NCERT Solutions for Class 11 History Chapter 1 From the Beginning of Time

Class 11 History Chapter 1 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Look at the diagram showing the positive feedback mechanism on page 13. (See NCERT Textbook). Can you list the inputs that went into tool making? What were the processes that were strengthened by tool making?

Answer:
After going through the positive feedback mechanism following points can be inferred:

(a) Inputs that helped in tool making:

• Increased brain size and capacity of brain
• Upright walking
• Visual surveillance long distance
• Walking while foraging and hunting.

(b) The processes that were strengthened by tool making:

• Upright walking
• Increase in size and capacity of brain
• Visual surveillance, long distance walking while foraging and hunting.

Question 2.
Humans and mammals such as monkeys and apes have certain similarities in behaviour and anatomy. This indicates that humans have possibly evolved from the . apes. List these resemblances in two columns under the headings of

(a) behaviour and
(b) anatomy.

Are there any differences that are noteworthy?
Answer:
Similarities
(a) Behaviour:

(b) Anatomy:

Question 3.
Discuss the arguments advanced in favor of the regional continuity model of human origins. Do you think it provides a convincing explanation of the archaeological evidence? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
According to the Regional Continuity Model, the Homo sapiens evolved in different regions at different rates into modern humans. So there was a variation in the first appearance of modern humans in different parts of the world. It was based on the regional differences in the features of present day humans. The advocates of this view found that the dissimilarities are due to the differences between the Homo erectus and Homo heidelbergensis populations of the same regions.
The Regional Continuity Model does not give a convincing explanation of the archaeological evidence.

Question 4.
Which of the following do you think is best documented in the archaeological record: (a) gathering, (b) tool making and (c) use of fire?
Answer:
Tool making is documented in the archaeological record.

Question 5.
Discuss the extent to which: (a) hunting and (b) constructing shelters would have been facilitated by the use of language. What other modes of communication could have been used for these activities?
Answer:

(a) Use of language helped hunting activities of human beings in numerous ways:

• Now people are in a position of organizing and managing hunting expeditions
• They are now free to exchange their ideas about different animals in different regions.
• They could now discuss the nature and behavior of animals.
• They could now discuss regarding the types of tools to be used.

(b) Language helped in constructing shelters for early humans in the following ways:

• Now people could discuss regarding secure and safe places for the construction of shelters.
• Now people could gather information about the materials used in the construction of shelter.
• Information regarding resources in and around their surroundings can be easily obtained.
• They were now in a position to discuss the means to protect their shelters in severe conditions.

Other modes: Signs, symbols, cave paintings, engraving on walls and on the ceilings of caves were the other modes of communication used for various activities

Question 6.
Choose any two developments each from Timelines 1 and 2 at the end of the chapter and indicate why these are significant.

Answer:
Developments from Timeline-1

• The evidence of the first Hominids was found about 5.6 mya. The Hominids evolved from Hominoids. They had some common features. Hominids had larger brain than Hominoids. Hominids had an upright posture and bipedal locomotion. There was a marked difference in regard to hand. It helped them in use of tools.
• Around 2.5 mya, large parts of the earth were covered with snow. There were major changes in the environment. It led to expansion of grassland.

Developments from Timeline-2

• Around 200,000 years ago, the evolution of the voice box took place. After the evolution of voice box, now the man was about to speak and express his views.
• About 27,000 years ago, the earliest evidence of figurines made of fired clay was also found. The invention of sewing machines made the life of people more comfortable.

Class 11 History Chapter 1 More Questions Solved

Class 11 History Chapter 1 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which sources enable us to understand the history of early humans?
Answer:
The sources which enable us understand the history of early humans are stone tools, fossils, etc.

Question 2.
What do you know about Carl Fuhlrott?
Answer:
Carl Fuhlrott was a teacher and natural historian in Germany, Dusseldorf. He was handed over a skull and some skeletal fragments of early humans by workmen who were engaged in quarrying for limestone in the Neander valley region in August 1856.

Question 3.
Name the book published by Charles Darwin. When was it published and what did he argue in it?
Answer:
The book published by Charles Darwin was ‘ On the Origin of Species’. It was published on 24 November, 1859. In it, he argued about the evolution of mankind.

Question 4.
Define ‘Fossils’.
Answer:
The word ‘Fossils’ is used to describe the remains of very old plants, human beings or animals which have left their marks on the rock. These remains are preserved for many years.

Question 5.
What are the two differences between Hominids and Hominoids?
Answer:
The differences between Hominids and Hominoids are as follows:

• Hominoids have a smaller brain as compared to Hominids.
• Hominids have an upright posture and bipedal locomotion while Hominoids are quadrupeds.

Question 6.
Write any two evidences that Hominoids have African origin.
Answer:
Evidences which suggest that Hominoids have African origin are:

• A group of African apes is closely related to Hominoids.
• Early Hominoids have been found in East Africa dated back to 5.6 mya.

Question 7.
To which family does Hominids belong to?
Answer:
Hominids belong to Hominidae family. This family belongs to all forms of human beings existing on the earth.

Question 8.
Describe in brief the distinctive features of Hominids.
Answer:
The distinctive features of Hominids are as follows:

• They have large brain size.
• They have bipedal locomotions and upright posture.

Question 9.
How will you differentiate Hominoids from monkeys?
Answer:
Hominoids are different from monkeys in following ways:

• Hominoids have a larger body.
• They do not have tails like monkeys.
• There is a longer period of development and dependency amongst Hominoids.

Question 10.
What are ‘Genus’? Name two important genus of Hominids.
Answer:
Hominids are divided into different branches. They are known as genus. Two different genus of Hominids are Australopithecus and Homo.

Question 11.
Define ‘Species’. How human species are differentiated from each other?
Answer:
The term ‘Species’ is used to describe the group of organisms that can produce fertile offsprings. Human species are differentiated from each other on the basis of the structure of their bones.

Question 12.
When did glaciation phase come into being? What were its impact?
Answer:
The glaciation phase is literally known as Ice Age. It came into being around 2.5 mya.
Impact:

• Temperature started decreasing.
• Grassland began to expand at the cost of forests.

Question 13.
How have the fossils of human species been classified?
Answer:
The fossils of human species have been classified by the scientists into three categories. These are:

• Homo habilis
• Homo erectus
• Homo sapiens.

Question 14.
Name two places where the fossils of Homo habilis have been discovered.
Answer:
The places where the fossils of Homo habilis have been discovered are:

• Omo (Ethiopia)
• Olduvai Gorge (Tanzania)

Question 15.
Where were the fossils of earlier Homo erectus found?
Answer:
They were found at following sites:

• Kenya
• Modjokerto
• Sangiran
• Java

Question 16.
Give two examples where the names of the fossils are derived from. (HOTS)
Answer:

• Homo heidelbergensis: The species of Homo heidelbergensis have been discovered from German city Heidelberg.
• Homo neanderthalensis: Its species have been found in Neander valley, Dusseldorf, a German city.

Question 17.
The fossils of which Homo heidelbergensis have been widely distributed and where they are found? (HOTS)
Answer:
The fossils of Homo heidelbergensis have been widely distributed. They are found in different parts of Africa, Asia and Europe.

Question 18.
Write any two differences between Australopithecus and Homo.
Answer:
Australopithecus and Homo are different from each other on account of the following reasons:

• Australopithecus has a smaller brain as compared to Homo.
• Australopithecus has heavier jaws and larger teeth as compared to Homo who have smaller jaws and teeth.

Question 19.
Who were Primates? When did they come into existence?
Answer:
Primates were a sub-group of a large group of mammals, i.e. monkeys, apes and humans. The Primates came into existence in about 36 mya.

Question 20.
Write any two evidences to show that Hominids originated in Africa.
Answer:
The following evidences suggest that Hominids originated in Africa:

• African monkeys are closely related to Hominids.
• Their earlier removing has been traced from Eastern Africa.

Question 21.
What is meant by Australopithecus? Why are the earliest human called so?
Answer:
The word Australopithecus is derived from Latin word ‘austral’ means southern and a Greek word ‘pithekos’ which means ‘apes’. Hence, the word means southern apes (Southern Monkey). The earliest human is called so because he resembles them.

Question 22.
When and where were the traces of earliest Australopithecus found?
Answer:
The traces of earliest Australopithecus were found from Olduvai Gorge by Mary and Louis Leaky on 17th July, 1959.

Question 23.
How did early man obtain his food?
Answer:
Early man obtained his food by gathering, hunting and fishing.

Question 24.
When did hunting begin? From where do we get its earliest evidence?
Answer:
Hunting began about 500,000 years ago. We get the earliest evidence of hunting from Boxgrove in Southern England.

Question 25.
Where is Dolni Vestonice? Why is it famous for?
Answer:
Dolni Vestonice is in Czech Republic. It is famous for hunting sites.

Question 26.
What are artefacts?
Answer:
Artefacts are man-made objects, which include several kinds of articles such as tools, paintings, sculptures, etc.

Question 27.
When were the caves and open-air sites began to be used? From where do we get its evidence?
Answer:
The caves and open-air sites began to be used around between 400,000 and 125,000 years ago. We get evidence of such sites from Lazaret cave in Southern France.

Question 28.
What are the advantages of living in caves? (VBQ)
Answer:
Advantages of living in caves are given below:

• It helped in protecting men from severe cold.
• It also protected them from the predators.
• It also protected them from the danger of wild animals.

Question 29.
From where do we find the pieces of baked clay and burnt bone along with stone tools?
Answer:
We find the pieces of baked clay and burnt bones from Chesowanja, Kenya and Swartkrans. These tools are dated between 1.4 and 1 mya.

Question 30.
How did the discovery of fire help early man?
Answer:
The discovery of fire helped early man in the following ways:

• It helped him cook his food.
• It helped him protect from the danger of wild animals.

Question 31.
From where do we get the earliest evidence for making and use of stone tools? Who were earliest tool makers?
Answer:
We get the earliest evidence for making and use of stone tools from two sites:

• Ethiopia
• Kenya

The Australopithecus were the first or earliest stone tool makers.

Question 32.
How do we notice the improvement in the technique for making tools for hunting wild animals? When did such changes occur?
Answer:
With the use of stone tools like spear throwers, bow and the arrow, we notice the improvement in technique for making tools. Such changes occurred around 35,000 years ago.

Question 33.
When did spoken language emerge?
Answer:
Spoken language emerged as early as 2 mya. Its emergence has been seen closely connected with art.

Question 34.
Where is Altamira cave site? Who brought these caves into notice and when?
Answer:
Altamira cave site is in Spain. The Altamira caves were brought into notice by Marcelino sanz de Sautuola and his daughter, Maria. The site came into notice in November 1879.

Question 35.
Name a few places where cave painting depicting the pictures of animals have been found.
Answer:
The cave painting depicting the pictures of animals such as bison, horses, deer, ma mmoths, lions, panthers, bear, owls, etc. have been found in Lascaux and Chauvet (Both in France) and in Altamira (in Spain).

Question 36.
Define the concept of‘Anthropology’.
Answer:
It is a branch of science which deals with human culture and evolutionary aspects of human biology.

Question 37.
Who was Jame Woodbum?
Answer:
Jame Woodbum was a famous anthropologist. He gave a new insight to Hadza group in 1960.

Question 38.
Where did Hadza group live? Write any two features.
Answer:
The Hadza group lived around Lake Eyasi.
Features

• They were mainly hunters.
• They never claimed over land as its resources.

Question 39.
What is Ethnography?
Answer:
The study of contemporary ethnic groups is called Ethnography. It deals with examination of their modes of livelihood, rituals, customs and traditions.

Question 40.
When did people of different corners of the world begin to learn domestication of plants and animals?
Answer:
People of different corners of the world began to learn domestication of animals and plants around between 10,000 and 4,500 years ago.

Question 41.
When did last Ice age come to an end? What was its result?
Answer:
About 13,000 years ago, last Ice age came to an end. As a result of this favourable conditions for growing crops prevailed.

Question 42.
Give reasons to prove why the people living in Hadza did not face food scarcity.
Answer:
People living in Hadza did not face any food scarcity due to abundance of food items such as tuber, berries, fruits, etc.

Question 43.
What were the dietary habits of Hadza group?
Answer:
The dietary habits of Hadza group included wild tubes, meat and honey.

Question 44.
List the wild animals hunted and consumed as meat by Hadza groups.
Answer:
Hadza groups consumed the meat of zebra, giraffe, buffalo, shinoceor and waterduck, baboon, lion, leopard, hare and many more.

Class 11 History Chapter 1 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you know about Java men? Why did scientists call them “The Erect Ape Men”?
Answer:
The remains of Java men were first discovered by a Dutch surgeon in Java. It included-a skull, a thigh bone and two teeth. The study of these remains depicts that the Java was half ape and half man. It is because his head (Java man’s head) was set forward of the neck. The Java men were also called “The Erect Ape Men” by the scientists because they could walk erect.

Question 2.
Who were Hominoids? When did they come into existence? Write their two unique characteristics.
Answer:

(i) Hominoids were the subgroup of primates.
(ii) They came into existence about 24 mya.

Characteristics
(a) They had smaller brain.
(b) They were unable to walk erect.

Question 3.
Name two most important genus of Hominids. How they are different from each other?
Answer:
Two most important genus of Hominids are, Australopithecus and Homo.
The major differences between them can be identified by the size of their brain, jaws and teeth. It may be summed up as:

(i) Australopithecus have a smaller brain as compared to Homo.
(ii) Australopithecus have also larger jaws and teeth as compared to Homo.

Question 4.
When and where do we get earliest evidence of bipedalism? What are the benefits of bipedalism? (HOTS)
Answer:
We get the earliest evidence of bipedalism from Laetoli Tanzania. They are also obtained from Hadar, Ethiopia. They are as early as dated back to 3.6 mya.
Benefits of Bipedalism

(i) Bipedalism helped early men to see objects from far off distance.
(ii) It helped themselves in protecting from animals.
(iii) It became easier to distinguish them from others quadalism (Movement of a quadruped).
(iv) Walk erect freed his two arms to carry out different tasks.

Question 5.
What do you know about Replacement and Regional Continuity Models?
Answer:
The Replacement Model supports the view that the modem human beings originated in a single region, i.e. Africa. In support of this view, most of the scholars tried to correlate the anatomical and genetic similarity of modern humans. It indicates that their ancestors belonged to one region and from where they migrated to different parts of the world.

The Regional Continuity Model supports the view that modem humans originated at several regions across Africa, Asia and Europe. To support their view the scholars tried to correlate the anatomical differences of modern humans which indicate that they belonged to different regions.

Question 6.
Write any two features of Homo heidelbergensis and Homo neanderthalensis.
Answer:

Two features of Homo heidelbergensis:

• They had a smaller brain.
• They had hairy growth on their body.

Two features of Homo neanderthalensis:

• They had much larger head,
• Their height was short.

Question 7.
Explain the effects of changing environment around 12,000 years ago.
Answer:
Around 12,000 years ago, there was a change in the climate of the world. There was an increase in the temperature of their environment. It resulted into the development of grasslands in many regions which in turn led to an increase in the number of animals that ate grass like deer, antelope, goat, sheep, cattle, etc.

Question 8.
The tools of earlier humans were made of which materials. Which tools survived the most? Write its uses also.
Answer:
Earlier humans used tools made of materials such as wood, stone and bones. The tools made of stones survived the most.
Uses of Stone Tools: These tools were used:

(i) To cut meat.
(ii) To scrape barks of tree and skins of the animal.
(iii) To chop fruit, roots and wood.

Question 9.
Discuss the difficulties faced by early men to get their food.
Answer:
The early men were food-gatherers not food producers. They faced following difficulties in collecting food:

(i) The danger of wild animals.
(ii) Tools to hunt the animals were not good in quality.
(iii) To hunt animals, they tend to be alert, quick and had a lot of presence of mind.
(iv) They were unable to find which season the fruit ripened.

Question 10.
Where do we get the earliest evidence of planned hunting? What did it depict?
Answer:
We get the earliest evidence of planned hunting from European site Dolni Vestonice, Czech Republic. This site is nearby a river and it is believed that it was deliberately used by people. During the autumn and spring seasons reindeer and horse crossed the river and killed or hunted by early human on a large scale. The selection of such site depicted that the people were well aware about the movement of birds and animals and able to kill (hunt) them in large numbers.

Question 11.
Trace the process of evolution of Homo habilis’s growth. (HOTS)
Answer:
The fossils of Homo habilis are dated back to 2.2 mya to 1.8 mya. Their fossils have been found from Omo (Ethiopia) and Olduvali Gorge (Tanzania). The size of their brain was bigger and were considered more intelligent than Australopithecus. They were able to use their hands dexterously. They were the first to make tools of stone. Their tools helped a lot during their hunting expedition. Their mutual understanding during hunting expeditions led to the growth of language.

Question 12.
How did the use of language prove advantageous in hunting expedition?
Answer:
The use of language proved advantageous in hunting expedition in the following ways:

(i) It helped men in organising hunting expeditions.
(ii) Now they became aware about the nature of animals and discussed how to hunt those particular animals.
(iii) They could collect information about the specific regions where these wild animals resided.
(iv) They could share information regarding tools meant-especially for hunting expedition.

Question 13.
How did the use of language prove valuable in the construction of shelters?
Answer:
The use of language proved helpful in the construction of shelters in following ways:

(i) People could now secure places about their settlement.
(ii) They became aware about resources available in near surroundings.
(iii) They could discuss the ways of pattern of constructing their shelters.
(iv) They could consider the ways and means to protect their shelters from predators and severe storms..

Question 14.
What do you know about cave paintings at Altamira?
Answer:
Altamira is a cave site in Spain. The paintings on the ceiling of the caves were first brought into notice of an amateur archaeologist Marcelino sanz de Sautuola and his daughter Maria in November 1879. Maria suddenly noticed the paintings on ceiling when his father was busy in digging the floor of the cave. She brought these paintings to the notice of his father. At first looking of the picture of oxen, he just laughed, but soon he realised that some sort of paste rather than the paint has been used for painting. Two decades later, his findings were dismissed by European archaeologists on the ground that they did not appear too good to be very old.

Class 11 History Chapter 1 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a description about the origin of human beings.
Answer:
The story about the origin of human beings is very long and complicated. Different views in this regard have been given, and still the process of discoveries is going on. The chronological order of the number of events has changed due to new discoveries and excavations made so far. There is plenty of scope left for excavations. The early human passed through several stages of journey to become a modern man. The various stages which throw light on the story of progress made by man from the very beginning to the present days are given below.

• Primates: The early human came into being in Africa and Asia about 36-24 mya. They constitute a sub-group of a large group of mammals, such as monkeys, apes, and the humans. They had hair on their bodies and different kinds of teeth.
•  Hominoids: They came into being about 24 mya. They had four legs and used to move on their four paws. The first portion of their bodies and legs were quite flexible but were unable to walk erect. Their body was different from the monkeys because they were comparatively larger and had no tail.
• Hominids: They belonged to hominidae family and came into existence about 5.6 • mya. Their earliest fossils were excavated at Laotoli and Hader (both in Africa). It is a clear evidence that they originated in Africa. Their fossils were also found outside Africa.

Question 2.
What do you know about early man’s tools and weapons made by them? Which techniques were used to make these tools?
Answer:
Early man’s tools and weapons were made of stones. Early man used hard stones known as flint, along with other types of stones for making tools and weapons. Flint was the stone that was used for lighting fire. It was also found that these types of stones can be given desired shape. However, the tools that early man used were rough and unpolished. We get the earliest evidence for making and use of these stone tools from Ethiopia and Kenya. The Australopithecus were the first to make and use stone tools.
The stone tools were made by using following techniques:

• Stone on Stone: In this technique, the pebble from which the tool was to be made was held in one hand and the second stone was used to strike off flakes from the first.
•  Pressure Flaking: In this technique, the core was placed on a firm surface. The hammer stone was used on a place of bone or stone that was placed on the core to remove flakes that could be shaped into tools.
• The Punch Blade Technique: In this technique, the top of a larger pebble is removed by using hammer stone to produce a flat surface. This flat surface, thus so produced, is called striking platform. This is then struck using a hammer and a punch made of bone. It then leads to the production of blades. It also leads to formation of knives.

Question 3.
“Undoubtedly the modern man made tremendous progress since coming into being.” Justify the statement. (HOTS)
Answer:
Modern man had several peculiarities which made him different from his predecessors. Modern man is most intelligent in comparison to forefathers on account of the size of his brain. Modern man made tremendous progress. He began to construct his huts in addition to the caves wherein he dwelled earlier. He started to lead a settled life and began practicing agriculture. Now, he does not wander here and there in search of his food. He acquired the knowledge how to cook food and also learnt how to store food grains and consumed it properly. He began to store food grains for his future use or used it when required during the time of natural calamity. He also used much superior tools, which helped him to safeguard himself from the wild predatory more effectively. The invention of needle helped him to wear stitched clothes. The development in the field of art and language made him more superior. So we can conclude that the modern man made great achievements in comparison to his forefathers.

Question 4.
Discuss in detail about the places of residence of early humans.
Answer:

• The early humans lived on the branches of the trees. Between 400,000 and 125,000 years ago, the human beings began to live in caves and open air sites.
• We got the earliest evidence of living in caves from Lazaret cave in southern France. It measured 12 x 4 meters and revealed evidence of two hearths, several fruits, vegetables, seeds, nuts, eggs of animals and fishes.
• Dwelling in caves proved beneficial for him, as he could now protect himself from the danger of wild animals. Living in caves provided him natural refuge from severe stream and cold.
• The early humans began to live or dwell in huts around 125,000 years ago. It proved a significant step in early human’s journey towards progress.
• We get the most significant evidence of the hut constructed by early humans at Terra Amata in Southern France. It was made up of thatch and its roof was made up of wood Reconstruction of hut at Terra Amata stone-flakes scattered on the floor.

Question 5.
Who were the first to use tools? How these tools used by early man were categorized?
Answer:
Australopithecus were the first to use tools. About 35,000 years ago, we came across the evidence of a remarkable improvement in the method of hunting animals. It became clear from the event that a special type of spear was used to hunt animals.
The tools used by early man can be categorized into three types. They are discussed under following heads:

• Hand-axes: They were used for pouncing. In the beginning, they were used without a handle, but later on wooden handle was attached to it. It was made possible to use them with much force.
• Chopper: They were made of heavy stones worked to a sharp edge in one direction only, and were most probably used for chopping meat.
• Flake implements: They were used as knives and scrapers for finer works. For thousands of years of man’s early history the only remains that we find are crude stone tools. These tools are often found lying along the terraces of rivers, or in the huts or caves where early man used to live and roam in search of wild animals. These tools made by him served many purposes such as skimming of dead animals, cutting their flesh, etc.
  About 35,000 years ago new kinds of tools such as spear throwers, bow and arrow came into being.

Question 6.
Distinguish between Homo heidelbergensis and Homo neanderthalensis.
Answer:

Question 7.
How did early man procure his food? Explain.
Answer:
The early man procured his food through a number of ways. Some of the ways are listed below:

Gathering: For his food items, early man was totally dependent on nature. He was a pastoralist nomad, who kept on wandering. In the very beginning, he was a food-gatherer. He gathered eatables from trees and plants. The main food items were seeds, nut, fruit, etc. All these food items could be preserved. There is lack of evidence. The prominent role in food-gathering was played by women and children.

Scavenging: The early man also procured his food through scavenging. They used to obtain food from the carcasses of those animals which had died naturally or had been killed by other larger animals. They were used to eat the meat of small birds, eggs and several kinds of insects.

Hunting: To procure food through hunting was also one of the best methods of obtaining food. Hunting was mainly the domain of menfolk. They used to hunt the small animals individually, but in case of the hunting of large animals, group efforts were the key to success. They hunted wild animals such as wild horses, wild buffaloes, rhinoceros, bear, etc. They used spears and tools made of stone to hunt wild animals. We get the earliest evidences of well planned hunting and butchery of large animals from Boxgrove in Southern England and Schoningen in Germany. About 35,000 years ago, there is some evidence of planned hunting that comes from European sites. One such site of planned hunting is Dolini Vestonice in Czech Republic. This site was situated in close proximity to a river, where a number of animals came to drink water. Horses and reindeers were used to come here to drink and cross the river during autumn and spring migrations. Then they were hunted on large scale, by the early humans who were well aware about their movement.

Fishing: Early man also obtained his food by fishing. They caught fish from rivers and ponds with their hands. Later on hooks and harpoons for catching fishes came into use.

Question 8.
Discuss the progress made by early man in the field of art.
Answer:
The early man was much interested in the field of art. He found that art is a unique
method to express his feelings. So, he tried his hands both in paintings and sculptures.

(i) Paintings: In the very beginning, the early man tried to express every thing which impressed him in his daily life. He was much impressed by seeing (observing) natural beauty, i.e. flora and fauna, the sun, the moon, stars, rivers, etc. and also fond of hunting. Hunting was the part of his daily routine. So he painted many pictures depicting the hunting theme. The paintings depicting hunting theme have been envisaged on the wall of the caves and ceiling on the walls. For example, the caves of Altamira, Lascaux, and Chauvet are specially well known. Altamira caves were discovered by Marcelino sanz de Sautuola and his daughter in 1879.

• Lascaux and Chauvet caves came into limelight in 1894. These caves have plenty of beautiful pictures.
• Most of these paintings are of horses, bison’s, mammoths, bears, leopards, owls, etc. Black, red, yellow and white colors have been widely used for engraving these paintings. A number of questions have been put forward regarding the above mentioned paintings.
• Scholars have different opinions in this regard. Some scholars are of the view that they painted these pictures to beautify the walls and ceilings on the caves while others put forward their argument as they did so to pass their knowledge from one generation to another.

(ii) Sculpture: Small-sized statues were built by early man, representing humans and animals. Most of the human statues were of women and recovered from several places in Europe. These female statues are called Venus goddess.

Class 11 NCERT Chapter 1 Passage Based Questions:

Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Passage 1.
The Discovery of Australopithecus, Olduvai Gorge, 17 July, 1759
The Olduvai Gorge was first ‘discovered’ in the early twentieth century by a German butterfly collector. However, Olduvai has come to be identified with Mary and Louis Leakey, who worked here for over 40 years. It was Mary Leakey who directed archaeological excavations at Olduvai and Laetoli and she made some of the most exciting discoveries. This is what Louis Leakey wrote about one of their most remarkable finds:

That morning I woke with a headache and a slight fever. Reluctantly, I agreed to spend the day in camp. With one of us out of commission, it was even more vital for the other to continue the work, for our precarious seven-week season was running out. So Mary departed for the diggings with Sally and Toots [two of their dogs] in the Land- Rover [a jeep-like vehicle], and I settled back to a restless day off. Some time later-perhaps I dozed off-I heard the Land-Rover coming up fast to camp. I had a momentary vision of Mary stung by one of our hundreds of resident scorpions or bitten by a snake that had slipped past the dogs.

The Land-Rover rattled to a stop, and I heard Mary’s voice calling over and over: “I’ve got him! I’ve got him! I’ve got him!” Still groggy from the headache, I couldn’t make her out. “Got what? Are you hurt?” I asked. “Him, the man! Our man,” Mary said. “The one we’ve been looking for 23 years. Come quick, I’ve found his teeth!”

Questions:

(i) Where were the fossils of Australopithecus discovered? Who discovered it?
(ii) When did they (Australopithecus) originate and become extinct?
(iii) Describe any three features of Australopithecus.

Answers:

(i) The fossils of Australopithecus were discovered from Olduvai Gorge on 17 July, 1759. These fossils were discovered by Mary Leakey, the director of Archaeological Excavation at Olduvai and Laetoli.

(ii) Australopithecus originated in about 5.6 mya and became extinct about 1.3 mya.

(iii) Features of Australopithecus:

• Heavier jaws
• Bigger teeth
• Dwelling on trees.The Hadza

Passage 2.
‘The Hadza are a small group of hunters and gatherers, living in the vicinity of Lake Eyasi, a salt, rift-valley lake…The country of the eastern Hadza, dry, rocky savanna, dominated by thorn scrub and acacia trees…is rich in wild foods. Animals are exceptionally numerous and were certainly commoner at the beginning of the century.

Elephant, rhinoceros, buffalo, giraffe, zebra, waterbuck, gazelle, warthog, baboon, lion, leopard, and hyena are all common, as are smaller animals such as porcupine, hare, jackal, tortoise and many others. All of these animals, apart from the elephant, are hunted and eaten by the Hadza. The amount of meat that could be regularly eaten without endangering the future of the game is probably greater than anywhere else in the world where hunters and gatherers live or have lived in the recent past. Vegetable food-roots, berries, the fruit of the baobab tree, etc.-though not often obvious to the casual observer, is always abundant even at the height of the dry season in a year of drought. The type of vegetable food available is different in the six- month wet season from the dry season but there is no period of shortage. The honey and grubs of seven species of wild bee are eaten; supplies of these vary from season- to-season and from year-to-year.

Sources of water are widely distributed over the country in the wet season but are very few in the dry season. The Hadza consider that about 5-6 kilometres is the maximum distance over which water can reasonably be carried and camps are normally sited within a kilometre of a water course.

Part of the country consists of open grass plains but the Hadza never build camps there. Camps are invariably sited among trees or rocks and, by preference, among both.

The eastern Hadza assert no rights over land and its resources. Any individual may live wherever he likes and may hunt animals, collect roots, berries, and honey and draw water anywhere in Hadza country without any sort of restriction…
In spite of the exceptional numbers of game animals in their area, the Hadza rely mainly on wild vegetable matter for their food. Probably as much as 80 per cent of their food by weight is vegetable, while meat and honey together account for the remaining 20 per cent.

Camps are commonly small and widely dispersed in the wet season, large and concentrated near the few available sources of water in the dry season. There is never any shortage of food even in the time of drought.

Questions

(i) What do you know about Hadza group?

(ii) Describe the dietary habits of Hadza group.

(iii) “People of Hadza group did not face food scarcity during dry season.” Why?

(iv) Why did people of Hadza group not claim their right over land and its produce?

Answers

(i) The people of Hadza group were hunters and gatherers who did claim their right over the land and its produce.

(ii) Their dietary habits comprised:

• Wild tuber (80%)
• Meat and honey (20%)
• They ate the meat of animals such as hare, jackal, hyena, warthog, baboon, gazell, etc. but did not eat the meat of elephant.

(iii) People of Hadza did not face any food scarcity during dry season, because there was no shortage of food articles like berries, tuber, fruits, etc.

(iv) The people of Hadza did not claim their rights over land and its produce because:

• They resided wherever they liked to reside.
• They were free to hunt wild animals.
• Without any restriction, they could collect tuber and honey.

Class 11 History Chapter 1 Map Skills

Question 1.
On the map of Africa mark and locate the sites related to early humans.

(i) Chad
(ii) Sudan
(iii) Ethiopia
(iv) Tanzania
(v) Democratic Republic of Congo
(vi) Mozambique. On the given map of Europe locate the places (sites) from where the fish bones have been found.

Answer:

Question 2.
On the given map of Europe locate the places (sites) from where the fish bones have been found.
Answer:

Class 11 History NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 History Chapter 1 From the Beginning of Time appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Some Natural Phenomena Class 8 Extra Questions Science Chapter 15

Some Natural Phenomena Class 8 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the two natural calamities?
Answer:

• Lightning and
• Earthquake.

Question 2.
Name other natural calamities except lightning and earthquake.
Answer:
Winds, storms and cyclones.

Question 3.
Name the two types of charges.
Answer:

• Positive; and
• Negative.

Question 4.
Mention the interactions of two types of charges.
Answer:
Like charges repel each other while unlike charges attract each other.

Question 5.
Name the device used to protect buildings from lightning.
Answer:
Lightning conductor.

Question 6.
In which direction does the shock waves produced by an earthquake travel?
Answer:
Both on the surface and inside the earth.

Question 7.
What happens when two clouds with unlike charges approach each other?
Answer:
Lightning strikes

Question 8.
Who discovered the static electricity or lightning in clouds and when?
Answer:
Benjamin Franklin in 1752.

Question 9.
What actually causes lightning?
Answer:
Lightning is caused by the accumulation of charges in the clouds.

Question 10.
What happens when amber is rubbed with fur?
Answer:
It develops the capacity to attract light objects.

Question 11.
What is static electricity?
Answer:
The electrical charge reproduced by rubbing two objects is called static electricity.

Question 12.
What happens when a glass rod and silk cloth are rubbed with each other?
Answer:
The glass rod gets positively charged and silk cloth negatively charged.

Question 13.
What is lightning?
Answer:
Lightning is&an electric spark on huge scale.

Question 14.
What are weak zones called?
Answer:
Seismic or fault zones.

Question 15.
How are most earthquakes caused?
Answer:
Most earthquakes are caused by the movement of earth’s plates.

Question 16.
What is a plate?
Answer:
Each fragment of the outermost layer of the earth is called plate.

Question 17.
What is the uppermost layer of the earth called?
Answer:
Crust

Question 18.
How is an earthquake caused?
Answer:
It is caused by a disturbance deep inside the earth’s crust.

Question 19.
What are seismic waves?
Answer:
Waves produced on the Earth’s surface because of tremors.

Question 20.
When and where a major tsunami took place in India?
Answer:
It occurred in the Indian ocean on 26th December 2004.

Question 21.
What are the natural calamities caused by earthquakes?
Answer:
Earthquakes can cause floods, landslides and tsunamis.

Question 22.
Which kind of material is used to transfer charges from one body to another?
Answer:
Metal conductor

Some Natural Phenomena Class 8 Extra Questions Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is lightning? What causes lightning?
Answer:
Lightning is also an electric spark, but on a huge scale. It is caused by the accumulation of charges in the clouds.

Question 2.
What is an electric charge? What are charged objects?
Answer:
When a plastic refill is rubbed with polythene it acquires a small electric charge. Similarly when a plastic comb is rubbed with dry hair, it acquires a small charge. These objects are called charged objects.

Question 3.
What is static charge? How does it differ from electric current?
Answer:
The electric charges generated by rubbing are called static charges. The static charges do not move while charges move in electric current.

Question 4.
What do you mean by electric discharge? How does it occurs?
Answer:
When the negative and positive charges meet, streaks of bright light and sound are produced. This process is called electrical discharge. For example, electric discharge occurring between two or more clouds or between clouds and earth.

Question 5.
What is earthing? What is the application of earthing?
Answer:
The process of transfer of charges from a charged object to the earth is called earthing. It is provided in buildings to protect from electrical shocks due to any leakage of electrical current.

Question 6.
How does electric discharge occur in clouds?
Answer:
At the time of thunder negative charges are accumulated near the clouds and positive charges near the ground. When these charges meet, electric discharge takes place between the ground and clouds. In this process, a large amount of energy is released.

Question 7.
What is lightning conductor? Where is it fixed?
Answer:
Lightning conductor is a device which is used to protect buildings from the danger of lightning. It is fixed at the top of the building.

Question 8.
What is an earthquake? How is it caused?
Answer:
Sudden shaking and trembling of earth is called an earthquake. It is caused mostly due to the movement of earth’s plates inside the crust.

Question 9.
What are fault zones? Name the fault zones in India.
Answer:
Since earthquakes are caused by the movement of plates, the boundaries of the plates are weak zones where earthquakes are more likely to occur. The weak zones are also known as seismic or fault zones.

Question 10.
In India the most threatened areas or fault zones are Kashmir, Western and Central Himalayas, the Indo-Gangetic Plain, Rann of Kutch, etc.
Answer:
Tremors on the earth can also be caused when a volcano erupts, or a meteor hits the earth, or an underground nuclear explosion is carried out.

Question 11.
What are seismic waves? How are these waves recorded?
Answer:
The tremors produce waves on the surface of the earth. These are called seismic waves. These waves are recorded by an instrument called the seismograph.

Some Natural Phenomena Class 8 Extra Questions Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is lightning? How does lightning strike?
Answer:
Lightning is an electric spark, but on a huge scale. It is caused by the accumulation of charges in the clouds.
When two clouds carrying opposite charges come very close to each other, the charges flow with great speed from one cloud to another through the air between them. Consequently, a very bright spark is produced. The spark caused due to the transfer of electric charge between two clouds causes lightning. It can occur when electric charges flow from one part of a cloud to another or from a cloud to the ground. Lightning is accompanied by large amounts of electric charges and very high temperatures. The huge amount of heat produced makes the air expand very suddenly what causes vibration to occur, resulting in a loud sound called thunder.

Question 2.
Explain the process of electric discharge.
Answer:
During the development of a thunderstorm, the air currents move upward while the water droplets move downward. These vigorous movements cause separation of charges. By a process, the positive charges collect near the upper edges of the clouds and the negative charges accumulate near the lower 1 edges. There is accumulation of positive near the ground also. When the magnitude of the accumulated charges becomes very large, the air which is normally a poor conductor of electricity, is no longer able to resist their flow. Finally negative and positive charges meet, producing streaks of bright light and sound called lightning and thunderstorm respectively. This process is known as electric discharge. This can occurs between two or more clouds, or between clouds and the earth.

Question 3.
What safety measures should be taken during lightning and thunderstorm?
Answer:
The following safety measures are advisable to be adopted to protect from lightning and thunderstorm:

• No open place is safe. A house or a building is a safe place. If travelling by car or by bus, it is safe to stay inside with windows and doors of the vehicle shut.
• If we are outside, the following things are important to be kept in mind:
  • Open vehicles, like motorbikes, tractors, construction machinery, fields, tall trees, shelters in parks, elevated places do not protect us from lightning strikes.
  • Carrying an umbrella is not at all a good idea during thunderstorms.
  • If no shelter is available and we are in an open field, we should keep away from all trees. We should stay away from poles or other metal objects. We should not lie on the ground. Sitting in a pose as given in the Fig. 15.8 is advisable.
• If we are inside the house, we should take care as advised further:
  Lightning can strike telephone cords, electrical wires and metal pipes. During a thunderstorm, contact with these should be avoided.
  It is safer to use mobile phones and cordless phones. However, it is not wise to call up a person with a wired phone. Bathing should be avoided. Electrical appliances should be unplugged.

