TBSE Madhyamik Result 2019: The Tripura Board of Secondary Education (TBSE) will release the results of Tripura Madhyamik examination in June. The results will be declared online on the official website tripuraresults.nic.in or tbse.in. TBSE Madhyamik Results will be declared on June 8th, 2019.

Direct Link to Check TBSE Madhyamik Result 2019

State Board Results

TBSE Madhyamik Result 2019 Latest Updates

7th June 2019: TBSE is all set to release the TBSE 10th result @ tbse.in. Officials will conduct a press conference tomorrow and release the result by 9 am. The TBSE result link will be published on the official website at most by  9:45 am. Candidates can check their TBSE result on the official website, SMS and the result may also be published on the daily newspapers.

2nd June 2019: Tripura board YBSE 10th result releasing soon! Stay tuned.

3rd May 2019: According to The Indian Express, the board secretary Pradip Sengupta said that the TBSE will release the TBSE Class 10 (Madhyamik Examination) result by the second week of June 2019.

You Can Download your TBSE Madhyamik Results from the links below

1. tbse.in
2. tsu.trp.nic.in
3. tripuraresults.nic.in
4. tripurainfo.com

TBSE Madhyamik Results Timeline

TBSE Class 10 Results How to Check the Results?

The results of TBSE Class 10 Examination will be available online on in tripuraresults.nic or tbse.in

Follow the steps given below to check the results.

1. Go to the official website tripuraresults.nic and tbse.in
2. Enter your roll number in the space provided..
3. Click on “Get Result”
4. The result page will open

Details Mentioned on TBSE Class 10 Scorecard

The following information will be listed on the results page of the candidate

1. Student’s Name
2. Name of the School and Code
3. Parent’s Name
4. Subject wise marks obtained in each subject
5. Total Marks Obtained
6. Qualifying Status

TBSE Class 10 Revaluation and Recheck

The students who aren’t satisfied with the results can apply for a recheck. The forms and other details will be up on the website soon after the declaration of results. The candidates can avail the service by paying a nominal fee.

TBSE Class 10 Supplementary Exam

The candidates who are unable to get the minimum qualifying marks will get a second chance in the supplementary exams. The schedule will be up shortly after the results.

We hope the detailed article on Maharashtra TBSE Madhyamik Result 2019 is helpful. If you have any doubt regarding this article or TBSE Madhyamik Result 2019, drop your comments in the comment section below and we will get back to you as soon as possible.

The post TBSE Madhyamik Result 2019 Releasing on 8th June | Check TBSE Result For Class 10 @ tripuraresults.nic.in appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Electric Current and Its Effects Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 14

Electric Current and Its Effects Class 7 Science Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention the name of the two devices that work on the basis of magnetic effects of current.
Answer:
The devices that work on the basis of magnetic effects of current are loudspeaker and electric bell.

Question 2.
Name the device used these days in place of eiectric fuses in electrical circuits.
Answer:
The device used in these days in place of electric fuse is MCB (Miniature Circuit Breaker).

Question 3.
State the property of a conducting wire is utilised in making electric fuse. INCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Electric fuse wire is made up of special material which has low melting point. As if high amount of current is passed, it melts to disconnect the electric circuit and prevent us from causing any damage.

Question 4.
Explain why are CFLs (Compact Fluorescent Lamps) preferred over electric bulbs. [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
Compact fluorescent lamps are preferred over electric bulbs because electric bulbs use more power of electricity and it also losses electrical energy in the form of heat but it is not so in compact fluorescent lamps.

Question 5.
Name the type of mark for which we should look at an electrical appliance before buying, [HOTS]
Answer:
ISI mark is a mark for which we should look at an electrical appliance before buying.

Question 6.
Briefly mention which part of the symbol of battery shows positive and negative terminals?
Answer:

The positive terminal is represented by longer vertical line while negative terminal is represented by shorter vertical line.

Question 7.
Briefly state the effects of electricity.
Answer:
The three effects of electricity are

• Chemical effect
• Heating effect
• Magnetic effect

Question 8.
When does a circuit is said to be overloaded?
Answer:
It is overloaded by connecting too many devices to it. When too many devices get connected, then a circuit is said to be overloaded.

Question 9.
Why is an electric fuse required in all electrical appliance? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Electric fuse is required in all electrical appliances to prevent damage from excessive current flow and during short circuit.

Question 10.
Give the name any two electrical appliances in which electromagnets are used.
Answer:
Electric fan and electrical motor are the electrical appliances in which electromagnets are used.

Question 11.
Paheli does not have a night lamp in her room. She covered the bulb of her room with a towel in the night to get dim light. Has she taken the right step? Give one reason to justify your answer. [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
No, she has not taken the right step. Because due to excessive heat of bulb, the towel may burn and it also results in the wastage of electrical energy.

Question 12.
The nails attract the pins. Comment.
Answer:
When the current is passed through the wire wound on the nail, it behave as electromagnet. Due to this reason, the nails attract the pins.

Question 13.
Name the scientist who discovered the magnetic effect of electric current.
Answer:
The scientist who discovered the magnetic effect of electric current is Hans Christian Oersted.

Question 14.
If the filament of the bulb is broken, would the circuit be complete? Would the bulb still glow?
Answer:
If the filament of the bulb is broken, the circuit will not be complete.
So, the bulb will not glow.

Question 15.
Name some electric appliances where the heating effect of the electric current is used.
Answer:
Some of the electric appliances where the heating effect of the electric current is used are electric heater, geyser, micro-oven, room heater, boiler, etc.

Question 16.
If the current through the coil stops flowing. Will the coil remain an electromagnet?
Answer:
When the current through the coil stops flowing, the coil does not remain an electromagnet.

Question 17.
State whether the bulb glows when the circuit is opened.
Answer:
No, the bulb does not glow when the circuit is opened. The bulb glows only when the circuit is closed.

Question 18.
What happens to the current in a circuit at the time of short circuit?
Answer:
The value of the current in a circuit increases heavily at the time of short circuit.

Question 19.
We should not touch the lighted bulb. Explain, why.
Answer:
The lighted bulb connected to main supply should not be touched by our hand directly, as a lighted bulb can be very hot and can burn our hand as well.

Electric Current and Its Effects Class 7 Science Extra Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name two electric devices for each where
(a) heating effect of current is used and
(b) magnetic effect of current is used. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) Heating effect of current is used in electric heater and geyser.
(b) Magnetic effect of current is used in electric bell and cranes to lift heavy magnetic materials from one place to other.

Question 2.
Why do we cover plug pinholes which are within the reach of children with cellotape or a plastic cover when not in use? [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
We do cover plug pinholes which are within the reach of children with cellotape or plastic cover to avoid electric shocks. If unconsciously, a child puts his finger in the electric socket, the shock may be fatal.

Question 3.
Can we use the same fuse in a geyser and a television set? Explain. [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
No, we cannot use same fuse in a geyser and in a television set because the fuse used in every appliances has some limit to withstand the current flows through it. So, different appliances have different fuses.

Question 4.
If cells are placed side by side. Then, how are the terminals of the cells connected?
Answer:
If cells are placed side by side, then with the help of some connecting wires, the positive terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of other to produce a combined power of all cells which can be called a battery.

Question 5.
Explain how a battery can be constructed.
Answer:
As we know that a battery is a combination of two or more cells and it can be constructed by placing cells property on cell holder in such a way that the positive terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of other.
A piece of wire is connected to each of the two metal clips on the cells holder.

Question 6.
Distinguish between an open circuit and a closed circuit.
Answer:
Difference between an open circuit and a closed circuit

Question 7.
Boojho made an electromagnet by winding 50 turns of wire over an iron screw. Paheli also made an electromagnet by winding 100 turns over a similar iron screw. Which electromagnet will attract more pins? Give reason. [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
Since the magnetic effect directly depends on the number of turns of the coil. As, Paheli’s coil has more number of turns than Boojho. So, her electromagnet is stronger than Boojho.
So, electromagnet of Paheli attracts more pins as compared to Boojho.

Question 8.
Does the electric current have other effect except heating? Name it.
Answer:
Yes, electric current have other effect except heating, i.e. magnetic effect of current.
When electric current is passed through a coil, there is a magnetic field developed around the coil or wire, if magnetic compass is placed near by, it deflects the magnetic needle.

Question 9.
Explain the following.
(a) Copper and aluminium wires are usually employed for electricity transmission. Explain the reason.
(b) Explain how does the resistance of a wire vary with its length.
(c) The tungsten is used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamp. Comment.
Answer:
(a) Due to the low resistance and strength of aluminium and coppers, both these metals are usually employed for the transmission of electricity.
(b) There is always an increase in the length of the wire with the increase in its resistance.
(c) Since tungsten has high melting point and high resistance. So, that is why, the tungsten is used exclusively for filament of electric lamp.

Question 10.
If we connect more cells in the circuit, then what will happen?
Answer:
If we connect more of cells in the circuit, then the nail will attract more pins. It is due to the reason that the current flowing through the wire wound on the nail will get increase which in turn will increase the strength of the electromagnet.

Question 11.
Electromagnets are better than permanent magnets. Explain why.
Answer:
An electromagnet can be switched OFF or switched ON as desired and this is not possible in the permanent magnets. That is why the electromagnets are better than the permanent magnets.

Question 12.
If the current flows through wire, does the wire behave like a magnet?
Answer:
When the current flows through any wire, a magnetic field is developed around that wire or coil and it behaves like magnet. It can be analysed by placing a magnetic compass around the wire, it will show deflection of the needle.

Question 13.
If current is passed through a coil, does the pins cling to the coil?
Answer:
When an electric current is passed through a coil, it gets magnetised due to phenomena of magnetic effect of current. When magnetic materials such as pins are placed near to it. It gets attracted by the coil or we can say that pins cling to the coil.

Question 14.
Batteries used in tractors, trucks and inverters are also made from cells. Then why it is called a battery? [HOTS]
Answer:
The cell is the unit of battery when more than one cell are combined together, it forms a battery. In trucks, tractors and inverters, cells are internally arranged and we need not to connect it externally, so we called it as batteries.

Electric Current and Its Effects Class 7 Science Extra Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
One day, Pinki was ironing the clothes in her room. After half an iron of ironing, the light went off and Pinki went outside to the lobby of her house to check it there was any problem in the household circuit. At the same time, she listened the voice of her 4 years old daughter from the same room where she was ironing the clothes. Her daughter was about to touch the hot electric iron but at the same moment, Pinki entered in the room and pushed her daughter back from that place.
(a) On which effect of electric current, does the electric iron works?
(b) Mention the values showed by Pinki here. [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) The electric iron works on the basis of heating effect of electric current.
(b) The values showed by Pinki here is a great concern and love towards her own 4 years old daughter.

Question 2.
Explain with the help of a diagram, how does the magnetic effect of electric current help in the working of an electric bell.
Answer:
In order to ring the bell first of all we press the push button switch in order to ring the bell. So, when we press the switch, then the electric circuit of the bell is completed and a current passes through the coil of the electromagnet and it gets magnetised. The electromagnet attracts the iron armature towards itself.

So, as the armature moves towards the poles of the electromagnet, the clapper attached to it strikes the gong and produces a ringing sound. It implies that the bell rings.

When the armature moves towards the magnet, its contact with the contact screw is broken. Due to this, the electric circuit breaks and no current flows in the electromagnet coil. The electromagnet loses its magnetism for a moment and the armature is no longer attracted by it. The flat spring brings back the iron armature to its original position and the clapper also moves away from the gong.

As soon as the armature comes back and touches the contact screw the circuit is completed and current starts flowing in the electromagnet coil again. The electromagnet attracts the iron armature once again and the clapper strikes the gong again producing a ringing sound.

So, this process of ‘make and break’ of the electric circuit continues as long as we are pressing the switch. Due to this, the armature vibrates forwards and backwards rapidly each time making the clapper strike the gong. Thus, the clapper strikes the gong rapidly producing almost continuous sound.

Question 3.
State one measure to avoid overloading in an electrical circuit. Also mention the name given to a situation in which the live and the neutral wires accidently come in contact. Describe the role of a safety device in this situation.
Answer:
Overloading can be avoided if too many appliances are not connected to a single socket. Short circuiting is a name given to a situation in which the live and the neutral wires accidently come in contact.

Electric fuse is a safety device. When a short circuit takes place or when overloading takes place, then the current becomes large and heats the fuse wire too much and thus, it gets melted and circuit breaks which prevents the damage of the wiring and electrical appliances.

Question 4.
Paheli took a wire of length 10 cm. Boojho took a wire of 5 cm of the same material and thickness both of them connected with wires as shown in the circuit given in figure. The current flowing in both the circuits is the same.
(a) Will the heat produced in both the cases be equal? Explain.
(b) Will the heat produced be the same, if the wires taken by them are of equal lengths but of different thickness? Explain.

Answer:
(a) No, the amount of heat produced in both the wires will be different because amount of heat produced in a wire on passing electric current depends on the length of wire and here length is different for both the wires.
(b) No, the amount of heat produced in the wire of same length but different thickness cannot be same because amount of heat produced in a wire also depends on the thickness of the wire.

Question 5.
Last Sunday, Pulpit was playing videotape in his room. While playing, the electricity of his house went off due to which he could not able to see anything around him. Then anyhow, he managed to get his mobile in his hand and with the help of its light, he went outside of his room to check if there was any problem in the electric circuit board of his house.
At the same time, his father suggested him to maintain the distance from the circuit board and decided to call some electrician to check the problem.
(a) Explain, what happens when live wire and neutral wire touches each other directly?
(b) State the values here showed by Pulkit’s father. [Value Bated Question]
Answer:
(a) When live and neutral wire touches each other directly then it leads to short circuit in which the large amount of current flows through the household wiring and this large current may heat the wires to a dangerously high temperature and a fire may be started.
(b) Pulkit’s father seems very sensible in taking the decisions and he showed a very great concern towards his son.

Electric Current and Its Effects Class 7 Science Extra Questions Miscellaneous Questions

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Choose the statement which is not correct in the case of an electric fuse. [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Fuses are inserted in electric circuits of all buildings
(b) There is a maximum limit on the current which can safely flow through the electric circuits
(c) There is a minimum limit on the current which can safely flow in the electric circuits
(d) If a proper fuse is inserted in a circuit it will below off if current exceeds the safe limit
Answer:
(c) There is a minimum limit on the current which can safely flow in the electric circuits

Question 2.
Circuit breaker device which can be used in place of fuse in domestic electric wiring is called
(a) DCB
(b) MCD
(c) MCB
(d) BCM
Answer:
(c) MCB

Question 3.
If the number of turns in the coil of an electromagnet is more, the strength of the electromagnet will be
(a) lesser
(b) greater
(c) double
(d) same
Answer:
(b) greater

Question 4.
When an electric current flows through a copper wire AB s shown in figure, the wire [NCERT Exemplar]

(a) deflects a magnetic needle placed near it
(b) becomes red hot
(c) gives electric shock
(d) behaves like a fuse
Answer:
(a) deflects a magnetic needle placed near it

Question 5.
Which of the following precautions need not be taken while using electric gadgets/ appliances/circuit? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) We should never touch a lighted electric bulb connected to the mains
(b) We should never do experiment with the electric supply from the mains or a generator or an inverter
(c) We should never use just any wire or strip of metal in place of a fuse
(d) We should never turn the switch in ON position
Answer:
(d) We should never turn the switch in ON position

Question 6.
When a switch is in OFF position, [NCERT Exemplar]
(i) circuit starting from the positive terminal of the cell stops at the switch
(ii) circuit is open
(iii) no current flows through it
(iv) current flows after sometime
Choose the combination of correct answer from the following.
(a) All are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) Only (iv) is correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 7.
Which of the following characteristic is most suitable material for making the care of an electromagnet?
(a) Brass
(b) Aluminium
(c) Iron
(d) Steel
Answer:
(c) Iron

Question 8.
A battery is a combination of
(a) only single cell
(b) only two cells
(c) two or more cells
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) two or more cells

Question 9.
The coil of wire contained in heater is known as
(a) circuit
(b) component
(c) spring
(d) element
Answer:
(d) element

Fill in the Blanks
1. Our body is a ……………… of electricity.
2. An electric cell produces electricity from the ……………… in it. [NCERT Exemplar]
3. In an electric circuit, a fuse is a ………………, ……………… to prevent possible fire.
4. A combination of two or more cells is called a ……………… . [NCERT Exemplar]
5. The core of an electromagnet is made from ……………… .
Answers:
1. good conductor
2. chemicals stored
3. safety device
4. battery
5. iron

True/False
1. CFLs consume more electricity than an ordinary bulb.
2. A fuse is used to save energy in the electric circuits.
3. When an electric current flows through a wire, it behaves like a magnet.
4. The key or switch can be placed anywhere in the circuit.
5. A car battery is just one big cell.
6. MCB works on the magnetic effect of current.
7. The element of an electric iron is made of tungsten.
8. Electric fuse is based on the magnetic effect of electric current.
Answers:
1. False, since CFLs consume less electricity than electric bulb.
2. False, an electric fuse is used to prevent an electrical circuit from overloading and hence short circuit.
3. True
4. True
5. False, a car battery is a combination of cells.
6. True
7. False, as the element of an electric bulb is made of tungsten.
8. False, because electric fuse is based on the heating effects of electric current.

Match the Columns

Question 1.
Match the statements in Column I with those in Column II.

Answers
1.
(a)-(ii)
(b)-(i)
(c)-(iv)
(d)-(iii)
(e)-(v)
(f)-(vi)
(g)-(vii)

Extra Questions for Class 7 Science

The post Electric Current and Its Effects Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 14 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Light Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 15

Light Class 7 Science Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Briefly mention whether mirror change the direction of light.
Answer:
Yes, when a ray of light is incident on the mirror surface, then the mirror changes the direction of light.

Question 2.
The image formed by a lens is always virtual, erect and smaller in size for an object kept at different positions in front of it. Identify the nature of the lens. (NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Such types of lenses which always form virtual, erect and smaller image in spite of the different positions of an object are called concave lens.

Question 3.
Observe the given figures carefully.

The given figures show the path of light through lenses of two different types represented by rectangular boxes A and B. What is the nature of lenses A and B ? [NCERT Examplar]
Answer:
Since, in first case light rays are converging towards a point, so the lens A will be convex and in case of lens 8, light rays diverge or spread out. So, the lens will be concave lens.

Question 4.
Name the colours include in the composition of sunlight.
Answer:
As we know that sunlight consists of mixture of seven colours (i.e. VIBGYOR).

Question 5.
In the formation of a rainbow, what acts as tiny prisms?
Answer:
In the formation of a rainbow, the raindrops suspended in the atmosphere acts as tiny prism.

Question 6.
Briefly mention what makes things visible to us.
Answer:
When a light ray falls on an object, then reflected light ray which comes from the object when A falls on our eys, allows us to see things around us.

Question 7.
Name the type of lens which diverges a beam of parallel rays of light.
Answer:
The lens which diverges a beam of parallel rays of light is a concave lens.

Question 8.
Is the image formed by a plane mirror is always upright?
Answer:
Yes, the image formed by the plane mirror is always upright.

Question 9.
Explain why are concave and convex mirrors called spherical mirrors.
Answer:
Concave and convex mirrors are the parts of sphere whose one side is polished or silvered. So, they are called spherical mirrors.

Question 10.
Is it possible to obtain the image on the screen when the candle is too closed to the concave mirror?
Answer:
No, when the candle is too closed to the concave mirror.

Question 11.
Can you get a real image at any distance of the object from the convex mirror?
Answer:
No, we cannot get a real image for any position of an object from the mirror because convex mirror always forms virtual, erect and diminished image in spite of the position of object.

Question 12.
Can you name the mirrors used as side mirrors in scooters?
Answer:
Yes, in the side mirror of scooters, convex mirror is used to have a wider field of view of the traffic.

Question 13.
Explain why concave mirror is known as a converging mirror.
Answer:
Concave mirror is known as a converging mirror because it converges a beam of parallel rays of light (reflecting from it) at one point.

Question 14.
Name the phenomenon that is involved in the formation of image of an object by a concave mirror.
Answer:
Reflection of light is the name of a phenomenon which is involved in the formation of image of an object by a concave mirror.

Question 15.
Mention the type of image formed on a cinema screen.
Answer:
Real image is an image which is formed on a cinema screen.

Question 16.
As we know that an image is formed by the actual intersection of rays and can be obtained on the screen. So, state whether it is real or virtual image.
Answer:
Since, after the actual intersection of rays, the image obtained on the screen is always real image.

Question 17.
State in brief about the term lens.
Answer:
A transparent material which is bounded by both or one spherical surface is known as a lens.

Question 18.
Name the phenomenon that is involved in the formation of image of an object by a convex lens.
Answer:
Refraction of light is the name of a phenomenon which is involved in the formation of image of an object by a convex lens.

Question 19.
Give the form of energy that produces the sensation of vision.
Answer:
Light energy is the form of energy which produces the sensation of vision.

Question 20.
What type of mirror is used as a side mirror in a scooter? Why is this type of mirror chosen? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Convex mirror is used as a side mirror in a scooter because it can form images of objects spread over a larger area.
So, this helps the driver to view the traffic over a large area behind them.

Question 21.
Briefly mention how many types of lens are there. Explain each of them.
Answer:
There are two types of lenses.
The lens which is thinner in the middle than at the edges is called a concave lens while the lens
which is thicker in the middle than at the edges is called a convex lens.

Question 22.
Consider if one half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper, then state whether this lens produces a complete image of the object.
Answer:
If one half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper, then yes, the convex lens will produce the complete image of the object.

Question 23.
Briefly tell that how many reflected rays can be obtained from a single incident ray in respect of a plane mirror.
Answer:
For a single incident ray, there will be only one reflected ray that can be obtained in respect of a plane mirror.

Question 24.
State in brief what we can demonstrate by rotating Newton’s colour disc very fastly.
Answer:
By rotating Newton’s colour disc, we can demonstrate that when seven colours are mixed together, then a white colour is formed.

Question 25.
Mention the name of lens whioh can converge the sun’s rays to a point and burn a hole in the piece of paper. (HOTS]
Answer:
Convex lens is a lens which can converge the sun’s rays to a point and burn a hole in the piece of paper.

Question 26.
An erect and enlarged image of an object is formed on a screen. Explain how this could be possible.
Answer:
An erect and enlarged image of an object is formed only by the concave mirror or convex lens when object is inverted and placed between F and 2F.

Light Class 7 Science Extra Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
The distance between an object and a convex lens is changing. It is noticed that the size of the image formed on a screen is decreasing. Is the object moving in a direction towards the lens or away from it? (NCERT Examplar; HOTS]
Answer:
In case of convex lens, when we move the object far away from the lens, the size of image decreases and ultimately, when object is at infinity, it will form a point image at focus.

Question 2.
Two different types of lenses are placed on a sheet of newspaper. How will you identify them without touching? [HOTS]
Answer:
On identifying the letters of newspaper, we can differentiate the two types of lenses.
If image is large or magnified, then the lens is a convex lens and if the image is smaller or diminished in size for all the positions of object, then the lens is concave .

Question 3.
Briefly state the characteristics of image formed by a plane mirror.
Answer:
Characteristics of the Images Formed by a Plane Mirror
Now, we will describe the various characteristics of the images formed in a plane mirror by taking the example of the image of the candle.

• When we see the mirror, the image of candle appears to be formed behind the mirror.
• Now, pW a vertical screen behind the plane mirror (where the image of candle appears to be situated), then we will notice that the image of candle cannot be formed on the screen. Even if the screen is placed in front of the plane mirror, then the image of candle cannot be formed on the screen. Since, the image of candle formed in the plane mirror cannot be formed on a screen, which means that the image of candle in the plane mirror is a virtual image.
• If we see the figure, then we will find that the length and breadth of the image of the candle and its flame to be the same as that of the original candle and its flame. The image of candle in the plane mirror is of the same size as the original candle.
• Also if we see the figure, then we will find that the candle has a flame at the top and the image of candle also has a flame at the top. So, the top of candle remains at the top in the image. In the same way, the bottom of candle remains at the bottom in an image. Such an image is called an erect image (or upright image). Therefore, the image formed by a plane mirror is erect.

Question 4.
The side mirror of a scooter got broken. The mechanic replaced it with a plane mirror. Mention any inconvenience that the driver of the scooter will face while using it. [NCERT Examplar; HOTS]
Answer:
As we know that the side mirror of a scooter must be of convex mirror so that we can view a wide range of traffic spread over a large area. But if plane mirror is used, we are not able to see large area of traffic which may be difficult for driving vehicle and can cause accident.

Question 5.
We need a shiny surface for reflection. Explain why.
Answer:
Since, the extent of reflection depends upon the shine and smoothness of the surface. So, greater the shining and smoothness of the surface, greater will be the reflection. So, this is a reason why we require a shiny surface for reflection.

Question 6.
Differentiate between a plane mirror, concave mirror and a convex mirror without touching them.
Answer:
These mirrors can be differentiated by bringing our face close to each mirror turn by turn. Since, a plane mirror will produce an image of the same size as our face while a concave mirror will produce a magnified image and our face will look much bigger and on other sides, a convex mirror will produce a diminished image and our face will look much smaller like a small child.

Question 7.
The concave reflecting surface of a torch got rusted. What effect would this have on the beam of light from the torch? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
If the reflecting surface of a torch got rusted, it produces diffused light with lower intensity and the objects are not clearly visible in this diffused and lower intensity of light.

Question 8.
Mention the type of image
(a) which can be formed on the screen.
(b) which cannot be formed on the screen.
Answer:
(a) The image which can be formed on the screen is real image.
(b) The image which cannot be formed on the screen is virtual image.

Question 9.
Mention any two letters of English alphabet whose image formed in a plane mirror appears exactly similar to the letters.
Answer:
Since, image formed by the plane mirror shows lateral inversion, i.e. left seems to right or vice-versa. But in the case of alphabets A and H, these letters show the same image in the plane mirror.

Question 10.
A shopkeeper wanted to fix a mirror which will give a maximum view of his shop. What type of mirror should he use? Give reason.
[NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
If a shopkeeper wanted to fix a mirror which will give him maximum view of his shop, he should use convex mirror.
In case of convex mirror, it will give a wider field of view, i.e. it can collect light from a large area spread over them.

Question 11.
State the correct sequence (1-7) of colours in the spectrum formed by the prisms A and B shown in the figure.

Answer:
When a white light is passed through a prism, it disperses into its seven constituent colours.

Question 12.
Suppose we wish to obtain the real image of a distant tree. Explain two possible ways in which we can do it. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:

• In first case, we will use a concave mirror, as we know that concave mirror can form real image, i.e. image on screen. The image of distant tree will be at focus in case of concave mirror.
• In second case, we can use a convex lens as it forms real image of a distant object at focus, i. e. image of distant tree in case of convex lens will be formed at focus.

Question 13.
Explain the term lateral inversion.
Answer:
When an image is formed by the mirror in such a way that the left side of image is object’s right side and right side of image is object’s left side. So, this process of change in the sides of the object as well as of image is known as lateral inversion.

Question 14.
State the characteristics of images formed by a concave mirror.
Answer:
The characteristics of image formed by a concave mirror are:

• The image formed by a concave mirror is not always the same size as the object. It can be either larger or smaller depending on the distance of the object to the mirror.
• The image formed by a concave mirror is inverted when the object is kept far from the mirror. So, when it is brought very close to the concave mirror, then an erect and enlarged image is formed.

Question 15.
Boojho made light from a laser torch to fall on a prism. Will he be able to observe a band of seven colours? Explain with a reason. [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
No, he will not observe band of seven colours because laser light consists of monochromatic light of single colour.
But seven colours of bands are only observed, when a white light is passed through a prism and dispersion takes place.

Question 16.
Briefly explain why in ambulance words are written laterally inverted. [HOTS]
Answer:
In case of mirror, the image formed by it is laterally inverted, i.e. left seems to be right and right seems to be left. So, in ambulance there is emergency for patients to reach hospital and by viewing in rear mirror, it can be easily identified of a vehicle and everyone give him a way.

Question 17.
Assume, a person is standing in front of a plane mirror. The distance between the mirror and his image is 6 m. If the person moves 2 m towards the plane mirror, what would be the distance between the person and his image? [HOTS]
Answer:
Since, the image is 6m away from the plane mirror. So, it means that the object is also 6m away from the mirror.

[Because OP = PI]
So, when the person moves 2 m towards the plane mirror, then the distance between the person and the plane mirror will be equal to (6 m – 2 m) = 4 m, this means that distance between the image and the mirror will be 4m.

The distance between the person and his image = PO’+ PI’= 4 + 4 = 8m

Light Class 7 Science Extra Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain with the help of an activity that when seven colours are mixed together, then white colour is formed.
Answer:
Firstly, take a circular cardboard disc of about 10 cm diameter, then divide this disc into seven equal segments and paint the seven colours of white light (red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet) on these segments (as shown in figure given ). Instead of painting the segments, we can also paste seven coloured papers on these segments. So, this disc painted with the seven colours of spectrum is called Newton’s disc. Now, make a small hole at the centre of the disc.

Fix the disc loosely on the tip of a refill of a ball pen. Be confirm that the disc can rotate freely. Now, rotate the disc quickly in day light. So, when the disc is rotated very fast, then all the seven colours mix together due to which the disc appears to be white (see figure). Therefore, the rapid rotation of Newton’s colour disc tells us that mixing of seven colours of the spectrum can give us white light.

Question 2.
It was observed that when the distance between an object and a lens decreases, the size of the image increases. What is the nature of this lens? If you keep on decreasing the distance between the object and the lens, will you still able to obtain the image on the screen? Explain. [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
On decreasing the distance between the object and lens, the size of the image increases, the nature of the lens will be convex type.
If the distance between object and lens is less than the focus of the lens, then it forms a virtual image and this image cannot be obtained on a screen but formed on the same side of the object.

Question 3.
Give the definition dispersion of light. Also, explain why does it take place? Draw a diagram to show the dispersion of white light by a glass prism.
Answer:
In the year 1665, Newton discovered by his experiments with glass prisms that white light (like sunlight) consists of a mixture of lights of seven colours. Newton found that if a beam of white light is passed through a glass prism, then the white light splits to form a band of seven colours on a white screen . The band of seven colours formed on a white screen, when a beam of white light is passed through a glass prism, is known as spectrum of white light. The seven colours of the spectrum are Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo and Violet .

So, dispersion of light is phenomenon of splitting up of white light into seven colours on passing through a transparent medium like a glass prism. The formation of spectrum of seven colours indicates that white light is a mixture of seven colours. White light can be sunlight. So, now we can say that the sunlight consists of seven colours.
We can mix these colours to get white light. This can be done by using Newton’s disc, let us try this.

Question 4.
You are given three mirrors of different types.
How will you identify each one of them? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
We can identify the mirrors by forming image of an object.

• Plane mirror In case of plane mirror, image will be virtual, erect and of same size as that of object.
• Concave mirror In case of concave mirror, image may be real, virtual and magnified or diminished.
• Convex mirror In case of convex mirror, image formed will always be virtual, erect and diminished.

Question 5.
Namit was driving a car and suddenly became aware of a loud sound coming from behind. He looked through his rear view mirror and saw an ambulance. He recalled reading that such emergency vehicles often have their name written in the mirror (AMBULANCE) or writing, i. e.
He quickly made way for the ambulance, murmuring a quick prayer for the speedy recovery of the patient inside the ambulance.
(a) Name the type of mirror which is used as a rear view mirror and why?
(b) Mention values did Namit exhibit. (Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) Convex mirror is a mirror which is used as a rearview mirror. It is used to get a wide view of traffic behind.
(b) The values exhibit by Namit here is courtesy concerned for other, sympathy, knowledgeable.

Question 6.
One day, Ramesh’s friend was performing their respective experiments given by their teacher. While sitting in the practical lab instead of performing experiment, Ramesh was playing with his meter scale. All the sudden, he held the scale in his hand and started moving in front of tubelight, then he observed the seven colours of white light. After sometimes, he got scolded by his lab teacher for not performing the experiment.
(a) Give the name of phenomenon that leads to the formation of band of seven colours.
(b) Name the constituent colours of white light.
(c) Mention the values shown by Ramesh here. (Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) Dispersion of white light is the name of phenomenon which leads to the formation of band of seven colours.
(b) There are seven constituent colours of white light, they are Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red (i.e. VIBGYOR).
(c) Ramesh seems to be quite innovative with respect to the scientific methods and also very eager to learn science regarding phenomena.

Question 7.
Last Sunday Girish’s mother, Priyanka was preparing the dinner in her kitchen for Girish and his father. Both of them were feeling so much hungry and they sat ideally on their respective chairs and having empty plates and spoons on their dinning table. They were shouting like a 5 years old child that they wanted the dinner so much eagerly in order to fulfil their stomach. At the sometime, Girish’s mother served the cooked food to both of them and the moment, when Girish was just about to eat the rice with the help of spoon, he noticed that the spoon has such a shining surface that it reflected the light rays incident on it.
(a) Explain the importance of shining surface in the reflection of light.
(b) Name the type of spherical mirror represented by the shining steel spoon.
(c) Mention the values shown by Priyanka here towards her family. [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) As we know that the extent of reflection depends upon the shining of surface. So, greater the shining of the surface, more will be the reflection.
(b) Both convex and concave mirrors are represented by the shining steel spoon.
(c) The values shown by Priyanka here is concern and a satisfaction that she gets after serving the cooked food to her son and her husband.

Light Class 7 Science Extra Questions Miscellaneous Questions

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Boojho and Paheli were given one mirror each by their teacher. Boojho found his image to be erect and of the same size, whereas Paheli found her image erect and smaller in size. This means that the mirrors of Boojho and Paheli respectively are [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) plane mirror and concave mirror
(b) concave mirror and convex mirror
(c) plane mirror and convex mirror
(d) convex mirror and plane mirror
Answer:
(c) plane mirror and convex mirror

Question 2.
Which of the following always diverge light rays?
(a) Convex mirror and plane mirror
(b) Concave lens and convex mirror
(c) Concave mirror and convex lens
(d) Concave lens and convex mirror
Answer:
(b) Concave lens and convex mirror

Question 3.
Which of the following would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
(a) A convex lens
(b) A convex mirror
(c) A concave lens
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Answer:
(a) A convex lens

Question 4.
if an object is placed at a distance of 0.5 m in front of a plane mirror, the distance between the object and the image formed by the mirror will be [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 2 m
(b) 1 m
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 0.25 m
Answer:
(b) The distance between object and mirror is given by 0.5 + 0.5= 1 m.

Question 5.
A virtual image
(a) can be formed on the screen
(b) cannot be formed on the screen
(c) is formed only by a plane mirror
(d) is formed only by the convex mirror
Answer:
(b) cannot be formed on the screen

Question 6.
You are provided with a concave mirror, a convex mirror, a concave lens and a convex lens. To obtain an enlarged image of an object, you can use either
(a) concave mirror or convex mirror
(b) concave mirror or convex lens
(c) concave mirror or concave lens
(d) concave lens or convex lens
Answer:
(b) concave mirror or convex lens

Question 7.
A rainbow can be seen in the sky [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) when the sun is in front of you
(b) when the sun is behind you
(c) when the sun is overhead
(d) only at the time of sunrise
Answer:
(b) when the sun is behind you

Question 8.
An erect and enlarged image can be formed by
(a) only a convex mirror
(b) only a concave mirror
(c) only a plane mirror
(d) Both convex and concave mirrors
Answer:
(b) only a concave mirror

Question 9.
Which of the following can be used to form a real image?
(a) Only concave mirror
(b) Only plane mirror
(c) Only convex mirror
(d) Both concave and convex mirrors
Answer:
(a) Only concave mirror

Question 10.
You are provided with a convex mirror, a concave mirror, a convex lens and a concave lens. You can get an inverted image from [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) both concave lens and convex lens
(b) both concave mirror and convex mirror
(c) both concave mirror and convex lens
(d) both convex mirror and concave lens
Answer:
(c) both concave mirror and convex lens

Question 11.
An image formed by a lens is erect. Such an image could be formed by [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) convex lens provided the image is smaller than object
(b) concave lens provided the image is smaller than object
(c) concave lens provided the image is larger than object
(d) concave lens provided the image is of the same size
Answer:
(b) concave lens provided the image is smaller than object

Question 12.
The colour of light which is deviated the least by prism in the spectrum of white light is
(a) violet
(b) green
(c) yellow
(d) red
Answer:
(a) Since, red colour has the greatest wavelength, that’s why, it is deviated the least in the spectrum of white light.

Fill in the Blanks
1. There are ………………….. types of spherical mirrors.
2. Changing of left side of an object to right side of image is called …………………..
3. ………………….. lens is also known as a magnifying glass.
4. The change in the direction of light by a mirror is called ………………….. of light.
5. A ………………….. is a curved transparent or translucent device that causes rays to either converge or diverge.
6. Convex lenses are ………………….. in the middle than at the edges whereas concave lenses are in the middle than at the edges.
7. A prism splits light into ………………….. colours.
8. The inner surface of a steel spoon acts as a ………………….. mirror. [NCERT Exemplar]
9. The outer surface of a flat steel plate acts as a ………………….. mirror.
10. The outer shining surface of a round bottom steel bowl acts as a ………………….. mirror.
11. The inner surface of the reflector of a torch acts as a ………………….. mirror. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answers:
1. two
2. lateral inversion
3. Convex
4. reflection
5. lens
6. thicker, thinner
7. seven
8. concave
9. plane
10. convex
11. concave

True/False
1. A concave lens can be used to produce an enlarged and erect image.
2. A convex lens always produces a real image.
3. The sides of an object and its image formed by a concave mirror are always interchanged. [NCERT Exemplar]
4. An object can be seen only if it emits light. [NCERT Exemplar]
5. The image formed in a plane mirror is erect, enlarged and virtual.
6. A concave mirror always forms an erect and diminished image of the object.
7. The image formed in a plane mirror is behind the mirror.
8. A concave mirror is also known as a converging mirror.
9. A virtual image is larger than the object can be produced by a convex mirror.
10. The mirror which can form a magnified image of an object is both convex and concave mirrors.
11. In a convex spherical mirror, reflection of light takes place at a bent in surface.
Answers:
1. False, a concave lens can be used to produce an erect and diminished (smaller than the object image).
2. False, no, a convex lens does not always produce a real image because when the object is placed close to the convex lens, then the image formed by convex lens is virtual, erect and larger than the object.
3. True
4. False, an object can be seen even if the ray of light is emitted from some different sources of light and suffering the reflection from the object surface after getting incident on it.
5. False, the image formed in a plane mirror is always erect and virtual.
6. False, a concave mirror always forms an erect, virtual and enlarged (larger than the object) image.
7. True
8. True
9. False, an enlarged image is always larger than the object and is always formed by a concave mirror.
10. False, a concave mirror is a mirror which forms the magnified image of an object.
11. False, in a convex spherical mirror, reflection of light takes place out the bent out (bulging out) surface.

Match the Columns
Question 1.
Match the Columns I with Column II.

Answers:
1.
(a)-(vi)
(b)-(v)
(c)-(iv)
(d)-(iii)
(e)-(i)
(f)-(ii)

Extra Questions for Class 7 Science

The post Light Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 15 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Water: A Precious Resource Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 16

Water: A Precious Resource Class 7 Science Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Suggest one traditional way of storing water from ancient time.
Answer:
In ancient times, people used to make Bawris to store water.

Question 2.
What is the source of water in each of the following? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Wells
(b) Ground
(c) Atmosphere
Answer:
(a) The source of water in wells is groundwater.
(b) The source of water on ground is rain.
(c) The source of water in atmosphere is evaporation.

Question 3.
The earthTooks blue from space. Explain why? [HOTS]
Answer:
The major surface area (71%) of the earth is covered with water. This imparts blue colour to the earth.

Question 4.
Some slogans has been given for the conservation of water. What does the slogan ‘Jal hai to kal hai’ means?
Answer:
This means if you have water, you can think of future, i.e. no life is possible without water.

Question 5.
Reservoir of dam helps us to manage water. How?
Answer:
The reservoir of dam or river can release water at our will. We can divert the flow of water at desired places where it is really needed and we can manage water resource effectively.

Question 6.
The excessive use of water leads to a severe problem. Write the problem.
Answer:
The excessive use of water leads to water scarcity in an area.

Question 7.
How much of the earth’s surface is covered with water?
Answer:
About two-third of the earth’s surface is covered with water.

Question 8.
Mention the year which is celebrated as international year of freshwater?
Answer:
The year 2003 was celebrated as International year of freshwater.

Question 9.
State the consequences, if plants do not get enough water.
Answer:
The plants will wilt and ultimately dry up in lack of water.

Question 10.
Mention the source of groundwater.
Answer:
Rainwater and water from the other sources like rivers, ponds, etc are the source of groundwater.

Question 11.
From where do the workers get water for construction?
Answer:
Workers get water from the underground water.

Question 12.
Can we keep on drawing water from under the ground? How will it affect the water table?
Answer:
No, we cannot keep on drawing water.
It causes the depletion of water table.

Question 13.
State the percentage of actual amount of water available for human use.
Answer:
The actual amount of water available for human use is very little, i.e. approx 0.0006 % of all water found on the earth.

Question 14.
If wells dug to get groundwater, then it dry up after sometime, what initiative should be taken to get water from it again? [HOTS]
Answer:
In the above condition, the groundwater get recharged through the process of infiltration. It replenishes the groundwater.

Question 15.
Water circulates through the water cycle in the three forms. Name them.
Answer:
Water circulates through the water cycle in the three forms, i.e. solid, liquid and gas.

Question 16.
As our population increases, we need more water for drinking, washing and other purposes. Does this affect the water table? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, rising population leads to an increase in consumption and at the same time, a decrease in the seepage of water into the . ground leads to the depletion of water table.

Question 17.
The substance Wis necessary for the normal growth and development of all types of plants and animals. An acute scarcity of substance Whas an ill effect on plants which can hinder the natural process Xin plants causing a severe shortage of /leading to famine. It may also lead the shortage of Zwhich is essential for breathing and respiration. What could W, X, Yand Zbe? [HOTS]
Answer:
W- Water, X- Photosynthesis
Y-Food, Z-Oxygen

Water: A Precious Resource Class 7 Science Extra Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain how the traditional use of groundwater is different from the present use.
Answer:
Traditionally in ancient times, people made bawris to collect rainwater in the old buildings. We still use these structures and are reviving them to harness rainwater.

Question 2.
Planting trees help groundwater conservation. Explain how.
Answer:
Plants lose water in the form of water vapour by the process of transpiration. So, forests contribute a lot of water vapours formation which make clouds.
Thus, plants help to revive water cycle.

Question 3.
List the reasons for lowering of water table in cities.
Answer:
Water drawn from underground water gets replenished by seepage of rainwater. The water table does not get affected as long as we draw the same amount of water as is replenished by natural resources like rain.

However, there are number of factors which cause depletion of water table at a very fast rate which is really a matter of concern for everyone of us. Increase in population, industrial and agricultural activities are some common factors affecting water table. Scanty rainfall, deforestation and decrease in the effective area for seepage of water may also deplete the water table.

Question 4.
Complete the given table. (NCERT Exemplar]

Answer:
The complete table is given below:

Question 5.
Place the following statements in a proper order to form a meaningful paragraph.
(a) Which in turn decreases the seepage of rainwater into the ground.
(b) This decreases the open areas like parks and playgrounds.
(c) Increasing population create demand for construction of houses, shops, offices, roads and pavements.
(d) This results in depletion of water table and creates scarcity of more water. INCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Increasing population create demand for construction of houses, shops, offices, roads and pavements (c). This decreases the open areas like parks and playgrounds (b) which inturn decreases the seepage of rainwater into the ground (a). This results in depletion of water table and creates scarcity of more water (d).

Question 6.
Given below are three states of water in a beaker. These states are inter-convertible. Name the process forward and backforth labelled A, B, C, D, which cause these conversions. [HOTS]

Answer:
A-Melting, 6-Boiling, C- Freezing,
D- Condensation

Question 7.
The water bearing layer of the earth called P is made up of two components O and R, in which R water collect under the ground. The top level of layer Pis called S. When too many tubewells are used in an area, the level of S in that area goes down. What are P, Q, R and S? [HOTS]
Answer:
P- Aquifer, Q- Soil, R- Permeable rocks,
S -Water table

Question 8.
How can you observe the three forms of water (a) in nature and (b) at home? INCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The three forms of water

• in nature are snow (solid), water (liquid) and water vapour (gas).
• at home are ice (solid), water (liquid) and steam (gas).

Question 9.
Name some industries familiar to you. Make a list of the products obtained from these and used in our daily life. Discuss how the growing industrial activity is responsible for depletion of water table?
Answer:
Following industries and their products pollute the water:

• Leather industries, e.g. shoes and other products.
• Chemical factories, e.g. fertilisers, different insect repellant sprays, etc.
• Petrochemical industries, e.g. petroleum and different fuels.
• Oil industries.

All the above industries release pollutants such as asbestos, lead, mercury, nitrates, sulphur, etc in different rivers, lakes and ponds which are polluting the water and hence is responsible for depletion of water table.

Question 10.
Mention three causes of water scarcity in our country.
Answer:
The three causes of water scarcity in our country are

• Rapid urbanisation.
• Increased number of industries.
• Population explosion.

Question 11.
Certain pattern of the rainfall in our country leads to scarcity of water. Explain that pattern. Which part of the country gets rainfall twice a year?
Answer:
We face shortage of water mainly because water is not evenly distributed by the nature on the earth. Some places such as North East India get so much rains, so that it gets flooded almost every year. On the other hand, Thar desert in Rajasthan may get rains rarely in the monsoon season. This uneven pattern of rains causes water scarcity in India at some places.

Question 12.
A number of problems can be faced due to shortage of water. List some of them.
Answer:
The number of problems that can be faced due to shortage of water are as follows

• Less amount of pure drinking water will be available.
• Lack of equal distribution of water.
• Drought.

Question 13.
From where do the following usually get water? In which form is water present in them?
(a) Clouds
(b) Plants
(c) Mountain tops
(d) Aquifer
(e) Animals (NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:

Question 14.
Some definitions are given which can be corrected by changing one word. Correct them.
(a) Aquifer is groundwater stored between layers of hard rock above the water table.
(b) The process of evaporation of water in the ground is called infiltration.
(c) The evaporation of water from oceans and its arrival back into oceans is called vapour cycle. (NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) Aquifer is groundwater stored between layers of hard rock below the water table.
(b) The process of seeping of water in the ground is called infiltration.
(c) The evaporation of water from oceans and its arrival back into oceans is called water cycle.

Question 15.
Deforestation can be considered as a reason for depletion of the water table. Comment.
Answer:
Large scale deforestation has occurred to accommodate the growing population, to grow food for them and to provide space for industries. Vegetation slows down the flow of rainwater on land and increases the absorption of water by the soil.
Cutting down of trees and destroying vegetation, therefore interferes with the natural process by which seeping takes place and the groundwater is recharged.
It finally results in the depletion of the water table.

Question 16.
Give the main causes of water scarcity in our country.
Answer:
The main causes of water scarcity in our country are

• Rapid urbanisation.
• Increased number of industries.
• Population explosion.

Water: A Precious Resource Class 7 Science Extra Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Sachin lives in an area where on and off water scarcity is there. He gave a thought to the problem and planned to get a solution. He decided to harvest rainwater in his village. He made efforts to convince the people of his area, built some drainage system and water tanks where rainwater could be collected.
(a) Name few structures he might have built.
(b) Name the process of water cycle, Sachin will use for harvesting water.
(c) Write the methods, Sachin will tell the people to use water wisely. (Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) Sachin has build up cemented drainage channels in the elevated area and tanks where these channels will collect water.
(b) Sachin is planning to harvest rainwater.
(c) Sachin will educate people to use water judicially in the following way
(i) Use mug for brushing, shaving and bathing.
(ii) Water plants with drip irrigation.
(iii) Use and reuse water in home activities.

Question 2.
Two figures ‘a’ and ‘b’ are given below. Both are revealing two different human activities which are the cause of depletion of water table. Identify the two acts and explain how are these causing the depletion of water resource. [HOTS]

Answer:
(a) Large scale construction
(b) Deforestation
Large scale construction It is main cause of water table lowering because it utilises large amount of water at the time of construction. Most of the time, it is digged water table.

Secondary, when ground surface becomes cemented. It does not allow seepage of rainwater into deeper layers, so rainwater goes waste as run off water and cannot replenish the water table of that particular place.

Deforestation Plants transfer huge amount of water in the form of water vapours. So, when forests are cut down, we interrupt in the process of water cycle of that area. So, no rain occurs at that place and it gradually turns into desert area.

Question 3.
Shishir returned from school and found his mother busy in the kitchen. He noticed that she is making his favourite dosa. Shishir rushed to his mother as he was feeling hungry and found that the tap in the kitchen was leaking. He told his mother to replace it as leaking taps lead to the wastage of water. His mother smiled and ensured him to do the same.
(a) What is water management?
(b) Why should we save water?
(c) What values are shown by Shishir? [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) Minimum wastage of water is called water management.
(b) We should save water to prevent water crisis.
(c) Shishir is sincere, responsible and has capability of applying knowledge practically.

Question 4.
What is groundwater? What are the sources of water which are fed by groundwater?
Answer:
The wells, tubewells and handpumps are main sources of water for many people. The water in these sources is the groundwater. It is upper level of underground water which occupies all the spaces in the soil and rocks and form a water table as shown in the figure below:

The upper limit of groundwater is called water table. It represents the depth of water filled area at a given place. The water table rises and falls depending upon the amount of rainwater that seeps into the groundwater and how much groundwater is drawn out for irrigation and industry. The seeping down of rainwater into the groundwater is called infiltration. The groundwater, thus gets recharged by this process.

At some places, the groundwater is stored between layers of hard rock below the water table. This is aquifer which contains the groundwater usable by tubewells and handpumps. These sources however, have limited sources of water and may get exhausted if used excessively.

Question 5.
Water is very precious for all the living beings.
What will happen in future, if we do not save water now? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Water is needed for various life activities. If we continue the misuse of water and do not conserve it, the groundwater level will be depleted. This may result into various consequences like

• Lowering of the water table Excessive pumping can lower the groundwater table.
• Reduced surface water supply Groundwater and surface water are connected. When groundwater is overused, the lakes, streams and rivers connected to groundwater, can also have little supply.
• Loss of plants from land We fully depend on the plants for food directly or indirectly. Plants need water to prepare their food. If there will be scarcity of water on earth, the plants will be unable to prepare their food. This inturn will lead to the end of the life because world without plants means no food, no oxygen, not enough rain and other innumerable problems.
  Therefore, it is true that water is a precious resource.

Question 6.
All the rain that falls over an area is not utilised. Do you agree? Explain.
Answer:
Precipitation (rain) is a natural process and is a part of natural water cycle. It replenishes all the natural resources of water like ponds, lakes, river and finally oceans and seas too.
When we say utilisation of rainwater, we mean that rain in a particular area.
Yes, it is not properly utilised as most of the water is run off as surface water to the rivers and goes to oceans.
We can harness/harvest this water to local waterbodies like ponds, lakes and groundwater by proper planning as it is being done in some districts of Rajasthan successfully.

Water: A Precious Resource Class 7 Science Extra Questions Miscellaneous Questions

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
‘Every Drop Counts’ is a slogan related to [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) counting of drops of any liquid
(b) counting of water drops
(c) importance of water
(d) importance of counting
Answer:
(c) importance of water

Question 2.
Water cycle does not involve which of the following?
(a) Evaporation
(b) Condensation
(c) Formation of clouds
(d) Rainwater harvesting
Answer:
(d) Rainwater harvesting

Question 3.
Which of the following does not show water shortage? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Taps running dry
(b) Long queues for getting water
(c) Marches and protests for demand of water
(d) A family gets three buckets of water per person per day
Answer:
(d) A family gets three buckets of water per person per day

Question 4.
Renewable resources need to be conserved because
(a) we should not use them faster than they are replenished by nature
(b) they are slowly disappearing from the earth
(c) if we overuse them, nature will stop replacing them
Answer:
(a) we should not use them faster than they are replenished by nature

Question 5.
A man digging the ground near a waterbody found that the soil was moist. As he kept digging deeper and deeper he reached a level, where all the spaces between particles of soil and gaps between rocks were filled with water. The upper limit of this layer is called [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) water level
(b) water table
(c) groundwater
(d) water limit
Answer:
(b) water table

Question 6.
Which of the following is a way to use water economically?
(a) Construction of bawris
(b) Rainwater harvesting
(c) Drip irrigation
(d) Infiltration
Answer:
(c) Drip irrigation

Question 7.
The amount of water recommended by the United Nations for drinking, washing, cooking and maintaining proper hygiene per person per day is a minimum of
(a) 5 L
(b) 15 L
(c) 30 L
(d) 50 L
Ans
(d) 50 L

Question 8.
Which of the following is not an effect of acute scarcity of water on plants?
(a) Shortage of food
(b) Shortage of oxygen
(c) Shortage of carbon dioxide
(d) Shortage of rainfall
Answer:
(c) Shortage of carbon dioxide

Question 9.
Which of the following inhibits the seepage of rainwater into ground? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) A pukka floor
(b) Playground
(c) Grass lawn
(d) Forest land
Answer:
(a) A pukka floor

Question 10.
The groundwater when collects between the layers of hard rocks is called
(a) aquifer
(b) water table
(c) bawri
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) aquifer

Question 11.
Water which falls from the clouds as rain or snow is called
(a) condensation
(b) precipitation
(c) infiltration
(d) transpiration
Answer:
(b) precipitation

Question 12.
Which of the following does not deplete the water table at a place?
(a) Increasing number of tubewells
(b) Increasing deforestation
(c) Scanty rainfall
(d) Increasing snowfall
Answer:
(d) Increasing snowfall

Fill in the Blanks
1. The rainwater and ……………. from other sources such as rivers and ponds seep through the ……………. and fills the empty spaces and cracks deep below the ground. The process of seeping of water into the ground is called ……………. . [NCERT Exemplar]
2. Rajasthan is a ……………. and dry place. The challenge of natural ……………. of water was met by a successful experiment. A band of social had transformed a ……………. area into a green place. They have revived five dried-up ……………. by constructing water ……………. structures.
3. The rainwater can be used to ……………. the groundwater.
4. The best way to overcome shortage of water is ……………. .
5. Leaking ……………. is a source of huge water wastage.
6. The process of ……………. of water into the ground is called infiltration.
7. The ……………. in the soil indicates the presence of underground water. .
8. Rainwater harvesting ……………. the water table.
9. Using less water and preventing water from getting polluted is called ……………. of water.
10. Buildings and roads reduce ……………. of water by the soil.
11. A tubewell draws underground water contained in an ……………. .
12. Bawri was the traditional way of collecting …………….
Answers:
1. water, soil, infiltration
2. hot, scarcity, workers, dry, rivers, harvesting
3. recharge
4. conserve water
5. pipeline
6. seepage
7. moisture
8. replenish
9. conservation
10. absorption
11. aquifer
12. rainwater

True/False
1. Water vapour is the gaseous form of water. [NCERT Exemplar]
2. Ice is solid, whereas snow is the semi-solid form of water.
3. Ocean water cannot be used for domestic purposes.
4. Rapid growth of industries is one of the cause for water shortage. [NCERT Exemplar]
5. The process of seeping of water into ground is called filtration.
6. 51 % of the earth’s surface is covered with water.
7. Year 2003 was observed as the International year of freshwater.
8. Snow and ice both are solid form of water. [NCERT Exemplar]
9. Plants wilt and ultimately dry up if tt\ey are not watered for few days.
10. Water found above the water table is called groundwater.
Answers:
1. True
2. False, ice and snow both are solid forms of water.
3. True
4. True
5. False, the process of seeping of water into ground is called infiltration.
6. False, 71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water.
7. True
8. True
9. True
10. False, the water found below the water table is called groundwater.

Match the Columns
Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Question 2.
Match the Column I with Column II. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answers:
1.
(a)-(iv)
(b)-(v)
(c)-(vi)
(d)-(i)
(e)-(iii)
(f)-(ii)

2.
(a)-(v)
(b)-(iv)
(c)-(i)
(d)-(iii)
(e)-(ii)

Extra Questions for Class 7 Science

The post Water: A Precious Resource Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 16 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Forests: Our Lifeline Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 17

Forests: Our Lifeline Class 7 Science Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
List some animals which live in deeper areas of the forest.
Answer:
Boars, bisons, jackals, porcupines, elephants, etc., live in the deeper areas of the forest.

Question 2.
Paheli while moving in a forest observed that there was no noise pollution, though lots of heavy vehicles were passing from the nearby highway. Explain why. [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
Paheli observed that there is no noise pollution in a forest even though there are lots of heavy vehicles passing from the nearby highway. It is because trees present in the forest absorb the noise.

Question 3.
Give the reason behind variations found in the forests of different regions.
Answer:
The variation in the type of plants and animals is found in different forests because of the climatic conditions of that particular area.

Question 4.
Paheli wrote a food chain in the following way:
Frog → Eagle → Insects → Grass → Snake
The chain is not in the correct order. Help her to write the food chain correctly. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The correct food chain is
Grass → Insects → Frog → Snake → Eagle

Question 5.
Are there similar kind of trees in every forests?
Answer:
No, due to different climatic conditions, there are variations in the types of trees and other plants. From forest to forest.

Question 6.
State the consequence when one food chain is disturbed in an ecosystem.
Answer:
Since, all food chains are interlinked disturbance in one food chain will affect the other food chain in a forest.

Question 7.
What is a canopy?
Answer:
The uppermost branches and leaves of tall trees act like a roof over forest ground, this is called a canopy.

Question 8.
While going inside a forest, it becomes darker. Why?
Answer:
In a forest, big trees, shrubs and other plants are found. They trap solar radiation for photosynthesis.
So, the sunlight does not reach at the forest floor, thus making it dark.

Question 9.
A bunch of seedlings were seen sprouting on a heap of animal dropping in a forest. How do you think is the seedling benefited from the animal dung? [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
The seedling was being benefited from the animal dung as the decaying animal dung provided nutrients to the growing seedlings.

Question 10.
Consider the following organisms:
Grass, birds, frog, crow, tiger, vulture, toadstool, deer. Which of these
(i) can eat the dead animals
(ii) can form a three step food chain?
Answer:
(i) Crow, vulture
(ii) Grass → Deer → Tiger

Question 11.
Give names of any four birds which you expect to see in a forest. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The four birds which we expect to see in a forest are jungle crow, hornbill, myna and koel.

Question 12 .
Draw any simple food chain in a pond.
Answer:
A typical food chain in a pond is
Algae → Small fishes → Large fishes

Question 13.
Name any four useful products other than wood, which we get from forests. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Four useful products other than wood which we get from forests are gum, spices, fodder for animals and medicinal plants.

Question 14.
Deforestation may lead to floods. Why? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Deforestation leads to floods as lesser number of trees will be available due to deforestation. In the absence of trees, the soil will not hold water leading to floods.

Question 15.
All the needs of animals living in a forest are fulfilled. Justify this statement in a few sentences. [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
Forest provides homae (shelter), food and water to the animals living there. Thus, all the needs of animals living in a forest are fulfilled.

Forests: Our Lifeline Class 7 Science Extra Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Forests are valuable resources. Explain.
Answer:
Forest products play vital role in socio-economic development. We get food (cereals, pulses, fruits), fire wood, fibre, construction material, industrial products (tannins, lubricants, dyes, resins, perfumes) and products of medicinal importance. It is also the home of diverse wildlife which maintains the ecosystem. Thus, forests are valuable resources.

Question 2.
Plants help in maintaining O₂-CO₂ cycle. Explain it in the light of photosynthesis and respiration.
Answer:
Photosynthesis is the process during which CO₂ is used by the plants and O₂ is released as a products. This O₂ is used by the animals for their respiration and CO₂ is released during it which is again used for photosynthesis by plants. In this way, O₂-CO₂ cycle is balanced by plants.

Question 3.
Forests are called green lungs. Why?
Answer:
The forests provide us oxygen to breathe. If we rapidly cutting down forests means we are cutting down the oxygen supply to us. That is why they are called green lungs.

Question 4.
Two friends shared their experiences of their vacation trip to two different forests. Do you think they would have seen the same type of plants and animals during their respective trips? Give reason. [HOTS]
Answer:
No, they would not have seen the same type of plants and animals. This is so because climatic conditions in the two forests would vary leading to variations in the types of plants and animals.

Question 5.
Write differences between decomposers and scavengers.
Answer:
Difference between decomposers and scavengers is

Question 6.
What would happen if forests disappear?

Question 7.
Plants are known as the producers of a food chain. Give reason.
Answer:
Plants are known as the producers of a food chain. It is because green plants (autotrophs) make their own food from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll by a process called photosynthesis and provide food to all living organisms which live in the forest.

Question 8.
Life would be impossible without plants. Explain, how.
Answer:
All green plants are producers. They make food by the process of photosynthesis using water C02 and sunlight. All forms of animals depend on plants for food. So, if there no plants, no food will be there. Plants are give oxygen also during photosynthesis, and there would be no oxygen in absence of plant. These two basic needs make plants important for us and we cannot think of life without plants.

Question 9.
Y and Z are two types of organism which are found in the forests. Y eats up dead animals while Z breakdown the body of the dead animals into simpler substances.
(a) What is the general name of organism Y?
(b) Write one example of Y type organism.
(c) What is general name of organism Z?
(d) Write one example of Z type organism. (HOTS]
Answer:
(a) Scavenger
(b) Vulture
(c) Decomposers
(d) Fungi (mushroom)

Question 10.
What happens when an animal dies in the forest?
Answer:
The body of the dead animal is eaten up by scavengers like vultures, jackals, hyanas, etc.
These animals do the functions of cleaning in the forest. This also shows that nothing goes waste in the forests.

Question 11 .
Give any four factors which are responsible for the destruction of forests. [NCERT Exemplar)
Answer:
The four factors which are responsible for the destruction of forests are

• Construction of roads.
• Construction of buildings.
• Industrial development.
• Increasing demand of wood.

Question 12.
Is it possible to construct a food chain without a producer? State the reason to support your answer.
Answer:
No, in any food chain, producers are always at the beginning. It is the producer which provides food to all living organisms. In a food chain, if producer is absent, then there will be no flow of energy. So, we can say that it is not possible to construct a food chain without a producer.

Question 13.
How can a pipal sapling would have grown on a side wall of some old buildings?
Answer:
Animals disperse the seeds of certain plants with the help of their droppings. Therefore, pipal seed would have come to the wall by a bird dropping . On coming in contact with water and suitable nutrient medium, it would have grown into pipal sapling.

Question 14.
If one component of the forest is removed, what would be its affect on the ecosystem?
Answer:
Every component of forest depend on other. If we remove one, the other will be affected, e.g. if we remove top carnivores (lion/tiger) in a forest, herbivores will increase and if they increase they will end up eating all plants, so ecosystem will get disturbed.

Question 15.
State the role of scavengers in cleaning of our environment.
Answer:
Scavengers eat the dead animals and act as the cleaning agents of our environment. Some of these animals (scavengers) are vultures, crows, jackals, hyena, some insects, etc.

Question 16.
Crown is different from canopy. Explain how.
Answer:
The part of the tree with branches is known as the crown. When the crown of tall trees in the forests forms a roof-like covering over the others plants, it is known as a canopy.

Question 17.
“You conserve forest, you conserve soil”. Do you agree? Justify. [HOTS]
Answer:
Yes, forests bind soil with root and prevent soil erosion. They also maintain fertility of soil and check So, it can be said that conserving forest results in conservation of soil.

Question 18.
Deforestation can increase the earth’s temperature. Is it true? Give reason.
Answer:
Yes, if there are no tress and plants, there will be no photosynthesis. So, no CO₂ of the atmosphere will be used. This will increase the level of CO₂, resulting in the increase of earth’s temperature.

Question 19.
Explain how root system of plants help in the prevention of flood?
Answer:
The root system helps water to seep down in the ground. It helps to maintain the water table throughout the year. Roots of trees normally bind the soil together and stop the erosion of soil.

Question 20.
Sketch a diagram to show how plants maintain the balance between carbon dioxide and oxygen in the atmosphere?
Answer:

Forests: Our Lifeline Class 7 Science Extra Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
People say that nothing goes waste in a forest. Can you explain how? [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
Nothing goes waste in a forest because of the following reasons

• Dry leaves and remains of dead animals are converted to a dark coloured substance called humus. This provides nutrients to the plants.
• Dead animals become food for vultures, crows, jackals and insects.
• Broken branches of trees are used as fuel by the people living in the vicinity of the forest.

Question 2.
“Forest is a dynamic entity, full of life and vitality”. Explain briefly. [HOTS]
Answer:
Forests harbour great variety of plants and animals. Plants provide food to herbivores. Larger number of herbivores means increased availability of food for a variety of carnivores. Wide variety of animals helps forest to regenerate.

Decomposers and scavengers are cleaning agents. So, every entity in the forest plays a key and vital role making it a dynamic living entity, full of life and vitality.

Question 3.
Write the major steps by which we can conserve the forest.
Answer:
Forests maintain balance in nature. There conservation is the need of the hour. We should take the following steps to conserve the forests

(i) Planned harvesting An efficient way to get wood from forests for our requirements is to cut only some of the trees in an area. The uncut trees prevent erosion. Fruits of these trees produce seeds so that new trees can grow. This way the forest cover is maintained.

(ii) Afforestation This is the practice of renewing a forest by planting seedlings or small trees. These days, in our country, planned afforestation is being done not only by the government but also by private organisations for commercial purposes. Selective cutting of trees in these plantations provides wood for construction and also keeps the forest cover intact.

(iii) Protection from fire Huge forest areas are destroyed by fire every year. Fire may occur due to the carelessness of people or due to lightning during a storm or by friction between dry stems and dry branches of trees.
Forest fires are controlled by spraying fire extinguishing solutions from aircrafts or by changing the direction of wind by using strong blowers.

Question 4.
Figure shows a part of a forest.

Write any three activities going on in the forest on the basis of this figure. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The three activities going on in the forest on the basis of the given figure are

• Oxygen is given out by plant leaves.
• Carbon dioxide is consumed by the plants to prepare their food by the process of photosynthesis.
• Nutrients are being added to the soil by the action of decomposers.

Question 5.
Cycling of papers help in the conservation of the forests. Justify.
Answer:
The papers are made from wood pulp. We derive wood by cutting down trees. If we recycling existing quantity of paper in the market and will not let it decompose, we can stop cutting of forest trees for new raw materials required for paper making.
It takes years to grow a tree and cutting a tree takes only few minutes.
So, we should give a serious thought before cutting a single tree even and should encourage recycling of papers every where in our country and in the world.

Question 6.
Sachin lives in a village, this village is surrounded by a forest. One day he noticed that in nearby pond sedimentation is increased so much that water has become muddy, streams are drying up. There is scarcity of fuel wood. He soon realised that he has to raise the issue of forest protection from cutting down trees, etc. Soon he involved the nearby village people and made an organisation to take an initiative.
Now, answer the following questions
(a) What changes might have Sachin noticed in his area?
(b) Give the porbable reason for such changes mentioned above.
(c) What are the values shown by Sachin? [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) Sachin noticed the disturbance in the water cycle in his area like stream drying up. Pond water getting muddy, less availability of fuel wood, etc.
(b) Deforestation.
(c) Love for nature and environmental consciousness.

Question 7.
A snake charmer came to the society and smelled the presence of a cobra near the guardroom. The head of the society agreed to allow the man to search, catch and take away the snake with him. Little Krishi who was seeing all this disagreed. He explained the people that it might disturb the food chain in the environment. Now, answer the following questions
(a) Describe food chain.
(b) Construct a food chain involving snake at one of its level.
(c) What are the values shown by Krishi? [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) The sequence of living organisms in which one organism eats another is called a food chain.

(c) Scientific attitude, obligation to maintain the ecosystem of nature.

Forests: Our Lifeline Class 7 Science Extra Questions Miscellaneous Questions

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Plants do not depend on animals for
(a) pollination
(b) food
(c) seed dispersal
(d) nutrients
Answer:
(b) food

Question 2.
Flow of energy in nature takes the following path
(a) carnivores herbivores → green plants
(b) green plants herbivores → carnivores
(c) sun → green plants → herbivores → carnivores
(d) sun → carnivores → herbivores → green plants
Answer:
(c) sun → green plants → herbivores → carnivores

Question 3.
Microorganisms act upon the dead plants to produce
(a) sand
(b) mushroom
(c) humus
(d) wood
Answer:
(c) humus

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a forest product?
(a) Gum
(b) Plywood
(c) Sealing wax
(d) Kerosene
Answer:
(d) Kerosene

Question 5.
Which of the following has the strongest stem? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) A tree
(b) A creeper
(c) A climber
(d) A bush
Answer:
(a) A tree

Question 6.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Forests protect the soil form erosion
(b) Plants and animals in a forest are not dependent on one another
(c) Forests influence the climate and water cycle
(d) Soil helps forests to grow and regenerate
Answer:
(b) Plants and animals in a forest are not dependent on one another

Question 7.
Which of the following is not prepared from the wood obtained from forest? (NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Paper
(b) Thermocol
(c) Matchsticks
(d) Plywood
Answer:
(b) Thermocol

Question 8.
The lowest layer in the understorey is formed by
(a) shrubs
(b) herbs
(c) trees
(d) tall grasses
Answer:
(b) herbs

Question 9.
Which of the following is not the name of a tree? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Teak
(b) Sal
(c) Porcupine
(d) Kachnar
Answer:
(c) Porcupine

Question 10.
Which of the following are called producers?
(a) Plerbivores
(b) Carnivores
(c) Green plants
(d) Bacteria and fungi
Answer:
(c) Green plants

Question 11.
Pick the option which gives the names of a tree and an animal respectively from the following. [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Semal and hornbill
(b) Sal and khair
(c) Chinkara and blue bull
(d) Neem and palash
Answer:
(a) Semal and hornbill

Question 12.
The first link in all food chains are
(a) herbivores
(b) carnivores
(c) green plants
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) green plants

Question 13.
Which of the following does a forest prevent?
(a) Floods
(b) Soil erosion
(c) Water table from going down
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 14.
Forests are not responsible for [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) providing medicinal plants
(b) maintaining the flow of water into the streams
(c) creating flood conditions
(d) absorbing rainwater and maintaining water table
Answer:
(c) creating flood conditions

Question 15.
Which of the products is not obtained from a forest? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Honey
(b) Catechu
(c) Gum
(d) Ginger
Answer:
(d) Ginger

Question 16.
Which of the following is not a correct statement?
(a) Forest trees are cut down to obtain timber
(b) Forest trees are cut down to obtain paper
(c) Forest trees are cut down to obtain natural rubber
(d) Forest trees are cut down to obtain firewood
Answer:
(c) Forest trees are cut down to obtain natural rubber

Question 17.
Which one of the following is a role of forests?
(a) Provide, food, shelter, water and medicines
(b) Prevent soil erosion
(c) Prevent flood
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Prevent flood

Question 18.
Which one of the following is an animal product?
(a) Gum
(b) Catechu
(c) Honey
(d) Rubber
Answer:
(c) Honey

Fill in the Blanks
1. The decaying leaves and animal choppings in a forest enrich the ……………… .
2. Insect, butterflies, honeybees help plants in ……………… formation.
3. The microorganisms which convert dead plants and animals to humas are called ……………….
4. Forest is a purifier of ……………… and ……………… .
5. Herbs form the ……………… layer of the forest.
6. Forest help in cloud formation as they release ……………… in the air.
7. The forest are called green lungs because they supply ……………… to the atmosphere.
8. If there are no plants in the soil, heavy rain will cause extensive soil ……………… .
9. Different layers provide ……………… and ……………… for animals.
10. ……………… helps forests to grow and regenerate.
Answers:
1. soil
2. seed
3. decomposers
4. water, soil
5. lowest
6. water vapour
7. oxygen
8. erosion
9. food, shelter
10. soil

True/False
1. Plants are saprotrophs.
2. Roots of the tree are called crown of the tree.
3. Plants release C02 in the process of photosynthesis.
4. Forest is self sustaining entity comprising of plants animals and microorganisms.
5. Various components of forests are not interdependent on each other.
6. Forests are lifeline for forest dwelling communities.
7. we get various products from forests.
8. Forests protect the soil from erosion. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answers:
1. False, plants are autotrophs. They produce their own food by the process of photosynthesis. They are also called producers.
2. False, the branchy part of part of tree above the stem is known as crown of the tree.
3. False, plants intake carbon dioxide from the atmosphere during photosynthesis.
4. True
5. False, the living organisms founds in the forest are plants, animals and decomposers which are interdependent on each other. As well as non-living environment is also interdependent.
6. True
7. True
8. True

Match the Columns
Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Question 2.
Match the Columns I with Column II

Question 3.
Match the Column I with Column II. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answers
1.
(a)-(iv)
(b)-(v)
(c)-(i)
(d)-(ii)
(e)-(iii)

2.
(a)-(v)
(b)-(ii)
(c)-(i)
(d)-(iii)
(e)-(iv)

3.
(a)-(iii)
(b)-(v)
(c)-(iv)
(d)-(i)
(e)-(ii)

Extra Questions for Class 7 Science

The post Forests: Our Lifeline Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 17 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Wastewater Story Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 18

Wastewater Story Class 7 Science Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Wastewater is fit for human consumption or not. Give reason to support your answer.
Answer:
No, because it is dirty and has many diseases causing organisms like cholera, typhoid, etc.

Question 2.
Name two chemicals used to disinfect wastewater.
Answer:
Chlorine and ozone.

Question 3.
Special type of toilets has been designed in aeroplanes, name it.
Answer:
Vacuum toilets.

Question 4.
Name the toilets used in areas with limited water supply.
Answer:
Vermi-processing toilets.

Question 5.
Name the type of toilets which are most suitable for holding an outdoor music festival in a park.
Answer:
Chemical toilets.

Question 6.
Name two things that can be made from sludge extracted during treatment of sewage.
Answer:
Biogas and manure.

Question 7.
The Eucalyptus trees are planted along sewage ponds. Give reason. [HOTS]
Answer:
The Eucalyptus trees are planted along sewage ponds because these trees absorb all surplus wastewater rapidly and release pure water vapour into the atmosphere.

Question 8.
One can avoid the addition of the load in WWTP. Justify.
Answer:
By following proper sanitation and house-keeping practices, by creating less waste at an individual level, we can avoid the addition of the load in wastewater treatment plant.

Question 9.
Name two inorganic impurities present in sewage. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Inorganic impurities present in sewage are nitrates and phosphates.

Question 10.
Mention the use of dried sludge.
Answer:
It is used as manure, thus returning organic matter and nutrients to the soil.

Question 11.
In which type of toilets, human excreta is treated by earthworm?
Answer:
Vermi-processing toilets.

Question 12.
Give some examples of onsite sewage disposal systems.
Answer:
Chemical toilets, septic tanks, composting pits, etc.

Question 13.
Sewage contains some organic impurities in it. Name them.
Answer:
Human faeces, animal wastes, oil, urea pesticides, herbicides, fruits and vegetables are the organic impurities present in sewage.

Question 14.
Mention the common process of cleaning of wastewater.
Answer:
Sewage treatment.

Question 15.
World Water Day is celebrated on
Answer:
22 March.

Question 16.
Mention the period proclaimed as the International Decade for action on Water for Life.
Answer:
2005-2015 is the period proclaimed as the International Decade for action on Water for Life.

Question 17.
Name the three processes involved in treatment of wastewater.
Answer:
Treatment of wastewater involves physical, chemical and biological processes for removing different types of contaminants.

Question 18.
Explain sewers and sewage.
Answer:
Sewers are the pipes acting as a transport system that carries sewage from point of origin to the point of disposal. The wastewater released from homes, industries, hospitals, offices and other uses is called sewage.

Question 19.
The used water should not be wasted. Do you agree? Justify.
Answer:
The used water should not be wasted but it should be cleaned.

Question 20.
Bleaching powder is mixed in water, why? Think and give appropriate reason for it. [HOTS]
Answer:
Bleaching powder is mixed in water to make it safe for drinking because it kills the harmful germs present in water.

Question 21.
Natural water is the purest form of water. Explain why or why not.
Answer:
Natural water is not pure always. It is because all types of water except rainwater contain salts dissolved in it. These salts make the water impure.

Question 22.
Mention the role of effluent treatment plants in cities.
Answer:
The effluent treatment plants filter out undissolved materials form water.

Question 23.
Protozoa is causative organism of which waterborne disease?
Answer:
Dysentry.

Question 24.
In the chemical process of water treatment, water is treated with some chemicals. Describe chlorination in light of it. [HOTS]
Answer:
Chlorination is the process of adding chlorine (chemical) in water to make it safe for drinking.

Question 25.
Sanitation can be improved. Explain, what step should be taken to improve it.
Answer:
Low cost onsite sewage disposal system must be encouraged to improve sanitation.

Question 26.
Give the percentage of water being activated in sludge.
Answer:
About 97% of water is being activated in sludge.

Question 27.
Animal waste, oil and urea are some of the organic impurities present in sewage. Name two more organic impurities present in sewage. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Fruits and vegetable wastes, pesticides and herbicides are organic impurities present in sewage other than animal wastes, oil and urea.

Wastewater Story Class 7 Science Extra Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Open drain is a big concern now-a-days. Justify.
Answer:
Open drain is a big concern for the society now-a-days because they create unhygienic conditions. It provides favourable conditions to flies, mosquitoes and other insects to breed and spread a number of diseases.

Question 2.
Explain, how sewage is disposed of in an aeroplane.
Answer:
Aeroplanes have their closed waste sewage tanks in them, which suck the wastewater and collect it in their tanks.
Once the aeroplane lands on the ground, the crew disposed of the sewage properly into airport sewage facility.

Question 3.
Sewage also contains some nutrients Comment.
Answer:
Sewage is a complex mixture which contains suspended solids, organic and inorganic impurities, nutrients, saprotrophic and disease causing bacteria and other microbes.
The nutrients present in sewage are phosphorus and nitrogen.

Question 4.
Suggest two alternative arrangements for sewage disposal where there is no sewerage system.
Answer:
The two alternative arrangements for sewage disposal, where there is no sewerage system are as below

• Septic tanks
• Composting pits.

Question 5.
Recall and enlist some better house keeping practices.
Answer:
We must minimise and manage waste at our houses before its disposal in the following manner:

• Cooking oil and fats should not be thrown down the drain. They can harden and block the pipes. In an open drain the fats clog the soil pores reducing its effectiveness in filtering water. Throw oil and fats in the dustbin.
• Used tealeaves, solid food remains, soft toys, cotton, sanitary towels, etc., should also be thrown in the dustbin. These wastes choke the drains. They do not allow free flow of oxygen. This hampers the degradation process.
• The chemicals like paints, solvents, insecticides, medicines and motor oils should 1 State the role of screen bars in wastewater treatments, not be thrown in drains as they kill helpful 2 Chlorination makes water fit for human consumption. How? microbes which digest the organic waste.

Question 6.
Water in a river is cleaned naturally. Do you agree? Think and explain. [HOTS]
Answer:
Yes, river water is cleaned naturally by a process that is similar to wastewater treatment plant.
As muddy water when flows through grass or weeds on its way to a stream, mud and solid particles get filtered out. At the bottom of a lake or stream, microorganism brings chemical changes in the water. The natural filtration process removes pollution from the roundwater throughout the process making it clean and fit for drinking.

Question 7.
The terms sewage, sewers and sewerage are interlinked with each other. Can you explain, how? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The terms like sewage, sewers and sewerage are interlinked with each other because sewage is a mixture of wastewater coming out of homes and other places. Sewers are pipes which carry sewage and sewerage is a network of sewage carrying pipes.

Question 8.
Describe onsite disposal systems.
Answer:
Some organisations offer hygienic onsite human waste disposal technology. These toilets do not require scavenging. Excreta from the toilet seats flow through covered drains into a biogas plant. The biogas produced is used as a source of energy.

Question 9.
A sewage treatment plant involves few steps in its working.
Aeration tank, grit and sand removal tank, second sedimentation tank, bar screen, first sedimentation tank.
(a) Arrange all the above steps in the correct order in which they occur in the sewage treatment plant.
(b) Which step gives most of the sludge? [HOTS]
Answer:
(a) Bar screen, grit and sand removal tank, first sedimentation tank, aeration tank, second sedimentation tank.
(b) First sedimentation tank.

Question 10.
Give reasons for each of the following.
(a) We should not throw used tea leaves into sink.
(b) We should not throw cooking oil and fats down the drain. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) We should not throw used tea leaves into sink because it may choke the drain-pipe of the sink.
(b) We should not throw cooking oil and fats down the drain as it can harden and block the drain-pipes.

Question 11.
Given below is a jumbled sequence of the processes involved in a wastewater treatment plant. Arrange them in their correct sequence.
(a) Sludge is scraped out and skimmer removes floating grease.
(b) Water is made to settle in a large tank with a slope in the middle.
(c) Large objects like plastic bags are removed by passing wastewater through bar screens.
(d) Sand, grit and pebbles are made to settle by decreasing the speed of incoming wastewater.
(e) Wastewater enters a grit and sand removal tank. {NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The correct sequence of wastewater treatment in treatment plant is
(c) Large objects like plastic bags are removed by passing wastewater through bar screens.
(e) Wastewater enters a grit and sand removal tank.
(d) Sand, grit and pebbles are made to settle by decreasing the speed of incoming wastewater.
(b) Water is made to settle in a large tank with a slope in the middle.
(a) Sludge is scraped out and skimmer removes the floating grease.

Question 12.
Can we contribute in sanitation at public places? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, we all have a role to play in keeping our environment clean and healthy. All of us can contribute in maintaining sanitation at public places. We should not scatter litter anywhere. If there is no dustbin in sight, we should carry the litter home and throw it in the dustbin.

Question 13.
Three statements are provided here which define the terms, i.e. sludge, sewage and wastewater.
Pick out the correct definition for each of these terms.
(a) The settled solids that are removed in wastewater treatment with a scraper.
(b) Water from kitchen used for washing dishes.
(c) Wastewater released from homes, industries, hospitals and other public buildings. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) The settled solids that are removed in wastewater treatment with a scraper is sludge.
(b) Water from kitchen which is used for washing dishes is wastewater.
(c) Wastewater released from homes, industries, hospitals and other public buildings is sewage.

Question 14.
A man travelling in a train threw an empty packet of food on the platform. Do you think this is a proper waste disposal method? Elaborate. [NCERT Extmplar; HOTS]
Answer:
No, one must always put the waste in a nearby dustbin or carry it home and dispose it in dustbins there.
Waste, not properly disposed may enter into the drains and choke them. It also makes public places dirty and unhygienic.

Question 15.
With reference to the treatment of polluted water at home by aeration, filtration, chlorination processes answer the following questions.
(a) What changes did we observe in the appearance of liquid after aeration? Did aeration change the odour?
(b) What is removed by the sand filter?
(c) Does chlorine change the colour of treated water?
(d) Do chlorine have an odour?
Answer:
(a) Aerated water contains some suspended impurities and the foul odour of the polluted water disappears completely after aeration.
(b) Sand filter removes tiny suspended impurities.
(c) Chlorine makes the water clear and colourless.
(d) Yes, chlorine have a peculiar odour which is not worse than wastewater.

Question 16.
Observe the given figure and answer the following:
(a) What does this figure show?
(b) State the functions of each part of the figure? [HOTS]

Answer:
(a) This figure shows the supply of drinking water, its processing and its source as well. Functions of each part of the figure.
(b)

• River It is the source of water.
• Pumping station Pump the water to collect it in reservoir.
• Sedimentation tank Impurities are settle in the bottom of tank.
• Sand and gravel and sand filter Remove the dirt from the water.
• Chlorinating tank Chlorine is mixed in water to disinfect the eater and to kill the germs.
• To overhead tank Purified water is stored in this tank for supply to the households for drinking.

Question 17.
Complete .the table given below of the contaminant survey.

Answer:
Given below is the table of contaminant survey explaining types of sewage with their point of origin an contaminate in them.

Wastewater Story Class 7 Science Extra Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the different types of inorganic and organic impurities generally present in sewage.
Answer:
It is wastewater released by homes, industries agricultural fields and other human activities. It also includes rainwater that has run down the street during a storm or heavy rain and it is a liquid waste. Most of its water has dissolved and suspended impurities called contaminants.
Composition of Sewage
The following components make the sewage:

• The organic impurities present in sewage are human faeces, animal wastes (like animal dung), urea (as urine), oil, fruits and vegetable wastes, pesticides, herbicides, etc.
• The inorganic impurities present in sewage are nitrates, phosphates and metals.
• The nutrients present in sewage are nitrogen and phosphorus.
• The bacteria present in sewage include those bacteria which cause water-borne diseases such as cholera and typhoid.
• The other microbes present in sewage are Protozoa which cause a water-borne disease called dysentery.

Question 2.
Describe septic tank. How does it function?
Answer:
Low cost outside sewage disposal system have been developed to take care of places where there is no sewage system, e.g. rural areas, isolated buildings. These are described below:
(i) Septic tanks Septic tank is a low cost onsite sewage disposal system. Septic tanks are suitable where there is no sewerage made. These tanks need cleaning every four to six months.

A septic tank usually consists of a big, covered underground tank made of concrete having an inlet pipe at one end and on outlet pipe at the other end. The toilet seat is connected to the inlet pipe of the septic tank. The human excreta from the toilet seat enters into the septic tank through the inlet pipe. The solid part of excreta keeps on collecting at the bottom of the septic tank in the form of a sludge whereas watery waste remains above it.

The anaerobic bacteria breakdown most of the solid organic matter present in human excreta due to which the volume of solid waste is reduced too much. The digested solid waste keeps on depositing at the bottom of septic tank. The watery waste is also cleaned by anaerobic bacteria. The excess water goes out of the septic tank through the outlet pipe and get absorbed in soil.

(ii) Composting pits These are self sustained human waste disposal units which is not connected to a sewer line or a septic tank. A composting toilet breaks down and dehydrate human waste to compost.

(iii) Chemical toilets These toilets have limited storage capacity for human waste and need to be emptied periodically. These are the toilets which use chemically treated reservoir located just below the toilet seats. The chemicals reduce the foul smell coming out of human excrete and carry out partial disinfection of human waste.

Question 3.
Discuss vermi-processing toilets. Name the useful product obtained from such toilets.
Answer:
In the vermi-processing toilet, the human excreta is treated by earthworms in a pit. The earthworms gradually eat up all the organic matter present in human excreta, decompose it and pass out from their body in the form of warm casting (also called vermi cakes).
The useful product obtained from a vermi-processing toilet is vermi cakes which is kind of high quality manure.

Question 4.
One day Sachin had gone to his uncle who lives in a village. He saw there a large number of people defecate in an open area because proper toilet facilities are not there. He wondered about the groundwater contamination, as he studied in his class that this act may cause water-borne diseases. He convinced village people to make toilets to avoid such an out break of water-borne diseases.
(a) Name two water-borne diseases.
(b) Explain vermi-composting toilets.
(c) What values are shown by Sachin? [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) Typhoid and cholera.
(b) In vermi-composting toilets, human excreta is treated by earthworms in a pit.
(c) He is intelligent and concious about health.

Question 5.
There are many alternative sewage disposal systems which have been developed as per needs of the community, persons, occasions, etc.. Few situations/specifications of the sewage need are given below. Write the name of sewage which can be used in the following conditions.
(a) A toilet which can provide high quality manure.
(b) The toilet which is used in aeroplane during flight.
(c) A toilet which can be used in some out door gathering.
(d) A toilet used in limited water supply.
(e) A toilet which contaminates water of hand pump installed nearby. [HOTS]
Answer:
(a) Vermi-composting toilets
(b) Vacuum toilets
(c) Chemical toilets
(d) Composting toilets
(e) Septic tank toilets

Question 6.
Think and suggest some ways to minimise waste and pollutants at their source, taking your home as an example.
Answer:
We can minimise waste and pollutants entering the water and create less wastewater by taking following few steps at home:

• By not throwing used tea leaves, solid food remains, etc., in the drain. We should throw it in the dustbin.
• By not throwing chemicals like medicines, paints, insecticides, etc., in the drain as they increase the pollution load of the sewage.

Question 7.
Trisha has seen huge garbage dumps outside the school campus which are not being regularly disposed of by municipality of the area. She discussed the problem with her biology teacher and decided to organise a rally to spread awareness among local people.
Next day she delivered this information in the assembly and convinced the school mates to join her. She also explained them about the importance of sanitation at public places which she had recently studied in biology.
(a) In your views, who is responsible to maintain sanitation at public places?
(b) What would happen, if all the wastes produced at public places are not disposed of regularly?
(c) What are the valuesS shown by Trisha? [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) In my opinion, municipality is responsible to maintain sanitation at public places.
(b) If all the wastes produced at public places are not disposed of regularly and properly epidemics could break out.
(c) Responsibility, sensitivity and awareness towards public hygiene.

Wastewater Story Class 7 Science Extra Questions Miscellaneous Questions

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
Open drain system is a breeding place for which of the following? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Flies
(b) Mosquitoes
(c) Organisms which cause diseases
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
Which of the following is not an inorganic impurity present in sewage?
(a) Nitrate
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Urea
(d) Metal salt
Answer:
(c) Urea

Question 3.
Sewage is mainly a [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) liquid waste
(b) solid waste
(c) gaseous waste
(d) mixture of solid and gas
Answer:
(a) liquid waste

Question 4.
The aerobic bacteria can be grown in clarified water by
(a) filtration
(b) sewage
(c) aeration
(d) sedimentation
Answer:
(c) aeration

Question 5.
Which of the following is/are products of wastewater treatment? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Biogas
(b) Sludge
(c) Both biogas and sludge
(d) Aerator
Answer:
(c) Both biogas and sludge

Question 6.
Chlorine is used in municipal water treatment plant to
(a) change the teste of water
(b) prevent evaporation
(c) kill the harmful microorganisms
(d) prevent sedimentation
Answer:
(c) kill the harmful microorganisms

Question 7.
Which of the following organisms produce biogas from sludge in the digester tank of a wastewater treatment plant?
(a) Anaerobic bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Aerobic bacteria
(d) Protozoa
Answer:
(a) Anaerobic bacteria

Question 8.
The system of a network of pipes used for taking away wastewater from homes or public buildings to the treatment plant is known as [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) sewers
(b) sewerage
(c) transport system
(d) treatment plant
Answer:
(b) sewerage

Question 9.
One of the following type of trees are said to help in purifying wastewater quite rapidly when planted all along the sewage ponds. These are
(a) Eucalyptus trees
(b) Ficus trees
(c) neem trees
(d) peepal trees
Answer:
(a) Eucalyptus trees

Question 10.
Which of the following is a part of inorganic impurities of the sewage? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Pesticides
(b) Urea
(c) Phosphates
(d) Vegetable waste
Answer:
(c) Phosphates

Question 11.
Which of the following statements about ozone are correct?
I It is essential for breathing of living organisms.
II It is used to disinfect water.
III It absorbs ultraviolet rays.
IV Its proportion in air is about 3%.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II and IV
Answer:
(b) II and III

Question 12.
In a filtration plant, water is filtered using layers of
(a) sand and clay
(b) clay and fine gravel
(c) sand and fine gravel
(d) sand, fine gravel and medium gravel
Answer:
(d) sand, fine gravel and medium gravel

Question 13.
Which one of the following is a quality of wastewater?
(a) Fowl smell
(b) Bad taste
(c) Dirty look
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 14.
Period 2005-2015 is being celebrated as the international decade for action on
(a) water for life
(b) education for all
(c) global warming
(d) terrorism
Answer:
(a) water for life

Question 15.
In sewerage main holes are located at every
(a) 20-25 m
(b) 50-60 m
(c) 90-100 m
(d) 100-110 m
Answer:
(b) 50-60 m

Question 16.
Which of these is a part of the wastewater treatment plant?
(a) Clarifier
(b) Vertical bars
(c) Aeration tank
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 17.
Which of these methods should not be used for disposal of urine and faeces if no sewage system is available?
(a) Allowing untreated sewage to flow into rivers
(b) Making septic tanks for sewage to flow into
(c) Allowing sewage to flow into a biogas plant
(d) Using a vermi-composting toilet
Answer:
(a) Allowing untreated sewage to flow into rivers

Fill in the Blanks
1. Untreated human excreta is a ………………. hazard.
2. Vermi-composting toilets use ………………. to treat human waste.
3. Poor sanitation is crowded public places can result in spread of ………………. .
4. Dried sludge is used as ………………. .
5. Wastewater is treated in ………………. treatment plant.
6. Wastewater released by houses is called ………………. .
7. Stagnant water blocked in drains is good breeding place for ………………. .
8. All portable toilets are ………………. toilets.
9. The full form of WWTP is ………………. .
10. Bacteria play important ………………. in sewage treatment.
Answers:
1. health
2. earthworms
3. diseases
4. sludge activator
5. waste
6. sewage
7. insect vectors
8. chemical
9. wastewater treatment plant
10. role

True/False
1. Sewage is a solid waste which causes water pollution and soil pollution. [NCERT Exemplar]
2. Used water is wastewater.
3. Wastewater could be reused.
4. Where underground sewerage systems and refuse disposal systems are not available, the high cost onsite sanitation system can be adopted. [NCERT Exemplar]
5. We should not defecate is open because untreated human waste is a health hazard.
6. Cooking oil, fats should not be thrown in the drainage system directly.
7. Microorganisms are present in the domestic waste also.
8. Poor sanitation and contaminated drinking water is the cause of a large number of diseases.
9. Wastewater is transparent, colourless, odourless.
10. Tuberculosis is a water-borne disease.
11. Aerobic bacteria produces biogas sludge in the digester tank.
12. urea is an inorganic impurity present in sewage.
Answers:
1. False, sewage is a liquid waste which causes water pollution and soil pollution.
2. True
3. True
4. False, where underground sewerage systems and refuse disposal systems are not available, the low cost onsite sanitation system can be adopted.
5. True
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. False, potable water is transparent, colourless and odourless.
10. False, water-borne diseases are cholera, typhoid, dysentery, etc.
11. False, anaerobic bacteria produce biogas.
12. False, urea is an organic impurity present in sewage.

Match the Columns
Question 1.
Match the Column I with Column II.

Answers:
1.
(a)-(ii)
(b)-(iv)
(c)-(i)
(d)-(iii)

Extra Questions for Class 7 Science

The post Wastewater Story Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 18 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Acids, Bases and Salts Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 5

Acids, Bases and Salts Class 7 Science Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the test for acids and bases using litmus paper?
Answer:
Acids turn blue litmus paper red while bases turn red litmus paper blue.

Question 2.
What name is given to those substances which do not change the colour of either red or blue litmus paper?
Answer:
The solutions or substances which do not change the colour of either red or blue litmus paper are neutral.

Question 3.
Write the name of two indicators which occur naturally.
Answer:

• Turmeric
• China rose

Question 4.
Name the acid present in lemon juice and tomato.
Answer:
Citric acid in lemon juice and oxalic acid in tomato.

Question 5.
Name a substance which is used to cure the discomfort caused by indigestion due to over eating.
Answer:
Milk of magnesia which contains magnesium hydroxide (base) is used to neutralise the effect of excessive acid in stomach.

Question 6.
Why does a turmeric stain on white shirt is turned to red when it is washed with soap? [HOTS]
Answer:
Turmeric stain on white shirt is turned to red when it is washed with soap because the soap solution is basic in nature.

Question 8.
Is lime water an acidic or basic solution?
Answer:
Lime water (calcium hydroxide) is a basic solution.

Question 9.
Name the reaction when an acid is mixed with base.
Answer:
Neutralisation reaction.

Question 10.
Which acid is injected into our body by an ant sting that causes pain? [HOTS]
Answer:
The acid is formic acid which is injected into the skin of a person when an ant bites.

Question 11.
Name the salt formed when hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide solution (a base).
Answer:
When hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide solution, then sodium chloride salt is formed.

Question 12.
Write two basic substances which we use in our daily life.
Answer:

• Baking soda
• Soap or detergent

Question 13.
Name one acid which is responsible for acid rain.
Answer:
Carbonic acid.

Question 14.
Name two gaseous pollutants which are responsible for acid rain.
Answer:
Two gaseous pollutants are nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) and sulphur dioxide (SO₂).

Question 15.
(a) Name one indicator which turns red on adding an acid.
(b) Name one indicator which turns red on adding a base.
Answer:
(a) Litmus (blue litmus paper)
(b) Turmeric

Question 16.
Form a sentence using the following words: baking soda, ant bite, moist, effect, neutralised, rubbing [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
The effect of an arft bite can be neutralised by rubbing moist baking soda.

Acids, Bases and Salts Class 7 Science Extra Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the characteristics of acids by which we can identify acids.
Answer:
Characteristics of acids are

• They are sour in taste.
• They turn blue litmus paper/solution to red.
• Dilution of acid in water is an exothermic reaction, i.e. heat energy is evolved.

Question 2.
Look at the figure which shows solutions taken in test tubes A, B, C and D. What colour is expected, when a piece of red litmus paper is dropped in each test tube? Nature of the solutions is given in the table for your help.

[NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Nature of solution is given below:

Question 3.
While playing in a park, a child was stung by a wasp. Some elders suggested applying paste of baking soda and others lemon juice as remedy. Which remedy do you think is appropriate and why? [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
Wasp sting inject a liquid in the skin which is acidic in nature. Hence, baking soda is the appropriate remedy as it is basic in nature and neutralises the acid.

Question 4.
Which of the following are acidic and which are basic?
Lime water, Vinegar, Toothpaste, Stomach juices, Lemon juice, Baking soda solution, Milk of magnesia, Ammonia solution.
Answer:

Question 5.
A small amount of hydrochloric acid is always produced in the stomach. Is it useful or harmful for us? If excess of acid is produced in the stomach, what should we do?
Answer:
A small amount of hydrochloric acid produced in the stomach is useful as it can kill the harmful bacteria that may enter into the stomach along with the food.
However, if excess of acid is produced, there is a burning sensation in the stomach. We should take milk of magnesia as an antacid medicine to neutralise the excess acid.

Question 6.
Write the effect of China rose petals on acidic and basic solutions.
Answer:
China rose petals when added to warm water, form a light pink coloured solution which may be used as an indicator. This indicator turns acidic solution to magenta (deep pink) and basic solution to green.

Question 7.
To test the presence of an acid in any substance, what methods can be used?
Answer:
Acid can be tested in any substance by the following methods

• Take a drop of the dilute solution of the substance on the tips of your tongue. If tastes sour, it is acidic.
• Dip a blue litmus paper in the solution. If the colour of the litmus paper turns red, the solution is acidic.

Question 8.
Why are sodium bicarbonate and lemon juice used during indigestion?
Answer:
Sodium bicarbonate neutralises the acidity in the stomach. Hence, it is used during indigestion. Lemon contains acid. It reacts with undigested food and suffers it.

Question 9.
After carrying out the neutralisation reaction, the test tube immediately found to be somewhat hot. Explain why.
Answer:
In neutralisation reaction, heat is always produced or evolved. The evolved heat raises the temperature of the reaction mixture. Therefore, if we touch the test tube immediately after the neutralisation reaction, it is found to be hot.
Acid + Base → Salt + Water (heat is evolved)

Question 10.
Name three acids used in the laboratory.
Answer:
Acids which are mostly used in laboratory as below

• Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
• Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄)
• Nitric acid (HNO₃)

Question 11.
Paheli is suffering from indigestion due to acidity. Is it advisable to give her orange juice in this situation and why? |NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
No, because orange juice is acidic in nature. Excess of acid in the stomach causes indigestion. We take an antacid such as milk of magnesia which contains magnesium hydroxide.

Question 12.
Explain two neutralisation reactions related to daily life situations.
Answer:
(i) Ant bite When an ant bite injects the acidic liquid (formic acid) into the skin, the effect of the acid can be neutralised by rubbing moist baking soda (sodium hydrogen carbonate) or calamine solution, which contains zinc carbonate.
(ii) Indigestion Our stomach contains hydrochloric acid. It helps us to digest food but too much of acid in the stomach causes indigestion. Sometimes, indigestion is painful. To relieve indigestion, we take an antacid such as milk of magnesia which contains magnesium hydroxide.
It neutralises the effect of excessive acid.

Question 13.
How lime water is prepared in the laboratory?
Answer:
To prepare lime water, dissolve some lime (chuna) in water in a bottle. Stir the solution and keep it for sometime. Pour a little more from the top. This is lime water.

Question 14.
Name three types of salts. Give one example of each type of salt.
Answer:
Type of salts

• Neutral salts e.g. sodium chloride (NaCl)
• Acidic salts e.g. Ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl)
• Basic salts e.g. sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO₃)

Question 15.
Paheli observed that most of the fish in the pond of her village were gradually dying. She also observed that the wastes of a factory in their village are flowing into the pond which probably caused the fish to die.
(a) Explain why the fish were dying?
(b) If the factory waste is acidic in nature, how can it be neutralised? [NCERT Exemplar; HOTS]
Answer:
(a) If the wastes of a factory flow into waterbodies, it can cause a threat to the lives of sea creatures and to anybody who drink the water. Since, factory wastes may contain acids or bases and it can kill the fish.
(b) If the factory waste is acidic in nature, it can be neutralised by adding basic substances.

Question 16.
What is a salt? Name any salt and give their formulae.
Answer:
A substance formed by the neutralisation of an acid with a base is called salt. Salt may be acidic, basic or neutral in nature.
For example,
Hydrochloric acid (HCI) +
(Acid)
Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) →
(Base)
Sodium chloride (NaCI) + Water (Salt)
(Salt)

Question 17.
Look at the given reaction.
Hydrochloric acid + Sodium hydroxide (base) → Sodium chloride (salt) + Water
Sodium chloride formed in this reaction remains in solution form. Can we get solid sodium chloride from this solution? Suggest a method (if any). [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
We can get solid sodium chloride by evaporation method. Evaporation is the process by which water changes from a liquid to a gas or vapour.
Rate of evaporation increases with temperature.

Question 18.
Name three bases used in the laboratory with their formulae.
Answer:
Bases which are mostly used in laboratory as below

• Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
• Calcium hydroxide [Ca(OH)₂]
• Ammonium hydroxide (NH₄OH)

Acids, Bases and Salts Class 7 Science Extra Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
A farmer was unhappy because of his low crop yield. He discussed the problem with an agricultural scientist and realised that the soil of his field was either too acidic or too basic. What remedy would you suggest the farmer to neutralise the soil? [HOTS]
Answer:
The reason for low crop yield in farmer’s field was that the soil at a place is either too acidic or too basic. The soil may be acidic or basic naturally. The excessive use of fertilisers in the fields also makes the soil too acidic. When the soil is too acidic, it is treated with base such as quicklime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) which neutralises the excess acid present in the soil and reduces its acidic nature. If the soil is too basic, then decaying organic matter (called manure or compost) is added it. The decaying organic matter releases acid which neutralises the excess bases present in the soil and reduces its basic nature.

Question 2.
You are provided with three test tubes A, Sand Cas shown in figure with different liquids. What will you observe when you put
(a) a piece of blue litmus paper in each test tube?
(b) a piece of red litmus paper in each test tube?
(c) a few drops of phenolphthalein solution to each test tube?

Answer:

Question 3.
Boojho, Paheli and their friend Golu were provided with a test, each containing China rose solution which was pink in colour. Boojho added 2 drops of solution ‘A’ in his test tube and got dark pink colour. Paheli added 2 drops of solution ‘S’to her test tube and got green colour. Golu added 2 drops of solution ‘C but could not get any change in colour. Suggest the possible cause for the variation in their results. [HOTS]
Answer:
China rose (gudhal) is an acid-base indicator.
China rose solution in different medium shows following changes:
China rose + acid → Give dark pink colour, hence A is an acidic solution.
China rose + base → give green colour, hence 6 is a basic solution.
China rose + neutral → No change in colour, hence C is a neutral solution.

Question 4.
Nitesh was playing with his friends in the garden. Suddenly, Nitesh was stung by a honeybee and was in great pain. Immediately, his friends call his mother. She applied baking soda solution on the affected area and then took him to the doctor.
Read the above passage and answer the following questions:
(a) What could be the reason for this burning pain?
(b) Why did his mother applied baking soda solution on the affected area?
(c) What values are shown by Nitesh’s friends? [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) The reason for this burning pain is honeybee sting which causes pain and irritation. This is due to the acidic liquid (formic acid) injected into the skin by the honeybee.
(b) The effect of acid can be neutralised by rubbing the affected area by baking soda solution which is a mild base.
(c) Nitesh’s friends are caring , supportive and helpful.

Question 5.
One day Rahul’s mother after taking meal felt pain and irritation in her stomach. His father was out of station. Rahul was an intelligent boy. He remembered his teacher’s statement and gave his mother some baking soda solution Which gave her a relief from pain and irritation of stomach.
Read the above passage and answer the following questions.
(a) Which information given by Rahul’s teacher that helped him to select the baking soda as remedy?
(b) Why he selects baking soda as a cure?
(c) What values are shown by Rahul? [Value Based Question]
Answer:
(a) Rahul knows that our stomach contains hydrochloric acid. It helps us to digest food. But, too much acid in the stomach causes indigestion. Sometimes, indigestion is painful and some mild base should be taken to relief from this pain. So, this information given by his teacher helped him.
(b) He gave her mother baking soda solution which was available in the kitchen easily. He selects baking soda because it is a mild base and neutralises the excess acid in the stomach and it will give relief from pain.
(c) Rahul is very intelligent and caring boy.

Acids, Bases and Salts Class 7 Science Extra Questions Miscellaneous Questions

Multiple Choice Questions
Question 1.
The correct way of making a solution of acid in water is to [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) pdd water to acid
(b) add acid to water
(c) mix acid and water simultaneously
(d) add water to acid in a shallow container
Answer:
(b) add acid to water

Question 2.
Products of a neutralisation reaction are always
(a) an acid and a base
(b) an acid and a salt
(c) a salt and water
(d) a salt and a base
Answer:
(c) a salt and water

Question 3.
Turmeric is a natural indicator. On adding its paste to acid and base separately, which colours would be observed?
(a) Yellow in both acid and base
(b) Yellow in acid and red in base
(c) Pink in acid and yellow in base
(d) Red in acid and blue in base
Answer:
(b) Yellow in acid and red in base

Question 4.
Phenolphthalein is a synthetic indicator and its colours in acidic and basic solutions respectively are [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) red and blue
(b) blue and red
(c) pink and colourless
(d) colourless and pink
Answer:
(d) colourless and pink

Question 5.
When the soil is too basic, plants do not grow well in it. To improve its quality, what must be added to the soil? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Organic matter
(b) Quicklime
(c) Slaked lime
(d) Calamine solution
Answer:
(a) Organic matter

Question 6.
Neutralisation reaction is a [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) physical and reversible change
(b) physical change that cannot be reversed
(c) chemical and reversible change
(d) chemical change that cannot be reversed
Answer:
(d) chemical change that cannot be reversed

Question 7.
A solution changes the colour of turmeric indicator from yellow to red. The solution is
(a) basic
(b) acidic
(c) neutral
(d) either neutral or acidic
Answer:
(a) basic

Question 8.
Which of the following sets of substances contains acids?
(a) Grapes, lime water
(b) Vinegar, soap
(c) Curd, milk of magnesia
(d) Curd, vinegar
Answer:
(d) Curd, vinegar

Question 9.
Which of the following is an acid-base indicator? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Vinegar
(b) Lime water
(c) Turmeric
(d) Baking soda
Answer:
(c) Turmeric

Fill in the Blanks
1. Lemon juice and vinegar taste ……………… because they contain ……………… . [NCERT Exemplar]
2. Turmeric and litmus are ……………… acid-base indicators.
3. Phenolphthalein gives ……………… colour with lime water.
4. When an acidic solution is mixed with a basic solution, they ……………… each other forming ……………… and water. [NCERT Exemplar]
5. The acidic or basic nature of a substance is tested by using an ……………… .
6. The substances which show different colours in acidic, basic and neutral solutions are called ………………
7. Acid + Base → ……………… + Water
8. When an acid mixed with a base, a ……………… reaction takes place.
9. Acetic acid is present in ……………… while ……………… is present in lemon.
10. Excessive use of chemical fertilisers make the soil ……………… .
11. Hydrochloric acid + Sodium hydroxide → ……………… + Water
12. Acids turn blue litmus ……………… .
Answers:
1. sour, acids
2. natural
3. pink
4. neutralise, salt
5. indicator
6. indicators
7. salt
8. neutralisation
9. vinegar, citric acid
10. acidic
11. Sodium chloride
12. redTrue/False

True/False
1. All substances are either acidic or basic. [NCERT Exemplar]
2. A compound if acidic will turn all indicators red.
3. Lime water turns red litmus blue. [NCERT Exemplar]
4. Common salt dissolved in water turns blue litmus red.
5. Phenolphthalein is a natural indicator.
6. Calamine can be used to treat ant’s sting.
7. Lemon water is basic in nature.
Answers:
1. False, substances can be neutral as well.
2. False, acids do not turn all indicators red.
3. True
4. False, it does not change the colour of litmus at all.
5. False, it is a man-made indicator.
6. True
7. False, it is acidic in nature.

Match the Columns
Question 1.
Match the substances in Column I with those in Column II.

Question 2.
Match the items in Column 1 with Column II.

Answers:
1.
(a)-(iii)
(b)-(v)
(c)-(iv)
(d)-(i)
(e)-(ii)

2.
(a)-(ii)
(b)-(iii)
(c)-(iv)
(d)-(i)

Extra Questions for Class 7 Science

The post Acids, Bases and Salts Class 7 Extra Questions Science Chapter 5 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Democratic Rights Class 9 Extra Questions Social Science Civics Chapter 6

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 6 Democratic Rights

Democratic Rights Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
An international human rights organisation who collected information on the condition of the prisoners in Guantanamo Bay (US) was _______ .
Answer:
Amnesty International

Question 2.
A person who is arrested and detained shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of_______ of arrest.
Answer:
24 hours

Question 3.
Claims of a person over other fellow beings, over the society and over the government are called their_______ .
Answer:
Rights

Question 4.
In a democratic country like India, some rights are given a special status. They are called_______ .
Answer:
Fundamental Rights

Question 5.
According to our constitution, the laws apply in the same manner to all, regardless of a person’s status. This is called_______ .
Answer:
Rule of law

Question 6.
Begar is a practice where the worker is forced to render service to the master without any charge or at a nominal remuneration. If it continues for life-long, this practice is called_______ .
Answer:
Bonded labour

Question 7.
Which three evils have been declared illegal by the constitution?
Answer:
Traffic in human beings, bonded labour and child labour.

Question 8.
An order issued by a court asking a person to appear before it, is_______ .
Answer:
Summon

Question 9.
It refers to the demand for legal or moral entitlements a person makes on fellow citizens?
Answer:
Claim

Question 10.
What was the reason given by America for imprisoning people at Guantanamo Bay?
Answer:
America considered them as enemies of the US and linked them to the attack on New York on 11th September, 2001.

Question 11.
In which year was the National Human Rights Commission set up?
Answer:
1993.

Question 12.
What is the full form of NHRC?
Answer:
National Human Rights Commission.

Question 13.
What does FIL stand for?
Answer:
Public Interest Litigation.

Question 14.
Who appoints the National Human Rights Commission?
Answer:
The President of India appoints the National Human Rights Commission.

Question 15.
What is secular state?
Answer:
A secular state is one that does not establish any one religion as official religion.

Question 16.
Name the person who wrote a series of news reports in The Hindu describing untouchability and caste discrimination.
Answer:
R Sainath

Question 17.
Name the book written by Salman Rushdie which was banned by the government of India.
Answer:
Satanic Verses.

Question 18.
How was the Massacre of Albanians finally stopped?
Answer:
Several countries intervened to stop the Massacre.

Question 19.
The government is responsible for providing free and compulsory education to all the children up to the age of :
Answer:
14 years

Question 20.
What does the word ‘begar’ mean?
Answer:
It is a practice where the worker is forced to render service to the ‘master’ free of charge or at a nominal remuneration.

Question 21.
What did Dr. Ambedkar refer to the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ as?
Answer:
Dr. Ambedkar called the Right to Constitutional Remedies, ‘the heart and soul’ of our Constitution.

Question 22.
What is meant by the term ‘writ’?
Answer:
A formal document containing an order of the court to the government issued only by High Court or the Supreme Court.

Question 23.
Cultural and Educational Rights are safeguarded mainly for :
Answer:
Minorities

Question 24.
What do you understand by rights?
Answer:
Rights are reasonable claims of persons recognised by society and sanctioned by law.

Question 25.
What is meant by ‘Rule of Law’?
Answer:
Its means equality before the law and that no person is above the law.

Question 26.
Why are rights necessary for the very sustenance of a democracy?
Answer:
In a democracy, every citizen must have the right to vote and the right to be elected to government. For democratic elections to take place, it is necessary that citizens should have the right to express their opinion, form political parties and take part in political activities.

Question 27.
What are Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
Some rights which are fundamental to our life are given a special status. They are called Fundamental Rights. ”

Question 28.
What is meant by ‘traffic in human beings’?
Answer:
It means selling and buying of human beings, usually women, for immoral purposes.

Question 29.
What are Human Rights?
Answer:
Human Rights are universal moral claims that may or may not have been recognised by law. Every human being has the right to live and enjoy his life and should not be tortured by any means.

Question 30.
In what way does the child labour prohibit by the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The constitution prohibits child labour. No one can employ a child below the age of fourteen to work in any factory or mine or in any other hazardous work, such as railways and ports.

Democratic Rights Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How were the prisoners treated in Guantanamo Bay?
Answer:
The treatment of prisoners in Guantanamo Bay was very humiliating.

• There was no trial before any magistrate in the US. They were tortured in the ways that violated the laws.
• This place was not located in the US. It was an area near Cuba controlled by American Navy, so nobody knew the location of the prison.
• Families of prisoners, media or even the UN representatives were not allowed to meet the prisoners.

Question 2.
What was the basic reason for the ethnic massacre in Kosovo?
Answer:
Kosovo was a province of Yugoslavia before its split. In this province, the population was overwhelmingly ethnic Albanian. But, in the entire country, Serbs were in majority. A narrow-minded Serb nationalist Milosevic had won the election. His government was very hostile to the Kosovo Albanians. He wanted the Serbs to dominate the country. Many Serb leaders thought that Ethnic minorities like Albanians should either leave the country or accept the dominance of the Serbs. This massacre was being carried out by the army of their own country, working under the direction of a leader who came to power through democratic elections. This was one of the worst instances of killings based on ethnic prejudices in recent times. Finally, several other countries intervened to stop this massacre. Milosevic lost power and was tried by an International Court of Justice for crimes against humanity.

Question 3.
Describe the citizen’s Rights in Saudi Arabia.
Answer:

• The country is ruled by a hereditary king and the people have no role in electing or changing their rulers.
• The king selects the legislature as well as the executive. He appoints the judges and can change any of their decisions.
• Citizens cannot form polfflcal parties or any political organisations. Media cannot report anything that the monarch does not like.
• There is no freedom of religion. Every citizen is required to be Muslim. Non-Muslim residents can follow their religion in private, but not in public.
• Women are subjected to many public restrictions. The testimony of one man is considered equal to that of two women. (Any three)

Question 4.
According to our Constitution, what are the three evils?
Or
What is “Right against Exploitation”?
Answer:
Every citizen has a right not to be exploited. There are clear provisions in the ‘ constitution that prevent exploitation of the weaker sections of the society. The constitution mentions three specific evils and declares these illegal.

• First, The Constitution prohibits ‘traffic in human beings’. Traffic here means selling and buying of human beings, usually women, for immoral purposes.
• Second, Our Constitution also prohibits forced labour or begar in any form. ‘Begar’ is a practice where the worker is forced to render service to the ‘master’ free of charge or at a nominal remuneration. When this practice takes place on a life-long basis, it is called the practice of bonded labour.
• Third, The Constitution also prohibits child labour. No one can employ a child below the age of fourteen to work in any factory or mine or in any other hazardous work, such as railways and ports. Using this as a basis, many laws have been made to prohibit children from working in industries such as beedi-making, firecrackers and matches, printing and dyeing.

Question 5.
Why does the Constitution specify the cultural and educational rights of the minorities?
Answer:
The constitution specify the cultural and educational rights of the minorities because :

• Any section of citizens with a distinct language or culture have a right to conserve it.
• Admission to any educational institution maintained by government or receiving government aid cannot be denied to any citizen on the ground of religion or language.
• All minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Here, minority does not mean only religious minority at the national level. In some places, people speaking a particular language are in majority; people speaking a different language are in a minority.

For example, Telugu speaking people form a majority in Andhra Pradesh. But, they are a minority in the neighbouring state of Karnataka. Sikhs constitute a majority in Punjab. But, they are a minority in Rajasthan, Haryana and Delhi.

Question 6.
Are the reservations provided to the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and OBCs against the Right to Equality?
Answer:
These reservations are not against the Right to Equality. In a broader sense, equality does not mean giving the same treatment to everyone, no matter what they need. Equality means giving everyone an equal opportunity to achieve whatever one is capable of. Sometimes, it is necessary to give job reservations to socially and economically backward sections of the society to ensure equal opportunity. The Constitution says that the reservations of this kind are not a violation of the Right to Equality.

Question 7.
Explain the ‘Right to Equality’ enjoyed by the citizens of India.
Answer:
All citizens irrespective of caste, colour, region, religion, ethnicity, sex or place of birth are equal before the law. Every citizen shall have the access to public places like shops, restaurants, hotels, and cinema halls. There shall be no restriction with regard to the use of wells, tanks, bathing ghats, roads, playgrounds and places of public resorts maintained by the government or dedicated to the use of public. All citizens shall have equal opportunity in matters of employment.

Question 8.
According to Dr. Ambedkar—‘The Right to Constitutional Remedies is called the heart and soul of our Constitution’. Explain.
Answer:
This ‘Right’ makes other ‘Rights’ effective. If sometimes our rights are violated by fellow citizens, private bodies or by the government, we can seek remedy through courts. If it is a Fundamental Right, we can directly approach the Supreme Court or the High Court of a state. That is why Dr. Ambedkar called it “the heart and soul” of our Constitution.

Question 9.
Explain the ‘Right to Freedom of Religion’.
Answer:
India is a secular state. A secular state is one that does not establish any one religion as official religion. Indian secularism practices an attitude of a principal and equal distance from all religions. The state must be neutral and impartial in dealing with all religions. Every person has a right to profess, practice and propagate any religion that he or she believes in.

There shall be no religious instruction in the government educational institutions. In educational institutions managed by private bodies, no person shall be compelled to take part in any religious instruction or to attend any religious worship.

Question 10.
Explain the meaning of ‘Freedom of Speech and Expression’.
Answer:
A person’s ideas and personality develop only when he can freely communicate with others. Even if a hundred people think in one way, one should have the freedom to think differently and express their views accordingly.
Freedom of Speech and Expression means :

• You are free to criticise the government or the activities of the association in your conversations with parents, friends and relatives.
• You may publicise your views through a pamphlet, magazine or newspaper. You can do it through paintings, poetry or songs.
• You cannot use this freedom to instigate violence against others. You cannot use it to incite people to rebel against government.

Question 11.
Why do we need rights in a democracy?
Answer:
We need rights in a democracy because of the following reasons :

• Rights protect minorities tern the oppression of majority. They ensure that the majority cannot do whatever it likes. Rights are guarantees which can be used when things go wrong.
• Things may go wrong when some citizens may wish to take away the rights of others. This usually happens when those in majority want to dominate those in minority.
• The government should protect the citizens’ rights in such a situation. But, sometimes elected governments may not protect or may even attack the rights of their own citizens. That is why some rights need to be placed higher than the government, so that the government cannot violate them. In most democracies, the basic rights of the citizens are written down in the Constitution.

Question 12.
How are the Fundamental Rights guaranteed?
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the following ways :
(a) The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed against the actions of the Legislature, the Executive, and any other authorities instituted by the government. There can be no law or action that violates the Fundamental Rights.
(b) If any act of the Legislature or the Executive takes away or limits any of the Fundamental Rights, it will be invalid. We can challenge such laws of the central and state governments, the policies and actions of the government or the governmental organisations like the nationalized banks or electricity boards.
(c) Courts also enforce the Fundamental Rights against private individuals and private bodies. The Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to issue directions, orders or writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights. They can also award compensation to the victims and punishment to the violators.

Question 13.
State the new rights granted by the Constitution of South Africa to its people.
Answer:
The Constitution of South Africa guarantees its citizens several kinds of new rights :

• Right to privacy, so that citizens or their home cannot be searched, their phones cannot be tapped, their communication cannot be opened.
• Flight to an environment that is not harmful to their health or well-being;
• Right to have access to adequate housing.
• Right to have access to health care services, sufficient food and water; no one may be refused emergency medical treatment.

Question 14.
Which extreme form of social discrimination is forbidden by the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The Constitution mentions one extreme form of social discrimination, the practice of untouchability, and clearly directs the government to put an end to it. The practice of untouchability has been forbidden in any form. Untouchability here does not only mean refusal to touch people belonging to certain castes.

It refers to any belief or social practice which looks down upon people on account of their birth with certain caste labels. Such practice denies them interaction with others or access to public places as equal citizens. So, the Constitution made untouchability a punishable offence.

Question 15.
How can you say that India is a secular state?
Answer:
A secular state is one that does not establish any one religion as official religion. Most people in India, like anywhere else in the world, follow different religions. Indian secularism practices an attitude of a principled and equal distance from all religions. The state must be neutral and impartial in dealing with all religions. Every person has a right to profess, practice and propagate the religion he or she believes in. Every religious group or sect is free to manage its religious affairs. India is a secular state.

A secular state is one that does not confer any privilege or favour on any particular religion. Nor does it punish or discriminate against people on the basis of religion they follow.

Question 16.
What are the Fundamental Rights? How many Fundamental Rights are given in our Constitution?
Answer:
In India, like most other democracies in the world, the rights are mentioned in the Constitution. Some rights which are fundamental to our life are given a special status. They are called Fundamental Rights. Our Constitution provides us six Fundamental Rights.
These are :

• Right to Equality
• Flight to Freedom
• Right against Exploitation
• Right to Freedom of Religion
• Cultural and Educational Rights
• Right to Constitutional Remedies

They are an important basic feature of India’s Constitution.

Question 17.
Which types of issues are raised through Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?
Answer:
Any person can go to the court against the violation of the Fundamental flight, if it is of social or public interest. It is called Public Interest Litigation (PIL). Under the PIL, any citizen or group of citizens can approach the Supreme Court or a High Court for the protection of public interest against a particular law or action of the government. One can write to the judges even on a postcard. The court will take up the matter if the judges find it in public interest.

Democratic Rights Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are rights? How are they related to the society?
Answer:
(i) Rights are claims of a person over other fellow beings, over the society and over the government. The claims should be reasonable. They should be such, that can be made available to others in an equal measure. Thus, a right comes with an obligation to respect other rights.
(ii)

• Every society makes certain rules to regulate our conduct. They tell us what is right and what is wrong. What is recognised by the society as rightful becomes the basis of rights. That is why the notion of rights changes from time to time and society to society.
• When law recognises some claims, they become enforceable. We can then demand their application.
• So, if we want to call any claim a right, it has to have these three qualities. Rights are reasonable claims of persons recognised by society and sanctioned by law.

Question 2.
Why is the ‘Right to Freedom’ called a cluster of several rights?
Answer:
Under the Indian Constitution, all citizens exercise several freedoms which are covered in the right to freedom. So, every citizen has the right to all the following freedoms :

• Freedom of speech and expression
• Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner
• Freedom to form associations and unions
• Freedom to move freely throughout the country
• Freedom to reside in any part of the country, and
• Freedom to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Question 3.
Explain the expanding scope of rights.
Answer:

• From time to time, the courts gave judgments to expand the scope of rights. Certain rights like right to freedom of press, right to information, and right to education are derived from the Fundamental Rights.
• Now, school education has become a right for Indian citizens. The governments are responsible for providing free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of 14 years.
• Parliament has enacted a law giving the right to information to the citizens. This Act was made under the Fundamental Right to freedom of thought and expression. We have a right to seek information from government offices.
• Recently, the Supreme Court has expanded the meaning of the right to life to include the right to food. Also, rights are not limited only to Fundamental Rights as enumerated in the Constitution.
• Constitution provides many more rights, which may not be Fundamental Rights.
  For example, the right to property is not a Fundamental Right, but it is a constitutional right. Right to vote in elections is an important constitutional right. Sometimes, the expansion takes place in what is called human rights.
•  These are universal moral claims that may or may not have been recognized by law. In that sense, these claims are not rights. With the expansion of democracy all over the world, there a greater pressure on governments to accept these claims.

Question 4.
What is the role of National Human Rights Commission in securing the human rights? How does it Work?
Answer:
The National Human Rights Commission is an independent commission set up by law in 1993. The Commission is appointed by the President and includes retired judges, officers and eminent citizens.

• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) focuses on helping the victims in securing their human rights. These include all the rights granted to the citizens by the Constitution.
• For NHRC, human rights also include the rights mentioned in the UN-sponsored international treaties that India has signed.
• The NHRC cannot by itself punish the guilty. It is the responsibility of the courts. The NHRC makes an independent and credible inquiry into any case of violation of human rights.
• The Commission presents its findings and recommendations to the government or intervenes in the court on behalf of the victims.
• Like any court, it can summon witnesses, question any government official, demand any official paper, visit any prison for inspection or send its own team for on-the-spot inquiry.

Question 5.
List the rights subjected to International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights.
Answer:
International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights recognises many rights that are not directly a part of the Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution. This has not yet become an international treaty. But, human right activists all over the world see this as a standard of human rights.
These include :

• Right to work: opportunity to everyone to earn livelihood by working.
• Right to safe and healthy working conditions, fair wages that can provide decent standard of living for the workers and their families.
• Right to adequate standard of living including adequate food, clothing and housing.
• Right to social security and insurance.
• Right to health: medical care during illness, special care for women during childbirth and prevention of epidemics.
• Right to education: free and compulsory primary education, equal access to higher education.

Question 6.
If the government or Police arrest anybody on the basis of the prevailing laws, what rules do they have to follow?
Answer:
(i) The Constitution says that no person can be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. It means that no person can be killed unless the court has ordered a death sentence.
(ii) A government or police officer can arrest or detain any citizen unless he has proper legal justification. Even when they do, they have to follow some procedures :

• A person who is arreted and detained in custody will have to be informed of the reasons for such arrest and detention.
• A person who is arrested and detained shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours of arrest.
• Such a person has the right to consult a lawyer or engage a lawyer for his defence.

Question 7.
How can the judiciary protect the Fundamental Rights of citizens?
Answer:
The judiciary protect the Fundamental Rights of citizens on the following ways :

• It is possible that sometimes our rights may be violated by fellow citizens, private bodies or by the government. When any of our rights are violated we can seek remedy through courts. If it is a Fundamental Right, we can directly approach the Supreme Court or the High Court of a state.
• Fundamental Rights are guaranteed against the actions of the Legislatures, the Executive, and any other authorities instituted by the government. There can be no law or action that violates the Fundamental Rights.
• If any act of the Legislature or the Executive takes away or limits any of the Fundamental Rights, it will be invalid. We can challenge such laws of the central and state governments,
• Courts also enforce the Fundamental Flights against private individuals and bodies. The Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to issue directions, orders or writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.
• They can also award compensation to the victims and punishment to the violators.

Question 8.
What is Amnesty International? State the condition of prisoners according to the report of Amnesty International in Guantanamo Bay.
Answer:
It is an international organisation of volunteers who campaign for human rights. This organisation brings out independent reports on the violation of human rights all over the world and collected information on the condition of the prisoners in Guantanamo Bay.

• The prisoners were being tortured in ways that violated the US laws.
• They were being denied the treatment that even prisoners of war must get as per international treaties.
• Many prisoners had tried protesting against these conditions by going on a hunger strike.
• Prisoners were not released even after they were officially declared not guilty.

Question 9.
What do you mean by ‘Untouchability’? What did Sainath find while travelling to the various parts of the country?
Answer:
It refers to any belief or social practice which looks down upon people on account of their birth with certain caste labels. Such practice denies them interaction with others or access to public places as equal citizens. So, the Constitution made untouchability a punishable offence.

In 1999, R Sainath wrote a series of news reports in The Hindu describing untouchability and caste discrimination that was still being practiced against Dalits or persons belonging to Scheduled Castes. He travelled to various parts of the country and found that in many places :

• Tea stalls kept two kinds of cups, one for Dalits and one for others.
• Barbers refused to serve Dalit clients.
• Dalit students were made to sit separately in the classroom or drink water from separate pitcher.
• Dalit grooms were not allowed to ride a horse in the wedding procession.
• Dalits were not allowed to use common handpump or if they did, the handpump was washed to purify it.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

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The post Democratic Rights Class 9 Extra Questions Civics Chapter 6 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

The Story of Village Palampur Class 9 Extra Questions Social Science Economics Chapter 1

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 1 The Story of Village Palampur

The Story of Village Palampur Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the main reason behind growing three different crops in a year?
Answer:
The village has a well-developed system of irrigation.

Question 2.
What are the main factors of production?
Answer:
Land, labour, physical capital and human capital.

Question 3.
Machinery, work plants, equipments, new technology, buildings are the example of
Answer:
Fixed capital

Question 4.
Consumption of chemical fertilisers is highest in which State of India?
Answer:
Punjab

Question 5.
The quality of resources which can be improved through investment in education and training is the _______ .
Answer:
Human capital

Question 6.
Why is there heavy competition for work among the farm labourers in village Palampur?
Answer:
Because people are ready to work for lower wages.

Question 7.
To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is called _______ .
Answer:
Multiple cropping.

Question 8.
The use of higher yields with combination of HYV (High Yielding Varieties) seeds, irrigation, chemical fertilisers, pesticides, etc. refers to _______ .
Answer:
Modern cropping.

Question 9.
One of the important non-farming activities besides farming in Palampur is _______ .
Answer:
Dairy farming.

Question 10.
Some shopkeepers in Palampur buy various goods from wholesale markets in the cities and sell them in the village. This process is called .
Answer:
Trading (exchange of goods).

Question 11.
Name two crops that grow in the rainy season.
Answer:
Jowar and bajra

Question 12.
Money in hand and raw materials are an example of _______ .
Answer:
Working capital

Question 13.
When were the high yielding varieties (HYV) of seeds introduced to the Indian farmers? -<§01
Answer:
In the late 1960s

Question 14.
What is the main production activity in Palampur village?
Answer:
Farming is the main production activity in Palampur village.

Question 15.
What do you understand by the Green Revolution?
Answer:
Green Revolution was started in the late 1960s in the field of agriculture, under this revolution, modern methods of farming were adopted to increase agriculture product.

Question 16.
Who are the small farmers?
Answer:
Small farmers are those farmers who have less than 2 hectares of land.

Question 17.
How many people of Palampur village were engaged in non-farming activities?
Answer:
25% people of Palampur village were engaged in non-farming activities.

Question 18.
What is the full form of HYV?
Answer:
High-Yielding Varieties.

Question 19.
How can you say that the use of modern farming methods is beneficial for Indian farmers?
Answer:
By using modern farming methods, Indian farmers are able to produce much greater amount of grains on a single plant. There is a large increase in the production of wheat. Using these methods, the farmers have greater amounts of surplus wheat to sell in the markets.

Question 20.
What is the most abundant factor of production?
Answer:
Labour is the most abundant factor of production.

Question 21.
From where do most of the small farmers borrow money to arrange for the capital in Palampur?
Answer:
Village moneylenders

Question 22.
Why do the farmers of Palampur follow multiple cropping?
Answer:
It is because this method is the most common way of increasing production.

Question 23.
What is meant by working capital?
Answer:
Raw materials and money in hand are called working capital.

Question 24.
Give two examples of fixed capital.
Answer:
Machines and buildings.

Question 25.
What role do markets play in the expansion of non-farm activities?
Answer:
Goods and services produced are sold in the markets.

Question 26.
What is multiple cropping?
Answer:
Multiple cropping means growing more than one crop on the same piece of land in a year.

Question 27.
Name the Indian states that tried out the modern farming methods at first.
Answer:
Farmers of Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh were the first to try out the modern farming methods in India.

Question 28.
What is measured as the crop produced on given piece of land during a single season?
Answer:
Yield is measured as crop produced on a given piece of land during a single season.

Question 29.
What are the constituents of modern farming methods?
Answer:
The constituents of modern farming methods are use of high yielding variety of seeds, using chemical fertilisers and pesticides, as well as using plenty of water for irrigation.

Question 30.
Mention one difference between land and capital.
Answer:
Land is a natural resource whereas capital is man-made factor of production.

Question 31.
What is the harmful effect of continuous use of groundwater for tubewell irrigation?
Answer:
The continuous use of groundwater for tubewell irrigation has led to the depletion of the water-table.

Question 32.
What is aim of production?
Answer:
The aim of production is to produce the goods and services that we want.

The Story of Village Palampur Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the essential four requirements for production?
Answer:
The essential four requirements for production of goods and services are :

• Land, and other natural resources like water, forests, minerals.
• Labour, i.e., people who will do the work. Each worker is providing the labour necessary for production.?
• The third requirement is physical capital, i.e., variety of inputs required at every stage during production.
• The fourth requirement is knowledge and enterprise to be able to put together land, labour and physical capital and produce an output.

Question 2.
Mention the main features of the Green Revolution.
Answer:
The main features of Green Revolution are :

• Increase in the production of wheat and rice.
• Use of chemical fertilizers.
• Use of insecticides and pesticides.
• Use of High Yielding Varieties (HYVs) of seeds.
• Mechanisation of agriculture. (Any three)

Question 3.
What are the harmful effects of the Green Revolution.
Answer:
The harmful effects of the Green Revolution are :

• The Green Revolutions is responsible for the loss of soil fertility due to increased use of chemical fertilizers.
• The chemical fertilizers provide minerals which dissolve in water and are immediately available to plants. But, these may not be retained in the soil for long.

Question 4.
What do you mean by working capital?
Answer:
Production requires a variety of raw materials such as the yarn used by the weaver and the clay used by the potter. Also, some money is always required during production to make payments and buy other necessary items. Raw materials and money in hand are called working capital. Unlike tools, machines and buildings, these are used up in production.

Question 5.
What was the major disadvantage associated with HYV seeds? Explain.
Answer:
The biggest disadvantage associated with HYV seeds is the requirement of plenty of water and chemical fertilisers and pesticides to produce best results. Higher yields are possible only from combination of HYV seeds, irrigation, chemical fertilisers, pesticides, etc. Chemical fertilisers and pesticides degrade our environment by killing necessary bacteria in soil. Poor farmers can not afford HYV seeds due to increased requirement of fertilisers and machinery. New machinery replaced manual labour leading to unemployment and rural-urban migration.

Question 6.
Discuss dairy farming, a non-farming, activity in village Palampur, in detail.
Answer:
Dairy is a common activity in many families of Palampur. People feed their buffalos on various kinds of grass, the jowar and bajra that grow during the rainy season. The milk is sold in Raiganj, the nearby large village.
Two traders from Shahpur town have set up collection cum chilling centers at Raiganj from where the milk is transported to far away towns and cities.

Question 7.
Discuss small-scale manufacturing, a non-farming activity in village Palampur, in detail.
Answer:

• Less than fifty people are engaged in manufacturing in Palampur.
• Unlike the manufacturing that takes place in the big factories in the towns and cities, manufacturing in Palampur involves very simple production methods and are done on a small scale.
• They are carried out mostly at home or in the fields with the help of family labour. Rarely are labourers hired.

Question 8.
Describe transportation, a non-farming activity in village Palampur, in detail.
Answer:

• There are varieties of vehicles on the road connecting Palampur to Raiganj.
• Rickshawallahs, tongawallahs, jeep, tractor, truck drivers and people driving the traditional bullock cart and bogey are people in the transport services.
• They ferry people and goods from one place to another, and in return get paid for it. The number of people involved in transport has grown over the last several years.

Question 9.
How did Mishrilal managed to get a small profit in his business?
Answer:
Mishrilal has purchased a mechanical sugarcane crushing machine that run on electricity and has set it up on his field. Sugarcane crushing was earlier done with the help of bullocks, but people prefer to do it by machines these days.

Mishrilal also buys sugarcane from other farmers and processes it into jaggery. The jaggery is then sold to traders at Shahpur. In the process, Mishrilal makes a small profit.

Question 10.
What do you mean by physical capital? What are the items that come under physical capital?
Answer:
Physical capital includes the variety of inputs required at every stage during production. The following items come under the category of physical capital:
(a) Tools, machines, buildings: Tools and machines range from very simple tools such as a farmer’s plough to sophisticated machines such as generators, turbines, computers, etc. Tools, machines, building can be used in production over many years.
(b) Raw materials and money in hand: Production requires a variety of raw materials such as the yarn used by the weaver and the clay used by the potter. Also, some money is always required during production to make payments and buy other necessary items. Raw materials and money in hand are called working capital.

Question 11.
Write a short note on shopkeeping, a non-farming activity in village Palampur.
Answer:
There are very less people involved in trade in Palampur. The traders of Palampur are shopkeepers who buy various goods from wholesale markets in the cities and sell them in the village. There are small general stores in the village selling a wide range of items like rice, wheat, sugar, tea, oil, biscuits, soap, toothpaste, batteries, candles, notebooks, pen, pencil, even some clothes. A few of the families whose houses are close to the bus stand have used a part of the space to open small shops. They sell eatables.

Question 12.
What are the various types of crops grown in village Palampur?
Answer:
The entire land is cultivated in village Palampur. There are different types of crops grown in the village.
During the rainy season (kharif,) farmers grow jowar and bajra. These plants are used as cattle feed. It is followed by cultivation of potato between October and December. In the winter season (rabi), fields are sown with wheat. A part of the land area is also devoted to sugarcane which is harvested once every year. Sugarcane, in its raw form, or as jaggery, is sold to traders in Shahpur.

Question 13.
What do you mean by surplus? How is the sale of surplus farm products done?
Answer:
Surplus is the difference between the quantity of total production of the crop produced by the farmer and the quantity that he keeps for self-consumption.

Medium and large farmers produce a large surplus of the crop. By selling this surplus crop in the market, they earn income. The traders at the market buy the crop and sell it further to the shopkeepers in the towns and cities.

Question 14.
How is the required capital in farming arranged?
Answer:

• Most small farmers have to borrow money to arrange for the capital. They borrow from large farmers or the village moneylenders or the traders who supply various inputs for cultivation. The rate of interest on such loans is very high. They are put to great distress to repay the loan.
• In contrast to the small farmers, the medium and large farmers have their own savings from farming. They are, thus, able to arrange for the capital needed.

The Story of Village Palampur Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How can you say that Palampur is a well-developed village?
Answer:
Palampur is a well-developed village because :

• This village has about 450 families belonging to several different castes. The 80 upper caste families own the majority of land in the village. Their houses, some of them quite large, are made of brick with cement plastering.
• The SCs (dalits) comprise one-third of the population and live in one corner of the village and in much smaller houses, some of which are of mud and straw.
• Most of the houses have electric connections. Electricity powers all the tubewells in the fields and is used in various types of small business.
• Palampur has two primary schools and one high school. There is a primary health centre run by the government and one private dispensary where the sick are treated.

Question 2.
Differentiate between fixed capital and working capital.
Answer:
Both fixed capital and working capital come under the category of physical capital which is one of the four requirements for production of goods and services.

(i) Fixed Capital :

• It includes fixed factors of production which are used for years.
• Tools and machines range from very simple tools such as a farmer’s plough to sophisticated machines such as generators, turbines, etc.
• It includes tools, machines, buildings, computers, etc.

(ii) Working Capital :

• It includes variable factors of production which are needed to be arranged every time at the time of production.
• Whatever money and raw material are required for production, are included in it.
• It is required to be arranged according to the desired production.

Question 3.
What are the main reasons to grow three different crops in a year in Palampur?
Answer:
The main reasons to grow three different crops in a year in Palampur are :

• To grow three different crops in a year in Palampur is due to the well-developed system of irrigation. Electricity came early to Palampur. Its major impact was to transform the system of irrigation.
• Persian wheels were, till then, used by farmers to draw water from the wells and to irrigate small fields. People saw that the electric-run tubewells could irrigate much larger areas of land more effectively.
• The first few tubewells were installed by the government. Soon, however, farmers started setting up private tubewells.
• As a result, by mid-1970s, the entire cultivated area of 200 hectares (ha.) was irrigated.

Question 4.
What is meant by the Green Revolution? Mention some of its important features.
Answer:

• The Green Revolution in the late 1960s introduced the Indian farmer to cultivation of wheat and rice using High Yielding Varieties (HYVs) of seeds. Compared to the traditional seeds, the HYV seeds promised to produce much greater amounts of grain on a single plant.
• As a result, the same piece of land would now produce far larger quantities of foodgrains than was possible earlier.
• HYV seeds, however, needed plenty of water and also chemical fertilizers and pesticides to produce best results. Higher yields were possible only from a combination of HYV seeds, irrigation, chemical fertilisers, pesticides, etc.
• Farmers of Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh were the first to try out the modem farming method in India. The farmers in these regions set up tubewells for irrigation, and made use of HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers and pesticides in farming.
• Some of them bought farra-machinery like tractors and threshers, which made ploughing and harvesting faster. They were rewarded with high yields of wheat.

Question 5.
What are the features of traditional methods of farming?
Answer:
The features of traditional methods of farming are :

• Traditional seeds are used in this farming.
• Irrigation depends upon monsoons.
• Wooden tools and equipment are used.
• Bullock carts are used to plough land.
• The production is done for family use.
• Manure and cow dung are used to increase the fertility of the soil.

Question 6.
What are the ill effects of the Green Revolution?
Answer:
The ill effects of the Green Revolution are :

• The Green Revolution is associated with the loss of soil fertility due to increased use of chemical fertilizer.
• Continuous use of groundwater for tubewell irrigation has led to the depletion of the water-table.
• Environmental resources like soil fertility and groundwater, are built up over years. Once destroyed, it is very difficult to restore them.
• Modern farming methods used under the Green Revolution have overused the natural resources base. Maximum forestland was converted into agricultural land.
• The Green Revolution was limited only up to few states like Punjab and Haryana.

Question 7.
How is land distributed amongst the farmers of Palampur?
Answer:
In Palampur, about one-third of the 450 families are landless, i.e., 150 families. Most of them are dalits, and have no land for cultivation.

240 families cultivate small plots of land less than 2 hectares in size. Cultivation of such plots doesn’t bring adequate income to the farmer’s family.

On the other hand, more than half the area of the village is covered by plots that are quite large in size.
In Palampur, there are 60 families of medium and large farmers who cultivate more than 2 hectares of land. A few of the large farmers have land extending over 10 hectares or more.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post The Story of Village Palampur Class 9 Extra Questions Economics Chapter 1 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

People as Resource Class 9 Extra Questions Social Science Economics Chapter 2

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource

People as Resource Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When there is investment made in the form of education, training and medical care, the population becomes _______ .
Answer:
Human capital

Question 2. Greater knowledge with the help of improved technology can rapidly improve the production of land resources. One big example of this in India is _______ .
Answer:
Green Revolution

Question 3.
India’s large population can be used as a great asset, like other resources. It can be treated as a _______ .
Answer:
Human resource

Question 4.
Activities like agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing, poultry farming and mining are part of _______ .
Answer:
Primary sector

Question 5.
Quarrying and manufacturing is included in the _______ .
Answer:
Secondary sector

Question 6.
What do you mean by ‘death rate’ ?
Answer:
Death rate is the number of people per 1,000 who die during a particular period of time.

Question 7.
The activities that result in the production of goods and services and add value to the national income are called _______ .
Answer:
Economic activities

Question 8.
Economic activities are basically of two types _______ .
Answer:
Market activities and non-market activities

Question 9.
Activities which include production of goods or services, including government service and are performed for pay or profit, are called _______ .
Answer:
Market activities.

Question 10.
Self-consumption is _______ .
Answer:
Non-market activities.

Question 11.
Our national policy aims at improving the _______ .
Answer:
Accessibility of healthcare and family welfare.

Question 12.
The workforce population of India includes people from the age group of _______ .
Answer:
15-59 years

Question 13.
Unemployment is said to exist when people who are willing to work at the going wages, cannot find job. In India it is of two types in rural areas _______ .
Answer:
Seasonal and disguised unemployment.

Question 14.
In urban areas, youths with graduation and post graduation degrees are not able to find job. This type of unemployment is called _______ .
Answer:
Educated unemployment

Question 15.
When does population become human capital ?
Answer:
Population becomes human capital when investment is made in the form of education, training and medical care.

Question 16.
What do you understand by the term ‘National Income’ ?
Answer:
National income is a sum of total income of goods and services produced in a country during a financial year.

Question 17.
What is Infant Mortality Rate ?
Answer:
Death of a child under one year of age.

Question 18.
How can a large population be turned into a productive asset ?
Answer:
A large population can be turned into a productive asset by making investment in human capital.

Question 19.
What do you understand by Seasonal Unemployment ?
Answer:
People find work at the time of sowing, harvesting and weeding, etc., but rest of the year, they are unemployed. This is called seasonal unemployment.

Question 20.
How can infant mortality be reduced ?
Answer:
Infant mortality can be reduced by protection of children from infection, ensuring the nutrition of both the mother and the child, and child care.

Question 21.
What does increase in longevity of life indicate?
Answer:
Increase in longevity of life is an indicator of good quality of life marked by self-confidence.

Question 22.
What are the main consequences of unemployment?
Answer:
Employment leads to wastage of manpower resources and it tends to increase economic overload.

Question 23.
What do you mean by “Birth Rate”?
Answer:
Birth rate is the number of babies born for every 1,000 people during a particular period of time.

Question 24.
When we refer to a person as a ‘resource’, we are referring to which of his/her skills?
Answer:
When a person is referred to as a resource, it refers to that person’s productive skills and abilities.

Question 25.
What is the main purpose of mid-day meal scheme?
Answer:
Mid-day meed scheme has been implemented to encourage attendance and retention of children and improve their nutritional status.

Question 26.
What is the reason behind the development of vocational streams?
Answer:
Vocational streams have been enveloped to equip large number of high school students with occupations related to knowledge and skills.

Question 27.
Which sector of the Indian economy absorbs the maximum labour?
Answer:
Agriculture is the most labour-absorbing sector of the economy.

Question 28.
What do you understand by the term “Sarva Siksha Abhiyan”?
Answer:
Sarva Siksha Abhiyan is a flagship programme of Government of India that aims to provide elementary education to all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years.

Question 29.
What is the name of the school set in each district by the government for the talented students of a rural area?
Answer:
Navodaya Vidyalaya.

Question 30.
What is the current literacy rate of India, according to Census of 2011?
Answer:
According to Census of 2011, the literacy rate of India is 74 per cent.

People as Resource Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the main difference between ‘Human Capital’ and ‘Human Capital Formation’?
Answer:
Human Capital: Population becomes human capital when there is investment made in the form of education, training and health care.
Human Capital Formation: When the existing ‘human resource’ or ‘human capital’ is further developed by becoming more educated and healthy, it is known as human capital formation.

Question 2.
List the demerits of increase in population.
Answer:
The demerits of population increase are :

• The per capita income drops.
• Non-productive force increases.
• The people below poverty line increases.
• Resources like land, factories or other tools and machinery are divided into more persons so profit becomes divided.
• Slums come up.
• Unemployment increases.

Question 3.
What is the importance of education.
Answer:
The importance of education is as follows :

• It helps a person to realise his potential and the ability to do work.
• It provides new aspiration. It develops values of life. It contributes towards the growth of society also.
• It enhances the national income, cultural richness and increases the efficiency of governance.

Question 4.
List down the disadvantages of unemployment.
Answer:
The disadvantages of unemployment are :

• It leads to wastage of manpower resource. People who are an asset for the economy, turn into liability Inability of educated people who are willing to work to find gainful employment implies a great waste.
• Unemployment is a social evil. Unemployed people are frustrated class. There is a feeling of helplessness and despair among the youth. Unemployment creates social unrest and tension. It leads to oppression and exploitation in the society.
• It tends to increase economic overload. The dependence of the unemployed on the working population increases.

Question 5.
Distinguish between market activities and non-market activities.
Or
What are the two types of economic activity? Explain.
Answer:

• Market Activities: Market activities involve remuneration to anyone who performs, i.e., activity performed for pay or profit. These include production of goods or services including government service.
• Non-market Activities: Non-market activities are the production for self-consumption. These can be consumption and processing of primary product and own account production of fixed assets.

Question 6.
Suggest any three ways to transform population load into an asset.
Answer:
The three ways to transform population load into an asset are :

• To improve literacy rate: Education provides new aspiration and develops values of life. Education helps in enhancing the national income, cultural richness and increases the efficiency of governance.
• Health: The health of a person helps him to realise his potential and the ability to fight illness. Increase in longevity of life in an indicator of good quality of life marked by self-confidence. It involves the protection of children from infection, ensuring nutrition and along with mother and the child and child care.
• Formation of skills: Providing vocational and skill-based education helps the people to get employment and therefore, they contribute to the national income later.

Question 7.
What is the nature of unemployment in India?
Answer:
In India, unemployment is widespread. Unemployment is found both in its rural and urban areas. There is seasonal and disguised unemployment in its rural areas. People here are dependent on agriculture. Certain months do not provide much work to the people dependant upon agriculture.

In urban areas, educated unemployment has become a serious problem. Many educated youths are not able to find jobs. Unemployment among graduates and post-graduates has increased f§ster than among the matriculates.

Question 8.
What measures have been taken by the government to spread education and skills among boys and girls ?
Answer:
There is a provision made for providing universal access, retention and quality in elementary education with a special emphasis on girls. There is also an establishment of pace setting of schools like Navodaya Vidyalaya in each district. Vocational streams have been developed to equip large number of high school students with occupations related to knowledge and skills.

Question 9.
What are the objectives of the 12th Five Year Plan in the field of education?
Answer:
The 12th plan endeavoured to raise the country’s Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education in the age group of 18 to 23 years to 25.2% by 2017-18 and to reach the target of 30% by 2020-21, which would be broadly in line with world average. The strategy focuses on increasing access, quality, adoption of state-specific curriculum modification, vocationalisation and networking on the use of information technology. The plan also focuses on distance education, convergence of formal, non-formal, distance and IT education institutions.

Question 10.
What are the measures taken by the government to improve literacy conditions in India?
Answer:
The following the measures have been taken by the government to improve literacy conditions in India

• Opening of Navodaya Vidyalayas: Government has started to establish Navodaya Vidyalayas in each district. Vocational streams have been developed to equip large number of high school students with occupations related to knowledge and skills.
• Sarva Siksha Abhiyan: It is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all the children of age group 6-14 years. It is an initiative of the Central Government in partnership with the States, the local government and the community for achieving the goal of universalisation of elementary education.
• Mid-day Meal Scheme: It is a programme aimed to encourage attendance and retention of children in schools and improve their nutritional status.

Question 11.
Why did Japan emerge as a developed country inspite of its poor natural resource?
Answer:
Japan emerged as a developed country inspite of its poor natural resource because :

• As they did not have any other resource they invested in the development of human resource.
• They import the natural resource needed in their country. They have invested on people, especially in the field of education and health.
• These people have made efficient use of other resources, like land and capital. Efficiency and the technology evolved by people have made these countries rich and developed.

Question 12.
How are the children of educated parents different from those of uneducated parents?
Answer:
The children of educated parents are different from those of uneducated parents in the following ways :

• Children of educated parents get better opportunities and support in their education.
• Their nutritional values are taken care in a better way by the educated parents in comparison to the uneducated parents.
• The children of educated parents do not lack in hygiene as the educated parents are conscious about it.

Question 13.
Give an account of educational achievements made in India so far.
Answer:
Over the past 50 years, there has been a significant growth in the number of universities and institutions of higher learning in specialized areas.

The plan outlay on education has increased from ₹ 151 crore in the first plan to ₹ 3766.90 crore in the eleventh plan. The expenditure on education as a percentage of GDP rose from 0.64% in 1951-52 to 3.0% in 2015-16 (B.E.) and has remained stagnant around 3% from past few years. The literacy rates have increased from 18% in 1951 to 74% in 2010-11.

People as Resource Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How does investment in human capital yield a return just like investment in physical capital?
Answer:
(i) Investment in human capital (through education, training, medical care) yields a return just like investment in physical capital. This can be seen directly in the form of higher incomes earned because of higher productivity of the more educated or the better trained persons, as well as the higher productivity of healthier people,

(ii) Not only do the more educated and the healthier people gain through higher incomes, society gains also in other indirect ways because the advantages of a more educated or a healthier population spreads to those also who themselves were not directly educated or given health care. In fact, human capital is in one way superior to other resources like land and physical capital. Human resource can make use of land and capital. Land and capital cannot become useful on its own.

Question 2.
What different the strategies should be made by the government to solve the unemployment in India.
Answer:
The strategies made by the government to solve the problem of unemployment in India:

• Heavy Investment in Basic Industries: Investment in heavy and basic industries and consumer goods industries should be increased. They provide more employment along with the supply of consumer goods.
• Development of Cottage and Small-scale Industries: They provide more employment by adopting labour intensive techniques.
• Change in Educational System: More emphasis should be given to vocational education.
• Checking of Population Explosion: Rapidly rising population should be checked by adopting family planning and welfare schemes.
• Modernisation of Agriculture: Modernisation of agriculture should be done. Waste lands should be utilised.
• Introduction of Rural Works Programmes: Rural works programmes should be increased.
• Developing Infrastructure of Economy: Infrastructure of the economy should be developed.
• Subsidies to Private Sector: Subsidies and other incentives should be given to private sector.
• Stress on Self-employment: Young entrepreneurs should be encouraged for sell-employment by giving proper training and financial assistance.

Question 3.
What is an economic activity ? What cue various activities undertaken in the primary sector, secondary sector and tertiary sector ?
Answer:
Economic activities: All the activities which give us some income are called economic activities. Pulling cycle-rickshaw, cleaning houses, selling vegetables and working in schools, factories, banks, etc. are economic activities.
Activities undertaken in Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Sectors are :

• Primary Sector: Activities concerned with collecting or making available material provided by nature are included in primary sector like agriculture, poultry farming, mining, fishing, etc.
• Secondary Sector: The activities which are associated with transforming raw material or primary products into commodities useful to man such as manufacturing, etc.
• Tertiary Sector: The activities which are essential for running modern factories in a big way are termed as tertiary sector. Activities like trading, banking, health, education, insurance, etc. are included in tertiary sector and all there providing services.

Question 4.
What are the different types of unemployment found in India?
Answer:
The different types of unemployment found in India are :

• Disguised unemployment: In disguised unemployment, people appear to be employed. They have agricultural plot where they find work. This usually happens among family members engaged in agricultural activity.
• Seasonal unemployment: Seasonal unemployment happens when people are not able to find jobs during some months of the year. People dependant upon agriculture usually face such ldnd of problem. There are certain busy seasons when sowing, harvesting, weeding and threshing is done. Certain months do not provide much work to the people dependent on agriculture.
• Educated unemployment: Educated unemployment has become a common phenomenon in urban areas. Many youths with matriculation, graduation and post-graduation degrees are not able to find job. A study showed that unemployment of graduate and post-graduate has increased faster than among matriculates.

Question 5.
How does Sarva Siksha Abhiyan help in improving elementary education in India?
Answer:
Sarva Siksha Abhiyan is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all children in the age group of 6-14 years by 2010. It is a time-bound initiative of the Central Government, in partnership with the States, the local government and the community for achieving the goal of universalisation of elementary education.

Along with it, bridge courses and back-to-school camps have been initiated to increase the enrolment in elementary education. Mid-day meal scheme has been implemented to encourage attendance and retention of children and improve their nutritional status. It is because of Sarva Siksha Abhiyan that there has been a significant growth in literacy \ rates in India from 18% in 1951 to 74% in 2010-11. These policies have added to the literate population of India.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post People as Resource Class 9 Extra Questions Economics Chapter 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Fractions and Decimals Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 2

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 2 Fractions and Decimals

Fractions and Decimals Class 7 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
If of a number is 6, find the number.
Solution:
Let x be the required number.

Hence, the required number is 9.

Question 2.
Find the product of and 2.
Solution:

Question 3.
Solve the following:

Solution:

Question 4.
Multiply 2.05 and 1.3.
Solution:

Fractions and Decimals Class 7 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 5.
Solve the following:
(a) 3 –
(b) 4 +
Solution:

Question 6.
Arrange the following in ascending order:

Solution:

Question 7.
Find the products:
(i) 2.4 × 100
(ii) 0.24 × 1000
(iii) 0.024 × 10000
Solution:

Question 8.
Arnav spends 1 hours in studies, 2 hours in playing cricket. How much time did he spend in all?
Solution:
Time spent by Arnav in studies = 1 hours
Time spent by Arnav in playing cricket = 2 hours
Total time spent by Arnav = 1 hours + 2 hours

Question 9.
A square paper sheet has 10 cm long side. Find its perimeter and area.
Solution:

Question 10.

Solution:

Question 11.
The product of two numbers is 2.0016. If one of them is 0.72, find the other number.
Solution:
Product of two numbers = 2.0016
One number = 0.72
Other number = 2.0016 ÷ 0.72

Hence, the required number = 2.78.

Question 12.
Reemu reads th pages of a book. If she reads further 40 pages, she would have read th
page of the book. How many pages are left to be read? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
Let the total number of pages be x.
Number of pages read by Reemu = x
If she reads 40 more pages,
Total number of pages read by her = x + 40

Question 13.
of a number equals ÷ . What is the number? (NCERT Exemplar)
Solution:
Let the number be x.

Hence, the required number = 64.

Question 14.
Simplify the following:

Solution:

Question 15.
The weight of an object on the Moon is its weight on the Earth. If an object weight 5 kg on the Earth. How much would it weight on the Moon? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:

Question 16.
A picture hall has seats for 820 persons. At a recent film show, one usher guessed it was full, another that it was full. The ticket office reported 648 sales. Which usher (first or second) made the better guess? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
Total number of seats = 820
Number of ticket sold = 648
For first usher = × 648 = 3 × 162 = 486
For second usher = × 648 = 2 × 216 = 432
Since 432 < 486
Hence, the first usher guessed better.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths

The post Fractions and Decimals Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Applications of Trigonometry: Trigonometry is the branch of mathematics deals with triangles involved with the study of lengths, heights, and angles. Trigonometry and its functions have an enormous number of uses in our real life.

Applications of Trigonometry

You have studied in social studies that the highest mountain peak in the world is Mount Everest and its height is 8848 meters.

Kuntala waterfall in Adilabad district is the highest natural waterfall in Andhra Pradesh. Its height is 147 feet.

How were these heights measured? Can you measure the height of your school building or the tallest tree in or around your school?

Let us understand through some examples. Vijaya wants to find the height of a palm tree. She tries to locate the
top most point of the tree. She also imagines a line joining the top most point and her eye.

This line is called “line of sight”. She also imagines a horizontal line, parallel to earth, from her eye to the tree.

Here, “the line of sight”, “horizontal line” and “the tree” form a right angle triangle.

To find the height of the tree, she needs to find a side and an angle in this triangle.

“The line of sight is above the horizontal line and angle between the line of sight and the horizontal line is called angle of elevation”.

Suppose you are standing on the top of your school building and you want to find the  distance of borewell from the
building on which you are standing. For that, you have to observe the base of the borewell. Then, the line of sight from your eye to the base of borewell is below the horizontal line from your eye. Here, “the angle between the line of sight and horizontal line is called angle of depression.”

Trigonometry has been used by surveyors for centuries. They use Theodolites to measure angles of elevation or depression in the process of survey. In nineteenth century, two large Theodolites were built by British India for the surveying project“great trigonometric survey”. During the survey in 1852, the highest mountain peak in the world was discovered in the Himalayas. From the distance of 160 km, the peak was observed from six different stations and the height of the peak was calculated. In 1856, this peak was named after Sir George Everest, who had commissioned and first used the giant Theodolites. Those theodolites are kept in the museum of the Survey of India in Dehradun for display.

Drawing Figures to Solve Problems

When we want to solve the problems of heights and distances, we should consider the following:

• All the objects such as towers, trees, buildings, ships, mountains etc. shall be considered as linear for mathematical convenience.
• The angle of elevation or angle of depression is considered with reference to the horizontal line.
• The height of the observer is neglected, if it is not given in the problem.

When we try to find heights and distances at an angle of elevation or depression, we need to visualise geometrically. To find heights and distances, we need to draw figures and with the help of these figures we can solve the problems. Let us see some examples.

Trigonometry in Real Life:

• Electric poles are present everywhere. They are usually erected by using a metal wire. The pole, wire and the ground form a triangle. But, if the length of the wire decreases, what will be the shape of the triangle and what will be the angle of the wire with the ground ?
  
• A person is whitewashing a wall with the help of a ladder which is kept as shown in the adjacent figure on
  left. If the person wants to paint at a higher position, what will the person do? What will be the change in angle of the ladder with the ground ?
  
• In the temple at Jainath in Adilabad district, which was built in 13th century, the first rays of the Sun fall at the feet of the Idol of Suryanarayana Swami in the month of December. There is a relation between distance of Idol from the door, height of the hole on the door from which Sun rays are entering and angle of sun rays in that
  month. Is there any triangle forming in this context?
• In a play ground, children like to slide on slider and slider is on a defined angle from earth. What will happen to the slider if we change the angle? Will children still be able to play on it?
  

The above examples are geometrically showing the application part of triangles in our daily life and we can measure the heights, distances and slopes by using the properties of triangles. These types of problems are part of ‘trigonometry’ which is a branch of mathematics.

Now look at the example of a person who is white washing the wall with the help of a ladder as shown in the previous figure. Let us observe the following conditions.

We denote the foot of the ladder by A and top of it by C and the point of joining height of the wall and base of the ladder as B. Therefore, ∆ABC is a right angle triangle with right angle at B. The angle between ladder and base is said to be θ.

1. If the person wants to white wash at a higher point on the wall-
   ● What happens to the angle made by the ladder with the ground?
   ● What will be the change in the distance AB?
2. If the person wants to white wash at a lower point on the wall-
   ● What happens to the angle made by the ladder with the ground?
   ● What will be the change in the distance AB?

We have observed in the above example of a person who was white washing. When he wants to paint at higher or lower points, he should change the position of ladder. So, when ‘θ’ is increased, the height also increases and the base decreases. But, when θ is decreased, the height also decreases and the base increases. Do you agree with this statement?

Here, we have seen a right angle triangle ABC and have given ordinary names to all sides and angles. Now let’s name the sides again because trigonometric ratios of angles are based on sides only

It may not have direct applications in solving practical issues but used in the various field. For example, trigonometry is used in developing computer music: as you are familiar that sound travels in the form of waves and this wave pattern through a sine or cosine function for developing computer music. Here are few applications where trigonometry and its functions are applicable. Trigonometric and its functions are applicable to measure the height of a building or a mountain, video games, constructions, aviation, physics, criminology, marine biology, marine engineering and navigation.

The calculus is based on trigonometry and algebra. The fundamental trigonometric functions like sine and cosine are used to describe the sound and light waves, Trigonometry uses in oceanography to calculate heights of waves and tides in oceans, creation of maps and satellite systems.

Thus here we have discussed Trigonometry and its importance as every student of math is expected to know about the application of this branch of mathematics in daily life. Solve sample questions with answers and cross check your answers with the NCERT Solutions on some applications of Trigonometry.

The post Applications of Trigonometry appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Poverty as a Challenge Class 9 Extra Questions Social Science Economics Chapter 3

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Poverty as a Challenge

Poverty as a Challenge Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
When the health of a person suffers due to deficiency of nutrients in food as per his daily requirement, he/she is said to be the victim of _______ .
Answer:
Malnutrition

Question 2.
What helped West Bengal in reducing poverty?
Answer:
Land reform measures.

Question 3.
How many people in India live below the poverty line?
Answer:
270 million.

Question 4.
In rural areas in India, the accepted average calories requirement per person per day is _______ .
Answer:
2400 calories.

Question 5.
What is the most difficult challenge faced by independent India?
Answer:
Poverty

Question 6.
PMRY was started in 1993, stands for _______ .
Answer:
Prime Minister Rojgar Yozana

Question 7.
SGSY was launched in 1999 for assisted poor families above poverty line by organising them into self-help groups.
Answer:
Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana

Question 8.
PMGY was launched in 2000 to provide rural shelter, rural drinking water, primary health, primary education and rural electrification. It stands for _______ .
Answer:
Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yozana

Question 9.
What is poverty?
Answer:
Poverty is a situation in which a person is unable to satisfy minimum basic necessities of life, i.e., food, clothing, education, shelter, health, etc.

Question 10.
What are the two methods of estimating the poverty line.
Answer:
There are two methods of measuring poverty line—

• Level consumption expenditure method and
• Income method.

Question 11.
What are the two main causes of poverty in India?
Answer:

• Low level of economic development under the British colonial administration.
• A high growth rate of population.

Question 12.
What is the full form of NSSO?
Answer:
National Sample Survey Organisation.

Question 13.
Which are the poorest states in India?
Answer:
Odisha and Bihar

Question 14.
How is poverty defined by the World Bank?
Answer:
Poverty is defined by the World Bank as living on less than $ 1.90 per day.

Question 15.
What is the major reason behind huge income inequalities?
Answer:
It is the unequal distribution of land and other resources.

Question 16.
Which organisation carries out survey for determining the poverty line?
Answer:
National Sample Survey Organisation

Question 17.
How do you define vulnerability to poverty?
Answer:
Vulnerability to poverty is a measure, which describes the greater probability of certain communities or individuals of becoming, or remaining, poor in the coming years.

Question 18.
How does a country measure its poverty?
Answer:
Each country uses an imaginary line that is considered appropriate for its existing level of development and its accepted minimum social norms.

Question 19.
How is the food requirement estimated in poverty line?
Answer:
The present formula for food requirement while estimating the poverty line is based on the desired calorie requirement. Food items, such as cereals, pulses, vegetable, milk, oil, sugar, etc., together provide these needed calories.

Question 20.
What is the accepted average calorie requirement in India?
Answer:
The accepted average calorie requirement in India is 2,400 calories per person per day in mral areas and 2,100 calories per person per day in urban areas.

Question 21.
Who advocated that India would be truly independent only when the poorest of its people become free of human suffering?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 22.
Which scheme was started in 1993 to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns?
Answer:
Prime Minister Rozgar Yozana (PMRY).

Question 23.
For how many days MGNREGA provides employment?
Answer:
100 days

Question 24.
Which country of Southeast Asia made rapid economic growth resulting in a significant decline in poverty?
Answer:
China

Question 25.
Which social groups are most vulnerable to poverty?
Answer:
The social groups, which are most vulnerable to poverty are Scheduled caste and Scheduled Tribe households.

Question 26.
Which states of India have seen a significant decline in poverty?
Answer:
Kerala, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and West Bengal

Question 27.
On which two planks does the current anti-poverty strategy of the government is based upon?
Answer:

• Promotion of economic growth.
• Targeted anti-poverty programmes.

Question 28.
What are the biggest challenges before India?
Answer:
Providing healthcare, education and job security for all and achieving gender equality and dignity for the poor are the bigger challenges before India.

Poverty as a Challenge Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the indicators used by social scientists to understand poverty?
Answer:
The indicators used by social scientists to understand poverty are :

• Levels of income and consumption
• Lack of general resistance due to malnutrition
• Lack of access to healthcare
• Lack of job opportunities
• Lack of access to safe drinking water, sanitation, etc.

Question 2.
What do you understand by vulnerability to poverty?
Answer:
Vulnerability of poverty means some communities or social groups are more prone to poverty than other sections of the society. Members of a backward caste or individuals such as a widow or a physically handicapped person of becoming, or remaining, poor in the coming years. Vulnerability is determined by the options available to different communities for finding an alternative living in terms of assets, education, health and job opportunities. Further, it is analysed on the basis of the greater risks these groups face at the time of natural disasters (earthquakes, tsunami), terrorism, etc.

Question 3.
How were the British policies responsible for the increase in poverty in India?
Answer:
There were a number of causes for the widespread in India. One of the historical reasons is the low level of economic development under the British colonial administration. The policies of colonial government ruined traditional handicrafts and discouraged development of industries like textiles. The low rate of growth persisted until the nineteen-eighties. This resulted in less job opportunities and low growth rate of incomes. This was accompanied by a high growth rate of population. The two combined to make the growth rate of per capita income very low. The failure at both the fronts : promotion of economic growth and population control perpetuated the cycle of poverty.

Question 4.
What does social exclusion mean?
Answer:

• According to this concept, poverty must be seen in terms of the poor having to live only in poor surrounding with other people, excluded from enjoying social equality of better-off people in better surroundings.
• Social exclusion can be both a cause as well as a consequence of poverty in the usual sense.
• Broadly, it is a through in which individuals or groups are excluded from facilities, benefits and opportunities that others enjoy.

Question 5.
How is economic growth linked with poverty reduction in India?
Answer:
Till the early eighties, there were little per capita income growth and not much reduction in poverty. Afterwards the growth rate jumped from the average of about 3-5 percent a year in the 1970s to 6 per cent during the 1980s and 1990s. The higher growth rates have helped significantly in the reduction of poverty. There is a strong link between economic growth and poverty reduction. Economic growth widens opportunities and provides the resources needed to invest in human development. This also encourages people to send their children, including the girl child, to schools in the hope of getting better economic returns from investing in education.

Question 6.
How are socio-cultural and economic factors responsible for poverty?
Answer:
Many socio-cultural and economic factors are responsible for poverty. In order to fulfil social obligations and observe religious ceremonies, people in India, including the very poor, spend a lot of money. Small farmers need money to buy agricultural inputs like seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, etc. Since poor people hardly have any savings, they borrow. Unable to repay because of poverty, they become victims of indebtedness. So, the high level of indebtedness is both the cause and effect of poverty.

Question 7.
Explain the principle measures taken in Punjab, Kerala and Andhra Pradesh to reduce poverty.
Answer:
The measure taken in Punjab, Kerala and Andhra Pradesh to reduce poverty are :

• The principal measures taken in Punjab to reduce poverty is increasing the agricultural growth rates.
• Kerala has focused more on human resource development to reduce poverty.
• Andhra Pradesh focused on public distribution of food grains to reduce poverty.

Question 8.
Illustrate the seriousness of poverty in India?
Answer:
In our daily life, we come across many people who we think are poor. They could be landless labourers in villages or people living in overcrowded jhuggis in cities.

They could be daily wage workers at construction sites or child workers in dhabas. They could also be beggars with children in tatters. We see poverty all around us. In fact, every fourth person in India is poor.

This means, roughly 270 million (or 27 crore) people in India live in poverty 2011-12. This also means that India has the largest single concentration of the poor in the world. This illustrates the seriousness of the challenge.

Question 9.
Is it correct that poverty line may vary with time and place?
Answer:

• A person is considered poor if his or her income or consumption level falls below a given “minimum level” necessary to fulfill the basic needs. What is necessary to satisfy basic needs is different at different times and in different countries.
• Therefore, poverty line may vary with time and place. Each country uses an imaginary line that is considered appropriate for its existing level of development and its accepted minimum social norms.

Question 10.
Explain how the low level of education of the poor people can be held responsible for poverty in India.
Answer:

• Low level of education of the poor is a major cause behind their poverty. Poor people do not have access to education.
• Because of illiteracy, the Indian farmers have failed to learn new methods of cultivation. Even the village moneylenders succeed in cheating them quite easily.
• Moreover, poor parents are not able to send their children to schools. So, the poor people are employed as unskilled workers and are paid low wages due to low level of education.

Question 11.
Describe the aims of Swarnajanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana and the Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yozana.
Answer:
Swarnayanti Gram Swarozgar : Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) was launched in 1999. The programme aims at bringing the assisted poor families above the poverty line by organising them into self-help groups through a mix of bank credit and government subsidy.

Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yozana : The Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yozana (PMGY) was launched in 2000. Under this scheme, additional central assistance is given to states for basic services such as primary health, primary education, rural shelter, rural drinking water and rural electrification.

Question 12.
What are the major reasons for less effectiveness of anti-poverty measures?
Answer:
The major reasons for less effectiveness of anti-poverty measures are :

• One of the major reasons for less effectiveness is the lack of proper implementation and right targeting.
• Moreover, there has been a lot of overlapping of schemes.
• Despite good intentions, the benefits of these schemes are not fully reached to the deserving poor.
• Therefore, the major emphasis in recent years is on proper monitoring of all the poverty alleviation programmes.

Poverty as a Challenge Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How does rapid growth rate of population increase poverty in a country?
Answer:

• Rapid growth of population in comparison to the rate of growth of resources hampers the process of economic development.
• Increase in population reduces the per capita income and lowers the standard of living in an economy.
• In India, rapid growth of population has put in more stress on its economic and social infrastructure and thereby, aggravating the problem of poverty and unemployment.
• Due to enormous population, a large portion of national income is used on consumption and less is left for saving which, in turn, reduces the capital formation.
• As a result of low capital formation, enough employment opportunities cannot be created which further aggravate the problem of poverty. Poor people in India are ignorant, illiterate and has very less means of entertainment. So, they end up adding more to the population.

Question 2.
What is poverty? What are the dimensions of poverty?
Answer:
Poverty is a situation in which a person is unable to get the minimum necessities of life.
Due to poverty poor people are in a situation in which they are ill-treated at almost every place.
The dimensions of poverty are :

• Poverty means hunger and lack of shelter.
• It is a situation in which parents are not able to send their children to school or a situation where sick people cannot afford treatment.
• Poverty also means lack of clean water and sanitation facilities.
• It also means lack of a regular job at a minimum decent level. :
• Poor people are in a situation in which they are ill-treated at almost every place, in farms, factories, government offices, hospitals, railway stations etc.

Question 3.
Discuss the various groups that are vulnerable to poverty.
Answer:
The following groups are vulnerable to poverty :

• Social Groups: Social groups, which are most vulnerable to poverty are Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe households. Although, the average for people below poverty line for all groups in India is 22, 43 out of 100 people belonging to Scheduled Tribes are not able to meet their basic needs.
• Economic Groups: Among the economic groups, the most vulnerable groups are the rural agricultural labour households and the urban casual labour households.
• Inequality of incomes within a family: There is also inequality of incomes within a family. In poor families, all suffer, but some suffer more than others. In some cases, women, elderly people and female infants are denied equal access to resources available to the family.

Question 4.
How can poverty be reduced in future in India?
Answer:
Poverty can be reduced in the following ways :

• Increasing stress on universal free elementary education
• Increasing empowerment of the women and the economically weaker sections of society.
• Declining population growth.
• Avoiding caste and gender discrimination.
• Improving healthcare, education and job security.
• Removing inequality of wealth among people.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post Poverty as a Challenge Class 9 Extra Questions Economics Chapter 3 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Data Handling Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 3

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 3 Data Handling

Data Handling Class 7 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Find the range of the following data:
21, 16, 30, 15, 16, 18, 10, 24, 26, 20
Solution:
Greatest number 30
Smallest number = 10
Range = 30 – 10 = 20

Question 2.
Find the mode of the following data:
24, 26, 23, 26, 22, 25, 26, 28
Solution:
Arranging the given data with the same value together, we get
22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 26, 26, 28
Here, 26 occurs the greatest number of times i.e. 3 times
Thus, the required mode = 26.

Question 3.
Find the average of the numbers 8, 13, 15.
Solution:

Question 4.
Find the median of the following data:
8, 6, 10, 12, 14
Solution:
Let us arrange the given data in increasing order,
6, 8, 10, 12, 14
n = 5 (odd)
Median = ()th term = 3rd term = 10
Thus, the required median = 10.

Question 5.
Find the median of the following data:
20, 14, 6, 25, 18, 13, 19, 10, 9, 12
Solution:
Arranging the given data in increasing order, we get
6, 9, 10, 12, 13, 14, 18, 19, 20, 25
n = 10 (even)

Thus, the required median = 13.5

Question 6.
A fair die is rolled, find the probability of getting a prime number.
Solution:
Number on a die = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
n(S) = 6
Prime numbers = 2, 3, 5
n(E) = 3
Probability = = =
Thus the required probability = .

Question 7.
If the averages of the given data 6, 10, 12, x, 16 is 14, find the value of x.
Solution:
Average of the given numbers

Thus, the required value of x is 26.

Question 8.
Find the mean of the first 5 multiples of 3.
Solution:
Five multiples of 3 are 3, 6, 9, 12 and 15

Hence, the required mean = 9.

Data Handling Class 7 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 9.
The following bar graph shows the number of books sold by a publisher during the five consecutive years. Read the bar graph and answer the following questions:
(i) About how many books were sold in 2008, 2009 and 2012 years?
(ii) In which years were 575 books were sold?
(iii) In which years were the minimum number of books sold?

Solution:

(ii) In the year of 2012, maximum number of books i.e. 575 were sold.
(iii) Minimum number of books i.e. 150 were sold in the year 2008.

Question 10.
Find the mean and median of first five prime numbers.
Solution:
First five prime numbers are: 2, 3, 5, 7 and 11

Here, n = 5
Median is the middle term, i.e., 5.

Question 11.
The marks obtained (out of 10) by 80 students in a class test are given below:

Find the mode of the above data.
Solution:
In the given frequency distribution table, we find that the observation 7 has maximum frequency, i.e., 20
Hence, the required mode = 7.

Question 12.
A bag contains 5 white and 9 red balls. One ball is drawn at random from the bag. Find the probability of getting
(a) a white ball
(b) a red ball
Solution:
Total number of balls = 5 + 9 = 14 balls
n(S) = 14
(i) Number of white ball = 5
n(E) = 5
Probability of getting white ball = =
(ii) Number of red balls = 9
n(E) = 9
Probability of getting white ball = =

Question 13.
A dice is tossed once. Find the probability of getting
(i) a number 5
(ii) a number greater than 5
(iii) a number less than 5
(iv) an odd number
(v) an even number
(vi) a number greater than 6
Solution:
Total number of outcomes = 6
n(S) = 6
(i) An event of getting a number 5
n(E) = 1
Probability = =
(ii) An event of getting a number 5 greater than 5, i.e., 6
n(E) = 1
Probability = =
(iii) An event of getting a number less than 5, i.e., 1, 2, 3 and 4.
n(E) = 4
Probability = = =
(iv) An event of getting an odd number, i.e., 1, 3 and 5.
n(E) = 3
Probability = = =
(v) An event of getting an even number, i.e., 2, 4 and 6.
n(E) = 3
Probability = = =
(vi) An event of getting a number greater than 6, i.e., Nil.
n(E) = 0
Probability = = = 0

Data Handling Class 7 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 14.
The data given below shows the production of motorbikes in a factory for some months of two consecutive years.

Study the table given above and the answer the following questions:
(a) Draw a double bar graph using an appropriate scale to depict the above information and compare them.
(b) In which year was the total output maximum?
(c) Find the mean production for the year 2007.
(d) For which month was the difference between the production for the two years is the maximum?
(e) In which month for the year 2008, the production was the maximum?
(f) In which month for the year 2007, the production was the least? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
(a) Double bar graph
Scale : 1 cm = 100 Motor Bikes

The above bar graph depicts the total production of motorbikes in two consecutive years.
Total production in 2007 was 22100 whereas in 2008 it was 21100.
(b) In the year 2007, the total production was maximum (22100)
(c) Mean production in the year 2007 is

(d) Production of motorbikes in the May 2007 = 4500 and in May 2008 = 3200
Difference = 4500 – 3200 = 1300 which is the maximum
(e) In the month of August 2008, production was maximum i.e., 6000
(f) In the month of Feb. 2007 the production was least i.e., 2800.

Question 15.
A coin and a die are tossed once together. Find the total number of outcomes.
Solution:
A coin has two faces, Head (H) and Tail (T)
A die has six faces marked with numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Possible outcomes are:
H1, H2, H3, H4, H5, H6, T1, T2, T3, T4, T5, T6
Total number of outcomes = 2 × 6 = 12

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths

The post Data Handling Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 3 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Food Security in India Class 9 Extra Questions Social Science Economics Chapter 4

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Food Security in India

Food Security in India Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which government organisation buys foodgrains from the farmers and supplies to the fair price shops?
Answer:
Food Corporation of India (FCI)

Question 2.
The system under which the food procured by the FCI is distributed through government regulated shops among the poorest strata of the society is
Answer:
Public Distribution System (PDS)

Question 3.
The price at which the government purchase the foodgrains (wheat and rice) through FCI from the farmers in states where there is surplus production is
Answer:
Minimum Support Price

Question 4.
The stock of foodgrains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government through the food corporation of India is _______ .
Answer:
Buffer Stock

Question 5.
The price at which foodgrains are distributed in the deficit areas and among the poor strata of the society.
Answer:
Issue Price

Question 6.
Public Distribution System is associated with _______ .
Answer:
Fair Price Shop

Question 7.
A special stamp was released by Indira Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India, in July 1968. It was entitled as _______ .
Answer:
Wheat Revolution

Question 8.
Why are foodgrains procured by the Food Corporation of India?
Answer:
The foodgrains are procured by the Food Corporation of India to provide minimum support price to the farmers.

Question 9.
List down the dimensions of food security.
Answer:
Following are the dimensions of food security :

• Availability of food,
• Accessibility of food,
• Affordability of food.

Question 10.
What does MSP refer to?
Answer:
Minimum Support Price

Question 11.
Which was the most devastating famine faced by India?
Answer:
The Famine of Bengal 1943.

Question 12.
Name two states where largest number of food insecure people live.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal and Maharashtra, (any two)

Question 13.
When is Minimum Support Price declared by the government?
Answer:
Every year before the sowing reason.

Question 14.
What is the objective of AD§?
Answer:
ADS stands for Academy of Development Science which facilitates a network of NGOs for setting up grain banks in different regions.

Question 15.
What is the full Form of ICDS?
Answer:
Integrated Child Development Services.

Question 16.
How is food security affected during a calamity?
Answer:
Due to a calamity, the total production of foodgrains decreases.

Question 17.
Antyodaya card is meant for _______ .
Answer:
The people who are living below the poverty line.

Question 18.
What do you mean by a famine?
Answer:
Famine is characterised by widespread deaths due to starvation and epidemics caused by forced use of contaminated water or decaying food and loss of body resistance due to weakening from starvation.

Question 19.
Name two places in Odisha where famine-like conditions have been existing for many years.
Answer:
Kalahandi and Kashipur.

Question 20.
To whom the yellow card is issued?
Answer:
People below the poverty line.

Question 21.
Name two co-operative societies working in different parts of the country.
Answer:
Mother Dairy Delhi and Amul in Gujarat.

Question 22.
Which revolution was adopted in July 1968?
Answer:
Green Revolution.

Question 23.
What do you understand by ‘seasonal hunger’?
Answer:
Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting. This is prevalent in rural areas because of the seasonal nature of agricultural activities and in urban areas because of casual labourers.

Question 24.
Describe the National Food Security Act, 2013.
Answer:
The National Food Security Act, 2013 provides for food and nutritional security life at affordable prices and enables people to live a life with dignity. Under this Act, 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population have been categorised as eligible households for food security.

Question 25.
Who can buy the foodgrains and other commodities from these ration shops?
Answer:
Any family which is below the poverty line gets a ration card. A ration card can buy them a stipulated amount of certain essential commodities like foodgrains or kerosene, every month from a nearby ration shop.

Question 26.
When was rationing system introduced in India?
Answer:
The rationing system was introduced in India in 1940s after the occurrence of disastrous Bengal famine.

Question 27.
Name food intervention programmes introduced by the Indian government after the NSSO report.
Answer:

• Public Distribution System (PDS)—for food grains.
• Integrated Child Development Service (ICDS)—introduced in 1975.
• Food-for-Work (FFW)—introduced in 1977-78.

Question 28.
How has Minimum Support Price (MSP) supported the farmers?
Answer:
The Minimum Support price and procurement has contributed to an increase in foodgrain production and provided income security to farmers in certain regions.

Question 29.
Name some of the essential commodities kept by ration shops or Fair Price Shops.
Answer:
Ration shops or Fair Price Shop keeps stock of foodgrains, sugar, and kerosene oil for cooking.

Question 30.
How do employment programmes contribute to food security?
Answer:
Employment programmes greatly contribute to food security by increasing the income of the poor.

Food Security in India Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why do we need food security?
Answer:
Food security is needed because :

• The poorest section of the society might be food insecure most of the times.
• People above the poverty line might also be food insecure when the country faces a national disaster or calamity like earthquake, drought, flood, tsunami, etc.
• There can also be a widespread failure of crops causing famine, etc.

Question 2.
Describe the role of FCI.
Answer:
The role of Food Corporation of India is as follows : The food corporation of India was set-up in 1965. It performs the following functions on behalf of the government:

• The food procured by the FCI fixed by the government. These prices are known as Procurement Prices or Minimum Support Prices. It maintain a price stability of foodgrains.
• It distributes the food grains at subsidised prices among the ration card-holders through government regulated ration shops (also known as Fair Price Shops). The subsidised prices are known as issue prices. The subsidised prices (issue prices) are also fixed by the government.

Question 3.
Why do we need self-sufficiency in foodgrains?
Answer:
Due to the following reasons, there is a need for self-sufficiency in foodgrains :

• To feed rising population.
• To control prices of foodgrains.
• To reduce imports of foodgrains.
• To fight against natural disaster such as droughts, floods, cyclone, etc.

Question 4.
What are the essentials of food security system?
Answer:
The essentials of food security System are as follows :

• Increasing domestic production of food to meet its growing demand.
• Food should be available in adequate quantity.
• Food should be able to meet nutritional requirements.
• Food should be available at reasonable prices.
• Buffer stock of food should be maintained.

Question 5.
What do you mean by food security?
Answer:
Food security means availability, accessibility and affordability of food to all the citizens of the country at all times. The poor households are more vulnerable to food insecurity whenever there is a problem of production or distribution of food crops.

Government maintains food security through various agencies such as Public Distribution System (PDS) and vigilance and action at times, when this security is threatened.

Question 6.
What is the importance of rationing?
Answer:
The importance of rationing is :

• We need rationing to reduce the wastage and for the maximum utilization of the articles. In India, the rationing concept was introduced in the 1940s after the Bengal famine.
• The rationing system was revived in the wake of an acute food shortage during the 1960s, prior to the Green Revolution. During the times of emergency or natural calamities, rationing helps to overcome the crisis.

Question 7.
What are the major objectives of Academy of Development Science in Maharashtra?
Or
Write a short note on ADS Grain Banks.
Answer:
ADS has facilitated a network of NGOs for setting up grains banks in different regions. ADS organises training and capacity building programmes on food security for NGOs.

Grain Banks are now slowly taking shape in different parts of Maharashtra. ADS efforts to set up Grain Banks, to facilitate replication through other NGOs and to influence the governments policy on food security are thus paying rich dividends. The ADS Grain Bank programme is acknowledged as a successful and innovative food security intervention.

Question 8.
What are the three dimensions of food security?
Answer:
The three dimensions of food security are :

• Availability of food: Availability of food means food production within the country, food imports and previous years’ stock stored in the government granaries.
• Affordability of food: Affordability implies that an individual has enough money to buy sufficient, safe and nutritious food to meet one’s dietary needs.
• Accessibility of food: Accessibility means food is within reach of every person.

Question 9.
What were the effects of Famine of Bengal in 1943?
Answer:
The most devastating famine that occurred in India was the Famine of Bengal in 1943. This famine killed thirty lakh people in the province of Bengal. Nothing like the Bengal Famine has ever happened in India again.

During the famine, the families left their villages. The agricultural labourers, fishermen, transport workers and the other casual labourers were affected the most by dramatically increasing price of rice. They were the ones who died in this famine.

Question 10.
Explain any two important food intervention introduced after the report given by the NSSO?
Answer:
The two important food intervention programmes which were introduced after the report given by the NSSO are :

• Public Distribution System (PDS) for food grains (in existence earlier but strengthened thereafter) is the major step taken by the Government of India towards ensuring food security.
• Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) was introduced in 1975 on an experimental basis.

Question 11.
How does PDS ensure food security in India? Explain.
Answer:
PDS or Public Distribution System distribute the food grains by the help of ration shops among the poorer sections of the society.

Ration shops, also known as Fair Price Shops, keep the stock of foodgrains, sugar and kerosene oil for cooking. These items are sold to people at a price lower than the market price. Any family with a ration card can buy a stipulated amount of these items (e.g., 35 kg of grains, 5 litres of kerosene, 5 kgs of sugar, etc.) every month from the nearby ration shop. PDS keeps on revising the prices in favour of urban poors.

Question 12.
What is the Public Distribution System? What are the objectives of PDS?
Answer:
The Food Corporation of India (FCI) procures food at pre-announced prices. The government distributes food grains to the poorer strata of the society through ration shops at subsidised prices fixed by the government. This is called the Public Distribution System.
The objectives of the PDS are :

• To provide essential goods at subsidised prices to the consumers.
• To control prices of essential commodities.

Question 13.
What do you know about Poverty Alleviation Programmes?
Answer:
Over the years, several new programmes have been launched and some have been restructured with the growing experience of administering the programmes. At present, there are several Poverty Alleviation Programmes (PAPs), mostly in rural areas, which have an explicit food component also. While some of the programmes such as PDS, mid-day meals, etc. are exclusively food security programmes, most of the PAPs also enhance food security. Employment programmes greatly contribute to food security by increasing the income of the poor.

Question 14.
What do you mean by hunger? What are the different dimensions of hunger?
Answer:
Hunger is one of the aspects that indicate food insecurity. Hunger is not just an expression of poverty, it brings about poverty. The attainment of food security therefore involves eliminating current hunger and reducing the risks of future hunger.
There are two dimensions of hunger chronic hunger and seasonal hunger.

• Chronic hunger is a consequence of diets persistently inadequate in terms of quantity and/or quality.
• Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing and harvesting.

Question 15.
What are the consequences of the excessive reserves of foodgrains in India?
Answer:
The consequences of excessive reserves of foodgrains in India are as follows :

• There is wastage and deterioration in grain quality.
• Excess reserves have led to high carrying costs.
• It has led to the decline in the quantity of foodgrains available to the consumers in the market.

Question 16.
Which groups are the worst affected by food security in India?
Answer:
The worst affected groups are landless people with little or no land to depend upon, traditional artisans, providers of traditional services, petty self-employed workers and destitutes including beggars.

In the urban areas, the food insecure families are those whose working members are generally employed in ill-paid occupations and casual labour market.

Food Security in India Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“India is aiming at Self-sufficiency in Foodgrains since Independence.” Elaborate.
Answer:
After Independence, many measures were adopted to achieve self-sufficiency in food grains. India adopted a new strategy in agriculture, which resulted in ‘Green Revolution’, to increase the production of wheat and rice.

The highest rate of growth was achieved in Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh, which was 44.01 and 30.21 million tonnes in 2015-16. The total foodgrain production was 252.22 million tonnes in 2015-16.

Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh recorded a significant production in field of wheat which was 26.87 and 17.69 million tonnes in 2015-16, respectively. West Bengal and UB on the other hand, recorded significant production of rice which was 15.75 and 12.51 million tonnes in 2015-16 respectively.

India has become self-sufficient in foodgrains during the last 30 years because of a variety of crops grown all over the country. The availability of foodgrains (even in adverse weather conditions or otherwise) at the country level has been ensured further with a carefully designed food security system by the government.

Question 2.
Discuss the role of Indian government in food security.
Answer:
The role of Indian government in food security are :

• The Government of India gave the responsibility for procuring and stocking of foodgrains to FCI and for distribution the responsibility is given to the Public Distribution System (PDS).
• The government is committed to announce a minimum support price for wheat and paddy and of quantities that could not fetch even such minimum prices in the market. The resultant stocks were to be utilized for maintaining distribution through the PDS and a portion of these were used to create and maintain buffer stocks. In fact, if stocks happened to be inadequate for maintaining a certain level of distribution through PDS, the government had to resort to imports to honour its charge to PDS consumers. The FCI procures foodgrains from the farmers at the government announced Minimum Support Price (MSP).
• Farmers are provided subsidies on agriculture inputs such as fertilizers, power and water.
• The biggest achievement of the Indian food policy, and operational stock holding has been the avoidance of famine-like conditions.
• It was with the basic objective of curbing consumption and ensuring an equitable distribution of available food supplies, especially in the deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society.
• The Government of India has introduced the scheme of minimum assured price of foodgrains which are announced well before the commencement of the crop seasons, after taking into account the cost of production / inter-crop price parity, market prices and other relevant factors.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post Food Security in India Class 9 Extra Questions Economics Chapter 4 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Trigonometry Table: Trigonometry is a branch of Mathematics deals with the study of length, angles and their relationships in a triangle. Trigonometric ratios are applicable only for right angle triangles, with one of the angle is equal to 90^o

Trigonometry Table

The trig table is made up of the following of trigonometric ratios that are interrelated to each other – sin, cos, tan, cos, sec, cot.

• sin (reciprocal of cosecant)  = opposite over hypotenuse
• cos (reciprocal of secant)  = adjacent over hypotenuse
• tan (reciprocal of cotangent)  = opposite over adjacent
• cot (reciprocal of tangent)  = adjacent over opposite
• cosec (reciprocal of sine)  = hypotenuse over opposite
• sec (reciprocal of cosine)  = hypotenuse over adjacent

The calculations can easily be figured out by memorizing a table of functions most commonly known as the Trigonometric Table. This find use in several areas. Some of them include navigation video games, aviation, science, geography, engineering, geometry etc. The trigonometric table helped in many developments and in the field of Mechanical Engineering for first innovation.

The Trig ratios table gives us the values of standard trigonometric angles such as 0°, 30°, 45°, 60°, and 90°. These values hold increased precedence as compared to others as the most important problems employ these ratios. It is therefore very important to know and remember the ratios of these standard angles.

Tricks to Remember Trigonometry Table

Remembering the trigonometry table will be useful as it finds many applications, and there are many methods to remember the table. Knowing the Trigonometry formulas, ratios and identities automatically will lead to figuring out the table and the values. The Trigonometric ratio table is depended upon the trigonometry formulas in the same way all the functions of trigonometry are interlinked with each other.

Before attempting to begin, it is better to try and remember these values, and know the following trigonometric  ratios of complementary angles.

• sin x = cos (90∘−x)
• cos x = sin (90∘−x)
• tan x = cot (90∘−x)
• cot x = tan (90∘−x)
• sec x = cot (90∘−x)
• cot x = sec (90∘−x)

Reciprocal relations of Trigonometric Ratios

• 1 / sin x = cosec x
• 1 / cos x= sec x
• 1 / sec x= cos x
• 1 / tan x= cot x
• 1 / cot x= tan x
• 1/ cosec x = sin x

Steps to Create Trigonometric Table:

Step 1: Draw a tabular column with the required angles such as 0, 30^o, 45^o, 60^o, 90^o, 180^o, 270^o, 360^o in the top row and all 6 trigonometric functions such as sine, cosine, tangent, cosecant, secant, and cotangent in first column.

Step 2:

Step 3:

Step 4:

Step 5:

Step 6:

Step 7:

The post Trigonometry Table appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Simple Equations Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 4

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 4 Simple Equations

Simple Equations Class 7 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Write the following statements in the form of equations.
(a) The sum of four times a number and 5 gives a number five times of it.
(b) One-fourth of a number is 2 more than 5.
Solution:
(a) Let the number be x.
Sum of 4x and 5 = 4x + 5
The sum is 5x.
The equation is 4x + 5 = 5x as required.
(b) Let the number be x.
x = 5 + 2
⇒ x = 7 as required.

Question 2.
Convert the following equations in statement form:
(a) 5x = 20
(b) 3y + 7 = 1
Solution:
(a) Five times a number x gives 20.
(b) Add 7 to three times a number y gives 1.

Question 3.
If k + 7 = 10, find the value of 9k – 50.
Solution:
k + 7 = 10
⇒ k = 10 – 7 = 3
Put k = 3 in 9k – 50, we get
9 × 3 – 50 = 27 – 50 = -23
Thus the value of k = -23

Question 4.
Solve the following equations and check the answers.

Solution:

Question 5.
Solve the following equations:
3(y – 2) = 2(y – 1) – 3
Solution:
3(y – 2) = 2(y – 1) – 3
⇒ 3y – 6 = 2y – 2 – 3 (Removing the brackets)
⇒ 3y – 6 = 2y – 5
⇒ 3y – 2y = 6 – 5 (Transposing 6 to RHS and 2y to LHS)
⇒ y = 1
Thus y = 1

Question 6.
If 5 is added to twice a number, the result is 29. Find the number.
Solution:
Let the required number be x.
Step I: 2x + 5
Step II: 2x + 5 = 29
Solving the equation, we get
2x + 5 = 29
⇒ 2x = 29 – 5 (Transposing 5 to RHS)
⇒ 2x = 24
⇒ x = 12 (Dividing both sides by 2)
⇒ x = 12
Thus the required number is 12.

Question 7.
If one-third of a number exceeds its one-fourth by 1, find the number.
Solution:
Let the required number be x.

Simple Equations Class 7 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 8.
The length of a rectangle is twice its breadth. If its perimeter is 60 cm, find the length and the breadth of the rectangle.
Solution:
Let the breadth of the rectangle be x cm.
its length = 2x
Perimeter = 2 (length + breadth) = 2(2x + x) = 2 × 3x = 6x
As per the condition of the question, we have
6x = 60 ⇒ x = 10
Thus the required breadth = 10 cm
and the length = 10 × 2 = 20 cm.

Question 9.
Seven times a number is 12 less than thirteen times the same number. Find the number.
Solution:
Let the required number be x.
7x = 13x – 12
⇒ 7x – 13x = -12 (Transposing 13x to LHS)
⇒ -6x = -12
⇒ x = 2
Thus, the required number is 2.

Question 10.
The present age of a son is half the present age of his father. Ten years ago, the father was thrice as old as his son. What are their present age?
Solution:
Let the present age of a father be x years.
Son’s age = x years
10 years ago, father’s age was (x – 10) years
10 years ago, son’s age was ( – 10) years
As per the question, we have

Question 11.
The sum of three consecutive multiples of 2 is 18. Find the numbers.
Solution:
Let the three consecutive multiples of 2 be 2x, 2x + 2 and 2x + 4.
As per the conditions of the question, we have
2x + (2x + 2) + (2x + 4) = 18
⇒ 2x + 2x + 2 + 2x + 4 = 18
⇒ 6x + 6 = 18
⇒ 6x = 18 – 6 (Transposing 6 to RHS)
⇒ 6x = 12
⇒ x = 2
Thus, the required multiples are
2 × 2 = 4, 4 + 2 = 6, 6 + 2 = 8 i.e., 4, 6 and 8.

Question 12.
Each of the 2 equal sides of an isosceles triangle is twice as large as the third side. If the perimeter of the triangle is 30 cm, find the length of each side of the triangle. [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
Let the length of the third side be x cm.
Each equal side = 2x cm.
As per the condition of the question, we have
Perimeter = x + 2x + 2x = 30
⇒ 5x = 30
⇒ x = 6
Thus, the third side of the triangle = 6 cm
and other two equal sides are 2 × 6 = 12 cm each

Question 13.
A man travelled two-fifth of his journey by train, one-third by bus, one-fourth by car and the remaining 3 km on foot. What is the length of his total journey? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
Let the total length of total journey be x km.
Distance travelled by train = x km
Distance travelled by bus = x km
Distance travelled by car = x km
Remaining distance = 3 km
As per the question, we have

Thus, the required journey = 180 km.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths

The post Simple Equations Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 4 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

The French Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Social Science History Chapter 1

Important Questions for CBSE Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 1 The French Revolution

The French Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was the ruler of France during the revolution?
Answer:
Louis XVI of the Bourbon family was the ruler of France.

Question 2.
Name the three ‘Estates’ into which the French society was divided before the Revolution.
Answer:

• The First Estate — Clergy
• The Second Estate — Nobility
• The Third Estate — Common people.

Question 3.
When did the French Revolution occur?
Answer:
14th July, 1789.

Question 4.
What was tithes?
Answer:
It was a tax levied by the church, comprising one-tenth of the agricultural produce.

Question 5.
What was taille?
Answer:
It was a direct tax to be paid to the State.

Question 6.
Who formed the National Assembly in France in 1789?
Answer:
Third Estate

Question 7.
To whom was the taxes called Tithes payable by the peasants in the eighteenth century France?
Answer:
Church.

Question 8.
Which class of society in France was behind the French Revolution?
Answer:
Middle class.

Question 9.
What was the slogan of the French revolutionaries?
Answer:
Liberty, Fraternity and Equality.

Question 10.
On what charges was Louis XVI of France sentenced to death?
Answer:
Treason.

Question 11.
What was feudal system?
Answer:
It was a system under which land was granted to landlords in return for military or labour services.

Question 12.
Which philosopher had forwarded the principle of voting by the assembly as a whole, where each member should have one vote, during the rule of louis XVI?
Answer:
Rousseau.

Question 13.
In which book did Rousseau mention the idea of one person, one vote?
Answer:
The Social Contract.

Question 14.
Give the titles of the books written by :
(a) Rousseau
(b) Charles Montesquieu
Answer:
(a) The Social Contract,
(b) The Spirit of the Laws.

Question 15.
What was the theme of the book ‘The Spirit of the Laws’ written by Montesquieu?
Answer:
Montesquieu proposed a division of power within the government between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary.

Question 16.
Which book has proposed a division of power within government?
Answer:
‘The Spirit of the Laws’.

Question 17.
Who proposed a division of power within government?
Answer:
Montesquieu.

Question 18.
Name any four French philosophers who inspired the French people to revolt.
Answer:

• Jean Jacques Rousseau
• Montesquieu
• Voltaire
• Maximilian Robespierre.

Question 19.
Why was Bastille hated by the French people?
Answer:
Bastille was hated because it stood for the despotic power of the king.

Question 20.
Which Battle sealed the Fate of France in 1815?
Answer:
Battle of Waterloo.

Question 21.
When did France abolish the monarchy and became republic?
Answer:
21st September, 1792.

Question 22.
Name any one class that did not belong to Jacobin Club?
Answer:
Nobles.

Question 23.
Who was the leader of the Jacobin Club?
Answer:
Maximilian Robespierre.

Question 24.
Which period of Famce’s history is known as ‘the Terror’.
Answer:
The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred to as the Reign cn terror.

Question 25.
Name the most popular political club started by the French women.
Answer:
Society of Revolutionary Republican women.

Question 26.
Which law was introduced by revolutionary government in France as help to improve the lives of women? HOTS
Answer:
Schooling was made compulsory for girls.

Question 27.
Who abolished slavery in France?
Answer:
The Jacobin Clubs.

Question 28.
‘The National Assembly completed the draft of the Constitution in 1791’. Mention any two features of the Constitution.
Answer:

• It vested the power to make laws in the hands of National Assembly,
• It limited the powers of the monarch. Now powers were decentralised and assigned to different institutions.

Question 29.
Who wrote the ‘Two Treatises of Government’?
Answer:
John Locke.

Question 30.
What does the Red Cap worn by Sans-Culottes in France symbolize?
Answer:
Liberty.

Question 31.
Name the political body to which the three estates of the French society sent their representatives? [HOTS ]
Answer:
The Estates General was a political body to which the three estates sent their representatives.

The French Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Ideas of liberty and democratic rights were the most important legacy of the French Revolution”. Explain the statement in the light of French Revolution.
Answer:

• People of Third Estate demanded a society based on freedom and opportunities to all.
• The National Assembly was formed in 1791 with an object to limit the powers of the monarch.
• The Constitution framed in 1791 began with a Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizens.
• Censorship was abolished in 1789.

Question 2.
Explain the impact of the French Revolution on the life of people of French.
Answer:

• Divorce was made legal, and could be applied by both women and men. Women could be now trained for jobs, could become artists or run small businesses.
• The Constitution of 1791 began with a Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen. It proclaimed that Freedom of speech and opinion and equality before law were natural rights of each human being by birth. These could not be taken away.
• Newspapers, pamphlets and printed pictures appeared steadily in the towns of French. From there, they travelled into the countryside. These publications described and discussed the events and changes taking place in the country.

Question 3.
What compelled Louis XVI to raise taxes in France?
Answer:

• Wars and Economic Crisis : In 1774, when Louis XVI ascended the throne, he found and empty treasure. The nation had gone into deep dept because of the fighting in the Seven Years War (1756-1763) and the Revolutionary War in America under Louis XVI. In this war, France helped the 13 American colonies to gain their independence from Britain. The war added more than a billion livers to a dept that had already risen to more than 2 billion livres.
• Debt Trap: Lenders who gave the state credit, now began to charge 10 per cent interest on loans. So the French government was obliged to spend an increasing percentage of its budget on interest payments alone. To meet its regular expenses, such as the cost of maintaining an army, the court, running government offices or universities the state was forced to increase taxes.
• Extravagant Court: France under various kings had a extravagant court at the immense palace of Versailles.

Question 4.
Describe the status of the nobles in France before the revolution.
Answer:
The clergy and the nobles led a life of luxury and enjoyed numerous privileges. On the other hand, the peasants and workers lived a wretched life. They groaned under heavy taxes and forced labour. The middle-class comprising of lawyers, doctors, teachers, etc also suffered humiliation at the hands of the clergy and the nobles. This state of social inequality was the chief cause of the French Revolution.

Question 5.
“The inequality that existed in the French Society in the Old Regime became the cause of French Revolution”. Justify the statement by giving three suitable examples.
Answer:
The examples are :

• French Society was divided into three Estates. The First Estate comprised of clergy, the Second Estate comprised of nobility and the Third Estate comprised of businessmen, traders, merchants, artisans, peasants and servants.
• The members of Church and nobility enjoyed certain privileges by birth, the most important being the exemption from paying taxes to the State.
• Feudal dues were extracted by nobles from peasants and one-tenth of the agricultural produce of peasants, in the form of Tithes came to the share of clergy. All members of the Third Estate including peasants paid taxes, thus, the burden of financing activities of the the state through taxes was borne by the Third Estate alone creating heavy discontentment.

Question 6.
How did philosophers influence the thinking of the people of France?
Answer:
Philosophers influence the thinking of the people of France as :

• Major changes were introduced in the Russian economy and agriculture after the revolution. Private property was abolished and land became a state property. Peasants had the freedom to cultivate on state ” – controlled land.
• A proper system of centralized planning was introduced with the help of five year plans. It helped in bringing about technological improvements, economic growth and helped in removing the inequalities in the society.
• The revolution acknowledged right to work and identified dignity of labour. Socialist economy added a new dimension to democracy, by attributing it as a socio-economic system.

Question 7.
What was the role of philosophers and thinkers in the French Revolution? Explain by giving three examples.
Answer:

• The philosophers and thinkers believed that,no group in a society should be privileged by birth. They supported a society based on freedom and equal laws.
• In his Two Treatises.of government, John Locke sought to refute the doctrine of the divine and absolute right of the monarch.
• Rousseau carried the idea forward, proposing a form of government based on a social contract between people and their representatives. In The Spirit of the Laws, Montesquieu proposed a division of power within the government between the legislative, the executive and the judiciary.

Question 8.
What measures were taken by Robespierre to bring equality in the French Society? HOTS
Answer:
Measures are :

• Robespierre government issued laws placing a maximum ceiling on wages and prices.
• Peasants were forced to transport their grain to the cities and sell it at prices fixed by the government.
• The use of more expensive white flour was forbidden; all citizens were required to eat the quality bread, a loaf made of whole wheat.
• Equality was also sought to be practised through forms of speech and address.
• Churches were shut down and their buildings converted into barracks or offices.
• Equality was also sought to be practised through forms of speech and address.

Question 9.
How did the peasants contribute to the outbreak of the French Revolution? Explain. HOTS
Answer:
Contribution of the peasants to the outbreak of the French Revolution :

• The peasants had to pay various taxes to the government, to the nobles and to the Church.
• They were subjected to forced labour, they had to work free in the land of the nobles for three days in a week.
• Crops were trampled by hunting parties of the nobles. About 81% of their income went to the State, Nobles, Church, 19% of the income was their to live on grass and roofs and 1,000 peoples of them died due to starvation. As as whole, the Administration was corrupt.

Question 10.
State the events that led to the formation of the National Assembly.
Answer:

• The Estates General was a political body of France to which the three estates sent their representatives. The voting in it had been conducted according to the principle that each estate had one vote.
• This time too when Louis XVI called a meeting of the Estates General, he decided to continue the same old practice.
• But the members of the Third Estate demanded that voting now be conducted on the democratic principle of one person, one vote.
• When the king rejected this proposal, the members of the Third Estate walked out of the assembly in protest.
• They assembled on 20 June, 1789 in the hall of an indoor tennis court in Versailles. These representatives of the Third Estate viewed themselves as spokesmen for whole French nation. They declared themselves a National Assembly.

Question 11.
Trace the event which led to the fall of Bastille.
Answer:

• On 20th June the representatives of the Third Estate assembled in the hall.
• While the National Assembly was busy at Versailles drafting a constitution,
• After spending hours in long queues at the bakery, crowds of angry women stormed into the shops. At the same time, the king ordered troops to move into Paris.
• On 14 July, the agitated crowd stormed and destroyed the Bastille.

Question 12.
Write three main features of the French Constitution of 1971.
Answer:

• Powers of the National Assembly: The Constitution of 1791 vested the power to make laws in the National Assembly, which was indirectly elected. That is, citizens voted for a group of electors, who in turn chose the Assembly.
• Right to Vote: Not all citizens, however, had the right to vote. Only men above 25 years of age who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer’s wage were given the status of active citizens, that is they were entitled to vote. The remaining men and all women were classed as passive citizens.
• Basic Rights: All the citizens were given some basic rights such as right to life, freedom of speech, freedom of opinion, equality before law. It was the duty of the state to protect each citizen’s natural rights.

Question 13.
What was the significance of ‘The Tennis Court Oath’ in the French Revolution?
Answer:

• The Tennis Court Oath was a significant event in the French revolution. The Oath was taken on 20th June in the hall of an indoor court in the grounds of Versailles.
• The members declared themselves as the National Assembly and swore not to disperse till they had drafted a Constitution for France that would limit the powers of the monarch.
• The National Assembly drafted the new Constitution which laid the foundation of Republic of France.

Question 14.
What was the Convention? Describe its role in France.
Answer:
The elected assembly formed in France in 1792 was called Convention.
Role in France :

• It abolished the monarchy and declared France a republic.
• Hereditary monarch Louis XVI and his wife were sentenced to death Robespierre was elected President of the National Convention. He followed the policy of severe control and punishment. The French Revolution 19

Question 15.
Describe how abolition of slavery became possible in France.
Answer:
Abolition of slavery became possible in France by the following ways :

• The salve trade began in the 18th century. The National Assembly held long debates about the rights of man should be extended to all French subjects including those in the colonies.
• Convention legislated to free all slaves in the French overseas possessions. .
• However, Napoleon reintroduced slavery. Finally slavery was abolished in 1848.

Question 16.
Discuss the impact of abolition of censorship in France.
Or
Describe the effects of abolition of law of censorship on France.
Answer:

• France before censorship: In the Old Regime all written material and cultural activities, books, newspapers, plays could be published or performed only after they had been approved by the censors of the king.
• Freedom of Speech: Now the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen proclaimed freedom of speech and expression to be a natural right. Newspapers, pamphlets, books and printed pictures flooded the towns of France from where they travelled rapidly into the countryside. They all described and discussed the events and changes taking place in France.
• Debate and Discussion: Freedom of the press also meant that opposing views of events could be expressed. Each side sought to convince the others of its position through the medium of print. Printed tracts and newspapers not only spread the new ideas, but they shaped the nature of debate. Plays, songs and festive processions attracted large numbers of people. This was one way they could grasp and identify with ideas such as liberty or justice.

Question 17.
Trace rights which we are enjoying today had origin in the French Revolution.
Answer:
The following fundamental rights, given in the Indian constitution can be traced to the French Revolution :

• The right to equality.
• The right to freedom of speech and expression.
• The right to freedom from exploitation.
• The right to constitutional remedies.

The French Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How was the French society organized? What privileges did certain sections of the society enjoy? Describe.
Or
‘Social disparity was one of the major causes of the French Revolution.’ Justify by giving examples. HOTS
Answer:
(i) Division of the society into three Estate :

• The First Estate: It consisted of the clergymen and church-fathers.
• The Second Estate: It consisted of landlords, men of noble birth and aristocrats.
• The Third Estate: It consisted of the vast majority of the common masses, the landless peasants, servants, etc.

(ii) Heavy Burden of Taxes on the Third Estate: The members of the first two Estates were exempted from paying taxes to the state. So all the taxes were paid by the people of the Third Estate.
(iii) Wide Gap between People of Different Estates: Most of the people of the Third Estate were employed as labourers in workshops with fixed wages. The wages failed to keep pace with the rise in prices. So the gap between the poor and the rich widened.
(iv) No Political Rights: Out of the total population, the first and the second Estates had share of 2%. The remaining people belonged to the Third Estate. Although the upper two classes made up only a small fraction of the total population, yet they were the people who controlled the political and economic system of the nation. They enjoyed all the rights and privileges. The entire machinery of the government was designed to protect their interests and privileges.
(v) Unequal Distribution of Wealth : In the French society, peasants made up about 90% of the population. However, only a small number of them owned the land they cultivated. About 60% of the land was owned by nobles, the church and other richer members of the Third Estate.

Question 2.
Explain the role of thinkers and philosophers in the French Revolution.
Answer:
(i) Influence of the Philosophers and Writers: There were many French philosophers and thinkers like John Locke, Montesquieu, Rousseau, Voltaire and Mirabeau, who exposed the evils prevailing in the system. They infused people with the idea of liberty, equality and fraternity.

(ii) Charles Montesquieu (1689-1775): A nobleman by birth, he became a lawyer and a judge. In his book, “The Spirit of Laws”, he criticised autocracy and praised the democratic republic.

(iii) Francis Aronet Voltaire (1694-1778): Voltaire was another outstanding philosopher of the Revolution. He wanted the people to think about their material life on earth, and forget about heaven. He condemned the Church which supported the privileged class, and ignored the poor.

(iv) Jean Jacques Rousseau (1712-1778): Rousseau is regarded as the architect of the French Revolution. He gave the slogan “Man was born free, yet he is everywhere in chains”. In the famous book, “The Social Contract”, he proved that the government was the result of a social contract between the people on the one hand, and ruler on the other. So if the ruler did not fulfil the contract, the people had the right to withdraw their loyalty to him, and bring down the tyranny of the ruler, by revolting.

(v) John Locke: He was also a great political thinker. He wrote ‘Two Treatises of Government’ in which he sought to refute the doctrine of the divine and the absolute right of the monarch.

Question 3.
Explain the events that led to the insurrection of 1792 in France.
Answer:
(i) Assembly of the Estates: On 5th May, 1789 Louis XVI called together an assembly of the Estates General to pass proposals for new taxes. Voting in the Estates General in the past had been conducted according to the principle that each estate had one vote. This time too, Louis XVI was determined to continue the same practice. But members of the Third Estate demanded that voting now should be conducted by the assembly as a whole, where each member would have one vote. When the king rejected this proposal, members of the Third Estate walked out of the assembly in protest.

(ii) National Assembly : The representatives of the Third Estate viewed themselves as spokesmen for the whole French nation. On 20th June, they assembled in the hall of an indoor tennis court in the grounds of Versailles. They declared themselves a National Assembly, and swore not to disperse till they had drafted a constitution for France that would limit the powers of the monarch. They were led by Mirabeau and Abbe’ Sieye’s.

(iii) Turmoil in France : While the National Assembly was busy at Versailles drafting the Constitution, the rest of France seethed with turmoil. Due to bad harvest, there was shortage of food, and there was also rumour that bands of brigands were on their way to destroy the ripe crops. Caught in a frenzy of fear, peasants started attacking nobles. Under all these circumstances, Louis XVI finally accorded recognition to the National Assembly.

(iv) Storming the Bastille : On the morning of 14th July, 1789 the agitated crowd stormed and destroyed the Bastille. Under all these circumstances, Louis XVI finally according recognition to the National Assembly.

(v) France became a Republic : In 1792 the Jacobians held the king hostage and declared to form a new government. The newly elected Assembly was called the Convention. On 21st September, 1792 it abolished the monarchy and declared France as a republic.

Question 4.
Explain the role of Mirabeau and Abbe’ Sieye’s in the French Revolution. HOTS
Answer:

• Both Mirabeau and Abbe’ Sieye’s were great political thinkers.
• They were the leaders of the National Assembly which was formed in 1789 after the failure of the meeting of the Estate General.
• Mirabeau was born in a noble family but was convinced of the need to do away with a society of feudal privilege.
• He brought out a journal, and delivered powerful speeches to the crowds assembled at Versailles.
• Abbe’ Sieye’s originally a priest, wrote an influential pamphlet called, ‘What is the Third Estate?’

Question 5.
Explain triangular slave trade carried on during 18th and 19th century.
Answer:

• The triangular slave trade was carried between Europe, Africa and America.
• The slave trade began in the seventeenth century. French merchants sailed from the ports of Bordeaux or Nantes to the African coast, where they bought slaves from local chieftains.
• Branded and shackled, the slaves were packed tightly into ships for the three-month long voyage across the Atlantic to the Caribbean. There they were sold to plantation owners.
• The exploitation of slave labour made it possible to meet the growing demand in European markets for sugar, coffee, and indigo.
• Port cities like Bordeaux and Nantes owed their economic prosperity to the flourishing slave trade.

Question 6.
Evaluate the importance of the following years in concern with French Revolution, 1774, 1789, 1791, 1804 and 1815.
Answer:
The importance of the following years in concern with French Revolutions :

(i) 1774: Louis XVI ascended the throne of France. He believed in the Divine Right Theory of Kings.
He had no respect for the freedom of liberty. Because of his empty treasure he began to impose heavy taxes which were disliked by his own people.

(ii) 1789: French Revolution began in 1789. It started with the convocation of the Estates General in May. The first year of revolution proclaimed the Tennis Court oath, assault on the declaration of rights of man an citizen. Estates General was called together by Louis XVI to pass proposals for new taxes.

(iii) 1791: The constitution of 1791 also established a short lived constitutional monarchy. The Third Estate which assumed the name of the National Assembly framed a new constitution for France in 1791. The Assembly nationalized church lands to pay off the public debt. It also abolished the rights of privileged classes. Declaration of the rights of man and citizen was also a feature of this year.

(iv) 1804: Napoleon became the emperor of France. He set out to conquer neighbouring Europeon countries. He conquered Europe and saw his role as a moderniser of Europe.

(v) 1815: The French Revolution appeared nullified by 1815. The land owning classes and the bourgeois emerged as the dominant power. Napoleon was defeated in the battle of Waterloo. Many of his measures that carried the revolutionary ideas of liberty and modem laws to other parts of Europe had an impact on people long after Naopleon had left.

Question 7.
Explain the circumstances under which Louis XVI finally accorded recognition to the National Assembly.
Or
What were the main causes of the French Revolution of1789?

(i) Assembly of the Estates: On 5th May 1789, Louis XVI called together an assembly of the Estates General to pass proposals for new taxes. Voting in the Estates General in the past had been conducted according to the principle that each estate had one vote. This time too, Louis XVI was determined to continue the same practice. But members of the Third Estate demanded that voting now should be conducted by the assembly as whole, where each member would have one vote, When the king rejected this proposal, members of the Third Estate walked out of the assembly in protest.

(ii) National Assembly: The representatives of the Third Estate viewed themselves as spokesmen for the whole French nation. On 20th June, they assembled in the hall of an indoor tennis court in the grounds of Versailles. They declared themselves a National Assembly, and swore not to disperse till they had drafted a constitution for France that would limit the powers of the monarch. They were led by Mirabeau and Abbe’ Sieye’s.

(iii) Turmoil in France: While the National Assembly was busy at Versailles drafting the Constitution, the rest of France seethed with, turmoil. Due to bad harvest, there was shortage of food, and there was also rumour that bands of brigands were on their way to destroy the ripe crops. Caught in a frenzy of fear, peasants started attacking nobles. Under all these circumstances, Louis XVI finally accorded recognition to the National Assembly.

(iv) Storming the Bastille: On the morning of 14th July, 1789, the agitated crowd stormed and destroyed the Bastille. Under all these circumstances, Louis XVI finally accorded recognition to the National Assembly.

(v) France became a Republic: In 1792 the Jacobians held the king hostage and declared to form a new government. The newly elected Assembly was called the Convention. On 21st September 1792 it abolished the monarchy and declared France as a republic.

Question 8.
Explain how the new political system of Constitutional monarchy in France worked. HOTS
Or
Explain any five features of the Constitution drafted in 1791.
Answer:

• The Constitution of 1791 vested the power to make laws in the National Assembly, which was indirectly elected.
• With the new Constitution the powers of govern the country were assigned to different institutions, i.e., the legislature, executive and the judiciary.
• The judiciary and the legislature were elected by the people. Only men above 25 years of age who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer’s wage were given the status of active citizens, that is, they were entitled to vote.
• Under this system the powers of the monarch were limited. Most of the powers were in the hands of legislatures.
• The ministers were also answerable to the legislature. The king enjoyed the veto power.

Question 9.
What was the role of Jacobins during the French Revolution?
Or
Explain the role of Jacobins in the French Revolution.
Answer:

(i) Middle Class: The members of the Jacobins club belonged mainly to the less prosperous sections of society. They included small shopkeepers, artisans such as shoemakers, pastry cooks, watch-makers, printers, as well as servants and daily-wage workers. Their leader was Maximilian Robespierre.

(ii) Different Clothes: A large group among the Jacobins decided to start wearing long striped trousers similar to those worn by dock workers. This was to set themselves apart from the fashionable sections of society, especially nobles, who wore knees breeches. It was a way of proclaiming the end of the power wielded by the wearers of knee breeches. These Jacobins came to be known as the sansculottes, literally meaning — those without knee breeches. Sansculottes men wore in addition the red cap that symbolised liberty.

(iii) Carrying the Revolution: They were the people who believed that the revolution had to be carried further, as the Constitution of 1791 gave political rights only to the richer sections of society.

(iv) Storming the King’s Palace: In the summer of 1792 the Jacobins planned an insurrection of a large number of Parisians who were angered by the short supplies and high prices of food. On the morning of August 10 they stormed the Palace of the Tuileries, massacred the king’s guards and held the king himself as hostage for several hours. Later the Assembly voted to imprison the royal family.

(v) France became a Republic: Elections were held. From now on all men of 21 years and above, regardless of wealth, got the right to vote. The newly elected assembly was called the Convention. On 21 September, 1792 it abolished the monarchy and declared France a republic.

Question 10.
How was slavery abolished in France?
Answer:

• One of the most revolutionary social reforms of the Jacobin regime was the abolition of slavery in the French colonies.
• Throughout the eighteenth century there was little criticism of slavery in France. The National Assembly held long debates about whether the rights of man should be extended to all French subjects including those in the colonies. But it did not pass any laws, fearing opposition from businessmen whose incomes depended on the slave trade.
• It was finally the Convention which in 1794 legislated to free all slaves in the French overseas possessions.
• This, however, turned out to be a shorterm measure : ten years later, Napoleon reintroduced slavery.
• Plantation owners understood their freedom as including the right to enslave African Negroes in pursuit of their economic interests. Slavery was finally abolished in French colonies in 1848.

Question 11.
Describe the conditions of women during the period of French Revolution.
Answer:
Conditions of women during the period of French Revolution are :

• From the very beginning women were active participants in the events which brought sfbout major changes in the French Society.
• Most women of the Third Estate had to work for a living as seamstresses or laundresses. They even sold flowers, fruits and vegetables at the market.
• They were employed as domestic servants in the house of prosperous people.
• They started their own political clubs and newspapers in order to voice their interests.
• They demanded the right to vote to be elected to the Assembly and hold political office.
• They did not have access to education or job training. Only daughter wealthier members of the Third Estate could stay at convent.
• Working women had also to take care of their families. Their wages were lower than those of men.

Question 12.
Who was Robespierre? Describe any four steps taken by him to bring equality.
Answer:
Maximilian Robespierre was the leader of Jacobin Club.

• The period from 1793 to 1794 is referred to as the Reign of Terror. Robespierre followed a policy of severe control and punishment.
• All those whom he saw as being ‘enemies’ of the republic-ex-nobles and clergy, members of other political parties, even members of his own party who did not agree with his methods were arrested, imprisoned and then tried by a revolutionary tribunal. If the court found them ‘guilty1 they were guillotined.
• Robespierre’s government issued laws placing a maximum ceiling on wages and prices. Meat and bread were rationed. Peasants were forced to transport their grain to the cities and sell it at prices fixed by the government.
• Churches were shut down and their buildings converted into barracks or offices.

Question 13.
Explain any five features of the Constitution of 1791 framed by the National Assembly in France.
Or
Highlight any five features of the constitution of 1791 in France.
Answer:
Features of the Constitution of 1791 :

• It declared France a constitutional monarchy.
• Powers of the king separated and assigned to the executive, the legislature and the judiciary.
• Laws to be made by the National Assembly.
• Only men above 25 years of age, who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer’s wage, were entitled to vote.
• Many rights were given to the people.
• To qualify as an elector and as member of the Assembly, a man had to belong to highest bracket of taxpayers.

Question 14.
Compare the political, economic and social conditions of France before and after the revolution.
Answer:

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

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Lines and Angles Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 5

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 5 Lines and Angles

Lines and Angles Class 7 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Find the angles which is of its complement.
Solution:
Let the required angle be x°
its complement = (90 – x)°
As per condition, we get

Question 2.
Find the angles which is of its supplement.
Solution:
Let the required angle be x°.
its supplement = (180 – x)°
As per the condition, we get
of (180 – x)° = x°

Question 3.
Find the value of x in the given figure.

Solution:
∠POR + ∠QOR = 180° (Angles of linear pair)
⇒ (2x + 60°) + (3x – 40)° = 180°
⇒ 2x + 60 + 3x – 40 = 180°
⇒ 5x + 20 = 180°
⇒ 5x = 180 – 20 = 160
⇒ x = 32
Thus, the value of x = 32.

Question 4.
In the given figure, find the value of y.

Solution:
Let the angle opposite to 90° be z.
z = 90° (Vertically opposite angle)
3y + z + 30° = 180° (Sum of adjacent angles on a straight line)
⇒ 3y + 90° + 30° = 180°
⇒ 3y + 120° = 180°
⇒ 3y = 180° – 120° = 60°
⇒ y = 20°
Thus the value of y = 20°.

Question 5.
Find the supplements of each of the following:
(i) 30°
(ii) 79°
(iii) 179°
(iv) x°
(v) of right angle
Solution:
(i) Supplement of 30° = 180° – 30° = 150°
(ii) Supplement of 79° = 180° – 79° = 101°
(iii) Supplement of 179° = 180° – 179° = 1°
(iv) Supplement of x° = (180 – x)°
(v) Supplement of of right angle
= 180° – × 90° = 180° – 36° = 144°

Question 6.
If the angles (4x + 4)° and (6x – 4)° are the supplementary angles, find the value of x.
Solution:
(4x + 4)° + (6x – 4)° = 180° (∵ Sum of the supplementary angle is 180°)
⇒ 4x + 4 + 6x – 4 = 180°
⇒ 10x = 180°
⇒ x = 18°
Thus, x = 18°

Question 7.
Find the value of x.

Solution:
(6x – 40)° + (5x + 9)° + (3x + 15) ° = 180° (∵ Sum of adjacent angles on straight line)
⇒ 6x – 40 + 5x + 9 + 3x + 15 = 180°
⇒ 14x – 16 = 180°
⇒ 14x = 180 + 16 = 196
⇒ x = 14
Thus, x = 14

Question 8.
Find the value of y.

Solution:
l || m, and t is a transversal.
y + 135° = 180° (Sum of interior angles on the same side of transversal is 180°)
⇒ y = 180° – 135° = 45°
Thus, y = 45°

Lines and Angles Class 7 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 9.
Find the value ofy in the following figures:

Solution:
(i) y + 15° = 360° (Sum of complete angles round at a point)
⇒ y = 360° – 15° = 345°
Thus, y = 345°
(ii) (2y + 10)° + 50° + 40° + 130° = 360° (Sum of angles round at a point)
⇒ 2y + 10 + 220 = 360
⇒ 2y + 230 = 360
⇒ 2y = 360 – 230
⇒ 2y = 130
⇒ y = 65
Thus, y = 65°
(iii) y + 90° = 180° (Angles of linear pair)
⇒ y = 180° – 90° = 90°
[40° + 140° = 180°, which shows that l is a straight line]

Question 10.
In the following figures, find the lettered angles.

Solution:
(i) Let a be represented by ∠1 and ∠2
∠a = ∠1 + ∠2
∠1 = 35° (Alternate interior angles)
∠2 = 55° (Alternate interior angles)
∠1 + ∠2 = 35° + 55°
∠a = 90°
Thus, ∠a = 90°

Question 11.
In the given figure, prove that AB || CD.

Solution:
∠CEF = 30° + 50° = 80°
∠DCE = 80° (Given)
∠CEF = ∠DCE
But these are alternate interior angle.
CD || EF ……(i)
Now ∠EAB = 130° (Given)
∠AEF = 50° (Given)
∠EAB + ∠AEF = 130° + 50° = 180°
But these are co-interior angles.
AB || EF …(ii)
From eq. (i) and (ii), we get
AB || CD || EF
Hence, AB || CD
Co-interior angles/Allied angles: Sum of interior angles on the same side of transversal is 180°.

Question 12.
In the given figure l || m. Find the values of a, b and c.

Solution:
(i) We have l || m
∠b = 40° (Alternate interior angles)
∠c = 120° (Alternate interior angles)
∠a + ∠b + ∠c = 180° (Sum of adjacent angles on straight angle)
⇒ ∠a + 40° + 120° = 180°
⇒ ∠a + 160° = 180°
⇒ ∠a = 180° – 160° = 20°
Thus, ∠a = 20°, ∠b = 40° and ∠c = 120°.
(ii) We have l || m
∠a = 45° (Alternate interior angles)
∠c = 55° (Alternate interior angles)
∠a + ∠b + ∠c = 180° (Sum of adjacent angles on straight line)
⇒ 45 + ∠b + 55 = 180°
⇒ ∠b + 100 = 180°
⇒ ∠b = 180° – 100°
⇒ ∠b = 80°

Question 13.
In the adjoining figure if x : y : z = 2 : 3 : 4, then find the value of z.

Solution:
Let x = 2s°
y = 3s°
and z = 4s°
∠x + ∠y + ∠z = 180° (Sum of adjacent angles on straight line)
2s° + 3s° + 4s° = 180°
⇒ 9s° = 180°
⇒ s° = 20°
Thus x = 2 × 20° = 40°, y = 3 × 20° = 60° and z = 4 × 20° = 80°

Question 14.
In the following figure, find the value of ∠BOC, if points A, O and B are collinear. (NCERT Exemplar)

Solution:
We have A, O and B are collinear.
∠AOD + ∠DOC + ∠COB = 180° (Sum of adjacent angles on straight line)
(x – 10)° + (4x – 25)° + (x + 5)° = 180°
⇒ x – 10 + 4x – 25 + x + 5 = 180°
⇒ 6x – 10 – 25 + 5 = 180°
⇒ 6x – 30 = 180°
⇒ 6x = 180 + 30 = 210
⇒ x = 35
So, ∠BOC = (x + 5)° = (35 + 5)° = 40°

Question 15.
In given figure, PQ, RS and UT are parallel lines.
(i) If c = 57° and a = , find the value of d.
(ii) If c = 75° and a = c , find b.

Solution:
(i) We have ∠c = 57° and ∠a =
∠a = = 19°
PQ || UT (given)
∠a + ∠b = ∠c (Alternate interior angles)
19° + ∠b = 57°
∠b = 57° – 19° = 38°
PQ || RS (given)
∠b + ∠d = 180° (Co-interior angles)
38° + ∠d = 180°
∠d = 180° – 38° = 142°
Thus, ∠d = 142°
(ii) We have ∠c = 75° and ∠a = ∠c
∠a = × 75° = 30°
PQ || UT (given)
∠a + ∠b = ∠c
30° + ∠b = 75°
∠b = 75° – 30° = 45°
Thus, ∠b = 45°

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths

The post Lines and Angles Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 5 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Social Science History Chapter 2

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science History Chapter 2 Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution

Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In the context of Russia, which group was the supporter of women’s Suffragette Movements?
Answer:
Radicals.

Question 2.
Who was Karl Marx?
Answer:
Karl Marx was a philosopher who favoured socialism. He believed that to free themselves from capitalist exploitation, workers had to construct a radically socialist society, where all the properties were socially controlled.

Question 3.
By whom was ‘Das Capital’ written?
Answer:
Karl Marx.

Question 4.
Name the term that refers to ‘women’s right to vote’. HOTS
Answer:
Suffragette.

Question 5.
Who were the ‘greens’ and ‘whites’?
Answer:
They were the group of people who were against the Bolshevik Revolution. They started a civil war. They were supported by the French, American, British and the Japanese troops as these countries were worried about the growth of socialism in Russia.

Question 6.
What was the basic idea of socialism?
Answer:
Socialists were against private property, and saw it as the root of all social ills of the time.

Question 7.
What was the basic idea of a communist society?
Answer:
All properties should be socially controlled.

Question 8.
Who built the cooperative called ‘New Harmony’?
Answer:
Robert Owen.

Question 9.
Name the European nation where the first ever socialist government was formed.
Answer:
Russia.

Question 10.
What was the Russian Revolution?
Answer:
The fall of monarchy in February 1917, and the events of October are normally called the Russian Revolution.

Question 11.
When was the Russian Social Democratic Workers Party founded, and by whom?
Answer:
In 1898, by the socialists, who respected Marx’s ideas.

Question 12.
Who was ruling over Russia when the Russian Revolution took place?
Answer:
Tsar Nicholas II.

Question 13.
What was the Second International?
Answer:
It was an International body which was formed to coordinate the ideas of the socialists.

Question 14.
“The year 1904 was particularly bad for the Russian workers” Give reason.
Answer:
In 1904 prices of essential goods rose very quickly and the real wages declined by 20%.

Question 15.
What was Duma?
Answer:
It was an elected consultative Parliament of Russia.

Question 16.
Name the term that refers to the meaning of the word ‘Soviet’.
Answer:
A Revolutionary Organization.

Question 17.
What was Bolsheviks?
Answer:
It was a socialist party of Russia which was led by Lenin.

Question 18.
What was Mensheviks?
Answer:
It was a break away group of Bolsheviks. It was also a socialist party like that of Bolshevik.

Question 19.
Define Kulaks.
Answer:
The wealthy farmers of Russia.

Question 20.
In the context of Russia what was ‘Kolkhoz’? HOTS
Answer:
Kolkhoz were the collective farms, where all peasants were forced to cultivate from 1929.

Question 21.
Who started ‘Collectivization Programme’ in Russia?
Answer:
Stalin.

Question 22.
Who headed the Communist Party of Russia after the death of Lenin?
Answer:
Stalin.

Question 23.
Which incident of the Russian history is known as ‘Bloody Sunday’?
Answer:
It was an incident in which more than 100 workers were killed and about 300 wounded. These workers were attacked by the police in 1905 when they reached the winter palace.

Question 24.
What was Lenin’s ’April Theses’?
Answer:
In 1917, Lenin declared that the war be brought to an end, land be transferred to the peasants, and banks be nationalised. These three demands were Lenin’s ‘April Theses’.

Question 25.
What was the new name of St. Petersburg*?
Answer:
Petrograd.

Question 26.
Name a few countries that were part of central power during the First World War?
Answer:
Germany, Austria and Turkey.

Question 27.
Name the term which was used for elected Consultative Parliament in Russia?
Answer:
Duma.

Question 28.
At the beginning of the 20 th century, where did the vast majority of Russian people worked? .
Answer:
Agricultural sector.

Question 29.
When did the First World War break out?
Answer:
1914.

Question 30.
Why is 22nd,February celebrated as the International Women’s day?
Answer:
Because on this day. women workers of Russia led a huge strike in the factories.

Question 31.
What were the Muslim reformers within the Russian Empire called?
Answer:
Jadidists.

Question 32.
To which place did industrialization bring men, women and children together?
Answer:
Factories.

Question 33.
Name any two Indian nationalists who talked of the significance of the French Revolution.
Answer:

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy and
• Derozio.

Question 34.
Name a few countries which were included in Russian Empire in 1914.
Answer:
Finland, Lithuania and Latvia.

Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the views of radicals.
Answer:
The views of radicals are as follows:

• The group who wanted to bring about immediate social change in Russia was radicals.
• They wanted a government on the majority of country’s population.
• They were against private properties.

Question 2.
Who were liberals? What were their political and social views?
Or
Liberals were not democrats. Explain.
Answer:
Liberals : One of the groups which looked to change society were the liberals.
Political and Social Views of Liberals :

• Liberals wanted a nation which tolerated all religions.
• Liberals also opposed the uncontrolled power of dynastic rulers. They wanted to safeguard the rights of individuals against governments.
• They argued for a representative, elected parliamentary government, subject to laws interpreted by a well-trained judiciary that was independent of rulers and officials.
• However, they were not ‘democrats’. They did not believe in universal adult franchise, that is, the right of every citizen to vote. They felt men of property mainly should have the vote.
• They also did not want the vote for women.

Question 3.
Distinguish between the ideas of liberals and the radicals.
Answer:

Question 4.
Who ruled Russia in 1914? How did he manage his empire? Explain.
Answer:
Tsar Nicholas II was ruling over Russia, during the revolution.

• He was an autocrat.
• Though he created ‘Duma’ after the Revolution, but never cared for it.
• He was carrying the war against the wishes of the people.
• He worked under a monk called Rasputin.

Question 5.
Explain the views of different socialists and philosophers regarding the vision of the future or to transform the society.
Answer:

• Robert Owen, a leading English manufacturer and a socialist sought to build a cooperative community called the New Harmony, in Indiana (USA).
• Louis Blanc of France wanted the government to encourage cooperatives and replace the capitalists.
• Karl Marx believed that to free themselves from capitalist exploitation, workers had to construct a radically socialist society, where all the properties were socially controlled.
• Friedrich Engels was also against capitalism.

Question 6.
Explain any three reasons which led to civil war between the Bolsheviks and the Russian army of non-Bolsheviks.
Or
What conditions led to the Russian Civil War in 1918 – 1920? Give any four points.
Answer:

• Impact of Land Redistribution Policy on Soldiers: When the Bolsheviks ordered land redistribution, the Russian army began to break up. Soldiers, mostly peasants, wished to go home for the redistribution and deserted.
• Opposition from Greens and Whites: Non-Bolshevik socialists, liberals and supporters of autocracy condemned the Bolshevik uprising. Their leaders moved to south Russia and organized troops to fight the Bolsheviks (the reds).’ During 1918 and 1919, the greens (Socialist Revolutionaries) and whites (pro-Tsarists) controlled most of the Russian empire.
• Outside Forces: The Greens and Whites were backed by French, American, British and Japanese troops. All these forces were worried at the growth of socialism in Russia.
• Use of Force: In many parts, Bolshevik colonists brutally massacred local nationalists in the name of defending socialism. In this situation, many were confused about what the Bolshevik government represented.

Question 7.
‘A communist society was the natural society of the future.’ Explain.
Or
Explain the views of Karl Marx on capitalism.
Or
Explain the thoughts and beliefs of Karl Marx which convinced the workers to enter into conflict with the capitalists.
Answer:

• Marx was of the opinion that an industrial society was a ‘capitalist’ society.
• Capitalists earn profits because of workers.
• To increase his profits the capitalist uses two methods i.e., either by reducing wages or increasing the working hours.
• Marx believed that to free themselves from the capitalists, workers had to construct a radically socialist society where all the properties were socially controlled.

Question 8.
Explain the economic condition of the workers before the Russian Revolution.
Answer:

• Most of the industries were the private property of the industrialists. Most of the workers were working for about 10 to 12 hours a day.
• They were paid very low wages.
• The working conditions were also very poor.
• Women workers made up about 31% of the factory labour, but they were paid less than men.

Question 9.
Mention four features of socialism.
Answer:

• Socialists were against private property.
• Under socialism, the means of production are under the control of the government.
• Socialists regarded the private property as the root cause of all social evils.
• Socialism encourages cooperatives.

Question 10.
Mention any four features of the Russian economy at the beginning of the 20th century.
Or
Describe the economic condition of Russia before 1905.
Answer:

• The vast majority of Russia’s people were agriculturists. About 85 per cent of the Russian empire’s population earned their living from agriculture.
• Industry was found in pockets. Prominent industrial areas were St. Petersburg and Moscow. Craftsmen undertook much of the production, but large factories existed alongside craft workshops.
• Many factories were set up in the 1890s, when Russia’s railway network was extended, and foreign investment in industry increased. Coal production doubled and iron and steel output quadrupled.
• In the countiyside, peasants cultivated most of the land. But the nobility, the crown and the Orthodox Church owned large properties.

Question 11.
Explain any three views of the socialists about private property.
Answer:
Views of socialists about private property are :

• They were against private property.
• They saw it as the root of all social ills.
• Individuals who owned the property were concerned about personal gain only.
• Those who make property productive are ignored by the owners of the property, (any three)

Question 12.
Mention any four features of the Russian society of the 20th century.
Answer:

• The vast majority of Russia’s people were agriculturists. About 85 per cent of the Russian empire’s population earned their living from agriculture.
• Workers were a divided social group. Some had strong links with the villages from which they came. Others had settled in cities permanently.
• Women made up 31 per cent of the factory labour force by 1914, but they were paid less than men (between half and three-quarters of a man’s wage).
• In the countryside, peasants cultivated most of the land. But the nobility, the crown and the Orthodox Church owned large properties. Nobles got their power and position through their services to the Tsar, not through local popularity.

Question 13.
What were the differences between the Russian peasants and the other peasants of Europe?
Or
How were the peasants of Russia different from rest of Europe?
Answer:

• Russia’s people were agriculturists. About 85 per cent of the Russian empire’s population earned their living from agriculture. This proportion was higher than in most European countries. For instance, in France and Germany the proportion was between 40 per cent and 50 per cent.
• In Russia, peasants wanted the land of the nobles to be given to them. They had no respect for them, whereas in other parts of Europe, the nobles were respected.
• Russian farmers pooled their land together periodically, and their commune divided it according to the needs of the individual families. This never happened in other parts of Europe.

Question 14.
What were the main demands of April Theses?
Or
Explain the Lenin’s ‘April Theses’.
Or
Describe the three major demands of Bolshevik during 1917.
Answer:
Main demands of April Theses were :

• Lenin returned to Russia from exile and felt that it was time for Soviets to take over power. He declared that war be brought to an end, land be transferred to the peasants and banks nationalized. He also argued to rename Bolshevik Party as Communist Party.
• Started planning on uprising against government with the support of army.
• Military Revolutionary Committee was planned to seize the power and bring the city under control.

Question 15.
Why did ‘the Kerenskii Government’ in Russia fall?
Or
Why did the Kerenskii Government become unpopular in Russia? .
Answer:

• Lenin: In April 1917, the Bolshevik leader Lenin returned to Russia from his exile. He put forward the ‘April Theses’ due to which he got full support from the Russian workers. Bolsheviks supporters in the army, factories and peasants were brought together under one umbrella under his leadership.
• Trade Unions and Other Organisations: After the February revolution, workers were free to form associations and unions. So trade unions grew in number.
• Conflict between Bolsheviks and the Government: Regular conflicts between Bolsheviks and the government weakened the government. Bolsheviks were supported by Soviet army and factory workers.
• Non-fulfilment of Demands: The Provisional Government failed to meet any of the demands of theworkers and the common people.

Question 16.
Describe the events that led to 1905 Revolution of Russia.
Or
Write A note on the Bloody Sunday incident.
Or
Which incident came to be known as Bloody Sunday? What were its consequences? V3Q
Answer:

• The year 1904 was a particularly bad one for Russian workers. Prices of essential goods rose so quickly that the real wages declined by 20%.
• When four members of the Assembly of Russian workers were dismissed, the workers became agitated.
• In January 1905, a large number of peaceful workers led by Father Gapon reached the Winter Palace in St. Petersburg to present a petition to the Tsar.
• The workers were attacked by the police. Over 100 workers were killed, and about 300 wounded. Since the incident took place on Sunday, it is known as the ‘Bloody Sunday
  Consequences: Tsar underpressure from the masses was forced to announce his manifesto which led to the formation of Duma.

Question 17.
Explain the mqjor events that were responsible for the Russian Revolution of 1905.
Or
Why were there revolutionary disturbances iii Russia in 1905?
What were the demands of the revolutionaries?
Answer:

• Autocratic Rule: Russia was under the autocratic rule of the Tsars. The Tsar Nicholas II was an inefficient and corrupt ruler.
• Role of Liberals and Socialists: Both Liberals and Socialists were against the dynastic rule. They worked with peasants and workers to demand a constitution. They were being supported by Jadidists.
• Strike of the Workers: The year 1904 was a bad year forythe Russian workers. Prices of essential goods rose so quickly that real wages declined by 20%. So there was a strike by the workers. They
  demanded reduction in working hours, an increase in wages and improvement in the working conditions.
• Bloody Sunday : The incident of Bloody Sunday in which more than 100 workers were killed became the turning point. It led to an all Russia strike. Lawyers, doctors, engineers and others demanded constituent assembly.

Question 18.
What is meant by ‘October revolution’?
Answer:

• It was the revolution which occurred in October 1917. It was led by Petrograd Soviet and the Bolshevik Party under the leadership of Lenin.
• A military Revolutionary Committee was appointed by the Soviet under Leon Trotskii to organise the seizure.
• The uprising began on 24th October. Though Prime Minister Kerenskii resisted but the seizure was complete within a day.
• The Bolshevik Party was renamed the Russian Communist Party (Bolshevik).
• In November 1917, the Bolsheviks conducted the elections to the Constituent Assembly, but they failed to gain majority support. In January 1918, the assembly rejected Bolshevik measures and Lenin dismissed the assembly.
• In the years that followed, Bolsheviks took full control over the government and Russia became one party state.

Question 19.
Explain any three major effects of the Russian Revolution of October 1917 on Russian economy.
Answer:

• No Private Property: Private property in the means of production was abolished. Land and other means of production were declared the property of the entire nation. Labour was made compulsory for all and economic exploitation by capitalists and landlords came to an end.
• Nationalisation of Industries: The control of industries was given to the workers. All the banks, insurance companies, large industries, mines, water transports and railways were nationalised.
• Centralised Planning: A process cf centralised planning was introduced. Officials assessed how the economy could work and set targets for a five-year period. On this basis they made the Five Year Plans.

Question 20.
How did Russia’s participation in the World War-I become a cause for the fall of Tsar? Explain.
Or
Explain any four reasons why Russian people wanted the Tsar to withdraw from the First World War.
Answer:

• Loss of Soldiers: In the First World War, Russia lost more than 7 million soldiers. So there was a discontent among the masses.
• Destruction of Crops: The war led to the destruction of crops, homes and industries. So over 3 million people became refugees.
• Impact on Industries: Russian industry was dependent on other countries, and was cut off from other suppliers of industrial goods.
• Shortage of Workers: There was shortage of workers as most of the workers were sent to the army.

Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the main objectives of Liberals in Russia?
Answer:
The mam objectives of Liberals are as follows:

• They expected a nation which tolerated all the religions.
• They opposed the uncontrolled powers of dynastic rules.
• They wanted to safeguard the right to individual against government.
• They did not believe in universal adult franchise as they were not democrats.
• Liberals argued for a representative elected by the government. They were subjected to laws interrupted by a well-trained judiciary that was independent of rulers and officials.
• In the parts of Europe, where independent nation states did not yet exist. For example, Germany, Italy, Poland-men and women combined their demands for constitutionalism with national unification.
• They took advantage of the growing unrest and to push their demands for a creation of a constitution with freedom of press and freedom of association.

Question 2.
Explain any five differences between the peasants of Russia and peasants of Europe.
Answer:

Question 3.
How far the economic and social conditions of Russia were responsible for the Russian Revolution? Explain by giving examples.
Or
Describe the circumstances which were responsible for the Russian Revolution.
Answer:

(i) Agrarian Economy and Poor Condition of the Peasants: At the beginning of the 20th century, more than 85% of Russian population earned their living from agriculture. Most of the land was owned by rich people. Most of the peasants worked from dawn to dusk
with very low wages or share. Most of the peasants were against the rich and the nobles.

(ii) Poor Condition of Workers: Most of the industries were controlled by the private individuals. In craft units, and small workshops, the working day was sometimes 15 hours. Most of the workers were working and living in poor conditions. Most of the workers were ill-paid.

(iii) Unemployment: Unemployment rate was very high. The rich industrialists were exploiting the workers.
(iv) High Prices : Prices of essential goods rose so quickly that real wages declinedxby 20%.

(v) Condition of Women: Most of the women were working in small factories. Women made up about 31% of the factory labour force. They were paid less wages, and were forced to work for long hours. When they launched an agitation, they were fired at by the police.

Question 4.
Explain the views of the Socialists on private property with special emphasis on Karl Marx.
Answer:

• Marx argued that industrial society was capitalist. Capitalists owned the capital invested in factories, and the profit of capitalists was produced by workers.
• The conditions of workers could not improve as long as this profit was accumulated by private capitalists.
• Workers had to overthrow capitalism and the rule of private property.
• Marx believed that to free themselves from capitalist exploitation, workers had to construct a radically socialist controlled. This would be a communist society. He was convinced that workers would triumph in their conflict with capitalists. A communist society was the natural society of the future.

Question 5.
What social changes were seen in the society after industrialisation?
Or
How did industrialization change the lives of people in Europe? Explain.
Answer:

• Working Class: Industrialisation brought men, women and children to factories. Work hours were often long and wages were poor.
• Problem of Unemployment and Poverty: Problem of unemployment and poverty was rare in the countryside but this became a common phenomenon with industrialisation. Unemployment was common, particularly during times of low demand for industrial goods.
• Problem of Housing and Sanitation: Large-scale migration to cities lead to housing and sanitation problem.
• Trade Unions: Workers in England and Germany began forming associations to fight for better living and working conditions. They set up funds to help members in times of distress and demanded a reduction of working hours and the right to vote. In Germany, these associations worked closely with the Social Democratic Party (SPD) and helped it win parliamentary seats. By 1905, socialists and trade unionists formed a Labour Party in Britain and a Socialist Party in France.
• Socialism: Trade unions and worker’s union lead to idea of socialism. The development of the idea of socialism changed the political scenario. These trade unions stared demanding share in political power.

Question 6.
Explain the collectivisation policy of Stalin.
Or
What were the major changes Introduced in agriculture by Stalin? Explain.
Answer:

• The collectivisation policy was introduced by Stalin who came to power after the death of Lenin.
• The main reason was the shortage of grain supplies.
• It was argued that grain shortage was partly due to the small size of the holding.
• After 1917, the land had been given over to peasants. These small-sized peasant farms could not be modernised. To develop modern farms, and run them along industrial lines with machinery, it was necessary to eliminate ‘kulaks’, take away land from peasants, and establish state-controlled large farms.
• From 1929, the government forced all peasants to cultivate in collective farms (kolkhoz). The bulk of land and implements were transferred to the ownership of collective farms. Peasants worked on the land, and the kolkhoz profit was shared.
• Enraged peasants resisted the authorities, and destroyed their livestock. Between 1929 and 1931, the number of cattle fell by one-third. Those who resisted collectivisation were severely punished. Many were deported and exiled.
• As they resisted collectivisation, peasants argued that they were not rich, and were not against socialism. They did not want to work in collective farms for a variety of reasons.
• Stalin’s government allowed some independent cultivation, but treated such cultivators unsympathetically.
• In spite of collectivisation, production did not increase immediately. In fact, the bad harvest of 1930-1933 led to one of the most devastating famines in Soviet history when over 4 million died.

Question 7.
Highlight any five changes brought by Lenin in Russia after October Revolution of 1917. HOTS
Answer:
Role of Lenin in post 1917 Russian Revolution :

• A conflict between the provisional government and the Bolshevik grew in September, 1917. Lenin started planning an uprising against the government and began to organize his supporters from any secrets and factories.
• A military revolutionary committee under Lenin Trotski planned to seize power.
• Uprising began on 4th October, 1917. The Prime Minister Karenski, with government troops tried to subdue the Bolshevik but failed.
• Under the guidance of Lenin, the military Revolutionary committee responded quickly and by nightfall the city was under the committee’s control.
• At a meeting all Russian Congress of Soviet in Petrograd, the majority approved the Bolshevik action. Russian Revolution brought Russia under communist control.

Question 8.
Who was Lenin? What was his contribution in the Russian Revolution?
Answer:
Lenin was a socialist leader who was against the autocratic rule of Tsar. His contributions in the Russian Revolution were :
(i) April Theses: He put forward three demands i.e., the war be brought to an end, land be transferred to the peasants, and banks be nationalised; These three demands were Lenin’s April Theses. He also argued that the Bolshevik Party rename itself the Communist Party to indicate its new radical aims.

(ii) Provisional Government and Lenin: The Provisional Government which was established after the February Revolution of 1917 was controlled by landlords, industrialists and army officials. So Lenin was against the Provisional Government. He brought together different Soviets and prepared them for the Revolution.

(iii) Overthrow of the Provisional Government: It was under the leadership of Lenin that the Provisional Government was overthrown by the Soviets. On 16th October 1917. Lenin persuaded the Petrograd Soviet and the Bolshevik Party to agree to a socialist seizure of power. A Military Revolutionary Committee was appointed by the Soviets to organise the seizure.

(iv) Communist State: Lenin laid the foundation of Communist State. After the October Revolution the Bolshevik Party was renamed the Russian Communist Party.

Question 9.
Explain the Russian February Revolution 1917.
Or
Petrograd had led the February Revolution that brought down the monarchy in February 1917. Explain. HOTS
Answer:
(i) Grim Condition in the Petrograd: In the winter of 1917, conditions in the capital, Petrograd, were grim. In February 1917, food shortages were deeply felt in the workers’ quarters. The winter was very cold. There had been exceptional frost and heavy snow.

(ii) Women Lead the Strike: On 22 February, a lockout took place at a factory. The next day, workers in fifty factories called a strike in sympathy. In many factories, women led the way to strikes. This came to be called the International Women’s Day.

(iii) Violent Incidents: In the next few days the workers tried to persue the government to fulfill their demand but government called out the cavalry. The streets thronged with people raising slogans about bread, wages, better hours and democracy. However, the cavalry refused to fire on- the demonstrators. An officer was shot at the barracks of a regiment and three other regiments mutinied, voting to join the striking workers.

(iv) Formation of Soviet: By that evening, soldiers and striking workers had gathered to form a soviet or council in the same building as the Duma met. This was the Petrograd Soviet.

(v) Formation of Provisional Government: The very next day, a delegation went to see the Tsar. Military commanders advised him to abdicate. He followed their advice and abdicated on 2 March. Soviet leaders and Duma leaders formed a Provisional Government to run the country. Russia’s future would be decided by a constituent assembly, elected on the basis of universal adult suffrage.

Question 10.
Describe the importance of Battle of Stalingard in the Second World War.
Answer:
Importance of Battle of Stalingard in the Second World War :

• The battle of Stalingard was fought between Russia and Germany on Russian territory.
• This battle is considered important because it marked the defeat of Germany and Hitler along with Nazi party.
• Hitler had signed a non-aggression treaty with Russia in August 1939 A.D. Since he did not have faith in Russia he considered Russia as a vital threat to Nazi Germany.
• Hitler also had imperial designs on the fertile Ukraine Basin and its mines.
• He also wanted to Europeanize the area of the Asian Steppe.
• Due to the above mentioned reasons, Hitler violated the Pact of 1939 and attacked Russia from three sides.
• This led to a battle in Stalingard near Moscow.
• The Germany failed to capture Stalingard due to lack of preparation of German soldiers against heavy rains and frosts in the month of October.
• This led to failure of Hitler’s campaign.
• In all, Hitler exposed the German. Western front to British aerial bonding. Eastern front was exposed to powerful Soviet Army. In this battle, Germany suffered a lot and Soviet hegemony was established over entire Eastern Europe.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 Important Questions History Chapter 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.