Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 6 Geomorphic Processes

Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Multiple choice questions

Question 1(i).
Which one of the following processes is a gradational process?
(a) Deposition
(b) Diastrophism
(c) Volcanism
(d) Erosion.
Answer:
(d) Erosion

Question 1(ii).
Which one of the following materials is affected by hydration process?
(a) Granite
(b) Clay
(c) Quartz
(d) Salts.
Answer:
(d) Salts

Question 1(iii).
Debris avalanche can be included in the category of:
(а) Landslides
(b) Slow flow mass movements’
(c) Rapid flow mass movements
(d) Subsidence.
Answer:
(c) Rapid flow mass movements.

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

Question 2(i)
It is weathering that is responsible for bio-diversity on the earth. How?
Answer:
Weathering processes lead to breaking down the rocks into smaller fragments and preparing the way for formation of not only regolith and soils, but also erosion and mass movements. Bio-diversity is basically a result of forests and vegetation. Forests and vegetation depend upon the depth of weathering mantles. Erosion cannot be significant if the rocks are not weathered. It implies that weathering aids mass wasting, erosion and reduction of relief and changes in landforms are a consequence of erosion.

Question 2(ii)
What are mass movements that are real rapid and perceptible? List
Answer:
These movements transfer the mass of rock debris down the slopes under the direct influence of gravity. That means, air, water or ice do not carry debris with them from place to place but on the other hand the debris may carry with it air, water or ice.
Mass movements can be slow or rapid. Rapid movements are mostly prevalent in humid climatic regions and occur over gentle to steep slopes. When slopes are steeper, even the bedrock especially of soft sedimentary rocks like shale or deeply weathered igneous rock may slide downslope.

Question 2(iii)
What are the various mobile and mighty exogenic geomorphic agents and what is the prime job they perform?
Answer:
The exogenic processes derive their energy from atmosphere determined by the ultimate energy from the sun and also the gradients created by tectonic factors. All the exogenic geomorphic processes are covered under a general term, denudation. The word ‘denude’ means to strip off or to uncover. As there are different climatic regions on the earth’s surface, the exogenic geomorphic processes vary from region to region. Temperature and precipitation are the two important climatic elements that control various processes.
Their prime job includes weathering, mass wasting/movements, erosion and transportation.

Question 2(iv)
Is weathering essential as a pre-requisite in the formation of soils? Why?
Answer:
Yes, weathering is an essential pre-requisite in the formation of soils. Weathering is action of elements of weather and climate over earth materials. There are a number of processes within weathering which act either individually or together to affect the earth materials in order to reduce them to fragmental state. Weathering is mechanical disintegration and chemical decomposition of rocks through the actions of various elements of weather and climate.

Weathering is an important process in the formation of soils. When rocks undergo weathering, rocks start to break up and take form of soil gradually.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words.

Question 3(i).
“Our earth is a playfield for two opposing groups of geomorphic processes.” Discuss.
Answer:
It is absolutely right to say that our earth is playfield for two opposing groups of forces. These forces are exogenic and endogenic. The external forces are known as exogenic forces and the internal forces are known as endogenic forces. The differences in the internal forces operating from within the earth which built up the crust have been responsible for the variations in the outer surface of the crust. The earth’s surface is being continuously subjected to external forces induced basically by energy (sunlight). Of course, the internal forces are still active though with different intensities. That means, the earth’s surface is being continuously subjected to by external forces originating within the earth’s atmosphere and by internal forces from within the earth.

The actions of exogenic forces result in wearing down (degradation) of relief/elevations and filling up (aggradation) of basins/ depressions, on the earth’s surface. The endogenic forces continuously elevate or build up parts of the earth’s surface and hence the exogenic processes fail to even out the relief variations of the surface of the earth. So, variations remain as long as the opposing actions of exogenic and endogenic forces continue. In general terms, the endogenic forces are mainly land building forces and the exogenic processes are mainly land wearing forces.

Question 3(ii).
Exogenic geomorphic processes derive their ultimate energy from the sun’s heat. Explain.
Answer:
The exogenic processes derive their energy from atmosphere determined by the ultimate energy from the sun and also the gradients created by tectonic factors. Various minerals in rocks possess their own limits of expansion and contraction. With rise in temperature, every mineral expands and pushes against its neighbour and as temperature falls, a corresponding contraction takes place. Because of diurnal changes is the cause of splitting of individual grains within rocks, which eventually fall off. This process of falling off of individual grains may result in granular disintegration or granular foliation. Salt crystallisation is most effective of all salt-weathering processes. In areas with alternating wetting and drying conditions salt crystal growth is favoured and the neighbouring grains are pushed aside. Sodium chloride and gypsum crystals in desert areas heave up overlying layers of materials and with the result polygonal cracks develop all over the heaved surface. With salt crystal growth, chalk breaks down most readily, followed by limestone, sandstone, shale, gneiss and granite, etc.

Question 3(iii).
Are physical and chemical weathering processes independent of each other? If not, why? Explain with examples.
Answer:
No, physical and chemical weathering are not independent of each other. They are different but still interdependent. Physical or mechanical weathering processes depend on some applied forces. The applied forces could be: (a) gravitational forces such as overburden pressure, load and shearing stress; (b) expansion forces due to temperature changes, crystal growth or animal activity; (c) water pressures controlled by wetting and drying cycles. Chemical weathering depends on a group of weathering processes viz; solution, carbonation, hydration, oxidation and reduction act on the rocks to decompose, dissolve or reduce them to a fine clastic state through chemical reactions by oxygen, surface and/or soil water and other acids. Water and air (oxygen and carbon dioxide) along with heat must be present to speed up all chemical reactions. Over and above the carbon dioxide present in the air, decomposition of plants and animals increases the quantity of carbon dioxide underground. These chemical reactions on various minerals are very much similar to the chemical reactions in a laboratory.

These forces are interdependent. For example availability of water and heat depends on physical factors while chemical reactions depend on availability of water and heat.

Question 3(iv).
How do you distinguish between the process of soil formation and soil- forming factors? What is the role of climate and biological activity as two important control factors in the formation of soils?
Answer:
Process refers to step by step procedure or methodical ways in which soil comes into existence while factors causing this formation are called soil forming factors. Soil formation process: Soil formation is called pedogenesis. It depends on weathering the most. It is this weathering mantle which is the basic input for soil to form. The weathered material or transported deposits are colonised by bacteria and other inferior plant bodies like mosses and lichens. Several minor organisms may take shelter within the mantle and deposits. The dead remains of organisms and plants help in humus accumulation. Minor grasses and ferns may grow; later, bushes and trees will start growing through seeds brought in by birds and wind. Plant roots penetrate down, burrowing animals bring up particles, mass of material becomes porous and sponge- like with a capacity to retain water and to permit the passage of air and finally a mature soil, a complex mixture of mineral and organic products forms.

Soil-forming factors: Five basic factors control the formation of soils:

1. Parent material
2. Topography
3. Climate
4.  Biological activity
5. Time.

In fact, soil forming factors act in union and affect the action of one another. Climate: Climate is an important active factor in soil formation. The climatic elements involved in soil development are :

1. moisture and
2.  temperature.

Precipitation gives soil its moisture content which makes the chemical and biological activities possible. Excess of water helps in the downward transportation of soil components through the soil (eluviation) and deposits the same down below (illuviation). Temperature acts in two ways — increasing or reducing chemical and biological activity. Chemical activity is inci’eased in higher temperatures, reduced in cooler temperatures (with an exception of carbonation) and stops in freezing conditions. That is why, tropical soils with higher temperatures show deeper profiles and in the frozen tundra regions soils contain largely mechanically broken materials.

Biological Activity: The vegetative cover and organisms that occupy the parent materials from the beginning and also at later stages help in adding organic matter, moisture retention, nitrogen, etc. Dead plants provide humus. Some organic acids which form during humification aid in decomposing the minerals of the soil parent materials. Intensity of bacterial activity shows up differences between soils of cold and warm climates. Humus accumulates in cold climates as bacterial growth is slow.

With undecomposed organic matter because of low bacterial activity, layers of peat develop in sub-arctic and tundra climates. Rhizobium, a type of bacteria, lives in the root nodules of leguminous plants and fixes nitrogen beneficial to the host plant. The influence of large animals like ants, termites, earthworms, rodents etc., is mechanical, but, it is nevertheless important in soil formation as they rework the soil up and down. In case of earthworms, as they feed on soil, the texture and chemistry of the soil that comes out of their body changes.

Project Work

1. Depending upon the topography and materials around you, observe and record climate, possible weathering process and soil contents and characteristics.
Answer:
Attempt yourself.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is a type of mass movement?
(a) Slow movements
(b) Rapid movements
(c) Landslides
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a cause of soil erosion?
(a) Rock Material
(b) Landform
(c) Climate
(d) Deposition.
Answer:
(d) Deposition

Question 3.
Which of the following is a form of weathering?
(a) Physical
(b) Chemical
(c) Biological
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 4.
What term is used for the reaction of carbonate and bicarbonate with minerals?
(a) Carbonate
(b) Carbonation
(c) Carbolic
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(b) Carbonation

Question 5.
Weathering is important for:
(a) Air
(b) National economy
(c) Climate
(d) Earth.
Answer:
(6) National economy

Question 6.
Which type of weathering occurs due to growth of ice within pores and cracks of rocks during repeated cycles of freezing and melting?
(a) Frost weathering
(b) Landslides
(c) Water weathering
(d) Crystallisation.
Answer:
(a) Frost weathering

Question 7.
Which of the following is an example of endogenic forces?
(a) Erosion
(b) Volcanism
(c) Weathering
(d) Balance.
Answer:
(b) Volcanism

Question 8.
Which of the following is not associated with diastrophism?
(a) Orogenic processes
(b) Epeirogenic processes
(c) Plate tectonics
(d) Balance.
Answer:
(d) Balance

Question 9.
Which of the following is a systematic process?
(a) Weathering
(b) Diastrophism
(c) Volcanism
(d) Balanced erosion.
Answer:
(d) Balanced erosion

Question 10.
What are geomorphic causes of erosion?
(a) Flowing water
(b) Underground water
(c) Air
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 11.
Which of the following process is not associated with physical weathering?
(a) Frost wedging
(b) Expansion
(c) Carbonation
(d) Thawing.
Answer:
(c) Carbonation

Question 12.
All earth materials having a sloping surface and tend to produce movement of matter in down slope direction. It is called:
(a) Soil erosion
(b) Landslides
(c) Volcanism
(d) Slump.
Answer:
(a) Soil erosion

Question 13.
Which of the following is affected by hydration?
(a) Granite
(b) Soil
(c) Quartz
(d) Rocks.
Answer:
(b) Soil

Question 14.
Where’does oxidation take place?
(a) Where there is ready access to the atmosphere and oxygenated waters.
(b) Where there are plants.
(c) Where there is moisture in air.
(d) In mountainous regions.
Answer:
(a) where there is ready access to the atmosphere and oxygenated waters.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What kind of changes are brought by internal forces?
Answer:
Internal forces give birth to new landforms on the earth.

Question 2.
What is done by external forces?
Answer:
External forces bring changes in existing landforms on the earth. Through erosion and deposition, they keep bringing changes in topography of the earth.

Question 3.
What are geomorphic processes?
Answer:
The endogenic and exogenic forces causing physical stresses and chemical actions on earth materials and bringing about changes in the configuration of the surface of the earth are known as geomorphic processes.

Question 4.
What is weathering?
Answer:
Weathering is defined as mechanical disintegration and chemical decomposition of rocks through the actions of various elements of weather and climate.

Question 5.
What is denudation?
Answer:
The term ‘denude’ means to strip off or to uncover. Weathering, mass wasting/ movements, erosion and transportation are included in denudation.

Question 6.
How do weathering activities work?
Answer:
A group of weathering processes viz; solution, carbonation, hydration, oxidation and reduction act on the rocks to decompose, dissolve or reduce them to a fine clastic state through chemical reactions by oxygen, surface and/or soil water and other acids.

Question 7.
What are different types of weathering activities?
Answer:
There are three major groups of weathering processes :

1. chemical;
2. physical or mechanical;
3. biological weathering processes.

Question 8. How can you classify mass movements?
Answer: Mass movements are of three types:

1. slow movement
2. rapid movement and
3. landslides.

Question 9.
What are different types of movement?
Answer:
Heave (heaving up of soils due to frost growth and other causes), flow and slide are three important types of movements.

Question 10.
What do you mean by reduction?
Answer:
When oxidised minerals are placed in an environment where oxygen is absent, reduction takes place.

Question 11.
Physical weathering depends on some applied forces. What are these?
Answer:
Physical or mechanical weathering processes depend on some applied forces. The applied forces could be:

• gravitational forces such as overburden pressure, load and shearing stress;
• expansion forces due to temperature changes, crystal growth or animal activity;
• water pressures controlled by wetting and drying cycles.

Question 12.
Where does oxidation occur? Which minerals get affected by oxidation?
Answer:
Oxidation occurs where there is ready access to the atmosphere and oxygenated waters. The minerals most commonly involved in this process are iron, manganese, sulphur, etc.

Question 13.
What are the climatic factors involved in the formation of soil?
Answer:
The climatic elements involved in soil development are :

• moisture in terms of its intensity, frequency and duration of precipitation -evaporation and humidity;
• temperature in terms of seasonal and diurnal variations.

Question 14.
What are geomorphic agents?
Answer:
An agent is a mobile medium (like running water, moving ice masses, wind, waves and currents, etc.) which removes, transports and deposits earth materials. Running water, groundwater, glaciers, wind, waves and currents, etc., can be called geomorphic agents.

Question 15.
What do you mean by stress?
Answer:
Gravitational force acts upon all earth materials having a sloping surface and tend to produce movement of matter in down slope direction. Force applied per unit area is called stress.

Question 16.
Why is weathering of rocks important for economy?
Answer:
Weathering of rocks and deposits is important for the economy because it helps in the enrichment and concentrations of certain valuable ores of iron, manganese, aluminium, copper etc., which are of great importance for the national economy.

Question 17.
What are tors?
Answer:
In rocks like granites, smooth surfaced and rounded small to big boulders form due to such exfoliation. It is called tors.

Question 18.
When does frost weathering takes place?
Answer:
Frost weathering occurs due to growth of ice within pores and cracks of rocks during repeated cycles of freezing and melting.

Question 19.
What is enrichment?
Answer:
When rocks undergo weathering, some materials are removed through chemical or physical leaching by groundwater and thereby the concentration of valuable materials increases. It makes the concentration of the same valuable material sufficient and economically viable to be exploited, processed and refined. This is called enrichment.

Question 20.
What factors are helpful in mass movement?
Answer:
Weak unconsolidated materials, thinly bedded rocks, faults, steeply dipping beds, vertical cliffs or steep slopes, abundant precipitation and torrential rains and scarcity of vegetation etc., favour mass movements.

Question 21 .
What do you mean by mudflow?
Answer:
In the absence of vegetation cover and with heavy rainfall, thick layers of weathered materials get saturated with water and either slowly or rapidly flow down along definite channels. It looks like a stream of mud within a valley.

Question 22.
What is soil erosion?
Answer:
Erosion involves acquisition and transportation of rock debris. The erosion can be defined as “application of the kinetic energy associated with the agent to the surface of the land along which it moves”. Kinetic energy is computed as KE = 1/2 mv2 where ‘m’ is the mass and ‘v’ is the velocity. If erosion takes place with soil, it is called soil erosion.

Question 23.
Define Gradation?
Answer:
The phenomenon of wearing down of relief variation of the surface of the earth through erosion is known as gradation.

Question 24.
What is meant by geomorphic process?
Answer:
The endogenic and exogenic forces causing physical stresses and chemical actions on earth material and bringing about changes in the configuration of the surface of the earth is known as geomorphic process.

Question 25.
What are geomorphic agents? Give examples?
Answer:
Any exogenic elements of nature (like water, ice, wind, etc.) capable of acquiring and transporting earth materials-can be called geomorphic agents. An agent is a mobile medium (like running water, moving ice, etc.) which removes, transports and deposits earth materials. Examples: Running water, glacier, wind waves and currents, etc. can be called geomorphic agents.

Question 26.
What is meant by diastrophism?
Answer:
All processes that move elevate or built up portion of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism.

Question 27.
What do the word volcanism and volcano indicate?
Answer:
Volcanism includes the movement of molten rock onto or towards the earth’s surface and also form formation of many intrusive and extrusive forms.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What factors have caused diastrophism?
Answer:
All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism. They include:

• Orogenic processes: It involves mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust;
• Epeirogenic processes: It involves uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust;
• Earthquakes: It involves local relatively minor movements;
• Plate tectonics: It involves horizontal movements of crustal plates. All these processes-cause pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes which in turn induce metamorphism of rocks.

Question 2.
Why is the surface of the earth uneven?
Answer:
The difference in the internal forces operation from within the earth which built up the crust have been responsible for the variations in the outer surface of the crust. Due to variations in geothermal gradients and strength, the actions of endogenic forces are not uniform and hence the tectonically controlled original crystal surface is uneven.

Question 3.
What factors activate the process of mass movement?
Answer:
Following factors activate the process of mass movement.

• Removal of support from below to materials above through natural or artificial means;
• Increase in gradient and height of slopes;
• Overloading through addition of materials naturally or by artificial filling;
• Overloading due to heavy rainfall, saturation and lubrication of slope materials;
• Removal of material or load from over the original slope surfaces;
• Occurrence of earthquakes, explosions or machinery;
• Excessive natural seepage;
• Heavy drawdown of water from lakes, reservoirs and rivers leading to slow outflow of water from under the slopes or river banks;
• Indiscriminate removal of natural vegetation.

Question 4.
How does biological weathering take place?
Answer:
Biological weathering takes place by:

• Animals: Animals like rabbits, rats, termides, etc. make burrows and holes in the rocks. They consumes large quantity of soils and rocks for making their habitat and destruction of food. This loosens the rock strata and disintegration occurs.
• Vegetation: Long and teanatious roots of plants work down into cracks of rocks. The roots of shrubs and trees reach deep into them and this lodge large blocks.
• Human Activities: Mining, deforestation, indiscriminate cultivation of land and construction activities contribute to weathering.

Question 5.
Deposition is the result of erosion. Explain.
Answer:
Deposition is a consequence of erosion. The erosional agents loose their velocity and hence energy on gentler slopes and the materials carried by them start to settle themselves. In other words, deposition is not actually the work of any agent. The coarser materials get deposited first and finer ones later. By deposition depressions get filled up. The same erosional agents viz., running water, glaciers, wind, waves and groundwater act as aggradational or depositional agents also.

Question 6.
Without gravity and gradient will there be no erosion?
Answer:
Gravity besides being a directional force activates down slope movement of matters and also causes stresses on earth material.

• Without gravity and gradients there would be no mobility and hence no erosion, no transportation and no deposits as gravitation stresses are as important as the other geomorphic process.
• Gravity is force that is keeping us in contact with the surface and it is the force that switches on the movement of all surface material on earth.
• All the movement either within the earth or on the surface of the earth occurs due to gradients from higher levels to lower levels and from high pressure to low pressure areas.

Question 7.
What is the importance of weathering?
Answer:
Importance of weathering:

• Weathering processes are responsible for breaking down the rocks into smaller fragments and preparing the way for formation of not only regolith and soils but also erosion and mass movement. Biomes and bio-diversity is basically a result of forests depend upon the depth of weathering mantles.
• Weathering aids mass and deposits helps in the enrichment and concentrations of certain valuables ores of iron, manganese, aluminium, etc. which are of great importance for the national economy.
• Weathering is an important process in the formation of soils.

Question 8.
Mention the factors which results in mass movement.
Answer:

• The movements of mass may range from slow to rapid, affecting shallow to deep columns of materials and include creep, flow, slide and fall. Gravity exerts its force on all matter, both bedrock and the products of weathering. So, weathering is not a pre- requisite for mass movement though it aids mass movement.
• Weak unconsolidated materials dipping thinly bedded rocks, faults, steeply, beds, vertical cliffs or steep slopes, abundant precipitation and torrential rains and scarcity of vegetation etc. favour mass movements.

Question 9.
Explain the mass movements which are slow.
Answer:

• Soil creep: It is one type under this category which can occur on moderately steep, soil covered slope. We may find some of evidence of extremely, slow down slope movement of soil.
• Rock creep: The disintegrated rock material creeps down the slope under the influence of gravity.
• Solifluction: It takes place in cold areas where there is heavy snowfall in winter. It involves slow downslope flowing soil mass or fine grained rock debris saturated or lubricated with water.

Question 10.
Why are parent material and time considered as passive control factors in soil formation?
Answer:
1. Parent Material: It is a passive factor in soil formation. Parent materials can be any insitu or on-site weathered rock debris or transported deposits. Soil formation depends upon the texture, structure as well as mineral and chemical composition of the rock debris/ deposits.

2. Time: It is the passive controlling factor in soil formation. The length of time the soil forming processes operate determine maturation of soils and profile development. A soil becomes mature when all soil becomes mature when all soil forming processes act for a sufficiently long time developing a profile.

Question 11.
Write the difference between:
(i) Exogenic and endogenic forces
(ii) Orogenic movements and epeirogenic movements
(iii) Physical weathering and chemical weathering.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

Class 11 Geography Chapter 1 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are different types of mass movements?
Answer:
There are three types of mass movements: Slow Movements: Creep is one type under this category which can occur on moderately steep, soil covered slopes. Movement of materials is extremely slow and imperceptible except through extended observation. Materials involved can be soil or rock debris. Soil creep, talus creep, rock creep, rock- glacier creep etc can be identified. It also includes solifluction which involves slow downslope flowing soil mass or fine grained rock debris saturated or lubricated with water. This process is quite common in moist temperate areas where surface melting of deeply frozen ground and long continued rain respectively, occur frequently. When the upper portions get saturated and when the lower parts are impervious to water percolation, flowing occurs in the upper parts.

Rapid Movements: These movements are mostly prevalent in humid climate regions and occur over gentle to steep slopes. Movements of water- saturated clayey or silty earth materials down low angle terraces or hill slides is known as earth flow. When slopes are steeper ever the bedrock especially of soft sedimentary rocks like shale or deeply weathering igneous rock may slide downslope. With heavy rainfall, thick layers of weathered
materials get saturated with water and either slowly or rapidly flow down along definite channels. It looks like a stream of mud within a valley.

Landslides: The types of landslides.

• Slumps: The slipping of one or several units of rock debris with a backward rotation with respect to the slope over which the movement takes place.
• Debris slide: rapid rolling or sliding of earth debris without backward rotation of mass is known as Debris slide.
• Rockslide: Sliding of individual rock masses down bedding, joint or fault surface is rockslide.
• Rock fall: Rock fall is free falling of rock blocks over any steep slope keeping itself away from the slope. Rock falls occurs from the superficial layers of the rock face.

Question 2.
Explain different types of chemical weathering.
Answer:
Different types of chemical weathering includes:

1. Oxidation and Reduction: Oxidation is the effect of oxygen in air and water on the rocks. The atmospheric oxygen in rainwater unites with minerals in rocks specially with iron compounds. When oxidised minerals are placed in an environment where oxygen is absent, reduction takes place. It exists normally below water table, in area of stagnant water in more hot and humid climates.

2. Carbonation: When the carbon dioxide in atmosphere dissolves in water it form carbonic acid that affects the rocks, it is carbonation. It has acidic affect and dissolves calcium carbonates and magnesium carbonates such as gypsum, marble, limestone.

3.  Hydration: When the hydrogen of water dissolves in rocks hydration occurs. Certain minerals in rocks increase their volume and become heavy when observe water contains hydrogen. They break due to its increased pressure and the colour also changes.

4. Solution: Rainwater is able to dissolve certain minerals and leaching of the soil occurs. Normally solids are also removed during leaching. For e.g.: gypsum, rock salt, etc. undergo solution.

Question 3.
Explain different types of physical weathering.
Answer:
Different types of physical weathering includes:

• Exfoliation: Due to differential heating and resulting expansion and contraction of surface layers and their subsequent exfoliation from the surface results in smooth rounded surfaces in rocks. In rocks like granites, smooth surfaced and rounded small to big boulders called tors form due to such exfoliation.
• Frost: It is an active agent in cold climatic regions in high altitudes and the cracks are filled with water during the day time, this water is frozen at night when temperature falls below freezing point.
• Pressure: Many igneous and metamorphic rocks crystallize deep in the interior under the combine influence of high pressure and temperature. The salt near surface pores cause splitting of the grains within the rocks which eventually falls off, this result into granules disintegration.

Question 4.
Explain about erosion and deposition.
Answer:
Erosion involves acquisition and transportation of rock debris. When massive rocks break into smaller fragments through weathering and any other process, erosional geomorphic agents like running water, groundwater, glaciers, wind and waves remove and transport it to other places depending upon the dynamics of each of these agents. Abrasion by rock debris carried by these geomorphic agents also aids greatly in erosion. By erosion, relief degrades, i.e., the landscape is worn down. Weathering aids erosion it is not a pre-condition for erosion to take place. Weathering, mass-wasting and erosion are degradational processes. It erosion that is largely responsible for continuous changes that the earth’s surface is undergoing. The erosion and transportation of earth materials is brought about by wind, running water, glaciers, waves and ground water.

Deposition is a consequence of erosion. The erosional agents loose their velocity and hence energy on gentler slopes and the materials carried by them start to settle themselves. In other words, deposition is not actually the work of any agent. The coarser materials get deposited first and finer ones later. By deposition depressions get filled up. The same erosional agents viz., running water, glaciers, wind, waves and groundwater act as aggradational or depositional agents also. What happens to the surface of the earth due to erosion and deposition is elaborated in the next chapter on landforms and their evolution. There is a shift of materials in mass movements as well as in erosion from one place to the other.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 Hots Questions

Question 1.
Is it essential to distinguish between geomorphic agents and geomorphic processes? If yes, explain the difference.
Answer:
Yes, it is essential to distinguish between geomorphic agents and geomorphic processes because former is the cause and latter is the stepwise process.

• Geomorphic agent: An agent is a mobile medium (like running water, moving ice masses, wind, waves and currents, etc.) which removes, transports and deposits earth materials. Running water, groundwater, glaciers, wind, waves and currents, etc., can be called geomorphic agents.
• Geomorphic Processes: The Endogenic and Exogenic forces causing physical stresses and chemical actions on earth material and bringing about changes in the configuration of the surface of the earth is known as Geomorphic Process.

Question 2.
What is the sole driving force behind all the exogenic processes? Explain how?
Answer:
The solar energy is the sole driving force behind all exogenic processes. Exogenic processes derive their energy from atmosphere determined by the ultimate energy from the sun and also the gradients created by tectonic factors.

1. Various minerals in rocks possess their own limits of expansion and contraction.

2. With rise in temperature, every mineral expands and pushes against its neighbour and as temperature falls, a corresponding contraction takes place. Because of diurnal changes in the cause splitting of individual grains within rocks, which eventually fall off. This process of falling off of individual grains may result in granular disintegration or granular foliation. Salt crystallisation is most effective of all salt-weathering processes.

3. In areas with alternating wetting and drying conditions salt crystal growth is favoured and the neighbouring grains are pushed aside. Sodium chloride and gypsum crystals in desert areas heave up overlying layers of materials and with the result polygonal cracks develop all over the heaved surface. With salt crystal growth, chalk breaks down most readily, followed by limestone, sandstone, shale, gneiss and granite etc.

Question 3.
Do you think that slopes or gradients are created by tectonic forces? Why?
Answer:
Yes, I think that slopes or gradients are created by tectonic forces. Those areas where there is excessive magma formation, have higher slopes and they have emerged as mountains. The strength of gradients also determine the type of landforms.

Question 4.
“All comers of the earth do not have same slope”. Why?
Answer:
The difference in the internal forces operation from within i ie earth which built up the crust have been responsible for the variations in the outer surface of the crust. Due to variations in geothermal gradients and strength, the actions of Endogenic forces are not uniform and hence the tectonically controlled original crystal surface is uneven.

Question 5.
Time and parent material play a passive role in soil formation. Do you agree? Justify.
Answer:
Yes, I agree.

• Time: It is the passive controlling factor in soil formation. The length of time the soil forming processes operate determine maturation of soils and profile development.
• Parent Material: It is a passive factor in soil formation. Parent material can be moved or transported debris. Soil formation depends upon the texture, structure as well as mineral and chemical composition of the rock debris/ deposits.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 6 Geomorphic Processes appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 4 Social Justice

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 4 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
What does it mean to give each person his/her due? How has the meaning of “giving each his due” changed over time?
Answer:
To give each person his/her due ensures the well-being of the people or equal importance should be given to all people, i.e. a doctor is concerned with the well being of his patients as well as the rules of government ensures the well being of citizens also. All these dues have been changed over times:

• The ideas of justice has been continued to be an integral part of the present day understanding and has changed from the time of Pluto.
• Today, the debates have also been taken place of what is due to each person as a human being.
• Human beings get the opportunities to develop one’s own potential as well as to pursue their chosen goals.
• Justice requires to give due and equal considerations to all individuals.

Question 2.
Briefly discuss the three principles of justice outlined in the chapter. Explain each with examples.
Answer:

• Principle of treating equals equally refers to equal rights and equal treatment to individual who share certain characteristics as a human being, i.e. civil rights including right to life, liberty and property and political rights including right to vote, to enable rights to individuals to participate in political processes, etc.
• Principle not to treat any individual on the basis of discrimination on the grounds of caste, race, religion, colour, language, etc. the individuals should be judged on the basis of their capabilities they perform, i.e. made teachers get higher salary than female teachers, the persons performing the same tasks but getting different amount due to case is unjust.
• Equal treatment is not the only principle of justice because some circumstances may be appeared to be unjust if equal treatment is given, i.e. some marks to be awarded to all the students of a class if they have appeared in an examination in a uniform manner in place to award the marks on the basis of performance. This principle measuring people in proportion to the scale of equality of their efforts.

Question 3.
Does the principle of considering the special needs of people conflict with the principle of equal treatment for all?
Answer:

• To promote social justice, principle of special needs of people are recognised. And peoples are required to be treated equally without any discrimination to reward proportionality.
• The principle of taking account of special needs of people does not contradict with the principle of equal treatment because the people who are not equal in certain important respect, may be treated differently to promote justice.
• People with special needs may deserve special assistance and particular respect but it is difficult to recognise the people who require special assistance.
• Some physical disabilities, age, lack of good education or health care facilities are considered of special treatment.
• In India, lack of good education, healthcare, amenities, etc. are generally combined with social discrimination on the basis of caste.
• Constitution of India, made the provisions for reservation in government jobs and quotas in educational institutions for the people who are deprived in the society.Hence, it can be concluded that it is necessary to recognize the people who need the special considerations and if it is mandate for justice, it cannot contradict with the principle of equal treatment for all.

Question 4.
How does Rawls use the idea of a veil of ignorance to argue that fair and just distribution can be defended on rational grounds?
Answer:

• John Rawls argue that the only way we can arrive at a fair and just rule is to imagine ourselves to be in a situation in which are have to make decisions about how society should be organised despite we do not know the position to be occupied by ourselves in society. That is, we do not know what type of family we would be born either in upper caste or lower caste, rich or poor, privileged or disadvantaged.
• Rawls argue that if we don’t know who we will be and what options would be available to us in future society. We would support to those rules and organisations of future society to be fair for all members.
• Rawals under the concept of Veil of ignorance’ expects situation of complete ignorance, each person would decide in terms of their own interests only.
• But since no one knows who would be and what is going to benefit him, each will envisage the future society from the point of view of the worst off, it will be dear to a person who can reason and think for himself that those who are born privileged will enjoy certain privileges.
• If some people are born in a disadvantaged section, they will make sense to ensure reasonable opportunities to the weaker sections.
• The efforts would be made to make important resources available (education, health, shelter) to all persons.
• It is not easy to erase our identities and to imagine oneself about veil of ignorance. But then it is equally difficult to be self-sacrificing and to share good fortune with strangers.
• Hence, given these human failings and limitations it would be better to think of a framework that does not need extraordinary actions.
• “Veil of ignorance’ expect the people to think for themselves and select what they considered to be in their interest.

Question 5.
What are generally considered to be the basic minimum requirements of people for living a healthy and productive life? What is the responsibility of governments in trying to ensure this minimum to all?
Answer:

• A just society should ensure basic minimum conditions to live healthy and secure lives and provide equal opportunities to pursue their chosen goals.
• A democratic government is responsible for a basic amount of nourishment to keep citizens healthy, education and minimum wages as well as housing, and supply of clean drinking water.
• But, to provide all these basic requirements put a heavy burden on government especially in the countries, where poor people are in a large number.
• If all of us agree that it is the responsibility of state, the conflicts may arise on choosing the methods to achieve these goals.
• The various debates have taken place on adopting the methods to ensure well-off of disadvantaged sections either by promoting open competition or should be taken the responsibility by the state or by a redistribution of resources.
• In India, different approaches are being suggested by different political groups who debate the relative merits to help marginalised sections of peoples.

Question 6.
Which of the following arguments could be used to justify state action to provide basic minimum conditions of life to ail citizens?
(a) Providing free services to the poor and needy can be justified as an act of charity.
(b) Providing all citizens with a basic minimum standard of living is one way of ensuring equality of opportunity.
(c) Some people are naturally lazy and we should be kind to them.
(d) Ensuring a basic facilities and a minimum standard of living to all is a recognition of our shared humanity and a human right.
Answer:
(b) Providing all citizens with a basic minimum standard of living on one way of ensuring equality of opportunity.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 4 NCERT Extra Questions Solved

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 4 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define justice
Answer:
Justice relates all individuals with each other and connect with the fact as to what type of moral, social, economic, political, legal relations are developed together between individuals.

Question 2.
Whose duty was to maintain dharma in the society?
Answer:
The kings’ primary duty was to maintain dharma in the society.

Question 3.
Who was Glaucon?
Answer:
A friend of Socrates, famous thinker of ancient Greece.

Question 4.
Who wrote Republic?
Answer:
Plato, a famous philosopher of Greece wrote ‘Republic’.

Question 5.
Who was Immanuel Kant?
Answer:
Immanuel Kant was a German philosopher who gave due and equal considerations to all individuals.

Question 6.
Who was Confucious?
Answer:
Confucious was a Chinese philosopher to argue to maintain justice to punish wrong-doers and rewarding the virtuous ones

Question 7.
Why do some people state “Justice delayed is justice denied”?
Answer:
Because if a decision is delayed too long, the aggrieved person may not receive any benefit from judicial proceedings, i.e. if person is dead what is the use of getting a decision in favour.

Question 8.
What does Socrates state about justice?
Answer:
Socrates states that justice involves well-being of all people including enemies also.

Question 9.
What is just society in the words of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar said that a society in which ascending sense of reverance and descending sense of contempt is dissolved into the creation of compassionate society.

Question 10.
What are the principles of justice?
Answer:

• Equal treatment for equals.
• Provision of minimum standard of living and equal opportunities to the needy.
• Recognition of different efforts and skills during rewards and responsibilities.

Question 11.
Who is John Rawls?
Answer:
John Rawls is a political philosopher who propounded the theory of veil of ignorance, i.e. rational justification for acknowledging the need to provide help to the least privileged members of society.

Question 12.
How has India ensured social justice?
AnswerP:
Social justice refers to no discrimination among citizens on any ground. India has ensured social justice:

• Political authority establishes an equal society through legislature and executive.
• No discrimination is made on any ground guaranteed by the constitution under rights against exploitation.

Question 13.
What are political dimensions of justice?
Answer:

• People enjoy universal adult franchise.
• Government influences serve the interests of all people.
• People enjoy the opportunities co put pressure on the government.

Question 14.
What are economic dimensions of justice?
Answer:

• Every individual should access the same respectable way to earn one’s livelihood and sufficient wages.
• Government should provide social security in the form of scholarships, reservations, economic aid to unprivileged sections, etc.
• There should be equal pay for equal work.
• Private ownership over land, resources should be abolished.

Question 15.
What is moral justice?
Answer:
Moral justice refers to natural principles, i.e.:

• To speak truth
• To show kindness
• To keep up the promises
• To behave liberally.

Question 16.
What are liberalists’ and Marxists’ views of justice?
Answer:

• Liberalists’ view of justice emphasizes on individual liberty, freedom and its expression and state is intervention is minimal.
• Marxist view of justice emphasizes on just distribution of wealth and property, i.e. from each according to his ability to each according to his needs.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 4 NCERT Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is social justice? Mention its main features also.
Answer:
Social justice refers to all the people living in a society are equal:

• All the people should enjoy the equal opportunities to develop one’s own potential and personalities.
• In order to attain social justice, caste and colour discrimination should be abolished. Hence, the Constitution of India has banned untouchability and misbehavior legally.
• There should be no discrimination on the use of public places, i.e. free access to the use of parks, cinemas, schools, wells, tanks and shops.

Question 2.
What do you mean by protective discrimination?
Answer:
If a government takes some steps for the betterment of weaker society, known as protective
discrimination as:

• It implies discrimination in favour of weaker section and unprivileged section of society.
• The reservation is given to scheduled castes and tribes and OBC’s.
• These sections are not provided with the special advantages to a particular section but raise them to a level to compete with other sections of society on equal footing.
• Thus, the protective discrimination removes the imbalances from the society.

Question 3.
What is economic justice? Mention some features of economic justice.
Answer:
Economic justice refers to providing an equal opportunity to the citizens to acquire their basic needs or livelihood:

• It refers to providing basic minimum needs to one and all the citizens in the society, i. e. no one should be exploited economically.
• Equal wages should be given to the workers in the factories, clerks in the offices whose work is similar.
• It refers that a man should work according to his capacity and earn sufficient money to meet out basic needs in society.

Question 4.
What is concept of justice as per Plato?
Answer:
For Plato, justice implies a life of people conforming to the rules of functional specialisation means that one man should practice only one thing to which his nature is best suited:

• Plato refers justices to be related with social order. He explains justice for the individual and the state on the basis of tripartite theory of appetite, courage and wisdom.
• There are three classes in a society corresponding three elements of soul, i.e. producers, militia and the ruler means harmonious order between these classes.
• When each class minds one’s own business without meddling in other classes, justice exist in the state.
• In the individuals justice consists in keeping a balance between different elements.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 4 NCERT Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 55) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Although there might be broad agreement in modern society about the equal importance of all people, it is not a simple matter to decide how to give each person his/her due. A number of different principles have been put forward in this regard. One of the principles is the principle of treating equals equally. It is considered that all individuals share certain characteristics as human beings. Therefore they deserve equal rights and equal treatment. Some of the important rights which are granted liberal democracies today include civil rights such as the rights of life, liberty and property, political rights like the right to vote, which enable people to participate in political processes, and certain social rights which would include the right to enjoy equal opportunities with other members of the society.

Questions:
1. Mention any one principle to decide equal importance of all people.
2. What does this principle refer?
3. What are political rights?
Answers:
1. Principle of treating equals equally.

2. To consider that all individuals share certain rights who deserve equal rights and equal treatment, i.e. right to life, liberty and property.

3. Right to vote, to contest elections to hold public offices, etc.

Passage 2.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 59) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Differences of opinion on matters such whether, and how, to distribute resources and ensure equal access to education and jobs arouse fierce passions in society and even sometimes provoke violence. People believe the future of themselves and their families may be at stake. We have only to remind ourselves about the anger and even violence which has sometimes been roused by proposals to reserve seats in educational institutions or in government employment in our country. As students of political theory however, we should be able to calmly examine the issues involved in terms of our understanding of the principles of justice. Can schemes to help the disadvantaged be justified in terms of a theory of justice? In the next section, we will discuss the theory of just distribution put forward by the well-known political philosopher, John Rawls. Rawls has argued that there could indeed be a rational justification for acknowledging the need to provide help to the least privileged members of a society.

Questions:
1. On which issue sometimes violence may be provoked?
2. Who is John Rawls?
3. What does John Rawls reveal?
4. Give an example when violence had been occurred on just distribution of resources.
Answers:
1. On the issue of distribution of resources and to ensure equal access to education and jobs.

2. A well known political philosopher.

3. He argued that there could indeed be a rational justification for acknowledging the need to provide help to the least privileged members of a society.

4. On the proposals to reserved seats in educational institutions or government employment

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 4 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the different kinds of concepts of justice?
Answer:
Justice refers to faithful realization of existing laws against any arbitrary dealing and the ideal element in law to which a good law should aspire for. Justice can be classified as:
1. Social justice:

• No discrimination should be made among the citizens of country on the ground of religion, colour, caste, race, language, etc.
• Equal opportunities should be provided to one and all for one’s own development,
• An equality based society should be established.

2. Political justice:

• To exercise political power to serve the interests of all
• Every citizen should enjoy their right to vote without any discrimination.
• Every person should have the right to contest elections at par.
• Every citizen should have an opportunity to put pressure on government.

3. Economic justice:

• It refers to provide equal opportunities to one and all to earn money and to spend to meet the needs of life.
• National income and resources should be evenly distributed among all the people.
• Economic welfare of weaker section should be looked after.

4. Moral justice:

• Natural principles exist in the universe.
• To determine mutual relations among individuals.
• Speaking the truth, showing kindness, keeping the promises, behaving liberally, etc.

5. Legal justice:

• To frame genuine legislation to be enforced by law.
• Equal provisions of punishments should also be made without any partiality.
• State established justice by means of law.

Question 2.
Mention the steps taken by Constitution of India to ensure social justice.
Answer:
This is the duty of state to establish a society based on equality through executives and legislatives:

• Article 39 A (42nd Amendment) provides that state shall try to secure equal justice and free legal aid to its citizens.
• Article 42 states that the state shall make provisions to secure just and human conditions.
• Article 46 provides that the state shall promote the educational and economic interests of weaker sections of society especially for SC’s, ST’s and to protect them from social injustice.
• Article 46 says that the state shall within the limits of its economic capacity make provisions for securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in areas of unemployment, old age and sickness, etc.

Question 3.
What measurements have been taken by India to secure social justice?
Answer:

• The preamble to the constitution of India declares its objectives to ensure social, economic and political justice.
• Since independence, various programmes have been set up to eradicate poverty in India.
• The Antyodaya Schemes have been launched for the upliftment of the poorest.
• The government has launched five year plans and many other programmes also for downtrodden people.
• To improve special status of SCs and STs, government has made provisions for their reservations in educational institutes and government jobs.
• The government of India assures right also to poor and and downtrodden people in education, age, sickness or any other disablement.

Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 4 Social Justice appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Rights

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
What are rights and why are they important? What are the bases on which claims to rights can be made?
Answer:
Rights are:

• An entitlement to do as a citizen, individual or human being.
• Something that the society must recognise as being a legitimate claim to be uphold.
• There is a distinction between what I desire to do and think that I am entitled to and what can be designated as rights.

Rights are important because:

•  To lead a life of respect and dignity, i.e. economic independence gives the right to fulfil the basic needs of a person by one’s talents and interests.
•  Citizens enjoy the rights to express themselves freely in different ways to be creative and original.
• The rights let the government be aware of its success and failures and feedback of people.
•  Rights are necessary for the entire world, he. right to livelihood, freedom of expression, etc.
•  Rights help one to develop one’s own potential and skills.

The claims to rights can be made if:

• Rights are necessary to earn a livelihood.
• Rights are helpful to develop talent and skills.
• Rights are important to lead a ‘respectful and dignified life’.
• Rights are given to human being by nature of God to be born with, i.e. right to life, liberty and property, etc. as inalienable rights.
• If an activity is harmful to our health and well being, it cannot be claimed as a right, i.e. the use of prohibited drugs and smoking to be injurious to health cannot be claimed as a right.

Question 2.
On what grounds are some rights considered to be universal in nature? Identify three rights which you consider universal. Give reasons.
Answer:
Some rights are considered to be universal in nature on the ground to be equally important for all human beings who live in a society. The following three rights can be identified as universal:

• The right to livelihood.
• Right to freedom of expression
• Right to education Because:
• Economic independence is the most important dignity in one’s life and considered necessary for leading a life of respect and dignity across the world.
• Right to freedom of expression provides an opportunity to be creative and original in any field of one’s choice. And government also comes to know of its failures and success.
• Right to education develops capacity to improve useful skills and to enable citizens to make choices in life, hence it can be designated as a universal right.

Question 3.
Discuss briefly some of the new rights claims which are being put forward in our country today for example the rights of tribal people to protect their habitat and way of life, or the rights of children against bonded labour.
Answer:
1. Rights of tribal people:

• The tribal people had been living in forest areas since ancient times which are associated with their culture, way of life and livelihood.
• These people urge to state that no state in the name of development should take away what had been enjoyed by them since beginning of settled life.
• They consider all these demands to be justified and use the term human rights for all tribal people across the country.

2. Right of children against bonded labour:

• The children must be free from bonded labour and child labour.
• The children must be made free from wrong practices of child labour.
• The children must have equal opportunities to be free and realise their full potential.

3. Right to sustainable development:

• The human rights which people claim has been expanded over the years due to new threats and challenges in the society.
• A need has been arisen to protect the natural environment, hence the demand has been generated for rights to clean air, water, sustainable development and alike.

Question 4.
Differentiate between political, economic and cultural rights. Give examples of each kind of right.
Answer:
(a)Political rights: Political rights are supplemented by several types of civil liberties, i.e. right to express one’s views freely, right to protest, free and fair trial, etc. These rights make the government accountable and ensure an opportunity to each and every individual to influence the decisions of government:

• Political rights provide equality to all citizens.
• Every citizen has the right to participate in political process.
• Political rights provide the right to vote and elect representatives.
• Every citizen enjoys the right to contest elections and right to form political parties.