Question 4.
What is a lightning conductor? How does it work?
Answer:

Lightning conductor is a device used to protect buildings from the effect of lightning. A metallic rod, taller than the building, is installed in the walls of the buildings during its construction. One end of the rod is kept out in the air and the other is buried deep in the ground as shown in the figure. The rod provides easy route in the transfer of electric charge to the ground.
The metal columns used during construction, electrical wires and water pipes in the buildings also protect us to an extent. But we should not touch them during thunderstorm.

Question 5.
What is an earthquake? What causes an earthquake?
Explain.
Answer:
An earthquake is a sudden shaking or trembling of the earth. It lasts for a very short time. It is caused by a disturbance deep inside the earth’s crust.
We know that tremors are caused by the disturbance deep down inside the uppermost layer of the earth called crust (Fig. 15.10). The outermost layer of the earth is fragmented. Each fragment is called a plate (Fig. 15.11). These plates are in continual motion. When they brush one another, or a plate goes under another due to collision (Fig. 15.12), they cause disturbance in the earth’s crust. It is this disturbance that shows up as an earthquake on the surface of the earth.

Question 6.
What are the measures we should adopt to protect against an earthquake?
Answer:
We know that earthquakes cannot be predicted. It is, therefore, important that we should take necessary precautions to protect ourselves all the time as given below:

• In seismic zones it is advisable to make the structure of the buildings simple so that it is ‘Quake Safe’. Modern building technology can make it possible.
• In highly seismic areas, the use of mud or timber is better than using heavy construction materials.
• Since some buildings may catch fire, it is necessary that all buildings, especially tall buildings, have fire fighting equipment in working order.
• If we are at home, we should take shelter under a table and stay there till the shaking stops. We should stay away from tall and heavy objects that may fall on us. If we are in bed, we should protect our head with a pillow.
• If we are at outdoors, we should find a clear spot, away from buildings, trees and overhead power lines and drop to the ground. If travelling in a car or a bus, do not come out and drive slowly to a clear spot.

Some Natural Phenomena Class 8 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
If aluminium strips of an electroscope are replaced by plastic strips and a charged body is brought in contact with the metal clip. What will happen?
Answer:
The plastic strips will show repulsion. Charges from the charge body will be transfer from the metal rod to the plastic strips. As a result, similar charges will develop on the plastic strips and repulsion will occur.

Question 2.
If a charged plastic straw is brought near another uncharged plastic straw, what will happen?
Answer:
They will attract each other due to presence of unlike charges on them.

Question 3.
During construction of a building, the lightning conductor was a little shorter and cannot be buried in the ground. Would the lightning conductor be still effective? Explain.
Answer:
No, it will not be effective. Since lightning conductor was not connected properly to the earth, therefore, the charge will not pass through to the earth.

Question 4.
If air and cloud were good conductors of electricity, do you think lightning could occur? Explain.
Answer:
If air and cloud were good conductors of electricity then charge separation will not take place and hence lightning will not occur.

Question 5.
The strips of an electroscope diverge when a charged body is brought in contact with the metal clip.
What will happen to the strips if we gently touch the metal clip with hands?
Answer:
The strips will collapse due to discharging of the charges through our hand.

Question 6.
On a dry day why do you get a slight shock on touching the screen of a television or computer monitor (with picture tube)?
Answer:
Electric charges accumulated on the screen of television or computer monitor get discharge through our body. Thus, we get a slight shock.

Some Natural Phenomena Class 8 Extra Questions Value-Based Questions

Question 1.
Ms Neena, Science teacher of class VIII, taught children how to protect themselves and what to do during an earthquake. She even performed an earthquake drill in school for better understanding in children. Children enjoyed this drill and learned a lot from this.
(a) What to do during an earthquake if you are stuck indoor?
(b) What causes earthquakes?
(c) How you must keep yourself ready for an earthquake?
(d) What values of Ms Neena is shown here?
Answer:
(a) The following must be done if someone had stuck indoor:

• Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls.
• Stay away from anything that could fall such as lightning fixtures or furnitures.
• Get under a sturdy table/desk, hold it firmly and cover your head.
• Stay calm and do not panic. Stay inside until shaking stops and it is safe to go outside.

(b) Earthquakes are usually caused when rock underground suddenly breaks along a fault. This sudden release of energy causes the seismic waves that make the ground shake.
(c) We must keep ourself ready for an earthquake by:

• Having proper knowledge about do’s and don’ts during an earthquake.
• Keeping a disaster kit ready in the time of need.
• Helping needy and injured person after an earthquake.

(d) Ms Neena has future vision, scientific temperament, intelligent, compassionate, caring, dedicated, etc.

Activities and Projects
Question 1.
Open a water tap. Adjust the flow so that it forms a thin stream. Charge a refill. Bring it near the water stream. Observe what happens. Write a short report on the activity.
Answer:
We observe that water stream is attracted towards the charged refill. It is just like as pieces of papers are attracted by the charged comb. It so happens because water stream and the charged refill have dissimilar charges.

Question 2.
Make your own charge detector. Take a paper strip roughly 10 cm x 3 cm. Give it a shape as shown in Fig. 15.7. Balance it on a needle. Bring a charged body near it. Observe what happens. Write a brief report, explaining its working.

Answer:
When we touch one side of the paper with a charged body, paper strips will open. This is due to the two sides of paper strips get the same type of charge from the charged body and they repel each other.

Question 3.
This activity should be performed at night. Go to a room where there is a fluorescent tube light. Charge a balloon. Switch off the tube light so that the room is completely dark. Bring the charged balloon near the tube light. You should see a faint glow. Move the balloon along the length of the tube and observe how the glow changes.
Caution: do not touch the metal parts of the tube or the wires connecting the tube with the mains.
Answer:
Do it yourself at home.

Question 4.
Find out if there is an organisation in your area which provides relief to those suffering from natural disaster. Enquire about the type of help they render to the victims of earthquakes. Prepare a brief report on the problems of the earthquake victims.
For more information on these topics, visit:

• science.howstuffworks.com/lightning.htm
• science.howstuffworks.com/earthquake.htm

Answer:
Do it yourself.

I. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Choose the correct option.
Question 1.
Like charges
(a) attract each other
(b) repel each other
(c) no interaction takes place
(d) none of these

Question 2.
Earthquake of which magnitude of the following cause the maximum damage?
(a) 3.0
(b) 8.0
(c) 5.0
(d) 4.0

Question 3.
Lightning occurs due to
(a) wind
(b) rain
(c) electric discharge
(d) earthquake

Question 4.
The shaking and trembling of earth is called
(a) tsunami
(b) volcano
(c) earthquake
(d) none of these

Question 5.
The magnitude of an earthquake is measured ii
(a) Kelvin scale
(b) Celsius scale
(c) Decibel scale
(d) Richter scale

Question 6.
Which is the sure test of charge on a body?
(a) Lightning
(b) Combination
(c) Repulsion
(d) Insulation

Question 7.
Major earthquakes are less likely to occur in
(a) North-East India
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Rann of Kutch
(d) Odisha

Question 8.
Tsunami means
(a) floods
(b) earthquake
(c) earthquake under sea
(d) volcanic eruption under sea

Question 9.
Lightning always follows
(a) rain
(b) thunder
(c) the easiest path
(d) a straight path

Question 10.
The outermost layer of the earth is called
(a) mantle
(b) outer core
(c) crust
(d) inner core

Question 11.
Lightning conductor is used
(a) to destroy the buildings
(b) to protect the buildings
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Question 12.
Types of charges gained by rubbing objects are
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 1

Question 13.
The process of transfer of charges from a charged object to the earth is called
(a) lightning
(b) oscillation
(c) earthing
(d) electron movement

Question 14.
Where is the lightning conductor located?
(a) In the bottom of the building
(c) In the middle of the building
(b) On the top of the building
(d) Anywhere can be installed

Question 15.
The point from where the shock waves of an earthquake originate is called
(a) epicentre
(b) seismic focus
(c) focal depth
(d) none of these

Question 16.
The epicentre of an earthquake is
(a) in the core of earth
(b) on the surface of earth
(c) in the middle of earth
(d) none of these

Question 17.
Which of the following is not likely to cause tsunami?
(a) Nuclear explosion under sea
(b) Earthquake
(c) Volcanic eruption
(d) Lightning

Question 18.
The process of electric discharge can occur between
(a) two or more clouds
(b) clouds and the earth
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Question 19.
During lightning air is normally
(a) a good conductor
(b) a bad conductor
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Question 20.
If two charged objects are brought close to each other then
(a) they will attract each other.
(b) they will repel each other.
(c) they may attract or repel depending on the charges they carry.
(d) there will be no effect between them.
Answer:
1. (b)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (c)
5. (d)
6. (c)
7. (d)
8. (c)
9. (b)
10. (c)
11. (b)
12. (b)
13. (c)
14. (b)
15. (b)
16. (b)
17. (d)
18. (c)
19. (a)
20. (c)

II. Fill in the Blanks
Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.
1. Lightning is an __________ on a huge scale.
2. The electrical charges generated by rubbing two object is__________ electricity.
3. The electrical charges can be transferred from a __________ object to another through a __________ conductor.
4. The crust and mantle is broken into pieces known as __________
5. __________ is an instrument that records seismic waves.
6. __________ is the sudden shaking and trembling of the earth.
7. Lightning is always followed by __________ .
8. __________ is an earthquake under sea.
9. Transfer of charge to the earth is __________.
10. Richter scale measure __________ of earthquake.
11. When two bodies are rubbed against each other, they acquire __________ and __________ charges.
12. __________ can be charged with static electricity.
13. There are two kinds of charges __________ and .
14. The uppermost layer of the earth is called __________.
15. All building especially tall building must be equipped with __________.
16. __________ can save buildings from destruction due to lightning.
17. When charges flow, they constitute __________
18. The outer layer of the earth is __________
19. Interaction of charges is called __________
20. Benjamin Franklin showed lightning in __________.
Answer:
1. electric spark
2. static
3. charged, metal
4. tectonic plates
5. Seismograph
6. Earthquake
7. thunder
8. Tsunami
9. earthing
10. magnitude
11. equal, unlike
12. Insulator
13. positive, negative
14. crust
15. lightning conductor
16. Lightning conductor
17. an electric current
18. fragmented
19. lightning
20. 1752

III. Match the following
Match the items given in column I suitably with those given in column II.

Answer:
1. (i)
2. (h)
3. (g)
4. (f)
5. (d)
6. (e)
7. (c)
8. (j)
9. (b)
10. (a)

IV. True or False
State whether the given statements are true or false.
1. We can predict an earthquake.
2. Richter scale is used to measure earthquake.
3. We cannot predict cyclones.
4. The electric charges produced by rubbing are called static charges.
5. The process of transferring charge from a charged object to the earth is called earthing.
6. A device used to protect tall buildings from lightning is called metal detector.
7. The plates of the outermost layer of the earth are always in continuous motion.
8. Any conductor can be used to make a lightning conductor.
9. An earthquake is a sudden shaking of the earth.
10. During earthquake, we should take shelter under a heavy table.
11. The waves are recorded by Richter scale.
12. A seismograph records waves.
13. The outermost layer of the earth is not fragmented.
14. An earthquake lasts for a long time.
15. A lightning conductor is fixed in the bottom of the building.
Answer:
1. False
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. False
9. True
10. True
11. False
12. True
13. False
14. False
15. False

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science

The post Some Natural Phenomena Class 8 Extra Questions Science Chapter 15 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Light Class 8 Extra Questions Science Chapter 16

Light Class 8 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Why fingers appear blurred when we move our hand very fast in front of our eyes?
Answer:
This is due to persistence of vision l/16th of a second.

Question 2.
What makes things visible?
Answer:
When light reaches our eyes after striking an object, we are able to see an object.

Question 3.
Which element is used at the back of plane mirror?
Answer:
Silver

Question 4.
The distance between the object and its image formed by a plane mirror appears to be 18 cm. What is the distance between mirror and the object?
Answer:
9 cm

Question 5.
How is hypermetropia corrected?
Answer:
It is corrected by using convex lens.

Question 6.
How is myopia corrected?
Answer:
It is corrected by using concave lens.

Question 7.
A ray of light is incident on a mirror at an angle of 40°. What is the angle of reflect! u?
Answer:
40°

Question 8.
Name a device which works on the principle of multiple reflection.
Answer:
Periscope

Question 9.
Can we see an object in the dark?
Answer:
No

Question 10.
What is the nature of the image formed by the plane mirror?
Answer:
Virtual and erect

Question 11.
Where is the image formed in a plane mirror?
Answer:
Behind the mirror

Question 12.
The angle between the incident ray and reflected ray is 100°. What is the value of angle of incidence?
Answer:
∠i + ∠r = 100°
Since, ∠i = ∠r
∴ ∠i + ∠i = 100°
⇒ 2 ∠i = 100°
⇒ ∠i = = 50
∴ Angle of incidence = 50°.

Question 13.
What is yellow spot?
Answer:
It is highly light sensitive spot for seeing things with highest clearness.

Question 14.
Give an example of night bird.
Answer:
Owl

Question 15.
What do we call the image that cannot be obtained on a screen?
Answer:
Virtual

Question 16.
Show mathematically, the first law of reflection.
Answer:
∠i = ∠r

Question 17.
Name the phenomenon shown in the figure.
Answer:
Lateral inversion.

Question 18.
Express the mathematical formula to calculate the number of images formed when two mirrors are inclined at θ angle.
Answer:
Number of images = – 1.

Question 19.
How many colours are there in a spectrum of white light?
Answer:
Seven

Question 20.
Name the scientist who studied that if a white light is passed through a prism, it splits into different colours.
Answer:
Sir Issac Newton

Question 21.
Name the spot inside the human eye where the image is not visible.
Answer:
Blind spot

Question 22.
Name the liquid found between the cornea and lens.
Answer:
Aqueous humour

Question 23.
Name the liquid found between the lens and the retina.
Answer:
Vitreous humour

Question 24.
Define the incident ray.
Answer:
The ray of light striking the surface is called an incident ray.

Question 25.
Define angle of reflection.
Answer:
The angle between the reflected ray and the normal is called the angle of reflection.

Light Class 8 Extra Questions Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define light.
Answer:
Light is defined as a form of energy that stimulates sight and makes things visible.

Question 2.
What is reflection?
Answer:
The bouncing back of light into the same medium after it falls on a surface is called reflection.

Question 3.
What is a mirror?
Answer:
A piece of glass with a shiny metal-covered at back, that reflects light, producing an image of the object in front of it is known as mirror.

Question 4.
State the two laws of reflection.
Answer:
The two laws of reflection are:

• The angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection.
• The incident ray, the reflected ray and normal all lie in the same plane.

Question 5.
How do we see various objects?
Answer:
We see various objects due to reflection. As we know all surface reflect light, when light falls on any object, it reflects the light. The reflected light reaches our eyes and we are able to see the object.

Question 6.
What do you mean by reflected ray?
Answer:
The ray of light which is returned back into the same medium after the incident ray strikes the surface ’ is called reflected ray.

Question 7.
What is irregular reflection?
Answer:
Irregular reflection is defined as the reflection of light from an uneven surface. In irregular reflection, the reflected beam is not parallel.

Question 8.
List the characteristics of an image formed in a plane mirror.
Answer:
he characteristics of an image formed in a plane mirror are:

• It is virtual.
• It is erect.
• It is of same size as the object.

Question 9.
What is lateral inversion?
Answer:
The phenomenon of changing left side to right and right side to left by the mirror while forming image is called lateral inversion.

Question 10.
What is the far point and near point of the human eye with normal vision?
Answer:
In optics, the farthest and closest point at which an object can be brought into focus by the eye are called far point and near point of the eye respectively. The far point of the human eye with normal vision is infinity. The near point of the human eye with normal vision is 25 cm.

Question 11.
What is aqueous humour?
Answer:
The space between the cornea and lens is filled with a liquid called the aqueous humour.

Question 12.
Differentiate between rod and cone cells.
Answer:
Rods are the rod-shaped cells present in the retina of an eye which are sensitive to dim light whereas cones are the cone-shaped cells present in the retina of the eye which are sensitive to bright light.

Light Class 8 Extra Questions Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on Braille system.
Answer:
The most popular resource for visually challenged persons is Braille. Braille system was developed by Louis Braille. He himself was a visually challenged person. There is Braille code for common languages, mathematics and scientific notation. Many Indian languages can be read using the Braille system.

Braille system has 63 dot patterns or characters. Each character represents a letter, a combination of letters, a common word or a grammatical sign. Dots are arranged in cells of two vertical rows of three dots each. Patterns of dots to represent some English letters and some common words are shown in Fig. 16.26.

These patterns when embossed on Braille sheets help visually challenged persons to recognise words by touching. To make them easier to touch, the dots are raised slightly.

Visually challenged people learn the Braille system by beginning with letters, then special characters and letter combinations. Methods depend upon recognition by touching. Each character has to be memorised. Braille texts can be produced by hand or by machine. Typewriter-like devices and printing machines have now been developed.

Question 2.
Explain the phenomenon of dispersion of light.
Answer:
Dispersion is defined as the phenomenon of splitting of white light into different colours on passing through a transparent medium such as prism. When white light is passed through a prism, it splits into seven colours. It is observed that the colours are in the following order:
Violet (V), Indigo (I), Blue (B), Green (G), Yellow (Y), Orange (O) and Red (R).
The order of colours can be remembered by the acronym VIBGYOR. This coloured band is called spectrum of white light.

Question 3.
Write a note on ‘The Human Eye’.
Answer:
Eye ia a sense organ that enables us to see the world around us. It is roughly spherical in shape.

• The first part that is bulged outward is called ‘cornea. It protects the eye.
• Behind the cornea, the coloured part of the eye, iris is present. It controls the size of the pupil.
• Pupil is a small opening in the cornea which allows the light to enter the eye.
• Behind the iris, eye lens is present which is a convex lens. It focus the image on retina, by bending the light rays.
• Retina is the inner back surface of the eye which acts as a screen to form image. It is sensitive to light.
• The sensation of the image formed on the retina is carried to the brain by the optic nerve.
• Optic nerve is connection between the eye and the

Question 4.
Write the ways to protect your eyes.
Answer:
Eyes are very delicate organ that enable us to see this colourful world. Thus, we must protect our eyes and take proper care of them.
Following are the ways to protect the eye:

• Always sit straight while reading or writing.
• Never read while walking or lying down.
• Wash your eyes frequently with clean water.
• Never read in the dim or too much bright light.
• Never rub your eyes with hands.
• Never bring the book too close to your eyes.
• Eat foods rich in vitamin A.

Question 5.
Explain some common eye defects in human.
Answer:
Some eye diseases are:

(i) Cataract: A cataract is a clouding of the lens in the eye leading to a decrease in vision. It can affect one or both eyes. Often it develops slowly. Symptoms may include faded colours, blurry vision, halos around light, trouble with bright lights, and trouble seeing at night. This may result in trouble driving, reading, or recognising faces. Cataracts are the cause of half of blindness and 33% of visual impairment worldwide. Cataract is treated by replacing the opaque lens with a new artificial lens.

(ii) Myopia: Near-sightedness or myopia, is the most common refractive error of the eye. Myopia occurs when the eyeball is too long, relative to the focusing power of the cornea and lens of the eye. This causes light rays to focus at a point in front of the retina, rather than directly on its surface. It can be corrected using spectacles made of concave lens.

(iii) Hypermetropia: Hypermetropia or long-sightedness occurs when eyeball is too short or the cornea or crystalline lens does not refract the light enough. This lead to formation of the image of a nearby object behind the retina. A hypermetropic person may have blurred vision when looking at objects close to them, and clearer vision when looking at objects in the distance. By placing a convex (plus powered) lens in front of a hypermetropic eye, the image is moved forward and focuses correctly on the retina.

(iv) Astigmatism: It is a defect in the eye or in a lens caused by a deviation from spherical curvature, which results in distorted images, as light rays are prevented from meeting at a common focus. It can be corrected by using a convex lens or concave lens or both.

Light Class 8 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
What is power of accommodation?
Answer:
The process by which the ciliary muscles change the focal length of an eye lens to focus distant or near objects clearly on the retina is called power of accommodation.

Question 2.
How does large cornea and a large pupil in the eyes of the nocturnal birds help them?
Answer:
Large cornea and a large pupil allow more light to enter their eyes and they can see objects even in faint light.

Question 3.
What kind of lens is there in our eyes? Where does it form the image of an object?
Answer:
Convex lens is there in our eyes. It forms image of an object on the retina.

Question 4.
Boojho planned an activity to observe an object A through pipes as shown in the given figure, so that he could see objects which he could not directly see.

(a) How many mirrors should he use to see the object?
(b) Indicate the positions of the mirrors in the figure.
(c) What must be the angle with respect to the incident light at which he should place the mirrors?
(d) Indicate the direction of rays in the figure.
(e) If any of the mirrors is removed, will he be able to see the object?
Answer:
(a) Three

(c) 45°

(e) No, he will not be able to see the object.

Light Class 8 Extra Questions Value-Based Questions

Question 1.
While playing, something entered into Somya’s eye. She immediately washed her eye with cold water. But as the irritation persisted, she immediately reported to her class teacher. Her class teacher took her to an eye doctor.

• What should be done if some foreign particles enter your eyes?
• Why is it not advised to rub your eyes when there is an eye irritation due to foreign particles?
• Do you think Somya was right in her action?
• What value of Somya is seen here?

Answer:

• We must do the following things:
  • Restrict eye movement
  • Shut the eyelid
  • Do not rub eyes
  • Try to clean it with splash of clear water
  • Contact eye doctor immediately.
• Foreign object may cause abrasions or scratches on our cornea or rubbing. It may also cause bleeding of cornea.
• Yes.
• She is intelligent, knowledgeable and aware of such kind of small accidents.

Activities and Project
Question 1.
Make your own mirror. Take a glass strip or glass slab, clean it and put it on a white sheet of paper. See yourself in the glass. Next put the glass slab on a black sheet of paper. Again look into the glass. In which case do you see yourself better and why?
Answer:
We can see ourselves better in the case we put the glass slab on white paper because white sheet reflects more light as compared to black sheet.

Question 2.
Make friends with some visually challenged students. Enquire from them how they read and write. Also find out how they are able to recognise objects, hurdles and currency notes.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 3.
Meet an eye specialist. Get your eye sight checked and discuss how to take care of your eyes.
Answer:
We can take care of our eyes by:

• regular check up.
• avoiding study in very dim light.
• proper sitting and reading posture.
• washing eyes daily.

Question 4.
Survey your neighbourhood. Find out how many children below the age of 12 years use spectacles. Find out from their parents what, in their view, could be the reason for the weak eyesight of their children.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

I. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Choose the correct option.
Question 1.
We are able to see an object due to the presence of
(a) light
(b) dark
(c) refraction
(d) object

Question 2.
The bouncing back of light into the same medium is called
(a) refraction
(b) reflection
(c) dispersion
(d) diffraction

Question 3.
A mirror has _________ surface.
(a) rough
(b) polished
(c) dark
(d) all of these

Question 4.
Maximum part of light is reflected by
(a) opaque object
(b) translucent object
(c) transparent object
(d) all of these

Question 5.
Beam of light striking the reflecting surface is ca
(a) incident ray
(b) reflected ray
(c) refracted ray
(d) normal ray

Question 6.
The back side of a plane mirror contains
(a) gold coating
(b) silver coating
(c) aluminium coating
(d) copper coating

Question 7.
The perpendicular drawn to the reflecting surface is called
(a) normal
(b) incident ray
(c) reflected ray
(d) none of these

Question 8.
There are _________ laws of reflection.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four

Question 9.
The angle of incidence is always ________ to theangle of reflection.
(a) greater
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) none of these

Question 10.
The angle between the reflected ray and the nor
(a) angle of incidence
(b) reflected ray
(c) angle of reflection
(d) point of incidence

Question 11.
The reflection of light from a smooth surface is called
(a) diffused reflection
(b) regular reflection
(c) dispersion
(d) spectrum

Question 12.
Which of the following results in diffused reflection?
(a) Plane mirror
(b) Shiny surface
(c) Silver
(d) Wood

Question 13.
The nature of image formed by plane mirror is
(a) real and inverted
(b) virtual and erect
(c) real and erect
(d) virtual and inverted

Question 14.
If you hold a pen in your right hand and stand in front of the mirror, the pen will be in the left hand in the image. This phenomenon is called
(a) lateral inversion
(b) diffraction
(c) reflection
(d) inversion

Question 15.
If two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 40°, number of images formed will be
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 5

Question 16.
Type of mirror used as side view mirror is
(a) convex mirror
(b) plane mirror
(c) concave mirror
(d) ground mirror

Question 17.
Band of seven colours is called
(a) VIBGYOR
(b) dispersion
(c) spectrum
(d) reflection

Question 18.
Front bulged part of the eyeball is called
(a) cornea
(b) iris
(c) retina
(d) pupli
(c) 65
(d) 115

Question 19.
Two mirrors A and B are placed at right angles to each other. A ray of light incident on mirror A at an angle of 25° falls on mirror B after reflection. The angle of reflection for the ray reflected from mirror B would be
(a) 25°
(b) 50°
(c) 65°
(d) 115°

Question 20.
Visually impaired people can read and write using
(a) electronic writer
(b) Braille system
(c) digital pens
(d) hearing aids
Answer:
1. (a)
2. (b)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (a)
6. (b)
7. (a)
8. (b)
9. (c)
10. (c)
11. (b)
12. (d)
13. (b)
14. (a)
15. (b)
16. (a)
17. (c)
18. (a)
19. (c)
20. (b)

II. Fill in the Blanks
Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.
1. Light is a form of ___________.
2. The ray of light which strikes the reflecting surface is called ___________.
3. The bouncing back of light after it falls on a surface is called ___________.
4. A mirror has ___________ and ___________ surface.
5. ___________ is the perpendicular line on the incidence point.
6. A plane mirror forms a ___________ image.
7. The ray which returns after striking the surface is called ___________ ray.
8. Angle of incidence is always ___________ to the angle of reflection.
9. Reflection from a smooth surface is called ___________ reflection.
10. The size of image formed by the plane mirror is ___________ as size of object.
11. Splitting of light into seven colours is called ___________.
12. Kaleidoscope is based on the concepts of ___________.
13. The point on the surface at which incident ray strikes is called ___________.
14. The reflection of light from an uneven surface is called ___________.
15. Paper is a ___________ surface.
16. Mirror is a ___________ surface.
17. When the mirrors are inclined at 90°, we get ___________ images.
18. In bright light, the size of pupil ___________.
19. The space between the cornea and lens is filled with a liquid called ___________.
20. Braille system was invented by ___________.
Answer:
1. energy
2. incident
3. reflection
4. smooth, polished
5. Normal
6. virtual
7. reflected
8. equal
9. regular
10. same
11. dispersion
12. multiple reflection
13. point of incidence
14. diffused reflection
15. rough
16. smooth
17. three
18. decreases
19. aqueous humour
20. Louis Braille

III. Match the following
Match the items given in column I suitably with those given in column II.

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (g)
5. (j)
6. (h)
7. (e)
8. (l)
9. (f)
0. (k)
11. (i)
12. (d)
13. (o)
14. (m)
15. (n)

IV. True or False
State whether the given statements are true or false.
1. Deficiency of vitamin B causes night blindness.
2. In the Braille system, patterns are made with coloured dots.
3. Normal make 60° angle with the reflecting surface.
4. Angle of incidence is always equal to angle of reflection.
5. Diffused reflection occurs due to rough surface.
6. Kaleidoscope is based on the principle of dispersion of light.
7. Both incident ray and reflected ray lie in the same plane.
8. The choroid prevents the internal reflection of light and protects the light sensitive inner parts of the eye.
9. Rainbow forms due to dispersion.
10. Rods are sensitive to bright light.
11. The iris is the coloured part of the eye.
12. Diffused reflection is due to the failure of laws of reflection.
13. Ciliary muscles changes the shape of the lens in the eye.
14. We should not wash our eyes.
15. Braille was designed by Louis Braille.
Answer:
1. False
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False
11. True
12. False
13. True
14. False
15. True

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science

The post Light Class 8 Extra Questions Science Chapter 16 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Extra Questions for Class 6 to 10

Extra Questions for Class 10

• Extra Questions for Class 10 Maths
• Extra Questions for Class 10 Science
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• Extra Questions for Class 9 Maths
• Extra Questions for Class 9 Science
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Extra Questions for Class 8

• Extra Questions for Class 8 Maths
• Extra Questions for Class 8 Science
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Extra Questions for Class 7

• Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths
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• Extra Questions for Class 6 Maths
• Extra Questions for Class 6 Science
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Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions Science Chapter 17

Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Name the planet nearest to the Sun.
Answer:
Mercury

Question 2.
What is the speed of light?
Answer:
300000 km per second (3 x 108 m/s).

Question 3.
Which is the brightest planet in the night sky?
Answer:
Venus

Question 4.
Name the star which is nearest to our solar system.
Answer:
Alpha centuari

Question 5.
Which planets do not have satellite of their own?
Answer:
Venus and Mercury

Question 6.
How many planets are there in our solar system?
Answer:
Eight

Question 7.
Which planet is called Red planet?
Answer:
Mars

Question 8.
Why Earth appears blue from space?
Answer:
Due to presence of water Earth appears blue from space.

Question 9.
What is the other name of Orion?
Answer:
Hunter

Question 10.
Which planet is least dense among all?
Answer:
Saturn

Question 11.
Do stars emit light only during night time?
Answer:
No, they emit light all the time.

Question 12.
Name the unit which is used to measure astronomical distances?
Answer:
Light year

Question 13.
What is asteroid?
Answer:
Asteroid is a small rocky body orbiting the sun or found between the orbit of Mars or Jupiter.

Question 14.
Which is the other name of constellation Great Bear?
Answer:
Saptarishi

Question 15.
What is Sun?
Answer:
Sun is a star.

Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are meteors?
Answer:
Meteors are bright streaks of light in the sky produced by the entry of a small meteoroids into the Earth’s atmosphere. They are also called the ‘shooting stars’.

Question 2.
What is a satellite?
Answer:
A satellite is defined as a heavenly body that moves around another heavenly body along its own orbit.

Question 3.
What is artificial satellite? Give examples.
Answer:
Satellites that are made by man are called artificial satellites. Example, INSAT, IRS EDUSAT, etc.

Question 4.
What are meteorites?
Answer:
The meteors which are so large that they do not evaporate completely before reaching the earth’s surface are called meteorites.

Question 5.
What are comets?
Answer:
Comets are the members of our solar system. They revolve around the sun in highly elliptical orbit as a bright head with a long tail.

Question 6.
Define phases of Moon.
Answer:
The various shapes of the bright part of the Moon as seen during the month are called phases of Moon.

Question 7.
What are celestial objects?
Answer:
The objects such as stars, the planets, the moon and many other objects, in the sky are called celestial objects.

Question 8.
What are planets?
Answer:
The celestial bodies which revolve around the sun are called planets. There are total eight planets in our solar system, namely, Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune.

Question 9.
Why the Sun is also called as star?
Answer:
The Sun is also called as star because it has its own source of energy and it continuously emits light and heat.

Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the solar system? Explain.
Answer:
The sun along with the eight planets, the moons, and other heavenly bodies form the solar system. Our solar system is a part of the milky way galaxy. The sun is at the centre of the solar system around which all other planets rotate. Except Mercury and Venus, remaining six planets have their natural satellite revolving around them in a particular orbit. In our solar system, Earth is the only planet having life. This is due to the hostile conditions available in it. Sun is the ultimate source of energy for sustenance of life on the Earth.

Question 2.
What makes life possible on planet Earth?
Answer:
Some special environmental conditions responsible for the existence and continuation of life on the Earth are:

• Right distance from the Sun
• Right temperature range
• Presence of water
• Presence of oxygen and hostile atmosphere
• Presence of a blanket of ozone

Question 3.
Differentiate between the following:
(a) Star and planet
(b) Asteroid and comet
(c) Meteoroid and comet
(d) Galaxy and constellation
Answer:
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Question 4.
Write few lines about every planet of the solar system.
Answer:
There are total eight planets in our solar system which are as follows:

• Mercury: Mercury is the planet which is nearest to the sun. It is the smallest planet of the solar system. It has no satellite of its own.
• Venus: Venus is the second planet in our solar system. It is the brightest planet in the night sky.
  It has no moon or satellite of its own.
• Earth: It is the third planet of the solar system and is the only planet on which life exists. It has only one moon.
• Mars: The fourth planet of our solar system is Mars. It is also called the red planet. Mars has two satellites.
• Jupiter: It has large number of satellites and it is the largest planet of our solar system.
• Saturn: Saturn appears yellowish in colour. It contains beautiful rings which are not visible with naked eyes.
• Uranus: It is the seventh planet of our solar system. It is the second outermost planet of solar „ system.
• Neptune: It is the last planet of our solar system.

Question 5.
Explain why do we see phases of moon.
Answer:
The moon does not have its own light. We see the moon because the sunlight falling on it gets reflected toward us. thus, we see only that part of the moon which reflects light keeps on changing daily. This happens because the moon revolves around the earth along with this moon also revolves around the sun. Therefore, we see phases of the moon.

Question 6.
What is constellations? Name and explain some major constellations.
Answer:
The groups of stars that make an imaginary shape in the night sky are called constellations (nakshatras). They are usually named after mythological characters, people, animals and object they resemble in shape. There are 88 constellations known so far.
Some major constellations are:

• Ursa Major (Great Bear): It is one of the most well known constellations and the third largest one. It looks like a big dipper. It is visible in the northern hemisphere. It has groups of seven relatively bright star.
• Ursa Minor (Little Bear): It is ladle shape similar to Ursa Major. It also consists of seven stars. At the end of the Little Bear’s tail is the pole star. It is the nearest bright star to the north celestial Pole.
• Orion (Hunter): It has seven prominent stars. The three middle stars represent the belt of hunter and four stars form a quadrilateral.
• Cassiopeia: It is a constellation in the northern sky that looks like a distorted letter W or M. It is visible during the winter in the early hours of night.
• Leo: Leo contains several bright stars making it one of the most easily recognisable constellations in the night sky. It is visible in both Northern and Southern hemispheres.
  

Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
A star is ten light years away from the Earth. Suppose it brightens up suddenly today. After how much time shall we see this change?
Answer:
We shall see this change after ten years only because this change which occurred today will reach to our eyes through space after ten years only.

Question 2.
Why meteors are not visible during daytime?
Answer:
The brightness of the streak of light formed by meteors are extremely less compared to that of the sun. Thus, meteors are not visible during daytime.

Question 3.
If the moon emits light of its own, then would it still have phases?
Answer:
The moon does not have its own light. It shines due to the reflected light of the sun. Therefore, phases are formed. If the moon emits its own light then no shadows will be formed and hence as a result no phases will be formed.

Question 4.
Why do we always see the same side of moon?
Answer:
The period of rotation of the moon on its own axis is equal to the period of its revolution around the earth. So, we always see the same side of moon.

Question 5.
If the distance between Earth and Sun becomes half of its present distance, what is likely to happen to life? Justify your answer.
Answer:
If the distance between the Earth and the Sun becomes half, then temperature of Earth will increase to alarming levels. Water on the Earth will evaporate leaving it dry. Most of the plants will die. Thus, ultimately ending all the life on the Earth.

Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions Value-Based Questions

Question 1.
Most people blame stars and planets in their horoscope for being unsuccessful in their lives. Rohan is one of them. He believes that positioning of Saturn in wrong place in his horoscope is the reason of his bad performance in studies.

• What are the heavenly bodies?
• Do you really think that these heavenly bodies play an important role in our failure or success?
• Have you ever heard these kind of things regarding your failure, success or before doing any auspi-cious work? From whom?
• What value of Rohan is shown here?

Answer:

• A natural celestial object, visible in the sky, such as a star, planet, natural satellite, asteroid, comet, moon or sun is known as heavenly body.
• No.
• Yes, I have often heard these kind of things from my grandparents, parents and priest.
• Rohan is very superstitious, lazy as rather than studying he is blaming planets, orthodox, etc.

Activities and Projects
Question 1.
If possible, visit a planetarium. There are planetariums in many cities. In a planetarium you can see the motion of the stars, constellations and planets on a large dome.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
On a moonless night observe the sky for a few hours. Look out for a meteor, which appears as a streak of light. September-November is a good time for observing meteors.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 3.
Learn to identify the planets visible to the naked eye and some prominent constellations such as Great Bear (Saptarishi) and Orion. Also try to locate the Pole Star and the star Sirius.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 4.
Select a convenient place on the roof of your house or in some playground from where you can watch sunrise clearly. Remember that you will have to do this activity for a few months. So, choose the place carefully. On a sheet of chart paper draw the outline of the eastern ho¬rizon indicating big trees, poles, etc. Mark the outline of the sheet so that you can place it in the same position every time. After every two weeks, note the position from where the Sun rises and mark this on your chart paper (Fig. 17.7). Also note the date of your observation. Repeat this for a few months.
It is advisable that you start observations in the month of November or May.

Does the Sun always rise from the same direction? Discuss your observations with your teacher, parents and elderly people in your family or in the neighbourhood.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 5.
Form a group of students. Prepare a model of the solar system showing the planets, and their relative sizes. For this take a large chart paper. Make spheres representing different planets according to their relative size (Use Table 17.1). You may use newspaper, clay or plasticinp to make spheres. You can cover these spheres with paper of different colours. Exhibit your models in the class.
Table 17.1

Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 6.
Try to make a scale model of the solar system showing distances of the planets from the Sun (Use Table 17.1). Did you face any difficulty? Explain it.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 7.
Solve the following riddle and try to make similar riddles yourself:
My first is in VAN but not in PAN
My second is in EARTH and also in HEAVEN
My third is in ONE and not in TWO
My fourth is in BUN and also in FUN
My last is in STAR but not in RADAR
I am a planet that moves round the Sun.
You can read more on the following websites:

• http://www.nineplanets.org
• http://www.kidsastronomy.com

Answer:
Venus.

I. Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Choose the correct option.
Question 1.
The planet which is nearest to sun is
(a) Neptune
(b) Mercury
(c) Earth
(d) Mars

Question 2.
Farthest planet of the solar system is
(a) Neptune
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mercury
(d) Earth

Question 3.
The largest planet in the solar system is
(a) Mercury
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Saturn

Question 4.
The brightest planet of the solar system is
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Earth
(d) Saturn

Question 5.
Which planet is called morning star or evening star?
(a) Venus
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Mercury

Question 6.
Orion is a
(a) constellation
(b) star
(c) planet
(d) satellite

Question 7.
Which of the following is not a planet?
(a) Ursa Major
(b) Saturn
(c) Neptune
(d) Mercury

Question 8.
Our galaxy is known as
(a) Earth galaxy
(b) Sun galaxy
(c) Milky way galaxy
(d) Constellation

Question 9.
Which star is nearest to the earth?
(a) Pole star
(b) Cassiopeia
(c) Orion
(d) Sun

Question 10.
How many stars does orion constellation have?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 4

Question 11.
The Halley’s comet is seen after every
(a) 76 months
(b) 76 years
(c) 56 months
(d) 56 years

Question 12.
Stars appear to move from
(a) West to East
(b) East to West
(c) North to South
(d) South to West

Question 13.
The gap between the orbit of Mars and Jupiter have
(a) asteroids
(b) comets
(c) meteor
(d) meteorite

Question 14.
The planet which appears yellowish
(a) Asteroids
(b) Mars
(c) Uranus
(d) Saturn

Question 15.
The first outside orbit of the earth’s planet is
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Saturn
(d) Uranus

Question 16.
Suppose a new planet is discovered between Uranus and Neptune. Its time period would be
(a) less than that of Neptune
(b) more than that of Neptune
(c) equal to that of Neptune or Uranus
(d) less than Uranus

Question 17.
If standing on the surface of moon, we throw a ball upward, then the ball would
(a) directly fall down from the point it is released.
(b) hang in space.
(c) go up and then come back to the surface of the moon.
(d) keep going up never to come back.
Answer:
1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (c)
4. (b)
5. (a)
6. (a)
7. (a)
8. (c)
9. (d)
10. (a)
11. (b)
12. (b)
13. (a)
14. (d)
15. (b)
16. (a)
17. (c)

II. Fill in the Blanks
Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.
1. First artificial satellite launched by India is ___________.
2. Stars have their own ___________.
3. ___________ is the brightest object in the night sky.
4. The various shapes of the brightest part of moon are called ___________.
5. ___________ and ___________ are the nearest planet to our Earth.
6. ___________ is the extremely cold planet.
7. There are total ___________ planets in our solar system.
8. The path of the planets is known as ___________.
9. ___________ is a group of stars arranged in a definite pattern.
10. ___________ star appears stationary near the northern horizon.
11. ___________ are the celestial bodies revolving around the planet.
12. ___________ is the distance travelled by light in one year.
13. ___________ are the bright objects which revolve around the sun.
14.___________ is the planet which is nearest to the Sun.
15. Milky Way Galaxy is also known as ___________.
Answer:
1. Aryabhatta
2. light
3. Moon
4. phases of moon
5. Venus, Mars
6. Neptune
7. eight
8. orbit
9. Constellation
10. Pole
11. Satellites
12. Light year
13. Planets
14. Mercury
15. Akashganga

III. Match the following
Match the items given in column I suitably with those given in column II.

Answer:
1. (g)
2. (f)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)
6. (c)
7. (d)
8. (j)
9. (h)
10. (i)

IV. True or False
State whether the given statements are true or false.
1. Mars is the fourth planet of the solar system.
2. Sun is a satellite.
3. Orion is seen during winter season.
4. The second outermost planet is Uranus.
5. Earth is the third planet of the solar system.
6. Neptune is the largest planet of the solar system.
7. The mass of Jupiter is about 318 times that of our Earth.
8. Saturn and Uranus have ring around them.
9. The stars have light of their own.
10. Mercury is the earth’s nearest planet.
11. There are total 8 planets in the solar system.
12. Saturn is the extremely cold planet.
13. Moon emits light of its own.
14. Change in seasons on the earth is due to the tilted axis of rotation of the earth with respect to the plane
of its orbit.
15. Ursa Major is a constellation.
Answer:
1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False
11. True
12. False
13. False
14. True
15. True

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science

The post Stars and the Solar System Class 8 Extra Questions Science Chapter 17 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

BEEE Counseling 2019: Bharath University engineering entrance exam which is also known as BEEE ha released all the details regarding its upcoming exam. BEEE 2019 is being held this year for the admissions into undergraduate and postgraduate programs in the University. This year, the BEEE exams were held in offline as well as online mode. Also, BEEE 2019 admit cards will also be available on their official website. Candidates that have successfully registered themselves can download these admit cards for the exam. The short-listing for admission will be done on the basis of the performance in the entrance exam.

There are two phases in which BEEE counseling 2019 will be conducted. In phase 1, the candidates from Andhra Pradesh will be exclusively selected. Whereas in phase 2 of BEEE counseling, the admission for candidates from all states is taken into account. After the phase 1 results are declared, the candidates can check the timetable for phase 2 as given below.

BEEE Counseling 2019 Important Dates

The candidate applying for BEEE 2019 should be a resident of India and should have passed 10 + 2 exams from a recognized board in India. Below are the educational qualifications required for candidates based on their stream

BEEE 2019 Counseling

In this process, the seat will be allocated based on the performance in the entrance exam. Candidates with higher ranks will be given a preference as compared to those with lower ranks.

Scholarship

The Bharath Institute for higher education and research also provides scholarships to the candidates. For the scholarship, below are the criteria for the candidates

• For top 25 rank holders in BEEE 2019, 100% tuition waiver will be granted in the form of scholarship.
• For top 26 – 250 rank holders in BEEE 2019, 50% tuition waiver will be granted in the form of scholarship.
• For the top 251 – 500 rank holders in BEEE 2019, 25% tuition waiver will be granted in the form of scholarship.
• For students participating in international level events and sports, 100% tuition waiver will be granted a scholarship.
• For students participating in national-level events and sports, 50% tuition waiver will be granted a scholarship.
• For students participating in district-level events and sports, 25% tuition waiver will be granted a scholarship.

To avail these scholarships, the scores will be calculated as per BEEE 2019 rankings or MPC aggregated score, whichever is higher. All the above scholarships are valid for 4 years.

BEEE Counselling 2019 – Documents Required

• Demand Draft (Non-refundable) for Rs. 10,000/- drawn in favor of “Bharath University”, payable at Chennai.
• BEEE counseling 2019 letter
• BEEE Admit card 2019

BEEE Counselling 2019 – Documents To Be Submitted At The Time of Counselling

• BEEE 2019 Hall ticket
• 10+2 Exam scorecard and Pass Certificate or their equivalent. Class 10 certificate too as a proof of age
• Xerox of class 12 admit card
• Migration Certificate
• Caste Certificate if you belong to any other than general
• 4 Passport size colored photographs
• Transfer certificate from the school

we hope we have provided all the necessary information about BEEE Counselling 2019. If you have any doubt regarding this post or BEEE Counselling 2019, Please comment in the comment section we will get back to you at the earliest.

The post BEEE Counseling 2019 | Check BEEE Counselling Dates and Schedule appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions Science Chapter 18

Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is cause for starting of melting of Gangotri glacier?
Answer:
Global warming

Question 2.
Which health problem arises by air pollution?
Answer:
Respiratory problems like asthma, breathlessness, bronchitis, etc.

Question 3.
What is global warming?
Answer:
Increasing temperature in atmosphere.

Question 4.
Which gas is responsible for depletion of ozone layer?
Answer:
Chloroflurocarbons (CFC’s).

Question 5.
What does SPM stand for?
Answer:
Solid particulate matter.

Question 6.
What is the role of activated charcoal in purification of water?
Answer:
It removes finest particles suspended in water.

Question 7.
Name a greenhouse gas.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, methane, water vapour (any one)

Question 8.
What is the formula of ozone?
Answer:
O₃

Question 9.
Name the agents that pollute air and water.
Answer:
Pollutants

Question 10.
Name the main air polluting gases.
Answer:
Sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxides.

Question 11.
Which radiations are absorbed by CO₂?
Answer:
Infrared radiations

Question 12.
Define eutrophication.
Answer:
Enrichment of water bodies with nutrients like nitrates and phosphates is known as eutrophication.

Question 13.
Name one major source of water pollution.
Answer:
Untreated sewage

Question 14.
What is the function of ozone layer?
Answer:
Ozone layer protects us from ultraviolet rays of the sun.

Question 15.
Name diseases spread through drinking of contaminated water.
Answer:
Diarrhoea, typhoid, etc.

Question 16.
When was the Ganga action plan launched?
Answer:
In 1985

Question 17.
What is smog?
Answer:
The combination of smoke and fog is basically known as smog.

Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by water pollution?
Answer:
When water get contaminated by unwanted substances which have a harmful effect on both living and non-living things is referred to as water pollution.

Question 2.
What is greenhouse effect?
Answer:
The reflected sun rays are trapped by the earth’s atmosphere. The trapped radiation warms the earth.
This process by which the temperature of the earth’s atmosphere rises is called greenhouse effect.

Question 3.
What are the main causes of air pollution?
Answer:
Following are the main causes of air pollution:

• Poisonous gases which are expelled by various industries.
• Gases emitted by vehicles.
• Smoke and dust which are arising day by day due to human activities.
• Smoke emitted by forest fire.

Question 4.
What do you mean by air pollution?
Answer:
When air is contaminated by unwanted substances which have a harmful effect on both living and nonliving things then it is referred as air pollution.

Question 5.
What are the factors that are responsible for water pollution?
Answer:
Water gets polluted when unwanted and harmful substances are added to the water. Discharging of untreated sewage into the river, leaching of chemicals from agricultural practices and industries, oil spills, etc., causes water pollution.

Question 6.
What are the harmful effects of global warming?
Answer:
Following are the harmful effects of global warming:

• It will increase the earth’s temperature.
• Increase in earth’s temperature may lead to rise in sea level due to melting of glaciers.
• Rise in sea level will flood the coastal and low-lying areas.
• Global warming may lead to extreme weather other than cold or heat extremes.
• It may also affect many flora and fauna which are sensitive to temperature and their extinction.

Question 7.
Which factors decides quality of potable water?
Answer:
Potable water is clear, tasteless, odourless, have no contaminants and right pH. It has no harmful minerals or their level is too low to affect human health.

Question 8.
What’is global warming?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is increasing day by day and it is a warm gas, which increases the temperature of the earth’s atmosphere. It is called global warming.

Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by acid rain? How does it affect both living and non-living things?
Answer:
Due to fossil fuel and industrial combustions that mostly emits nitrogen oxides (NO_x) and sulphur dioxide (SO₂) into the atmosphere. Water vapour present in atmosphere reacts with these gases to form nitric acid and sulphuric acid. Normal rain water is slightly acidic with a pH range of 5.3-6.0, because carbon dioxide and water present in the air react together to form carbonic acid, which is a weak acid. When the pH level of rain water falls below this range due to combining with these acids in atmosphere, it becomes acid rain.
Acid rain has significant effects on the world environment and public health.

• Effect on aquatic environment: Acid rain lowers pH level below 5, most fish eggs cannot hatch. Lowering in pH can also kill adult fish.
• Effect on forests: It makes trees vulnerable to disease, extreme weather, and insects by destroying their leaves, damaging the bark and arresting their growth.
• Effect on soil: Acid rain highly impacts soil microbes and biological activity as well as soil chemical compositions. Thus affecting crop production.
• Effect on architecture and buildings: Acid rain on buildings, especially those constructed with limestone, react with the minerals and corrode them away. This leaves the building weak and susceptible to decay. Irreplaceable damage can be caused to the old heritage buildings.
• Effect on public health: When in atmosphere, sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide gases, degrades visibility and can cause accidents, leading to injuries and deaths. Intensified levels of acid depositions in dry form in the air can cause lung and heart problems such as bronchitis and asthma.
• Other effects: Acid rain leads to weathering of buildings, corrosion of metals, and peeling of paints on surfaces. Acid rain also corrodes metals like steel, bronze, copper and iron.

Question 2.
What is eutrophication? How does it affect aquatic organisms?
Answer:
Enrichment of an ecosystem with nutrients, typically compounds containing nitrogen, phosphorous or both, is known as eutrophication. Eutrophication in lakes, ponds or rivers encourages the growth of algae and other aquatic plants. These algae grow rapidly in the water system and forms algal bloom. They compete for sunlight, oxygen and space. This badly affect the aquatic life and deteriorates water quality. This is also responsible for the large scale death of aquatic plants and animals.

Question 3.
Write a short note on water pollution.
Answer:
Water pollution is the contamination of water bodies (e.g., lakes, rivers, oceans, aquifers and groundwater). This form of environmental degradation occurs when pollutants are directly or indirectly discharged into water bodies without adequate treatment to remove harmful compounds.

Water is available both on surface and under the ground. The major pollutants of surface water are toxic and poisonous wastes from households, industries, nuclear wastes, oil spills, agricultural waste, accumulation of heavy metals, chemicals from chemical factories, microorganisms from human faeces, etc.

Groundwater is mainly contaminated by leaching of harmful chemicals into the soil. Seepage of sewer near groundwater aquifer contaminates with disease causing microorganisms. Accumulation of heavy metals in soil may also lead to groundwater pollution.

Water pollution affects the entire biosphere—plants and organisms living in these bodies of water. In almost all cases the effect is damaging not only to individual species and population, but also to the natural biological communities.

Question 4.
How can you prevent water pollution?
Answer:

• Be careful about what you throw down your sink or toilet. Don’t throw paints, oils or other forms of litter down the drain.
• Use enyironment-friendly household products, such as washing powder, household cleaning agents and toiletries.
• Take great care not to overuse pesticides and fertilisers. This will prevent runoffs of the material into nearby water sources.
• By having more plants in your garden you are preventing fertiliser, pesticides and contaminated water from running off into nearby water sources.
• Don’t throw litter into rivers, lakes or oceans. Help to clean up any litter you see on beaches or in rivers and lakes, make sure it is safe to collect the litter and put it in a nearby dustbin.

Question 5.
How can you prevent air pollution?
Answer:

• Conserve energy-remember to turn off lights, computers, and electric appliances when not in use.
• Use energy efficient light bulbs and appliances.
• Limit driving by carpooling, using public transportation, biking and walking.
• Combine errands for fewer trips.
• Keep your automobile well-tuned and maintained. Follow the manufacturer’s instructions on routine maintenance, such as changing the oil and filters, and checking tyre pressure and wheel alignment.
• Choose environment-friendly appliances.
• Petrol can be substituted with CNG.
• Make fertilisers of biodegradable wastes instead of burning them.
• Plant more and more trees.
• Scrubbers need to be used in the smokestacks to reduce the amount of sulphur dioxide emission in air.

Question 6.
Name various techniques used for purification of water.
Answer:
Water which looks clean may still have disease-carrying microorganisms and dissolved impurities. So, it is essential to purify water before drinking.
Municipal bodies uses various physical and chemical processes before supplying water into households.

• Boiling: It is a very common practice use for obtaining safe drinking water. Boiling kills the germs present in the water.
• Filtration: This is a physical method of removing impurities and in some cases germs also. A popular household filter is a candle type filter.
• Chlorination is a commonly used chemical method for purifying water. It is done by adding chlorine tablets or bleaching powder to the water.
• Now-a-days filter with reverse osmosis (RO) which causes desalination of water along with activated charcoal (to filter impurities) and ultraviolet lamp (to kill microorganisms) are also used for purification of water.

Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
Name any two sources which cause air pollution due to suspended particulate matter.
Answer:
Combustion of fuels and industrial activities.

Question 2.
Name three alternative sources of energy which do not cause any pollution.
Answer:
Wind energy, solar energy and hydropower.

Question 3.
The quality of air at various locations is monitored regularly by government and other agencies. In what way can you use these data?
Answer:
These data can be used to generate awareness about air pollution among people and to take immediate action to control it causes.

Question 4.
What is the best way to dispose off dry leaves? Why?
Answer:
Dry leaves can be converted into compost which is good for maintaining soil nutrients. Secondly, it does not cause pollution.

Question 5.
We should plant trees and nurture the ones already present in the neighbourhood. Why?
Answer:
Plants absorb carbon dioxide gas and releases oxygen. Thus, they play important role in purifying the earth’s atmosphere. By absorbing CO₂ they also reduces the chance of global warming. Trees provide habitat to many birds and animals. They maintain water cycle in the nature and also prevent soil erosion.

Question 6.
Why is it advised that industries should switch over to cleaner fuels such as CNG and LPG in the Taj Mahal Zone in Agra?
Answer:
With mushrooming industries and oil refineries suspended particulate matter is increasing in the air. These suspended particulate matter, dust and dirt get settle on the marble giving the Taj Mahal a yellowish appearance. This is reducing the aesthetic value of one of the seven wonders of the world.

Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions Value-Based Questions

Question 1.
If we look at our daily routine, it will be observed that we use many chemicals which pollutes water bodies. But all these chemicals have become inseparable part of our daily life like detergents, toothpastes, soaps, shampoos, dish wash liquids and bars, disinfectants, etc. If this sewage from our house is discharged in water bodies untreated causes havoc.

• What is water pollution?
• What are the major pollutants of sewage from houses?
• Do you think we can do something in our end to reduce pollution from household?
• What values do we acquire from this?

Answer:

• Water pollution is the contamination of water bodies by directly or indirectly discharging pollutants without adequate treatment to remove harmful compounds.
• Grey water (from sinks, tubs, washing machines, etc.), soap, detergents, toilet paper, disinfectants, etc.
• Yes, we can minimise the use of many chemicals. We can use natural soaps, shampoos, toothpastes and detergents which are easy to decompose.
• Awareness that how day-to-day activities is also degrading the nature.

Activities and Projects
Question 1.
In some cities, a pollution check has been made compulsory for vehicles. Visit a petrol pump in order to learn about the process of conducting a pollution check. You may systematically record your findings in the following areas:

• Average number of vehicles checked per month.
• Time taken to check each vehicle.
• Pollutants checked for.
• The process of testing.
• Permissible levels of emission of various gases.
• Measures taken if the emitted gases are above the permissible limits.
• How frequently is a pollution check required?

Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Conduct a survey in your school to investigate various environment related activities that have been undertaken. The class can divide itself into two groups, with each group looking at a different area. For example, one group can find out whether there is an environment club in the school. What are its objectives? What is its calendar of events? How can you become a member?
If your school does not have such a club, you even think of starting one along with a few of your friends.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 3.
Organise a field visit to a river in or around your town with the help of your teachers. Observations followed by discussion could focus on

• the history of the river.
• cultural traditions.
• role of the river in meeting the town’s water needs.
• pollution concerns.
• sources of pollution.
• effects of pollution on the people living by the riverside as well as those living far away.

Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 4.
Find out with the help of your teachers and the internet (if possible), whether there are any international agreements to control global warming. Which are the gases covered under these agreements?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct option.
Question 1.
Which of the following is a major source of water pollution?
(a) Sulphur dioxide
(b) Nitrogen oxide
(c) DDT
(d) Hydrogen oxide

Question 2.
The phenomenon of marble cancer is due to
(a) soil particles
(b) fog
(c) CFCs
(d) acid rain

Question 3.
Which gas is the major pollutant of air?
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) Propane

Question 4.
The solid or liquid particles dispersed in the air are called
(a) oxides
(b) acids
(c) hydrocarbons
(d) aerosols

Question 5.
Water containing high salt concentration can be purified by
(a) boiling
(b) UV radiation
(c) filtration
(d) reverse osmosis

Question 6.
The Taj Mahal is being affected due to
(a) noise pollution
(b) air pollution
(c) water pollution
(d) soil pollution

Question 7.
Greenhouse gas is
(a) nitrogen
(b) methane
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) both (b) and (c)

Question 8.
Pollution of water is due to
(a) oil refineries
(b) paper factories
(c) sugar mills
(d) all of these

Question 9.
The percentage of nitrogen is
(a) 21%
(b) 78%
(c) 12%
(d) 87%

Question 10.
Chlorofluorocarbon is used in
(a) refrigerators
(b) air conditioners
(c) aerosol sprays
(d) all of these

Question 11.
Which of the following is not a way to conserve water?
(a) Replace
(b) Reuse
(c) Reduce
(d) Recycle

Question 12.
Water suitable for drinking is known as
(a) impure water
(b) pure water
(c) potable water
(d) safe water

Question 13.
The contamination of natural environment is known as
(a) pollution
(b) greenhouse effect
(c) global warming
(d) CFCs

Question 14.
Agents that pollute water, soil and air is known as
(a) pollutants
(b) waste
(c) effluent
(d) garbage

Question 15.
The amount of oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere is
(a) 78%
(b) 21%
(c) 0.01%
(d) 3%

Question 16.
Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Methane
(c) Water vapour
(d) Carbon dioxide

Question 17.
The occasion of planting lakhs of trees in the month of July every year is known as
(a) Forest conservation day
(b) Plantation month
(c) Van mahotsav
(d) Wildlife week

Question 18.
Which of the following procedures will give you water free from all impurities?
(a) Chlorine tablets
(b) Boiling
(c) Distillation
(d) Filtration
Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (d)
5. (d)
6. (b)
7. (d)
8. (d)
9. (b)
10. (d)
11. (a)
12. (c)
13. (a)
14. (a)
15. (b)
16. (a)
17. (c)
18. (c)

II. Fill in the Blanks
Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.
1. Water which is suitable for drinking is called _________ water.
2. _________ is one of the most famous rivers of India.
3. _________ % of the world’s population is without safe drinking water.
4. _________ % of nitrogen is present in earth’s atmosphere.
5. _________ are those kind of pollutants which are used in air conditioners and refrigerators.
6. The _________ present in the faeces of mammals are indicators of the quality of water.
7. An odd combination of smoke and fog is called _________.
8. The solid or liquid particles dispersed in air are called _________.
9. Most of the atmospheric air is contained in the atmospheric layer called _________.
10. Water is a _________ natural resources.
11. Cholera is a _________ borne disease.
12. _________ is produced from incomplete burning of fuel.
13. _________ kills the germs present in water.
14. Increasing levels of _________ gases are leading to global warming.
15. _________ corrodes the marble of monuments.
Answer:
1. potable
2. Ganga
3. 25
4. 78
5. CFC’s
6. bacteria
7. smog
8. aerosols
9. troposphere
10. precious
11. water
12. Carbon monoxide
13. Boiling
14. greenhouse
15. Acid rain

III. Match the following
Match the items given in column I suitably with those given in column II.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (f)
5. (b)
6. (g)
7. (c)
8. (j)
9. (h)
10. (i)

IV. True or False
State whether the given statements are true or false.
1. CFC’s are not used in refrigerators.
2. 78% of oxygen is present in earth’s atmosphere.
3. Rapid growth of algae on the surface of water is known as algal bloom.
4. SO₂, CO₂ and nitrogen oxides are polluting gases.
5. Infrared radiations are absorbed by oxygen.
6. Acid rain does not affect the soil and plants.
7. Substances which contaminate the air are called water pollutants.
8. Smog causes breathing difficulties.
9. CFC’s damage the ozone layer of the atmosphere.
10. Water which looks clean still has dissolved impurities and disease causing microorganisms.
11. Corrosion of marble is known as marble cancer.
12. Global warming is a serious threat for life on earth.
13. Potable water is translucent.
14. We can use any amount of chlorine to purify water.
15. Water is a precious natural resource.
Answer:
1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False
6. False
7. False
8. True
9. True
10. True
11. True
12. True
13. False
14. False
15. True

Extra Questions for Class 8 Science

The post Pollution of Air and Water Class 8 Extra Questions Science Chapter 18 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 History Chapter 2 Writing and City Life

Class 11 History Chapter 2 Ncert Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Why do we say that it was not natural fertility and high levels of food production that were the causes of early urbanization?
Answer:
It is often said that natural fertility and high levels of food production were the causes of early urbanization. It is because of the following reasons:
(i) Natural fertility encourages settled life and agricultural production.
(ii) It paved the way for animal husbandry.
(iii) Fertility of the soil was also helpful in the beginning of new occupations.
(iv) Flourishing trade and commerce is also another major factor for urbanization.
(v) The development of art of writing and administration played a very critical role in the development of urbanization.

Question 2.
Which of the following were necessary conditions and which the causes of early urbanization, and which would you say were the outcome of the growth of cities:
(a) highly productive agriculture
(b) water transport
(c) the lack of metal and stone
(c) the division of labor
(e) the use of seals
(f) the military power of kings that made labor compulsory ?
Answer:
Following were the necessary conditions for urbanization:

• Highly productive agriculture
• Water transport
• The division of labor

Causes of early urbanization:

• Lack of metal and stones
• The use of the seals
• The military power of the kings that made labor compulsory.

Outcome of the growth of cities:

• Efficient transport system .
• Trade and services developed.

Question 3.
Why were mobile animal herders not necessarily a threat to town life?
Answer:
Mobile animal herders were required to exchange ghee, metal tools, grains, etc. So they were not a threat to town life.

Question 4.
Why would the early temple have been much like a house?
Answer:
Early settlers began to build temples at selected spots in their villages. The earliest known temple was a small shrine made of unbaked bricks. These early temples were much like a house because they were small in size. There used to be an open courtyard around which rooms were constructed. Temples were the residence of various gods. Temples also had their outer wall going in and out at regular intervals, which no ordinary building ever had.

Question 5.
Of the new institutions that came into being once city life had begun, which would have depended on the initiative of the king?
Answer:
Temple, trade, seal making , sculpture and the art of writing were the new institutions that came into being with the beginning of the city life. These institutions depended on the initiative of the king.

Question 6.
What do ancient stories tell us about the civilization of Mesopotamia?
Answer:
Ancient stories of Mesopotamia are the valuable sources of information. As per the stories, Mesopotamia is situated between two rivers, Tigris and Euphrates. Mesopotamia was one of the advanced civilizations of its time. Its society was divided into three classes, i.e.
(a) The upper class
(b) The middle class and
(c) The lower class

People belonging to upper classes led a life full of comforts and luxury and enjoyed special privileges. Agriculture was the main occupation of the people. Their life was normally prosperous. Religion was an important part of their life and people worshiped many gods and goddesses. Shamas was their main God. It was the Sun. Ziggurat was the name given to Sumerian temples.

Another description from the Bible: According to the Bible, the flood was meant to destroy all forms of life on the earth. However, God chose a man, Noah, to ensure that life could continue after devastating flood on the earth. Noah, built a huge boat, an ark. He took a pair each of all known species of animals and birds on the board, the arks which survived the flood. When other things were destroyed by the flood, his boat remained safe along with all the species. Thus began a new life on the earth. There was a similar striking story in Mesopotamian tradition, where the principal character was called Ziusudra or Utnapisthim.

Class 11 History Chapter 2 More Questions Solved

Class 11 History Chapter 2 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Where is Mesopotamia?
Answer:
Mesopotamia is in the republic of Iraq. It is situated between two world famous rivers; Euphrates and Tigris. The ancient Mesopotamian civilization also flourished in this region.

Question 2.
For which reason Mesopotamian river is well known?
Answer:
It is well known for its development of city life, rich literature, and mathematics.

Question 3.
When and where did archaeological work begin in Mesopotamia first of all?
Answer:
First of all, archaeological work began in Mesopotamia in 1840 at the given sites.
(i) Uruk
(ii) Mari

Question 4.
What is the meaning of the word ‘Mesopotamia’?
Answer:
The word ‘Mesopotamia’ is derived from two Greek words ‘Mesos’ and ‘Potamos’. The word ‘Mesos’ means the middle and ‘Potamas’ means river. Hence, the land lying or situated between two rivers (Tigris and Euphrates) is called Mesopotamia.

Question 5.
What does the Bible depict about flood?
Answer:
According to the Holy book of Christian, i.e. the Bible, the flood was meant to destroy all forms of life on the earth. However, God chose a human being Noah to ensure that life must go on after the flood.

Question 6.
Where was city life developed first of all in the world? Name the cities also.
Answer:
The city life developed or came into being first of all in the world in Mesopotamia. These earliest developed cities were:
(i) Ur
(ii) Uruk
(iii) Kish.

Question 7.
Which type of cities came into prominence in Mesopotamian civilization?
Answer:
These types of cities came into prominence in Mesopotamian civilization. These were:
(i) Religious Town
(ii) Trading Town
(iii) Imperial Town

Question 8.
Which were the major crops produced during Roman civilization?
Answer:
The major crops grown during the Roman civilization were wheat, peas, lintel and barley.

Question 9.
What were the reasons behind the development or growth of urbanization in Mesopotamia?
Answer:
The reasons behind the growth of urbanization in Mesopotamia were the following;
(i) Growth of agriculture
(ii) Flourishing trade
(iii) Use of seals
(iv) The military strength of the ruler who made labor compulsory to all.

Question 10.
When did ancient town begin to flourish in Mesopotamia?
Answer;
The ancient town flourished in Mesopotamia dated back to bronze age, i.e. c. 3000 BCE.

Question 11.
Which was the ancient town of Mesopotamia? Name its capital also.
Answer:
Uruk was the ancient town of Mesopotamia. Its capital was Baghdad. It was one of the magnificent towns of that time.

Question 12.
(i) Name two rulers of Uruk.
(ii) Name the archaeologist who excavated it.
Answer:
(i) Two rulers of Uruk were Enmerkar and Gilgamesh.
(ii) The city of Uruk was excavated by Julius Jordan in 1913.

Question 13.
Who founded Ur and when?
Answer:
Ur was founded by Mesanepada. It was founded in 2670 BCE. This town was a famous part as well as a trading town.

Question 14.
List some items which are essential for urban development.
Answer:
Efficient transport network, trade, crafts, services, etc.

Question 15.
Name the archaeologists who carried out excavation work at Ur.
Answer:
J.E. Taylor, Sir Leonard Woollesy, R.C. Thompson and H.R. Hall carried out excavation work at Ur.

Question 16.
What do you know about Mari?
Answer:
Mari was a famous town of Mesopotamia. This city flourished between 2900 BCE to 1759 BCE. It was destroyed by Akkad ruler Sargon in 2350, but regained her lost glory after 2000 B.C.E. when it was made the capital of Amorite Empire.

Question 17.
Who was the famous ruler of Mari?
Answer:
The famous ruler of Mari was Zimrilion who constructed a beautiful palace which was spread over 204 hectares and having 260 rooms.

Question 18.
Where is Nimrod? By which name Nimrod was also known as? By whom and when was it excavated?
Answer:
Nimrod was a famous town in Mesopotamia. It was situated on the southern bank of the river Tigris. In ancient period, it was also known as Kalhu. This town was first excavated by Herry Austen Layard in 1845.

Question 19.
Who founded Nimrod? Where was it founded?
Answer:
Nimrod was founded by Shalmanesar-I in 1295 BCE. This city was also made the capital of his empire by another ruler Asur-Narispal in 880 BCE.

Question 20.
What did Mesopotamian tablets contain? When were these tablets written?
Answer:
The Mesopotamian tablets contained only symbols and numbers. These tablets contained the signs/symbols of fish, bread, leaves and were written around 3200 BCE.

Question 21.
What do you know about the script used by Mesopotamia’s?
Answer:
The Mesopotamian script was pictographic. It represented signs, symbols, and pictures to depict objects. It was around 2600 BCE when a system of writing known as cuneiform developed.

Question 22.
Which was the earliest language known to Mesopotamia’s? By which language was it replaced? (HOTS)
Answer:
The earliest language known to Mesopotamia’s was Sumerian. This was replaced by Akkadian language around 2400 BCE.

Question 23.
What is the meaning of Cuneiform?
Answer:
The word ‘Cuneiform’ is derived from two Latin words. These words are ‘Cuneus’ meaning ‘wedge’ and ‘forma’ meaning ‘Shape’. Thus, the wedge shaped symbols which represent the syllable and sound of a word is called cuneiform.

Question 24.
What were the main social classes of early cities?
Or
How was Mesopotamian society divided?
Answer:
Society was divided into three classes. These classes included:
(i) The upper class
(ii) The middle class
(lii) The lower class
The upper class consisted of priest, king and officials. The middle class consisted of traders, merchants, landlords, etc. while the lower class consisted of peasants, laborers and slaves.

Question 25.
What was the status of women during early states?
Answer:
The status of women was very good during early states. They participated in social and religious festivals without any dissemination’s. They were free from social restrictions and could hold any desirable post with her ability.

Question 26.
Which two things indicate that ‘only a few Mesopotamia’s could read and write’?
Answer:
Two things indicate that only a few’ Mesopotamia’s could read and write are:
(i) 300 signs were available to read and write. It was a very lengthy procedure.
(ii) Reading and writing of these signs were very complicated.

Question 27.
Which was the center of main urban institution?
Answer:
Temple was the main center of urban institution where all kinds of things related to daily uses of the commoners were carried out.

Question 28.
“In spite of natural fertility, agriculture was the subject to hazards.” Why.
Answer:
In spite of natural fertility, agriculture was the subject to hazards because:
(i) River Tigris was overflowed during the particular month of a year.
(ii) The river often changed its course which causes water scarcity in a particular region.

Question 29.
How did the chiefs increase their influence?
Answer:
During the warfare those chiefs who emerged as victorious, distributed their loot among their followers and also took prisoners from defeated groups and employed them as their guards. Thus the victorious chiefs increased their influence by the need of their followers and showing kindness towards the defeated.

Question 30.
Which was the earliest temple town of Egypt? How did it become reliable?
Answer:
Uruk was the earliest temple town of Egypt. It became reliable from the depictions of armed heroes and their victims.

Question 31.
Why was literacy rate so slow in Mesopotamia?
Answer:
The large number of symbols coupled with the complexity of the language led to low literacy rate in Mesopotamia.

Question 32.
Which type of family system was prevalent in Mesopotamian society?
Answer:
A nuclear family system was prevalent in Mesopotamian society. This type of family comprises a man, his wife and children.

Question 33.
How many types of slaves were there in Mesopotamian society?
Answer:
These types of slaves were there in Mesopotamian society. They were ;
(i) War prisoners.
(ii) Children sold by their parents.
(iii) Debt traped persons (Persons who were not able to pay back their loan).

Question 34.
What were the modes of entertainment of the people?
Answer:
The various modes of entertainment of the people were dancing, singing, playing flute, hunting of wild animals, watching wrestling, etc.

Question 35.
Name some famous temples constructed by the people of early cities.
Answer:
The main temples constructed by the people of early cities were the following.
(i) Nanne
(ii) Anu
(iii) Enki
(iv) Inanna

Question 36.
Which types of community resided in Mari kingdom?
Answer:
Communities of the farmers and pastoralists resided in Mari kingdom. Most of the kingdom was covered by pastoralists.

Question 37.
Who built a beautiful palace at Mari? How many rooms were there in this palace?
Answer:
The Great Palace of Mari was built by Zimrilim (1810 – 1760 BCE). There were 260 rooms in this palace and was spread over an area of 2.4 hectares.

Question 38.
What were the three unique characteristics of town planning of Mesopotamia? (HOTS)
Answer:
The three unique characteristics of Mesopotamian civilization were:
(i) Towns were constructed according to pre-planned strategy.
(ii) Baked bricks were used for construction.
(iii) Most of the houses were of single story having a courtyard.

Question 39.
Which was the famous epic of Sumerian literature?
Answer:
The famous epic of Sumerian literature was ‘Gilgamesh‘. It also occupies a unique place in the world of literature.

Question 40.
When and how Gilgamesh was composed?
Answer:
‘Gilgamesh’ was composed during 2000 BCE in 12 tablets. It was written about Uruk ruler Gilgamesh who occupied the throne around 2700 BCE.

Question 41.
When and where Mesopotamian script was discovered?
Answer:
Mesopotamian script was discovered in Summer in 3200 BCE.

Question 42.
Describe any two features of Mesopotamian script.
Answer:
Two features of Mesopotamian script were:
(i) It was written on clay tablets.
(ii) It was written from left to right.

Question 43.
Which was the earliest language known to Mesopotamian? Which language replaced it and when?
Answer:
The earliest language known to Mesopotamian was the Sumerian. It was replaced by ‘Akkad’ around 2400 BCE.

Question 44.
Describe in brief the importance of writing.
Answer:
(i) Writing helped in the spread of education,
(ii) It helped in the promotion of trade and also about the contemporary condition of the society at that particular time.

Question 45.
What do you know about steles?
Answer:
A stone slabs with inscription or carving are called steles.

Class 11 History Chapter 2 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why Mesopotamia is considered important by Europeans? Give reasons. (VBQ)
Answer:
Europeans considered Mesopotamian important on account of following reasons:
(i) In Old Testament, there are references about it, which refers to ‘Shimar’, meaning the Sumer (the land of brick built cities). It clearly refers to Mesopotamia, because early planned cities existed there.
(ii) European scholars and travelers referred to Mesopotamia as their ancestral land.
(iii) Archaeological discoveries also depict that Europeans had keen interest in this region.

Question 2.
“Rivers play crucial role in the emergence of civilization”. Justify this statement in context to Mesopotamia. (HOTS)
Answer:
Mesopotamia is situated between the land of two rivers, i.e. Euphrates and Tigris. Both these rivers originated from Armenia mountain in present day Turkey. They drained a vast mountain region. Although the climate of this area is dry yet agriculture is possible because of irrigation facilities. The favorable agricultural condition encouraged the people to reside in this region. The surplus food production of crops enabled the agriculturist communities to feed those people such as craftsmen, priests, rulers, soldiers, etc. who were not practicing agriculture. The nomadic pastoralist communities provided with other essential needs of daily uses to these people. Thus the settlement of all these in this region paved the way for the rise of civilization.

