does not have a well defined cold season.

Question.17. Name two states where mango showers are common.
[CBSE2000(B)]
Answer. Kerala and Karnataka.

Question.18. Name two states on the eastern coast which are frequently struck by the tropical cyclones.
Answer. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Question.19. What is meant by breaking of monsoon or burst of the monsoon ?
Answer. The rain bearing monsoons are extremely strong and violent. Their approach is accompanied by thunder and lightning. This is known as the Wreaking of monsoon.

Question.20. What is the name given to the climate of India ?
Answer. The Monsoon climate.

Question.21. What is loo ?
Answer. It is a local wind which is hot and dry.

Question.22. Name the wind which prevails over India in winter season.[CBSE 2013]
Answer. North-East trade winds.

Question.23. Two stations with most equable climate.
Answer. Mumbai and Chennai.

Question.24. Two stations with most extreme climate.
Answer. Leh and Jodhpur.

Question.25. Name any two regions which receive over 400 cm of rainfall.
Answer. The Western coast and the North-eastern India receive over 400 cm of rainfall.

Question.26. Name two stations influenced by the retreating and the North-East monsoons.
Answer. Chennai and Bengaluru.

Question.27. Two stations receiving winter showers from the western disturbances.
Answer. Amritsar and Delhi.

Question.28. State two chief characteristics of the Western Disturbances?
[CBSE1995,2013]
Answer. (i) These originate over the east Mediterranean sea.
(ii) These cause rain in North India.

Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)

Question.1. “ Despite an overall unity in the gen¬eral pattern of climate of India,there are perceptible regional variations in climatic conditions within the country.” Justify.
or
“India has diverse climatic conditions”Support this statement by giving examples, each of tempera¬ture and precipitation.
Answer. (i) The mercury occasionally touches 50°C in the western deserts, and it drops down to as low as -45°C in winter around Leh.
(ii) The annual precipitation is less than 10 cm in the north-west Himalayas and the western desert. It exceeds 400 cm in Meghalaya.
(iii) Most parts of the country receive rainfall from June to September, but some parts like the Tamil Nadu coast get most of its rain during October and November.

Question. 2. Explain the factors affecting India’s climate. [CBSE 2015]
Answer. (i) Latitude : The Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of the country from the Rann of Kuchchh in the west to Mizoram in the east. Almost half of the country, lying south of the Tropic of Cancer, belongs to the tropical area. All the remaining area, north of the Tropic, lies in the sub-tropic. Therefore, India’s climate has characteristics of tropical as well as subtropical climates.
(ii) Altitude: India has mountains to the north which have an average height of about 6,000 metres. India also has a.vast coastal area where the maximum elevation i% about 30 metres. The Himalayas prevent the cold winds from Central AsiafrQm entering the subcontinent. It is because of these mountains that this subcontinent experiences
comparatively milder winters as compared to central Asia.
(iii) Pressure and Winds: The pressure and wind conditions over India are unique. During winter, there is a high-pressure area north of the Himalayas. Cold dry winds blow from this region to the low-pressure areas over the oceans to the south. In summer, a low-pressure area develops over interior Asia as well as over northwestern India. This causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during summer. Air moves from the high-pressure area over the southern Indian Ocean, in a south¬easterly direction, crosses the equator, and turns right towards the low-pressure areas over the Indian subcontinent. These are known as the Southwest Monsoon winds. These winds blow over the warm oceans, gather moisture and bring widespread rainfall over the mainland of India.

Question. 3. Mention any three characteristics of the Monsoon’.[CBSE 2011,12,14 ]
Answer. (i) The Monsoons are pulsating in nature.
(ii) These are affected by different
atmospheric conditions prevailing in the region.
(iii) The duration of the monsoon is between 100 – 120 days.

Question. 4. What is “October Heat” ?
Answer. The months of October-November form a period of transition from a hot rainy season to dry winter conditions. The retreat of monsoons is marked by clear skies, and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the condition of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as ‘October Heat’.

Question.5. Explain development of Monsoon Trough and its influence over rainfall distribution. [CBSE 2014]
Answer. (i) It is a region of low atmospheric pressure which develops because of excessive heat.
(ii) It brings a remarkable change in rainfall pattern.
(iii) It is responsible for diy and wet spells of monsoon.

Questions.6. Give reasons as to why:
(i) Seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian subcontinent.
(ii) The bulk rainfall in India is concentrated over a few months.
(iii) The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall.
(iv) The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.
(v) Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the Western Ghats are drought prone.
Answer. (i) (a) During winter, there is a high pressure area over north of the . Himalayas. Whereas, there is low pressure area over the ocean to the south. So cold and dry winds blow from the Himalayan region towards the ocean.
(b) During summer, a low pressure area develops over the interior , Asia as well %is over the Northwestern India. This causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during summer.
(ii) (a) Most parts of India receive rainfall from the south-west monsoons which blow in India only between June to September.
(b) Only the eastern coast of India receives some rainfall from the North-East trade winds during the cold weather season.
(iii) It is because Tamil Nadu gets rain from the north-east monsoons which reach there after passing over the Bay of Bengal, after picking moisture from there.
(iv) (a) In the mid-October, the mercury
begins to fall at a rapid speed in Northern India.
(b) The low pressure conditions of the North shifts to the Bay of Bengal by November. This shift causes cyclonic depressions in the Andaman Sea.
(c) These cyclonic depressions give rise to tropical cyclones which cause heavy and widespread rains in the deltas of the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri.
(v) (a) Rajasthan does not receive much rain because the Aravalli Range which lies parallel to the direction of the winds and hence condensation does not occur.
(b) Gujrat receives less rainfall because there are no hills and mountain ranges.
The leeward side of the Western Ghats receives less rainfall because when air descends, it gets warmed up. Due to its rising temperature, the relative, humidity of air decreases, and the air turns from a saturated state to an unsaturated state. Due to his fact, no rainfall occurs on the leeward side.

Long. Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)

Questions.1. Compare the hot weather season of India with that of cold weather season.
Answer.

Questions.2. How will you differentiate between the summer and winter monsoons ?
Or
Differentiate between South-West and North-East trade winds.
Answer.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (Huts) Questions/Application Based Questions

Questions. 1. Give reason for the following:
(i) Thiruvananthapuram has the year.
equable climate.
(ii)- Delhi has extreme climate.
(iii) The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall.
(iv) Leh has moderate precipitation almost through-out the year.
(v) The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.
Answer. (i) It has equable climate due to proximity to sea. Sea has moderating influence over its climate.
(ii) Because Delhi is far away from sea. As the distance from the sea increases,its moderating influence decreases.
(iii) Tamil Nadu receives rainfall from North-east trade winds.
(iv) Leh is at a very high altitude. During the cold weather season, the ‘Western Disturbances’ contribute to heavy snowfall in this region. Both south-west and south¬east monsoons also cause precipitation in this part.
(ii) (a) In the mid October, the mercury begins to fall at a rapid speed in Northern India.
(b)The low pressure conditions of the North shifts to the Bay of the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri.

Questions.2. Carefully study the given rainfall and temperature graphs and answer the following of questions:
(i) Which station receives more rainfall ?
Answer. Shillong.
(ii) Which is the rainiest month of Shillong ?
Answer. June
(iii) Which is the coldest month in Leh?
Answer. January
(iv) Compare the climatic conditions of both the stations with reference to rainfall and temperature.
Answer. (i) Leh receives very low rainfall whereas Shillong receives very high rainfall.
(ii) Temperature in Leh remains very low throughout the year whereas temperature in Shillong remains between 10°C to 20°C.
Bengal by November. This shift causes cyclonic depressions in the Andaman Sea.
(iii) These cyclonic depressions give rise to tropical cyclones which cause heavy and widespread rains in the deltas

Questions.3. Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow: [CBSE2014]

(i) Calculate the annual range of temperature of Station A. Why is the range of . temperature very low ?
(ii) Which of the two Stations has the lower temperature ? Why ?
(iii) Calculate the annual rainfall of Station B.
Answer. (i) 5.6 Because the station is near the sea.
(ii) Station B. Because of high altitude.
(iii) Annual rainfall of station B is 31.8 cm.

Questions.4. Given below is the climate data – mean monthly temperatures and mean monthly rainfall for stations A, B and C from India. Study the data carefully and answer the following questions:

(i) What is the annual range of temperature in Station A ?
Answer. The annual range of temperature in Station A (32.5°C — 24.5°C) = 8°C
(ii) What is the annual rainfall experienced by the Station A ?
Answer. 4.6+1.3+ 1.3 = 128.7 cm.
(iii) Name the wettest month in Station A.
Answer. November.
(iv) Calculate the annual rainfall of Station C.
Answer. The annual rainfall of Station C is 183.4 cm. (0.2 + 0.2 + 1.8 + 50.6..)

Value Based Questions

Questions.1. Which moral values the monsoon teaches us ? Mention any two.
Answer. (i) Monsoon acts as a unifying bond.
(ii) Monsoon are responsible for unity in diversity.

Questions.2. Why the people of India eagerly awaits the arrival of the monsoon ?
Answer. These monsoon winds binds the whole country by providing water to set the agricultural activities in motion.

Questions.3. Compare he retreating monsoon with advancing monsoon.
Or
Mention any three features of retreating monsoon.
Or
Mention any four features of advancing monsoon.
Answer.

Questions.2. “Monsoon acts as a unifying bond”. Explain. [CBSE March 2013,15]
Answer. (i) The seasonal alteration of the wind systems and the associated weather conditions provide a rhythmic cycle of seasons. Even the uncertainties of rain and uneven distribution are very much typical of the monsoons.
(ii) The Indian landscape, its animal and plant life, its entire agricultural calendar arid the life of the people, including their festivities, revolve around this phenomenon. Year after year, people of India from north to south and from east to west, eagerly await the arrival of the monsoon.
(iii) These monsoon winds bind the whole country by providing water to set the agricultural activities in motion. The river valleys which carry this water also unite as a single river valley unit.

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Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Social Science  Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Marks Each)
Question.l. What is natural vegetation or virgin vegetation?
Answer. It refers to a plant community which has grown naturally without human aid, and has been left undisturbed by human beings for a long time.

Question.2. What is flora and fauna ?
Answer. Flora – Plants of a particular region or period.
Fauna – The species of animals.

Question.3. “Land and soil affects the natural vegetation directly and indirectly.” Justify by giving two examples.
Answer. (i) The sandy soil of the desert support
cactus and thorny bushes.
(ii) Wet,marshy,deltaic soil supports mangroves.

Question.4. What is an ecosystem ?[CBSE 1997]
Answer. The interdependence of species of plants and animals in a given area fdhns a single ecosystem.

Question.5. Name two non-flowering plants.
Answer. Ferns, algae and fungi.

Question.6. Name, any two factors that form the flora and the fauna ?
Answer. Soil, relief, climate and drainage.

Question.7. What is a biome ? [CBSE 2014]
Answer. A very large ecosystem on land having distinct types of vegetation and animal life is called a biome.

Question.8. Mention any two regions having tropical evergreen forests.
Answer. The Western Ghats, plains of West Bengal and Odisha, and the north-eastern India.

Question.9. Name two commercially useful trees of the Tropical Rain Forests.
Answer. Ebony, mahogany and rosewood.

Q.10. Mention any two factors responsible for deforestation.
Answer. (i) Overgrazing by animals
(ii) Careless management of forests

Question.ll. Where are the rhinoceros found?
[CBSE 1995F]
Answer. In swampy and marshy lands of Assam and North-West Bengal. .

