NEET Counselling 2019: The Medical Counseling Committee (MCC) will commence the NEET counseling in the month of June. The counseling will be held in online mode. This NEET counseling 2019 will be conducted for the 15% of the total seats (also known as 15% All India Quota seats) of all the government colleges (except for colleges of Jammu and Kashmir state), all the seats reserved under central and deemed universities,seats reserved for Wards of Insured Persons (IP quota) in Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) medical colleges, and seats under Armed Force Medical College,Pune.

MCC had extended NEET Counseling fee payment facility till June 26 (7:00 PM) while the registration for NEET COunselling Round 1 has extended till June 26, 2019 (5:00 PM). The choice Filling option will be available until June (11:00 AM). The online MCC Counselling and Seat Allotment for 15% All India Quota/ Deemed/ Central Universities/ ESIC and AFMC (MBBS/BDS) seats will be conducted between June 27 to 30, 2019.

Latest Update:

NEET Counseling 2019 virtual vacancy (round-2) – Click here

To check list of NRI candidates eligible for Round-II of NEET UG counseling – Click here

NEET 2019 Counselling Registration for the second round has been started from 11th July 2019. Check here for counseling details.

NEET 2019 Revised Counselling Schedule has been released. The Second counseling is starting on 11th July 2019. Click here to view Revised Schedule

NEET 2019 Seat Allotment for the first round has been released on 1st July 2019. Click here to view allotment.

NEET Counselling 2019 Schedule has been released. The registration & choice filling is starting from 19th June 2019. Click here to view the counseling schedule.

The counseling of  NEET 2019 of the remaining 85% state quota seats of private as well as government colleges will be held by respective state authorities.NEET 2019 counseling will be held in two rounds for 15 % all India quota seats while it will be held in three rounds for Central and deemed universities. The result of NEET counseling 2019 will be released in the form of seat allotment letter. Read the article below for more details about NEET counseling 2019.

NEET State Wise Counselling 2019

NEET Counselling Schedule (Revised)

NEET Counselling 2019 Schedule

NEET Counselling 2019 – Eligibility Criteria

The minimum percentile required for students to be eligible for NEET counseling is tabulated below

NEET Counselling Procedure

To proceed for the NEET counseling students must follow the below given steps

• Step 1 – Registration: candidates need to register themselves for NEET counseling by using their roll number, name, etc.
• Step 2 – Fee Payment: after the registration candidates need to pay the counseling fees which is payable online.
• Step 3 – Choice locking: In this step candidates needs to fill the colleges and courses in order of their priority.
• Step 4 – Seat Allotment Result:  After the process of NEET Counselling, authorities will announce the NEET Seat allotment result, as per the preferences made by the candidates.
• Step 5 – Report to the College: After the seat allotment, a specific time period is given within which the students need to report to their respected colleges.
• Step 6 – Payment of registration fee: Candidates attempting the exam will have to submit refundable tuition fees as per the owner of the institute.The candidates joining the colleges under 15% AIQ/ Central Universities need to pay INR 10,000/- if general and INR 5,000/- if reserved. And the  Deemed university candidates of all categories are required to pay INR 2,00,000.

NEET Counselling – Documents Required

The students who qualify the NEET counseling are alloted colleges where they have to report within a specific time period. The students also need to carry important documents as per the instructions. The documents to be carried by the students are listed below:

• NEET scorecard
• Class 10 and 12 marks sheet
• ID proof
• Passport size photographs
• Provisional allotment letter
• Caste certificate
• Physically disabled certificates.

Hope this information presented in the article is useful for the students who are preparing themselves for appearing in the NEET counseling 2019. All the best

The post NEET Counselling 2019 | Round 2 Choice Filling (Started), Seat Allotment, Result appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Gujarat PGCET Counseling 2019: The admission committee for personal courses, ACPC will conduct the admission process for Gujarat PGCET counseling 2019 in Mtech and ME courses. This allotment for sears through the counseling process is done on the basis of scores obtained in GATE and PGCET 2019. Preferences will be given to the candidates that are qualified in GATE and seats that remain vacant after students are admitted through GATE will be filled up by PGCET 2019.

Students that will be applying for Gujarat PGCET counseling 2019 will give to compulsorily apply for Gujarat PGCET 2019 exam. While candidates appearing for GATE does not need to do that. The registration for Gujarat PGCET 2019 has commenced from June 28. Candidates need to register in the online mode through the confidential PIN and user ID that are available at the ICICI branches across Gujarat. Additionally, there is an information booklet that has all the details for Gujarat PGCET counseling 2019 process. While security PIN and user ID can be obtained by pay Rs. 500 in cash at the mentioned branches.

Once the registration process ends, the candidate needs to visit the Gujarat PGCET counseling 2019 helps centers for verifying the documents. Candidates will be given a document verification slip and the acknowledgment slip after the document verification is done. Here, candidates need to fill their choices and lock them by logging in the Gujarat PGCET 2019 portal within the given time and date. There will be two rounds of centralized process organized by ACPC for seat allotment to all the government, government aided, and private colleges of Gujarat.

Gujarat PGCET Counseling 2019

All the important dates for Gujarat PGCET counseling 2019 is given below

Gujarat PGCET Counseling 2019 – Eligibility Criteria

Candidates that are interested in taking admission in M.E or Mtech in Gujarat colleges should be able to fulfill below-mentioned eligibility criteria

• Must have qualified GATE/PGCET 2019 with a valid score
• Should have passed the qualifying exam with 50%
• Candidates who are applying through the sponsored seats must have a minimum of two years of relevant work experience as well as a valid GATE score
• Candidates applying through GATE score must have qualified the exam in 2017, 2018, or 2019

Gujarat PGCET Counseling 2019 – Seats Reserved

There are a certain number of seats which are reserved for candidates that are native of Gujarat and that comes under reserved category. Below is the reservation criteria for these students:

Gujarat PGCET Counseling 2019 – Seat Distribution

The seats are distributed by ACPC for the participating colleges as per the below mentioned criteria

• Total 95% of the seats in the government or government aided and unaided colleges should be filled by candidates that have passed the qualifying degree and HSC from Gujarat state
• The remaining 5% seats will be filled by the candidates that have passed their qualifying degree and HSC from the universities outside Gujarat state
• There will be a total of 10% NRI/management quota seats in the private colleges that will be filled by the candidates that have passed their degree and HSC from Gujarat state

Gujarat PGCET 2019 Counseling Process

Candidates that will be applying for the admission through Gujarat PGCET 2019 can find the detailed process below

Gujarat PGCET Counseling 2019 Registration

All the candidates that want to participate in Gujarat PGCET counseling 2019 will have to register online using their 14 digit security PIN and user ID obtained from the ICICI branch. Registration for counseling process has already started on 28th June. It is advisable to candidates to fill all the information carefully as any wrong information can lead to cancellation of registration/admission. Candidates that are applying through GATE scores have to enter their details of the GATE score, the subject for which they are applying, qualification year, and subject in which they appeared through GATE. Candidates applying for PGCET 2019 need to select the exam center for appearing in PGCET 2019 exam. All candidates must change their password immediately after they receive it from the bank. Students should take out two printouts of the application form and the PGCET admit card online after the forms are submitted at the help centers.

Gujarat PGCET Counseling 2019 – Document Verification

Candidates that have submitted their application forms need to visit the PGCET counseling 2019 help centers for verification of documents. Students should carry the printouts of the application submitted along with all the documents and their xerox copies. Students that are in the final year of their degrees have to bring all the marksheets till last the year/semester. Students will be given a document verification slip along with the acknowledgment letter after document verification. Below is the list of all the documents that need to be brought up for verification as given below:

• Certificates and marksheet of class 10th and 12th
• Submitted copy of PGCET counseling 2019 application form
• GATE scorecard (if applicable)
• Provisional/degree certificate of the qualifying degree
• Qualifying examination statement/marksheet of the final year
• Transfer certificate or school leaving certificate
• If the candidate belongs to schedule tribe, schedule caste, and socially and economically backward class issued by the concerned authorities
• NCL (noncreamy layer) certificate of the family
• Certificate for physical disability duly signed and issued by the competent authority/civil surgeon, in case of a candidate who is physically handicapped
• For ex-servicemen, a certificate from the Sainik welfare board
• A copy of the certificate for in duty servicemen issued by the commanding officer of the respective unit
• Experience letter and sponsorship letter issued by the sponsoring authority in case of a sponsored candidate

Gujarat PGCET Counseling 2019 – Merit List Publication

The admission committee will give two merit list for the admission. Here on is for the PGCET 2019 qualified candidates while the other one is for GATE qualified candidates. There will be a separate list also published for the candidates belonging to the reserved category. Admissions for all the Institutes that are participating will be prepared on the basis of the marks scored in the PGCET/GATE exam. Once the PGCET result is declared, after than the merit list is prepared.

Gujarat PGCET Counseling 2019 – Result and Mock Round Choice Filling

ACPC organizes a mock round for the candidates to be familiar with the counseling process. Students also need to fill in their choices for the mock round within the given time and date. Seat allotment result for the mock counseling round will be announced on July 26. The main purpose of the mock rounds is to make students familiar with the process of counseling. Seats allocated in the mock rounds are not final and students will be given seats only after the first and round of counseling are done. For the main round of counseling, students will have to fill in their fresh choices again.

Gujarat PGCET 2019 – Choice Filling

Every candidate has to login to their Gujarat PGCET counseling 2019 choice filling website using their password and user ID. Candidates will be given a seat matrix with the available choices of courses and colleges depending on their category and merit score. Candidates should fill their choices in order of their preference and lock these choices before the last date. Students can also delete or modify their choices before the last date of choice filling after which they will be automatically locked. Students can delete or modify their choices before the final date of choice filling after which the choices will be locked automatically. Students are also advised to enter as many choices as they can which will result in the increase in chances of getting a seat.

Gujarat PGCET Counseling 2019 – First Round Seat Allotment Result

The result for first round seat allotment for Gujarat PGCET counseling 2019 will be given on the ACPC website. Candidates should log in into their account to see the seats that are allowed. All those candidates that have been given a seat will have to download the information letter and pay the required fee for seat confirmation. Fees for seat confirmation will either be paid online or through the bank challan by going to the bank. The information regarding the fee payment will be updated automatically in the counseling portal and the students will be able to go to the next step that is reporting to the allotted Institute. Students that did not get any seat or wants to participate in the next phase of counseling with or without the first round can modify or update their choices.

Gujarat PGCET Counseling 2019 – Second Round Choice Filling and Result

Candidates that have opted for the second round of counseling have the options of modifying their choices. They can delete or modify any filled choice or can add new choice to the first round of counseling. All the candidates must fill out their choices and lock them before the final date. The result for the second round of seat allotment will be published on the ACPC official website. Students that have been allotted a seat after the second round need to download the information letter and pay the seat confirmation fees.

Gujarat PGCET Counseling 2019 – Reporting To The Allocated Institutes

Candidates that have been allotted the seat at any of the rounds of counseling needs to report at the allocated Institutes within the given time and date. Candidates must remember that they have to report to the Institute within the dates given in the information letter or else their admissions will be canceled.

Gujarat PGCET Counseling 2019 – Management Quota and NRI Quota Admission

Admission offered through ACPC is offered to 100% of government aided or government colleges and 75% to the unaided colleges. While the remaining 25% of seats fall under the self-financed Colleges that are reserved for management and NRI quota that is filled by the colleges through whatever means they deem necessary. Seats for the management quota will be offered to the candidates that are eligible after the PGCET counseling first round through a very transparent admission process.

Banks that procures secret PIN and user ID: Students can get the complete information booklet along with the secret PIN and user ID by visiting the designated branches of the ICICI Bank across the Gujarat state. Students need to pay the required fee of Rs. 500 in cash to obtain the secret PIN and user ID along with the information booklet.

https://sites.google.com/site/ncertebooksolutions/ncert-solutions-for-class-9-maths

There are also designated help centers for Gujarat PGCET counseling in 2019. Students can find a complete list of help centers by ACPC on their official website.

The post Gujarat PGCET Counseling 2019 | Seat Allotment, Check Schedule Here appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management Of Natural Resources: In this article, we will provide you all the necessary information regarding NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management Of Natural Resources. Along with the NCERT Solutions for the 16th chapter, we have also included management of natural resources class 10 important questions.

So with the help of this management of natural resources class 10 questions and answers you can easily score good marks in the subject science. Read on to find out everything about NCERT solutions for class 10 science chapter 16 to secure good marks in the subject Science.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Before getting into the details of management of natural resources class 10 exercise solutions, let us have an overview of topics and sub topics under the management of natural resources class 10 notes:

1. Sustainable Management Of Natural Resources
2. Why Do We Need To Manage Our Resources?
3. Forests And Wildlife
4. Water For All
5. Coal And Petroleum
6. An Overview Of Natural Resource Management

Class 10 Science Management of Natural Resources Mind Map

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Intext Questions

Page Number: 271

Question 1
What changes can you make in your habits to become more environment friendly ?
Answer:
(i) Segregate waste into recyclable and non-recyclable parts.
(ii) Switch off the lights, fans, television and other electrical appliances when not used.
(iii) Use energy efficient electrical appliances.
(iv) Walk for nearby shops instead of using vehicles.
(v) Reuse paper, plastic and glass bottles.
(vi) Reuse water from washing machines for cleaning purposes.

Question 2
What would be the advantages of exploiting resources with short term aims?
Answer:
The advantage of exploiting resources with short term aim would be self-centred satisfaction. They provide immediate advantages.

Question 3
How would these advantages differ from the advantages of using a long term perspective in managing our resources ?
Answer:
This way the resources can be used for the benefit of the present generation and also conserved for the benefit of generations to come. This ensures uniform distribution of resources among the people.

Question 4
Why do you think there should be equitable distribution of resources ? What forces would be working against an equitable distribution of our resources ?
Answer:
There should be equitable distribution of resources so that all, rich, powerful and poor people get benefit from the development of these resources. Rich, greedy and powerful people could work against an equitable distribution of our resources.

Page Number: 275

Question 1
Why should we conserve forest and wild life ?
Answer:
We should conserve forest and wildlife because of the following reasons.

1. They help in maintaining the ecological balance at a place.
2. They provide us with useful things like rubber, wood, dyes, gum, resin, oil, fibres, medicines, catachu, wax, honey, fruits, seeds, leaves of bidi etc.
3. They purify the air, control flood and prevent soil erosion and maintain its fertility.
4. Forests conserve biodiversity and hereditary resources. Ecological stability gets imbalanced due to damage in diversity.

Question 2
Suggest some approaches towards the conservation of forests.
Answer:
Some methods for forest conservation are as follow :

1. Only except some trees, there should be ban on cutting of forest. Forests stop soil erosion.
2. Forests should be saved from fires. Many forests get destroyed due to fires.
3. Forests should be saved from pests and insects. Pesticides, insecticides should be sprayed in forests.
4. Overgrazing should be prohibited.
5. National rules and laws should be strictly enforced.

Page Number: 278

Question 1
Find out about the traditional systems of water harvesting management in your region.
Answer:
Many of us live in cities, where water is supplied by the municipal authorities. In the houses, systems of rainwater harvesting are installed which collect the water running off and channel it into a special pit created for the purpose. This helps to recharge ground water.
Efforts are being made to collect run off rain water in soak pits. This water enriches underground water and can cause rise in water table.
Run off water from roof tops can also be collected in trenches, specially made to enrich underground water table.

Question 2
Compare the above systems with the probable systems in hilly/mountainous areas or plains or plateau regions.
Answer:
Drinking water system in hilly areas :

• Kuhls were a traditional irrigation system in hilly areas such as Himachal Pradesh. In this system, the water flowing through falls, comes to villages located at lower regions through small human made drains.
• • In Meghalaya, the water is brought down to the lower areas of hills through bamboo drains.

Drinking water system in plains :

• Jhalaras were made in Rajasthan and Gujarat, essentially meant for community use and for religious rites.
• In some places bawaries etc. were made to supply water.

Drinking water system in plateau regions :

• Bandharas are check dams or diversion which were build across rivers. Such a traditional system was found in Maharashtra.
• In some regions, small pits were dug to collect water.

Question 3
Find out the source of water in your regions/locality. Is water from this source available to all people living in that area ?
Answer:
The main source of water in our region (Delhi) is river Yamuna, upper Ganga canal, Bhakra storage and ground water. Water after being treated is supplied to the residents through a system of water pipes.
The water is available to all the people living in the area.
(Note : Students should write about the locality (region around them.)

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Textbook Chapter End Questions

Question 1
What changes would you suggest in your home in order to be environment friendly?
Answer:
We would suggest following changes in our home to make it environment friendly.

1. Separate wastes into recyclable and non-recyclable.
2. Use electricity judiciously.
3. Follow three R’s (Reduce, Recycle and Reuse).
4. Eat as much as you require but do not waste food.
5. Use water judiciously.
6. Reuse newspapers and use less plastic.
7. Have more windows in the house for natural light.
8. T.V., fans, lights etc should be turned off while going outside the room. Less use of heaters. Try wearing sweaters instead.
9. Public transport should be used instead of private vehicles.

Question 2
Can you suggest some changes in your school which would make it environment friendly ?
Answer:
Following changes can be made in schools to make it environment friendly.

1. Plant enough trees in the school.
2. Leaking taps should be repaired so that water is not wasted.
3. Bring food in reusable boxes, not in plastic bags or in aluminium foil.
4. Teachers can educate students about environmental conservation.
5. There should be more windows in school for natural light.

Question 3
We saw in this chapter that thue are four main stakeholders when it comes to forests and wild life. Which among these should have the authority to decide the management of forest produce ? Why do you think so ?
Answer:
The people living in and around the forests and the forest department of The Government could be given the authority to manage the forests because the forest department of the Government has sufficient power and resources that can manage the forest resources well. The people living in and around forests know about the forest products and use them only according to their needs. In addition to this, they would not damage the forests and use forests sustainably.

Question 4
How can you as an individual contribute or make a difference to the management of (a) forests and wild life (b) water resources and (c) and petroleum ?
Answer:
(a) As an individual we can contribute the following to conserve forest and wildlife.

1. Trees should not be cut. If trees needed to be cut, then new trees should be planted in their place.
2. Trees should be saved from fire.
3. Forest animals should be protected and their illegal hunting should be prohibited. Sustainable Management of Natural Resources

(b) As an individual we can contribute the following in the management of water resources.

1. Tap should be closed when water is not in use while brushing, shaving, washing hands.
2. Protect water sources from getting polluted.
3. If there is any leak in water distribution system, then repair it or inform concerned agency.

(c) As an individual we can contribute the following in the management of coal and petroleum.

1. Public transport should be used instead of private vehicle. It saves petrol.
2. Do not use electricity in vain.
3. Switch off the vehicle at the red light if you have to wait for too long.
4. Wear extra sweater instead of using heaters.
5. Use LPG or CNG.

Question 5
What can you as an individual do to reduce your consumption of the various natural resources ?
Answer:
We can do the following as an individual to reduce our consumption of the various natural resources.

1. Follow the principle of three R’s i.e., Reduce, Recycle and Reuse.
2. Plastic bags should be reused for the storage of food and small things.
3. Food should be taken as per requirement.
4. Reusable bottles should be used to store water everyday.
5. The devices based on renewable sources of energy like solar cell, solar heater, etc. should be used.

Question 6
List five things you have done over the last one week to
(a) conserve our natural resources.
(b) increase the pressure on our natural resources.
Answer:
(a) To conserve our natural resources :

• Saved electricity by switching off the lights, fans, television and other electrical appliances when not needed.
• Used energy efficient electrical appliances. This is done by using compact fluorescent lamps (CFL) and fluorescent tube lights instead of traditional filament type electric bulbs.
• Used public transport for school instead of parent’s car.
• Took bath with less water than before and did not waste water.
• Took part in community awareness meetings regarding environmental conservation.

(b) To increase the pressure on natural resources :

• Used more paper than required for printing on my computer.
• Kept the fan on even when I was not in the room.
• Wasted food.
• Burnt crackers.
• Wasted petrol by unnecessarily starting the motorbike.

Question 7
On the basis of the issues raised in this chapter, what changes would you incorporate in your life-style in a move towards sustainable use of our resources ?
Answer:
We would bring following changes in our lifestyle so that sustainable use of our natural resources can be encouraged.

1. We should limit our personal and collective needs beyond laws, rules and regulation so that the benefit of development can be made available to all and future generations.
2. Close the tap when not in use.
3. Turn off the lights, fans etc. in home, school or office when not in use.
4. Make least use of polythene bags and these should not be thrown in garbage.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Management of natural resources: Conservation and judicious use of natural resources. Forest and wildlife; Coal and Petroleum conservation. Examples of people’s participation for conservation of natural resources. Big dams: advantages and limitations; alternatives, if any. Water harvesting. Sustainability of natural resources.

Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

Question 1.
What changes can you make in your habits to become more environment-friendly?
Answer:
We should use the formula of three R’s in our home in order to be environment friendly.

1. Reduce, i.e. to use less, and save the water and the electricity by stopping their wastage.
2. Recycle, i.e. to segregate the waste so that materials which can be recycled should be dumped in a place for recycling.
3. Reuse, i.e. to reuse certain materials like bottles Of jams and pickles for storing other kitchen items, etc.

Question 2.
What would be the advantages of exploiting resources with short-term aims?
Answer:
There would be no advantage of exploiting resources with short-term aims. Their exploitation may appear to be advantageous in the short-term but it is highly disadvantageous in the long- term. By doing so, we may be able to enjoy the comforts Of life but we would damage our environment gradually.

More Resources for CBSE Class 10

• NCERT Solutions
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Hindi
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Sanskrit
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Foundation of IT
• RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions

Question 3.
How would these advantages differ from the advantages of using a long-term perspective in managing our resources?
Answer:
The exploitation of natural resources with short-term aims are advantageous for present generation to meet their daily requirements whereas management of natural resources with long-term perspective are aimed to fulfill the needs of future generation and to maintain their sustainability.
Download NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources PDF

Question 4.
Why do you think there should be equitable distribution of resources? What forces would be working against an equitable distribution of our resources?
Answer:
Everybody has equal rights over natural resources and also everybody should get the benefits from them. Therefore, equitable distribution of resources is essential to ensure that everybody gets their due benefit. But many forces go against the equitable distribution of natural resources. The geographical factors are the most important factors which do not allow equitable distribution of natural resources. Economy is another factor which prevents equitable distribution Of these resources.

Page 273

Question 1.
Why should we conserve forests and wildlife?
Answer:
We should conserve forests and wildlife for preserving our environment. They together maintain an ecological balance Of nature. We should conserve them for our economic and social growth and to meet our material aspirations.

Question 2.
Suggest some approaches towards the conservation of forests.
Answer:
The principles of three R’s should be followed to conserve the forests. In addition to this, all stakeholders should be made a part of any conservation programmes. Also, the interests of local forest dwellers should always be kept in mind while Organising a conservation programme.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) [1 Mark each]

Question 1.
Manu and Dheer goes to same school, but their parents drop and pick them separately. After learning about natural resources and their management, they talked to their parents, who arrived on few decisions. What could be the best possible decisions among those given below.
(a) To walk the small distance to school
(b) Car pool
(c) Use common school bus at nearby stop
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) To save the resources like petrol and diesel used in cars, one can walk to their destination, if it is close, car pooling can be done by people sharing same locations, etc. These practice will save the natural resources and reduce environmental pollution.

Question 2.
The pH of water sample collected from a river . was found to be acidic in the range of 3.5 – 4.5. On the banks of the river were several factories that were discharging effluents into the river. The effluents of which one of the following factories is most likely to cause low pH of river water? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Soap and detergent factory
(b) Lead battery manufacturing factory
(c) Plastic cup manufacturing factory
(d) Alcohol distillery
Answer:
(b) Lead is a major constituent of lead-acid battery used extensively in car batteries. The discharge from lead battery manufacturing factory can lower the pH of river water by making it acidic.

Question 3.
Varun has read about some national movements associated with conserving environment and its resources. Chipko movement was one tree hugging movement in which the villagers compelled axemen to stop the cutting of trees by embracing and encircling trees. Help him in finding out the person who was not related with this movement?
(a) Rajendera Singh
(b) Gaura Devi
(c) Sunder Lai Bahuguna
(d) Chandi Prasad Bhatt
Answer:
(a) Rajendra Singh was not associated with the Chipko movement. Chipko movement was meant for protection of trees from excessive commercial exploitation and was instigated by Sunder Lai Bahuguna and Chandi Prasad Bhatt.

Question 4.
Due to several human activities, waterbodies are polluted resulting in decreased availability of usable water. Maya was testing the samples of polluted water in lab. The presence of which factor will confirm to her that the water sample is polluted.
Select the correct option.
(a) The presence of coliform bacteria
(b) High BOD
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Answer:
(c) In polluted water sample, coliform bacteria are present. Biochemical Oxygen Demand is BOD. High BOD indicates that water is polluted.
Coliform bacteria occurs in waterbodies where human excreta and deadbodies are disposed off.

Question 5.
The construction of large dams has faced a lot of oppositions like the Sardar Sarovar Project on river Narmada lead to Narmada Bachao Andolan. Raj has to identify the correct problem that lead to such strong oppositions against construction of such dams.
Choose the correct option.
(a) Large areas of agricultural land and human habitation submerged
(b) Destruction of large ecosystem and loss of biological diversity
(c) Displacement of large number of local population without adequate rehabilitation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All the given statements are correct. Construction of large dams leads to disappearance of agricultural land, disposal of human habitation.
Thus, disturbing an ecosystem along with its diversity. People are displaced from their homes ” without any recommendation of living space and profession.

Question 6.
Ganga has been considered as a symbol of purity but is grossly polluted by waste dumped in it. Government has been making plans to revive this basin. Which steps should according to you be incorporated in the plan to prevent any further polluting of this river? Choose the correct option.
(a) Renovation of sewage pumps and treatment plants
(b) Extension of sewerage in unsewered areas to bring waste from those areas to treatment plants
(c) Installation of new treatment plants
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All the strategies can be incorporated in the plan of action to make river Ganga pollution free.

Question 7.
Madhur was reading about rainwater harvesting and its benefits. He came to learn about different types of structures that are build in different states to conserve rainwater. Select the correct option which represent such structures.
(a) Bhundhis
(b) Khadins
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Compost pit
Answer:
(c) Khadins and Bhundhis are the traditional rain harvesting systems used in Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, respectively.

Question 8.
A student reading an article on sustainable development came across some statements which confused him. Those statements are being given below.
Choose the incorrect statement from therm by selecting an option.
(a) Economic development is linked to environmental conservation
(b) Sustainable development encourages development for current generation and conservation of resources for future generations
(c) Sustainable development does not consider the view points of stakeholders
(d) Sustainable development is a long planned and persistent development
Answer:
(c) Statement (c) is incorrect because sustainable development do consider the interest of stakeholders, i.e. people with dependency on the natural resources and are affected by any project or its outcome directly or indirectly.

Question 9.
A programme called “silviculture” was started to replenish the forest resource, so as to meet the diverse needs of living beings. According to you, which statements from those given below will not be considered an advantage of this initiative.
(a) It maintains a perfect water cycle in nature
(b) It prevents soil erosion.
(c) It encourages plantation of multipurpose trees in open lands of urban area
(d) It produces a large quantity of raw materials for industry
Answer:
(c) Silviculture encourages plantation of multipurpose trees in open lands of urban area is not advantageous because they can be cut down when necessity for more land crops up is required.

Question 10.
Many international treaties and protocols have been developed and signed by different countries to reduce production of greenhouse gases and environment pollution. A treaty/protocol to reduce C02 emission was
(a) Montreal protocol (1987)
(b) Kyoto protocol (1997)
(c) Helesinki declaration (1989)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) The Kyoto protocol was signed by various countries pledging to regulate the emissions of CO₂. India signed this protocol in Aug. 2002 and has reduced its CO₂ emission by 5.2% till now.

Class 10 Science Management of Natural Resources Mind Map

MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES
Natural resources are resources that exist without actions of humankind. They can be abiotic (such as air, water, land, mineral, ores, etc) or biotic (such as plants, animals, fossil fuels as they are obtained from decaying organic matter).
Natural resource management is an interdisciplinary field of study that considers the physical, biological, economic and social aspects of handling natural resources. It involves putting resources to their best use for human purposes in addition to preserving natural systems.

Why Do We Need To
Manage Our Resources?
• All the things we use or consume such as food, clothes, books, toys, furniture, tools and vehicles are obtained from resources on this earth.
• A majority of natural resources is limited.
• Human population is increasing at a tremendous rate.
• Utilization of natural resources is increasing at an exponential rate.
• Need to conserve resources for future generations.
• Equal distribution of resources for equal benefit.
• Need to reduce the damage caused to the environment while these resources are either extracted or used.

Forests And Wild Life
Forests are ‘biodiversity hot spots’. Biodiversity hotspots are the regions with very high levels of species richness & high degree of endemism. It is very important to preserve biodiversity we have inherited as loss of diversity may lead to a loss of ecological stability.
Stakeholders Stakeholders are:
• The people who live in or around forests are dependent on forest produce for various aspects of their life.
• The Forest Department of the Government which owns the land and controls the resources from forests.
• The industrialists who use various forests’ produce, but are not dependent on the forests in any one area.
• The wild life and nature enthusiasts who want to conserve nature in its pristine form.

Pollution Of The Ganga
Ganga Action Plan, a multi-crore project came about in 1985 because the quality of the water in the Ganga was very poor. Several factors responsible for this poor condition of the river are:
• Hundred of towns & cities pour their garbage and excreta into it.
• Large amount of untreated sewage is dumped into the Ganges every day.
• In addition, human activities like bathing, washing of clothes & immersion of ashes or un-bumt corpses also lead to the huge amount of pollution in the river.
• Lastly, industries contribute chemical effluents to the Ganga’s pollution load which kills fish in large sections of the river.

When we consider the conservation of forests, we need to look at the stakeholders.
Let us look at an example for this:
• The local people depend on forests for their firewood, timber, thatch, food, fruits, nuts, as well as medicine. In addition, their cattle also graze in forest areas or feed on other fodder which is collected from forests.
• However, when vast tracts of forests have been converted to monocultures of pine, teak or eucalyptus for industrial use, a large amount of biodiversity in the area was destroyed. In addition, the varied needs of the local people (fodder, herbs, fruits & nuts for food) can no longer be met from such forests.
• Hence, conserv ation of forests resources must be done at the broader level and should consider each and every group of stakeholder associated with forests resources.
• In other words, while the environment is preserved, the benefits of the controlled exploitation should go to the local people, a process in which decentralised economic growth and ecological conservation go hand in hand.

Example of People’s Participation in the Management of Forests
• Amrita Devi Bishnoi, in 1731 sacrificed her life along with 363 others for the protection of’khejri’ trees in Khejrali village near Jodhpur in Rajasthan.
• The Chipko Andolan, result of a grass-root level effort to end the alienation of people from their forests. The movement was originated in a remote village called Reni in Garhwal during the early 1970s.
• In 1972, the West Bengal Forest Department failed in reviving the degraded Sal forests in the southwestern districts of the state.
• With the active and willing participation of the local community, the sal forests of Arabari underwent a remarkable recovery by 1983, a previously worthless forest w’as valued Rs 12.5 crores.

Three R’s
Reduce: This means that you use less. For e.g. saving electricity by switching off unnecessary lights & fans, save water by repairing leaky taps etc.
Recycle: This means that you collect plastic, paper, glass & metal items & recycle these materials to make required things instead of synthesising or extracting fresh material. It requires proper segregation of wastes to prevent the dumping of recyclable materials along with other wastes.
Reuse: In this strategy, one simply use things again & again for e.g. plastic or glass bottles used for packaging of food can be used for storing things in the kitchen.

Coal And Petroleum
Coal and petroleum were formed from the degradation of bio-mass millions of years ago & hence they will be exhausted in the future no matter how carefully we use them i.e. they are exhaustible resources.
The management of these resources includes sustainable use of these resources, finding the alternative in forms of renewable energy such as solar energy, wind energy, geothermal energy etc, and increasing the efficiency of our machines or automobiles.

Water Conservation
Dams: Large dams can ensure the storage of adequate water for irrigation as well as for generating electricity.
Canal systems leading from these dams can transfer large amounts of water to greater distances. For e.g. Indira Gandhi Canal has brought greenery to considerable areas of Rajasthan.
However, constructions of large dams address three problems in particular:
• Social problems as they displace large no. of peasants & tribals without adequate compensation or rehabilitation.
• Economic problems, they invest huge amounts of public money without the generation of proportionate benefits.
• Environmental problems, they contribute enormously to deforestation & loss of biological diversity.
• Water Harvesting: Watershed management emphasises scientific soil and water conservation in order to increase the biomass production.
• Various organisations have been working on rejuvenating ancient systems of water harvesting as an alternative to the ‘mega-projects’ like dams.
• These communities have used hundreds of indigenous water saving methods such as dug small pits & lakes, put in place simple watershed systems, built small earthen dams, constructed dykes, sand & limestone reservoirs, and set up rooftop water-collecting units. This has recharged groundwater levels & even brought rivers back to life.
• Water harvesting is an age-old concept in India for e.g. khadins, tanks & nadis in Rajasthan, bandharas & tals in Maharashtra, bundhis in Madhya Pradesh & Uttar Pradesh, altars & pyncs in Bihar, kulhs in Himachal Pradesh, ponds in the Kandi belt of Jammu region, eris (tanks) in Tamil Nadu, surangams in Kerala, and kattas in Karnataka.
• Their main purpose of water harvesting is not to hold surface water but to recharge the ground water beneath. The advantages of storing ground water are:
• It does not evaporate, but spreads out to recharge wells & provides moisture for vegetation over a wide area.
• It does not provide breeding grounds for mosquitoes.
• Ground-water is also relatively protected from contamination by

Class 10 Science Management of Natural Resources Mind Map

MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES
Natural resources are resources that exist without actions of humankind. They can be abiotic (such as air, water, land, mineral, ores, etc) or biotic (such as plants, animals, fossil fuels as they are obtained from decaying organic matter).
Natural resource management is an interdisciplinary field of study that considers the physical, biological, economic and social aspects of handling natural resources. It involves putting resources to their best use for human purposes in addition to preserving natural systems.

Why Do We Need To Manage Our Resources?

• All the things we use or consume such as food, clothes, books, toys, furniture, tools and vehicles are obtained from resources on this earth.
• A majority of natural resources is limited.
• Human population is increasing at a tremendous rate.
• Utilization of natural resources is increasing at an exponential rate.
• Need to conserve resources for future generations.
• Equal distribution of resources for equal benefit.
• Need to reduce the damage caused to the environment while these resources are either extracted or used.

Forests And Wild Life
Forests are ‘biodiversity hot spots’. Biodiversity hotspots are the regions with very high levels of species richness & high degree of endemism. It is very important to preserve biodiversity we have inherited as loss of diversity may lead to a loss of ecological stability.
Stakeholders
Stakeholders are:

• The people who live in or around forests are dependent on forest produce for various aspects of their life.
• The Forest Department of the Government which owns the land and controls the resources from forests.
• The industrialists who use various forests’ produce, but are not dependent on the forests in any one area.
• The wild life and nature enthusiasts who want to conserve nature in its pristine form.

When we consider the conservation of forests, we need to look at the stakeholders.
Let us look at an example for this:
The local people depend on forests for their firewood, timber, thatch, food, fruits, nuts, as well as medicine. In addition, their cattle also graze in forest areas or feed on other fodder which is collected from forests.

However, when vast tracts of forests have been converted to monocultures of pine, teak or eucalyptus for industrial use, a large amount of biodiversity in the area was destroyed. In addition, the varied needs of the local people (fodder, herbs, fruits & nuts for food) can no longer be met from such forests.

Hence, conserv ation of forests resources must be done at the broader level and should consider each and every group of stakeholder associated with forests resources.

In other words, while the environment is preserved, the benefits of the controlled exploitation should go to the local people, a process in which decentralised economic growth and ecological conservation go hand in hand.

Example of People’s Participation in the Management of Forests
Amrita Devi Bishnoi, in 1731 sacrificed her life along with 363 others for the protection of’khejri’ trees in Khejrali village near Jodhpur in Rajasthan.

The Chipko Andolan, result of a grass-root level effort to end the alienation of people from their forests. The movement was originated in a remote village called Reni in Garhwal during the early 1970s.

In 1972, the West Bengal Forest Department failed in reviving the degraded Sal forests in the southwestern districts of the state.
With the active and willing participation of the local community, the sal forests of Arabari underwent a remarkable recovery by 1983, a previously worthless forest w’as valued Rs 12.5 crores.

Pollution Of The Ganga
Ganga Action Plan, a multi-crore project came about in 1985 because the quality of the water in the Ganga was very poor. Several factors responsible for this poor condition of the river are:

• Hundred of towns & cities pour their garbage and excreta into it.
• Large amount of untreated sewage is dumped into the Ganges every day.
• In addition, human activities like bathing, washing of clothes & immersion of ashes or un-burnt corpses also lead to the huge amount of pollution in the river.
• Lastly, industries contribute chemical effluents to the Ganga’s pollution load which kills fish in large sections of the river.

Three R’s
Reduce: This means that you use less. For e.g. saving electricity by switching off unnecessary lights & fans, save water by repairing leaky taps etc.
Recycle: This means that you collect plastic, paper, glass & metal items & recycle these materials to make required things instead of synthesising or extracting fresh material. It requires proper segregation of wastes to prevent the dumping of recyclable materials along with other wastes.
Reuse: In this strategy, one simply use things again & again for e.g. plastic or glass bottles used for packaging of food can be used for storing things in the kitchen.

Coal And Petroleum
Coal and petroleum were formed from the degradation of bio-mass millions of years ago & hence they will be exhausted in the future no matter how carefully we use them i.e. they are exhaustible resources.
The management of these resources includes sustainable use of these resources, finding the alternative in forms of renewable energy such as solar energy, wind energy, geothermal energy etc, and increasing the efficiency of our machines or automobiles.

Water Conservation
Dams: Large dams can ensure the storage of adequate water for irrigation as well as for generating electricity.
Canal systems leading from these dams can transfer large amounts of water to greater distances. For e.g. Indira Gandhi Canal has brought greenery to considerable areas of Rajasthan.
However, constructions of large dams address three problems in particular:

• Social problems as they displace large no. of peasants & tribals without adequate compensation or rehabilitation.
• Economic problems, they invest huge amounts of public money without the generation of proportionate benefits.
• Environmental problems, they contribute enormously to deforestation & loss of biological diversity.
• Water Harvesting: Watershed management emphasises scientific soil and water conservation in order to increase the biomass production.
• Various organisations have been working on rejuvenating ancient systems of water harvesting as an alternative to the ‘mega-projects’ like dams.
• These communities have used hundreds of indigenous water saving methods such as dug small pits & lakes, put in place simple watershed systems, built small earthen dams, constructed dykes, sand & limestone reservoirs, and set up rooftop water-collecting units. This has recharged groundwater levels & even brought rivers back to life.
• Water harvesting is an age-old concept in India for e.g. khadins, tanks & nadis in Rajasthan, bandharas & tals in Maharashtra, bundhis in Madhya Pradesh & Uttar Pradesh, altars & pyncs in Bihar, kulhs in Himachal Pradesh, ponds in the Kandi belt of Jammu region, eris (tanks) in Tamil Nadu, surangams in Kerala, and kattas in Karnataka.
• Their main purpose of water harvesting is not to hold surface water but to recharge the ground water beneath. The advantages of storing ground water are:
  • It does not evaporate, but spreads out to recharge wells & provides moisture for vegetation over a wide area.
  • It does not provide breeding grounds for mosquitoes.
  • Ground-water is also relatively protected from contamination by
    

Now that you are provided all the necessary information regarding the management of natural resources class 10 exercise solutions and we hope this detailed article on NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management Of Natural Resources is helpful. If you have any query regarding this article or NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management Of Natural Resources, drop your comments in the comment section below and we will get back to you as soon as possible.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification Of Elements: Students who are in search for periodic classification of elements class 10 question and answers can refer to this article. Working on NCERT Solutions for class 10 science chapter 5 notes will help candidates to build a strong foundation over the subject Science. NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification Of Elements will further help in clearing the UG competitive exams.

Going through this periodic classification of elements class 10 NCERT activity solutions will help candidates to understand the theory behind every concept which in turn helps candidates to solve the questions at the end of every topics and subtopics. Read on to find everything about the periodic classification of elements class 10 question and answers.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Before getting into the details of NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification Of Elements, let’s have an overview of topics & subtopics under NCERT Solutions for class 10 science chapter 5 notes:

1. Periodic Classification Of Elements
2. Making Order Out Of Chaos – Early Attempts At The Classific Assification Of Tion Of Elements
3. Making Order Out Of Chaos – Mendeléev’S Periodic Table
4. Making Order Out Of Chaos – The Modern Periodic Table

Class 10 Periodic Classification of Elements Mind Map

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Intext Questions

Page Number: 81

Question 1
Did Dobereiner’s triads also exist in the columns of Newlands’ Octaves ? Compare and find out.
Answer:
Yes, Dobereiner’s triads also existed in the columns of Newland’s Octaves.
For example, Li, Na, K.
If we consider lithium (Li) as the first element, then sodium (Na) is eighth element. If we consider sodium as the first element, then potassium is the eighth element.

Question 2
What were the limitations of Dobereiner’s classification ?
Answer:
It failed to arrange all the then known elements in the form of triads of elements having similar chemical properties. Dobereiner could identify only three triads from the elements known that time.

Question 3
What were the limitations of Newlands’ law of octaves ?
Answer:
(i) Newlands law of octaves was applicable to the classification of elements upto calcium only. After calcium every eighth element did not possess the properties similar to that of the first element.
(ii) Newlands assumed that only 56 elements existed in nature and no more elements would be discovered in the future. But later on, several new elements were discovered whose properties did not fit into Newlands’ law of Octaves.
(iii) In order to fit elements into his table, Newlands put even two elements together in one slot and that too in the column of unlike elements having very different properties.
For example, the two elements cobalt (Co) and nickel (Ni) were put together in just one slot and that too in the column of elements like fluorine, chlorine and bromine which have very different properties from these elements.
(iv) Iron (Fe) element which resemble elements like cobalt and nickel in properties, was placed far away from these elements.