Question 3.
Give some facts to show geographical diversities that existed in Iraq.
Answer:
Geographical diversity existed in Iraq. Some of these arguments that support it are the following:
(i) North-east region is lush green region. It is also covered with mountain ranges with clear streams.
(ii) There is plentiful rainfall in the region which is sufficient for growing crops.
(iii) In Northern region there is a vast track of upland, called steppe. In this region, animal herders reside who provides better livelihood than agriculture.
(iv) In the east, River Tigris and its tributaries flows which provides routes of communication into the mountain region of Iran.

Question 4.
Write in brief about the importance of southern and north-east regions of Mesopotamia.
Answer:
Mesopotamian southern region is desert, but the rivers Euphrates and Tigris support the city life here. These rivers deposit their silt by flooding in the region and make the soil fertile. When the river Euphrates enters the desert, it gets divided into small channels. These river channels provided irrigation facilities in the past. Crops such as wheat, barley, peas or lentils were grown here, though there did not happen sufficient rainfall. In the north-east region, sheepary goats were grazed on steppe by the Mesopotamia’s. In this region milk, wool and meat was produced in bulk. Fish was also available in plenty. Date-palm provided fruit in summer. Considering these facts we can conclude that these regions were of utmost importance for Mesopotamia’s.

Question 5.
“The use of seals played significant role in the development of trade in urbanisation in Mesopotamia.” Discuss.
Answer:
A number of seals have been excavated from Mesopotamia. These were made of stone and were cylindrical in shape. These seals were fitted with a stick and then rolled over wet clay so that a continuous picture got engraved over it. This work was done by skilled craftsmen. The name of the owner, his God, his official, ranks, etc. were also engraved on it. Seals were used by merchants to send their goods from one place to another. Goods were first packed and a seal was put at the head of the pack to ensure its authenticity. In case seals were found tampered with, it meant the back had been pilfered on the way otherwise it was safe and secure. Undoubtedly, we can say that the use of seals played a significant role in the growth of urbanization.

Question 6.
“The Euphrates river of ancient Mesopotamia was world renowned trade route”. How will you justify? (HOTS)
Answer:
Earlier the task of transportation of goods, food grains and other essential commodities were carried by the beasts of burden or bullock-carts. It was time consuming activity and a lengthy process. The river Euphrates helped the people to get rid of this task. It flows almost through the entire region of Mesopotamia. It provided people one of the cheapest means of transport, which made possible to transport bulk goods with any difficulty. The boats guided by the direction of winds were available free of cost. Several stream emerging of it provided an excellent source of water transportation. Most of the trade began to carry out on this route. Hence, we can say that the river of Euphrates was a well renowned trade-route.

Question 7.
Explain with the help of an example, how did compulsory labor make possible the construction of temples, palaces, buildings, etc.
Answer:
Mesopotamian king enjoyed the supreme status in the society and also enjoyed extensive power. The king made labor compulsory to all inhabiting in his empire for rendering their services to town’s deities and to construct temples. For example, the construction of temple in Uruk city was done by 1500 people working 10 hours a day. This work continued for five years. No person could seek immunity from compulsory labor. The people who were engaged in compulsory labor were paid grains in lieu of their services.

Question 8.
How pictographic script came into prominence?
Answer:
The trace of written language has come up from Sumer in Mesopotamia. They are dated back to 3200 BCE. It is believed that the written language was evoked by temple priests, who were assigned to look after temples independently by the king. They had to keep the records of the expenditure and income of the temples. So they began to paint the items donated to the temples on clay tablet. In this, they began to keep these records. The temple of Uruk has revealed a list of 5000 such tablets. They engraved the pictures like signs and numbers of oxen, fish, etc. Now, it became easier to remember the things. In this way, the pictographic script came into prominence.

Question 9.
What do you know about the ancient town Ur of Mesopotamia?
Answer:
(i) This city was founded by Mesapnanda about 2670 BCE. It was a well-known commercial centre and a port was destroyed by Elemites around 2200 BCE.
(ii) Ur was re-established under Ur-Nammu in 2100 BCE.
(iii) It was first excavated by British excavator J.E. Taylor in 1854-55.
(iv) This city was designed without planning as the excavation depicted.
(v) Excavation was carried out on a large scale during 1920s and 1930s, under the supervision of Sir Leonard Woollsey.

Question 10.
Which factors suggest that Ur was an unplanned city?
Answer:
Ur was an unplanned city because excavation here reveals that people used to throw domestic garbage in the street. As a result of this, the level of the streets began to increase. Holders had to raise the level of their house for proper arrangement of light inside their rooms. It was made possible through doors, rather than windows. Several superstitious beliefs were also prevalent among Ur people regarding their houses under consideration. For example, they raised threshold of a house that brought prosperity. They believed that the first door that did not open towards another house was good and praiseworthy. In case, the door opened outward, it is believed that their strained relations between the husband and the wife residing in it.

Question 11.
Discuss the features of town planning of early urban society.
Or
Discuss the essential values of Mesopotamian’s town planning.
Answer:
Features of town planning of early urban societies:
(i) The Mesopotamian cities were designed according to a definite plan. Hammurabi had issued a special order to construct cities according to a definite plan.
(ii) Special attention was paid towards the strength of the building.
(iii) Baked bricks were used for constructing buildings.
(iv) Any violation regarding the construction rules were dealt with severely.
(v) Most of the buildings, i.e. the houses were of single story. There used to be an open courtyard in these houses. Along with this courtyard rooms were constructed.
(vi) Some people also built basement in their houses to beat heat.
(vii) There was also well adequate provision for roads in towns.

Question 12.
What do you know about ancient Mesopotamian town Kish?
Answer:
Ancient Mesopotamian town Kish was situated 12 kilometers east of Babylon. This city flourished around 3000 BCE under the ruler Urtung, who invaded Iran and subjected it to loot and plunder. This town reached its zenith of prosperity during the period from 2800 to 2300 BCE. It continued to flourish till 600 BCE. The first woman ruler of the Kish was Ku-baba, who ascended the throne, in 2450 BCE. The excavation work here was carried out by French archaeologist, between 1912 to 1914 CE. There Ziggurates, a temple and extensive palaces were excavated here by archaeologists.

Question 13.
Name any two French archaeologists who carried art excavation at Lagish. Describe in short about its ruler Gudea.
Answer:
Lagish, the important city of Mesopotamia was discovered by two French archaeologists Earnest de-Sarzec and Gaston Cross. Gudea, the greatest ruler of Lagish ruled from 2144 to 2104 BCE. He was very popular among his people due to his religious deeds, liberal attitude and being a justice-lover ruler. He also contributed a lot in the field of architecture and constructed many temples and several of his own statues. He also encouraged trade. As a result of his efforts, i.e. promotion of trade, people became affluent during his region. This city began to lose its glory after the death of Gudea.

Question 14.
What do you know about sacred temples of Mesopotamia? What were they called?
Answer:
Mesopotamian religion was polytheistic. Each city worshipped different gods and goddesses such as Erlin, Marduk, Ashur, etc.
They worshipped their gods and goddesses in temples known as Ziggurats. Ziggurats represented a sacred mountain where gods and men could meet. Early constructed atop a small earthen platform; as the time passed away these platforms became larger and larger giving rise to the classical Mesopotamian Ziggurats. They resembled steep pyramids with a flatfoot on which a shrine would be built. People could reach to this shrine by broad staircase or a ramp.

Question 15.
What do you know about the emergence of Nineveh?
Answer:
Nineveh was situated on the eastern bank of the river Tigris. It was founded by Ninus in 1800 BCE. It was then spread over an area of 1800 hectares. Under Asvrian rulers Sennacharets, Nineveh made tremendous progress. He ruled from 700-681 BCE and constructed a beautiful palace here. The size of this palace was 210 meters in length and 200 meters in breadth. The palace was adorned with beautiful images and paintings. He also constructed many temples and buildings. He got many canals constructed which provided water for irrigation. To secure the peace of Nineveh, he constructed the wall around the city.

Question 16.
Describe in brief the achievements of Ashurbanipal.
Answer:
Ashurbanipal was the well known ruler of Nineveh. He ruled from 668 to 627 BCE. He made all efforts for outstanding artisans and artists from across his empire to settle at Nineveh. He constructed many beautiful temples and buildings. He also got repaired old buildings and temples. Several gardens built by him, add beauty to his capital. He also patronised literature and constructed a massive library in the temple of Nabu. All the literary works available in the library were arranged subject-wise. But its prestige began to lose after his death.

Question 17.
Describe the status of women in Mesopotamian society.
Answer:
Women enjoyed a respectable position in the society. They enjoyed equal status with men in religious and social affairs of life.

• Women were free to set up their own trade and could even keep slaves for either male or female.
• They were allowed to remarry in case of death of her husband.
• Devdasi system was also prevalent in the society but was not considered inimical to healthy social value.
• In case of the death of her husband, they became the custodian of his property.

Question 18.
How is the division of labor believed to be the main factor behind the growth of urbanization? Explain with an example.
Answer:
The division of labor is believed to be the major factor behind the growth of urbanization; because, the people of towns were not self-sufficient. They depended on other people for several kinds of services. Consider the following example:
A person engaged in making stone seals requires bronze metal for engraving it. He could not make tools of his own. Beside this he also had to depend on other person for color stones required for making seals. He did know trade, and had to depend on trades or other people who rendered this services to him. In short, he had to depend on others. Thus, all these functions were performed with mutual co-operation.

Question 19.
How did the amalgamation of different castes and communities give birth to a new civilization?
Answer:
Mari was an important city of ancient Mesopotamia. The city regained its ancient splendor in 2000 BCE, when Amorite dynasty declared her its capital. It was again destroyed during Hammurabi’s invasion in 1759 BCE.

The people living here were agriculturists and pastoralists. They belonged to various communities such as Akkadi, Amorite, Asyran and Armenian. The king belonged to Amorite community. The entire Amorite community had different dress-codes as compared to other communities. The King of Mari built a magnificent temple at Mari dedicated to the deity known as Dagans. Thus amalgamation of different castes and communities gave birth to new civilization at Mari. As people belonging to different communities resided at Mari, the king had always to remain vigilant.

Question 20.
“The script of Mesopotamia helped the historians to throw light on this ancient civilization”. Justify the statement.
Answer:
The earliest language known to the Mesopotamian was the Sumerian. It was replaced by Akkadi around 2400 BCE. Gradually, the Aramaic came into prominence by 1400 BCE. The use of Aramaic became widespread by 1000 BCE. Irrespective of the fact that there had originated a script in Mesopotamia, still the rate of literacy was very low. The logic behind low literacy rate was that there were more than 2000 symbols used to decipher. Besides this, the language was itself very complicated. But truly speaking, the languages of the Mesopotamian have given a very long way in helping the historians, who after carefully examining and analyzing it throws a flood light on this ancient civilization.

Class 11 History Chapter 2 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you know about Uruk?
Answer:
Situated on the bank of the river Euphrates, about 2500 kilometers south-east of modern capital city of Baghdad, Uruk is an ancient Mesopotamian city. It came into existence around 3000 BCE, and was reckoned to be the most extensive town in the contemporary world. Uruk spread over an area of 250 hectares. It was twice in size when compared to Indus valley civilization. The city expanded around 2800 BCE. This area increased to about 400 hectares. Nearly 50,000 to 80,000 people resided here at that time.

Sumerian king Ermerkar was the founder of this town. He also constructed here the temple of a well-known goddess Inanna. Another famous ruler of this town was Gilgamesh. He declared Uruk as the capital city of his empire. To safeguard ground from any invasion he constructed a massive town around it. Here in Uruk the war prisoner had to do compulsory labour either for the ruler or for construction of temple. They were paid in grains in return. The common people were engaged in the extraction of stones, making mud-bricks, etc. as per the order of their ruler.

Uruk had also made unprecedented progress in the field of technology. The invention of potter’s wheel led to a revolutionary change in the field of technology and also helped in utensil making on a large scale.

Question 2.
Describe the main features of the city of Babylon.
Answer:
The city of Babylon had played an outstanding role in the ancient history of Mesopotamia. It was Akkad ruler, Sargon, who ruled from 2370 to 2315 BCE. Being situated on the north-west bank of river Tigris it made tremendous progress under Humurabiera. Babylon witnessed the emergence of glorious era of its history under Keldian ruler Nabopolassor. At that time, it covered an area of more than 850 hectares. Some magnificent features of Babylon were as follows:
(i) A triple wall was constructed all-around the city to safeguard it from any foreign threat.
(ii) A massivq Ziggurat was the main center of attraction in Babylon.
(iii) It was also a famous commercial center.
(iv) The city had also made a tremendous progress in the field of language, literature, science, medicine, etc.

Question 3.
Describe the nature of early urban society under Mesopotamia.
Or
“There was a great disparity among the different sections of the Mesopotamian society”. Explain.
Answer:
The early urban society was divided into three classes. The first class or group of the people coming from elites and consisted of the king (Monarch), the priest, the officials, rich merchants and businessmen, high military officials, etc. They led a luxurious life and lived in magnificent buildings and palaces. They wore expensive clothes and used to eat sumptuous foods. The people of this class were served by several men and women slaves. The people belonging to second class consisted of the people such as small scale merchants, artisans, state officials, intellectuals, etc. Like upper or 1st class they also led a life of luxury. The third estate or class people constituted the lowest strata of the society. Their life was very miserable. The dead bodies of the upper class people were buried along with precious items such as gold vessels, oyster shell, lapis lazuli, etc. On the other hand, the dead bodies of common people were buried along with ordinary pots, etc. It clearly indicates that there was great disparity among the different sections of society.

Question 4.
Illustrate the construction of temple and gradual increasing of activities of temples in Mesopotamia.
Answer:
Mesopotamian temples have played a significant role in the history of Mesopotamia. They constructed temples and dedicated them to their different gods and goddesses. Their temples were dedicated to Nanna, Anu, Enki and Inanna. Besides these four deities, each town had its own deity who was considered to be the protector of the respective town.

Temples of early Mesopotamia were comparatively smaller in size. They were also made of unbaked bricks. With the passage of time, the temple began to take new shape. Their importance as well as size began to increase. They used to build their temples on the hill tops because they believed that God (deities) dwell on the hill-top. These temples were made of baked bricks.

One of the peculiar features of these temples was that their outer walls had inward and outward bend at regular intervals. The temple had a courtyard and there were several rooms around it. The image of the deity was placed in the main room. Some rooms served as dwelling places for priests and other rooms were meant to stay for the pilgrims.

Increasing Activities of the Temples:
(i) Temples served as center of imparting education, where the priests used to serve as teachers.
(ii) Land attached to temples was also used for industrial purposes.
(iii) Temples were also engaged in sales and purchases of goods and also used to provide advance loans to the traders and charge interest thereon.
(iv) The people offered grains, curd, dates, etc. to serve their deities. They also sacrificed ox, sheep, goat, etc. to offer their blessings.
(v) Temples also served as the centers for entertainment and provided a common platform for the people to meet each other and get a new boost.

Question 5.
What do you know about Gilgamesh? Explain in detail.
Answer:
The Gilgamesh epic occupies a special place not only in Sumerian literature, but also in world history. It was written by Uruk ruler Gilgamesh, who ruled there about 2700 BCE. It was written on 12 tablets. This epic is about the achievements of Gilgamesh. Gilgamesh was a famous ruler of Uruk. He was a great ruler and laid the foundation of a vast empire. To secure the Uruk against any threat of the foreign ruler he constructed a well around it with a view to end his tyrannical rule. People prayed to deity, Anu. As a result of this, God Anu ordered the goddess Arur to create such a God who could surpass Gilgamesh. The goddess created Enkidu who fought with Gilgamesh. He was impressed by his bravery and became a fast friend.

“They both performed several commendable works and decided to kill a demon of Elam known as Humbaba. After a terrible war, Gilgamesh finally killed Humbaba. Impressed by the bravery of Gilgamesh, Ishtar fell in love with her.

Gilgamesh’s friend Enkidu fell in love with a beautiful dancing girl. This enraged the deities. So they decided to end the life of Enkidu. Soon after he fell ill and died. The death of Enkidu deeply hurt Gilgamesh. He began to think one day that he will also die. Thus he began his search to attain immortality, but no one could ever become immortal. At the time of creation of a human being God gave him (the man) death and kept life with them. Despite this he did his best to become immortal.

Finally, he thought about Utnapishtim. Being impressed by his efforts Utnapishtim revealed the secret of immortality through the pant lying at the button of an ocean (sea). Gilgamesh accepted this challenge and jumped into the sea to bring the said plant. On his return he was very tired and fell asleep. Meanwhile a snake came here and took away that plant. When he woke up he saw the desired plant was missing. Finally, he understood the fact that the man can never become immortal. He came back to his native city. After many years he became emotional on seeing his city. He realised the fact that hi. sons will continue to enjoy the vast empire built by him after his death.

Question 6.
State the points of similarities and differences between Indus valley and Mesopotamia a n civilization.
Answer:
Similarities:
(i) Both are river valley civilizations. Indus valley civilization flourished along the bank of river Indus, while Mesopotamian civilization flourished along the banks of Tigris and Euphrates.
(ii) Both are known for their excellent town planning.
(iii) Baked bricks were used for construction.

Question 7.
What do you know about the palace at Mari of King Zimrilim?
Answer:
The Great Palace of Mari was the residence of royal family. This palace was the hub of administration and a centre of production of beautiful ornaments. It was famous palace of his time. Many minor kings from north Syria came to see it, carrying with him a letter of introduction from royal friends of the king of Mari. The king met all of them and shared food with them. The palace had only a entrance from the north and had a large courtyard such as 131 were beautifully paved. The king also met foreign delegates in 132 rooms, which were decorated with wall paintings and illustrations. This sprawling structure was spread over an area of 2.4 hectares having 260 rooms.

Question 8.
Why were there often clashes between the animal herders and farmers of Mari?
Answer:
There were a number of factors responsible for their conflicts. Some of them are given below:
(i) The shepherds of Mari used to take their herds through the standing crops on their way when going out in search of water. It caused immense damage to the crops of the farmer.
(ii) The shepherds (animal herders) used to invade the inhabitants of the villages by farming communities and indulged into lost and plunder.
(iii) Sometimes the farmers used to their (animal herder’s) way, which hampered their access to sources of water. It also led to clashes between them.
(iv) Some groups of the herders used to serve as agricultural laborers or helpers in assisting in harvest. With the passage of time their income increased and they became prosperous. Then they began to live a settled life, which was not acceptable to farmers. It also led to the emergence of struggle or clashes between them.

Class 11 History Chapter 2 Passage Based Questions
Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow:

Passage 1.

In India, early stone seals were stamped. In Mesopotamia until the end of the first millennium BCE, cylindrical stone seals, pierced down the center, were fitted with a stick and rolled over wet clay so that a continuous picture was created. They were carved by very skilled craftsmen, and sometimes carry writing; the name of the owner, his god, his official position, etc. A seal could be rolled on clay covering the string knot of a cloth package or the mouth of a pot, keeping the contents safe. When rolled on a letter written on a clay tablet, it became a mark of authenticity. So the seal was the mark of a city dweller’s role in public life.

Questions:
(i) Which type of material was used to make seals?
(ii) What were the various types of seals?
(iii) Who carved these seals? Write a few features of these seals (Mesopotamian seals).
Answers:
(i) Seals were made of stones. It is evident from the fact that until the end of the first millennium BCE, cylindrical stone seals were prevalent in the society.

(ii) There were two types of seals. These were:

• Stamp seals
• Cylindrical seals

(iii) These seals were carved by skilled craftsmen.

Features

• Artistically the carving of the seals was of excellent quality.
• Engraving on these seals depict the scene of every day life.
• The inscribed sign describes the authenticity of the seal.

Passage 2.

Today, Mesopotamian excavators have much higher standards of accuracy and care in recording than in the old days, so that few dig huge areas the way Ur was excavated. Moreover, few archaeologists have the funds to employ large teams of excavators. Thus, the mode of obtaining data has changed.

Take the small town at Abu Salabikh, about 10 hectares in area in 2500 BCE with a population less than 10,000. The outlines of walls were at first traced by scraping surfaces. This involves scraping off the top few millimetres of the mound with the sharp and wide end of a shovel or other tool. While the soil underneath was still slightly moist, the archaeologist could make out different colours, textures and lines of brick walls or pits or other features.

A few houses that were discovered were excavated. The archaeologists also sieved through tons of earth to recover plant and animal remains, and in the process identified many species of plants and animals and found large quantities of charred fish bones that had been swept out on to the streets. Plant seeds and fibres remained after dung cakes had been burned as fuel and thus kitchens were identified.

Living rooms were those with fewer traces. Because they found the teeth of very young pigs on the streets, archaeologists concluded that pigs must have roamed freely here as in any other Mesopotamian town. In fact, one house burial contained some pig bones—the dead person must have been given some pork for his nourishment in the afterlife! The archaeologists also made microscopic studies of room floors to decide which rooms in a house were roofed (with poplar logs, palm leaves, straw, etc.) and which were open to the sky.

Questions:
(i) Explain in brief the procedure adopted to discover Abu Salabikh? Why had Mesopotamian excavators much higher standards of accuracy?
(ii) What do you know about Abu Salabikh?
(iii) What does the presence of pig bones along with burial indicate?
Answers:
(i) The procedure involves the scraping off the top few millimeters of the mound with the sharp and wide and of a shovel or other tools. The digging work was carefully carried out with high standards for accuracy. A few archaeologists employed large team of excavators to carry out excavation work. The mode of data collecting was totally different.

(ii) Abu Salabikh was a famous Mesopotamian town. It was spread over an area of 10 hectares in 2500 BCE with a population of less than ten thousand.

(iii) The presence of pig bones along with burial indicates that the dead person must have been given some pork for his nourishment.

Passage 3.

An Early Library:
In the iron age, the Assyrians of the north created an empire, at its height between 720 and 610 BCE, that stretched as far west as Egypt. The state economy was now a predatory one, extracting labor and tribute in the form of food, animals, metal and craft items from a vast subject population.

The great Assyrian kings, who had been immigrants, acknowledged the southern region, Babylonia, as the center of high culture and the last of them, Ashurbanipal (668-627 BCE), collected a library at his capital, Nineveh in the north. He made great efforts to gather tablets on history, epics, omen literature, astrology, hymns and poems. He sent his scribes south to find old tablets. Because scribes in the south were trained to read and write in schools where they all had to copy tablets by the dozen, there were towns in Babylonia where huge collections of tablets were created and acquired fame. And although Sumerian ceased to be spoken after about 1800 BCE, it continued to be taught in schools, through vocabulary texts, sign lists, bilingual (Sumerian and Akkadian) tablets, etc. So even in 650 BCE, cuneiform tablets written as far back as 2000 BCE were intelligible – and Ashurbanipal’s men knew where to look for early tablets or their copies.

Copies were made of important texts such as the Epic of Gilgamesh, the copier stating his name and writing the date. Some tablets ended with a reference to Ashurbanipal. I, Ashurbanipal, king of the universe, king of Assyria, on whom the gods bestowed vast intelligence, who could acquire the recondite details of scholarly erudition, I wrote down on tablets the wisdom of the gods … And I checked and collated the tablets. I placed them for the future in the library of the temple of my god, Nabu, at Nineveh, for my life and the well-being of my soul, and to sustain the foundations of my royal throne.

More important, there was cataloguing: a basket of tablets would have a clay label that read: ‘n number of tablets about exorcism, written by X’. Ashurbanipal’s library had a total of some 1,000 texts, amounting to about 30,000 tablets, grouped according to subject.

Questions:
(i) Which type of state economy was prevalent at that time?
(ii) Who established a huge library at Nineveh?
(iii) (a) Name the place acknowledged as the center of high culture by Assyrian.
(b) Who helped Ashurbanipal to collect huge tablets of different literary texts and how?
(iv) How many texts were in Ashurbanipal’s library?
(v) Describe the achievements of Ashurbanipal.

Answers:
(i) At that time state economy was predatory. It was focused on extracting labour in the form of food, animals, metals and craft items, etc. from a large section of population.

(ii) The great Assurian king Assurbanipal established a huge library at Nineveh.

(iii) (a) Babylonia
(b) Skilled scribes of the south helped him to collect huge tablets of different literary texts. These scribes were trained to read and write in schools where huge collection of tablets were created and acquired fame.

(iv) There were one thousand texts in his library.

(v) Assurbanipal was the famous ruler of Nineveh, who played an important role in its development. He constructed several buildings and temples and also got repaired old buildings and monuments. He took keen interest in the development of literature and established a massive library in the temple of Nabu at Nineveh. The main subjects were history, epics, astrology, philosophy, science and poetry. He himself wrote many texts and got back the lost glory and prestige of Nineveh.

Passage 4.

And, an Early Archaeologist!:
A man of the southern marshes, Nabopolassar, released Babylonia from Assyrian domination in 625 BCE. His successors increased their territory and organized building projects at Babylon. From that time, even after the Achaemenids of Iran conquered Babylon in 539 BCE and until 331 BCE when Alexander conquered Babylon, Babylon was the premier city of the world, more than 850 hectares, with a triple wall, great palaces and temples, a ziggurat or stepped tower, and a processional way to the ritual centre. Its trading houses had widespread dealings and its mathematicians and astronomers made some new discoveries.

Nabonidus was the last ruler of independent Babylon. He writes that the God of Ur came to him in a dream and ordered him to appoint a priestess to take charge of the cult in that ancient town in the deep south. He writes: ‘Because for a very long-time the office of High Priestess had been forgotten, her characteristic features nowhere indicated, I bethought myself day after day.

Then, he says, he found the stele of a very early king whom we today date to about 1150 BCE and saw on that stele the carved image of the Priestess. He observed the clothing and the jewellery that was depicted. This is how he was able to dress his daughter for her consecration as Priestess.

On another occasion, Nabonidus’s men brought to him a broken statue inscribed with the name of Sargon, king of Akkad. (We know today that the latter ruled around 2370 BCE.) Nabonidus, and indeed many intellectuals, had heard of this great king of remote times. Nabonidus felt he had to repair the statue. ‘Because of my reverence for the gods and respect for kingship,’ he writes, ‘I summoned skilled craftsmen, and replaced the head.’

Questions:
(i) Name the last independent ruler of Babylon.
(ii) Who released Babylonia from Assyrian domination and when?
(iii) Who came into the dream of Nabonidus and what did he say to him? How did he consecrate his daughter?

Answers:
(i) The last independent ruler of Babylon was Nabonidus.

(ii) Nabopolassar released Babylonia from Assyrian domination in 625 BCE.

(iii) The God of‘Ur’ came into the dream of Nabonidus. He ordered him to appoint a priestess to take charge of the cult in the ancient town in the deep south. Nabonidus describes in his words, “Because for a very long time the office of High priestess had forgotten her characteristic features”. He further stated that he found the stele of a very early king and observed on that stele the carved image of the priestess. He also observed the clothing and the jewellery that was depicted. This is how he was able to dress his daughter for her consecration as priestess.

Passage 5.

The Warka Head:
This woman’s head was sculpted in white marble at Uruk before 3000 BCE. The eyes and eyebrows would probably have taken lapis lazuli (blue) and shell (white) and bitumen (black) inlays, respectively. There is a groove along the top of the head, perhaps for an ornament. This is a world-famous piece of sculpture, admired for the delicate modelling of the woman’s mouth, chin and cheeks. And it was modeled in a hard stone that would have been imported from a distance.

Questions:
(i) Where was the woman’s head sculpture discovered? What was it called? How old was this?
(ii) What were its unique characteristics?
(iii) Why is it a world famous sculpture? Which qualities of this sculpture made him so famous?

Answers:
(i) The woman’s head was sculpted in white marble at Uruk. It was called the Warka Head. It was 3000 BCE old.

(ii) The Warka Head had some unique characteristics. These were:

• The eyes and eyebrows had taken lapis lazuli (blue) and shell (white) and bitumen (black) inlays.
• There is a groove along the top of the head, perhaps for an ornament.

(iii) The Warka Head sculpture is world famous because it was admired for its delicate modelling of woman’s mouth, chin and cheeks.

Class 11 History Chapter 2 Map Skills

Question 1.
On the map of West Asia mark and locate the famous cities of Mesopotamia.
Answer:

Question 2.
On the map given below mark and locate the following
i) Zone of agricultural productivity
(ii) Southern limit of zone of rain-fed agriculture
(iii) Mountainous region
Answer:

Class 11 History NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 History Chapter 2 Writing and City Life appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NVS Recruitment 2019: NVS Recruitment 2019 has been announced for 2370 posts by the official body, Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti. NVS has published an advertisement dated on 6th July to 12th July 2019 for recruitment to various teaching and non-teaching posts such as Assistant Commissioner, Post Graduate Teachers (PGTs), Trained Graduate Teacher (TGTs) & Other Miscellaneous Teachers, Legal Assistant, Female Staff Nurse, Catering Assistant and Lower Division Clerk (LDC).

Candidates who are interested may apply for Navodaya Vidyalaya Recruitment 2019 through online mode only. NVS Online Application will start on 10th July 2019 and the last date to fill the application form is 09 August 2019. The exam will be conducted from 5th September to 10th September 2019. Get details of the application process, eligibility criteria, age limit, selection process, application fee, etc.

NVS Recruitment Overview

NVS Recruitment Important Dates 2019

NVS Recruitment Vacancy Details

The administrators of Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti has declared around 2370 openings for various teaching and non-teaching posts. So check the list of vacancies open for each post under NVS Recruitment 2019:

NVS Recruitment Post-Wise Eligibility Criteria

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti has declared the posts for various teaching and non-teaching staffs. Along with that they have also declared the eligibility criteria for each post based on their age limit and education qualification. Check all the criteria for each post here.

NVS Educational Qualification

For Assistant Commissioner

• Master’s Degree in any of the stream, Humanities/Science/Commerce from a recognized Institution/ University
• Candidate holding similar post or post of Principal in the Educational Planning and Administration in any Govt./Semi Govt./Autonomous Organization.

For Post Graduate Teachers

• Two Year Integrated Post Graduate Course from Regional College of Education of NCERT in the particular subject with minimum 50% marks aggregate.
• Master’s Degree from a recognized university with a minimum of 50% marks aggregate in the respective disciplines.
• B. Ed Degree is mandatory.
• Ability in Teaching in Hindi and English medium.

For Miscellaneous Teachers

Music

• Five years of study in Music from any Institution recognized by the State Govt. and equivalent to Graduate/ Post Graduate Degree.
• A Bachelors Degree in Music from a recognized university and B.Ed. Or Higher Secondary/Sr.Secondary with any certificate in music.

Art

• Five years Recognized Diploma in any discipline of Fine Arts as Drawing/Painting/Sculpture/Graphic Arts/Crafts after passing Secondary Examination (Class X or equivalent).
• B.Ed. Degree/Diploma in Fine Arts (Degree of Bachelor of Fine Arts (BFA) after class XII will be considered as equivalent to Five Years.

PET

• Bachelor’s degree in Physical qualification for the diploma is at least University’s Degree.

Librarian

• University’s degree in Library Science from a recognized institution
• Graduation with One-year Diploma in Library Science from a recognized Institution.
• Diploma in Fine Arts after Class X.

Trained Graduate Teachers

• Four years integrated degree course of Regional College of Education of NCERT with at least 50% marks in the concerned subject as well as in the aggregate. Bachelors Honours Degree with at least 50% marks in a concerned subject/combination of subjects and also in aggregate.
• Bachelor’s Degree from a recognized University with at least 50% marks in the concerned subject/combination of subjects and also in aggregate.
• Passed the Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) conducted by CBSE in accordance with the guidelines framed by the NCTE, for the purpose.
• B.Ed. Degree
• Competence to teach through English and Hindi / concerned Regional language as the case may be.

Legal Assistant

• Degree in Law from a recognized University.
• Three years of experience in handling legal cases.

Female Staff Nurse

• Passed Sr. Secondary Examination (Class XII) or equivalent and Grade ‘A'(Three years) Diploma/Certificate in Nursing from a recognized Institution.
• B.Sc (Nursing) from a recognised University/ Institution.
• Registration with Indian/ State Nursing Council and Practical experience of two years in Hospital/Clinic.

Catering Assistant

• Secondary School (X class pass) and Three Years Diploma in Catering or equivalent from an Institution recognized by Ministry of Tourism, Govt. of India/State Govt.
• Passed Sr. Secondary (Class XII) from CBSE with Hotel Management and Catering as Vocational Subject and at least one year experience in catering.
• Passed Sr.Secondary (Class XII) or equivalent and a one-year diploma in catering or equivalent from a recognized Institution with three years experience in catering
  in reputed institution/hotels.
• Trade proficiency Certificate in Catering with a minimum of 10 years of service in Defence Services of the regular establishment (for Ex-Servicemen only).

Lower Division Clerk

• Senior Secondary (Class XII) certificate from a recognized Board with 50% marks and possessing a minimum speed of 30 words per minutes in English typing or 25 words per minutes in Hindi typing correspond to 10500 KDPH as on average of 5 key depressions for each word.
• Passed + 2 level or Senior Secondary Certificate from CBSE/State Govt. With Secretarial Practices and Office Management as Vocational Subjects.

NVS Recruitment 2019 Age Limit

• Assistant Commissioner: Not more than 45 years
• Post Graduate Teachers: Not more than 40 years
• Trained Graduate Teachers, Miscellaneous Teachers: Not more than 35 years
• Legal Assistant: Between 18 to 32 years
• Catering Assistant, Female Staff Nurse: Upto 35 years
• Lower Division Clerk: Between 18 and 27 years

NVS Recruitment 2019 Age Relaxation

NVS Application Form 2019 – How To Apply for NVS Recruitment 2019?

Candidates who are interested in giving the NVS Exam have to apply through online mode. No other means are available to apply.

• Candidates have to visit the official website of NVS.
• They should have a genuine email id and a valid contact number before applying.
• Fill the details in the application form and upload the scan copy of the photo and signature.
• Attach the scan copy of required documents
• Submit the details and proceed to the payment page.
• Make the payment as per the applied post.
• Submit all the details in the application form.
• Login Id and password will be generated and sent to your email is after submission.
• Keep the login id and password for future reference.

NVS Recruitment 2019 – Guidelines for Uploading Documents

Photograph Image

• The photograph must be a recent passport size color picture on a light background (not older than 03 weeks)
• Look straight at the camera with a relaxed face.
• The size of the scanned image should be up to 80 kb in jpg/ jpeg format only.

Signature Image

• The applicant has to sign on white paper with a black ink pen.
• The signature must be signed only by the applicant and not by any other person.
• Please scan the signature area only and not the entire page.
• Size of file should be up to 80kb in Jpg/jpeg format only.

NVS Recruitment 2019 – NVS Application Fees

NVS Selection Procedure

• Candidates will be shortlisted on the basis of their performance in written examination/ Computer Based Test (CBT) and interview / Personal Interaction put together.
• In the case of Legal Assistant, Female Staff Nurse & Catering Assistant the selection to the post will be done on the basis of the performance of the candidates in the written examination / CBT only.
• For the post of Lower Division Clerk, candidates shortlisted on the basis of Written Examination / CBT will be called for Trade / Skill Test which will be of qualifying in nature only and carries no weightage.

NVS Recruitment Exam Pattern

NVS Recruitment 2019 – Admit Card

Candidates are suggested to download NVS Exam Call Letter for written test from the official website. The Login Id and Password will be needed to produce Hall Ticket. No Travelling Allowance (TA), etc. will be paid for arriving in the written test or Interview. Candidates will not be allowed to the exam hall without Admit Card. It is the responsibility of applicants to download and print the Admit Card/ Interview Letter from nvsrect2019.org. NVS authority is not responsible for any loss of e-mail sent, due to invalid or wrong e-mail ID provided by the candidate.

NVS Recruitment 2019 – NVS Exam Centres

Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Amritsar, Lucknow , Ajmer, Madurai, Allahabad, Mumbai, Bangalore, Muzaffarpur, Bhopal, Nagpur, Bhubaneshwer, Patna handigarh/ Panchkula/ Mohali, Pune, Chennai, Port Blair, Dehradun, Raipur, Delhi, Ranchi ,Faridabad, Shimla, Gurugram,Trivendrum,Ghaziabad,Visakhapatnam ,NOIDA, Shillong, Guwahati, Kohima , Hyderabad , Imphal, Itanagar, Aizwal, Jabalpur, Siliguri, Jaipur, Agartala ,Jammu , Panaji (Goa).

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti is the independent organization beneath the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Department of School Education & Literacy, Govt. of India. It has 598 Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas (JNVs)in all over India and 8 regional offices in Bhopal, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Chandigarh, Lucknow, Patna, Shillong, and Pune. According to NVS Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas (JNVs), it is the co-educational and domestic school for rural areas. It gives education up to Higher secondary level.

The post NVS Recruitment 2019 | 2370 Vacancies for PGT, TGT, LDC and Other Posts, Apply Online appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 History Chapter 3 An Empire Across Three Continents

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Ncert Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
If you had lived in the Roman Empire, where would you rather have lived—in the towns or in the countryside? Explain why?
Answer:
I would have liked to live in towns of the Roman empire as it had better sources of earning and facility to fight with natural calamities that occurred frequently.

In Roman city, there was such a structure which was quite strong to fight with the daily lives problems. Because towns were coming under the territory of city and they had been aided by the people who belonged to the political and business related fields.

Question 2.
Compile a list of some of the towns, cities, rivers, seas and provinces mentioned in this chapter, and then try and find them on the maps. Can you say something about any three of the items in the list you have compiled?
Answer:
Continents: Europe, North Africa.
Island: Sicily
Rivers: Nile, Rhine, Danube, Sind
Sea: Mediterranean, Caspian, Black sea, Aegean sea.
Provinces: Gaul, Numidia, Tunisia, Macedonia, etc.
Towns and Cities: Constantinople, Naples, Damascus, Alexandria and Rome. (See NCERT Page 59)
Description of three items compiled in the list:
(i) Rivers helped in providing irrigation facilities for agriculture.
(ii) Seas and oceans helped in the promotion of trade and commerce.
(iii) Towns and cities were the main centres of economic, social and political activities of the empire.