(b) Economic rights:

• It includes the basic needs to live and to enjoy the right to get food, shelter, clothing, health, etc.
• An adequate wage to meet their basic needs.
• Democratic societies provide reasonable condition of work.
• Citizens with low incomes, receive housing, medical facilities and unemployed persons receive a certain minimum wage to meet their basic needs.
• In India, the government has introduced a rural employment guarantee scheme to assist the poor. .

(c) Cultural rights:

• The right to have primary education.
• Culture has been recognized as being necessary for leading good life.
• The people have the right to enjoy one’s own language, one’s way of living, literature, style of painting, construction, religion, etc.
• Right to establish institutions for teaching one’s own language.

Question 5.
Rights place some limits on the authority of the state. Explain with examples.
Answer:

• The support of governments and law, direct the claimed rights towards the state, i. e. if someone asserts one’s right to education, the state is called upon to make provisions for basic education.
• Right to life obliges the state to make laws to protect from being injured by others. A society can expect the state to pursue policies to provide clean environment to be essential for good quality of life.
• Rights not only indicate what the state must do, they also suggest what the state must refrain from doing, i.e. the state cannot simply arrest any person as per its own will, the state is supposed to give proper reasons for curtailing one’s liberty before a judicial court.
• Rights ensure that the authority of state is exercised without violating the sanctity of individual life and liberty.Hence, it can be concluded that the sovereign authority, the laws it makes, may be enforced with force, but the sovereign state exists not for its own sake but for the sake of individual. The people always matter a lot and their well-being must be persuaded by the government in power.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 NCERT Extra Questions Solved

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are three natural rights?
Answer:

• The right to life
• Right to liberty
• Right to property

Question 2.
Which can represent the common good of human beings?
Answer:

• To minimize air and water pollution in environment
• To maintain ecological balance
• To protect ozone layer
• To present the cutting of forests.

Question 3.
Mention some rights which have not been granted to people by democratic states.
Answer:

• The right for unborn foetus
• The right to safe drinking water
• The right to information
• The right to get clean air.

Question 4.
Mention two activities which cannot be claimed as a right by people.
Answer:

• Smoking
• taking banned drugs

Because medical research has prohibited drugs injurious to health, hence affect the relations with others.

Question 5.
What is right to life?
Answer:
It is a right to live life without fear, injury and any external danger as well as the right not to possess the right to take away one’s own life (suicide has been declared a crime)

Question 6.
What is right to education?
Answer:
It is a right to widen our horizons and to know the world around us. Educational facilities should be provided to everyone by the state.

Question 7.
What is right to freedom?
Answer:
It refers the freedom of speech, expression, assembly or association of arms but to be exercised within the framework of public order, morality, decency and unity of country.

Question 8.
Mention any two fundamental duties of the citizens of India.
Answer:

• It is the duty of every citizen to promote harmony and common brotherhood together
• It is the duty of every citizen to abide by the law and respect the national flag, anthem and institutions, etc.

Question 9.
What is the historical background of rights?
Answer:

• Rights have the sanction of long unbroken customs of society.
• State confirms rights to be sanctioned by customs.
• In due course of time, a custom due to practical utility becomes a right.

It is important because mostly rights are the result of long established customs.

Question 10.
How can we say that rights imply one’s own duty?
Answer:
Rights corresponds duties if a person has the right to work, it is also his duty to perform the work in a proper manner.
Question 11.
What is the right to property?
Answer:

• It provides comfortable living in which men can perform the assigned work.
• Property provides citizens with incentives to work to achieve the desired goals.
• Property can be classified as movable and immovable, i.e. house, farms and cash, furniture, jewellary, etc.

Question 12.
What is the right to work?
Answer:
It is the duty of state to provide every citizen with work, reasonable hours of work and adequate means of livelihood.

Question 13.
What does the right to govern oneself imply?
Answer:
It implies to enjoy the political rights by citizens, i.e. right to vote, contest elections, hold public offices, etc.

Question 14.
Why the right to freedom of religion is important?
Answer:
Citizens are given freedom to adopt any religion, to manage the religions affairs in one’s own way to be related with their conscience.

Question 15.
Explain the right to equality.
Answer:
Article 14 to 18 of Constitution of India guarantees right to equality:

• Right to equality before law.
• No discrimination on any ground among citizens.
• Equal opportunities for employment to citizens.
• To abolish untouchability.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 NCERT Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the limitations on the “Right to freedom of speech and expression”?
Answer:
Article 19 of Constitution of India guarantees six freedoms to the citizens of India. Freedom of speech and expression is one of them. This freedom can be enjoyed by speaking and writing alongwith the following limitations:

• Friendly relations with other countries.
• Contempt of court
• Morality and decency
• Security of the state.

Question 2.
What are the differences between rights and claims?
Answer:

• Rights are claims backed by disinterested desire whereas claims are demands backed by personal coercive of individual.
• Rights involve the goodness of one and all while claims focus on the personal welfare only.
• Rights receive a recognition but claims depend on its nature to be accepted or not.

Question 3.
What is the difference between constitutional rights and natural rights?
Answer:

• Natural rights have been given to individuals by nature or God whereas constitutional rights are the facilities, opportunities and liberties provided by the state to one and all.
• Natural rights are basic, natural and essential for human beings whereas constitutional rights are definite and enforceable by law.
• The examples of natural rights are right to life, liberty and property whereas constitutional rights are right to vote, to contest elections and to equality.

Question 4.
Mention any two important social-economic rights.
Answer:

• Every citizen is entitled to enjoy the right to work to earn one’s own livelihood and the state provides opportunities to earn the resources.
• A welfare state guarantees right to its citizens to adopt the profession of whatever one likes and no one can be compelled to do the work which is not as per his choice.

Question 5.
Why the rights are necessary for the development of individuals?
Answer:

• Rights create supportive conditions for the development of one’s potential as they create necessary conditions to fulfill this requirement.
• The fundamental rights fulfill the requirements of expression and speech so that ideas could be emerged through intelligence.
• Fundamental rights grants an opportunity to every individual to possess any profession as per one’s own choice.

Question 6.
What safeguards are available for rights?
Answer:

• Rights to constitutional remedies is provided in fundamental rights against grievances of people in the Constitution of India.
• Rule of law has been established, i.e. equality before law and equal protection by law through constitution.
• Media (Press) is free and honest to safeguard against despotic government.
• People enjoy the safeguard to fight against in genuine arrangements.
• Distribution of power is also a safeguard against violation of rights.

Question 7.
How can we say that rights imply duties?
Answer:
Rights and duties are the two sides of the same coin. Without one, the existence of other is not possible. Duties come first and rights later:

• Duties are our obligations towards others, but rights are the others’ obligation towards us.
• Rights help develop ourselves while duties help others to develop their personalities.
• We own rights but we owe duties.
• Rights of one person are the duties of another.

Question 8.
Can it be stated that rights are absolute? Give reasons.
Answer:
Though rights are enjoyed by all individuals equally and state also cannot interfere in the matter but even though these are not absolute because:

• In a democratic countries like USA and India rights of people are absolute and can never be suspended.
• The Constitution of India provides provisions that even the fundamental right to freedom can also be suspended if emergency is declared under Article 352 War or armed rebellion inside the territory of country.
• During the periods of emergency, citizens do not enjoy any protection against the state.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 NCERT Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 69) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

In the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, political theorists argued that rights are given to us by nature or God. The rights of men were derived from natural law. This meant that rights were not conferred by a ruler or a society, rather we are born with them. As such these rights are inalienable and no one can take these away from us. They identified three natural rights of man: the right to life, liberty and property. All other rights were said to be derived from these basic rights. The idea that we are born with certain rights, is a very powerful notion because it implies that no state or organisation should take away what has been given by the law of nature. This conception of natural rights has been used widely to oppose the exercise of arbitrary power by states and governments and to safeguard individual freedom.

Questions:
1. What do you mean by natural rights?
2. Mention some natural rights.
3. How has the conception of natural rights been used?
Answers:
1. Natural rights refer to be born with certain rights where no state or organization can take away these rights.

2. Right to life, liberty and property.

3. The conception of natural rights has been used widely to oppose the exercise of arbitrary power by states and governments and to safeguard individual freedom.

Passage 2.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 68) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Rights are primarily those claims that I along with others regard to be necessary for leading a life of respect and dignity. In fact, one of the grounds on which rights have been claimed is that they represent conditions that we collectively see as a source of self respect and dignity. For example, the right to livelihood may be considered necessary for leading a life of dignity. Being gainfully employed gives a person economic independence and thus is central for his/her dignity. Having our basic needs met gives us freedom to pursue our talents and interests. Or, take the right to express ourselves freely. This right gives us the opportunity to be creative and original, whether it be in writing, or dance, or music, or any other creative activity. But freedom of expression is also important for democratic government since it allows for the free expression of beliefs and opinions. Rights such as the right to a livelihood, or freedom of expression, would be important for all human beings who live in society and they are described as universal in nature.

Questions:
1. What are rights?
2. Why is the freedom of expression important?
3. How can we express ourselves?
Answers:
1. Rights are those claims which can be regarded to be necessary for leading a life of respect and dignity.

2. Because it allows for the free expression of beliefs and opinion.

3. We can express ourselves by writing, speaking, dance, music or any other activity.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How can we classify rights?
Answer:
Rights can be classified into the following two types:
(a) Moral rights are our moral senses which cannot be demanded or cannot be forced. Even if moral rights are violated, no legal action can be taken, i.e. to make children educated to look after parents, etc.
(b) Legal rights are recognized by the state which are enforceable and can be classified as:

• Civil rights help to lead a secured social life, i.e. right to life and education.
• Political rights are given to the citizens by the state, i.e. right to contest election, right to vote, right to hold any public office, etc.
• Economic rights include right to work, to rest, to housing, to buy own property in any part of country and to possess any job or profession in the country.

Question 2.
Explain some political rights of the citizens.
Answer:
Political rights are given to the citizens to participate in the affairs of the state:

• Right to vote is the most important political right to participate in the formation of government without any discrimination, i.e. every citizen in the age of 18 years and above enjoys the right to vote.
• Every voter enjoys the right to contest elections, i.e. right to be elected as a representatives on the attainment of 25 years of age.
• All the citizens are eligible to hold public offices equally, i.e. on one can be discriminated on the ground of colour, language, religion, caste, etc.
• Every citizen enjoys the right to address petitions of complaints to the competent authorities, i.e. people’s grievance can be redressed by the government.
• Citizens can enjoy the right to form political parties also at their own.
• The citizens are provided the right to equality before law, i.e. equal opportunities are available to one and all without any discrimination on any ground.

Question 3.
Explain some civil rights of its citizens.
Answer:
Civil rights are as follows:

• The life of an individual is considered the property of state also as its human resource. Hence, it protects the life of individual also by providing the right to life. To commit suicide or to murder has been declared punishable offence.
• The citizens are allowed to enjoy the right to personal liberty. Hence, no individual can be arrested arbitrarily and cannot be deprived of his life, liberty and property without a breach of law established in an ordinary court of law.
• The citizens enjoy the right to equality in all spheres in a democratic state, i.e. all individuals should enjoy equal opportunities and nobody should be discriminated on any ground.
• Every individual enjoys the right to move freely in any part of country and to reside also in any part of the territory. No one can be compelled to leave one place without one’s own will.
• Every citizen in a state exercises the right to freedom of thought and expression, i.e. writing, speaking, free expression of opinion and even to criticise the governmental policies, etc.
• The citizens are provided with the freedom to form social, economic, political and cultural association. The state cannot interfere in the functioning of these associations, i.e. trade unions, commercial associations, etc.

Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Rights appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2019 Outside Delhi

Time allowed : 3 Hours
Maximum marks: 100

General Instructions:

• The question paper is divided into three sections :
  Section A : Reading 20 marks
  Section B: Writing and Grammar 30 marks Section C: Literature 30 marks
• All questions are compulsory.
• You may attempt any section at a time.
• All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.
• 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the students will read the ques¬tion paper only and will not write any answer on the answer book during the period.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2019 Outside Delhi Set I

SECTION – A
(READING) 20

Question 1.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: [8]
(1) Keep your watch accurate. For some people, moving up the time on their watch will help them get up earlier. For others, they will remember that the time on the watch is wrong and will disregard it altogether. It may be helpful to set your watch just two minutes ahead instead of five or ten.
(2) Keep a clock, phone, computer or anything that displays time in each room of your house. One of the easiest ways to run late is simply by not realising that the time is passing as quickly as it is.
(3) Set all your clocks and watches to the same time. Don’t be an optimist. Things usually take longer than what you’d expect, even without major delays. If you have a dinner appointement at 7:30 p.m., don’t think you can work till 7 p.m., then take a bath, dress and reach on time. Realistically, calculate the time you will take at each step and then add 10 minutes more to allow for unexpected delays, or you cannot get to your job in time.
(4) Wake up when you are supposed to wake up. Don’t hit the snooze button, keep on lying in bed, and watch TV at the very start of your day. Maybe try even setting your clock 10 minutes earlier than you need. If you have difficulty with this, move your alarm clock to somewhere away from your bed; that way, you have to get up to turn it off. Commit yourself to being 15 minutes early for everything. If you have to reach your place of work at 8:00, don’t even tell yourself this. Just tell yourself (and everyone else who listens- but don’t annoy them or make them think that they are late or early!) “I have to be at work at 7.45”. If you do this, you willl be on time even with little unforeseen delays. You will be on time even with a traffic jam.

Question 1.1.
Complete the following statements using words/phrases from the passage. Attempt any eight. [1 × 8 = 8]
(a) Some people believe that if ….. it will help them be earlier.
(b) Many others know ….. they disregard it altogether.
(c) Keep …… in each room.
(d) One of the things that can be done is …… of five or ten minutes.
(e) Many a time we do not realise that ……
(f) Instead of pressing the snooze button ……
(g) If you have difficulty in getting up …….
(h) It is a good habit to ……. somewhere away from your bed.
(i) It is good to commit yourself …… for every thing.
Answer:
(a) they move up the time on their watch,
(b) that the time on the watch is wrong so
(c) a clock, phone, computer or anything that displays time
(d) to set watch just two minutes ahead instead
(e) the time is passing as quickly as it is
(f) wake up when you are supposed to wake up
(g) early then try to set your clock ten minutes earlier.
(h) move your alarm clock to
(i) to being 15 minutes earlier

Question 2.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow : [12]
1. Music is perhaps the most popular and widely practised form of Fine Arts, transcending all kinds of cultural and linguistic barriers. Any form of fine art is difficult to master and almost impossible to perfect and music is no exception.
2. Nature, it is learnt, has blessed almost two- thirds of the human race with musical ability of some sort. Music has the power to bring out the deepest emotions. It can make one cry or bring a smile on one’s face. In fact it is a magic medicine and many seek refuge in it when they are depressed or stressed. It is this intimacy that makes us listen to music or even hum or sing sometimes. This singing, or realistically speaking, expressing one’s emotion musically sometimes takes a serious turn. This desire to show musical expression in public then becomes a serious business profession. And from here the musical journey begins.
3. This desire to sing before an audience is innocent and beautiful and indeed it is perfectly alright to have such a genuine desire. But it is also important to understand that, singing is an intricate art — a highly refined one at that, which requires systematic, prolonged and strict training, to be acceptable. This is an aspect we forget in our keen desire to reach the stage and perform. It is almost like preparing a formal meal for some specially invited guests, without even having learnt and trained in the basics of cooking. This is why we have more noise and less music nowadays.
4. These days almost everyone sings and it does not stop here. Most of us want to become professional singers, Result : a complete disregard for and ignorance of the
training part, as the need is never felt to go through one and the urge to get to the stage and perform overcomes even a little desire to learn, if any. If at all, somewhere along the way one feels the need to gain some knowledge and training, it leads to hurried shortcuts and half-hearted attempts, best described as ‘Crash Courses’.
5. It is observed that those who have attained the so called partial success, suddenly feel that they lack the required knowledge and are not learned enough. But it is too late by then. It should be understood here that the stage or a performance brings in a different mindset within the artist. It is always recommended and rightly said, that while on stage, cover the mistakes and weaknesses if any, and get along. But the contrary is true when it comes to acquiring knowledge and during the learning process. While under training, the student is expected to make mistakes but then rectify those mistakes under the supervision and guidance of the teacher. Therefore, it is good to make mistakes and then be corrected during the process of learning as this subsequently makes one flawless and educated. This is a different mindset. And these two mindsets discussed above, (those of a performer and that of a student) cannot co-exist.

Question 2.1.
On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer any four of the following questions in 30 – 40 words each : [2 × 4 = 8]
(a) The desire to sing in public overcomes the need to train. Elaborate.
(b) How can we say that music is a magic medicine ?
(c) What is best described as ‘Crash Courses’ ?
(d) What should be the mindset of a student of music ?
(e) Why is singing a refined and intricate art ?
Answer:
(a) The desire to sing in public is innocent and beautiful and indeed it is perfectly alright to have such a genuine desire. Most of us want to become professional singers with complete disregard for and ignorance of the training part. This is an aspect that we forget in our keen desire to reach the stage and perform which in turn, overcomes the desire to learn.
(b) Music has the power to bring out the deepest emotions. It is a magic medicine as it can make one cry or bring smile on one’s face and many seek refuge in it when they are depressed or stressed.
(c) If one feels the need to gain some knowledge and training to become a professional singer, it leads to hurried shortcuts and half-hearted attempts, best described as ‘Crash Courses’.
(d) While under training, the student is expected to make mistakes but then rectify those mistakes under the supervision and guidance of the teacher. Therefore, it is good to make mistakes and then correct them during the process of learning as this subsequently makes one flawless and educated. This should be the mindset of the student of music.
(e) Singing is a refined and intricate art because it requires systematic, prolonged and strict training to be acceptable. We forget this aspect in our keen desire to reach the stage and perform. It is like preparing a formal meal for some specially invited guests without even having learnt and trained in the basics of cooking. That is why we have more noise and less music nowadays.

Question 2.2.
On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer any four of the following: [1 × 5 = 5]
(a) Almost of human population is blessed with musical ability of some sort.
(i) two-thirds
(ii) one-third
(iii) half
(iv) one-fifth
(b) Any form of is difficult to master.
(i) visual art
(ii) audio-visual art
(iii) fine arts
(iv) design art
(c) ‘Transcending’ in para 1 means.
(i) drown under
(ii) rise above
(iii) surrender
(iv) fail
(d) ‘Refuge’ in para 2 means.
(i) shelter from rain
(ii) shelter from storm
(iii) shelter from unhappiness
(iv) shelter from sun
(e) ‘Partial’ in para 5 means.
(i) unfair
(ii) incomplete
(iii) whole
(iv) total
Answer:
(a) (i) two-third
(b) (iii) fine arts
(c) (ii) rise above
(d) (iii) shelter from unhappiness
(e) (ii) incomplete

SECTION – B
(WRITING AND GRAMMAR) 30

Question 3.
As a health consious person, you have noticed an advertisement in a newspaper on yoga classes in your neighbourhood. Write a letter in 100-120 words to the organizer, Yoga for Public, R.K. Puram, New Delhi requesting him/her to send you information about the duration of the course and other relevant details. You Shweta/Srikar of 13, R.K. Puram, New Delhi. [8]
Or
You have noticed that the number of vehicles is steadily increasing in your city. There are long traffic jams causing a lot of inconvenience to the road users. Write an article in 100 – 200 words on the topic, ‘Problem of Traffic Jams in Metropolitan Cities/ Your are Renu/Rajan.
Answer:
13, R.K. Puram
New Delhi
14th April, 20XX
The Organizer
Yoga for Public
R.K. Puram
New Delhi
Sub : Inquiry about the Yoga Classes
Sir,
With reference to your advertisement in ‘Patrika Times’ dated 12th April, 20××, I have come to know that you are organizing yoga classes near my locality. It’s a good initiative and also highly appreciable because yoga helps detox the body and de-stress the mind. It also maintains balance between physical and mental health of a person. Sparing some time for yoga helps in getting relief from stress. As I am a health conscious person and know that yoga helps in curing many diseases in today’s deskbound lifestyle, I wish to join the classes. But prior to joining the classes, I would like you to furnish me the following necessary details:
• Duration of the course
• Timings
• Fee structure
• Mode of payment
• Instructor
• Class duration
It will be highly appreciated if the above details are provided to me at the earliest. Thanking You Yours Faithfully Shweta/Srikar
OR
PROBLEM OF TRAFFIC JAMS IN METROPOLITAN CITIES
By Renu/Rajan
The country’s automobile industry has been growing rapidly with the increase in per capita income, the consequence of which is excessive load on roads due to steadily increasing number of vehicles in the metropolitan cities. Traffic jams occur when vehicles in large numbers come to a standstill for any reason for a certain period of time. There is not a single day when the roads in the metro cities are without chaos. Another reason for the traffic congestion is the overgrowing population as well as the increase in the number of private, public and commercial vehicles. It occurs mostly during peak hours when people commute to or fro from their workplaces and hence, they face inconvenience. It is an absolute wastage of their productive time. Distances have also increased in a way. Where it used to take only few minutes to cover certain distances earlier, now takes hours to cover the same. People get stranded in their vehicles for hours and get late for their offices, business meetings or any other appointments. Heavy traffic creates problems not only for the vehicle drivers but also for pedestrians. Pedestrians find it difficult to walk on the sideways meant for them. Traffic congestion has become a menace for the injured or seriously ill patients who sometimes die on their way due to traffic jams. There are also chances of road mishaps as vehicles move in close proximity to each other.

It is therefore, necessary to start an awareness campaign to lighten the burden on roads and to take various measures to control traffic jams in metro cities.

Question 4.
Complete the story in 200 – 250 words, which begins as the following, providing an appropriate title also. [10]

Mukesh, the grocer, was very greedy. He would mix stones in pulses and coloured sand in spices and sell them to the poor villagers. The villagers complained to him but he turned a deaf ear to them, as his was the only grocery store in the village. The villagers, then decided
OR
It was 10 p.m. I was alone at home. Suddenly I heard a knock on the door ……
Answer:
TIT FOR TAT
Mukesh, the grocer, was very greedy. He would mix stones in pulses and coloured sand in spices and sell them to the poor villagers. The villagers complained to him but he turned a deaf ear to them, as his was the only grocery store in the village. The villagers, then decided to teach him a lesson. They all gathered and went to the king to make a complaint against him. On hearing this the king became very angry and ordered his courtiers to summon him to the court. When Mukesh was brought to the court, the king rebuked him saying, “You have been cheating the innocent villagers for the past so many months and for this, you will be punished”. The grocer was frightened and asked for forgiveness. The king gave him the relaxation of choosing his punishment. The king asked him either to get ready to go beaten a thousand times or eat one hundred onions at a time. The grocer became happy thinking it to be an easy punishment and chose to eat onions. But having eaten only 20 onions, tears rolled down his eyes and he asked to be beaten. When guards started lashing him and the count reached to 50, Mukesh cried with pain and knelt down before the king feeling extremely sorry for his deeds. He promised not to cheat anyone in future. The king released him on a warning and Mukesh lived the life of an honest person thereafter.
Moral – ‘Greed leads to grief’
OR
THE SCARY NIGHT
It was 10 p.m. I was alone at home. Suddenly, I heard a knock on the door. I expected no one at that hour of time as all my family members had gone to attend a close family wedding whereas I was supposed to stay at home due to my board exams. Repeated knocking at the door scared me to death. A chill went down my spine. Suddenly, the lights went off and this only worsened my fear. Then I saw some shadows outside the window. My heartbeat increased as it was dense dark outside, and I couldn’t imagine in my wildest thoughts who could be there. I geared up, gathered courage and reached the window. Slowly I pulled the curtains and looked outside but the shadow was not clear at all and it was not a single shadow but four or five shadows. This was enough for me to believe that some scoundrels were there at the door. I looked for my cricket bat, held it tightly and reached for the main door of the living room. Although it was cold winter, I was still down with sweat. With a sudden jerk, I opened the door and lifted my bat to hit but I was surprised to see that it was my family members who had come early because of me. I felt relieved and embraced my mother tightly. That night I slept with my parents, holding my mother’s hand. It was really a scary night!
Moral – ‘Do not loose courage even in the worst situation.’

Question 5.
Fill in the blanks in the paragraph given below by choosing the most appropriate options from the ones that follow. Attempt any four. Write the answers in your answer sheet against the correct blank numbers.
[1 × 4 = 4]
The caves of Ajanta and Ellora _(a)__ the magnificent works of sculpture. Whoever __(b)__ there __(c)__ spell bound. Thousands __(d)__ tourists visit these places every year. One can stay __(e)__ the guest houses.
(a)
(i) is
(ii) are
(iii) was
(iv) were
(b)
(i) go
(ii) going
(iii) goes
(c)
(i) becomes
(ii) became
(iii) becoming
(iv) has become
(d)
(i) for
(ii) of
(iii) from
(iv) at
(e) (i) on
(ii) over
(iii) upon
(iv) in

Question 6.
In the following paragraph, one word has been omitted in each line. Write the missing word along with the word that comes before and the word that comes after it against the correct blank number. The first one has been done for you. Attempt any four [1 × 4 = 4]

Answer:
(a) to a legend
(b) Rama with the
(c) bridge to Lanka
(d) of this island
(e) Temple which is

Question 7.
Rearrange any four or the following groups
of word/phrases to make meaningful sentences. [1 × 4 = 4]
(a) of mankind / reading is / one of / pleasures / the greatest
(b) we / enjoy / the / much more / borrowed ones / our own books / reading / than
(c) book / carefully / must be / with / a borrowed / treated
(d) book / afraid of / you should / writing notes on / not be / your own (e) should begin / one / a private libarary / one’s youth / building / in
Answer:
(a) Reading is one of the greatest pleasures of mankind.
(b) We enjoy reading our own books much more than the borrowed ones.
(c) A borrowed book must be treated carefully with.
(d) You should not be afraid of writing notes on your own book.
(e) One should begin building a private library in one’s youth.

SECTION – C
(LITERATURE) 30

Question 8.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [1 × 4 = 4]
The baker usually collected his bills at the end of the month. Monthly accounts used to be recorded on some wall in pencil. Baking was indeed a profitable profession in the old days. The baker and his family never starved. He, his family and his servant always looked happy and prosperous. Their plump physique was an open testimony to this. Even today any person with a jackfruit like physical appearance is easily compared to a baker.
(a) Where did the baker record his accounts?
(b) Why did the baker and his family never starve ?
(c) Which word in the extract is a synonym of ’rich’ ?
(d) How can a baker be identified in Goa ?
OR
Now the name of the little black kitten was Ink.
And the little gray mouse, she called him Blink.
And the little yellow dog was sharp as Mustard,
But the dragon was a coward, and she called him Custard.
(a) Name the poem and its poet.
(b) What is the colour of Belinda’s dog ?
(c) What were the kitten and the mouse called ?
(d) Which word in the stanza is the antonym of ‘dull’ ?
Answer:
(a) The baker recorded his accounts on some wall in pencil.
(b) The baker and his family never starved because baking was a profitable profession in the old days.
(c) The synonym of the word ‘rich’is prosperous.
(d) A baker can be identified in Goa if he has a jackfruit- like physical appearance.
OR
(a) The name of the poem is ‘The Tale of Custard the Dragon’ and the poet is Ogden Nash.
(b) The color of the Belinda’s dog is yellow.
(c) The kitten was called ‘Ink’ and the mouse was called ‘Blink’.
(d) Antonym of the word ‘dull’ is sharp.

Question 9.
Answer any four of the following questions in 30-40 words each. [2 × 4 = 8]
(a) Why did Leancho write a letter to God ?
(b) How did Chubukov react when lomov asked for the hand of his daughter in marriage ?
(c) Where in the classroom does Wanda sit and why ?
(d) How did Ebright’s mother help him to becoming a scientist ?
(e) Why does Anil not hand Hari Singh over to the police ?
Answer:
(a) Lencho’s crops were destroyed by a hailstorm. He had put all his money in farming and therefore, he was left with no money now. But he had strong faith in God that God would definitely solve his problem. So, he wrote a letter to God asking for 100 pesos so that he and his family wouldn’t starve.
(b) Chubukov was extremely cheerful and excited when Lomov asked for the hand of his daughter in marriage. He embraced and kissed Lomov on his forehead and shed tears of joy. He exclaimed with happiness that it was his heartfelt desire. He was of the opinion that Lomov would turn out to be the perfect match for his daughter, so he showered his blessings upon Lomov after hearing this.
(c) Wanda sits in the seat next to the last seat in the last row in Room 13. She belongs to a poor family. Her feet are usually caked with dry mud and the comer of the classroom in which she sits is also very dirty. In order to avoid the embarrassment and being laughed at by her classmates, Wanda sits there to hide herself.
(d) Ebright’s mother motivated him to leam. She was his only childhood friend and a companion. She used to take him on trips, buy scientific equipments like microscopes, telescopes, cameras, etc. and help him in many ways. She introduced him to Dr. Fredrick A. Urquhart of the University of Toronto, Canada. She found many interesting things for him to leam.
(e) Anil does not hand Hari Singh over to the police because he realizes that beyond his identity as a thief, Hari Singh is a good person and has learnt a lesson. Anil understands that Hari Singh has changed now otherwise he wouldn’t have put the stolen money back in its place. Anil has a humble nature so he wants to give Hari Singh a chance and forgives him for stealing money.

Question 10.
Answer the following questions in 100-120 words: [8]
Mme Forestier proved to be a hue friend of the Loisels. Elaborate.
OR
Why did Gotami go to the Buddha ? What lesson did he teach her ?
Answer :
Mme Forestier proved to be a true friend of Loisels. Mme Forestier played a crucial role in the story. She helped Mathilde when Mathilde needed her genuinely. Mathilde was blessed with a beautiful physique but she lacked the lavish lifestyle she yearned for. Therefore, she was discontented with her life. Although Mme Forestier treated her kindly, Mathilde was jealous of Mme Forestier because of her wealth. Once, Mathilde had to attend a fancy party so she borrowed a diamond necklace from Mme Forestier. Forestier was immediately ready to lend Mathilde the necklace. In fact, she displayed the entire array of her jewels in front of her and asked her to choose from them. She didn’t show any urgency to get back the necklace and when Mathilde returned the necklace, Mme Forestier didn’t even inspect it. It shows her honest nature. She also felt bad when Mathilde suffered unnecessarily to pay for a replacement necklace. Thus, she proved to be her genuine friend.
OR
Kisa Gotami was a young woman who belonged to a wealthy family. She was married to a merchant. When her one-year old child fell ill and died, she was grief- stricken and couldn’t bear his death. She took her dead child in her arms and went door to door begging everyone to tell the way to get her child back to life. Nobody helped her and instead thought her to be crazy but she didn’t give up. Then she came across a Buddhist who suggested her to meet Buddha as only he could help him. That’s why Gotami went to Buddha. Buddha taught her the lesson of life and truth. When she told Buddha the whole story, he listened to it with patience and asked her to collect mustard seeds from a house where no one had ever died. She went from house to house but she couldn’t find a single house where no one had ever died. Ultimately, she understood what Buddha had been trying to explain her that suffering is inevitable and in this way, she realized that death is the ultimate truth and one has to meet his destined end one day, no one can avoid it. So, she took her child away and became Buddha’s follower.

Question 11.
Answer the following question in 200 – 250 words : [10]
Justify the title, “The Diary of A Young Girl’.
OR
Write a character sketch of Anne Frank.
OR
What type of relationship did Miss Anne Sullivan and Helen Share ?
OR
Write a character sketch of Alexander Graham Bell.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2019 Outside Delhi Set II

Time allowed : 3 Hours
Maximum marks : 100

Note: Except for the following questions all the remaining questions have been asked in the previous sets.

SECTION – B
(WRITING AND GRAMMAR) 30

Question 3.
You are Hema/Hemant, 14/9 Hill Apartment, Jaipur. You are not satisfied with the facilities for tourists in Jaipur. Write a letter in 100 – 120 words to the editor of a local daily giving suggestions on ways to improve the facilities for tourists. [8]
OR
You came across an advertisement advising motorists not to play loud music while driving as it may distract them. Write an article in 100 – 120 words for a local newspaper advising people to refrain from playing loud music while driving near hospitals, schools, etc. You are Tarun/ Tanvi.
Answer:
14/9, Hill Apartments
Jaipur
15th May, 20XX
The Editor Patrika Times Jaipur
Sub : Suggestions on ways to improve the facilities for tourists
Sir,
Through the columns of your esteemed newspaper, I would like to highlight the issues of dissatisfactory tourists’ facilities in Jaipur and wish to give my suggestions in this regard.
It is a world known fact that Rajasthan is one of the best tourists’ destinations in India and its capital Jaipur fascinates all foreigners immensly. But there are certain areas which need a lot of improvement. First and the foremost suggestion is related to the signboards places. As we know that foreigners don’t understand the local dialect the signboards and the direction boards should be both in Hindi and English. Another suggestion is regarding the cleanliness near the temples. Jaipur is popularly known as ‘Choti Kashi’ and the famous Govind Dev Ji temple is visited by almost each and every tourist here. But there is a lot of chaos around the temple area. The hawkers, peddlars and fruit sellers have made the area congested and filthy. The queue system is also out of place and it portrays a negative picture of the city. Thus, management should take certain steps in this regard. Then comes the question of forts. The magnificently built forts should be senior citizen friendly and there should be provision of lifts and wheelchairs for handicaps. My last suggestion is about the conditions of buses which is pathetic. Improved bus services would attract more tourists.
I hope my suggestions would find place in your newspaper and can be incorporated so that the tourism sector can be improved. Thanking You Yours Faithfully Hemant/Hema
OR
AVOID PLAYING LOUD MUSIC WHILE DRIVING
By Tarun/Tanvi
While reading the newspaper, I came across an advertisement advising the motorists not to play loud music while driving. This advertisement caught my attention and I felt that the need of the hour is to spread awareness amongst the people against it. Nowadays, listening to loud music while driving has become fashionable among people, especially youngsters, but they don’t know the harmful consequences of it. For their own entertainment, these people turn deaf ear to others’ problems. It not only affects the public and residents of the colony but the patients and children too. Loud music has become a constant source of nuisance. When loud music is being played near hospitals, patients lose their peaceful sleep and they become restless. The high volume of the music has disrupted everyone’s tranquility. Students fail to concentrate upon their studies and during examinations, they face great difficulty due to it. Moreover, there are cases of deafness, insomnia, palpitation of heart, mental fatigue etc. and among the sufferers are majorly small babies and old people.The problem further adds to the fact that noise control laws are neither followed properly nor implemented completely.
So I think that law alone is not sufficient until and unless we all take oath to make the city noise-free by educating the people about its ill effects. Everyone who plays loud music while driving, should refrain from doing so.

Question 4.
Comeplete the story in 200 – 250 words, which begins as the following, providing an appropriate title also. [10]
A woodcutter earned his living by cutting wood from the jungle and selling it in the market. One day when he was cutting down a tree on the bank of a river, his axe fell into the river. He was …..
The next day was the annual day of my school. I was very excited as I had participated in many activites. Moreover, I was going to receive the ’Best Student Trophy’ for 2017 -18. Late at night I heard a strange sound. My mother woke me up and told me that ……
Answer:
THE WOODCUTTER AND THE AXE
A woodcutter earned his living by cutting wood from the jungle and selling it in the market. One day when he was cutting down a tree on the bank of a river, his axe fell into the river. He was shocked to see that because the axe was his only source of earning. The river was deep enough and the poor woodcutter didn’t know how to swim. He sat there weeping. For hours he kept waiting for someone to help him but no one turned up. Then an unusual thing happened. A beautiful elf from the river appeared before the woodcutter. She asked him “Why are you not chopping the wood ?” The woodcutter sadly replied, “My axe has fallen into the river and I don’t know how to swim. Now I can’t cut wood”. The elf then showed him a golden axe and asked him “Is this your axe which had fallen into the river ?” The woodcutter saw the axe carefully and replied, “No, it’s not my axe”. The elf disappeared and after some time reappeared with a silver axe. She again asked the woodcutter, “Is this the axe you are looking for?” The woodcutter checked the axe again and said,” No, it’s not my axe. My axe is made up of iron and has a wooden handle”. This time the elf showed him his original axe and seeing that the woodcutter exclaimed with joy,” Yes, that’s my axe!” The honesty of the woodcutter made the elf very happy and she gave him both the gold and silver axes as his reward. The woodcutter accepted the gifts and returned home thrilled and overjoyed. He told the whole incident to wife who also appreciated his honesty and thereafter they both lived happily.
Moral -‘Honesty is always rewarded.’
OR
THE BEST TROPHY OF MY LIFE
The next day was the annual day of my school. I was very excited as I had
participated in many activities. Moreover, I was going to receive the ‘Best Student Trophy’ for 2017-18. Late at night, I heard a strange sound. My mother woke me up and told me that my grandmother had been seriously ill. She was gasping and sweating profusely. My mother was horrified and perplexed to see this. She couldn’t understand what had happened to the grandmother. She didn’t know what to do so she cried for help. My father was not at home that time. He had gone out of the town for a week for some official work. I was all alone with my mother, younger sister and grandmother. Nobody had ever imagined that anything like that would happen. Fortunately, our next door neighbour had returned home early as he had to attend some party that day. When he heard my mother shouting for help, he came running to our house. He saw my grandmother and immediately understood # her condition. Without a moment’s delay, ’ he took out his car, put my grandmother in it and rushed to the nearby hospital. Meanwhile his wife took me and my sister to her house, calmed us down and fed us properly. Doctors examined her and told that she had a mild heart attack and the slightest delay would have turned out to be dangerous for her. Next morning my grandmother was discharged after getting medical prescriptions and we took her back home. It was the happiest moment for all of us and we were grateful to our neighbours for because of whom we could see our grandmother alive. Then, I was all ready to receive the trophy but more than that, I was happy to have my grandmother back. It was the best trophy that I ever received in my life.

Question 5.
Fill in the blanks in the paragraph given below by choosing the most appropriate options from the ones that follow. Attempt any four. Write the answers in your answer sheet against the correct blank numbers. [1 × 4 = 4]
Television __(a)__ become very popular in our country. People spend a lot __(b)__ time watching a variety of programmes. Some of the programmes __(c)__ are telecast these days are of a very poor quality. We should remember that television is __(d)__ effective in educating __(e)__ nation.
(a) (i) is
(ii) was
(iii) has
(iv) had
(b) (i) of
(ii) for
(iii) at
(iv) by
(c) (i) those
(ii) when
(iii) here
(iv) that
(d) (i) so
(ii) many
(iii) very
(iv) some
(i) a
(ii) an
(iii) the
(iv) some
Answer:
(a) (iii) has
(b) (i) of
(c) (iv) that
(d) (iii) very
(e) (iii) the

Question 6.
The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Identify the error and write down its correction against the correct blank number. The first one has been done for you. Attempt any four. [1 × 4 = 4]

Answer:

Question 7.
Rearrange any four of the following groups of word/phrases to make meaningful sentences: [1 × 4 = 4]
(a) have become / part of / developing city / airports / an essential / a
(b) services / tourism in / air taxi / will / boost / the state
(c) more runways / for / we / landing / need / facilities
(d) promote / will surely / our tourism / this / sector
(e) this/increasing/will help/between cities
Answer:
(a) Airports have become an essential part of a developing city.
(b) Air taxi services will boost the tourism in the state.
(c) We need more runways for landing facilities.
(d) This sector will surely promote our tourism.
(e) This will help in increasing connectivity between cities.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2019 Outside Delhi Set III

Time allowed : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks : 100

Note: Except for the following questions all the remaining questions have been asked in the previous sets.

SECTION-B
(WRITING AND GRAMMAR) 30

Question 3.
Promila/Praveen chopra reads the following news report in a newspaper and feels deeply troubled. She/He writes a letter to the Editor. The Times of Delhi’, New Delhi voicing her/his concern for ill * effect of synthetic milk on the health of the unsuspecting consumers and suggesting ways to deal with the offenders. Imagine yourself as Promila/Praveen Chopra. 12/15, Kunj Vihar, Alapur and write the letter for her/him in 100 -120 words.
Alapur : August 24. The sale of synthetic milk continues unabated in the district despite ongoing efforts by the authorities concerned. Out of 20 samples of milk taken recently, reports of 19 which were received from Lakenagar Test Laboratory indicated adulteration with urea and other chemicals. [8]
OR
You are very impressed by the idea of ’Each one, Teach one and you want to participate in the campaign actively. Write an artical in 100 -120 words to be published in your school magazing on the topic, “The Role of Students in Achieving 100% Literacy.” You are Mohan/Mohini.
Answer:
12/15, Kunj Vihar Alapur
25th August, 20XX
The Editor
The Times of Delhi
New Delhi

Sub: III effects of synthetic milk on health and suggestions to deal with it.

Sir,
This is with reference to a news report which I read yesterday, regarding the adulteration of milk with urea and other chemicals. It has greatly disturbed me as we have been hearing the increased cases of unique diseases daily which were never heard of earlier. They are the consequence of the adulterated food products. Synthetic milk which contains the amount of urea, caustic soda, detergents and cheap cooking oils, increases the risk of heart problems. It is also harmful for pregnant ladies. Moreover, synthetic milk possesses cancerous properties and many people have been affected by it till date. Children are the biggest sufferers as their immune system is weak at a young age. The sodium that enters the body through the synthetic milk acts as a slow poison.
During the festival seasons, the increased cases of adulterated milk have come into light as the demand for milk increases to prepare sweets and other delicacies. Therefore, I suggest that the Health Department should keep a strict vigilance on these unscrupulous milk dealers and police should raid the milk factories from time to time. Food Safety and Standards Act prescribes maximum six months in prison for the offence and this should be taken into practice for sure. The Supreme Court has also advised the states to make the adulteration of milk a punishable offence. Thus, if these steps are followed strictly, I think the cases of milk adulteration will definitely reduce.
Thanking You
Yours Faithfully
Promila/Praveen Chopra

OR
THE ROLE OF THE STUDENTS IN
ACHIEVING 100% LITERACY
By Mohan/Mohini
Youth plays a vital role in the development of any country and one cannot deny their importance in the upliftment of a nation. India is a land of villages and most of its population is illiterate. In many villages, there are no schools or teaching facilities. Thus, villagers don’t get any opportunity to learn. Poverty and ignorance have deprived them from becoming literate. They don’t even know how to write their name or recognize the alphabets. The villagers are bound by the superstitions and it is necessary to remove these beliefs from their minds. Therefore, it becomes the duty of the youth to render their services to them by teaching them. They can give their valuable advice and guidance to educate ’ them. The government has also started a campaign ‘Each one, Teach One’ to facilitate the learning programme for the illiterates. So anyone who wants to participate in this campaign can get their names enrolled. I think it is a very good initiative by the government. The students are the only ones who can change the mindset of the illiterates and transform them. They can easily teach them using innovative techniques which would help them in many things such as their farming process. The students could make groups among themselves and start teaching the illiterate people in their respective areas. With the increase in the population, the responsibilities of students have also increased. Their role in teaching people is now full of challenges and they can possibly achieve 100% literacy in the country by making revolutionary changes.