Question.12. The ‘Tropical Rain forests appear green all the year round.’ Give reason. [CBSE2014]
Answer. There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves.

Question.13. Which are the most widespread forests of India ?
Answer. Tropical Deciduous Forests.

Q.14. On the basis of the availability of water, tropical deciduous forests are divided into two parts. What are these two Categories ?
Answer. Dry deciduous and Moist deciduous.

Question.15. Name one important trees each of the Moist Deciduous and Dry deciduous Forests.
Answer. Moist Deciduous – Teak.
Dry Deciduous – Sal.

Question.16. Name any two useful trees of the Thorn Forests.
Answer. Kikar, babul, khair and date palm.

Question.17. Name any two trees of the Alpine Forests.
Answer. Silver fir, pine and junipers.

Question.18. How many species of birds and fish are known ?
Answer. Fish- About 2500 and Birds-Around 1200

Question.19. Where are the wild asses found in India? [CBSE 2000]
Answer. In Rann of Kachchh (Gujarat) and Rajasthan.

Question.20. Which is the natural habitatof
(i) Indian lion
(ii) Tigers
Answer. (i) India lions -Gir forests of Gujarat,
(ii) Tigers – Forests of Madhya Pradesh.

Q.21. Explain with example how temperature can affect the type of . vegetation ?
Ans. On the slopes of the Himalayas, and hills of the Peninsula above, the height of 915m, the fall in the temperature affects the types of vegetation, an£ its growth and changes it from tropical to subtropical temperature in the alpine vegetation.

Question.22. Name two areas where the thorn and the scrub forests are formed.
Answer. Punjab plains, Northern Madhya Pradesh, South-West Uttar Pradesh, (Bundelkhand plateau).

Question.23. Name any two biosphere reserves.
[CBSE 1999]
Answer. Nilgiri (Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka), Nanda Devi (Uttarakhand).

Question.24. Name two endangered species of wildlife. [CBSE 1998]
Answer. Tiger and rhinoceros.

Question.25. How are the habitats of camels and those of one Horned rhinoceros diametrically opposite to each other ? [CBSE 2000(C)]
Answer. Camels are found in Rajasthan where as the one-homed rhinoceros are found in Assam and North-West Bengal.

Question.26. Name any two states of India where elephants are found.
Answer. Assam, Kerala and Karnataka.

Question.27. Name any two biosphere reserves of India and their location.
Answer. (i) Manas – Assam
(ii) Sundarbans – West Bengal

Question.28. What is India’s rank in the world and in Asia in plant diversity ?
Answer. In the world – Tenth In Asia – Fourth.

Question.29. Name any one medicinal plant.
Answer. Neem

Question.30. Why are the leaves of the Thorn forests small and stems succulent ?
Answer. Leaves of the Thom Forests are mostly small to minimise evaporation, and the stems are succulent to conserve water.

Question.31. Where is the Alpine Vegetation found ?
Answer. At high altitudes, generally more than 3,600 metres above the sea-level.

Question.32. How many species of animals does India possess ?
Answer. More than 90,000 species of animals.

Question.33. What are endangered species ?
Answer. The plant and animal species which are in danger of getting extinct are called the endangered species.

Question.34. How many plant species are endangered ?
Answer. About 1300 plant species are endangered.

Question.35. Carefully study the given picture, and identify the type of vegetation. Mention one feature of that vegetation.

Answer. Thom forests and scrubs
The vegetation is found in regions with less than 70 cm of rainfall.

Question.36. Name any two states where tigers are found.
Answer. Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal.

Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
Question.l. Why does India possess a great variety of flora and fauna ?
[CBSE 2(T15]
Answer. (i) Different types of soil: India has almost all major types of soils. It has alluvial soil which is very fertile, black soil, laterite soil, desert and mountain soil. The sandy soils of the desert support cactus and thorny bushes while wet, marshy deltic soils support mangroves and deltic vegetation.
(ii) Different climatic conditions: Different climatic conditions prevail in India. At some places, the temperature is at 55°C and at other,
it is about – 45°C. So it supports all types of plants. Some places receive a rainfall of more than 1000 cm, and some receive only 50 cm. This also helps in growing different type of plants.
(iii) Sunlight : Sunlight is one of the important factors responsible for the growth of vegetation. Due to the longer duration of sunlight, trees grow faster in most parts of India.
(iv) Precipitation : Precipitation also plays a vital role in the growth of different types of vegetation. Tropical rainforests are found in the Western Ghats due to heavy rainfall.

Question.2. Distinguish between Tropical Evergreen and Deciduous forests JCBSE 2013,14]
Answer.

Question.3. Write any two points of difference between
(i) Dry deciduous
(ii) Moist deciduous.
Answer.

Question.4.Mention any four characteristics of the thorny forests water.
Answer. (i) This type of vegetation is found in regions with less than 70 cm of rainfall.
(ii) This type of vegetation is found in the north-western part of the country including the semi-arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana.
(iii) Acacias, palms, euphorbias and cacti are the main plant species.
(iv) Trees are scattered, and have long roots penetrating deep into the soil in order to get moisture.
(v) The stems are succulent to conserve
(vi) Leaves are mostly thick, and small to minimise evaporation. .

Question. 5. Mention any four characteristics of the mangrove tidal forests.[CBSE2015]
Answer. (i) The mangrove tidal forests are found in the areas of coasts influenced by tides. Mud and silt get accumulated on such coasts.
(ii) Dense mangroves are the common varieties with roots of the plants submerged under water.
(iii) The deltas of the Ganga, the , Mahanadi, the Krishna, the Godavari and the Kaveri are covered by such vegetation.
(iv) In the Ganga-Brahamputra delta, the sundari trees are found, which provide a durable hard timber. Palm, coconut, keora, agar also grow in some parts of the delta.

Question. 6. Write three steps taken by the government for the protection and conservation of great biological diversity of India. [CBSE 2013,14]
Answer. (i) Various biosphere reserves have been set up in various parts of India. For
example the Nilgiri at Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala, Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, etc.
(ii) About 99 national parks, 513 wildlife sanctuaries, and 35 zoological gardens have been set up.
Financial and technical assistance is provided to many Botanical Gardens set up by the government.

Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)

Question.l. Describe the altitude zones of vegetation in the mountainous regions. .
Or
“The mountainous region of India exhibits a succession of natural vegetation belts from tropical to tundra types, all compressed into an altitude of six kilometres or so”. Elaborate the above statement with four examples from different altitudinal belts. *
Or
Describe the major vegetation zones of the Himalayan region.
Or
In mountainous area, there is change in natural vegetation due to decrease in temperature. Justify giving examples from different zones. [CBSE March 2011 ]
Answer. In the Himalayan region of our country, the vegetation differs according to the height.
(i) In the foothill, (the Shiwalik) are tropical deciduous forests. ‘Sal’ is the most important species of economic significance. ,
(ii) The zone with altitude 1000 m – 2000 m consists of evergreen forests. Beech, chestnut, oak, ash, etc., are the main trees. These at a higher altitude are replaced by ‘chir’ and ‘chil’.
(iii) The zone between 1500m – 3000 m includes pine, cedar, silver fir and spruce. They are the famous coniferous trees, typical of the dry temperate region found in the inner Himalayan region.
(iv) At the height of 3600 m or more, shrubs, scrubs, and grasses of alpine variety are found.

Question.2. Write three steps taken by the government for the protection and conservation of great biological diversity of India. [C.B.S.E 1999]
Or
Give any three steps taken by the government of India to protect the flora and fauna.
[CBSE March 2011, 2012]
Answer. (i) Various biosphere reserves have been set up in various parts of India. For example, the Nilgiri at Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala, Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, etc.
(ii) About 100 national parks, 515 wildlife sanctuaries, and 35 zoological gardens have been set up.
(iii) The endangered species are being identified and special efforts are being made to preserve them. For example: Tiger Project’.
(iv) Killing of wildlife has been banned and special forest officers have been appointed.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (Hots) Questions/Application Based Questions

Question.l. Carefully study the given table and answer the following questions :

(i) Is there any relationship between temperature and type of vegetation ?
Answer. Yes, thie fall in temperature affects the type of vegetation and its growth and changes it from tropical to subtropical.
(ii) Identify the type of vegetation you can expect in zone D.
Answer. Alpine.
(iii) Is temperature the only criteria for all types of vegetation ?
Answer. No, vegetation also depends on rainfall, humidity, and altitude.

Question.2. Study the given bar graph carefully, and answer the following questions to which state has the highest area under forests ?
(i) Which state has the highest area under forests ?
(ii) Name any two states which have more than 80% of the area under forests ?
(iii) Which Union territory has the highest area under forests ?
(iv) Name any two states having very low area under forests.

Answer. (i) Nagaland
(ii) Nagaland and Mizoram
(iii) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(iv) Punjab and Haryana

Value Based Questions

Question.1. Mention any two values which are reflected by the ecosystem?
Ans. Importance of interdependent and interrelationship.

Question.2. How do the human beings influence the ecology of a region ?
Answer. The greed of human beings leads to over utilisation of these resources. They cut the trees and kill the animals creating ecological imbalance.

Question.3. What are the major factors responsible for the threat to the nature ? Mention any two.
Answer. (i) Destruction of habit (ii) Human predation.

Question.4. What is the importance of awlwmlg for us?
Answer. (i) Animals provide us meat,eggs etc.
(ii) Fish provide us nutritive food.
(iii) Many insects helps in pollination of crops.
(iv) Animals are important part of our ecosystem.
(v) Animals skin is used to prepare leather

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Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Social Science  Chapter 6 Peasants and Farmers

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark each)
Question.1 Who was Captain Swing ? [CBSE 2015]
Answer. It was a mythic name used by the poor labourers to threaten the rich landlords who were replacing workers for machines.

Question.2 What was common land ?
Answer. It was the land to which all villagers had an access.

Question.3 “For the poor, the common land was essential for survival.” Justify.
Answer. It supplemented their meagre income, sustained their cattle, and helped them tide over bad times when crops failed.

Question.4“ In some parts of England, the economy of open field and common lands had started changing from about 16th century. Mention any two factors responsible for this change.
Answer.

1.  Increase in the price of wool.
2.  Increase in population.

Question.5 What was enclosure system ? [CBSE 2015]
Answer. Under the enclosure system, the common land which was the property of the whole village was being enclosed by rich landlords. The common land was enclosed by building hedges around the land to separate it from that of others.

Question.6 How did the industrialisation encourage the enclosure system in England? Give two points.
Answer.

1. Industries needed more raw materials and were paying high price to the farmers for their produce. This encouraged the farmers to grow more, and to increase enclosures.
2.  Men from rural areas migrated to towns in search of jobs. To survive, they had to buy food grains from the market. As the urban population grew, the market for the foodgrains expanded. This also encouraged the farmers for enclosures.

Question.7 How was American landscape of 18th century different from that of 20th century ?
Answer. Most of the landscape was under the control of locals whereas in the 20th century the landscape was under the White Americans.

Question.8 What was the impact of White settler movement towards the west on the American Indians ?
Answer.

1.  They were driven away from their land.
2.  They were massacred and many of their villages burnt.

Question.9 Name any two machines which were responsible for the dramatic wheat production in USA.
Answer. Reaper and walking plough.

