Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 5 Primary Activities is part of Geography Class 12 Important Questions. Here we have given Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 5 Primary Activities.

Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 5 Primary Activities

1 Mark Questions

Question 1.
State the two groups of factors which affect the profitability of mining. (All Indio 2017)
Answer:
The profitability of mining depends on two main factors:

• Physical factors include the size, grade and the mode of occurrence of the deposits.
• Economic factors such as the demand for the mineral, technology available and used.

Question 2.
“Agri-business farms are mechanised and large in size.” Examine the statement, HOTS? (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Agri-business farms are large farms where large scale production takes place. Therefore, these farms are mechanised as per the latest scientific technology. The production in these farms is done for commercial purposes.

Question 3.
What are the economic activities? (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Human activities that generate income are called economic activities. They are grouped under primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary activities.

Question 4.
Who are called red collar workers? (All India 2015)
Answer:
People who are engaged in primary activities are called red collar workers due to the outdoor nature of their work.

Question 5.
What is truck farming? (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Truck farming specialises in the cultivation of vegetables. It constitutes growing of vegetables around the urban centres to meet the daily requirement of urban areas.

Question 6.
Name the two activities on which the earliest human beings were dependent for their sustenance. (Delhi 2011, All Indio 2000)
Answer:
The two activities are gathering and hunting.

Question 7.
What is nomadic herding? (All Indio 2011)
Answer:
Nomadic herding is also called pastoral nomadism. It is basically primitive subsistence activity in which herders depend upon animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport.

Question 8.
Name any two areas of high latitudes in the world, where gathering economic activity is practised. (All Indio 2010)
Answer:
Two areas of high latitudes where the gathering is practised are Northern Canada and Northern Eurasia.

Question 9.
Name the country where practically every farmer is a member of a cooperative society? (Delhi 2008)
Answer:
Denmark is a country where every farmer is a member of a cooperative society

3 Marks Questions

Question 10.
Explain any three features of underground mining methods in different countries of the world. (All Indio 2010)
Answer:
The three features of underground mining methods in different countries of the world are as follows:
1. It is done when the ore lies deep below the surface. In this method, vertical shafts have to be sunk, from were underground galleries, radiate to reach the minerals.
2. For underground mining, lifts, drills, haulage vehicles, ventilation systems for safe and efficient movement of people and materials are required,
3. The method used in underground mining is risky because poisonous gases, fires, floods and caving can lead to fatal accidents.

Question 11.
“Dairy farming is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals in the world.” Analyse the statement with examples, HOTS? (AII Indio 2009)
Answer:
It is true that dairy farming is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of animals for milk in the world. This is because it is highly capital as well as labour intensive. Animal sheds, storage facilities for fodder, feeding and milching machines add to the cost of dairy farming.

Special emphasis is laid on cattle breeding, health care and veterinary services. It is labour intensive also due to the caring, feeding and milking processes involved. The developed means of transportation, refrigeration, pasteurisation and other preservation processes are used to increase the duration of storage of various dairy products.

Question 12.
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow. (Delhi 2008)
(i) Two types of mining are shown in as A and B. Identify them and give the correct name of each.
(ii) State two characteristics of each type of mining.
Answer:
(i) The two types of mining are:
A- Surface mining/Open cast or strip mining
B-Underground mining/Shaft mining

Characteristics of surface mining are:

• It is the cheapest and easiest way of mining.
• The safety precautions and equipment is relatively low.

Characteristics of underground mining are:

• It is done when the ore lies deep below the surface.
• Lifts, drills, haulage vehicles, ventilation system for safe and efficient movement of people and materials are required.

5 Marks Questions

Question 13.
Describe the way of life of nomadic herders in the world. (All Indio, 2017)
OR
Define the term nomadic herding?
OR
Explain its any four characteristics. (Delhi 2015)
OR
Explain any five features of nomadic herding in the world. (All Indio 2012 )
Answer:
Nomadic herding is also called pastoral nomadism. It is basically primitive subsistence activity, in which herders depend upon animals for food, clothing, shelter, tools and transport. Characteristics of nomadic herding are as follows:
1. They move from one place to other places with their livestock for the quality of pastures and water. Each nomadic community occupies a well-identified territory as a matter of traditions.
2. The variety of animals reared in different regions of the world, e.g. in tropical Africa, cattles are most important livestock; in the hilly areas of Tibet and Andes yak and lamas in Arctic and sub-Arctic areas, reindeer is the most important livestock.
3. Movement in search of pastures is
undertaken either over vast grassland or mountainous regions.
4. Nowadays the number of pastoral nomads has been limited and their areas are also decreased due to the imposition of political boundaries and new settlement plans by different countries.

Question 14.
Review any five measures adopted to solve the problems of Indian Agriculture, (HOTS; AII Indio 2017)
Answer:
Main measures adopted to solve the problems of Indian agriculture are:
Irrigation System Earlier Indian agriculture was totally depended on rainfall. But now canals, wells, tubewells were made to decrease the dependence of agriculture on rainfall.
Improvement of Credit Facilities Banks is giving easy credit to the farmer at a very low-interest rate.
Land Reforms It had changed the distribution of cultivable land and helps in agricultural development.
Commercialisation This help in increase in the per hectre production increase and also per person production increases.
High yield variety seeds The HYV Seeds greatly helps Indian agriculture as it requires less water and fertilizer. This increase in production.

Question 15.
Classify intensive subsistence agriculture into two categories practised in the world. How are they different from each other? Explain. (HOTS; All India 2017)
Answer:
Intensive subsistence agriculture is largely found in densely populated regions of monsoon Asia.
There are two categories practised in the world:

• Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation.
• Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by crops other than paddy.

Characteristics of intensive subsistence dominated by wet paddy cultivation are:

• It is characterised by the dominance of rice crop. Landholding is very small due to the high density of population.
• Use of machinery is limited and most of the agricultural operations are done by manual labour.

Characteristics of intensive subsistence dominated by crops other than paddy are:

• Wheat, soybean, barley and sorghum are grown in Northern China Manchuria, North Korea and North Japan. In India, wheat is grown in western parts of the Indo-Gangetic Plains and millets are grown in dry parts of Western and Southern India.
• Irrigation systems are used frequently as this type of agriculture is practised in dry areas.

Question 16.
Differentiate between nomadic herding and commercial livestock rearing, stating any five points of distinction. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:

Question 17.
Differentiate between co-operative farming and collective farming, stating five points of distinction. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:

Question 18.
Describe any five characteristics of plantation agriculture in the world. (All Indio 2016, 2009)
OR
Name any six crops of plantation agriculture of the world. Describe any four characteristics of plantation agriculture. (All Indio 2008)
Answer:
Six crops of plantation agriculture are tea, coffee, rubber, cotton, sugarcane and bananas. Characteristics of plantation agriculture are as follows:

1. This kind of agriculture was introduced by Europeans in colonies situated in tropics, e.g. the French established cocoa and coffee plantation in West Africa. British set up large tea gardens in India and Sri Lanka and rubber plantations in Malaysia and banana plantations in West Indies.
2. It needs large estates of plantations; large investment and managerial support.
3. Technical support and scientific methods of cultivation are required.
4. It needs single crop specialisation, cheap, labour and a good system of transportation which connects plantations to factories and factories to markets.

Question 19.
Define the term commercial livestock rearing. Explain any four characteristics. (All India 2015)
OR
Describe any five characteristics of ‘commercial livestock rearing’ practised in the world. Delhi 2014,2012
Answer:
Commercial livestock rearing is a system in which animals are reared on extensive grasslands with modern scientific methods. This kind of rearing fulfil the demands of milk, meat, wool, etc in worldwide. Animal products are traded at a national and international level to earn money.

The characteristics of commercial livestock rearing are as follows;
1. Commercial livestock rearing is totally opposite to the nomadic herding. It is more organised and capital intensive, the commercial livestock rearing is practised on permanent ranches.
2. These ranches are of large size and are divided into parcels which are fenced to regulate the grazing. When one parcel is grazed then animals are moved to another parcel. All animals are kept according to the carrying capacity of pasture.
3. In the pasture, only one type of animals is reared. Some important animals are sheep, goats, horses, etc. They produce meat, wool, hides and skin. These products are processed and packed scientifically and exported to different world markets.
4. Ranches are managed scientifically and they emphasise on breeding, genetic improvement, disease control and health care on the livestock.
5. USA, Argentina, New Zealand, Australia and Uruguay are important countries where commercial livestock rearing is practised.

Question 20.
Define the term ‘mixed farming’. Explain any four characteristics of mixed farming practised in the world. (All Indio 2014)
Answer:
Mixed farming is a type of agricultural farming in which farmers cultivate crops and also rear animals on the farm. The four characteristics of mixed farming are as follows:
(/) This kind of agriculture is practised in developed parts of the world viz. North-Western Europe, Eastern-North America and parts of Eurasia.
(ii) Mixed farms are moderate in size and usually, the crops associated with it are wheat, barley, rye, maize, fodder and root crops. Fodder crops are an important component of mixed farming.
(iii) The rotation and inter-cropping play an important role in maintaining soil fertility, chemical fertilizers and green manures are used extensively to achieve more output.
(iv) Equal emphasis is laid on crop cultivation and animal husbandry so that farm animals like cattle, sheep, pigs, poultry provide income alongwith crops.

Question 21.
Explain any five characteristics of extensive commercial grain cultivation practised in the world. All India 2014
Answer:
The five characteristics of extensive commercial grain cultivation are as follows:

• Commercial grain cultivation is practised in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid-latitudes.
• Wheat is the principal crop, though other crops like corn, barley, oats and rye are also grown.
• The size of the farm is very large and often run into hundreds of hectares.
• This is highly mechanised agriculture in which all operations from ploughing to harvesting are done by machines.
• Yield per acre is low, but yield per person is high because farms are mechanised and the population is sparse.

Question 22.
Explain any five characteristics of dairy farming practised in the world. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
The five characteristics of dairy farming practised in the world are as follows:

• This kind of agriculture is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals.
• It requires a huge investment of capital. Animal sheds, storage facilities for fodder, feeding and milching machines add to the cost of dairy farming.
• Focus on health care, cattle breeding and veterinary services.
• Here, the labour requirement is high as it is involved in rigorous care in feeding and milking.
• It is practised near urban and industrial regions because these places provide a market for milk and dairy products.

Question 23.
Describe any five characteristics of the economic activities of hunting and gathering practised in the world. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Characteristics of hunting and gathering practised in the world are as follows:

1. Gathering and hunting are the well-known oldest economic activities. These are carried out at different levels with different orientations.
2. The gathering is practised in a region with harsh climate conditions. It often involves primitive societies, which extract both plants and animals for food, shelter and clothing.
3. The early man used stone, tools, twigs or arrows, so animals were hunted in limited number only but now due to excessive and illegal hunting (poaching), many species have become extinct or endangered.
4. Gathering leads to collect valuable plant leaves, the bark of trees, gatherers also plant the medicinal trees. After simple processing, they sell the products in the markets.
5. Gathering requires a small amount of capital inv estment and operates at a very low and li.tle bit technology.

Question 24.
Where is intensive subsistence agriculture practised in the world? What are its two types? Describe any two characteristics of each type. (All India 2012)
Answer:
Intensive subsistence agriculture is largely found in densely populated regions of monsoon Asia.

There are two categories practised in the world:

• Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation.
• Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by crops other than paddy.

Characteristics of intensive subsistence dominated by wet paddy cultivation are:

• It is characterised by the dominance of rice crop. The landholding is very small due to the high density of population.
• Use of machinery is limited and most of the agricultural operations are done by manual labour.

Characteristics of intensive subsistence dominated by crops other than paddy are:

• Wheat, soybean, barley and sorghum are grown in Northern China Manchuria, North Korea and North Japan. In India, wheat is grown in western parts of the Indo-Gangetic Plains and millets are grown in dry parts of Western and Southern India.
• Irrigation systems are used frequently as this type of agriculture is practised in dry areas.

Question 25.
What is the importance of dairy farming? Why is it mainly practised near urban and industrial centres of the world? Explain two reasons. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
The importance of dairy farming is as follows:

• It provides fresh milk and dairy products to us.
• Due to its labour intensiveness, it provides employment to many people as high labour is involved in rigorous care in feeding and milching.
• It provides employment throughout the year, as there is no off season during the year as in the case of crop cultivation.

Dairy farming is mainly practised near urban and industrial centres because of the following reasons:

• These regions provide neighbourhood markets for fresh milk and dairy products.
• Milk and dairy products are perishable goods and need to be transported soon, so to reduce the time of transportation the farms are located near urban centres.

Question 26.
What is subsistence agriculture? Mention any four characteristics of primitive subsistence agriculture. (All India 2011)
Answer:
It means agriculture in which farmer and his family consume all or nearly all the locally grown products. It can be divided into two categories i.e. primitive subsistence and intensive subsistence agriculture.
Characteristics of primitive subsistence agriculture are as follows:

• This kind of cultivation is practised by many tribes in tropics.
• Vegetation is cleared by fire and ashes used in the fertility of the soil.
• Cultivated fields are small so that people use only primitive tools such as sticks and hoes.
• After 3 to 5 years when the soil loses its fertility, then farmers clear another patch of forest land for cultivation.

Question 27.
‘There is low yield per acre but high yield per person in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid latitudes in the world.’ Support the statement with suitable examples. (HOTS; Delhi 2009)
Answer:
The interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid latitudes in the world are the areas where extensive commercial grain cultivation takes place.

Here the size of the farms is very large and the population is in a small number. That is why entire operations of cultivation right from ploughing to harvesting is mechanised. Therefore, yield per person is high as the number of people working in farms is less and a lot of machines are used. However, the size of the farms is very large due to which per acre production or yield is low even though the total production is high.

This type of agriculture is practised in Eurasian Steppes, Canadian and American Prairies, Pampas of Argentina, Velds of South Africa, Australian Downs and the Canterbury Plains of New Zealand. Wheat is the principal crop and other crops are corn, barley, oats and rye.

Question 28.
What is subsistence agriculture? Name its two categories. State three main features of each category. (All India 200B)
Answer:
Intensive subsistence agriculture is largely found in densely populated regions of monsoon Asia.

There are two categories practised in the world:

• Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation.
• Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by crops other than paddy.

Characteristics of intensive subsistence dominated by wet paddy cultivation are:

• It is characterised by the dominance of rice crop. Landholding is very small due to the high density of population.
• Use of machinery is limited and most of the agricultural operations are done by manual labour.

Characteristics of intensive subsistence dominated by crops other than paddy are:

• Wheat, soybean, barley and sorghum are grown in Northern China Manchuria, North Korea and North Japan. In India, wheat is grown in western parts of the Indo-Gangetic Plains and millets are grown in dry parts of Western and Southern India.
• Irrigation systems are used frequently as this type of agriculture is practised in dry areas.

It means agriculture in which farmer and his family consume all or nearly all the locally grown products. It can be divided into two categories i.e. primitive subsistence and intensive subsistence agriculture.
Characteristics of primitive subsistence agriculture are as follows:

• This kind of cultivation is practised by many tribes in tropics.
• Vegetation is cleared by fire and ashes used in the fertility of the soil.
• Cultivated fields are small so that people use only primitive tools such as sticks and hoes.
• After 3 to 5 years when the soil loses its fertility, then farmers clear another patch of forest land for cultivation.

Question 29.
What is the meaning of market gardening and horticulture? Describe any four characteristics of this type of agriculture of the world. All India 2008
Answer:
This type of agriculture specialises in the production of high-value crops such as vegetables, fruits and flowers, solely devoted to the urban markets. These farms are located near urban areas.

Features of market gardening and horticulture are as follows:
1. Farms are small in size and located near urban centres where good transportation facilities are available.
2. It is both labour and capital intensive and lays emphasis on the use of irrigation, HYV seeds, fertilizers, insecticides, greenhouses and artificial heating systems in colder regions.
3. The regions where farmers specialise in the cultivation of vegetables only is known as truck farming as the distance between the urban market and farms can be covered overnight by trucks.
4. This type of agriculture is practised in well developed and densely populated regions of North-West Europe, North-Eastern USA and the Mediterranean regions. The Netherlands is specialised in growing flower and horticultural crops, especially tulips.

3 Map Based Questions

Question 30.
Identify the geographical features shown on the outline map of the world.
A. An area of dairy farming. All India 2016
B. An area of nomadic herding. Delhi 2016. All indin 2011.2009
C. An area of extensive commercial grain farming. Delhi 2013. All India 2014.2013
D. An area of subsistence gathering. Delhi 2014, All India 2012

Question 31.
Study the given map, showing dairy farming regions, carefully and answer the following questions. Delhi 2013
(i) Identify the areas and name the areas A and B, marked on the map.
(ii) Define dairy farming.
(iii) Explain any three characteristics of dairy farming.
Answer:
1. A. South-East Canada and North-East America.
B. North-Western Europe
2. Dairy farming is a type of farming practice where milch animals are reared. Special emphasis is on cattle breeding, health care and veterinary services.
3. The three characteristics of dairy farming are as follows:

• It is highly capital intensive as it requires animal sheds, storage facilities, fodder, milching machines, etc.
• It is highly labour intensive also as it involves rigorous care in feeding and milching.
• It is practised mainly near urban and industrial centres which provide a neighbourhood market for milk, dairy products, etc.

Question 32.
Study the given map showing areas of subsistence gathering carefully and answer the following questions. Delhi 2013
(i) Identify and name the areas marked A, B > C, D on the map.
(ii) Explain any three characteristics of hunting and gathering.
(iii) Give two reasons why gathering has little chance to become important at a global level.
Answer:
1. A. Northern Canada
B. Amazon Basin
C. Northern Eurasia
D. Tropical Africa
2. The characteristics of hunting and gathering are:
(a) Hunting and gathering are practised in places that have a harsh climate such as very hot or very cold areas.
(b) These activities are done by primitive societies that depend on wild animals and plants.
(c) These activities require a small amount of capital investment and operate at a very low level of technology.
3. The two reasons are:

• Products collected from gathering cannot compete in the world market.
• Synthetic products that are better in quality are available at lower prices than the products collected by gathering.

Question 33.
Identify the geographical features shown on the outline map of the world.
A. A major area of commercial livestock rearing. Delhi 2012,2011
B. An important country of commercial livestock rearing. Delhi 2009
C. Area of extensive grain farming. All India 2008
D. Area of extensive commercial grain farming. Delhi 200a

Value Based Questions

Question 34.
“Dairy farming is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals in the world”. Explain the value which helps in the advancement of dairy farming.
Answer:
Following values help in the advancement of dairy
farming:

• Caring attitude towards animals.
• Participation of community.
• Evolve new techniques.

Question 35.
“World food production is enough to feed everyone yet there are millions of people hungry and malnourished, lack of which value leads to this problem.
Answer:
Lack of following values leads to millions of people go hungry and malnourished:

• Lack of caring nature for people.
• Lack of Awareness.
• Lack of Political Apathy.

We hope the Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 5 Primary Activities help you. If you have any query regarding Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 5 Primary Activities, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Chapter 5 Patol Babu, Film Star are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Reader. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Reader Chapter 5 Patol Babu, Film Star.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Reader Chapter 5 Patol Babu, Film Star

TextBook Questions

Question 1.
With your partner answer the following questions: What are your strengths?

What is your dream career?
I want become a ………

• Is there any correlation between your strengths and aspirations ?
• Do you think you can achieve your dreams ? Give reasons.

Answer:
Self Attempt.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions briefly :
(a) What was the news that Nishikanto Ghosh gave Patol Babu?
Answer:
Patol Babu was just to go out when Nishikanto Babu called on him. He told Patol Babu that his youngest brother-in-law was in film production department and he was looking for an actor for a scene in a film they were shooting. A character should be of fiftyish, short and bald. So he gave him Patol Babu’s address. They would pay him, of course.

(b) How did Patol Babu react ? Why?
Answer:
Patol Babu hadn’t expected such news at the beginning of the day that an offer to act in a film could come to an ordinary man who was 52 years old. That was beyond his imagination.

(c) Why had Patol Babu lost his first job in Calcutta?
Answer:
Patol Babu worked as clerk with Hudson and Kimberley in Calcutta and was lucky to have a flat in Nepal Bhattacharji Lane. He lost his factory job because of retrenchment in the office.

(d) How does Patol Babu reconcile to the dialogue given to him?
Answer:
The youngster Jyoti produced a red dot pen and gave it to Sosanko who scribbled something on a page and handed it to Patol Babu. Patol Babu saw a single word “Oh!” scrolled on it. He was surprised that this was the only dialogue he had to speak. He remembered his mentor’s advice that however the dialogue and the role is short, it should be done with dignity.

(e) Who was Mr. Pakrashi ? How do his words help Patol Babu in enacting his role?
Answer:
Mr. Pakrashi was Patol Babu’s mentor. He used to say, “Each word spoken in the play is like a fruit in a tree. Not everyone in the audience has assessed to it. But you, the actor, must know how to pluck it, get at its essence, and serve it up to the audience for their edification.” The memory of these words of his Guru made Patol Babu bow his head in obeisance.

(f) How do we know that Patol Babu was a meticulous man?
Answer:
Patol Babu had to say only one word “Oh!” Patol Babu began giving the exclamation a different inflection each time he uttered it. After doing it for a number of times he made an astonishing discovery. The same exclamation when spoken in different ways, carried different shades of meaning. He suddenly felt that he could write a whole thesis on that one exclamation. A true actor could make a mark with this one single syllable.

(g) Why did Mr. Mullick turn down Patol Babu’s request for a rehearsal?
Answer:
Mr. Mullick turned down Patol Babu’s request for a rehearsal and shook his head impatiently. He said there was a large patch of cloud approaching the sun and this scene must be shot in the sunlight.

(h) What were the special touches that Patol Babu gave to his role to make it more authentic?
Answer:
Patol Babu told Mr. Mullick that if he had a newspaper open in his hand and if the collision took place while he had his eyes on the paper then perhaps the scene would be more effective.

Question 3.
Discuss the following questions in detail and write the answers in your notebooks:
(а) 7 hope the part calls for some dialogue ?’ Who says this ? Why does he / she ask this question ?
Answer:
These words are spoken by Patol Babu. He asked this question because the part that he had to play was of a pedestrian. An absent-minded, short-tempered person, though the part was not a big one but that was not the main thing, what was important was that he would be playing a part in a film. Patol Babu was very keen on acting in films. At one time he had a real passion for the stage, in fact he could not think of anything else accept working in the theatre. He was always in demand, his name was also on the handbills, people liked his acting and now he was getting a chance to work in a film. He thought he was perfect for the part but he was curious to know about his dialogues, so he asked this question. He thought this was the first step on the ladder, the first step that would make him successful. He thought his lifelong desire would come true.

(b) ‘Were these people pulling his legs? Was the whole thing a gigantic hoax? A meek, harmless man like him, and they had to drag him into the middle of the city to make a laughing stock out of him. How could anyone be so cruel ?’ Why does Patol Babu have these thoughts?
Answer:
Naresh Dutt asked Sosanko to give Patol Babu his dialogues. Sosanko turned to Patol Babu and said, “Come along ‘grandpa.” He told Jyoti to give him his dialogues. Jyoti produced a red dot pen and Sosanko scribbled something on it and handed it to Patol Babu. Patol Babu saw that a single word had been scrolled on it – ‘Oh! Patol Babu felt a sudden throbbing in his head. He felt very strange,’ he had expected some longer dialogues. Sigh came out of the depths of his heart. Just one word — No, not even a word, a sound — ‘Oh! He felt stifling.’ Sosanko said, ‘What’s the matter grandpa?’ You don’t seem to be pleased, several questions were arising in Patol Babu’s mind. Were these people pulling his leg? Was the whole thing a gigantic hoax? Why did they want to drag this simple man into the middle and make a laughing stock of him. How could these people be so cruel? Patol Babu could hardly speak. He slowly said, Just ‘Oh. Is that all I have to say? I find it rather strange.’ Sosanko raised his eyebrows and said, “You think that nothing, at least you are getting a speaking part in a Baren Mullick film, do you realise what that means? You are the luckiest of the actors.”