Question 4.
Complete the story in 200 – 250 words, which begins as the following, providing an appropriate title also. [10]
It was raining heavily, the street light had gone off and I was alone, coming back from my tuition class. It was 8 p.m. and very cold. Suddenly I
OR
One day I was sleeping in my room. Suddenly I had difficulty in breathing. On waking up I found smoke coming into my room. I got up and oppened my window.
Peeping out I saw
Answer:
A FEARFUL INCIDENT
It was raining heavily, the street lights had gone off and I was alone, coming back from my tuition class. It was 8 p.m. and very cold. Suddenly, I heard some footsteps behind me. I stopped and looked behind but saw no one. I started walking again and then, I heard the footsteps again. This time it scared me. The road was lonely and in that rainy night, I could hardly see a person or two on the sideways. I neither had an umbrella nor a raincoat as I couldn’t think of the possibility of rain that day. I imagined who it could be? a watchman returning home after his duty or a criminal following me for some purpose? Mere thought of the latter aroused my goosebumps. I dared not to see back and instead increased my walking speed. But what! The footsteps behind me were also heard walking rapidly. I prayed silently to God to help me. In my fear, I followed the wrong path. I thought of screaming for help but now no one was there. The whole road was deserted because the road which I had taken went towards the isolated industrial area and the workers might have gone to their houses by then. I started running fast and the footsteps behind me also started running fast. I was almost on the verge of fainting when the voice from behind held my breath. I mustered up the courage and turned back. I saw a tall man, wearing a long raincoat and a hat, moving towards me. In a stem voice he asked me stop and I stopped! When he came closer to me, I saw his face. He was a policeman who was doing his night duty. He asked me the reason for running as he suspected me to be a criminal. I explained him that I was returning back home from tuition and showed him my tuition register and books as proof. When he was satisfied with the answer, he escorted me to the house and went away.
OR
A FIERY EXPERIENCE
One day I was sleeping in my room. Suddenly I had difficulty breathing. On waking up I found smoke coming into my room. I got up and opened my window. Peeping out, I saw a big fire which broke out in the busy commercial complex in front of my house. Without wasting a second, I rang up the fire brigade and informed the police too. The security guard was shouting at the top of his voice. Everyone came out of their houses. The fire started spreading fast and the worst thing that happened was the wind which started blowing at the same moment. It made the fire more tyrannous. Many people got trapped in the fire. I joined the others in the rescue work. Soon the police and firemen arrived and began doing their job. The police quickly evacuated the area and the firemen got engaged in fighting the fire. It nearly took one and a half hour to extinguish the fire. It was actually very difficult to evacuate the people trapped in the leaping flames. Fortunately, there was no harm to any life although goods worth lakhs were destroyed and turned into ashes. Later on, it was discovered that the fire broke out due to short circuit that had sparked off the fire in one of the shops in the complex. If there was no quick action taken by the firemen, policemen and security guards, anything hazardous could have happened.
That day, I understood the true value of our helpers and how they carry out their duties. Everyone’s job is equally important and we should never underestimate any work as no work is small. I salute these brave people who render their services to help others by putting their own lives at risk.
Moral – Always value the services rendered to us by the helpers’

Question 5.
Fill in the blanks in the paragraph given below by choosing the most appropriate options from the ones that follow. Attempt any four. Write the answers in your answer sheet against the correct blank numbers.
[1 × 4 = 4]
Belgium is considered to __(a)__ a country __(b)__ chocolates. It is a big business __(c)__ employs nearly 72,000 people. Most Belgium chocolate makers __(d)__ their craft at vocational schools. They set up __(e)__ own business.
(a)
(i) been
(ii) be
(iii) as
(iv) for
(b)
(i) of
(ii) for
(iii) from
(iv) to
(c)
(i) also
(ii) or
(iii) but
(iv) and
(d)
(i) are learning
(ii) have learnt
(iii) will learn
(iv) learn
(e)
(i) that
(ii) those
(iii) their
(iv) our
Answer:
(a)
(i) been
(ii) be
(iii) as
(iv) for
(b)
(i) of
(ii) for
(iii) from
(iv) to
(c)
(i) also
(ii) or
(iii) but
(iv) and
(d)
(i) are learning
(ii) have learnt
(iii) will learn
(iv) learn
(e)
(i) that
(ii) those
(iii) their
(iv) our
Answer:
(a)
(ii) be
(b)
(i) of
(c)
(iv) and
(d)
(iv) learn
(e)
(iii) their

Question 6.
The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Identify the error and write down its correction against the correct blank number. The first one has been done for you. Attempt any four. [1 × 4 = 4]

Answer:

Question 7.
Rearrange any four or the following groups of words/phrases to make meaningful sentences: [1 × 4 = 4]
(a) are / a storehouse / Indian / Indian art / of / temples
(b) these / the architecture / artistic masterpiece / of / temoles / is an
(c) is situated / north-eastern / Konark temple / side / on the / of Puri
(d) chariot / from of / temple is / the / the / a /in
(e) its sculptures / famous / is / for / temple / the
Answer:
(a) Indian temples are a storehouse of Indian art.
(b) The architecture of these temples is an artistic masterpiece.
(c) Konark Temple is situated on the north-eastern side of Puri.
(d) The temple is in the form of a chariot.
(e) The temple is famous for its sculptures.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2019 Outside Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

ePASS Karnataka: Karnataka education board has launched ePASS Karnataka which is also known as the KARePASS is a dedicated electronic and payment system for scholarships. This scheme is presented by the department of backward class welfare by the government of Karnataka. The official government portal looks after the online disbursement of the scholarships to the students that fall under the Karnataka domicile. The main aim behind the ePASS Karnataka portal is to make sure that the students of Karnataka are educationally uplifted. Also, it links welfare departments, welfare, banks, colleges, and secondary school leaving certificate database together. Thus, it ensures that the disbursal of scholarships is hassle-free.

ePass Karnataka Overview

ePASS Karnataka – Key Features

In order to make the process of inviting applications simple for the scholarships, the ePASS Karnataka portal was created. This portal focuses majorly on the post-matric scholarships and below are some of the features that can be useful for the users:

• Checking Application Status: This feature allows the candidate to track the real-time status for their application by providing details like the academic year, the application number, SSLC pass type, SSLC registration number, year of passing SSLC, and the date of birth
• Knowing your application number: The candidates that do not remember their application number can search for this using the facility provided on the portal. There are certain details that need to be provided on the portal kike SSLC pass type, year of passing, and date of birth.
• Hostel application status: You can also know your hostel application status online via this portal by simply providing your date of birth and application number.
• Pratibha acknowledgment: You download the Pratibha puraskar scholarship acknowledgment through this portal by either providing your application reference number or other details.

ePass Karnataka – Check Application Status

ePASS Karnataka – Schemes Listed

The ePASS Karnataka portal enlisted s variety of schemes offered by the department of backward class welfare for students that belongs to backward class and are studying at different levels of education. The main schemes that are available on the portal are as follows

• Food and accommodation scholarship scheme (PMS)
• Post-matric scholarship scheme (PMS)
• Fee concession scheme (FC)

Besides the above-mentioned schemes, the portal also provides and processes the applications for Vidyasiri and pre-matric scholarship scheme.

ePASS Karnataka – Scholarship Details

There are different eligibility conditions that one needs to fulfill for schemes available on the ePASS portal. Also, the financial assistance rendered to the students under the given schemes is different. You can find all these details in the table given below. Also, if you are a permanent resident of Karnataka and belong to the backward class, you are automatically eligible to apply for the scholarship schemes which are available on the ePASS portal.

Detailed Overview of ePASS Scholarship schemes

ePass Karnataka – Application Process

The process to apply for each scholarship mentioned on the ePASS Karnataka is easy and simple. The students that qualify the eligibility criteria for any of the given scholarship can apply online through the steps given below. Depending on the timeline for each scholarship, the official application page remains open for a specific period only.

How To Apply for ePASS Karnataka Portal?

• Go to the official website of ePASS Karnataka i.e. karepass.cgg.gov.in/
• On the main website, look for the scholarship notification.
• There read the application guidelines given carefully.
• For application, you need to start by registering yourself on the portal.
• Fill up all the details required in the application form and upload the relevant documents.
• Finally, click on the ‘submit’ button and submit your application form.

Required Documents for ePASS Karnataka Scholarship

Candidates that are applying for the Karnataka ePASS scholarship should have some required documents. Students can check the details of these required documents that are given below:

• Aadhar card of father and mother/guardian
• Aadhar card of the candidate
• Income certificate
• Caste certificate
• Bank passbook that contains the bank number and IFSC code
• Residential certificate
• SSLC certificate and bonafide certificate of the prospective college for the candidate

Key Statistics for PMS Scheme at ePASS Karnataka

Key Data for FC Scheme at ePASS Karnataka

Key Data for FAAS at ePASS Karnataka

ePASS Karnataka – Contact Details

In case, you come across any queries related to the ePASS Karnataka scholarship or its application, feel free to contact the provider at the below-mentioned address

Karnataka Backward Classes Welfare Department
No. 16/D, 3^rd Floor, Devraj Urs Bhavan,
Millers Tank Bed Road, Vasanth Nagar,
Bangalore – 560052.
Phone: 8050770005
Email: bcdbng@kar.nic.in

The post ePass Karnataka | Dedicated Scholarship Portal for Backward Classes Welfare appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 7 Landforms and their Evolution

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Multiple choice questions

Question 1(i).
In which of the following stages of landform development, downward cutting is dominated?
(a) Youth stage
(b) Late mature stage
(c) Early mature stage
(d) Old stage.
Answer:
(a) Youth stage

Question 1(ii).
A deep valley characterised by steep step-like side slopes is known as
(a) U-shaped valley
(b) Gorg
(c) Blind valley
(d) Canyon.
Answer:
(d) Canyon

Question 1(iii).
In which one of the following regions the chemical weathering process is more dominant than the mechanical process?
(a) Humid region
(b) Limestone region
(c) Arid region
(d) Glacier region,
Answer:
(b) Limestone region

Question 1(iv).
Which one of the following sentences best defines the term ‘Lapies’?
(a) A small to medium sized shallow depression
(b) A landform whose opening is more or less circular at the top and funnel shaped towards bottom
(c) A landform formed due to dripping water from surface
(d) An irregular surface with sharp pinnacles, grooves and ridges.
Answer:
(a) A small to medium sized shallow depression

Question 1(v).
A deep, long and wide trough or basin with very steep concave high walls at its head as well as in sides is known as: (a) Cirque
(b) Glacial valley
(c) Lateral Moraine
(d)Esker.
Answer:
(a) Cirque.

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

Question 2(i).
What do incised meanders in rocks and meanders in plains of alluvium indicate?
Answer:
In streams that flow rapidly over steep gradients, normally erosion is concentrated on the bottom of the stream channel. In the case of steep gradient streams lateral erosion on the sides of the valleys is not much when compared to the streams flowing on low and gentle slopes. Because of active lateral erosion, streams flowing over gentle slopes, develop sinuous or meandering courses. It is common to find meandering courses over floodplains and delta plains where stream gradients are very gentle. But very deep and wide meanders can also be found cut in hard rocks. Meander loops develop over original gentle surfaces in the initial stages of development of streams and the same loops get entrenched into the rocks normally due to erosion or slow, continued uplift of the land over which they start. They widen and deepen over time and can be found as deep gorges and canyons in hard rock areas. They give an indication on the status of original land surfaces over which streams have developed.

Question 2(ii).
Explain the evolution of valley sinks or uvalas.
Answer:
Quite often the surface run-off simply goes down swallow and sink holes and flow as underground streams and reemerge at a distance downstream through a cave opening. When sink holes and dolines join together because of slumping of materials along their margins or due to roof collapse of caves, long, narrow to wide trenches called valley sinks or uvalas form.

Question 2(iii).
Underground flow of water is more common than surface run-off in limestone areas. Why?
Answer:
The results of the work of groundwater cannot be seen in all types of rocks. But in rocks like limestones or dolomites rich in calcium carbonate, the surface water as well as groundwater through the chemical process of solution and precipitation deposition develop varieties of landforms. These two processes of solution and precipitation are active in limestones or dolomites occurring either exclusively or interbedded with other rocks. Therefore, underground flow of water is more common than surface run off in limestone areas.

Question 2(iv).
Glacial valleys show up many linear depositional forms. Give their locations and names.
Answer:
Glacial valleys show up many linear depositional forms. Their locations and names are as follows:
1. Moraines: They are long ridges of deposits of glacial till. Lateral moraines form along the sides parallel to the glacial valleys. The lateral moraines may join a terminal moraine forming a horse-shoe shaped ridge. There can be many lateral moraines on either side in a glacial valley.

2.Eskers: When glaciers melt in summer, the water flows on the surface of the ice or seeps down along the margins or even moves through holes in the ice. These waters accumulate beneath the glacier and flow like streams in a channel beneath the ice. Such streams flow over the ground with ice forming its banks. Very coarse materials like boulders and blocks along with some minor fractions of rock debris carried into this stream settle in the valley of ice beneath the glacier and after the ice melts can be found as a sinuous ridge called esker.

3. Outwash Plains: The plains at the foot of the glacial mountains or beyond the limits of continental ice sheets are covered with glacio-fluvial deposits in the form of broad flat alluvial fans which may join to form outwash plains of gravel, silt, sand and clay.

4. Drumlins: Drumlins are smooth oval shaped ridge-like features composed mainly of glacial till with some masses of gravel and sand. The long axes of drumlins are parallel to the direction of ice movement. They may measure up to 1 km in length and 30 m or so in height.

Question 2(v).
How does wind perform its task in desert areas? Is it the only agent responsible for the erosional features in the deserts?
Answer:
The desert floors get heated up too much and too quickly because of being dry and barren. The heated floors heat up the air directly above them and result in upward movements in the hot lighter air with turbulence, and any obstructions in its path sets up eddies, whirlwinds, updrafts and downdrafts. Winds also move along the desert floors with great speed and the obstructions in their path create turbulence. There are storm winds as well which are very destructive. Winds cause deflation, abrasion and impact.

Deflation includes lifting and removal of dust and smaller particles from the surface of rocks. In the transportation process sand and silt act as effective tools to abrade the land surface. The impact is simply sheer force of momentum which occurs when sand is blown into or against a rock surface. It is similar to sand- blasting operation. The wind action creates a number of interesting erosional and depositional features in the deserts.

No, wind is not the only agent responsible for the erosional features in the deserts. Wind is one of the two dominant agents in hot deserts. The other one is rain or sheet wash.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words.

Question 3(i)
Running water is by far the most dominating geomorphic agent in shaping the earth’s surface in humid as well as in arid climates. Explain.
Answer:
In humid regions, which receive heavy . rainfall running water is considered
the most important of the geomorphic agents in bringing about the degradation of the land surface. There are two components of running water. One is overland flow on general land surface as a sheet. Another is linear flow as
streams and rivers in valleys. Most of the erosional landforms made by running water are associated with vigorous and youthful rivers flowing over steep gradients. With time, stream channels over steep gradients turn gentler due to continued erosion, and as a consequence, lose their velocity, facilitating active deposition.

There may be depositional forms associated with streams flowing over steep slopes. But these phenomena will be on a small scale compared to those associated with rivers flowing over medium to gentle slopes. The gentler the river channels in gradient or slope, the greater is the deposition. When the stream beds turn gentler due to continued erosion, downward cutting becomes less dominant and lateral erosion of banks increases and as a consequence the hills and valleys are reduced to plains.

In dry regions, most of the landforms are formed by the erosion and deposition of flood sheet. Although, in deserts, rain is scarce, it comes down torrentially in a short period of time. The desert rocks devoid of vegetation, exposed to mechanical and chemical weathering processes due to drastic diurnal temperature changes, decay faster and the torrential rains help in removing the weathered materials easily. That means, the weathered debris in deserts is moved by not only wind but also by rain/sheet wash.

Question 3(ii).
Limestones behave differently in humid and arid climates. Why? What is the dominant and almost exclusive geomorphic process in limestone areas and what are its results?
Answer:
Many depositional forms develop within the limestone caves. The chief chemical in limestone is calcium carbonate which is easily soluble in carbonated water i.e. carbon dioxide absorbed rainwater. This calcium carbonate is deposited when the water carrying it in solution evaporates or loses its carbon dioxide as it trickles over rough rock surfaces. Stalactites, Stalagmites and Pillars Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters.

Normally they are broad at their bases and taper towards the free ends showing up in a variety of forms. Stalagmites rise up from the floor of the caves. In fact, stalagmites form due to dripping water from the surface or through the thin pipe, of the stalactite, immediately below it.

The results of the work of groundwater cannot be seen in all types of rocks. But in rocks like limestones or dolomites rich in calcium carbonate, the surface water as well as groundwater through the chemical process of solution and precipitation deposition develop varieties of landforms. These two processes of solution and precipitation are active in limestones or dolomites occurring either exclusively or interbedded with other rocks. Therefore, underground flow of water is more common than surface run off in limestone areas.

Question 3(iii).
How do glaciers accomplish the work of reducing high mountains into low hills and plains?
Answer:
Masses of ice moving as sheets over the land or as linear flows down the slopes of mountains in broad trough-like valleysare called glaciers. A glacier in its valley is slow unlike water flow. The movement could be a few centimetres to a few metres a day or even less or more. Glaciers move basically because of the force of gravity.

Erosion by glaciers is tremendous because of friction caused by sheer weight of the ice. The material plucked from the land by glaciers get dragged along the floors or sides of the valleys and cause great damage through abrasion and plucking. Glaciers can cause significant damage to even unweathered rocks and can reduce high mountains into low hills and plains.

As glaciers continue to move, debris gets removed, divides get lowered and eventually the slope is reduced to such an extent that, glaciers will stop moving leaving only a mass of low hills and vast outwash plains along with other depositional features.

Project Work

1. Identify the landforms, materials and processes around your area.
Answer:
Attempt yourself.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Outwash plains are formed by:
(a) Rivers
(b) Glacier
(c) Underground water
(d) Wind.
Answer:
(a) Rivers

Question 2.
What are most important landforms in desert areas?
(a) Chardong
(b) Interbedded rocks
(c) Sand dunes
(d) Valleys.
Answer:
(c) Sand dunes

Question 3.
They are deep, long and wide troughs or basins with very steep concave to vertically dropping high walls at its head as well as sides. What are they?
(a) Cirque
(b) Horne
(c) Esker
(d) Drumlin.
Answer:
(a) Cirque

Question 4.
Which type of landforms are formed by rivers in youth stage?
(a) Desert
(b) Cirque
(c) Lakes
(d) V-shaped valley.
Answer:
(d) V-shaped valley.

Question 5.
In mature stage, loop like channel patterns develop in rivers. These are called:
(a) Meanders
(b) Canyon
(c) Delta
(d) Cirque.
Answer:
(a) Meanders

Question 6.
On the mouth, the river flows not on one but many sides. It is called:
(a) Meanders
(b) Canyon
(c) Delta
(d) Cirque.
Answer:
(c) Delta

Question 7.
Very coarse materials like boulders and blocks along with some minor fractions of rock debris carried into this stream settle in the valley of ice beneath the glacier and after the ice melts can be found as a sinuous ridge called what?
(a) Meanders
(b) Esker
(c) Delta
(d) Cirque.
Answer:
(b) Esker

Question 8.
Which types of landforms are formed by rivers in their mature stage?
(a) Meanders, deltas and concave bank
(b) V-shaped valley and waterfall
(c) Canyon and sand dunes
(d) U-shaped valley and gorge.
Answer:
(a) Meanders, deltas and concave bank

Question 9.
In which stage streams divides are broad and flat with marshes, swamp and lakes?
(a) Youth stage
(b) Mature stage
(c) Final stage
(d) Old stage.
Answer:
(a) Youth stage

Question 10.
Which of the following landform is not made by rivers?
(a) V-shaped valley
(b) Waterfall
(c) Delta
(d) Sand dunes.
Answer:
(d) Sand Dunes

Question 11.
Which of the following is created by soil erosion by the rivers?
(a) V-shaped valley
(b) Waterfall
(c) Delta
(d) Sand dunes.
Answer:
(a) V-shaped valley

Question 12.
Which of the following landform is made by deposition by ground water?
(a) Lapies
(b) Pools
(c) Sinkholes
(d) Stalagmites.
Answer:
(d) Stalagmites

Question 13.
Which of the following landform is not made by glaciers?
(a) Cirque
(b) Home
(c) Esker
(d) Stalagmites.
Answer:
(d) Stalagmites

Question 14.
Which of the following is responsible for making sand dunes?
(a) Sea waves
(b) River
(c) Wind
(d) Glacier.
Answer:
(d) Glacier

Question 15.
Which of the following is not made by deposition of waves and currents?
(a) Bars
(b) Dunes
(c) Barriers
(d) Meanders.
Answer:
(d) Meanders

Question 16.
Which of the following is not made by erosion, waves and currents?
(a) Bars
(b) Dunes
(c) Barriers
(d) Stacks.
Answer:
(d) Stacks

Question 17.
Which geomorphic agent is responsible for making of drumlins?
(a) Wind
(b) River
(c) Ground water
(d) Glaciers.
Answer:
(d) Glaciers

Question 18.
Which of the landform is made by rivers in old age?
(a) V-shaped valley
(b) Waterfall
(c) Delta
(d) Meanders.
Answer:
(d) Meanders.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How do landforms transform?
Answer:
Stability of sea level; tectonic stability of landmasses and climate, which influence the evolution of landforms. Any disturbance in any of these three controlling factors can upset the systematic and sequential stages in the development and evolution of landforms.

Question 2.
Where are alluvial fans formed?
Answer:
Alluvial fans are formed when streams flowing from higher levels break into foot slope plains of low gradient.

Question 3.
Which landforms are made by rivers in their youth stage?
Answer:
Rivers in youth stage form v-shaped valleys, waterfalls, canyon and meanders.

Question 4.
Which landforms are made by rivers in their mature stage?
Answer:
Rivers in mature stage form alluvial fans, mountaneous plains, cirques, etc.

Question 5.
Which landforms are made by rivers in their old stage?
Answer:
Rivers make flood plains, delta, lakes, volcanic plains in their old age.

Question 6.
Name the landforms made by groundwater.
Answer:
Pools, sinkholes, lapies and limestone pavements, caves, stalactites, stalagmites and pillars stalactites are formed by groundwater.

Question 7.
What do you mean by meanders?
Answer:
In mature stage, loop like channel patterns develop in rivers. These are called meanders.

Question 8.
How does ocean barriers prevent storm and tsunami?
Answer:
The coastal off-shore bars offer the first buffer or defence against storm or tsunami by absorbing most of their destructive force.

Question 9.
How do inselberg get formed?
Answer:
Once, pediments are formed with a steep wash slope followed by cliff or free face above it, the steep wash slope and free face retreat backwards. So, through parallel retreat of slopes, the pediments extend backwards at the expense of mountain front, and gradually, the mountain gets reduced leaving an inselberg which is a remnant of the mountain.

Question 10.
What are deflation hollows?
Answer:
Weathered mantle from over The rocks or bare soil, gets blown out by persistent movement of wind currents in one direction. This process may create shallow depressions called deflation hollows.

Question 11.
What are blow outs?
Answer:
Deflation creates numerous small pits or cavities over rock surfaces. The rock faces suffer impact and abrasion of wind- borne sand and first shallow depressions called blow outs are created.

Question 12.
What are caves?
Answer:
Some of the blow outs become deeper and wider. These are called caves.

Question 13.
What do you mean by saltation?
Answer:
Depending upon the velocity of wind, different sizes of grains are moved along the floors by rolling and carried in suspension and in this process of
transportation itself, the materials get sorted. These are called saltation.

Question 14.
How are pediments formed?
Answer:
Pediments are formed through the erosion of mountain front through a combination of lateral erosion by streams and sheet flooding.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the depositional landforms formed by groundwater.
Answer:
The depositional landform formed by the groundwater are:

• Stalactites: Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameter. Normally they are broad at their bases and taper towards the free ends showing up in variety of forms.
• Stalagmites: Stalagmites rise up from the floor of the caves. In fact stalagmites form due to dripping water from the surface or through the thin pipe of stalactite, immediately below it. Stalagmite may take the shape of a column, a disc with either a smooth, rounded bulging end or a miniature crater like depression.
• Pillars: The stalagmite and stalactite eventually fuse to give rise to column and pillars.

Question 2.
How are river terrace formed?
Answer:
River terrace are basically products of erosion as they result due to vertical erosion by the stream into its own depositional flood plains. The terraces may result due to:-

• Receding water after a peak flow.
• Change in hydrological regimes due to climatic changes.
• Tectonic uplift of land.
• Sea level changes in case of rivers closer to the sea.

Question 3.
Explain about drumlin.
Answer:
Meaning: Drumlins are smooth oval shaped ridge-like features composed mainly of glacial till with some masses of gravel and sand. The long axes of drumlins are parallel to the direction of ice movement.
Measurement and parts: They may measure up to 1 km in length and 30 m or so in height. One end of the drumlins facing the glacier called the stoss end is blunter and steeper than the other end called tail.

Formation: The drumlins form due to dumping of rock debris beneath heavily loaded ice through fissures in the glacier. The stoss end gets blunted due to pushing by moving ice. Drumlins give an indication of direction of glacier movement.

Question 4.
Explain the erosion done by glaciers.
Axis. Erosion by glaciers is tremendous because of friction caused by sheer weight of the ice. The material plucked from the land by glaciers get dragged along the floors or sides of the valleys and cause great damage through abrasion and plucking. Glaciers can cause significant damage to even un-weathered rocks and can reduce high mountains into low hills and plains. Stalagmites may take the shape of a column, a disc, with either a smooth, rounded bulging end or a miniature crater like depression. The stalagmite and stalactites eventually fuse to give rise to columns and pillars of different diameters.

As glaciers continue to move, debris gets removed, divides get lowered and eventually the slope is reduced to such an extent that glaciers will stop moving leaving only a mass of low hills and vast outwash plains along with other depositional features.

EROSIONAL LANDFORMS

• Cirque: Cirques are the most common of landforms in glaciated mountains. The cirques quite often are found at the heads of glacial valleys. The accumulated ice cuts these cirques while moving down the mountain tops.
• Horns and Serrated Ridges: Horns form through head ward erosion of the cirque walls. If three or more radiating glaciers cut headward until their cirques meet, high, sharp pointed and steep sided peaks called horns form.
• Glacial Valleys/Troughs: Glaciated valleys are trough-like and U-shaped with broad floors and relatively smooth, and steep sides.

Question 5.
What are different depositional landforms created by oceans.
Answer:
Sea waves also deposit their eroded materials. It gives birth to following landforms.

• Beaches and Dunes: Beaches are characteristic of shorelines that are dominated by deposition, but may occur as patches along even the rugged shores. Most of the sediment making up the beaches comes from land carried by the streams and rivers or from wave erosion. Beaches are temporary features.
• Bars: A ridge of sand and shingle formed in the sea in the off-shore zone (from the position of low tide waterline to seaward lying approximately parallel to the coast is called an off-shore bar.
• Barriers: An off-shore bar which is exposed due to further addition of sand is termed as barrier bar.
• Spits: The off-shore bars and barriers commonly form across the mouth of a river or at the entrance of a bay. Sometimes such barrier bars get keyed up to one end of the bay when they are called spits.

Question 6.
What are the causes behind formation of river meander landform?
Or
Meander is not a landform but is only a type of channel pattern. Justify.
Answer:
Meander is not a landform but is only a type of channel pattern because of

• Propensity of water flowing over very gentle gradients to work laterally on the banks.
• Unconsolidated nature of alluvial deposits making up the banks with many irregularities which can be used by water exerting pressure.
• Coriolis force acting on the fluid water deflecting, it like it deflects the wind. When the gradient of the channel becomes extremely low, water flows leisurely and starts working laterally.

Normally, in meanders of large rivers, there is active deposition along the convex bank and undercutting along the concave bank. The concave bank is known as cut-off bank which shows up as a steep scarp and the convex bank presents a long, gentle profile and is known as slip-off bank. As meanders grow into deep loops, the same may get cut-off due to erosion at the inflection points and are left as Ox-bow.

Question 7.
Explain the process of formation of sand dunes.
Answer:
There are two types of sand dunes:
1. Sand dunes in deserts: Dry hot deserts are good places for sand dune formation. Obstacles to initiate dune formation are equally important. There can be a great variety of dune forms.

• Crescent shaped dunes called barchans with the points or wings directed away from wind direction i.e., downwind, form where the wind direction is constant and moderate and where the original surface over which sand is moving is almost uniform.
• Parabolic dunes form when sandy surfaces are partially covered with vegetation. That means parabolic dunes are reversed barchans with wind direction being the same.
• Longitudinal dunes form when supply of sand is poor and wind direction is constant. They appear as long ridges of considerable length but low in height.
• Transverse dunes are aligned perpendicular to wind direction. These dunes form when the wind direction is constant and the source of sand is an elongated feature at right angles to the wind direction. They may be very long and low in height. When sand is plenty, quite often, the regular shaped dunes coalesce and lose their individual characteristics.

2. Sand Dunes formed by waves: The sandy beach which appears so permanent may be reduced to a very narrow strip of coarse pebbles in some other season. Most of the beaches are made up of sand sized materials. Beaches called shingle beaches contain excessively small pebbles and even cobbles. Just behind the beach, the sands lifted and winnowed from over the beach surfaces will be deposited as sand dunes. Sand dunes forming long ridges parallel to the coastline are very common along low sedimentary coasts.

Question 8.
What are playas or alkali regions, Explain their formation.
Answer:
Plains are by far the most prominent landforms in the deserts. In basins with mountains and hills around and along, the drainage is towards the centre of the basin and due to gradual deposition of sediment from basin margins, a nearly level plain forms at the centre of the basin. In times of sufficient water, this plain is covered up by a shallow water body. Such types of shallow lakes are called as playas where water is retained only for short duration due to evaporation and quite often the playas contain good deposition of salts. The playa plain covered up by salts is called alkali flats.

Question 9.
Explain the landforms created by erosion through wind.
Answer:
Important erosional landforms created by wind are as follows:
1. Pediments: Landscape evolution in deserts is primarily concerned with the formation and extension of pediments. Gently inclined rocky floors close to the mountains at their foot with or without a thin cover of debris, are called pediments. Such rocky floors form through the erosion of mountain front through a combination of lateral erosion by streams and sheet flooding. Erosion starts along the steep margins of the landmass or the steep sides of the tectonically controlled steep incision features over the landmass.

2. Pediplains: Once, pediments are formed with a steep wash slope followed by cliff or free face above it, the steep wash slope and free face retreat backwards. This method of erosion is termed as parallel retreat of slopes through backwasting. So, through parallel retreat of slopes, the pediments extend backwards at the expense of mountain front, and gradually, the mountain gets reduced leaving an inselberg which is a remnant of the mountain. That’s how the high relief in desert areas is reduced to low featureless plains called pediplains.

3. Playas: Plains are by far the most prominent landforms in the deserts. In basins with mountains and hills around and along, the drainage is towards the centre of the basin and due to gradual deposition of sediment from basin margins, a nearly level plain forms at the centre of the basin. In times of sufficient water, this plain is covered up by a shallow water body. Such types of shallow lakes are called as playas where water is retained only for short duration due to evaporation and quite often the playas contain good deposition of salts. The playa plain covered up by salts is called alkali flats.

4. Deflation Hollows: Weathered mantle from over the rocks or bare soil, gets blown out by persistent movement of wind currents in one direction. This process may create shallow depressions called deflation hollows.

5. Caves: Deflation also creates numerous small pits or cavities over rock surfaces. The rock faces suffer impact and abrasion of wind-borne sand and first shallow depressions called blow outs are created, and some of the blow outs become deeper and wider fit to be called caves.

6. Mushroom, Table: Many rock-outcrops in the deserts easily susceptible to wind deflation and abrasion are worn out quickly leaving some remnants of resistant rocks polished beautifully in the shape of mushroom with a slender stalk and a broad and rounded pear shaped cap above.

7. Pedestal Rocks: Sometimes, the top surface is broad like a table top and quite often, the remnants stand out like pedestals.

Question 10.
Explain the depositional landforms made by wind.
Answer:
Wind is a good sorting agent. Depending upon the velocity of wind, different sizes of grains are moved along the floors by rolling or saltation and carried in suspension and in this process of transportation itself, the materials get sorted.

• Crescent shaped dunes called barchans with the points or wings directed away from wind direction i.e., downwind, form where the wind direction is constant and moderate and where the original surface over which sand is moving is almost uniform.
• Parabolic dunes form when sandy surfaces are partially covered with vegetation. That means parabolic dunes are reversed barchans with wind direction being the same.
• Longitudinal dunes form when supply of sand is poor and wind direction is constant. They appear as long ridges of considerable length but low in height.
• Transverse dunes are aligned perpendicular to wind direction. These dunes form when the wind direction is constant and the source of sand is an elongated feature at right angles to the wind direction. They may be very long and low in height. When sand is plenty, quite often, the regular shaped dunes coalesce and lose their individual characteristics.

Question 11.
How does wind forms geomorphic landforms or how does wind performs its tasks in the desert areas.
Answer:

• Wind move along the desert floors with great speed and the obstructions in their path create turbulence. Wind causes deflations, abrasion and impact.
• Deflation includes lifting and removal of dust and smaller particles from the surface of rocks. In the transportation process sand and silt act as effective tools to abrade the land surface. The impact is simply sheer force of momentum which occurs when sand is blown into or against a rock surface.

Question 12.
Explain the depositional landforms formed by glaciers.
Answer:
The depositional landforms formed by glaciers are:

• Moraines: When valley glaciers retreating rapidly leave an irregular sheet of till over their valley floor. Such deposits varying greatly in thickness and in surface topography are called Moraines
• Esker: When glaciers melt, the water flows on the surface of the ice or seeps down along the margins or even moves through the holes in the ice. Very minor coarse materials settle in valley of ice beneath the glacier and when ice melts it can be found as sinuous ridge called Esker.
• Drumlins: Drumlins are smooth oral shaped ridge-like features composed mainly of glacial till with some masses of gravel and sand.

Question 13.
What are Moraines? Explain different types of Moraines with diagram.
Answer:
Moraines are long ridges of deposits of glacial till.
Different types of moraines are:

•  The lateral moraines: They form along the sides parallel to glacial valleys. These moraines partly or fully owe their origin to glacio- fluvial waters pushing up materials to the sides of glaciers.
• Ground moraines: Many valley glaciers retreating rapidly leave an irregular sheet of till over their valley floors. Such deposits varying greatly in thickness and in surface topography are called Ground moraines.
• Medial moraines: The moraines in the centre of the glacial valley flanked by lateral moraines is called medial moraines.

Question 14.
Differentiate between:
1. Stalactites and Stalagmites
2. Sinkholes and Urallas
3. Gorge and Canyon
Answer:
1. Stalactites and Stalagmites

2. Sinkholes and Urallas

3. Gorge and Canyon

• A gorge is a deep valley with very steep to straight sides and a canyon is characterized by steep step-like side slopes and may be as deep as a gorge.
• A gorge is almost equal in width at its top as well as its bottom. In contrast, a canyon is wider at its top than at its bottom. In fact, canyon is a variant of gorge.
• Example, canyons commonly form in horizontal bedded sedimentary rocks and gorge form in hard rocks.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the landforms that are seen in upper part of the river.
Answer:
In upper part of the river, many beautiful and attractive landforms are formed. Some of them are as follows:

•  V-shaped valleys: Valleys start as small and narrow rills; the rills will gradually develop into long and wide gullies; the gullies will further deepen, widen and lengthen to give rise to valleys. Depending upon dimensions and shape, many types of valleys like V-shaped valley, gorge, canyon, etc. can be recognised.
• Gorge: A gorge is a deep valley with very steep to straight sides.
• Canyon: A canyon is characterised by steep step-like side slopes and may be as deep as a gorge. A gorge is almost equal in width at its top as well as its bottom. In contrast, a canyon is wider at its top than at its bottom. In fact, a canyon is a variant of gorge.
• Waterfall: When the rivers start falling in pits in mountainous regions, it makes waterfall.
• Plunge pools: Once a small and shallow depression forms, pebbles and boulders get collected in those depressions and get rotated by flowing water and consequently the depressions grow in dimensions. A series of such depressions eventually join and the stream valley gets deepened. At the foot of waterfalls also, large potholes, quite deep and wide, form because of the sheer impact of water and rotation of boulders. Such large and deep holes at the base of waterfalls are called plunge pools.

Question 2.
Explain the landforms made by erosion caused by groundwater.
Answer:
Important landforms made by erosion are as follows:

1. Pools: These are conical shaped pits whose depth is three to nine metres. The width of the mouth is more than one metre. Due to solubility in water, when cracks in limestone increase, then pools take birth.

2.Swallow holes: Small to medium sized round to sub-rounded shallow depressions called swallow holes form on the surface of limestones through soil.

3. Sinkholes: A sinkhole is an opening more or less circular at the top and funnel -shaped towards the bottom with sizes varying in area from a few square metre to a hectare and with depth from a less than half a metre to thirty metres or more.

4. Uvalas: When sinkholes and dolines join together because of slumping of materials along their margins or due to roof collapse of caves, long, narrow to wide trenches called uvalas are formed.

5. Collapse sinks: If the bottom of the sinkholes forms the roof of a void or cave underground it might collapse leaving a large hole opening into a cave or a collapse sinks.

6. Lapies: Gradually, most of the surface of the limestone is eaten away by these pits and trenches, leaving it extremely irregular with a maze of points, grooves and ridges or lapies. Especially, these
ridges or lapies form due to differential solution activity along parallel to sub¬parallel joints. The lapie field may eventually turn into somewhat smooth limestone pavements.

7. Caves: In areas where there are alternating beds of rocks (shales, sandstones, quartzites) with limestones or dolomites in between or in areas where limestones are dense, massive and occurring as thick beds, cave formation is prominent. Water percolates down either through the materials or through cracks and joints and moves horizontally along bedding planes. It is along these bedding planes that the limestone dissolves and long and narrow to wide gaps called caves result. There can be a maze of caves at different elevations depending upon the limestone beds and intervening rocks. Caves normally have an opening through which cave streams are discharged. Caves having openings at both the ends are called tunnels.

Question 3.
Explain the depositional landforms made by rivers.
Answer:
Depositional Landfoi, made by rivers:

1. Alluvial Fans: Alluvia ms are formed when streams flowing from higher levels break into foot slope plains of low gradient. Normally very coarse load is carried by streams flowing over mountain slopes. This load becomes too heavy for the streams to be carried over gentler gradients and gets dumped and spread as a broad low to high cone shaped deposit called alluvial fan. Usually, the streams which flow over fans are not confined to their original channels for long and shift their position across the fan forming many channels called distributaries. Alluvial fans in humid areas show normally low cones with gentle slope from head to toe.

2. Deltas: Delta is like alluvial fans but develop at a different location. The load carried by the rivers is dumped and spread into the sea. If this load is not carried away far into the sea or distributed along the coast, it spreads and accumulates. Such areas over flood plains built up by abandoned or cut-off channels contain coarse deposits. The flood deposits of spilled waters carry relatively finer materials like silt and clay. The flood plains in a delta are called delta plains.

3. Floodplains: Floodplain is a major landform of river deposition. Large sized materials are deposited first when stream channel breaks into a gentle slope. Thus, normally, fine sized materials like sand, silt and clay are carried by relatively slow moving waters in gentler channels usually found in the plains and deposited over the bed and when the waters spill over the banks during flooding above the bed.

4. Natural Levees: Natural levees are found along the banks of large rivers. They are low, linear and parallel ridges of coarse deposits along the banks of rivers, quite often cut into individual mounds. During flooding as the water spills over the bank, the velocity of the water comes down and large sized and high specific gravity materials get dumped in the immediate vicinity of the bank as ridges. They are high nearer the banks and slope gently away from the river. The levee deposits are coarser than the deposits spread by flood waters away from the river. When rivers shift laterally, a series of natural levees can form.

5. Point Bars: Point bars are also known as meander bars. They are found on the convex side of meanders of large rivers and are sediments deposited in a linear fashion by flowing waters along the bank. They are almost uniform in profile and in width and contain mixed sizes of sediments. If there more than one ridge, narrow and elongated depressions are found in between the point bars.

Question 4.
Explain the erosional landforms created by waves and currents.
Answer: Cliffs, Terraces, Caves and Stacks are
important landforms created by erosion caused by waves and currents.

• Wave-cut cliffs: Almost all sea cliffs are steep and may range from a few m to 30 m or even more. At the foot of such cliffs there may be a flat or gently sloping platform covered by rock debris derived from the sea cliff behind. Such platforms occurring at elevations above the average height of waves is called a wave-cut terrace.
• Terraces: The lashing of waves against the base of the cliff and the rock debris that gets smashed against the cliff along with lashing waves create hollows and these hollows get widened and deepened to form sea caves. The roofs of caves collapse and the sea cliffs recede further inland.
• Sea stacks: Retreat of the cliff may leave some remnants of rock standing isolated as small islands just off the shore. Such resistant masses of rock, originally parts of a cliff or hill are called sea stacks.

Like all other features, sea stacks are also temporary and eventually coastal hills and cliffs will disappear because of wave erosion giving rise to narrow coastal plains, and with onrush of deposits from over the land behind m ay get covered up by alluvium or may get covered up by shingle or sand to form a wide beach.

Question 5.
Explain the different stages of a river.
Answer:
A river passes through three stages like a human being: youth, mature and old.

1. Youth Stage: Youth streams are less in number. In this stage with poor integration and flow over original slopes showing shallow V-shaped valleys with no floodplains or with very narrow floodplains along trunk streams. Streams divides are broad and flat with marshes, swrnmp and lakes. If meanders are present, they develop over these broad upland surfaces. These meanders may eventually entrench themselves into the uplands. Waterfalls and rapids may exist where local hard rock bodies are exposed.

2. Mature Stage: During this stage streams are plenty with good integration. The valleys are still V-shaped but deep; trunk streams are broad enough to have wider floodplains within which streams may flow in meanders confined within the valley. The flat and broad inter stream areas and swamps and marshes of youth disappear and the stream divides turn sharp. Waterfalls and rapids disappear.

3. Old Stage: Smaller tributaries during old age are few with gentle gradients. Streams meander freely over vast floodplains showing natural levees, oxbow lakes, etc. Divides are broad and flat with lakes, swamps and marshes. Most of the landscape is at or slightly above sea level.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Hots Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between river alluvial plains and glacial outwash plains.
Answer:
River Alluvial Plains: The alluvial plain is an erosional plain that occurs from weathering caused by water currents in the sea, river or stream. Fluvial (water) movement comes from higher land regions and wear away landmasses to produce low relief plains. This is known as the alluvial plain. These landforms are made up of the deposition of sediment over a long period of time from the fluvial movement to form alluvial soil.

An alluvial plain is characterized by its relatively flat -and gently sloping landform and is normally formed at the base of a range of hills. Continuous fluvial weathering of these hills is what causes sediments to move and spread across lower levels to produce this type of plain. These plains are formed mostly by slow running rivers, as slower fluvial movement picks up less sediment off the river floor causing more particles to settle and develop into an alluvial plain.Areas where more particles are dropped off are sometimes referred to as flood plains, and the particles that settle are called alluvium.

Glacial Outwash Deposits: The large quantities of water that flowed from the melting ice deposited is called glacial outwash. Outwash plains made up of outwash deposits are characteristically flat and consist of layers of sand and other fine sediments. Such plains with their sandy soils are often used for specialized kinds of agriculture, such as the potato production in Montcalm County.

As the margins of the ice lobes retreated, glacial meltwater and precipitation drained southward to the Gulf of Mexico because higher land or glacial ice blocked flow in other directions. Ice-marginal lakes (or proglacial lakes) form when the land in front of the ice margin slopes toward the ice, allowing meltwater to pond directly in contact with the ice.

Question 2.
Distinguish between till and alluvium.
Answer:
Alluvium:
It refers to material, such as sand, silt, or clay, deposited on land by streams. Till: It refers to unsorted, nonstratified glacial deposits consisting of clay, silt, sand, and boulders transported and deposited by glacial ice.
Both are brought by streams but one by water stream and other by glacier. Therefore, in the former, boulders are not there and in latter these are found.

Question 3.
What kinds of landforms are made by wind action and action of sheet floods?
Answer:
Three landforms created by wind are; sand dunes, yardangs (half-teardrop shaped formations hill sized, and deflation hollows (wind swept depressions good examples are in death valley, California, U.S.) Wind also contributes to significant sculpting of sandstone rock including arches.
Sheet flood can create flood plains, natural levees, point bars and delta.

Map Skill

Question 3.
Answer:

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 7 Landforms and their Evolution appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 Citizenship

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Citizenship as full and equal membership of a political community involves both rights and obligations. Which rights could citizens expect to enjoy in most democratic state today? What kind of obligation will they have to their state and fellow citizens?
Answer:
Citizenship refers to a full and equal membership of a political community, i.e. a political identity to an individual by its state. A citizen in a democratic state can enjoy the following rights:

• A support and protection from state to travel anywhere in the state.
• Some political rights to vote, to contest elections, to hold public offices, etc.
• Civil rights like freedom of speech and expression.
• Social-economic rights, i.e. equal opportunities, right to education, right to minimum wage, etc.
• Along with the exercise of certain rights the citizens are supposed to fulfill some obligations

also towards state and its fellow citizens as:

• Citizenship involves some obligations towards state and its fellow citizens.
• These obligations are the outcomes of considerations to be inheritors and trustees of culture and natural resources of the country.
• These obligations do not include only the legal obligations provided by the state but these expect some moral obligations to participate, contribute and to share the life of community, etc.

Question 2.
All citizens may be granted equal rights but all may not be able to equally exercise them. Explain.
Answer:

• The full and equal membership refers to all citizens either rich or poor should be granted certain basic rights along with a minimum standard of living by the state. But all of them may not be able to exercise them equally due to poverty, like illiteracy or social -economic conditions, etc.
• As the problem of a large population of slum-dwellers and squatters in urban areas, though they may do some necessary and useful work at low wage’s they may be balanced for straining the resources of the area or to expand crime and diseases.
• The authorities in cities hardly spend any amount on slum dwellers for their betterment. Though some NGOs are taking initiatives for them, i.e. a national policy was also framed in January 2004 on urban street vendors.
• The slum dwellers are also becoming aware of their rights but still, they are not able to exercise even their basic political rights, i.e. right to vote because it requires a permanent address which is not possible for them to provide.
• The other groups are the tribal people and forest-dwellers because these people are dependent on access to their natural resources and they face a threat to their livelihood.
• Governments are struggling with the problem how to protest the problems of tribal people and their habitat without hampering the development of country.
• To ensure equal rights and unities for all citizens cannot be a simple matter for any government. If the purpose is not just to make policies to apply, in the same way but to make people more equal, the different needs and claims of people would have to be taken into account when framing policies.

Question 3.
Write a short note on any two struggles for full enjoyment of citizen rights which have taken place in India in recent years. Which rights were being claimed in each case?
Answer:

• The Constitution of India has made an attempt to provide equal membership to the groups which are different, i.e. Dalits, ST’s, and women, etc.
• Even the efforts have been made to cover some remote communities in Andaman and Nicobar Islands who had little contact with modern civilization.
• The various movements have taken place for the groups mentioned above, i.e. women, SC’s, ST’s, people displaced due to developmental projects of the government and 33% seats have been reserved for all of them.
• In a democratic state, the demands of marginalized people have been negotiated, i.e. 27% reservation has been provided for OBC’s in all educational institutions.
• The women have also demanded the reservation of 33% seats in state legislative assemblies and Lok Sabha.