Page Number: 85

Question 1
Use Mendeleev’s Periodic Table to predict the formulae for the oxides of the following elements : K, C, Al, Si, Ba
Answer:
K₂O, CO₂, Al₂O₃, SiO₂, BaO.

Question 2
Besides gallium, which other elements have since been discovered that were left by Mendeleev in his periodic table ? (any two)
Answer:
Scandium and Germanium.

Question 3
What were the criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his Periodic Table ?
Answer:
Mendeleev used the relationship between the atomic masses of the elements and their physical and chemical properties. He used similarity in physical properties, similarity in the formation of hydrides and oxides of element.

Question 4
Why do you think the noble gases are placed in a separate group ?
Answer:
Noble gases are chemically inert and are present in atmosphere in extremely low concentrations. Therefore, owing to their similar inert behaviour and similar electronic configuration, they are justified to be placed in a separate group.

Page Number: 90

Question 1
How could the modern periodic table remove various anomalies of Mendeleev’s periodic Table ?
Answer:
(i) The modern periodic table is based on atomic number, while Mendeleev’s periodic table was based on atomic mass.
(ii) The isotopes of an element have same number of protons (or atomic number). So they are alloted the same position in modern periodic table.
(iii) Cobalt and nickel are placed at 9th and 10th position respectively.
(iv) Hydrogen has been alloted special position, i.e., it is placed at the top of alkali metals in the first group.

Question 2
Name two elements you would expect to show chemical reactions similar to magnesium. What is the basis for your choice ?
Answer:
Beryllium (Be) and Calcium (Ca).
Both Be (atomic number 4) and Ca (atomic number 20) have similar electronic configuration, i.e. two electrons in outermost shells.
Be               2,2
Ca             2, 8, 8, 2
Both Be and Ca react with oxygen to give basic oxides, BeO and MgO.

Question 3
Name :
(a) three elements that have a single electron in their outermost shells.
(b) two elements that have two electrons in their outermost shells.
(c) three elements with filled outer most shells.
Answer:
(a) Lithium : Atomic number – 3(2, 1); Sodium : Atomic number – 11(2, 8, 1); Potassium : Atomic number – 19(2, 8, 8, 1).
(b) Beryllium : Atomic number – 4(2, 2); Calcium : Atomic number – 20(2, 8, 8, 2)
(c) Helium : Atomic number – 2(2); Neon : Atomic number – 10(2, 8); Argon : Atomic number – 18(2, 8, 8).

Question 4
(a) Lithium, sodium, potassium are all metals that react with water to liberate hydrogen gas. Is there any similarity in the atoms of these elements ?
(b) Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of extremely low reactivity. What, if anything, do their atoms have in common ?
Answer:
(a) Lithium, sodium and potassium all belong to the same group. The atoms of lithium, sodium and potassium all have only one electron in their outermost shells and all of these are metals. All of these react with water to form alkalies.
(b) The atoms of helium and neon have their outermost shells completely filled. Helium has its first shell completely filled, while neon has its first and second shells (K and L) completely filled.

Question 5
In the modern periodic table, which are the metals among the first ten elements ?
Answer:
The first ten elements in modern periodic table are hydrogen, helium, lithium, beryllium, boron, carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, fluorine and neon. Out of these, lithium, beryllium and boron are metals, because they have 1, 2 and 3 electrons respectively in their outermost shells.

Question 6
By considering their position in the Periodic Table, which one of the following elements would you expect to have maximum metallic characteristics ?
Ga, Ge, As, Se, Be
Answer:
Beryllium (Be). In the periodic table, the elements placed on the left show maximum metallic characteristics. Since beryllium occupies the most left position in comparison to other elements, hence it shows maximum metallic characteristics.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Textbook Chapter End Questions

Question 1
Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends wlien going from left to right across the periods of Periodic Table.
(a) The elements become less metallic in nature.
(b) The number of valence electrons increases.
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
(d) The oxides become more acidic.
Answer:
(c) The atoms lose their .electrons more easily.

Question 2
Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl₂, which is solid with a high melting point. X would most likely to be in the same group of the periodic table as
(a) Na
(b) Mg
(c) Al
(d) Si
Answer:
(b) Mg

Question 3
Which element has
(a) two shells, both of which are completely filled with electrons ?
(b) the electronic configuration 2, 8, 2 ?
(c) a total of three shells, with four electrons in its valence shell ?
(d) a total of two shells with three electrons in its valence shell. v
(e) twice as many electrons in its second shell as in its first shell ?
Answer:
(a) Neon (2, 8)
(b) Magnesium
(c) Silicon (2, 8, 4)
(d) Boron (2, 3)
(e) Carbon (2, 4)

Question 4
(a) What property do all elements in the same column of the Periodic Table as boron have in common ?
(b) What property do all elements in the same column of the Periodic Table . as fluorine have in common ?
Answer:
(a) Elements in the same column or group as boron have valency of three and have three valence electrons.
(b) Elements in the same column or group as fluorine form acidic oxides and have seven electrons in their outermost shells and have valency of one.

Question 5
An atom has electronic configuration 2, 8, 7.
(a) What is the atomic number of this element ?
(b) To which of the following elements would it be chemically similar ? (Atomic numbers are given in parentheses.)
N (7), F (9), P (15), Ar (18)
Answer:
(a) The atomic number of the given element is 2 + 8 + 7(= 17).
(b) It would be chemically similar to fluorine [F(9)] because its electronic configuration is 2, 7.

Question 6
The positions of three elements A, B and C in the periodic table are shown below :
(a) State whether A is a metal or non-metal.

(b) State whether C is more reactive or less reactive than A.
(c) Will C be larger or smaller in size than B ?
(d) Which type of ion, cation or anion, will be formed by element A ?
Answer:
(a) Since the valency of group 17 elements is 1 and all these elements accept electrons, thus A is a non-metal.
(b) C is less reactive than A because as we move down in a group, the reactivity of non-metals increases.
(c) C is smaller in size than B because B and C both are related to the same period and the size decreases as one moves from left to right in a period.
(d) A will form anion because it is a non-metal.

Question 7
Nitrogen (atomic number 7) and phosphorus (atomic number 15) belong to group 15 of the periodic table. Write the electronic configuration of these two elements. Which of these will be more electronegative ? Why ?
Answer:
Electronic configuration of nitrogen -2,5
Electronic configuration of phosphorus = 2, 8, 5
Nitrogen will be more electronegative because outermost shell is nearer to nucleus and therefore nucleus will attract electrons more strongly. In a group of the periodic table, electron attracting tendency decreases as we move from top to bottom.

Question 8
How does the electronic configuration of an atom relate to its position in the Modern Periodic Table ?
Answer:
Modern periodic table is based on the atomic number and atomic number is directly related to the electronic configuration. One can find the group number and period number of an element on the basis of electronic configuration. For example, if an element has 1 or 2 electrons in its outermost shell, then it would belong to group 1 or group 2. And if it has 3 or more electrons in its outermost shell, then it would belong to group 10 4- the number of electrons in the outermost shell.

All the alkali metals have one electron in their outermost shell, so they are placed in group 1. Thus, all the group 2 elements have 2 electrons in their outermost shell. In group 15 elements, there are 5 electrons in their outermost shell. Similarly, the number of shells in an element indicates its period number. For example, the atomic number of magnesium is 12 and its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 2. Thus it is an element of 3rd period.

Question 9
In the Modern Periodic Table, calcium (atomic number 20) is surrounded by elements with atomic number 12, 19, 21 and 38. Which of these have physical and chemical properties resembling calcium ?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of elements with :
Atomic number 12 = 2, 8, 2
Atomic number 19 = 2, 8, 8, 1
Atomic number 20 = 2, 8, 8, 2
Atomic number 21 = 2, 8, 9, 2
Atomic number 38 = 2, 8, 18, 8, 2
Elements with atomic number 12 i.e., magnesium (Mg) and 38 i.e., strontium (Sr) will have similar physical and chemical properties as element with atomic numbers 20 i.e., calcium (Ca).

Question 10
Compare and contrast the arrangement of elements in Mendeleev’s Periodic Table and the Modern Periodic Table.
Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Periodic classification of elements: Needs for classification, Modern Periodic table, gradation in properties, valency, atomic number, metallic and non-metallic properties.

Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

Question 1
Did Dobereiner’s triads also exist in the columns of Newlands Octaves? Compare and find out.
Solution:
Yes, Dobereiner’s triads also exist in the columns of Newlands Octaves. For example, the second column of Newlands classification has the elements lithium (Li), sodium (Na) and Potassium (K), which constitute a Dobereiner’s triad.

Question 2
What were the limitations of Dobereiner’s classification?
Solution:
All the known elements could not be arranged in the form of triads. For very low mass or for very high mass elements, the Dobereiner’s triads are not applicable. Take the example of F, Cl and Br. Atomic mass of Cl is not an arithmetic mean of atomic masses of F and Br. As the techniques for measuring atomic masses accurately, improved, the Dobereiner’s triad was unable to remain strictly valid.

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• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Foundation of IT
• RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions

Question 3
What were the limitations of Newland’s Law of Octaves?
Solution:
It was not valid for elements that had atomic masses higher than Ca.When more elements were discovered, such as elements from the noble gases such as He, Ne, Ar, they could not be accommodated in his table.

Download NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements PDF

Question 4
Use Mendeleev’s periodic table to predict the formulae for the oxides of the following elements: K, C, Al, Si, Ba.
Solution:
K₂O – Potassium Oxide
CaO – Calcium Oxide
Al₂O₃ – Aluminium Oxide
SiO₂ – Silicon dioxide
BaO – Barium Oxide.

Question 5
Besides gallium, which other elements have been left by Mendeleev in his periodic table, since the time they were discovered? (Any two)
Solution:
Scandium and Germanium.

Question 6
What were the criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his periodic table?
Solution:
He observed the relationship between the atomic masses of the elements and their physical properties. Among chemical properties, he concentrated on the compounds formed by elements with oxygen and hydrogen.

Question 7
Why do you think, the noble gases are placed in a separate group?
Solution:
Due to its inert and low concentration in our atmosphere, they could be placed in a new group without disturbing the existing order.

Question 8
How could the Modern periodic table remove various anomalies of Mendeleev’s periodic table?
Solution:
When the elements are arranged according to their atomic numbers on the basis of modern periodic law, all the anomalies (defects) of Mendeleev’s classification disappear. For example, Position of isotopes: All the isotopes of an element have the same number of protons, so their atomic number is also the same. Since all the isotopes of an element have the same atomic number, they can be put at one place in the same group of the periodic table.

Question 9
Name two elements, which you would expect to show chemical reactions similar to magnesium. What is the basis for your choice?
Solution:
Calcium and Beryllium are the elements that will show chemical reactions similar to magnesium. This is because beryllium and calcium belong to the same group of periodic table as magnesium. All of them have similar electronic configurations with 2 valence electrons each.

Question 10
Name:
a. Three elements that have a single electron in their outermost shell.<
b. Two elements that have two electrons in their outermost shell.<
c. Three elements with filled outermost shell.
Solution:
a. Three elements that have a single electron in their outermost shell are:
1. Lithium
2. Sodium
3. Potassium
b. Two elements that have two electrons in their outermost shell are:
1. Magnesium
2. Calcium
c. Three elements with filled outermost shell are:
1. Argon
2. Helium
3. Neon.

Question 11
a. Lithium, sodium, potassium are metals that react with water to liberate hydrogen. Is there any similarity in the atoms of these elements?
b. Helium is an unreactive gas and neon is a gas of extremely low reactivity. What, if anything, do their atoms have in common
Solution:
a. These elements are alkali metals and they have 1 valence electron in their outermost shell and are therefore very unstable and reactive.
b. These elements each have full outermost subshell, which results in high stability. They only react with other elements in extreme circumstances, the trait for which they are named.

Question 12
In the Modern periodic table, which are the metals among the first ten elements?
Solution:
The metals are Lithium and Beryllium.

Question 13
By considering their position in the periodic table, which one of the following elements would you expect to have maximum metallic characteristic?
Ga, Ge, As, Se, Be
Solution:
Beryllium

Question 14
Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends when going from left to right across the periods of the periodic table?<
(i)The elements become less metallic in nature
(ii) The number of valence electrons increases
(iii) The atoms lose their electrons more easily
(iv) The oxides become more acidic
Solution:
(iii) The atoms lose their electrons more easily – Incorrect statement.

Question 15
Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl₂, which is a solid with a high melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of the periodic table as
a. Na b. Mg c. Al d. Si
Solution:
b. Mg

Question 16
Which element has?
a.Two shells, both of which are completely filled with electrons?<
b. The electronic configuration of 2,8,2?<
c. A total of three shells, with four electrons in its valence shell?<
d. A total of two shells, with three electrons in its valence shell?<
e. Twice as many electrons in its second shell, as in its first shell?
Solution:
a. Neon (2,8)
b. Magnesium (2,8,2)
c. Silicon (2,8,4)
d. Boron (2,3)
e. Carbon (2,4)

Question 17
What property do all elements in the same column of the periodic table as fluorine have in common?
Solution:
These elements all have 7 electrons in their outermost shells and these often exist as salts, combined with elements from the Alkali metal group.

Question 18
An atom has electronic configuration 2,8,7.
i. What is the atomic number of this element?
ii. To which of the following elements would it be chemically similar<
N (7) F (9) P (15) Ar (18)
Solution:
(i) Chlorine – 17
(ii) F (9)

Question 19
Which type of ion, cation or anion, will be formed by element A?
Solution:
C is less reactive than A
“C” will be smaller in size than “B” as the atomic size decreases as we go across a period.
Anion will be formed by element A

Question 20
Nitrogen (atomic number 7) and phosphorus (atomic number 15) belong to group 15 of the periodic Table. Write the electronic configuration of these two elements. Which of these will be more electronegative? Why?
Solution:
Electronic configuration – Nitrogen – 2s² 2p³ and Phosphorus – 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p³. Nitrogen will be more electronegative; this is because its atom has small size due to which the attraction of its nucleus for the incoming electron is more.

Question 21
How does the electronic configuration of an atom relate to its position in the Modern periodic table?
Solution:
The electronic configuration of an atom increases in the outermost valence shell which relates to its position in the Modern periodic table.

Question 22
In the Modern periodic table, calcium (atomic number 20) is surrounded by elements with atomic numbers 12, 19, 21 and 38. Which of these have physical and chemical properties resembling calcium?
Solution:
The atomic number of calcium is 20, so its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 8, 2. Thus, calcium has 2 valence electrons (in its outermost shell). Now, the element which has 2 valence electrons, will have physical and chemical properties resembling to that of calcium. The electronic configuration of element having atomic number 12 is 2, 8, 2. It has 2 valence electrons just like calcium. So, the element having atomic number 12 will have physical and chemical properties resembling that of calcium.

Question 23
Where do you think should hydrogen be placed in the Modern periodic table?
Solution:
Hydrogen element has been placed at the top of group 1, above the alkali metals because the electronic configuration of hydrogen is similar to those of alkali metals.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) [1 Mark each]

Question 1.
Which of the following is the outermost shell for elements of 2nd period? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) K-shell
(b) L-shell
(c) M-shell
(d) N-shell
Answer:
(b) The elements of 2nd period involve the filling of 2nd shell, i.e. Z-shell. Because in period 2, there are two shell, K and L

Question 2.
An element which is an essential constituent of all organic compounds belongs to [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) group 1
(b) group 14
(c) group 15
(d) group 16
Answer:
(b) Constituent of all organic compounds is carbon. It belongs to group 14.

Question 3.
Which one of the following elements exhibit maximum number of valence electrons? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Na
(b) Al
(c) Si
(d) P
Answer:
(d) Na (group 1) has one, A1 (group 13) has three (13 -10), Si (group 14) has four (14-10) and P (group 15) has five (15 – 10) valence electrons. Therefore, P has maximum number of valence electrons, i.e.3 (maximum among the given elements).

Question 4.
Which of the given elements A, B, C, D and E with atomic number 2, 3, 7, 10 and 30 respectively belong to the same period? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) A, B, C
(b) B, C, D
(c) A, D, E
(d) B, D, E
Answer:
(b) 2nd period contains elements with atomic number 3(Li), 7(N), 10(Ne). Since, 2nd period has elements having atomic number 3 to 10.

Question 5.
The elements A, B, C, D and E have atomic number 9, 11, 17, 12 and 13 respectively. Which pair of elements belong to the same group? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) A and B
(b) B and D
(c) A and C
(d) D and E
Answer:
(c)Electronic configuration of A (atomic number = 9) is 2, 7.
Electronic configuration of B (atomic number = 11) is 2, 8,1.
Electronic configuration of C (atomic number = 17) is 2, 8, 7.
Electronic configuration of D (atomic number =12) is 2, 8, 2.
Electronic configuration of E (atomic number =13) is 2, 8, 3.
Elements which differ in atomic number by 8, i.e. 9 (A, fluorine) and 17 (C, chlorine) lie in the same group, i.e. group 17 (halogen).

Question 6.
In Mendeleev’s periodic table, gaps were left for the elements to be discovered later. Which one of the following elements found a place in the periodic table later? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Germanium
(b) Chlorine
(c) Oxygen
(d) Silicon
Answer:
(a) Mendeleev’s left some gaps in the periodic table for those elements which were not known at that time. Germanium element found a place in the periodic table later and Mendeleev’s predictions were found to be remarkably correct

Question 7.
Which of the following are the characteristics of isotopes of an element? [NCERT Exemplar]
(i) Isotopes of an element have same atomic masses.
(ii) Isotopes of an element have same atomic number.
(iii) Isotopes of an element show same physical properties.
(iv) Isotopes of an element show same chemical properties.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(d) Isotopes of an element have same atomic number and show same chemical properties.

Question 8.
Which of the following elements would lose an electron easily? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Mg
(b) Na
(c) K
(d) Ca
Answer:
(c) Electronic configuration of Mg (atomic number = 12) 2, 8, 2
Electronic configuration of Na (atomic number = 11)2, 8, 1
Electronic configuration of K (atomic number=19) 2, 8, 8, 1
Electronic configuration of Ca (atomic number =20) 2, 8, 8, 2
From the above electronic configurations, it is clear that K and Na will lose electron easily to achieve stable configuration. But out of K and Na, K will lose electron more easily because the force of, attraction on valence electron of K is least among the given elements.

Question 9.
Which among the following elements has the largest atomic radii? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Na
(b) Mg
(c) K
(d) Ca
Answer:
(c) Atomic radius increases on moving down in a group. Na and K are in the same group and K is below Na, so K will have higher atomic radius, i.e. K > Na. In a period on moving left to right, atomic radius decreases. Since, K and Ca are in the same period and K is in 1st group and Ca is in 2nd group, so atomic radius of K will be more than Ca, i.e. K > Ca.
Also Na and Mg are in the same period, but Na belongs to 1st group and Mg belongs to 2nd group, so atomic radius of Na is more than Mg, i.e. Na > Mg. Thus, if we take all these together we get K > Na >Mg and K > Ca > Mg. Hence, we can say that the atomic radius of K is largest.

Question 10.
Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends when going from left to right across the periods of periodic table? [NCERT]
(a) The elements become less metallic in nature
(b) The number of valence electrons increases
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily
(d) The oxides become more acidic
Answer:
(c) On moving from left to right, the atomic number increases and hence, the nude charge increases. With the increase of nudear charge, the force binding the electron increases so the atom lose the electrons with more difficulty, not easily.

Question 11.
Which one of the following depicts the correct representation of atomic radius (r) of an atom? [NCERT Exemplar]

(a) (i) and (i)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) Atomic radius is the distance between nucleus and outermpst shell [consisting electron(s)]. Hence (ii) and (iii) are the correct representations.

Question 12.
Which of the following statement(s) about the modern periodic table are incorrect?
(i) The elements in the modern periodic table are arranged on the basis of their decreasing atomic numbers.
(ii) The elements in the modern periodic table are arranged on the basis of their increasing atomic masses.
(iii) Isotopes are placed in adjoining group(s) in the periodic table.
(iv) The elements in the modern periodic table are arranged on the basis of their increasing atomic number. [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Only (i)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) Only (iv)
Answer:
(b) Only statement (iv) is correct. All the elements in the modern periodic table are arranged on the basis of their increasing atomic number. All the isotopes can be placed at one place in the same group of the periodic table.

Question 13.
The element with atomic number 14 is hard and forms acidic oxide and a covalent halide. To which of the following categories does the element belong? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Metal
(b) Metalloid
(c) Non-metal
(d) Left-hand side element
Answer:
(c) Its outermost shell has 4 electrons. So, it is a non-metal. Non-metal forms acidic oxide and by sharing of electrons with halogen, it forms covalent halide.

Question 14.
Arrange the following elements in the order of their decreasing metallic character Na, Si, Cl, Mg, Al. [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Cl > Si > Al > Mg > Na
(b) Na > Mg > Al > Si > Cl
(c) Na > Al > Mg > Cl > Si
(d) Al > Na > Si > Ca > Mg
Answer:
(b) Metals lie on the extreme left side of the periodic table. Metallic character decreases from left to right in a period. Na, Si, Cl, Mg, Al belong to same period in the order Na, Mg, Al, Si, Cl. On moving in a i period from left to right, the metallic character decreases. Thus, the order of decreasing metallic character is: Na > Mg > Al > Si > Cl

Question 15.
Which of the following set of elements is written in order of their increasing metallic character? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Be, Mg, Ca
(b) Na, Li, K
(c) Mg, Al, Si
(d) C, O, N
Answer:
(a) Metallic character increases as we go down in a group.

Question 16.
Which one of the following does not increase while moving down the group of the periodic table? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Atomic radius
(b) Metallic character
(c) Valence electrons
(d) Number of shells in an element
Answer:
(c) Elements in each group has some number of valence electrons hence have same valency and thus exhibit similar chemical properties.

Question 17.

The elements X, Y and Z are shown in a portion of periodic table. What would be the representations of ionic forms of X and Z respectively?
(a) X^– and Z⁺
(b) X⁺ and Z^–
(c) X^2- and Z²⁺
(d) X²⁺and Z^2-
Answer:
(a) X having 1 electron less than that of Y, which is a noble gas (having complete octet), will tend to gain 1 electron while Z will tend to lose 1 electron to achieve complete octet configuration. Hence, they will have ionic formula as X^– and Z⁺.

Question 18.
which of the following elements will form an acidic oxide? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) An element with atomic number = 7
(b) An element with atomic number = 3
(c) An element with atomic number = 12
(d) An element with atomic number = 19
Answer:
(a) Non-metals form acidic oxides in general. Non-metals have 4 to 8 electrons in the outermost shell. The electronic configuration of given elements are (a) i.e. 7 = 2, 5 (b) i.e. 3 =2, 1 (c) i.e. 12 =2, 8, 2 (d)i.e. 19=2, 8, 8,1.
So, element with atomic number = 7 (electronic configuration = 2, 5) with is non-metal (N) and it will form an acidic oxide. Rest three elements with atomic- numbers, 3 (Li), 12 (Mg) and 19 (K) are metals and hence, form basic oxides.

Question 19.
what type of oxide would Eka-aluminium form? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) EO₃
(b) E₃O₂
(C) E₂O₃
(d) EO
Answer:
(c) Gallium has a valency of 3. Hence, it forms an oxide having molecular formula E₂O₃. In other options, valency of E is not 3.

Question 20.
The diagram given below shows the position of elements in a portion of the periodic table. Ionic compound is formed between ………. and ………

(a) A and B
(b) B and E
(c) C and D
(d) D and E
Answer:
(D) being in group IIA is most electropositive among given elements while E being in group VIIA is most electronegative among the given elements. Hence, both of these will form ionic compound, more readily than the other given elements.

Question 21.
Element X forms a chloride with formula, XCl₂, which is a solid with a high melting point. X would most likely to be in the same group of the periodic table as [NCERT]
(a) Na
(b) Mg
(c) Al
(d) Si
Answer:
(b) The formula of chloride is XCl₂, that means the valency of the element X is 2. The element having valency 2 will be present in group 2. Out of the given choices magnesium (Mg) belongs to group 2.

Question 22.
The adjacent diagram represents the arrangement of the atoms of an element (having valency = 4) forming giant covalent network.

Identify the heavy metal which belongs to same group as the element discussed above.
(a) As
(b) Bi
(c) Pb
(d) Hg
Answer:
(c) The element discussed in diagram is carbon. Carbon (C) and lead (Pb) both belong to group IVA.

Question 23.

Arrange the elements, represented by alphabets p, q, r, s and t in the above shown outline of periodic table, in increasing order of their valency.
(a) t < q < r < s < p
(b) s < t < q < r < p
(c) s < q < t < r < p
(d) q < s < t < p < r
Answer:
(c) p(group IVA), q(group VIIA), r(group IILA) s(group VIII) and t(group IIA) has valency 4, 1, 3, 0 and 2 respectively hence the correct order of increasing valency is: s(0) < q(1) < t(2) < r(3) < p(4)

Question 24.

The diagram given above represents outline of the periodic table. The alphabets p, q, r, s and t represent elements. Which one of the following pairs of alphabets represents elements which consists of same number of shells in their atom?
(a) p and q
(b) r and t
(c) p and s
(d) g and s
Answer:
(d) Elements q and s belong to same period of the periodic table and hence, will have same number of shell.

Class 10 Science Periodic Classification of Elements Mind Map

Dobereiners’s Triads

• Dobereiner found that when elements are arranged into groups of three in the order of their increasing atomic mass, the atomic mass of the element; which comes in the middle, is the arithmetic mean of rest of the two.
• He arranged three elements in one group which is known as Dobereiner’s Triads. For e.g.:
  (Li) 7.0 (Na) 23.0 (K) 39.0 (Ca) 40.0 (Sr) 87.5 (Ba) 137.0
• Here atomic mass of sodium is equal to arithmetic mean of atomic masses of lihtium and potassium. Similarly, atomic mass of strontium is equal to arithmetic mean of atomic masses of calcium and barium

Limitations of Doberiner’s Triads

• He could identify only a few such triads and so the law could not gain importance.
• In the triad of Fe, Co, Ni, all the three elements have a nearly equal atomic mass and thus it does not follow the above law.

Mendeleev’s Periodic Classification

• Mendeleev periodic law, states that ‘the properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic masses’.
• Mendeleev’s periodic table contains vertical columns called ‘groups’ and horizontal rows called ‘periods’.

Characteristics of the Mendeleev’s Periodic Table

• The elements are arranged in vertical rows called groups and horizontal rows called periods.
• There are eight groups indicated by Roman Numerals I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII. The elements belonging to first seven groups have been divided into sub-groups designated as A and B on the basis of similarities. Group VIII consists of nine elements arranged in three triads.
• There are six periods (numbered 1,2,3,4,5 and 6).

Newlands’ Law of Octaves

• According to this law “if elements are arranged by the increasing order of their atomic masses, property of every eighth element repeats.”
• The arrangement of elements in Newlands’ Octave resembles the musical notes.

Limitation of Newlands’ Octaves

• Law of Octaves could be valid up to calcium only; as after calcium, elements do not obey the rules of Octaves.
• It was assumed by Newlands that only 56 elements existed in nature and no more elements would be discovered in the future
• More than one element had to be placed in some of the groups; in order to place the elements having similar properties in one group. But in order to do so, he also put some dissimilar elements in same group.
• Iron; which has similar property as cobalt and nickel, was placed far from them.
• Cobalt and nickel were placed in the group with chlorine and fluorine in spite of having different properties.

Limitation of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table

• Some elements in Mendeleev’s Table have not been arranged in the increasing order of their atomic masses. For example, Co and Ni.
• Hydrogen forms similar compounds as Group 1 elements. However, it also forms similar diatomic molecules as Group 7 elements (H2, F2, C12, Br2, 12). Hence, it could not be assigned a fixed position in the table.
• Isotopes posed a challenge to Mendeleev’s table. For example, Cl has two major isotopes – Cl-35 and Cl-37.

Merits of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table

• Mendeleev left some blank spaces in his periodic table in order to place the elements having similar properties in the same group.
• Mendeleev predicted the discovery of some elements and named them as eka-boron, eka- aluminium and eka-silicon.
• One of the strengths of Mendeleev, s periodic table was that, when inert gases were discovered they could be placed in a new group without disturbing the existing order.

Modern Periodic Table
In 1913, Henry Moseley showed that atomic number of an element is a more fundamental property than its atomic mass. According to this law “’properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic number”.

Trends in Modern Periodic Table

Position of Elements in the Modern Periodic Table
Position of Elements

Elements are placed in groups according to the number of valence electrons and placed in periods according to the number of shells present in them.

Helium has valence electrons equal to 2, but it is placed in group number 18 because it is a noble gas and has completely filled outermost shell.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control And Coordination: In this article, you will find out everything about NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control And Coordination. Candidates can find everything about control and coordination class 10 extra questions with answers in this article.

The answer to each and every question in class 10 science chapter 7 notes is provided along with complete, step-wise solutions for candidates better understanding. This will further help candidates in their home assignments and as well as practice sessions. Read on to find everything about NCERT solutions class 10 biology control and coordination notes.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination

Before getting into the details of NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control And Coordination, let’s have an overview of topics and subtopics under control and coordination class 10 NCERT questions:

1. Control And Coordination
2. Animals – Nervous System
3. Coordination In Plants
4. Hormones In Animals

Class 10 Control and Coordination Mind Map

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Intext Questions

Page Number: 119

Question 1
What is the difference between a reflex action and walking ?
Answer:

Question 2
What happens at the synapse between two neurons ?
Answer:
The small empty space between two nerve cells is called synapse. At synapse, a chemical substance is produced at the end of axon of one nerve cell that reaches to the other nerve cell through the dendrite. Thus, information is transmitted from one nerve cell to other nerve cell by synapse.

Question 3
Which part of the brain maintains posture and equilibrium of the body ?
Answer:
Posture and equilibrium of the body are controlled by cerebellum.

Question 4
How do we detect the smell of an agarbatti (incense stick) ?
Answer:
The smell of agarbatti (incense stick) diffuses in the air. It is detected by olfactory receptors present in the nose. This information is sent to olfactory lobe by sensory nerves located in the forebrain. It responds to the information.

Question 5
What is the role of the brain in reflex action ?
Answer:
There is no role of brain in reflex action. These involuntary actions are controlled by the spinal cord which take place immediately without thinking of how to respond to the stimuli.

Page Number: 122

Question 1
What are plant hormones ?
Answer:
Plant hormones are also called phytohormones. Plant hormones are the chemical substances which help in controlling growth, flowering, height, development of plants and their response to the environment.

Different types of phytohormones are – auxins, gibberllins, cytokinins, abscisic acid and ethylene.

Question 2
How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plant different from the movement of a shoot towards light ?
Answer:

Question 3

Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes growth.
Answer:
Auxin.

Question 4
How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a support ?
Answer:
When the tip of a tendril touches a support, then the auxins present in its tip move to that side of tip which is away from the support. Auxins promote growth. So, due to more auxins in it, the side of tendril away from the support grows faster (and becomes longer) than the side which is in contact with the support and makes the tendril twirl (or bend) around the support.

Question 5
Design an experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism.
Answer:
Take two glass troughs A and B and fill each one of them two-thirds with soil. In trough A plant a tiny seedling. In trough B plant a similar seedling and place a c/ay pot inside the soil. Water the soil in trough A daily and uniformly. Do not water the soil in trough B but put some water in the clay pot. Leave both the troughs for a few days.

Now, dig up the seedlings carefully from both the troughs without damaging their roots. We will find that the root of seedling in trough A is straight. On the other hand, the root of seedling in trough B is found to be bent to the right side i.e., towards the clay pot containing water.
In trough A, the root of the seedling gets water from both sides. But in trough B, the roots get water oozing out from the clay pot which is kept on the right side. Therefore, the root of seedling in trough B grows and bends towards the source of water to the right side. This experiment shows that the root of a plant grows towards water. In other words, the root of a plant is hydrotropism.

Page Number: 125

Question 1
How does chemical coordination take place in animals ?
Answer:
Chemical coordination in animals takes place through the hormones secreted by the endocrine glands. Coordination in animals takes place through hormone system as well as nervous system which is called endocrine system. Endocrine glands secrete animal hormones directly into the blood that reach to the specific cells. Special type of molecules are present on the surface of cells to detect these hormones. These cells act according to the information that a particular hormone carries.

Question 2
Why is the use of iodised salt advisable ?
Answer:
It is advised to use iodised salt because thyroid gland needs iodine to produce thyroxin hormone. Thyroxin hormone controls all the metabolic activities of our body like metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and protein etc. Due to the deficiency of thyroxin a disease called goitre is caused.

Question 3
How does our body respond when adrenaline is secreted into the blood ?
Answer:
The heart beat increases when adrenaline is secreted into the blood so that more oxygen is supplied to our muscles. The blood supply to the digestive system and skin decreases because the small arteries around the muscles of these organs contract. This turns the direction of blood towards our skeletal muscles. The breathing rate also increases due to the contractions of the diaphragm and rib muscles. All these responses enable us to face the situations of fear and anger.

Question 4
Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin ?
Answer:
Insulin hormone regulates blood sugar levels. If this is not secreted in proper amounts, the sugar level in the blood rises. This causes many harmful effects.
To treat harmful effects of increased level of blood sugar, the diabetic patients are treated by giving injections of insulin.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Textbook Chapter End Questions

Question 1
Which of the following is a plant hormone ?
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Cytokinin
Answer:
(d) Cytokinin

Question 2
The gap between two neurons is called a
(a) dendrite
(b) synapse
(c) axon
(d) impulse
Answer:
(b) Synapse

Question 3
The brain is responsible for
(a) thinking
(b) regulating the heart beat
(c) balancing the body
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(b) All of the above

Question 4
What is the function of receptors in our body ? Think of situations where receptors do not work properly. What problems are likely to arise ? [AICBSE 2016]
Answer:
Receptors are specialised cells located in our sense organs like ear, nose, skin, tongue and eyes. The function of receptors is to detect information from the environment. For example, olfactory receptors detect smell. If receptors do not work properly, the information obtained from the environment will be delayed to reach the spinal cord or brain. In this situation, the response to the environmental stimulus will be delayed causing harm to the body. For example, if skin receptors are damaged, and one accidentally touches a hot object, then his/her hands might get burn as the damaged receptor cannot perceive the external stimuli of heat and pain.

Question 5
Draw the structure of a neuron and explain its function. [AICBSE 2017]
Answer:
Nerve cell or neuron is the functional unit of nervous system. A nerve cell has three parts-
(i) cell body
(ii) dendrite
(iii) axon

Function : The function of nerve cells is to carry information in the form of electrical signals which are called nerve impulses. Cells receive stimulus to send it to spinal cord and brain and carry the message from brain to the target organ.

Question 6
How does phototropism occur in plants ?
Answer:
The movement in any part of a plant due to light is called phototropism. The shoot of plant shows positive phototropism and roots show negative phototropism.
Phototropism in plants occurs due to the hormone auxin. When light falls on one side of a plant, the secretion of auxin hormone is more in the part away from the light. Hence, auxin causes growth in length of the cells in shady part. So, the plant appears to bend towards light.

Question 7
Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal cord injury ?
Answer:
(i) All the involuntary actions will get disturbed.
(ii) Reflex actions will be disturbed because reflexes are located in the spinal cord. Therefore, the quick responses required to safe guard the body will not take place.

Question 8
How does chemical coordination occur in plants ?
Answer:
Chemical coordination in plants takes place with the help of plant hormones. In most of the regions where division takes place (meristematic regions) stimuli cells secrete chemical compounds (hormone). These substances identify the information by stimulating the other nearby cells and communicating the information.

Question 9
What is the need for a system of control and coordination in an organism ?
Answer:
An organism needs control and coordination system for the following functions :
(i) To save the body of the organisms from the harmful changes in the environment.
(ii) To control the speed of voluntary and involuntary actions.
(iii) To have the capability to think and learn for responding to any stimuli.

Question 10
How are involuntary actions and reflex actions different from each other ?
Answer:

Question 11
Compare and contrast nervous and hormonal mechanisms for control and coordination in animals.
Answer:

Question 12
What is the difference between the manner in which movement takes place in a sensitive plant and the movement in our legs ?
Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination

Control and co-ordination in animals and plants: Tropic movements in plants; Introduction to plant hormones; Control and co-ordination in animals, nervous system; voluntary, involuntary and reflex action; Chemical co-ordination: animal hormones.

Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

Question 1
What is the function of receptors in our body?
Solution:
Receptors are usually located in our sense organs, such as the inner ear, the nose, the tongue, and so on. So gustatory receptors will detect taste while olfactory receptors will detect smell.

Question 2
Draw the structure of neuron and explain its function.
Solution:

The specialised tips of some nerve cells detect all information from our environment. These receptors are usually located in our sense organs, such as the inner ear, the nose, the tongue, and so on. So gustatory receptors will detect taste while olfactory receptors will detect smell. This information, acquired at the end of the dendritic tip of a nerve cell, sets off a chemical reaction that creates an electrical impulse. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body, and then along the axon to its end. At the end of the axon, the electrical impulse sets off the release of some chemicals. These chemicals cross the gap, or synapse, and start a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of the next neuron. This is a general scheme of how nervous impulses travel in the body. A similar synapse finally allows delivery of such impulses from neurons to other cells, such as muscles cells or gland. It is thus no surprise that nervous tissue is made up of an organized network of nerve cells or neurons, and is specialised for conducting information via electrical impulses from one part of the body to another.

More Resources for CBSE Class 10

• NCERT Solutions
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Hindi
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Sanskrit
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Foundation of IT
• RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions

Question 3
How does phototropism occur in plants?
Solution:

Phototropism is a growth movement induced by a light stimulus. Growth towards a source of light is called positive phototropism, that away from the source is termed negative phototropism. The tips of shoots are usually positively, that of roots negatively phototropic.
Charles Darwin and his son Francis discovered (in 1880) that the phototropic stimulus is detected at the tip of the plant.
The Darwins used grass seedlings for some of their experiments. When grass seeds germinate, the primary leaf pierces the seed coverings and the soil while protected by the coleoptile, a hollow, cylindrical sheath that surrounds it. Once the seedling has grown above the surface, the coleoptile stops growing and the primary leaf pierces it.
The Darwins found that the tip of the coleoptile was necessary for phototropism but that the bending takes place in the region below the tip.
If they placed an opaque cover over the tip, phototropism failed to occur even though the rest of the coleoptile was illuminated from one side.
However, when they buried the plant in fine black sand so that only its tip was exposed, there was no interference with the tropism – the buried coleoptile bent in the direction of the light.
From these experiments, it seemed clear that

• The stimulus (light) was detected at one location (the tip)
• The response (bending) was carried out at another (the region of elongation).
• This implied that the tip was, in some way, communicating with the cells of the region of elongation.

Download NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 7 Control and Coordination PDF

Question 4
How does chemical coordination occur in plants?
Solution:
It has been found that the growth of plants is regulated by certain chemical substances which are synthesized by the plants in very small amounts. These are known as plant hormones or phytohormones.

They are the organic substances which either promote or inhibit growth. A phytohormones can be defined as a chemical substances which are produced naturally in plants and are capable of translocation and regulating one or more physiological processes when present in low concentration. Main categories of plant hormones are:

1. Auxins
2. Gibberellins
3. Cytokinins
4. Ethylene
5. Abscisic acid

Auxins and Gibbrerellins stimulate cell elongations, cytokinins stimulate cell division ethylene promotes transverse or isodiametric growth and abscisic acid is a growth inhibitor.

Question 5
What is the need for a system of control and coordination in an organism?
Solution:
Co-ordination in this sense refers to the regulation or control of body activity.
Plants need very little in the way of a control system. Since growth and reproduction are about the only things that are regulated, a rapid control system is not required and hormonal control is all they possess.

Animals are continually moving through new environments that may pose all types of changes and threatening situations to the organism. This requires the rapid and precise control of a nervous system. Hormones regulate slower activities, such as growth, development and reproduction.

Question 6
How are involuntary actions and reflex actions different from each other?
Solution:
All reflex actions are involuntary in nature but all involutary actions are not reflexes as the beating of heart is an involuntary action but is not reflex action.

Reflex actions are very quick but all involutary actions may not be very fast as in heart beating.
A reflex action may involve any muscle or a gland as we withdraw our hand on touching a hot object but all involuntary actions involve only smooth i.e., involuntary or cardiac muscles.

Reflex actions are at the level of spinal cord whereas the involuntary actions generally involve brain too.
Nerves and autonomious nervous system can increase or decrease the rate of involuntary actions but reflex actions can be controlled by great will only and are not usually controllable.

Reflex actions are done to meet emergencies where as an inv.action may or may not be for just meeting an emergency but may be a critical lie process as circulation of blood, swallowing of food, movement of food in food pipe, etc.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) [1 Mark each]

Question 1.
What is the correct direction of flow of electrical impulses ? [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer:
(c) Direction of flow of electrical impulse.
Impulse → Dendrite → Cell body → Axon → Release of chemicals that cross synapse → Dendrite of next neuron.

Question 2.
Three directions in which nerve impulses can travel in the nervous system are listed below:
(i) Away from the central nervous system
(ii) Towards the central nervous system
(iii) Within the central nervous system
In which direction do impulses in sensory and relay (intermediate) neurons travel?

Answer:
(d) Sensory neuron transmits impulses towards CNS, (i.e. brain and spinal cord) while, the relay neurons occur within the CNS and serve as links between other neurons.

Question 3.
In a nerve pathway, the following events take place in a coordinated order.
(i) Activation of muscle
(ii) Activation of receptor
(iii) Passage of impulses along a motor neuron
(iv) Passage of impulses along a sensory neuron
Read the events given and identify the correct order of these events from the table given below:

Answer:
(b) The sequence of events in a typical nerve pathway is receptor → passage of impulse along sensory neuron → passage of impulse along motor neuron →  activation of muscle (effector). Thus, the correct sequence is (ii), (iv), (iii) and (i).

Question 4.
The diagram shows a section of the brain and different parts labelled as W,X, Y and Z.

Study the figure and correlate the regions which control balance, heart rate and temperature in human body?

Answer:
(b) Out of the options given, the region X, (i.e. cerebellum) controls balance, region Y (i.e. medulla oblongata) controls heartbeat and region Z, (i.e. hypothalamus) controls temperature in human body.