(c) Patol Babu is an amateur actor for whom walk-on part in a movie turns into an ultimate challenge. Discuss.
Answer:
Patol Babu at one time had real passion for stage. It verged on obsession. In Jatras, in amateur theatricals, in plays put up by the club in his neighbourhood, he was always in demand, his name had even appeared in handbills on many occasions. There was a time when people bought tickets especially to see him. One day he was offered a part to play in a film directed by Baren Mullick. Patol Babu thought his lifelong dream coming true. When he reached the site of the shooting he was given his dialogue. To Patol Babu’s surprise it was not a proper dialogue but only an expression ‘Oh’. Patol Babu felt discouraged, he found it rather strange. He thought that thos^people were trying to make fun of him as he was a simple man.

On asking he was informed that this was a regular speaking part. A speaking part in a Baren Mullick film – didn’t he realise what that meant? Why he was the luckiest of the actors? There were at least a hundred who had appeared in this film who had had nothing to say, even the hero had no lines to speak that day. Patol Babu was the only one who had.

Patol Babu thought about his mentor’s advice that however small a part may be you should never consider it beneath your dignity to accept it, a play/film is a combined effort.

Patol Babu now thought that this little word ‘Oh’ if spoken in different ways carried different meaning. Why had he then felt so disheartened when this single word contained a gold mine of meanings? A true actor could make a mark with this single word.

(d) Do you agree with the statement that Patol Babu is a practical man who comes to terms with whatever life has to offer 1 Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Patol Babu is a practical man. He was offered a role in Baren Mullick’s film of an absent- minded pedestrian. The dialogue he was given was only a single syllable ‘Oh’. Patol Babu thought it rather strange for once he had been a famous stage actor, he thought as if those people were making fun of him but he was told that at least he was lucky to have a dialogue. There were others who appeared in that scene but had nothing to say, even the hero. Patol Babu still felt discouraged. He thought it was all just a waste of time but his mentors words awakened him, he remembered his mentors advice. He had once told him (Patol Babu) that as an artist his aim should be to make the most of his opportunity and he should bring out the true meaning of his lines. Patol Babu suddenly felt that he could write a whole thesis on that one syllable because the same exclamation if spoken in different ways carried different meanings. He now wanted to present his part in the best possible way. For him money did not matter though he needed money very badly. Surely he was a practical man who came to terms with whatever life had to offer.

(e) Why does Patol Babu walk away before he can be paid for his role ? What does this reveal about his character?
Answer:
Patol Babu was surprised to get his dialogue for it was only a single syllable ‘Oh’. He felt very discouraged. He thought he would be made fun of. Things were much better on the stage. A faint memory was stirred up in his mind.

The words of his mentor Gogon Pakrashi rang in his ears, “Each word of the dialogue is like a fruit on a tree. As an artist one should make the best of his opportunity. However small a part maybe, never consider it below your dignity.” This small single syllable if spoken in different ways would carry different meanings. A true actor could make the best of it. Now he completely got over his apathy. All he felt was a keen anticipation and excitement.

He performed his part well. He had put all his labour in this one act. It was the satisfaction of doing it with perfection. Money did not matter though he needed it. So he went off without being paid. This showed that he was not only talented but a diligent, passionate actor.

(f) Do you think making a movie is an easy job ? Discuss with reference to the story.
Answer:
Although movies are intefesting but making a movie is not an easy job. It requires finances as well as proper actors for particular roles. The setting, background music, dialogue delivery must correlate with each other. The rgovie should have an effective ending so that it leaves an impact and message to the audience.

Question 4.
Here are some lines from the lesson. What do they tell us about Patol Babu’s character ? You may take help from the words given in the table below or find some of your own from the dictionary. The first one has been done for you.

(a) That an offer to act in a film could come to a 52-year-old nonentity like him was beyond his wildest dreams unassuming; modest
(b) Indeed, there was a time when people bought tickets especially to see him
(c) ‘I was with Hudson and Kimberley for nine years and wasn’t late for a single day.’
(d) It didn’t matter if the part was small, but, if he had to make the most of it, he had to learn his lines beforehand. How small he would feel if he muffed in the presence of so many people
(e) Patol Babu cleared his throat and started enunciating the syllable in various ways. Along with that he worked out how he would react physically when the collision took place—how his features would be twisted in pain, how he would fling out his arms, how his body would crouch to express pain and surprise—all these he performed in various ways in front of a large glass window
(f) It is true that he needed money very badly, but what was twenty rupees when measured against the intense satisfaction of a small job done with perfection and dedication?
Answer:
(b) passionate actor, talented
(c) meticulous, humble
(d) diligent, meticulous
(e) talented
(f) genial, diligent

Question 5.
Here are some lines from the lesson. Match the meanings of the underlined words with their meanings listed below.

Answer:
(a) to surrender or relinquish
(b) stimulate the imagination
(c) shut down
(d) staged
(e) stopped
(f) to gain control over one’s actions

Question 6.
After Patol Babu returns home he recounts his experience in front of the camera to his wife. In pairs write out the exchange in the form of a dialogue and enact it before the class. You may start like this …..
Patol Babu’s wife: So what happened at the shooting today? Did you get to do your role?
Patol Babu: Oh, Yes, I had the time of my life
Answer:
Patol Babu’s wife: What dialogue did you get?
Patol Babu: I was surprised that I had only to say ‘Oh!’
Patol Babu’s wife: That is very strange.
Patol Babu: Yes it was surprising, just one word — no, not even a word, a sound — ‘Oh’.
Patol Babu’s wife: Then how did you act?
Patol Babu: I began giving the exclamation ‘Oh’ a different inflection each time I practised. Suddenly I felt I could write a whole thesis on the single word. I could make a mark with it. And to my surprise when my turn came I was able to act perfectly.
Patol Babu’s wife: How much did they pay you?
Patol Babu: Money at that moment did not matter, what mattered to me was that I could get to fulfil a lifelong dream to act in a film.

Question 7.
Patol Babu impresses everyone at the shoot with his acting talent in spite of having a one word dialogue. In groups of four enact the word ‘Oh’ in different ways to show the following emotions :

• happiness sorrow
• excitement fear
• sarcasm pain
• disappointment surprise

Each group will then enact one of these emotions to the rest of the class using the word ‘Oh’. The other groups will try to guess which emotion is being expressed.
Answer:
Self-Attempt

Writing Task

Question 8.
Patol Babu writes a letter to Nishikanto Ghosh to thank him for being instrumental in his getting a role in a film. He also shares his experience at the film shoot including the excitement and deep satisfaction that he derived from the same. Write the letter in about 200 words.
Answer:
21, ABC Street
Kolkata                                                                            ‘
Dear Nishikanto Babu,
It was really kind of you to think about me and the passion I had for acting. In the beginning I was quite taken aback after so many years of my stage acting. Thanks a lor for introducing me to your brother-in-law. I met him and he directed me where to go.

I arrived home and gave this happy news to my wife. I was really very excited to act. I met Naresh Dutt and he asked one of his fellow workers to give me the dialogue. I was surprised to see that it was not a proper dialogue but only a word ‘Oh’. I found it rather strange. I thought that I would be a laughing stock in the middle of these people. I was told that there were more than a hundred persons who appeared in this film but they had nothing to say. Even the hero had no lines to speak that day. I was the only one who had.

Then I thought that this ‘Oh’ could be given a different inflection each time it was uttered. The same exclamation when spoken in different ways carried different shades of meaning. A small grey moustache was also put on my face. I gave the idea that if I had a newspaper in my hand then it would be more effective. I gave my shot and it was perfect. For me money didn’t matter but my desire to act in a film was fulfilled. This was all possible because of you. You were instrumental in getting this role for me. Thanks for that.

Your friend,
Patol Babu

Listening  Task

Question 9.
Listen to the passage on character actors and complete the exercise as directed.
(a) Supporting roles are those roles that do not affect the plot or the subject of the film (True/False)
Answer:
True

(b) People become character actors chiefly because (Tick the right choices)
(i) they like doing supporting roles
(ii) there are limited leading roles
(iii) it is easier to act in a supporting role
(iv) they can’t find any other work
Answer:
(i) they like doing supporting roles

(c) ‘star quality’ refers to things like ……… (Tick the right choice)
(i) good looks and acting talent
(ii) good looks and the right weight
(iii) good looks and the right height
(iv) good looks, height and right weight
Answer:
(i) good looks and acting talent

(d) After the age of forty the actors most likely to get less work are (Tick the right choice)
(i) character actors
(ii) the male lead
(iii) the female actors
(iv) the female lead
Answer:
(i) character actors

(e) The chief advantages of being a character actor is that ……… (Tick the right choice)
(i) they are never blamed if a film fails
(ii) they can act for as long as they like
(iii) they do not have to take care of their looks
(iv) they do not need to be skilled at horsemanship or swimming
Answer:
(ii) they can act for as long as they like

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Chapter 5 Patol Babu, Film Star help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Reader Chapter 5 Patol Babu, Film Star, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 Secondary Activities is part of Geography Class 12 Important Questions. Here we have given Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 Secondary Activities.

Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 Secondary Activities

1 Mark Questions
Question 1.
Define the term technopolies. Delhi 2016
Answer:
Technopolies is the term given to high-tech industries which are regionally concentrated, self-sustained and highly specialised,
E.g., Silicon Valley near San Francisco.

Question 2.
Mention any two major problems of the Ruhr industrial region. (All India 2016)
Answer:
The two major problems are as follows:

• Changes in the industrial structure as the demand for coal declined, led to the decay of this region.
• There are other problems related to industrial waste disposal and pollution.

Question 3.
How has the ‘New Ruhr’ landscape emerged? (HOTS; All India 2016)
Answer:
The ‘New Ruhr’ landscape has emerged as a result of more focus on the concentration of new industries like the huge Opel car assembly plant, new chemical plants, universities and out of town shopping centres.

Question 4.
What is the household industry? (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
The household industry is the smallest unit of manufacturing, also known as a cottage industry. It is basically run by creative individuals or craftsmen who are assisted by their family members in their home.

Question 5.
Name any two sub-sectors of the cotton textile industry in the world. Delhi 2009
Answer:
Two sub-sectors of the cotton textile industry are low handloom and power loom.

Question 6.
What is the importance of secondary activities in the world? (All India 2009, Delhi 2009)
Answer:
The importance of secondary activities is that these activities add value to the natural resources by the transformation of raw materials into useful and valuable products.

Question 7.
Classify industries into two groups on the basis of metallic minerals. All Indio 2008
Answer:
Industries classified on the basis of metallic minerals are ferrous and non-ferrous industries.

3 Marks Questions

Question 8.
What are the traditional large scale industrial regions? Give any two characteristics of them. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Traditional large scale industrial regions are associated with the heavy industries like metal smelting, heavy engineering, chemical manufacturing and textile production. They are usually located near coal fields. These industries are also called smokestack industries because they are the most polluting industries.

The characteristics of these industries are as follows:
1. The large labour force is engaged in production. It is also characterised by crowded and low-quality poor houses. The environment is unpleasant and full of pollution, waste disposals, etc.
2. Large unemployment and high out-migration is the present situation in these regions because of the closure of factories due to worldwide fall in demands.

Question 9.
Describe any three characteristics of household industries. Delhi 2014
Answer:
The three characteristics of household industries are as follows:

• Household industries are basically run by creative individuals or craftsmen who are assisted by their family members in their homes.
• Inherent manufacturing skill that is transferred from one generation to another can be seen in this type of industries.
• The raw material is taken from the local area and sold in the local market. Jute ropes, basket pickles, etc are its examples.

Question 10.
Give the meaning of the high-tech industry. State any two characteristics of this industry. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
High technology is the latest generation of manufacturing activities. It is best understood as the application of intensive research and development efforts leading to the manufacturing products of an advanced scientific and engineering character.
Characteristics of the High-tech Industry are:

1. Professional (white collar) workers make-up a large share of the total workforce and greatly outnumber the actual production (blue collar) workers.
2. These industries are neatly spaced, low, modern, dispersed, office plant lab buildings rather than massive assembly structures.

Question 11.
Explain any three characteristics of modern large scale manufacturing in the world. (Delhi 2013,2008)
OR
Explain any three characteristics of organisational structure and stratification of modern large scale manufacturing industry, AH India 2012
Answer:
The characteristics of modern large scale manufacturing industries are as follows: Complicated Organisation Modern large scale industrial processes consist of multiple activities to run the industries.

Specialised and Skilled Labour The specialised and skilled labour is required in the modern manufacturing industries. Thus, skilled manpower is increasing.

Use of Power Resources These industries widely use huge power to run heavy machines in the production process.

Question 12.
How do secondary activities add value to natural resources? Explain with three examples. (All India 2012)
Answer:
Secondary activities add value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products. By various processes, secondary activities add value to natural products.

The examples are as follows:
1. Cotton in the boll has limited use, but after transforming into yarn, it becomes more valuable and can be used for making clothes.
2. Iron ore cannot be used directly from the mines but after being converted into steel, it gets its value and can be used for making many valuable machines, tools, etc.
3. Materials from the farms, forest products and resources of the sea can be put into greater use by secondary activities.

Question 13.
Explain the process of mechanisation in modern large scale manufacturing industry in three points. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Mechanisation refers to using gadgets which accomplish tasks. The advanced stage of mechanisation is automation that refers to completion of tasks without aid to human thinking during the manufacturing process. These processes are mechanised where the tasks are completed skilfully without any human aid. There are automatic lacto factories feedback and closed loop computer control systems where machines are developed to think. These kinds of mechanised processing units have sprung up all over the world.

Question 14.
Explain any three characteristics of ‘foot loose industries. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
The characteristics of foot loose industries. are as follows:
1. Foot loose industries can be established at any place, because their location is not affected by any particular raw material, whether it is weight-losing or otherwise. These industries are affected by component parts and they are available at all places.
2. These industries produce their products in small numbers and they do not require a large labour force.
3. These industries emit less or no pollution. Thus, they are ecofriendly. Road netw’ork plays an important role in their location.

Question 15.
How are technological innovations an important aspect of modern manufacturing industries? Explain any three aspects in this regard. (HOTS; All India 2011)
Answer:
Technological innovations through research and development strategies are an important aspect of modern manufacturing for quality control, eliminating waste and inefficiency and combating pollution.
Three aspects in this regard are as under:

• Complex machine technology is needed so that high quality goods are produced at less time.
• It requires vast capital so that machines with the latest technology can be used in manufacturing.
• Extreme specialisation and division of labour is required, that can work efficiently on the machines.

Question 16.
Explain the concept of ’High Technology Industry’ with examples. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
It is simply known as high-tech industiy and it is the latest generation of manufacturing activities. It is best understood as the application of intensive Research and Development (R & D) efforts leading to the manufacturing of products of an advanced scientific and engineering character.

Robotics on the assembly line, Computer-Aided Design (CAD) and manufacturing, electronic controls of smelting and refining processes and the constant development of new chemical and pharmaceutical products are notable examples of a high-tech industry.

Question 17.
Classify industries of the world on the basis of ownership into three groups. State the main features of each group. (All Indio 2010, 2008)
Answer:
On the basis of ownership, the industries of the world can be classified in the following ways:
Public Sector In this type, the ownership and management of an industry is in the hand of the state. Mainly concerned with social welfare.
Private Sector An individual or a corporate body owns and manages industries that belong to the private sector. Mainly concerned with profit.

Joint Sector Industries that are jointly owned and managed by the private and government sector are called joint sector industries. Mainly concerned with public sector development.

Question 18.
Distinguish between small scale and large scale industries by stating three points of each. (All India 2009)
Answer:
The difference between large scale industries and small scale industries are as follows:

5 Marks Questions

Question 19.
Explain five factors that influence the industrial location in the world. (Delhi 2015,2010)
Answer:
Factors influencing the industrial location in the world are as follows:
Access to Market Market refers to the people for whom goods are manufactured. Market affects the location of an industry. A manufacturing unit is established near the market area. Areas having more population are big markets for manufactured goods, as compared to areas having less population. Apart from it, areas having a population with more purchasing power also have a big market.

Access to Raw Material Industries that use heavy, bulky and weight-losing raw materials are established near the source of raw material. For e.g. in sugar industries, sugarcane is a perishable and weight-losing raw material. To reduce the transport cost, industries are located near a source of raw material.

Access to Sources of Energy Industries using more power and energy are established near the source of energy, e.g. aluminium industry.

Access to Transportation and Communication Industries are located in areas that have an efficient transport network to get the raw material from various regions and supply manufactured goods to market. Communication network is also needed to communicate with the consumers. Thus, transport and communication are important factors that affect the location of an industry.

Government Policies Favourable government policies that promote industrialisation is also important in deciding the location of an industry.

Question 20.
Define the term manufacturing. Explain any four features of small scale manufacturing. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Manufacturing means to make by hand, however now it includes goods made by machines. It is essentially a process which involves transforming raw materials into finished goods for higher value for sale in local or distant markets.
The four features of small scale manufacturing are as follows:

• It differs from household industries and large scale industries by its production techniques and place.
• This type of manufacturing uses local raw material, simple power driven machines and semi-skilled labour.
• It provides employment and raises local purchasing power.
• These manufacturing units have developed labour intensive techniques in order to provide employment to their population.

Question 21.
Define manufacturing. Classify manufacturing industries on the basis of size into three categories and explain the important characteristics of each type. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
For definition and characteristics of manufacturing industries,
Manufacturing means to make by hand, however now it includes goods made by machines. It is essentially a process which involves transforming raw materials into finished goods for higher value for sale in local or distant markets.

The four features of small scale manufacturing are as follows:

• It differs from household industries and large scale industries by its production techniques and place.
• This type of manufacturing uses local raw material, simple power driven machines and semi-skilled labour.
• It provides employment and raises local purchasing power.
• These manufacturing units have developed labour intensive techniques in order to provide employment to their population.

On the basis of their size, industries are classified into the following:
Cottage Manufacturing

• It is the smallest manufacturing unit.
• The artisans use local raw materials.
• Part time labour or artisan’s family members produce everyday goods in their homes with the help of simple tools.
• Finished goods may be used for consumption in the same household or for sale in the local market.

Large Scale Manufacturing

• It requires a large market.
• It needs enormous energy and various raw materials.
• It also requires specialised workers, advanced technology, assembly line mass production and huge capital.
• Now, it has diffused to almost all over the world.

Question 22.
Explain the role of power and raw material in the location of heavy industries in India, HOTS; Delhi 2013
Answer:
Power All the Industries require energy as they are run by energy such as cotton textile and Iron and steel Industries.
Role of power is as follows;

1. Power provides the motive force for machines.
2. Its supply has to be ensured before the location of any Industry.
3. Certain Industries like aluminum and synthetic nitrogen manufacturing industries tend to be located near sources of power.

Raw material Industries are located in those areas where the raw material is available near to the industry. Role of raw material is as follows:

1. Industries using weight-losing raw materials are located in the regions where the raw material is located.
2. Sugar mills, pulp industries, copper smelting and pig iron industries are located near their raw material.
3. Most of the iron and steel industries are located near coal fields or near sources of iron ore.

Question 23.
Explain the significance of the iron and steel industry of India giving three points. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Iron and. the steel industry is basic to the industrial development of the country. The development of the iron and steel industry opened the doors to the rapid industrial development in India.

The main significance of the iron and steel industry are:

1. Almost all sectors of the Indian Industry depends heavily on the iron and steel industry for their basic infrastructure.
2. It provides the raw material for other industries such as machine tools used for further production.
3. Iron and steel provide a base for all other industries, so it is called a basic industry.

Question 24.
Describe any five factors influencing industrial location in the world? (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Factors influencing the industrial location in the world are as follows:
Access to Market Market refers to the people for whom goods are manufactured. Market affects the location of an industry. A manufacturing unit is established near the market area. Areas having more population are big markets for manufactured goods, as compared to areas having less population. Apart from it, areas having a population with more purchasing power also have a big market.

Access to Raw Material Industries that use heavy, bulky and weight-losing raw materials are established near the source of raw material. For e.g. in sugar industries, sugarcane is a perishable and weight-losing raw material. To reduce the transport cost, industries are located near a source of raw material.

Access to Sources of Energy Industries using more power and energy are established near the source of energy, e.g. aluminium industry.

Access to Transportation and Communication Industries are located in areas that have an efficient transport network to get the raw material from various regions and supply manufactured goods to market. Communication network is also needed to communicate with the consumers. Thus, transport and communication are important factors that affect the location of an industry.

Government Policies Favourable government policies that promote industrialisation is also important in deciding the location of an industry.

Value Based Questions

Question 25.
“Africa has immense natural resources and yet it is industrially the most backward continent.” Lack of which value leads to this backwardness in Africa.
Answer:
Lack of following values leads to the backwardness of Africa:

• Nationalism
• Social welfare
• Caring attitude towards people.

Question 26.
“It is the smallest manufacturing unit. The artisans use local raw material and sample tools to produce every day goods in their homes with the help of their family members or part time labour.” Explain the value which can be seen in these industry.
Answer:
The household Industries shows the following values:

• Participation of community.
• Caring attitude towards people.
• Economic welfare of people.

We hope the Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 Secondary Activities help you. If you have any query regarding Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 6 Secondary Activities, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 7 Tertiary and Quaternary Activities is part of Geography Class 12 Important Questions. Here we have given Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 7 Tertiary and Quaternary Activities.

Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 7 Tertiary and Quaternary Activities

1 Mark Questions

Question 1.
Give the meaning of the digital divide. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
A digital divide is an economic and social inequality arising in the countries due to unequal access and use of knowledge or Information and Communication Technologies (ICT).

Question 2.
Define the term ‘quaternary activities’. (Delhi 2014, All Indio 2009)
Answer:
Quaternary activities refer to the more intellectual occupations whose task is to think, research and develop ideas. It is concerned with high-order of professional and administrative services, information generation, processing and transmission.

Question 3.
Define the term ‘tertiary activities’. (All India 2013)
Answer:
Tertiary activities are activities related to providing sendees. They are different from production and do not process or manufacture goods directly. Professionally skilled people and trained labour are required in these activities, e.g. transport, communication, etc.

Question 4.
Give any two examples of quaternary activities. (All India 2013,12)
Answer:
Examples of quaternary activities are:

• Collection of information.
• Production of information.

Question 5.
Give the meaning of retail trading services. (All India 2013,2011)
Answer:
Retail trading services link the producers with consumers. It is the business activity concerned with the sale of goods directly to consumers. Street peddling, handcarts, trucks, online order, etc are examples of non-store retail trading.

Question 6.
Give any two examples of tertiary activities. Delhi 2012
Answer:
Examples of tertiary activities are trade and commerce and transport.

Question 7.
Who is an empowered worker? Delhi 2012
Answer:
Empowered workers are people who are engaged in re-arrangement and interpretation and the use and evaluation of new technologies. They come under the category of quinary activities.

Question 8.
Define the term ‘tourism.’ (All Indio 2012)
Answer:
Travelling with the motive of recreation rather than business is called tourism. It is a business of providing hotels, restaurants, entertainment, etc for people who are travelling.

3 Marks Questions

Question 9.
Explain any three characteristics of quaternary activities. (All Indio 2011)
Answer:
The three characteristics of quaternary activities are as follows:

1. Quaternary activities centre around research and development and may be seen as an advanced form of services involving specialised knowledge and technical skills.
2. Quaternary activities involve the collection, production and dissemination of information.
3. Like some of the tertiary functions, quaternary activities can also be outsourced. They are not tied to resources, affected by the environment or necessarily localised by markets.