Question 4.
What are some of the problems faced by refugees? In what ways could the concept of global citizenship benefit them?
Answer:
Refugees face the following problems:

• Inspite of restrictions, and creating fences, considerable migrations of peoples takes place.
• Refugees may be forced to live in camps or illegal migrants.
• People may be displaced by wars or Tsunamis, famine or earthquakes, etc. and no state is willing to accept them and they cannot return to their home state also.
• Refugees cannot work legally or educate their children or acquire property.
• To sort out the problems of refugees, the United Nations has appointed a High Commissioner for refugees to support them.

The concept of universal citizenship has benefited to the refugees:

• It might make it easier to deal with the problems to be extended across national borders.
• It may need cooperative action by the people and government of various states.
• It can find an acceptable solution on the issues of migrants.
• It can ensure some basic rights and protection regardless of the country in which they are living.

Question 5.
Migration of people to different regions within the country is often resisted by the local inhabitants. What are some of the contributions that the migrants could make to the local economy?
Answer:

• Migration takes place from time to time cities, regions or nations.
• If jobs and medical facilities and facilities provided by the state are limited along with natural resources it may restrict the entry of outsiders even in the case of fellow citizens.
• Many similar struggles also have taken place in different parts of the world, i.e. Mumbai for Mumbaikars, etc.

These migrants are supportive to the local economy in the following manner:

• Slum-dwellers contribute to economy through their labour as hawkers, petty traders, plumbers, workers, mechanics, petty traders, etc.
• Migrants perform and do necessary and useful works often at low wages.
• Small business, i.e. tailoring, textile printing, etc. can also be developed in slum areas.

Question 6.
“Democratic citizenship is a project rather than an accomplished fact even in countries like India which grant equal citizenship”. Discuss some of the issues regarding citizenship being raised in India today.
Answer:

• People displaced by war (in 1971 and afterwards from Bangladesh) or famine or internal or external disturbances (from Afghanistan, Pakistan, Burma, Myanmar, etc.). These people were forced to become refugees in their own or neighboring countries.
• India prides itself on providing refuge to the prosecuted people, i.e. Dalai Lama and his followers in 1958 entry of people from neighboring countries has taken place along all the borders of states of India and process continues.
• These may be people from Asia and Africa who provide paid agents to smuggle them into India for terrorist work or for smuggling drugs.
• Many refugees remain stateless for many generations living as an illegal migrants. And only a relatively few are granted citizenship.
• Such problems are a challenge in front of democratic citizenship where the rights and identities should be available to all equally.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 NCERT Extra Questions Solved

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by a citizen?
Answer:
A citizen is a person who is a member of a state to enjoy civil and political rights and participate in the governing of a country.

Question 2.
Mention any two laws dealing with citizenship in India.
Answer:

• Constitution of India
• Citizenship Act of 1955

The first tells us who can be called a citizen of India and later one deals with acquisition and lost of citizenship.

Question 3.
What is a democracy?
Answer:
A democracy is a government of the people, for the people and by the people.

Question 4.
Who is a natural born citizen?
Answer:
A natural born citizen is the person who is either born in a country or if his parents are citizens of that country.

Question 5.
What is naturalization?
Answer:
Naturalization is the process of acquiring citizenship.

Question 6.
Who is an Alien?
Answer:
Alien is a person who temporarily lives in a country other than his own and does not enjoy political rights like the citizen of that country do.

Question 7.
What is expected by the citizens from their state?
Answer:
Citizens may expect certain rights from their state and help and protection wherever they may travel.

Question 8.
What happens if a person stay away from one’s country for many years?
Answer:
The person may lose the citizenship and the number of years for absence varies from one state to another.

Question 9.
Define citizenship.
Answer:
Citizenship can be defined as a full and equal membership of a political community.

Question 10.
Mention any one important quality of a good citizen.
Answer:
A good citizen should be ready to serve one’s country during any crisis like war and take up any compulsory service demanded by state.

Question 2.
Why is the full membership of a state important?
Answer:
The full membership is important because no one wants to live up as a refugee or stateless when no state is willing to grant them membership. Hence, these people do not enjoy any rights granted by the state. As Pakistani refugees struggled in the middle East to obtain full membership of a state of their choice.

Question 3.
How can we say that lack of education is a big obstacle to any kind of progress?
Answer:
Lack of education leads to perpetuation of bad customs and superstitions, i.e. many people believe in early marriages, dowry and many have lost their young daughters to bride burning and when girls are going into space, such attitude is a great obstacle.

Question 4.
What is the role of modern state in the citizenship?
Answer:
In the modern state, collective political identity is provided to their members as well as certain rights. Therefore, the people think of themselves as Indians, or Americans, or French or Japanese or Germans, depending on the state which they belong to.

Question 5.
How did the liberation of East Pakistan affect the citizenship in the year of 1971?
Answer:
If a territory becomes a part of another country, then all the people acquire citizenship of that country automatically, i.e. in 1961, Goa was liberated from Portugal and all the persons in Goa became the citizen of India. Hence, the citizens of East Pakistan got the citizenship of Bangladesh.

Question 6.
What rights of common nature have been granted to citizens by different states?
Answer:
The rights of common nature vary from state to state but most common are political rights, i.e. the right to vote, right to contest election, to form political parties, etc. And civil rights, i.e. freedom of speech or belief as well as socio-economic rights, i.e. right to minimum wage or rights to education, equality of rights and status, etc.

Question 7.
What is the role of a citizen in a democracy?
Answer:
1. Every citizen must participate actively in a democracy to make it successful.

2. Every citizen enjoys political rights and right to express oneself but every citizen is expected to perform certain duties:

• To maintain democracy.
• To have a clear conception of one’s own rights.
• Duties towards nation, fellow citizen and family, etc.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 NCERT Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How can the citizenship be acquired?
Answer:
Citizenship can be acquired through the following ways:

• By the bond of marriage, a person can acquire citizenship, i.e. if a foreigner woman marries an Indian man, citizenship of India may be acquired.
• To purchase immovable property, if a person is allowed, one can acquire citizenship, i. e. purchase of land or house.
• If a foreigner has been appointed to a government office, one can acquire citizenship of that country.
• By acquisition of territory, the people can acquire citizenship, i.e. liberation of Goa in 1961 and Goans acquired citizenship of India.

Question 2.
Distinguish between a citizen and Alien.
Answer:

• A citizen owes allegiance to one’s country whereas an alien does not owe allegiance.
• A citizen can be compelled to join military service at the time of war whereas an alien can be compelled to join military service under any situation.
• A citizen enjoys fundamental and political rights but an alien does enjoy any right to participate in government process.

Question 3.
In what circumstances, a citizen can lose one’s citizenship?
Answer:
In the following circumstances:

• The most common reason is marriage, if an Indian woman marries a foreigner, her citizenship of India is lost to acquire the citizenship of her husband’s country.
• If a person is appointed in the service of foreign government, one can lose the original citizenship.
• If a person takes up the services of a foreign defense forces, the original citizenship is lost.
• If a person decides to settle down in another country, one may lose the original citizenship.
• The criminal acts of a person may also lose their original citizenship, i.e. to commit a serious crime, prove disloyalty to the country or to acquire citizenship by fraud.

Question 4.
Mention the major hindrances in the way of good citizenship.
Answer:

• If people do not participate actively in a political activity, good citizenship may not be acquired.
• Lack of education leads to perpetuation of bad customs and superstitions due to people’s ignorance and illiteracy in discharging their obligations and responsibilities.
• Poverty may provoke the people to commit wrong in order to feed themselves and their family.
• Narrow groupism and factionalism based on caste and religion is very dangerous for the unity of nation. It have a wrong order of loyalties, i.e. to attach greater importance to less important issues and create tensions.

Question 5.
What is the relationship between the citizenship and rights?
Answer:

• The people of a country require rights to participate in the running of government.
• In a modem state, some fundamental rights are granted for the development of both the citizens and the state, i.e. India.
• The state expects to perform some duties by citizens in reference of granting citizenship to them.

Question 6.
“Education plays a crucial role in making individuals into better citizens”. Justify the statement.
Answer:

• Education supports individuals to recognize good and bad laws and customs.
• Education teaches citizens to protest in a constitutional manner.
• The example of peaceful protest can be taken from Japan where workers put on black bands on arms and work to make over production.

Question 7.
How does constitution commence the citizenship?
Answer:

• The one who has born in the territory of India or
• The one, whose parents have been born in the territory of India or
• The one, who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than five years.

Question 8.
How the original citizenship may be lost?
Answer:

• The absence of a person to stay outside the country for a long time but the period of absence varies from one country to another country.
• If a person commits a serious crime, prove disloyal to the country or acquired citizenship by fraudulent practices.
• If a person applies for citizenship of another country to be granted. This process is called naturalization.

Question 9.
What is Global citizenship?
Answer:

• Global citizenship connect the people of different parts of the world through the means of communication, i.e. internet, television, radio, etc.
• Global citizenship acquires sympathies to help the victims of flood, war, terrorism, Tsunami, bird flu, plague, etc.
• Global citizenship though does not exist, it is a sense to be linked to each other across national boundaries.
• It needs cooperative action of people and governments of many states.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 NCERT Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 81) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

During seventeenth to twentieth century, white people of Europe established their rule over the black people in South Africa. Read the following description about the policy practices in South Africa till 1994.
The whites had the right to vote, contest elections and elect government; they were free to purchase property and go to any place in the country. Blacks did not have such rights. Separate colonies for whites and blacks were established. The blacks had to take ‘passes’ to work in white neighborhoods. They were not allowed to keep their families in the white areas. The schools were also separate for the people of different colour.

Questions:
1. What did Europeans do in South Africa in the Seventeenth to the twentieth centuries?
2. Mention the relationship of different groups in South Africa.
3. How the Blacks were treated by the Whites?
Answers:
1. The White people of Europe established their colonial rule over the Black people (minorities) in South Africa.

2.

• They followed the policy of apartheid.
• The Blacks were not treated as a human beings by the Whites.
• The Blacks had to struggle for many years to get full membership as well as to acquire various rights.

3. The Blacks were treated as:

• A second class citizens deprived of justice and rights.
• They had to live in separate colonies and their children studied in separate schools.
• They were supposed to keep their families away from White areas as well as performed some tasks in White colonies on getting a pass.

Passage 2.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 83) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The 1950’s witnessed the emergence of Civil Rights Movements against inequalities that existed between black and white populations in many of the southern states of the USA. Such inequalities were maintained in these states by a set of laws called Segregation Laws through which the black people were denied many civil and political rights. These laws created separate areas for colored and white people in various civic amenities like railways, buses, theatres, housing, hotels, restaurants,, etc.

Martin Luther King Jr. was a black leader of the movement against these laws. King gave many arguments against the prevailing laws of segregation. First, in terms of self-worth and dignity every human person in the world is equal regardless of one’s race or colour. Second, King argued that segregation is like ‘social leprosy” on the body politic because it inflicts deep psychological wounds on the people who suffer as a result of such laws.

King argued that the practice of segregation diminishes the quality of life for the white community also. He illustrates this point by examples. The white community, instead of allowing the black people to enter some community parks as was directed by the court, decided to close them. Similarly, some baseball teams had to be disbanded, as the authorities did not want to accept black players. Thirdly, the segregation laws create artificial boundaries between people and prevent them from cooperating with each other for the overall benefit of the country. For these reasons, King argued that these laws should be abolished. He gave a call for peaceful and non-violent resistance against the segregation laws. He said in one of his speeches: “We must not allow our creative protest to degenerate into physical violence.”

Questions:
1. Why the 1950 is an important year in the history of US?
2. Who was Martin Luthar King Jr.?
3. What do you mean by ‘segregation laws’?
Answers:
1. The 1950s witnessed the emergence of civil rights movement against inequalities prevailing between blacks and whites in southern states of USA.

2. He was a black leader of the movement against segregation policies.

3.

• Segregation laws were the laws in the southern states of USA to maintain discrimination and inequalities between the blacks and whites.
• These laws denied many civil and political rights to the black people.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the qualities of a good citizen?
Answer:

• To cast one’s vote in the interest of country.
• The right to vote should be exercised without any influence of narrow loyalties of caste, colour, religion, etc.
• A good citizen must be aware of one’s duties also to perform as required.
• A good citizen must invest on welfare activities for citizens, i.e. educational institutions, hospitals, public transportation, etc.
• A good citizen should protect and maintain the public property.
• A good citizen should pay one’s taxes honestly and regularly to contribute to the state.
• A good citizen should know to control emotions and protest in a peaceful manner if required.
• A good citizen should possess a high moral character.
• A good citizen obeys the laws of state and respect the right of other citizens also.

Question 2.
Mention the characteristics of white colonial rulers’ policy practicised in South Africa till 1994?
Answer:

• Seperate colonies for whites and blacks were established.
• The blacks were not allowed to keep their families in white areas.
• The blacks had to take passes to work in white colonies.
• Even the schools were separate for the people of different colours.
• The blacks of South Africa did not enjoy the rights, i.e. political, civil, economic, etc.
• All the adult whites enjoyed the right to vote, contest elections and elect government.
• Whites were free to purchase property and go to any place in the country.

Question 3.
Mention the ideas and contribution of Martin Luther King Jr. in the movement launched for civil rights in the USA.
Answer:

• Martin Luthar King Jr. gave many arguments against the prevailing laws of segregation, i.e. inequality, wrong practices of segregation, etc.
• The male person has to broom the house and to throw the waste in the dustbin.
• King argued that the segregation is like a social leprosy on the body politic because it inflicts deep psychological wounds on the people who suffer as a result of such laws.
• Some baseball teams has to be disbanded as the authorities did not want to accept black players and these laws created artificial boundaries between people and prevent them from cooperating with each other for the overall benefit of the country.
• Hence, these laws should be abolished earliest possible.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 NCERT Picture-Based Questions

1. Read the cartoon (NCERT Textbook, page 85) given below and answer the questions that follow:

Questions:
1. What does the cartoon represent?
2. What are the persons performing in the cartoon?
Answers:
1. Cartoon comments on the life of urban Indian middle class without immigrant workers.

2. Ladies or woman of middle class families are cleaning and washing their utensils.

Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 Citizenship appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2017 Delhi Term 2

Time Allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• This question paper consists of 30 questions divided into four sections- A, B, C and D.
• Section A contains 6 questions of 1 mark each, Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 8 questions of 4 marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in two questions of 1 mark each, two questions of 2 marks each, four questions of 3 marks each and three questions of 4 marks each. You have to attempt only one of the alternative in all such questions.
• Use of calculators is not permitted.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2017 Delhi Term 2 Set I

Section – A

Question 1.
The ratio of the height of a tower and the length of its shadow on the ground is √3 : 1. What is the angle of elevation of the sun? [1]
Solution:

Question 2.
Volume and surface area of a solid hemisphere are numerically equal. What is the diameter of hemisphere? [1]
Solution:
Let radius of hemisphere be r units
Volume of hemisphere = S.A. of hemisphere
πr3 = 3πr2
⇒ r = or diameter = 9 units

Question 3.
A number is chosen at random from the numbers -3, -2, -1,0, 1, 2, 3.
What will be the probability that square of this number is less then or equal to 1? [1]
Solution:
Possible outcomes {-3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3},
n = 7 and only three numbers -1,0, 1 fall under given condition so,
Required probability =

Question 4.
If the distance between the points (4, k) and (1, 0) is 5, then what can be the possible values of k? [1]
Solution:
Distance between (4, k) and (1, 0) = 5

k2 = 25 – 9 = 16
k = ±4

Section – B

Question 5.
Find the roots of the quadratic equation √2 x2 + 7x + 5√2 = 0. [2]
Solution:
Given quadratic equation is,

Question 6.
Find how many integers between 200 and 500 are divisible by 8. [2]
Solution:
Smallest divisible no. (by 8) in given range = 208
Last divisible no. (by 8) in range = 496
So, a = 208, d = 8, n = ?, an = 496
an = a + (n – 1 )d = 208 + (n – 1) 8 = 496
⇒ 8n + 208 – 8 = 496
⇒ 8n = 496 – 200 = 296
⇒ n = 37
So number of terms between 200 and 500 divisible by 8 are 37.

Question 7.
Prove that tangents drawn at the ends of a diameter of a circle are parallel to each other. [2]
Solution:
Given, PQ is a diameter of a circle with centre O.
The lines AB and CD are tangents at P and Q respectively.
To Prove: AB || CD

Proof: AB is a tangent to the circle at P and OP is the radius through the point of contact
∠OPA = 90°
Similarly, CD is a tangent to circle at Q and
OQ is radius through the point of contact
∠OQD = 90°
⇒ ∠OPA = ∠OQD
But both form pair of alternate angles
AB || CD
Hence Proved.

Question 8.
Find the value of k for which the equation x2 + k(2x + k – 1) + 2 = 0 has real and equal roots. [2]
Solution:
Given equation is,
x2 + k(2x + k – 1) + 2 = 0
⇒ x2 + 2kx + k(k – 1) + 2 = 0
Here a = 1, b = 2k and c = k(k – 1) + 2
For real and equal roots
b2 – 4ac = 0
⇒ (2k)2 – 4 × 1 × (k (k – 1) + 2) = 0
⇒ 4k2 – 4(k2 – k + 2) = 0
⇒ 4k2 – 4k2 + 4k – 8 = 0
⇒ 4k = 8
⇒ k = 2

Question 9.
Draw a line segment of length 8 cm and divide it internally in the ratio 4 : 5. [2]
Solution:
Steps of construction:

1. Draw AB = 8 cm.
2. Draw any ray AX making an acute angle with AB.
3. Draw 9(4 + 5) points on ray AX namely A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6, A7, A8, A9 at equal distance.
4. Join BA9.
5. Through point A, draw a line parallel to A9B intersecting AB at the point C.
   Then AC : CB = 4 : 5
   

Question 10.
In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle from an external point P. CD is another tangent touching the circle at Q. If PA = 12 cm, QC = QD = 3 cm, then find PC + PD. [2]

Solution:
Given, PA = PB = 12 cm [Tangent from external point]
AC = CQ = 3 cm
BD = QD = 3 cm [Tangent from external point]

So, PC + PD = (PA – AC) + (PB – BD)
= (12 – 3) + (12 – 3)
= 9 + 9 = 18 cm

Section – C

Question 11.
If mth term of an A.P. is and n term is , then find the sum of its first mn terms. [3]
Solution:
Let a and d be the first term and common difference respectively of the given A.P.

Question 12.
Find the sum of n terms of the series

Solution:

Question 13.
If the equation (1 + m2)x2 + 2mcx + c2 – a2 = 0 has equal roots then show that c2 = a2( 1 + m2). [3]
Solution:
The given equation (1 + m2) x2 + 2mcx + c2 – a2 = 0 has equal roots
Here, A = 1 + m2, B = 2mc, C = c2 – a2
For equal roots, D = 0 = B2 – 4AC
⇒ (2mc)2 – 4(1 + m2) (c2 – a2) = 0
⇒ 4m2c2 – 4(c2 – a2 + m2c2 – m2a2) = 0
⇒ m2c2 – c2 + a2 – m2c2 + m2a2 = 0
⇒ -c2 + a2 (1 + m2) = 0
⇒ c2 = a2 (1 + m2)
Hence Proved.

Question 14.
The th part of a conical vessel of internal radius 5 cm and height 24 cm is full of water. The water is emptied into a cylindrical vessel with an internal radius of 10 cm. Find the height of water in a cylindrical vessel. [3]
Solution:
According to the question,
Volume of water in conical vessel = Volume of cylindrical vessel

Hence the height of water in a cylindrical vessel is 1.5 cm.

Question 15.
In the given figure, OACB is a quadrant of a circle with centre O and radius 3.5 cm. If OD = 2 cm, find the area of the shaded region.

Solution:
Area of shaded region = Area of quadrant OACB – Area of ΔDOB

Hence, area of the shaded region is 6.125 cm2

Question 16.
Two tangents TP and TQ are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point T. Prove that ∠PTQ = 2 ∠OPQ. [3]
Solution:
Given, a circle with centre O, an external point T and two tangents TP and TQ.
Let ∠PTQ = θ

To Prove: ∠PTQ = 2∠OPQ
Proof: TP = TQ [Tangent from an external point]
So ΔTPQ is an isosceles triangle
∠TPQ = ∠TQP [Angle opposite to equal sides of a Δ]
So, ∠TPQ = ∠TQP = (180° – θ) = 90° –
But, ∠TPO = 90° [Angle between tangent and radius]
∠OPQ = ∠OPT – ∠TPQ = 90° – (90° – )
= = ∠PTQ
Or ∠PTQ = 2∠OPQ
Hence Proved.

Question 17.
Show that ∆ABC, where A(-2, 0), B(2, 0), C(0, 2) and ∆PQR where P(-4, 0), Q(4, 0), R(0, 4) are similar triangles. [3]
Solution:
Coordinates of vertices are
A(-2, 0), B(2, 0), C(0, 2)
P(-4, 0), Q(4, 0), R(0, 4)

We see that sides of ∆PQR are twice the sides of ∆ABC.
Hence, both triangles are similar.
Hence Proved.

Question 18.
The area of a triangle is 5 sq units. Two of its vertices are (2, 1) and (3, -2). If the third vertex is (, y), find the value of y. [3]
Solution:
Given, A(2, 1), B(3, -2) and C(, y)

Question 19.
Two different dice are thrown together. Find the probability that the numbers obtained
(i) have a sum less than 7
(ii) have a product less than 16
(iii) is a doublet of odd numbers. [3]
Solution:
Total possible outcomes in each case = 6 × 6 = 36
(i) Have a sum less than 7, Possible outcomes are,
(1, 1) (1, 2) (1, 3) (1, 4) (1, 5), (2, 1) (2, 2) (2, 3) (2, 4),
(3, 1) (3, 2) (3, 3) (4, 1) (4, 2) (5, 1)
n(E) = 15
So, probability = =
(ii) Have a product less than 16, Possible outcomes are,
(1, 1), (1, 2) (1, 3) (1, 4), (1, 5) (1, 6)
(2, 1), (2, 2) (2, 3) (2, 4) (2, 5) (2, 6)
(3, 1), (3, 2) (3, 3) (3, 4) (3, 5)
(4, 1), (4, 2) (4, 3)
(5, 1), (5, 2) (5, 3)
(6, 1), (6, 2)
n(E) = 25
So, probability =
(iii) Is a doublet of odd no.,
Possible outcomes are
(1, 1) , (3, 3), (5, 5)
n(E) = 3
P(doublet of odd no.) = =

Question 20.
A moving boat is observed from the top of a 150 m high cliff moving away from the cliff. The angle of depression of the boat changes from 60° to 45° in 2 minutes. Find the speed of the boat in m/h. [3]
Solution:
From ∆ABC,
= tan 60°

Section – D

Question 21.
Construct an isosceles triangle with base 8 cm and altitude 4 cm. Construct another triangle whose sides are times the corresponding sides of the isosceles triangle. [4]
Solution:
Steps of construction:

1. Draw BC = 8 cm.
2. Construct XY, the perpendicular bisector of line segment BC, meeting BC at M.
3. Cut MA = 4 cm on XM. Join BA & CA, ∆ABC is obtained.
4. At B, draw an acute angle in a downward direction. Draw 3 arcs B1, B2 and B3 on it.
5. Join B3C and at B2 draw line parallel to B3C, cutting BC at C’.
6. At C’, draw A’C’ parallel to AC.
   Thus, ∆A’C’ B is the required triangle.
   

Question 23.
The ratio of the sums of the first m and first n terms of an A. P. is m2 : n2. Show that the ratio of its mth and nth and terms is (2m – 1): (2n – 1). [4]
Solution:
Let a be first term and d is a common difference.

Question 24.
Speed of a boat in still water is 15 km/h. It goes 30 km upstream and returns back at the same point in 4 hours 30 minutes. Find the speed of the stream. [4]
Solution:
Let speed of the stream be x.
According to question,

Question 25.
If a ≠ b ≠ c, prove that the points (a, a2), (b, b2) (c, c2) will not be collinear. [4]
Solution:

This can never be zero as a ≠ b ≠ c
Hence, these points can never be collinear.
Hence Proved.

Question 26.
The height of a cone is 10 cm. The cone is divided into two parts using a plane parallel to its base at the middle of its height. Find the ratio of the volumes of the two parts. [4]
Solution:
Let BC = r cm & DE = R cm
Since B is mid-point of AD & BC || DE
C is mid-point of AE or AC = CE

Question 27.
Peter throws two different dice together and finds the product of the two numbers obtained. Rina throws a die and squares the number obtained.
Who has the better chance to get the number 25. [4]
Solution:
Total possible events in case of peter is 36 favourable outcome is (5, 5)
n(E) = 1
So, P(getting 25 as product) =
While total possible event in case of Rina is 6
Favourable outcome is 5
n(E) = 1
So, P(square is 25) =
As > , so Rina has better chance.

Question 28.
A chord PQ of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends an angle of 60° at the centre of circle. Find the area of major and minor segments of the circle. [4]
Solution:
r = 10 cm, i = 60°

Question 29.
The angle of elevation of a cloud from a point 60 m above the surface of the water of a lake is 30° and the angle of depression of its shadow in water of lake is 60°. Find the height of the cloud from the surface of water. [4]
Solution:
In ∆CMP, tan 30° =


⇒ 3h = h + 120
⇒ 2h = 120
⇒ h = 60 m
Height of cloud from surface of water = h + 60 = 60 + 60 = 120 m.

Question 30.
In the given figure, the side of the square is 28 cm and the radius of each circle is half of the length of the side of the square where O and O’ are centres of the circles. Find the area of the shaded region. [4]

Solution:
r = (side) = 14 cm
side = 28 cm
Area of shaded region = 2 × (area of circle) + area of square – 2 × (area of quadrant)

Question 31.
In a hospital, used water is collected in a cylindrical tank of diameter 2 m and height 5 m. After recycling, this water is used to irrigate a park of a hospital whose length is 25 m and breadth is 20 m. If tank is filled completely then what will be height of standing water used for irrigating the park.
Write your views on recycling of water. [4]
Solution:
Given, diameter of cylinder (d) = 2 m
Radius of cylinder (r) = 1 m
Heigth of cylinder (h1) = 5 m
Length of park (l) = 25 m
Breadth of park (b) = 20 m,
Let height of standing water in the park = h
Volume of water used to irrigate the park = Volume stored in cylindrical tank

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2017 Delhi Term 2 Set II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in the previous set.

Section – B

Question 10.
Draw a line segment of length 7 cm and divide it internally in the ratio 2 : 3. [2]
Solution:

Steps of construction:

1. Draw AB = 7 cm.
2. At A draw an acute angle with 5 equidistant marks A1, A2, A3, A4, A5.
3. Join A5B.
4. Draw A2C || A5B to get point C on AB.
   Thus, AC : CB = 2 : 3

Section – C

Question 19.
A metallic solid sphere of radius 10.5 cm is melted and recast into smaller solid cones, each of radius 3.5 cm and height 3 cm. How many cones will be made? [3]
Solution:
Volumeofmetalincones = Volume of a solid sphere
Let n = number of cones
n × volume of each cone = volume of a solid sphere

Question 20.
From the top of a 7 m high building, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 60° and the angle of depression of its foot is 45°. Find the height of the tower. [3]
Solution:
Let C be top of a 7 m building CD and AB be the tower.
From C, draw CE ⊥ AB, so EBDC is a rectangle.

From ∆CBD, tan 45° =
or BD = CD = 7 m
From ∆AEC,
tan 60° =
⇒ AE = EC tan 60° = 7√3 [∵EC = BD]
Height of tower is AB = AE + EB
= AE + DC
= 7√3 + 7
= 7(√3 + 1) m.

Section – D

Question 28.
Draw a right triangle in which the sides (other than the hypotenuse) are of lengths 4 cm and 3 cm. Now construct another triangle whose sides are times the corresponding sides of the given triangle. [4]
Solution:

Steps of construction:

1. Draw AB = 4 cm.
2. Draw AC ⊥ AB of 3 cm.
3. Join BC.
4. Draw an acute angle at A with 5 equidistant marks.
5. Join A5B.
6. Draw A3B’ || A5B.
7. Draw B’C’ || BC.
   Thus, AB’C’ is the required triangle.

Question 29.
If the sum of first m terms of an A.P. is the same as the sum of its first n terms, show that the sum of its first (m + n) terms is zero. [4]
Solution:
Let a be first term and d is common difference of given A.P. then,

Question 30.
Two points A and B are on the same side of a tower and in the same straight line with its base. The angles of depression of these points from the top of the tower are 60° and 45° respectively. If the height of the tower is 15 m, then find the distance between these points. [4]
Solution:
Let PT be the tower

Question 31.
The height of a cone is 30 cm. From its topside, a small cone is cut by a plane parallel to its base. If the volume of a smaller cone is of the given cone, then at what height it is cut from its base? [4]
Solution:
Volume of original cone OAB

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2017 Delhi Term 2 Set III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Section – B

Question 10.
In the figure, AB and CD are common tangents to two circles of unequal radii. [2]

Solution:
Construction: Extend AB and CD to meet at a point P

Now, PA and PC are tangents of circle with centre O
So, PA = PC …..(i)
PB and PD are tangent on circle with centre O’
So, PB = PD ….(ii)
On subtracting equation (ii) from equation (i),
PA – PB = PC – PD
AB = CD
Hence Proved.

Section – C

Question 18.
If the pth term of an A.P. is q and qth term is p, prove that its nth term is (p + q – n). [3]
Solution:
Let a be first term and d be common difference.
Then, pth term = q ⇒ a + (p – 1)d = q …(i)
qth term = p ⇒ a + (q – 1 )d = p …(ii)
On subtracting eq. (ii) from eq. (i)
(p – 1)d – (q – 1)d = q – p
⇒ pd – d – qd + d = q – p
⇒ (p – q) d = q – p
⇒ d = = -1
Putting value of d in eq. (i)
a + (p – 1) (-1) = 9
a = q + p – 1
⇒ nth term = a + (n – 1)d
= q + p – 1 + (n – 1)(-1)
= q + p – 1 + 1 – n
= q + p – n
⇒ Tn = q + p – n
Hence Proved.

Question 19.
A solid metallic sphere of diameter 16 cm is melted and recast into smaller solid cones, each of radius 4 cm and height 8 cm. Find the number of cones so formed. [3]
Solution:
No. of cones formed

Question 20.
The angle of elevation of the top of a hill at the foot of a tower is 60° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the hill is 30°. If height of the tower is 50 m, find the height of the hill. [3]
Solution:
Let AB be hill and DC be tower.

Section – D

Question 29.
If the pth term of an A.P is and qth term is , prove that the sum of first pq terms of the A.P. is (). [4]
Solution:
Let a be first term and d is common difference.

Question 30.
An observer finds the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from a certain point on the ground as 30°. If the observer moves 20 m towards the base of the tower, the angle of elevation of the top increases by 15°, find the height of the tower. [4]
Solution:
Let AB be tower of height h.
From ∆ABC, = tan 45°

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2017 Delhi Term 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 Nationalism

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
How is a nation different from other forms of collective belonging?
Answer:
A nation is not only a collection of people and it differs from other groups found in society:

• A state is different from a family which is based on direct personal interaction of people living together and having knowledge of identity and character of others also.
• A nation is different from clans, tribes and kinship which ties of marriage and descent link members to each other so that even if we do not personally know all the members we can.
• But as a member of a nation, we may never come face to face, most of our fellow nationals nor need we share ties of descent with them.

Still the nation exists, are lived in and valued by its members.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the right to national self-determination? How has this idea resulted in both formation of and challenges to nation-states?
Answer:
Right of self-determination implies that every nation in the world should enjoy a right to determine its destiny in all walks of life without any undue interference from any other state.
Every national should be given a right to determine his own affairs in the way he likes. The right of self-determination implies that each state exercise the following rights:

• The basic right implies that each state has a right to exist independently without interference from other states and sovereignty of the state would be respected by all.
• Every state exercises the right to develop its own political, social, economic spheres as well as its own art, culture and literature and should have a right to adopt any language as the medium of expression.
• Each state exercises the right to preserve what it considers worth-preserving. Each tradition has some historical background and represents the soul of the nation.

To enjoy these rights, we may conclude the following reasons:

• These rights are essential for the coexistence of a democracy in action.
• This right promotes national unity among the various states which belong to different races, castes, religion and cultures.
• This right guarantees that minorities should not be absorbed in the majority whereas they should also be given the right to determine their culture and civilisation alongwith majority communities.
• This right provides more national security because the majority and minority both enjoy the right to determine their own affairs in the way they linked.

But, the right of self-determination results in the following challenges:

• It may hinder the smooth functioning of administration in multi-national states like India, USSR, because each section makes efforts to find out one’s own way.
• Sometimes, this right finds it difficult to frame a public opinion for the success of democracy because everyone would develop its own identity only.
• Sometimes, it brings inferior races at par the superior races, which hamper the growth of superior race also.

The right of self-determination resulted:

• Disintegration of states, i.e. Russia, Austria, Hungary.
• Resulted the unification of states like Germany and Italy.
• Resulted the states like Czechoslovakia and Finland.

Hence, it can be concluded that the right of self-determination can also be used for both purpose of national integration and disintegration.

Question 3.
“We have seen that nationalism can unite people as well as divide them, liberate them as well generate bitterness and conflict”. Illustrate your answer with examples.
Ans. Nationalism requires to be studied due to its important role in the world affairs:

• Nationalism has united the people and divided them also to liberate them from oppressive rule and has been the cause of conflict and wars.
• Nationalism has contributed to the drawing and re-drawing of the boundaries of states and empires.
• Nationalism has been a factor in the break of empires and states.
• Nationalism has gone through various processes/passes, i.e. it led to the unification of a number of small kingdoms into large nation states as Italy, Germany, etc.
• Even at present a large part of the world is divided into different nation-states and separatist struggles within existing states are common.
• Nationalism has also accompanied to the break up of empires like Austro-Hungarian (in the end of 1919 or 1920), break of colonial Britain, France, Dutch and Portuguese in Asia and Africa.

Question 4.
Neither descent, nor language, nor religion or ethnicity can claim to be a common factor in nationalisms all over the world. Comment.
Answer:

• It is commonly believed that nations are constituted by a group who share certain features as descent, or language or religion or ethnicity.
• But, there is in fact no common set of characteristics to be present in all nations.
• Many nations do not have common language, i.e. Canada includes English speaking and French speaking people and India also has a large number of languages to be spoken in different regions.
• Many nations do not have a common religion to unite them. And some is applicable to other characteristics, i.e. race or descent.

Hence, a nation is to a great extent an imagined community held together by the collective beliefs, aspirations and imaginations of its members.

Question 5.
Illustrate with suitable examples the factors that lead to the emergence of nationalist feelings.
Answer:

• A common motherland emerges the feelings of nationalism because people belonging to one place are mutually bound to love their motherland, i.e. The Jews stayed far away from motherland still it kept nationalism alive.
• Common culture refers for customs and traditions, ideas, art and literature, dress, food, etc. through which people start understanding one another to live in harmony and cooperation. Hence, it emerges nationalism.
• Common language also emerges nationalism as people understand and come nearer to each other by their expressions together to bind them. Through language, the people develop some habits as well as adopt some ways of life.
• Common religion also contribute to the emergence of nationality as the people remain under the command of a religious leader and the spirit of oneness is developed among all followers of religion.

Question 6.
How is a democracy more effective than authoritarian government in dealing with conflicting nationalist aspirations?
Answer:

• A democracy is the most acceptable form of government in the world whereas authoritarian governments are not liked and accepted now-a-days.
• A nation is strengthened on the acknowledgement and acceptance of obligations though fellow members which is easily possible in a democracy than in an authoritarian government.
• In a democracy, the government provide enough opportunities and favorable environment than authoritarian government as well as mutual respect and cooperation are the strongest test of loyalty towards the nation.
• To bind individuals together as a nation is a common language or common religion, i. e. common language makes it easier to communicate with each other and some religion shares some festivals, holidays and hold some symbols.

But it can pose a threat to the values to be cherished in a democracy:

• All major religions are diverse in nature to be evolved through a dialogue within a community and within each religion number of sets differ significantly in their interpretations. Hence, in a democratic society, if these differences are ignored, it creates an oppressive society.
• Even two societies are culturally diverse to have peoples from different languages and religions and to impose identity of one another will restrict the liberties of the persons who do not follow the same.

Hence, it can be concluded:

• Equal treatment and liberty for all would be limited.
• It is desirable to imagine the nation in political rather than cultural terms.
• Democracies need to emphasise and expect loyalty to a set of values to be enshrined in constitution only.

Question 7.
What do you think are the limitations of nationalism?
Answer:

• A territory creates a nation and inhabitants of that particular territory create nationalism but the world is divided into different nations and states, even though the process of re-ordering of state boundaries has not come to an end due to separatist struggles in the existing states.
• The people of new states acquired a new political identity based on membership of the nation alongwith the state loyalties and common languages.
• It is quite difficult to arrive at a precise and widely accepted definition of nationalism.
• The struggle for freedom from colonial rule by India and other former colonies were nationalist struggles with the desire to be independent of foreign control, i.e. Austro- Hungarian, Russian, French, Dutch, Portuguese empires, etc.
• The process of drawing state boundaries have also been confronted by nationalist demands including separate statehood.
• Even today, in many parts of the world, we witness nationalist struggles to threaten to divide the existing states, i.e. Tamils in Srilanka, Kurds in Turkey and Iraq, Basques in northern Spain, etc.
• Nationalism has also passed through many phases, i.e. Germany and Italy’s unification and consolidation.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Extra Questions Solved

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define ‘Nation’.
Answer:
A nation is an imagined community held together by the collective beliefs, aspirations and imaginations of its members.

Question 2.
What makes a citizen to be nationalist?
Answer:

• To cast a vote.
• To pay taxes on time.
• To respect the laws of country.
• To feed pride in belongingness with country.

Question 3.
What assumptions, do the people make about a nation?
Answer:

• Common history
• Shared beliefs
• Shared political ideals.
• Common political identity
• Particular territory.

Question 4.
What is Basque?
Answer:
Basque is a hilly and prosperous region in Spain to be recognized as an autonomous region within Spanish federation and nationalist leaders want to make it a separate country.

Question 5.
Mention the idea of Rabindranath Tagore about colonial rule and freedom of the country?
Answer:
Rabindranath Tagore was against colonial rule and supported India’s right to independence as he realised that there was no place for upholding of dignity of human relationship to be cherished in the British civilization.

Question 6.
Why did Rabindranath Tagore prefer humanity than patriotism?
Answer:
He said that patriotism could not be out final spiritual shelter. He declared that he would not buy glass in the price of diamonds and he would never allow patriotism to triumph over humanity as long as he lived.

Question 7.
What is a state?
Answer:
State is a group of people having sovereignty, living in a fixed territory under the control of an organised government.

Question 8.
What do you mean by sub-nationalism?
Answer:
There are states like India and Switzerland where the people of many nationalities live together for last so many centuries, i.e. before independence there was Muslim, sub nationalism in India. The sense of sub nationalism does not create any hindrance to the national integration.

Question 9.
Is United Nations a state?
Answer:
United Nations is not a state because it does not possess all the four elements like population, fixed territory, government and sovereignty. It is an international organisation of the several sovereign states at international front.

Question 10.
May we call Pakistan a state?
Answer:
Yes, because Pakistan enjoys all the four elements essential to be a state, i.e. population, fixed territory, government and sovereignty. Pakistan enjoys the right to enter into agreements with other states of the world.

Question 11.
May we Uttar Pradesh a country?
Answer:
No, because Uttar Pradesh is one of the units of states of India and its people are the citizens of India and its government is bound by the decisions of control government of India.

Question 12.
Prove from the contemporary world situation that the process of redrawing state boundaries is continued even since after the beginning of seventh decade of 20th century.
Answer:

• Since 1960, even stable nations have been confronted by nationalist demands put forward by regions to include demands for separate statehood.
• Even today, many nationalist struggle threaten to divide existing states, i.e. Quebecots in Canada, the Basques in northern Spain, the Tamils in Sri Lanka, Kurds in Turkey and Iraq, etc.
• Some linguistic groups also develop nationalism, i.e. Arab nationalism today may hope to unite Arab countries in a pan Arab Union.

Question 13.
What is the importance of nation building in India?
Answer:

• Before independece, India was divided into various administrative units.
• All these administrative units were brought together with strong nationalism.
• India is a country known for her characteristic of unity in diversity.
• Still the people have a sense of pride in the culture.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by states? Why is it necessary?
Answer:
State is a community of persons who permanently occupy a definite portion of organised government to which the great body of inhabitants render habitual obedience.
A state is necessary because:

• For the security of one’s life and property.
• For the development of individuals.
• To remove hindrances in the life of citizens.
• To perform certain duties.

Question 2.
What are the main elements of nationalism?
Answer:
Nationalism is a desire for having a region for free and independent development of one’s
culture along with the following elements:

• To share common beliefs and to strengthen the feelings of patriotism, love for country and sentiments to sacrifice for a nation.
• A common history helps the people to embody a sense of continuing historical identity in the form of nationalism.
• A definite territory of a nation also protect and safeguard the nationalism.
• Common political identity also strengthen nationalism and, end the values which create a threat for democratic set up because nationalism requires a shared political ideals along with a written constitution.

Question 3.
What are the main elements of the state?
Answer:
A state has four essential elements and it cannot exist, if any one of them is lacking:

• Population is the primary element of state, no state can exist if no human beings are there.
• A fixed territory is also an element and a state cannot be imagined without it.
• Through the Government, the will of the state is formulated, expressed and enforced, hence, it is an essential element.
• The sovereignty refers to supreme power of the state and the most important element.

Question 4.
What are the main differences between the state and nation?
Answer:

• The state has four essential elements, i.e. population, territory, government and sovereignty whereas a nation is an association organised through cultural and spiritual feelings and it comes into existence with the consciousness of uniting the people into oneness either through common language or culture, conventions, etc.
• A state have a fixed territory whereas a nation is connected with the feelings of unity, i.e. the members of an association may be limited to a small territory or to be spread all over the world.
• Idea of oneness or unity is essential for a nation only but it is not essential for a state which should be politically organised.
• A state enjoys the sovereignty to be essential whereas a nation attempts at attaining freedom and get sovereignty to become a state.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 101-102) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

People who see themselves as a nation also embody a sense of continuing historical identity. That is, nations perceive themselves as stretching back into the past as well as reaching into the future. They articulate for themselves a sense of their own history by drawing on collective memories, legends, historical records, to outline the continuing identity of the nation. Thus nationalists in India invoked its ancient civilization and cultural heritage and other achievements to claim that India has had a long and continuing history as a civilization and that this civilisational continuity and unity is the basis of the Indian nation. Jawaharlal Nehru, tor instance, wrote in his book The Discovery of India, “Though outwardly there was diversity and infinite variety among the people, everywhere there was that tremendous impress of oneness, which held all of us together in ages past, whatever political fate or misfortune had befallen us”.

Questions:
1. How do people articulate a sense of their own history?
2. What is known as the basis of unity of India?
3. Who wrote ‘Discovery of India’?
Answers:
1. By drawing on collective memories, legends, historical records and to outline the continuing identity of the nation.

2. The nationalists in India involved its ancient civilization and cultural heritage, to have a long and continuing history as a civilisation alongwith continuity and unity.

3. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

Passage 2.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 107) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow

The kinds of group rights which have been granted in different countries include constitutional protection for the language, cultures and religion, of minority groups and their members. In some cases identified communities also have the right to representation as a group in legislative bodies and other state institutions. Such rights may be justified on the grounds that they provide equal treatment and protection of the law for members of these groups as well as protection for the cultural identity of the group. Different groups need to be granted recognition as a part of the national community. This means that the national identity has to be defined in an inclusive manner which can recognise the importance and unique contribution of all the cultural communities within the state.

Questions:
1. What different rights have been given to different groups?
2. Can the rights of identified communities be justified?
3. What do you mean to grant recognition as a part of national community?
Answers:
1. Constitutional protection for the language, cultures, religions along with minority groups and their rights.

2. Yes, on the grounds of equal treatment and protection of the law for members of the groups and protection for cultural identity.

3. That the national identity has to be defined in an inclusive manner to recognize the importance and unique contribution of cultural communities within the states.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is nationalism? Mention its merits and demerits also.
Answer:
Nationalism is a desire for having separate region for free and independent development of one’s culture, race, language, etc.
Merits of Nationalism:

• Nationalism makes an individual to feel that the nation is above all and raises the standard of thinking and behaving of individuals about nation.
• Nationalism asserts independent living and thinking among the citizens of country.
• Nationalism creates a sense to make country free from colonial rule or from those who rule over the nation from outside (foreigners, etc.)
• Nationalism gives an opportunity to each nation for development of its culture and develop a sense of pride towards the culture and heritage of a nation.
• Nationalism makes a country self-sufficient to meet the basic necessities of a nation during a crisis.
• Nationalism creates healthy rivals at international level to get better standard of living, social life, etc.

Demerits of nationalism:

• Nationalism has resulted in the World War I and II due to greed of people to expand their own nationalism beyond territories.
• In nationalism, each fact is exaggerated, i.e. national achievements are given wide publicity to pose a major problem.
• Nationalism misuses the authority which creates a larger gap between the rich and the poor by making the rich richer and the poor poorer.
• Nationalism can be used against slave countries by capitalist countries.

Hence, colonialism can never come to an end.

Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solutions

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2019 Delhi

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2019 Delhi Set I

Time allowed : 3 Hours
Maximum marks : 100

SECTION-A
(READING) 20

Question 1.
Read the following passage carefully. [8]
1. Few guessed that this quiet, parentless girl growing up in New York City would one day become the First Lady of the United States. Even fewer thought she would become an author and lecturer and a woman much admired and loved by people throughout the world.
2. Bom Anna Eleanor Roosevelt in 1884 to wealthy, but troubled parents who both died while she was young, Roosevelt was cared for by her grandmother and sent to school in England. In 1905, she married her distant cousin, Franklin Delano Roosevelt. She and her husband had six children. Although they were wealthy, her life was not easy and she suffered several personal tragedies. Her second son died when he was a baby. In 1921, her strong athletic husband was stricken with polio, which left him physically disabled for life.
3. Eleanor Roosevelt was a remarkable woman who had great intelligence and tremendous strength of character. She never let things get her down. She nursed her husband back to good health and encouraged him to remain in politics. She then helped him to become Governor of New York, and in 1933, President of the United States.
4. While her husband was President, she took a great interest in all the affairs of the country. She became her husband’s legs and eyes; she visited prisons and hospitals; she went down into mines, up scaffoldings and into factories. Roosevelt was tireless and daring. During the depression she travelled all over the country bringing goodwill, reassurance and help to people without food and jobs. During World War II she visited American soldiers in camps all over the world. The United States had never known a First Lady like her.
5. Roosevelt also kept in touch with the American people through a daily newspaper column called ‘My Day’. She broadcast on the radio and delivered lectures, all first for a First Lady.

Question 1.1.
On the basis of your understanding of the above passage answer the following questions: (any eight) [1 × 8 = 8]
(a) How was Eleanor Roosevelt’s personality in contrast to what she became?
(b) Apart from being the First Lady what else did she have to her credit?
(c) What challenges did she face in her personal life but remained unfazed?
(d) Eleanor was a strong woman who helped her husband become the President of America. How?
(e) What does the statement: ‘she became her husband’s legs and eyes’ mean?
(f) What was her special contribution during the depression?
(g) How did she motivate soldiers during World War II?
(h) What did she do for the first time for a First Lady?
(i) What side of her personality is reflected in this passage?
Answer:
(a) Eleanor Roosevelt was very quiet and parentless in her growing up years. Later, she became the First Lady of the United States, an author, lecturer and a woman who was loved and admired throughout the world.
(b) Apart from being the First Lady, she was an author, lecturer and a woman much admired by people.
(c) In her personal life, she faced many challenges. Her second son died when he was a baby. Her husband was affected by polio which left him physically disabled for life.
(d) Roosevelt nursed her husband back to good health and encouraged him to be in politics. She helped him become the governer of New York and then, the President of the United States in 1933.
(e) ‘She became her husband’s legs and eyes’ means she visited prisons, hospitals, went into mines and factories on his behalf to help him in his job.
(f) During the Depression she travelled all over the country bringing goodwill, reassurance and help to people without food and jobs.
(g) During World War II, she visited American soldiers in camps all over the world.
(h) She kept in touch with the American people through a daily newspaper column called ‘My Day’. She broadcast on the radio and delivered lectures, all first for a First Lady.
(i) Her intelligence and tremendous strength of character is reflected in the passage.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow: [12]
1. Overpowering prey is a challenge for creatures that do not have limbs. Some species like Russell’s viper inject poison. Some others opt for an alternative non-chemical method rat snakes, for instance, catch and push their prey against the ground, while pythons use their muscle power to crush their prey to death. But snakes can’t be neatly divided into poisonous and non-poisonous categories.
2. Even species listed as non-poisonous aren’t completely free of poison. The common Sand Boa, for instance, produces secretions particularly poisonous to birds. So the species doesn’t take any chance—it crushes its prey and injects poison as an extra step.
3. Do vipers need poison powerful enough to kill hundreds of rats with just one drop? After all, they eat only one or two at a time.
4. While hunting animals try their worst to kill most efficiently, their prey use any trick to avoid becoming a meal, such as developing immunity to poison. For instance, Californian ground squirrels are resistant to Northern Pacific rattlesnake poison.
5. Competition with prey is not the only thing driving snakes to evolve more and more deadly poison. Snakes also struggle to avoid becoming prey themselves.
6. Some snake killers have partial immunity to poison. Famously, mongooses are highly resistant to cobra posion and with their speed and agility, kill snakes fearlessly. It would be the death of cobras as a species if they didn’t evolve a more deadly poison to stop mongooses.
7. Poison has another important role. It’s an extreme meat softener, specific enzymes break up the insides of the prey. Normally, a reptile depends on the sun’s warm rays to aid digestion.
8. But I wonder if we cannot use venom in our favour. In remote parts of India, local hospitality often involves leather-tough meat. I chew and chew until may jaw ache. If I spit it out or refuse, our hosts would be offended, I swallow like a python stuffing a deer down its throat and hope I don’t choke. If only I had poison.

Question 2.1.
Read the questions given below and answer any four in 30-40 words each.
[2 × 4 = 8]
(a) Russell viper and rat snake have different methods to attack prey. How?
(b) How does Sand Boa kill its prey?
(c) There is a constant tussle between the hunting animal and its prey. Why?
(d) What makes mongoose a snake predator?
(e) What difficulty does the writer face when he is entertained in the remote parts of India?
Answer:
(a) Russells viper injects poison whereas rattle snakes catch and push their prey against the ground.
(b) Sand Boa produces secretions particularly poisonous to birds. It crushes its prey and injects poison as an extra step.
(c) The hunting animals try their worst to kill their prey most efficiently but their prey use any trick to avoid becoming a meal.
(d) Mongooses are highly resistant to cobra poison, with their speed and agility, they kill snakes fearlessly, making them a good snake predator.
(e) When entertained in the remote parts of India, the writer finds it difficult to chew leather-tough meat which he swallows down his/her throat like a python.

Question 2.2
On the basis of your reading of the above passage fill in any two of the following blanks. [1×2 = 2]
(i) Overpowering ____ is a challenge for creatures that do not have limbs.
(a) a killer
(b) humans
(c) a python
(d) prey
(ii) Poison meat.
(a) enhance taste of
(b) hardens
(c) softens
(d) breaks down
(iii) Californian squirrels are rattlesnake poison.
(a) afraid of
(b) helpless against
(c) resistant to
(d) indifferent to
Answer:
(i) prey
(ii) softens
(iii) resistant to

Question 2.3
Find words from the passage which mean the same as: (any two) [1 × 2 = 2]
(a) Another (para 1)
(b) Liquid substances released from glands (para 2)
(c) Particular (para 7)
Answer:
(a) alternative
(b) secreation
(c) specific

SECTION-B
(WRITING AND GRAMMAR) 30

Question 3.
You are Tanvi/Shirish of Safdarjung Development Area, New Delhi. You are extremely disturbed about the attacks on old people living alone. Write a letter in 100-120 words to the Editor, ‘The New Indian News’ making people sensitive to the problem. Make suggestions to the people living alone and the authorities to ensure that such attacks do not take place.
OR
You are Ravi / Raveena, Sports Secretary of your school. Write an article in 100¬120 words on the topic, ‘Importance of Outdoor Games in the life of a teenager.’
Answer:
Safdarjang Development Area
New Delhi
23 March 20XX
The Editor
The New Indian News
33, Gole Market
New Delhi
Sub — Attacks on old people
Sir,
Through the columns of your reputed newspaper, I show my deep concern and draw the attention of the government towards the growing feeling of fear and insecurity among people due to frequent attacks on old people living alone.
The recent attacks on old people clearly indicate lapses on our part. In addition to this, social media and different reports are creating disharmony instead of doing something constructive. The old people are not safe in their own homes. These attacks have taken away their peace and tranquility. Many old people have lost their lives. This shatters the faith of people in the government.
In order to combat this menace, we should make concerted efforts. Those who are caught and found guilty should be taught a lesson.
I hope the authorities will be more cautious and initiate stern steps to encounter the enemies of humainty.
Your truly
Tanvi / Shirish
OR
IMPORTANCE OF OUTDOOR GAMES IN THE LIFE OF A TEENAGER
By Ravi / Raveena, Sports Secretary In this age, when teenagers are suffering from obesity, outdoor activities form an important part of their life. These outdoor activities have long-term benefits on their health. Adequate outdoor activity increases health and physical development by improving sensory development, reducing obesity and stimulating blood cells.
These outdoor games can ward off health problems. These also inculcate in them the fighting spirit and team spirit and hence, the teenagers learn the importance of setting goals, pursuing them and achieving them. This boosts their self-esteem and their social behaviour improves. They learn to adjust with others and work in team. They also learn ’to make strategy to win. Self talk, positive thinking and visualisation help them stay above the pressures of the game and make them win.
Outdoor names also give a sense of freedom. Teenagers feel that they can do and achieve anything in life. In this age, where children are so tech-savy, it might be challenging for parents to push them for outdoor games but these games help them in the overall development of their personality.

Question 4.
Write a story in 150-200 words with the help of the following outline. Give it a suitable title also. [10]
Bunya was a foolish boy, who was an attention seeker. He was a woodcutter and would go deep into the jungle to cut trees. One day he wanted to do an act of mischief. He shouted at the top of his voice, “There’s a tiger, tiger, there’s a tiger ”
OR
On Sunday I was watching TV. Suddenly I heard people shouting outside…
Answer:
NOBODY BELIEVES A LIAR
Bunya was a foolish boy who was an attention seeker. He was a woodcutter and would go deep into the jungle to cut trees. One day, he wanted to do an act of mischief. He shouted at the top of his voice, “There’s a tiger, tiger, there’s a tiger ” The farmers in the neighbouring area heard the voice and his cries for help. They left all of their work and came running to help the boy. When they came to the spot, they did not see any sign of a tiger.

The farmers asked the boy, “Was it you who cried for help? Where is the tiger?” The boy laughed and said, “I was just having fun. There is no tiger here. Go away.” The farmers got very angry. They scolded the boy and went away.

Next day, the boy played the same trick and thus, annoyed the farmers once again. A few days later, a tiger came there for real. The boy was petrified. He climbed up a tree. He looked here and there helplessly and shouted for help but the farmers in the nearby areas felt that he was trying to befool them again. So there came no help. Everybody was irritated by his foolish tricks. Finally, the tiger killed the boy.
OR
THE UGLY FACE OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
On Sunday, I was watching TV. Suddenly, I heard people shouting outside. I got up to peep out of the window to see what had happened. To my horror and surprise, I saw a boy clinging to an electric pole. People were shouting and asking him to leave it. But he could not get off from the pole and was continuously electrified. If anybody tried to touch him, he too got the current. His mother was utterly shocked and was crying. People were trying various things to help him but all went in vain. Then came a wise man. He understood the situation. He immediately called the electricity board and told them to switch off the lights from the main board. As soon as the action was taken, the young boy fell off. He was unconscious. Immediately, he was rushed to the hospital. Then the crowd scattered. I could not believe that touching a pole could be so dangerous. But I learnt a lesson to be careful of the electric current.

Question 5.
Fill in any four of the following blanks choosing the most appropriate options from the ones given below. Write the answer in your answer-sheet against the correct blank numbers. [1 × 4 = 4]
Delhi (a) ___ the capital of India. People from all parts (b) ___ the country and world come to visit Delhi. There (c) ____ many historical buildings here. Last year I, (d) ___ Delhi. I also watched (e) ____ Commonwealth Games 2010.
(a)
(i) was
(ii) is
(iii) are
(iv) being
(b)
(i) of
(ii) from
(iii) for
(iv) at
(c)
(i) being
(ii) are
(iii) been
(iv) were
(d)
(i) visit
(ii) visiting
(iii) visited
(iv) will visit
(e)
(i) a
(ii) an
(iii) the
(iv) some
Answer:
(a) (ii) is
(b) (i) of
(c) (ii) are
(e) (iii) the

Question 6.
The following paragraph has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the error along with its correction in the space provided. Do any four. [1 × 4 = 4]

Answer:

Question 7.
Rearrange any four the following words/ phrases to make meaningful sentences : [1 × 4 = 4]
1. that life began/ centuries ago/ scientists think/ twenty million/ on earth/ about
2. endless process/ the plants and animals/ of evolution/ are the products/ of an
3. are/ their/ animals / products of/ all the/
4. lose/ habitat/ human/ due to/ their/ the animals/ encroachment
5. the/ habitat/ regrowth/ rate of/ is/ very slow /of
Answer:
1. Scientists think that life began on earth about twenty million centuries ago.
2. The plants and animals are the products of an endless process of evolution.
3. All the animals are products of their environment.
4. The animals lose their habitat due to human encroachment.
5. The rate of regrowth of habitat is very slow.

SECTION – C
(LITERATURE) 30

Question 8.
Read the extracts given below and answer the questions that follow: [1 × 4 = 4]
When I casually mentioned this to a friend, he casually replied that I had better get one in the Tigris marshes, for there they were as common as mosquitoes, and were often tamed by the Arabs. We were going to Basra to the Consulate-General to collect and answer our mail from Europe. At the Consulate-General we found that my friend’s mail had arrived but that mine had not.
(a) What was ‘they’?
(b) Where could the author get ‘one’?
(c) Find the exact word from the extract which means ‘domesticated’?
(d) What did the author find at the Consulate- General?
OR
(There is a languide, emerald sea, where the sole inhabitant is me a marmaid drifting blissfully.)
Question:
(a) Who does ‘me’ stand for?
(b) How does ‘me’ feel?
(c) Who is ‘me’ compared to?
(d) Which word in the extract means opposite of ‘sorrowfully’?
Answer:
(a) They were otters.
(b) The author could get one in Tigris Marshes.
(c) The word for domesticated is ‘tamed/
(d) At the Consulate-General, the author found that his friend’s mail had arrived but his mail hadn’t.
OR
(a) ‘Me’ stands for the child, Amanda.
(b) She feels that she should also be free and relaxed as a mermaid sailing in the sea freely.
(c) ‘Me’ is compared to a mermaid.
(d) ‘Blissfully’ is the word opposite to sorrowfully.

Question 9.
Answer any four of the following questions in 30-40 words each: [2 × 4 = 8]
(i) How did Kisa Gotami realise that life and death is a normal process?
(ii) Why did Maddie write a note to Peggy and then tore it?
(iii) How can you say that Horace Danby was good and respectable but not completely honest?
(iv) What difficulty do the crew of the space probe face on the Earth?
(v) What was the most fascinating thing that Valli saw on the street?
Answer:
(i) Kisa Gotami was devastated by the death of her only son. When, Buddha asked her to bring a handful of mustard seeds from a house where people had not lost a loved one to’ death, her futile search for such a house made her realise the bitter truth that everything in this world is subject to death. She eventually realised that life and death is a normal process.
(ii) Maddie wrote a note to Peggy to make her stop making fun of Wanda. But she tore it because she thought that it could annoy Peggy and she could make fun of Maddie instead.
(iii) Horace lived a happy and peaceful life. That is why he has been called good and respectable. But he was not completely honest as he used to rob a safe every year. He did that only once a year in order to satisfy his hobby of buying expensive books.
(iv) The space probe landed in a public library. The crew was shocked because the place looked very strange as they had no idea about books. They thought the library to be some kind of a storage bam.
(v) The most fascinating thing that Valli saw on the street was the bus that travelled between her village and the nearest town.

Question 10.
Attempt the following questions in 100-120 words: [8]
Bholi is a child different from others. This difference makes her an object of neglect and laughter. Elaborate.
OR
The poet in the poem, ‘For Anne Gregory’ conveys that we should given importance to the inner beauty and not to the physical appearance. Elaborate with reference to the poem.
Answer:
Bholi is not able to speak clearly. She stammers when she speaks. She has pock marks on her face. She is neither pretty nor street-smart. She has a fear which does not let her mingle with others. That is why she is different from others. But the society does not tolerate difference easily. No one likes her and she becomes an object of neglect and laughter. They all ridicule her and make fun of her. As a result, she talks very little and has isolated herself. To add to her agony, her parents don’t treat her right. They too consider her ugly, never make new clothers for her or encourage her. Instead of supporting her and encouraging her, her mother considers her witless and calls her a dumb cow.
OR
In the poem ‘For Anne Gregory’ the poet wants to convey that inner beauty is the real beauty whereas physical appearance is changeable and it is not so important. The first speaker says to her that young men love her for her beautiful yellow hair and may be they will never love her for what she really is. To this, Anne replies that her hair colour can be changed. In fact, external beauty is all superficial and men should not love her for that. Through this reply, the poet has categorically shown his preference for internal beauty over physical appearance. Physical appearance can never give a true account of a person as it can be changed with the help of clothing, make-up and other such things but inner beauth is for real and stays with the person forever.

Question 11.
Answer the following question in 200-250 words : [11]
How did Kitty help Anne overcome her loneliness ?
OR
What is the main theme of “The Diary of a Young Girl” ?
OR
“The best and most beautiful things in the world can’t be seen or even touched. They must be felt with the heart.” Justify the famous quote of Helen Keller.
OR
Helen had a great love for animals and birds. Write about this aspect of her character.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2019 Delhi Set II

Time allowed : 3 Hours
Maximum marks : 100

Note: Except for the following questions all the remaining questions have been asked in the previous sets.

SECTION-B
(WRITING AND GRAMMAR) 30

Question 3.
You have lost your original certificates of class X and XII. You want to get their duplicates issued but you do not know the procedure. Write a letter to the Chairman, CBSE, Preet Vihar enquiring about the fee to be deposited, mode of payment, time taken by the board for issuing duplicate certificates and any other formalities. You are Tarun / Taruna, 7/9, Kunj Apartments, Shimla (100-120 words). [8]
OR
More and more people are used to carrying mobile phones to their workplace. However, the use of mobile phones can be dangerous at certain times and places. Write an article on the topic. ‘Mobile Phone Manners.’ Take hints from the information that follows:

• The Government on Thursday banned the use of cellular phones at petrol pumps as they could ignite the flammable vapours present in the air.
• Don’t use mobiles
• While driving
• Inside an aircraft
• When in an ICU
• If you are near a heart patient or someone who has pacemaker

Answer:
7/9
Kunj Apartments
Shimla
23 March 20XX
The Chairman
CBSE
Preet Vihar
New Delhi
Sub—Issue of duplicate certificates
Sir
I graduated class X and XII in the year 2016 and 2018 respectively from CBSE Board. Unfortunately, I lost my original certificates of class X and XII during my journey in the train. Now, I urgently need duplicate certificates of the same. I am ready to pay the fee needed for the process. Please let me know the amount to be paid, the mode of payment and how much time will it take to issue the duplicate certificates. If there is any other formality, please let me know. Roll No – X 695962 year-2016 XII735012 year-2018
Thanking you
Yours truly
Tarun / Taruna
OR
MOBILE PHONE MANNERS
By xyz
Telecom industry has brought the world closer. Using mobile phones is as natural and common as eating food these days. In today’s world, everyone can be seen using a mobile phone whether he is from the upper strata of society or a poor man. Surely, it has made things easy and smooth. But excess 7 of everything takes a price. One needs to be careful about when mobile phone should not be used.

It is very risky and dangerous to use phones at petrol pumps as using them could ignite the flammable vapours present in the air and could cause disaster. That is the reason why the government has banned the use of phones at petrol pumps.

It should not be used while driving as it diverts the attention of the driver, leading to accidents.
It disturbs the patients in the hospital and its use is harmful if one is near a heart patient or someone who has a pacemaker. Its electromagnetic energy emission weakens cell membranes and alters the handling of calcium in cells.

It also levies a heavy find on those show use mobile phones while driving. In aircrafts too, instructions are given to switch off the mobile phones. So, mobile phone users should know mobile manners.

Take control of your phone. Don’t let it control you!

Question 4.
Develop a short story in 150-200 words which begins as of the following: [10]
Last Sunday I along with my friends decided to go to the riverside for a picnic. We planned to spend the whole day there, but Give it a suitable title also.
OR
With the help of the following cues, develop a short story along with a title in 150-200 words :
A cap seller carrying a bundle of caps …… sleeps under a tree ……. puts the bundle beside him ……. some monekys take away the caps …… wakes up …. finds monkeys
wearing caps ….. angry ….. throws his own cap ……. monkeys throw their caps …… collects …… happy.
Answer:
TRUE FRIENDS
Last Sunday, I along with my friends, decided to go to the riverside for a picnic. We planned to spend the whole day there, but as luck would have it, the day turned out to be catastrophic. My friend and I set out on a boating trip. We sailed the boat smoothly and talked merrily. Soon, we noticed we were very far from the bank of the river. We were in the middle where water seemed to be very deep and flow of the river was powerful. All of a sudden the sky grew dark. A strong wind started blowing hard. The water became rough. The boat tossed up and down in the rampant water.

Luckily, we saw a plank floating in the water. We both jumped and caught hold of the plank. But the plank was too small to bear the weight of two. We both know that one of us should leave it otherwise both of us will drown. Then my friend said to me, “You are a married man. You must live for your wife and children. I am single. So I must go.” I was shaken to hear that. I told him that he too had a mother and a sister to take care of. But he insisted on leaving the plank and told me to take care of his mother and sister. Saying this, he let go off the plank. He was drowned.

After the storm was over, I reached the bank of the river. Our other friends were very worried. They were waiting for use to come back. They all turned very sad to know about his drowning. After that we all went to his home and broke the sad news to his mother and sister. They were shocked. I brought both of them to my house. My family accepted them with great love and warmth.
Moral-True friends share joys as well as sorrows.
OR
THE CAPSELLER AND THE MONKEYS
There was a jungle between two villages. Many monkeys lived in the jungle. One day, a capseller was passing through the jungle to go to another village. He was carrying a bundle of caps. On the way, he got tried. He put the bundle aside, lay down under a tree and fell asleep.
He woke up after some time. He got upset when he saw that his box was open and the monkeys had taken away all the caps. Just then he looked up, there were so many monkeys on the tree. Each one of them had a cap on his head. The capseller was angry.

He picked up a stone and threw it at the monkeys. The monkeys plucked fruits from the tree and threw them at the capseller. Then, the capseller understood the trick. He knew how to get back his caps from the monkeys. They had the habit of copying others. The capseller took off the cap from his head and threw it on the ground. The monkeys also copied him. They too threw their caps down. The capseller was happy to see this. He collected the caps from the ground, put them in the box and happily went to the other village to sell them. Moral- Presence of mind can find a way out of many difficulties.

Question 5.
Fill in any four of the following blanks choosing the most appropriate options from the ones given below each. Write the answers in your answer sheet against the correct blank numbers. [1 × 4 = 4]
Birds and animals live in the lap (a) ___ nature and can predict the likely changes accurately. Swallows usually fly high (b) ___ the sky. But during a storm, they come down (c) ____ fly close to the ground. If they fly low you (d) ___ be sure of strong winds. Even a toad can be (e) ___ reliable weatherman.
(a)
(i) in
(ii) of
(iii) on
(iv) for
(b)
(i) in
(ii) of
(iii) on
(iv) to
(c)
(i) not
(ii) or
(iii) but
(iv) and
(d)
(i) would
(ii) should
(iii) might
(iv) could
(e)
(i) a
(ii) an
(iii) the
(iv) some
Answer:
(a)
(ii) of
(b)
(i) in
(c)
(iv) and
(d) (iv) could
(e)
(i) a

Question 6.
The following paragraph has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the error along with its correction in the space provided. Do any four. [1 × 4 = 4]

Answer:

Question 7.
Rearrange any four of the following words / phrases to make meaningful sentences.
[1 × 4 = 4]
(a) ignore / instinct / my first / the snake / was to
(b) I didn’t want / killed one /1 had / it / as / never / to kill.
(c) only dangerous/ duty / to / was / kill / my/ ones
(d) back / and returned / farm /1 went / to the / stick / with a
(e) hesitated / it / I / but still / attack / to Answer :
Answer:
(a) My first instinct was to ignore the snake.
(b) I didn’t want to kill it as I had never killed one.
(c) My duty was to kill only dangerous one.
(d) I went back to the farm and returned with a stick.
(e) But still I hesitated to attack it.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2019 Delhi Set III

Time allowed : 3 Hours
Maximum marks : 100

Note: Except for the following questions all the remaining questions have been asked in the previous sets.

SECTION – B
(WRITING AND GRAMMAR) 30

Question 3.
You are Ambica / Mohit, Librarian, High Scope Public School, Hauz Khas, Delhi.

Write a letter to Jindal Publishers, Pratap Vihar, Delhi to place an order for English to Hindi dictionaries, illustrated children’s encyclopedia, fiction books etc. for your school library. Request them for a catalogue, discount offered, mode of payment and time taken for delivery. (100-120 words). [8]
OR
Good health plays an important role in the life of a student. Student should not neglect their health. Good health is essential for a good performance in studies as well.
Write an article on the topic, ‘How can students keep fit and healthy?’ You are Arun/ Anita, 1489, Hem Kunt Apartments, Delhi. (100-12 words).
Answer:
High Scope Public School
Hauz Khas
Delhi
23 March 20XX
The Manager
Jindal Publishers
Pratap Vihar Delhi
Sub- Order for books
Sir,
We are your regular customer. We would like to place an order for dictionaries, encyclopedia and fiction books for our school library. We are providing a list of books we are in need of. Kindly deliver these books in their latest edition and in proper condition. We will be pleased if you give us a suitable discount on these books and send us a catalogue too. Please suggest the mode of payment and time taken for deliver. The list of books with their particulars is attached.

We hope for timely delivery and maximum discounts.
Your faithfully
Ambica / Mohit
Librarian
OR
‘HOW CAN STUDENTS KEEP FIT AND HEALTHY?’
By Arun / Anita
Being healthy and fit in simple terms means taking good care of the body. We should remember that a healthy mind resides only in a healthy body. Good health of both mind and body helps one maintain the required energy level to achieve success in life.

It is essential for students to be fit and healthy because only then they can concentrate and perform well in studies. For this, it is necessary that they protect their bodies from the intake of harmful substances. Doing regular exercise, taking proper food and sleep are the defining factors for a healthy lifestyle. Being fit will keep them away from being lethargic, restless or tired.

A healthy student can focus not only on studies but also on other co-curricular activities. It will bring him mental stability too.

A healthy diet comprising of a balance of proteins, carbs and vitamins will help in maintaining fitness and enhancing immunity level. So each student should keep health on a priority. Being happy is also directly related to boosting your mental strength and health. So happiness is also a part of a healthy lifestyle.

Question 4.
Develop a short story in 150-200 words with the help of the given beginning. Suggest a suitable title also.
It was a lovely rainy day. I was enjoying a cup of tea while sitting on the balcony of my 1st floor flat. Suddenly, I felt dizzy and the cup fell from my hand. I
OR
Reena, a 10 year old brave girl lived in a slum with her relatives. One day when she was alone at home
Answer:
THE DAY I GOT A NEW LIFE
It was a lonely rainy day. I was enjoying a cup of tea while sitting in the balcony of my first floor apartment. Suddenly, I felt dizzy and the cup fell from my hand. I felt pain in my chest. I thought that this was the last moment of my life. I wanted to call my daughter, my husband and everyone to say the final good bye, but couldn’t do so. I was thinking of their life without me. I was worried what would happen to them if I collapsed. I prayed to God to give me some more time. I had always thought of giving a wonderful life to my daughter. Then my thoughts shifted to my husband who can’t live without me. He was used to having me around him all the time. Suddenly, a thought came to my mind, ‘You have to live. Get up and do something’. I tried to call but it was as if I was dumb. I knew I should not lose my wits. I should do something to keep going till my family notices me. Suddenly, I picked my mobile and dialled 102.1 don’t know what happened after that. When I came to senses, I was in a hospital room with a team of doctors bending over me. Later, I was told that I had been taken in an ambulance to the hospital in the nick of time. Any delay could have been fatal. I was happy to see my family around me. Timely treatment saved my life.
OR
THE BRAVE GIRL
Reena, a ten-year-old girl lived in a slum with her relatives. One day when she was alone at home, a stranger knocked at the door asking for her uncle. She did not know him but let him in. It did not strike her at the moment that it could be dangerous. Her aunt came at that exact time. She too did not recognise him. She asked him to come later when her husband would be at home. He took out a knife and put it on the girl’s neck. He started threatening them to bring out all the cash and valuables. Reena made a quick plan and fell on the man’s feet pretending to plead with him. After a few seconds, she suddenly stood up, grabbed the knife from his hand and threw it out from the window. Her aunty raised an alarm and started shouting. Within no time, people from the neighbourhood gathered there. They caught him and got him arrested.

Question 5.
Fill in any four of the following blanks choosing the most appropriate options from the ones given below. Write the answer in your answer sheet against the correct blank numbers. [1 × 4 = 4]
He will fly (a) ___ Madras (b) ____ 7th December. The plane (c) ___ reach Madras (d) ___ 11.000 am. He (e) ___ stay at Hotel Plaza.
(a)
(i) in
(ii) on
(iii) to
(iv) after
(b)
(i) on
(ii) in
(iii) for
(iv) from
(c)
(i) may
(ii) can
(iii) will
(iv) could
(d)
(i) for
(ii) at
(iii) on
(iv) by
(e)
(i) could
(ii) will
(iii) shall
(iv) must
Answer:
(a)
(iii) to
(b)
(i) on
(c)
(iii) will
(d)
(ii) at
(e)
(ii) will

Question 6.
The following paragraph has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the error along with its correction in the space provided. Do any four. [1 × 4 = 4]

Answer:

Question 7.
Rearrange any four of the following words/ phrases to make meaningful sentences. [1 × 4 = 4]
(a) democracy / is very / important / of press/ in a / freedom
(b) abused / times / is / many / but / it
(c) biased / sometimes / present / is / opinion/ media / a
(d) to have / necessary / press / therefore / a responsible / it is
(e) can be / society / a / only than / fearless / imagined
Answer:
(a) Freedom of press is very important in a democracy.
(b) But many times it is abused.
(c) Sometimes media presents a biased opinion.
(d) Therefore it is necessary to have a responsible press.
(e) Only then a fearless society can be imagined.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 8 Composition and Structure of Atmosphere

Class 11 Geography Chapter 8 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Multiple choice questions.

Question 1(i).
Which one of the following gases constitutes the major portion of the atmosphere?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Argon
(d) Carbon dioxide.
Answer:
(b) Nitrogen

Question 1(ii).
Atmospheric layer important for human beings is:
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Ionosphere.
Answer:
(c) Troposphere

Question 1(iii).
Sea salt, pollen, ash, smoke soot, fine soil hese are associated with:
(a) Gases
(b) Dust particles
(c) Water vapour
(d) Meteors.
Answer:
(b) Dust particles

Question 1(iv).
Oxygen gas is in negligible quantity at the height of atmosphere:
(a) 90 km
(b) 120 km
(c) 100 km
(d) 150 km.
Answer:
(b) 120 km

Question 1(v).
Which one of the following gases is transparent to incoming solar radiation and opaque to outgoing terrestrial radiation?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Helium
(d) Carbon dioxide.
Answer:
(d) Carbon dioxide.

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

Question 2(i).
What do you understand by atmosphere?
Answer:
The atmosphere is composed of gases, water vapour and dust particles. The proportion of gases changes in the higher layers of the atmosphere in such a way that oxygen will be almost in negligible quantity at the height of 120 km. Similarly, carbon dioxide and water vapour are found only up to 90 km from the surface of the earth.

Question 2(ii).
What are the elements of weather and climate?
Answer:
Weather is conditions of temperature, humidity, pressure, etc at a given point of time while climate is condition of these elements for a longer period of time. Following are the important elements of weather and climate:

• Temperature: It affects weather as well as climate.
• Pressure: Pressure keeps on decreasing with increase in height.
• Wind: The flow of wind also affects weather and climate.
• Humidity: Clouds and rain are important factors of climate.

Question 2(iii).
Describe the composition of atmosphere.
Answer:
The atmosphere is composed of gases, water vapour and dust particles. Nitrogen constitutes 78.8%, oxygen contributes 20.94% and argon contributes 0.93% in atmosphere. Other gases include carbon dioxide, helium, ozone, methane, hydrogen, krypton, xenon and neon, etc. Nitrogen and oxygen together constitute 99% of the atmosphere. Neon, krypton, xenon are scarce gases. The proportion of gases changes in the higher layers of the atmosphere in such a way that oxygen will be almost in negligible quantity at the height of 120 km. Similarly, carbon dioxide and water vapour are found only up to 90 km from the surface of the earth.

Question 2(iv).
Why is troposphere the most important of all the layers of the atmosphere?
Answer:
The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. It is most important layer of the atmosphere because:

• Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
• This layer contains dust particles and water vapour.
• All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer.
• The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1°C for every 165m of height.
• All biological activities take place in this layer.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words.

Question 3(i).
Describe the composition of the atmosphere.
Answer:
The composition of the atmosphere can be understood by considering following table.
Gases of the Atmosphere

The atmosphere is composed of gases, water vapour and dust particles. Nitrogen constitutes 78.8%, oxygen contributes 20.94% and argon contributes 0.93% in atmosphere. Other gases include carbon dioxide, helium, ozone, methane, hydrogen, krypton, xenon and neon, etc. Nitrogen and oxygen together constitute 99% of the atmosphere. Neon, krypton, xenon are scarce gases. The proportion of gases changes in the higher layers of the atmosphere in such a way that oxygen will be almost in negligible quantity at the height of 120 km. Similarly, carbon dioxide and water vapour are found only up to 90 km from the surface of the earth.

Carbon dioxide is meteorologically a very important gas as it is transparent to the incoming solar radiation but opaque to the outgoing terrestrial radiation. It absorbs a part of terrestrial radiation and reflects back some part of it towards the earth’s surface. It is largely responsible for the green house effect. Ozone is another important component of the atmosphere. It is found between 10 and 50 km above the earth’s surface and acts as a filter. It absorbs the ultra-violet rays radiating from the sun. It prevents them from reaching the surface of the earth.

Water vapour is such a variable gas in the atmosphere, which decreases with altitude. In the warm and wet tropics, it may account for four per cent of the air by volume, while in the dry and cold areas of desert and polar regions, it may be less than one per cent of the air. Atmosphere has a sufficient capacity to keep small solid particles, which may originate from, different sources and include sea salts, fine soil, smoke-soot, ash, pollen, dust and disintegrated particles of meteors.

Question 3(ii).
Draw a suitable diagram for the structure of the atmosphere and label it and describe it.
Answer:
The atmosphere consists of different layers with varying density and temperature. Density is highest near the surface of the earth and decreases with increasing altitude. The atmosphere is divided into five different layers depending upon the temperature condition.
They are: troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere and exosphere.

1. Troposphere: The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. This layer contains dust particles and water vapour. All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer. The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1°C for every 165m of height.

2. Stratosphere: The stratosphere is found above the tropopause and extends up to a height of 50 km. One important feature of the stratosphere is that it contains the ozone layer. This layer absorbs ultra-violet radiation and shields life on the earth from intense, harmful form of energy.

3.  Mesosphere: The mesosphere lies above the stratosphere, which extends up to a height of 80 km. In this layer, temperature starts decreasing with the increase in altitude and reaches up to minus 100°C at the height of 80 km.

4. Ionosphere; The ionosphere is located between 80 and 400 km above the mesopause. It contains electrically charged particles known as ions, and hence, it is known as ionosphere. Radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer.
Temperature here starts increasing with height.

5. Exosphere: The uppermost layer of the atmosphere above the thermosphere is known as the exosphere. This is the highest layer but very little is known about it.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 8 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Geography Chapter 8 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is an important component of atmosphere?
(a) Water vapours
(b) Dust particles
(c) Gases
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
What is the upper layer of mesosphere called?
(a) Mesosphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Stratosphere.
Answer:
(a) Mesosphere

Question 3.
Which layer of atmosphere has electronically charged particles?
(a) Mesosphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Stratosphere.
Answer:
(b) Ionosphere

Question 4.
Which of the following is the uppermost layer of the atmosphere?
(a) Exosphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Stratosphere.
Answer:
(a) Exosphere

Question 5.
Which of the following is the lowest layer of the earth?
(a) Mesosphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Stratosphere.
Answer:
(c) Troposphere

Question 6.
The air is an integral part of the earth’s mass and 99 per cent of the total mass of the atmosphere is confined to the height of how many km from the earth’s surface?
(a) 10 km
(b) 12 km
(c) 24 km
(d) 32 km.
Answer:
(d) 32 km

Question 7.
To what height carbon dioxide and water vapours are found in atmosphere?
(a) 60 km
(b) 75 km
(c) 90 km
(d) 100 km.
Answer:
(c) 90 km

Question 8.
To what height is ozone found?
(a) 10 to 50 km
(b) 5 to 60 km
(c) 30 to 80 km
(d) 40 to 90 km.
Answer:
(a) 10 to 50 km

Question 9.
Which of the following layer of atmosphere is most important for life?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Ozone
(d) Carbon dioxide.
Answer:
(c) Ozone

Question 10.
What are causes behind increasing density of carbon dioxide?
(а) Burning of fossil fuels
(b) Killing animals
(c) Exploitation of minerals
(d) Ozone layer depletion.
Answer:
(a) Burning of fossil fuels.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 8 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
By which elements is atmosphere made up of?
Answer:
Atmosphere is made up of gases, water vapours and dust particles.

Question 2.
What percent of earth mass is constituted by air and it is confined to what height?
Answer:
The air is an integral part of the earth’s mass and 99 percent of the total mass of the atmosphere is confined to the height of 32 km from the earth’s surface.

Question 3.
How does the composition of air keep changing in upper layers of the earth?
Answer:
The proportion of gases changes in the higher layers of the atmosphere in such a way that oxygen will be almost in negligible quantity at the height of 120 km. Similarly, carbon dioxide and water vapour are found only up to 90 km from the surface of the earth.

Question 4.
Ozone is an important constituent of atmosphere How?
Answer:
Ozone is another important component of the atmosphere. It is found between 10 and 50 km above the earth’s surface and acts as a filter. It absorbs the ultra-violet rays radiating from the sun. It prevents them from reaching the surface of the earth.

Question 5.
What do you mean by tropopause?
Answer:
The zone separating the troposphere from stratosphere is known as the tropopause.

Question 6.
What is an important feature of stratosphere?
Answer: The stratosphere is found above the tropopause and extends up to a height of 50 km. One important feature of the stratosphere is that it contains the ozone layer. This layer absorbs ultra-violet radiation and shields life on the earth from intense, harmful form of energy.

Question 7.
What is an important feature of troposphere?
Answer:
The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. This layer contains dust particles and water vapour. All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer. The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1 C for every 165m of height.

Question 8.
Name the gases found in atmosphere.
Answer:
The atmosphere is composed of gases, water vapour and dust particles. Nitrogen constitutes 78.8%, oxygen contributes 20.94% and argon contributes 0.93% in atmosphere. Other gases include carbon dioxide, helium, ozone, methane, hydrogen, krypton, xenon and neon, etc.

Question 9.
Explain important features of ionosphere.
Answer:
The ionosphere is located between 80 and 400 km above the mesopause. It contains electrically charged particles known as ions, and hence, it is known as ionosphere. Radio waves transmitted from the earth are reflected back to the earth by this layer. Temperature here starts increasing with height.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 8 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on water vapours.
Answer:
Water vapour:

• The amount of water vapour decreases with the altitudes. In warm and wet tropics, it accounts for 4% of the air by volume whereas in dry and cold areas of deserts and polar regions, it may be less then 1% of the air.
• It also decreases from the equator towards the poles.
• It absorbs parts of the insolation received from the sun and preserves the earth’s radiated heat and thus acts as a blanket by allowing the earth neither to become too hot nor too cold.

Question 2.
Explain about dust particles.
Answer:
Dust particles:

• Dust particles are concentrated in the lower layers of the atmosphere but sometimes conventional currents take them to the higher height.
• Dust particles includes sea salts, fine soil, smoke, ashes, pollens, dust, disintegrated particles of meteors.
• Dust particles and salt particles act as a hygroscopic nuclei around which water condenses into water vapour to produce clouds.
• Dust particles produce optical phenomenon which makes the sky look beautiful at dawn and dusk.
• Sky looks blue due to the presence of dust particles and water vapour which are scattered in the atmosphere.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 8 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write about elements of weather and climate in detail.
Answer:
The main elements of atmosphere which are subject to change and which influence human life on earth are temperature, pressure, winds, humidity, clouds and precipitation. These elements act and react on each other. These elements determine the direction and speed of wind, amount of sunlight received, cloud formation and amount of rainfall. These in turn affect weather and climate. These factors behave differently in different places. All these elements are affected by a number of factors in turn. For example, temperature is affected by latitude and height; humidity is affected by distance from the sun and pressure is affected by height from sea level.

Question 2.
Write about the structure of atmosphere in detail.
Answer:
Structure of Atmosphere: The layers of atmosphere differ from one another with respect to density and temperature. On the basis of chemical composition the atmosphere is mainly divided into

1. Homosphere
2. Hetrosphere

1. Homosphere:

• It extends upto 90 km.
• It is uniform in chemical composition.
•  It consists of three layers
  • Troposphere
  • Stratosphere
  • Mesosphere

Troposphere:

• Lower most layer of atmosphere
• Average height is 13 km although it is roughly 8 km.
• The thickness of troposphere is greater at equation due to upward transportations of heat by conventional currents. This layer consists of dust particles and water vapours.
• The temperature decrease with height in this layer at a rate ldegree for every 165 m. this is known as Normal Lapse Rate.
• It is layer is important for all biological activities besides that all climatic and weather conditions takes place in this layer.

Tropopause:

• The upper limit of troposphere separating it from stratosphere is called tropopause. It is very unstable at a thin layer and very thin layers of 1.5 km thickness.
• The temperature of tropopause is -80degree centigrade censius at equator and -40 degree centigrade at poles.
• The jet planes at the other activities occur in this layer.

Stratosphere:

• It extends upto 50km.
• It is thicker at poles then at equator.
• The temperature is almost constant in its lower portion upto 20 km and their it gradually increases upto 50 km due to the presence of Ozone which absorbs UV rays.
• The temperature rises in the upper limits of the stratosphere as there are no clouds, no conventional currents, no dust particles and the air moves in the horizontal direction. The upper’ limit of stratosphere is called stratosphere which has concentration of Ozone gas.

Mesosphere:

• It extends from 50* to 90 km.
• Temperature decreases with height in this layer and false upto minus 100 degree centigrade at a height of 80-90 km. this is due to the clouds in high latitudes.
• The upper limit of Mesosphere is called as Mesopause.

2. Hetrosphere:

• It has heterogeneous chemical.
• It consist of two layers
  • Ionosphere
  • Exosphere

Ionosphere

•  It extends from 80 to 400 km above the mesopause.
• It contains electrically charged particles known as ions.

Exosphere

• It is the uppermost layer of the atmosphere above the thermosphere.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 8 Hots Questions

Question 1.
What would happen if there is no ozone in the atmosphere?
Answer:
It is the special variety of oxygen gas which is found in small quantity in atmosphere between 10 to 15 km above the earth surface. It acts as a filter and absorbs UV radiation from the sun and prevents them from reaching the earth surface. If ozone is not there, then UV rays will reach the surface of the earth. There will be extreme skin problems, instances of cancer and in all probabilities life would not have been possible on the earth.

Question 2.
What is the role of dust particles in atmosphere?
Answer:
The atmosphere has sufficient capacity to keep small solid particles which may originate from different sources and includes sea salts, fine soil, smoke soot, ash, polan, dust and disintegrated particles of meteors. Dust and solid particles act as hygroscopic nuclei around which water vapour condenses to produce clouds.

MAP SKILL

Question 1.
Use a diagram to show summer solstice on a globe.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 8 Composition and Structure of Atmosphere appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 Secularism

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.
Which of the following do you feel are compatible with the idea of secularism? Give reasons.
(a) Absence of domination of one religious group by another.
(b) Recognition of a state religion.
(c) Equal state support to all religions.
(d) Mandatory prayers in schools.
(e) Allowing separate educational institutions for any minority community.
(f) Appointment of temple management bodies by the government.
(g) Intervention of state to ensrure entry of Dalits in temples.
Answer:
(a) This idea is compatible because:

• Due to equality, majority of religious people will not dominate minority religious people.
• Minority religious people also enjoy freedom to practicise any belief, way of worship and to preach as well.

(b) It is not compatible because such situation prevails only in religious dominated state.

(c) Equal support to all religions by state cannot be provided because:

• One state can have 10 festivals to be celebrated where as the other may have only 2 or 4.
• The ways of worship are also different which is not possible for state to follow different methods.
• Hence, it should be left on religious community or individual’s will.

(d) It is not compatible because students, teacher and employees are free to adopt their own way to offer prayer.

(e) It is compatible to provide protection and security to people of minority religions group.

(f) It is not compatible to be the direct involvement of state and or government in religious affairs.

(g) It is compatible because:

• The weaker sections will not be denied the freedom to adopt any religion on ground of being lower caste.
• Secularism does not challenge only inter-religious intra-religions domination also.
• State’s efforts promote freedom within religions as well as equality among them.

Question 2.
Some of the key characteristics of western and Indian model of secularism have got mixed up Separate them and make a new table.

Answer:

Question 3.
What do you understand by secularism? Can it be equated with religious tolerance?
Answer:
Secularism is:

• State has no religion of its own.
• No, discrimination among the people on the basis of religion.
• Every citizen is equal before law.
• Every citizen enjoys freedom to reside with freedom and dignity in any part of country.