Question 5.
Which of the following endocrine glands is unpaired? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Adrenal
(b) Testes
(b) Pituitary
(d) Ovary
Answer:
(c) There are two adrenal glands, one on top of each kidney that make adrenaline hormone. Testes are paired glands present in males and secrete male sex hormone. Pituitary gland is present just below the brain and is unpaired. It is also called master gland as it secretes a number of hormones. Ovaries are paired glands present in females and secrete female sex hormones.

Question 6.
Dramatic changes of body features associated with puberty are mainly because of secretion of [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) oestrogen from testes and testosterone from ovary
(b) oestrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from pituitary gland
(c) testosterone from testes and oestrogen from ovary
(d) testosterone from thyroid gland and oestrogen from pituitary gland
Answer:
(c)

Class 10 Science Control and Coordination Mind Map

Coordination is the process through which two or more organs interact and complement the functions of one another. The neural system & endocrine system jointly coordinate & regulate the physiological functions in the body. The neural system provides an organised network of point-to-point connections for a quick

Structure and Function of Neuron

• It is a structural & functional unit of neural system and is composed of three maj or parts:
• Ceil body contains cytoplasm with typical cell organelles like nucleus etc.
• Dendrites: Short fibres which branch repeatedly & project out of the cell body. These fibres transmit impulses towards the cell body.
• Axon is a long fibre, the distal end of which is branched and forms nerve ending. Nerve endings possess synaptic vesicles containing chemicals called neurotransmitters.

Transmission of impulses:

• Stimulus or information from the environment is detected by specialized tips of some nerve cells called as receptors.
• Dendritic tip acquire all these information and sets off a chemical reaction.
• This chemical reaction then creates an electric impulse that travels from the dendrite to the cell body, and then along the axon to its end.
• At the end of the axon, the electrical impulse sets off the release of some chemicals (neurotransmitters). These chemicals cross the gap, or synapse, and start a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of the next neuron.
• A similar synapse finally allows delivery of such impulses from neurons to other cells, such as muscles cells or gland.

Reflex Action

• The entire process of response to a peripheral nervous stimulation that occurs involuntarily (without conscious effort or thought) and requires the involvement of a part of central nervous system is called a reflex action.
• Reflex action decreases the duration of action by bypassing the thinking and processing step.
• It does so by linking the nerves carrying the signal (say the sensation of heat) directly to the nerves that move the muscle. These types of linkage or connection between input and output nerves are formed in the spinal cord.
• These connections are called as reflex arc (sensory/input nerve-* Spinal cord -> motor/ output nerve)

Animal Nervous System
The neural system of all animals is composed of highly specialized cells called neurons which can detect, receive & transmit different kinds of stimuli. They are specialized for conducting information via electrical impulses from one part of the body to another.

The human neural system is divided into two parts:

• Central neural system (CNS) includes the brain & spinal cord and is the site of information processing & control.
• Peripheral neural system (PNS) comprises of all nerves of body associated with CNS (brain and spinal cord). The nerve fibres of PNS are of two types: cranial nerves (arising from the brain) and spinal nerves (arising from the spinal cord).

Brain

• It is the main coordinating centre of the body. The bra in and spinal cord constitute the CNS. They receive information from al 1 parts of the body and integrate it.
• The brain is located in bony box called as cranium or skull which protects the brain. Spinal cord is protected with the help of vertebral column. In addition, cerebrospinal fluid also covers the brain and the spinal cord which provide the function of shock absorption.
• The brain has three such major parts or regions, namely the fore-brain, mid-brain and hind-brain.
• Fore-brain: It is the main thinking part of the brain. It consists of cerebrum, hypothalamus etc.
  • Function: interpret information received from sensory receptors.
  • Control the movement of voluntary muscles.
  • It also contains centre associated with hunger which gives us the sensation of feeling full.
• Midbrain: It serves important function in few involuntary movements, movements of the eye, auditory and visual processing.
• Hindbrain: It consists of pons, medulla, and cerebellum.
  • Function: Medulla controls involuntary actions such as blood pressure, salivation and vomiting.
  • Cerebellum is responsible for precision of voluntary actions and maintaining the posture and balance of the body.

Coordination In Plants
Plants have neither nervous system nor muscles. Their movements or responses are either growth dependent or growth independent.

Hormones In Animals
Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals which act as intercellular messengers & are produced in trace amounts. The timing and amount of hormone released are regulated by feedback mechanisms Examples:
• Adrenaline: Secreted from adrenal gland which prepare the body for fight or flight situation.
• Thyroxin: Secreted from thyroid gland and regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism so as to provide the best balance for growth.
Deficiency of iodine in diet may cause hypo-secretion of thyroxin which results in goiter.
• Growth hormones which regulate growth and . development of the body are secreted from
pituitary gland.
Hyper-secretion may cause gigantism and hypo-secretion may cause dwarfism.
• Testosterone in males and oestrogen in females lead to changes take place during puberty’.
• Insulin produced by pancreas regulates the blood sugar level in the body.

Immediate Response To Stimulus Or Growth Independent
The plants also use electrical-chemical means to convey information from cell to cell, but unlike in animals, there is no specialised tissue in plants for the conduction of information.

Secondly, plant cells change shape by changing the amount of water in them, resulting in swelling or shrinking. In contrast, animal muscle cells have special proteins that change both their shape and their arrangement in the cell in response to nervous electrical impulses.

Example: folding up and drooping of leaves of chhui-mui (the ‘sensitive’ or ‘touch-me-not’ plant of the Mimosa family) in response to touch.

Movement Due To Growth
The movement of a plant in response to the stimulus is called as tropism. The movement in the direction of the response is called as positive tropism and movement away from the stimulus is termed as negative tropism.

Types:
• Phototropism: Bending of plant in response to the light e.g. movement of sunflowers in response to day or night.
• Geotropism: Movement of plant in response to gravity. Shoots show negative geotropism and roots show positive geotropism.
• Chemotropism: Movement of plant in response to chemical as observed in case of growth of pollen tube.
• Hydrotropism: e.g. roots beneath the Earth’s surface bend in the direction of underground w^ater.
Other example may include the climbing of tendrils in response to touch. When they come in contact with any support, the part of the tendril in contact with the object does not grow as rapidly as the part of the tendril away from the object. This causes the tendril to circle around the object and thus cling to it.

Plant Hormones
There are five main types of plant hormones or growth regulators:
• Auxins: Helps in cell elongation and thus phototropism, geotropism, and other plant responses.
• Gibberellins: Stimulate growth of the stem and flowering.
• Cytokinins: They cause cell division, enlargement, and organ formation. They are present in greater concentration in areas of rapid cell division, such as in fruits and seeds.
• Ethylene: Promotes ripening of fruits.
• Abscisic acid: Inhibits growth and causes wilting of leaves and fruits.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How Do Organisms Reproduce?: In this article we will provide you detailed information regarding NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How Do Organisms Reproduce?. Working on how do organisms reproduce class 10 NCERT Solutions will help candidates to score good marks in the subject Science. Further working on NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science will help candidates to crack the Medicine competitive exams.

With the help of how do organisms reproduce class 10 important questions with answers students will score good marks in board exams as well. Read on to find out everything about NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How Do Organisms Reproduce?.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How Do Organisms Reproduce?

Before getting into the details of how do organisms reproduce class 10 extra questions and answers, let’s have an overview of topics and subtopics under NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How Do Organisms Reproduce?:

1. How Do Organisms Reproduce?
2. Do Organisms Create Exact Copies Of Themselves?
3. Modes Of Reproduction Used By Single Organisms
4. Sexual Reproduction

Class 10 How do Organisms Reproduce Mind Map

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 Intext Questions

Page Number: 128

Question 1
What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction ?
Answer:
DNA copying has following importance in reproduction:

• It maintains the characteristics of species.
• It maintains the continuity of life.
• From this, the characteristics and features of organisms are transformed to their progeny.
• It produces variations in organisms which is the basis of evolution of new species.

Question 2
Why is variation beneficial to the species but not necessarily for the individual ?
Answer:
The various populations of organisms interact with many types of ecological niches. This is important for them to survive in given conditions. In case of any damage caused to the ecological conditions of the population, the population gets adversely affected. The organisms which are able to survive, may reproduce to develop population which is adapted or suited to the varied conditions. Hence variation is beneficial to species, but not to the individuals.

Page Number: 133

Question 1
How is the process of pollination different from fertilisation ?
Answer:

Question 2
How will an organism be benefited if it reproduces through spores ?
Answer:
An organism is benefited by reproducing through the spores because spores are surrounded by a thick layer which protects them in adverse conditions. When the favourable conditions occur, these spores start to grow again. In this way they are successfully live in unfavourable conditions.

Question 3
Can you think of reasons why more complex organisms cannot give rise to new individuals through regeneration ?
Answer:
In complex multicellular organisms, specialised cells make up tissues, tissue make up organs, organs make up organ systems and finally organ systems make up organisms. Since complex multicellular organisms have a very high degree of organisation in their body, they cannot be reproduced from their cut body parts by the process of regeneration.

For example, a dog is a complex multicellular organism which cannot be regenerated from its cut body part say, a cut tail. This is because the cells present in the cut tail of a dog cannot produce dog’s organs like heart brain, lungs, stomach, intestines and limbs, etc, needed for the making of a complete dog.

Question 4
Why is vegetative propagation practised for growing some types of plants ?
Answer:
Vegetative propagation is practiced for growing such plants which usually do not produce seeds or produce non-viable seeds.

Question 5
Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction ?
Answer:
DNA copying is essential part of the process of reproduction so that the characteristics of the parent organisms are transmitted to its offspring and at the same time some occasional variations are also produced in the offspring. The changes in the copy of DNA provide an organism the capability to survive in changing conditions.

Page Number: 140

Question 1
How is the process of pollination different from fertilisation ?
Answer:

Question 2
What is the role of the seminal vesicles and the prostate gland ?
Answer:
(i) Both seminal vesicle and prostate gland secretes fluids which forms a part of the semen. The fluid secreted from seminal vesicle forms 60% of semen while the fluid secreted from the prostate gland forms 30% of the semen. It makes the path smooth through which the sperms travel.
(ii) This fluid protects the sperms from the acids present in the urethra.
(iii) This fluid provides nutrition to sperms in the form of fructose, calcium and some enzymes.

Question 3
What are the changes seen in girls at the time of puberty ?
Answer:
The various changes occur in girls at puberty are :

1. Hair grow under armpits and pubic region.
2. Mammary glands (or breasts) develop and enlarge.
3. The hips broaden.
4. Extra fat is deposited in various parts of the body like hips and thighs.
5. Fallopian tube, uterus and vagina enlarge.
6. Ovaries start to release eggs.
7. Menstruation (monthly periods) starts.
8. Feelings and sexual drives associated with adulthood begin to develop.

Question 4
How does the embryo get nourishment inside the mother’s body ?
Answer:
In mother’s body, the embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood. For this, there is a special structure, called placenta. Placenta contains villi. There are empty spaces in mother’s tissues that cover the villi. It provides a large surface area for the transfer of glucose, oxygen and other substances from the mother to the embryo.

Question 5
A woman is using a copper-T. Will it help in protecting her from sexually transmitted diseases ?
Answer:
Copper-T is a contraceptive method which prevents implantation of the zygote inside the uterus. It cannot prevent a women from sexually transmitted diseases. These diseases are transmitted by contact which cannot be prevented by copper-T.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 Textbook Chapter End Questions

Question 1
Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in
(a) amoeba
(b) yeast
(c) plasmodium
(d) leishmania
Answer:
(b) Yeast

Question 2
Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in human beings ?
(a) Ovary
(b) Uterus
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Fallopian tube
Answer:
(c) Vas deferens

Question 3
The anther contains
(a) sepals
(b) ovules
(c) carpel
(d) pollen grains
Answer:
(d) Pollen grains

Question 4
What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction ?
Answer:
(i) In asexual reproduction, the offspring are almost identical to their parent because they have the same genes as their parent. So, much genetic variation is not possible in asexual reproduction. This is a disadvantage because it inhibits the further evolution of the organism.
(ii) In sexual reproduction the offspring, although similar to their parents, are not identical to them or to one another. This is because the offspring receive some genes from the mother and some from the father. Because of the mixing of genes of mother and father in various different combinations, all of the offspring have genetic variations. In this way, sexual reproduction leads to a greater variety in population. This means that a species (animal or plant) can adapt quickly to changes in its surroundings. This is because there are always likely to be some individuals which are more suited to the changes than others, and these individuals will survive and reproduce themselves.

Question 5
What are the functions performed by the testis in human beings ?
Answer:
The functions of testes in humans are following :
(i) After the stage of adolescent, testes produce male gametes in the human males which are called sperms.
(ii) A hormone called testosterone is produced in testes. Testosterone controls the development of reproductive organs and secondary sexual characters.

Question 6
Why does menstruation occur ?
Answer:
If the ovum (or egg) does not get fertilised (due to non-availability of sperm in the female body) then the thick and soft inner lining of uterus is no longer needed and hence it breaks. So, the thick and soft inner lining of uterus alongwith the blood vessels and the dead ovum (or egg) comes out of the vagina in the form of blood called menstruation. Menstruation occurs after the interval of every 28 days and the time period between ovulation and menstruation is about 14 days.

Question 7
Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower.
Answer:

Question 8
What are the different methods of contraception ?
Answer:
The different methods of contraception are as follow :
(i) Barrier method : In this method, condom, diaphragm and cervical caps are used. These prevent the entry of sperms in the female genital tract during sexual intercourse.
(ii) Chemical method : In this method a woman uses two kinds of pills (oral and vaginal pills). The oral pills are hormonal preparations which suppress the release of ovum in fallopian tube. These are called oral contraceptives. The vaginal pills/ creams are spermicidal. The chemicals in these spermicidals kill the sperms during their journey in the vaginal tract.
(iii) Intrauterine contraceptive devices : Intrauterine contraceptive devices such as copper-T are placed safely in the uterus by a skilled doctor. It prevents the sperms to reach the uterus.
(iv) Surgical method : In this method, a small part of vas deferens of male and fallopian tube of female is cut or tied by surgery. It is called vasectomy in males and tubectomy in females.

Question 9
How are the modes for reproduction different in unicellular and multicellular organisms ?
Answer:

Question 10
How does reproduction help in providing stability to populations of species ?
Answer:
The introduction of variations during reproduction provides stability to the populations of various species by preventing them from getting wiped out during adverse conditions. Reproduction also helps to generate copies of individuals which are suited to a particular environment.

Question 11
What could be the reasons for adopting contraceptive methods ?
Answer:
The reasons for adopting contraceptive devices are as follow:

1. To control the birth rate and prevent the increase in population.
2. To reduce the adverse effects on mother’s body due to frequent pregnancy.
3. To provide safety from sexually transmitted diseases.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How Do Organisms Reproduce?

Reproduction: Reproduction in animals and plants (asexual) and (sexual) reproductive health – need and methods of family planning. Safe sex vs HIV/ AIDS. Child bearing and women’s health.

Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

Page 128
Question 1.
What is the importance of DNA copying in reproduction?
Answer:
DNA copying in reproduction is important for maintenance of body designs and features. Moreover, DNA copying leads to variations. Variation is useful for the survival of species.

Question 2.
Why is variation beneficial to the species but not necessarily for the individual?
Answer:
Population of organisms reside in well-defined places or niches in the ecosystem. However, niches can change because of reasons beyond the control of the organisms, e.g., temperature changes, water level changes, etc. If population of reproducing organisms suited to particular niche and if the niche is drastically altered, the population can be wiped out. However, if some variations are present in a few inAividuals in these populations, there will be chances for their survival. The surviving individual can further reproduce and develop a population according to the changed niche, Thus, variation is beneficial to the species but not necessarily for the individual.

More Resources for CBSE Class 10

• NCERT Solutions
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Hindi
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Sanskrit
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Foundation of IT
• RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions

Page 133:

Question 1.
How does binary fission differ from multiple fission ?
Answer:
When two new daughter cells are formed as a result of fission. It is called binary fission, e.g., Amoeba.When many daughter cells are formed as a result of fission, this is called multiple fission, e.g., Malarial parasite.

Question 2.
How will an organism be benefited if it reproduces through spores?
Answer:
Spore formation is an asexual mode of reproduction. Spores formed are covered by
thick walls that protect them from adverse conditions. During favourable condition thick resistant wall breaks down and new organism grows from it.
Spores are very light weight and they easily get dispersed through winds which give them more variations and thus better chances of survival.

Download NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How Do Organisms Reproduce PDF

Question 3.
Can you think of reasons why more complex organisms cannot give rise to new individuals through regeneration?
Answer:
Complex organisms are not simply a random collection of cells where sPecialized cells are organised as tissues, and tissues ale organised into organs which then have to be placed at definite positions in the body. In such a carefully organised situation, it is not easy to develoP organism through regeneration

Question 4.
Why is vegetative propagation practised for growing some type of plants?
Answer:
Vegetative propagation makes possible for the propagation of plants such as banana, orange, rose and jasmine that have lo6t the capacity to Produce seeds. Moreover, all plants produced through vegetative propagation are genetically similar to the parent plant.

Question 5.
Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction?
Answer:
The process of reproduction results in the production of off springs which resemble to their parents. This means during the reproduction there must be a transfer of the blueprint of the body design from parent to the off springs. As we know DNA contains all the information that passes from parents to the next generation, so before reproduction, DNA is copied in the parent cell. Out of these two copies, one copy is passed to the newly formed individual.

Page 140

Question 1.
How is the process Of pollination different from fertilization ?
Answer:
Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma Of a flower whereas fertilization is the fusion Of male gamete with female gamete (egg).

Question 2.
What is the role of the seminal vesicles and the prostate gland ?
Answer:
Seminal vesicles and the prostate gland add their secretions so that the sperms are in a fluid (semen) which makes their transport easier and this fluid also provides nutrition.

Question 3.
What are the changes seen in girls at the time Of puberty ?
Answer:
Changes seen in girls at the time of puberty are :
1. Breast size begins to increase.
2. Girls begin to menstruate.
3.Growth Of pubic hair.
4.Skin becomes oily.

Question 4.
How does the embryo get nourishment inside the Mother’s body?
Answer:
embryo gets nutrition from mother’s blood with the help Of a special tissue called placenta. Through placenta, glucose and oxygen pass from mother to the embryo. Moreover, waste substance of embryo are removed through placenta into the
mother’s blood.

Question 5.
If a woman is using a copper-T will it help in protecting her from sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:
No, copper-Twill not protect her from Only Barrier methods protect from sexually transmitted diseases.

Page 141

Question 1.
Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in :
(a) Amoeba
(b) Yeast
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Leishmania.
Answer:
(b) Yeast.

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a pan Of the female reproductive system in human beings ?
(a) Ovary
(b) Uterus
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Fallopian tube
Answer:
(c) Vas deferens.

Question 3.
The anther contains :
(a) Sepals
(b) Ovules
(c) Carpel
(d) Pollen grains.
Answer:
(d) Pollen grains

Question 4.
What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction leads to new combination Of genes as it involves two parents and meiosis. This produces variation in offspring. Variations are the basis for evolution.

Question 5.
What are the functions performed by the testes in human beings?
Answer:
Functions Of testes are .
(i) Testes produce sperms.
(ii) Testosterone (male sex hormone) is also produced by testes.

Question 6.
Why does menstruation occur?
Answer:
If the egg is not fertilized and uterus does not get zygote, the developed lining slowly breaks and menstruation occur.

Question 7.
What are the different methods of contraception?
Answer:
There are three main methods of contraception :

1. Barrier methods,
2. Chemical methods, and
3. Surgical methods.

1. Barrier methods: In barrier methods, physical devices such as condom, diaphragm and cervical caps are used. They prevent the entry Of sperms in the female genital tract during copulation.
2. Chemical methods: The chemical methods make use of specific drugs by females. There are two types of such drugs, Oral pills and vaginal pills. Oral pills are mainly hormonal preparation, and are called oral contraceptives (OCS).
3. Surgical methods: In the surgical methods, a small portion of vas deferens in male, and the fallopian tube in female, in surgically removed or ligated (tied). It is called vasectomy in males and tubectomy in females.

Apart from these three methods the intrauterine contraceptive devices are used to prevent pregnancies. The use of Intra Uterine Contraceptive Devices (IUCDs) is also very effective and popular. A copper-T is placed safely inside the uterus by a practising doctor or a skilled nurse. IUCDs prevent implantation in the uterus.

Question 8.
How are the modes for reproduction different in unicellular and multicellular organisms ?
Answer:
Unicellular organisms reproduce asexually whereas multicellular organisms reproduce manly by n 1 reproduction.

Question 9.
How does reproduction help in providing stability to populations Of species?
Answer:
The rate Of birth and death in a given population determine its stability. The rate of birth should be approximately equal to the rate of death. So, by checking birth rate, which is increasing at an alarming rate, stability to population of species can be provided

Question 10.
What could be the reasons for adopting contraceptive methods?
Answer:
Frequent pregnancies have an adverse effect on the health of a woman. Frequent and unwanted pregnancies can be avoided by adopting contraceptive methods. Also, these methods check population growth by controlling child birth rate.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) [1 Mark each]

Question 1.
Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in [NCERT]
(a) Amoeba
(b) Yeast
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Leishmania
Answer:
(b) Asexual reproduction in Hydra and yeast takes place by budding.

Question 2.
The ability of a cell to divide into several cells during reproduction in Plasmodium is called [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) budding
(b) reduction division
(c) binary fission
(d) multiple fission
Answer:
(d) Multiple fission Organisms divide into many daughter cells simultaneously, e.g. Plasmodium.

Question 3.
The anther contains [NCERT]
(a) sepals
(b) ovules
(c) carpels
(d) pollen grains
Answer:
(d) Anther is the male reproductive part in plants. It contains pollen grains, having male germ cells.

Question 4.
Characters that are transmitted from parents to offspring during reproduction show [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) only similarities with parents
(b) only variations with parents
(c) both similarities and variations with parents
(d) neither similarities nor variations
Answer:
(c) In sexual reproduction, the offsprings are not exactly identical to the parents or to one another. This is because the offsprings receive some genes from mother and some from father. Because of mixing of genes on re-establishment of the exact number of chromosomes as in the parents, the offsprings show both similarities and variations with their parents.

Question 5.
Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Syphilis
b) Hepatitis
(c) HIV-AIDS
(d) Gonorrhoea
Answer:
(b) The diseases, which are spread by sexual contact with an infected person are called Sexually Transmitted Diseases or STDs, e.g. gonorrhoea, syphilis and AIDS. Hepatitis is a water borne viral disease which affects liver.

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in human beings? [NCERT]
(a) Ovary
(b) Uterus
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Fallopian tube
Answer:
(c) Vas deferens is a part of male reproductive system in humans.

Question 7.
A feature of reproduction that is common to Amoeba, Spirogyra and yeast is that [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) they reproduce asexualiy
(b) they are all unicellular
(c) they reproduce only sexually
(d) they are all multicellular
Answer:
(a) Amoeba and yeast are unicellular while Spirogyra is multicellular. But, all the three reproduce asexualiy.

Question 8.
Which among the following statements are true for unisexual flowers? [NCERT Exemplar]
I. They possess both stamen and pistil.
II. They possess either stamen or pistil.
III. They exhibit cross-pollination.
IV. Unisexual flowers possessing only stamens cannot produce fruits.
(a) I and IV
(b) II, III and IV
(c) III and IV
(d) I, III and IV
Answer:
(b) The flowers which are unisexual (papaya, watermelon) contain either stamens or carpels. Since, only one reproductive organ is present in them, they depend on cross-pollination to form zygote after fertilisation. Both stamens and carpels are required for fertilisation, so only one of them cannot produce fruits.

Question 9.
Length of pollen tube depends on the distance between [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) pollen grain and upper surface of stigma.
(b) pollen grain on upper surface of stigma and ovule.
(c) pollen grain in anther and upper surface of stigma.
(d) upper surface of stigma and lower part of style.
Answer:
(b) Length of pollen tube depends on the distance between pollen grain on upper surface of stigma and ovule. A pollen grain falls on the stigma of the carpel, bursts open and develops a pollen tube downwards through the style towards the ovule in the ovary.

Question 10.
Which among the following statements arer true for sexual reproduction in flowering plants? [NCERT Exemplar]
I. It requires two types of gametes.
II. Fertilisation is a compulsory event.
III. It always results in formation of zygote.
IV. Offsprings formed are clones.
(a) I and IV
(b) I and II
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, II and IV
Answer:
(c) Sexual reproduction creates variation in organisms, so, clones cannot be produced through it. Clones are identical copy of parent organism. Sexual reproduction needs two type of gametes, i.e. male and female to form zygote after fertilisation.

Question 11.
Factors responsible for the rapid spread of bread mould on slices of bread are [NCERT Exemplar]
I. large number of spores.
II. availability of moisture and nutrients in bread.
III. presence of tubular branched hyphae.
IV formation of round-shaped sporangia
(a) I and III
(b) II and IV
(c) I and II
(d) III and IV
Answer:
(c) Under favourable Conditions (like damp and warm conditions, availability of nutrients), the fungal spores present in the air, lands on food, germinate and produce new plaints.

Question 12.
During adolescence various changes occur in the body of humans. Mark one change associated with sexual maturation in males. [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Loss of milk teeth
(b) Increase in body height
(c) Cracking of voice
(d) Weight gain
Answer:
(c) Hypertrophy of larynx results in low pitched. cracking voice in human males during adolescence.

Question 13.
Observe the diagram given along side.

What happens after the above stage?
(a) The ovary splits open
(b) Ovary develops into a fruit and ovules into seeds
(c) The pvules are dispersed
(d) Germination of seeds takes place
Answer:
(b) Ovary develops into a fruit and ovulesdnto seeds as in the above given diagram fertilisation has already taken place.

Question 14.
What in your opinion could be the best reason to explain why menstruation is not taking place in a healthy woman?
(a) Early release of ovum
(b) Psychological reason
(c) Fertilisation of ovum
(d) Build up of female sex hormones in the blood stream
Answer:
(c) If a woman is not having her menstruation on time the probable reason from the given option is that fertilisation of ovum has taken place. Because, during gestation period of pregnancy, menstruation does not take place.

Question 15.
The correct sequence of reproductive stages seen in flowering plants is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) gametes, zygote, embryo, seedling
(b) zygote, gametes, embryo, seedling
(c) seedling, embryo, zygote, gametes
(d) gametes, embryo, zygote, seedling
Answer:
(a) Correct sequence of reproductive stages in flowering plants is → formation of gametes → fusion of gametes to form zygote → zygote develops into embryo in the ovary → ovule develops a tough coat and converts into a seed.

Question 16.
Offsprings formed by asexual method of reproduction have greater similarity among themselves because [NCERT Exemplar]
I. asexual reproduction involves only one parent.
II. asexual reproduction does not involve gametes.
III. asexual reproduction occurs before sexual reproduction.
IV. asexual reproduction occurs after sexual reproduction.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and IV
(d) III and IV
Answer:
(a) Offsprings have greater similarity as only one parent is involved in asexual reproduction thus, no gametes are formed.

Question 17.
Two flowers are identified by a botanist with the following features that flower A is having only stamen and flower B is having both stamen and pistil. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Flower A will bear seeds and flower B cannot bear seeds after fertilisation.
(b) Flower A will produce pollen grains and flower B cannot produce pollen grains.
(c) Flower A cannot be fertilised and flower B can show fertilisation.
(d) Neither flower A and nor flower B can show self-pollination.
Answer:
Option (c) is correct. Since, flower A bears only stamen, i.e. male reproductive part so, it cannot get fertilised. And flower B bears both male and female reproductive parts, therefore it can get fertilised by pollination and can change into fruit.

Class 10 Science How Do Organisms Reproduce Mind Map

• Reproduction is a biological process in which an organism gives rise to young ones similar to themselves.
• Basic event in reproduction is the creation of a DN A copy.
• Cells use chemical reactions to build two copies of the DNA in a reproducing cell.
• In addition, DNA copying is accompanied by the creation of an additional cellular apparatus.
• Then each DNA copy is separated with its own cellular apparatus.
• Effectively, a cell divides to give rise to two cells.

Fission

• Organisms divide mitotically into two halves, each behaves like independent individual. It is termed as binary fission and is mostly shown by bacteria and protozoa.
• Binary fission can take place in any plane as observed in Amoeba, or it can occur in a definite orientation for e.g. Leishmania (causes kala-azar), Euglena (longitudinal), Paramecium (transverse) etc.
• In few organisms parent cell divides into many daughter cells simultaneously which is termed as multiple fission. It is observed in Plasmodium.

Budding

• Formation of daughter organism takes place from a small projection called as bud. For e.g. Hydra, Yeast etc
• Organisms such as Hydra use regenerative cells for reproduction in the process of budding.
• Repeated cell division at one specific site leads to the formation of an outgrowth called as bud.
• These buds develop into tiny individuals and detach form parent body once they become fully mature.
• Detached organism acts as an independent organism.

Vegetative Propagation

• It refers to the formation of new plants from parts of parent plants such as root, stem, leave etc. These parts are termed as vegetative units or vegetative propagules. For e.g. buds produced in the notches along the leaf margin of Bryophyllum fall on the soil and develop into new plants
• Advantages of vegetative propagation:
  • Vegetative propagation is used in methods such as layering, cutting, grafting to grow many plants like sugarcane, roses, or grapes for agricultural purposes.
  • Plants raised by vegetative propagation can bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced from seeds.
  • It makes it possible to propagate plants that have lost the capacity to produce seeds such as banana, orange, rose and jasmine.
  • Plants produced are genetically similar enough to the parent plant to have all its characteristics.

Asexual Reproduction
When offspring is produced by single parent with or without the involvement of gamete formation.

Fragmentation

• Parent organism breaks into smaller fragments upon maturation, each fragment grows into a new individual.
• It is shown by multi-cellular organisms with simple body organization for e.g. Spirogyra

Regeneration

• It is an ability of simple organisms to re-grow their lost body parts.
• In asexual reproduction, this ability is used by many organisms to give rise to new individual from their body parts. That is, if the individual is somehow’ cut or broken up into many pieces, many of these pieces grow into separate individuals.
• For e.g. Hydra and Planaria
• It is carried out by specialized cells which proliferate & differentiate to make various cell types & tissues.
• These changes take place in an organized sequence referred to as development.
• However, regeneration is not the same as reproduction, since most organisms would not normally depend on being cut up to be able to reproduce.

Spore Formation

• An individual divides into no. of small spores, each spore giving rise to new individual.
• Spores are covered by thick walls that protect them until they come into contact with moist surface or suitable environment and can begin to grow. E.g. Spore formation in Rhizopus

Menstruation
Menstrual cycle is a cyclic event that places roughly every month in females after puberty. Unfertilized egg lives for 1 day after which it degenerates. Consequently, uterus lining slowly breaks & comes out through the vagina as blood & mucus. This discharge is known as menstruation which lasts for about 2-8 days.

Sexual Reproduction
It involves the formation and fusion of the gametes. It leads to formation of variations in individuals. Variations form the basis of evolution of the species and ensure the survival of the species.
Reproduction in Human Beings
Puberty: The period during which adolescents reach sexual maturity and become capable of reproduction.

• Changes in girls during puberty: breast size begins to increase, darkening of skin of nipples, & girls begin to menstruate.
• Changes in boy during puberty: hair growth on face, voices begin to crack & occasional erection & enlargement of penis
• Changes common to both boys & girls: hair growth in various parts such as armpits, genital area, thin hairs on arms & legs and skin may become oily.

Female Reproductive System

• It consists of a pair of ovaries, pair of oviduct (fallopian tube), uterus, cervix, & vagina.
• One egg is produced every month by one of the ovaries after reaching the age of puberty. The egg is carried from the ovary to the womb through a thin oviduct or fallopian tube.
• Uterus serves as womb and is richly supplied with blood vessels to nurture the developing embryo.
• Vagina serves as the site of entry of sperm during sexual intercourse.

Events of Reproduction

• The sperms after entering the vaginal passage travel upwards and reach the oviduct where they may fertilize the egg.
• Post-fertilization, the zygote gets implanted in the lining of the uterus, and starts dividing.
• Special tissue called placenta is developed to provide nutrition to the developing embryo as well as for removing waste from it.
• The development of a child takes up approx, nine months.
• The child is born as a result of rhythmic contractions of the muscles in the uterus.

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
• Stamens and carpels are the reproductive parts of a flower which contain the germ-cells. Stamen is the male reproductive part and it produces pollen grains. Carpel is the female reproductive part made up of three parts: ovary, style and stigma.
• The ovary contains ovules and each ovule has an egg cell.
• The flower may be unisexual i.e. contains either stamens or carpels e.g. papaya, watermelon or bisexual i.e. contains both stamens and carpels e.g. Hibiscus, mustard.
• Transfer of pollen grains (shed from the anther) to the stigma of a pistil is termed pollination. Two types: self-pollination and cross pollination. Pollinating agents are air, water, insects, & animals.
• Compatible pollen grain germinates on stigma to produce pollen tube. Pollen tube grows through tissues of stigma, style & reaches ovary.
• Fertilization results in the formation of zygote which develops into an embryo.
• The ovule develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed. The ovary grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit.
• The petals, sepals, stamens, style and stigma may shrivel and fall off.
• The seed develops into a seedling under appropriate conditions which is known as germination.

Male Reproductive System

• It consists of a pair of testes located outside the body in a pouch called scrotum. It helps in maintaining lower temperature which favors the perm formation. Testes are responsible for synthesizing sperms and testosterone.
• Sperms are tiny bodies consists of mainly genetic material and a tail that helps them to move towards the female germ-cell.
• Sperms are then delivered through vas deferens which unites with urethra to form a common passage for sperm and urine.
• Accessory glands like seminal vesicles, prostate, and bulbourethral add their secretion to sperm. It makes the sperm fluid in nature that not only eases the transportation of sperm but also provide the nutrition to it.

Reproductive Health

• Sexually transmitted diseases include bacterial infections (gonorrhea, syphilis etc) & viral infections (warts, AIDS etc).
• Contraception refers to the act of preventing the unwanted pregnancies. Contraceptive methods may fall in following categories:
  • Mechanical barrier: e.g. condom, diaphragms. They also prevent STDs.
  • Oral contraceptives: they change hormonal balance, inhibits ovulation & thus fertilization e.g. saheli, iPill, etc.
  • Intra uterine device: plastic or metal devices placed in the uterus for e.g. loop, copper-T etc.
  • Surgical methods such as vasectomy & tubectomey.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution: In this article, we will provide you detailed NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution. These heredity and evolution class 10 exercise answers were prepared by the best faculty in India to score good marks in the subject Science.

Also working on NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 9 will give you a strong foundation on the competitive exams like JEE, NEET, UPSC, etc., Read on to find out everything about NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution

Before getting into the details of NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution, let’s have an overview of the list of topics and subtopics under class 10 biology heredity and evolution NCERT solutions:

1. Heredity And Evolution
2. Accumulation Of Variation During Reproduction
3. Heredity
   1. Inherited Traits
   2. Rules for the Inheritance of Traits – Mendel’s Contributions
   3. How do these traits get Expressed
   4. Sex Determination
4. Evolution
   1. An Illustration
   2. Acquired and Inherited Traits
5. Speciation
6. Evolution And Classification
   1. Tracing Evolutionary Relationships
   2. Fossils
   3. Evolution by Stages
7. Evolution Should Not Be Equated With ‘Progress’
   1. Human Evolution

Class 10 Heredity and Evolution Mind Map

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Intext Questions

Page Number: 143

Question 1.
If a trait A exists in 10% of a population of an asexually reproducing species and a trait B exists in 60% of the same population, which trait is likely to have arisen earlier ?
Answer:
Trait B, because it is present in more members of the population. It is likely to have arisen earlier and has now spread to 60% of the population. Trait A is new and has spread to only 10% of the population.

Question 2.
How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival ?
Answer:
The variations provide stability to the population of various species by preventing them from getting wiped out during adverse conditions.
The natural environment also changes, and variations in species which become suited to the environment help it to survive.

Page Number: 147

Question 1.
How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits may be dominant or recessive ? [AICBSE 2015]
Answer:
Mendel took pea plants with contrasting characteristics tall plant and dwarf (or short) plant. On cross pollination, he got all tall plants in first generation (F₁). But by the self¬pollination of F₁ tall plants, the plants of second generation consisted of tall and short pants in the ratio of 3 : 1. On the basis of these experiments, the characteristics appeared in first generation were called dominant (i.e. tall plants) and the characteristics that did not appear were called recessive (dwarf i.e. plants).

Question 2.
How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits are inherited independently ? [AICBSE 2015]
Answer:
Mendel took two pairs of alternate expression of two traits and carried out dihybrid crosses by crossing them. The traits appeared in first generation were termed as dominant. When he used these F₁ progeny to generate F₂ progeny by self-pollination plants of different types were produced. In some plants both the traits were dominant, while in some plants both were recessive and some plants exhibited mixed traits. This indicates that traits are inherited independently.

Question 3.
A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood group O and their daughter has blood group O. Is this information enough to tell you which of the traits – blood group A or O – is dominant ? Why or why not ?
Answer:
This information is not enough. This is because each individual is carrying two alleles. The recessive trait can occur only when who alleles are similar. It blood group A is dominant and O is recessive, then daughter can have blood group O only when both recessive alleles occur together in mother, and father has one allele of O and other of A.

Question 4.
How is the sex of the child determined in human beings ?
OR
“The sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered responsible for it.” Justify this statement with the help of a flow chart showing determination of sex of a newborn. [CBSE (Delhi) 2013]
Answer:
Half of the male gametes (sperms) carry X chromosome and other half carry Y chromosomes. All the female gametes carry only X chromosomes. When a sperm fertilizes an egg, the following situations become possible.

1. (i) When a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilises an egg that contains only X chromosome), the resulting zygote develops into a female (XX condition).
2. (ii) When a sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilises an egg (that contains only X chromosome), the resulting zygote develops into a male (XY condition).

Thus there are 50 – 50 chances of a male or female child and none of the parents may Sex determination in humans be considered responsible for it.
The sex-determination mechanism is shown alongside.

Page Number: 150

Question 1.
What are the different ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in a population ?
Answer:
Different ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in a population are as follow :

1. If it gives the benefit of survival through natural selection.
2. Due to a sudden increase in a particular trait in a population, i.e., by genetic drift.

Question 2.
Why are traits acquired during the life-time of an individual not inherited ?
Answer:
The traits acquired during the life-time are changes in the non-reproductive cells of the organisms and are not capable of being passed on to the next generation.

Question 3.
Why are the small numbers of surviving tigers a cause of worry from the point of view of genetics ?
Answer:
The small numbers of surviving tigers are a cause of worry from the point of view of genetics because in tigers there are negligible genetic variations. Due to this they are not well adapted. The rapid environmental changes cannot be favouable for them. If these changes are not controlled, tigers would be wiped out.

Page Number: 151

Question 1.
What factors would lead to the rise of a new species ?
Answer:
The factors that would lead to the rise of a new species are the following :

1. Geographical isolation of a population caused by various types of barriers (such as mountain ranges, rivers and sea). The geographical isolation leads to reproductive isolation due to which there is no flow of genes between separated groups of pupulation.
2. Genetic drift caused by drastic changes in the frequencies of particular genes by chance alone.
3. Variations caused in individuals due to a natural selection.

Question 2.
Will geographical isolation be a major factor in the speciation of a self- pollinating plant species ? Why or why not ?
Answer:
The geographical isolation cannot be major factor in the speciation of a self-pollinating plant species because it does not have to look the plants for its process of reproduction to be carried out.

Question 3.
Will geographical isolation be a major factor in the speciation of an organism that reproduces asexually ? Why or why not ?
Answer:
Geographical isolation cannot be a major factor in the speciation of an asexually reproducing organism because it does not require any other organism to carry out reproduction.

Page Number: 156

Question 1.
Give an example of characteristics being used to determine how close two species are in evolutionary terms.
Answer:
If similar characteristics are shown in different organisms, then these are considered to be inherited from the common ancestry. It also shows the closeness of the species.
For example, bats and birds have some similarity in their wings, so they are closely related, while lizard and squirrel do not have wings so these are not closely related to the birds and bats.

Question 2.
Can the wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bat be considered homologous organs ? Why or why not ?
Answer:
The wings of a butterfly and the wings of a bat cannot be considered to be homologous organs because they have different basic designs though they are used for the same purpose of flying. They are analogous organs.

Question 3.
What are fossils ? What do they tell us about the process of evolution ?
Answer:
Fossils : Fossils are the remains or traces of a dead organism. These are formed through the formation of sedimentary rocks. They provide following information on the process of evolution.

1. They tell about the changes that occured on the earth’s surface and the corresponding organisms.
2. They tell about the gradual development of complex structured organisms from simple structured organisms.
3. It is known through them that birds are evolved from reptiles.
4. They state that angiosperms are developed from pteriodophytes and gymnosperms.
5. They exhibit the process of humana evolution.

Page Number: 158

Question 1.
Why are human beings who look so different from each other in terms of size, colour and looks said to belong to the same species ?
Answer:
This is because although genetic make up of humans may be slightly different in different races of people, there is no reproductive isolation. Reproductive isolation differentiates one species from the other. Human beings different in size, colour and looks can marry among themselves and produce fertile offspring.

Question 2.
In evolutionary terms, can we say which among bacteria, spiders, fish and chimpanzees have a ‘better’ body design ? Why or why not ?
Answer:
Bacteria is a primitive organism as they came into being very early in evolution. But these organisms are still surviving in the present conditions after millions of years. This is because they have adapted well to the changing environment over these years. Same is the case for all other organisms like spiders, fishes and chimpanzees which have adapted to their environment and have survived. Therefore, all the organisms which exist have a body design which is better as it is suited to their environment.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Textbook Chapter End Questions

Question 1.
A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding tall pea plants bearing violet flowers with short pea plants bearing white flowers. The progeny all bore violet flowers, but almost half of them were short.
This suggests that the genetic make-up of the tall parent can be depicted as:
(a) TTWW
(b) TTww
(c) TtWW
(d) TtWw
Answer:
(c) TtWW

Question 2.
An example of homologous organs is :
(a) our arm and a dog’s fore-leg
(b) our teeth and an elephant’s tusks
(c) potato and runners of grass
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 3.
In evolutionary terms, we have more in common with :
(a) a Chinese school-boy
(b) a chimpanzee
(c) a spider
(d) a bacterium
Answer:
(a) A Chinese school-boy

Question 4.
A study found that children with light coloured eyes are likely to have parents with light coloured eyes. On this basis, can we say anything about whether the light eye colour trait is dominant or recessive ? Why or why not ?
Answer:
This information is not complete. On the basis of this, it cannot be decided light colour trait is dominant or recessive. So it cannot be said until one does not know the nature of this trait in the parents.

