NIOS Class 12 Date Sheet 2019: NIOS Class 12 Date Sheet has been revised. The National Institute of Open Schooling has updated the Class 12 date sheet for Block 2. NIOS administers the Class 12 exams twice a year. The class 12 exam is conducted once in the month of April-May (Block 1) and then in the month of October-November (Block 2). Students enrolled under NIOS regular and vocational exams can check their 12th Date Sheet October 2019 released by NIOS through the official website link provided below.

On 22nd August 2019, National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) has published the time table for 12th October session on its website – nios.ac.in. As per the calendar, the exams will be conducted from October 06, 2019, to November 5th, 2019. The practical exams will be conducted from September 20th to October 5th, 2019. The timings of the exams will be 2.30PM to 5.30PM.

The NIOS is a government-approved institute and is one of the biggest open schooling systems in the world. It conducts exams for both senior secondary and secondary students belonging to NIOS. Read the complete article to get the date sheet of 12th class exam conducted by NIOS for the Block-1 session.

Check Out NIOS Class 10 Date Sheet

NIOS Class 12 Date Sheet 2019

The date sheet for NIOS class 12th examination has been designed in a tabular form for all the students so that they can prepare for the exam accordingly. Check the table below

NIOS Date Sheet for Practical Exam

How To Download NIOS 12th Date Sheet?

To download the date sheet for NIOS 12th or senior secondary class exam, students have to follow the below-given steps.

• Visit the official website of National Institute of Open Schooling, nios.ac.in.
• Click on the link given for Examination/Result at the home page.
• Check the notification declared for date sheet and click on the relevant link.
• The PDF format of the 12th date sheet will get opened on your screen.
• Download the pdf and keep for the reference.

Download NIOS Date Sheet 2019 (For All India Exam Centres)

Download NIOS Date Sheet 2019 (For Overseas Exam Centres)

Instructions To be Followed

• Students can download the Intimation-cum-Hall Ticket from the NIOS official website.
• Practical exams will be conducted according to the schedule mentioned in the above table, at the respective Accredited Institute (AIs) of NIOS.
• Students will be divided into batches. The number of candidates in a batch will be decided based on the capacity of the lab for the practical exam. Therefore, students are requested to contact the center superintendent or coordinator.
• The results will be declared after 6 weeks of the conduct of the exam, regarding which the notification will be published on the official website.
• Marksheets, provisional certificate, and Migration-cum-transfer certificate will be issued by the respective Accredited Institute (AIs) of NIOS.
• There will be no change in the dates of the exam.

About NIOS

NIOS is “Open School” to provide to the requirements of a heterogeneous group of students up to pre-degree level. It was commenced as a project with in-built extensibility by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) in 1979. In 1986, the National Policy on Education proposed establishing of Open School System for enlarging open learning facilities in a phased method at secondary level all over the country as an autonomous system with its own curriculum and examination driving to certification.

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NIOS Class 10 Date Sheet 2019: National Institute of open schooling also known as NIOS conducts the NIOS exam for class 10 twice in a year. The block 1 exam is conducted in the month of April/May while the exams for block 2 are conducted in October/November. Recently, NIOS has released recently the NIOS class 10 date sheet for block 1. According to this date sheet, NIOS class, the 10-time table is given the article. Also, NIOS officials, later on, revealed the revised time table for practical exams. NIOS class block 1 practical exam will be conducted from March 16, 2019, to March 30, 2019. While the theory exams will be conducted from April 3, 2019, to May 4, 2019. The official NIOS class 10 date sheet released by the NIOS gives you a detailed exam sheet for class 10.

NIOS class block 2 practical exam will be conducted from September 20th, 2019 to October 5th, 2019. While the theory exams will be conducted from October 8th, 2019, to November 5th, 2019. The official NIOS class 10 date sheet released by the NIOS gives you a detailed exam sheet for class 10.

Download NIOS Class 10 Date Sheet 2019

NIOS Class 10 Date Sheet Overview

Check Out NIOS Class 12 Date Sheet

NIOS Class 10 Date Sheet 2019 for Theory Exam

Below are the dates for all the exams conducted by the NIOS for class 10

NIOS Class 10 Date Sheet for Practical Exams

Below is the practical exam date sheet for NIOS class 10

How To Download NIOS Class 10 Date From Official NIOS Website?

• Go to the official website of NIOS which is nios.ac.in.
• On the main page, scroll down and you will find a link that reads “Examination results”. Click on this link.
• Now, for class 10 date sheet, click on the “Date sheet for secondary class (10th class)” link.
• Your class 10 date sheet will be displayed on the screen. Download the NIOS class 10 date sheet and keep one of its copies handy with you.

Details Mentioned On NIOS Class 10 Date Sheet

The following details will be mentioned on the NIOS class 10 date sheet

• Day of the exam
• Date of the exam
• Timings of the exam
• Subject code
• Important instructions
• List of all the subjects

Important Points for NIOS Class 10 Date Sheet

1. There will be no changes made in the exam dates. The dates mentioned in the date sheet will be final.
2. Students are advised to carry their admit card or hall ticket to the exam center. No one will allow entering the examination center without a valid admit card.
3. Candidates can download their intimidation cum admit card which will be available on NIOS official website.
4. Practical exams for the candidates will be conducted on the given AIs where the candidates can enroll their admission.
5. For practical exams, students at the particular AI will be separated in various batches depending upon the capacity of the lab and various other factors.
6. The practical exams will be done in small batches, so the candidate must contact the coordinator of AI or center superintendent in well advance to know the given dates along with the batches allotted to them.

The post NIOS Class 10 Date Sheet 2019 | Download 10th Class Date Sheet @ nios.ac.in appeared first on Learn CBSE.

The Earth in the Solar System Class 6 Extra Questions Social Science Geography Chapter 1

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 The Earth in the Solar System

The Earth in the Solar System Class 6 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Define Stars.
Answer:
Celestial bodies which have their own heat and light arc called Stars.

Question 2.
Why is Venus considered as ‘Earth’s Twin’?
Answer:
Venus is considered as ‘Earth’s Twin’ because its size and shape are very much similar to that of the Earth.

Question 3.
Why do we always see only one side of the Moon?
Answer:

• The Moon revolves round the Earth in nearly 27 days.
• It also takes exactly 27 days to rotate on its axis.
• Thus, both its movements take the same time. That’s why we always see only one side of the Moon.

Question 4.
Why is the Earth called ‘Blue Planet’?
Answer:

• From the space, the Earth looks blue because of the presence of water on it.
• The Earth is, therefore, called a ‘Blue Planet’.

Question 5.
What is a constellation? What is the name of the constellation in Latin and English?
Answer:
Constellation. In the night sky the stars form various patterns and designs. A group of stars forming a particular pattern or design is called constellation. Saptrishi (design of Seven Stars) is one such constellation (Sapt-seven, rishi-sages). The constellation Saptrishi is called Ursa Major in Latin, and Big Bear in English.

Question 6.
How can we locate the position of the Pole Star with the help of Saptrishi constellation?
Answer:
Please see the figure below. A line passing through pointer stars always points towards a pole star. Thus we can locate the position of the pole star by this line which passes through the pointer stars.

Question 7.
Which is the biggest member of the Solar System? Discuss it.
Answer:
The Sun is the biggest member of the Solar System. It is in the centre of the solar system. It is made of extremely hot gases and is the source of all heat and light (energy). It is a million times larger than our Earth. All kinds of life require radiation from the Sun for their existence. The Earth would grow cold and lifeless without the solar energy.

Question 8.
How does the Moon appear different each night?
Answer:
The Moon revolves round the Earth. Its position in relation to the Sun changes every day as it has no light of its own, it only reflects the light of the Sun. The Moon neither decreases nor increases in reality, it only appears changed its shape because of difference in light falling on it everyday.

Question 9.
What is an orbit?
Answer:
All the planets of the Solar Family revolve around the Sun in elliptical paths. It is known as orbit.

Question 10.
Why does the moon not have conditions favourable for life?
Answer:
The moon does not have conditions favourable for life because of the following reasons:

• During the day it is very hot.
• At night it is very cold.

Question 11.
Why do we see shadows on the moon?
Answer:

• The moon has mountains, plateaus, plains and depressions on its surface.
• In the reflected light on the Earth these features look like shadows. Hence, we see shadows on the surface of the Moon.

The Earth in the Solar System Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Write the major features of the Moon.
Answer:

• The Moon has been separated from the Earth, the third planet of the solar system. Hence, it is called a satellite or moon of the earth. This is the only natural satellite of the Earth.
• Its diameter is only one-fourth of the Earth.
• It looks so big because it is not very far from the Earth.
• It is about 3,84,400 km. away from the Earth.

Question 2.
State some characteristics of stars.
Answer:

• Stars are very big and hot bodies.
• They are made up of various gases.
• They emit a large amount of heat and light.
• There are numerous stars.
• They are so far away from us that we cannot see them with our naked eyes.

Question 3.
What are the characteristics of some of the celestial bodies like the
Earth and the Moon?
Answer:
Some of the celestial bodies like the Earth and the Moon do not have their own heat and light. They only reflect the light of the Sun.

• The Earth is a planet of the Sun.
• Whereas the Moon is a satellite of the Earth.

Question 4.
What is a galaxy?
Answer:
A galaxy is a huge system of stars. The white glowing path of stars across the sky is called the Milky Way galaxy. We in India call it Akash Ganga. It has millions of stars very close to one another. All planets revolve round the Sim and our Solar System. (Solar family consisting of the Sun, the Planets, the Satellites, Asteroids and Meteoroids) move along our galaxy, the Milky Way (Akash Ganga).

Question 5.
How did people in the past determine directions?
Answer:
In the past people used to determine directions by watching the stars.

• The North Star or the Pole Star indicates the North because it shines directly above the North Pole.
• It remains in the same direction in the sky, throughout the year.

Question 6.
How is the universe formed?
Answer:
During the day we see the Sim shining brightly and during dark nights we see thousands of twinkling objects in the sky. The Sun and all these twinkling objects are called heavenly bodies. The heavenly bodies which have their, own heat and light are termed as stars. All the objects like the Sun, the Earth, the Moon and lakhs of bright objects seen during the night in the sky are also called celestial bodies. All these celestial bodies form the universe.

Question 7.
Name the largest and the smallest planets. Which planets are bigger and which are smaller than the Earth?
Answer:

1. The largest and the smallest Planets. Jupiter is the largest and Mercury is the smallest of all the planets.
2. Planets bigger than the Earth. (i) Neptune (ii) Uranus (iii) Saturn and (!u) Jupiter are bigger planets than the Earth.
3. Planets Smaller than the Earth. (i) Venus, (ii) Mars and (Hi) Mercury are smaller planets than the Earth.

Question 8.
How would the Earth be affected if it is taken: (a) too nearer or (b) too far from the Sun?
Answer:
(a) If the Earth is taken too nearer the Sim, its temperature will grow higher since it will get a greater amount of heat. It will become unfit for habitation as it would change into a hot desert.
(b) If the Earth is taken too far from the Sun its temperature will grow lower since it will get a lesser amount of heat. It would become an ice bound desert unfit for human habitation,

Question 9.
State the time taken by Mercury in revolving round the sun.
Answer:

• Mercury is the nearest to the Sun. It takes only about 88 days to complete its revolution round the Sun.
• The earth takes 36514 days to complete one revolution round the Sim.

Question 10.
What is the position of our planet, the Earth in our Solar System?
Answer:

• The Earth is the third nearest planet to the Sun.
• On the basis of its size it is fifth largest planet.
• It is slightly flattened at the poles, and has a bulge on the equator.
• Hence it is described as a Geoid.
• Geoid means earth-like shape.

The Earth in the Solar System Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Why can the earth not be compared to other planets of the Solar System?
Answer:
The earth cannot be compared to other planets of the Solar System because of the following reasons:
It is only the earth which has life on it.
Conditions favourable to support life are found only on the Earth:

• The Earth is neither too hot nor too cold.
• It is the only planet which has water on it. Water is very essential for our survival.
• It has life giving gas, oxygen.
• It also contains ozone layer, which protects us from harmful solar rays.

Due to these reasons the earth is a Unique Planet in the Solar System.

Question 2.
Distinguish between a Satellite and a Star.
Answer:
Distinction between a satellite and a star:

Question 3.
Differentiate between a Planet and a Satellite.
Answer:
Difference between a planet and a satellite:

Question 4.
Describe asteroids and meteoroids. Answer:
Asteroids

• Besides Stars, Planets and Satellites there are also numerous tiny heavenly bodies.
• They also revolve round the Sun.
• They are called asteroids.
• They are found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
• The largest asteroid is Ceres.
• Asteroids are parts of a planet which exploded many years back.

Meteoroids

• The small pieces of rocks which revolve round the Sun are called meteoroids.
• When they enter the earth’s atmosphere, they begin to burn.
• These burning rocks are called meteors.
• They cause a flash or sink of light.
• A meteor not destroyed fully, falls on the earth. It is called a meteorite. It creates a hollow or depression in the ground.
• A very good example of such a meteorite depression is in Arizona, USA. India has an example of such depression in Ramgarh in Rajasthan.

Question 5.
Explain some features of the earth,
Answer:

• The Sun has heat and light which makes life possible on the Earth.
• The Earth is slightly flattened at the poles, and has a bulge on equator. Its shape is Geoid.
• Conditions favourable for life are found on the earth.
• The Earth is also called the blue planet as from the sky it looks blue because of the presence of water on it.
• Our Earth has only one natural satellite. It is called the Moon.

Question 6.
Describe The Sun and its planets with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
The Sun:

• The Sun is at the centre of the Solar System. It is the head of the Solar Family.
• It is made up of extremely hot gases.
• The Sun provides the gravitational pull that binds the Solar System.
• It is also a massive store house of energy. The energy is essential for life on the Earth.
• The Sun is about 15 crore km away from the Earth.

Planets:

• There are eight planets in the Solar Family.
• In order of their distance from the Sun they are Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.
• Mercury is the nearest to the Sun, while Neptune is the farthest from the Sun.

Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
How is the sky filled with after sunset and in the night?
(a) Bright objects
(b) Dim objects
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Both (a) and (b)

Question 2.
What is the name given to the full moon night?
(a) Amavasya
(b) Poornima
(c) Both (a) and (6)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Poornima

Question 3.
Which of the following name is given to the new moon?
(a) Poornima
(b) Amavasya
(c) Both (a) and ib)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Amavasya

Question 4.
What are celestial bodies?
(a) The sun
(b) The moon
(c ) All the shining bodies in the sky
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

Question 5.
The celestial bodies which have their own heat and light are called
(a) planets
(b) stars
(c) satellites
(d) all of these
Answer:
stars

Question 6.
Which is the most recognisable constellation?
(a) The saptarishi
(b) The moon
(c) The sun
(d) The mars
Answer:
The saptarishi

Question 7.
The star which indicates the north is called
(a) pole star
(b) pole
(c) north pole
(d) south pole
Answer:
pole star

Question 8.
The celestial bodies which do not have their own heat and light but are lit by the light of the stars are named as
(a) stars
(b) planets
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
planets

Question 9.
The word ‘planet’ has been derived from the word ‘planetai’ which is named as
(a) Latin word
(b) German word
(c) Greek word
(d) English word
Answer:
Greek word

Question 10.
Which celestial bodies form the solar system?
(a) The sun
(b) The planets
(c) The satellites, asteroids and meteoroids
(d) All of the above
Answer:
All of the above

Question 11.
All the planets move around the sun in fixed elliptical path, these paths are called
(a) axis
(b) orbit
(e) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
orbit

Question 12.
Why is the shape of the earth geoid?
(a) It is slightly flattened at the poles
(b) It is spheroid at the poles
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
It is slightly flattened at the poles

Question 13.
The earth is called a unique planet due to
(a) neither too hot nor too cold
(b) presence of air and water
(c) oxygen, light supporting gas
(d) all of these
Answer:
all of these

Question 14.
The earth is called a blue planet because of the presence of
(a) water
(b) blue colour
(c) brown colour
(d) red colour
Answer:
water

Question 15.
Why do we see only one side of the moon from the earth?
(a) Because of moon moving around the earth in 27 days
(b) 27 days also taken in one spin
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Both (a) and (b)

Question 16.
Why does the moon not have conditions favourable for life?
(a) because of non existent of water
(b) because of non existent of air
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
both (a) and (b)

Question 17.
Apart from stars, planets and satellites, there are numerous bodies which also move around the sun, what are these called?
(a) Stars
(b) Asteroids
(c) Meteoroids
(d) Planets
Answer:
Meteoroids

Question 18.
Asteroids are found between the orbits of Jupiter and
(a) Mars
(b) Earth
(c) Venus
(d) Neptune
Answer:
Mars

Question 19.
Meteoroids are made up of
(a) dust
(b) pieces of rocks
(c) gases
(d) none of these
Answer:
pieces of rocks

Question 20.
What is called a cluster of millions of stars, shining white in the starry sky?
(a) Stars
(b) Planets
(c) Milky Way galaxy
(d) Satellites
Answer:
Milky Way galaxy

Question 21.
What makes the universe?
(a) Millions of galaxies
(b) Millions of stars
(c) Earth
(d) Satellites
Answer:
Millions of galaxies

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

The post The Earth in the Solar System Class 6 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 1 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Globe Latitudes and Longitudes Class 6 Extra Questions Social Science Geography Chapter 2

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Globe Latitudes and Longitudes

Globe Latitudes and Longitudes Class 6 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Define a latitude.
Answer:
Angular distance from the equator on both sides (North and South) is called latitude. Latitudes are 180°-90° north of equator and 90° south of equator.

Question 2.
What are the latitudes of North and South Poles?
Answer:
The angular distance of the North Pole and South Pole from the equator is 90°. So, the latitude of the North Pole is 90°N and that of South Pole is 90°S.

Question 3.
What is the difference between the Parallels of Latitude and the Meridians of Longitude?
Answer:
The difference between the Parallels of Latitude and the Meridians of Longitude is given below:

Question 4.
What are parallels of latitudes?
Answer:
Parallels of Latitudes. The equator is the line of 0° latitude. All the lines of latitudes are parallel to the equator. Hence they are called parallels of latitudes.

Globe Latitudes and Longitudes Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What does the Earth look like? What is its shape?
Answer:

• The Earth looks like an orange. It bulges on the sides and is slightly flat on the top and at the bottom.
• Its true shape is geoid which means earth – like shape.
• A globe is the three dimensional model of the Earth.

Question 2.
What is a globe? What are its types?
Answer:
Globe is the three dimensional model representing the true shape of the Earth.
Globes are of various sizes and types:

• Big Size Globe. Can not be carried easily.
• Small Pocket Globe
• Balloon Like Globe. They can be inflated and are handy and carried with ease.

Question 3.
What is the use of Globes?
Answer:

• On globes, countries, continents and oceans are shown in their correct shape.
• Distance and directions are also shown correctly on the globe.
• The extent of relief features is correct.

Question 4.
What are longitudes?
Answer:
Longitudes:

• Angular distance from the Prime Meridian is termed as longitude.
• Lines joining the North Pole and the South Pole are called the lines of longitude.
• They are also called meridian because noon occurs at the same time at places located on a line of longitude.

Question 5.
Define local time.
Answer:
Local Time:

• Local time is calculated by the position of the Sun at noon of a given place.
• It bases on the local meridian passing through that place.
  When the Sun is exactly overhead at that meridian, it is 12 noon.
• The places lying North and South on the same meridian will have the same local time. On the otherhand the places lying East or West of that meridian have different local times.

Globe Latitudes and Longitudes Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Describe important parallels of latitudes. Answer: Important Parallels.
Equator:

• Equator is the longest parallel running in the East-West direction.
• It is a great circle.

Tropic of Cancer:
It is the parallel of 23 ° N in the Northern hemisphere.

Tropic of Capricorn:
It is the parallel of 23 ° S in the Southern hemisphere.

Arctic Circle:
It lies at 66° north of the equator.

Antarctic Circle:
It lies at 66 ° south of the equator.

90° Parallel:
It is shown by a point.
Its length is zero.

North Pole:
It is at 90° north of equator.

South Pole:
It is at 90° south of equator.

Question 2.
Describe major heat zones of the Earth.
Answer:
Heat Zones of the Earth.
1. Torrid Zone:

• Torrid means hot.
• This zone receives the maximum amount of heat throughout the year, because the rays of the Sun fall vertically on this zone.
• This zone is located between the Tropic of Cancer (23° N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23° S).

2. Temperate Zone:

• The temperate zones lie in both the hemispheres.
• North temperate zone lies in northern hemisphere between Tropic of Cancer and Arctic Circle.
• South temperate zone lies in the southern hemisphere between the Tropic of Capricorn and Antarctic Circle.
• These zones are neither too hot nor too cold.