Equating of secularism with religious tolerance:

• Religious tolerance is a powerful base of secularism, i.e. state has positive attitude due to sense of religious tolerance but they do not treat all seats equally.
• Secularism provide fundamental rights to minority religious groups within the dominion of state.
• The religious tolerance is not a right but a mutual sympathy.
• Secularism opposes to intra-religious domination because, if religious tolerance is allowed only, then the people of majority seat will dominate the people of minority seat.
• Indian secularism emphasises on peaceful co-existence refer to equal respect towards all religions and their practices and clarity in case of ambiguity.
• Under Indian secularism, religiously sanctioned caste-hierachy are not acceptable.
• Though secular state does not have to treat every aspect of every religion with equal respect, but it stops disregard towards the genuine aspects of other seats or religion.

Question 4.
Do you agree with the following statements? Give reasons for supporting or opposing any of them.
(a) Secularism does not allow us to have a religious identity.
(b) Secularism is against inequality within a religious group or between different religious groups.
(c) Secularism has a western-Christian origin. It is not suitable for India.
Answer:

(a) It is opposed because secularism believes and supports protection of religious identity, as being a part of human rights.

(b) It is supported because:

• Secularism is not against inequality.
• It allows religious institutions.
• Secularism believes in equality of all religions.
• The people belonging to different religions or communities enjoy equal opportunity of jobs.

(c) It is opposed because:

• Secularism is neither have western origin nor it is not suitable for India.
• After independence, India has been declared a secular state not to interfere in the religious matters of individuals.
• Its example can be cited even from ancient history when Hindu and Buddhist rulers behaved equally with the people of different religions.

Question 5.
Indian secularism focuses on more than the religion-state separation. Explain.
Answer:

• In India, secularism opposes all kinds of inter-religious domination and institutionalized religious domination.
• Indian secularism promotes freedom within religions, i.e. no discrimination on the basis of religion, colour, race, etc. and equality among different religions.
• India has promoted religious harmony to value peace, freedom and equality.
• Indian secularism seperates clearly the religious institution and state institutions.
• A secular state must be committed to the principle and goals of peace, religious freedom, freedom from religious oppressions, discrimination and exclusion of mier religious and intra-religious equality.
• Indian constitution declares that every citizen enjoys a right to reside with freedom and diginity in any part of country.
• India secularism follows all concepts related with principled distance.

Question 6.
Explain the concept of principled distance.
Answer:

• To be secular, a state must not only refuse to be theocratic but also have no formal legal alliance with any religion because separation of religion-state is necessary but not a sufficient ingredient of a secular state.
• A secular state must be committed to principles and goals to be derived from non-religions sources including peace, religious freedom, freedom from discrimination and inter-religious and intra-religious equality.
• Secular states are neither theocratic nor establish a religion. Separation of religion and state is a mutual exclusion not to interfere in the affairs of religion and as well religion will not interfere in the affairs of state.
• No policy of the state can have an exclusively religious rationale because state and religion both exercise separate spheres of their own.
• The state cannot aid any religious institution or provide any financial support to religious communities as well as it cannot hinder the activities of religious communities which are within the broad limits set by law of land.
• Religion is a private matter and it is not a matter of state policy or law, i.e. if a religious community excommunicates its dissenters, the state can only be a silent witness.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 NCERT Extra Questions Solved

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 NCERT Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by ‘secular’?
Answer:
The term ‘secular’ promoter equal respect for all religions to develop such type of feelings.

Question 2.
What is ‘secularism’?
Answer:
Secularism denotes the separation of the state and religion to provide a theory of life and conduct against one provided by religion.

Question 3.
What do you mean by ‘Dharma’?
Answer:
‘Dharma’ is derived from Sanskrit word to refer to adopt, to sustain, to support and the principles of right.

Question 4.
What are main the dimensions of secularism?
Answer:

• Secularism opposes inter-religious domination.
• It opposes intra-religious domination also, i.e. if everybody’s basic needs are fulfilled to lead a happy life, the religions will disappear.

Question 5.
Mention religions-based discrimination’s from Europe and Israel?
Answer:

• Jews faced discrimination to continue to persist against non-Christians in many parts of Europe.
• In Israel, Arab minorities both Christians and Muslims are excluded from social, political and economic benefits available of Jewish citizens.

Question 6.
Mention the conditions of religious minorities in India’s two neighboring states of Pakistan and Bangladesh?
Answer:
It has generated considerable concern for the Hindus and the Sikhs.

Question 7.
Mention the importance of Dharma?
Answer:
Dharma prepares the individual to know the truth and right course of action alongwith highest virtue and spiritual efforts to subscribe moral actions.

Question 8.
What is a secular state?
Answer:
The secular state deals with every individual a citizen only, i.e. a state is not associated with any religion or does not promote any religion also. It treats equally with all religions.

Question 9.
“ Some concerning examples of religious discrimination remind us to continuing importance of secularism”. Justify the statement.
Answer:

• Subtle forms of discrimination continues do persist against non-Christians in several parts of Europe.
• The condition of religions minorities on the neighboring states of Pakistan and Bangladesh to generate considerable concern.
• Though jews faced discrimination for centuries throughout Europe, in the present state of Israel, Arab minorities, booth Christians and Muslims are excluded from social, political, economic benefits available to Jewish citizens.

Question 10.
What is Satya and Ahimsa?
Answer:
‘Satya’ refers that each and every individual should follow the rules of dharma, i.e. not to perform any task to be harmful to others. ‘Ahimsa’ refers to non-violence, i.e. not to kill anyone to follow in thought, speech and action and resistance of evil by love.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 NCERT SHORT Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention some characteristics of secularism?
Answer:

• Indian secularism does not interfere in the affairs of religions and religion is free from state polities also.
• Indian secularism goes ahead in the direction of combating communalism.
• Special care is given to the upliftment of the weaker sections of the people of country, i.e. special seats are reserved for the members of backward and depressed classes not only in admissions in public institutions but in public employments and elections also.
• The union and the state governments have also been given due representation to the minorities of country, i.e. Dr. Zakir Hussain, Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad, Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam as the President of India and Dr. Manmohan Singh as a Prime Minister of India, etc.

Question 2.
Give three most stark examples from India to prove that in reality several forms of exclusion and discrimination continue to persist even in a declared secular state of India?
Answer:
The Constitution of India declares India a secular state giving fundamental rights of religious freedom to its all citizens. Still, in reality several forms of exclusion and discrimination continue to persist:

• Nearly four thousand Sikhs were massacred in Delhi and many other parts of the country in 1984 flare-up and the families of victims feel that the guilty were not punished.
• Several thousands of Hindu Kashmiri Pandits have been forced to leave their homes in Kashmir valley who have not been able to return their homes for more than two decades.
• Nearly more than 50 Swayam Sevaks of particular religion were put on fire in train compartment most probably by another religious group and as a reaction to that even nearly two thousand of Muslims were massacred in Gujarat in 2002 and the number of these families cannot go back to the villages in which they lived.

Question 3.
Critically examine the Indian secularism?
Answer:
Indian secularism can be criticized on the following grounds:

• Secularism promotes religions freedom and equality. But sometimes argued to be anti¬religions, i.e. to undermine some forms of religions identity to be dogmatic, violent, exclusivity and those to faster hatred of other religions.
• Secularism is sometimes linked to Christianity, unsuited to Indian conditions. India evolved a variant of secularism not just an implant from the west on Indian soil. Hence, secularism has booth western and non-western origins and idea of peaceful coexistence of different religions communities has been important.
• Secularism is charged of minoritism but it is to treat them with some respect and dignity with which all others are being treated.
• Secularism is criticized to be coercive and to interfere excessively with religions freedom. Though secularism permits state supported religions reform but it should not be equated false but the mere fact that secular parties utilize vote banks is not troublesome. All parties do so in relation to some social group.
• Secularism is criticized to be impossible is criticized to be impossible project to be far from pursuing an impossible objective India secularism mirrors the future of the world.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 NCERT Passage-Based Questions

Passage 1.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 116) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Let us look at a very different kind of secularism practised in Turkey in the first half of the twentieth century. This secularism was not about principled distance from organised religion, instead it involved, active intervention in and suppression of, religion. This version of secularism was propounded and practised by Mustafa Kemal Ataturk.

He came to power after the First World War. He was determined to put an end to the institution of Khalifa in the public life of Turkey. Ataturk was convinced that only a clear break with traditional thinking and expressions could elevate Turkey from the sorry state it was in. He set out in an aggressive manner to modernise and secularise Turkey. Ataturk changed his own name from Mustafa Kemal Pasha to Kemal Ataturk (Ataturk translates as Father of the Turks). The Fez, a traditional cap worn by Muslims, was banned by the Hat Law. Western clothing was encouraged for men and women. The Western (Gregorian) calendar replaced the traditional Turkish calendar. In 1928, the new Turkish alphabet (in a modified Latin form) was adopted.

Can you imagine a secularism that does not give you the freedom to keep the name you are identified with, wear the dress you are used to, change the language you communicate in? In what ways do you think Ataturk’s secularism is different from Indian secularism?

Questions:
1. Who was Kemal Ataturk ?
2. What were the main ideas of Ataturk seculrism?
3. How did Ataturk try to promote secularism in Turkey?
Answers:
1. Ataturk came to power after the defeat of Turkey in the First World War and he was determined to put an end to the institution of Khalifa in the public life of Turkey.

2. It involved active intervention in and suppression of religion.
Ataturk was determined to put an end to the institution of Khalifa in the public life of Turkey.
He set out in an aggressive manner to modernise and secularise Turkey.

3. Turkey was declared a secular state.
Put an end to institutions of Khalifa.
The Fez, a traditional cap of Muslims was banned by hat law.
The western (Gregorian) calendar replaced the traditional Turkish calendar.

Passage 2.
Read the passage (NCERT Textbook, page 117) given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

‘Equal protection by the State to all religions’. This is how Nehru responded when a student asked him to spell out what secularism meant in independent India. He wanted a secular state to be one that “protects all religions, but does not favour one at the expense of others and does not itself adopt any religion as the state religion”. Nehru was the philosopher of Indian secularism. Nehru did not practise any religion, nor did he believe in God. But for him secularism did not mean hostility to religion. In that sense Nehru was very different from Ataturk in Turkey. At the same time Nehru was not in favour of a complete separation between religion and state. A secular state can interfere in matters of religion to bring about social reform. Nehru himself played a key role in enacting laws abolishing caste discrimination, dowry and sati, and extending legal rights and social freedom to Indian women. While Nehru was prepared to be flexible on many counts, there was one thing on which he was always firm and uncompromising. Secularism for him meant a complete opposition to communalism of all kinds. Nehru was particularly severe in his criticism of the communalism of the majority community, which posed a threat to national unity. Secularism for him was not only a matter of principles, it was also the only guarantee of the unity and integrity of India.

Questions:
1. What was secular state as per Pt. J.L. Nehru?
2. Mention the position of Nehru as a religious man?
3. Mention the compromising and opposing traits of Nehru in secularism?
Answers:
1. A state to protect all religions but not to favour one at the expense of others and does not adopt any religion of state itself.

2. A philosopher of Indian secularism did not mean hostility to religion.
He was not in favour of complete separation between religion and state.
A secular state can intervene in matters of religion to bring about social reform.

3. Secularism for Nehru meant a complete opposition to communalism of all kinds which posed a threat to national unity. And secularism for him was not only a matter of principles but it was also a guarantee of unity and integrity of India.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 NCERT Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the elements to make India a secular state and suggestions to strengthen secularism in India?
Answer:
A secular state:

• Consider religion and belief as a personal matter of individual.
• Civil administration is free from domination of religious parties and organisations.
• Laws made by elected representatives are enforced only.
• Political system should not be theocratic.
• No discrimination should be made in job opportunity and recognition of status.
• Fraternity should be recognised.

Elements to make India a secular state:

• State has no religion at its own.
• State is neutral and impartial in matters of religion.
• Every citizen has a right to adopt or profess any religion and to practicise in one’s own way.
• No one can be discriminated on the ground of religion.
• Minorities have been guaranteed the right to establish and run their educational institutions for protection of their language, script and culture.
• state cannot compel an individual to embrace or renounce any religion.

Suggestions to strengthen secularism:

• Religion should be kept separate from state politics.
• The political parties based upon religion or encourage communalism should be banned.
• If any candidate or political party campaigns on the ground of religions sentiments, should be punished or banned forever.
• Education should be imparted to students from the very first stage to embrace the principles of secularism along with scientific and national thinking.

Question 2.
Mention the constitutional provisions in India to promote secularism.
Answer:

• The preamble to the constitution speaks of the liberty in important matters like faith, worship and belief.
• Article 14 states not to deny equality before law within the territory of India.
• Article 15 states not to discrimination any citizen on the grounds of caste, colour, race, religion, etc. and not to deny access to public places also.
• Article 16 states not to discriminate among individuals on any ground in matters of public employment or to deny admission in educational institutions.
• Article 17 declares untouchability a punishable offence under law.
• Article 25 provides right to adopt, practices, profess and propogate any religion of one’s choice.
• Article 26 provides to have rights to establish and maintain institutions for religions and charitable purposes, to mange its own affairs of religion, to own and acquire movable and immovable property and to administer it as well.
• Article 27 states that no person shall be compelled to pay taxes to proceed the payment of expenses for promotion and maintenance of particular religions denomination.
• Article 28 states that no religions instructions shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained by the state.
• Article 29 provides that the state shall not impose upon it any culture other than community’s own culture.

Political Science Class 11 NCERT Solutions

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 Secularism appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2018

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 80

SECTION A
(READING) 20

Question 1.
Read the passage given below: [8]
(1) Tourists to Jammu and Kashmir have another attraction — a floating post office on the Dal Lake in Srinagar, the first in the country. ‘Floating Post Office, Dal Lake’s— claimed to be the only one such post office in the world is built on an intricately carved maroon houseboat, fastened on the western edge of the Dal Lake.
(2) This post office lets you avail of all the regular postal services available in the country while being afloat. The seal used on everything posted from Floating Post Office is unique — along with the date and address, it bears the design of a boatman rowing a shikara on the Dal Lake. The special feature of this post office is that letters posted from here carry a special design which has the picturesque scenery of Dal Lake and Srinagar city. These pictures reach wherever these letters are posted to and hence promote Kashmir as a tourist destination across the world.
(3) This is actually a heritage post office that has existed since British times. It was called Nehru Park Post Office before 2011. But then the chief postmaster John Samuel renamed it as ‘Floating Post Office’
(4) The post office’s houseboat has two small rooms—one serves as the office and the other a small museum that traces the philatelic history of the state postal department. It has a shop that sells postage stamps and other products.
(5) But for the locals, Floating Post Office is more than an object of fascination. ? 1-2 crore is deposited per month in the Floating Post Office by communities living in and around the Dal Lake. The
lake has several islets that are home to more than 50,000 people.
(6) The greatest fear is the recurrence of 2014 like floods in which the houseboat had gone for a toss uncontrollably pushed by the flood. Rescue teams had to anchor it using special mechanism in a nearby highland. Then it was brought back on the Dal after the water receded. The biggest boon is that at no time of the year do you need a fan in this post-office.

Question 1.1.
Attempt any eight of the following questions on the basis of the passage you have read: [1 x 8 = 8]
(i) What is the location of the Floating Post Office in Srinagar ?
(ii) What is special about the seal used in the post office ?
(iii) How is the post office helpful in promoting toursim ?
(iv) Who renamed the post office as ‘Floating Post Office’ ?
(v) What are the two rooms of the post office used for ?
(vi) How is the post office benefical to the locals ?
(vii) What is the greatest fear that the post office has ?
(viii) How is the post office a big boon to the people ?
(ix) Find the word from the passage which means the same as ‘attraction’, (para 5)
Answer :
(i) The Floating Post Office, one of the tourist attractions of Jammu and Kashmir is built on an intricately carved maroon houseboat, which is fastened on the western edge of the Dal Lake in Srinagar.
(ii) The seal used in the post office on everything posted from the Floating Post Office is unique. It bears the design of a boatman rowing a shikara on the Dal Lake along with the date and address.
(iii) The letters posted for the Floating Post Office in Srinagar carries the picturesque scenery of Dal Lake and Srinagar as its special design. Whichever address these letters are posted to, these pictures reach there hence, promoting Kashmir as a tourist destination across the world.
(iv) The chief postmaster John Samuel renamed it as ‘Floating Post Office’.
(v) One of the rooms in the post office’s houseboat serves as the office and the other as a small museum that traces the philatelic history of the state postal department. It has a shop that sells postage stamps and other products.
(vi) Communities living in and around the Dal Lake can deposite and save their money in the Floating Post Office. It helps them as a bank.
(vii) The greatest fear that the post office face is the recurrence of floods in the lake.
(viii) The post office is a boon to the people as it is a major source of attraction as well as a source of income for the people.
(ix) Fascination.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below: [12]
1. It is an indisputable fact that the world has gone too far with the innovation of new technologies such as mobile phones, the internet and so on, due to which people are able to tour the cosmos virtually sitting at one place using their smart devices or other technological gadgets. Though mobile internet access is oftentimes hurried and short, it can still provide common internet features like alerts, weather data, emails, search engines, instant messages, and game and music downloading.
2. Due to the easy access of smart phones, communication has been very effective and instant. People are able to convey their message all around the globe to their loved ones without spending hefty sums of money. Adults are always fond of such gadgets and they always welcome and adopt such new technology readily. Further, young people have been able to broaden their minds and improve their skills by doing research on the Internet. For instance, they use smart phones to look up any new word they come across. As we know that most of the universities have online teaching provision and smart phones assist the students to complete their assignments on time.
3. The mobile phone has been a lifesaver for a lot of people in case of an emergency. Likewise, use of smart phones can be of vital importance in preventing crimes in the society by providing information to the security forces in time.
4. Nonetheless, for the young the use of mobile phone can be like an addiction and they can misuse it. Young people are also prone to getting involved in undesirable activities on the Internet. This might have adverse effect on their academic performance. Therefore, young people should always be monitored and made aware of its bad outcomes.
5. Also a major contributor to its popularity is the availability of prepaid or pay as you go services form a phone shop or an online store. This allows subscribers to load text or airtime credits to their handsets by the use of their credit cards, debit cards or by buying a prepaid card from the network they subscribe to. This plan also doesn’t commit a particular customer to a contract. If prepaid card is not that appealing to you, then you can opt to subscribe using the pay by month plan.

Question 2.1.
On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer any four of the following questions in 30-40 words each: [2 × 4 = 8]
(i) How are smart phones helpful in communication ?
(ii) What are the benefits of mobile phones for the young generation ?
(iii) How can mobile phones be considered ‘lifesavers’?
(iv) Mention any two demerits of mobile phones.
(v) How is a prepaid card useful to mobile phone users ?
Answer:
(i) Smartphones provide an instant source of communication among the people. People can now send messages to their loved ones around the world without spending huge amount of money.
(ii) The younger generation can use the smart phone to broaden their minds and improve their researching skills through the internet. They can look up new words, learn through the medium of online learning and complete assignments on time.
(iii) Mobile phones help in emergency situations by preventing crimes through the timely intervention of the security forces. This intervention is possible through the immediate information sent to the forces.
(iv) Smartphones can lead to addiction which leads to waste of time and energy. Smartphones also adversely impact academic performances.
(v) Prepaid cards aid in allowing subscribes to load text and airtime credits to their handsets. The prepaid plan does not commit a customer to a particular contract.

Question 2.2.
On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer any four of the following: [1 × 4 = 4]
(i) In para 1, synonym of ‘innovation’ is ____ .
(i) production
(ii) sincerity
(iii) invention
(iv) prevention
(ii) Mobile internet can provide access to :
(i) telegram
(ii) emails
(iii) schools
(iv) university
(iii) Grown-ups should ___ the use of new technology by the young people.
(i) reject
(ii) criticize
(iii) monitor
(iv) accept
(iv) Meaning of the word ‘adverse’ in para 4 is :
(i) positive
(ii) negative
(iii) admirable
(iv) unguided
(v) According to the passage, one can opt for ___ plan if prepaid plan doesn’t suit.
(i) yearly
(ii) weekly
(iii) monthly
(iv) daily
Answer:
(iii) invention
(ii) emails
(iii) monitor
(v) monthly

SECTION B
(WRITING SKILLS AND GRAMMAR) 30

Question 3.
You are Prabhu Kumar/Parvati of 17E, Ravi Dass Road, Kochi. Write a letter in 100 -120 words to the editor of a newspaper about the nuisance caused by loudspeakers in the city during examination days drawing attention of the concerned authorities to the problem. [8]
OR
You are Pratibha/Rahul of Class X. Write an article in 100 – 120 words on ‘III effects on students of too much of television’. You can use the following clues:

• Increasing addiction
• A great variety of programmes
• Easy availability
• Neglect of studies
• Drop in academic performance
• Result — poor physical and mental health

Answer:
17E, Ravi Dass Road,
Kochi.
3^rd November 20XX
The Editor,
The Times of India.
Kochi
Sub : Nuisance caused by loudspeakers in the city
Respected Sir,
I am writing this letter to express my anguish and annoyance over the problem of loud speakers during the examination days. I am a student studying in 10th grade of a reputed school in the city. The final examinations are just around the comer.

During the day, the loud noise from speakers disturbs and distracts as much as it does at night. Especially on the weekends, the noise from the loudspeakers is unbearable. Lask weekend, I could not study at all. In spite of the law prohibiting loud music playing beyond 10 O’Clock, people violate the rules and regulations by playing it all night. There are thousands of students like me who have to suffer from this problem. Besides, there are some old patients and new bom babies in every locality who get affected by this noise pollution. I, on behalf of all the students of the city plead and appeal to concerned authorities to look into the matter as this is a clear contravention of the laws.
Yours truly,
Prabhu Kumar/Parvati
OR
ILL EFFECTS OF TOO MUCH TELEVISION
By Rahul/Pratibha, Class X Most children nowadays, watch television as part of their leisure time. Two of the major reasons are that there is a great variety of television programs and the ease of availability. If children do not get to watch their programs on television, they will use their parents’ phone to watch the *, programs online. Researchers have found that watching television for young children has both its own share of advantages and disadvantages. Watching TV for children is an enjoyable activity but it can have several ill effects on their cognitive abilities, health, and their habits. Children who watch a lot of TV programs can suffer from the lack of concentration.

When he or she watches a TV program, they get only a few minutes to concentrate and that too in between the advertisements. They also find it difficult to imagine because when they watch a television program, they only need to look and listen. A child who likes to watch television programs can be in front of it for many hours. Obesity is a fast-growing problem amongst children these days due to the lack of physical activity. Children become lazy to try out new activities as they do not want to miss their television programs. They ofter prefer watching T.V. over doing their homework or learning their lessons, which eventually leads to a drop in the academic performance. Another bad effect is that they will be influenced by violence in some television programs as they have not yet developed their critical thinking skill to differentiate between good and bad. Anything in excess is harmful to a person. Thus, watching excessive television can lead to poor physical and mental health.

Question 4.
Write a story in 150-200 words with the help of the following outline: [10]
Tortoise and hare — good friends — tortoise — known for his slow speed — hare has fast speed — makes fun of tortoise — challenges him — referee selected — race starts — hare overconfident — takes a nap — tortoise wins.
OR
Complete the story in 150 – 200 words which begins as the following:
There was a joint family of six members including grandparents. It was the 75th birthday of the grandmother and the family
planned to celebrate
Answer:
THE HARE AND THE TORTOISE
In a forest, there lived two very good friends, a hare and a tortoise. The hare was famous for his speed while the tortoise was famous for doing things slowly. One day, the hare was making fun of the tortoise for being so slow. “Do you ever reach anywhere on time?” he asked with a mocking laugh. “Yes,” replied the tortoise, “and, I will get there sooner than you think ‘I’ll run a race with you.

The hare was much amused at the idea of running a race with the tortoise, so he agreed. The Fox, who had consented to act as a refere, marked the distance and started the runners off. The hare was soon far out of sight. He got over confident so he thought how ridiculous it was for him to try a race with a hare, then he lay down beside the course to take a nap until the tortoise would catch up.

The tortoise meanwhile kept going slowly and steadily, and after a time, he passed through the place where the hare was sleeping. The hare slept on very peacefully; and when at last he woke up, the tortoise was near the goal. The hare now ran his swiftest, and fastest but he could not overtake the tortoise in time.
OR
A SURPRISE BIRTHDAY PARTY
There was a joint family of six members, including grandparents. It was the 75th birthday of the grandmother and the family planned to celebrate it. They decided to make her feel special, and so they thought of celebrating the day by planning a surprise party for her. They invited all their relatives and all of grandma’s friends at home. The children of the house were told to take grandma out so that she couldn’t come to know about the surprise and also so the relatives could come home without grandma’s keen notice of things.

The children happily took grandma to the garden nearby. They talked to their grandmother about her childhood memories and about her likes and dislikes. They kept their beloved grandmother engaged till it got dark. When they reached home, the grandmother found the home in complete silence and darkness. She got worried and * called out to her son. The lights were suddenly turned on with all the relatives wishing her. She did not expect such a wonderful birthday surprise. She had tears in her eyes. She was overwhelmed seeing her loved ones around. It was a moment of joy for her.

Question 5.
Fill in any four of the blanks in the paragraph given below with the help of options that follow: [1 × 4 = 4]
The modem student __(a)__ the importance __(b)__ physical exercise. He spends one to two hours in open air __(c)__ he takes part in different sports. However, care should __(d)__ not to overstrain __(e)__ body.
(a)
(i) understood
(ii) understand
(iii) have understand
(iv) understands
(b)
(i) of
(ii) by
(iii) from
(iv) with
(c)
(i) how
(ii) which
(iii) where
(iv) why
(d)
(i) be taken
(ii) took
(iii) takes
(iv) has taken
(e)
(i) a
(ii) an
(iii) the
(iv) some
Answer:
(a)
(iv) understands
(b)
(i) of
(c)
(iii) where
(d)
(i) be taken
(e)
(iii) the

Question 6.
The following paragraph has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the error and its correction as shown in the example. Do any four. [1 × 4 = 4]

Answer:

Question 7.
Rearrange the following words/phrases to form meaningful sentences : [1 × 4 = 4]
(i) work and play/ things / different/ parents see/ as two
(ii) is a/ of time / they/ waste/ think/ that playing
(iii) important/ games / studies / are as / as
(iv) a student/ to both / proper / should / attention /pay
(v) can / life / only / succeed / he / in / then
Answer:
(i) Parents see work and play as two different things.
(ii) They think that playing is a waste of time.
(iii) Studies are as important as games.
(iv) A student should pay proper attention to both.
(v) Only then he can succeed in life.

SECTION C
(LITERATURE : TEXTBOOKS AND LONG READING TEXT) 30

Question 8.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow : [1 × 4 = 4]
”But, please, Stephen Stepanovitch, he can they be yours ? Do be a reasonable man! My anunt’s grandmother gave the Meadows for the temporary and free use of your grandfather’s peasants. The peasants used the land for forty years and got accustomed to it as if it was their own, when it happened that
(a) Who is the speaker of the above lines ?
(b) Why did his aunt’s grandmother give the meadows ?
(c) Why did the peasant treat the land as their own ?
(d) What light do these lines throw on the speaker’s character ? .
OR
Belinda tickled him, she ticked him unmerciful, Ink, Blink and Mustard, they rudely called him Percival. They all sat laughing in the little red wagon At the realio, trulio cowardly dragon.
(a) Who was tickled by Belinda ?
(b) Why did she tickle ‘him’ ?
(c) Who are Ink, Blink and Mustard ?
(d) Why did they all laugh at ‘him’ ?
Answer:
(a) Lomov is the speaker of the above lines.
(b) Lomov’s aunt’s grandmother gave the meadows to his grandfather’s peasants in return for making bricks for her. The land was for free and temporary use.
(c) The peasants used the land given to them for forty years. As a result, they got accustomed to the land as their own.
(d) The speaker comes across as a logcial and courteous person. The speaker’s character can be depicted as that of a rational yet polite man.
OR
(a) Custard, the dragon, was tickled by Belinda.
(b) She tickled him to tease him and make fun of him.
(c) Ink, a black kitten, Blink, the little grey mouse and Mustard, a little yellow dog, are all Belinda’s pets.
(d) Custard, the dragon was a coward, hence, they all laughed at him.

Question 9.
Answer any four of the following questions in 30 – 40 words each: [2 × 4 = 8]
(a) What excited Rajvir ? Why did Pranjol not share his excitement ?
(b) ‘He senses first responsibility’ – What responsibility is referred to here? (The Ball Poem)
(c) What was Horace Danby’s hobby ? How did he manage to fulfill it ?
(d) Why did Matilda (Mme Loisel) leave the ball in a hurry ? What does it show about her character ?
(e) In which queer way did Anil make a living ? (The Thief’s Story)
Answer:
(a) The beautiful secenery and wide range of green tea gardens excited Rajvir. Pranjol did not share his excitement since he was bom and brought up in Assam, a place familiar to him.
(b) The responsibility referred to here is that in this world of possessions the boy has not only to learn to take care or his things but also cope up with the loss of his favorite ball.
(c) Horace Danby was fond of collecting rare and expensive books. He managed to fulfill it by breaking open a safe each year.
(d) Since no one noticed her shabby shawl, Matilda (Mme Loisel) left the ball in a hurry. Her character depicts her false pride and vanity in material things.
(e) Anil made money by fits and starts. He would borrow one week, lend it the next. As soon as his cheque arrived he would go out and celebrate. He also made a living by writing for magazines.

Question 10.
Answer the following question in 100 – 200 words: [8]
In life, people who easily trust others are sometimes made to look foolish. One should not be too trusting. Describe how Oliver Lutkins made a fool of the young lawyer.
OR
What lesson on death and suffering did the Buddha teach Gotami in the chapter, ‘The Sermon at Banaras’
Answer:
Lutkins impressed the young lawyer with his friendly manner, thus leading the lawyer to think that the people of the town „ were trustworthy. He claimed to know most of the places where Lutkins could be found. Lutkins charged the young lawyer a high price for the hack and food. He alerted Fritz, his friends and mother not to reveal his identity to the lawyer. He even went to the railway station to see the young lawyer off.

The young lawyer on his second visit leamt that the hack driver himself was Lutkins. The young lawyer thus learned a lesson that no one should be too trustworthy and one must be alert at all times.
OR
In his sermon at Banaras, Buddha taught Gotami that the life of mortals is brief, troubled and combined with pain. Death is common for all, it cannot be avoided. He compared human life to ripe fruits that eventually decay or as earthen vessels that will break someday. Neither a father nor his kinsmen can save anyone. Weeping or grieving cannot bring back the dead to life nor bring peace of mind but only cause pain and suffering to the grieving body. One should accept death without lamentation, complaint and overcome sorrow and grief thus, bringing peace of mind, which is a blessing.

Question 11.
Answer the following question in 200 -150 words: [10]
Describe the importance of diary in AnneFrank’s life.
OR
What problems do Margot and Anne face with regard to the way their parents treat them ?**
OR
Helen Keller’s determination to study and compete with the normal children helps her to enter Radcliffe College. What does this show about her personality?**
OR
Describe how Miss Sullivan succeeds in helping Helen Keller achieve her aim in life.**

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2018 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 9 Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature

Class 11 Geography Chapter 9 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Multiple choice questions

Question 1(i).
The sun is directly overhead at noon on 21st June at:
(a) The equator
(b) 23.5° S
(c) 23.5° N
(d) 66.5° N.
Answer:
(a) The equator

Question 1(ii).
In which one of the following cities, are the days the longest?
(a) Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Nagpur.
Answer:
(a) Thiruvananthapuram

Question 1(iii).
The atmosphere is mainly heated by the:
(a) Short wave solar radiation
(b) Reflected solar radiation
(c) Long wave terrestrial radiation
(d) Scattered solar radiation.
Answer:
(c) Long wave terrestrial radiation

Question 1(iv).
Make correct pairs from the following two columns.

Answer:
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (ii) and
(d) (i)

Question 1(v).
The main reason that the earth experiences highest temperatures in the subtropics in the northern hemisphere rather than at the equator is:
(a) Subtropical areas tend to have less cloud cover than equatorial areas.
(b) Subtropical areas have longer day hours in the summer than the equatorial.
(c) Subtropical areas have an enhanced “green house effect” compared to equatorial areas.
(d) Subtropical areas are nearer to the oceanic areas than the equatorial locations.
Answer:
(b) Subtropical areas have longer day hours in the summer than the equatorial.

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

Question 2(i).
How does the unequal distribution of heat over the planet earth in space and time cause variations in weather and climate?
Answer:
Weather and climate gets affected by the unequal distribution of temperature on the earth. The areas where there is high temperature, wind blows from low temperature areas. Therefore, wind move upward from equatorial regions and blow towards two poles.

Due to this wind, pressure on both the poles increases. In winter season, wind blows from land regions to oceanic regions. Therefore these wind are dry. On the other hand, during summers, wind blow from ocean towards land. Therefore, these winds are humid. Unequal distribution of temperature is main case of blowing of wind. Rainfall and cyclone also arise due to unequal distribution of temperature. In this way, unequal distribution of temperature affects climate and weather.

Question 2(ii).
What are the factors that control temperature distribution on the surface of the earth?
Answer:
Factors controlling temperature distribution: The temperature of air at any place is influenced by

1. the latitude of the place;
2. the altitude of the place;
3. distance from the sea, the air- mass circulation;
4. the presence of warm and cold ocean currents;
5. local aspects.

1. The latitude: The temperature of a place depends on the insolation received. It has been explained earlier that the insolation varies according to the latitude hence the temperature also varies.

2. The altitude: The atmosphere is indirectly heated by terrestrial radiation from below. Therefore, the places near
the sea-level record higher temperature than the places situated at higher elevations.

3. Distance from the sea: Another factor is the location of a place with respect to the sea. Compared to land, the sea gets heated slowly and loses heat slowly. Land heats up and cools down quickly. Therefore, the differences in the temperature over the sea is less compared to land. And this places near the sea has a moderate temperature.

4. Air-mass and ocean currents: Air- masses affects the temperature. The places which come under the influence of warm air- masses experience higher temperature and the place that comes under the influence of cold air-masses experience low temperature.

Question 2(iii).
In India, why is the day temperature maximum in May and why not after the summer solstice?
Answer:
The main cause behind temperature being highest in May is due to summer solstice. At that time sun shines on the Tropic of Capricorn. Tropic of Capricorn passes through middle of India. But it remains till end of May in India. It is because rain starts on Malabar coast at the end of the May. Due to this, temperature does not increase in South India. Although increase in temperature continues in India till 21 June and we find highest temperature in first week of June in India.

Question 2(iv).
Why is the annual range of temperature high in the Siberian plains?
Answer:
Siberian plains are quite far off from sea. Uneven climate is found in areas located away from oceans and seas. The mean monthly temperature for January is between -18° C to -48° C in the Siberian plains. In summers, it is up to 20°celcius. Therefore, the annual range of temperature is -68 (-48-20) which is extremely high. The pressure of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and north Atlantic drift, make the northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the isotherms bend towards the north. Over the land, the temperature decreases sharply and the isotherms bend towards south in Europe.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words.

Question 3(i).
How do the latitude and the tilt in the axis of rotation of the earth affect the amount of radiation received at the earth’s surface?
Answer:
Sunrays fall vertical on equator through the year. From 0° to 23.5° north and south, the sun keeps fluctuating. From 1st march to 21st march, the sun is southern and sunrays fall vertical on tropic of cancer. This time there is summer in northern hemisphere. From 23rd September to 22nd December, the sun is southern. During this time, the sunrays fall vertical on tropic of capricorn. On 21st march and 23rd September, sunrays fall vertical on equator. As we move towards poles from tropic of cancer and tropic of Capricorn, temperature keeps on decreasing. Therefore, after 6614 degree north and south there is cold zone. Throughout the year, the temperature remains low here. In this region, throughout the year, there is frigid snow. It is because the sun’s rays fall tilted on it. In this way, the latitude and the tilt in the axis of rotation of the earth affect the amount of radiation received at the earth’s surface.

Question 3(ii).
Discuss the processes through which the earth-atmosphere system maintains heat balance.
Answer:
1. Conduction:

• The earth after being heated by insolation transmits the heat to the atmospheric layers near to the earth in long wave form. The air in contact with the land gets heated slowly and the upper layers in contact with the lower layers also get heated.
• It takes place when two bodies of unequal temperature are in contact with one another, there is a flow of energy from the warmer to cooler body. The transfer of heat continues until both the bodies attain the same temperature or the contact is broken. Conduction is important in heating the lower layers of the atmosphere.

2. Convection:

• The air in contact with the earth rises vertically on heating in the form of currents and further transmits the heat
  of the atmosphere. This vertical heating of atmosphere is known as convection.
• The convection transfer of energy is confined only to the troposphere.

3. Advection:

• The transfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called advection. Horizontal movement of the air is relatively more important than the vertical movement.
• In tropical regions particularly in northern India during summer season local winds called ‘loo’ is the outcome of advection process.

Question 3(iii).
Compare the global distribution of temperature in January over the northern and the southern hemisphere of the earth.
Answer:
In January, there is summer in southern hemisphere and winter in northern hemisphere. The main reason behind it is that sun has northern face and sunrays fall vertical in northern hemisphere. The areas which are closer to equator have temperature up to 27°C and over the land the temperature decreases sharply and the isotherms bend towards south in Europe. It is much pronounced in the Siberian plain. The mean January temperature along 60° E longitude is minus 20° C both at 80° N and 50° N latitudes. The mean monthly temperature for January is over 27° C, in equatorial oceans over 24° C in the tropics and 2° C – 0° C in the middle latitudes and -18° C to -48° C in the Eurasian continental interior.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 9 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Geography Chapter 9 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What percent of sunrays that is received by the upper layer of the atmosphere reach the earth surface?
(a) 43%
(b) 51%
(c) 53%
(d) 40%.
Answer:
(b) 51%

Question 2.
The process of heating up of land through horizontal movement of heat is called:
(a) Conduction
(b) Convection
(c) Advection
(d) Air drainage.
Answer:
(a) Conduction

Question 3.
With increase in height the temperature decreases at a normal rate. It is called:
(a) Air drainage
(b) Earth radiation
(c) Normal lapse rate
(d) Inversion of temperature.
Answer:
(c) Normal lapse rate

Question 4.
Being heavy and dense, the cold air acts almost like water and moves down the slope to pile up deeply in pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is called what?
(a) Air drainage
(b) Earth radiation
(c) Normal lapse rate
(d) Inversion of temperature.
Answer:
(a) Air drainage

Question 5.
The air in contact with the earth rises vertically on heating in the form of currents and further transmits the heat of the atmosphere. This process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is called what?
(a) Conduction
(b) Convection
(c) Advection
(d) Air drainage.
Answer:
(b) Convection

Question 6.
What is normal lapse rate at 1000 metre?
(a) 4 degree Celsius
(b) 2 degree Celsius
(c) 1 degree Celsius
(d) 6.5 degree Celsius.
Answer:
(d) 6.5 degree Celsius

Question 7.
On 4th July, the earth is farthest from sun. What is its distance?
(a) 152 million km
(b) 147 million km
(c) 148 million km
(d) 198 million km.
Answer:
(a) 152 million km

Question 8.
On 3rd January, the earth is nearest from sun. What is its distance?
(a) 152 million km
(b) 147 million km
(c) 148 million km
(d) 198 million km.
Answer:
(b) 147 million km

Question 9.
Which continent has highest temperature range?
(a) Asia
(b) Australia
(c) Africa
(d) Eurasia.
Answer:
(d) Eurasia

Question 10.
Which of the following has longest day and nights?
(a) Poles
(b) Equator
(c) Tropic of Cancer
(d) Tropic of Capricorn.
Answer:
(a) Poles

Question 11.
Which of the following causes inversion of temperature in mountainous regions?
(a) Due to air drainage
(b) Due to dust particles
(c) Due to gravitation
(d) Due to water vapours.
Answer:
(a) Due to air drainage.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 9 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What factors cause variation in insolation?
Answer:
The factors that cause these variations in insolation are :

• the rotation of earth on its axis;
• the angle of inclination of the sun’s rays;
• the length of the day;
• the transparency of the atmosphere;
• the configuration of land in terms of its aspect.

Question 2.
What is aphelion?
Answer:
During its revolution around the sun, the earth is farthest from the sun (152 million km) on 4th July. This position of the earth is called aphelion.

Question 3.
What is perihelion?
Answer:
On 3rd January, the earth is the nearest to the sun (147 million km). This position is called perihelion.

Question 4.
What does Plank’s law state?
Answer:
Plank’s law states that hotter a body, the more energy it will radiate and shorter the wavelength of that radiation.

Question 5.
What factors affect the temperature of a place?
Answer:
The temperature of air at any place is influenced by

• the latituae of the place;
• the altitude of the place;
• distance from the sea, the air- mass circulation;
• the presence of warm and cold ocean currents;
• local aspects.

Question 6.
What is terrestrial radiation?
Answer:
The insolation received by the earth is in short wave orms and heats up its surface. The i arth after being heated itself becomes a radiating body and it radiates energy to the atmosphere in long wave form. This energy heats up the atmosphere from below. This process is known as terrestrial radiatio”

Question 7.
What are the causes behind loo in tropical regions?
Answer:
In tropical regions particularly in northern India during summer season local winds called ‘loo’ is the outcome of advection process.

Question 8.
Why does sun look red during rising and setting and why does sky look blue?
Answer:
Within the troposphere water vapour, ozone and other gases absorb much of the near infrared radiation. Very small- suspended particles in the troposphere scatter visible spectrum both to the space and towards the earth surface.
This process adds colour to the sky. The red colour of the rising and the setting sun and the blue colour of the sky are the result of scattering light of the atmosphere.

Question 9.
How does some amount of energy is reflected to the atmosphere? or what is albedo?
Answer:
While passing through the atmosphere some amount of energy is reflected, scattered and absorbed. Only the remaining part reaches the earth surface. The reflected amount of radiation is called the albedo of the earth.

Question 10.
How do sunrays while passing through atmosphere gets absorbed?
Answer:
Out of 100% received, 65 units are absorbed, 14 units within the atmosphere and 51 units by the earth’s surface. The earth radiates back 51 units in the form of terrestrial radiation. Of these, 17 units are radiated to space directly and the remaining 34 units are absorbed by the atmosphere (6 units absorbed directly by the atmosphere, 9 units through convection and turbulence and 19 units through latent heat of condensation).

Question 11.
Atmosphere gets heated up indirectly by terrestrial radiation and not directly by s nrays. Explain.
Answer:
Tne long wave radiation is absorbed by the atmospheric gases particularly by carbon dioxide and the other green house gases. Thus, the atmosphere is indirectly b ^ated by the earth’s radiation. The atmosphere in turn radiates and transmits heat to the space. Finally, the amount of heat received from the sun is returned to space, thereby maintaining constant temperature at the earth’s surface and in the atmosphere.

Question 12.
What is meant by insolation?
Answer:
The earth’s surface receives most of its energy in short wavelengths. The energy received by the earth’s is known as incoming solar radiation which in short is termed as insolation.

Question 13.
Differentiate between Perihelion and Aphelion.
Answer:
During its revolution around the sun, tho earth is farthest from the sun, on 4th July. This position of earth is called Aphelion.
And on 3rd January, the earth is the nearest to the sun. This position is called Perihelion.

Question 14.
Why the annual insolation received by the earth on 3rd January is more than that of 4th July?
Answer:
The solar output received at the top of atmosphere varies slightly in a year due to the variations in the distance between the earth and the sun. Therefore, the annual insolation received by the earth on 3rd January is more than the amount received on 4th July.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 9 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is inversion of temperature? When | and in what regions does it take place?
Answer:
At times, the situations are reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called Inversion of temperature. Inversion is usually of short duration but quite common nonetheless. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion. The heat of the day is radiated off during the night, and by early morning hours, the earth is’ cooler than the air above. Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year. Surface inversion promotes stability in the lower layers of the atmosphere.

Smoke and dust particles get collected beneath the inversion layer and spread horizontally to fill the lower strata of the atmosphere. Dense fogs in mornings are common occurrences especially during winter season. This inversion commonly lasts for few7 hours until the sun comes up and beings to warm the earth. The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage.

Question 2.
How does the energy received in upper layer of the atmosphere keep changing at different times of the year?
Answer:
The solar output received at the top of the atmosphere varies slightly in a year due to the variations in the distance between the earth and the sun. During its revolution around the sun, the earth is farthest from the sun (152 million km) on 4th July. This position of the earth is called aphelion.On 3rd January, the earth is the nearest to the sun (147 million km). This position is called perihelion. Therefore, the annual insolation received by the earth on 3rd January is slightly more than the amount received on 4th July.

However, the effect of this variation in the solar output is masked by other factors like the distribution of land and sea, and the atmospheric circulation. Hence, this variation in the solar output does not have great effect on daily weather changes on the surface of the earth.

Question 3.
How does the amount of insolation received depends on the angle of inclination of the rays?
Answer:
The amount of insolation received depends on the angle of inclination of the rays. It depends on the latitude of a place. The higher the latitude the less is the angle they make with the surface of the earth resulting in slant sunrays. The area covered by vertical rays is always less than the slant rays. If more area is covered, the energy gets distributed and the net energy received per unit area decreases. Moreover, the slant rays are required to pass through greater depth of the atmosphere resulting in more absorption, scattering and diffusion.