Question 5.
How are the areas of study-evolution and classification interlinked ?
OR
‘Two areas of study namely ‘evolution’ and ‘classification’ are interlinked”. Justify this statement. [AICBSE 2016]
Answer:
Classification of organisms is based on relative similarities and differences among organisms. Resemblances in organisms are because they have arisen from a common ancestor and differences in them are due to adaptations to different types of environment. Since the organisms can be graded in order of increasing complexity it indicates at the concept of evolution.

Question 6.
Explain the terms analogous and homologous organs with examples. [CBSE 2011,2013, 2014]
Answer:
Analogous organs : Those organs which have different basic structure (or different basic design) but have similar appearance and perform similar functions are called analogous organs.
For example, The wings of an insect and a bird are analogous organs.

Homologous organs :  Those organs which have the same basic structure (or same basic design) but different functions are called homologous organs.
For example, The wing of a bat, flipper of a seal, front leg of a horse and arm of a man are homologous organs.

Question 7.
Outline a project which aims to find the dominant coat colour in dogs.
Answer:
Suppose a black homozygous male is mated with a white homozygous female. If the progeny has all black dogs then the dominant coat colour is black.

Question 8.
Explain the importance of fossils in deciding evolutionary relationships.
Answer:
Fossils play important role in providing evolutionary evidences because by knowning the age of fossils we can know about the evolution process of an organism.
For example, a fossil bird called archaeopteryx that looked like a bird had many other features of reptiles. It had feathered wings like those of birds, but teeth and tail like those of reptiles. Archaeopteryx is, therefore, a connecting link between the reptiles and birds, and hence suggests that the birds have evolved from the reptiles.

Question 9.
What evidence do we have for the origin of life from inanimate matter ? [CBSE 2011, 2014]
Answer:
A British scientist J.B.S. Haldane at first in 1929 suggested that life is originated from inanimate matter. According to him life must have developed from the simple inorganic molecules which were present at that time. Later, Miller and Urey in 1953 presented its evidences. They assembled an apparatus to create an early earth atmosphere which was supposed to consist of gases like methane, ammonia and hydrogen sulphide, etc. over water. This was maintained at a temperature just below 100°C and electric sparks were then passed through the mixture of gases to stimulate lightning for about one week. At the end of one week, it was found that about 15 per cent of carbon (from methane) had been converted into simple compounds and amino acids which make up protein molecules formed in living organisms. This experiment provides the evidence that the life originated from inanimate matter (or lifeless matter) like inorganic molecules.

Question 10.
Explain how sexual reproduction gives rise to more viable variations than asexual reproduction. How does this affect the evolution of those organisms that reproduce sexually ? [CBSE 2011,2014]
Answer:
During sexual reproduction there is ‘crossing over’ of chromosomes, that gives rise to variations. These variations are inherited and increase the chances of survival of an organism.

1. In sexual reproduction variations may occur due to errors in DNA copying.
2. There may be variations due to interchange of homologous chromosomes during crossing over of male and female.
3. In sexual reproduction, it is not predetermined that which gamete would fuse with another gamete. It depends only on chance. It is also a reason of variation.
   These variations enable the organisms to adapt themselves to the changing conditions and also help to give rise to new species.

Question 11.
How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the progeny ? [CBSE 2011, 2013]
Answer:
Genetic material in most organisms is present in pairs of chromosomes. Gametes in the sexually reproducing organisms are formed by the process of meiosis during which half of the genetic material goes into each gamete. When the gametes from male and female parents fuse with each other during sexual reproduction, the normal complement is restored. Half of the genetic material comes from the female and half from the male.

Question 12.
Only variations that confer an advantage to an individual organism will survive in a population. Do you agree with this statement ? Why or why not?
Answer:
Yes, variations that confer an advantage to an individual organism are inherited. The organism can survive longer in an environment and maintain its existence in the population.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution

Heredity and Evolution: Heredity; Mendel’s contribution- Laws for inheritance of traits, Sex determination : brief introduction; Basic concepts of evolution.

Formulae Handbook for Class 10 Maths and Science

Page 143

Question 1.
If a trait A exists in 10% of a population of an asexually reproducing species and a trait B exists in 60% Of the same population, which trait is likely to have arisen earlier ?
Answer: As species are asexually reproducing, there would be only very minor differences generated due to small inaccuracies in DNA copying, so trait B, which exists in 60% of the same population may get inherited earlier while trait A, which exists in 10% of the population may be originated late due to variations. Thus, trait B have arisen earlier since it is present in 60% of the same population.

Question 2.
How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival ?
Answer: Natural selection selects the individuals having useful variations which ensure their survival in the prevailing conditions of environment. Variant individuals that can withstand or cope with prevailing environment will survive better and will increase in number through differential reproduction.

More Resources for CBSE Class 10

• NCERT Solutions
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Hindi
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Sanskrit
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Foundation of IT
• RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions

Page 147

Question 1.
How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits may be dominant or recessive ?
Answer:
Mendel took pea plants with contrasting characteristics – tall plant and dwarf (short) plant. On cross pollination, he got all tall plants in F1 generation. Then by self pollination of F1 tall plants, he produced second generation (F2) consisting of tall and short plants in the ratio of 3 : 1. Then he concluded that, ‘T’ (tall) trait is dominant while ‘t’ trait for shortness is recessive.

Download NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution PDF

Question 2.
How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits are inherited independently ?
Answer:
In a dihybrid cross made by Mendel, it was observed that when two pairs of traits or characters were considered; each trait expressed independent of the other. Thus, Mendel was able to propose the Law of Independent Assortment which says about independent inheritance of traits.

Question 3.
A man with blood group A marries a woman with blood O and their daughter has blood group O. Is this information enough to tell you which of the traits – blood group A or O is dominant ? Why or why not ?

Answer:
No. This information is not sufficient to determine which of the traits − blood group A or O − is dominant. This is because we do not know about the blood group of all the progeny.Blood group A can be genotypically AA or AO. Hence, the information is incomplete to draw any such conclusion.

Question 4.
How is the sex of the child determined in human beings?

Answer:
The females carry two X-chromosomes. Females produce one type of gametes (eggs) with same type of chromosomes (22 + X). Males have one X and one Y- chromosome. Among the male gametes, half of the sperms carry X-chromosome (22 X) and half
carry Y-chromosome (22 + Y). Thus, female is homogametic and male is heterogametic. When a sperm carrying X- chromosome fertilises an egg, the zygote develops into female (XX condition). When sperm carrying Y-chromosome fertilises an egg, the zygote develops into a male (XY condition). Thus, sex is determined at the time of fertilisation.

Page 150

Question 1.
What are the different ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in a population ?
Answer:
Different ways are : variation, natural selection and genetic drift (isolation).

Question 2.
Why are traits acquired during the lifetime of an individual not inherited ?
Answer:
Because acquired characters bring changes only in non-reproductive tissues and cannot change the genes of the germ cells. Thus, acquired traits cannot be passed to next generation.

Question 3.
Why are the small numbers of surviving tigers a cause of worry from the point of view of genetics ?
Answer:
(i) If any natural calamity occurs and kills these small number of surviving tigers, they can become extinct resulting in the loss of some genes forever.
(ii) Small number will lead to little recombination and, therefore, lesser variations. These both are very important for giving better survival chances to the species.
(iii) Less number of species means lesser extent of diversity and lesser number Of traits which reduces the chances of adaptability with respect to the change in the environment.

Page 151

Question 1.
What factors could lead to the rise of a new species ?
Answer:
Genetic variations, natural selection and reproductive isolation could lead to the rise of a new species.

Question 2.
Will geographical isolation be a major factor in the speciation of a self-pollinating plant species ? Why or why not ?
Answer:
No, because pollination occurs on the same plant in self-pollinating plant species.

Question 3.
Will geographical isolation be a major factor in the speciation of an organism that reproduces asexually ? Why or why not ?
Answer:
No, because asexual reproduction involves single parent or organism.

Page 156

Question 1.
Give an example of characteristics being used to determine how close two species am in evolutionary terms ?
Answer:
Homologous organs, analogous organs and vestigial organs help to identify evolutionary relationships amongst the species.

Question 2.
Can the wing of butterfly and the wing of a bat be considered homologous organs ? Why or why not ?
Answer:
No, wing of a bat and wing of a bird cannot be considered as homologous organs because they have different basic structure.

Question 3.
What are fossils ? What do they tell us about the process of evolution ?
Answer:
Fossils are the impression or remains of ancient life found preserved in the sedimentary rocks. Fossils are direct evidences of evolution. Fossils also help to identify evolutionary relationship between apparently different species. They also tell about the extent of evolution that has taken place.

Page 158
Question 1.
Why are human beings who look so different from each other in terms of size, colour and looks said to belong to the same species ?
Answer:
They look different because of interaction of genes with environment which results in change in their appearance. But they belong to the same species as they have same number of chromosomes and can breed among themselves.

Question 2.
In evolutionary terms, can we say which among bacteria, spiders, fish and chimpanzees have a ‘better body design’ why or why not ?
Answer:
No, because different designs are the product of evolution and different species have different body design to suit or adapt to their environment.

Page 159

Question 1.
A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding tall pea plants bearing violet flowers with short pea plants bearing whfte flowers. The progeny all bore violet flowers, but almost half of them are short. This suggests that the genetic make-up of the tall parent can be depicted as
(a) TTWW
(b) TTww
(c) TtWW
(d) TtWw
Answer:
(c) Genetic make-up of tall plant can be depicted by TtWW.

Question 2.
An example of homologous organs is
(a) our arm and a dogs fore-leg.
(b) our teeth and an elephants tusks.
(c) potato and runners of grass.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) Both organs in all options have same basic structural design but have different functions and appearance.

Question 3.
In evolutionary terms, we have more in common with
(a) a Chinese school-boy.
(b) a chimpanzee.
(c) a spider.
(d) a bacterium.
Answer:
(a) A Chinese school-bpy is also a human being.

Question 4.
A study found that children with light-coloured eyes are likely to have parents with light-coloured eyes. On this basis, can we say anything about whether the light eye colour trait is dominant or recessive? Why or why not?
Answer:
We can say that light eye colour trait is dominant because only dominant traits are expressed in the first generation.

Question 5.
How are the areas of study – evolution and classification— inteilinked?
Answer:
Evolution and classification are interlinked with each other in many ways. Classification is the most important term to explain evolution. It is based on the similarities and differences between two species or among two organisms. More closer the characteristics, the moe doser is the evolution and chances to be in the same group of classification. Thus, the classification of species is a reflection of their evolutionary relationship.

Question 6.
Explain the terms analogous and homologous organs with examples.
Answer:
Analogous organs are those organs which have different basic structural designs and developmental origins but have similar appearance and perform similar functions.
Examples:
Wings of an insect and wings of a bat.
Homologous organs are those organs which have the same basic structural design and developmenta’ origin but have different functions and appearance.
Examples: Forelimbs of frog and forelimbs of human.

Question 7.
Outline a project which alms to find the dominant coat colour in dogs.
Answer:
A homozygous black (RB) male dog and a homozygous white (bb) female dog is taken and given to mate and produce offspring in F1 generation. If black colour is dominant out of every 4 dogs, 3 will be black and if white colour is dominant 3 out of 4 dogs will be white.

Question 8.
Explain the importance of fossils in deciding evolutionary relationships.
Answer:
Fossils and their study is useful to know about the species which are no longer alive. They provide evidence and missing links between two classes. They are helpful in forming a sequence of organisms in the pathway of evolution. Thus, fossils have importance in deciding evolutionary relationships.

Question 9.
What evidence do we have for the origin of life from inanimate matter?
Answer:
Stanley L. Miller and Harold C. Urey provided evidence regarding origin of life from inanimate matter. They assembled an atmosphere similar to that existed on early earth. The atmosphere had molecules like ammonia, methane, hydrogen sulphide and water, but no oxygen. The mixture was maintained at a temperature just below 100◦C and sparks were passed through the mixture of gases. At the end of a week, 15% carbon from methane had been converted to simple compounds of carbon like aminoacids which make up protein molecules. So, life arose afresh on earth.

Question 10.
Explain how sexual reproduction gives rise to more viable variations that asexual reproduction. How does this affect the evolution of those organisms that reproduce sexually ?
Answer:
Variations occurring during sexual reproduction may be due to:

1. Separation of homologous chromosomes (by chance only) during gamete formation.
2. Crossing over (recombination) of homologous chromosomes.
3. Fertilisation of gametes to form zygote.
4. Errors during DNA copying or mutations.

In asexually reproducing organisms only errors during DNA copying or mutations cause variations.
Since the extent of variations is much larger in sexually reproducing organisms, therefore, the chances of evolution is also much in sexually reproducing These variations enable the organisms to adapt themselves to the changing conditions and also help to face the struggle for Over the time, they and rise to new species.

Question 11.
How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the progeny?
Answer:
Genetically organisms are of types

(i) Haploid : They have single set of chromosomes, where each chromosome is represented singly. As the chromosomes are the bearer of genes so haploids have single set of genes. A single gene determines the expression of character.
(ii) Diploid : ‘They have two sets Of homologous chromosomes, where the chromosome occur in pair, one maternal contributed by the mother through her ovum and the second Of the pair is contributed by the male parent through his sperm. The resultant cell zygote produces by the fusion of male and female gametes have two sets of chromosomes –  each set contributed’ by each parent. In diploids a character is controlled by two genes/factors. Both the father and mother contribute practically equal amount of genetic material to the child. It means that each trait can be influenced by both paternal and maternal DNA.

Question 12.
Only variations that confer an advantage to an individual organism will survive in a population. Do you agree with this statement ? Why or why not ?
Answer:
No, many of the times the variations are not advantageous to an individual organism but still survive in a population, e.g., take the case of free ear lobe and attached ear lobe. Most of the other variations not only give survival advantage to an individual but also contribute to genetic drift. Thus, we can say that most of the variations lead to better adaptation of an organism to the changing environment. In this way, it gives survival advantage to that organism and will also survive in the coming population.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) [1 Mark each]

Question 1.
An example of homologous organs is [NCERT]
(a) our arm and a dog’s foreleg
(b) our teeth and an elephant’s tusks
(c) potato and runners of grass
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Our arm and a dog’s foreleg is the example of homologous organs.

Question 2.
The science, which deals with study of heredity and variations is called
(a) phylogeny
(b) embryology
(c) genetics
(d) palaeontology
Answer:
(c) The genetics is the study of heredity and variations and includes their occurrence, causes, benefits, disadvantages, significance, etc.

Question 3.
Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between
(a) reptiles and aquatic animals
(b) birds and insects
(c) reptiles and birds
(d) birds and dinosaurs
Answer:
(c) Archaeopteryx is a connecting link- between the reptiles and birds. It appears like a bird, but has other features which are present in reptiles, e.g. it has wings like bird, but teeth and tail like the reptilians.

Question 4.
For palaeontological studies a scientist will gather the evidences from
(a) study of homology
(b) study of analogy
(c) fossils
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) Study of homologous and analogous organs indicates the origin and modification in organisms and study of fossils indicates the age and features of an organism.

Question 5.
In evolutionary terms, we have more in common with [NCERT]
(a) a Chinese school boy
(b) a chimpanzee
(c) a spider
(d) a bacterium
Answer:
(a) Chinese school boy because both of us belong to the same species, i.e. Homo sapiens.

Question 6.
Aditya was observing some organisms in lab and tried to compare them. The presence of which organs will confirm to him that they share evolutionary history?
(a) Analogous organs
(b) Paralogous organs
(c) Homologous organs
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Homologous organs are present in organisms who share evolutionary history. However, these organs perform different functions in different organisms.

Question 7.
New species may be formed if
I. DNA undergoes significant changes in germ cells. .
II. chromosome number changes in the gamete.
III. there is no change in the genetic material.
IV. mating does not take place.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and III
Answer:
(a) New species may be formed if the DNA changes are severe enough, such as a change in the number of chromosome. This leads to new variations.

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is not true with respect to variation?
(a) All variations in a species have equal chance of survival.
(b) Change in genetic composition results in variation.
(c) Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis of evolutionary processes.
(d) Variation is minimum in asexual reproduction.
Answer:
(a) All variations in a species do not have equal chances of survival. Some of the variations may be so drastic that the new DNA copy cannot work with the cellular apparatus it inherits. Such, a newborn cell dies soon.

Question 9.
Select the statement that describes characteristics of genes. .
(a) Genes are specific sequence of bases in a DNA molecule.
(b) A gene does not code for proteins.
(c) In individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome.
(d) Each chromosome has only one gene.
Answer:
(b) Genes are stretches of DNA found on chromosomes of a cell. A gene contains information for making proteins in a cell. A specific gene is located on a particular chromosome in individuals of a given species.

Question 10.
If a round, green seeded pea plant (RRyy) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded pea plant (rrYY), the seeds produced in F1 – generation will be [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) round and yellow
(b) round and green
(c) wrinkled and green
(d) wrinkled and yellow
Answer:
(a) The cross between RRyy and rrYY seeds will produce RrYy (round and yellow) seeds in F1-generation, because round and yellow are the dominant traits.

Question 11.
From the list given below, select the character, which can be acquired but not inherited. [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) colour of eye
(b) colour of skin
(c) size of body
(d) nature of hair
Answer:
(c) Acquired traits develop in response to the environment. The size of the body is an acquired trait because it can vary based on the availability of less or more food. The other three colour of eye and skin and nature of hair are characters inherited from the parents.

Question 12.
According to the evolutionary theory, formation of a new species is generally due to [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) sudden creation by nature.
(b) accumulation of variations over several generations.
(c) clones formed during asexual reproduction.
(d) movement of individuals from one habitat to another
Answer:
(b) Accumulation of variations over several generations forms new species. Genetic drift accumulates different changes in sub-populations of a species. Also, natural selection may also operate differendy in the different geographic locations. Eventually, different groups of new species will be formed.

Question 13.
Select the incorrect statement. [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Frequency of certain genes in a population changes over several generations resulting in evolution.
(b) Reduction in weight of the organism due to starvation is genetically controlled.
(c) Low weight parents can have heavy weight progeny.
(d) Traits which are not inherited over generations do not cause evolution.
Answer:
(b) The weight reduction due to starvation will not change the DNA of the germ cells, because low weight is not a trait that is genetically controlled or inherited. Also, low weight parents may have heavy weight progeny.

Question 14.
In human males all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. This/these unpaired chromosome is/are
I. large chromosome
II. small chromosome
III. Y-chromosome IV X-chromosome
(a) I and II
(b) Only III
(c) III and IV
(d) II and IV
Answer:
(c) In human males, one pair called the sex chromosomes are unpaired. Here, one is a normal-sized X-chromosome while other is a short Y-chromosome. Women have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes, both called X.

Question 15.
Rajneesh was studying the fossils of two different types, fossil A was found in upper layer of Earth and B in deeper layers. What can be predicted regarding the age of these fossils?
(a) A has recently become extinct
(b) B has become extinct recently
(c) The time of extinction cannot be determined
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Since, fossil A was found in upper layer of earth, it suggests that the organism has become extinct recently. Fossil B found in deeper layer must have become extinct long time ago and deposition of other layers occurred over it during this period.

Question 16.
A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding tall pea plants bearing violet flowers with short pea plants bearing white flowers. The progeny all bore violet flowers, but almost half of them were short. This suggests that the genetic makeup of the tall parents can be depicted as [NCERT]
(a) TTWW
(b) TTww
(c) TtWW
(d) TtWw
Answer:
(c) Parent with genotype TtWW produce two types of gametes TW and tW, while the other with genotype ttww produce only one type of gamete W.

Class 10 Science Heredity and Evolution Mind Map

Accumulation Of Variation During Reproduction

• Characters or features or traits are inherited from one generation to the next during reproduction.
• This inheritance provides both a common basic body design & subtle changes in it for next generation.
• When this generation reproduces, the offspring would have differences they inherit from previous generation as well as newly created differences.
• Accumulation of these differences generation after generation leads to the development of variations in a population.
• Different variations provide different advantages to the population and the variation which provide best survival advantages are inherited to the next generation.
• For e.g. bacteria having variation to tolerate heat will survive and multiply better in heat wave.

Experiment 2: He crossed the plant with two different characteristics such as tall plant with round seed and short plant with wrinkled seed. Other example may include round & green seeds (RRyy) and wrinkled & yellow seeds (rrYY).
Observation: F₁ generation; all were tall & round i.e. tall & round are dominant.
F₂ generation; tall plants with round seeds, tall with wrinkled seeds, short with round seeds, and short plants with wrinkled seeds in 9:3:3:1.
Similarly, round & yellow, round & green, wrinkled & yellow, and wrinkled & green in 9:3:3:1.
Inference: The tall/short trait and the round seed/wrinkled seed trait are independently inherited.
Conclusion: It formulated the law of independent assortment which states that genes of different characters located in different pairs of chromosomes are independent of one another in their segregation during gamete formation.

Sex Determination
Different species use different strategies for this:

• Environment: for e.g. the temperature at which fertilised eggs are kept determines the sex of developing animals in the eggs. It is observed in animals like crocodile, turtle etc.
• Snails can change sex. indicating that sex is not genetically determined.
• Sex of an individual is genetically determined for e.g. humans.
  • Humans have 22 autosomal & 1 sex chromosome pairs. Females have XX & males have XY. Hence, sex of a child is determined by what he/she has inherited (X or Y) from the father since, child will always inherit X from the mother. If X is inherited from father then child will be a girl & if Y is inherited then a child will be a boy.

Heredity
Heredity refers to the transmission of characteristics from parent to offspring by means of genes in the chromosomes.
Mendel’s Contributions

• Mendel was the first scientist whose studies lead to the formulation of laws of inheritance.
• He conducted cross hybridization experiments of garden pea plant (Pisum sativum) and studied the transmission of characters that had two contrasting traits such as round/wrinkled seeds, tall/short plants, white/’violet flowers etc.

Experiment 1: He cross pollinate pure breeds of tall (TT) & dwarf (tt) pea plant and calculated the percentages of tall & dwarf progeny.
Observation: F₁ generation was tall (Tt) with no halfway characteristics.
F₂ generation produced by self pollination of F₁ included tall and short plants in 3:1. (Genotypic ratio 1:2:1 for TT:Tt:tt)
Inference: This indicates that both the tallness & shortness traits were inherited in the F, plants, but only the tallness trait was expressed.
Thus, two copies of the trait are inherited in each sexually reproducing organism. These two may be identical (TT or tt) or may be different (Tt), depending on the parentage.
Conclusion: This study leaded to the formulation of two laws:
Law of dominance: states that only one character expresses itself in F, generation.
Law of segregation: states that the two alleles of a character in an individual get separated or segregated during gamete formation and distributed randomly in gametes.

Evolution

• It refers to gradual change in the characteristics of the population (plants & animals) over successive generations.
• Errors in DNA copying during reproduction, mutations, & natural selection account for the evolution.
• Evolution gives rise to such a biodiversity at each level of biological organization such as at species level, among individuals, molecules etc.

Evolution And Classification
Classification is the process by which organisms are grouped into convenient categories based on some easily observable characters.

Characters such as cell type (prokaryote or eukaryote), single cell or multi cellular, presence or absence of nucleus, autotrophic (such as photosynthesis) or heterotrophic, sexual or asexual reproduction etc. are used to classify different organisms in different groups.

The more characteristics two species will have in common, the more closely they are related. And the more closely they are related, the more recently they will have had a common ancestor. For e.g. brother & sister are more closely related than a girl & her first cousin. Therefore, classification of species gives a reflection of their evolutionary relationship.

Tracing Evolutionary Relationships
Few evidences which help us to trace evolutionary
relationships among different organisms or species:

• Comparative anatomy and morphology: study of similarities & differences among organisms to understand the common ancestry’.
  • Homologous: Similar structure different functions. It indicates common ancestry for e.g. bones of forelimbs in frog, lizard, bird & human.
  • Analogous: Similar functions but different structure. Different structures evolved for same function & hence having similarity. For e.g. wings of bats & birds, eye of octopus & mammals, etc.
• Fossils: Remains of hard parts of life-forms found in rocks. They represent extinct organisms (e.g., Dinosaurs).
  • The age of the fossils can be estimated by two ways; relative depth of the fossils, dating fossils i.e. detection of ratios of different isotopes of the same element in the fossil material

Speciation

• It refers to a gradual evolutionary process by which populations evolve to become different species.
• Reproductive and geographical isolation play an important role in the process of speciation. They result in change in the frequency of an existing gene variant in a population i.e. genetic drift.
• Over generations, genetic drift along with natural selection results in the formation of new’ species,
• Other factors that may result in speciation are sudden severe DNA changes (mutation) such as change in chromosomal no., variation such as female green beetle will not mate with red males. Her behavior ensures the reproductive isolation between them and thus results in generation of new’ species.

Evolution Should Not Be Equated With ‘progress’

• Evolution is simply the generation of diversity & shaping of diversity by environmental selection.
• The only progressive trend in evolution seems to be the emergence of more and more complex body designs over time. However, that doesn’t mean that the older designs are inefficient.
• For e.g. simplest life forms; bacteria inhabits the most inhospitable habitats like hot springs, deep-sea thermal vents & ice in Antarctica.

Human Evolution

• Tolls, like excavating, time-dating and studying fossils, determining DNA sequences etc, have been used for studying human evolution.
• All humans are a single species regardless of skin color or human races.
• The earliest members of the human species, Homo sapiens, can be traced back to Africa i.e. we all come from Africa.
• A couple of hundred thousand years ago, some of our ancestors left Africa while others stayed on.
• The migrants slowly spread across the planet; from Africa to West Asia, then to Central Asia, Eurasia, South Asia, & East Asia.
• They travelled down the islands of Indonesia and the Philippines to Australia, and they crossed the Bering land bridge to the Americas.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit Chapter 3 डिजीभारतम्

अभ्यासः (Exercise)
प्रश्न: 1.
अधोलिखितानां प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि एकपदेन लिखत-(निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर एक पद में लिखिए-)
(क) कुत्र “डिजिटल इण्डिया” इत्यस्य चर्चा भवति?
(ख) केन सह मानवस्य आवश्यकता परिवर्तते?
(ग) आपणे वस्तूनां क्रयसमये केषाम् अनिवार्यता न भविष्यति?
(घ) कस्मिन् उद्योगे वृक्षाः उपयूज्यन्ते?
(ङ) अद्य सर्वाणि कार्याणि केन साधितानि भवन्ति?
उत्तरम्:
(क) संपूर्णविश्वे,
(ख) कालपरिवर्तनेन,
(ग) रूप्यकाणाम्,
(घ) कर्गदोद्योगे,
(ङ) चलदूरभाषयन्त्रेण।

प्रश्नः 2.
अधोलिखितान् प्रश्नान् पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर पूर्ण वाक्य में दीजिए-)
(क) प्राचीनकाले विद्या कथं गृह्यते स्म?
(ख) वृक्षाणां कर्तनं कथं न्यूनतां यास्यति?
(ग) चिकित्सालये कस्य आवश्यकता अद्य नानुभूयते?
(घ) वयम् कस्यां दिशि अग्रेसरामः?
(ङ) वस्त्रपुटके केषाम् आवश्यकता न भविष्यति?
उत्तरम्:
(क) प्राचीनकाले विद्या श्रुतिपरम्परया गृह्यते स्म।
(ख) वृक्षाणां कर्तनं संगणकस्य अधिकाधिक-प्रयोगेण न्यूनता यास्यति।
(ग) चिकित्सालये रूप्यकाणाम्/रूप्यकस्य आवश्यकता अद्य नानुभूयते।
(घ) वयम् डिजीभारतम् इति दिशि अग्रसराम:।।
(ङ) वस्त्रपुटके रूप्यकाणाम् आवश्यकता न भविष्यति।

प्रश्नः 3.
रेखांकितपदान्यधिकृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत-(रेखांकित पदों के आधार पर प्रश्न-निर्माण कीजिए-)
(क) भोजपत्रोपरि लेखनम् आरब्धम्।
(ख) लेखनार्थम् कर्गदस्य आवश्यकतायाः अनुभूतिः न भविष्यति।
(ग) विश्रामगृहेषु कक्षं सुनिश्चितं भवेत्।
(घ) सर्वाणि पत्राणि चलदूरभाषयन्त्रे सुरक्षितानि भवन्ति।
(ङ) वयम् उपचारार्थम् चिकित्सालयं गच्छामः?
उत्तरम्:
(क) भोजपत्रोपरि किम् आरब्धम्?
(ख) लेखनार्थम् कस्य आवश्यकतायाः अनुभूतिः न भविष्यति?
(ग) कुत्र/केषु कक्षं सुनिश्चितं भवेत्?
(घ) सर्वाणि पत्राणि कस्मिन् सुरक्षितानि भवन्ति?
(ङ) वयम् किमर्थम् चिकित्सालयं गच्छाम:?

प्रश्नः 4.
उदाहरणमनुसृत्य विशेषण विशेष्यमेलनं कुरुत-(उदाहरण के अनुसार विशेषण एवं विशेष्य का मिलान कीजिए-)

उत्तरम्:
(क) – (1),
(ख) – (3),
(ग) – (5),
(घ) – (2),
(ङ) – (4)

प्रश्नः 5.
अधोलिखितपदयोः संन्धिं कृत्वा लिखत-(निम्नलिखित पदों की संधि करके लिखिए-)
(क) पदस्य + अस्य = …………………
(ख) तालपत्र + उपरि = …………………
(ग) च + अतिष्ठत = …………………
(घ) कर्गद + उद्योगे = …………………
(ङ) क्रय + अर्थम् = …………………
(च) इति + अनयोः = …………………
(छ) उपचार + अर्थम् = …………………
उत्तरम्:
(क) पदस्यास्य,
(ख) तालपत्रोपरि,
(ग) चातिष्ठत,
(घ) कर्गदोद्योगे,
(ङ) क्रयार्थम्,
(च) इत्यनयोः,
(छ) उपचारार्थम्।।

प्रश्नः 6.
उदाहरणमनुसृत्य अधोलिखितेन पदेन लघु वाक्य निर्माणं कुरुत-(उदाहरण के अनुसार निम्नलिखित पदों से लघु वाक्यों का निर्माण कीजिए-)
यथा- जिज्ञासा – मम मनसि वैज्ञानिकानां विषये जिज्ञासा अस्ति।
(क) आवश्यकता – ………………………………………………
(ख) सामग्री – ………………………………………………
(ग) पर्यावरण सुरक्षा – ………………………………………………
(घ) विश्रामगृहम् – ………………………………………………
उत्तरम्:
(क) अद्य तु लेखनार्थं कर्गदस्य आवश्यकता नास्ति।
(ख) टंकिता सामग्री अधुना न्यूना एवं प्राप्यते।
(ग) वृक्षेभ्यः पर्यावरण सुरक्षा भवति।
(घ) जनाः तीर्थेषु विश्रामगृहम् अन्वेषयन्ति।

प्रश्नः 7.
उदाहरणानुसारम् कोष्ठकप्रदत्तेषु पदेषु चतुर्थी प्रयुज्य रिक्तस्थानपूर्ति कुरुत-(उदाहरण के अनुसार कोष्ठक में दिए गए पदों के चतुर्थी रूप का प्रयोग करके रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति कीजिए-)
यथा- भिक्षुकाय धनं ददातु।। (भिक्षुक)
(क) ………………… पुस्तकं देहि। (छात्र)
(ख) अहम् ………………… वस्त्राणि ददामि। (निर्धन)
(ग) ………………… पठनं रोचते। (लता)
(घ) रमेशः ………………… अलम्। (अध्यापक)
उत्तरम्:
(क) छात्रेभ्य:/छात्राय,
(ख) निर्धनाय,
(ग) लतायै,
(घ) सुरेशीय,
(ङ) अध्यापकाय।

अतिरिक्त-अभ्यासः
(1) निम्न अनुच्छेदं पठित्वा तदाधारितान् प्रश्नान् उत्तरत-(नीचे लिखे अनुच्छेद को पढ़कर उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए-)
(क) अद्य संपूर्णविश्वे “डिजिटलइण्डिया” इत्यस्य चर्चा श्रूयते। अस्य पदस्य कः भावः इति मनसि जिज्ञासा उत्पद्यते। कालपरिवर्तनेन सह मानवस्य आवश्यकताऽपि परिवर्तते। प्राचीनकाले ज्ञानस्य आदान-प्रदानं मौखिकम् आसीत्, विद्या च श्रुतिपरम्परया गृह्यते स्म। अनन्तरं तालपत्रोपरि भोजपत्रोपरि च लेखनकार्यम् आरब्धम्। परवर्तिनि काले कर्गदस्य लेखन्याः च आविष्कारेण सर्वेषामेव मनोगतानां भावानां कर्गदोपरि लेखनं प्रारब्धम्। टंकणयंत्रस्य आविष्कारेण तु लिखिता सामग्री टंकिता सती बहुकालाय सुरक्षिता अतिष्ठत्।
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत-(एक पद में उत्तर दीजिए)
(i) अद्य सम्पूर्ण विश्वे कस्य चर्चा श्रूयते?
(ii) अनन्तरं तालपत्रोपरि भोजपत्रोपरि च किम् आरब्धम्?
उत्तरम्:
(i) डिजिटलइण्डिया
(ii) लेखनकार्यम् |

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए)
(i) परिवर्तिनि काले कि प्रारब्धम्?
(ii) टंकणयन्त्रस्य आविष्कारेण का बहुकालाय सुरक्षिता अतिष्ठत्?
उत्तरम्:
(i) परिवर्तिनि काले कर्गदस्य लेखन्याः च आविष्कारेण सर्वेषामेव मनोगतानां भावानां कर्गदोपरि लेखनं प्रारब्धम्।
(ii) टंकणयंत्रस्य आविष्कारेण तु लिखिता सामग्री टंकिता सती बहुकालाय सुरक्षिता अतिष्ठत्।

III. भाषिक कार्यम्-(भाषा-कार्य)
(i) ‘परिवर्तिनि काले’ अनयो: पदयोः विशेषणपदं किम्?
(क) काले
(ख) परिवर्तिनि
(ग) काल:
(घ) परिवर्तितः

(ii) अनुच्छेदे ‘परिवर्तते’ इत्यस्य क्रियापदस्य कर्तृपदं किमस्ति?
(क) मानवस्य
(ख) कालपरिवर्तनेन
(ग) आवश्यकताऽपि
(घ) आवश्यकता

(iii) अनुच्छेदे ‘आदानम्’ इति पदस्य कः विपर्ययः आगतः?
(क) लेखनम्
(ख) प्रदानम्
(ग) मौखिकम्
(घ) जिज्ञासा

(iv) ‘ज्ञातुम् इच्छा’ इत्यस्य अर्थे अनुच्छेदे कः शब्दः आगतः?
(क) श्रुतिपरम्परया
(ख) भावानाम्
(ग) आवश्यकता
(घ) जिज्ञासा
उत्तरम्:
(i) (ख) परिवर्तिनि,
(ii) (क) मानवस्य,
(iii) (ख) प्रदानम्,
(iv) (घ) जिज्ञासा

(ख) वैज्ञानिकप्रविधेः प्रतियात्रा पुनरपि अग्रे गता। अद्य सर्वाणि कार्याणि संगणकनामकेन यंत्रेण साधितानि भवन्ति। समाचार-पत्राणि पुस्तकानि च कम्प्यूटरमाध्यमेन पठ्यन्ते लिख्यन्ते च। कर्गदोद्योगे वृक्षाणाम् उपयोगेन वृक्षाः कर्त्यन्ते स्म, परम् संगणकस्य अधिकाधिक-प्रयोगेण वृक्षाणां कर्तने न्यूनता भविष्यति इति विश्वासः। अनेन पर्यावरणसुरक्षायाः दिशि महान् उपकारो भविष्यति।
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत-(एक पद में उत्तर दीजिए)
(i) का पुनरपि अग्रे गता?
(ii) कर्गदोद्योगे के कर्त्यन्ते?
उत्तरम्:
(i) प्रगतियात्रा,
(ii) वृक्षाः

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए)
(i) कः अस्माकं विश्वासोऽस्ति?
(ii) अद्य सर्वाणि कार्याणि केन साधितानि भवन्ति?
उत्तरम्:
(i) संगणस्य अधिकाधिन-प्रयोगेण वृक्षाणां कर्तने न्यूनता भविष्यति इति विश्वासः।
(ii) अद्य सर्वाणि कार्याणि संगणकनामकेन यंत्रेण साधितानि भवन्ति।

III. भाषिक कार्यम्-(भाषा-कार्य)
(i) ‘महान् उपकारों भविष्यति’ अत्र क्रियापदं किम्?
(क) भविष्यति
(ख) महान्
(ग) उपकारो
(घ) उपकार:

(ii) ‘सर्वाणि’ इत्यस्य विशेषणपदस्य कः विशेष्यः अनुच्छेदे आगतः?
(क) अद्य
(ख) यन्त्रेण
(ग) संगणकनामकेन
(घ) कार्याणि

(iii) ‘कर्गदोद्योगे’ अत्र सन्धिविच्छेदो वर्तते
(क) कर्गद + ओद्योगे
(ख) कर्गदो + उद्योगे
(ग) कर्गद् + उद्योगे
(घ) कर्गदा + उद्योगे

(iv) अनुच्छेदे ‘भविष्यति’ इत्यस्य किम् एकवचनं प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) भविष्यति
(ख) भवन्ति
(ग) गता
(घ) भवति
उत्तरम्:
(i) (क) भविष्यति,
(ii) (घ) कार्याणि,
(iii) (ग) कर्गद+उद्योगे,
(iv) (क) भविष्यति

(ग) अधुना आपणे वस्तुक्रयार्थम् रूप्यकाणाम् अनिवार्यता नास्ति। “डेबिट कार्ड, क्रेडिट कार्ड” इत्यादि सर्वत्र रूप्यकाणां स्थानं गृहीतवन्तौ। वित्तकोशस्य ( बैंकस्य) चापि सर्वाणि कार्याणि संगणकयंत्रेण सम्पाद्यन्ते। बहुविधाः अनुप्रयोगाः (APP) मुद्राहीनाय विनिमयाय (Cashless Transaction) सहायकाः सन्ति।
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत-(एक पद में उत्तर दीजिए)
(i) अधुना आपणे केषाम् अनिवार्यता नास्ति?
(ii) बहुविधाः अनुप्रयोगाः कीदृशाय विनिमयाय सहायकाः सन्ति?
उत्तरम्:
(i) रूप्यकाणाम्,
(ii) मुद्राहीनाय।

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए)
कस्य सर्वाणि कार्याणि संगणकयन्त्रेण सम्पाद्यन्ते?
उत्तरम्:
वित्तकोशस्य (बैंकस्य) सर्वाणि कार्याणि संगणकयन्त्रेण सम्पाद्यन्ते।

III. भाषिक कार्यम्-(भाषा-कार्य)
(i) अनुच्छेदे ‘सम्पाद्यन्ते’ इत्यस्य क्रियापदस्य कर्तृपदं किमस्ति?
(क) संगणकयन्त्रेण
(ख) सर्वाणि
(ग) कार्याणि
(घ) वित्तकोशस्य

(ii) बहुविधा: अनुप्रयोगाः’ अनयोः पदयोः विशेषणं किम्?
(क) बहुविधाः
(ख) बहुविधः
(ग) अनुप्रयोगः
(घ) अनुप्रयोगा:
उत्तरम्:
(i) (ग) कार्याणि,
(ii) (क) बहुविधा:

(घ) कुत्रापि यात्रा करणीया भवेत् रेलयानयात्रापत्रस्य, वायुयानयात्रापत्रस्य अनिवार्यता अद्य नास्ति। सर्वाणि पत्राणि अस्माकं चलदूरभाषयन्त्रे ‘ई-मेल’ इति स्थाने सुरक्षितानि भवन्ति यानि सन्दर्य वयं सौकर्येण यात्रायाः आनन्दं गृह्णीमः। चिकित्सालयेऽपि उपचारार्थं रूप्यकाणाम् आवश्यकताद्य नानुभूयते। सर्वत्र कार्डमाध्यमेन, ई-बैंकमाध्यमेन शुल्कम् प्रदातुं शक्यते।
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत-(एक पद में उत्तर दीजिए)
(i) अद्य रेलयात्रापत्रस्य का नास्ति?
(ii) चिकित्सालयेऽपि अद्य उपचारार्थ केषाम् आवश्यकता नानुभूयते?
उत्तरम्:
(i) अनिवार्यता,
(ii) रूप्यकाणाम्।।

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए)
(i) अद्य सर्वाणि पत्राणि कुत्र सुरक्षितानि भवन्ति?
(ii) सर्वत्र कथं शुल्कं प्रदातुं शक्यते?
उत्तरम्:
(i) अद्य सर्वाणि पत्राणि अस्माकं चल दूरभाषयन्त्रे ‘ई-मेल’ इति स्थाने सुरक्षितानि भवन्ति।
(ii) सर्वत्र कार्डमाध्यमेन, ई-बैंकमाध्यमेन शुल्कं प्रदातुं शक्यते।।

III. भाषिक कार्यम्-(भाषा सम्बन्धी कार्य)
(i) अनुच्छेदे ‘गृहणीम:’ इत्यस्याः क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम् वर्तते?
(क) यानि
(ख) वयम्
(ग) आनन्दम्
(घ) यात्रायाः

(ii) चिकित्सार्थम्’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः अनुच्छेदे आगतः?
(क) सन्दर्य
(ख) अस्माकम्
(ग) आनन्दम्
(घ) उपचारार्थम्।
उत्तरम्:
(i) (ख) वयम्,
(ii) (घ) उपचारार्थम्

