CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2018

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• This question paper consists of 30 questions divided into four sections- A, B, C and D.
• Section A contains 6 questions of 1 mark each, Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 8 questions of 4 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in two questions of 1 mark each, two questions of 2 marks each, four questions of 3 marks each and three questions of 4 marks each. You have to attempt only one of the alternative in all such questions.
• Use of calculators is not permitted.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2018 Set I

Section – A

Question 1.
If x = 3 is one root of the quadratic equation x² – 2kx – 6 = 0, then find the value of k. [1]
Solution:
Given quadratic equation is, x² – 2kx – 6 = 0
x = 3 is a root of above equation, then
(3)² – 2k (3) – 6 = 0
⇒ 9 – 6k – 6 = 0
⇒ 3 – 6k = 0
⇒ 3 = 6k
⇒ k = =
⇒ k =

Question 2.
What is the HCF of the smallest prime number and the smallest composite number? [1]
Solution:
Smallest prime number = 2
Smallest composite number = 4
Prime factorisation of 2 is 1 × 2
Prime factorisation of 4 is 1 × 2²
HCF (2, 4) = 2

Question 3.
Find the distance of a point P(x, y) from the origin. [1]
Solution:
The given point is P (x, y).
The origin is O (0, 0)
The distance of point P from the origin,

Question 4.
In an AP if the common difference (d) = -4 and the seventh term (a₇) is 4, then find the first term. [1]
Solution:
Given,
d = -4, a₇ = 4
a + 6d = 4
⇒ a + 6(-4) = 4
⇒ a – 24 = 4
⇒ a = 4 + 24
⇒ a = 28

Question 5.
What is the value of (cos² 67° – sin² 23°) ? [1]
Solution:
We have, cos² 67° – sin² 23°
= cos² 67° – cos² (90° – 23°) [∵ sin (90° – θ) = cos θ]
= cos² 67° – cos² 67°
= 0

Question 6.
Given ΔABC ~ ΔPQR, if = , then find
Solution:

Section – B

Question 7.
Given that √2 is irrational, prove that (5 + 3√2) is an irrational number. [2]
Solution:
Given, √2 is an irrational number.
Let √2 = m
Suppose, 5 + 3√2 is a rational number.

But is rational number, so m is rational number which contradicts the fact that m = √2 is irrational number.
So, our supposition is wrong.
Hence, 5 + 3√2 is also irrational.
Hence Proved.

Question 8.
In fig. 1, ABCD is a rectangle. Find the values of x and y. [2]

Solution:
Given, ABCD is a rectangle.
AB = CD
⇒ 30 = x + y
or x + y = 30 …(i)
Similarly, AD = BC
⇒ 14 = x – y
or x – y = 14 …(ii)
On adding eq. (i) and (ii), we get
2x = 44
⇒ x = 22
Putting the value of x in eq. (i), we get
22 + y = 30
⇒ y = 30 – 22
⇒ y = 8
So, x = 22, y = 8.

Question 9.
Find the sum of the first 8 multiples of 3. [2]
Solution:
First 8 multiples of 3 are 3, 6, 9,….. up to 8 terms
We can observe that the above series is an AP with
a = 3, d = 6 – 3 = 3, n = 8
Sum of n terms of an A.P is given by,

Question 10.
Find the ratio in which P(4, m) divides the line segment joining the points A(2, 3) and B(6, -3). Hence find m. [2]

Solution:
Let P divides line segment AB in the ratio k : 1
Coordinates of P

Question 11.
Two different dice are tossed together. Find the probability:
(i) of getting a doublet.
(ii) of getting a sum 10, of the numbers on the two dice. [2]
Solution:
Total outcomes on tossing two different dice = 36
(i) A: getting a doublet
A = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5), (6, 6)}
Number of favourable outcomes of A = 6

(ii) B: getting a sum 10.
B = {(4, 6), (5, 5), (6, 4)}
Number of favourable outcomes of B = 3

Question 12.
An integer is chosen at random between 1 and 100. Find the probability that it is:
(i) divisible by 8.
(ii) not divisible by 8. [2]
Solution:
The total number are 2, 3, 4, …….. 99
(i) Let E be the event of getting a number divisible by 8.
E = {8, 16, 24, 32, 40, 48, 56, 64, 72, 80, 88, 96} = 12

(ii) Let E’ be the event of getting a number not divisible by 8.
Then, P(E’) = 1 – P(E) = 1 – 0.1224 = 0.8756

Section – C

Question 13.
Find HCF and LCM of 404 and 96 and verify that HCF × LCM = Product of the two given numbers. [3]
Solution:

Prime factorization of 404 = 2 × 2 × 101
Prime factorization of 96 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3
HCF = 2 × 2 = 4
And LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 101 = 9696
HCF = 4, LCM = 9696
Verification:
HCF × LCM = Product of the two given numbers
4 × 9696 = 404 × 96
38784 = 38784
Hence Verified.

Question 14.
Find all zeroes of the polynomial (2x⁴ – 9x³ + 5x² + 3x – 1) if two of its zeroes are (2 + √3) and (2 – √3). [3]
Solution:
Here, p(x) = 2x⁴ – 9x³ + 5x² + 3x – 1
And two of its zeroes are (2 + √3) and (2 – √3).
Quadratic polynomial with zeroes is given by,
{x – (2 + √3)}. {x – (2 – √3)}
⇒ (x – 2 – √3) (x – 2 + √3)
⇒ (x – 2)² – (√3)²
⇒ x² – 4x + 4 – 3
⇒ x² – 4x + 1 = g(x) (say)
Now, g(x) will be a factor of p(x) so g(x) will be divisible by p(x)

For other zeroes,
2x² – x – 1 = 0
2x² – 2x + x – 1 = 0
or 2x (x – 1) + 1 (x – 1) = 0
(x – 1) (2a + 1) = 0
x – 1 = 0 and 2x + 1 = 0
x = 1, x =
Zeroes of p(x) are
1, , 2 + √3 and 2 – √3.

Question 15.
If A(-2, 1) and B(a, 0), C(4, b) and D( 1, 2) are the vertices of a parallelogram ABCD, find the values of a and b. Hence find the lengths of its sides. [3]
OR
If A(-5, 7), B(-4, -5), C(-1, -6) and D(4, 5) are the vertices of a quadrilateral, find the area of the quadrilateral ABCD.
Solution:
Given ABCD is a parallelogram.

Question 16.
A plane left 30 minutes late than its scheduled time and in order to reach the destination 1500 km away in time, it had to increase its speed by 100 km/h from the usual speed. Find its usual speed. [3]
Solution:
Let the usual speed of plane be x km/h.
Increased speed = (x + 100) km/h.
Distance to cover = 1500 km.
Time taken by plane with usual speed = hr
Time taken by plane with increased speed =
According to the question,

x² + 100x = 300000
x² + 100x – 300000 = 0
x² + 600x – 500x – 300000 = 0
x(x + 600) – 500(x + 600) = 0
(x + 600) (x – 500) = 0
Either x + 600 = 0 ⇒ x = -600 (Rejected)
or x – 500 = 0 ⇒ x = 500
Usual speed of plane = 500 km/hr.

Question 17.
Prove that the area of an equilateral triangle described on one side of the square is equal to half the area of the equilateral triangle described on one of its diagonal. [3]
OR
If the area of two similar triangles is equal, prove that they are congruent.
Solution:
Let ABCD be a square with side ‘a’.

Question 18.
Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point of a circle are equal. [3]
Solution:
Given: A circle with centre O on which two tangents PM and PN are drawn from an external point P.

To Prove: PM = PN
Construction: Join OM, ON and OP
Proof: Since tangent and radius are perpendicular at point of contact,
∠OMP = ∠ONP = 90°
In ΔPOM and ΔPON,
OM = ON (Radii)
∠OMP = ∠ONP
PO = OP (Common)
ΔOMP = ΔONP (RHS cong.)
PM = PN (C.P.C.T)
Hence Proved.

Question 19.
If 4 tan θ = 3, evaluate
or
If tan 2A = cot (A – 18°), where 2A is an acute angle, find the value of A.
Solution:
Given, 4 tan θ = 3
⇒ tan θ = (= )


OR
Given, tan 2A = cot (A – 18°)
⇒ cot (90° – 2A) = cot (A – 18°)
[∵ tan θ = cot (90° – θ)]
⇒ 90° – 2A = A – 18°
⇒ 90° + 18° = A + 2A
⇒ 108° = 3A
⇒ A = 36°

Question 20.
Find the area of the shaded region in Fig. 2, where arcs are drawn with centres A, B, C and D intersect in pairs at mid-points P, Q, R and S of the sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively of a square ABCD of side 12 cm. [Use π = 3.14] [3]

Solution:
Given, ABCD is a square of side 12 cm.

P, Q, R and S are the midpoints of sides AB, BC, CD and AD respectively.
Area of shaded region = Area of square – 4 × Area of quadrant
= a² – 4 × πr²
= (12)² – 3.14 × (6)²
= 144 – 3.14 × 36
= 144 – 113.04
= 30.96 cm²

Question 21.
A wooden article was made by scooping out a hemisphere form each end of a solid cylinder, as shown in Fig. 3. If the height of the cylinder is 10 cm and its base is of radius 3.5 cm. Find the total surface area of the article. [3]

OR
A heap of rice is in the form of a cone of base diameter 24 m and height 3.5 m. Find the volume of the rice. How much canvas cloth is required to just cover the heap?
Solution:

Given, Radius (r) of cylinder = Radius of hemisphere = 3.5 cm.
Total SA of article = CSA of cylinder + 2 × CSA of hemisphere
Height of cylinder, h = 10 cm
TSA = 2πrh + 2 × 2πr²
= 2πrh + 4πr²
= 2πrh (h + 2r)
= 2 × × 3.5 (10 + 2 × 3.5)
= 2 × 22 × 0.5 × (10 + 7)
= 2 × 11 × 17
= 374 cm²
OR
Base diameter of cone = 24 m.
Radius r = 12 m
Height of cone, h = 3.5 m
Volume of rice in conical heap = πr²h
= × × 12 × 12 × 3.5 = 528 cm³

Question 22.
The table below shows the salaries of 280 persons: [3]

Calculate the median salary of the data.
Solution:

= = 140
The cumulative frequency just greater than 140 is 182.
Median class is 10 -15.
l = 10, h = 5, N = 280, c.f. = 49 and f = 133

Section – D

Question 23.
A motorboat whose speed is 18 km/hr in still water takes 1 hr more to go 24 km upstream than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream. [4]
OR
A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels at a distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than its original speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete the total journey, what is the original average speed?
Solution:
Given, speed of motorboat instil
water = 18 km/hr.
Let speed of stream = x km/hr.
Speed of boat downstream = (18 + x) km/hr.
And speed of boat upstream = (18 – x) km/hr.
Time of the upstream journey =
Time of the downstream journey =
According to the question,

⇒ x² + 48x – 324 = 0
⇒ x² + 54x – 6x – 324 = 0
⇒ x(x + 54) – 6(x + 54) = 0
⇒ (x + 54)(x – 6) = 0
Either x + 54 = 0 ⇒ x = -54
Rejected, as speed cannot be negative
or x – 6 = 0 ⇒ x = 6
Thus, the speed of the stream is 6 km/hr.
OR
Let the original average speed of train be x km/hr.
Increased speed of train = (x + 6) km/hr.
Time taken to cover 63 km with average speed = hr.
Time taken to cover 72 km with increased speed =
According to the question,

⇒ 135x + 378 = 3(x² + 6x)
⇒ 135x + 378 = 3x² + 18x
⇒ 3x² + 18x – 135x – 378 = 0
⇒ 3x² – 117x – 378 = 0
⇒ 3(x² – 39x – 126) = 0
⇒ x² – 39x – 126 = 0
⇒ x² – 42x + 3x – 126 – 0
⇒ x(x – 42) + 3(x – 42) = 0
⇒ (x – 42) (x + 3) = 0
Either x – 42 = 0 ⇒ x = 42
or x + 3 = 0 ⇒ x = -3
Rejected (as speed cannot be negative)
Thus, average speed of train is 42 km/hr.

Question 24.
The sum of four consecutive numbers in an AP is 32 and the ratio of the product of the first and the last term to the product of two middle terms is 7:15. Find the numbers. [4]
Solution:
Let the first term of AP be a and d be a common difference.
Let your consecutive term of an AP be a – 3d, a – d, a + d and a + 3d
According to the question,
a – 3d + a – d + a + d + a + 3d = 32
⇒ 4a = 32
⇒ a = 8 …(i)
Also,
(a – 3d) (a + 3d) : (a – d) (a + d) = 7 : 15

For d = 2, four terms of AP are,
a – 3d = 8 – 3 (2) = 2
a – d = 8 – 2 = 6
a + d = 8 + 2 = 10
a + 3d = 8 + 3(2) = 14
For d = -2, four term are
a – 3d = 8 – 3(-2) = 14
a – d = 8 – (-2) = 10
a + d = 8 + (-2) = 6
a + 3d = 8 + 3 (-2) = 2
Thus, the four terms of AP series are 2, 6, 10, 14 or 14, 10, 6, 2.

Question 25.
In an equilateral ∆ABC, D is a point on side BC such that BD = BC. Prove that 9(AD)² = 7(AB)². [4]
OR
Prove that, in a right triangle, the square on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares on the other two sides.
Solution:

Given, ABC is an equilateral triangle and D is a point on BC such that BD = BC.
To prove: 9AD² = 7AB²
Construction : Draw AE ⊥ BC
Proof: BD = BC …(i) (Given)
AE ⊥ BC
We know that perpendicular from a vertex of equilateral triangle to the base divides base in two equal parts.
BE = EC = BC …(ii)
In ∆AEB,
AD² = AE² + DE² (Pythagoras theorem)
or AE² = AD² – DE² …(iii)
Similarly, In ∆AEB,
AB² = AE² + BE²


OR
Given: ∆ABC is a right angle triangle, right-angled at A.

To prove : BC² = AB² + AC²
Construction : Draw AD ⊥ BC.
Proof: In ∆ADB and ∆BAC,
∠B = ∠B (Common)
∠ADB = ∠BAC (Each 90°)
∆ADB ~ ∆BAC (By AA similarity axiom)
= (CPCT)
AB² = BC × BD
Similarly,
∆ADC ~ ∆CAB
=
AC² = BC × DC …(ii)
On adding equation (i) and (ii)
AB² + AC² = BC × BD + BC × CD = BC (BD + CD) = BC × BC
AB² + AC² = BC²
BC² = AB² + AC²
Hence Proved.

Question 26.
Draw a triangle ABC with BC = 6 cm, AB = 5 cm and ∠ABC = 60°. Then construct a triangle whose sides are of the corresponding sides of the ∆ABC. [4]
Solution:

1. Draw a line segment BC = 6 cm.
2. Construct ∠XBC = 60°.
3. With B as centre and radius equal to 5 cm, draw an arc intersecting XB at A.
4. Join AC. Thus, ∆ABC is obtained.
5. Draw an acute angle ∠CBY below of B.
6. Mark 4-equal parts on BY as B₁, B₂, B₃ and B₄
7. Join B₄ to C.
8. From By draw a line parallel to B₄C intersecting BC at C’.
9. Draw another line parallel to CA from C’, intersecting AB at A’.
10. ∆A’BC’ is required triangle which is similar to ∆ABC such that BC’ = BC.

Question 27.

Solution:

Question 28.
The diameters of the lower and upper ends of a bucket in the form of a frustum of a cone are 10 cm and 30 cm respectively. If its height is 24 cm, find:
(i) The area of the metal sheet used to make the bucket.
(ii) Why we should avoid the bucket made by ordinary plastic? [Use π = 3.14] [4]
Solution:
Given, Height of frustum, h = 24 cm.
Diameter of lower end = 10 cm
Radius of lower end, r = 5 cm.
Diameter of upper end = 30 cm
Radius of upper end, R = 15 cm.

(i) Area of metal sheet used to make the bucket = CSA of frustum + Area of base
= πl(R + r) + πr²
= π[26 (15 + 5) + (5)²]
= 3.14 (26 × 20 + 25)
= 3.14 (520 + 25)
= 3.14 × 545
= 1711.3 cm²
(ii) We should avoid the bucket made by ordinary plastic because plastic is harmful to the environment and to protect the environment its use should be avoided.

Question 29.
As observed from the top of a 100 m high lighthouse from the sea-level, the angles of depres¬sion of two ships are 30° and 45°. If one ship is exactly behind the other on the same side of the lighthouse, find the distance between the two ships. [Use √3 = 1.732] [4]
Solution:
Let AB be the lighthouse and two ships are at C and D.

Distance between two ships = y – x
= 100√3 – 100 [from equation (i) and (ii)]
= 100 (√3 – 1)
= 100(1.732 – 1)
= 100 (0.732)
= 73.2 m

Question 30.
The mean of the following distribution is 18. Find the frequency f of the class 19-21. [4]

OR
The following distribution gave the daily income of 50 workers of a factory:

Convert the distribution above to a less than type cumulative frequency distribution and draw its ogive.
Solution:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2018 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NIOS Class 12 Date Sheet 2019: NIOS Class 12 Date Sheet has been revised. The National Institute of Open Schooling has updated the Class 12 date sheet for Block 1. NIOS administers the Class 12 exams twice a year. The class 12 exam is conducted once in the month of April-May (Block 1) and then in the month of October-November (Block 2). Students enrolled under NIOS regular and vocational exams can check their 12th Date Sheet April 2019 released by NIOS through the official website link provided below.

Download NIOS Date Sheet 2019 (For All India Exam Centres)

Download NIOS Date Sheet 2019 (For Overseas Exam Centres)

On 27th February 2019, National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) has published the time table for 12th April session on its website – nios.ac.in. As per the calendar, the exams will be conducted from April 02, 2019 to 4th May 2019. The practical exams will be conducted from 16th March to 30th March 2019. The timings of the exams will be 2.30PM to 5.30PM.

The NIOS is a government-approved institute and is one of the biggest open schooling systems in the world. It conducts exams for both senior secondary and secondary students belonging to NIOS. Read the complete article to get the date sheet of 12th class exam conducted by NIOS for the Block-1 session.

NIOS Class 12 Date Sheet 2019

The date sheet for NIOS class 12th examination has been designed in a tabular form for all the students so that they can prepare for the exam accordingly. Check the table below

NIOS Date Sheet For Practical Exam

How To Download NIOS 12th Date Sheet?

To download the date sheet for NIOS 12th or senior secondary class exam, students have to follow the below-given steps.

• Visit the official website of National Institute of Open Schooling, nios.ac.in.
• Click on the link given for Examination/Result at the home page.
• Check the notification declared for date sheet and click on the relevant link.
• The PDF format of the 12th date sheet will get opened on your screen.
• Download the pdf and keep for the reference.

Instructions To be Followed

• Students can download the Intimation-cum-Hall Ticket from the NIOS official website.
• Practical exams will be conducted according to the schedule mentioned in the above table, at the respective Accredited Institute (AIs) of NIOS.
• Students will be divided into batches. The number of candidates in a batch will be decided based on the capacity of the lab for the practical exam. Therefore, students are requested to contact the center superintendent or coordinator.
• The results will be declared after 6 weeks of the conduct of the exam, regarding which the notification will be published on the official website.
• Marksheets, provisional certificate, and Migration-cum-transfer certificate will be issued by the respective Accredited Institute (AIs) of NIOS.
• There will be no change in the dates of the exam.

About NIOS

NIOS is “Open School” to provide to the requirements of a heterogeneous group of students up to pre-degree level. It was commenced as a project with in-built extensibility by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) in 1979. In 1986, the National Policy on Education proposed establishing of Open School System for enlarging open learning facilities in a phased method at secondary level all over the country as an autonomous system with its own curriculum and examination driving to certification.

The post NIOS Date Sheet 2020 12th Class April-May | NIOS Exam Date appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents

Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Multiple choice questions

Question 1(i).
Who amongst the following was the first to consider the possibility of Europe, Africa and America having been located side by side?
(а) Alfred Wegener
(b) Antonio Pellegrini
(c) Abraham Ortelius
(d) Edmond Hess.
Answer:
(c) Abraham Ortelius

Question 1(ii).
Polar fleeing force relates to:
(a) Revolution of the Earth
(b) Gravitation
(c) Rotation of the earth
(d) Tides.
Answer:
(c) Rotation of the earth

Question 1(iii).
Which one of the following is not a minor plate?
(a) Nazca
(b) Arabia
(c) Philippines
(d) Antarctica.
Answer:
(d) Antarctica

Question 1(iv).
Which one of the following facts was not considered by those while discussing the concept of sea floor spreading?
(a) Volcanic activity along the mid- oceanic ridges
(b) Stripes of normal and reverse magnetic field observed in rocks of ocean floor
(c) Distribution of fossils in different continents
(d) Age of rocks from the ocean floor.
Answer:
(c) Distribution of fossils in different continents

Question 1(v).
Which one of the following is the type of plate boundary of the Indian plate along the Himalayan Mountains?
(а) Ocean-continent convergence
(b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary
(d) Continent-continent convergence.
Answer:
(d) Continent-continent convergence.

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.
Question 2(i).
What were the forces suggested by Wegener for the movement of the continents?
Answer:
Wegener suggested that the movement responsible for the drifting of the continents was caused by two forces.

• Pole-fleeing force and
• Tidal force.

The polar-fleeing force relates to the rotation of the earth. The earth is not a perfect sphere; it has a bulge at the equator. This bulge is due to the rotation of the earth.
The tidal force is due to the attraction of the moon and the sun that develops tides in oceanic waters. Wegener believed that these forces would become effective when applied over many million years.

Question 2(ii).
How are the convectional currents in the mantle initiated and maintained?
Answer:
Arthur Holmes in 1930s discussed the possibility of convection currents operating in the mantle portion. These currents are generated due to radioactive elements causing thermal differences in the mantle portion. According to Holmes, there exists a system of such currents in the entire mantle portion. This was an attempt to provide an explanation to the issue of force, on the basis of which contemporary scientists discarded the continental drift theory.

Question 2(iii).
What is the major difference between the transform boundary and the convergent or divergent boundaries of plates?
Answer:
The major difference between the transform boundary and the convergent or divergent boundaries of plates are as follows:

• Transform Boundaries: Where the crust is neither produced nor destroyed as the plates slide horizontally past each other.
• Convergent Boundaries: Where the crust is destroyed as one plate dived under another, it is called convergent boundaries.
• Divergent Boundaries: Where new crust is generated as the plates pull away from each other, these are called divergent boundaries.

Question 2(iv).
What was the location of the Indian landmass during the formation of the Deccan Traps?
Answer:
About 140 million years before the present, the subcontinent was located as south as 50°S latitude. During the movement of the Indian plate towards the Asiatic plate, a major event that occurred was the outpouring of lava and formation of the Deccan Traps. This started somewhere around 60 million years ago and continued for a long period of time. Note that the subcontinent was still close to the equator. From 40 million years ago and thereafter, the event of formation of the Himalayas took place. Scientists believe that the process is still continuing and the height of the Himalayas is rising even to this date.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words.

Question 3(i) .
What are the evidences in support of the continental drift theory?
Answer:
A variety of evidence was offered in support of the continental drift. Some of these are given below:
1. The Matching of Continents (Jig-Saw-Fit): The shorelines of Africa and South America facing each other have a remarkable and unmistakable match.

2.  Rocks of Same Age Across the Oceans: The belt of ancient rocks of 2,000 million years from Brazil coast matches with those from western Africa. The earliest marine deposits along the coastline of South America and Africa are of the Jurassic age. This suggests that the ocean did not exist prior to that time.

3. Tillite: It is the sedimentary rock formed out of deposits of glaciers. The Gondawana system of sediments from India is known to have its counter parts in six -different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. At the base the system has thick tillite indicating extensive and prolonged glaciation. Counter parts of this succession are found in Africa, Falkland Island, Madagascar, Antarctica and Australia besides India. Overall resemblance of the Gondawana type sediments clearly demonstrates that these landmasses had remarkably similar histories. The 45 glacial tiilite provides unambiguous evidence of palaeoclimates and also of drifting of continents.

4. Placer Deposits: The occurrence of rich placer deposits of gold in the Ghana coast and the absolute absence of source rock in the region is an amazing fact. The gold bearing veins are in Brazil and it is obvious that the gold deposits of the Ghana are derived from the Brazil . plateau when the two continents lay side by side.

5. Distribution of Fossils: The observations that Lemurs occur in India, Madagascar and Africa led some to consider a contiguous landmass “Lemuria” linking these three landmasses. Mesosaurus was a small reptile adapted to shallow brackish water. The skeletons of these are found only in two localities : the Southern Cape province of South Africa and Iraver formations of Brazil. The two localities presently are 4,800 km apart with an ocean in between them.