Question 4.
Explain about spatial distribution of insolation on the earth’s surface.
Answer:
The insolation received at the surface varies from about 320 Watt/m2 in the tropics to about 70 Watt/m2 in the poles. Maximum latitude insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the least. Equator receives comparatively less insolation than the tropics. Generally, at the same latitude the insolation is more over the continent than over the oceans. In winter, the middle and higher latitudes receive less radiation than in summer.

Question 5.
Explain the distribution of temperature in July.
Answer:
Distribution of temperature in July

• During this period the sun shines vertically over head near the tropic of cancer. It is summer for the northern hemisphere and winters for the southern hemisphere.
• In the northern hemisphere the isotherm bends equator wards while crossing the oceans and pole wards ‘while crossing the landmass. In the southern hemisphere it is vice-versa.
• The isotherms are most irregular and zig-zig in northern hemisphere on the other hand the isotherms are relatively more regular and straight in southern hemisphere.
• Maximum temperature of about 30 degree centigrade occurs entirely in the northern hemisphere between 10° and 40° north latitude however the lowest temperature below 0° C is recorded over northern hemisphere in the central parts of green land.

Question 6.
Explain the factors affecting insolation at the surface of earth.
Answer:
The factors affecting insolation at the surface of earth are:-

1. The rotation of earth on its axis: The fact that the earth on its axis makes an angle of 6614 with the plane of it’s orbit round the sun has a greater influence on the amount of insolation received at different latitudes.

2. The angle of inclination of the sunrays: The higher the latitude the greater is the angle they make with the surface of the’earth resulting in slant sunrays. The areas covered by vertical rays is always less than the slant rays. If more areas is covered the energy gets distributed and the net energy received per unit area decreases. Thus, the slant rays are required to pass through greater depth of the atmosphere resulting in more absorption, scattering and diffusion.

3. The transparency of the atmosphere:
The atmosphere is largely transparent to the short wave solar radiation. The incoming solar radiation passes through the atmosphere before striking the earth’s surface. Within the troposphere water vapour, ozone and other gases absorb much of the near infrared radiation.

4. The configuration of land in terms of its aspect: The insolation received at the surface varies from about 320 watt/ m2 in the poles. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, when the cfoudness is the least. Equator receives less rainfall as compared to tropics

Question 7.
Distribution of temperature in the month of July.
Answer:

• During this period the sun shines vertically over head near tropic of cancer it is the summer for northern hemisphere and winter for southern hemisphere.
• The isotherms are relatively more regular and straight in southern hemisphere.
• Maximum temperature of over 30°C occurs entirely in northern hemisphere between 10° and 40° temperature below 0° C is recorded over northern hemisphere in the central parts of Greenland.

Question 8.
Explain the distribution of temperature in January.
Answer:

1. In January the isotherms deviate to north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. This can be seen on the North Atlantic Ocean.

2. The pressure of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and north Atlantic drift, make the northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the isotherms bend towards the north.

3. Over the land the temperature decreases sharply and the isotherms bend towards south in Europe.

4.  It is much pronounced in the Siberian plan. The mean January temperature along 60° E longitude is minus 20° both at 80° N and 50° N latitude. The mean monthly temperature for January is over 27° C in equatorial oceans over 24°C in the tropics and 2° C- 0° C in middle latitudes and -18° C to -48° C in Eurasian continental interior.

5. The effect of the ocean in well pronounced in southern hemisphere. Here, the isotherms are more or less parallel to latitudes and the variations in temperature is more gradual than in the northern hemisphere. The isotherm of 20°C, 10°C, and 0°C run parallel to 35°S, 45° and 60°S latitudes respectively.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 9 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain about inversion of temperature.
Answer:
At times, the situations are reversed and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It is called inversion of temperature. Inversion is usually of short duration but quite common nonetheless. A long winter night with clear skies and still air is ideal situation for inversion. The heat of the day is radiated off during the night, and by early morning hours, the earth is cooler than the air above.

Over polar areas, temperature inversion is normal throughout the year. Surface inversion promotes stability in the lower layers of the atmosphere. Smoke and dust particles get collected beneath the inversion layer and spread horizontally to fill the lower strata of the atmosphere. Dense fogs in mornings are common occurrences especially during winter season. This inversion commonly lasts for few hours until the sun comes up and beings to warm the earth. The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage.

Question 2.
Explain the heating and the cooling mechanism of atmosphere.
Or
Discuss the process through which earth and the atmosphere system maintain heat balance.
Answer:
(a) Conduction:

• The earth after being heated by insolation transmits the heat to the atmospheric layers near to the earth in long wave form. The air in contact with the land gets heated slowly and the upper layers in contact with the lower layers also get heated.
• Conduction takes place when two bodies of unequal temperature are in contact with one another, there is a flow of energy from the warmer to cooler body. The transfer of heat continues until both the bodies attain the same temperature or the contact is broken. Conduction is important in heating the lower layers of the atmosphere.

(b) Convection:

• The air in contact with the earth rises vertically on heating in the form of currents and further transmits the heat of the atmosphere. This vertical heating of atmosphere is known as convection.
• The convection transfer of energy is confined only to the troposphere.

(c) Advection:

• The transfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called advection. Horizontal movement of the air is relatively more important than the vertical movement.
• In tropical regions particularly in northern India during summer season local winds called ‘loo’ is the outcome of advection process.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 9 Hots Questions

Question 1.
Explain about heat budget of the earth.
Answer:
The earth receives almost all of its energy from the sun. The earth in turn radiates back to space the energy received from the sun. As a result, the earth neither warms up nor does it get cooled over a period of time. Thus, the amount of heat received by different parts of the earth is not the same. This variation causes pressure differences in the atmosphere. This leads to transfer of heat from one region to the other by winds. The insolation received at the top of the atmosphere is 100 per cent. While passing through the atmosphere some amount of energy is reflected, scattered and absorbed. Only the remaining part reaches the earth surface.

Roughly 35 units are reflected back to space even before reaching the earth’s surface. Of these, 27 units are reflected back from the top of the clouds and 2 units from the snow and ice- covered areas of the earth. The reflected amount of radiation is called the albedo of the earth. The remaining 65 units are absorbed, 14 units within the atmosphere and 51 units by the earth’s surface. The earth radiates back 51 units in the form of terrestrial radiation. Of these, 17 units are radiated to space directly and the remaining 34 units are absorbed by the atmosphere (6 units absorbed directly by the atmosphere, 9 units through convection and turbulence and 19 units through latent heat of condensation). 48 units absorbed by the atmosphere (14 units from insolation +34 emits from terrestrial radiation) are radiated back into space.

MAP SKILL

Question 1.
On an outline map of the world, locate the distribution of surface air temperature in the month of January.
Answer:

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 9 Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NIOS Class 10 Date Sheet 2019: National Institute of open schooling also known as NIOS conducts the NIOS exam for class 10 twice in a year. The block 1 exam is conducted in the month of April/May while the exams for block 2 are conducted in October/November. Recently, NIOS has released recently the NIOS class 10 date sheet for block 1. According to this date sheet, NIOS class, the 10-time table is given the article. Also, NIOS officials, later on, revealed the revised time table for practical exams. NIOS class block 1 practical exam will be conducted from March 16, 2019, to March 30, 2019. While the theory exams will be conducted from April 3, 2019, to May 4, 2019. The official NIOS class 10 date sheet released by the NIOS gives you a detailed exam sheet for class 10.

Download NIOS Class 10 Revised Date Sheet 2019

NIOS Class 10 Date Sheet Overview

NIOS Class 10 Date Sheet 2019

Below are the dates for all the exams conducted by the NIOS for class 10

NIOS Class 10 Date Sheet for Practical Exams

Below is the practical exam date sheet for NIOS class 10

How To Download NIOS Class 10 Date From Official NIOS Website?

• Go to the official website of NIOS which is nios.ac.in.
• On the main page, scroll down and you will find a link that reads “Examination results”. Click on this link.
• Now, for class 10 date sheet, click on the “Date sheet for secondary class (10th class)” link.
• Your class 10 date sheet will be displayed on the screen. Download the NIOS class 10 date sheet and keep one of its copies handy with you.

Details Mentioned On NIOS Class 10 Date Sheet

The following details will be mentioned on the NIOS class 10 date sheet

• Day of the exam
• Date of the exam
• Timings of the exam
• Subject code
• Important instructions
• List of all the subjects

NIOS Class 10 Date Sheet Important Dates

Important Points for Nios Class 10 Date Sheet

1. There will be no changes made in the exam dates. The dates mentioned in the date sheet will be final.
2. Students are advised to carry their admit card or hall ticket to the exam center. No one will allow entering the examination center without a valid admit card.
3. Candidates can download their intimidation cum admit card which will be available on NIOS official website.
4. Practical exams for the candidates will be conducted on the given AIs where the candidates can enroll their admission.
5. For practical exams, students at the particular AI will be separated in various batches depending upon the capacity of the lab and various other factors.
6. The practical exams will be done in small batches, so the candidate must contact the coordinator of AI or center superintendent in well advance to know the given dates along with the batches allotted to them.

The post NIOS 10th Date Sheet April 2019 | NIOS Secondary Time Table April 2019 (Revised) appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 10 Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems

Class 11 Geography Chapter 10 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Multiple choice questions.

Question 1(i).
If the surface air pressure is 1,000 mb, the air pressure at 1 km above the surface will be:
(a) 700 mb
(b) 1,100 mb
(c) 900 mb
(d) 1,300 mb.
Answer:
(c) 900 mb

Question 1(ii).
The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone normally occurs:
(a) Near the Equator
(b) Near the Tropic of Cancer
(c) Near the Tropic of Capricorn
(d) Near the Arctic Circle.
Answer:
(a) Near the Equator

Question 1(iii).
The direction of wind around a low pressure in northern hemisphere is:
(a) Clockwise
(b) Perpendicular to isobars
(c) Anti-clock wise
(d) Parallel to isobars.
Answer:
(c) Anti clock wise

Question 1(iv).
Which one of the following is the source region for the formation of air masses?
(a) The Equatorial Forest
(b) The Himalayas
(c) The Siberian Plain
(d) The Deccan Plateau.
Answer:
(c) The Siberian plains.

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

Question 2(i).
What is the unit used in measuring pressure? Why is the pressure measured at station level reduced to the sea level in preparation of weather maps?
Answer:
Millibar or Pascal is the unit for measuring pressure. Most widely used unit is kilo Pascal expressed as hpa. Horizontal distribution of pressure is studied by drawing isobars at constant levels. Isobars are lines connecting places having equal pressure. In order to eliminate the effect of altitude on pressure, it is measured at any station after being reduced to sea level for making it comparative. The pressure measured at station level is reduced to the sea level in preparation of weather maps.

Question 2(ii).
While the pressure gradient force is from north to south, i.e. from the subtropical high pressure to the equator in the northern hemisphere, why are the winds north easterlies in the tropics?
Answer:
Rotation of the earth also affects the wind movement. The force exerted by the rotation of the earth is known as the Coriolis force. Due to this effect, winds move to the right from their original direction in northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. The deflection is more when the wind velocity is high. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force.

The pressure gradient force is perpendicular to an isobar. The higher the pressure gradient force, the more is the velocity of the wind and the larger is the deflection in the direction of wind. As a result of these two forces operating perpendicular to each other, in the low-pressure areas the wind blows around it. Therefore, when pressure gradient force is from south to north then winds move from south to north easterlies.

Question 2(iii).
What are the geotrophic winds?
Answer:
The velocity and direction of the
wind are the net result of the wind generating forces. The winds in the upper atmosphere, 2-3 km above the surface, are free from frictional effect of the surface and are controlled mainly by the pressure gradient and the Coriolis force. When isobars are straight and when there is no friction, the pressure gradient force is balanced by the Coriolis force and the resultant wind blows parallel to the isobar. This wind is known as the geostrophic wind.

Question 2(iv).
Explain the land and sea breezes.
Answer:
During the day the land heats up
faster and becomes warmer than the sea. Therefore, over the land the air rises giving rise to a low pressure area, whereas the sea is relatively cool and the pressure over sea is relatively high.

Thus, pressure gradient from sea to land is created and the wind blows from the sea to the land which is known as sea breeze. In the night the reversal of condition takes place. The land loses heat faster and is cooler than the sea.
The pressure gradient is from the land to the sea. This breeze is known as land breeze.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words.
Question 3(i).
Discuss the factors affecting the speed and direction of wind.
Answer:
Air is set in motion due to the differences in atmospheric pressure. The air in

Question 3(ii).
Draw a simplified diagram to show the general circulation of the atmosphere over the globe. What are the possible reasons for the formation of subtropical high pressure over 30° N and S latitudes?
Answer:
The general circulation of the atmosphere also sets in motion the ocean water circulation which influences the earth’s climate. The general circulation of the atmosphere also affects the oceans. The large-scale winds of the atmosphere initiate large and slow moving currents of the ocean, which in turn provide input of energy and water vapour into the air.

These interactions take place rather slowly over a large part of the ocean. The air at the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) rises because of convection caused by high insolation and a low pressure is created. The winds from the tropics converge at this low pressure zone. The converged air rises along with the convective cell. It reaches the top of the troposphere up to an altitude of 14 km. and moves towards the poles. This causes accumulation of air at about 30° N and S. Part of the accumulated air sinks to the ground and forms a subtropical high. Another reason . for sinking is the cooling of air when it reaches 30° N and S latitudes.

Question 3(iii).
Why does tropical cyclone originate over the seas? In which part of the tropical cyclone do torrential rains and high velocity winds blow and why?
Answer:
At the equator, the Coriolis foroe is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars. The low pressure gets filled instead of getting intensified. That is the reason why tropical cyclones are not formed near the equator.
Torrential rain occurs in the eye of the cyclone. The strong spirally circulating wind around the centre is called the eye. The diameter of the circulating system can vary between 150 and 250 km. The eye is a region of calm with subsiding air. Around the eye is the eye wall, where there is a strong spiralling ascent of air to greater height reaching the tropopause. The wind reaches maximum velocity in this region, reaching as high as 250 km per hour.

From the eye wall rain bands may radiate and trains of cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds may drift into the outer region. Due to torrential rain, wind blowing from those regions are humid. It brings precipitation in oceanic regions. Due to torrential rains, heavy rain takes place on eastern coast of India and north east coast of China.

Project Work

Question 1.
Collect weather information over media such as newspaper, TV and radio for understanding the weather systems.
Answer:
Attempt yourself.

Question 2.
Read the section on weather in any newspaper, preferably, one having a map showing a satellite picture. Mark the area of cloudiness. Attempt to infer the atmospheric circulation from the distribution of clouds. Compare the forecast given in the newspaper with the TV coverage, if you have access to TV. Estimate, how many days in a week was the forecast were accurate.
Answer:
Attempt yourself.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 10 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Geography Chapter 10 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
What does a cell in tropics called?
(a) Polar cell
(b) Hadley cell
(c) Descending winds
(d) Frost cell.
Answer:
(b) Hadley cell

Question 2.
What is tropical cyclone in Australia called?
(a) Hurricanes
(b) Typhoons
(c) Tornado
(d) Willy-willies,
Answer:
(d) Willy-willies

Question 3.
What is tropical cyclone in China and Japan called?
(a) Hurricanes
(b) Typhoons
(c) Tornado
(d) Willy-willies.
Answer:
(b) Typhoons

Question 4.
Circular flow of air in low pressure area is called:
(a) Cyclonic circulation
(b) Pascal
(c) Geomorphic winds
(d) Western storm.
Answer:
(a) Cyclonic circulation

Question 5.
The cool air, of the high plateaus and ice fields draining into the valley is called:
(a) Mountain wind
(b) Valley breeze
(c) Katabatic wind
(d) Cold front.
Answer:
(c) Katabatic wind

Question 6.
When front becomes constant, it is called:
(a) Cold front
(b) Warm front
(c) Stationary front
(d) Occluded.
Answer:
(c) Stationary front

Question 7.
From severe thunderstorms sometimes spiralling wind descends like a trunk of an elephant with great force, with very low pressure at the centre, causing massive destruction on its way. Such a phenomenon is called:
(a) Hurricanes
(b) Typhoons
(c) Tornado
(d) Willy-willies.
Answer:
(c) Tornado

Question 8.
What is the unit for measuring pressure?
(a) Barometer
(b) Millibars and Pascal
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) Isobars.
Answer:
(b) Millibars and Pascal

Question 9.
On the pole wards along 60°N and 60°S, the low-pressure belts are termed as the:
(a) Polar high
(b) Subtropicalhighs
(c) Sub polar lows
(d) Equator high.
Answer:
(c) Sub polar lows

Question 10.
How is unit kilopascal represented?
(a) hpa
(b) bpa
(c) cpa
(d) spa.
Answer:
(a) hpa

Question 11.
Which instrument is used for measuring pressure?
(a) Mercury barometer or the aneroid barometer
(b) Pascal
(c) Millibars
(d) Seismograph.
Answer:
(a) Mercury barometer or the aneroid barometer.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 10 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How many types of fronts are there?
Answer:
There are four types of fronts:

• Cold;
• Warm;
• Stationary;
• Occluded.

Question 2.
What do you mean by extra tropical cyclones?
Answer:
The systems developing in the mid and high latitude, beyond the tropics are called the middle latitude or extra tropical cyclones.

Question 3.
How do front affect weather and what is their important feature?
Answer:
The important feature of fronts is that they occur in middle latitudes and are characterised by steep gradient in temperature and pressure. They bring abrupt changes in temperature and cause the air to rise to form clouds and cause precipitation.

Question 4.
By which different names are tropical cyclones known?
Answer:
They are known as Cyclones in the Indian Ocean, Hurricanes in the Atlantic, Typhoons in the Western Pacific and South China Sea, and Willy-willies in the Western Australia.

Question 5.
What is Coriolis force?
Answer:
The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is called the Coriolis force after the French physicist who described it in 1844.

Question 6.
At what rate does pressure decrease with rise in height?
Answer:
In the lower atmosphere, the pressure decreases rapidly with height. The decrease amounts to about 1 mb for each 10 m increase in elevation. It does not always decrease at the same rate.

Question 7.
How do the horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to the combined effect of forces?
Answer:
The horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to the combined effect of three forces — the pressure gradient force, the frictional force and the Coriolis force.

Question 8.
What is low pressure system?
Answer:
Low- pressure system is enclosed by one or more isobars with the lowest pressure in the centre.

Question 9.
What is high pressure system?
Answer:
High-pressure system is enclosed by one or more isobars with the highest pressure in the centre.

Question 10.
What is polar cell?
Answer:
At polar latitudes the cold dense air subsides near the poles and blows towards middle latitudes as the polar easterlies. This cell is called the polar cell.

Question 11.
What is ferrel cell?
Answer:
In the middle latitudes the circulation is that of sinking cold air that comes from the poles and the rising warm air that blows from the subtropical high. At the surface these winds are called westerlies and the cell is known as the Ferrel cell.

Question 12.
What are the causes behind differences in atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
Air expands when heated and gets compressed when cooled. This results in variations in the atmospheric pressure.

Question 13.
What determines the pattern of general circulation of the atmosphere?
Answer:
The three cells set the pattern for the general circulation of the atmosphere: Hadley Cell; Ferrel Cell and Polar Cell.

Question 14.
What factors determine the pattern of planetary winds?
Answer:
The pattern of planetary winds largely depends on:

• latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating;
• emergence of pressure belts;
• the migration of belts following apparent path of the sun;
• the distribution of continents and oceans;
• the rotation of earth.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 10 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are winds? Explain different types of winds.
Answer:
Wind is the flow of a huge amount of air, usually from a high pressure area to a low pressure area.
These are the types of wind:

• Seasonal wind: The wind pattern keeps on changing in different seasons due to the shifting of regions of maximum heating, pressure and wind belts.
• Local wind: Due to the differences in the heating and cooling of earth surfaces and the cycles those develop daily or annually can create several common, local or regional winds.
• Mountain and valley wind: In valley regions, during the day the slopes get heated up and air moves upslope and to fill the resulting gap the air from the valley blows up the valley.

Question 2.
What is air mass? In how many categories are air masses categorized on the basis of their source regions?
Answer:
The air with distinctive characteristics in terms of temperature and humidity is called an air mass. In other words, it is defined as a large body of air having little horizontal variation in temperature and moisture.
The homogenous surfaces, over which air masses form, are called the source regions. The air masses are classified according to the source regions into five major source regions. These are:

• Warm tropical and subtropical oceans: Maritime tropical (mT);
• The subtropical hot deserts: Continental tropical (cT);
• The relatively cold high latitude oceans: Maritime polar (mP);
• The very cold snow covered continents in high latitudes: Continental polar (cP);
• Permanently ice covered continents in the Arctic and Antarctica: Continental arctic (cA).

Question 3.
What is a front? How many types of front are there? Explain all of them.
Answer:
When two different air masses meet, the boundary zone between them is called a front.
The process of formation of the fronts is known as frontogenesis. There are four types of fronts:

1. Cold;
2. Warm;
3. Stationary;
4. Occluded.

• Stationary front: When the front remains stationary, it is called a stationary front.
• Cold front: When the cold air moves towards the warm air mass, its contact zone is called the cold front,
• Warm front: If the warm air mass moves towards the cold air mass, the contact zone is a warm front.
• Occluded front: If an air mass is fully lifted above the land surface, it is called the occluded front.
  The fronts occur in middle latitudes and are characterised by steep gradient in temperature and pressure. They bring abrupt changes in temperature and cause the air to rise to form clouds and cause precipitation.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Geostrophic wind? On what factors does their pattern depend?
Answer:
When isobars are straight and when there is no friction, the pressure gradient force is balanced by the Coriolis force and the resultant wind blows parallel to the isobar. This wind is known as the geostrophic wind.
The pattern of these winds largely depends on:

• Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating;
• Emergence of pressure belts;
• The migration of belts following apparent path of the sun;
• The distribution of continents and oceans;
• The rotation of earth.

Question 5.
What is a tropical cyclone? Give its two examples. What are the favourable conditions for its formation?
Answer:
Tropical cyclones are violent storms that originate over oceans in tropical areas and move over to the coastal areas bringing about large scale destruction caused by violent winds, very heavy rainfall and storm surges. This is one of the most devastating natural calamities. Cyclones in the Indian Ocean and Hurricanes in the Atlantic are its biggest examples. Tropical cyclones originate and intensify over warm tropical oceans. The conditions favourable for the formation and intensification of tropical storms are:

• Large sea surface with temperature higher than 27 C;
• Presence of the Coriolis force;
• Small variations in the vertical wind speed;
• A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation;
• Upper divergence above the sea level system.

Question 6.
Explain about mountain and valley winds.
Answer:
In mountainous regions, during the day the slopes get heated up and air moves upslope and to fill the resulting gap the air from the valley blows up the valley. This wind is known as the valley breeze. During the night the slopes get cooled and the dense air descends into the valley as the mountain wind. The cool air, of the high plateaus and ice fields draining into the valley is called katabatic wind. Another type of warm wind occurs on the leeward side of the mountain ranges. The moisture in these winds, while crossing the mountain ranges condense and precipitate. When it descends down the leeward side of the slope the dry air gets warmed up by adiabatic process. This dry air may melt the snow in a short time.

Question 7.
What is atmospheric pressure? Explain about different atmospheric belts.
Or
Explain horizontal distribution of atmospheric pressure on the earth.
Answer:
The weight of a column of air contained in a unit area from the mean sea level to the top of the atmosphere is called the atmospheric pressure. The atmospheric pressure is expressed in units of millibar. At sea level the average atmospheric pressure is 1,013.2 millibar. Due to gravity the air at the surface is denser and hence has higher pressure.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 10 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a detailed note on tornado.
Answer:
Meaning: A thunderstorm is a well- grown cumulonimbus cloud producing thunder and lightening. When the clouds extend to heights where sub-zero temperature prevails, hails are formed and they come down as hailstorm. If there is insufficient moisture, a thunderstorm can generate dust- storms. A thunderstorm is characterised by intense updraft of rising warm air, which causes the clouds to grow bigger and rise to greater height.

This causes precipitation. Later, downdraft brings down to earth the cool air and the rain. From severe thunderstorms sometimes spiralling wind descends like a trunk of an elephant with great force, with very low pressure at the centre, causing massive destruction on its way. Such a phenomenon is called a tornado. Features:

• Tornadoes generally occur in middle latitudes.
• The tornado over the sea is called water spouts.
• These violent storms are the manifestation of the atmosphere’s adjustments to varying energy distribution.
• The potential and heat energies are converted into kinetic energy in these storms and the restless atmosphere again returns to its stable state.

Question 2.
Write a detailed note on Coriolis Force.
Answer:
The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is called the Coriolis force after the French physicist who described it in 1844. It deflects the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. The deflection is more when the wind velocity is high. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.

The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force. The pressure gradient force is perpendicular to an isobar. The higher the pressure gradient force, the more is the velocity of the wind and the larger is the deflection in the direction of wind. As a result of these two forces operating perpendicular to each other, in the low-pressure areas the wind blows around it. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars. The low pressure gets filled instead of getting intensified.
Differentiate between vertical variation of pressure and horizontal distribution of atmospheric pressure on earth.

Vertical variation of pressure: In the lower atmosphere the pressure decreases rapidly with height. The decrease amounts to about 1 mb for each 10 m increase in elevation. It does not always decrease at the same rate. Horizontal Distribution of Pressure: Small differences in pressure are highly significant in terms of the wind direction and purposes of comparison. The sea level pressure distribution is shown on weather maps. Low- pressure system is enclosed by one or more isobars with the lowest pressure in the centre. High- pressure system is also enclosed by one or more isobars with the highest pressure in the centre.
The vertical pressure gradient force is much larger than that of the horizontal pressure gradient. But, it is generally balanced by a nearly equal but opposite gravitational force. Hence, we do not experience strong upward winds.

Question 4.
What factors affect direction and velocity of winds?
Answer:
Air is set in motion due to the differences in atmospheric pressure. The air in motion is called wind. The wind blows from high pressure to low pressure. The wind at the surface experiences friction. Following factors affect the direction and velocity of winds.
1. Pressure gradient force: The differences in atmospheric pressure produces a force. The rate of change of pressure with respect to distance is the pressure gradient.

2. Frictional force: It affects the speed of the wind. It is greatest at the surface and its influence generally extends upto an elevation of 1 – 3 km. Over the sea surface the friction is minimal.

3.Coriolis force: The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is called the Coriolis force after the French physicist who described it in 1844. In addition, rotation of the earth also affects the wind movement. The force exerted by the rotation of the earth is known as the Coriolis force.

4. Pressure and wind: The velocity and direction of the wind are the net result of the wind generating forces. The winds in the upper atmosphere, 2-3 km above the surface, are free from frictional effect of the surface and are controlled mainly by the pressure gradient and the Coriolis force. When isobars are straight and when there is no friction, the pressure gradient force is balanced by the Coriolis force and the resultant wind blows parallel to the isobar. This wind is known as the geostrophic wind.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 10 Hots Questions

Question 1.
What are the features of El-Nino?
Answer:
EI-Nino is a complex weather system that appears once every three to seven years, bringing drought, floods and other weather extremes to different parts of the world.
Features:

1. The system involves oceanic and atmospheric phenomena with the appearance of warm currents off the coast of Peru in the Eastern Pacific and affects weather in many places including India.
2. EI-Nino is merely an extension of the warm equatorial current which gets replaced temporarily by cold Peruvian current or Humbolt current.
3. This current increases the temperature of water on the Peruvian coast by 10 C.
4. This results in:
   • The distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation;
   • Irregularities in the evaporation of sea water;
   • Reduction in the amount of planktons which further reduces the number of fish in the sea.

MAP SKILL

Question 1.
Use a diagram to differentiate the direction of land breeze and sea breeze.
Answer:

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 10 Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2019 Outside Delhi

Time allowed: 3 hours
Maximum marks: 80

General Instructions:

• The question paper comprises five sections, A, B, C, D and E. You are to attempt all the sections.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Internal choice is given in Sections B, C, D and E.
• Questions number 1 and 2 in Section A are one mark questions. They are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
• Questions number 3 to 5 in Section B are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
• Questions number 6 to 15 in Section C are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
• Questions number 16 to 21 in Section D are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
• Questions number 22 to 27 in Section E are based on practical skills. Each question is a two marks question. These are to be answered in brief.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2019 Outside Delhi Set I

Section – A

Question 1.
Name two industries based on forest produce. [1]
Answer:
Timber industries and paper manufacturing industries are based on forest produce.

Question 2.
Why are the heating elements of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal? [1]
Answer:
The resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent metals. Alloys do not oxidise (bum) readily at higher temperatures. Therefore, conductors of electric heating devices, such as toasters and electric irons, are made up of an alloy rather than pure metal.

Section – B

Question 3.
Write the molecular formula of ethene and draw its electron dot structure. [2]
Answer:
The molecular formula of ethene is C₂H₄
Electron dot structure of ethene.

Question 4.
Given reasons:
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
(b) Metals like sodium and potassium are stored under oil.
OR
Silver articles become black when kept in open for some time, whereas copper vessels lose their shiny brown surfaces and gain a green coat when kept in open. Name the substances present in air with which these metals react and write the name of the products formed. [2]
Answer:
(a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery because of its bright and shiny surface. This property is called metallic lustre.
(b) Metals like sodium and potassium are stored under oil because they are very reactive in nature, they react with oxygen present in air. Thus to prevent their oxidation they are kept in the oil.
OR
Silver articles become black when kept in open for some time, whereas copper vessel lose their shiny brown surfaces and gain a green coat when kept in open because silver articles reacts with sulphur compounds such as hydrogen sulphide present in the air to form silver sulphide (Ag₂S) whereas copper reacts slowly with CO₂ and water present in the air to form green coating of mixture of copper carbonate and copper hydroxide.

Question 5.
The absolute refractive index of Ruby is 1.7. Find the speed of light in Ruby. The speed of light in a vacuum is 3 × 10⁸ m/s. [2]
Answer:
We know that,
Refractive index of ruby

Section – C

Question 6.
On heating blue coloured powder of copper (II) nitrate in a boiling tube, black copper oxide, O₂ and a brown gas X is formed. [3]
(a) Identify the type of reaction and gas X.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction.
(c) Write the pH range of aqueous solution of the gas X.
Answer:
(a) Decomposition reaction
The gas X is Nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)

(c) Oxides of non-metals are acidic. Therefore the aqueous solution of this gas would be acidic.
The pH would be less than 7

Question 7.
(a) While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?
(b) Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not change the colour of dry litmus paper why?
OR
How is sodium hydroxide manufactured in industries? Name the process. In this process, a gas X is formed as a byproduct. This gas reacts with lime water to give a compound Y, which is used as a bleaching agent in the chemical industry. Identify X and Y and write the chemical equation of the reaction involved. [3]
Answer:
(a) The process of mixing concentrated acid with water is highly exothermic.
So, when a concentrated acid is added to water then heat is easily absorbed by a large amount of water. Thus it is recommended to add acid to water and not water to the acid.
(b) Dry hydrogen chloride does not contain any hydrogen ions in it, so it does not show acidic behaviour and thus does not change the colour of dry litmus paper.
OR
Sodium hydroxide is manufactured by the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of sodium chloride.

The process of manufacture of sodium hydroxide by electrolysis process is called the chloralkali process.
Gas X is chlorine gas and compound Y is calcium oxychloride (Bleaching powder)

Question 8.
What are amphoteric oxides? Give an example. Write balanced chemical equations to justify your answer. [3]
Answer:
Those oxides which behave both acidic and basic oxides are called amphoteric oxides.
Example: Al₂O₃ (Alumina)

Question 9.
What is a homologous series of carbon compounds ? Give an example and list its three characteristics. [3]
Answer:
A homologous series is a group of organic compounds having similar structures and similar chemical properties in which the successive compounds differ by CH₂ group.
Example: Alkanes with general formula C_nH_2n+2
Characteristics:

• All the members of a homologous series can be represented by the same general formula.
• Any two adjacent homologues differ by 1 carbon atom and 2 hydrogen atoms in their molecular formulae.
• The difference in the molecular masses of any two adjacent homologues is 14 u.

Question 10.
List in tabular form three distinguishing features between autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition. [3]
Answer:

Question 11.
What is transpiration? List its two functions.
OR
(a) What is translocation? Why is it essential for plants?
(b) Where do the substances in plants reach as a result of translocation? [3]
Answer:
The evaporation of water from the leaves of a plant is called transpiration.
Functions of transpiration
1. It helps in the upward movement of water and minerals from root to the leaves through the stem.
2. Helps in cooling the plant surface.
OR
(a) The transport of food from leaves to other parts of the plant is called translocation. Translocation is essential for plants because without it food prepared by the leaves cannot reach other parts of the plant for their growth and development.
(b) The substances in plants reach other tissues in plants from the leaves as a result of translocation.

Question 12.
What is carpel? Write the function of its various parts. [3]
Answer:
The flask-shaped organ in the centre of a flower is called carpel. It is also called a female reproductive organ of the plant.
It is made up of three parts:

1. 1. Stigma
2. 2. Style
3. 3. Ovary.

1. Stigma is the top part of carpel and is sticky. So, it receives the pollen from the anther of stamen.
2. Style connects stigma to ovary.
3. Ovary contains female gametes of the plant and helps in reproduction.

Question 13.
A student holding a mirror in his hand directed the reflecting surface of the mirror towards the Sun. He then directed the reflected light on to a sheet of paper held close to the mirror.
(a) What should he do to bum the paper?
(b) Which type of mirror does he have?
(c) Will he be able to determine the approximate value of the focal length of this mirror from this activity ? Give reason and draw ray diagram to justify your answer in this case.
OR
A 10 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 12 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 18 cm. Find the nature, position and size of the image formed. [3]
Answer:
(a) He should place the sheet of paper at the focus of the mirror to burn the paper.
(b) He has a concave mirror.
(c) Yes, the sheet of paper will start burning at the focus of the mirror which will give an approximate value of focal length, i.e., the distance between the mirror and the point where the sheet of paper starts burning.

A concave mirror forms a real image of the sun.
OR
Given: Height of object, h₁ = +10 cm.
Focal length, f = +12 cm.
Object distance, u = -18 cm.
From the lens formula,

The position of image formed is at distance of 36 cm from convex lens.
Since the value of the magnification is more than 1 (it is 2), the image formed is larger than object.
The minus sign of magnification shows that image is formed below the principal axis. Hence, the image formed is real and inverted.

Question 14.
What are solar cells? Explain the structure of solar panel. List two principal advantages associated with solar cells. [3]
Answer:
Solar cells are the devices which convert solar energy into electricity.
A simple solar cell is made up of a sandwich of a silicon-boron layer and a silicon-arsenic layer. Boron and arsenic are present in a very small amount. A piece of wire is soldered into the top of the upper layer of cell and another piece of wire is soldered at the bottom of the lower layer to pass on the current. The solar cell is covered with a glass cover for protection.
Advantages:

• Solar cells have no moving parts.
• It requires no maintenance.

Question 15.
Write the essential function performed by ozone at the higher levels of the Earth’s atmosphere ? How is it produced ? Name the synthetic chemicals mainly responsible for the drop of amount of ozone in the atmosphere. How can the use of these chemicals be reduced? [3]
Answer:
Ozone layer absorbs most of the harmful ultraviolet radiations from the sun to the earth. It is formed high up in the atmosphere by the action of ultraviolet radiation on oxygen gas. Chlorofluorocarbons are the synthetic chemicals responsible for the drop of amount of ozone in the atmosphere.
The use of these chemicals can be reduced by:

• Replacement of chlorofluorocarbons with hydrochlorofluorocarbons because it breaks down more quickly.
• Safe disposal of old appliances such as refrigerators and freezers.

Section – D

Question 16.
(a) List any three observations which posed a challenge to Mendeleev’s Periodic law.
(b) How does the metallic character of elements vary on moving from
(i) left to right in a period,
(ii) from top to bottom in a group of the Modem Periodic Table?
Give a reason for your answer.
OR
The electrons in the atoms of four elements A, B, C and D are distributed in three shells having 1, 3, 5 and 7, electrons respectively in their outermost shells. Write the group numbers in which these elements are placed in the Modem Periodic Table. Write the electronic configuration of the atoms of B and D, and the molecular formula of the compound formed when B and D combine. [5]
Answer:
(a) Three observations which posed a challenge to Mendeleev’s Periodic law are:

• The position of isotopes could not be explained.
• Wrong order of atomic masses of some elements could not be explained.
• A correct position could not be assigned to hydrogen in the periodic table.

(b) (i) On moving from left to right in a , period, the metallic character of elements decreases because electropositive character decreases.
(ii) Ongoing down in a group of the periodic table, the metallic character of elements increases because of electropostive character of elements increases.
OR
A – 1st group.
B – 13th group.
C – 15th group.
D – 17th group.
Electronic configuration
B → Atomic number = 13.
K L M
2 8 3
D → Atomic number = 17
K L M
2 8 7
The molecular formula of the compound when B and D combine is BD3.

Question 17.
(a) Why is the use of iodised salt advisable? Name the disease caused due to deficiency of iodine in our diet and state its one symptom.
(b) How do nerve impulses travel in the body? Explain.
OR
What is hydrotropism? Design an experiment to demonstrate this phenomenon. [5]
Answer:
(a) Iodised salt is advisable because iodine is necessary for the formation of thyroxine hormone by thyroid gland. Goitre is the disease caused due to its deficiency.
Symptom: The neck of the person appears to be swollen due to the enlargement of thyroid gland.
(b) Two neurons are not joined to one another completely. There is a small gap between a pair of neuron. This gap is called synapse. The nerve impulse are carried out to this gap by the help of neurotransmitter (chemical substance). The conduction of nerve impulse through the synapse takes place in the form of electrical nerve impulse. When a stimulus acts on the receptor, an electrical impulse is produced with the help of chemical reaction. This electrical impulse passes through the synapse and then to the other neuron. Thus, in this way nerve impulses travel in the body.
OR
The movement of root of plants towards water is called hydrotropism.
Take two glass troughs A and B fill each one of them two-thirds with soil. In trough A plant a tiny seedling figure (a). In trough B plant a similar seedling and also place a small ‘clay pot’ inside the soil figure (b). Water the soil in trough A daily and uniformly. Do not water the soil in trough B but put some water in the clay pot buried in the soil. Leave both the troughs for a few days.

Now, dig up the seedlings carefully from both the trough without damaging their roots. We will find that the root of seedling in trough A is straight. On the other hand, the root of seedling in trough B is found to be bent to the right side (towards the clay pot containing water) figure (b). This can be explained as follows.
In trough A, the root of seedling gets water from both sides (because the soil is watered uniformly) in trough B, the roots gets water oozing out from the clay pot which is kept on the right side. So, the root of seedling in trough B grows and bends towards the source of water to the right side. The experiment shows that the root of a plant grows towards water. In other words, the root of a plant is positively hydrotropic.

Question 18.
(a) What are homologous structures ? Give an example.
(b) “The sex of a new born child is a matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered responsible for it.” justify this statement with the help of a flow chart showing sex-determination in human beings. [5]
Answer:
(a) The structures which have the same basic design but different functions are called homologous structures or homologous organs.
Example: Forelimbs of a man, a lizard, a frog they have same basic design of bones but perform different functions.
(b) The sex of a newborn depends on what happens at the time of fertilization.
1. If a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilizes the ovum carrying X chromosome, then the girl child will be born and the child will have XX combination of sex chromosomes.
2. If a sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilizes the ovum carrying X chromosome, then the child born will be a boy and the child will have XY combination of sex chromosome.

The above presentation clearly shows that it is matter of chance whether the newborn will be boy or girl and none of the parents may be considered responsible for it.

Question 19.
When do we consider a person to be myopic or hypermetropic ? List two causes of – hypermetropia. Explain using ray diagrams how the defect associated with hypermetropic eye can be corrected. [5]
Answer:
Myopia is the defect in vision in which a person cannot see the distant objects clearly whereas in hypermetropia is the defect in which a person cannot see nearby objects clearly. Hypermetropia is caused due to:
1. Decrease in converging power of eye-lens.
2. Too short eye ball.
In a hypermetropic eye, the image of near by object lying at normal near point N (at 25 cm) is formed behind the retina.

Hypermetropic eye can be corrected using convex lenses. When a convex lens of suitable power is placed in front of hypermetropic eye, then the diverging rays of light from the object are converged first by the convex lens used. This form a virtual image of the object at another near point N’.
Now, the rays can be easily focused by the eye lens to form an image on retina.

Question 20.
(a) How will you infer with the help of an experiment that the same current flows through every part of a circuit containing three resistors in series connected to a battery?
(b) Consider the given circuit and find the current flowing in the circuit and potential difference across the 15 Ω resistor when the circuit is closed. [5]

OR
(a) Three resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ are connected in parallel and the combination is connected to a battery, ammeter, voltmeter and key. Draw suitable circuit diagram and obtain an expression for the equivalent resistance of the combination of the resistors.
(b) Calculate the equivalent resistance of the following network:

Answer:
(a) Let three resistors R₁, R₂ and R₃ are connected in series which are also connected with a battery, an ammeter and a key as shown in figure.

When key is closed, the current starts flowing through the circuit. Take the reading of ammeter. Now change the position of ammeter to anywhere in between the resistors and take its reading. We will observe that in both the cases reading of ammeter will be same showing same current flows through every part of the circuit above.
(b) Given,
R₁ = 5 Ω, R₂ = 10 Ω, R₃ = 15 Ω, V = 30 V
Total resistance, R = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ [∵ 5 Ω, 10 Ω and 15 Ω are connected in series]
= 5 + 10 + 15
= 30 Ω
Potential difference, V = 30 V
Current in the circuit, I = ?
From Ohm’s law.
I = = = 1 A
Current flowing in the circut = 1 A
Potential difference across 15 Ω resistors = IR3 = 1 × 15 = 15 V
OR
(a) Let R1, R2 and R3 are three resistance connected in parallel to one another and R is the equivalent resistance of the circuit. A battery of V volts has been applied across the ends of this combination. When the switch of the key is closed, current I flows in the circuit such that,



10 Ω and 10 Ω are connected in series.
Equivalent resistance of the circuit = 10 Ω + 10 Ω = 20 Ω

Question 21.
Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines produced around a current-carrying straight conductor passing perpendicularly through a horizontal cardboard. State and apply the right-hand thumb rule to mark the direction of the field lines. How will the strength of the magnetic field change when the point where magnetic field is to be determined is moved away from the straight conductor ? Give reason to justify your answer. [5]
Answer:
Maxwell’s Right Hand Thumb rule states that if current-carrying wire is imagined to be held in the right hand so that thumb points in the direction of current, then the direction in which fingers encircle the wire will give the direction of magnetic field lines around the wire. If we hold the current-carrying straight wire so that thumbs Magnetic field pattern due to a straight current-carrying wire in upward direction points the direction of current, the direction of magnetic field lines will be anticlockwise. The strength of the magnetic field is inversely proportional to the distance of the point of observation from the wire. So, as we move away from the wire the strength of magnetic decreases.

Section – E

Question 22.
A teacher provided acetic acid, water, lemon juice, aqueous solution of sodium hydrogen carbonate and sodium hydroxide to students in the school laboratory to determine the pH values of these substances using pH papers. One of the students reported the pH values of the given substances as 3, 12, 4, 8 and 14 respectively. Which one of these values is not correct ? Write its correct value stating the reason.
OR
What would a student report nearly after 30 minutes of placing duly cleaned strips of aluminium, copper, iron and zinc in freshly prepared iron sulphate solution taken in four beakers? [2]
Answer:
The value of pH for water is not correct. The correct value of pH of water is 7 because it has almost equal concentration of H+ and OH- due to which it is neutral.
OR
Aluminium displaces the iron from iron sulphate and the colour of two solution changes from green to brown.
No change takes place when copper strip is dipped in iron sulphate solution.
No cfiange will be observed when iron strips are dipped in iron sulphate solution.
The colour of the solution changes from green to colourless when zinc is added to iron sulphate solution.

Question 23.
What is observed when a pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to 2 mL of acetic acid taken in a test tube ? Write chemical equation for the reaction involved in this case. [2]
Answer:
CO2 gas is evolved with brisk effervescence when sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to acetic acid.

Question 24.
List in proper sequence four steps of obtaining germinating dicot seeds.
OR
After examining a prepared slide under the high power of a compound microscope, a student concludes that the given slide shows the various stages of binary fission in a unicellular organism. Write two observations on the basis of which such a conclusion may be drawn. [2]
Answer:
1. The root is formed when radicle of seed grows.
2. The root grows downward into the soil and absorbs water and minerals from the soil.
3. The shoot is formed from the upward growth of plumule.
4. The green leaves are developed when shoot comes above the ground.
OR
1. A single parent divides to form two daughter cells.
2. The nucleus of mature cell seems elongated and a grove is formed in cell which divides the nucleus.

Question 25.
List four precautions which a student should observe while preparing a temporary mount of a leaf peel to show stomata in his school laboratory. [2]
Answer:
1. Freshly plucked leaf should be taken for epidermal peel.
2. Hold the slide by its edges.
3. Peel should be cut to a proper size.
4. The peel should be allowed to dry.

Question 26.
Draw the path of a ray of light when it enters one of the faces of a glass slab at an angle of nearly 45°. Label on it
(i) angle of refraction
(ii) angle of emergence and
(iii) lateral displacement.
OR
A student traces the path of a ray of light through a glass prism as shown in the diagram, but leaves it incomplete and unlabelled. Redraw and complete the diagram. Also label on it ∠i, ∠e, ∠r, and LD. [2]

Answer:

Question 27.
The current flowing through a resistor connected in a circuit and the potential difference developed across its ends are as shown in the diagram by milliammeter and voltmeter readings respectively: [2]
(a) What are the least counts of these meters?
(b) What is the resistance of the resistor?