(ङ) तदिनं नातिदूरम् यदा वयम् हस्ते एकमात्रं चलदूरभाषयन्त्रमादाय सर्वाणि कार्याणि साधयितुं समर्थाः भविष्यामः। वस्त्रपुटके रूप्यकाणाम् आवश्यकता न भविष्यति। ‘पासबुक’ ‘चैबुक’ इत्यनयोः आवश्यकता न भविष्यति। पठनार्थं पुस्तकानां समाचारपत्राणाम् अनिवार्यता समाप्तप्राया भविष्यति। लेखनार्थम् अभ्यासपुस्तिकायाः कर्गदस्य वा, नूतनज्ञानान्वेषणार्थम् शब्दकोशस्यवाऽपि आवश्यकतापि न भविष्यति। अपरिचित-मार्गस्य ज्ञानार्थम् मार्गदर्शकस्य मानचित्रस्य आवश्यकतायाः अनुभूतिः अपि न भविष्यति। एतत् सर्वं एकेनैव यन्त्रेण कर्तुम्, शक्यते। शाकादिक्रयार्थम्, फलक्रयार्थम्, विश्रामगृहेषु कक्षं सुनिश्चितं कर्तुम् चिकित्सालये शुल्क प्रदातुम्, विद्यालये महाविद्यालये चापि शुल्क प्रदातुम्, किं बहुना दानमपि दातुम् चलदूरभाषयन्त्रमेव अलम्। डिजीभारतम् इति अस्यां दिशि वयं भारतीयाः द्रुतगत्या अग्रेसरामः।
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत-(एक पद में उत्तर दीजिए)
(i) दानमपि दातुं किम् अलम् अस्ति?
(ii) किमर्थं पुस्तकानाम् अनिवार्यता समाप्तप्राया भविष्यति?
(iii) भविष्यकाले वयं हस्ते किम् आदाय सर्वाणि कार्याणि साधयितुं समर्थाः भविष्याम:?
(iv) अपरिचित-मार्गस्य ज्ञानार्थं कस्य आवश्यकतायाः अनुभूतिः अपि न भविष्यति?
उत्तरम्:
(i) चलदूरभाषयन्त्रम्,
(ii) पठनार्थम्,
(iii) चलदूरभाषयन्त्रम्,
(iv) मानचित्रस्य

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए)
(i) भविष्ये कयोः आवश्यकता न भविष्यति?
(ii) किमर्थम् अभ्यास पुस्तिकायाः, कर्गदस्य शब्दकोशस्य वा आवश्यकतापि न भविष्यति?
उत्तरम्:
(i) भविष्ये ‘पासबुक चेकबुक’ इत्यनयोः आवश्यकता न भविष्यति।
(ii) लेखनार्थम् अभ्यासपुस्तिकायाः, कर्गदस्य वा नूतनज्ञानान्वेषणार्थी शब्दकोशस्यवाऽपि आवश्यकतापि न भविष्यति।

II. भाषिक कार्यम्-(भाषा-कार्य)
(i) ‘वयं भारतीयाः’ इत्यस्य कर्तृपदस्य क्रियापदं किम्?
(क) भविष्यामः
(ख) भविष्यति
(ग) अग्रेसरामः
(घ) अनुभूतिः

(ii) अनुच्छेदे ‘परिचित’ इति पदस्य कि विपरीतपदम् आगतम्?
(क) अपरिचित
(ख) मार्गस्य
(ग) ज्ञानार्थम्।
(घ) पठनार्थम्

(iii) उचित पदेन रिक्तस्थानं पूरयत-
एतत् सर्वम् एकेन ……………….. यन्त्रेण कर्तुं शक्यते।
(क) च
(ख) एव
(ग) वा
(घ) यदा

(iv) अनुच्छेदे ‘प्रदानाय’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः आगतः?
(क) दातुम्
(ख) अर्थम्
(ग) प्रदातुम्
(घ) दानम्
उत्तरम्:
(i) (ग) अग्रेसरामः,
(ii) (क) अपरिचित,
(iii) (ख) एव,
(iv) (ग) प्रदातुम्

(2) वाक्यांशानाम् उचितं मेलनं कुरुत-(वाक्यांशों को उचित रूप से मिलाइए-)

उत्तरम्:
(i) (ग),
(ii) (घ),
(iii) (ङ),
(iv) (च),
(v) (क),
(vi) (ख)।

(3) पर्यायाः लेखनीयाः-(पर्यायवाची लिखिए-)

उत्तरम्:
(क) विश्वे,
(ख) वृक्षाणाम्,
(ग) वृक्षाः,
(घ) दिशि,
(ङ) उपचारार्थम्,
(च) मार्गस्य,
(छ) द्रुतगत्या।

(4) रेखाङकितानां पदानां स्थानेषु प्रश्नवाचकं पदं चित्वा लिखत-(रेखांकित पदों के स्थान पर प्रश्नवाचक पदों को चुनकर लिखिए-)
(i) कालपरिवर्तनेन सह मानवस्य आवश्यकता अपि परिवर्तते। ।।
(क) कः
(ख) कथम्
(ग) केन
(घ) किम्

(ii) वैज्ञानिकप्रविधे: प्रगतियात्रा पुनरपि अग्रे गता।
(क) कस्याः
(ख) कस्य
(ग) कः
(घ) का

(iii) कर्गदोद्योगे वृक्षाणाम् उपयोगेन वृक्षाः कर्त्यन्ते स्म।
(क) कस्य
(ख) कस्याः
(ग) कासाम्
(घ) केषाम्

(iv) पर्यावरणसुरक्षायाः दिशि महान् उपकारः भविष्यति।
(क) का
(ख) कः
(ग) के
(घ) किम्

(v) अद्य आपणे वस्तुक्रयार्थम् रूप्यकाणाम् अनिवार्यता नास्ति।
(क) किम्
(ख) कुतः
(ग) कुत्र
(घ) के

(vi) बहुविधाः अनुप्रयोगाः (APP) मुद्राहीनाय विनिमयाय सहायकाः सन्ति।
(क) कीदृशाः
(ख) के
(ग) कः
(घ) कति

(vii) अद्य रेलयात्रापत्रस्य अनिवार्यता नास्ति।
(क) कः
(ख) किम्
(ग) काः
(घ) का

(viii) एतत् सर्वम् एकेनैव यन्त्रेण कर्तुम् शक्यते।
(क) कः
(ख) का
(ग) कति
(घ) किम्

(ix) अपरिचित-मार्गस्य ज्ञानार्थं मानचित्रस्य आवश्यकता न भविष्यति।।
(क) कस्या
(ख) कस्य
(ग) कस्याः
(घ) केषाम्।

(x) डिजीभारतम् इति अस्यां दिशि वयं भारतीयाः द्रुतगत्या अग्रेसरामः।
(क) के
(ख) कः
(ग) का
(घ) काः
उत्तरम्:
(i) (ग) केन,
(ii) (क) कस्याः
(iii) (घ) केषाम्,
(iv) (ख) कः,
(v) (ग) कुत्र,
(vi) (क) कीदृशाः,
(vii) (घ) का,
(viii) (घ) किम्,
(ix) (ख) कस्य,
(x) (क) के।

पाठ का परिचय (Introduction of the Lesson)
प्रस्तुत पाठ “डिजिटलइण्डिया” के मूल भाव को लेकर लिखा गया निबन्धात्मक पाठ है। इसमें वैज्ञानिक प्रगति के उन आयामों को छुआ गया है, जिनमें हम एक “क्लिक” द्वारा बहुत कुछ कर सकते हैं। आज इन्टरनेट ने हमारे जीवन को कितना सरल बना दिया है। हम भौगोलिक दृष्टि से एक दूसरे के अत्यन्त निकट आ गए हैं। इसके द्वारा जीवन के प्रत्येक क्रियाकलाप सुविधाजनक हो गए हैं। ऐसे ही भावों को यहाँ सरल संस्कृत में व्यक्त किया गया है।

पाठ-शब्दार्थ एवं सरलार्थ
(क) अद्य संपूर्णविश्वे “डिजिटलइण्डिया” इत्यस्य चर्चा श्रूयते। अस्य पदस्य कः भावः इति मनसि जिज्ञासा उत्पद्यते। कालपरिवर्तनेन सइ मानवस्य आवश्यकताऽपि परिवर्तते। प्राचीनकाले ज्ञानस्य आदान-प्रदानं मौखिकम् आसीत्, विद्या च श्रुतिपरम्परया गृह्यते स्म। अनन्तरं तालपत्रोपरि भोजपत्रोपरि च लेखनकार्यम् आरब्धम्। परवर्तिनि काले कर्गदस्य लेखन्याः च आविष्कारेण सर्वेषामेव मनोगतानां भावानां कर्गदोपरि लेखनं प्रारब्धम्। टंकणयंत्रस्य आविष्कारेण तु लिखित सामग्री टंकिता सती बहुकालाय सुरक्षिता अतिष्ठत्।
शब्दार्थ : इत्यस्य-इसकी। श्रूयते-सुनी जाती है। पदस्य-शब्द का। मनसि-मन में। जिज्ञासा-जानने की इच्छा। उत्पद्यते-उत्पन्न (पैदा) होती है। कालपरिवर्तनेन-समय के बदलने से। परिवर्तते-बदलती है। आदान-प्रदानम्-लेना-देना। मौखिकम्-मौखिक। टंकिता सती-छपी हुई। बहुकालाय-बहुत समय के लिए। श्रुतिपरम्परया-सुनने की परंपरा से। गृह्यते स्म-ग्रहण की जाती थी। अनन्तरम्-बाद में। लेखनकार्यम्-लिखने का काम। आरब्धम्-प्रारम्भ हुआ। परवर्तिनि-बाद के। कर्गदस्य-कागज़ का (के)। लेखन्या:-कलम को (के)। मनोगतानाम्-मन में स्थित। कर्गदोपरि-कागज़ के ऊपर। प्रारब्धम्-प्रारम्भ हुआ। टंकणयन्त्रस्य-टाइप की मशीन, अतिष्ठत्-होती (रहती) थी।

सरलार्थ : आज सारे संसार में ‘डिजिटल इण्डिया’ की चर्चा सुनी जाती है। इस शब्द का क्या भाव है, यह (ऐसी) मन में जिज्ञासा पैदा होती है। समय के बदलने के साथ मनुष्य की आवश्यकता भी बदलती है। प्राचीन काल में ज्ञान का लेना-देना मौखिक (मुँह से बोलकर) था और विद्या श्रुति परम्परा (सुनने की परंपरा) से ग्रहण की जाती थी। बाद में ताड़ के पत्ते के ऊपर और भोज के पत्ते के ऊपर लेखन-कार्य प्रारम्भ हुआ। बाद के समय में कागज़ और कलम के आविष्कार (प्रचलन) से सभी के ही मन में स्थित भावों का कागज़ के ऊपर लिखना प्रारम्भ हुआ। टाइप की मशीन (Typewriter) के आविष्कार (शुरुआत) से तो लिखी हुई सामग्री (Matter) टाइप की हुई होने से बहुत समय के लिए सुरक्षित रही।

(ख) वैज्ञानिकप्रविधेः प्रगतियात्रा पुनरपि अग्रे गता। अद्य सर्वाणि कार्याणि संगणकनामकेन यंत्रेण साधितानि भवन्ति। समाचार-पत्राणि पुस्तकानि च कम्प्यूटरमाध्यमेन पठ्यन्ते लिख्यन्ते च। कर्गदोद्योगे वृक्षाणाम् उपयोगेन वृक्षाः कर्त्यन्ते स्म, परम् संगणकस्य अधिकाधिक-प्रयोगेण वृक्षाणां कर्तने न्यूनता भविष्यति इति विश्वासः। अनेन पर्यावरणसुरक्षायाः दिशि महान् उपकारो भविष्यति।
शब्दार्थ : वैज्ञानिकप्रविधेः-वैज्ञानिक तकनीक में। प्रगतियात्रा-उन्नति की यात्रा। पुनरपि (पुनः+अपि) -फिर भी। गता-गई। साधितानि-सिद्ध (सफल)। कम्प्यूटरमाध्यमेन-कम्प्यूटर के माध्यम से। पठ्यन्ते-पढ़े जाते हैं। कर्गदोद्योगे-कागज़ के उद्योग (कारोबार) में। कर्त्यन्ते स्म-काटे जाते थे। कर्तने-कटाई में। न्यूनता-कमी। दिशि-दिशा में।

सरलार्थ : वैज्ञानिक (विज्ञान सम्बन्धी) तकनीक की उन्नति की यात्रा आगे गई। आज सारे काम कम्प्यूटर नामक यन्त्र से सिद्ध होते हैं। समाचार-पत्र (अखबार) और पुस्तकें कम्प्यूटर के माध्यम से पढ़ी और लिखी जाती हैं। कागज़ के उद्योग (कारोबार) में वृक्षों के उपयोग के कारण वृक्ष काटे जाते थे, परन्तु कम्प्यूटर के अधिक से अधिक प्रयोग से वृक्षों की कटाई में कमी होगी (आएगी), ऐसा विश्वास है। इससे पर्यावरण की सुरक्षा की दिशा में महान उपकार होगा।

(ग) अधुना आपणे वस्तुक्रयार्थम् रूप्यकाणाम् अनिवार्यता नास्ति। “डेबिट कार्ड, क्रेडिट कार्ड” इत्यादि सर्वत्र रूप्यकाणां स्थानं गृहीतवन्तौ। वित्तकोशस्य ( बैंक्स्य) चापि सर्वाणि कार्याणि संगणकयंत्रेण सम्पाद्यन्ते। बहुविधाः अनुप्रयोगाः (APP) मुद्राहीनाय विनिमयाय (Cashless Transaction) सहायकाः सन्ति।
शब्दार्थ : अधुना-अब (इस समय)। आपणे-बाजार में। वस्तुक्रयार्थम्-वस्तुओं की खरीद में (के लिए)। अनिवार्यता-अनिवार्यता (ज़रूरत)। सर्वत्र-सब जगह। गृहीतवन्तौ -ले लिया है। संगणकयन्त्रेण-कम्प्यूटर से। सम्पाद्यन्ते-सम्पन्न किए जाते हैं। बहुविधाः-बहुत प्रकार के। अनुप्रयोगाः-प्रयोग। मुद्राहीनाय-पैसों/रुपयों से रहित। विनिमयाय-लेन-देन के लिए। सहायकाः-सहायक। सन्ति -हैं।

सरलार्थ : अब बाज़ार में वस्तुओं (चीज़ों) को खरीदने के लिए रुपयों की अनिवार्यता (आवश्यकता) नहीं है। ‘डेबिट कार्ड’, ‘क्रेडिट कार्ड’ आदि ने सब जगह रुपयों की जगह ले ली है। और बैंक के भी सारे काम कम्प्यूटर से होते हैं। बहुत प्रकार के अनुप्रयोग (APP) रुपये-पैसों के बिना व्यापार (Cashless Transaction) के लिए सहायक हैं।

(घ) कुत्रापि यात्रा करणीया भवेत् रेलयानयात्रापत्रस्य, वायुयानयात्रापत्रस्य अनिवार्यता अद्य नास्ति। सर्वाणि पत्राणि अस्माकं चलदूरभाषयन्त्रे ‘ई-मेल’ इति स्थाने सुरक्षितानि भवन्ति यानि सन्दर्य वयं सौकर्येण यात्रायाः आनन्दं गृह्णीमः। चिकित्सालयेऽपि उपचारार्थं रूप्यकाणाम् आवश्यकताद्य नानुभूयते। सर्वत्र कार्डमाध्यमेन, ई-बैंकमाध्यमेन शुल्कम् प्रदातुं शक्यते।
शब्दार्थ : कुत्रापि-कहीं भी। करणीया भवेत्-करनी हो। अनिवार्यता-ज़रूरत। पत्राणि-टिकटें। सुरक्षितानि-सुरक्षित। यानि-जिनको। सन्दर्य-दिखाकर। सौकर्येण-सुविधापूर्वक। गृह्णीमः-लेते हैं। उपचारार्थम्-इलाज के लिए। रूप्यकाणाम्-रुपयों की। नानुभूयते-नहीं अनुभव होती है। सर्वत्र-सब जगह। कार्डमाध्यमेन्-कार्ड के द्वारा। शुल्कम्-फीस। प्रदातुम्-देने में। शक्यते-समर्थ हो जाता है।

सरलार्थ : कहीं भी यात्रा करनी हो, आज रेल टिकट की, हवाई जहाज़ के टिकट की ज़रूरत अनिवार्य रूप से नहीं है। सभी टिकट हमारे मोबाइल में ‘ई-मेल’ के रूप में सुरक्षित होते हैं, जिनको दिखाकर हम आराम से यात्रा का आनन्द लेते हैं। अस्पताल में भी इलाज के लिए रुपयों की ज़रूरत आज अनुभव नहीं होती है। सब जगह कार्ड के द्वारा, ई-बैंक के द्वारा शुल्क (फीस) को दिया जा सकता है।

(ङ) तड्दिनं नातिदूरम् यदा वयम् हस्ते एकमात्रं चलदूरभाषयन्त्रमादाय सर्वाणि कार्याणि साधयितुं समर्थाः भविष्यामः। वस्त्रपुटके रूप्यकाणाम् आवश्यकता न भविष्यति। ‘पासबुक’ चैबुक’ इत्यनयोः आवश्यकता न भविष्यति। पठनार्थं पुस्तकानां समाचारपत्राणाम् अनिवार्यता समाप्तप्राया भविष्यति। लेखनार्थम् अभ्यासपुस्तिकायाः कर्गदस्य वा, नूतनज्ञानान्वेषणार्थम् शब्दकोशस्यवाऽपि आवश्यकतापि न भविष्यति। अपरिचित-मार्गस्य ज्ञानार्थम् मार्गदर्शकस्य मानचित्रस्य आवश्यकतायाः अनुभूतिः अपि न भविष्यति। एतत् सर्वं एकेनैव यन्त्रेण कर्तुम्, शक्यते। शाकादिक्रयार्थम्, फलक्रयार्थम्, विश्रामगृहेषु कक्षं सुनिश्चितं कर्तुम् चिकित्सालये शुल्क प्रदातुम्, विद्यालये महाविद्यालये चापि शुल्क प्रदातुम् , कि बहुना दानमपि दातुम् चलदूरभाषयन्त्रमेव अलम्। डिजीभारतम् इति अस्यां दिशि वयं भारतीयाः द्रुतगत्या अग्रेसरामः।

शब्दार्थ : तदिनम्-वह दिन। साधायितुम्-सिद्ध (सफल) करने के लिए। समर्थाः-समर्थ होंगे। वस्त्रपुटके-जेब में। अनयोः-इन (दोनों) की। पठनार्थम्-पढ़ने के लिए। समाप्तप्राया-लगभग समाप्त। लेखनार्थम्-लिखने के लिए। अभ्यासपुस्तिकायाः-कॉपी की। कर्गदस्य-कागज़ की। नूतनज्ञान-अन्वेषणार्थम्-नए ज्ञान की खोज के लिए। शब्दकोषस्य-शब्दकोष की। वा-अथवा। ज्ञानार्थम्-ज्ञान के लिए। मार्गदर्शकस्य-मार्गदर्शक (गाइड) की। आवश्यकतायाः–ज़रूरत की। अनुभूतिः-अनुभूति (अनुभव)। एकेन एव-एक से ही। शक्यते-सकता है। कक्षम्-कमरे को। सुनिश्चितम्-निश्चित (आरक्षित) (Reservation)। प्रदातुम्-देने के लिए। दिशि-दिशा में। द्रुतगत्या-तेज गति से। अग्रेसरामः-आगे बढ़ रहे हैं।

सरलार्थ : वह दिन बहुत दूर नहीं है जब हम हाथ में केवल एक मोबाइल फ़ोन लेकर सारे काम करने में समर्थ होंगे। जेब में रुपयों की ज़रूरत नहीं होगी। ‘पास बुक और चेक बुक’ इन दोनों की भी ज़रूरत नहीं होगी। पढ़ने के लिए पुस्तकों और अखबारों की अनिवार्यता (निश्चितता) लगभग समाप्त हो जाएगी। लिखने के लिए अभ्यास पुस्तिका (कॉपी) अथवा कागज़ की, नए ज्ञान की खोज के लिए शब्दकोष की भी आवश्यकता नहीं होगी। अपरिचित मार्ग के ज्ञान के लिए मार्गदर्शक (Guide) की, मानचित्र (नक्शे) की आवश्यकता की अनुभूति भी नहीं होगी। यह सब एक ही यंत्र (मशीन) से किया जा सकता है। सब्जियों आदि की खरीददारी के लिए, फलों की खरीददारी के लिए, गेस्ट हाउस (होटल) में कमरे की बुकिंग के लिए, अस्पताल में फीस देने के लिए, विद्यालय और महाविद्यालय में भी फीस देने के लिए, बहुत कहने से क्या दान भी देने के लिए मोबाइल फ़ोन की मशीन ही काफी है।
डिजीटल भारत (डिजीटल इण्डिया) इस दिशा में हम भारतीय तेजी से आगे बढ़ रहे हैं।

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit Chapter 3 डिजीभारतम् appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids And Bases:  In this article, we will provide you with NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids And Bases. Having proper knowledge of the theories, sufficient practice of the reactions, equations and formulas, and solving questions from the NCERT Chemistry books are very important if you want to score well in Science for Class 10 board exams as well as JEE and NEET. Going through the step-wise solutions for every question too is highly important to bag a good score.

NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Notes for Acids And Bases has been provided by India’s topmost Chemistry teachers. Also in this article, you will find the Step-wise explanation for each and every question. Going through them will help you in getting a better understanding of how to solve problems. Read on to find out NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Exercise and Extra Questions.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids and Bases

Before getting into the details of NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids And Bases, let’s have an overview of topics & subtopics under NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Activities:

1. Acids, Bases And Salts
2. Understanding The Chemical Properties Of Acids And Bases
3. What Do All Acids And All Bases Have In Common?
4. How Strong Are Acid Or Base Solutions?
5. More About Salts

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Intext Questions

Page Number: 18

Question 1
You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution, respectively. If you are given only red litmus paper, how will you identify the contents of each test tube ?
Answer:
(i) Put the red litmus paper in all the test tubes, turn by turn. The solution which turns red litmus to blue will be a basic solution. The blue litmus paper formed here can now be used to test the acidic solution.
(ii) Put the blue litmus paper obtained above in the remaining two test-tubes, turn-by-turn. The solution which turns the blue litmus paper to red will be the acidic solution.
(iii) The solution which has no effect on any litmus paper will be neutral and hence it will be distilled water.

Page Number: 22

Question 1
Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels ?
Answer:
Curd and sour substances should not be kept in brass and copper vessels because these and other sour food-stuffs contain acids which can react with the metal of the vessel to form poisonous metal compounds which can cause food poisoning and affect our health adversely.

Question 2
Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal ? Illustrate with an example. How will you test for the presence of this gas ?
Answer:
(i) Hydrogen (H₂) gas is liberated when an acid reacts with a metal.
(ii) Illustration : Set up the apparatus as shown in the given figure. Take some zinc granules in the test tube. Add about 5 mL dilute hydrochloric acid slowly. Soon the reaction between zinc and hydrochloric acid starts and hydrogen gas is evolved.

(iii) Test for H₂ gas :
H₂ gas is not soluble in water. When passed through soap solution, it gets trapped into bubbles.
Bring a burning candle near the soap bubble filled with gas. The soap bubble bursts and hydrogen gas burns with a pop sound.

Question 3
Metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride.
Answer:
As the end product is calcium chloride and the gas formed is carbon dioxide, the metal compound A must be calcium carbonate. Therefore, the reaction between calcium carbonate and hydrochloric acid is

Page Number: 25

Question 1
Why do HCl, HNO₃, etc show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character ?
Answer:
H⁺ ions in aqueous solution are responsible for acidic character. HCl, HNO₃, etc. give H⁺ ions in water while alcohol and glucose do not give H⁺ ion in water. Therefore, alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character.

Question 2
Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct electricity ?
Answer:
The aqueous solution of an acid conducts electricity due to the presence of charged particles called ions in it.

Question 3
Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper ?
Answer:
Dry HCl gas does not give H⁺ ions and therefore does not change the colour of dry litmus paper.

Question 4
While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid ?
Answer:
While diluting an acid it is recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid because if water is added to concentrated acid to dilute it, then a large amount of heat is evolved at once. This heat changes some of the water to steam explosively which can splash the acid on one’s face or clothes and cause acid burns.

Question 5
How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H₃O⁺) affected when a solution of an acid is diluted ?
Answer:
When a given amount of an acid is added to water, there is a fixed number of hydronium ions per volume of the solution. On dilution, the number of hydronium ions per volume decreases and concentration decreases.

Question 6
How is the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH^–) affected when excess base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide ?
Answer:
The concentration of hydroxide ions will increase when excess base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide, but it happens to a limited extent only after which the concentration becomes almost constant.

Page Number: 28

Question 1
You have two solutions A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B is 8. Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration ? Which of this is acidic and which one is basic ?
Answer:
A pH value of less than 7 indicates an acidic solution, while greater than 7 indicates a basic solution. Since solution A has more hydrogen ion concentration, solution A is acidic and solution B is basic.

Question 2
What effect does the concentration of H⁺ (aq) ions have on the nature of the solution ?
Answer:
More the concentration of H⁺ ions, higher the acidic nature of the solution.

Question 3
Do basic solutions also have H⁺ (aq) ions ? If yes, then why are these basic ?
Answer:
Basic solutions have H⁺ (aq) ions. But these are far less in number than OH^– ions that is responsible for their basic nature.

Question 4
Under what soil condition do you think a farmer would treat the soil of his fields with quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate) ?
Answer:
If the soil is too acidic (having low pH) then it is treated with materials like quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate).

Page Number: 33

Question 1
What is the common name of the compound CaOCl₂ ?
Answer:
Bleaching powder.

Question 2
Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder.
Answer:
Slaked lime Ca (OH)₂.

Question 3
Name the sodium compound which is used for softening hard water.
Answer:
Sodium carbonate.

Question 4
What will happen if a solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated. Give the equation of the reaction involved ?
Answer:
Solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate on heating gives sodium carbonate and carbon dioxide gas is evolved.

Question 5
Write an equation to show the reaction between plaster of Paris and water.
Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Textbook Chapter End Questions

Question 1
A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 10
Answer:
(d) 10

Question 2
A solution reacts with crushed-egg shells to give a gas that turns lime water milky. The solution contains
(a) NaCl
(b) HCl
(c) LiCl
(d) KCl
Answer:
(b) HCl

Question 3
10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralised by 8 mL of a given solution of HC1. If we take 20 mL of the same solution of NaOH, the amount of HC1 solution (the same solution as before) required to neutralise it will be
(a) 4 mL
(b) 8 mL
(c) 12 mL
(d) 16 mL
Answer:
(d) 16 mL

Question 4
Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
(a) Antibiotic
(b) Analgesic
(c) Antacid
(d) Antiseptic
Answer:
(c) Antacid

Question 5
Write word equations and then balanced equations for the reaction taking place when
(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules
(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon
(c) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder
(d) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filing
Answer:
(a) Zinc + dilute sulphuric acid → Zinc sulphate + Hydrogen
Zn (s) + H₂SO₄ (aq) → ZnSO₄ (aq) + H₂ (g)

(b) Magnesium ribbon + dil. Hydrochloric acid → Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen
Mg (s) + 2 HCl (aq) → MgCl₂ (aq) + H₂ (g)

(c) Aluminium powder + dil. Sulphuric acid > Aluminium sulphate + Hydrogen
2Al (s) + 3H₂SO₄ (aq) → Al₂ (SO₄)₃ (aq) + 3H₂ (g)

(d) Iron filings + Dilute hydrochloric acid > Ferric chloride + Hydrogen
2Fe (s) + 6HCl (aq) → 2FeCl₃ (aq) + 3H₂ (g)

Question 6
Compounds such as alcohol and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorised as acids. Describe an activity to prove it.
Answer:
Though compounds like alcohol and glucose contain hydrogen but they do not ionise in the solution to produce H⁺ ions on passing current through them.
(i) Take solutions of alcohols and glucose.
(ii) Fix two nails on a cork, and place the cork in 100 mL beaker.
(iii) Connect the nails to the two terminals of a 6 volt battery through a bulb and a switch, as shown in the given Figure.

(iv) Now pour alcohol in the beaker and switch on the current.
(v) The bulb does not glow.
(vi) Repeat the experiment with glucose. The bulb does not glow in this case also.
(vii) This means no ions or H+ ions are present in the solution.
This shows that alcohols and glucose are not acids.

Question 7
Why does distilled water not conduct electricity, whereas rainwater does ?
Answer:
Distilled water does not conduct electricity because it does not contain any ionic compound (like acids, bases or salts) dissolved in it.
Rainwater, while falling to the earth through the atmosphere, dissolves an acidic gas carbon dioxide from the air and forms carbonic acid (H₂CO₃). Carbonic acid provides hydrogen ions, H⁺ (aq) and carbonate ions, CO(aq)₃²to rainwater. Hence, due to the presence of carbonic acid which provides ions to rainwater, the rainwater conducts electricity.

Question 8
Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water ?
Answer:
The acidic behaviour of acids is due to the presence of hydrogen ions, [H⁺ (aq) ions], in them. The acid produces hydrogen ions only in the presence of water. So in the absence of water, an acid will not form hydrogen ions and hence will not show its acidic behaviour.

Question 9
Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11, 7 and 9 respectively. Which solution is
(a) Neutral
(b) Strongly alkaline
(c) Strongly acidic
(d) Weakly acidic
(e) Weakly alkaline
Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration.
Answer:
(a) D
(b) C
(c) B
(d) A
(e) E
Increasing order of hydrogen ion concentration
11 < 9 < 7 < 4 < 1
i. e., C < E < D < A < B

Question 10
Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test tube A, while acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is added to test tube B. In which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why ?
Answer:
Fizzing will occur more vigorously in test tube A. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a strong acid whereas acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is a weak acid. Being strong acid, the hydrochloric acid solution contains a much greater amount of hydrogen ions in it due to which the fizzing will occur more vigorously in test tube A (containing hydrochloric acid). The fizzing is due to the evolution of hydrogen gas which is formed by the action of acid on the magnesium metal of magnesium ribbon.

Question 11
fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into curd ? Explain your answer.
Answer:
pH of milk falls below 6 as it turns into curd due to the formation of lactic acid during this process. Lactic acid present in it reduces its pH value.

Question 12
A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
(a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline ?
(b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd ?
Answer:
(a) Milk is made slightly alkaline so that it may not get sour easily due to the formation of lactic acid in it.
(b) The alkaline milk takes a longer time to set into curd because the lactic acid being formed has to first neutralise the alkali present in it.

Question 13
Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture proof container. Explain why?
Answer:
Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture proof container because the presence of moisture can cause slow setting of plaster of Paris by bringing about its hydration. This will make the plaster of Paris useless after sometime.

Question 14
What is a neutralisation reaction ? Give two examples.
Answer:
The reaction between an acid and a base to form salt and water is called a neutralisation reaction.
Examples:

Question 15
Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.
Answer:
Uses of washing soda :
(i) Washing soda is used in glass, soap and paper industries.
(ii) It is used for removing permanent hardness of water.

Uses of baking soda :
(i) Baking soda is used as an antacid in medicines to remove acidity of the stomach.
(ii) Baking soda is used for making baking powder (used in making cakes, bread, etc.).

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases, and Salts

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science (Chemistry) Chapter 2 Acids, bases, and salts are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science. Here we have given Class 10 Science NCERT Solutions Chapter 2.

Question 1
You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution respectively. If you are given only red litmus paper, how will you identify the contents of each test tube?
Solution:
The contents of each test tube would be identified by change in colour of red litmus paper. For example, when we wet the red litmus paper with the basic solution, it changes into blue colour. Put the changed blue litmus paper in the solution which turns the blue to red will be the acidic solution. The solution, which has no effect on any litmus paper, will be neutral and hence it will be distilled water.

Download NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts PDF

Question 2
Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels?
Solution:
Curd and other sour foodstuffs contain acids, which can react with the metal of the vessel to form poisonous metal compounds which can cause food poisoning and damage our health.

Question 3
Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal?
Solution:
When an acid reacts with metal, a salt and hydrogen gas is formed. i.e

Question 4
Metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride.
Solution:
The gas that extinguishes a burning candle is carbon dioxide, which is formed by the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on a metal carbonate and produces effervescence. Now, since one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride, it shows that the metal compound is calcium carbonate. Thus, the metal compound A is calcium carbonate (CaCO₃). Calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to form calcium chloride, carbon dioxide and water. This can be written as:

Question 5
Why do HCl, HNO₃, etc., show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?
Solution:
An acid is a substance, which dissociates on dissolving in water to produce hydrogen ions [H⁺(aq) ions]. The acids like HCl, H₂SO₄, HNO₃ and CH₃COOH, etc., show acidic character because they dissociate in aqueous solutions to produce hydrogen ions, H+(aq) ions.
The compounds such as glucose and alcohol also contain hydrogen but they do not show acidic character. The aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol do not show acidic character because the hydrogen in them does not separate out as hydrogen ions [H⁺ (aq) ions] on dissolving in water.

Question 6
Why does an aqueous solution of acid conduct electricity?
Solution:
The aqueous solution of an acid conducts electricity due to the presence of charged particles called ions in it.

Question 7
Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper?
Solution:
Dry HCl gas does not contain any hydrogen ions in it, so it does not show acidic behaviour. In fact, dry HCl gas does not change the colour of dry litmus paper as it has no hydrogen ions [H⁺(aq) ions] in it.

Question 8
While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?
Solution:
Diluting an acid should be done by adding concentrated acid to water gradually with stirring and not by adding water to concentrated acid.
The heat is evolved gradually when a concentrated acid is added to water for diluting an acid and the large amount of water is easily absorbed.
If, however, water is added to concentrated acid to dilute it, a large amount of heat is evolved at once. The heat generated may cause the mixture to splash the acid on our face or clothes and cause acid burns.

Question 9
How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H₃O+) affected when a solution of an acid is diluted?
Solution:
When the concentrated solution of an acid is diluted by mixing water, the concentration of hydronium ions H₃O+ per unit volume decreases.

Question 10
How is the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) affected when excess base is dissolved in water?
Solution:
When the solution of a base is diluted by mixing more water in it, the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH^– ions) per unit volume decreases.

Question 11
You have two solutions A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B is 8.
i. Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration?
ii. Which of this is acidic and which one is basic?
Solution:
The pH of a solution is inversely proportional to its hydrogen ion concentration. This means that the solution having lower pH will have more hydrogen ion concentration. In this case, solution A(having a lower pH of 6) will have more hydrogen ion concentration.Solution A is acidic and solution B is basic.

Question 12
What effect does the concentration of H⁺(aq) ions have on the nature of the solution?
Solution:
Acids produce hydrogen ions in water. So, when an acid is added to water, the concentration of hydrogen ions in water increases. The solution of acid thus formed will have more of hydrogen ions and it will be acidic in nature.

Question 13
Do basic solutions also have H⁺(aq) ions? If yes, why are these basic?
Solution:
No, the basic solution doesn’t have H⁺ ions as the solution has excess of hydroxide ions.

Question 14
Under what soil condition do you think a farmer would treat the soil of his fields with quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate)?
Solution:
Most often the soil in the fields is too acidic. If the soil is too acidic (having low pH), it is treated with materials like quicklime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate). Thus, a farmer should add lime or slaked lime in his fields when the soil is too acidic.

Question 15
What is the common name of the compound CaOCl₂?
Solution:
The common name of the compound CaOCl₂ is bleaching powder.

Question 16
Name the substance that on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder.
Solution:
Calcium hydroxide is the substance that on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder.

Question 17
Name the sodium compound, which is used, for softening hard water.
Solution:
Sodium carbonate (washing soda) is used for softening hard water.

Question 18
What will happen if a solution of sodium hydro carbonate is heated? Give the equation of the reaction involved.
Sodium carbonate and carbon dioxide are evolved when sodium hydro carbonate is heated.

Question 19
Write an equation to show the reaction between plaster of Paris and water.
Solution:
Plaster of Paris has a very remarkable property of setting into a hard mass on wetting with water. So, when water is added to plaster of Paris, it sets into a hard mass in about half an hour. The setting of plaster of Paris is due to the hydration crystals of gypsum, which set to form a hard, solid mass.

Question 20
Why does distilled water not conduct electricity, whereas rainwater does?
Solution:
Distilled water does not conduct electricity because it does not contain any ionic compound (like acids, bases or salts) dissolved in it. On the other hand, rain water conducts electricity. This can be explained as follows: Rain water, while falling to the earth through the atmosphere, dissolves an acidic gas carbon dioxide from the air and forms carbonic acid (H₂CO₃). Carbonic acid provides hydrogen ions, H⁺(aq), and carbonate ions, CO^2-₃ (aq), to rain water. So, due to the presence of carbonic acid (which provides ions to rain water), the rain water conducts electricity.

Question 21
Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?
Solution:
The acidic behaviour of acid is due to the presence of hydrogen ions. The acids will not show its acidic behaviour in the absence of water, this is because the acids produce hydrogen ions only in the presence of water.

Question 22
Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11, 7 and 9 respectively. Which solution is?
(i) Neutral?
(ii) Strongly alkaline?
(iii) Strongly acidic?
(iv) Weakly acidic?
(v) Weakly alkaline? Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen-ion concentration.
Solution:

Question 23
Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test-tube A while acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is added to test-tube B. In which test-tube will fizzing occur more vigorously and why?
Solution:
Acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is a weak acid whereas hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a strong acid. Fizzing occurs in the test tube due to the evolution of hydrogen gas by the action of acid on magnesium ribbon. Since hydrochloric acid is a strong acid a large amount of hydrogen gas is liberated in the test tube A. So fizzing occurs more vigorously in test tube A .
Question 24
Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into curd? Explain.
Solution:
The pH will change to below 6, as lactic acid is formed when milk turns into curd.

Question 25
Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Why?
Solution:
The presence of moisture can affect the slow setting of plaster of Paris by bringing about its hydration. This will make the plaster of Paris useless after some time.
Question 26
What is a neutralization reaction? Give two examples.
Solution:
The reaction of an acid and a base, giving rise to the corresponding salt and water is called neutralization reaction.
Examples:
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O
Mg(OH)₂ + H₂CO₃ → MgCO₃ + 2H₂O

Question 27
Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.
Solution:
Washing soda
1. It is often used as an electrolyte.
2. Domestically it is used as a water softener during laundry.
Baking soda
1. It is used to test garden soil for acidity. If it develops bubbles, the soil is too acidic.
2. Washing a car with it can remove dead bug bodies without damaging the paint.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 2 (MCQs) [1 Mark each]

Question 1.
Equal pieces of zinc granules are dropped in four test tubes. Following substances are poured in all the four test tubes. The reaction will be vigorous with [CCE 2014]
(a) CH₃COOH
(b) HCl
(c) sodium bicarbonate solution
(d) lemon juice
Answer:
(b) Strong adds like HCl react vigorously with active metals like Zn and form metal salt and evolve H₂ gas.

Question 2.
Which of the following statements shows the property of an acid? [CCE 2014]
(a) It turns blue litmus to red
(b) It is sour in taste
(c) It has no effect on red litmus
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) An acid turns blue litmus red. Thus, it has no effect on red litmus and acids are sour in taste.

Question 3.
A drop of a liquid sample was put on the pH paper. It was observed that the colour of the pH paper turned blue. The liquid sample is [CCE 2014]
(a) lemon juice
(b) sodium bicarbonate solution
(c) distilled water
(d) hydrochloric acid
Answer:
(b) The liquid sample is of sodium bicarbonate (NaHC₃) solution. It is a basic solution. And we know that a basic solution turns pH paper blue.

Question 4.
Two solutions X and Y were found to have pH value of 4 and 10 respectively. The inference that can be drawn is [CCE 2014]
(a) X is a base and Y is an acid
(b) Both X and Y are acidic solutions
(c) X is an acid and Yis a base
(d) Both X and Y are bases
Answer:
(c) Any solution having pH > 7 will be a base while the solution having pH < 7 will surely be an acid. Hence, it can be concluded that X is an acid (pH=4, i.e. < 7) and Yis a base (pH =10, i.e. > 7).

Question 5.
A student was asked to collect apparatus from lab store, for doing experiment of pH of given sample. Identify the article which he is not supposed to pick. [CCE 2014]
(a) pH paper
(b) Dropper
(c) Litmus paper
(d) Petri dish
Answer:
(d) Petri dish is not required for doing experiment of pH.

Question 6.
Which one of the following would you need to identify the gas that evolve when you heat NaOH solution with zinc metal? [CCE 2014]
(a) Red litmus solution
(b) Blue litmus solution
(c) A burning splinter / matchstick
(d) Lime water
Answer:
(c) When a base like NaOH is treated with any active metal like Zn, it produces H₂ gas. And the presence of the hydrogen gas can be tested by bringing a burning splinter/ matchstick near the gas produced. The gas will burn with a pop sound confirming the presence of hydrogen gas.

Question 7.
A solution has pH value of 5. On adding 10 mL of NaCl to it, what will be the pH of the new solution?
(a) More than 5
(b) Less than 5
(c) Only seven
(d) No change in pH
Answer:
(d) As NaCl is a neutral solution due to its complete ionization in H₂O and has pH = 7. Thus, it will not affect the pH of the solution. Hence, the pH of the solution will remain unaffected.

Question 8.
A salt is dissolved in water. The pH of this salt solution was found to be 7 by measuring the pH with a universal indicator paper. The salt is most likely to be
(a) Na₂CO₃
(b) KCl
(c) NH₄Cl
(d) CH₃COONa
Answer:
(b) Salts which are completely ionisable in water are said to be neutral salts and their pH is equal to 7. Among the given salts, only KCl is completely ionisable in the following manner: KCl (aq) → K⁺ + Cl
Hence, the pH of KCl will be 7.

Question 9.
A student performed an experiment using zinc granules and . sodium carbonate with sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid under different
conditions as shown below.

In which set up, no gas is evolved?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(d) Gas will not evolve in the case of IV set up as NaOH does not react with sodium carbonate.

Question 10.
Four set ups as given below are arranged to identify the gas evolved when dilute hydrochloric acid was added to zinc granules. Which is the most appropriate set up?

(a) I
(b) II
(c) IV
(d) III
Answer:
(c) The gas evolved can be tested as shown in IV set up because to evolve H₂ gas delivery tube, should not dip in the acid.

Question 11.
Four students I, II, III and IV were asked to examine the changes for blue and red litmus paper strips with dil. HCl (Solution A) and dil. NaOH (Solutions). The following observations were reported by the 4 students. The sign …………. indicates no colour change. [CCE 2015 ]

The correct observation would be of student
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(c) The correct observation is taken by student III because HCl (solution A) is an acid which turns blue litmus red and dil. NaOH (solution B) is a base which turns red litmus blue.