Question.10 What was the importance of new machines for the big farmers ?
Answer.

1.  The new machines allowed these big farmers to rapidly clear large tracts, break up the soil, remove the grass and prepare the ground for cultivation.
2.  The work could be done quickly and with a minimal number of hands.

Question.11 How was the introduction of machines responsible for the Great Depression of 1930’s ?
Answer. Production had expanded so rapidly during the First World War and post¬war years that that there was a large surplus. Unsold stocks piled up, storehouses overflowed with grain, and vast amounts of corn and wheat were turned into animal feed. Wheat prices fell and export markets collapsed. This created the grounds for the Great Agrarian Depression of the 1930s that ruined wheat farmers everywhere.

Question.12 What was the Dust Bowl tragedy? [CBSE2015]
Answer. It was a tragedy which occurred in the 1930s in USA. Due to overutilisation of the Prairies black blizzards became a common phenomena.

Question.13 Name any two commercial crops which were grown by the Indian farmers in the early 19th century.
Answer. Indigo and opium.

Question.14 Name any two commercial crops which the English East Company was buying from China for sale in England.[CBSE2015]
Answer. Tea and silk.

Question.15 The Confucian rulers of China were not willing to allow the entry of foreign goods in China.’ Give reasons.
Answer.

1.  The Confucian rulers of China were suspicious of all foreign merchants.
2. They feared that the merchants would meddle in the local politics, and disrupt their authority.

Question.16 What was the impact of opium trade on China ?
Answer.

1.  The traders started meddling in local politics.
2.  The Chinese became an addict to opium. People of all classes started liking drugs.

Question.17 Which European country introduced opium into China? When was it introduced ?
Answer. The Portuguese had introduced opium into China. It was introduced in the early 16th century.

Question.18 Why did the East India Company persuade the Indian farmers to grow opium ?
Answer. So that the Company can export the opium to China.

Question.19 How were the unwilling cultivators’ made to produce opium ?
Answer. The unwilling cultivators were made to produce opium through a system of advances.

Question.20 Name any two Indian states which were producing opium for the East India Company.
Answer. Bengal and Bihar produced opium for the East India Company.

Question.21 Mention the factors responsible for the Dust Bowl tragedy.
Answer.

1.  Less rain than normal.
2.  Over ploughing of the Prairies.

Question.22 Mention any two methods used by the Britishers to increase the land revenue.
Answer.

1.  A regular system of land revenue was established.
2. Revenue rates were increased.

Short Answer Type Questions (3 Marks)
Question.1 Explain the major features of the ‘Open Field’ system which was prevailing in England in the eighteenth, and the early nineteenth century. [CBSE March 2012]
Answer.

1.  Before the 18th century in large parts of England, the countryside was open. Peasants cultivated on strips of land around the village they lived in.
2. At the beginning of each year, strips of varying quality were allocated to each villager.
3. Beyond these strips of cultivation, lay the common land. All villagers had an access to the commons.
4. For the poor, the common land was essential for survival. It supplemented meagre income, sustained their cattle, and helped them tide over bad times, when crops failed.

Question.2 ‘Between 1750 and 1900 England’s population multiplied four times.’ Explain its impact on the enclosures.
Answer.

1.  More population means more demand for foodgrains. So this encouraged the landlords to enclose more land.
2. Due to increase in population, the market for foodgrains expanded, and when demand increased rapidly, food grain prices rose. This increased the profit margin which encouraged the landlords to enclose more open fields.
3. Due to increase in the demand for foodgrains, rich farmers started using machinery. This also encouraged enclosures.
4. As the urban population was dependent on the rural population for foodgrains, so there was expansion of foodgrain market in the urban areas also.

Question.3 How was the Enclosure movement of the 16th century different from that of 18th century? [CBSE 2013]
Answer.

Question.4 Why were Indian farmers reluctant to grow opium ? Explain. [CBSE 2013 March,2015]
Answer.

1. The crop had to be grown on the best land on fields that lay near villages,
   and were well manured. On this land, peasants usually produced pulses. If they planted opium on this land then
   pulses could not be grown there or they would have to be grown on inferior land where harvests were poorer and uncertain. and were well manured. On this land, peasants usually produced pulses. If they planted opium on this land then pulses could not be grown there or they would have to be grown on inferior land where harvests were poorer and uncertain.
2.  Many cultivators owned no land. To cultivate, they had to pay rent and lease land from landlords. And the rent charged on good lands near villages was very high.
3.  The cultivation of opium was a difficult process. The plant was delicate and cultivators had to spend
   long hours nurturing it. This meant that they did not have enough time to care for other crops.
4.  The price the government paid to the cultivators for the opium they . produced was very low. It was unprofitable for cultivators to grow opium at that price.

Question.5 Why did the demand of food- grains increased in England from the mid-eighteenth century?
Answer.

1.  Increase in population: From the mid-eighteenth century, the English population expanded rapidly. Between 1750 and 1900, it multiplied over four times, mounting from 7 million in 1750 to 21 million
   in 1850 and 30 million in 1900.
2. Impact of industrialisation :
   Moreover, Britain at this time was industrialising. More and more people began to live and work in urban areas. Men from rural areas migrated to towns in search of jobs. To survive they had to buy foodgrains in the market. As the urban population grew, the market for foodgrains expanded, and when demand increased rapidly, foodgrain prices rose.
3. Wars : By the end of the eighteenth century, France was at war with England. This disrupted trade and the import of foodgrains from Europe. So this created a imbalance between demand and supply.

Question.6 “The coming of modern agriculture in England thus meant many different changes.” Explain.
Answer.

1.  The open fields disappeared, and the customary rights of peasants were undermined.
2. The richer farmers expanded grain production, sold this grain in the world market, made profits, and became powerful.
3. The poor left their villages in large numbers. Some went from the Midlands to the Southern counties where jobs were available, others to the cities.
4. The income of labourers became unstable, their jobs insecure, their livelihood precarious.

Long Answer Type Questions (5 Marks)
Question.1 What was the impact of enclosures on the poor farmers ? [CBSE March 2012]
Or
How were the poor affected by the enclosure movement ? [CBSE March 2011,2012] Or
Mention any four features of enclosure system prevailing in England.
Answer.

1. Before the enclosures: Before the late 18th century the countryside in Britain was open. i.e. it was not partitioned into enclosed lands privately owned by landlords.
2.  New fences: When fences came up, the enclosed land became the exclusive property of landowners. The poor could no longer collect their firewood from the forests, or graze their cattle on the commons.
3. Restrictions: The new enclosed system put up various restrictions on the poor. They could no longer collect apples and berries, or hunt small animals for meat. Nor could they gather the stalks that lay on the fields after the crops were harvested.
4. Displacement of poor: In places, where enclosures happened on an extensive scale, particularly the Midlands and the countries around- the poor were displaced from the land. They found their customary rights gradually disappearing.
5.  Migration: Deprived of their rights, and driven off the land, they tramped in search of work. From the Midlands, they moved to the southern countries of England. This was a region that was most intensively cultivated, and there was a great demand for agricultural labourers. But nowhere could the poor find secure jobs.

Question.2 Explain briefly the factors which led to the enclosures in England. [CBSE 2014]
Answer.

1.  Rising Demand for Wool: In the 16th century, the demand for wool went up in the world market. This had a direct impact on the price of wool and profits. Rich farmers wanted to expand wool production to earn more profits. For this, they were eager to improve their sheep breeds. They started enclosing open fields to provide proper pastures to the sheep.
2.  Various Acts: The early enclosures were usually created by individual landlords. They were not supported by the state or the church. But after 1850, many Acts were passed to legalise the enclosures.
3. Rapid Rise in Population: There was a rapid growth of population of England between the 18th and the 19th centuries. Between 1750 and 1900, it multiplied over four times. The increased population means more demand for foodgrains and other Products. Due to increase in population the pressure on land also increased and the people had no other option except to enclose open fields.
4. Increase in Demand for Foodgrains: There was shortage of foodgrains in England due to increase in population and war with France. Price of foodgrains in England sky. Rocketed, encouraging landowners to enclose lands and enlarge the area under grain cultivation.
5.  Use of Machinery: As the demand for foodgrains was increasing at a very fast rate, the rich people started using machines. These machines needed large farms. So the rich landlords started enclosing more and open fields.
6.  Long-term Investments: Enclosures were also seen as to make long-term investments on land, and plan crop rotations to improve the soil.

Question.3 ‘From the late 19th century, there was a dramatic expansion of wheat production in the USA.’ Give four
reasons for this expansion. [CBSE March 2012] (or)
Which country was known as the bread basket of the world during nineteenth century ? Describe the factors responsible for the expansion of agriculture in the country. [CBSE March 2012]
Answer. USA was known as the bread basket of the world during the 19th century.

1.  The White settlers: A large number of White settlers moved towards west of America in the late 19th century,
   They slashed and burnt forests, pulled out the stumps, cleared the land for cultivation, and built log cabins in the forest clearings. Then they cleared larger areas, and erected fences around , the fields. They ploughed the land and sowed com and wheat.
2.  The new technology: The dramatic expansion of agriculture was made possible by new technology. Stekm tractors, harvesters, reapers played very important role. To break the sod and turn the soil over, a variety of new ploughs were devised locally. In 1831, Cyrus McCormick invented the first mechanical reaper which could cut in one day as much as five men could cut with cradles and 16 men with sickles. By the early twentieth century, most farmers were using combined harvesters to cut grain. With one of these machines, 500 acres of wheat could be harvested in two weeks.
   tractors, harvesters, reapers played very important role. To break the sod and turn the soil over, a variety of new ploughs were devised locally. In 1831, Cyrus McCormick invented the first mechanical reaper which could cut in one day as much as five men could cut with cradles and 16 men with sickles. By the early twentieth century, most farmers were using combined harvesters to cut grain. With one of these machines, 500 acres of wheat could be harvested in two weeks.
3.  High demand: From the late nineteenth century, there was a dramatic expansion of wheat production in the USA. The urban population in the USA was growing and the export market was becoming ever bigger. As the demand increased, wheat prices rose, encouraging farmers to produce wheat.
4.  Spread of Railway : The spread of railway to the countryside helped in linking the local market with the international market as it made it easy to transport the grain from the wheat growing regions to the eastern coast for export.
5.  The First World War and soaring demand: By the early twentieth century the demand became even higher, and during the First World War the world market boomed. Russian supplies of wheat were cut off and the USA had to feed Europe. US President Wilson called upon farmers to respond to the need of the time. ‘Plant more wheat will win the war he said.

Question.4 Explain the Dust Bowl tragedy. What moral lesson we should learn – from the tragedy.
Answer.

1.  The expansion of wheat agriculture and overgrazing of the Prairies were responsible for the Dust Bowl tragedy.
2. In 1930s, terrifying dust storms began to blow over the southern plains.
3. These dust storms had a great impact on the economic and social life of the people.
4. The black blizzards were responsible for natural disaster in which people were blinded, cattle were suffocated to death, and machinery was damaged beyond repair.
5.  It was a natural as well as man-made disaster because farmers themselves were responsible for the tragedy.
6. The farmers had recklessly uprooted all vegetation, and tractors had turned the soil over, berating the sod into dust.
   Moral Lesson: We should respect ecological conditions of each region and should avoid overutilisation of natural resources.

Question.5 Why the British insisted on growing opium in India? [CBSE 2015]
Or
What’ problems were caused by East India company’s dependence on tea trade? [CBSE 2014]
Answer.