Question 10.
Explain any three characteristics of periodical markets of rural areas in the world. (All indio 2010)
Answer:
The three characteristics of periodical markets of rural areas in the world are as follows:

1. Periodical markets in rural areas are found where there are no regular markets. Local periodical markets are organised at different intervals.
2. These may be weekly, bi-weekly markets and people from the surrounding areas meet their demand.
3. These markets are held on specific days and move from one place to another. The shopkeepers thus, remain busy on all the days while a large area is served by them.

Question 11.
What are the two factors affecting tourism in the world? Explain each factor with example. All India 2010
Answer:
The two factors affecting tourism in the world are:
Demand It is the prime factor for tourism. For last few centuries, the demand for recreational and entertainment related activities have increased significantly. The living of the people is being standardised and the nature of work is creating demand for tourism.

Transport The second important factor that affects the tourism sector is transport. The development in transport sector increases the demand for tourism. The easy accessibility to tourist locations and places encourages people to move or visit there. The expansion of air and rail network in the last decade has influenced tourism in increasing the number of tourists. Apart from this, the improvement in infrastructure as tourist spots has also increased demand for tourism.

Question 12.
‘Outsourcing has resulted in opening up a large number of job opportunities in several countries.’ Analyse the statement with three suitable examples. (HOTS; Delhi 2009)
Answer:
Outsourcing has resulted in the opening up of a large number of call centres in India, China, Eastern Europe, Israel, Philippines and Costa Rica. It has created new jobs in these countries. Outsourcing is coming to those countries where cheap and skilled workers are available. These are also out-migrating countries. But with the work available in the form of outsourcing, the migration from these countries has come down.

This can be explained through these examples:

1. The Knowledge Processing Outsourcing (KPO) industry includes research and development, e-learning, business research, etc.
2. The Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) industry involves highly skilled workers. It is information driven knowledge outsourcing.
3. Data processing is another IT related service that employs large number of people in Asian countries.

Question 13.
How does the climate of a region attract tourists? Explain with examples from different regions of the world. All India 2009
Answer:
The climatic conditions of any region decide the demand for tourism. The climate of a region attracts tourists in the following ways:

1. People from colder places want to visit warm places as tourist. That’s why the Mediterranean lands and Southern Europe, due to their considerable higher temperature, sunny days and less rainfall attract tourists from Europe.
2. People from warmer regions love to visit colder places. That’s why tourists from Northern plains of India prefer to go to tourist places located in the Himalayan region or other hill stations.
3. Climatic conditions of a region also provide some adventurous activities to do and attract tourists, e.g. ice skating and skiing in snowy regions, sea surfing on beaches, etc.

Question 14.
Compare the features of rural and urban marketing centres of the world in three points. Delhi 2008
Answer:
Comparison between the features of rural and urban marketing centres are given below:

5 Marks Questions

Question 15.
What is tourism? Analyse any four tourist attractions in the world. (Delhi 2016)
OR
Define the term tourism. Explain any four factors which attract tourists in the world. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Tourism is travel which is done for the purpose of recreation rather than business. It is one of the largest sectors of tertiary activities in terms of providing employment. It also generates the largest revenue. The four factors which attract tourists in the world are as follows:

Climate The climatic conditions of any region decide the demand for tourism. People from colder places want to visit warm places and vice versa. People from hilly terrain want to visit beaches and people living around sea-shore wish to visit hilly areas, e.g. the Mediterranean lands and Southern Europe, due to their considerable higher temperature during winters attract tourists from Europe.

Landscape Attractive environment like mountains, lakes, spectacular sea coasts and landscapes not completely altered by man are important tourist destinations.

History and Art The archaeological site attracts more people because of its rich past. The area with historical remains like castles, forts, battle fields, palaces, religious monuments, excavation sites are tourist attractions.

Culture and Economy For experiencing ethnic and local customs, tourists like to visit a place. Besides, if a region provides the needs of tourists at a cheap cost, it is likely to become very popular.

Question 16.
What is medical tourism? Explain the scope of medical services for overseas patients in India. (All India 2015)
Answer:
When medical treatment is combined with international tourism activity, it leads itself to what is commonly known as medical tourism. The scope of medical tourism for overseas patients in India is as follows:

1. In 2005, about 55,000 patients from USA visited India for treatment. In this way, India has emerged as the leading country of medical tourism in the world.
2. It bring foreign currency to India.
3. World class hospitals with latest technology are located in metropolitan cities of India. These hospitals cater to patients all over the world.
4. This kind of tourism brings abundant benefits to developing countries like India. Therefore, medical tourism has wide scope in India.

Question 17.
‘Services are very important aspect for economic development of a country.’ Analyse the statement by explaining five components of a service sector. (HOTS; Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Service sector is very important for the development of economy in the world. It is related to all kinds of services like education, health, welfare, business services, etc in exchange of payments. This sector also provides employment to a large number of people.

The major components of services are:

• Business services like advertising, legal services, public relations and counselling.
• Finance, insurance and real estate includes banking services.
• Wholesale and retail trading with the producers and consumers.
• Transport and communication such as railway, roadway, shipping, airline services, etc.
• Entertainment and mass media such as television, radio, films, magazines and newspapers.

Value Based Questions

Question 18.
Cities of developed and developing countries reflect marked differences in their planning and development. Which values lead to development of these cities?
Answer:
The values which leads to development of these cities are:

• Patriotism
• Mass-Centric policy
• Democratic principles

Question 19.
“Tertiary activities include both production and exchange. The production involves the provision of services that are consumed. The output is indirectly measured in terms of wages and salaries. Exchange involves trade, transport and communication facilities that are used to overcome distance. Tertiary activities therefore involve the commercial output of services rather than the production of tangible goods.” What values can be learnt from above passage?
Answer:
The passage shows us the values of:

• Participation of community
• Public welfare
• Economic development

We hope the Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 7 Tertiary and Quaternary Activities help you. If you have any query regarding Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 7 Tertiary and Quaternary Activities, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 2 The World Population (Distribution, Density and Growth) is part of Geography Class 12 Important Questions. Here we have given Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 2 The World Population (Distribution, Density and Growth).

Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 2 The World Population (Distribution, Density and Growth)

1 Mark Question
Question 1.
How is the density of population of a region calculated? Delhi 2015
Answer:
The density of population refers to a ratio between the total population and the total land area in a country. It can be calculated as

Question 2.
Define the term ‘population distribution’. Delhi 201s
Answer:
Population distribution means an arrangement of people over the earth’s surface. The population distribution in the world is uneven.

Question 3.
Name the most densely populated region of North America, AH India 2013
Answer:
The most densely populated region of North America is North-Eastern part of U.S.A.

Question 4.
Give the meaning of ‘Crude Birth Rate (CBR)’. Delhi 2013
Answer:
The Crude Birth Rate (CBR) is expressed as the number of live births in a year per thousand of a population. It is calculated as:

Where, Bi = Live births during the year and P = Mid-year population of the area.

Question 5.
Which continent has the highest growth rate of a population? (Delhi 2012,2009)
Answer:
The highest growth rate of population is in Africa.

Question 6.
Define the term density of population. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
A ratio between population and land area in a country is called population density. It is calculated by dividing the number of people by area which is usually shown as the number of people per square kilometres.

Question 7.
Define the population growth. All India 2012
Answer:
Population growth refers to the change in the number of inhabitants of territory during a specific period of time.

Question 8.
Define the term ‘positive growth of population’. All India 2011
Answer:
When the birth rate is more than the death rate between the two points of time or when people from other countries migrate permanently to a region is called positive growth of population.

3 Marks Questions

Question 9.
Explain any three push and any two pull factors that influence the migrations of a population in the world. (All India 2016)
OR
How is the mortality rate of a region affected? Explain any four push factors responsible for migration. Delhi 2015
Answer:
Migration is the displacement of people from one place to another. It can be permanent, temporary or seasonal.
The push factors of migration are:

• Unemployment
• Poor living conditions
• Political turmoil
• Unpleasant climate

The pull factors are:

• Better job opportunities.
• Better living conditions.

The mortality rate of a region is affected by the availability of medical and health facilities, sanitation and provision of nutritious food.

Question 10.
Describe any three characteristics of the first stage of ‘Demographic Transition Theory’. Delhi 2014
Answer:
Characteristics of the first stage of Demographic Transition Theory are as follows:

• The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply.
• Most of the people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset.
• The population growth is slow.

Question 11.
Describe any three characteristics of the last stage of ‘Demographic Transition Theory’. All Indio 2014
Answer:
Characteristics of the last stage of Demographic Transition Theory are as follows:

• In this stage both fertility and mortality decline.
• The population is either stable or grows slowly.
• The population becomes urbanised, literate and has the high technical know-how.

Question 12.
Explain with example any three geographical factors which influence the distribution of the population in the world. Delhi 2008
Answer:
The three geographical factors which influence the distribution of the population in the world are as follows:
Availability of Water It is an essential component for life. The region with fresh water is the most preferred place to live in. That’s why places near river valleys are densely populated.

Landforms The region with fertile plain is most populated as compared to mountainous and hilly areas because these hinder the agricultural and industrial development.

Climate It plays a very important role in population concentration. This is because area having a moderate climate with moderate rainfall have more population whereas area with heavy rainfall and harsh climate have low population.

5 Marks Questions

Question 13.
“90 per cent of the world population lives in about 10 per cent of its total land area, whereas the remaining 10 per cent population resides in the 90 per cent of its land area”. Support the statement with suitable examples. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
It is true that 90 per cent of the world population lives in about 10 per cent of its total land area, whereas remaining 10 per cent population resides in the 90 per cent of its land area. The factor which affects the distribution of the population in the world are:

Cultural Factors Traditions and culture of a place includes the distribution of a population. People like to migrate in areas where common tradition and culture are found.
Physical Factors Relief, climate, soil and mineral are the physical factors which determine the population of any place. Tibet is the region of very less population, whereas Indo-Gangetic plain is overpopulated.

Means of Transport Regions with better facilities of means of transport lead to a better economic condition. This lead to a thick population. Mumbai-Pune Industrial region is the best example.

Economic Condition Industrial and agricultural regions of the world are thickly populated. Industrial region of India, USA, Japan, UK are the examples.

Question 14.
What is the meaning of density of population? Examine the four geographical factors that influence the distribution of the population in the world with suitable examples. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Population density refers to a ratio between the total population and the total land area in a country. A density of population is an important measure to analyse population distribution. Geographical factors that influence the distribution of the population in the world are:

Relief Features Relief is the most important physical factor influencing the distribution of a population. High mountains, rugged terrain and some of the plateaus restrict human settlements.

Plains River valley has fertile soil. The plain area provides a better living condition. The nature of surface permits a wider scope for agriculture industries, transport and urbanisation.

Climate It has a direct influence on human beings. Man refers to live in normal conditions of temperature and rainfall. Excessive heat, cold, dryness or wetness restrict the human population. Apart from human health, climate affects agriculture also. Asia, North-West Europe and North America are areas of dense population.

Soil It is an important factor for the survival of humanity. Fertile soil supports agriculture. High degree of population concentration in South-East Asia is primarily due to fertile soil. Most of the world’s fertile soil is found in the river valley of Ganga, Indus, Huang Ho, Mississipi, etc.

Question 15.
What is ‘demographic cycle’? Describe three stages of Demographic Transition Theory? Delhi 2016
Answer:
The demographic cycle represents the changes in the population of a region as it moves from high births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as that region/society progress from rural, agrarian and illiterate to an urban, industrial and literate society.

These changes occur in three stages that are collectively called Demographic Transition Theory.
The three stages are as follows:

The First Stage This stage is marked by high fertility and high mortality. The death rate is also high due to epidemics and variable food supply. Therefore, the population growth is slow and life expectancy is low. People are mostly illiterate and engaged in agriculture due to which large families are preferred. Level of technology is also low.

Second Stage In this stage, the expansion of population remains high because the death rate reduces due to the improvement in sanitation and health conditions but the fertility rate remains high. Though at the later stage it declines with time. The mortality rate also decreases. The net addition to a population in this stage is high.

Third Stage In the last stage, both fertility and mortality declines considerably and population either stablises or grows slowly. The family size is deliberately controlled as the population becomes urbanised and literate. There is a high level of technical know-how in this stage. High technical knowledge contributes deliberately in controlling the family size.

Question 16.
When does positive population growth takes place? Explain the geographical factors that influence the distribution of the population in the world. (HOTS: Delhi 2015)
Answer:
When the birth rate is more than the death rate between the two points of time or when people from other countries migrate permanently to a region is called positive growth of population.
For geographical factors,

The three geographical factors which influence the distribution of the population in the world are as follows:
Availability of Water It is an essential component for life. The region with fresh water is the most preferred place to live in. That’s why places near river valleys are densely populated.

Landforms The region with fertile plain is most populated as compared to mountainous and hilly areas because these hinder the agricultural and industrial development.

Climate It plays a very important role in population concentration. This is because area having a moderate climate with moderate rainfall have more population whereas area with heavy rainfall and harsh climate have low population.

Question 17.
Explain the trends in population growth of the world with special reference to the help of science and technology. HOTS; All India 2015
Answer:
The trends in population growth shows that from the sixteenth and seventeenth century there had been a considerable rise in population. World population exploded in the eighteenth century after the advancement of science and technology brought changes like the industrial revolution, better means of transportation and improvement in agriculture. Advancement in science and technology reduced the death rate as the spread of epidemics could be controlled and diseases could be cured.

Therefore, within a span of every 12 years, one billion population is added to the existing number. Improvement in science and technology also helped in lowering the birth rate as many birth control measures are developed but the reduction in birth rate is less than death rate and therefore, there is a sharp rise in the world population.

Question 18.
Explain three economic and two social and cultural factors influencing the distribution of the population in the world. All India 2015
OR
Explain with examples of the three economic factors influencing the population distribution in the world. (All Indio 2011, Delhi 2008)
Answer:
The three economic factors influencing the distribution of population are as follows:

Minerals Areas with mineral deposits attract not only industries, but also skilled and semi-skilled workers as they generate huge employment.

Urbanisation Urban centres offer better employment opportunities, education and medical facilities, better means of communication which attract people.

Industrialisation Industrial belts provide job opportunities which attract not only factory workers, but also transport operators, shopkeepers, bank employees, doctors, teachers and other service providers.

Two social and cultural factors influencing the distribution of population are as follows:
Religious and cultural significance Places having religious importance and cultural significance tend to attract the number of people due to which they are densely populated.

Social and political unrest Places where there is political turmoil and social unrest are not fit for living and people to tend to move away from those areas. This makes it sparsely populated.

Question 19.
Explain the three components of population change in the world. Analyse the impacts of population change. Delhi 2014
Answer:
The three components of population change in the world are:
1. Crude Birth Rate It is referred to as a number of live births in a year per thousand of the population. It increases the population.
2. Crude Death Rate It is referred to as a number of deaths in a particular year per thousand of the population in a particular region. It decreases the population.
3. Migration It is a displacement of people from a place of origin to place of destination. In-migration increases the population. Out-migration decreases the population.

Impacts of population change are as follows:
1. If the population change results in high population growth then it puts pressure on the resources leading to scarcity and other problems.
2. Population change resulting in the decline of the population shows that the available resources are not sufficient to maintain the population.

Question 20.
Describe in brief the different trends of population growth in the world from an early period to the present day. (HOTS; Delhi 2009)
Answer:
The trends of population growth are as follows:

• In the early periods of history i.e. 8000 to 12000 years ago the populations grows at a slow rate.
  The population of the era was 8 million.
• The count of the population in the first century was below 300 million.
• By 1600 AD world population increased to 0.5 billion as expansion in trade and industrial revolution increased settlements.
• World population touched 1 billion in 1830 due to advancement in the field of science and technology.
• In the next 100 years i.e. 1930, the population doubled to 2 billion due to improved medical, health and sanitation facilities.
• In 1960, the population was 3 billion, in 1975, it was 4 billion after that one billion is added in every 12 years.
• There is a great variation among regions in doubling their population.

Map Based Questions

Question 21.
On the political outline map of the world identify:
A. The country with the lowest density of population in Asia. Delhi 2016
B. Name the country with the smallest population of Asia. Delhi 2016
C. The country with the highest growth rate of population in Asia. All India 2014
D. The country with the lowest growth rate of population (1995-2000) in Asia. Delhi 2014

Question 22.
On the political map of the world identify:
A. Country having the highest density of population in Asia. Delhi 2013
B. Country having the largest population in Europe, ail India 2010
C. Country having the lowest density of population in Africa. All India 2009
D. Country having the lowest population growth in Africa. Delhi 2009
Answer:

Value Based Questions

Question 23.
When people move from one place to another, the place they move from is called the Place of Origin and the place they move to is called the Place of Destination. The place of origin shows a decrease in population while the population increases in the place of destination. Migration may be interpreted as a spontaneous effort to achieve a better balance between population and resources.
(i) What is the cause of population change?
(ii) Lack of which value lead to migration.
Answer:
(i) Migration is the cause of population change.
(ii) Lack of following values lead to migration:

• Self-respect and unity
• Dedication
• Dignity

Question 24.
Family planning is the spacing or preventing the birth of children. Access to family planning services is a significant factor in limiting population growth and improving women’s health. Propaganda, free availability of contraceptives and tax disincentives for large families are some of the measures which can help population control.
(i) What is a significant factor in limiting population growth?
(ii) Which value leads to family planning?
Answer:
(i) Access to family planning services is a significant factor in limiting population growth.
(ii) Self respect, dignity and preservation of women pride are values which leads to family planning.

We hope the Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 2 The World Population (Distribution, Density and Growth) help you. If you have any query regarding Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 2 The World Population (Distribution, Density and Growth), drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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English Workbook Class 10 Solutions Unit 5 Relatives are part of English Workbook Class 10 Solutions. Here we have given CBSE Class 10 English Workbook Solutions Unit 5 Relatives.

CBSE Class 10 English Workbook Solutions Unit 5 Relatives

A.1.
Match the items in A with their definitions.

Answers:

1. — (c)
2. — (d)
3. — (a)
4. — (b)
5. — (i)
6. — (g)
7. — (f)
8. — (e)
9. — (h)

Now underline the relative (called a relative pronoun) in the sentences above.
The first one has been done for you.
Answer:

1. who
2. which
3. which
4. where
5. whose
6. which
7. which
8. which
9. for viewing is the same as which views

A.2.
Quiz
Working in pairs, make six questions like the ones given below :

1. What is the name of the tree which ……………. ?
2. What is the name of the island where ……………. ?
3. What is the name of the person who ……………. ?
4. What is the name of the play which ……………. ?
5. What is the name of the stadium where ……………. ?
6. What is the name of the product which ……………. ?

Now each pair will ask three of their questions to the rest of the class

Answer:
Meant for activity at class level. The questions to be formed and answered are like those given below :

Question. 1.
What is the name of the animal which is found mainly in Australia ?
Answer:
Kangaroo.

Question. 2.
What is the name of the country where Taj Mahal is situated ?
Answer:
India.

Question. 3.
What is the name of the person who tells something about present, past and future ?
Answer:
Astrologer.

Question. 4.
What is the name of the film which narrates the story of sinking ship ?
Answer:
Titanic.

Q. 5.
What is the name of the person who gathers news and covers functions or events for a newspaper or a magazine ?
Answer:
Reporter.

Q. 6.
What is the name of the product which is easily available in every country ?
Answer:
PEPSI/BATA.

A.3.
Read the following questions silently and then
(а) underline the relative ;
(b) circle the word or phrase which the relative refers to ;
(c) in pairs, discuss why you think there are commas in four of these sentences.
Answer:

Sentences two, three, five and six have commas because
the words of phrases (called clauses) put in commas give extra information. If the clause is removed it will not affect the essential nature of the sentences. Such clauses are called Non-defining Clauses.

A.4.
Use who*, whose, where, or which to complete each sentence below.

1. That well built boy ________ I met at the sports meet is a famous hockey player.
2. Aditya, ________ mother got an award for the best teacher, is my nephew.
3. The great Eengal tiger, ________ is found in India, is rapidly becoming a threatened species.
4. Kailash Mansarovar, a holy place in Tibet and ________ many Indian pilgrims go in May, is very difficult to get to.
5. Teachers ________ have taught Amav say that he is an exceptionally creative student.
6. Interviewers tend to prefer candidates ________ have well rounded personalities.

Answers:

1. whom
2. whose
3. which
4. where
5. who
6. who.

In modern English (spoken as well as written), who and whom mean the same. Whom is not often used now in international English.

A.5.
Read the following sentences and punctuate them, using commas where necessary.

1. Tushar who is my best friend is studying in Cornell University, USA.
2. Konark where we are going for our next excursion is famous for its sun temple.
3. Mr Misra who was in the US has started his own business in New Delhi.
4. Yesterday I met Saina Nehwal who is a famous badminton player.
5. Popeye likes to eat lots of spinach which contains iron.

Answer:

1. Tushar, who is my best friend, is studying in Cornell University, USA.
2. Konark, where we are going for our next excursion, is famous for its sun temple.
3. Mr Misra, who was in the US, has started his own business in New Delhi.
4. Yesterday I met Saina Nehwal who is a famous badminton player.
5. Popeye likes to eat lots of spinach which contains iron.

A.6.
Fun with definitions
Working in pairs, choose three of the following words and write your own humorous and unusual definitions for them. Two examples have already been done for you.
dentist, hotel, alarm, clock, moped, mirror, classroom, astrologer, mobile phone.

1. A mirror is a device that frightens the daylights out of most people.
2. An alarm clock is an instrument that wakes you up early so that you can go to sleep again.

Answer:

1. A dentist is a person who extracts your teeth and your money.
2. A hotel is a place which gives you food and rest but takes your purse.
3. A moped is a vehicle that rides you around free.
4. A classroom is a place where a student tastes some punishment.
5. An astrologer is a person who makes your past, present and future dance before you.
6. A mobile phone is a device that makes you talk to even unwanted persons.

A.7.
Read the following sentences. There are errors in some of them. Underline the error and write the word in the space provided. Put a ✓ if there is no error.
Answers:

1. The bus who goes to the station is a low-floor bus. – which
2. The man which was here a little while ago is a minister. – who
3. That’s the house where the poet was born. – ✓
4. The bird whose lays the biggest egg is the ostrich. – which
5. Karn, where home is in Gurgaon, is studying in Manipal. – whose

A.8.
The pen drive which I borrowed from my friend was lost

In this kind of sentence, that can replace which, especially in spoken English. ‘That’ is easier to say than ‘which’.
Rewrite the following sentences substituting that for which. Then say each one aloud to your partner.

1. That was a very fine car which your friend bought last month, wasn’t it ?
2. All the members of my family prefer cakes which are made without egg.
3. The team which wins the quiz competition will be going to Ooty.
4. Neither Govind nor I like stories which are full of violent incidents.

Answers:

1. That was a very fine car that your friend bought last month, wasn’t it ?
2. All the members of my family prefer cakes that are made without egg.
3. The team that wins the quiz competition will be going to Ooty.
4. Neither Govind nor I like stories that are full of violent incidents.

B. Reduced relatives

In many cases, relatives (including that as a substitute) can be omitted in order to economize with words. This is a matter of style. When you are reading or listening to English, notice when this happens.

B.1.
Read the following sentences aloud to your partner without the relative as shown in the example.

1. I found the book which I wanted to read.
2. The boy who I met at the hotel is a wonderful magician.
3. This is the best movie that I’ve ever seen.
4. The girl who is talking to Mr. Mallya is the pilot.
5. Silk sarees which are made in Banaras are popular all over the world.

Answers:

Students to read as given below :

1. I found the book I wanted to read.
2. The boy I met at the hotel is a wonderful magician.
3. This is the best movie I’ve ever seen.
4. The girl talking to Mr Molly a is the pilot.
5. Silk sarees made in Banaras are popular all over the world.

B.2.
The following newspaper article about Patliputra contains some errors. Correct the article (In some places relatives need to be added; in other places, reduced relatives can be used).