Question 12.
A sample of soil is mixed with water and allowed to settle. The clear supernatant solution turns the pH paper yellowish orange. Which of the following would change the colour of this pH paper to greenish blue? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Lemon juice
(b) Vinegar
(c) Common salt
(d) An antacid
Answer:
(d) As pH paper turns greenish blue for weakly basic compound and antacids contain weak base like Mg(OH)₂. So, an antacid would change the colour of this pH paper to greenish blue. Other options (a) and (b) contain acids and option (c) is a neutral salt.

Class 10 Science Acid, Bases and Salts Mind Map

Acids

• Produce [H+] in H₂O
• Sour taste
• Turns blue litmus red
• Acts as electrolyte in solution

Chemical Properties Of Acids
Acids + Metal → Salt + H₂
e.g. H₂SO₄ + Zn → ZnSO₄ + H₂
Acids + Metal Carbonate/Metal hydrogen
Carbonate = Salt + CO₂
e.g NaHCO₃ + HCl → NaCl + H₂O + CO₂
Acids + Bases → Salt + water
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O
Acids + Metal oxide → Salt + Water
H₂SO₄ + CuO → CuSO₄ + H₂O

Bases

• Produce [OH ] in H₂O
• Bitter taste
• Turns red litmus blue
• Acts as electrolyte in solution
• Water soluble bases are known as alkali

Chemical Properties Of Bases

Bases + Metals → Salt + H₂
2NaOH + Zn → Na₂ZnO₂ + H₂
Bases + Acids → Salt + Water
KOH + HCl → KCl + H₂0
Base + Non-metallic oxide → Salt + water
2NaOH + CO₂ → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O

Salt

Salt is formed by combination of acid and base through neutralization reaction.
water of Crystallization :
It is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a salt e.g.
CuSO₄.5H₂O, Na₂CO₃.10H₂O

Types of Salts

The acidic &amp; basic nature of salts depends on the acid and base combined in neutralization reaction.

Some Important Salts

Plaster of Paris (CaSO₄. H₂O)

Used for making toys, material for decor action, smooth surfaces.

Bleaching Powder (CaOCl₂):
Ca(OH)₂ + Cl₂ → CaOCl₂ + H₂O
dry slaked lime

Used

• as an oxidising agent in chemical industry.
• In disinfecting water.

Common Salt NaCl:

• Main source is sea water.
• Also exists in the form of rock hence also known as rock salt.
• Important component of food.
• Used in preparation of sodium hydroxide, baking soda & washing soda.

Baking Soda (NaHCO₃)

• NaCl + H₂O + CO₂ + NH₂₃ → NH₄Cl + NaHCO₃
• Mild non – corrosive
• Used as in baking cakes as antacid
• Fire extinguisher

Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH)
Prepared by chlor alkali process .

Washing Soda (Na₂CO₃. 10H₂O) :
• Na₂CO₃ + 10H₂O → 4 Na₂CO₃. 10H₂O
• Used in glass, soap & paper indusby, removing Permanent hardness of water and cleaning agent

Indicators

These are the substances which indicate the acidic or basic nature of the solution by their colour change.

Strength of Acids and Bases in Solution

• Some animals like bee and plants like nettle secretes highly acidic substance for self defense.
• Lower pH of sour & sweet food can cause tooth decay. The pH of mouth should be more than 5.5
• The inner lining of stomach protects vital cells from the acidic pH which is developed by HCl secreted by stomach.
  The optimum pH range for human body is 7 to 7.8

Addition of Acids or Bases to Water

Always add acid to water and not water to acid because this process is highly exothermic. The acid must be added slowly to water by constant shirring on. Adding water to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out and cause burns.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit Chapter 5 कण्टकेनैव कण्टकम्

अभ्यासः (Exercise)
प्रश्न: 1.
एकपदेन उत्तरं लिखत-(एक पद में उत्तर लिखिए-)
(क) व्याधस्य नाम किम् आसीत्?
(ख) चञ्चलः व्याघ्रं कुत्र दृष्टवान्?
(ग) कस्मै किमपि अकार्यं न भवति?
(घ) बदरी-गुल्मानां पृष्ठे का निलीना आसीत्?
(ङ) सर्वः किं समीहते? ।
(च) नि:सहायो व्याघ्रः किमयाचत?
उत्तरम्:
(क) चंचलः,
(ख) वने (जाले),
(ग) क्षुधार्ताय,
(घ) लोमशिका,
(ङ) स्वार्थम्,
(च) प्राणाभिक्षाम्।

प्रश्नः 2.
पूर्ण वाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए-)
(क) चञ्चलेन वने किं कृतम्?
(ख) व्याघ्रस्य पिपासा कथं शान्ता अभवत्?
(ग) जलं पीत्वा व्याघ्रः किम् अवदत्?
(घ) चञ्चलः ‘मातृस्वसः!’ इति को सम्बोधितवान्?
(ङ) जाले पुनः बद्धं व्याघ्रं दृष्ट्वा व्याधः किम् अकरोत्?
उत्तरम्:
(क) चंचलेन वने जालं विस्तारितम्।।
(ख) व्याघ्रस्य पिपासा जलं पीत्वा शान्ता अभवत्।
(ग) जलं पीत्वा व्याघ्रः अवदत्-‘साम्प्रतम् अहम् बुभुक्षितः अस्मि, इदानीम् अहं त्वां खादिष्यामि।’
(घ) चंचलः ‘मातृस्वसः!’ इति लोमशिकाम् सम्बोधितवान्।
(ङ) जाले पुनः बद्धं व्याघ्रं दृष्ट्वा व्याधः प्रसन्नः भूत्वा गृहं प्रत्यावर्तत।

प्रश्नः 3.
अधोलिखितानि वाक्यानि कः/का कं/कां प्रति कथयति-(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को किसने, किसको कहे/किसके लिए कहे-)

उत्तरम्:

प्रश्नः 4.
रेखांकित पदमाधृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणम्-(रेखांकित पदों के आधार पर प्रश्न का निर्माण कीजिए-)
(क) व्याधः व्याघ्र जालात् बहिः निरसारयत्।
(ख) चञ्चल: वृक्षम् उपगम्य अपृच्छत्।
(ग) व्याघ्रः लोमशिकायै निखिल कथां न्यवेदयत्।
(घ) मानवाः वृक्षाणां छायायां विरमन्ति।।
(ङ) व्याघ्रः नद्याः जलेन व्याधस्य पिपासामशमयत्।
उत्तरम्:
(क) कस्मात्,
(ख) कम्,
(ग) कस्यै,
(घ) केषाम्,
(ङ) कस्याः।

प्रश्नः 5.
मजूषातः पदानि चित्वा कथां पूरयत-(मञ्जूषा से पदों का चयन करके कथा को पूरा कीजिए-)

एकस्मिन् वने एकः ……………………. व्याघ्रः आसीत्। सः एकदा व्याधेन विस्तारिते जाले बद्धः अभवत्। सः बहुप्रयास:: ……………………. किन्तु जालात् मुक्तः नाभवत्। ……………………. तत्र एकः मूषकः समागच्छत्। बद्धं व्याघ्र ……………………. सः तम् अवदत्-अहो! भवान् जाले बद्धः। अहं त्वां ……………………. इच्छामि। तच्छुत्वा व्याघ्रः ……………………. अवदत्-अरे! त्वं ……………………. जीवः मम सहाय्यं करिष्यसि। यदि त्वं मां मोचयिष्यसि ……………………. अहं त्वां न हनिष्यामि। मूषकः ……………………. लघुदन्तैः तज्जालस्य ……………………. कृत्वा तं व्याघ्र बहिः कृतवान्।।
उत्तरम्:
वृद्धः, कृतवान्, अकस्मात्, दृष्ट्वा, मोचयितुम्, साट्टहासम्, क्षुद्रः, तर्हि, स्वकीयैः, कर्तनम्।

प्रश्नः 6.
यथानिर्देशमुत्तरत-(निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए-)
(क) सः लोमशिकायै सर्वां कथां न्यवेदयत् – अस्मिन् वाक्ये विशेषणपदं किम्।
(ख) अहं त्वत्कृते धर्मम् आचरितवान् – अत्र अहम् इति सर्वनामपदं कस्मै प्रयुक्तम्।
(ग) “सर्वः स्वार्थं समीहते’, अस्मिन् वाक्ये कर्तृपदं किम्।।
(घ) सा सहसा चञ्चलमुपसृत्य कथयति – वाक्यात् एकम् अव्ययपदं चित्वा लिखत।
(ङ) “का वार्ता? माम् अपि विज्ञापय’ – अस्मिन् वाक्ये क्रियापदं किम्? क्रियापदस्य पदपरिचयमपि लिखतः।
उत्तरम्:
(क) अस्मिन् वाक्ये ‘सर्वाम्’ विशेषणपदम् अस्ति।
(ख) अत्र ‘अहम्’ इति सर्वनामपदं ‘चंचलाय’ प्रयुक्तम्।
(ग) अस्मिन् वाक्ये ‘सर्व:’ पदं कर्तृपदम् अस्ति।
(घ) इति वाक्ये ‘सहसा’ पदम् अव्ययपदम् अस्ति।
(ङ) अस्मिन् वाक्ये विज्ञापन’ पदं क्रियापदम् अस्ति। अस्य पदस्य परिचय वर्तते
उपसर्गः – वि, धातुः – ज्ञा, प्रत्ययः – णिच्, लकारः – लोट् लकारः,
पुरुषः – मध्यम पुरुषः, वचनम् – एकवचनम्

प्रश्नः 7.
(अ) उदाहरणानुसारं रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत- (उदाहरण के अनुसार रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए-)

उत्तरम्:

प्रश्नः 7.
(आ) धातुं प्रत्ययं च लिखत-(धातु और प्रत्यय लिखिए-)

उत्तरम्:
दृश् + तुमुन्, कृ + अनीयर्, पा + तुमुन्, खाद् + तुमुन्, कृ + क्त्वा।

अतिरिक्तः अभ्यासः
प्रश्न: 1.
पाठांशम् पठित्वा तदाधारितान् प्रश्नान् उत्तरत-(पाठांश पढ़कर उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए-)
आसीत् कश्चित् चञ्चलो नाम व्याधः। पक्षिमृगादीनां ग्रहणेन सः स्वीयां जीविका निर्वाहयति स्म॥ एकदा सः वने जालं विस्तीर्य गृहम् आगतवान्। अन्यस्मिन् दिवसे प्रात:काले यदा चञ्चलः वनं गतवान् तदा सः दृष्टवान् यत् तेन विस्तारिते जाले दौर्भाग्याद् एकः व्याघ्रः बद्धः आसीत्। सोऽचिन्तयत्, ‘व्याघ्रः मां खादिष्यति अतएव पलायनं करणीयम्।’
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत- (एक पद में उत्तर दीजिए-)
1. चञ्चलो नाम कः आसीत्? ……………………….
2. सः केषां ग्रहणेन जीविका निर्वाहयति स्म? ……………………….
3. सः वने किं विस्तृतवान्? ……………………….
4. व्याघ्रः कस्मिन् बद्धः? ……………………….

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए-)
1. व्याधः कदा व्याघ्रं जाले बद्धम् दृष्टवान्? ……………………….
2. व्याघ्रं बद्धं दृष्ट्वा व्याधः किम् अचिन्तयत्? ……………………….

III. भाषिककार्यम्-(भाषा-कार्य)
‘आसीत् कश्चित् चञ्चलो नाम व्याधः’ इति वाक्ये
1. ‘आसीत्’ क्रियापदस्य कर्ता क:? ……………………….(कश्चित्, चञ्चल, व्याध:)
2. ‘एकः व्याघ्र:’-अत्र किं विशेषणम्? ……………………….
3. पर्यायम् लिखत-अरण्ये = ……………………….
4. विभक्तिवचनम् लिखत्
(i) दौर्भाग्यात् = ………………………. ……………………….
(ii) अन्यस्मिन् = ………………………. ……………………….
5. ‘सः वने जालं विस्तीर्य गृहम् आगतवान्’–इति वाक्ये किं किं कर्मपदम्?
(i) ……………………….
(ii) ……………………….
6. उपसर्ग चित्वा लिखत
(1) विस्तीर्य = ………………………..
(ii) निर्वाहयति = ………………………..
(iii) आगतवान् = ……………………….
7. अनयोः पदयोः कः धातुः? विस्तीर्य, विस्तारिते- ………………………. (स्तर्, स्तृ, विस्तृ)
उत्तरम्
I.
1. व्याधः
2. पक्षिमृगादीनाम्
3. जालम्
4. जाले

II.
1. अन्यस्मिन् दिवसे प्रात:काले यदा व्याधः वनं गतवान् तदा सः व्याघ्रं जाले बद्धं दृष्टवान्।
2. व्याधः अचिन्तयत्-व्याघ्रः मां खादिष्यति अत एव पलायनं करणीयम् इति।

III.
1. व्याधः
2. एकः
3. वने
4. (i) पञ्मी एकवचनम्
(ii) सप्तमी एकवचनम्।
5. (i) जालम्
(ii) गृहम्
6. (i) वि (ii) निः/निर्
(iii) आ

प्रश्न: 2.
पूर्णवाक्येन अधोदत्ता प्रश्नान् उत्तरत-(निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर सम्पूर्ण वाक्य में दीजिए-)
1. जाले बद्धः व्याघ्रः व्याधम् किमवदत्? …………………………..
2. जनाः नदीजले किं किं कुर्वन्ति? …………………………..
3. जनाः वृक्षेभ्यः कथं कष्टं ददति?
4. चञ्चलः लोमशिकायै किम् असूचय?
उत्तरम्:
1. जाले बद्धः व्याघ्रः व्याधम् अवदत्-भो मानव! कल्याणं ते भवतु। यदि त्वं मां मोचयिष्यसि तर्हि अहं त्वां न हनिष्यामि इति।
2. जनाः नदी-जले स्नानं कुर्वन्ति, वस्त्राणि प्रक्षालयन्ति, मलमूत्रादिकं च विसृजन्ति।
3. जनाः वृक्षान् कुठारैः प्रहत्य तेभ्यः कष्टं ददति।
4. व्याघः लोमशिकायै असूचयत्-मया अस्य व्याघ्रस्य प्राणाः रक्षिताः परम् एषः मामेव खादितुम् इच्छति इति।।

प्रश्न: 3.
कः/का कम्/काम् प्रति कथयति? (कौन किससे कहता/कहती है?)

उत्तरम्:

प्रश्न: 4.
(क) पदानि पृथक् कुरुत-(पदों को पृथक् कीजिए-)
1. जलमानीय = ………………….. + …………………..
2. द्रष्टुमिच्छामि = ………………….. + …………………..
3. प्राणभिक्षामिव = ………………….. + …………………..
4. समाचरत् = ………………….. + …………………..
5. एवमेव = ………………….. + …………………..
उत्तरम्:
1. जलम् + आनीय
2. द्रष्टुम् + इच्छति
3. प्राणभिक्षाम् + इव
4. सम् + आचरत् ।
5. एवम् + एव

(ख) सन्धि विच्छेद वा कुरुत-(संधि अथवा संधि-विच्छेद कीजिए-)
1. न्यवेदयत् = ………………….. + …………………..
2. प्र + अविशत् = ………………….. + …………………..
3. कः + चित् = ………………….. + …………………..
4. तदनन्तरम् = ………………….. + …………………..
5. सोऽचिन्तयत् = ………………. + …………………..
उत्तरम्:
1. नि + अवेदयत्।
2. प्राविशत्
3. कश्चित्
4. तत् + अनन्तरम् ।
5. सः + अचिन्तयत् ।

प्रश्न: 5.
अधोदत्तानि वाक्यानि घटनाक्रमेण योजयत-(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को घटनाक्रम के अनुसार लगाइए-)
1. व्याधः जालं प्रासारयत्।।
2. व्याधः लोमशिकार्य निखिल कथां न्यवेदयत्।
3. सर्वः स्वार्थं समीहते।
4. सा अवदत्-बाढ़म्। अहं पुनः व्याघ्र जाले बद्धं द्रष्टुम् इच्छामि।
5. लोमशिका व्याघ्रम् अवदत्-सत्यं त्वया भणितम्।
6. लोमशिका अवदत्-पुनः कूर्दनं कृत्वा दर्शय इति।
7. नि:सहायः भूत्वा सः प्राणभिक्षामिव अयाचत।
8. व्याघ्रः तं वृत्तान्तं दर्शयितुम् पुनः जाले प्राविशत्।
उत्तरम्:
1. व्याधः लोमशिकायै निखिल कथां निवेदितवान्।
2. सा अवदत्-बाढ़म्! अहं पुनः व्याघ्रं जाले बद्धं द्रष्टुम् इच्छामि।
3. व्याधः जालं प्रासारयत्।।
4. व्याघ्रः तं वृत्तान्तं दर्शयितुं पुनः जाले प्राविशत्।।
5. लोमशिका अवदत्-पुनः कूर्दनं कृत्वा दर्शय इति।
6. नि:सहायः भूत्वा सः प्राणिभिक्षामिव अयाचत।
7. लोमशिका व्याघ्रम् अवदत्-सत्यम् त्वया भणितम्।
8. सर्वः स्वार्थं समीहते।

बहुविकल्पीयप्रश्नाः
प्रश्न: 1.
प्रदत्तविकल्पेभ्यः उचितं पदं चित्वा वाक्यपूर्ति कुरुत-(दिए गए विकल्पों से उचित शब्द चुनकर वाक्यपूर्ति कीजिए-)
(क) 1. ………………….. स्वार्थं समीहते। (सर्वम् / सर्वः/ सर्वे)
2. व्याघ्रस्य पिपासा ………………….. अभवत्। (शान्तम् / शान्तः/ शान्ता)
3. पुत्री ………………….. नमति।। (मात्रम् / मातरम् / मातारम्)
4. अनुज: ज्येष्ठां …………………..• प्राणमत्। स्वसरम / स्वसृम् / स्वसारम्)
5. व्याधः व्याघ्र ………………….. बहिः निरसारयत् (नि:+असारतय्)। (जालेन / जालम् / जालात्)
6. संम्प्रति पुनः पुनः ………………….. कृत्वा दर्शय।। (कूर्दनम् / क्रीडनम् / धावनम्!)
उत्तरम्:
1. सर्वः
2. शान्ता
3. मातरम्
4. स्वसारम्
5. जालात्।
6. कूर्दनम्

पाठ का परिचय (Introduction of the Lesson)
यह कथा पंचतन्त्र की शैली में लिखी गई है। यह लोककथा मध्यप्रदेश के डिण्डोरी जिले में परधानों के बीच प्रचलित है। इस कथा में बताया गया है कि संकट में पड़ने पर भी चतुराई और तत्काल उचित उपाय की सूझ से, उससे निकला (बचा) जा सकता है।

पाठ-शब्दार्थ एवं सरलार्थ
(क) आसीत् कश्चित् चञ्चलो नाम व्याधः। पक्षिमृगादीनां ग्रहणेन सः स्वीयां जीविका निर्वाहयति स्म। एकदा सः वने जालं विस्तीर्य गृहम् आगतवान्। अन्यस्मिन् दिवसे प्रात:काले यदा चञ्चलः वनं गतवान् तदा सः दृष्टवान् यत् तेन विस्तारिते जाले दौर्भाग्याद् एकः व्याघ्रः बद्धः आसीत्। सोऽचिन्तयत्, ‘व्याघ्रः मां खादिष्यति अतएव पलायनं करणीयम्।’ व्याघ्रः न्यवेदयत्-‘भो मानव! कल्याणं भवतु ते। यदि त्वं मां मोचयिष्यसि तर्हि अहं त्वां न हनिष्यामि।’ तदा सः व्याधः व्याघ्रं जालात् बहिः निरसारयत्। व्याघ्रः क्लान्तः आसीत्। सोऽवदत्, ‘भो मानव! पिपासुः अहम्। नद्याः जलमानीय मम पिपासां शमय। व्याघ्रः जलं पीत्वा पुनः व्याधमवदत्, ‘शमय मे पिपासा। साम्प्रतं बुभुक्षितोऽस्मि। इदानीम् अहं त्वां खादिष्यामि।’ चञ्चलः उक्तवान्, ‘अहं त्वत्कृते धर्मम् आचरितवान्। त्वया मिथ्या भणितम्। त्वं मां खादितुम् इच्छसि?’

शब्दार्थ : कश्चित्-कोई। व्याधः-शिकारी, बहेलिया। ग्रहणेन-पकड़ने से। स्वीयाम्-स्वयं की। निर्वाहयति स्म-चलाता था। विस्तीर्य-फैलाकर। आगतवान्-आ गया। विस्तारिते-फैलाए गए (में)। दौर्भाग्यात्-दुर्भाग्य से। बद्धः-बँधा हुआ। पलायनम्-पलायन करना, भाग जाना। न्यवेदयत्-निवेदन किया। कल्याणम्-सुख/हित। मोचयिष्यसि-मुक्त करोगे/छुड़ाओगे। हनिष्यामि-मारूंगा। निरसारयत्-निकाला। क्लान्तः-थका हुआ। पिपासुः-प्यासा। जलमानीय-पानी को लाकर। पिपासां-प्यास। शमय-शान्त करो/मिटाओ। साम्प्रतम्-इस समय। बुभुक्षितः-भूखा। त्वत्कृते-तुम्हारे लिए। आचरितवान्-व्यवहार किया/आचरण किया। भणितम्-कहा। माम्-मुझको।।

सरलार्थः कोई चंचल नामक शिकारी था। वह पक्षियों और पशुओं को पकड़कर अपना गुजारा करता था। एक बार वह जंगल में जाल फैलाकर घर आ गया। अगले दिन सुबह जब चंचल वन में गया तब उसने देखा कि उसके द्वारा फैलाए गए जाल में दुर्भाग्य से एक बाघ फँसा था। उसने सोचा, ‘बाघ मुझे खा जाएगा, इसलिए भाग जाना चाहिए।’ बाघ ने प्रार्थना की-हे मनुष्य! तुम्हारा कल्याण हो। यदि तुम मुझे छुड़ाओगे तो मैं तुमको नहीं मारूंगा।’ तब उस शिकारी ने बाघ को जाल से बाहर निकाल दिया। बाघ थका था। वह बोला, ‘अरे मनुष्य! मैं प्यासा हूँ। नदी से जल लाकर मेरी प्यास शान्त करो (बुझाओ)।’ बाघ जल पीकर फिर शिकारी से बोला, ‘मेरी प्यास शान्त हो गई है। इस समय मैं भूखा हूँ। अब मैं तुम्हें खाऊँगा।’ चंचल बोला, ‘मैंने तुम्हारे लिए धर्म कार्य किया। तुमने झूठ बोला। तुम मुझको खाना चाहते हो?’

(ख) व्याघ्रः अवदत्, “अरे मूर्ख! क्षुधार्ताय किमपि अकार्यम् न भवति। सर्वः स्वार्थं समीहते।’
चञ्चलः नदीजलम् अपृच्छत्। नदीजलम् अवदत्, ‘एवमेव भवति, जनाः मयि स्नानं कुर्वन्ति, वस्त्राणि प्रक्षालयन्ति तथा च मल-मूत्रादिकं विसृज्य निवर्तन्ते, वस्तुतः सर्वः स्वार्थं समीहते।’
चञ्चल: वृक्षम् उपगम्य अपृच्छत्। वृक्षः अवदत्, ‘मानवाः अस्माकं छायायां विरमन्ति। अस्माकं फलानि खादन्ति, पुनः कुठारैः प्रहृत्य अस्मभ्यं सर्वदा कष्टं ददति। यत्र कुत्रापि छेदनं कुर्वन्ति। सर्वः स्वार्थं समीहते।’
शब्दार्थ : क्षुधार्ताय-भूखे के लिए। अकार्यम्-बुरा काम। समीहते-चाहते हैं। नदीजलम्-नदी का जल। मयि-मुझ में। प्रक्षालयन्ति-धोते हैं। विसृज्य-छोड़कर। निवर्तन्ते-चले जाते हैं।लौटते हैं। उपगम्य-पास जाकर। छायायाम्-छाया में विरमन्ति-विश्राम करते हैं। कुठारैः-कुल्हाड़ियों से। प्रहृत्य-प्रहार करके। ददति-देते हैं। छेदनम्-काटना। धर्मे-धर्म में।

सरलार्थ : बाघ बोला-‘अरे मूर्ख! भूखे के लिए कुछ भी बुरा नहीं होता है। सभी स्वार्थ की सिद्धि चाहते हैं।’
चंचल ने नदी के जल से पूछा। नदी का जल बोला, ‘ऐसा ही होता है, लोग मुझमें नहाते हैं, कपड़े धोते हैं तथा मल और मूत्र आदि डाल कर वापस लौट जाते हैं, वास्तव में सब स्वार्थ को ही (सिद्ध करना) चाहते हैं।’
चंचल ने वृक्ष के पास जाकर पूछा। वृक्ष बोला, “मनुष्य हमारी छाया में ठहरते हैं। हमारे फलों को खाते हैं, फिर कुल्हाड़ियों से चोट मारकर हमें सदा कष्ट देते हैं। कहीं-कहीं तो काट डालते हैं। धर्म में धक्का (कष्ट) और पाप (करने) में पुण्य होता ही है।’

(ग) समीपे एका लोमशिका बदरी-गुल्मानां पृष्ठे निलीना एतां वार्ता शृणोति स्म। सा सहसा चञ्चलमुपसृत्य कथयति-‘‘का वार्ता? माम् अपि विज्ञापय।” सः अवदत्-‘अहह मातृस्वसः! अवसरे त्वं समागतवती। मया अस्य व्याघ्रस्य प्राणाः रक्षिताः, परम् एषः मामेव खादितुम् इच्छति।” तदनन्तरं सः लोमशिकायै निखिल कथा न्यवेदयत्। लोमशिका चञ्चलम् अकथयत्-बाढम्, त्वं जालं प्रसारय। पुनः सा व्याघ्रम् अवदत्-केन प्रकारेण त्वम् एतस्मिन् जाले बद्धः इति अहं प्रत्यक्ष द्रष्टुमिच्छामि।।

शब्दार्थ : समीपे-पास में। लोमशिका-लोमड़ी। बदरी-गुल्मानाम्-बेर की झाड़ियों के। पृष्ठे-पीछे। निलीना-छुपी हुई। एताम्-इस (को)। उपसृत्य-समीप जाकर। विज्ञापय-बताओ। अहह-अरे!। मातृस्वसः-हे मौसी। अवसरे-उचित समय पर। समागतवती-पधारी/आई। रक्षिताः-बचाए गए। मामेव-मुझको ही। निखिलाम्-सम्पूर्ण, पूरी। न्यवेदयत्-बताई। बाढम्-ठीक है, अच्छा। प्रसारय-फैलाओ। केन प्रकारेण-किस प्रकार से (कैसे)। बद्धः-बँध गए। प्रत्यक्षम्-अपने सामने (समक्ष)। इच्छामि-चाहती हूँ।

सरलार्थ : पास में एक लोमशिका (लोमड़ी) बेर की झाड़ियों के पीछे छिपी हुई इस बात को सुन रही थी। वह अचानक चंचल के पास जाकर कहती है-‘क्या बात है? मुझे भी बताओ।’ वह बोला-‘अरी मौसी! ठीक समय पर तुम आई हो। मैंने इस बाघ के प्राण बचाए, परन्तु यह मुझे ही खाना चाहता है।’ उसके बाद उसने लोमड़ी को सारी कहानी बताई (सुनाई)। लोमड़ी ने चंचल को कहा-‘ठीक है, तुम जाल फैलाओ।’ फिर वह बाघ से बोली-‘किस तरह से तुम इस जाल में बँध (फैंस) गए, यह मैं अपनी आँखों से देखना चाहती हूँ।’

(घ) व्याघ्रः तद् वृत्तान्तं प्रदर्शयितुं तस्मिन् जाले प्राविशत्। लोमशिका पुनः अकथयत्-सम्प्रति पुनः पुनः कूर्दनं कृत्वा दर्शय। सः तथैव समाचरत्। अनारतं कूर्दनेन सः श्रान्तः अभवत्। जाले बद्धः सः व्याघ्रः क्लान्तः सन् नि:सहायो भूत्वा तत्रे अपतत् प्राणभिक्षामिव च अयाचत। लोमशिका व्याघ्रम् अवदत् ‘सत्यं त्वया भणितम्’ ‘सर्वः स्वार्थं समीहते।’
शब्दार्थ : तद्-उस। वृत्तान्तम्-पूरी कहानी। प्रदर्शयितुम्-प्रदर्शन करने के लिए। प्राविशत्-प्रवेश किया। सम्प्रति-अब (इस समय)। कूर्दनम्-उछल-कूद। दर्शय-दिखाओ। तथैव-वैसे ही। समाचरत्किया। अनारतम्-लगातार। कूर्दनेन-कूदने से। श्रान्तः-थका हुआ। बद्धः-बँधा हुआ। सन्-होता हुआ। नि:सहायः-असहाय। प्राणभिक्षामिव-प्राणों को भिक्षा की तरह। भणितम्-कहा गया।
सरलार्थः बाघ उस बात को बताने (प्रदर्शन) करने के लिए उस जाल में घुस गया। लोमड़ी ने फिर कहा-अब बार-बार कूद करके दिखाओ। उसने वैसे ही किया। लगातार कूदने से वह थक गया। जाल में बँधा हुआ वह बाघ थककर असहाय (निढाल) होकर वहाँ गिर गया और प्राणों को भिक्षा की तरह माँगने लगा। लोमड़ी बाघ से बोली- तुमने सत्य कहा’ ‘सभी अपना हित (स्वार्थ) साधना (पूरा करना) चाहते हैं।’

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit Chapter 5 कण्टकेनैव कण्टकम् appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit Chapter 6 गृहं शून्यं सुतां विना

अभ्यासः (Exercise)
प्रश्न 1.
अधोलिखितानां प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृत भाषयां लिखत-(निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत भाषा में लिखिए-)
(क) दिष्ट्या का समागता?
(ख) राकेशस्य कार्यालये का निश्चिता?
(ग) राकेशः शालिनीं कुत्र गन्तुं कथयति?
(घ) सायंकाले भ्राता कार्यालयात् आगत्य किम् करोति?
(ङ) राकेशः कस्या तिरस्कारं करोति?
(च) शालिनी भ्रातरम् का प्रतिज्ञां कर्तुं कथयति?
(छ) यत्र नार्यः न पूज्यन्ते तत्र किम् भवित?
उत्तरम्:
(क) दिष्ट्या शालिनी समागता।
(ख) राकेशस्य कार्यालये एका महत्त्वपूर्ण गोष्ठी निश्चिता।
(ग) राकेशः शालिनी चिकित्सिकां प्रति गन्तुं कथयति।
(घ) सायंकाले भ्राता कार्यालयात् आगत्य हस्तपादादिकं प्रक्षाल्य वस्त्राणि च परिवर्त्य पूजागृहं गत्वा दीप प्रज्वालयति भवानीस्तुतिं चापि करोति।
(ङ) राकेशः सृष्टेः उत्पादिन्याः शक्त्याः तिरस्कारं करोति।
(च) शालिनी भ्रातरम् कन्यायाः रक्षणो तस्याश्च पाठने दत्तचित्तं भवितुं प्रतिज्ञा कर्तुं कथयति।
(छ) यत्र नार्यः न पूज्यनते तत्र सर्वाः क्रिया: अफलाः भवन्ति

प्रश्न 2.
अधोलिखितपदानां संस्कृतरूपं ( तत्सम रूपं) लिखत-(निम्नलिखित पदों के संस्कृत रूप (तत्सम रूप) लिखिए-)
(क) कोख ………………………….
(ख) साथ ………………………….
(ग) गोद ………………………….
(घ) भाई ………………………….
(ङ) कुआँ ………………………….
(च) दूध ………………………….
उत्तरम्:
(क) कुक्षि
(ख) सह
(ग) क्रोडम्
(घ) भ्राता
(ङ) कूपः
(च) दुग्धम्

प्रश्न 3.
उदाहरणमनुसृत्य कोष्ठकप्रदत्तेषु पदेषु तृतीयाविभक्तिं प्रयुज्य रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत- (उदाहरण के अनुसार कोष्ठक में दिए गए पदों के तृतीय, विभक्ति का प्रयोग कर रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए-) ।
(क) मात्रा सह पुत्री गच्छति (मातृ)
(ख) …………………………. विना विद्या न लभ्यते (परिश्रम)
(ग) छात्रः …………………………. लिखति (लेखनी)
(घ) सूरदासः …………………………. अन्धः आसीत् (नेत्र)
(ङ) सः …………………………. साकम् समयं यापयति।। (मित्र)
उत्तरम्:
(क) मात्रा
(ख) परिश्रमेण
(ग) लेखन्या
(घ) नेत्राभ्याम्
(ङ) मित्रेण।

प्रश्न 4.
‘क’ स्तम्भे विशेषणपदं दत्तम् ‘ख’ स्तम्भे च विशेष्यपदम्। तयोर्मेलनम् कुरुत
(‘क’ स्तम्भ में विशेषण पद और ‘ख’ स्तम्भ में विशेष्य पद दिया गया है। इनका मेल कीजिए-)

उत्तरम्:
(1) (घ) मनोदशा
(2) (ङ) गोष्ठी
(3) (क) कृत्यम्
(4) (ख) पुत्री
(5) (ग) वृत्तिः

प्रश्न 5.
अधोलिखितानां पदानां विलोमपदं पाठात् चित्वा लिखत-(निम्नलिखित पदों के विलोम पद पाठ से चुनकर लिखिए-)
(क) श्वः ………………………….
(ख) प्रसन्ना ………………………….
(ग) वरिष्ठा ………………………….
(घ) प्रशंसितम् ………………………….
(ङ) प्रकाशः ………………………….
(च) सफला: ………………………….
(छ) निरर्थकः ………………………….
उत्तरम्:
(क) अद्य
(ख) चिन्तिता
(ग) कनिष्ठा
(घ) निघृणम्
(ङ) अन्धकारः
(च) अफलाः
(छ) सार्थकः

प्रश्न 6.
रेखांकितपदमाधृत्य प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत-(रेखांकित पद के आधार पर प्रश्न निर्माण कीजिए-)
(क) प्रसन्नतायाः विषयोऽयम्।
(ख) सर्वकारस्य घोषणा अस्ति।
(ग) अहम् स्वापराधं स्वीकरोमि।
(घ) समयात् पूर्वम् आया सं करोषि।
(ङ) अम्बिका क्रोडे उपविशति।
उत्तरम्:
(क) कस्याः विषयोऽयम्?
(ख) कस्य घोषणा अस्ति?
(ग) अहम् किम्/कम् स्वीकरोमि?
(घ) कस्मात् पूर्वम् आया सं करोषि?
(ङ) अम्बिका कुत्र उपविशति?

प्रश्न 7.
अधोलिखिते सन्धिविच्छेदे रिक्त स्थानानि पूरयत-(निम्नलिखित सन्धि विच्छेदों में रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए-)

उत्तरम्:
एव, परामर्श, वध, एव, अपि

अतिरिक्तः अभ्यासः ||
प्रश्न 1.
अधोलिखितान् गद्यांशान् पठित्वा तदाधारितानां प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि लिखत-(नीचे लिखे गद्यांशों को पढ़कर उनपर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए-)
(क) “शालिनी ग्रीष्मावकाशे पितृगृहम् आगच्छति। सर्वे प्रसन्नमनसा तस्याः स्वागतं कुर्वन्ति परं तस्याः भ्रातृजाया उदासीना इव दृश्यते”
शालिनी-भ्रातृजाये! चिन्तिता इव प्रतीयसे, सर्वं कुशलं खलु?
माला-आम् शालिनि। कुशलिनी अहम्। त्वदर्थम् किं आनयानि, शीतलपेयं चायं वा?
शालिनी-अधुना तु किमपि न वाञ्छामि। रात्रौ सर्वैः सह भोजनमेव करिष्यामि।
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत-(एक पद में उत्तर दीजिए-)
(i) शालिनी कदा पितृगृहे आगच्छति? ………………………….
(ii) शालिन्याः भ्रातृजाया का आसीत्? ………………………….
उत्तरम्:
(i) ग्रीष्मावकाशे
(ii) माला

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए-)
(i) शालिन्याः भ्रातृजाया कीदृशी प्रतीयते? ………………………….
(ii) कदा सर्वैः सह शालिनी भोजनं करिष्यति? ………………………….
उत्तरम्:
(i) शालिन्याः भ्रातृजाया स्वस्था न प्रति भाति दूति प्रतीयते।
(ii) रात्रौ सर्वैः सह शालिनी भोजनं करिष्यति।

III. भाषिक कार्यम्-(भाषा सम्बन्धी कार्य-)
(i) ‘स्वागतं कुर्वन्ति’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किमस्ति?
(क) तस्याः
(ख) प्रसन्नमनसा
(ग) सर्वे
(घ) मनसा

(ii) ‘आम् शालिनि। कुशलिनी अहम्।’ अत्र ‘अहम्’ पदं कस्मै आगतम्?
(क) भ्रात्रे
(ख) मालायै
(ग) शालिन्यै
(घ) कस्मैचिदपि न

(iii) अनुच्छेदे ‘अपमानम्’ इति पदस्य कः विपर्ययः आगत:?
(क) स्वागतम्
(ख) कुशलिनी
(ग) पितृगृहम्
(घ) शीतलपेयम्

(iv) ‘कुशलः’ इत्यस्य पदस्य स्त्रीलिंगे किं पदं पाठे आगतम्?
(क) चिन्तिता
(ख) कुशलिनी
(ग) प्रसन्नमनसा
(घ) उदासीना
उत्तरम्:
(i) (ग) सर्वे
(ii) (ख) मालायै
(iii) (क) स्वागतम्
(iv) (ख) कुशलिनी

(ख) शालिनी-भ्रातः। त्वम् किम् ज्ञातुमिच्छसि? तस्याः कुक्षि पुत्रः अस्ति पुत्री वा? किमर्थम्? षण्मासानन्तरं सर्वं स्पष्टं भविष्यति, समयात् पूर्वं किमर्थम् अयम् आयासः? राकेशः-भगिनि, त्वं तु जानासि एव अस्माकं गृहे अम्बिका पुत्रीरूपेण अस्त्येव अधुना एकस्य पुत्रस्य आवश्यकताऽस्ति तर्हि……
शालिनी-तर्हि कुक्षि पुत्री अस्ति चेत् हन्तव्या? (तीव्रस्वरेण ) हत्यायाः पापं कर्तुं प्रवृत्तोऽसि त्वम्।
राकेशः–न, हत्या तु न………..
शालिनी-तर्हि किमस्ति निघृणं कृत्यमिदम्? सर्वथा विस्मृतवान् अस्माकं जनकः कदापि पुत्रीपुत्रमयः विभेदं न कृतवान्? सः सर्वदैव मनुस्मृतेः पंक्तिमिमाम् उद्धरति स्म “आत्मा वै जायते पुत्रः पुत्रेण दुहिता समा”। त्वमपि सायं प्रातः देवीस्तुतिं करोषि? किमर्थं सृष्टेः उत्पादिन्याः शक्त्याः तिरस्कारं करोषि? तव मनसि इयती कुत्सिता वृत्तिः आगता, इदम् चिन्तयित्वैव अहम् कुण्ठिताऽस्मि।
तव शिक्षा वृथा…..
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत-(एक पद में उत्तर दीजिए-)
(i) यदि कुक्षि का अस्ति चेत् हन्तव्या? ………………………….
(ii) केन समा दुहिता वर्तते? ………………………….
उत्तरम्:
(i) पुत्री
(ii) पुत्रेण

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए-)
(i) कस्य मनसि कुत्सिता वृत्तिः आगता? ………………………….
(ii) शालिनीराकेशयोः जनकः कदापि किं न कृतवान्? ………………………….
उत्तरम्:
(i) राकेशस्य मनसि कुत्सिता वृत्तिः आगता।
(ii) शालिनीराकेशयोः जनकः कदापि पुत्रीपुत्रमयः भेदं न कृतवान्।

III. निर्देशानुसारमेव उत्तरत-(निर्देश के अनुसार उत्तर दीजिए-)
(i) अनुच्छेदे ‘दुहिता’ पदस्य पुल्लिङ्गे किं पदम् आगतम्?
(क) पुत्रेण
(ख) पुत्रः
(ग) पुत्री
(घ) वृत्तिः

(ii) “कुत्सिता वृत्ति:” अनयो: पदयोः विशेषणपदं किम्?
(क) वृत्तिः
(ख) कुत्सिता
(ग) कुत्सित
(घ) कुत्सितः

(iii) ‘उद्धरति स्म’ अस्याः क्रियायाः अनुच्छेदे कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) मनुस्मृतेः
(ख) पंक्तिम्
(ग) इमाम्
(घ) सः

(iv) ‘तव शिक्षा वृथा’ अत्र ‘तव’ पदं कस्मै आगतम्?
(क) राकेशाय
(ख) शालिन्यै
(ग) मालायै
(घ) भ्रात्रे
उत्तरम्:
(i) (ख) पुत्रः
(ii) (ख) कुत्सिता
(iii) (घ) सः
(iv) (क) राकेशाय

प्रश्न 2.
‘क’ पंक्तिभिः सह ‘ख’ पंक्तीन् योजयेत-(‘क’ पंक्तियों के साथ ‘ख’ पंक्तियों को जोड़िए-)

उत्तरम्:
(i) (ग) उदासीना इव दृश्यते।
(ii) (ङ) परं तव भ्राता वार्ताम् एव न शृणोति।
(iii) (क) समयात् पूर्वं किमर्थम् अयम् आयासः?
(iv) (ख) रमन्ते तत्र देवताः।
(v) (घ) सबला सर्वैः सदोत्साह्यताम्।

प्रश्न 3.
निम्न रेखाकितानां पदानां स्थानेषु प्रश्ननिर्माणं कृत्वा लिखत-(निम्न रेखांकित पदों के स्थान पर प्रश्ननिर्माण करके लिखिए)-
(i) शालिनी ग्रीष्मावकाशे पितृगृहम् आगच्छति।
(क) का
(ख) कः
(ग) किम्
(घ) कुत्र