1.  In the late 18th century, the English East India Company was buying tea and silk from China for sale in England.
2. As tea was gaining popularity in England, its demand rose from 15 million pounds to 30 million pounds.
3. England at that time produced nothing that could be easily sold in China.
4. This means an outflow of treasure from England to China.
5.  Merchants wanted to balance their trade. ‘
6.  So they searched for a commodity they could sell in China.
7.  Opium was such a commodity which had a demand in China, as it was used in medicines.
8.  So to balance their trade and to earn huge profits, they persuaded Indian farmers to grow opium so that the British traders could sell it in China.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (Hots) Questions/Application Based Questions
Question.l Explain the circumstances that lead to the Great Agrarian Depression of the 1930’s.
Answer.

1.  The high demand for wheat encouraged the farmers to adopt new technology and new machines.
2.  The new machines allowed the big farmers to increase the production at a very fast rate.
3. After that, most farmers faced trouble. Production had expanded so rapidly during the war and post-war years that there was a large surplus.
4. Unsold stocks piled up, storehouses overflowed with grain, and vast amounts of corn and wheat were turned into animal feed. Wheat prices fell and export markets collapsed.

Question.2 ‘The new technology introduced in agriculture in the 19th century created the grounds for the Great Agrarian Depression of 1930s.’ Justify by giving examples.
Answer. Mechanization had reduced the need for labour. And the boom of the late nineteenth and the early twentieth centuries seemed to have come to an end by the mid 1920s. After that, most farmers faced trouble. Production had expanded so rapidly during the war and post-war years, that there was a large surplus. Unsold stocks piled up, storehouses overflowed with grain, and vast amounts of com and wheat were turned into animal feed. Wheat prices fell and export markets collapsed. This created the grounds for the Great Agrarian Depression of the 1930s that ruined wheat farmers everywhere.

Question.3 “There is one dramatic fact that makes the period after the 1780s different from any earlier period in English history. In earlier times, rapid population growth was most often followed by a period of food shortages. But this did not happen in the 19th century.” Mention any four factors responsible for this.
Answer.

1.  By bringing new lands under cultivation.
2.  By carving open fields.
3.  By cutting forests to use the land for cultivation.
4.  By turning marshes into agricultural fields.

Question.4 How is the story of modernisation of agriculture in England different from? America? Mention three points of each.
Answer.

Value Based.Questions
Question.1 Suppose you are England farmer of the 17th century. Which method you have used to increase agricultural production? How is it different from the modern method?
Answer. By growing turnip and clover .These days farmers use fertilisers to increase agricultural production.

Question.2 Suppose you are Chinese Emperor of the 19*“century. Why would you not allow the illegal opium trade into your country?
Answer. Because there is danger that people may become addict.

Question.3 Why Were threshing machines opposed by the poor in England? Give two reasons.
Answer.

1. Because due to machines rich farmers were enclosing more and more open fields.
2.  Due to machines the poor were losing their jobs.

Question.4 Do you think introduction of machines should be always opposed. Give reason.
Answer. No, because machines increase the production and save time.

Question.5 Explain the social and economic impacts of enclosure system.
Answer.

1.  The system of enclosures increased the wedge between the rich and the poor.
2.  All the villagers had access to the commons. Here they pastured their cows and grazed their sheep.
3.  For the poor, the common land was essential for survival. It supplemented their meagre income, sustained their cattle and helped them tide over bad times when crops failed.

Question.6 Do you think human beings need to respect the ecological conditions of each region? Explain with the help of Dust Bowl Tragedy.
Answer. There is no doubt that human needs to respect the ecological conditions of each region because if environment is not taken care of, it can lead to a disaster.

1.  Before the arrival of white settlers most of the landscape of America was under forest cover or Prairies.
2. The new arrivals i.e. white settlers started converting these Prairies or forest into cultivable fields.
3.  When wheat cultivation had expanded dramatically in the early twentieth century, zealous farmers had recklessly uprooted all vegetation, and tractors had turned the soil over, and broken the sod into dust. When the wind blew with ferocious speed the whole region became a dust bowl. The American dream of a land of plenty had turned into a nightmare.
4.  The settlers had thought that they could conquer the entire landscape, turn all land over to growing crops that could yield profits. After the 1930s, they realized that they had to respect the ecological conditions of each region.

The post Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Social Science Peasants and Farmers appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Delhi -2012

Time allowed : 3  hours                                                                                         Maximum marks 100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1.  All questions in both the sections are compulsory.
2. Marks for questions are indicated against each.
3. Questions No. 1-5 and 17-21 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 nick each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
4.  Questions No. 6-10 and 22-26 are? short-answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
5.  Questions No. 11-13 and 27-29 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
6.  Questions No. 14-16 and 30-32 are long-answers questions carrying 6 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
7.  Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit should be adhered to as far as possible.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1. Give meaning of an Economy.
Answer. The term economy refers to all the production units in an area by which people get their living.

Question.2. What is Market Demand?
Answer. Market demand is the sum total of demand by all the consumers of a commodity at a price during a given period of time.

Question.3. What is the behaviour Of average fixed cost as output increases?
Answer. When output increases average fixed cost (AFC) falls continuously.

Question.4. What is the behaviour of average revenue in a market in which a firm can sell more only by lowering the price?
Answer. The average revenue will continuously fall when output increases in a market where a firm can sell more by lowering the price.

Question.5. What is a price taker firm?
Answer. A firm is said to be a price taker when it has no role in the price fixation of a commodity and has to accept the price determined by the whole industry.

Question.6. What is opportunity cost? Explain with the help of a numerical example.
Answer. Opportunity cost is the next best alternative foregone in choosing a given alternative.
For example: Say on a given piece of land either rice or wheat can be grown. On this piece, if rice is grown its yield will be 10 tonnes. On the other hand, if wheat is grown its yield will be 8 tonnes. As rice is grown wheat cannot be grown. In other words, we forego wheat for growing rice. Therefore, in the given illustration, opportunity cost of 10 tonnes of rice is equal to 8 tonnes of wheat. Similarly, if we decide to cultivate wheat, then we have to forego rice production. In that case opportunity cost of wheat is the quantity of rice which we forego, i.e., 10 tonnes of rice.

Question.7. Given price of a good. How does a consumer decide as to how much of that good to buy?
Answer. See Q. 11, 2011 (II Delhi).

Question.8. Draw Average Variable Cost, Average Total Cost and Marginal Cost Curves in a single diagram.
Answer.

For Blind Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 8 Explain the relation between Marginal Cost and Average Variable Cost.
Answer. Relation between marginal cost and average variable cost:
– When Marginal Cost (MC) < Average Variable Cost (AVC), AVC falls.
– When Marginal Cost = Average Variable Cost, AVC is constant.
– When Marginal Cost > Average Variable Cost, AVC rises.

Question.9. An individual is both the owner and the manager of a shop taken on rent. Identify implicit cost and explicit cost from this information. Explain.
Answer. In the given case, rent of the shop is explicit cost because it is the actual cost which has been incurred by the person who is owner and manager of the shop.
On the other hand, the imputed value of salary of the owner is implicit cost. This is so because if the owner had worked elsewhere he would have earned the salary.

Question.10. Explain the implication of large number of buyers in a perfectly competitive market.
Answer. See Q. 10, 2011 (I Outside Delhi).
Or
Explain why are firms mutually interdependent in an oligopoly market.
Answer. In an oligopoly, although firms arc free to take decisions about price and output of the commodity, they are mutually interdependent because they have to take care of the reactions of other firms regarding their price and output decisions. If firms do not take care of the reaction of other rival firms, they may ultimately lose.

Question.11. Define an indifference curve. Explain why an indifference curve is downward sloping from left to right.
Answer. An indifference curve is a locus of points representing many combinations of two goods which give equal satisfaction to a consumer.
An indifference curve is downward sloping because if the consumer has more of one unit of a good, he will have to sacrifice some units of the other good so that the level of satisfaction remains the same.

Question.12. When price of a good is Rs 7 per unit a consumer buys 12 units. When price falls to Rs 6 per unit he spends Rs 72 on the good. Calculate price elasticity of demand by using the percentage method. Comment on the likely shape of demand curve based on this measure of elasticity.
Answer.

Question.13. What does the Law of Variable Proportions show? State the behaviour of total product according to this law.
Answer. The law of variable proportions examines the production function assuming one factor as variable and other as fixed. It shows the pattern of change in total output when only one input is increased, other inputs remaining unchanged. In the short run, units of variable | factor change or increase the total product. In this context three phases or situations can be possible at an increasing rate. These are:
(i) In the beginning, when additional units of a variable factor are employed, total product increases at an increasing rate. This is phase 1.
(ii) After this point if more units of a variable factor are employed, total product also increases but at a decreasing rate. This is phase 2.
(iii) If additional units of a variable factor are still employed, total product starts declining. This is phase 3.
Or
Explain how changes in prices of other products influence the supply of a given product.
Answer. The supply of a commodity depends upon the prices of other related goods also. This can
be seen in the supply of substitute goods. If the price of a commodity X remains constant and the price of its substitute good A increases, the producers would prefer to produce substitute good A.
As a result, the supply of commodity X will decrease and that of substitute good A will increase. This will shift the supply curve of good X leftward. Similarly, an increase in the price of commodity X will lead to decrease in supply of the good A.
Also if the prices of some other products rise, the production of these becomes more profitable, so a firm may shift its resources from given product to production of other products. Thus, supply of given product falls.

Question.14. Explain how do the following influence demand for a good:
(i) Rise in income of the consumer.
(ii) Fall in prices of the related goods.
Answer. (i) Rise in income of the consumer. See Q. 12, 2011 (I Outside Delhi).
(ii) Fall in prices of the related goods. See Q. 12, 2011 (I Delhi).

Question.15. Explain the conditions of a producer’s equilibrium in terms of marginal cost and marginal revenue. Use diagram.
Answer. A producer is said to be in equilibrium when he produces that level of output at which his profits are maximum. According to marginal cost and marginal revenue approach r equilibrium is established at a point where marginal cost and marginal revenue are equal (MC = MR). In this case, the following two conditions should be fulfilled:
(i) As long as marginal revenue is higher than the marginal cost, it is profitable for the r producer, so the firm should keep on producing, but stop at a point when MC = MR. This point is arrived at point E, shown in Diagram (i).

(ii) A situation can be possible when marginal cost (MC) cuts MR at two places as shown in Diagram (ii). In the Diagram up to OQ level of output, MC is more than MR. The firm cannot stop at this point otherwise it will incur losses. In this case, the point of equilibrium will be at point F where MC cuts MR from below. In this case, the level of output is OQ1.

For Blind Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 15 Explain the conditions of producer’s equilibrium in terms of marginal cost and marginal revenue. Use a schedule.
Answer. (i) According to the schedule given below the level of output will be 3 units because at this level marginal cost and marginal revenue are equal (MC = MR). Before 3 units the producer should not stop producing because he can have excess of revenue up to 3 units and beyond that he will incur losses because MC exceeds MR.

(ii) The level of output cannot be 2 because up to that level MC is higher than MR. In this case, the level of output will be 4 because at this level MC and MR are equal.

