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Important Questions for Class 10 English Literature Chapter 9 Not Marble, nor the Gilded Monuments, Film Star

Not Marble, nor the Gilled Monuments —-By William Shakespeare

Introduction

William Shakespeare wrote 154 sonnets. ‘Not Marble, Nor the Gilded Monuments’ is one of them. In this poem, he has used poetic means to create aesthetic effects.

Quick Review / Summary

In this poem, Shakespeare tries to convey the message that nothing in this world can outlive his poetic verses, be it marble or the monuments, that are covered with gold. The monuments wear away with the passage of time but his poetry written for his friend, will live longer than the stone monument which has been left uncared for. Next he has contrasted his verses with the ravages of time on monuments. The fighting, wars all overturn the monuments. They get demolished forever and everybody forgets about them after sometime. But neither Mars, the god of war, nor fire can erase the written memory of his friend’s life. It will continue even after his death. The future generations will also admire him and he will live in the hearts of people till the doomsday, i.e., the day of the last judgement.
Extract Based Questions (3 marks each)(1 mark for each line in each question)

Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:

Q. 1. “When wasteful war shall statues overturn,
And broils root out the work of masonry,
Nor Mars his sword nor war’s quick fire shall bum The living record of your memory.”  (Board Term-I 2013, Set 5007) 
(a) The works of masonry that the poet is referring to are………..
(b) Mars is…………..
(c) What does the poet mean by ‘the living record’ ?
Ans. (a) statues and monuments.
(b) the god of war.
(c) His poetry describing his love for his friend.

Q. 2. Not marble, nor the gilded monuments
Of princes, shall outlive this powerful rhyme;
But you shall shine more bright in these contents Than unswept stone, besmear’d with sluttish time (Board Term-I 2012, Set 41)
(a) The poet’s friend will outlive……………..
(b) What will outshine the other ?
(c) The rhyme scheme of the stanza is………………. 
Ans. (a) gold plated buildings of stone built in the memory of someone.
(b) The words of this powerful poem written in praise of his friend will outshine those monuments
(c) ab

More Resources for CBSE Class 10

• NCERT Solutions
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Hindi
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Sanskrit
• NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Foundation of IT
• RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions

Q.3.When wasteful wars shall statues overturn,
And broils root out the work of masonry,
Nor Mars his sword nor war’s quick fire shall burn The living record of your memory.
(a) What will the wasteful wars do ?
(b) What will be the living record of the poet’s friend ?
(c) The poetic device used in the phrase ‘wasteful wars’ is……………….
Ans. (a) They will uproot monuments.
(b) The poem written in his praise.
(c) Alliteration.

Q.4.’Gainst death and all obvious enmity
Shall you pace forth; your praise shall still find room,
Even in the eyes of all posterity
That wear this world out to the ending doom.
(a) In line 2, ‘you’ refers to……………….
(b) The poet predicts that, ‘you’ will……………….
(c) The figure of speech in ‘your praise shall still find room’ is………………
Ans. (a) the poet’s friend
(b) live forever through this rhyme
(c) personification

Q.5.Not marble, nor the gilded monuments Of princes, shall outlive this powerful rhyme
(a) Princes get monuments made because……………….
(b) The meaning of the word ‘gilded’ is……………….
(c) Monuments won’t outlive this rhyme because……………….
Ans. (a) they want to be remembered forever.
(b) gold plated.
(c) the poem is immortal.

Q.6.When wasteful war shall statues overturn,
And broils root out the work of masonry
Nor Mars his sword nor war’s quick fire shall bum
The living record of your memory.
(a) Which poetic device has been used in these lines ?
(b) Find out the word which means ‘fighting, disturbances in war.’
(c) In the line ‘The living record of your memory’, living record refers to
Ans. (a) Alliteration.
(b) Broils.
(c) the sonnet the poet has written for his friend.

Q.7.”Nor Mars has sword nor war’s quick fire shall bum The living record of your memory
Giants death and all-oblivious enmity Shall you pace forth.”
(a) The ‘living record of your memory’ is……………….
(b) The word ‘your’ represents……………….
(c) ‘Mars’ in the above lines is……………….
Ans. (a) the poem.
(b) the poet’s friend.
(c) the God of war.

Short Answer Type Questions (2 marks each)

Q.1.Bring out the sum and substance of Shakespeare’s sonnet, ‘Not Marble,Nor the Gilded Monuments ? (Board 2014, Set PRE2N18)

Ans. In this poem, the poet pays tribute to the quality of his verses also to the intensity of his love for his friend, the Earl of Southampton. The poet is confident that his verses will continue to be read for ever. His friend will outlive all other things of the world when he is described in the poet’s verses. (CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014)
Q. 2. What is the theme of the sonnet ‘Not Marble nor the Gilded Monuments’ ? (Board Term-12013, Set 101, 8SRR, 34)
Ans. This is a poem about time and immortalization. The poet claims that his poem will immortalize his dear one whereas all monuments and statues will meet the dust. (CBSE Marking Scheme, 2014)

Q. 3. In what way is the poet stronger than powerful rulers ? (Board Term-12012, Set 32)
Ans. The creation of powerful rulers, i.e., statues and monuments are destroyed by time but the poet is more powerful than these rulers because time cannot destroy his creation, i.e., his poetry.

Q. 4. How will the living record of the memory remain according to the poet in ‘Not Marble, nor the Gilded Monuments’ ? (Board Term-12012, Set 36)
Ans. Living record will not be washed away/broken/destroyed as it is in the form of poetry while all the other things will be destroyed.

Q. 5. Why does Shakespeare refer to war as ‘wasteful war7 ? (Board Term-I 2012, Set 15)
Ans. Shakespeare refers to war as devastating – destructive – force. He is here describing war destroying stone structures, which relates back to the ‘marble’ and ‘gilded monuments’ that likewise do not last.

Q. 6. How will the poet’s friend and patron find a permanent place in the hearts of coming generations and lovers ? (Board Term-I 2012, Set 43)
Ans. Poetry will outlive mankind. It will not be ravaged by time. This poem will immortalize his friend. He will stay in the eyes of lovers till doomsday.

Q. 7. In the poem, “Not Marble……”, what difference does the poet bring out between his rhyme and the monuments ? (Board Term-I 2012, Set 45)
Ans. Rhymes are eternal, they can’t be destroyed. They are unaffected by wars and time. Monuments are destroyed with passage of time and wars.

Q. 8. How has the poet personified time ? (Board Term-I 2012, Set 47)
Ans. The poet has personified time as a whore, a woman who is unfaithful. Time is never the same for a person. Even very great men are forgotten with the passage of time.

Q. 9. How does the poet pay tribute to friendship ? (Board Term-I 2012, Set 48)
Ans. The poet pays tribute to friendship by writing a poem for his friend. The poem will be the, living record’ of his friend’s memory. Neither (leath nor war will be able to destroy his memory. His friend’s praise will remain in the hearts of future generations.

Q. 10. What according to the poet transcends time in the poem, ‘Not marble, nor the Gilded Monuments’ ? (Board Term-I 2012, Set 49)
Ans. The poet’s verses which immortalize his beloved will outlive the grand memorials or monuments built by princes in their memory. All signs of worldly power, glory and grandeur will fade away with the passage of time. All gold plated monuments, memorials and statues will fall to utter neglect, decay and deterioration. The words of poet’s ‘powerful rhyme’ will be a living record of the memory of his beloved.

Q. 11. How will the ‘living record’ of the poet’s beloved and his memory be more powerful than wasteful wars ? (Board Term-I 2012, Set 51)
Ans. The words of this poem written in praise of the poet’s beloved will survive as a living record of his beloved’s memory. His beloved will be remembered by the coming generations through the words of this poem. Neither the wasteful wars, nor conflicts nor tumults will diminish or dim the shining glory of these words. The words of this sonnet will immortalize the poet’s beloved’s memory.

Q. 12. Why does the poem refer to ‘Time’ as being sluttish ? (Board Term-I 2012, Set 54)
Ans. The personification of time as a slut or a loose character woman is quite significant. As a slut is not faithful to anyone man, in the same way time also keeps changing for people. It never remains the same.

Q. 13. How does the time destroy the monuments and memorials ? (Board Term-I 2012, Set 55)
Ans. Time has been portrayed as a powerful element, time spoils the marbled or gilded monuments. It discolours them, breaks them or makes them dirty through its agencies like air, rain, etc.

Q. 14. Why do rich people get their statues erected ? (Board Term-I 2012, Set 64)
Ans. The poet says that rich men try to get their statues erected and rich monuments made, so that they would be remembered but none of these survive the ravages of time and the men are forgotten.

Q. 15. The poet says that neither forces of nature, nor war can destroy his poetry. What quality of the poet is revealed through these lines ? (Board Term-12011, Set 29)
Ans. The poet is proud of creating art and literature. These are immortal whereas the material achievements of man are temporary. The poet is known for his self-confidence and also for his contempt for arrogant rulers.

Q. 16. How long does the poet feel can the lover live in the rhyme written by him ? (Board Term-12011, Set 18)
Ans. According to the poet, the lover can live in the rhyme till the world comes to an end, i.e., the Judgement Day. He is very sure that poetic art is immortal and lives forever.

Q. 17. How has the poet eternalized the subject of his attention in this poem ? (Board Term-12011, Set 26)
Ans. The poet has eternalized the subject of his attention by writing about him/her in his sonnet. According to the poet, stones and gilded monuments are affected by time but a poem lives forever. It cannot be destroyed by the forces of nature or war. It is a written record which will be read and remembered by the future generations thus making it immortal.

Q. 18. Explain in your own words how has ‘poetry’ been glorified by the poet, in the poem, ‘Not Marble, nor the Gilded Monuments’. (Board Term-12011, Set 32)
Ans. The poet has glorified poetry in his poem as poetry makes a man immortal which cannot be done by any other thing. Statues and monuments erected in the rememberance of kings and rulers get destroyed by time. But his poem will outlive all these and will be a written record. It will immortalise his friend. No force of nature can outdo it.

Q. 19. How will posterity remember the poet’s friend ? (Board Term-12011, Set 35)
Ans. The poet’s friend will live forever through verse. Everything else will be destroyed by the powerful passage of time. The poem will serve as a written record which will move forward against death that makes others forget everything. But the posterity, will read his verses and admire them till the doomsday. His friend will be eternalised through his verses as wars and forces of nature can’t affect it. He will outshine all others through his poems.

Q. 20. What message does the poet wish to convey through his poem ‘Not Marble……’
Ans. The poem conveys the message that the great and noble souls leave an indelible impact on their fellow beings and are remembered for a long time. Poet feels his poem will outlive the ravages of time. According to him, marble and stone monuments fail to immortalize rich and the powerful. He claims his poem will live longer than any man-made monuments.

Q. 21. Describe how the monuments and statues brave the ravages of time.
Ans. Time leaves its marks on everything as everything in this world is mortal. None can fight time. Monuments and statues break and get dirty with the passage of time. They also get demolished during wars.

Long Answer Type Questions (4 marks each)

Q. 1. Materialistic things don’t really last. What matters most are the people we care about and the values we live with. Explain this with reference to the poem ‘Not Marble, nor the Gilded Monuments’. (Board 2014, Set QUD9VQW)

Ans. Value Points:
everything comes to an end one day
what is most important is our relationship with our dear ones,
the poet strengthens this idea that riches don’t matter
what is more valuable is his love for his friend.

Detailed Answer:

It is a well known truth that materialistic things don’t really last. All signs of worldly power, glory and grandeur fade away with the passage of time. Kings and princes got their monuments erected so as to be remembered by the future generation. But all gold plated monuments, memorials and statues fall to utter neglect, decay and deterioration. They all meet the dust as they fail to outlive the ravages of time. In stark contrast to this are our relationships. They are immortal. They don’t get destroyed by time. Rather they get strengthened with the passage of time. The poet is also of the opinion that riches don’t matter much in this world. What is more valuable is his love for his friend. Their love would live longer than any man-made monuments. Neither death nor war will be able to destroy his memory. Herice, it is our love and relationship which matters more in this 1 world. All other things come to an end one day.

Q. 2. You were extremely impressed to read the poem ‘Not Marble, nor the Gilded Monuments’. Write a letter to a friend telling her about the’ poem and your new found interest in poetry. Sign yourself as Amit/Amita of 39, D-Block, Model Town, Delhi. (Board Term-12011)

Ans.
39, D-Block Model Town Delhi
5 March, 2014

Dear Archit

Yesterday, I read a beautiful poem written by Shakespeare, ‘Not Marble, Nor the Gilded Monuments’. It is a sonnet which has fourteen lines in all. It highlights the smallness of our existence, our achievements and our false glory. After reading the poem I realized that ‘art’ is immortal whereas ‘time’ is very powerful. It leaves its marks on everything. Nobody can fight time. The poem has left a deep imprint on my mind. I have developed a great interest in poetry and will try to read some more poems.

Love
Amit

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Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Is Matter Around us Pure

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

1 MARK QUESTIONS
Question.1. Define atomic number. How it is denoted ?
Answer. Number of protons of an atom determines its atomic number. It is denoted by ‘Z’.

Question.2. What are nucleons ?
Answer. Protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom are called nucleons.

More Resources for CBSE Class 9

• NCERT Solutions
• NCERT Solutions Class 9 Maths
• NCERT Solutions Class 9 Science
• NCERT Solutions Class 9 Social Science
• NCERT Solutions Class 9 English
• NCERT Solutions Class 9 Hindi
• NCERT Solutions Class 9 Sanskrit
• NCERT Solutions Class 9 IT
• RD Sharma Class 9 Solutions

Question.3. Which study led to the conclusion that atoms are not indivisible ?
Answer.Study of static electricity and the condition under which electricity is conducted by different substances.

Question.4.Name the particles which determine the mass of an atom. [SAII – 2014]
Answer.Proton and neutron.

Question.5. Electron attributes negative charge, protons attribute positive charge. An atom has both but why there is no charge ? [SAII- 2014]
Answer. The negative and positive charges of electrons and protons respectively are equal in magnitude. So, the atom as a whole is electrically neutral.

Question.6. Write the charge and mass of an electron. [SAII – 2014]
Answer. Its mass is 1/2000 mes that of proton and it is negatively charged.

Question.7. What type of charge is present on the nucleus of an atom ?
Answer. Positive charge.

Question.8. Name one element, the nucleus of which does not have any neutron.
Answer. Hydrogen.

Question.9. Who discovered neutron ?
Answer. James Chadwick.

Question.10. What is the charge and mass of alpha particle ?
Answer.
Charge = + 2 units
Mass = 4 units

Question.11. Why did Rutherford select a gold foil for his experiment ? [SAII – 2014]
Answer. Rutherford selected a gold foil for his experiment as he wanted a very thin layer and gold is highly malleable.

Question.12. An uncharged particle is found in the nucleus of an atom. Identify this uncharged particle. [SAII -2014]
Answer. Neutron.

Question.13. Name the scientist who concluded That the size of nucleus is very small as compared to the size of atom.
Answer. Rutherford.

Question.14.Write the names of three elementary particles which constitute an atom.
Answer. Electron, proton and neutron.

Question.15. Helium atom has two electrons in its valence shell but its valency is not two. Explain. [SAII -2014]
Answer. Since its outermost-shell is completely filled, its combining capacity or valency is zero.

Question.16. What do you understand by an octet of electrons in the valence shell ?
Answer. When the outermost-shell of an atom of an element Has eight electrons, it is said to possess an octet.

Question.17. The sulphate of aluminium has a chemical formula AI₂(S0₄)₃. State the valency of aluminium. [SAII-2014]
Answer. 3.

Question.18. Write the symbols of two isotopes of uranium.
Answer.

Question.19. Write any two observations which support the fact that atoms are divisible.
Answer. Discovery of electrons and protons.

Question.20. If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it carry any charge or not ? [SAII-2011]
Answer. It will not carry any charge because the positive charge on the proton neutralise the negative charge on the electron.

Question.21. On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom, which subatomic particle is present in the nucleus of an atom?
Answer. The positively charged ‘Protons’.

2 MARKS QUESTIONS
Question.1.Describe briefly Thomson’s model of an atom. [SAII – 2014]
Answer. Thomson’s model of an atom :

1. An atom consists of a positively charged sphere and the electrons are embedded in it.
2. The negative and positive charges are equal in magnitude. So the atom as a whole is electrically neutral.

Question.2
(a) (i) Name the scientist who discovered neutrons.
(ii) State the charge and mass of a neutron.
(iii)Where is neutron located in an atom ?
(b) Helium atom has an atomic mass of 4 u and two protons in its nucleus. How many neutrons does it have? [SAII – 2014]
Answer.
(a) (i) J. Chadwick.
(ii) Neutron has no charge and its mass is equal to that of a proton.
(iii) It is located in the nucleus of an atom.
(b) Two.

Question.3.Mention two uses of isotopes in the field of medicine.
Answer.

1. An isotope of uranium is used as a fuel in nuclear reactors.
2. An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of cancer.
3. An isotope of iodine is used in the treatment of goitre.

Question.4. Write two differences between isobars and isotopes.
Answer.

Question.5.Give four characteristics of Isotopes.
Answer.

1.  All isotopes of an element consist of the same number of protons inside their nuclei. Hence, they have the same atomic number.
2. All isotopes of an element consist of different number of neutrons in their nuclei. Hence, they have different mass number.
3.  All isotopes of an element give identical chemical reactions.
4. Isotopes of an element have same electronic configuration.

Question.6.Give drawbacks of Thomson’s model.
Answer. Drawbacks of Thomson’s Model:

1.  It could not explain about the stability of an atom, i.e., how both positive and negative charges could remain so close together.
2. It could not explain the results of experiments (such as alpha ray scattering experiment) carried out by other scientists.

Question.7. Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells. [SAII – 2017]
Answer.

Question.8.What do you think would be the observation if the a-particle scattering experiment is carried out using a foil of a metal other than gold ?
Answer.
If experiment is carried out by using a foil of some other metal, then results would not have been such as most of the of particles will be deflected back. Gold can be beaten to an extremely thin sheet as it is extremely malleable metal. With the use of extremely thin gold foil, Rutherford could predict that, “Most of the space inside the atom is empty and nucleus is positively charged occupying a small volume within the atom”.

Question.9. Name the three subatomic particles of an atom. [SAII -2011]
Answer.

1. Electrons [negatively charged particles] which revolve around the nucleus.
2. Protons [positively charged particles] which are present in the nucleus.
3. Neutrons [having no charge] which are present in the nucleus.

Question.10. Helium atom has an atomic mass of 4 u and two protons in its nucleus. How many neutrons it have ? [SAII – 2011]
Answer.
Mass number = Number of protons + Number of neutrons 4 = 2 + No. of neutrons
Number of neutrons = (4 – 2) = 2.

Question.11. Write the distribution of electrons in carbon and sodium atoms. [SAII -2011]
Answer.

Question.12. If K and L shells of an atom are full, then what would be the total number of electrons in the atom? [SAII-2011]
Answer.
Number of electrons in full K-shell = 2 Number of electrons in full L-shell = 8
.^.. Total number of electrons in an atom is 2 + 8 = 10 electrons.

Question.13. If number of electrons in an Mom is 8 and number of protons is also 8, then (i) what is the atomic number of the atom ? and (ii) what is the charge on the atom ? [SAII -2011]
Answer.
(i) Atomic number
= Number of Protons = 8
(ii) The charge of the atom is zero, as total number of positive charge is equal to total number of negative charge.
Number of Protons = Number of Electrons
8 = 8 ,

Question.14. If Z = 3, what would be the valency of the element ? Also, name the element [SAII – 2011]
Answer.
Atomic number Z = 3
Electronic configuration = 2(K), T(L)
Valence shell has 1 electron in the outermost shell, so valency of element is 1. The element is Lithium.

Question.15
Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under :

Give the mass numbers of X and Y, What is the relation between the two species ?
Answer.
Mass number of X = No. of Protons + No. of Neutrons !
= 6 + 6 = 12 u
Mass number of Y = No. of Protons + No. of Neutrons
= 6 + 8 = 14 u
The species X and Y are isotopes, as they have same atomic number but different mass number.

3 MARKS QUESTIONS

Question.1. Elaborate the postulates put forward by E. Rutherford about the structure of atom based on the a-particle scattering experiment. [SAII – 2014]
Answer.

1. Most of the space inside the atom is empty because most of the alpha particles passed through the gold foil without getting deflected.
2. Very few particles are deflected from their path, indicating that positive charge of the atom occupies very little space.
3. A very small fraction of particles was deflected by 180°, indicating that all the positive charge and mass of the gold atom were concentrated in a small volume within the atom.

Question.2

1. What are canal rays ? Who discovered them ? What is the charge and mass of canal ray ?
2. How are the canal rays different from electrons in terms of charge and mass ? [SAII -2012]

Answer.

1. New radiations in a gas discharge tube which are positively charged are known as canal rays.
   They were discovered by E. Goldstein. Charge on canal rays is positive and its mass is one unit.
2. Electrons are negatively charged particles, mass of which is approximately 1/2000 that of – canal rays.

Question.3. List three main features of Rutherford’s nucleus model of an atom. [SAII – 2012]
Answer. On the basis of a-particle scattering experiment, Rutherford proposed a model of atom. According to him :

1. There is positively charged centre in an atom called the nucleus which contains the whole mass of the atom.
2. The electrons revolve around the nucleus.
3. The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom.

Question.4. List three subatomic particles of an atom. Compare them on the basis of relative mass and charge in a tabular form.4 [SAII -2014]
Answer.

Question.5. List the three observations made by Rutherford in the experiment of scattering of a-particles . by a gold foil.
Answer.

1. Most of the fast moving a-particles passed straight through the gold foil.
2. Some of the a-particles were deflected by the foil by small angles. .
3. Surprisingly one out of every 12000 particles appeared to rebound.

Question.6. Write the maximum number of electrons which can be accommodated in K, L, M, N shells and give the rule on basis of which it is decided. [SAII -2011]
Answer.

Question.7. (a) Which of the following electronic configurations are not possible ? Give reasons. (i) X: 2, 8, 4 (ii) Y : 3, 8, 2 (iii) Z : 2, 8, 9
(b) Write electronic configurations of the following elements and predict their valencies :
Fluorine : 9, Aluminium : 13, Argon : 18. [SAII – 2014]
Answer.

Question.8. Give drawbacks of Rutherford’s model.
Answer. Drawbacks of Rutherford’s Model:

1.  It could not explain the source of energy required for movement of electrons.
2.  Rutherford’s model could not explain as to why a moving charge (charged electron) does not lose energy and fail into the nucleus.
3. It could not explain about the emission of radiations of different frequencies by different atoms when heated.
4. It could not explain the stability of an atom when charged electrons are moving under the attractive force of positively charged nucleus.

Question.9. On the basis of Thomson’s model of an atom, explain how the atom is neutral as a whole.[SAII – 2011]
Answer.

Thomson proposed that:

1. An atom consists of a positively charged sphere and the electrons are embedded in it.
2. The negative and positive charges are equal in magnitude. So the atom as a whole is electrically neutral.

Question.10. How will you find the valency of chlorine, sulphur and magnesium ? [SAII -2011]
Answer.

Question.11.Valency of magnesium = Number of electrons in the valence shell = 2 Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars. [SAII – 2011]
Answer.

Question.12. Compare all the proposed models of an atom given in this Chapter.
Answer.

Question.13

Answer.

Question.14

Answer.

5 MARKS QUESTIONS

Question.1. Write the postulates of Bohr’s model of atom.
Answer. A Danish physicist, Neil’s Bohr proposed an atomic model in 1913. This model of atom is called Bohr’s model of atom.
Basic postulates of the Bohr’9 atomic model are :

1. In an atom, the electrons revolve around the nucleus in certain definite circular orbits.
   These circular orbits are also called energy shells or energy levels.
2. An electron revolving in a particular orbit has a fixed energy. While revolving in discrete orbits the electrons do not radiate energy.
3. The orbits or the energy shells are numbered as n = 1, 2, 3, 4, … etc. or K, L, M, N,… etc. shells starting from the nucleus. These integers 1, 2, 3, 4, … etc. are known as quantum numbers of the orbits.
4. An electron can lose or gain only certain definite energies.

Question. 2. Number of electrons, protons and neutrons in chemical species A, B, C and D is given below:

Now, answer the following questions :
(a) What is the mass number of A and B ?
(b) What is the atomic number of B ?
(c) Which two elements represent a pair of isotopes and why ?
(d) What is the valency of element C ?
Also, justify your answers. [SAII – 2014]
Answer.
(a) Mass number of A=3 + 4 = 7 Mass number of B = 9 + 8 = 17
(b) Atomic number of B = Number of protons = 9
(c) Elements C and D represent a pair of isotopes because their atomic numbers are the same.
(d) Electronic configuration of C (8) = 2, 6. So its valency is 2.

Question.3. Read the information given in the table and answer the following questions :

(i) How many pairs of isotopes are there amongst the given atoms ?
(ii) Find a pair of isobars.
(iii) Find an element with valency 2.
(iv) Find an element with 5 valence electrons.
(v) Calculate the number of different subatomic particles in atom C.
Answer.
(i) Two pairs : (a) Elements B and C (b) Elements D and E.
(ii) Elements A and C

(iii) Elements D and E are having valency 2.
(iv)Element A has 5 valence electrons.
(v) Number of protons : 6 Number of neutrons : 8 Number of electrons : 6

Question.4.With the help of labelled diagram describe in brief the Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment. Write any three important conclusions drawn from the experiment. [SAII – 2012, 2014]
Answer.
Rutherford took a very thin gold foil and born bared it with a-particles.He observed that:

1. Most of the fast moving a-particles passed straight through the gold foil.
2. Some of the alpha-particles were deflected by the foil by small angle.
3. Out of every 12000 particles, one appeared to rebound.

From the above observations he concluded :

1. There is a positively charged centre in an atom called the nucleus. Nearly all mass of an
   atom resides in the nucleus.
2. The electrons revolve around the nucleus in well defined orbits.
   
3. The size of the nucleus is very small as compared with the size of the atom.

Question.5 Complete the following table :

Answer.

APPLICATION BASED QUESTIONS

Question.1. State the major drawback in Rutherford’s model of an atom. Mention two features of Bohr’s model which helped compensate this drawback. [SAII – 2014]
Answer. The major drawback of Rutherford’s model of an atom is that it does not explain the stability of an atom. Any particle in a circular orbit would undergo acceleration. During acceleration, charged particles would radiate energy. Thus, the revolving electron would lose energy and finally fall into the nucleus.
Two features of Bohr’s model which helped compensate this drawback :

1. Only certain special orbits known as discrete orbits of electrons are allowed inside the atom.
2.  While revolving in these discrete orbits, the electrons do not radiate energy.

Question.2
.
Answer.
(a) 8.
(b) 16.
(c) Number of neutrons = Mass number – Atomic number
= 16 — 8 = 8.

Question.3. Define isotopes. Why do isotopes have same atomic number but different mass number ? Explain with the help of an example. [SAII – 2014]
Answer.

Question.4
(a) What is the relationship between two elements X and Y whose atomic numbers are 18 and 20 respectively but their mass numbers remain same as 40 ?
(b) Are their chemical properties same or different? Explain.
(c) Which has more number of electrons Na or Na+ ? Why ? [SAII – 2014]
Answer.
(a) Elements X and Y are isobars.
(b) Chemical properties of an element depends upon its atomic number. Since both the
elements have different atomic numbers, their chemical properties will be different.
(c) Na has more number of electrons because Na+ has lost an electron.

Question.5. In the Gold foil experiment of Geiger and Marsden, that paved the way for Rutherford’s model of an atom, ∼ 1.00% of the a-particles were found to deflect at angles > 50°. If one mole of a-particles were bombarded on the gold foil, compute the Humber of a-particles that would deflect at angles less than 50°.
Answer.

Question.6. If K and L shells of an atom are full, then what would be the total number of electrons in the atom ? What is the valency of this element ? Name the element. [SAII – 2012]
Answer. The maximum number of electrons that can occupy K and L shells of an atom are 2 and 8 respectively. Therefore, if K and L shells of an atom are full then the total number of electrons in the atom would be (2 + 8) = 10 electrons. So the valency of this element is zero. The element is neon (Ne).

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question.1. One electron is present in the outermost shell of the atom of an element X. What would be the nature and value of charge on the ion formed if this electron is removed from the outermost shell ?
Answer. +1.

Question.2. Find put the valency of the atom represented by the fig. (a) and (b).

Answer.(a) 0 (b) 0

Question.3. Write down the electron distribution of chlorine atom. How many electrons are there in the L-shell ? (Atomic number of chlorine is 17).
Answer. 2, 8, 7. The L-shell has eight electrons.

Question.4. In the atom of an element X, 6 electrons are present in the outermost shell. If it acquires noble gas configuration by accepting requisite number of electrons, then what would be the charge on the ion so formed ?
Answer. -2.

Question. 5. What information do you get from the fig. about the atomic number, mass number and valency of atoms X, Y and Z ? Give your answer in a tabular form.
Answer.

Question. 6. The ratio of the radii of hydrogen atom and its nucleus is  10^5. Assuming the atom and the nucleus to be spherical, (i) What will be the ratio of their sizes ? (ii) If atom is represented by planet earth ‘ R_e‘ = 6.4 x  10⁶ m, estimate the size of the nucleus.
Answer.

Question.7. In what way is the Rutherford’s atomic model different from that of Thomson’s atomic model ?
Answer. Rutherford proposed a model in which electrons revolve around the nucleus in well-defined orbits. There is a positively charged center in an atom called the nucleus. He also proposed :that the size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom and nearly all the mass of an atom is centered in the nuclei is. Whereas Thomson proposed the model of an atom to be similar to a Christmas pudding. The electrons are studded like currants in a positively charged sphere like Christmas pudding and the mass of the atom was supposed to be uniformly distributed.

Question.8. In response to a question, a student stated that in an atom, the number of protons is greater than the number of neutrons, which in turn is greater than the number of electrons. Do you agree with the statement ? Justify your answer.
Answer. No, the statement is incorrect. In an atom, the number of protons and electrons is always equal.

Reasoning Questions

Question.1. Give reason for the following :
(а) Ions are more stable than atoms.
(b) Noble gases show low reactivity.
(c) An atom is electrically neutral. [SAII -2014]
Answer.
(a) Ions are more stable than atoms because except the atoms of inert gases, the outermost shell of the atoms is incomplete. In order to complete octet, they lose or gain electrons.
(b) The outermost shell of the atoms of noble gases are complete. So they show little chemical
activity. . .
(c) Because number of protons (+ve charge) inside the nucleus are equal to the number of electrons (-ve charge) outside the nucleus.

Question.2. Why atomic number is more fundamental attribute of an element ?
Answer.Atomic number is more fundamental attribute of element. In fact, elements are defined by the number of protons they possess. Chemical properties of an element change with the change in atomic number.

Question.3. Give reasons:
(а) Mass number of an atom excludes the mass of an electron.
(b) Nucleus of art atom is charged.
(c) Alpha-particle scattering experiment was possible by using gold foil only and not by foil bf any other mfetal. 4 [SAII – 2014]
Answer.
(a) Mass number of an atom excludes the mass of an electron because electrons have negligible mass in comparison to protons and neutrons.
(b) Nucleus of an atom consists orprotons and neutrons. Protons are positively charged particles. So the nucleus of an atom is charged.
(c) Because an extremely thin film was required for the experiment and it was only possible by using gold, as gold is a highly malleable metal.

Question.4
(a) An ion M²⁺ contains 10 electrons and 12 neutrons. What is the atomic number and mass number of the element M ?
(b) Is it possible in an atom to have 12 protons and 13 electrons ? Explain. [SAII -2014]
(c) Why helium gas is inert ?
Answer.
(a) Atomic number = 12,
Mass number = 24.
(b) No, it is not possible. An atom is electrically neutral. The number of positively charged particles (protons) is always equal to the number of negatively charged particles (electrons).
(c) HeliUm atom has completely filled outermost-shell. Thus, it is inert.

Question.5. State reason for the following statements:

1.  Some elements possess fractional atomic mass.
2. Isotopes of an element have similar chemical properties.
3.  Noble gases are inert. [SAII – 2012]

Answer.

1. Some elements possess fractional atomic mass because they occur in nature in different isotopic forms. So accordingly their average mass is calculated.
2. Isotopes of an element have similar chemical properties because they have the same atomic number and valence electrons.
3. The outermost-shell of the atoms of noble gases are completely filled up. So they do not show affinity towards chemical reactions.

Question.6. Will ³⁵cI and ³⁷cI have different valencies ? Justify your answer.
Answer. No,  ³⁵cI and ³⁷cI are isotopes of an element.

Question.7. Why did Rutherford select a gold foil in his a-ray scattering experiment ?
Answer. Because gold has high malleability.

Question.8. Is it possible for the atom of an element to have one electron, one proton and no neutron. If so, name the element.
Answer.

Question.9. Why do Helium, Neon and Argon have a zero valency ?
Answer. Helium has two electrons in its only energy shell while Argon and Neon have eight electrons in their valence shells. As these have maximum number of electrons in their valence shells, they do not have any tendency to combine with other elements. Hence, they have a valency equal to zero.

Question.10. Give reasons for the following :
(а) The valency of Na is 1 and not 7.
(b) When an atom loses or gains electrons it becomes stable.
Answer.
(a) it is easy for Na atom to lose one electron instead of gaining seven electrons. So valency of Na is one and not seven
(b) For stability of an atom it must have either 2 or 8 electrons in the outermost orbit. So by losing or gaining electrons it reaches to the electronic configuration of the nearest noble gas.

Important Topics/Areas/Questions which, are
frequently asked in the examination

Question.1

(a) Find the number of electrons present in A and B.
(b) Find the number of nucleons present in A and B.
(c) Explain the special*termaused to represent A and B. [SAII – 2014]
Answer.
(a) The elements A and B have 20 and 18 electrons respectively.
(b) Both have 40 nucleons. ‘
(c) Isobars.

Question. 2. Write the conclusions drawn by Rutherford for the following observing during his a-scattering experiment:
(a) Most of the alpha-particles passed straight through the gold foil.
(b) Some alpha-particles getting deflected from their path.
(c) Very small fraction of alpha-particles getting deflected by 180°. [SAII -2014]
Answer.
(a) Most of the space inside the atom is empty.
(b) It indicates that the positive charge of the atom occupies a very little space.
(c) All the positive charge and mass of the gold atom were concentrated in a very small volume within the atom.

Question.3. Define the following terms:
(a) Electronic configuration
(b) Valence shell
(c) Valency
Answer.
(a) The distribution of electrons amongst different orbits of an atom is known as electronic configuration.
(b) The outermost-shell of an atom is called its valence shell.
(c) The combining capacity of an atom is called its valency.

Question. 4

Answer.
(a) (i) 16, (ii) 32, (iii) Electronic configuration : 2, 8, 6.
(b) Element Z, having atomic number 16 is chemically more reactive than element X of atomic number 18. It is because the outermost-shell of the atom of element Z has six electrons only and has to complete its octet whereas the outermost-shell of the atom of element X is completely filled up i.e., its octet is complete and thus it shows little chemical activity.

Question.5. What kind of elements have a tendency to lose electrons ? What are they commonly called ?
Answer. The elements having 1, 2 or 3 valence electrons have the tendency to lose electrons. They are commonly called metals.

Question.6. What kind of elements have a tendency to gain electrons ? What are they commonly called ?
Answer. The elements having 5, 6 or 7 valence electrons have the tendency to gain electrons. They are commonly called as non-metals.