(ii) तस्याः भ्रातृजाया उदासीना इव दृश्यते।।
(क) के
(ख) का
(ग) कः
(घ) कदा

(iii) रात्रौ सर्वैः सह भोजनं करिष्यामि।
(क) कुत्र
(ख) कौ
(ग) कदा
(घ) के

(iv) मालायाः मनोदशा स्वस्था न प्रतीयते।
(क) काः
(ख) का
(ग) किम्
(घ) कः

(v) चिन्तायाः विषयः नास्ति।
(क) कस्याः
(ख) काः
(ग) कया
(घ) का

(vi) तस्याः कुक्षि पुत्रः अस्ति।
(क) का
(ख) किम्
(ग) कः
(घ) के

(vii) अधुना एवं गृहम् चल।
(क) किम्
(ख) कुत्र
(ग) कः
(घ) कदा

(viii) सः सर्वदैव मनुस्मृतेः पंक्तिम् इमाम् उद्धरति स्म।
(क) के
(ख) कैः
(ग) कस्याः
(घ) कस्य

(ix) कनिष्ठा अपि त्वं मम गुरुः असि।
(क) कः
(ख) का
(ग) किम्
(घ) कोः

(x) वयं सर्वे मिलित्वा यथार्थ चिन्तनम् इदम् करिष्यामः।
(क) कः
(ख) कौ
(ग) काति
(घ) के
उत्तरम्:
(i) (घ) कुत्र
(ii) (ख) का
(iii) (ग) कदा
(iv) (ख) का
(v) (क) कस्याः
(vi) (ग) कः
(vii) (ख) कुत्र
(viii) (ग) कस्याः
(ix) (क) कः
(x) (घ) के

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नपदानां पाठात् चित्त्वा पर्यायं लिखत-(निम्न पदों के पाठ से चुनकर पर्यायवाची लिखिए-)
पदानि – पर्यायाः
(i) पुत्री – ………………………..
(ii) फलहीनाः – ………………………..
(iii) आकाशम् – ………………………..
(iv) द्रौपदी – ………………………..
(v) सायंकाले – ………………………..
(vi) दीपकम्। – ………………………..
(vii) कुशला – ………………………..
(viii) कालः – ………………………..
(ix) वधस्य योग्या – ………………………..
(x) दिष्ट्या – ………………………..
उत्तरम्:
(i) दुहिता
(ii) अफलाः
(iii) गगनम्
(iv) पाञ्चालिका
(v) संध्याकाले
(vi) दीपम्
(vii) कुशलिनी
(viii) समयः
(ix) वधार्हा
(x) सौभाग्येन

प्रश्न 5.
निम्न वाक्यानि कथाक्रमानुसार पुनलिखित-(निम्न वाक्यों को कथा क्रमानुसार फिर से लिखिए-)
(i) शालिनी भ्रातृजायां मालां चिकित्सिकायाः समीपं नयति।
(ii) माला तां तस्याः भ्रातुः विचारं कन्याभ्रूणहत्या विषये वदति।
(iii) राकेशः क्षमायाचनां करोति, कन्यापालनस्य च वचनं ददाति।
(iv) शालिनी ग्रीष्मावकाशे पितृगृहम् आगच्छति।
(v) शालिनी क्रोधिता भूत्वा तां गृहं प्रत्यावर्तयति।
(vi) मार्गे तयोः महिलयोः वार्तालापं भवति।
(vii) शालिनी भ्रातरं राकेशं क्रोधेन सह वार्तयति।
(viii) तत्र तस्याः स्वागतं सर्वे जनाः कुर्वन्ति।
उत्तरम्:
(i) शालिनी ग्रीष्मावकाशे पितृगृहम् आगच्छति।
(ii) तत्र तस्याः स्वागतं सर्वे जनाः कुर्वन्ति।
(iii) शालिनी भ्रातृजायां मालां चिकित्सिकायाः समीपं नयति।
(iv) मार्गे तयोः महिलयोः वार्तालापं भवति।
(v) माला तां तस्याः भ्रातुः विचारं कन्याभ्रूणहत्या विषये वदति।
(vi) शालिनी क्रोधिता भूत्वा तां गृहं प्रत्यावर्तयति।
(vii) शालिनी भ्रातरं राकेशं क्रोधेन सह वार्तयति।
(viii) राकेशः क्षमायाचनां करोति, कन्यापालनस्य च वचनं ददाति।

पाठ का परिचय (Introduction of the Lesson)
यह पाठ कन्याओं की हत्या पर रोक और उनकी शिक्षा सुनिश्चित करने की प्रेरणा हेतु निर्मित है। समाज में लड़के और लड़कियों के बीच भेद-भाव की भावना आज भी समाज में यत्र-तत्र देखी जाती है। जिसे दूर किए जाने की आवश्यकता है। संवादात्मक शैली में इस बात को सरल संस्कृत में प्रस्तुत किया गया है।

पाठ-शब्दार्थ एवं सरलार्थ
(क) “शालिनी ग्रीष्मावकाशे पितृगृहम् आगच्छति। सर्वे प्रसन्नमनसा तस्याः स्वागतं कुर्वन्ति परं तस्याः भ्रातृजाया उदासीना इव दृश्यते।”
शालिनी-भ्रातृजाये! चिन्तिता इव प्रतीयसे, सर्वं कुशलं खलु?
माला-आम् शालिनि। कुशलिनी अहम्। त्वदर्थम् किं आनयानि, शीतलपेयं चायं वा?
शालिनी-अधुना तु किमपि न वाञ्छामि। रात्रौ सर्वैः सह भोजनमेव करिष्यामि।
शब्दार्थ : ग्रीष्मावकाशे-ग्रीष्मावकाश में। पितृगृहम्-पिता के घर (मायके) में। प्रसन्नमनसा-खुशी मन से। तस्याः-उसका (शालिनी का)। भ्रातृजाया-भाभी। उदासीना-उदास। दृश्यते-दिखाई देती है। भ्रातृजाये!-हे भाभी। चिन्तिता इव-चिन्तायुक्त सी। प्रतीयसे-दिखाई देती हो। त्वदर्थम्-तुम्हारे लिए। आनयानि-लाऊँ। किमपि-कुछ भी। रात्रौ-रात में। सर्वैःसह-सबके साथ। भोजनम् एव-खाना ही। करिष्यामि-खाऊँगी।
सरलार्थ : “शालिनी ग्रीष्मावकाश (गर्मी की छुट्टी) में पिता के घर (मायके) आती है। सभी प्रसन्न मन से उसका स्वागत करते हैं परन्तु उसकी भाभी उदासीन (उदास) सी दिखाई पड़ती है।”
शालिनी-भाभी! चिन्तित (चिन्ता मुक्त) सी दिखाई पड़ती हो, क्या सब कुशल है?
माला-हाँ शालिनी! मैं कुशल हूँ। तुम्हारे लिए क्या लाऊँ, ठंडा अथवा चाय?
शालिनी-अभी (इस समय) तो कुछ भी नहीं चाहती हूँ। रात में सभी के साथ खाना खाऊँगी।

(ख) ( भोजनकालेऽपि मालायाः मनोदशा स्वस्था न प्रतीयते स्म, परं सा मुखेन किमपि नोक्तवती)
राकेशः-भगिनी शालिनि! दिष्ट्या त्वम् समागता। अद्य मम कार्यालये एका महत्वपूर्णा गोष्ठी सहसैव निश्चिता। अद्यैव मालायाः चिकित्सिकया सह मेलनस्य समयः
निर्धारितः त्वम् मालया सह चिकित्सिकां प्रति गच्छ, तस्याः परमर्शानुसारं यविधेयम् तद् सम्पादय।
शालिनी-किमभवत्? भ्रातृजायायाः स्वास्थ्यं समीचीनं नास्ति? अहम् तु ह्यः प्रभृति पश्यामि सा स्वस्था न प्रतिभाति इति प्रतीयते स्म।
राकेशः-चिन्तायाः विषयः नास्ति। त्वम् मालया सह गच्छ। मार्गे सा सर्वं ज्ञापयिष्यति।
शब्दार्थ : भोजनकाले-खाने के समय में प्रतीयते स्म-लग रही थी। स्वस्था-स्वस्थ। उक्तवती-बोली। दिष्ट्या-सौभाग्य से। समागता-आ गई। गोष्ठी-मीटिंग। सहसा एव-अचानक ही। निश्चिता-निश्चित हो गई है। मेलनस्य-मिलने का। निर्धारितः-निश्चित है। परामर्शानुसारम्-सलाह के अनुसार। यद् विधेयम्-जो करने योग्य है। सम्पादय-करना। भ्रातृजायायाः- भाभी का। समीचीनम्-ठीक। प्रभृति-से। प्रतिभाति-दिखाई दे रही है। चिन्तायाः-चिन्ता का। सर्वम्-सब कुछ। ज्ञापयिष्यति-बता देगी।

सरलार्थ : (भोजन के समय में भी माला की मन की दशा अच्छी (स्वस्थ) दिखाई नहीं देती थी, परन्तु उसने मुँह से कुछ भी नहीं कहा)
राकेश-बहन शालिनी! सौभाग्य से तुम आ गई। आज मेरे कार्यालय (ऑफिस) में एक महत्वपूर्ण बैठक • (मीटिंग) अचानक ही रख दी गई है। आज ही माला की डॉक्टर के साथ मिलने का समय भी निश्चित है। तुम माला के साथ डॉक्टर के पास जाना, उनकी सलाह के अनुसार जो करना है उसे कर लेना।
शालिनी-क्या हुआ? भाभी का स्वास्थ्य (तबियत) ठीक नहीं है? मैं तो कल से देख रही हूँ वह, स्वस्थ नहीं जान पड़ती (दिखाई पड़ती) है, ऐसा लगता था।
राकेश-चिन्ता की बात नहीं है। तुम माला के साथ जानी। रास्ते में वह सब कुछ बता देगी।

(ग) (माला शालिनी च चिकित्सिकां प्रति गच्छन्तयौ वार्ता कुरुतः )
शालिनी-किमभवत्? भ्रातृजाये? का समस्याऽस्ति?
माला-शालिनि! अहम् मासत्रयस्य गर्दै स्वकुक्षौ धारयामि। तव भ्रातुः आग्रहः अस्ति यत् अहं लिङ्गपरीक्षणं कारयेयम् कुक्षौ कन्याऽस्ति चेत् गर्भ पातयेयम्। अहम् अतीव उद्विग्नाऽस्मि परं तव भ्राता वार्तामेव न शृणोति।
शालिनी-भ्राता एवम् चिन्तायितुमपि कथं प्रभवति? शिशुः कन्याऽस्ति चेत् वधार्हा? जघन्यं कृत्यमिदम्। त्वम् विरोधं न कृतवती? सः तव शरीरे स्थितस्य शिशोः वधार्थं चिन्तयति त्वम् तूष्णीम् तिष्ठसि? अधुनैव गृहं चल, नास्ति आवश्यकता लिंगपरीक्षणस्य। भ्राता यदा गृहम् आगमिष्यति अहम् वार्ता करिष्ये।।
शब्दार्थ : गच्छन्त्यौ-जाती हुईं। भ्रातृजाये!-हे भाभी! मासत्रयस्य-तीन महीने का। स्वकुक्षौ-अपने पेट में। भ्रातुः-भाई का। आग्रहः-ज़िद। कारयेयम्-कराऊँ। चेत्-यदि। पातयेयम्-गिरा दें। उद्विग्ना-परेशान। प्रभवति-समर्थ हैं। जघन्यम्-भयानक। कृतवती-किया। वधार्थम्-वध के लिए।

सरलार्थ : (माला और शालिनी चिकित्सिका (डॉक्टर) के पास जाती हुई बातचीत करती हैं।) शालिनी-क्या हुआ? भाभी? क्या समस्या है?
माला-शालिनी! तीन मास के गर्भ को अपने पेट में धारण किए हूँ। तुम्हारे भाई की जिद है कि मैं लिंग परीक्षण कराऊँ यदि गर्भ (पेट) में कन्या है तो गर्भ को गिरा हूँ। मैं बहुत परेशान (चिन्तित) हूँ, परन्तु तुम्हारे भाई मेरी बात ही नहीं सुनते हैं।
शालिनी-भाई ऐसा सोच भी कैसे सकते हैं? यदि शिशु कन्या है तो वध के (मारने) लायक है? यह तो जघन्य (महापाप) अपराध है। तुमने विरोध नहीं किया? वह तुम्हारे शरीर (पेट) में स्थित शिशु के वध के लिए सोचते हैं, तुम चुप रहती हो? अभी ही घर चलो, लिंग परीक्षण की आवश्यकता नहीं है। भाई जब घर आएँगे तो मैं बात करूंगी।

(घ) ( संध्याकाले भ्राता आगच्छति हस्तपादादिकं प्रक्षाल्य वस्त्राणि च परिवर्त्य पूजागृह गत्वा दीप प्रज्चालयति भवानीस्तुतिं चापि करोति। तदनन्तरं चायपानार्थम् सर्वेऽपि एकत्रिताः।)
राकेशः-माले! त्वम् चिकित्सिकां प्रति गतवती आसीः, किम् अकथयत् सा? ( माला मौनमेवाश्रयति। तदैव क्रीडन्ती त्रिवर्षीया पुत्री अम्बिका पितुः क्रोडे उपविशति तस्मात् चाकलेहं च याचते। राकेशः अम्बिकां लालयति, चाकलेहं प्रदाय ताम् क्रोडात् अवतारयति। पुनः मालां प्रति प्रश्नवाचिका दृष्टि क्षिपति। शालिनी एतत् सर्वं दृष्ट्वा उत्तरं ददाति।)

शब्दार्थ : संध्याकाले-शाम के समय में। हस्तपादादिकम्-हाथ-पैर आदि का प्रक्षाल्य-धोकर। परिवर्त्य-बदलकर। प्रज्वालयति-जलाता है। भवानीस्तुतिम्-देवी की स्तुति को। तदनन्तरम्-उसके बाद। गतवती-गई। आसीः-थी। मौनम्-मौन (चुप)। एवं-ही। आश्रयति-धारण करती है। क्रीडन्ती-खेलती हुई। त्रिवर्षीया-तीन वर्ष की। क्रोडे-गोद में। उपविशति-बैठ जाती है। लालयति-प्यार करता है। प्रदाय-देकर। अवतारयति-उतार देता है। प्रश्नवाचिकाम्-प्रश्न भरी। क्षिपति-डालता है।
सरलार्थ : (शाम को भाई आते हैं हाथ-पैर आदि को धोकर और कपड़ों को बदलकर पूजाघर में जाकर दीपक जलाते हैं और देवी की पूजा भी करते हैं। उसके बाद चाय पीने के लिए सभी एक स्थान पर मिलते हैं।)
राकेश-माला! तुम डॉक्टर के पास गई थी, उसने क्या कहा?
(माली मौन ही धारण कर लेती है। तभी खेलती हुई तीन साल की बेटी अम्बिका पिता की गोद में बैठ जाती है और उनसे चॉकलेट माँगती है। राकेश अम्बिका को प्यार करता है, चॉकलेट देकर उसे गोद से उतारता है। फिर माला की ओर प्रश्न सूचक नज़र डालता (संकेत) है। शालिनी यह सब देखकर उत्तर देती
है।)

(ङ) शालिनी-भ्रातः! त्वम् किम् ज्ञातुमिच्छसि? तस्याः कुक्षि पुत्रः अस्ति पुत्री वा? किमर्थम्? षण्मासानन्तरं सर्वं स्पष्ट भविष्यति, समयात् पूर्वी किमर्थम् अयम् आयासः?
राकेशः-भगिनि, त्वं तु जानासि एव अस्माकं गृहे अम्बिका पुत्रीरूपेण अस्त्येव अधुना एकस्य पुत्रस्य आवश्यकताऽस्ति तर्हि……।
शालिनी-तर्हि कुक्षि पुत्री अस्ति चेत् हन्तव्या? (तीव्रस्वरेण) हत्यायाः पापं कर्तुं प्रवृत्तोऽसि त्वम्।।
राकेशः-न, हत्या तु न………….
शालिनी-तर्हि किमस्ति निघृणं कृत्यमिदम्? सर्वथा विस्मृतवान् अस्माकं जनकः कदापि पुत्रीपुत्रमयः विभेदं न कृतवान्? सः सर्वदेव मनुस्मृतेः पंक्तिमिमाम् उद्धरति स्म “आत्मा वै जायते पुत्रः पुत्रेण दुहिता समा”। त्वमपि सायं प्रातः देवीस्तुतिं करोषि? किमर्थं सृष्टेः उत्पादिन्याः शक्त्याः तिरस्कारं करोषि? तव मनसि इयती कुत्सिता वृत्तिः आगता, इदम् चिन्तयित्वैव अहम् कुण्ठिताऽस्मि। तव शिक्षा वृथा…..

शब्दार्थ : ज्ञातुम्-जानना (जानने के लिए)। इच्छसि-चाहते हो। तस्याः -उसके। कुक्षि-गर्भ में। किमर्थम्-क्यों (किसलिए)। षण्मासानन्तरम्-छह मास के बाद। आयासः-प्रयास। भगिनि-हे बहन। अस्त्येव (अस्ति+एव)-है ही। तर्हि-तो। चेत्-यदि। उत्पादिन्याः-उत्पन्न करने वाली। शक्त्याः -शक्ति का। तिरस्कारम्-अपमान। इयती-इतनी। हन्तव्या-मारने योग्य। तीव्रस्वरेण-तेज आवाज़ से। प्रवृत्तोऽसि-लग गए हो। निघृणम्-घृणा के योग्य। कृत्यम्-काम। सर्वथा-पूरी तरह से। विस्मृतवान्-भूल गए। पुत्रीपुत्रमयः-बेटी-बेटा रूप। विभेदम्-भेद। कृतवान्–किया था। जायते-पैदा होता है। दुहिता-बेटी। समा-समान होती है। सृष्टेः-संसार की। कुत्सिता-बुरी। प्रवृत्तिः-विचार। कुष्ठिता-चिन्तित। वृथा-बेकार में।

सरलार्थ : शालिनी-भाई! तुम क्या जानना चाहते हो? उसके पेट में पुत्र है अथवा पुत्री? किसलिए? छह महीने के बाद सब स्पष्ट तो जाएगा, समय से पहले किसलिए यह कोशिश (हो रही है)?
राकेश-बहन, तुम तो जानती हो ही हमारे घर में अम्बिका पुत्री के रूप में है ही। अब एक पुत्र की जरूरत है तो……..
शालिनी-तो गर्भ में बेटी है यदि तो मार देनी चाहिए? (तेज़ आवाज़ से) हत्या का पाप करने में तुम लग गए।
राकेश-नहीं, हत्या तो नहीं…….।
शालिनी-तो यह घृणा के योग्य कार्य क्या है? बिलकुल भूल गए हमारे पिता ने कभी पुत्र और पुत्री में यह भेद नहीं किया था? वे सदैव मनुस्मृति की इस पंक्ति का उदाहरण देते थे-“निश्चय से पिता की आत्मा ही पुत्र के रूप में जन्म लेती है और पुत्र के समान ही पुत्री होती है।” तुम भी सायं-प्रात: देवी की स्तुति करते हो? क्यों सृष्टि की उत्पादक शक्ति का अपमान करते हो? तुम्हारे मन में इतनी गलत प्रवृत्ति आ गई, यह सोचकर ही मैं चिन्तित हूँ। तुम्हारी पढ़ाई बेकार…..

(च) राकेशः-भगिनि! विरम विरम। अहम् स्वापराधं स्वीकरोमि लज्जितश्चास्मि। अद्यप्रभृति
कदापि गर्हितमिदं कार्यम् स्वप्नेऽपि न चिन्तयिष्यामि। यथैव अम्बिका मम हृदयस्य संपूर्ण स्नेहस्य अधिकारिणी अस्ति, तथैव आगन्ता शिशुः अपि स्नेहाधिकारी भविष्यति पुत्रः भवतु पुत्री वा। अहम् स्वगर्हितचिन्तनं प्रति पश्चात्तापमग्नः अस्मि, अहम् कथं विस्मृतवान् ।
“यत्र नार्यस्तु पूज्यते रमन्ते तत्र देवताः।
यत्रैताः न पूज्यन्ते सर्वास्तत्राफलाः क्रियाः।”
अथवा “पितुर्दशगुणा मातेति।” त्वया सन्मार्गः प्रदर्शितः भगिनि। कनिष्ठाऽपि त्वम् मम गुरुरसि।

शब्दार्थ : विरम-विरम-रुको-रुको। लज्जितः-शर्मिंदा। अद्यप्रभृति-आज से। गर्हितम्-पाप रूप। इदम्-यह। स्वप्नेऽपि-सपने में भी। स्नेहस्य-प्यार का/की। अधिकारिणी-अधिकार वाली। आगन्ता-आनेवाली/वाला। शिशुः-बच्चा। स्नेहाधिकारी-प्यार का अधिकारी। कनिष्ठा-छोटी। स्वगर्हिताचिन्तम्-अपनी गलत सोच। प्रति-के लिए। पश्चात्तापमग्नः-पछताने में मग्न। विस्मृतवान्-भूल गया। नार्यः-नारियाँ। पूज्यन्ते-पूजी जाती हैं। रमन्ते-निवास करते हैं। यत्र, एताः-जहाँ, ये। सर्वाः-सारी। अफलाः-निष्फल। क्रियाः-क्रियाएँ। पितुः-पिता का। दशगुणा-दस गुणा अधिक। प्रदर्शितः-दिखाया। गुरुः-गुरु (बड़ी)।

सरलार्थ : राकेश-हे बहन! रुको-रुको। मैं अपना अपराध स्वीकार करता हूँ और शर्मिंदा हूँ। आज से यह निन्दा के योग्य काम (को) स्वप्न में भी करना नहीं सोचूंगा। जैसे अम्बिका मेरे दिल (कलेजे) के सारे प्यार की अधिकारी है वैसे ही आने वाला शिशु (बच्चा) भी प्यार का अधिकारी होगा, पुत्र हो अथवा पुत्री। मैं अपने गन्दे सोच के लिए पछतावे से भर गया हूँ। मैं कैसे भूल गया
जहाँ नारियाँ पूजी जाती हैं वहाँ देवता रमण (निवास) करते हैं। जहाँ ये नहीं पूजी जातीं वहाँ सारी क्रियाएँ असफल हो जाती हैं।”
अथवा-पिता से दस गुना अधिक माँ होती है।” तुमने अच्छा रास्ता दिखाया बहन। छोटी होती हुई भी तुम मेरी गुरु (बड़ी) हो।

(छ) शालिनी–अलम् पश्चात्तापेन। तव मनसः अन्धकारः अपगतः प्रसन्नतायाः विषयोऽयम्। भ्रातृजाये! आगच्छ। सर्वां चिन्तां ज्यजे आगन्तुः शिशोः स्वागताय च सन्नद्धा भव। भ्रातः त्वमपि प्रतिज्ञां कुरु-कन्यायाः रक्षणे, तस्याः पाठने दत्तचित्तः स्थास्यसि “पुत्रीं रक्ष, पुत्रीं पाठय” इतिसर्वकारस्य घोषणेयं तदैव सार्थिका भविष्यति यदा वयं सर्वे मिलित्वा चिन्तनमिदं यथार्थरूपं करिष्यामः
या गार्गी श्रुतचिन्तने नृपनये पाञ्चालिका विक्रमे।
लक्ष्मीः शत्रुविदारणे गगनं विज्ञानाङ्गणे कल्पना।
इन्द्रोद्योगपथे च खेलजगति ख्याताभितः साइना
सेयं स्त्री सकलासु दिक्षु सबला सर्वैः सदोत्साह्यताम्।

शब्दार्थ : अलम्-बस करो। पश्चात्तापेन-पछताने से। मनसः-मन का। अन्धकारः-अँधेरा। अपगतः-दूर हो गया। भ्रातृजाये!-हे भाभी! आगन्तुः-आने वाली (का)। सन्नद्धा-तैयार। पाठने-पढ़ाने में। दत्तचित्तः-ध्यान देने वाले। स्थास्यसि-रहोगे (बनोगे)। दिक्षु-दिशाओं में। सबला-बलशालिनी। पुत्रीम्-पुत्री को। पाठय-पढ़ाओ। इति-इस प्रकार की। सर्वकारस्य-सरकार की। सार्थिका-सार्थक (सफल)। यथार्थरूपम्-सही। श्रुतचिन्तने-शास्त्रों के चिन्तन में। नृपनये-राजा को प्रभावित करने में। शत्रुविदारणे-शत्रुओं का नाश करने में। विज्ञानाङ्गणे-विज्ञान के आँगन में उद्योगपथे-उद्योग के मार्ग पर। इन्द्रा-इन्दिरा नूई। ख्याताभितः- चारों ओर से प्रसिद्ध। सकलासु-सभी। सदा-हमेशा। उत्साह्यताम्-उत्साहित करें।

सरलार्थ : शालिनी-पछताओ मत। तुम्हारे मन का अँधेरा दूर हो गया, यह खुशी का विषय है। भाभी! आओ। सारी चिन्ता को छोड़ो ओर आने वाले बच्चे के स्वागत के लिए तैयार हो जाओ। भाई! तुम भी प्रतिज्ञा करो-कन्या की रक्षा में और उसकी पढ़ाई में ध्यान दोगे “पुत्री की रक्षा करो पुत्री को पढ़ाओ।” सरकार की यह घोषणा तभी सार्थक होगी जब हम सब मिलकर यह चिन्तन यथार्थ (सही) रूप में करेंगे। जिस तरह से गार्गी शास्त्रों के ज्ञान के चिन्तन और राजा जनक को प्रभावित करने में, द्रौपदी पराक्रम में, लक्ष्मीबाई शत्रुओं का नाश करने में, कल्पना चावला विज्ञान के विशाल आकाश रूपी आँगन में, इन्द्रा नूई उद्योग मार्ग में, साइना खेल जगत् में प्रसिद्धि पाई। उसी तरह से सभी स्त्रियाँ सभी दिशाओं में सबल हों, सबके द्वारा सदा उत्साहित की जाएँ।

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit Chapter 7 भारतजनताऽहम्

अभ्यासः (Exercise)
प्रश्न 1.
पाठे दत्तानां पद्यानां सस्वरवाचनं कुरुत-(पाठ में दिए गए पदों का सस्वर वाचन कीजिए-)
उत्तरम्:
विद्यार्थी स्वर में पदों का वाचन करें।

प्रश्न 2.
प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि एकपदेन लिखत-(प्रश्नों का उत्तर एक पद में लिखिए-)
(क) अहं वसुंधराम् किम् मन्ये?
(ख) मम सहजा प्रकृति का अस्ति?
(ग) अहं कस्मात् कठिना भारतजनताऽस्मि?
(घ) अहं मित्रस्य चक्षुषा किं पश्यन्ती भारतजनताऽस्मि?
उत्तरम्:
(क) कुटुम्बम्
(ख) मैत्री
(ग) कुलिशात्
(घ) संसारम्

प्रश्न 3.
प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि पूर्णवाक्येन लिखत-(प्रश्नों का उत्तर पूर्ण वाक्य में लिखिए-)
(क) भारतजनताऽहम् कैः परिपूता अस्ति?
(ख) समं जगत् कथं मुग्धमस्ति?
(ग) अहं किं किं चिनोमि?
(घ) अहं कुत्र सदा दृश्ये
(ङ) समं जगत् कैः कै: मुग्धम् अस्ति?
उत्तरम्:
(क) भारतजनताऽहम् अध्यात्मसुधा-तटिनी-स्नानैः परिपूता अस्ति।
(ख) समं जगत् गीतैः, नृत्यैः काव्यैश्च मुग्धमस्ति।
(ग) अहं प्रेयः श्रेयश्च उभयं चिनोमि।
(घ) अहं विश्वस्मिन् जगति सदा दृश्ये।
(ङ) समं जगत् गीतैः नृत्यैः काव्यैश्च मुग्धम् अस्ति।

प्रश्न 4.
सन्धिविच्छेदं पूरयत-(सन्धि विच्छेद पूरा कीजिए)
(क) विनयोपेता = विनय + उपेता
(ख) कुसुमादपि = …………………. + ………………
(ग) चिनोम्युभयम् = .चिनोमि + …………………
(घ) नृत्यैर्मुग्धम् = ……………………… + मुग्ध म्।
(ङ) प्रकृतिरस्ति = प्रकृतिः + ……………..
(च) लोकक्रीडासक्ता = लोकक्रीडा + …………………
उत्तरम्:
(ख) कुसुमात् + अपि
(ग) उभयम्
(घ) नृत्यैः
(ङ) अस्ति
(च) आसक्ता

प्रश्न 5.
विशेषण-विशेष्य पदानि मेलयत-(विशेषण-विशेष्य पदों को मिलाइए-)

उत्तरम्:

प्रश्न 6.
समानार्थकानि पदानि मेलयत-(समान अर्थ वाले पदों को मिलाइए-)

उत्तरम्:

प्रश्न 7.
उचितकथानां समक्षम् (आम्) अनुचितकथनानां समक्षं च (न) इति लिखत-(उचित कथन के सामने ‘आम्’ और अनुचित कथन के सामने ‘न’ लिखिए)
(क) अहं परिवारस्य चक्षुषा संसारं पश्यामि।
(ख) समं जगत् मम काव्यैः मुग्धमस्ति।
(ग) अहम् अविवेका भारतजनता अस्मि।
(घ) अहं वसुंधराम् कुटुम्बं न मन्ये।
(ङ) अहं विज्ञानधना ज्ञानधना चास्मि।
उत्तरम्:
(क) आम्
(ख) आम्
(ग) न
(घ) न
(ङ) आम्

अतिरिक्त-अभ्यासः
प्रश्न 1.
निम्न श्लोकं पठित्वा तदाधारितान् प्रश्नान् उत्तरत-(निम्नलिखित श्लोक को पढ़कर उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए-)
(क) निवसामि समस्ते संसारे, मन्ये च कुटुम्बं वसुन्धराम्।।
प्रेयः श्रेयः च चिनोम्युभ्यं, सुविवेका भारतजनताऽहम्॥
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत-(एक में उत्तर दीजिए)
(i) भारतस्य जगता कुत्र निवसति?
(ii) भारतजनता कीदृशी अस्ति?
उत्तरम्:
(i) संसारे
(ii) सुकुमारा।

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए-)
(i) भारतस्य जनता कां कुटुम्ब मन्यते?
(ii) सा किं चिनोति?
उत्तरम्:
(i) भारतस्य जनता वसुन्धराम् कुटुम्ब मन्यते।
(ii) सा प्रेयः श्रेयः च उभयं चिनोति।

III. भाषिक कार्यम्-(भाषा-सम्बन्धी कार्य-)
(i) श्लोके ‘निवसामि’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) भारतजनता
(ख) अहम्
(ग) भारतजनताऽहम्
(घ) सुविवेका

(ii) समस्ते संसारे’ अनयोः पद्यो: विशेष्यपदं किमस्ति?
(क) संसारे
(ख) समस्ते
(ग) समस्तः
(घ) संसारः

(iii) श्लोके ‘श्रेयः’ पदस्य कः विपर्ययः आगतः?
(क) च
(ख) कुटुम्बम्
(ग) प्रेयः
(घ) उभयम्

(iv) ‘परिवारम्/परिवारः’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः श्लोके आगतो वर्तते?
(क) सुविवेको
(ख) श्रेयः
(ग) प्रेयः
(घ) कुटुम्बम्
उत्तरम्:
(i) (ख) अहम्
(ii) (क) संसारे
(iii) (ग) प्रेयः
(iv) (घ) कुटुम्बम्

(ख) उत्सवप्रियाऽहं श्रमप्रिया, पदयात्रा-देशाटन-प्रिया।
लोकक्रीडासक्ता वर्धेऽतिथिदेवा, भारतजनताऽहम्॥
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत-(एक पद में उत्तर दीजिए-)
(i) भारत जनता कस्याम् आसक्ता वर्तते?
(ii) सा कान् देवाः मन्यते?
उत्तरम्:
(i) लोकक्रीडायाम्
(ii) अतिथीन्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए-)
(i) भारतस्य जनता केषां प्रिया अस्ति?
(ii) का लोकक्रीडायाम् आसक्ता वर्तते?
उत्तरम्:
(i) भारतस्य जनता उत्सव-श्रम-पदयात्रा-देशाटनानां प्रिया अस्ति।
(ii) भारतस्य जनता लोकक्रीडायाम् आसक्ता वर्तते।

III. भाषिक कार्यम्-(भाषा-सम्बन्धी कार्य-)
(i) ‘उत्सवप्रियाऽहं’ अत्र ‘अहम्’ पदं कस्मै आगतम्?
(क) भारताय
(ख) जनतायै
(ग) भारतजनतायै
(घ) जनेभ्यः

(ii) श्लोके ‘अप्रिया’ पदस्य कः विपर्ययः लिखितः?
(क) प्रिया
(ख) देवा
(ग) अतिथिः
(घ) वर्धे

(iii) ‘अनुरक्ता’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्याय: अत्र श्लोके आगतः?
(क) वर्धे
(ख) आसक्ता
(ग) देवा।
(घ) प्रिया

(iv) श्लोके ‘अहम्’ इत्यस्य कर्तृपदस्य क्रियापदं किम् अस्ति?
(क) वर्धे
(ख) अतिथिदेवा
(ग) प्रिया
(घ) आसक्ता
उत्तरम्:
(i) (ग) भारतजनतायै
(ii) (क) प्रिया
(iii) (ख) आसक्ता
(iv) (क) वर्धे

(ग) मैत्री मे सहजा प्रकृतिरस्ति, नो दुर्बलतायाः पर्यायः।
मित्रस्य चक्षुषा संसार, पश्यन्ती भारतजनताऽहम्॥
I. एकपदेन उत्तररत-(एक पद में उत्तर दीजिए)
(i) मैत्री कस्याः सहजा प्रकृतिः अस्ति?
(ii) भारतजनतायाः दुर्बलता का नास्ति?
उत्तरम्:
(i) भारतजनतायाः
(ii) मैत्री

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए)
(i) का मित्रस्य चक्षुषा संसारं पश्यति?
(ii) भारतस्य जनतायाः सहजा प्रकृतिः का वर्तते?
उत्तरम्:
(i) भारतजनता मित्रस्य चक्षुषा संसारं पश्यति।
(ii) भारतस्य जनतायाः सहजा प्रकृतिः मैत्री वर्तते।

III. भाषिक कार्यम्-(भाषा–कार्य)
(i) श्लोके ‘मित्रता’ पदस्य कः पर्यायः आगतः?
(क) सहजा
(ख) मे
(ग) मैत्री
(घ) प्रकृतिः

(ii) अत्र श्लोके ‘पश्यन्ती’ इत्यस्य विशेषणस्य विशेष्यः कः?
(क) भारतजनता
(ख) अहम्
(ग) भारतजनताऽहम्
(घ) चक्षुषा

(iii) ‘सबलतायाः’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः विपर्ययः अत्र श्लाके प्रदत्तः?
(क) दुर्बलतायाः
(ख) दुर्बलता
(ग) सहजी
(घ) प्रकृतिः

(iv) श्लोके ‘अस्ति’ इत्यस्याः क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किमस्ति?
(क) मैत्री
(ख) प्रकृतिः
(ग) में
(घ) सहजा
उत्तरम् –
(i) (ग) मैत्री
(ii) (ग) भारतजनताऽहम्
(iii) (क) दुर्बलतायाः’
(iv) (ख) प्रकृतिः

प्रश्न 2.
निम्न श्लोकानाम् अन्वयं लिखतं (निम्न श्लोकों के अन्वय लिखिए-)
(1) अभिमानधना विनयोपेता, शालीना भारतजनताऽहम्।
कुलिशादपि कठिना कुसुमादपि, सुकुमारा भारतजनताऽहम्॥
अन्वयः अभिमानधना (i) …………………… शालीना अहम् (ii) …………………… (अस्मि), कुलिशात् (iii) …………………… कठिना, कुसुमाद अपि (iv) …………………… अहम् भारत जनता (अस्मि )।
मञ्जूषा- सुकुमारा, विनयोपेता, भारतजनता, अपि
उत्तरम्:
(i) विनयोपेता
(ii) भारतजनता
(iii) अपि
(iv) सुकुमारा

(2) निवसामि समस्ते संसारे, मन्ये च कुटुम्बं वसुन्धराम्।
प्रेयः श्रेयः च चिगोम्युभ्यं, सुविवेका भारतजनताऽहम्॥ अन्वयः समस्ते (i) …………………… निवा सामि, वसुन्धराम् च (ii) …………………… मन्ये। श्रेयः प्रेयः च (iii) …………………… चिनोमि अहं (iv) …………………… भारतजनता (अस्मि )।

उत्तरम्:
(i) संसारे
(ii) कुटुम्बम्
(iii) उभयं
(iv) सुविवेका

(3) विज्ञानधनाऽहं ज्ञानधना, साहित्यकला-सङ्गीतपरा।
अध्यात्मसुधातटिनी-स्नानैः, परिपूता भारतजनताऽहम्॥
अन्वयः अहं (i) …………………… ज्ञानधना (अस्मि) (अहं) साहित्य कला (ii) …………………… (चास्मि), अध्यात्मसुधा (iii)……………………
स्नानैः अहम् भारत जनता (iv) …………………… (अस्मि )।

उत्तरम्:
(i) विज्ञानधना
(ii) सङ्गीतपरा
(iii) तटिनी
(iv) परिपूता

(4) मम गीतैर्मुग्धं समं जगत्, मम नृत्यैर्मुग्धं समं जगत्।
मम काव्यैर्मुग्धं समं जगत्, रसभरिता भारतजनताऽहम्॥
अन्वयः मम गीतै: (i) …………………… जगत् मुग्धम् (अस्ति), मम (ii) …………………… समं जगत् मुग्धम् (वर्तते )। मम काव्यैः समं (iii) …………………… मुग्धम् (अस्ति ), अहं (i……………………••• भारत जनता (अस्मि )।।

उत्तरम्:
(i) समम्
(ii) नृत्यैः
(ii) जगत्
(iv) रसभरिता

(5) उत्सवप्रियाऽहं श्रमप्रिया, पदयात्रा-देशाटन-प्रिया।
लोकक्रीडासक्ता वर्धेऽतिथिदेवा, भारतजनताऽहम्॥
अन्वयः अहम् (i) …………………… श्रमप्रिया पदयात्रा (ii) …………………… प्रिया (चास्मि )। अहम् । लोक क्रीडा (iii) …………………… अतिथि देवा वर्धे (iv) …………………… (अस्मि)।

उत्तरम्:
(i) उत्सवप्रिया
(ii) देशाटन
(iii) आसक्ता
(iv) भारतजनता

(6) मैत्री मे सहजा प्रकृतिरस्ति, नो दुर्बलतायाः पर्यायः।
मित्रस्य चक्षुषा संसारं, पश्यन्ती भारतजनताऽहम्॥
अन्वयः मैत्री मे (i) …………………… प्रकृतिः अस्ति (इयं) (ii) …………………… नः पर्यायः (नास्ति)। अहं संसार (iii)…………………… चक्षुषा (iv) …………………… भारतजनता (अस्मि)।।

उत्तरम्:
(i) सहजा
(ii) दुर्बलतायाः
(iii) मित्रस्य
(iv) पश्यन्ती

(7) विश्वस्मिन् जगति गताहमस्मि, विश्वस्मिन् जगति सदा दृश्ते।
विश्वस्मिन् जगाति करोमि कर्म, कर्मण्या भारतजनताऽहम्॥
अन्वयः अहम् (i) …………………… जगति गता अस्मि, (अहम्) सदा विश्वस्मिन् (ii) …………………… दृश्ये। (अहम्) विश्वस्मिन् जगति (iii) …………………… करोमि, अहम् (iv) …………………… भारतजनता (अस्मि )

उत्तरम्:
(i) विश्वस्मिन्
(ii) जगति
(iii) कर्म
(iv) कर्मण्या

प्रश्न 3.
निम्न श्लोकानां मञ्जूषायाः पदानां सहायतया भावं सम्पूरयत-(निम्न श्लोकों की मंजूषा की सहायता से भाव-पूर्ति कीजिए)
(1) अभिमानधना विनयोपेता, शालीना भारतजनताऽहम्।
कुलिशादपि कठिना कुसुमादपि, सुकुमारा भारतजनताऽहम्॥
भावार्थः भारतीय जनता सदैव स्वाभिमान रूप धनेन युक्ता (i) …………………… पूर्णा, श्रेष्ठ (ii) …………………… युक्ता भवित। सा सदैव दुष्टेभ्यः वज्रादपि (iii) …………………… पुष्पेभ्य:अपि (iv) …………………… वर्तते। अतः सः सज्जनान् रक्षति दुष्टेभ्यश्च दण्डयति अपि।

उत्तरम्:
(i) विनम्रतया
(ii) गुणेभ्यः,
(iii) कठोरा
(iv) सुकोमला।

(2) निवसामि समस्ते संसारे, मन्ये च कुटुम्बं वसुन्धराम्।
प्रेयः श्रेयः च चिगोम्युभ्यं, सुविवेका भारतजनताऽहम्॥
भावार्थ : भारतस्य जनाः (i) …………………… संसारे सम्पूर्णी धरां (ii)…………………… मत्वा निवसन्ति। ते भौतिकं कल्याण करम् (iii) …………………… च उभयंपथं चिन्वन्ति। अनेन प्रकारेण भारतस्य (iv) ……………………दैव बुद्धिशालिनी तिष्ठति।।

उत्तरम्:
(i) सम्पूर्णे
(ii) स्वपरिवार
(iii) आध्यात्मिकं
(iv) प्रजा

(3) विज्ञानधनाऽहं ज्ञानधना, साहित्यकला-सङ्गीतपरा।
अध्यात्मसुधातटिनी-स्नानैः, परिपूता भारतजनताऽहम्॥
भावार्थः अहं भारतस्य जनता विज्ञानस्य ज्ञानस्य च (i) …………………… युक्ता अस्मि। अहमेव साहित्य-कला सङ्गीतैः (ii) …………………… अस्मि। अहं (iii) …………………… जनता सदैव अध्याम रूप अमृत नद्यां (iv) …………………… शुद्धा पवित्रा चास्मि।