Question.16. Market for a good is in equilibrium. There is simultaneous “increase” both in demand and supply of the good. Explain its effect on market price.
Answer. Equilibrium price of a good in the market is established at a point where its demand and supply are equal. As shown in Diagram (i), the equilibrium price will be OP.
However, if there is simultaneous increase both in demand and supply of the good, the market price will be affected in the following manner:

(i) If the relative increase in demand is more than the increase in supply, market price will increase because of excessive demand as shown in Diagram (i) on page 171.
(ii) If relative increase in demand and supply are equal, the market price will remain unchanged as there is neither excess demand nor excess supply as shown in Diagram (ii) on page 171.
(iii) If the relative increase in supply is more than the increase in demand, the market price will fall because of excessive supply as shown in Diagram (iii) on page 171.

Or
Market for a good is in equilibrium. There is simultaneous “decrease” both in demand and supply of the good. Explain its effect on market price.
Answer. In the case of simultaneous decrease both in demand and supply of a good, its market price will be affected in the following manners:
(i) If relative decrease in demand is more than the decrease in supply, the price will fall because of excessive supply as shown in Diagram (i) below.
(ii) If relative decrease in demand and supply are equal, price will remain the same as shown in the Diagram (ii) below.
(iii) If relative decrease in demand is less than the decrease in supply, the price will rise because of excess demand , diagram (iii) below.

SECTION B
Question.17. Define stock variable.
Answer. Stock variable is that whose value is measured at a point of time.

Question.18. Define capital goods.
Answer. Those goods which are used in producing other goods are called capital goods.

Question.19. What are demand deposits?
Answer. Those deposits which can be withdrawn readily by issuing cheques are called demand deposits.

Question.20. Define a Tax.
Answer. A tax is a legally compulsory contribution which is paid to the government.

Question.21. Give meaning of managed floating exchange rate.
Answer. Managed floating exchange rate is that system where  the government may intervene in the process of fixation of exchange rate through the central bank.

Question.22. Calculate Gross Value Added at Factor Cost:


Answer.

Question.23. Explain the significance of the ‘Store of Value’ function of money.
Answer. It was virtually impossible to store surplus value under barter economy; the discovery of money has removed this difficulty. With the help of money, people can store surplus purchasing power and use it whenever they want. Money serves as a store of value for goods in liquid form. Saving in the form of money is not only secure but the possibility of it being destroyed is very less. Besides, money can be carried wherever it is needed. By facilitating accumulation of money, money has become the only basis of promoting capital formation.

Question.24. Outline the steps taken in deriving saving curve from the consumption curve, diagram.
Answer.

For Blind Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 24 Distinguish between consumption function equation and saving function equation.
Answer. Consumption Function Equation:

Question.25. Find National Income from the following:
Autonomous consumption = Rs 100
Marginal propensity to consume = Rs 0.80
Investment = Rs 50
Answer.

Question.26. Distinguish between Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure in a budget. Give examples.
Answer. See Q. 24, 2011 Comptt. (Ill Outside Delhi).
Or
Explain the role of Government budget in allocation of resources.
Answer. See Q. 27, 2011 (I Delhi).

Question.27. Giving reason explain how should the following be treated in estimating National Income:
(i) Expenditure on fertilizers by a farmer.
(ii) Purchase of tractor by a farmer.
Answer. (i) Expenditure on fertilizers by a farmer is an intermediate cost hence it will not be included in the NationaMncome. R is a part of value of output and not of National Income.
(ii) Purchase of tractor by a farmer is included in National Income because it is an investment by the farmer.

Question.28. Explain the components of Legal .Reserve Ratio.
Answer. Legal reserve ratio is a certain minimum fraction of deposits which is legally compulsory for the commercial banks to keep as cash or in liquid form. There are two parts of this ratio— (i) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and (ii) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
Cash reserve ratio is the part of the deposits which is kept with Central bank as reserve in cash.
Statutory liquid ratio is the ratio of deposits which banks have to keep with themselves. In short

Or
Explain ‘bankers’ bank’ function of Central bank.
Answer. Central bank makes policies and regulations for the commercial banks. Commercial banks are required to keep a certain minimum, percentage of their deposits as Cash Reserve with the Central bank. The Central bank uses these reserves to advance loans to the Commercial banks to meet their requirements. This is why the Central bank is called Bankers’ bank .

Question.29. Explain ‘revenue deficit’ in a Government budget? What does it indicate?
Answer. Revenue deficit is equal to the excess of total revenue expenditure over the total revenue receipts. In short:
Revenue deficit = Total revenue expenditure – Total revenue receipts Revenue deficit indicates the extra amount of current expenditure which cannot be met by revenue receipts. This shows the extent of borrowings which are required to meet this deficit. If revenue expenditure increases without a corresponding increase in the revenue receipts, revenue deficit increases and this calls for additional borrowing. This means liability of the government increases.

Question.30. Find out (a) National Income and (b) Net National Disposable Income:


Answer.

Question.31. Explain the concept of ‘excess demand’ in macroeconomics. Also explain the role of ‘open market operations’ in correcting it.
Answer. If equilibrium level of income is determined after the stage of full employment, it is a situation of excess demand. This means at the full employment level of income, real aggregate demand is. more than the aggregate supply which is required for the full use of resources. The excess of real aggregate demand over the aggregate supply required for operating at full employment level is called excess demand or inflationary gap. As a result of excess demand, prices increase because, corresponding to increase in demand output cannot increase.
A number of methods can*be used for comprehending the situation of excess demand. Open market operations is one of them. This means sale and purchase of government securities by the Central bank in the open .market. Government securities are bought and sold by commercial banks to correct the situation of excess demand and deficient demand. For correcting the situation of excess demand, Central bank should reduce the supply of credit and for that it should sell securities in the open market which will be bought by the commercial banks. This leads to flow of money out of commercial banks and reduces the liquidity position of commercial banks and hence they give less credit. By this decline in the lending capacity of the banks, borrowings decline and their aggregate demand also declines.
Or
Explain the concept of ‘deficient demand’ in macroeconomics. Also explain the role of Bank Rate in correcting it.
Answer. If equilibrium level of income is determined before the stage of full employment, it is a situation of deficient demand. This means the aggregate demand at the equilibrium level of output is less than the aggregate supply at the full employment level. In such a situation due to inadequacy of demand, production will be less and with the result involuntary unemployment will be created. This means that all the resources will not be fully employed. Therefore the deficiency in aggregate demand at full employment level is the measure of deficient demand. It is also called as deflationary gap.
Bank rate is one of the methods which can be used for correcting the situation of deficient demand. Bank rate is the rate of interest which a Central bank charges from the commercial banks for giving them credit. If bank rate is higher, rate of interest is also higher and vice- versa. In the given situation since the volume of credit is to be increased, Central bank should reduce the bank rate so that the rate of interest falls and more credit is sought from commercial banks. This will increase the level of output correcting the situation of deficient demand.

Question.32. Explain the distinction between autonomous and accommodating transactions in balance of payments. Also explain the concept of balance of payments ‘deficit’ in this context.
Answer. distinction between autonomous and accommodating transactions in balance of payments:
See Q. 22, 2011 (III Foreign)
The deficit in balance of payments is determined only by autonomous transactions. When autonomous foreign exchange payments are more than the autonomous foreign exchange receipts, this excess is called balance of payments deficit.

SET II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I.
SECTION A
Question.6. What is ‘Marginal Rate of Transformation’? Explain with the help of an example.
Answer. Marginal rate of transformation is the rate at which the units of one good have to be sacrificed to produce one more unit of the other good in a two goods economy.
Example: We can explain this with the help of an example. Suppose by employing given resources fully and efficiently the economy produces 1X + 10Y. As such if the economy decides to produce 2X, it has to reduce production of Y by 2 units. Then 2Y is the opportunity cost of producing 1X. In this case MRT is 2Y : 1X.

Question.9. A producer borrows money and opens a shop. The shop premises is owned by him. Identify the implicit and Explicit costs from this information. Explain.
Answer. In the given situation the shop premises is owned by the producer himself. Therefore the rent of the shop is the implicit cost as he would have earned rent if the shop was rented out. The money which the producer borrows from the market, its interest is the explicit cost. It is the actual money expenditure on an input.

Question.11. Define Marginal Rate of Substitution. Explain why is an indifference curve convex?
Answer. Marginal rate of substitution may be defined as the quantity of commodity Y that a consumer is willing to substitute for one unit gain of commodity X. In simple terms, MRS means how much commodity of Y a consumer is willing to sacrifice for one unit gain of commodity X. MRS is always declining.

An indifference curve is convex to the origin. Convexity of the curve signifies that it bows inward to the origin. This is simply because MRS is declining continuously, due to the operation of the law of diminishing marginal ( utility. This becomes evident by looking at the diagram

Question.12. A consumer buys 10 units of a good at a price of Rs 9 per unit. At price of Rs 10 per unit he buys 9 units. What is price elasticity of demand? Use expenditure approach. Comment on the likely shape of demand curve on the basis of this measure of elasticity.
Answer.

In this case, according to the expenditure method, since the total expenditure is same, i.e., Rs 90, the elasticity of demand is = -1.
Since TE remains the same, the nature of demand curve will be rectangular hyperbola.

SECTION B
Question.22. Calculate Net Value Added at Factor Cost:

Answer.

Question.25. Find ‘investment’ from the following:
National Income Rs 500
Autonomous Consumption Rs 100
Marginal propensity to consume 0.75
Answer.

Question.27.Giving reason explain how should the following be treated in estimating National Income:
(i) Payment of bonus by a firm
(ii) Payment of interest on a loan taken by an employee from the employer .
Answer. (i) Bonus is included in the estimation of National Income because it is a part of compensation of employees.
(ii) Interest on loan taken by an employee is not included because the loan is taken for consumption purposes.

Question.30. Find out (a) Net National Product at Market Price and (b) Gross National Disposable Income:

Answer.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I and Set II.
SECTION A
Question.6. State reasons why does an economic problem arise?
Answer. Economic problems arise because of the following facts:
(i) Our wants are unlimited.
(ii) Resources to satisfy unlimited wants are limited.
(iii) Limited resources can be put to alternative uses.

Question.9. A producer invests his own savings in starting a business and employs a manager to look after it. Identify implicit and explicit costs from this information. Explain.
Answer. In the given example, a producer invests his own savings and employs a manager to look after his business. Therefore

• interest on savings is implicit cost because had he lent the savings elsewhere, he would have earned the interest.
• salary paid to the manager is an explicit cost because this is the expenditure which has been actually incurred by the producer.

Question.11. Define an indifference map. Explain why an indifference curve to the right shows higher utility level.
Answer. If there are more than one indifference curves in the graph, the graph is known as indifference map. Every indifference curve represents a level of satisfaction from all the combinations it represents. However, if the level of an indifference curve is higher than the level of another indifference curve, the level of satisfaction will be higher than that indifference curve. Indifference curve to the right shows higher utility level, because each point on the higher curve shows, more goods. Therefore in the absence of any budgetary constraints, a consumer will seek; a combination on the highest indifference curve.

Question.12. A consumer buys 20 units of a good at a price of Rs 5 per unit. He incurs an expenditure of Rs 120 when he buys 24 units. Calculate price elasticity of demand using the percentage method. Comment upon the likely shape of demand curve based on this information.
Answer.

SECTION B
Question.22. Find Net Value Added ^t Market Price:

Answer.

Question.25. Find consumption expenditure from the following:
Autonomous consumption =100 (Rs)
Marginal propensity to consume = 0.70
National Income = 1,000 (Rs)
Answer.

