The Triangles and its Properties Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 6

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 6 The Triangles and its Properties

The Triangles and its Properties Class 7 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
In ∆ABC, write the following:
(a) Angle opposite to side BC.
(b) Side opposite to ∠ABC.
(c) Vertex opposite to side AC.

Solution:
(a) In ∆ABC, Angle opposite to BC is ∠BAC
(b) Side opposite to ∠ABC is AC
(c) Vertex opposite to side AC is B

Question 2.
Classify the following triangle on the bases of sides

Solution:
(i) PQ = 5 cm, PR = 6 cm and QR = 7 cm
PQ ≠ PR ≠ QR
Thus, ∆PQR is a scalene triangle.
(ii) AB = 4 cm, AC = 4 cm
AB = AC
Thus, ∆ABC is an isosceles triangle.
(iii) MN = 3 cm, ML = 3 cm and NL = 3 cm
MN = ML = NL
Thus, ∆MNL is an equilateral triangle.

Question 3.
In the given figure, name the median and the altitude. Here E is mid point of BC.
Solution
In ∆ABC, we have

AD is the altitude.
AE is the median.

Question 4.
In the given diagrams, find the value of x in each case.

Solution:
(i) x + 45° + 30° = 180° (Angle sum property of a triangle)
⇒ x + 75° – 180°
⇒ x = 180° – 75°
x = 105°
(ii) Here, the given triangle is right angled triangle.
x + 30° = 90°
⇒ x = 90° – 30° = 60°
(iii) x = 60° + 65° (Exterior angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of interior opposite angles)
⇒ x = 125°

Question 5.
Which of the following cannot be the sides of a triangle?
(i) 4.5 cm, 3.5 cm, 6.4 cm
(ii) 2.5 cm, 3.5 cm, 6.0 cm
(iii) 2.5 cm, 4.2 cm, 8 cm
Solution:
(i) Given sides are, 4.5 cm, 3.5 cm, 6.4 cm
Sum of any two sides = 4.5 cm + 3.5 cm = 8 cm
Since 8 cm > 6.4 cm (Triangle inequality)
The given sides form a triangle.
(ii) Given sides are 2.5 cm, 3.5 cm, 6.0 cm
Sum of any two sides = 2.5 cm + 3.5 cm = 6.0 cm
Since 6.0 cm = 6.0 cm
The given sides do not form a triangle.
(iii) 2.5 cm, 4.2 cm, 8 cm
Sum of any two sides = 2.5 cm + 4.2 cm = 6.7 cm
Since 6.7 cm < 8 cm
The given sides do not form a triangle.

Question 6.
In the given figure, find x.

Solution:
In ∆ABC, we have
5x – 60° + 2x + 40° + 3x – 80° = 180° (Angle sum property of a triangle)
⇒ 5x + 2x + 3x – 60° + 40° – 80° = 180°
⇒ 10x – 100° = 180°
⇒ 10x = 180° + 100°
⇒ 10x = 280°
⇒ x = 28°
Thus, x = 28°

Question 7.
One of the equal angles of an isosceles triangle is 50°. Find all the angles of this triangle.
Solution:
Let the third angle be x°.
x + 50° + 50° = 180°
⇒ x° + 100° = 180°
⇒ x° = 180° – 100° = 80°
Thus ∠x = 80°

Question 8.
In ΔABC, AC = BC and ∠C = 110°. Find ∠A and ∠B.

Solution:
In given ΔABC, ∠C = 110°
Let ∠A = ∠B = x° (Angle opposite to equal sides of a triangle are equal)
x + x + 110° = 180°
⇒ 2x + 110° = 180°
⇒ 2x = 180° – 110°
⇒ 2x = 70°
⇒ x = 35°
Thus, ∠A = ∠B = 35°

The Triangles and its Properties Class 7 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 9.
Two sides of a triangle are 4 cm and 7 cm. What can be the length of its third side to make the triangle possible ?
Solution:
Let the length of the third side be x cm.
Condition I: Sum of two sides > the third side
i.e. 4 + 7 > x ⇒ 11 > x ⇒ x < 11
Condition II: The difference of two sides less than the third side.
i.e. 7 – 4 < x ⇒ 3 < x ⇒ x > 3
Hence the possible value of x are 3 < x < 11
i.e. x < 3 < 11

Question 10.
Find whether the following triplets are Pythagorean or not?
(a) (5, 8, 17)
(b) (8, 15, 17)
Solution:
(a) Given triplet: (5, 8, 17)
172 = 289
82 = 64
52 = 25
82 + 52 = 64 + 25 = 89
Since 89 ≠ 289
52 + 82 ≠ 172
Hence (5, 8, 17) is not Pythagorean triplet.

(b) Given triplet: (8, 15, 17)
172 = 289
152 = 225
82 = 64
152 + 82 = 225 + 64 = 289
172 = 152 + 82
Hence (8, 15, 17) is a Pythagorean triplet.

Question 11.
In the given right-angled triangle ABC, ∠B = 90°. Find the value of x.

Solution:
In ΔABC, ∠B = 90°
AB2 + BC2 = AC2 (By Pythagoras property)
(5)2 + (x – 3)2 = (x + 2)2
⇒ 25 + x2 + 9 – 6x = x2 + 4 + 4x
⇒ -6x – 4x = 4 – 9 – 25
⇒ -10x = -30
⇒ x = 3
Hence, the required value of x = 3

Question 12.
AD is the median of a ΔABC, prove that AB + BC + CA > 2AD (HOTS)

Solution:
In ΔABD,
AB + BD > AD …(i)
(Sum of two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side)
Similarly, In ΔADC, we have
AC + DC > AD …(ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we have
AB + BD + AC + DC > 2AD
⇒ AB + (BD + DC) + AC > 2AD
⇒ AB + BC + AC > 2AD
Hence, proved.

Question 13.
The length of the diagonals of a rhombus is 42 cm and 40 cm. Find the perimeter of the rhombus.

Solution:
AC and BD are the diagonals of a rhombus ABCD.
Since the diagonals of a rhombus bisect at right angle.
AC = 40 cm
AO = = 20 cm
BD = 42 cm
OB = = 21 cm
In right angled triangle AOB, we have
AO2 + OB2 = AB2
⇒ 202 + 212 = AB2
⇒ 400 + 441 = AB2
⇒ 841 = AB2
⇒ AB = √841 = 29 cm.
Perimeter of the rhombus = 4 × side = 4 × 29 = 116 cm
Hence, the required perimeter = 116 cm

Question 14.
The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. State whether the triangle is right angled or not.
Solution:
Let the sides of the given triangle be 3x, 4x and 5x units.
For right angled triangle, we have
Square of the longer side = Sum of the square of the other two sides
(5x)2 = (3x)2 + (4x)2
⇒ 25×2 = 9×2 + 16×2
⇒ 25×2 = 25×2
Hence, the given triangle is a right-angled.

Question 15.
A plane flies 320 km due west and then 240 km due north. Find the shortest distance covered by the plane to reach its original position.
Solution:
Here, OA = 320 km
AB = 240 km
OB = ?

Clearly, ∆OBA is right angled triangle
OB2 = OA2 + AB2 (By Pythagoras property)
⇒ OB2 = 3202 + 2402
⇒ OB2 = 102400 + 57600
⇒ OB2 = 160000
⇒ OB = √160000 = 400 km.
Hence the required shortest distance = 400 km.

The Triangles and its Properties Class 7 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinksng Skills (HOTS) Type

Question 16.
In the following figure, find the unknown angles a and b, if l || m.

Solution:
Here, l || m
∠c = 110° (Corresponding angles)
∠c + ∠a = 180° (Linear pair)
⇒ 110° + ∠a = 180°
⇒ ∠a = 180° – 110° = 70°
Now ∠b = 40° + ∠a (Exterior angle of a triangle)
⇒ ∠b = 40° + 70° = 110°
Hence, the values of unknown angles are a = 70° and b = 110°

Question 17.
In figure (i) and (ii), Find the values of a, b and c.

Solution:
(i) In ∆ADC, we have
∠c + 60° + 70° = 180° (Angle sum property)
⇒ ∠c + 130° = 180°
⇒ ∠c = 180° – 130° = 50°
∠c + Zb = 180° (Linear pair)
⇒ 50° + ∠b = 180°
⇒ ∠ b = 180° – 50° = 130°
In ∆ABD, we have
∠a + ∠b + 30° = 180° (Angle sum property)
⇒ ∠a + ∠130° + 30° = 180°
⇒ ∠a + 160° = 180°
⇒ ∠a = 180° – 160° = 20°
Hence, the required values are a = 20°, b = 130° and c = 50°

(ii) In ∆PQS, we have
∠a + 60° + 55° = 180°(Angle sum property)
⇒ ∠a + 115° = 180°
⇒ ∠a = 180° – 115°
⇒ ∠a = 65°
∠a + ∠b = 180° (Linear pair)
⇒ 65° + ∠b = 180°
⇒ ∠b = 180° – 65° = 115°
In ∆PSR, we have
∠b + ∠c + 40° = 180° (Angle sum property)
⇒ 115° + ∠c + 40° = 180°
⇒ ∠c + 155° = 180°
⇒ ∠c = 180° – 155° = 25°
Hence, the required angles are a = 65°, b = 115° and c = 25°

Question 18.
I have three sides. One of my angle measure 15°. Another has a measure of 60°. What kind of a polygon am I? If I am a triangle, than what kind of triangle am I? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
Since I have three sides.
It is a triangle i.e. three sided polygon.
Two angles are 15° and 60°.
Third angle = 180° – (15° + 60°)
= 180° – 75° (Angle sum property)
= 105°
which is greater than 90°.
Hence, it is an obtuse triangle.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths

The post The Triangles and its Properties Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 6 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Total Surface Area of a Cylinder: Let us carry out a small activity. Take a ring. We know that ring is circular in shape. Now place another ring on the first ring and so on. You will see that when you place such rings, the structure that you get is a cylinder, which is three dimensional. Let us learn about the volume of a Cylinder and Total Surface area of a Cylinder in this chapter.

Cylinder

Any solid which has two circular ends along with a curved surface area is said to be a cylinder. It has a curved surface in the middle. The base and the top surface are identical. That means the bases are always parallel and congruent to each other. Cylinder has no vertices.

Total Surface Area of Cylinder

The total surface area of cylinder is the area of the circles plus the area of the round section in the midle. The Surface Area (SA) is found with the formula: SA = 2πr² + 2πrh

Find the Total Surface Area of each figure. Remember, d = 2r. Type your answers in the comment box

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

(vi)

(vii)

(viii)

(ix)

Calculate the total surface area of a cylinder for the given problems and type your answers in the comment box.

Volume of Cylinder

The Volume of Cylinder is the product of the area of the base (B) times the height. The formula for the Volume of the Cylinder is V = B x H. Volume is expressed in cubic units , or units³

Find the Volume of each figure. Remember, d = 2r. Type your answers in the comment box

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

(vi)

(vii)

(viii)

(ix)

Calculate the volume of cylinder for the given problems and type your answers in the comment box.

Maths

The post Total Surface Area of Cylinder, Volume of a Cylinder Formulas, Examples appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Trig Cheat Sheet

Trig Cheat Sheet: Trigonometry is the study of triangles, which contain angles, of course. Get to know some special rules for angles and various other important functions, definitions, and translations. Sines and cosines are two trig functions that factor heavily into any study of trigonometry; they have their own formulas and rules that you’ll want to understand if you plan to study trig for very long.

Definition of the trig functions

Right Triangle Definition

Unit Circle Definition

Domain

Range | Trig Cheat Sheet

Period | Trig Cheat Sheet

Tangent and Cotangent Identities | Trig Identities Cheat Sheet

Reciprocal Identities | Trig Identities Cheat Sheet

Pythagorean Identities

Even/Odd Formulas

Periodic Formulas

Double Angle Formulas

Degree to Radians Formulas

As you study trig, you’ll find occasions when you need to change radians to degrees, or vice versa. A formula for changing from degrees to radians or radians to degrees is:

Half Angle Formulas

Sum and Difference Formulas

Product to Sum Formulas Cheat Sheet

Sum to Product Formulas Cheat Sheet

Cofunction Formulas Cheat Sheet

Unit Circle

Inverse Trig Functions

Many of the formulas used in trigonometry are also found in algebra, calculus and analytic geometry. But trigonometry also has some special formulas usually found just in those discussions. A formula provides you a rule or equation that you can count on to work, every single time. Trigonometry formulas gives a relationship between particular quantities and units. The main trick to using formulas is to know what the different letters represent. In the formulas given here, you have: r (radius); d(diameter or distance); b (base or measure of a side); h (height); a, b, c (measures of sides); x, y (coordinates on a graph); m (slope); M (midpoint); h, k (horizontal and vertical distances from the center); θ (angle theta); and s (arc length). The formulas particular to trigonometry have: sin (sine), cos (cosine), and tan (tangent), although only sin is represented here.

The post Trig Cheat Sheet, Trig Identities, Inverse Trig Functions Cheat Sheet appeared first on Learn CBSE.

India Size and Location Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Geography Chapter 1

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 India Size and Location

India Size and Location Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the longitudinal and latitudinal extension of India?
Answer:
The longitudinal extension is 68°7′ E to 97°25′ E and the latitudinal extension is 8°4′ N to 37°6′ N.

Question 2.
Name the island group of India lying in the Arabian Sea.
Answer:
The Lakshadweep Island.

Question 3.
What is the southernmost latitude of India?
Answer:
Southernmost latitude of India is 8°4′ N.

Question 4.
What is a narrow channel of sea which separates two land masses known as?
Answer:
Strait.

Question 5.
What is the total length of the coastline of the mainland of India including its islands? HOTS
Answer:
Around 7,516.6 kilometres.

Question 6.
Which places in India experience sunrise first and last respectively?
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh experiences sunrise first, and Saurashtra in Gujarat last.

Question 7.
Which longitude represents the Standard Meridian of India?
Answer:
Longitude of 82° 30′ E.

Question 8.
Why has India selected a Standard Meridian of India with an odd value of 82° 30′ E?
Answer:

• Because it is divisible by 7°30′, a standard adopted by almost all the countries of the world.
• It lies almost in the middle of India, and as such, it suits us the most.

Question 9.
How many states does India consist of?
Answer:
29.

Question 10.
How many Union Territories does India consist of?
Answer:
7.

Question 11.
Name the place said to be the situated on three seas. Name the seas also.
Answer:
Kanyakumari. The seas are the Arabian Sea, the Indian Ocean and the Bay of Bengal.

Question 12.
Name the Indian states which share borders with Pakistan.
Answer:
Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan and Gujarat.

Question 13.
Name India’s neighbouring countries in the north-west.
Answer:
Pakistan and Afghanistan.

Question 14.
Which neighbouring country is situated in the south-west of India?
Answer:
Maldives.

Question 15.
Name India’s neighbours on the northern borders.
Answer:
China (Tibet), Nepal and Bhutan.

Question 16.
Which two island countries are India’s southern neighbours?
Answer:
Sri Lanka and Maldives.

Question 17.
Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar separate which two countries?
Answer:
Sri Lanka and Indian

Question 18.
In which year did Indira Point submerge under water due to Tsunami? ,
Answer:
The southernmost point called Indira Point (earlier called Pygmalion Point) got submerged in Tsunami in 2004.

Question 19.
In which island is active volcano found in Andaman and Nicobar islands?
Answer:
Barren island.

Question 20.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie in which direction with respect to the mainland of India?
Answer:
Southeast to the mainland.

Question 21.
What is the time difference between the westernmost and the easternmost tips of India?
Answer:
Two hours.

Question 22.
Name the largest country in the world, and what is India’s position?
Answer:
Russia is the largest country, and India stands seventh in terms of size.

Question 23.
Which neighbouring country is located on the West of India?
Answer:
Pakistan.

Question 24.
Name any two neighbouring countries of India which are lying in the east. HOTS
Answer:
Myanmar and Bangladesh.

Question 25.
Name the two routes by which India is connected with Europe, North America and South America.
Answer:

• The Cape of Good Hope,
• The Suez Canal.

Question 26.
Which countries make the Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka and the Maldives.

Question 27.
Name a country that shares a common boundary with India?
Answer:
Afghanistan.

Question 28.
Name any two states of India that shares its land boundary with Bangladesh.
Answer:
West Bengal and Assam.

Question 29.
Name any two Indian states that share its boundary with Nepal.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh and Assam.

Question 30.
Name any one state that has international border.
Answer:
Gujarat.

Question 31.
What is the position of India in respect of area of the world?
Answer:
7th position.

Question 32.
Name the neighbouring countries that share their boundaries with India.
Answer:
Pakistan, Afghanistan, Mynmar, Banglandesh, China (Tibet), Nepal and Bhutan.

India Size and Location Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the longitudinal extent of India? Mention the degree of longitude for the Standard Meridian. State the importance of Standard Meridian.
Answer:
The longitudinal .extent of India is 68°7’E and 97°25’E.
The degree of longitude of Standard Meridian of India is 82° 30′ E.
According to the International accepted convention, the Standard Meridian of a country must be either a multiple of 7.5 or 15 or it has to pass through some important city. Though 82° 30′ E meridian does not pass through the exact centre of the country, but it is still chosen as the Standard Meridian as it passes through an important city called Mirzapur. It is hours ahead of GMT.

Question 2.
What is latitudinal extent of India? How is the latitudinal spread in India advantageous to her? State two points.
Answer:
The Indian Union is situated between about 8°4′ N and 37°6′ N. This north-south extent is about 3200 km in length.

• The southern part of India gets more heat from the sun than the northern parts.
• The difference between the duration of the day and night is far more in the northern parts than in the southern parts.

Question 3.
Explain the significance of India’s eminent position in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:

• This helps India to establish close contact with west Asia, Africa, Europe from western coast and with south-east and east Asia from the eastern coast.
• The sea routes have contributed in the exchange of ideas and commodities.
• The ideas of Upanishads and Ramayana, Indian numerals and the decimal system could reach to many parts of the world.
• The spices, muslin and other merchandises were taken to other countries.
• Influence of Greek sculpture and styles of dome and minaretes can be seen in our countiy.

Question 4.
Describe the implications of India’s longitudinal extent.
Answer:

• India’s geographical location is favourably important for international trade.
• Due to its central location in the eastern hermisphere, India lies on the major trade routes.
• It has helped in establishing close cultural and commercial contacts with these countries.

Question 5.
Name the major islands groups lying in the Arabian Sea. Explain any two m^jor features of it. .
Answer:
The major island groups lying in the Arabian Sea are the Lakshadweep group. It consists of many small islands located opposite to Kerala coast in the Arabian Sea.
Features:

• It is composed of small coral islands that cover a small area of 32 square kilometres. Kavaratti Island is its administrative headquarters.
• It has great diversity of flora and fauna.
• Lakshadweep consists of 11 islands.
• Most of the area is cultivated with coconut.
• A bird sanctuary is located in Pitti Island which is inhabitated by humans.

Question 6.
In what way the central location of India in the Indian Ocean has been to its advantage?
Answer:
India is a centrally situated country in relation to west Asia, Africa and Europe on the western side and south-east Asia and Australia on the eastern side:

• India is favourably located on the world’s highway of trade and commerce.
• It has helped in establishing close cultural and commercial contacts with these countries.

Question 7.
What is meant by the Indian Standard Time? What is its importance?
Answer:
Indian Standard Time (1ST)-is that which is accepted all over India. We have accepted 82° 3(7 E longitude as the Standard Meridian of India. It was accepted as it lies almost in the middle.
The Indian Standard Time has a great importance:

• It has prevented a lot of confusion and has brought harmony in time throughout the country.
• The local time at each longitude is different. So in order to follow one timing, India has accepted the 82° 30’E as the Standard Meridian of India.

Question 8.
Why is the difference between the durations of day and night hardly felt at Kanyakumari but not so in Kashmir?
Answer:
Kanyakumari is just 8° away from the Equator. As Equator receives the direct sunrays, there would not be hardly any difference between day and night. Whereas, Kashmir is 37° away from the Equator. So, the difference between the duration of day and night is about 5 hrs.

Question 9.
Explain why Ahmedabad and Kolkata are able to see the noon sun exactly overhead in a year but not Delhi. VBQ
Answer:
Ahmedabad has latitude 23°N and Kolkata 22.5°N, while Delhi is at latitude 28°N. This means that the first two cities lie within the Tropic of Cancer. The Tropic of Cancer is the circle of latitude on the earth that marks the apparent position of the sun at the time of the northern solstice. It is also the farthest north latitude at which the sun can be directly overhead. So in Delhi, the sun is never directly overhead.

Question 10.
List six countries of the world bigger than India. Compare the size of India with these countries.
Answer:

• Russia,
• Canada,
• United States of America,
• China,
• Brazil,
• Australia.

Each one of these is two to five times larger than India.

Question 11.
With reference to India, name the following surrounding it:
(i) Mqjor islands,
(ii) Seas, oceans and bays.
Answer:
(i)

• Lakshadweep,
• Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

(ii) Sea → Arabian Sea
Ocean → Indian Ocean Bay → Bay of Bengal

Question 12.
Assess the significance of the central location of India in the Indian Ocean.
Or
“India has an important position on the globe.” Justify by giving three arguments.
Answer:
Central location of India is of great significance because:

• India has a central location between the East and West Asia.
• India is a southward extension of the Asian continent.
• The Trans Indian ocean routes connect the countries of Europe in the West and the countries of East Asia.
• Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean and help India to have contact with West Asia, Africa and Europe from West Coast and with South East and East Asia from Eastern Coast.
• India’s eminent position in Indian Ocean justifies naming of an ocean after it.

India Size and Location Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“India has a long coastline which is advantageous”. Explain. HOTS
Answer:

• India has the longest coastline on the Indian Ocean. This long coastline (7,517 km) has given a tremendous boost to India’s maritime trade. Almost 90% of India’s international trade is carried on through sea.
• India has this long coastline mainly due to the Deccan peninsula extending into the Indian Ocean and dividing it into two water bodies, viz., the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.
• India’s central location at the head of the Indian Ocean and its long coastline have much helped in its interaction through the sea. The sea routes passing through the ocean provide easy connectivity to India with the West and the East.
• India has developed many major ports on its western and the eastern coasts. Some of them, such as Mumbai, Kochi, Vishakhapatnam etc., have become centres of India’s flourishing shipping industry.
• This long coastline on the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal has helped India to establish close maritime contacts in the following ways:
  • With West Asia, Africa and Europe from the western coast.
  • With East Asia and the South-east Asia from the eastern coast.

Question 2.
How is India’s geographical location favourable for international trade?
Answer:

• Due to its central location at the head of the Indian Ocean, countries of East Africa, West Asia, South and South-East Asia, and East Asia could be reached through sea routes.
• Unlike landlocked countries (surrounded by land on all sides), it has an easy access to the outside world. The ocean routes from East and South-East Asia, and Australia to Africa, and Europe pass through the Indian Ocean.
• India is connected with Europe, North America and South America through both the routes-the Cape of Good Hope and the Suez Canal.
• India can also reach Canada and USA through the Strait of Malacca after crossing the Pacific Ocean.
• India is favourably located on the world’s highway of trade and commerce both to the east and the west.

Question 3.
How did India’s contact with the rest of the world contribute in the exchange of ideas and commodities? Explain.
Answer:

• India held ah important position in the ancient world. It had trade relations with many countries. One of the famous land routes was connected to the famous silk route of China.
• These routes contributed in the exchange of ideas and commodities since ancient times.
• The ideas of the Upanishads and the Ramayana, the stories of Panchatantra, the Indian numerals and the decimal system thus could reach many parts of the world. The spices, muslin and other merchandise were taken from India to different countries. On the other hand, the influence of Greek sculpture, and the architectural styles of dome and minarets from West Asia can be seen in different parts of our country.
• India had trade relations with South-East Asian countries like Cambodia, Java, Sumatra, Bali, Sri Lanka, Burma and Siam.
• From the time of Kanishka, Indian traders started going to China, Afghanistan and Central Asian countries.
• During the Medieval period, India came in close contact with many foreign lands such as the Arabs, the Turks, the Mongols, the Chinese and the Europeans.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post India Size and Location Class 9 Important Questions Geography Chapter 1 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Physical Features of India Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Geography Chapter 2

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India

Physical Features of India Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which are the two main causes of rock displacement?
Answer:
Folding, faulting and volcanic activity.

Question 2.
Mention the three types of plate movements.
Answer:

• Convergent,
• Divergent,
• Transform.

Question 3.
Name any four factors which are responsible for creating and modifying the relief to its present form.
Answer:

• Weathering,
• Erosion,
• Deposition,
• Geological activities like earthquake, volcanic eruption etc.

Question 4.
What is convergent boundary?
Answer:
It is a boundary which is formed due to the movement of plates towards each other.

Question 5.
What is transformed boundary?
Answer:
It is a boundary which is formed when two plates move horizontally passing each other.

Question 6.
What is divergent boundary?
Answer:
It is a boundary which is formed when two plates move away from each other.

Question 7.
What was the Gondwanaland?
Answer:
It was an ancient super continent located in southern hemisphere which included the present day South America, Africa, Australia and Antarctica.

Question 8.
Which continents of today were part of the Gondwanaland?
Answer:

• South America,
• Africa,
• Australia,
• Asia.

Question 9.
What is Khadar?
Answer:
The younger alluvium of the flood plains is known as the Khadar.

Question 10.
Name some of the depositional features formed by the rivers in the plain.
Answer:
Flood plains, levees, channel bars and bluffs.

Question 11.
What is distributary?
Answer:
The rivers in their lower course split into numerous channels due to the deposition of silt. These channels are known as distributries. For example, Hoogly, Meghna is a distributary of river Ganga.

Question 12.
What is meant by doab?
Answer:
The land between two rivers is locally known as the doab.

Question 13.
What is the Terai Zone?
Answer:
It is a zone next to the Bhabar zone which is wet and marshy. It has a thick forest cover and a variety of wildlife.

Question 14.
What is a Bhangar? HOTS
Answer:
The older alluvium soil of the northern plains is called the Bhangar.

Question 15.
Name the part of the Himalayas lying between the Indus and Satluj rivers.
Answer:
Punjab Himalayas lies between the Indus and Su’tluj rivers. From west to east, this is also known as Kashmir Himalaya and Himachal Himalaya respectively.

Question 16.
Name the most continuous range of Himalayas consisting of the lofty peaks.
Answer:
Himadri or Greater or Inner Himalayas.

Question 17.
Name the mountain range which bounds Central Highlands on the north west.
Answer:
Aravalli Hills.

Question 18.
How long are east-west distances covered by the Himalayas?
Answer:
2,400 km.

Question 19.
Which river marks the easternmost boundary of the Himalayas?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra.

Question 20.
Name the part of the Himalayas lying between Teesta and Dihang rivers.
Answer:
Assam Himalayas.

Question 21.
Which part of Himalayas is located between Kali and Satluj rivers? HOTS
Answer:
Kumaon Himalayas.

Question 22.
Which is the most important and longest mountain range of Himachal Himalaya?
Answer:
The Pir Panjal range forms the longest and the most important range.

Question 23.
Name the three parallel ranges of the Himalayas and give their other names.
Answer:

• The Himadri (Greater Himalayas),
• The Himachal (Lesser Himalayas),
• The Shiwaliks (Outer Himalayas).

Question 24.
Why are the Himalayas called the young fold mountains?
Answer:
The Himalayas are not very old, they are of recent birth. So they are called the young fold mountains.

Question 25.
Which is the highest peak of India?
Answer:
Kanchenjunga (8,598 m).

Question 26.
Which is the northernmost range of Himalayas?
Answer:
The Himadri.

Question 27.
Which is the outermost range of Himalayas?
Answer:
The Shiwalik.

Question 28.
Which is the highest peak of the world? Where is it situated?
Answer:
Mount Everest (8848 m) located in Nepal is the highest peak in the world.

Question 29.
Which is the highest peak of the Deccan Plateau?
Answer:
The Anaimudi hill in Kerala.

Question 30.
How is the northern plain divided on the basis of the differences in the relief?
Answer:

• Bhabhar,
• Terai,
• Bhangar,
• Khadar.

Question 31.
Name some hill stations of the Himachal range.
Answer:
Mussoorie, Chakrata, Nainital, Ranikhet and Almora.

Question 32.
In which hill does the Narmada river rise?
Answer:
Amarkantak hills in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 33.
In which state Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills are located?
Answer:
Meghalaya.

Question 34.
Name the Himalayan range lying between Himadri and Shiwaliks.
Answer:
Himachal or lesser Himalayans.

Question 35.
Name two famous valleys in the state of Himachal Pradesh.
Answer:
Kullu and Kangra.

Question 36.
What is the northern and southern extension of the western coast called?
Answer:
Northern → Konkan coast, Southern → Malabar coast.

Question 37.
Which plateau lies between the Aravalli and the Vindhya ranges? HOTS
Answer:
The Malwa Plateau.

Question 38.
Name some of the important passes of the Himalayas from west to east.
Answer:
Shipkila, Nathula and Bomdila.

Question 39.
What are Duns?
Answer:
These are broad valleys between Himachal and the Shiwalik ranges.

Question 40.
What are duns made up of? Give an example of the duns.
Answer:
Duns are made up of gravel and alluvial soil. The Dehradun valley is an example of duns.

Question 41.
Name any two hills which comprise the ‘PurvanchaT.
Answer:
The Patkai, Naga, Manipur and the Mizo hills, (any two)

Question 42.
Why are the Northern Plains primarily an agricultural belt?
Answer:
The Northern Plains have a thick soil cover composed of fine silt or alluvium brought down by the Himalayan rivers. This alluvial soil is very fertile. Hence, this is primarily an agricultural belt.

Question 43.
Name the major rivers of North India.
Answer:
The Indus, the Sutlej, the Ganga, the Yamuna, the Kosi, the Teesta and ; the Brahmaputra are the major rivers of North India.

Question 44.
What is the width of the northern plains?
Answer:
Its width varies from 240 to 320 kilometres. It gets narrower towards the east.

Question 45.
By which name, the coastal plain is known as in:
(i) Northern part
(ii) Southern part
Answer:
(i) Nortern part — Northern Circar.
(ii) Southern part — Coromandal Coast.

Question 46.
What is ‘barchan’?
Answer:
It is crest shaped sand dune with cusps of the crescent pointing downward.

Question 47.
Mention any two characteristics of the Aravalli Hills.
Answer:

• The Aravalli Hills are eroded hills.
• They extend from Gujarat to Delhi in a southwest — northeast direction.

Question 48.
What is the local name of the Western Ghats in:
(i) Maharashtra and Karnataka.
(ii) Along Kerala-Tamil Nadu border.
(iii) Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(i) Sahyadri,
(ii) Anaimalai and Cardamom hills,
(iii) Nilgiri.

Question 49.
Name any two peaks of the Western GhaEST
Answer:

• Anaimudi (2,695 m),
• Doda Betta (2,637 m).

Question 50.
What are the two divisions of Peninsular Plateau?
Answer:
The Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau.

Question 51.
Which physical feature marks the Western and the Eastern edges of the Deccan Plateau?
Answer:
The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.

Question 52.
Which type of rainfall is received by the Western Ghats?
Answer:
Orographic rain.

Question 53.
Where are the Lakshadweep Islands situated?
Answer:
In the Arabian Sea.

Question 54.
Name the island group of India having a coral origin.
Answer:
The Lakshadweep Islands.

Question 55.
What are Coral polyps?
Answer:
Coral polyps are short-lived microscopic organisms which live in colonies.

Question 56.
Where are the Andaman Islands situated?
Answer:
In the Bay of Bengal.

Physical Features of India Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the theory of Plate Tectonics. HOTS
Answer:
According to this theory, the crust of the earth has been formed out of seven major and some minor plates. The movement of these plates led to folding, faulting and volcanic activity. These are classified in three categories:

• Convergent Boundary: When plates come .towards each other, also called folding movement.
• Divergent Boundary: When plates move away from each other, also called faulting movement.
• Transform Boundary: In the event of coming together, they may collide or may slide under each other.

Question 2.
What is the difference between a tributary and a distributary?
Answer:
A Tributary: A tributary is that river which joins the main river, and increases the volume of water. It is generally found in the upper or the middle course of a river. For example, the Yamuna is the main tributary of the river Ganga.

A Distributary: It is that river which originates from a main river. It is formed near the river’s mouth before it falls into the sea. It is found in the lower course of the river. For example, the Hooghly is the main distributary of the Ganga.

Question 3.
Name the three major divisions of Himalayas from the north to south.
Answer:
The three major divisions of Himalayas from north to south are:

• The northernmost range which is known as the Great Himalayas or Inner Himalayas or Himadri. It is the most continuous range consisting of the loftiest peaks. It has an average height of 6000 meters. It consists of all the prominent Himalayan peaks.
• The southern range of Himadri which is known the Himachal or the lesser Himalayas lies to the South of Himadri. It forms the most rugged mountain system. The ranges are mainly composed of highly compressed and altered rocks. The altitude varies between 3700 and 4500 meters and its average width is 50 kms.
• The outermost range of the Himalayas is known as Shiwaliks. Its height varies between 900 meters and 1100 meters. This range is composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the main Himalayan ranges. These are also called foothill ranges. They represent the southernmost divison of Himalaya.

Question 4.
Name the southernmost range of Himalaya. Mention any four features of this range.
Answer:
The southernmost range of Himalayas is called Shiwaliks.
Features:

• The outermost range of the Himalayas is called the Outer Himalayas or Shiwaliks.
• They extend over a width of 10-15 km.
• Their altitude varies between 900-1100 metres.
• They are discontinuous ranges and are composed of unconsolidated sediments, gravel and alluvium brought down by the rivers from main Himalayan ranges located farther north.
• Longitudinal valleys known as Duns lie between the lesser Himalayas and Shiwaliks. e.g., Dehradun, Kote Dun, Path Dun. (any four)

Question 5.
How is Himadri range different from Himachal range? Mention any three differences.
Answer:

Question 6.
Differentiate between Western Himalayas and Eastern Himalayas.
Answer:

Question 7.
Write about the main features of the Shiwaliks.
Answer:

• It is the outermost range of the Himalayas.
• The average altitude of the Shiwalik range varies between 900 m and 1,100 m above the sea level, and extends over a width of about 10-50 km.
• This range is made of unconsolidated material such as mud, silt and soft rocks and is prone to earthquakes and landslides.
• Some narrow valleys are found between the Shiwaliks and the Himachal. They are called ‘duns’. For example, Dehradun, is situated in one such valley.

Question 8.
How did the northern plains come to existence? Write two points briefly. Also mention two features of these plains.
Answer:
(i) The northern plains have been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems, i.e., the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
(ii) The northern plain is formed of the alluvial soil brought by these rivers.
Features:

• These plains are very fertile.
• These are densely polulated.

Question 9.
Why are Northern Plains agriculturally productive parts of India? Explain.
Answer:

• The deposition of alluvium in a vast basin lying at the foothills of the Himalaya over millions of years, formed this fertile plain. It spreads over an area of 7 lakh sQuestion km.
• The plain being about 2400 km. long and 240 to 320 km. broad, is a densely populated physiographic division.
• With a rich soil cover combined with adequate water supply and favourable climate, it is agriculturally a very productive part of India.

Question 10.
Which three river systems form the northern plains of India? Mention main features.
Answer:
The northern plain has been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems—the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
Features:

• The river Indus and its tributaries form the western part of the northern plain which is referred to as the Punjab plains. The larger part of this plain lies in Pakistan.
• The Ganga plain extends between Ghaggar and Teesta rivers. It spreads over the states of North India; Haryana, Delhi, U.P., Bihar, partly Jharkhand and West Bengal.
• The Brahmaputra plain particularly lies mainly in Assam. It forms the largest riverine islands in the world.

Question 11.
State any three differences between Himadri range and Shiwalik range.
Answer:

Question 12.
What is a delta? Name some deltas of the Indian sub-continent.
Answer:
The triangular deposition of sediments at the mouth of a river is known as a delta.

• The Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta.
• The Mahanadi Delta.
• The Godavari Delta.
• The Krishna Delta.
• The Kaveri Delta.

Question 13.
What are Purvanchal hills? Mention any two features of these hills.
Answer:
Mountains along the eastern boundary of India are called the Purvanchal. There are medium heights. Some of the important mountains of Purvanchal are:

• The Patkoi Bum and the Naga Hills in the North.
• The Mizo Hills in the South.
• The Jaintia, the Khasi and the Garo hills from east to west.

Features:

• They comprise of sandstone and sediments.
• They are covered with dense forests.
• They comprise of Patkoi Hills, Manipur hills etc. (any two)

Question 14.
Distinguish between Central highlands and Deccan Plateau on the basis of rivers that flow and hill ranges.
Answer:

Question 15.
Give an account of the Deccan Plateau.
Answer:
An account of Deccan Plateau of India:

• It is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada. The Satpura range flanks its broad base in the north while the Mahadev forms its eastern extensions.
• The Deccan Plateau is higher in the west and slopes gently eastwards.
• An extension of the Plateau is also visible in the north-east. It is locally known as the Meghalaya, Karbi Anglong Plateau and North Cachar Hills.
• It is separated by a fault from the Chhotanagpur Plateau. Three prominent hill ranges form the West to East are the Garo, the Khasi and the Jaintia Hills. The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the Western and Eastern edges of the Deccan Plateau respectively. The Western Ghats lie parallel to the western coast and Eastern Ghats, lie parallel to the eastern coast.

Question 16.
Compare the main features of the Western Coastal Plain and Eastern Coastal Plain.
Answer:

Question 17.
Name the four major states which are the parts of the eastern coastal plains. Mention the two divisions of these coastal plains.
Answer:
The plains extend from the state of Tamil Nadu in the southern part to the state of West Bengal in the northern region of India. Other states include Andhra Pradesh and Odisha. The three main divisions into which the eastern coastal plains can be divided are Utkal Plains, Tamil Nadu Plains and the Andhra Plains.
(i) Utkal Plains: This is the coastal stretch of the state of Odisha and consists of the Mahanadi delta. The famous feature of the region is the Chilka Lake lying on the south of the Mahanadi Delta.

(ii) Tamil Nadu Plains: The plains extend from the Pulicat Lake to Kanyakumari. The prominent feature of the region is the Kaveri delta, the fertile soil and irrigational facilities of which make it a granary in South India.

(iii) Andhra Plains: The plains extend from the Utkal Plains on the North to Pulicat Lake in the south. The delta formation by the rivers Kaveri and Godavari happens to be the important feature of the region.

Question 18.
Describe any three features of coastal plains of India.
Answer:

•  The Peninsular plateau is flanked by a strip of narrow coastal strips running along the Arabian Sea on the west and the Bay of Bengal on the east.
• The western coast, sandwiched between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea, is a narrow plain. It consists of three sections. The northern part of the coast is called the Konkan (Mumbai-Goa), the central stretch is called the Kannad Plain while the southern stretch is referred to as the Malabar coast.
• The plains along the Bay of Bengal are wide and level.
• In the northern part, it is referred to as the Northern Gircar, while the southern part is known as the Coromandel Coast.
• Large rivers such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri have formed extensive delta on this coast. Lake Chilka is an important feature along the eastern coast.

Question 19.
Name two island groups possessed by India. Mention one feature of each.
Answer:

• The Andaman and Nicobar Islands: This group of island is composed of small coral islands.
• Lakshadweep Islands: These are bigger in size and are more numerous and scattered.

Question 20.
Write a note on corals.
Answer:

• Corals are small, sedentary marine animals with a calcareous homy skeleton.
• These thrive in warm shallow water and grow into large colonies called coral reefs.
• They secrete hard rock like substance. The coral secretion and their skeletons form coral deposits in the form of reefs.
• They are mainly of three kinds: barrier reef, fringing reef and atolls.
• The Great Barrier Reef of Australia and Lakshadweep Islands are a good example of the first kind of coral reefs.

Question 21.
Explain the formation of the Peninsular Plateau. Write any four of its distinct features.
Answer:
The Peninsular Plateau was formed due to the breaking and drifting of the Gondwana land. It is a tableland composed of the old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks.

• It has broad and shallow hills, valleys and rounded hills.
• It consists of the two broad divisions namely, the Central Highland and Deccan Plateau.
• It has black soil area known as Deccan Trap which is of volcanic origin.
• The flow of rivers is westward.

Physical Features of India Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“The land of India displays great physical variations”. Justify this statement with five examples. HOTS
Answer:
Physical variations of land of India are:

• Geologically, the Peninsular Plateau constitutes one of the ancient landmasses on the earth’s surface. It was supposed to be one of the most stable land blocks.
• The Himalayas and the Northern Plains are the most recent landforms.
• From the yiew point of geology, Himalayan Mountains form an unstable zone.
• The whole mountain system of Himalaya represents a very youthful topography with high peaks, deep valleys and fast flowing rivers.
• The Northern Plains are formed of alluvial deposits.
• The Peninsular Plateau is composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks with gently rising hills and wide valleys, (any five)

Question 2.
“Each physiographic region of India complements the other and makes the country richer in its natural resources.” Justify this statement with five examples.
Or
‘The diverse physical features of India are of immense value’.
Justify the statement by giving suitable examples.
Answer:
Importance of diverse physical features of India is as follows:

• The northern mountains are the major sources of water and forest wealth.
• The northern plains are the granaries of the country. They provide the base for early civilisations.
• The plateau is a storehouse of minerals which has played a crucial role in the industrialisation of the country.
• The coastal region and island groups provide sites for fishing and port activities.
• The deserts are the storehouse of solar energy.

Question 3.
Explain the three types of plates and write the effects of movements of plates.
Answer:
The plate movements are classified into three types:

• Some plates come towards each other and form convergent boundaries.
• Some plates move away from each other and form divergent boundary.
• At times, they may also move horizontally pass each other and form transform boundary.

When two plates come together, they are known as convergent plates. They are also known as constructive plates. When two plates move far away from each other, they are known as divergent plates. When two plates coming towards each other collide or burst pass, they are known as transform plate. The movement of plates causes volcanic eruptions, earthquakes, formation of mountains etc.

Question 4.
Distinguish between Bhabhar and Terai.
Answer:

Question 5.
Describe any five features of northern plains of India.
Answer:
Features of northern plains of India are:
(i) The northern plains have been formed from the alluvium deposited by the mountain rivers.
(ii) They are located between the Himalayan rivers in the north and the Peninsular Plateau in the south.
(iii) They turned the soil on the surfaced land fertile for growing a rich harvest of variety of crops. This led to the development of the Indus river valley civilization.
(iv) They are made up of deposits of alluvium and cover an area of 7 lakh sQuestion km.
(v) They are densely populated physiographic division of India and are believed to be highly productive in terms of agriculture.
(vi) The North Indian plains have the Indus river system in the west and the Ganga, Brahmaputra river system in the East.
(vii) The first include Jhelum, Chenab, Rabi, Beas. The Indus flows into the Arabian Sea.
The second includes Ganga-Brahmaputra which combines with Meghna at the point when it drains into the Bay of Bengal. They form the world’s largest and fastest growing delta.
On the basis of difference of relief, they are divided into four parts—Bhabhar, Terai, Bhangar and Khadar.
(viii) The northern plain is divided into three sections— Punjab plain, Ganga plain and Brahmaputra plain. The Ganga plain has diverse relief features. It has four belts:

• Bhabhar is a belt of pebbles extending from 8-16 kms in width in which stream disappears.
• Terai is a wet, swampy, marshy region with thick forests and wildlife.
• Bhangar is a terrace-like feature made of old alluvium. It contains calcareous deposits called Kankar.
• Khadar is the flood plain which renewed everywhere and is very fertile.

Question 6.
Which is the oldest land mass of India? Name its two hroad divisions and explain any three features of each.
Answer:
The Great Peninsular Plateau lies to the south of the great plains and is , the oldest land mass of India. It is triangular in shape. The river
Narmada divides it into two parts:

• The Cental Highlands and
• The Deccan Plateau.

The Central Highlands:

• It is made up of hard igneous and metamorphic rocks.
• It comprises the Malwa Plateau, the small plateau of Bundelkhand and the Chhota Nagpur Plateau while the Western Ghats extend to the west of the Deccan Plateau.
• Chambal, Sind and Betwa are three important rivers which flow through the Central Highlands.
• It has been’drained by tributaries of Yamuna and Ganga.
• Bundelkhand in southern UP and Baghelkhand in northern Madhya Pradesh.

The Deccan Plateau:

• It is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of river Narmada.
• It is higher in the west and slopes gendy eastwards.
• It is the largest unit of the Peninsular Plateau of India.
• Satpura range, Mahadev hills, Maikal range covers northern edge.
• It is the oldest block made up of igneous and metamorphic rocks.

Question 7.
Describe any five features of the Central highlands of India.
Answer:
Features of Central Highlands:

• The part of the Peninsular Plateau lying to the north of the Narmada river covering major area of the Malwa Plateau is known as the Central Highland.
• The Vindhyan range is bounded by the Central Highland on the south and the Aravallis on the northwest. The further westward extension gradually merges with the sandy and rocky desert of Rajasthan.
• The flow of the rivers draining this region, namely Chambal, the Sind, the Betwa and Ken is from southwest to northeast, thus indicating the slope.
• The Central Highlands are wider in the West but narrower in the East.
• The eastward extensions of this plateau are locally known as the Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand.

Question 8.
Describe the features of Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats in reference to height, slope, continuity, rivers and vegetation.
Answer:

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post Physical Features of India Class 9 Important Questions Geography Chapter 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Drainage Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Geography Chapter 3

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Drainage

Drainage Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a drainage?
Answer:
A system of flowing water from the higher level to the lower level.

Question 2.
What is the area drained by a single river system called?
Answer:
Drainage basin.

Question 3.
What are the different patterns formed by the streams?
Answer:

• Dendritic,
• Trellis,
• Radial.

Question 4.
Name the two main drainage basins.
Answer:

• The Indus Basin,
• The Ganga-Brahmaputra Basin.

Question 5.
Which type of drainage pattern does an area have where hard and soft rocks exist parallel to each other?
Answer:
Trellis pattern.

Question 6.
What is a drainage river basin?
Answer:
The area drained by a single river system is called a river basin or a drainage basin.

Question 7.
What is meant by watershed or a water divide?
Answer:
The upland or a mountain which separates two adjoining drainage basins is known as a watershed or a water divide, e.g., Ambala.

Question 8.
On what does the stream within a drainage basin depend?
Answer:

• Relief,
• Geological structure,
• Climatic conditions of the area.

Question 9.
Which is the main water divide in southern India?
Answer:
Western Ghats.

Question 10.
Zaskar and Nubra are important tributaries of which river?
Answer:
Indus river.

Question 11.
Name the three main Himalayan river systems.
Answer:

• The Indus River System ,
• The Ganga River System,
• The Brahmaputra River System.

Question 12.
What is a gorge? HOTS
Answer:
A deep narrow opening formed by the river in the upper course, e.g., the gorge formed by the river Indus.

Question 13.
Name three depositional features formed by the Himalayan rivers.
Answer:

• Flood plains,
• River cliffs,
• Levee.

Question 14.
Name any four depositional features of the Himalayan rivers in their middle and lower course.
Answer:

• Meanders,
• Oxbow lakes,
• Delta,
• Flood plains.

Question 15.
Where does the river Indus rise?
Answer:
In Tibet, near the Mansarovar lake.

Question 16.
Name the tributaries of river Indus.
Answer:
The Zaskar, the Shyok, the Nubra and the Hunza.

Question 17.
Name the two main groups into which the river systems of India are classified.
Answer:

• The Himalayan rivers,
• The Peninsular rivers.

Question 18.
Why are the Himalayan rivers perennial?
Answer:

• Most of the Himalayan rivers originate from the glaciers.
• They get water from the rainfall as well as from the glaciers.

Question 19.
Name the city located on the water divide between the Indus and the Ganga river systems.
Answer:
Ambala.

Question 20.
Which states are benefited by the Indus system?
Answer:
Punjab, Haryana and western parts of Rajasthan.

Question 21.
What is the Indus water treaty?
Answer:
It is a treaty signed between India and Pakistan. According to this treaty, India can use only 20% of the total water carried by the Indus river system.

Question 22.
Name the plan which was launched to reduce pollution in the river Ganga.
Answer:
The Ganga Action Plan.

Question 23.
Name any two tributaries of Ganga which rise in the Nepal Himalayas.
Answer:
The Ghaghara and Kosi.

Question 24.
Which is the northernmost point of the Ganga Delta?
Answer:
The Ganga flows eastwards til Farakka in West Bengal. This is the northernmost point of the Ganga delta.

Question 25.
Which is the largest river basin in India?
Answer:
The Ganga Basin.

Question 26.
What is the length of the Ganga?
Answer:
About 2500 km.

Question 27.
Name two headstreams of the Ganga. Where do they unite?
Answer:

• Bhagirathi,
• Alaknanda.

They meet at Devprayag.

Question 28.
Name the city at which the Ganga enters the plains from the Himalayas.
Answer:
Haridwar.

Question 29.
Name the tributaries of river Ganga which enter the northern plains from Nepal.
Answer:
Ghaghara, Gandak and Kosi.

Question 30.
Name the two main right bank tributaries of the Ganga.
Answer:
The Yamuna and the Son.

Question 31.
What is the major concern of the Ganga Action Plan?
Answer:
Rising pollution in the Ganga is the major concern of the Ganga Action Plan.

Question 32.
What is the name of the Brahmaputra river in Tibet?
Answer:
Tsangpo.

Question 33.
From where does the river Brahmaputra arise?
Answer:
In Tibet east of Mansarover lake.

Question 34.
What are perennial rivers?
Answer:
The rivers which have water throughout the year are called the perennial rivers.

Question 35.
Which is the largest Peninsular river? Where does it originate from?
Answer:
Godavari, it arises from the Nasik district of Maharashtra.

Question 36.
Name any two Peninsular rivers which flow through the rift valley.
Answer:
The Narmada and the Tapti.

Question 37.
Which is the main watershed in Peninsular India?
Answer:
The main watershed in Peninsular India is formed by the Western Ghats.

Question 38.
Name the major rivers of the Peninsular India.
Answer:
The Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri.

Question 39.
Name any two small river basins of the peninsular region.
Answer:

• The Pennar, and
• The Mahi.

Question 40.
Name two large rivers of India which flow into the Arabian Sea.
Answer:
The Narmada apd the Tapti.

Question 41.
Which type of drainage pattern is made by Narmada river?
Answer:
Trellis.

Question 42.
What is the msyor reason for the nonperennial nature of the peninsular rivers?
Answer:
Rainfall is the only source of water for these rivers.

Question 43.
From where does the Narmada river rise?
Answer:
Near Amarkantak, in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 44.
In which hills does the Tapi river rise?
Answer:
Satpura ranges.

Question 45.
From where does the Tapti river arise?
Answer:
In the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh.

Question 46.
Name the states through which the Tapti river flows.
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra.

Question 47.
In which state does the largest part of the Godavari basin lie?
Answer:
Maharashtra.

Question 48.
Which river is known as Dakshin Ganga?
Answer:
Godavari.

Question 49.
Name the tributaries of Godavari river.
Answer:
The Purna, the Wardha, the Pranhita, the Manjra, the Wainganga and the Pehganga.

Question 50.
Why is the Godavari river called the Vridha Ganga or the Dakshin Ganga?
Answer:
It is because of its large size and the huge extent.

Question 51.
Name the tributaries of Krishna.
Answer:
The Tungabhadra, the Koyna, the Ghatprabha, the Musi and the Bhima.

Question 52.
What is the source of river Yamuna?
Answer:
Yamunotri glacier in the Himalayas.

Question 53.
Which city is located at the confluence of the Yamuna and the Ganga?
Answer:
Allahabad.

Question 54.
Name the five rivers of Punjab from which the water falls into the Indus.
Answer:
The Sutlej, the Beas, the Ravi, the Chenab and the Jhelum.

Question 55.
What is a canyon?
Answer:
It is a deep gorge with steep sides containing many streams, e.g., the Grand Canyon of the Colorado river.

Question 56.
Where are most of the fresh water lakes located?
Answer:
In the Himalayan region.

Question 57.
Which is the largest natural freshwater lake of India? HOTS
Answer:
The Wular lake in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 58.
Name a lake which has been formed due to tectonic activities.
Answer:
The Wular lake.

Question 59.
Name two salt water lakes on the eastern coast of India.
Answer:

• The Chilika Lake,
• The Pulicat Lake.

Question 60.
Write two causes responsible for the increase in demand of water.
Answer:

• Growing population,
• Urbanisation.

Question 61.
Write any two uses of the river water.
Answer:
River water is used for farming, drinking, domestic and industrial uses.

Question 62.
Write any two causes of pollution of water of the Ganga river.
Answer:

• Disposal of raw sewage and industrial wastes from towns and cities.
• Reduction in water flow due to abstraction of water for irrigation from the Ganga through canals.

Drainage Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe any three features of Himalayan rivers.
Answer:
Features of the Himalayan Rivers:

• They are perennial in nature.
• They have large basins.
• They perform intensive erosion activity in their upper course and carry huge load of silt and sand.

Question 2.
Define a river system and describe two characteristics of river Indus.
Answer:
A river along with its tributaries is called a river system.
Characteristics of River Indus:

• River Indus rises in Tibet near Mansarovar lake.
• Its total length is 2,900 km and is one of the longest rivers of the world.
• Majority flows through Pakistan and help in agricultural activities.
• The main tributaries of Indus are Nubra, Hunza, Sulley, Beas, Ravi, Chenab, Jhelum. (any two)

Question 3.
Write a short note on the Brahmaputra river system.
Or
Describe the three main features of river Brahmaputra.
Answer:

• The Brahmaputra originates in Tibet where it is known as Tsangpo.
• It flows eastwards parallel to the Himalayas, but it takes a U-tum around the Namcha Barwa and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh.
• It is responsible for creating a havoc of floods in Assam and Bangladesh.
• This river receives less volume of water and has less silt in Tibetan part, but it carries a large volume of water and silt in India.
• It has a braided channel in most of its length in Assam with a few large islands within the channel.

Question 4.
Describe any three features of Ganga-Brahmaputra delta.
Or
Describe the features of the Ganga plain.
Answer:

• The Sundarban Delta derived its name from the Sundari tree which grows well in marshland.
• It is formed by the rivers Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
• It is the world’s largest and fastest growing delta.
• It is also the home of Royal Bengal Tiger.

Question 5.
Why do the Himalayan rivers get flooded every year? What are its advantages?
Answer:

• The Himalayan rivers receive water from the melted snow from the lofty mountains as well as from rain.
• During monsoons, due to heavy rainfall, these rivers get flooded every year.

Advantages:

• The Himalayan rivers flood parts of the northern plains enfiching the soil for the extensive agricultural lands.
• Various food crops and cash crops are grown in these fertile lands.

Question 6.
What progress has been made in the Ganga Action Plan?
Answer:

• Sixty-nine schemes have been completed with positive results.
• Trees have been planted in badly eroded portions.
• Check dams have been repaired in the upper reaches of the river.
• Interception and diversion of several major drains carrying sewage and industrial wastes to the river in some cities like Varanasi, Kanpur, Patna have reduced the pollution level.
• Turtles and the Gangetic dolphins which had disappeared for several years have now reappeared in Varanasi and other places.

Question 7.
Why are most of the Peninsular rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal? Give reasons. Name the two rivers draining into the Arabian Sea.
Answer:
(i)
(a) The main water divide in Peninsular India is formed by the Western Ghats, which runs from north to south close to the western coast..
(b) The Deccan Plateau is higher in the west and slopes gently eastwards.
Thus, most of the peninsular rivers such as Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri flow eastwards and drain into the Bay of Bengal.
(ii) The river Narmada and river Tapi drain into the Arabian Sea.

Question 8.
Which two rivers of Peninsular India form estuaries? Name the states in which these rivers drain the water.
Answer:

• The river Narmada and the Tapi form estuaries.
• The Narmada basin covers parts of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.
• The Tapi basin covers parts of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra.

Question 9.
Why are Peninsular rivers seasonal in nature? Give any three reasons.
Answer:

• The flow of Peninsular rivers is dependent on rainfall.
• The Peninsular rivers have shorter and shallower courses as compared to their Himalayan counterparts.
• The tributaries are very short and less in number and bring quite less amount of water which hardly increases the amount of water of the main river. Therefore, during the dry season, even the large rivers have reduced flow of water in their channels.

Question 10.
Which two peninsular rivers flow westward? Mention one similarity and one difference between these two rivers.
Answer:
Narmada and Tapi.
Similarity:

• These rivers flow through rift valley. .
• The tributaries of these rivers are small in size.

Difference:

• Tapi is the second largest river of Peninsular India and Narmada is the fifth largest river.
• Narmada river forms an estuary before entering into the Gulf of Khambhat. On the other hand Tapi does not form an estuary.

Question 11.
Describe the main features of Narmada Basin.
Answer:

• All the tributaries of the Narmada are very short and most of these join the mainstreams at right angle.
• The river forms an estuary before entering into the Gulf of Khambhat.
• The river Narmada rises in the Amarkantak hills and flows towards the west in a rift valley formed due to faulting.

Question 12.
Describe the main features of Tapi Basin.
Answer:

• It is the second largest river of the peninsular, rises in the Satpura ranges, in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh.
• It also flows in a rift valley parallel to the Narmada but it is much shorter in length.
•  Its basin covers parts of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra.

Question 13.
Describe any three important features of the Krishna Basin.
Answer:

• The river Krishna rises from a spring near Mahabaleshwar. It flows for about 1400 kms.
• The Tungabhadra, the Koyana, the Ghatprabha, the Musi and the Bhima are some of its tributaries.
• Its drainage basin is shared by Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 14.
Why is the Godavari river also known as ‘Dakshin Ganga’? HOTS
Answer:

• The Godavari is the largest peninsular river.
• Its drainage basin is also the largest among the peninsular rivers. The basin covers parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
• The Godavari is joined by a number of tributaries such as the Purna, the Wardha, the Pranhita, the Manjra, the Wainganga and the Penganga.
• Because of its length and the area it covers, it is also known as the ‘Dakshin Ganga’.

Question 15.
Describe any three important features of the Mahanadi Basin.
Answer:

• The Mahanadi rises in the highlands of Chhattisgarh.
• It flows through Odisha to reach the Bay of Bengal. The length of the river is about 860 kms.
• Its drainage basin is shared by Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha.

Question 16.
Describe any three important features of the Kaveri Basin.
Answer:

• The Kaveri rises in the Brahmagri range of the Western Ghats and it reaches the Bay of Bengal in south of Cuddalore, in Tamil Nadu.
• Its main tributaries are Amravati, Bhavani, Hemavati and Kabini.
• Its basin drains parts of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

Question 17.
Mention any three similarities between the Himalayan rivers and Peninsular rivers.
Answer:

• Both the river systems form delta.
• Himalayan and Peninsular rivers both have their large drainage basins.
• The rivers of both the regions are joined by several tributaries which increase the volume of water and silt of the main river. For example,
  Himalayan River: The tributaries of river Ganga are Yamuna, Kosi, Gandak etc.
  Peninsular River: The tributaries of river Godavari are the Purna, the Wardha, the Pranhita, the Manjra, the Wainganga and the Penganga.

Question 18.
Why rivers are regarded as the lifelines of human civilization?
Answer:
Rivers are regarded as the lifelines of human civilization because:

• Most of the civilizations have developed along the river valley. For example, Indus Valley Civilization near river Indus and Mesopotamian Civilization near river Euphrates and river Tigris.
• River provides settled life as growth of food and crops is possible and convenient near rivers.
• People have always used rivers to travel across places and for the transport of men and material from one place to another.

Question 19.
What do you think will happen to the human beings in the absence of scarcity of freshwater? HOTS
Answer:
Water is a vital nutrient that constitutes 75% part in our body. It removes waste materials and circulates and replenishes nutrients in our body. Since sea water is salty in nature, it cannot substitute fresh water. Beside this, animals and plants are also dependent on water for their survival.

Drainage Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the four drainage patterns.
Answer:
The four drainage patterns are as follows:

• Dendritic: The dendritic patterns develop where the river channels follows the slope terrain. The stream with its tributaries resembles the branches of a tree, thus the name dendritic.
• Trellis: A river joined by its tributaries, at approximately right angles, develops a Trellis pattern. A Trellis drainage pattern develops where hard and soft rocks: exist parallel to each other.
• Rectangular: A rectangular drainage pattern develops on a strongly-jointed rocky terrain.
• Radial: The radial pattern develops when streams flows in different directions from a central peak or dome-like structure.

Question 2.
“Rivers constitute the most useful natural resources.” Support the statement with five suitable examples. HOTS
Answer:
Rivers are the most important natural resources because

• Rivers provide water for survival and growth of all organisms.
• Rivers provided ideal conditions for the early man to lead a settled life.
• Rivers have built flood plains, deltas and provide fertile soil for agriculture.
• Water from rivers is used for drinking, irrigation and for generating hydro- electricity.
• Man is able to supplement his food supply with the fish in the rivers. Rivers also serve as natural waterways.
• World’s earliest civilization developed in the river valleys, e.g., Nile Valley civilization, Indus Valley civilization etc. River Valleys are the world’s best agricultural lands, and are densely populated regions.

Question 3.
Explain the main features of the rivers originating from the Himalayas.
Answer:

• Most of the Himalayan rivers are perennial. It means that they have water throughout the year.
• The Himalayan rivers have long courses from their source to the sea.
• These perform intensive erosional activity in their upper courses and carry huge loads of silt and sand.
• They have cut through the mountains making gorges.
• They also have well-developed deltas.

Question 4.
Write the main features of the Ganga system.
Answer:

• The Ganga has two headstreams-the Alaknanda and the Bhagirathi. They join together at Devprayag.
• From the Himalayas the Ganga enters the plains at Haridwar. It is joined together by a large number of tributaries like Ghaghara, the Gandak and the Kosi.
• The Yamuna and the Son are the two main right bank tributaries of the Ganga.
•  The Ganga enters Bangladesh as Padma. It flows southward through Bangladesh, and is joined by the Brahmaputra and is known as the Jamuna. After receiving Meghna, it is known as the Meghna.
• The length of the Ganga is over 2500 km, and it has the largest basin.

Question 5.
Why does Brahmaputra become a big river on entering India?
Answer:

• In Tibet, the Brahmaputra river carries a smaller volume of water and less silt as it is a cold and dry area.
• It enters India from Arunachal Pradesh and is joined by many tributaries such as the Dibang, the Lohit etc.
• It passes through a region of high rainfall. Here, the river carries a large volume of water and considerable amount of silt.
• Every year during the rainy season, the river overflows its banks.
• Brahmaputra is marked by huge deposits of silt on its bed causing the river bed to rise.

Question 6.
Mention the main features of the Ganga Action Plan.
Answer:
Main Features of the Ganga Action Plan:

• Sewage flowing into the river is to be diverted to other locations for treatment and conversion into energy source.
• Steps have been taken to supply safe drinking water by constructing electric crematoriums and separating bathing Ghats.
• The diversion of several major drains carrying wastes into the river has been completed in cities like Varanasi, Patna and Kanpur and pollution level has been decreased.
• Infrastructure capable of diverting and treatment 835 million litres per day of domestic waste or sewage has been created.
• Ganga Action Plan has been merged with National River Conservation Plan. It now covers 152 towns located along 27 Inter-state rivers in over 16 states.

Question 7.
Distinguish between a Delta and an Estuary.
Answer:

Question 8.
Distinguish between perennial and non-perennial rivers.
Answer:

Question 9.
Explain the ‘National River Conservation Plan’ (NRCP) in brief.
Answer:
The activities of Ganga Action Plan (GAP) Phase-I, initiated in 1985, were declared closed on 31st March, 2000. The Steering Committee of the National River Conservation Authority reviewed the progress of the GAP and necessary correction on the basis of lessons learnt and experiences gained from GAP Phase-I. These have been applied to the major polluted rivers of the country under the NRCP.

The Ganga Action Plan (GAP) Phase-II, has been merged with the NRCP. The expanded NRCP now covers 152 towns located along 27 interstate rivers in 16 states. Under this action plan, pollution abatement works are being taken up in 57 towns. A total of 215 schemes of pollution abatement have been sanctioned. So far, 69 schemes have been completed under this action plan. A million litre of sewage is targeted\to be intercepted, diverted and treated.

Question 10.
Differentiate between freshwater lakes and saltwater lakes giving examples of each.
Answer:
Freshwater Lakes:

• Freshwater lakes are mostly found in the Himalayan region.
• They are of glacial origin which means that they were formed when glaciers dug out a basin which was later filled with snow melt.
• The Wular lake in Jammu and Kashmir is the result of the tectonic activity.
• The Dal lake, Bhimtal, Nainital, Loktak and Barapani are some other important freshwater lakes.

Saltwater Lakes:

• Spits and bars form lagoons in the coastal areas, e.g., the Chilika lake, the Pulicat lake, the Kolleru lake are the saltwater lakes.
• Lakes in the regions of inland drainage are the saltwater lakes, e.g., the Sambhar lake in Rajasthan. Its water is used for producing salt.

Question 11.
Why are rivers important for the country’s economy? HOTS
Answer:
The rivers are important for a country’s economy for the following reasons:

• Rivers are an integral part of our folklore and folk songs. Water from the rivers is a basic natural resource essential for human, agriculture and industrial activities. This activity in its form is uneconomic but in its long term becomes economic one. For example, Sahitya Academy, transmission of dramas, plays and stories to abroad bags hard currency to India.
• 80% main stay of population in India on agriculture indicates itself how important the surface water is for Indian economy.
• Tourism industry has developed by leaps and bounds in each country of the world after globalisation in twenties. This industry bags millions currency in American dollar (i.e., the hard currency).
• Human nature never does anything without his direct or indirect purpose, objective, mission inherited or hidden therein. Mostly they prefer to earn, to live a peaceful life, to take refuge (nomads, sophisticated) etc. all selfish and not national. However, as seeds are spread on the wings of insects, the literature, culture, activities (positive or negative) sent and transmitted. Gradually, it gives birth to bilateral trade and commodity of countiy is concerned in the countries of the entire world. It is globalisation of economy hence, sprouts in economic activities.

Question 12.
What are the major factors responsible for river pollution? Explain.
Answer:

• High Demand of Water: The growing domestic, municipal, industrial and agricultural demand for water from rivers naturally affects the quality of water. As a result, more and more water is being drained out of the river reducing its volume.
• Industralisadon: A heavy load of untreated sewage and industrial effluents are emptied into the rivers. This affects not only the quality of water but also the self-cleansing capacity of the river. For example, given the adequate streamflow, the Ganga water is able to dilute and assimilate pollution loads within 20 km of large cities. But the increasing urbanisation, and industrialisation do not allow it to happen and the pollution level of many rivers has been rising.
• Agricultural Pollution: The extensive uses of chemicals in the form of fertilizers and pesticides in agriculture have left the water bodies contaminated with heavy metals. Such heavy metals enter human body through the food we eat, and many of them cause health problems such as cancer.

Question 13.
What are the causes of water pollution? How can it be controlled?
Answer:

• The factories discharge their effluents in the nearby rivers, which cause water pollution.
• The disposal of sewage of urban centres into the rivers is also responsible for water pollution.
• The overuse of fertilisers and pesticides also pollute the water.
• Water in the oceans gets polluted by the leakage of oil from oil tankers.

Methods to Control Water Pollution:

• The waste product from the factories should not be allowed to fall into the rivers.
• The waste materials should be treated before it is allowed to fall into the water of rivers.
• Sewage of urban centres should not be allowed into rivers at any cost.
• The fertilisers and pesticides should not be overused.
• Oil spills from tankers should not be allowed to enter any water body.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post Drainage Class 9 Important Questions Geography Chapter 3 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Civics Chapter 2

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 What is Democracy? Why Democracy?

What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is representative democracy?
Answer:
Under representative democracy all the people do not rule or take decisions but a majority or elected representatives are allowed to take decisions on behalf of all the people.

Question 2.
Which is the most common form of democracy in today’s world?
Answer:
Representative Democracy.

Question 3.
Name any two characteristics of democracy.
Answer:

• People choose their rulers.
• People have freedom to express their views.

Question 4.
Why are quality decisions a possibility in a democracy?
Answer:
A democratic decision always involves many persons, discussions and meetings.

Question 5.
Whose rule is democracy considered to be?
Answer:
People’s rule e.g., Salvador Allende’s rule in Chile.

Question 6.
With whom does the final decision-making power rest in a democracy?
Answer:
Elected representatives of the people.

Question 7.
Under which form of government political equality given importance?
Answer:
Democratic.

Question 8.
In spite of having a vast social diversity, what keeps the people of India together?
Answer:
Democracy.

Question 9.
What should be done in a democracy if mistakes are committed?
Answer:
There should be public discussion on these mistakes.

Question 10.
When do we say that elections are fair?
Answer:
The elections must offer a real choice between political alternatives.

Question 11.
‘In a democracy, the majority of the people rule through their elected representatives.’ Give reasons. HOTS
Answer:

• Modem democracies involve such a large number of people that it is physically impossible for them to sit together, and take a collective decision.
• Even if they could, the citizen does not have the time, the desire or the skills to take part in all the decisions.

Question 12.
How does democracy in a country enhance the dignity of an individual? State three points.
Answer:

• Democracy is based on the principle of political equality. So all the citizens whether rich or poor, educated or uneducated have the same status.
• People are not subjects of a ruler, they are the rulers themselves.
• The ruler has to rule or work according to the wishes and the needs of the people. If the people do not like the ruler they can change him through election.

Question 13.
When does a citizen have an equal role in decision-making?
Answer:
If a decision involves many persons, discussions and meetings.

Question 14.
What is Referendum?
Answer:
A direct vote in which the entire electorate is asked to either accpet or reject a proposal.

Question 15.
When did the World Trade Organization set up?
Answer:
1955.

Question 16.
Which form of government is considered nbn-democratic?
Answer:
Military rule or monarchy.

Question 17.
By whom was the ‘Legal Framework Order’ issued in Pakistan?
Answer:
General Pervez Musharraf.

Question 18.
After how many yeafcs does Mexico hold elections for electing its president? ‘
Answer:
After every six years.

Question 19.
During which period did China record its worst famine in the I world’s history?
Answer:
During 1958-1961.

Question 20.
Before contesting elections in China, whose approval does a candidate need to have?
Answer:
The Chinese Communist Party.

Question 21.
Which country does not give voting rights to minorities?
Answer:
Estonia.

Question 22.
By whom is the President of China appointed?
Answer:
Members of the National People’s Congress.

Question 23.
Name any two countries where free and fair elections are not held.
Answer:
China and Mexico.

What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Democracy. Sate two merits and demerits of democracy.
Answer:
Democracy is a form of government which is chosen by the people to work for their welfare and can be changed by them.
Merits:

• Democracy is the best form of government as the rulers are accountable to the people and have to fulfil their needs.
• Democracy is based on consultation and discussion. This reduces the chance of hasty and irresponsible decisions from being taken and improves the quality of decision making.

Demerits:

• Leaders keep changing in democracy. This leads to instability.
• Democracy is all about political competition and power play. There is no scope for morality.

Question 2.
How elections in India are different from Mexico?
Answer:

• Both the countries have a multi-party system. In case of India, political parties in power often loose elections whereas in case of Mexico PRI did not loose a single election for more than 70 years.
• Elections in India are held after every 5 years whereas in case of Mexico elections are held after 6 years.
• Government officials work under the Election Commission during the election days whereas this is not true for Mexico.

Question 3.
Assess any three conditions that apply to the way a democratic government is run after the elections.
Answer:

• People should have the freedom to express their views. They should have freedom to form associations and to protest also.
• Country is governed by the constitutional law. Everyone should be equal in the eye of law.
• People’s rights should be respected and it must be protected by an independent judiciary whose orders are obeyed by everyone.

Question 4.
What does direct democracy imply? Why can it not be practised in the present day world?
Answer:
(i) Direct democracy implies to the democracy in which every citizen must be able to play equal role in decision-making.
(ii) (a) Modern democracies involve such a large number of people that it is physically not possible for them to sit together and take a collective decision. Even the majority does not rule directly but through their elected representatives.
(b) Moreover, the citizen does not have the time, the desire or the skills to take part in all the decisions.

Question 5.
‘Democracy is all about political competition and powerplay. There is no scope for morality’. Justify the statement by giving arguments against democracy.
Answer:

• Political parties and candidates use all the dirty tricks to win elections.
• Many of them use money and muscle power during the elections.
• Political parties or candidates demand votes on the basis of caste, religion etc.

Question 6.
Explain the major features of democracy.
Answer:

• Final Authority with the People’s Representatives: In a democracy the final decision-making power must rest with those elected by the people.
• Free and Fair Elections: A democracy must be based on a free and fair elections where those currently in power have a fair chance of losing.
• One Person, One Vote, One Value: In a democracy, each adult citizen must have one vote and each vote must have one value.
• Rule of Law and Respect for Rights: A democratic government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizen’s rights.

Question 7.
‘Democracy improves the quality of decision-making.’ Explain. VBQ
Answer:

• Democracy is based on consultation and discussion.
• A democratic decision always involves many persons, discussions and meetings. When a number of people put their heads together, they are able to point out possible mistakes in any decision.
• As most of the decisions are taken by discussions, this reduces the chances of rash or irresponsible decisions.
• If the decision is not according to the wishes of the people, they have the right to protest, and even can force the government to withdraw it.

Question 8.
“Democracy is better than other forms of government because it allows us to correct its own mistakes.” Explain. HOTS
Answer:
There is no guarantee that mistakes cannot be made in a democracy. No form of government can guarantee that. The advantage in a democracy is that such mistakes cannot be hidden for long. There is a space for public discussion on these mistakes. And there is a room for correction. Either the rulers have to change their decisions, or the rulers can be changed. This cannot happen in a non-democratic government.

Question 9.
Why is democracy called a “Government by discussion”?
Answer:

• Democracy provides all the citizens some basic rights through which they can give their opinion.
• Democracy provides h chance to all the citizens to choose their representatives, and change them, if they do not work according to their wishes.
• In the Parliament, all the members have the right to give their opinions,
• Democracy provides the citizens a right to follow any religion.

Question 10.
Which is the most common form of democracy? Why is this form of democracy necessary?
Answer:
The most common form of democracy is representative democracy.

• Modern democracies involve such a large number of people that it is physically impossible for them to sit together, and take a collective decision.
• Even if they could, the citizen does not have the time, the desire or the skills to take part in all the decisions.

Question 11.
‘Is it good to elect a President for life or is it better to hold regular elections after every five years’? Express your view with reasons to support them.
Answer:
No, it is not good to elect a President for life. But, it is certainly better to hold regular elections after every five years.
Reasons:

• Regular elections provide an opportunity to the people to change the government if it does not act as per the wishes of the people.
• Regular and fair election is an important aspect of democracy.

Question 12.
“A democratic government is a better government because it is a more accountable form of government.” Explain.
Answer:

• Democratic government is an accountable government i.e., it is responsible for its actions, decisions and policies including the administration. The government is answerable to the Parliament or we can say to the people. If government is not working according to the needs and expectations of the citizens the Parliament can move a no confidence motion against the government.
• More than three crqre people lost their life in 1958-61 famine in China but India, whose economic condition was poorer as compared to China, did not have a famine of the kind China had.
• The existence of democracy in India made the Indian government respond to food security in a way that the Chinese government did not.

Question 13.
Consider the following facts about a country and decide if you would call it a democracy. Give reasons to support your decision.
(i) All the citizens of the country have right to vote. Elections are held regularly.
(ii) The country took loan from international agencies. One of the conditions for giving loan was that the government would reduce its expenses on education and health.
(iii) People speak more than seven languages but education is available only in one language, the language spoken by 52 per cent people of that country.
(iv) Several organisations have given a call for peaceful demonstrations and nation wide strikes in the country to oppose these policies. Government has arrested these leaders.
(v) The government owns the radio and television in the country.‘All the newspapers have to get permission from the government to publish any news about government’s policies and protests.
Answer:
(i) Where citizens have the right to vote and elections are held regularly, it is democracy. But elections should be free and fair. In India democracy exist because elections are held free and fair.
(ii) It is democratic. Simply by taking loan from international agency the democratic government does not became undemocratic.
(iii) It is not democratic. In a democracy education should be given in a language spoken by the students.
(iv) It is not democratic. People have a right to protest against the policies of government. Peaceful demonstrations and nation wide strikes are democratic method of protest.
(v) It is undemocratic. For democracy it is essential that radio and television should be autonomous.

Question 14.
Why was every election won by the party called PRI in China? Explain any three reasons.
Answer:
Every election won by the party called PRI in China because:

• Until 2000, every election was won by the dominant party called PRI.
• In its presence, opposition parties did contest elections, but never managed to win.
• The PRI was known to use many dirty tricks to win elections.

Question 15.
Citizens of a non-democratic nation can bring about a change in the political system of the country. Write any three traits which can help them to do so.
Answer:
Traits are:

• They should be allowed to actively participate in the politics.
• They can form associations. They can protest and take other political actions.
•  They can express opinions in public.

Question 16.
“Elections in China do not represent people’s verdict”. Explain. HOTS
Answer:

• In China, elections are regularly held after every five years, for electing the country’s Parliament, called Quanguo Renmin Daibiao Dahui (National People’s Congress). ,
• The National People’s Congress has the power to appoint the President of the country.
• It has nearly 3,000 members elected from all over China. Some members are elected by the army.
• Before contesting elections, a candidate needs the approval of the Chinese Communist Party.
• Only those, who are member’s of the Chinese Communist Party or eight smaller parties allied to it were allowed to contest elections held in 2002-03.
• The government is always formed by the Communist Party.

Question 17.
Distinguish between a democracy and a good democracy on three points.
Answer:

Question 18.
Distinguish between democratic and non-democratic elections.
Answer:

What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
With the help of an example, prove that a democratic government is a more accountable form of government.
Answer:
We can take the example of India. In India, the government is accountable to the citizens.
(i) Government policies in India are based on the democratic values.
(ii) It is able to respond to the needs of the people.
(iii) It holds multi-party elections.
(iv) It has opposition parties to criticize the government.
(v) Democracy ensures that decision-making will be based on norms and procedures. So, a citizen who wants to know if a decision was taken through the correct procedures can find it out. This is known as transparency. So, this shows democracy produces a government which follows the procedures and is accountable to the government.
(vi) A democratic government rules within limits set by constitutional law and citizen’s right.
(vii) Democracy provides a method to deal with difference and conflicts. It is suitable in countries like India. India has diversity of language, religion and culture.
(viii) It is better than other forms of government because it allows us to correct our own tnistakes.
(ix) Democracy also increases the dignity of the citizens, because it is based on the principle oApolitical equality. This means that the poorest and the least educated have the same status as the rich and educated.

Question 2.
“Democracy is the most popular form of government emerging in the modem times, still the shortcomings cannot be ruled out.” Justify the statement by assessing any five shortcomings of democracy. HOTS
Answer:

• Instability: Under democracy, leaders and political parties keep changing. This leads to political instability.
• Low Morality: Democracy is all about political competition and power play. There is no scope for morality.
• Delays in Decision Making: All the decisions are to be approved and discussed in the Parliament, and many people and institutions are to be consulted. So it leads to delays in decision making.
• Bad Decisions: As most of the leaders do not know the best interest, of the people, it leads to bad decisions.
• Corruption: As the democracy is based on electoral competition, it leads to corruption. Many political parties use muscle and money power to come to power.
• Illiterate and Politically Unconscious Voters: In most of the developing countries, voters are illiterate and politically unconscious, so they elect wrong candidates.

Question 3.
Why is democracy considered to be the best option among all other political systems available in world? Explain.
Answer:

• Accountable Government: Democracy is better than any other form of government because it represents the needs of the people. It does not depend on the whims of the ruler or the dictator. In simple words, we can say that democracy is for the people. It is an accountable form of government.
• Based on Consultation Discussion: Democracy is based on consultation and discussion. As such many mistakes are corrected in time. Thus, democracy improves the quality of decision making.
• Deals with Differences: Democracy provides a peaceful solution to every problem. It provides the best method of dealing with differences and conflicts. It suits the needs of many countries like India with diversity of languages, religions, castes and creeds. Discussions lead to the solution of every problem, so it keeps our country united.
• Political Equality: Democracy is based on political equality which ensures equal rights, both for the rich and the poor, the educated and the uneducated. Thus, in a way, democracy enhances the dignity of every citizen.
• Room for Correction: It is only in democracy that mistakes are admitted, and all attempts are made to correct these mistakes. If mistakes are made, it is only in democracy that they are admitted and then corrected. In democracy, thus, there is a room for correction.
• Democracy provides the opportunity to the citizens to flourish according to their ability.

Question 4.
Explain the major features of democratic governments.
Answer:

• Responsible .Government: Democratic government is a responsible government. The representatives elected by the people on the basis of universal Vdult franchise remain responsible to the people and in case they do not remain responsible before the people, the people can change them during the next elections.
• Possibility of Good Laws: In a democratic government, the representatives have a direct relation with the people. Therefore, they properly understand their problems and interests. They properly represent the interest of the people in the assemblies, and the parliament and always try to get the good laws passed.
• Political Education: The greatest merit of democracy is its educative value. Participation in elections and other political activities, make the people intelligent and politically conscious. They become enlightened citizens.
• Based on Liberty and Fraternity: In democracy, the rights and the liberty of the people are well safeguarded. People are given freedom to express their views without any fear. They can criticise the wrong policies of the government.
• Respect of the Principle of Equality: In democracy, all are equal in the eyes of law, and no discrimination is done on the basis of birth, race, caste, colour, sex, religion, etc. All citizens get equal opportunities to participate in the affairs of the state.
• Government Based on the Will of the People: Democracy is based on the will of the people, and it functions according to their consent. The Government cannot ignore the interest of the people.

Question 5.
Which characteristics make democratic government so popular?
Answer:

• Accountable Government: Democracy is better than any other form of government because it represents the needs of the people. It does not depend on the whims of the ruler or the dicator. In simple words, we can say that democracy is for the poeple. It is an accountable form of government.
• Based on Consultation and Discussion: Democracy is based on consultation and discussion. As such many mistakes are corrected in time. Thus, democracy imporoves the quality of decision making.
• Deals with Differences: Democracy provides a peaceful solution to every problem. It provides the best method of dealing with differences and conflicts. It suits the needs of many countries like India with diversity of languages, religions, castes and creeds. Discussions lead to the soultion of every problem, so it keeps our country united.
• Political Equality: Democracy is based on political equality which ensures equal rights, both for the rich and the poor, the educated and the uneducated. Thus, in a way, democracy enhances the dignity of every citizen.

Question 6.
“Though democracy is considered to be the best form of government, it is not an ideal form of government.” Give five arguments to prove the above statement.
Answer:

• It is not an ideal form of government because every citizen does not play equal role m decision-making. Even the majority does not rule directly. But, it rules through their elected representatives.
• Democracy provide only political equality but people also need social and economic equality.
• An ideal government is a government which is not run by few powerful people.
• An ideal government is free of corruption.
• An ideal government is a government where there is a gender equality.

Question 7.
Explain the representative democracy. Why is the representative democracy the most common form of government in modem times? Explain any four reasons.
Answer:
(i) When the majority of people rule through their elected representatives, this is called representative democracy.
(ii)

• The most common form that democracy takes in our times is that of a representative democracy. In a democracy, all the people do not rule. Direct rule by people is not possible.
• So, in a democracy, the majority is allowed to take decisions on
  behalf of all the people. Even the majority does not rule directly. It rules through its elected representatives.
• A representative democracy becomes necessary. Modem democracies comprise a large number of people. It is physically impossible for them to sit or collect together at a place and take a collective decision.
• Even if they could collect together, all the citizens do not have the time, the desire, or the skills to take part in all the decisions.

Question 8.
Write any five arguments in favour and five against democracy as a form of government.
Answer:
Arguments in Favour of Democracy:

• Democratic form of government is accountable.
• It improves the quality of decision making.
• It provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts.
• It enhances the dignity of citizen.
• It allows us to correct our mistakes.

Arguments Against Democracy:

• Change of leaders lead to instability.
• It involves only political competition with no scope for morality.
• Consulting more people leads to delays.
• It leads to corruption.
• Ordinary people don’t know that what is good for them.

Question 9.
Write some common features of the non-democratic countries.
Answer:
Some common features of the non-democratic countries are:
(i) In non-democratic countries, the people are not allowed to criticise the government. Doing so means imprisonment, harassment and trouble one after the other.

(ii) In non-democratic countries, the rule of the king or the so-called military rule prevails and the question of elections does not arise.

(iii) In non-democratic countries, no opposition is tolerated. So the question of political parties, especially of the opposition parties does not arise. Only those political parties can survive which toe to the line of the government.

(iv) In non-democratic countries, the workers are not allowed to form their independent trade unions. Only such trade unions can survive, who rightly or wrongly, support the policies of the government.

(v) In non-democratic countries, all the people are at the mercy of the dictator or the military rulers. Anybody can be detained, arrested or even put to death without any trial.

(vi) In non-democratic countries, nobody can even aspire for any big post. If he is ready to be a tool in the hands of the ruler/ dictator/military leaders, he can hope to get some good post. But he will have to kill his conscience and become dumb and deaf.

Question 10.
Why is Zimbabwe not considered a democratic country?
Answer:
(i) Same Party Ruling: Zimbabwe attained independence from white minority rule in 1980. Since then the country has been ruled by the party ZANU-PF. Its leader Robert Mugabe, has been ruling the country since independence.

(ii) Unfair Elections: Elections have been held regularly and . always won by the ruling party. They have not been free and fair.

(iii) Change of Constitution to Favour the Government: President Mugabe appears to be popular but also uses unfair practices in elections. His government has changed the Constitution several times to increase the power of the President and make him less accountable.

(iv) Suppression of Opposition: Opposition party workers are often harassed and their meetings disrupted by ruling party.

(v) Right to Freedom Missing: Public protests and demonstrations against the government are declared illegal. There is a law that limits the right to criticise the President. Television and radio are controlled by the government.

(vi) Absence of Independent Judiciary: The government has ignored some court judgements that went against it and has pressurised judges.

Question 11.
How far was the communist government responsible for the famine that occurred in China in 1958-1961? Explain.
Answer:
China’s famine of 1958-1961 was the worst recorded famine in the world history. Nearly three crore people died in this famine. During those days, India’s economic condition was not much better than China. Yet India did not have a famine of the kind China. Economists think that this was a result of different government policies in the two countries. The existence of democracy in India made the Indian government respond to food scarcity in a way that the Chinese government did not. They point out that no large-scale famine has ever taken place in an independent and democratic country, If China too had multi parti elections, an opposition party and a press free to criticize the government, then so many people may not have died in the famine.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Class 9 Important Questions Civics Chapter 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Constitutional Design Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Civics Chapter 3

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Civics Chapter 3 Constitutional Design

Constitutional Design Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who was Nelson Mandela?
Answer:
He was a nationalist leader of South Africa, who fought against racial discrimination.

Question 2.
What would have happened in South Africa if the black majority had decided to take revenge on the whites for all their oppression and exploitation?
Answer:
Violence would have erupted in South Africa. Bloodshed would have taken place. A great loss of life and property would have taken place.

Question 3.
What is meant by Segregation?
Answer:
All the public places like trains, buses, schools, hospitals, beaches etc. were separate for the whites and blacks. Even the churches were separate. The black people were forbidden from living in white areas. This is called Segregation.

Question 4.
Which type of tactics did the white racist government of South Africa use to continue to rule?
Answer:
The white racist government continued to rule by detaining, torturing and killing thousands of black and coloured people.

Question 5.
What is apartheid?
Answer:
It was a policy of racial segregation under which all people were classified and separated on the basis of race. Many restrictions were imposed on the Blacks, who formed mote than 80% of the population.

Question 6.
How many years of his life, Nelson Mandela spent in Jail?
Answer:
28 years.

Question 7.
When was the new national flag of the Republic of South Africa hoisted for the first time?
Answer:
At the midnight of 26 April, 1994.

Question 8.
Highlight any one similarity between the story of South African struggle for freedom and the Indian National Movement. HOTS
Answer:
Both the movements were fighting against the whites of Europe who had come to these countries as trading companies.

Question 9.
“I have cherished the idea of a democratic Asid free society in which all persons live together in harmony and with equal
opportunities”. Who said these words and to which country did – he belong? HOTS
Answer:

• Nelson Mandela and
•  South Africa.

Question 10.
Why is India called ‘a Republic’?
Answer:
India is called a Republic because the head of the state i.e., the President is an elected person, and it is not a hereditary position.

Question 11.
What do you mean by political equality?
Answer:
Every citizen is entitled to all the constitutional rights and freedom without making distinction of any kind like gender, race, status, religion etc. Equal voting right to all adult citizens of country, be it rich or poor with no discrimination comes under political equality.

Question 12.
What is meant by the term ‘Preamble’?
Answer:
The Preamble is an introduction to the Constitution which contains the ideals and basic principles of the Indian Constitution.

Question 13.
Mention any one feature of a Foreign Constitution which inspired the constitution makers of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:

• Practice of parliamentary democracy in Britain.
• Bill of rights in the United States.

Question 14.
Who was the President of Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 15.
What was the main contribution of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel just after independence?
Answer:
He played very important role in integration of the Indian princely states.

Question 16.
Name any two prominent members of Constituent Assembly.
Answer:

• Rajendra Prasad
• Baldev Singh.

Question 17.
With reference to the Constituent, Assembly, answer the following questions:
(i) When were its elections held?
(ii) Who was its President?
(iii) Who was appointed the Chairman of the Drafting Committee?
(iv) When was the Constitution passed by the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
(i) July 1946.
(ii) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
(iii) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
(iv) 26th November, 1949.

Question 18.
What is the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
The drafting of the document called the Constitution was done by an assembly of elected representatives called the Constituent Assembly.

Question 19.
What do we call a state where head of the state is an elected and not a hereditary person?
Answer:
Republic, because the head of the state i.e., the President is an elected person, and it is not a hereditary position.

Constitutional Design Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the term Apartheid. What were its implications?
Answer:
Apartheid was the name bf a system of racial discrimination unique to South Africa.
Implications:

• White Europeans imposed this system on South Africa.
• White rulers treated non-whites as inferiors.
• Non-whites did not have right to vote. They were forbiadden to live in white areas. They were allowed to work there only with permit.
• Trains, buses, hospitals, schools, cinemas, public places and public toilets were all separate for the whites and blacks.

Question 2.
“The apartheid system was particularly oppressive for the blacks.” Justify by giving three reasons.
Answer:

• They were forbidden from living in white areas. They could work in white areas only if they had a permit.
• Trains, buses, taxis, hotels, hospitals, schools and colleges, libraries, cinema halls, theatres, beaches, swimming pools, public toilets, were all separate for the whites and blacks. This was called segregation.
• They could not even visit the churches where the whites worshipped. Blacks could not form associations or protest against the terrible treatment.

Question 3.
What problems existed in the making of the South African constitution? What compromises were made?
Answer:

• Problems existed because both the black majority and the white minority had their own fears and anxieties. The black majority wanted their constitution to be based on the democratic principle of majority rule. They also wanted substantial, social and economic rights.
• The white minority, on the other hand, wanted to protect its privileges and property.
• Ultimately both agreed to compromise. The whites agreed to the principle of majority rule and that of one person, one vote.

Question 4.
With reference to the Indian Constitution answer the following questions:
(i) When was it passed?
(ii) When was it enforced?.
(iii) Why was this date chosen?
Answer:
(i) The Constitution was passed by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November, 1949.
(ii) The Constitution was enforced on 26th January, 1950.
(iii) In December, 1929, the Congress in its Lahore Session had decided to fight for Poorna Swaraj or Complete Independence, and 26th January, 1930 was celebrated as the Independence Day, since then. That is why our leaders decided to celebrate 26th January, 1950 as the day to enforce the Constitution of India.

Question 5.
Assess the Constitution made by the Constitution Assembly to form the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Assessing the Constitution as:

• It worked in a systematic, open and consensual manner.
• Basic principlesVwere decided. Drafting Committee prepared a draft.
• Discussions of several rounds occurred clause by clause.
• They worked for 114 days and spread over three years.
• Every document was recorded and preserved to form twelve bulky volumes of Constituent Assembly debates.

Question 6.
“Indian Constitution adopted many institutional details and procedures from different countries.” Justify by giving examples. HOTS
Answer:

• India adopted the principle of liberty, freedom and justice from the French Constitution.
• We have adopted bill of Rights from the United States of America.
•  The practice of Parliamentary democracy has been adopted from Great Britain.

Question 7.
“The manner in which the Constituent Assembly worked gives sanctity to the constitution.” Justify. HOTS
Answer:
First some basic principles were decided and agreed upon. Then a Drafting Committee chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar prepared a draft constitution for discussion.
Several rounds of thorough discussion took place on the Draft Constitution, clause by clause.
The above-mentioned points prove that the Constituent Assembly maintained a democratic attitude.

Question 8.
“Indian Constitution is both rigid and flexible.” Explain.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution is neither wholly rigid nor wholly flexible.
This is called rigid because some ideals in the constitution like equality, secularism, democracy, sovereignity etc. cannot be changed. This is because the rulers could not misuse their powers.

On the other hand, it is also called flexible because there is a provision for amendments. Some of the articles can be changed if the people demand so.

That is, there are some rules that can be amended by a simple majority while some need two-third majority. So. it is, called partly rigid and partly flexible.

Question 9.
Describe main features of Indian Constitution.
Or
How has the Indian Constitution embodied the basic values into its instutional arrangements? Explain. V8Q
Answer:

• The Indian Constitution is a detailed document. It needs to be amended to keep it updated. It has provisions to incorporate changes from time-to-time. These changes are called constitutional amendments.
• It lays down the procedure for choosing persons to govern the country.
• It defines “who will have how much power to take a particular decisions’.
• It also limits the powers of the government by providing some rights to the citizens which cannot be violated.

Question 10.
India is a “Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic.” Justify.
Or
Describe the main features of Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution of India lays down certain Basic Features or the Basic Structure, which cannot be amended, altered or modified by any legitimate authority in India. The Constitution declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic. India is Sovereign, as it is independent of any foreign control. It is Socialist, as it aims at social and economic equality. It is Secular, as there is no State religion in India. It is Democratic, as the government is elected by the people directly after every five years. It is a Republic, because the Head of the State in India, namely, the President, is elected for five years by the r members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.

Question 11.
Discuss the concept of equality under the objectives of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Preamble speaks of equality of status and opportunity Equality of status means all are equal in the eyes of law and all have equal protection of law. Nobody can be discriminated against only on the basis of his religion, caste, colour, creed or sex (Articles 14 and 15). The Constitution also offers equality of opportunity in matters relating to appointment under two states (Article 16). Untouchability has been abolished (Article 17) and all the titles except those of academic or military distinction have been abolished (Article 18).

Question 12.
What do you mean by Constitutional amendments? What is its importance? State their significance in a democratic country like India.
Or
What provision has been made to incorporate changes in the Constitution and why?
Answer:
A change in the Constitution made by the supreme legislative body in: the country is known as Constitutional amendment. In India, it is called the Parliament or “Sansad”.

• Constitution can be changed according to needs and aspirations of the people.
• Major shortcomings of the constitution can be removed.

Significance:

• India is a major democratic country and has a long and detailed Constitution.
• Therefore, it needs to be amended quite regularly to keep it updated,
• The makers of the Indian Constitution did not see it as sacred, static and unalterable law.
• As a ‘Living Document’, it has to be in accordance with people’s aspirations and changes in society.

Constitutional Design Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by\the Apartheid? How did the people of South Africa struggle against it?
Answer:
Apartheid is the name of a system of social discriminatio’n unique to South Africa. It was the official policy of ill treatment of blacks followed by government of South Africa. The people of South Africa struggled against the apartheid in the following way:

• Blacks and Indians were fighting against the apartheid, since 1950. The racial government did not pay any heed to them.
• Marches and strikes were launched.
• The struggle was led by the African National Congress.
• Many of the sensitive whites also joined the struggle with the African National Congress.
• Beside this many workers’ unions and the communist parties joined the movement.
• As the struggle gained momentum, the government realized that the blacks could no longer be held under the oppression.
• In continuation to this, discriminatory laws were annulled, bans from media lifted and Nelson Mandela walked out from the jail.
• A new Constitution was formed on 26th April, 1994. The white racial government was overthrown by a multi-racial government.

Question 2.
Explain with five facts the transition from Apartheid to democracy and multi-racial government take place in South Africa.
Answer:

• After two years of discussion and debate leaders of South Africa came out with one of the finest Constitutions the world has ever had.
• The new Constitution gave to its citizens the most extensive rights available in any country.
• Together, they decided that in the search for a solution to the problems, nobody should be excluded, no one should be treated as a demon.
• The leaders of the nation agreed that everybody should become part of the solution, whatever they might have done or represented in the past.
• The apartheid government came to an end, paving way for the formation of a multi-racial government.

Question 3.
Explain the major factors which contributed to the making of our Constitution.
Answer:

• National Movement: Our national movement was not merely a struggle against a foreign rule. It was also a struggle to rejuvenate our country, and to transform our society and politics.
• Role of Leaders: Leaders like Moti Lai Nehru, Jawahar Lai Nehru and others had played very important role in making of Indian Constitution. In 1928, Moti Lai Nehru Drafted a Constitution for India.
• Role of British Rule: The familiarity with political institutions of colonial rule also helped develop an agreement over the institutional design.
• British Rule and the Legislative Institutions: The experience gained by Indians in the working of the legislative institutions proved to be very useful for the country in setting up its own institutions.
• World Event or Revolutions: Many of our leaders were inspired by the ideals of French Revolution, the practice of Parliamentary democracy in Britain and the Bill of Rights in USA. So they incorporated somfe good points of the Constitutions of these countries in the Indian Constitution.

Question 4.
“The making of the Constitution for huge and diverse country like India was not an easy affair.” Justify the statement. HOTS
Or
Highlight any five difficult circumstances under which the Indian Constitution was drawn up.
Or
“India’s Constitution was also drawn up under very difficult circumstances.” Elaborate this statement with the help of any four circumstances during it was made.
Or
What were the difficulties faced during the making of Indian Constitution?
Answer:

• Making a Constitution for a huge and diverse country like India was not an easy task.
• The-people of India at that time were emerging from the status of subjects to citizens.
• The country was born through a partition on the basis of religious differences.
• The British had left the piincely states to decide their future on their own.
• At that time, future of the country did not look very secure.
•  Makers of the Constitution had anxieties about the present as well as the future.

Question 5.
State the steps involved in the framing of Indian Constitution.
Or
Mention the landmark years in the making of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:

• As per the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946), a Constitution-making body, called the Constituent Assembly, was formed. Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July, 1946.
• The Constituent Assembly worked in a systematic, open and consensual manner. It became a fully sovereign body.
• First, Pandit Jawahar Lai Nehru moved in the Constituent Assembly the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ which was unanimously passed. It was India’s ‘Charter of Freedom’. Then some basic principles were decided and agreed upon.
• After passing of the Resolution, an Advisory Committee and various other committees were formed by the Constituent Assembly. The Drafting Committee, chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, prepared a ‘Draft Constitution’ for discussion.
• Several rounds of thorough discussion took place on the Draft Constitution, clause by clause. The members considered carefully and debated all the clauses for 114 days, spread over nearly three years. All the proceedings and discussions in the Constituent Assembly have been recorded and preserved as what we call the ‘Constituent Assembly Debates’.
• The Draft Constitution was passed or adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949. It came into force on January 26, 1950.

Question 6.
What was Mahatma Gandhi’s contribution to the Constitution of Indian?
Answer:

• Although Mahatma Gandhi was not a member of the Constituent Assembly, there were many members who followed his vision.
• According to his magazine, Young India in 1931, he wanted to release India from all thralldom and patronage.
• He emphasised on political equality.
• He thought India as a country where the people of all communities would live in perfect harmony.
• He wanted India where there could be no room for the curse of untouchability. Women would enjoy the same rights as men.

Question 7.
Describe any five salient features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
Salient Features:

• Sovereign—People are masters and have supreme right to take decisions.
• Socialist—Wealth to be shared equally.
• Secular—It is based on the freedom of religion. All religions should be treated equally.
• Democratic—People have political equality.
• Republic—Head of the state is a common man elected by the people.

Question 8.
What is Constitution? What is its importance?
Or
Why do countries need a Constitution? Explain.
Or
Why do we need a Constitution and what do Constitution do? Explain?
Answer:
The Constitution of a country is a set of written rules that are accepted by all the people living together in a country. The Constitution is the supreme law that determines the relationship among the people living in a territory (called citizens), and also the relationship between the people and the government.
Importance:

• Specifications: It specifies how the government will be constituted, who will have the power to take which decisions.
• Trust and Co-ordination: It generates a degree of trust and co-ordination that is necessary for different kinds of people to live together.
• Rights and Duties: It lays down the limits on the powers of the government and tells us what the rights of the citizens are.
• Good Society: It expresses the aspirations of the people about creating a good society.

Question 9.
Express the basic ideas accepted by all leaders before the drafting of the Constitution.
Or
Examine three basic guidelines agreed upon before the drafting of the Indian Co institution.
Answer:
(i) Prior to framing of the Indian Constitution, our Constitution-makers had gone through the Constitutions of nearly 60 countries. They had also studied the various Acts passed by the British Government and the iesoiiK.ons adopted by the Congress Party. This study enabled the makers of the Constitution to select the best provisions from different sources but on our own terms.

(ii) Some of the main provisions of our Constitution and their original sources are given below:

(iii) (a) This is to be noted that our Constitution-makers did not imitate what others had done. They selected and modified the contents according to India perspective.
(b) At each step, they also questioned or judged the legitimacy of various provisions.

Question 10.
Define the following terms mentioned in the preamble to the Constitution of India.
(i) Sovereign,
(ii) Socialist,
(iii) Secular,
(iv) Republic,
(v) Liberty,
(vi) Equality,
(vii) Fraternity
(viii), Justice.
Or
Describe any five values / goals of the Indian Constitution included in the Preamble.
Answer:
(i) Sovereign: People have supreme right to make decisions on internal as well as external matters. No external power can dictate the government of India.

(ii) Socialist: Wealth is generated socially and should be shared equally by society. Government should regulate the ownership of land and industry to reduce socio-economic inequalities.

(iii) Secular: Citizens have complete freedom to follow any religion. But there is no official religion. Government treats all religious beliefs and practices with equal respect.

(iv) Republic: The head of the state is an elected person and not a hereditary position.

(v) Liberty: There are no unreasonable restrictions on the citizens in what they think, how they wish to express their thoughts and the way they wish to follow up their thoughts in action.

(vi) Equality: All are equal before the law. The traditional social inequalities have to be ended. The government should ensure equal opportunity for all.

(vii) Fraternity: All of us should behave as if we are members of the same family. No one should treat a fellow citizen as inferior.

(viii) Justice: Citizens cannot be discriminated on the grounds of caste, religion and gender. Social inequalities have to be reduced. Government should work for the welfare of all, especially of the disadvantaged groups.

Question 11.
“The Constituent Assembly was the representative body of the people of India.” Explain with examples. HOTS
Answer:

• The Assembly was dominated by the Indian National Congress.
• Many important political leaders were also its members. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Mrs. Sarojini Naidu and Sardar Baldev Singh were its important members, who guided the discussion in the Constituent Assembly.
• There were more than 30 members belonging to the Scheduled Caste.
• Minorities like the Anglo-Indians had Frank Anthony as their representative.
• The Parsee community was represented by H.P Modi. _
• Some Constitutional experts like Alladi Krishna Swarny Aiyer, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, and K.M. Munshi were also there.
• Mrs. Sarojini Naidu and Mrs. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit were the two leading women of India in the Constituent Assembly.
  Time: The members deliberated for 114 days spread over three years.

Question 12.
Why should we accept the Constitution made by the Constituent Assembly more than 60 years ago?
Answer:

• Constituent Assembly, a Galaxy of Indians: The Constituent Assembly represented the people of India. There was no universal adult franchise at that time, so it was elected mainly by the members of the existing Provincial Legislatures. This ensured a fair geographical share of members from all the regions of the country. The Assembly was dominated by the Indian National Congress but with leaders having different opinions. In social terms too, the Assembly represented members from different language groups, castes, classes, religions and occupations.
• Elected Members: The drafting of the document called the Constitution was done by an assembly of elected representatives called the Constituent Assembly.
• Working Pattern of the Assembly:
  • The Constituent Assembly worked in a systematic, open and consensual manner.
  • First some basic principles were decided, and agreed upon.
  • Then a Drafting Committee chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar prepared a Draft Constitution for discussion.
  • Several rounds of thorough discussions took place on the Draft Constitution clause by clause.

Question 13.
Why did the Constitution-framers make provisions for amendments in the Indian Constitution? Give three reasons.
Answer:

• The Indian Constitution is a very long, detailed document. It was never considered as a static, sacred and unalterable law. It needed to be amended quite regularly to keep it updated.
• Those who drafted the Indian Constitution felt that it had to be in accordance with people’s aspirations and changes in society.
• Our Constitution-makers had great foresight. They were aware of the coming future needs of the fast changing Indian society. It was likely to experience many socio-economic changes in the coming years.
• As such, they desired that the Indian Constitution should be able to adapt itself to the changing conditions or circumstances. So, they made provisions to incorporate changes from time to time. These changes are called the ‘Constitutional Amendments’. They provided a suitable amending procedure.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

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The Story of Village Palampur Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Economics Chapter 1

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 1 The Story of Village Palampur

The Story of Village Palampur Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the factors of production?
Answer:
The essential inputs which are required for the production of goods and services are known as factors of production. For example, for the production of cloth, cotton-machine, labour and technology is required.

Question 2.
Name the main production activity of Palampur.
Answer:
Farming.

Question 3.
What capital is needed as first priority to set up a jaggery manufacturing unit?
Answer:
Fixed capital.

Question 4.
Give a few examples of fixed capital.
Answer:
Tools, machines and building.

Question 5.
Name any one item of working capital.
Answer:
Money.

Question 6.
Give an example of an entity which is not a part of fixed capital.
Answer:
Cash amount.

Question 7.
Give two examples of the working capital.
Answer:

• Raw materials,
• Money in hand.

Question 8.
What do raw materials and money in hand call?
Answer:
The working capital.

Question 9.
The clay used by a potter is an example of which type of capital?
Answer:
Working capital.

Question 10.
Why is it important to use land very carefully?
Answer:
Land is a natural resource, once destroyed it is very difficult to restore it.

Question 11.
What are rabi crops?
Answer:
The crops which are grown in the winter season i.e., November or December and harvested in summer i.e., April or May. For example, wheat.

Question 12.
What are kharif crops?
Answer:
The crops which are grown in the rainy season i.e., June or July and harvested in October or November. For example, rice.

Question 13.
Farmer’s plough is an example of which factors of production?
Answer:
Capital.

Question 14.
Which is the most abundant factor of production?
Answer:
Labour.

Question 15.
What is physical capital?
Answer:
Physical capital includes variety of inputs required at every stage during production like machines, raw material etc.

Question 16.
What are different categories of physical capital?
Answer:

• Fixed capital,
• Working capital.

Question 17.
Categorise the following as fixed capital or working capital:
(i) Cotton,
(ii) Machine.
Answer:
(i) Cotton — Working capital,
(ii) Machine — Fixed capital.

Question 18.
Which term is used for production for self-consumption?
Answer:
Subsistence farming.

Question 19.
Enumerate a few effects of modem farming method.
Answer:
Soil degradation, reduced water table below the ground and water pollution.

Question 20.
Mention any two natural factors of production.
Answer:
Land, forests, water, minerals etc.

Question 21.
What is a market?
Answer:
It is a place where goods and services can be sold.

Question 22.
Define yield.
Answer:
Crop produced on a given piece of land during a single season.

Question 23.
Who provides capital to the small farmers at high rate of interest?
Answer:
Large farmers, village moneylender or the traders.

Question 24.
What does HYV stand for?
Answer:
High Yielding Varieties (HYV).

Question 25.
“The yield of food grains hectare is high in Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh”. Give two reasons. HOTS
Answer:

• Use of HYV seeds.
• Use of tubewells for irrigation.

Question 26.
Which are the prime requirement for production of goods and services?
Answer:
Market.

Question 27.
Write down the names of the crops that were promoted by Green Revolution.
Answer:
Cultivation of wheat and rice.

Question 28.
During which season do farmers of Palampur grow jo war and bajra?
Answer:
Rainy season.

Question 29.
At present, what is the percentage of the people who are engaged in the rural areas in non-farming activities in India?
Answer:
24%.

Question 30.
What is the basic constraint in raising farm production?
Answer:
The basic constraint in raising farm productions land which is a fixed factor of production.

Question 31.
What is Green Revolution? HOTS
Answer:
The great increase in the production of food grains in our country during the last 40 years, due to use of high yielding variety (HYV) of seeds, and other inputs is known as the Green Revolution.

Question 32.
What was production of pulses and wheat in 2010-11?
Answer:
Pulses – 18 MT, Wheat – 86 MT.

Question 33.
Mention any two non-farm activities.
Answer:
Dairy and transport.

Question 34.
Name any two states which benefited from the Green Revolution.
Answer:

• Punjab,
• Haryana.

Question 35.
Mention any two factors responsible for the low yield of foodgrains in India.
Answer:

•  Old technology,
• Small land holdings.

Question 36.
Which of the following is not used in modem farming?
Answer:
Ploughs.

Question 37.
Which is the best way to expand non-farm activities in a village?
Answer:
Better transportation, availability of loan at low interest, availability of markets where goods can be sold are the best way to expand non-farming activities.

Question 38.
In which period is the cultivation of potato done?
Answer:
October to December.

Question 39.
In which type of activity is dairy farming included?
Answer:
Primary activity.

Question 40.
Which state in India has the highest consumption of chemical fertilizers?
Answer:
Punjab.

Question 41.
Scientific reports indicate that the modem farming methods have overused the land. Explain by giving examples.
Answer:

• The soil is losing fertility due to increased use of chemical fertilizers,
• The continuous use of groundwater from tubewell irrigation has reduced the water table.

Question 42.
What is multiple cropping?
Answer:
To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is known as multiple cropping.

Question 43.
Name any two methods to increase production in agriculture.
Answer:

• By using HYV seeds,
• By irrigation.

Question 44.
Which capital is known as working capital?
Answer:
Raw materials and money in hand are called the working capital.

Question 45.
Which is the most important economic activity of the people of rural India?
Answer:
Farming.

Question 46.
Mention the standard unit for measuring the area of land.
Answer:
Hectare.

Question 47.
“Many people belonging to SCs (dalits) are discriminated in village.” Justify giving a reason.
Answer:
SCs live in one corner of the village and in much smaller houses.

Question 48.
What is production? Give an example.
Answer:
Production is the creation of value in a commodity. For example, manufacturing of a car from steel.

The Story of Village Palampur Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define the meaning and aim of production.
Answer:
Production is the creation of value in a commodity, e.g., manufacturing of a car from steel.
Aim: The aim of production is to produce the goods and services that we want. There are four requirements for production of goods and services: Land, labour, physical capital and human capital.

Question 2.
Mention three characteristics of traditional method of farming,
Answer:

• Traditional seeds with low yield were used.
• Cow-dung and natural manures were used.
• Less irrigation was required.

Question 3.
Explain the problems which arise due to unequal distribution of land.
Answer:

• Economic Inequality: Unequal distribution of land leads to economic inequality.
• Unemployment: It leads to unemployment.
• Poverty and Hunger: Lack of economic opportunities leads to poverty and hunger.

Question 4.
Describe the role of human capital in the production process. Name two investment that can improve the quality of human capital.
Answer:

• Human capital can be built only in the long run through education and training.
• Human capital includes competent and trained people who put together land, capital and other factors of production to produce goods.

Question 5.
Farmers of which two states were the first to use modem farming methods in India? Mention any four positive effects of it. MOTS
Answer:
(i) The farmers of Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh were the first to use modem farming methods in India.
(ii) (a) Modern farming methods increased the productivity of land.
(b) It increases foodgrain production in the country.
(c) It brought the Green Revolution in the 1960s which resulted in high increase in the production of cereal grains, particularly, wheat and rice.
(d) It has played a very important role in food security.
(e) It has led to growth of agro-based industries.

Question 6.
Write any three differences between land and capital.
Answer:

Question 7.
‘Capital is a basic need in agriculture.’ How is it arranged by Indian farmers? Explain.
Answer:

• Most of the small farmers borrow money from the moneylenders or traders to arrange the capital.
• The moneylenders and traders charge a high rate of interest from the farmers.
• Medium and large farmers have their own savings from the farming.
• They also get loans from the banks.

Question 8.
What problems do farm labourers face in terms of unemployment? Explain any three problems. HOTS
Answer:
Problems of Farm Labourers:

• They come either from landless families or families cultivating small plots of land.
• They do not have a right over the crops grown on the land.
• They got wages in cash or in kind.
• Wages vary widely from region to region and from crop-to-crop etc.
• Wide variation in the duration of employment was also seen, (any three)

Question 9.
Mention any four characteristics of an entrepreneur or human capital as a factor of production.
Answer:

• It is a factor of production which combines or arranges all the factors of production to produce.
• It is an active factor of production.
• It produces goods and services for self-consumption or to sell in the market.
• It is the most important factor of production.

Question 10.
How do small farmers obtain capital for farming? What is its consequence? Explain.
Answer:
Most small farmers have to borrow money to arrange for the capital. They borrow from large farmers or the moneylenders or the traders whd supply various inputs for cultivation.
Consequence:
The rate of interest on such loans is very high. The small farmers are put to great distress to repay the loan.

Question 11.
Describe any three features of small-scale manufacturing as a non-farm activity in Palampur.
Answer:

• Less than 50 people are engaged in manufacturing in Palampur.
• Manufacturing in Palampur involves very simple production methods and are done on a small-scale.
• Manufacturing activities are carried out mostly at home or in the fields with the help of family labour. Labourers are hired rarely.

Question 12.
How do the medium and large farmers make their own savings and how do they utilize it? Explain.
Answer:
The medium and large farmers have surplus production even after keeping a substantial part for their own family needs. They sell it in the market and have good earnings and save it in their bank accounts. They utilize their savings:

• By lending to small farmers who are in need of a loan.
• As working capital for farming in the next season.
• As fixed capital for buying tractors etc.

Question 13.
What factors have led to the reduction of water level in Palampur?
Answer:

• Continuous use of groundwater for tubewell irrigation has reduced the water table below the ground.
• While environmental resources like soil fertility and groundwater are built-up over many years. So, once destroyed, it is very difficult to restore them.
• Misuse of groundwater is another important factor for lowering of water table.

Question 14.
Describe any three sources of irrigation in Palampur.
Answer:

• Persian wheel is the main source of irrigation in Palampur.
• Well is also a source of irrigation.
• Tubewells are also important sources of irrigation. These are run by electric supply.

Question 15.
State any two features of modem farming method.
Answer:
Its main features were:

• Use of tube wells for irrigation.
• Use of HYV seeds.
• Chemical fertilizers.
• Pesticides.
• Farm machinery such as tractors, threshers, etc. (any two)

Question 16.
Explain any two differences between physical capital and human capital.
Answer:
Differences:

• Physical capital has variety of inputs while human capital is labours, using those inputs.
• Physical captial includes tools, machines can be used over the years while human capital can produce output only it they have experience.

Question 17.
What is modem farming methods? Explain its drawbacks.
Answer:
It is a scientific way of increasing the production. Under this, production is increased by using HYV seeds and other inputs.
Drawbacks:

• It is used by rich farmers as it requires more inputs.
• Loss of soil fertility due to increased use of chemical fertilizers.
• Continuous use of groundwater for tubewell irrigation has reduced the water table below the ground.

Question 18.
Describe the role of the farmers after the crops are harvested and production is complete.
Answer:
Role of the Farmer:

• The farmers retain a part of the crop for their family consumption and sell the surplus in the market.
• The small farmers grow the crops just to fulfil the needs of the family. So, they do not have any surplus to sell in the market.
• The big farmers make big earnings by selling main crops in the market.
• They sell the crops and earn huge profit on them.

Question 19.
How many crops are grown by the farmers in Palampur? How are they able to grow these different crops in a year?
Answer:
(i) The farmers in Palampur grow jowar and bajra during the rainy season, potato between October and December and wheat in the winter season.
(ii) (a) There is the well-developed system of irrigation in Palampur that enables the farmers there to grow three different crops in a year.
(b) Electricity came early to Palampur. Its major impact was to transform the system of irrigation in the village.
(c) By mid-1970s, the entire area of 200 hectares was irrigated.
(d) Modern farming methods and the Green Revolution introduced HYV seeds.

Question 20.
Why was the initial impact of Green Revolution limited to wheat and only to a few regions?
Answer:

• It was limited to wheat because HYV seeds were available only for wheat.
• Its impact was limited only to few regions as the HYV seeds need higher inputs which only the rich farmers can afford.
• HYV seeds need assured means of irrigation which were available only in northern parts of India.

Question 21.
How are traditional seeds different from HYV seeds?
Answer:

Question 22.
“Most of our villages have good infrastructure.” Justify. VSQ
Answer:

• Most of the villages are well connected with other neighboring villages or town through all weathered roads.
• Most of the Indian villages have primary schools, health centers etc.
• Many kinds of means of transport are available like motorcycles, jeeps, tractors, tongas etc.

Question 23.
Why do people migrate? Explain.
Answer:
People migrate from one region to another:

• In search of better jobs.
• For better living conditions.
• For higher education.

The Story of Village Palampur Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of ‘Physical Capital’. Explain its two types with the help of suitable examples.
Or
What is physical capital? What are its different types?
Answer:
Physical capital is the variety of inputs required at every stage during production. Its two different types are as follows:
(i) Fixed Capital: It can be used in production over many years. For example, tools, generator, turbines, buildings, computers etc.
(ii) Worldng Capital: Raw materials and money in hand are called Working Capital. Production requires a variety of raw material such as yarn used by the weaver and clay used by the potter. Some money is always required during production to make payments and buy other necessary items.

Question 2.
What is land? Suggest any three ways to sustain land.
Answer:
(i) Land is the basic natural, resource required as a factor or an input in any production activity. Various activities or human activities take place on land which is a fixed asset.
(ii) (a) Land is a free gift of nature. So, it is necessary that we should be very careful in its use. We must avoid pollution of land.
(b) Soil is a vital part of land and the basis of agricultural activities. So, it becomes necessary that we should use bio-compost and eco-friendly methods in place of using chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
(c) We have to see that the Modern Farming Methods are used scientifically in such a way that the natural resource base that the land provides is saved from further damage.
(d) Some farming practices can, if used carefully and judiciously, certainly help in making land sustainable. Such practices include intensity of cropping, rotation of crops, multiple cropping, fallowing etc.
(e) We should give encouragement to community agriculture system or cooperative farming, instead of individual farming which is often exploitative. This could be another sustaining land productivity.

Question 3.
How do large farmers utilise surplus farm products to arrange for the capital needed for farming?
Answer:

• The large farmers generally sell the surplus farm products and have good earnings.
• They put most of their earnings or money in their bank accounts and get adequate interest on the same.
• A part of their earnings is saved and kept to arrange for the working capital for farming in the next season.
• They also use savings for lending to small farmers and other persons in the village.
• A part of their earnings is used to increase their fixed capital like tractor, thresher, cattle etc.

Question 4.
Distinguish between Fixed, Working and Human Capital.
Answer:

Question 5.
What is the difference between Rabi crops and Kharif crops? When are they sown and harvested? Mention some necessary conditions for multiple cropping.
Answer:

• Kharif crops are grown in the rainy season. They are sown in June-July and harvested in October-November. Farmers in Palampur mainly grow jowar and bajra which are used as cattle feed.
• Rabi crops are grown in the winter season. They are sown in . October-November and harvested mainly in March-April. Wheat is the main crop grown in this season.
• Necessary Conditions for Multiple Cropping:
  • Adequate irrigation facilities should be available on land.
  • Farmers should also have sufficient capital to invest and meet farm expenses.

Question 6.
Explain the distribution of workforce engaged in non-farming activities in the rural areas. Suggest some measures to increase non-farming activities.
Or
Explain any four efforts which can be made to increase non-farming production activities in villages.
Answer:
25% of the total workforce is engaged in non-farming activities. Measures to Increase Non-farming Activities:

• Infrastructure: Infrastructure includes building of roads, establishing of banks and improving communication. All these are basic inputs for economic development.
• Expansion of Market: To increase non-farming activities, rural markets should be linked to urban markets.
• Education and Health: Improvement in education will lead to human capital formation.
• Cheap Loan: Non-farming activities can be promoted by providing cheap and affordable loan to the farmers.

Question 7.
State any five reasons as to why farm labourers are considered poor. –
Answer:

• Farm labourers are generally landless.
• They have no permanent jobs. They have to look for work on daily basis.
• They are not even paid minimum wages. The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is ₹ 60 per day, but they get only?
• They have large family.
• They are illiterate, unhealthy and unskilled.

Question 8.
Why do modern farming methods require more capital? Explain.
Answer:

• Modem farming methods need inputs like chemical fertilizers, pesticides, tractors etc. which are manufactured in industry. So, they require the farmer to start with more cash than before.
• In modem farming methods, HYV seeds are used which require more irrigation.
• In traditional method, the farmers use cow-dung as natural fertilizer, which they do not need to buy while chemical fertilizers need more cash to buy from the market.
• Modem farming is machine-oriented. Hence, farmers need more capital to purchase them.
• To operate the machines, semi-skilled or skilled manpower is required which need more investments.

Question 9.
State three reasons of the variation in the wages of farm laboures all over India.
Answer:
There is a wide variation in the wages of farm laboures in the country. They generally get the wages less than the minimum wages set by the government. The reasons of the variation in the farm wages are as follows.:

• The farm labourers come either from landless families or the families cultivating small plots of land. They are poor and helpless. They work on daily wages. They regularly have to look for work. Since there is heavy competition for work among the farm labourers in the country, these labourers agree to work for less than the minimum wages.
• Most agricultural labourers are from low castes and the depressed classes. They have little courage to challenge the upper caste people.
• Farm labourers are generally illiterate and ignorant. They are not organised in unions. So, it is difficult for them to bargain with the landowners and secure good wages.

Question 10.
Explain the basic requirements for the production of goods and services. Which one is the most important?
Answer:
(i) Land: Land is the most important factor of production. It is required for growing crops, building factories and infrastructure. The first requirement is land. We also need other natural resources such as water, forests, minerals etc.

(ii) Labour: The second requirement is labour, i.e., people who will do the work. Different production activities require different types of workers, such as highly educated, skilled or those doing some manual work. Each worker provides labour necessary for production.

(iii) Physical Capital: The third requirement is physical capital, comprising various inputs required during production. It has two components. Tools, machines and buildings fall under ‘fixed capital’.
They can be used in production for many years. Raw materials and money in hand are called working capital. These are used up in production.

(iv) Human Capital: The fourth requirement is the human capital. Knowledge and enterprise are needed to put together land, labour and physical capital in order to produce an output.

Question 11.
Define Green Revolution. How is Green Revolution different from traditional farming?
Answer:
Large increase in agriculture production after 1967-68 due to the adoption of new agriculture strategy which implied a simultaneous use of better and modem agriculture inputs. Green Revolution involves the introduction of high yielding varieties of seeds. It also encompasses the use of fertilizers and irrigation techniques that increases the production and make countries like India self-sufficient in food grains. So, this technique is mainly used to improve the status of agriculture. It was brought in India by the initiative of Indian government. Dr. Norman Borlaug brought high yielding wheat in India. M.S. Swaminathan and his team also contributed towards the success of Green Revolution in India. Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh are the main regions where Green Revolution was started.

Difference between Green Revolution and Traditional Farming: Green Revolution refers to the use of artificial fertilizers, technology, high yielding variety seeds which are genetically engineered. Traditional farming emphasises on the use of natural seeds and fertilizers.

• Till the mid-1960s, the seeds used in cultivation were traditional ones with relatively low yields.
• Traditional seeds needed less irrigation. Farmers used cow-dung and other natural manure as fertilizers.
• All these were readily available with the farmers who did not have to buy them.
• The Green Revolution in the late 1960s introduced the Indian farmer to cultivation of wheat and rice using High Yielding Varieties (HYVs) of seeds.
• Compared to the traditional seeds, the HYV seeds promised to produce much greater amounts of grain on a single plant. As a result the same piece of land would now produce far larger quantities of foodgrains than was possible earlier. HYV seeds, however, needed plenty.

Question 12.
Describe the significance of Green Revolution in Indian economy.
Answer:
The Green Revolution has two types of effects on Indian economy, namely (i) economic effect’s and (ii) sociological effects.
(i) Economic Effects:
(a) Increase in Agricultural Production and Productivity:
Due to adoption of HYV technology the production of foodgrains increased considerably in the country. The production of wheat has increased from 8.8 million tones in 1965-66 to 184 million tons in 1991-92. The productivity of other food grains has increased considerably. It was 71% in case of cereals, 104% for i wheat and 52% for paddy over the period 1965-66 and 1989-90.

(b) Employment: The new agricultural technology has created more amounts of employment opportunities in the agricultural sector. The new technology is early maturing and makes multiple cropping possible.

(c) Market Orientation: The new technology has made the farmers market- oriented. Due to excess production the farmers have to go to the market for selling their surplus production.

(ii) Sociological Effects:
(a) Personal Inequalities: Due to Green Revolution the income of rich farmers increased considerably whereas the poor farmers couldn’t reap any benefit. This led to a class conflict between the rich and the poor farmers. The small and marginal farmers were deprived of enjoying the gains of new technology.

(b) Regional Inequality: The new technology was successfully implemented in the wheat-producing belt of the country whereas the rice producing zones were not at all affected by this Green Revolution. Hence, the disparity between the two regions increased considerably. Further Green Revolution became successful in irrigated areas whereas, in the rained belt the new technology couldn’t be properly implemented.

Question 13.
Where and why has the Green Revolution been started in India? Give advantages and disadvantages of the Green Revolution.
Answer:
Green Revolution involves the introduction of high yielding varieties of seeds. It also encompasses the use of fertilizers and irrigation techniques that increases the production and make countries like India self-sufficient in foodgrains. So, this technique is mainly used to improve the status of agriculture. It was brought in India by the I initiative of Indian government. Dr. Norman Borlaug brought high yielding wheat in India.

M.S. Swaminathan and his team also contributed towards the success of Green Revolution in India. Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh are ; the main regions where green Revolution was started.
Advantages / Merits of Green Revolution:

• The HYV seeds produce much greater amount of grains in comparison to the normal seeds.
• It has increased the production on the same pieces of land which produces large quantities of food grains than it was produced earlier.

Disadvantages / Demerits of Green Revolution:

• Poor farmers are unable to afford HYV seeds, fertilizers and machineries.
• This may lead to an end with large debts.
• HYV seeds need more fertilizers and water and they are expensive.
• Since Green Revolution introduced new machineries, it led to the replacement of labour, and further leading to unemployment and rural-urban migration.
• It was limited to rice and wheat only.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post The Story of Village Palampur Class 9 Important Questions Economics Chapter 1 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Congruence of Triangles Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 7

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 7 Congruence of Triangles

Congruence of Triangles Class 7 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
In the given figure, name
(a) the side opposite to vertex A
(b) the vertex opposite A to side AB
(c) the angle opposite to side AC
(d) the angle made by the sides CB and CA.

Solution:
(a) The side opposite to vertex A is BC.
(b) The vertex opposite to side AB is C.
(c) The angle opposite to side AB is ∠ACB.
(d) The angle made by the sides CB and CA is ∠ACB.

Question 2.
Examine whether the given triangles are congruent or not.
Solution:
Here,
AB = DE = 3 cm
BC = DF = 3.5 cm
AC = EF = 4.5 cm
ΔABC = ΔEDF (By SSS rule)

So, ΔABC and ΔEDF are congruent.

Question 3.
In the given congruent triangles under ASA, find the value of x and y, ΔPQR = ΔSTU.

Solution:
Given: ΔPQR = ΔSTU (By ASA rule)
∠Q = ∠T = 60° (given)
= = 4 cm (given)
∠x = 30° (for ASA rule)
Now in ΔSTU,
∠S + ∠T + ∠U = 180° (Angle sum property)
∠y + 60° + ∠x = 180°
∠y + 60° + 30° = 180°
∠y + 90° = 180°
∠y = 180° – 90° = 90°
Hence, x = 30° and y = 90°.

Question 4.
In the following figure, show that ΔPSQ = ΔPSR.

Solution:
In ΔPSQ and ΔPSR
= = 6.5 cm (Given)
= (Common)
∠PSQ = ∠PSR = 90° (Given)
ΔPSQ = ΔPSR (By RHS rule)

Question 5.
Can two equilateral triangles always be congruent? Give reasons.
Solution:
No, any two equilateral triangles are not always congruent.
Reason: Each angle of an equilateral triangle is 60° but their corresponding sides cannot always be the same.

Question 6.
In the given figure, AP = BQ, PR = QS. Show that ΔAPS = ΔBQR

Solution:
In ΔAPS and ΔBQR
AP = BQ (Given)
PR = QS (Given)
PR + RS = QS + RS (Adding RS to both sides)
PS = QR
∠APS = ∠BQR = 90° (Given)
ΔAPS = ΔBQR (by SAS rule)

Question 7.
Without drawing the figures of the triangles, write all six pairs of equal measures in each of the following pairs of congruent triangles.
(i) ΔABC = ADEF
(ii) ΔXYZ = ΔMLN
Solution:
(i) Given: ΔABC = ΔDEF
Here AB = DE
BC = EF
AC = DF
∠A = ∠D, ∠B = ∠E and ∠C = ∠F
(ii) Given ΔXYZ = ΔMLN
Here XY = ML
YZ = LN
XZ = MN
∠X = ∠M, ∠Y = ∠L and ∠Z = ∠N

Question 8.
Lengths of two sides of an isosceles triangle are 5 cm and 8 cm, find the perimeter of the triangle.
Solution:
Since the lengths of any two sides of an isosceles triangle are equal, then
Case I: The three sides of the triangle are 5 cm, 5 cm and 8 cm.
Perimeter of the triangle = 5 cm + 5 cm + 8 cm = 18 cm
Case II: The three sides of the triangle are 5 cm, 8 cm and 8 cm.
Perimeter of the triangle = 5 cm + 8 cm + 8 cm = 21 cm
Hence, the required perimeter is 18 cm or 21 cm.

Question 9.
Write the rule of congruence in the following pairs of congruent triangles.

Solution:
(i) Here, AB = ST = 3 cm
BC = TU = 4.5 cm
∠ABC = ∠STU = 110°
ΔABC = ΔSTU (By SAS rule)
(ii) Here ∠PQR = ∠MNL = 90°
hypt. PR = hypt. ML
QR = NL = 3 cm
ΔPQR = ΔMNL (By RHS rule)

Question 10.
In the given figure, state the rule of congruence followed by congruent triangles LMN and ONM.

Solution:
In ΔLMN and ΔONM
LM = ON
LN = OM
MN = NM
ΔLMN = ΔONM

Congruence of Triangles Class 7 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 11.
In the given figure, PQR is a triangle in which PQ = PR. QM and RN are the medians of the triangle. Prove that
(i) ΔNQR = ΔMRQ
(ii) QM = RN
(iii) ΔPMQ = ΔPNR

Solution:
ΔPQR is an isosceles triangle. [∵ PQ = PR]
⇒ PQ = PR
⇒ NQ = MR and PN = PM
(i) In ΔNQR and ΔMRQ
NQ = MR (Half of equal sides)
∠NQR = ∠MRQ (Angles opposite to equal sides)
QR = RQ (Common)
ΔNQR = ΔMRQ (By SAS rule)
(ii) QM = RN (Congruent parts of congruent triangles)
(iii) In ΔPMQ and ΔPNR
PN = PM (Half of equal sides)
PR = PQ (Given)
∠P = ∠P (Common)
ΔPMQ = ΔPNR (By SAS rule)

Question 12.
In the given figure, PQ = CB, PA = CR, ∠P = ∠C. Is ΔQPR = ΔBCA? If yes, state the criterion of congruence.

Solution:
Given:
PQ = CB, PA = CR
and ∠P = ∠C
In ΔQPR and ΔBCA,
PQ = CB (Given)
∠QPR = ∠BCA (Given)
PA = CR (Given)
PA + AR = CR + AR (Adding AR to both sides)
or PR = CA
ΔQPR = ΔBCA (By SAS rule)

Question 13.
In the given figure, state whether ΔABC = ΔEOD or not. If yes, state the criterion of congruence.

Solution:
In ΔABC and ΔEOD
AB = OE
∠ABC = ∠EOD = 90°
AC = ED
ΔABC = ΔEOD
Hence, ΔABC = ΔEOD
RHS is the criterion of congruence.

Question 14.
In the given figure, PQ || RS and PQ = RS. Prove that ΔPUQ = ΔSUR.

Solution:
In ΔPUQ and ΔSUR
PQ = SR = 4 cm
∠UPQ = ∠USR (Alternate interior angles)
∠PQU = ∠SRU (Alternate interior angles)
ΔPUQ = ΔSUR (By ASA rule)

Congruence of Triangles Class 7 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 15.
In the given figure ΔBAC = ΔQRP by SAS criterion of congruence. Find the value of x and y.

Solution:
Given: ΔBAC = ΔQRP (By SAS rule)
So, BA = QR
⇒ 3x + 10 = 5y + 15 ……(i)
∠BAC = ∠QRP
⇒ 2x + 15° = 5x – 60° ……(ii)
From eq. (ii), we have
2x + 15 = 5x – 60
⇒ 2x – 5x = -15 – 60
⇒ -3x = -7 5
⇒ x = 25
From eq. (i), we have
3x + 10 = 5y + 15
⇒ 3 × 25 + 10 = 5y + 15
⇒ 75 + 10 = 5y + 15
⇒ 85 = 5y + 15
⇒ 85 – 15 = 5y
⇒ 70 = 5y
⇒ y = 14
Hence, the required values of x andy are 25 and 14 respectively.

Question 16.
Observe the figure and state the three pairs of equal parts in triangles ABC and DCB.
(i) Is ΔABC = ΔDCB? Why?
(ii) Is AB = DC? Why?
(iii) Is AC = DB? Why? (NCERT Exemplar)

Solution:
(i) In ΔABC and ΔDCB
∠ABC = ∠DCB = 70° (40° + 30° = 70°) (Given)
∠ACB = ∠DCB = 30° (Given)
BC = CB (Common)
ΔABC = ΔDCB (By ASA rule)
(ii) Yes,
AB = DC (Congruent parts of congruent triangles)
(iii) Yes,
AC = DB (Congruent parts of congruent triangles)

Question 17.
In the given figure, ΔQPS = ΔSRQ. Find each value.
(a) x
(b) ∠PQS
(c) ∠PSR

Solution:
(a) ΔQPS = ΔSRQ
∠QPS = ∠SRQ (Congruent part of congruent triangles)
106 = 2x + 12
⇒ 106 – 12 = 2x
⇒ 94 = 2x
⇒ x = 47
∠QRS = 2 × 47 + 12 = 94 + 12 = 106°
So, PQRS is a parallelogram.
∠QSR = 180° – (42° + 106°) = 180° – 148° = 32°
(b) ∠PQS = 32° (alternate interior angles)
(c) ∠PSQ = 180° – (∠QPS + ∠PQS) = 180° – (106° + 32°) = 180° – 138° = 42°
∠PSR = 32° + 42° = 74°

Congruence of Triangles Class 7 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Type

Question 18.
In ΔABC, medians BD and CE are equal and intersect each other at O. Prove that ΔABC is an isosceles triangle.

Solution:
We know that the medians of a triangle intersect each other in the ratio 2 : 1.
BD = CE (Given)
BD = CE
⇒ OB = OC
BD = CE
⇒ OE = OD
In ΔBOE and ΔCOD,
OB = OC
OE = OD
∠BOE = ∠COD (Vertically opposite angles)
ΔBOE = ΔCOD (By SAS rule)
BE = CD (Congruent parts of congruent triangles)
2BE = 2CD
⇒ AB = AC
Hence ΔABC is an isosceles triangle.

Question 19.
Prove that the lengths of altitudes drawn to equal sides of an isosceles triangle are also equal.
(i) ∠TRQ = ∠SQR?
(ii) If ∠TRQ = 30°, find the base angles of the ΔPQR.
(iii) Is ΔPQR an equilateral triangle?

Solution:
In ΔQTR and ΔRSQ
∠QTR = ∠RSQ = 90° (Given)
∠TQR = ∠SRQ (Base angle of an isosceles triangle)
∠QRT = ∠RQS (Remaining third angles)
QR = QR (Common)
ΔQTR = ΔRSQ (By ASA rule)
QS = RT (Congruent parts of congruent triangles)
Hence proved.
(i) ∠TRQ = ∠SQR (Congruent parts of congruent triangles)
(ii) In ΔQTR,
∠TRQ = 30° (Given)
∠QTR + ∠TQR + ∠QRT = 180° (Angle sum property)
⇒ 90° + ∠TQR + 30° = 180°
⇒ 120° + ∠TQR = 180°
⇒ ∠TQR = 180° – 120° = 60°
⇒ ∠TQR = ∠SRQ = 60°
Each base angle = 60°
(iii) In ΔPQR,
∠P + ∠Q + ∠R = 180° (Angle sum property)
⇒ ∠P + 60° + 60° = 180° (From ii)
⇒ ∠P + 120° = 180°
⇒ ∠P = 180° – 120° = 60°
Hence, ΔPQR is an equilateral triangle.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths

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People as Resource Class 9 Important Questions Social Science Economics Chapter 2

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource

People as Resource Class 9 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is human capital?
Answer:
Human capital is the stock of skilled and productive work force of a nation.

Question 2.
How can the population of a nation becomes human capital?
Answer:
Population of a nation becomes human capital through education, training and medical care.

Question 3.
Which type of investment is known as human capital investment?
Answer:
The investment made in the form of education, training and medical care is known as human capital investment.

Question 4.
How is human capital superior to other resources?
Or
Why is human resource considered to be the best resource? Explain.
Answer:
Human capital can make use of land and capital for further production, whereas land and capital cannot become useful on its own.

Question 5.
Name any four factors which can improve the quality of human resources.
Answer:

• Education,
• Health,
• Training,
• Technology.

Question 6.
Mention any four factors on which the quality of population depends.
Answer:

• Literacy rate,
• Health,
• Life expectancy,
• Skill.

Question 7.
‘Countries like Japan did not have any natural resources, still they are developed countries.’Give reasons.
Answer:

• They have invested on people especially in the field of education and health.
• The skilled and trained people have made efficient use of other resources like land and capital. Efficiency and technology evolved by people have made these countries rich/developed.

Question 8.
The various economic activities have been classified into three sectors? What are these sectors?
Answer:

• Primary,
• Secondary,
• Tertiary.

Question 9.
Give two examples of primary sector.
Answer:

• Agriculture,
• Foresty.

Question 10.
Which sector (in the primary sector) is the most labour absorbing sector of the economy? ‘
Answer:
Agriculture.

Question 11.
Give two examples of secondary sector.
Answer:

• Manufacturing of cloth.
• Manufacturing of car.

Question 12.
A person is making envelopes with the help of papers. In which sector his activity be included?
Answer:
Secondary sector

Question 13.
Give two examples of tertiary sector.
Answer:

• Trace,
• Transportation.

Question 14.
What are market activities?
Answer:
The activities which involve remuneration to anyone who performs, i.e., activities performed for pay or profit. For example, growing of cotton by a farmer.

Question 15.
What are determinants of the earning of any individual in the1’ market? ‘
Answer:

• Education,
• Skill.

Question 16.
State an example of a non-market activity.
Or
Give an example of a non-economic activity.
Answer:
A mother cooking food for her family.

Question 17.
What is the term used for production for self-consumption?
Answer:
Non-market activity.

Question 18.
What are non-market activities?
Answer:
These are activities which are performed for self consumption. For example, growing of wheat by a farmer.

Question 19.
What is infant mortality rate?
Answer:
Infant mortality rate is the death of a child under one year of age.

Question 20.
What is birth rate?
Answer:
Birth rate is the number of babies bom there for every 1000 people during a particular period of time.

Question 21.
What is death rate?
Answer:
Death rate is the number of people per 1000 who die during a particular period of time.

Question 22.
What does increase in unemployment indicate?
Answer:
Depressed economy.

Question 23.
What is the most labour absorbing sector of economy?
Answer:
Agriculture.

Question 24.
In which sector is disguised unemployment mostly found?
Answer:
Agriculture sector.

Question 25.
What is meant by seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
Seasonal unemployment happens when people are not able to find jobs during some months of the year. For example, workers working in sugar mills get employment only for four or five months in a year.

Question 26.
State the two types of unemployment existing in rural India.
Answer:
Seasonal and disguised unemployment.

Question 27.
What name has been given to the unemployment when people do not find job dining some months of a year?
Answer:
Seasonal unemployment.

Question 28.
A work requires the services of five people but engages eight people. Which type of unemployment is this?
Answer:
Disguised unemployment.

Question 29.
What type of unemployment is found in agriculture? Mention any one feature of this type of unemployment. HOTS
Answer:
Disguised unemployment is found in agriculture.
Under this, people appear to be employed, but actually they are not.

Question 30.
How unemployment problem differs in rural areas?
Answer:
In case of rural areas there is seasonal and disguised unemployment whereas urban areas have educated unemployment

Question 31.
Which type of unemployment is common in urban areas?
Or
Which type of unemployment is found in urban areas?
Answer:
Educated unemployment.

Question 32.
Which Asian country invested the most part of resources on people, the especially in the field of education and health?
Answer:
Japan.

Question 33.
What do you call shifting of labourers from rural area to urban area in search of work?
Answer:
Migration.

Question 34.
‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’ is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all children of which age group?
Answer:
6-14 years.

People as Resource Class 9 Important Questions Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How has human capital formation helped India?
Answer:

• It increases people’s level of productivity and efficiency as well as the productive power of the country.
• It has added to skilled labour force of India.
• Millions of skilled workers are working in other countries. They earn foreign exchange for us.

Question 2.
How is human resource different from other factors of production? Explain it in three points.
Answer:

• It is living active factor of production.
• It extracts work and activates other factors.
• It works as labour, management and entrepreneur.

Question 3.
Which is the most labour absorbing sector of the Indian economy? What trend has been recently noticed in terms of dependence of population on this sector and what is the reason for that?
Answer:

• Agriculture is the most labour absorbing sector of the Indian economy.
• In recent years, there has been a decline in dependence of population on agriculture. This decline is mainly due to:
  • Disguised unemployment.
  • Surplus labour in agriculture has moved to either the Secondary or Tertiary Sector.

Question 4.
“Employment structure is characterised by self-employment in the primary sector.” Explain the statement.
Answer:

• The whole family contributes in the field even though not everybody is really needed. So, there is disguised unemployment in the agriculture sector.
• All the family also have a share in what has been produced.
• The concept of sharing of work in the field and the produce raised reduces the hardship of unemployment in the rural areas. But, this does not reduce the poverty of the family.

Question 5.
Explain the ways of investment of Human Resources that can give high returns in future.
Answer:
Three ways of investment in development of Human Resource are:

• Through Education.
• Through Medical Care.
• New technology.
• Providing training to use new technology. ,
• They can discover new methods of increasing production.
• Acquired knowledge is well-invested in new fields like IT.

Question 6.
How are working conditions for women in unorganised sector different from those in the organised sector? Explain.
Answer:

• The woman working in unorganised sector has lower wages than that in organised sector. This is because organised sector requires education and skill.
• Jobs are low paid and often not regular. Workers can be removed at any time without assigning reason. This is not the case in the organised sector.
• In unorganised sector, there is absence of basic facilities like maternity leaves, child care etc. while in the organise sector, these facilities are available.

Question 7.
Explain how investment in education creates the virtuous cycle of human development.
Or
What does a Virtuous cycle’ created by the educated parents mean? Explain. HOTS
Answer:

• A child, too, with investments made on her/ his education and health can yield a high return in future and contribute more to society.
• Educated parents invest more heavily on the education of their children.
• This is because, they realize the importance of education.
• They are also conscious of proper nutrition and hygiene.
• A virtuous cycle is, thus, created.

Question 8.
Why do educated parents invest more heavily on their children’s education? Give three reasons.
Answer:

• They realize the importance of education.
• They are conscious of proper nutrition and hygiene.
• Educated parents have more income as compared to illiterate parents.

Question 9.
Explain three problems of educated unemployment in urban areas.
Answer:
Problems:

• Many youth with matriculation, graduation and post-graduation degrees are not able to find job.
• Unemployment of graduate and post-graduate has increased faster than among matriculates.
• A paradoxical manpower situation is witnessed as surplus of manpower in certain categories co-exist with shortage of manpower in others.
• There is unemployment among technically qualified persons bn one hand while there is a dearth of technical skills.

Question 10.
What is seasonal unemployment? What are the factors responsible for seasonal unemployment?
Answer:
It is a type of unemployment in which a worker is employed during some months of the year (especially, during harvesting or the sowing season), anti remains without work during the rest of the year.
Factors:

• Lack of small-scale and cottage industries in rural areas.
• Lack of multiple cropping. .
• Lack of commercialisation of agriculture.

Question 11.
Can you suggest some measures in the education system to mitigate the problem of the educated unemployed?
Answer:

• Technical education should be provided.
• Vocational education should be introduced.
• Emphasis should be given to skill development.

Question 12.
Why will a firm not like to employ a worker having ill-health? How does it affect the working environment?
Answer:
(i) (a) The main objective of a firm is to maximise its profit. So, any firm would not like to employ a worker having ill-health because he/she may not work efficiently as a healthy worker due to ill-health,
(b) An unhealthy person becomes a liability for an organisation or the economy.
(ii) It affects the working environment adversely. An unhealthy person can infect healthy persons of the organisation also.

Question 13.
‘Improvement in the health status of the population has been the priority of a country.’ Give reasons.
Answer:

• Healthy citizens are the basic factors of production.
• The health of a person helps him to realise his potential, and the ability to fight illness.
• An unhealthy worker or person becomes a liability for the country.
• Good health increases the efficiency of the worker.

Question 14.
Explain any three consequences of unemployment.
Answer:

• Poverty: The basic cause of poverty is unemployment. People do not have enough money to support their family. Inability of educated people, who are willing to work to find gainful employment implies a great social waste.
• Increase in Dependent Population: Unemployment tends to increase the economic overload. The dependence of the unemployed on the working population increases.
• Poor Quality of Life: The quality of life of an individual as well as of the society is adversely affected. When a family has to live on a bare subsistence level, there is a general decline in its health status and rising withdrawal from the school system.

Question 15.
What are the two types of unemployment which are prevailing in rural areas? Write any four factors responsible for this. HOTS
Answer:
(i) Disguised unemployment,
(ii) Seasonal unemployment.
Causes:

• Large families due to overpopulation.
• Underdevelopment of cottage and small-scale industries.
• Lack of diversification of agriculture.
• Lack of capital.

Question 16.
Suggest some methods to remove rural unemployment problem.
Answer:

• By promoting small-scale and cottage industry.
• By spreading technical education.
• By promoting supplement works like animal rearing, horticulture etc.

Question 17.
What is disguised unemployment? Explain with the help of an example.
Answer:
It is a situation in which more workers are working in an activity than required. The people, who are actually engaged in such an activity appear to be employed, but are not fully employed. For example, if for the cultivation of one hectare land, 10 workers are required, but instead of 10 workers, 15 workers are working. In this case, 5 workers are disguised unemployed. In such cases, even if the surplus workers are removed the production does not suffer.

Question 18.
Distinguish between disguised unemployment and educated unemployment.
Answer:

Question 19.
Distinguish between market and non-market activities.
Answer:

Question 20.
What are the objectives of the 10th Five Year Plan with reference to education?
Answer:

• The 10th Five Year Plan endeavoured to increase the enrolment in higher education of the 18 to 23 year age group from the present 6 per cent to 9 per cent, by the end of the plan period,
• The strategy focuses on increasing access quality, adoption of states-specific curriculum modification, vocationalisation and networking on the use of information technology.
• The plan also focuses on distant education, convergence of formal, non-formal, distant and IT education institutions.

People as Resource Class 9 Important Questions Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by Human Capital Formation? Highlight two initiatives each of Indian government to enhance health and education facilities.
Answer:
When the existing human resource is further developed by becoming more educated and healthy, human capital formation takes place. It adds to the productive power of the country. Just like the physical capital formation.
Following are the two schemes introduced by the government to enhance health facilities in India:

• Integrated child development services.
• Central government health schemes.

Following are the two schemes introduced by the government to enhance education facilities in India:

• Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
• Mid-day meal scheme.

Question 2.
Why is human capital considered superior to other resources like land and physical capital? Name the factors that affect the quality of population. Explain, how these factors help in human capital formation?
Answer:
Factors affecting human capital formation are:

• It is living active factor of production.
• It extracts work and activates other factors.
• It works as labour, management and entrepreneur.

Factors affecting the quality of population are:

• Skill Formation: Skill formation increases the productivity of the workers.
• Health: A healthy worker is an asset for the company as well as society.
• Literacy Rate: Education widens the menial horizon of the citizens.

Question 3.
“People are the greatest resource that a country has.” Explain.
Or
Why is the human resource important for development? Explain.
Answer:

• It is a way of referring to a country’s working people in terms of their existing productive skills and abilities. Land, capital and natural resources etc. form the important resources of a country because these help in further production, but all these are useless if a country does not have human resource. It is a human resource which converts all the other sources into useful form.
• Countries like China, Japan etc. have achieved a high growth rate due to human capital.
• A skilled and trained person generates more than uneducated and unskilled worker.

Question 4.
How are children of educated parents different from those of uneducated parents? Give three points of difference.
Answer:

Question 5.
Mention any five steps which have been taken by the government to promote education. taken by the government to promote education.
Or
Explain the initiative taken by the government to improve elementary education in India.
Or
Give three measures taken by Government to improve literacy condition in India.
Answer:

(i) Government has launched various schemes for providing universal access, retention and quality in elementary education, with a special emphasis on girls.

(ii) There is also an establishment of pace setting of schools like the Novodaya Vidyalaya in each district.

(iii) Vocational streams have been developed to equip large number of high school students with occupations related to knowledge and skills.

(iv) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all children in the age group of six to fourteen years by 2010. It is a time-bound initiative of the central government, in partnership with the states, the local government and the community for achieving the goal of universalisation of elementary education.

(v) The Right to Education act has been passed by the Indian Parliament to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years.

Question 6.
How education and skill formation are the major determinants of the earning of any individual in the market? Explain.
Answer:

• Education and training lead to higher productivity.
• Earning capacity of an individual depends upon productivity.
• Education also leads to mobility of human resource. Many a time people migrate to other regions or countries in search of better opportunities. Farm labours are ill paid because of their low productivity.
  Countries like Japan and USA have high per capita income because of skill formation.

Question 7.
Mention any one advantage of education. How can an educated woman improve her family’s condition?
Answer:
The key to education is learning. A solid education gives us a base level of understanding that allows us to actively participate in intellectual conversations, and makes us aware and open minded in any situation. An educated woman improves her family’s condition in the following manner:

• An educated woman tends to desire a smaller family size and seek the health care necessary to do so.
• An educated woman has high educational and career expectations of her children, both boys and girls. For females, education profoundly changes their lives, how they interact with society, and their economic status.
  Educated women create more equitable lives for women and their families and increase their ability to participate in community decision-making and work towards achieving local sustainability goals.

Question 8.
Female literacy rate in India is still far behind that of the men. What are the reasons of it? Explain.
Answer:
Negative Atitude for Girls: The negative attitude of illiterate parents towards the girl child and her education is one of the major reason of low female literacy.
Poverty: Poverty is another root cause of low literacy rate for the girl child.
Gender Inequality: Gender inequality is still existing in most of the remote areas of India.
Inadequate School Facilities: Most parts of rural India still lacks basic facilities related to education.
Lack of Funds: Low allotment of government funds to education sector is another cause of low literacy rate.

Question 9.
Mention any three peculiarities of literacy in India.
Answer:

• The literacy rates have increased from about 18% in 1951 to around 73% in 2011.
• A vast difference is noticed across different sections of the population. Literacy among males is nearly 50% higher than females, and it is about 50% higher in urban areas as compared to the rural areas.
• Literacy rates vary from 96% in some districts of Kerala to below 30% in some parts of Madhya Pradesh and Bihar.
• According to the census of 2001, a person aged 7 years and above, who can read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate.

Question 10.
Describe five main features of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
Or
Write a short note on ‘SARVA SHIKSHA ABHIYAN.’
Answer:

• To strengthen the primary school system, the scheme of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) was started in 2001.
• All 6-14 age children were expected to complete eight years of schooling by 2010.
• It began as a time-bound initiative or programme of the Central Government in partnership with the state, the local government and the community to achieve the goal of universalisation of elementary education.
• This programme has covered the entire country with special focus on the educational needs of girls, SCs/STs and other children.
• Along with it, bridge courses and back-to-school camps were started to increase the enrolment in elementary education. The Mid-day Meal Scheme has been implemented to encourage attendance and retention of children as well as to improve their nutritional status.

Question 11.
What are the difference between the working conditions of educated and uneducated women? Mention any three of them.
Answer:

Question 12.
Which two states in India have poor health facilities in comparison with others? State the ways by which health facilities in these states can be improved.
Answer:
Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
Ways:

• Improving the accessibility of health care, family welfare.
• Ensuring nutritional service with a special focus on the under-privileged segment of population.
• Improving built up a vast health infrastructure and has developed man power required at primary, secondary and tertiary sector in Government as well as in the private sector.

Question 13.
Give an account of National Health Policy. Mention any five points.
Or
“Health should be treated as an important asset for human capital”. Analyse the statements with reference to our national health policy.
Answer:

• Improvement in the health status of the population has been the priority of the country.
• The National Health Policy 2002 aims at achieving an acceptable standard of health for the general population of the country.
• To achieve the objective, a comprehensive approach was advocated, which included improvements in individual health care, public health, sanitation, clean drinking water, access to food and knowledge of hygiene and feeding practices.
• The country has a well structured 3-tier public health infrastructure comprising Community Health Centres, Primary Health Centres and Sub-Centres spread across rural and semi-urban areas and tertiary medical care providing multi-speciality hospitals and medical colleges located almost exclusively in the urban areas.
• Over the last five decades India has built up a vast health infrastructure and has developed manpower required at primary, secondary and tertiary sector in Government as well as in the private sector.

Question 14.
Describe the provisions made by Indian government for the development of education and health care sector for the growth of society.
Answer:
Education:

• Education is one of the main factors of economic and social development.
• Education helps in increasing the mental horizon of the people, and is a must to develop human personality.
• Education helps in the development of science and technology.
• Education encourages economic development through greater participation of the people in the affairs of the country.
• Education increase the efficiency of the workers.
• It enhances the national income, cultural richness and increases the efficiency of governance.

Health:

• Health does not mean survival only. It involves not only the physical fitness of the individual but also his mental, economic and social well-being.
• Good health increases the efficiency of a worker.
• Good health increases the learning capacity of a worker.
• A healthy worker is an assest for the firm as well as for the country.

Question 15.
What are the major factors responsible for unemployment in India?
Answer:

• Rapid Growth of Population: Our population has been continuously rising. From a population of about 361 million in 1951, it has risen to around 1210.2 million in 2011, but due to slow economic growth employment opportunities have not risen at the same pace.
• Overdependence on Agriculture: Even after more than 50 years of independence, more than 60% of our population still depends upon the primary sector for its livelihood.
• Underdevelopment of Cottage and Small-scale Industry: Our
  rural sector is facing problems of disguised and seasonal unemployment. This is due to underdevelopment of the cottage and the small-scale industry.
• Underdevelopment of Industries: Due to the shortage of capital and other essential inputs, the industrialisation process is very slow. So the industrial sector has failed to provide enough job opportunities to the unemployed workers.
• Slow pace of Infrastructure Growth: Slow pace of infrastructure growth is one of the major factors responsible for the slow growth of Indian economy.

Question 16.
What is unemployment? What kind of unemployment found in India? Explain any two of them.
Answer:
It is a situation under which worker is ready to work at the prevailing wages but he/she is unable to find any useful work.

• Disguised unemployment
• Seasonal unemployment
• Structural unemployment
• Technical unemployment

Disguised Unemployment:

• It is a type of unemployment under which people appear to be employed, but actually they are not.
• It is mostly found in agriculture.
• It is mainly found in rural areas.

Seasonal Unemployment:

• It is a type of unemployment under which workers are employed only for a particular season.
• It is mostly found in agro based industries.
• It is found both in rural as well as urban areas.

Question 17.
What are the disadvantages of unemployment? Explain.
Or
“Unemployment leads to a depressed economy.” Justify the statement with five arguments.
Answer:

• Wastage of Resource: Human capital is one of the most important resources. Unemployment leads to wastage of manpower resource. People who are an asset for the economy turn into a liability.
  There is a feeling of hopelessness and despair among the youth.
• Poverty: The basic cause of poverty is unemployment. People do not have enough money to support their family. Inability of educated people, who are willing to work to find gainful employment implies a great social waste.
• Increase in Dependent Population: Unemployment tends to increase the economic overload. The dependence of the unemployed on the working population increases.
• Poor Quality of Life: The quality of life of an individual as well as of the society is adversely affected. When a family has to live on a bare subsistence level, there is a general decline in its health status and rising withdrawal from the school system.
• Class Struggle: Unemployment divides the society into haves and have-nots. Accordingly, there is class conflict that compounds the problem of social turmoil.

Question 18.
Explain any five effects of unemployment on the overall growth of an economy.
Answer:
The unemployment has detrimental impacts on the overall growth of an economy.

• It is wastage of man power resource.
• It increases the economic overload.
• It tends to increase the number of dependant population.
• Increase in unemployment is an indicator of a depressed economy.
• It can lead to emotional and mental stress.

Important Questions for Class 9 Social Science

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Social Science

The post People as Resource Class 9 Important Questions Economics Chapter 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Comparing Quantities Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 8

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 8 Comparing Quantities

Comparing Quantities Class 7 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Find the ratio of:
(a) 5 km to 400 m
(b) 2 hours to 160 minutes
Solution:
(a) 5 km = 5 × 1000 = 5000 m
Ratio of 5 km to 400 m
= 5000 m : 400 m
= 25 : 2
Required ratio = 25 : 2
(b) 2 hours = 2 × 60 = 120 minutes
Ratio of 2 hours to 160 minutes
= 120 : 160
= 3 : 4
Required ratio = 3 : 4

Question 2.
State whether the following ratios are equivalent or not?
(a) 2 : 3 and 4 : 5
(b) 1 : 3 and 2 : 6
Solution:
(a) Given ratios = 2 : 3 and 4 : 5

Hence 2 : 3 and 4 : 5 are not equivalent ratios.
(b) Given ratios = 1 : 3 and 2 : 6
LCM of 3 and 6 = 6

Hence, 1 : 3 and 2 : 6 are equivalent ratios.

Question 3.
Express the following ratios in simplest form:
(a) 6 : 2
(b) 42 : 56
Solution:

Question 4.
Compare the following ratios:
3 : 4, 5 : 6 and 3 : 8
Solution:
Given: 3 : 4, 5 : 6 and 3 : 8
or , and
LCM of 4, 6 and 8 = 24

Hence, 3 : 8 < 3 : 4 < 5 : 6

Question 5.
State whether the following ratios are proportional or not:
(i) 20 : 45 and 4 : 9
(ii) 9 : 27 and 33 : 11
Solution:
(i) 20 : 45 and 4 : 9
Product of extremes = 20 × 9 = 180
Product of means = 45 × 4 = 180
Here, the product of extremes = Product of means
Hence, the given ratios are in proportion.
(ii) 9 : 27 and 33 : 11
Product of extremes = 9 × 11 = 99
Product of means = 27 × 33 = 891
Here, the product of extremes ≠ Product of means
Hence, the given ratios are not in proportion.

Question 6.
24, 36, x are in continued proportion, find the value of x.
Solution:
Since, 24, 36, x are in continued proportion.
24 : 36 :: 36 : x
⇒ 24 × x = 36 × 36
⇒ x = 54
Hence, the value of x = 54.

Question 7.
Find the mean proportional between 9 and 16.
Solution:
Let x be the mean proportional between 9 and 16.
9 : x :: x : 16
⇒ x × x = 9 × 16
⇒ x² = 144
⇒ x = √144 = 12
Hence, the required mean proportional = 12.

Question 8.
Find:
(i) 36% of 400
(ii) 16% of 32
Solution:

Question 9.
Find a number whose 6% is 12.
Solution:
Let the required number be x.

Hence, the required number = 192.

Question 10.
What per cent of 40 kg is 440 g?
Solution:
Let x% of 40 kg = 440 g

Hence, the required Percentage = 1.1%

Comparing Quantities Class 7 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 11.
Convert each of the following into the decimal form:
(а) 25.2%
(b) 0.15%
(c) 25%
Solution:

Question 12.
What per cent of
(a) 64 is 148.48?
(b) 75 is 1225?
Solution:

Question 13.
A machine costs ₹ 7500. Its value decreases by 5% every year due to usage. What will be its price after one year?
Solution:
The cost price of the machine = ₹ 7500
Decrease in price = 5%
Decreased price after one year

= 75 × 95
= ₹ 7125
Hence, the required price = ₹ 7125.

Question 14.
What sum of money lent out at 12 per cent p.a. simple interest would produce ₹ 9000 as interest in 2 years?
Solution:
Here, Interest = ₹ 9000
Rate = 12% p.a.
Time = 2 years
Principal = ?

Hence, the required principal amount = ₹ 37500.

Question 15.
Rashmi obtains 480 marks out of 600. Rajan obtains 560 marks out of 700. Whose performance is better?
Solution:
Rashmi obtains 480 marks out of 600
Marks Percentage = × 100 = 80%
Rajan obtains 560 marks out of 700
Marks Percentage = × 100 = 80%
Since, both of them obtained the same per cent of marks i.e. 80%.
So, their performance cannot be compared.

Question 16.
₹ 9000 becomes ₹ 18000 at simple interest in 8 years. Find the rate per cent per annum.
Solution:
Here, Principal = ₹ 9000
Amount = ₹ 18000
Interest = Amount – Principal = ₹ 18000 – ₹ 9000 = ₹ 9000

Hence, the required rate of interest = 12%.

Question 17.
The cost of an object is increased by 12%. If the current cost is ₹ 896, what was its original cost?
Solution:
Here, rate of increase in cost = 12%
Increased Cost = ₹ 896
Original Cost = ?
Let the Original Cost be ₹ x

Hence, the required cost = ₹ 800.

Comparing Quantities Class 7 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 18.
Radhika borrowed ₹ 12000 from her friends. Out of which ₹ 4000 were borrowed at 18% and the remaining at 15% rate of interest per annum. What is the total interest after 3 years? (NCERT Exemplar)
Solution:
Total amount borrowed by Radhika = ₹ 12,000
The amount borrowed by her at 18% p.a. = ₹ 4000

Total interest = ₹ 2160 + ₹ 3600 = ₹ 5760
Hence, the total interest = ₹ 5760.

Question 19.
Bhavya earns ₹ 50,000 per month and spends 80% of it. Due to pay revision, her monthly income increases by 20% but due to price rise, she has to spend 20% more. Find her new savings. (NCERT Exemplar)
Solution:
Monthly income of Bhavya = ₹ 50,000
Money spent by her = 80% of ₹ 50,000
= × 50,000 = ₹ 40,000
Due to pay revision, income is increased by 20%

So, the new savings = ₹ 60,000 – ₹ 48,000 = ₹ 12,000

Question 20.
The simple interest on a certain sum at 5% per annum for 3 years and 4 years differ by ₹ 82. Find the sum.
Solution:
Let the required sum be ₹ P.
Simple interest for 3 years

Alternate Method
Simple Interest gained from 3rd to 4th year = ₹ 82
Time (4th year – 3rd year) = 1 year

Required sum = ₹ 1640

Comparing Quantities Class 7 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Type

Question 21.
Rajan’s monthly income is 20% more than the monthly income of Sarita. What per cent of Sarita’s income is less than Rajan’s monthly income?
Solution:
Let the monthly income of Sarita be ₹ 100.
Rajan’s monthly income

Now, Sarita’s monthly income is less than the monthly income of Raj an by = ₹ 120 – ₹ 100 = ₹ 20
Per cent of less in Rajan’s monthly income
= = % = 16%
Hence, the required per cent = 16%

Question 22.
If 10 apples are bought for ₹ 11 and sold at the rate of 11 apples for ₹ 10. Find the overall gain or loss per cent in these transactions.
Solution:
CP of 10 apples = ₹ 11
CP of 1 apple = ₹
SP of 11 apples = ₹ 10
SP of 1 apple = ₹

Question 23.
If 25 men can do a work in 36 hours, find the number of men required to do the same work in 108 hours.
Solution:
Let the number of men required to be x.
Men : Hours :: Men : Hours
25 : 36 :: x : 108
Product of extremes = 25 × 108
Product of means = 36 × x
Product of means = Product of extremes
36 × x = 25 × 108
⇒ x = 25 × 3 = 75
Hence, the required number of men = 75.

Question 24.
A machine is sold by A to B at a profit of 10% and then B sold it to C at a profit of 20%. If C paid ₹ 1200 for the machine, what amount was paid by A to purchase the machine?
Solution:
Cost price of machine for C = Selling price of the machine for B = ₹ 1200

Hence, the required cost price = ₹ 909 or ₹ 909.09 (approx)

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths

The post Comparing Quantities Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 8 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Rational Numbers Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 9

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 9 Rational Numbers

Rational Numbers Class 7 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Find three rational numbers equivalent to each of the following rational numbers.
(i)
(ii)
Solution:

Question 2.
Reduce the following rational numbers in standard form.
(i)
(ii)
Solution:

Question 3.
Represent and on number lines.
Solution:

Question 4.
Which of the following rational numbers is greater?
(i) ,
(ii) ,
Solution:

Question 5.
Find the sum of

Solution:

Question 6.
Subtract:

Solution:

Question 7.
Find the product:

Solution:

Rational Numbers Class 7 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 8.
If the product of two rational numbers is and one of them is , find the other number.
Solution:
Let the required rational number be x.

Question 9.
Arrange the following rational numbers in ascending order.

Solution:

Question 10.
Insert five rational numbers between:

Solution:

Rational Numbers Class 7 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 11.
Evaluate the following:

Solution:

Question 12.
Subtract the sum of and -1 from the sum 2 and -6.
Solution:

Question 13.

Solution:
We have

Question 14.
Divide the sum of -2 and 3 by their difference.
Solution:

Question 15.
During a festival sale, the cost of an object is ₹ 870 on which 20% is off. The same object is available at other shops for ₹ 975 with a discount of 6 %. Which is a better deal and by how much?
Solution:
The cost of the object = ₹ 870
Discount = 20% of ₹ 870 = × 870 = ₹ 174
Selling price = ₹ 870 – ₹ 174 = ₹ 696
The same object is available at other shop = ₹ 975

Selling price = ₹ 975 – ₹ 65 = ₹ 910
Since ₹ 910 > ₹ 696
Hence, deal at first shop is better and by ₹ 910 – ₹ 696 = ₹ 214

Rational Numbers Class 7 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Type

Question 16.
Simplify:
21.5 ÷ 5 – of (20.5 – 5.5) + 0.5 × 8.5
Solution:
Using BODMAS rule, we have
21.5 ÷ 5 – of (20.5 – 5.5) + 0.5 × 8.5
= 21.5 ÷ 5 – of 15 + 0.5 × 8.5
= 21.5 × – × 15 + 0.5 × 8.5
= 4.3 – 3 + 4.25
= 4.3 + 4.25 – 3
= 8.55 – 3
= 5.55

Question 17.
Simplify:

Solution:
Using BODMAS rule, we have
2.3 – [1.89 – {3.6 – (2.7 – 0.77)}]
= 2.3 – [1.89 – {3.6 – 1.93}]
= 2.3 – [1.89 – 1.67]
= 2.3 – 0.22
= 2.08

Question 18.

Solution:
Using BODMAS rule, we have

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths

The post Rational Numbers Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 9 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

JEE Main Syllabus: Candidates must know the syllabus for JEE Main to start the preparation in the right direction. The JEE Mains Syllabus for Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry is given on this post. Candidates preparing for the upcoming Joint Entrance Examination (Mains) for January session should study all the topics given in the JEE Main Syllabus. The syllabus is prepared by the exam conducting body that is the National Testing Agency (NTA). The first step towards JEE Preparation is to know the Syllabus for JEE Main. Prepare well to get good percentile and rank in JEE Main Exam.

JEE Main Syllabus

The important topics that the candidates find in the JEE Main syllabus for 2020 are the same topics that are candidates find in the Class 11 and Class 12 NCERT Books. It is adviced to the candidates that they must keep practicing the topics of Class 11th and 12th level education. To score well in the examination cover all the important concepts of Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics of classes XI and XII.

JEE (Main) Syllabus for Paper 1

• Mathematics
• Physics
• Chemistry

JEE (Main) Syllabus for Paper 2

• Aptitude Test Syllabus

JEE (Main + Advanced) syllabus

If seen carefully the candidates can find that the syllabus for the IIT conducted JEE Advanced examination is exactly like the syllabus of the JEE main examination. However, the exam pattern is a little different. the candidates can refer and practice from the entire syllabus that we have provided here. They should have a solid hang on the fundamentals and practice efficiently as much as could be expected to ace each subject. The questions that are asked in the physics, chemistry and mathematics examination basically include the ones which involve calculation. Once the candidates have thoroughly studied the NCERT books, they can move forward and practice the previous year question papers so as to ace the subject.

JEE Main Syllabus – Class 11th and 12th

Candidates can check out the below-mentioned syllabus based on class 11th and 12th education. all these concepts are highly important for JEE main 2020.

JEE Main Mathematics Marks: 120

• Sets, relations and functions
• Complex numbers and quadratic equations
• Matrices and determinants
• Permutations and combinations
• Mathematical induction
• Binomial theorem and its simple applications
• Sequences and series
• Limit, continuity and differentiability
• Integral calculus
• Differential equations
• Coordinate geometry
• Three dimensional geometry
• Vector algebra
• Statistics and probability
• Trigonometry
• Mathematical reasoning

JEE Main Mathematics Syllabus PDF

JEE Main Physics Marks: 120

• Physics and measurement
• Kinematics
• Laws of motion
• Work, energy and power
• Rotational motion
• Gravitation
• Properties of solids and liquids
• Thermodynamics
• Kinetic theory of gases
• Oscillations and waves
• Electrostatics
• Current electricity
• Magnetic effects of current and magnetism
• Electromagnetic induction and alternating currents
• Electromagnetic waves
• Optics
• Dual nature of matter and radiation
• Atoms and nuclei
• Electronic devices
• Communication systems
• Experimental skills
• Modern Physics
• Semi Conductor Devices

JEE Main Chemistry Marks: 120

JEE Main Physical chemistry

• Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry
• States of Matter
• Atomic Structure
• Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
• Chemical Thermodynamics
• Solutions
• Redox Reactions and Electro-chemistry
• Chemical Kinetics
• Surface Chemistry

JEE Main Organic chemistry

• Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
• General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Metals
• Hydrogen
• S – Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals)
• P- Block Elements
• d – and f – Block Elements
• Co-Ordination Compounds
• Environmental Chemistry

JEE Main Inorganic chemistry

• Purification and Characterization of Organic Compounds
• Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
• Hydrocarbons
• Organic Compounds Containing Halogens
• Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
• Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
• Polymers
• Bio molecules
• Chemistry In Everyday Life
• Principles Related to Practical Chemistry

Best Books for IIT JEE

Best Books for JEE Mains Preparation Physics

• Concepts of Physics (Volume 1) by HC Verma
• Concepts of Physics (Volume 2) by HC Verma
• Problems in General Physics by I.E. Irodov
• Solutions To Irodov’s Problems In General Physics, Vol I
• Solutions To Irodov’s Problems In General Physics, Vol II
• Fundamentals of Physics by David Halliday, Robert Resnick, and Jearl Walker
• 40 Years IIT-JEE Advanced + 16 yrs JEE Main Topic-wise Solved Paper Physics

Best Books for IIT JEE Preparation Chemistry

• Organic Chemistry by Robert Morrison and Boyd
• Concise Inorganic Chemistry by J.D. Lee
• Modern Approach to Chemical Calculations by RC Mukherjee
• 40 Years IIT-JEE Advanced + 16 yrs JEE Main Topic-wise Solved Paper Chemistry

Recommended Books for IIT JEE preparation Mathematics

• Problems in Calculus of One Variable by I.A. Maron
• Calculus and Analytic Geometry by Thomas Finney
• Higher Algebra by Hall and Knight Buy The Book
• 40 Years IIT-JEE Advanced + 16 yrs JEE Main Topic-Wise Solved Paper Mathematics

JEE Main 2020

From 2019 onwards, the MHRD (Ministry of Human Resource Development) has transferred the authority of conducting JEE Main from CBSE to NTA. This year, NTA is conducting the entrance two times in a year. The first session conducts in the month of January and the second session conducts in April 2020. Through this entrance exam, candidates can get admission in the courses such as B.E., B.Tech, and B.Arch in the top most colleges of India. While preparing for the JEE Main for the following academic year, candidates must know the syllabus on their tips as well as the exam pattern thoroughly.

The post JEE Main Syllabus appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Practical Geometry Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 10

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 10 Practical Geometry

Practical Geometry Class 7 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
State whether the triangle is possible to construct if
(a) In ΔABC, m∠A = 80°, m∠B = 60°, AB = 5.5 cm
(b) In ΔPQR, PQ = 5 cm, QR = 3 cm, PR = 8.8 cm
Solution:
(a) m∠A = 80°, m∠B = 60°
m∠A + m∠B = 80° + 60° = 140° < 180°
So, ΔABC can be possible to construct.
(b) PQ = 5 cm, QR = 3 cm, PR = 8.8 cm
PQ + QR = 5 cm + 3 cm = 8 cm < 8.8 cm
or PQ + QR < PR
So, the ΔPQR can not be constructed.

Question 2.
Draw an equilateral triangle whose each side is 4.5 cm.

Solution:
Steps of construction:
(i) Draw AB = 4.5 cm.
(ii) Draw two arcs with centres A and B and same radius of 4.5 cm to meet each other at C.
(iii) Join CA and CB.
(iv) ΔCAB is the required triangle.

Question 3.
Draw a ΔPQR, in which QR = 3.5 cm, m∠Q = 40°, m∠R = 60°.

Solution:
Steps of construction:
(i) Draw QR = 3.5 cm.
(ii) Draw ∠Q = 40°, ∠R = 60° which meet each other at P.
(iii) ΔPQR is the required triangle.

Question 4.
There are four options, out of which one is correct. Choose the correct one:
(i) A triangle can be constructed with the given measurement.
(a) 1.5 cm, 3.5 cm, 4.5 cm
(b) 6.5 cm, 7.5 cm, 15 cm
(c) 3.2 cm, 2.3 cm, 5.5 cm
(d) 2 cm, 3 cm, 6 cm
(ii) (a) m∠P = 40°, m∠Q = 60°, AQ = 4 cm
(b) m∠B = 90°, m∠C = 120° , AC = 6.5 cm
(c) m∠L = 150°, m∠N = 70°, MN = 3.5 cm
(d) m∠P = 105°, m∠Q = 80°, PQ = 3 cm
Solution:
(i) Option (a) is possible to construct.
1.5 cm + 3.5 cm > 4.5 cm
(ii) Option (a) is correct.
m∠P + m∠Q = 40° + 60° = 100° < 180°

Question 5.
What will be the other angles of a right-angled isosceles triangle?

Solution:
In right angled isosceles triangle ABC, ∠B = 90°
∠A + ∠C = 180° – 90° = 90°
But ∠A = ∠B
∠A = ∠C = = 45°
Hence the required angles are ∠A = ∠C = 45°

Question 6.
What is the measure of an exterior angle of an equilateral triangle?

Solution:
We know that the measure of each interior angle = 60°
Exterior angle = 180° – 60° = 120°

Question 7.
In ΔABC, ∠A = ∠B = 50°. Name the pair of sides which are equal.

Solution:
∠A = ∠B = 50°
AC = BC [∵ Sides opposite to equal angles are equal]
Hence, the required sides are AC and BC.

Question 8.
If one of the other angles of a right-angled triangle is obtuse, whether the triangle is possible to construct.
Solution:
We know that the angles other than right angle of a right-angled triangle are acute angles.
So, such a triangle is not possible to construct.

Question 9.
State whether the given pair of triangles are congruent.

Solution:
Here, AB = PQ = 3.5 cm
AC = PR = 5.2 cm
∠BAC = ∠QPR = 70°
ΔABC = ΔPQR [By SAS rule]

Practical Geometry Class 7 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 10.
Draw a ΔABC in which BC = 5 cm, AB = 4 cm and m∠B = 50°.

Solution:
Steps of construction:
(i) Draw BC = 5 cm.
(ii) Draw ∠B = 50° and cut AB = 4 cm.
(iii) Join AC.
(iv) ΔABC is the required triangle.

Question 11.
Draw ΔPQR in which QR = 5.4 cm, ∠Q = 40° and PR = 6.2 cm.

Solution:
Steps of construction:
(i) Draw QR = 5.4 cm.
(ii) Draw ∠Q = 40°.
(iii) Take R as the centre and with radius 6.2 cm, draw an arc to meet the former angle line at P.
(iv) Join PR.
(v) ΔPQR is the required triangle.

Question 12.
Construct a ΔPQR in which m∠P = 60° and m∠Q = 30°, QR = 4.8 cm.

Solution:
m∠Q = 30°, m∠P = 60°
m∠Q + m∠P + m∠R = 180° (Angle sum property of triangle)
30° + 60° + m∠R = 180°
90° + m∠R = 180°
m∠R = 180° – 90°
m∠R = 90°
Steps of construction:
(i) Draw QR = 4.8 cm.
(ii) Draw ∠Q = 30°.
(iii) Draw ∠R = 90° which meets the former angle line at P.
(iv) ∠P = 180° – (30° + 90°) = 60°
(v) ΔPQR is the required triangle.

Practical Geometry Class 7 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills [HOTS] Type

Question 13.
Draw an isosceles right-angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 5.8 cm.
Solution:
Right angled triangle is an isosceles triangle
Each of its acute angles = = 45°

Steps of construction:
(i) Draw AB = 5.8 cm.
(ii) Construct ∠A = 45° and ∠B = 45° to meet each other at C.
(iii) ∠C = 180° – (45° + 45°) = 90°
(iv) ΔACB is the required isosceles right angle triangle.

Question 14.
Construct a ΔABC such that AB = 6.5 cm, AC = 5 cm and the altitude AP to BC is 4 cm.

Solution:
Steps of construction:
(i) Draw a line l and take any point P on it.
(ii) Construct a perpendicular to l at P.
(iii) Cut AP = 4 cm.
(iv) Draw two arcs with centre A and radii 6.5 cm and 5 cm to cut the line l at B and C respectively.
(v) Join AB and AC.
(vi) ΔABC is the required triangle.

Question 15.
Construct an equilateral triangle whose altitude is 4.5 cm.

Solution:
Steps of construction:
(i) Draw any line l and take a point D on it.
(ii) Construct a perpendicular to l at D and cut AD = 4.5 cm.
(iii) Draw the angle of 30° at on either side of AD to meet the line l at B and C.
(iv) ΔABC is the required equilateral triangle.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths

The post Practical Geometry Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 10 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions Class 10 Maths Chapter 4 Quadratic Equations – Here are all the Class 10 Maths Chapter 4 Quadratic Equations NCERT Solutions. This solution contains questions, answers, images, step by step explanation of the complete Chapter 4 titled Quadratic Equations in Class 10. If you are a student of Class 10 who is using NCERT Textbook to study Maths, then you must come across Chapter 4 Quadratic Equations. After you have studied lesson, you must be looking for answers to its textbook questions. Here you can get complete NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 4 Quadratic Equations in one place.

• Class 10 Quadratic Equations Ex 4.1
• Class 10 Quadratic Equations Ex 4.2
• Class 10 Quadratic Equations Ex 4.3
• Class 10 Quadratic Equations Ex 4.4
• Extra Questions for Class 10 Maths Quadratic Equations

NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Maths Chapter 4 Quadratic Equations Ex 4.1

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 4 Quadratic Equations Ex 4.1 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths. Here we have given NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 4 Quadratic Equations Ex 4.1.

Question 1.
Check whether the following are quadratic equations:
(i) (x+ 1)²=2(x-3)
(ii) x – 2x = (- 2) (3-x)
(iii) (x – 2) (x + 1) = (x – 1) (x + 3)
(iv) (x – 3) (2x + 1) = x (x + 5)
(v) (2x – 1) (x – 3) = (x + 5) (x – 1)
(vi) x² + 3x + 1 = (x – 2)²
(vii) (x + 2)³ = 2x(x² – 1)
(viii) x³ -4x² -x + 1 = (x-2)³
Solution:

NCERT Solutions Class 10 Maths chapter 4 Quadratic Equations- Video

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Question 2.
Represent the following situations in the form of quadratic equations:
(i) The area of a rectangular plot is 528 m². The length of the plot (in metres) is one more than twice its breadth. We need to find the length and breadth of the plot.
(ii) The product of two consecutive positive integers is 306. We need to find the integers.
(iii) Rohan’s mother is 26 years older than him. The product of their ages (in years) 3 years from now will be 360. We would like to find Rohan’s present age.
(iv) A train travels a distance of 480 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 8 km/h less, then it would have taken 3 hours more to cover the same distance. We need to find the speed of the train.
Solution:

NCERT Solutions Class 10 Maths chapter 4 Quadratic Equations

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Perimeter and Area Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 11

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 11 Perimeter and Area

Perimeter and Area Class 7 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
The side of a square is 2.5 cm. Find its perimeter and area.
Solution:
Side of the square = 2.5 cm
Perimeter = 4 × Side = 4 × 2.5 = 10 cm
Area = (side)² = (4)² = 16 cm²

Question 2.
If the perimeter of a square is 24 cm. Find its area.
Solution:
Perimeter of the square = 24 cm
Side of the square = cm = 6 cm
Area of the square = (Side)² = (6)² cm² = 36 cm²

Question 3.
If the length and breadth of a rectangle are 36 cm and 24 cm respectively. Find
(i) Perimeter
(ii) Area of the rectangle.
Solution:
Length = 36 cm, Breadth = 24 cm
(i) Perimeter = 2(l + b) = 2(36 + 24) = 2 × 60 = 120 cm
(ii) Area of the rectangle = l × b = 36 cm × 24 cm = 864 cm²

Question 4.
The perimeter of a rectangular field is 240 m. If its length is 90 m, find:
(i) it’s breadth
(ii) it’s area.
Solution:
(i) Perimeter of the rectangular field = 240 m
2(l + b) = 240 m
l + b = 120 m
90 m + b = 120 m
b = 120 m – 90 m = 30 m
So, the breadth = 30 m.
(ii) Area of the rectangular field = l × b = 90 m × 30 m = 2700 m²
So, the required area = 2700 m²

Question 5.
The length and breadth of a rectangular field are equal to 600 m and 400 m respectively. Find the cost of the grass to be planted in it at the rate of ₹ 2.50 per m².
Solution:
Length = 600 m, Breadth = 400 m
Area of the field = l × b = 600 m × 400 m = 240000 m²
Cost of planting the grass = ₹ 2.50 × 240000 = ₹ 6,00,000
Hence, the required cost = ₹ 6,00,000.

Question 6.
The perimeter of a circle is 176 cm, find its radius.
Solution:
The perimeter of the circle = 176 cm

Question 7.
The radius of a circle is 3.5 cm, find its circumference and area.
Solution:
Radius = 3.5 cm
Circumference = 2πr

Question 8.
Area of a circle is 154 cm², find its circumference.
Solution:
Area of the circle = 154 cm²

Question 9.
Find the perimeter of the figure given below.

Solution:
Perimeter of the given figure = Circumference of the semicircle + diameter
= πr + 2r
= × 7 + 2 × 7
= 22 + 14
= 36 cm
Hence, the required perimeter = 36 cm.

Question 10.
The length of the diagonal of a square is 50 cm, find the perimeter of the square.

Solution:
Let each side of the square be x cm.
x² + x² = (50)² [Using Pythagoras Theorem]
2x² = 2500
x² = 1250

x = √1250 =
x = 5 × 5 × √2 = 25√2
The side of the square = 25√2 cm
Perimeter of the square = 4 × side = 4 × 25√2 = 100√2 cm

Perimeter and Area Class 7 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 11.
A wire of length 176 cm is first bent into a square and then into a circle. Which one will have more area?
Solution:
Length of the wire = 176 cm
Side of the square = 176 ÷ 4 cm = 44 cm
Area of the square = (Side)² = (44)² cm² = 1936 cm²
Circumference of the circle = 176 cm

Since 2464 cm² > 1936 cm²
Hence, the circle will have more area.

Question 12.
In the given figure, find the area of the shaded portion.

Solution:
Area of the square = (Side)² = 10 cm × 10 cm = 100 cm²
Area of the circle = πr²
= × 3.5 × 3.5
= cm²
= 38.5 cm²
Area of the shaded portion = 100 cm² – 38.5 cm² = 61.5 cm²

Question 13.
Find the area of the shaded portion in the figure given below.

Solution:
Area of the rectangle = l × b = 14 cm × 14 cm = 196 cm²
Radius of the semicircle = = 7 cm
Area of two equal semicircle = 2 × πr²
= πr²
= × 7 × 7
= 154 cm²
Area of the shaded portion = 196 cm² – 154 cm² = 42 cm²

Question 14.
A rectangle park is 45 m long and 30 m wide. A path 2.5 m wide is constructed outside the park. Find the area of the path.

Solution:
Length of the rectangular park = 45 m
Breadth of the park = 30 m
Area of the park = l × 6 = 45m × 30m = 1350 m²
Length of the park including the path = 45 m + 2 × 2.5 m = 50 m
Breadth of the park including the path = 30 m + 2 × 2.5 m = 30m + 5m = 35m
Area of the park including the path = 50 m × 35 m = 1750 m²
Area of the path = 1750 m² – 1350 m² = 400 m²
Hence, the required area = 400 m².

Question 15.
In the given figure, calculate:
(а) the area of the whole figure.
(b) the total length of the boundary of the field.

Solution:
Area of the rectangular portions = l × b = 80 cm × 42 cm = 3360 cm²
Area of two semicircles = 2 × πr² = πr²
= × 21 × 21
= 22 × 3 × 21
= 1386 cm²
Total area = 3360 cm² + 1386 cm² = 4746 cm²
Total length of the boundary of field = (2 × 80 + πr + πr) cm
= (160 + × 21 + × 21)
= (160 + 132) cm
= 292 cm
Hence, the required (i) area = 4746 cm² and (ii) length of boundary = 292 cm.

Question 16.
How many times a wheel of radius 28 cm must rotate to cover a distance of 352 m?
(Take π = )
Solution:
Radius of the wheel = 28 cm
Circumference = 2πr = 2 × × 28 = 176 cm
Distance to be covered = 352 m or 352 × 100 = 35200 m
Number of rotation made by the wheel to cover the given distance = = 200
Hence, the required number of rotations = 200.

Perimeter and Area Class 7 Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 17.
A nursery school playground is 160 m long and 80 m wide. In it 80 m × 80 m is kept for swings and in the remaining portion, there are 1.5 m wide path parallel to its width and parallel to its remaining length as shown in Figure. The remaining area is covered by grass. Find the area covered by grass. (NCERT Exemplar)

Solution:
Area of the playground = l × b = 160 m × 80 m = 12800 m²
Area left for swings = l × b = 80m × 80m = 6400 m²
Area of the remaining portion = 12800 m² – 6400 m² = 6400 m²
Area of the vertical road = 80 m × 1.5 m = 120 m²
Area of the horizontal road = 80 m × 1.5 m = 120 m²
Area of the common portion = 1.5 × 1.5 = 2.25 m²
Area of the two roads = 120 m² + 120 m² – 2.25 m² = (240 – 2.25) m² = 237.75 m²
Area of the portion to be planted by grass = 6400 m² – 237.75 m² = 6162.25 m²
Hence, the required area = 6162.25 m².

Question 18.
Rectangle ABCD is formed in a circle as shown in Figure. If AE = 8 cm and AD = 5 cm, find the perimeter of the rectangle. (NCERT Exemplar)

Solution:
DE (Radius) = AE + AD = 8 cm + 5 cm = 13 cm
DB = AC = 13 cm (Diagonal of a rectangle are equal)
In right ∆ADC,
AD² + DC² = AC² (By Pythagoras Theorem)
⇒ (5)² + DC² = (13)²
⇒ 25 + DC² = 169
⇒ DC² = 169 – 25 = 144
⇒ DC = √144 = 12 cm
Perimeter of rectangle ABCD = 2(AD + DC)
= 2(5 cm + 12 cm)
= 2 × 17 cm
= 34 cm

Question 19.
Find the area of a parallelogram-shaped shaded region. Also, find the area of each triangle. What is the ratio of the area of shaded portion to the remaining area of the rectangle?

Solution:
Here, AB = 10 cm
AF = 4 cm
FB = 10 cm – 4 cm = 6 cm
Area of the parallelogram = Base × Height = FB × AD = 6 cm × 6 cm = 36 cm²
Hence, the required area of shaded region = 36 cm².
Area ∆DEF = × b × h
= × AF × AD
= × 4 × 6
= 12 cm²
Area ∆BEC = × b × h
= × GC × BC
= × 4 × 6
= 12 cm²
Area of Rectangle ABCD = l × b = 10 cm × 6 cm = 60 cm²
Remaining area of Rectangle = 60 cm² – 36 cm² = 24 cm²
Required Ratio = 36 : 24 = 3 : 2

Question 20.
A rectangular piece of dimension 3 cm × 2 cm was cut from a rectangular sheet of paper of dimensions 6 cm × 5 cm. Find the ratio of the areas of the two rectangles. (NCER T Exemplar)

Solution:
Length of the rectangular piece = 6 cm
Breadth = 5 cm
Area of the sheet = l × b = 6 cm × 5 cm = 30 cm²
Area of the smaller rectangular piece = 3 cm × 2 cm = 6 cm²
Ratio of areas of two rectangles = 30 cm² : 6 cm² = 5 : 1

Perimeter and Area Class 7 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Type

Question 21.
In the given figure, ABCD is a square of side 14 cm. Find the area of the shaded region.
(Take π = )

Solution:
PQ = AB = × 14 = 7 cm
PQRS is a square with each side 7 cm
Radius of each circle = cm
Area of the quadrants of each circle = × πr²
Area of the four quadrants of all circles

Area of the square PQRS = Side × Side = 7 cm × 7 cm = 49 cm²
Area of the shaded portion = 49 cm² – 38.5 cm² = 10.5 cm²
Hence, the required area = 10.5 cm².

Question 22.
Find the area of the following polygon if AB = 12 cm, AC = 2.4 cm, CE = 6 cm, AD = 4.8 cm, CF = GE = 3.6 cm, DH = 2.4 cm.

Solution:
BE = AB – AE
= 12 cm – (AC + CE)
= 12 cm – (2.4 cm + 6 cm)
= 12 cm – 8.4 cm
= 3.6 cm


Area of the polygon AFGBH = Area of ∆ACF + Area of rectangle FCEG + Area of ∆GEB + Area of ∆ABH
= 3.6 cm² + 4.32 cm² + 21.6 cm² + 6.48 cm² + 14.4 cm²
= 50.40 cm²
Hence, the required area = 50.40 cm².

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths

The post Perimeter and Area Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 11 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Algebraic Expressions Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 12

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 12 Algebraic Expressions

Algebraic Expressions Class 7 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Identify in the given expressions, terms which are not constants. Give their numerical coefficients.
(i) 5x – 3
(ii) 11 – 2y²
(iii) 2x – 1
(iv) 4x²y + 3xy² – 5
Solution:

Question 2.
Group the like terms together from the following expressions:
-8x²y, 3x, 4y, x , 2x²y, -y
Solution:
Group of like terms are:
(i) -8x²y, 2x²y
(ii) 3x, x
(iii) 4y, -y

Question 3.
Identify the pairs of like and unlike terms:
(i) x, y
(ii) -x, 3x
(iii) y2x, xy²
(iv) 1000, -2
Solution:
(i) x, y → Unlike Terms
(ii) -x, 3x → Like Terms
(iii) y2x, xy² → Like Terms
(iv) 1000, -2 → Like Terms

Question 4.
Classify the following into monomials, binomial and trinomials.
(i) -6
(ii) -5 + x
(iii) x – y
(iv) 6x² + 5x – 3
(v) z² + 2
Solution:
(i) -6 is monomial
(ii) -5 + x is binomial
(iii) x – y is binomial
(iv) 6x² + 5x – 3 is trinomial
(v) z² + z is binomial

Question 5.
Draw the tree diagram for the given expressions:
(i) -3xy + 10
(ii) x² + y²
Solution:

Question 6.
Identify the constant terms in the following expressions:
(i) -3 + x
(ii) – 5y + y²
(iii) 3x² + 2y – 1
Solution:
(i) Constant term = -3
(ii) Constant term =
(iii) Constant term = -1

Question 7.
Add:
(i) 3x²y, -5x²y, -x²y
(ii) a + b – 3, b + 2a – 1
Solution:
(i) 3x²y, -5x²y, -x²y
= 3x²y + (-5x²y) + (-x²y)
= 3x²y – 5x²y – x²y
= (3 – 5 – 1 )x²y
= -3x²y
(ii) a + b – 3, b + 2a – 1
= (a + b – 3) + (b + 2a – 1)
= a + b – 3 + b + 2a – 1
= a + 2a + b + b – 3 – 1
= 3a + 2b – 4

Question 8.
Subtract 3x² – x from 5x – x².
Solution:
(5x – x²) – (3x² – x)
= 5x – x² – 3x² + x
= 5x + x – x² – 3x²
= 6x – 4x²

Question 9.
Simplify combining the like terms:
(i) a – (a – b) – b – (b – a)
(ii) x² – 3x + y² – x – 2y²
Solution:
(i) a – (a – b) – b – (b – a)
= a – a + b – b – b + a
= (a – a + a) + (b – b – b)
= a – b
(ii) x² – 3x + y² – x – 2y²
= x² + y² – 2y² – 3x – x
= x² – y² – 4x

Algebraic Expressions Class 7 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 10.
Subtract 24xy – 10y – 18x from 30xy + 12y – 14x.
Solution:
(30xy + 12y – 14x) – (24xy – 10y – 18x)
= 30xy + 12y – 14x – 24xy + 10y + 18x
= 30xy – 24xy + 12y + 10y – 14x + 18x
= 6xy + 22y + 4x

Question 11.
From the sum of 2x² + 3xy – 5 and 7 + 2xy – x² subtract 3xy + x² – 2.
Solution:
Sum of the given term is (2x² + 3xy – 5) + (7 + 2xy – x²)
= 2x² + 3xy – 5 + 7 + 2xy – x²
= 2x² – x² + 3xy + 2xy – 5 + 7
= x² + 5xy + 2
Now (x² + 5xy + 2) – (3xy + x² – 2)
= x² + 5xy + 2 – 3xy – x² + 2
= x² – x² + 5xy – 3xy + 2 + 2
= 0 + 2xy + 4
= 2xy + 4

Question 12.
Subtract 3x² – 5y – 2 from 5y – 3x² + xy and find the value of the result if x = 2, y = -1.
Solution:
(5y – 3x² + xy) – (3x² – 5y – 2)
= 5y – 3x² + xy – 3x² + 5y + 2
= -3x² – 3x² + 5y + 5y + xy + 2
= -6x² + 10y + xy + 2
Putting x = 2 and y = -1, we get
-6(2)² + 10(-1) + (2)(-1) + 2
= -6 × 4 – 10 – 2 + 2
= -24 – 10 – 2 + 2
= -34

Question 13.
Simplify the following expressions and then find the numerical values for x = -2.
(i) 3(2x – 4) + x² + 5
(ii) -2(-3x + 5) – 2(x + 4)
Solution:
(i) 3(2x – 4) + x² + 5
= 6x – 12 + x² + 5
= x² + 6x – 7
Putting x = -2, we get
= (-2)² + 6(-2) – 7
= 4 – 12 – 7
= 4 – 19
= -15
(ii) -2(-3x + 5) – 2(x + 4)
= 6x – 10 – 2x – 8
= 6x – 2x – 10 – 8
= 4x – 18
Putting x = -2, we get
= 4(-2) – 18
= -8 – 18
= -26

Question 14.
Find the value of t if the value of 3x² + 5x – 2t equals to 8, when x = -1.
Solution:
3x² + 5x – 2t = 8 at x = -1
⇒ 3(-1)² + 5(-1) – 2t = 8
⇒ 3(1) – 5 – 2t = 8
⇒ 3 – 5 – 2t = 8
⇒ -2 – 2t = 8
⇒ 2t = 8 + 2
⇒ -2t = 10
⇒ t = -5
Hence, the required value of t = -5.

Question 15.
Subtract the sum of -3x³y² + 2x²y³ and -3x²y³ – 5y⁴ from x⁴ + x³y² + x²y³ + y⁴.
Solution:
Sum of the given terms:

Required expression

Question 16.
What should be subtracted from 2x³ – 3x²y + 2xy² + 3y² to get x³ – 2x²y + 3xy² + 4y²? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
We have

Required expression

Question 17.
To what expression must 99x³ – 33x² – 13x – 41 be added to make the sum zero? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
Given expression:
99x³ – 33x² – 13x – 41
Negative of the above expression is
-99x³ + 33x² + 13x + 41
(99x³ – 33x² – 13x – 41) + (-99x³ + 33x² + 13x + 41)
= 99x³ – 33x² – 13x – 41 – 99x³ + 33x² + 13x + 41
= 0
Hence, the required expression is -99x³ + 33x² + 13x + 41

Algebraic Expressions Class 7 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Type

Question 18.
If P = 2x² – 5x + 2, Q = 5x² + 6x – 3 and R = 3x² – x – 1. Find the value of 2P – Q + 3R.
Solution:
2P – Q + 3R = 2(2x² – 5x + 2) – (5x² + 6x – 3) + 3(3x² – x – 1)
= 4x² – 10x + 4 – 5x² – 6x + 3 + 9x² – 3x – 3
= 4x² – 5x² + 9x² – 10x – 6x – 3x + 4 + 3 – 3
= 8x² – 19x + 4
Required expression.

Question 19.
If A = -(2x + 3), B = -3(x – 2) and C = -2x + 7. Find the value of k if (A + B + C) = kx.
Solution:
A + B + C = -(2x + 13) – 3(x – 2) + (-2x + 7)
= -2x – 13 – 3x + 6 – 2x + 7
= -2x – 3x – 2x – 13 + 6 + 7
= -7x
Since A + B + C = kx
-7x = kx
Thus, k = -7

Question 20.
Find the perimeter of the given figure ABCDEF.

Solution:
Required perimeter of the figure
ABCDEF = AB + BC + CD + DE + EF + FA
= (3x – 2y) + (x + 2y) + (x + 2y) + (3x – 2y) + (x + 2y) + (x + 2y)
= 2(3x – 2y) + 4(x + 2y)
= 6x – 4y + 4x + 8y
= 6x + 4x-4y + 8y
= 10x + 4y
Required expression.

Question 21.
Rohan’s mother gave him ₹ 3xy² and his father gave him ₹ 5(xy² + 2). Out of this total money he spent ₹ (10 – 3xy²) on his birthday party. How much money is left with him? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
Money give by Rohan’s mother = ₹ 3xy²
Money given by his father = ₹ 5(xy² + 2)
Total money given to him = ₹ 3xy² + ₹ 5 (xy² + 2)
= ₹ [3xy² + 5(xy² + 2)]
= ₹ (3xy² + 5xy² + 10)
= ₹ (8xy² + 10).
Money spent by him = ₹ (10 – 3xy)²
Money left with him = ₹ (8xy² + 10) – ₹ (10 – 3xy²)
= ₹ (8xy² + 10 – 10 + 3x²y)
= ₹ (11xy²)
Hence, the required money = ₹ 11xy²

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths

The post Algebraic Expressions Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 12 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Exponents and Powers Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 13

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths Chapter 13 Exponents and Powers

Exponents and Powers Class 7 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Express 343 as a power of 7.
Solution:
We have 343 = 7 × 7 × 7 = 7³
Thus, 343 = 7³

Question 2.
Which is greater 3² or 2³?
Solution:
We have 3² = 3 × 3 = 9
2³ = 2 × 2 × 2 = 8
Since 9 > 8
Thus, 3² > 2³

Question 3.
Express the following number as a powers of prime factors:
(i) 144
(ii) 225
Solution:
(i) We have
144 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 = 2⁴ × 3²
Thus, 144 = 2⁴ × 3²

(ii) We have
225 = 3 × 3 × 5 × 5 = 3² × 5²
Thus, 225 = 3² × 5²

Question 4.
Find the value of:
(i) (-1)¹⁰⁰⁰
(ii) (1)²⁵⁰
(iii) (-1)¹²¹
(iv) (10000)⁰
Solution:
(i) (-1)¹⁰⁰⁰ = 1 [∵ (-1)^{even number} = 1]
(ii) (1)²⁵⁰ = 1 [∵ (1)^{even number} = 1]
(iii) (-1)¹²¹ = -1 [∵ (-1)^{odd number} = -1]
(iv) (10000)⁰ = 1 [∵ a⁰ = 1]

Question 5.
Express the following in exponential form:
(i) 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5
(ii) 4 × 4 × 4 × 5 × 5 × 5
(iii) (-1) × (-1) × (-1) × (-1) × (-1)
(iv) a × a × a × b × c × c × c × d × d
Solution:
(i) 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 = (5)⁵
(ii) 4 × 4 × 4 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 4³ × 5³
(iii) (-1) × (-1) × (-1) × (-1) × (-1) = (-1)⁵
(iv) a × a × a × b × c × c × c × d × d = a³b¹c³d²

Question 6.
Express each of the following as product of powers of their prime factors:
(i) 405
(ii) 504
(iii) 500
Solution:
(i) We have
405 = 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 5 = 3⁴ × 5¹
Thus, 405 = 3⁴ × 5¹

(ii) We have
504 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 7 = 2³ × 3² × 7¹
Thus, 504 = 2³ × 3² × 7¹

(iii) We have
500 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 2² × 5³
Thus, 500 = 2² × 5³

Question 7.
Simplify the following and write in exponential form:
(i) (5²)³
(ii) (2³)³
(iii) (a^b)^c
(iv) [(5)²]²
Solution:
(i) (5²)³ = 5^2×3 = 5⁶
(ii) (2³)³ = 2^3×3 = 2⁹
(iii) (a^b)^c = a^b×c = a^bc
(iv) [(5)²]² = 5^2×2 = 5⁴

Question 8.
Verify the following:

Solution:

Question 9.
Simplify:

Solution:

Question 10.
Simplify and write in exponential form:

Solution:

Exponents and Powers Class 7 Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 11.
Express each of the following as a product of prime factors is the exponential form:
(i) 729 × 125
(ii) 384 × 147
Solution:
(i) 729 × 125 = 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 3⁶ × 5³
Thus, 729 × 125 = 3⁶ × 5³

(ii) 384 × 147 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 7 × 7 = 2⁷ × 3² × 7²
Thus, 384 × 147 = 2⁷ × 3² × 7²

Question 12.
Simplify the following:
(i) 10³ × 9⁰ + 3³ × 2 + 7⁰
(ii) 6³ × 7⁰ + (-3)⁴ – 9⁰
Solution:
(i) 10³ × 9⁰ + 3³ × 2 + 7⁰
= 1000 + 54 + 1
= 1055
(ii) 6³ × 7⁰ + (-3)⁴ – 9⁰
= 216 × 1 + 81 – 1
= 216 + 80
= 296

Question 13.
Write the following in expanded form:
(i) 70,824
(ii) 1,69,835
Solution:
(i) 70,824
= 7 × 10000 + 0 × 1000 + 8 × 100 + 2 × 10 + 4 × 10⁰
= 7 × 10⁴ + 8 × 10² + 2 × 10¹ + 4 × 10⁰
(ii) 1,69,835
= 1 × 100000 + 6 × 10000 + 9 × 1000 + 8 × 100 + 3 × 10 + 5 × 10⁰
= 1 × 10⁵ + 6 × 10⁴ + 9 × 10³ + 8 × 10² + 3 × 10¹ + 5 × 10⁰

Question 14.
Find the number from each of the expanded form:
(i) 7 × 10⁸ + 3 × 10⁵ + 7 × 10² + 6 × 10¹ + 9
(ii) 4 × 10⁷ + 6 × 10³ + 5
Solution:
(i) 7 × 10⁸ + 3 × 10⁵ + 7 × 10² + 6 × 10¹ + 9
= 7 × 100000000 + 3 × 100000 + 7 × 100 + 6 × 10 + 9
= 700000000 + 300000 + 700 + 60 + 9
= 700300769
(ii) 4 × 10⁷ + 6 × 10³ + 5
= 4 × 10000000 + 6 × 1000 + 5
= 40000000 + 6000 + 5
= 40006005

Question 15.
Find the value of k in each of the following:

Solution:

Question 16.
Find the value of
(a) 3⁰ ÷ 4⁰
(b) (8⁰ – 2⁰) ÷ (8⁰ + 2⁰)
(c) (2⁰ + 3⁰ + 4⁰) – (4⁰ – 3⁰ – 2⁰)
Solution:
(a) We have 3⁰ ÷ 4⁰ = 1 ÷ 1 = 1 [∵ a⁰ = 1]
(6) (8⁰ – 2⁰) ÷ (8⁰ + 2⁰) = (1 – 1) ÷ (1 + 1) = 0 ÷ 2 = 0
(c) (2⁰ + 3⁰ + 4⁰) – (4⁰ – 3⁰ – 2⁰)
= (1 + 1 + 1) – (1 – 1 – 1) [∵ a⁰ = 1]
= 3 – 1
= 2

Question 17.
Express the following in standard form:
(i) 8,19,00,000
(ii) 5,94,00,00,00,000
(iii) 6892.25
Solution:
(i) 8,19,00,000 = 8.19 × 10⁷
(ii) 5,94,00,00,00,000 = 5.94 × 10¹¹
(iii) 6892.25 = 6.89225 × 10³

Question 18.
Evaluate:

Solution:

Exponents and Powers Class 7 Extra Questions Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Type

Question 19.
Find the value of x, if

Solution:

Question 20.

Solution:

Extra Questions for Class 7 Maths

NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Maths

The post Exponents and Powers Class 7 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 13 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Practical Geometry Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 14

Extra Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 14 Practical Geometry

Practical Geometry Class 6 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
If AB = 3.6 and CD = 1.6 cm, construct a line segment equal to + and measure the total length.

Solution:
Step I: Draw a ray OX.
Step II : With centre 0 and radius equal to the length of AB (3.6 cm) mark a point P on the ray.

Step III: With centre P and radius equal to the length of CD (1.6 cm) mark another point Q on the ray.
Thus OQ is the required segment such that OQ = 3.6 cm + 1.6 cm = 5.2 cm.

Question 2.
Construct a perpendicular to a given line segment at point on it.
Solution:
Step IDraw a line and take any point A on it.

Step II : With centre A draw an arc which meets PQ at C and D.
Step III : Join AB and produce.
Step IV: With centres C and D and radius equal to half of the length of the previous arc, draw two arcs which meets each other at B.
Thus AB is the required perpendicular to .

Question 3.
Construct an angle of 60° and bisect it.
Solution:
Step I: Draw a line segment .

Step II: With centre B and proper radius, draw an arc which meets AB at C.
Step III : With C as centre and the same radius as in step II, draw an arc cutting the previous arc at D.
Step IV : Join B to D and produce.
Step V : Draw the bisector BE of ∠ABD.
Thus BE is the required bisector of ∠ABD.

Question 4.
Draw an angle of 120° and hence construct an angle of 105°.
Solution:
Step I : Draw a line segment .

Step II : With centre O and proper radius, draw an arc which meets OA at C.
Step III : With centre C and radius same, mark D and E on the previous arc.
Step IV : Join O to E and produce.
Step V : ∠EOA is the required angle of 120°.
Step VI : Construct an angle of 90° which meets the previous arc at F.
Step VII : With centre E and F and proper radius, draw two arcs which meet each other at G.
Step VIII : Join OG and produce.
Thus ∠GOA is the required angle of 105°.

Question 5.
Using compasses and ruler, draw an angle of
75° and hence construct an angle of 37 .
Solution:
Step I: Draw a line segment OA.
Step II : Construct ∠BOA = 90° and ∠EOA = 60°
Step III : Draw OC as the bisector of ∠BOE , which equal to

Step IV : Draw the bisector OD of ∠COA.

Thus ∠DOA is the required angle of 37 .

Question 6.
Draw ∆ABC. Draw perpendiculars from A, B and C respectively on the sides BC, CA and AB. Are there perpendicular concurrent? (passing through the same points).
Solution:
Step I: Draw any ∆ABC.
Step II : Draw the perpendicular AD from A to BC.

Step III : Draw the perpendicular BE from B to AC.
Step IV : Draw the perpendicular CF from C to AB.
We observe that the perpendiculars AD, BE and CF intersect each other at P.
Thus, P is the point of intersection of the three perpendiculars.

Extra Questions for Class 6 Maths

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths

The post Practical Geometry Class 6 Extra Questions Maths Chapter 14 appeared first on Learn CBSE.