उत्तरम्:
(i) धनेन
(ii) निपुणा (परिपूर्णा)
(iii) भारतस्य
(iv) स्नानेन

(4) मम गीतैर्मुग्धं समं जगत्, मम नृत्यैर्मुग्धं समं जगत्।
मम काव्यैर्मुग्धं समं जगत्, रसभरिता भारतजनताऽहम्॥
भावार्थ : समस्तं जगत् मम (i) …………………… मोहितमस्ति मम च नृत्यैरपि (ii) …………………… वर्तते। तदेव जगत् मम (iii) …………………… अपि मोहितम् अस्ति । यतः अहं (iv) …………………… पूर्णा भारतीया जनता अस्ति।

उत्तरम्:
(i) गीतैः
(ii) मुग्ध
(iii) कविताभिः
(iv) रसेन

(5) उत्सवप्रियाऽहं श्रमप्रिया, पदयात्रा-देशाटन-प्रिया।
लोकक्रीडासक्ता वर्धेऽतिथिदेवा, भारतजनताऽहम्॥
भावार्थः अहं भारतस्य (i) …………………… सदैव उत्सवात् प्रेमकर्मी श्रमात् च प्रेमकर्मी अस्मि। मह्यं पदयात्रा (ii) …………………… च सदैव रोचेते। अहं (iii) …………………… क्रीडासु सदैव आसक्ता वर्ते (iv) …………………… च देवतुल्यान् मन्ये।।

उत्तरम्:
(i)जनता
(ii) देशाटनं
(iii) लोकानाम्
(iv) अतिथीन्

(6) मैत्री मे सहजा प्रकृतिरस्ति, नो दुर्बलतायाः पर्यायः।
मित्रस्य चक्षुषा संसार, पश्यन्ती भारतजनताऽहम्॥
भावार्थः अहं भारतीया जनता अस्मि। मित्रता (i) …………………… सामान्यः एव स्वभावः वर्तते, अयं मम (ii) …………………… पर्यायवाची नास्ति। अहं सम्पूर्ण जगत् (iii) …………………… नेत्राभ्याम् एव (iv) ……………………

उत्तरम्:
(i) मम
(ii) दुर्बलतायाः
(iii) मित्रस्य
(iv) पश्यामि

(7) विश्वस्मिन् जगति गताहमस्मि, विश्वस्मिन् जगति सदा दृश्ते।
विश्वस्मिन् जगाति करोमि कर्म, कर्मण्या भारतजनताऽहम्॥
व्याख्याः अहम् भारतस्य जनता (i) …………………… विश्वे भ्रमामि, अहं सदैव (ii) …………………… विश्वं पश्यामि, अहं सम्पूर्ण विश्वे कार्यं कृत्वा (iii) …………………… करोमि यत: अहम् (iv) …………………… भारतीया जनता अस्मि ।

उत्तरम्:
(i) सम्पूर्णे
(ii) सम्पूर्ण
(iii) उन्नतिम्
(iv) कर्मशीला

प्रश्न 4.
श्लोकानां ‘क’ भागस्य ‘ख’ भागेन सह मेलनं कुरुत-(श्लोकों का ‘क’ भाग के साथ ‘ख’ भाग का मेल कीजिए-)

उत्तरम्:
(i) (ग) नो दुर्बलतायाः पर्यायः।
(ii) (घ) कर्मण्या भारतंजनताऽहम्।
(iii) (क) मम नृत्यैः मुग्धं समं जगत्।
(iv) (ख) मन्ये च कुटुम्बं वसुन्धराम्।
(v) (ज) साहित्यकला-सङ्गीतपरा।
(vi) (ङ) शालीना भारतजनताऽहम्।
(vii) (च) रसभरिता भारतजनताऽहम्।
(viii) (छ) विवेका भारत जनताऽहम्।

प्रश्न 5.
रेखाकितानां पदानां स्थानेषु प्रश्नवाचकं पदं चित्वा लिखत–(रेखांकित पदों के स्थानों पर प्रश्नवाचक पदों को चुनकर लिखिए-)
(i) अहम् भारतजनता शालीना अस्मि।
(क) का
(ख) कीदृशी
(ग) कः
(घ) कीदृशा

(ii) अहम् कुलिशात् अपि कठिना अस्मि।
(क) कस्मात्
(ख) कुतः
(ग) कीदृशात्
(घ) कस्याः

(iii) अहं समस्ते संसारे निवसामि।।
(क) कः
(ख) के
(ग) किम्
(घ) का

(iv) अहं वसुन्धरां कुटुम्बं मन्ये।
(क) का
(ख) कम्
(ग) काम्
(घ) किम्

(v) अहं श्रेयः प्रेयः च उभयं चिनोमि।
(क) किम्
(ख) कम्।
(ग) कः
(घ) का

(vi) अहम् अध्यात्म सुधा तटिनी स्नानैः परिपूता अस्मि।
(क) कः
(ख) के
(ग) कथम्
(घ) कीदृशी

(vii) मम नृत्यैः मुग्धं समं जगत्।
(क) कस्य
(ख) कस्याः
(ग) कस्मात्
(घ) कस्मै

(viii) मैत्री मे सहजा प्रकृतिः अस्ति।
(क) का
(ख) किम्
(ग) कः
(घ) काः

(ix) विश्वस्मिन् जगति अहं गतास्मि।
(क) कीदृशम्
(ख) कीदृशः
(ग) कीदृशे
(घ) कीदृशी

(x) अहं मित्रस्य चक्षुषा संसारं पश्यन्ती अस्मि।
(क) कया
(ख) का
(ग) काः
(घ) केन
उत्तरम्:
(i) (ख) कीदृशी
(ii) (क) कस्मात्
(iii) (घ) का
(iv) (ग) काम्
(v) (क) किम्
(vi) (ग) कथम्
(vii) (ख) कस्याः
(viii) (क) का
(ix) (ग) कीदृशे
(x) (घ) केन

प्रश्न 6.
पर्याय पदानि मेलयत-(पर्यायवाची पदों को मिलाइए-)

उत्तरम्:
(i) शालीना
(ii) परिपूता
(iii) सहजा
(iv) प्रकृतिः
(v) चक्षुषा
(vi) मैत्री
(vii) देशाटनम्
(viii) समम्
(ix) संसारे
(x) कुटुम्बम् (
xi) कुलिशात्।

पाठ का परिचय (Introduction of the Lesson)
प्रस्तुत कविता आधुनिक कविकुलशिरोमणि डॉ० रमाकान्त शुक्ल द्वारा रचित काव्य ‘भारतजनताऽहम्’ से साभार उद्धृत है। इस कविता में कवि भारतीय जनता के सरोकारों, विविध कौशलों, विविध रुचियों आदि का उल्लेख करते हुए बताते हैं कि भारतीय जनता की क्या-क्या विशेषताएँ हैं।

पाठ-शब्दार्थ एवं सरलार्थ |
(क) अभिमानधना विनयोपेता, शालीना भारतजनताऽहम्।
कुलिशादपि कठिना कुसुमादपि, सुकुमारा भारतजनताऽहम्॥
शब्दार्थ : अभिमान-स्वाभिमान। विनय-उपेता-नम्रता से भरी हुई। शालीना-अच्छे गुणों वाली। भारतजनता-भारतीय जनता। कुलिशात्-वज्र से। कठिना-कठोर। सुकुमारा-अतीव कोमल।।
सरलार्थ:-स्वाभिमान रूपी धन वाली, विनम्रता से परिपूर्ण (भरी हुई), अच्छे स्वभाव वाली मैं भारत की जनता हूँ। वज्र से भी कठोर, फूल से भी अधिक कोमल मैं भारत की जनता हूँ।

(ख) निवसामि समस्ते संसारे, मन्ये च कुटुम्बं वसुन्धराम्।
प्रेयः श्रेयः च चिगोम्युभ्यं, सुविवेका भारतजनताऽहम्॥
शब्दार्थ : निवसामि-निवास करती हूँ। समस्ते-सारे। संसारे-संसार में। मन्ये-मानती हूँ। कुटुम्बम्-परिवार (को) प्रेयः-भौतिक सुख को। श्रेयः-आध्यात्मिक सुख को। चिनोमि-चुनती हूँ। उभयम्-दोनों को। सुविवेका-विवेकशील (विवेक बुद्धि वाली)।
सरलार्थः-मैं सारे संसार में निवास करती हूँ और पूरी धरती को परिवार मानती हूँ। रुचिकर और। कल्याणकारी दोनों प्रकार की वस्तुओं को चुनती हूँ। मैं विवेकशील भारत की जनता हूँ।

(ग) विज्ञानधनाऽहं ज्ञानधना, साहित्यकला-सङ्गीतपरा।
अध्यात्मसुधातटिनी-स्नानैः, परिपूता भारतजनताऽहम्॥
शब्दार्थ : विज्ञानधना-विज्ञान रूपी धन वाली। ज्ञानधना-ज्ञान रूपी धन वाली। परा-निपुण। अध्यात्म सुधातटिनी-अध्यात्म के अमृत की नदी (में)। स्नानैः-स्नान करने से। परिपूता-पवित्र।
सरलार्थ :-मैं विज्ञान रूपी धन वाली, ज्ञान रूपी धन वाली हूँ। मैं साहित्य, कला और संगीत में निपुण हूँ। मैं अध्यात्म रूपी अमृतमयी नदी में स्नान करने से पूर्ण पवित्र भारत की जनता हूँ।

(घ) मम गीतैर्मुग्धं समं जगत्, मम नृत्यैर्मुग्धं समं जगत्।।
मम काव्यैर्मुग्धं समं जगत्, रसभरिता भारतजनताऽहम्॥
शब्दार्थ : मम-मेरे गीतैः-गीतों से। मुग्धम्-मोहित है। समम्-सारा। जगत्-संसार। नृत्यैः-नृत्यों (नाच) से। काव्यैः-कविताओं से। रसभरिता-रस से भरी हुई। भारतजनता- भारत की जनता।।
सरलार्थः-मेरे गीतों से सारा संसार मोहित है, मेरे नृत्यों से सारा संसार मोहित है। मेरे काव्यों (कविताओं) से सारा संसार मोहित है। मैं रस (आनन्द के रस) से भरी (परिपूर्ण) हुई भारत की जानता हूँ।

(ङ) उत्सवप्रियाऽहं श्रमप्रिया, पदयात्रा-देशाटन-प्रिया।
लोकक्रीडासक्ता वर्धेऽतिथिदेवा, भारतजनताऽहम्॥
शब्दार्थ : उत्सवप्रिया-उत्सवों से प्रेम करने वाली। श्रमप्रिया-मेहनत से प्रेम करने वाली। पदयात्रा-पैदल यात्रा। देशाटन-प्रिया-देश के भ्रमण से प्रेम करने वाली। लोकक्रीडासक्ती-जनता के खेलों पर आकर्षित। वर्धे-बढ़ाती हूँ। अतिथिदेवा-अतिथि को देवता की तरह मानने वाली।
सरलार्थ:-मैं उत्सवों से प्रेम करने वाली, परिश्रम (मेहनत) से प्रेम करने वाली, पद (पैदल की) यात्राओं तथा देश में भ्रमण से प्रेम करने वाली हूँ। मैं प्रजाओं (लोक) के खेलों पर मोहित, अतिथियों को देवता की तरह समझने वाली भारत की जनता हूँ।

(च) मैत्री मे सहजा प्रकृतिरस्ति, नो दुर्बलतायाः पर्यायः।
मित्रस्य चक्षुषा संसार, पश्यन्ती भारतजनताऽहम्॥
शब्दार्थ : मैत्री-मित्रता। मे-मेरी। सहजा-सामान्य। नः (न)-नहीं। दुर्बलतायाः-कमजोरी का।। पर्यायः-पर्यायवाची (दूसरा नाम)। मित्रस्य-मित्र की। चक्षुषा-आँखों से। संसाराम्-संसार को। पश्यन्ती-देखती हुई (देखने वाली)। अहम्-मैं।
सरलार्थ:-मित्रता मेरी सामान्य आदत (स्वभाव) है, यह मेरी दुर्बलता (कमज़ोरी) का पर्याय नहीं है। मैं मित्र की दृष्टि से संसार को देखती हुई भारत की जानता हूँ।

(छ) विश्वस्मिन् जगति गताहमस्मि, विश्वस्मिन् जगति सदा दृश्ते।
विश्वस्मिन् जगाति करोमि कर्म, कर्मण्या भारतजनताऽहम्॥
शब्दार्थ: विश्वस्मिन्-सारे जगति-संसार में गता-गई हुई। अहमस्मि-मैं हूँ। सदा-हमेशा। दृश्ये-देखती हूँ। कर्म-काम को। करोमि-करती हूँ। कर्मण्या-कर्म से युक्त (कर्मशील)।
सरलार्थः-मैं इस सम्पूर्ण विश्व में गई हुई हूँ. मैं इसे सम्पूर्ण विश्व को सदा देखती हूँ। मैं इस सम्पूर्ण विश्व में कार्य (कर्म) करती हूँ, मैं कर्मशील (कार्य करने वाली) भारत की जनता हूँ।

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit Chapter 7 भारतजनताऽहम् appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Checkout updated NCERT Extra Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers for CBSE exam. We have included these questions for extra pracitce and help with the concepts. NCERT Science Book Class 8 Extra Questions with Answers will build strong foundation for Class 8 science and higher clases.

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science NCERT

Here is the list of Extra Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers based on latest NCERT syllabus prescribed by CBSE.

• Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 2 Microorganisms: Friend and Foe Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 4 Materials: Metals and Non-Metals Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 5 Coal and Petroleum Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 6 Combustion and Flame Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 11 Force and Pressure Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 12 Friction Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 13 Sound Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 15 Some Natural Phenomena Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 16 Light Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 17 Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions
• Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions

The post Extra Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit Chapter 10 नीतिनवनीतम्

अभ्यासः (Exercise)
प्रश्न 1.
अधोलिखितानि प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि एकपदेन लिखत-(निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर एक पद में लिखिए)
(क) नृणां संभवे कौ क्लेशं सहेते?
(ख) कीदृशं जलं पिबेत्?
(ग) नीतिनवनीतम् पाठः कस्मात् ग्रन्थात् सङ्कलित?
(घ) कीदृशीं वाचं वदेत्?
(ङ) उद्यानम् कैः निनादैः रम्यम्?
(च) दु:खं किं भवति?
(छ) आत्मवशं किं भवति?
(ज) कीदृशं कर्म समाचरेत्?
उत्तरम्:
(क) मातापितरौ
(ख) वस्त्रपूतम्
(ग) मनुस्मृतेः
(घ) सत्यपूताम्
(ङ) मृगगणद्विजैः
(च) परवशम्
(छ) सुखम्
(ज) मन:पूतम्

प्रश्न 2.
अधोलिखितानि प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि पूर्णवाक्येन लिखत-(निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर पूर्ण वाक्य में लिखिए)
(क) पाठेऽस्मिन् सुखदु:खयोः किं लक्षणम् उक्तम्?
(ख) वर्षशतैः अपि कस्य निष्कृतिः कर्तुं न शक्या?
(ग) “त्रिषु तुष्टेषु तपः समाप्यते” – वाक्येऽस्मिन् त्रयः के सन्ति?
(घ) अस्माभिः कीदृशं कर्म कर्तव्यम्?
(ङ) अभिवादनशीलस्य कानि वर्धन्ते?
(च) सर्वदा केषां प्रियं कुर्यात्?
उत्तरम्:
(क) पाठेऽस्मिन् सुखदु:खयोः लक्षणमस्ति-परवशं सर्वं दु:खम् आत्मवशं च सर्वं सुखम्।
(ख) वर्षशतैः अपि मातापितरौ नृणां सम्भवे यं क्लेशं सहेते तस्य निष्कृतिः कर्तुं न शक्या।
(ग) “त्रिषु तुष्टेषु तपः समाप्यते- वाक्येऽस्मिन त्रयः माता-पिता-आचार्याः सन्ति।
(घ) यत् कर्म कुर्वतः अस्य आत्मनः परितोष: स्यात् तत् कर्म अस्माभिः कर्तव्यम्।
(ङ) अभिवादशीलस्य आयुः, विद्या, यशः बलञ्च एतानि चत्वारि वर्धन्ते।
(च) सर्वदा माता-पिता-आचार्याणां प्रियं कुर्यात्।।

प्रश्न 3.
स्थूलपदान्यवलम्बय प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत-(स्थूल पद का अवलम्बन करते हुए प्रश्न निर्माण कीजिए-)
(क) वृद्धोपसेविनः आयुर्विद्या यशो बलं न वर्धन्ते।
(ख) मनुष्य सत्यपूतां वाचे वदेत्।
(ग) त्रिषु तुष्टेषु सर्वं तपः समाप्यते।
(घ) मातापितारौ नृणां सम्भवे भाषया क्लेशं सहेते।
(ङ) तयोः नित्यं प्रियं कुर्यात्।।
उत्तरम्:
(क) कस्य आयुर्विद्या यशो बलं न वर्धन्ते?
(ख) मनुष्यः कीदृशीम् वाचे वदेत्?
(ग) त्रिषु तुष्टेषु सर्वं किम् समाप्यते?
(घ) कौ नृणां सम्भवे भाषया क्लेशं सहेते?
(ङ) कयोः नित्यं प्रियं कुर्यात्?

प्रश्न 4.
संस्कृतभाषयां वाक्यप्रयोगं कुरुत-(संस्कृत भाषा में वाक्य प्रयोग कीजिए-)
(क) विद्या
(ख) तपः
(ग) समाचरेत्
(घ) परितोषः
(ङ) नित्यम्
उत्तरम्:
(क) अभिवादनशीलस्य विद्या वर्धते।।
(ख) मातापितरौ स्वपुत्रस्य पालने तपः कुरुतः।
(ग) मनसा विचार्य एवं कर्म समाचरेत्।
(घ) शुद्धाचरणेन परितोषः भवति।
(ङ) जनैः नित्यं शुद्धाचरणं कर्तव्यम्।।

प्रश्न 5.
शुद्धवाक्यानां समक्षम् ‘आम्’ अशुद्धवाक्यानां समक्षं च नैव’ इति लिखत-(शुद्ध वाक्य के सामने ‘आम्’ और अशुद्ध वाक्य के सामने ‘नैव’ लिखिए-)
(क) अभिवादनशीलस्य किमपि न वर्धते।
(ख) मातापितरौ नृणां सम्भवे कष्टं सहेते।
(ग) आत्मवशं तु सर्वमेव दु:खमस्ति।
(घ) येन पितरौ आचार्यः च सन्तुष्टाः तस्य सर्वं तपः समाप्यते।
(ङ) मनुष्यः सदैव मनः पूतं समाचरेत्।।
(च) मनुष्यः सदैव तदेव कर्म कुर्यात् येनान्तरात्मा तुष्यते।
उत्तरम्:
(क) नैव
(ख) आम्
(ग) नैव
(घ) आम्
(ङ) आम्
(च) आम्

प्रश्न 6.
समुचितपदेन रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत-(समुचित पदों से रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए-)
(क) मातापित्रे: तपसः निष्कृति …………………….. कर्तुमशक्या। (दशवर्षेरपि/षष्टिः वर्षेरपि/वर्षशतैरपि)।
(ख) नित्यं वृद्धोपसेविन: …………………….. वर्धन्ते (चत्वारि/पञ्च/षट्)।
(ग) त्रिषु तुष्टेषु …………………….. सर्वं समाप्यते (जप:/तप/कर्म)।
(घ) एतत् विद्यात् …………………….. लक्षणं सुखदु:पयोः। (शरीरेण/समासेन/विस्तारेण)
(ङ) दृष्टिपूतम् न्यसेत् ……………………..। (हस्तम्/पादम्/मुखम्)
(च) मनुष्यः मातापित्रो: आचार्यस्यय च सर्वदा …………………….. कुर्यात्। (पियम्/अप्रियम्/अकार्यम्)
उत्तरम्:
(क) वर्षशतैरपि
(ख) चत्वारि
(ग) तप
(घ) समासेन
(ङ) पादम्
(च) प्रियम्

प्रश्न 7.
मञ्जूषातः चित्वा उचिताव्ययेन वाक्यपूर्ति कुरुत-(मंजूषा से उचित अव्यय चुनकर वाक्य की पूर्ति कीजिए-)

(क) तयोः …………………….. प्रियं कुर्यात्।
(ख) …………………….. कर्म करिष्यसि। तादृशं फलं प्राप्स्यसि।
(ग) वर्षशतैः …………………….. निष्कृति: न कर्तुं शक्या।
(घ) तेषु …………………….. त्रिषु तुष्टेषु तपः समाप्यते।
(ङ) …………………….. राजा तथा प्रजा।
(च) यावत् सफलः न भवति …………………….. परिश्रमं कुरु।
उत्तरम्:
(क) नित्यं
(ख) यादृशम्
(ग) अपि
(घ) एवं
(ङ) यथा
(च) तावत्

अतिरिक्तः अभ्यासः
प्रश्न 1.
निम्न श्लोकं पठित्वा तदाधारिताना प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि लिखत- (निम्न श्लोक को पढ़कर उस पर आधारित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए-)
(क) अभिवादनशीलस्य नित्यं वृद्धोपसेविनः।
चत्वारि तस्य वर्धन्ते आयुर्विद्या यशो बलम्॥
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत-(एक शब्द में उत्तर दीजिए-)
1. कस्य चत्वारि वर्धन्ते?
2. नित्यं केषां सेवा कर्तव्या?
उत्तरम्:
1. अभिवादनशीलस्य
2. वृद्धाणाम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए-)
1. अभिवादनशीलस्य कानि चत्वारि वर्धन्ते?
2. वृद्धोपसेविन: चतुर्थः कः गुणः वर्धते?
उत्तरम्:
1. अभिवादनशीलस्य आयुः, विद्या, यशः बलञ्च एतानि चत्वारि वर्धन्ते।
2. वृद्धोपसेविन: चतुर्थः गुणः बलं वर्धते।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत-(निर्देश के अनुसार उत्तर दीजिए-)
प्रश्न 1.
श्लोके ‘सदा’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः आगतः?
(क) तस्य
(ख) यशः
(ग) नित्यम्
(घ) बलम्

प्रश्न 2.
चत्वारि तस्य वर्धन्ते।’ अत्र क्रियापदं किम्?
(क) वर्धन्ते
(ख) तस्य
(ग) चत्वारि
(घ) वर्धते
उत्तरम्:
(1) (ग) नित्यम्
(2) (क) वर्धन्ते।

(ख) यं मातापितरौ क्लेशं सहेते सम्भवे नृणाम्।
न तस्य निष्कृतिः शक्या कर्तुं वर्षशतैरपि।
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत-(एक पद में उत्तर दीजिए-)
1. कौ क्लेशं सहेते?
2. कथं मातापितरौ क्लेशं सहेते?
उत्तरम्:
1. मातापितरौ
2. सम्भवे नृणाम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए-)
1. मातापित्रोः क्लेशस्य निष्कृतिः कैः अपि कर्तुं न शक्यते?
उत्तरम्:
1. मातापित्रोः क्लेशस्य निष्कृतिः वर्षशतैः अपि कर्तुं न शक्यते।

III. भाषिक कार्यम् (भाषा-कार्य)
प्रश्न 1.
श्लोके मातापितरौ’ इति कर्तृपदस्य क्रियापदं किम्?
(क) सहेते
(ख) शक्या
(ग) निष्कृतिः
(घ) सम्भवे

प्रश्न 2.
‘न तस्य निष्कृतिः।’ अत्र ‘तस्य’ पदं कस्मै आगतम्?
(क) सम्भवाय
(ख) क्लेशाय
(ग) निष्कृत्यै
(घ) वर्षेभ्चः
उत्तरम्:
(1) (क) सहेते
(2) (ख) क्लेशाय

(ग) दृष्टिपूतं न्यसेत्पादं वस्त्रपूतं जलं पिबेत्।
सत्यपूतां वदेद्वाचं मनः पूतं समाचरेत्॥
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत-(एक पद में उत्तर दीजिए-)
1. कीदृशं जलं पिबेत्?
2. मनः पूतं किं कुर्यात्?
उत्तरम्:
1. वस्त्रपूतम् ।
2. समाचरेत् ।

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत-(पूर्ण वाक्य में उत्तर दीजिए-)
1. कीदृशीं वाचे वदेत्?
2. दृष्टिपूतं किं कुर्यात्?
उत्तरम्:
1. सत्यपूतां वाचे वदेत्।
2. दृष्टिपूतं पादं न्यसेत्।

III. भाषिक कार्यम् (भाषा-कार्य-)
प्रश्न 1.
‘पिबेत्’ इत्यास्मिन् पदे कः लकार:?
(क) लट्
(ख) लोट्
(ग) लङ।
(घ) विधिलिङ

प्रश्न 2.
श्लोके ‘सत्यपूताम्’ इत्यस्य विशेषणस्य विशेष्यपदं किम् अस्ति?
(क) वाचम्
(ख) वदेत्
(ग) मनः
(घ) पूतम्
उत्तरम्:
(1) (घ) विधिलिङ
(2) (क) वाचम्

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखितानि श्लोकानि पठित्वा मञ्जूषायाः सहायतया रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयन् अन्वयं
लिखत- (नीचे लिखे श्लोकों को पढ़कर मञ्जूषा की सहायता से रिक्त स्थानों को भरते हुए अन्वये लिखिए-)
(1) अभिवादनशीलस्य नित्यं वृद्धोपसेविनः।।
चत्वारि तस्य वर्धन्ते आयुर्विद्या यशो बलम्॥
अन्वय : (i) …………………. नित्यं वृद्धपसेविनः (ii) …………………. आयुः (ii) …………………. यशः बलं (च) (iv) …………………. वर्धन्ते।

उत्तरम्:
(i) अभिवादनशीलस्य
(ii) तस्य
(iii) विद्या
(iv) चत्वारि

(2) यं मातापितरौ क्लेशं सहेते सम्भवे नृणाम्।
न तस्य निष्कृतिः शक्या कर्तुं वर्षशतैरपि।
अन्वय : मातापितरौ (i) …………………. सम्भवे यं (ii) …………………. सहेते, तस्य वर्षशतैः अपि (iii) …………………. कर्तुं (iv) …………………. शक्या ( भवन्ति)।

उत्तरम्:
(i) नृणाम्
(ii) क्लेशं
(iii) निष्कृतिः
(iv) न

(3) तयोर्नित्यं प्रियं कुर्यादाचार्यस्य च सर्वदा।
तेष्वेव त्रिषु तुष्टेषु तपः सर्वं समाप्यते॥
अन्वय : तयोः (i) …………………. च सर्वदा नित्यं (ii) …………………. कुर्यात्, तेषु (ii) …………………. एव तुष्टेषु (iv) …………………. तपः समाप्यते।।

उत्तरम्:
(i) आचार्यस्य
(ii) प्रियम्
(iii) त्रिक्षु
(iv) सर्वं

(4) सर्वं परवशं दुःखं सर्वमात्मवशं सुखम्।।
एतद्विद्यात्समासेन लक्षणं सुखदुःखयोः॥
अन्वय : परवंश (i) …………………. दु:खम् आत्मवशं (च) सर्वम् (ii) …………………. (भवति), एतत् (iii) ………………….” सुखदु:खयोः (iv) …………………. विद्यात्।।

उत्तरम्:
(i) सर्वं
(ii) सुखम्
(iii) समासेन
(iv) लक्षणं

(5) यत्कर्म कुर्वतोऽस्य स्यात्परितोषोऽन्तरात्मनः।
तत्प्रयत्नेन कुर्वीत विपरीतं तु वर्जयेत्॥
अन्वय : यत् (i) …………………. कुर्वतः अस्य (ii) …………………. परितोष: स्यात्, तत् (कर्म) (iii) …………………. कुर्वीत (iv) …………………. तु वर्जयेत्।

उत्तरम्:
(i) कर्म
(ii) आत्मनः
(iii) प्रयत्नेन
(iv) विपरीत

(6) दृष्टिपूतं न्यसेत्पादं वस्त्रपूतं जलं पिबेत्।
सत्यपूतां वदेद्वाचं मनः पूतं समाचरेत्॥
अन्वय : (i) …………………. पादं न्यसेत् वस्त्रपूतं (ii) …………………. पिबेत्, (iii) …………………. वाचं वदेत् (iv) …………………. पूतं समाचरेत्।

उत्तरम्:
(i) दृष्टिपूतं
(ii) जलं
(iii) सत्यपूतां
(iv) मनः

प्रश्न 3.
अधोलिखितानि श्लोकानि पठित्वा तदाधारितं भावार्थी मञ्जूषायाः सहायतया सम्पूर्य लिखत-(नीचे लिखे श्लोकों को पढ़कर उन पर आधारित भावार्थ को मञ्जूषा की सहायता से पूरा करके लिखिए-)
(1) अभिवादनशीलस्य नित्यं वृद्धोपसेविनः।
चत्वारि तस्य वर्धन्ते आयुर्विद्या यशो बलम्॥
भावार्थ : ये जनाः सदैव अन्यान् (i) ………………… वृद्धाणाञ्च (ii) ………………… कुर्वन्ति। तेषां सदैव (iii) ………………… विद्या (iv) ………………… बलञ्च एतानि चत्वारि गुणानि वर्धन्ते।

उत्तरम्:
(i) प्रणमन्ति
(ii) सेवाम्,
(iii) आयुः
(iv) यशः

(2) यं मातापितरौ क्लेशं सहेते सम्भवे नृणाम्।
न तस्य निष्कृतिः शक्या कर्तुं वर्षशतैरपि।
भावार्थ : माता च पिता च स्व (i) ………………… उत्पत्तौ पालने-पोषणे च यत् (ii) ………………… सहेते। तस्य क्ले शस्य (iii) ………………… अवतारयितुं (iv) ………………… शतं वर्षाणि पर्यन्तमपि न शक्यन्ते।

उत्तरम्:
(i) सन्तानानाम्
(ii) कष्टम्
(iii) ऋणम्
(iv) सन्ततयः

(3) तयोर्नित्यं प्रियं कुर्यादाचार्यस्य च सर्वदा।।
तेष्वेव त्रिषु तुष्टेषु तपः सर्वं समाप्यते॥
भावार्थ : सन्तानैः छात्रैश्च सर्वदा (i) ………………… माता-पिता-आचार्याणाम् (ii) ………………… कुर्यात्, यतः तेषु त्रिषु एव (iii) ………………… सन्तानानां शिष्याणाञ्च सर्वं (iv) …………………समाप्तं भवति।

उत्तरम्:
(i) प्रतिदिनं
(ii) प्रियं
(iii) सन्तुष्टेषु
(iv) तपः

(4) सर्वं परवशं दुःखं सर्वमात्मवशं सुखम्।
एतद्विद्यात्समासेन लक्षणं सुखदु:खयोः॥
भावार्थ : अस्मिन् संसारे (i) ………………… सर्वं (पूर्णरूपेण) दु:ख भवति एवमेव स्वतन्त्रतायां सर्वं (ii) ………………… वर्तते। एतत् एव (iii) ………………… सुखस्य (iv) ………………… च लक्षणं जानीयात्।।

उत्तरम्:
(i) परतन्त्रतायां
(ii) सुखं
(iii) संक्षेपेण
(iv) दु:खस्य

(5) यत्कर्म कुर्वतोऽस्य स्यात्परितोषोऽन्तरात्मनः।
तत्प्रयत्नेन कुर्वीत विपरीतं तु वर्जयेत्॥
भावार्थ : श्लोककारः कथयति-यत् कर्म (i) ………………… आत्मानं सन्तोषः भवेत् तत्कर्म एव (ii) ………………… प्रयत्नेन कुर्यात्। परं यस्मिन् (iii) ………………… सन्तोषः न स्यात् तत् । (iv) …………………:::: तु कदापि न कर्तव्यम्।

उत्तरम्:
(i) कुर्वन्तम्
(ii) मनुष्यः
(iii) कार्ये
(iv) कर्म

(6) दृष्टिपूतं न्यसेत्पादं वस्त्रपूतं जलं पिबेत्।
सत्यपूतां वदेद्वाचं मनः पूतं समाचरेत्॥
भावार्थ : नीतिकारः कथयति यत् जनः सदैव मार्गे उत्तमरीत्या दृष्ट्वा एव (i) …………………: न्यसेत् एवमेव सः वस्त्रेण शुद्धं कृत्वा एव (ii) ………………… पिबेत्। तथैव सत्येन शुद्ध कृत्वा एव (iii) ………………… वदेत् एवं (iv) ………………… सुविमर्थ्य एवं आचरणं कुयात्।।

उत्तरम्:
(i) स्वपादं :
(ii) जलं
(iii) वाणी
(iv) मनसा

प्रश्न 4.
रेखाकितानां पदानाम् आधारं कृत्वा प्रश्ननिर्माणं कुरुत
(रेखांकित पदों को आधार मानकर प्रश्ननिर्माण कीजिए-)
(1) सर्वं परवशं दु:खम्।।
(2) मनः पूतं समाचरेत्।
(3) चत्वारि तस्य वर्धन्ते।
(4) तयोः नित्यं प्रियं कुयत्।
(5) अभिवादनशीलस्य चत्वारि वर्धन्ते।
(6) आयुः विद्या यशो बलं च वर्धन्ते।
(7) तेषु त्रिषु तुष्टेषु सर्वं तपः समाप्यते।
(8) नित्यं वृद्धोपसेविन: चत्वारि वर्धन्ते।
(9) सर्वं परवशं दु:खम् वर्तते।
(10) सर्वं आत्मवशं सुखम् वर्तते।
(11) तत्प्रयत्नेन कुर्वीत।।
(12) अन्तरात्मनः परितोषः स्यात्।
(13) एतत् सुखदु:खयोः लक्षणम् अस्ति।
(14) नृणां सम्भवे मातापितरौ क्लेशं सहेते।
(15) वस्त्रपूतं जलं पिबेत्।
उत्तरम्:
(1) सर्वं परवशं किम्?
(2) किम् समाचरेत्?
(3) कति तस्य वर्धन्ते?
(4) कयोः नित्यं प्रियं कुर्यात्?
(5) कस्य चत्वारि वर्धन्ते?
(6) किम् विद्या यशो बले च वर्धन्ते?
(7) तेषु कति तुष्टेषु सर्वं किम् समाप्यते?
(8) कदा वृद्धोपसेविन: चत्वारि वर्धन्ते?
(9) सर्वं परवशं किम् अस्ति?
(10) सर्वं कीदृशम् सुखम् वर्तते?
(11) तंत् कथम्/केन कुर्वीत?
(12) कस्य परितोषः स्यात्?
(13) एतत् कयो: लक्षणम् अस्ति?
(14) केषाम् सम्भवे मातापितरौ क्लेशं सहेते?
(15) कीदृशम् जलं पिबेत्?

प्रश्न 5.
निम्न पंक्तीन समुचितं मेलयत- (निम्न पंक्तियों को उचित रूप से मिलाइए-)

उत्तरम्:
(1) (च) आयु:विद्या यशो बलम्।
(2) (ङ) सम्भवे नृणाम्।
(3) (ख) आचार्यस्य च सर्वदा।
(4) (छ) सर्वम् आत्मवशं सुखम्।
(5) (ग) लक्षणं सुखदु:खयोः।
(6) (क) स्यात् परितोषोऽन्तरात्मनः।
(7) (ज). विपरीतं तु वर्जयेत्।
(8) (घ) मनः पूतं समाचरेत्।

प्रश्न 6.
पर्यायपदानि मेलयत-(पर्याय पदों को मिलाइए)

उत्तरम्:
(1) नित्यम्
(2) दु:खम्
(3) नृणाम्
(4) आचार्यस्य
(5) परवशम्
(6) परितोषः
(7) कुर्वीत
(8) पूतम्
(9) वाचाम्
(10) कर्म

पाठ का परिचय (Introduction of the Lesson)
प्रस्तुत पाठ ‘मनुस्मृति’ के कतिपय श्लोकों का संकलन है जो सदाचार की दृष्टि से अत्यन्त महत्त्वपूर्ण है। यहाँ माता-पिता तथा गुरुजनों को आदर और सेवा से प्रसन्न करने वाले अभिवादनशील मनुष्य को मिलने वाले लाभ की चर्चा की गई है। इसके अतिरिक्त सुख-दुख में समान रहना, अन्तरात्मा को आनन्दित करने वाले कार्य करना तथा इसके विपरीत कार्यों को त्यागना, सम्यक् विचारोपरान्त तथा सत्यमार्ग का अनुसरण करते हुए कार्य करना आदि शिष्टाचारों का उल्लेख भी किया गया है।

पाठ-शब्दार्थ एवं सरलार्थ
(क) अभिवादनशीलस्य नित्यं वृद्धोपसेविनः।
चत्वारि तस्य वर्धन्ते आयुर्विद्या यशो बलम्॥
शब्दार्थ : अभिवादनशीलस्य-प्रणाम करने के स्वभाव वाले। नित्यम्-प्रतिदिन। वृद्धोपसेविनः-बड़ों (बुजुर्गों) की सेवा करने वाले के। चत्वारि-चार (चीजें) तस्य-उसकी। वर्धन्ते-बढ़ती हैं। यशः-नाम।
सरलार्थः-अभिवादनशील (प्रणाम करने की आदत वाले) तथा प्रतिदिन (सदैव) वृद्धों (बुजुर्गों) की सेवा करने वाले व्यक्ति की आयु, विद्या, यश और बल ये चारों चीजें बढ़ती हैं।

(ख) यं मातापितरौ क्लेशं सहेते सम्भवे नृणाम्।
न तस्य निष्कृतिः शक्या कर्तुं वर्षशतैरपि।
शब्दार्थ : यम्-जिस (को)। मातापितरौ-माता और पिता। क्लेशम्-कष्ट को। सहेते-सहते हैं। सम्भवे-जना देने में। नृणाम्-मनुष्यों के। तस्य-उसका। निष्कृतिः-बदला। शक्या-समर्थ होते हैं। कर्तुम्-करने में। वर्षशतैः-सौ वर्षों में। अपि- भी।
सरलार्थ:-मनुष्यों (बच्चों) की उत्पत्ति तथा पालन-पोषण करने में माता-पिता जिस कष्ट को सहते हैं, उसका बदला चुकाने (निराकरण करने) में बच्चा सौ वर्षों में भी समर्थ नहीं हो सकता है।

(ग) तयोर्नित्यं प्रियं कुर्यादाचार्यस्य च सर्वदा।
तेष्वेव त्रिषु तुष्टेषु तपः सर्वं समाप्यते॥
शब्दार्थ : तयोः-उन दोनों का। नित्यम्-प्रतिदिन। कुर्यात्-करना चाहिए। तेषु-उन (के)। त्रिषु-तीनों के। तुष्टेषु-सन्तुष्ट होने पर। तपः-तपस्या। सर्वम्-सारी। समाप्यते-समाप्त (सार्थक) होती हैं।
सरलार्थ:-उन दोनों (माता और पिता) का और आचार्य को सदा प्रतिदिन (सन्तानों द्वारा) प्रिय करना चाहिए। उन तीनों के ही सन्तुष्ट होने पर सारे तप समाप्त (सार्थक) हो जाते हैं।

(घ) सर्वं परवशं दुःखं सर्वमात्मवशं सुखम्।
एतद्विद्यात्समासेन लक्षणं सुखदुःखयोः॥
शब्दार्थ : सर्वम्-सारा। परवशम्-दूसरों के वश में (परतन्त्रता में)। आत्मवशम्-अपने वश में (स्वतन्त्रता में)। एतत्-यह। विद्यात्-जानना चाहिए। समासेन-संक्षेप से। सुखदुःखयोः-सुख-दुःख का।
सरलार्थ:-दूसरों के वेश में सारा दु:ख होता है और अपने वश में सब कुछ सुख होता है। इसे ही संक्षेप से सुख और दुःख का लक्षण जानना चाहिए।

(ङ) यत्कर्म कुर्वतोऽस्य स्यात्परितोषोऽन्तरात्मनः।
तत्प्रयत्नेन कुर्वीत विपरीतं तु वर्जयेत्॥
शब्दार्थ : यत्कर्म-जिस काम को। कुर्वतः-करते हुए। अस्य-इस (का) स्यात्-हो। परितोषः-सन्तोष।। अन्तरात्मनः-आत्मा का। तत्-वह। प्रयत्नेन-प्रयत्न से (कोशिश करके)। कुर्वीत-करना चाहिए। विपरीतम्-उल्टा। तु-तो। वर्जयेत्-छोड़ देना चाहिए।
सरलार्थ:-जिस काम को करते हुए इस (अपनी) आत्मा का सन्तोष हो, उस काम को प्रयत्नपूर्वक करना चाहिए। उससे विपरीत (उल्टा) तो छोड़ देना चाहिए।

(च) दृष्टिपूतं न्यसेत्पादं वस्त्रपूतं जलं पिबेत्।
सत्यपूतां वदेद्वाचं मनः पूतं समाचरेत्॥
शब्दार्थ : दृष्टिपूतम्-आँख से देखकर। न्यसेत्-रखना चाहिए। पादम्-कदम को (पैर को)। वस्त्रपूतम्-कपड़े से छानकर। पिबेत्-पीना चाहिए। सत्यपूताम्-सत्य से परीक्षा करने। वदेत्-बोलना चाहिए। वाचम्-वाणी को। समाचरेत्-आचरण करना चाहिए।
सरलार्थ:-आँख से पवित्र करके (अच्छी तरह देख-भाल करके) पैर रखना चाहिए, कपड़े से छानकर (शुद्ध करके) जल पीना चाहिए। सत्य से पवित्र करके (सत्य से युक्त करके) वाणी बोलनी चाहिए और मन से पवित्र करके (सोच-विचार करके) आचरण-व्यवहार करना चाहिए।

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 8 Sanskrit Chapter 10 नीतिनवनीतम् appeared first on Learn CBSE.

JoSAA Counselling 2019: JoSAA Counselling 2019 has been started from 16th June 2019 from 10:00 AM onwards and the last date to fill choices and locking was June 25 at 5:00 PM, 2019. Round 1 results are announced as counseling has been completed. Also, the top 20 percentiles for IITs, NITs, IITs, GFTIs has also been published, candidates can download it from this Post. Joint Seat Allocation Authority (JoSAA) has been set up by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) to regulate and manage the seat allocation in around 100 institutes all over the nation. JoSAA seat allocation for IITs, NITs, IIITs, IIEST, and GFTIs. on undergoing through JoSAA Counselling students will get admission into top Engineering and Technical Colleges.

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