Question.27. Giving reason explain how should die following be heated in estimating National Income: (i) Interest paid by banks on deposits by individuals. (ii) National debt interest.
Answer. (i) Interest paid by Banks to individual is, included in the estimation of National Income because it is a factor payment by a producer.
(ii) National debt interest is not included because it is a transfer payment. This loan is taken for consumption purposes.

Question.30. Find out (a) Gross National Product aGMarket nice and (b) Net Current Transfers from Abroad:

Answer.

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Delhi -2012 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Social Science Chapter 7 The Story of Cricket

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

Very Short Answer Type Questions (I Mark each)
Question.1 Name the country in which the cricket originated ?
Answer. The cricket originated in England.

Question.2 Mention any two peculiarities of Test Cricket.
Answer.

1.  A match can go on for five days, and still end in a draw.
2. No specification regarding the size or shape of the ground.

Question.3 When were the laws of cricket drawn up ? Mention any two laws.
Answer. The laws were drawn up in 1774.

1.  The stumps must be 22 inches and the bail across them should be six inches.
2. The ball must be between 5 to 6 ounces.

Question.4 When was the world’s first cricket club formed ?
Answer. It was formed in Hambledon in 1760s in England.

Question.5 Name the first club which became . the guardian of cricket’s regulations. When was it formed ?
Answer. Marylebone Cricket Club was the guardian of cricket regulations. It was formed in 1788, in London.

Question.6 “The MCC’s revision of the laws brought in a series of changes in the game that occurred in the second half of the eighteenth century.” Mention any two such changes.
Answer.

1. During the 1760s and 1770s it became common to pitch the ball through the air, rather than roll it along the ground.
2. The weight of the ball was limited to between 5 1/2 to 5 3/4 A ounces, and the width of the bat to four inches.

Question.7 Cricket’s connection with a rural past can be seen in the length of a test match and the size of a cricket ground. Justify.
Answer.

1.  Originally, cricket matches had no time limit. This is because the rhythms of village life was slower.
2. Cricket was originally played on country commons, and unfenced land that was public property.

Question. 8 “But in the matter of protective equipment,cricket has been
influenced by technological change.”
Answer.

1.  The invention of vulcanised rubber led to the introduction of pads in 1848 and protective gloves.
2.  Soon after helmet made out of the metal and synthetic lightweight materials was also introduced.

Question.9 Who were the amateurs?
Answer. The rich players, who played cricket for leisure were known as amateurs.

Question.10 Who were the professionals ? [CBSE 2014,15]
Answer. The poor who played cricket for a living were called professionals.

Question.11 ‘The rich were amateurs for two reasons’. Mention the two reasons.
Answer.

1.  They considered sport a kind of leisure.
2.  There was not enough money in the
   game for the rich to be interested.

Question.12 “The laws of cricket always give the benefit of doubt to the batsman”. Why?
Answer. The laws of cricket, give benefit of doubt to the batsman because amateurs, i.e. the rich tended to be batsmen. As most of the clubs were controlled by the rich, they moulded the laws according to their needs. ‘

Question.13 ‘Traditionally, the captain of the cricket team was a batsman.’ Give reasons.
Answer. Traditionally, the game was played by amateurs and professionals. Amateurs were rich people who played the game for leisure. Amateurs tended to be batsmen. So to keep their social superiority,a batsman was chosen as the captain.

Question.14 Name any two counties where cricket was spread by the Britishers.
Answer. South Africa, Zimbabwe, Australia, New Zealand, West Indies and Kenya.

Question.15 Who were the mulattos ?
Answer. These were light the skinned people. The first Non-White Club in the West Indies was established by these mulattos.

Question.16 “Despite the exclusiveness of the white cricket elite in the West Indies, the game became hugely popular in the Caribbean.” Give two reasons.
Answer.

1.  Success at cricket became a measure of racial equality and political progress.
2.  At the time of their independence many of the political leaders of the Caribbean countries like Forbes Burnham and Eric Williams saw in the game a chance for self-respect and international standing. When the West Indies won its first Test series against England in 1950, it was celebrated as a national achievement, as a way of demonstrating that the West Indians were the equals of the white Englishmen.

Question.17 “When the West Indies won its first Test series against England in 1950, it was celebrated as a national achievement.” Give two reasons.
Answer.

1. The West Indies team that won was
   captained by a white player.
2.  The West Indies cricket team represented not one nation, but several dominions that later became independent countries.

Question.18 Which was the first Indian cricket club ?
Answer. The first Indian club, the Calcutta cricket club, was established in 1792.

Question.19 Which Indian community was the first to play cricket in India ? Why ? [CBSE2014]
Answer. The Parsis, because they were close to Britishers due to their interest in trade and secondly, it was the first community to westernise.

Question.20 Name’ any two teams that participated in the Pentangular Tournament.
Answer.

1.  The Europeans
2.  The Parsis
3.  The Hindus
4.  The Muslims
5.  The Rest

Question.21 With reference to the Indian cricket answer the following questions.
(i) Who was India’s first Test Captain ?
(ii)When did India enter the world of Test Cricket?
Answer. (i) C.K. Nayudu (ii) 1932

Question.22 Why Mahatma Gandhi condemned the Pentangular competition of Calcutta ?
Answer. Mahatma Gandhi, condemned the Pentangular Tournament as a communally divisive competition that was out of place in a time when nationalists were trying to unite India’s diverse population.

Question.23 ‘The year 1971 was a landmark year in the history of cricket’. Justify by giving example.
Answer. It was the year when the first One-Day International was played between England and Australia.

Question.24 When was the first One-Day World Cup played?
Answer. 1975.

Question.25 Which country was following the racial segregation policy? Name any three countries which played against the country in spite of this policy.
Answer. South Africa, was following the segregation policy.
New Zealand, Australia and England were played against South Africa.

Question.26 The year 1970 and 1971 were notable for the world cricket. Give reasons.
Answer.

1. In the year, 1970 South Africa, which was following a policy of racial segregation, was expelled from the (ICC) International Cricket Council membership.
2. The year, 1971 is notable because the first one day international was played between England and Australia.

Question.27 Who was Kerry Packer?
Answer. Kerry Packer, an Australian television tycoon, who saw the money-making potential of cricket as a televised sport, signed up 51 of the world’s leading cricketers against the wishes of the national cricket boards, and for about two years, staged unofficial Tests and One-Day Internationals under the name of World Series Cricket.

Question.28 ‘In the last 50 years, the cricket’s centre of gravity has shifted to South Asia.’ Give two reasons.
Answer.

1. England and Australia no longer enjoy the veto power.
2. The name of the body which controls the cricket has been changed from the Imperial Cricket Conference to International Cricket Council.

Short Answer Type Questions [3 Marks]
Question.1 When were the first laws of cricket drawn up? Mention any three such laws.
Or
Mention the first written Laws of Cricket’ drawn up in 1744. [CBSE March 2011,13,15]
Or
Describe the first written laws of cricket. [CBSE March 2011]
Answer. The first written laws of cricket were drawn in 1774.

1. The principals shall choose from amongst the gentleman present two umpires who shall absolutely decide all disputes.
2. Stumps must be 22 inches high and the bail across them six inches.
3. Balls must be between 5 to 6 ounces.

Question.2 Mention any three peculiarities of Test Cricket.
Or
Why is cricket called a peculiar game ? Give any three reasons. [CBSE 2014]
Answer.

1. A match can go on for five days and still end in a draw.
2.  No specification regarding the size or shape of the ground.
3. There were no limits on the shape or size of the bat.

Question. 3 “Cricket has changed with changing times and yet fundamentally remained true to its origin in rural England”. Justify by giving examples.
Answer.

1.  No specification for ground: Even after more than 300 years of its origin still there is no specification regarding the measurement of the playing ground.
2.  Equipments: Cricket’s most important tools are all made of natural, pre-industrial materials. The bat is s made of wood as are the stumps and bails. The ball is made with leather, twine and cork. Even today, both bat
   and ball are hand-made, not industrially manufactured. The material of the bat changed slightly over time. Once it was cut out of a single piece of wood. Now it consists of two pieces, the blade which is made out of the wood of the willow tree and the handle which is made out of cane that became available as European colonialists and trading companies established themselves in Asia. Unlike golf and tennis, cricket has refused to remake its tools with industrial or man-made materials: plastic, fibre glass and metal have been firmly rejected.
3.  Protective equipment: Some of its equipments have changed with the changing time like gloves, helmet and pads. They all are manufactured by machines.

Question. 4 ‘The organisation of cricket in England reflected the nature of English society’. Explain.
Answer.

1.  The English society at that time was divided into the rich and the poor. Similarly, there was also a division in cricket. The rich players who played for leisure were called amateurs and the poor who played for livings were called professionals.
2. As most of the administrative laws were favouring the rich class,
   Similarly most of the cricket laws
   Were in favour of the batsmen as Amateurs tended to be the batsmen.
3. Most of the hard work was done by the poor, similarly, in cricket, fielding and bowling was done by the professionals.
4. Only the rich were having the right to lead, similarly, in cricket only the batsmen were made the captain.

Question.5 Mention any three features of post packer game of cricket.
Answer.

1.  Cricket became a marketable game.
2.  Colored dress, protective helmets, field restrictions, cricket under lights, became a standard part of the post Oackergame.
3.  Television coverage beamed cricket into small towns and villages.

Question. 6 ‘Cricket in India was organised on the principle of race and religion.’ Justify.
Or
How was the cricket used by the Britishers to spread their policy of racism?
Answer.

1.  When’ there was a quarrel between the Bombay Gymkhana and the Parsi cricketers over the use of public park, the Britishers favoured the Bombay. Gymkhana.
2.  They regarded religious comm¬unities as separate national-iris. That is why they used to approve applications for clubs on the basis of community.
3. They encouraged pentangular tournament as it was based on comm¬unities.
4. The first class cricket was also organised on communal and racial fines. The teams that played colonial India’s greatest and most famous first-class cricket tournament did not represent regions, but religious communities.

Question.7 ‘The centre of gravity in cricket has shifted away from the old Anglo- Australian axis.’ Justify by giving examples. [CBSE 2015]
Answer.

1.  The cricket headquarters has been shifted from London to tax free Dubai.
2. England and Australia have lost their veto power right.
3. Innovations like IPL, doosra and reverse swing have mainly come from the subcontinental teams of India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
4. India has the largest viewership for the game amongst the cricket playing nations and the largest market in the world.

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks]
Question.1 Explain the journey of cricket progress in India.
Answer.

1. Cricket at initial stage: Cricket in colonial India was organised on the principle of race and religion. The first record we have of cricket being played in India is from 1721, an account of recreational cricket played by: England sailors in Cambay.
2.  The Cricket Clubs: The first Indian club, the Calcutta Cricket Club, was established in 1792. Through the
   eighteenth century, cricket in India was almost wholly a sport played by British military men and civil servants in all-white clubs and gymkhanas.
3.  Cricket by Parsis: Parsis were the first to play cricket in India. They were close to Britishers because of their interest in trade and western education. They founded the Oriental Cricket Club in Bombay in 1848 and later on Parsi Gymkhana.
4.  Clubs by other communities: The establishment of the Parsi Gymkhana became a precedent for other Indians who in turn established clubs based on the idea of religious community. By the 1890s, the Hindus and Muslims were busy
   gathering funds and support for a Hindu Gymkhana and an Islam Gymkhana. The British did not consider colonial India as a nation.
5.  Quadrangular Tournament: This history of gymkhana cricket led to the first-class cricket being organised on communal and racial lines. The teams that played colonial India’s greatest and most famous first-class cricket tournament did not represent regions, as teams in today’s Ranji Trophy currently do, but religious communities. The tournament was initially called the Quadrangular, because it was played by four teams: the Europeans, the Parsis, the Hindus and the Muslims. It later became the Pentangular when a fifth team was added, namely, the Rest, which comprised all the communities left over, such as the Indian Christians.