Question 3(ii).
Bring about the basic difference between the drift theory and Plate tectonics.
Answer:
Drift theory: Alfred Wegener a German meteorologist put forth “the continental drift theory”. According to him, all continents formed a single continental mass called PANGAEA All oceans formed a single universal ocean called PANTHALASSA. He argued that, around 200 million years ago, the super continent, Pangaea, began to split. Pangaea first broke into two large continental masses as Laurasia and Gondwanaland forming the northern and southern components respectively. Subsequently, Laurasia and Gondwan al and continued to break into various smaller continents that exist today.

Plate Tectonics: This theory emerged in 1967, by McKenzie and Parker and also Morgan. A tectonic plate is also called lithospheric plate. It is a massive, irregularly-shaped slab of solid rock, generally composed of both continental and oceanic lithosphere. Plates move horizontally over the asthenosphere as rigid units. The lithosphere includes the crust and top mantle with its thickness range varying between 5-100 km in oceanic parts and about 200 km in the continental areas. Pacific plate is largely an oceanic plate whereas the Eurasian plate may be called a continental plate. The theory of plate tectonics proposes that the earth’s lithosphere is divided into seven major and some minor plates.

Question 3(iii).
What were the major post-drift discoveries that rejuvenated the interest of scientists in the study of distribution of oceans and continents?
Answer:
A number of discoveries during the post¬war period added new information to geological literature. Particularly, the information collected from the ocean floor mapping provided new dimensions for the study of distribution of oceans and continents.

•  These currents are generated due to radioactive elements causing thermal differences in the mantle portion. Holmes argued that there exists a system of such currents in the entire mantle portion. This was an attempt to provide an explanation to the issue of force, on the basis of which contemporary scientists discarded the continental drift theory.
• Detailed research of the ocean configuration revealed that the ocean floor is not just a vast plain but it is full of relief.
• Expeditions to map the oceanic floor in the post-war period provided a detailed picture of the ocean relief and indicated the existence of submerged mountain ranges as well as deep trenches, mostly located closer to the continent margins.
• The mid-oceanic ridges were found to be most active in terms of volcanic eruptions. The dating of the rocks from the oceanic crust revealed the fact that they are much younger than the continental areas.
• Rocks on either side of the crest of oceanic ridges and having equi-distant locations from the crest were found to have remarkable similarities both in terms of their constituents and their age.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Name the smallest continent.
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) Africa
(d) Australia.
Answer:
(d) Australia.

Question 2.
Who was the profbunder of plate tectonic theory?
(a) Arthur Holmes
(b) McKenzie, Parker and Morgan
(c) Admans Heinz
(d) Alfred Wegener.
Answer:
(b) McKenzie, Parker and Morgan

Question 3.
Who was the profounder of convection currents theory?
(a) Arthur Holmes
(b) McKenzie, Parker and Morgan
(c) Admans Heinz
(d) Alfred Wegener.
Answer:
(a) Arthur Holmes

Question 4.
(iii) Pacific Ocean zone is also called:
(a) Ring of Fire
(b) Ball of Fire
(c) Fire rain area
(d) Volcanic area.
Answer:
(a) Ring of Fire

Question 5.
Which country has gold bearing veins?
(a) Australia
(b) Russia
(c) Brazil
(d) South Africa.
Answer:
(c) Brazil

Question 6.
By which method have facilitated correlating the rock formation from different continents across oceans?
(a) The radiometric dating methods
(b) Carbon 14 method
(c) Radioactive method
(d) Fling Method.
Answer:
(a) The radiometric dating methods

Question 7.
The ocean floor may be segmented into how many divisions based on the depth as well as the forms of relief?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Seven.
Answer:
(a) Three

Question 8.
What per cent of the earth is covered with land and water respectively?
(a) 29% of the earth is covered with land and 71% is covered with water.
(b) 71% of the’earth is covered with land and 29% is covered with water.
(c) 36% of the earth is covered with land and 64% is covered with water.
(d) 64% of the earth is covered with land and 36% is covered with water.
Answer:
(a) 29% of the earth is covered with land and 71% is covered with water.

Question 9.
What was the name given by Alfred Wegener to a large continent surrounded with water?
(a) Pangaea
(b) Panthalassa
(c) Angaraland
(d) Gondwanaland.
Answer:
(a) Pangaea

Question 10.
Who was the profounder of continental drift theory?
(а) Arthur Holmes
(b) McKenzie, Parker and Morgan
(c) Admans Heinz
(d) Alfred Wegener.
Answer:
(d) Alfred Wegener.

Question 11.
What was the name given to massive ocean by Wegener?
(a) Pangaea
(b) Panthalassa
(c) Angara land
(d) Gondwanaland.
Answer:
(b) Panthalassa

Question 12.
According to Wegener, Pangaea was divided into land forms namely:
(a) Panthalassa and Angara Land
(b) Lurasia and Gondwanaland
(c) Livasa and Continent
(d) Oceans and Continents.
Answer:
(b) Lurasia and Gondwanaland.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the theory’ profounded by Alfred Wegener, a German meteorologist? With what principle was it associated?
Answer:
Alfred Wegener, a German meteorologist put forth a comprehensive argument in the form of “the continental drift theory” in 1912. This was regarding the distribution of the oceans and the continents.

Question 2.
Which methods that developed in the recent period have facilitated correlating the rock formation from different continents across the vast ocean?
Answer:
The radiometric dating methods developed in the recent period have facilitated correlating the rock formation from different continents across the vast ocean.

Question 3.
What are Abyssal Plains?
Answer:
These are extensive plains that lie between the continental margins and mid-oceanic ridges. The Abyssal plains are the areas where the continental sediments that move beyond the margins get deposited.

Question 4.
What are Continental Margins?
Answer:
These form the transition between continental shores and deep-sea basins. They include continental shelf, continental slope, continental rise and deep-oceanic trenches.

Question 5.
What are convection currents?
Answer:
Convection currents are generated due to radioactive elements causing thermal differences in the mantle portion.

Question 6.
What was the condition of India when Pangaea broke? Before that what was the status of India?
Answer:
India was a large island situated off the Australian coast, in a vast ocean. The Tethys sea separated it from the Asian continent till about 225 million years ago. India is supposed to have started her northward journey about 200 million years ago at the time when Pangaea broke. India collided with Asia about 40¬50 million years ago causing rapid uplift of the Himalayas.

Question 7.
How was Himalaya formed?
Answer:
India started her northward journey about 200 million years ago at the time when Pangaea broke. India collided with Asia about 40-50 million years ago causing rapid uplift of the Himalayas.

Question 8.
How was Deccan Traps formed?
Answer:
During the movement of the Indian plate towards the Asiatic plate, a major event that occurred was the outpouring of lava. It led to formation of the Deccan Traps. This started somewhere around 60 million years ago and continued for a long period of time.

Question 9.
What was emphasised by the sea floor spreading and tectonic plates theory?
Answer:
It emphasised that the earth is divided into plates and these plates have been constantly moving over the globe throughout the history of the earth. It is not the continent that moves as believed by Wegener. Continents are part of a plate and what moves is the plate. All the plates, without exception, have moved in the geological past, and shall continue to move in the future as well.

Question 10.
What are the different ways in which convergence can take place?
Answer:
There are three ways in which convergence can occur.
These are:

1. between an oceanic and continental plate;
2. between two oceanic plates; and
3. between two continental plates.

Question 11.
Who was the profounder of plate tectonic theory?
Answer:
McKenzie Parker and Morgan

Question 12.
Who was the profounder of convection currents theory?
Answer:
Arthur Holmes

Question 13.
According to Wegener, what are the causes of drifting of continents?
Answer:
Two causes were responsible for the drifting of the continents:

• Pole-fleeing force and
• Tidal force.

Question 14.
In how many plates has earth been divided according to plate tectonic theory?
Answer:
According to this theory, the earth has been divided into seven major and some minor plates.

Question 15.
Give examples of placer deposits.
Answer:
The occurrence of rich placer deposits of gold in the Ghana coast and the gold bearing veins in Brazil are examples of placer deposits.

Question 16.
With what is fleeing force related?
Answer:
The polar-fleeing force relates to the rotation of the earth. The earth is not a perfect sphere; it has a bulge at the equator. This bulge is due to the rotation of the earth.

Question 17.
With what is tidal force related?
Answer:
It is related to the attraction of the moon and the sun that develops tides in oceanic waters. Wegener believed that these forces would become effective when applied over many million years.

Question 18.
On what basis has continent drifting theory been discarded?
Answer:
Arthur Holmes in 1930s discussed the possibility of convection currents operating in the mantle portion. These currents are generated due to radioactive elements causing thermal differences in the mantle portion. Holmes argued that there exists a system of such currents in the entire mantle portion. This was an attempt to provide an explanation to the issue of force, on the basis of which contemporary scientists discarded the continental drift theory.

Question 19.
The ocean floor may be segmented into howr many di visions based on the depth as well as the forms of relief?
Answer:
The ocean floor may be segmented into three major divisions based on the depth as well as the forms of relief. These divisions are:

• continental margins,
• deep-sea basins and
• mid-oceanic ridges.

Question 20.
What are mid-oceanic ridges?
Answer:
This forms an interconnected chain of mountain system within the ocean. It is the longest mountain-chain on the surface of the earth though submerged under the oceanic water. It is characterised by a central rift system at the crest, a fractionated plateau and flank zone all along its length. The rift system at the crest is the zone of intense volcanic activity.

Question 21.
Which fact helped the scientists to understand plate movement?
Answer:
The rocks equidistant on either sides of the crest of mid-oceanic ridges show remarkable similarities in terms of period of formation, chemical compositions and magnetic properties. Rocks closer to the mid-oceanic ridges have normal polarity and are the youngest. The age of the rocks increases as one moves away from the crest.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the movement in Indian plate.
Answer:
The Indian plate includes Peninsular India and the Australian continental portions. The Tethys Sea separated it from the Asian continent till about 225 million years ago. India is supposed to have started her northward journey about 200 million years ago at the time when Pangaea broke. India collided with Asia about 40-50 million years ago causing rapid uplift of the Himalayas. About 140 million years before the present, the subcontinent was located as south as 50°S. latitude.

The two major plates were separated by the Tethys Sea and the Tibetan block was closer to the Asiatic landmass. During the movement of the Indian plate towards the Asiatic plate, a major event that occurred was the outpouring of lava and formation of the Deccan Traps. This started somewhere around 60 million years ago and continued for a long period of time. The subcontinent was still close to the equator. From 40 million years ago and thereafter, the event of formation of the Himalayas took place. Scientists believe that the process is still continuing and the height of the Himalayas is rising even to this date.

Question 2.
Explain the hypothesis, known as the “sea floor spreading” given by Hess.
Answer:
Hess argued that constant eruptions at the crest of oceanic ridges cause the rupture of the oceanic crust forces and the new lava wedges into it, pushing the oceanic crust on either side. The ocean floor, thus spreads. Two facts made Hess think about the consumption of the oceanic crust.

• The younger age of the oceanic crust
• The spreading of one ocean does not cause the shrinking of the other.

He further maintained that the ocean floor that gets pushed due to volcanic eruptions at the crest, sinks down at the oceanic trenches and gets consumed. The basic concept of sea floor spreading has been depicted in the given figure:

Question 3.
Explain the distribution of earthquake and volcanic plate on the earth,
Answer:
Earthquake and Volcanic plate:
1. It goes from Atlantic Ocean almost parallel to the coastlines. It further extends into the Indian Ocean. It bifurcates a little south of the Indian subcontinent with one branch moving into East Africa and the other meeting a similar line from Myanmar to New Guiana.

2. Another area of concentration coincides with the Alpine-Himalayan system and the rim of the Pacific Ocean. In general, the foci of the earthquake in the areas of mid-oceanic ridges are at shallow depths whereas along the Alpine-Himalayan belt as well as the rim of the Pacific, the earthquakes are deep-seated ones. The map of volcanoes also shows a similar pattern. The rim of the Pacific is also called rim of fire due to the existence of active volcanoes in this area.

Question 4.
What information do we get from the mapping of the ocean floor and palaeomagnetic studies of rocks from oceanic regions?
Answer:
The mapping of the ocean floor and palaeomagnetic studies of rocks from oceanic regions gave following information:

• Along the mid-oceanic ridges, volcanic eruptions are common and they bring huge amounts of lava to the surface in this area.
• The rocks equidistant on either sides of the crest of mid-oceanic ridges show remarkable similarities in terms of period of formation, chemical compositions and magnetic properties.
• The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental rocks. The age of rocks in the oceanic crust is nowhere more than 200 million years old. Some of the continental rock formations are as old as 3,200 million years.
• The sediments on the ocean floor are unexpectedly very thin. Scientists expected that if the ocean floors were as old as the continent, to have a complete sequence of sediments for a period of much longer duration. However, nowhere was the sediment column found to be older than 200 million years.
• The deep trenches have deep-seated earthquake occurrences while in the mid-oceanic ridge areas, the quake foci have shallow’ depths.

Question 5.
Explain the basic concept of continental drift theory.
Answer:
Alfred Wegener, a German meteorologist, put forth a comprehensive argument in the form of “the continental drift theory” in 1912. This was regarding the distribution of the oceans and the continents. According to Wegener, all the continents formed a single continental mass and mega ocean surrounded the same. He called the super continent as PANGAEA, meaning all earth. He named mega ocean as PANTHALASSA, meaning all water. According to him. around 200 million years ago, the super continent, Pangaea, began to split. Pangaea first broke into two large continental masses as Laurasia and Gondwanaland forming the northern and southern components respectively. Subsequently, Laurasia and Gondwanalan d continued to break into various smaller continents that exist today. A variety of evidence was offered in support of the continental drift.

Question 6.
Explain different types of boundaries that form as a result of tectonic plates.
Answer:
Three types of boundaries are formed as a result of tectonic plates:

• Convergent Boundaries: Where the crust is destroyed as one plate dived under another, it is called convergent boundaries.
• Divergent Boundaries: Where new crust is generated as the plates pull away from each other, these are called divergent boundaries.
• Transform Boundaries: Where the
  crust is neither produced nor destroyed as the plates slide horizontally past each other. ,

Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
According to tectonic plates theory in how many plates has the earth been divided? Explain.
Answer:
The theory of plate tectonics proposes that the earth’s lithosphere is divided into seven major and some minor plates. The major plates are as follows:

• Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate
• North American plate
• South American plate
• Pacific plate
• India-Australia-New Zealand plate
• Africa with the eastern Atlantic floor plate
• Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate. Some important minor plates are:
  • Cocos plate: It is between Central America and Pacific plate
  • Nazca plate: It is between South America and Pacific plate
  • Arabian plate: It includes mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass
  • Philippine plate: It is between the Asiatic and Pacific plate
  • Caroline plate: It is between the Philippine and Indian plate (North of New Guinea)
  • Fuji plate: It includes North-east of Australia.
• Pacific plate is largely an oceanic plate whereas the Eurasian plate may be called a continental plate. Plates are not static. Plates may converge or diverge. Plates may break as well.

Question 2.
Explain tectonic plate theory and its j working.
Answer:
These plates have been constantly moving over the globe throughout the history of the earth.

• The theory of plate tectonics was introduced by Mckenzie, Parker and , Morgan in 1967.
• A tectonic plate is also called as lithosphere plate.
• It is a massive irregularly shaped slab of solid rock.
• Consists of oceanic and continental sphere.
• Plates move horizontally over the asthenosphere.
• Average thickness is 100 km of oceanic part and 200 km of continental part.
• It may be oceanic or continental.
• Pacific plate is largest oceanic plate whereas Eurasian plate is the largest continental plate.
• These plates are moving constantly throughout geological time not the continent, believed by Wegener.
  It creates three types of boundaries.

1. Divergent boundaries
   • New crust is generated
   • Plates move away from each other
   • These are called spreading sites
   • Ex. Mid atlantic ridge
2. Convergent boundaries |
   • Crust is destroyed
   • Sinking of plate is called “subduction zone”. There are three ways in which subduction occurs (i) between an oceanic and continental plates; (ii) between two oceanic plates; and (iii) between two continental plates.
   • Transform boundaries: Where the crust is neither produced nor destroyed as the plates slide horizontally past each other.

Question 3.
Explain important theories associated with the movement of continents.
Answer:
Continental drift: Abraham Ortelius a Dutch map maker in 1596 first proposed the possibility of joining the continents such as America with Europe and Africa. Antonio Pellegrini drew a map showing the three continents together. Alfred Wegener, a German meteorologist put forth the continental drift theory. According to him, all continents formed a single continental mass called Pangaea.

All oceans formed a single universal ocean called Panthalassa around 200 million years ago. The Pangaea began to split into two large continental masses called Laurasia and Gondwanaland. By further splitting Laurasia formed northern continents and Gondwanaland formed southern continents.

Sea Floor Spreading: The deep trenches have deep-seated earthquake occurrences while in the mid- oceanic ridge areas, the quake foci have shallow depths. These facts and a detailed analysis of magnetic properties of the rocks on either sides of the mid-oceanic ridge led Hess in 1961 to propose his hypothesis. It was called the “sea floor spreading”. Hess argued that constant eruptions at the crest of oceanic ridges cause the rupture of the oceanic crust forces and the new lava wedges into it, pushing the oceanic crust on either side. The ocean floor, thus spreads. Two facts made Hess think about the consumption of the oceanic crust.

• The younger age of the oceanic crust.
• The spreading of one ocean does not cause the shrinking of the other.

He further maintained that the ocean floor that gets pushed due to volcanic eruptions at the crest, sinks down at the oceanic trenches and gets consumed. Plate Tectonics: It was in 1967, McKenzie and Parker and also Morgan, independently collected the available ideas and came out with another concept termed Plate Tectonics. The theory of plate tectonics proposes that the earth’s lithosphere is divided into seven major and some minor plates. These plates have been constantly moving over the globe throughout the history of the earth. It is not the continent that moves as believed by Wegener. Continents are part of a plate and what moves is the plate. All the plates, without exception, have moved in the geological past, and shall continue to move in the future as well.

Question 4.
The ocean floor may be segmented into how many divisions based on the depth as well as the forms of relief?
Answer:
The ocean floor may be segmented into three major divisions based on the depth as well as the forms of relief. These divisions are:

(i) Continental margins,
(ii) Abyssal plains and
(iii) Mid-oceanic ridges.

1. Continental margins
   • Form transitional zone between continental shore and deep sea basins
   • They include continental slope , shelf, continental rise and deep oceanic trenches
2. Abyssal plains
   • Extensive plains
   • Found between continental margin and mid oceanic ridge
   • Continental sediments get deposited
3. Mid-oceanic ridges
   • Distribution of volcanoes and earthquakes
   • All volcanoes and earthquakes are parallel to the coast
   • This line also co-incides with mid- Atlantic ridge and Alpine Himalayan system
   • Around the Pacific Ocean it is called ring of fire mid oceanic ridges.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Hots Questions

Question 1.
The rate of plate movement varies considerably. Justify.
Answer:
It is very rightly said. The strips of normal and reverse magnetic field that parallel the mid-oceanic ridges help scientists determine the rates of plate movement. These rates vary considerably.

• Slowest Rate: The Arctic Ridge has the slowest rate. It is less than 2.5 cm/yr.
• Fastest Rate: The East Pacific rise near Easter Island, in the South Pacific about 3,400 km west of Chile, has the fastest rate. It is more than 15 cm/yr.

Map skill

Question 1.
Show on the physical map of the world,

• The Tectonic Plates
• Volcanic Eruptions
•  Ring of Fire
•  Hot Spots.

Answer:

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 4 Distribution of Oceans and Continents appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 Local Governments

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Questions 1.
Constitution of India visualised village panchayats as emits of self-government. Think over the situation described in the following statements and explain how do these situations strengthen or weaken the panchayats in becoming units of self-government.
(a) Government of a State has allowed a big company to establish a huge steel plant. Many villages would be adversely affected by the steel plant. Gram Sabha of one of the affected villages passed a resolution that before establishing any big industries in the region, village people must be consulted and their grievances should be redressed.
(b) The government has decided that 20 % of all its expenditure would be done through the panchayats.
(c) A village panchayat kept on demanding funds for a building for village school, the government officials turned down their proposal saying that funds are allocated for certain other schemes and cannot be spent otherwise.
(d) The government divided a village Dungarpur into two and made a part of village Jamuna and Sohana. Now village Dungarpur has ceased to exist in government’s books.
(e) A village panchayat observed that water sources of their region are depleting fast. They decided to mobilise village youth to do some voluntary work and revive the old village ponds and wells.
Answer:
(a) This refers that Gram Panchayat was not consulted before the establishment of steel plant, by the state government. This action can weaken the institution of panchayats. The resolution passed by Gram Sabha strengthened the panchayats by giving them right to move to courts against the unilateral move of the state government.
(b) This decision of state government help the panchayats financially on the ground not to interfere in the decisions and priorities of the panchayats as well as panchayats need independent sources of revenue to operate effectively at the local level.
(c) This will weaken the Panchayati Raj because these institutions prioritize their developmental agenda themselves and denial for the same weaken them to become a self government.
(d) If this division has taken place on the recommendations of Panchayati Raj Institutions, it strengthen their powers but if it has been done on its own by the state, it would weaken these institutions.
(e) This will strengthen the Panchayati Raj Institutions’ respect and power.

Questions 2.
Suppose you are entrusted to evolve a local government plan of a State, what powers would you endow to the village panchayats to function as units of self-government? Mention any five powers and the justification in two lines for each of them for giving those powers.
Answer:

• Development works at village level, i.e. irrigation facilities, drinking water, construction of roads, etc.
• Agricultural development to be supervised and implemented by the panchayats only related to agricultural practices in a modem method.
• Social welfare related activities to keep the records of birth and death in the village, family welfare and family planning.
•  The Gram Panchayat should be given the powers to open and maintain schools and Libraries in the village to maintain primary education.
• Gram Panchayats should enjoy the powers to ensure better health and life of citizens to provide basic civil amenities.

Questions 3.
What are the provisions for the reservations for the socially disadvantaged groups as per the 73rd amendment? Explain how these provisions have changed the profile of the leadership at the village level.
Answer:
In 1993, two constitutional amendment Acts, were passed to recognise local self-government at the grass-root level. 73rd amendment made the following provisions:

•  The reservation of seats has been made for SCs, STs, OBCs and women.
• Reservation for women at panchayats has ensured the participation of women in local bodies.
• Due to this reservation, a number of women have occupied even the position of Sarpanch and Adhyaksha.
• Hence, more than 80,000 women Sarpanch have been elected so far.

Questions 4.
What were the main differences between the local governments before 73rd amendment and after that amendment?
Answer:
Before 73rd Amendment:

• Local government was a state subject only.
• States were free to make their own kind of laws in local government.

After 73rd Amendment:

• Local governments have received the recognition as a separate entity in the constitution.
• Elections at every regular interval of five years have been made mandatory.
• The seats have been reserved in favour of SC’s, ST’s, OBC’s and women.
• State Election Commission has been appointed and made responsible to conduct free and fair elections here.
• After every five years, state finance commission has been set up to review the finances of the panchayats and to make recommendations for grants to panchayats.
• The panchayats have been empowered to collect, levy the appropriate taxes, fees, tools as assigned by state government.

Questions 5.
Read the following conversation. Write in two hundred words your opinion about the issues raised in this conversation.
Alok: Our Constitution guarantees equality between men and women. Reservations in local bodies for women ensure their equal share in power.
Neha: But it is not enough that women should be in positions of power. It is necessary that the budget of local bodies should have separate provision for women.
Jayesh: I don’t like this reservations business. A local body must take care of all people in the village and that would automatically take care of women and their interests.
Answer:
This conversation is based on the issue of empowerment of women on equal basis:

•  The constitution of India guarantees the equality of men and women.
•  Under Article 15, no citizen can be discriminated on the grounds of colour, race, language and religion, caste, sex, etc.
• Article 39(1) and (d) ensure an adequate livelihood and equal pay for equal work for both men and women respectively.
• Alok views that our constitution guarantees equality between men and women as well as reservations in local bodies also ensure the equal share of power.
• Neha views to have separate provisions of budget to women to improve women’s conditions.
• Jayesh views to provide provisions equally to all people living in village, hence women would automatically be benefited.
• But, if women will be provided to equal access along with men without any reservation, it will not get success at all.
• Without reservation, women will not succeed to the power and to make policies because of male dominant society in India.

Questions 6.
Read the provisions of the 73rd Amendment. Which of the following concerns does this amendment address?
(a) Fear of replacement makes representatives accountable to the people.
(b) The dominant castes and feudal landlords dominate the local bodies.
(c) Rural illiteracy is very high. Illiterate people cannot take decisions about the development of the village.
(d) To be effective the village panchayats need resources and powers to make plans for the village development.
Answer:
(a) After 73rd Amendment Act, 1993:

• It is mandatory to hold elections after every five years.
• If the state government dissolves the panchayats before the completion of term, fresh elections must take place within six months.

(b)

• Reservation for SCs, STs, and women have been provided.
• The women have reservation of 1/3 seats in local bodies.
• SCs and STs have been given proportion accordingly to their population of that particular area.
• Hence, dominance of feudal lords and dominant classes has come to an end.

(c)

• In the eleventh schedule of the constitution, 29 subjects have been given to localbodies in 1992.
• Primary and secondary education is the part of this list to make the people literate in village.
• The state government would shoulder the responsibility. .

(d)

• The panchayats have been given powers to levy, collect taxes, duties and fees according to state government’s provision.
• The provisions for the establishment of a state finance commission have also been made to review the finances of panchayats and to make recommendations also.

Questions 7.
The following are different justifications given in favour of local government. Give them ranking and explain why you attach greater significance to a particular rationale than the others. According to you, on which of these rationales the decision of the Gram panchayat of Vengaivasal village was based? How?
(a) Government can complete the projects with lesser cost with the involvement of the local community.
(b) The development plans made by the local people will have greater acceptability than those made by the government officers.
(c) People know their area, needs problems and priorities. By collective participation they should discuss and take decisions about their life.
(d) It is difficult for the common people to contact their representatives of the State or the national legislature.
Answer:
These can be ranked as follows:

• (c) People know their area, needs problems and priorities. By collective participation they should discuss and take decisions about their life.
• (a) Government can complete the projects with lesser cost with the involvement of the local community.
• (b) The development plans made by the local people will have greater acceptability than those made by the government officers.
• (c) People know their area, needs problems and priorities. By collective participation they should discuss and take decisions about their life.

The decision of Gram Panchayat of Vengaivasal village was based on the rational (c)— people know their needs, areas, problems and priorities to take decision about life.

Qustions 8.
Which of the following according to you involve decentralization? Why are other options not sufficient for decentralization?
(a) To hold election of the Gram Panchayat.
(b) Decision by the villagers themselves about what policies and programmes are useful for the village.
(c) Power to call meeting of Gram Sabha.
(d) A Gram Panchayat receiving the report from the Block Development Officer about the progress of a project started by the State government.
Answer:
(a) It may be the main point of involvement of decentralization.
(b) The representatives are elected by the villagers only from among themselves.
(c) It may also be subsidiary.
(d) It is the manifestation of the working of decentralization.

Questions 9.
A student of Delhi University, Raghavendra Parpanna, wanted to study the role of decentralization in decision making about primary education. He asked some questions to the villagers. These questions are given below. If you were among those villagers, what answer would you give to each of these questions?

A meeting of the Gram Sabha is to be called to discuss what steps should be taken to ensure that every child of the village goes to the school.
(а) How would you decide the suitable day for the meeting? Think who would be able to attend/not attend the meeting because of your choice.

• A day specified by the BDO or the collector
• Day of the village haat
• Sunday
• Naag panchami/sankranti

(b) What is a suitable venue for the meeting? Why?

• Venue suggested by the circular of the district collector.
• Religious place in the village.
• Dalit Mohalla.
• Upper caste Tola
• Village school

(c) In the Gram Sabha meeting firstly a circular sent by the district collector was read. It suggested what steps should be taken to organise an education rally and what should be its route. The meeting did not discuss about the children who never come to school or about girls’ education, or the condition ol the school building and the timing of the school. No women teacher attended the meeting as it was held on Sunday. What do you think about these proceedings as an instance of people’s participation?

(d) Imagine your class as the Gram Sabha. Discuss the agenda of the meeting and suggest some steps to realize the goal.
Answer:
(a) The day of village haat would be the most appropriate due to availability of a number of peoples to sell and purchase the commodities.

(b) The most suitable venue for the meeting would be the village school where every person feel free to move and come to join the meeting because rest of the venues are community based and people will not be comfortable to join the meeting.

(c)

• It was held on Sunday, hence the women teachers did not attend it.
• A Gram Sabha meeting should be held to discuss the problems of village in place of organising an education rally.
• This meeting had to discuss the problems like education, condition of school, girls education as well as regularity of children in school.

(d) The agenda would be for meeting:

• Regularity of students in school, if not, how to make it regular.
• To focus on poverty alleviation Programmes.
• To focus on Landlessness of farmers.
• The construction work in village required.
• Socio-cultural programmes.
• To arrange the funds for the programmes decided.
• Vote of thanks by Gram-Pradhan.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Extra Questions Solved

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions

Questions 1.
What do you mean by local government?
Answer:
The local government gives a strength to the democratic setup in a country to ensure participation of local people at the level of villages and towns.

Questions 2.
Name the Viceroy who created the local bodies in British India.
Answer:
Lord Ripon (1882).

Questions 3.
Name the states to have local government during 1960s and 1970s.
Answer:
Maharashtra, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Questions 4.
Mention the sources of income of local bodies.
Answer:

• Different taxes.
• Income for passing the building plans of citizens.
• Grants from state government.
• Income from entertainment taxes imposed on fares, circus, etc.

Questions 5.
Name the main local self governing bodies.
Answer:

• Gram Panchayat to function in villages.
• Municipal committees in small towns.
• Municipal corporation in big cities.

Questions 6.
Mention the three organs of Gram Panchayat.
Answer:

• Gram Sabha
• Gram Pnachayat
• Nyaya Panchayat

Questions 7.
What do you mean by Panchayati Raj?
Answer:
Panchayati Raj is a part of local government for the upliftment of villages.

Questions 8.
What are the organs of Panchayati Raj?
Answer:

• Gram Panchayat
• Panchayat Samiti
• Zila parishad

Questions 9.
Write the main functions of each of the organs of Gram Panchayat.
Answer:

• Gram Sabha elects the members of Gram Panchayat
• Gram Panchayat looks after the developmental projects in village
• Nyaya Panchayat settles down the minor disputes of villages.

Questions 10.
Who is known as Mayor?
Answer:
The formal head of Municipal Corporation to be elected for one year by the members of corporation is called Mayor.

Questions 11.
Mention the role of‘State Election Commissioner’s.
Answer:
The State Election Commission is an independent officer to be appointed by the state government to conduct elections in Panchayati Raj Institutions.

Questions 12.
What is the need and importance of local bodies?
Answer:
Need: Local bodies ensure participation of local people to run the government who better know the problems as well as their solutions.
Importance: The local people co-operate with the administration for its smooth running.

Questions 13.
Mention the views of Mahatma Gandhi on village Panchayats.
Answer:

• He strongly pleaded for decentralization of powers.
• Mahatma Gandhi viewed independence of India as a whole to begin at the bottom (village).
• He wanted every village to be self-sustained and capable of managing its own affairs.

Questions 3.
What is the composition of Gram Sabha?
Answer:

• It consists of all the voters residing in the jurisdiction of village panchayat either one or group of villages to meet at least twice in a year.
• Every resident either man or woman in the age of 18 years and above is the member of it.

Questions 4.
What are the main functions of Gram Sabha?
Answer:

• It elects the members of Gram Panchayat.
• It passes annual budget of Gram Panchayat and approves it.
• It gives suggestions to Gram Panchayat for agricultural and small scale industry development in the village.

Questions 5.
What is the composition of Gram Panchayat?
Answer:

• Every village having a population of 500 people consists of a village panchayat.
• It is formed by the members elected by the people of villages.
• The members of Panchayat are called Panchas and its head is known as Sarpanch to be elected for three years.
• The number of members should be minimum 5 or maximum 10.
• Every panchayat must have one female candidate and one or two members from SCs.

Questions 6.
What are the main functions of panchayats?
Answer:

• To call upon the meetings of panchayats and to preside over them.
• To settle down disputes with the help of other members (Panchas).
• To make plan for the welfare of the people.
• To obtain cash grants from state government for developmental projects of village.
• He is mediator between the villagers and the state government.

Questions 7.
What is the composition of Zila Parishad?
Answer:
After the 73rd Amendment:

• The members of Zila Parishad are elected by the people.
• The chairman is elected from among the elected members by the people.
• MPs, MLAs, Collector, Deputy Collector and SDM are its ex-officio members.
• The reservation has been made for SCs, STs and women.

Questions 8.
Mention the sources of income to Zila Parishad.
Answer:

• In some state Zila Parishad is empowered to impose small taxes.
• It submits its annual budget to the state government for its approval.
• In some states, it receives some amount as a contribution made by panchayat samitis.
• It receives some amount in the form of government grants for development projects.

Question 9.
What is the composition of finance commission?
Answer:
The state government appoints the state finance commission after every five years to allocate funds to the rural local self-government.

Question 10.
What are the functions of state finance commission?
Answer:

• To examine the financial position of local governments.
• To provide recommendations to strengthen local government.
• It reviews the distribution of revenues between the state and local government as well as between the local and urban local government.
• To allocate the funds to the rural local self-government.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What does the Panchayati Raj stand for?
Answer:
Panchayati Raj was incorporated on the suggestions given by Balwant Rai Mehta Committee in 1956, which said that without the cooperation of local people, the development work cannot take place at local level. Hence, the three-tier system was established to decentralise the power and to give due representation to the local people to implement the programmes:

• Panchayats at village level.
• Block Committees or samitis at block level.
• Zila Parishad or District Council at district level.

Question 2.
What is the composition of Panchayat Samiti?
Answer:
The block panchayat is known as panchayat samiti, consisting of following members:

• All the Panchs and Sarpanchs of panchayats in a Block elect some members from among themselves.
• In some states, Sarpanchs are ex-officio members of panchayat samiti.
• All the MLAs and MPs of the district are ex-officio members of panchayat samiti.
• The Sub-divisional Magistrate and the Block Development Officers are ex-officio members of panchayat samiti.
• 1/3 seats have been reserved for women as well as for SCs and STs.

Question 3.
What are the main functions of Gram Panchayat?
Answer:

• It works for promotion of agriculture to make arrangements for seeds and to make farmers aware of modern methods of agriculture.
• It makes arrangements for providing primary education to the children.
• It provides sanitary arrangements and facilities in the village.
• It makes efforts to improve health of the people and opens hospitals and dispensaries.
• It also makes arrangements for street lighting also.

Question 4.
What are the main functions of Gram Sabha?
Answer:

• Gram Sabha elect the Pradhan and Panchs of the Panchayat.
• Even it can remove the Panchs and Sarpanch by passing a resolution by 2/3 majority.
• It approves the annual budget of the village and votes on the imposition of taxes.
• Gram Sabha passes the annual budget of Gram Panchayat.
• The Gram Sabha decides the policies also for development work of the village.

Question 5.
Mention the weaknesses of Panchayati Raj system.
Answer:

• Due to illiteracy, most of the members are unable to understand the real concept of democracy.
• The village people still have the differences on the basis of caste and community, hence, they do not have real environment for democracy.
• Sometimes, the political parties interferes in the functioning of village panchayats.

Question 6.
What were the constitutional provisions for local self-government before 1992?
Answer:

• Local government’s subjects were assigned to the state government.
• These were included as Directive Principles of State Policy.
• These were non-justiciable and only advisory in nature.
• In 1952, a three tier system of local government was recommended, but these had no powers and functions to look after.
• The elections were not held regularly.
• These had to be dependent on the states for their grants and finances.

Question 7.
‘The local government strengthens democracy’. Justify the statement.
Answer:

• The local government involves the participation of local people.
• It deals with the day-to-day life and problems of ordinary citizens.
• Strong local governments ensure purposeful accountability.
• Common peoples are the decision-making body for their needs and development.

Question 8.
What is the importance of year 1992 and 1993 for local governments?
Answer:

• In 1992-73rd and 74th Amendment Acts were passed by the parliament.
• The 73rd Amendment was about rural local government and the 74th amendment was about urban local self-government.
• Both the Amendment Acts came into force in 1993.
• All the states had to change their laws about local bodies due to these amendments.
• The states were given only one year time for making necessary changes in their state laws.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 191) given below carefully and answer the questions that follows:

The Constitutional amendments assigned as many as 29 subjects to the local governments. All these subjects are related to functions linked to local welfare and development needs. The experience with the functioning of local government in the past decade has shown that local governments in India enjoy limited autonomy to perform the functions assigned to them. Many States have not transferred most of the subjects to the local bodies. This means that the local bodies cannot really function in an effective manner. Therefore, the entire exercise of electing so many representatives becomes somewhat symbolic. Some people criticise the formation of the local bodies because this has not changed the way in which decisions are taken at the central and the State level. People at the local level do not enjoy much powers of choosing welfare programmes or allocation of resources.

Questions:
1. How many subjects have been assigned to local governments?
2. What is the main theme of these subjects?
3. How can we say that local government enjoy limited autonomy only?
4. On what grounds, the formation of local bodies have been criticised?
Answers:
1. 29 subjects have been assigned to local governments.

2. These subjects are related to functions linked to local welfare and development needs.

3. Because many states have not transferred most of the subjects to the local bodies. Hence, many representatives become symbolic only.

4. Because, the decisions taking methods have not been changed at the central and state level. So the people at local level do not enjoy much powers of choosing welfare programmes or allocation of resources.

Passage 2.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 186) given below carefully and answer the questions that follows:

The State government is required to appoint a State Election Commissioner who would be responsible for conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions. Earlier, this task was performed by the State administration which was under the control of the State government. Now, the office of the State Election Commissioner is autonomous like the Election Commissioner of India. However, the State Election Commissioner is an independent officer and is not linked to nor is this officer under the control of the Election Commission of India.

Questions:
1. Who conducts elections for local bodies?
2. Who performed this task earlier?
3. What is the status of State Election Commissioner?
Answers:
1. State Election Commissioner conducts the elections for local bodies.

2. State Administration under the control of state government.

3. State Election Commissioner is an independent officer who is not linked to nor under the control of election commission of India.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention some subjects included in the eleventh schedule.
Answer:
Eleventh schedule was listed with the 29 subjects in 1992 by the 73rd Amendment Act:

• Agriculture and agricultural extension.
• Minor irrigation, water management and watershed development.
• Small scale industries including food processing.
• Rural housing.
• Drinking water.
• Roads, culverts
• Rural electrification
• Poverty alleviation programmes.
• Primary and secondary education.
• Technical training and vocational education.
• Adult and non-formal education.
• Libraries
• Cultural activities
• Markets and fairs
• Health and sanitation.
• Family welfare
• Women and child development
• Social welfare.
• Welfare of weaker sections especially SC’s and ST’s
• Public Distribution System.
• Fuel and Fodder
• Non-conventional energy resources.
• Maintenance of community assets.
• Fisheries
• Animal husbandry, dairy poultry.
• Soil forestry
• Implementation of land reforms, soil conservation, etc.
• Khadi village and cottage industries.
• Minor forest produce.

Question 2.
Explain the three tier structure of Panchayati Raj alongwith one function of each of them.
Answer:
The Panchayati Raj has three-tier system:

• Gram Panchayat at village level
• Panchayat Samiti at block level
• Zila parishad at district level

Composition of Gram Panchayat:
The members of the Gram Panchayat are elected by Gram Sabha and every adult who is the resident of village has the right to vote in these elections.
Functions:

• Makes arrangements for pure drinking water.
• To improve sanitary conditions.
• Makes efforts for improving health of people by opening hospitals and dispensaries.

Composition of Panchayat Samiti:

• The members are elected directly by Universal Adult Franchise.
• MLAs, MPs, SDM, BDO are the ex-office members.
• Apart, other members are elected and seats are reserved for SC’s and ST’s in proportion of population.
• 30% seats are reserved for women.
• Its term is for five years.

Functions:

• It looks after all the works of the gram panchayat in the area.
• Promote scientific and modern agricultural practices and distributes seeds, fertilizers and scientific equipments.

3. Composition of Zila Parishad:

• The chairman will be elected by the elected members.
• MPs, MLAs, Collector, Deputy Collectors, SDMs will be ex-officio members.
• The provision of Zila Parishad is composed of elected members.
• A finance commission will be set up to review financial position and to recommend allocation of funds and grants in aid.

Functions:

• To co-ordinate the working of Gram panchayats and panchayat samitis in the districD.
• The panchayat samitis pass their annual budget and send it to Zila Parishad. 120

Question 3.
Distinguish between Gram Panchayat and Gram Sabha. What are the functions of Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
Difference:

• Gram Sabha consists of all the adult members (who has attained the age of 18 years) of a village or a cluster of villages constituting Gram Sabha, whereas Gram Panchayat is a small body, whose members are elected by the members of Gram Sabha.
• The term of office of Gram Panchayat is for five years whereas the Gram Sabha is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution.
• Gram Panchayat is an executive organ and monitors and evaluates the activities of Gram panchayat.

Functions:

• Gram Panchayat looks after better health and life of the people to make proper civic amenities as village sanitation,drinking water, arrangements of lightening, etc.
• Gram Panchayat keeps the records of birth and death in village to ensure effective implementation of family planning and family welfare programmes, i.e. animal husbandry, agricultural development, etc.
• Gram Panchayat is responsible for certain development functions at village level, i.e. construction of roads, irrigation, etc.

Question 4.
What is the importance of local bodies in the modern times?
Answer:

• The local self bodies are related with the daily life of the people to perform functions related to education, sanitation, public health, etc.
• The local bodies provide the right solution of the local problems due to participation of local peoples, where the central and state governments are unable to pick up the exact nature of problem.
• The local bodies lessen the work-load of the central and state government because they could not spare time to look into the local matters. Hence, local bodies can solve these problems easily.
• The local bodies develop the qualities of citizens to awaken the political consciousness and to experience the sense of liberty and equality which is essential for the success of democracy.
• It creates decentralization of powers, where people directly participate in the daily need, jobs and feed satisfied.

Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 Local Governments appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NIOS On-Demand Result 2019: NIOS On-Demand result for the 2019 March exam is available for everyone to download. National Institute of open schooling commonly known as NIOS has been working on concepts such as on-demand exam system as well as senior secondary level since 2003. This work is being done in the area of operationalization and feasibility. The innovative concept of ODE is a tremendous step in the direction of the flexibility of open as well as distance learning. Candidates that have appeared in the main exam can check their results easily by entering the correct roll number.

Latest Update:

NIOS On Demand Result March 2019 has announced. Candidates can check their result from here.

Direct Link to Check NIOS On-Demand Result 2019

NIOS On-Demand Result 2019 Overview

Below is the overview for NIOS On-Demand result 2019

How To Check NIOS On-Demand Result 2019 for Class 10 and 12?

• Go to the official NIOS website which is nios.ac.in.
• On the website, immediately go to the ‘Result’ tab.
• When you click on the tab, there will be an option of public exam for secondary and senior secondary available.
• Candidates need to enter a 12 digit enrollment number in the given space.
• Your respective class 10 and 12 results will be visible on the screen.

How To Check Class 10 and 12 Result Name Wise?

Students can also check their NIOS On-Demand result 2019 with the help of their name.

• For this, go to the official website of NIOS.
• On the website, there will be a link provided for checking the NIOS 10th and 12th result online name wise.
• Enter the name in the box given and submit it.
• The results will be visible on the screen and you can also take a printout for any future purposes.

Details Mentioned on NIOS On-Demand Result for Class 10 and 12

• Candidate’s name
• Enrollment number of the candidate
• Subject lists
• Marks obtained in each of the subjects
• Candidate’s regional code
• Result status
• Total marks obtained by the candidates

NIOS On-Demand Certification and Result

• After the exam is over, ODES results are published and declared through websites for the candidates during the last week of every month. This is for the exams that were conducted in the preceding month.
• The marksheet along with other documents will be printed for all the candidates that have passed the exam by the M&M unit. Also, this will be sent to the concerned regional center in order to dispatch it to the individual candidates.
• The remaining candidates that want their marksheet can send the request via an application attaching the internet printout along with the bank draft of Rs. 100 in favor of Secretary of NIOS. This is payable at Noida to section officer of M&M unit, national institute of open schooling, Institutional area, sector 62, Noida, UP.
• For the purpose of certification and marksheets, all the candidates that appear from May to October will be considered for the April exam of that year. Also, the candidates that appear during November till April will be considered under the preceding exam conducted in October.
• Re-evaluation and re-checking as per the NIOS exam norms are allowed also in the aze of ODES. The candidates might appear to the director for this on the prescribed form available on the NIOS website along with the required fees mentioned in the form.

NIOS On-Demand Corrections In Result

In case of a discrepancy of an on-demand exam, the candidate might appear for correction to the regional director of their region within 30 days from the results are declared. There will be no request entertained afterward. The application form for correction in the record is available on the official NIOS website in the student’s information section.

NIOS On-Demand Exam

The post NIOS On-Demand Result March 2019 (Announced) – Check Here appeared first on Learn CBSE.

SRMJEEE Exam Pattern – The SRMJEE  is conducted for admission to various B.E/B.Tech courses in SRM Institute of Science and Technology (formerly known as SRM University). SRMJEEE 2020 will be conducted in the month of April, 2020 in online CBT mode. So the candidates who are planning to appear for SRMJEEE must be aware of SRMJEEE Exam Pattern & Syllabus. Candidates need to know about the different subjects in the exam, the type of questions asked, the marking scheme, etc. so that they can start the preparation plan accordingly. So in order to know all these facts, candidates must know SRMJEEE 2020 Exam Pattern.

Knowing SRMJEEE Marking Scheme will help candidates to understand the question paper pattern and section-wise distribution of marks and further help aspirants to face the actual exam without any trouble. So in this article, we will provide you with all the necessary information regarding SRMJEEE Marking Scheme that is the number of sections, marking scheme, mode of the exam, medium of the exam, etc. Read on to find out everything about
SRMJEEE Exam Pattern.

SRMJEEE Exam Pattern – Overview

Before getting into the details of SRMJEEE Exam Pattern, let’s have an overview of the SRMJEEE exam:

• Name of the Exam/SRMJEEE Full form: Sri Ramaswamy Memorial Joint Engineering Entrance Examination.
• Commonly known as –  SRMJEEE
• Exam Category – Pre-UG
• Conducting body: SRM Institute of Science and Technology
• Exam Mode: Computer Based Test (CBT)
• Mode of Registration: Online
• Exam Type: National Level
• Courses offered: Engineering, Medical, and Agricultural Courses
• SRMJEEE Official Website: http://www.srmuniv.ac.in

Detailed SRMJEEE Exam Pattern

Aspirants who are taking the exam must be aware of SRMJEEE Exam Pattern in order to secure good marks. Knowing the SRMJEEE 2020 Marking Scheme holds comprehensive importance particularly when it comes to improving proper test-taking strategy. The detailed SRMJEEE Exam Pattern is listed below:

• Section 1: Physics 35 questions with a total weightage of 105 marks
• Section 2: Chemistry 35 questions with a total weightage of 105 marks
• Section 3: Mathematics/Biology 35 questions with a total weightage of 105 marks
• Total weightage 315 marks

Highlights of SRMJEEE 2020 Marking Scheme

1. For every correct answer, 3 Marks will be awarded.
2. No Negative Marking for Incorrect Answer.
3. There will be a total of 3 sections for Engineering (Physics, Chemistry & Maths/Biology)
4. Duration of Exam: 2 Hours 30 Minutes
5. The total marks of the SRMJEEE (315 Marks/105 Questions)
6. All the questions will be of objective type or multiple-choice questions.
7. The medium of the exam will be English Only.
8. The exam will be held in online mode only.

SRMJEEE Exam Pattern – Exam Schedule

The tentative exam schedule of SRMJEEE 2020 is tabulated below:

List of SRM universities spread across the country:

• SRM Institute of Science and Technology, Chennai – Kattankulathur Campus
• SRM Institute of Science and Technology, Chennai – Ramapuram Campus
• SRM Institute of Science and Technology, Chennai – Vadalapani Campus
• SRM Institute of Science and Technology, Ghaziabad – NCR Campus
• SRM University, Delhi – NCR Sonepat
• SRM University, Andhra Pradesh – Amaravati
• SRM University (started in 2017) – Sikkim

Now that you are provided all the necessary information regarding SRMJEEE exam pattern. Apart from knowing exam pattern, candidates are advised to check the SRMJEEE syllabus completely.

The post SRMJEEE 2020 Exam Pattern, Marking Scheme and Syllabus appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science History Our Pasts – II, Geography : The Earth: Our Habitat, Civics : Social and Political Life – II Pdf free downlod are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Social Science. Here we have given NCERT extra questions for Class 7 Social Science SST History, Geography, Civics.