Patlinutra

The fourth century BC city is believed to have existed ________
between 320 BC and AD 550 was ruled by the Mauryan and later the Gupta dynasties.
Magasthenes spent many years as an ambassador to ________
Patliputra wrote a book who is titled ‘Indika’. The city, ________
who was encircled by a deep moat, had a fortified wall. ________
Ashoka, adopted Buddhism, provided ________
inns, hospitals and veterinary centres whom ________
helped the common people ________
This was which the first Buddhist monuments came to be built. ________
Answer:
The fourth century BC city / is believed to have existed – which
between 320 BC and AD 550 was ruled by the Mauryan and later the Gupta dynasties.
Magasthenes / spent many years as an ambassador to – who
Pataliputra wrote a book who titled ‘Indika’. The city, – which
who was encircled by a deep moat, had a fortified wall. – which
Ashoka, / adopted Buddhism, provided – who
inns, hospitals and veterinary centres whom – which
helped the common people
This was which the first Buddhist monuments came to be built. – how

B.3.
Salsette Island
You have been asked to write an encyclopaedia entry about Salsette Island. Study the following notes. The information is jumbled up. Put the notes in logical order and then link them together using appropriate relatives (or reduced forms), articles, verbs etc. Do not make your sentences too long.

Answer:
Salsette island is a large island in Maharashtra state. It is 14th most populous island in the world which lies in India’s west coast.

There are several small islands. Thane district lies in the south part. Its north part is Mumbai city. Borivali national park in this island is the biggest city national park in the world.

There are many beaches here. The place is earthquake prone and hilly whose highest point is 450 metres.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Chapter 9 Not Marble, nor the Gilded Monuments are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Reader. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Reader Chapter 9 Not Marble, nor the Gilded Monuments.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Reader Chapter 9 Not Marble, nor the Gilded Monuments

TextBook Questions

Question 1.
Look at the following picture carefully.

(a) What has Time been portrayed as? Why?
(b) What are the other symbols associated with Time?
Answer:
(a) Time has been portrayed as a mysterious man wearing a loose cloak with a scythe in one hand and an hour-glass in other. Time is shown to have been fleeting fast. Time is the greatest conqueror.
(b) Tides, bubble of water, wind, sand, money, etc.

Question 2.
(a) What are the things that last for centuries ? List a few things around you that will survive four to five hundred years into the future.

Answer:

(b) Think of things that will perish and/or be forgotten with the passage of time.

Answer:

Question 3.
On the basis of your understanding of Shakespeare’s sonnet, answer the following questions by ticking the correct options.
(a) The rich and powerful got ornate monuments made in order to _____
(i) show off their wealth
(ii) display their power
(iii) show their artistic talent
(iv) be remembered till posterity.
Answer:
(iv) be remembered till posterity.

(b) The poet addresses his sonnet to _____
(i) time
(ii) war
(iii) the person he loves
(iv) powerful rulers.
Answer:
(iii) the person he loves

(c) In the line ‘The living record of your memory’, living record refers to _____
(i) the sonnet the poet has written for his friend
(ii) an existing statue of his friend
(iii) his friend who lives in the poet’s memory
(iv) the autobiography of the poet’s friend.
Answer:
(i) the sonnet the poet has written for his friend

(d) The poet’s tone in the poem is _____
(i) despairing
(ii) optimistic
(iii) loving
(iv) admiring,
Answer:
(iv) admiring,

(e) The poem is set in _____
(i) the place where the poet meets his friend
(ii) a battlefield where Mars is fighting a battle
(iii) a city ravaged by war
(iv) the poet’s study where he is writing.
Answer:
(iv) the poet’s study where he is writing.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions briefly.
(a) Why do you think the rich and powerful people get monuments and statues erected in their memory?
Answer:
Rich and powerful believe that by erecting statues and monuments people will remember them even after their death. They do not realise that people will remember them for their deeds and not for huge structures. It is their pride and ego which makes them do all this.

(b) Describe how the monuments and statues brave the ravages of time.
Answer:
Monuments and statues remade of stone and cement which are strong and structures constructed with these can stay for centuries. They can withstand extreme weather conditions such as rain, storm, severe heat, etc.

(c) Why does the poet refer to Time as being sluttish?
Answer:
Time has been referred to as ‘sluttish’ because time waits for no one. It passes by. We have to learn to value time. Time treats everyone in the same way. It does not treat a rich and poor man differently. “Sluttish” can also mean whorish as time cares for no individual; it is immoral and will finally pass. The grand memorials will become eroded, and the people memorialised will eventually be forgotten.

(d) The poet says that neither forces of nature nor wars can destroy his poetry. In fact, even godly powers of Mars will not have a devastating effect on his rhyme. What quality of the poet is revealed through these lines?
Answer:
The poet is an optimistic individual. He has immense confidence in himself as well as in his ability to write poems which will be remembered till eternity. We also see his confidence in these lines- When marble statues topple and stone buildings and other “works of masonry” are destroyed, the poetry will live on.

Question 5.
Shakespeare’s sonnet has been divided into three quatrains of 4 lines each followed by a rhyming couplet. Each quatrain is a unit of meaning. Read the poem carefully and complete the following table on the structure of the poem.

Answer:

Question 6.
(a) The poet uses alliteration to heighten the musical quality of the sonnet. Working in pairs* underline the examples of alliteration in the poem.
(b) Identify Shakespeare’s use of personification in the poem.
Answer:
(a) Examples of alliteration

• When wasteful war shall statues overturn
• Not marble, nor the glided monuments
• But you shall shine more bright in these contents.
• Even in the eyes of all posterity
• That wear this world out to the ending doom.

(b) Use of personification

• When wasteful war shall statues
• And broils root out the work of masonry.
• Here war and broils are shown to have powerful hands that are capable of causing destruction.
• Your praise shall still find room.

Praise has been shown as a person taking his place somewhere.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Chapter 9 Not Marble, Nor the Gilded Monuments help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Reader Chapter 9 Not Marble, Nor the Gilded Monuments, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 8 Transport and Communication is part of Geography Class 12 Important Questions. Here we have given Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 8 Transport and Communication.

Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 8 Transport and Communication

1 Mark Questions

Question 1.
Which country of the world has the highest road density? (All indin 2017)
Answer:
Japan has the highest road density in the world.

Question 2.
Why is west Asia the least developed in rail facilities? Explain one reason, (AH India 2017)
Answer:
West Asia is the least developed in rail facilities because of vast deserts and sparsely populated regions.

Question 3.
Define the term ‘Transport network’. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Several places (nodes) joined together by a series of routes (links) to form a pattern is called transport network.

Question 4.
In which country are motorways called ‘autobahans’? (AH Indio 2015)
Answer:
Motorways are called autobahns in Germany.

Question 5.
Mention the busiest ocean route of the world. (Delhi 2014)
OR
Which is the busiest sea route in the world? (All Indio 2011)
Answer:
The North Atlantic sea route also called Big Trunk route is the busiest ocean route of the world.

Question 6.
Name the seaports on each end of Suez Canal. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
In the North, it is Port Said in the Mediterranean sea and in the South, it is Port Suez in Red Sea.

Question 7.
Define the term road density. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Road density is defined as the total length of road per 100 sq km.

Question 8.
What is the meaning of cyberspace? (All India 2014)
Answer:
Cyberspace is the world of electronic computerised space. It is also called the Internet. In other words, it is the means to communicate and access information over computer networks.

Question 9.
Name the most important inland waterway of Germany. (AH Indio 2014)
Answer:
The Rhine waterway is the most important inland waterway of Germany. This waterway is the most heavily used at the world level.

Question 10.
Name the terminal stations of ‘Australian trans-continental railway.’ (Delhi 2013, 2009)
Answer:
Perth and Sydney are the terminal stations of ‘Australian trans-continental railway.

Question 11.
Which highway connects North America and South America? (All Indio 2013)
Answer:
The Pan American highway connects the countries of South America, Central America and North America.

Question 12.
Name the navigational canal that serves as a gateway of commerce for both the continents of Asia and Europe. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
The canal that serves as a gateway is the Suez Canal.

Question 13.
Give the significance of river St Lawrence as an inland waterway. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
A unique commercial waterway is formed by the estuary of St Lawrence River and the Great Lakes in the Northern part of North America. The ports on this route are equipped with all facilities of ocean ports. In this way, the inland waterway has become an important commercial waterway.

Question 14.
Name the terminal stations of the orient express railway. (All India 2011)
Answer:
Paris and Istanbul are the two terminal stations of the orient express railway.

Question 15.
Name the terminal stations of Australian Trans-continental railway. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
The terminal stations of Australian Trans-continental railway are Sydney and Perth.

Question 16.
Name the terminal stations of longest railway route in the world. (All Indio 2009)
Answer:
The longest railway in the world is Trans-Siberian railway and its terminal stations are Vladivostok and St Petersburg.

Question 17.
Which is the famous petroleum pipeline’ of USA? (All India 2000)
Answer:
The famous petroleum pipeline of USA is called Big Inch.

3 Marks Questions

Question 18.
Describe any three advantages of water transport in the world. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Advantages of water transport/oceanic routes are as follows:

1. (i) There is no need to construct ocean routes so that the cost is saved.
2. (if) Because of the less friction of water as compared to land, it is a much cheaper mode of transport.
3. Compared to land and ait ocean transport is a cheaper means for carrying of bulky materials over long distances.

Question 19.
Explain any three points of the economic significance of ‘Trans- Siberian railway’. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
The Trans-Siberian railway runs from St Petersburg in the West to Vladivostok on the Pacific coast in the East. It is Asia’s most important route. Economic significance of Trans-Siberian railway is as follows:

1. It links the Asian region with the West European markets.
2. It runs across the Ural mountains where Chita is an agro centre and Irkutsk is a fur centre.
3. It has several other connecting links to . the South with other important cities of Asia.

Question 20.
What is cyberspace? Describe any two advantages of the Internet. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Cyberspace is the world of electronic digital space. In other words, it is a digital world used as a means to communicate or access information over computer networks.
Advantages of the Internet are as follows:

• The Internet has widened the economic and social space of humans through e-mail, e-commerce, e-learning and e-governance.
• Internet as a modern communication system has made the concept of the global village a reality.

Question 21.
Why is the Rhine the world’s most heavily used waterway? Explain any three reasons. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
The Rhine is the world’s most heavily used waterway due to following reasons:

• It is the world’s heavily used waterway with more than 20,000 ocean-going ships and 200,000 inland vessels exchange their cargo in this route.
• Huge tonnage moves along this stretch of the waterway.
• The river Rhine is navigable for 700 km from Rotterdam in the Netherlands to Basel in Switzerland.

Question 22.
Mention the famous oil pipeline in the USA. How are pipelines one of the most convenient modes of transport? (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
There is a dense network of oil pipelines in the USA which run from the producing areas to consuming areas. One such famous pipeline called Big Inch carries petroleum from the oil wells of the Gulf of Mexico to the North-Eastern states.

Pipelines are one of the most convenient modes of transport as they are used extensively to transport liquids and gases such as water, petroleum, oil and natural gas. They can carry liquid and gaseous materials for a long distance without any interruption or delays. The pipelines directly link the producing areas to the consuming areas. So they are one of the most convenient modes of transport.

5 Marks Questions

Question 23.
Classify means of communication on the basis of scale and quality into two categories. Explain any two characteristics of each category. (HOTS; All Indio 2017)
Answer:
Communication services involve the transmission of words and messages, facts and ideas.
It means the conveyance of information from the place of origin to the place of destination through a channel. On the basis of scale and quality communication services can be divided into the following types:

Personal Communication Personal means of communication convey information between two people only. For example, postal services, telephone, telegraph and fax services, internet, etc. Its major characteristics are:

• It conveys information between two people only.
• It is a very fast and efficient way of communication.

Mass Communication Radio and television help to relay news, pictures and information to vast audiences around the world and hence, they are termed as mass media. Its major characteristics are:

• It conveys information to large audiences.
• They are vital for advertising and entertainment.

Question 24.
‘The Suez and the Panama Canal are two vital man-made navigation canals which serve as the gateways of commerce for both the Eastern and Western worlds.’ In light of this statement, explain the economic significance of these two canals. (HOTS; Delhi 2016)
OR
Name the vital man-made shipping canal linking the Mediterranean sea and the Red Sea. Write any four characteristics of this canal. (All Indio 2010)
Answer:
The Suez and the Panama Canal are the two vital man-made navigation canals. Suez Canal links the Mediterranean sea and the Red Sea. It was constructed in 1869. It is the vital man-made shipping canal which acts as a linkage between the Eastern and Western world. For characteristics of Suez Canal,

Following are the main characteristics of the Suez Canal:

• Suez canal links Port Said in the North and Port Suez in the South connecting the Mediterranean sea and Red sea.
• It reduced the sea route distance between Liverpool and Colombo as compared to the Cape of Good Hope route.
• It opens a new route to the Indian Ocean for the Europeans
• It has no locks.
• It is 160 km long.
• The depth of the Suez Canal is 10 t < n deep.

Panama canal connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific. It is an artificial 48-mile waterway. Following are the main Characteristics of the Panama Canal:

• Panama canal links Colon on the Atlantic Ocean to Panama in the Pacific ocean.
• It shortens the distance between New York and San Francisco by 13,000 km by sea. The distance between Western Europe and the West coast of the USA is also shortened.
• This canal is about 72 km long and involves a deep cutting for a length of 12 km.
• It has six lock systems and ships cross the different level through these lock systems.

Both the canals are economically significant as they have cut down the sea route by many thousand kilometres. The ships can now reach faster and hence more trade is possible. Though, the economic significance of the Panama canal is less than the Suez canal.

Question 25.
‘Trans- Canadian railway line is considered as the economic artery of Canada.’ Support the statement with suitable examples, (HOTS; AII India 2016)
Answer:
The Trans-Canadian railway line is considered the economic artery of Canada due to the following reasons:

• This railway line covers a distance of 7,050 km running from Halifax in the East to Vancouver on the Pacific coast.
• It connects important cities of Montreal, Ottawa, Winnipeg and Calgary.
• It connects the Quebec-Montreal industrial region with the wheat belt of the Prairie region, thus gaining economic significance.
• This line also connects the coniferous forest region in the North to Quebec-Montreal and the Prairies. All these regions have become complementary to each other.
• A loop line from Winnipeg to Thunder Bay (Lake Superior) connects this rail line with one of the important waterways in the world.

Question 26.
“The Rhine waterways is the world’s most heavily used island waterway”. “In the light of this statement, examine the significance of the waterway. (HOTS; All Indio 2016)
Answer:
Rhine waterways are significant in the following ways:

• It is the world’s heavily used waterway with more than 20,000 ocean-going ships and 200,0 inland vessels exchange their cargo in this route.
• Huge tonnage moves along this stretch of the waterway.
• The river Rhine is navigable for 700 km from Rotterdam in the Netherlands to Basel in Switzerland.
• It flows through a rich coalfield which has made the whole region prosperous manufacturing area.
• The waterway links the industrial areas of Germany, France, Switzerland, Belgium, the Netherlands with North Atlantic sea routes.

Question 27.
Explain the importance of ‘communication services’ in the world. (All India 2016)
Answer:
The importance of communication services in the world is a follows:

• Communication connects the people living in different parts of the world, due to which trade is possible.
• Communication through Optic Fibre Cables allows large quantities of data to be transmitted rapidly, securely and are virtually error-free.
• Communication through satellites has connected around 1000 million people in more than 100 countries.
• Cyberspace or the Internet is the latest technology for accessing information over computer networks.
• New technologies have connected people and it is very easy to send or receive messages, information. This has made the concept of the global village a reality.

Question 28.
Which means of transport is extensively used for carrying water, petroleum, natural gas and other liquids? Describe the network of this means of transport in the world. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
The means of transport used extensively for carrying water, petroleum, natural gas and other liquids is pipeline transport. There is a dense network of pipelines in the USA which runs from the producing areas to the consuming areas. One such famous pipeline is Big Inch.

Pipelines are used extensively to connect oil wells to pots and the refineries or domestic markets. The longest proposed international oil and natural gas pipeline’ will pass through Iran, India and Pakistan.

In New Zealand, milk is being supplied through pipelines from farms to factories. In Europe, Russia and West Asia, oil wells are linked to refineries through pipelines. Turkmenistan in Central Asia has extended pipelines to Iran and also to parts of India.

Question 29.
Describe the journey of development of land transport from the days of humans as carriers and the cableways of today, (HOTS; Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Land transport refers to the movement of goods and services that takes place overland by way of road or rails.

In earlier days, humans themselves were carriers. People were carried on palanquin (palki/doli). Later animals were used as beasts of burden as on mules, horses and camels. With the invention of the wheel, carts and wagons were made that facilitated land transport.

The revolution in transport came about only after the invention of the steam engine. The first railway line was started in 1825 in Northern England and railways became the most popular and fastest mode of transportation.

The invention of the internal combustion engine revolutionised road transport in terms of road quality and vehicles playing over them. Among the newer development inland transportation are pipelines, ropeways and cableways.

Question 30.
Name the longest Trans-Continental railway in the world. Describe its any four features. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
The longest Trans-Continental railway of the world is Trans-Siberian railway.
Four features of Trans-Siberian railways are as follows:

• The Trans-Siberian railways run form St Petersburg in the West to Vladivostok on the Pacific coast in the East. It is Asia’s most important route.
• It links the Asian region with the West European market.
• It runs across the Ural mountains where Chita is an agro centre and Irkutsk, a fur centre.
• There are several connecting links to the South.

Question 31.
Which shipping canal links the Atlantic ocean and the Pacific ocean? Explain its any four characteristics. (All Indio 2015)
Answer:
The canal that links the Atlantic and Pacific ocean is the Panama Canal. For the characteristics of the Panama Canal

The Suez and the Panama Canal are the two vital man-made navigation canals. Suez Canal links the Mediterranean sea and the Red Sea. It was constructed in 1869. It is the vital man-made shipping canal which acts as a linkage between the Eastern and Western world. For characteristics of Suez Canal,

Following are the main characteristics of the Suez Canal:

• Suez canal links Port Said in the North and Port Suez in the South connecting the Mediterranean sea and Red sea.
• It reduced the sea route distance between Liverpool and Colombo as compared to the Cape of Good Hope route.
• It opens a new route to the Indian Ocean for the Europeans
• It has no locks.
• It is 160 km long.
• The depth of the Suez Canal is 10 t < n deep.

Panama canal connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific. It is an artificial 48-mile waterway. Following are the main Characteristics of the Panama Canal:

• Panama canal links Colon on the Atlantic ocean to Panama in the Pacific ocean.
• It shortens the distance between New York and San Francisco by 13,000 km by sea. The distance between Western Europe and the West coast of the USA is also shortened.
• This canal is about 72 km long and involves a deep cutting for a length of 12 km.
• It has six lock systems and ships cross the different level through these lock systems.

Both the canals are economically significant as they have cut down the sea route by many thousand kilometres. The ships can now reach faster and hence more trade is possible. Though, the economic significance of the Panama canal is less than the Suez canal.

Question 32.
What is the importance of railways as a mode of land transport? Explain any four main features of the railway network in Europe. (All India 2015)
OR
Explain any five characteristics of rail transport in Europe. (All Indio 2012 )
Answer:
Railways cover long distances and they are ideal for the transportation of bulky goods. A large number of people also travel by railways. They also form the connecting link between the ocean vessels, barges, boats, motor trucks and pipelines.

Following are the characteristics of rail transport in Europe:

• Most of the railways in Europe is double or multiple tracked.
• The total length of railway line in Europe is 440,0 km.
• Belgium has the highest railway density of 1 km of a railway for every 6.5 sq km area.
• In many countries of Europe, passenger transport is more important than freight.
• After the development of a more flexible system of roadways and airways. The trans-continental railway line has become less important.

Question 33.
Which is the longest trans-continental railway in North America? Describe its any four features. (AH India 2015)
Answer:
The longest trans-continental railway of North America is Trans-Canadian railway.
For the features of Trans-Canadian railway,

The Trans-Canadian railway line is considered the economic artery of Canada due to the following reasons:

• This railway line covers a distance of 7,050 km running from Halifax in the East to Vancouver on the Pacific coast.
• It connects important cities of Montreal, Ottawa, Winnipeg and Calgary.
• It connects the Quebec-Montreal industrial region with the wheat belt of the Prairie region, thus gaining economic significance.
• This line also connects the coniferous forest region in the North to Quebec-Montreal and the Prairies. All these regions have become complementary to each other.
• A loop line from Winnipeg to Thunder Bay (Lake Superior) connects this rail line with one of the important waterways in the world.

Question 34.
State any three characteristics of water transport. Why is traffic far less on the Cape of Good Hope route? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Three characteristics of water transport are as follows:

1. Water transportation does not require route construction. The oceans are linked with each other and offer smooth routes travelable in all directions with fewer maintenance costs.
2. It is a cheaper means of transportation because the friction of water is less than that of the land and energy cost is lower.
3. Very heavy cargo like coal, cement, timber and metallic ores can be transported through inland waterways.

The reasons for the less traffic on the Cape of Good Hope route are as follows:

1. There are limited development and population in South America and Africa, so demand is less.
2. Both South America and Africa have similar products and resources.
3. Large scale industries are only present in South-Eastern Brazil and Plata estuary.
4. There is little traffic on the route which links Rio-de Janeiro and Cape Town.

Question 35.
Which continent has the highest road density? Why do traffic congestions occur on road? Explain any three measures to solve the problem of traffic congestion. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
North America has the highest road density. About 33% of the world’s total motorable road length is present in North America. North America also accounts for the highest number of vehicles as compared to Europe.

There is a problem of chronic traffic congestion in most of the cities of the world. The congestion occurs because of the failure of the road networks in meeting the demands of traffic. In recent years, the traffic on roads has substantially increased. We can see peaks and troughs of traffic flow on roads at different times of the day.

The measures to solve the problem of traffic congestion are as follows:

1. The parking fee should be high.
2. Mass Rapid Transit (MRT) system should be developed.
3. The public bus services should be improved.
4. Expressways should be developed to facilitate smooth traffic flow.

Question 36.
Explain the merits and demerits of road transport in the world. (All Indio 2012)
Answer:
Merits of road transport are:

• It is the most economical mode for short distances as compared to railways.
• It offers door-to-door services.
• It is best suited for the transportation of perishable and breakable goods.
• Construction of the road is comparatively cheaper and easy.
• In road transport, it is very easy to monitor vehicles and goods.

Following are the demerits of road transport:

• Road transport is not sustainable in all seasons.
• Unmetalled roads become unmotorable during the rainy season. Metalled ones are also damaged by floods.
• Road construction is very difficult in mountainous or desert areas.
• The maintenance of roads requires heavy expenditure.
• Goods are susceptible to damage through careless driving.
• Transport is subject to traffic delay in the case of road transport.

Question 37.
Explain the significance of each of the transport and communication services available in the world. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Significance of various transport services are as follows:
Road Transport It is a cheaper and faster mode of transport over short distances and for door-to-door services.

Railways It is best suited for bulky goods and passengers for long distances.

Water Transport It is the cheapest mode of transport because of less friction of water. Ocean routes are cheaper for carrying of bulky material from one continent to another.

Air Transport is the fastest means of transportation. It is best suited for long distance travel and worldwide transportation of valuable cargo.

Pipelines It is used to carry liquids and gases from the producing areas to the consuming areas.
Significance of various communication services are as follows:

Satellite Communication In contemporary time, satellites communication has become very important with the Internet as the largest electronic network on the planet connecting about 1000 million people in more than 100 countries.

Cyber Space-Internet This electronic network has spread unprecedently the number of users from 400 million in AD 2000 to over two billion in 2010. It has brought people from different parts of the world closer to each other.

Question 38.
Name the principal mode of transportation in the world which is used for carrying liquid and gaseous materials only. Mention any four characteristics of this mode of transportation. (Delhi Board 2010)
Answer:
The principal mode used for carrying liquid and gaseous material is pipeline transport.
For the characteristics of a pipeline,

The means of transport used extensively for carrying water, petroleum, natural gas and other liquids is pipeline transport. There is a dense network of pipelines in the USA which runs from the producing areas to the consuming areas. One such famous pipeline is Big Inch.

Pipelines are used extensively to connect oil wells to pots and the refineries or domestic markets. The longest proposed international oil and natural gas pipeline’ will pass through Iran, India and Pakistan.

In New Zealand, milk is being supplied through pipelines from farms to factories. In Europe, Russia and West Asia, oil wells are linked to refineries through pipelines. Turkmenistan in Central Asia has extended pipelines to Iran and also to parts of India.

Question 39.
What is the significance of inland waterways? Explain the three factors responsible for the development of inland waterways in the world. (All India 2010)
Answer:
Inland waterways consist of rivers, lakes, canals and streams linking the coastal areas. They have been used as waterways from time immemorial. Inland waterways are important for domestic and international transport and trade. Many rivers are modified to make inland waterways possible in different developed countries. The significance of inland waterways has been rising.

The three factors responsible for the development of inland waterways in the world are:
Navigability This means the width and depth of the channel that makes navigation possible.
Water Flow Another factor is the continuous flow of water throughout the year so that ships, boats can easily move in the waterways.
Transport Technology Development of proper technology so that very heavy cargo like coal, timber, metallic ores can also be easily transported through inland waterways.

Question 40.
What are the highways? Explain the significance of highways with examples from different continents, (AH Indio 2009)
Answer:
Highways are metalled roads constructed for uninterrupted vehicular movement. Highways link even city and port town in developed countries. The significance of highways can be explained through the following examples:

North America Highways link the cities located on the Pacific coast with those of the Atlantic coast. Highway density is very high in North America, about 0.65 km per sq km. The Pan-American Highway connects the countries of, South America, Central America and USA.
Europe In Europe, there is a well-developed network of highways, but faces competition from railways and waterways.
Russia In Russia, important industrial regions are linked through highways. The Moscow-Vladivostok highway serves the region and it is one of the important highways of Russia.
China All the major cities in China are linked through the highways.
India In India, highways are connecting the major towns and cities. NH7 is the longest in the country which connects Varanasi and Kanyakumari.
Africa In Africa, Algiers in the North is connected to Conakry in Guinea and Cairo is connected to Capetown through highways.

Question 41.
What is the importance of roads? Explain any three reasons for the existence of good quality roads in the developed countries. (All Indio 2009)
Answer:
Roads are an integral part of the transport system of a country. They play a significant role in achieving national development and contributing to the overall performance and social functioning of the community.

Freight transport by road is gaining importance because it offers door-to-door service. Road plays a very important role in the socio-economic development of the country and becomes the backbone of strong economies and dynamic societies.

Therefore, it is legitimate and indispensable to safeguard industry and plays a crucial role in everyone’s life by meeting the demand for the sustainable mobility of both people and goods.

The reasons for the existence of good quality roads in the developed countries are as follows:

1. Road construction and its maintenance require heavy expenditure. The developed countries have resources to meet this kind of expenditure.
2. Developed countries need good quality roads due to their constant requirement of linking long-distance transportation in the form of motorways, autobahns, interstate highways, etc.
3. There is greater intensity and need for speedy movement of vehicular traffic.

Question 42.
Write any six characteristics of the Suez Canal. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
Following are the main characteristics of the Suez Canal:

• Suez canal links Port Said in the North and Port Suez in the South connecting the Mediterranean sea and Red sea.
• It reduced the sea route distance between Liverpool and Colombo as compared to the Cape of Good Hope route.
• It opens a new route to the Indian Ocean for the Europeans
• It has no locks.
• It is 160 km long.
• The depth of the Suez the Canal is 10 t < n deep.

Question 43.
Mention any six advantages of oceanic routes. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
Advantages of water transport/oceanic routes are as follows:

1. There is no need to construct ocean routes so the cost is saved.
2. Because of the less friction of water as compared to land, it is a much cheaper mode of transport.
3. Compared to land and air, ocean transport is a cheaper means for carrying of bulky materials over long distances.
4. It does not require maintenance.
5. Oceans are linked with each other and the ship and cargo of various sizes can easily traversable in all directions.

Question 44.
Which is the busiest sea route in the world? Describe its four characteristics. (Delhi 2008)
Answer:
The Northern Atlantic sea route or Big Trunk route is the busiest sea route in the world. Four important characteristics of this route are as follows:

1. It connects the two industrially developed regions of the world which are the North-Eastern USA and North-Western Europe.
2. It accounts for one-fourth of the world’s foreign trade.
3. Ports on this route are highly advanced and equipped with modern facilities.
4. This route exhibits highly advanced ports and harbour facilities.

Question 45.
Define the term ‘Trans-Continental railways.’ Write four characteristics each of Trans-Siberian railways and Trans-Canadian railways. (Delhi 2008)
Answer:
Trans-continental railways connect the two ends of a continent while running across it. For the features of Trans-Siberian railway, The longest Trans-Continental railway of the world is Trans-Siberian railway.

Four features of Trans-Siberian railways are as follows:

1. The Trans-Siberian railways run form St Petersburg in the West to Vladivostok on the Pacific coast in the East. It is Asia’s most important route.
2. It links the Asian region with the West European market.
3. It runs across the Ural mountains where Chita is an agro centre and Irkutsk, a fur centre.
4. There are several connecting links to the South.

For the features of Trans-Canadian railways, The Trans-Canadian railway line is considered the economic artery of Canada due to the following reasons:

1. This railway line covers a distance of 7,050 km running from Halifax in the East to Vancouver on the Pacific coast.
2. It connects important cities of Montreal, Ottawa, Winnipeg and Calgary.
3. It connects the Quebec-Montreal industrial region with the wheat belt of the Prairie region, thus gaining economic significance.
4. This line also connects the coniferous forest region in the North to Quebec-Montreal and the Prairies. All these regions have become complementary to each other.
5. A loop line from Winnipeg to Thunder Bay (Lake Superior) connects this rail line with one of the important waterways in the world.

Question 46.
Define the term ‘transport’. Describe any four features of highways of North America. (Delhi 2008)
Answer:
Transport is a service or facility for the carriage of persons and goods from one place to the other using different modes. Four features of highways of North America are as follows:

1. There is a high density of highways in North America.
2. Every place in North America is within a distance of 20 km.
3. Cities located on the Pacific coast (West) are well connected with those of the Atlantic coast (East).
4. Likewise, the cities of Canada in the North are linked with those of Mexico in the South.

Map-Based Questions

Question 47.
Study the map given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Identify and name the canal shown in the map.
(ii) Write any four characteristics of this canal.
Answer:
(i) This map shows the Panama canal.
(ii) Four characteristics of this canal are:

• This connects the Atlantic ocean with the Pacific ocean.
• The canal cuts across the Isthmus of Panama and is a key conduit for international maritime trade.
• It is an artificial 48-mile waterway.
• It reduces the time for ships to travel between the Atlantic and Pacific ocean.

Question 48.
Study the map and answer the questions that follow. (All iIndio2014)

(i) Identify and name the railway line shown on the map.
(ii) Name the continents linked by this rail route.
(iii) Explain how this railway line is helpful for the promotion of trade in this region?
Answer:
(i) Trans-Siberian railway line is shown on the map.
(ii) It connects Asia and Europe.
(iii) This railway line runs across the Ural mountain and connects agro centres like Chita and Irkutsk. It also acts as a linkage between different manufacturing centres.

Question 49.
Study the map and answer the questions that follow. (Delhi 2014)

(i) Name the railway line shown on this map.
(ii) Name the terminal station of this railway along the Atlantic coast.
(iii) Why is this railway line known as the economic artery of the country through which it passes?
OR
(i) Name the Trans-continental railway shown on the map.
(ii) Name the terminal stations of this railway line.
(ii) Mention any two characteristics of this railway line.
Answer:
(i) Trans-Canadian railway line is shown on this map.
(ii) Halifax is the terminal station of this railway along the Atlantic coast.
(iii) It connects the Quebec-Montreal Industrial region with the wheat belt of the Prairie region and the Coniferous forest regions in the North. A loop line from Winnipeg to Thunder Bay connects this line with one of the important waterways. That’s why is it called economic artery of Canada.

OR

(i) It is the Trans-Canadian railway.
(ii) Halifax and Vancouver are the terminal stations of this railway line
(iii) Two characteristics of this railway line are:

• It is 7050 km long rail line in Canada.
• It connects the industrial region to a wheat belt.

Question 50.
Study the given map and answer the questions that follow, ail (India 2011)

(i) Name the railway line shown in the given map.
(ii) Which are the two terminal stations of this railway line?
(iii) Name the ports located on the coast of Spencer Gulf through which this railway line passes, AH India 2009
Answer:
(i) Australian Trans-Continental railway line is shown in the given map.
(ii) Perth and Sydney are two terminal stations of Australian Trans-Continental railway line.
(iii) Port Augusta and Port Pine are two ports located on the coast of the Spencer Gulf through which this railway line passes.

Question 51.
Study the given map and answer the questions that follow. (All India 2009)

(i) Name the inland waterway shown in the given map.
(ii) How has this inland waterway been a boon in the development of the countries through which it passes? Explain.
Answer:
(i) The Rhine waterway is shown in the given map.
(ii) It is a boon in the development of the countries through which it passes because of the following reasons:

• It flows through Germany and the Netherlands.
• It is navigable up to 700 km.
• It flows through a rich coalfield and makes the white basin prosperous manufacturing area.

Question 52.
Study the map and answer the questions that follow. (All India 2008)

(i) Name the shipping canal shown in the map.
(ii) Name the oceans linked by this canal.
(iii) Name the country which has constructed this canal.
(iv) Why is this canal mostly used by the USA?
(v) Why does this canal have a lock system?
Answer:
(i) The canal shown in the map is the Panama Canal.
(ii) The oceans linked by this canal are the Atlantic ocean and the Pacific ocean.
(iii) The United States of America has constructed the Panama canal.
(iv) This canal is constructed by the US Government to shorten the distance between New York and San Francisco which is 12,000 km apart by sea.
(v) The canal is at a higher elevation from sea level and it is made across mountain ranges.

Question 53.
Identify the following on the political map of the world.
(i) A major seaport. (All India 2016)
(ii) An international airport. (All Indio 2016)
(iii) A major seaport. (Delhi 2016,2013,2011,2008)
(iv) An international airport. (Delhi 2016)
(v) A major seaport. (All India 2015)
(vi) A major airport. (All Indio 2015, Delhi 2013)
(vii) An important airport. (Delhi 2015)
(viii) A major seaport. (Delhi 2015,2014.2012)
(ix) A major railway terminal. (All India 2015)

Answer:

Question 54.
Identify the following in the political map of the world.
(i) Railway terminal station. (Delhi 2015)
(ii) A terminal station of Trans-Canadian railway line, (AH India 2014)
(iii) An important seaport, (AH India 2014)
(iv) A terminal station of Australian Trans-continental railway. (Delhi 2014)
(v) A major seaport. (Delhi 2013. All India 2011.2010)
(vi) A major airport. (Delhi Board 2013)
(vii) Eastern Terminal station of Trans-Siberian railway. (All India 2012)
(viii) A major airport. (All Indio 2011)
(ix) A major airport. (All India 2010)

Answer:

Question 55.
Identify the following on the political map of the world,
(i) A major airport. (Delhi 2012)
(ii) A major seaport. (Delhi 2011)
(iii) A major seaport. (Delhi 2010)
(iv) A major airport. (Delhi 2010, All India 2008)
(v) The important seaport of Brazil, (AH India 2009)
OR
An important seaport. (All India 200a)
(vi) The important seaport of New Zealand. (Delhi 2009)
(vii) Major airport. (Delhi 2008)

Answer:

Value Based Questions

Question 56.
“The means of transport are used for inter-regional and intra-regional transport, and each one (except pipelines) carries both passengers and freight. The significance of a mode depends on the type of goods and services to be transported, the costs of transport and the mode available. International movement of goods is handled by ocean freighters. Road transport is cheaper and faster over short distances and for door-to-door services. Railways are most suited for large volumes of bulk materials over long distances within a country.”
(i) Which mode of transport is suitable for Large volumes of bulky materials?
(ii) Which value can be learnt from the passage?
Answer:
(i) Railways are most suited for large volumes of bulk materials over long distances.
(ii) Values like Global peace, Economic welfare, Social awareness and Globalisation can be learnt from the above passage.

Question 57.
“Horses are used as a draught animal even in the Western countries. Dogs and reindeer are used in North America, North Europe and Siberia to draw sledges over snow-covered ground. Mules are preferred in the mountainous regions; while camels are used for caravan movement in deserts. In India, bullocks are used for pulling cans
(i) Which values can be learnt from this passage?
Answer:
Following values can be learnt from this passage:

• Human-Animal relationship.
• Co-existence with Environment.
• Nature-Human relationship.

We hope the Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 8 Transport and Communication help you. If you have any query regarding Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 8 Transport and Communication, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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CERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets.

NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets

Multiple Choice Questions 

Question 1.
Observe the pictures A and 8 given in figure carefully.

Which of the following statement is correct for the above given pictures?
(a) In A, cars 1 and 2 will come closer and in B, cars 3 and 4 will come closer.
(b) In A, cars 1 and 2 will move away from each other and in B, cars 3 and 4 will move away.
(c) In A, cars 1 and 2 will move away and in 8,3 and 4 will come closer to each other.
(d) In A, cars 1 and 2 will come closer to each other and in 8,3 and 4 will move away from each other.
Solution:
(d) Unlike poles attract each other while like poles repel each other.

Question 2.
The arrangement to store two magnets is shown by figures (a), (b), (c) and (d). Which one of them is the correct arrangement?

Solution:
(b)

Question  3.
Three magnets A, B and C were dipped one by one in a heap of iron filing. Figure shows the amount of the iron filing sticking to them.

The strength of these magnets will be
(a) A > B > C
(b) A < B < C
(c) A = B = C
(d) A < B > C
Solution:
(a): The amount of the iron filing sticking to magnets is directly proportional to their strengths.

Question 4.
North pole of a magnet can be identified by
(a) Another magnet having its poles marked as North pole and South pole.
(b) Another magnet no matter whether the poles are marked or not.
(c) Using an iron bar.
(d) Using iron filings.
Solution:
(a): That pole of the magnet which is repelled by the north pole of the given magnet will be considered as north pole of the magnet.

Question 5.
A bar magnet is immersed in a heap of iron filings and pulled out. The amount of iron filing clinging to the
(a) North pole is almost equal to the south pole.
(b) North pole is much more than the south pole.
(c) North pole is much less than the south pole.
(d) Magnet will be same all along its length.
Solution:
(a): Magnetic strengths of north pole and south pole of a magnet is same.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 6.
Fill in the blanks.
(i) When a bar magnet is broken; each of the broken part will have _________ pole/poles.
(ii) In a bar magnet, magnetic attraction is _____ near its ends.
Solution:
(i) two
(ii) more

Question 7.
Paheli and her friends were decorating the class bulletin board. She dropped the box of stainless steel pins by mistake. She tried to collect the pins using a magnet. She could not succeed. What could be the reason for this?
Solution:
The pins are made of stainless steel which is a non-magnetic material.

Question 8.
How will you test that ‘tea dust’ is not adulterated with iron powder?
Solution:
By using a magnet we can test that tea dust’ is not adulterated with iron powder. If it has iron powder it will stick to the magnet.

Question 9.
Boojho dipped a bar magnet in a heap of iron filings and pulled it out. He found that iron filings got stuck to the magnet as shown in figure.

(i) Which regions of the magnet have more iron filings sticking to it?
(ii)What are these regions called?
Solution:
(i) The ends of the magnet have more iron filings attached to it.
(ii) These regions are called poles of the magnet.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 10.
Four identical iron bars were dipped in a heap of iron filings one by one. Figure shows the amount of iron filings sticking to each of them.

(a) Which of the iron bar is likely to be the strongest magnet?
(b) Which of the iron bars is not a magnet? Justify your answer.
Solution:
(a) Iron bar (a) is likely to be the strongest magnet as amount of iron filings sticking to it, is much more than other bars.
(b) Iron bar (b) is not a magnet because iron filings do not stick to it.

Question 11.
A toy car has a bar magnet laid hidden inside its body along its length. Using another magnet i how will you find out which pole of the magnet is facing the front of the car?
Solution:
If the front of the toy car gets attracted to the north pole of the given magnet then it is the south pole of the bar magnet hidden inside the car and vice-versa.

Question 12.
Match column I with column II (One option of I can match with more than one option of II.

Solution:
(a) – (ii) , (iii) and (iv)
(b) – (iii)
(c) – (i)
(d) – (iii)

Question 13.
You are provided with two identical metal bars. , One out of the two is a magnet. Suggest two ways to identify the magnet.
Solution:
There can be following ways to identify the magnet out of the two identical metal bars :
(i) By freely suspending the metal bars. Magnet will rest along a particular direction.
(ii) By attracting iron filings.
(iii) By using another magnet. Like poles will repel each other while unlike poles will attract each other.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 14.
Three identical iron bars are kept on a table. Two out of three bars are magnets. In one of the magnet the North-South poles are marked. How will you find out which of the other two bars is a magnet? Identify the poles of this magnet.
Solution:
The magnet on which the North-South poles are marked can be used to find out the magnet out of two bars.
The magnet with known poles will attract and repel two ends of a magnet while it will attract both the ends of an ordinary bar. This process is known as test for repulsion. To find out the poles of unknown magnet, we can use the same test. North pole marked on the given magnet will repel the north pole of unknown magnet.

Question 15.
Describe the steps involved in magnetising an iron strip with the help of a magnet.
Solution:
An iron strip can be magnetised by rubbing it with a magnet in a particular direction again and again as shown in figure.

Magnets can also be made with the help of electricity.

Question 16.
Figure shows a magnetic compass. What will happen to the position of its needle if you bring a bar magnet near it? Draw a diagram to show the effect on the needle on bringing the bar magnet near it. Also draw the diagram to show the effect when the other end of the bar magnet is brought near it.

Solution:
The magnetic needle of the compass will get deflected.

Question 17.
Suggest an activity to prepare a magnetic compass by using an iron needle and a bar magnet.
Solution:
To prepare a magnetic compass, the given iron needle is magnetised by rubbing a bar magnet over it repeatedly in a particular direction. After that it may be set in a way so that it can rotate freely when suspended. Hence, the iron needle can act as compass and give north-south direction.

Question 18.
Boojho kept a magnet close to an ordinary iron bar. He observed that the iron bar attracts a pin as shown in figure.

What inference could he draw from this observation? Explain.
Solution:
He could infer from this observation that the magnetic properties are induced into the iron bar and it acts like a magnet till the magnet is kept near it.

Question 19.
A bar magnet is cut into two pieces A and B, from the middle, as shown in figure.

Will the two pieces act as individual magnets? Mark the poles of these two pieces. Suggest an activity to verify your answer.
Solution:
Yes, the two pieces A and B will act as individual magnets. A magnet will always have two poles – north and south pole. Each piece will have two poles.

By the test of repulsion, we can conclude that these two pieces A and B will act as individual magnets.

Question 20.
Suggest an arrangement to store a U shaped magnet. How is this different from storing a pair of bar magnets?
Solution: U shaped magnet – One metal plate is placed across the two poles of the U shaped magnet to store it.

Bar magnet – Two metal plates and one wooden block is used and arranged as shown in the figure.

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets will help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 14 Water are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 14 Water.

NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 14 Water

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following activity does not involve use of water?
(a) Washing clothes
(b) Bathing
(c) Cleaning utensils
(d) Drying wet clothes
Solution:
(d): Washing, bathing and cleaning utensils are the activities which require the use of water whereas in drying wet clothes, water gets converted into vapour form.

Question 2.
In which of the following activities will you use minimum amount of water?
(a) Bathing
(b) Brushing teeth
(c) Washing clothes
(d) Mopping a room
Solution:
(b) Bathing, washing clothes and mopping a room will require a large amount of water. The minimum amount of water will be required for brushing teeth.

Question 3.
The quantity of water required to produce one page of your book is
(a) one bucket
(b) ten buckets
(c) two glasses
(d) few drops.
Solution:
(c) Almost two glasses of water are required to make one sheet of paper.

Question 4.
Water in our tap comes from a
(a) river
(b) lake
(c) well
(d) river, lake or well.
Solution:
(d) Water in our tap comes from rivers, lakes or wells. Before supplying the water through tap, it is routed through water treatment plants. The water drawn from these sources is fit for consumption.

Question 5.
In which of the following case evaporation of water will be slowest?
(a) A tray of water kept in sunlight.
(b) A kettle of water kept on a burner.
(c) A glass of water kept in a room.
(d) A bucket of water kept on rooftop.
Solution:
(c) Evaporation is affected by temperature. When temperature increases, evaporation also increases. Room temperature is the lowest temperature as compared to the temperatures of sunlight, burner and rooftop. So, a glass of water kept in a room has slowest water evaporation.

Question 6.
Transpiration is a process in which plants
(a) receive water from soil
(b) absorb water vapour from air
(c) prepare food from water
(d) release water vapour.
Solution:
(d) The loss of water in the vapour form from the exposed parts of a plant (mainly leaves) is called transpiration. The loss of water due to transpiration is quite high.

Question 7.
Clouds are
(a) tiny drops of water floating in air
(b) mixture of dust and water vapour
(c) particles of water vapour
(d) rain drops in air.
Solution:
(a) At sufficient heights water vapour present in air condenses to form tiny droplets of water floating in air which appear to us as clouds. Later these tiny water droplets come together to form larger sized water drops and become so heavy that they begin to fall in the form of rain.

Question 8.
Wells are fed by
(a) pond water
(b) lake water
(c) rain water
(d) groundwater.
Solution:
(d) Rainwater fills up lakes, ponds, rivers and other water bodies. A part of the rainwater gets absorbed by the ground. Some of it is brought back to air by evaporation and transpiration. The rest seeps into the ground and becomes available as groundwater. Wells are fed by this ground water.

Question 9.
Floods cause extensive damage to
(a) crops
(b) property and human life
(c) domestic animals
(d) all of the above.
Solution:
(d) Heavy rains lead to rise in the level of water in rivers, lakes and ponds. This water then spreads over large area causing floods. The crop fields, forests, villages and cities get submerged under water. In our country, floods cause extensive damage to crops, domestic animals, property and human life.

Question 10.
“Catch water where it falls” is the basic idea behind
(a) recycling of water
(b) making dams to store water
(c) rainwater harvesting
(d) condensation of water vapour.
Solution:
(c) One way of increasing the availability of water is to collect rainwater and store it for later use. Collecting rainwater in this way is called rainwater harvesting.
Two techniques of rainwater harvesting are
(i) Rooftop rainwater harvesting – In this system the rainwater is collected from the rooftop to a storage tank, through pipes. This water may contain soil from the roof and needs filtering before it is used. Instead of collecting rainwater in the tank, the pipes can go directly into a pit in the ground. This then seeps into the soil to recharge or refill the groundwater.
(ii) Another option is to allow water to go into the ground directly from the roadside drains that collects rainwater.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 11.
Look at Fig. 14.1.

Write down activities shown in this figure in which water is being used.
Solution:
The activities shown in the given figure in which water is being used are :
(i) Bathing
(ii) Washing clothes.

Question 12.
Write any two activities which require more than a bucket of water.
Solution:
The two activities which require more than a bucket of water are :
(i) Washing ten clothes or more.
(ii) Irrigating a crop field.

Question 13.
Write any two activities which require less than one bucket of water.
Solution:
The two activities which require less than one bucket of water are :
(i) Brushing teeth
(ii) Washing a handkerchief.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 14.
Why do wet clothes placed on a clothes line get dry after some time? Explain.
Solution:
On exposing to heat, water present in wet clothes gets converted into water vapour due to evaporation and as a result clothes get dry after some time.

Question 15.
Water kept in sunlight gets heat from sun and is evaporated. But how does water kept under the shade of a tree also get evaporated? Explain.
Solution:
Air around us gets heated from sunlight. This warm air provides heat for evaporation of water kept under the shade of a tree.

Question 16.
How do the areas covered with concrete affect the availability of groundwater?
Solution:
Areas covered with concrete reduce the seepage of rainwater into the ground, thus reducing the availability of groundwater.

Question 17.
Why is there a need for conserving water? Give two reasons.
Solution:
There is a need for conserving water because :
(i) The demand for water is increasing day – by – day, with rise in population but amount of water available for use is very limited.
(ii) The level of groundwater is decreasing drastically which would lead to extreme water scarcity in near future.

Question 18.
Fill in the blanks selecting words from, the following list.
snow, rain, clouds, vapour, evaporation, transpiration.
Water, as ______ goes into atmosphere by the processes of _____ and _____ and forms ____ ,which on condensation fall in the form
of ____ and _____ .
Solution:
vapour, evaporation, transpiration, clouds,, snow, rain

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 19.
Most of the water that falls on the land as rain and snow, sooner or later goes back to a sea or an ocean. Explain how it happens?
Solution:
Most of the water that falls on the land as rain flows into the rivers and streams and finally into the sea. This is called surface run off. Some of it seeps through and becomes available to us as groundwater. The groundwater is pumped out for domestic, irrigation and industrial use, which eventually goes into rivers and finally into the seas or oceans. In the similar way, the water that falls on the land as snow melts during summers and flows into the rivers and streams, from there it goes into the sea or oceans.
Thus, most of the water that falls on the land as rain or snow, sooner or later goes back to a sea or an ocean.

Question 20.
Draw a diagram to show how sea water reaches a lake or pond.
Solution:

Question 21.
Dissolve two spoons of common salt in half a cup of water. Now if you want to get the salt back, what will you do?
Solution:
To get the salt back, we have to remove water from the solution. Water can be removed from the salt solution by heating it on a stove or keeping it in the sun in a plate for few hours for evaporation. Evaporation is a slow conversion of water into its vapour state. Once the water gets evaporated, we get the salt back.

Question 22.
Explain the process of rooftop rainwater harvesting with the help of a suitable diagram.
Solution:
Rooftop rainwater harvesting – is a method of rainwater harvesting in which the rainwater is collected from the rooftop to a storage tank, through pipes. This water may contain soil from the roof and need filtering before it is used. Instead of collecting rainwater in the tank, the pipes can go directly into a pit in the ground. This then seeps into the soil to recharge or refill the groundwater.

We hope the NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 14 Water will help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 14 Water, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Chapter 10 Ozymandias are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Reader. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Reader Chapter 10 Ozymandias.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Reader Chapter 10 Ozymandias

TextBook Questions

Question 1.
Look at the picture given below :

While on a sight-seeing tour to an old and mysterious country far away from home, you saw this statue. Discuss with your partner what this picture tells you about the people, the place and the ruler. Note down your ideas in the web-chart.

Answer:

Question 2.
Write a letter to your friend about the sight you saw and your impression of it. (V. Imp.)
Answer:
Dear Ravi
How are you? Today I want to share an exciting experience with you. Recently we went on a tour of Gujarat to attend Rann Utsav. While exploring through the desert, we came across a ruined statue — probably constructed by a ruler to glorify himself. The statue was badly dilapidated and symbolized the end of political tyranny. The broken statue instantly impressed upon us the impermanence of power. Nothing is long-lasting and is sure to get destroyed with the passage of time. The kings statue which once, must be grand and dignified, now lay in ruin without attention and is much neglected.

Nobody seems to case for the statue that shows its fall from grace and an emptiness around it. It is true that nobody can beat time and only good deeds of a person remain long after he has died. Yours lovingly Shobhit.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions by ticking the correct options.
(a) The poem is set in _________
(i) the wilderness
(ii) an ancient land
(iii) a pulace
(iv) a desert.
Answer:
(ii) an ancient land

(b) The expression on the fiwe of the statue is one of _________
(i) admiration
(ii) anger
(iii) despair
(iv) contempt
Answer:
(iv) contempt

(c) This poem throws light on the _________ nature of OzymandLas.
(i) cruel
(ii) arrogant
(iii) boastful
(iv) aggressive
Answer:
(ii) arrogant

(d) The sculptor was able to understand Ozymandias’ _________
(i) words
(ii) expression
(iii) feelings
(iv) ambition
Answer:
(ii) expression

(e) The tone of the poem is _________
(i) mocking
(ii) nostalgic
(iii) gloomy
(iv)gloating
Answer:
(i) mocking

Question 4.
Answer the following questions briefly:
(a) “The hand that mocked them, and the heart that fed.” Whose hand and heart has the poet referred to in this line?
Answer:
The hand and heart of king Ozymandias has been referred to by the poet in this line. Though he was a cruel and wicked king, he took great care of his people.

(b) “My name is Ozymandias, king of kings Why does Ozymandias refer to himself as King of Kings ? What quality of the king is revealed through this statement?
Answer:
Ozymandias was proud of himself. He boasted about his greatness. The lines show that he was an arrogant king and thought himself to be the greatest among all kings.

(c) “Look on my works, ye Mighty, and despair !” Who is Ozymandias referring to when . he speaks of ye Mighty? Why should they despair?
Answer:
Ozymandias is referring to Ifts works. He boasts that his works are so magnificent that people can only admire them. Despair here means give up. They should despair whenever they try to imitate or surpass his work.

(d) Bring out the irony in the poem.
Answer:
In Percy Bysshe Shelleys poem Ozymandias, there is an overriding irony presented to show the difference between the sculptor and the sculpture.
The poem’s irony revolves around Ozymandias himself. The great irony here was having the pharaoh narrate the poem, boasting of all his greatness and power, yet all that he has ‘established’ now lies in ruins, crumbling through time, slowly joining the surrounding sands.
Ozymandias was so full of authority, even though there was nothing left of what he boasts. His kingdom and his glory now lie in the sands with only stone slabs.

(e) ‘Nothing beside remains’. What does the narrator mean when he says these words?
Answer:
These words mean that even the greatest are destroyed. Now nothing else remains except the stones.

(f) What is your impression of Ozymandias as a king?
Answer:
Ozymandias was an arrogant and wicked king. He was proud of himself but he took care of his people. He wanted the people to see his works and praise him. He thought himself to be greater than any other king.

(g) What message is conveyed through this poem?
Answer:
The poem conveys an important message that nothing lasts forever. Even the greatest kingdoms and political regimes are sure to crumble so one should never be proud of even the greatest fall one day or the other. So one should not be proud of oneself.

Question 5.
Identify and rewrite the lines from the poem spoken by the narrator, the traveller and Ozymandias:
Answer:
The Narrator: I met a traveller from an antique land.
The Traveller: Two vast and trunkless legs of stone.
Stand in the desert. Near them, on the sand,
Half sunk, a shattered visage lies, who frown,
And wrinkled lips and sneer of cold command,
Tell that its sculptor well those passions read Ozymandias: “My name is Ozymandias, king of kings:

Question 6.
Shelley’s sonnet follows the traditional structure of the fourteen-line Italian sonnet, featuring an opening octave, or set of eight lines, that presents a conflict or dilemma, followed by a sestet, or set of six lines, that offers some resolution or commentary upon the proposition introduced in the octave. Read the poem carefully and complete the following table on the structure of the poem.

Answer:

The poem, as an Italian sonnet, can be divided into two parts: the first eight lines (octave) and the next six lines (sestet). If the octave part describes the fragments of a sculpture the traveller sees on an ancient ruin, the sestet goes further to record the words on the pedestal and then describe the surrounding emptiness. The words on the pedestal are in contrast to both the octave and the last three lines (triplet) of the poem.

Question 7.
Complete the table listing the poetic devices used by Shelley in Ozymandias.

Answer:
Alliteration
Repetition of a initial sound
Two vast and trunkless legs …
cold command,
The hand that mocked them and the heart that fed;
boundless and bare
lone and level sands stretch …………
Anastrophe
Inversion of the normal word order
… well those passions read (normally, read those passions well)
Enjambement (also spelled without the first e)
Carrying the sense of one line of verse over to the next line without a pause
… a shattered visage lies, whose frown,
And wrinkled lip, and sneer of cold command,
“Whose frown, And wrinkled lip is the enjambement.
Nothing beside remains. Round the decay
Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare
‘round the decay begins the enjambement.
Synecdoche
Substitution of a part to stand for the whole, or the whole to stand for a part
The hand that mocked them,

Question 8.
Imagine that Ozymandias comes back to life and as he sees the condition of his statue, realisation dawns on him and he pens his thoughts in a diary. As Ozymandias, make this diary entry in about 150 words. You could begin like this: I thought I was the mightiest of all but…
Answer:
I thought I was the mightiest of all but I feel sad to see the condition of my statue, lying in dust It grieves me to see the statue broken and the head cut off from the body. The face is half sunken in the sand. Around it nothing can be seen except vast stretches of bare sand. No one is there to admire and praise it. I once thought myself to be the greatest ruler and the people honoured me. The people should look at it and should know that nothing can be changed. The sculptors who had noted my expressions in my statue cannot make r.ight what has been destroyed. It teaches me a lesson that everything comes to an end and nothing remains forever. So one should not be proud of oneself.

Question 9.
‘Ozymandias’ and ‘Not Marble, nor the Gilded Monuments’ are on Time. Compare the two sonnets in terms of the way in which Time is treated by the poets. Write your answer in about 150 words.
Answer:
Shakespeare in his sonnet ‘Not Marble, nor the Gilded Monuments’ written on time expresses that monuments are made for the wealthy to keep the memory of someone alive. Stone can be altered by the immortalities of time.

This poem will leave behind the material things of life but his poem shall survive longer than any gold plated monument. It will be portrayed for all time and his subject will shine when devastating wars of time shall overturn statues. The cause of war (Mars) nor the effects of war (fire) shall destroy the loving memory.

In ‘Ozymandias’ the poet has treated time in a different manner. He says with the passage of time everything is destroyed, be it king, property or monument. The king who was so terrified and those who commanded no longer have any power. Poet comments on temporal nature of the things humans strive for but with time everything vanishes. Ozymandias’ empire ceased to exist. His statue will also expire. Only sand will remain.

We hope the NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Chapter 10 Ozymandias help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Solutions for Class 10 English Literature Reader Chapter 10 Ozymandias, Nor the Gilded Monuments, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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CBSE Class 10 Maths Notes Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Pdf free download is part of Class 10 Maths Notes for Quick Revision. Here we have given NCERT Class 10 Maths Notes Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes.

CBSE Class 10 Maths Notes Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes

SURFACE AREA AND VOLUME OF COMBINATIONS

Cone on a Cylinder.

r = radius of cone & cylinder;
h₁ = height of cone
h₂ = height of cylinder
Total Surface area = Curved surface area of cone + Curved surface area of cylinder + area of circular base
= πrl + 2πrh₂ +πr²;
Slant height, l =
Total Volume = Volume of cone + Volume of cylinder
=

Cone on a Hemisphere:

h = height of cone;
l = slant height of cone =
r = radius of cone and hemisphere
Total Surface area = Curved surface area of cone + Curved surface area of hemisphere = πrl + 2πr²
Volume = Volume of cone + Volume of hemisphere =

Conical Cavity in a Cylinder

r = radius of cone and cylinder;
h = height of cylinder and conical cavity;
l = Slant height
Total Surface area = Curved surface area of cylinder + Area of bottom face of cylinder + Curved surface area of cone = 2πrh + πr² + πrl
Volume = Volume of cylinder – Volume of cone =

Cones on Either Side of Cylinder.

r = radius of cylinder and cone;
h₁ = height of cylinder
h₂ = height of cones
Slant height of cone, l =
Surface area = Curved surface area of 2 cones + Curved surface area of cylinder = 2πrl + 2πrh₁
Volume = 2(Volume of cone) + Volume of cylinder =

Cylinder with Hemispherical Ends.

r = radius of cylinder and hemispherical ends;
h = height of cylinder
Total surface area= Curved surface area of cylinder + Curved surface area of 2 hemispheres = 2πrh + 4πr²
Volume = Volume of cylinder + Volume of 2 hemispheres =

Hemisphere on Cube or Hemispherical Cavity on Cube

a = side of cube;
r = radius of hemisphere.
Surface area = Surface area of cube – Area of hemisphere face + Curved surface area of hemisphere
= 6a² – πr² + 2πr² = 6a² + πr²
Volume = Volume of cube + Volume of hemisphere =

Hemispherical Cavity in a Cylinder

r = radius of hemisphere;
h = height of cylinder
Total surface area = Curved surface area of cylinder + Surface area of base + Curved surface area of hemisphere
= 2πrh + πr² + 2πr² = 2πrh + 3πr²
Volume = Volume of cylinder – Volume of hemisphere =

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NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Chapter 15 Air Around Us are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 15 Air Around Us.

NCERT Exemplar Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 15 Air Around Us

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) All living things require air to breathe.
(b) We can feel air but we cannot see it.
(c) Moving air makes it possible to fly a kite.
(d) Air is present everywhere but not in soil.
Solution:
(d): Air is omnipresent and is present in the soil also. This can be proved by a simple activity where a lump of dry soil is taken in a beaker or a glass. When water is added to the soil, it displaces the air which is seen in the form of bubbles.

Question 2.
Wind does not help in the movement of which of the following?
(a) Firki
(b) Weathercock
(c) Ceiling fan
(d) Sailing yacht
Solution:
(c): Ceiling fan moves by electricity, and hence, wind does not help in the movement of ceiling fan.

Question 3.
What is not true about air?
(a) It makes the windmill rotate.
(b) It helps in the movements of aeroplanes.
(c) Birds can fly due to presence of air.
(d) It has no role in water cycle.
Solution:
(d) : Air plays a major role in water cycle. Air helps the water vapour to rise up to form clouds. Evaporation of water, cloud formation and falling of rain, all take place in the atmosphere.

Question 4.
Mountaineers carry oxygen cylinders with them because
(a) there is no oxygen on high mountains
(b) there is deficiency of oxygen on mountains at high altitude
(c) oxygen is used for cooking
(d) oxygen keeps them warm at low temperature.
Solution:
(b): With increase in altitude, the atmosphere gets thinner and the supply of oxygen is reduced. This causes difficulty in breathing on hill stations and mountains. Therefore, while climbing high mountains, mountaineers carry oxygen cylinders with them.

Question 5.
Boojho took an empty plastic bottle, turned it upside down and dipped its open mouth into a bucket filled with water. He then tilted the bottle slightly and made the following observations.
(i) Bubbles of air came out from the bottle.
(ii) Some water entered the bottle.
(iii) Nitrogen gas came out in the form of bubbles and oxygen got dissolved in water.
(iv) No bubbles formed, only water entered the bottle.
Which observations is / are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iv) only
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) only
Solution:
(a)

Question 6.
Which of the following components of air is present in the largest amount in the atmosphere?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Water vapour
(d) Carbon dioxide
Solution:
(a) Atmosphere cpntains 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen and remaining 1% is formed by carbon dioxide, water vapour, few other gases and dust particles. Thus, atmosphere contains nitrogen in the largest amount.

Question 7.
The components of air which are harmful to living beings are
(a) nitrogen and carbon dioxide
(b) dust and water vapour
(c) dust and smoke
(d) smoke and water vapour.
Solution:
(c) Water vapour, nitrogen and carbon dioxide are useful to living beings. Water vapour is important for the water cycle in nature. Nitrogenisnecessaryforplants. Carbon dioxide is essential for photosynthesis.

Question 8.
Ushatooka lump of dry soil in a glass and added water to it till it was completely immersed. She observed bubbles coming out. The bubbles contain
(a) water vapour
(b) only oxygen gas
(c) air
(d) none of these.
Solution:
(c) When the water is poured on the lump of soil, it displaces the air trapped in it which is seen in the form of bubbles.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 9.
State whether the following statements are true or false. If false, correct them.
(a) Plants consume oxygen for respiration.
(b) Plants produce oxygen during the process of making their own food.
(c) Air helps in the movements of sailing yachts and gliders but plays no role in the flight of birds and aeroplanes.
(d) Air does not occupy any space.
Solution:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) False – Air helps in the movement of sailing yachts and gliders and also helps in the flight of birds and aeroplanes.
(d) False – Air does occupies space.

Question 10.
In a number of musical instruments, air plays an important role. Can you name such instruments?
Solution:
Air plays an important role in a number of musical instruments such as flute, trumpet, mouth organ, shehnai and harmonium.

Question 11.
In the boxes of column I the letters of some words got jumbled. Arrange them in proper form in the boxes given in column II.

Solution:

Question 12.
Make sentences using the given set of words.
(a) 99%, oxygen, nitrogen, air, together
(b) Respiration, dissolved, animals, air aquatic
(c) Air, wind, motion, called
Solution:
(a) Oxygen and nitrogen together make up 99% of the air.
(b) Aquatic animals use dissolved air for respiration.
(c) Air in motion is called wind.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 13.
A list of words is given in a box. Use appropriate words to fill up the blanks in the following statements.
[Air, oxygen, wind, water vapour, mixture, combination, direction, road, bottles, cylinders]
(a) The ______ makes the windmill rotate.
(b) Air is a ______ of some gases.
(c) A weather cock shows the in which the air is moving at that place.
(d) Mountaineers carry oxygen ___ with them, while climbing high mountains.
Solution:
(a) wind
(b) mixture
(c) direction
(d) cylinders

Question 14.
Observe the picture given in Fig. 15.1 carefully and answer the following questions.

(a) What is covering the nose and mouth of the policeman?
(b) Why is he putting a cover on his nose?
(c) Can you comment on air quality of the place shown in the Fig.15.1?
Solution:
(a) The policeman is wearing a mask to cover his nose and mouth.
(b) He puts a cover on his nose to protect himself from dirt and polluted air. A mask avoids exposure to the harmful exhaust of vehicles, thus prevents the harmful gases and dust particles entering our body.
(c) The given figure shows a polluted area where the air quality is not good. It is due to the smoke and harmful gases such as carbon monoxide and sulphur dioxide emitted by the automobiles along with dust particles present in the air.

Question 15.
Garima observed that when she left her tightly capped bottle full of water in open sunlight, tiny bubbles were formed all around inside the bottle. Help Garima to know why it happened?
Solution:
Air dissolved in water starts escaping in the form of tiny bubbles due to heat from the sun. Thus, tiny bubbles were formed all around inside the bottle.

Question 16.
Match the items of column I with the items of column II.

Solution:
(a) – (iv)
(b) – (iii)
(c) – (v)
(d) – (i)
(e) – (ii)

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 17.
Explain the following observations very briefly.
(a) A firki does not rotate in a closed area.
(b) The arrow of weather cock points towards a particular direction at a particular moment.
(c) An empty glass in fact is not empty.
(d) Breathing through mouth may harm you.
Solution:
(a) A firki or pmwheel rotates when placed in an open area due to the moving air present all around. In a closed area, there is a lack of air movement which does not support the rotation of a firki.
(b) A weather cock is an instrument used for indicating the direction of the wind. It consists of an arrow, mounted at its centre of gravity so it can move freely about a vertical axis. Therefore, the arrow points towards a particular direction at a particular moment to show the latest direction of the wind movement.
(c) An empty glass is filled with the air. ft is filled completely with air even if turned upside down. It can be proved with a simple experiment in which an empty bottle is turned upside down in a beaker filled with water. The water does not enter the bottle when it is pushed’in an inverted position because there is no space for air to escape. When the bottle is tilted, the air is able to escape out in the form of bubbles and water fills up the empty space. This shows that even an empty glass is filled with the air.
(d) Air contains some gases, water vapour and dust particles. When air is inhaled through nostrils, the fine hair and mucus present in the nose prevent dust particles from entering the respiratory tract. But, if we breathe through mouth, the harmful dust particles may enter our body and make us ill. Thus, breathing through mouth may harm us.

Question 18.
Write just a few sentences for an imaginary situation if any of the following gases disappear from the atmosphere.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
Solution:
(a) If oxygen gas disappeared from the atmosphere, life would not be possible on earth as the presence of oxygen is essential for the survival of the living organisms. Animals and plants take in oxygen from the atmosphere and release carbon dioxide during respiration. Even the aquatic plants and animals take up oxygen in the dissolved form for breathing. It would not be possible for organisms to breathe in the absence of oxygen and hence, eventually the organisms will die.
(b) Nitrogen constitutes major part i.e. 78% of the atmosphere and it does not support burning. If nitrogen gas disappeared from the atmosphere, things on earth will bum very fast which may produce disastrous results. Moreover, nitrogen is required by plants for their growth, although plants are not able to absorb the nitrogen directly from the air. They ocnsume it in the soluble form either through fertilisers or by converting it into nitrate compounds which are absorbed by the plants through soil. Nitrogen is also present in some amounts in all the proteins. All living things need protein for their growth. Thus, if nitrogen gets disappeared from the atmosphere, plants, animals, humans and other organisms would not be able to grow properly and may eventually die.
(c) Although carbon dioxide is present in traces (0.03%) in the atmosphere, it plays a major role in the survival of living beings. Plants require carbon dioxide to manufacture their own food by the process of photosynthesis. During this process, oxygen in evolved out. This maintains the carbon dioxide oxygen balance in the air. If carbon dioxide gets disappeared from the atmosphere, the plants will not be able to produce their food and oxygen will not be released which will disturb the carbon dioxide – oxygen ratio in the atmosphere. In the absence of oxygen and food, there will be no life on earth.

Question 19.
Paheli kept some water in a beaker for heating. She observed that tiny bubbles appeared before the water started to boil. She boiled the water for about 5 minutes and filled it in a bottle up to the brim and kept the bottle air tight till it cooled down to room temperature.
(a) Why did the tiny bubbles appeared?
(b) Do you think tiny bubbles will appear on heating the water taken out from the bottle? Justify your answer.
Solution:
(a) The tiny bubbles appeared before the water started to boil due to the air dissolved in water. On heating, the air dissolved in water escaped in the form of bubbles.
(b) The tiny bubbles will appear on heating the water taken out from the bottle as on opening the cap, some amount of air will be trapped in it. Some amount of air will also be trapped during the transfer of water from the bottle to the utensil for heating. Since the amount of trapped air will be less in the poured water, there will be less number of bubbles appearing in the water on heating as compared to the previous one.

Question 20.
On a Sunday morning Paheli’s friend visited her home. She wanted to see some flowering plants in the nearby garden. Both of them went to the garden. While returning from the garden they also observed some flowering plants on the road side. But to their surprise they found that the leaves and flowers of these roadside plants were comparatively very dull. Can you help them to know why?
Solution:
The dull appearance of the leaves and flowers of the roadside plants may be due to the djust and soot particles emitted from the vehicles, chimneys and factories. These particles might have got deposited on the plant parts which made them appear dull.

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Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 International Trade is part of Geography Class 12 Important Questions. Here we have given Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 International Trade.

Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 International Trade

1 Mark Questions

Question 1.
Examine the functioning of the World Trade Organisation (WTO). (Delhi 2000)
OR
State any two functions of ‘World Trade Organisation. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
The two functions of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) are:

• It sets the rules for the global trading system.
• It promotes free and fair trade amongst different countries of the world.

Question 2.
How is ‘barter system’ practised among various tribal communities in the world? (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
In tribal communities, the barter system is practised by the direct exchange of goods; money is not used.

Question 3.
Assess the positive aspect of ‘trade liberalisation’, (HOTS, AH India 2016)
Answer:
Trade liberalisation refers to opening up of economies for trading. It allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic goods and services thereby giving greater choices.

Question 4.
How is the favourable balance of trade an indicator of economic development of a country? (All India 2015)
Answer:
A favourable balance of trade means that the value of exports is more than the value of imports. This means that the country is earning money by selling its goods which is an indicator of economic development of a country.

Question 5.
What are the naval ports? Give one example of a naval port. (All indin 2013)
Answer:
Naval ports are those ports which are strategically important as they serve warships and have repair centres for them. Examples of naval ports are Kochi and Karwar.

Question 6.
Name the regional trade bloc of which India is a member. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
India is a member of the SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Agreement).

Question 7.
Which city is the headquarters of the Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)? (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
The headquarters of OPEC is in Vienna.

Question 8.
Name the type of most of the great ports of the world. (All India 2010)
Answer:
Most of the great ports of the world are comprehensive ports.

Question 9.
Categorise international trade into two types. (All Indio 2010)
Answer:
Two types of international trade are:

• Bilateral trade
• Multilateral trade

Question 10.
What was the initial form of trade in the primitive society? (All Indio 2009)
Answer:
The initial form of trade in the primitive society was barter system.

Question 11.
Name the international organisation dealing with the global rules of trade between nations. (All India 2008)
Answer:
The international organisation dealing with global rules of trade is the World Trade Organisation (WTO).

3 Marks Questions

Question 12.
Explain with an example of how ‘stage of economic development’ and ‘foreign investment’ become the basis of international trade. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
In modem times, trade is the basis of the world’s economic organisation and is related to the foreign policy of nations. The stage of economic development and foreign investment have become the basis of international trade due to the following reasons:

Size of Economic Development The nature of trade changes with the change in stage of economic development of countries. In developed economies, manufactured goods, machinery are traded for raw materials but in less developed economies, agro products are traded for industrial goods.

Foreign Investment Developing countries lack in the capital which is required for the development of mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering, lumbering and plantation agriculture. Foreign investment can boost trade in these countries. Like in India, foreign investment in service sectors has made India one of the leading service provider countries in the world.

Question 13.
What is free trade? Give two advantages of free trade. (All India 2013)
Answer:
The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalisation.
Two advantages of free trade are as follows:

• It makes the economy more open and trading easier by bringing down trade barriers.
• Trade liberalisation or free trade creates the environment of competition between the goods produced globally and the domestic goods.

Question 14.
Why are ports called ‘gateways of international trade’? Explain any three reasons. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
The chief gateways of the world of international trade are the harbours and ports. Ports are called gateways of international trade due to the following reasons:

• These ports facilitate the passage like cargos and travellers.
• These ports provide facilities like docking, loading, unloading and storage facilities for cargo.
• Large ports offer particularly attractive locations for lead industries and distribution-intensive enterprises.

Question 15.
Study the table given below carefully and answer the following questions. (Delhi 2011)
World Imports and Exports [in US$]

(i) Which decade shows the highest increase in the total value of imports and exports of goods and services?
(ii) How much is the increase in the total value of exports from 1955 to 2005?
Answer:
(i) 1965-1975 shows the highest increase in the total value of imports and exports of goods and services.
(ii) The total value of exports was increased by 10.2 million US$ from 1955 to 2005.

Question 16.
Classify ports of the world into two types on the basis of their location. Explain any two features of each type of ports. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Ports are classified into the following two types on the basis of their location:
(i) Inland ports
(ii) Out ports
Two features of each of these ports are as follows:
(i) Inland Ports

• These ports are connected to the sea through a river or a canal.
• They are located away from the sea coast, e.g. Manchester, Memphis, Mannheim and Duisburg; and Kolkata.

(ii) Out Ports

• These ports serve the parent ports by receiving their large ships.
• These are built away from the actual ports in deep water.

Question 17.
Explain the three aspects of international trade, (AH India 2010)
OR
Analyse the three important aspects of international trade. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
International trade has three very important aspects. These are:
Volume of Trade Volume refers to the actual tonnage of goods traded. But services traded cannot be measured in tonnage. Hence, the volume of trade is measured simply as the total value of goods and services traded.

Composition of Trade The nature of goods and services traded by countries has been changed during the last century as the percentage of primary products in the total traded goods was maximum at the beginning of the last century. Later manufactured goods dominated and presently service sector is showing a rising trend.

The direction of Trade The world trade pattern underwent drastic changes during the second half of the 20th century. The developing countries like India and China have started competing with developed countries. The nature of the goods traded has also changed.

Question 18.
How is the difference in national resources a basis of international trade? Explain with three examples, (AM India 2010)
OR
Explain how the difference in natural resources becomes one of the bases of international trade. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
The distribution of the world’s national resources is uneven due to different physical make ups like:
Geological Structure Distinct geological structure and topographical differences ensure diversity of crops and animals raised. Like agricultural activity is more in lowland areas, mountains are good for tourism, etc.

Mineral Resources Different regions of the world have a different proportion of mineral resources and these mineral resources provide the basis for the development of industries.

Climate It influences the flora and fauna of a particular region. It ensures the diversity in the range of various products, e.g. wool production in colder regions, certain cash crops like cocoa, coffee in tropical regions.

5 Marks Questions

Question 19.
“In modern times international trade is the basis of the world economy.” Support the statement with example. (HOTS; All India 2017)
Answer:
International trade is the base of the world economy in modern times. The exchange of surplus goods between different countries is called International trade. It is the basis of the world economy because:

• The resources are unevenly distributed. International trade help in removing these differences.
• International trade lead to foreign investment in developing countries which lack in capital required for the development.
• Export and import help countries to gain foreign exchanges.
• Trade also help to raise the standard of living of the people of the developing countries.
• International trade is the index of economic development of a country.

Question 20.
Differentiate between bilateral trade and multilateral trade. Explain how ports are helpful in trade. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:

Ports are helpful in trade because:

• Ports are gateways of international trade.
• They promote international trade.
• Ports provide facilities of docking, loading, unloading and storage facilities for cargo.
• Large amount of goods can be taken in by ships.
• The quantity of cargo handled by a port is an indicator of the level of development of its hinterland.

Question 21.
Why are ports known as ‘gateways of international trade’? Explain any three characteristics of inland ports. (All Indio 2014)
Answer:
Ports are the chief gateways of the world of international trade. They are called so due to the following reasons:

1. These ports facilitate the passage of cargos and travellers from one country to another.
2. These ports provide facilities of docking, loading, unloading and storage facilities for cargo, which are meant to export or import. In order to provide these facilities, the port authorities make arrangements for maintaining navigable channels, arranging tugs and barges and providing labour and managerial services.
3. Large ports offer particularly attractive locations for lead industries and distribution-intensive enterprises.

Important characteristics of the inland ports are as follows:

1. Inland ports are located away from the sea coast.
2. They are linked to the sea through a river or a canal, e.g. Manchester is linked with a canal.
3. Such ports are accessible to flat bottom ships or barges.

Question 22.
What is the role of ‘World Trade Organisation’ as an international organisation? Why has the World Trade Organisation been criticised by some countries? Explain the role of the World Trade Organisation. (Delhi 2014)
OR
Explain any two functions of WTO. Why has this organisation been criticised? Give three arguments in this regard. (All India 2011)
Answer:
World Trade Organisation was set-up on 1st January, 1995 after transformation of GATT (General Agreement for Tariffs and Trade).
The two functions of WTO are as follows:

• It sets the rules for the global trading system.
• It promotes free and fair trade amongst different countries of the world.

WTO or World Trade Organisation has always been critisised by those who are worried about the effects of free trade and economic globalisation. The critique of WTO is based on an argument that free trade is not beneficial to the ordinary people as it is widening the gulf between rich and poor by making rich countries more rich. This is because the influential nations try to satisfy their commercial interests through WTO.

In addition, these countries have not fully opened their markets to developing countries. Critics also argue that important issues like health, workers’ rights, child labour and environment have been ignored by WTO.

On 1st January, 1995, the GATT was transformed into the World Trade Organisation to set-up an institution for the promotion of free and fair trade amongst different countries of the world. The WTO sets the rules for the global trading system. This system also covers trade in services, such as telecommunication and banking and other issues including intellectual rights.

Question 23.
Explain the two types of international trade. Examine any three possible negative impacts of globalisation alongwith free trade in the world. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
International trade is the exchange of capital, goods and services across international borders or territories.
There are two types of international trade:
Bilateral Trade It refers to the trade between the two countries. The two countries are specialised in certain commodities and hence, they enter into an agreement to trade specified commodities between them.

Multilateral Trade It is conducted with many trading countries. The same country can trade with a large number of other countries. The status of the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) can be granted by such country to some of the trading partners.

Three possible negative impacts of globalisation alongwith free trade in the world are as follows:

1. It does not provide level playing field by imposing unfavourable conditions hence, retard the growth of trade for developing countries.
2. Cheaper goods from foreign countries may harm the sell of domestic goods.
3. The phenomena of dumping may be visible in the markets of developing countries.

Question 24.
Explain any five bases of international trade. (Delhi 2012,08, All India 2012)
OR
Examine the five bases of international trade which are responsible for promoting international trade. (All India 2011)
Answer:
Five bases of international trade are as follows:
Difference in National Resources The distribution of the world’s national resources is uneven due to different physical make ups like geology, relief, soil and climate.

Population Factors Type and volume of goods traded between different regions of the world are affected by the size, distribution and diversity of people. It includes cultural factors and the size of the population.

Stage of Economic Development The nature of commodities traded changes with the change in stage of economic development of countries. In less developed countries, agriculture is the most important sector. These countries export agro products to the industrialised nations and import machinery and finished products from them.

Extent of Foreign Investment Developing countries lack in the capital which is required for the development of mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering, lumbering and plantation agriculture.

Transport With the development of modern means of transport and the expansion of rail, ocean and air transport, trade has expanded spatially. In early time, only high value items, e.g. gems, silk and spices were traded over long distances because of the lack of efficient means of transport.

Question 25.
Why are ports called gateways of international trade? Explain any three facilities provided by them. (All India 2008)
Answer:
The word ‘port’ is derived from the Latin word ‘porta’ which means door or gateway. It play an important role in international trade. Therefore they are called gateways of International trade, cargos and travellers pass from one port of the World to another through there ports.

They act as collection centres of commodities from their hinter land for further shipment to foreign destinations on one hand. On the other hand, they act as receiving centres of the foreign consignment. International trade on large scale is possible only through these ports.

Ports are helpful in trade by:

• Promoting international trade.
• Provide facilities of docking.
• Storage facilities of cargo.
• Maintain Navigable channels.
• Arrange tugs and barges.

Value Based Questions
Question 26.
“Fifteenth century onwards, the European colonialism began and along with the trade of exotic commodities, a new form of trade emerged which was called the slave trade. The Portuguese, Dutch, Spaniards, and British captured African natives and forcefully transported them to the newly discovered Americas for their labour in the plantations. Slave trade was a lucrative business for more than two hundred years till it was abolished in Denmark in 1792, Great Britain in 1807 and the United States in 1808.” Which value leads to the abolition of the slave trade?
Answer:
Slave trade was abolished due to the following values:

• Racism towards Black people.
• Freedom
• The dignity of Black people.

Question 27.
“International trade is the result of specialisation in production. It benefits the world economy if different countries practice specialisation and division of labour in the production of commodities or the provision of services. Each kind of specialisation can give rise to trade. Thus, international trade is based on the principle of comparative advantage, complementarity and transferability of goods and services and in principle, should be mutually beneficial to the trading partners.”
Which value is benefitted by international trade?
Answer:
International trade benefits the following values:

• Globalisation
• Liberalisation
• National Pride

We hope the Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 International Trade help you. If you have any query regarding Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 9 International Trade, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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CBSE Class 10 Maths Notes Chapter 14 Statistics Pdf free download is part of Class 10 Maths Notes for Quick Revision. Here we have given NCERT Class 10 Maths Notes Chapter 14 Statistics.

CBSE Class 10 Maths Notes Chapter 14 Statistics

MEAN (AVERAGE): Mean [Ungrouped Data] – Mean of n observations, x1, x2, x3 … xn, is

MEAN [Grouped Data]: The mean for grouped data can be found by the following three methods:
(i) Direct Mean Method:

Class Mark =

Note: Frequency of a class is centred at its mid-point called class mark.

(ii) Assumed Mean Method: In this, an arbitrary mean ‘a’ is chosen which is called, ‘assumed mean’, somewhere in the middle of all the values of x.

…[where di = (xi – a)

(iii) Step Deviation Method:

….. [where , where h is a common divisor of di]

MEDIAN: Median is a measure of central tendency which gives the value of the middle-most observation in the data.

…where[l = Lower limit of median class; n = Number of observations; f = Frequency of median class; c.f. = Cumulative frequency of preceding class; h = Class size]

(iii) Representing a cumulative frequency distribution graphically as a cumaltive frequency curve, or an ogive of the less than type and of the more than type. The median of grouped data can be obtained graphically as the x-coordinate of the point of intersection of the two ogives for this data.

Mode:
(i) Ungrouped Data: The value of the observation having maximum frequency is the mode.
(ii) Grouped Data:

…where[l = Lower limit of modal class; f1 = Frequency of modal class; f0 = Frequency of the class preceding the modal class; f2 = Frequency of the class succeeding the modal class; h = Size of class interval. c.f. = Cumulative frequency of preceding class; h = Class size]

Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean
Median =
Mean =

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Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 14 Human Settlements is part of Geography Class 12 Important Questions. Here we have given Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 14 Human Settlements.

Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 14 Human Settlements

1 Mark Questions

Question 1.
How is the level of urbanisation measured in India? Delhi 2015
Answer:
The level of urbanisation is measured by the percentage of urban population to the total population.

Question 2.
What two factors mostly helped in the development of ancient towns in India? Delhi 2015
Answer:
The two factors that mostly helped in the development of ancient towns in India are:

• Religion
• Culture

Question 3.
Give any two examples of ancient towns of India. Delhi 2014
Answer:
Varanasi, Pataliputra/Patna, Mathura, Allahabad are examples of ancient towns of India.

Question 4.
Give an example of ancient historical towns from Bihar, AH India 2014
Answer:
Patna/Pataliputra, Nalanda, Kaushambi are the examples of ancient historical towns from Bihar.

Question 5.
Give any two examples of mining towns in India. Delhi 2013
Answer:
Jharia, Bokaro, Raniganj, Digboi etc are examples of mining towns in India.

Question 6.
Give the meaning of clustered rural settlement of India. Delhi 2013
Answer:
It is a rural settlement where a number of families live close proximity to each other. This living place is not surrounded by farms, barn or pastures.

Question 7.
Name any two metropolitan cities of Andhra Pradesh. Delhi 2012
Answer:
Hyderabad and Visakhapatnam are the metropolitan cities of Andhra Pradesh.

Question 8.
Give the meaning of human settlement. Delhi 2011
OR
What is the meaning of Human settlement? Delhi 2008
Answer:
Human settlement refers to the cluster or group of human houses. These houses may vary from a small hut to a large bungalow or any type or size.

Question 9.
Name the metropolitan city of Karnataka state as per 2001 census. All India 2011
Answer:
Bengaluru is the metropolitan city of Karnataka state as per 2001 census.

Question 10.
Which class of cities has the highest percentage of the urban population in India? Delhi 2010
Answer:
Class I cities has the highest percentage of the urban population in India.

Question 11.
Which class of cities has the largest number of towns and cities in India? All India 2010
Answer:
Class IV cities have the largest number of towns and cities in India.

Question 12.
Name the largest metropolitan city of Uttar Pradesh. Write its population according to the census, 2001. Delhi 2009
Answer:
Kanpur is the metropolitan city of Uttar Pradesh. According to census 2001, its population is 26.9 lakh.

Question 13.
Name the largest metropolitan city of Madhya Pradesh. What was its population according to the census, 2001? All India 2009
Answer:
The largest metropolitan city of Madhya Pradesh in Indore. According to census 2001, its population is 16.4 lakh.

Question 14.
What is the meaning of rural settlement? AH India 2008
Answer:
Rural settlements are basically related to land-based activities. Hamlets and villages are examples of rural settlements. They are scattered and smaller in size. The main activities of the dwellers are primary activities, especially agriculture.

3 Marks Questions

Question 15.
Many of the modern towns of India were developed during the period of British. Explain in brief. Delhi 2016
OR
How have modern towns developed in India? Explain. All Indio 2015
Answer:
The British and other Europeans have developed a number of towns in India. Starting their foothold on coastal locations, they first developed some trading ports such as Surat, Daman, Goa, Pondicherry (Puducherry), etc. The British later consolidated their hold around three principal nodes i.e. Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata. Towns based on modern industries also evolved after 1850.

For their domination, they established their administrative centres, hill towns as summer resorts and added administrative and military areas. Railways for their administrative purposes equipped India on way of modernity.

Question 16.
Differentiate between ‘hamleted’ and ‘Dispersed’ rural settlement of India. Delhi 2016
OR
Explain any three characteristics each of hamleted and dispersed rural settlement in India. Delhi 2013
OR
What are hamleted settlements? Mention any two areas of India where such settlement are found. Delhi 2013
Answer:
The difference between hamleted settlements and dispersed settlements are as follows:

Question 17.
What makes rural settlement different from urban settlement in India? Explain. Delhi 2015
OR
Differentiate between rural and urban settlements of India in three points. Delhi 2014
Answer:
The differences between rural and urban settlement are as follows:

Question 18.
Explain any three physical factors responsible for different types of rural settlements in India. Delhi 2015
Answer:
Physical factors which are responsible for different types of rural settlements in India are:
Water Supply Settlements need water, they often locate on wet point sites for this. For e.g. in Rajasthan, scarcity of water has forced people to live in compact villages for maximum utilisation of available water resources.

Climate People usually prefer areas which have favourable climatic conditions. Harsh climate like very hot and cold regions have less or no settlements there. For e.g. coastal plains have favourable climate thus, are densely populated regions.

Nature of Terrain Nature of terrain plays an important role in determining the shape and size of rural settlements.
For e.g., plain areas have compact and larger settlements with dense population, whereas mountainous areas have scattered and hamleted rural settlements. Meghalaya, Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh have such types of rural settlement.

Question 19.
What are metropolitan cities and megacities? Give two examples of each of metropolitan cities and mega cities from India. Delhi 2015
Answer:
Metropolitan Cities Cities that have population more than one million but less than 5 million are considered as a metropolitan or metro city. For e.g. Kanpur, Nagpur, Nasik, Madurai, Jaipur, etc.

Mega Cities Cities that have population more than 5 million are considered as ‘megacities’ or ‘megalopolis’. For e.g. Greater Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangaluru, Hyderabad, etc.

Question 20.
Explain any three characteristics of clustered rural settlement of India. Delhi 2015
OR
What type of rural settlements are generally found in the fertile alluvial plains of India? Mention any two features of such type of settlements. All India 2010
Answer:
Clustered or compacted settlements are generally found in the fertile alluvial plain.
The important features of these settlements are as follows:

1. In this type of rural settlements, space between the houses are less or they have no space. The houses in this type of settlement are closely built up often they share walls of their houses.
2. People live in a specific area of settlement. This living place can be surrounded by farms, barn or pastures. It compact settlements, many district settlement patterns can take place such as rectangular, linear, triangular, radial, etc.
3. This type of settlements generally develops in riverine fertile plain as they are more concentrated with a population.

Question 21.
Explain any three features of semi-clustered rural settlements of India. All Indio 2015
OR
Mention any three characteristics of semi-clustered rural settlements of India. Delhi 2010
Answer:
The characteristics of semi-clustered settlements in India are as follows:

1. Semi clustered settlements are developed by the concentration of houses in a special or restricted area of a dispersed settlement. These settlements can also be developed by the division of a large clustered settlements.
2. Semi clustered settlement can also be developed when a particular group start to live far from the centre or main village. In this condition, the dominant community or land owning community captures the most important part in the main village and may force others to live away.
3. In India, these types of settlements are mostly found in the plain of Gujarat and Rajasthan.

Question 22.
Give the meaning of ‘dispersed settlement’. Explain any two reasons for the development of such settlement in India. Delhi 2014
Answer:
In this type of settlements, space between the houses is more. There are some scattered houses in these settlements. In India, the dispersed settlements are found in the form of few huts in remote jungles, hills with farms or pastures. Reasons for the development of such settlements are:

1. Due to the extremely fragmented nature of terrain settlements developed.
2. Especially tribal people use to live in these isolated huts as their livelihood is fully dependent on nature.

Question 23.
What are ancient towns ? Give four examples of ancient towns of India. Delhi 2012
Answer:
Ancient towns of India have historical background of over 2000 years. These towns are emerged during the ancient period and were developed by the important ancient kings. Most of these were temple towns. Later, they had become the hub of religion and cultures. Varanasi, Prayag (Allahabad), Patliputra (Patna), Madurai, etc are some of the ancient towns that emerged in India during the ancient period.

Question 24.
Explain the evolution of towns in India in three points, AM India 2012
OR
Classify Indian towns on the basis of their evolution in three different periods. Name one town of each period. All Indio 2009
Answer:
The towns of India can be classified into the following groups on the basis of their evolution in different periods:
Ancient Towns These towns of India have historical background of over 2000 years. Varanasi, Prayag (Allahabad), Patliputra (Patna) Madurai, etc were developed by the ancient kings.

Medieval Towns These towns were developed during the medieval period of India by king and Sultans of India as their headquarter and making their administration strong, e.g. Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra etc.

Modem Towns These towns were developed by the Britishers and other Europeans in India like Surat, Daman and Goa, Kolkata, Mumbai, etc.

Later, after independence, some towns like Bhilai, Durgapur, Chandigarh, Gandhinagar were established.

Question 25.
Explain any three factors that determine the type of rural settlements in India. Delhi 2on
Answer:
Types of rural settlements in India are determined by the following factors:
Physical Factors It includes nature of the terrain, altitude from sea level, climate and availability of water.
Cultural and Ethnic Factors Among these factors, social structure, caste and religion are important in India.
Security Factors It includes protection from thefts and robbers.

Above factors make Indian, settlements different in the world. Rural settlements can be of few houses in India to thousands of houses. The form and structure of rural settlement are different in different parts of India.

Question 26.
Name any three factors that determine the clustered or compact rural settlement in India. All India 2011
Answer:
The three factors that determine the clustered or compact moral settlement in India are as follows:
Fertile Alluvial Plain It provides a plain surface where houses are easy to build. Plain can support more population. Fertile plain provides a more agricultural output which attracts more population to live and engage in agriculture. More concentration of population resulted in a compact or clustered rural settlements.

Water It is another reason that can cause people to live in a compact condition. Scarcity of water force people to live together and maximum utilise the available water, e.g. compact settlements of Rajasthan.

Security or Defence It is another reason that causes people to live in a compact settlement in more concentrated conditions, e.g. people of Bundelkhand region and Nagaland live in compact settlements to avoid robbery and theft.

Question 27.
Distinguish between clustered and dispersed rural settlements of India by stating three points of distinction of each. All India 2008
Answer:
Differences between clustered and dispersed rural settlements of India are as follows:

Map-Based Questions

Question 28.
Study the map of India given below carefully and answer the questions that follow. Delhi 2012

(i) Define the term metropolitan city.
(ii) Which state of India has the largest number of metropolitan cities? Name any two northern states of India which have no metropolitan city.
OR
(i) How many metropolitan cities are there in Maharashtra?
(ii) Which one of them is the largest metropolitan city?
(iii) Name the Easternmost metropolitan city of India as shown in the map.
OR
(i) Name the Northernmost, Southernmost and Westernmost metropolitan cities of the country and also name the states to which they belong.
Answer:
(i) Cities that have population more than one million but less than 5 million are considered as ‘metropolitan’ or ‘metro city’.
(ii) Uttar Pradesh has the largest number of metropolitan cities.
(iii) Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh, are the Northern states of India which do not have any metropolitan city.
OR
Answer:
(i) There are four metropolitan cities in the state of Maharashtra.
(ii) Among the metropolitan cities of Maharashtra state. Greater Mumbai is the largest one.
(iii) It is a Kolkata metropolitan city.

Question 29.
In the political outline map of India, locate and label the following with appropriate symbols.
(i) Which is the metropolitan city of Kerala? All Indio 2012
Answer:
(i) Kochi is the metropolitan city of Kerala state.

Data Based Questions

Question 30.
Study the diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Into how many classes are urban centres classified by the census of India?
(ii) Which class of urban centres has the largest urban population?
(iii) Which class of urban centres has the lowest urban population? Delhi 2008
OR
(i) Which class of cities has the highest percentage share in the total urban population?
(ii) Which class of cities has the second rank in the total population?
(iii) What is the population size of the second (II) class of cities? Delhi 2008
OR
(i) Find out percentage share of the urban population of class I cities from the diagrAnswer:
(ii) Which class of cities has the least percentage of total urban population?
(iii) What is the population size of class V cities? Delhi 2008
Answer:
(i) Census of India classifies urban centres into six classes.
(ii) The class I urban centres has the largest urban population.
(iii) Class IV urban centres have the lowest urban population.
OR
(i) Class I city has the highest percentage share in the total urban ‘ population.
(if) Class III city has the second rank in the total urban population.
(iii) The population size of the second (II) class of cities is from 50,000 – 99,999 persons.
OR
(i) The percentage share of the urban population of class I cities is 61.48%
(ii) Class VI of cities has the least percentage of the total urban population about 0.29%
(iii) The population size of class V cities is from 5000-9,999 persons.

Value Based Questions

Question 31.
“To earn livelihood people build houses and other structures and make their control over some areas and resources.” Identify the values given in the statement.
Answer:
Following value can be:

1. Economic welfare
2. Community relation
3. Social structure

Question 32.
“Rural settlement are mainly smaller in size and sparsely spaced. The people of these settlements are mainly engaged in primary activity”. Identify the values which lead to the development of the rural settlement.
Answer:
Following values can lead to the development of rural settlement:

1. Economic awareness
2. Livelihood generation
3. Family bonds

We hope the Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 14 Human Settlements help you. If you have any query regarding Geography Class 12 Important Questions Chapter 14 Human Settlements, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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NCERT Exemplar Class 7 Science Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 7 Science. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules.

NCERT Exemplar Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The rearing of silkworms for obtaining silk is called
(a) cocoon
(b) silk
(c) sericulture
(d) silviculture.
Solution:
(c) The breeding and management of silkworms for the production of silk is known as sericulture. Different types of silk, with different textures, are obtained from different varieties of silk moths.

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a type of silk?
(a) Mulberry silk
(b) Tassarsilk
(c) Mooga silk
(d) Moth silk
Solution:
(d) Mulberry silk, tassar silk, mooga silk and eri silk are different types of silk produced from cocoons of different types of silk moths. Moth silk is not a type of silk.

Question 3.
Paheli wanted to buy a gift made of animal fibre obtained without killing the animal. Which of the following would be the right gift
(a) Woollen shawl
(b) Silk scarf
(c) Animal fur cap
(d) Leather jacket
Solution:
(a): Wool can be obtained without killing the animal. It comes from the fleece/hair of wool yielding animals such as sheep, goat, yak, camel, rabbit, etc. Silk is obtained by killing the pupae. Fur and leather are animal products which are obtained from the skin of animals by killing them.

Question 4.
Silk fibre is obtained from
(a) fleece of sheep
(b) cotton ball
(c) cocoon
(d) shiny jute stalk.
Solution:
(c) Silk is a natural fibre which is obtained from the cocoons of silk moths.

Question 5.
Wool fibre cannot be obtained from which of the following?
(a) Goat
(b) Llama
(c) Alpaca
(d) Moth
Solution:
(d) Different wool yielding animals are sheep, goat, camel (Llama and Alpaca belong to camel family), rabbit, yak etc.

Question 6.
Selective breeding is the process of
(a) selecting the offsprings with desired properties
(b) selecting the parents with desired properties
(c) selecting an area for breeding
(d) selecting fine hair for good quality wool.
Solution:
(b) Selective breeding is the process of crossing of two selected varieties having different traits to produce a hybrid having good traits of both, e.g., some breeds of sheep possess only soft under-hair. Their parents are specially selected to give birth to sheep which have only soft under-hair.

Question 7.
The general process that takes place at a sheep shearing shed is
(a) removal of fleece
(b) separating hair of different textures
(c) washing of sheep fibre to remove grease
(d) rolling of sheep fibre into yarn.
Solution:
(a) Removal of the fleece from a sheep is called shearing. It can be done manually with a large razor or with a shearing machine.

Question 8.
The term sericulture is used for
(a) culture of bacteria
(b) rearing of silkworm
(c) making silk fabric from silk yarn
(d) production of sarees.
Solution:
(b) The breeding, rearing or management of silkworms for the production of silk is known as sericulture.

Question 9.
Reeling of silk is
(a) a process of making silk reels
(b) spinning of silk fibres
(c) weaving of silk cloth
(d) the process of taking silk threads from cocoon.
Solution:
(d) : The process of unwinding the silk filaments from the cocoon and combining them together to make a thread of raw silk is called reeling. For commercial purpose 3-10 fine filaments are reeled together at a time to produce desired diameters of raw silk or reeled silk. The final viable length of reeled filament is 300-600 m.

Question 10.
Silkworms secrete fibre made of
(a) fat
(b) cellulose
(c) protein
(d) nylon.
Solution:
(c) Salivary gland of the silkworm secretes fibre made up of protein sericin and fibroin.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 11.
Fill in the blanks in the following statements.
(a) ______ and ______ fibres are obtained from animals.
(b) Silk fibres come from ______ of silk ______ .
(c) Wool yielding animals bear ______ on their body.
(d) Hair trap a lot of ______ , which is a poor ______ of heat.
Solution:
(a) Silk, wool
(b) cocoons, moths
(c) hair
(d) air, conductor

Question 12.
State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct them.
(a) Silkworms are caterpillars of silk moth.
(b) In India, camels and goats are generally reared for obtaining wool.
(c) The rearing of silkworms for obtaining silk is called silviculture.
(d) In the process of obtaining wool from fleece, sorting is done after scouring.
(e) Yak hair are not used to make woollen fabric.
Solution:
(a) True
(b) False – In India, sheep are generally reared for obtaining wool.
(c) False – The rearing of silkworms for obtaining silk is called sericulture.
(d) True
(e) False – Yak hair are used to make woollen fabric.

Question 13.
How do the hair of certain animals help in keeping their bodies warm?
Solution:
The hair of the body of the certain animals trap a lot of air. Since air is a poor conductor of heat, this shields the body from cold and keeps it warm.

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 14.
Match the items of column I with the items given in column II.

Solution:
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (ii)
(d) (i)

Question 15.
Various steps involved to obtain wool from fleece are given here.
(i) Picking out the burrs
(ii) Dyeing in various colours
(iii) Shearing
(iv) Scouring
(v) Sorting
Write the above steps in the correct sequence in which they are carried out.
Solution:
(iii) Shearing
(iv) Scouring
(v) Sorting
(i) Picking out the burrs
(ii) Dyeing in various colours

Question 16.
Some words related with silk are jumbled up. Write them in their correct form.
(a) TURECULRISE
(b) WILSMORK
(c) BELMURRY
(d) RINGLEE
Solution:
(a) SERICULTURE
(b) SILKWORM
(c) MULBERRY
(d) REELING

Question 17.
Figure shows three rings of circles with letters in them. Some of these letters in each ring can form the name of one wool yielding animal. Find the names of these animals.
Solution:

Yak, camel, sheep

Question 18.
Write a caption for each of the figures given as ( a-d )

Solution:
(a) Eggs of silk moth on mulberry leaves
(b) Silkworm
(c) Cocoon
(d) Cocoon with developing moth

Question 19.
Steps for the production of silk are given below in a jumbled order. Arrange them in their proper sequence.
(a) Eggs are warmed to a suitable temperature for the larvae to hatch from eggs.
(b) Fibres are taken out from the cocoon.
(c) After 25 to 30 days, the caterpillars stop eating and start spinning cocoons.
(d) The larvae/caterpillars or silkworms are kept in clean trays along with freshly chopped mulberry leaves.
(e) Female silk moths lay eggs.
(f) Cocoons are kept under the sun or boiled in water.
Solution:
(e) Female silk moths lay eggs.
(a) Eggs are warmed to a suitable temperature for the larvae to hatch from eggs.
(d) The larvae/caterpillars or silkworms are kept in clean trays along with freshly chopped mulberry leaves.
(c) After 25 to 30 days, the caterpillars stop eating and start spinning cocoons.
(f) Cocoons are kept under the sun or boiled in water.
(b) Fibres are taken out from the cocoon.

Question 20.
A wholesale woollen fibre dealer gets the woollen fibre of different textures sorted for various purposes. Match the items in column I with the woollen fibre in column II.

Solution:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (i)
(c) – (ii)
(d) – (iv)

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 21.
Complete the paragraph related to the life history of silk moth by filling in the blanks.
The __(a)__ silk moth lays __(b)__, from which hatch called ___(c)___ or __(e)__. They grow in size and when the caterpillar is ready to enter the next stage of its life history called __(f)__ it first weaves a covering to hold itself, which is known as __(g)__.
Solution:
(a) female
(b) eggs
(c) larvae
(d)caterpillars
(e) silkworms
(f) pupa
(g) cocoon

Question 22.
Paheli went to the market to buy sarees for her mother. She took out a thread from the edge of the two sarees shown by the shopkeeper and burnt them. One thread burnt with a smell of burning hair and the other burnt with the smell of burning paper. Which thread is from a pure cotton saree and which one from a pure silk saree? Give reason for your answer.
Solution:
The thread which bums with the smell of burning hair is from pure silk saree and the thread which bums with the smell of burning paper is from pure cotton saree. It is because both silk and hair are protein fibres whereas both cotton and paper are carbohydrates.

Question 23.
Explain the phrase – “Unity is Strength” on the basis of the making of fabric from fibre.
Solution:
A fibre is a thin hair like strand. A large number of fibres are used to make fabric. The phrase – “Unity is strength” can be used in this regard because single fibre can be easily pulled and broken whereas fabric needs more energy to tear apart.

Question 24.
Write various steps for processing fibres into wool.
Solution:
Various steps for processing fibres into wool are:
(i) Shearing – The removal of wool or fleece from a sheep or other wool yielding animal is called shearing. It can be done manually with a large razor or with a shearing machine.
(ii) Scouring – The sheared hair is moved through tubs filled with soapy water to remove dust, dirt and grease. This is known as scouring. It is then passed through a series of rollers and dryers.
(iii) Sorting – Sorting consists of separating hair of different textures.
(iv) Removing burr – Burrs are soft fluffy fibres in wool. These are removed manually.
(v) Carding – During the process of carding, the clean selected wool fibres are passed through rollers that have thin wired teeth The teeth untangle the fibres and arrange them into a flat sheet called a web. The web is then formed into narrow untwisted fibres known as slivers.
(vi) Dyeing – The natural hair of sheep is white, brown or black. It is dyed in different colours.
(vii) Spinning – The fibres are straightened, combed and rolled into yam. The process of making yarn from fibres is called spinning.

Question 25.
Describe the life history of silk moth with the help of figures of various stages.
Solution:
The female silk moth lays eggs. When an egg hatches, a tiny caterpillar crawls out. This is the silkworm or larva. The silkworm feeds on mulberry leaves and grows. When it is ready to enter the next stage in its life cycle, it first weaves a net to hold itself. It then secretes a fibre made of proteins, which hardens on exposure to air. This is the silk fibre. It covers itself completely with this fibre, to form cocoon. At this stage, the larva is called a pupa. The pupa grows and changes inside the cocoon. A few weeks later, the cocoon opens and an adult moth comes out.

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CBSE Class 12 Geography Notes Chapter 2 The World Population is part of Class 12 Geography Notes for Quick Revision. Here we have given NCERT Geography Class 12 Notes Chapter 2 The World Population.

Geography Class 12 Notes Chapter 2 The World Population

Patterns of Population Distribution

• Population distribution means arrangement distribution of people over the earth’s surface. Population is not evenly distributed as 90 percent of the world’s population lives in about 10 percent of its land area.
• The 10 most populous countries of the world contribute about 60 per cent of the world’s population. Out of these 10 countries, 6 are located in Asia.

Density of Population

• This means the ratio between the number of people to the size of the land. It is usually measured in persons per sq km density of population/area. Some areas are densely populated like North-Eastern USA, North-Western Europe, South, South-West and East Asia.
• Some areas are sparsely populated like near the polar areas and high rainfall zones near the equator while some areas have medium density like Western China, Southern India, Norway, Sweden, etc.

Factors Influencing Population Distribution

The population distribution is influenced by three factors i.e., geographical factors, economic factors and social and cultural factors.

Geographical Factors

Environmental or natural factors such as landforms, fertile soil, suitable climate for cultivation and availability of adequate source of fresh water are the geographical factors that affect the population distribution. Some geographical factors are:
Land Forms Flat Plains and gentle slopes are preferred by people, because these are favorable for the production of crops and to build roads and industries.

Climate Area with less seasonal variation attract more people.
Soil Area which have fertile loamy soil have more people living on them as these can support intensive agriculture.
Water People prefer to live in areas where fresh water is easily available. Because, it is the most important factor for life.

Economic Factors

Places having employment opportunities like 1 mineral rich areas, industrial units and urban centres have high concentration of population. Some economic factors are:
Industrialisation Industries provide job opportunities and attract large numbers of ‘ people.
Minerals Minerals deposits attract industries 1 mining and industrial activities generate
employment.
Urbanisation Good civic amenities and the attention of city life draw people to the cities.

Social and Cultural Factors

Places having religious importance and cultural significance are also very densely populated areas.

Population Growth

This refers to the change in number of inhabitants of a territory during a specific period of time. When change in population is expressed in percentage, then it is called Growth Rate of Population.
When there is an increase in population by taking the difference between births and deaths, then it is called Natural Growth of Population. There is also Positive Growth of Population which happens when birth rate is more than death rate and Negative Growth of Population when birth rate is lower than death rate.

Components of Population Change

There are three components of population change i.e., births, deaths and migration.

Crude Birth Rate [CBR]

Number of births in a year per thousand of population is expressed as Crude Birth Rate (CBR). It is calculated as:

Here, Bi= live Births during the year; P = Mid year population of the area.

Crude Death Rate (CDR)

Number of deaths in a year per thousand of population is expressed as Crude Death Rate (CDR). It is calculated as:

Here, D= Number of Deaths; P= Estimated mid-year population of that year.

Migration

It is movement of people across region on permanent, temporary or seasonal basis. The place they move is called place of origin and the place they move to is called place of destination.

Push and Pull Factors of Migration

The Push factors make the place of origin seem less attractive for reasons like unemployment, poor living conditions, political turmoil, unpleasant climate, natural disasters, epidemics and socio-economic backwardness.
The Pull factors make the place of destination seem more attractive than the place of origin for reasons like better job opportunities and living condition eace and stability, security of life and property and pleasant climate.

Trends in Population Growth

• Trends show that initially growth of population was very slow but after the improvement in Science and Technology, there had been tremendous growth in population which is called population explosion.
• About 8000 to 12000 years ago world population was 8 million and now it has reached to 7 billion.
• In every 12 years, 1 billion people are added. Increased agriculture and industrial production, inoculation against epidemics, improvement in medical facilities have reduced death rates.

Doubling Time of World Population

• Developed countries are taking more time to double their population as compared to developing countries.
• Oman, Saudi Arabia, Somalia, Liberia, Yemen have high population growth rates while Latvia, Estonia, Russia, Germany, etc have low growth rates.

Spatial Pattern of Population Change

• The world population growth rate is 1.4%, it is highest in Africa i.e. 2.6% and lowest in Europe i.e. 0.0% means neither grow nor decline.
• So even when a small annual rate is applied to very large population, it will lead to a large population change. There is negative correlation between economic development and population growth.

Impact of Population Change

High increase in population leads to problems like depletion of natural resources, unemployment and scarcity. Decline in population indicates that resources are insufficient to maintain a population.

Demographic Transition Theory

This theory studies the changes in the population of a region as it moves from high births and high deaths to low births and low deaths. This happens when a society progresses from rural agrarian and illiterate to urban, industrial and literate.
There are three-staged model of Demographic Transition Theory. They are:

First Stage

• This stage is marked by high fertility high mortality rate because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply.
• People are poor, illiterate and mostly engaged in agriculture. Life expectancy is low and population growth is slow.

Second Stage

• Level of technology increases and other facilities like medical, health, sanitation improves due to which the death rate reduces.
• But the fertility rate and birth rate remains high due to which there is huge rise in population. Population expands rapidly as there is wide gap between birth and death rate.

Third Stage

• The birth and death rate both reduces and the population moves towards stability.
• People become literate, urbanised and control the size of the family. There is good judicious use of technology also.

Population Control Measures

• Family planning is the spacing and preventing the birth of children. Thomas Malthus theory (1793) states that the number of people would grow faster than the food supply thus leading to famine, diseases and war.
• Therefore, it is essential to control the population. This is undertaken through measures like awareness for family planning, free availability of contraceptives, tax disincentives and active propaganda.

We hope the given CBSE Class 12 Geography Notes Chapter 2 The World Population will help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Geography Class 12 Notes Chapter 2 The World Population, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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CBSE Class 12 Geography Notes Chapter 3 Population Composition is part of Class 12 Geography Notes for Quick Revision. Here we have given NCERT Geography Class 12 Notes Chapter 3 Population Composition.

Geography Class 12 Notes Chapter 3 Population Composition

Sex Composition

• Sex composition refers to the number of men and women in a country. It is taken out as a sex ratio which is the ratio between the number of men and women. It is calculated by the formula:
  
• Sex ratio in the world is 990 females per 1000 males’with highest in Latvia (1187 females per 1000 males) and lowest in UAE (468 females per 1000 males).
• The sex ratio is unfavourable in 72 countries of the world as there is gender discrimination leading to female foeticide, female infanticide as well as low economic status of women.
• In general, Asian countries like China, India have low sex ratio while European countries have higher sex ratio.

Age Structure

The age structure of a population refers to the number of people of different age groups. It is divided into three groups i.e. children (0-14 years), adult or working population (15-59 years) and old or ageing population (60 years and above).

Age-sex Pyramid

The age-sex pyramid refers to the number of females and males in different age groups. The characteristic of a population is shown by population pyramid. The pyramid is interpreted in the following ways:
Expanding Population A triangular pyramid with a wide base due to high birth rate is mostly in less developed countries like Nigeria, Mexico and Bangladesh.
Constant Population A bell shaped pyramid and tapered towards the top shows almost equal birth and death rates like in Australia.
Declining Population A pyramid with narrow base and top wife a wider central part shows low birth and death rates. This is in developed countries like Japan.

Rural Urban Composition

• The division of rural and urban areas based on residence, indicates the pattern of occupations and social conditions. People are predominantly engaged in primary activities in rural areas while in urban areas majority of working population is engaged in non-primary activities.
• In developed countries like Canada, West European countries, females outnumber males in urban areas while in developing countries like Nepal and Pakistan, it is vice versa.

Literacy

• Level of literate population of a country indicates the standard of living, social status of females, availability of educational facilities.
• In India literacy rate is the percentage of population above 7 years who are able to read, write and do arithmetic calculations.

Occupational Structure

• This is proportional distribution of working population (age group 15 to 59) in various occupations. Agriculture, forestry, fishing and mining are classified under primary activities.
• Manufacturing as secondary activity, transport, communication and other services as tertiary and jobs related to research and developing ideas are quaternary activities. In developed economics more number of people are engaged in secondary, tertiary and quaternary sector than primary.

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CBSE Class 12 Geography Notes Chapter 4 Human Development is part of Class 12 Geography Notes for Quick Revision. Here we have given NCERT Geography Class 12 Notes Chapter 4 Human Development.

Geography Class 12 Notes Chapter 4 Human Development

Growth and Development

• Growth and development refers to changes over a period of time but the difference between growth and development is that growth is quantitative but development is qualitative. Therefore, development is always positive.
• Development cannot take place unless there is an increment or addition to the existing conditions, but growth can be positive, negative or neutral, positive growth does not always led to development.
• Development occurs when there is a positive change in qualities. Earlier economic growth and development of country was seen as one but now they are studied separately.

Human Development

• This concept was introduced by Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq in 1990. Human development is described as that which enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives, thus creating conditions where people can lead meaningful lives.
• This means that people develop talent, participate in society and be free to achieve their goals. According to Prof. Amartya Sen, the main objective of development is an increase in freedom. Freedom to make choices brings development, and social and political institutions play a major role in increasing freedom.
• Building people capabilities in health, education and equal access to resources increases freedom and enlarges choices.

Four Pillars of Human Development

The idea of human development is supported by the concepts of the following four pillars of development:
Equity It refers to equal access to opportunities available to everybody irrespective to their gender, race, income and caste.
Sustainability It means continuity in the availability of opportunities so that future generations can even use the present resources.
Productivity It means human labour which must be enriched by building capabilities in people.
Empowerment It means having the power to make choices which is possible by increasing freedom and capability.

Approaches to Human Development

There are four ways of looking at or approach the problems of human development. Some of the important approaches are:
Income Approach This approach links the development to incomes as it believes that income determines the level of freedom that one enjoys.
Welfare Approach Under this approach, government is responsible for providing basic facilities like health, education and amenities to people.
Basic Needs Approach In this approach, emphasis is on providing six basic needs i.e. health, education, food, water supply, ” sanitation and housing.
Capability Approach This approach is associated with Prof. Amartya Sen and aims to build human capabilities in health, education and-access to resources in order to increase human development.

Measuring Human Development

Following are the ways of measuring human development

Human Development Index

• Human development is measured through Human Development Index (HDI) which ranks the countries between 0 to 1 based on their performance in the key areas of health, education and access to resources.
• It is the sum total of the weights assigned to health, education and access to resources. Indicator to access health is life expectancy at birth, to access knowledge it is adult literacy rate and gross enrollment ratio and resources are measured in terms of purchasing power

Human Poverty Index

This index measures the shortfall in human development. The index is based on the probability of not surviving till 40, adult literacy rate, people not having access to clean drinking water and number of underweight children.

United Nations Development Programme

The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) since 1990, publishes the Human Development Report by measuring the Human Development Index and Human Poverty Index.

Gross National Happiness

This is Gross National Happiness (GNH) which is another measure of accessing human development and Bhutan is the only country in the world to measure the country’s progress through GNH. The GNH encourages the qualitative aspect of development.

International Comparisons

• On comparing the human development of different countries, it is revealed that the size of the territory and per capita income are not directly related to human development.
• For comparisons, the countries are classified into four groups on the basis of human development scores earned by them.

Very High Level of Human Development

• The countries scoring above 0.802 are categorised under it. There are 49 countries in this group.
• Top ten countries with very high value index are Norway, Australia, Netherlands, United States, New Zealand, Canada, Ireland, Liechtenstein, Germany and Sweden.
• The countries in this group provide education and healthcare which is an important government priority as well as invest a lot in the social sector.

High Level of Human Development

• Countries scoring between 0.702 and 0.801 are grouped under it. They are 56 in number.
• Good governance and lot of investment in social sector has led to high level of human development in these countries.

Medium Level of Human Development

• Countries scoring between 0.555 and 0.701 are grouped under it and there are 39 countries in this group. ‘
• Many of these countries were former colonies and are facing political instability as well as high social diversity.

Low Level of Human Development

• Countries scoring below 0.554 are grouped under it and there are 44 countries in it. These countries are going through political turmoil, social instability, civil war, famine or high incidence of diseases.
• Internal comparisons reveal that the culture, religion or community are non-determinants of human development. Rather, pattern of government expenditure on the social sector, political environment, amount of freedom people have and the distribution of resources play a decisive role in the level of human development.

We hope the given CBSE Class 12 Geography Notes Chapter 4 Human Development will help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Geography Class 12 Notes Chapter 4 Human Development, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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