Question 3.
Imagine that you are a Roman housewife preparing a shopping list for household requirements. What would be on the list?
Answer:
As a Roman housewife, I would like to include the following items in my list, while preparing a shopping list for household requirements-Roman glass painting, curtains, kitchen appliances, bed sheet, cushion cover, toys, furniture and other modem appliances of daily life.

Question 4.
Why do you think the Roman government stopped coining in silver? And which metal did it begin to use for the production of coinage?
Answer:
The Roman government stopped coining in silver because the Spanish silver mine became empty, thus causing dearth of silver in the Roman empire. Now the Roman government began to use gold for the production of coinage.

Question 5.
Suppose the emperor Trajan had actually managed to conquer India and the Romans had held on to the country for several centuries. In what ways do you think India might be different today?
Answer:
Trajan is remembered as a successful soldier-emperor who presided over the greatest military expansion in Roman history, leading the empire to attain its maximum territorial extent by the time of his death. He is also known for his philanthropic rule, overseeing extensive public building programmes and implementing social welfare policies, which earned him his enduring reputation as the second of the Five Good Emperors who presided over an era of peace and prosperity in the Mediterranean world.

As per the above passage, we can conclude if India had been conquered by Trajan, he would have been the greatest ruler and extended philanthropic rule all over India. There must be absence of democratic ideas and democratic rights in India. The division of society will be on the basis of Roman society.

Question 6.
Go through the chapter carefully and pick out some basic features of Roman society and economy which you think make it look quite modem.
Answer:
We found that in Roman society women were quite financially independent in spite of getting married but got share of property from her natal house. It was the main feature of Roman society. This feature shows us that women were holding a strong status in the society.

Another modem feature, we found from Roman economy was that there were very strong trading relations from across the Roman empire’s provinces, which shows that Roman economy was also very strong and provided the revenue to its government.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 More Questions Solved

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which were the two powerful empires that ruled over most of Europe?
Answer:
The two powerful empires that ruled over most of Europe were Rome and Iran.

Question 2.
Which sea separates the continents of Europe and Africa?
Answer:
Mediterranean Sea separates the continents of Europe and Africa.

Question 3.
Which rivers made boundaries of the Roman empire from the north side?
Answer:
The boundaries of the Roman empire were surrounded by two great rivers, the Rhine and the Danube.

Question 4.
What is another name of the third century in the Roman empire?
Answer:
The third century of the Roman empire was also called the ‘Early empire’.

Question 5.
Which languages were used for administrative purposes in the early empire of Roman civilization?
Answer:
For the purpose of administration, Latin and Greek were the most widely used languages.

Question 6.
Which languages were spoken in upper classes in east and west of the early empire of Rome?
Answer:
The upper classes of the east spoke and wrote in Greek, those of the west in Latin.

Question 7.
Who had established the regime in 27 BCE?
Answer:
The regime was established by Augustus in 27 BCE. He was the first emperor in 27 BCE.

Question 8.
In which languages was Roman history written?
Answer:
Most of the Roman history was written in Greek and Latin languages by people from a senatorial background.

Question 9.
What was the system to judge the behavior of Emperor in the Roman Empire?
Answer:
The Emperors were judged by how they behaved towards the Senate.

Question 10.
How the Romans had formed their army structure?
Answer:
The Romans had a paid professional army where soldiers had to put in a minimum of 25 years of service.

Question 11.
What do you mean by the ‘Augustan age’?
Answer:
The ‘Augustan age’ meant the reign by Augustus from 27 BCE to 14 CE. His reign is remembered for peace.

Question 12.
What were the great urban centers that lined the shores of the Mediterranean?
Answer:
The great urban centers that lined the shores of the Mediterranean were Carthage, Alexandria and Antioch.

Question 13.
How was the jurisdiction system structured in Italy in the Roman Empire?
Answer:
In the Roman empire there was an urban center with its own magistrates, city council and a ‘territory’ containing villages which were under its jurisdiction.

Question 14.
Who were the main players in the political history of the empire?
Answer:
The emperor, the aristocracy and the army were the three main players in the political history of the empire.

Question 15.
Who was Tiberius?
Answer:
Tiberius was the second in the long line of Roman Emperors. His span of rule remained from 14 GE to 37 CE. He was the adopted son of Augustus.

Question 16.
How many emperors ruled in the third century of Rome?
Answer:
Twenty-five emperors ruled in the third century of Rome.

Question 17.
Which type of family was in Roman society?
Answer:
In Roman society there was nuclear form of family.

Question 18.
What was the position of slaves in Roman society in the third century?
Answer:
Slaves were included in the family in Roman society.

Question 19.
What was the legal right of property of women after marriage in Roman society in the third century?
Answer:
The wife did not transfer to her husband’s authority but retained full rights in the property of her natal
family.

Question 20.
How had the marriages been solemnized in Roman society in the third century?
Answer:
Marriages were generally arranged. Women were subject to domination by their husbands.

Question 21.
Who was Augustine?
Answer:
Augustine was the great Catholic bishop who spent most of his life in North Africa.

Question 22.
What was the status of father in Roman families?
Answer:
Father had substantial legal control over their children.

Question 23.
Which languages had been used for writing and reading in Rome during third century?
Answer:
Coptic was spoken in Egypt, Punic and Berber in North Africa, Celtic in Spain and the north-west.

Question 24.
Which language had been used for translation of the Bible?
Answer:
Coptic was used for translation of the Bible by the middle of the third century.

Question 25.
What were Amphorae?
Answer:
Liquids like wine and olive oil transported in containers were called ‘Amphorae’.

Question 26.
What was Dressel 20 in Spain?
Answer:
The Spanish olive oil of the middle of the third century was mainly carried in a container that was called ‘Dressel 20.

Question 27.
Which countries had been exporters of wine and olive oil in the later fifth and sixth centuries?
Answer:
In the later fifth and sixth centuries, the Southern Asia Minor (Turkey), Syria and Palestine became major exporters of wine and olive oil.

Question 28.
What was exported to Rome by Sicily and Byzacium?
Answer:
Sicily and Byzacium exported large quantities of wheat to Rome.

Question 29.
Which kind of currencies were used in the monetary system of the first three centuries in Rome?
Answer:
Silver and gold based currencies were used in the monetary system of the first three centuries in Rome.

Question 30.
What does ‘Late antiquity’ mean?
Answer:
‘Late antiquity’ is the term used to describe the final and attractive period in the evolution and break-up of the Roman empire.

Question 31.
What was the traditional religious culture of the classical world, for both Greek and Roman?
Answer:
The traditional religious culture of the classical world for both Greek and Roman had been Polytheism.

Question 32.
What does Frankincense mean?
Answer:
Frankincense is the European name for an aromatic resin used in incense and perfumes.

Question 33.
Who was Diocletian?
Answer:
Diocletian was an emperor who ruled from 284-305 in the fourth century.

Question 34.
What was the system of income in early fifth century in Rome?
Answer:
Many of the Roman households received an income of four thousand pounds of gold per year from their
properties.

Question 35.
Who was Olympiodorus?
Answer:
Olympiodorus was a writer, an historian and an ambassador in the early fifth century.

Question 36.
What did Emperor Anastasius build in the late-fifth-century?
Answer:
The Emperor Anastasius built the eastern frontier city of Dara in less than three weeks by attracting labor from all over the East by offering high wages in the late-fifth- century.

Question 37.
What was Papyrus?
Answer:
The ‘Papyrus’ was a reed-like plant that grew along the bank of the river Nile in Egypt and was processed to
produce a writing material that is paper.

Question 38.
What were the textual sources used for?
Answer:
Textual sources include histories of the period written by contemporaries. These were usually called ‘Annals.

Question 39.
Tell the name of two phases of the Roman Empire.
Answer:
The Roman Empire can broadly be divided into two phases, i.e. Early Empire and Late Empire.

Question 40.
What were the dynasties that ruled Iran in the third century?
Answer:
The Parthians and later the Sasanians ruled Iran in the third century.

Question 41.
What does the ‘civil war’ refer to?
Answer:
Civil war refers to armed struggles for power within the same country.

Question 42.
What was ‘Denarius’?
Answer:
The Denarius was a Roman silver coin containing about 4 y gm of pure silver.

Question 43.
How had Emperor Gallienus ruled?
Answer:
The Emperor Gallienus (253-68) consolidated their rise to power by excluding senators from military command and reorganized the army.

Question 44.
Which territory was covered by the Roman Empire?
Answer:
The Roman Empire covered most of Europe and a large part of the fertile crescent and North Africa.

Question 45.
What do documentary sources include?
Answer:
Documentary sources include mainly inscriptions and papyrus.

Question 46.
Which area had been controlled by Iran?
Answer:
Iran controlled the whole area including south of the Caspian Sea down to eastern Arabia and sometimes large parts of Afghanistan also.

Question 47.
What was the role of army in Roman empire?
Answer:
The army was the largest single organized body of around 60,000 forces by the fourth century and it certainly had the power to determine the fate of emperors in Roman empire.

Question 48.
What is the history of Byzantium?
Answer:
Byzantium was the creation of a second capital at Constantinople. It is at the site of modern Istanbul in Turkey which is surrounded on three sides by the sea.

Question 49.
Write about literacy rate in the Roman Empire.
Answer:
It is certain that rate of literacy was casual and varied greatly between different parts of the empire. Literacy
was widespread among certain categories such as soldiers, army officers and estate managers.

Question 50.
What do you mean by ‘Principate’?
Answer:
The regime established by Augustus, the first Emperor, in 27 BCE was called the ‘Principate’.

Question 51.
What was the fiction kept alive about Augustus?
Answer:
Augustus was the sole ruler and the only real source of authority. The fiction was that he was only the ‘leading citizen’ not the absolute ruler.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How did corruption come in administrative system in the late Roman bureaucracy?
Answer:
In the late Roman bureaucracy, the higher and middle echelons, was a comparatively affluent group because it drew the bulk of its salary in gold and invested much of it in buying up assets like land. There was, of course, a great deal of corruption especially in the judicial system and in the administration of military supplies.

Question 2.
How slaves were treated after murder of Lucius Pedanius by his slave Secundus? What was the reaction of crowd at that time?
Answer:
After the murder of Lucius Pedanius by his slave Secundus, ancient custom required that every slave residing under the same roof must be executed. But the crowd gathered to save the innocent lives and riots began. The Senate house was overwhelmed. Inside, there was feeling against excessive severity, but the majority opposed any change. However, a huge crowd was ready with stones and torches but prevented the order from being carried out.

Question 3.
What does ‘Post – Roman’ mean in the 540’s?
Answer:
The general prosperity was especially marked in the East where population was still expanding till the sixth century, despite the impact of the plague which affected the Mediterranean in the 540’s. In the West, by contrast, the empire fragmented politically as Germanic groups from the North took over all the major provinces and established kingdoms that are best described as ‘Post-Roman’.

Question 4.
Who was Columella?
Answer:
Columella, a first-century writer who came from the south of Spain, recommended that landowners should keep a reserve stock of implements and tools, twice as many as they needed to improve the better situation of laborers.

Question 5.
What had occurred after Prophet Muhammad’s death by 642?
Answer:
By 642, barely ten years after Prophet Muhammad’s death, large parts of both the Eastern Roman and Sasanian empires had fallen to the Arabs in a series of confrontations. Though, those conquests, which eventually a century later extended up to Spain, Sind and Central Asia, began in fact with the subjection of the Arab tribes by the emerging Islamic state, first within Arabia and then in the Syrian desert on the fringes of Iraq.

Question 6.
What is Frankincense?
Answer:
Frankincense is the European name for an aromatic resin used in incense and perfumes. It is tapped from Boswellia trees by slashing the bark and allowing the exuded resins to harden. The best quality of it came from the Arabian peninsula.

Question 7.
Define the territorial position of the Roman empire.
Answer:
The continents of Europe and Africa are separated by a sea, called the Mediterranean that stretches all the way from Spain in the west to Syria in the east and it was the heart of Rome’s empire. To the north, the boundaries of the empire were formed by two great rivers, the Rhine and the Danube and to the south, by the huge expanse of desert called the Sahara. This vast stretch of territory was the Roman empire.

Question 8.
What does the term ‘Republic’ refer to in the history of the Roman empire?
Answer:
The Republic was the name for a regime in which the power lay with the Senate, a body dominated by a small group of wealthy families who formed the ‘nobility’. The Republic represented the government of the nobility, exercised through the body called the Senate. The Republic lasted from 509 BCE to 27 BCE, when it was overthrown by Octavian, the adopted son and heir of Julius Caesar.

Question 9.
How army was the important key institution of imperial rule in the Roman empire?
Answer:
The Roman had a paid professional army where soldiers had to put in a minimum of 25 years of service. The existence of paid army was a distinctive feature of the Roman empire. It was an organized body in the empire by the fourth century and had the power to determine the fate of emperors. The soldiers would trouble for better wages and service conditions. These agitations often took the form of revolt.

Question 10.
What was the policy of taxation in the Roman empire?
Answer:
The great urban centers of the Mediterranean were the base of the grand system of the Roman empire. It was through the cities that ‘government’ was able to tax the regional countrysides which generated much of the wealth of the empire. The local upper classes actively collaborated with the Roman state in administering their own territories and raising taxes from them.

Question 11.
How had the Roman survived their lives during famine?
Answer:
The famine for many successive years in many provinces had clearly displayed for men of any understanding the effect of malnutrition in generating illness. So the city- dwellers, collected and stored enough grain for the next year immediately after the harvest, carried off all the wheat, barley, beans and lentils, and left to the peasants various kinds of pulses-after taking quite a large proportion of these to the city. After consuming what was left in the course of the winter, the country people had to resort to unhealthy foods in the spring. They ate twigs, shoots of trees and bushes and roots of inedible plants.

Question 12.
What was the typical form of marriage in the third century of Rome?
Answer:
Males married in their late twenties or early thirties; while women were married in the late teens or early twenties. There was an age gap between husband and wife. As a result, there was inequality. Marriages were generally arranged, and there is no doubt that women were often subject to domination by their husbands. Divorce was relatively easy and needed no more than a notice of intent to dissolve the marriage by either husband or wife.

Question 13.
How was the economic condition in the early Roman empire?
Answer:
The empire had a substantial economic infrastructure of harbors, mines, quarries, brickyards, olive oil factories, etc. Wheat, wine and olive-oil were traded and consumed in huge quantities, and they came mainly from Spain, the Gallic provinces, North Africa, Egypt and to a lesser extent, Italy where conditions were suitable for these crops. Liquids like wine and olive oil were transported.

Question 14.
How had the Roman empire been considered the wealthiest empire in case of fertility of land?
Answer:
The Roman empire included many regions that had a reputation of exceptional fertility. Campania in Italy, Sicily, the Fayum in Egypt, Galilee, Byzacium (Tunisia), Southern Gaul (called Gallia Narbonensis) were among the most densely settled or wealthiest parts of the empire, like Strabo and Pliny. The best kinds of wine came from Campania. Sicily and Byzacium exported large quantities of wheat to Rome. Galilee was densely cultivated, and Spanish olive oil came mainly from numerous estates {fundi) along the banks of the river Guadalquivir in the south of Spain.

Question 15.
How was labor treated in the Roman empire under Augustus reign?
Answer:
During the reign of Augustus, there were still 3 million slaves in a total Italian population of 7.5 million. Slaves were an investment, and landowners used them in perspective where too many might be required or where their health could be damaged. These considerations were not based on any sympathy for the slaves but on hard economic calculation. On the other hand, if the Roman upper classes were often brutal towards their slaves, ordinary people did sometimes show much more compassion.

Question 16.
What do you mean by authoritarian regime?
Answer:
The Roman state was an authoritarian regime. Government frequently responded to protest with violence especially in the cities of the East where people were often fearless in making fun of emperors. Yet a strong tradition of Roman law had emerged by the fourth century, and this acted as a brake on even the most fearsome emperors. Emperors were not free to do, whatever they liked, and the law was actively used to protect civil rights.

Question 17.
How had the cultural transformation occurred in the Roman world in its final centuries? HOTS
Answer:
At the cultural level, developments in religious life came with the Emperor Constantine. He decided to make Christianity the official religion with the rise of Islam in the seventh century. But there were equally important changes in the structure of the state that began with the Emperor Diocletian (284-305), and it may be best to start with these. Over expansion had led Diocletian to ‘cut back’ by abandoning territories with little strategic or economic value.

Question 18.
What do you mean by Polytheist?
Answer:
Polytheist was the traditional religious culture of the classical world for both Greek and Roman. It involved a multiplicity of cults that included both Roman and Italian gods like Jupiter, Juno, Minerva and Mars, as well as numerous Greek and eastern deities worshiped in £he thousands of temples, shrines and sanctuaries throughout the empire. Polytheists had no common name or label to describe them.

Question 19.
Define the term the ‘Late Roman bureaucracy’.
Answer:
The ‘Late Roman bureaucracy’ for both the higher and the middle echelons was a comparatively affluent group because it drew the bulk of its salary in gold and invested much of this in buying up of landed property. There was, of course, a great deal of corruption, especially in the judicial system and in the administration of military supplies. The extortion of the higher bureaucracy and the greed of the provincial governors were common.

Question 20.
How was the ruling system of the Roman empire in spite of many regions and languages spoken?
Answer:
The Roman empire had numerous territories and a variety of cultures that were chiefly bound together by a common system of government. Many languages were spoken in the empire. All those who lived in the empire were subjects of a single ruler, the emperor, regardless of where they lived and what language they spoke.

Question 21.
Why had Latin and Greek languages been used in administration?
Answer:
Many languages were spoken in the empire. But for the purpose of administration Latin and Greek were the most widely used languages. The upper classes of the east spoke and wrote in Greek, those of the west in Latin, and the boundary between these broad language areas ran somewhere across the middle of the Mediterranean, between the African provinces of Tripolitania (which was Latin speaking) and Cyrenaica (Greek speaking).

Question 22.
Who were considered the worst emperors of Rome?
Answer:
The worst emperors were those who were hostile to the senatorial class, behaving with suspicion, or brutality and violence. Many senators desired to go back to the days of the Republic, but most of them realized that this resulted into revolts, if the soldiers felt let down by their generals or even the emperor.

Question 23.
What were the main urban centers of the Mediterranean in the Roman empire to collect revenue for government?
Answer:
The great urban centers that linked the shores of the Mediterranean (Carthage, Alexandria, Antioch, the biggest among them) were the true foundation of the imperial system in the Roman empire. It was through the cities that government was able to tax the provincial countryside which generated much of the wealth of the empire.

Question 24.
What was the impact on the Roman empire when it shifted its power between Italy and the provinces?
Answer:
When Roman empire had shifted its power between Italy and the provinces throughout the second and third centuries, it was the provincial upper classes who supplied most of the cadre that governed the provinces and commanded the army and formed new groups of administrators and military commanders who became more powerful than the senatorial class because they had the backing of the emperors.

Question 25.
How had the structure of villages and cities been prepared in the Roman empire?
Answer:
Villages were in the territory of city. Villages could be upgraded to the status of cities. The city lives was more beneficial than villages for better facilities during food shortages and even famines than the countryside.

Question 26.
Who were barbarians?
Answer:
The Romans were forced to abandon much of the territory beyond the Danube, while the emperors of this period were constantly in the field against what the Romans called ‘barbarians’. The rapid succession of emperors in the third century was an obvious symptom of the strains faced by the empire in this period.

Question 27.
Discuss some revolts that had taken place from 233’s, simultaneously after the decline of the Roman empire.
Answer:
The Iranian ruler claimed that he had annihilated a Roman army of 60,000 and even captured the eastern capital of Antioch. Meanwhile, a whole series of Germanic tribes or rather tribal confederacies (most notably, the Alamanni, the Franks and the Goths) began to move against the Rhine and Danube frontiers, and the whole period from 233 to 280 saw repeated invasions of a whole line of provinces that stretched from the Black Sea to the Alps and southern Germany.

Question 28.
How had the people of Rome stabled their prosperity?
Answer:
The prosperity of individual regions rose and fell depending on how effectively they could organize the production and transport of particular goods, and on the quality of those goods.

Question 29.
What had been the strategy of Spanish to capture market for olive oil?
Answer:
Spanish olive oil was a vast commercial enterprise that reached at its peak in the years between 140-160. The Spanish olive oil of this period was mainly carried in a container called ‘Dressel 20’. Dressel 20 was widely scattered across sites in the Mediterranean. It was circulated widely as they supplied better quality of oil at lower prices. Spanish producers succeeded in capturing markets for olive oil from their Italian counterparts.

Question 30.
The emperor of the state XYZ ordered to stop the practice of slavery and warned the people to strictly follow the orders to make his state an ideal model for others. What values does he exhibit?
Answer:
The emperor of the state shows social and moral values. He understood that freedom is the fundamental right of every human being. He also set an example for the other emperors by facilitating slaves. He was a kind ruler who thought for the people, they had same feelings and rights in common society. He had courage to fight with others for his subject to provide equal rights.

Question 31.
If women got settled their marriages according to their wish, what values do they show?
Answer:
Woman had right to find her life partner according to her wishes and this step would never ever harm the society. However, it shows the independence of women and they can form a better society, can contribute to make a good future of their family and society if they select their groom according to their choice.

Question 32.
Why do you think that the condition of slaves in Roman empire was better than daily wages laborer? Justify accordingly.
Answer:
The condition of slaves in Roman empire was not better than daily wages laborer because the slaves had worked as per the instructions of their masters, so that they might easily survive the day to day requirements of their family. But after the war when peace was established in empire they were easily available at cheaper rates. Their exploitation was increasing at that time by the higher class of society. Some amendments had been done by emperors and reformers to improve.

Question 33.
Great traders would not have paid the fair price to poor peasants. What kind of values do traders show for the society?
Answer:
Most of the traders thought about themselves. So they purchased grains at lower level from the farmers and sold them at high level store till the hike of rates in the market. But they were not interested in sharing their profit with their actual masters who produced it. This kind of values among the people shows that they were greedy persons and were interested in taking advantage only for themselves not for the society.

Question 34.
If you were the Roman emperor, how would have you managed famine that occurred in your ruling territory in ancient time?
Answer:
If I were the Roman emperor, I would have raised the level of production of edible foods and made arrangement to keep additional production for maintaining famine situation.

Question 35.
Precious metals increase greed and inflation. What values do government show to stop it from the society?
Answer:
Had precious metals been in the market, it would have increased the greed of the people to accumulate and preserve for personal purposes. This causes inflation in the market and will create hazardous situation for the poor and middle class families. Government shows its moral and social values and has to come forward to convince the people that, metals are only the things of uses. They satisfy needs of the people. Rather than keeping and preserving it, let it be in the market as currency for maintaining economy of nation so that ordinary people may not suffer.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you think about the importance of Latin and Greek languages in the Roman empire?
Answer:
“Greek East” and “Latin West” are the terms that are used to distinguish between the two parts of the Greco-Roman world, especially the eastern regions where Greek was the lingua franca, and the western parts where Latin filled this role. During the Roman empire a division had persisted between Latin and Greek speaking areas. This division was encouraged by administrative changes in the empire’s structure between the third and fifth centuries, which led ultimately to the establishment of separate Eastern and Western Roman empires.

Latin and Greek were the dominant languages of the Roman empire. The language of the ancient Romans was Latin, which served as the “language of power”. Latin was omnipresent in the Roman empire as the language of the law courts in the West, and of the military everywhere. A great number of Roman citizens would have lacked Latin, though they were expected to acquire at least token knowledge, and Latin remained a marker of “Romanness”.

Greek had become a shared language around the Eastern Mediterranean and into Asia Minor as a consequence of the conquests of Alexander the Great. The “linguistic frontier” dividing the Latin West and the Greek East passed through the Balkan peninsula. Educated Romans, particularly those of the ruling elite, studied and often achieved a high degree of fluency in Greek, which was useful for diplomatic communications in the East even beyond the borders of the empire. The use of Greek at international level was one condition that enabled the spread of Christianity, as indicated for example by the choice of Greek. With the dissolution of the empire in the West, Greek became the dominant language of the Eastern Roman empire.

Question 2.
What do you know about Augustus? Explain.
Answer:
Augustus was the founder of the Roman empire and its first Emperor, ruling from 27 BCE until his death in 14 CE. He was born Gaius Octavius into an old and wealthy equestrian branch of the Plebeian Octavii family. In 44 BCE he was adopted posthumously by his maternal great-uncle Gaius Julius Caesar following Caesar’s assassination. Together with Mark Antony and Marcus Lepidus, he formed the Second Triumvirate to defeat the assassins of Caesar. Following their victory at Phillipi, the Triumvirate divided the Roman Republic among them and ruled as military dictator.

Lepidus was kept into exile and stripped of his position and Antony committed suicide following his defeat at the Battle of Actium by Augustus in 31 BC.

After the demise of the Second Triumvirate, Augustus restored the outward facade of the free Republic, with governmental power vested in the Roman Senate, the executive magistrates, and the legislative assemblies. In reality, however, he retained his autocratic power over the Republic as a military dictator. By law, Augustus held a collection of powers granted to him for life by the Senate, including supreme military command, and those of tribune and censor. It took several years for Augustus to develop the framework within which a formally republican state could be led under his rule. He rejected monarchial titles, and instead called himself Princeps Civitatis (“First Citizen”). The resulting constitutional framework became known as the Principate, the first phase of the Roman Empire.

Question 3.
How was the reign of Augustus by 27 BC? Discuss.
Answer:
The reign of Augustus initiated an era of relative peace known as the Pax Romana (The Roman Peace). Despite continuous wars or imperial expansion on the empire’s frontiers and one year-long civil war over the imperial succession, the Roman world was largely free from large-scale conflict for more than two centuries. Augustus dramatically enlarged the empire, annexing Egypt, Dalmatia, Pannonia, Noricum, and Raetia, expanded possessions in Africa and Germania, and completed the conquest of Hispania.

Beyond the frontiers, he secured the empire with a buffer region of client states, and made peace with the Parthian empire through diplomacy. He reformed the Roman system of taxation, developed networks of roads with an official courier system, established a standing army, and also the Praetorian Guard, created official police and fire-fighting services for Rome, and rebuilt much of the city during his reign.

Augustus died in 14 AD at the age of 75. He might have died from natural causes. He was succeeded as emperor by his adopted son (also steps on and former son-in-law), Tiberius.

Question 4.
Explain the system of administration governed by politicians of senatorial rank in Rome.
Answer:
In ancient Rome, provinces were generally governed by politicians of senatorial rank, usually former consuls. A later exception was the province of Egypt, incorporated by Augustus. After the death of Cleopatra it was ruled by a governor of equestrian rank only, perhaps as a discouragement to senatorial ambition as Egypt was considered Augustus’s personal property, following the tradition of earlier, hellenistic kings.

The territory of people who were defeated in war might be brought under various forms of treaty, in some cases entailing complete subjection. The formal annexation of a territory created a “province” in the modern sense of an administrative unit that was geographically defined. Republican provinces were administered in one-year term by the consuls and praetors who had held office the previous year.

Rome started expanding beyond Italy during the First Punic War. The first permanent provinces to be annexed were Sicily in 241 BC and Sardinia in 237 BC. Military expansionism kept increasing the number of these administrative provinces, until there were no longer enough qualified individuals to fill the posts.
The terms of provincial governors often had to be extended for multiple years, and on occasion the Senate awarded imperium even to private citizens, most notably Pompey The Great. Prorogation undermined the republican constitutional principle of annual elected magistracies, and the amassing of disproportionate wealth and military power by a few men through their provincial commands was a major factor in the transition from a republic to imperial autocracy.

Question 5.
What was the policy of education in the Roman empire?
Answer:
Education in the Roman empire contributed to the social mobility that characterized the earlier period of Imperial history known as the Principate.

Education was available only for those who could pay for it, since there was no state- supported system of schools with public funding.

A higher rate of literacy is indicated among military personnel than among the general population. Educated women were not unusual, and there was an expectation that upper-class girls would at least attend primary school, probably in the same classes as boys. Only an elite few, regardless of gender, went on to receive secondary education.

Modest number of slaves were educated and they played a key role in promoting education and the culture of literacy. Teachers, scribes, and secretaries were likely to be slaves. The education of slaves was not discouraged, and slave-children might attend classes with the children of their masters. Book stores were already well-established in Rome by the beginning of the Imperial period, and are found also in urban centers of the provinces.

Books were expensive, but by the later period, popular genres of literature indicated reading for pleasure among non-elites. Emperor sponsored libraries that were to some extent public, and a wealthy individual might donate a library for a community, or accumulate impressive private collections to which in-house scholars might be attached. Literacy is thought to have declined in late antiquity during the transition away from the classical institutions and practices that supported it.

Question 6.
How was the infrastructure during the Roman empire?
Answer:
The infrastructure system in ancient Rome was complex. A system of thirteen Roman aqueducts provided the inhabitants of Rome with water of varying quality, the best being reserved for potable supplies. Water was used in public baths and in latrines. Inferior types of latrine systems have been found in many places, such as house steads, a Roman fort on Hadrian’s Wall in Pompeii, Herculaneum, and elsewhere that flushed waste away with a stream of water. Romans used sea sponges on a stick and dipped in vinegar after defecation.

The Romans had a complex system of sewers covered by stones. They recycled public bath waste water by using it as part of the flow that flushed the latrines. Terracotta piping was used in the plumbing that carried waste water from homes. The Romans were the first to seal pipes in concrete to resist the high water pressures developed in siphons and elsewhere. Beginning around 5th century BC, city officials called aediles supervised the sanitary systems. They were responsible for the efficiency of the drainage and sewage systems, the cleansing and paving of the streets, prevention of foul smells, and general oversight of brothels, taverns, baths, and other water supplies. Roman rubbish was often left to collect in alleys between buildings in the poor districts of the city. It sometimes became so thick that stepping stones were needed.

The empire of Rome, especially the city itself, had a huge demand for water. The average Roman consumed over 200 gallons of water per day. Wealthy households had water supplied to their settlements unlike many poor who could not afford this. Even these people enjoyed the luxuries of Rome’s public baths, fountains, and public toilets equipped with sinks.

River Tiber was the city’s main water source before any aqueducts were constructed. As the population of Rome increased, however, the Romans taste for water became too much for the river to supply.
The paved roads were all constructed so they would require minimal amount of repair and provide a very smooth surface for travelling.

Question 7.
How was economic scenario of the Roman empire?
Answer:
The Roman economy was underdeveloped and underachieved, as subsistence agriculture, urban centers that consumed more than they produced in terms of trade and industry, low status artisans, slowly developing technology, and lack of economic rationality.

Some cities were known for particular industries or commercial activities, and the scale of building in urban areas indicates a significant construction industry. Papyri preserve complex accounting methods that suggest elements of economic rationalism and the Empire was highly monetized. Although the means of communication and transport were limited in antiquity, transportation in the 1st and 2nd centuries expanded greatly, and trade routes connected regional economies.

Economic dynamism opened up one of the avenues of social mobility in the Roman empire. Social advancement was thus not dependent solely on birth, patronage, good luck, or even extraordinary ability. Although aristocratic values permeated traditional elite society, a strong tendency toward plutocracy is indicated by the wealth requirements for census rank. Prestige could be obtained through investing one’s wealth in ways that advertised it appropriately: grand country estates or town houses, durable luxury items such as jewels and silver ware, public entertainments, funerary monuments for family members or co-workers, and religious dedication such as altars. Guilds and corporations provided support for individuals to succeed through networking, sharing sound business practices, and willingness to work.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Passage Based Questions
Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow:

Passage 1.

A major difference between the two superpowers and their respective empires was that the Roman Empire was culturally much more diverse than that of Iran. The Parthians and later the Sasanians, the dynasties that ruled Iran in this period, ruled over a population that was largely Iranian. The Roman Empire, by contrast, was a mosaic of territories and cultures that were chiefly bound together by a common system of government. Many languages were spoken in the empire, but for the purposes of administration Latin and Greek were the most widely used, indeed the only languages.

The upper classes of the east spoke and wrote in Greek, those of the west in Latin, and the boundary between these broad language areas ran somewhere across the middle of the Mediterranean, between the African provinces of Tripolitania (which was Latin speaking) and Cyrenaica (Greek-speaking). All those who lived in the empire were subjects of a single ruler, the emperor, regardless of where they lived and what language they spoke.

Questions:
(i) How would you differentiate the Roman Empire from Iran?
(ii) Name two dynasties who ruled over Iran during this period.
(iii) Which empire was bound together by a common system of government and why?
Answers:
(i) The Roman Empire was entirely different from Iran on the ground of cultural activities.

(ii) These dynasties were the Parthians and the Sasanians.

(iii) Roman Empire was bound together by a common system of government as compared to Iranian Empire. In Roman Empire common people subjected to one ruler.

passage 2.

Doctor Galen on how Roman Cities Treated the Countryside:
The famine prevalent for many successive years in many provinces has clearly displayed for men of any understanding the effect of malnutrition in generating illness. The city-dwellers, as it was their custom to collect and store enough grain for the whole of the next year immediately after the harvest, carried off all the wheat, barley, beans and lentils, and left to the peasants various kinds of pulse- after taking quite a large proportion of these to the city. After consuming what was left in the course of the winter, the country people had to resort to unhealthy foods in the spring; they ate twigs and shoots of trees and bushes and bulbs and roots of inedible plants

Questions:
(i) What did the city dwellers do?
(ii) What does the given passage depict?
(iii) How was ancient Roman society divided?
Answers:
(i) The city dwellers collected and stored sufficient grain for the whole of the next year.

(ii) It depicts the ill effects of famine which resulted into shortage of food.

(iii) Ancient Roman society was divided into three classes. These were:

• The Patrician
• The Plebeian
• The Slaves

Passage 3.

The late Roman bureaucracy, both the higher and middle echelons, was a comparatively affluent group because it drew the bulk of its salary in gold and invested much of this in buying up assets like land. There was of course also a great deal of corruption, especially in the judicial system and in the administration of military supplies. The extortion of the higher bureaucracy and the greed of the provincial governors were proverbial. But government intervened repeatedly to curb these forms of corruption – we only know about them in the first place because of the laws that tried to put an end to them, and because historians and other members of the intelligentsia denounced such practices.

This element of ‘criticism’ is a remarkable feature of the classical world. The Roman state was an authoritarian regime, in other words, dissent was rarely tolerated and government usually responded to protest with violence (especially in the cities of the East where people were often fearless in making fun of emperors). Yet a strong tradition of Roman law had emerged by the fourth century, and this acted as a brake on even the most fearsome emperors. Emperors were not free to do whatever they liked, and the law was actively used to protect civil rights. That is why in the later fourth century it was possible for powerful bishops like Ambrose to confront equally powerful emperors when they were excessively harsh or repressive in their handling of the civilian population

Questions:
(i) What was the main reason of corruption in administration of the Roman Empire?
(ii) What was the role of the Roman government in handling corruption that was widespread among the higher bureaucracy and provincial governors?
(iii) What do you know about law system of the Roman Empire?
Answers:
(i) The extortion of the higher bureaucracy and the greed of the provincial governors were the main reasons of corruption.

(ii) The government intervened repeatedly to control corruption. The Roman state was an authoritarian regime, dissent was rarely tolerated and government usually responded to protest with violence.

(iii) Roman law had emerged by the fourth century, and this acted as a brake on even the most fearsome emperors. They were not free to do, whatever they liked, and the law was actively used to protect civil rights. That is why in the later fourth century it was possible for powerful bishops like Ambrose to confront equally powerful emperors when they were excessively harsh or repressive in their handling of the civilian population.

Passage 4.

The traditional religious culture of the classical world, both Greek and Roman, had been polytheist. That is, it involved a multiplicity of cults that included both Roman/Italian gods like Jupiter, Juno, Minerva and Mars, as well as numerous Greek and eastern deities worshipped in thousands of temples, shrines and sanctuaries throughout the empire. Polytheists had no common name or label to describe themselves. The other great religious tradition in the empire was Judaism. But Judaism was not a monolith either, and there was a great deal of diversity within the Jewish communities of late antiquity. Thus, the Christianization of the empire in the fourth and fifth centuries was a gradual and complex process.

Polytheism did not disappear overnight, especially in the western provinces, where the Christian bishops waged a running battle against beliefs and practices they condemned more than the Christian laity did. The boundaries between religious communities were much more fluid in the fourth century than they would become thanks to the repeated efforts of religious leaders, the powerful bishops who now led the Church, to rein in their followers and enforce a more rigid set of beliefs and practices.

Questions:
(r) What do you mean by Judaism?
(ii) What did the Christian bishops do?
(iii) Enlist the names of Roman gods who were worshipped in temples and shrines throughout the empire.
Answers:
(i) Judaism was a religious tradition in the Roman Empire.

(ii) The Christian bishops waged a running battle against beliefs and practices. The powerful bishops led the Church to rein in their followers and enforced a more rigid set of beliefs and practices.

(iii) Jupiter, Juno, Minerva and Mars were the Roman gods worshiped in thousands of temples, shrines and sanctuaries throughout the empire.

Passage 5.

‘Late antiquity’ is the term now used to describe the final, fascinating period in the evolution and break up of the Roman Empire and refers broadly to the fourth to seventh centuries. The fourth century itself was one of considerable ferment, both cultural and economic. At the cultural level, the period saw momentous developments in religious life, with the emperor Constantine deciding to make Christianity the official religion, and with the rise of Islam in the seventh century. But there were equally important changes in the structure of the state that began with the emperor Diocletian (284-305), and it may be best to start with these.

Over expansion had led Diocletian to ‘cut back’ by abandoning territories with little strategic or economic value. Diocletian also fortified the frontiers, reorganized provincial boundaries, and separated civilian from military functions, granting greater autonomy to the military commanders (duces), who now became a more powerful group. Constantine consolidated some of these changes and added others of his own. His chief innovations were in the monetary sphere, where he introduced a new denomination, the solidus, a coin of 4(4 gm of pure gold that would in fact outlast the Roman Empire itself. Solidi were minted on a very large scale and their circulation ran into millions.

Questions:
(i) What was the span of Diocletian regime?
(ii) What innovations had been done by Constantine?
(iii) What does ‘Late antiquity’ mean?
Answers:
(i) The span of Diocletian regime was 284-305.

(ii) Constantine did his main innovations in the monetary sphere, where he introduced a new denomination, the solidus, a coin of 4y gm of pure gold that would in fact outlast the Roman Empire itself. Solidi were minted on a very large scale and their circulation was quite huge.

(iii) ‘Late antiquity’ refers to describe the fascinating period in the evolution and breaking up of the Roman Empire.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Map Skills

Question 1.
On the given map mark the stretch of the two continents Europe and North Africa how they are divided by Mediterranean sea.
(i) Rome
(ii) Naples
(iii) Tyrrhenian Sea
(iv) Sicily
(v) Gaul
(vi) Aegean Sea
(vii) Mediterranean Sea
(viii) Numidia
(ix) Rive Rhine
(ix) Campania
Answer:

2. On the given map of West Asia, mark and locate the following cities:
(i) Mecca
ii) Medina
(iii) Damascus
(iv) Antioch
(v) Edessa
(vi) Armenia
(vii) Bukhara
(viii) Samarqand
Answer:

Class 11 History NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 History Chapter 3 An Empire Across Three Continents appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 History Chapter 4 The Central Islamic Lands

Class 11 History Chapter 4 Ncert Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
What were the features of the lives of the Bedouins in the early seventh century?
Answer:
The Bedouins were Arab tribes. The main features of their lives are as follows:
(i) They led a nomadic life.
(ii) They were indulged in looting, plundering and internal quarrels.
(iii) They were camel pastoralists and moved with their animals from oases to oases.
(iv) Date-palm and camel milk were their main diet.
(v) Their social organisation was based on independent tribes.

Question 2.
What is meant by the term ‘Abbasid revolution’?
Answer:
The term ‘Abbasid revolution’ refers to the Dawa Movement initiated by Abu Muslim from Khurasan against the Umayyad dynasty. This revolution put an end to the Umayyad dynasty, which ruled from 661 to 750. With the fall of Umayyad dynasty in 750, the Abbasid came to power and ruled till 1258.

Question 3.
Give examples of the cosmopolitan character of the states set up by Arabs, Iranians and Turks.
Answer:
Examples of the cosmopolitan character of the states set up by Arabs, Iranians and Turks:
(i) The vast Arab empire was inhabited by the people of multi cultural identities, i.e. the Muslims, the Christians and the Jews.
(ii) The Iranian empire witnessed for the development of Muslim and Asian culture.
(iii) In Turkish empire, the Egyptian, Iranian, Syrian and Sudanian culture developed simultaneously.

Question 4.
What were the effects of the Crusades on Europe and Asia?
Answer:
Effects of the Crusades on Europe and Asia:
(i) The Crusades resulted in the fall of the authority of feudal lords in Europe and an increased power of the monarch.
(ii) These Crusades also resulted into increase in the knowledge of the Europeans. They were surprised to see the progress made by the Muslims in the fields of art, science, and literature.
(iii) There was great influence of the Italian mercantile communities in trade between the East and the West.
(iv) These also led to change in the method of warfare. For defense purpose, new forts were constructed.

Question 5.
How were Islamic architectural forms different from those of the Roman Empire?
Answer:
Roman architecture: The Roman architectural forms or buildings were solid and magnificent. These features were the key features of the Roman architectural form. It introduced two architectural features the arch and cupolas or domes. There were multi storeyed buildings with one raw arches standing over the another. Round arches were used in city gates, bridges, buildings and monuments of victory. The spread of Christianity gave a new impetus to the building of the Roman empire. St Sophia in Constantinople and buildings in Jerusalem stand witness to the Roman architectural skill.

Islamic architecture: Islamic architectural form represents the great architectural symbol of Islamic world. The Islamic art right from Spain to Central Asia represents some basic architectural features such as horse shoe arches, bubois, domes, minarets, columns and open courtyard. The Islamic architectural pattern of building built around the central courtyard was not only the key features of the mosques but also of sarai (built for carazans) and palaces. Calligraphy and geometric designs were also used to decorate architecture and manuscripts.

Question 6.
Describe a journey from Samarqand to Damascus, referring to the cities on the route.
Answer:
Activity based Question. Students are advised to do it with the help of their teachers.
Hint: While travelling from Samarqand to Damascus, a traveler would have to pass through many states. Some of these states are Transoxina, Khurasan, Iran, Iraq and Syria.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 More Questions Solved

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention a few sources which provide information about the history of central Islamic lands between 600-1200 CE.
Answer:
These sources are the following:
(i) Chronicles
(ii) Biographies
(iii) Eye witness report
(iv) The Quran
(v) Archaeological evidences
(vi) Sayings of Prophet Muhammad

Question 2.
Who was the founder of Islam?
Answer:
The founder of Islam was Prophet Muhammad.

Question 3.
Name the two main sects of Muslims.
Answer:
The two main sects of Muslims are:
(i) Shias and
(ii) Sunnis

Question 4.
Who was Tughril Beg?
Answer:
Tughril Beg was the founder of Saljuq dynasty.

Question 5.
To which tribe did Prophet Muhammad belong to? In which year did he attain enlightenment?
Answer:
Prophet Muhammad belonged to Quraysh tribe. He attained enlightenment in 612 CE.

Question 6.
By which name Hijri year is also known as? How many days are there in it?
Answer:
Hijri year is also known as Lunar year. In a Hijri (Lunar) year there are 354 days.

Question 7.
Name the first and second Khalifa of Muslims.
Answer:
The first Khalifa of Muslim world was Abu Bakr and the second one was Umar.

Question 8.
When did Umayyad dynasty come into power? Name its last ruler.
Answer:
The Umayyad dynasty came into power in 661 CE. Its last ruler was Marwan-II.

Question 9.
What do you know about the Battle of Karbala?
Answer:
The Battle of Karbala was fought in 680 CE between Yazid’and Hussain. In this, Yazid defeated Hussain.

Question 10.
When was Prophet Muhammad forced to migrate Mecca?
Answer:
Prophet Muhammad was forced to migrate Mecca in 622.

Question 11.
When and between whom Battle of Camel was fought?
Answer:
The Battle of Camel was fought between Ali’s supporters and army led by Muhammad’s wife Aisha in 657.

Question 12.
Who were Kharjis? What was their role?
Answer:
Kharjis were the breakway group of Ali’s followers. They were the sources of trouble for Arab state for half a century.

Question 13.
Who were Muslims?
Answer:
The followers of Prophet Muhammad were called Muslims. They believed in the worship of one God, i.e. Allah.

Question 14.
Where is Dome of Rock? Who built it?
Answer:
The Dome of Rock is in Jerusalem. It was built by Abd-al-Malik.

Question 15.
Describe the significance of Dome of Rock in brief.
Answer:
(i) It is one of the earliest major works of Islam.
(ii) It is associated with the night journey of Prophet Muhammad to the heaven.

Question 16.
Who was the founder of Umayyad dynasty?
Answer:
The founder of Umayyad dynasty was Muawiyash.

Question 17.
How did the Abbasids dynasty legitimise their bid to power?
Answer;
The followers of Abbas, the uncle of Prophet Muhammad were known as Abbasids. They promised to various Arab groups that a messiah from the Prophet would liberate them from the oppression of Umayyid regime.

Question 18.
What were the reasons for the weaknesses of Abbasid state in 9th century? (Write any two reasons).
Answer:
The reasons for the weaknesses of the Abbasid state in 9th century were:
(i) Their control over the distant province began to decline.
(ii) The continuous conflict between Pro-Arab and Pro-Iranian groups in bureaucracy led to their weaknesses also.

Question 19.
What do you know about Rabia?
Answer:
Rabia was the first woman Sufi saint. She was deeply religious. Her teachings had a deep impact on the heart and mind of the people.

Question 20.
Who were Turks? Write about them in brief.
Answer:
Turks were the nomadic tribes of central Asia. They were skilled warriors and horse riders. They joined Abbasid, Samand and Buyid administration as slaves and soldiers. They were raised to the high position on account of their loyalty and military skill.

Question 21.
Write any two teachings of Islam.
Answer:
Teachings of Islam:
(i) God, i.e. Allah is one. He is omnipresent and omnipotent.
(ii) People should lead a simple life.

Question 22.
Who were Muslims? Which two things did they promise?
Answer:
The people who accepted Prophet Muhammad’s doctrines were known as Muslims. They promised:
(a) They were promised salvation on the Day of Judgement.
(b) They would be given a share of the resources of the community while on the earth.

Question 23.
Define the term “Caliph”.
Answer:
The term ‘Caliph’ means the successor of Prophet Muhammad.

Question 24.
How was the institution of Caliphate created?
Answer:
Prophet Muhammad attained salvation in 632 CE. After his death, there was no one, who could legitimately claim to be the next Prophet of Islam. No rule was made regarding the institution. That’s why after his death Islamic authority was transferred to the Ulema. In this way, the institution of Caliphate was created.

Question 25.
Name four Caliphs. How did they justify their power?
Answer:
The four Caliphs were:
(i) Abu Bakr
(ii) Umar
(iii) Uthman
(iv) Ali
The Caliphs justified their power on the basis of their close association with the Prophet.

Question 26.
Write any two objectives of the institution of Caliphate.
Answer:
The main objectives of the institution of Caliphate were:
(i) To establish control over the tribes constituting the Ulema.
(ii) To raise the resources for the welfare of the state.

Question 27.
Who was third Caliph? Why was he assassinated?
Answer:
The third Caliph was Uthman. He was a Quraysh and appointed all his men to keep control. So the other tribes got annoyed and assassinated him. He was assassinated by a Kharji in a mosque at Kirfa.

Question 28.
Why did Islam divide into two sects? Name these two sects also.
Answer:
During the reign of Khalifa Ali (650-661 CE) two battles were fought against those who represented the Meccan aristocracy. These two wars created a deep rift between the Muslims. As a result, they got divided into two sects:
(i) Shias
(ii) Sunnis

Question 29.
Describe in brief the significance of Muhammad’s shift from Mecca to Madina.
Answer:
Muhammad shifted from Mecca to Madina in 622 CE. The significance of this shift is summed up under following heads:
(i) It is referred to in Arabic as ‘Hijrat’.
(ii) It marks the beginning of the Islamic era.

Question 30.
Why did Prophet Muhammad migrate to Madina?
Answer:
Prophet Muhammad migrated to Madina on account of the following reasons:
(i) He faced stiff opposition from the Meccan since their faith differed from their regions and practices.
(ii) Meccan took offence to the rejection of the deities.
(iii) The Meccans found a new religion a threat to the status and prosperity of Mecca.

Question 31.
Why did Fatimids consider themselves as the sole rightful rulers of Islam?
Answer:
Fatimid’s belonged to the Islami sub-sect of Shias and considered themselves as the rightful rulers of Islam because they were the descendant of Fatima, the daughter of Prophet Muhammad.

Question 32.
How did Arab bring Syria, Iraq and Egypt under their control?
Answer:
Taking the advantages of ongoing religious conflicts and revolts of the aristocracy, the Arab established their control over Syria, Iraq and Egypt in three successful campaigns which lasted from 637 to 642 CE.

Question 33.
Name the four schools of Islamic law. Which is the most conservative among them?
Answer:
The four schools of Islamic law ‘Mazhab’ were:
(a) Maliki
(b) Hanafi
(c) Shafii
(d) Hanbali
The most conservative among them was the Hanbali School of Islamic Law.

Question 34.
What did the history of Islamic world bring together?
Answer:
The history of Islamic world brought together three aspects of human civilization politics, religion and community.

Question 35.
What are the twin objectives of Caliphate?
Answer:
The twin objectives of the Caliphate are as follows:
(i) To firmly establish control over the tribes constituting the ‘umma’.
(ii) To raise resources of the state.

Question 36.
What do you know about the Battle of Karbala?
Answer:
Battle of Karbala was fought in 680 between Yazid and Hussain. In this war, Hussain was defeated by Yazid.

Question 37.
Name any four important literary works of Islamic world.
Answer:
Four literary works of Islamic world are as follows:
(i) Kitab al-Bukhla
(ii) al-Qanun-fil-Tibb
(iii) Shahnama
(iv) Kalila Wa Dimna

Question 38.
Between whom the Battle of Camel was fought?
Answer:
The Battle of Camel was fought in 656 CE, between Calipha Ali and Aisha.

Question 39.
Who was the last Khalifa of Umayyad dynasty?
Answer:
The last Khalifa of Umayyad dynast was Calipha Marwan II.

Question 40.
Describe the importance of Nishapur in two sentences.
Answer:
(i) Nishapur was one of the most important centres of Perso-Islamic learning.
(ii) It was the birth place of Umar Khayyan.

Question 41.
By whom and when was Tahir dynasty founded?
Answer:
Tahir dynasty was founded by Tahirids in 820 CE.

Question 42.
When was the Great Mosque of al-Mutawwakil in Samara built?
Answer:
The Great Mosque of al-Mutawwakil in Samara was built in 850. It is 50 metre high and made of bricks.

Question 43.
What do you know about Umar Khayyam?
Answer:
Umar Khayyam was a popular poet and astronomer. He made popular ‘Rubai’, a four line stanza.

Question 44.
Who wrote ‘Shahnama’? Describe its two features.
Answer:
‘Shahnama’ was written by Mahmud of Ghazni’s court poet, Firdausi.
Features
(i) It is a collection of traditional legends and traditions.
(ii) There are 60,000 couplets in it.

Question 45.
What is ‘Sharia’?
Answer:
‘Sharia’ is a body of Islamic sacred laws derived from the ‘Quran’, and the ‘Hadith’.

Question 46.
Describe any two impact of Islam on the Arabian people.
Answer:
(i) Islam united the Arabian people politically.
(ii) It taught them the lesson of brotherhood.

Question 47.
Describe in brief the incident, which helped in making of paper in Samarqand.
Answer:
In 751, the Muslim governor of Samarqand took nearly 20,000 Chinese invaders into his captivity and brought them to Samarqand. Some of these prisoners were good at making paper. They helped in the making of paper in Samarqand.

Question 48.
Describe in short the contribution of Arabs in the field of culture.
Answer:
(i) In the field of literature, Arabian Nights, Rubiayat and Firdausi’s Shahnama are world famous.
(ii) The architectural features of Arabs like the dome, the minaret’s horse shoes, arches, twisted columns are magnificent examples of Arabian architecture.

Question 49.
Who was Ibn Sina?
Answer:
Ibn Sina was a doctor by profession. He did not believe in the resurrection of the body on the Judgement Day.

Question 50.
What do you know about the great Mosque of Mutawwakil in Samara?
Answer:
This Mosque was built in 850. It is 50 metres high and made of bricks. It is inspired by Mesopotamian architectural traditions.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the five pillars of Islam?
Answer:
The five pillars of Islam are:
(i) There is only one God, i.e. Allah.
(ii) Namaj should be offered five in a day.
(iii) Zakat should be given to the needy.
(iv) Fasts should be kept in the month of Ramzan.
(v) All Muslims should take the pilgrimage to Mecca, at least once in their lives.

Question 2.
Describe the main teachings of Islam.
Answer:
Main teachings of Islam are given below:
(i) Allah should be worshiped.
(ii) No Muslim should practice idol worship. It is a sin.
(iii) Muslims should believe that all Muslims are equal. They should regard themselves as brothers.
(iv) All Muslims should follow the same rules regarding marriage and divorce.
(v) All Muslims should lead a simple life.

Question 3.
Describe in brief how Prophet Muhammad’s religion was a factor in the growth of Arab unity.
Answer:
Prophet Muhammad’s religion was a responsible factor in the growth of Arab unity as;
(i) The religion started by Him was denoted by a term Islam implied to complete submission.
(ii) He told that there is only one God, i.e. Allah.
(iii) He emphasised on the principles of equality and unity, for those who accepted Allah and the Prophet.

Question 4.
What do you know about Arab tribe? Write in short.
Answer:
The entire Arab society was divided into tribes known as Qabila, headed by a chief. The chief of Qabila (Tribe) was elected on the basis of his family, wisdom and courage. Besides these, his personality also played a crucial role. Each tribe had its own religious beliefs. They worshiped their own gods and goddesses in mosques.

The tribes were nomadic, and kept on moving from one region to another in search of food and fodder for their camels. Some of them settled and practiced trade or agriculture. Muhammad’s own tribe was Qurayash who had reigned its supremacy in Mecca. It established its control over Kaba, a cublic like structure in which idols were placed. Even the tribes outside Mecca considered the Kaba installed their own idols at this shrine, making annual pilgrimage (Hajj) to the shrine.

Question 5.
What were Crusades? Describe its two impact on the Christian Muslim relations.
Answer:
Crusades meant the military expeditions. It was organized in western Christendom to recover the holy places of Palestine from Muslim occupation. The four Crusades were fought, as given below.
1. First Crusade – 1095 to 1099 CE
2. Second Crusade – 1147 to 1148 CE
3. Third Crusade – 1189 to 1192 CE
4. Fourth Crusade – 1202 to 1204 CE

Impact on Christian-Muslim relations
(i) Ever since the Crusade, the people of western Christendom developed a stereotypical and distorted Islamic image.
(ii) These wars resulted in harsher attitude of the Muslim state towards its Christian subjects.

Question 6.
Write any four factors responsible for the rise of Arab empire.
Answer:
The following factors were responsible for the rise of Arab empire:
(i) The Arabs were skilled warriors.
(ii) The Arabs were successful merchants, who maintained their trade relations with the far off countries.
(iii) The spread of Islam in different countries, also helped them in consolidating their empire.
(iv) They collected information from the available sources and developed it still further.

Question 7.
Why did the early Caliph follow an expansionist policy? Which factors contributed to their success?
Answer:
The early Caliph followed an expansionist policy because:
(i) They were well aware about the fact that ‘Umma’ could not be maintained but the modest income taken through trade and taxes.
(ii) They realised that a rich booty could be obtained by expediting raids.
(iii) The Byzantine and Sassarian empires patronised Christianity and Zoroastrianism respectively. On the eve of Arab’s invasion both these empires began to decline. This provided an opportunity to the Arabs to expand their empire.

The following factors contributed to their success:
(i) Arabs used camels which could work easily in desert regions.
(ii) Both Byzantine and Sassarian empires were not in a position to face the determined challenges of Arab, because they were on the way to their decline.

Question 8.
Describe some features of administrative structure of Arabs under the early Khalifa.
Answer:
Features of administrative structure:
(i) Arab states were headed by governors called amirs and the tribal chieftains called ashraf.
(ii) Tax paid by the Muslims and the share obtained from the booty were the main sources of income for the central authority.
(iii) The ruling class and the soldiers (who participated in the raids) received their share in the booty and monthly payment.
(iv) The non-Muslims residing in the Arab administration had to pay taxes. These taxes were Jaziya and Kharaj.
(v) Christians and Jews were declared as protected citizens. Both were given autonomy in conducting communal affairs.

Question 9.
Write in brief about the contribution of the Arab civilization to the world in the field of science.
Answer:
(i) The Arab astronomers proved that earth is round and it revolves round the sun.
(ii) They discovered compounds like sodium carbonate, silver nitrate, nitric and sulphuric acids.
(iii) In the field of mathematics, they excelled in numbers and trigonometry. They spread this knowledge to other parts of the world.
(iv) Two great Arab physicians Al-Razi and Ibn Sina told about small-pox and tuberculosis.

Question 10.
List the responsible factors which enabled the Umayyad to come to power.
Answer:
The Umayyad dynasty was founded by Muawiya in 661 CE. Between the years 661- 750 all Caliphs were from Umayyad dynasty. Following factors enabled Umayyads to coming into power.
(i) With the territorial expansion, the Umma unity was broken up.
(ii) Conflicts over the distribution of resources began to increase among the Umma.
(iii) The Meccan character of the early Islamic state by Uthman, who packed his administration with his own men, to his exclusion of other tribes men, to secure greater central.
(iv) Opposition of tuber men in Iraq and Egypt combined with opposition in Medina, led to assassination of Uthman. After his assassination Ali became the fourth Caliph. The rifts deepened and after his assassination Muwaiya successfully made him the next Caliph, to exclusion of Ali’s son Hussain, founding Umayyad dynasty.

Question 11.
Write an evolutionary note on the regime of the fourth Caliph, Ali.
Answer:
Ali was the fourth Caliph. He fought two wars against those who were representing the aristocracy of Mecca. As a result of these wars, the rifts among the Muslims depened. Later on his supporters and enemies got divided into two sects. These two sects were: Shias and Sunnis. Ali established himself at Kufar and defeated Aisha’s (Muhammad’s wife) army in the Battle of Camel in 657.

Although Ali won this war but he was unable to suppress the group led by Muawiya, a kinsman of Uthman and the governor of Syria. Then he fought another war with him at Siffin, which ended in a truce. After the War of Siffin, Ali’s followers got divided into two groups. Some remained loyal to them, while others who left them came to be known as Kharjis.

Question 12.
During Abbasids, Arab influence began to decline. Why?
Answer:
During Abbasids, the Arab influence began to decline on account of the following reasons:
(i) The Abbasids established their capital at Baghdad, near the ruins of ancient Iranian metropolis, Ctesiphon. As a result of this, the Iranian influence of culture began to increase under Abbasids.
(ii) The Abbasids ruler strengthened the religious status and functions of the caliphate and patronized Islamic institutions and scholars.
(iii) The army and bureaucracy were recognized on a non-tribal basis to ensure greater participation by Iraqi and Khuraseni.
(iv) The Abbasids maintained the magnificent imperial architecture of Umayyads. They also elaborated court ceremonials of Umayyads.

Question 13.
The Umayyads sought to legitimize their rule. Explain by giving examples.
Answer:
The Umayyads sought to legitimize their rule by protecting themselves as religious leaders and always appealed for unity and suppressed their rebels on the name of Islam. They too wanted to retain their social identity.
(i) The Umayyad Sultan Abd-al-Malik replaced Greek and Pahlavi with Arabic as the language of administration. Now the use of Arabic became compulsory for administrative purposes.
(ii) He also replaced gold dinar and silver dirham circulations.
(iii) Hectic building activities were undertaken that were related to the mosques and palaces.

Question 14.
Were the Abbasid rulers able to abolish monarchy?
Answer:
Abbasid rulers were unable to abolish monarchy, because the needs of Government and the empire forced them to retain centralized army. The Abbasids who claimed to bring downfall of monarchy, established monarchy again by maintaining magnificent imperial architecture and court ceremonies initiated by the Umayyads.

Question 15.
Which factors were responsible for contributing unity among Islamic society between 950-1200 CE?
Or
Which factors contributed to the unity of Islamic society between 950-1200 CE?
Answer:
The following factors contributed to the unity of Islamic society between 950—1200 CE:
(i) These societies were bound together by common cultural and economic patterns.
(ii) The state was separated from the society.
(iii) The Persian developed as a common language which brought the people together.
(iv) Merchants, artists and scholars all moved freely within the Central Islamic land, which led to circulation of new ideas and thoughts.
The population of Muslim began to increase enormously. It was earlier less than 10% under the Umayyad and early Abbasid period.

Question 16.
Which factors contributed to commercial prosperity of the Central Islamic land?
Answer:
Following factors contributed to the commercial prosperity of the Central Islamic land:
(i) Islamic land was politically unified as a result of increasing urbanization.
(ii) This land was spread between the trading zones of the Indian oceans and Mediterranean.
(iii) Increasing flow of pilgrims to Mecca was also considered as an important factor.
(iv) Towns such as Baghdad and Damascus developed as warehouse centers for local consumption or onward transmission of high value goods such as textiles, gunpowder, spices, porcelain shipped from India to China to Bed Sea and Gulf parts of Siraf and Basra.

Question 17.
Write about the importance of Shahnama.
Answer:
Shahnama is a great historical political work of Firdausi. It is an epic of 50,000 couplets and also a masterpiece of Islamic literature. It took nearly 30 years to complete. Ghazni, became the centre of Persian literary life. The rulers of Ghazni also patronised art and learning for enhancing their prestige. Shahnama is a collection of traditions and legends which depicts Iran from creation up until the Arab conquest. According to Ghaznavi tradition, Persian later became the language of administration and culture in India.

Question 18.
How did Caliphate break up in the Arab Empire? Explain.
Answer:
From 9th century, the Abbasids state became weaker due to decline of Baghdad’s control over distant provinces and continuous struggle between pro-Arab and pro- Iranian groups in the army and bureaucracy.

In 810, a civil war broke out between the supporters of two sons (Amin and Mamum) of the Caliph Harun-al-Rashid. This war created a new power block of Turkish slave officers. For the orthodoxy of power, the Shias started competing with Sunni. As a result of this, many new dynasties like Tahirid, Saminids and Tuluminds came into being.

As a result of this, the Abbasid power got limited to the areas of central Iraq and western Iran. The Buyids captured Baghdad in 945 CE, which ended Abbasid supremacy.

Question 19.
Describe the distribution of agricultural land in the conquered territories by the Arabs from the aspect of ownership.
Answer:
The Arabs mainly practiced agriculture in the territories conquered by them. The Islamic states did not make any changes in it. Both small as well as the large land¬owners were the owners of the land. In some cases the land was also owned by the state.
In Iran, the land was divided into very larger units, cultivated by peasants. Estate owners were given the responsibility of land revenue collection on behalf of the state during the Sassanian and Islamic periods. Land was a common property. In villages, people practiced both nomadic and settled agriculture. After Islamic conquests some changes began to take place. Big estate acquired by the state began to abandon by their land owners. Now they were handed over to the Muslim elites, especially to those who were the members of Caliph’s family.

Question 20.
What was the center of Abbasid uprising? Why did it take place? Give reasons.
Or
Write any four arguments to support the concept of Abbasid Revolution.
Answer:
The Umayyad dynasty was brought down by a well-organised movement called ‘Dawa’. It was then replaced by Abbasids in 750. The main center of their uprising was the distant region of Khurasan.
Main Reasons
(i) Mobilisation of the mixed Iranian population for various reasons.
(ii) The Umayyad projected themselves rested on force and loyalty of Syrian troops which resented the Arab soldiers.
(iii) The Arab civilians disliked the Umayyad regime for failure to unfulfill their promises.
(iv) Umayyad regime was portrayed as an evil by the Abbasids.

Question 21.
What were the reasons for the break up of the Caliphate and rise of the concept of Sultanate?
Or
Elaborate a few causes for the break up of Caliphate and the rise of the concept of Sultanate.
Answer:
The downfall of the Abbasid dynasty paved the way for the rise of the concept of Sultanate. The causes mainly responsible were:
(i) The successors of almamun were very weak and incapable.
(ii) They paid no heed towards the administrative affairs. Under such circumstances the downfall of the Caliphate was sure.
(iii) The Caliph paid no attention towards their army.
(iv) They were leading a life full of luxury and paid no attention towards the problems of common people.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the major beliefs and practices that characterized Sufism.
Answer:
Sufi’s were a group of religious minded people turned to asceticism and mysticism.
Their major beliefs and practices are given below:
(i) The Sufi’s laid emphasis on seeking of salvation through devotion of God.
(ii) They laid emphasis on celibacy and ignored the rituals and observed extreme form of asceticism.
(iii) They considered every one equal in the eyes of God. God is one and almighty. Everyone in the universe is his creation.
(iv) They interpreted the Quran on the basis of their own experiences.
(v) They maintained a distance from worldly power.
(vi) They used to go for Ziyarat. They remembered God by reciting the divine names or evoking his presence through Sama.
(vii) They regarded Prophet Muhammad as a perfect human being and preached to follow his teachings.
(viii) Sufi’s were in favor of Sama, singing and dance.

Question 2.
What do you know about the main teachings of Islam?
Answer:
Main teachings of Islam:
(i) Idol-worship is a curse, according to Islam.
(ii) God, i.e. Allah is almighty. He is all wise and merciful.
(iii) Islam believes in life after death, in hell or in heaven. The sinner will go to the hell and face many hardships. The religious and honest people will go to the heaven. They will be served by beautiful damsels.
(iv) The Quran is the divine book of Islam. The sayings of Prophet Muhammad are regarded as God.
(v) All are equal. No one is superior or inferior. Islam preached the principle of equality and brotherhood.
(vi) There is no restriction on keeping slaves in Islam, but Muhammad asked his followers to treat them kindly.

Question 3.
Write your argument to justify the following statement:
“Prophet Muhammad laid down the foundation of a new political structure.”
Answer:
Prophet Muhammad laid down the foundation of a new political structure as:
(i) He replaced the tribal organisation with a state. The state was encompassed with a number of tribes.
(ii) Umma constituted the armed forces.
(iii) He was a religious leader as well as a law-giver.
(iv) His followers (The Umma) were converted into a wide community to include polytheists and Jews of Madina.
(v) The conquest of Mecca established him both as a religious as well as political leader.
(vi) He maintained the independence of the state by fixing the booty to l/15th (which directly went to him).
(vii) Tax like ‘Zakat’ was imposed on tribes who had accepted Muhammad’s leadership. All Muslim tribes had to pay it.
(viii) With his efforts and influence, he was able to convert many Bedouins into Islam. In a short span of time, he was able to unite a large part of peninsula.

Question 4.
“Throughout the history of human beings their interest in religion often went hand in hand”. Justify the statement by giving examples.
Answer:
(i) From the very beginning, evidence has been traced out that Indian traders traveled to the different countries of South East Asia for trade in gold, tin, spices, etc. While travelling and trading to these nations they also took with them the ideas and practices of the religion. The ideology of Buddhism and Hinduism became the part and parcel of their culture. These two religions were adopted by the people of Jawa, Cambodia, Sri Lanka, etc.
(ii) The Arab traders in the medieval period established their trade relations with India and many other countries of Europe and Asia. They carried with them the ideas of newly founded religion, i.e. Islam. Due to its simplicity in principle, Islam was adopted by many Indians and in the same way it spread into Spain, Syria, Iran and Iraq.
(iii) The traders of the western countries, i.e. the traders of England, Holland, France, etc. spread their trading relations in many countries. They brought with them the ideas of Christianity. While trading, they also spread Christianity into different countries. Today this religion is adopted by the people of different countries of Asia and Africa.
Keeping the above examples in mind, we can conclude that throughout the history human being’s interest in religion went hand in hand.

Question 5.
Discuss the main sources of income of the state in detail.
Or
What do you know about agriculture of the Central Islamic lands?
Answer:
Agricultural was the main occupation of the settled population, since long. It also remained a major occupation in newly acquired territories. The bulk of income of the state was derived from the agricultural land.

Land was owned by the small and big farmers and in some cases by the state. After Islamic conquests, big estates were abandoned and acquired by the state. Later on these states were handed over to Muslim elites. The chief among them were the members of Khalifa’s (Caliph’s) army.

The land conquered by the Arabs, which remained in the hands of the owners were subjected to a tax, called Kharaj, varied from 1/2 to 1/5th of the produce. While the land cultivated by the Muslims were levied 1/10th of tax, known as ushr as land
revenue. When non-Muslims started converting to Islam, the land revenue income fell dramatically. To meet the shortfall, the Caliphs decided to discourage the conversions and later adopted a uniform land revenue policy.

After 10th century, the state authorised its officials to claim salaries from the agricultural territories called Iqtas (The person who held the Iqtas came to be known as Iqtadars). Agricultural prosperity and political stability went hand-in-hand. To ensure agricultural prosperity it took several measures such as canals were constructed, dams were built, the digging of wells, etc. were done. Tax concessions were granted to those people who brought land under cultivation. By the initiatives of peasants and state support the agriculture began to increase. Many new crops such as cotton, oranges, bananas, watermelon, spinach and brinjal began to grow and even exported to Europe.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Passage Based Questions
Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow:

Passage 1.

Islamic Calendar:
The Hijri era was established during the caliphate of Umar, with the first year falling in 622 CE. A date in the Hijri calendar is followed by the letters AH.

The Hijri year is a lunar year of 354 days, 12 months (Muharram to Dhul Hijja) of 29 or 30 days. Each day begins at sunset and each month with the sighting of the crescent moon. The Hijri year is about 11 days shorter than the solar year. Therefore, none of the Islamic religious festivals, including the Ramazan fast, Id and hajj, corresponds in any way to seasons. There is no easy way to match the dates in the Hijri calendar with the dates in the Gregorian calendar (established by Pope Gregory XIII in 1582 CE). One can calculate the rough equivalents between the Islamic (H) and Gregorian Christian (C) years with the following formulae:
(H × 32 / 33) + 622 = C
(C – 622) x 33 / 32 = H

Questions:
(i) When was Hijri era established?
(ii) What do you know about Hijri year?
(iii) What is the difference between Hijri year and the solar year?
(iv) How can we calculate the rough equivalents between the Islamic (H) and Gregorian Christian (C) years?
Answers:
(i) The Hijri era was established during the caliphate of Umar in 622 CE.

(ii) The Hijri year is a lunar year of 354 days, 12 months of 29 or 30 days.

(iii) The Hijri year is about 11 days shorter than the solar year, which consists of 365 days.

(iv) It can be calculated by using following formulae:

• (H x 32 / 33) + 622 = C
• (C – 622) x 33 / 32 = H

Passage 2.

The Ideal Student:
Abd al-Latif, a twelfth-century legal and medical scholar of Baghdad, talks to his ideal student:
‘I commend you not to learn your sciences from books unaided, even though you may trust your ability to understand. Resort to teachers for each science you seek to acquire; and should your teacher be limited in his knowledge take all that he can offer, until you find another more accomplished than he. You must venerate and respect him. When you read a book, make every effort to learn it by heart and master its meaning. Imagine the book to have disappeared and that you can dispense with it, unaffected by its loss. One should read histories, study biographies and the experiences of nations. By doing this, it will be as though, in his short life space, he lived contemporaneously with peoples of the past, was on intimate terms with them, and knew the good and bad among them. You should model your conduct on that of the early Muslims. Therefore, read the biography of the Prophet and follow in his footsteps. You should frequently distrust your nature, rather than have a good opinion of it, submitting your thoughts to men of learning and their works, proceeding with caution and avoiding haste. He who has not endured the stress of study will not taste the joy of knowledge. When you have finished your study and reflection, occupy your tongue with the mention of God’s name, and sing His praises. Do not complain if the world turns its back on you. Know that learning leaves a trail and a scent proclaiming its possessor; a ray of light and brightness shining on him, pointing him out.
– Ahmad ibn al Qasim ibn Abi Usaybia, Uyun al Anba.

Questions:
(i) What do you know about Abd-al-Latif?
(ii) Why should books be learnt by heart?
(iii) Discuss the importance of teacher in the life of an ideal student.
Answers:
(i) Abd-al-Latif was a legal and medical scholar of 12th century.

(ii) Books should be learnt by heart. If the books are lost, one should remain unaffected by this loss.

(iii) A teacher is like a torch-bearer. He plays a significant role in the life of an ideal student.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Map Skills
1. On the given map mark and locate the following Islamic land as depicted or described in this chapter.
(i) Fustat
(ii) Nishapur
(iii) Baghdad
(iv) Constantinople
(v) Medina
Answer:

Class 11 History NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 History Chapter 4 The Central Islamic Lands appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NVS Syllabus And Exam Pattern 2019: The authorities of Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti has invited applications from all the eligible candidates for the recruitment of NVS 2019. NVS has announced 2730 vacancies for the recruitment of Assistant Commissioner, TGT, PGT, LDC & various other posts. Candidates who want to gain a job under NVS recruitment must visit the official website to apply for the post. The online application form is available from 11th July 2019. The level of competition for these posts is very high due to the huge number of vacancies.

In order to perform in the exam, candidates must have a proper preparation plan. Firstly students must need to know about NVS Syllabus and Exam Pattern. With the help of NVS 2019, Syllabus and Exam Pattern candidates will be able to analyze the question paper pattern, section-wise distribution of topics and marks. Knowing all these facts will help candidates to approach the exam in the best way. In this article, we will provide you all the necessary information about NVS Syllabus And Exam Pattern 2019. Read on to find more about NVS Syllabus And Exam Pattern 2019.

NVS Syllabus And Exam Pattern 2019

Before getting into knowledge about the details of NVS Syllabus And Exam Pattern 2019, let’s have an overview of NVS Recruitment Vacancies

NVS Syllabus And Exam Pattern for Assistant Commissioner

• Exam Duration will be 3 hours.
• A total of 180 questions.
• maximum marks on the NVS Assistant Commissioner exam are 180 marks

NVS Assistant Commissioner Exam Syllabus for Reasoning Ability

1. Arithmetical Reasoning
2. Number Ranking
3. Embedded Figures
4. Decision Making
5. Cubes and Dice
6. Analogy
7. Mirror Images
8. Non-Verbal Series
9. Number Series
10. Coding-Decoding
11. Statements & Arguments
12. Clocks & Calendars
13. Alphabet Series
14. Blood Relations
15. Syllogism
16. Data Interpretation
17. Directions
18. Statements & Conclusions

NVS Assistant Commissioner Exam Syllabus for General Awareness

1. Geography
2. Famous Places in India
3. Literature
4. Famous Books & Authors
5. Tourism
6. Current Affairs
7. Indian Economy
8. Heritage
9. Inventions and Discoveries
10. Countries and Capitals
11. Civics
12. Environmental Issues
13. Indian History
14. Artists
15. Sports
16. Indian Politics
17. Famous Days & Dates
18. Indian Parliament
19. Rivers, Lakes and, Seas
20. Biology
21. General Science

NVS Assistant Commissioner Exam Syllabus for General Hindi

1. Vocabulary
2. Fill in the Blanks
3. Grammar
4. Transformation of Sentences
5. Comprehension
6. Idioms & Phrases
7. Antonyms
8. Synonyms
9. Tenses
10. Usage of Words

NVS Assistant Commissioner Exam Syllabus for General English

1. Sentence Improvement
2. Spotting Errors
3. Fill in the blanks
4. Substitution
5. Sentence Completion
6. Antonyms
7. Error Correction (Phrase in Bold)
8. Sentence Arrangement
9. Error Correction (Underlined Part)
10. Joining Sentences
11. Idioms and Phrases
12. Active Voice and Passive Voice
13. Prepositions
14. Synonyms
15. Para Completion
16. Passage Completion

NVS Assistant Commissioner Syllabus for Quantitative Aptitude

1. HCF & LCM
2. Algebraic Expressions and in Equalities
3. Average
4. Percentage
5. Profit and Loss
6. Number System & Simplification
7. Probability
8. Simple & Compound interest
9. Ratio and Proportion & Partnership
10. Time and Work & Pipes and Cisterns
11. Speed, Time & Distance (Train, Boats & Stream)
12. Mensuration
13. Trigonometry
14. Geometry
15. Mixture & Allegations
16. Data Interpretation
17. Number Series
18. Speed, Distance and Time
19. Time and Work
20. Number System

NVS Assistant Commissioner Syllabus for Educational Planning and Administration

1. Service Rules and Administration Matters
2. Office Manual & Procedures
3. CCS ( Conduct) Rules
4. CPF, NPS, Gratuity, applicable to Samithi’s employees
5. CCS Medical Attendance Rules
6. FR/SRs
7. CCS (CCA) Rules
8. Reservation in appoints
9. CCS (Leave) Rules
10. General Financial Rules
11. Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Selection Test

Download NVS Syllabus PDF for Assistant Commissioner

NVS Syllabus And Exam Pattern for PGT

• Part 1 to 4 of the sections will not be evaluated if he/she fails to attain qualifying marks in Part-V.
• Part 5 is qualifying in nature only and candidates must secure a  minimum of 1/3rd marks in each language.
• For all subjects of PGTs, Part-I to III will be common. Part IV will be subject-specific.

NVS PGT Syllabus for All Subjects

Download NVS Syllabus PDF for PGT

NVS Syllabus And Exam Pattern for TGT

The NVS Exam Pattern for TGT is tabulated below

• Part 5 is qualifying in nature only with a minimum of 33 i.e., 1/3rd marks in each language.
• Part-I to IV of the candidate will not be evaluated if he/she fails to attain qualifying marks in Part-V.
• For all subjects of TGTs, Part-I to III will be common. Part IV will be subject-specific.

NVS TGT Syllabus for All Subjects

Download NVS Syllabus PDF for TGT

NVS Syllabus And Exam Pattern for Miscellaneous Teachers

The NVS Exam Pattern for Miscellaneous Teachers is tabulated below

• Part 5 is qualifying in nature only with a minimum of 33 i.e., 1/3^rd marks in each language.
• Part-I to IV of the candidate will not be evaluated if he/she fails to attain qualifying marks in Part-V.
• For all subjects of Miscellaneous Teachers, Part-I to III will be common. Part IV will be subject-specific.

NVS Miscellaneous Teachers Syllabus

Download NVS Syllabus PDF for Miscellaneous Teachers

NVS Syllabus And Exam Pattern for Female Staff Nurse & Catering Assistant

The NVS Exam Pattern for Female Staff Nurse & Catering Assistant is tabulated below:

• The exam will be held for 3 hours.
• There will a total of 120 questions.
• The maximum marks on the NVS Female Staff exam are 120 marks.

NVS Female Staff Nurse Syllabus for All Subjects

Download NVS Syllabus for Female staff and Catering Assistant

NVS Syllabus And Exam Pattern for LDC

The NVS Exam Pattern for Lower Divison Clerk is tabulated below

NVS Lower Division Clerk Syllabus for All Subjects

Download NVS Syllabus PDF for Lower Division Clerk

NVS Syllabus And Exam Pattern 2019 – NVS Selection Procedure

• Candidates will be shortlisted on the basis of their performance in written examination/ Computer Based Test (CBT) and interview / Personal Interaction put together.
• In the case of Legal Assistant, Female Staff Nurse & Catering Assistant the selection to the post will be done on the basis of the performance of the candidates in the written examination / CBT only.
• For the post of Lower Division Clerk, candidates shortlisted on the basis of Written Examination / CBT will be called for Trade / Skill Test which will be of qualifying in nature only and carries no weightage.+

We hope we have provided all the necessary information about NVS Syllabus and Exam Pattern 2019. If you have any doubts regarding this post or NVS Syllabus and Exam Pattern 2019, Please drop your comment in the comment section we will get back to you at the earliest.

The post NVS Syllabus And Exam Pattern 2019 PDF (Hindi and English) | Download NVS 2019 Syllabus And Exam Pattern for All Posts appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 History Chapter 5 Nomadic Empires

Class 11 History Chapter 5 Ncert Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Why was trade so significant to the Mongols?
Answer:
The region which was occupied by Mongols lacked natural resources. The steppe region of Central Asia had extreme climate. Cultivation of food was not possible there, only trade could help their survival. The Mongols were forced to trade as the scanty resources of the steppes did not help cultivation. So the Mongols traded with neighboring countries and it was beneficial for both the countries.

Question 2.
Why did Genghis Khan feel the need to fragment the Mongol tribes into new social and military groupings?
Answer:
The following reasons forced Genghis Khan to fragment the Mongol tribes into new social and military groupings:

• Mongols were the inhabitants of the steppe region. They had their own separate identities. So in order to bring them in touch with other tribes, Genghis Khan took this step.
• Mongols were courageous people. Because of this nature, Genghis Khan organized them into military groups and established a formidable army. A sound military organization could be very helpful in trade also .
• Childhood experiences of Genghis Khan were also responsible for the fragmentation of Mongol tribes. Genghis Khan himself had to suffer a lot during his childhood.

Question 3.
How do later Mongol reflections on the Yasa bring out the uneasy relationship they had with the memory of Genghis Khan?
Answer:
Yasa were the rules and regulations. These were approved by Quritali during Genghis Khan’s reign. These rules were mainly concerned with Mongol army, hunting, postage system, social ladder, etc. They were compilation of traditions and customs that prevailed in Mongol tribal society itself.

Question 4.
“If history relies upon written records produced by city-based literati, nomadic societies will always receive a hostile representation.” Would you agree with this statement ? Does it explain the reason why Persian chronicles produced such inflated figures of casualties resulting from Mongol campaigns? (HOTS)
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement. I give the following reasons for my view.

• There were vast differences between The Secret Society of Mongols and Marco Polo’s Travelogues in terms of events and their descriptions.
• Being the transcontinental span of the Mongol empire, the sources were written in different languages.
• Persian chronicles produced inflated figures of casualties resulting from Mongol campaigns to prove their cruelty or to prove them as cruel assassins

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Answer In A Short Essay

Question 5.
Keeping the nomadic element of the Mongol and Bedouin societies in mind, how, in your opinion, did their respective historical experiences differ? What explanations would you suggest account for these differences?
Answer:
Mongols were tribes in the steppes of central Asia, a diverse body of people linked by similarity in language to Tatars, Khitan and Manchus in east and Turkic tribes to the west. Bedouins were Arab tribes moving from dry to green desert in search of food and fodder for cattle. Some Mongols were pastoralists while others were hunter-gatherers. On the other hand, Bedouins were pastoralists, agriculturists and traders because of central Islamic lands surrounded by seas from four sides. The steppes inhabitants usually produced no literature , so our knowledge of nomadic societies under Mongols are quite different and the Italian and Latin versions of Marco- Polo’s Travels to the Mongol Court do not match.

Question 6.
How does the following account enlarge upon the character of the Pax Mongolica created by the Mongols by the middle of the thirteenth century?
The Franciscan monk, William of Rubruck, was sent by Louis IX of France on an embassy to the great Khan Mongke’s court. He reached Karakorum, the capital of Mongke, in 1254 and came upon a woman from Lorraine (in France) called Paquette, who had been brought from Hungary and was in the service of one of the prince’s wives who was a Nestorian Christian. At the court he came across a Parisian goldsmith named Guillaume Boucher, ‘whose brother dwelt on the Grand Pont in Paris’. This man was first employed by the Queen Sorghaqtani and then by Mongke’s younger brother. Rubruck found that at the great court festivals the Nestorian priests were admitted first, with their regalia, to bless the Grand Khan’s cup, and were followed by the Muslim clergy and Buddhist and Taoist monks.
Answer:
The above account depicts the character of the Pax Mongolica by the middle of the 13th century:

• It became clear from the above incident that the French Monarch Louis IX had sent his ambassador William of Rubruck to Karakorum, the capital of Mongke in 1254. This depicts that Mongol rulers had established a well-knit relation with their neighbours.
• Guillaume Boucher proved that Mongol rulers lived with great pomp and show and they had brought servants to serve them from different parts of the world. They were paid good salaries. That is why they reached to serve Mongol court from far away.
• Mongol rulers were not fanatics and anxious to get the blessings of all the people. They recruited administrators and armed forces from people of all ethnic groups and religions. There was a multilingual, multi-religious regime that did not feel threatened by its pluralistic constitution. The above descriptions display the best aspect of Pax-Mongolica. It is said that in a vast empire, the Mongols had established such a rule that one could walk freely without the fear of robbery.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 More Questions Solved

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who were Mongols?
Answer:
Mongols were a nomadic tribe of Central Asia. They lived in present day Mongolia. Basically the Mongols were cattle herders and hunter-gatherers.

Question 2.
Who was the founder of Nomadic empire? When was he bom? What was his childhood name?
Answer:
Genghis Khan was the founder of Nomadic empire. He was born in 1162 CE. His childhood name was Temujin.

Question 3.
Why was Genghis Khan renamed as Temujin and when?
Answer:
Genghis Khan was renamed as Temujin by his father Yesugei. When he was bom , his father defeated the chief of Tatar tribe Temujin.

Question 4.
Define the term ‘Barbarian’.
Answer:
The term ‘Barbarian’ is derived from a Greek word, ‘Barbaras’ which meant non-Greek. In Greek, they were
depicted like children who were unable to speak or reason properly.

Question 5.
What was the name of parents of Genghis Khan?
Answer:
Genghis Khan’s father’s name was Yesugei, while his mother’s name was Oelun-eke.

Question 6.
Who restored the old alliances with the ruler of Kereyrts rules?
Answer:
Genghis Khan (Temujin) restored the old alliance with the Kereyrt ruler Tughril Khan.

Question 7.
Who was Genghis Khan’s wife?
Answer:
The name of Genghis Khan’s wife was Berte.

Question 8.
How did Oelun-eke infuse confidence in Temujin?
Answer:
She infused confidence in Temujin by narrating the stories of glorious past of the Kiyat tribe.

Question 9.
When and by whom the most valuable research work on the Mongols was done?
Answer:
The two Russian scholars Boris Vladimirtsov Yakovlevich and Vasily Vladimisrovich Bartold did most valuable research work on the Mongols during the 18th and 19th century.

Question 10.
In which languages are the most reliable sources of Mongols available?
Answer:
The most reliable sources of Mongols are available in the following languages:

• Mongolean
• Persian
• Chinese
• Arabic.

Question 11.
What do you know about Batu?
Answer:
Batu was the grandson of Genghis Khan. He was a great and courageous warrior. He devastated Russian lands upto Moscow, seized Poland and Hungary and camped outside Vienna.

Question 12.
Who was Juwaini?
Answer:
Juwaini was the Persian chronicler of the Mongol rulers of Iran. He wrote an account about the capture of Bukhara in 1220 CE.

Question 13.
Name the most trustworthy account of the Mongols.
Answer:
“The Secret History of the Mongols” is the most trustworthy account of the Mongols. It is written by Igor-de-Rachewiltz.

Question 14.
What was the extent of the Genghis Khan’s empire?
Answer:
Genghis Khan established a vast empire, which was extended from Persia to Peking and from Siberia to Sindh. To such a vast empire the traveler required nearly two years to travel throughout Mongol empire.

Question 15.
What does the term ‘Quriltai’ denote?
Answer:
‘Quriltai’is an assembly of Mongol chieftains.

Question 16.
Which two important decisions were taken by Quriltai?
Answer:
The two important decisions taken by Quriltai are given below:

1. The Quriltai took the decisions pertaining to succession.
2. It also took the decision regarding the further expansion of the empire.

Question 17.
Name any two sources of the Mongols.
Answer:
Two important sources of the Mongols are:

1. The Secret History of the Mongols.
2. Travelogues accounts of Marco Polo.

Question 18.
“The affluent Mongol families used to have several followers.” Why?
Answer:
The affluent Mongol families used to have several followers because they possessed large number of animals and pasture lands and were more influential in local politics.

Question 19.
Which types of clothes were worn by nomadic people?
Answer:
The nomadic people used to wear cotton, silk and woolen clothes. Silk and cotton were imported from China. In order to protect themselves from cold, they used to wear expensive clothes. The clothing and head-gears were meant for women.

Question 20.
How did the Mongol dispose of their dead bodies?
Answer:
They used to perform the last rites of their dead bodies after the sun set and buried at a place previously selected by the person concerned.

Question 21.
Did the Mongol undertake agricultural activities? Write in ‘Yes’ or ‘No’, and give argument to support your answer.
Answer:
The Mongol did not undertake agricultural activities because:

1. Geographical conditions prevailing were unsuitable for growing crops or for agriculture.
2. Agriculture was limited for a fix period.

Question 22.
“Trade was very significant for the Mongol”. Why?
Answer:
The Mongol badly lacked resources for their livelihood. So trade was very significant for their survival.

Question 23.
How was trade carried out?
Answer:
Trade was based on barter system, which was beneficial for both the parties.

Question 24.
Why was China Wall constructed?
Answer:
The Great Wall of China was constructed by the Chinese ruler to safeguard their people from the danger of nomadic tribes of Mongolia. ,

Question 25.
What do you understand by Qubkur?
Answer:
Qubkur was a tax paid to the Mongol government in lieu of cattle and other animal herds by the nomadic Mongol.

Question 26.
Name any two famous personalities who contributed a lot in the early life of Genghis Khan.
Answer:
Two personalities who contributed a lot in the early life of Genghis Khan were: Boghuchu and Jomuqa.

Question 27.
Which two arch rival tribes were defeated by Genghis Khan at the beginning of his political career?
Answer:
The two arch-rival tribes defeated by Genghis Khan were:

1. The Khitans
2. The Tatars

Question 28.
Who renamed Temujin as Genghis Khan and when?
Answer:
Temujin was renamed as Genghis Khan by Quriltai in 1206.

Question 29.
How was China divided during the time of Genghis Khan?
Answer:
During Genghis Khan’s time, China was divided into three realms, each was ruled by different dynasties. These dynasties were Hsi, Chin and Sung.

Question 30.
Which dynasty ruled over Peking? When was it conquered by Genghis Khan?
Answer:
Peking was ruled by Chin dynasty. It was conquered by Genghis Khan in 1215.

Question 31.
Describe the brief and extent of Genghis Khan’s empire.
Answer:
Genghis Khan established a vast nomadic empire. His empire was extended from Persia to Peking and from Siberia to Sindh. He made Karakoram, the capital of his empire.

Question 32.
What do you mean by Yesa? When was it given a final shape?
Answer:
With the aim to re-organize the Mongol society and give it an altogether new shape, Genghis Khan laid down the legal code that is known as Yesa. Yesa was given final shape in 1226 C.E.

Question 33.
Write in brief the composition of Mongol army.
Answer:
Mongol army comprised of the people of various tribes. In it, Genghis Khan also included the people of several area as brought under him: Kereyits and Ueghuru were also the part of Mongol army.

Question 34.
What are the two features of Mongol army?
Or
Write any two basic features of Mongol army.
Answer:

1. Army was organized on the basis of decimal system.
2. Soldiers were to obey strict rules and regulations.

Question 35.
What was the position of the emperor in Nomadic empire? Write any two features.
Answer:

1. Khan was the supreme authority and enjoyed unlimited powers.
2. He was also vested with all the authority to formulate both internal and external policies.

Question 36.
What was Yam?
Answer:
Yam was a military post created by Genghis Khan. The horse riders carried messages from one place to another.

Question 37.
Define the concept of Ulus.
Answer:
‘Ulus’ means a specifically defined area. It was given to the emperor’s son to rule over his conquered area.

Question 38.
Name the sons of Genghis Khan.
Answer:
Genghis Khan had four sons. They were:

• Jochi
• Chaghatai
• Ogodei
• Toluy.

Question 39.
What do you know about Yeh-lu-ch’u-tsai?
Answer:
Yeh-lu-ch’u-tsai was a Chinese minister, who was taken under the captivity of Mongol in 1215. He contributed immensely in giving a new shape to Mongol empire.

Question 40.
(i) When did Genghis Khan pass away?
(ii) Name his two successors.
Answer:
(i) Genghis Khan passed away in 1227.

(ii) His two successors were:

• Ogedei, who ruled from 1229-41.
• Guyrik ; who ruled from 1246-1248 C.E.

Question 41.
When and by whom was the Yuan Dynasty founded?
Answer:
The Yuan Dynasty was founded by Qubilai Khan in 1260.

Question 42.
Write any two features of the religious life of the Mongol.
Answer:

• Tengri was their chief deity and considered Him to be omnipotent.
• They followed the policy of tolerance towards other religions.

Question 43.
Who was Guyuk?
Answer:
Guyuk was the son of Ogodei. He became the new Khan in 1246 and ruled till 1248. His tenure is known for
the diplomatic relations established with Pope.

Question 44.
What do you know about paiza?
Answer:
Paiza means passes. These passes were issued by the Mongol government for safe conduct with the travellers. These were of three types, i.e. gold, silver and iron. The travellers had to tie these passes on their forehead.

Question 45.
Who was the founder of II-Khan id dynasty?
Answer:
The founder of II-Khan id dynasty was Helegu in 1256 C.E.

Question 46.
When was Nishapur occupied by Genghis Khan? Why did he carry out terrible destruction here?
Answer:
Nishapur was occupied by Genghis Khan in 1219. He carried out a terrible destruction because a Mongol Prince was killed during this expedition.

Question 47.
Write any two causes for the defeat of the Mongol at the hands of Egyptian soldiers.
Answer:
Reasons behind the defeat of the Mongol at the hands of Egyptian soldiers were:

• The Mongol took more interest in China.
• The Mongol sent a comparatively smaller army to face Egyptian forces.

Question 48.
Name a famous traveler from Venice (Italy) who visited China. Where did he stay?
Answer:
Macro-Polo, the Venice traveler visited China during the period 1275 to 1292. He stayed at the court of Qubilai Khan.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you know about the Mongol? Discuss their occupations in brief.
Answer:
The nomadic people inhabiting in the regions of present days of Mongolia in Central Asia were known as the Mongol. They were predominantly pastoralists and hunter gatherers. They dwelt in tents and were divided into several patriarchal dynasties. They were constantly at war with other tribes like tatars, Naimans and Khitans. The main occupation of the nomadic tribe during the 12th century was pastoralism. They reared animals such as horse and sheep. In addition to these animals, they also reared goats and camels. They reared them for getting milk, meat, and wool. The geographical conditions prevailing here were not in favour of adapting agriculture. Nomadic Empires 109 Consequently, their economy was not geared to feed the regions having higher population concentration.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Mongol society.
Or
Describe the main characteristics of the Mongol society in 12th century.
Answer:.

• The Mongol society was patriarchal in nature.
• The eldest male member was the head of the family who used to take care of the needs of their family members.
• The rich families were larger in size. The birth of son was highly solicited in the society.
• Polygamy was in practice in the society.
• Regarding marriage, strict rules were followed. There was ban on marriage within family circle or within a tribe.
• There were constant wars among different sections of the society.
• Some tribes with an aim to keep harmonious relations arranged marriages between their respective tribes.
•  Women were not secluded to hearth and home alone; rather than as per the needs of the hour, they used to equally assist their male counterparts in the battlefield.
• In case of death of their husbands, they too looked after children and the property of their respective families.

Question 3.
How did the Mongol carry out their trade?
Answer:
The scarcity of resources forced the nomadic tribes (the Mongols) to depend on the other neighboring countries for the essential goods for trade. Their trade was based on barter system, which was beneficial for both parties engaged in trade. They imported agricultural products and made implements from China and in line of these they used to export horses, fur and animals used for hunting. The nomadic people used to suffer less as compared to their opponents. The possible reason behind that was the nomadic people quickly disappeared from the place of their strife after carrying out loot and plunder. It meant several losses for trading partner, i.e. China. In order to safeguard their people from Mongol strife’s, the ruler of China constructed the ‘Great Wall of China’.

Question 4.
Write a brief description of Genghis Khan.
Or
Discuss the early career and achievements of Genghis Khan.
Answer:
Genghis Khan was the greatest Mongol who laid the foundation of Nomadic empire. His contribution was immense in unifying Mongols. It was due to his efforts that a vast Mongol empire was established. He was born in the year 1162. He was born near the river Onon. His father’s name was Yesugei, who was the chief of the tribe, Kiyat. His mother Oleun-eke belonged to Onggerat tribe. His original name was Temujin. He grew up as a brave man. He organized a powerful army which helped him to lay down the foundation of a vast empire. His main achievements were the conquest of Northern China, conquest of Qara Katie, etc. During the period from 1219 to 1222 CE the Mongol forces occupied Bukhara, Samarqand, Balk, Marv, Nishapur and Herat. Genghis not only built vast empire but also contributed a lot in improving the civil administration of the empire.

Question 5.
How did Temujin become Genghis Khan? Discuss.
Answer:
No doubt, Temujin was a bom commander. His initial success made him more influential. Jamuque was unable to see the growing friendly relations between Temujin and Tughril Khan. Thus, he started be-friending all the tribes hostile to Temujin. Temujin was unable to tolerate it and gave a crushing defeat to Jamuqua with the help of Tughril Khan. Encouraged by the defeat over the powerful Jamuqua, he concentrated towards Taters, Naimaans and Kereyits. Later on Tughril Khan also became hostile to Temujin and was defeated. Thus, he became the most influential person in the politics of steppe region. Keeping his achievement in mind, Quriltai awarded him with the title of Genghis Khan which means universal sovereign.

Question 6.
Describe in your own words the conquest of northern China by Genghis Khan.
Answer:
During the tenure of Genghis Khan, China was divided into three realms. These realms were North-West region, North China and South China. Each realm was governed by different ruling dynasties. His campaign against China was the result of a long drawn-out process. Northern China was invaded by Genghis Khan in 1211. It was then under the influence of Chin dynasty. The Chin ruler gave him a stiff competition. He also posed many difficulties for Genghis Khan. Tc win over him, Genghis Khan took recourse to diplomacy and instigated the people of the South Manchuria against Chin ruler. This resulted in weakening of the position of Chin ruler. Thus, he succeeded in occupying Peking in 1215. After this, Genghis Khan unleashed a reign of loot and terror in Peking. This victory of Genghis Khan encouraged his soldiers to a great extent. After this successful invasion he returned to Mongolia in 1216.

Question 7.
“Genghis Khan laid special emphasis on discipline in the army”. Keeping this statement in your mind, describe the rules formulated by him in the sphere of military administration.
Answer:
Genghis Khan made several rules in military administration with an aim to ensure discipline in the army. Some of these rules are:

• All the soldiers in the army had to obey the order of their chief commander.
• Soldiers could not take part or indulge into loot and plunder without the prior permission of their commander.
• The soldiers who were on leave immediately had to report back in case of hostilities.
• No soldier was allowed to move out of his own unit or to enter another unit.
• All the soldiers had to inspect their weapons properly before the departure for the battlefield.

Question 8.
Discuss the methods of the warfare of Mongol army.
Answer:

• Prior to any expedition, the Mongol Khan convened the meeting of the Quriltai.
• An elaborate discussion pertaining to the arms and planning for war were taken here. All the military leaders/commanders took part in it and used to receive special direction.
• The Mongol spies spread rumours in the enemy’s country, with the aim to demoralize its soldiers.
• The enemy was given the option to surrender or to face annihilation.
• After these initial preparations, when the actual war was to begin, the Mongol soldiers used to encircle the area that was to be attacked from all the sides.
• The Mongol soldiers faced the enemy’s army face to face, the tactic adopted by them was to show that they were deserting the war field. The enemy soldiers thought that the Mongol army had deserted the field. But no sooner had they reached at a particular place, the Mongol soldiers used to attack soldiers and gave them a crushing defeat.

Question 9.
Narrate the position of Khan in Mongol administration.
Answer:

• The Khan (Empire) occupied the highest rank in the administration.
• He was vested with the unlimited powers and had the authority to formulate both internal and external policies of the state.
• He was the chief commander of the army. All the armed forces of the state used to act as per his sole discretion.
• He was the sole authority to appoint all higher and civil authorities.
• He was authorized to levy any kind of new taxes.

Question 10.
What do you know about Ulus system? Explain.
Answer:
Ulus system was established by Genghis Khan. According to this system, Khan used to transfer the administration of newly conquered lands to his four sons, namely Jochi, Chaghatai, Ogedei and Toluy. His eldest son Jochi was given the region of Russian steppes. Chaghatai was given the charge of Transoxiana steppe and the region of north of Pamir Hills. It was an indication from the Khan that his third son Ogedei would succeed him as the Khan. Toluy, the fourth son was given the region of Mongolia. Ulus was not fixed. The size of Ulus used to change. Under this system, the position of the son of Khan was that of a deputy ruler. They were made the independent in-charge of the military troops, known as Tama. They (Persons holding Ulus) can appoint the person under their region and can also levy new taxes.

Question 11.
Write a short note on Yam.
Answer:
Yam was a military post, established by Genghis Khan. During the Mongol Empire, such posts were created at a distance of 25 miles. At these posts cavaliers and messengers were appointed and horses were placed at their disposal. These cavaliers used to carry official records from one place to another. Each cavalier was required to tie a bell with the neck of his horse. Whenever, a message used to reach near a post, the messenger present at post, on listening the ring of the bell so tied with the neck of horse, used to get ready along with horse to leave for the next destination. At Yam, proper arrangements were also made for the travellers. With the aim to make their stay secure and comfortable the travellers were issued official passes, known as Paiza. These passes were of three types—gold, silver and iron. The travellers had to tie these passes (Paiza) on their forehead. The travellers were provided facilities at every Yam, according to these passes. The institution proved very successful for the Mongol administration.

Question 12.
Describe the religious beliefs of Mongols.
Answer:
Religious beliefs of Mongols:

• Mongols had deep faith in religion.
• They worshiped the main deity, Tengzi, i.e. the Sun God and believed him to be omnipotent.
• In order to please their deity they used to perform animal sacrifices.
• They (Mongolian, people of Mongol) used to show special respect for holy religious man called ‘Shamans’.
• Genghis Khan believed that destiny has ordained royalty for mongers. Therefore, it is a religious obligation for the Mongol to bring more and more regions under their direct suzerainty.
• Mongols were secular in nature and followed the policy of religious tolerance. They allowed the people to respect their religion with full liberty.
• The recruitment’s under the Mongols were made only on merit basis and religion had no role to play in it.

Question 13.
Critically evaluate the Mongol administration.
Answer:
The Mongols belonged to a nomadic society. The main aim in their life was to collect booty for their survival. Mongols were much inclined towards establishing a good administration for the people being ruled by them. Their system of administration as implemented by them was at best, a makeshift effort on their part. But they did not pay heed towards the military administration. They failed to achieve anything remarkable in regard to the civil administration, which was a prerequisite for the consolidation of their empire.

Question 14.
What do you know about Ogodei? Write his achievements in brief.
Answer:
Ogodei was declared as the new Mongol Khan by Quriltai in 1229. He ruled from 1229 to 1241. After becoming the new Mongol Khan, he paid his attention towards Mughal empire. At the time of accession to power the position of Mongols in the Northern China was not much stable. In order to establish his control over Northern China, he entered into an alliance with the Sung ruler of Southern China.

• In 1234, he occupied regions of Northern China.
• In 1231, he had also inflicted a crushing defeat to the ruler of Iran Jalal-ud-din, who had escaped to India, during the time of Genghis Khan.
• Ogedei not only helped the Mongol empire to expand, rather than he also played an important role in consolidating it with an objective of strengthening the economic condition. He also regularised taxes and encouraged trade.
• He established a chain of courts in empire to give justice to all his citizens.
• To encourage education he also opened schools.
• He also did a number of civil reforms and further expanded the Yam system.

Question 15.
Write a short note on Jochid dynasty.
Answer:
Jochid dynasty was also one of the prominent dynasties of the Mongols. Jochid, the eldest son of Genghis Khan was the founder of this dynasty. Genghis Khan had transferred the region of Russian steppe to Jochid in 1224. The region of Russian steppe granted to him is also known as Southern Russia or Golden Horde. Jochid died in 1227 and was succeeded by Batu. Batu proved to be an able ruler and conquered entire Russia, Hungary, Poland and Austria during his compaigns from 1236 to 1242. He took several steps to expand Golden Horde to a large extent. He also took numerous steps to strengthen his economy and also modernised his force. After his death in 1256, his successors continued to rule up to 1359 CCE.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which favourable conditions encouraged Genghis Khan to launch an expedition against the Muhammad Shah of Khwarazm?
Answer:
Following favourable conditions encouraged, Genghis Khan to launch an expedition against the Shah of Khwarazm:

• Shah had established a vast empire, but nothing had been done to consolidate it.
• Shah also refused to recognise the Khalifa of Baghdad. This mistake resulted in the hostility of Muslim community against him.
• By annexation of a number of regions to his vast empire, Shah antagonised a large number of people.
• The mutual relations between Turkish and Iranian officers were not cordial. They never missed a chance to let down each other.
• He had also imposed many taxes on the farmers and general public but did care a little about their grievances. So the people wanted to get rid of such tyrannical regime.
• There was also a fear of loot and plunders. So there was restlessness among the traders as well as the common people.
• There was lack of discipline in his army.
• The continued intrigues of his mother further eroded his position. She wanted him to overthrow.

Question 2.
Discuss the causes of the success of Genghis Khan.
Answer:
Prior to his death, Genghis Khan had established a vast empire within a short span of 20 years.
Some of the main causes of his success are listed below:

• He was a born commander and distinctively fortunate to get success, wherever he went. He became a real terror of his opponents.
• He also established a large disciplined army. It was not easy to face such a huge army.
• His spies used to collect every bit of information about the opponent’s army and gave it to him.
• He knew the importance of psychological warfare and used to unleash the region of terror. In this effort, people could not face his army.
• He used to make people dread his forces, so that the people could surrender without waging a war against him.
• The Mongol soldiers were experts in horse riding and archery.
• Genghis Khan usually launched his expedition during the winter season. Because during this season rivers used to freeze and make it easier to cross them.
• The use of Naphtha Bombardment destroyed enemy forts and had dreadly results in the course of the war.

Question 3.
Why did Genghis Khan become unpopular? Explain.
Or
Describe the causes of the unpopularity of Genghis Khan.
Answer:
No doubt, Genghis Khan had established a vast empire. The newly vanquished people had no inclination towards their new ruler. Several causes were responsible for this.
The main causes were:

• The Mongols during the course of their expedition destroyed several beautiful cities and towns. Most of these cities lost their glory after his attack.
• Their invasion also badly affected the agriculture, because when the huge forces passed away they destroyed standing crops.
• During war year or the time of invasion trade and commerce was badly affected.
• A large number of people lost their lives due to their invasion. Many became handicapped and helpless.
• A number of people were slaves.
• As a result of their invasion, the timely repair to the underground rivers in the arid region was not carried out.
• All his invasions resulted in rapid desertification of newly conquered areas.
• People from all walks of life had to face hardships.

Question 4.
Discuss the rules and regulations of the Yasa as evolved by Genghis Khan.
Answer:
Rules and regulations of the Yasa:

• People should believe in one God, because He gives us life and death, riches and poverty.
• All religions are equal. They must be respected. The priests should be exempted from all kinds of taxes, transcending all religious barriers.
• Any person, who proclaimed himself to be a Khan without the recognition of Quriltai, should be awarded death penalty.
• Do not indulge into adultery. People doing so will be given death penalty.
• Do not tell a lie.
• Always respect the aged and the poor and not deceive anyone.
• It was mandatory for all able-bodied persons to serve in the army.
• On the opening of hostilities, the soldiers on leave, were asked to resume their duties immediately.
• Passion involved in spying, giving the false information/evidence/witness should be punished with death penalty.
• No one in his empire can employ a Mongol as his slave or servant.
• If a soldier indulges into loot and plunder without the prior permission of the commander, he should be awarded death penalty.
• All the Mongol princesses should preserve this Yasa, and at the time of need, they should take help from it.
• The armed forces are to be organized into units numbering 10,100, 1000 and 10000. This makes it easier for the army commander to control over military. Yasa played a remarkable role in unifying the Mongols and kept their tribal identity intact. Without any hesitation, we can say that Yasa played a remarkable role in making of global Mongol empire.

Question 5.
Discuss the role of civil administration in Mongol administration’
Answer:
Genghis Khan belonged to nomadic society. On the basis of capacity he established a vast empire. His empire included the people from various walks of society and they were civilized people. To rule such a diverse society was not an easy task. Hence, he appointed the people belonging to civilized society to look after the civil administration. The officers were concerned with civil administration and were appointed on the basis of merit. No credit was given to tribals or religious affinities while appointing them in civil administration. The civil administration played an outstanding role in strengthening and consolidating the foundation of Mongol empire. They even influenced the Mongol rulers to transform their policies pertaining to administration. He also made Genghis Khan aware about the ‘Importance of Yan system’ as followed in China.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Passage Based Questions
Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow:

Passage 1.

The Capture of Bukhara:
Juwaini, a late-thirteenth-century Persian chronicler of the Mongol rulers of Iran, carried an account of the capture of Bukhara in 1220. After the conquest of the city, Juwaini reported, Genghis Khan went to the festival ground where the rich residents of the city were and addressed them: ‘O people know that you have committed great sins, and that the great ones among you have committed these sins. If you ask me what proof I have for these words, I say it is because I am the punishment of God. If you had not committed great sins, God would not have sent a punishment like me upon you’… Now one man had escaped from Bukhara after its capture and had come to Khurasan. He was questioned about the fate of the city and replied: They came, they [mined the walls], they burnt, they slew, they plundered and they departed.’

Questions:
(i) By whom is the above passage written? What does he describe in it?
(ii) What do you know about Genghis Khan?
(iii) What did Genghis Khan say to the conquered people?
(iv) Write any two contributions of Genghis Khan.
Answers:
(i) The above passage is written by a Persian chronicler Juwaini. In it, he described Genghis Khan’s conquest of Bukhara.

(ii) Genghis Khan was born in 1162 CE. He was the founder of nomadic empire. He was a good commander and later on established a vast Mongol empire. His original name was Temujin. He was bestowed with the title of Genghis Khan in 1206.

(iii) Genghis Khan said to the conquered people that:

• It was a punishment from God.
• The great ones of the society has committed a great sin and, he was to redeem to those sins.

(iv)

• He established firm control over his army and maintained discipline.
• He made Mongols, the fighting forces with destructive powers.

Passage 2.

Ghazan Khan’s Speech:
Ghazan Khan (1295-1304) was the first Il-Khanid ruler to convert to Islam. He gave the following speech to the Mongol-Turkish nomad commanders, a speech that was probably drafted by his Persian wazir Rashiduddin and included in the minister’s letters :

‘I am not on the side of the Persian peasantry. If there is a purpose in pillaging them all, there is no one with more power to do this than I. Let us rob them together. But if you wish to be certain of collecting grain and food for your tables in the future, I must be harsh with you. You must be taught reason. If you insult the peasantry, take their oxen and seed and trample their crops into the ground, what will you do in the future ? … The obedient peasantry must be distinguished from the peasantry who are rebels.

Questions:
(i) Who drafted this speech?
(ii) What do you know about Ghazan Khan?
(iii) What was the tenure of Ghazan Khan?
(iv) What did Ghazan Khan’s speech depict?
Answers:
(t) This speech was drafted by Ghazan Khan’s wazir Rashiduddin.

(ii) Ghazan Khan was the first II-Khanid ruler to convert to Islam. Genghis Khan, the great Mongol empire was his grandfather.

(iii) Ghazan Khan ruled from 1295-1304. His tenure was expanded over just nine years.

(iv) Ghazan Khan’s speech depicted two things:

• He was against those peasantry class who was in favour of rebellion.
• He was in favour of those peasantry class, who was against the rebellion and was hard working.

Passage 3.

Yasa:
In 1221, after the conquest of Bukhara, Genghis Khan had assembled the rich Muslim residents at the festival ground and had admonished them. He called them sinners and warned them to compensate for their sins by parting with their hidden wealth. The episode was dramatic enough to be painted and for a long time afterwards people still remembered the incident. In the late sixteenth century, ‘Abdullah Khan, a distant descendant of Jochi, Genghis Khan’s eldest son, went to the same festival ground in Bukhara. Unlike Genghis Khan, however, ‘Abdullah Khan went to perform his holiday prayers there. His chronicler, Hafiz-i Tanish, reported this performance of Muslim piety by his master and included the surprising comment: ‘this was according to the yasa of Genghis Khan’.

Questions:
(i) What is the meaning of Yasa?
(ii) After which conquest, Genghis Khan had assembled the rich Muslim residents at the festival ground?
(iii) What is the importance of Yasa?
Answers:
(i) The meaning of Yasa is a legal code

(ii) After the conquest of Bukhara in 1221, Genghis Khan had assembled the rich Muslim residents at the festival ground.

(iii) Yasa is important because:

• It acknowledged Mongol’s affinity to Genghis Khan and his descendants.
• All religions should be respected and exempted from all sorts of taxation.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Map Skills

Question 1.
On the given map of South-East Asia mark and locate the following places related to Mongol empire:
(i) Karakorum
(ii) Moscow
(iii) Turfan
(iv) Merv
(v) Herat
(vi) Balkh
Answer:

Question 2.
With the help of arrow and place mark and locate the campaigns of the Mongols.
Answer:

Class 11 History NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 History Chapter 5 Nomadic Empires appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 History Chapter 6 The Three Orders

Class 11 History Chapter 6 Ncert Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Describe two features of early feudal society in France.
Answer:
Two features of early feudal society:
(i) Early feudal society in France was based on the relationship of lord and peasants. The peasants had to offer labor in the service of their lords.
(ii) The lord enjoyed special status. His order was supreme. Nobody could deny his order.

Question 2.
How did long-term changes in population levels affect economy and society in Europe?
Answer:
Long-term changes in population levels affected the economy and society:
(i) This change brought about a new change in agricultural production. Production reached at its peak. Good quality of goods was also produced. It increased the life expectancy rate.
(ii) A number of towns came into being. They also became the center of trade and commerce. Society became more advanced and civilized.

Question 3.
Why did knights become a distinct group and when did they decline?
Answer:
There were frequent localized wars in Europe during 9th century. Soldiers were not enough. Good cavalry was the need of hour. It led to the growing importance of a new section of people, i.e. the knights. They were linked to the lords. The lord gave the knight a piece of land that was called fief. Land of the fief was cultivated by peasants. In lieu of that, the knight paid his lord a regular fee and also promised to fight for him in war. In this way, they became a distinct group. The fall of feudalism was one of the main reasons of the decline of knights during 15th century.

Question 4.
What was the function of medieval monasteries?
Answer:
The functions of medieval monasteries are as follows:
(i) It inspired the people to lead a simple life.
(ii) It also inspired the people to serve the sick and the needy.
(iii) It also inspired the people to donate for a noble cause.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Answer In A Short Essay

Question 5.
Imagine and describe a day in the life of a craftsman in a medieval French town.
Answer:
Students are advised to answer this question with the help of their teachers. Following guidelines are given to complete this task:

• Craftsmen worked under the supervision of guilds. They were skilled persons.
• Trading guilds controlled and supervised their activities and took great care of their needs.

Question 6.
Compare the conditions of life for a French serf and a Roman slave.
Answer:
French Serfs: They cultivated land that mainly belonged to the lord. Most of the produce from these land was given to the lord.

• They also had to work that belonged exclusively to the land and were given no wages.
• They could not leave the estate without the prior permission of their master/lord and could not marry their child according to their wishes.
• The lord could decide their fate. As a whole their life was full of misery.

Roman Slaves: Slavery was in a practice in Roman society. The Roman led a life full of misery. They were forced to work for several hours. They were forced to produce more children, so that when they grew up, they could also made slaves.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 More Questions Solved

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How was western European society divided?
Answer:
Western European society was divided into three estates. These were:
(a) The Clergy
(b) The Nobility
(c) The Peasantry

Question 2.
The clergy was considered to be the most important in medieval European social order. What were the reasons?
Ans. There are a few reasons of this:
(i) Clergy enjoyed special status.
(ii) The clergy had complete control over the social orders of the society.
(iii) No body could disobey their orders.

Question 3.
What were the two sections of Third Order?
Answer:
Two sections of the Third Order were:
(a) Free Peasants
(b) Serfs

Question 4.
What do you understand by Labour Rent?
Answer:
In the estate of the lords, the serfs had to work along with his family members for at least 3 or more days. Income generated from this labour is known as Labour Rent.

Question 5.
What was Tithe ?
Answer:
Tithe was a kind of tax collected by the church from the peasants in France. It was 1/10th of the total produce.

Question 6.
What do you know about Friars?
Answer:
Friars were a group of monks who moved from place to place, preaching to the people and living on earth.

Question 7.
What was Taille?
Answer:
Taille was a kind of tax collected by the kings from the peasants.

Question 8.
Write a few restrictions that were imposed on the serfs.
Answer:
Following restrictions were imposed on the serfs.
(a) The serf can’t leave the estate without the prior permission of their masters or lords.
(b) They were prohibited from offering their prayers in the church.
(c) They did not enjoy the right of education.

Question 9.
What were the duties of the serfs?
Answer:
(i) The serfs had to do forced labour.
(ii) The serfs had to serve in their lord’s army for 40 days in a year.

Question 10.
What was the basis of economic organisation?
Answer:
The basis of economic organisation was the guild.

Question 11.
Discuss a few advantages of feudal system.
Answer:
Advantages of feudal system:
(i) It established law and order system.
(ii) It set up an efficient administrative system.
(iii) It put a check on the power of the absolute monarch.

Question 12.
What were the drawbacks of feudal system?
Answer:
Drawbacks of feudal system:
(i) It weakened the monarchial system.
(ii) It hampered the process of national unity and integration.

Question 13.
What were cathedral towns?
Answer:
The large church buildings built in France were called cathedrals. With the passage of time, many towns flourished around the churches that were called cathedral towns.

Question 14.
What was Manar?
Answer:
Fertile lands were called Manar.

Question 15.
Discuss any four factors responsible for the decline of feudalism.
Answer:
The factors responsible for the decline of feudalism were:
(i) Development of new towns and cities
(ii) Peasants revolt
(iii) Emergence of middle class
(iv) Advent of the use of money

Question 16.
The monks living in St. Benedict monastery followed some rules. Enumerate two of them.
Answer:
Monks living in St. Benedict monastery followed the following rules.
(i) The monks obeyed the order of the chief of the monastery. They were not allowed to speak freely.
(ii) They had to spend most of their time in meditation.

Question 17.
Where was shortage of silver felt in 14th century? Did it have any affect on the trade?
Answer:
The shortage of silver supply was felt in Serbia and Austria in the 14th century. It adversely affected trade.

Question 18.
Discuss any two factors that were responsible for the rise of nation-state during 16th century.
Answer:
The two factors responsible for the rise of nation-state during 16th century were:
(i) Decline of feudal system
(ii) Growth of middle class.

Question 19.
What were the causes of the growth of towns in Europe during the middle age?
Answer:
(i) Trade and commerce flourished and most traders settled in cities and towns.
(ii) Towns were free from the control of lords. As a result, people started migrating from rural to urban areas in search of jobs.

Question 20.
What do you understand by vassalage?
Answer:
In society, priests were put in the first order and nobles in the second order. The nobility enjoyed privileges in the social process. They had complete control over the land. This control was the outcome of the Vassalage’ practice.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the life of Christian monks in a monastery during the medieval period of Europe.
Answer:
The men who led the life of self-denial and self-control were called monks. The monks lived in monastery and led the simple life. They had to take a vow not to acquire any kind of worldly possession. They were not allowed to marry and had to take a vow to obey the chief of monastery. Their only mission in life was to pray and preach and to spread moral teachings among the common people.

Question 2.
What do you understand by manor? Describe in brief.
Answer:
The noble enjoyed a special status in the society. He had a complete control over his property. He was the lord of all the people settled on his land. He occupied vast tracts of land which had its own dwellings, private fields, and pastures. His house was called manor. Peasants cultivated his private lands. Whenever required in battle they were also expected to act as foot soldiers.

Question 3.
Discuss the categories of cultivators under feudalism during the medieval age in Europe.
Answer:
There were two categories of cultivators in the feudal system, during the age in Europe. They were free peasants and serfs.
(i) Free Peasants: They held their farms as tenants of the lord. This category of peasants did not work for their lords.
(ii) Serfs: Serfs were the lowest category of peasants. They were just like slaves of their masters. They had not only to work on the fields of their lords and gave them a part of their produce but also to perform such petty jobs as building or repairing their houses, roads, etc. They received no wages. They were not allowed to leave the state without the permission of their lord.

Question 4.
What was the position of Pope in the medieval Europe?
Answer:
The Pope enjoyed a respectable position in the society during the medieval period in Europe. He was considered to be the spiritual representative of Jesus Christ. He interfered into the internal affairs of the Christian kings and their subjects. Nobody could dare to challenge the authority of Pope.

Question 5.
What is the political importance of the feudal system?
Answer:
Political importance of the feudal system:
(i) Nobles provided protection to their people.
(ii) They also maintained peace and harmony in their regions.
(iii) The feeling of mutual understanding and co-operation among the people was also created.
(iv) Through manorial system, the feudal lords provided economic provision.

Question 6.
Describe the merits and demerits of feudal system.
Answer:
Merits of the feudal system:

(i) Common people were provided security of life and property.
(ii) Law and order was maintained in their territories.

Demerits of the feudal system:

(i) There were mutual conflicts among feudal lords to expand their own states. That is why peace and order in the society got disturbed.
(ii) The feudal system proved to be an obstacle in the growth of political unity.

Question 7.
How did plague affect trade and cities?
Answer:
(i) With the expansion of trade in the 13th and 14th centuries, ships carrying goods from distant countries had started arriving in European ports. Rats came along with ships carrying away the infection of bubonic plague. After the outbreak of plague, cities became the hardest hit. In enclosed communities like monasteries, when one individual contracted the plague none survived.
(ii) The plague took its worst toll among infants, the young and the elderly.
(iii) As the horrible impact of plague the population of Europe, 73 millions in 1300, stood reduced to 45 millions in 1400.
(iv) Depopulation caused the shortage of labour. Imbalance was created between agriculturalists and manufacturers.

Question 8.
Why did the rich people donate their money to churches?
Answer:
The rich people donated their money to churches. The large churches were known as cathedrals. They were being built in France and belonged to monasteries. Different groups of people gave their immense contribution by their labour, materials and money for their construction. It took many years in its completion. After its completion, they became centers of pilgrimage.

Question 9.
What do you understand by Guild?
Answer:
Guild was the basis of economic organisation. Each craft or industry was organised into a guild. It was also an association. Quality of the product, sale and its price were controlled by the Guild. The Guild hall was the distinct feature of every town. In it, the heads of all trade organisations formally met. Guards patrolled the town walls and musicians were called to play at feasts and in civic processions. Innkeepers looked after travelers.

Question 10.
Which values enhanced the status of nobility?
Answer:
The values which enhanced the status of nobility were:
(i) Their wealth
(ii) Their social status
(iii) Their political image
(iv) Their property
(v) Their judicial role

Question 11.
Knights became a distinct group under medieval European society. Why?
Answer:
From the 9th century, there were frequent localized wars among different factions. Amateur soldiers were not sufficient. There was the need of good cavalry. Thereafter, a new section of people-the Knights grew. They were linked with the lords. The lord gave the knight a piece of land, i.e. fief. It extended between 1,000 and 2,000 acres or more. It also comprised a house for the knight and his family, a church and other establishments to house his dependents.

The knight paid his lord a regular fee and promised for him to fight in war. In this way, the knights became a distinct group in the medieval European society.

Question 12.
Enumerate the two merits and demerits of medieval monasteries in Europe.
Answer:
Merits of the medieval monasteries:

(i) Medieval monasteries were the only centers of learning during the medieval period.
(ii) The monks who resided in the monasteries initially led to a very pious life and also served the people.

Demerits of the medieval monasteries:

(i) Soon the monasteries began to acquire land and amass wealth. Within no time, they became a seat of exploitation rather than of service.
(ii) The monks led a pious life in the beginning but with passage of time, they led a scandalous life.

Question 13.
Discuss the impact of environment on European agriculture.
Answer:
The entire Europe was covered with huge and dense forests between fifth to tenth centuries. It was but natural that there was less land available for agriculture. The conditions of peasants were miserable. Now they started to take refuge in the forest. There was cold climatic condition in entire Europe. The yield of the crops reduced to a large extent. But in 11th century, climatic conditions of Europe changed. It entered into a warm phase. Average temperatures increased. It had a huge impact on agriculture. There was longer growing seasons for the agriculturists. Fertility of the soil also increased and hence, the production naturally increased.

Question 14.
Discuss the social changes that had taken way to the development of monarchy-feudal system.
Answer:
Social changes that had taken way to the development of monarchy-feudal system were:
(i) Decreasing rate of economic growth had given chance to the monarch to consolidate their power.
(ii) Strong infantry equipped with gun and artillery helped the monarch to establish their monarchy.

Question 15.
How was European society divided under the feudal system? Explain. Write in brief the reasons of their development.
Answer:
European society under feudal system was divided into the following heads:
(i) Feudal class
(ii) The peasants
(iii) New class

• Feudal class: The king occupied the highest rank. He gave land to a number of lords. These lords distributed their land to the Barons. King’s vassals were the Dukes and Earls. They showed their loyalty to the king. During war period, the king was free to take military help from their vassals.
• The peasants: They formed the largest group in the society. They were put into the category of lowest class. They were divided into a number of classes.
• New class: It was the emergence of middle class. Reasons of their development: With the invention of trade and industries the rise of middle class emerged in the cities.

Question 16.
Discuss the growth of town after the decline of Roman empire.
Answer:
After the decline of Roman empire, the towns were completely destroyed. Most of the ancient Roman towns bore a deserted look. With the increase of agriculture the largest portion of population depended on agriculture. Towns began to flourish again. To sell their grains, the peasants now needed a place. They also needed a place where they could buy tools and clothes. Consequently, it led to the growth of small towns, churches, roads, etc.

Question 17.
Agricultural technology was very primitive. Why?
Answer:
In the very beginning, agricultural technology was rather primitive. There was only an alternative of wooden plough, drawn by a team of oxen for the peasants. Wooden plough could only scratch the surface of the earth. So, agricultural produce was not upto the mark. It was also labour intensive. Fields could be dug only once in four years. Crop rotation method was not effective. Land was divided into two parts; on one part, winter wheat was planted while other part was left fallow. As a result, soil deteriorated slowly. Famines were natural phenomena. Frequent famines led to the miserable life for the poor. In this way, we can say that agricultural policy was rather primitive.

Question 18.
Describe a few characteristics of feudal system.
Answer:
Characteristics of feudal system:
(i) Nobles were vassals to the kings.
(ii) The peasants were vassals to the nobles.
(iii) The lord could protect the vassal loyal to him.
(iv) Vassals would receive a written charter or even a clod of earth as a symbol of the land being given to him by his lord.

Question 19.
Discuss the causes of the development of cities in medieval Europe.
Answer:
(i) The emergence of feudalism was accompanied by the decline of trade and towns with the gradual decline of feudalism, particularly from the 11th century onward.
(ii) Towards the end of the Middle Age, the rise of the middle class led to the emergence of towns. The economic prosperity of the class helped in the development of cities in medieval Europe.
(iii) East-west contact also encouraged trade and commerce. As a result, art and crafts centers were established. In course of time, these centers became towns.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the following:
(i) Serf
(ii) Monk
(iii) Cathedrals
Answer:
(i) Serf: Serf occupied a distinct place in medieval Europe. They did a lot for the development of agriculture. They cultivated plots of land which belonged to the lord. A large portion of its product had to be given to the lord. They were not allowed to leave the estate without the prior permission of their lords. The lord could only decide about the marriage of their serfs.
(ii) Monk: A group of deeply religious people chose to lead the life of isolation. They lived in religious communities called abbeys or monasteries. Monks took vows to remain in the monasteries for the rest of their lives. They spent most of their time in prayer, meditations and studies. Men or women could also lead such sort of life. Men became monks and women became nuns. There were separate monasteries for men and women. Monks and nuns did not marry.
(iii) Cathedrals: Large churches were called cathedrals. They were built in France. Different groups of people contributed a lot to their monasteries, particularly the rich merchants. Cathedrals were built of stone. They were designed in such a way so that the priest’s voice could be heard within the hall v/here a large number of people gathered. Stained glass windows narrated the stories in the Bible through pictures. Illiterate people could also read it.

Question 2.
Why do you think the people of new towns were considered of fourth order? Explain.
Answer:
The people of new towns were considered of fourth order because of the following:
(i) These newly flourished towns were developed with the fair and small market centers, as a result of expansion of trade.
(ii) The social and the political conditions of the people were totally different from the people who belonged to the former three orders.
(iii) There were banks and lawyers in these towns. There was a distinct economic organisation in the form of guild. Each trade and craft industry was organised into a guild.
(iv) Craftsmen found it easier to settle in the towns as goods could be produced and traded for food.
(v) The rich traders and merchants developed better than the nobility. They were generous to the people and engaged in trade related activities.
(vi) Later on cathedral towns began to develop, which belonged to monastery and rich merchants.

Question 3.
Which causes were responsible for the rise of middle class?
Answer:
The causes responsible for the rise of the middle class were :
(i) In the crusade, a lot of feudal lords had been killed.
(ii) The growth of commerce and trade made the trading class quite rich and prosperous. They, in turn, sought the favor of king and helped him, whenever needed.
(iii) The wealthy merchants and rich traders got many towns and cities freed from the clutches of feudal control.
(iv) The new cities soon grew into centers of trade, commerce and education and consequently gave rise to the new classes.
(v) New classes of the rich merchants patronized art, science, literature and education.

Question 4.
How did technological changes affect agriculture during 11th century?
Answer:
Technological changes affected agriculture in many ways:
(i) Wooden ploughs were replaced with heavy iron-tipped ploughs.
(ii) The method of harnessing animals to the plough improved which enabled animals to exert greater power. Horses were now better shod with iron horseshoes. It prevented foot decay.
(iii) The increased use of wind and water energy for agriculture enhanced agricultural production.
(iv) The most innovative change was the switch from a two-field to a three field system. Now, peasants could use a field two years out of three if they planted it with one crop in autumn and a different crop in spring a year and a half later.
(v) Now the farmers could plant one with wheat or rye, the second in spring to raise peas, beans and lentils and the other part was left fallow.
As a result, there was an immediate increase in the amount of food produced from each unit of land. Food production almost doubled. There were better opportunities for cultivators. They could now produce more food for less land. The average size of peasants’ farm shrank from about 100 acres to 20 to 30 acres. As a result of holding, smaller lands could be more efficiently cultivated. It also reduced the amount of labour. The new technological changes cost a lot of money.

Question 5.
Discuss the achievements of the nation-states.
Answer:
The nation-states are known for achievements. Some of them were:
( i) The rise of nation-states crushed the power of the lords and this made people free from their excesses.
(ii) They paved way for setting up peace.
(iii) They taught the people to give support to their kings.
(iv) They infused the spirit of nationalism among the people of different classes.
(v) They took remarkable steps for the consolidation of the economy of states.
(vi) They contributed a lot in the development of language, literature and architecture.

Question 6.
What were the causes that led to the decline of feudalism in Europe?
Answer:
From the eighth to twelfth century CE, feudalism prospered in Europe. There was a steep decline of feudalism in Europe. The following causes led to its downfall:
(i) Rise of the powerful monarchies: Powerful monarchies paved the way for the decline of feudalism. It rose in France, Spain and England.
(ii) Rise of nationalism: Education spread in the nation. The spread of education aroused the spirit of nationalism among the educated middle class. But the feudal lords were quite opposed to nationalism. That was why the educated people turned against feudalism. They could not tolerate its existence. They were to the side of their ruler and not with the lords. The result was that rulers became more and more powerful.
(iii) Rise of the middle class: New inventions encouraged trade and industry. The result was the emergence of the middle class in towns and cities. The middle class desired peace for the promotion of commerce, industry and crafts. They wanted to get rid of the nobles who were always engaged in constant wars.

Question 7.
Discuss in detail about the emergence of cathedrals.
Answer:
From 12th century, large churches were built in France. They were known as cathedrals. These belonged to monasteries. Various groups of people contributed a lot to their construction in the form of labor, material and money. Along with it, the rich merchants also spent money by making donations to churches. Cathedrals took many years in their completion. After their completion, they became the centers of pilgrimage. Small towns also grew a lot. The specialty of the design of cathedrals was that the voice of priest could be clearly heard within the hall where a number of people gathered. Their voice could be heard even from a far off distance.

For windows stained glass was used. During the day, the sunlight would make them radiant for people inside the cathedral, and after sunset the light candles would make them visible to people outside. The stained glass windows narrated the stories in the Bible through pictures, which even the illiterate people could read

Question 8.
Discuss the political changes which occurred during 15th and 16th centuries in Europe.
Answer:
The political changes that occurred during 15th and 16th centuries were as follows:
(i) European kings strengthened their military as well as financial power during 15th and 16th centuries. They created powerful new states. These were much significant for Europe. Economic changes were also occurring. Historians have, therefore, called these kings “the new monarchs”.
(ii) Louis XI in France, Maximilian in Austria, Henry VII in England and Isabelle and Ferdinand in Spain were absolutist rulers. They initiated the process of organizing standing armies, permanent bureaucracy and national taxation. In Spain and Portugal, they began to play a role in European expansion overseas.
(iii) Rulers dispensed with the system of feudal levies for their armies and introduced professionally trained infantry equipped with guns and siege artillery directly under their control.
(iv) The social changes started to take place in the 12th and 13th centuries after the triumph of monarchies. The dissolution of the feudal system of lordship vassalage, and the slow rate of economic growth had given the first opportunity to kings to increase their control over their powerful and not so powerful subjects.
(v) With the increase in taxes, the treasury of monarchs filled. They had enough revenues to support larger armies. They also defended and expanded their frontiers and ruthlessly destroyed the internal bickerings. Without resistance from the aristocracy, centralization could not be done. In England, the rebellions occurred in 1497, 1536, 1547, 1549, and 1553 simultaneously.
(vi) In France, Louis XI (1461-83) waged a long struggle against dukes and princes. In the 16th century, the religious wars in France were a contrast between royal privileges and regional liberties.
(vii) The king was now the center of an elaborate courtier society and a network of patron-client relationships.
(viii) All monarchies, whether weak or powerful, needed the cooperation of those who could command authority. It did not matter whether they were weak or strong. Patronage became the means of ensuring cooperation. It could also be obtained by means of money.
(ix) For ensuring survival, the nobility managed a tactical shift. They quickly transformed themselves into loyalists. Loyal absolutism has been called a modified form of feudalism. The lords were given permanent position in the administrative service. Now they started dominating the political scene.

Question 9.
“Why did Europe’s economic progress slow down by the early 14th century”? Give
reasons?
Answer:
Europe’s economic progress slowed down due to the following reasons:
(a ) The warm summers of the last 300 years had given way to bitterly cold summers in Northern Europe by the end of 13th century. It became quite difficult to grow crops on higher ground. Storms and flood destroyed the entire crops, which resulted into less income in taxes for government.
(b) Before thirteenth century, the climatic conditions had led to the large scale reclamation of the land of forests and pastures for agriculture. Intensive ploughing had exhausted the fertility of soil. The shortage of pastures reduced the number of cattle. Europe was hit by severe famines between 1315 and 1317. By 1320s, there occurred massive cattle deaths.
(c) Trade was hit by a severe shortage of metal money because of the shortfall in silver mines in Austria and Serbia. It forced the governments to reduce the silver content of the currency , and to mix it with cheaper metals.
(d) With the expansion of trade in the thirteenth and fourteenth centuries, ships carrying goods from distant countries had started arriving in European ports. Along with the ships came rats with deadly bubonic plague infection (the Black Death). Western Europe was isolated in earlier centuries, but was hit by the epidemic between 1347 and 1350.
(e) As a result, the trade centers and cities were hit. In enclosed communities like monasteries and covents, when one individual contracted the plague, a lot of people got affected to it. The plague took its worst toll among infants, the young and elderly.

Question 10.
Discuss the major drawbacks of feudalism which prevailed in medieval Europe.
Answer:
The major drawbacks of feudalism which prevailed in medieval Europe were as follows:
(i) It divided the country into small fiefs held by the feudal lords. They were selfish. They cared more for themselves and ignored the interests of the country as a whole. Hence, feudalism gave a blow to national unity.
(ii) The central government became very weak. The feudal lords became more powerful and supreme. The vassals ignored the order of the king. The king was entirely dependent on feudal lords both for military and money. Sometimes they asserted their independence and king could not control them.
(iii) Feudalism encouraged rebellions and wars. The power of the lords was increasing day by day and the kings were becoming more and more weak. This encouraged rebellious tendency among the nobles. The nobles were also eager to get new lands. So there was constant warfare among them. It destroyed peace and security and created chaos and confusion in the society.
(iv) Feudalism was responsible for the defective military organization. Every lord organised his army in his own way. Their weapons and methods of lighting also differed as a result of national crisis.
(v) Feudalism led to maladministration of justice. Every lord had his own court and laws. He decided the cases and punished the people for the same crime that varied from estate to estate.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Passage Based Questions
Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow:

Passage 1.

In Benedictine monasteries, there was a manuscript with 73 chapters of rules which were followed by monks for many centuries. Here are some of the rules they had to follow:
Chapter – 6 : Permission to speak should rarely be granted to monks.
Chapter – 7 : Humility means obedience.
Chapter – 33:No monk should own private property.
Chapter – 47: Idleness is the enemy of the soul, so friars and sisters should be occupied at certain times in manual labour, and at fixed hours in sacred reading. Chapter-48:The monastery should be laid out in such a way that all necessities be found within its bounds: water, mill, garden, workshops.

Questions:
1. What does humility’ mean?
2. What does chapter 47 say?
3. What sort of values are reflected in this chapter?
Answers:
1. Humility means obedience.

2. Chapter 47 says that idleness is the enemy of the soul, so friars and sisters should be occupied at certain times in manual labour and at fixed hours in a sacred reading.

3. Humanity, truthfulness, etc.

Passage 2.

We also caused to be painted, by the exquisite hands of many masters from different regions, a splendid variety of new windows… Because these windows are very valuable on account of their wonderful execution and the profuse expenditure of painted glass and sapphire glass, we appointed an official master craftsman for their protection, and also a goldsmith—who would receive their allowances, namely, coins from the altar and flour from the common storehouse of the brethren, and who would never neglect their duty to look after these

Questions:
1. Who was appointed for the protection of windows?
2. Windows were precious. How?
3. Who would receive their allowances, namely coins?
Answers:
1. An official master craftsman was appointed for the protection of windows.

2. Windows were precious on account of their wonderful execution and the profuse expenditure of painted glass and sapphire glass.

3. A goldsmith would receive their allowances.

Class 11 History Chapter 3 Map Skills

Question 1.
On the map of Western Europe mark and locate the following extent of feudalism:
(i) St. Denis
(ii) Bingen
(iii) London
(iv) Rome
(v) Vienna
Answer:

Class 11 History NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 History Chapter 6 The Three Orders appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Biology NCERT solutions provide extensive and expert level step-by-step solutions to all questions in the NCERT Biology Books and are a valuable support to students that will help them in learning concepts while doing homework and preparing for exams.

Biology NCERT Solutions Class 6 to 12

The questions and answers given at the end of each chapter in NCERT Biology Books are not only important for examination but also essential for understanding the concepts in a better way. Hence, we strongly recommend reading Biology NCERT Solutions thoroughly and making appropriate notes and solutions in each chapter that will make revision faster.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology

• Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms
• Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
• Chapter 3 Human Reproduction
• Chapter 4 Reproductive Health
• Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation
• Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
• Chapter 7 Evolution
• Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease
• Chapter 9 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
• Chapter 10 Microbes in Human Welfare
• Chapter 11 Biotechnology:Principles And Processes
• Chapter 12 Biotechnology and its Applications
• Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations
• Chapter 14 Ecosystem
• Chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation
• Chapter 16 Environmental Issues

CBSE Class 12 Biology Important Questions

1. Reproduction in Organisms

• Reproduction
• Sexual Reproduction

2. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

• Flower and its Parts
• Pollination
• Post-Fertilisation : Structures and Events

3. Human Reproduction

• Reproductive Systems
• Gametogenesis
• Fertilisation, Pregnancy and Embryonic Development

4. Reproductive Health

• Reproductive Health Problems and Strategies
• Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) and Infertility

5. Molecular Basis of Inheritance

• The DNA and RNA World
• Genetic Code, Human Genome Project and DNA Fingerprinting

6. Evolution

• The Origin of Life and Evidences of Evolution
• Biological Evolution, Its Mechanism and Evolution of Man 

7. Human Health and Disease

• Health, Common Diseases in Human and Immunity
• Adolescence and Drug/Alcohol Abuse

8. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

• Animal Husbandry
• Plant Breeding

9. Microbes in Human Welfare

• Microbes in Household Products, Industrial Products and in Sewage Treatment
• Microbes in Production of Biogas as Biocontrol Agents and Biofertilisers

10. Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

• Principles of Biotechnology and Tools of Recombination DNA Technology
• Processes of Recombinant DNA Technology

11. Biotechnology and Its Applications

• Biotechnological Applications in Agriculture and Medicine
• Transgenic Animals and Ethical Issues

12. Organisms and Populations

• Organisms and Its Environment
• Population

13. Ecosystem

• Ecosystem-Structure and Function, Productivity and Decomposition
• Energy Flow and Ecological Succession
• Nutrient Cycling and Ecosystem Services

14. Biodiversity and Conservation

• Biodiversity
• Conservation of Biodiversity

15. Environmental Issues

• Pollution, Solid and Radioactive Wastes
• Greenhouse Effect, Ozone Depletion and Deforestation

Class 11 Biology NCERT Solutions

There are 22 chapters in NCERT textbook of Class 11 Biology.

• Chapter 1 The Living World
• Chapter 2 Biological Classification
• Chapter 3 Plant Kingdom
• Chapter 4 Animal Kingdom
• Chapter 5 Morphology of Flowering Plants
• Chapter 6 Anatomy of Flowering Plants
• Chapter 7 Structural Organisation in Animals
• Chapter 8 Cell The Unit of Life
• Chapter 9 Biomolecules
• Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division
• Chapter 11 Transport in Plants
• Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition
• Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
• Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants
• Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development
• Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption
• Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases
• Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation
• Chapter 19 Excretory Products and their Elimination
• Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement
• Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination
• Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination and Integration

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Chemistry NCERT solutions provide extensive and expert level step-by-step solutions to all questions in the NCERT Chemistry Books and are a valuable support to students that will help them in learning concepts while doing homework and preparing for exams.

Chemistry NCERT Solutions Class 6 to 12

Class 12 Chemistry NCERT Solutions

• Chapter 1 The Solid State
• Chapter 2 Solutions
• Chapter 3 Electro chemistry
• Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics
• Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry
• Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements
• Chapter 7 The p Block Elements
• Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements
• Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds
• Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
• Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ethers
• Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
• Chapter 13 Amines
• Chapter 14 Biomolecules
• Chapter 15 Polymers
• Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Important Questions for Class 12 Chemistry

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Chemistry Solutions

• Chapter 1 Solid State
• Chapter 2 Solution
• Chapter 3 Electrochemistry
• Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics
• Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry
• Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements
• Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements
• Chapter 8 The d- and f-Block Elements
• Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds
• Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
• Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
• Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
• Chapter 13 Amines
• Chapter 14 Biomolecules
• Chapter 15 Polymers
• Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Chemistry

• Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
• Chapter 2 Structure of The Atom
• Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
• Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
• Chapter 5 States of Matter
• Chapter 6 Thermodynamics
• Chapter 7 Equilibrium
• Chapter 8 Redox Reactions
• Chapter 9 Hydrogen
• Chapter 10 The sBlock Elements
• Chapter 11 The pBlock Elements
• Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques
• Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons
• Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Chemistry Solutions

• Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
• Chapter 2 Structure of Atom
• Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
• Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
• Chapter 5 States of Matter
• Chapter 6 Thermodynamics
• Chapter 7 Equilibrium
• Chapter 8 Redox Reactions
• Chapter 9 Hydrogen
• Chapter 10 The s-Block Elements
• Chapter 11 The p-Block Elements
• Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques
• Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons
• Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry

The questions and answers given at the end of each chapter in NCERT Chemistry Books are not only important for examination but also essential for understanding the concepts in a better way. Hence, we strongly recommend reading Chemistry NCERT Solutions thoroughly and making appropriate notes and solutions in each chapter that will make revision faster.

We hope Chemistry NCERT Solutions will help you.

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Physics NCERT solutions provide extensive and expert level step-by-step solutions to all questions in the NCERT Physics Books and are a valuable support to students that will help them in learning concepts while doing homework and preparing for exams.

Physics NCERT Solutions Class 6 to 12

The questions and answers given at the end of each chapter in NCERT Physics Books are not only important for examination but also essential for understanding the concepts in a better way. Hence, we strongly recommend reading Physics NCERT Solutions thoroughly and making appropriate notes and solutions in each chapter that will make revision faster.

Class 12 Physics NCERT Solutions.

• Chapter 1 Electric Charges And Fields
• Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential And Capacitance
• Chapter 3 Current Electricity
• Chapter 4 Moving Charges And Magnetism
• Chapter 5 Magnetism And Matter
• Chapter 6 Electromagnetic Induction
• Chapter 7 Alternating Current
• Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves
• Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
• Chapter 10 Wave Optics
• Chapter 11 Dual Nature Of Radiation And Matter
• Chapter 12 Atoms
• Chapter 13 Nuclei
• Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics Materials Devices And Simple Circuits
• Chapter 15 Communication Systems

Important Questions for Class 12 Physics

1. Electric Charges and Fields

• Coulombs Law, Electrostatic Field and Electric Dipole
• Gauss’s Law

2. Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

• Electrostatic Potential
• Capactiance

3. Current Electricity

• Resistance and Ohm’s Law
• Potentiometer, Cell and their Combinations
• Kirchhoff’s Laws and Electric Devices

4. Moving Charges and Magnetism

• Magnetic Field Laws and their Applications
• Magnetic Force and Torque

5. Magnetism and Matter

• Magnetic Dipole and Magnetic Field Lines
• Earth’s Magnetic Field and Magnetic Material

6. Electromagnetic Induction

• Electromagnetic Induction Laws
• Eddy Currents and Self and Mutual Induction

7. Alternating Current

• Introduction to Alternating Current
• AC Currents
• AC Devices

8. Electromagnetic Waves

9. Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

• Reflection, Refraction and Dispersion of Light
• Optical Instrument

10. Wave Optics

• Huygens Principle
• Interference of Light

11. Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

• Photoelectric Effect
• Matter Wave

12. Atoms

13. Nuclei

• Radioactivity and Decay Law
• Mass Defect and Binding Energy

14. Semiconductor Electronics

• Semiconductor, Diode and its Applications
• Logic Gates, Transistors and its Applications

15. Communication System

• Communication
• Modulation

CBSE Class 12 Physics Lab Manual

1. General Introduction
2. Current Electricity—Sources and Accessories
3. Measurement of Resistance
   1. To determine resistance per cm of a given wire by plotting a graph of potential difference versus current.
   2. To find resistance of a given wire using metre bridge and hence determine the resistivity (specific resistance) of its material.
   3. To verify the laws of combination (series) of resistances using a metre bridge.
   4. To verify the laws of combination (parallel) of resistances using a metre bridge.
4. Measurement of Electromotive Force and Potential Difference
   1. To compare the EMF of two given primary cells using potentiometer.
   2. To determine the internal resistance of a given primary cell using potentiometer.
5. Galvanometer, Ammeter and Voltmeter
   1. To determine resistance of a galvanometer by half-deflection method and to find its figure of merit.
   2. To convert the given galvanometer (of known resistance and figure of merit) into a voltmeter of desired range and to verify the same.
   3. To convert the given galvanometer (of known resistance and figure of merit) into an ammeter of desired range and to verify the same.
6. Frequency of A.C. (Alternating Current) Mains
   1. To find the frequency of the AC mains with a sonometer.
   2. Activities
      1. To measure the resistance and impedance of an inductor with or without iron core.
      2. To measure resistance, voltage (AC/DC), current (AC) and check continuity of a given circuit using multimeter.
      3. To assemble a household circuit comprising three bulbs, three (on/off) switches, a fuse and a power source.
      4. To assemble the components of a given electrical circuit.
      5. To study the variation in potential drop with length of a wire for a steady current.
      6. To draw the diagram of a given open circuit comprising at least a battery, resistor/rheostat, key, ammeter and voltmeter. Mark the components that are not connected in proper order and correct the circuit and also the circuit diagram.
7. Focal Length of Spherical Mirrors
   1. To find the value of v for different values of u in case of a concave mirror and to find the focal length.
   2. To find the focal length of a convex mirror, using a convex lens.
8. Focal Length of Spherical Lenses
   1. To find the focal length of a convex lens by plotting graphs between u and v or between 1/u and 1/v.
   2. To find the focal length of a concave lens using a convex lens.
9. Refractive Index of Prism Material, Glass Slab and Transparent Liquid
   1. To determine angle of minimum deviation for a given prism by plotting a graph between angle of incidence and the angle of deviation.
   2. To determine refractive index of a glass slab using a travelling microscope.
   3. To find the refractive index of a liquid by using convex lens and plane mirror.
10. Semiconductor Diodes and Transistors
    1. To draw the I-V characteristic curve of a p-n junction in forward bias and reverse bias.
    2. To draw the characteristic curve of a Zener diode and to determine its reverse breakdown voltage.
    3. To study the characteristics of a common emitter npn (or pnp) transistor and to find out the values of current and voltage gains.
11. Activities
    1. To identify a diode, an LED, a transistor, an IC, a resistor and a capacitor from a mixed collection of such items.
    2. To use a multimeter to (a) identify base of transistor, (b) distinguish between npn and pnp type transistors, (c) see the unidirectional flow of current in case of a diode and an LED, (d) check whether a given electronic component (e.g., diode, transistor or IC) is in working order.
    3. To study effect of intensity of light (by varying distance of he source) on an LDR.
    4. To observe refraction and lateral deviation of a beam of light incident obliquely on a glass slab.
    5. To observe polarisation of light using two polaroids.
    6. To observe diffraction of light due to a thin slit.
    7. (a) To study the nature and size of the image formed by a convex lens on a screen by using a candle and a screen (for different distances of the candle from the lens). (b) To study the nature and size of the image formed by a concave mirror on a screen by using a candle and a screen (for different distances of the candle from the mirror).
    8. To obtain a lens combination with the specified focal.length by using two lenses from the given set of lenses.

NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Physics Solutions

• Chapter 1 Electric Charges and Fields
• Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
• Chapter 3 Current Electricity
• Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism
• Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter
• Chapter 6 Electromagnetic Induction
• Chapter 7 Alternating Current
• Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves
• Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
• Chapter 10 Wave Optics
• Chapter 11 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
• Chapter 12 Atoms
• Chapter 13 Nuclei
• Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits
• Chapter 15 Communication Systems

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Physics

• Chapter 1 Physical World
• Chapter 2 Units and Measurements
• Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line
• Chapter 4 Motion in a plane
• Chapter 5 Laws of motion
• Chapter 6 Work Energy and power
• Chapter 7 System of particles and Rotational Motion
• Chapter 8 Gravitation
• Chapter 9 Mechanical Properties Of Solids
• Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties Of Fluids
• Chapter 11 Thermal Properties of matter
• Chapter 12 Thermodynamics
• Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory
• Chapter 14 Oscillations
• Chapter 15 Waves