Question.2 What changes were brought by (MCC) Marylebone Cricket Club-in cricket laws in the later half of the 18th century? [CBSE 2015]
Or
Mention any three changes brought about in the game of Cricket by the MCC’s revision of the laws during the second half of the 18th century. [CBSE March 2011]
Answer.

1.  It was decided to pitch the ball in the air instead of rolling it along the ground. It gave the bowlers the options of length, deception through the air and increase in the pace.
2.  The curved bat was replaced by the straight one.
3.  The weight of the ball was limited to 51/2 to 53/4 ounces, while the width of the bat was limited to four inches.
4.  In 1774, the first leg before wicket law was published.
5.  At about the same time, a third stump became common.
6. By 1780, three days had become the length of major matches.

Question.3 “The social and economic history of England in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries, cricket’s early years, shaped the game and gave cricket its unique nature.” Explain. [CBSE 2014]
Answer.

1.  Cricket and rural life: Cricket’s connection with a rural past can be seen in the length of a Test match. Originally, cricket matches had no time limit. The game went on for as long as it took to bowl out a side twice. The rhythms of village life were slower and cricket’s rules were made before the Industrial Revolution.
2.  Size of ground and the common land: In the same way, cricket’s vagueness about the size of a cricket ground is a result of its village origins! Cricket wag originally played on country commons, unfenced land that was public property. The size of the commons varied from one village to another, so there were no designated boundaries or boundary hits.
3.  Cricket’s tools: Cricket’s most important tools are all made of natural, pre-industrial materials. The bat is made of wood as are the stumps and the bails. The ball is made with leather, twine and cork.
4. Division of the players: Cricket players were also divided on their social and economic status. The rich who could afford to play it for pleasure were called amateurs and the poor who played it for a living were called professionals.
5.  Cricket and the British Empire :
   Team sport like cricket and rugby were not treated as just as outdoor play, but as an organised way of teaching English boys the discipline, the importance of hierarchy, the skills, the codes of honour and, the leadership qualities that helped them build and run the British empire.

Question. 4 How have advances in tech-nology, especially television technology, affected the development of contemporary cricket?
Answer.

1.  Expansion in the audience:
   Television coverage has changed the cricket. New cricket is watched in almost all the continents of the world.
   It has expanded the audience for the game by beaming cricket into small towns and villages.
2.  A big industry: Television has made cricket, a big industry. Coloured dress, protective helmets, field restrictions, cricket under fights, became a standard part of the Post Packer game. Cricket boards became rich by selling television rights to television companies. Television channels are making money by selling television spots to companies who were happy to pay large sums of money to air commercials for their products to cricket’s captive television audience. Continuous television coverage has made cricketers celebrities who, besides being paid better by their cricket boards, are now making even larger sums of money by doing commercials for a wide range of products, from tyres to colas on television.
3. Shift in the centre of gravity : Television has shifted the balance of power in cricket. Since India had the largest viewership for the game amongst the cricket-playing nations, and the largest market in the cricketing world, the game’s centre of gravity shifted to South Asia. This shift was symbolised by the shifting of the ICC headquarters from London to tax-free Dubai.
4. Improvement in the game : The ICC, which is the governing body has made it compulsory to telecast all international matches. Now, the third empire has been introduced and television is also being used to improve the game.

Question.5 The Parsis were the first Indian community to set up a cricket club in India. Explain their contribution to cricket. [CBSE March 2011]
Or
Who set the first cricket club in India? Explain the contribution of them in the field of cricket. [CBSE March 2011]
Answer. The Parsis, a small community of the Zoroastrians, was the first Indian community to start playing cricket. They founded the first Indian cricket club, Known as the Oriental Cricket Club in Bombay (Mumbai) in 1848. The chief causes for the same were the following:

1.  They came into a close contact with the British because of their interest in trade. x
2. They were the first Indian community to westernise and learn English language and literature.
3. They built their own Gymkhana to play cricket.
4. A Parsi cricket team beat the British cricket team in 1889. This triumph filled their heart and soul with pride.
5.  The Parsis thus became the pioneers of Indian cricket. Their example encouraged other Indians to establish their own clubs.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (Hots) Questions/Application Based Questions
Question.1 How did Indian Enter test cricket during the British period? [CBSE2014]
Answer.

1.  While some English team games like hockey and football became international games, played all over the world, cricket remained a colonial game, limited to countries that had once been part of the British empire.
2. The origins of Indian cricket, that is, cricket played by Indians are to be found in Bombay and the first Indian community to start playing the game was the small community of Zoroastrians, the Parsis.
3. India entered the world of Test cricket in 1932, a decade and a half before it became an independent nation. This was possible because Test cricket from its origins in 1877 was organised as a contest between different parts of the British empire, not sovereign nations.

Question.2 How was the game of cricket used by the Caribbean’s a measure of racial equality and political progress? Explain.
Answer.

1.  While British imperial officials brought the game to the colonies, they made little effort to spread the game, especially in colonial territories where the subjects of empire were mainly non-white, such as India and the West Indies. Here, playing cricket became a sign of superior social and racial status, and the Afro-Caribbean population was discouraged from participating in organised club cricket, which remained dominated by white plantation owners and their servants.
2. At the time of their independence many of the political leaders of Caribbean countries like Forbes Burnham and Eric Williams saw in the game a chance for self-respect and international standing.
3. When the West Indies won its first Test series against England in 1950, it was celebrated as a national achievement, as a way of demonstrating that West Indians were the equals of white Englishmen.

Value Based Questions
Question.1 What is importance of sports in our life?
Or
Explain the moral values which sports teaches us?
Answer.

1.  It is way of amusement and keep us fit.
2. Many see sports an organised way of
   teaching children the discipline, the importance of hierarchy, the skills, the codes of honour and the leadership qualities.
3. Success at sport became a measure of racial equality and political progress. At the time of their independence many of the political leaders of Caribbean countries like Forbes Burnham and Eric Williams saw in the game a Chance for selfrespect and international standing. When the West Indies won its first Test series against England in 1950, it was celebrated as a national |achievement, as a way of demonstrating that West Indians were the equals of white Englishmen.
4. It is also a way of expressing our social loyalty towards our nation.
5.  History of sports also reflects the nature of society.

Question.2 Why is it said that the battle of Waterloo was won on the playing field of Eton though the fact was different ?
Or
“The battle of Waterloo was on the playing fields of Eton”. Explain the statement. [CBSE March 2011,2012] Or
Why is it said that the battle of Waterloo was won on the playing ground of Eton ? [CBSE March 2011]
Answer.

1. Eton was the most famous school of England where the best type of military training was given to the students.
2. It was here that the high values of life were taught to the students.
3. Thomas Arnold, the founder of the Modern Public Schools, and the headmaster of the famous Rugby School saw in the Cricket the best way to teach the high values of social service, discipline, courage, qualities of leadership, etc., to the students.
   Real fact : Actually, England won these wars because of its better economic condition, because of the iron works of Scotland and Wales, the mills of Lancashire and the great financial houses of the city of London who greatly added to the financial resources of the country.

The post Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Social Science The Story of Cricket appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Economics Outside Delhi -2012

Time allowed : 3  hours                                                                                         Maximum marks 100

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1.  All questions in both the sections are compulsory.
2. Marks for questions are indicated against each.
3. Questions No. 1-5 and 17-21 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 nick each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
4.  Questions No. 6-10 and 22-26 are? short-answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
5.  Questions No. 11-13 and 27-29 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
6.  Questions No. 14-16 and 30-32 are long-answers questions carrying 6 marks each. Answers to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
7.  Answers should be brief and to the point and the above word limit should be adhered to as far as possible.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1. Define microeconomics.
Answer. Microeconomics is the study of individual economic units, such as a firm, an industry, a consumer etc.

Question.2. Give one reason for a shift in demand curve.
Answer. A demand curve shifts when there is a change in a factor other than the own price of the product.

Question.3. What is the behaviour of Total Variable Cost, as output increases?
Answer. When output increases total variable cost increases at a decreasing rate and after a point it increases at an increasing rate.

Question.4. What is fire behaviour of Marginal Revenue in a market in which a firm can sell any quantity of the output it produces at a given price?
Answer. In the given situation marginal revenue in the market will remain the same throughout. This situation relates to perfect competition.

Question.5. What is a price-maker firm?
Answer. A price-maker firm is one which participates in the fixation of the price of the product. A monopoly firm is a price-maker firm.

Question.6. Define Production Possibility Curve. Explain why it is downward sloping from left to right
Answer. A Production Possibility Curve may be defined as a curve which represents various possible combinations of two goods that can be produced with the full use of given resources in an economy under given technological conditions.
A PP curve slopes downwards from left to right because of the fact that in a combination if we produce more of one good, with given fixed resources, we shall produce less of the other good.

Question.7. A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y and is in equilibrium. Price of X falls. Explain the reaction of the consumer through the Utility Analysis.
Answer. The basic condition fulfilling the condition of consumer’s equilibrium in the case of two commodities according to utility analysis is:

As such, if the price of X falls, per rupee marginal utility of X will increase and becomes more titan that of Y. The consumer will transfer expenditure from Y to X, and will buy more of X.

Question.8. Draw Total Variable Coat, Total Cost, and Total Fixed Cost curves in a single diagram.
Answer.

The following question is for the blind candidates in lieu of Q. No. 8 Explain the behaviour of total cost as output increases.
Answer. Total cost in die short period is the sum of total variable cost (TVC) and total fixed cost (TFC). Total variable cost initially increases with the increase in output at a decreasing rate and after that it increases at an increasing rate. Therefore total cost initially increases at a decreasing rate and after that increases at an increasing rate.

Question. 9. A producer starts a Business by investing his own savings and hiring the labour. Identify implicit and explicit costs from this information. Explain.
Answer. In the given situation:

1. The producer uses his own savings in the business which elsewhere would have earned interest Therefore imputed value of the interest on the savings invested is implicit cost.
2. The cost of hiring labour from the market involves expenditure incurred by the producer. Therefore the wages paid to the labour ere explicit costs.

Question.10. Explain the implications of large number of sellers in a perfectly competitive market.
Answer. See Q. 10, 2011 (I Outside Delhi).
Or
Explain why them are only a few firms in an oligopoly market.
Answer. Under oligopoly there are only a few large firms, each producing a significant portion of the market output. Barriers, such as, patents, large capital requirement control over raw material, etc., prevent new firms from entering into industry. Small firms, in general, do not survive because of the threat of competition, though they are independent to exist.

Question.11. Define an indifference map. Why does an indifference curve to the rigid show more utility? Explain.
Answer. See Q. 11, 2012 (III Delhi).

Question.12. A consumer buys 10 units of a commodity at a price of Rs 10 per unit. He incurs an expenditure of Rs 200 on buying 20 units. Calculate price elasticity of demand by the percentage method. Comment upon the shape of demand curve based on this information.
Answer.