The post Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Science Is Matter Around us Pure appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Important  Questions for CBSE Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

1 MARK QUESTIONS
Question. 1. Name the scientist who laid the foundation of chemical sciences. How ?
Answer. Antoine Laurent Lavoisier, by establishing two important laws of chemical combination.

Question. 2. Define law of conservation of mass.
Answer. It states that, ‘Mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.’ In other-words, the mass of the reactants must be equal to the mass of products.

More Resources for CBSE Class 9

• NCERT Solutions
• NCERT Solutions Class 9 Maths
• NCERT Solutions Class 9 Science
• NCERT Solutions Class 9 Social Science
• NCERT Solutions Class 9 English
• NCERT Solutions Class 9 Hindi
• NCERT Solutions Class 9 Sanskrit
• NCERT Solutions Class 9 IT
• RD Sharma Class 9 Solutions

Question. 3. Define law of constant proportion.
Answer. It states that, ‘In a pure chemical substance, the elements are always present in definite proportions by mass’.

Question. 4. Which organisation approves the names of elements all over the world ? Write the symbol of gold. [SA II-2014]
Answer.

• International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAG).
• Au.

Question. 5. Write the symbols of tungsten and iron.
Answer. (i) Tungsten (W) (ii) Iron (Fe).

Question. 6. Name the element which is used as the reference for atomic mass.
Answer. Carbon.

Question. 7. ‘Atoms of most elements are not able to exist independently’. Name two atoms which exist as independent atoms. [SA II-2012]
Answer. Noble gases such as argon (Ar), helium (He) exist as independent atoms.

Question. 8. What is the number of electrons in Mg atom and ion ? [SA II-2014]
Answer.

Question. 9. Which of the following species is electrically neutral and why ? [SA II-2014]
Answer.

Question. 10. Write atomicity of the following:
(i) Sulphur, (ii) Phosphorus [SA 11-2014]
Answer. (i) Polyatomic, (ii) Tetra atomic.

Question. 11. Define atomicity.
Answer. The number of atoms present in one molecule of an element or a compound is known as its atomicity.

Question. 12. What are polyatomic ions ? Give two examples.
Answer. A group of atoms having a charge is known as polyatomic ion.
Examples :

Question. 13. What is the atomicity of Argon ?
Answer. Mono atomic.

Question. 14. Give one relevant reason why scientists choose 1/16 of the mass of an atom of naturally occurring oxygen as the atomic mass unit.
Answer. Initially 1/16th of the mass of naturally occurring oxygen was taken as the atomic mass unit because this unit gave masses of most of the elements as whole numbers.

Question. 15. State the number of hydrogen atoms in 1 g of hydrogen.
Answer. One gram of hydrogen = One mole
=6.022 x atoms

Question. 16. What is molar mass ? What are its units ?
Answer. The mass of one mole of a substance is called its molar mass. Its unit is gram per mole (g ).

Question. 17. Define atomic mass unit.
Answer. One atomic mass unit is a mass unit equal to exactly one twelfth (1/12th) the mass of one atom of carbon -12.

Question. 18. The relative atomic mass of oxygen atom is 16. Explain its meaning.
Answer. The relative atomic mass of an atom is the average mass of the atom, as compared to 1/12th the mass of one carbon-12 atom.

Question. 19. Distinguish between molecular mass and molar mass.
Answer. The molecular mass of a substance is the sum of the atomic masses of all atoms in a molecule, whereas the mass of 1 mole of any substance is called its molar mass.

Question. 20. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is the result of the law of conservation of mass ? [SAII-2011]
Answer. Atoms are indivisible particles, which cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.

Question. 21.Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory can explain the law of definite proportions ? [SAII-2011]
Answer. Atoms combine in the ratio of small numbers to form compounds. In a compound, the relative number and kinds of atoms are constant.

Question. 22. Define the atomic mass unit. [SAII -2011]
Answer. The mass of 1/12 part of C-12 is equivalent to one atomic mass unit. Previous, it was denoted by symbol amu but now, these days it is denoted by symbol u.

Question. 23. Why is it not possible to see an atom with naked eyes ?
Answer. Because an atom is too small, i.e., the atomic radii of an atom is of the order m to m.

Question. 24. What is meant by the term chemical formula ?
Answer. The chemical formula of a compound is a symbolic representation of its composition and actual number of atoms in one molecule of a pure substance, may be an atom or a compound.

Question. 25. How many atoms are present in a (i) S molecule and (ii)ion ? [SAII – 2011]
Answer. (i) In S, 3 atoms are present (ii) In , 5 atoms are present.

2 MARKS QUESTIONS
Question. 1. Name the scientists whose experimentation established laws of chemical combination. Name the laws also. [SAII-2014]
Answer. Experimentation done by Antoine Laurent Lavoisier and Joseph L Broust established two laws of chemical combination. These laws are :(i) Law of conservation of mass.
(ii) Law of constant proportions.

Question. 2. Give two drawbacks of Dalton’s atomic theory.
Answer. Drawbacks of Dalton’s Atomic Theory :
(i) According to modern theory, atom is not the ultimate indivisible particle of matter. Today, we know that atoms are divisible, i.e., they are themselves made-up of particles (protons, electrons, neutrons, etc.).
(ii) In case of isotopes of an element, the assumption that the atoms of the same element have same mass does not hold good.

Question. 3. Calculate molar mass of sulphuric acid.
Answer.

Question. 4. Give the electronic configuration of:
(i) Al atom and its ion
(ii) O atom and its ion
Answer.

Question. 5. Give one example each of (i) Monovalent cation (ii) Bivalent cation (iii) Monovalent anion (iv) Bivalent anion
Answer.

Question. 6. How would you differentiate between a molecule of element and a molecule of compound ? Write one example of each type. [SA II-2012]
Answer. Molecule of an element is made-up of only one kind of atoms, e.g., etc. Molecule of a compound is made-up of two or more different kinds of atoms in a fixed ratio, e.g.,.

Question. 7. What is meant by a chemical formula ? Give examples. [SA II-2012]
Answer. A chemical formula of a compound shows its constituent elements and the number of atoms of each combining element.
e.g., Chemical formula of ammonia is ,water is ,carbon dioxide is

Question. 8. What is meant by a molecule ? Give examples. [SA II-2012]
Answer. A molecule is the smallest particle of an element or a compound capable of independent existence under ordinary conditions. It shows all the properties of the substance. e.g., molecule of oxygen is , ozone is , phosphorus is , sulphur is , etc.

Question. 9. Define one mole, illustrate its relationship with Avogadro constant.
Answer. One mole of any species (atoms, molecules, ions or particles) is that quantity in number having a mass equal to its atomic or molecular mass in grams.
The number of particles (atoms, molecules or ions) present in 1 mole of any substance is fixed, with a value of 6.022 x . This number is called Avogadro constant or Avogadro number.

Question. 10. Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the ratio of 1:8 by mass to form water. What mass of oxygen gas would be required to react completely with 3 g of hydrogen gas ? [SAII -2011]
Answer. 1 g of hydrogen reacts with oxygen = 8 g
3 g of hydrogen reacts with oxygen
= 8 x 3 g = 24 g

Question. 11. Write down the formula of : [SAII-2011]
(i) Sodium oxide (ii) Aluminium chloride
(iii) Sodium sulphide (iv) Magnesium hydroxide
Answer.

Question. 12. When 3.0 g of carbon is burnt in 8.00 g oxygen, 11.00 g of carbon dioxide is produced. What mass of carbon dioxide will be formed when 3.00 g of carbon is burnt in 50.00 g of oxygen ? Which law of chemical combination will govern your answer ? [SAII -2011]
Answer. 3 g of carbon produce carbon dioxide = 11 g.
The remaining oxygen 50 g – 8 g = 42 g does not take part in the reaction.
The law of definite proportion is governed by the above data.

Question. 13. What are polyatomic ions ? Give examples. [SAII -2011]
Answer. Polyatomic ions: Two or more different atoms unite to form a charged particle is called polyatomic ions.
Examples: Phosphate, Nitrate.

Question. 14. Give the names of the elements present in the following compounds:
(a) Quicklime (b) Hydrogen bromide
(c) Baking powder (d) Potassium sulphate.
Answer.

Question. 15. What is the mass of: [SAII -2011]
(a) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms ?
(b) 0.5 mole of water molecules ?
Answer. (a) 1 mole of oxygen atoms = 1 x 16 – 16 g
0.2 mole of oxygen atoms – 16 g x 0.2 = 3.2 g
(b) 1 mole of water () molecules = 2 x 1 g + 1 x 16 g=18 g
0.5 mole of water () molecules – 18 g x 0.5 = 9.0 g

3 MARKS QUESTIONS
Question. 1. Write the chemical symbols of two elements:
(i) Which are formed from the first letter of the elements’ name ?
(ii) Whose names have been taken from the names of the elements in Latin ?
(iii) Which are formed from the first two letters of the elements’ name ?
Answer. (i) N (Nitrogen), F(Fluorine), I (Iodine), O (Oxygen) (any two)
(ii) Fe (Ferrum), Cu (Cuprum), Ag (Argentum), Au (Aurum) (any two)
(iii) Ca (Calcium), He (Helium), Al (Aluminium), Si (Silicon) (any two)

Question. 2. Write the correct symbols of the following elements which are written incorrectly. (i) FE (Iron) (ii) AL (Aluminium) (iii) CO (Cobalt) (iv) AG (silver) (v) NA (sodium) (vi) AR (Argon)
Answer. (i) Fe (ii) Al (iii) Co (iv) Ag (v) Na (vi) Ar

Question. 3. State two examples in each case and write their chemical formulae:
(a) Molecules having (me kind of atoms only.
(b) Molecules having two different kinds of atoms.
(c) Molecules having three different kinds of atoms.
Answer.

Question. 4. State what are ions. Write the formulae of two divalent cations and anions each.
Answer. Ions are charged particles of atoms or group of atoms Cations
Anions :

Question. 5. Classify the following compounds diatomic, triatomic and polyatomic molecules: [SAII-2014]

Answer. Diatomic :
Tri atomic :
Polyatomic :

Question. 6. Write the names of the following compounds:

Answer. (a) Nickel sulphide, (b) Magnesium nitrate,
(c) Sodium sulphate, (d) Aluminium nitrate,
(e) Potassium phosphate, (f) Calcium nitride

Question. 7. Write the chemical names of the following compounds:

Answer. (a) Potassium sulphate, (b) Magnesium phosphate,
(c) Ammonium chloride, (d) Zinc sulphide,
(e) Sodium nitride, (f) Silver bromide.

Question. 8. In a reaction, 5.3 g of sodium carbonate reacted with 6 g of ethanoic acid. The products were 2.2 g of carbon dioxide, 0.9 g water and 8.2 g of sodium ethanoate. Show that these observations are in agreement with the law of conservation of mass, sodium carbonate + ethanoic acid —> sodium ethanoate + carbon dioxide + water.
Answer. Mass of reactants before experiment
= Mass of sodium carbonate + Mass of ethanoic acid
= 5.3 g + 6g = 11.3 g
Mass of products after experiment
= Mass of sodium ethanoate + Mass of carbon dioxide + Mass of water
=8.2 g + 2.2 g +0.9 g = 11.3 g
The mass of reactants is equal to the mass of products, therefore, it proves law of conservation of mass.

Question. 9. Write down the names of compounds represented by the following formulae: [SAII -2011]

Answer.

Question. 10. Calculate the formula unit masses of ZnO, O, C, given atomic masses of Zn = 65u, Na = 23u, K = 39 u, C =3 12 u, and O = 16 u. [SAII – 2015]
Answer.

Question. 11. If one mole of carbon atoms weighs 12 gram, what is the mass (in gram) of 1 atom of carbon? [SAII-2011]
Answer.

Question. 12. A 0.24 g sample of compound of oxygen and boron was found by analysis to contain 0.096 g of boron and 0.144 g of oxygen. Calculate the percentage composition of the compound by weight.
Answer.

Question. 13. Write the chemical formulae of the following: [SAII-2015]
(a) Magnesium chloride (b) Calcium oxide
(c) Copper nitrate (d) Aluminium chloride
(e)Calcium carbonate. (f) Ammonium hydroxide
Answer.

Question. 14. What is the mass of:
(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms ?
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms (Atomic mass of aluminium = 27) ?
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite () ? [SAII-2011]
Answer. (a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms
= 1 x gram atomic mass of nitrogen atom
= 1 x 14 g = 14 g
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms
= 4 x gram atomic mass of aluminium atoms
= 4 x 27 g = 108 g
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite ()
= 10 (2 x gram atomic mass of Na + 1 x gram atomic mass of sulphur + 3 x- gram atomic mass of oxygen)
= 10(2x23g+1 x32g + 3x16g)
= 10 (46 g + 32 g + 48 g)
= 10 x 126 g = 1260 g

Question. 15. Convert into mole. (a)12 g of oxygen gas (b) 20 g of water (c) 22 g of carbon dioxide. [SAII-2011]
Answer.

Question. 16. Calculate the number of molecules of sulphur () present in 16 g of solid sulphur. [SAII – 2011]
Answer.

Question. 17. Calculate the number of aluminium ions present in 0.051 g of aluminium oxide.(Hint: The mass of an ion is the same as that of an atom of the same element. Atomic mass of Al = 27 u). [SAII-2011]
Answer.

5 MARKS QUESTIONS
Question. 1. Give the postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory.
Answer.

1. Every element is composed of extremely small particles called atoms.
2. Atoms of a given element are identical, both in mass and properties. Different chemical elements have different kinds of atoms; in particular, their atoms have different masses.
3.  Atoms cannot be created, destroyed or transformed into atoms of other elements.
4.  Compounds are formed when atoms of different elements combine with each other in small whole number ratios.
5. The relative number and kinds of atoms in a given compound are constant.

Question. 2. (a) Give one point of difference between an atom and an ion.
(b) Give one example each of a polyatomic cation and an anion.
(c) Identify the correct chemical name of FeS: Ferrous sulphate, Ferrous sulphide, Ferrous sulphite.
(d) Write the chemical formula for the chloride of magnesium. [SAII-2014]
Answer.

Question. 3. (a) Define: (i) Molecular mass, (ii) Avogadro constant.
(b) Calculate the number of molecules in 50 g of CaC. (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 u, C = 12 u and O = 16 u)
(c) If one mole of sodium atom weighs 23 g, what is the mass (in g) of one atom of sodium ?
Answer.

Question. 4. Calculate the molecular masses of , , C, C, C, , , N, COH, S.
Answer.

Question. 5. Calculate the molar mass of the following substances:
(a) Ethyne, (b) Sulphur molecule,
(c) Phosphorus molecule, (Atomic mass of phosphorus = 31)
(d) Hydrochloric acid, HCI (e) Nitric acid, HN [SAII-2011]
Answer.

APPLICATION BASED QUESTIONS

Question. 1. When 3.0 g of magnesium is burnt in 2.00 g of oxygen, 5.00 g of magnesium oxide is produced. What mass of magnesium oxide will be formed when 3.00 g magnesium is burnt in 5.00 g of oxygen ? Which law of chemical combination will govern your answer ? State the law.[SAII-2014]
Answer. When 3.0 g of magnesium is burnt in 2.00 g of oxygen, 5.00 g of magnesium oxide is produced. It means magnesium and oxygen are combined in the ratio of 3 : 2 to form magnesium oxide.
Thus, when 3.00 g of magnesium is burnt in 5.00 g of oxygen, 5.00 g of magnesium oxide will be formed and the remaining oxygen will be left unused.
It is governed by law of definite proportion.
It states that in a chemical substance, the elements are always present in definite proportions by mass.

Question. 2. State the law of conservation of mass. Is this law applicable to the chemical reactions ? Elaborate your answer with the help of an example. [SAII-2014]
Answer. Law ,of conservation of mass states that mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
Yes, this law is applicable to the chemical reactions.
In all chemical reactions, there is only exchange of reactants taking place when products are formed. There is no loss or gain of mass.
For example, in the following reaction, the total mass of the reactants is equal to the total mass of the products formed.

Question. 3. A sample of vitamin C is known to contain 2.58 x oxygen atoms. How many moles of oxygen atoms are present in the sample ?
Answer.

Question. 4. Sidak took 5 moles of carbon atoms in a container and Sehaj also took 5 moles of sodium atoms in another container of same weight, (a) Whose container is heavier ? (b) Whose container has more number of atoms ?
Answer. (a) Mass of sodium atoms carried by Sehaj = (5 x 23) g = 115 g While, mass of carbon atom carried by Sidak = (5 x 12) g = 60 g Thus, Sehaj’s container is heavy.
(b) Both the bags have same number of atoms as they have same number of moles of atoms.

Question. 5. Fill in the missing data in the table:

Answer.

Question. 6. The visible universe is estimated to contain stars. How many moles of stars are present in the visible universe ?
Answer.

Question. 7. The formula unit of mass of 0 is 62 U. Calculate the atomic mass of sodium (Na). (Given atomic mass of oxygen = 16)
Answer.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question. 1. Calcium chloride when dissolved in water dissociates into its ions according to the following equation: Calculate the number of ions obtained from Ca when 222 g of it is dissolved in water.
Answer.

Question. 2. The difference in the mass of 100 moles each of sodium atoms and sodium ions is 5.48002 g. Compute the mass of an electron.
Answer. A sodium atom and ion, differ by one electron. For 100 moles each of sodium atoms and ions there would be a difference of 100 moles of electrons.
Mass of 100 moles of electrons = 5.48002 g

Question. 3. Cinnabar (HgS) is a prominent ore of mercury. How many grams of mercury is present in 225 g of pure HgS ? Molar mass of Hg and S are 200.6 g and 32 g respectively.
Answer.

Question. 4. The mass of one steel screw is 4.11 g. Find the mass of one mole of these steel screws. Compare this value with the mass of the earth (5.98 x 1024kg). Which one of the two is heavier and by how many times ?
Answer.

Question. 5. Compute the difference in masses of moles each of magnesium atoms and magnesium ions.
(Mass of an electron = 9.1 x kg)
Answer.

Question. 6. Which has more number of atoms ? (i) 100 g of or (ii) 100 g of N
Answer.

Question. 7. Compute the number of ions present in 5.85 g of sodium chloride.
Answer.

Question. 8. A gold sample contains 90% of gold and the rest copper. How many atoms of gold are present in one gram of this sample of gold ?
Answer.

Question. 9. What are ionic and molecular compounds ? Give examples.
Answer. Atoms of different elements join together in definite proportions to form molecules of compounds.
Examples : water, ammonia, carbon dioxide. Compounds composed of metals and non-metals contain charged species. The charged species are known as ions. An ion is a charged particle and can be negatively or positively charged. A negatively charged ion is called an anion and the positively charged ion is called cation. Examples : sodium chloride, calcium oxide.

Question. 10. Compute the difference in masses of one mole each of aluminium atoms and one mole of its ions. (Mass of an electron is 9.1 x g). Which one is heavier ?
Answer.

Question. 11. A silver ornament of mass ‘m’ gram is polished with gold equivalent to 1 % of the mass of silver. Compute the ratio of the number of atoms of gold and silver in the ornament.
Answer.

Question. 12. A sample of ethane () gas has the same mass as 1.5 x molecules of methane (C). How many molecules does the sample of gas contain ?
Answer.

Question. 13. (a) Calculate the number of molecules of S present in 44 g of it.
(b) If one mole of oxygen atoms weighs 16 grams, find the mass of one atom of oxygen in (grams).
Answer.

Question. 14. Sodium is represented as
(а) What is its atomic mass ?
(b) Write its gram atomic mass.
(c) How many atoms of Na will be there in 11.5 g of the sample ?
Answer.

Reasoning Questions

Question. 1. (а) Why does not atomic mass of an element represent the actual mass of its atom ?
(b) “The atomic mass of an element is in fraction.” What does it mean ?
Answer. (a) Atoms of different elements are very small and their actual masses are extremely small. To solve this problem we consider the relative atomic mass of the element. The relative atomic mass of hydrogen is 1 u and its corresponding gram atomic mass is 1 g.
(b) If the atomic mass of an element is in fraction this means that it exists in the form of isotopes. The atomic mass of such element is the average of atomic masses of its isotopes and is generally in fraction.

Question. 2. Explain why the number of atoms in one mole of hydrogen gas is double the number of atoms in one mote of Helium gas ?
Answer. The number of atoms in one mole of hydrogen gas is double the number of atoms in one mole of helium gas because hydrogen molecule is diatomic i.e., a molecule of hydrogen consists of two atoms of hydrogen, whereas helium is monoatomic.

Question. 3. Why atoms form ions ?
Answer. In order to become stable by acquiring the stable electronic configuration of nearest noble gas.

Important Topics/Areas/Questions which are frequently asked in the examination

Question. 1. Write three points of difference between an atom and a molecule. [SAII-2011 ]
Or
What is the difference between an atom and a molecule ? [SAII-2011, 2012]
Answer.

Question. 2. Define formula unit mass. Calculate formula unit mass of NaCI (Atomic mass of Na = 23 u, Cl = 35.5 u)
Answer. The formula unit mass is same as molecular mass which is equal to the sum of masses of atoms present in a formula unit.
Formula unit mass of NaCI = (23 + 35.5) = 58.5 u.

Question. 3. (a) Give an example in each of the following cases:
(i) a divalent anion. (ii) a trivalent cation.
(iii) a monovalent anion.
(b) Calculate the mass of the following:
(i) 2 moles of carbon dioxide. (ii) 6.022 x molecules of carbon dioxide.
Answer.

Question. 4. (a) Write the chemical formulae of the following:
(i) Calcium oxide, (ii) Magnesium chloride, (iii) Aluminium hydroxide
(b) Calculate the number of molecules of sulphur () present in 128 g of solid sulphur. (Atomic mass S = 32 u)
Answer.

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The French Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Social Science History Chapter 1

Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 1 The French Revolution

The French Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was the ruler of France during the revolution?
Answer:
Louis XVI of the Bourbon family was the ruler of France.

Question 2.
Name the three ‘Estates’ into which the French society was divided before the Revolution.
Answer:

• The First Estate — Clergy
• The Second Estate — Nobility
• The Third Estate — Common people.

Question 3.
When did the French Revolution occur?
Answer:
14th July, 1789.

Question 4.
What was tithes?
Answer:
It was a tax levied by the church, comprising one-tenth of the agricultural produce.

Question 5.
What was taille?
Answer:
It was a direct tax to be paid to the State.

Question 6.
Who formed the National Assembly in France in 1789?
Answer:
Third Estate

Question 7.
To whom was the taxes called Tithes payable by the peasants in the eighteenth century France?
Answer:
Church.

Question 8.
Which class of society in France was behind the French Revolution?
Answer:
Middle class.

Question 9.
What was the slogan of the French revolutionaries?
Answer:
Liberty, Fraternity and Equality.

Question 10.
On what charges was Louis XVI of France sentenced to death?
Answer:
Treason.

Question 11.
What was feudal system?
Answer:
It was a system under which land was granted to landlords in return for military or labour services.

Question 12.
Which philosopher had forwarded the principle of voting by the assembly as a whole, where each member should have one vote, during the rule of louis XVI?
Answer:
Rousseau.

Question 13.
In which book did Rousseau mention the idea of one person, one vote?
Answer:
The Social Contract.

Question 14.
Give the titles of the books written by :
(a) Rousseau
(b) Charles Montesquieu
Answer:
(a) The Social Contract,
(b) The Spirit of the Laws.

Question 15.
What was the theme of the book ‘The Spirit of the Laws’ written by Montesquieu?
Answer:
Montesquieu proposed a division of power within the government between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary.

Question 16.
Which book has proposed a division of power within government?
Answer:
‘The Spirit of the Laws’.

Question 17.
Who proposed a division of power within government?
Answer:
Montesquieu.

Question 18.
Name any four French philosophers who inspired the French people to revolt.
Answer:

• Jean Jacques Rousseau
• Montesquieu
• Voltaire
• Maximilian Robespierre.

Question 19.
Why was Bastille hated by the French people?
Answer:
Bastille was hated because it stood for the despotic power of the king.

Question 20.
Which Battle sealed the Fate of France in 1815?
Answer:
Battle of Waterloo.

Question 21.
When did France abolish the monarchy and became republic?
Answer:
21st September, 1792.

Question 22.
Name any one class that did not belong to Jacobin Club?
Answer:
Nobles.

Question 23.
Who was the leader of the Jacobin Club?
Answer:
Maximilian Robespierre.

Question 24.
Which period of Famce’s history is known as ‘the Terror’.
Answer:
The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred to as the Reign cn terror.

Question 25.
Name the most popular political club started by the French women.
Answer:
Society of Revolutionary Republican women.

Question 26.
Which law was introduced by revolutionary government in France as help to improve the lives of women? HOTS
Answer:
Schooling was made compulsory for girls.

Question 27.
Who abolished slavery in France?
Answer:
The Jacobin Clubs.

Question 28.
‘The National Assembly completed the draft of the Constitution in 1791’. Mention any two features of the Constitution.
Answer:

• It vested the power to make laws in the hands of National Assembly,
• It limited the powers of the monarch. Now powers were decentralised and assigned to different institutions.

Question 29.
Who wrote the ‘Two Treatises of Government’?
Answer:
John Locke.

Question 30.
What does the Red Cap worn by Sans-Culottes in France symbolize?
Answer:
Liberty.

Question 31.
Name the political body to which the three estates of the French society sent their representatives? [HOTS ]
Answer:
The Estates General was a political body to which the three estates sent their representatives.

The French Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Ideas of liberty and democratic rights were the most important legacy of the French Revolution”. Explain the statement in the light of French Revolution.
Answer:

• People of Third Estate demanded a society based on freedom and opportunities to all.
• The National Assembly was formed in 1791 with an object to limit the powers of the monarch.
• The Constitution framed in 1791 began with a Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizens.
• Censorship was abolished in 1789.

Question 2.
Explain the impact of the French Revolution on the life of people of French.
Answer:

• Divorce was made legal, and could be applied by both women and men. Women could be now trained for jobs, could become artists or run small businesses.
• The Constitution of 1791 began with a Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen. It proclaimed that Freedom of speech and opinion and equality before law were natural rights of each human being by birth. These could not be taken away.
• Newspapers, pamphlets and printed pictures appeared steadily in the towns of French. From there, they travelled into the countryside. These publications described and discussed the events and changes taking place in the country.

Question 3.
What compelled Louis XVI to raise taxes in France?
Answer:

• Wars and Economic Crisis : In 1774, when Louis XVI ascended the throne, he found and empty treasure. The nation had gone into deep dept because of the fighting in the Seven Years War (1756-1763) and the Revolutionary War in America under Louis XVI. In this war, France helped the 13 American colonies to gain their independence from Britain. The war added more than a billion livers to a dept that had already risen to more than 2 billion livres.
• Debt Trap: Lenders who gave the state credit, now began to charge 10 per cent interest on loans. So the French government was obliged to spend an increasing percentage of its budget on interest payments alone. To meet its regular expenses, such as the cost of maintaining an army, the court, running government offices or universities the state was forced to increase taxes.
• Extravagant Court: France under various kings had a extravagant court at the immense palace of Versailles.

Question 4.
Describe the status of the nobles in France before the revolution.
Answer:
The clergy and the nobles led a life of luxury and enjoyed numerous privileges. On the other hand, the peasants and workers lived a wretched life. They groaned under heavy taxes and forced labour. The middle-class comprising of lawyers, doctors, teachers, etc also suffered humiliation at the hands of the clergy and the nobles. This state of social inequality was the chief cause of the French Revolution.

Question 5.
“The inequality that existed in the French Society in the Old Regime became the cause of French Revolution”. Justify the statement by giving three suitable examples.
Answer:
The examples are :

• French Society was divided into three Estates. The First Estate comprised of clergy, the Second Estate comprised of nobility and the Third Estate comprised of businessmen, traders, merchants, artisans, peasants and servants.
• The members of Church and nobility enjoyed certain privileges by birth, the most important being the exemption from paying taxes to the State.
• Feudal dues were extracted by nobles from peasants and one-tenth of the agricultural produce of peasants, in the form of Tithes came to the share of clergy. All members of the Third Estate including peasants paid taxes, thus, the burden of financing activities of the the state through taxes was borne by the Third Estate alone creating heavy discontentment.

Question 6.
How did philosophers influence the thinking of the people of France?
Answer:
Philosophers influence the thinking of the people of France as :

• Major changes were introduced in the Russian economy and agriculture after the revolution. Private property was abolished and land became a state property. Peasants had the freedom to cultivate on state ” – controlled land.
• A proper system of centralized planning was introduced with the help of five year plans. It helped in bringing about technological improvements, economic growth and helped in removing the inequalities in the society.
• The revolution acknowledged right to work and identified dignity of labour. Socialist economy added a new dimension to democracy, by attributing it as a socio-economic system.

Question 7.
What was the role of philosophers and thinkers in the French Revolution? Explain by giving three examples.
Answer:

• The philosophers and thinkers believed that,no group in a society should be privileged by birth. They supported a society based on freedom and equal laws.
• In his Two Treatises.of government, John Locke sought to refute the doctrine of the divine and absolute right of the monarch.
• Rousseau carried the idea forward, proposing a form of government based on a social contract between people and their representatives. In The Spirit of the Laws, Montesquieu proposed a division of power within the government between the legislative, the executive and the judiciary.

Question 8.
What measures were taken by Robespierre to bring equality in the French Society? HOTS
Answer:
Measures are :

• Robespierre government issued laws placing a maximum ceiling on wages and prices.
• Peasants were forced to transport their grain to the cities and sell it at prices fixed by the government.
• The use of more expensive white flour was forbidden; all citizens were required to eat the quality bread, a loaf made of whole wheat.
• Equality was also sought to be practised through forms of speech and address.
• Churches were shut down and their buildings converted into barracks or offices.
• Equality was also sought to be practised through forms of speech and address.

Question 9.
How did the peasants contribute to the outbreak of the French Revolution? Explain. HOTS
Answer:
Contribution of the peasants to the outbreak of the French Revolution :

• The peasants had to pay various taxes to the government, to the nobles and to the Church.
• They were subjected to forced labour, they had to work free in the land of the nobles for three days in a week.
• Crops were trampled by hunting parties of the nobles. About 81% of their income went to the State, Nobles, Church, 19% of the income was their to live on grass and roofs and 1,000 peoples of them died due to starvation. As as whole, the Administration was corrupt.

Question 10.
State the events that led to the formation of the National Assembly.
Answer:

• The Estates General was a political body of France to which the three estates sent their representatives. The voting in it had been conducted according to the principle that each estate had one vote.
• This time too when Louis XVI called a meeting of the Estates General, he decided to continue the same old practice.
• But the members of the Third Estate demanded that voting now be conducted on the democratic principle of one person, one vote.
• When the king rejected this proposal, the members of the Third Estate walked out of the assembly in protest.
• They assembled on 20 June, 1789 in the hall of an indoor tennis court in Versailles. These representatives of the Third Estate viewed themselves as spokesmen for whole French nation. They declared themselves a National Assembly.

Question 11.
Trace the event which led to the fall of Bastille.
Answer:

• On 20th June the representatives of the Third Estate assembled in the hall.
• While the National Assembly was busy at Versailles drafting a constitution,
• After spending hours in long queues at the bakery, crowds of angry women stormed into the shops. At the same time, the king ordered troops to move into Paris.
• On 14 July, the agitated crowd stormed and destroyed the Bastille.

Question 12.
Write three main features of the French Constitution of 1971.
Answer:

• Powers of the National Assembly: The Constitution of 1791 vested the power to make laws in the National Assembly, which was indirectly elected. That is, citizens voted for a group of electors, who in turn chose the Assembly.
• Right to Vote: Not all citizens, however, had the right to vote. Only men above 25 years of age who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer’s wage were given the status of active citizens, that is they were entitled to vote. The remaining men and all women were classed as passive citizens.
• Basic Rights: All the citizens were given some basic rights such as right to life, freedom of speech, freedom of opinion, equality before law. It was the duty of the state to protect each citizen’s natural rights.

Question 13.
What was the significance of ‘The Tennis Court Oath’ in the French Revolution?
Answer:

• The Tennis Court Oath was a significant event in the French revolution. The Oath was taken on 20th June in the hall of an indoor court in the grounds of Versailles.
• The members declared themselves as the National Assembly and swore not to disperse till they had drafted a Constitution for France that would limit the powers of the monarch.
• The National Assembly drafted the new Constitution which laid the foundation of Republic of France.

Question 14.
What was the Convention? Describe its role in France.
Answer:
The elected assembly formed in France in 1792 was called Convention.
Role in France :

• It abolished the monarchy and declared France a republic.
• Hereditary monarch Louis XVI and his wife were sentenced to death Robespierre was elected President of the National Convention. He followed the policy of severe control and punishment. The French Revolution 19

Question 15.
Describe how abolition of slavery became possible in France.
Answer:
Abolition of slavery became possible in France by the following ways :

• The salve trade began in the 18th century. The National Assembly held long debates about the rights of man should be extended to all French subjects including those in the colonies.
• Convention legislated to free all slaves in the French overseas possessions. .
• However, Napoleon reintroduced slavery. Finally slavery was abolished in 1848.

Question 16.
Discuss the impact of abolition of censorship in France.
Or
Describe the effects of abolition of law of censorship on France.
Answer:

• France before censorship: In the Old Regime all written material and cultural activities, books, newspapers, plays could be published or performed only after they had been approved by the censors of the king.
• Freedom of Speech: Now the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen proclaimed freedom of speech and expression to be a natural right. Newspapers, pamphlets, books and printed pictures flooded the towns of France from where they travelled rapidly into the countryside. They all described and discussed the events and changes taking place in France.
• Debate and Discussion: Freedom of the press also meant that opposing views of events could be expressed. Each side sought to convince the others of its position through the medium of print. Printed tracts and newspapers not only spread the new ideas, but they shaped the nature of debate. Plays, songs and festive processions attracted large numbers of people. This was one way they could grasp and identify with ideas such as liberty or justice.

Question 17.
Trace rights which we are enjoying today had origin in the French Revolution.
Answer:
The following fundamental rights, given in the Indian constitution can be traced to the French Revolution :

• The right to equality.
• The right to freedom of speech and expression.
• The right to freedom from exploitation.
• The right to constitutional remedies.

The French Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How was the French society organized? What privileges did certain sections of the society enjoy? Describe.
Or
‘Social disparity was one of the major causes of the French Revolution.’ Justify by giving examples. HOTS
Answer:
(i) Division of the society into three Estate :

• The First Estate: It consisted of the clergymen and church-fathers.
• The Second Estate: It consisted of landlords, men of noble birth and aristocrats.
• The Third Estate: It consisted of the vast majority of the common masses, the landless peasants, servants, etc.

(ii) Heavy Burden of Taxes on the Third Estate: The members of the first two Estates were exempted from paying taxes to the state. So all the taxes were paid by the people of the Third Estate.
(iii) Wide Gap between People of Different Estates: Most of the people of the Third Estate were employed as labourers in workshops with fixed wages. The wages failed to keep pace with the rise in prices. So the gap between the poor and the rich widened.
(iv) No Political Rights: Out of the total population, the first and the second Estates had share of 2%. The remaining people belonged to the Third Estate. Although the upper two classes made up only a small fraction of the total population, yet they were the people who controlled the political and economic system of the nation. They enjoyed all the rights and privileges. The entire machinery of the government was designed to protect their interests and privileges.
(v) Unequal Distribution of Wealth : In the French society, peasants made up about 90% of the population. However, only a small number of them owned the land they cultivated. About 60% of the land was owned by nobles, the church and other richer members of the Third Estate.