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science Geography

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science Geography : Our Environment

• Chapter 1 Environment Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 2 Inside Our Earth Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 3 Our Changing Earth Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 4 Air Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 5 Water Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 6 Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 7 Human Environment: Settlement, Transport, and Communication Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 8 Human Environment Interactions: The Tropical and the Subtropical Region Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 9 Life in the Temperate Grasslands Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 10 Life in the Deserts Class 7 Extra Questions

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science History

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science History : Our Pasts – II

• Chapter 1 Tracing Changes Through A Thousand Years Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 2 New Kings and Kingdoms Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 3 The Delhi Sultans Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 4 The Mughal Empire Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 5 Rulers and Buildings Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 6 Towns, Traders, and Craftsperson Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 7 Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 8 Devotional Paths to the Divine Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 9 The Making of Regional Cultures Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 10 Eighteenth-Century Political Formations Class 7 Extra Questions

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science Civics

Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science Civics : Social and Political Life – II

• Chapter 1 On Equality Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 2 Role of the Government in Health Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 3 How the State Government Works Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 4 Growing Up as Boys and Girls Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 5 Women Change The World Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 6 Understanding Media Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 7 Understanding Advertising Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 8 Markets Around Us Class 7 Extra Questions
• Chapter 9 A Shirt in the Market Class 7 Extra Questions

The post Extra Questions for Class 7 Social Science appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Checkout updated NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers for CBSE exam. We have included these questions for extra pracitce and help with the concepts. NCERT Science Book Class 6 Extra Questions with Answers will build strong foundation for Class 6 science and higher clases.

Extra Questions for Class 6 Science

Here is the list of Extra Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers based on latest NCERT syllabus prescribed by CBSE.

• Chapter 1 Food Where Does It Come From Class 6 Extra Questions
• Chapter 2 Components of Food Class 6 Extra Questions
• Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric Class 6 Extra Questions
• Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups Class 6 Extra Questions
• Chapter 5 Separation of Substances Class 6 Extra Questions
• Chapter 6 Changes Around Us Class 6 Extra Questions
• Chapter 7 Getting to Know Plants Class 6 Extra Questions
• Chapter 8 Body Movements Class 6 Extra Questions
• Chapter 9 The Living Organisms and Their Surroundings Class 6 Extra Questions
• Chapter 10 Motion and Measurement of Distances Class 6 Extra Questions
• Chapter 11 Light Shadows and Reflection Class 6 Extra Questions
• Chapter 12 Electricity and Circuits Class 6 Extra Questions
• Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets Class 6 Extra Questions
• Chapter 14 Water Class 6 Extra Questions
• Chapter 15 Air Around Us Class 6 Extra Questions
• Chapter 16 Garbage In Garbage Out Class 6 Extra Questions

The post Extra Questions for Class 6 Science appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Here you can get NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers. We already provided class 9 science NCERT solutions. CBSE Classs 9 Science Extra questions are very helpful to score more marks, devlop problem solving skill and excel in exams.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers

• Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings Class 9 Extra Questions
• Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure Class 9 Extra Questions
• Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules Class 9 Extra Questions
• Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom Class 9 Extra Questions
• Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life Class 9 Extra Questions
• Chapter 6 Tissues Class 9 Extra Questions
• Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms Class 9 Extra Questions
• Chapter 8 Motion Class 9 Extra Questions
• Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion Class 9 Extra Questions
• Chapter 10 Gravitation Class 9 Extra Questions
• Chapter 11 Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions
• Chapter 12 Sound Class 9 Extra Questions
• Chapter 13 Why Do we Fall Ill Class 9 Extra Questions
• Chapter 14 Natural Resources Class 9 Extra Questions
• Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources Class 9 Extra Questions

The post Extra Questions for Class 9 Science with Answers appeared first on Learn CBSE.

GEEE Exam Pattern – The GEEE is conducted for admission to various B.Tech and B.Tech + M.Tech courses in Galgotias College of Engineering and Technology. GEEE is Pencil & Paper based exam, which will be held in June-2020. So the candidates who are planning to appear for GEEE must be aware of GEEE Exam Pattern & Syllabus. Candidates need to know about the different subjects in the exam, the type of questions asked, the marking scheme, etc. so that they can start the preparation plan accordingly. So in order to know all these facts, candidates must know GEEE 2020 Exam Pattern.

Knowing GEEE Marking Scheme will help candidates to understand the question paper pattern and section-wise distribution of marks and further help aspirants to face the actual exam without any trouble. So in this article, we will provide you with all the necessary information regarding GEEE Exam Pattern that is the number of sections, marking scheme, mode of the exam, medium of the exam, etc. Read on to find out everything about
GEEE Exam Pattern.

GEEE Exam Pattern – Overview

Before getting into the details of GEEE Exam Pattern, let’s have an overview of the GEEE exam:

• Name of the Exam/GEEE Full form: Galgotias Engineering Entrance Examination.
• Commonly known as –  GEEE
• Exam Category – Pre-UG and PG
• Conducting body: Galgotias College of Engineering and Technology (GCET)
• Exam Mode: Computer Based Test (CBT)
• Mode of Registration: Online
• Exam Type: National Level
• Courses offered: Engineering (B.Tech & B.Tech + M.Tech)
• GEEE Official Website: https://galgotiacollege.edu/

Detailed GEEE Exam Pattern

Aspirants who are taking the exam must be aware of GEEE Exam Pattern in order to secure good marks. Knowing the GEEE 2020 Marking Scheme holds comprehensive importance particularly when it comes to improving proper test-taking strategy. The detailed GEEE Exam Pattern is listed below:

• Section 1: Physics 30 questions with a total weightage of 30 marks
• Section 2: Chemistry 30 questions with a total weightage of 30 marks
• Section 3: Mathematics 30 questions with a total weightage of 30 marks
• Total weightage 90 marks

Highlights of GEEE 2020 Marking Scheme

1. For every correct answer, 1 Mark will be awarded.
2. No Negative Marking for Incorrect Answer.
3. There will be a total of 3 sections for Engineering (Physics, Chemistry & Maths)
4. Duration of Exam: 90 Minutes
5. The total marks of the GEEE (90 Marks/90 Questions)
6. All the questions will be of objective type or multiple-choice questions.
7. The medium of the exam will be English Only.
8. The exam will be held in offline mode only.

GEEE Exam Pattern – Exam Schedule

The tentative exam schedule of GEEE 2020 is tabulated below:

Galgotias College of Engineering Highlights

• Type of Institute: Private
• Approved By – AICTE, Ministry of HRD, Government of India
• Affiliated To – Dr. A.P.J Abdul Kalam Technical University, Lucknow
• Library Facilities – Total no. of Titles-9211, Number of Books-70830, Print Journals Subscribed-154, Number of Magazines-28, Number of Newspapers-9, Number of CDs-842
• Campus Size – 19 Acres
• How to Reach – 39.3 km From Noida Bus Stand

Now that you are provided all the necessary information regarding GEEE exam pattern. Apart from knowing exam pattern, candidates are advised to check the GEEE syllabus completely.

The post GEEE Exam Pattern 2020, Marking Scheme and Syllabus appeared first on Learn CBSE.

VITEEE Exam Pattern – The VITEEE is conducted for admission to various B.Tech courses in Vellore Institute of Technology. VIT Engineering Entrance Examination is Computer Based Test (CBT), which will be held in April-2020. So the candidates who are planning to appear for VITEEE must be aware of VITEEE Exam Pattern & Syllabus. Candidates need to know about the different subjects in the exam, the type of questions asked, the marking scheme, etc. so that they can start the preparation plan accordingly. So in order to know all these facts, candidates must know VITEEE 2020 Exam Pattern.

Knowing VITEEE Marking Scheme will help candidates to understand the question paper pattern and section-wise distribution of marks and further help aspirants to face the actual exam without any trouble. So in this article, we will provide you with all the necessary information regarding VITEEE Exam Pattern that is the number of sections, exam pattern, mode of the exam, medium of the exam, etc. Read on to find out everything about
VITEEE Exam Pattern.

VITEEE Exam Pattern – Overview

Before getting into the details of VITEEE Exam Pattern, let’s have an overview of the VITEEE exam:

• Name of the Exam/VITEEE Full form: Vellore Institute of Technology Engineering Entrance Examination.
• Commonly known as –  VITEEE
• Exam Category – Pre-UG
• Conducting body: Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
• Exam Mode: Computer Based Test (CBT)
• Mode of Registration: Online
• Exam Type: National Level
• Courses offered: Engineering (B.Tech)
• VITEEE Official Website: https://www.vit.ac.in/

Detailed VITEEE Exam Pattern

Aspirants who are taking the exam must be aware of VITEEE Exam Pattern in order to secure good marks. Knowing the VITEEE 2020 Marking Scheme holds comprehensive importance particularly when it comes to improving proper test-taking strategy. The detailed VITEEE Exam Pattern is listed below:

• Section 1: Physics 40 questions with a total weightage of 40 marks
• Section 2: Chemistry 40 questions with a total weightage of 40 marks
• Section 3: Mathematics/Biology 40 questions with a total weightage of 40 marks
• Section 4: English 5 questions with a total weightage of 5 marks.
• Total weightage 125 marks

Highlights of VITEEE 2020 Marking Scheme

1. For every correct answer, 1 Mark will be awarded.
2. No Negative Marking for Incorrect Answer.
3. There will be a total of 4 sections for Engineering (Physics, Chemistry, Maths/Biology and English)
4. Duration of Exam: 150 Minutes or 2 Hours 30 Minutes
5. The total marks of the VITEEE (125 Marks/125 Questions)
6. All the questions will be of objective type or multiple-choice questions.
7. The medium of the exam will be English Only.
8. The exam will be held in online mode only.

VITEEE 2020 Syllabus

VITEEE Syllabus for 2020 Exam is based on the syllabus of class 11 and 12. The candidates have to prepare as per the syllabus only as no questions are asked apart from the topics in the syllabus. The candidates can check the syllabus for VITEEE 2020 in the table below:

VITEEE Exam Pattern – Exam Schedule

The tentative exam schedule of VITEEE 2020 is tabulated below:

Vellore Institute of Technology Highlights

• Establishment Year: 1984
• Type of University: Deemed to be University
• Accredited with Grade A: Accredited with Grade A NAAC, India in 2015
• Campus Area: 250 acres
• Total No. of Students: 24000
• No. of Hostels: 23
• Total No. of Books: 2,21,118
• E-Journals: 13344
• Courses Offered: 19 Undergraduate, 34 Post graduate, 2 Integrated, 4 Research Programmes
• Entrance Exams: VITEEE for B.Tech, VITMEE for M.Tech & MCA, VITREE for M.Phil and Ph.D.
• Location: Vellore, Tamil Nadu
• How to Reach: 3 km from Vellore-katpadi Junction

VITEEE Exam Timings

• Session I: 09.00 am to 11.30 am
• Session II: 12.30 pm to 03.00 pm
• Session III: 04.00 pm to 06.30 pm

VITEEE Exam Pattern | Eligibility Criteria

Nationality: 

• Indian
• Non-Resident Indian
• Person of Indian Origin
• OCI Holder

VITEEE Age Limit:

• Born on or after July 1, 1998

VITEEE Qualification Criteria:

• Candidates who are appearing or have passed the 10+2 higher secondary exam which is conducted by ISC, CBSE, any State board
• Intermediate or Two-year Pre-University Examination conducted by a recognized Board / University.
• High School Certificate Examination of the Cambridge University or International Baccalaureate Diploma of the International Baccalaureate Office, Geneva.
• General Certificate Education (G C E) examination (London/Cambridge/Srilanka) at the Advanced (A) level.
• NIOS candidates are also eligible to apply.

VITEEE Qualifying marks:

• General Category- Candidates should have scored an aggregate of 60% in Maths, Physics, and Chemistry in 10+2.
• SC, ST, J&K, North Eastern states- Candidates should have scored an average 50% marks in Physics, Maths, and Chemistry in 10+2 or its equivalent exam.

How many campuses does VIT University have?

• Vellore Institute of Technology – Chennai, Tamil Nadu
• Vellore Institute of Technology – Vellore, Tamil Nadu
• Vellore Institute of Technology – Amaravati, Andhra Pradesh
• VIT – Bhopal

Now that you are provided all the necessary information regarding VITEEE exam pattern. Apart from knowing exam pattern, candidates are advised to check the VITEEE syllabus completely.

The post VITEEE Exam Pattern 2020 | Check Marking Scheme & Syllabus appeared first on Learn CBSE.

AEEE Exam Pattern – The AEEE is conducted for admission to various B.Tech courses in Amrita Schools of Engineering (ASE) at Amritapuri, Bengaluru, Coimbatore, Chennai campuses. Amrita Entrance Examination – Engineering 2020 is conducted in two modes. Computer Based Test (CBT), on 5 days with 3 slots on each day. Pen & Paper Test (PPT), conducted only in Tamil Nadu, one slot on one day. So the candidates who are planning to appear for AEEE must be aware of AEEE Exam Pattern & Syllabus. Candidates need to know about the different subjects in the exam, the type of questions asked, the marking scheme, etc. so that they can start the preparation plan accordingly. So in order to know all these facts, candidates must know AEEE 2020 Exam Pattern.

Knowing AEEE Marking Scheme will help candidates to understand the question paper pattern and section-wise distribution of marks and further help aspirants to face the actual exam without any trouble. So in this article, we will provide you with all the necessary information regarding AEEE Exam Pattern that is the number of sections, exam pattern, mode of the exam, medium of the exam, etc. Read on to find out everything about
AEEE Exam Pattern.

AEEE Exam Pattern – Overview

Before getting into the details of AEEE Exam Pattern, let’s have an overview of the AEEE exam:

• Name of the Exam/AEEE Full form: Amrita Entrance Examination – Engineering.
• Commonly known as –  AEEE
• Exam Category – Pre-UG
• Conducting body: Amrita School of Engineering (ASE)
• Exam Mode: Computer Based Test (CBT) – Online CBT 3 Slots 5 days and Pen Paper Based Test conducted only in Tamil Nadu, one slot on one day.
• Mode of Registration: Online
• Exam Type: National Level
• Courses offered: Engineering (B.Tech)
• AEEE Official Website: https://www.amrita.edu

Detailed AEEE Exam Pattern

Aspirants who are taking the exam must be aware of AEEE Exam Pattern in order to secure good marks. Knowing the AEEE 2020 Marking Scheme holds comprehensive importance particularly when it comes to improving proper test-taking strategy. The detailed AEEE Exam Pattern is listed below:

• Section 1: Physics 30 questions with a total weightage of 30 marks
• Section 2: Chemistry 30 questions with a total weightage of 30 marks
• Section 3: Mathematics 40 questions with a total weightage of 40 marks
• Total weightage 300 marks for 100 Questions.

Highlights of AEEE 2020 Marking Scheme

1. For every correct answer, 3 Marks will be awarded.
2. For every incorrect answer, 1 mark will be deducted.
3. No response: No marks will be awarded or deducted.
4. There will be a total of 3 sections for Engineering (Physics, Chemistry, and Maths)
5. Duration of Exam: 150 Minutes or 2 Hours 30 Minutes
6. The total marks of the AEEE (300 Marks/100 Questions)
7. All the questions will be of objective type or multiple-choice questions.
8. The medium of the exam will be English Only.
9. The exam will be held in both online mode and Pen Paper Based Offline Mode.

AEEE 2020 Syllabus

AEEE Syllabus for 2020 Exam is based on the syllabus of class 11 and 12. The candidates have to prepare as per the syllabus only as no questions are asked apart from the topics in the syllabus. The candidates can check the syllabus for AEEE 2020 in the table below:

AEEE Maths Syllabus

• Sets, Relations & Functions
• Complex Numbers & Quadratic Equation
• Matrices & Determinants
• Permutation & Combination
• Mathematical Induction
• Binomial Theorem
• Sequencers & Series
• Limit, Continuity & Differentiability
• Integral Calculus
• Differential Equations
• Coordinate Geometry
• Three Dimensional Geometry
• Vector Algebra
• Statistics & Probability
• Trigonometry
• Mathematical Reasoning

AEEE Physics Syllabus

• Physics & Measurement
• Kinematics
• Laws of Motion
• Work, Energy & Power
• Rotational Motion
• Gravitation
• Properties 0f Solids and Liquids
• Thermodynamics
• Kinetic Theory of Gases
• Oscillations & Waves
• Electrostatics
• Current Electricity
• Magnetic Effects of Current & Magnetism
• Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
• Electromagnetic Waves
• Optics
• Dual Nature of Nature and Radiation
• Atoms and Nuclei
• Electronic Devices
• Communication System

AEEE Chemistry Syllabus

• Basic Concepts of Chemistry
• States of Matter
• Atomic Structure
• Chemical Bonding & Molecular Structure
• Chemical Thermodynamics
• Solution
• Equilibrium
• Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry
• Chemical Kinetics
• Surface Chemistry
• Classifications of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
• General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Metals
• Hydrogen
• Block Elements
• Block Elements (Other Groups)
• D- and -f Block Elements
• Coordination Compounds
• Environmental Chemistry
• Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds
• Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
• Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen
• Organic Compounds Containing Halogens
• Hydrocarbons
• Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
• Polymers
• Biomolecules
• Chemistry in Everyday Life
• Principles Related to Practical Chemistry

AEEE Exam Pattern – Exam Schedule

The tentative exam schedule of AEEE 2020 is tabulated below:

Amrita Vishwa Vidyapeetham Highlights

• Established: 13 January 2003
• Motto: The earnest aspirant gains supreme wisdom
• Institute Type: Private
• Number of Campuses: 5 (Amritapuri, Bangalore, Coimbatore, Kochi, and Mysuru)
• Number of Schools: 14 in disciplines like medicine, biotechnology, engineering, business, arts & sciences, Ayurveda, social work, communication
• Chancellor: Mata Amritanandamayi Devi
• Vice-Chancellor: Venkat Ranga.
• Total Land Area: 900 acres
• Total Built-Up Space: 8 million square feet (Largest among Private Universities in India)
• Total No. of Students: 18000
• Number of Faculty: 1750
• Number of Non-Teaching Staff –  2500
• Number of Faculty Members with Ph.D./DM – 600 (The largest number among private universities)
• Faculty-Student Ratio – 1 : 8 (Greater than prescribed national norms)
• The number of Programs Offered: 195+
• Number of Centres of Excellence: 20 (2 TIFAC Centres in Biotechnology & Cyber Security)
• Research Output by Faculty: 200 books and 3500 publications in reputed international and national journals
• Research Funding: 250 Crores.

ASE Highlights:

Amrita Institute of Medical Sciences, Kochi:

• 1450 bed Super-Speciality hospital with 25 operating theatres, 210 intensive care beds, 60 departments and specialities, digitized radiology department, reference diagnostic clinical laboratory including advanced molecular biology and cytogenetics labs, state-of-the-art diagnostic imaging centre
• Annual patient turnover exceeds 450,000 outpatients and nearly 40,000 inpatients
• Fully computerized and networked Hospital Information System which is being used by Government of Maharashtra for all government hospitals and medical colleges
• Telemedicine services to various remote locations in India and Africa

Indo-US Collaborations:

• Extensive tie-ups with over 20 US universities for research, centres of excellence, crosscontinental projects, distinguished lectures, collaborative programmes, faculty, student and research scholar exchange, internships etc
• Some of the US Universities involved are among the best in the world like Berkeley, Maryland, Princeton, Purdue, Harvard etc
• Over 500 distinguished lectures telecast through EDUSAT to 40 Indian Universities
• Twinning programme with State University of New York (SUNY) at Buffalo

Indo-European Collaborations:

• Erasmus Mundus exchange programme for Faculty, Research Scholar & Student exchange.100 faculty, researchers and students deputed to various universities in England, Ireland, Italy, Sweden, Finland, Bulgaria etc.
• Developed India’s first wireless sensor shield for landslide and natural disaster detection as part of EU collaboration
• Twinning programmes with various universities like Vrije University, Amsterdam

AEEE Exam Timings | Slot Timings

• Session I: 9 AM to 11:30 AM
• Session II: 12:30 PM to 3 PM
• Session III: 4 PM to 6:30 PM

AEEE Exam Pattern FAQ

Use of Calculator and Communication Aids

Use of electronic devices like mobile phone, calculator, etc. is NOT PERMITTED in AEEE 2019. Materials like log table, book, notebook, etc. should NOT be brought into the examination hall.

Now that you are provided all the necessary information regarding the AEEE exam pattern. Apart from knowing exam pattern, candidates are advised to check the AEEE syllabus completely. JEE Main qualified candidates can also apply for the admission. In such case, candidates will be exempted from appearing in AEEE 2020 examination and can get admission through valid JEE Main score.

The post AEEE Exam Pattern 2020 | Check Marking Scheme, Syllabus appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 9 Constitution as a Living Document

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 9 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Choose the correct statement from the following.
A constitution needs to be amended from time to time because,
1. Circumstances change and require suitable changes in the constitution.
2. A document written at one point of time becomes outdated after some time.
3. Every generation should have a constitution of its own liking.
4. It must reflect the philosophy of the existing government.
Answer:
Because circumstances change and require suitable changes in the constitution.

Question 2.
Write True / False against the following statements.
(a) The President cannot send back an amendment bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
(b) Elected representatives alone have the power to amend the Constitution.
(c) The Judiciary cannot initiate the process of constitutional amendment but can effectively change the Constitution by interpreting it differently.
(d) The Parliament can amend any section of the Constitution.
Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True
(d) False

Question 3.
Which of the following are involved in the amendment of the Indian Constitution? In what way are they involved?
(a) Voters
(b) President of India
(c) State Legislatures
(d) Parliament
(e) Governors
(f) Judiciary
Answer:
(a) Voters are not involved in the amendment of the constitution.
(b) President of India is involved in the amendment of constitution. An amendment bill after ratification by two houses of parliament goes to the president for his approval, he has no power to send this amendment bill back for reconsideration.
(c) State Legislatures are involved for some articles of constitution related to distribution of powers between the centre and states and articles related to representation, is necessary to be consulted with states. In some of the amendments, half of the states have to ratify the particular amendment bill.
(d) Parliament involves in the amendment because some bills/article are amended by simple majority. Some by special majority in both the houses of parliament separately and later, these are ratified by at least half of the states also.
(e) Governors have no role in the amendment of constitution of India except those articles only which are ratified by half of the states. Because, governor also signs on the bills passed by state legislatures.
(f) Judiciary involves to specify the basic structure or to take care that in any case, constitution’s basic structure should not be changed, only amendments are required.

Question 4.
You have read in this chapter that the 42nd amendment was one of the most controversial amendments so far. Which of the following were the reasons for this controversy?
(a) It was made during national emergency, and the declaration of that emergency was itself controversial.
(b) It was made without the support of special majority.
(c) It was made without ratification by the State legislatures.
(d) It contained provisions, which were controversial.
Answer:
Because:

• It over rided the decision of the supreme court given in the Kesavananda case.
• The duration of Lok Sabha was extended from five to six years.
• It imposed restrictions on the power of judicial review of court.
• It also made changes to the preamble, seventh schedule and 53 articles of constitution,
• Various MPs from opposition were in jail.

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a reasonable explanation of the conflict between the legislature and the judiciary over different amendments?
(a) Different interpretations of the Constitution are possible.
(b) In a democracy, debates and differences are natural.
(c) Constitution has given higher importance to certain rules and principles and also allowed for amendment by special majority.
(d) Legislature cannot be entrusted to protect the rights of the citizens.
(e) Judiciary can only decide the constitutionality of a particular law; cannot resolve political debates about its need.
Answer:
(d) Legislature cannot be entrusted to protect the rights of citizens because issues of rights are resolved by the constitution under the Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 6.
Identify the correct statements about the theory of basic structure. Correct the incorrect statements.
(a) Constitution specifies the basic tenets.
(b) Legislature can amend all parts of the Constitution except the basic structure.
(c) Judiciary has defined which aspects of the Constitution can be termed as the basic structure and which cannot.
(d) This theory found its first expression in the Kesavananda Bharati case and has been discussed in subsequent judgments.
(e) This theory has increased the powers of the judiciary and has come to be accepted by different political parties and the government.
Answer:
(a) It is an incorrect statement because constitution does not specify basic tenets, the basic structure has been evolved by the supreme court.
(b) It is a correct statement.
(c) It is correct because the basic theory is the invention of judiciary.
(d) It is a correct statement.
(e) It is a correct statement.

Question 7.
From the information that many amendments were made during 2000-2003, which of the following conclusions would you draw?
(a) Judiciary did not interfere in the amendments made during this period
(b) One political party had a strong majority during this period.
(c) There was strong pressure from the pubic in favour of certain amendments.
(d) There were no real differences among the parties during this time.
(e) The amendments were of a non-controversial nature and parties had an agreement on the subject of amendments.
Answer:

• (c)
• (d) and
• (e)

Question 8.
Explain the reason for requiring special majority for amending the Constitution.
Answer:
Special majority is required in the different manner:

• Half of the total strength of the house, who are in favour of the amendment bill.
• Two-third of those supporters who participate in voting.
• Both the houses of parliament must pass the bill separately also.

The above mentioned majorities are required because:

• To take some opposition parties into confidence due to majority.
• On the issues of distribution of powers, some articles are needed to be consulted with the states.
• Through wide consensus and limited participation of states, constitution can be amended.
• To maintain partial flexibility and rigidity, consent of half of the states and simple majority of state legislature is sufficient.

Question 9.
Many amendments to the Constitution of India have been made due to different interpretations upheld by the Judiciary and the Parliament. Explain with examples.
Answer:

• The first amendment act of 1951, made changes in the constitution due to some flows in the working of constitution and those were to be remedied.
• Under Article 19, Right to Freedom of speech and expression was held by some courts to be very comprehensive, not to take any action against any individual.
• Many laws made on abolition of Zamindari System were declared Ultra Vires by courts, hence, constitution was amended.
• In the case of Keshavananda Bharti, Parliament’s power to amend the constitution was checked and limited them by instructing not to violate the basic structure of constitution as well as parliament can amend if clashes arise between the judiciary and the government.
• In 1971, by 24th amendment parliament got the power to amend the constitution including the fundamental rights.
• 42nd amendment (1976) was most controversial as amendment were made in the background of internal emergency as well as imposed some restrictions on the power of judicial review of the court.
• 44th amendments cancelled most of the changes which were affected by 38th, 39th, 42nd amendments, i.e. changes in Preamble to the seventh schedule, other 53 Articles, etc.
• Sometimes, judicial interpretations also changed the understanding of constitution, i. e. the supreme court had held that reservation in jobs and educational institutions must not exceed 50% of the total seats.

Question 10.
If amending power is with the elected representatives, judiciary should NOT have the power to decide the validity of amendments. Do you agree? Give your reasons in 100 words.
Answer:
No, I don’t agree on the view because:

• During the period of 1970-1980, whatsoever amendments were made, these created a legal and political controversy, only interference of judiciary tackled them.
• During the period 1971-1976, the ruling party attempted to subvert the constitution by 42nd amendment Act. Again, judiciary intervened and protected the basic structure of the constitution.
• A constitutional legal issue raises the question on the supremacy of parliament but the constitution has given the powers to every organ of government, hence, judiciary enjoys the power to decide the validity of amendments.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 9 NCERT Extra Questions Solved

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 9 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the objective of constitution of India as embodied in the Preamble?
Answer.

• Justice-Social, Political, Economic.
• Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
• Equality of status and opportunity.
• Fraternity assuring the dignity of individual and unity of nation.

Question 2.
In which countries, people initiate amendments to the constitution?
Answer:
Russia, Switzerland, Italy, etc.

Question 3.
In which year, the 42nd Amendment took place?
Answer:
1976

Question 4.
How many times, the former Soviet Union had formal new constitutions?
Answer:
Four constitutions within 74 years (1918, 1924, 1936 and 1977)

Question 5.
How the basic structure of the Constitution of India has been maintained till date?
Answer:

• Constitution-makers were very farsighted who provided many solution for future situations.
• The provisions for amendments were also made to changing needs of society.

Question 6.
When was the Constitution of India adopted?
Answer:
On 26 November, 1949

Question 7.
When did the constitution of India come into force?
Answer:
On 26 January, 1950.

Question 8.
By which amendment, the age of retirement of high court judges increased from 60 to 62 years?
Answer:
15th amendment.

Question 9.
Which amendment increased the salaries of judges of high court and supreme court?
Answer:
55th amendment.

Question 10.
Which amendments are known as anti-defection amendments?
Answer:
52nd and 91st Amendments (brought down the minimum age from 21 to 18 years).

Question 11.
Who enjoys the power to amend the constitution and how?
Answer:
Parliament of India under Article 368 enjoys the power to amend the constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision by the procedure laid down in Article 368:

• By simple majority in parliament.
• By special majority in both the houses of parliament (Article 368).
• By special majority legislatures of half of the states.

Question 12.
Mention the constitutional development in France.
Answer:
France is getting continuously constitutional changes after the revolution and Nepoleonic period:

• The first French Republic took place in 1793.
• Second Republic commenced in 1848 with new constitution.
• Third time it commenced in 1875 and again in 1946.
• Fifth Republic took place in 1958 again.

Question 13.
What does the ‘Ratification by States’ stand for amendments in constitution?
Answer:
If any amendment aims to modify federal structure or fundamental rights or representation of states in parliament, this amendment bill is necessary to be passed by at least half of the state legislature to ensure a wider consensus, because it affects the states directly.

Question 14.
What does the rigid as well as flexible constitution stand for?
Answer:
A constitution is a living document which must be amended if required as per needs and aspirations of people as well as must be protected from unnecessary and frequent changes.

Question 15.
Why is the 42nd amendment called the mini constitution?
Answer:
Because:

• It attempted to override the ruling of supreme court in the case of Keshavanand Bharti.
• This imposed some restrictions on the power of courts to do judicial review.
• Lok Sabha’s tenure was extended from five years to six years.
• This made changes to the preamble’s seventh schedule of constitution and 53 other articles.

Question 16.
Mention any two factors which make the constitution of India a living document.
Answer:

• The required modifications can be made as per the changing needs and aspiration of society.
• This is flexible also to be interpreted and implemented.

Question 17. ‘The constitution of India maintains unity and integrity of the country. Justify the statement.
Answer:
Because:

• India has been declared a secular state
• Provision of single citizenship.
• One constitution only.
• 22 languages have been recognized by the constitution.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by political and economic justice?
Answer:

• Political Justice-It provides that all citizens should enjoy the equal political rights without any discrimination as well as they should be free to participate in the government.
• Economic Justice-It provides maximum welfare to the people by reducing the gaps between extremely rich or poor, so that everybody could earn livelihood by equal opportunities of employment. /

Question 2.
What are the technical amendments? Explain with the examples.
Answer:
Technical amendments are only clarifications, explanations, and modifications in the provisions of constitution, which make no substantial change to the provisions. Its examples are:

• The 15th amendment to increase the age of retirement of high court judges from 60 to 62 years.
• To increase salaries of the judges of high court and supreme court by 55th amendment.
• Provisions for reservation of seats for SC’s and ST’s in legislatures.
• The amendment in Article 74(1) to bind the President on the advice of council of ministers.

Question 3.
How has the Keshavanand ruling contributed to the evolution of the constitution?
Answer:
In 1973, Keshavanand ruling contributed to maintain the basic structure of the constitution:

• It limited the power of parliament that the basic structured could not be violated.
• It allows parliament to amend any and all parts of the constitution within this limitation only.
• It places the judiciary as a final decision maker if any amendment violates the basic structure and its constituents.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1.
Read the passage NCERT Textbook, page 204) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

For some articles of the Constitution, special majority is not sufficient. When an amendment aims to modify an article related to distribution of powers between the States and the central government, or articles related to representation, it is necessary that the States must be consulted and that they give their consent. We have studied the federal nature of the Constitution. Federalism means that powers of the States must not be at the mercy of the central government. The Constitution has ensured this by providing that legislatures of half the States have to pass the amendment bill before the amendment comes into effect. Apart from the provisions related to federal structure, provisions about fundamental rights are also protected in this way. We can say that for some parts of the Constitution, greater or wider consensus in the polity is expected. This provision also respects the States and gives them participation in the process of amendment. At the same time, care is taken to keep this procedure somewhat flexible even in its more rigid format: consent of only half the States is required and simple majority of the State legislature is sufficient. Thus, the amendment process is not impracticable even after taking into consideration this more stringent condition.

Questions:
1. What is federalism?
2. When the consent of states is necessary in Parliament ;?
3. What is the provision for these amendments?
Answers:
1. Federalism means that the powers of the state must not be at the mercy of the central government.

2. If any amendment is related to the distribution of powers between the center and the states and the articles related to the representation. Then the consent of states is necessary in parliament.

3.

• Consent of half of the states
• Simple majority of the state legislature.

Passage 2.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 208) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

A number of amendments are a product of different interpretations of the Constitution given by the judiciary and the government of the day. When these clashed, the Parliament had to insert an amendment underlining one particular interpretation as the authentic one. It is a part of the democratic politics that various institutions would interpret the Constitution and particularly the scope of their own powers in a different manner. Many times, the Parliament did not agree with the judicial interpretation and therefore, sought to amend the Constitution to overcome the ruling of the judiciary. In the period between 1970 and 1975 this situation arose frequently.

Questions:
1. What are the amendments?
2. What can be done if any clash arises between the judiciary and the government on amendments?
3. Did this situation arise practically and when?
Answers:
1. Amendments are the products of different interpretations of the Constitution given by the judiciary and the government of the day.

2. In case of clash, the Parliament had to insert an amendment underlining one particular interpretation as authentic one.

3. Yes, this situation arose in the period between 1970 and 1975.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“The Constitution of India is a living document”. Explain.
Answer:
The Constitution of India is a living document. It can be enumerated in the following terms:

• It has continuously been responding to the various circumstances from time to time.
• Our constitution came into force on January 26, 1950, since then the government is supposed to work within its framework
• The constitution makers made the best efforts to accommodate the various changes as per needs and aspirations of society.
• It is open to interpretations and the ability to respond to the changing situations.
• It protects the rule of law in favour of democratic set up.
• The constitution responds to various experiences also.
• Though many changes have taken place, still the constitution works in an effective manner.

Question 2.
Mention the different methods to amend the constitution.
Answer:
By a simple majority:

• Amendments can take place by a resolution passed by simple majority in both the houses of parliament.
• It creates the most flexible features of the constitution.
• It can be amended/passed by simple majority of members present and voting in both the houses.
• Its examples are changing the boundaries of states, creation of new states, fixing the number of judges in Supreme Court, etc.

By two third majority in both the houses of Parliament:

• Resolution should be passed by a two-third majority of the members present and voting in both the houses of parliament.
• Amendment resolution can be moved in any house and if passed by majority of total membership and 2/3 majority of members present and voting it is sent to the other house.
• If the same procedure takes place in the other house also, the bill is passed. id) Many times Rajya Sabha has rejected the amendment bills passed by Lok Sabha, i.e. bill on Panchayats and Nagarpalikas.

By two-third majority in both the houses of Parliament and approval of half of the state legislature:

• Amendment should be passed by both the houses of Parliament with majority of total member strength and of 2/3 majority of those present and voting.
• The resolution should be ratified by at least half of the state legislature.

Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 9 Constitution as a Living Document appeared first on Learn CBSE.

GAT Exam Pattern – The GAT is conducted for admission to various UG Courses, M.Tech/M.Arch, M.Pharm courses in GITAM Deemed to be University. GITAM Admission Test 2020 is conducted in both Online (Computer Based Test [CBT]) and Offline Mode (Pen & Paper Test [PPT]). So the candidates who are planning to appear for GAT must be aware of GAT Exam Pattern & Syllabus. Candidates need to know about the different subjects in the exam, the type of questions asked, the marking scheme, etc. so that they can start the preparation plan accordingly. So in order to know all these facts, candidates must know GAT 2020 Exam Pattern.

Knowing GAT Marking Scheme will help candidates to understand the question paper pattern and section-wise distribution of marks and further help aspirants to face the actual exam without any trouble. So in this article, we will provide you with all the necessary information regarding GAT Exam Pattern that is the number of sections, exam pattern, mode of the exam, medium of the exam, etc. Read on to find out everything about GAT Exam Pattern.

GAT Exam Pattern – Overview

Before getting into the details of GAT Exam Pattern, let’s have an overview of the GAT exam:

• Name of the Exam/GAT Full form: GITAM Admission Test
• Commonly known as –  GAT
• Exam Category – Pre-UG, PG
• Conducting body: GITAM Deemed to be University
• Exam Mode: Computer Based Test (CBT) and Pen & Paper Test (PPT)
• Mode of Registration: Online
• Exam Type: National Level
• Courses offered: Engineering (B.Tech)UG Courses, M.Tech/M.Arch, M.Pharm
• GAT Official Website: https://www.gitam.edu/

Detailed GAT Exam Pattern

Aspirants who are taking the exam must be aware of GAT Exam Pattern in order to secure good marks. Knowing the GAT 2020 Marking Scheme holds comprehensive importance particularly when it comes to improving proper test-taking strategy. The detailed GAT Exam Pattern is listed below:

GAT 2020 – UG Courses

GAT 2020 – M.Tech/M.Arch Programs

GAT 2020 – M.Pharm Programs

GAT Marking Scheme Highlights

• For every correct answer, 4 Marks will be awarded.
• For every incorrect answer, 1 mark will be deducted.
• No response: No marks will be awarded or deducted.
• The total marks of the SAT (400 Marks/100 Questions)
• Duration of the Exam – 2 Hours (or) 120 Minutes
• Question Type – Multiple Choice Questions
• UG Courses GAT Exam constitutes of 3 Sections Mathematics/Biology, Physics, and Chemistry
• M.Tech/M.Arch Programs GAT Exam constitutes of 3 Sections Quantitative Analysis/ Aptitude, Intelligence and Reasoning, and Verbal Ability.
• M.Pharm GAT Exam constitutes of 4 Sections Pharmaceutics, Pharmaceutical Analysis, and Quality assurance, Pharmacology, and Pharmaceutical Chemistry

GAT Exam Pattern – Exam Schedule

The tentative exam schedule of GAT 2020 is tabulated below:

The post GAT Exam Pattern, Marking Scheme, Exam Duration appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 The Philosophy of the Constitution

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
The following are certain laws. Are they connected with any value? If yes, then what is the underlying value? Give reasons.
(a) Both daughters and sons will have share in the family property.
(b) There will be different slabs of sales tax on different consumer items.
(c) Religious instructions will not be given in any government school.
(d) There shall be no begar or forced labour.
Answer:
(a) It is connected with the value of ‘social justice’ under the right to equality, no one can be discriminated on the ground of colour, race, religion or sex, etc.
(b) It is based on the principle of utility of different items only, it comes under economic justice.
(c) It is concerned with the secularism.
(d) It also refers to social justice, not to be discriminated on any grounds except capability.

Question 2.
Which of the options given below cannot be used to complete the following statement? Democratic countries need a constitution to:
(i) Check the power of the government.
(ii) Protect minorities from majority.
(iii) Bring independence from colonial rule.
(iv) Ensure that a long-term vision is not lost by momentary passions.
(v) Bring social change in peaceful manner.
Answer:
(iii) Bring independence from colonial rule.

Question 3.
The following are different positions about reading and understanding Constituent Assembly debates.
(i) Which of these statements argues that Constituent Assembly debates are relevant even today? Which statement says that they are not relevant?
(ii) With which of these positions do you agree and why?

• Common people are too busy in earning livelihood and meeting different pressures of life. They can’t understand the legal language of these debates.
• The conditions and challenges today are different from the time when the Constitution was made. To read the ideas of Constitution makers and use them for our new times is trying to bring past in the present
• Our ways of understanding the world and the present challenges have not changed totally. Constituent Assembly debates can provide us reasons why certain practices are important. In a period when constitutional practices are being challenged, not knowing the reasons can destroy them.

Answer:
(i)

• This statement shows relevancy today.
• This statement is not relevant today.
• It states that these are relevant even today.

(ii)

• Yes, I agree because it is necessary to understand and interpret the variousarticles which contain a lot of legal terms, not to be easily comprehended.
• Yes, again I agree because the constitution has been amended more than 100 times till date.
• Yes, I agree with this position also because the most important challenges have not been changed still.

Question 4.
Explain the difference between the Indian Constitution and western ideas in the light of
(a) Understanding of secularism.
(b) Articles 370 and 371.
(c) Affirmative action.
(d) Universal adult franchise.
Answer:
(a) Understanding of secularism:

• The western ideas of secular states treat religion as a private matter which is not given either public or official recognition.
• In India, all religions are given equal status to be honoured and the state could also help the religious communities in the form of educational aid to institutions run by them.

(b) Article 370 and 371:

• Unlike the constitutional symmetry of American federalism, Indian federalism has been constitutionally asymmetric.
• The accession of Jammu and Kashmir was based on the commitment to safeguard its autonomy, which is governed by its own constitution under Article 370.
• The privileges of special status were accorded to the North-Eastern states under Article 371(A).

(c) Affirmative action:

• In reference of America, where the constitution was written in 18th century, finds itself unable to be accommodated with the values and standard of 21st century.
• Whereas the constitution makers of India structured the constitution in such a manner to be amended as per needs and aspirations of society without violating its basic structure.
• Constitution of India is democratic, liberal, secular and federal, etc. to maintain unity and integrity of India.

(d) Universal adult franchise:
In the western democracies the right to vote has been recently extended to women, but India exercises this from the very beginning without any discrimination.

Question 5.
Which of the following principles of secularism are adopted in the Constitution of India?
(a) that state will have nothing to do with religion
(b) that state will have close relation with religion
(c) that state can discriminate among religions
(d) that state will recognize rights of religious groups
(e) that state will have limited powers to intervene in affairs of religions
Answer:
(a) that state will have nothing to do with religion
(d) that state will recognize rights of religious groups
(e) that state will have limited powers to intervene in affairs of religions Q6. Match the

Question 6.
Match the following:

Answer:
(a)—(2)
(b)—(1)
(c)—(4)
(d)—(5)
(e)—(3)

Question 7.
This discussion was taking place in a class. Read the various arguments and state which of these do you agree with and why.
Jayesh: I still think that our Constitution is only a borrowed document.
Saba: Do you mean to sav that there is nothing Indian in it? But is there such a thing as Indian and western in the case of values and ideas? Take equality between men and women. What is western about it? And even if it is, should we reject it only because it is western?
Jayesh: What I mean is that after fighting for independence from the British, did we not adopt their system of parliamentary government?
Neha: You forget that when we fought the British, we were not against the British as such, we were against the principle of colonialism. That has nothing to do with adopting a system of government that we wanted, wherever it came from.
Answer:

• Jayesh senses that there is nothing original in the Constitution of India because many provisions have been borrowed from the Constitution of other countries or from Government of India Act, 1935.
• Saba argues that there are similarity in the case of values and ideas and no difference is there on equality of men and women. Hence it is not the reason to reject it.
• Again Jayesh argued not to follow the British policies after independence.
• Neha countered him that our national movement was not against the British, but it was against the principle of colonialism. Hence, we may adopt the goodness of any entity if it suits us.Conclusion-It may be concluded that there is nothing wrong in borrowing the provisions from other countries as per suitability.

Question 8.
Why is it said that the making of the Indian Constitution was unrepresentative? Does that make the Constitution unrepresentative? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:

• The Constitution of India was framed in November 1946 through indirect election of its members by provincial legislatures under the provisions of Cabinet Mission Plan 1946.
• The Assembly consisted of 389 members out of which 292 were to be elected from the provinces, 93 were to be nominated from princely states and four members were to be nominated from Chief Commissioner’s areas.
• Each provincial Assembly elected its own members through single transferable vote system.
•  Due to declaration of partition in June 1947 under Mount batten Plan, this membership reduced to 299 and finally 28 4 members signed on the constitution on 26 November, 1949.
• On August 15, 1947, the Constituent Assembly functioned as a sovereign entity but it is considered unrepresentative because its members were chosen by restricted franchise in place of universal suffrage.
• But Constituent Assembly included the members from each and every section of society to be represented and on a thorough reading, we may find that no section is untouched on the various issues and opinions.

Question 9.
One of the limitations of the Constitution of India is that it does not adequately attend to gender justice. What evidence can you give to substantiate this charge? If you were writing the Constitution today, what provisions would you recommend for remedying this limitation?
Answer:
On the social conditions, there may be very controversial matters which may need careful revision:

• Most important issue is gender justice, particularly within the family.
• Women enjoy unequal rights on property inheritance and children.
• Equal pay for equal work for both men and women has been inserted in the directive principles in place of Fundamental Rights.

My recommendation:

• The empowerment of women.
• To make provisions for inheritance of property in favour of women on equal basis. (Hi) To make provisions for reservations of seats.

Question 10.
Do you agree with the statement that “it is not clear why in a poor developing country, certain basic socio-economic rights were relegated to the section on Directive Principles rather than made an integral feature of our Fundamental Rights”? Give reasons for your answer. What do you think are the possible reasons for putting socio-economic rights in the section on Directive Principles?
Answer:
Directive Principles of state policy focus on the need of an egalitarian society:

• These principles are complementary to fundamental rights because fundamental rights ensure the political democracy while these principles aim at social-economic democracy.
• Fundamental rights are justiciable or protected by law where directive principles are moral values supposed to be followed by the government.
• Hence, in a poor country, certain basic social-economic rights were inserted in directive principles rather than making it in the fundamental rights.
• Our country was so poor at that time, when it was not possible to give much pressure on the states for socio-economic moral values.
• Under Article 37 of Constitution, “It shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws”.
• If any government overlooks these, it will lose confidence of people and cannot remain in power.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 NCERT Extra Questions Solved

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which rights are considered as a part of individual freedom?
Answer:

• Right to life
• Equal access to public places
• Freedom of speech and expressions
• Freedom of religion and faith

Question 2.
What are the main two streams of liberalism of India?
Answer:

• Raja Ram Mohan Roy emphasized on individual rights especially for women.
• Swami Vivekanand emphasized on social justice.

Question 3.
What is ‘Secularism’?
Answer:
Secularism means state honours all the religions on equal basis

Question 4.
What is meant by ‘mutual exclusion’ in secularism?
Answer:
Mutual exclusion in secularism means that religion and state must be strictly separated.

Question 5.
Why do we need constitution?
Answer:

• To provide a framework, within which the government has to work.
• It demarcates between the powers of different organs of government to minimise the disputes.
• It controls the misuse of power by government.
• To safeguard Fundamental Rights of citizens.

Question 6.
Write the main features of Constitution of India.
Answer:

• It establishes a sovereign, democratic, republic in India.
• It establishes a parliamentary form of government (Bi-cameral legislatures).
• It provides fundamental rights and fundamental duties of the citizens.
• It establishes a secular state.

Question 7.
‘India is a union of states’. Justify the statement.
Answer:
India is a union of states in the following sense:

• Through the various lists union, state and concurrent lists, the powers have been distributed between the central and state government.
• The Constitution of India is a written document consisting the details concerning the union government and state government.

Question 8.
Mention four ideals to be embodied in the preamble of constitution.
Answer:

• Every citizen of India will have social, political and economic justice.
• Every citizen will have the liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
• Every citizen will be provided equality of status and opportunity.
• Fraternity to assure dignity of the individual and integrity of the nation.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 NCERT Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Is India a secular state? Why do we need a secular country in modern times?
Answer:
Yes, India is a secular state because:

• India has no religion of its own.
• Under Article 25 to 28, the right to freedom of religion has been granted to all the persons residing in India.
• All persons in India are equally free to progress, practicise or propagate the religion of their own choices.

Secular state is must in modern times because:

• It opposes to intra-religious domination.
• To value peace, religion and state must be kept separate.
• It promotes freedom within religions.

Question 2.
How can we say that Constitution of India pays equal respect to different communities?
Answer:
Every community wants to dominate the other community if they are not given the equal relationship by the state:

• It was a great challenge before the constitution makers to foster a sense of equal respect in the conditions of hierarchy or intense rivalry.
• India is a land of multiple cultural communities to ensure community-based right to be mandatory.
• Hence, fundamental rights of religious communities to establish and run their own educational institutions as well as to receive money from the government for the same.

Question 3.
Mention some unique feature of Constitution of India.
Answer:

• It is the written and lengthiest one to have 395 Articles and 12 schedules.
• It is federal in form but unitary in spirit.
• Constitution of India has a provision of six fundamental rights to ensure political democracy.
• It has provisions for directive principles of state policy also to ensure socio-economic justice.
• It is a blend of flexibility and rigidity both to be amended from time to time.
• By 42nd amendment 10 fundamental duties have also been inserted.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 NCERT Passage Based Questions

Passage 1.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 227) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The liberalism of the Indian Constitution differs from this version in two ways. First, it was always linked to social justice. The best example of this is the provision for reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Constitution. The makers of the Constitution believed that the mere granting of the right to equality was not enough to overcome age-old injustices suffered by these groups or to give real meaning to their right to vote. Special constitutional measures were required to advance their interests. Therefore, the constitution makers provided a number of special measures to protect the interests of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes such as the reservation of seats in legislatures. The Constitution also made it possible for the government to reserve public sector jobs for these groups.

Questions:
1. How is the liberalism of Indian Constitution differed?
2. Who has been given the reservation by Constitution?
3. What other provision was also made for these groups to protect their interests?
Answers:
1. Because it is linked to the social justice.

2. The SC’s and ST’s.

3. To reserve public sector jobs for these groups.

Passage 2.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 226) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

It is not surprising therefore that freedom of expression is an integral part of the Indian Constitution. So is the freedom from arbitrary arrest. After all, the infamous Rowlatt Act, which the national movement opposed so vehemently, sought to deny this basic freedom. These and other individual freedoms such as freedom of conscience are part of the liberal ideology. On this basis, we can say that the Indian Constitution has a pretty strong liberal character. In the chapter on fundamental rights we have already seen how the Constitution values individual freedom. It might be recalled that for over forty years before the adoption of the Constitution, every single resolution, scheme, bill and report of the Indian National Congress mentioned individual rights, not just in passing but as a non-negotiable value.

Questions:
1. What is an integral part of constitution?
2. Which act denied the freedom of expression?
3. Which were the non-negotiable values as per Indian national congress?
Answers:
1. Freedom of Expression.

2. The Rowlatt Act (1919)

3. Individual rights only.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define duty. What are the fundamental duties given in the Constitution of India?
Answer:
Duty is a positive or negative work that one is assigned to do either one likes or not. Hence 10 fundamental duties have been inserted in the Constitution of India:

• To obtain by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, i.e. National Flag and National Anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired national struggle for freedom. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of nation.
• To defend the country and national service to be rendered if required.
• To promote harmony and the spirit of brotherhood and to renounce practices derogatory to women.
• To value and preserve the rich heritage of India.
• To protect and improve the natural environment and have compassion for living creatures.
• To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform.
• To safeguard public property and to adjure violence.
• To strive towards excellence to rise the nation at the constant highest level of achievements.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Picture-Based Questions

1. Read the cartoon (NCERT Textbook, page 225) given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions:
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Who is playing the role of ‘Umpire’?
3. Why democracy has been referred to as umpire?
Answers:
1. Cartoon represents the different groups and sections playing together.

2. Democracy is playing the role of ‘Umpire’.

3. Democracy refers to the involvement of people. Hence everyone has been given the due representation in the Constitution to avoid conflicts together.

Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 10 The Philosophy of the Constitution appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 Political Theory: An Introduction

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Questions 1.
Which of the following statements are true/false about Political Theory?
(a) It discusses ideas that form the basis of political institutions.
(b) It explains the relationship between different religions.
(c) It explains the meanings of concepts like equality and freedom.
(d) It predicts the performance of political parties.
Answer:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) True
(d) False

Questions 2.
Politics is more than what politicians do. Do you agree with this statement? Give examples.
Answer:
The various arguments have been raised on this issue:

• Politics is associated with the manipulation and pursue ambitions and satisfy wants.
• Political leaders and persons who contest elections and hold public office, are argued to after a public service.
• A few people argue that politics is what politicians do-who sometimes practices floor-crossing (Aya Ram or Gaya Ram), commit false promises, pursue an individual interest in place of nation as a whole or having a criminal background sometimes, what about this notion?

Hence, the following prescriptions can be found out:

• It is unfortunate that politics has been associated with the pursuit of personal interests only and the need is to realise that politics is an integral part of the society.
• The important focus should be on how governments are formed and how they function because governments play an important role in different institutions and help people to fulfill their needs and aspirations.
• People may also be engaged in political activity to participate collectively in politics to promote social development and resolve the problems of common people.

Questions 3.
Vigilant citizens are a must for the successful working of a democracy. Comment.
Answer:
Vigilant citizens are a must for the successful working of a democracy for the following
reasons:

• Vigilant citizens encounter the corrupt actions of their representatives and democratic government due to be aware in politics.
• Vigilant citizens form a public opinion by forming associations, public meetings, etc. against the malpractices done by the politicians, i.e. defection, false commitments to people, to look after only their own individual or family members’ interest, etc.
• Vigilant citizens keep a check on wrong policies issued by the government and corruption which endanger people’s lives and security as well.
• Vigilant citizens can organise the campaign also to negotiate the interests of particular groups and demonstrations to persuade the government to change the laws if required.
• Vigilant citizens aspire to create a better society by debating the actions of their representatives.

Questions 4.
In what ways is the study of political theory useful for us? Identify four ways in which the political theory can be useful to us?
Answer:
Political theory advocates the various views to be needed as science or art.
As a science: The following functions of political theory has been propounded by David Easton as a science:

• A political theory ensures analytical scheme which renders research meaningful and describes the mutual relations of political variables.
• The comparative study of various researchers verify the conclusions and reveal the areas to be required more empirical work.
• A relative consistent concepts make research more reliable.

As a social and natural entity: In the words of Wright and Mills:

• It is an ideology of justified practices to make criticism and to determine policies.
• It prepares goals and guidelines for aspirations and policies made at various levels of ideals.
• It prepares strategies and programmes to meet both the ends and means.
• It assumes the formation of society and conflicts to be arisen in the society as well as solutions to the particular  conflicts.

Conclusion: Political theory can be concluded as a collection of systems and analysis of political data. It also aims to achieve a better world of politics.

Questions 5.
Do you think that a good/ convincing argument can compel others to listen to you?
Answer:
Yes, I agree that a good argument can compel others to listen to me, because:

• Everyone who is rationale always takes interest in debates, conversation or interactions to reach at a better conclusion.
• Every individual is impressed with the logic and rational points to be agreed/ convinced upon.
• In a positive manner, if I make the efforts to convince others, they listen to me very carefully.
• In a discussion or debate, even people participate to make their doubts clear and get convinced.

Questions 6.
Do you think studying political theory is like studying mathematics? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
No, studying political theory is not like studying mathematics because mathematics can have a specific definition of any shape or particular areas which may be applicable as per terms but political theory deals with the needs and aspirations of the peoples and states who may have different opinions on different issues to be encountered to develop harmonious relations.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Extra Questions Solved

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by politics?
Answer:
Politics has been regarded as the study of the state or power or a struggle to attain power.

Question 2.
The government as a part of politics can affect on daily life of humans both in a useful and a harmful way. How?
Answer:

• The government in a useful manner can frame foreign policy, educational policy and economic policy to benefit the people.
• The government in a harmful manner can lead to violent protests in response to various conflicts which may hamper the daily life of people.

Question 3.
What do we study in political theory?
Answer:
We study certain values and principles and ideals also which inspired people and guided policies like democracy, freedom, equality, etc.

Question 4.
Who wrote the Hind Swaraj?
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi wrote the Hind Swaraj.

Question 5.
Who argued first that equality was as crucial as freedom?
Answer:
Rousseau

Question 6.
‘Human beings are unique’. Give any two arguments.
Answer:

• Human beings possess reasons for any action and they have the ability to react upon actions also.
• Human beings are capable to converse and debate and discuss the issues.

Question 7.
Mention the characteristics to constitute the politics.
Answer:

• Politics is found in a political system.
• Politics is about power.
• Politics involves an activity.

Question 8.
Why should we study political theory?
Answer:
We should study political theory for the following reasons:

• It is relevant for all the professions except engineers, doctors, or mathematicians.
• To have a basic knowledge of political ideals and information’s to shape public opinion.
• It encourages us to examine our ideas and feelings about political activities.
• We can differentiate between just or unjust reactions and actions.

Question 9. How can we show our interest in government?
Answer:
Government’s action deeply (Policies and Programmes) affect on us. Hence, we participate in the government’s actions as follows:

• To form associations
• To organise campaigns on particular issues
• We form a support of public opinion and target the governmental activities and goals
• We may protest and organise demonstrations if the government violates our rights and freedom.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a class?
Answer:
A class may be defined as a larger group of people to be different from each other in the following manner:

• by the place to be occupied in social production, i.e. master or slaves.
• by their relations through the production activities, i.e. owners or non-owners.
• by their role in social organisation, i.e. active members or followers.
• by the mode of acquiring the share of social wealth, i.e. entrepreneurs or wage earners.

Question 2.
Mention the characteristics of a class struggle.
Answer:

• The conflicts arisen are the result of the society divided into various classes.
• The ownership of means of production originate the classes.
• The common interest is mainly associated with classes who are economically dominant.
• These classes keep fighting with each other in case of opposition with each other.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 7) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Though freedom is guaranteed in our Constitution, we encounter new interpretations all the time. This is a bit like playing a game; as we play chess or cricket, we learn how to interpret the rules. In the process, we discover new and broader meanings of the game itself. Similarly, the fundamental rights guaranteed by our Constitution are continually being reinterpreted in response to new circumstances. For instance, the right to life has been interpreted by the Courts to include the right to livelihood. The right to information has been granted through a new law. Societies frequently encounter new challenges which generate new interpretations. The fundamental rights guaranteed by our Constitution have been amended and expanded over time through judicial interpretations and government policies which are designed to address new problems.

Questions:
1. How the right to freedom has been designed to address new problems?
2. Which right has been interpreted to include right to livelihood?
3. Which right has been granted by a new law?
Answers:
1. Through judicial interpretations and government policies.

2. Right to life.

3. Right to information.

Passage 2.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 6) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Political theory deals with the ideas and principles that shape Constitutions, governments and social life in a systematic manner. It clarifies the meaning of concepts such as freedom, equality, justice, democracy, secularism and so on. It probes the significance of principles such as rule of law, separation of powers, judicial review, etc. This is done by examining the arguments advanced by different thinkers in defense of these concepts. Though Rousseau or Marx or Gandhi did not become politicians, their ideas influenced generations of politicians everywhere. There are also contemporary thinkers who draw upon them to defend freedom or democracy in our own time. Besides examining arguments, political theorists also reflect upon our current political experiences and point out trends and possibilities for the future.

Questions:
1. What is a political theory?
2. Which concepts are cleared by a political theory?
3. How does the political theory defend all these concepts?
Answers:
1. The political theory deals with the ideas and principles that shape constitutions, governments and social life.

2. Freedom, democracy, secularism, equality, separation of powers and justice.

3. Political theory examines the arguments advanced by different thinkers in defence of these concepts.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
‘Politics works as a pursuit of common good of people’. Justify the statement.
Answer:
Politics implies to power to make laws and to enforce them for common good:

• Common good is both an objective and a procedure to be followed.
• Common good has been evolved with the growth of democracy.
• Common good may be associated with the concept of welfare state.
• Developing nations reflect common good in realization of objectives for a welfare’ state while developed nations  believe to common good to be the efforts of state.

Politics as a pursuit of common good:

• Politics discovers a ‘common’ in all and promoter the spirit of ‘common hood’ among people.
• Politics does not refer to class struggle but it is a class permeation.
• The common good serves all the people living in society in place of individuals’ interests only.
• It begins with the establishment of social order and ends up in a state to serve all.

Question 2.
What are the differences between politics and political science?
Answer:
Politics:

• Politics may have different ideas to be argued upon.
• Politics is associated with the satisfaction of wants.
• Politics is sometimes considered to be what politicians do. But it associates them with teams due to their false commitments, etc.
• Politics promotes the interests of an individual by all means.

Political Science:

• It is a scientific study of political ideas and principles.
• Political Science shapes the government and public opinion in a well-mannered way.
• Political science examines the defections, false commitment and false promises made by politicians.
• Political Science examines the validity of concepts of equality, justice, freedom, democracy, secularism, etc.
• The philosophers in political science can generate the new ideas to mould the society.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Picture Based Interpretation

1. Read the cartoon (NCERT Textbook, page 3) given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions:
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. Mention some drawbacks of politics.
Answer:
1. Cartoon represents the demerits of politicians.

2.

• Mostly leaders tell a lie frequently even in family to influence their young ones adversely.
• Politics, is considered a ‘dirty game’ on the principle of ‘everything is fair to win the power’.

Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 Political Theory: An Introduction appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Multiple choice questions.

Question 1(i).
Which one of the following are the two main constituents of granite?
(a) Iron and nickel
(b) Iron and silver
(c) Silica and aluminium
(d) Iron Oxide and potassium
Answer:
(c) Silica and aluminium

Question 1(ii).
Which one of the following is the salient feature of metamorphic rocks?
(a) Changeable
(b) Quite
(c) Crystalline
(d) Foliation
Answer:
(a) Changeable

Question 1(iii).
Which one of the following is not a single element mineral?
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Mica
(d) Graphite
Answer:
(c) Mica

Question 1(iv).
Which one of the following is the hardest mineral?
(a) Topaz
() Diamond
(c) Quartz
(d) Feldspar
Answer:
(b) Diamond

Question 1(v).
Which one of the following is not a sedimentary rock?
(a) Tillite
(6) Borax
(c) Breccia
(d) Marble
Answer:
(d) Marble

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

Question 2(i).
What do you mean by rocks? Name the three major classes of rocks.
Answer:
The earth’s crust is composed of rocks. A rock is made up by aggregate of one or more minerals. Rock may be hard or soft and in varied colors. For example, granite is hard, soapstone is soft. Gabbro is black and quartzite can be milky white. Rocks do not have a definite composition of mineral constituents. Feldspar and quartz are the most common minerals found in rocks.
There are many different kinds of rocks which are grouped under three families on the basis of their mode
of formation.
They are:

• Igneous Rocks
• Sedimentary Rocks and
• Metamorphic Rocks.

Question 2(ii).
What is an igneous rock? Describe the method of formation and characteristics of igneous rock.
Answer:
The igneous rocks are formed when magma cools and solidifies. Igneous rocks form out of magma and lava from the interior of the earth, therefore, they are known as primary rocks.

Method of formation: When magma in its upward movement cools and turns into solid form it is called igneous rock. The process of cooling and solidification can happen in the earth’s crust or on the surface of the earth. Igneous rocks are classified based on texture. The texture depends upon the size and arrangement of grains or other physical conditions of the materials. If molten material is cooled slowly at great depths, mineral grains may be very large. Sudden cooling (at the surface) results in small and smooth grains. Intermediate conditions of cooling would result in intermediate sizes of grains making up igneous rocks. Granite, gabbro, pegmatite, basalt, volcanic breccia and tuff are some of the examples of igneous rocks.

Features:

• They are made up of solidified lava.
• Liquid lava gets solidified by gradual cooling
• They are compact
• They do not have fossils.

Question 2(iii).
What is meant by sedimentary rock? Describe the mode of formation of sedimentary rock.
Answer:
The word ‘sedimentary’ is derived from the Latin word sedimentum, which means settling. All types of rocks of the earth’s surface are exposed to denudational agents, and are broken up into various sizes of fragments. Such fragments are transported by different exogenous agencies and deposited.

These deposits through compaction turn into rocks. This process is called lithification. In many sedimentary rocks, the layers of deposits retain their characteristics even after lithification. Hence, we see a number of layers of varying thickness in sedimentary rocks like sandstone, shale etc.

Question 2(iv).
What relationship explained by rock cycle between the major type of rocks?
Answer:
Rocks do not remain in their original form for long but may undergo transformation. Rock cycle is a continuous process through which old rocks are transformed into new ones. Igneous rocks are primary rocks and other rocks (sedimentary and metamorphic) form from these primary rocks. Igneous rocks can be changed into metamorphic rocks. The fragments derived out of igneous and metamorphic rocks form into sedimentary rocks.

Sedimentary rocks themselves can turn into fragments and the fragments can be a source for formation of sedimentary rocks. The crustal rocks (igneous, metamorphic and sedimentary) once formed may be carried down into the mantle (interior of the earth) through subduction process (parts or whole of crustal plates going down under another plate in zones of plate convergence) and the same melt down due to increase in temperature in the interior and turn into molten magma, the original source for igneous rocks.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words.

Question 3(i).
Define the term ‘mineral’ and name the major classes of minerals with their physical characteristics.
Answer:
A mineral is a naturally occurring organic and inorganic substance, having an orderly atomic structure and a definite chemical composition and physical properties. A mineral is composed of two or more elements. But, sometimes single element minerals like sulphur, copper, silver, gold, graphite etc. are found. There are at least 2,000 minerals that have been named and identified in the earth crust; but almost all the commonly occurring ones are related to six major mineral groups that are known as major rock forming minerals.
Some major minerals and their characteristics:

• Feldspar: Silicon and oxygen are common elements in all types of feldspar and sodium, potassium, calcium, aluminium etc. are found in specific feldspar variety.
• Quartz: It is one of the most important components of sand and granite. It consists of silica. It is a hard mineral virtually insoluble in water.
• Pyroxene: Pyroxene consists of calcium, aluminum, magnesium, iron and silica. Pyroxene forms 10 per cent of the earth’s crust.
• Amphibole: Aluminium, calcium, silica, iron, magnesium are the major elements of amphiboles. They form 7 percent of the earth’s crust.
• Mica: It comprises of potassium, aluminium, magnesium, iron, silica, etc. It forms 4 per cent of the earth’s crust.
• Olivine: Magnesium, iron and silica are major elements of olivine. It is used in jewellery. It is usually a greenish crystal, often found in basaltic rocks.
• Metallic Minerals: These minerals contain metal content and can be sub-divided into three types:
  • Precious metals,
  • Ferrous metals
  • Non- ferrous metals.

Question 3(ii).
Describe the nature and mode of origin of the chief types of rock at the earth’s crust. How will you distinguish them?
Answer:
The earth’s crust is composed of rocks. A rock is made up by aggregate of one or more minerals. Rock may be hard or soft and in varied colours. For example, granite is hard, soapstone is soft. Gabbro is black and quartzite can be milky white. Rocks do not have definite composition of mineral constituents. Feldspar and quartz are the most common minerals found in rocks.

There are many different kinds of rocks which are grouped under three families on the basis of their mode of formation. They are:

1. Igneous Rocks
2. Sedimentary Rocks and
3. Metamorphic Rocks.

1. Igneous Rocks: The igneous rocks are formed when magma cools and solidifies. Igneous rocks form out of magma and lava from the interior of the earth, therefore, they are known as primary rocks. When magma in its upward movement cools and turns into solid form it is called igneous rock. Intermediate conditions of cooling would result in intermediate sizes of grains making up igneous rocks. Granite, gabbro, pegmatite, basalt, volcanic breccia and tuff are some of the examples of igneous rocks.

2. Sedimentary Rocks: The word ‘sedimentary’ is derived from the Latin word sedimentum, which means ‘settling’. All types of rocks of the earth’s surface are exposed to denudational agents, and are broken up into various sizes of fragments. Such fragments are transported by different exogenous agencies and deposited. These deposits through compaction turn into rocks. This process is called lithification. In many sedimentary rocks, the layers of deposits retain their characteristics even after lithification. Hence, we see a number of layers of varying thickness . in sedimentary rocks like sandstone, shale, etc.

3. Metamorphic Rocks: The word ‘metamorphic’ means ‘change of form’. These rocks form under the action of pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes. Metamorphism occurs when rocks are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten magma rising through the crust comes in contact with the crustal rocks or the underlying rocks are subjected to great amounts of pressure by overlying rocks.

Question 3(iii).
What are metamorphic rocks? Describe the types of metamorphic rock and how are they formed?
Answer:
The word metamorphic means ‘change of form’. These rocks form under the action of pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes. Metamorphism takes place when rocks are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten magma rising through the crust comes in contact with the crustal rocks or the underlying rocks are subjected to great amounts of pressure by overlying rocks. Metamorphism is a process by which already consolidated rocks undergo recrystallisation and reorganisation of materials within original rocks.
Mechanical disruption and reorganisation of the original minerals within rocks because of breaking and crushing without any appreciable chemical changes is called dynamic metamorphism. The materials of rocks chemically alter and recrystallise due to thermal metamorphism.
There are two types of thermal metamorphism:

1. Contact metamorphism: In contact metamorphism the rocks come in contact with hot intruding magma and lava and the rock materials recrystallise under high temperatures. Quite often new materials form out of magma or lava are added to the rocks.

2. Regional metamorphism: In regional metamorphism, rocks undergo recrystallisation due to deformation caused by tectonic shearing together with high temperature or pressure or both.

During metamorphism in some rocks grains or minerals get arranged in layers or lines. Such an arrangement of minerals or grains in metamorphic rocks is called foliation or lineation. Sometimes minerals or materials of different groups are arranged into alternating thin to thick layers appearing in light and dark shades. Such a structure in metamorphic rocks is called banding and rocks displaying banding are called banded rocks. Types of metamorphic rocks depend upon original rocks that were subjected to metamorphism. Metamorphic rocks are classified into two major groups foliated rocks and non-foliated rocks. Gneissoid, granite, syenite, slate, schist, marble, quartzite etc. are some examples of metamorphic rocks.

Project Work

1. Collect different rock samples and try to recognise them from their physical characteristics and identify their family.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Science of minerals is called:
(a) Mineralogy
(b) Mineral Science
(c) Petrology
(d) Ironology.
Answer:
(c) Petrology

Question 2.
Which rocks are formed by metamorphism of lime stone?
(a) Marble
(b) Slate
(c) Granite
(d) Schist.
Answer:
(a) Marble

Question 3.
Petrology does not study:
(a) Structure of Minerals
(b) Shape and Organization of Minerals
(c) Sources of Minerals
(d) Types of rocks.
Answer:
(d) Types of rocks.

Question 4.
Which of the following is not an example of metamorphic rocks?
(a) Slate
(b) Marble
(c) Limestone
(d) Schist.
Answer:
(c) Limestone

Question 5.
During metamorphism in some rocks grains or minerals get arranged in layers or lines. Such an arrangement of minerals or grains in metamorphic rocks is called what?
(a) Lineation
(b) Arrangement
(c) Functionality
(d) Disshaping.
Answer:
(a) Lineation

Question 6.
Which of the following mineral is hardest?
(a) Gypsum
(b) Calcite
(c) Topaz
(d) Diamond.
Answer:
(d) Diamond

Question 7.
Which of the following mineral is non metallic?
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Coal
(d) Gold.
Answer:
(c) Coal

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a sedimentary rock?
(a) Sandstone
(b) Coal
(c) Limestone
(d) Marble.
Answer:
(d) Marble.

Question 9.
Which of the following is not an example of igneous rocks?
(a) Granite
(b) Gabbro
(c) Pegmatite
(d) Marble.
Answer:
(d) Marble.

Question 10.
98% of the crust of the earth is made of eight elements. Which of the following is not among these eight elements?
(a) Oxygen and Silicon
(b) Aluminium and Iron
(c) Calcium and Sodium
(d) Mica and Granite.
Answer:
(d) Mica and Granite.

Question 11.
Which of the following is not a precious metal?
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Platinum
(d) Copper.
Answer:
(d) Copper.

Question 12.
Which of the following is a ferrous mineral?
(a) Copper
(b) Iron Ore
(c) Aluminium
(d) Tin.
Answer:
(b) Iron Ore

Question 13.
Which of the following is a non-ferrous mineral?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Tin
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Class 11 Geography Chapter5 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What does Pyroxene consists of? What percent of the earth does it occupy? What kind of colour it has?
Answer:
Pyroxene consists of calcium, aluminum, magnesium, iron and silica. Pyroxene forms 10 per cent of the earth’s crust. It is in green or black colour.

Question 2.
What does Amphibole consists of? What percent of the earth does it occupy? What kind of colour it has? Where is it used?
Answer:
Aluminium, calcium, silica, iron, magnesium are the major elements of amphiboles. They form 7 per cent of the earth’s crust. It is in green or black colour and is used in asbestos industry.

Question 3.
What are the important elements of the crust of the earth?
Answer:
About 98 percent of the total crust of the earth is composed of eight elements like oxygen, silicon, aluminium, iron, calcium, sodium, potassium and magnesium, and the rest is constituted by titanium, hydrogen, phosphorous, manganese, sulphur, carbon, nickel and other elements.

Question 4.
What do you mean by cleavage?
Answer:
The tendency to break in given directions producing relatively plane surfaces is called cleavage.

Question 5.
What do you mean by fracture?
Answer:
Internal molecular arrangement is sc complex that there are no planes o molecules; the crystal will break in an irregular manner, not along planes of cleavage.

Question 6.
What does Feldspar consists of? What percent of the earth does it occupy? What kind of colour it has? Where is it used?
Answer:
Silicon and oxygen are common elements in all types of feldspar and sodium, potassium, calcium, aluminium etc. are found in specific feldspar variety. Half of the earth’s crust is composed of feldspar. It has light cream to salmon pink colour. It is used in ceramics and glass making.

Question 7.
What is petrology?
Answer:
It is science of rocks. A petrologist studies rocks in all their aspects viz., mineral composition, texture, structure, origin, occurrence, alteration and relationship with other rocks.

Question 8.
Give some examples of igneous rocks.
Answer:
Granite, gabbro, pegmatite, basalt, volcanic breccia and tuff are some of the examples of igneous rocks.

Question 9.
What is rock cycle?
Answer:
Rock cycle is a continuous process through which old rocks are transformed into new ones.

Question 10.
What is Quartz? Give some of its features.
Answer:
It is one of the most important components of sand and granite. It consists of silica. It is a hard mineral virtually insoluble in water. It is white or colourless and used in radio and radar. It is one of the most important components of granite.

Question 11.
What is the form of inner and outer form of the earth?
Answer:
The interior most part of the earth is in liquid form but its uppermost layer is in the form of solid.

Question 12.
What is the root source of all types of rocks?
Answer:
Magma which is found in the interior of the earth is the root source of all minerals.

Question 13.
Give one example of solid, liquid and gaseous form of minerals.
Answer:
Solid form of minerals is coal, liquid form is petroleum and diesel and gaseous form is natural gas.

Question 14.
What does mica consists of? What per cent, of the earth crust consists of mica? In which type of rocks is it found? Where is it used?
Answer:
It comprises of potassium, aluminium, magnesium, iron, silica etc. It forms 4 per cent of the earth’s crust. It is commonly found in igneous and metamorphic rocks. It is used in electrical instruments.

Question 15.
What are non-metallic minerals? Give examples.
Answer:
These minerals do not contain metal content. Sulphur, phosphates and nitrates are examples of non-metallic minerals. Cement is a mixture of non- metallic minerals.

Question 16.
What does Olivine consists of? In which type of rocks is it found?
Answer:
Magnesium, iron and silica are major elements of olivine. It is used in jewellery. It is usually a greenish crystal, often found in basaltic rocks.

Question 17.
What are the root sources of igneous rocks?
Answer:
Magma is the root source of igneous rocks. The igneous rocks are formed when magma cools and solidifies. When magma in its upward movement cools and turns into solid form it is called igneous rock. The process of cooling and solidification can happen in the earth’s crust or on the surface of the earth.

Question 18.
How does systematic formation of minerals take place?
Answer:
The basic source of all minerals is the hot magma in the interior of the earth. When magma cools, crystals of minerals appear and a systematic series of minerals are formed in sequence to solidify so as to form rocks.

Question 19.
What kind of qualities do minerals have?
Answer:
A mineral is a naturally occurring organic and inorganic substance having an orderly atomic structure and a definite chemical composition and physical properties for example sulphur, copper, silver, and gold, etc.

Question 20.
Name the minerals which are single elements?
Answer:
Sulphur, copper, silver, gold, graphite are single elements.

Question 21.
Name the hardest and softest mineral?
Answer:
Diamond is the hardest and Talc is the softest mineral

Question 22.
Name the mineral which is used in Asbestos industry?
Answer:
Amphiboles is used in Asbestos industry.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Classify the sedimentary rocks on the basis of mode of formation.
Answer:
Depending upon the mode of formation, sedimentary rocks are classified into three major groups:

• Mechanically formed: Some of its examples are sandstone, conglomerate, limestone, shale, loess, etc.
• Organically formed: Some of its examples are geyserite, chalk, limestone, coal, etc.
• Chemically formed: Some of its examples are chert, limestone, halite, potash, etc.

Question 2.
What are metallic minerals? Explain their classification with examples.
Answer:
These minerals contain metal content and can be sub-divided into three types:

• Precious metals: Gold, silver, platinum, etc.
• Ferrous metals: Iron, nickel, chromite, maganese.
• Non-ferrous metals: Copper, lead, zinc, tin, etc.

Question 3.
Explain the features of sedimentary rocks.
Answer:
The word ‘sedimentary’ is derived from the Latin word sedimentum, which means settling. All types of rocks of the earth’s surface are exposed to denudational agents, and are broken up into various sizes of fragments. Such fragments are transported by different exogenous agencies and deposited. These deposits through compaction turn into rocks. This process is called lithification. In many sedimentary rocks, the layers of deposits retain their characteristics even after lithification. Hence, we see a number of layers of varying thickness in sedimentary rocks like sandstone, shale, etc.

Question 4.
Differentiate between:

• Minerals and rocks
• Sedimentary and igneous rocks
• Igneous and metamorphic rocks
• Extrusive Igneous and intrusive igneous.

Answer:
(i) Minerals and rocks

(ii) Sedimentary and igneous rocks

(iii) Igneous and metamorphic rocks

(iv) Extrusive Igneous and intrusive igneous.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain any six physical characteristics?
Answer:
A brief information about some important minerals in terms of their nature and physical characteristics is given below :

• External crystal form: Determined by internal arrangement of the molecules- cubes octahedrons, hexagonal prism, etc.
• Fracture: Internal molecular arrangement so complex there are two planes of molecules; the crystal will break in an irregular manner, not along planes of cleavage.
• Lustre: Appearance of a material without regard to color; each mineral has a distinctive lustre like metallic, silky, glossy, etc.
• Streak: Colour of the ground powder of any mineral. It may be of the same colour as the mineral or may differ malachite is green and gives green streak.
• Structure: Particular arrangement of the individual crystal; fine, medium
  or coarse grained; fibrous—separable, divergent and radiating.
• Specific gravity: The ratio between the weight of a given object and the weight of an equal volume of water; object weighted in air and then weighed in water and divide weight in air by the difference of the two weights.

Question 2.
Explain some important minerals and their characteristics.
Answer:
Some major minerals and their characteristics

• Feldspar: Silicon and oxygen are common elements in all types of feldspar and sodium, potassium, calcium, aluminium etc. are found in specific feldspar variety.
• Question uartz: It is one of the most important components of sand and granite. It consists of silica. It is a hard mineral virtually insoluble in water.
• Pyroxene: Pyroxene consists of cak ium, aluminum, magnesium, iron and silica. Pyroxene forms 10 percent of the earth’s crust.
• Amphibole: Aluminium, calcium, silica, iron, magnesium are the major elements of amphiboles. They form 7 per cent of the earth’s crust.
• Mica: It comprises of potassium, aluminium, magnesium, iron, silica etc. It forms 4 per cent of the earth’s crust.
• Olivine: Magnesium, iron and silica are major elements of olivine. It is used in jewellery. It is usually a greenish crystal, often found in basaltic rocks.

Question 3.
Rocks do not remain in their original form for long but may undergo transformation. Explain.
Answer:
Rocks do not remain in their original form for long but may undergo transformation. Rock cycle is a continuous process through which old rocks are transformed into new ones. Igneous rocks are primary rocks and other rocks form from these primary rocks. Igneous rocks can be changed into metamorphic rocks. The fragments derived out of igneous and metamorphic rocks form into sedimentary rocks. Sedimentary rocks themselves can turn into fragments and the fragments can be a source for formation of sedimentary rocks. The crustal rocks (igneous, metamorphic and sedimentary) once formed may be carried down into the mantle through subduction process and the same melt down due to increase in temperature in the interior and turn into molten magma, the original source for igneous rocks

Class 11 Geography Chapter 3 Hots Questions

Question 1.
Igneous rocks act as a source of all other types of rocks. Justify.
Answer:
Yes, it is right to say that igneous rocks act as a source of all other rocks. Therefore these are also called primary rocks.
Igneous rocks are primary rocks and other rocks i.e. sedimentary and metamorphic formed from these primary rocks. Igneous rocks can be changed into metamorphic rocks. The fragments derived out of igneous and metamorphic rocks form into sedimentary rocks. Sedimentary rocks themselves can turn into fragments and the fragments can be a source for formation of sedimentary rocks. The crustal rocks (igneous, metamorphic and sedimentary) once formed may be carried down into the mantle (interior of the earth) through subduction process (parts or whole of crustal plates going down under another plate in zones of plate convergence) and the same melt down due to increase in temperature in the interior and turn into molten magma, the original source for igneous rocks.

Question 2.
Metallic minerals are more useful as compared to non metallic minerals. Do you agree? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, I do not agree. Minerals both metallic and non metallic have their own importance.
1. Metallic minerals: These minerals contain metal content and can be sub-divided into three types:

• Precious metals: Gold, Sivler, Platinum, etc
• Ferrous metals: Iron, Nickel, Chromite, Maganese
• Non-ferrous metals: Copper, Lead, Zinc, Tin etc.

2. Non metallic minerals: These minerals do not have a metal content. Sulphur, phosphates and nitrates are some of the examples. Cement is a mixture of non metallic mineral. These minerals have their own utility. We can’t manage without these minerals.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 5 Minerals and Rocks appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 Freedom

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
What is meant by freedom? Is there a relationship between freedom for the individual and freedom for the nation?
Answer:
Freedom refers to do all those things which do not harm to others and, are essential for a person’s own development. There is a close relationship between the freedom for individual and for the nation because:

• If a nation is free, every individual of it, will be free to enhance their creativities and capabilities.
• Development of a nation depends on cooperation, creativity and capabilities of individuals, which can be exercised in the absence of external constraints.
• A free society enables all its members to develop their potentials with the minimum of social constraints
• Though, no society can be imagined without the absence of constraints but it is necessary to determine whether it is acceptable or justified.
• Social constraints are necessary to be examined through debates, discussions between individual and the society.

Question 2.
What is the difference between the negative and positive conception of liberty?
Answer:
Negative conception of liberty:

• It implies the absence of restraints and rights to do whatever one likes.
• This conception may make the powerful person more powerful to keep the weaker ones on their mercy.
• This conception of liberty faces the following drawbacks:

(a) Liberty is concerned with the area control, not with its source, hence, this is not necessary to have democracy to enjoy freedom.

(b) The state should control the liberty of an individual only up to the limit where he interferes in other’s such liberty. Positive conception of liberty:

• It refers to the society in which adequate facilities are available for each and every section of society to enjoy desirable rights.
• This believes that any individual or section should not hinder the progress of others.
• People can enjoy all freedoms which are permissible by laws.
• It ensures the growth of poor, weak and downtrodden people also.
• It interprets that liberty lies in the removal of hindrances.

Question 3.
What is meant by social constraints? Are constraints of any kind necessary for enjoying freedom?
Answer:
Social constraints refer to the restrictions imposed by the society whosoever is unauthorized for the same.
Necessity of constraints:

• There are various sections who demand a ban on films, books, articles, journals, etc.
• Though banning is an easy solution for the short term to meet the demand immediately, but it is very harmful for long term prospects due to development of this habit only.
• If we willingly accept restrictions to pursue our goals or ambitions our freedom is not limited. In any case if we are not coerced into accepting the conditions we cannot claim to be curtailed freedom.

Question 4.
What is the role of the state in upholding freedom of its citizens?
Answer:

• Freedom of citizens of the state determines the scope of freedom, i.e. freedom of citizens depend on the will of rulers in a monarchy, democratic state grants fundamental right to the citizens.
• A state is controlled by the government because, whatever the government does, it affect, the freedom of citizens and if any conflict becomes violent, it hinders the day-to-day life of state.
• If state is unable to manage army and police, it disrupts the law and order of the country.
• A welfare state always initiates to protect the freedom of backward people along its all citizens.

Question 5.
What is meant by freedom of expression? What in your view would be a reasonable restriction on this freedom? Give examples.
Answer:

• It is a right of non-interference by the state.
• It is a fundamental value and hence, society must be willing to bear some inconvenience also to protect it from people whosoever wants to restrict it.

Reasonable restrictions:

• At various times the demands have been raised to ban on books, play, films and academic articles, etc.
• Freedom has been classified as positive and negative liberty which requires some justifiable constraints only.
• But these constraints are supposed to be supported by the people, and moral arguments.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 NCERT Extra Questions Solved

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you know about Nelson Mandela?
Answer:
Nelson Mandela has been recognized as the greatest leader of South Africa who always fought against racial discrimination.

Question 2.
Name the autobiography of Nelson Mandela.
Answer:
Long Walk of Freedom.

Question 3.
What is the theme of ‘Long Walk of Freedom’?
Answer:

• Personal struggle of Nelson Mandela against Apartheid.
• Resistance of people to the segregating policies of the White minorities.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Apartheid?
Answer:
Apartheid is a policy of racial discrimination between the Blacks and the Whites, which was largely practicised after Second World War.

Question 5.
What is freedom?
Answer:
Freedom refers to an individual who is allowed to do all those things which do not harm anyone but, essential for one’s own development.

Question 6.
Mention the two aspects of freedom.
Answer:
Positive and negative freedom.

Question 7.
What is personal liberty?
Answer:
Personal liberty refers to have freedom in personal and individual matters by human beings as marriages, religion, food, clothing, etc.

Question 8.
What is economic liberty?
Answer:
Economic liberty refers to ensure employment to the citizens and to make them free from tyranny of employers also along with the provisions of minimum wages also.

Question 9.
What is political liberty?
Answer:

• It exists only in democracy.
• Citizens participate in government by choosing their representatives.
• Citizens have the right to be elected themselves also.

Question 10.
What is religious liberty?
Answer:
The citizens enjoy the right to adopt and preach any religion without interference of state until it is in the interest of nation and individuals.

Question 11.
What is natural liberty?
Answer:
Natural liberty refers to a man to be born free. With the advancement of civilisation, men formed the state or society himself and sacrificed his freedom. In his free state or natural liberty man was very happy and satisfied. But state binds him everywhere on chain.

Question 12.
What is a legal liberty?
Answer:
Legal liberty or freedom refers to framing of one’s own constitution by any country to run their administrative system as per their own will.

Question 13.
What is freedom of speech and expression?
Answer:
Freedom of speech and expression gives the right to express one’s own ideas by speaking or writing. But the freedom is subject to the following limitations:

• Defamation of any citizen
• Security of state
• Contempt of court
• Friendly relations with foreign countries.

Question 14.
How can we argue in favour of positive freedom?
Answer:

• Positive freedom refers to the absence of unjust and oppressive restraints.
• To provide equal opportunities to all for self-development in a full potential.

Question 15.
What is the value of freedom for human progress?
Answer:
Every individual is free to act to the extent that one’s activities do not curtail the freedom of others. Some restraints are put on freedom to limit one’s activities to avoid any type of harm to anybody or state or society, whichever is considered essential.

Question 16.
What are the two aspects of positive liberty?
Answer:

• Adequate measures are supposed to be given for the freedom of citizens.
• No conflict should be arisen between the individual and society.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 NCERT Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Liberty and equality may be complementary as well as opposed to each other”. Justify.
Answer:
Complementary:

• An individual cannot develop one’s own personality in the absence of equality even though the freedom is given.
• Civil equality is possible only when everybody is treated equally before law.

Opposed:

• Liberty does not mean the equal work and equal wages for all.
• Liberty and equality are not the terms of implementations.

Question 2.
What does the negative liberty stand for?
Answer:

• Negative liberty refers to limit state interference.
• Open competition is the best means of development.

But, it has following drawbacks:

• It is not possible in civilized life.
• Absence of all restraints is neither practical nor desirable.

Question 3.
“Liberty implies proper restraints rather than absence of restraints”. Justify the statement.
Answer:

• Liberty refers to the absence of restraints upon the existence of those social conditions which are mandate guarantee of individual happiness.
• It is the duty of the state to create the opportunity to be developed best by an individual.

Question 4.
What are the necessary safeguards for the maintenance of liberty?
Answer:

• Distribution of powers between the center and the state to make constituent units independent.
• Constitution guarantees fundamental rights not to be violated by any government.
• Independent judiciary has been set up as a guardian of rights.
• Democratic set up protects the authorities from becoming auto crate because person in authority are to face elections at regular intervals.
• There should be no privileged classes in the society.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 NCERT Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 28) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

At various times there have been demands to ban books, plays, films, or academic articles in research journals. Let us think about this demand to ban books in the light of our discussion so far which sees freedom as ‘the making of choices’, where a distinction is made between ‘negative and positive liberty’, where we recognise the need for ‘justifiable constraints’ but these have to be supported by proper procedures and important moral arguments. Freedom of expression is a fundamental value and for that society must be willing to bear some inconvenience to protect it from people who want to restrict it. Remember Voltaire’s statement — ‘I disapprove of what you say but I will defend to death your right to say it’. How deeply are we committed to this freedom of expression?

Questions:
1. What are the two aspects of liberty?
2. What is a fundamental value among rights?
3. How can we support justifiable constraints?
Answers:
1. Positive and Negative are the two aspects of liberty.

2. Freedom of speech and expression.

3. By proper procedures and important moral arguments

Passage 2.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 27) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The individual to develop his or her capability must get the benefit of enabling positive conditions in material, political and social domains. That is, the person must not be constrained by poverty or unemployment; they must have adequate material resources to pursue their wants and needs. They must also have the opportunity to participate in the decision making process so that the laws made reflect their choices, or at least take those preferences into account. Above all, to develop their mind and intellect, individuals must have access to education and other associated opportunities necessary to lead a reasonably good life.

Questions:
1. What is a must for an individual’s development?
2. On what terms, individuals must not be constrained?
3. How can the laws reflect the citizen’s choices?
Answers:
1. Positive conditions must be enabled to each and every individual in political, material and social domains.

2. By poverty and unemployment, hence everybody must have adequate material resources to pursue their requirements.

3. The citizens must have the opportunity to participate in decision making process.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the relationship between liberty and authority? Explain.
Answer:

• The one who thinks freedom is to do whatever one likes to do, is a wrong opinion. So the authority imposes restrictions which are a number of times undesirable.
• On the contrary, the basic idea is that liberty and authority goes hand-in-hand because authority not only guarantees the freedom but equal opportunities also.
• Both authority and liberty must remain within their limits for the existence of both the state and individuals.
• If one crosses the limits, one is bound to destroy the purpose for which it was being maintained.
• Excess of liberty may destroy authority and concentration of authority can abolish the existence of liberty.

Question 2.
Mention the elements of liberty.
Answer:

• Liberty is not the absence of all restraints because peace and order in the society can be maintained only by putting some constraints on people.
• Freedom refers to power to do something worthy which should be desirable in the society.
• Freedom is given to everybody on equal basis in place of giving to a particular person.
• Liberty or freedom can be enjoyed only in the society within a positive framework.
• Freedom provides an opportunity to an individual to realise the best of one in one-self as per one’s potential.

Question 3.
Explain different kinds of liberty.
Answer:

• Natural liberty is natural to man who is born free with it. But it has no existence in the civilized society.
• Individual liberty refers to enjoy complete freedom in their personal and individual matters, i.e. food, clothing, religion, shelter, etc. But an individual should get the liberty up to the extent not to harm any other individual.
• Political freedom refers to the complete freedom to citizens to participate in formation of government and to elect their representatives as well as to be elected as a representatives.
• Economic liberty refers to equal wages and work opportunities to all and absence of exploitation, unemployment, unfair wage, insecurity, etc.
• Religious liberty refers to the rights to adopt and preach any religion of their choices and no interference from the state in this matter.
• Civil liberty refers to enjoy all liberties to be permissible under the laws and everybody should be treated as equal before law.

Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 Freedom appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• This question paper consists of 30 questions divided into four sections- A, B, C and D.
• Section A contains 6 questions of 1 mark each, Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 8 questions of 4 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in two questions of 1 mark each, two questions of 2 marks each, four questions of 3 marks each and three questions of 4 marks each. You have to attempt only one of the alternative in all such questions.
• Use of calculators is not permitted.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I

Section – A

Question 1.
What is the common difference of an A.P. in which a₂₁ – a₇ = 84 ? [1]
Solution:
Given, a₂₁ – a₇ = 84
⇒ (a + 20d) – (a + 6d) = 84
⇒ a + 20d – a – 6d = 84
⇒ 20d – 6d = 84
⇒ 14d = 84
Hence common difference = 6

Question 2.
If the angle between two tangents drawn from an external point P to a circle of radius a and centre O, is 60°, then find the length of OP. [1]
Solution:
Given, ∠APB = 60°
∠APO = 30°

In right angle ΔOAP,
= cosec 30°
⇒ = 2
⇒ OP = 2a

Question 3.
If a tower 30 m high, casts a shadow 10√3 m long on the ground, then what is the angle of elevation of the sun? [1]
Solution:
In ΔABC,
tan θ =

⇒ tan θ = = √3
⇒ tan θ = tan 60°
⇒ θ = 60°
Hence angle of elevation is 60°.

Question 4.
The probability of selecting a rotten apple randomly from a heap of 900 apples is 0-18. What is the number of rotten apples in the heap? [1]
Solution:
Total apples = 900
P(E) = 0.18

No. of rotten apples = 900 × 0.18 = 162

Section – B

Question 5.
Find the value of p, for which one root of the quadratic equation px² – 14x + 8 = 0 is 6 times the other. [2]
Solution:
Given equation is px² – 14x + 8 = 0
Let one root = α
then other root = 6α

Question 6.
Which term of the progression 20, 19, 18, 17, … is the first negative term ? [2]
Solution:
Given, A.P. is 20, 19, 18, 17, …..

Question 7.
Prove that the tangents drawn at the endpoints of a chord of a circle make equal angles with the chord. [2]
Solution:
Given, a circle of radius OA and centred at O with chord AB and tangents PQ & RS are drawn from point A and B respectively.

Draw OM ⊥ AB, and join OA and OB.
In ∆OAM and ∆OMB,
OA = OB (Radii)
OM = OM (Common)
∠OMA = ∠OMB (Each 90°)
∆OAM = ∆OMB (By R.H.S. Congurency)
∠OAM = ∠OBM (C.PC.T.)
Also, ∠OAP = ∠OBR = 90° (Line joining point of contact of tangent to centre is perpendicular on it)
On addition,
∠OAM + ∠OAP = ∠OBM + ∠OBR
⇒ ∠PAB = ∠RBA
⇒ ∠PAQ – ∠PAB = ∠RBS – ∠RBA
⇒ ∠QAB = ∠SBA
Hence Proved

Question 8.
A circle touches all the four sides of a quadrilateral ABCD. Prove that AB + CD = BC + DA [2]
Solution:
Given, a quad. ABCD and a circle touch its all four sides at P, Q, R, and S respectively.

To prove: AB + CD = BC + DA
Now, L.H.S. = AB + CD
= AP + PB + CR + RD
= AS + BQ + CQ + DS (Tangents from same external point are always equal)
= (AS + SD) + (BQ + QC)
= AD + BC
= R.H.S.
Hence Proved.

Question 9.
A line intersects the y-axis and x-axis at the points P and Q respectively. If (2, -5) is the mid-point of PQ, then find the coordinates of P and Q. [2]
Solution:
Let co-ordinate of P (0, y)
Co-ordinate of Q (x, 0)

Question 10.
If the distances of P(x, y), from A(5, 1) and B(-1, 5) are equal, then prove that 3x = 2y. [2]
Solution:
Given, PA = PB

⇒ x² + 25 – 10x + y² + 1 – 2y = x² + 1 + 2x + y² + 25 – 10y
⇒ -10x – 2y = 2x – 10y
⇒ -10x – 2x = -10y + 2y
⇒ 12x = 8y
⇒ 3x = 2y
Hence Proved.

Section – C

Question 11.
If ad ≠ bc, then prove that the equation (a² + b²) x² + 2 (ac + bd) x + (c² + d²) = 0 has no real roots. [3]
Solution:
Given, ad ≠ bc
(a² + b²) x² + 2(ac + bd)x + (c² + d²) = 0
D = b² – 4ac
= [2(ac + bd)]² – 4 (a² + b²) (c² + d²)]
= 4[a²c² + b²d² + 2abcd] – 4(a²c² + a²d² + b²c² + b²d²)
= 4[a²c² + b²d² + 2abcd – a²c² – a²d² – b²c² – b²d²]
= 4[-a²d² – b²c² + 2abcd]
= -4[a²d² + b²c² – 2abcd]
= -4[ad – bc]²
D is negative
Hence given equation has no real roots.
Hence Proved.

Question 12.
The first term of an A.E is 5, the last term is 45 and the sum of all its terms is 400. Find the number of terms and the common difference of the A.P. [3]
Solution:
Given, a = 5, a_n = 45, S_n = 400
We have, S_n = [a + a_n]
⇒ 400 = [5 + 45]
⇒ 400 = [50]
⇒ 25n = 400
⇒ n = 16
Now, a_n = a + (n – 1) d
⇒ 45 = 5 + (16 – 1)d
⇒ 45 – 5 = 15d
⇒ 15d = 40
⇒ d =
So n = 16 and d =

Question 13.
On a straight line passing through the foot of a tower, two points C and D are at distances of 4 m and 16 m from the foot respectively. If the angles of elevation from C and D of the top of the tower are complementary, then find the height of the tower. [3]
Solution:
Let height AB of tower = h m.