3. Frigid Zone:

• Frigid means cold.
• Beyond the Arctic Circle and Antarctic Circle temperatures are very low and the climate is very cold.
• This is due to the extreme slanting of the Sun’s rays.
• The North Frigid Zone lies between the Arctic Circle (66° N) and the North Pole in the Northern hemisphere.
• The South Frigid Zone lies between Antarctic Circle (66°S) and the South Pole in the Southern hemisphere.

Question 3.
Explain major features of meridians.
Answer:
The following are the major features of meridians:

• Meridians are equal in length.
• The longitude running through the Greenwich pear London was first chosen as the Prime Meridian (Prime Meridian means chief or main meridian) having noon at the same time at all places on this line.
• It is the 0° longitude.
• It divides the earth into eastern and western hemispheres.

• They are semicircles.
• They are 360 in all -180 in the East and 180 in the West of Prime Meridian. 180°E and 180° W is one longitude.

Question 4.
How do longitudes help us in calculating time?
Answer:
Longitude and Time.

• Longitudes help us to calculate time.
• Time is measured by the movement of the Earth.
• The Earth moves on its axis from West to East. It is called rotation.

It takes 24 hours for the earth to complete one rotation:

• This means in 24 hours the Earth completes 360°.
• Hence, it takes about 4 minutes for crossing one degree of longitude (or it takes one hour in crossing 15 degrees of longitude)
• Accordingly, the Earth has been divided into 24 time zones of one hour each.
• This means each place has different time of Sunrise and Sunset.
• Places east of the Greenwich Meridian experience day or sunrise earlier than the places lying west of this Meridian. In other words time is ahead in the east than that in the west, at the rate of 4 minutes per degree of longitude.

Question 5.
What is Standard Time?
Answer:
Standard Time:

• Local time of a place is based on the longitude of that place. It means places situated on different meridians will have different local tidies.
• It creates much confusion and problem for people to function.
• To solve these problems every country fixes its central meridian, which is considered the standard meridian
• of that country.
  The local time of this meridian is considered standard for the whole country. It is called standard time.
• In India the longitude of 82°E (82° 30° E) is treated as the standard meridian.
• The local time of this meridian is followed all over the country.
• This is known as Indian Standard Time (IST).
• Through an international agreement, the local time of all places is linked to the Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Different places have different times.

Question 6.
Kabeer lives in a small town near Bhopal. He tells his friend Alok that they will not be able to sleep tonight. A day and night cricket match between India and England had started, at 2 p.m. in London. This means that the match would finish well after 1 a.m. in the night. The match according to Indian Standard Time (1ST) has started at 7.30 p.m.
Do you know what is the time difference between India and England?
Answer:

• Vindhyachal (Mirzapur Distt., U.P.) -India is located east of Greenwich at 82°30′ E. Its time is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich (London) (The GMT).
• So it will be 5.30 p.m. in India when it is 12.00 noon at London.
• When the cricket match starts at London at 2 p.m. The time of match-start in India is 7.30 p.m.
• Kabeer will not be able to sleep that night because the match will be seen in India during the night.

Question 7.
Why do we have Standard Time?
Answer:

• Places located on a meridian of longitude have the same time. It is called local time.
• Time at a meridian of longitude differs from the time of another meridian of longitude by 4 minutes (either less by 4 minutes or more by 4 minutes).
• The local time of Dwarka (Gujarat) lags behind by 1 hour 45 minutes from that of Dibrugarh (Assam).
• A person going from west to east will have to advance his/her watch by 4 minutes after crossing a meridian. On the other hand, a person going from east to west will have his/her watch moved backwards by 4 minute at each meridian. This creates problem for him.
• To remove this problem the local time of a central meridian of the country is assumed standard for the whole country. It is called Standard Time.
• All the watches indicate the same time in all parts of the country.
• People do not have to move their watches advanced or backed.
• All the work is done according to this time.
• In India the local time of 82°30′ E is taken as standard for the whole country. It is called Indian Standard Time (IST).

Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What is a globe?
(a) Earth
(b) True model of the earth
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
True model of the earth

Question 2.
Which of the following are shown on the globe in their true size?
(a) Countries
(b) Continents
(d Oceans
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

Question 3.
What is called a needle fixed through the globe in a tilted manner?
(a) Orbit
(b) Axis
(c) Latitude
(d) Longitude
Answer:
Axis

Question 4.
What divides the earth into two equal parts. The northern hemisphere and the southern hemisphere?
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) Equator
(d) Arctic Circle
Answer:
Equator

Question 5.
Name one of the following parallels of latitudes as Tropic of Cancer.
(a) 0°
(b) 23° 30′ S
(c) 23° 30′ N
(d) 66° 30′ N
Answer:
23° 30′ N

Question 6.
Between which parallels of latitudes is the Torrid Zone situated?
(a) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of Cancer and Arctic Circle
(c) Tropic of Capricorn and Antarctic Circle
(d) None of these
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn

Question 7.
Which of the following zone is situated between 66°30′ S and poles?
(a) Torrid Zone
(b) Temperate Zone
(c) Frigid Zone
(d) All of these
Answer:
Frigid Zone

Question 8.
Which of the following is called the Prime Meridian?
(a) 23° 30′ N
(b) 23° 30′ S
(c) 82° 30′ E
(d) 0° longitude
Answer:
0° longitude

Question 9.
What divides the earth into the eastern and the western hemispheres?
(a) Equator
(b) Prime Meridian
(c) 82° 30′ E
(d) None of these
Answer:
Prime Meridian

Question 10.
In which ocean are Tonga Islands situated?
(a) Indian Ocean
(b) Atlantic Ocean
(c) Pacific Ocean
(d) None of these
Answer:
Pacific Ocean

Question 11.
On which parallel of latitude is Mauritius located?
(a) 10° N
(b) 20° S
(c) 23° 30′ S
(d) 0°
Answer:
20° S

12. Which place is located at the intersection of 26° N and 90° E?
(a) Dhubri
(b) Mauritius
(c) Tonga
(d) Meerut
Answer:
Dhubri

Question 13.
What time does earth take, rotating from one degree longitude to next longitude?
(a ) 4 minutes
(b) 15 minutes
(c) 10 minutes
(d) None of these
Answer:
4 minutes

Question 14.
What is the time difference between the time of Dwarka in Gujarat and time of Dibrugarh in Assam?
(a) 2 hours
(b) 1 hour and 30 minutes
(c) hour and 45 minutes
(d) 5 hours and 30 minutes
Answer:
hour and 45 minutes

Question 15.
The local time of 82Q30’ E longitude is taken as a standard throughout India. It is known as
(a) local time of India
(b) Indian Standard Time (IST)
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
Indian Standard Time (1ST)

Question 16.
The time of India is ahead of that of England by
(a) 2 hours
(b) 5 hours and 30 minutes
(c) 3 hours
(d) none of these
Answer:
5 hours and 30 minutes

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

The post Globe Latitudes and Longitudes Class 6 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Motions of the Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Social Science Geography Chapter 3

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Motions of the Earth

Motions of the Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Define rotation and revolution of the Earth.
Answer:
Rotation:
Movement of the Earth on its axis in nearly 24 hours is termed as rotation. It is also called the daily movement of the earth.

Revolution:
Movement of the earth around the Sun on a fixed path or orbit is called revolution.

Question 2.
What are axis and orbit?
Answer:
Axis:
The axis of the Earth is an imaginary line joining the North pole with the South pole. It makes an angle of 6614° with its orbital plane.

Orbit:
Orbit is the elliptical path on which heavenly bodies move around their sun or planet.

Question 3.
What is the circle of illumination? Why does it not coincide with the axis of the Earth?
Answer:

• The circle which separates day from night is called the circle of illumination.
• This circle does not coincide with the axis because of the inclination of the axis by 2314° towards east.
• The earth takes 24 hours (one day) to complete one rotation around its axis.

Motions of the Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Distinguish between rotation and revolution.
Answer:
The distinction between rotation and revolution is as under:

Question 2.
How are days and nights formed?
Answer:

• The earth receives light from the Sun.
• Because of its spherical shape; only half of it gets light from the Sun at a time.
• The portion facing the Sun experiences daytime while the other portion away from the Sun experiences night.
  

Motions of the Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Explain the following:

1. Revolution of the Earth.
2. Leap year.

Answer:
1. Revolution of the Earth:

• Earth’s movement around the Sun on its orbit is called revolution.
• The earth takes 36514 days (one year) to revolve round the Sun.
• We take a year of 365 days only and ignore 6 hours for the sake of convenience.

2. Leap Year:

• Six hours saved every year in revolution are added for four years.
• They become 24 hours or one additional day.
• The day is added to the month of February every four years.
• It is because of this that every fourth year February has one more day – 29 days instead of 28 days.
• Such a year of 366 days is called a leap year.

Question 3.
How are seasons caused?
Answer:

• The Earth revolves round the Sun on an elliptical orbit.
• Its axis is inclined in the same direction (east) on its orbit by 2314°.
• The revolution of the Earth and the inclination of the earth’s axis in a fixed direction cause seasons.
• A year is divided into four seasons.
• They are Spring, Summer, Autumn and Winter.
• Seasons change with the change in the position of the Earth around the Sun.

On 21st June, Northern hemisphere is tilted towards the Sun.

• On that day the Sun shines directly on the Tropic of Cancer (231/2° N). Hence, these areas receive more heat.
• The areas near the poles receive less heat because the rays of the Sun are slanting there.
• The North hemisphere is inclined towards the Sun and the places beyond the Arctic Circle experience continuous day light.
• As a large portion of the Northern hemisphere gets light from the Sun, therefore, it is Summer in the Northern hemisphere.
• The duration of day is longer and that of night shorter here.

At this time in the Southern hemisphere all these conditions are opposite.

• It is winter season there.
• Nights are longer than days.
• This position of the Earth is called summer solstice.

On 22nd December, the Tropic of Capricorn receives the direct rays of the Sun and Southern hemisphere tilts towards it.

• On this day the Sun shines vertically on the Tropic of Capricorn (23W S).
• Hence a larger portion of the Southern Hemisphere gets light.
• It is summer in the Southern hemisphere with longer days and shorter nights.
• The opposite conditions are prevalent in the Northern hemisphere.
• This position of the Earth is called winter solstice.

On 21 March and 23 September, The Sun shines vertically on the equator.

• In this position neither of the hemispheres is tilted towards the Sun, so the whole of the Earth experiences equal days and equal nights.
• It is neither very cold nor very hot all over the world.
• The Northern hemisphere experiences spring on 21st March and autumn on 23rd September.
• Exactly the opposite happens in the Southern hemisphere. Here, it is spring on September 23rd and autumn on March 21st.
• These positions are called Spring and Autumn Equinoxes respectively.
  

Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Motion of the earth on its axis in about 24 hours is called
(a) revolution
(b) rotation
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
rotation

Question 2.
Motion of the earth around the sun is known as
(a) revolution
(b) rotation
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
revolution

Question 3.
What is orbital plane?
(a) Plane formed by the axis
(b) Plane formed by the orbit
(r) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Plane formed by the orbit

Question 4.
Which one of the following is the source of light on the earth?
(a) The moon
(b) The sun
(c) The satellite
(d) The space
Answer:
The sun

Question 5.
The circle that divides the globe into day and night is called
(a) circle of darkness
(b) circle of day and night
(c) circle of illumination
(d)none of these
Answer:
circle of illumination

Question 6.
The period of one rotation of the earth is known as
(a) the sun day
(b) the moon day
(c) the earth day
(d) none of these
Answer:
the earth day

Question 7.
What would have happened if the earth did not rotate?
(a) Cold conditions on earth’s half portion
(b) Warm conditions on earth’s another half portion
(c) No life possible in such extreme conditions
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

Question 8.
A year with 366 days is called
(a) leap year
(b) normal year
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
leap year

Question 9.
Why do seasons change on the earth?
(a) Due to change in the position of the earth around the sun
(b) Due to no change in the earth’s position
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Due to change in the position of the earth around the sun

Question 10.
When do the longest day and the shortest night occur in the northern hemisphere?
(a) June 21
(b) September 23
(c) December 22
(d) March 21
Answer:
June 21

Question 11.
In which season Christmas is celebrated in Australia?
(a ) Winter season
(b) Summer season
(c) Autumn season
(d) Spring season
Answer:
Summer season

Question 12.
When do equinoxes occur on the earth?
(a) March 21
(b) September 23
(c) Both (a) and (6)
(d ) None of these
Answer:
Both (a) and (6)

Question 13.
Days and nights occur on earth due to
(a) rotation
(b) revolution
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
rotation

Question 14.
Change of seasons occurs on earth due to
(a) rotation
(b) revolution
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
revolution

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

The post Motions of the Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 3 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Maps Class 6 Extra Questions Social Science Geography Chapter 4

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Maps

Maps Class 6 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What are the limitations of a globe?
Answer:

• Globe is of little help when we want to study only a part of the Earth, about our country, states; districts, towns and villages.
• Globe is not easy to handle.

Maps Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is a map? Describe its major features.
Answer:

• Map is a representation of the earth’s surface or a part of it drawn on flat surfaces.
• One map contains as many facts as a big book.
• All the maps are put together to make on atlas of maps of various sizes and drawn on different scales.
• They provide more information than a globe.

Question 2.
Define Sketch.
Answer:

• A sketch is a drawing of an area or object mainly based on memory and not to the scale.
• Sometimes a rough drawing of an area is needed to know where a particular place is located with reference to other places.
• With the help of a rough sketch we may find the location of a place.
• Such a rough drawing is drawn without scale.

Question 3.
What is a Plan?
Answer:

• A plan is a drawing of a small area on a large scale.
• A large-scale map depicts much information.
• Sometimes we want to know the length and breadth of a room, which can’t be shown on a map. In such an event; we can refer drawings drawn on scale.
• It is known as a plan.

Question 4.
Describe various types of maps.
Answer:
Maps are of various types. They are:

• Physical Maps. They show natural features of the Earth like mountains, plateaus, plains, rivers, oceans etc.
  Example: Physical map of the world.
• Political Maps. Political maps show different countries and states of the world with their boundaries.
  Example: Political map of India.
• Thematic Maps. Maps showing specific information are called thematic maps. Example: Road maps, rainfall maps, forest distribution maps, industries maps etc.

Question 5.
Give historical background of maps.
Answer:
The science of map making is termed as cartography.

Ancient map makers did not know the shape of the Earth:

• Babylonians drew maps assuming that the Earth is flat.
• An Egyptian geographer, (cartographer) Ptolemy first represented the Earth as a sphere.

Maps were drawn on different materials:

• Eskimos used animal skin.
• Egyptians engraved maps on metal plates.
• Babylonians made maps of clay tablets.

Today maps are made on computers:

• These maps are very accurate.
• Improvement in technology has improved the quality of maps.

Question 6.
What are the components of maps?
Answer:

• Distance,
• Direction and
• Symbol.

Distance:

• Distance is measured with the help of a scale.

Direction.

• Direction is known by the arrow marked with ‘N’ on the map.
• It is also known by an instrument called compass.

Symbol:

• Universally accepted marks or icons to depict information on the maps are known as symbols.

Question 7.
Name the two types of maps based on scale.
Answer:
Small Scale Maps
When large areas are shown on a small map, it is called small scale map.

• These maps give very limited information.
• The map of India is a small scale map.

Large Scale Maps

• When small areas are shown on large map it is called Large scale map.
• These maps give detailed information.
• The map of Delhi, shown on large sheet of paper is a large scale map.

Question 8.
How are directions known?
Answer:
Directions are known by the following:
Maps contain an arrow marked with the letter ‘N’ on the upper right.
An Arrow with ‘N’ mark:

• This arrow shows the North direction.
• It is called north line. On the Earth one can find out directions e.g. north, east, west and south.
• There are four major directions.
• North, South, East, West. They are called cardinal points.
• Other four intermediate directions are North-East (NE), South-East (SE), South¬West (SW) and North-West (NW).
• One can locate any place more accurately with the help of these intermediate directions.

Compass. One can also know the direction with the help of compass

• It is an instrument used to find the main directions.

Maps Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
How is distance measured? Define a scale.
Answer:
Maps reduce the entire world or its part to fit on a sheet of paper.
But this reduction is done very carefully so that distances between the places are kept true:

• Reduction of map is only possible when small distances on paper represents a large distance on the ground.
• To reduce a map, a scale is chosen.

Scale is the ratio between the actual distance on the ground and the distance shown on the map.

• The distance between school and home of student is 10 km. If he shows this 10 km distance by 2 cm on map, it means, 1 cm on the map will show 5 km on ground. Thus the scale will be 1 cm. = 5 km. In this way scale is very important in a map. If the scale is known it will be easy to calculate distance between any two places.
• Scales are used for measuring distance. For example to find out the distance between the post office and the clock tower one can measure the distance between these points on the map. (Then the same distance on the scale. Types of Maps on the Basic of Scale.)

Question 2.
What are symbols? Why do we need them?
Answer:
Symbols:
It is impossible to draw actual shape and size of different features like buildings, roads, trees, railway lines or a well on a map, so we use various symbols to show these features.

• Symbols give much information in a limited space.
• With the help of these symbols, we can draw maps and read them easily.
• Without knowing the language of a certain place, we can collect information from maps with the help of these symbols.
• Maps have a universal language – a language that can be read by all. An international agreement facilitates the use of these symbols.
• These symbols are called Conventional Symbols.
• Some of the conventional symbols are shown in the figure given below.
• Various colours in maps are also used for the same purpose.

Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What is a map?
(a ) A globe
(b ) A drawing of the earth’s surface on a flat paper according to scale
(c) A projection
(d) None of these
Answer:
A drawing of the earth’s surface on a flat paper according to scale

Question 2.
What is physical map?
(a) Showing natural features of the earth
(b) Showing cities, towns and villages with boundaries
(c) Showing rainfall, distribution of forests etc.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Showing natural features of the earth

Question 3.
Which map gives more information?
(a) Small scale map
(b) Large scale map
(c) Ordinary map
(d) None of these
Answer:
Large scale map

Question 4.
What does TV’ with arrow show?
(a) Direction of North
(b) Direction of East
(c) Direction of West
(d) Direction of South
Answer:
Direction of North

Question 5.
The blue colour is used for showing
(a) mountains
(b) plants and trees
(c) water
(d) none of these
Answer:
water

Question 6.
A scale is compulsory for
(a) a map
(b) a sketch
(c) a symbol
(d) all of these
Answer:
a map

Question 7.
For what purpose magnetic compass is used?
(a) For measuring distance
(b) For showing symbols
(c) For finding the directions
(d) For all of these
Answer:
For finding the directions

Question 8.
Plan is a drawing of
(a) small area on a large scale
(b ) large area on a small scale
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
small area on a large scale

Question 9.
Yellow colour is used for showing
(a) plateaus
(b) water bodies
(C) mountains
(d) plants
Answer:
plateaus

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

The post Maps Class 6 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 4 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Major Domains of the Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Social Science Geography Chapter 5

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science Geography Chapter 5 Major Domains of the Earth

Major Domains of the Earth Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Enumerate three movements of the ocean water.
Answer:
The ocean waters are always moving. The three chief movements of ocean water are:

1. Waves
2. Tides and
3. Currents

Major Domains of the Earth Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What are the life sustaining elements present on the earth?
Answer:

• The earth is the only planet of the Solar System which has life.
• It is the home of mankind.
• The life sustaining elements are land, water and air that are present on the earth.

Question 2.
Why is the surface of the earth a complex interface?
Answer:
The surface of the earth is a complex interface, because three main components of the environment meet, overlap and interact on it.

Lithosphere: The solid portion of the earth is Lithosphere. In Greek Litho means stone or rock. It means the sphere made of rocks is termed as Lithosphere.

Atmosphere: The gaseous envelope surrounding the earth is Atmosphere. In Greek ‘atmo’ means air. The sphere made of air is atmosphere.

Hydrosphere: The area containing water is called Hydrosphere. Word, Hydrosphere has been derived from the Greek word ‘Hydro’ which means water. Hydrosphere contains water in all its forms.

Biosphere has been derived from the Greek word ‘Bio’. It includes all parts of earth where all types of organisms live. It is the narrow zone of contact of land, water and air where all forms of life are found.

All the four realms are not separate entities, they are considerably intermingled.

Question 3.
Define atmosphere. What is its importance to us?
Answer:

• The earth is surrounded by an envelope of air.
• It is called atmosphere.
• This thin blanket of air is an integral and the most important aspect of the planet. It is very important to us as it enables us to breathe and protects us from the harmful effects of the sun’s rays.

Question 4.
Explain the Composition of the Atmosphere.
Answer:
Composition of the Atmosphere.

• Atmosphere is composed mainly of nitrogen and oxygen.
• They both make up about 99% of clean, dry air (Nitrogen 78%; Oxygen 21%)
• Other gases like Carbon-dioxide; argon and others comprise 1% by volume.
• Oxygen is the breath of life while nitrogen helps in the growth of living organisms.
• Carbon-dioxide is present in the air in minute amount but is very important.
• It absorbs heat radiated by the earth and keeps the surface of the earth warm.

Question 5.
Describe the density of the atmosphere.
Answer:
The density of the atmosphere varies with height.

• It is the highest at sea level.
• It decreases rapidly with increase in height.
• Climbers experience problems in breathing due to decrease in density.
• Temperature also decreases with increase in height.

Question 6.
What is air pressure? How is wind formed?
Answer:

• The atmosphere exerts pressure on the earth due to weight in the air. Thus air pressure is the weight of the air.
• Pressure varies from place to place.
• The difference in air pressure makes the air move.
• Moving air is known as wind. It means wind is formed due to the difference in air pressure.

Question 7.
What is the biosphere? Give its major features.
Answer:
Biosphere.

• The biosphere is the narrow zone of contact between the land, water and air, comprising all forms of life.
  Features:
• There are several species of organism in the biosphere.
• They vary in size from microbes and bacteria to huge mammals.
• All the living organisms including human are linked to each other and to the biosphere for survival.

Question 8.
What negative impacts on nature are caused by the felling of trees?
Answer:
The felling of trees causes the following negative impacts on nature:

• Soil erosion is increased.
• Loose soil are deposited in river beds. Level of river beds rises and during excessive rains they are not capable of keeping the whole of water under control. Hence floods are caused.
• Felling of trees also reduces the quantity of oxygen we get from them. Hence new problems grow up.

Question 9.
Define global warming.
Answer:

• Increase in industries has led to increase in pollution.
• Carbon-dioxide is an important constituent of air.
• But increase in amount of CO₂ due to human activities has led to increase in global temperatures. This is termed as global warming.

Question 10.
Describe Lithosphere.
Answer:
Lithosphere.
The solid portion of the earth is termed as Lithosphere.

• It comprises (of) the rocks of earth’s crust.
• It also has shallow layers of soil that contain nutrient elements which are necessary for all types of organisms.

Major Domains of the Earth Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Explain the layers of the Atmosphere.
Answer:

• The atmosphere extends upto a height of about 1,600 kilometres.
• The atmosphere is divided into five layers based on composition, temperature and other properties.
• They are in ascending order from the earth’s surface:
• Troposphere
• Stratosphere
• Mesosphere
• Thermosphere, and
• Exosphere
• The ozone layer crucial to life on the earth is located in the stratosphere.

Question 2.
Discuss the organisms found in the Biosphere.
Answer:

• The organisms found in the biosphere are broadly divided into plant kingdom and animal kingdom.
• The four realms of the earth interact with one another and affect one another in some way or the other.

The growth of human population is a major cause of change in the biosphere. The growing population requires space for living. This leads to increase of silt in rivers that results ultimately into floods.

• Floods provide new soil or alluvial (sand and earth).
• But simultaneously floods destroy human habitation and cause complete disruption in smooth living of people.

Question 3.
What are the two main divisions of the earth’s surface?
Answer:
Divisions of the Earth’s Surface:

• The two main divisions of the earth’s surface are:
• The large landmasses are known as the continents.
• The ocean basins, contain large water bodies.
• Continents and Oceans differ from each other in their relative levels.
• All the Oceans of the world are connected with one another.
• Level of seawater remains the same everywhere. It is called sea level. The continents have an average depth of 3800 metres in Oceans.
• The highest point on Continents is 8848 metres in the form of Mount Everest in Nepal while the deepest depth is 11022 metres in the form of Mariana Deep (Mariana Trench) in the Pacific Ocean.

Question 4.
Which are the Seven Continents of the world? Give a brief description of each of them.
Answer:
There are seven major continents, namely:
Asia, Europe, Africa, North America, South America, Australia and Antarctica.

1. Asia

• Asia is the largest continent.
• It covers about 1/3 of the total land area of the earth.
• Asia lies in the eastern hemisphere.
  Alt is separated from Europe by Ural mountain on the west’
• The combined landmass of Asia and Europe is called Eurasia.

2. Europe

• Europe is the second smallest continent.
• Water bodies bound it on three sides.
• The Atlantic Ocean lies on the western side, the Arctic Ocean on the Northern side and the Mediterranean sea on the southern side.

3. Africa

• Africa is the second largest continent after Asia. Equator runs almost through the middle of this continent.
• The wider part of Africa lies in the Northern hemisphere.
• It is the only continent which both the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn pass through.
• The continent is bounded on all sides by oceans and seas.
• The largest hot desert of the world, the Sahara desert is situated in Africa.
• The world’s longest river, Nile, flows through Africa.

4. North America

• North America is the third largest continent of the world.
• It is linked with South America by the Panama Isthmus.
• It lies completely in the Northern and Western Hemisphere.
• Three oceans surround it. They are the Pacific Ocean in the West, The Atlantic Ocean in the East and the Arctic Ocean in the North.

5. South America

• South America lies mostly in the Southern Hemisphere.
• It is bounded by the Pacific Ocean in the west, by Atlantic Ocean in the East and by Antarctic Ocean in the South.
• The world’s longest mountain range, the Andes runs through its full length.
• World’s largest river, Amazon flows through this continent.

6. Australia

• Australia is the smallest continent of the world.
• It lies entirely in the Southern hemisphere.
• It is surrounded on all sides by oceans and seas so it is called an island continent.

7. Antarctica

• Antarctica is completely in the Southern Hemisphere.
• It is a continent larger than Europe and Australia put together.
• The South Pole lies almost at the centre of this continent. Hence the continent is permanently covered with thick ice’sheets.
• It has no permanent human settlements.

• Numerous countries have set up their research stations op. this continent, India has set up Maitri, Dakshin Gangotri as its research centres here.

Question 5.
Why is the earth called the blue planet?
Answer:

• The earth is called the blue planet because 71% of the earth is covered with water and 29% with land.
• Hydrosphere consists of water in all its forms in the oceans, lakes, ponds, rivers, streams, ice caps and ice sheets. On the surface as surface water and below the surface of the earth, in the form of under-ground water.
• Water is also present in the atmosphere in the form of water vapour.
• In other words running water in rivers and oceans, in lakes, glaciers, underground water and the water vapour in the atmosphere all make the hydrosphere.
• The oceans form the major part of the hydrosphere.
• They are all connected with one another.

Question 6.
Describe four major oceans of the world.
Answer:
Four major oceans of the world are:
The Pacific Ocean, The Atlantic Ocean, The Indian Ocean and The Arctic Ocean.
The Pacific Ocean is the largest ocean:

• It is spread on 33.3% area of the earth.
• Mariana Trench, the deepest part of the earth lies under the Pacific Ocean.
• The Pacific Ocean is circular in shape.
• It is bounded by Asia and Australia on one side and North and South Americas on the other.

The Atlantic Ocean is the second largest ocean of the world.

• It is ‘S’ shaped.
• It is flanked by the North and the South America on the Western side and Europe and Africa on the eastern side.
• Its coastline is highly indented. This irregular and indented coastline facilitates development of natural harbours.
• The Atlantic ocean is the busiest ocean from the point of view of commerce.

The Indian Ocean is the only ocean which has been named after India.

• The shape of this ocean is almost triangular.
• In the North, it is bounded by Asia, by Africa in the west and by Australia in the east. Indian Peninsula divides it into two parts.
• The Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.

The Arctic Ocean is located within the Arctic circle and surrounds the North Pole.

• It is actually a northward extension of Atlantic Ocean.
• A narrow water body named the Berring Strait connects it with Pacific Ocean.
• It is bounded by the northern coasts of North America and Eurasia in the north.

Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which is the earth consisting of solid portion?
(a) The Atmosphere
(b) Hydrosphere
(c) The Lithosphere
(d) All of these
Answer:
The Lithosphere

Question 2.
Which is the largest continent?
(a) Asia
(b) Africa
(c)Australia
(d) None of these
Answer:
Asia

Question 3.
What is biosphere?
(a) Narrow zone
(b) Broad zone
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Narrow zone

Question 4.
Which gas is responsible for global warming?
(a) O₂
(b) CO₂
(c) N₂
(d) H₂
Answer:
CO₂

Question 5.
The Arctic Circle passes through
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) North America
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

Question 6.
Which longest river flows through Africa?
(a) The Ganga
(b) The Yamuna
(c) The Nile
(d)None of these
Answer:
The Nile

Question 7.
Which of the following is the smallest continent?
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Australia
(d) Antarctica
Answer:
Australia

Question 8.
Where is more than 97% of water found on the earth?
(a) In rivers
(b) In wells
(c) In ocean
(d) None of these
Answer:
In ocean

Question 9.
Why do humans not use the ocean water?
(a) Too sour
(b) Too salty
(c) Too sweet
(d) All of these
Answer:
Too salty

Question 10.
The earth surrounded by a layer of gases is called
(a) The lithosphere
(b) The atmosphere
(c) The hydrosphere
(d) All of these
Answer:
The atmosphere

Question 11.
Which gas is the major constituent of the atmosphere by percentage?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Nitrogen
Answer:
Nitrogen

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

The post Major Domains of the Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 5 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Major Landforms of the Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Social Science Geography Chapter 6

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Major Landforms of the Earth

Major Landforms of the Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What are the two processes?
Answer:
The two processes are:
Internal Processes: lead to

• Upliftment of the earth’s surface.
• Sinking of the earth’s surface.

External Processes are the processes which continuously

• wear down the surface.
• rebuild the surface.

Question 2.
What are erosion and deposition?
Answer:
Erosion:

• Wearing down of the earth’s surface is called erosion.
• Erosional process lowers the surface.

Deposition:

• Rebuilding of earth’s surface is called deposition.

Question 3.

Name the agents of erosion and deposition.
Answer:
Agents of erosion and deposition:

• Running water (river)
• Ice
• Wind.

Question 4.
What are the three groups of landforms broadly?
Answer:
Three groups of landforms:

1. Mountains
2. Plateaus
3. Plains.

Question 5.
As one goes higher what happens with climate?
Answer:
As one goes higher climate becomes colder.

Question 6.
Why do lesser people live in mountain areas?
Answer:
Lesser people live in mountain areas because of the following reasons:

• Less land is available for farming because of steep slope.
• Harsh climate.

Major Landforms of the Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Define (i) Mountains (ii) Glaciers.
Answer:
Mountains are natural elevations of the earth’s surface with a small summit and a broad base, higher than the surrounding area.
Glaciers are permanent moving heaps of ice and snow.

Question 2.
What are mountain ranges? Give some examples of mountain ranges. Answer: • Mountains, arranged in a line are called mountain ranges.
Examples:

• The Himalayas (India—Asia)
• The Alps (Europe)
• The Andes (South America) –
• The Rockies (North America).

Major Landforms of the Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Describe three types of mountains.
Answer:
Three Types of Mountains:

1. The Fold Mountains

• Mountains formed of folding process of the strata are called fold mountains
  

The Himalayas and the Alps are young fold mountains.

• They have rugged relief.
• They have high conical hills.

Aravallis in India are old fold mountains.

• They are considerably worn down by the processes of erosion.

Appalachians in North America and Urals in Russia have rounded features.

• They are low in elevation.
• They are very old fold mountains.

2. Block Mountains

• When large areas are broken and displaced vertically, block mountains are created.
• The uplifted blocks are termed as horsts.
• Lowered blocks are named as graben.
• Rhine valley and Vosges are good examples of such block mountains.

Some more examples of this type of mountains/landforms:

• Rift valley of Narmada and Tapi
• Deccan Plateau
• Meghalaya Plateau
• Drakeusburge (in South Africa)
• Australian Plateau
• Saudi Arabian landforms
• African Tableland.

3. Volcanic Mountains

• Volcanic activity leads to the formation of volcanic mountains.

• Examples of volcanic mountains:
• Kilimanjaro Mountains (in Africa).
• Mt. Fujiyama (in Japan).
  

Question 2.
What are plateaus? Give their major features.
Answer:
Plateaus:
Plateaus are flat topped tableland with steep slopes on one side or more sides.

Features of the Plateaus:
Height varies from a few hundred metres to several thousand metres.

• Plateaus may be young or old.
• Deccan Plateau of India is one of the oldest plateaus of the world.
• Other examples: East African Plateau (in Kenya, Tanzania and Uganda). Western Plateau of Australia.
• The Tibet Plateau is the highest plateau of the world with a 4000 to 6000 metres above mean sea level.

Question 3.
How are plateaus useful to us?
Answer:
Usefulness of Plateaus:

• Rich in mineral resources/deposits.
• Numerous mining areas are located in the plateau areas:
• African plateau is known for gold and diamond mining.
• Chhotanagpur plateau in India is rich in iron ore, coal and manganese.
• Plateaus have several waterfalls, ideal sites for generation of hydro electricity:
• Hundru falls in Chhotanagpur Plateau on River Subernarekha.
• Jog falls in Karnataka.
• Lava plateaus rich in black soil are ideal for cultivation.
• Some plateaus are known for scenic spots and they are great attractions to tourists.

Question 4.
Define plains. Describe their major features.
Answer:
Plains:
Definition. Plains are large stretches of flat land, not higher than 200 metres from mean sea level

• Some are extremely level.
• Others are rolling and undulating.

Major Features of Plains:

• Mostly formed by river deposits.
• Plains are generally fertile.
• They are thickly populated.
• They have dense network of roads and railways.
• Agriculture is the main occupation of the people.
• Examples:
• Ganga-Indus-Brahmaputra Plains in India.
• Yangtze Plain in China.
  

Question 5.
Describe the relationship between landforms and people.
Answer:
Landforms and People:
People live on different landforms in different ways:

• Life is difficult in mountains.
• Plains are major attractions for people.
• In plains it is easy to build houses, construct roads, raise crops.
• In mountains earthquakes, volcanic eruptions etc. cause huge damage to life and property.

Some people misuse landforms:

• They use land as waste like constructing house on fertile land.
• They throw garbage on land and in water making them polluted.

We have special duty to save landforms for future generations.

Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The wearing away of the earth’s surface is called
(a) mountains
(b) plateau
(c) erosion
(d) deposition
Answer:
erosion

Question 2.
In some mountains there are permanently frozen rivers of ice known as
(a) river valley
(b) glaciers
(c) plateaus
(d) none of these
Answer:
glaciers

Question 3.
The lower blocks in Block Mountains are
(a) graben
(b) horsts
(c) glaciers
(d) none of these
Answer:
graben

Question 4.
Mountains may be arranged in a line known as
(a) horsts
(b) range
(c) glacier
(d) all of these
Answer:
range

Question 5.
Where are glaciers found?
(a) In plains
(b) In mountains
(c) In plateaus
(d) None of these
Answer:
In mountains

Question 6.
Tibet is a
(a) plateau
(b) mountain range
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
plateau

Question 7.
Which is the important mountain range of Europe?
(a) Alps
(b) Rockies
(c) Andes
(d) All of these
Answer:
Alps

8. Which area is the most useful for human habitation?
(a) Plain
(b) Mountain
(c) River
(d) Glacier
Answer:
Plain

Question 9.
Where is it easy to grow crops, build a house and a road?
(a) Mountain
(b) Plain
(c) River
(d) Glacier
Answer:
Plain

Question 10.
The available land is not only for our use but also for
(a) future generation
(b) past generation
(c) present generation
(d) none of these
Answer:
future generation

Question 11.
Where does river Yangtze flow?
(a) India
(b) Kenya
(c) China
(d) Australia
Answer:
China

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

The post Major Landforms of the Earth Class 6 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 6 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Our Country India Class 6 Extra Questions Social Science Geography Chapter 7

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science Geography Chapter 7 Our Country India

Our Country India Class 6 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Define Polyps. How are coral islands formed?
Answer:

• Coral are tiny marine animals. They are called polyps.
• When the living polyps die their skeletons are left. Other polyps grow on top of the hardened skeleton which grow higher and higher in course of time. Thus coral islands are formed.

Our Country India Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Describe the boundaries of India.
Answer:
Boundaries of India.

• India is a country of vast geographical expanse.
• It is bounded by the mighty Himalayas in the north.
• Arabian sea bounds it in the west.
• Bay of Bengal forms its boundary in the east.
• Indian ocean bounds it in the south.

Question 2.
How is India a country of vast geographical expanse?
Answer:

• India has an area of about 32.8 crore hectares.
• Its north-south extent from Kashmir to Kanyakumari is about 3200 kms.
• It extends east-west from Arunachal Pradesh to Kuchchh over 2900 kms.
• The lofty mountains, the Thar desert, the Northern plains, Peninsular Plateau, east and west coasts and islands present a diversity of land forms.

Question 3.
How does unity in diversity exist in India?
Answer:

• There is a great variety in climate, vegetation, wildlife as well as language and culture in India.
• In this diversity there is unity. It is reflected in traditions that bind us as one nation.
• India has a population of 122 crore according to Census of 2011.
• It is the second most populous country of the world after China.

Question 4.
Enumerate the physical divisions of India.
Answer:
Physical Divisions of India:

• The Himalayan Mountains
• The North Indian Plains
• The Pennisular Plateau
• The Islands
• The Coastal Plains.

Question 5.
Define delta. Which delta is the world’s largest delta? Where is it situated?
Answer:
Delta:  Delta is triangular deposition of the debris brought and deposited by rivers at their mouth. The Ganga and the Brahmaputra form the world’s largest delta.

The Sunderban delta is situated at the mouth of the Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers at the head of the Bay of Bengal.

Question 6.
Distinguish between Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:

Question 7.
What is the locational extent of India? State the effect of East-West extent of India on time.
Answer:
Location.

• India is located in the Northern hemisphere in respect of latitudes and the Eastern hemisphere in respect of longitudes.
• Tropic of Cancer (23°30′ N) passes almost through the middle of the country.
• From South to North, India is located between 6°4′ N latitudes and 37°6′ N latitudes.
• From West to East, India extends between 68°7′ E and 97°25′ E longitudes.

Effect of East-West extent on Time:

• The west to east extent leads to difference in local time from meridian to meridian.
• The local time changes by 4 minutes for every 1° difference in longitude (meridian).
• The time difference between the two extreme west and east points (Gujarat and Arunachal Pradesh) of India is about 2 hours.
• The sun rises 2 hours earlier in the east than in the west.
• The local time of 82°30′ E longitude is taken as the Indian Standard Time.
• This longitude is known as the Standard Meridian of India.
• Its time is taken as standard throughout the country.
• All watches in the country run according to the time of this meridian.
• Its time is called as 1ST.

Question 8.
Describe the neighbouring countries of India.
Answer:
India’s Neighbours

• India’s neighbours are those countries which have common boundaries with India.
• There are seven countries which have common land boundaries with India.
• They are Pakistan, Afghanistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Bangladesh and China.
• In the Indian Ocean our island neighbours-Sri Lanka and Maldives lie.
• Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Palk Strait.

Our Country India Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Describe the Himalayas.
Answer:
The Himalayas:

• The Himalayas stands as sentinels in the North.
• They are the lofty snow capped Himalayas.
• Himalaya means ‘the Abode of Snow’.

The Himalayan mountains are divided into three main parallel ranges.

• The northernmost is the Great Himalayas or Himadri. The world’s highest peaks like Mt. Everest, Kanchanjunga are located in this range.
• Middle Himalayas or Himachal lies to the South of Himadri. Numerous popular hill stations are situated here. Mussorie, Chakrata, Dharmashala, Kullu and Manali are important hill stations.
• The Shiwaliks are the southernmost range of the Himalayas. It has several longitudinal valleys called ‘dunes’. Dehradun, Kotharidun, Patlidun are some examples of these valleys.

Question 2.
Give an account of the Northern Indian Plains.
Answer:
The Northern Indian Plains

• The Northern Indian plains lie to the south of the Himalayas.
• They are generally plain and flat.
• Alluvial deposits laid down by the rivers have formed these plains.
• Ganga, Brahmaputra and their tributaries flow through these plains.
• They provide fertile land for cultivation. Hence high density of population is found in the plains.

Thar desert lies in the western part of India. It is a dry, hot and sandy stretch of land.

• It has very little vegetation.
• Very few people live in this desert.

Question 3.
Explain major features of Peninsular Plateau.
Answer:
Peninsular Plateau:
South of the northern plains lies the Peninsular plateau.

• It is triangle shaped.
• Its relief is highly uneven.
• It has numerous hill ranges and valleys. Aravali hills is one of the oldest ranges of the world. It borders the plateau on the northwest side.
• The Vindhyas and the Satpuras are the other important ranges.
• Narmada and Tapi flow through these ranges. They are west flowing rivers. They drain water into the Arabian sea.
• The Western Ghats or Sahyadris border the plateau in the west and the Eastern Ghats form its eastern boundary.

• Western Ghats are almost continuous.
• The Eastern Ghats are broken and uneven.
• The plateau is rich in minerals. Coal and iron-ore are the important minerals found on this plateau.

Question 4.
Describe the Coastal Plains and the Island groups.
Answer:
The Coastal Plains.

• To the west of the Western Ghats and to the east of Eastern Ghats the Coastal Plains lie.
• The Western Coastal Plains are very narrow.
• Narmada and Tapi, the only west flowing rivers drain this coastal plain. The Eastern Coastal Plains are broad.
• Numerous east flowing rivers, like Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri drain water into the Bay of Bengal.
  They have formed fertile deltas at their mouth.

Islands:
Two groups of islands are also an integral part of India.

• Lakshadweep Islands are located in the Arabian sea.
• These are coral islands located off the coast of Kerala.
• The Andaman and the Nicobar Islands lie to the south-east of the Indian mainland in the Bay of Bengal.

Question 5.
With the help of a map of India describe the political and ad:n nislr;oi. visions of India,
Answer:
Political and Administrative Divisions of India.

• India is a vast country.
• It has been divided into 29 states and 7 union territories for administrative purpose.
• New Delhi is the capital of India.
• The states have been formed mainly on the basis of languages. Rajasthan is the largest state and Goa is the smallest state in terms of area.
• The states are further divided into districts.

Question 6.
Describe Himalayan rivers of India.
Answer:
The Himalayan Rivers are further divided into two sub-groups:

1. The Indus River System and
2. The Ganga-Brahmaputra River System.

1.  The Indus River System. Rivers of this system originate in the western Himalayas and western Tibetan plateau. They flow from north-east to north and then towards south-west, and fall into the Arabian sea. Major rivers of the system are the Indus and its tributaries like the Satluj, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Beas and the Ravi. The Indus is believed to have been originated before the building of the Himalayas. Hence it is called an antecedent drainage.

These rivers flow through Punjab and Haryana and then through Pakistan before falling into the Arabian Sea.

2. The Ganga-Brahmaputra River System. This river system originates in the Himalayas, the Tibet Plateau, flows into the great plains of the north from west to east and then falls into the Bay of Bengal.

Major rivers of this system are the Ganga and its tributaries, the Yamuna and its tributaries like Chambal and Betwa, the Brahmaputra and its tributaries. The Ganga’s tributaries are Yamuna, Gomti, Sharda, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi, Tista. All these rivers have

formed the great plains of the north. They are most fertile areas of the world. Agriculture is the main occupation of the people. Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta is the largest delta of the world.

Question 7.
Describe the Peninsular River system of India.
Answer:
Peninsular River System. Peninsular river system is further sub-divided as:

1. Rivers flowing into the Arabian sea and
2. Rivers flowing into the Bay of Bengal.

1. Rivers which flow into the Arabian sea include the Narmada and the Tapti (Tapi). They originate on the Deccan plateau and flow westwards into the Arabian sea. These rivers form estuaries and not delta.

2. Rivers flowing into the Bay of Bengal are Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri. All these rivers form deltas. Most of the Peninsular rivers are rapid flowing as the terrain through which they flow is hard and sloppy. They are ideal for generating hydel power.

Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In which direction of India is the Himalayas located?
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North
(d) South
Answer:
North

Question 2.
Where is the Bay of Bengal?
(a) In the east direction of India
(b) In the West direction of India
(c) In the north direction of India
(d) In the South direction of India
Answer:
In the east direction of India

Question 3.
India is located in the
(a) northern hemisphere
(b) Southern hemisphere
(c) both and : (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
northern hemisphere

Question 4.
Which country shares land boundaries with 7 countries?
(a) China
(b) Australia
(c) India
(d) Africa
Answer:
India

Question 5.
Where does the Great Indian desert lie?
(a) In the eastern part of India
(b) In the western part of India
(c) In the northern part of India
(d) In the southern part of India
Answer:
In the western part of India

6. What lies to the south of northern plains of India?
(a) Great Indian desert
(b) Peninsular plateau
(c) Vindhyas
(d) Western Ghats
Answer:
Peninsular plateau

Question 7.
Where do the rivers Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri drain?
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Bay of Bengal
(d) None of these
Answer:
Bay of Bengal

Question 8.
The Indian island in the Arabian sea is known as
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Island
(b) Maldives
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) None of these
Answer:
Lakshadweep

9. Which hills are located in Rajasthan?
(a) Aravali hills
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Himalayas
(d) All of these
Answer:
Aravali hills

Question 10.
Number of states in India divided for administrative purpose is
(a) 21
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 28
Answer:
28

Question 11.
How many Union Territories are there in India?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
7

Question 12.
Which is the National Capital of India?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Chennai
(b) Kolkata
(d) New Delhi
Answer:
New Delhi

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

The post Our Country India Class 6 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 7 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Nabanna Scholarship 2019: Nabanna Scholarship is an action taken by the Government of West Bengal that strives in offering education to the worthy and needy students who desire to proceed with their studies. The scholarship will be given only to those pupils who will fulfill the eligibility criteria. The scholarship will be granted to the students carrying the domicile of West Bengal. The enrollment will be done offline for which students can find the link here. Elected candidates will be holding the rewards of this scheme. This scholarship provides an amount of Rs 10000/- per year on the student’s current course and it differs course to course.

This Scholarship is granted under Chief Minister Relief Fund for the learners who are merit listed and aspire to pursue their higher education. With the help of this scholarship, the government of West Bengal is producing an initiative to improve the education of the students who are prompt to take their higher education to the level where they can fulfill their dreams. Only students who are applying for Post Graduation, graduation must be 12th Pass and for Higher secondary classes students must be Madhyamik or Class 10th passed out.

Nabanna Scholarship Overview

Nabanna Scholarship Eligibility

To make sure students meet all the eligibility criteria check the specified Nabanna Scholarship Eligibility criteria here.

• Candidate should be a resident of West Bengal.
• The scholars can study in any institution of State after passing out the State Board/Council of Secondary Education or a State-aided university in West Bengal.
• Candidate must have scored a minimum of 65% marks in aggregate in the 10th examination for the 12th level.
• Candidate must have scored a minimum of 60% marks in 12th for UG level.
• For the PG level, the candidate should score 55% marks in the graduation.
• Candidate should not get any kind of center/state scholarship or stipend for the same course or at the same stage of study during the last year, at the time of application.
• Annual Income should be less than Rs.60,000/-.

Nabanna Scholarship Application Process

The application method for Chief Minister Relief Fund Nabanna Scholarship is an Offline method. There is no particular application form announced by the WBCMO authority. Students can download the prescribed application form online. Now fill the whole application form with accurate information. Then attach a copy of the required documents with the Application form. After finishing all the process, submit this application form at Nabanna, Howrah or Uttarkanya, Jalpaiguri.

Candidates are suggested not to send the application form through speed post, as they may reject your application. When the application form is submitted at Nabanna or Uttarkanya, a copy of the receipt will be provided. This is proof of your application. There is no last date to apply for CM Relief Fund Scholarship Scheme.

Documents Required for Nabanna Scholarship

Following are the essential documents for financial assistance from the Chief Minister’s Relief Fund:

• Photo-Copies of Mark Sheets of all previously passed exams.
• Photo-Copies of Rank Card and Allotment letter of Selection Committee (only for JEE or Equivalent Examination)
• A Copy of Monthly Family Income Certificate from anyone like-DM/ SDO/ BDO / Group-A Govt. Officer not below the rank of Joint B.D.O./ Executive Officer in case of Municipality / Deputy Commissioner of Corporation.
• A Copy of Reference from MP/MLA to the Hon’ble Chief Minister declaring monthly family income of the student.
• A Self-declaration of the student under his/her sign regarding the present course of education along with details of year/semester and receipt of any scholarship/aid/assistance, suitably countersigned by the head of the Present institution with seal.
• A Self Bank Account details such as IFSC Code, Branch Code, Branch Name, Account Number, Bank Name with a copy of Bank Pass Book.
• A Copy of tuition/admission fees book.
• Contact Details with self Mobile No.

Nabanna Scholarship Reward Amount

All the application forms received will be sent for verification to District Magistrate of the commissioner of police, Kolkata for inquiry and then the scholarship reward will be approved only once. After obtaining clearance scholars will get INR 10,000 Per Annum. The students can check their Nabanna approved list of chief minister relief fund to receive their reward. The list of the selected applicants will be announced on the official website.

Contact Details
The Assistant Secretary,
Chief Minister’s Office, ‘Nabanna’
325, Sarat Chatterjee Road
Tel – 033 2214555/22143101
Fax – 03322143528
Email – cm@wb.gov.in

FAQ’s on Nabanna Scholarship

Question 1.
Who can apply for Nabanna Scholarship?

Answer:
A candidate who is a citizen of West Bengal and whose family income is less than Rs.60,000/- per annum can apply for this scholarship based on their academic qualifications and secured percentage.

Question 2.
When can we apply?

Answer:
There are no particular dates specified for Nabanna Scholarship 2019. Students can apply anytime throughout the year.

Question 3.
How to apply for Nabanna Scholarship?

Answer:
Students who meet the eligibility conditions as prescribed by West Bengal Chief Minister Relief Fund can apply for Nabanna Scholarship by reaching to the official website, wbcmo.gov.in. Download the application form and fill the required information. Finally, send it to the mentioned official address of Nabanna.

Question 4.
What is the reward amount given to the scholars?

Answer:
Students who have applied for Nabanna Scholarship will be given reward amount of Rs.10,000/- annually.

Students also searched for other scholarship programs

• Jindal Scholarship
• Swami Vivekananda Scholarship

The post Nabanna Scholarship 2019 | Application Form, Eligibility, Document, Last Date appeared first on Learn CBSE.

India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife Class 6 Extra Questions Social Science Geography Chapter 8

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science Geography Chapter 8 India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife

India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife Class 6 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Define weather and climate.
Answer:

• Weather is the condition of atmosphere of a place at a particular time.
• Climate is the average weather over a long period of time.

Question 2.
Why is it said that agriculture in India is dependent on monsoon?
Answer:
Agriculture in India is dependent on monsoon because:

• good monsoons mean adequate rain and bountiful crops.
• weak monsoons mean scanty rains and bountiless crops.

India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is the climate of India? How has this name been given to the climate?
Answer:

• The climate of India is broadly Monsoon climate.
• Monsoon has been derived from the Arabic word ‘mausim’ which means seasons.
• India is located in the tropical zone, hence most of the rain is brought by monsoon winds.

Question 2.
Why do we experience regional differences in the climate of India?
Answer:
The climate of a place is decided by the following factors:

1. location
2. altitude
3. distance from sea
4. relief

Hence, we experience regional differences in the climate of India.

• Jaisalmer and Bikaner in the Rajasthan Desert are very hot, on the other hand Drass and Kargil in Jammu and Kashmir are freezing cold, due to difference in altitude and location.
• Places at the coast like Mumbai and Kolkata experience moderate climate.
• They are neither too hot nor too cold.
• These places are very humid.
• Mawsynram in Meghalaya receives the world’s highest rainfall, on the other hand it might not rain at all in Jaisalmer in Rajasthan, in a particular year.

Question 3.
State the seasons which have been recognised in India. Also mention their periods.
Answer:
Broadly, four  major seasons are recognised in India.

Question 4.
Describe major features of the Tropical Deciduous Forests.
Answer:
Tropical Deciduous Forests.
Tropical Deciduous Forests are also called monsoon forests.

• They are less dense.
• They shed their leaves at a particular time of the year.
• Important trees of these forests are sal, teak, peepal, neem and shisham.
• Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Orissa and parts of Maharashtra abound in these forests.

Question 5.
Give an account of the features of Thom Forests.
Answer:
Thorn Forests

• Thorn forests are found in dry areas of the country.
• Their leaves are in the form of spines to reduce loss of water.
• Cactus, khair, babool, keekar are their important trees.
• They are found in the states of Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, Eastern slopes of Western Ghats and Gujarat.

Question 6.
Explain major features of Mangrove Forests.
Answer:
Mangrove Forests

• Mangrove forests thrive in saline water.
• They are found in Sunderbans in West Bengal and in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• Sundari is a well-known species of trees of these forests. The delta of Ganga, Brahmaputra has been named Sundarbans after the Sundari trees.

Question 7.
Why are forests necessary?
Answer:
Forests are necessary because of the following reasons:

• Forests are very useful for us.
• They perform various functions.
• Plants release oxygen that we breathe and absorb carbondioxide which we exhale.
• The roots of the plants bind the soil which results in control of soil erosion.
• Forests provide us timber for furniture, fuel wood, fodder, medicinal plants and herbs, lac, honey, gum, etc.
• Forests are natural habitat of wildlife.

Question 8.
Why has natural vegetation been destroyed? What should we do to check this trend?
Answer:

• Natural vegetation has been destroyed to a large extent because of reckless cutting of trees.
• We should do the following to check this trend.
• We should plant trees in a big way.
• We should also protect the existing ones.
• We should make people aware about the importance of trees.
• We should have special programmes like Van Mahotsav to involve more people in making our earth green.

Question 9.
Give an account of some important migratory birds.
Answer:
Migratory Birds.

• Some birds migrate to our country in winter season every year.
• They are Pelican, Siberian crane, Flamingo, Pintail Duck, Curlew. Siberian cranes migrate from Siberia.
• They arrive in December. They stay till early March.
• Then they return to their native region.

Question 10.
What has been done in order to protect wildlife?
Answer:

• In order to protect wildlife numerous national parks, sanctuaries and biosphere reserves have been setup.
• Government of India has also started Project Tiger and Project Elephant to protect these endangered species.

Question 11.
How can you contribute in conserving wildlife?
Answer:
We can contribute in conserving wildlife in the following manner:

• We can refuse to buy things made from the parts of the bodies of animals, like their bones, horns, skins and feathers.
• We should observe wildlife week in the first week of October.

It will help in creating awareness about conserving the habitats of the animal kingdom.

India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Distinguish between a national park and a sanctuary.
Answer:
A National Park and A Sanctuary

Question 2.
Describe the climatic conditions in the four major seasons.
Answer:
Climatic conditions in four seasons:
Cold Weather Season or Winter:

• During the cold weather (winter) season, cool, dry winds blow from the North¬West to the South-East in N-W and North-West India and from N-E to S-W in the South India.
• Sun rays do not fall straight in the region north of the Tropic of Capricorn.
• It results in the low temperatures in northern India.

Hot Weather Season or Summer:

• The northward movement of the sun from the equator leads to a rise in temperature in India.
• Hot and dry winds called loo, blow during the day.
• Temperatures are at their high.

Southwest Monsoon Season or Rainy Season:

• This season is characterised by the onset and advance of monsoon.
• Wind blows from the Indian ocean towards the land.
• They are moisture laden. When this wind is hindered by the high mountain barriers of the north they ascend along their slopes, get condensed and cause rainfall all over the country.

Season of Retreating Monsoons or Autumn:

• Winds move and turn back from the mainland to the Indian ocean.
• This season is called the season of the retreating monsoons.
• Coastal areas of India, particularly Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh coasts receive rainfall in this season.

Question 3.
What is natural vegetation? Why are different types of vegetation found in India?
Answer:

• Grasses, shrubs and trees, which grow on their own without interference or help from human beings is called natural vegetation.
• Different types of natural vegetation are found over the globe due to different climatic conditions, among which the amount of rainfall is very important.

Climatic conditions vary in India from place to place, region to region. Hence India has a wide range of natural vegetation.

• Tropical evergreen forest
• Tropical deciduous forest
• Thorny forest
• Mountain vegetation and
• Mangrove forests.

Question 4.
Give main features of Tropical Rain Forests.
Answer:
Tropical Rain Forests.

• Tropical Rain Forests occur in the areas of heavy rainfall.
• They are dense and even sunlight doesn’t reach the ground.
• Numerous species of trees are found in these forests. They shed their leaves at different times of the year. Hence, they always appear green and are also called evergreen forests.
• Mahogany, ebony and rosewood are important trees.
• These forests are found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, parts of the north-eastern states and a narrow strip of the western slope of the Western Ghats.

Question 5.
State the major features of mountain vegetation. .
Answer:
Mountain Vegetation.

• A wide range of species is found on the mountains according to height.
• With increase in height up the mountains, temperature falls and rainfall decreases.
• At a height between 1500 metres and 2500 metres most of the trees have pointed leaves.
• These trees are called coniferous trees.
• Chir, Pine and Deodar are important trees found in mountain vegetation.

Question 6.
Give an account of the wildlife.
Answer:

• Forests are homes of wildlife.
• There are about 80,000 species of animals and large varieties of reptiles, amphibians, mammals, birds, insects and worms.
• Tiger is our national animal.
• It is found in various parts of the country.
• Gir forest in Gujarat is the home of lions.
• Elephants and one-horned rhinoceroses live in the forests of Assam, Kerala and Karnataka.
• Camels and wild asses are found in the Thar desert and the Rann of Kutch.
• Wild goats, Snow leopards, lesser panda, bears, inhabit the Himalayan region.
• Numerous other animals are found in our country like, monkey, wolf, jackal, nilgai, cheetah, etc.

Question 7.
How is India rich in bird life? Explain the result of deforestation and hunting of birds.
Answer:

•  India is rich in bird life.
• Birds found in our area are crow, sparrow, pigeon, parrot, koel etc.
• Peacock is our national bird.
• Other birds are parrots, pigeons, mynah, geese, bulbul and ducks.
• Crow, goose, gursal, vulture and owl are major birds that are commonly found in our area.
• Deforestation and hunting have resulted in the disappearance of several species of wildlife of India.
• Many species have already become extinct.

Question 8.
Differentiate between the seasons of Advancing and Retreating Monsoon.
Answer:

Question 9.
Explain the factors that influence the climate of India.
Answer:
The following factors influence the climate of India:

1. Tropic of Cancer. Tropic of Cancer (23°30′ N) passes through the middle of the country dividing it almost into two halves. Southern portion of India falls in the tropical zone while northern portion in the sub-tropical or temperature zone. During summer the entire country experiences high temperature. During winter southern portion remains warm, moderate while some parts of Himalayan region experiences temperature below freezing point. Hence our country lies in tropical zone and its climate is tropical.

2. The Himalayas. The Himalayas protect India from cold and chilly winds of the central India in winter. They cause the SW monsoon winds to shed their moisture all over India and thus provide rains to us. Had there been no Himalayas, India would have been a very hot and dry desert.

3. Peninsular Shape of South India. Due to peninsular shape of south India, Bay of Bengal and Arabian sea exert their moderating effect on the entire peninsula. Thus its climate is equable.

4. Relief. Relief also plays an important role in the climate of India. High mountains are cooler than plains. Due to cool climate of hilly regions in India several hill resorts have come into being such as Dharmshala, Shimla, Kullu, Manali, Mussoorie, Darjeeling in the Himalayas and Kodai Kanal and Udagamadalam (Ooty) on the Peninsular plateau.

Rainfall distribution is also attributed to relief. Windward sides of the mountains receive heavy rainfall while leeward side remains dry or receives very scanty rainfall. It is because of this reason that Mahabaleshwar receives 625 cm of rainfall while Pune only 63 cm of rainfall.

Question 10.
Why have certain species of animals become extinct in our country? What is being done to preserve wildlife?
Answer:
Wildlife is very important for us. But we have depleted its habitat, the forests very fast. Moreover, we have hunted wild animals and poached them indiscriminately. The result is that many of these wildlife face the danger of their extinction. The major animals which face extinction are antelopes, lions, tigers, black bucks, bustards etc. Hence there is an urgent need to conserve them.

Measures taken to preserve wildlife:

• Hunting and poaching of wild animals have been banned.
• Strict and severe punishments are accorded to defaulters.
• National parks, zoos, sanctuaries and biosphere reserves have been set up more and more in number all over the country.
• We are well-maintaining the existing reserves.
• More and more birds and animals are being declared national birds and animals.
• Programmes like ‘project tiger’ and ‘project elephant’ have been taken in hand to preserve and conserve wildlife.

Question 11.
What are the major and minor forest products of India?
Answer:
(1) Major Forest Products. The major forest products are as under:

• The major forest product is wood. It is used both as fuel and as timber.
• Coniferous forests of the Himalayan region supply us soft wood from pines, spruce, silver fir and deodar. They are used as timber. Silver fir and spruce are also used in making paper, match, newsprint and cellulose.
• Monsoon forests provide us sal and teak which are used as timber.
• Bamboos are used nowadays for making paper and newsprint.
• Rosewood is used for making furniture and decorative pieces of wood carvings.
• Sandalwood is used for decorative purposes with added advantage of its fine scent.

(2) Minor forest products. Minor forest products are as delineated as under:

• Lac (b) resins (c) gums (d) medicinal herbs (e) kattha (f) fodder (g) tendu leaves and (h) grass.
• Lac is the secretion of an insect which grows on sap of plash and kusum trees.
• Resins are obtained from pine trees. Turpentine is made of it.
• Khair trees provide kattha. It is made by boiling their chips.

Question 12.
Write in brief how and why India receives the bulk of its rainfall in the months from June to September.
Answer:
By the end of May the north-west low pressure region becomes very much intense. This region attracts the south-east trade winds blowing from the Tropic of Capricorn to the equator in the south hemisphere. They are moisture laden and extend over the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian sea. Suddenly the upper air circulation catches them up over India and their direction is deflected from the south easterly into south westerly winds. These winds, hence, are known as south-west monsoon.

Indian Peninsula deflects them into two branches, the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.

The Arabian Sea branch ascends the Western Ghats and sheds almost all its moisture. Here the rainfall is heavy. Then it descends the Ghats and gets hot. Thus on the eastern slopes rainfall is less, causing rain shadow area. Further eastwards rainfall goes on decreasing.

The northern sub branch of this branch enters India through the Bay of Khambat and passes over the Runn of Kutch and Rajasthan. No mountain acts as barrier in its path. Aravalli hills are parallel to these winds. Rajasthan is too hot to allow precipitation. Hence this region receives very scanty rainfall. The branch advances further and causes some rainfall over Delhi and adjoining regions mixing with the Bay of Bengal branch.

The Bay of Bengal branch first strikes the Arakanyoma in Myanmar and the Himalayas and causes heaviest rainfall of the world near Cherrapunji (in Meghalaya). Then the Himalayas deflect these winds westwards. They cause rainfall upto Punjab. The amount of rainfall decreases with advancing towards west and northwest.

These two branches over run the entire country in four to five weeks, say from the 1st week of June to the second week of July. Up to the end of September the south-west monsoon winds have their impact and the bulk of the annual rainfall occurs during this season.

Question 13.
Give reasons and explain.

• The temperatures are low in Northern India during winter season.
• Tropical rainforests are called evergreen forests.
• Many species of wildlife are facing extinction.

Answer:
1. The temperatures are low in Northern India during winter season because of the following reasons:

• During winter the sun rays shine very slanting in north India.
• Being an expanse of land; it becomes very cold in winter, due to the fact that land gets cold when sun rays are slanting and hot when sun rays are vertical or perpendicular.
• Southern India is of peninsular shape. Effect of ocean does not allow temperatures to drop even during winter.
• On landmass terrestrial radiation is more speedy than receipt of temperature (insolation) during winter in north India.

2 Tropical Rain forests are called evergreen because of the following reasons:

• Trees do not shed their leaves simultaneously.
• Period of shedding leaves of the trees is different in each case. Hence, trees look evergreen.

3. Many species of wildlife are facing extinction because of the following reasons:

• The natural habitat of the wildlife, the forests has been destroyed considerably due to wreckless cutting of trees/forests.
• Hunting of animals/birds has been very rapid.
• Poachers have killed numerous wildlife animals.
• Climatic changes have also resulted in the extinction of many species of wildlife.

Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Day to day changes in the atmosphere are known as?
(a) Weather
(b) Vegetation
(c) Mausium
(d) None of these
Answer:
Weather

Question 2.
What is the duration of cold season in India?
(a) March to May
(b) October to November
(c) December to February
(d) All of these
Answer:
December to February

Question 3.
During the winter season the sun rays
(a) fall directly
(b) don’t fall directly
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
don’t fall directly

Question 4.
During the summer season
(a) temperature becomes very low
(b) temperature becomes very high
(c) heavy rainfalls
(d ) none of these
Answer:
temperature becomes very high

Question 5.
What do moisture laden winds strike to cause rainfall?
(a) River
(b) Sea
(c) Mountain
(d) All of these
Answer:
Mountain

Question 6.
Agriculture in India is dependent on
(a) rains
(b) drought
(c) winds
(d) all of these
Answer:
rains

Question 7.
From which language is the word monsoon taken?
(a) Latin
(b) Arabic
(c) English
(d) None of these
Answer:
Arabic

Question 8.
What would happen if the monsoons are weak in a year?
(a) Water level will go-down
(b) Crops will be affected
(c) Summer will be longer
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

Question 9.
Which state has freezing cold during the winter season in India?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer:
Jammu and Kashmir

Question 10.
Which of the following is flowering plant?
(a) Tulsi
(b) Rose
(c) Cactus
(d) None of these
Answer:
Rose

Question 11.
Due to which condition India has a wide range of natural vegetation?
(a) Climatic condition
(b) Rainy condition
(c) Summer condition
(d) Winter condition
Answer:
Climatic condition

Question 12.
Which of the following has Tropical Rain Forest?
(a) Western ghats forest
(b) Sahara desert
(c) Jaisalmer
(d) Bikaner
Answer:
Western ghats forest

Question 13.
In which direction does the wind blow during south west monsoon season?
(a) Land to sea
(b) Sea to land
(c) Both (a) and (6)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Sea to land

Question 14.
In which state are the cactus, khair, Babool, Keekar etc. found?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Bihar
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Rajasthan

Question 15.
What are natural habitat of wildlife?
(a) Forests
(b)Rivers
(c) Plains
(d) All of these
Answer:
Forests

Question 16.
During the night time, which gas is released by the plants?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(e) Hydrogen
(d) Lithium
Answer:
Carbon dioxide

Question 17.
What important programmes can we have to improve greenery of our earth?
(a) Annual day of a school
(b) Sport day of a school
(c) Van Mahotsava
(d) All of these
Answer:
Van Mahotsava

Question 18.
Forests are responsible for
(a) high temperature
(b) low temperature
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
low temperature

Question 19.
Mangrove forests are found in
(a) West Bengal
(b) Mumbai
(c) Delhi
(d) None of these
Answer:
West Bengal

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

The post India Climate Vegetation and Wildlife Class 6 Extra Questions Geography Chapter 8 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

PFMS Scholarship 2019: The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a Government of India project that looks after social sector programs. It keeps track of the resources allocated to individuals. The Indian Central Government took this move to guarantee that the cash invested is channeled for the correct intent. PFMS provides applicants with different systems of scholarships.

Students must log on to the PFMS Scholarship Portal and upload the records as needed. It is essential that candidates applying for a 2019 PFMS Scholarship meet the qualifying requirements set out in the PFMS Information Bulletin. This assistance scheme is acknowledged in the assistance of scheme scheduling, budgeting and efficient tracking due to deficiencies in the current accounting system. In four countries, namely Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Mizoram, and Punjab, this scheme was first introduced. Read more details in this article about the PFMS Scholarship 2019 i.e. pfms.nic.in sc.

Latest Update

Candidates can check their PFMS Status for the session 2019-20 by providing the asked details in the Login section. They must provide the Username and password. Find the link below.

Check PFMS Status 2019-20

PFMS Scholarships 2019 List

• PFMS Scholarship 2019 to Universities/College Students
• PFMS 2019 Post Matric Scholarship for SC Students (pfms.nic.in sc)
• PFMS Scholarship 2019 Pre-Matric Scholarship for SC Students
• PFMS Student Scholarship National Means cum Merit Scholarship
• PFMS Scholarship 2019 National Scheme for Incentive for the girl child for secondary education
• pfms.nic.in scholarship 2019 Top Class Education Scheme for SC
• pfms.nic.in scholarship for UP Gradation of Merit of SC Students
• pfms.nic.in scholarship for Post-Matric Scholarship for OBCs

PFMS Scholarship 2019 Registration

To apply for multiple types of scholarship provided by the Public Financial Management System, the applicant will have to enroll themselves. Application for the PFMS Scholarship 2019 will be a significant component and the applicant will have to provide the necessary information. The registration login link will be available on PFMS ‘ official website and the applicant will be required to enter the correct and valid details. The details provided for the successful registration will be the Scholarship Scheme Name, the passing year of Class 12 and the academic details.

The applicant must notify the information of the scholarship they apply for must be applicable and accurate. At the moment of the initial presentation of the application, the data will be cross-checked and if any of the details given are discovered to be invalid or inaccurate, the applicant will not be allowed to access the Scholarship.

The 2019 application of the PFMS Scholarship 2019 must be performed in an internet mode and there will be no other way to access the PFMS application form. To access the Scholarship, candidates will have to enroll themselves effectively. It should be observed that the applicant will be required to meet the eligibility requirements specified for the scholarship for which the applicant is eligible. The information brochure will also be published once the PFMS Scholarship 2019 enrollment portal for applicants is open.

At the time of registration, the bank account number, the IFSC code and the Mobile Number should be kept ready with the applicant. An OTP on the list will be sent by entering a valid phone number. The applicants must select their category. If the category is not discovered, the applicants must select General as their class. Check the name of the candidate in the PFMS Scholarship 2019 Portal list of qualified learners at pfms.nic.in scholarship.

PFMS Scholarship 2019 Student Registration

• Visit the official website pfms.nic.in
• Click on the section below Click on’ PFMS Scholarship 2019 Student Registration.’
• On the register section, select the system “Scholarship for Universities / College Students.”
• Together with the Education Board from which the applicant entered class 12, select the year of entering class 12.
• Enter the bank account number and bank branch IFSC code.
• Click the menu button, pick the category and press “Search.”
• The system will search for the title and fill in the type presented on the display automatically.
• Enter the mobile number, send an OTP to that code, fill in the OTP socket.
• Click the “Verify” button and enter the email ID. Creating a user ID and password and filling in the captcha code below.
• To complete the method, click on “Submit.”

Documents To Be Uploaded While PFMS Scholarship Registration

Registration Candidates applying for any type of a 2019 PFMS Scholarship will need to upload the papers while completing the application process and registering for the Scholarship.  It must ensure that the right Documents are downloaded in accordance with the information requirements. The downloaded papers must be applied as any discrepancy will prevent the applicant from applying for the 2019 system of PFMS Scholarship.

Find the list of papers to be downloaded from below in the PFMS Scholarship 2019

• The candidate’s scanned copy of Passport shaped photo.
• The photograph requirements will be stated in the Official Notice that the applicant will have to go through very closely.
• False photo information will prevent the candidate from uploading the photo.
• Scanned Marksheet copy that is supposed to be in PDF format.
• Scanned The candidate’s signature as per the requirements.
• Copy of the premium receipt scanned in a PDF file

PFMS Scholarship – Eligibility Criteria

It will be essential for applicants to ensure that they meet the specified PFMS Scholarship 2019 Scheme eligibility requirements for which they will apply. In the data brochure that will be published by the officials overseeing the Scholarship, the eligibility requirements will be detailed. At the moment of application of the application form, the entry requirements will be checked and if the individual is discovered not to meet the specified requirements, their application will not be approved and the candidate will not be deemed suitable for accessing the scholarship.

The Public Financial Management System provides different types of School-to-College PFMS Scholarships 2019, which makes it essential for the applicant to ensure that they meet the criteria of the scholarship they are applying for.  The fields to be filled out are Candidate Name, Mobile Number, E-mail I d, Birth Date, Gender, Category, Education Board, Standard or Class, Result of the Last Year, Marks Obtained, Grade, Institution Name, Parental Income, and Word Verification if involved in any work. Clicking on the show systems button will demonstrate the applicants’ all qualified systems.

PFMS UP Scholarship Payment Status – Know your PFMS Payment Status

Candidates who will receive information on the PFMS Scholarship 2019 such as application information or the status of the PFMS Student Scholarship can inspect the information of the grant as Payment by Aadhar Number and Account Number Payment.

PFMS Scholarship 2019 Payment by Adhar Number

• Enter the necessary domain amount of Aadhar.
• To verify it, enter the Aadhar Number again.
• Candidates must then verify the term.
• They must join the letters as shown in the above picture. (Non-case delicate letters).
• Click the Search button.

PFMS Scholarship 2019 Payment by Account Number 

• Choose the bank, enter the bank’s first few letters.
• Candidates must then register the number of the account.
• Enter the account number of the candidate.
• Enter the account number of the candidate to verify it again.
• Candidates must then verify the term. They must join the letters as shown in the above picture. (Non-case delicate letters) Click the search button.

PFMS Student Scholarship 2019

PFMS is an Expenditure Department, Department of Finance, Govt, Central Plan Scheme Monitoring System. of India. Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a subsidy e-payment platform for both Aadhar-based & Non-Aadhar-based loan accounts through NPCI under Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)

PNB made DBT transfers to the beneficiaries covered by the plan through PFMS. The beneficiary must obtain the licensed agency’s PPA (Print Payment Advice) and submit the PPA for transactions at any of our offices.

PFMS Scholarship Renewal

Candidates registered in the PFMS 2019 scholarship program will be needed to renew their scholarship by offering the information and qualifications needed in the login chapter. The transfer of the Scholarship is a straightforward method in which the applicant is required to complete their registration after a few easy measures. The restoration of the 2019 PFMS Scholarship will be essential for applicants who are hoping to access the Scholarship and have retained the academic record needed to be qualified for the renewed scholarship. The renewal of the scholarship will only be available on PFMS ‘ formal portal and there will be no other manner of doing this. It is essential for the applicant to follow the procedure very closely for the implementation of the 2019 PFMS Scholarship

Steps for PFMS Scholarship 2019 Renewal

We provide detailed measures for the candidate’s membership in the 2019 PFMS Scholarship for The Public Financial Management System Scholarship. The connection to the update will be given on the PFMS (pfms.nic.in college) formal portal. It is recommended that the applicant must remain up-to-date and must continue to visit the portal on a periodic basis for any of the recent releases on the scholarship renewal schedules.

Go through the measures of the 2019 PFMS Scholarship Renewal from the following points.

• Step – 1: The applicant already registered in the 2019 PFMS Scholarship program will have to attend the PFMS-pfms.nic.in formal documents.
• Step – 2: On the page, there will be a connection to the’ PFMS Scholarship 2019 Student Registration.’ Candidates will need to pick the system they are planning to renew.
• Step – 3: Candidates will have to pick the year in which they were or are registered in Class 12 and the board of education.
• Step – 4: The IFSC Code and account amount must be provided by the candidate. Click the search key.
• Step – 5: The scheme will automatically fill out the form if the applicant is already registered by pfms.nic.in sc for the 2019 PFMS Scholarship program.
• Step – 6: The applicant must provide the mobile number and the applicant will receive an OTP. Please enter OTP.
• Step – 7: Candidate will need to verify and provide the Email ID. Step 8: The candidate will need to create their User ID and Password in the next phase.
• Step – 8: To submit the Renewal Application form, click on the submit button.

Important Points Regarding PFMS Scholarship 2019

Before continuing to complete the application form to apply for the key industry PFMS scholarship, the applicant must be conscious of a few points. It is essential that when applying for the PFMS Scholarship 2019, the applicant must prevent any type of mistake. It is essential that the candidate should continue to regularly visit the PFMS website.

Go through some of the significant points from below concerning the 2019 PFMS Scholarship:

• The applicant will have to visit the pfms.nic.in on a periodic basis to maintain up to date with the recent data about the 2019 PFMS Scholarship program.
• The Scholarship for the Financial System of Public Management (PFMS) offers different scholarships from school to college level.
• Applicants must first log on to the portal of PFMS Scholarship 2019. It will be essential that, while applying, the applicant must provide the right information.
• Before applying for the application form, it is essential for the applicant to have passed through the Information Bulletin in detail.
• The applicant must be conscious of the PFMS Scholarship 2019 eligibility requirements for which they will apply. They will only be allowed to continue for the application form after securing the requirements.
• The details in the application form must be valid and accurate since any type of inaccurate data will prevent the applicant from applying for the scholarship program.
• Candidates will be prepared to verify the position of their application by giving either the Aadhaar Card amount or the Account Number.
• The sum of the 2019 PFMS Scholarship will be transmitted straight to the account of the candidate.

PFMS Scholarship Portal – Benefits

The portal for the 2019 PFMS Scholarship is very helpful for learners as it enables to easily disburse the quantity of the grant.

The gateway of the 2019 PFMS Scholarship has many helpful characteristics listed below:

• Direct Scholarship Amount Transfer: This gateway sends the quantity of scholarship straight to the learners.
• Time-saving: Students can present their request on the 2019 PFMS Scholarship Portal in 10 minutes and because there is no documentation, the job is performed quickly.
• Automatic Payments: The gateway of the PFMS Scholarship 2019 automates and handles all procedures linked to learners submitting, verifying, handling, sanctioning and disbursing scholarship.
• Easy monitoring: Using their Ids and Passwords, it is very simple for a pupil to monitor their deposit status through this gateway.
• Helpline: The gateway for the 2019 PFMS Scholarship has a helpline that learners can use for any request.
• Scholarship Renewal: Students can easily renew their scholarship via the PFMS scholarship portal because they can use the same ID that they developed to log on to the portal at the start.
• Alerts to learners: regular SMS alerts and emails are sent to learners at the multiple handling phases through this gateway.
• Online help manual for learners: an online help guide is also given to aid fill out the form for students comfort.

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FAQ’s on PFMS Scholarship

Question 1.
Can I create one deposit on pfms.nic.in sc for various kinds of beneficiaries?

Answer:
No, you can only pay at one moment for a single sort of Beneficiary.

Question 2.
Where can I access Excel’s Approved Payment Beneficiary List?

Answer:
E-Payment – Download data about the payment from pfms.nic.in sc.

Question 3.
Where can I verify a beneficiary’s deposit?

Answer:
You use the Payment Periodicity check to see if a beneficiary is due for payment.

The post PFMS Scholarship 2019 | Registration, Status, list, Renewal appeared first on Learn CBSE.

What, Where, How and When? Class 6 Extra Questions Social Science History Chapter 1

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science History Chapter 1 What, Where, How and When?

What, Where, How and When? Class 6 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
How can we know about the past?
Answer:
We can know about the past by studying history.

Question 2.
Where did the early people live?
Answer:
Early people lived along the banks of River Narmada.

Question 3.
Write the name of the region where rice was first of all grown in India?
Answer:
The region where rice was first of all grown in India is the North of the Vindhyas.

Question 4.
What do you mean by the term ‘tributaries’?
Answer:
Tributaries are rivers that join a larger river.

Question 5.
Match the contents of the following columns:

Answer:
(i) – (b)
(ii) – (a)
(iii) – (d)
(iv) – (c)
(v) – (f)
(vi) – (e)

Question 6.
Name the countries that form South Asia. (Imp.)
Answer:
India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Afghanistan, Iran, China and Myanmar, etc. form South Asia.

Question 7.
Why is South Asia called a subcontinent?
Answer:
South Asia is called a subcontinent because, although it is smaller than a continent, it is very large and is separated from the rest of Asia by seas, hills and mountains.

Question 8.
Write important historical events against the following important dates:
(1) 8,000 years ago
(2) 4,700 years ago
(3) 2,500 years ago
(4) 2,000 AD/CE
Answer:

Question 9.
Distinguish between historical and pre-historical periods.
Answer:
The period for which we have written records is called historical age or period, while the period for which we have no written records is called pre-historical age or period.

Question 10.
Define in brief the word ‘Epigraphy’.
Answer:
Study of inscriptions is called Epigraphy.

Question 11.
Name two main groups (or categories) of historical sources.
Answer:

1. Archaeological sources (for example: physical remains inscriptions, coins, etc.).
2. Literary sources (such as religious books, manuscripts, foreign, travellers’ accounts etc.).

Question 12.
Write True or False against the following sentences:
(a) History will help you understand how this present evolved. It will tell you about the past of the present. ( )
(b) We can live easily without use of fire. ( )
(c) History in a sense is an adventure. It is a journey across time and space. ( )
Answer:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) True.

What, Where, How and When? Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What can we know about the past?
Answer:
We can know about the past by knowing several things. For example,

• We can find out—what people ate, the kinds of clothes they wore, the houses in which they lived.
• We can find out about hunters, herdsmen, farmers, rulers, merchants, priests, crafts persons, artists, musicians and scientists.
• We can also find out the games children played, the stories they heard, the dramas (or plays) they saw or enjoyed, the songs they sang.

Question 2.
How did the people live in Stone Age?
Answer:
The Way of Life of the People in Stone Age

• Some of the earliest people lived along the banks of rivers. They were skilled gatherers. They knew about the vast wealth of plants in the surrounding forests, and collected roots, fruits and other forest produces for their food.
• The people in Stone Age also hunted animals and birds. They used to catch fish also.
• Some of the areas where the people first began to grow crops such as wheat and barley about 8000 years ago are located in river-valley areas. They also began rearing animals like sheep, goat, dog, cow and other cattle.

Question 3.
When did the early cities develop in India?
Answer:

• About 4700 years ago some of the earliest cities (Harappa, Mohenjodaro, Lothal, Chun-hu-daro, Rupar, Banwali, Kalibangam, Surkotada etc.) flourished on the banks of the Indus and its tributaries. ‘
• And other early cities developed on the banks of the Ganga and its tributaries and along the coasts, about 2500 years ago.

Question 4.
What do you know about Magadha? (Imp.)
Or
Name the first largest Indian empire. Write two-three sentences about it.
Answer:

• Magadha was the first largest empire of India.
• The area along some of the important rivers of the Northern India and to the south of the Ganga was known as Magadha.
• Its rulers were very powerful (Bimbisara, Ajatashatru and Udaibhadra).
• They set up a large kingdom. (Some smaller kingdoms were set up in other parts of the country as well).

Question 5.
Explain the following things or terms in short.
(a) BC
(b)AD
(c) CE
(cl) BCE
(e) Script
(f) Language
(g) Decipherment
Answer:
(а) BC

• The letters BC means Before Christ.
• Dates are generally counted (i.e., the day, the month and the years) or assigned to the birth of Jesus Christ, the founder of Christianity.
• So 2000 BC means 2000 years before the birth of Jesus Christ.
• All dates before the birth of Jesus Christ are counted backwards and generally have the letter BC (Before Christ) added on.

(b) AD:

• We sometimes find AD before dates. This stands for two Latin words, “Anno Domini”, and mean in the year of the lord (i.e., Jesus Christ).
• For example 2005 can also be written as AD 2005.

(c) CE:
Sometimes, CE is used instead of AD. The letters CE stand for ‘Common Era’.

(d) BCE

• Sometimes BCE is used instead of BC. The letters BCE stand for ‘Before Common Era’.
• We use these terms because the Christian Era is now used in the most countries of the world.

(e) Script

• Way or style of writing of a language is called a script. It consists of letters or signs.
• For example, ‘Devnagri’ is script of Hindi.

(f) Language:
When we read what is written, or speak, we use a language. It is a media of expression through speech or through writing.

(g) Decipherment:
Languages which are used, as well as ways of writing (scripts) have changed since then. So how do scholars understand what was written? This can be done through a process known as decipherment.

What, Where, How and When? Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
“The people of India shared their ideas since the earliest days”. Explain in brief.
Answer:

• The people of India travelled from one part of the subcontinent to another. The hills and high mountains including the Himalayas, deserts, rivers and seas made journeys dangerous at time, but never impossible.
• The people of the Indian subcontinent moved in search of livelihood, as also to escape from natural calamities (such as flood, drought, earthquake, epidemic).
• Sometimes men marched in armies, conquering others’ land.
• Merchants travelled with caravans or ships carrying valuable goods from place to place.
• Religious teachers walked from village to village, town to town, stopping to offer instruction and advice on the way.
• Finally some people perhaps travelled, driven by a spirit of adventure.
  All these led to the sharing of ideas among the Indians.

Question 2.
How did our country get its names?
Answer:
Names of our country

• Two of the words we generally use for our country are India and Bharat. The word India comes from the Indus called Sindhu in Sanskrit.
• The Iranians and the Greeks who came through the northwest about 2500 years ago, were familiar with the Indus, called it the Hindos or the Indos. The land to the east of the river (i.e., the Indus) was called India.
• The name Bharat was used by a group of people who lived in the northwest, and who are mentioned in the Rigveda, the earliest composition in Sanskrit (dated to about 3500 years ago). Later, it was used for the country.

Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which river’s bank did the people live along in the ancient time?
(a) Ganga
(b) Narmada
(c) Satluj
(d) None of these
Answer:
Narmada

Question 2.
On which river’s bank were the cities developed about 2500 years ago?
(a) Ganga
(b) Yamuna
(c) Narmada
(d) All of these
Answer:
Ganga

Question 3.
Which city was established on the banks of Ganga?
(a) Magadha
(b) Vindhyas
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Magadha

Question 4.
How did merchants travel1?
(a) With Caravans
(b) Ships
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Both (a) and (b)

Question 5.
From where did the Iranians and the Greek come?
(a) North west
(b) North east
(e) North south
(d) None of these
Answer:
North west

Question 6.
Where were the manuscripts written?
(a) On palm leaf
(b) On peepal leaf
(c) On banana leaf
(d) On tulsi leaf
Answer:
On palm leaf

Question 7.
Where did the manuscripts keep safe?
(a) In temples and monastaries
(b) In museums
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
In temples and monastaries

Question 8.
Who are historians?
(a) Who study past
(b) Who study present
(c) Who study future
(d) None of these
Answer:
Who study past

Question 9.
How did the people of Andaman Islands get their food?
(a) By fishing
(b) By hunting
(c) By collecting the forest products
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

Question 10.
What helps us ’ to find out the records of hunters, fishing folk etc. ?
(a) Archaeology
(b) Astrology
(c) Biology
(d) All of these
Answer:
Archaeology

Question 11.
When did agriculture start?
(a) 4700 years ago
(b) 2500 years ago
(c) 8000 years ago
(d) 5500 years ago
Answer:
8000 years ago

Question 12.
In what ways was the ancient coin different from the ones we use
(a) Made of stones
(b) Made of baked clay
(c) Made of bones
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

Question 13.
In which language were the manuscripts written?
(a) Sanskrit
(b) English
(c) Hindi
(d) None of these
Answer:
Sanskrit

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

The post What, Where, How and When? Class 6 Extra Questions History Chapter 1 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Dr. Ambedkar Scholarship: Dr. Ambedkar Scholarship is available for the students willing to pursue pre-matric as well as post-matric. This Scholarship was initially introduced by the Ministry of Social justice. The system is specifically designed for the students that belong to Nomadic, Denotified, and Semi-Nomadic tribes. Under this system, govt attempts to encourage education among DNTs in order to equalize them with other parts of culture. To fulfill this objective, Dr. Ambedkar Scholarship provides a scholarship quantity up to Rs.1500 per year for pre-matric DNT learners and up to Rs.1200 for post-matric DNT learners.

In this article, we discussed the complete information for pre-matric and post-matric DNT learners about Dr. Ambedkar Scholarship. It involves information about the prize, circumstances of eligibility and several other Ambedkar system information. The table showing the highlights of the scholarship is given below.

Dr. Ambedkar Pre-and Post-Matric Students Scholarship

Dr. Ambedkar Scholarship Awards

Under this system, DNT applicants obtain economic support that finances their education and helps them finish their research without worrying about monetary issues. The transfer of funds is carried out by means of Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mode for bank accounts of the beneficiaries must be connected to the Aadhaar Card. In addition, each year the scholarship is renewed provided that the candidates fulfill the terms and conditions required to renew the scholarship. Find below the Dr. Ambedkar grant information.

Dr. Ambedkar Scholarship – Eligibility Criteria

Each system of scholarships maintains certain requirements for learners to fulfill in order to profit from it. Similarly, before completing the request form, you must ensure that you meet the eligibility requirements of Dr. Ambedkar’s award for pre-matric and post-matric learners. The list of eligibility requirements needed for GOI’s Ambedkar system of scholarships is highlighted below.

• The candidates shall be members of the Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNTs) not included in the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes.
• The candidates ‘ annual household earnings from all sources must not be more than Rs. 2 Lakh.
• Applicants must study in classes 1 to 10 and 11, 12 (including general, professional, ITI, 3-year polytechnics, etc.), graduation, postgraduation, M.Phil, Ph.D., and post-doctoral programs.

Dr. Ambedkar Scholarship – Application Procedure

Although the system for Dr. Ambedkar’s grant was initiated by the BC Division of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, the State Governments / UT Administrations / Universities / Colleges provide economic help under this system to meet the requirements of qualified learners. Under this system, the state and central government’s share of financing is 25:75. Those qualified for this grant can, therefore, email their state’s education department if they plan to apply for the Dr. Ambedkar Scholarship for DNT pre-matric and post-matric learners.

FAQ’s on Dr. Ambedkar Scholarship

Question 1.
Which students are eligible to apply for the Dr. Ambedkar scholarship?

Answer:
Students who meet different ministries ‘ Scheme rules are qualified to apply for these scholarships. These can be found on the Portal’s home page.

Question 2.
How can a student apply for the scholarship online?

Answer:
Please check the portal via URL www.scholarships.gov.in to apply online.

Question 3.
Can a student edit the information already submitted on the portal?

Answer:
All the data can be published until the requested file has been closed. Your application will be forwarded to the next level after the final submission and can not be published by this.

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Students Can Check

• MahaDBT
• Jindal Scholarship

The post Dr. Ambedkar Scholarship | Scholarship List, Eligibility, Award, Application appeared first on Learn CBSE.

On The Trial of the Earliest People Class 6 Extra Questions Social Science History Chapter 2

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science History Chapter 2 On The Trial of the Earliest People

On The Trial of the Earliest People Class 6 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What was Tushar doing?
Answer:
Tushar was going from Delhi to Chennai.

Question 2.
How was Tushar going and why was he going?
Answer:
Tushar was going by train to attend his cousin’s wedding.

Question 3.
Do you know when trains were used first of all?
Answer:
Yes, I know that trains were first of all used about 150 years ago.

Question 4.
When were the buses used first of all?
Answer:
The buses were used by the people about 150 years after the trains were introduced.

Question 5.
Write the name given to pre-historic age.
Answer:
Old Stone Age or Palaeolithic Age or Earnest Stone Age.

Question 6.
What is Stone Age?
Or
Define Stone Age.
Answer:
In the pre-historic age or period when mainly tools, weapons and implements made of stone were used, that period is known as Stone Age.

Question 7.
What do you mean by “Neolithic Age”?
Answer:
The word Neo means new and Lithic means stone. We can say the meaning of “Neolithic Age” is New Stone Age.

Question 8.
What is flint?
Answer:
A flint is a hard grey stone that can produce a spark, whenever it is rubbed.

Question 9.
Mention important historical events against the following dates:
(1) 12,000-10,000 years ago
(2) 10,000 years ago
Answer:

Question 10.
Match the contents of the following columns correctly:

Answer:
1. – (b)
2. – (e)
3. – (a)
4. – (c)
5. – (d).

Question 11.
Take an outline map of the Indian subcontinent and show the following important archaeological sites (with names):
(1) Burzahom
(2) Mehrgarh
(3) Bhimbetka
(4) Mumbai
(5) Inamgaon
(6) Kolkata. (Anythree)
Answer:

On The Trial of the Earliest People Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Explain the term “Palaeolithic Age”.
Answer:

• The word “Palaeolithic” is derived from two Greek (language) words—Palaeo and Lithic.
• The literary meaning of Palaeo is old one, the literary meaning of Lithic is Stone.
• In short we can say that the term “Palaeolithic Age” stands for old Stone Age or the earliest Stone Age.

Question 2.
Who were the earliest people of the Indian subcontinent? Write a few lines about them.
Answer:

• The earliest people lived in Indian subcontinent as early as two million years ago. Today they are called hunter-gatherers.
• The name comes from the way in which they got their food, by wild animals, caught fish and birds and by gathering fruits, roots, nuts, seeds, leaves, stalks and eggs.

Question 3.
Discuss in short the art of Rock Paintings done by the people of the early stone age.
Answer:

• Many of the caves in which the early people lived in the Palaeolithic and Mesolithic periods have painting on the walls.
• Some of the best examples are from Madhya Pradesh and Southern Uttar Pradesh.
  These paintings show wild animals, drawn, with great accuracy and skill.

On The Trial of the Earliest People Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
How do we know about hunter-gatherers? Write also about their tools.
Answer:

• Archaeologists have found some of the things people made and used. It is likely that
  people made and used tools of stone and bone, of which stone tools have survived
  best.
• Some of stone tools were used for cutting wood, which was used as firewood. Wood was also used to make huts and tools.
• Other stone tools were used to cut meat and bone, scrape barks and hides, chop fruit and roots. Some may have been attached to handle bone or wood, to make spears and arrows for hunting.

Question 2.
Discuss living places or sites of hunter-gatherers of the subcontinent.
Answer:

• Some sites known as habitation sites, are places where people of the subcontinent lived. These include caves and rock shelters.
• Many living places or sites of the hunter-gatherers are located near sources of water (rivers, lakes, springs etc.)
• People choose natural caves because they provided shelter from the rain, heat and wind.
• Natural rock shelters were close to the Narmada Valley, while natural caves were found in the Vindhyas and the Deccan Plateau.

Question 3.
What do you mean by “Factory Sites” and “Habitation-cum-factory”?
Answer:

1. As in Stone Age, stone tools and implements were important. Therefore, the people
(hunter-gatherers) tried to find places where good quality stone was easily available.

• Places where natural stone was found and where people made tools are known as factory sites.

2. Usually, we find blocks of stone, tools that were made and perhaps discarded
because they were not perfect and chips of waste stone left behind at these sites (i.efactory sites).

• Sometimes, people lived here for longer spells of time.
• These sites are called habitation-cum-factory sites.

Question 4.
Discuss “Making Stone Tools” by the people of Stone Age.
Answer:
Making Stone Tools. Stone tools were probably made using two different techniques:
1. The first is called stone on stone. Here,

• the pebble from which the tool was to be made (also called the core) was held in one hand.
• Another stone, which was used as a hammer was held in the other hand.
• The second stone was used to strike off flakes from the first, till the required shape was obtained.

2. Pressure flaking:

• Here the core was placed on a firm surface.
• The hammer stone was used on a piece of bone or stone that was placed on the core, to remove flakes that could be shaped into tools.

Question 5.
What were the main effects of changing environment on rearing of animals and other activities?
Answer:

1. Around 12,000 years ago, there were major climatic changes with a shift to relatively warm conditions.

• In many areas, this led to the development of grass lands, and animals that depended on grass, such as deer, antelope, goat, sheep and cattle, flourished.

2. Those who hunted animals now followed them, learning about their food habits and
their breeding seasons.

• It is likely that this helped people to start thinking about herding and rearing some animals themselves.

3. Fishing also became an important activity of the people.

4. This was also a time when several grain bearing grasses, including wheat, barley and rice grew naturally in different parts of the subcontinent.

• Men, women and children probably collected these grains as food, and learnt where they grew, and when they ripened.
• This may have led them to think about growing plants on their own.

Question 6.
Explain the following words:
(a) Palaeolithic
(b) Mesolithic and
(c) Neolithic
Answer:

(a) Palaeolithic

• The earliest period of the Stone Age is called the Palaeolithic.
• This comes from two Greek words, ‘Palaeo’ meaning old, and ‘lithos’ meaning stone.
• The name points to the importance of finds of stone tools.
• The Palaeolithic period extends from 2 million years ago to about 12,000 years ago.
• This long stretch of time is divided into the Lower, Middle and Upper Palaeolithic.

(b) Mesolithic

• The period when we find environmental changes, beginning about 12,000 years ago till about 10,000 years ago is called the Mesolithic (middle stone).
• Stone tools found during this period are generally tiny and are often called
  microliths.
• Microliths were probably stuck on to handles of bone or wood to make tools such as saws and sickles.
• Older varieties of tools continued to be in use.

(C) Neolithic

• The next age (i.e., from the Mesolithic) from about 10,000 years ago, is known as the Neolithic.
• In this Stage farming and herding began and the people started leading a settled life.

Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
When were the trains used first?
(a) 200 years ago
(b) 250 years ago
(c) 150 years ago
(d) 300 years ago
Answer:
150 years ago

Question 2.
Why did hunter-gatherers move from place to place?
(a) In search of food
(b) In search of shelters
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Both (a) and (b)

Question 3.
Where is water found?
(a) In lakes
(b) In streams
(c) In rivers
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

Question 4.
How did the ancient people travel?
(a) By buses
(b) By trains
(c) By ships
(d) On foot
Answer:
On foot

Question 5.
Who had found the things which were made and used by the hunters?
(a) Astrologists
(b) Archaeologists
(c) Psychologists
(d) None of these
Answer:
Archaeologists

Question 6.
In the ancient times tools were made up of which material?
(a) Stone
(b) Wood
(c) Bone
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

Question 7.
For what purpose were the stone tools used?
(a) To cut meat and bone
(b) To chop fruits and roots
(c) To make spears and arrows
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

Question 8.
Places where the people made tools are known as
(a) factory sites
(b) residence sites
(c) habitation site
(d) none of these
Answer:
factory sites

Question 9.
By which techniques were the stone tools made?
(a) Stone on stone technique
(b) Pressure flaking
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Both (a) and (b)

Question 10.
What did indicate the finding of ash?
(a) Water
(b) Ice
(c) Fire
(d) All of these
Answer:
Fire

Question 11.
For what purpose did the men, women and children collect the grains?
(a) For food
(b) For growing crops
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Both (a) and (b)

Question 12.
In which state were the eggs of Ostrich found?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Delhi
(d) Noida
Answer:
Maharashtra

Question 13.
In which site were a large number of tools used for all sorts of activity, found?
(a) Habitation site
(b) Factory site
(c) Habitation cum factory site
(d) None of these
Answer:
Habitation cum factory site

Question 14.
When was the Mesolithic period?
(a) 6000-7000 years ago
(b) 7000-8000 years ago
(c) 8000-9000 years ago
(d) 12,000-10,000 years ago
Answer:
12,000-10,000 years ago

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

The post On The Trial of the Earliest People Class 6 Extra Questions History Chapter 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

From Gathering to Growing Food Class 6 Extra Questions Social Science History Chapter 3

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science History Chapter 3 From Gathering to Growing Food

From Gathering to Growing Food Class 6 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What was the favourite food of Neinuo Yano?
Answer:
Favourite food of Neinuo Yano was rice, squash, pumpkins, beans and boiled meat.

Question 2.
From where does the most of our food come?
Answer:
Today, most of our food comes from plants that are grown and animals that are reared.

Question 3.
Write the meaning of word/term domestication of animal in brief.
Answer:
Domestication of animals means to tame animals.

Question 4.
Name the first domesticated animals by the early man.
Answer:
Most probably “dog” was the first animal to be domesticated by the early man.

Question 5.
Write names of five ways in which grain was used?
Answer:

1. As seed
2. As food
3. As gifts
4. As means of exchange and
5. Stored for food.

Question 6.
Write one of the characteristics of a village-life.
Answer:
One of the distinctive features (or characteristics) of a village-life is that most people who live there are engaged in food production (or farming).

Question 7.
Write important historical events against the following dates:
(a) About 12,000 years ago
(b) About 8,000 years ago
Answer:

From Gathering to Growing Food Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
“Environment affects greatly the farming of cereals and rearing of animals.” Make clear the statement.
Answer:

• Each different plant thrives in certain conditions—for example, rice requires more water than wheat and barley. This explains why people grow some plants in some areas and not in others.
• Different animals prefer different environments—for example, sheep and goats can survive more easily than cattle in dry, hilly environments.

Question 2.
Discuss in short ‘the Beginning of Farming’.
Answer:
The climate of the world was changing and so were plants that people used as food.
People probably noticed several things:

• where edible plants were found.
• how seeds broke off stalks.
• fell on the ground and new plants sprouted from them, and so on.

Perhaps they started looking after plants-protecting them from birds and animals so that they could grow and seeds ripen.

Question 3.
When did domestication start? Write the names of the earliest domesticated plants and animals.
Answer:

• Domestication began about 12,000 years ago. It was a gradual process that took place in many parts of the world.
• Some of the earliest plants to be domesticated were wheat and barley. The earliest domesticated animals include sheep and goat.

Question 4.
How did cultivation give a new way of life to the people?
Answer:
A New Way of Life and Process of Farming (Or Cultivation).

• When people began growing plants it meant that they had to stay in the same place for a long time looking after the plants, watering, weeding, driving away animals and birds—till the grain ripened. And then, the grain had to be used carefully.
• As grain had to be stored for both food and seed, people had to think of ways of storing it. In many years, they began making large clay pots, or woven baskets, or dug pits into the ground.

Question 5.
Discuss in brief the settled life of the earliest people of Burzahom (Kashmir) in New Stone Age.
Or
Write a short note on “Towards a Settled Life in Burzahom”.
Answer:
Towards a settled Life in Burzahom (Kashmir).

• Archaeologists have found traces of huts or houses at some sites. For example in Burzahom (Kashmir) people built pit-houses, which were dug into the ground, with steps leading into them. These may have provided shelter in cold weather.
• Archaeologists have also found fire places both inside and outside the huts which suggests that, depending on the weather people could cook food either indoors or outdoors.

From Gathering to Growing Food Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Discuss in brief ‘the Beginning of Herding’.
Answer:
The Beginning of Herding:
1. The climate of the world was changing and so were animals that people used as food.

• People could also attract and tame animals (after beginning of the farming) by leaving food for them near their shelters.

2. The first animal to be tamed was the wild ancestor of the dog.

3. Latter, people encouraged animals that were relatively gentle, lived in herds, and ate grass, such as sheep, goat, cattle and also the pig, to come near the camps where they lived.

• Often, they protected these animals from attacks by other wild animals.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the term domestication? What is generally effect of this process on plants and animals? What points are kept in mind before/ during this process?
Answer:
1. Meaning of Domestication:

• Domestication is the name given to the process in which people grow plants and look after animals.

2. Effect:

• Very often, plants and animals that are tended by people become different from wild plants and animals.
• This is because people select plants and animals for domestication.

3. Precautions or Points kept in Mind for Domestication

• People select those plants and animals that are not prone to diseases.
• They also select plants that yield large-size grain and have strong stalks, capable of bearing the weight of the ripe grain.
• Seeds from selected plants are preserved and sown to ensure that new plants (and seeds) will have the same qualities.
• Amongst animals, those that were relatively gentle were selected for breeding.

4. Results of Domestication:

• As a result of domestication, gradually domesticated animals and plants became different from wild animals and plants.
• For instance, the teeth and horns of wild animals are usually much larger than those of domesticated animals.

Question 3.
Discuss in brief stone tools used by the people in Neolithic.
Answer:
Stone Tools of New Stone Age

• Stones have been found from many sites related with the New Stone Age. Many of these are different from the earlier Palaeolithic tools (that is why, they are called Neolithic).
• Stone tools of this stage of stone age include tools that were polished to give a fine cutting
  edge, and mortars and pestles used for grinding grain and other plant produce.
• At the same time, tools of the Palaeolithic types continued to be made and used. Some
  tools were also made of bone.

Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What type of food do we get from plants?
(a) Milk
(b) Meat
(c) Fruits, vegetable and grains
(d) None of these
Answer:
Fruits, vegetable and grains

Question 2.
Name the animal who gives us milk.
(a) Cow
(c) Sheep
(b) Goat
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

Question 3.
Select the animal for domestication.
(a) Lion
(b) Bear
(c) Dog
(d) Elephant
Answer:
Dog

Question 4.
Why did people store grains?
(a) For food
(b) As seeds
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Both (a) and (b)

Question 5.
Where is the evidence of wheat, barley, sheep, goat, cattle found?
(a) Koldihwa (UP)
(b) Gufkral (Kashmir)
(c) Mehrgarh (Pakistan)
(d) Hallur (Andhra Pradesh)
Answer:
Mehrgarh (Pakistan)

Question 6.
Who have found the evidence of ancient farmers and herders?
(a) Archaeologists
(b) Astrologists
(c) Biologists
(d) Historians
Answer:
Archaeologists

Question 7.
Which of the following is an important source of milk and meat?
(a) Tiger
(b) Dog
(c) Goat
(d) Cat
Answer:
Goat

Question 8.
Who have studied the customs and practices of present day farmers and herders?
(a) Archaeologists
(b) Scholars
(c) Astrologists
(d) None of these
Answer:
Scholars

Question 9.
Where is Mehrgarh located today?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Pakistan
(d) China
Answer:
Pakistan

Question 10.
In the ancient time dead person was
(a) to serve as food in next life
(b) to serve as food in present life
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Answer:
to serve as food in next life

Question 11.
When did the domestication begin?
(a) About 12,000 years ago
(b) About 8,000 years ago
(c) About 6,000 years ago
(d) About 4,000 years ago
Answer:
About 12,000 years ago

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

The post From Gathering to Growing Food Class 6 Extra Questions History Chapter 3 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

In the Earliest Cities Class 6 Extra Questions Social Science History Chapter 4

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science History Chapter 4  In the Earliest Cities

In the Earliest Cities Class 6 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Write important historical events against the following dates:
(a) About 7000 years ago
(b) About 4700 years ago
(c) About 3900 years ago
(d) About 2500 years ago.
Answer:

Question 2.
Do you have covered drains in your locality? What are the advantages of
having covered drains?
Answer: Yes, we have covered drains in our locality.
Followings are the advantages of having covered drains:

• Under this system each drain generally had a gentle slope so that water could flow through it.
• Very often drains in houses are connected to those on the streets and smaller drains led into bigger ones. It helps people in keeping clean their houses and buildings in a modern systematic manner.
• As the streets and lanes drained are covered, inspection holes are provided at intervals to clean them from time to time. Covered drains protect people from foul smell and help them to keep good health.
• Covered drains are proof of more advanced civilised life.

Question 3.
Write the names of the cities related with the earliest civilisation of the Indian subcontinent.
Answer:

1. Mohenjodaro
2. Harappa
3. Rakhigarhi
4. Dholavira
5. Kalibangan
6. Lothal
7. Ropar and

Question 4.
Which was the earliest city discovered in Indian-subcontinent? Where is it situated nowadays?
Answer:
Mohenjodaro in Sindh. It is in Pakistan nowadays.

Question 5.
When were the earliest cities of the Harappan civilisation built?
Answer:
The earliest cities of Harappan civilisation were built about 4700 years ago.

Question 6.
Write one major, impressive and unique feature of the earliest cities of India.
Answer:
Covered Drains was one major, impressive and unique feature of the earliest cities of India.

Question 7.
By what name is the Indus Valley Civilisation now called?
Answer:
The Harappan Culture.

Question 8.
Write the name of another important city <other than Mohenjodaro) related with the Indus Valley Civilisation.
Answer:
Harappa.

Question 9.
Into how many parts were the cities of the Mohenjodaro and Harappa divided?
Answer:
Both cities were divided into two main parts:

1. Upper part and
2. Lower part.

Question 10.
What was the width of the main road of Mohenjodaro?
Answer:
10 metres.

Question 11.
Write two main characteristics of houses in the Harappan city.
Answer:

1. Generally, houses were either one or two storeys high with a single room built around a courtyard.
2. Most houses had a separate bathing area and some had wells to supply water.

Question 12.
Name the people with whom the Harappans had trade-relations.
Answer:
Sumerians (modern Iraq’s people).

Question 13.
Which was considered the main foreign trade centre in India during the time of Indus Valley Civilization?
Answer:
Lothal (Gujarat).

Question 14.
Write the names of two means of transport generally used by the HarappAnswer:
Answer:

1. Cart and
2. Boat.

Question 15.
On an outline map of India (and its neighbours) show the area?extent of the Harappan culture and important following sites (cities) with their names.

1. Harappa
2. Mohenjodaro
3. Lothal
4. Kalibangan
5. Ropar.

Answer:
Consult map at page 33 of your textbook.

 In the Earliest Cities Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Describe the drain-system of the Harappans.
Answer:

• In cities related with the Harappan civilisation, each drain had a gentle slope so that water could flow through it.
• Very often, drains in houses were connected to those in streets and smaller drains led to bigger ones.
• As the drains were covered, inspection holes were provided at intervals to clean them. All three (i.e., drains, houses and streets) were probably planned and built at the same time.

Question 2.
Where do we find early cities of the Indian subcontinent? What unique objects have been found by Archaeologists in these cities?
Answer:
1. The early cities of the Indian subcontinent are found in present-day Pakistan, and in India. In India these are found in Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana, Western parts of U.P. and Punjab.

2. Archaeologists have found a set of unique objects in almost all these cities:

• Red pottery painted with designs in black,
• Stone Weights,
• Seals with writing,
• Special beads,
• Copper tools, and
• Long stone blades.

Question 3.
Write a short note on ‘The Cattle Rearing of the HarappAnswer:’
Answer:
The Cattle Rearing

• The Harappans reared cattle, sheep, goat, and buffalo.
• Water and pasture was available around settlements,
• In the dry summer months, large herds of animals were probably taken to greater
  distances in search of grass and water.

Question 4.
Give one word for each of the following terms or sentences:

1. Stage when the culture of a country or region is developed and advanced.
2. Clay tablets and idols.
3. A place where surplus grains were stored.
4. A place where ships were loaded, unloaded and repaired.

Answer:

1. Civilisation,
2. Terracotta,
3. Grainaries,
4. Dockyard.

 In the Earliest Cities Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
What was Special about the Harappan-Civilisation cities?
Answer:

• Many of the Harappan cities were divided into two or more parts.
• Usually, the part to the west was smaller but higher. Archaeologists describe this as the citadel.
• And the part to the east was larger but lower. This is called the lower town.
• Very often walls of baked brick were built around each part. The bricks were so well made that they lasted for thousands of years. The interlocking of bricks made the
  walls strong.
• In some cities of this civilisation, special buildings were constructed on the citadel. For example, we can see a special tank in Mohenjodaro. It is popularly known as the Great Bath.
• Other cities, such as Kalibangan and Lothal, had fire altars, where sacrifices might have been performed. And some cities like Harappa, Mohenjodaro and Lothal had elaborated store houses (or Granaries).

Question 2.
Describe the main features of the Great Bath of Mohenjodaro.
Answer:
The Great Bath

• In Mohenjodaro, a very special tank, which archaeologists called the Great Bath, was built in its Citadel Area.
• This special tank was made of bricks, coated with plaster and made water-tight with a layer of natural tar.
• There were steps leading down to it from two sides, while there were rooms on all sides.
• Water was probably brought in from a well, and drained out after use.
• Perhaps important people took a dip in this tank on special occasions.

Question 3.
Write in brief the story of Harappa’s finding.
Answer:
The story of Harappa

• About 152 years ago (1855 A.D.), when railway lines were being laid down for the first time in west Punjab. Engineers stumbled upon the site of Harappa in present-day Pakistan. To them, it appeared like a mount which was a rich source of ready-made, high quality bricks.
• The labourers (working on railway-line) carried off thousands of bricks from the walls of the old building of the city (later on named as Harappa) to construct railway lines. Many buildings were completely destroyed.
• Then, nearly eighty five years ago (1920 A.D.), archaeologists found the site, and realized that this was one of the oldest cities in the subcontinent. As this was the first city to be discovered.

Question 4.
Discuss in brief the life in Harappa City.
Answer: Life in Harappa City

• Probably Harappa was a busy place. There were people who planned the construction of special buildings in the city. These were probably the rulers.
• Most probably the rulers of the Harappan city sent people to distant lands to get metal, precious stones and other things that they desired or required.
• The rulers may have kept the most valuable objects, such as ornaments of gold and silver or beautiful beads for themselves.
• And there were scribes, people who knew how to write, who helped prepare the seals and perhaps wrote (or engraved) on other materials.

Question 5.
Write a short note on the Script of the Harappan people.
Answer:

• Historians believe that the people of the Indus-Valley civilisation were literate. Many seals have been discovered. We can note lines (or symbols) of signs on the top of several seals of the Harappan people. These are parts of what historians call a script. This is the earliest form of writing known in the subcontinent.
• Scholars have made many efforts to read these signs (or decipher the Harappan script), but we still do not know exactly what they mean.

Question 6.
Describe in short different objects made and found in different Harappan cities or sites.
Answer:

• Metals used by the people of Harappan cities are made of stone, metal including copper, tin, bronze, gold, silver and shell.
• Vessels and Ornaments. Copper and bronze were used to make vessels and ornaments.
• Beads. Perhaps the most striking finds are those of beads. Many of these were made out of carnelian, a beautiful red stone. The stone was cut, shaped, polished and finally a hole was bored through the centre so that a string could be passed through it.
• Weights. Stones were used to make weights. Very carefully and precisely some chart weights were shaped by the people of the Harappan culture. These were probably used to weigh precious stones or metals. Chart was also used to make distinctive long blades.
• Seals. The Harappans also made seals out of stone. These are generally rectangular and usually have an animal (e.g. a Bull or a Rhinoceros) carved on them.
• Faience. Unlike stone or shell, that are found naturally, faience is artificially produced. A gum was used to shape sand or powdered quartz into an object. The object then glazed remitting in a shiny, glassy surface. The glaze colour was generally sea green or blue. Faience was used to make beads, bangles, earrings and tiny vessels.
• Pottery. The Harappans also made pottery with beautiful black designs.

Question 7.
“There are many evidences that cloth was worn by the Harappans.” Explain in brief.
Answer:

• The Harappans prepared and used cloth. Cotton was probably grown at Mehrgarh from about 7,000 years ago.
• Actual pieces of cloth were found attached to the lid of a silver vase and some copper objects at Mohenjodaro.
• Archaeologists have also found Spindle whorls, made of terracotta and faience. These were used to spin thread.
• We also have indirect evidence to show how cloth was decorated. For instance, a stone statue of an important man found at Mohenjodaro shows him wearing an embroidered garment.

Question 8.
Discuss the work of specialists in the Harappans’ society.
Answer:
1. Meaning
A specialist is a person who is trained to do only one type of work, for instance, cutting stone or polishing beads or carving seats.

2. Specialists as Producers

• Many of the things that were produced were probably the work of specialists.
• We find a figure of a man bearing beard.
• If we look at the statue or figure we see how well the face is carved and how carefully the beard is shown.
• According to scholars this must have been the work of an expert crafts
  person.

Question 9.
What are raw materials? How did the Harappans make their provision?
Answer:
1. Meaning

• Raw materials are substances that are either found naturally (such as wood, or ores of metals) or produced by farmers or herders.
• These are generally processed to produce finishing goods.
• For instance cotton, produced by farmers, is a raw material that is processed to make cloth.

2. Provision or Search of Raw Materials

• While some of the raw materials that the Harappans used were available locally many items such as copper, tin, gold, silver and precious stones had to be brought from distant places.
• The Harappans probably got copper from Rajasthan and even from Oman.
• Tin, which was mixed with copper to produce bronze, may have been brought from Afghanistan and Iran.
• Gold could have come all the way from Karnataka and
• Precious stones from Gujarat, Iran and Afghanistan.

Question 10.
Discuss ‘agriculture’ as an important occupation of the Harappans.
Or
How was food provided for people in the Harappan cities?
Answer:
Agriculture of the Harappans or Food for People in the Cities

• While many people lived in the cities, others grew crops and reared animals.
• We know from remains of plants that the Harappans grew wheat, barley, pulses, peas, rice, sesame, linseed and mustard.
• A new tool, the plough, was used to dig the earth for turning the soil and planting seeds. While real ploughs, which were probably made of wood, have not survived, toy models have been found.
• As this region does not receive heavy rainfall, some form of irrigation may have been used. This means that water was stored and supplied to the fields when the plants were growing.
• Different types of cattle were also used for food supply. They also collected fruits like ber (Vt), caught fish and hunted wild animals like the antelope.

Question 11.
What were the causes of the end of the Harappan culture?
Or
Discuss the mystery of the end of the Harappan civilization.
Answer:
The Mystery of the end of the Harappans or the Probable causes of downfall of the Harappan Civilisation. Nearly 3900 years ago we find the beginning of a major change in Harappan cities or sites

• People stopped living in many of the cities
• Writing, seals and weights were no longer used
• Raw Materials brought from long distances became rare
• In Mohenjodaro, we find that garbage piled upon the streets, the drainage system broke down, and new, less impressive houses that were built encroached on to the streets.

Causes. The following causes were possibly responsible for the end of the Harappan
culture –

• Some scholars suggest that the rivers dried up.
• Others suggest that there was deforestation. This could have happened because fuel was required for baking bricks and for melting copper ores. Besides, grazing by large herds of cattle, sheep and goat may have destroyed the green cover.
• In some areas there were floods.
• Perhaps the rulers lost control but none of these reasons can explain the end of all the cities.
• In short we can say that we are not same about the end of the Harappan culture. However, flooding or a river drying up would have had an effect in only some areas.

Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
When did Harappan cities develop?
(a) About 4,700 years ago
(b) About 3,700 years ago
(c) About 2,700 years ago
(d) About 1,700 years ago
Answer:
About 4,700 years ago

Question 2.
How many storeys of houses were generally found in Harappan cities?
(a) One or two storeys
(b) Four to five storeys
(c) Multi storeys
(d) None of these
Answer:
One or two storeys

Question 3.
Where did the crafts persons make the things in the earliest cities?
(a) In their own homes
(b) In special workshops
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
Which metal were the most of things found by the archaeologists made of?
(a) Stone
(b) Copper and gold
(c) Silver
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

Question 5.
What was the thing used to shape sand or powdered quartz into an object?
(a) Gum
(b) Ink
(c) Nails
(d) Rubber
Answer:
Gum

Question 6.
Which colours were used for glazed material resulting in a shiny object?
(a) Black and white
(b) Red and yellow
(c) Blue or sea green
(d) Pink or brown
Answer:
Blue or sea green

Question 7.
From where did the Harappans get copper?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Kerala
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
Rajasthan

Question 8.
Who supplied food to craft persons, scribes and rulers in the cities?
(a) Local citizens
(b) Farmers and herders
(c) Post men
(d) All of these
Answer:
Farmers and herders

Question 9.
How did the Harappans irrigate their fields and grow plants? Through
(a) rainfall
(b) stored water
(c) streams
(d) rivers
Answer:
stored water

Question 10.
From where did the boats and ships come into the sea and rivers?
(a) Ports
(b) Dockyards
(c) None of these
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
Dockyards

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

The post In the Earliest Cities Class 6 Extra Questions History Chapter 4 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

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Several problems like agriculture, health, education, hygiene, infrastructure are taken into consideration. The aim is to permit rural regions with modern facilities and technology for agriculture. Around 4000 applications are examined, and the most suitable one acquires the scholarship.

IFFCO has launched the Rural Innovation Scholarship Scheme for the applicants serving for the welfare and improvement of digital technology for farming and agriculture practices. The aim behind founding this scholarship scheme is to enable research, education, and modernization in rural areas. The categories for which this scholarship has been introduced are;

• Agriculture (farmers, farming, crops, fertilizers & Agro-machinery etc)
• Infrastructure
• Education
• Hygiene (Cleanliness, Recycling farm waste etc)
• Health (Women Health, Child Health, etc.)
• Elderly care

IIFCO MD Scholarship Important Details

Below are the highlights of this scholarship in a tabular form for a quick look. Candidates who want to apply for this scholarship can have a brief description here.

Research and Development Fields Available Under this Scholarship

• Agriculture-related fields including (farmers, farming, crops, fertilizers & Agro-machinery, etc).
• The infrastructure of rural regions or near to the agriculture lands.
• The health of (women’s health, child health, nutritious diets, etc) in rural regions.
• Hygiene (cleanliness, recycling of animal waste for fertilization etc).
• Education of the children of farmers.
• Elderly care particularly for the girl child.
• And many other fields related to digital technologies and others.

IFFCO MD Scholarship – Eligibility Criteria

To apply for this scholarship an applicant have to check the eligibility criteria first and match the requirements. The candidates need to fulfill the subsequent criteria to apply for the scholarship scheme.

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• The applicants can apply online to enroll for the scholarship on or before 5th June.

IFFCO MD Scholarship Application Procedure – How To Apply?

To apply online the applicants have to follow the steps given below.

• Visit the official website of IFFCO to apply for the scholarship.
• Now click on the option for new registration and fill the required details and submit it.
• A new page will be opened and the candidate has to fill in the details including their personal details, contact details and educational details.
• Then the student has to discuss their innovative idea in 1000 words and add in the attachments.
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• If the idea gets selected then the candidate will receive a mail to process further.
• Keep the computer-generated registration details for future use.

IFFCO MD Scholarship Selection Procedure

• The selection of the applicant will be based on the idea given by him/her.
• The judges will pick the idea that turns out to be the most salutary.
• A letter of the final selection will be mailed to the selected applicant.

IFFCO MD Scholarship – Rewards

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IFFCO MD Scholarship – Present Awardee

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About IFFCO

Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited is a Multi-state united organization involved in the industry of production and selling of fertilizers headquartered in New Delhi, India. The official executives of IFFCO present the Rural Innovation Scholarship scheme to encourage the students to operate in the areas of research and development of remote districts. This scholarship will be compensated to the applicants operating for the benefit and improvement of digital technology utilized for the cultivation and farming practices. Such students require monetary support to operate on their innovative approaches for the improvement of farming methods and in several agricultural projects. IFFCO (Indian Farmers Fertilizers Cooperative) is one of the most fertile fields in the world and produces many career opportunities in the department of agriculture.

FAQ’s on IFFCO MD Scholarship

Question 1.
Who are eligible to apply for the IFFCO scholarship?

Answer:
Candidates who have Indian citizenship and are 18 years old or more than that are eligibles based on their academic qualifications.

Question 2.
How to apply for IFFCO Scholarship?

Answer:
Applicants who meet the eligibility conditions can apply online directly from the IFFCO official website, iffcobazar.in. Follow the instructions and submit the application with accurate details.

Question 3.
What is the reward amount given?

Answer:
A reward sum of 1 lakh rupees will be given to the selected scholars.

Question 4.
Which are the fields in which this scholarship is applicable?

Answer:

• Agriculture (farmers, farming, crops, fertilizers & Agro-machinery etc)
• Infrastructure
• Education
• Hygiene (Cleanliness, Recycling farm waste etc)
• Health (Women Health, Child Health, etc.)
• Elderly care

Students also Check

• Dr. Ambedkar Scholarship
• Vidyasiri Scholarship

The post IFFCO MD Scholarship 2019 | Rewards, Eligibility, Last Date appeared first on Learn CBSE.

What Books and Burials Tell Us Class 6 Extra Questions Social Science History Chapter 5

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science History Chapter 5 What Books and Burials Tell Us

What Books and Burials Tell Us Class 6 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
For which three things in Rigveda were the prayers performed especially?
Answer:
There are many prayers in the Rigveda for (a) Cattle, (b) Children (especially for sons), and (c) horses, which were yoked to Chariots. Chariots were used in battles.

Question 2.
Write the names of three vish or jana, as mentioned in the Rigveda.
Answer:
Several vish or jana are mentioned by name in the Rigveda. The three names given in it are:

1. The Puru jana or vish,
2. The Bharata jana or vish, and
3. The Yadu jana or vish.

Question 3.
Write important historical events or development against the following dates/years:

1. About 3500 years ago.
2. About 3000 years ago.
3. Between 3600 and 2700 years ago.
4. About 2000 years ago.

Answer:

Question 4.
Mention one achievement of the Chinese around 3500 years ago.
Answer:
Around 3500 years ago, we find some of the first evidence of writing in China.

Question 5.
Write the meaning and use of oracle bones in China.
Answer:

• Animal bones were called oracle bones in ancient China.
• Oracle bones were used to predict the future.

Question 6.
List the names of rivers mentioned in Vedas.
Answer:

• Beas
• Sutlej
• Indus
• Sarasvati
• Ganga and
• Yamuna.

Question 7.
Write words used to describe the people in Vedic Age.
Answer:
Two words were used to describe the people or the community as a whole. These words were (1) Jana and (2) Vish.

Question 8.
Discuss in brief three vedic gods, considered especially important.
Answer:
Three gods which are considered especially important in the Vedas are:

1.  Agni,
2. Indra and
3. Soma.

1. Agni, the god of fire.
2. Indra, a warrior god.
3. Soma, a plant from which a special drink was prepared.

What Books and Burials Tell Us Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Name one of the oldest books in the world. Write a few sentences about this book.
Answer:

• The Rigveda is one of the oldest books in the world.
• It was composed about 3500 years ago.
• The Rigveda includes more than a thousand hymns, called sukta or well said songs of praise.
• These are in praise of various gods and goddesses.
• These hymns were composed by sages (rishis).
• Most of the hymns were composed, taught and learnt by men. Only a few were composed by women.
• The Rigveda is in old or Vedic Sanskrit, which is different from the Sanskrit that students learn in school these days.

Question 2.
For which three things were battles fought by the Rigvedic age people?
Answer:

1. Battles were fought to capture cattle.
2. Battles were also fought for land, which was important for pasture, and for growing hardy crops that ripened quickly, such as barley.
3. Some battles were fought for water, and to capture people.

Question 3.
What was the fate of booty or looted wealth during the battle or war days?
Answer:

• Some of the looted wealth (or booty) obtained was kept by the leaders.
• Some portion of looted wealth was given to priests (brahmins).
• The rest of the looted wealth was distributed amongst the people.
• Some wealth (looted in the war or battles) was used for the performance of yajanas or sacrifices in which offerings were made into the fire. These were meant for gods and goddesses. Offerings could include ghee, grain and in some cases animals.

Question 4.
Write any three main common features of war of the Rigvedic age.
Answer:

1. Most men took part in wars during the Rigvedic age.
2. As there was no regular army, but there were assemblies where people met and discussed matters of war and peace.
3. The Assemblies also chose leaders, brave and skilful warriors.

Question 5.
Write main social differences as have been found out by the Archaeologists in megaliths.
Answer:
Finding out about Social Differences

1. Archaeologists think that objects found with a skeleton probably belonged to the dead person. Sometimes more objects were found in one grave than in another. For example, in Brahmagiri one skeleton was buried with 33 gold beads, 2 stone beads, 4 copper bangles, and one conch shell.

2. Other skeletons found out from the graves had only a few pots. Perhaps there was some difference in status amongst the people who were buried. Perhaps some were rich while others poor, some chiefs while others followers.

Question 6.
Were some burial spots meant for certain families? If yes, give some facts about your answer. (NCERT Page 49)
Answer:
Yes, some burial spots were definitely meant for certain families. We can give the following facts to prove our answer:

1. Sometimes, megaliths, contained more than one skeleton. These indicated that people, perhaps belonging to the same family, were buried in the same place though not at the same time. The bodies of those who died later were brought into the grave through the port-holes.

2. Stone circles or boulders on the surface probably served as sign posts to find the burial site so that people could return to the same place whenever they wanted to.

Question 7.
Who was Charaka? What is the name of his work? Describe one of his contributions in regard of the human body.
Answer:

• Charaka was a famous ancient Indian Physician. He was related with about 2000 years ago time.
• Charaka wrote a book on medical science known as the Charaka Samhita.
• Charaka has stated in his book that the human body has 360 bones. This is a much larger number than the 200 bones that are recognized in modem anatomy. Charaka arrived at this figure by counting the teeth, joints and cartilage.

Question 8.
Discuss “Food at Inamgaon” as archaeologists have found different proofs from different sites.
Answer:
Food at Inamgaon:
1. Archaeologists have found seeds of wheat, barley, rice, pulses, millets, pea and sesame at Inamgaon.

2. Bones of a number of animals, bearing cut mark’s that show they may have been used as food, have also been found. These include buffalo, goat, sheep, dog, horse, ass, pig, sambhar, spotted deer, blackbuck, antelope, hare, and mongoose, birds, crocodile, turtle, crab and fish.

3. There is evidence that fruits such as her, amla, jamun, dates and a variety of berries were collected.

Question 9.
How were the oracle bones used by the Kings in China?
Answer:
Kings of China got scribes to write questions on the bones of animals (called oracle bones).
For example:

• Would they (the kings) win battles?
• Would the harvest be good?
• Would they have sons? The bones were then put into the fire, and they – cracked because of the heat.

Fortune-tellers studied the cracks of oracle bones. They tried to predict the future. They sometimes made mistakes also.

Question 10.
Write some features of the kings of the ancient China.
Answer:

• The ancient kings of China lived in palaces in cities.
• The kings amassed vast quantities of wealth, including large, elaborately decorated bronze vessels.
• The ancient Chinese kings did not know the use of iron.

Question 11.
Describe the word Aryas and Dasas (or Dasyus) used for the people.
Answer:
1. Aryas. Sometimes, the people who composed the hymns described themselves as Aryas.

2. Dasas or Dasyus. Aryas called their Opponents, Dasas or Dasyus. These were people who did not perform yajana (sacrifices) and probably spoke different languages (other than Sanskrit).

Question 12.
Who were slaves in vedic society? Write a very short note about them.
Answer:
During later Vedic Age, the term dasa (and the feminine dasi) came to mean slave. Slaves were men and women who were generally captured in war. They were treated as the property of their owners (or masters) who could make them do whatever work they desired.

What Books and Burials Tell Us Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Describe different classes or categories of people as referred or described in Rigveda.
Answer:
Words of the Rigveda to describe different classes or categories of the people:

1. There are several ways of describing people—in the terms of the work they do, the language they speak, the place they belong to, their family, their communities and cultural practices.

2. Broadly speaking, we can confess that there are two groups (of people) who are described in terms of their work—the priests, sometimes called brahmins, who performed various rituals for the rajas. These rajas were not like the ones you will be learning about later (in coming chapters). They did not have capital cities or armies, nor did they collect taxes. Generally, sons did not succeed fathers automatically.

3. Two words were used (in the Rigveda) to describe people or the community as a whole. One was the word jana, which we still use in Hindi and other languages. The other was Vish. The word Vaishya comes from Vish.

Question 2.
How do we know who was buried?
Answer:
We know who was buried in the grave with the help of following clues:

1. It is easy to check out the skeleton of a child from its small size. However, there are no major skeletal differences between a girl and a boy.

2. We can check out whether a skeleton was that of a man or a woman also. We can decide this thing on the basis of what is found with the skeleton. For example, if a skeleton is found with jewellery, it is sometimes thought to be that of a woman. However, there are problems with this. Generally, men also wore ornaments.

3. A better (or more reliable) way of figuring out the sex of a skeleton as to look at the bone structure. The hip or the pelvic area of women is generally larger to enable child bearing.

Question 3.
Give a brief account of major features of a Special Burial found at Inamgaon.
Answer:
A Special Burial found at Inamgaon and its Major Features
1. At Inamgaon the scholars have found out a special burial. It is a site on the river Ghod, a tributary of the Bhima. It was occupied between 3600 and 2700 years ago.

2. Here, adults were often buried in the ground, laid out straight, with the head towards the north.

3. Sometimes, burials were within houses. Vessels that probably contained food and water were placed with the dead.

4. One man was found buried in a large four legged clay jar in the courtyard of a five- roomed house (one of the largest houses at the site) in the centre of the settlement. This house also had a granary. The body was placed in a cross-legged position.

Question 4.
Write a short note on one of the oldest books in the world.
Answer:

• Vedas are known one of the oldest books in the world.
• There are four of them—the Rigveda, Samaveda, Yajurveda and Atharvaveda.
• The oldest veda is the Rigveda, composed about 3500 years ago.
• The Rigveda includes more than a thousand hymns, called sukta or “well-said’. These hymns are in praise of different gods and goddesses.
• These hymns were composed by sages (i.e., rishis).
• These vedas are written in Vedic Sanskrit. The Vedic or old Sanskrit is different from the Sanskrit that you learn in school these days.

Question 5.
Mention some of the important features of the Rigveda. (Most Imp.)
Answer:

• The oldest Veda is the Rigveda.
• It was composed about 3500 years ago.
• The Rigveda is in old or Vedic Sanskrit, which is different from the Sanskrit that you learn in school these days.
• The Rigveda includes more than a thousand hymns, called sukta or well-said.
• These hymns are in praise of various gods and goddesses.
• The Rigveda was recited and heard rather than written or read.
• The Rigveda was written down several centuries after it was first composed and printed less than 200 years ago.

Question 6.
Write a short note on the megaliths.
Answer:

• Silent sentinels or stone boulders are known as megaliths (literally meaning big stones).
• Megaliths were carefully arranged by people and were used to mark burial sites.
• The practice of erecting megaliths began about 3000 years ago, and was prevalent throughout the Deccan, South India, in the north-east and Kashmir.
• While some megaliths can be seen on the surface, other megalithic burials are
  underground.

What Books and Burials Tell Us Class 6 Extra Questions Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(a) Samaveda
(b) Yajurveda
(c) Rigveda
(d) Atharvaveda
Answer:
Rigveda

Question 2.
Who is the ‘god of fire’ according to Rigveda?
(a) Agni
(b) Indra
(c) Soma
(d) None of these
Answer:
Agni

Question 3.
In which language is ‘The Rigveda’ written?
(a) Vedic Sanskrit
(b) Vedic Hindi
(c) Vedic Tamil
(d) None of these
Answer:
Vedic Sanskrit

Question 4.
Which of the two rivers are studied in the Rigveda?
(a) Ganga and Yamuna
(b) Beas and Sutlej
(c) Saraswati and Brahmaputra
(d) All of these
Answer:
Beas and Sutlej

Question 5.
When was the Rigveda written?
(a) About 3500 years ago
(b) About 1000 years ago
(c) About 500 years ago
(d) About 1500 years ago
Answer:
About 3500 years ago

Question 6.
On which bark was the Rigveda written?
(a) Neem Bark
(b) Cinkona Bark
(c) Tulsi Bark
(d) Birch Bark
Answer:
Birch Bark

Question 7.
Where is birch bark found? In.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Pune
(c) Delhi
(d) Kashmir
Answer:
Kashmir

Question 8.
Who were the Priests in the ancient time?
(a) Brahmins
(b) Sikhs
(c) Muslims
(d) None of these
Answer:
Brahmins

Question 9.
Which were the two words used to describe the people or the community as a whole?
(a) Jana and Vish
(b) Aryas and Dasas
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Jana and Vish

Question 10.
In which region was the Rigveda composed?
(a) North-east
(b) North-west
(c) North-south
(d) Western-east
Answer:
North-west

Question 11.
When the dead body was buried with gold beads it means that the dead man was Fill in the blank with suitable word chosen from the following:
(a) rich man
(b) poor man
(c) chief
(d) follower
Answer:
rich man

Question 12.
The evidence of which fruits were found?
(a) Ber, Amla, Jamun
(b) Mango
(c) Apple
(d) All of these
Answer:
Ber, Amla, Jamun

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

The post What Books and Burials Tell Us Class 6 Extra Questions History Chapter 5 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Kingdoms, Kings and an Early Republic Class 6 Extra Questions Social Science History Chapter 6

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science History Chapter 6 Kingdoms, Kings and an Early Republic

Kingdoms, Kings and an Early Republic Class 6 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Write events against the following important dates:

1. about 3000 years ago.
2. about 2500 years ago.
3. about 2300 years ago.
4. about 1500 years ago.

Answer:

Question 2.
What is the most important power with the people in a democracy?
Answer:
The people can choose their own rulers in a democracy.

Question 3.
What process has made common of some men becoming rulers during the last fifty years or so?
Answer:
Choosing leaders or rulers by voting is something that has become common during the last fifty years or so.

Question 4.
Write in short the meaning of the following new words/terms related with the chapter:

1. Matrimonial alliance,
2. Kingdom,
3. Republic,
4. Oligarchy,
5. Ambassador,
6. Amatyas,
7. Barter system,
8. Gramika,
9. Monarchy.

Answer:

1. Matrimonial alliance: An alliance or relationship based on marriage.
2. Kingdom: State ruled by a king/ruler or emperor is called kingdom.
3. Republic: State whose head is elected directly or indirectly by the people (or their representatives) is called republic.
4. Oligarchy: A government chosen by a few is called oligarchy.
5. Ambassador: An official representing the government of his or her country in other (or foreign) country is called ambassador.
6. Amatyas: Ministers.
7. Barter system: Exchange of goods for goods is called barter system. Money is not used as medium of exchange.
8. Gramika (or Gramini): Chief or head of a village is called gramika.
9. Monarchy: A kingdom or an empire ruled by hereditary king.

Kingdoms, Kings and an Early Republic Class 6 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
How did men become rulers in the past?
Answer:

• Some of the rajas (rulers) were probably chosen by the jana. the people.
• Around 3,000 years ago, we find some changes taking place in the ways in which rajas were chosen. Some men recognised as rajas, became rulers by performing very big sacrifices.

Question 2.
Make a list of all those who would be present at the sacrifice.
Answer:

• The raja who wanted to perform the sacrifice.
• Specially trained priests.
• A Charioteer, who was companion of the raja (who desires to perform the sacrifice).
• Some relatives of the raja, particularly his wives and sons.
• Other small rajas, who were simply spectators.
• The ordinary people, the Vish or Vaishyas, who brought gifts for the king.

Question 3.
Explain the term Hater Vedic’.
Answer:
We have many books that were composed in north India, especially in the areas watered by the Ganga and the Yamuna, during later Rigvedic age. As these books were composed after the Rigveda, they are generally called later Vedic (or later Vedic literature). These include the Samaveda, Yajurveda and Atharvaveda, as well as other books. These were composed by priests and described how rituals were to be performed. They also contained rules about society.

Question 4.
Write a short note on composition of the society of the Later Vedic Period.
Answer:

• There were several different groups in society at this time—priests and warriors, farmers, herders, traders, crafts persons, labourers, fishing folk and forest people.
• Some priests and warriors were rich, as were some farmers and traders.
• Others including many herders, crafts persons, labourers, fishing folk and hunters and gatherers were poor.
  (See answer of next question also for more detail.)

Question 5.
Write a brief note on P.G.W. or Painted Grey Ware.
Answer:
P.G.W. or the Painted Grey Ware

• Plates and bowls are the most common vessels made out of Painted Grey Ware. These are extremely fine to touch, with a nice, smooth surface.
• Perhaps Painted Grey Wares were used on special occasions, for important people and to serve special types of food.

Kingdoms, Kings and an Early Republic Class 6 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Discuss the four Varnas of the later vedic period.
Answer:
The Four Varnas. The priests divided people of the ancient India (of Later Vedic Age) into four groups, called Varnas. According to them, each Varna had a different set of functions to perform.

1 The brahmins. The first Varna was that of the brahmin. Brahmins were expected to study and teach the Vedas, perform sacrifices and receive gifts.

2. The Kshatriyas. In the second place were the rulers, also known as Kshatriyas. They were expected to fight battles and protect people.

3. The Vish or the Vaishyas. Third were the Vishs or the Vaishyas. They were expected to be farmers, herders and traders. Both the Kshatriyas and the Vaishyas could also perform sacrifices.

4. The Shudras. Last were the shudras, who had to serve the other three groups and could not perform any rituals. Generally, women were also grouped with the shudras. Both women and shudras were not allowed to study the Vedas.

Question 2.
What was the basis of the Varna system, according to the priests? Why did people oppose the system of Varnas?
Answer:
1. Basis of the Varnas

• The priests declared that four groups of the people were decided on the basis of birth. For instance, if one’s father and mother were brahmins one would automatically become a brahmin and so on.
• Later on, the priests classified some people as untouchable. These included some crafts persons, hunters and gatherers, as well as people who helped perform burials and cremations. The priests said that contact with these groups was polluting.

2. Causes of Passion of the system of Varnas. Many people did not accept the system of Varna laid down by the brahmins.

• Some kings thought they were superior to the priests.
• Other people felt that birth could not be a basis for deciding which varna people belonged to.
• Besides, some people felt that there should be no differences amongst people based on occupation.
• Other people favoured that everybody should be able to perform rituals.
• And some people condemned the practice of untouchability.
• There were many areas in the subcontinent, such as the north-east, where social and economic differences were not very sharp and where the influence of the priests was limited.

Kingdoms, Kings and an Early Republic Class 6 Extra Questions Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
How did men become rulers around 3,000 years ago?
(a) By choosing rulers by voting
(b) By ashvamedha yajna
(c) None of these
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
By ashvamedha yajna

Question 2.
They allowed to pass ‘horse’. What did it mean?
(a) They accepted the raja was stronger
(b) They accepted the raja was weaker
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
They accepted the raja was stronger

Question 3.
Who guarded the horse?
(a) Janas
(b) Raja’s men
(c) Ordinary people
(d) All of these
Answer:
Raja’s men

Question 4.
Who brought gifts for rulers?
(a) Vaishyas
(b) Shudras
(c) Brahmins
(d) None of these
Answer:
Vaishyas

Question 5.
Where is Hastinapur located?
(a) Near Delhi
(b) Near Mumbai
(c) Near Meerut
(d) Near Agra
Answer:
Near Meerut

Question 6.
Where is Purana Qila situated?
(a) Delhi
(b) Agra
(c) Kolkata
(d) None of these
Answer:
Delhi

Question 7.
About 2,500 years ago what turned into Mahajanapadas?
(a) Ordinary janapadas
(b) Important janapadas
(c) Both (a) and (6)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Important janapadas

Question 8.
About 2,500 years ago where was Kaushambi situated?
(a) Kurukshetra in Haryana
(b) Allahabad in UP
(c) Chandigarh in Punjab
(d) None of these
Answer:
Allahabad in UP

Question 9.
In what mode were the payments made?
(a) Punch marked coins
(b) Paper notes
(c) Gold coins
(d) Silver coins
Answer:
Punch marked coins

Question 10.
Why did the rulers collect regular taxes?
(a) For building huge forts
(b) For maintaining big armies
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
Both (a) and (b)

Question 11.
How did herders pay taxes?
(a) Forest products
(b) Animals and animal products
(c) By labouring
(d) None of these
Answer:
Animals and animal products

Question 12.
Why was the river Ganga important for people?
(a) For transport
(b) For water supply
(c) For making land fertile
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

Question 13.
Who could not participate in the assemblies?
(a) Women
(b) Dasas
(c) Kammakaras
(d) All of these
Answer:
All of these

Extra Questions for Class 6 Social Science

The post Kingdoms, Kings and an Early Republic Class 6 Extra Questions History Chapter 6 appeared first on Learn CBSE.