Question 2.
Explain the role of thinkers and philosophers in the French Revolution.
Answer:
(i) Influence of the Philosophers and Writers: There were many French philosophers and thinkers like John Locke, Montesquieu, Rousseau, Voltaire and Mirabeau, who exposed the evils prevailing in the system. They infused people with the idea of liberty, equality and fraternity.

(ii) Charles Montesquieu (1689-1775): A nobleman by birth, he became a lawyer and a judge. In his book, “The Spirit of Laws”, he criticised autocracy and praised the democratic republic.

(iii) Francis Aronet Voltaire (1694-1778): Voltaire was another outstanding philosopher of the Revolution. He wanted the people to think about their material life on earth, and forget about heaven. He condemned the Church which supported the privileged class, and ignored the poor.

(iv) Jean Jacques Rousseau (1712-1778): Rousseau is regarded as the architect of the French Revolution. He gave the slogan “Man was born free, yet he is everywhere in chains”. In the famous book, “The Social Contract”, he proved that the government was the result of a social contract between the people on the one hand, and ruler on the other. So if the ruler did not fulfil the contract, the people had the right to withdraw their loyalty to him, and bring down the tyranny of the ruler, by revolting.

(v) John Locke: He was also a great political thinker. He wrote ‘Two Treatises of Government’ in which he sought to refute the doctrine of the divine and the absolute right of the monarch.

Question 3.
Explain the events that led to the insurrection of 1792 in France.
Answer:
(i) Assembly of the Estates: On 5th May, 1789 Louis XVI called together an assembly of the Estates General to pass proposals for new taxes. Voting in the Estates General in the past had been conducted according to the principle that each estate had one vote. This time too, Louis XVI was determined to continue the same practice. But members of the Third Estate demanded that voting now should be conducted by the assembly as a whole, where each member would have one vote. When the king rejected this proposal, members of the Third Estate walked out of the assembly in protest.

(ii) National Assembly : The representatives of the Third Estate viewed themselves as spokesmen for the whole French nation. On 20th June, they assembled in the hall of an indoor tennis court in the grounds of Versailles. They declared themselves a National Assembly, and swore not to disperse till they had drafted a constitution for France that would limit the powers of the monarch. They were led by Mirabeau and Abbe’ Sieye’s.

(iii) Turmoil in France : While the National Assembly was busy at Versailles drafting the Constitution, the rest of France seethed with turmoil. Due to bad harvest, there was shortage of food, and there was also rumour that bands of brigands were on their way to destroy the ripe crops. Caught in a frenzy of fear, peasants started attacking nobles. Under all these circumstances, Louis XVI finally accorded recognition to the National Assembly.

(iv) Storming the Bastille : On the morning of 14th July, 1789 the agitated crowd stormed and destroyed the Bastille. Under all these circumstances, Louis XVI finally according recognition to the National Assembly.

(v) France became a Republic : In 1792 the Jacobians held the king hostage and declared to form a new government. The newly elected Assembly was called the Convention. On 21st September, 1792 it abolished the monarchy and declared France as a republic.

Question 4.
Explain the role of Mirabeau and Abbe’ Sieye’s in the French Revolution. HOTS
Answer:

• Both Mirabeau and Abbe’ Sieye’s were great political thinkers.
• They were the leaders of the National Assembly which was formed in 1789 after the failure of the meeting of the Estate General.
• Mirabeau was born in a noble family but was convinced of the need to do away with a society of feudal privilege.
• He brought out a journal, and delivered powerful speeches to the crowds assembled at Versailles.
• Abbe’ Sieye’s originally a priest, wrote an influential pamphlet called, ‘What is the Third Estate?’

Question 5.
Explain triangular slave trade carried on during 18th and 19th century.
Answer:

• The triangular slave trade was carried between Europe, Africa and America.
• The slave trade began in the seventeenth century. French merchants sailed from the ports of Bordeaux or Nantes to the African coast, where they bought slaves from local chieftains.
• Branded and shackled, the slaves were packed tightly into ships for the three-month long voyage across the Atlantic to the Caribbean. There they were sold to plantation owners.
• The exploitation of slave labour made it possible to meet the growing demand in European markets for sugar, coffee, and indigo.
• Port cities like Bordeaux and Nantes owed their economic prosperity to the flourishing slave trade.

Question 6.
Evaluate the importance of the following years in concern with French Revolution, 1774, 1789, 1791, 1804 and 1815.
Answer:
The importance of the following years in concern with French Revolutions :

(i) 1774: Louis XVI ascended the throne of France. He believed in the Divine Right Theory of Kings.
He had no respect for the freedom of liberty. Because of his empty treasure he began to impose heavy taxes which were disliked by his own people.

(ii) 1789: French Revolution began in 1789. It started with the convocation of the Estates General in May. The first year of revolution proclaimed the Tennis Court oath, assault on the declaration of rights of man an citizen. Estates General was called together by Louis XVI to pass proposals for new taxes.

(iii) 1791: The constitution of 1791 also established a short lived constitutional monarchy. The Third Estate which assumed the name of the National Assembly framed a new constitution for France in 1791. The Assembly nationalized church lands to pay off the public debt. It also abolished the rights of privileged classes. Declaration of the rights of man and citizen was also a feature of this year.

(iv) 1804: Napoleon became the emperor of France. He set out to conquer neighbouring Europeon countries. He conquered Europe and saw his role as a moderniser of Europe.

(v) 1815: The French Revolution appeared nullified by 1815. The land owning classes and the bourgeois emerged as the dominant power. Napoleon was defeated in the battle of Waterloo. Many of his measures that carried the revolutionary ideas of liberty and modem laws to other parts of Europe had an impact on people long after Naopleon had left.

Question 7.
Explain the circumstances under which Louis XVI finally accorded recognition to the National Assembly.
Or
What were the main causes of the French Revolution of1789?

(i) Assembly of the Estates: On 5th May 1789, Louis XVI called together an assembly of the Estates General to pass proposals for new taxes. Voting in the Estates General in the past had been conducted according to the principle that each estate had one vote. This time too, Louis XVI was determined to continue the same practice. But members of the Third Estate demanded that voting now should be conducted by the assembly as whole, where each member would have one vote, When the king rejected this proposal, members of the Third Estate walked out of the assembly in protest.

(ii) National Assembly: The representatives of the Third Estate viewed themselves as spokesmen for the whole French nation. On 20th June, they assembled in the hall of an indoor tennis court in the grounds of Versailles. They declared themselves a National Assembly, and swore not to disperse till they had drafted a constitution for France that would limit the powers of the monarch. They were led by Mirabeau and Abbe’ Sieye’s.

(iii) Turmoil in France: While the National Assembly was busy at Versailles drafting the Constitution, the rest of France seethed with, turmoil. Due to bad harvest, there was shortage of food, and there was also rumour that bands of brigands were on their way to destroy the ripe crops. Caught in a frenzy of fear, peasants started attacking nobles. Under all these circumstances, Louis XVI finally accorded recognition to the National Assembly.

(iv) Storming the Bastille: On the morning of 14th July, 1789, the agitated crowd stormed and destroyed the Bastille. Under all these circumstances, Louis XVI finally accorded recognition to the National Assembly.

(v) France became a Republic: In 1792 the Jacobians held the king hostage and declared to form a new government. The newly elected Assembly was called the Convention. On 21st September 1792 it abolished the monarchy and declared France as a republic.

Question 8.
Explain how the new political system of Constitutional monarchy in France worked. HOTS
Or
Explain any five features of the Constitution drafted in 1791.
Answer:

• The Constitution of 1791 vested the power to make laws in the National Assembly, which was indirectly elected.
• With the new Constitution the powers of govern the country were assigned to different institutions, i.e., the legislature, executive and the judiciary.
• The judiciary and the legislature were elected by the people. Only men above 25 years of age who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer’s wage were given the status of active citizens, that is, they were entitled to vote.
• Under this system the powers of the monarch were limited. Most of the powers were in the hands of legislatures.
• The ministers were also answerable to the legislature. The king enjoyed the veto power.

Question 9.
What was the role of Jacobins during the French Revolution?
Or
Explain the role of Jacobins in the French Revolution.
Answer:

(i) Middle Class: The members of the Jacobins club belonged mainly to the less prosperous sections of society. They included small shopkeepers, artisans such as shoemakers, pastry cooks, watch-makers, printers, as well as servants and daily-wage workers. Their leader was Maximilian Robespierre.

(ii) Different Clothes: A large group among the Jacobins decided to start wearing long striped trousers similar to those worn by dock workers. This was to set themselves apart from the fashionable sections of society, especially nobles, who wore knees breeches. It was a way of proclaiming the end of the power wielded by the wearers of knee breeches. These Jacobins came to be known as the sansculottes, literally meaning — those without knee breeches. Sansculottes men wore in addition the red cap that symbolised liberty.

(iii) Carrying the Revolution: They were the people who believed that the revolution had to be carried further, as the Constitution of 1791 gave political rights only to the richer sections of society.

(iv) Storming the King’s Palace: In the summer of 1792 the Jacobins planned an insurrection of a large number of Parisians who were angered by the short supplies and high prices of food. On the morning of August 10 they stormed the Palace of the Tuileries, massacred the king’s guards and held the king himself as hostage for several hours. Later the Assembly voted to imprison the royal family.

(v) France became a Republic: Elections were held. From now on all men of 21 years and above, regardless of wealth, got the right to vote. The newly elected assembly was called the Convention. On 21 September, 1792 it abolished the monarchy and declared France a republic.

Question 10.
How was slavery abolished in France?
Answer:

• One of the most revolutionary social reforms of the Jacobin regime was the abolition of slavery in the French colonies.
• Throughout the eighteenth century there was little criticism of slavery in France. The National Assembly held long debates about whether the rights of man should be extended to all French subjects including those in the colonies. But it did not pass any laws, fearing opposition from businessmen whose incomes depended on the slave trade.
• It was finally the Convention which in 1794 legislated to free all slaves in the French overseas possessions.
• This, however, turned out to be a shorterm measure : ten years later, Napoleon reintroduced slavery.
• Plantation owners understood their freedom as including the right to enslave African Negroes in pursuit of their economic interests. Slavery was finally abolished in French colonies in 1848.

Question 11.
Describe the conditions of women during the period of French Revolution.
Answer:
Conditions of women during the period of French Revolution are :

• From the very beginning women were active participants in the events which brought sfbout major changes in the French Society.
• Most women of the Third Estate had to work for a living as seamstresses or laundresses. They even sold flowers, fruits and vegetables at the market.
• They were employed as domestic servants in the house of prosperous people.
• They started their own political clubs and newspapers in order to voice their interests.
• They demanded the right to vote to be elected to the Assembly and hold political office.
• They did not have access to education or job training. Only daughter wealthier members of the Third Estate could stay at convent.
• Working women had also to take care of their families. Their wages were lower than those of men.

Question 12.
Who was Robespierre? Describe any four steps taken by him to bring equality.
Answer:
Maximilian Robespierre was the leader of Jacobin Club.

• The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred to as the Reign of Terror. Robespierre followed a policy of severe control and punishment.
• All those whom he saw as being ‘enemies’ of the republic-ex-nobles and clergy, members of other political parties, even members of his own party who did not agree with his methods were arrested, imprisoned and then tried by a revolutionary tribunal. If the court found them ‘guilty1 they were guillotined.
• Robespierre’s government issued laws placing a maximum ceiling on wages and prices. Meat and bread were rationed. Peasants were forced to transport their grain to the cities and sell it at prices fixed by the government.
• Churches were shut down and their buildings converted into barracks or offices.

Question 13.
Explain any five features of the Constitution of 1791 framed by the National Assembly in France.
Or
Highlight any five features of the constitution of 1791 in France.
Answer:
Features of the Constitution of 1791 :

• It declared France a constitutional monarchy.
• Powers of the king separated and assigned to the executive, the legislature and the judiciary.
• Laws to be made by the National Assembly.
• Only men above 25 years of age, who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer’s wage, were entitled to vote.
• Many rights were given to the people.
• To qualify as an elector and as member of the Assembly, a man had to belong to highest bracket of taxpayers.

Question 14.
Compare the political, economic and social conditions of France before and after the revolution.
Answer:

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post The French Revolution Class 9 Important Questions History Chapter 1 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Social Science History Chapter 2

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 2 Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution

Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In the context of Russia, which group was the supporter of women’s Suffragette Movements?
Answer:
Radicals.

Question 2.
Who was Karl Marx?
Answer:
Karl Marx was a philosopher who favoured socialism. He believed that to free themselves from capitalist exploitation, workers had to construct a radically socialist society, where all the properties were socially controlled.

Question 3.
By whom was ‘Das Capital’ written?
Answer:
Karl Marx.

Question 4.
Name the term that refers to ‘women’s right to vote’. HOTS
Answer:
Suffragette.

Question 5.
Who were the ‘greens’ and ‘whites’?
Answer:
They were the group of people who were against the Bolshevik Revolution. They started a civil war. They were supported by the French, American, British and the Japanese troops as these countries were worried about the growth of socialism in Russia.

Question 6.
What was the basic idea of socialism?
Answer:
Socialists were against private property, and saw it as the root of all social ills of the time.

Question 7.
What was the basic idea of a communist society?
Answer:
All properties should be socially controlled.

Question 8.
Who built the cooperative called ‘New Harmony’?
Answer:
Robert Owen.

Question 9.
Name the European nation where the first ever socialist government was formed.
Answer:
Russia.

Question 10.
What was the Russian Revolution?
Answer:
The fall of monarchy in February 1917, and the events of October are normally called the Russian Revolution.

Question 11.
When was the Russian Social Democratic Workers Party founded, and by whom?
Answer:
In 1898, by the socialists, who respected Marx’s ideas.

Question 12.
Who was ruling over Russia when the Russian Revolution took place?
Answer:
Tsar Nicholas II.

Question 13.
What was the Second International?
Answer:
It was an International body which was formed to coordinate the ideas of the socialists.

Question 14.
“The year 1904 was particularly bad for the Russian workers” Give reason.
Answer:
In 1904 prices of essential goods rose very quickly and the real wages declined by 20%.

Question 15.
What was Duma?
Answer:
It was an elected consultative Parliament of Russia.

Question 16.
Name the term that refers to the meaning of the word ‘Soviet’.
Answer:
A Revolutionary Organization.

Question 17.
What was Bolsheviks?
Answer:
It was a socialist party of Russia which was led by Lenin.

Question 18.
What was Mensheviks?
Answer:
It was a break away group of Bolsheviks. It was also a socialist party like that of Bolshevik.

Question 19.
Define Kulaks.
Answer:
The wealthy farmers of Russia.

Question 20.
In the context of Russia what was ‘Kolkhoz’? HOTS
Answer:
Kolkhoz were the collective farms, where all peasants were forced to cultivate from 1929.

Question 21.
Who started ‘Collectivization Programme’ in Russia?
Answer:
Stalin.

Question 22.
Who headed the Communist Party of Russia after the death of Lenin?
Answer:
Stalin.

Question 23.
Which incident of the Russian history is known as ‘Bloody Sunday’?
Answer:
It was an incident in which more than 100 workers were killed and about 300 wounded. These workers were attacked by the police in 1905 when they reached the winter palace.

Question 24.
What was Lenin’s ’April Theses’?
Answer:
In 1917, Lenin declared that the war be brought to an end, land be transferred to the peasants, and banks be nationalised. These three demands were Lenin’s ‘April Theses’.

Question 25.
What was the new name of St. Petersburg*?
Answer:
Petrograd.

Question 26.
Name a few countries that were part of central power during the First World War?
Answer:
Germany, Austria and Turkey.

Question 27.
Name the term which was used for elected Consultative Parliament in Russia?
Answer:
Duma.

Question 28.
At the beginning of the 20 th century, where did the vast majority of Russian people worked? .
Answer:
Agricultural sector.

Question 29.
When did the First World War break out?
Answer:
1914.

Question 30.
Why is 22nd,February celebrated as the International Women’s day?
Answer:
Because on this day. women workers of Russia led a huge strike in the factories.

Question 31.
What were the Muslim reformers within the Russian Empire called?
Answer:
Jadidists.

Question 32.
To which place did industrialization bring men, women and children together?
Answer:
Factories.

Question 33.
Name any two Indian nationalists who talked of the significance of the French Revolution.
Answer:

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy and
• Derozio.

Question 34.
Name a few countries which were included in Russian Empire in 1914.
Answer:
Finland, Lithuania and Latvia.

Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the views of radicals.
Answer:
The views of radicals are as follows:

• The group who wanted to bring about immediate social change in Russia was radicals.
• They wanted a government on the majority of country’s population.
• They were against private properties.

Question 2.
Who were liberals? What were their political and social views?
Or
Liberals were not democrats. Explain.
Answer:
Liberals : One of the groups which looked to change society were the liberals.
Political and Social Views of Liberals :

• Liberals wanted a nation which tolerated all religions.
• Liberals also opposed the uncontrolled power of dynastic rulers. They wanted to safeguard the rights of individuals against governments.
• They argued for a representative, elected parliamentary government, subject to laws interpreted by a well-trained judiciary that was independent of rulers and officials.
• However, they were not ‘democrats’. They did not believe in universal adult franchise, that is, the right of every citizen to vote. They felt men of property mainly should have the vote.
• They also did not want the vote for women.

Question 3.
Distinguish between the ideas of liberals and the radicals.
Answer:

Question 4.
Who ruled Russia in 1914? How did he manage his empire? Explain.
Answer:
Tsar Nicholas II was ruling over Russia, during the revolution.

• He was an autocrat.
• Though he created ‘Duma’ after the Revolution, but never cared for it.
• He was carrying the war against the wishes of the people.
• He worked under a monk called Rasputin.

Question 5.
Explain the views of different socialists and philosophers regarding the vision of the future or to transform the society.
Answer:

• Robert Owen, a leading English manufacturer and a socialist sought to build a cooperative community called the New Harmony, in Indiana (USA).
• Louis Blanc of France wanted the government to encourage cooperatives and replace the capitalists.
• Karl Marx believed that to free themselves from capitalist exploitation, workers had to construct a radically socialist society, where all the properties were socially controlled.
• Friedrich Engels was also against capitalism.

Question 6.
Explain any three reasons which led to civil war between the Bolsheviks and the Russian army of non-Bolsheviks.
Or
What conditions led to the Russian Civil War in 1918 – 1920? Give any four points.
Answer:

• Impact of Land Redistribution Policy on Soldiers: When the Bolsheviks ordered land redistribution, the Russian army began to break up. Soldiers, mostly peasants, wished to go home for the redistribution and deserted.
• Opposition from Greens and Whites: Non-Bolshevik socialists, liberals and supporters of autocracy condemned the Bolshevik uprising. Their leaders moved to south Russia and organized troops to fight the Bolsheviks (the reds).’ During 1918 and 1919, the greens (Socialist Revolutionaries) and whites (pro-Tsarists) controlled most of the Russian empire.
• Outside Forces: The Greens and Whites were backed by French, American, British and Japanese troops. All these forces were worried at the growth of socialism in Russia.
• Use of Force: In many parts, Bolshevik colonists brutally massacred local nationalists in the name of defending socialism. In this situation, many were confused about what the Bolshevik government represented.

Question 7.
‘A communist society was the natural society of the future.’ Explain.
Or
Explain the views of Karl Marx on capitalism.
Or
Explain the thoughts and beliefs of Karl Marx which convinced the workers to enter into conflict with the capitalists.
Answer:

• Marx was of the opinion that an industrial society was a ‘capitalist’ society.
• Capitalists earn profits because of workers.
• To increase his profits the capitalist uses two methods i.e., either by reducing wages or increasing the working hours.
• Marx believed that to free themselves from the capitalists, workers had to construct a radically socialist society where all the properties were socially controlled.

Question 8.
Explain the economic condition of the workers before the Russian Revolution.
Answer:

• Most of the industries were the private property of the industrialists. Most of the workers were working for about 10 to 12 hours a day.
• They were paid very low wages.
• The working conditions were also very poor.
• Women workers made up about 31% of the factory labour, but they were paid less than men.

Question 9.
Mention four features of socialism.
Answer:

• Socialists were against private property.
• Under socialism, the means of production are under the control of the government.
• Socialists regarded the private property as the root cause of all social evils.
• Socialism encourages cooperatives.

Question 10.
Mention any four features of the Russian economy at the beginning of the 20th century.
Or
Describe the economic condition of Russia before 1905.
Answer:

• The vast majority of Russia’s people were agriculturists. About 85 per cent of the Russian empire’s population earned their living from agriculture.
• Industry was found in pockets. Prominent industrial areas were St. Petersburg and Moscow. Craftsmen undertook much of the production, but large factories existed alongside craft workshops.
• Many factories were set up in the 1890s, when Russia’s railway network was extended, and foreign investment in industry increased. Coal production doubled and iron and steel output quadrupled.
• In the countiyside, peasants cultivated most of the land. But the nobility, the crown and the Orthodox Church owned large properties.

Question 11.
Explain any three views of the socialists about private property.
Answer:
Views of socialists about private property are :

• They were against private property.
• They saw it as the root of all social ills.
• Individuals who owned the property were concerned about personal gain only.
• Those who make property productive are ignored by the owners of the property, (any three)

Question 12.
Mention any four features of the Russian society of the 20th century.
Answer:

• The vast majority of Russia’s people were agriculturists. About 85 per cent of the Russian empire’s population earned their living from agriculture.
• Workers were a divided social group. Some had strong links with the villages from which they came. Others had settled in cities permanently.
• Women made up 31 per cent of the factory labour force by 1914, but they were paid less than men (between half and three-quarters of a man’s wage).
• In the countryside, peasants cultivated most of the land. But the nobility, the crown and the Orthodox Church owned large properties. Nobles got their power and position through their services to the Tsar, not through local popularity.

Question 13.
What were the differences between the Russian peasants and the other peasants of Europe?
Or
How were the peasants of Russia different from rest of Europe?
Answer:

• Russia’s people were agriculturists. About 85 per cent of the Russian empire’s population earned their living from agriculture. This proportion was higher than in most European countries. For instance, in France and Germany the proportion was between 40 per cent and 50 per cent.
• In Russia, peasants wanted the land of the nobles to be given to them. They had no respect for them, whereas in other parts of Europe, the nobles were respected.
• Russian farmers pooled their land together periodically, and their commune divided it according to the needs of the individual families. This never happened in other parts of Europe.

Question 14.
What were the main demands of April Theses?
Or
Explain the Lenin’s ‘April Theses’.
Or
Describe the three major demands of Bolshevik during 1917.
Answer:
Main demands of April Theses were :

• Lenin returned to Russia from exile and felt that it was time for Soviets to take over power. He declared that war be brought to an end, land be transferred to the peasants and banks nationalized. He also argued to rename Bolshevik Party as Communist Party.
• Started planning on uprising against government with the support of army.
• Military Revolutionary Committee was planned to seize the power and bring the city under control.

Question 15.
Why did ‘the Kerenskii Government’ in Russia fall?
Or
Why did the Kerenskii Government become unpopular in Russia? .
Answer:

• Lenin: In April 1917, the Bolshevik leader Lenin returned to Russia from his exile. He put forward the ‘April Theses’ due to which he got full support from the Russian workers. Bolsheviks supporters in the army, factories and peasants were brought together under one umbrella under his leadership.
• Trade Unions and Other Organisations: After the February revolution, workers were free to form associations and unions. So trade unions grew in number.
• Conflict between Bolsheviks and the Government: Regular conflicts between Bolsheviks and the government weakened the government. Bolsheviks were supported by Soviet army and factory workers.
• Non-fulfilment of Demands: The Provisional Government failed to meet any of the demands of theworkers and the common people.

Question 16.
Describe the events that led to 1905 Revolution of Russia.
Or
Write A note on the Bloody Sunday incident.
Or
Which incident came to be known as Bloody Sunday? What were its consequences? V3Q
Answer:

• The year 1904 was a particularly bad one for Russian workers. Prices of essential goods rose so quickly that the real wages declined by 20%.
• When four members of the Assembly of Russian workers were dismissed, the workers became agitated.
• In January 1905, a large number of peaceful workers led by Father Gapon reached the Winter Palace in St. Petersburg to present a petition to the Tsar.
• The workers were attacked by the police. Over 100 workers were killed, and about 300 wounded. Since the incident took place on Sunday, it is known as the ‘Bloody Sunday
  Consequences: Tsar underpressure from the masses was forced to announce his manifesto which led to the formation of Duma.

Question 17.
Explain the mqjor events that were responsible for the Russian Revolution of 1905.
Or
Why were there revolutionary disturbances iii Russia in 1905?
What were the demands of the revolutionaries?
Answer:

• Autocratic Rule: Russia was under the autocratic rule of the Tsars. The Tsar Nicholas II was an inefficient and corrupt ruler.
• Role of Liberals and Socialists: Both Liberals and Socialists were against the dynastic rule. They worked with peasants and workers to demand a constitution. They were being supported by Jadidists.
• Strike of the Workers: The year 1904 was a bad year forythe Russian workers. Prices of essential goods rose so quickly that real wages declined by 20%. So there was a strike by the workers. They
  demanded reduction in working hours, an increase in wages and improvement in the working conditions.
• Bloody Sunday : The incident of Bloody Sunday in which more than 100 workers were killed became the turning point. It led to an all Russia strike. Lawyers, doctors, engineers and others demanded constituent assembly.

Question 18.
What is meant by ‘October revolution’?
Answer:

• It was the revolution which occurred in October 1917. It was led by Petrograd Soviet and the Bolshevik Party under the leadership of Lenin.
• A military Revolutionary Committee was appointed by the Soviet under Leon Trotskii to organise the seizure.
• The uprising began on 24th October. Though Prime Minister Kerenskii resisted but the seizure was complete within a day.
• The Bolshevik Party was renamed the Russian Communist Party (Bolshevik).
• In November 1917, the Bolsheviks conducted the elections to the Constituent Assembly, but they failed to gain majority support. In January 1918, the assembly rejected Bolshevik measures and Lenin dismissed the assembly.
• In the years that followed, Bolsheviks took full control over the government and Russia became one party state.

Question 19.
Explain any three major effects of the Russian Revolution of October 1917 on Russian economy.
Answer:

• No Private Property: Private property in the means of production was abolished. Land and other means of production were declared the property of the entire nation. Labour was made compulsory for all and economic exploitation by capitalists and landlords came to an end.
• Nationalisation of Industries: The control of industries was given to the workers. All the banks, insurance companies, large industries, mines, water transports and railways were nationalised.
• Centralised Planning: A process cf centralised planning was introduced. Officials assessed how the economy could work and set targets for a five-year period. On this basis they made the Five Year Plans.

Question 20.
How did Russia’s participation in the World War-I become a cause for the fall of Tsar? Explain.
Or
Explain any four reasons why Russian people wanted the Tsar to withdraw from the First World War.
Answer:

• Loss of Soldiers: In the First World War, Russia lost more than 7 million soldiers. So there was a discontent among the masses.
• Destruction of Crops: The war led to the destruction of crops, homes and industries. So over 3 million people became refugees.
• Impact on Industries: Russian industry was dependent on other countries, and was cut off from other suppliers of industrial goods.
• Shortage of Workers: There was shortage of workers as most of the workers were sent to the army.

Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the main objectives of Liberals in Russia?
Answer:
The mam objectives of Liberals are as follows:

• They expected a nation which tolerated all the religions.
• They opposed the uncontrolled powers of dynastic rules.
• They wanted to safeguard the right to individual against government.
• They did not believe in universal adult franchise as they were not democrats.
• Liberals argued for a representative elected by the government. They were subjected to laws interrupted by a well-trained judiciary that was independent of rulers and officials.
• In the parts of Europe, where independent nation states did not yet exist. For example, Germany, Italy, Poland-men and women combined their demands for constitutionalism with national unification.
• They took advantage of the growing unrest and to push their demands for a creation of a constitution with freedom of press and freedom of association.

Question 2.
Explain any five differences between the peasants of Russia and peasants of Europe.
Answer:

Question 3.
How far the economic and social conditions of Russia were responsible for the Russian Revolution? Explain by giving examples.
Or
Describe the circumstances which were responsible for the Russian Revolution.
Answer:

(i) Agrarian Economy and Poor Condition of the Peasants: At the beginning of the 20th century, more than 85% of Russian population earned their living from agriculture. Most of the land was owned by rich people. Most of the peasants worked from dawn to dusk
with very low wages or share. Most of the peasants were against the rich and the nobles.

(ii) Poor Condition of Workers: Most of the industries were controlled by the private individuals. In craft units, and small workshops, the working day was sometimes 15 hours. Most of the workers were working and living in poor conditions. Most of the workers were ill-paid.

(iii) Unemployment: Unemployment rate was very high. The rich industrialists were exploiting the workers.
(iv) High Prices : Prices of essential goods rose so quickly that real wages declinedxby 20%.

(v) Condition of Women: Most of the women were working in small factories. Women made up about 31% of the factory labour force. They were paid less wages, and were forced to work for long hours. When they launched an agitation, they were fired at by the police.

Question 4.
Explain the views of the Socialists on private property with special emphasis on Karl Marx.
Answer:

• Marx argued that industrial society was capitalist. Capitalists owned the capital invested in factories, and the profit of capitalists was produced by workers.
• The conditions of workers could not improve as long as this profit was accumulated by private capitalists.
• Workers had to overthrow capitalism and the rule of private property.
• Marx believed that to free themselves from capitalist exploitation, workers had to construct a radically socialist controlled. This would be a communist society. He was convinced that workers would triumph in their conflict with capitalists. A communist society was the natural society of the future.

Question 5.
What social changes were seen in the society after industrialisation?
Or
How did industrialization change the lives of people in Europe? Explain.
Answer:

• Working Class: Industrialisation brought men, women and children to factories. Work hours were often long and wages were poor.
• Problem of Unemployment and Poverty: Problem of unemployment and poverty was rare in the countryside but this became a common phenomenon with industrialisation. Unemployment was common, particularly during times of low demand for industrial goods.
• Problem of Housing and Sanitation: Large-scale migration to cities lead to housing and sanitation problem.
• Trade Unions: Workers in England and Germany began forming associations to fight for better living and working conditions. They set up funds to help members in times of distress and demanded a reduction of working hours and the right to vote. In Germany, these associations worked closely with the Social Democratic Party (SPD) and helped it win parliamentary seats. By 1905, socialists and trade unionists formed a Labour Party in Britain and a Socialist Party in France.
• Socialism: Trade unions and worker’s union lead to idea of socialism. The development of the idea of socialism changed the political scenario. These trade unions stared demanding share in political power.

Question 6.
Explain the collectivisation policy of Stalin.
Or
What were the major changes Introduced in agriculture by Stalin? Explain.
Answer:

• The collectivisation policy was introduced by Stalin who came to power after the death of Lenin.
• The main reason was the shortage of grain supplies.
• It was argued that grain shortage was partly due to the small size of the holding.
• After 1917, the land had been given over to peasants. These small-sized peasant farms could not be modernised. To develop modern farms, and run them along industrial lines with machinery, it was necessary to eliminate ‘kulaks’, take away land from peasants, and establish state-controlled large farms.
• From 1929, the government forced all peasants to cultivate in collective farms (kolkhoz). The bulk of land and implements were transferred to the ownership of collective farms. Peasants worked on the land, and the kolkhoz profit was shared.
• Enraged peasants resisted the authorities, and destroyed their livestock. Between 1929 and 1931, the number of cattle fell by one-third. Those who resisted collectivisation were severely punished. Many were deported and exiled.
• As they resisted collectivisation, peasants argued that they were not rich, and were not against socialism. They did not want to work in collective farms for a variety of reasons.
• Stalin’s government allowed some independent cultivation, but treated such cultivators unsympathetically.
• In spite of collectivisation, production did not increase immediately. In fact, the bad harvest of 1930-1933 led to one of the most devastating famines in Soviet history when over 4 million died.

Question 7.
Highlight any five changes brought by Lenin in Russia after October Revolution of 1917. HOTS
Answer:
Role of Lenin in post 1917 Russian Revolution :

• A conflict between the provisional government and the Bolshevik grew in September, 1917. Lenin started planning an uprising against the government and began to organize his supporters from any secrets and factories.
• A military revolutionary committee under Lenin Trotski planned to seize power.
• Uprising began on 4th October, 1917. The Prime Minister Karenski, with government troops tried to subdue the Bolshevik but failed.
• Under the guidance of Lenin, the military Revolutionary committee responded quickly and by nightfall the city was under the committee’s control.
• At a meeting all Russian Congress of Soviet in Petrograd, the majority approved the Bolshevik action. Russian Revolution brought Russia under communist control.

Question 8.
Who was Lenin? What was his contribution in the Russian Revolution?
Answer:
Lenin was a socialist leader who was against the autocratic rule of Tsar. His contributions in the Russian Revolution were :
(i) April Theses: He put forward three demands i.e., the war be brought to an end, land be transferred to the peasants, and banks be nationalised; These three demands were Lenin’s April Theses. He also argued that the Bolshevik Party rename itself the Communist Party to indicate its new radical aims.

(ii) Provisional Government and Lenin: The Provisional Government which was established after the February Revolution of 1917 was controlled by landlords, industrialists and army officials. So Lenin was against the Provisional Government. He brought together different Soviets and prepared them for the Revolution.

(iii) Overthrow of the Provisional Government: It was under the leadership of Lenin that the Provisional Government was overthrown by the Soviets. On 16th October 1917. Lenin persuaded the Petrograd Soviet and the Bolshevik Party to agree to a socialist seizure of power. A Military Revolutionary Committee was appointed by the Soviets to organise the seizure.

(iv) Communist State: Lenin laid the foundation of Communist State. After the October Revolution the Bolshevik Party was renamed the Russian Communist Party.

Question 9.
Explain the Russian February Revolution 1917.
Or
Petrograd had led the February Revolution that brought down the monarchy in February 1917. Explain. HOTS
Answer:
(i) Grim Condition in the Petrograd: In the winter of 1917, conditions in the capital, Petrograd, were grim. In February 1917, food shortages were deeply felt in the workers’ quarters. The winter was very cold. There had been exceptional frost and heavy snow.

(ii) Women Lead the Strike: On 22 February, a lockout took place at a factory. The next day, workers in fifty factories called a strike in sympathy. In many factories, women led the way to strikes. This came to be called the International Women’s Day.

(iii) Violent Incidents: In the next few days the workers tried to persue the government to fulfill their demand but government called out the cavalry. The streets thronged with people raising slogans about bread, wages, better hours and democracy. However, the cavalry refused to fire on- the demonstrators. An officer was shot at the barracks of a regiment and three other regiments mutinied, voting to join the striking workers.

(iv) Formation of Soviet: By that evening, soldiers and striking workers had gathered to form a soviet or council in the same building as the Duma met. This was the Petrograd Soviet.

(v) Formation of Provisional Government: The very next day, a delegation went to see the Tsar. Military commanders advised him to abdicate. He followed their advice and abdicated on 2 March. Soviet leaders and Duma leaders formed a Provisional Government to run the country. Russia’s future would be decided by a constituent assembly, elected on the basis of universal adult suffrage.