Question 14.
A bag contains 15 white and some black balls. If the probability of drawing a black ball from the bag is thrice that of drawing a white ball, find the number of black balls in the bag. [3]
Solution:
Given, no. of white balls = 15
Let no. of black balls = x
Total balls = (15 + x)
According to the question,
P(Blackball) = 3 × P(White ball)
⇒ = 3 ×
⇒ x = 45
No. of black balls in bag = 45

Question 15.
In what ratio does the point (, y) the line segment joining the points P(2, -2) and Q(3, 7) ? Also, find the value of y. [3]

Solution:
Let point R divides PQ in the ratio k : 1

Question 16.
Three semicircles each of diameter 3 cm, a circle of diameter 4.5 cm and a semi-circle of radius 4.5 cm are drawn in the given figure. Find the area of the shaded region. [3]

Solution:
Given, radius of large semi-circle = 4.5 cm

Question 17.
In the given figure, two concentric circles with centre O have radii 21 cm and 42 cm. If ∠AOB = 60°, find the area of the shaded region. [Use π = ]

Solution:
Angle for shaded region = 360° - 60° = 300°
Area of shaded region

Question 18.
Water in a canal, 5-4 m wide and 1.8 m deep, is flowing with a speed of 25 km/hour. How much area can it irrigate in 40 minutes, if 10 cm of standing water is required for irrigation ? [3]
Solution:
Width of canal = 5.4 m
Depth of canal = 1.8 m
Length of water in canal for 1 hr = 25 km = 25000 m
Volume of water flown out from canal in 1 hr = l × b × h = 5.4 × 1.8 × 25000 = 243000 m³
Volume of water for 40 min = 243000 × = 162000 m³
Area to be irrigated with 10 cm standing water in field =
= m²
= 1620000 m²
= 162 hectare

Question 19.
The slant height of a frustum of a cone is 4 cm and the perimeters of its circular ends are 18 cm and 6 cm. Find the curved surface area of the frustum. [3]
Solution:
Slant height of frustum 'l' = 4 cm
Perimeter of upper top = 18 cm

Question 20.
The dimensions of a solid iron cuboid are 4.4 m × 2.6 m × 1.0 m. It is melted and recast into hollow cylindrical pipe of 30 cm inner radius and thickness 5 cm. Find the length of the pipe. [3]
Solution:
Inner radius of pipe 'r' = 30 cm
The thickness of pipe = 5 cm
Outer radius 'R' = 30 + 5 = 35 cm
Now, Volume of hollow pipe = Volume of Cuboid

Section - D

Question 21.
Solve for x:

Solution:

Question 22.
Two taps running together can fill a tank in 3 hours. If one tap takes 3 hours more than the other to fill the tank, then how much time will each tap take to fill the tank ? [4]
Solution:
Let tank fill by one tap = x hrs
other tap = (x + 3) hrs
Together they fill by 3 = hrs

Either x - 5 = 0 or 13x + 24 = 0
x = 5, x = -24/13 (Rejected)
One tap fill the tank in 5 hrs
So other tap fill the tank in 5 + 3 = 8 hrs

Question 23.
If the ratio of the sum of the first n terms of two A.P.S is (7n + 1) : (4n + 27), then find the ratio of their 9th terms. [4]
Solution:
Ratio of the sum of first n terms of two A.P.s are

Hence ratio of 9th terms of two A.P.s is 24 : 19

Question 24.
Prove that the lengths of two tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal. [4]
Solution:
Given, a circle with centre O and external point P. |
Two tangents PA and PB are drawn.

To Prove: PA = PB
Construction: Join radius OA and OB also join O to P.
Proof: In ∆OAP and ∆OBP,
OA = OB (Radii)
∠A = ∠B (Each 90°)
OP = OP (Common)
∆AOP = ∆BOP (RHS cong.)
PA = PB [By C.PC.T.]
Hence Proved.

Question 25.
In the given figure, XY and XY are two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O and another tangent AB with a point of contact C, is intersecting XY at A and X'Y' at B. Prove that ∠AOB = 90°. [4]

Solution:
Given, XX' & YY' are parallel.
Tangent AB is another tangent which touches the circle at C.

To prove: ∠AOB = 90°
Construction: Join OC.
Proof: In ∆OPA and ∆OCA,
OP = OC (Radii)
∠OPA = ∠OCA (Radius ⊥ Tangent)
OA = OA (Common)
∆OPA = ∆OCA (CPCT)
∠1 = ∠2 ...(i)
Similarly, ∆OQB = ∆OCB
∠3 = ∠4 ...(ii)
Also, POQ is a diameter of circle
∠POQ = 180° (Straight angle)
∠1 + ∠2 + ∠3 + ∠4 = 180°
From eq. (i) and (ii),
∠2 + ∠2 + ∠3 + ∠3 = 180°
⇒ 2(∠2 + ∠3) = 180°
⇒ ∠2 + ∠3 = 90°
Hence, ∠AOB = 90°
Hence Proved.

Question 26.
Construct a triangle ABC with side BC = 7 cm, ∠B = 45°, ∠A = 105°. Then construct another triangle whose sides are times the corresponding sides of the ∆ABC. [4]
Solution:
BC = 7 cm, ∠B = 45°, ∠A = 105°
∠C = 180 ° - (∠B + ∠A) = 180° - (45° + 105°) = 180° - 150° = 30°

Steps of construction:

1. Draw a line segment BC = 7 cm.
2. Draw an angle 45° at B and 30° at C. They intersect at A.
3. Draw an acute angle at B.
4. Divide angle ray in 4 equal parts as B₁, B₂, B₃ and B₄.
5. Join B₄ to C.
6. From By draw a line parallel to B₄C intersecting BC at C'.
7. Draw another line parallel to CA from C' intersecting AB ray at A.
   Hence, ∆A'BC' is required triangle such that ∆A'BC' ~ ∆ABC with A'B = AB.

Question 27.
An aeroplane is flying at a height of 300 m above the ground. Flying at this height, the angles of depression from the aeroplane of two points on both banks of a river in opposite directions are 45° and 60° respectively. Find the width of the river. [Use √3 = 1.732] [4]
Solution:
Let aeroplane is at A, 300 m high from a river. C and D are opposite banks of river.

Question 28.
If the points A(k + 1, 2k), B(3k, 2k + 3) and C(5k - 1, 5k) are collinear, then find the value of k. [4]
Solution:
Since A(k + 1, 2k), B(3k, 2k + 3) and C(5k - 1, 5k) are collinear points, so area of triangle = 0.

Question 29.
Two different dice are thrown together. Find the probability that the numbers obtained have
(i) even sum, and
(ii) even product. [4]
Solution:
When two different dice are thrown together
Total outcomes = 6 × 6 = 36
(i) For even sum: Favourable outcomes are
(1, 1), (1, 3), (1, 5), (2, 2), (2, 4), (2, 6),
(3, 1), (3, 3), (3, 5), (4, 2), (4, 4), (4, 6),
(5, 1), (5, 3), (5, 5), (6, 2), (6, 4), (6, 6)
No. of favourable outcomes = 18

(ii) For even product: Favourable outcomes are
(1, 2), (1, 4), (1, 6), (2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6),
(3, 2), (3, 4), (3, 6), (4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6),
(5, 2), (5, 4), (5, 6), (6, 1), (6, 2), (6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6).
No. of favourable outcomes = 27

Question 30.
In the given figure, ABCD is a rectangle of dimensions 21 cm × 14 cm. A semicircle is drawn with BC as diameter. Find the area and the perimeter of the shaded region in the figure. [4]

Solution:
Area of Shaded region = Area of a rectangle - Area of a semi-circle

Question 31.
In a rain-water harvesting system, the rainwater from a roof of 22 m × 20 m drains into a cylindrical tank having a diameter of base 2 m and height 35 m. If the tank is full, find the rainfall in cm. Write your views on water conservation. [4]
Solution:
Volume of water collected in system = Volume of a cylindrical tank

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Section - B

Question 10.
Which term of the A.P. 8, 14, 20, 26,... will be 72 more than its 41st term? [2]
Solution:
A.P. is 8, 14, 20, 26,....
a = 8, d = 14 - 8 = 6
Let a_n = a₄₁ + 72
a + (n - 1)d = a + 40d + 72
⇒ (n - 1) 6 = 40 × 6 + 72 = 240 + 72 = 312
⇒ n - 1 = 52
⇒ n = 52 + 1 = 53rd term

Section - C

Question 18.
From a solid right circular cylinder of height 24 cm and radius 0.7 cm, a right circular cone of the same height and same radius is cut out. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid. [3]
Solution:
Given,
Height of cylinder 'h' = 2.4 cm,
Radius of base 'r' = 0.7 cm

Question 19.
If the 10th term of an A.E is 52 and the 17th term is 20 more than the 13th term, find the A.P. [3]
Solution:
Given, a₁₀ = 52;
a₁₇ = a₁₃ + 20
⇒ a + 16d = a + 12d + 20
⇒ 16d = 12d + 20
⇒ 4d = 20
⇒ d = 5
Also, a + 9d = 52
⇒ a + 9 × 5 = 52
⇒ a + 45 = 52
⇒ a = 7
Therefore A.E = 7, 12, 17, 22, 27,....

Question 20.
If the roots of the equation (c² - ab) x² - 2(a² - bc) x + b² - ac = 0 in x are equal, then show that either a = 0 or a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc. [3]
Solution:

Section - D

Question 28.
Solve for x:

Solution:

Question 29.
A train covers a distance of 300 km at a uniform speed. If the speed of the train is increased by 5 km/hour, it takes 2 hours less on the journey. Find the original speed of the train. [4]
Solution:
Let original speed of train = x km/hr
Increased speed of train = (x + 5) km/hr
Distance = 300 km
According to the question,

Question 30.
A man observes a car from the top of a tower, which is moving towards the tower with a uniform speed. If the angle of depression of the car changes from 30° to 45° in 12 minutes, find the time taken by the car now to reach the tower. [4]
Solution:
Let AB is a tower, the car is at point D at 30° and goes to C at 45° in 12 minutes.

Question 31.
In the given figure, ΔABC is a right-angled triangle in which ∠A is 90°. Semi-circles are drawn on AB, AC and BC as diameters. Find the area of the shaded region. [4]

Solution:
In right ΔBAC, by Pythagoras theorem,

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Section - B

Question 10.
For what value of n, are the terms of two A.Ps 63, 65, 67,.... and 3, 10, 17,.... equal ? [2]
Solution:
1st A.P. is 63, 65, 67,...
a = 63, d = 65 - 63 = 2
a_n = a + (n - 1 )d = 63 + (n - 1) 2 = 63 + 2n - 2 = 61 + 2n
2nd A.E is 3, 10, 17,...
a = 3, d = 10 - 3 = 7
a_n = a + (n - 1 )d = 3 + (n - 1) 7 = 3 + 7n - 7 = 7n - 4
According to question,
61 + 2n = 7n - 4
⇒ 61 + 4 = 7n - 2n
⇒ 65 = 5n
⇒ n = 13
Hence, 13th term of both A.P. is equal.

Section - C

Question 18.
A toy is in the form of a cone of radius 3-5 cm mounted on a hemisphere of the same radius on its circular face. The total height of the toy is 15*5 cm. Find the total surface area of the toy. [3]
Solution:
Given, radius of base 'r' = 3.5 cm
Total height of toy = 15.5 cm
Height of cone 'h' = 15.5 - 3.5 = 12 cm

Question 19.
How many terms of an A.E 9, 17, 25,... must be taken to give a sum of 636? [3]
Solution: A.P. is 9, 17, 25,....,
S_n = 636
a = 9, d = 17 - 9 = 8

Question 20.
If the roots of the equation (a² + b²) x² - 2 (ac + bd) x + (c² + d²) = 0 are equal, prove that = [3]
Solution:

Section - D

Question 28.
Solve for x:

Solution:

Question 29.
A takes 6 days less than B to do a work. If both A and B working together can do it in 4 days, how many days will B take to finish it? [4]
Solution:
Let B can finish a work in x days
so, A can finish work in (x - 6) days
Together they finish work in 4 days
Now,

⇒ 4 (2x - 6) = x² - 6x
⇒ 8x - 24 = x² - 6x
⇒ x² - 14x + 24 = 0
⇒ x² - 12x - 2x + 24 = 0
⇒ x(x - 12) - 2(x - 12) = 0
⇒ (x - 12) (x - 2) = 0
Either x - 12 = 0 or x - 2 = 0
x = 12 or x = 2 (Rejected)
B can finish work in 12 days
A can finish work in 6 days.

Question 30.
From the top of a tower, 100 m high, a man observes two cars on the opposite sides of the tower and in a same straight line with its base, with angles of depression 30° and 45°. Find the distance between cars.
[Take √3 = 1.732] [4]
Solution:
Let AB is a tower.
Cars are at point C and D respectively

Distance between two cars = x + y = 173.2 + 100 = 273.2 m

Question 31.
In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle with AC = 24 cm, AB = 7 cm and ∠BOD = 90°. Find the area of the shaded region. [4]

Solution:
Given, C (O, OB) with AC = 24 cm AB = 7 cm and ∠BOD = 90°

∠CAB = 90° (Angle in semi-circle)
Using pythagoras theorem in ∆CAB,
BC² = AC² + AB² = (24)² + (7)² = 576 + 49 = 625
⇒ BC = 25 cm
Radius of circle = OB = OD = OC = cm
Area of shaded region = Area of semi-circle with diamieter BC - Area of ∆CAB + Area of sector BOD

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 Equality

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Some people argue that inequality is natural while others maintain that it is equality which is natural and the inequalities which we notice around us are created by the society. Which view do you support? Give reasons.
Answer:
Natural inequalities:

• These inequalities emerge due to differences in personal traits either physical, or mental or emotional.
• These inequalities are the result of different characteristics and abilities of inborn qualities of a man.
• These natural differences cannot be changed also.

Social inequalities:

• Socially produced inequalities are emerged as a result of inequal opportunities, i.e. family background, educational factors, etc.
• Social differences reflect the values of society, which may appear to be unjust.

Conclusion:

• The discrimination’s based on gender, colour, race, etc. have been made by society rather than based on inborn characteristics.
• Some natural differences have become alterable also, i.e. progress in medical sciences and technology has helped to several disabled persons to work more efficiently.
• Certain inequalities have been existing for centuries seem justified, and based on natural inequalities, i.e. women are considered weaker than man in every aspect, hence to deny them equal rights is considered the justifiable.

Question 2.
There is a view that absolute economic equality is neither possible nor desirable. It is argued that the most a society can do is to try and reduce the gaps between the richest and the poorest members of society. Do you agree?
Answer:
Economic equality: It refers to availability of equal opportunities to one and all present in the society, without any discrimination:

• Absolute economic equality of income has never existed in society. But democratic set up provides equal opportunities to at least those who are capable and possess potential with equal opportunities, inequalities may exist between individuals, but one’s position may be improved with the sincere efforts in the society.

Economic inequalities:

• Economic inequality exists if there are differences in wealth, property or income between different sections of society.
• It enhances the gap between the upper, middle, poor-rich and persons living below poverty line.

Measurement of economic inequalities:

• To estimate the number of people who are living below poverty line.
• To find out the differences between the rich and poor.

Importance of economic equality:

• Economic equality guarantees each and everybody equal opportunities to improve one’s potential and capabilities.
• Economic equality reduces the gap between the rich and the poor or high or middle class, etc.
• Economic disparities can make society more violent because the reforms cannot take place in such a society.

Question 3.
Match the following concepts with appropriate instances:

Answer:
(a) Affirmative action: Banks offer higher rate of interest to senior citizen.
Appropriate instances:

• Senior citizens have contributed to the development and service of society throughout their age.
• Their age increases but their income decreases due to medical needs and social needs.

(b) Equality of opportunity: Every child should get free education
Appropriate instances:

• Every child should get an equal opportunity to get education, i.e. no one should be discriminated on any ground.
• This type of inequalities is against the principle of equality.

(c) Equal Rights: Every adult citizen has a right to vote.
Appropriate instances:

• This principle is based on one person one vote one value, i.e. every adult citizen enjoys the right to vote.
• No citizen should be discriminated on any ground to exempt from enjoying right to vote.

Question 4.
A government report on farmers’ problems says that small and marginal farmers cannot get good prices from the market. It recommends that the government should intervene to ensure a better price but only for small and marginal farmers. Is this recommendation consistent with the principle of equality?
Answer:
Yes, this recommendation is consistent on the basis of the principle of equality:

• A democratic country should have the provisions to protect the interests of small and marginal farmers.
• The small and the marginal farmers can get assistance from government for their betterment.
• The farmers (medium and small) can get social, economic and political justice due to this arrangements.

Question 5.
Which of the following violates the principles of equality? And why?
(a) Every child in the class will read the text of the play by turn.
(b) The Government of Canada encouraged white Europeans to migrate to Canada from the end of the Second World War till 1960.
(c) There is a separate railway reservation counter for the senior citizens.
(d) Access to some forest areas is reserved for certain tribal communities.
Answer:

• This does not violate the principle of equality because every child is asked to perform the same activity without any discrimination.
• This violates the principle of equality due to discrimination on the basis of colour.
• It is not violating the principle of equality because senior citizens should be honoured and every individual one day can enjoy the same privileges.
• This violates the principle of equality because all tribal people should be treated equally, no one should be discriminated by reserving forest areas for some only.

Question 6.
Here are some arguments in favour of the right to vote for women. Which of these are consistent with the idea of equality? Give reasons.
(a) Women are our mothers. We shall not disrespect our mothers by denying them the right to vote.
(b) Decisions of the government affect women as well as men, therefore, they also should have a say in choosing the rulers.
(c) Not granting women the right to vote will cause disharmony in the family.
(d) Women constitute half of humanity. You cannot subjugate them for long time by denying them the right to vote.
Answer:
The statement
(a) and
(d) both are consistent with the idea of equality because:

• Decisions of government affects every individual either men or women equally.
• Women should not be discriminated on the basis of gender.
• Equality and freedom are the two vital principles in a society, hence women cannot be denied the right to vote.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 NCERT Extra Questions Solved

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is equality?
Answer:
Equality refers to avail equal opportunities to one and all without any discrimination on any ground and everybody is equal before law.

Question 2.
Mention the attitude of colonial masters about black people during twentieth century.
Answer:
The colonial masters followed the policy of apartheid, i.e. discrimination on the ground of colour of people. Black coloured people were considered to be of less intelligence, childlike or to be good at manual work only.

Question 3.
Mention the attitude towards woman in orthodox India before independence.
Answer:
Women were considered the weaker sex than men, hence it has justified to deny her equality of rights.

Question 4.
What is ‘Feminism’?
Answer:
A political doctrine of equal rights for men and women.

Question 5.
What is a political ideal of equality?
Answer:
All human beings exercise equal worth, regardless of their nationality, colour, race or gender

Question 6.
What is political equality?
Answer:

• Every citizen should enjoy equal political rights without any discrimination.
• It is based on one person, one vote, one value.
• Every citizen can contest elections also.

Question 7.
What is slave trade?
Answer:
Slave trade began when Africans were enslaved by the individual traders and transported to work in American plantations of sugar, rice, coffee, cotton and tobacco-during 15-16th centuries. Gradually, slaves began to be sold and purchased and treated in an inhuman manner.

Question 8.
“Natural needs no longer can be seen as unalterable”. Justify the statement.
Answer:
Yes, natural needs no longer can be seen as unalterable because:

• Advancement in medical science has made disabled persons to be efficient to work effectively.
• Computers even assist to blind persons.
• A person’s look can also be changed with cosmetic surgery.

Question 9.
How can the concept of equality be argued?
Answer:

• Equality can affect on family autonomy to increase competition in society.
• It may create bureaucracy to engulf between the masses and the state.
• It may lead to lowering of incentives and affect the efficiency of production process as well.

Question 10.
What is equality before law?
Answer:

• Article 14 of Constitution of India guarantees all citizens of India equality before law and equal protection within territories of India as well.
• No citizen can be discriminated on the ground of caste, colour, race, religion, language, sex, etc.

Question 11.
What is the difference between equality and uniformity?
Answer:
Equality refers to a common identity of rewards and treatment as well. But uniformity refers to put each and every individual at one stage which is against the law of nature because men are unequal naturally, i.e. a mathematician cannot be placed to manual work as a mason.

Question 12.
Mention different kinds of equality.
Answer:

• Natural equality implies that all men are born free and equal, hence the state should promote social and economic opportunities to offer equality.
• Social equality makes all persons equally eligible to enjoy various opportunities.
• Civil equality refers to discrimination among citizens of country and all persons enjoy some laws.
• Political equality refers to enjoy political rights, i.e. to form political associations, contest elections, etc.
• Economic equality refers to enjoy wealth equally in the society and abolish poverty.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 NCERT Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the main features of equality?
Answer:

• Equality does not offer any special privileges in the society to treat every member equal.
• Equality provides adequate opportunities to each and every citizen in the society to develop one’s own potential.
• Every individual must have an access to the basic needs of life in a society.

Question 2.
Mention political dimensions of equality.
Answer:
Political equality provides equal political rights to every individual. Its dimensions are as follows:

• For the success of democracy, all the citizens should have an equal right to enjoy universal adult suffrage.
• Every individual must have the right to be elected as a representative also to contest elections.
• The citizens must enjoy the right to hold public offices also without any discrimination except qualification.

Question 3.
“Social inequalities can be minimized by an affirmative action”. Analyse the statement.
Answer:

• Disadvantaged communities should be provided with the facilities of scholarships and hostels, etc. in various institutions
• India has adopted the policy of reservations of seats and quotas to provide equal opportunity.
• SC’s, ST’s and OBC’s require special attention, and protection to create a just society to expand democracy.

Question 4.
What are positive and negative aspects of equality?
Answer:
Positive aspect:

• To provide adequate opportunities to all.
• Every individual should get equal opportunities to develop one’s own potential upto their best level.

Negative aspect:

• It refers to absence of undue privileges to people.
• To remove man-made inequalities in the society.
• No one should be discriminated on the ground of caste, colour, race, religion, language, etc.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 NCERT Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 49) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

While reflecting on the issue of equality, a distinction must also be made between treating everyone in an identical manner and treating everyone as equals. The latter may on occasions need differential treatment but in all such cases the primary consideration is to promote equality. Differential or special treatment may be considered to realise the goal of equality but it requires justification and careful reflection. Since differential treatment for different communities was part and parcel of the caste system and practices like apartheid, liberals are usually very wary of deviations from the norm of identical treatment.

Questions:
1. What distinction should be made while reflecting on the issues of equality?
2. What would be the prime consideration to treat everyone equal?
3. What does special treatment require?
Answers:
1. It must be made between treating everyone in an identical manner or everyone as equal.

2. To promote equality while treating differently.

3. It requires justification and careful reflection.

Passage 2.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 50) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Many of these issues relating to the pursuit of equality have been raised by the women’s movement. In the nineteenth century women struggled for equal rights. They demanded, for instance, the right to vote, the right to receive degrees in colleges and universities and the right to work — that is, the same rights as the men in their society. However, as they entered the job market they realized that women required special facilities in order to exercise these rights. For instance, they required some provision for maternity leave and creches in the workplace. Without special considerations of this kind they could not seriously compete for jobs or enjoy a successful professional and personal life. They needed, in other words, sometimes to be treated differently if they are to enjoy the same rights as men.

Questions:
1. Why have women’s movements been raised?
2. What were the main demands of women’s movement?
3. What can be done for women to compete for jobs?
Answers:
1. To demand equality.

2. The right to vote, the right to work, the right to receive degrees in colleges and universities.

3. They should be given special consideration, i.e. provision for maternity leave and creches in workplace, etc.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Political liberty cannot be imagined without economic liberty.” Analyse.
Answer:
Liberty and equality are contemporary to each other. Political liberty gives a freedom to an individual to participate in the activities of state, i.e.:

• Right to vote to form government
• Right to hold public offices
• Right to form political party
• Right to contest elections.

Economic equality provides equal opportunities to earn the livelihood by an individual i.e.:

• All the individuals must have the means to meet their needs.
• Exploitation should not exist.
• Means of production and distribution should be made for public welfare. Relationship between political liberty and

economic equality:

• A poor man is attracted sometimes to false commitments of politicians as they lack in proper intelligence to identify right or wrong because they could not attain even good education, hence they are unable to use their right to vote properly.
• Sometimes poor voters sell out their votes to rich candidates who trap them by making commitments to fulfill their requirements either in cash or kind, hence the poor voters misuse their right to vote in place of utilizing it for the welfare of country.
• To contest elections is an expensive activity and the poor who cannot afford one day meal easily, it is not possible to contest elections. Hence, the poors are exempted naturally from contesting elections due to the lack of wherewithal.It can be concluded that political liberty requires economic equality also.

Question 2.
What is the relationship between liberty and equality?
Answer:
Liberty and equality run parallel to each other but sometimes it is presumed that both are opposed to each other.
1. Liberty and equality are complementary:

• Liberty in absence of equality is meaningless.
• Prof. Laski, Powny Polard and Maclver support this view.
• Liberty does not mean the same work and equal wages for all the people.

2. Liberty and equality are opposed to each other:

• Liberty and equality are opposed to each other to curtail individual liberty.
• De Tocqueviflle and Lord Acton are the supporters of this view.
• If equality is established in actual sense, then no one will enjoy the liberty to sharpen one’s own potential.
• Nature has also not created each and every individual equal hence everyone differs in one’s own traits, qualities, capabilities, etc.

It can be concluded that to enjoy them, one requires the presence of others, i.e. political liberty requires equal political status and civil liberty requires equality in the eyes of law to be treated equally. Hence economic equality is of least importance.

Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solutions

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