Since the price remains the same the shape of demand curve will be perfectly elastic. Demand Curve will be parallel to x-axis.

Question.13. What does  the Law of Variable Proportions show? State the behaviour of marginal product according to this law.
Answer. The law of variable proportions shows that if one factor is variable and others are fixed how the total product will be affected; According to this law if the units of a variable factor are increased the total product will increase at an increasing rate. This law can be divided into three distinct stages. The behaviour of MP curve will be as shown in the diagram.

1. In the first stage, the firm goes from the point of origin to the point where MP curve is maximum. According to diagram this stage is from“point of origin to point B. In this stage MP curve rises and reaches the maximum.
2. In the second stage, MP curve ranges from point B (where it is maximum) to point C (where it is zero) ie., MP decreases but is positive.
3. The third, stage goes from point C and goes below X-axis. In this phase, MP decreases and is negative. Therefore a firm always operates in the second stage.
   

Or
Explain how changes in prices of inputs influence the supply of a product.
Answer. The increase-in the prices of inputs or factors of production leads to an increase in the cost of production which adversely affects the supply of a commodity.For example, when factor prices go up, the cost of production goes up. With the result the supply of a commodity will be less at a given price.
Similarly, when prices of inputs of factors of production fall, the cost falls. The cost of the product remains unchanged and the fall in cost leads to a rise in profit. This induces producers to supply more.

Question.14. Explain the difference between
(i) inferior goods and normal goods and (ii) cardinal utility and ordinal utility.
Give example in each case.
Answer. (i) Inferior goods are those whose demand falls with the rise in income. This is because as income rises, purchasing power increases and the consumers substitutes superior goods for inferior goods. In short, those goods whose income effect is negative are called inferior goods.
Normal goods are those whose demand increases with the increase in income and vice versa. Consumers buy more of the good when their incomes increase.
In short, when income increases the demand for normal goods increases and the demand for inferior goods fall.
(ii) Cardinal utility means the utility derived from units consumed in exact numerical terms. Such as utility obtained from the first unit consumed is 10, the second unit consumed is 8 etc. Utility analysis approach explaining consumer’s behaviour is based on cardinal approach. However, its shortcoming has been pointed out by indifference curve approach.
Ordinal utility approach explains consumer’s behaviour in the order of preferences of the combinations of two commodities instead of adopting cardinal utility approach. Indifference curve approach is based on ordinal approach. It is because of the fact that indifference curves express level of satisfaction, which may be more or less, rather than expressing tire level of satisfaction numerically.

Question.15. Explain the distinction between “change in quantity supplied” and, “change in supply”.Use diagram.
Answer. Change in quantity supplied means the changes in supply which are Used by the changes in the price of the good, other things remaining constant. In this case when price increases quantity supplied also increases and when price falls quantity supplied also falls. In this case, a movement along the supply curve takes place upwards or downwards , as the case may be. As shown below in the diagram, when price increases from OP to OP1, there is a movement on supply curve from point E to point R On the other hand, when price falls from OP to OP1, there is a movement downward on the supply curve from point E to point G. When price increases, Quantity supplied also increase and when price falls. Quantity supplied also falls. This is clear looking at the diagram(i) .
Change in supply. In case of change in supply, quantity supplied increases or decreases due to factors other than price. These factors may be price of other commodities, state of technology, cost of production etc. In short,“in the case of change in supply Quantity supplied is either more or less at the same price.
In the case of change in supply, a shift takes place in the supply curve towards right when there is an increase in supply and towards left when there is a decreased in supply. As shown in the Diagram (ii), when supply curve shifts to S1S1 supply falls from OQ to OQ1. On the with the other hand, when there is a shift in curve from SS to S2S2 supply increases from OQ to OQ2. In both the case price remains the same i.e..OP.

The following question is for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu,of Q. No, 15 Explain the distinction between “change in quantity supplied” and “change in supply” with the help of table.
Answer. Change in quantity supplied means the changes in supply which are to a used by the changes in the price of the good, other things remaining constant. In this case when price increases quantity supplied also increases and when price falls quantity supplied also falls. In this case, a movement along the supply curve takes place upwards or downwards as the case may be. The change in quantity supplied as explained above can be better understood looking at the schedule given below. It is clear from the schedule that when, price goes up, quantity supplied also goes up and vice versa.

Change in supply. In case of change in supply, quantity supplied increases or decreases due to factors other than price. These factors may be price of other commodities, state of technology, cost of production etc. In short, in the case of change in supply Quantity supplied is either more or less at the same price.
Change in supply as explained above becomes evident looking at the schedule given below. It is clear from the schedule, in the case of increase in supply, supply increases at the same price and in the case of decrease in supply, supply falls at the same price.

Question.16. Market for a good is in equilibrium. These is simultaneous “decrease” both in demand and supply but there is no change in market price. Explain with the help of a schedule how. it is possible.
Answer. Market price is in equilibrium where quantity supplied and quantity demanded are equal. According to a hypothetical demand supply schedule given below, the equilibrium price is Rs 7 where quantity demanded and supplied both are 16 units. Now in a new given situation there is simultaneous decrease both in demand and supply but there is no change in market price. Therefore according to the new stated condition D1 (Demand schedule) and (Supply schedule) is drawn. Assuming that there is no change in market price, market price remaining the same, new demand and supply are equal at 12 units. Therefore, in the original condition the equilibrium quantity is 16 and in the new situation equilibrium quantity is different but the price is the same, i.e., Rs 7. This has been possible because there is equal decrease both in demand and supply in the new situation. It is because of that the equilibrium quantity has fallen from 16 to 12 units.

Or
Market for a good is in equilibrium. Explain the chain of reactions in the market if the price is
(i) higher than equilibrium price and (ii) lower than equilibrium price.
Answer. (i) When market price is higher than the equilibrium price. There is excess supply and producers are not in a position to sell at the given price. This leads to competition among producers which leads to lowering of price which in turn raises the demand and the supply reduces.
As shown in the diagram, equilibrium price is OP where equilibrium quantity is OQ. Say, if market price is fixed at OPj then there will be disequilibrium between demand and supply.
Demand will be OQ1 and supply OQ2, thus there will be excess of supply equal to Q1Q2. For bringing equality between demand and supply, market price should be reduced from OP1 to OP, so that there is no excess supply.
(ii) When market price is lower than the equilibrium price. There is excess demand and consumers are not able to buy all they want to buy at the given price. This leads to competition between consumers which leads to a rise in price. Rise in price reduces demand while raises supply. As shown in the diagram, equilibrium price is OP .
and quantity demanded OQ. If OP1 is fixed as market price (lower than the equilibrium price), there will be excess demand equal to Q1Q2. Therefore for bringing about an equality between demand and supply, market price needs to be increased from OP1 to OP, so that there is no excess demand.

SECTION B
Question.17. Define flow variable.
Answer. Flow variables are those economic concepts whose value can be ascertained during a period of time, such as income.

Question.18. Define consumption goods.
Answer. Consumption goods are those goods which are used by the consumers for satisfaction and are not used in the process of further production.

Question.19. What are time deposits?
Answer. Those bank deposits which cannot be withdrawn before the expiry of the stipulated time for which they are deposited are time deposits, such as fixed deposits.

Question.20. Define a ‘direct tax’.
Answer. Direct tax is a tax where the liability to pay and the incidence of tax is on the same person or firm such as income tax.

Question.21. What is a fixed exchange rate?
Answer. Fixed exchange rate is fixed by the Government /Central Bank.

Question.22. Find Net Value Added at Market Price:
(i) Depredation (Rs) 700
(ii) Output sold (units) 900
(iii) Price per unit of output (Rs) 40
(iv) Closing stock (Rs) 1,000 ‘
(v) Opening stock (Rs) 800
(vi) Sales tax (Rs) 3,000
(vii) Intermediate cost (Rs)
Answer.

Question.23. Explain the ‘standard of deferred payment’ function of money.
Answer. Money, besides being the basis of current transactions, is also the basis of deferred^ payments. Only money is such a commodity in whose form accounts of deferred payments can be maintained in such a way so that both creditors and debtors do not stand to lose. Money makes borrowings and lendings convenient.

Question.24. Outline the steps taken in deriving Consumption Curve from the Saving Curve. Use diagram.
Answer. Before deriving consumption curve from saving curve we should know tire following:

1. Y = C + S
   .-. S = Y – C .
2. C = Autonomous consumption + That part of income which is consumed, as such.
   When C is positive, saving is negative and when C = Y, S = 0
3. On the basis of this information, we can draw consumption curve and saving curve as shown in the diagram.
   In the diagram, SS is saving curve. At OS level of income C = Y, therefore S is zero. Beyond that SS becomes positive. When SS is positive consumption is less than income and the part of consumption curve is MC.
   

The following question is for the Blind Candidates only, in lieu of Q. No. 24 Distinguish between propensity to consume and propensity to save, with the help of numerical examples.
Answer. Propensity to consume is the ratio of change in consumption over change in income. In short,

Question.25. Find Consumption Expenditure from the following:
National Income = Rs 5,000
Autonomous Consumption = Rs 1,000
Marginal propensity to consume = 0.80
Answer. National Income, Y = Rs 5,000
Autonomous consumption (a) = Rs 1,000 Marginal propensity to consume (b) = 0.80
Consumption, (C) = a + bY = 1,000 + 0.8 (5,000) = 1,000 + 4,000 = Rs 5,000

Question.26. Distinguish between revenue receipts and capital receipts in a government budget. Give example in each case.
Answer. Revenue receipts are those which do not either create a liability or lead to a reduction in assets, such as tax revenue.
Capital receipts are those which government raises through funds either by incurring liability or by disposing of assets, such as recovery of loans, loans raised etc.
Or
Explain the role of government budget in bringing economic stability.
Answer. See Q. 27 (Or), 2011 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.27. Should the following be treated as final expenditure or intermediate expenditure? Give reasons for your answer.

1. Purchase of furniture by- a firm
2. Expenditure on maintenance by a firm.

Answer.

1. Purchase of furniture by a firm is a final expenditure because it is a kind of investment.
2. Expenditure on maintenance by a firm is an intermediate expenditure because it occurs again and again and is not of permanent nature.

Question.28. Explain the ‘lender of last resort’ function of the central bank.
Answer. When commercial banks exhaust all resources to supplement their funds at the time of liquidity crisis, the Central bank acts as the lender of the last resort for them. When Commercial banks cannot meet obligations of their depositors, the Central bank comes to their help. The Central Bank advances credit against eligible securities subject to certain terms and conditions. This saves the Commercial banks from a possible breakdown. This is an important function of the Central bank in the banking system of a country.
Or
Explain government’s banker function of the Central bank.
Answer. The Central bank functions as a commercial bank for the government. As banker to the government, the Central bank provides all those services and facilities to the government which public gets from the ordinary Banks. It operates the accounts of the public enterprises. It manages government departmental undertakings and government funds, and when the need arises, gives loans to the government. It looks after the management of public debt. It accepts the payment of taxes from the public on behalf of the government and makes payment for the cheques issued by the government. It also undertakes transactions relating to foreign currencies on behalf of the government.

Question.29. Explain the concept of ‘fiscal deficit’ in a government budget. What does it indicate?
Answer. Fiscal deficit refers to the excess of total expenditure over total receipts (excluding borrowings) during the given fiscal year. It indicates that: