Class 11 Political Science Notes Chapter 6 Citizenship

• Citizenship refers to the collective political identity of individuals of the state who enjoy some certain rights also.
• A citzen is entitled to abide by the laws of a particular country in which one enjoys therights as a citizen.
• An ideal citizen can be referred to possess the qualities to be educated, aware of rights and duties, to have a high gravity in character as well as to be loyal to the country.
• In a democratic setup, the citizens enjoy the political rights also, i.e. right to vote, to contest elections, to form political parties and to hold public offices, etc.
• Every citizen is entitled to perform some certain duties also associated with the rights, i. e. obedience of law, loyalty towards the state, cooperation with the public servants and payment of taxes, etc.
• A natural born citizen is the one who either born in the country or if one’s parents are the citizens of a particular country.
• The citizenship of a country can be acquired by marriages, appointment as a government official, acquisition of a territory and purchases of immovable property, etc.
• A good citizenship may be hindered by in differences, poverty, narrow growing and lack of education, etc.
• Global citizenship makes the work easier to deal with the problems to extend across national boundaries and to need cooperative actions of the states on the issues of migrants, stateless people as well as to ensure basic rights and protection, etc.

Class 11 Political Science Notes

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Class 11 Political Science Notes Chapter 7 Nationalism

• The nationalism is a sense of an independent nation that is combined together for the achievement of common goal.
• The persons of a nation are known citizens of a country to enjoy political and civil rights to obey the laws of country.
• An ideal citizen possesses some good qualities, i.e. well educated, aware of one’s own rights and duties having staunch loyalty to the country and with lofty character.
• Nationalism refers to the right of self-determination to imply that every nation in the world should exercise a right to determine its destiny in all walks of life without interference of other states in the world.
• Every nationalist is supposed to perform some duties, i.e. obedience of law, payment of taxes, cooperation with public servants and loyalty with the state, etc.
• State and society are distinguished from each other, i.e. a society has been originated before state and does not enjoy any sovereignty whereas a state has fixed territory and possess sovereignty also.
• State and nation enjoy some distinctions, i.e. state has four essential elements but nation has none. Out of these sovereignty and definite territory are essential for a state.
• State and government are also distinguished, i.e. government is an essential element of state.
• The terms like state, nation and nationality have its own their separate meanings, i.e. state is a political organisation to be either co-existent with nationality.
• Where a state is exclusively composed of one nationality, it is a nation state. But where we have a state to consist of more than one nationality or where a nationality is spread over several states, the state and nation do not coincide.
• Nation refers to be a self-governing nationality.

Class 11 Political Science Notes

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Class 11 Political Science Notes Chapter 8 Secularism

• The word ‘Dharma’ has been derived from Sanskrit refer to adopt along with the basic principle to do welfare of all.
• Secularism refers equal respect for all religions, i.e. the state does not profess any religion and treats all the religions at par.
• Originally, India was not declared a secular state, the word secular was added by the 42nd Amendment Act.
• Secularism refers that political system and administration should be based upon a secular ideology to leave the task of coordination among the different religions and bring unity among them through voluntary social organisation.
• Religion and beliefs are considered as a personal matter, hence, state should have no interference in it.
• India is a secular state because India is impartial in religious matters, all citizens enjoy freedom to adopt any religion as per choice, no discrimination is made on the ground of religion. India has no state religion, religion is kept separate from politics, etc.
• India used to believe since ancient times the nation of Sarva Dharm Sam Bhava (सर्व धर्म सम भाव ) because India respects all religions equally.
• Hence, secular states are neither theocratic nor establish any religion.
• Indian secularism can be criticized on the grounds of being anti-religions, imported from western culture, charge of minoritism, interventionist based on vote bank politics and it is considered to be an impossible project.

Class 11 Political Science Notes

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NIOS Online Admission 2019: NIOS online admission dates have been released by the national institute of open schooling, the conducting body of the exam. Candidates that are interested in seeking the admission in class 10 as well as class 12 can apply for the process through online mode on or before the last date. Also, candidates, that are seeking admission into stream 1 in block 1 and block 2 can be available for the public exam which is conducted by NIOS twice every year. These exams are conducted in the months of April/May and October/November.

This stream which is for online admission is open for new learners in the April exam as per the given eligibility criteria for secondary as well as senior secondary levels. Also, these learners will be eligible to appear in public exams in April 2020 for the first time.

NIOS Online Admission 2019-20 Important Dates

NIOS Online Admission Eligibility Criteria

Secondary Course

• The minimum age for admission into secondary courses is at 14 years on or before July 31, 2019.
• The candidate should have passed class 8 and should have a valid ID proof of attaining 14 years of age. Then only he/she can apply for registration of the secondary course.
• The candidate should give a self-certificate claiming he/she has studied enough to pursue secondary courses. Also, he/she should state that they are eligible for admission into the secondary course.
• The candidate who has studied at the secondary level can also look for admission into NIOS either to improve his/her performance or complete their course.

Senior Secondary Level

• The minimum age for the candidate seeking admission into the senior secondary course is of 15 years on or before 31st July 2019.
• Also, in order to take the admission in the senior secondary course, the candidate should have passed the secondary course from a recognized Institute. Also, the candidate should have passed class 10 from the recognized board.
• The age limit for the second course is 14 years while the age limit for the senior secondary course is 15 years.

NIOS Online Admission Exam Fees

NIOS public exams are occurring twice in a year in months of April/May and October/November on the dates that are fixed by NIOS. However, for on-demand exams at the secondary and senior secondary level, eligibility lies in only those subjects that you have admissions for in NIOS. The exam fees are kept fixed by NIOS and are Rs. 250 per subject with an additional fee of Rs. 120 per subject that involves practicals.

NIOS Admission Online Fee Structure Stream – 1

NIOS Fee Structure for Part Admission/Dual Admission/TOC (Stream – 1)

For transfer of credit fee for class 10 and 12 is Rs. 150 per subject.

For both the courses, the additional fee is Rs. 600.

NIOS Admission Payment Mode

Candidates should pay the application fee through online mode by using a debit card, credit card. For offline mode, candidates can pay the fee through the bank draft of any of the nationalized banks of India in the name of secretary, NIOS at the respective regional centers.

NIOS Online Admission 2019 Application Process

• Go to the official website of NIOS which is admins.nios.ac.in.
• On the website, click on the ‘submit’ button.
• After that read the instructions page carefully and then click on the ‘Proceed’ button.
• Candidates need to select their respective state afterward.
• Select the identity type from the given options like passport, Aadhar card, ration card, and any other validity.
• Enter the number of your selected identity type.
• Now, you need to select the course and the college that you wish to take admission into and then click on the ‘submit’ button.
• Now the application form will appear on the screen.
• There are 4 categories into which the form is divided. These are optional details, basic details, subject selection, and study center selection.
• Fill all the required details for the 4 sections and make the payment through any of the payment gateways given.

Documents Required for NIOS Online Admission

• Recent color photograph of passport size
• A valid identity proof out of Aadhar card, passport, ration card, etc.
• Signature of the candidate preferably in black ink.
• Valid proof of date of birth like Aadhar card or birth certificate with the date of birth clearly mentioned in dd/mm/yyyy format.
• Self-certificate or class 8th marksheet for admission into the secondary course. For senior secondary course, marksheet of class 10th is required.
• Valid residence proof in the form of a water bill/electric bill/Aadhar card/voter ID, etc.
• Social category or caste certificate if the candidate belongs to SC/OBC/ST category.
• If the candidate is ex-servicemen than the ex-servicemen certificate is required.

For more information related to fee, subjects, address of NIOS regional centers, state-wise list of NIOS study centers, application form and prospectus visit the official website which is admins.nios.ac.in. You can also contact the learner support center toll-free no 1800-180-9393 or can email them on lsc@nios.ac.in.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sociology Chapter 1 Social Structure, Stratification and Social Processes in Society

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 1 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Discuss the different tasks that demand cooperation with reference to agricultural or industrial operations.
Answer:
Cooperation is an associative social process. It involves individuals or groups working together to achieve their individual or collective goals. Cooperation is universal and continuous process. It involves sympathy, empathy and capacity to unite people. It fulfils member’s physical and psycho social needs.

In simple societies where no surplus was produced, there was cooperation between individuals and groups, although in the capitalistic societies cooperation do exist but many a time it is enforced, e.g. the factory workers do cooperate in their everyday work but a certain conflict of interests would define their relationship.
The idea of cooperation rests on certain assumptions about human’s behaviours. According to Durkheim, the role of division of labour-which implies cooperation—is precisely to fulfil certain needs of society.

In agricultural societies people are dependent on each other. The members work together to achieve shared goals. In villages a group of people i.e. ironsmith provides tools, equipment of agriculture. Another groups may be working as shopkeeper and . provides seeds, fertilisers and pesticides. A group of people work in the field to sow seeds, at harvesting time cut the crops and do other activities. The farmer alone can’t attain the goals.

Similarly in the field of industrial operations, there is specialisations. The workers as well as management may be enforced among each other to attain the shared goals.

Question 2.
Is cooperation always voluntary or is it enforced? If enforced, is it sanctions or is the strength of norms that ensure cooperation? Discuss with examples.
Answer:
The relationship between cooperation, competition and conflict is often complex and not easily separable.

In order to understand how cooperation may entail conflict, and the difference between ‘enforced’ and ‘voluntary cooperation’ we can take example of women’s rights properly. Daughters, knowing their rights on the property mostly would not claim full or anv share of natal property, because they were afraid this would sour relations with
their brothers. So this cooperation of daughters with the natal family members is not voluntary, it is basically enforced. Daughters have no option, if they want to maintain harmonious relationship with natal family members.

Basically voluntary or enforced cooperations depend on the circumstances. To attain the shared goals e.g. prosperity of family, all the members work and earn money or in villages all the members work in the field voluntarily to bring prosperity to the family.

Cooperation can be seen as universal feature of all societies, explained as inevitable interaction among humans living in a society and pursuing their ends.

According to conflict perspective in societies, divided by caste, or class some groups are disadvantaged and discriminated against. The dominant groups sustain this unequal order by a series of cultural norms and other methods involving force or even violence.

The functionalist perspective explains cooperation in terms of society as a whole. Functionalists mainly see the norms or sanctions as “system requirement” of the society – certain functional prerequisite.
Sociological studies have shown how norms, sanctions and patterns of socialisation ensure particular social order which is functional requisite for the existence of society.

Question 3.
Can you find illustrative examples of conflict drawn from Indian society? Discuss the causes that led to conflict in each instance.
Answer:
Conflict includes all those processes in which individual acts against the wishes of others to achieve his purpose. It is a conscious process to attain one’s gains.

Conflict is a dissociative social process in which either an individual or a group perceives that others have opposing interests and both try to contract each other. Conflicts between groups give impetus to a series of social and cognitive processes. These processes harden the stand of each side leading to in-group polarisation. This may result in coalition formation of like minded parties thereby increasing the apprehensions of both parties. These are related to caste, class, religion, region, language just to name a few of them.

Explanation of such conflicts can be at the structural, group and individual levels.
In Indian society, structural conditions include high rates of poverty, economic and social stratification, inequality, limited political and social opportunities etc.
At the individual level, beliefs, biased attitudes and personality are important determinants.
In India in recent days conflicts on land issue, identity issues, communal issues, class issues and language issues are becoming very common.

Question 4.
Write an essay based on examples to show how conflicts get resolved.
Answer:
Conflicts are inevitable in any society. It is a dissociative social process. Since the focus is on system sustenances, competition and conflict is looked at with the understanding that in most cases they tend to get resolved without too much distress.

Conflicts can be resolved if we know about their causes. A number of social processes operate to resolve conflicts like accommodation, assimilation and enforced cooperation. The conflicts can be resolved through certain strategies also. Few of them are as follows:

• Negotiations: Conflicts can be resolved through negotiations and third party interventions.
• Warring groups can resolve conflicts by trying to fluid mutually acceptable solutions. This requires understanding and trust.
• Negotiation refers to reciprocal communications so as to reach to an agreement in situations in which there is a conflict.
• Sometimes it is difficult to dissipate conflict through negotiations; at that time mediation and arbitrations by a third party is needed.
• Mediators help both parties to focus their discussions on the relevant issues and reach a voluntary agreement.
• In arbitration, the third party has the authority to give a decision after hearing both the parties.

Question 5.
Imagine a society where there is no competition. Is it possible? If not, why not?
Answer:
No, we cannot imagine a society where there is no competition. People interact among themselves in different contexts. Behaviours in most social situations are characterised by either cooperation or competition. When groups work together to achieve the shared goals, we refer to it as cooperation. When members try to maximise their own benefits and work for the realisation of self interest, competition is likely to result. But all social interactions include cooperation and competition.

Competitive goals are set in such a way that each individual can get his/her goal only if others do not attain their goals. Many a time the groups and individuals are placed differently and unequally within the system of production relations.

But we must remember that competitions which is a dissociative social process is integral part of the social structure. Therefore we cannot imagine a society without competition. It is integral and inevitable part of any society in the world. There may be less competitive society or highly competitive society but a society without competition can’t exist.

Question 6.
Talk to your parents and elders, grandparents and their contemporaries and discuss whether modem society is really more competitive or conflict ridden than it used to be before. And if you think it is, how would you explain this sociologically?
Answer:
Try yourself.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 1 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 1 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by social structure?
Answer:

• Structure refers to some sort of ordered arrangement of parts or components.
• The term ‘social structure’ refers to any recurring pattern of social behaviour or the ordered relationship between the different elements of a social system.
• Main elements of social structure are status, role, norms and values.

Question 2.
What do you understand by social processes?
Answer:
The repetitive forms of social interaction are called social processes.
It is the continuous change in a situation which happens in a particular way because of the activities of its inherent forces.

Question 3.
What do you understand by social stratification? Why is it essential?
Answer:
The term ‘stratification’ refers to studies of structured social inequality between groups of people, which arise as the unintended consequence of social processes and relationships.

Question 4.
Explain the concept of caste stratification.
Answer:
Caste is an institution of considerable internal complexity. Caste stratification is a type of rigid hierarchical social division of society in permanent groups or categories.
This division is based on the relationships of superiority and subordination.

Question 5.
Explain the concept of class stratification.
Answer:
A social class is any position of the community marked off from the rest of social status. These classes are arranged on the basis of economic conditions but social classes are more than economic groups. They show a common pattern of behaviour and develop in group bias. It may be defined as broad category of people who share similar economic conditions.

Question 6.
Explain the concept of gender stratification.
Answer:
Gender stratification refers to socially unequal division into femininity and masculinity. It is not only related to the difference between males and females and to individual identity and personality but also at symbolic level, to cultural ideals and stereotypes of masculinity and femininity at the structural level, to the sexual division of labour in institutions and organisations.

Question 7.
What do you mean by Ethnicity?
Answer:
The term ‘Ethnicity’ refers to the individuals who consider themselves to share common characteristics that differentiate them from the other collectivities in a society and from which they develop their distinctive cultural behaviour, form an ethnic group.
One race hates the other race due to the sense of superiority. It is not inborn.

Question 8.
What is Accommodation?
Answer:
Accommodation is a form of social process in which two or more persons or groups interact in order to prevent, reduce or eliminate conflict.
It is a process whereby the subordinate groups simply conform to the expectations of the dominant group.

Question 9.
What is Assimilation?
Answer:
Assimilation implies that the subordinate groups actually come to accept and internalise the values and culture of the dominant group.
It is a social process through which, persons or groups accept the behaviour of others.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 1 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the concept of status.
Answer:
The term ‘status’ has two meanings in sociology:

1. It refers to the position a person occupies in the social structure, such as a teacher or doctor. This status (position) may be ascribed or achieved.
2. Status refers to a form of social stratification in which social positions are ranked and organised by legal, political and cultural criteria into status groups.

Question 2.
What are Norms? Explain its importance.
Answer:
Norms are shared expectations of behaviour. It connotes what is considered culturally desirable and appropriate.
Norms are similar to rules or regulations in prescriptive, although they lack the formal status of rules.
The sociological concept of norm is closely related to that of ‘role’, which is commonly defined as a set of norms attached to social position.

Question 3.
Distinguish between mechanical and organic solidarity.
Answer:

• According to Durkheim, traditional cultures with a low division of labour are characterised by mechanical solidarity.
• Most of the members of the society are involved in similar occupations. They are bound together by common experience and shared beliefs.
• According to Durkheim, societies characterised and held together by people’s economic interdependence and a recognition of the importance of others contributions are called organic solidarity.
• Its division of labour becomes more complex, people become more and more dependent on each other.
• Relationships of economic reciprocity and mutual dependency come to replace shared beliefs in creating social consensus.

Question 4.
How voluntary cooperation is different from enforced cooperation? (HOTS)
Answer:
Cooperation may be voluntary, may be enforced. It depends on the situation.
In agricultural operations different members of the group perform different activities. They grow different crops. Some focus on fishing or growing vegetables and some perform supportive activities. For example, preparing tools and equipment. They all cooperate each other to get good harvest. This is voluntary cooperation, which is intrinsic in nature.

But the factory workers do cooperate with the owners in performing their tasks because total production depends on their mutual relations but it is actually system requirement. This cooperation is a prerequisite for job sustenance. Behind the cooperation there are many norms. So this is enforced cooperation which is extrinsic. The feeling of fulfilment and creativity of a weaver or potter or ironsmith is voluntary cooperation.
In contrast, a worker involved in a factory whose sole task may be to pull lever or press a button throughout the day. Cooperation in such a situation would be enforced.

Question 5.
How Durkheim and Marx differ on the issue of cooperation?
Answer:
For Durkheim, solidarity, the moral force of society is fundamental for understanding of cooperation and thereby functioning of society.

The role of division of labour which implies cooperation is precisely to fulfil certain needs of society. It is simply system requirement. For Marx, cooperation is not voluntary in a society where class exists. He argues, “The social power i.e. multiplied productive force (surplus) arises through the cooperation of different individuals as it is caused by the division of labour. Cooperation is not voluntary but naturally. In this enforced cooperation, workers lose control over how to organise their own work and they lose control over the fruits of their labour.”

Question 6.
What is competition? How is it different from cooperation?
Answer:
Cooperation is a dissociative social process in which it sets up its own values in opposition to the mainstream.
Competition is a social process in which many people struggle to achieve something which has hunted availability.
Competition is for getting scarce resources, may be money, jobs, prestige, position, power or love.
Competition is a universal social process but it varies from culture to culture.
Concept of competition involves attainment of goal without using force or terror. Cooperation represents all relations among persons or groups which work together towards a shared common goal.
Cooperation is an associative social process. It may be conscious or unconscious. It involves an element of sympathy, sacrifice and feeling of togetherness.

Question 7.
What is Laissezfaire liberalism?
Answer:
A political and economic approach based on the general principle of non-interference in the economy by government and freedom for markets and property owners, is called Laissez faire liberalism.
Laissez faire liberalism is an approach to economics that asserts the importance of the free, competitive market of the individual suppliers and individual purchasers to the efficient production, distribution and allocation of goods and services and emphasises on the need to keep state regulation to a maximum.

Question 8.
What do you mean by division of labour?
Answer:
The specialisation of work tasks by means of which different occupations are combined within a production system. With the development of industrialisation the division of labour becomes more complex than any prior type of production system. In the modem world, the division of labour is international in scope. On the basis of division of labour, the concept of organic solidarity functions with the form of social cohesion. The interdependence of members of society is the result of such kind of solidarity.

Question 9.
What is dominant ideology?
Answer:
Dominant ideology refers to shared ideas or beliefs which serve to justify the interests of dominant groups. Such ideologies are found in the societies in which are systematic. The concept of ideology connects closely with that of power, since ideological system serves to legitimise the differential power which groups hold.

Question 10.
What is alienation in terms of Marx?
Answer:
Marx used the term alienation to refer to the loss of control on the part of workers over the products of their labour.
In general term, it describes the estrangement of individuals from one another or from a specific situation or process.

Question 11.
Do you think that conflicts are always manifestations through overt clashes? Explain with suitable examples.
Answer:
Conflict is often not overtly expressed. Many a time conflict appears as a discord or overt clash only when it is openly expressed e.g. the existence of a peasant movement is an overt expression of a deep rooted conflict over land resources. But it is not always true. This can be explained through a few examples.

Traditionally the family and household were often seen as harmonious units where cooperation was the dominant process and altruism (doing some thing good for other without having any vested interest) the driving principle of human behaviour. ‘Maternal altruism’ in the northern Indian plain is likely to be biased towards sons and can be seen as women’s response to patriarchal risk.
Mostly we observe that women’s subversion of male decision-making power tends to be covert e.g. doing small business or money landing.

Another example of covert conflict and overt cooperation is related to property rights where a woman demanding her rights is named as greedy. Woman mostly shows cooperation by not demanding her right but inside the conflict occurs and causes bitterness.

Question 12.
Differentiate between functionalist perspective and conflict perspective in terms of social processes.
Answer:
Karl Marx is usually associated with conflict perspective and Emile Durkheim is usually identified with a functionalist perspective.
Conflict theories emphasised the importance of interests over norms and values and the ways in which the pursuit of interests generated various types of conflicts as normal aspect of social life, rather than abnormal or dysfunctional (interfering) occurences e.g. class conflicts in industrial society.

According to conflict perspective, societies divided by caste or class or patriarchy, some groups are disadvantaged and discriminated against. The dominant groups sustain the unequal order by a series of cultural norms and often force or even violence.
In functional perspective, society is seen as an organic whole, each of its constituent parts working to maintain the others just as the parts of the body coordinate.

This idea is basic to the conception of organic solidarity which emphasises on people’s economic interdependence and recognition of the importance of other’s contributions. Functionalist perspective is mainly concerned with the system requirements of society-certain functional imperatives, functional requisites and prerequisites. These refer to the fulfilment of conditions which are necessary for the existence of a system.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sociology

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Class 11 Political Science Notes Chapter 9 Peace

• Peace is often defined as an absence of war and nations establish the relations with each other in a peaceful and harmonious way to achieve progress in the world.
• Terrorism is a hindrance in the peace of some nations to be violent and unlawful to achieve the desired goals by terrorists.
• To maintain peace, some nations have adopted disarmament as a policy to stop the manufacturing and storage of deadly war weapons.
• India has followed the policy of non-alignment and settled international disputes through peaceful methods and cooperation.
• The 19th century German philosopher, Fried rich Nietzsche did not value peace because he believed that only conflict could facilitate growth of civilization.
• The non-violence refers not to injure anything on the earth in thought, word or deed but sometimes it is necessary to use the force to maintain peace but war should be the last resort only.
• Pacifism covers a spectrum of views to preach opposition to war or violence as a means to settle disputes.
• The United Nations organisation is an international organisation, founded on 24 October 1945 after the Second World War come to an end.
• The UNO established international peace and security to promote social, economic, cultural and human relationship at international level.
• For the establishment of peace, various approaches have been developed, i.e. to respect sovereignty and treat competition, to grant deep rooted nature of inter state rivalry and envisages the emergence of supranational order, etc.

Class 11 Political Science Notes

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Class 11 Political Science Notes Chapter 10 Development

• The idea of development became a main concern after the industrial revolution. Development refers to the achievement of social and economic progress by transforming conditions of underdevelopment as low productivity, stagnation and poverty.
• Development conveys the ideas of improvement, progress, well being and an aspiration for a better life to articulate a vision for the society as a whole and methods to achieve it.
• Development cannot be understood as only in economic terms but it can place also in social and political terms.
• Development bears the different approaches also like psychological, human needs development, dependency, Gandhian and market-friendly approaches, etc.
• Sustainable development makes the efforts to meet the well being needs of present and future generations.
• Gandhiji viewed development to be different from Western model of development and made a distinction between economic and real development.
• This concept gained importance after the second half of 20th century when many countries from Asia and Africa attained political independence.
• A criticism has taken place that development projects to be proven very costly for developing countries.
• The development pays a high social cost also because displacement has led to many struggles in the countries.
• Development should not be measured only in the terms of materials only but it can also be measured in terms of happiness, harmony and satisfaction of essential needs.

Class 11 Political Science Notes

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sociology Chapter 2 Social Change and Social Order in Rural and Urban Society

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 2 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Would you agree with the statement that rapid social change is a comparatively new phenomenon in human history? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:

• It is estimated that human beings have existed on planet earth for approximately 500.0 (five lakh) years, but they have had a civilised existence for only about 6.0 years.
• Of these civilized years, it is only in the last 400 years that we have seen constant and rapid changes.
• Even within these years of change, the pace has accelerated only in the last 100 years. Because the speed with which change happens has been increasing steadily, it is probably true that in the last hundred years, change has been faster in the last fifty years than in the first fifty.
• And within the last fifty years the world may have changed more in the last twenty years than in the first thirty years.

Question 2.
How is social change to be distinguished from other kinds of change?
Answer:

• Social change is a general term that refers to almost any kind of change not qualified by some other terms, such as economic or political change.
• Social change refers to changes that are significant, changes which alter the underlying structure of an object or situation over a period of time.
• Social change does not include any and all changes, but only changes which transform things fundamentally.
• Social change remains a very broad term. Attempts to further qualify it by its sources or causes: by its nature, or the kind of impact it has on society; and by its pace or speed.

Question 3.
What do you understand by ‘structural change’? Explain with examples other than those in the text.
Answer:

• Structural change refers to transformations in the structure of society to its institutions or the rules by which these institutions are run.
• For example, the emergence of paper money as currency marked a major change. in the organization of financial markets and transactions. Until this change came
  about, most forms of currency involved precious metals like gold and silver.
• The value of the coin was directly linked to the value of the gold or silver it contained.
• By contrast, the value of a paper currency note has no relationship to the value of the paper it is printed on, or the cost of its printing.
• The idea behind paper money was that a medium or means for facilitating the exchange of goods and services need not itself be intrinsically valuable. As long as it represents values convincingly i.e., as long as it inspires trust – almost anything can function as money.
• Changes in values and beliefs can also lead to social change.
• For example, changes in the ideas and childhood have brought about many types of social changes. There was a time when children were simply considered small adults. There was no special concept of childhood as such with its associated notions of what was right or wrong for children to do.
• As late as in 19th century, for example, it was considered good and proper that children do work as soon as they are able to. Children were often helping their families at work from the age of five or six; the early factory system depended on the labour of children.
• It was during the 19th and early 20th centuries that ideas of life gained influence for small children to be at work, and many countries passed laws banning child labour.

Question 4.
Describe some kinds of environment related social change.
Answer:
1. Nature, ecology and physical environment have always had a significant influence on the structure and shape of society.

2. This was particularly true in the past when human beings were unable to control or overcome the effects of nature. For example, people living in a desert environment were unable to practice settled agriculture of the sort that was possible in the plains, near rivers and so on. So the kind of food they ate or the clothes they wore, the way they earned their livelihood, their patterns of social interaction were all determined to a large extent by the physical and climatic conditions of their environment.

3. Sudden and catastrophic events such as earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, floods, or tidal waves (like the tsunami that hit Indonesia, Sri Lanka, the Andaman Islands and parts of Tamil Nadu in December 2004) can change societies quite drastically. These changes are often irreversible, that is, they are permanent and don’t allow a return to the way things were.

4. There are numerous instances of natural disasters leading to total transformation and sometimes total destruction of societies in history. Environmental or ecological factors need not only be destructive to cause change, they can be constructive as well.

Question 5.
What are some kinds of changes brought about by technology and the economy?
Answer:

1. The combination of technological and economic change has been responsible for immense social changes, specially in the modern period.

2. Technology affects society in a wide variety of ways. As seen above, it can help . us to resist, control, adapt to or harness nature in different ways. In combination with the very powerful institution of the market, technological change can be as impressive in its social impact as natural factors like a tsunami or the discovery of oil.

3. The discovery of steam power allowed emerging forms of large scale industry to make use of a source of energy that was not only far stronger than animals or human beings, but was also capable of continuous operation without the need for rest.

4. Modes of transport like the steam, ship and the railways transformed the economy and social geography of the world.

5. The rail, road enabled the westward expansion of industry and trade on the American continent and in Asia. In India too, the railways have played a very important role in shaping the economy, specially in the first century after their introduction in 1853.

6. Steamships made ocean voyages much faster and much more reliable, thereby
changing the dynamics of international trade and migration. Both these developments created gigantic ripples of change which affected not only the economy but also the social, cultural and demographic dimensions of world 3 society.

7. Sometimes, the social impact of technological changes become visible only retrospectively. A technological invention or discovery may produce limited immediate effects, as though it were lying dormant. Some later change in the economic context may suddenly change the social significance of the same invention and give it recognition as a historic event. Examples of this are the discovery of gunpowder and writing paper in China, which had only limited impact for centuries until they were inserted into the context of modernizing Western Europe.

8. From that vantage point, given the advantage of enabling circumstances, gunpowder helped to transform the technology of warfare and the paper-print revolution changed society forever.

9. Sometimes changes in economic organization that are not directly technological can also change society. In a well-known historical example, plantation agriculture, that is, the growing of single cash crops like sugarcane, tea or cotton on a large scale created a heavy demand for labour.

10. In India, too, the tea plantations of Assam involved the forced migration of labour from Eastern India (specially the Adivasi areas of Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh).

Question 6.
What is meant by social order and how is it maintained?
Answer:

• Social order, is the tendency within established social systems that resists and regulates change.
• Social order prevents, discourages, or at least controls change. In order to establish itself as a strong and viable social system, every society must be able to reproduce itself over time and maintain its stability. Stability requires that things continue more or less as they are – that people continue to follow the same rules, that similar actions produce similar results, and more generally, that individuals and institutions behave in a fairly predictable manner.
• The ruling or dominant groups in society generally resist any social changes that
  may alter their status, because they have a vested interest in stability. On the other hand, the subordinated or oppressed groups have a vested interest in change. ‘Normal’ conditions usually favour the rich and powerful, and they are able to resist change.
• Social order refers to the active maintenance and reproduction of a particular pattern of social relations, values and norms. Broadly speaking, social order can be achieved in one or two ways – when people spontaneously wish to abide by a set of rules and norms; or when people are compelled in various ways to obey such norms.
• Spontaneous consent to social order derives ultimately from shared values and norms which are internalised by people through the process of socialisation.
• Socialisation may be more or less efficient in different contexts, but however efficient it is, it can never completely erase the will of the individual.
• While socialisation does take on much of the burden of producing social order, it is never enough by itself.
• Thus, most modem societies must also depend on some form of power or coercion to ensure that institutions and individuals conform to established social norms.
• Power is usually defined as the ability to make others do what you want regardless of what they themselves want. When a relationship of power is stable and settled, and the parties involved have become accustomed to their relative positions, we have a situation of domination.
• If a social entity (a person, institution or group) is routinely or habitually in a position of power, it is said to be dominant.
• In normal times, dominant institutions, groups or individuals exercise a decisive influence on society. It is not as though they are never challenged, but this happens only in abnormal or extraordinary times.

Question 7.
What is authority and how is it related to domination and the law?
Answer:
Authority is defined by Max Weber as legitimate power, that is, power considered to be justified or proper. For example, a police officer, a judge, or a school teacher all exercise different kinds of authority as part of their jobs.

• This authority is explicitly provided to them by their official job description. There are written documents specifying their authority, and what they may and may not do.
• A law is an explicitly codified norm or rule. It is usually written down, and there are laws that specify how laws are to be made or changed, or what is to be done if someone violates them.
• Law forms the formal body of rules according to which society will be governed. Laws apply to all citizens. Whether or not I as an individual agree with a particular law, it has binding force on me as a citizen, and on all other citizens similarly regardless of their beliefs.
• Domination works through power, but much of this power is actually legitimate power or authority a large part of which is codified in law.
• Consent and cooperation are obtained on a regular and reliable basis because of the backing of this structure of legitimation and formal institutional support. This does not exhaust the domain of power or domination – there are many kinds of power that are effective in society even though they are illegitimate, or if legitimate are not codified in law.

Question 8.
How are a village, town and city distinguished from each other?
Answer:

• Villages are a unit of the rural community, where rural life upholds itself and does perform its functions.
• It is simple community based on agriculture.
• Villages are end product of nomadic ways of life based on hunting, gathering food and transient agriculture to a more settled form of life.
• Social changes are slow and gradual.
• It has a large population, high density of population, heterogeniety predominantly engaged in non agricultural occupations.
• Their life is complex and multidimensional. These are mostly commercial hubs.
• Social changes in cities are quick and drastic.

Question 9.
What are some features of social order in rural areas?
Answer:

• Villages are small in size so they usually permit more personalised relationships;
  it is not unusual for members of a village to know all or most other members by sight.
• The social structure in villages tends to follow a more traditional pattern: institutions like caste, religion, arid other forms of customary or traditional social practices are stronger here.
• For these reasons, unless there are special circumstances that make for an exception change is slower to arrive in villages than in towns.
• The subordinate sections of society have much less scope for expressing themselves in rural areas than their counterparts in cities. The lack of anonymity and distance in the village makes it difficult for people to dissent because they can be easily identified and ‘taught a lesson’ by the dominant sections.
• The relative power of the dominant sections is much more because they control most avenues of employment, and most resources of all kinds, so the poor have to depend on the dominant sections since there are no alternative sources of employment of support.
• If there is a strong power structure already in place in a village, it is very difficult to dislodge it. Change in the sense of shifts in power are thus slow and late to arrive in rural areas because the social order is stronger and more resilient.
• Change of other sorts is also slow to come because villages are scattered and not as well connected to the rest of the world as cities and towns are.
• Communication links of other sorts (road, rail) have also generally improved over time so that a few villages can really claim to be ‘isolated’ or ‘remote’.
• High population density places a great premium on space and creates very complex problems of logistics. It is the primary task of the urban social order to ensure the spatial viability of the city.
• This means the organization and management of things like: housing and residential patterns; mass transit systems for transporting, large number of workers to and from for work; arranging for the coexistence of residential, public and industrial land-use zones.
• All the public health, sanitation, policing, public safety and monitoring are needs of urban governance.
• These functions as a huge undertaking in itself and present formidable challenges of planning, implementation and maintenance.
• The divisions and tensions of class, ethnicity, religion, caste and so on are also present and active.
• Lack of housing for the poor leads to homelessness, and the phenomenon of ‘street people’ – those who live and survive on the streets and footpaths, under bridges and flyovers, abandoned buildings and other empty spaces. It is also the leading cause for the emergence of slums.
• Because of the absence of ‘settled’ property rights of the kind seen elsewhere, slums are the natural breeding ground for ‘dadas’ and strongmen who impose their authority on the people who live there.
• Residential areas in cities all over the world are almost always segregated by class, and often also by race, ethnicity, religion and other such variables. Tension between such identities cause these segregation patterns and are also a consequence.
• For example, in India, communal tensions between religious communities, most commonly Hindus and Muslims, results in the conversion of mixed neighbourhoods into single-community ones.
• This in turn gives a specific spatial pattern to communal violence whenever it erupts, which again furthers the ’ghettoisation’ process.
• The worldwide phenomenon of ‘gated communities’ is also found in Indian cities. This refers to the creation of affluent neighbourhoods that are separated from their surroundings by walls and gates, with controlled entry and exit. Such communities also have their own parallel civic facilities, such as water and electricity supply, policing and security.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 1 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 1 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define social change.
Answer:
Social change refers to any change in the system in which social-relationships remain organised, controlled and stable.

Question 2.
Define authority.
Answer:
Authority refers to a person who has inherent power to give reward and punishment. According to Max Weber, authority refers to legitimate power.

Question 3.
Define law.
Answer:
“Law is the body of rules which are recognised, interpreted and applied to particular situations by the courts of the state.”
Law is collection of customary standardised and formalised norms that regulate human conduct. They have the support of customs and law making bodies.

Question 4.
What is traditional authority?
Answer:
Traditional authority emphasises on social values, beliefs and continuity. Family based on kinship are its example.
It maintains the social order and brings desired changes according to social demands.

Question 5.
What is socialisation?
Answer:
Socialisation is a process of social learning through which a child acquires the norms, attitudes, beliefs and behaviours that are acceptable in his/her culture. The principal agents of socialisation are the family, school, peer group and media.

Question 6.
What is conformity?
Answer:
Conformity is a type of social influence in which individuals change their attitude or behaviour in order to adhere to existing social norms.

Question 7.
What do you understand by Ghettoisation?
Answer:
Ghettoisation is the process of creation of ghettoes through the conversion of mixed composition neighbourhoods into single community neighbourhoods.

Question 8.
What is the meaning of social influence?
Answer:
It refers to the efforts by one or more individuals to change the attitudes, beliefs, perception or behaviour of the people.

Question 9.
Define social norms.
Answer:
It refers to rules indicating how individuals are expected to behave in specific situations.

Question 10.
What is contestation?
Answer:
It refers to broad forms of insistent disagreement. It is a situation in which people tend to protest against or refuse to conform to existing social norms.

Question 11.
What is charismatic authority?
Answer:
A particular political or religious leader with whom people get attached due to his exceptional and supernatural qualities is called charismatic authority. Such people have great power to influence people.

Question 12.
How technology can bring social change?
Answer:
Technology refers to the use of sophisticated methods to fulfil material needs which is capable of bringing vast changes in the society.
It changes the simple society into complex one. Social changes due to technology is being labelled as technological revolution.

Question 13.
How was the word ‘culture’ derived?
Answer:
The word ‘culture’ comes from the Latin word “colere” which means to cultivate. It was used to refer to progressive refinement.

Question 14.
What is city?
Ans, A city is the core of metropolitan area. It has a large population, high density of population, heterogeneity, predominantly engaged in non-agricultural occupations.

Question i5.
What is a suburb?
Answer:
A suburb is a community situated just on the outskirt of a city having low population density and smaller population. It is located in the metropolitan area.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 1 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is social change?
Answer:

• Social change refers to the change in the system in which human social relationship remains organised, controlled and stable.
• It is a universal phenomena that the rate of change varies. It is community change and nature of change is influenced significantly by time factor.
• Social changes are of various types i.e.; growth, evolution, progress etc.
• Social changes are caused by changes in economy, social and environmental factors, technological factors and political status of that state.

Question 2.
State a few causes of crime in the society.
Answer:

1. Biological factors: It is the result of heredity transmission.
2. Psychological factors: Frustration leads to aggression and aggression leads to crime.
3. Economic factors: Poverty big gap between classes, unemployment etc.
4. Geographical factors: Due to climate and seasonal changes.
5. Socio-cultural factors: Lack of proper education, broken homes.

Question 3.
“Society is not static phenomenon, instead it is subject to constant change.” Discuss.
Answer:

• Social change is inevitable in social life and relationship.
• Evolutionary theories views society as moving in a definite direction and cause changes.
• Social changes may occur in the internal or external aspects of the structure of society.

External change refers to changes in forms of family, marriage, class, caste and kinship etc.

• Internal changes refer to changes in the norms and values of the society.
• The rate of change of internal aspects is always slow because the social norms, values and belief gradually become part of the core of personality.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 1 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How demographic factors, education and social legislation cause social change?
Answer:

• Population growth, its size and composition cause social change.
• When population starts multiplying, unemployment, housing, cleanliness and hygiene, poor economic condition, severe stress due to competition.
• Education is one of the core factors which has far reaching consequences on the evolution, revolution and progress of individual and society by and large.
• Modem educational system aims at imparting empirical knowledge.
• Education enables the members to participate effectively in social domains.
• Education can bring radical changes in the status of women.
• Modem education has brought significant changes in customs, traditions, superstitions and beliefs of people in the society.
• Social legislation has brought significant changes in society if it is supported by
  social opinion.
• After independence in India many legislations have been passed out. Of so many, a few could bring about significant changes e.g. legislation related to SCs and STs. But there are many which are unplemented. It could not bring about significant changes particularly in the rural society like ‘Sharda Act’ related to child marriage.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sociology

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sociology Chapter 2 Social Change and Social Order in Rural and Urban Society appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NIOS Public Exam And On-Demand Examination System: There are significant features in the evaluation system of the national institute of open schooling. One of these features is to answer the questions in public examination in any of their preferred regional languages. Although the question paper is available only in the form of English or Hindi/available regional languages only.

The certificates and intimation letters provided have scanned photographs of the learners. The information regarding the exam centers and the NIOS results are made available for everyone ob NIOS official website. Recently, NIOS has adopted several new ideas for the evaluation system to maintain it’s standards and credibility. One such new idea is the on-demand examination system at the secondary as well as senior secondary levels for the registered candidates. In this article, you will find details about NIOS public exam and the on-demand examination system.

NIOS Public Exam and On-Demand Examination System

The public exams are held twice in a year as per the dates fixed by NIOS. These exams usually happen in months of April-May and October-November. Candidates can register for public exams online also. For this, the examination fee can be paid through debit card or credit card or net banking or through bank draft. The bank draft should be in favor of “Secretary NIOS” and it should be payable at the concerned regional center within a week after the date of submission of the online application form. Below are the important dates for NIOS public exam and on-demand examination system

NIOS Registration for Public Examination

After the final dates are gone, students still have the opportunity to register by paying the required exam fees along with the consolidated fee of Rs. 1500. This payment should be accepted through debit card or credit card or net banking or through bank draft. Here also bank draft should be drawn in favor of “Secretary NIOS” and payable at the concerned regional center.

Procedure for Registration through AI (Study Centre)/Common Service Centre/Authorised Facilitation Centre

• If a candidate wants to register for a public exam for NIOS held in April – May, and October – November, candidates need to go through the given time schedule.
• Fill up the exam form and deposit it with the coordinator of your study center along with the given exam fee within the prescribed dates in person or through any of the representatives.
• The exam form will be attached with the prospectus, a photocopy of which might be used for the upcoming exam. This can also be obtained from the study center free of cost or you can download it from the NIOS official website.
• It is important that you fill-up the correct codes for the subject that you wish to appear for in the main exam form. Also, you can register for only those subjects that you had selected during the time of admission. Do check the subject codes that you filled in the exam form carefully.
• You will eligible to appear for the on-demand examination system at the secondary level as well as senior secondary level only in those subjects that you have taken admission in NIOS.
• If you already are a registered learner for NIOS at the secondary level or the senior secondary level, then you have the option to appear for the main exam through NIOS.

Credit Accumulation

The candidate can have as many as nine chances to appear for the public exams which are spread across a period of 5 years from the validity of admission. NIOS will keep on accumulating your credit in the given subjects in its database until the candidate clears all the required subjects for certification. Also, it is necessary for NIOS to revise the syllabus for different courses from time to time. In this case, the decision about NIOS will be on the candidate.

After the results are declared, candidates will receive their results through study centers. Migration and provisional certificates will be issued to the successful candidates only. The pass certificate of the student will be issued in six months after the results are declared.

On-Demand Examination (ODES)

Candidates can appear in the exam as per their preparation and wish. Also, it is subjected to seats available in the exam center.

Subjects available for appearing through ODES at the Secondary level are

Social Science (213), Economics (214), Hindi (201), English (202), Science & Technology (212), Business Studies (215), Home Science (216), Sanskrit (209), Mathematics (211), Psychology (222), Painting (225), Data Entry Operations (229), Indian Culture and Heritage (223)

Subjects available for appearing through ODES at the Senior Secondary level are::

Sanskrit (309), Mathematics (311), Physics (312), Hindi (301), English (302), Economics (318), Business Studies (319), Chemistry (313), History (315),Geography (316), Biology (314), Political Science (317), Psychology (328), Sociology (331), Environmental Science (333), Mass Communication (335),  Accountancy (320),Home Science (321), Painting (332), Data Entry Operations (336), and Introduction to Law (338).

The on-demand exams for secondary as well as higher secondary for the above subjects will be conducted at the NIOS main center or at all the regional centers of NIOS, and Kendriya Vidyalaya across India.

Registration for On-Demand Exam (ODS)

• In order to prevail in the facility of the on-demand exam system, the candidate needs to register him/her as a bonafide learner for NIOS and have a valid enrollment number and valid identity card.
• The registration for on-demand is available through online mode only for existing students. In order to know the ODES process, you need to visit the official NIOS website which www.nios.ac.in. On the main website click on the online ODES registration for existing learners.
• The existing learners of stream 1, blocks 1 and 2 can look for online registration only afyer6the public exams.
• For appearing in the on-demand exam system, the candidate should bring the valid ID proof provided by NIOS other photo identity cards like voter ID card, driving license, Aadhar card, etc.

NIOS Examination Fee for ODE is as Under

For secondary level the fees are Rs. 500 + Rs. 200 per subject that involves practical.

For senior secondary level also the fees are Rs. 500 + Rs. 200 per subject that involves practical.

• The marksheet along with other documents will be prepared only for the candidates that have passed the exam by the department of evaluation, M&M unit, NIOS. These will be sent to the respective regional centers for dispatch to each and every candidate.
• Other candidates that want the marksheet can send their request using an application with an attachment of the bank draft and print out a copy of Rs. 100 in favor of “Secretary NIOS”, payable at Noida to the associate director of the M&M unit.
• It is permissible to look for online admission in a particular subject more than once in a month.

NIOS Certification Criteria

In order to pass the subject and get a certificate at secondary as well as senior secondary level, the criteria given by NIOS are laid down below

For Secondary Course

• Pass Criteria: A minimum of 33% aggregate marks in theory as well as practical in the public exam. Also, the marks obtained in the internal assessment will be given separately in the marksheet.
• Certification Criteria: For certificate, it is important to pass 5 subjects along with passing in at least 1 language.

For Senior Secondary Course

• Pass Criteria: A minimum of 33% aggregate marks in theory as well as separately in practical and theory in the public exam. Also, the marks obtained in the internal assessment will be given separately in the marksheet.
• Certification Criteria: For certificate, it is important to pass 5 subjects along with passing in at least 1 language.

The post NIOS Public Exam And On-Demand Examination System | Dates, Fees, Registration appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 Constitution: Why and How?

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Which of these is not a function of the constitution?
(a) It gives a guarantee of the rights of the citizen.
(b) It marks out different spheres of power for different branches of government.
(c) It ensures that good people come to power. id) It gives expression to some shared values.
Answer:
(c) It ensures that good people come to power.

Question 2.
Which of the following is a good reason to conclude that the authority of the constitution is higher than that of the parliament?
(а) The constitution was framed before the parliament came into being.
(b) The constitution makers were more eminent leaders than the members of the parliament.
(c) The constitution specifies how parliament is to be formed and what are its powers.
(d) The constitution cannot be amended by the parliament.
Answer:
(c) The constitution specifies how parliament is to be formed and what are its powers.

Question 3.
State whether the following statements about a constitution are True or False:
(a) Constitutions are written documents about formation and power of the government.
(b) Constitutions exist and are required only in democratic countries.
(c) Constitution is a legal document that does not deal with ideals and values.
(d) A constitution gives its citizens a new identity.
Answer:
(a) False
(b) False
(c) False
(d) True

Question 4.
State whether the following inferences about the making of the Indian Constitution are Correct or Incorrect. Give reasons to support your answer.
(a) The Constituent Assembly did not represent the Indian people since it was not elected by all citizens.
(b) Constitution making did not involve any major decision since there was a general consensus among the leaders at that time about its basic framework.
(c) There was little originality in the Constitution, for much of it was borrowed from other countries.
Answer:
(a) It is incorrect to say that Constituent Assembly did not represent Indian people
because:

• Although the members of Constituent Assembly were not elected by Universal suffrage, but there was a serious attempt to make the Assembly a representative body.
• The Constituent Assembly represented the members of all religions, social and economic groups to accommodate all shades of opinion within it.
• The Assembly had 26 members even from scheduled castes.

(b) It is correct to say because:

• Objective the Resolution containing principles was moved by Nehru in 1946 brought by the nationalist movement.
• Constituent Assembly could not have functioned without any background consensus on main principles.
• Our constitution does not have only rules and procedures but a moral commitment also to establish a government to fulfill the promises made to peoples.

(c) It is incorrect to say because:

• Though they borrowed a number of provisions from Constitutions of different countries but it was not based upon slavish imitations.
• Each provision before it was included, well considered by the members of Constituent Assembly.
• Long debates and discussions also took place to examine the suitability to the conditions prevailing in India along with problems and aspirations of the people.

Question 5.
Give two examples each to support the following conclusions about the Indian Constitution:
(a) The Constitution was made by credible leaders who commanded people’s respect.
(b) The Constitution has distributed power in such a way as to make it difficult to
subvert it.
(c) The Constitution is the locus of people’s hopes and aspirations.
Answer:
(a) The following two factors are responsible:

• The members of Constituent Assembly were elected by indirect election by the members of Provincial Legislative Assemblies to be established in 1935. Assembly reflected each of the communities, provinces, princely states through an appropriate formula. Even 28 members belonged to scheduled castes.
• The members of Constituent Assembly went through long debates and discussions for 166 days spread over two years eleven months.

(b) The following two factors can be summed up for the same:

• Our Constitution has made institutional arrangements of government on the basis of check and balance approach. If one of the institutions goes beyond its limitations, the other checks it.
• The procedure for amendments is well elaborated for different articles of the Constitution.

(c) The following factors are responsible for the same because:

• The Constitution has provided some Fundamental Rights along with protected provisions,tibebthe judiciary has powers to protect them.
• The Constitution of India has incorporated some ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ which are not justiciable but a moral duty of government. The governmenthas also given some effects to these in the form of fixed minimum wages, formation of Panchayati Raj Institutions, employment guarantee scheme and mid-day meal schemes, etc. to be the hopes and aspirations of the people.

Question 6.
Why is it necessary for a country to have a clear demarcation of powers and responsibilities in the constitution? What would happen in the absence of such a demarcation?
Answer:
It is necessary for a country to have a clear demarcation of powers and responsibilities
in the constitution because:

•  To ensure that no single institution acquires monopoly of power.
• In case of transgressions, it may be checked by one of the institutions.
• To specify who plays important role in decision-making powers.
• It shows how government would be constituted.
• It lays down some limits on the government and citizens both which are fundamental in nature which should not to be trespassed by government and citizens.
• The Constitution shows how organs of government are interrelated alongwith a demarcation of powers of institutions like legislature, executive and judiciary as well as statutory bodies, ibsbElection Commission of India, etc.
• The judiciary has been given a specific place to declare any law unconstitutional if not at par the provisions of Constitution.

In the absence of such a demarcation:

• The federal set up would get strained and there would be crisis in center as well as states.
• There would be a problem to the citizens and laws will be proved to be unjust and unfair.

Question 7.
Why is it necessary for a constitution to place limitations on the rulers? Can there be a constitution that gives no power at all to the citizens?
Answer:
It is necessary for a constitution to place limitations on the rulers:

• These units are fundamental in the sense that the rulers may not trespass them.
• Citizens have been specified certain fundamental rights in Constitution to limit powers of rulers.
• Citizens have been granted some basic rights of liberties also, ibebright to freedom of speech and expressions, freedom to form trade union and associations, etc. which cannot be checked by the government.
• Only during the national emergency or in national interest, these rights may be withdrawn during some specific periods.
• It is necessary for a constitution to place limitations on the rulers otherwise they may turn to be a dictator and may overlook the people’s interest constitution guards and controls the rulers.

No, there can be no constitution that gives no power to its people:

• In a Constitutional monarchy, monarch decides the powers of people.
• In a dictatorship, the ruler is supposed to get the support of people to cling to the power, i.e. Pakistan’s General Musharraf also conducted periodic referendum to hold power.
• In a democratic institutions/Constitution; the people are the real source of power where public mandate is required to enact the policies for rulers.
• These can’t be a Constitution that gives no power at all to the citizens. It is always for the welfare of the citizens of the country.

Question 8.
The Japanese Constitution was made when the US occupation army was still in control of Japan after its defeat in the Second World War. The Japanese constitution could not have had any provision that the US government did not like. Do you see any problem in this way of making the constitution? In which way was the Indian experience different from this?
Answer:
The Japanese Constitution could not have had any provision that the US government did not like, after the defeat of Japan in Second World War (1939-1945), due to fact that Constitution seeks to perform the functions and look after the interest of the rulers or authorities in the country who has occupied it. But, in a democratic country, a constitution expresses the fundamental identity of people as in India.
Indian experience was different from the experience of Japan in the following manner:

• The Indian Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly which was elected to aspire India to be a society free of any sort of discrimination among people.
• The framers of Indian Constitution worked for leading a life of social dignity and social respect along with minimum material well-being and education to an individual.
• Indian Constitution enabled the government to fulfill the aspirations of society, to make it more better.
• Indian Constitution has inculcated the federal spirit with the distribution of powers between the different levels of government as well as bicameral legislatures and independent judiciary have also been set up.
• The Constituent Assembly framed Constitution after a long debates and discussions to provide political, social and legal equalities to the people.

Question 9.
Raj at asked his teacher this question: “The constitution is a fifty year old and therefore outdated book. No one took my consent for implementing it. It is written in such tough language that I cannot understand it. Tell me why should I obey this document?” If you were the teacher, how would you answer Rajat?
Answer:
Had I been the teacher I would answer Rajat:

• Indian Constitution is a blend of flexibility and rigidity. Hence, despite being fifty years old, it is not outdated as it has been amended a number of times whenever required to be modified from time to time.
• The Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly of an elected representatives from every section of society.
• Though Constituent Assembly was dominated by Congress which occupied 82% of the seats in Assembly, but it has representation from every class, religion and communities, regions to accommodate all shades of opinion within it.
• Though it is not possible to consult each and every individual in framing of Constitution, hence, the provisions were made to elect representatives from every section to reflect the people from all these.

Question 10.
In a discussion on the experience of the working of our Constitution, three speakers took three different positions:
(a) Harbans: The Indian Constitution has succeeded in giving us a framework of democratic government.
(b) Neha: The Constitution made solemn promises of ensuring liberty, equality and fraternity. Since this has not happened, the Constitution has failed.
(c) Nazima: The Constitution has not failed us. We have failed the Constitution.
Do you agree with any of these positions? If yes, why? If not, what is your own position?
Answer:
In the above mentioned conversation of three people focused whether the working of our Constitution is fruitful or not:
(a)

• Indian Constitution is a document consisting the supreme and fundamental laws of country about powers, functions and structures of the government.
• Constitution also shows that how the organs of government are interrelated with each other as well as the relationship between the government and its citizens.
• In the Preamble of Constitution, India has been declared A Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic to provide social, economic and political justice to all the citizens along with introduction of universal adult franchise also. But in practice Indian democracy is suffering from various social and economic evils which have proved a curse.

(b)

• Equality and freedom of citizens is disturbed on the basis of some unconstitutional activities.
• Though the provisions for free and fair elections have been made even then money and muscle power is prevailing everywhere.
• Sometimes political leaders are found to belong to criminal background and some play the politics of vote bank.
• The judiciary has to interfere in the functioning of executive and legislatures,
• Various problems are still being faced by country, i.e. terrorism, naxalism, communal riots, etc.

Hence, we agree with the position of Neha that the goals which were supposed to be achieved through Constitution, has not still been achieved due to above mentioned facts, so we can say that the Constitution has failed to fulfill the needs of the individuals.

(c)

• We have failed the Constitution because we have not applied our sincere efforts towards citizens’ welfare properly.
• Corruption has taken place in public and private sector both, this is not only due to representatives but the citizens are not vigilant and dutiful also.
• The citizens are also supposed to be active in public affairs and to support other citizens in the exercise of the rights and discharge of obligations.
• The citizens should get themselves educated to curb social and economic inequality to implement the Constitution. Hence, it can be concluded that Constitution has not failed us but we have failed the Constitution due to our negligence towards our rights and duties

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 NCERT Extra Questions Solved

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Constitution?
Answer:
Constitution of a country is a written document which prescribes it to be a supreme law of the country to decide the structure of the government along with rights and duties of citizens. The Constitution speaks of who would play a vital role in decision-making powers.

Question 2.
What are the features of Constitution?
Answer:

• It is the Supreme Law of Country.
• It maintains a relationship between the government and the citizens of country.
• It constitutes the structure of the government.
• It tells who would play an important role in decision-making powers.

Question 3.
What is the nature of India as per the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
India is a Sovereign, Secular, Socialist, Democratic and Republic state.

Question 4.
Mention the function of Constitution which set some limits on our government but on the other hand it favors the citizens.
Answer:
The Constitution sets some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. These limits are fundamental in the sense that government may never trespass them.

Question 5.
What is the need and importance of a Constitution?
Answer:

•  The Constitution provides a framework within which a government has to work.
• It minimizes the chances of disputes among the various organs of the government as it clearly defines their powers and functions separately.
• It also controls the misuse of power by the government.
• It safeguards the fundamental rights of the citizens.

Question 6.
What do you mean by ‘Democratic’ with special reference to India?
Answer:

• Democratic denotes to choose democracy as a way of life and run the administration through democratic institutions like legislatures, executive, free and fair judiciary, etc.
• ‘Democratic’ word in Preamble refers to social and economic democracy except political democracy.

Question 7.
What do the political and economic justice stand for?
Answer:

• Political Justice: Political justice refers to equal political rights to be enjoyed by all the citizens of country where every citizen has right to elect the representatives as well as the right to be elected as representatives.
• Economic Justice: It refers to every citizen to get the equal opportunities to earn one’s livelihood as well as equal payment for equal work.

Question 8.
What is Preamble to the Constitution?
Answer:
Preamble to the Constitution is an introductory part of Constitution which enables the people to assess and evaluate the performance of government in the light of objectives laid down into the Preamble.

Question 9.
Mention the four main features of Indian Constitution.
Answer:

• It establishes a Sovereign, democratic republic in India.
• It establishes India as a secular state.
• It has provisions of fundamental rights as well as fundamental duties to the citizens of India.
• It establishes a parliamentary form of government in India.

Question 10.
“India is a secular state”. Justify the statement.
Answer:

• The word ‘Secular’ was put in the Preamble to Constitution through the 42nd Amendment.
• ‘Secular’ refers that the state has no religion of its own but shows due respect to all religions.
• The state observes complete neutrality in religious matters.
• The 45th Amendment carries equal respect and recognition to all religions.
• No discrimination in India has ever been made against any individual belonging to different communities, religions, castes, etc.

Question 11.
What do you understand by the terms liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble to Constitution?
Answer:
Liberty: It is stated in the Preamble as a goal that the people should have liberty of thought, expression, belief and faith, jfeftthe state should remove the obstacles for the individuals to enjoy freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
Equality: The Preamble to the Constitution always emphasizes to remove any sort of discrimination on the basis of sex, religion, race, colour, caste, etc. by making the provisions:

• Article 14— Equality of Justice
• Article 15—Social equality
• Article 16—Equality to achieve administrative services
• Article 17—Untouchability is removed (Social inequality)
• Article 18—All the designations except academic and military were finished.

Fraternity: Fraternity refers to brotherhood means equality of all citizens and their integrity. Everybody in society should be provided with the basic right to food, housing and clothing without any discrimination. Every citizen of the state is to be regarded as the part of decision-making process.

Question 12.
What is the main difference between the position of the head of state in India and that of the USA?
Or
How can you justify that India is a Republic?
Answer:
India is a Republic because the head of the state is the President who is elected by the Electoral College of the Parliament and the State Legislative Assembly for a fixed period of five years.

The difference between the position of the President of India and the USA is that in the USA, the President is the head of the presidential form of democratic government (real head of executive) whereas in India, President is the head of the parliamentary government, i.e. Prime Minister and his Cabinet is real executive and the President is the nominal head of the state.

Question 13.
What is a Constitution? How can we say that Constitution is a living document?
Answer:
A Constitution is a written set of rules and regulations to run the government of a country. It also defines the positions of three organs of the Government, i.e. the executive, the legislature and the judiciary along with to maintain relations between the Government and the citizens.
A Constitution is a living document because:

• It contains provisions to resolve social-economic problems.
• To update at par the provisions of constitution, the amendments are made.
• Judicial interpretations, executive orders, customs also support to the growth of a constitution.
• A Constitution is capable to adopt the new conditions as they arise.

Question 14.
Why should we respect our Constitution?
Answer:
We should respect our Constitution because:

• A Constitution is a supreme and fundamental law of country.
• A Constitution distributes the powers and functions among the three organs of government, i.e. the legislature, the executive and the judiciary.
• The Government of India is composed of principles laid down in a Constitution.
• A Constitution maintains relations between the government and the citizens.

Question 15.
“India is a Sovereign, Democratic, Republic”. Justify the statement.
Answer:
India as a Sovereign State:

• India has attained a full status of independent statehood.
• India is no longer under subjugation of any foreign power.
• India is free to conduct her internal and external affairs as she deems desirable.

India as a Democratic State:

• The ultimate source of political and constitutional authority in India is vested with the people.
• Elections are held on regular intervals on the basis of adult franchise.
• Equality is the basic principle of a democratic form of government.
• Citizens of India enjoy the justifiable fundamental rights.
• Rule of Law is an essential feature of Indian Democratic State.

India as a Republic:

• The head of the state is the President of India.
• He is elected by the electoral college of parliament and state assemblies after every five years.

Question 16.
Indian Constitution contains some provisions for social justice. Examine.
Answer:
In India, social justice is lacking due to the fact that persons who enjoy greater wealth and property, have power and others are deprived.
Provisions made in Indian Constitution to end social injustice in India:

• The Indian Constitution has declared the practice of untouchability, a punishable offence.
• The state will provide equal opportunities to all citizens of India.
• No one can be discriminated from using public facilities on the ground of caste, religion, language, etc.
• India works on welfare state’s philosophy to the welfare of people and up liftment of weaker sections.
• Constitution has given special privileges to SC’s, ST’s, OBC’s and even to women and minorities.

Question 17.
Write a note on Constituent Assembly.
Answer:

• The Indian Constitution was made by Constituent Assembly.
• It held its first sittings on 9 December 1946 and reassembled on 14 August 1947 by the elected members of Provisional Legislative Assemblies through an election.
• It was composed roughly along the lines suggested by Cabinet Mission and on 26 November 1949, 284 actual members appended their signature to the Constitution.
• Constituent Assembly was made seriously a representative body in which the representation from all section of society was made and accommodated all shades of opinion.
• The Assembly took 166 days spread over two years, eleven months and eighteen days to frame the Constitution finally adopted.

Question 18.
What is the philosophy of Indian Constitution? Discuss.
Answer:

• Framers of Constitution expressed their vision for a new society and polity.
• Despite the differences of opinion the framers reached a consensus to be reflected in the Constitution.
• Indian Constitution was attempted to reach a goal of building a new social order on the basis of democracy, equality and justice.
• It also projected fundamental rights and civil liberties of Indian citizens alongwith fundamental duties and directive principles of state policy.
• Indian Constitution is based on liberal-welfare-democratic society to be reflected in the Preamble.
• Thus the philosophy of Constitution finds its expression in the Preamble of Indian Constitution.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 NCERT Passage Based Questions

Passage 1.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 18) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

“… I have realised as nobody else could have, with what zeal and devotion the members of the Drafting Committee and especially its Chairman, Dr. Ambedkar in spite of his indifferent health, have worked. We could never make a decision which was or could be ever so right as when we put him on the Drafting Committee and made him its Chairman. He has^not only justified his selection but has added lustre to the work which he has done. In. this ‘ connection, it would be invidious to make any distinction as among the other members of the Committee. I know they have all worked with the same zeal and devotion as its Chairman, and they deserve the thanks of the country.”

Questions:
1. Who was the Chairman of Drafting Committee?
2. What made the Constituent Assembly of India unique?
3. How long the Constitution of India took in framing?
4. Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
Answers:
1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

2. Constituent Assembly of India included the members from all shades of opinion who did not simply advance their interest but gave principled reasons to other members.

3. 2 years 11 months and 18 days.

4. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly

Passage 2.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 21) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

“One likes to ask whether there can be anything new in a Constitution framed at this hour in the history of the world… The only new things, if there can be any, in a Constitution framed so late in the day are the variations made to remove the faults and to accommodate it to the needs of the country.”

Questions:
1. Whose words have been referred to here?
2. What was the main new thing according to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar during the process of framing the Indian Constitution?
Answers:
1. Here, the words of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar have been referred to.

2. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar the only new thing in the new Constitution framed so late in the day are the variations made to remove the failures and accommodate it to the needs of India.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write the Preamble to the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Preamble: We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST, SECULAR, DEMOCRATIC, REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: justice, social, economic and political, liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.

Equality of status and of opportunity, and to promote among them all:
Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. In our Constituent Assembly, this twenty-sixth day of November 1949, do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.

Question 2.
What was ‘Objectives Resolution’? Explain.
Answer:
The best summary of the principles that the nationalist movement brought to the Constituent Assembly is the Objectives Resolution that defines the aims of the Assembly, moved by Nehru in 1946. It encapsulated the aspirations and values behind the Constitution:

• India is an independent, sovereign, republic;
• India shall be a Union of erstwhile British Indian territories, Indian States and other parts outside British India and Indian States as are willing to be a part of the Union.
• Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of the Government and administration, except those assigned to or vested in the Union;
• All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic and political justice. Equality of status and opportunities and equality before law and fundamental- freedom of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, association and action-subject to law and public morality.
• The minorities, backward and tribal areas, depressed and other backward classes shall be provided adequate safeguards.
• The land would make full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and welfare of mankind;
• All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India and its constitution shall flow from the people;
• The territorial integrity of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea and air shall be maintained according to justice and law of civilized nations

Question 3.
What are the unique features of Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The unique features of Indian Constitution are as follows:

• Indian Constitution is written set of rules and regulations and it is the lengthiest Constitution in the world containing 395 articles, 12 schedules and a book of more than 250 pages.
• Indian Constitution has provided to Indian citizens fundamental rights and to establish a welfare state, directive principles of state policy have also been generated.
• By the 42nd Amendment in 1976, some (ten) fundamental duties have also been added up in the Constitution.
• Indian Constitution is federal in structure but unitary in spirit.
• The Indian Constitution is a blend of flexibility and rigidity, i.e. some of the Articles in Constitution can be amended by simple-majority but some require 2/3 majority of the parliament and voting in each house as well as to be ratified by at least half of the state legislatures.

Question 4.
Mention the sources of Indian Constitution along with the feature taken from these sources.
Answer:

The Government of India Act, 1935:
About two thirds of Indian Constitution is derived from the Government of India Act, 1935

• Provincial autonomy
• Parliamentary system
• Federal count
• Federal system

British Constitution:

• Parliamentary form of government
• The idea of the rule of law
• Institution of the speaker and his role
• Law-making procedure
• Single citizenship
• Single integrated judiciary

United States Constitution:

• Charter of Fundamental Rights
• Power of judicial review and independence of the judiciary
• Preamble to Constitution

Irish Constitution:

• Provided for the guidelines to the state
• Included directive principles of state policy

French Constitution:

• Principles of liberty
• Principles of equality and fraternity

Canadian Constitution:

• A quasi-federal form of government (a federal system with a strong central government).
• The idea of residual powers.

German Constitution:

• Emergency provisions
• Indian President’s powers to impose external or internal emergencies.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 NCERT Picture-Based Questions

1. Read the cartoon (NCERT Textbook, page 5) given below and answer the questions that follow:

Question:
Does this always happen in any constitution making?
Answer:
No, this does not happen in all Constitution making if the representatives in Constituent Assembly are elected either directly or indirectly from all sections of society, the attempt of framing Constitution would be successful.

2. Read the cartoon (NCERT Textbook, page 7) given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions:
(i) Can you identify what these different groups stand for?
(ii) Who do you think prevailed in this balancing act?
Answers:
(i) The cartoon refers to different religions, cultures, castes and regions having different preferences, i.e. liberal nationalists and radical nationalists.

(ii) Both the songs ‘Jana Gana Mana’ and ‘Vande Mataram’ were accepted as national heritage. The first is our national anthem and the second is our national song. All the Indians show respect and sing both the songs. Despite so many diversities of languages customs, cultures, festivals the whole country has the same respect for national song and the tricolour. They balance the diversity of India.

3. Read the cartoon (NCERT Textbook, page 9) given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions:
(i)What do these different people stand for?
(ii) Compare the conflict depicted here with that depicted in earlier cartoons for the European Union and India.
Answers:
(i) The cartoon refers to three different ethnic groups in Iraq, i.e. Shiites, Sunnis, Kurdis. The above groups stand for their own philosophies, ideologies and interests.

(ii)

• The Iraqi people expect to frame a new Constitution and to be accepted by all ethnic groups of Iraq.
• In the European Union the attempt of the people failed but in India, the same attempt got success.

4. Read the cartoon (NCERT Textbook, page 14) given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions:
(i) Why does the cartoonist describe the new Iraqi Constitution as the castle of cards?
(ii) Would this description apply to the Indian Constitution?
Answers:
(i) Because it is being prepared by pro-US. The people as well as the Constituent
Assembly of Iraq is not representing the all ethnic groups of the country. Hence, the Constitution is imposed and will be scattered as a castle of cards.

(ii) This description does not apply to Indian Constitution because:

• Indian Constitution is not imposed on Indians, but it was framed from among different shades of opinion after a long discussions and debates.
• It was adopted by people willfully.
• It is a living document to be amended from time to time at par aspirations of people.

Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 Constitution: Why and How? appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2019 (Outside Delhi)

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• This question paper consists of 30 questions divided into four sections- A, B, C and D.
• Section A contains 6 questions of 1 mark each, Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 8 questions of 4 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in two questions of 1 mark each, two questions of 2 marks each, four questions of 3 marks each and three questions of 4 marks each. You have to attempt only one of the alternative in all such questions.
• Use of calculators is not permitted.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2019 (Outside Delhi) Set I

Section – A

Question 1.
If HCF (336, 54) = 6, find LCM (336, 54). [1]
Solution:
Given, HCF (336, 54) = 6
We know,
HCF × LCM = one number × other number
⇒ 6 × LCM = 336 × 54
⇒ LCM = = 336 × 9 = 3024

Question 2.
Find the nature of roots of the quadratic equation 2x² – 4x + 3 = 0. [1]
Solution:
Given, 2x² – 4x + 3 = 0
Comparing it with quadratic equation ax² + bx + c = 0
Here, a = 2, b = -4 and c = 3
D = b² – 4ac = (-4)² – 4 × (2)(3) = 16 – 24 = -8 < 0
Hence, D < 0 this shows that roots will be imaginary.

Question 3.
Find the common difference of the Arithmetic Progression (A.P.) [1]

Solution:

Question 4.
Evaluate: sin² 60° + 2 tan 45° – cos² 30° [1]
OR
If sin A = , calculate sec A.
Solution:
We know,

Question 5.
Write the coordinates of a point P on the x-axis which is equidistant from point A(-2, 0) and B(6, 0).
Solution:
Let coordinates of P on x-axis is (x, 0)
Given, A(-2, 0) and B(6, 0)
Here, PA = PB

On squaring both sides, we get
(x + 2)² = (x – 6)²
⇒ x² + 4 + 4x = x² + 36 – 12x
⇒ 4 + 4x = 36 – 12x
⇒ 16x = 32
⇒ x = 2
Co-ordinates of P are (2, 0)

Question 6.
In Figure 1, ABC is an isosceles triangle right angled at C with AC = 4 cm. Find the length of AB. [1]

OR
In Figure 2, DE || BC. Find the length of side AD, given that AE = 1.8 cm, BD = 7.2 cm and CE = 5.4 cm.

Solution:
Given, ∠C = 90° and AC = 4 cm, AB = ?

∆ABC is an isosceles triangle so, BC = AC = 4 cm
On applying Phythagoras theorem, we have
AB² = AC² + BC²
⇒ AB² = AC² + AC² (∵ BC = AC)
⇒ AB² = 4² + 4² = 16 + 16 = 32
⇒ AB = √32 = 4√2 cm
OR
Given, DE || BC
On applying, Thales theorem, we have

Section – B

Question 7.
Write the smallest number which is divisible by both 306 and 657. [2]
Solution:
Smallest number which is divisible by 306 and 657 is,
LCM (657, 306)
657 = 3 × 3 × 73
306 = 3 × 3 × 2 × 17
LCM =3 × 3 × 73 × 2 × 17 = 22338

Question 8.
Find a relation between x and y if the points A(x, y), B(-4, 6) and C(-2, 3) are collinear. [2]
OR
Find the area of a triangle whose vertices are given as (1, -1) (-4, 6) and (-3, -5).
Solution:
Given, A(x, y), B(-4, 6), C(-2, 3)
x₁ = x, y₁ = y, x₂ = -4, y₂ = 6, x₃ = -2, y₃ = 3
If these points are collinear, then area of triangle made by these points is 0.

Question 9.
The probability of selecting a blue marble at random from a jar that contains only blue, black and green marbles is . The probability of selecting a black marble at random from the same jar is . If the jar contains 11 green marbles, find the total number of marbles in the jar. [2]
Solution:
Let the probability of selecting a blue marble, black marble and green marble are P(x), P(y), P(z) respectively.
P(x) = , P(y) = (Given)
We know,
P(x) + P(y) + P(z) = 1

Question 10.
Find the value(s) of k so that the pair of equations x + 2y = 5 and 3x + ky + 15 = 0 has a unique solution. [2]
Solution:
Given, x + 2y = 5, 3x + ky + 15 = 0
Comparing above equations with
a₁x + b₁y + c₁ = 0 and a₂x + b₂y + c₂ = 0,
We get,
a₁ = 1, b₁ = 2, c₁ = -5
a₂ = 3, b₂ = k, c₂ = 15
Condition for the pair of equations to have unique solution is

k can have any value except 6.

Question 11.
The larger of the two supplementary angles exceeds the smaller by 18°. Find the angles. [2]
OR
Sumit is 3 times as old as his son. Five years later, he shall be two and a half times as old as his son. How old is Sumit at present?
Solution:
Let two angles A and B are supplementary.
A + B = 180° …(i)
Given, A = B + 18°
On putting A = B + 18° in equation (i),
we get B + 18° + B = 180°
⇒ 2B + 18° = 180°
⇒ 2B = 162°
⇒ B = 81°
A = B + 18°
⇒ A = 99°
OR
Let age of Sumit be x years and age of his son be y years.
Then, according to question we have, x = 3y …… (i)
Five years later, x + 5 = 2(y + 5) …….. (ii)
On putting x = 3y in equation (ii)

Question 12.
Find the mode of the following frequency distribution:

Solution:

Here, the maximum frequency is 50.
So, 35 – 40 will be the modal class.
l = 35, f₀ = 34, f₁ = 50, f₂ = 42 and h = 5

Section – C

Question 13.
Prove that 2 + 5√3 is an irrational number, given that √3 is an irrational number. [3]
OR
Using Euclid’s Algorithm, find the HCF of 2048 and 960.
Solution:
Let 2 + 5√3 = r, where, r is rational.
⇒ (2 + 5√3)² = r²
⇒ 4 + 75 + 20√3 = r²
⇒ 79 + 20√3 = r²
⇒ 20√3 = r² – 79
⇒ √3 =
Now, is a rational number. So, √3 must also be a rational number.
But √3 is an irrational number (Given).
So, our assumption is wrong.
2 + 5√3 is an irrational number.
Hence Proved.
OR
Step I:
Here 2048 > 960 so, On applying Euclid’s algorithm, we get
2048 = 960 × 2 + 128
Step II:
Because remainder 128 ≠ 0, so, On applying Euclid’s algorithm between 960 and 128, we get
960 = 128 × 7 + 64
Step III:
Again remainder 64 ≠ 0, so
128 = 64 × 2 + 0
Here remainder is 0. So, the process ends here. And the dividend is 64 so, required HCF is 64.

Question 14.
Two right triangles ABC and DBC are drawn on the same hypotenuse BC and on the same side of BC. If AC and BD intersect at P, prove that AP × PC = BP × DP. [3]
OR
Diagonals of a trapezium PQRS intersect each other at the point O, PQ || RS and PQ = 3RS. Find the ratio of the areas of triangles POQ and ROS.
Solution:
Given, ∆ABC, ∆DBC are right-angle triangles, right-angled at A and D, on the same side of BC.
AC & BD intersect at P.

In ∆APB and ∆PDC,
∠A = ∠D = 90°
∠APB = ∠DPC (Vertically opposite)
∆APB ~ ∆PDC (By AA Similarity)
= (by c.s.s.t.)
⇒ AP × PC = BP × PD.
Hence Proved.
OR
Given, PQRS is a trapezium where PQ || RS and diagonals intersect at O and PQ = 3RS

In ∆POQ and ∆ROS, we have
∠ROS = ∠POQ (vertically opposite angles)
∠OQP = ∠OSR (alternate angles)
Hence, ∆POQ ~ ∆ROS by AA similarity then,
If two triangles are similar, then ratio of areas is equal to the ratio of square of its corresponding sides. Then,

Question 15.
In Figure 3, PQ and RS are two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O and another tangent AB with the point of contact C intersecting PQ at A and RS at B. Prove that ∠AOB = 90°. [3]

Solution:
Given, PQ || RS
To prove: ∠AOB = 90°

Construction: Join O and C, D and E
In ∆ODA and ∆OCA
OD = OC (radii of circle)
OA = OA (common)
AD = AC (tangent drawn from the same point)
By SSS congruency
∆ODA = ∆OCA
Then, ∠DOA = ∠AOC …(i)
Similarly, in ∆EOB and ∆BOC, we have
∆EOB = ∆BOC
∠EOB = ∠BOC …(ii)
EOD is a diameter of the circle, therefore it is a straight line.
Hence, ∠DOA + ∠AOC + ∠EOB + ∠BOC = 180°
⇒ 2(∠AOC) + 2(∠BOC) = 180°
⇒ ∠AOC + ∠BOC = 90°
⇒ ∠AOB = 90°.
Hence Proved.

Question 16.
Find the ratio in which the line x – 3y = 0 divides the line segment joining the points (-2, -5) and (6, 3). Find the coordinates of the point of intersection. [3]
Solution:
Let the required ratio be k : 1
By section formula, we have

Question 17.
Evaluate:

Solution:

Question 18.
In Figure 4, a square OABC is inscribed in a quadrant OPBQ. If OA = 15 cm, find the area of the shaded region. (Use π = 3.14)

In Figure 5, ABCD is a square with side 2√2 cm and inscribed in a circle. Find the area of the shaded region. (Use π = 3.14)

Solution:
Given, OABC is a square with OA = 15 cm
OB = radius = r

Let side of square be a then,
a² + a² = r²
⇒ 2a² = r²
⇒  r = √2 a
⇒  r = 15√2 cm (∵ a = 15 cm)
Area of square = Side × Side = 15 × 15 = 225 cm²

Area of shaded region = Area of quadrant OPBQ – Area of square
= 353.25 – 225 = 128.25 cm²
OR
Given, ABCD is a square with side 2√2 cm
BD = 2r

In ∆BDC,
BD² = DC² + BC²
⇒ 4r² = 2(DC)² (∵ DC = CB = Side = 2√2 )
⇒ 4r² = 2 × 2√2 × 2√2
⇒ 4r² = 8 × 2
⇒ 4r² = 16
⇒ r² = 4
⇒ r = 2 cm
Area of square BCDA = Side × Side = DC × BC = 2√2 × 2√2 = 8 cm²
Area of circle = πr2 = 3.14 × 2 × 2 = 12.56 cm²
Area of shaded region = Area of circle – Area of square. = 12.56 – 8 = 4.56 cm²

Question 19.
A solid is in the form of a cylinder with hemispherical ends. The total height of the solid is 20 cm and the diameter of the cylinder is 7 cm. Find the total volume of the solid. (Use π = ) [3]
Solution:
ABCD is a cylinder and BFC and AED are two hemisphere which has radius (r) = cm


Total volume of solid = Volume of two hemisphere + Volume of cylinder
= 179.67 + 500.5 = 680.17 cm³

Question 20.
The marks obtained by 100 students in an examination are given below: [3]

Find the mean marks of the students.
Solution:

Question 21.
For what value of k, is the polynomial f(x) = 3x⁴ – 9x³ + x² + 15x + k completely divisible by 3x² – 5? [3]
OR
Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 7y² – y – and verify the relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients.
Solution:
Given,
f(x) = 3x⁴ – 9x³ + x² + 15x + k
It is completely divisible by 3x² – 5

Question 22.
Write all the values of p for which the quadratic equation x² + px + 16 = 0 has equal roots. Find the roots of the equation so obtained. [3]
Solution:
Given, equation is x² + px + 16 = 0
This is of the form ax² + bx + c = 0
where, a = 1, b = p and c = 16
D = b² – 4ac = p² – 4 × 1 × 16 = p² – 64
for equal roots, we have D = 0
p² – 64 = 0
⇒ p² = 64
⇒ p = ±8
Putting p = 8 in given equation we have,
x² + 8x + 16 = 0
⇒ (x + 4)² = 0
⇒ x + 4 = 0
⇒ x = -4
Now, putting p = -8 in the given equation, we get
x² – 8x + 16 = 0
⇒ (x – 4)² = 0
⇒ x = 4
Required roots are -4 and -4 or 4 and 4.

Section – D

Question 23.
If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two sides in distinct points, then prove that the other two sides are divided in the same ratio. [4]
Solution:
Given, A ∆ABC in which DE || BC and DE intersect AB and AC at D and E respectively.

To prove: =
Construction: Join BE and CD
Draw EL ⊥ AB and DM ⊥ AC
Proof: we have
area (∆ADE) = × AD × EL
and area (∆DBE) = × DB × EL (∵ ∆ = × b × h)

Now, ∆DBE and ∆ECD, being on same base DE and between the same parallels DE and BC, We have
area (∆DBE) = area (∆ECD) …..(iii)
from equations (i), (ii) and (iii), we have
=
Hence Proved.

Question 24.
Amit, standing on a horizontal plane, finds a bird flying at a distance of 200 m from him at an elevation of 30°. Deepak standing on the roof of a 50 m high building, finds the angle of elevation of the same bird to be 45°. Amit and Deepak are on opposite sides of the bird. Find the distance of the bird from Deepak. [4]
Solution:
Let Amit be at C point and the bird is at A point. Such that ∠ACB = 30°. AB is the height of bird from point B on ground and Deepak is at D point, DE is the building of height 50 m.


Hence, the distance of bird from Deepak is 50√2 m.

Question 25.
A solid iron pole consists of a cylinder of height 220 cm and base diameter 24 cm, which is surmounted by another cylinder of height 60 cm and radius 8 cm. Find the mass of the pole, given that 1 cm³ of iron has approximately 8 gm mass. (Use π = 3.14) [4]
Solution:
Let AB be the iron pole of height 220 cm with base radius 12 cm and there is the other cylinder CD of height 60 cm whose base radius is 8 cm.

Volume of AB pole = πr₁h₁ = 3.14 × 12 × 12 × 220 = 99475.2 cm³
Volume of CD pole = πr₂h₂ = 3.14 × 8 × 8 × 60 = 12057.6 cm³
Total volume of the poles = 99475.2 + 12057.6 = 111532.8 cm³
It is given that,
Mass of 1 cm³ of iron = 8 gm
Then mass of 111532.8 cm³ of iron = 111532.8 × 8 gm
Then total mass of the pole is = 111532.8 × 8 gm = 892262.4 gm = 892.2624 kg

Question 26.
Construct an equilateral ∆ABC with each side 5 cm. Then construct another triangle whose sides are times the corresponding sides. Draw two concentric circles of radii 2 cm and 5 cm. Take a point P on the outer circle and construct a pair of tangents PA and PB to the smaller circle. Measure PA.
Solution:
Steps for construction are as follows:

1. Draw a line segment BC = 5 cm
2. At B and C construct ∠CBX = 60° and ∠BCX = 60°
3. With B as centre and radius 5 cm, draw an arc cutting ray BX at A. On graph paper, we take the scale.
4. Join AC. Thus an equilateral ∆ABC is obtained.
   
5. Below BC, make an acute angle ∠CBY
6. Along BY, mark off 3 points B₁, B₂, B₃ Such that BB₁, B₁B₂, B₂B₃ are equal.
7. Join B₃C
8. From B₂ draw B₂D || B₃C, meeting BC at D
9. From D, draw DE || CA, meeting AB at E.
   Then ∆EBD is the required triangle, each of whose sides is of the corresponding side of ∆ABC.

Question 27.
Change the following data into ‘less than type’ distribution and draw its ogive:

Solution:

Question 28.
Prove that:

Solution:

Question 29.
Which term of the Arithmetic Progression -7, -12, -17, -22,…..will be -82? Is -100 any term of the A.P.? Give a reason for your answer. [4]
OR
How many terms of the Arithmetic Progression 45, 39, 33, …. must be taken so that their sum is 180? Explain the double answer.
Solution:
-7, -12, -17, -22, …….
Here a = -7, d = -12 – (-7) = -12 + 7 = -5
Let T_n = -82
T_n = a + (n – 1) d
⇒ -82 = -7 + (n – 1) (-5)
⇒ -82 = -7 – 5n + 5
⇒ -82 = -2 – 5n
⇒ -82 + 2 = -5n
⇒ -80 = -5n
⇒ n = 16
Therefore, 16th term will be -82.
Let T_n = -100
Again, T_n = a + (n -1) d
⇒ -100 = -7 + (n – 1) (-5)
⇒ -100 = -7 – 5n + 5
⇒ -100 = – 2 – 5n
⇒ -100 + 2 = -5n
⇒ -98 = -5n
⇒ n =
But the number of terms can not be in fraction.
So, -100 can not be the term of this A.P.
OR
45, 39, 33, …..
Here a = 45, d = 39 – 45 = -6
Let S_n = 180
⇒ [ 2a + (n – 1) d] = 180
⇒ [2 × 45 + (n – 1) (-6)] = 180
⇒ [90 – 6n + 6] = 180
⇒ [96 – 6n] = 180
⇒ n(96 – 6n) = 360
⇒ 96n – 6n² = 360
⇒ 6n² – 96n + 360 = 0
On dividing the above equation by 6
⇒ n² – 16n + 60 = 0
⇒ n² – 10n – 6n + 60 = 0
⇒ n(n – 10) – 6 (n – 10) = 0
⇒ (n – 10) (n – 6) = 0
⇒ n = 10, 6
Sum of first 10 terms = Sum of first 6 terms = 180
This means that the sum of all terms from 7th to 10th is zero.

Question 30.
In a class test, the sum of Aran’s marks in Hindi and English is 30. Had he got 2 marks more in Hindi and 3 marks less in English, the product of the marks would have been 210. Find his marks in the two subjects. [4]
Solution:
Let Aran marks in Hindi be x and marks in English be y.
Then, according to question, we have
x + y = 30 …(i)
(x + 2)(y – 3) = 210 …(ii)
from equation (i) put x = 30 – y in equation (ii)
(30 – y + 2) (y – 3) = 210
⇒ (32 – y) (y – 3) = 210
⇒ 32y – 96 – y² + 3y = 210
⇒ y² – 35y + 306 = 0
⇒ y² – 18y – 17y + 306 = 0
⇒ y(y – 18) – 17(y – 18) = 0
⇒ (y – 18) (y – 17) = o
⇒ y = 18, 17
Put y = 18 and 17 in equation (i), we get x = 12, 13
Hence his marks in hindi can be 12 and 13 and in english his marks can be 18 and 17.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2019 (Outside Delhi) Set II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I.

Section – A

Question 6.
Find the 21st term of the A.P. -4, -3, -1, … [1]
Solution:

Section – B

Question 7.
For what value of k, will the following pair of equations have infinitely many solutions:
2x + 3y = 7 and (k + 2)x – 3(1 – k)y = 5k + 1 [2]
Solution:
Given, The system of equations is
2x + 3y = 7 and (k + 2) x – 3 (1 – k) y = 5k +1
These equations are of the form a₁x + b₁y + c₁ = 0 and a₂x + b₂y + c₂ = 0
where, a₁ = 2, b₁ = 3, c₁ = -7
a₂ = (k + 2), b₂ = -3(1 – k), c₂ = -(5k + 1)
Since, the given system of equations have infinitely many solutions.

Hence, the given system of equations has infinitely many solutions when k = 4.

Section – C

Question 13.
Point A lies on the line segment XY joining X(6, -6) and Y (-4, -1) in such a way that = . If Point A also lies on the line 3x + k (y + 1) = 0, find the value of k. [3]
Solution:
Given,

Since, point A(2, -4) lies on line 3x + k (y + 1) = 0.
Therefore it will satisfy the equation.
On putting x = 2 and y = -4 in the equation, we get
3 × 2 + k(-4 + 1) = 0
⇒ 6 – 3k = 0
⇒ 3k = 6
⇒ k = 2

Question 14.
Solve for x: x² + 5x – (a² + a – 6) = 0 [3]
Solution:
Taking (a² + a – 6)
= a² + 3a – 2a – 6
= a(a + 3) – 2 (a + 3)
= (a + 3) (a – 2)
x² + 5x – (a + 3) (a – 2) = 0
⇒ x² + (a + 3)x – (a – 2)x – (a + 3)(a – 2) = 0
⇒  x[x + (a + 3)] – (a – 2) [x + (a + 3)] = 0
⇒ (x – a + 2)(x + a + 3) = 0
Hence, x – a + 2 = 0 and x + a + 3 = 0
x = a – 2 and x = -(a + 3)
Required values of x are (a – 2), -(a + 3)

Question 15.
Find A and B if sin (A + 2B) = and cos (A + 4B) = 0, where A and B are acute angles. [3]
Solution:
Given,
sin (A + 2B) = and cos (A + 4B) = 0
⇒ sin (A + 2B) = 60° (∵ sin 60° = )
A + 2B =60 …(i)
cos (A + 4B) = cos 90° (∵ cos 90° = 0)
⇒ A + 4B = 90° …(ii)
On solving equation (i) and (ii), we get
B = 15° and A = 30°

Section – D

Question 23.
Prove that the ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of the squares on their corresponding sides.
Solution:
Given, ΔABC ~ ΔDEF

Question 24.
Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite to each other on either side of the road which is 80 m wide. From a point P between them on the road, the angle of elevation of the top of a pole is 60° and the angle of depression from the top of the other pole of point P is 30°. Find the heights of the poles and the distance of the point P from the poles. [4]
Solution:
Let AC is the road of 80 m width. P is the point on road AC and height of poles AB and CD is h m.

⇒ h = …… (ii)
Equating the values of h from equation (i) and (ii) we get
⇒ x√3 =
⇒ 3x = 80 – x
⇒ 4x = 80
⇒ x = 20m
On putting x = 20 in equation (i), we get
h = √3 × 20 = 20√3
h = 20√3 m
Thus, height of poles is 20√3 m and point P is at a distance of 20 m from left pole and (80 – 20) i.e., 60 m from right pole.

Question 25.
The total cost of a certain length of a piece of cloth is ₹ 200. If the piece was 5 m longer and each metre of cloth costs ₹ 2 less, the cost of the piece would have remained unchanged. How long is the piece and what is its original rate per metre? [4]
Solution:
Let the original length of the piece of cloth is x m and rate of cloth is ₹ y per metre.
Then according to question, we have
x × y = 200 …(i)
and if length be 5 m longer and each meter of cloth be ₹ 2 less then
(x + 5) (y – 2) = 200
⇒ (x + 5) (y – 2) = 200
⇒ xy – 2x + 5y – 10 = 200 …(ii)
On equating equation (i) and (ii), we have
xy = xy – 2x + 5y – 10
⇒ 2x – 5y = -10 …… (iii)
⇒ y = from equation (i)
⇒ 2x – 5 × = -10
⇒ 2x – = -10
⇒ 2x² – 1000 = -10x
⇒ 2x² + 10x – 1000 = 0
⇒ x² + 5x – 500 = 0
⇒ x² + 25x – 20x – 500 = 0
⇒ x(x + 25) – 20 (x + 25) = 0
⇒ (x + 25) (x – 20) = 0
⇒ x = 20 (x ≠ -25 length of cloth can never be negative)
∴ x × y = 200
20 × y = 200
y = 10
Thus, length of the piece of cloth is 20 m and original price per metre is ₹ 10.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2019 (Outside Delhi) Set III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Section – B

Question 7.
A die is thrown twice. Find the probability that
(i) 5 will come up at least once. [2]
(ii) 5 will not come up either time.
Solution:
When two dice are thrown simultaneously, all possible outcomes are
(1.1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6)
(2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6)
(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6)
(4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6)
(5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6)
(6, 1), (6, 2), (6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6)
Total number of outcomes = 36
Total outcomes where 5 comes up at least once = 11

Section – C

Question 13.
Find the ratio in which the y-axis divides the line segment joining the points (-1, -4) and (5, -6). Also, find the coordinates of the point of intersection. [3]
Solution:
Let the y-axis cut the line joining point A(-1, -4) and point B(5, -6) in the ratio k : 1 at the point P(0, y)
Then, by section formula, we have

Question 14.
Find the value of: [3]

Solution:

Question 15.
Two spheres of same metal weigh 1 kg and 7 kg. The radius of the smaller sphere is 3 cm. The two spheres are melted to form a single big sphere. Find the diameter of the new sphere. [3]
Solution:
Given, a radius of small sphere be r = 3 cm

Both spheres are made by same metal, then their densities will be same.
Let radius of bigger sphere = r’ then,

Then according to question, we have,
Volume of bigger sphere + Volume of smaller shpere = Volume of new sphere.
(r’)³ + (r)³ = (R)³
⇒ r’³ + r³ = R³
⇒ 189 + 27 = R³
⇒ 216 = R³
⇒ R = 6
D = 6 × 2 = 12
Radius of new sphere is 6 cm.
So, the diameter is 12 cm.

Section – D

Question 23.
In a triangle, if the square of one side is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides, then prove that the angle opposite the first side is a right angle. [4]
Solution:
Given, ∆ABC in which AC² = AB² + BC²

To prove: ∠B = 90°
Consturction : Draw a ∆DEF such that
DE = AB, EF = BC and ∠E = 90°.
Proof: In ∆DEF we have ∠E = 90°
So, by Pythagoras theorem, we have
DF² = DE² + EF²
⇒ DF² = AB² + BC² …(i)
(∵ DE = AB and EF = BC)
AC² = AB² + BC² …(ii) (Given)
From equation (i) and (ii), we get
AC² = DF² ⇒ AC = DF.
Now, in ∆ABC and ∆DEF, we have
AB = DE, BC = EF and AC = DF.
∆ABC = ∆DEF.
Hence, ∠B = ∠E = 90°.
Hence Proved.

Question 24.
From a point P on the ground, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 30° and that of the top of the flag-staff fixed on the top of the tower is 45°. If the length of the flag-staff is 5 m, find the height of the tower. (Use √3 = 1.732) [4]
Solution:
Let AB be the tower and BC be the flag-staff.

Let P be a point on the ground such that
∠APB = 30° and ∠APC = 45°, BC = 5 m
Let AB = h m and PA = x metres
From right ∆PAB, we have


Hence, the height of the tower is 6.83 m

Question 25.
A right cylindrical container of radius 6 cm and height 15 cm is full of ice-cream, which has to be distributed to 10 children in equal cones having a hemispherical shape on the top. If the height of the conical portion is four times its base radius, find the radius of the ice-cream cone. [4]
Solution:
Let R and H be the radius and height of the cylinder.
Given, R = 6 cm, H = 15 cm.
Volume of ice-cream in the cylinder = πR²H = π × 36 × 15 = 540π cm³
Let the radius of cone be r cm
Height of the cone (h) = 4r
Radius of hemispherical portion = r cm.
Volume of ice-cream in cone = Volume of cone + Volume of the hemisphere

Number of ice cream cones distributed to the children = 10
⇒ 10 × Volume of ice-cream in each cone = Volume of ice-cream in cylindrical container
⇒ 10 × 2πr³ = 540π
⇒ 20r³ = 540
⇒ r³ = 27
⇒ r = 3
Thus, the radius of the ice-cream cone is 3 cm.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2019 (Outside Delhi) appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sociology Chapter 3 Environment and Society

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 3 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Describe in your own words what you understand by the term ‘ecology’.
Answer:

• All societies have an ecological basis. The term ‘ecology’ denotes the web of physical and biological systems and processes of which humans are one element.
• Mountains and rivers, plains and oceans, and the flora and fauna that they support, are a part of ecology.
• The ecology of a place is also affected by the interaction between its geography and hydrology. For example, the plant and animal life unique to a desert is adapted to its scarce rainfall, rocky or sandy soils, and extreme temperatures.
• Ecological factors limit and shape how human beings can live in any particular place.

Question 2.
Why is ecology not limited only to the forces of nature?
Answer:

• Ecology has been modified by human action. It appears to be a natural feature of the environment. For example, the situation of aridity and flood is often produced by human intervention.
• Deforestation in the upper catchment of a river may make the river more flood- prone.
• Climate change brought about by global warming is another instance of the widespread impact of human activity on nature.
• Over time, it is often difficult to separate and distinguish between the natural and human factors in ecological change.
• There are other ecological elements around us that are obviously human-made.
• An agricultural farm with its soil and water conservation works, its cultivated plants and domesticated animals, its inputs of synthetic fertilisers and pesticides, is clearly a human transformation of nature.
• The built environment of a city, made from concrete, cement, brick, stone, glass and tar, uses natural resources but is very much a human artifact.

Question 3.
Describe the two-way process by which ‘social environments’ emerge.
Answer:

• Social environment emerges from the interaction between biophysical ecology and human interventions.
• This is a two-way process just as nature shapes society, society shapes nature. For instance, the fertile soil of the Indo-Gangetic floodplain enables intensive agriculture. Its high productivity allows dense population settlements and generates enough surpluses to support other, non-agricultural activities, giving rise to complex hierarchical societies and states.
• In contrast, the desert of Rajasthan can only support pastoralists who move from place to place in order to keep their livestock supplied with fodder.
• These are instances of ecology shaping the forms of human life and culture.
• On the other hand, the social organization of capitalism has shaped nature across the world.
• Private automobile is one instance of a capitalist commodity that has transformed lives and landscapes. Air pollution and congestion in cities, regional conflicts and wars over oil, and global warming are just a few of the environmental effects of cars.

Question 4.
Why and how does social organisation shape the relationship between the environment and society?
Answer:

• The interaction between environment and society is shaped by social organization. :
• Property relations determine how and by whom natural resources can be used. For instance, if forests are owned by the government, it will have the power to decide whether it should lease them to timber companies or allow villagers to collect forest produce.
• Private ownership of land and water sources will affect whether others can have access to these resources and on what terms and conditions.
• Ownership and control over resources is also related to the division of labour in the production process.
• Landless labourers and women will have a different relationship with natural resources than men.
• Social organization influences how different social groups relate to their environment.
• Different relationships between environment and society also reflect different social values and norms, as well as knowledge systems.
• The values underlying capitalism have supported the commodification of nature, turning it into objects that can be bought and sold for profit. For instance, the multiple cultural meanings of a river – its ecological, utilitarian, spiritual, and aesthetic significance, are stripped down to a single set of calculations about profit and loss from the sale of water for an entrepreneur.
• Socialist values of equality and justice have led to the seizure of lands from large landlords and their redistribution among landless peasants in a number of countries.
• Religious values have led some social groups to protect and conserve sacred groves and species and others to believe that they have divine sanction to change the environment to suit their needs.

Question 5.
Why is environmental management a complex and huge task for society?
Answer:

• Environmental management is, however, a very difficult task.
• Difficult process to predict and control them.
• Human relations with the environment have become increasingly complex.
• With the spread of industrialisation, resource extraction has expanded and accelerated, affecting ecosystems in unprecedented ways.
• Complex industrial technologies and modes of organization require sophisticated management systems which are often fragile and vulnerable to error.
• We live in risk societies using technologies and products that we do not fully grasp.
• The occurrence of nuclear disasters like Chernobyl, industrial accidents like Bhopal, and Mad Cow disease in Europe shows the dangers inherent in industrial environments.

Question 6.
What are some of the important forms of pollution related environmental hazards?
Answer:

• Air pollution is considered to be a major environmental problem in urban and rural areas, causing respiratory and other problems which result in serious illness and death.
• The sources of air pollution include emissions from industries and vehicles, as well as the burning of wood and coal for domestic use.
• Indoor pollution from cooking fires is also a serious source of risk. This is particularly true of rural homes where wood fires using green or poorly burning wood, badly designed fireplaces (chulhas), and poor ventilation combine to put village women at serious risk because they do the cooking.
• The World Health Organisation has estimated that almost 600,000 people died due to (cumulative) indoor pollution related causes in India in 1998, almost 500,000 of them in rural areas.
• Water pollution is also a very serious issue affecting surface as well as groundwater.
• Major sources include not only domestic sewage and factory effluents but also the run-off from farms where large amounts of synthetic fertilisers and pesticides are used.
• The pollution of rivers and water bodies is a particularly important problem.

Cities also suffer from noise pollution, which has been the subject of court orders in many cities. Sources include amplified loudspeakers used at religious and cultural events, political campaigns, vehicle horns and traffic, and construction work.

Question 7.
What are the major environmental issues associated with resource depletion?
Answer:

• Resource depletion i.e., using up non-renewable natural resources is one of the most serious environmental problems.
• The rapid decline in groundwater levels is an acute problem all over India, especially in the states of Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.
• Rivers have also been dammed and diverted, causing irreversible damage to the ecology of water basins.
• Many water bodies in urban areas have been filled up and built upon, destroying the natural drainage of the landscape.
• Like groundwater, topsoil too is created over thousands of years. This agricultural resource, too, is being destroyed due to poor environmental management leading to erosion, water-logging and salinization.
• The production of bricks for building houses is another reason for the loss of topsoil.
• Biodiversity habitats such as forests, grasslands and wetlands are the other major resources facing rapid depletion, largely due to the expansion of areas under agriculture.

Question 8.
Explain why environmental problems are simultaneously social problems.
Answer:

• Environmental problems affect different groups.
• Social status and power determine the extent to which people can insulate themselves from environmental crises or overcome it.
• In Kutch, Gujarat, where water is scarce, richer farmers have invested in deep bore tubewells to tap groundwater to irrigate their fields and grow cash crops. When the rain fails, the earthen wells of the poorer villagers run dry and they do not even have water to drink.
• At such times the moist green fields of the rich farmers seem to mock them. Certain environmental concerns sometimes appear to be universal concerns, not particular to specific social groups.
• A sociological analysis shows how public priorities are set and how they are pursued may not be universally beneficial. Securing the public interest may actually serve the interests of politically and economically powerful groups, or hurt the interests of the poor and politically weak.

Question 9.
What is meant by social ecology?
Answer:

• The School of Social Ecology points out that social relations, in particular the organization of property and production, shapes environmental perceptions and practices.
• Different social groups stand in different relationships to the environment and approach it differently.
• The Forest Department geared to maximizing revenues from supplying large volumes of bamboo to the paper industry will view and use a forest very differently from an artisan who harvests bamboo to make baskets. Their varied interests and ideologies generate environmental conflicts. Environmental crises have their roots in social inequality.
• Addressing environmental problems require changing environment society relations, and this in turn requires efforts to change relations between different social groups-men and women, urban and rural people, landlords and labourers.
• Changed social relations will give rise to different knowledge systems and modes of managing the environment.

Question 10.
Describe some environment related conflicts that you know or have read about. (Other than the examples in the text.)
Answer:
For self-attempt.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 3 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 3 very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by ecology?
Answer:
Ecology is the study of relationship between living things and their environment which includes biological and geographical conditions.
Mountains, rivers, flora and fauna are parts of ecology.

Question 2.
What is environment?
Answer:
Everything which surrounds us is called environment. It includes both biological and geographical conditions.
It is total web of life which includes physical characteristics of a particular region as well as plants and animals.

Question 3.
What is cultural environment?
Answer:
Man made environment is known as cultural environment.
Traditions, folkways, language, beliefs, art and literature, social values are part of cultural environment.

Question 4.
What is social ecology?
Answer:
It refers to the branch of general ecology. The interrelationship of biological, physical and cultural features of a region is the domain of social ecology.
Social ecology has four aspects i.e. population, environment, technology and social organisations.

Question 5.
What is urban ecology?
Answer:
It is related to the study of urban areas, cities and towns. Urban ecology deals with the relationship between man and environment of cities and towns.

Question 6.
What is the meaning of resources depletion?
Answer:
Excessive usage of non-renewable natural resources are called resources depletion. It is limited e.g. Mineral, coal, natural gas, petroleum etc. The next generation will be deprived from these resources.

Question 7.
What is deforestation?
Answer:
The process of cutting trees gradually reduce the forest land. The cleared land is used by people for so called development i.e., industrialization and housing. The whole process is known as deforestation.

Question 8.
State causes and effects of air pollution.
Answer:
Air pollution is caused due to emission of vehicles and industries. It occurs due to burning of wood and coal in rural houses.
This polluted air we inhale through lungs which cause respiratory problems, cancer, chronic bronchitis and asthma like serious health hazards.

Question 9.
Define Green house.
Answer:
It is a covered structure for protecting plants from extremes of climate, usually from excessive cold. Green house maintains a warmer temperature inside as compared to the outside temperature.

Question 10.
What is eco system?
Answer:
Human beings, animals and plants are living components of universe.
The environment is inorganic. Non-living component of this system includes heat, energy, land, water bodies, temperature, gases etc.
Eco system is interrelationship of these two components.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 3 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is global warming?
Answer:
Continuous increase in the temperature of universe because of green house effect is known as global warming.
Green house effect means release of particular gases like carbon dioxide, methane etc. It is influenced by trapping the sun’s heat and allowing to dissipate. This phenomena causes gradual but significant rise in global temperature.
beings. Therefore, many ways are evolved for the development of the relationship between needs and environment.
Green house is a structure which has natural covering. This covering protects flora and fauna from extreme climate.

Question 2.
What is water pollution? How it gets polluted?
Answer:
Water pollution means contamination of water which occurs due to:

• throwing industrial waste in the rivers.
• industrial hot water drained in the rivers.
• draining used domestic water in the rivers.
• leakage of crude oil in the ocean.
• water pollution affects surface as well as ground water which may lead to typhoid fever, hepatitis, cholera, diarrhoea etc.

Question 3.
State main causes of soil pollution.
Answer:

• Industrial waste drains out in the agricultural fields.
• Industrial and domestic garbage and sewage from cities and towns go into the field.
• Industrial smoke which contains hazardous elements is a significant cause of soil pollution.
• To get good crops, farmers are using excessive chemicals and pesticides. It is causing soil pollution.

Question 4.
State major effects of global warming.
Answer:

• Rise in temperature may cause frequent environmental hazards like storms.
• Global warming may lead to loss of biological diversity and natural resources.
• Increase in temperature may melt the glaciers which may cause further rise in sea level. It may become a threat to many island countries.
• It may have hazardous effects on rainfall and monsoon patterns.

Question 5.
How can cities be classified keeping the “Internal structure” in mind?
Answer:
On the basis of “internal structure” we can classify them under the following:

• The concentric zone theory.
• The sector theory.
• The multiple nuclei theory.

Question 6.
What do you mean by renewable resources?
Answer:
These are natural resources of energy which are renewable. The main renewable resources are solar energy, water and wind energy. These are very important in our day to day life. The depletion of these resources may cause major environmental hazards.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 3 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Elaborate three aspects of human ecology seen in human society.
Answer:
Three aspects of human society are as follows:

• Population: Human beings are dependent on the geographic environment for air, water and food. These things are important for the survival of human beings. Therefore, many ways are evolved for the development of the relationship between needs and environment.
• Environment: The geographic environment is explored for the requirements of air, water and food. There is a distinct set of relationships that exist with the physical environment.
• Technology: The improvement in technology makes the relationship strong. The changes in technology also bring about changes in social life. Technology is the means by which adaptation to the environment takes place.

Question 2.
Why are environmental problems treated as social problems?
Answer:

• Social ecology emphasises that social relations shape environmental perceptions and practices e.g. the artisans may be interested in bamboo forest for making baskets but forest department may be interested in supplying large amount of bamboo to the paper industry.
• Environmental crisis arises from social issues. On the one hand, in metropolitan cities we enjoy water parks, Ice skating, malls etc. On the other side in rural areas, there is acute shortage of water and electricity.
• In cities people maintain their houses, gardens and wash cars using excess of water whereas in slums people are deprived of water.
• Economic, social and health hazards may occur due to environmental disasters like Kedamath, Tsunami and Jammu and Kashmir floods. Such disaster leads to extreme poverty.

Question 3.
What is Sustainable Development?
Answer:

• Sustainable Development means development that meets the needs of the present without comprising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
• Economic growth and modernisation as a means not only satisfy basic material needs, but also provide resources essential to improve quality of life, e.g., access to healthcare and education.
• However most forms of economic growth cause harm to natural resources and generate waste or pollution which jeopardizes growth for future generations.
• The philosophy of sustainable development attempts to resolve this dilemma by insisting that decisions taken at every level throughout society should have due regard to their possible environmental consequences.
• In this way the right kind of economic growth based on biodiversity, the control of environmentally damaging activity, and replenishment or to fill up the renewable resources such as forests is generated and this can protect or even enhance the natural environment.
• It is often difficult for governments (particularly those who are accountable to electorates over short term period such as five years or so) to accept the political consequences of promoting sustainable development, e.g., by imposing tolls or fines for the use of cars in cities.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sociology

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sociology Chapter 4 Introducing Western Sociologists

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 4 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Why is the Enlightenment important for the development of sociology?
Answer:

• During the late 17th and 18th centuries, Western Europe saw the emergence of radically new ways of thinking about the world. It is referred to ‘The Enlightenment’.
• The ability to think rationally and critically transformed the individual human being into both the producer and the user of all knowledge, the ‘knowing subject’.
• Only persons who could think and reason could be considered as a complete human being.
• To become the definite features of the human world, it was necessary to displace nature, religion and the divine acts of gods from the central position they had in earlier days of understanding the world.

Question 2.
How was the Industrial Revolution responsible for giving rise to sociology?
Answer:

• Production moved out of houses and went over to factories. People left their rural areas and went over to urban areas to find jobs in newly established industries
• Rich people started to live in large mansions and labour class started to live in slums.
• Due to modern administrative system, monarchy was forced to take the responsibility of public subjects and public welfare.

Question 3.
What are the various components of a mode of production?
Answer:
A mode of production has the following components:

• First is the means of production which means the labour class who produces.
• Second is the capitalist class who owns the means of production.
• Labour is sold in the market like commodity.
• The capitalist class has wealth and means to get his production done by the labourers.
• The capitalist class becomes richer at the cost of labourers.

Question 4.
Why do classes come into conflict, according to Marx?
Answer:
Karl Marx has studied two classes. Two opposite groups exist in each society.
First who does exploitation and second is that who is being exploited.
Conflict is always going on between these two classes from the very beginning.

• Bourgeoisie owns all the means of production and it suppresses other groups with his means of production.
• Second class is the labour class which was given the name of Proletariats.

Conflict is always going on between the exploiters and the exploited because capitalist hardly wants to give anything to labourer.
According to Marx, economic processes generally tend to generate class conflicts though this also depends on political and social conditions.

Question 5.
What are social facts? Flow do we recognise them?
Answer:

• Social facts are collective representations which emerge from the association of people.
• They are not particular to a person but of a general nature, independent of the individual.
• Durkheim called the ’emergent level’, that is the level of complex collective life where social phenomena can emerge.
• One of Durkheim’s most significant achievements is his demonstration that sociology, a discipline that dealt with abstract entities like social facts/could nevertheless be a science founded on observable empirically verifiable evidence.
• The most famous example of his use of new kind of empirical data is in his study of suicide.
• Each individual case of suicide was specific to the individual and his/her circumstances.

Question 6.
What is the difference between ‘mechanic’ and ‘organic’ solidarity?
Answer:
Durkheim says that in every society some values, ideas, beliefs, ways of behaviour, institutions and laws are there which binds the society in a single knot. Because of the presence of these elements, the relations and unity or solidarity exist in society.
He classified a society by the nature of social solidarity which existed in the society which are as follows:

Mechanical Solidarity

• It is predominant in less advanced societies.
• It is segmental in nature.
• In this social bonds are relatively weak.
• It exists more where population is less.
• In it, collective authority is absolute.
• It is highly religious.
• It is concrete and specific.

Organic Solidarity

• It is predominant in more advanced societies.
• It is organized in nature.
• In this, the social bonds are strong.
• It exists where population is more.
• In this, there is more room for individual initiative.
• It is highly secular.
• It is abstract and general.

Question 7.
Show, with examples, how moral codes are indicators of social solidarity.
Answer:

• The social solidarity was to be found in the codes of conduct imposed on individuals by collective agreement.
• Moral facts are phenomena like others; they consist of rules of action recognizable by certain distinctive characteristics, it must then be possible to observe them, describe them, classify them and look for certain laws explaining them.
• Society, for Durkheim, was a social fact which existed as a moral community over and above the individual.
• Social solidarities exerted pressure on individuals to conform to the norms and expectations of the group.
• Moral codes are manifestations of particular social conditions.
• The moral code that is appropriate for one society is inappropriate for another.
• The prevailing social conditions could be deduced from the moral codes. This has made sociology akin to the natural sciences and is in keeping with his larger objective of establishing sociology as a rigorous scientific discipline.
• By observing behaviour patterns it is possible to identify the norms, codes and social solidarities which governed them.
• The existence of otherwise ‘invisible’ things like ideas, norms, values and so on could be empirically verified by studying the patterns of social behaviour of the people.

Question 8.
Discuss Durkheim’s concept of collective conscience.
Answer:

• The concept of collective conscience is defined by Emile Durkheim as ‘the body of beliefs and sentiments common to the average of members of the society. It contains those beliefs and sentiments which are found in the average members of society, e.g., it is people’s belief that poor should not be tortured, instead people should take care of them.
• It comprised a form and content which varies according to whether society is characterised by mechanical or organic solidarity.
• According to mechanical solidarity the collective conscience is extensive and strong widely related to people’s life. It controls the people through various religious or other traditional means of sanction.
• It emphasies the primacy of society over the individual and his or her dignity.
• Gradually the collective conscience declined in its influence and became less extensive.
• In the transition to organic solidarity this could be observed in the replacement of repressive by restitutive i.e., making amends of it by systems of law.
• According to Durkheim, a society wide collective conscience can only hold a segmental society together.
• The collective conscience becomes a diffuse, abstract cult of the individual which as a civil religion, supplies ultimate principles and justifications but cannot bear the whole weight of social cohesion.
• Durkheim believes that collective conscience is in the beliefs and expresses itself in the form of symbols, e.g., the festival of Vijayadashmi represents the victory of good over evil. This belief can be seen in the concrete form in this festival.
• The individual consciousness becomes subset of collective consciousness and therefore any violation of collective consciousness is labelled as revolt against whole society.
• The influence of collective consciousness varies from society to society. It is more prevalent among mechanical societies, i.e., less advanced and highly religious societies. Its influence declines in the organic socieity, i.e., advanced societies which are highly secular.
• The collective consciousness gets transferred from generation to generation through the process of socialisation.

Question 9.
What are the basic features of bureaucracy?
Answer:

• Officials have fixed areas of official jurisdiction governed by rules, laws and administrative regulations.
• Commands are issued by higher authorities for implementation by subordinates in a stable way, but the responsibilities of officials are strictly delimited by the authority available to them.
• Official positions in a bureaucracy are independent.
• Authority and office are placed on a graded hierarchy where the higher officials supervise the lower ones.
• Management of a bureaucratic organisation is carried out on the basis of written documents (the files) which are preserved as records.
• Full time attention of officials irrespective of her/his delimited hours in office, hence an official’s conduct in office is governed by exhaustive rules and regulations.

Question 10.
What is special or different about the kind of objectivity needed in social science?
Answer:
Refer to Question . no. 6.

Question 11.
Can you identify any ideas or theories which have led to the formation of social movements in India in recent times?
For self-attempt.

Question 12.
Try to find out what Marx and Weber wrote about India.
Answer:

• Marx argued that people’s ideas and beliefs originated from the economic system of which they were part.
• Marx laid great emphasis on economic structure and processes because he believed that they formed the foundation of every social system throughout human history.
• Marx believed that class struggle was the major driving force of change in society.
• Weber argued that the overall objective of the social sciences was to develop an ‘interpretative understanding of social action’.
• The central concern of the social sciences was with social action and since human actions necessarily involved subjective meanings, the methods of enquiry of social science also had to be different from the methods of natural science.
• The social world was founded on subjective human meanings, values, feelings, prejudices, ideals and so on.
• Social scientists had to constantly practise ’empathetic understanding’. But this investigation has to be done objectively.
• Sociologists are meant to describe, not judge, the subjective feelings of others.

Question 13.
Can you think of reasons why we should study the work of thinkers who died long ago? What could be some reasons to not study them?
Answer:
For self-attempt.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 4 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 4 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the term ‘Bourgeoisie’.
Answer:
According to Marx, Bourgeoisie are those few people who own the means of production in a capitalist society. They enjoy both economic and political power.

Question 2.
Explain the term ‘surplus value’.
Answer:
The term ‘surplus value’ refers to the quality of value produced by the worker beyond the necessary labour time, i.e., the marking time required to produce a value equal to the one he has received in the form of wages.

Question 3.
List two suitable grounds on which Marxian theory of class struggle has been criticised.
Answer:
Karl Marx has absolutely ignored the middle class. Middle class has a great importance in modem society especially that society which can be called the supreme capitalist society.
The class struggle cannot be accepted as constructive. Hence, it is always destructive and it leads to fascism which any society is unable to bear.

Question 4.
Explain briefly social fact as interpreted by Durkheim.
Answer:
Social facts are those ways of thinking, doing work and feel which has the special characteristics to maintain its existence exterior to the individual consciousness. Durkheim also writes, “Social facts are those ways of working, thinking and feeling which are exterior to man and which controls the man by their power of constraint”.

Question 5.
Why is Emile Durkheim called the ‘key classical theorists in sociology’?
Answer:
Emile Durkheim is one of the ‘key classical theorists in sociology’. He is best known for founding sociology as a scientific discipline and for defining the boundaries of its subject matter.
His key theoretical statement lies in his claim that social phenomena are realities that can only be explained by other social facts.

Question 6.
Differentiate between the sacred and the profane.
Answer:
The sacred is that which is considered holy and dreaded. It includes religious beliefs and rites, duties or anything related to religious treatment par excellence.
The profane relates to the ordinary, utalitarian aspects of life, dull or routine, full of impurity.

Question 7.
What is social fact, according to Durkheim?
Answer:
Social facts are those ways of working, thinking and feeling which are exterior to man and which controls the man by their power of constraints.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 4 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss main contributions of Karl Marx.
Answer:
Karl Marx was bom in Trier, Germany on May 5,1818. Marx was educated at the Treves school. He obtained his doctorate from the University of Jena in June, 1841. Marx’s personal life was a difficult struggle. Marx died on 14th March, 1883.
Karl Marx says that each society has two opposite classes:
1. The exploiters (means capitalists) and
2. The exploited (means workers).
The term ‘surplus value’ refers to the quantity of value produced by the worker beyond the necessary labour time i.e., the working time required to produce a value equal to the one he has received in the form of wages.
The term ‘alienation’ refers to the work alien, which means foreigner, and therefore alienation would mean becoming stranger to one’s own people and the product etc. In a capitalist society, alienation dominates every institutional sphere such as religion, economy and polity.

Question 2.
Write short note on Max Weber.
Answer:
Max Weber was born on 21st April, 1864 in Erfurt, Germany. He studied and received his degree in law. After the completion of his doctoral and the post-doctoral dissertations in 1897 he joined Heidelberg University as a Professor of Economics. He started his works in sociology in 1916 and was appointed Professor of Sociology at Munich. He died on July 14,1920. His main works include:

• The Protestant Ethic and Spirit of Capitalism
• The Religion of India.
• Economy and Society
• Essays in Sociology

Question 3.
How Durkhiem interpreted suicide?
Answer:
According to Durkheim, all deaths which are the direct or indirect results of any function of dead person about which he himself knows that thin act will cause death to him.
Durkheim suggested four forms of Suicide:

• Egoistic Suicide: Characterised by excessive reflection on personal matters.
• Altruistic Suicide: When the individual is over integrated with society. For example, Jauhar Pratha in Rajputs.
• Anomic Suicide: The state, which results from the weakening of powers in society that regulate social equilibrium. Individual meets frustration, which they are not able to cope with.
• Fatalistic Suicide: Due to excessive degree of regulation e.g. suicide of enslavement under the master.

Question 4.
Explain in detail Karl Marx’s theory of class struggle.
Answer:
Karl Marx was of the view that:

• Human society passed through different stages of development viz primitive, communal, ancient, feudal and capitalist.
• Each stage is defined by a mode of production.
• The factors of production are in the hands of the “oppressors’, they control them; the “oppressed” are deprived of them.
• There is a conflict between the “haves” and the “have-nots”.
• When the proletariat becomes conscious and acquires revolutionary character, there is an overthrow of those in power or the bourgeoisie.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 4 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on Emile Durkheim.
Answer:
Emile Durkheim was bom on 15th April, 1858 in France. His elementary education was completed at Ecole. After graduation from the Ecole, he started working for the
doctoral degree. He obtained his doctorate in 1893, and was appointed Professor in the Paris University. Durkheim founded L ‘Anne Sociologique, the first social science journal in France. He died on Nov. 15,1917. His works include :

• Division of Labour in Society
• The Rules of Sociological Method
• Suicide
• The Elementary Forms of Religious Life.

According to Durkheim, social facts are the substance of sociological study. Durkheim was strongly concerned with outlining the nature and scope of sociology.

• They are general throughout society.
• They are external to individuals and exist independently on their will.
• They exercise external constraint over individuals.

Question 2.
Explain “theory of suicide” as stated by Emile Durkheim.
Answer:
Emile Durkheim identified four types of suicide:

1. Egoistic Suicide: A person gives too much importance to his own self or ego; is not properly integrated in society; excessive self- reflection on personal matters leading to withdrawal from the outside world; as a result there is weakening in the bonds of solidarity in the family, religious and political organizations.

2. Altruistic Suicide: In this the person is over-integrated with the society. They commit suicide for the cause of society or a kind of self-denial, e.g. Sati, Jauhar.

3. Anomic Suicide: In societies that experience sudden changes. Anomic is a state which results from the weakening of the powers in the society that regulate social equilibrium. The person meets frustration and he cannot withstand it, he puts an end to his life.

4. Fatalistic Suicide: When there is excessive degree of regulation and an overly developed regime, e.g. seeing no alternative to enslavement under the master a slave takes his life.

Question 3.
Highlight the basic characteristics of religion.
Answer:
The basic characteristics of religion are:

• Belief in supernatural power.
• Emotional state of mind associated with the beliefs, happiness, fear, reverence etc.
• Material objects involved in the religious practices-altar, cross, sacrifice, flower, . incense sticks, special clothes, banana leaves etc.
• Variations in the types of material objects used in religious ceremonies-differ from culture to culture.
• Specific rituals – fasting, chanting, dancing, specific types of food etc.
• Specific mode of worship.
• Concept of heaven and hell; sacred and profane etc.
• A special place of worship.
• Generally rituals are performed in isolation but occasionally it is performed collectively.

Question 4.
How did Max Weber explain “social action”? Elaborate on the types of social action seen in society. (HOTS)
Answer:
According to Max Weber

• An action is social when it is oriented or directed to others in society.
• It is social in so far as by virtue of the meaning attached to it by the acting individual or individuals.
• All human behaviour to which the actor attaches a subjective meaning is social action.

Types of social action

• Goal-Rational Action: Both means and goals are rationally selected by the individual.
• Value-Rational Action: These are performed under the influence of ethical values and religious beliefs of the individual.
• Emotional Action: The means and ends of the action are selected on the basis of emotional criteria. They may not be rational.
• Traditional Action: Tradition and customs guide the selection of the means and ends.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sociology

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sociology Chapter 4 Introducing Western Sociologists appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions, Extra Questions and Important Questions pdf download of Text book Part 1 Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Part 2 India Physical Environment, and Part 3 Practical Work in Geography are designed by experts subject teachers to prepare students to score well. Here you find chapter wise complete detailed chapter questions and answers of NCERT Geography Book Class 11.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

NCERT Class 11 Fundamentals of Physical Geography Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Geography: Fundamentals of Physical Geography

• Chapter 1 Geography as a Discipline
• Chapter 2 The Origin and Evolution of the Earth
• Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth
• Chapter 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents
• Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks
• Chapter 6 Geomorphic Processes
• Chapter 7 Landforms and their Evolution
• Chapter 8 Composition and Structure of Atmosphere
• Chapter 9 Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature
• Chapter 10 Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems
• Chapter 11 Water in the Atmosphere
• Chapter 12 World Climate and Climate Change
• Chapter 13 Water (Oceans)
• Chapter 14 Movements of Ocean Water
• Chapter 15 Life on the Earth
• Chapter 16 Biodiversity and Conversation

NCERT Class 11 India Physical Environment Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Geography: India Physical Environment

• Chapter 1 India: Location
• Chapter 2 Structure and Physiography
• Chapter 3 Drainage System
• Chapter 4 Climate
• Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation
• Chapter 6 Soils
• Chapter 7 Natural Hazards and Disasters

Practical Work in Geography Class 11 Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Geography: Practical Work in Geography

• Chapter 1 Introduction to Maps
• Chapter 2 Map Scale
• Chapter 3 Latitude, Longitude and Time
• Chapter 4 Map Projections
• Chapter 5 Topographical Maps
• Chapter 6 Introduction to Aerial Photographs
• Chapter 7 Introduction to Remote Sensing
• Chapter 8 Weather Instruments, Maps and Charts

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sociology Chapter 5 Indian Sociologists

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 5 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
How did Ananthakrishna Iyer and Sarat Chandra Roy come to practise social anthropology?
Answer:

The pioneer of social anthropology in India was L.K. Ananthakrishna Iyer (1861-1937).

• L.K. Ananthakrishna Iyer was asked by the Dewan of Cochin to assist with an ethnographic survey of the state.
• The British government wanted similar surveys done in all the princely states as well as the presidency areas directly under its contorl, Ananthakrishna did this work on a purely voluntary basis.
• L.K. Ananthakrishna Iyer was the first self-taught anthropologist to receive national and international recognition as a scholar and an academician.

Practice of Social Anthropology by Sarat Chandra Roy

• Sarat Chandra Roy was deeply interested in tribal society as a by product of his professional need to interpret tribal customs and laws to the court.
• Roy published more than one hundred articles in leading Indian and British academic journals in addition to his famous monographs on the Oraon, the Mundas and the Kharias.
• He founded the journal Man in India in 1922, the earliest journal of its kind in India.

Question 2.
What were the main arguments on either side of the debate about how to relate to tribal communities?
Answer:

• Many British administrator – anthropologists were specially interested in the tribes of India and believed them to be primitive peoples with a distinctive culture far from mainstream of Hinduism.
• They believed that the innocent and simple tribal would suffer exploitation in the society.
• They felt that the state had a duty to protect the tribes and to help them sustain their w^y of life and culture, which were facing constant pressure to assimilate with mainstream of Hindu culture.
• They believed that attempts to preserve tribal cultures were misguided and resulted in maintaining tribals in backward regions.

G.S. Ghurye became the best known exponent of the nationalist view :

• Ghurye-became the best known exponent of the nationalist view. He insisted on characterizing the tribes of India as ‘backward Hindus’ rather than distinct cultural groups.

Main points of differences:

• The differences were how the impact of mainstream culture was evaluated. The protectionist’ believed that assimilation would result in the severe exploitation and cultural extinction of the tribals.
• Ghurye and the nationalists argued that these ill-effects were not specific to tribal cultures, but were common to all the backward and downtrodden sections of Indian society.

Question 3.
Outline the positions of Herbert Risley and G.S. Ghurye on the relationship between race and caste in India.
Answer:

• Herbert Risley’s view held that human beings can be divided into distinct and separate races on the basis of their physical characteristics such as the circumference of the skull, the length of the nose, or the part of the skull where the brain is located.
• Risley believed that India was a unique ‘laboratory’ for studying the evolution of racial types because caste strictly prohibits intermarriage among different groups, and had done so for centuries.
• Risley’s main argument was that caste must have originated in race because different caste groups seemed to belong to distinct racial types.
• The higher castes approximated Indo-Aryan racial traits while the lower castes seemed to belong to non-Aryan aboriginal, Mongoloid or other racial groups.
• Risley and others suggested that the lower castes were the original aboriginal inhabitants of India. They had been subjugated by an Aryan people who had come from elsewhere and settled in India.
• Ghurye did not disagree with the basic argument put forward by Risley but believed it to be only partially correct.
• He pointed out the problem with using averages along without considering the variation in the distribution of a particular measurements were not very large or systematic.
• ‘Racial purity’ had been preserved due to the prohibition on inter-marriage only in ‘Hindustan proper’ (North India).

Question 4.
Summarise the social anthropological definition of caste.
Answer:
Social anthropological definition of caste:

• Caste is based on segmental division: Caste is an institution based on segmental division. This means that caste society is divided into a number of closed, mutually exclusive segments or compartments.
• Caste is based on hierarchical division: Caste society is based on hierarchical division. Each caste is strictly unequal to every other caste.
• Caste imposes restriction on social interaction: The institution of caste necessarily imposes restrictions on social interaction, specially the sharing of food.
• Institution of untouchability: In the institution of untouchability even the touch of people of particular castes is thought to be polluting.
• Differential rights and duties for different castes: Following the principles of hierarchy and restricted social interaction, caste also involves differential rights and duties of different castes.
• Restriction on the choice of occupation: Caste restricts the choice of occupation, which, like caste itself, is decided by birth and is hereditary.
• It Imposes strict restrictions on marriage: Caste involves strict restrictions on marriage. Caste ‘endogamy’, or marriage only within the caste, is often accompanied by rules about ‘exogamy7, or whom one may not marry.

Question 5.
What does D.P. Mukerji mean by a ‘living tradition’? Why did he insist that Indian sociologists be rooted in this tradition?
Answer:

• According to D.P. Mukerji, this is a tradition which maintains links with the past by retaining something from it, and at the same time incorporates new things.
• A living tradition thus includes some old elements but also some new ones.
• What D.P. Mukerji insisted Indian sociologists should be rooted in living tradition to get a better and more concrete sense of what this means.
• The Indian sociologists can know better the following subjects:
  • Games played by children of your age groups (boys/girls),
  • Ways in which a popular festival is celebrated, etc.
• First duty of an Indian sociologist is to study and to know the social traditions of India. For Mr. Mukerji, this study of tradition was not oriented only towards the past, but also included sensitivity to change.
• What D.P. Mukerji has written is not enough for Indian sociologists. He must be an Indian first, i.e., he is to share in the folk-ways to mores, customs and traditions, for the purpose of understanding his social system and what lies beneath it and beyond it.
• D.P. Mukerji argued that Indian culture and society are not individualistic in the western sense.
• Indian social system is basically oriented towards group, sect or caste-action, not voluntaristic individual action.

Question 6.
What are the specificities of Indian culture and society, and how do they affect the pattern of change?
Answer:

• D.P. Mukerji felt that the crucially distinguished feature of India was its social system.
• According to him, in India these three aspects were less developed in dimension in comparison to the west.
• Indian culture and society are not individualistic in the western sense but they are having group pattern.
• D.P. Mukerji believes that Indian society and culture do not favour only to have link with the past but it favours and believes in the process of adaptation.
• D.P. believed, class conflict had been “smoothed and covered by caste traditions” in the Indian context, where new class relations had not yet emerged very sharply.
• D.P. Mukerji believed in Indian tradition, namely, sruti, smriti and anubhava. Of these the last anubhava or personal experience is the revolutionary principle.
• The most important principle of change in Indian society was generalised anubhava, or the collective experience of groups.
• The high traditions were centered in smriti and sruti, but they were periodically
  challenged by the collective experience of groups and sects, as for example, in the Bhakti movement.
• According to D.P. Mukerji, the Indian context is not one where discursive reason (buddhi-vichar) is the dominant force for change, anubhava and prem (experience and love) have been historically superior as agents of change.
• Conflict and rebellion in Indian context have tended to work through collective experiences.

Question 7.
What is a welfare state? Why is A.R. Desai critical of the claims made on its behalf?
Answer:

• A welfare state is that which looks after the welfare of the people concerned with different aspects i.e., political, economic, social, religious, cultural, developmental, etc. of the people.
• The modem capitalist state was one of the significant themes that interested A.R. Desai.

Desai identifies the following unique features of the welfare state:

• A welfare state is a positive state. This means that unlike the ‘laissez faire’ of classical liberal political theory, the welfare state does not seek to do only the minimum necessary to maintain law and order.
• A welfare state involves a mixed economy. A ‘mixed economy’ means an economy where both private capitalist enterprises and state or public owned enterprises co-exist.
• A welfare state does not seek to eliminate the capitalist market, nor does it prevent public investement in industry and other fields. By and large, the state sector concentrates on basic goods and social infrastructure, while private industry dominates the consumer goods sector.
• Desai then goes on to suggest some test criteria against which the performance of the welfare state can be measured. These are :
  • Freedom from poverty, discrimination and security for all: The welfare state ensures freedom from poverty, social discrimination and security for all its citizens.
  • Equality of income: The welfare state removes inequalities of income through measures to redistribute income from the rich to the poor, and by preventing the concentration of wealth.
  • Preference to real needs of community: The welfare state transforms the economy in such a way that the capitalist profit motive is made subservient to the real needs of the community.
  • Stable development: The welfare state ensures stable development free from the cycle of economic booms and depressions.
  • Employment: It provides employment for all.

Question 8.
What arguments were given for and against the village as a subject of sociological research by M. N. Srinivas and Louis Dumont?
Answer:

• M.N. Srinivas favoured to take Indian villages as a subject of sociological research because village society remained a life long focus of interest for him.
• His writings were of two types. First of all, there were ethnographic accounts of fieldwork done in villages or discussions of such accounts.
• A second kind of writing includes historical and conceptual discussions about the Indian village as a unit of social analysis.
• Srinivas believed that the village was a relevant social entity. Historical evidence showed that villages had served as a unifying identity and that village unity was quite significant in rural social life.
• Srinivas criticised the British administrator anthropoligists who had put forward a picture of the Indian village as unchanging, self-sufficient, “little republics”.
• Villages were never self-sufficient, and had been involved in various kinds of economic, social and political relationship.

Question 9.
What is the significance of village studies in the history of Indian sociology? What role did M.N. Srinivas play in promoting village studies?
Answer:

• India is a country of villages.
• More than 65 percent people reside in rural area of India.
• Village studies are important if we want to challenge the incomplete and wrong, factual and informative knowledge of western sociologists who had done their research work keeping in view the imperial interest, ideologies and policies of the British government.
• M.N. Srinivas produces a significance body of work on Indian society and certain issues related with rural life in India.
• The Indian village and village society remained a life long focus of interest for Srinivas.
• Srinivas helped, encouraged and coordinated a major collective effort at producing detailed ethnographic accounts of village society during the 1950s and 1960s.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 5 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 5 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention Ghurye’s contribution to sociology.
Answer:
Ghurye is considered as founder of institutionalised sociology in India.

• He created a generation of first class sociologist through his guidance.
• His contribution in the field of castes, races, marriages, family and kinship system, rural urbanisation, demography, sociology of religion is most significant. Obviously, he was deeply interested in castes and races from the beginning.

Question 2.
What does D.P. Mukerji mean by Purusha?
Answer:
According to D.P. Mukerji, the concept of Purusha is not different from society and an individual and neither is this concept under control of Purusha group mind. Mr. Mukerji was of the view that Purusha is an active actor who fulfills his responsibilities by establishing contact with other persons.

Question 3.
What is living tradition, according to D.P. Mukerji ?
Answer:
According to D.P. Mukerji, living tradition is a tradition which maintains links with the past by retaining something from it, and at the same time incorporates new things.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 5 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate between the rural and the urban society.
Answer:
Rural society: They are usually small in size, having a low density of population. The dominant occupation is agriculture or agriculture related activities. There is a rigidity in the caste system. Lifestyle is simple, closeness is emphasized, dependence on religion is dominant. People are god-fearing and more nature dependent. They have a similar culture despite the differences in religious following. They are informal and take part in each other’s work as their own e.g. harvesting, sowing etc.

Urban society: They are usually large in size, having a high density of population. The population is hetrogenous, cosmopolitan, having people from different cultures. They follow various occupations out of which agriculture is the least popular. Lifestyle is complex, formality dominates. Caste system seemingly does not exist. The neighbours do not maintain social relations and exhibit a disinterested approach.

Question 2.
What does Ghurye think about rural community and urban community?
Answer:
Ghurye was in favour of urban development. Ghurye was of the view that raw material and other goods produced in rural areas must be used for urban development. According to him, following problems exist in urban areas :

• Insufficient drinking water
• Human congestion
• Traffic congestion
• Indiscriminate tree felling
• Sound or noise pollution.

Class 11 Sociology Chapter 5 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the views expressed by Ghurye on the tribes.
Answer:
Ghurye emphasized that some anothropologists and the British administrators advocated a policy of isolation for the tribes. They mentioned many causes for it such as: First, the tribals were different from the non-tribals or Hindus.
Secondly, tribals were the original inhabitants of the country.
Thirdly, they are unlike the Hindus, animists.
Fourthly, the tribals are different from the Hindus on linguistic grounds also.
Fifthly, tribal’s contact with the non-tribals had been harmful for the culture and economy of the tribals.
Ghurye referred to the long process of Hinduization of the tribes of India in different parts of the country. Some tribes had been integrated with the Hindu society. Some others remained loosely integrated. The tribes living in the hilly regions and the depths of forests were barely touched by the Hinduism. They were the imperfectly integrated classes of Hindus.
The tribes embraced the Hindu social order mainly for following causes :

• The first reason was the economic motivation. They adopted specialized types of occupation which were in demand in the society.
• The second reason lies in the Catholicity of caste system to the tribal belief and rituals.
  Ghurye emphasized that the policy of the British Government in relation to forests caused hardship for the tribals.

Question 2.
Explain the structural features of caste given by Ghurye.
Answer:
The caste system has got the following six structural characteristics :

• Segmental Division: Govind Sadashiv Ghurye sees caste as social grouping or segments; the membership of which is obtained and fixed by birth.
  Caste provides its own centre regarding rules, regulations, standards of morality and justice.
• Hierarchy: The castes or segments are arranged in terms of hierarchy. The Brahmans were placed at the top and the untouchables were kept at the bottom of the hierarchy.
• Principles of Purity and Pollution: The above described two features (attributes) reflect the separation or distance between castes. This fact of separation is reinforced by the principles of purity and pollution that find their expression in the codes, regulating the acceptance of food or drink from other castes.
• Civil and Religious Disabilities and Privileges of different Sections:
  A result of the hierarchical division of society is that rights and obligations are unequally shared by different sections of the society.
• Lack of Choice of Occupation:
  Every group or caste was associated with a hereditary occupation. Distinction between pure and impure occupations, the hereditary occupation of a caste reflected its status in society.
• Restrictions on Marriage:
  Inter-caste marriage was prohibited.

Question 3.
What was D.P. Mukerji’s view about traditions and modernity?
Answer:
D.P. Mukerji’s view about traditions:

1. D.P. Mukerji asserts that traditions do change. These principles of change are recognized in Indian tradition:
   • Shruti,
   • Smriti,
   • Anubhava.
     It is anubhava or personal experience, which is the revolutionary principle.
2. The experience of prem or love and sahaj or spontaneity of these saints and their followers was noticeable also in Sufis among the Muslims.
3. Our country has definitely preserved many values (some good and other bad also). The point, however, is that of utilizing the forces which are foreign to Indian traditions, e.g. ‘
   (a) technology,
   (b) democracy,
   (c) urbanization,
   (d) bureaucratic rule, etc.

D.P. Mukerji’s views about modernity:

• D.P. Mukerji does not worship tradition. His idea of “full man” or “well balanced personality” calls for a blend of moral fervor and aesthetic and intellectual sensibility with the sense of history and rationality.
• D.P. Mukerji believed that “the knowledge of tradition shows the way to break them with the least social cost.”
• According to D.P. Mukerji, a dialectical process of conflict and synthesis, must be given a push by the conserved energies of the class structure of Indian society.

Question 4.
Discuss the features of the caste system as stated by G.S.Ghurye.
Answer:
According to Ghurye, the caste system has the following features:

• Segmental division: This refers to the division of society into compartments, segments or castes. They have a set of rules, regulations, standards of morality and justice for each caste.
• ‘Hierarchy: Hierarchy is a scheme, which arranges castes in terms of higher, or Superior and lower or inferior in relation to each other.
• Principles of purity and pollution: The principles of purity and pollution find their expression in the codes regulating the acceptance of food or drink from other castes.
• Civil and religious disabilities and privileges of different sections: The ritual status of a caste; their rights and obligations are the crucial determinants of the nature of these disabilities.
• Lack of choice of occupation: Every caste is associated with a hereditary occupation. As distinction is made between ‘clean’ and ‘unclean’ and therefore between ‘pure’ and ‘impure’ occupations; the hereditary occupation of a caste reflected its status in society.
• Restrictions on marriage: Inter-marriage between castes was prohibited. Individuals were allowed to marry within their castes only i.e. they practised endogamy.

Question 5.
Discuss the factors that brought about social changes in society.
Answer:
Some of the factors are internal to the society whereas some are external.
1. Environment: It sets limits to the social change and may bring very rapid change in society. Difficult environmental conditions make slow the development of an advanced technology. In suitable environmental conditions, they grow and develop faster. If there are unfavourable environmental conditions, a society may remain backward. Isolated societies remain underdeveloped whereas well communicated societies develop rapidly. Natural disasters like flood, cyclone, drought force people to move from place to place, thus bringing social change in their lives.

2. Population: Change in the size of population brings about change in the economic life of the people and other aspects of life. Decrease in population may solve some social problems, decrease unemployment, whereas increase will do to the contrary. Industrialised nations need to maintain a balance between the size of the population and natural resources.

3. Technology: Social change is more rapid in technologically developed societies. In traditional societies, changes are very slow. Complexity in social structure grows along with advancement of technology. Due to advancement of technology, simple division of labour of the traditional societies has changed into complex form of division of labour. This has helped in the development of occupational specialisation. However, this has divided the population into a number of groups.

4. Values and Beliefs: On one hand, new social values and beliefs can bring about
social change, whereas they may also cause resistance to it. Changes in values and beliefs take a long time to be realized. When changes occur in society, they are noticed only partially.

5. Diffusion: Diffusion is an important mechanism of social change. Borrowing of cultural traits from an advanced society by a backward society is a normal process. This brings about social change. The backward societies change very rapidly and become modem by borrowing advanced technologies from the advanced societies. Non material traits like religion, ideology, beliefs and values change very slowly.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sociology

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sociology Chapter 5 Indian Sociologists appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 Rights and Duties in the Indian Constitution

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Write true or false against each of these statements:
(a) A Bill of Rights lays down the rights enjoyed by the people of a country.
(b) A Bill of Rights protects the liberties of an individual.
(c) Every country of the world has a Bill of Rights.
(d) The Constitution guarantees remedy against violation of Rights.
Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) False
(d) True

Question 2.
Which of the following is the best description of Fundamental Rights?
(а) All the rights an individual should have.
(b) All the rights given to citizens by law.
(c) The rights given and protected by the Constitution.
(d) The rights given by the Constitution that cannot ever be restricted.
Answer:
(c) The rights given and protected by the Constitution.

Question 3.
Read the following situations. Which Fundamental Right is being used or violated in each case and how?
(a) Overweight male cabin crew are allowed to get promotion in the national airlines but their women colleagues who gain weight are penalised.
(b) A director makes a documentary film that criticises the policies of the government.
(c) People displaced by a big dam take out a rally demanding rehabilitation.
(d) Andhra society runs Telugu medium schools outside Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:
(a) In this situation, Right to Equality is being violated on the ground of discrimination whereas nobody should be discriminated under the Right to Equality on behalf of Caste, Sex, Religion, Race, etc.
(b) In the second situation the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression is being used.
(c) People displaced by a big dam take out a rally demanding rehabilitation. Though our Constitution grants right to reside and settle in any part of India in the Right to Freedom. But people have Right to Freedom of speech and expression also. In this case, the government can impose some restrictions to maintain law and order.
(d) This case refers to the rights of linguistic minorities to set up their own educational institutions to preserve their culture. Hence, Andhra Pradesh can enjoy the right to run Telugu medium schools outside Andhra Pradesh.

Question 4.
Which of the following is a correct interpretation of the Cultural and Educational Rights?
(a) Only children belonging to the minority group that has opened educational institution can study there.
(b) Government schools must ensure that children of the minority group will be introduced to their belief and culture.
(c) Linguistic and religious minorities can open schools for their children and keep it reserved for them.
(d) Linguistic and religious minorities can demand that their children must not study in any educational institution except those managed by their own community.
Answer:
(c) The statement of the above options is the correct interpretation because:

• Article 29(i) protects the interest of minorities in India to preserve their own languages, script and culture.
• Article 30 provides that all minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Question 5.
Which of the following is a violation of Fundamental Rights and why?
(a) Not paying minimum wages
(b) Banning of a book
(c) Banning of loudspeakers after 9 pm.
(d) Making a speech
Answer:
(a) Not paying minimum wages is a violation of Fundamental Right because:

• This act comes under Right against Exploitation.
• Begar, forced labour, bonded labour or not paying minimum wages come under the Right against Exploitation.
• It has now been declared a crime and a punishable offence.

Question 6.
An activist working among the poor says that the poor don’t need Fundamental Rights. What they need are Directive Principles to be made legally binding. Do you agree with this? Give your reasons.
Answer:
The most basic necessities of poor people are food, cloth and shelter. Hence, we can say that the activist is partly correct in saying that the poor don’t need Fundamental Right.
Directive principles contain various non-justicable rights on which livelihood of poor depends:

• Right to adequate livelihood.
• Equal pay for equal work.
• Right against economic exploitation.
• Right to work.

But, we cannot ignore Fundamental Rights which are important to guarantee the Right to Life, Employment and Right against Exploitation.

Question 7.
Several reports show that caste groups previously associated with scavenging are forced to continue in this job. Those in positions of authority refuse to give them any other job. Their children are discouraged from pursuing education. Which of their Fundamental Rights are being violated in this instance?
Answer:
In this instance, the following Fundamental Rights are being violated:

• Right to Freedom: Under the situation given here the Right to freedom of profession of an Indian citizen has been violated due to force to continue in their jobs and to be refused the other jobs.
• Culture and Educational Rights: The cultural and educational rights are also violated due to discourage of their children from pursuing education because every child has the right to get admission to any government or government aided educational institution.
• Right to Equality: The Untouchability has also been abolished and everyone has the right to equal opportunities in employment because all the citizens are equal before law. Hence, right to equality is also violated.

Question 8.
A petition by a human rights group drew attention of the court to the condition of starvation and hunger in the country. Over five crore tonnes of food grains was stored in the godowns of the Food Corporation of India. Research shows that a large number of ration cardholders do not know about the quantity of food grains they can purchase from fair price shops. It requested the court to order the government to improve its public distribution system
(a) Which different rights does this case involve? How are these rights interlinked?
(b) Should these rights form part of the right to life?
Answer:
(a) This case involves the following rights:

• Right to Equality where everybody is equal before law and enjoys equal protection of law. This case refers that a large number of ration card holders do not know about quality of food grains from ration shops.
• Right against exploitation due to ration shop owners exploit these ignorant people who are not having equal protection of law.
• Right to life due to some of the people do not have knowledge about how much quantity can be purchased from ration shops, hence may starve in want of food.
• Right to Constitutional Remedies is also involved because human rights group drew attention of the court to condition of saturation and hunger in the country.

(b) Yes, all these rights should form the part of the right to life.

Question 9.
Read the statement by Somnath Lahiri in the Constituent Assembly quoted in this chapter. Do you agree with him? If yes, give instances to prove it. If not, give arguments against his position.
Answer:
After reading Somnath Lahiri’s statement (on page 36 NCERT Textbook). We agree with Lahiri’s views because a police constable vigil over unlawful activities to maintain law and order into the society. Maximum fundamental rights work under this framework only as if, these are violated and requires remedial order by the court later on. These rights do not include:

• Right to adequate livelihood
• Equal pay for equal work
• Right to work
• Right against Economic Exploitation

These are substantive to human life and should be incorporated as fundamental rights of people.

Question 10.
Which of the Fundamental Rights is in your opinion the most important right? Summarise its provisions and give arguments to show why it is most important.
Answer:
In my opinion, the Right to Constitutional Remedies is considered as the ‘heart and soul’ of Constitution, hence important, because:

A citizen can approach to the Supreme court or High court under this right, in case of violation of any of the  fundamental rights.

The court can issue some special orders for the enforcement of these fundamental rights under the title of:

• Habeas corpus
• Mandamus
• Prohibition
• Quo Warranto
•  Certiorari

Under the above mentioned writs, the fundamental rights are defendable.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 NCERT Extra Questions Solved

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by rights?
Answer:
Rights are conditions of social life to be given by society and recognized by the state to promote welfare of the people.

Question 2.
What does ‘duty’ stand for?
Answer:
Duty is the performance towards others, i.e. towards people, or nation or society, etc.

Question 3.
What are ‘Fundamental Rights’?
Answer:
‘Fundamental Rights’ are granted by the Constitution of India to its citizens to be mandatory for the development and progress of the people.

Question 4.
Why Fundamental Rights are important?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are important because:

• These Rights ensure all those freedoms which make one’s life worth living.
• Fundamental rights provide equality of status and opportunity as well as protect individuals from any type of exploitation.

Question 5.
What does the Right to Equality stand for?
Answer:
Right to Equality stands for:

• All citizens of India are equal before law.
• This is an important right to abolish inequality among people of different castes and religion as well as between man and woman.

Question 6.
Who has the power to amend the Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
The Parliament has the right to amend the Fundamental Right.

Question 7.
Why Right to Freedom of Religion is an important right?
Answer:
The Right to Freedom of Religion is important because:

• Religion is a matter of faith, relates to conscience of a person.
• Citizens are free to adopt any religion.
• Citizens can opt any mode of worship as per choice.
• Citizens are free to manage their own religious affairs.

Question 8.
What is the importance of Article 21 of Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Article 21 provides protection of life and personal liberty, i.e. no person shall be deprived of one’s life except according to the procedure established by law of India.

Question 9.
What do you mean by ‘Right to Freedom’?
Answer:
Right to Freedom implies:

• Freedom of speech and expression.
• To assemble peacefully and without arms.
• To form associations and unions.
• To move freely inside territory of country.

Question 10.
What does the ‘Right to Life’ stand for?
Answer:
Right to Life stands for:

• To live up without fear, injury and external danger.
• Even the individual himself does not possess the right to take away his own life, i.e. to commit suicide is also a crime before law.

Question 11.
What do you mean by the ‘Right to Work’?
Answer:
Right to work includes:

• It is the duty of the state to provide a work to all citizens to earn one’s own livelihood.
• There should be efforts to remove unemployment from the society.
• Every state is responsible to make its citizens mentally and morally fit for struggle of life.

Question 12.
What do the Fundamental Duties refer in Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The Fundamental Duties were inserted in Constitution by 42nd Amendment in 1976:

• To remind its citizens, though they enjoy basic fundamental rights but they are supposed to observe certain basic norms of democratic conducts and behavior.
• A set of ten fundamental duties of citizens have been enumerated by the amendment.

Question 13.
What are Directive Principles of State Policy?
Answer:
Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines only to the government which are ‘non-justiciable’. It implies:

• The goals and objectives that we as a society should adopt.
• Certain rights that an individual should enjoy apart from Fundamental Rights.
• Certain policies that the government should adopt.

Question 14.
Are there some exceptions to the Right to Equality? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, there are two exceptions to the Right to Equality:

• Right to Equality refers to making special provisions for women and children, SCs and STs, OBCs.
• Right to Equality emphasises not to discriminate against anyone in the matter of employment but special provisions have been made for the reservation of post for backward classes.

Question 15.
Mention any two discrimination’s against women in our society.
Answer:

• Normally women are low paid workers rather than a man as well as women are not economically independent.
• Women are illiterate in our society which is the main reason for the backwardness of women. Mostly parents prefer education of a boy- child rather than a girl-child.

Question 16.
Mention the features of the writ of mandamus.
Answer:

• This is issued by the Supreme Court to Lower Court, an official or an association.
• It protects the right of a petitioner and gets some duty done by the authority to whom writ is issued.
• The Supreme Court issues the writ to protect fundamental rights but the high court is empowered to issue it for other purposes also except safeguarding the Rights only.

Question 17. What do you mean by the writ Quo Warranto?
Answer:

• Quo warranto issued to an individual who has usurped a public office.
• It is issued only if there is no other way to come out of grievances.
• In reply to Quo warranto the person concerned has to legally prove his right to hold the office, otherwise the court can get office vacated.

Question 18.
Mention the six Fundamental Rights granted by the Constitution of India alongwith importance of these rights.
Answer:
The Constitution of India guarantees six Fundamental Rights as follows:

• Right to Equality
• Right to Freedom
• Right against Exploitation
• Right to Freedom of Religion
• Cultural and Educational Rights
• Right to Constitutional Remedies These rights are of great importance because:
• These rights assure a man for his overall development.
• Without these rights, one’s life cannot be made worth living.
• If these rights are violated, the court is responsible to justice.

Question 19.
Which fundamental rights of Constitution protect the interest of minorities?
Answer:
The following Fundamental Rights especially protect the interests of minorities:

Right to Freedom of Religion The minorities have been given the right and freedom to follow any of the religions as per their choices.

Cultural and Educational Right

• Minorities have right to protect and preserve their own culture, language, etc.
• The minorities can establish their own educational institutions for preserving their own culture.

Question 20.
Mention some Fundamental Duties of Indian Citizens.
Answer:
In 1976, by 42nd Amendment of the Constitution, ten fundamental duties were inserted. Some of them are as follows:
i) To safeguard the sovereignty and integrity of the nation.
ii) To protect the country and even to serve whenever needed.
(iii) To protect and safeguard those great ideals with which we succeeded in the national struggle.
(iv) To abide by the Constitution and to respect its ideals, National flag and National Anthem.
Answer:
(i) The Fundamental Rights are not absolute because some restrictions can be imposed in the interest of public order, decency or morality.
(ii) These rights are justiciable.
(iii) The state cannot make a law which may violate the Fundamental Rights.
(iv) Some rights are available to all as the Right to Life and personal liberty and some rights are available to only citizens as the Right to Freedom of speech and expression.

Question 21.
Write a note on “National Human Rights Commission”.
Answer:
National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is composed of:

• A former chief justice of Supreme Court of India.
• A former Judge of Supreme Court.
• A former Chief Justice of a High Court.
• Two other members who have knowledge and practical experience in the matters relating to human rights.

The commission’s functions are to receive complaints of:

• Custodial deaths
• Custodial rape
• Disappearance
• Police excesses
• Failure in taking action
• Indignity to women

The commission’s most significant intervention has been in the case of disappeared youth in Punjab and investigation and trial of Gujarat riot cases. The commission does not have the power of prosecution, it can merely make recommendations.

Question 22.
What do you mean by Right to Property and Work?
Answer:

• In 1978, by 44th Amendment to the Constitution the ‘Right to Property’ was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights and scheduled as a legal right under article 300 A.
• Right to Property provides citizens with incentives to work to achieve their desired goals.
• Property may be immovable like houses, farms or movable like cash, jewellery and furniture.
• Right to Work is another right to be possessed by citizens.
• It is the duty of society to provide every citizen with work, adequate means of livelihood and reasonable hours of work.

Question 23.
“Rights and Duties are interrelated with each other”. Justify the statement.
Answer:
Rights and Duties go hand in hand:

• Rights help to develop one’s personality while duties help others to develop their personalities.
• We own rights but we owe duties.
• Duties are our obligations towards others whereas Rights are other’s obligations towards us.
• Rights are incomplete without duties whereas duties are meaningless without rights. Hence, it can be concluded that Rights and Duties are the two sides of the same coin.

Question 24.
Discuss the importance of the Article 16 of the Constitution in reference of fulfillment of the Right to Equality of opportunity?
Answer:

• Our Constitution mentions Equality of Status and Equality of Opportunity.
• The government is supposed to implement special schemes and measures to improve the conditions of certain sections of society.
• There is provision for reservations in jobs and admissions for children, women and socially and educationally backward classes despite we follow the principle of equality.
• Article 16 (4): explicitly clarifies that a policy of reservation will not be seen as a violation of Right to Equality. If we try to find out the spirit of Constitution this is required for the fulfillment of the Right to Equality of opportunity.
• Article 16 (4): nothing in this article shall prevent the state from making any provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State.

Question 25.
What do you mean by Right against Exploitation?
Answer:

• The Constitution prohibits ‘traffic’, i.e. selling, letting or disposing of men and women like goods, especially women and girl for immoral purposes.
• The Constitution prohibits Begar or bonded labour, i.e. to make a person to work against his will and not to pay him genuine wages also.
• No child under the age of 14 years shall be employed in any factory or hazardous work.
• Children are the asset of a nation, hence they should be protected from abuse and exploitation.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 NCERT Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 29) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Bill of rights in the South African Constitution The South African Constitution was inaugurated in December 1996. Its creation and promulgation took place at a time when South Africa still faced the threat of a civil war after the dissolution of the Apartheid government. The South African Constitution says that its “Bill of Rights is a cornerstone of democracy in South Africa”. It forbids discrimination on the grounds of “race, gender, pregnancy, marital status, ethnic or social origin, colour, age, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language and birth”. It grants perhaps the most extensive range of rights to the citizens. A special constitutional court enforces the rights enshrined in the constitution.
Some of the Rights included in the constitution of South Africa include:

• Right to Dignity
• Right to Privacy
• Right to fair labour practices
• Right to healthy environment and right to protection of environment
• Right to adequate housing
• Right to health care, food, water and social security
• Children’s rights .
• Right to basic and higher education
• Right of cultural, religious and linguistic communities
• Right to information

Questions:
1. Which rights are common between Constitution of Indian and South Africa?
2. Which rights are available in South Africa but not in India?
3. Mention the rights which are clearly granted in South Africa but implicit in the Indian Constitution.
Answers:
1.

• Right to dignity
• Right to fair labour practices.
• Children’s rights
• Right to basic education
• Right to cultural, religious and linguistic communities
• Right to information

2.

• Right to privacy
• Right to healthy environment and right to protection of environment.
• Right to adequate housing
• Right to health care, food, water and social security
• Right to higher education.

3.

• Right to dignity
• Right to privacy
• Right to fair labour practices
• Right to healthy environment and right and protection of environment,
• Children’s rights.

Passage 2.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 33) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

You Are The Judge:
You have received a post card from Hadibandhu, who identifies himself as a “member of the dalit community” in Puri district in Orissa. Men from this community refused to follow a custom that required them to wash the feet of the groom and guests of the ‘upper caste’ during marriage ceremonies. In revenge, four women from this community were beaten up and another was paraded naked. The post card writer says “Our children are educated and they are not willing to do the customary job of washing the feet of upper caste men, clear the left-overs after the marriage feast and wash the utensils.”

Questions:
1. Does the above mentioned case involve violation of Fundamental Rights?
2. What would you order the government to do in this case?
3. Who wrote the letter to judge and what was his identity?
Answers:
1. Yes, the cases and above involves violation of Fundamental Rights, i.e. Right to Dignity (Honour) is being violated.

2. As a judge, I would order the government to conduct inquiry through CBI or magistrate or Human Rights Commission and to punish properly as per the law.

3. “Hadibandhu” who identified himself as the “member of dalit community” wrote letter to judge.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“The Right to Freedom is a cluster of several rights”. Explain.
Answer:
The Right to Freedom guarantees various freedoms to the citizens of India:

• Freedom of Speech and Expression:Every citizen of India enjoys the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression of his views/ideas freely either orally or in written form.
• Freedom to form Unions and Associations:Citizens of India enjoy the freedom to form unions or associations to safeguard the interests to secure justice and equal opportunities.
• Freedom to Assemble Peacefully: Citizens of India can assemble at a place peacefully without arms to interact with each other.
• Freedom to reside in any part of India: Indian citizen may reside in any part of India which may be limited only for the sake of public order.
• Freedom to move freely within the territory of India: Citizens of India are free to move freely within the territory of India subject to the restrictions imposed in the interest of  public order or to safeguard the interest of ST’s.
• Freedom to Practice any Profession or Occupation: Every citizen has the freedom to choose one’s profession as per choice as well as enjoy the right to change the profession  according to will and circumstances.

Question 2.
What are the provisions of the Right to Equality?
Answer:
‘Right to Equality’ refers that all citizens of India are equal before law, not to be discriminated on the grounds of caste, colour, religion, language, race, sex or place of birth, etc.
Right to Equality has been included under Articles 14 to 18 of Indian Constitution:

•  Article 14: Guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to persons living within territory of India without any discrimination on the ground of caste, colour, race, religion, language, sex, etc.
• Article 15: Guarantees social equalities, i.e. no discrimination on any ground as well as equal access of each and every person to the public places and facilities. And state cannot be prevented from making any special provision for women and children.
• Article 16: Guarantees equal opportunities for all citizens in the matters of employment or appointment to any office under the state without any discrimination means employment and appointments should be on the basis of merit.
• Article 17: Abolishes untouchability and its practices in any of the form are also forbidden.
• Article 18: Abolishes titles except the degrees and titles concerned with military and education. Even foreigners who are serving in India are not entitled to receive any title from foreign government without the consent of the President of India.

Question 3.
Mention the Fundamental Duties of a Citizen in Constitution of India.
Answer:
By the 42nd Amendment in 1976, ten Fundamental Duties of Citizens of India were incorporated under Article 51A of the Constitution of India:

• To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, national flag, and national anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
• To uphold and protect sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
• To defend the country and render national services whenever required.
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India and to renounce those practices which seem to be indignified towards women.
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
• To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife as well as to have compassion towards all living creatures.
• To safeguard public property.
• To develop scientific temper and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
• To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual or collective activities to reach the nation to the higher levels of endeavours and achievements.

Question 4.
Throw some light on the relationship between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed to the individuals but the Directive Principles are the instructions to the State:

• The Fundamental Rights are justiciable means in case of their violation, it can be challenged either in the High Court or Supreme Court that, oars a duty to safeguard the rights.Whereas Directive Principles of State Policy are not justiciable, these are only to remind to central and state governments about their duties.
• Fundamental Rights are directly concerned with each and every individual whereas Directive Principles of State Policy are directly concerned with the State only, where a State is expected to implement and also to achieve the goal of Welfare State.
• Fundamental Rights may be suspended during the case of emergency by the President including the Right to Constitutional Remedies also whereas Directive Principles of State Policy cannot be suspended even during these circumstances.
• Fundamental Rights concern with the overall development of an individual whereas Directive Principles of State Policy concern with society as a whole which have been mentioned in Article 38 to create a society by the State where all enjoy social and economic justice.

Question 5.
What is the importance of the Right to Constitutional Remedies? Explain.
Answer:
‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ is the ‘Heart and Soul’ of Indian Constitution to protect the rest of the Fundamental Rights of the Citizens under Article 32 and 226. This right contains various writs to be issued by the Supreme Court and High Court from time to time:
The Writ of Habeas Corpus:

• The Court orders that the arrested person should be presented before it.
• Court can order to set free an arrested person if the grounds of arrest are unlawful.

Mandamus:

• When the court finds that the particular office holder is not performing legal duty.
• Thereby, he is infringing on the right of an individual.

Prohibition:

• It is issued by a higher court to a lower court on considering a case to go beyond its jurisdiction.
• Higher court orders to stop the proceedings of certain case.

Quo Warranto:

• If the court finds that a person is holding office but is not entitled to hold that office.
• This restricts that person from acting as an office holder.

Certiorari:

• The Court orders a lower court or another authority to transfer a matter pending before it to the higher authority or court.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 NCERT Picture-Based Questions

Study the picture (NCERT Textbook, page 37) given below and answer the questions that follow

Questions:
1. Name the Fundamental Rights whose violation is depicted in this photograph.
2. What is the provision under Right against Exploitation regarding the same picture?
3. Name any other form of exploitation mentioned under the Right against Exploitation except mentioned above.
Answers:
1. Right against Exploitation.

2. The Constitution forbids employment of children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like factories and mines alongwith making child labour illegal.

3. Begar or bonded labour or forced labour or ‘Trafficking’ of human beings, especially women and girls are the other forms of exploitation mentioned under the Right against Exploitation.

Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 Rights and Duties in the Indian Constitution appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Chapter Wise Class 11 Geography NCERT Notes pdf download in hindi and english medium of Text book Part 1 Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Part 2 India Physical Environment, and Part 3 Practical Work in Geography was designed by expert teachers from latest edition of NCERT books to get good marks in board exams. Here we have given CBSE Class 11 Geography Notes.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Notes

Class 11 Geography Notes Fundamentals of Physical Geography

Class 11 Geography Notes NCERT: Fundamentals of Physical Geography

• Chapter 1 Geography as a Discipline
• Chapter 2 The Origin and Evolution of the Earth
• Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth
• Chapter 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents
• Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks
• Chapter 6 Geomorphic Processes
• Chapter 7 Landforms and their Evolution
• Chapter 8 Composition and Structure of Atmosphere
• Chapter 9 Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature
• Chapter 10 Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems
• Chapter 11 Water in the Atmosphere
• Chapter 12 World Climate and Climate Change
• Chapter 13 Water (Oceans)
• Chapter 14 Movements of Ocean Water
• Chapter 15 Life on the Earth
• Chapter 16 Biodiversity and Conversation

Class 11 Geography Notes India Physical Environment

Class 11 Geography Notes NCERT: India Physical Environment

• Chapter 1 India: Location
• Chapter 2 Structure and Physiography
• Chapter 3 Drainage System
• Chapter 4 Climate
• Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation
• Chapter 6 Soils
• Chapter 7 Natural Hazards and Disasters

Class 11 Geography Notes Practical Work in Geography

Class 11 Geography Notes NCERT: Practical Work in Geography

• Chapter 1 Introduction to Maps
• Chapter 2 Map Scale
• Chapter 3 Latitude, Longitude and Time
• Chapter 4 Map Projections
• Chapter 5 Topographical Maps
• Chapter 6 Introduction to Aerial Photographs
• Chapter 7 Introduction to Remote Sensing
• Chapter 8 Weather Instruments, Maps and Charts

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CBSE Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions, Extra Questions and Important Questions pdf download of Text book Part 1 Fundamentals of Human Geography, Part 2 India People and Economy, and Part 3 Practical Work in Geography are designed by experts subject teachers to prepare students to score well. Here you find chapter wise complete detailed chapter questions and answers of NCERT Geography Book Class 12.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions: Fundamentals of Human Geography

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography: Fundamentals of Human Geography

• Chapter 1 Human Geography (Nature and Scope)
• Chapter 2 The World Population (Distribution, Density and Growth)
• Chapter 3 Population Composition
• Chapter 4 Human Development
• Chapter 5 Primary Activities
• Chapter 6 Secondary Activities
• Chapter 7 Tertiary and Quaternary Activities
• Chapter 8 Transport and Communication
• Chapter 9 International Trade
• Chapter 10 Human Settlements

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions: India People and Economy

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography: India People and Economy

• Chapter 1 Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition
• Chapter 2 Migration: Types, Causes and Consequences
• Chapter 3 Human Development
• Chapter 4 Human Settlements
• Chapter 5 Land Resources and Agriculture
• Chapter 6 Water Resources
• Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources
• Chapter 8 Manufacturing Industries
• Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context
• Chapter 10 Transport And Communication
• Chapter 11 International Trade
• Chapter 12 Geographical Perspective on Selected Issues and Problems

Practical Work in Geography Class 12 Solutions

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Geography: Practical Work in Geography

• Chapter 1 Introduction to Maps
• Chapter 2 Map Scale
• Chapter 3 Latitude, Longitude and Time
• Chapter 4 Map Projections
• Chapter 5 Topographical Maps
• Chapter 6 Introduction to Aerial Photographs
• Chapter 7 Introduction to Remote Sensing
• Chapter 8 Weather Instruments, Maps and Charts

The post Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth

Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Multiple choice questions

Question 1(i).
Which one of the following earthquake waves is more destructive?
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) None ofthe above.
Answer:
(a) P-waves

Question 1(ii).
Which one of the following is a direct source of information about the interior of the earth?
(а) Earthquake waves
(b) Volcanoes
(c) Gravitational force
(d) Earth magnetism.
Answer:
(а) Earthquake waves

Question 1(iii).
Which type of volcanic eruptions have caused Deccan Trap formations?
(a) Shield
(b) Flood
(c) Composite
(d) Caldera.
Answer:
(b) Flood

Question 1(iv).
Which one ofthe following describes the lithosphere?
(a) Upper and lower mantle
(b) Crust and upper mantle
(c) Crust and core
(d) Mantle and core.
Answer:
(b) Crust and upper mantle

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

Question 2(i).
What are body waves?
Answer:
Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling through the body of the earth. Therefore, it has been named as body waves. These are of two types: P-waves and S-waves.

Question 2(ii).
Name the direct sources of information about the interior of the earth.
Answer:
Some of the direct sources are:-

• Mining: It is a process by which commercially variable valuable mineral resources are extracted from Earth’s surface which includes precious stones, rocks and solid fuels.
• Drilling: Scientists world over are working on two major projects such as “Deep Ocean Drilling Projects” and “Integrated Ocean Drilling Project”. The deepest drill at Kola, in Arctic Ocean, has so far reached a depth of 12 km.
• Volcanic Eruptions: When molten material is thrown onto the surfaced the earth during volcanic eruption it becomes available for analysis

Question 2(iii).
Why do earthquake waves develop shadow zone?
Answer:
Earthquake waves get recorded in seismographs located at far offlocations. But there exist some specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the ‘shadow zone’. The study of different events reveals that for each earthquake, there exists an altogether different shadow zone. It was observed that seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, recorded the arrival of both P and S-waves.

However, the seismographs located beyond 145° from epicentre, record the arrival of P-waves, but not that of S-waves. Thus, a zone between 105° and 145° from epicentre was identified as the shadow zone for both the types of waves. The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive S-waves. The shadow zone of S-wave is much larger than that of the P-waves. The shadow zone of P-waves appears as a band around the earth between 105° and 145° away from the epicentre. The shadow zone of S-waves is not only larger in extent but it is also a little over 40 per cent of the earth surface.

Question 2(iv).
Briefly explain the indirect sources of information of the interior of the earth other than those of seismic activity.
Answer:
Analysis of properties of matter indirectly provides information about the interior

• Meteors
• Gravitation
• Magnetic field
• Seismic Activity.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words.

Question 3(i).
What are the effects of propagation of earthquake waves on the rock mass through which they travel?
Answer:
Earthquake waves are basically of two types: Body waves and surface waves. Body waves are generated due to the r elease of energy at the focus and move in all directions travelling through the body of the earth. Therefore these are called body weaves. The body wraves interact with the surface rocks and generate new set of waves called surface waves. These waves move along the surface. The velocity of waves changes as they travel through materials with different densities. The denser the material, the higher is the velocity. The direction of vibrations of S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the vertical plane. Hence, they create troughs and crests in the material through which they pass. Surface waves are considered to be the most damaging waves.

Seismographs . located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, recorded the arrival of both P and S-waves, However, the seismographs located beyond 145° from epicentre, record the arrival of P-waves, hut not that of S-waves. Thus, a zone between 105° and 145° from epicentre was identified as the shadow zone for both the types of waves. The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive S-waves. The shadow zone of S-wave is much larger than that of the P-waves. The shadow zone of P-waves appears as a band around the earth between 105° and 145° away from the epicentre. The shadow zone of S-waves is not only larger in extent but it is also a little over 40 per cent of the earth surface.

Question 3(ii).
What do you understand by intrusive forms? Briefly describe various intrusive forms.
Answer:
The lava that cools within the crustal portions assumes different forms. These forms are called intrusive forms. Important intrusive forms are described below:

• Batholiths: A large body of magmatic material that cools in the deeper depth of the crust develops in the form of large
  domes. Batholiths are the cooled portion of magma chambers.
• Lacoliths: These are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies with a level base and connected by a pipe-like conduit from below. It resembles the surface volcanic domes of composite volcano, only these are located at deeper depths.
• Lapolith: As and when the lava moves upwards, a portion of the same may tend to move in a horizontal direction wherever it finds a weak plane. It may get rested in different forms. In case it develops into a saucer shape, concave to the sky body, it is called lapolith.
• Phaeolith: A wavy mass of intrusive rocks, at times, is found at the base of synclines or at the top of anticline in folded igneous country. Such wavy materials have a definite conduit to source beneath in the form of magma chambers (subsequently developed as batholiths). These are called the phacoliths.
• Sills: The near horizontal bodies of the intrusive igneous rocks are called sill or sheet, depending on the thickness of the material. The thinner ones are called sheets while the thick horizontal deposits are called sills.
• Dykes: When the lava makes its way through cracks and the fissures developed in the land, it solidifies almost perpendicular to the ground. It gets cooled in the same position to develop a wall-like structure. Such structures are called dykes.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
How do we measure magnitude of earthquake?
(a) Richter Scale
(b) Mercalli Scale
(c) Measuring Scale
(d) Seismograph.
Answer:
(a) Richter Scale

Question 2.
How do we measure intensity of earthquake?
(a) Richter Scale
(b) Mercalli Scale
(c) Measuring Scale
(d) Seismograph.
Answer:
(b) Mercalli Scale

Question 3.
Fast moving waves which reach the earth earliest are called:
(a) Alpha Waves
(b) S-Waves
(c) P-Waves
(d) Beta Waves.
Answer:
(c) P-Waves

Question 4.
The upper portion of mantle is called:
(a) Asthenosphere
(b) Crust
(c) Lithosphere
(d) Fossil Sphere.
Answer:
(a) Asthenosphere

Question 5.
What is the approximate depth of mantle?
(a) 2400 km
(b) 2900 km
(c) 3200 km
(d) 3500 km.
Answer:
(b) 2900 km

Question 6.
Core is made of which metals?
(a) Iron and Magnesium
(b) Iron and Silicon
(c) Nickel and Iron
(d) Nickel and Magnesium.
Answer:
(d) Nickel and Magnesium.

Question 7.
What is the density of the rocks between the adjoining line on mantle and core?
(а) 3-4 gm per sq cm
(b) 5 gm per sq cm
(c) 4-5 gm per sq cm
(d) 6 gm per sq cm.
Answer:
(b) 5 gm per sq cm

Question 8.
What is the thickness of the crust?
(a) 10 km to 200 km
(b) 50 km to 300 km
(c) 30 km to 400 km
(d) 100 km to 200 km.
Answer:
(a) 10 km to 200 km

Question 9.
What is the density of the rocks of mantle?
(a) 3-4 gm per sq cm
(b) 5 gm per sq cm
(c) 4-5 gm per sq cm
(d) 6 gm per sq cm.
Answer:
(a) 3-4 gm per sq cm

Question 10.
Crust and upper portion of mantle taken together is called:
(a) Asthenosphere
(b) Magma
(c) Lithosphere
(d) Core.
Answer:
(c) Lithosphere

Question 11.
What is the mean thickness of oceanic crust?
(a) 5 km
(b) 30 km
(c) 10 km
(d) 70 km.
Answer:
(a) 5 km

Question 12.
What is the mean thickness of continental crust?
(a) 5 km
(b) 30 km
(c) 10 km
(d) 70 km.
Answer:
(b) 30 km.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
By which metals is core made of?
Answer:
Core is made up of nickel and iron.

Question 2.
Name the deepest mine of the world.
Answer:
Gold mines in South Africa are as deep as 3 – 4 km.

Question 3.
How do we measure magnitude, of an earthquake?
Answer:
We measure magnitude of an earthquake using Richter Scale.

Question 4.
What is the thickness of the crust in oceans, continents and mountains?
Answer:
The mean thickness of oceanic crust is 5 km whereas that of the continental is around 30 km. The continental crust is thicker in the areas of major mountain systems. It is as much as 70 km thick in the Himalayan region.

Question 5.
What do you mean by dykes?
Answer:
When the lava makes its way through cracks and the fissures developed in the land, it solidifies almost perpendicular to the ground. It gets cooled in the same position to develop a wall-like structure. Such structures are called dykes.

Question 6.
What do we get to know about the interior of the earth through mining?
Answer:
We get to know through the mining activity that temperature and pressure increase with the increasing distance from the surface towards the interior in deeper depths. Moreover, it is also known that the density of the material also increases with depth.

Question 7.
What do you mean by gravitational anomaly?
Answer:
The difference in readings from the expected values is called gravity anomaly. Gravity anomaly give us information about the distribution of mass of the material in the crust of the earth.

Question 8.
What do you mean by caldera?
Answer:
These are the most explosive of the earth’s volcanoes. They are usually so explosive that when they erupt they tend to collapse on themselves rather than building any tall structure. The collapsed depressions are called calderas.

Question 9.
When can an earthquake cause tsunami?
Answer:
An earthquake can take form of tsunami if its epicentre is below ocean and its magnitude is very high. An earthquake of magnitude more than 5 on Richter scale can prove to be very dangerous.

Question 10.
What are different types of forces?
Answer:
There are two types of forces:-

1. Exogenic forces: These are the forces on the surface of the earth like weathering, erosion, mining, etc.
2. Endogenic forces: These are the forces under the surface of the earth, like volcanic eruption, earthquake and any other seismic activity, tectonic plates.

Question 11.
Name the interior most part of the earth. What is its depth?
Answer:
Core is the interior most part of the earth. Its depth is between 2900 km to 6373km.

Question 12.
What is a volcano?
Answer:
A volcano is a place where gases,’ ashes and/or molten rock material – lava – escape to the ground.

Question 13.
What are intrusive forms?
Answer:
The lava that cools within the crustal portions assumes different forms. These forms are called intrusive forms.

Question 14.
What are batholiths?
Answer:
A large body of magmatic material that cools in the deeper depth of the crust develops in the form of large domes. Batholiths are the cooled portion of magma chambers.

Question 15.
What do you mean by hypocentre?
Answer:
The point where the energy is released is called the focus of an earthquake, alternatively, it is called the hypocentre.

Question 16.
What are surface waves?
Answer:
The body waves interact with the surface rocks and generate new set of waves called surface waves. These waves move along the surface. These waves are very destructive.

Question 17.
What do you mean by lapoliths?
Answer:
As and when the lava moves upwards, a portion of the same may tend to move in a horizontal direction wherever it finds a weak plane. It may get rested in different forms. In case it develops into a saucer shape, concave to the sky body, it is called lapoliths.

Question 18.
What do you mean by lacoliths?
Answer:
These are large dome-shaped intrusive bodies with a level base and connected by a pipe-like conduit from below. It resembles the surface volcanic domes of composite volcano, only these are located at deeper depths.

Question 19.
What do you mean by phacoliths?
Answer:
A wavy mass of intrusive rocks, at times, is found at the base of synclines or at the top of anticline in folded igneous country. Such wavy materials have a definite conduit to source beneath in the form of magma chambers (subsequently developed as batholiths). These are called the phacoliths.

Question 20.
What do you mean by sills?
Answer:
The near horizontal bodies of the intrusive igneous rocks are called sill or sheet, depending on the thickness of the material. The thinner ones are called sheets while the thick horizontal deposits are called sills.

Question 21.
What is magma?
Answer:
As long as liquid rocks are in the upper portion of the mantle, it is called magma.

Question 22.
Give meaning of mid-ocean ridge volcanoes.
Answer:
These volcanoes occur in the oceanic areas. There is a system of mid-ocean ridges more than 70,000 km long that stretches through all the ocean basins. The central portion of this ridge experiences frequent eruptions.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on composite volcanoes.
Answer:
These volcanoes are characterised by eruptions of cooler and more viscous lavas than basalt. These volcanoes often result in explosive eruptions. Along with lava, large quantities of pyroclastic material and ashes find their way to the ground. This material accumulates in the vicinity of the vent openings leading to formation of layers, and this makes the mounts appear as composite volcanoes.

Question 2.
Give a brief description of caldera.
Answer:
These are the most explosive of the earth’s volcanoes. Their features are as follows:

• They are usually so explosive that when they erupt they tend to collapse on themselves rather than building any tall structure. The collapsed depressions are called calderas.
• Their explosiveness indicates that the magma chamber supplying the lava is not only huge but is also in close vicinity.
• The hills produced by them are similar to the one made by composite volcanoes.

Question 3.
Write a short note on flood basalt provinces.
Answer:
These volcanoes outpour highly fluid lava that flows for long distances.

• Some parts of the world are covered by thousands of sq. km of thick basalt lava flows.
• There can be a series of flows with some flows attaining thickness of more than 50 m.
• Individual flows may extend for hundreds of km.
• The Deccan Traps from India, presently covering most of the Maharashtra plateau, are a much larger flood basalt province.
• It is believed that initially the trap formations covered a much larger area than the present.

Question 4.
Explain the uppermost layer of the earth- crust.
Answer:
It is the outermost solid part of the earth. It is brittle in nature.

• Thickness: The thickness of the crust varies under the oceanic and continental areas. Oceanic crust is thinner as compared to the continental crust. The mean thickness of oceanic crust is 5 km whereas that of the continental is around 30 km. The continental crust is thicker in the areas of major mountain systems. It is as much as 70 km thick in the Himalayan region.
• Composition: It is made up of heavier rocks.
• Density: It is having density of 3 g/cm3.
• In Oceans: This type of rock found in the oceanic crust is basalt. The mean density of material in oceanic crust is 2.7 g/cm3.

Question 5.
Explain the innermost layer of the earth- core.
Answer:
The Core is the innermost layer of the earth.

• Information: The earthquake wave velocities helped in understanding the existence of the core of the earth.
• Depth: The core- mantle boundary is located at the depth of 2,900 km.
• Form: The outer core is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state.
• Density: The density of material at the mantle core boundary is around 5 g/cm3
  and at the centre of the earth at 6,300 km, the density value is around 13g/cm3.
• Composition: The core is made up of very heavy material mostly constituted by nickel and iron.
• Other name: It is sometimes referred to as the nife layer.

Question 6.
Explain the middle layer of the earth- mantle.
Answer:
The Mantle: The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle.

• Depth: The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km.
• Asthenosphere: The upper portion of the mantle is called asthenosphere. The word astheno means weak. It is considered to be extending upto 400 km. It is the main source of magma that finds its way to the surface during volcanic eruptions.
• Density: It has a density higher than the crust’s (3.4 g/cm3).
• Upper Mantle: The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called lithosphere. Its thickness ranges from 10-200 km.
• Lower Mantle: The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere. It is in solid state.

Question 7.
Write a short note on shield volcanoes.
Answer:
Shield Volcanoes:

• Composition: These volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt, a type of lava that is very fluid when erupted. For this reason, these volcanoes are not steep. They become explosive if somehow water gets into the vent; otherwise, they are characterised by low-explosivity.
• Largest of all: Barring the basalt flows, the shield volcanoes are the largest of all the volcanoes on the earth.
• Examples: The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous examples.
• Movement of Lava: The upcoming lava moves in the form of a fountain and throws out the cone at the top of the vent and develops into cinder cone.

Question 8.
What are the effects of earthquake?
Answer:
The following are the immediate hazardous effects of earthquake

• Loss of life and property: Ground shaking takes place in earthquake. It leads to loss of life and property. Many buildings fall off and take life of people who were in and around the building.
• Change in land: Due to earthquake we can see many changes in the land. Many areas get converted into pits. There are cracks in mountains.
• Causes landslides and tsunami: It leads to landslides in mountainous regions and tsunami in oceans. It may further aggravate the calamity and loss of human and property.
• Destruction of means of communication and transportation: It leads to destruction of means of communication and transportation. It creates problem in sending help and relief to victims.
• Other effects: Earthquake may also lead to breaking or damage of dams which mav lead to floods. .

Question 9.
What is earthquake? Discuss focus/ hypocentre and epicentre. How do we measure its magnitude and intensity?
Answer:
An earthquake is shaking of the earth. It’s a nature event. It is caused due to release of energy, which generates waves that travel in all directions.

•  Focus/Hypocentre: The point where the energy is released is called the focus/ Hypocentre of an earthquake.
•  Epicentre: The point on the surface which is nearest to the focus of energy is called epicentre. It is the first one to experience the waves. It is a point directly above the focus.
  Measurement of earthquake:
  • Magnitude: It is measured by Richter Scale
  • Intensity: It is measured by Mercalli Scale.

Question 10.
Differentiate between Body waves and Surface waves?
Answer:
Main differences between body waves and surface waves are given below:

1. Body waves:
   • These are generated due to the release of energy at the focus.
   • They move in all directions travelling through the body of the earth.
   • These are less destructive than the surface waves.
2. Surface waves:
   • The body waves interact with the surface rocks and generate new set of waves called surface waves.
   • These waves move along the surface.
   • These waves are more destruction.

Question 11.
Differentiate between Primary” waves and Secondary” waves

Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain different types of earthquakes.
Answer:
The various types of earthquakes are:-

• Tectonic earthquake: The most common ones are the tectonic earthquakes. These are generated due to sliding of rocks along a fault plane.
• Volcanic earthquake: A special class of tectonic earthquake is sometimes recognised as volcanic earthquake. However, these are confined to areas of active volcanoes.
• Collapse earthquake: In the areas of intense mining activity, sometimes the roofs of underground mines collapse causing minor tremors. These are called collapse earthquakes.
• Explosion earthquake: Ground shaking may also occur due to the explosion of chemical or nuclear devices. Such tremors are called explosion earthquakes.
• Reservoir Induced earthquake: The earthquakes that occur in the areas of large reservoirs are referred to as reservoir induced earthquakes. Sometimes earthquakes also occur in mines due to mining processes. Sometimes earthquakes also occur below the oceans on surface of the ocean causing tsunamis.

Question 2.
What are different sources of information | about the interior of the earth?
Answer:
Some of the direct sources are:-

• Mining: It is a process by which commercially variable valuable mineral resources are extracted from Earth’s surface which includes precious stones, rocks and solid fuels.
• Drilling: Scientists world over are working on two major projects such as “Deep Ocean Drilling projects” and “integrated ocean drilling project”. The deepest drill at kola, in Arctic Ocean, has so far reached a depth of 12 km.
• Volcanic Eruptions: When molten material is thrown onto the surface of the earth during volcanic eruption it becomes available for analysis.
  Some of the indirect sources of information: Analysis of properties of matter indirectly provides information about the interior. Knowing the total thickness of the earth, scientists have estimated the values of temperature, pressure and the density of materials at different depths.
  • Meteors that at times reach the earth: However, it may be noted that the material that becomes available for analysis from meteors, is not from the interior of the earth. The material and the structure observed in the meteors are similar to that of the earth. They are solid bodies developed out of materials same as, or similar to, our planet. Hence, this becomes yet another source of information about the interior of the earth.
  • Gravitation: The gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is greater near the poles and less at the equator. This is because of the distance from the centre at the equator being greater than that at the poles. The gravity values also differ according to the mass of material.
  • Magnetic surveys: Magnetic surveys also provide information about the distribution of magnetic materials in the crustal portion, and thus, provide information about the distribution of materials in this part.

Question 3.
Explain different types of earthquake waves.
Answer:

Earthquake waves are basically of two types body waves and surface waves.

• Body waves: These are generated due to the release of energy at the focus. They move in all directions in all directions travelling through the body of the earth. These are less destructive than the surface waves.
• Surface waves: The body waves interact with the surface rocks and generate new set of waves called surface waves. These waves move along the surface. These waves are more destruction. The surface waves are the last to report on seismograph. These waves are more destructive. They cause displacement of rocks, and hence, the collapse of structures occurs.
  There are two types of body waves. They are called P- and S-waves,
• P-waves: They move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. These are also called ‘primary waves’. The P-waves are similar to sound waves. They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials.
• S-Waves: S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag. These are called secondary waves. An important fact about S-waves is that they can travel only through solid materials. This characteristic of the S-waves is quite important. It has helped scientists to understand the structure of t he interior of the earth. Reflection causes was es to  rebound whereas refraction makes waves move in different directions. The variations in the direction of waves are inferred with the help of their record on seismograph.

Question 4.
Explain how does shadow zone emerge. Use a diagram.
Answer:
Earthquake waves get recorded in seismographs located at far off locations. However, there exist some specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a zone is called the ‘shadow zone’. The study of different events reveals that for each earthquake, there exists an altogether different shadow zone.

Seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the epicentre, recorded the arrival of both P and S -waves. However, the seismographs located beyond 145° from epicentre, record the arrival of P-waves but not that of S-waves. Thus, a zone between 105° and 145° from epicentre was identified as the shadow zone for both the types of waves. Figures given below show the shadow zones of P- and S-waves.

Question 5.
Explain the interior structure of the earth.
Answer:
The interior structure f the earth can be classified into three parts:
1. Crust; (ii) Mantle; (iii) Core (i) Crust: It is the outermost solid part of the earth. It is brittle in nature. The thickness of the crust varies under the oceanic and continental areas. Oceanic crust is thinner as compared to the continental crust. The mean thickness of oceanic crust is 5 km w’hereas that of the continental is around 30 km. The continental crust is thicker in the areas of major mountain systems. It is as much as 70 km thick in the Himalayan region. It is made up of heavier rocks. It is having density of 3 g/cm3. This type of rock found in the oceanic crust is basalt. The mean density of material in oceanic crust is 2.7 g/cm3.

2. Mantle: The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle. The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The upper portion of the mantle is called asthenosphere. The word astheno means weak. It is considered to be extending upto 400 km. It is the main source of magma that finds its way to the surface during volcanic eruptions. It has a density higher than the crust’s (3.4 g/ cm3). The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called lithosphere. Its thickness ranges from 10-200 km. The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere. It is in solid state.

3. Core: The earthquake wave velocities helped in understanding the existence of the core of the earth. The core- mantle boundary is located at the depth of 2,900 km. The outer core is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state. The density of material at the mantle core boundary is around 5 g/cm3 and at the centre of the earth at 6,300 km, the density value is around 13g/cm3. The core is made up of very heavy material mostly constituted by nickel and iron. It is sometimes also called the nife layer.

Question 6.
In how many groups are volcanoes classified on the basis of nature of eruption and the form developed at the surface? Explain.
Answer:
Volcanoes are classified on the basis of nature of eruption and the form developed at the surface into following types:

1. Shield Volcanoes: These volcanoes are mostly made up of basalt, a type of lava that is very fluid when erupted. For this reason, these volcanoes are not steep. They become explosive if somehow water gets into the vent; otherwise, they are characterised by low-explosivity. Barring the basalt flows, the shield volcanoes are the largest of all the volcanoes on the earth. The Hawaiian volcanoes are the most famous examples. The upcoming lava moves in the form of a fountain and throws out the cone at the top of the vent and develops into cinder cone.

2. Composite Volcanoes: These volcanoes are characterised by eruptions of cooler and more viscous lavas than basalt. These volcanoes often result in explosive eruptions. Along with lava, large quantities of pyroclastic material and ashes find their way to the ground. This material accumulates in the vicinity of the vent openings leading to formation of layers, and this makes the mounts appear as composite volcanoes.

3. Calderas: These are the most explosive of the earth’s volcanoes. They are usually so explosive that when they erupt they tend to collapse on themselves rather than building any tall structure. The collapsed depressions are called calderas. Their explosiveness indicates that the magma chamber supplying the lava is not only huge but is also in close vicinity. The hills produced by them are similar to the one made by composite volcanoes.

4. Basalt Flood Provinces: These volcanoes outpour highly fluid lava that flows for long distances. Some parts of the world are cohered by thousands of sq. km of thick basalt lava flows. There can be a series of flows with some flows attaining thickness of more than 50 m. Individual flows may extend for hundreds of km. The Deccan Traps from India, presently covering most of the Maharashtra plateau, are a much larger flood basalt province. It is believed that initially the trap formations covered a much larger area than the present.

5. Mid-Ocean Ridge Volcanoes: These volcanoes occur in the oceanic areas. There is a system of mid-ocean ridges more than 70,000 km long that stretches through all the ocean basins. The central portion of this ridge experiences frequent eruptions.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Hots Questions

Question 1.
How does shadow zone emerge?
Answer:
The P-wave slows down (the rigidity G is 0.0) and the wave is deflected towards the centre of the Earth. From 105° to 140° from the epicentre no P-waves are recorded. This creates a belt from 105° to 140° around the Earth called the P-Wave Shadow Zone.

Although it is not illustrated think what would happen to an S-wave that just entered the outer liquid core. S-waves cannot travel through a liquid so from 105° to 105° degrees on either side of the epicentre no S-waves are recorded. This is the S-Wave Shadow Zone.

Question 2.
How will you locate epicentre of an earthquake?
Answer:
Check the scale on your map. It should look something like a piece of a ruler. All maps are different. On your map, one centimetre could be equal to 100 kilometres or something like that. Figure out how long the distance to the epicentre (in centimetres) is on your map. For example, say your map has a scale where one centimetre is equal to 100 kilometers. If the epicentre of the earthquake is 215 kilometers away, that equals 2.15 centimetres on the map. Using your compass, draw a circle with a radius equal to the number you came up within the centre of the circle will be the location of your seismograph. The epicentre of the earthquake is somewhere on the edge of that circle.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 3 Interior of the Earth appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 Federalism

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
From the list of following events which ones would you identify with the functioning of federalism? Why?
1. The Centre on Tuesday announced Sixth Schedule status to GNLF-led Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council, which would ensure greater autonomy to the governing body in the Hill district of West Bengal. A tripartite Memorandum of Settlement was signed in New Delhi between, the Centre, West Bengal government and the Subhas Ghising-led Gorkha National Liberation Front (GNLF) after two days of hectic deliberations.
2. Government for action plan for rain-hit states: Centre has asked the rain-ravaged States to submit detailed plans for reconstruction to enable it to respond to their demands for extra relief expeditiously.
3. New Commissioner for Delhi: The Capital is getting a new municipal commissioner. Confirming this, present MCD Commissioner Rakesh Mehta said he has received his transfer orders and that he is likely to be replaced by IAS officer Ashok Kumar, who is serving as the Chief Secretary in Arunachal Pradesh: Mehta, a 1975 batch IAS officer, has been heading the MCD for about three-and-a-half years.
4. CU Status for Manipur University: Rajya Sabha on Wednesday passed a Bill to convert the Manipur University into a Central University with the Human Resource Development Minister promising such institutions in the North Eastern States of Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura and Sikkim as well.
5. Funds released: The Centre has released ? 553 lakh to Arunachal Pradesh under its rural water supply scheme. The first instalment was of? 466.81 lakh.
6. We’ll teach the Biharis how to live in Mumbai: Around 100 Shiv Sainiks stormed J. J. Hospital, disrupted daily operations, raised slogans and threatened to take matters into their own hands if no action was taken against non-Maharashtrian students.
7. Demand for dismissal of Government: The Congress Legislature Party (CLP) in a representation submitted to State Governor recently, has demanded dismissal of the ruling Democratic Alliance of Nagaland (DAN) government for its alleged financial mismanagement and embezzlement of public money.
8. NDA government asks Naxalites to surrender arms: Amid a walkout by opposition RJD and its allies Congress and CPI (M), the Bihar government today appealed to the Naxalites to shun the path of violence and reaffirmed its pledge to root out unemployment to usher in a new era of development in Bihar.
Answer:
1. The very much fact that the State concerned, i.e. West Bengal was appointed as a party to the settlement marks the event as a manifestation of working of federalism.
2. It throws light on the sensitivity of the centre which wants to provide help to the rain- ravaged states to sort out their problems. Hence, it can be identified as federalism.
3. It shows the transfer of an officer from one place to another, showing federalism.
4. In the constitution of India, education-subject comes under the concurrent list to strengthen federation by establishing central institutes to be identified as a functioning of federalism.
5. This is also federalism because centre releases funds for States under its rural water supply scheme. (Arunachal Pradesh).
6. This cannot be identified as federalism because the act of Shiv Sainiks does not promote fraternity, cooperation or mutual trust and respect.
7. This identifies the federalism.
8. This is a function of state government.

Question 2.
Think which of the following statements would be correct. State why.
1. Federalism enhances the possibility of people from different regions to interact without the fear of one’s culture being imposed upon them by others.
2. Federal system will hinder easier economic transaction between two different regions that have distinct types of resources.
3. A federal system will ensure that the powers of those at the centre will remain limited.
Answer:
1. This is correct because the federal government distributes the power between the
central government and the state government and local self-government.
2. This statement is not correct because the resources are of distinct type and federalism gives impetus to the economic transaction among different regions.
3. This is correct because federalism refers more powers to the constituent units of federation.

Question 3.
Based on the first few articles of Belgian constitution given below, explain how federalism is visualized in that country. Try and write a similar Article for the Constitution of India.
Title I: On Federal Belgium, its components and its territory.
1. Article 1 : Belgium is a Federal State made up of communities and regions.
2. Article 2 : Belgium is made up of three communities: The French Community, the Flemish Community and the German Community.
3. Article 3 : Belgium is made up of three regions: The Walloon region, the Flemish region and the Brussels region.
4. Article 4 : Belgium has four linguistic regions: The French-speaking region, the Dutch-speaking region, the bilingual region of Brussels Capital and the German-speaking region. Each commune (county borough) of the Kingdom is a part of one of these linguistic regions
5. Article 5: The Walloon region is made up of the following provinces: The Walloon Brabant, Hainault, Liege, Luxemburg and Namur. The Flemish region is made up of the following provinces: Antwerp, the Flemish Brabant, West Flanders, East Flanders and Limburg.
Answer:
1. Article (1): It says that India shall be a union of States.
2. Article (2): India aspires to be a society free from caste discrimination but seats in each province have been distributed among the communities of Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs and General.
3. Article (3): India is a union of 29 states and seven union territories. As per Article (1) of constitution of India:

• India, shall be a union of states.
• The states and union territories shall be specified in the first schedule.

4. Article (4): The eighth schedule of the constitution of India describes 18 different languages:

• Hindi
•  Kashmiri
• Gujarati
• Bengali
• Assamese
• Konkani
• Malyalam
• Manipuri
• Punjabi
• Urdu
• Sanskrit
• Sindhi
• Tamil
• Telugu
• Marathi
• Nepali
• Kannada
• Oriya to be spoken in different regions of India.

5. Article (5): As per Article (1) (2) states that states and the union territories shall be specified in the first schedule.

Question 4.
Imagine that you were to rewrite the provisions regarding federalism. Write an essay of not more than 300 words making your suggestions about:
(a) division of powers among the center and the States,
(b) distribution of financial resources,
(c) methods of resolving inter-State disputes and
(d) appointment of Governors
Answer:
Federalism is an institutional mechanism to accommodate two sets of politics one-at the national level and the other at the regional level:
(a) Division of powers:

• The powers are distributed between the central government and the state governments.
• The constitution demarcates the subjects clearly in the lists.
• The disputes are settled by the judiciary.
• The economic and the financial powers have been centralised to the central government.

(b) Distribution of financial resources:

• Some certain taxes are levelled by the center but are collected by the states, i.e. stamp duty and the taxes on production of medicines and cosmetic preparations.
• Some certain taxes are levied and collected by the center and are distributed among the states, i.e. succession of property other than agricultural land, terminal taxes on goods and passengers carried by railway, sea and air, taxes on railways freights and fare, taxes on newspaper, etc.
• The taxes which are levied and collected by the center but are distributed between the center and the states, i.e. income tax on the income other than agricultural land on the recommendation of the finance commission.
• Bihar, Odisha, West Bengal and Assam have been given grants in lieu of export duty on jute and jute products.

(c) Methods of resolving inter-state dispute:

• An inter-state committee can be established by the Parliament if it thinks it to be fit.
• This committee enquirers into the dispute and submits its report and recommendations to the Parliament.

Example:

• Haryana and Punjab dispute on Chandigarh
• Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat have dispute over sharing of water of Narmada river.

(d) Appointment of Governors:

• The Governors of the states are appointed by the President of India on the advice of Council of Ministers at center.
• He enjoys the power to remove them also.
• Hence, the Governors work as the representatives of the central Government in the state who inform the center about the condition of the states if required.

Question 5.
Which of the following should be the basis for formation of a State? Why?
(a) Common language
(b) Common economic interests
(c) Common religion
(d) Administrative convenience
Answer:
In a federation different states are formed on the basis of common language they speak. Hence, federation is the unity in diversity. But, the administrative convenience should be the based for formation of states to develop a culture of mutual trust, tolerance and cooperation.

Question 6.
Majority of people from the States of north India—Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar—speak Hindi. If all these States are combined to form one State, would it be in tune with the idea of federalism? Give arguments.
Answer:
Federalism is an institutional mechanism to accommodate two seats of politics-one at the national level and the other at the regional level. If all the Hindi speaking regions of India, i.e. Rajasthan, U.P., M.P., Bihar, Gujarat are combined then there would be only a unitary or single unit, this cannot be called a federation.

Question 7.
List four features of the Indian Constitution that give greater power to the central government than the State government.
Answer:
Strong centre:

• Various subjects have been demarcated in the division of lists, i.e. union list—97 subjects, states list-66 and concurrent list-47 subjects.
• All the subjects, which have national importance, included in the union list.
• In case of any conflict on the subjects of concurrent list, the saying of the central government is important, rather than state government.
• When an emergency is imposed on the nation or partially, then the central government is empowered to frame the laws on the subjects mentioned in the state list.

The emergency powers:

• During the declaration of national emergency, the government is changed to a unitary form, from a federation. Hence, the central government exercises the legislative and executive power of the state but state legislature or executive are not dissolved.
• If emergency is declared in a particular state due to failure of constitutional machinery there, the legislative powers goes into the hands of the center and the executive power goes in the hands of the President.
• In case of declaration of financial emergency by the President, the center is again authorized to issue directions concerning the economy of the state and they will obey it.

3. Financial dependance of the states on centre:

• The centre enjoys more resources for revenue rather than the states.
• The states can get loan from the centre if required.
• The states apply for grants-in-aid from the centre.
•  Hence, states are dependent on the centre financially.

4. Appointment of Governors:

• The Governor is the head of the state as well as an agent of the central government.
• He is appointed by the President of India and remains in the office till the pleasure of the President.
• Hence, Governors act according to the wishes of the central government.

Question 8.
Why are many States unhappy about the role of the Governor?
Answer:

• The role of Governor is referred to as an interference by the central government inthe functioning of the state government, hence it becomes controversial.
• This controversy becomes much more if the power vests in the different lands at the centre and the state.
• As per Article 356, the Governor exercises the power to recommend the dissolution of state assembly.

Examples

• The central governments dismissed the elected governments in Andhra Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir in 1980’s.
• In Bihar also, state assembly was dissolved on the recommendation of the Governor in 2005. Though it was later pronounced unconstitutional. Due to these practices of Governor, the states remain unhappy with them.

Question 9.
President’s rule can be imposed in a State if the government is not being run according to the provisions of the Constitution. State whether any of the following conditions are a fit case for imposition of President’s rule in the State. Give reasons.
1. Two members of the State legislative assembly belonging to the main opposition party have been killed by criminals and the opposition is demanding dismissal of the State government.
2. Kidnapping of young children for ransom is on rise. The number of crimes against women are increasing.
3. No political party has secured majority in the recent elections of the State Legislative Assembly. It is feared that some MLAs from the other parties may be lured to support a political party in return for money.
4. Different political parties are ruling in the State and at the center and they are bitter opponents of each other.
5. More than 2000 people have been killed in the communal riots.
6. In the water dispute between the two States, one State government refused to follow the decision of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
1. This circumstance does not show the failure of constitutional machinery, hence the President’s rule cannot be declared under Article 356.
2. This circumstance does not imply failure of constitutional machinery, hence, President’s rule cannot be imposed.
3. It does not imply to impose the President’s rule.
4. Two parties are ruling in the State and at the Center is the federalism, though they may be bitter opponents to each other but it is not the situation to impose President’s rule.
5. It is a fit circumstance for the imposition of President’s rule because it has created a grave law and order problem in the state, hence, it shows the failure of constitutional machinery.
6. It is a fit position to declare President’s rule because no state can go beyond the decision of the Supreme Court and if any state is doing this it means the administration is not being carried out as per the provisions of the constitution.

Question 10.
What are the demands raised by the States in their quest for greater autonomy?
Answer:
Different states and political parties have adopted different methods to demand more
autonomy:

• State demanded independent sources of revenue, i.e. Punjab and Tamil Nadu for greater financial powers.
• Demand to enjoy residual powers by the State as States feel themselves weak and feel their interests to be horned.
• Demand to enjoy some greater powers to legislate laws on the subjects mentioned in the State list.
• States demand autonomy on the cultural and linguistic issues.

Question 11.
Should some States be governed by special provisions? Does this create resentment among other States? Does this help in forging greater unity among the regions of the country?
Answer:
Some States feel resentment among other States if some States are granted the special provision by the constitution:

• Under Article 370, Jammu and Kashmir enjoys more autonomous powers rather than the other States.
• Most of the special provisions pertain to the north-eastern states like Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Assam, Nagaland, etc. due to sizeable indigineous tribal population with a distinct history and culture, which they wish to retain under Article 371.
• Even some hill States like Himachal Pradesh and some other States like Maharashtra, Goa, Sikkim, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh also enjoy some special provisons.
• Some differences in case of division of the part of Uttar Pradesh in Uttarakhand, where the people can purchase agricultural land in Uttar Pradesh also but the people from Uttar Pradesh cannot purchase in Uttarakhand, createsresentment among the poeple.
• Hence, the other States demand the division of power in a common manner to all.
• This forges unity in diversity due to single citizenship and single judiciary in country.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Extra Questions Solved

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is federalism?
Answer:
Federalism is an institutional mechanism to accommodate two sets of politics one at the national level and the other at the regional level.

Question 2.
When and how did federation come into existence?
Answer:
The federation in India has come into existence by the integration of independent princely states into British provinces.

Question 3.
Which two countries have faced the disintegration after 1970?
Answer:

• USSR (Now Russia)
• Czecoslovakia
• Yugoslavia
• Pakistan

Question 4.
Mention any three federal features of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:

• Rigid Constitution
• Written Constitution
• Division of Powers

Question 5.
How many languages are there in India?
Answer:
20 major languages and several hundred dialects.

Question 6.
How have the powers been distributed in the federation of India?
Answer:
The Constitution of India has provided the various lists of powers, i.e. The central, state and concurrent list. The central list contains 97 subjects of national importance, state list (66) of state subjects and concurrent list contain 47 subjects on which both can frame laws.

Question 7.
What are the factors which make a federalism successful?
Answer:

• A written constitution.
• An independent judiciary.
• Cooperation and mutual trust.
• Political parties.
• A clear distribution of powers in various lists.

Question 3.
Mention some unitary features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:

• Division of power has gone in the favour of central government only which consists of 97 subjects in the union list.
• Every individual living in India enjoys single citizenship, i.e. Indian only.
• The governors of states are appointed by the President only and they remain in the office till the pleasure of central government.

Question 4.
What is the role of judiciary in federalism of India?
Answer:

• An independent judiciary has been set up to settle the disputes between the centre and the state government.
• Judiciary enjoys the powers to resolve the disputes between the central government and the state government, if any problem arises on legal matters and division of powers.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Justify that Constitution of India is a combination of federal and unitary forms of government.
Answer:
The Constitution of India is federal in form but unitary in spirit because it possesses the following provisions:

• The distribution of powers between the centre and the state has been made very clear through various lists.
• The independent judiciary is known as the guardian of the constitution to determine either the laws implemented are in the limit of constitution or not.
• The constitution of India is rigid on the one hand but flexible also on the other hand as per provisions made for amendments.

Question 2.
Mention some features of federal government.
Answer:
Federal form of government is the distribution of powers between the center and state and to let it work under their own spheres without any under interference:

• There are two sets of polities—one at the national level and the other at the regional level. And every government is autonomous in its own spheres.
• It combines the national unity along with the autonomy of local bodies.
• It works as a custodian to the weaker states to protect them from stronger states.
• An independent judiciary has been set up to settle the disputes.
• A written constitution contains the details of proper distribution of powers and is the supreme in India.
• Hence, federal government establishes unity in diversity which accommodates all the diversities in it.

Question 3.
Can Union Parliament frame laws on the subjects mentioned in the state list? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, Union Parliament or central government can frame the laws on the subjects mentioned in the state list in the following circumstances:

• If any subject has been referred to the central government as the subject of national importance by Rajya Sabha through a resolution passed by 2/3 majority of members present and voting.
• Under Article 252, if two or more states desire to frame laws by the central government.
• In case, if emergency is imposed due to war and external or internal aggression or President’s rule has been declared in the state.
• Also, in order to implement some international treaty or convention, etc.

Question 4.
Explain the financial relations between the union and the states.
Answer:

• Some certain taxes are levied by center and collected by the state, i.e. stamp duty and the taxes on production of medicines, etc.
• Taxes are levied and collected by the parliament but are distributed among the states, i.e. terminal taxes, taxes on interstate trade and commerce and duties on succession of property other than agricultural land.
• Certain taxes are levied and collected by the center but these are distributed between the center and the state both, i.e. income tax.
• Article 273 contains the provisions regarding the grants provided to the states by the central government, out of consolidated fund of India. The states of Assam, West Bengal, Bihar and Oidssa have been given grants in lieu of export duty on jute and jute products as well.
• A finance commission is appointed by the President of India after every five years which makes recommendations on the financial matters to be referred by the President.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 169) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Broadly, two types of disputes keep recurring. One is the border dispute. States have certain claims over territories belonging to neighbouring States. Though language is the basis of defining boundaries of the States, often border areas would Jiave populations speaking more than one language. So, it is not easy to resolve this dispute merely on the basis of linguistic majority. One of the long standing border disputes is the dispute between Maharashtra and Karnataka over the city of Belgaum. Manipur and Nagaland too, have a long-standing border dispute. The carving out of Haryana from the erstwhile State of Punjab has led to dispute between the two States not only over border areas, but over the capital city of Chandigarh. This city today houses the capital of both these States. In 1985, the then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi reached an understanding with the leadership of Punjab. According to this understanding, Chandigarh was to be handed over to Punjab. But this has not happened yet.

Questions:
1. Mention any two types of disputes between states.
2. On v/hich city have Maharashtra and Karnataka a dispute?
3. Name the leader who reached an agreement/understanding with Punjab and when.
4. What was the agreement?
Answers:
1.

• Border dispute
• Sharing of river water

2. Belgaum

3. The then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi in 1985.

4. To hand over Chandigarh to Punjab.

Passage 2.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 171) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Most of the Muslim majority States joined Pakistan but J&K was an exception. Under these circumstances, it was given much greater autonomy by the Constitution. According to Article 370, the concurrence of the State is required for making any laws in matters mentioned in the Union and Concurrent lists. This is different from the position of other States. In the case of other States, the division of powers as listed through the three lists automatically applies. In the case of Jammu and Kashmir, the central government has only limited powers and other powers listed in the Union List and Concurrent List can be used only with the consent of the State government. This gives the State of Jammu and Kashmir gTeater autonomy.

Questions:
1. Under which Article of constitution, J&K has been considered exceptional?
2. What is this exception?
3. How does J&K exercise this autonomy?
Answers:
1. Article 370

2. The state of Jammu and Kashmir enjoys some greater autonomy than other states.

3. In the case of Jammu and Kashmir, the central government has only limited powers and other listed in union list and concurrent list can be used only with the consent of state government.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Legislative powers have been distributed between the central and state government. Justify.
Answer:
Legislative relations between the central and state government have been distributed through the various lists, i.e. the union list, state list and concurrent list:
1. The union list:

• The union list contains 98 subjects after 42nd amendment, (Previously had 97)
• On these, subjects, only central government can frame or implement laws.
• These subjects are of national importance and equally applicable to citizens of India.
• Its examples are defence, foreign affairs, railways, peace and war, communication, etc.

2. The state list:

• This list contains 66 subjects after 42nd amendment (Previously were 62)
• On these subjects, only states can legislate the laws.
• These subjects are of state importance.
• Its examples are police, education, public health, law and order, local-self government, etc.

3. Concurrent list:

• This list contains 52 subjects after 42nd amendment. (Previously were 47)
• Both the central and state governments can implement laws the subjects.
• Its examples are marriage, divorce, electricity, price control, etc.

4. Residuary powers:
To make the center very strong, the residuary powers have been given to the central government only.

5. Union government can implement laws on the subjects of state list:

• At the resolution of Rajya Sabha by 2/3 majority which has declared any subject of national importance.
• If two or more states request the union government to enact law on particular subject.
• If emergency has been proclaimed either on the basis of failure of constitutional machinery or war, external or internal aggression and armed revolt.

Question 2.
What is the administrative relationship between the central and state government in India? Explain.
Answer:

• The central government is empowered to give directions to the state government if it feels that any law has become a hindrance in the functioning of central government of any law has not been executed very well.
• The governors of the states are appointed by the central government only who works as an agent between the centre and the state. The governor informs about the functioning of the state to the central government, and council of ministers reserves the right to remove him also.
• The parliament establishes an inter-state council also to enquire into the inter-state disputes, to submit recommendations, and to consider the common interest.
• If an emergency is proclaimed, due to external or internal aggression or war or failure of constitutional machinary, all the powers are vested into the hands of central government to implement the laws on the subjects mentioned in the state list.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Picture-Based Questions

1. Read the cartoon (NCERT Textbook, page 165) given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions:
1. Identify the person making an appeal.
2. What appeal is being made by him?
3. What message does the cartoon convey?
Answers:
1. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

2. To show greater tolerance towards other languages also.

3. Autonomy demands may be related to cultural and linguistic issues because some states feel that there is a domination of Hindi speaking areas over others.

2. Read the cartoon (NCERT Textbook, page 167) given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions:
1. What message does the cartoon convey?
2. How did it happen?
3. When was the states reorganization commission set up?
Answers:
1. Demand for new states.

2. During the national movement, it was decided that as far as possible states would be created on the basis of common cultural and linguistic identity.

3. In December, 1953.

Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solutions

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