Question 10.
Describe the importance of Battle of Stalingard in the Second World War.
Answer:
Importance of Battle of Stalingard in the Second World War :

• The battle of Stalingard was fought between Russia and Germany on Russian territory.
• This battle is considered important because it marked the defeat of Germany and Hitler along with Nazi party.
• Hitler had signed a non-aggression treaty with Russia in August 1939 A.D. Since he did not have faith in Russia he considered Russia as a vital threat to Nazi Germany.
• Hitler also had imperial designs on the fertile Ukraine Basin and its mines.
• He also wanted to Europeanize the area of the Asian Steppe.
• Due to the above mentioned reasons, Hitler violated the Pact of 1939 and attacked Russia from three sides.
• This led to a battle in Stalingard near Moscow.
• The Germany failed to capture Stalingard due to lack of preparation of German soldiers against heavy rains and frosts in the month of October.
• This led to failure of Hitler’s campaign.
• In all, Hitler exposed the German. Western front to British aerial bonding. Eastern front was exposed to powerful Soviet Army. In this battle, Germany suffered a lot and Soviet hegemony was established over entire Eastern Europe.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 Important Questions History Chapter 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Climate Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Geography Chapter 4

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Climate

Climate Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is climate? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
The climate refers to the sum total of weather conditions and variations over a large area for a long period of time.

Question 2.
What is weather?
Answer:
‘Weather’ refers to the state of the atmosphere over an area at any point of time.

Question 3.
Name the. elements of weather and climate.
Answer:
Temperature, atmospheric pressure, wind, humidity and precipitation.

Question 4.
What does ‘monsoon’ imply? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
The word, ‘monsoon’ comes from the Arabic word’ mausim’ which means season. It implies a seasonal reversal in the wind direction throughout the year.

Question 5.
Which are the rainest months of India?
Answer:
June to September

Question 6.
Name the month in which the withdrawl of monsoon begins.
Answer:
September

Question 7.
Which region of India receives most of its rainfall in winter?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu coast.

Question 8.
Name the two branches of the monsoon.
Answer:

• The Arabian Sea branch.
•  The Bay of Bengal branch.

Question 9.
What is burst of monsoon? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
Around the time of its arrival, the normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues constantly for several days. This is known as the ‘burst’ of the monsoon.

Question 10.
What me the ‘retreating monsoons’? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
During the months of October and November, the temperature in the Northern plains begins to decrease, and because of low temperature, the pressure starts rising and the low pressure is no longer strong enough to attract the monsoon winds. This results in the retreat of the monsoon.

Question 11.
With reference to the ‘Cold weather season in India, answer the following questions.
(i) What is its time period?
(ii) Name the winds which prevail over the country during this season.
Answer:
(i) Mid November to February.
(ii) North-East trade winds.

Question 12.
Name the winds from which the Tamil Nadu coast receive winter rainfall?
Answer.
North-East monsoons which reach there after passing over the Bay of Bengal, and picking moisture from there. .

Question 13.
Name two coldest areas in India.
Answer:
Dras and Kargil (Temperature – 40°C)

Question 14.
Which is the wettest place in India?
Answer:
Mawsynram in the southern ranges of the Khasi hills.

Question 15.
What is a jet stream?
Answer:
A jet stream is a fast blowing wind blowing in a narrow zone in the upper atmosphere.

Question 16.
‘The peninsular region does not have a well defined cold season.’ Give reason.
Answer:
Due to the moderating influence of the sea, the peninsular region does not have a well defined cold season.

Question 17.
Name two states where mango showers are common. [CBSE 2000(B)]
Answer:
Kerala and Karnataka.

Question 18.
Name two states on the eastern coast which are frequently struck by the tropical cyclones.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Question 19.
What is meant by breaking of monsoon or burst of the monsoon?
Answer:
The rain bearing monsoons are extremely strong and violent. Their approach is accompanied by thunder and lightning. This is known as the Wreaking of monsoon.

Question 20.
What is the name given to the climate of India?
Answer:
The Monsoon climate.

Question 21.
What is loo?
Answer:
It is a local wind which is hot and dry.

Question 22.
Name the wind which prevails over India in winter season.[CBSE 2013]
Answer:
North-East trade winds.

Question 23.
Two stations with most equable climate.
Answer:
Mumbai and Chennai.

Question 24.
Two stations with most extreme climate.
Answer:
Leh and Jodhpur.

Question 25.
Name any two regions which receive over 400 cm of rainfall.
Answer:
The Western coast and the North-eastern India receive over 400 cm of rainfall.

Question 26.
Name two stations influenced by the retreating and the North-East monsoons.
Answer:
Chennai and Bengaluru.

Question 27.
Two stations receiving winter showers from the western disturbances.
Answer:
Amritsar and Delhi.

Question 28.
State two chief characteristics of the Western Disturbances? [CBSE1995,2013]
Answer:

• These originate over the east Mediterranean sea.
• These cause rain in North India.

Climate Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“ Despite an overall unity in the gen¬eral pattern of climate of India,there are perceptible regional variations in climatic conditions within the country.” Justify.
Or
“India has diverse climatic conditions”Support this statement by giving examples, each of tempera¬ture and precipitation.
Answer:

• The mercury occasionally touches 50°C in the western deserts, and it drops down to as low as -45°C in winter around Leh.
• The annual precipitation is less than 10 cm in the north-west Himalayas and the western desert. It exceeds 400 cm in Meghalaya.
• Most parts of the country receive rainfall from June to September, but some parts like the Tamil Nadu coast get most of its rain during October and November.

Question 2.
Explain the factors affecting India’s climate. [CBSE 2015]
Answer:

• Latitude : The Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of the country from the Rann of Kuchchh in the west to Mizoram in the east. Almost half of the country, lying south of the Tropic of Cancer, belongs to the tropical area. All the remaining area, north of the Tropic, lies in the sub-tropic. Therefore, India’s climate has characteristics of tropical as well as subtropical climates.
• Altitude: India has mountains to the north which have an average height of about 6,000 metres. India also has a.vast coastal area where the maximum elevation i% about 30 metres. The Himalayas prevent the cold winds from Central AsiafrQm entering the subcontinent. It is because of these mountains that this subcontinent experiences comparatively milder winters as compared to central Asia.
• Pressure and Winds: The pressure and wind conditions over India are unique. During winter, there is a high-pressure area north of the Himalayas. Cold dry winds blow from this region to the low-pressure areas over the oceans to the south. In summer, a low-pressure area develops over interior Asia as well as over northwestern India. This causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during summer. Air moves from the high-pressure area over the southern Indian Ocean, in a south¬easterly direction, crosses the equator, and turns right towards the low-pressure areas over the Indian subcontinent. These are known as the Southwest Monsoon winds. These winds blow over the warm oceans, gather moisture and bring widespread rainfall over the mainland of India.

Question 3.
Mention any three characteristics of the Monsoon’.[CBSE 2011,12,14 ]
Answer:

• The Monsoons are pulsating in nature.
• These are affected by different atmospheric conditions prevailing in the region.
• The duration of the monsoon is between 100 – 120 days.

Question 4.
What is “October Heat”?
Answer:
The months of October-November form a period of transition from a hot rainy season to dry winter conditions. The retreat of monsoons is marked by clear skies, and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the condition of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as ‘October Heat’.

Question 5.
Explain development of Monsoon Trough and its influence over rainfall distribution. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:

• It is a region of low atmospheric pressure which develops because of excessive heat.
• It brings a remarkable change in rainfall pattern.
• It is responsible for diy and wet spells of monsoon.

Questions.6.
Give reasons as to why:
(i) Seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian subcontinent.
(ii) The bulk rainfall in India is concentrated over a few months.
(iii) The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall.
(iv) The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.
(v) Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the Western Ghats are drought prone.
Answer:
(i)

• During winter, there is a high pressure area over north of the . Himalayas. Whereas, there is low pressure area over the ocean to the south. So cold and dry winds blow from the Himalayan region towards the ocean.
• During summer, a low pressure area develops over the interior , Asia as well %is over the Northwestern India. This causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during summer.

(ii)

• Most parts of India receive rainfall from the south-west monsoons which blow in India only between June to September.
• Only the eastern coast of India receives some rainfall from the North-East trade winds during the cold weather season.
• It is because Tamil Nadu gets rain from the north-east monsoons which reach there after passing over the Bay of Bengal, after picking moisture from there.

(iv)

• In the mid-October, the mercury
  begins to fall at a rapid speed in Northern India.
• The low pressure conditions of the North shifts to the Bay of Bengal by November. This shift causes cyclonic depressions in the Andaman Sea.
• These cyclonic depressions give rise to tropical cyclones which cause heavy and widespread rains in the deltas of the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri.

(v)

• Rajasthan does not receive much rain because the Aravalli Range which lies parallel to the direction of the winds and hence condensation does not occur.
• Gujrat receives less rainfall because there are no hills and mountain ranges.
  The leeward side of the Western Ghats receives less rainfall because when air descends, it gets warmed up. Due to its rising temperature, the relative, humidity of air decreases, and the air turns from a saturated state to an unsaturated state. Due to his fact, no rainfall occurs on the leeward side.

Climate Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Questions.1.
Compare the hot weather season of India with that of cold weather season.
Answer:

Questions.2.
How will you differentiate between the summer and winter monsoons?
Or
Differentiate between South-West and North-East trade winds.
Answer:

Climate Class 9 Important Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (Huts) Questions

Questions. 1.
Give reason for the following:
(i) Thiruvananthapuram has the year equable climate.
(ii) Delhi has extreme climate.
(iii) The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall.
(iv) Leh has moderate precipitation almost through-out the year.
(v) The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.
Answer:
(i) It has equable climate due to proximity to sea. Sea has moderating influence over its climate.
(ii) Because Delhi is far away from sea. As the distance from the sea increases,its moderating influence decreases.
(iii) Tamil Nadu receives rainfall from North-east trade winds.
(iv) Leh is at a very high altitude. During the cold weather season, the ‘Western Disturbances’ contribute to heavy snowfall in this region. Both south-west and south¬east monsoons also cause precipitation in this part.
(ii) (a) In the mid October, the mercury begins to fall at a rapid speed in Northern India.
(b)The low pressure conditions of the North shifts to the Bay of the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri.

Questions.2.
Carefully study the given rainfall and temperature graphs and answer the following of questions:
(i) Which station receives more rainfall?
Answer:
Shillong.

(ii) Which is the rainiest month of Shillong?
Answer:
June

(iii) Which is the coldest month in Leh?
Answer:
January

(iv) Compare the climatic conditions of both the stations with reference to rainfall and temperature.
Answer:

• Leh receives very low rainfall whereas Shillong receives very high rainfall.
• Temperature in Leh remains very low throughout the year whereas temperature in Shillong remains between 10°C to 20°C.
  Bengal by November. This shift causes cyclonic depressions in the Andaman Sea.
•  These cyclonic depressions give rise to tropical cyclones which cause heavy and widespread rains in the deltas

Questions.3.
Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow: [CBSE2014]

(i) Calculate the annual range of temperature of Station A. Why is the range of . temperature very low?
(ii) Which of the two Stations has the lower temperature? Why?
(iii) Calculate the annual rainfall of Station B.
Answer:
(i) 5.6 Because the station is near the sea.
(ii) Station B. Because of high altitude.
(iii) Annual rainfall of station B is 31.8 cm.

Questions.4.
Given below is the climate data – mean monthly temperatures and mean monthly rainfall for stations A, B and C from India. Study the data carefully and answer the following questions:

(i) What is the annual range of temperature in Station A?
Answer:
The annual range of temperature in Station A (32.5°C — 24.5°C) = 8°C

(ii) What is the annual rainfall experienced by the Station A?
Answer.
4.6+1.3+ 1.3 = 128.7 cm.

(iii) Name the wettest month in Station A.
Answer.
November.

(iv) Calculate the annual rainfall of Station C.
Answer.
The annual rainfall of Station C is 183.4 cm. (0.2 + 0.2 + 1.8 + 50.6..)

Climate Class 9 Important Questions Value Based Questions

Questions.1.
Which moral values the monsoon teaches us? Mention any two.
Answer:

• Monsoon acts as a unifying bond.
• Monsoon are responsible for unity in diversity.

Questions.2.
Why the people of India eagerly awaits the arrival of the monsoon?
Answer:
These monsoon winds binds the whole country by providing water to set the agricultural activities in motion.

Questions.3.
Compare he retreating monsoon with advancing monsoon.
Or
Mention any three features of retreating monsoon.
Or
Mention any four features of advancing monsoon.
Answer:

Questions.2.
“Monsoon acts as a unifying bond”. Explain. [CBSE March 2013,15]
Answer:

• The seasonal alteration of the wind systems and the associated weather conditions provide a rhythmic cycle of seasons. Even the uncertainties of rain and uneven distribution are very much typical of the monsoons.
• The Indian landscape, its animal and plant life, its entire agricultural calendar arid the life of the people, including their festivities, revolve around this phenomenon. Year after year, people of India from north to south and from east to west, eagerly await the arrival of the monsoon.
• These monsoon winds bind the whole country by providing water to set the agricultural activities in motion. The river valleys which carry this water also unite as a single river valley unit.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post Climate Class 9 Important Questions Geography Chapter 4 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Population Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Geography Chapter 6

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Population

Population Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the organisation which provide us with information regarding the population of our country.
Answer:
The Census of India.

Question 2.
State the position of India in terms of population size.
Answer:
Second.

Question 3.
State the total population of India according to the 2011 census.
Answer:
Around 1210.2 million.

Question 4.
Which is the
(i) most populous state of India?
(ii) The least populous state of India?
Answer:
(i) Most populous – Uttar Pradesh
(ii) Least populous – Sikkim.

Question 5.
State the total percentage which India accounts to the total population of the world?
Answer:
About 16.7 per cent.

Question 6.
What is India’s share in the-total area of the world?
Answer:
Around 2.4 per cent.

Question 7.
What is the annual growth rate of population of India?
Answer:
Approximately 1.58 per cent.

Question 8.
Which is the most densely populated country of the world?[C.B.S.E 1985]
Answer:
India, about 382 persons per sq km.

Question 9.
Which is the most populated country, in terms of population size?
Answer:
China.

Question 10.
How would you define the term ‘density of population’?
Answer:
Number of persons living per unit of area (per sq km).

Question 11.
What is the growth of population?
Answer:
It refers to the change in the number of inhabitants of a country/territory during a specific period of time.

Question 12.
‘Growth of population is expressed in two ways.’ Mention.
Answer:

• Absolute number.
• Percentage change.

Question 13.
Define the annual growth rate of population.
Answer:
It is the rate of increase of population in the base population.

Question 14.
Name the state having the highest and the lowest density of population.
Answer:
The state having the highest density of population is Bihar (1102 persons per square km) and the lowest is Arunachal Pradesh (17 persons per square km). Both these are approximate figures.

Question 15.
State two factors which affect the distribution of the density of population.
Answer:

• Climate
• Natural resources

Question 16.
State any two implications of the high density of population.
Answer:

• Poverty
• Unemployment

Question 17.
Give two reasons responsible for unfavourable sex-ratio.
Answer:

• Women are often done to death by dowry seekers.
• Lack of education and orthodox customs also go against women folk.

Question 18.
What do you understand by the growth rate?
Answer:
The‘growth rate’is the annual percentage increase in the population of a country.

Question 19.
Why is the North India, plain thickly populated? Give two reasons.[CBSE2014]
Answer:

• The soil of the region is fertile.
• There are large number of factories in this area which provide employment opportunities.

Question 20.
Why is there less population in Rajasthan?
Answer:

• The soil in Rajasthan is less fertile.
• The climate of the region is of extreme type.

Question 21.
Define the term ‘birth rate.’
Answer:
The ‘birth rate’ is the proportion of the number of births in a place in particular duration to the total population, usually expressed as a quantity per thousand people per year.

Question 22.
What is death rate?
Answer:
The number of deaths per thousand persons in a year is called as the ‘death rate’.

Question 23.
What is migration?
Answer:
It is the movement of people across regions and territories.

Question 24.
What is internal migration?
Answer:
The movement of people within the country.

Question 25.
What is external migration?
Answer:
The movement of people across the countries.

Question 26.
What is the dependent ratio of population?
Answer:
Dependent ratio is the ratio between the economically working population and the dependent population.

Question 27.
The sex ratio in rural areas is some what higher than in urban areas. Give one possible cause for it.
Answer:
Migration of male members to the cities in search of jobs.

Question 28.
Migration is an important determinant of population change. Give reason.
Answer:
Migration changes not only the population size but also the population composition of urban and rural populations in terms of age and sex composition.

Question 29.
What is age composition?
Answer:
It refers to the number of people in different age groups in a country.

Question 30.
What is sex ratio? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
The number of females per 1,000 males in the population.

Question 31.
Who is literate?
Answer:
According to the Census of2001, a person aged 7 years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language, is treated as literate.

Question 32.
What is occupational structure?
Answer:
The distribution of the population according to different types of occupation is referred as the occupational structure.

Question 33.
What is census?
Answer:
The census is a count of population of a country. In India, it takes place after every ten years. The last census in India was held in 2011. It is an enquiry based on questionnaire.

Question 34.
Give two reasons for the migration of people from the rural to urban areas in India.
Answer:

• Rising population in rural areas.
• Lack of demand for labour in agriculture.

Question 35.
Name any two states with high density of population?
Answer:

• Bihar
• West Bengal

Question 36.
Name any four states with low density of population?
Answer:

• Mizoram
• Jammu and Kashmir
• Nagaland
• Manipur.

Question 37.
What is the sex ratio in India?
Answer:
According to 2011 Census, the sex ratio in India is 940.

Question 38.
What is the literacy level in India?
Answer:
74.04 per cent (2011 Census).
Male-82.14 Female – 65.46

Question 39.
What is life expectancy in India?
Answer:
Around 65.48 years.

Population Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“The people are important to develop the economy and society .”Explain.
Or
What .is the importance of studying population?
Answer:

• The people make and use resources and are themselves resources with varying quality.
• It is the point of reference from which all other elements are observed and from which they derive significance and meaning.
• “Resources’, ‘calamities and ‘disasters’ are all meaningful only in relation to human beings. Their numbers,
  distribution, growth and characteristics or qualities provide the basic background for understanding and appreciating all aspects of the environment.
• Human beings are producers and consumers of earth’s resources.

Therefore, it is important to know how many people are there in a country, where do they five, how and why their numbers are increasing and what are their characteristics.

Question 2.
“Assam and most of the Penin-sular states have moderate population densities.” Give three reasons.
Answer:

• The region has hilly,dissected and rocky terrain.
•  The region receives moderate to low rainfall.
• The region has shallow and less fertile soil.

Question 3.
Mention the process of change of population.
Answer:

• Birthrate
• Death rate
• Migration

Question 4.
What are the major factors responsible for internal migration?
Answer:
In India, most migrations have been from the rural to the urban areas because of the “push” factor in rural areas. These are adverse conditions of poverty and unemployment in the rural areas and the “pull” of the city in terms of increased employment opportunities are better living conditions.

Question 5.
What is occupational structure? Explain. [CBSE2011-2013]
Answer:
Occupational structure refers to the distribution of work force among different occupations. Different occupations can be classified into three groups:
(i) Primary occupations
(ii) Secondary occupations
(iii) Tertiary occupations
(i) Primary Producers or Occupations: Those who grow natural products like crops, etc. and are mainly engaged in agriculture and allied activities.
(ii) Secondary Occupations: Those who are producing products with the help of machines like textiles, construction, etc.
(iii) Tertiary Occupations: Those who provide services like education, health services, banking, insurance, etc.
About 64 per cent population of India is still engaged in primary sector.

Question 6.
Write short notes on the age composition of population and dependency.
Or
Categorize the population of a nation into three broad categories
on the basis of age composition and explain it. [CBSE March 2011]
Or
What is the relationship between age composition and dependency ratio? Explain. [CBSE March 2011]
Or
What is the age composition of population? Into how many age groups is the population of a nation grouped? Explain. [CBSE March2012,2013]
Answer:
The age composition of population refers to the number of people in different age groups in a country. It is one of the most basic characteristics of a population.
The age composition of population is expressed in three broad categories.

• Children below the working age (below 15 yrs): They are economically unproductive, and need to be provided with food, clothing, education and medical care.
• Persons in the working age (15 to 59 yrs): They are economically productive and biologically reproductive. They comprise the work population.
• Old persons above the working age (above 59 yrs): They can be economically productive, but need care.
  Anyone, who is engaged in work and has the ability to do so is the part of the working population. The dependent population is either in the age group of below 15 years or in the age group of over 59 years.

Question 7.
What is the difference between internal and external (international) migration? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:

Question 8.
What is sex ratio? Give two reasons responsible for an unfavourable sex ratio in India.
Answer:
The number of females per thousand of males is called the sex ratio.
In 1901, the ratio was 1000: 972 but it dropped to 1.000:940 in 2011. Main causes of the change of ratio are:

• Low social, economic and political status of women.
• Dowry system is also responsible for this.
• Parents also feel insecure if a girl child is bom.

Question 9.
What are the significant features of the National Population Policy 2000? [CBSE 2011,13,14]
Answer:

• National Population Policy is a policy adopted by the Government of India in 2000.
• It aims at stabilising the population by 2045.
• It also lays emphasis on the economic growth, social development and environment protection.

The Policy states that it will achieve this goal by raising the age of marriage, making school education free and compulsory upto the age of 14 years and reducing dropouts at the primary and the secondary levels.

Population Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the main cause of the rapid population growth in India? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:

• High Birth Rate and Low Death Rate: From 1921 to 2001, the death rate has fallen from 42.6 to 8.7 per thousand while the birth rate fell from 49.2 to 26.1 per thousand.
• Poverty: Poor people have to spend little on the upbringing of their offsprings. Besides, the children supplement the family income.
• Child Marriage: Early marriage is a common feature in India. About 90 per cent of girls are married in the age group of 15-20 years.
• Low status of women; In India women have a low social status. They are treated merely as child producing machines.
• Illiteracy: Rate of illiteracy of 35 per cent is pretty high in India. Illiterate persons fail to understand the significance of family planning.

Question 2.
Explain the process of population change.
Answer:
There are three main processes of change of population: birth rates, death rates and migration. The natural increase of population is the difference between birth rates and death rates.

• Birth rate: Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand persons in a year. It is a major component of growth because in India, birth rates have always been higher than death rates.
• Death rate: Death rate is the number of deaths per thousand persons in a year. The main cause of the rate of growth of the Indian population has been the rapid decline in death rates. Till 1980, high birth rates and declining death rates led to a large difference between birth rates and death rates resulting in higher rates of population growth. Since 1981, birth rates have also starred declining gradually, resulting in a gradual decline in the rate of population growth.
• Migration – The third component of population growth is migration. Migration is the movement of people across regions and territories. Migration can be internal (within the country) or international (between the countries). Internal migration does not change the size of the: population, but influences the distribution of population within the nation. Migration plays a very significant role in changing the composition and distribution of population.

Question 3.
Write an essay on the population distribution in India pointing out the geographical factors influencing the same.
Or
“Distribution of population in India is uneven.” Prove this statement with examples.[CBSE March 2012,13,15 ]
Answer:
Distribution of population: The average density of population in India according to 2011 Census was about 382 persons per sq. km.

• Low density: The states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Aruna-chal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Tripura, Meghalaya, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh have very low to low population density. Rugged terrain and unfavourable climatic conditions are mainly responsible for the sparse population in these areas.
• Moderate density: The bulk of the peninsular blocks and Assam have a moderate density of population. Distribution of population is influenced here by the rocky nature of the terrain, low to moderate rain, and shallow and less fertile soil.
• High density: The Northern Plains, Tamil Nadu and Kerala have high to very high density of population because of the plain terrain, rich and fertile soil, abundant rainfall and moderate climate.

Population Class 9 Important Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (Hots) Questions

Question 1.
Study the given figure carefully, and answer the following questions:

(i) Which state has the highest share in population?
(ii) Which state has’the lowest share in population?
(iii) What is the share of Bihar in the India’s population?
Answer:
(i) Uttar Pradesh
(ii) Andhra Pradesh
(iii) 8.02%

Question 2.
Study the above data carefully and answer the following questions:

The magnitude and rate of India’s population growth
(i) What was India’s population in 1951?
(ii) What was India’s population in 2011?
(iii) What was absolute increase in India’s Population from 2001 to 2011?
(iv) Which decade has lowest annual growth rate?
Answer:
(i) 361 million
(ii) 1210.1 million
(iii) 1210.1 – 1028.7 = 181.4 million
(iv) 1951

Question 3.
Study the given figure carefully and answer the following questions:
(i) Which age group has the maximum share in the population?
(ii) What do you mean by the working population?
(iii) What is India’s working population?

Answer.
(i) 15-59 years age group, i.e., 58.7per cent.
(ii) Anyone who is engaged in productive work and has the ability to do so is a part of the working population.
(iii) 58.7%

Question 4.

(i) What is sex ratio?
(ii) What is India’s sex ratio in 2011?
(iii) Is sex ratio in the country favourable to females?
(iv) Give one reason for unfavourable sex ratio in India.
Answer:
(i) Number of females per 1,000 males in the population.
(ii) 940 females per 1000 males.
(iii) No, it is unfavourable to females.
(iv) Illiteracy.

Population Class 9 Important Questions Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Kerala has a sex ratio of 1084. Which moral value this data provides us?
Answer.
There is gender equality.

Question 2.
The literacy rate in India is 74.40,82.14 for males and 65.46 for females. What does this indicates?
Answer.
Gender inequality

Question 3.
Mention any two ways to improve the status of women in India?
Answer.

• Reservation of seats in the Parliament for women. .
• Improve literacy rate.

Question 4.
Suggest any three ways to control the rapid growth of population in India?
Answer.

• Spread of education
• Late marriage
• New population policy

Question 5.
Who is treated as literate in India? What is importance of literacy?
Answer.
According to the census of 2011, a person aged 7 years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language, is treated as literate.
Importance

• Only an informed and educated citizen can make intelligent choice and undertake research and development projects.
• Literate citizens become human resource.

Question 6.
“The percentage of population that is economically active is an important index of development.”Explain.
Answer.

• Economic growth is directly dependent on human resources.
• In countries like a very high percentage of population is economically active so these countries have achieved a very high economic growth rate.
• In most of the developing nations the dependency ratio is very high so economic growth rate remains low.

Question 7.
“Health situation in India is still a cause for serious concern”. Give reasons.
Answer.

• Public health facilities only for few: At present, less than 20 per cent of the population utilises public health facilities. One study has pointed out that only 38 per cent of the PHCs have the required number of doctors and only 30 per cent of the PHCs have sufficient stock of medicines.
• Poor health facilities in rural India: Though 70 per cent of India’s population lives in rural areas, only one-fifth of its hospitals are located in rural areas. Rural India has only about half the number of dispensaries.
• Poor health status for women: More than 50 percent of married women between the age group of 15 and 49 have anaemia and nutritional anaemia caused by iron deficiency, which has contributed to 19 percent of maternal deaths.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post Population Class 9 Important Questions Geography Chapter 6 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Geography Chapter 5

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wild Life

Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is natural vegetation or virgin vegetation?
Answer:
It refers to a plant community which has grown naturally without human aid, and has been left undisturbed by human beings for a long time.

Question 2.
What is flora and fauna?
Answer:
Flora – Plants of a particular region or period.
Fauna – The species of animals.

Question 3.
“Land and soil affects the natural vegetation directly and indirectly.” Justify by giving two examples.
Answer:

• The sandy soil of the desert support cactus and thorny bushes.
•  Wet,marshy,deltaic soil supports mangroves.

Question 4.
What is an ecosystem?[CBSE 1997]
Answer:
The interdependence of species of plants and animals in a given area fdhns a single ecosystem.

Question 5.
Name two non-flowering plants.
Answer:
Ferns, algae and fungi.

Question 6.
Name, any two factors that form the flora and the fauna?
Answer:
Soil, relief, climate and drainage.

Question 7.
What is a biome? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
A very large ecosystem on land having distinct types of vegetation and animal life is called a biome.

Question 8.
Mention any two regions having tropical evergreen forests.
Answer:
The Western Ghats, plains of West Bengal and Odisha, and the north-eastern India.

Question 9.
Name two commercially useful trees of the Tropical Rain Forests.
Answer:
Ebony, mahogany and rosewood.

Question 10.
Mention any two factors responsible for deforestation.
Answer:

• Overgrazing by animals
• Careless management of forests

Question 11.
Where are the rhinoceros found?[CBSE 1995F]
Answer:
In swampy and marshy lands of Assam and North-West Bengal. .

Question 12.
The ‘Tropical Rain forests appear green all the year round.’ Give reason. [CBSE2014]
Answer:
There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves.

Question 13.
Which are the most widespread forests of India?
Answer:
Tropical Deciduous Forests.

Question 14.
On the basis of the availability of water, tropical deciduous forests are divided into two parts. What are these two Categories?
Answer:
Dry deciduous and Moist deciduous.

Question 15.
Name one important trees each of the Moist Deciduous and Dry deciduous Forests.
Answer:
Moist Deciduous – Teak.
Dry Deciduous – Sal.

Question 16.
Name any two useful trees of the Thorn Forests.
Answer:
Kikar, babul, khair and date palm.

Question 17.
Name any two trees of the Alpine Forests.
Answer:
Silver fir, pine and junipers.

Question 18.
How many species of birds and fish are known?
Answer:
Fish- About 2500 and Birds-Around 1200

Question 19.
Where are the wild asses found in India? [CBSE 2000]
Answer:
In Rann of Kachchh (Gujarat) and Rajasthan.

Question 20.
Which is the natural habitatof
(i) Indian lion
(ii) Tigers
Answer:
(i) India lions -Gir forests of Gujarat,
(ii) Tigers – Forests of Madhya Pradesh.

Question 21.
Explain with example how temperature can affect the type of . vegetation?
Answer:
On the slopes of the Himalayas, and hills of the Peninsula above, the height of 915m, the fall in the temperature affects the types of vegetation, and its growth and changes it from tropical to subtropical temperature in the alpine vegetation.

Question 22.
Name two areas where the thorn and the scrub forests are formed.
Answer:
Punjab plains, Northern Madhya Pradesh, South-West Uttar Pradesh, (Bundelkhand plateau).

Question 23.
Name any two biosphere reserves.[CBSE 1999]
Answer:
Nilgiri (Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka), Nanda Devi (Uttarakhand).

Question 24.
Name two endangered species of wildlife. [CBSE 1998]
Answer:
Tiger and rhinoceros.

Question 25.
How are the habitats of camels and those of one Horned rhinoceros diametrically opposite to each other? [CBSE 2000(C)]
Answer:
Camels are found in Rajasthan where as the one-homed rhinoceros are found in Assam and North-West Bengal.

Question 26.
Name any two states of India where elephants are found.
Answer:
Assam, Kerala and Karnataka.

Question 27.
Name any two biosphere reserves of India and their location.
Answer:

• Manas – Assam
• Sundarbans – West Bengal

Question 28.
What is India’s rank in the world and in Asia in plant diversity?
Answer:
In the world – Tenth In Asia – Fourth.

Question 29.
Name any one medicinal plant.
Answer:
Neem

Question 30.
Why are the leaves of the Thorn forests small and stems succulent?
Answer:
Leaves of the Thom Forests are mostly small to minimise evaporation, and the stems are succulent to conserve water.

Question 31.
Where is the Alpine Vegetation found?
Answer:
At high altitudes, generally more than 3,600 metres above the sea-level.

Question 32.
How many species of animals does India possess?
Answer:
More than 90,000 species of animals.

Question 33.
What are endangered species?
Answer:
The plant and animal species which are in danger of getting extinct are called the endangered species.

Question 34.
How many plant species are endangered?
Answer:
About 1300 plant species are endangered.

Question 35.
Carefully study the given picture, and identify the type of vegetation. Mention one feature of that vegetation.

Answer.
Thom forests and scrubs The vegetation is found in regions with less than 70 cm of rainfall.

Question 36.
Name any two states where tigers are found.
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal.

Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why does India possess a great variety of flora and fauna?[CBSE  2o15]
Answer:

• Different types of soil: India has almost all major types of soils. It has alluvial soil which is very fertile, black soil, laterite soil, desert and mountain soil. The sandy soils of the desert support cactus and thorny bushes while wet, marshy deltic soils support mangroves and deltic vegetation.
• Different climatic conditions: Different climatic conditions prevail in India. At some places, the temperature is at 55°C and at other,
  it is about – 45°C. So it supports all types of plants. Some places receive a rainfall of more than 1000 cm, and some receive only 50 cm. This also helps in growing different type of plants.
• Sunlight: Sunlight is one of the important factors responsible for the growth of vegetation. Due to the longer duration of sunlight, trees grow faster in most parts of India.
• Precipitation: Precipitation also plays a vital role in the growth of different types of vegetation. Tropical rainforests are found in the Western Ghats due to heavy rainfall.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Tropical Evergreen and Deciduous forests JCBSE 2013,14]
Answer:

Question 3.
Write any two points of difference between
(i) Dry deciduous
(ii) Moist deciduous.
Answer:

Question 4.
Mention any four characteristics of the thorny forests water.
Answer:

• This type of vegetation is found in regions with less than 70 cm of rainfall.
• This type of vegetation is found in the north-western part of the country including the semi-arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana.
• Acacias, palms, euphorbias and cacti are the main plant species.
• Trees are scattered, and have long roots penetrating deep into the soil in order to get moisture.
• The stems are succulent to conserve
• Leaves are mostly thick, and small to minimise evaporation. .

Question 5.
Mention any four characteristics of the mangrove tidal forests.[CBSE2015]
Answer:

• The mangrove tidal forests are found in the areas of coasts influenced by tides. Mud and silt get accumulated on such coasts.
• Dense mangroves are the common varieties with roots of the plants submerged under water.
• The deltas of the Ganga, the , Mahanadi, the Krishna, the Godavari and the Kaveri are covered by such vegetation.
• In the Ganga-Brahamputra delta, the sundari trees are found, which provide a durable hard timber. Palm, coconut, keora, agar also grow in some parts of the delta.

Question 6.
Write three steps taken by the government for the protection and conservation of great biological diversity of India. [CBSE 2013,14]
Answer:

• Various biosphere reserves have been set up in various parts of India. For example the Nilgiri at Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala, Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, etc.
• About 99 national parks, 513 wildlife sanctuaries, and 35 zoological gardens have been set up.
  Financial and technical assistance is provided to many Botanical Gardens set up by the government.

Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the altitude zones of vegetation in the mountainous regions. .
Or
“The mountainous region of India exhibits a succession of natural vegetation belts from tropical to tundra types, all compressed into an altitude of six kilometres or so”. Elaborate the above statement with four examples from different altitudinal belts.
Or
Describe the major vegetation zones of the Himalayan region.
Or
In mountainous area, there is change in natural vegetation due to decrease in temperature. Justify giving examples from different zones. [CBSE March 2011 ]
Answer:
In the Himalayan region of our country, the vegetation differs according to the height.

• In the foothill, (the Shiwalik) are tropical deciduous forests. ‘Sal’ is the most important species of economic significance.
• The zone with altitude 1000 m – 2000 m consists of evergreen forests. Beech, chestnut, oak, ash, etc., are the main trees. These at a higher altitude are replaced by ‘chir’ and ‘chil’.
• The zone between 1500m – 3000 m includes pine, cedar, silver fir and spruce. They are the famous coniferous trees, typical of the dry temperate region found in the inner Himalayan region.
• At the height of 3600 m or more, shrubs, scrubs, and grasses of alpine variety are found.

Question 2.
Write three steps taken by the government for the protection and conservation of great biological diversity of India. [C.B.S.E 1999]
Or
Give any three steps taken by the government of India to protect the flora and fauna. [CBSE March 2011, 2012]
Answer:

• Various biosphere reserves have been set up in various parts of India. For example, the Nilgiri at Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala, Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, etc.
• About 100 national parks, 515 wildlife sanctuaries, and 35 zoological gardens have been set up.
• The endangered species are being identified and special efforts are being made to preserve them. For example: Tiger Project’.
• Killing of wildlife has been banned and special forest officers have been appointed.

Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 9 Important Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (Hots) Questions

Question 1.
Carefully study the given table and answer the following questions:

(i) Is there any relationship between temperature and type of vegetation?
Answer:
Yes, thie fall in temperature affects the type of vegetation and its growth and changes it from tropical to subtropical.

(ii) Identify the type of vegetation you can expect in zone D.
Answer:
Alpine.

(iii) Is temperature the only criteria for all types of vegetation?
Answer:
No, vegetation also depends on rainfall, humidity, and altitude.

Question 2.
Study the given bar graph carefully, and answer the following questions to which state has the highest area under forests?
(i) Which state has the highest area under forests?
(ii) Name any two states which have more than 80% of the area under forests?
(iii) Which Union territory has the highest area under forests?
(iv) Name any two states having very low area under forests.

Answer:
(i) Nagaland
(ii) Nagaland and Mizoram
(iii) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(iv) Punjab and Haryana

Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 9 Important Questions Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Mention any two values which are reflected by the ecosystem?
Answer:
Importance of interdependent and interrelationship.

Question 2.
How do the human beings influence the ecology of a region?
Answer:
The greed of human beings leads to over utilisation of these resources. They cut the trees and kill the animals creating ecological imbalance.

Question 3.
What are the major factors responsible for the threat to the nature? Mention any two.
Answer:

• Destruction of habit
• Human predation.

Question 4.
What is the importance of awlwmlg for us?
Answer:

• Animals provide us meat,eggs etc.
• Fish provide us nutritive food.
• Many insects helps in pollination of crops.
• Animals are important part of our ecosystem.
• Animals skin is used to prepare leather

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 9 Important Questions Geography Chapter 5 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Working of Institutions Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Civics Chapter 5

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 5 Working of Institutions

Working of Institutions Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the three organs of the Government.
Answer:

• Executive
• Legislative
• Judiciary

Question 2.
Who is the head of the state and the head of the government?
Answer:
The President is the head of the state whereas Prime Minister is the head of the government.

Question 3.
What is a Parliament? Name the two houses of the Parliament.
Answer:
It is the supreme law making body of India. It has two Houses :

• Lok Sabha
• Rajya Sabha.

Question 4.
What are institutions?
Answer:
The arrangements which are made in modern democracies to run the government.

Question 5.
Name any three institutions responsible to run the democratic government in India.
Answer:

• The Prime Minister and the Cabinet.
• The Civil Servant.
• The Supreme Court.

Question 6.
Name the institution where disputes between citizens and the government are finally settled.
Answer:
The Supreme Court.

Question 7.
Why democratic governments insist on institutions? Give two reasons.
Answer:

• Institutions involve rules and regulations.
• Institutions bind the hands of the rulers as these involve meetings, committees and routines.

Question 8.
Which House has more power regarding the money bill? Give reason.
Answer:
The Lok Sabha exercises more powers in money matters. Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of any other money related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject it. The Rajya Sabha can only delay it by 14 days or suggest changes, in it. The Lok Sabha may or may not accept these changes.

Question 9.
Explain No Confidence Motion.
Answer:
Only a person who enjoys the support of the majority of the members of the Lok Sabha is appointed as the Prime Minister. If a no confidence motion is moved in the Lok Sabha, and passed, then,the Government has to resign.

Question 10.
With reference to the Rajya Sabha answer the following questions:
(i) What is its power relating to money bill?
(ii) Can it pass a No-Confidence Motion?
Answer:
(i) A Money bill can originate only in the Lok Sabha. When it is sent to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot reject it. The Rajya Sabha can delay it for 14 days.
(ii) No, Rajya Sabha cannot pass the No-confidence Motion.

Question 11.
Define Executive. [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
At different levels of any government we find functionaries who take day-to-day decisions, but do not exercise the supreme power on behalf of the people. All those functionaries are collectively known as the executive.

Question 12.
Who appoints the Prime Minister?
Answer:
The Prime Minister is appointed by the President.

Question 13.
What is the tenure of the Prime Minister?
Answer:
The Prime Minister does not have a fixed tenure. Normally a Prime Minister is elected for 5 years, but remains in power till he enjoys the majority support.

Question 14.
Who are Cabinet Ministers?[CBSE 2013, 14]
Answer:
They are usually the top level leaders of the ruling party or parties, who are in charge of the major ministries like Defence, Railway, Foreign Affairs etc. Normally, all the major decisions are taken by these ministers.

Question 15.
What is judiciary? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
All the courts at different levels in a country are called the judiciary.

Question 16.
Which is the highest court of India?
Answer:
The Supreme Court.

Question 17.
“The Constitution of India has made necessary provisions for ensuring independence of judiciary.” Justify your answer by giving two reasons.
Answer:

• The judges are appointed by the executive on the basis of the prescribed qualifications, and according to a well established procedure.
• The Judges cannot be removed at the whims of the executive.

Question 18.
Who appoints the Chief Justice of India and the other judges?
Answer:
The President of India appoints the Chief Justice of India. The President consults other Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts while making appointments of other judges.

Question 19.
State any two powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:

• The Supreme Court acts as the guardian of fundamental rights.
• It acts as a guardian of the Constitution.

Question 20.
What is the composition of Indian judiciary?
Answer:

• The Supreme Court.
• The High Court.
• The District Court.

Working of Institutions Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is there a need for political institutions? [CBSE 2014,15]
Answer:

• To take decisions : Countries need political institutions to take decisions regarding the welfare of the people. Institutions formulate various policies and programmes.
• Implementation : The decisions which have been taken are to be implemented. So countries need institutions to implement the decisions.
• To solve the disputes : Institutions are also needed to solve the disputes between various institutions.
•  To take right decisions : Institutions help the governments to take the right decisions.

Question 2.
Distinguish between political executive and permanent executive.
Answer:

Question 13.
Compare the power, tenure and working of both the Houses of the Indian Parliament. [CBSE March 2011]
Or
The Lok Sabha is more powerful than the Rajya Sabha. Explain by giving three reasons. [CBSE March 2012,13]
Or
Which house of the Parliament is more powerful in India? Give reasons.[CBSE March 2011,2012]
Or
Our Constitution does give the Rsgya Sabha some special powers over the states, but Lok Sabha exercises supreme power. How? Explain. [CBSE March 2012]
Answer:

Question 4.
Why do the political executives have more power than the permanent executives? [CBSE March 2014]
Answer:

• In a democracy, the will of the people is supreme, and the political executive is elected by the people.
• All the political executives are answerable to the people. The people can change them if they don’t work according to the wishes of the people.
• The non-political executives are the experts in their field but political executives have to see the welfare of all.
• The experts can tell the route, but the political executives have a larger view so they decide the destination.

Working of Institutions Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the major powers and functions of the Prime Minister.
Answer:

• Link : The Prime Minister is the link between the Cabinet and the President. The decisions of the Cabinet are conveyed to the President through the Prime Minister. It is he who keeps him informed on all matters of government.
• Formation of the Cabinet: The Prime Minister prepares the list of his Council of Ministers and sends it to the President. He can reshuffle hi? Council of Ministers whenever he likes. He can also ask any minister to resign if he is not satisfied with his working.
• Leader of the Lok Sabha : The Prime Minister presides over the meetings of the Cabinet. He maintains co-ordination between different departments of the government.
• Foreign Affairs : The Prime Minister plays an important role in the management of foreign affairs. He formulates the internal and external policies of the country.
• Leader of the Party: The Prime Minister has the main say in framing the policy of his party.
• Leader of the Nation: The Prime Minister is the most important leader of the nation. People always eagerly hear his views. His views related to any internal or external policy are heard more carefully.

Question 2.
Explain the major powers and functions of the Parliament.
Answer:

• Legislative Powers : The Parliament can make laws on all those subjects which have been given in the Union List and the Concurrent List. Under certain cases, it can also make laws on those subjects which have been given in the State List.
• Control over Finance : The annual budget of the Central Government is passed by Parliament. Without Parliament’s approval, the government cannot impose any tax or incur any expenditure.
• Control over the Executive: The Parliament can seek information regarding administration. It can pass a resolution of no confidence against the ministry and ask it to resign. Question hours are also quite effective in keeping the government and its ministers under control.
• Amendment or New Law : No amendment can be made in the Constitution without the approval of the Parliament.
• Functions related to Elections : The Parliament elects the President, the Vice-President, Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Deputy Speaker. Members of the Rajya Sabha elect the Vice-Chairman.

Question 3.
Explain briefly the powers and functions of the Supreme Court.
Answer:

• Original Jurisdiction : The original jurisdiction extends to those cases which the Supreme Court has the authority to hear and decide in the first instance.
  • Between citizens of the country;
  • Between citizens and government;
  • Between two or more state governments; and
  • Between governments at the union and state level.
• Appellate Jurisdiction: It is the highest court of appeal in civil and criminal cases. It can hear appeals against the decisions of the High Courts.
• Advisory Jurisdiction : As the highest court in the country, the Supreme Court gives legal advice to the President of India on any legal or constitutional matter referred to it. However, the advice is not binding on the Supreme Court.
• Guardian of the Constitution: The Supreme Court acts as the guardian and final interpreter of the Constitution. If the government passes any law or issues any order which is in violation of the Constitution, the Supreme Court has the power to declare the law or order unconstitutional.
• Guardian of Fundamental Rights: The Supreme Court also acts as a guardian of the fundamental rights of the citizens. When a fundamental right of any citizen is violated by the government or any individual he can seek the protection of the Supreme Court.

Working of Institutions Class 9 Important Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (Hots) Questions

Question 1.
Explain the composition of the Council of Ministers.[CBSE March 2011,12,13,15]
Or
What is meant by council of Ministers? Explain the different categories of ministers.[CBSE March 2013]
Answer:
The Council of Ministers is a large body, it consists all the three ranks of ministers. The Council of Ministers comprises of the three categories of ministers. These are:

• Cabinet Ministers : Constitute the inner ring of the council of ministers. These are the top-level leaders of the ruling party / parties who are incharge of the important ministries. They usually meet to take decisions in the name of the council of ministers.
• Ministers of State with Independent Charge : They are usually in charge of smaller ministries. They participate in the cabinet meetings only when they are invited.
• Ministers of State : They are attached to and are required to assist the Cabinet ministers.

Question 2.
Give any three functions (or responsibilities) of the government.[CBSE March 2011,12,13]
Answer:

• Government collects taxes and uses it for administration, defence and development programmes.
• Government ensures security to the citizens and provides facilities for education and health.
• It formulates and implements several welfare schemes.

Question 3.
What is public interest litigation? What is its importance?[CBSE March 2011]
Answer:
Any one can approach the courts if public interest is hurt by the actions of government. This is called the public interest litigation. The courts intervene to prevent the misuse of the government’s power to make decisions. They check the malpractices on the part of public officials.

Question 4.
What is job reservation? What is its importance?
Answer:
Under job reservation policy some percentage of total government job vacancies are reserved for people and communities who are economically or socially backward. Job reservation policy give a fair opportunity to those communities who so far had not adequately been represented in government employment.

Working of Institutions Class 9 Important Questions Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Mention the ethical values which are reflected by the coalition governmen?
Answer:

• Accommodating different groups and factions
• Alliance
• Interdependence
• Cooperation

Question 2.
Under what circumstances does the President exercise his discretion in the appointment of the Prime Minister. [CBSE March 2014]
Or
Explain the discretionary powers of the President.
Answer:
With no single party getting a clear majority, a coalition of parties stake their claim to form the government. The President has to use his individual judgement and invite such a leader to head the government as Prime Minister, who can provide a stable government to the country.

Question 3.
Why is there a need for political institutions? [CBSE 2015]
Or
Why are political institutions important? Give any three points.[CBSE March 2011]
Answer:

• To take decisions : Countries need political institutions to take decisions regarding the welfare of the people. Institutions formulate various policies and programmes.
• Implementation : The decisions which have been taken are to be implemented. So countries need institutions to implement the decisions.
•  To solve the disputes : Institutions are also needed to solve the disputes between various institutions.
•  To take right decisions : Institutions help the governments to take the right decisions.
• To avoid bad decisions : Institutions follow a proper procedure to take decisions. Institutions make it difficult to have a good decision taken very quickly but they also make it equally difficult to rush through a bad decision.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post Working of Institutions Class 9 Important Questions Civics Chapter 5 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Important  Questions for CBSE Class 9 English Chapter 1 The Man who knew too much

REFERENCE TO CONTEXT QUESTIONS (SOLVED)

Read the given extracts and answer the questions that follow :
Question.1. The Sergeant asked, “You had any training before ?”
The Professor answered with a phrase that was to become familiar to all of us. “No, Sergeant. It’s all a matter of intelligent reading.”
(а) Why did the Sergeant put this question ?
(b) What was the Sergeant’s purpose in putting the Professor so many questions ? (c) Give the meaning of ‘intelligent reading’.
Answers :
(a) The Sergeant put this question because the Professor had answered all the questions put to him by the Sergeant.
(b) The Sergeant put so many questions to belittle the Professor.
(c) It means ‘complete understanding of what is read’.

Question.2. remember the first lesson we had in musketry. We stood in an attentive circle while a Sergeant, a man as dark and sun-dried as raisins, wearing North-West Frontier ribbons, described the mechanism of a service rifle.
(a) What is the meaning of musketry ?
(b) Describe the Sergeant.
(c) What does the phrase ‘North-West Frontier Ribbons’ convey about the person
mentioned? (CBSE 2014)
Answers :
(a) It means the art of using musket, a type of gun.
(b) The Sergeant was a dark-complexioned, experienced soldier.
(c) It means that the Sergeant had won an honour fighting on the North-West
Frontier.

Question.3. When, after a hard morning’s work cleaning out our hut, we listened in silence to the Orderly Officer’s praise, the Professor would break out with a ringing, dutifully beaming, “Thank you, sir!” And how superior, how condescending he was. It was always, “Let me show you, fellow,” or “No, you’ll ruin your rifle, that way, old man.”
(a) Give the meaning of the word ‘condescending’.
(b) Why did Private Quelch behave in this manner with his superiors ?
(c) Which expression tells us that Private Quelch was always cheerful ?[CBSE 2014]
Answers :
(a) The word ‘condescending ‘ means behaving in a polite manner but showing as if one were obliging somebody.
(b) Private Quelch behaved in an over-confident manner because he wanted to show off his knowledge.
(c) The phrase is ‘break out with a ringing, dutifully beaming’.

Question.4. A voice interrupted, ‘Two thousand, four hundred and forty feet per second.’
(а) Who spoke this line and to whom ?
(b) In which context did he speak ?
(c) Give the meaning of the word ‘interrupted’.
Answers :
(а) Private Quelch spoke this line to the Sergeant.
(b) He spoke when the Sergeant was telling about the speed of the bullet.
(c) It means ‘stopped someone to say or do something’.

Question.5. What could a gang of louts like us do with a man like that ?
(а) Who utters these sentiments ?
(b) Which ‘gang of louts’ is referred to here ?
(c) What do you mean by ‘louts’ ?
Answers :
(a) The narrator, one of the trainees, utters these sentiments.
(b) ‘The gang of louts’ refers to the group of trainees who are quite mischievous and aggressive.
(c) ‘those who behave rudely and aggressively’.

Question.6. He was our hero, and we used to tell each other that he was so tough that you could hammer nails into him without his noticing it.
(a) Who is ‘he’ referred to here ?
(b) What kind of person was he ?
(c) What does ‘tough’ mean ?
Answers:
(а) ‘He’ is Corporal Turnbull.
(b) He was a young man, very serious and tough-minded.
(c) ‘mentally strong’.

Question.7. The Corporal said nothing, but his brow tightened. He opened his mouth to resume.
(а) What made the Corporal feel irritated ?
(b) What did he resume ?
(c) Give the meaning of‘resume’.
Answers :
(a) Private Quelch’s interrupting his lecture made him feel irritated.
(b) He was lecturing to new recruits.
(c) ‘begin again’.

Question.8. I met Private Quelch at the training depot. A man is liable in his first week of army life-together with his uniform, rifle and equipment-a nickname.
(a) What was the nickname of Private Quelch ?
(b) Why was he called ‘Professor’ ?
(c) Give the meaning of the word ‘liable’.
Answers :
(a) The nickname of Private Quelch was ‘Professor’.
(b) He was called Professor because of his habit of sermonizing to one and all.
(c) ‘likely to have/get’.

Question.9.“Really. I must protest against this abominably unscientific and unhygienic
method of peeling potatoes. I need to only draw your attention to the sheer waste of vitamin values “
(a) Who is ‘I’ here ?
(b) Where is the speaker ?
(c) What does he want to say ? Why ?
Answers :
(а) T is here Private Quelch.
(b) Private Quelch, the speaker, is in the kitchen.
(c) He is trying to tell his co-workers the best way of peeling potatoes. He wants to show that he has better knowledge about the task than they do.

Question.10.“Thank you, Private Quelch. Fall in with the others now”.
(a) Who thanked Private Quelch ?
(b) What task was entrusted to Private Quelch ?
(c) What does ‘fall in’ mean ?
Answers :
(а) Corporal Turnbull thanked Private Quelch.
(b) Private Quelch was asked to lecture on the characteristics of the grenade.
(c) ‘form lines’.

Question.11. So this was the great moment.
(а) Why was that moment considered the great ?
(b) What duty was assigned to Private Quelch ?
(c) Use another word for ‘moment’.
Answers: 
(а) The ‘moment’ was great as the trainees thought that the Corporal was going to nominate one of them for a big job or for a stripe.
(b) Private Quelch was assigned kitchen duties permanently.
(c) ‘instant’.

Question.12. Of course, it was a joke for days afterwards; a joke and joy to all of us.
(a) What was the ‘joke’ ?
(b) Why were the trainees happy ?
(c) What do you mean by ‘all of us’ here ?
Answers :
(a) The ‘joke’ was the assigning of kitchen duties to Private Quelch quite unexpectedly.
(b) The trainees were happy because Private Quelch would no longer be with them to browbeat them with his superior knowledge.
(c) ‘all trainees including the narrator’.

Question.13. He had brains. He was sure to get a commission, before long. As a first step, he meant to get a stripe.
(a) Who is ‘he’ referred to ?
(b) What made him so confident ?
(c) What do you mean by ‘stripe’ ?
Answers :
(а) ‘He’ is referred to Private Quelch, ‘Professor’, who was one of the trainee soldiers.
(б) His knowledge and intelligence made him confident.
(c) ‘a V-shaped band to indicate the rank of a soldier’.

Question.14. “What about a song, chaps ?” is not greeted politely at the end of thirty miles.
(а) Who would suggest singing a song ?
(b) Why was this suggestion resented by his fellow trainees ?
(c) What do you mean by ‘chaps’ ?
Answers :
(a) Private Quelch would suggest singing a song.
(b) The suggestion was resented because all the trainees, except perhaps Quelch, were dead tired at the end of a long thirty-mile route march.
(c) ‘boys’.

Question.15. We tried to hit back at him with clumsy sarcasms and practical jokes.
(а) Who is ‘him’ referred to here ?
(b) Why was he ‘attacked’ ?
(c) Give the meaning of ‘sarcasms’.
Answers :
(а) ‘Him’ is here referred to Private Quelch.
(b) He was ‘attacked’ for browbeating his fellow trainees with his vast knowledge.
(c) ‘remarks that are intended to hurt someone’.

Question.16. The Professor scarcely noticed; he was too busy working for his stripe.
(а) What did the Professor scarcely notice ?
(b) What impression do you form of him ?
(c) Give the meaning of ‘scarcely’.
Answers :
(а) The Professor scarcely noticed the sarcasm in the remarks of his fellow trainees.
(b) He was simple-minded, though he sounded rude and aggressive.
(c) ‘hardly’.

Question.17. Each time one of us made a mistake the Professor would publicly correct him.
(a) Who was called the Professor ?
(b) What tells you that he was a tactless fellow ?
(c) Give the meaning of ‘publicly’.
Answers :
(a) Private Quelch was called Professor in jest.
(b) His habit of correcting others in public showed that he was tactless.
(c) ‘when other people, especially strangers are present’.

Question.18. “Forty four”.
“What’s that ?” The Corporal looked over his shoulder.
(а) Who spoke ‘forty four’ ? What did he mean ?
(b) What was the Corporal’s reaction ?
(c) What do you mean by ‘looked over’ ?
Answers :
(а) Private Quelch spoke ‘forty four’. He meant to say that a grenade is divided into forty four fragments.
(b) The Corporal was baffled at this sudden, unexpected remark.
(c) ‘inspected/examined’.

Question.19. The Professor was speaking again. “Shouldn’t you have started off with five characteristics of the grenade ? Our instructor at the other camp always used to, you know.’
(а) Who was being addressed to by the Professor ?
(b) What was the most tactless remark he made ?
(c) Give the meaning of ‘characteristics’.
Answers :
(а) The Corporal was being addressed to by the Professor.
(b) The most tactless remark was : “Our instructor at the other camp always used to…”.
(c) ‘features/qualities’.

Question.20. The squad listened in a cowed, horrified kind of silence.
(а) What do you mean by ‘the squad’ here ?
(b) What made them horrified and silent ?
(c) Give the meaning of‘cowed’.
Answers :
(a) A small group of trainee soldiers.
(b) They were horrified and silent at the humiliating comments made by the Professor for the Corporal.
(c) ‘frightened’

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (SOLVED)

Answer each of the following questions in 30-40 words.
Question.l. Who was Private Quelch ? Where did the narrator meet him ?
Answer. Private Quelch was a trainee soldier. He was a bespectacled, lanky person. He was serious-minded person. He looked frowning all the time. He was in the bad habit of sermonising and philosophising. The narrator met him at his training depot as he himself was a trainee there.

Question.2. Why was Private Quelch labelled as the ‘Professor’ ? (CBSE 2014)
Answer. Private Quelch, a trainee soldier, was a bespectacled, serious-type of person. He had a great knowledge in his field. He was in the habit of sermonizing and finding fault with others. Se he was labelled as the Professor by his fellow trainees.

Question.3. Who is an Orderly Officer in lesson ‘The Man Who Knew Too Much’ ? How did the Professor behave in front of him ? (CBSE 2014)
Answer. An Orderly Officer in the lesson is an officer of the day. The Professor wanted to please him. So he cleaned his hut so thoroughly that the officer could not help praising him. In this task he outshone his fellow trainees.

Question.4. Describe Private Quelch. (CBSE 2014)
Answer. Private Quelch was a young trainee soldier. He was lanking, stooping and serious. He wore horn-rimmed spectacles. He had awesome knowledge in his field. Everyone was jealous of him. He earned the label of the Professor.

Question.5. Aircraft recognition was a matter of pride for the narrator and his friends in the lesson “The Man Who Knew Too Much”. How did the Professor humiliate them ? (CBSE 2014)
Answer. One day the trainee fellows of the Professor, among whom was the narrator, heard the sound of an aircraft. The aircraft was not visible in the sun. The Professor at once said on hearing the drone of the plane that it was a North American Harvard Trainer, while no one could recognize the plane. It was something humiliating for the narrator and his friends.

Question.6. How did Private Quelch respond to mistakes made by his colleagues in the army training camp in the lesson ‘The Man Who Knew Much’ ?[CBSE]
Answer. In the army training camp Private Quelch would at once respond to the mistakes made by his colleagues. He would intervene to show how the rifle is handled properly and used to fire a bullet. His habit of correcting others in public was not liked by anyone.

Question.7. What was Private Quelch’s attitude to his juniors ? Give examples to support your answer. (CBSE)
Answer. Private Quelch’s superior attitude to his juniors was resented by one and all. Once he intervened to tell someone to handle the rifle properly. At the end of a long, tiring march he angered others by suggesting, “What about a song, chaps ?”

Question.8. What was Private Quelch’s attitude to his seniors ? Give examples to support your answer. (CBSE 2014)
Answer. Private Quelch’s attitude to his seniors was irritating. He interrupted the Sergeant and told him the exact speed of the bullet. Then he interrupted Corporal Turnbull to tell him that a grenade has exactly forty four fragments.

Question.9. What was Tumbull’s reaction to Private Quelch’s answer ?(CBSE 2014)
Answer. Corporal Turnbull became angry on listening to Private Quelch’s answer. His brow tightened. He asked him to give a lecture on the grenade in place of him. In order to teach him a lesson, he nominated him for permanent cookhouse duties.

Question.10. What was the announcement made by Corporal Turnbull in the lesson The Man Who Knew Too Much’ ? Why did he make the announcement ?(CBSE 2014)
Answer. Corporal Turnbull announced that he was nominating Private Quelch on permanent cookhouse duties. He made this announcement to take revenge on Private Quelch for humiliating and correcting him before others.

Question.11. Why was everybody happy when Private Quelch was shifted to the cookhouse ? (CBSE 2014)
Answer. When Private Quelch was shifted to the cookhouse, everybody was happy. He had become a nuisance for them by finding faults with one and all in the public. Everyone felt that it was a good riddance.

Question.12. What was the Professor teaching his colleagues in the cookhouse ?(CBSE 2014)
Answer. Even in the cookhouse, the Professor did not stop sermonizing. He told his colleagues how to peel potatoes to preserve their hygienic value. He protested against the way they were peeling potatoes.

Question.13. Which characteristics of Private Quelch do you like most ?(CBSE 2014)
Answer. Private Quelch was not a narrow-minded or evil-minded person. We appreciate his simple-mindedness and his desire to be helpful to others. His hard working nature and intelligence are really appreciable.

Question.14. What made Private Quelch unpopular ?
Answer. Private Quelch was in the habit of finding faults with others. He would flaunt his knowledge by correcting even his seniors in the public. This habit of his made him unpopular in the army camp.

Question.15. Narrate in your own words the incident that proved to be a turning point in Private Quelch’s life.
Answer. Private Quelch was hopeful of getting a commission soon. One day, as usual, he corrected his senior, Corporal Turnbull, by telling him the exact number of fragments a grenade has. This infuriated the Corporal who sent him on permanent cookhouse duties as punishment. This barred him from realizing his ambition.

Question.16. What did the Professor mean by “intelligent reading” ?
Answer. By “intelligent reading” the Professor meant thorough understanding of what he read. He did not read anything casually. He made it a point to learn everything by heart.

Question.17. What were the Professor’s ambitions in the army ?
Answer. The Professor’s ambitions were to get a stripe and a commission in the army. He really worked hard for realizing these ambitions. Only his impractical and tactless approach took him away from his goal.

Question.18. Did Private Quelch’s day to day practices take him closer towards his goal ? How can you make out ?
Answer.No, Private Quelch’s day to day practices did not take him closer towards his goal. He had antagonized everyone including his instructors by interrupting and correcting everyone publicly. The Corporal sent him to the kitchen for permanent cookhouse duties.

Question.19. Describe Corporal Turnbull.
Answer. Corporal Turnbull was a strong and sturdy man. He was boastful of his physical toughness. He had come back from Dunkirk. He was tough, serious and even revengeful. He did not take Private Quelch’s interruption lightly and took a sort of revenge on him by sending him to kitchen to do cooking duties.

Question.20. Do you think Private Quelch learnt a lesson when he was chosen for cookhouse duties ? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer. Private Quelch did not learn any lesson. Even in the kitchen he continued with his interruptions and sermons. The author and his friend heard him protesting against the unscientific method of peeling potatoes, which was “a sheer waste of vitamin.

VALUE-BASED LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (SOLVED)

Answer the following questions in 80-100 words each.
Question.1. “Too much knowledge is also a bane’. Comment on the statement with reference to Private Quelch’s character. (CBSE 2014)
Answer. Having too much knowledge is not a bane. In fact, each one of us should aim at getting as much knowledge as possible. A knowledgeable person, if he is wise also, is respected and honoured everywhere. It is the public show of knowledge which is bad. Sometimes it proves to be harmful, as in the case of Private Quelch. No one can dislike Private Quelch for his extraordinary knowledge. It is his tactless flaundering of knowledge that proves to be harmful to him. He is in the habit of correcting even his superiors in public. He angers the Sergeant for telling him the exact speed of the bullet while he was lecturing to the trainees. He infuriates Corporal Turnbull by correcting him and telling him to improve his lecture. Corporal Turnbull sends him on permanent cookhouse duties, jeopardizing his career.

Question.2. Self-promotion always brings resentment from others. Keeping the above statement in mind, comment on the character of Private Quelch.(CBSE 2014)
Answer. Self-promotion is now an accepted social value. Everyone, from a politician to an actor, is engaged in self-promotion. Watch any TV serial, you will come across examples of brazen self-promotion. But it is a fact that too much self¬promotion often boomrangs. This is what we see in the case of Private Quelch. Private Quelch or the ‘Professor’ has awesome knowledge about his field. He is in a hurry to impress others with his knowledge to realize his aim of getting commission in the army. So he tactlessly makes a show-off of his knowledge. He loses no opportunity to correct even his seniors in public. His fellow trainees begin to resent his attempts at self-promotion. He becomes a butt of their sarcasms and jokes. He tries to impress the Sergeant and the Corporal by interrupting and correcting them before others. Finally, his self¬promotion costs him dearly. He is sent on permanent cookhouse duties. He loses a golden chance to get commission in the army.

Question.3. Private Quelch’s ambition had blinded him. Analyse Corporal’s reaction to his behaviour. (CBSE 2014)
Answer. It is good to have an ambition. There cannot be any progress without having an aim in life. Ho ever, one should never be blinded by ambition. One should never be in a hurry to achieve one’s aim. When one is in a hurry, one becomes tactless and irrational, as Private Quelch becomes. He wants to get commission in the army. He has acquired knowledge which is more than sufficient. He can easily achieve his aim. Yet he jeopardizes his prospects by his tactless behaviour. He annoys Corporal Turnbull by publicly correcting him. The Corporal takes a revenge on him by sending him on permanent cookhouse duties. His reaction is natural. But we feel that it is too severe and negative. He should have given Private Quelch some other less severe punishment.

Question.4. ‘It’s all a matter of intelligent reading’, said Private Quelch. Evaluate the statement on the basis of Professor’s character. (CBSE 2014)
Answer. Private Quelch made this remark when the Sergeant, impressed by his knowledge, asked him, “You had any training before ?” The remark is quite tactless and reveals Professor’s self-pride and his tendency to show off. It, no doubt, annoys his senior. Even his juniors feel that he has crossed the limits by publicly correcting the Sergeant as to what the exact speed of the bullet is. Intelligent reading is good, but the way it is used matters a lot. Private Quelch uses his knowledge for self-promotion and, that too, tactlessly. No wonder, he gets his career jeopardized by infuriating Corporal Turnbull.

Question.5. Although the Professor was knowledgeable and willing to share his knowledge with his mates, they avoided crossing paths with him. Comment with reference to ‘The Man Who Knew Too Much.’(CBSE 2014)
Answer. Knowledgeable persons are sometimes avoided by their friends and associates. It is so because no one wants to be overshadowed all the time by someone. Private Quelch or the Professor has acquired much knowledge about his field. When he begins to outdo his fellow trainees with his superior knowledge they begin to avoid him. One day at the end of a tiring, thirty mile route march he suggested with his horrible heartiness, “What about a song chaps ?” No one greeted the suggestion. Day in and day out he began to lecture to them in his droning, remorseless voice on every aspect of human knowledge. Very soon his peers were in an awe of him. He was made a butt of sarcasms and jokes.

Question.6. What were the negative characteristics of Private Quelch’s character ? Explain any four. (CBSE 2014)
Answer. Private Quelch was a hardworking, simple-minded fellow. But he has some glaring negative personality traits. He was in the bad habit of showing off his knowledge. He would lose no opportunity to do so. Then he was quite tactless. He did not know that it was not good to interrupt one’s seniors in an effort to impress them. He was also ready to correct others in public. He was unaware that one feels embarrassed and humiliated if corrected before strangers. He was also a very condescending person. He would sometimes try to please his seniors by outshining others. All these character traits made him unpopular among both his seniors and juniors.

Question.7. What were the positive characteristics of Private Quelch’s character ? Explain any four. (CBSE 2014)
Answer. Private Quelch was a hardworking fellow. He would spend a lot of time in reading books and manuals. He wanted to acquire as much knowledge as possible. Indeed, he was a highly knowledgeable person. He could recall the minor details of what he had read. Then he was quite helpful. Whenever he found someone doing something wrong, he extended his helping hand willingly. He seemed to be free from ill-will against anyone. He did not pay any attention to his fellow trainees’ sarcasms and jokes. He had no grudge even against Corporal Turnbull. He seemed to be happy and contented with his duties in the cookhouse.

Question.8. “As a punishment Quelch was put on kitchen duties.”
Imagine yourself as the author of the story “The Man Who Knew Too Much”. Write a letter to your friend explaining the reason for giving him such punishment. (CBSE 2012)
Answer. 10 Green House
Mountain Top, MA
3rd March, 20
Dear George Hope you’re fine!
Thank you for reading my story. You have protested against the unjust punishment given to Private Quelch. You will agree with me that showing off one’s knowledge to belittle others in public is not a minor offence. It can infuriate anyone. Corporal Turnbull, if you remember, is a severe, hardy person.
How can he ignore anyone’s snub ? He acts as per his character traits. If he does not punish the Professor he will be acting against his own nature. So he sends him to kitchen so that he dare not cross his path again. Private Quelch, according to me, deserves punishment, and that is the message of the story : don’t cross the limits of decency even if you’re right.
Hope you’ll agree with me. Or we can agree to disagree. What do you say ?
Yours sincerely Alexander

Question.9. ‘Each time one of us made a mistake the Professor would publicly correct him.’
The ‘Professor’ was in the habit of finding faults. He would criticize anyone in public. Do you approve or disapprove his behaviour ? Should we make fun of others in public, even if they are wrong ? What would be the consequences if we do so ?
Answer. Private Quelch, called ‘Professor’ in jest, was in the habit of finding faults, sermonizing and publicly correcting others. He was not tactful, as he berated even his seniors in public, for which he had to suffer. He was sent on an unimportant duty in the kitchen.
We disapprove his behaviour. We should not berate anyone in public even if he is at fault or his knowledge is imperfect. We should particularly be careful while dealing with our superiors. Our superiors who can harm us will not tolerate any public criticism, however fair they may be.
If we persist in criticising and correcting others in public, we are likely to invite trouble. The person thus criticised will feel humiliated and react in some way or the other. He may assault us physically in anger. If in power, he may harm our career in some way. So, we should be tactful and practical. We should show off our knowledge only when it is safe and desirable to do so.

Question.10. You are ‘Professor’. Write a diary entry after your first day at the cookhouse, describing the events that led to this assignment, also express your thoughts and feelings about the events of the day in about 150 words.
Answer. 2nd January, 20 , Wednesday 10 p.m.
I am sad at what happened today. I am peeling potatoes in the cookhouse¬something I had never dreamt of. I know it will be very difficult for me to get the active duties once again. Corporal Turnbull is really angry with me.
I don’t know what possessed me when I could not contain myself and interrupted the Corporal when he was explaining the structure of the grenade. When he asked me to give the lecture in his place, I did not realize its implications. In my zeal to prove myself I spoke on the subject well. My colleagues seemed to be overawed. They were silent and perhaps knew better than me what was in my store. The Corporal got really offended with my approach. He said nothing but sent me to the cookhouse.
I know it is a punishment duty. But what can I do ? Even here when I find people doing something wrong, I fail to check myself and try to correct them. People call it ‘sermonizing’. Whatever it is, it is. I cannot overlook ignorance. Of course, I shall try to be a bit more rational and tactful in future.

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Important  Questions for CBSE Class 9 English Chapter 3 Best Seller

REFERENCE TO CONTEXT QUESTIONS (SOLVED)

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow :
Question.1. I learned back idly in chair no. 7, and looked with trepidest curiosity at the small, black, bald-spotted head just visible above the back of no. 9.
(a) Who is T here ? Where is he ?
(b) What kind of person do you think he is ?
(c) Give the meaning of the word “trepidest”.
Answers :
(a) T is here the narrator of the story. He is sitting in a chair-car in a train.
(b) He is a keen observer.
(c) ‘the highest degree of fear/worry’.

Question.2. A tall old man, with a smooth face and white hair looking as proud as Julius Caesar was there to meet her. His clothes were frazzled but I didn’t notice that till later.
(a) Who was the tall old man whom Pescud saw ?
(b) Who is ‘her’ here ?
(c) Why did not the speaker notice that the old man’s clothes were ‘frazzled’.
(CBSE 2014)
Answers :
(а) He was Colonel Allyn, the father of Jessie whom Pescud married.
(b) ‘Her’ is here Miss Allyn.
(c) He did not notice the old man’s clothes as he was busy watching his daughter.

Question.3. We talked for two hours. I told him everything I knew; and then he began to ask questions and I told him the rest. All I asked of was to give me a chance.
(a) Who are ‘we’ ?
(b) What did the speaker tell him ?
(c) What kind of chance was he expecting ? (CBSE 2014)
Answers :
(a) ‘We’ are John A. Pescud and Colonel Allyn. ib) The speaker told him all about himself.
(c) He was expecting the chance of marrying his daughter.

Question.4. And then I told her why I had come, as respectful and earnest as I could.
(а) Who is the speaker ? Who is ‘her’ ?
(b) What did the speaker tell him ?
(c) Give the meaning of the word ‘earnest’.
Answers :
(a) The speaker is John A. Pescud. ‘Her’ is Miss Jessie, whom Pescud married later.
(b) The speaker told her that his purpose in coming there was to marry her.
(c) ‘serious’.

Question.5. 1 must not talk to you’, she says, because we have not been introduced. It is not exactly proper. So I say good-bye, Mr.
(a) What was not proper ?
(b) Who is ‘Mr.’ ?
(c) What is the speaker trying to explain ? (CBSE 2014)
Answers :
(a) It was not proper for the girl to talk to a stranger.
(b) He is Mr. Pescud.
(c) She is trying to explain that she should not talk to a person whom she does not know yet.

Question.6. “I think I understand you, John”, said I. “You want fiction writers he consistent with scenes and characters. ”
(а) Who is ‘I’ here ?
(b) What does John Pescud dislike ?
(c) Give the meaning of‘consistent’.
Answers :
(a) ‘I’ is the narrator of the story.
(b) Pescud disliked writers mixing scenes and characters from different backgrounds.
(c) ‘not changing/in harmony’.

Question.7. “Good luck to you, Trevelyan”, I said, “And may you get the petunias for your princess!”
(a) Why is Pescud called Trevelyan by the narrator here ?
(h) Who is the ‘princess’ ?
(c) Give the meaning of‘petunias’.
Answers :
(a) Pescud was called Trevelyan by the name of the hero of the novel ‘The Rose Lady and Trevelyan’ because he was just like the romantic Trevelyan.
(b) The ‘princess’ is Pescud’s wife whom he loves dearly.
(c) ‘White, pink, purple or red flowers of the plant called petunias’.

Question.8. “Excuse me,” says I, ‘can you tell me where Mr Hinkle lives. She looks me as cool as if I was the man come to see about the weeding of the garden, but I thought I saw just a twinkle of fun in her eyes..
(a) Why did the speaker ask about ‘Mr Hinkle’ ?
(b) How did the girl look at him the way she does ?
(c) Give the meaning of the word ‘weeding’.
Answers :
(a) There was nobody called Mr Hinkle. The speaker invented him as an excuse to start conversation with the lady.
(b) The girl looked at him with pretended aloofness and disinterestedness.
(c) ‘taking out weeds (wild plants) from the ground.’

Question.9. “I was on the south-hound, going to Cincinnati, about eighteen months ago, when I saw, across the aisle, the finest looking girl I’d ever laid eyes on.
(a) Who is the speaker ?
(b) Which mode of transport did he take while going to Cincinnati ?
(c) What do you mean by ‘aisle’ ?
Answers :
(a) The speaker is John Pescud.
(b) He took a train while going to Cincinnati.
(c) ‘a passage between rows of seats.’

Question.10. Suddenly no. 9 hurled a book to the floor between his chair and the window, and looking, I saw that it was ‘The Rose Lady and Trevelyan’-one of the best novels of the present day.
(a) Who is 1’ in these lines ?
(b) Which book attracted his attention ?
(c) Give the meaning of the word ‘hurled’.
Answers :
(a ) T is the narrator of the story.
(b) The book which attracted his attention was a novel entitled ‘The Rose Lady and Trevelyan.’
(c) ‘thrown’.

Question.11. By way of facts he told me that business had picked up since the party conventions and that he was going to get off at Coketown.
(a) Who is ‘he’ mentioned here ?
(b) Why did he want to get off at Coketown ?
(c) Give the meaning of‘to get off.
Answers :
(a) ‘He’ is John A. Pescud of Pittsburgh, the travelling salesman for a plate- glass company.
(b) He wished to buy petunias for his wife.
(c) ‘to board down’.

Question.12. “Listen to this”, said he. “Trevelyan is sitting with the Princess Alwyna at the back end of the tulip-garden.
(a) Who are Trevelyan and Princess Alwyna referred to ?
(b) Who is ‘he’ in this extract ?
(c) What is‘tulip’?
Answers :
(a) They are the hero and the heroine of the best seller “The Rose Lady and Trevelyan”.
(6) ‘He’ is John A. Pescud, the travelling salesman for a plate-glass company.
(c) ‘a large brightly coloured spring flower’.

Question.13. “Men are very clumsy,” said she. “I know you were on every train. I thought you were going to speak to me, and I’m glad you didn’t”.
(а) Who is she talking to and when ?
(b) How had John A. Pescud chased her ?
(c) Give the meaning of‘clumsy’. 
Answers :
(a) She is talking to John A. Pescud when the latter approaches her at her home.
(b) John A. Pescud had chased her, changing cars and taxis until he reached her home.
(c) ‘awkward’.

Question.14. “So I told it to him. Laugh! I was wishing to myself that he was a customer. What a hill of glass I’d sell him!
(а) Who is ‘I’ and who is being talked to ?
(б) What does a ‘bill of glass’ stand for ?
(c) What assessment do you make of the speaker ?
Answers :
(a) ‘I’ is John A. Pescud talking to the Colonel, father of Jessie.
(b) It stands for his transaction in love; if successful, it could make him very rich.
(c) He is. very shrewd, persistent in his pursuits.

Question.15. “You won’t sell much plate-glass here, John”, said I. “Why do you get off at this end-o’-the world ?”
(а) Why does the narrator point out that John won’t sell much plate-glass there ?
(b) Where was John getting off and why ?
(c) Explain ‘end-o’-the world’ ?
Answers :
(a) The narrator points this fact to John as the place where he was alighting was almost a deserted place.
(b) He was getting off at Cocktown to get some petunias for his wife.
(c) ‘a place beyond which there is nothing.’

Question.16. Nothing spectacular, you know, but just the sort you want for keeps.
(a) Who does the speaker talk about ?
(b) What is his opinion about the person talked of?
(c) Give the meaning of‘spectacular’ ?
Answers :
(a) The speaker talks about the girl (now his wife) whom he chased for long.
(b) He has very nice opinion about the person he talks about.
(c) ‘impressive/extraordinary.’

Question.17. “No, no,” said John, “No romance-nothing like that! But I’ll tell you about it.”
(a) Who is the speaker ?
(b) What does he deny ?
(c) Give the meaning of‘romance’.
Answers :
(a) John Pesud is the speaker.
(b) He denies having engaged in a romantic affair.
(c) ‘exciting love affair.’

Question.18. “He’ll feed you to his fox-hounds”, says she, laughing.
(а) Who is he ? who is she ?
(b) Does she mean what she says ? Why does she say it ?
(c) What do you mean by ‘fox-hounds’ ?
Answers :
(a) He is Colonel Allyn and she is his daughter, Jessie.
(b) She does not mean what she says. She says it just to frighten him.
(c) ‘hunting dogs’.

Question.19. At first, I thought he was going to throw me out of the window, but I kept on talking.
(a) Who is the speaker ?
(b) Who he was talking to, and about what ?
(c) Find the word in the line which means ‘fling’.
Answers:
(a) John Pescud is the speaker.
(b) He was talking to Colonel Allyn about the purpose of his visit.
(c) ‘throw’

Question.20. “‘And you came mighty near missing the train at Powhatan Junction, too’, says she, with a laugh that sounded as good as a mileage-book to me.
(a) Who is the speaker ?
(b) What do you think of her ?
(c) What does ‘mighty’ mean here ?
Answers :
(a) Jessie, the girl whom John Pescud chased for long and then married, is the speaker here.
(b) She is a clever and intelligent girl with a sense of keen observation.
(c) ‘very’.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (SOLVED)

Answer each of the following questions in 30-40 words.
Question.l. Where was the narrator going ? What did he observe in his chair car ?
Answer. The narrator was going to Pittsburgh by train. He observed that most of the passengers were ladies who refused to have the windows raised. Then there were men-passengers who looked totally carefree. The narrator also noticed a bald-spotted head in chair no.9.

Question.2. How did the narrator meet John A. Pescud, his casual acquaintance ?
Answer. The man sitting in chair no.9 in the train threw a best seller entitled ‘The Rose Lady and Trevelyan’ between his chair and the window. When he veered his chair toward the window, the narrator saw his face. He recognized him at once as John A. Pescud from Pittsburgh.

Question.3. What is the usual sight in chair cars as described by O. Henry in the lesson ‘Best Seller’ ? (CBSE 2014)
Answer. Most of the passengers in chair cars remain silent. They travel without bothering about fellow passengers. Some of them indulge themselves in reading books or magazines. No one tries to talk or socialize.

Question.4. What was John A. Pesud’s first impression of Jessie in the lesson ‘Best Seller’ ? (CBSE 2014)
Answer. John A. Pescud saw Jessie in a train compartment. He had never seen such a pretty girl before. He fell in love with her at first sight. He thought she was the perfect match for him. So he started following her until she reached her home-town.

Question.5. Even though Pescud fell in love with the girl at first sight, he narrates everything casually. Why did he behave like this ? (CBSE 2014)
Answer. There is no doubt that Pescud fell in love with the girl at first sight. He followed her like a romantic lover in a best seller. But he did not want to project himself as a romantic person. So he narrated everything casually.

Question.6. Where and how did John A. Pescud meet his ‘affinity’ for the first time ? (CBSE 2014)
Answer. John A. Pescud met his ‘affinity’ in a train for the first time. The girl was travelling in the same train in which Pescud was travelling. She was so attractive that Pescud fell in love with her at first sight. He began to chase her.

Question.7. The girl changed trains to reach her destination. Why did Pescud follow her ? (CBSE 2014)
Answer. The girl changed trains to reach her destination. She had come to know that she was being chased. However, she failed to evade the man, who was John A. Pescud. Pescud continued to follow her to know where she lived.

Question.8. Pescud used his salesmanship to befriend her father. Explain.
Answer. Pescud tried to befriend the father of the girl whom he had been following doggedly. He was at first confused. So he tried to sell him some plate-glass. When he got over his nervousness he told him everything. He did not even hide the fact that he wanted to marry his daughter.

Question.9. How did Mr Pescud present himself in front of Colonel Allyn ?(CBSE 2014)
Answer. Mr Pescud told Colonel Allyn he had come to marry his daughter. He presented himself as an honest, sincere and resolute person. He tried to satisfy all his queries. Lastly, he was able to impress him with his knack of listening to and narrating way-side stories.

Question.10. Why was Pescud shocked when he saw the girl and the father going up the hill ? (CBSE 2014)
Answer. Pescud saw the girl and the father going up the hill. On the hill he saw a palatial building with round white pillars. The yard was full of rose-bushes and lilacs. The house was so impressive that Pescud was shocked. He never dreamt that the girl would be belonging to an aristocratic family.

Question.11. Describe the man who received the girl he was following ?
Answer. The man who received the girl was her father, Colonel Allyn. He was a tall, old man. His clothes were worn out, but he looked as impressive as Julius Caesar. Pescud paid little attention to him as he was only watching the girl of his dreams.

Question.12. How did Pescud learn about the girl and her family in Virginia ?
Answer. Pescud found a fine hotel, Bay View House, to stay. He told the landlord that he had come there to take orders for plate-glass. Slowly, he involved him in gossips, and learnt that the man who lived in the big white house on the hill was Colonel Allyn, and the girl was his daughter.

Question.13. What did Jessie tell Pescud about his father ?
Answer. Jessie told Pescud that his father, Colonel Allyn, was an aristocrat and was very proud of his lineage. He was a very stern father and would never allow her to talk to a stranger.

Question.14. Do you think Jessie was really proud of her family ? Give reasons.
Answer. Jessie gave the impression as if she were very proud of her lineage, like her father. She told Pescud that she was a descendant of belted earls. She said they had been living in the mansion for hundred years. Actually, she was not arrogant at all. She only pretended to be so.

Question.15. What, according to Colonel Allyn, was important for promoting family ties among the people ?
Answer. According to Colonel Allyn, it was important to relate anecdotes and humorous incidents as it promoted family ties among the people. It was a strange way of promoting relations, but it was the Colonel’s opinion. Pescud did no contradict him.

Question.16, “You don’t see or hear of any such capers in real life.” Do you agree with John what he says ? Why/Why not ?
Answer. John thinks that romances between ordinary businessmen and aristocratic ladies are unheard of in real life. He forgets that there are no barriers of class, status, age, etc. in romantic love. People in love behave strangely, as he has himself done.

Question.17. Do you think John is satisfied with his life at present ? Substantiate your answer.
Answer. John is doing very well professionally. He has married an aristocratic girl of his own choice. He has bought a huge, decent house. He seems to be loving his wife dearly. From his cheerful mood, it is clear that he is satisfied with his life.

Question.18. Where did John meet Jessie ? Why did he find it difficult to keep up ?
Answer. John met the girl Jessie in a south-bound chair car going to Cincinnati. He was at once charmed by her looks. She changed cars at Cincinnati, and took a sleeper to Louisville. From there she proceeded through Shelbyville, Frankford and Lexington. She got off at a small village station in Virginia. Naturally, John found it difficult to keep up with her.

Question.19. How do you know Jessie knew that she was being followed by John ?
Answer. Jessie told John on their first meeting that John would not have kept up with her if he had not woken up when the train started in Shelbyville. Then she said that he was about to miss the train at Powhatan Junction, too. In fact, she knew he was chasing her on every train.

Question.20. Is there anything ironic in John’s code of living – “to be always decent and right in you home town.”
Answer. John’s code of living to be decent and right is admirable. One should be morally decent in behaviour with others. But it is ironic that John adds the words “in your home town.” Why only in one’s home town ? The irony lies in the use of these words. It means that one should be decent and righteous only in his home town, and not elsewhere.

VALUE-BASED LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (SOLVED)

Answer the following questions in 80-100 words each.
Question.l. A newspaper reporter hears of the marriage of Pescud and Jessie. He expresses a desire (liking their story) to write an article for all the people that your dedication and honesty can make impossible even possible. Never take things for granted but always give your best shot to be successful in life. (CBSE 2014)
Answer. Who says that honesty and dedications are useless ? Many a times people have proved that if you are sincere, dedicated and honest, you can achieve anything in life. Even the impossible can be turned into possible. The only thing is that you should never take things for granted. You should be ready to give your best shot and you will be successful sooner or later in life.
The story of John Pescud and Jessie Allyn proves that anything can be achieved provided one is determined. John Pescud saw Jessie, fell in love with her and decided to marry her. He followed her for thousands of miles. He was shocked to know that Jessie belonged to an aristocratic family. He himself was an ordinary middle-class fellow. He approached Jessie and then her father. He did not lose heart. He was able to convey his sincerity of purpose. Jessie’s father agreed to let Jessie marry him. Thus, he turned the impossible into possible. All of us should learn something from this romantic story. It reveals how dreams sometimes become a reality.

Question.2. Pescud describes Jessie as ‘Nothing spectacular, you know, but just the sort you want for keeps’. Why did Pescud want Jessie ‘for keeps’ in the lesson ‘Best Seller’ ? (CBSE 2014)
Answer. There are certain things and persons you want to keep for ever. When Pescud met Jessie in a train, he was at once impressed by her beauty, simplicity and
elegance. He was so mesmerized that he began to follow her to know where she lived. He wanted to marry her, even though she was a complete stranger to him. He met her father and convinced him of his sincerity. He told the girl’s father that he followed her only because he wanted to marry her. His honesty and sincerity moved him and he allowed the marriage to take place. Thus, Pescud was able to keep the girl he desired for ever as his wife.

Question.3. Girls know instinctively that someone has fallen for them. Do you think Jessie comes to know ? Give reasons. (CBSE)
Answer. Girls are instinctively intelligent in matters of love. Jessie knew that someone was following her. At first she tried to evade him. When she realized that the man was determined, she began to like her. She thought he would talk to her. But when he did not, she liked him all the more. When Pescud met her and told her why he had followed her so far, she was amused. She told him :
‘Men are very clumsy… I know you were on every train. I thought
you were going to speak to me, and I’m glad you didn’t.’
The remark of Jessie clearly reveals that she knew all along that she was being chased by someone.

Question.4. Discuss the irony in the title of the lesson, ‘Best Seller’. (CBSE 2014)
Answer. The title of the story ‘Best Seller’ is ironical. The irony lies in John A. Pescud’s attitude towards best sellers and his own life story. He denounces all best sellers for being unrealistic. They mix scenes and characters from different backgrounds. Romantic heroes in best sellers defy logic. An ordinary American falling in love with a European princess and chasing her to her father’s kingdom-such is the staple story of a best seller.
Ironically, we come to know that Pescud who denounces best sellers is nothing but another romantic hero of a best seller. Himself a middle-class person, he chases Jessie, an aristocratic lady belonging to a royal family.

Question.5. Suppose you are Colonel Allyn, Jessie’s father. You’ve met John A. Pescud. Write your feelings in a diary entry in 80-100 words.
Answer. Monday, 14th March 10 pm Dear Diary
I am still puzzled about the youngman I met today. What a romantic hero! He came chasing Jessie thousands of miles, and that too, without knowing anything about her and her family. This is called blind love. Should I agree , to their marriage ? Pescud – that is the name of the man – is just a salesman. But he is very honest and sincere. He genuinely loves my daughter. What I find him to my liking is that he is a patient listener. He is intelligent and witty. I hope Jessie also likes him. Why should then I oppose them ? I will ask Jessie what she thinks of Pescud. If she gives the nod, I am ready for their marriage.

Question.6. “The Best Seller” reveals the hypocrisy of Pescud. Why do people say something and practise something else ? How can we avoid being hypocrites ?
Answer. Pescud in “The Best Seller” asserts that he dislikes romances where people behave differently from what people do in real life. Towards the end we are amused to find that he himself does what is often done in the world of romances.
Most of the people, in fact, say something and practise something else. It is so because they fear to face reality. They fear that if they state clearly what they intend to do, they may be ridiculed or censored. Sometimes, hypocrisy is practised to win somebody else’s favour. At times it is practised in complete ignorance.
We can avoid being hypocrites by becoming alert in saying something publicly. We should say only that thing which we are sure of doing. We should get rid ourselves of all false fears and the question of false prestige. By becoming simple, truthful and clear-hearted we can avoid being hypocrites. Hypocrisy does not pay in the long run, while truthfulness always does.

Question.7. “ to be always decent and right in you home town”.
Describe the character sketch of John A. Pescud with reference to the extract given above.
Answer. John A. Pescud is a successful salesman. He is employed in a plate-glass company. His salary has been raised and he is allowed a commission, with a promise of getting some shares of stock. He has built a house in the East End. He is doing well in life.
Though he denies his romantic temperament, he falls in love at first sight. He follows the girl of his choice for hundreds of miles. He succeeds in convincing her of his sincerity. .
He has double standards in life. He criticises the best sellers for being unrealistic and inconsistent as they mix scenes and characters belonging to different backgrounds. In real life, however, he acts like the hero of a romance. Though he is an American travelling salesman, he marries a girl belonging to a family of belted earls. So what he says is contrary to what he practises. His code of living – “to be always decent and right in your home town” – also shows his duplicity. Why should one be decent and right only in his home town, and not elsewhere ?
In short, he is a typical American businessman-rich, romantic and hypocrite. Q.8. Describe the journey of Pescud to Virginia in chase of Jessie.
Ans. Pescud saw the girl (Jessie) in a train going to Cincinnati. He fell in love with her at once. He decided to follow her. He could not dare to talk to her, as she
minded her business and paid no attention to him. She changed cars at Cincinnati and took another train to Louisville. There she bought another ticket. She continued her journey through Shelbyville, Frankford and Lexington.
It was becoming harder and harder for Pescud to keep pace with the girl. Had he not woken up when the train started in Shelbyville, he would have lost her. He was about to miss the train at Powhatan Junction, too. The last station the girl got off at was Virginia. She was received by an old man in worn-out clothes. Pescud continued his chase. The girl and the old man went in a gate on top of the hill. On the hill was situated a huge mansion. Later, he learnt that the girl was Jessie and the old man was her father, Colonel Allyn, who lived in the huge mansion. They belonged to a royal family of belted earls.

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Democratic Rights Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Civics Chapter 6

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 Democratic Rights

Democratic Rights Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are rights?
Answer:
Rights are reasonable claims of persons over other fellow beings over the society, and over the government recognised by society and sanctioned by law.

Question 2.
Define Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights are those basic conditions which are considered essential for the overall development of a person. These are guaranteed under the Constitution.

Question 3.
‘Some rights need to be placed higher than the government’. Give reason.
Answer:
Thought it is the duty of each democratic government to protect the citizen’s rights but sometimes elected governments may not protect or may even attack the rights of their own citizens. That is why some rights need to be placed higher than the government, so that the government cannot violate these.

Question 4.
Define the rule of law. Do you think the rule of law prevails in India?
Answer:
It means that the laws apply in the same manner to all, regardless of a person’s status. Yes, the rule of law prevails in India. All are equal in the eyes of law.

Question 5.
Mention any one exception to the Right to Equality as a Fundamental Right. Give reasons also.
Answer:
The State may make any special provision for women and children.
It is necessary to give special treatment to some weaker sections of the society in order to ensure equal opportunity.

Question 6.
Mention any two freedoms provided under Right to Freedom.
Answer:

• Freedom of speech and expression.
• Assembly in a peaceful manner.

Question 7.
What is a secular state? [CBSE2014]
Answer:
A secular state is one that does not establish any one religion as official religion.

Question 8.
What is Public Interest Litigation?[CBSE 2015]
Answer:
Under the PIL, any citizen or group of citizens can approach the Supreme Court or a High Court for the protection of public interest against a particular law or action of the government. One can write to the judges even on a postcard. The court will take up the matter if the judges find it in public interest.

Question 9.
What are Human Rights?
Answer:
Human Rights are those rights, which are inherent in our nature. Without these rights, we cannot live as human beings. Human rights allow us to fully develop and use our human qualities, intelligence, talents and conscience. They allow us to satisfy our spiritual and other needs.

Question 10.
Mention any other two rights of the Indian citizens except the Fundamental Rights.
Answer:

• Right to freedom of press.
• Right to information.

Question 11.
Mention any two rights which the Constitution of South Africa guarantees to its citizens.
Answer:

• Right to privacy, so that citizens or their home cannot be searched,their phones cannot be tapped, their communication cannot be opened.
• Right to an environment that is not harmful to their health or well-being.

Question 12.
Mention any two exceptions to the Right to Equality.
Answer:

• The State may make any special provision for women and children.
• The State may reserve some posts for members of backward class.

Question 13.
Mention any two limitations of freedom of speech and expression.
Answer:

• No one can use this freedom to instigate violence against others.
• No one can use it to incite people to rebel against government.

Question 14.
Mention the three evils which have been declared illegal under Right Against Exploitation.
Answer:

• Traffic in human beings.
• Forced labour or begar in any form.
• Child labour.

Question 15.
‘India is a secular state’. Justify by giving examples.
Answer:

• People of India are free to follow any religion.
• India doesn’t have any official religion.
• Every religious group or sect is free to manage its religious affairs.

Democratic Rights Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write any four features of the Right to Equality as a Fundamental Right.
Answer:

• According to this law, the government shall not deny to any person in India equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws.
• The government shall not discriminate against any citizen on the grounds of religion, caste, ethnicity, sex or place of birth.
• All citizens shall have equality of opportunity in matters relating to any position in the government.
• The principle of non-discrimination extends to social life as well.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the following fundamental rights:
(а) Right to Freedom of Religion.
(b) Cultural and Educational Rights.
Answer:
(a) Right to Freedom of Religion: Right to freedom of religion provides religious freedom to all the citizens of India. All religions are equal before the state and no religion will be given preference over the other. Citizens are free to practise their respective religions. Foremost objective of this right is to sustain the principle of secularism in the country. No state-run institution can give religious education. Religious communities can set up charitable institutions of their own.

(b) Cultural and Educational Rights: India is multi-religious, multi-lingual and multi-cultural, each having its own identity and characteristics. To preserve these diversities, it is natural to grant the following Cultural and Educational Rights to the minorities and other communities.

• Right to Conserve the Language, Script and Culture Under this Right minorities have the right to conserve their distinct language, script or culture and to join state-owned or state-aided institutions without discriminations.
• Right to Establish Educational Institutions: Under this each minority group has a right to establish and administer educational institutions of its choice. The State shall not discriminate between minorities, while granting aid to their educational institutions.

Question 3.
“Right to Constitutional Remedies is a very special right”. What is so special about this right?
Or
Dr Ambedkar called the Right to Constitutional Remedies, “the heart and soul of our constitution”. Give reason.
Answer:

• It is through this Right that all other Fundamental Rights are safeguarded and arbitrary action of the state is checked.
• Under this Right, a citizen is entitled to move the Supreme Court or any High Court or any other courts so authorised, if his/ her Fundamental Right (or Rights) is encroached upon, abridged or snatched away by the State, an individual or a body of persons. The courts are empowered to issue orders, directions and writs to the concerned to protect the rights of the complainant.

Question 4.
Mention three major Constitutional provisions for the protection of women and children in India.
Or
Write three Constitutional provisions for the protection of women and children in India. [CBSE March 2011]
Answer:

• The Right to Equality: Under this the State can make special provisions for women and children.
• Right Against Exploitation: Under this traffic in human beings, especially women and children, shall be an offence punishable in accordance with the law.
• Right Against Exploita-tion: Under this no child below the age of 14 years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.

Democratic Rights Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
‘The Right to Freedom is actually a cluster of several rights.’ Discuss.[CBSE 2015]
Answer:

• Freedom to live in any part of India: All citizens are free to live in any part of India but State can put restrictions keeping in mind the welfare of local people.
  Freedom to practice any profession or occupation: All citizens have the right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
• Right to Free Movement: Every citizen of India has been granted freedom to move throughout the Indian territory.
• Freedom to Assemble Peace¬fully: Indian citizens have been given the right to assemble without arms.
• Freedom of Speech and Expression: Democracy is a government by citizens. Freedom of speech and expression works as a barometer of public opinion.
• Right to Form Associations or Unions: The Constitution guarantees the right to form associations and unions to every citizen of India.

Question 2.
What was the Amnesty International’s report regarding the prisoners in Guantanamo Bay? State the condition of prisoners according to the report of Amnesty International in Guantanamo Bay.[CBSE March 2013]
Answer:
Amensty International which is an international human rights organisation, collected information in Guantanamo Bay and reported:

• Families of prisoners, media or even UN representatives were not allowed to meet these prisoners. The US army arrested them, interrogated them and decided whether to keep them there or not.
• There was no trial before any magistrate in the US. Nor could these prisoners approach courts in their own country.
• The prisoners were being tortured in ways that violated United States Laws.
• They were being denied the treatment that even prisoners of war must get as per international treaties.
• Prisoners were not released even after they were officially declared not guilty.

Democratic Rights Class 9 Important Questions  Higher Order Thinking Skills (Hots) Questions

Question 1.
“Saudi Arabia is not a democratic country”. Justify. Mention any two rights which are enjoyed by the Indian citizens but not by citizens of Saudi Arabia.
Or
Compare the situation of India and Saudi Arabia in terms of right to freedom in both the countries.
Answer:

• The country is ruled by a hereditary king and the people: have no role in electing or changing
  their rulers.
• The king selects the legislature as well as the executive. He appoints the judges and can change any of their decisions.
• Citizens cannot form political parties or any political organisations.

Rights enjoyed by Indians but not by Saudi Arabians-

• There is no freedom of religion. Every citizen is required to be Muslim. Non-Muslim residents can follow their religion in private, but not in public.
• Women are subjected to many public restrictions. The testimony of one man is considered equal to that of two women.

Question 2.
State any three rights guaranteed by the Constitution of South Africa.[CBSE 2014 March]
Answer:

• Right to privacy, so that citizens or their home cannot be searched, their phones cannot be tapped, their communication cannot be opened.
• Right to an environment that is not harmful to their health or well being.
• Right to have access to adequate housing.

Question 3.
Which fundamental right is being violated under the following circumstances.
(a) A student belonging to SC category is not being allowed to use a public park.
(b) Citizens are not being allowed to hold a meeting.
(c) A women was sold to a rich landlord.
(d) You are being denied admission to a government college on the basis of your religion.
Answer:
(a) Right to Equality.
(b) Right to Freedom.
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Cultural and Educational Right

Democratic Rights Class 9 Important Questions Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Why do we need rights in a democracy? [CBSE March 2011,13,15]
Answer:

• Fundamental Rights provide the conditions which are essential for the development of the inherent qualities in man and to secure his all round growth.
• These are necessary to preserve human dignity and promote social progress in an atmosphere of freedom.
• These provide civil liberties, without which democracy cannot be even conceived.
• These are a significant check on the arbitrary use of power by the government.
• Rights protect minorities from the oppression of majority.

Question 2.
Explain the Right against Exploitation.[CBSE March 2011,12,15] Or
Mention the provisions of Fundamental Right against exploitation. [CBSE March 2011 ]
Answer:

• Prohibition of Traffic in Human Beings and Forced Labour: Under this traffic in human beings and “begar” or any other form of forced labour is prohibited. This means that sale and purchase of women, men and children and making a person work against their will without payment is banned.
• Prohibition of Employ-ment of Children in Factories: No child below the age of 14 years shall be employed in a factory or mine and in other hazardous work. Thus child labour is banned, because this is considered as an exploitation, and as such it is illegal.

Question 3.
Mention any three rights of a detained person. [CBSE March 2011 ]
Answer:

• To be informed of the reason of arrest and detention.
• To be produced before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours of arrest.
• Right to consult a lawyer or engage a lawyer for his defence.

Question 4.
Mention the restrictions that can be imposed on various forms of freedoms granted by the Constitution. [CBSE March 2011 ]
Answer:

• Freedom of speech and expression — reasonable restrictions can be imposed on this freedom.
• Restriction on freedom to hold meetings, processions, rallies and demonstrations and reasonable restriction in the interest of public order.
• Restrictions on freedom to form associations and unions in the interest of public order, morality of sovereignty or integrity of India.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

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Electoral Politics Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Civics Chapter 4

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 4 Electoral Politics

Electoral Politics Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are elections? [CBSE 2014,15]
Answer:
It is a mechanism by which people can choose their representatives at regular intervals, and change them if they wish to do so.

Question 2.
“Elections are considered essential for any representative democracy.” Why?
Answer:

• In a representative democracy, people rule through their representatives.
•  It gives an opportunity to the people to decide, who will make laws for them.

Question 3.
What is a constituency?[CBSE 2014,15]
Answer:
For elections, the entire country is divided into fixed electoral areas with a body of registred voters. These areas are called constituencies.

Question 4.
Mention any two disadvantages of having political competition.
Answer:

• It creates a sense of disunity and factionalism.
• Parties and candidates often use dirty tricks to win elections.

Question 5.
What is the importance of electoral competition?
Answer:

• Regular electoral competition provides incentives to political parties and leaders. They know that if they raise issues that people want to be raised, their popularity and chances of victory will increase in the next elections. But if they fail to satisfy the voters with their work, they will not be able to win again.
• If a political party is motivated only by desire to be in power, even then, it will be forced to serve the people.

Question 6.
What is an Electoral Roll or Voter’s List? What is its importance?
Answer:
It is a list which carries the names of the persons who are eligible to vote.
It is important because a voter can caste his/her vote if his/her name is in the voter’s list.

Question 7.
What is Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
Every citizen of India who is 18 years of age or above has the right to vote without any discrimination of caste, creed, colour, sex, religion etc.

Question 8.
What kind of people can he denied to vote in India?
Answer:
Some criminals and persons with unsound mind.

Question 9.
Mention any two points relating to the Model Code of Conduct for election campaigns.
Answer:

• No candidate can use any place of worship for election propaganda.
• No party can use government vehicle for elections.

Question 10.
What is the difference between a voter and a candidate?
Answer:
Voter: A person who elects the candidates is a voter. All the citizens, who attain the age of 18 years become voters.
Candidate: A person who contests the election is known as a candidate. In order to be a candidate, the minimum age is 25 years.

Question 11.
What is an EVM? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
It is an Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) which is used to record votes. The machine shows the names of the candidates and the symbols.

Question 12.
What is the importance of elections in a democracy?
Answer:

• Elections are the axis of democracy.
• If the government is not working according to the wishes of the people, the voters can change it through elections.

Question 13.
Define Election Commission.
Answer:
The entire process of elections in our country is conducted, controlled and supervised by an independent body called the Election Commission.

Question 14.
Mention two functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:

• It grants recognition to political parties.
• It allots symbols to candidates and political parties.

Question 15.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner?
Answer:
The President of India.

Question 16.
Mention any two provisions which ensure the independence of the Election Commission.
Answer:

• The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is appointed by the President of India. But once appointed, he/she is not answerable to the President or the Government.
• It has a fixed tenure of five years.

Question 17.
What is ballot paper? Name the machine by which these papers have been replaced.
Answer:
A ballot paper is a sheet of paper on which the names of the contesting candidates along with the party name and symbols are fisted. These are being replaced by the electronic voting machines.

Question 18.
Why are the candidates required to give a detailed statement of their property and other details?
Answer:

• This provides an opportunity to the voters to make their decisions and to choose the right candidate.
• The candidates also provide details of the assets and liabilities. Through this, the voters can judge how much the candidate has earned from one election to another.

Question 19.
When government officers work in election duty, are they under the control of the Election Commission or the Government? Give reason.
Answer:
They work under the control of Election Commission. This is done to conduct free and fair elections, so that the party in power is not in a position to misuse the government machinery.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
(i) What are elections?
(ii) “Elections are considered essential for any representative demo cracy.” Why?
(iii) What is a constituency?
Answer:
(i) It is a mechanism by which people can choose their representatives at regular intervals and change them if they wish to do so.
(ii) (a) In a representative democracy, people rule through their representatives. ,
(b) It gives an opportunity to the people to decide who will make laws for them.
(iii) For elections, the entire country is divided into fixed electoral areas with a body of registered voters. These areas are called constituencies.

Question 2.
What makes elections in India democratic? Explain.[CBSE 2013,14,15]
Answer:

• An Independent Election Commission: In our country, elections are conducted by an independent and a very powerful Election Commission (EC). It enjoys the same kind of independence that the judiciary enjoys. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is appointed by the President Of India. But once appointed, the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is not answerable to the President or the government. Even if the ruling party or the government does not like what the Commission does, it is virtually impossible for it to remove the CEC.
• Popular Participation: In India, the poor, illiterate and underprivileged people vote in larger proportion as compared to the rich and the privileged sections. This is in contrast to western democracies. For example, in the United States of America, poor people, African-Americans and Hispanics vote much less than the rich and the white people.
• Acceptance of election outcome: The outcome of India’s elections speaks for itself. The ruling parties routinely lose elections in India, both at the national and the state levels. In fact, in every two out of the three, elections held in the last fifteen years, the ruling party lost the power.

Question 3.
Mention any three provisions which makes Election Commission an independent body.
Answer:

• The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is appointed by the President of India. But once appointed, the Chief Election Commissioner is not answerable to the President or the government.
• During the election period, the EC can order the government to follow some guidelines, to prevent use and misuse of governmental power to enhance its chances to win elections, or to transfer some government officials.
• When on election duty, government officers work under the control of the EC and not the government.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the role of the Election Commission in free and fair elections. [CBSE 2013]
Answer:
Functions of the Election Commission of India:

• Allotment of Election Symbols: The political parties of national standing are allotted permanent election symbols. These symbols help even an ordinary man to recognise the different parties instantly.
• Preparation of Electoral Rolls: Electoral Rolls are prepared in which the name, father’s name, age and sex of the voters are clearly mentioned.
• Delimitation of Constituencies: The whole area where elections are held, is divided into so many clear-cut constituencies, so that flections are held in an organised way.
• Fixing the Election Dates: The Election date is announced so that the voters could easily cast their votes on that particular date.
• Scrutiny (careful examination) of Nomination Papers: The candidates willing to contest the elections have to file the nominations up to a particular date. Then the Election Commission scrutinizes their papers and accepts or rejects the nomination papers as the case: may be.
• Checking Undue Interference of the Party-in-Power: Important duty of the Election Commission is to see that the party in power does in no way take an advantage over other parties or individuals.

Question 2.
What is an election? Discuss the importance of elections in a democracy.
Answer:
An election is a contest between different political parties in order to get people’s support. Elections are exceptionally important in a democracy because of the following reasons:

• Without the elections, a democratic government cannot be set up. It has been rightly said, “ No election, no democracy.”
• Through elections alone, the people can get rid of their cruel and unpopular government, and in its place, they can elect a new popular government.
• It is through elections alone that an effective control can be maintained on the executive.
  All the citizens in a modern democracy cannot run the administration. Only their representatives can do it for them. In order to choose such representatives, the elections are a must.

Question 3.
Explain any five conditions for free and fair elections. [CBSE 2014,15]
Answer:

• One vote one value: Everyone should be able to choose. This means that everyone should have one vote and every vote should have equal value.
• Multiple choices: There should be something to choose from. Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections and should offer some real choice to the voters.
• Choice at regular interval: The choice should be offered at regular intervals. Elections must be held regularly after every few years.
• All should have equal chance of winning: The candidate preferred by the people should get elected.
• Free and fair elections: Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner where people can choose as they really wish.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Important Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (Hots) Questions

Question 1.
What is election campaign? What is its importance?
Answer:
A political campaign or election campaign is an organized effort by political parties to win the trust of voters.

• Election campaign provide an opportunity to the voters to know about political parties, their main agenda and policies.
• It provides opportunity to the political parties to make a direct contact with the voters.
• During this period the candidates contact their voters, political leaders address election meetings and political parties mobilize their supporters. This is also the period when newspapers and television news are full of election related stories and debates.

Question 2.
How does our Election Law regulate campaigns 1[CBSE March2011,2012]
Answer:
It is necessary to regulate campaign to ensure that every political party and candidate gets a fair and equal chance to compete. According to our election law, no party or candidate can:

• Bribe or threaten voters.
• Appeal to them in the name of caste or religion.
• Use government resources for election campaigns.
• Spend more than Rs. 25 lakhs in a constituency for a Lok Sabha election or Rs. 10 lakhs in a constituency in an Assembly election.

Question 3.
What is model code of conduct for election campaign? Mention any three provisions of model code of conduct. [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
These are some set of norms which each and every political party is expected to follow during election campaigns.
According to this, no party or candidate can:

• Use any place of worship for election propaganda;
• Use government vehicles, air crafts and officials for elections; and
• Once elections are announced, Ministers shall not lay foundation stones of any projects, take any big policy decisions or make any promises of providing public facilities.

Electoral Politics Class 9 Important Questions Value Based Questions

Question 1.
What is a reserved constituency? Why is there need for a reserved constituency? [CBSE 2014]
Answer:
These are the constituencies which are reserved for people who belong to the Scheduled Castes [SC] and Scheduled Tribes [ST]. In a SC reserved constituency only someone who belongs to the Scheduled Castes can contest elections. Similarly only those belonging to the Scheduled Tribes can contest an election from a constituency reserved for ST.
Importance of reserved constituencies-

• Political equality for weaker sections: Our Constitution entitles every citizen to elect her/his representative and to be elected as a representative. The Constitution makers, however, were worried that in an open electoral competition, certain weaker sections may not stand a good chance to get elected to the Lok Sabha and the state Legislative Assemblies. They may not have the required resources, education and contacts to contest and win elections against others. Those who are influential and resourceful may prevent them from winning elections. If that happens, our Parliament and Assemblies would be deprived of the voice of a significant section of our population. That would make our democracy: less representative and less democratic. So, the makers of our Constitution thought of a special system of reserved constituencies for the weaker sections.
• Gender equality: Indian society is a male dominating society. So to provide them equal representation one-third of the seats are reserved in rural and urban local bodies for women candidates.

Question 2.
What is principle of universal adult franchise? What is its importance?
Answer:
According to universal adult franchise every citizen of India who is 18 years of age or above has the right to vote irrespective of his caste, colour, sex, gender etc.
Importance-:

• It provides political equality.
• Through universal adult franchise all are included in decision making. Different citizens differ from one another in many ways: some are rich, some are poor; some are highly educated, some are not so educated or not educated at all; some are kind, others are not so kind. But all of them are human beings with their own needs and views. That is why all of them deserve to have an equal say in decisions that affect them.

Question 3.
Which moral value is reflected by the universal adult franchise?
Answer:
Equality.

Question 4.
“Sanjay Kumar, a citizen of India was not allowed to caste his vote as he was not having an Election Photo Identity Card (EPIC).” What is the purpose of an EPIC and what were the options available to Sanjay Kumar?
Answer:
The purpose of an Election Photo Identity Card (EPIC) is to make it sure that no one votes for someone else. Sanjay Kumar could have shown any other valid proof like ration card or the driving licence.

Question 5.
When government officials work in election duty, are they under the control of the Election Commission or the Government? Give reason.
Answer:
They work under the control of Election Commission. This is done to conduct free and fair elections, so that the party in power is not a position to misuse the government machinery.

Question 6.
Mention any three provisions of a Model Code of Conduct for election campaigns.
Answer:
According to this-

• No party or candidate can use any place of worship for election propaganda.
• Use government vehicles, air crafts and officials for elections; and
• Once elections are announced, Ministers shall not lay foundation stones of any projects, take any big policy decisions or make any promises of providing public facilities.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

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Poverty as a Challenge Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Economics Chapter 3

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Poverty as a Challenge

Poverty as a Challenge Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is poverty? [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
Poverty is a situation in which a person is unable to get the minimum basic necessities of life, i.e., food, clothing and shelter for his or her sustenance.

Question 2.
What is mass poverty?
Answer:
Mass poverty is a situation in which a large section of people in economy are deprived of the basic necessities.

Question 3.
What is BPL?
Or
What is Poverty Line?
Answer:
In India, the concept of Poverty line is used as a measure of absolute poverty. So BPL (Below Poverty Line) is a line which demarcate the people, who are living below the poverty from those, who are living above the poverty line.

Question 4.
Mention any two indicators of poverty.
Answer:

• Level of income.
• Level of consumption.

Question 5.
Name any two poverty and unemployment alleviation programmes which have been initiated by the government to remove poverty and unemployment in rural areas.
Answer:

• The Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme.
• Integrated Rural Development Programmer of IRDP.

Question 6.
What is the accepted average calorie requirement in India
(i) In rural areas
(ii) In urban areas
(iii) Why calorie requirement is higher in the rural areas?
Answer:
(i) 2400 calories
(ii) 2100 calories
(iii) Since people living in rural areas engage themselves in more physical work, so calorie requirement in rural areas is higher than in the urban areas.

Question 7.
How is the poverty line estimated periodically? Name an organisation which is responsible for estimating poverty. [CBSE 2015]
Answer:
The poverty line is estimated periodically by conducting sample surveys.
These surveys are carried out by the National Sample Survey Organisation. (NSSO).

Question 8.
Name any four poverty ridden states.
Answer:
Odisha, Bihar, Assam and Tripura.

Question 9.
Define poverty with contest to World Bank. Name any four countries which have high percentage of population living below poverty.
Answer:
All those persons who live on less than $1.25 per day are considered living below poverty line.

• Nigeria
• Bangladesh
• India
• Pakistan

Question 10.
‘The current anti- poverty strategy of the government is based broadly on two planks’. Name the two planks.
Answer:

• Promotion of economic growth.
• Targeted anti-poverty programmes.

Question 11.
Name a poverty alleviation programme for rural areas with its objectives.
Answer:
Rural Employment Generation Programme.

• The aim of the programme is to create self-employment opportunities in rural areas and small towns.
• A target for creating 25 lakhs new jobs has been set for the programme under the Tenth Five Year plan.

Question 12.
Name any two social groups which are most vulnerable to poverty.
Answer:
Scheduled Caste(SC) and Scheduled Tribe(ST).

Question 13.
Mention any one historical reason for poverty.
Answer:
Low level of economic development under the British.

Question 14.
Name the Act through which a poor person can get 100 days assured employment.
Answer:
National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.

Question 15.
Name a scheme which was launched to create self-employment opportunities for the educated youth in the rural areas.
Answer:
The Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana.

Poverty as a Challenge Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
‘One historical reason is the low level of economic development under the British colonial administration.’ Explain.
Answer:

• The policies of the colonial government ruined traditional handicrafts and discouraged development of industries like textiles.
• The low rate of growth persisted until the nineteen eighties. This resulted in less job opportunities and low growth rate of incomes.
• This was accompanied by a high growth rate of population. The two combined to make the growth rate of per capita income very low. The failure at both the fronts: promotion of economic growth and population control perpetuated the cycle of poverty.

Question 2.
Discuss the major reasons for poverty in India.
Answer:

• Lack of industrialisation: India is very backward from the industrial point of view. Hardly 3 per cent of the total working population is engaged in the large- scale industry.
• Over dependence on agri-culture: Even after more than 60 years of independence more than 60 per cent of our total population still depends on agriculture for its livelihood. Due to shortage of inputs, our agriculture is backward.
• Inflationary pressure: Upward trend in prices adversely affects the poor sections of the society.
• Unemployment: Due to lack of job opportunities, more than 90 lakhs of our total working force is unemployed.

Question 3.
What are the major objectives of the Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana?
Answer:

• The Yojana was launched in 1993.
• The aim of the programme is to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns.
• Under this unemployed are helped in setting up small business and industries.

Question 4.
Which of the main factor responsible for the reduction of poverty in the following states:
(i) Punjab
(ii) Kerala
(iii) West Bengal
(iv) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(i) Punjab: Povety has been reduced due to high agricultural growth rate.
(ii) Kerala: Poverty has been reduced through human resource development.
(iii) West Bengal: Poverty has been . reduced through land reform measures.
(iv) Tamil Nadu: Poverty has been reduced through proper public distribution system.

Question 5.
Give an account of the inter-state disparities in poverty in India.[CBSE2014]
Answer:

• States with poverty ratio more than the national average: Orissa, Bihar, Assam, Tripura and Uttar Pradesh are the most poverty ridden states of India. The poverty ratio in these states is much higher than the national average. Orissa and Bihar are the poorest states with poverty ratio of 47 and 43 respectively. Most of these states are facing rural as well as urban poverty.
• States with poverty ratio less than the national average: Recent studies show that in 20 states and union territories, the poverty ratio is less than the national average. There has been a significant decline in poverty ratio in Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and West Bengal.
• States with low poverty ratio: States like Punjab, Haryana, Goa, Himachal Pradesh and Jammu Kashmir have very low percentage of population living below the poverty line.

Question 6.
Answer the following questions briefly:
(i) What do you understand by human poverty?
(ii) Who are the poorest of the poor?
(iii) What are the main features of the National Rural Employ¬ment Guarantee Act, 2005?
Answer:
(i) Human poverty is a broader concept of poverty. Along with food it also includes other necessities of life like education, shelter, health care, job, security, social equality, etc.
(ii) Apart from the social groups, there is also inequality of incomes within a family. In poor families, all suffer, but some suffer more than others. Women, elderly people and female infants are systematically denied equal access to resources available to the family. Therefore, women, children (especially the girl child) and old people are the poorest of the poor.
(iii) 1. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005 was passed in September 2005.
2. The act provides 100 days assured employment to every rural household in 200 districts.
3. Later, the scheme will be extended to 600 districts. One- third of the proposed jobs would be reserved for women.
4. The central government will also establish National Employment Guarantee Funds.
5. Similarly, state governments will establish State Employment Guarantee Funds for implementation of the scheme.
6. Under the programme, if an applicant is not provided employment within fifteen days, he/she will be entitled to a daily unemployment allowance.

Question 7.
“There is a strong link between economic growth and poverty reduction.” Explain.
Answer.

• Over a period of thirty years lasting up to the early eighties, there were little per capita income growth and not much reduction in poverty. Official poverty estimates which were about 45 per cent in the early 1950s remained the same even in the early eighties.
• Since the eighties, India’s economic growth has been one of the fastest in the world. The growth rate jumped from the average of about 3.5% a year in the 1970s to about 6 % cent during the 1980s and 1990s. The higher growth rates have helped significantly in the reduction of poverty.
• Economic growth widens opportunities and provides the resources needed to invest in human development.

Question 8.
‘The results of poverty alleviation programmes have been mixed.’ Give any four reasons.
Answer:

• One of the major reason for less effectiveness is the lack of proper implementation and right targeting.
• There has been a lot of overlapping of schemes.
• Overpopulation
• Corruption

Poverty as a Challenge Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the major features of poverty? Explain.
Answer:

• It also is a situation in which parents are not able to send their children to school or a situation where sick people cannot afford treatment.
• Poverty also means lack of clean water and sanitation facilities.
• It also means lack of regular job at a minimum decent level. Above all it means living with a sense of helplessness.
• Poor people are in a situation in which they are ill-treated at almost every place, in farms, factories, government offices, hospitals, railway stations etc.
• Poverty when looked through other social indicators like illiteracy level, lack of general resistance due to malnutrition, lack of access to healthcare, lack of job opportunities, lack of access to safe drinking water, sanitation etc.

Question 2.
Describe the poverty trends in India since 1973. [CBSE March 2011,12]
Answer:

• There has been a substantial decline in poverty ratios in India from about 55 per cent in 1973 to 30 per cent in 2009-10.
• More than 56% of rural population was living below poverty in 1973 which has come down to 34%.
• Around about 50 % of urban population was living below poverty in 1973 which has come down to 27%.
• Although the percentage of people living under poverty declined in the earlier two decades (1973-1993), the number of poor remained stable around 320 million for a fairly long period.
  • If the trend continues, people below poverty line may come down to less than 20 per cent in the next few years.

Question 3.
Identify the various groups vulnerable to poverty. [CBSE 2014]
Or
“The proportion of people below poverty line is also not same for all social groups and economic categories in India.” Explain.
Answer:

• Social Groups: The social groups which are most vulnerable to poverty are scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households. Although the average for people below poverty line for all groups in India is 30, 48 out of 100 people belonging to scheduled tribes in rural areas are not able to meet their basic needs.
• Economic groups: Similarly among the economic groups, the most vulnerable groups are the rural agricultural labour households and the urban casual labour households.
• Inequality with in family: Apart from these social groups, there is also inequality of incomes within a family. In poor families all suffer, but some suffer more than others. Women, elderly people and female infants are systematically denied equal access to resources available to the family.

Therefore women, children (especially the girl child) and old people are poorest of the poor.

Question 4.
Explain some measures which have been taken by the government to remove poverty. [CBSE 2015]
Or
Describe the current government strategy to remove poverty in India.
Answer:
To remove poverty government has adopted two approaches:

• Indirect approach: This covers achieving high economic growth rate, promotion of small scale industry, promotion of agriculture. This approach is also referred as trickle down effect. It was assumed that the development of industry and agriculture would create employment opportunities and income, which would lead to rapid economic development.
• Direct approach: Under direct approach government has launched various poverty alleviation programmes and food schemes to target the poor directly.

The government has launched various poverty alleviation schemes to control poverty.

(i) National Rural Employ-ment Guarantee Act (NREGA) 2005: It was passed in September 2005. The Act provides 100 days assured employment every year to every rural household in 200 districts. Later, the scheme will be extended to 600 districts. One-third of the proposed jobs would be reserved for women. The central government will also establish National Employment Guarantee Funds. Similarly, state governments will establish State Employment Guarantee Funds for the implementation of the scheme. Under the programme, if an applicant is not provided employment within fifteen days, he/she will be entitled to a daily unemployment allowance.

(ii) National Food for Work Programme (NFWP): It was launched in 2004 in 150 most backward districts of the country. The programme is open to all rural poor, who are in need of wage employment, and desire to do manual unskilled work. It is implemented as a 100 per cent centrally sponsored scheme, and food grains are provided free of cost to the states. Once the NREGA is in force, the NFWP will be subsumed within this programme.

(iii) The Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY): It was started in 1993. The aim of the programme is to create self-employment opportunities for the educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns. They are helped in setting up small business and industries.

(iv) Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP): It was launched in 1995. The aim of the programme is to create self-employment opportunities in rural areas and small towns. A target for creating 25 lakh new jobs has been set for the programme under the Tenth Five Year Plan.

(v) Swamajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY): It was launched in 1999. The programme aims at bringing the assisted poor families
above the poverty line by organising them into self-help groups through a j mix of bank credit and government subsidy.

(vi) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY): It was launched in 2000, additional central assistance is given to states for basic services such as primary health, primary education, rural shelter, rural drinking water and rural electrification.

Question 5.
Explain any three major reasons for a widespread poverty in India.
Or
Discuss the major reasons for poverty in India. [CBSE 2015]
Answer:

• British Rule: Britishers ruled India more than 100 years. Prior to the British rule, traditional industries, for instance, textiles, flourished in India. During the British rule, the government adopted policies to discourage such industries. This left millions of weavers poor. Even after fifty years of independent India, we can find a major section of the people engaged handicraft industries as , downtrodden.
• Lack of industrialisation: India is very backward from the industrial point of view. Hardly 3 per cent of the total working population is engaged in the large- scale industry.
• Over dependence on agriculture Even after more than 60 years of independence more than 60 per cent of our total population still depends on agriculture for its livelihood. Due to shortage of inputs, our agriculture is backward.
• Inflationary pressure: Upward trend in prices adversely affects the poor sections of the society.
•  Unemployment: Due to lack of job opportunities, more than 90 lakhs of our total working force is unemployed.

Poverty as a Challenge Class 9 Important Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (Hots) Questions

Question 1.
Study the given bar graph carefully, and answer the following questions:

Source: Economic Survey 2001-02, Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
(i) Identify the three states where the poverty ratio is the highest.
(ii) Identify the three states where poverty ratio is the lowest.
(iii) Why the states named by you in part (i) have a high poverty ratio?
(iv) Why the states named by you in part (ii) have a low poverty ratio? Mention one reason.
Answer:
(i) Odisha, Bihar and Chattisgarh.
(ii) Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and Kerala.
(iii) Due to lack of job opportunities and high density of population.
(iv) Due to availability of work.

Question 2.
Study the given figure carefully, and answer the following questions:
(i) Which area/country of the world had the largest concentration of poor in 1981?
(ii) Name the regions/countries where poverty has decreased (any two).
(iii) Whether the poverty in South Asia is increasing or decreasing. Give reason.
Answer:
(i) China.
(ii) China, East Asia and the Pacific.
(iii) Poverty in South Asia is decreasing. In 1981 more than 50 per cent of the population
was living below the poverty line, but in 2001, it was approximately 30 per cent.

Question 3.
Study the given bar graph carefully, and answer the following questions:
(i) Name any two social groups are highly vulnerable to poverty.
(ii) What is an average Indian poverty ratio?
(iii) Name any two economic groups which are highly vulnerable to poverty.
Answer:
(i) Scheduled tribes arid Scheduled castes.
(ii) 30 per cent.
(iii) Rural agricultural labourer households and the urban casual labour households.

Poverty as a Challenge Class 9 Important Questions Value Based Questions

Question 1.
Suggest any four ways to reduce poverty in India. [CBSE 2015]
Answer:

• There is need to invest in agriculture and industrial sector. The investment in both these sectors will lead to higher economic growth. The higher economic growth rate is expected to provide to more economic opportunities.
• Increasing stress on universal free elementary education will help in the formation of human capital.
• There is need to check high birth rate. The high birth rate leads to a mismatch between resources and population.
• There is need for to empower women and economically weaker sections of society.

Question 2.
What is the basic aim of following poverty alleviation programmes?
(i) Prime Minister Rozgar Yozana (PMRY).
(ii) Rural Employment Gener¬ation Programme (REGP).
Answer:
(i) The scheme which was started in 1993. The aim of the programme is to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns. They are helped in setting up small business and industries.
(ii) Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP) The aim of the programme is to create self employment opportunities in rural areas and small towns and to develop entrepreneurial skill and attitude among rural unemployed youth.

Question 3.
Mention any two causes of poverty in India.
Answer:

• High growth rate of population.
• Lack of job opportunities in the secondary sector.

Question 4.
How can poverty be reduced in future in India? Suggest any two points.
Answer:

• Better Economic growth.
• Increasing stress on universal free elementary education.

Question 5.
“Poverty is a curse upon humanity.” Explain by giving two examples.[CBSE 2015]
Answer:

• Poverty is a curse because most of the poor people live with a sense of helplessnes.
• Poor people are debarred from the basic necessity if life, i.e. good health, drinking water etc.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

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Important  Questions for CBSE Class 9 English Chapter 1 The Bishop’s Candlesticks 

REFERENCE TO CONTEXT QUESTIONS (SOLVED)

Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow :
Question.1. Marie : Pardon, Madam, but I think it was for Mere Gringoire.
Persome : Mere Gringorie indeed. Mere Gringoire. What, the old witch who lives at the top of the hill, and who says she is bedridden because she is too lazy to do any work ? And what did Mere Gringoire want with the money, pray ?
(a) What was done for Mere Gringoire ?
(b) Why does Persome refer to Mere Gringoire as an old witch ?
(c) What does the extract reveal about Persome’s character ? (CBSE 2014)
Answers:
(a) The Bishop had to sell his salt-cellars to pay the house rent of Mere Gringoire.
(b) Persome does so as she feels Mere Gringoire is wicked and selfish woman.
(c) The extract reveals that Persome is short-tempered and narrow-minded. She is not generous like her brother.

Question.2. You told him she was feeling poorly, did you ? And so my brother is to be kept out of his bed, and go without his supper because you told him she was feeling poorly. There’s gratitude for you !
(a) Who is ‘she’ in the above extract ?
(b) Who is the speaker’s brother and why was he kept out of bed ?
(c) Explain the line ‘there’s gratitude for you’. (CBSE 2014)
Answers:
(a) ‘She’ in the extract is Mere Gringoire.
(b) The speaker’s brother is the Bishop. He was kept out of bed in order to help Mere Gringoire.
(c) Persome remarks ironically that Marie had paid her gratitude to the Bishop by making him help her mother in such a bad weather. She wants to say that she had proved to be ungrateful to the Bishop.

Question.3. Bishop : That is why they are left open.
Convict: Well they are shut now!
Bishop (sighs) : For the first time in thirty years.
(a) Why were ‘they’ left open ?
(b) Why are they shut now ?
(c) Why weren’t they shut for thirty years ?
Answers:
(a) ‘They’ are doors and windows which were left open to welcome any person who came in.
(b) ‘They’ are shut now by the convict to prevent anybody else in the house.
(c) ‘They’ were not shut for thirty years to let anyone come at any time to see the Bishop.

Question.4. Bishop : The knife, oh, well, you see, dear, perhaps he may have thought that 1-1 had sold ours, (laughs gently)
Persome : Brother, I am frightened. He glares at us like a wild beast (aside to him).
(а) What is the tone of the Bishop in the above extract ?
(b) Why is Persome frightened ?
(c) Why is‘he’being compared to a wild beast? (CBSE2014)
Answers:
(a) The Bishop’s tone is kind and gentle.
(b) Persome is frightened because the convict’s looks are very cruel and dangerous.
(c) ‘He’ is being compared to a beast as there is no human feeling on his face. Moreover, his way of eating is just like any beast’s.

Question.5. None of that, my friend ! I’m too old a bird to be caught with chaff. You would ask your sister for the keys, would you ? A likely story ! You would rouse the house too. Eh? Ha! A good joke truly. Come, where is the food. I want no keys. I have a wolf inside me tearing at my entrails, tearing me; quick, tell me where the food is,
(а) What does the convict mean when he says I’m too old a bird to be caught with chaff ?
(b) Why does the convict say, ‘I have a wolf inside me’ ?
(c) Why does the convict think it is ‘a good joke’. (CBSE 2014)
Answers:
(а) The convict wants to say that he is too experienced to be duped in by cheap tricks.
(b) The convict says so as he is very hungry and can tear anything apart like a hungry wolf.
(c) The convict thinks it to be a good joke that the Bishop will ask his sister to bring keys and she will go out to seek help.

Question.6.I -I didn’t believe there was any good in the world One does’t when one has been in Hell, but somehow, I -I know your’re good and, and it’s a queer thing to ask but, but could you, would you bless me before I go ? 1-1 think it would help me.
(a) Why didn’t the speaker believe that there was any good left in the world ?
(b) How did the speaker know about hell ?
(c) Why did he seek the Bishop’s blessing ? (CBSE 2014)
Answers:
(а) The speaker believed so as he had been ill-treated and tortured all those years for a petty crime.
(b) The speaker knew about hell as he had been in prison where conditions were as bad as in hell.
(c) He sought the Bishop’s blessings so that he could begin his life anew like a normal human being.

Question.7. Convict: Ah, thanks, thanks, Monseigneur. I, I (he sobs) Ah ! Trn a fool, a child to cry, but somehow you have made me feel that, that it is just as if something had come in to me, as if I were a man again and not a wild beast.
Bishop (putting his hand on his shoulder) : Always remember, my son, that this poor body is the Temple of the Living God.
(а) Why was the convict crying like a child ?
(b) How is the speaker ‘a man again’ ?
(c) Explain the phrase ‘the poor body is the temple of the living God’.
(CBSE2014)
Answers:
(a) The convict was crying like a child as he felt guilty and remorseful. He realized he had been on the wrong track.
(b) The speaker is a man again as he has regained his faith in God and humanity.
(c) The human body is a sacred place where God dwells.

Question.8. ‘My dear, there is so much suffering in the world, and I can do so little ’
(a) Who speaks these lines and to whom ?
(b) What do you learn about him from the given line?
(c) What do you mean by ‘suffering’ ?
Answers:
(a) The Bishop speaks these lines to his sister Persome.
(b) The Bishop is extremely generous, selfless and kind-hearted.
(c) ‘pain’.

Question.9. ‘One must do a great deal for the devil in order to do a little for God’.
(а) Who is the speaker ?
(b) WTiat does he want to say ?
(c) Give the meaning of the word ‘devil’.
Answers:
(a) The Bishop is the speaker.
(b) He wants to say that one has to do a lot to remove wickedness (devil) in doing a bit of service to God.
(c) ‘a wicked being’ (satan).

Question.10. ‘Look-here, why the devil are you-ki-kind to me ? What do you want ?
(а) Who is the speaker ?
(b) Why is he so confused ?
(c) What has he actually expected ?
Answers:
(а) The convict is the speaker.
(b) He is baffled at the kind behaviour of his host, the Bishop.
(e) He has actually expected to be treated badly.

Question.11. You have your soul, to lose, my son; it is of more value than my heart’.
(а) Why does the Bishop call the convict ‘my son’ ?
(b) What tells you that he is a fearless person ?
(c) What does he want to do ?
Answers:
(а) The Bishop calls the convict ‘my son’ as he would call anyone else. In his eyes, he is as good as any other human being.
(b) He does not care for his life. He is not afraid of being killed by the convict.
(c) He wants to reform the convict by showing him the right path through love
and compassion.

Question.12. You told him she was feeling poorly, did you ? And so my brother is to be kept out of his bed, and go without his supper because you told him she was feeling poorly”
(а) Who is ‘she’ referred to in the above lines ?
(b) What is the tone of the speaker ?
(c) Explain ‘kept out of his bed’.
Answers:
(а) ‘She’ referred to in the above lines is Marie’s mother.
(б) The speaker (Persome) here speaks in a reproachful tone.
(c) ‘Did not sleep and take rest’.

Question.13. If you call out you are a dead man !
(а) What was the Bishop doing when the convict entered ?
(b) What warning did the convict give the Bishop ?
(c) What does‘call out’mean ?
Answers:
(a) He was reading then.
(b) The convict warned the Bishop that if he called for help he would be killed.
(c) ‘Shout’.

Question.14. “I believe you want to convert me; save my soul, don’t you call it ? Well, it’s no good-see ? I don’t want any damned religion, and as for the church – bah ! / hate the church.”
(a) What does the convict resent ?
(b) Why does he hate the church ?
(c) Give the meaning of the word ‘damned’.
Answers:
(a) The convict resents the Bishop’s talking of saving his soul.
(b) He hates the church for even the church did not come to his rescue.
(c) ‘accursed’.

Question.15. ‘Ah, that is hard, very hard, I – He might have left me those. They were all I had.’
(a) Who speaks these words and to whom ?
(b) What does‘those’refer to here ?
(c) What does ‘hard’ mean in the context ?
Answers:
(a) The Bishop speaks these words to his sister Persome.
(b) Those’ refers to the silver candlesticks stolen by the convict.
(c) ‘difficult’.

Question.16. Yes, to starve. They feed you in Hell, but when you escape from it you starve.’
(a) Who is the speaker ? Who are ‘they’ ?
(b) Why has he come to ‘starving* ?
(c) Give the meaning of‘starve’.
Answers:
(a) The convict is the speaker. ‘They’ refers to jail authorities.
(b) He is out of jail, but he has no work and no money. He cannot do work for fear of police. So he has come to the state of starvation.
(c) ‘to die of hunger’.

The Bishop’s Candlesticks – Short Answers Questions (Solved)

Answer each of the following questions in 30-40 words ?
Question.1. What makes Persome lost her temper ?
Answer. Persome feels irritated that the Bishop has gone out in the extreme cold. When she learns from the maid, Marie, that he has gone to see Marie’s ailing mother, she loses her temper.

Question.2. What grouses does Persome have about her brother ?
Answer. Persome is the Bishop’s sister. The Bishop is in the habit of helping all who seek his help. He has sold his estate, his furniture and many other valuable things to help the poor. Persome who feels concerned about his future naturally has grouses in her mind about this kind of behaviour on his part.

Question.3. What comes as a shock to Persome ?
Answer. Persome is already pained at her brother’s excessive magnanimity. When she learns about his selling of his silver salt-cellars to help an old lady to pay her rent, she is shocked.

Question.4. How and when does the convict enter the Bishop’s room ?
Answer. It is almost midnight. The Bishop is reading in his room. A convict enters his room stealthily. It is not difficult for anyone to enter the Bishop’s house as its doors and windows are never shut.

Question.5. How does the convict behave when he encounters the Bishop ?
Answer. The convict enters the Bishop’s room. He seizes the Bishop from behind and demands something to eat at once. He threatens to kill him if he raises an alarm.

Question.6. How is the convict treated by the Bishop ?
Answer. The Bishop treats the convict as if he were his guest. He calls him ‘son’ and tries to calm him down. He asks his sister to bring some food for the guest. He offers him bed for rest.

Question.7.Why was the convict caught and imprisoned ?
Or
‘Now I’m not a man, now I’m a number.’ How had the speaker become a number ?
Answer.The convict’s wife was ill and starving. He had no money and work at that time. He had to steal to feed his sick wife and was thus caught and imprisoned. In the prison, he was given a number. He suffered there so much that he had forgotten his name. He had been reduced to a mere number.

Question.8.Why does the convict call the prison a hell ?
Answer.The convict recalls his days in the prison which was nothing short of Hell. He was chained like an animal. He was fed on filth. He was made to sleep on boards. He suffered from vermins. He was often beaten mercilessly. He became a beast.

Question.9. Why does the convict show contempt for the Bishop’s good behaviour ?
Answer. The convict was in the prison for ten years. He was treated very badly. He lost faith in God and humanity. So he has nothing but contempt for any good behaviour shown by the Bishop.

Question.10. Who was Jeanette ? What was the cause of her death ?
Answer. Jeanette was the convict’s wife. She fell seriously ill. The convict was out of work then. He had no money to feed and treat her. When he stole and got arrested, she died of starvation.

Question.11. Do you justify the Bishop’s behaviour in not handing over the convict to the police when he decamps with his silver candlesticks ? Give reason.
Answer. Had the Bishop handed the convict over to the police, the convict would never have got another chance to reform himself. As the Bishop wants to give him a chance to start a new life he saves him from the police.

Question.12. What brings about real transformation in the convict ?
Answer. When the Bishop gives the convict his silver candlesticks as a gift before he leaves for Paris, the convict is speechless. He kneels himself down before the Bishop and weeps. He feels that he has become a ‘man’ once again. His tears are a symbol of his transformation.

Question.13. Do you think the punishment given to the convict was justified ? Why/ Why not ? Why is the convict eager to reach Paris ?
Answer. The punishment given to the convict for a minor crime was too much and was unjustified. He did not commit a murder or indulge in any other major crime. His circumstances had forced him to steal. No, it. He should have been given a light punishment instead of ten years in a hell¬like jail.

Question.14. Before leaving, the convict asks the Bishop to bless him. What brought about this change in him ?
Answer. The convict had lost all faith in goodness. The Bishop’s love, kindness and generosity bring about a remarkable change in him. He feels as if he were a man once again. He regains his faith in God. So he asks the Bishop to bless him.

Question.15. Identify the situations which can be termed as the turning points in the convict’s life ?
Answer. There are many situations in the play which can be termed as the turning points in the convict’s life. He stole to feed his sick wife. His consequent arrest on the charge of stealing was the first significant turning point in his life. His encounter with the kind, noble and generous Bishop was another turning point in his life. Again, his arrest for having stolen the Bishop’s candlesticks and the Bishop’s magnanimity and kindness in saving him from the police and gifting him his candlesticks are the other turning points in the convict’s life.

Question.16. How does the Bishop’s attitude touch the convict ?
Answer. The Bishop’s attitude towards the convict is extremely amiable, kind and geneous. He calls the convict his ‘son’ and ‘friend’ – the words the convict has forgotten in his life. He offers him food and shelter. Even when the convict decamps with his cherished candlesticks, he saves him from the clutches of the police. He even gifts the candlesticks to the convict and helps him escape to Paris. His attitude moves the heart of the convict. The convict feels as if he were a human being again. He sees a ray of hope in his life.

The Bishop’s Candlesticks – Value Based Long Answer Questions (SOLVED)

Question.1.‘It is easy to close the doors but difficult to open a window.’ Comment with reference to the play ‘The Bishop’s Candlesticks’. (CBSE 2014)
Answer.The statement-Tt is easy to close the doors but difficult to open a window’- is true. It is easy to close the doors implies that man can easily live selfishly; he can easily shut doors on others and live a life of a recluse, as some religious people do. It is not difficult to dislike or hate others. But to open a window for others is not easy. To go out of one’s way to show the right path ‘ or to help other is indeed a difficult but divine task.
The Bishop in the play ‘The Bishop’s Candlesticks’ keeps his doors and windows literally open for needy persons. He does everything possible to help the poor. But the way he treats the convict is something uncommon. He goes beyond the call of his duty. When his beloved candlesticks are stolen, he finds it difficult to forgive the thief, but very soon he realizes his mistake. By gifting the candlesticks he touches the raw nerves of a hardened criminal. He opens a window at the back of his house for the convict to go to his destination and start a new life. What a noble act !

Question.2. ‘Minds are open only when hearts are open. Keeping this in mind, the Bishop’s house had unshuttered windows and unbarred doors for thirty years. Discuss. (CBSE 2014)
Answer. It is unthinkable that one could keep the doors and windows of one’s house open for thirty long years. Only a really fearless hermit can do it. The Bishop keeps the doors and windows open so that the poor and the needy could come anytime to his house. It reveals that his mind and heart are open. He is so generous and magnanimous that he attaches no importance to any material thing. He sells his estate, his silver salt-cellars and many others valuable things to help the poor. Though he cherishes his silver candlesticks, he readily gifts them to the convict.
Earlier in the play, Persome reminds the Bishop how people take undue advantage of his generosity. Even the convict mocks at him for leaving his windows and doors open. But the Bishop does not have a second thought at what he does.

Question.3. Love, compassion and forgiveness are great human values which we must try to imbibe. Discuss it in the context of the play ‘The Bishop’s Candlesticks.’
Answer. There is no doubt that love, compassion and forgiveness are great human virtues. We should try to imbibe them in our day-to-day life. We should learn to love all. We should be compassionate towards the weak. We should forgive all those who offend or harm us in any way.
The Bishop in the play ‘The Bishop’s Candlesticks’ is a true Christian who has imbibed in him the divine virtues of love, compassion and forgiveness. He loves one and all without any discrimination. He treats even the convict as his friend and guest. The convict proves to be ungrateful by stealing the silver candlesticks of a person who offered him food and shelter and comforted him. However, the Bishop forgives him easily. Rather he gifts the candlesticks to him so that he may start a new life. This is what we sould do in our life, though it is not an easy task.

Question.4. The prison is meant for reformation, not punishment. Justify this statement with reference to the lesson ‘The Bishop’s Candlesticks’.
(CBSE 2014)
Answer. The prison is meant for reformation. That is why, it is often called ‘Sudhar Ghar’. Here the prisoners should be treated in such a way that they realize their mistakes and reform themselves. They should not be treated like animals as was done in the prison which the convict calls ‘Hell’. The convict had to steal out of compulsion. When he was in the prison, he was given a number. He was fed on filth. He had to sleep on boards. He was beaten mercilessly. They turned him into a hardened criminal. He lost faith in humanity. He began to hate everybody. When he escaped from the prison, he was not a reformed person. He again stole-this time the silver candlesticks of a really noble person, the Bishop.
If he was changed man towards the end, it was due to the Bishop’s extremely kind and humane treatment. The Bishop changed his heart by his kindness and generosity.

Question.5. ‘I’m a number, number 15729’. An individual’s human identity is being degraded to a mere number. What does your conscience tell you about this ? (CBSE 2014)
Answer. The convict became a victim of circumstances. He was once a normal human being. He led a poor life with his wife, Jeanette, in a little cottage. She was ill and starving. He was out of work and had no money to buy food for his wife. So he stole money to buy her food and was caught by the police. He tried to explain to the policemen why he had stolen. But they laughed at him and he was sentenced to ten years in the prison hulks. The convict was treated like a beast. He was tortured and beaten. The policemen chained him like a wild beast and lashed him like a hound. He was fed on filth and was covered with vermin. He slept on the board and when he complained, he was lashed again. They treated him cruelly and took away his soul and made him a devil. They took away his name. Now he was not a man; he was a number; number 15729 and he had lived in Hell for ten long years. He lost faith in the essential goodness of man. As for the church he began to hate church. He was so fed up with the society that he told the Bishop that he did not want any of his Faith, Hope and Charity. He considered himself a devil and told the Bishop that his efforts to convert him would fail. He lost belief in religion. He had no identity, no faith in humanity, no faith in church and religion.
Thus, a man who is brutally treated loses his identity and conscience. But it is the society which is at fault in making him what he is.

Question.6. In the end realization dawns upon the convict that he is a man again and not a wild beast. Who do you think is responsible for this change in the convict and what qualities would you associate with him ?
(CBSE 2014)
Answer. The convict, who had been brutally treated in jail for ten long years, escaped, but only to starve. One night he entered the Bishop’s room and demanded food at the point of knife. The Bishop was very kind, generous and loving towards him. He gave him cold pie, bottle of wine and some bread. He also gave him bed to sleep. But the convict stole his candlesticks and ran away. He was arrested by the police and brought to Bishop’s house. The Bishop pleasantly surprised the convict and the sergeant by saying that the convict was his very good friend. The Bishop told the sergeant that he had supped with him the previous night and that he had given him the candlesticks. He called the convict his ‘son’. So unlike the police and the rest of the society, the Bishop treated him gently and kindly. He called him son and friend. Such affectionate words were not heard by the convict in his life. The Bishop offered him food, shelter and saved him from the clutches of police. The kindest act that the Bishop did was to gift the prized silver candlesticks to him and suggested him a safe passage to Paris. Bishop’s kindness, benevolence and love helped the convict to rediscover his innocence and goodness. In fact, he rediscovered his essential human self. Finally, he learnt from the Bishop that the body is the Temple of the Living God. In this way, the Bishop reformed the convict.

Question.7. The Convict goes to Paris, sells the silver candlesticks and starts a business. The business prospers and he starts a reformatory for ex¬convicts. He writes a letter to the Bishop telling him of this reformatory and seeks his blessings.
As the convict, Jean Valjean, write the letter to Bishop.
Answer. J.V. Reformatory Paris
16 March, 20…
Venerable Father
You will be delighted to know that your ‘son’ has at last found his feet. The candlesticks that you gifted me did wonders for me. I sold the candlesticks and opened a workshop. By the grace of God and with your blessings, my
business flourished and I earned a lot of money. I am now a happy and respectable person in the society. I have recently opened a reformatory for exconvicts. My aim is to enable the ex-convicts to lead a life of dignity and respect. They work and lead a comfortable life. Learned men are invited for weekly discourses on religious and moral matters. Their discourses leave a great impact on them.
I seek your blessings.
Yours sincerely Jean Valjean

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ADW Scholarship 2019-20: The ADI Dravidar & Tribal Welfare Department, as well as the Department of Backward Classes Welfare for Tamil Nadu government, introduced various schemes for the 2019-20 Tamilnadu Scholarship for 09/10/11th and 12th-grade students. All the details related to the ADW scholarship can be found below.

The Adi Dravidar/tribal Population’s plurality is financially poor and socially marginalized. Many households lack resources and there is restricted access to education, jobs and other ways to earn income. Thus, ADW scholarship is for the kids that are underprivileged and lack the financial resources for higher study in Tamil Nadu.

Functions and Main Objectives of ADW Scholarship

• Provide grants for students studying in schools and colleges.
• AdiDravidar & Tribal Welfare School Students are given concessions and incentives.
• Unique reward program to encourage the training of women.
• Chief Ministers Prize in the Higher Secondary School Examinations to promote high scorers.
• Job-oriented learning production.
• Law students are given special assistance to launch their careers.
• The problem of Equipment and Appliances for the Disabled Adi Dravidar/Tribal People/Converted Christian Adi Dravidar under the poverty line.
• Hostel services are available for students enrolled in universities, colleges and ITI’s.
• Removal of Untouchability to promote harmony between communities.
• Provision of free House Site Pattas as well as burial grounds, and Pathways to burial grounds for the poor homeless families of Adi Dravidar and Tribal area.

Schools and Hostels Details Under ADW Scholarship

Eligibility for ADW Scholarship

Scheduled Caste/Tribe Boy/Girl Students studying beyond the 10th hour. Parent/Guardian Annual income does not exceed Rs. 2.50 lakhs (Big income for all categories will be considered).

How To Apply for ADW Scholarship?

Only follow the steps below to apply for the ADWScholarship.

• Step 1: Go through the URL given above to the Tamil Nadu district’s official website.
• Step 2: Register with your email and code.
• Step 3: Complete the details required to complete the application form.
• Step 4: You should get a verification email after you have finished your application.

Password Forgot Procedure for ADW Scholarship

If you do not recall your username, please fill in the following details to reset your code,

• Step 1: Visit the official website and click on the “Forgot Password” button on the home page.
• Step 2: Enter Your User Name
• Step 3: Enter Your Email
• Step 4: Enter Your Mobile Number
• Step 5: Enter the Submit button at last.

Maintenance for ADW Scholarship

All charges that are compulsory and non-refundable, payable to Govt./Govt. Assisted schools and colleges are approved as repair support scholarships. For students studying in self-financing schools, fees fixed by the committee are excluded. Students’ maintenance budget is sanctioned.

Free Schemes Under ADW Scholarship

1. Text Books: All students in Adi Dravidar Welfare Schools and Government Tribal Residential Schools studying in Standards 1 through 12.

• Education Books: All students in Adi Dravidar Welfare Schools and Tribal Residential Schools studied in Class 1st to 10th.
• Uniforms: 4 sets of uniforms will be provided free of charge (including students studying at AD & TW hostels) for all students from I to XII Levels in Adi Dravidar and Tribal Welfare Schools.
• Bikes: Cost-free bikes are given to Adi Dravidar/Tribal/Adi Dravidar converted to Christianity Girls & Boys studying at Std XIth & XIIth in State/Government Aided Schools and partially Government Aided Schools where + 1 & + 2 is managed on a self-financing basis.
• Admission of Adi Dravidar/Tribal students in+ 1 to reputable colleges: 10 outstanding students from each district covering a maximum of 320 Adi Dravidar/Tribal students who achieved highest marks in X level in government/corporation/municipal/Adi Dravidar and tribal welfare schools are selected and admitted in + 1 to reputable private schools in order to provide quality education.

FAQ’s on ADW Scholarship

Question 1.
How many schools are classified under the ADW scholarship?

Answer:
Under the ADW scholarship, there are 131 schools in the Tamil Nadu state government.

Question 2.
Which students are eligible under the ADW scholarship?

Answer:
Scholarship for 09/10/11th and 12th-grade students under ADW scholarship.

You can also find more Scholarship Articles for 12th passed, 10th passed Students and many more.

The post ADI Dravidar & Tribal Welfare Scholarship 2019 | ADW Scholarship Eligibility, How to Apply appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CCRT Scholarship 2019-20: CCRT Scholarship is provided by the Centre for Cultural Resources And Training. It is primarily aimed to provide financial assistance to children between the ages of 10 – 14  with exceptional talent in various fine arts such as music, drama, dance, crafts, sculpture, painting and literary arts. The scholarship also provides special emphasis on rare forms of art that are going extinct.

The CCRT scholarship is also known as the Cultural Talent Search Scholarship Scheme (CTSSS). A scholarship for fine arts empowers children to take up various art forms and uphold the traditional practices passed down over generations. This means rare and dying forms of arts may get a chance for revival. Read on to explore the available slots, scholarship amount and other important details. CCRT Scholarship is also reserved for students who belong to ST off-springs of families practicing traditional art, differentially abled (Divyang) and candidates applying in the area of Creative Writing/Literary Art. CCRT Scholarship Form 2019-20 PDF Results has been released.

CCRT Scholarship Slots

Annually, 650 CCRT scholarships will be awarded, out of which:

• 100 are reserved for children falling under the Scheduled Tribes (ST) and possess a valid ST certificate.
• 125 more scholarships are reserved for children hailing from families who practiced traditional arts for at least three previous generations.
• 20 scholarships are reserved for differently-abled children.
• 30 for children practicing creative writing/ literary arts (provided they have evidence of the original work).
• The remaining 375 scholarships are open to the general public.

CCRT Scholarship Award Details

• The value of the scholarship is INR 3600 per annum.
• The tuition fee paid for the specialized training to the instructor/ guru or the institution is also reimbursed to the candidates – subject to a limit of INR 9,000 per year.

The scholarship amount will be credited to the bank account of the authorized parent or guardian. The mode of payment will be either through NEFT/RTGS or ECS.  It will commence from the date of admission of the applicant or the date specified by CCRT. The parent or guardian is solely responsible for payment of the tuition fee to the institution or instructor.

The duration of the CCRT scholarship is 2 years and is depending on the age of 20 years or 1st-year degree which is earlier.

CCRT Scholarship Duration

The scholarship will be awarded for a duration of two years and is renewable every two years up to the age of 20 or until the completion of the first university degree stage – whichever comes first.

An important point to note is that if the candidate does not submit their half-yearly progress report, the scholarship is subject to cancellation without any prior notice. The payment of the scholarship will start from the date specified by the CCRT, the date of admission in an approved course or with the approved instructor/ guru, whichever is later.

CCRT Application Window

The application window begins in December and concludes by January every year. However, dates are subject to change as per the convenience of the authoritative body.

CCRT Scholarship Application Procedure

The application must be submitted by the parents or guardians in the prescribed format. The application should be made only for ONE of the art forms; after getting the required recommendations from the institution and instructor where the candidate is studying and receiving training.

The application process is as follows:

• Download the CCRT Application Form 2019-20 from http://www.ccrtindia.gov.in/
• It can also be collected for free from the office of CCRT in New Delhi or Regional Offices at Hyderabad, Guwahati and Udaipur.
• Take a print out and fill in all the relevant fields
• Attach the prescribed documents, such as caste certificate and proficiency certificates, income certificate along with the application.
• Make Sure that the attached documents are genuine and verified and also make sure the details which are given in the application form are also correct if applicants provide inappropriate or incorrect information application will be rejected furtherly
• Submit the CCRT Scholarship Form 2019-20 by post to:
  Centre of Cultural Research and Training
  15-A. Sector 7, Dwarka,
  New Delhi – 110075

CCRT Scholarship Selection Process

The selection of candidates will be made by the Central Selection Committee. Only the selected candidates will be informed about their candidature by post and notified of the timings, dates, and venue for the interviews or tests. The selection process will be conducted at the regional level from May 2020 (tentative). The candidates will be assessed on a scale of 1 to 10 by each committee member. The scholarships are awarded purely on the basis of merit. The selection will be strictly on the basis of merit of the applicant and the availability of scholarships in the respective academic year.

CCRT Scholarship Progress Reports

CCRT requires progress reports to be sent every 6 months, failing which, the scholarship can be cancelled without any prior notice to the candidates. The progress report must be sent in the prescribed format and during the following time frames:

• January to June – Progress report should be received by 15th July.
• July to December – Progress report must be received by 15th January.

CCRT Scholarship Information and Conditions

• Candidates applying under the TAF category should provide a write-up mentioning at least 3 respective generations.
• Progress report for the first of a year from the month of January till June should be received by the 15th of July and progress report for the second half of the year from the month of July to December.
• A scholar selected through the CCRT scholarship shall not receive any other scholarship or stipend in the same or related art form without getting prior approval from the CCRT.
• There is no state quota has been reserved for CCRT Scholarship.
• Various forms are required to be submitted by the applicants in strictly prescribed proformas. Forms are available for Scholarship holders to be downloaded from a folder called Annexures on the official website of CCRT.

Forms Required for CCRT Scholarship

Following are important forms and documents that must be readily available during the application process:

• Form of Acceptance
• Performa detailing the information and training of the candidate
• Certificate from the head of the training institution where the candidate is pursuing their academics
• A joint report of the candidates
• Income certificates of the candidate’s parents or guardian
• Half-yearly progress report the candidate
• Authorization letter from the bank.

CCRT Scholarship Contact Details

In case, the applicants face any problem during the application process of the CCRT scholarship or for any further queries in the future related to the scholarship, they can contact the provider through the details mentioned below:

Centre for Cultural Resources and Training (CCRT)
Ministry of Culture, Government of India,
15-A, Sector – 7, Dwarka,
New Delhi – 110075

Telephone:(011) 25088638/25309300
E-mail: dir.ccrt@nic.in

FAQ’s on CCRT Scholarship

Question 1.
Who are eligible for the CCRT scholarships?

Answer:
Children falling under the age group of 10-14 years are eligible for the scholarships

Question 2.
How are the applicants selected?

Answer:
The applicants will have to initially send their applications by post to the CCRT office. A selection committee will finalize the candidates and notify them via post.

Question 3.
What is the value of the scholarship?

Answer:
The value of the scholarship is INR 3,600. Tuition fee is also reimbursed, subject to a ceiling of INR 9000

Question 4.
What is the duration of the scholarship?

Answer:
The scholarship will be initially awarded for a period of two years and is renewable every two years up to the age of 20 or until the completion of the first university degree stage – whichever comes first.

Question 5.
What is the number of scholarships awarded every year?

Answer;
650  scholarships are awarded every year at the national level.

Question 6.
What is the income criteria required to be eligible for the scholarship?

Answer:
There are no income criteria, the selection process is based primarily on merit. However, preference is given to children from low-income families.

You can also find more Scholarship Articles for 12th passed, 10th passed Students and many more

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8 English Honeydew Poem Chapter 6 The Duck and the Kangaroo

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 English Honeydew Poem Chapter 6 The Duck and the Kangaroo

Class 8 English Honeydew Poem Chapter 6 The Duck and the Kangaroo Questions From Textbook

WORKING WITH THE POEM (PAGE 99)

Question 1:
Taking words that come at the end of lines, write five pairs of rhyming words. Read each pair aloud.
For example, pond — beyond
Answer:
Kangaroo — too; hop — stop
back — quack; pond — beyond;
duck — luck.;

Question 2:
Complete the dialogue.
Duck : Dear Kangaroo! Why don’t you
Kangaroo : With pleasure, my dear Duck, though
___________________________
Duck : That won’t be a problem. I will
___________________________
Answer:
Duck: Dear Kangaroo, why don’t you plan a world tour with-with me.
Kangaroo: With pleasure, my dear Duck though I am afraid your webbed feet would trouble me.
Duck: That won’t, be a problem. I will cover them with woollen socks.

Question 3:
The Kangaroo does not want to catch ‘rheumatism. Spot this word in stanza 3
and say why it is spelt differently. Why is it in two parts? Why does the second part begin with a capital letter?
Answer:
roo — Matiz = rheumatism
The word ‘roo’ rhymes with the Kangaroo.
The other word ‘Matiz’ refers subtly to rheumatism. The word ‘rheumatism’ has been split in two parts for the sake of rhyme and a disease.

Question 4:
Do you find the poem humorous? Read aloud lines that make you laugh.
Answer:
Yes, the poem is humorous. Take for example:
“But quite at the end of my tail.”
“And every day a cigar I’ll smoke”.

Class 8 English Honeydew Poem Chapter 6 The Duck and the Kangaroo More Questions Solved

Question 1:
Narrate the story of the Duck and the Kangaroo in about 50-60 words.
Answer:
The Duck and the Kangaroo were good friends. The Duck was feeling bored there in her pond. She wanted to see the world beyond. She requested the Kangaroo to let her ride on his back. She promised to sit still and silent on his tail-end. She also bought woollen socks and smoked cigar to keep her body warm. The two toured the world happily.

Question 2:
What conditions did the Kangaroo lay down for giving his friend a ride? How did the Duck fulfil them?
Answer:
The Kangaroo agreed to take the Duck on world tour on his back. But he was afraid that his friend’s cold, wet-feet would make him sick. The Duck promised to sit still and silent on the Kangroo’s tail. She bought woollen socks to cover her wet-feet with. She also smoked a cigar to keep the cold out.

More CBSE Class 8 Study Material

• NCERT Maths Solutions Class 8
• NCERT Class 8 Science Solutions
• CBSE Class 8 Social Science Solutions
• NCERT Class 8 English Solutions
• NCERT Solutions for Class 8 English Honeydew
• NCERT Solutions for Class 8 English It So Happened
• NCERT Hindi Class 8 Solutions
• CBSE Class 8 Sanskrit Solutions
• NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 8 English Honeydew Poem Chapter 6 The Duck and the Kangaroo appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 English Honeydew Chapter 9 The Great Stone Face I

NCERT Solutions for Class 8 English Honeydew Chapter 9 The Great Stone Face I

Class 8 English Honeydew Chapter 9 The Great Stone Face I Questions From Textbook

COMPREHENSION CHECK (PAGE 129)

Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ against each of the following statements.

1. The Great Stone Face stood near where Ernest and his mother lived.
2. One would clearly distinguish the features of the Stone Face only from a distance.
3. Ernest loved his mother and helped her in her work.
4. Though not very rich, Gathergold was a skilful merchant.
5. Gathergold died in poverty and neglect.
6. The Great Stone Face seemed to suggest that Ernest should not fear the general.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. True

WORKING WITH THE TEXT (Page 130)

Answer the following questions.
Question 1:

1. What was the Great Stone Face?
2. What did Young Ernest wish when he gazed at it?

Answer:

1. The Great Stone Face was the work of nature. The rocks were put one over the other on the mountain side. They resembled the features of a human face.
2. Young Ernest wished that the stone face could speak. He wished to love the man dearly whoever resembled that face.

Question 2:
What was the story attributed to the Stone Face?
Answer:
The story attributed to the Stone Face was that some day a child with the likeness of that face would be born. He would become the greatest and noblest person of his age.

Question 3:
What gave the people of the valley the idea that the prophecy was about to come true for the first time?
Answer:
A youngman named Gathergold had left the valley many years ago. By the time he grew old, he had grown rich. When he returned to his native valley, a rumour spread that he resembled the Stone Face. People thought that the prophecy had come true.

Question 4:

1. Did Ernest see in Gathergold the likeness of the Stone Face?
2. Who did he confide in and how was he proved right?

Answer:

1. No, Ernest did not see any likeness of the Stone Face in Gathergold.
2. He confided in the Great Stone Face. After Gathergold’s death as his wealth and gold had already disappeared, it was generally agreed that Gathergold had no resemblance with the Great Stone Face.

Question 5:

1. What made people believe General Blood- and-Thunder was their man?
2. Ernest compared the man’s face with the Stone Face. What did he conclude?

Answer:

1. General Blood-and-thunder had risen to high position from a soldier. When he returned to the valley, his childhood friends said that the General had always looked like the Stone Face.
2. Ernest could not find any likeness between the General and the Stone Face.

WORKING WITH THE LANGUAGE (Page 130)

Question 1:
Look at the following words.
Like — likeness
punctual — punctuality
The words on the left are adjectives and those on the right are their noun forms.
Write the noun forms of the following words by adding -ness or -itv to them appropriately. Check the spelling of the new words.

1. lofty _____________
2. able _____________
3. happy _____________
4. near _____________
5. noble _____________
6. pleasant _____________
7. dense _____________
8. great _____________
9. stable _____________

Answer:

1. loftiness
2. ability
3. happiness
4. nearness
5. nobility
6. enormity
7. pleasantness
8. density
9. greatness
10. stability

Question 2:
Add-iv to each of the following adjectives, then use them to fill in the blanks.

1. Why didn’t you turn up at the meeting? We all were ______ waiting for you.
2. ______ write your name and address in capital letters.
3. I was______ surprised to see him at the railway station. I thought he was not coming.
4. It is______ believable that I am not responsible for this mess.
5. He fell over the step and ______ broke his arm.

Answer:

1. eagerly
2. kindly
3. pleasantly
4. perfectly
5. nearly

Question 3:
Complete each sentence below using the appropriate forms of the verbs in brackets.

1. I ______ (phone) you when I (get) home from school.
2. Hurry up! Madam  ______ (be) annoyed if we ______ (be) late.
3. If it ______ (rain) today, we ______ (not) go to the play.
4. When you  ______ (see) Mandal again, you  ______ (not/recognise) him. He is growing a beard.
5. We are off today. We  ______  (write) to you after we ______ (be) back.

Answer:

1. shall phone: get
2. will be; are
3. rains, shall not go
4. see; will not recognise
5. shall write; are

SPEAKING AND WRITING (Page 131)

Question 1:
Imagine you are Ernest. Narrate the story that his mother told him.
Begin like this: My mother and I were sitting at the door of our cottage. We were looking at the Great Stone Face. I asked her if she had ever seen any one who looked like the Stone Face. Then she told me this story.
Answer:
She had heard that story from her own Mother that some day a child would be born resembling the Stone Face. In manhood he would become the greatest and noblest person of his time.

Question 2:
Imagine you are Gathergold. Write briefly the incident of your return to the valley.
Begin like this: My name is Gathergold. I left the valley of the Great Stone Face fifty years ago. I am now going back home. Will the people of the valley welcome me? Do they know that I am very rich?
Answer:
I drove to my native village in a horse drawn carriage. The people mistook me for the Great Stone Face. They welcomed me and shouted, “Sure enough, the old prophecy is true and the great man has arrived at last”.

MORE QUESTIONS SOLVED

I. SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Question 1:
What is the significance of the Great Stone Face?
Answer:
The Stone Face was a work of nature. It was formed on the side of a mountain by rocks. Viewed from a distance, those rocks looked like the features of a human face. People linked stories to that face. The people living in that valley believed that some day a great and noble person with the likeness of that face would come.

Question 2:
What did the spectator see when he went near the Great Stone Face?
Answer:
When the spectator went near the Great Stone Face, he lost the outline of the enormous face and could see only a heap of gigantic rocks, piled one upon an¬other.

Question 3:
How did Ernest grow up to be a mild and quiet youth?
Answer:
Ernest never forgot of the story that his mother told him. He was dutiful to his mother and helpful to her many things, assisting her much with his little hands, and .more with his loving heart. In this manner he grew up to be a mild and quiet youth.

Question 4:
How did Gathergold become rich?
Answer:
Gathergold was a young man when he left his native valley and settled at a distant seaport. He set up there as a shopkeeper. He was very sharp in business matters and therefore became very rich in a very short span of time.

Question 5:
How did people’s opinion change about Gathergold after his death?
Answer:
Gathergold died one day. His wealth had disappeared before his death. Since the melting away of his gold, it had been generally believed that there was no like¬ness between the ruined merchant and the majestic face upon the mountain.

II. LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Question 1:
What was the prophecy connected with the Stone Face? Did it come true?
Answer:
The prophecy is a statement about some event in future. The people of the valley believed that the Stone Face was auspicious for them. It made the land fertile with its gaze.
The old prophecy about the Stone Face was that at some future day a child would be born there who will grow up to become great and noble. The child would look like the Stone Face. Some people thought it was just idle talk. It appears finally Ernest himself would be declared to be the great man resembling the Stone Face.

Question 2:
Who was Ernest? What personal qualities made him great?
Answer:
Ernest was a little boy who lived with his Mother in a valley. His interest grew in the Great Stone Face which smiled on him. His Mother told him the prophecy about that Face. The boy never forgot that story. He spent hours looking at that face. He regarded it as his teacher. He was inspired to be noble, kind and helpful. These qualities could make him the man with the likeness of the Face.

More CBSE Class 8 Study Material

• NCERT Maths Solutions Class 8
• NCERT Class 8 Science Solutions
• CBSE Class 8 Social Science Solutions
• NCERT Class 8 English Solutions
• NCERT Solutions for Class 8 English Honeydew
• NCERT Solutions for Class 8 English It So Happened
• NCERT Hindi Class 8 Solutions
• CBSE Class 8 Sanskrit Solutions
• NCERT Solutions

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IGNOU Date Sheet 2019: Indira Gandhi National Open University has released the notification for the December TEE Date Sheet. IGNOU Datesheet 2019 has published in pdf format on the official website of IGNOU. As per the Datesheet, IGNOU December TEE starts from 2nd December and continues till 3rd January 2020. IGNOU Datesheet for December 2019 TEE contains the information on the date and shifts of the exam. This helps students to prepare their study schedule for IGNOU December TEE based on the subjects.

Students can download the Datesheet for TEE to know about the examination dates. But, students from Jammu and Srinagar region who are appearing B.Ed. TEE will get a separate Datesheet very soon. IGNOU Datesheet for Term End Practical Exams has also published on its official website. Read the complete article to know the dates for IGNOU Datesheet 2019.

IGNOU Date Sheet December 2019

IGNOU Datesheet for December TEE 2019 releases through online mode. IGNOU is the top Distance Learning University in India. It resources the huge number of students who completed various courses from this multidimensional institute. IGNOU conducts the Term End Examination twice every year. Once in the month of June (IGNOU Date Sheet June 2019) and next in the month of December. The exam will be conducted in 2 shifts which are Morning and Evening.

The University provides Datesheet for various programs. Programs are a Master’s Degree, Bachelor’s Degree, Certificate, Diploma, etc. So, candidates should start their preparation for the registered courses. IGNOU also provides the previous year question papers for the TEE to practice. Students who fulfill the below conditions can download the Datesheet for IGNOU December 2019 TEE.

• The valid registration for the courses.
• Submitted the number of assignments in the courses prior to deadlines.
• Achieved the minimum time to pursue these courses according to the programs.
• Students should have paid the exam fee for all the courses.
• in case of violence of any of the above conditions, the result of those courses will not be announced.

The exam will be conducted across 781 examination centers including 41 overseas centers and 56 centers in Jail. IGNOU Admit Card for those students who have taken a valid registration and submitted the exam form has released on its official website. So, students must download the IGNOU Admit Card and ID Card along with the Datesheet to appear in the IGNOU December TEE 2019. Refer to the below IGNOU Datesheet for December TEE 2019.

Latest Update:

For students of B.Ed. (revised program) appearing for the TEE, December 2019 in the Jammu and Srinagar region, a separate Date Sheet will be issued shortly.

IGNOU Date Sheet December TEE 2019 PDF

IGNOU Date Sheet for Practical Examination

IGNOU December 2019 TEE Practical Exam Datesheet has also published on its official website. The practical exams will be held at the respective regional centers or study centers. The hall ticket for the TEE Practical Exams will be issued separately by the University to the students of BCA/MCA/PGDLAN etc. Students should contact the respective study center superintendent to know the practical exam center.

IGNOU Exam Date Sheet 2019 Overview

IGNOU Date Sheet Information

The following information is printed in the IGNOU Datesheet for the December TEE.

• Exam Date
• Exam Day and Timings
• Program Codes
• Exam Shifts

https://docs.google.com/viewer?url=http://www.learncbse.in/wp-content/uploads/2016/02/NCERTSolutionsForClass10HindiSanchyan-1.pdf

How To Download IGNOU Date Sheet for December 2019 TEE?

IGNOU released the Datesheet for December TEE 2019 online on its official website. So, students can check the IGNOU Datesheet for December TEE 2019 download process as listed below:

• Go to the official website http://www.ignou.ac.in/
• Click on the ‘Downloads’ appear under the ‘Student Support’ menu on top of the homepage.
• Then, click on the ‘Datesheet’ appear in the left menu of the Datesheet page.
• After this, click on the ‘Datesheet for all programs’ to see the IGNOU TEE Datesheet in pdf format.
• In the same way, click on the ‘Datesheet for Practical Examination’ to see the IGNOU TEE Practical Exam Datesheet.
• Both the Datasheets will be opened in pdf format on your screen.
• Download IGNOU December 2019 TEE theory and practical datesheet pdf files on your computer/ laptop.
• Save it and take a printout of IGNOU Datesheet for future usage.

IGNOU TEE Admit Card

IGNOU releases the admit card for the December TEE on 21st November 2019. Students can download the admit card before few days of the exam from its official website. After downloading the IGNOU Admit Card, students should take a printed copy of the admit card for the exam. Students must check the information and read the instructions printed on the IGNOU Admit Card. Students must carry their IGNOU Admit Card along with the ID Card on the exam day to appear in the TEE. IGNOU Admit Card contains the following information of students.

• Candidates Enrollment Number assigned by the University
• Name of candidate
• Control Number
• Program Applied For
• Candidates Address details
• Signature and Photograph of the candidate
• Name of examination center
• Exam Center Code
• Course Code
• Venue of examination
• Exam Sessions
• Important instructions for the examination

IGNOU TEE Question Papers

Students can access the IGNOU TEE Question Papers from its official website. IGNOU provides the previous year’s question papers for TEE through online mode. So that students can practice the IGNOU question papers for the December TEE 2019. From these papers, students will get information about the type and pattern of each question.

IGNOU TEE Result

IGNOU conducted TEE from 2nd December 2019 to 3rd January 2020 for valid registered courses. Lakhs of students across India will appear the Term End Exam for the academic session 2019-20. IGNOU exam authorities will evaluate the TEE answer sheets. IGNOU December TEE 2019 result will be declared in February 2020. The result will be announced online on the official website of IGNOU.

Students can check the TEE results by entering their 9 digit enrolment numbers on the IGNOU website. Students can also apply for the revaluation of the TEE result, in case of the dissatisfaction of the result. They need to fill the form within one month of the result declaration. In case of any changes in the marks or grades, they can find it in the updated record.

https://docs.google.com/viewer?url=http://www.learncbse.in/wp-content/uploads/2016/02/NCERTSolutionsforClass9Science.pdf

FAQs on IGNOU Date Sheet 2019

Question 1.
What is IGNOU Datesheet?

Answer:
IGNOU Datesheet 2019 has published in pdf format on its official website. IGNOU Datesheet for December 2019 TEE contains the information on the date and shifts of the exam. This helps students to prepare their study schedule for IGNOU December TEE based on the subjects.

Question 2.
What is the release date of IGNOU Datesheet 2019?

Answer:
The Datesheet for the December TEE has released in the 2nd Week of November 2019 on the official website of IGNOU.

Question 3.
What is the exam date for IGNOU December 2019 TEE?

Answer:
IGNOU December 2019 TEE starts from 2nd December and continues up to 3rd January 2020.

Question 4.
IGNOU provides Datesheet for which programs?

Answer:
The University provides Datesheet for various programs. Programs are a Master’s Degree, Bachelor’s Degree, Certificate, Diploma, etc. So, candidates should start their preparation for the registered courses.

Question 5.
How to download IGNOU Datesheet for December 2019 TEE?

Answer:
Students should go to the official website of IGNOU. Click on the ‘Downloads’ link appeared under the ‘Student Support’ menu of the homepage. Click on the ‘Datesheet’ appeared in the left menu of the Datesheet page. Then, download IGNOU Datesheet for all programs and also practical examination available in pdf format.

Question 6.
Is IGNOU Datesheet for the theory and practical exams release separately?

Answer:
Yes, IGNOU Datesheet for the theory and practical exams release separately on its official website.

Question 7.
Is the same IGNOU Datesheet released for the B.Ed students of the Jammu and Srinagar region?

Answer:
No, the B.Ed students of the Jammu and Srinagar region will get a separate Datesheet for the IGNOU TEE very soon.

The post IGNOU Date sheet 2019 (Released) | Download IGNOU Date Sheet for December TEE from Here appeared first on Learn CBSE.