Answer:
(a) 10 mA and 0.1 V
(b) V = 2.4 volt, I = 250 mA = 0.25 A
From Ohm’s law.
R = = = 9.6 Ω

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2019 Outside Delhi Set II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Section – A

Question 1.
Write two advantages associated with water harvesting at the community level. [1]
Answer:
1. Exploitation of water resources will be reduced.
2. It helps to recharge natural wells.

Question 2.
Should the resistance of a voltmeter be low or high? Give reason. [1]
Answer:
The resistance of a voltmeter should be high, because voltmeter is connected parallel to the component of a circuit and it also takes negligible current from the circuit in order to measure the potential difference accurately.

Section – B

Question 3.
Draw electron dot structure of carbon dioxide and write the nature of bonding between carbon and oxygen in its molecule.
OR
List two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon compounds we see around us, giving reason for each. [2]
Answer:

Covalent bond (double bond) is present in between C and O.
OR
Two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon compounds are :
1. Catenation: It is the ability of carbon to form bonds with other atoms of carbon.
2. Tetravalency: With the valency of four, carbon is capable of bonding with 4 other atoms. This forms huge number of compounds.

Question 4.
Give reason:
(a) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction.
(b) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal; still it is widely used in making cooking utensils. [2]
Answer:
(a) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction because obtaining a metal from its metal oxide is much easier than from metal carbonates and sulphides.
(b) Aluminium is highly reactive metal still it is widely used in making cooking utensils because it reacts with 02 present in air to from aluminium oxide that forms a protective layer and protects the metal from corrosion.

Question 5.
The power of a lens in +5 diopters. What is the nature and focal length of this lens ? At what distance from this lens should an object be placed so as to get its inverted image of the same size? [2]
Answer:
Given, P = + 5D
We have,
Power, P =
+5 =
f = m = = 20 cm
Focal length, f = 20 cm (or +20 cm).
Since, focal length of the lens is positive. Therefore, the nature of lens is convex.
Same size and inverted image is formed when
Magnification, m = -1
Also, m =
v = -u
From the lens formula,

Section – C

Question 6.
List two types of the transport system in human beings and write the functions of any one of these. [3]
Answer:
Lymphatic system and blood circulatory system are two types of the transport system in human beings.
Functions of blood circulatory system:
1. It carries nutrients and oxygen to all cells in the body.
2. Removes C02 from the body cells.
3. It carries digested food from the small intestine to other parts of the body.
4. It carries hormones from endocrine glands to different organs fo the body.

Question 7.
Distinguish between pollination and fertilisation. Mention the site and the product of fertilisation in a flower. [3]
Answer:
1. The transfer of pollen grains from anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel is called pollination whereas fertilisation is the process when the male gamete present in pollen grain joins the female gamete present in ovule.
2. Pollination is an external mechanism whereas fertilisation is an internal mechanism which takes place inside the flower.
Site of fertilisation in flower is ovary. Product of fertilisation in flower is zygote.

Question 10.
List three environmental consequences of using fossil fuels. Suggest three steps to minimise the pollution caused, by various energy sources. [3]
Answer:
The combustion of fossil fuels releases different harmful products. Three environmental consequences of using fossil fuels are:
1. It releases CO2 which is a greenhouse gas which traps the solar energy falling on earth and it leads to global warming.
2. Carbon monoxide is poisonous gas which when enters in the blood stream stops the functioning of red blood cells to carrying oxygen from lungs to other parts of the body. It also causes death.
3. Sulphur dioxide released during the burning of fossil fuels is harmful for lungs and causes bronchitis and other diseases.
Steps to minimise the pollution caused by various energy sources are:
1. Solar cookers should be used to cook food wherever possible.
2. Use of Biogas as domestic fuel should be encouraged in rural areas.
3. Three R’s strategy-Reduce, Reuse and Recycle should be practiced.

Question 14.
Which compounds are called (i) alkanes, (ii) alkenes and (iii) alkynes ? C4H10 belongs to which of these ? Draw two structural isomers of this compound. [3]
Answer:
(i) The hydrocarbons in which carbon atoms are connected by only single covalent bonds are called alkanes.
(ii) The hydrocarbons in which carbon atoms are connected by double bond are called alkene.
(iii) The hydrocarbons in which carbon atoms are connected by triple bond are called alkynes.
C4H10 belongs to alkane

Section – D

Question 16.
(a) What are dominant and recessive traits?
(b) “Is it possible that a trait is inherited but may not be expressed in the next generation ?” Give a suitable example to justify this statement. [5]
Answer:
(a) The trait which can express its effect over contrasting trait is called dominant trait whereas the trait which cannot express its effect over contrasting trait or which gets suppressed by the contrasting trait is called recessive trait. The inherited trait which is not expressed will be a recessive trait.
(b) In Mendel’s experiment, when pure tall pea plants were crossed with pure dwarf pea plants, only tall pea plants were obtained in F1 generation. On selfing the pea plants of F1 generation both tall and dwarf pea plants were obtained in F2 generation. Reappearance of the dwarf pea plants in F2 generation proves that the dwarf trait was inherited but not expressed in F1 generation. The recessive trait does not express itself in the presence of the dominant trait. So, it is possible that one trait may be inherited but may not be expressed in an organism.

Question 20.
(a) What is scattering of light ? Explain how the colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles.
(b) Explain the reddish appearance of the Sun at sunrise or sunset. Why does it not appear red at noon? [5]
Answer:
(a) Scattering of light is the phenomenon in which a part of the incident light is dispersed in different directions.
Dependence of colour and scattered light on the size of particles:
1. When the particles like dust and water droplets present in the atmosphere are large in size, the scattered light appears white.
2. When the particles are extremely minute in size, they will scatter blue light present in the white sunlight.
(b) The reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise ‘ and sunset is due to the scattering of blue colour present in the sunlight away from our line of sight and leaves behind mainly red colour of the direct sunlight which reaches human eye.
The reason for Sun not appearing red at the noon is that the light has to travel a relatively shorter distance through the atmosphere to reach us and therefore, only a litte of blue colour of the white light is scattered.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science 2019 Outside Delhi Set III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Section – A

Question 1.
Why does the cord of an electric oven not glow while its heating element does ? [1]
Answer:
The resistance of heating element of an electric oven is very high. As the current flows through the heating element it becomes too hot and glows red. On the other hand cord of an electric oven low resistance hence it does not become red during the flow of current.

Question 2.
Although coal and petroleum are produced by the degradation of biomass, yet we need to conserve these resources. Why? [1]
Answer:
We need to conserve coal and petroleum because they are formed in millions of years and are non-renewable also and their rate of consumption is very high. So these are limited and cannot last for longer time.

Section – B

Question 3.
What is atmospheric refraction ? List two phenomena which can be explained on the basis of atmospheric refraction. [2]
Answer:
In atmosphere, there are layers of different densities and refractive indices, when light ray is passed through these layers refraction of light takes place which is called atmospheric refraction.
Two phenomenon that can be explained on the basis of atmospheric refraction are:
1. Twinkling of stars.
2. Early sunset and delayed sunrise.

Question 4.
Name a metal of medium reactivity and write three main steps in the extraction of this metal from its sulphide ore. [2]
Answer:
Zinc
The steps inolved in extraction of zinc from zinc sulphide are:
1. Roasting of sulphide ore in the presence of air to convert it into metal oxide.

2. Reduction of metal oxide with carbon to get the free metal.

3. Refining of impure metal to get pure metal.

Question 5.
List two chemical properties on the basis of which ethanol and ethanoic acid may be differentiated and explain how.
OR
Unsaturated hydrocarbons contain multiple bonds between two carbon atoms and these compounds show addition reactions. Out of saturated and unsaturated carbon compounds, which compounds are more reactive ? Write a test to distinguish ethane from ethene. [2]
Answer:
1. Ethanol does not react with sodium bicarbonate but ethanoic acid reacts with sodium bicarbonate releasing CO2 gas.
2. Ethanol does not change the colour of blue litmus paper but ethanoic acid changes the colour of blue litmus to red due to presence of carboxylic acid group.
OR
Unsaturated carbon compounds are more reactive than saturated carbon compounds. Bromine water is decolourized by ethene but there is no change of colour of bromine water with ethane.

Section – C

Question 6.
What happens to a beam of white light when it gets refracted through glass prism ? Which colour deviates the most and the least after refraction through a prism ? What is likely to happen if a second identical prism is placed in an inverted position with respect to the first prism. Justify your answer.
OR
A student needs spectacles of power -0.5 D for the correction of his vision. [3]
(i) Name the defect in vision the student is suffering from.
(ii) Find the nature and focal length of the corrective lens.
(iii) List two causes of this defect.
Answer:
When white light is refracted through a glass prism, it gets split into its constituting colours at different angles. This phenomenon is called Dispersion of Light.
Forming a rainbow,

Least deviated colour is red whereas most deviated colour is violet.
When second identical prism is placed in an inverted position with respect to first prism, recombination of the spectrum will take place and white light will be obtained.
OR
(i) Myopia.
(ii) Concave lens with the focal length of 200 cm
Given, P = -0.5 D
We have,
P = m
f = =
f = -2 m = -200 cm
(iii) Two causes of Myopia are:
1. Elongation of eye ball.
2. High converging power of eye less.

Question 7.
Define a food chain. Design a terrestrial food chain of four trophic levels. If a pollutant enters at the producer level, the organisms of which trophic level will have the maximum concentration of the pollutant in their bodies ? What is this phenomenon called? [3]
Answer:
It is the sequence of arrangement of living organism in a community in which one organism consumes another organism to transfer food energy.

Grass → Insect → Frog → Bird
The organism at higher tropic level will have the maximum concentration of pollutants. This phenomenon is called biological magnification.

Question 9.
During the reaction of some metals with dilute hydrochloric acid, the following observations were made by a student:
(a) Silver does not show any change.
(b) Some bubbles of a gas are seen when lead is reacted with the acid.
(c) The reaction of sodium is found to be highly explosive.
(d) The temperature of the reaction mixture rises when aluminium is added to the acid.
Explain these observations giving appropriate reason. [3]
Answer:
(a) Silver is covered with a thin layer of silver chloride, so it does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid.

(b) Bubbles of hydrogen gas are evolved when lead is reacted with the acid.

(c) The reaction of sodium is found to be highly explosive because sodium is very reactive in nature.

(d) The temperature of the reaction mixture rises when aluminium is added to the acid because the reaction is highly exothermic in nature.

Question 10.
Given below are the steps for the extraction of copper from its ore. Write the chemical equation of the reactions involved in each case. [3]
(i) Roasting of copper (I) sulphide.
(ii) Reduction of copper (I) oxide from copper (I) sulphide
(iii) Electrolytic refining.
Answer:

Question 15.
(a) Budding, fragmentation and regeneration, all are considered as asexual mode of reproduction. Why?
(b) With the help of neat diagrams, explain the process of regeneration in Planaria. [3]
Answer:
(a) Budding, fragmentation and regeneration are considered as asexual mode of reproduction because only one parent is involved no sex cells are involved.
(b) Regeneration in planaria.

The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called regeneration. Planaria reproduces by this method in which if the body of Planaria somehow gets cut into a number of pieces, then each body piece can regenerate into a complete Planaria by growing all the missing parts.

Section – D

Question 16.
A 6 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 30 cm. The distance of the object from the mirror is 45 cm. Use mirror formula to determine the position, nature and size of the image formed. Also draw labelled ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
OR
An object 6 cm in size is placed at 50 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. At what distance from the lens should a screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp image of the object ? Find the nature and size of the image. Also draw labelled ray diagram to show the image formation in this case. [5]
Answer:
Given, Height of the object = 6 cm
Focal length, f = -30 cm
Object distance, u = -45 cm
Image distance, v = ?
Height of image, hi = ?
We have,
= +




Hence, image formed is virtual, erect and magnified.

Question 20.
What is sexual reproduction ? Explain how this mode of reproduction gives rise to more viable variations that asexual reproduction. How does this affect the evolution? [5]
Answer:
The production of new organisms from two parents by making use of their sex cells is called sexual reproduction.
In sexual reproduction more viable variations are observed than asexual reproduction as two parent are involved. In case of asexual reproduction single parent organism gives rise to offsprings which are genetically identical to their parents. This limits the scope of variation in characters of off springs. Due to sexual reproduction the extent of variation is much large and therefore choices of evolution is also high. The variations in the characters of the obtained offsprings from sexual reproduction enable them to adopt according to the environment and struggle for their existence.
Over a period of time the characters accumlate within the species and the formed species gives rise to new species and this process goes on.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set I

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 80

SECTION A
(READING) 20

Question 1.
Read the passage given below : [8]
Then all the windows of the grey wooden house (Miss Hilton used to live here. She expired last week), were thrown open, a thing I had never seen before.
At the end of the day a sign was nailed on the mango tree : FOR SALE.
Nobody in the street knew Miss Hilton. While she lived, her front gate was always locked and no one ever saw her leave or saw anybody go in. So, even if you wanted to, you couldn’t feel sorry and say that you missed Miss Hilton.
When I think of her house I see just two colours. Grey and green. The green of the mango tree, the grey of the house and the grey of the high iron fence that prevented you from getting at the mangoes.
If your cricket ball fell in Miss Hilton’s courtyard you never got it back. It wasn’t the mango season when Miss Hilton died. But we got back about ten or twelve of our cricket balls.
The house was sold and we were prepared to dislike the new owners even before they came. I think we were a little worried. Already we had one resident of the street who kept on complaining about us to our parents. He complained that we played cricket on the pavement; and if we were not playing cricket, he complained that we were making too much noise anyway.

One afternoon when I came back from school Pal said, “Is a man and a woman. She pretty pretty, but he ugly like hell.” I didn’t see much. The front gate was open, but the windows were shut again. I heard a dog barking in an angry way.

One thing was settled pretty quickly. Whoever these people were they would never be the sort of people to complain that we were making noise and disturbing their sleep.

A lot of noise came from the house that night. The radio was going at full volume until midnight when the radio station closed down. The dog was barking and the man was shouting. I didn’t hear the woman.

On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, complete the statements that follow: [1×8 = 8]
(a) Nobody went into Miss Hilton’s house because her front ____.
(b) Her house had only two colours, (i) ___ , and (ii) ___.
(c) The high iron fence did not let the boys get ____.
(d) They never got it back if their ___ fell into her courtyard.
(e) The boys were already to dislike the ___ .
(f) One resident of the street always ___.
(g) The new owners of Miss Hilton’s house were (i) ___, and (ii) ___.
(h) The man was shouting, the dog was barking, only ___.
Answer:
(a) gate was always locked
(b) (i) grey (ii) green
(c) at the mangoes
(d) cricket ball
(e) new owners even before they came
(f) kept on complaining about us to our parents
(g) (i) a man (ii) a woman
(h) the woman was not heard/the woman was quiet.

Question 2.
Read the passage given below: [12]
During our growing up years we as children were taught—both at home and school — to worship the photos and idols of the Gods of our respective religions. When we grew a little older, we were to read holy books like the Bhagwad Gita, Bible and Quran; we were told that there are a lot of life lessons to be learnt from these holy books. We were then introduced to stories from our mythologies which taught us about ethics and morality— what is good and what is bad. I also learnt to be respectful towards my parents who made my life comfortable with their hard work, love and care, and my teachers who guided me to become a good student and a responsible citizen.
Much later in life, I realised that though we learn much from our respective holy books, there is a lot to learn from our surroundings. This realisation dawned upon me when I learnt to enquire and explore. Everything around us — the sun, the moon, the stars,
rain, rivers, stones, rocks, birds, plants and animals — teach us many valuable life lessons.

No wonder that besides the scriptures, in many cultures nature is also worshipped. The message that we get is to save our environment and maintain ecological balance. People are taught to live in harmony with nature and recognise that there is God in all aspects of nature.

Nature is a great teacher. A river never stops flowing. If it find an obstacle in its way in the form of a heavy rock, the river water fights to remove it from its path or finds an alternative path to move ahead. This teaches us to be progressive in life, and keep the fighting spirit alive.

Snakes are worshipped as they eat insects in the field that can hurt our crops, thus protecting the grains for us. In fact, whatever we worship is our helper and makes our lives easy for us. There are many such examples in nature, but we are not ready to learn a lesson.

Overcome with greed, we are destroying nature. As a result, we face natural disasters like droughts, floods and landslides. We don’t know that nature is angry with us. However, it is never too late to learn. If we learn to respect nature, the quality of our life will improve.

Question 2.1.
Answer briefly the following questions : [2 × 4 = 8]
(a) What are we taught in our childhood and growing up years?
(b) Why should we respect our parents and teachers?
(c) What message do we get when we worship nature?
(d) How does a river face an obstacle that comes in its way?

Question 2.2.
Give the meanings of the words given below, as used in the passage, with the help of the options that follow: [1 × 4 = 4]
(e) guided (Para 1)
(i) answered
(ii) advised
(iii) fough
(iv) polished
(f) explore (Para 2)
(i) search
(ii) frequent
(iii) describe
(iv) request
(g) valuable (Para 2)
(i) proper
(ii) desirable
(iii) available
(h) harmony (Para 3)
(i) beauty
(ii) friendship
(iii) discomfort
Answer:
(a) In our childhood or growing up years we are taught to worship the photos and idols of the Gods of our respective religions and read our holy books like the Bhagwad Gita, Bible and Quran.
(b) We should respect our parents becuase they make our lives comfortable with their hard work, love and care. We should respect our teachers because they guide us to become good students and responsible citizens.
(c) When we worship nature, we get the message to save our environment and maintain ecological balance.
(d) When an obstacle comes in the way of a river, if fights to remove it from its path or finds an alternative path to move ahead.
(e) (ii) advised
(f) (i) search
(g) (iv) useful
(h) (ii) friendship

SECTION – B
(WRITING SKILLS WITH GRAMMAR) 25

Question 3.
The road that leads to your market is broken and full of potholes. Mosquitoes and flies breed there. Write a letter in 100 -120 words to the editor of a local newspaper drawing attention of the concerned authorities to get the road reparied. You are P.V. Prabhu/ Prabha, 112, Aram Nagar, Delhi. [5 × 1 = 5]
OR
Write an article in 100 – 120 words on the topic ‘A library is good for all — the old and young’. You are P.V. Prabhu/Prabha. Use the following clues:
• best place in the school
• reference books, help books, newspapers, etc.
• don’t have to buy expensive ones
• books to relax — novels, plays, etc.
• books — treasure of knowledge
• spend leisure hours
Answer:
112, Aram Nagar
Delhi
26^th Aug, 20XX
The Editor The Navjiwan Times Delhi
Sub — Repair of the road
Sir,
Through the columns of your esteemed newspaper I want to draw the attention of the concerned authorities to the pitiable condition of the road leading to the market area in our city. The road is broken and is full of potholes causing problems for the residents of the area. As monsoon has set in, water accumulates in puddles. Water is definitely as panacea for us but the stagnant water multiplies our problems. It becomes the safest place for breeding mosquitoes and flies. Flies sit over food items and leave their dangerous bacteria which in turn, cause trouble to our health. There are many rough stones in the road that cause burst in tyres and tubes due to which, the vehicles lose balance on the shattered road and cause accidents.
Hence, it is in the best interest of everyone that the road is immediately repaired so that the water accumulation stops. I hope the concerned authorities will take immediate action and remove the hurdles.
Yours sincerely
P.V. Prabhu/Prabha
OR
A LIBRARY IS GOOD FOR ALL
By P.V. Prabhu/Prabha
Library is the best place in the school. It is a place where books are kept, issued and collected. It is a treasure of knowledge. A public library, besides being a library, has a reading room and a hall for meetings or other activities.

It is a place where books on any subject or any topic are available so people don’t have to buy expensive ones when they want to do a research or so. There sits infinite knowledge in the library as there are books written by the most experienced minds.

The purpose of a library is to create love for books and reading habits among the people. Books are the best and the most faithful friends that a reader could have. Thus, library is a very useful place where people can spend their leisure time constructively. It relaxes people and also enriches their knowledge. Thus, library provides a platform for reading which is the only enjoyment that lasts while all other pleasures fade away.

Question 4.
Write a story in 150 – 200 words based on the following outline : [10 × 1 = 10]
A stag, thirsty — a pool of clear water — reflection — saw his horns — proud of them — his thin legs — ashamed — hunter’s dogs
— ran — horns caught in a tree — dogs very near — pulled his horn free — ran for his life — legs saved him.
OR
Complete the story in 150 – 200 words which begins as the following:
It was my fifteenth birthday. My parents were very happy. Some of my class-fellows had agreed to come ……
Answer:
A THIRSTY STAG
Once there was a stag. He was thirsty. To quench his thirst, he went to a pool of clear water. The water in the pool was so clear that he could see his reflection in the water. He got fascinated by his own beauty. Seeing his horns, he felt very proud but he had very thin legs and was ashamed of them. While he was enjoying, he saw the hunter’s dogs coming towards him. He ran from there to save his life. He was running through the bushes and trees. His horns got entangled in the bushes and he could not run. The dogs came nearer, endangering his life. Somehow, he pulled his horns and ran again to save his life. He ran as fast as he could and was able to escape the dogs. When he realised that he was safe from the dogs, he heaved a sigh of relief. Then the truth dawned on him. His horns which he was so proud of, had put his life in danger whereas his thin legs which he was so ashamed of, had saved his life. So appearances are often deceptive.
OR
It was my fifteenth birthday. My parents were very happy. Some of my class-fellows had agreed to come to my birthday party. My parents had made a lot of arrangements. They had decorated my room with balloons. In the evening, many guests started coming. They were all dressed in their best. I never know that they had planned it at such a big level. After a while, my friends too started pouring in with attractive gifts. I was very excited. The cake was of my favourite flavour. I cut the cake in the midst of clappings, cheers and wishes. Everyone wished me and gave me the gifts.

After having cake, we had tasty snacks and soft drinks. My friends enjoyed the snacks a lot. We played interesting games like passing the parcel and musical chair. When we all were playing, my mother came and asked us to take the dinner. It was a fun-filled day.

Question 5.
Complete the paragraph given below by filling in the blanks with the help of the options that follow: [1 × 3 = 3]
Very few people (a) ___ loneliness. It seems to me that most people (b) ___ scared of (c) ___left on their own.
(a)
(i) enjoy
(ii) enjoys
(iii) enjoyed
(iv) enjoying
(b)
(i) is
(ii) am
(iii) are
(iv) was
(c)
(i) be
(ii) being
(iii) been
(iv) having
Answer:
(a)
(i) enjoy
(b)
(i) are
(c)
(ii) being

Question 6.
The following paragraph has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the error and its correction as shown in the example.
[1 × 4 = 4]

Answer:

Question 7.
Rearrange the following words and phrases to form meaningful sentences: [1 × 3 = 3]
(a) accept / his pupil/ Swami / Sethu as / did not/
(b) only 14 / very / years old / he was / young /
(c) heart / not / but / did / lose / Sethu/
Answer:
(a) Swami did not accept Sethu as his pupil.
(b) He was very young only 14 year old.
(c) But Sethu did not lose heart.

SECTION C

(LITERATURE: TEXTBOOKS AND LONG READING TEXT) 20

Question 8.
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: [1 × 3 = 3]
“Never shall a young man,
Thrown into despair
By those great honey-coloured Ramparts at your ear,
Love you for yourself alone
And not your yellow hair.”
(a) Whom are these lines addressed to?
(b) What would a young man throw into despair?
(c) What does the word, ‘ramparts’ here mean?
OR
“Why, you’re in evening dress! Well, I never ! Are you going to a ball or what? Though I must say you look better ”
(a) Who is speaking and to whom?
(b) Why is the person spoken to about an evening dress?
(c) What does the word, ‘ball’ mean here?
Answer:
(a) These lines are addressed to the young lady Anne Gregory, the speaker’s lady love,
(b) Honey coloured hair would throw a young man into despair.
(c) In this context ‘ramparts’ has been metaphorically used to mean curly locks of hair around her ear.
OR
(a) Natalya is speaking to Lomov.
(b) Lomov, dressed in an evening dress had come there to propose to Natalya.
(c) The word ‘ball’ here refers to a formal dance party.

Question 9.
Answer the following question in 30 – 40 words each. [2 × 4 = 8]
(a) What do we learn about the financial condition of the bakers of Goa?
(b) In the poem ‘Trees’, where are the trees? What are their roots, twigs, etc trying to do?
(c) Which book did Ebright’s mother get for him? How did it change his life?
(d) How did M. Loisel try to make his wife happy?
Answer:
(a) The bakers of Goa led a prosperous life. Baking was a profitable profession in the old days as bakers never starved. The families and servants of these bakers always looked happy and prosperous. Their plum physique is an open testimony of their prosperity.
(b) In the poem ‘Trees’, the trees are inside the house. The roots work to disengage themselves from the cracks in the veranda floor. When the tree grows, it’s leaves strain towards the glass. The small twigs and boughs try to move to the doors while growing.
(c) Ebright’s mother got him a children’s book titled ‘The Travels of Monarch X’. The book described how Monarch butterflies migrate to Central America. This opened the world of science to yound and enthused collector, Ebright.
(d) M. Loisel had saved four hundred francs to buy a gun to join some hunting parties the next summer. The gun was to be used when he and his friends went to school larks. However, he tried to make his wife happy by offering her the saved four hundred francs to buy a suitable costume.

Question 10.
Answer the following question in 80 – 100 words: [1 × 4 = 4]
Once we decide to achieve something, so many difficulties come in our way. With focused attention we can make that achievement. How did Valli succeed in fulfilling her desire of riding a bus?
OR
School education turned Bholi from a dumb cow into a bold girl. How did she save her father from a huge expense and become his support in his old age?
Answer:
Eight-year-old Valli’s desire was to take a ride on the bus that travelled between her village and the nearest town. Her desire was so strong that it made herd-overcome her fears prompting her to plan her trip meticulously. She collected all the details of the journey and saved every coin that came her way. She maintained her self-respect so much that she does not even get tempted to go for shopping. After taking all the precautions to ensure that she has a safe journey, she fulfilled her dream of riding in a bus. Despite her young age, she returned back home safely. Valli taught us that once we decide to achieve something, many difficulties may come our » way but with courage and confidence, we can accomplish the task.
OR
Bholi, despite her name, slowly gained her confidence through her teacher. With the help of her teacher, she got a good education.

She understood how society works and was brave enough to stand up against the evns present in society. She saved her father from huge expenses and became his support in his old age by refusing to marry Bishamber who was an old, lame man. She refused to pay the dowry of five thousand. She stood up with courage and acted boldly despite knowing that she may not get married. Bholi decided to serve her parents in their old age and serve in the same school in which she studied.

Question 11.
Answer the following question in 150 – 200 words : [1 × 10 = 10]
How did Helen Keller get out of the traumatic experience of ‘Frost King’?
OR
What do you know about Mr. Keith as Helen Keller’s teacher?**
OR
How is Anne more mature than Peter? Describe her feelings for him.**
OR
Anne’s diary is as improtant for Anne as any other character in the annexe. What is your opinion?**

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set II

Note : All questions except the following questions have been already asked in the previous sets.
SECTION – B
(WRITING SKILLS WITH GRAMMAR) 25

Question 4.
Write a story in 150 – 200 words with the help of the following outline: [1 × 10 = 10]
Ram — poor parents — helped his father in the field — less time to study — teacher scolded — won’t pass — took it to heart — studied at night — came first in the class — teacher congratulated.
OR
Complete the story in 150 – 200 words which begins as the following:
Anita lives in a village. Everyday she goes to school on foot. On the way there is a river. There is a bridge across the river. One day when she
HARD WORK LEADS TO SUCCESS
Answer:
There was a boy who was very poor. His father was a farmer who used to go to the fields in the morning. He had three children. Ram was the eldest of them all. Ram was quite a sincere boy. His father used to work hard but didn’t make much to feed his family. Hence, Ram also went with him to the fields to help him. Since he worked there in day time after school, he used to get tired. He didn’t get time to study. His performance in the school was affected. Even his teacher was very upset to see his deteriorating performance. He scolded Ram for not studying well. He warned him if he did not work the exams. Ram being a sincere boy, took it to his heart. He resolved to show that he was capable of doing better. He burnt the midnight oil and studied hard. He got so focussed that he stopped playing with his friends. As his exams came nearer, his determination to outshine others became stronger. He did very well in his exams. When the result was announced, everybody was suprised to know that he stood first in the class. His teacher was also thrilled. He congratulated him on his success. Ram proved that a person can achieve anything he wants with hard work and determination.
OR
PEACE LEADS TO JOY
Anita lives in a village. Everyday she goes to school on foot. On the way there is a river. There is a bridge across the river. One day when she reached the river, she saw a black goat climbing the bridge from the one side. The bridge was narrow and only one animal or person could cross it at a time. Then she saw a brown goat too climbing from the other side. She waited there to let them pass first. When the goats met in the middle of the bridge, they stood facing each other. First, they snarled at each other to get out of the way? But then realising that none could move aside as the bridge was very narrow, they both acted sensibly. They stood there for a while. Then one of them sat down. It allowed the other goat to step over its body and go ahead. Then it stood up and went on its way. Thus, both of them crossed the bridge safely. Seeing this, Anita was overwhelemed. After the goats crossed the bridge, Anita went on it. She was so thrilled to see this sensible act of the goats. She had feared that one of them might fall in the river but their intelligence had made it clear that peace always leads to joy.

Question 5.
Complete the paragraph given below by filling in the blanks with the help of the options that follow: [1 × 3 = 3]
Last year I visited the same spot even if I was not
(a) ___ a cycle. I saw that many buildings (b) ___ been built on (c) ___ banks of the Ganga.
(a)
(i) ride
(ii) rides
(iii) rode
(iv) riding
(b)
(i) has
(ii) have
(iii) had
(iv) having
(c)
(i) a
(ii) an
(iii) the
(iv) some
Answer:
(a) (iv) riding
(b) (iii) had
(c) (iii) the

Question 6.
The following paragraph has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the error and its correction as shown in the example. [1 × 4 = 4]

Answer:

Question 7.
Rearrange the following words and phrases to form meaningful sentences: [1 × 3 = 3]
(a) standing in / the temple / one day / front of / Sethu was /
(b) coming to / had / the temple / the devotees / started /
(c) that day / he saw / people had / that more / come/
Answer:
(a) One day Sethu was standing in front of the temple.
(b) The devotees had started coming to the temple.
(c) He saw that more people had come that day.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set III

Note : All questions except the following questions been already asked in the previous sets.

SECTION – B
(WRITING SKILLS WITH GRAMMAR) 25

Question 4.
Write a story in 150 – 200 words based on the following outline : [1 x 10 = 10]
A monkey and a crocodile — friends — monkey atefruits — crocodile only fish — crocodile’s wife — wanted to eat monkey’s heart — crocodile offered the monkey a ride in the river — told him — his wife’s desire — monkey — left my heart on the tree — crocodile swam back — monkey climbed the tree — saved.
OR
Complete the story in 150 – 200 words which *, begins as the following:
It was the month of December. The school was over at 6 : 00 pm. I was standing at the bus stand waiting for the bus. Suddenly it became dark and a heavy rain started.
Answer:
GREED IS A CURSE
A monkey used to live on a fruit tree near the bank of a river. Crocodile used to come near to that tree and soon, the monkey and the crocodile became friends. From that day onwards, they started meeting everyday and talked for long hours. The monkey plucked some delicious fruits from the tree and gave him to eat. The monkey also gave the crocodile some fruits for his wife.
The crocodile’s wife did not like her husband’s friendship with the monkey. She was annoyed because her husband had started coming home late every day.

One day she asked her husband to bring the monkey to the house. She wanted to eat the monkey’s heart. The crocodile refused. She got furious and dived deep into the water leaving the little ones to pester their father.
The crocodile loved his wife very much but at the same time, he did not want to betray his friend. Finally, finding no choice, he decided to bring the monkey to his home. He went to him and invited him for a meal. The monkey rode on crocodile’s back and they set out towards the crocodile’s house.

In the middle of stream, the crocodile told monkey that he had brought him here because his wife wanted to eat his heart. The monkey got frightened but maintained his calm. He told the crocodile that he had left his heart on the tree. So they should rush back to the tree to bring his heart back. The foolish crocodile swam back as fast as he could. As soon as they reached the bank of the river, the monkey climbed the tree and was safe. He told the crocodile that they would never meet again. Hence, we should never be greedy for anything as greed is a curse.
OR
MEETING A STRANGER
It was the month of December. The school was over at 6.00 pm. I was standing at the bus stand waiting for the bus. Suddenly, it became dark and a heavy rain started. There was no one at the bus stand. The whole area was deserted after a while. When there came no bus, I started walking. It was getting windy and nothing could be seen clearly. Somehow, I reached a place where there was a lonely house. I took shelter in it and waited for the rain to stop. Being tired, I soon fell asleep. I heard the sound of the foot steps. I opened my eyes and I saw a man who was tall, fair and handsome with thick moustache before me. I was startled and stared at him with fear. But he looked at me gently and said, “Don’t be afraid. I mean no harm.” I summoned my courage and asked him, “Are you too a traveller like me ?” He said, “Not exactly”. He looked at me with calm dignity and said, ‘I am the owner of this house. I keep coming here.” He had a job that required a lot of travelling. So he kept going out of the house often. He offered me fruits. But I was so afraid that I did not eat anything. Then he asked me my address and dropped me home. My parents who were anxiously waiting for me, heaved a sign of relief and thanked the man a lot.

Question 5.
Complete the paragraph given below by filling in the blanks with the help of the options that follow : [1 × 3 = 3]
A young person (a) ___ a picture (b) ___ both of us with ‘selfie’. I could (c)___ say ‘no’.
(a)
(i) want
(ii) wants
(iii) wanted
(iv) wanting
(b)
(i) on
(ii) of
(iii) in
(iv) for
(c)
(i) hard
(ii) harder
(iii) hardest
(iv) hardly
Answer:
(a)
(iii) wanted
(b)
(ii) of
(c)
(iv) hardly

Question 6.
The following paragraph has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the error and its correction as shown in the example. [1 × 4 = 4]


Answer:

Question 7.
Rearrange the following words and phrases to form meaningful sentences: [1 × 3 = 3]
(a) two hands / the sound / hear / of / you can /
(b) the / now / one hand / show me / sound of /
(c) did / succeed / tried / not / but / Sethu /
Answer:
(a) You can hear the sound of two hands.
(b) Now show me the sound of one hand.
(c) Sethu tried but did not succeed.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Matter in Our Surroundings Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 1

Extra Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings

Matter in Our Surroundings Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Is there any similarity in materials?
Answer:
Yes, all materials possess mass and occupy space.

Question 2.
When 50 g of sugar is dissolved in 100 mL of water, there is no increase in volume. What characteristic of matter is illustrated by this observation?
Answer:
This observation indicates that particles of water have spaces between them into which sugar particles fit.

Question 3.
What happens when an inflated air balloon is pricked with a pin? Name the property of the gaseous state exhibited by this observation.
Answer:
The balloon bursts and diffusion takes place.

Question 4.
Name the process which occurs when a drop of dettol is added to water.
Answer:
When dettol is added to water, diffusion takes place.

Question 5.
To which physical state of matter do the following statements apply?
(i) Incompressible, no fixed shape
(ii) Compressible, no definite volume
Answer:
(i) Liquid
(ii) Gas

Question 6.
Name the state of matter in which:
(i) Layers of particles can slip and slide over one another easily.
(ii) Particles just move around randomly because of very weak force of attraction.
Answer:
(i) Liquid state,
(ii) Gaseous state.

Question 7.
Define density and give its SI unit.
Answer:
Density of a substance is defined as the mass per unit volume. Its SI unit is kgm^-3.

Question 8.
In which of the following, the particles have highest forces of attraction?
Water, NaCl (solid), ice or, wax.
Answer:
NaCl (solid) has particles with the highest forces of attraction.

Question 9.
Why do the gases exert more pressure on the walls of the container than the solids?
Answer:
In gases, the particles move randomly at high speed and they collide with each other and with the walls of the container.

Question 10.
Which of the following diffuses faster?
Water vapour, wax or, ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
Water vapour

Question 11.
Why do we see water droplets on the outer surface of a glass containing ice cold water?
Answer:
The water vapour present in the air comes in contact with cold surface of the glass, loses its energy and gets converted into droplets of water.

Question 12.
Can materials exist in all the three states?
Answer:
Yes, materials can exist in all the three states under different conditions of temperature and pressure.

Question 13.
Kinetic energy of particles of water in three vessels A, B and C are E_A, E_B and E_C respectively and E_A > E_B > E_C. Arrange the temperatures, T_A, T_Band T_C of water in the three vessels in increasing order.
Answer:
T_C < T_B < T_A , the kinetic energy of particles is greater at higher temperature.

Question 14.
Analyse the temperature versus time graph of water, given below.

Which region contains all liquids?
Answer:
Region C

Matter in Our Surroundings Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Questions-I

Question 1.
When a crystal of potassium permanganate is placed in a beaker containing water, its purple colour spreads throughout the water. What do you conclude from this observation about the nature of potassium permanganate and water?
Answer:
When we place few crystals of potassium permanganate in a beaker containing water, we get two distinct layers—colourless water at the top and pink colour at the bottom. After few minutes, pink colour spreads and whole solution turns pink due to diffusion. Since potassium permanganate is a solid substance, it does not possess so much space. Water molecules due to liquid state, collide with solid particles and intermix due to sufficient space between molecules.

Question 2.
Why do solids have a regular geometrical shape?
Answer:
In solids, the particles have highly ordered arrangement because the intermolecular forces between the particles are very strong. Therefore, solids have a regular geometrical shape.

Question 3.
Why are gases compressible but not liquids?
Answer:
Gases are compressible because the intermolecular space is very large in gases, whereas liquids are not compressible because in liquids, the intermolecular space is less.

Question 4.
Can a rubber band change its shape on stretching? Is it a solid?
Answer:
Yes, a rubber band changes shape under force and regains the same shape when the force is removed. It breaks on applying excessive force. Yes, it is a solid.

Question 5.
Why steam at 100°C is better for heating purposes than water at 100°C?
Answer: Steam at 100°C is better for heating purposes than water at 100°C because the energy of 1 kg of steam at 100°C is 22.6 × 10⁵ joule which is more than that of 1 kg of water at the same temperature.

Question 6.
Give two ways in which melting points and boiling points can be useful.
Answer:

• To check whether the substance is pure or not.
• To identify and characterise the substance.

Question 7.
Alka was making tea in a kettle. Suddenly she felt intense heat from the puff of steam gushing out of the spout of the kettle. She wondered whether the temperature of the steam was higher than that of the water boiling in the kettle. Comment. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The temperature of both boiling water and steam is 100°C, but steam has more energy because of latent heat of vaporisation.

Question 8.
Why does the temperature of a substance remain constant during its melting point or boiling point? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The temperature of a substance remains constant at its melting and boiling points until all the substance melts or boils because, the heat supplied is continuously used up in changing the state of the substance by overcoming the forces of attraction between the particles. This heat energy absorbed without showing any rise in temperature is given the name latent heat of fusion/latent heat of vaporisation.

Question 9.
What do you understand by the term ‘latent heat of fusion’? How much is the latent heat of fusion of ice?
Answer:
The amount of heat that is required to change 1 kg of solid into liquid at atmospheric pressure without any change in temperature at its melting point, is known as latent heat of fusion. The latent heat of fusion of ice in SI unit is 3.35 × 10⁵ J/kg.

Question 10.
Which gas is called dry ice? Why?
Answer:
Solid CO₂ is known as dry ice. This is because it directly gets converted into gaseous state without passing through liquid state on decreasing the pressure to 1 atmosphere.

Question 11.
A glass tumbler containing hot water is kept in the freezer compartment of a refrigerator (temperature <0°C). If you could measure the temperature of the content of the tumbler, which of the following graphs would correctly represent the change in its temperature as a function of time? [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer:
(a). The water will cool initially till it reaches 0°C, the freezing point. At this stage, the temperature will remain constant till all the water will freeze. After this, temperature would fall again.

Question 12.
Why do the doctors advise to put strips of wet cloth on the forehead of a person having high fever?
Answer:
When a person has fever, his body temperature becomes more than the normal body temperature. If we put strips of wet cloth on the forehead of a person suffering from high fever, the water evaporates taking heat from the body. Thus, moist strips will lower his body temperature.

Question 13.
Look at the following figures and suggest in which of the glass containers, i.e., A, B, C or D, the rate of evaporation will be the highest? Explain. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer:
(C). The rate of evaporation increases with an increase in surface area because evaporation is a surface phenomenon. Also, with the increase in air speed, the particles of water vapour will move away with air, which will increase the rate of evaporation.

Question 14.
Why do wet clothes dry quickly in the sun than in the shade?
Answer:
The temperature in the sunny area is higher than in the shade and evaporation takes place at a faster rate at high temperature. Hence, wet clothes dry quickly in the sun.

Question 15.
Why do trees acquire more leaves during summer?
Answer:
During summer the temperature is generally very high. In order to keep cool, a tree must transpire (transpiration is a phenomenon of evaporation of water from the leaves) more to keep itself cool. More transpiration requires more leaves. Hence, a tree acquires more leaves during summer.

Question 16.
Why do we feel comfortable under a fan when we are perspiring?
Answer:
The sweat is readily evaporated from the body by the air from the fan. As a result, we feel comfortable under a fan.

Question 17.
Why do people sprinkle water on the roof after a hot sunny day?
Answer:
Water sprinkled on the roof evaporates by taking the large latent heat of vaporisation from the ground. This makes the place cool and comfortable.

Question 18.
It is a hot summer day, Priyanshi and Ali are wearing cotton and nylon clothes respectively. Who do you think would be more comfortable and why? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Priyanshi would be more comfortable because cotton is a good absorber than nylon. It absorbs sweat from the body and provides large surface area for evaporation which causes cooling effect. As a result, body feels cool and comfortable.

Matter in Our Surroundings Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Questions-II

Question 1.
Substance ‘A’ has high compressibility and can be easily liquefied. It can take up the shape of any container. Predict the nature of the substance. Enlist four properties of this state of matter.
Answer:
‘A’ is a gas.
Properties of gases:

• They do not have fixed shape and fixed volume.
• They have large interparticle space.
• They have least forces of attraction between the molecules.
• They are highly compressible.

Question 2.
Suggest an activity to show that the rate of diffusion of liquids decreases with increase in density of the liquid.
Answer:

• Take two beakers filled with water.
• Put a drop of blue ink slowly along the sides of the first beaker and honey in the same way in another beaker.
• Leave it undisturbed.
• We observe that honey diffuses slowly as compared to ink.

This experiment shows that lesser the density, faster the rate of diffusion.

Question 3.
Classify the following into osmosis/diffusion

• Swelling up of a raisin on keeping in water.
• Spreading of virus on sneezing.
• Earthworm dying on coming in contact with common salt.
• Shrinking of grapes kept in thick sugar syrup.
• Preserving pickles in salt.
• Spreading of smell of cake being baked throughout the house.
• Aquatic animals using oxygen dissolved in water during respiration. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer:

• Osmosis
• Diffusion
• Osmosis
• Osmosis
• Osmosis
• Diffusion
• Diffusion

Question 4.
Explain what happens to the molecular motion and energy of 1 kg of water at 273 K when it is changed into ice at same temperature. How is the latent heat of fusion related to the energy exchange that takes place during this change of state?
Answer:

• Molecular motion decreases as water gets converted into ice.
• Latent heat of solidification is given off.

Latent heat of solidification is equal to latent heat of fusion.

Question 5.
Design an experiment to show that ammonium chloride undergoes sublimation.

Answer:

• Take crystals of ammonium chloride in a china dish.
• Put the china dish on a tripod stand with wire gauze.
• Put an inverted funnel on the china dish and insert a cotton plug in the stem of the funnel.
• Heat the china dish on a low flame.
• In the inside of the funnel white deposits of ammonium chloride is seen which directly converts into gaseous state and then solidifies.

Question 6.
Explain interconversion of three states of matter with the help of flow chart. Name the process of each interconversion.
Answer:

Question 7.
A student heats a beaker containing ice and water. He measures the temperature of the content of the beaker as a function of time. Which of the following (shown in figure given below) would correctly represent the result? Justify your choice. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer:
Since ice and water are in equilibrium, the temperature would be zero. When we heat the mixture, energy supplied is utilised in melting the ice and the temperature does not change till all the ice melts because of latent heat of fusion. On further heating, the temperature of the water would increase. Therefore, the correct option is (d).

Question 8.
Explain how the rate of evaporation of a liquid is affected with:

• Increase in temperature of the liquid.
• Decrease in exposed surface area.
• Increase in moisture in the surrounding air.
• Increase in wind speed.

Answer:

• Rate of evaporation increases with rise in temperature.
• Evaporation is less when exposed surface area decreases.
• Less evaporation if moisture content is high in the air.
• Rate of evaporation increases if wind speed increases.

Question 9.
You want to wear your favourite shirt to a party, but the problem is that it is still wet after a wash. What steps would you take to dry it faster? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Conditions that can increase the rate of evaporation of water are:

• An increase in the surface area by spreading the shirt.
• An increase in the temperature by putting the shirt under the sun.
• Increase in the wind speed by spreading it under the fan.

Question 10.
How does evaporation differ from boiling?
Answer: