NTSE Application Form 2020: The education board, NCERT, has released the notification for this year’s NTSE 2020 Exam. All states along with the union territories will release their NTSE application form 2020 in the 1st week of August. This year, the NTSE stage 1 exam is expected to be conducted on 2nd November for Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, and Andaman and the Nicobar Islands. While the exam for other states and UTs is going to be conducted on November 3. For Bihar, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Jammu and Kashmir, and Delhi NCR the exam is going to be conducted on 17th November. The current application form is available only for registration of stage 1 NTSE exam. The candidates that qualified for the NTSE stage 1 exam will also qualify for the NTSE stage 2 exam. Many states are going to release the application form online on SCERT official website while other states will release the forms offline.

Candidates that are studying in class 10 can download the NTSE application form 2020 online. Also, they can obtain the form from the state liaison officer. Candidates need to submit the completely filled NTSE application form as well as the application fee before the final date. The final date of application form submission will vary from state to state.

NTSE Application Form Highlights

NTSE Application Form Important Dates 2020

NTSE 2020 Exam Eligibility Criteria

Candidates are required to go through the eligibility criteria before they fill the application form. The candidates that do not satisfy the eligibility criteria will not be a part of the admission process. Here are the eligibility criteria that are set by NSTSS for graduation as well as school students.

NTSE Exam Eligibility Criteria for School Students

• Students should appear for the class 10 exam from a recognized school.
• Students that have applied for class 10 through an open learning system can also appear for the NTSE exam.
• The age of the candidate should not be more than 18 years.
• The candidate should have cleared all the standards from class 1 to 10.

NTSE Exam Eligibility Criteria for Graduation Students

• Candidate applying should appear for class 12 from a recognized board.
• The candidate should have cleared the class 11 exam without any backlogs.
• The candidate should not have any backlog for class 10 final exam declared by state boards and CBSE board.
• Class 10 exam should be cleared by the candidate with a minimum of 60% marks.
• There is no age limit defined for the candidates applying for NTSE 2020 exam.

How to Fill NTSE 2020 Exam Application Form?

Candidates can fill the application form for NTSE 2020 exam online or offline after downloading the form online. Candidates can also get access to the form online from the state liaison officer. After all the details are filled by the candidates, the application form can be submitted via post to the respective address of the state liaison officer. Candidates can also submit the application form by going to the address of the state liaison officer. Below are the steps to fill the NTSE 2020 exam application form:

1. Go to the NTSE official website which is ncert.nic.in.
2. On the homepage, a link will appear that states ‘Apply for the NTSE 2020’.
3. In the form, there are certain details like date of birth, candidate’s name, email ID, mobile number, educational qualification, etc that needs to be filled.
4. After all the details are filled, click on the ‘submit’ button mentioned below.
5. Download the NTSE application form after filling it.
6. Besides basic details, candidates are also required to affix their signature and photograph in the space provided.
7. Candidates need to attest the NTSE 2020 application form from their school head/principal.
8. After each and every detail is done, there is an application fee varying on the state to state that needs to be paid.
9. Candidates can also submit their application form to their respective liaison officers by visiting the address of liaison officer or via post.

Below are the addresses of the state liaison officer in each for the candidate’s reference.

Documents To Be Attached With Application Form

• A colored photograph of the candidate which should not be 6 months older than the date of form filling.
• The background of the photograph should be dark.
• The hairs must be properly tied and there should not be any makeup visible in the photograph.
• Candidates that are Indian nationals do not need to produce any document for the application form.
• Students that are of Indian origin and doing class 10 abroad have to prove their Indian citizenship. Thus, they need to attach a copy of class 11 marks.

NTSE 2020 Application Form FAQ’s

Question 1.
Who should apply for NTSE 2020 exam?
Answer: Candidates who want scholarship for higher studies should apply for the NTSE 2020 exam.

Question 2.
Where will I get NTSE 2020 exam application form?
Answer: NTSE 2020 exam application form is available online as well as offline from the state liaison officer.

Question 3.
What is the deadline for the NTSE exam application form?
Answer: The deadline for the application form varies from state to state. Candidates should remain alert about the deadline in their state. Once the deadline is gone candidates will not be able to register for the exam.

The post NTSE Application Form 2020 | How to Apply, Documents Required appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Practical Work in Geography Class 12 Solutions Chapter 2 Map Scale

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 2 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1(i).
The measure of central tendency that does not get affected by extreme values
(a) Mean
(b) Mean and mode
(c) Mode
(d) Median
Answer:
(d) Median

Question 1(ii).
The measure of central tendency always coinciding with the hump of any distribution is:
(a) Median
(b) Median and Mode
(c) Mean
(d) Mode
Answer:
(b) Median and Mode

Question 1(iii).
A scatter plot represents negative correlation if the plotted values run from:
(a) Upper left to lower right
(b) Lower left to upper right
(c) Left to right
(d) Upper right to lower left
Answer:
(a) Upper left to lower right

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2(i).
Define the mean.
Answer:
The mean is the value which is derived by summing all the values and dividing it by the number of observations.

Question 2(ii).
What are the advantages of using mode?
Answer:
Mode is the maximum occurrence or frequency at a particular point or value. The biggest advantage of mode is that it is not affected by the extreme values. It can be determined even for open ended series.

Question 2(iii).
What is dispersion?
Answer:
The term, ‘dispersion’, refers to the scattering of scores about the measure of central tendency. It is used to measure the extent to which individual items or numerical data tend to vary or spread about an average value. Thus, to get a better picture of a distribution, we need to use a measure of central tendency and of dispersion or variability.

Question 2(iv).
Define correlation.
Answer:
Correlation is basically a measure of relationship between two or more sets of data. It serves a very useful purpose.

Question 2(v).
What is perfect correlation?
Answer:
Perfect correlation means that there is proportional relationship between two variables. If on doubling x, the value of y also gets doubled, it is perfect positive correlation. On the other hand, if on doubling the variable x, the value of y gets halved, it is called perfect negative correlation.

Question 2(vi).
What is the maximum extent of correlation?
Answer:
The value of correlation lies between -1 and +1. Closer it is to zero, weaker is the correlation; closer it is towards ±1, stronger is the correlation. Symbolically -1≤ r ≤ +1.

3. Answer the following questions in about 125 words.

Question 3(i).
Explain relative positions of mean, median and mode in a normal distribution and skewed distribution with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
(a) Normal Curve: In this curve, highest frequency is at the centre and both tails on the left and right hand side are in identical fashion. It is a unimodal curve in which mean, median and mode are equal. It is also known as a bell¬shaped or symmetrical curve. It is shown below:

(b) Positively Skewed Curve: It is a symmetrical curve which has a tail on the right hand side of the graph and frequencies are more for the lower values of the data. These histograms have the curve on the left side of the distribution. If the right tail is longer, the mass of the distribution is concentrated on the left. It has relatively few low values. It is shown below:

(c) Negatively Skewed Curve: It is a symmetrical curve which has a tail on the left hand side of the graph and frequencies are more for the higher values of the data. The left tail is longer, the mass of the distribution is concentrated on the right of the figure. It has relatively few low values. The distribution is said to be left-skewed. It is shown below:

Question 3(ii).
Comment on the applicability of mean, median and mode (Hint: from their merits and demerits)
Answer:
Mean:

• It is the simplest among all the measures of central tendency.
• It is based on all the items in a series. Hence, it is a representative value of different items.
• It is a value. It has no scope for estimated values.
• It is a stable form of central tendency.
• It can be used for comparison.

Median:

• Median is not affected by the extreme values of the series.
• For finding median, only the middle values and their units are sufficient.
• Median can also be determined through the graphic representation of data.
• Median value is always certain in a series.
• Median value is a real value.

Mode:

• Mode is a very simple measure of central tendency.
• It is less affected by extreme and marginal values.
• Mode is the best representation of the series.
• It can also be determined graphically.

Question 3(iii).
Explain the process of computing Standard Deviation with the help of an imaginary example.
Answer:
Standard deviation (SD) is the most widely used measure of dispersion. It is defined as the square root of the average of squares of deviations. It is always calculated around the mean. The standard deviation is the most stable measure of variability and is used in so many other statistical operations. The Greek character a denotes it.
Steps:

• To obtain SD, deviation of each score from the mean (x) is first squared (x²).
• It makes all negative signs of deviations positive. It saves SD from the major criticism of mean deviation which uses modulus x. Then, all of the squared deviations are summed -x²
• (care should be taken that these are not summed first and then squared).
• This sum of the squared deviations (x²) is divided by the number of cases and then the square root is taken. Therefore, Standard Deviation is defined as the root mean square deviation.

Calculate the standard deviation for the following distribution:

Solution:
The method of obtaining SD for grouped data has been explained in the table below. The initial steps upto column 4, are the same as those we followed in the computation of the mean for grouped data. We begin with deviation value of zero has been assigned to the group. Like wise other deviations are determined. Values in column 4(fx’) are obtained by the multiplication of the values in the two previous columns. Values in column 5(fx’ 2) are obtained by multiplying the values given in column 3 and 4. Then various columns have been summed.

The following formula is used to calculate the Standard Deviation:

Question 3(iv).
Which measures of dispersion is the most unstable statistic and why?
Answer:
Range is the most unstable statistic because:

• Range is not based on all the terms. Only extreme items reflect its size. Hence, range cannot be completely representative of the data as all other middle values are ignored.
• Due to the above reason, range is not a reliable measure of dispersion.
• Range does not change even the least even if all other, in between, terms and variables are changed.
• Range is too much affected by fluctuation of sampling. Range changes from sample to sample. As the size of sample increases range increases and vice-versa.
• It does not tell us anything about the variability of other data.
• For open-end intervals, range is indeterminate because lower and appear limits of first and last interval are not given.

Question 3(v).
Write a detailed note on the degree of correlation.
Answer:
Through the coefficient of correlation, we can measure the degree or extent of the correlation between the two variables. On the basis of the coefficient of correlation, we can also determine whether the correlation is positive or negative and also its degree or extent.

Perfect correlation: If two variables change in the same direction and in the same proportion, the correlation between the two is perfect positive. According to Karl Pearson, the coefficient of correlation in this case is +1. On the other hand, if the variables change in the opposite direction and in the same proportion, the correlation is perfect negative. Its coefficient of correlation is -1. In practice we rarely come across these types of correlations.

Absence of correlation: If two series of two variables exhibit no relations between them or change in variable does not lead to a change in the other variable, then we can firmly say that there is no correlation or absurd correlation between the two variables. In such a case the coefficient of correlation is 0.

Limited degrees of correlation: If two variables are not perfectly correlated or is there a perfect absence of correlation, then we term the correlation as Limited correlation. It may be positive, negative or zero but lies with the limits ± 1.
High degree, moderate degree or low degree are the three categories of this kind of correlation. The following table reveals the effect (or degree) of coefficient or correlation.

Question 3(vi).
What are various steps for the calculation of rank order correlation?
Answer:
Step 1: Rank both sets of data. Give the largest value rank 1, the second largest value rank 2, etc.
Step 2: Calculate the differences in the ranks, d.
Step 3: Work out the squares of the differences (d²).
Step 4: Calculate the sum of these squared differences,
Step 5: Spearman’s Rank Correlation Coefficient is found by substituting this sum into the following formula:

where n is how many pairs of data you have.
Example: Find rank correlation from data given below:


So, for this set of data, the finished equation looks like this:

High Positive Correlation.

Activity

Question 1.
Take an imaginary example applicable to geographical analysis and explain direct and indirect methods of calculating mean from ungrouped data.
Answer:
From the following data of the marks obtained by 60 students of a class.

Solution-1 (Direct Method):
Calculation of Arithmetic mean:

Here N= totlal frequency = 60

Hence,
Average Marks=41

Solution-2 (Short Cut Method):
Calculation of Arithmetic mean:

Question 2.
Draw scatter plots showing different types of perfect correlations
Answer:
Perfect Positive Correlation: If all points lie on a rising straight line the correlation is perfectly positive and r=+1

Perfect Negative Correlation: If all points lie on a falling straight line the correlation is perfectly negative and r = -1.

High degree of Positive Correlation:
If the points lie in a narrow strip rising upwards, the correlation is high degree of positive.

High degree of Negative Correlation:
If the points lie in a narrow strip falling downwards, the correlation is high degree of negative.

Low degree of Positive Correlation:
If the point are spread widely over a broad strip rising upwards, the correlation is low degree positive.

Low degree of Negative Correlation:
If the points are spread widely over a broad strip falling downwards, the correlation is low degree negative.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 2 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 2 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What measures are adopted to find correlation?
Answer:
Correlation is measured either by Karl Pearson’s method or by Spearman’s rank correlation.
Question 2.
What do you mean by median?
Answer:
The median is defined as the number in the middle of a given set of numbers arranged in order of increasing magnitude. When given a set of numbers, the median is the number positioned in the exact middle of the list when you arrange the numbers from the lowest to the highest. The median is the middle most or central value of the observations made on a variable when the values are arranged either in ascending order or descending order.

Question 3.
What do you mean by mode?
Answer:
The mode is defined as the element that appears most frequently in a given set of elements. Using the definition of frequency given above, mode can also be defined as the element with the largest frequency in a given data set.

Question 4.
Name the most stable and unstable measure of dispersion.
Answer:
The most stable measure of dispersion is standard deviation and most unstable is range.

Question 5.
Name the most stable and unstable measure of central tendency.
Answer:
The most stable measure of central tendency is median and the most unstable measure is mode.

Question 6.
Which measures are affected by the extreme values?
Answer:
In measures of central tendency, mean and in measures of dispersion, range is most affected by the extreme values.

Question 7.
What are different types of mode?
Answer:
There are three types of mode

1. Unimodal: A series of data having one mode is called ‘unimodal’.
2. Bimodal: A series of data having two modes is called ‘bimodal’.
3. Multimodal: Some series may also have several modes and be called ‘multimodal’.

Question 8.
Who adopted a scientific method to measure correlation?
Answer:
Karl Pearson was the first person to measure correlation scientifically.

Question 9.
Find mean from the data given below:
24, 32, 40, 44, 33, 27, 14, 56, 54.
Answer:

Question 10.
Temperature of a place is given for 12 months. Find the average temperature.
9, 12, 18, 22, 35, 36, 24, 23, 19, 17, 14, 11
Answer:

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 2 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the different measures of central tendency?
Answer:
A measure of central tendency is a single value that attempts to describe a set of data by identifying the central position within that set of data. As such, measures of central tendency are sometimes called measures of central location. They are also classed as summary statistics. The mean (often called the average) is most likely the measure of central tendency that you are most familiar with, but there are others, such as the median and the mode.
The mean, median and mode are all valid measures of central tendency, but under different conditions, some measures of central tendency become more appropriate to use than others. In the following sections, we will look at the calculation of mean in different types of series, combined mean, weighted mean, finding missing frequencies and correcting mean.

Question 2.
What do you mean by mean? What measures are adopted to find it?
Answer:
The mean (or average) is the most popular and well known measure of central tendency. It can be used with both discrete and continuous data, although its use is most often with continuous data. The mean is equal to the sum of all the values in the data set divided by the number of values in the data set. So, if we have n values in a data set and they have values x1, x2, …. xn, the sample mean, usually denoted by x (pronounced xbar), is:

It is calculated by two methods: (a) Direct method and (b) Indirect method.

Question 3.
What do you mean by correlation?
Answer:
A statistical technique that is used to analyse the strength and direction of the relationship between two quantitative variables is called correlation analysis. The coefficient of correlation is a number that indicates the strength (magnitude) and direction of statistical relationship between two variables. The strength of the relationship is determined by the closeness of the points to a straight line when a pair of values of two variables are plotted on a graph. A straight line is used as the frame of reference for evaluating the relationship. The direction is determined by whether one variable generally increases or decreases when the other variable increases.

Question 4.
Give formula for finding mean.
Answer:
Soltion-1 (Direct Method):
If x_1,x₂, x3, x_n are ‘n’ individual observed values of a variable x, then the A.M is denoted by % and is defined as

Soltion-2 (Short Cut Method):
Short Cut method: Under this method the formula for calculating mean is

Question 5.
From the figures given below, find mean by direct and by direct and indirect methods.

Answer:
Calculation of Arithmetic mean by Direct Method:

= 1560/60 = 26

Calculation of Arithmetic mean by Short Cut Method:

= 35 – 540/60 = 26

Question 6.
From the given ungrouped data, find median.
62, 68, 53, 57, 20, 30, 32, 45, 72, 77, 81
Answer:
From the definition o median, we should be able to tell that the first step is to rearrange the fiven set of numbers in order to increase magnitude, i.e. from the lowest to the highest

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 2 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the difference between standard deviation and coefficient of variation.
Answer:
Standard deviation is superior to other measures because of its merits showing the variability which is important for statistical data. The standard deviation enjoys many qualities of a good measure of dispersion.
In mean deviation we take the sum of deviations from actual mean after ignoring + – signs. In standard deviation, we get the same results without ignoring signs.
In this case deviation from actual mean are wquared, and hence every term is positive.

1. It is a pure number and the unit of observations is not mentioned with its value. It is written in percentage form like 20% or 25%. When its value is 20%, it means that when the mean of the observations is assumed equal to 100, their standard deviation will be 20.
2. in their means or differ in the units of measurement. The wages of workers may be in dollars and the consumption of meat in their families may be in kilograms. The standard deviation of wages in dollars cannot be compared with the standard deviation of amounts of meat in kilograms. Both the standard deviations need to be converted into coefficient of variation for comparison.

Qustion 2.
What do you mean by Lorenz Curve?
It was given by Dr. Max. O. Lorenz. It is a graph on which the cumulative percentage of total national income (or some other variable) is plotted against the cumulative percentage of the corresponding population (ranked in increasing size of share). The extent to which the curve sags below a straight diagonal line indicates the degree of inequality of distribution.
Steps to Plot a Lorenz Curve:

• Cumulate both values and their corresponding frequencies.
• Find the percentage of each of the cumulated figures taking the grand total of each corresponding column as 100.
• Represent the percentage of the cumulated frequencies on X axis and those of the values on the Y axis.
• Draw a diagonal line designated as the line of equal distribution.
• Plot the percentages of cumulated values against the percentages of the cumulated frequencies of a given distribution and join the points so plotted through a free hand curve.

Example: From the following details of monthly income, draw a Lorenz curve.

Solution:

Question 3.
Explain merits and demerits of arithmetic mean.
Answer:
Merits of Arithmetic Mean:

• Arithmetic mean is most popular among averages used in statistical analysis.
• It is very simple to understand and easy to calculate.
• The calculation of arithmetic mean is based on all the observations in the series.
• The arithmetic mean is responsible for further algebraic treatment.
• It is strictly defined.
• It provides a good means of comparison.
• It has more sampling stability.

Demerits of Arithmetic Mean:

• The arithmetic mean is affected by the extreme values in a series.
• In case of a missing observation in a series it is not possible to calculate the arithmetic mean.
• In case frequency distribution with open end classes the calculation of arithmetic mean is theoretically impossible.
• The arithmetic mean is an unsuitable average for qualitative data.

Question 4.
Explain merits and demerits of median.
Answer:
According to Croxton and Cowden, “The median is generally defined as the value which divides the distribution so that an equal number of items is on either side of it.”

Merits:

• The median is useful in case of frequency distribution with open-end classes.
• The median is recommended if distribution has unequal classes.
• Extreme values do not affect the median as strongly as they affect the mean.
• It is the most appropriate average in dealing with qualitative data.
• The value of median can be determined graphically whereas the value of mean can not be determined graphically.
• It is easy to calculate and understand.

Demerits:

• For calculating median, it is necessary to arrange the data, whereas other averages do not need arrangement.
• Since it is a positional average its value is not determined by all the observations in the series.
• Median is not capable for further algebraic calculations.
• The sampling stability of the median is less as compared to mean.

Question 5.
Explain merits and demerits of mode.
Answer:
Mode is the most frequent item in the series.

Merits:

• It is easier to calculate and simpler to understand.
• It is not affected by the extreme values.
• The value of mode can be determined graphically.
• Its value can be determined in case of open-end class interval.
• The mode is the most representative of the distribution.

Demerits:

• It is not suitable for further mathematical treatments.
• The value of mode cannot always be determined.
• The value of mode is not based on each and every items of the series.
• The mode is strictly defined.
• It is difficult to calculate when one of the observations is zero or the sum of the observations is zero.

Question 6.
What is included in measures of dispersion? What is measured through it?
Answer:
Measures of central tendency do not reveal how values in the data set are dispersed (spread or scattered) on each side of the central value. The dispersion of values is indicated by the extent to which these values tend to spread over an interval rather than cluster closely around an average. The statistical techniques to measure such dispersion are of two types:
1. Techniques that are used to measure the extent of variation or the deviation (also called degree of variation) of each value in the data set from a measure of central tendency, usually the mean or median. Such statistical techniques are called measures of dispersion (or variation).
2. Techniques that are used to measure the direction (away from uniformity or symmetiy) of variation in the distribution of values in the data set. Such statistical techniques are called measures of skewness.
It includes the following:

• Range
• Question uartile Deviation
• Mean Deviation
• Standard Deviation and Co-efficient of Variation (C.V.)
• Lorenz Curve

Question 7.
Give formula for finding median.
Answer:
Step-1:
Arrange the data in ascending or descending order of magnitude or find cf.
Step-2:
Case (i) If the number of observations is odd then median is the th observation in the arranged order.
Case (ii) If the number of observations is even then the median is the mean of  th and th observations in the arranged order
It is median in individual series.
But in case of continuous series, we need following steps further.

• Now look at the cumulative frequency column and find that total which is either equal to or next higher to that and determine the value of the variable
  corresponding to it. That gives the median class.
• The median of a continuous series can be calculated by the below interpolation formula.
  
  Where l₁ = lower limit of the median class.
  f = frequency corresponding to the median class
  n/2 = Total frequency divided by 2.
  n= total frequency
  C = cumulative frequency of the class preceding to the median class
  i = Class Interval of Median Class.

Question 8.
Give formula for finding mean deviation.
Answer:
Mean Deviation in Individual Series:

Mean Deviation in Discrete Series:
If the data is grouped in a frequency table, the expression the mean deviation is

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 2 Viva Questions

Question 1.
What is the minimum and maximum value of correlation?
Answer:
1< R<+1

Question 2.
What does perfect correlation mean?
Answer:
Perfect positive correlation means that double the X, Y will be doubled and vice- versa. Perfect negative correlation means that double the X and Y will be halved and vice-versa.

Question 3.
What is the relationship between mean, median and mode in a normal distribution?
Answer:
Mean = median = mode

Question 4.
What is the relationship between mean, median and mode in skewed distribution?
Answer:
Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean

Question 5.
Who gave the concept of Lorenz Curve?
Answer:
It was given by Dr. Max. O. Lorenz.

Question 6.
What does ze,ro correlation mean?
Answer:
Zero correlation means that with increase/decrease in X, Y does not change.

Question 7.
What is the implication of line of equality?
Answer:
Line of equality shows that there is no unevenness in distribution. Farther is the distribution from this line greater is the inequality.

Map Scale Notes

• A number of statistical techniques are used to analyse the data. Most important of these are:
  • Measures of Central Tendency
  • Measures of Dispersion
  • Measures of Relationship
• The number denoting the central tendency is the representative figure for the entire data set because it is the point about which items have a tendency to cluster. Measures of central tendency are also known as statistical averages. There are three measures of central tendency: mean, median and the mode.
• • The following methods are used as measures of dispersion:
  • Range
  • Quartile Deviation
  • Mean Deviation
  • Standard Deviation and Co-efficient of Variation (C.V.)
  • Lorenz Curve
• Measures of correlation include: Karl Pearson’s Correlation coefficient, Spearman’s rank correlation.
• There are two methods of measuring mean: Direct method and Indirect method. Both of these can be used for grouped data as well as ungrouped data.
• Mean is considered to be vague and unreliable because many times the value of mean is not equal to any of the value of data. For example, if marks of five students are 35, 46, 54, 52 and 68 then mean will be equal to
• These are not the marks of any of the five students.

• Mean is of three types:
  • Arithmetic Mean
  • Geometric Mean
  • Harmonic Mean
• Direction of Correlation: It is our common experience that an input is made to get some output. There could be three possibilities.
  • With the increase in input the output also increases. It is called positive correlation.
  • With the increase in the input the output decreases. It is called Negative correlation.
  • Change in the input does not lead to change in the output. It is called Zero correlation.

Map Scale Important Terms

• Mean: The mean is the value which is derived by summing all the values and dividing it by the number of observations.

• Median: The median is the value which divides the arranged series into two equal halves. It is independent of the actual value.
• Mode: The value that occurs most frequently in a distribution.
• Dispersion: The term dispersion refers to the scattering of scores about the measure of central tendency. It is used to measure the extent to which individual items or numerical data tend to vary or spread about an average value.
• Range: Range (R) is the difference between maximum and minimum values in a series of distribution. This way it simply represents the distance from the smallest to the largest score in a series. It can also be defined as the highest score minus the lowest score.
• Quartile Deviation (Q.D): The Quartile Deviation is a slightly better measure of absolute dispersion than the range. But it ignores the observation on the tails. If we take different samples from a population and calculate their quartile deviations, their values are quite likely to be sufficiently different. This is called sampling fluctuation. It is not a popular measure of dispersion. The quartile deviation calculated from the sample data does not help us to draw any conclusion (inference) about the quartile deviation in the population.
• Mean Deviation: It is also called an Absolute Deviation. Absolute deviation for a given data set is defined as the average of the absolute difference between the elements of the set and the mean (average deviation) or the median element (median absolute deviation). The mean deviation or the average deviation is defined as the mean of the absolute deviations of observations from some suitable average which may be the arithmetic mean, the median or the mode.
• Standard Deviation: Standard Deviation (SD) is the most widely used measure of dispersion. It is defined as the square root of the average of squares of deviations. It is always calculated around the mean. Standard Deviation is defined as the root mean square deviation.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Practical Work in Geography Class 12 Solutions Chapter 2 Map Scale appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answers of the following from the given options:

Question 1.(i)
In which one of the following States are the major oil fields located?
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(a) Assam

Question 1.(ii)
At which one of the following places was the first atomic power station started?
(a) Kalpakkam
(b) Narora
(c) Rana Pratap Sagar
(d) Tarapur
Answer:
(d) Tarapur

Question 1.(iii)
Which one of the following minerals is known as brown diamond?
(a) Iron
(b) Lignite
(c) Manganese
(d) Mica
Answer:
(b) Lignite

Question 1.(iv)
Which one of the following is non-renewable source of energy?
(a) Hydel
(b) Solar
(c) Thermal
(d) Wind power
Answer:
(c) Thermal

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
Give an account of the distribution of mica in India.
Answer:
Mica in India is produced in Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan followed by Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh. In Jharkhand high quality mica is obtained in a belt extending over a distance of about 150 km, in length and about 22 km, in width in lower Hazaribagh plateau. In Andhra Pradesh. Nellore district produces the best quality mica. In Rajasthan mica belt extends for about 320 kms from Jaipur to Bhilwara and around Udaipur. Mica deposits also occur in Mysore and Hasan districts of Karnataka, Coimbatore, Tiruchirapalli, Madurai and Kannyakumari in Tamil Nadu, Alleppey in Kerala, Ratnagiri in Maharashtra, Purulia and Bankura in West Bengal.

Question 2.(ii)
What is nuclear power? Mention the important nuclear power stations in India.
Answer:
Nuclear power is the power that is obtained by the energy released from nuclear fission that is splitting of nucleus of radioactive minerals like Uranium and Thorium. The energy released from the nuclear fission is used to heat water, the steam released from it is used to rotate a turbine which generates electricity. The important nuclear power projects are Tarapur (Maharashtra), (Rajasthan), Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu), Narora (Uttar Pradesh), Kaiga (Karnataka), Rawatbhata near Kota and Kakarapara (Gujarat).

Question 2.(iii)
Name non-ferrous metal. Discuss their spatial distribution.
Answer:
India is poorly endowed with non-ferrous metallic minerals except bauxite and copper. Bauxite: Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country. Bauxite is the ore for Aluminium. Odisha happens to be the largest producer of Bauxite. Kalahandi and Sambalpur are the leading producers.

The other two areas which have been increasing their production are Bolangir and Koraput. The patlands of Jharkhand in Lohardaga have rich deposits. Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are other major producers. Bhavanagar, Jamnagar in Gujarat have the major deposits. Chhattisgarh has bauxite deposits in Amarkantak plateau while Katni-Jabalpur area and Balaghat in M.P. have important deposits of bauxite. Kolaba, Thane, Ratnagiri, Satara, Pune and Kolhapur in Maharashtra are important producers. Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Goa are minor producers of bauxite Copper:

The Copper deposits mainly occur in Singhbhum district in Jharkhand, Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh and Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts in Rajasthan. It is imperative for electrical industry. Minor producers of Copper are Agnigundala in Guntur District (Andhra Pradesh), Chitradurg and Hasan districts (Karnataka) and South Arcot district (Tamil Nadu).

Question 2.(iv)
What are non-conventional sources of energy?
Answer:
Non conventional sources of energy are those energy which have been recently put to use for commercial purpose. They are generally renewable and non polluting sources of energy. They have initial high cost of installation whereas their long time running cost is low and also they are environment friendly. Eg. Soar energy, wind energy, tidal and wave energy, geothermal energy and bioenergy.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
Write a detailed note on the Petroleum resources of India.
Answer:
Crude petroleum consists of hydrocarbons of liquid and gaseous states varying in chemical composition, colour and specific gravity. It is an essential source of energy for all internal combustion engines in automobiles, railways and aircraft. Its numerous by-products are processed in petrochemical industries.

Crude petroleum occurs in sedimentary rocks of the tertiary period. Oil exploration and production was systematically taken up after the Oil and Natural Gas Commission was set up in 1956. Till then, the Digboi in Assam was the only oil producing region but the scenario has changed after 1956. In recent years, new oil deposits have been found at the extreme western and eastern parts of the country. In Assam, Digboi, Naharkatiya and Moran are important oil producing areas. The major oil fields of Gujarat are Ankaleshwar, Kalol, Mehsana, Nawagam, Kosamba and Lunej. Mumbai High which lies 160 km off Mumbai was discovered in 1973 and production commenced in 1976. Oil and natural gas have been found in exploratory wells in Krishna-Godavari and Kaveri basin on the east coast. According to a newspaper report (The Hindu, 05.09.2006) the Oil and Natural Gas Commission has found potential zones of natural gas reserves in Ramanathapuram district. The survey is still in the initial stages. The exact quantity of gas reserves will be known only after the completion of the survey. But the results are encouraging. Oil extracted from the wells is crude oil and contains many impurities. It cannot be used directly. It needs to be refined. There are two types of refineries in India:
(a) field based and
(b) market based. Digboi is an example of field based and Barauni is an example of market based refinery. There are 18 refineries in India.

Question 3.(ii)
Write an essay on hydel power in India.
Answer:
Hydel power is a renewable energy resource because it uses the Earth’s water cycle to generate electricity. Water evaporates from the Earth’s surface, forms clouds, precipitates back to earth, and flows toward the ocean. The movement of water as it flows downstream creates kinetic energy that can be converted into electricity. 2700 TWH is generated every year. Out of the total power generation installed capacity in India of 1,76,990 MW (June, 2011), hydel power contributes about 21.5%, i.e. 38,106 MW.

A capacity addition of 78,700 MW is envisaged from different conventional sources during 2007-2012 (the 11th Plan), which includes 15,627 MW from large hydro projects. In addition to this, a capacity addition of 1400 MW was envisaged from small hydro up to 25 MW station capacity. The total hydroelectric power potential in the country is assessed at about 150,000 MW, equivalent to 84,000 MW at 60% load factor. The potential of small hydro power projects is estimated at about 15,000 MW.

Technology: A hydroelectric power plant consists of a high dam that is built across a large river to create a reservoir, and a station where the process of energy conversion to electricity takes place. The first step in the generation of energy in a hydro power plant is the collection of run-off of seasonal rain and snow in lakes, streams and rivers, during the hydrological cycle. The run-off flows to dams downstream. The water falls through a dam, into the hydropower plant and turns a large wheel called a turbine.

The turbine converts the energy of falling water into mechanical energy to drive the generator. After this process has taken place electricity is transferred to the communities through transmission lines and the water is released back into the lakes, streams or rivers. This is entirely not harmful, because no pollutants are added to the water while it flows through the hydro power plant.

Potential in India: India is blessed with immense amount of hydro-electric potential and ranks 5th in terms of exploitable hydro-potential on global scenario. As per assessment made by CEA, India is endowed with economically exploitable hydro-power potential to the tune of 148700 MW of installed capacity. The basinwise assessed potential is as under:

In addition, 56 number of pumped storage projects have also been identified with probable installed capacity of 94000 MW. In addition to this, hydro-potential from small, mini and micro schemes has been estimated as 6782 MW from 1512 sites. Thus, in totality India is endowed with hydro-potential of about 250000 MW.
Installed Capacity: The total installed capacity of India is 36878 MW

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define minerals.
Answer:
A mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and physical properties.

Question 2.
Give examples of non metallic minerals.
Answer:
Fossil fuels, mica, limestone, graphite etc.

Question 3.
Name ferrous minerals.
Answer:
All the minerals which contain iron come under this category. Like – Iron ore, manganese, chromite etc.

Question 4.
What are the main types of iron found in our country?
Answer:
Haematite and Magnetite.

Question 5.
Which state is the leading producer of manganese?
Answer:
Odisha is the leading producer of manganese.

Question 6.
Name the manganese fields of Karnataka.
Answer:
Karnataka is a major producer of manganese and here the mines are located in Dharwar, Ballari, Belagavi, North Canara, Chikkmagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurg and Tumkur.

Question 7.
What are the uses of mica?
Answer:
Used in electrical and electronic industries and also as an insulator.

Question 8.
Which is the ore for aluminium? Which state is the largest producer?
Answer:
Bauxite is the ore for aluminium. Odisha is the largest producer.

Question 9.
Where is copper found in India?
Answer:
Copper deposits mainly occur in Singhbhum district in Jharkhand, Balaghat district in Madhya Pradesh and Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts in Rajasthan. Minor deposits in Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

Question 10.
What are canaries used for?
Answer:
Singareni collieries, the country’s premier coal production company, still uses canaries to detect the presence of deadly carbon monoxide in underground mines.

Question 11.
Which are the two top coalfields of India?
Answer:
Jharia and Raniganj.

Question 12.
What are the uses of petroleum?
Answer:
It is an essential source of energy for all internal combustion engines in automobiles, railways and aircraft. Its numerous by-products are processed in petrochemical industries such a fertiliser, synthetic rubber, synthetic fibre, medicines, vaseline, lubricants, wax, soap and cosmetics.

Question 13.
Which mineral is referred to as liquid gold? why?
Answer:
Petroleum is referred to as liquid gold because of its scarcity and diversified uses.

Question 14.
Which agency looks after the transport and marketing of natural gas? When was it set up?
Answer:
The Gas Authority of India Limited was set up in 1984 as a public sector undertaking to look after the transport and marketing of natural gas.

Question 15.
How is solar energy generated?
Answer:
Sun rays tapped in photovoltaic cells can be converted into energy, known as solar energy. The two effective processes considered to be very effective to tap solar energy are photovoltaics and solar thermal technology.

Question 16.
Name the sources of non conventional sources of energy.
Answer:
Solar, wind, bio, tidal and wave, geo thermal.

Question 17.
Name the states with high potential for wind energy.
Answer:
Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Karnataka have favourable conditions to develop wind energy.

Question 18.
Why is India endowed with a rich variety of mineral resources?
Answer:
India is endowed with a rich variety of mineral resources due to its varied geological structure. Bulk of the valuable minerals are products of pre-palaezoic age and are mainly associated with metamorphic and igneous rocks of the peninsular India.

Question 19.
Why do we need minerals for economic development?
Answer:
Industrial development of a country depends on availability of minerals and economic development depends on industrial development. Therefore, we need minerals for economic development.

Question 20.
How are minerals classified?
Answer:
Minerals are classified on the basis of their physical and chemical properties.

• Metallic minerals
• Non-metallic minerals.

Question 21.
Name the area lacking natural resources.
Answer:
The vast alluvial plain tract of north India is devoid of minerals of economic use.

Question 22.
There is inverse relationship between quantity and quality of minerals. Explain the statement
Answer:
It means that good quality minerals are less in quantity as compared to low quality minerals.

Question 23.
Where are majority of minerals found in India?
Answer:
Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks.

Question 24.
In which of the river valleys important coal reserves are found?
Answer:
Over 97 per cent of coal reserves occur in the valleys of Damodar, Sone, Mahanadi and Godavari.

Question 25.
Give the distribution of bauxite ore.
Answer:
Bauxite is produced in the following states.

• Odisha is the largest producer.
• Kalahandi and Sambalpur are the leading producers.
• Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, M.P. and Maharashtra.
• Balaghat in M.P.

Question 26.
Name the areas where natural gas is found.
Answer:
Natural gas is found in:

• Eastern Coast (Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Adhra Pradesh)
• Tripura
• Rajasthan
• Gujarat
• Maharashtra

Question 27.
Name the nuclear power plant affected by tsunami which has recently been resumed.
Answer:
Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu.

Question 28.
Where are the richest monazite deposits found?
Answer:
Monazite reserves are found in Palakkad and Kollam districts of Kerala, Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh and Mahanadi river delta in Odisha.

Question 29.
When was the first Atomic Energy Commission established and where?
Answer:
Atomic Energy Commission was established in 1948; while the Atomic Energy Institute at Trombay was established in 1954, which was renamed as the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre in 1967.

Question 30.
Name the important features of non- conventional energy sources.
Answer:
Important features of non-conventional energy sources are:

• Equitable distribution
• Environment friendly
• More sustained eco-friendly and cheaper after initial cost is taken care of.

Question 31.
Solar energy is the hope of future. Discuss.
Answer:
Solar energy is the hope of future because it is:

• Cost competitive
• Environment friendly

Question 32.
What are the advantages of bio-energy?
Answer:

• Enhance self-reliance
• Reduce environmental pollution
• Reduce pressure on fuel wood
• Conversion of municipal waste into energy.

Question 33.
Why do we need to conserve resources?
Answer:

• They are limited in number
• Exhaustible
• More time to replenish
• For sustainable development

Question 34.
Write two important uses of coal.
Answer:

• Generation of thermal power
• Smelting of iron ore for steel

Question 35.
When was the first geo-thermal energy usage attempt made? Is there any geo-thermal plant in India?
OR
Where was the first underground heat tapped?
Answer:
The first successful (1890) attempt to tap the underground heat was made in the city of Boise, Idaho (U.S.A.), where a hot water pipe network was built to give heat to the surrounding buildings. This plant is still working. In India, a geothermal energy plant has been commissioned at Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh.

Question 36.
Name one bio-energy effort made by India.
Answer:
One bio-energy project converting municipal waste into energy is situated at Okhla in Delhi

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give an account of the distribution of bauxite in India. .
Answer:
Bauxite is used in manufacturing of aluminium. It is found mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite rocks occurring extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts of the country.

Odisha happens to be the largest producer of Bauxite. Ralahandi and Sambalpur are the leading producers. The other two areas which have been increasing their production are Bolangir and Koraput. The patlands of Jharkhand in Lohardaga have rich deposits.

Bhavanagar, Jamnagar in Gujarat have the major deposits. Chhattisgarh has bauxite deposits in Amarkantak plateau while Katni-Jabalpur area and Balaghat in M.P. have important deposits of bauxite.

Kolaba, Thane, Ratnagiri, Satara, Pune and Kolhapur in Maharashtra are important producers. Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Goa are minor producers of bauxite.

Question 2.
What are the uses of coal? Where is it found in India?
Answer:
Coal is one of the important minerals which is mainly used in the generation of thermal power and smelting of iron ore. Coal occurs in rock sequences mainly of two geological ages, namely Gondwana and tertiary deposits. About 80 per cent of the coal deposits in India is of bituminous type and is of non-coking grade. The most important Gondwana coal fields of India are located in Damodar Valley.

They lie in Jharkhand-Bengal coal belt and the important coal fields in this region are Raniganj, Jharia, Bokaro, Giridih, Karanpura. Jharia is the largest coal field followed by Raniganj. Godavari, Mahanadi and Sone river valleys also have coal deposits.

The most important coal mining centres are Singrauli in Madhya Pradesh, Korba in Chhattisgarh, Talcher and Rampur in Odisha, Chanda-Wardha, Kamptee and Bander in Maharashtra and Singareni in Telangana and Pandur in Andhra Pradesh.

Tertiary coals occur in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya and Nagaland. It is extracted from Darangiri, Cherrapunji, Mewlong and Langrin (Meghalaya); Makum, Jaipur and Nazira in upper Assam, Namchik – Namphuk (Arunachal Pradesh) ai d Kalakot (Jammu and Kashmir). Besides, the brown coal or lignite occur in the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu, Pondicherry, Gujarat and Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 3.
Which are the prospective areas of natural gases in India?
Answer:
Natural gas is obtained alongwith oil in all the oil fields but exclusive reserves have been located along the eastern coast as well as (Tamil Nadu, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh), Tripura, Rajasthan and off¬shore wells in Gujarat and Maharashtra.

Question 4.
List the major nuclear power stations along with the states.
Answer:
The important nuclear power projects are Tarapur (Maharashtra), Rawatbhata near Kota (Rajasthan), Kalpakkam(Tamil Nadu), Narora (Uttar Pradesh), Kaiga (Karnataka) and Kakarapara (Gujarat).

Question 5.
What are the advantages of solar energy?
Answer:
Solar thermal technology has some relative advantages over all other non¬renewable energy sources. It is cost competitive, environment friendly and easy to construct. Solar energy is 7 per cent more effective than coal or oil based plants and 10 per cent more effective than nuclear plants. It is generally used more in appliances like heaters, crop dryers, cookers, etc. The western part of India has greater potential for the development of solar energy in Gujarat and Rajasthan.

Question 6.
How is geothermal energy tapped?
OR
What is the source of geothermal energy?
Answer:
When the magma from the interior of earth, comes out on the surface, tremendous heat is released. This heat energy can successfully be tapped and converted to electrical energy. Apart from this, the hot water that gushes out through the geyser wells is also used in the generation of thermal energy. It is popularly known as Geothermal energy. This energy is now considered to be one of the key energy sources which can be developed as an alternate source. The hot springs and geysers are being used since medieval period.

Question 7.
Name the agencies involved in exploration of minerals.
Answer:
Geological Survey of India (GSI), Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC), Mineral Exploration Corporation Ltd. (MECL), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Indian Bureau of Mines (IBM), Bharat Gold Mines Ltd. (BGML), Hindustan Copper Ltd. (HCL), National Aluminium Company Ltd. (NALCO) and the Departments of Mining and Geology undertake systematic surveying, prospecting and exploration for minerals in various states.

Question 8.
Where are majority of petroleum reserves found?
Answer:
Petroleum reserves are located in the sedimentary basins of Assam, Gujarat and Mumbai High, i.e. off-shore region in the Arabian Sea. New reserves have been located in the Krishna-Godavari and Kaveri basins.

Question 9.
Write the uses of petroleum.
Answer:
Uses of petroleum are as follows:

• Essential source of energy for all internal combustion engines in automobiles, railways and aircrafts.
• By-products are processed in petro chemical industries such as fertilisers, synthetic rubber, synthetic fibre, medicines, vaseline, lubricants wax, soap and cosmeti.

Question 10.
Give the distribution of petroleum reserves in India.
Answer:

• Crude petroleum occurs in sedimentary rocks of the tertiary period.
• Before 1956, Digboi in Assam was the only oil producing region. But now in Assam, Digboi, Naharkatiya and Moran are important. Oilfields of Gujarat are Ankleshwar, Mehsana, etc.
• Mumbai High which lies 160 km off Mumbai was discovered in 1973.
• Natural gas have been found in exploratory wells in Krishna-Godavari a!nd Kaveri basin on the east coast.

Question 11.
Name the important belts of mineral reserves in India.
Answer:.
Minerals are generally concentrated in three broad belts in India.

• The North-Eastern Plateau Region: Chotanagpur (Jharkhand), Odisha Plateau, West Bengal and parts of Chhattisgarh.
• The South-Western Plateau Region: Karnataka, Goa and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala.
• The North-Western Region: Aravali in Rajasthan and part of Gujarat

Question 12.
Name the minerals which are found in South-Western plateau region belt of India.
Answer:
This belt extends over Karnataka, Goa and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala. This belt is rich in ferrous metals and bauxite. It also contains high grade iron ore, manganese and limestone. This belt packs in coal deposits except Neyveli lignite. Kerala has deposits of monazite and thorium, bauxite clay. Goa has iron ore deposits.

Question 13.
Write the uses and distribution of mica.
Answer:
Uses:

• Di-electric property
• Voltage resistant distribution Distribution: Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan followed by Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, M.P. and Nellore district have the best quality mica.

Question 14.
What are the features of minerals?
Answer:
Minerals have certain features:

• They are either organic like fossil fuels or inorganic like mica, limestone, etc.
• There is an inverse relationship iri quality and quantity of minerals i.e., good quality minerals are less in quantity as compared to low quality minerals.
• They contain either iron like iron ore or don’t have iron content like copper, bauxite, etc.
• These minerals take long time to develop geologically and they cannot be replenished immediately at the time of need.
• All minerals are exhaustible over time. None of the minerals is a renewable source but many of them can be recycled and re-used.

Question 15.
Mention the uses of manganese and its producing states.
Answer:
Uses:

• Manganese is an important raw material for smelting of iron ore.
• It is also used for manufacturing ferro alloys.

Manganese Producing states:

• Manganese deposits are found in almost all geological formations, however, it is mainly associated with Dharwar system.
• Odisha is the leading producer of manganese. Here major mines are located in the cefttral part of the iron ore belt of India, particularly in Bonai, Kendujhar, Sundergarh, Gangpur, Koraput, Kalahandi and Bolangir.
• Karnataka is an another major producer and here the mines are located in Dharwar, Bellary, Belgaum, North Canara, Chikmagalur, Shimoga, Chitradurg and Tumkur.
• Maharashtra is also an important producer of manganese which is mined in Nagpur, Bhandara and Ratnagiri districts.
• Andhra Pradesh, Goa, and Jharkhand are other minor producers of manganese.

Question 16.
Why is it necessary to develop bio-energy in India?
Answer:
Bio-energy is a potential source of energy conversion. It can be converted into electrical energy, heat energy or gas for cooking.
Necessity for India:

• It will also process the waste and garbage and produce energy.
• This will improve economic life of rural areas in developing countries.
• It will reduce environmental pollution.
• It will enhance self-reliance.
• It will reduce pressure on fuel wood.

Question 17.
Classify minerals based on chemical and physical properties. Explain them.
Answer:
On the basis of chemical and physical properties, minerals may be grouped under two main categories of metallics and non-metallics. Metallic minerals are the sources of metals. Iron ore, copper, gold produce metal and are included in this category. Non-metallic minerals are either organic in origin such as fossil fuels also known as mineral fuels which are derived from the buried animal and plant life such as coal and petroleum. Other type of non-metallic minerals are inorganic in origin such as mica, limestone and graphite, etc.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is conservation of resources essential? Suggest steps to conserve minerals.
Answer:
In order to achieve economic development with least environmental impact, the goals of sustainable development must be kept in mind in order to protect the future generations. There is an urgent need to conserve the resources.

• The alternative energy sources like solar power, wind, wave, geothermal energy are inexhaustible resource. These should be developed to replace the exhaustible resources.
• In case of metallic minerals, use of scrap metals will enable recycling of metals. Use of scrap is specially significant in metals like copper, lead and zinc in which India’s reserves are meagre.
• Use of substitutes for scarce metals may also reduce their consumption.
• Export of strategic and scarce minerals must be reduced, so that the existing reserve may be used for a longer period.

Question 2.
Describe the development of nuclear energy in India and challenges in its growth.
Answer:
Nuclear energy has emerged as a viable source in recent times.

• Important minerals used for the generation of nuclear energy are uranium and thorium.
• Uranium deposits occur in the Dharwar rocks. These are known to occur in several locations along the Singbhum Copper belt. It is also found in Udaipur, Alwar and Jhunjhunu districts of Rajasthan, Durg district of Chhattisgarh, Bhandara district of Maharashtra and Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh.
• Thorium is mainly obtained from monazite and lignite in the sands of beach along the coasts of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
• World’s richest monazite deposits occur in Palakkad and Kollam districts ofKerala, near Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh and Mahanadi river delta in Odisha.

Question 3.
Write a note on the three belts of mineral distribution.
Answer:
Minerals are generally concentrated in three broad belts in India. These belts are:

• The North-Eastern Plateau Region: This belt covers Chhotanagpur (Jharkhand), Odisha Plateau, West Bengal and parts of Chhattisgarh. It has variety of minerals—iron ore, coal, manganese, bauxite, mica.
• The South-Western Plateau Region: This belt extends from Karnataka, Goa and contiguous Tamil Nadu uplands and Kerala. It is rich in ferrous metals and bauxite. It also contains high grade iron ore, manganese and limestone. This belt lacks in coal deposits except Neyveli lignite. Kerala has deposits of monazite and thorium, bauxite clay. Goa has iron ore deposits.
• The North-Western Region: This belt extends along Aravali in Rajasthan and part of Gujarat and minerals are associated with Dharwar system of rocks. Copper, zinc have been major minerals. Rajasthan is rich in building stones i.e. sandstone, granite, marble. Gypsum and Fuller’s earth deposits are also extensive. Dolomite and limestone provide raw materials for cement industiy. Gujarat is known for its petroleum deposits. Gujarat and Rajasthan have rich sources of salt. The Himalayan belt: It is another mineral belt where copper, lead, zinc, cobalt and tungsten are known to occur. Assam valley has mineral oil deposits.Oil resources are also found in off-shore- areas near Mumbai Coast (Mumbai High).

Question 4.
Where does India stand as far as iron resource is concerned? Write a note on its distribution.
Answer:
India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. It has the largest reserve of iron ore in Asia. About 95 per cent of total reserves of iron ore is located in the States of Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Goa, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
In Odisha, iron ore occurs in a series of hill ranges in Sundergarh, Mayurbhanj and Jhar. The important mines are Gurumahisani, Sulaipet, Badampahar (Mayurbhaj), Kiruburu (Kendujhar) and Bonai (Sundergarh).

Jharkhand has some of the oldest iron ore mines and most of the iron and steel plants are located around them. Most of the important mines such as Noamundi and Gua are located in Poorbi and Pashchimi Singhbhum districts. This
belt further extends to Durg, Dantewara and Bailadila. Dalli, and Rajhara in Durg are the important mines of iron ore in the country.
In Karnataka, iron ore deposits occur in Sandur-Hospet area of Ballari district, Baba Budan hills and Kudremukh in Chikkamagaluru district and parts of Shivamogga, Chitradurg and Tumakuru districts.

The districts of Chandrapur, Bhandara and Ratnagiri in Maharashtra, Karimnagar and Warangal district of Telangana, Kurnool, Cuddapah and Anantapur districts of Andhra Pradesh, Salem and Nilgiris districts of Tamil Nadu are other iron mining regions. Goa has also emerged as an important producer of iron ore.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Differentiates

Question 1.
Distinguish between conventional & non conventional sources of energy.
Answer:

Question 2.
Differentiate between ferrous and non-ferrous minerals.
Answer:

Question 3.
Differentiate the coal on the basis of geological ages.
Answer:

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
Nuclear energy is the hope of future in India. Give a few points.
Answer:
Nuclear energy is the hope of future in India. It is justified because:

• India is deficient in mineral oil and its ‘ coal reserves would also exhaust soon.
• India has not been able to develop the potential of hydel power to such extent that it may depend on it fully because of some constraints.
• Technical know-how to harness nuclear energy is available.
• This power can play a complementary role in industrial and agricultural development in India.
• Availability of sufficient reserves of nuclear minerals like uranium and thorium.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Map Based Questions

Question 1.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Mineral Deposits (Ferrous) — Balaghat, Nagpur, Durg, Sundergarh, Kendujhar, Mayurbhanj, Ratnagiri, Bailadila, Bellary, Shimoga
Answer:

Question 2.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Non-ferrous Minerals — Khetri, Udaipur, Katni, Amarkantak, Hazaribagh, Bilaspur, Singhbhum, Koraput.
Answer:

Question 3.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Coal Producing States — Bokaro, Jharia, Korba, Singareni, Talcher, Neyveli, Raniganj
Answer:

Question 4.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Oil Refineries — Bhatinda, Panipat, Mathura, Barauni, Guwahati, Jamnagar, Mangaluru, Haldia, Tatipaka.
Answer:

Class 12 Geography Chapter 7 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Name the place of Maharashtra, where an atomic power station is located. (A.I. 2010)
Answer:
Tarapur.

Question 2.
Name the place of Himachal Pradesh where a geothermal energy plant is located. (Foreign 2010)
Answer:
Manikaran.

Question 3.
Classify minerals on the basis of chemical and physical properties. (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
Classification of minerals:

• Metallic
• Non-metallic

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Distinguish between thermal electricity and hydro-electricity by stating three points. (CBSE 2006, 15)
Answer:
Thermal electricity:

• Electricity which is produced by fossil fuel as coal, petroleum and natural gas.
• The source of generation of thermal power is available in sizeable amount.
• The thermal electricity plant has an adverse impact on the environment.

Hydro-electricity:

• Electricity which is produced by water.
• The source of generation of hydro¬electricity are renewable and abundant in size.
• The hydro-electricity plant is environment friendly.

Question 2.
Give two advantages of wind energy. Mention four states of India having favourable conditions for the development of wind energy. (CBSE 2008,13)
Answer:
Two advantages:

• Wind energy is absolutely pollution free, inexhaustible sources of energy.
• The kinetic energy of wind, through turbines is converted into electric energy.

Four states of India having favorable condition of wind energy:

• Rajasthan
• Gujarat
• Maharashtra and
• Karnataka & Tamil-Nadu.

Question 3.
Electricity is one of the greatest inventions of all times. It is mostly generated by using coal, natural gas and petroleum, which are exhaustable resources. Can you imagine the human society without electricity? This may happen in future, when all energy resources will be exhausted. Explain the values that can change this possible darkness scenario. (A.I. 2015)
Answer:
Mineral fuels like coal, petroleum, natural gas and nuclear energy are the conventional sources of energy. They are exhaustible. Sustainable energy resources are renewable. These resources can help us in future after taking great care of these resources.
Even then we should kept in mind certain thing to avoid such situation:

• Creating awareness among the masses about sustainable sources of energy.
• To develop sustainable sources of energy.
• Maximum use of renewable energy resources such as solar, wind, biomass and hydro electricity.
• Optimum use of energy resources and minimum wastage.
• Alternative energy sources like solar power, wind, wave, geothermal etc. are to be developed.

Question 3.
“The promotion of the use of non- conventional sources of energy in India is the need of the hour.” Support the statement. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:

• Non-conventional energy sources are highly valuable.
• They are the renewable energy sources like solar, wind, hydro, geothermal and biomass.
• These energy sources are more equally distributed.
• They are environmental friendly.
• Non-conventional energy sources will provide more sustained energy.
• They are also cheaper energy sources after the initial cost is taken care of.

Question 4.
Explain the significance of bio-energy to human kind in India. (A.I. 2016)
Answer:

• Bio-energy is a potential source of energy conversion.
• It can be converted into electrical enegy, heat energy or gas for cooking.
• It will also process the waste and garbage and produce energy.
• This will improve economic life of rural areas in the country.
• It reduces environment pollution, enhance self-reliance and reduce pressure on fuel wood.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Which are the two main ferrous minerals found in India? Describe four characteristics of each. (Foreign 2009)
Answer:
Iron ore and Manganese are the two main ferrous minerals found in India. Characteristics of iron ore:

• Haematite and magnetite are the two main types of iron ore found in our countiy.
• Due to its superior quality, it has great demand in international market.
• It occurs in close proximity to the coal fields.
• It provides a strong base for the development of metallurgical industries. Characteristics of Manganeses:
• It is an important raw material for smelting of iron ore.
• It is used for manufacturing ferro alloys,
• It is mainly associated with Dharwar system.
• It is used in making glass and steel.

Question 2.
Name five sources of non-conventional energy in India and also state one potential area of each source of non- conventional energy. (CBSE 2008, 13)
Answer:
Light from sun, tidal waves, winds, biogas and geothermal energy are non- conventional sources of energy. The non- conventional sources are cheap and can be tapped easily. They are pollution free as they do not have smoke or ash when used. They have no environmental hazards,

• Solar Energy: India is a tropical country so sunlight is abundantly available in all the parts of country except north¬eastern India. Solar energy is used for cooking, water heating and space heating. Solar cooker water pumps, road lights, telephone etc. are being operated by solar energy.
• Wind Energy: Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Odisha are using wind energy. Effort is being made to develop wind generators, wind mills, battery charging system.
• Geothermal Energy: Development activities related to a cold storage unit and 5kw power plant both based on geothermal energy at Manikaram (HP) are in full progress.
• Biogas: It is most important renewable sources of energy in rural areas. As by-product a biogas plant produces enriched the fertilizer. It is used as cooking fuel and also used for lighting and power generation.
• Tidal Energy: Oceanic tide can be used to generate electricity food gate dams are built across inlets. During high tide water flows into the inlets and gate trapped, when the gate is closed. Gulf of Kachchh provides ideal condition for utilizing tidal energy.

Question 3.
‘The non-conventional sources of energy will provide more sustained, eco-friendly and cheaper energy if the initial cost is taken care of.” Examine the statement. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Non-conventional sources of energy:

• Non-conventional energy sources are solar, wind, tidal, geothermal and biomass. All these sources are sustainable.
• These are more equitably distributed.
• They are eco-friendly.
• In the long run they are cost effective.
• Wind energy like other non-conventional sources of energy is absolutely pollution free.
• Ocean currents are store house of infinite energy.
• Bio-energy is also a potential source of energy. It reduces pressure on fuel wood and saves forests as well.
• Geothermal energy can successfully be tapped, converted to electrical energy and can be developed as an effective source of energy.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 7 Mineral and Energy Resources appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 8 Manufacturing Industries

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answers of the following from the given options:

Question 1.(i)
Which is not a factor of industrial location?
(a) Market
(b) Capital
(c) Population Density
(d) Power
Answer:
(c) Population Density

Question 1.(ii)
The earliest Iron and Steel Company to be established in India was:
(a) IISCO
(b) TISCO
(c) Visvesvaraiya Iron and Steel Works
(d) Mysore Iron and Steel Works
Answer:
(b) TISCO

Question 1.(iii)
The first modern cotton mill was established in Mumbai because:
(a) Mumbai is a port
(b) It is located near cotton growing area
(c) Mumbai was the financial centre
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

Question 1.(iv)
The nucleus of the Hugli Industrial Region is:
(a) Kolkata-Haora (Howrah)
(b) Kolkata-Rishra
(c) Kolkata-Medinipur
(d) Kolkata-Konnagar
Answer:
(a) Kolkata-Haora (Howrah)

Question 1.(v)
Which one of the following is the second largest producer of sugar:
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(b) Uttar Pradesh

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
Why do you think that the iron and steel industry is basic to the industrial development of any country?
Answer:
Iron and steel are basic to economic development of any country because they are the basic raw material for production of all other goods- both industrial and commercial. All other industries are based on the products manufactured from these industries. Until and unless iron and steel are produced, even a nail, which is basic to all constructions, cannot be manufactured.

Question 2.(ii)
Name the two sectors of the cottage textile industries. How are they different?
Answer:
The cotton textile industry in India can be broadly divided into two sectors, the organised sector and the unorganised sector. The decentralised sector includes cloth ‘ produced in handlooms (including Khadi) and powerlooms. The production of the organised sector has drastically fallen from 81 per cent in the mid-twentieth century to only about 6 per cent in 2000. At present, the powerlooms on the decentralised sector produce more than the handloom sector.

Question 2.(iii)
Why is the sugar industry a seasonal industry?
Answer:
Sugar industry is totally based on sugarcane as raw material. Sugarcane is a seasonal crop harvested annually. Since sugarcane is a perishable crop and its sucrose content starts to decline within 24 hours only, therefore sugarcane cannot be stored for production of sugar later in the year. As a result production of sugar is limited to only harvesting time of the sugarcane.

Question 2.(iv)
What is the raw material base for the petrochemical industry? Name some of the products of this industry.
Answer:
Crude petroleum is the raw material for the petroleum industry. It is refined to obtain various products, which collectively are referred to as petrochemical industries.This group of industries is divided into four sub-groups:

• polymers,
• synthetic fibres,
• elastomers, and
• surfactant intermediate.

Question 2.(v)
What is the major impact of Information Technology (IT) revolution in India?
Answer:
The advancement in information technology has had a profound influence on the country’s economy. The Information Technology (IT) revolution opened up new possibilities of economic and social transformation. The IT and IT enabled business process outsourcing (ITES- BPO) services continue to be on a robust growth path. Indian software industry has emerged as one of the fastest growing sectors in the economy. The software industry has surpassed electronic hardware production. The Indian government has created a number of software parks in the country. Also it has a large number of females employed in it.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
How did the Swadeshi movement give a major impetus to the cotton textiles industry?
Answer:
Swadeshi movement was the movement, which was started by Gandhiji as a step towards achieving self-sufficiency in production. British goods were boycotted and Indian manufactured products were promoted. British in India deepened their roots by destroying indigenous industries. Swadeshi hit on this very policy of the government. People destroyed foreign manufactured goods in huge quantities; they started spinning for their own clothes. Capital was collected and new mills were setup throughout the country under the impetus provided by the swadeshi movement. New mills, which are still functioning, sprang up throughout the country. Khadi cloth and khadi industry were revived, the traditional artisans who have lost their livelihood were reabsorbed under the swadeshi economy as a movement against the British led economy. Not only large-scale industries were set up but also small and cottage industry was revived. Since under the wave nationalism people were adopting khadi- Indian handloom, the demand for the Indian cotton shot up, hence the entire indigenous cotton industry of India was revived. It also helped in generating employment opportunities leading to overall growth in national income.

Question 3.(ii)
What do you understand by liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation? How have they helped industrial development in India?
Answer:
The New Industrial Policy was announced in 1991. The major objectives of this policy were to build on the gains already made, correct the distortions or weaknesses that have crept in, maintain a sustained growth in productivity and gainful employment and attain international competitiveness. Within this policy, measures initiated are:

• abolition of industrial licensing,
• free entry to foreign technology,
• foreign investment policy,
• access to capital market,
• open trade,
• abolition of phased manufacturing programme, and
• liberalized industrial location programme. The policy has three main dimensions: liberalization, privatisationand globalization.

The industrial licensing system has been abolished for all except six industries related to security, strategic or environmental concerns. At the same time, the number of industries reserved for public sector since 1956 have been reduced from 17 to 4. Industries related to atomic energy, substances specified in the Schedule of the Department of Atomic Energy as well as Railways have remained under the public sector. The government also has decided to offer a part of the shareholdings in the public enterprises to financial institutions, general public and workers. The threshold limits of assets have been scrapped and no industiy requires prior approval for investing in the delicensed sector. They only need to submit a memorandum in the prescribed format.

In the new industrial policy, Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) has been seen as a supplement to the domestic investment for achieving a higher level of economic development. FDI benefits the domestic industry as well as the consumers by providing technological upgradation, access to global managerial skills and practices, optimum use of natural and human resources, etc. Keeping all this in mind, foreign investment has been liberalized and the government has permitted access to an automatic route for Foreign Direct Investment. The government has also announced changes in the industrial location policies. Industries are discouraged in or very close to large cities due to environmental reasons.

The industrial policy has been liberalized to attract private investor both domestic and multi-nationals. New sectors like, mining, telecommunications, highway construction and management have been thrown open to private companies. Globalization means integrating the economy of the country with the world economy. Under this process, goods and services along with capital, labour and resources can move freely from one nation to another. The thrust of globalisation has been to increase the domestic and external competition through extensive application of market mechanism and facilitating dynamic relationship with the foreign investors and suppliers of technology. In Indian context, this implies:

• opening of the economy to foreign direct investment by providing facilities to foreign companies to invest in different fields of economies activity in India;
• removing restrictions and obstacles to the entry of multi-national companies in India;
• allowing Indian companies to enter into foreign collaboration in India and also encouraging them to set up joint ventures abroad;
• carrying out massive import liberalization programmes by switching over from quantitative restrictions to tariffs in the first place, and then bringing down the level of import duties considerably; and
• instead of a set of export incentives, opting for exchange rate adjustments for promoting export.

A breakup of foreign collaboration approval reveals that the major share went to core, priority sectors while infrastructural sector was untouched. Further, gap between developed and developing states has become wider. Major share of both domestic investment as well as foreign direct investment went to already developed states. Uttar Pradesh, the state with the largest population has only 8 per cent. In spite of several concessions, seven north-eastern states could get less than 1 per cent of the proposed investment. In fact, economically weaker states could not compete with the developed states in open market in attracting industrial investment proposals and hence they are likely to suffer from these processes.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why manufacturing is significant?
Answer:
Manufacturing industries provide employment to a large number of people either directly or indirectly and as well as contribute significantly to the national economy. They provide us with all the manufactured goods for our use.

Question 2.
For which industries market plays an important role for their location.
Answer:
Cotton textiles and petroleum based industries.

Question 3.
Which state has the largest number of cotton mills?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu.

Question 4.
Where and when was the first cotton mill set up?
Answer:
In Mumbai, 1854.

Question 5.
Which is the 2nd most important agro- based industry in India?
Answer:
Sugar industry.

Question 6.
Which state is the largest producer of sugar?
Answer:
Maharashtra.

Question 7.
What is the contribution of IT industry towards India’s GDP?
Answer:
The IT software and services industry account for almost 2 per cent of India’s GDP.

Question 8.
When was the new Industrial policy undertaken?
Answer:
The new Industrial policy was undertaken in 1991.

Question 9.
How many Major Industrial Region are there?
OR
Name the important industrial regions of India.
Answer:
There are eight major Industrial Regions:

• Mumbai-Pune Region,
• Hugh Region,
• Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu Region,
• Gujarat Region,
• Chotanagpur Region,
• Vishakhapatnam-Guntur Region,
• Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut Region, and
• Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram Region.

Question 10.
Chhotanagpur Industrial belt primarily occupies which states?
Answer:
Jharkhand, parts of Odisha and West Bengal.

Question 11.
What is manufacturing?
Answer:
Manufacturing refers to mass production of all/any kinds of identical goods with the use of power, specialized labour and a factory. It transforms raw materials into finished goods of high value. It is done in either by hand or power driven machinery.

Question 12.
Classify industries on the basis of size.
Answer:
On the basis of size industries are of three types:

1. Cottage industries (Household Industries)
2. Medium scale industries
3. Large scale industries

Question 13.
Classify industries on the basis of ownership.
Answer:
On the basis of ownership, industries are of three types:

1. Private sector industry
2. Public sector industry
3. Joint sector industry and cooperative sector

Question 14.
Classify industries on the basis of product.

• Basic industry
• Capital-goods industries
• Consumer goods industries
• Intermediate goods industries

Question 15.
Classify industries on the basis of the use of their products.
Answer:
On the basis of the use of their products industries are classified as:

• Basic goods industries
• Capital goods industries
• Intermediate goods industries
• Consumer goods industries.

Question 16.
When and with whose collaboration was Rourkela Steel Plant established?
Answer:
The Rourkela Steel plant was set up in 1959 in the Sundargarh district of Odisha in collaboration with Germany.

Question 17.
When and with whose collaboration was Bhilai Steel Plant established?
Answer:
The Bhilai Steel Plant was established with Russian collaboration in Durg district of Chhattisgarh and started production in 1959.

Question 18.
Which industries are included in traditional industries?
Answer:
Iron and steel industry, cotton industry and sugar industry are considered as traditional industries.

Question 19.
Why are petrochemical industries and IT industry considered as modern industries?
Answer:
These industries are considered as the most modern industries because they make use of latest modern technology machinery and computerized methodology.

Question 20.
Who started the first naphtha based chemical industry?
OR
Name the first Naptha based chemical industries.
Answer:
The National Organic Chemical Industries Limited (NOCIL) established in private sector in 1961, started the first naphtha-based chemical industry in Mumbai.

Question 21.
What was the impact of the policy of dereservation in 1991?
Answer:
The number of industries reserved for public sector since 1956 have been reduced from 17 to 4. Industries related to atomic energy, substances specified in the Schedule of the Department of Atomic Energy as well as Railways have remained under the public sector.

Question 22.
Which sectors have received the highest FDI in India?
Answer:
In India larger parts of this investment have gone to domestic appliances, finance, services, electronics and electrical equipment, and food and dairy products.

Question 23.
Name the raw materials essential for iron and steel industry. Why should they be located near the source of its raw materials?
Answer:
The raw materials essential for Iron and Steel Industry are iron-ore, coking coal, limestone, dolomite, manganese and fire clay. Because all these raw materials are weight losing, therefore, the Iron and Steel industry should be located near the source of raw materials.

Question 24.
Iron and steel industry is only in public sector. Why?
Answer:
Because no investor is willing to invest in the heavy and bulky industries as the capital is huge and benefit is incurred in a long span of time.

Question 25.
What does TISCO stand for?
Answer:
Tata Iron and Steel Company.

Question 26.
What does IISCO stand for?
Answer:
Indian Iron and Steel Company.

Question 27.
Name the new steel plants that were set up in fourth plan period. How are they different from earlier ones?
Answer:
Vizag Steel Plant, Vijaynagar Steel Plant & Salem Steel Plant. Paradip is the latest and new steel plant is under construction in Odisha. They are different from the earlier ones as they are away from the main raw material sources.

Question 28.
Which city is referred to as the petrochemical industry?
Answer:
The city of Mumbai is referred to as the petrochemical industiy.

Question 29.
Name .the important petrochemical centres of India.
Answer:
Important centres include:

• Auraiya (UP)
• Jamnagar, Gandhinagar and Hajira (Gujarat)
• Nagothane, Ratnagiri (Maharashtra)
• Haldia (West Bengal)
• Vishakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh)

Question 30.
What are polymers made from?
Answer:
Polymers are made from ethylene propylene.

Question 31.
Name the important minor industrial regions of India.
Answer:
Minor industrial regions of India are:

• Ambala-Amritsar
• Saharanpur-Muzaffarnagar-Bijnor
• Indore-Dewas-Ujjain
• Jaipur-Ajmer
• Kolhapur-South Kannada
• Northern Malabar
• Middle Malabar
• Adilabad-Nizamabad
• Allahabad-Varanasi-Mirzapur
• Bhojpur-Munger
• Durg-Raipur
• Bilaspur-Korba
• Brahmaputra valley

Question 32.
Name the important industrial districts of India.
Answer:
Important industrial districts of India are:

• Kanpur
• Agra
• Gwalior
• Lucknow
• Cuttack
• Aligarh
• Purnia
• Bareilly
• Hyderabad
• Nagpur
• Bhopal
• Jalpaiguri
• Gorakhpur
• Kota
• Jabalpur

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
List the significance of the secondary sector.
Answer:
Secondary sector processes primary products into finished goods of higher value. It provides employment to a large number of people and contributes to national income.

Question 2.
Why are synthetic fibres gaining importance? Name some locations where they are located.
Answer:
Synthetic fibres are widely used in the manufacturing of fabrics because of their inherent strength, durability, washability, and resistance to shrinkage. Industries manufacturing nylon and polyester yarns are located at Kota, Pimpri, Mumbai, Modinagar, Pune, Ujjain, Nagpur and Udhna. Acrylic staple fibre is manufactured at Kota and Vadodara.

Question 3.
What is knowledge based industry? Why is it gaining importance? ‘
Answer:
The advancement in information technology has had a profound influence on the country’s economy. The Information Technology (IT) revolution opened up new possibilities of economic and social transformation. The IT and IT enabled business process outsourcing (ITES-BPO) services continue to be on a robust growth path. Indian software industry has emerged as one of the fastest growing sectors in the economy.

Questions 4.
What is the impact of globalisation in India?
OR
What do you mean by globalisation in Indian context?
Answer:
The impact of globalization in India are:

• Opening of the economy to foreign direct investment by providing facilities to foreign companies to invest in different fields of economic activity in India.
• Removing restrictions and obstacles to the entry of multinational companies in India.
• Allowing Indian companies to enter into foreign collaboration in India and also encouraging them to set up joint venture’s abroad.
• Carrying out massive import liberalization programmes by switching over from quantitative restrictions to tariffs in the first place, and then bringing down the level of import duties considerably.
• Instead of a set of export incentives, opting for exchange rate adjustments for promoting export.

Question 5.
Why there is spatial variation in FDI in India?
Answer:
Major share of both domestic investment as well as foreign direct investment went to already developed states. For example, out of the total proposed investment by the industrial entrepreneurs during 1991-2000 nearly one fourth (23 per cent) was for industrially developed Maharashtra, 17 per cent for Gujarat, 7 per cent for Andhra Pradesh, and about 6 per cent for Tamil Nadu while Uttar Pradesh, the state with the largest population has only 8 per cent. In spite of several concessions, seven north-eastern states could get less than 1 per cent of the proposed investment. In fact, economically weaker states could not compete with the developed states in open market in attracting industrial investment proposals and hence they are likely to suffer from these processes.

Question 6.
How are industrial regions distributed in our country? List the indices used to identity them.
Answer:
Industries are not evenly distributed in the country. They tend to concentrate on certain locations because of the favourable locational factors.
Several indices are used to identify the clustering of industries, important among them are:

• The number of industrial units
• Number of industrial workers
• Quantum of power used for industrial purposes
• Total industrial output, and
• Value added by manufacturing, etc.

Question 7.
Give a brief description of IISCO.
Answer:
IISCO stands for The Indian Iron and Steel Company.

• Factories under it: It sets up its first factory at Hirapur and later on another at Kulti. In 1937, the Steel Corporation of Bengal was constituted in association with IISCO and set up another iron and steel producing unit at Burnpur (West Bengal).
• Present Location: All the three plants under IISCO are located very close to Damodar valley coal fields (Raniganj, Jharia, and Ramgarh).
• Material: Iron ore comes from Singhbhum in Jharkhand. Water is obtained from the Barakar river, a tributary of the Damodar.
• Ownership: Steel production from IISCO fell considerably in 1972-73 and the plants were taken over by the government.

Question 8.
Why are most of sugar mills established in sugarcane producing areas?
OR
Why are the sugarcane industries located within the cane producing areas?
Answer:
Most of sugar mills are established in sugarcane producing areas because:

• Sugarcane is a weight-losing crop. The ratio of sugar’to sugarcane varies between 9 to 12 per cent depending on its variety. Its sucrose content begins to dry during haulage after it has been harvested from the field.
• Better recovery of sugar is dependent upon its being crushed within 24 hours of its harvesting.

Question 9.
Why iron and steel industry is located in peninsular plateau?
Answer:
Iron and steel plant requires raw materials which are weight losing, heavy & bulky therefore its location is influenced by: ‘

• Raw Materials: Iron ore, coal, limestone, dolomite, manganese are weight losing and therefore, industries should be located near the source of raw materials.
• Cost: Industry should be located at place where the cost of assembling and the raw material and distribution of finished product is the lowest. Some steel plants are located near coal fields and iron ore producing areas.
• Transport: All ’ the plants are located on the trunk rail routes which connects them to large urban market.All these conditions are favorable as peninsular India and hence iron and steel is locked there.

Question 10.
What are the factors affecting cotton textile industry?
OR
What favorable conditions are present in India for development of cotton industry?
OR
Give reasons for the development of cotton textile industries in India.
Answer:
The following favorable conditions are present in India for development of cotton industry:

• It is a tropical country and cotton is the most comfortable fabric for a hot and humid climate. So demand is high.
• Large quantity of cotton is grown in India.
• Abundant skilled labour required for this industry is available in this country.
• In some areas the people are producing cotton textiles for generations find transferred the skill from one generation to the other and in the process perfected their skills.

Question 11.
Why did the development of cotton textile industries occur in and around Mumbai?
Answer:
It was very close to the cotton producing areas of Maharashtra and Gujarat. Raw cotton used to be brought to Mumbai port to be transported to England. Therefore, cotton was available in Mumabi city itself. Mumbai was the financial centre and the capital needed to start an industry was available there. Employment opportunities attracted labour in large numbers. The machinery required for a cotton textile mill could be directly imported from England.

Question 12.
Give a brief account of cotton textile industry in India.
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu has the largest number of cotton mills.
• Coimbatore is the most important centre as approximately half the mills are located there.
• In Karnataka, the cotton textile industry has developed in the cotton producing areas in the north-eastern part of the state.
• In Andhra Pradesh, it is located in Telangana region where most of the mills are spinning mills producing yarn. Most important centres are Hyderabad, Secunderbad, Warangal and Guntur.
• In U.P., Kanpur is the largest centre. The important centres are Modinagar, Hathras, Saharanpur, Lucknow and Agra.
• West Bengal has centres like Howrah, Serampur, Kolkata and Shyarri nagar.

Question 13.
Cotton textile has been facing problem. Discuss.
Answer:
Cotton textiles has been facing tough competition from synthetic cloth due to the following reasons:

• Synthetic fibres’ inherent strength, durability, washability and resistance to shrinkage.
• Old and obsolete machinery are still operating leading to lesser output.
• Irregular power supply.
• Good quality growing areas went to West Pakistan.
• Per unit production is less.

Question 14.
State the importance of sugar industry in India.
Answer:

• It is the second most important agro-based industry in the country.
• It is the largest producer of sugarcane and contributes about 8 per cent of the total sugar production in the world.
• Beside khandsari and gur are also prepared from sugarcane.
• Industry provides employment for more than 4 lakhs persons directly and a large number of farmers indirectly.

Question 15.
What are petrochemical industries?
OR
Define petrochemical industries. Name four sub-groups of the products of these industries.
Answer:
Many items are derived from crude petroleum, which provide materials for many new industries, these are known as petrochemical industries.
Some groups of these industries:

• Polymers
• Synthetic fibres
• Elastomers
• Surfactant intermediate.

Question 16.
Name the three organisations working in petrochemical under the administration control of the department of chemical and petrochemicals.
Answer:

• Indian Petrochemical Corporation Limited (IPCL): It is responsible for the manufacturing and distribution of the various petrochemicals like polymers, chemicals, fibres and fibre intermediates.
• The Petrofils Cooperative Limited (PCL): A joint venture of government of India and Weaver’s Cooperative Society. It produces polyester filament yarn and nylon chips at its two plants located at Vadodara and Naldhari in Gujarat.
• Central Institute of Plastic Engineering and Technology (CIPET) imparts training in petrochemical industries.

Question 17.
What is the major impact of IT revolution in India?
Answer:
The information technology revolution opened up new possibilities of economic and social transformation.

• The IT and IT enabled business process outsourcing (ITES-BPO) services continue to be on a robust growth path.
• Indian software industry has emerged as one of the fastest growing sectors.
• Exports of the Indian software service sector which is approx 30.32% increase from previous year.
• The software industry has surpassed electronic hardware production.
• It provides international quality products.
• A majority of MNC’s operating in the area of information technology have either software development centres or
• A major impact of this growth has been on employment creation, which is almost doubled each year.
• Many software and technology parks have emerged which are training centres for various professions.

Question 18.
Compare between the textile and steel industries.
Answer:
Points of comparison:

• Both act as basic industries.
• Both cater to other industries. Cotton textile caters to hand loom, power loom whereas Iron and steel caters to mini plants, small scale, large scale, medium – and light industries.
• Both export their produces.
• Initially both started in private sector.
• Both are dependent on primary products.

Question 19.
What role do manufacturing industries play in development of an economy?
Answer:
Manufacturing industries provide employment to labour force. By the sale of their output, economy gets momentum. It provides base for the development of primary and tertiary sectors. Therefore, they act as barometer of economic development of a country.

Question 20.
Classify industries on the basis of the nature of manufactured products.
Answer:
On the basis of the nature of the manufactured products industries are of following types:

• Metallurgical industries
• Mechanical engineering industries
• Chemical and allied industries
• Textile industries
• Food processing industries
• Electricity generation
• Electronics
• Communication industries

Question 21.
What do you mean by Foot Loose industries? Give its features.
Answer:
Foot Loose Industries are those industries which are not dependent on any specific raw materials, for example, weight losing and other such thing. They depend on specific component parts which can be obtained anywhere.

• Such industries are generally non polluting.
• They produce in small quantity with small labour force.
• The important factor in their location is accessibility by road network.
• They can be located in a wide variety of places.

Question 22.
Name some integrated steel plants of India.
Answer:
Some of the integrated steel plants in India are:

• Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO)
• Indian Iron and Steel Company (IISCO)
• Visvesvaraiya Iron and Steel Works Ltd. (VISW)
• Rourkela Steel Plant
• Bhilai Steel Plant
• Durgapur Steel Plant
• Bokaro Steel Plant

Question 23.
Name some other steel plants of India other than integrated steel plants.
Answer:
Other steel plants:

• The Vizag Steel Plant, situated in Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh is the first port-based plant which started operating in 1992.
• The Vijaynagar Steel Plant at Hospet in Karnataka was developed using indigenous technology.
• The Salem Steel Plant in Tamil Nadu was commissioned in 1982.

Question 24.
Name the steel plants of India established in collaboration with a foreign country.
Answer:
The Rourkela Steel Plant was set up in 1959 in the Sundargarh district of Odisha in collaboration with Germany. The Bhilai Steel Plant was established with Russian collaboration in Durg District of Chhattisgarh and started production in 1959. Durgapur Steel Plant, in West Bengal, was set up in collaboration with the government of the United Kingdom and started production in 1962.
Bokaro Steel Plant was set up in 1964 at Bokaro with Russian collaboration

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why most of the iron and steel industries are located in the Chhotanagpur plateau?
Answer:
This region extends over Jharkhand, northern Odisha and western West Bengal and is known for the heavy metallurgical industries.
This region owes its development to the discovery of coal in the Damodar Valley and metallic and non-metallic minerals in Jharkhand and northern Odisha. Proximity of coal, iron ore and other minerals facilitated the location of heavy industries in this region. Six large integrated iron and steel plants at Jamshedpur, Burnpur- Kulti, Durgapur, Bokaro and Rourkela are located within this region.

To meet the power requirement, thermal and hydroelectric plants have been constructed in the Damodar Valley. This region is well connected to the transportation network between the metros of Mumbai and Kolkata and water ways. Water for the plants is easily available from Subarnarekha and it’s tributary. Kolkata port is nearby. Densely populated surrounding regions provide cheap labour and Hugli region provides vast market for its industries. Heavy engineering, machine tools, fertilisers, cement, paper, locomotives and heavy electricals are some of the important industries in this region. Important centres are Ranchi, Dhanbad, Chaibasa, Sindri, Hazaribag, Jamshedpur, Bokaro, Rourkela, Durgapur, Asansol and Dalmianagar.

Question 2.
Explain different phases of development of cotton industry in India.
Answer:
The cotton textile industry is one of the traditional industries of India. In the ancient and the medieval times, it used to be only a cottage industry. India was famous worldwide for the production of muslin, a very fine variety of cotton cloth, calicos, chintz and other different varieties of fine cotton cloth.

Initially, the British did not encourage the development of the indigenous cotton textile industry. They exported raw cotton to their mills in Manchester and Liverpool and brought back instead the finished products to be sold in India. In 1854, the first modern cotton mill was established in Mumbai. Subsequently, two more mills, the Shahpur Mill and the Calico Mill were established in Ahmedabad. By 1947, the number of mills in India went up to 423 but the scenario changed after partition, and this industry suffered a major recession.

After independence India was left with 409 mills and only 29 per cent of the cotton producing areas. After Independence, this industry gradually recovered and eventually flourished. After 1921, with the development of the railway network other cotton textile centres expanded rapidly. In southern India, mills were set up at Coimbatore, Madurai and Bangalore. In Central India, Nagpur, Indore, Solapur and Vadodara became cotton textile centres. Cotton textile mills were set up at Kanpur based on local investment.

Tamil Nadu has the largest number of mills and most of them produce yarn rather than cloth. Coimbatore has emerged as the most important centre with nearly half the mills located there. Chennai, Madurai, Tirunelveli, Tuticorin, Thanjavur, Ramanathapuram and Salem are the other important centres. In Karnataka, the cotton textile industry has developed in the cotton producing areas in the north-eastern part of the state. Davangere, Hubli, Bellary, Mysore and Bangalore are important centres. In Andhra Pradesh, the cotton textile industry is located in the cotton producing Telangana region, where most of the mills are spinning mills producing yarn. The important centres are Hyderabad, Secunderabad, Warangal and Guntur. In Uttar Pradesh, Kanpur is the largest centre. Some of the other important centres are Modinagar, Hathras, Saharanpur, Agra and Lucknow. In West Bengal, the cotton mills are located in the Hugli region.

Question 3.
Explain different phases of development of petrochemical industry in India.
Answer:
Many items are derived from crude petroleum, which provide raw materials for many new industries, these are collectively known as petrochemical industries.
This group of industries is divided into four sub-groups:

• Polymers
• Synthetic fibres
• Elastomers
• Surfactant intermediate

Three organisations are working in the petrochemical sector under the administrative control of the Department of Chemicals and Petrochemicals.

• Indian Petrochemical Corporation Limited (IPCL) is a public sector undertaking. It is responsible for the manufacture and distribution of various petrochemicals like polymers, chemicals, fibres and fibre intermediates.
• Petrofils Cooperative Limited (PCL) is a joint venture of the Government of India and Weaver’s Cooperative Societies.
• Central Institute of Plastic Engineering and Technology (CIPET), involved in imparting training in petrochemical industry.

Polymers are made from ethylene and propylene. These materials are obtained in the process of refining crude oil. Polymers are used as raw materials in the plastic industry. The National Organic Chemicals Industries Limited (NOCIL), established in private sector in 1961, started the first naphtha based chemical industry in Mumbai. The plants located at Mumbai, Barauni, Mettur, Pimpri and Rishra are the major producers of plastic materials. Synthetic fibres are widely used in the manufacturing of fabrics because of their inherent’ strength, durability, washability, and resistance to shrinkage. Industries manufacturing nylon and polyester yarns are located at Kota, Pimpri, Mumbai, Modinagar, Pune, Ujjain, Nagpur and Udhna. Acrylic staple fibre is manufactured at Kota and Vadodara.

Question 4.
Write a detailed note on Hugli industrial area.
Answer:
It is located along the Hugli river.
Extension: This region extends from Bansberia in the north to Birlanagar in the south for a distance of about 100 km. Industries also have developed in Mednipur in the West Kolkata-Howrah from the nucleus of this industrial region.

Development: Historical, geographical, economic and political factors have contributed much to its development. It developed with the opening of river port on Hugli. Kolkata emerged as a leading centre of the country. Later, Kolkata was connected with interior parts by railway lines and road routes. Development of tea plantations in Assam and northern hills of West Bengal, the processing of indigo earlier and jute later coupled with the opening of coalfields of the Damodar Valley and iron ore deposits of the Chotanagpur plateau, contributed to the industrial development of the region.

Labour: Cheap labour available from thickly populated part of Bihar, eastern Uttar Pradesh and Odisha also contributed to its development. Kolkata, being the capital city of British India (1773-1911), attracted the British capital. The establishment of first jute mill at Rishra in 1855 ushered in the era of modern industrial clustering in this region. The major concentration of jute industry is at Haora and Bhatapara. The partition of the country in 1947 adversely affected this industrial region. Cotton textile industry also grew along with jute industry, paper, engineering, textile machinery, electrical, chemical, pharmaceuticals, fertiliser and petrochemical industries have also developed within this region. Factory of the Hindustan Motors Limited at Konnagar and diesel engine factory at Chittaranjan are landmarks of this region.
Location of petroleum refinery at Haldia has facilitated the development of a variety of industries.

Important industrial centres of this region: Kolkata, Haora, Haldia, Serampur, Rishra, Shibpur, Naihati, Kakinara, Shamnagar, Titagarh, Sodepur, Birlanagar, Bansberia, Belgurriah, Triveni, Hugli, Belur, etc.

Question 5.
What were the policies adopted under New Industrial Policy 1991? What were its objectives?
OR
Explain the objectives and measures initiated under new industrial policy announced in 1991.
Answer:
The new Industrial Policy was announced in 1991. Following measures were initiated under this policy:

• Abolition of industrial licensing,
• Free entry to foreign technology,
• Foreign investment policy,
• Access to capital market,
• Open trade,
• Abolition of phased manufacturing programme, and
• Liberalized industrial location progra¬mme.

The major objectives of this policy were as follows:

• Building on the gains already made,
• Correcting the distortions or weaknesses that have crept in,
• Maintaining a sustained growth in productivity and gainful employment and
• Last but not the least attaining inter¬national competitiveness.

Question 6.
Name the major areas where sugar industries are located?
OR
Name the major leading producing areas of sugar in India.
Answer:
Maharashtra has emerged as a leading sugar producing state in the country and produces more than one-third of the total production of the sugar in the country. Uttar Pradesh is the second largest producer of sugar. The sugar factories are concentrated in two belts – the Ganga- Yamuna doab and the Tarai region. The major sugar-producing centres in the Ganga-Yamuna doab are Saharanpur, Muzaffarnagar, Meerut, Ghaziabad, Baghpat and Bulandshahr districts; while Kheri Lakhimpur, Basti, Gonda, Gorakhpur, Bahraich are important sugar producing districts in the Tarai region. In Tamil Nadu, sugar factories are located in Coimbatore, Vellore, Tiruvanamalai, Villupuram and Tiruchchirappalli districts. Belgaum, Bellary, Mandya, Shimoga, Bijapur, and Chitradurg districts are the major producers in Karnataka.

The industry is distributed in the coastal regions, i.e. East Godavari, West Godavari, Vishakhapatnam districts and Nizamabad, and Medak districts of Telangana alongwith Chittoor district of Rayalseema.

The other states which produce sugar are Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat. Saran, Champaran, Muzaffarnagar, Siwan, Darbhanga, and Gaya are the important sugarcane producing districts in Bihar.

Question 7.
Distinguish between textile industry & Steel industry.
Answer:

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
Globalisation has widened the gap between the developed and developing states of India. Justify the statement.
Answer:
It is rightly said that globalisation has widened the gap between the developed and developing states of India.

• Major share of both domestic investment as well as foreign direct investment went to developed states. Example; Out of the total proposed investment by the industrial entrepreneurs during 1991 – 2000, 23% was for Maharashtra, 17% for Gujarat, 7% for Andhra Pradesh, 6% for Tamil Nadu while Uttar Pradesh had only 8%.
• Inspite of several concessions, seven north eastern states could get less than 1% of the proposed investment.
• Economically weaker states could not compete with the developed states in open market in attracting industrial investment proposals.

Question 2.
How does FDI benefit the economy?
Answer:
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) has been seen as a supplement to the domestic investment for achieving higher level of economic development. FDI benefits the domestic industry as well as the consumers by providing technological upgradation, access to global managerial skills and practices, optimum use of natural and human resources, etc.

Question 3.
“Iron and Steel industry is called a basic and heavy and industry”. Why? Explain.
Answer:
“Iron and steel industry is called a basic industry due to the following reasons:

• The industry forms a base for all other industries.
• No industry can be imagined that does not make use of iron and steel in one form or the other.
• The industry lays the foundation of rapid development of all other sectors in the economy – agriculture, etc.

It is a heavy industry because of the following reasons:

• Its raw materials are bulky.
• Other minerals used like limestone; manganese, etc. are also bulky.
• Coal used as source of power in blast furnaces is also bulky.
• And finally its finished products are also bulky.

Question 4.
Discuss the various locational advantages of iron and steel industry in Jamshedpur.
Answer:
Jamshedpur has many locational advantages for iron and steel industry:

• Iron ore is obtained from Noamundi and Badam Pahar.
• Coal is obtained from Joda mines in Odisha.
• Water is obtained from Subernarekha and Kharkai rivers.
• Very close to Mumbai – Kolkata railway line and about 240 km away from Kolkata which is the nearest port for the export of steel.
• Coking coal obtained from Jharia and West Bokaro coal fields.

Question 5.
Availability of labour is the biggest cause for development of Hugli industrial region. Justify.
Answer:
Cheap labour available from thickly populated parts of Bihar, eastern Uttar Pradesh and Odisha also contributed to its development. Kolkata, being the capital city of British India (1773-1911), attracted British capital. The establishment of first jute mill at Rishra in 1855 ushered in the era of modern industrial clustering in this region. The major concentration of jute industry is at Haora and Bhatapara. The partition of the country in 1947 adversely affected this industrial region. Cotton textile industry also grew along with jute industry, paper, engineering, textile machinery, electrical, chemical, pharmaceuticals, fertilisers and petrochemical industries have also developed within this region. Factory of the Hindustan Motors Limited at Konnagar and diesel engine factory at Chittaranjan are landmarks of this region. Location of petroleum refinery at Haldia has facilitated the development of a variety of industries.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Map Based Questions

Question 1.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Iron and steel plants — Bhadravati, Bhilai, Bokaro, Durgapur, Rourkela and Jamshedpur.
Answer:

Question 2.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Cotton textiles centres — Ahmedabad, Surat, Gwalior, Varanasi, Murshidabad, Pune, Nagpur, Solapur and Mysore.
Answer:

Question 3.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Software technology park — Gandhinagar, Srinagar, Mohali, Shimla, Delhi, Noida, Kanpur, Indore, Hyderabad, Bhubaneshwar.
Answer:

Question 4.
Label and locate the following on physical map of India.
Important industrial regions — Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut region, Chhotanagpur region, Mumbai-Pune Region, Bangalore-Tamil Nadu region, Gujarat region, Hugli region, Kollam Thiruvananthapuram region, Vishakhapatnam Guntur.
Answer:

Class 12 Geography Chapter 8 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What was the main reason for establishing the first cotton textile mill in Mumbai? (A.I. 2010)
Answer:
It was very close to cotton producing areas.

Question 2.
Name the iron and steel plant located in Chhattisgarh. (A.I. 2010)
Answer:
Bhilai steel plant.

Question 3.
Which is the largest sugar producing state of India? (A.I. 2010)
Answer:
Maharashtra.

Question 4.
Which state of India has the largest number of cotton mills? (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Tamil Nadu.

Question 5.
Name the two rivers that provide water to Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO). (Delhi 2013)
Answer:

• Subarnarekha
• Kharkai.

Question 6.
“Why is the large integrated steel industry located close to the source of raw material?” (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Because the raw materials such as limestone, dolomite, manganese, etc., for these industries are weight losing and heavy.

Question 7.
Explain one reason for the import of petroleum and its products is large quantities in India. (A.I. 2016)
Answer:

• Production of petroleum and its products is less than requirement in India.
• Demands is increasing due to regular increase in population.
• Rising industrialization
• Better standard of living.

Question 8.
Mention any two factors responsible for the establishment of cotton textile mills in Mumbai. (Delhi 2018)
Answer:
Factors responsible for establishment of cotton textile mills in Mumbai:

• Close proximity to the cotton producing areas of Gujarat and Maharashtra.
• Humid climate
• It was the financial centre and had the capital needed to start an industry.
• Transport facilities
• Cheap and abundant labour
• Port facilities at Mumbai
• Availability of hydro-electricity (Any two)

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Name the three leading cotton textile producing states of India and also state the most important centre of this industry in each of these states. (CBSE 2004, 06)
Answer:
Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra and Western Uttar Pradesh are the three main cotton textile producing states in India.
The three main centers of cotton industry in above states are:

• Tamil Nadu : Madurai, Coimbatore
• Maharashtra : Mumbai
• Uttar Pradesh : Kanpur

Question 2.
Explain the role of ‘Market’ and Transport’ in the location of industries in India. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Markets provide the outlets for manufactured products. Heavy machines, machine tools, heavy chemicals are located near the high demand areas as these are market oriented. Cotton textile industry is generally located in large urban centres. Petroleum refineries are also located near the markets is the transport of crude oil is easier and several products derived from them are used as raw materials in other industries. Transport: Development of any industry is very much depends on good means of transport. All the production is meant for consumption from the fields and factories, the produces is brought to the place from where consumers purchase it. With the result all industries are well linked with roads, railways or seaways main industries are directly liniked with rail routes.

Question 3.
Explain the role of ‘power’ and ‘raw material’ in the location of heavy industries in India. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Power

• It provides the motive force for machines.
• Its supply has to be ensured before the location of any industry.
• Certain industries, like aluminium and synthetic nitrogen manufacturing industries tend to be located near sources of power.
• Such industries are power intensive and require huge quantum of electricity.

Raw Materials:

• Industries using weight losing raw materials are located in the regions where raw material sources.
• Sugar mills, pulp industries, copper smelting and pig iron industry are located near their raw material sources.
• Most of the iron and steel industries are located either near coal fields or near sources of iron ore.

Question 4.
Explain any three locational factors which helped in the development of ‘Gujarat Industrial Region’. (A.l. 2013)
Answer:

• The region lies between Ahmedabad and Vadodara. Its development is associated with the location of the cotton textile industry.
• This region became an important textile region.
• Located in cotton growing area, this region has double advantage of the proximity of raw materials as well as of market.
• This discovery of oil fields led to the establishment of petrochemical industries around Ankleshwar, Vadodara and Jamnagar.

Question 5.
Study the following diagram and answer the questions that follow: (Delhi 2016)

(i) Identify and name the steel plant shown in this diagram.
(ii) Name the mining fields which supply coal and limestone to this plant.
(iii) Mention the source of water for this plant.
Answer:
(i) Tata Iron and Steel Plant (TISCO).

(ii) Coal comes from Jharia coal fields and limestone comes from Birmitrapur.

(iii) Source of water:

• Subarnarekha River
• Kharkai River

Question 6.
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow: (A.I. 2017)

Question 6.(i)
Identify and name the steel plant given above. In which State is this plant located?
Answer:
Bhilai Steel plant
State: Chhattisgarh

Question 6.(2)
Which is the main source of power for this steel plant? Which rail route provides transport facilities to this plant ?
Answer:
Main source of power – Korba Thermal power station.
Rail route – Kolkata – Mumbai rail route

Question 6.(3)
What are the major sources of iron-ore and water for this steel plant?
Answer:
Iron ore : Dalli – Rajhara mine.
Water: Tandula tank/dam
Major factors responsible for establishment of Tata Iron & Steel industry in Jamshedpur:

• It lies very close to the Mumbai – Kolkata railway line.
• Kolkata is the nearest port for the export of steel about 240 km away.
• The rivers Subanarekha and Kharkai provide water to the plant.
• Iron ore is obtained from Noamundi and Badam Pahar.
• Coal is brought from Joda mines in Orissa.
• Coking Coal comes from Jharia and West Bokaro coalfields.
• Any other relevant point.
  (Any three points to be explained

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Explain with examples any five geographical factors that affect localisation of an industry at a particular place in India. (A.I. 2011)
Answer:
Location of industries is influenced by several factors like access to raw materials, water supply, climate, soil, minerals power, market, capital, transport and labour, etc. Some of them are:

• Raw materials: Industries using weight losing raw materials are located in the regions where raw materials are located. Example; most of the iron and steel industries are located either near coalfields (Bokaro, Durgapur, etc.) or near sources of iron ore (Bhadravati, Bhilai, and Rourkela).
• Power: Power provides the motive force for machines, certain industries, like aluminium and synthetic nitrogen manufacturing, industries tend to be located near sources of power because they are power intensive and require huge quantum of electricity.
• Market: Markets provide the outlets for manufactured products. Cotton textile industry uses a non-weight-losing raw material and is generally located in large urban centre, example; Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Surat, etc. Petroleum refineries are also located near the markets as the transport of crude oil. Koyali, Mathura and Barauni refineries are typical examples.
• Transport: Industries are concentrated in Mumbai, Chennai, Delhi and in and around Kolkata. The industries shifted to interior locations, only when railway lines were laid.
• Labour: In India, labour is quite mobile and is available in large numbers due to our large population. Example; cheap labour available from thickly populated part of Bihar, eastern U.P. and Orissa contributed to the development of Hugli Industrial region.

Question 2.
State five features each of Gujarat industrial region and chhotanagpur industrial region. (2004, 06, 08, 12, 13, 14)
Answer:
The five features of the following industrial regions are:
Gujarat Industrial Region:

• The nucleus of this region lies between Ahmadabad and Vadodara, though this region extends upto Valsad and Surat in the South.
• The development of this industrial region is mainly due to the cotton textile industry since 1860.
• After the decline of cotton textile from the Mumbai region the region has double advantage of the proximity of raw material and market.
• The discovery of oilfields led to the development of a variety of petrochemical industries in Ankleshwar, Vadodara and Jamnagar.
• Petroleum refinery at Koyali provided raw materials to a host of petrochemical industries.

Chotanagpur Industrial Region: This industrial regions extends over Jharkhand, northern Orissa, and western West-Bengal.

• This region owes its development to the discovery of coal in the Damodar valley and metallic nonmetallic minerals in Jharkhand and northern Orissa.
• Jamshedpur, Burnpur-Kulti, Durgapur, Bokaro and Rourkela are the prominent integrated iron and steel industry region.
• Power requirement is fulfilled by thermal and hydro electric plants constructed on the Damodar river.
• The densely surrounding region of Bihar, West Bengal, and Orissa provide unskilled and skilled labour force on large scale.

Question 3.
Why do large scale industries choose different locations? Explain any four factors which influence the industrial location. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Large scale industries choose different locations due to:
Industries maximize profits by reducing costs. Therefore, industries should be located at points where cost of production is lowest.
Factors influencing industrial location:

• Supply of raw materials
• Access to market
• Availability of labour
• Sources of energy
• Access to transportation and communication
  (Any four factors to be explained)

Question 4.
Mention any four major objectives of the New Industrial Policy, 1991 of India. Describe the role of globalisation in achieving these objectives. (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
Major objectives of the New Industrial Policy 1991

• To build on the gains already made
• Correct the distortions or weakness that have crept in.
• Maintain a sustained growth in productivity.
• Gainful employment and attain international competitiveness.

Role of Globalisation:

• Increase in Foreign Investment,
• Availability of Foreign Technology,
• Open Trade Policy,
• International competition for better products,
  (Any three points to be explained)

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 8 Manufacturing Industries appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Practical Work in Geography Class 12 Solutions Chapter 3 Latitude, Longitude and Time

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 3 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question1(i).
Which one of the following map shows the population distribution?
(a) Choropleth maps
(b) Isopleth maps
(c) Dot maps
(d) Square root map
Answer:
(c) Dot maps

Question1(ii).
Which one of the following is best suited to represent the decadal growth of population?
(a) Line graph
(b) Bar diagram
(c) Circle diagram
(d) Flow diagram
Answer:
(a) Line Graph

Question1(iii).
Polygraph is constructed to represent:
(a) Only one variable
(b) Two variables only
(c) More than two variables
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) More than two variables

Question1(iv).
Which one of the following maps is known as “Dynamic Map”?
(a) Dot map
(b) Choropleth
(c) Isopleth
(d) Flow map
Answer:
(d) Flow map

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2(i).
What is a thematic map?
Answer:
Maps drawn to study a particular theme like rainfall, temperature, soil type, etc. is called a thematic map. Thematic maps, graphs and diagrams serve a useful purpose in providing a comparison between the internal variations within the data of different characteristics represented.

Question 2(ii).
Differentiate between multiple bar diagram and compound bar diagram.
Answer:
Multiple Bar Diagram: Multiple bar diagrams are constructed to represent two or more than two variables for the purpose of comparison.
For example, we can draw two bars one indicating literacy rate of males and other literacy rate of females.

Compound Bar Diagram: When different components are grouped in one set of variables or different variables of one component are put together, their representation is made by a compound bar diagram. In this method, different variables are shown in a single bar with different rectangles.
For example, total electricity produced in India is sub-divided into hydro power, thermal power, nuclear power, etc.

Question 2(iii).
What are the requirements to construct a dot map?
Answer:
The dot maps are drawn to show the distribution of phenomena such as population, cattle, types of crops, etc. The dots of same size as per the chosen scale are marked over the given administrative units to highlight the patterns of distribution.

Requirements:

• An administrative map of the given area showing state/district/block boundaries.
• Statistical data on selected theme for the chosen administrative units, i.e. total population, cattle, etc.
• Selection of a scale to determine the value of a dot.
• Physiographic map of the region especially relief and drainage maps.

Precautions:

• The lines demarcating the boundaries of various administrative units should not be very thick and bold.
• All dots should be of same size.

Question 2(iv).
Describe the method of constructing a traffic flow map.
Answer:
Traffic flow map is a combination of graph and map. It is drawn to show the flow of commodities or people between the places of origin and destination. It is also called Dynamic Map. Transport map, which shows number of passengers, vehicles, etc., is the best example of a flow chart. These charts are drawn using lines of proportional width. Many government agencies prepare traffic flow maps to show density of the means of transportation on different routes.

Methods for the Preparation of a Traffic Flow Map:

• A route map depicting the desired transport routes along with the connecting stations.
• The data pertaining to the flow of goods, services, number of vehicles, etc. along with the point of origin and destination of the movements.
• The selection of a scale through which the data related to the quantity of passengers and goods or the number of vehicles is to be represented.

Question 2(v).
What is an Isopleth map? How an interpolation is carried out?
Answer:
The word Isopleth is derived from Iso meaning equal and pleth means lines. Thus, an imaginary line, which joins the places of equal values, is referred as Isopleth.The more frequently drawn isopleths include Isotherm (equal temperature), Isobar (equal pressure), Isohyets (equal rainfall), Isonephs (equal cloudiness), Isohels (equal sunshine), contours (equal heights), Isobaths (equal depths), Isohaline (equal salinity), etc. Interpolation is used to insert the intermediate values between the observed values of two stations/locations, such as temperature recorded at Chennai and Hyderabad or the spot heights of two points. Generally, drawing of isopleths joining the places of the same value is also termed as interpolation.

Methods of Interpolation:

• Firstly, determine the minimum and maximum values given on the map.
• Calculate the range of value, i.e. range = maximum value – minimum value.
• Based on range, determine the interval in a whole number like 5, 10, 15, etc.
• The exact point of drawing an isopleth is determined by using the following formula

Question 2(vi).
Describe and illustrate important steps to be followed in preparing a Choropleth map.
Answer:
The Choropleth maps are drawn to prepare the characteristics of data as they are related to the administrative units. These means are used to represent the literacy rate, sex ratio and density of population.
Steps to be followed:

• Arrange the data in ascending or descending order.
• Group the data into 5 categories to represent very high, high, medium, low and very low concentrations.
• The interval between the categories may be identified on the following formula, i.e. Range/5 and Range = maximum value – minimum value.
• Patterns, shades or colour to be used to depict the chosen categories should be marked in an increasing or decreasing order.

Construction:

• Arrange the data in ascending order as shown above.
• Identify the range within the data. The states recording the lowest and highest literacy rates are Bihar (47%) and the Kerala (90.9%) respectively. Hence, the range would be 91.0 – 47.0 = 44.0.
• Divide the range by 5 to get categories from very low to veiy high. (44.0/ 5 = 8.80. We can convert this value to a round number say 9.0.
• Determine the number of the categories along with range of each category. Add 9.0 to the lowest value of 47.0 as so on.

Following categories will be obtained:

(i) 47 – 56
Very low (Bihar, Jharkhand, Arunachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir)
(ii) 56 – 65
Low (Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Meghalaya,
Odisha, Assam, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh)
(iii) 65 – 74
Medium (Nagaland, Karnataka, Haryana, West Bengal, Sikkim, Gujarat, Punjab, Manipur, Uttarakhand, Tripura, Tamil Nadu)
(iv) 74 – 83
High (Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Delhi, Goa)
(v) 83 – 92
Very High (Mizoram, Kerala)

• Assign the shades/pattern to each category ranging from lower to higher hues

Question 2(vii).
Construct a pie chart with this information.
Students in an adult school were surveyed about the type of transport they use to travel to school.
The results were:
Walking 3, Train 6, Tram 9, Car 10, Bicycle 12.
pie chart
Total Population of Students=40

Total Population of Students=40

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Represent the following data with the help of suitable diagram.

Answer:
Range of the data = 46.14 – 0.35=45.79
Line graph will be the right method to present these data.

Question 2.
Represent the following data with the help of suitable diagram.
India: Literacy and Enrolment Ratio in Primary and Upper Primary Schools

Answer:

Question 3.
Represent the following data with help of pie-diagram.
India: Land use 1951-2001

Answer:

Question 4.
Study the table given below and draw the given diagrams/maps.
Area and Production of Rice in Major States

Construct a multiple bar diagram to show area under rice in each state.
Construct a pie-diagram to show the percentage of area under rice in each state.
Construct a dot map to show the production of rice in each state.
Construct a Choropleth map to show the percentage of production of rice in states.
Answer:
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Question 5.
Show the following data of temperature and rainfall of Kolkata with a suitable diagram.

Answer:

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 3 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are data? How are these important?
Answer:
Numerical and quantitative measurement of geographical events, human activities and their interrelationship are called data. In other words, quantitative information is called datum. Therefore, data are also called quantitative information.

Question 2.
What is the Chinese proverb in context of diagrams, graphs and maps?
Answer:
There is a Chinese proverb that ‘a picture is equivalent to thousands of words’. Hence, the graphic method of the representation of data enhances our understanding, and makes the comparisons easy.

Question 3.
Why is statistics needed?
Answer:
Statistics are used by geographers, economists, statisticians, resource scientists, planners, decision-makers and some other persons who need to do comparative study and to derive findings.

Question 4.
What are the general rules related to construction of graphs, maps and diagrams?
Answer: General rules for drawing graphs, maps and drawing are:
(a) Selection of a Suitable Method
(b) Selection of Suitable Scale
(c) Design: It includes title, legend, and direction.

Question 5.
Name the most commonly used graphs and maps.
Answer:
The most commonly drawn diagrams and maps and the way they are constructed are:

(a) Line graphs
(b) Bar diagrams
(c) Pie-diagram
(d) Wind rose and star diagram
(e) Flow charts

Question 6.
When are thematic maps drawn?
Answer: Thematic maps, graphs and diagrams serve a useful purpose in providing a comparison between the internal variations within the data of different characteristics represented.

Question 7.
What are different types of quantitative thematic maps?
Answer:
There are three types of quantitative thematic maps:

(a) Dot map
(b) Choropleth map
(c) Isopleth map

Question 8.
What are dot maps?
Answer:
The dot maps are drawn to show the distribution of phenomena such as population, cattle, types of crops, etc. The dots of same size as per the chosen scale are marked over the given administrative units to highlight the patterns of distribution.

Question 9.
What are choropleth maps?
Answer:
The choropleth maps are also drawn to depict the data characteristics as they are related to the administrative units. These maps are used to represent the density of population, literacy/growth rates, sex-ratio, etc.

Question 10.
What are more frequently drawn isopleths?
Answer:
The more frequently drawn isopleths include isotherm (equal temperature), isobar (equal pressure), isohyets (equal rainfall), isonephs (equal cloudiness), isohels (equal sunshine), contours (equal heights), isobaths (equal depths), isohaline (equal salinity), etc.

Question 11.
Why is a flow map called a dynamic map?
Answer:
Flow map is drawn to show the flow of commodities or people between the places of origin and destination. Since it shows many variables together and deals with flow phenomenon, it is also called dynamic map.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 3 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
In how many categories are maps and graphs used to present data?
Answer:
The diagrams and the maps to represent data can be grouped into the following types:
(a) One-dimensional diagrams such as line graph, polygraph, bar diagram, histogram, age, sex, pyramid, etc.;
(b) Two-dimensional diagram such as pie-diagram and rectangular diagram;
(c) Three-dimensional diagrams such as cube and spherical diagrams.

Question 2.
What do you mean by isopleth?
Answer:
The word Isopleth is derived from. Iso means equal and pleth means lines. Thus, an imaginary line, which joins the places of equal values, is referred to as isopleth. The more frequently drawn isopleths include isotherm (equal temperature), isobar (equal pressure), isohyets (equalrainfall), isonephs (equal cloudiness), isohels (equal sunshine), contours (equal heights), isobaths (equal depths), isohaline (equal salinity), etc.

Question 3.
What is a line graph? For which type of data are they used?
Answer:
In line graph data are presented using a line on graph paper. The line graphs are usually drawn to represent the time series data related to the temperature, rainfall, population growth, birth rates and death rates.
More than one variable can also be presented through line graph to do a comparative analysis. For example, temperature and pressure of an area can be presented in the same graph to make a comparison.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 3 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How are data presented using ploygraphs?
Answer:
Polygraph is a line graph in which two or more than two variables are shown by an equal number of lines for an immediate comparison, such as the growth rate of different crops like rice, pulses or the birth rates and life expectancy or sex ratio in different states or countries. A different line pattern such as straight line(___), broken
line (—) dotted line(….) or a combination of dotted and broken line (…–…) or line of
different colours may be used to indicate the value of different variables.

Question 2.
Define and construct a line graph to represent the growth rate of population in India during 1901-2001.
Answer:
The line graph is drawn to represent the time series data related to temperature, rainfall, population growth, birth rates, etc.

Question 3.
Draft a multiple bar diagram.
Answer:
Multiple bar diagram is constructed to represent two or more than two variables for the purpose of comparison.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 3 Viva Questions

Question 1.
In which case histogram is prepared?
Answer:
Continuous series

Question 2.
In what type of graph comparison among the class frequencies is possible?
Answer:
Histogram

Question 3.
Data represented through a histogram can help in finding graphically which measure of central tendency?
Answer:
Mode

Question 4.
Histogram is drawn on what?
Answer:
Graph paper

Question 5.
To find the number of observations less than any given value, we use what type of frequency?
Answer:
Cumulative frequency distribution.

Question 6.
While preparing time series graph, we show which variable on the X-axis?
Answer:
Time

Question 7.
By which type of graph Mode is found graphically?
Answer:
Histogram

Question 8.
A simple frequency distribution of a discrete variable is represented by what?
Answer:
Line Graph

Question 9.
How is a frequency polygon obtained?
Answer: By constructing a frequency histogram and linking the mid-points from a frequency histogram.

Question 10.
Ogives can be helpful in locating graphically which measure of central tendency?
Answer:
Median

Question 11.
Ogive curve can be drawn for which type of frequency?
Answer:
For More than type distribution and Less than type distribution of commulative frequency.

Question 12.
In which graph the breadth of a rectangle is equal to the length of the class-interval?
Answer:
Histogram

Question 13.
What are Dot maps?
Answer:
The dot maps are drawn to show the distribution of phenomena such as population, cattle, types of crops, etc. The dots of same size as per the chosen scale are marked over the given administrative units to highlight the patterns of distribution.

Question 14.
What is Choropleth Map?
Answer:
Choropleth maps are also drawn to depict the data characteristics as they are related to the administrative units. These maps are used to represent the density of population, literacy/growth rates, sex-ratio, etc.

Question 15.
What is an Isopleth Map?
Answer:
The word Isopleth is derived from Iso means equal and pleth means lines. Thus, an imaginary line, which joins the places of equal values, is referred to as Isopleth. The more frequently drawn isopleths include Isotherm (equal temperature), Isobar (equal pressure), Isohyets (equal rainfall), Isonephs (equal cloudiness), Isohels (equal sunshine), contours (equal heights), Isobaths (equal depths), Isohaline (equal salinity), etc.

Latitude, Longitude and Time Notes

• Data can be presented either in text or tabular or semi-tabular or diagrams or graphs or pictures. Diagrams and graphs are more efficient than any other method. Graphs and charts occupy an important place in statistical analysis and inferences. Data are dry and dull for most of the people. It becomes attractive and impressive through diagrammatic and graphical presentation.
• The transformation of data through visual methods like graphs, diagrams, maps and charts is called representation of data.
• Data can be compared and meaningful results can be derived from well-organised and presented data.
• The geographers, economists, resource scientists and the decision-makers use a lot of data these days. Besides the tabular form, the data may also be presented in some graphic or diagrammatic form.
• There is a Chinese proverb that ‘a picture is equivalent to thousands of words’. Hence, the graphic method of the representation of data enhances our understanding, and makes the comparisons easier.
• In Geography, we use presentation of data to understand the patterns of population growth, distribution and the density, sex ratio, age-sex composition, occupational structure, etc. within a geographical territory.
• General rules for drawing graphs, maps and drawing are:
  (a) Selection of a Suitable Method
  (b) Selection of Suitable Scale
  (c) Design—It includes title, legend, and direction.
• The data possess measurable characteristics such as length, width and volume. The diagrams and the maps that are drawn to represent these data related characteristics may be grouped into the following types:
  (a) One-dimensional diagrams such as Line Graph, polygraph, bar diagram, histogram, age, sex, pyramid, etc.
  (b) Two-dimensional diagrams such as pie diagram and rectangular diagram.
  (c) Three-dimensional diagrams such as cube and spherical diagrams.
• The most commonly drawn diagrams and maps and the way they are constructed are:
  (a) Line graphs
  (b) Bar diagrams
  (c) Pie diagram
  (d) Wind rose and star diagram
  (e) Flow charts
• Thematic maps, graphs and diagrams serve a useful purpose in providing a comparison between the internal variations within the data of different characteristics represented.

Latitude, Longitude and Time Notes Important Terms

• Title: The title of the diagram/map indicates the name of the area, reference year of the data used and the caption of the diagram. These components are represented using letters and numbers of different font sizes and thickness. Besides, their placing also matters. Normally, title, subtitle and the corresponding year are shown in the centre at the top of the map /diagram.
• Legend: A legend or index is an important component of any diagram/map. It explains the colours, shades, symbols and signs used in the map and diagram. It should also be carefully drawn and must correspond to the contents of the map/diagram. Besides, it also needs to be properly positioned. Normally, a legend is shown either at the lower left or lower right side of the map sheet.
• Line Graph: The line graphs are usually drawn to represent the time series data related to the temperature, rainfall, population growth, birth rates and death rates.
• Multiple Bar Diagram: Multiple bar diagrams are constructed to represent two or more than two variables for the purpose of comparison.
• Compound Bar Diagram: When different components are grouped in one set of variable or different variables of one component are put together, their representation is made by a compound bar diagram. In this method, different variables are shown in a single bar with different rectangles.
• Quantitative Maps: Maps depicting quantitative variables like areas receiving more than 200 cm, 100 to 200 cm, 50 to 100 cm and less than 50 cm of rainfall are referred as quantitative maps. These maps are also called statistical maps.
• Qualitative Maps: Map depicting non-measurable characteristics in the distribution of given information such as a map showing high and low rainfall-receiving areas are called non quantitative maps. These maps are also called qualitative maps.
• Dot maps: The dot maps are drawn to show the distribution of phenomena such as population, cattle, types of crops, etc. The dots of same size as per the chosen scale are marked over the given administrative units to highlight the patterns of distribution.
• Choropleth Map: The choropleth maps are also drawn to depict the data characteristics as they are related to the administrative units. These maps are used to represent the density of population, literacy/growth rates, sex-ratio, etc.
• Isopleth Map: The word ‘Isopleth’ is derived from Iso means equal and pleth means lines. Thus, an imaginary line, which joins the places of equal values, is referred as Isopleth. The more frequently drawn Isopleths include Isotherm (equal temperature), Isobar (equal pressure), Isohyets (equal rainfall), Isonephs (equal cloudiness), Isohels (equal sunshine), contours (equal heights), Isobaths (equal depths), Isohaline (equal salinity), etc.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Practical Work in Geography Class 12 Solutions Chapter 3 Latitude, Longitude and Time appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NTSE 2019 Admit Card: Students will not be allowed to enter the examination hall without NTSE Admit Card. NTSE Admit Card contains the information about Students name, exam center, and exam name. For both stages, NTSE Admit Card will release separately. Stage I of NTSE 2019-20 is a state level examination conducted by SCERT is going to schedule on November 02, 03 2019. Candidates who had filled and applied for NTSE Application Form will get NTSE Admit Card.

In this article, we provide all the information about NTSE Admit Card 2019. Read on to find more about NTSE Admit Card.

Find Out Everything About NTSE 2019

NTSE Admit Card 2019-20 Overview

• Name of the Exam: National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
• Conducting Body: NCERT
• Level of the Exam: National
• Type of Questions: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
• Number of Stages: 2 – Stage 1 (State-level) and Stage 2 (National-level)
• Number of Sections in Each Stage: 2 – Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)
• Total Number of Questions in Each Stage: 200
• Total Marks for Each Stage: 200
• Exam Duration: 2 Hours
• Penalty for Wrong Answers: No negative marking
• Language of Exam: For Stage 1, the medium will be decided by the respective States/Union Territories. For Stage 2, Asamiya, Bangla, English, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu

NTSE Admit Card 2019 – Important Dates

The important dates for NTSE 2019 are tabulated below

NTSE Admit Card 2019 – Issuing Authority

NTSE Admit Card will be released separately for both stages of exam:

• NTSE Admit Card 2019 for Stage I will be issued by SCERT
• NTSE Admit Card 2019 for Stage II will be issued by NCERT

NTSE Admit Card for Stage 1

NTSE Stage 1 will be conducted by respective states and is issued by SCERT of the states. NTSE Admit Card for stage 1 will available both online and offline. Students who applied for NTSE Exam can download NTSE Exam Admit Card from the official website of the state authority. Also, Admit Cards can be downloaded offline and sent to respective schools via post by Chief Superintendent of the respective states. Candidates can collect Admit Card from their schools.

NTSE Admit Card for Stage 2

NTSE Stage 2 will be conducted and issued by NCERT. NTSE Admit Card for Stage 2 will be issued only for those who clear NTSE Stage 1 exam of the respective states. NTSE Admit Card for Stage 2 from the official website. Follow the step by step procedure to download NTSE Stage 2 Admit Card of the exam:

• Step – 1: Visit the official website.
• Step – 2: Click on the link to download Admit Card for NTSE Stage 2.
• Step – 3: Enter the necessary details, like State Roll Number, Date of Birth, etc.
• Step – 4: Click on Submit button.
• Step – 5: Now download NTSE Admit Card which appears on Screen. Download NTSE Admit Card for future purpose.

Details Mentioned In the NTSE Admit Card

The following details will be mentioned in the NTSE Admit Card

1. Name of the Student,
2. Roll Number of the Student,
3. Exam Center,
4. Exam Timings,
5. Instructions, etc.

NTSE Admit Card – FAQ’s

Question 1:
If the details of Admit Card are not correct. What Should I do?

Answer:
If there are any discrepancies in NTSE Admit Card Stage 1 Contact the State Authority, If there is any incorrect or anything in NTSE Admit Card Stage II Candidates can send email to ntsexam.ncert@gov.in

Question 2:
If I have not received my NTSE Admit Card. What should I do?

Answer:
NTSE Stage 1 Admit Cards will be issued for students who have filled up the application form correctly. In case of Admit Card not being issued, there might be problems with your application form. Contact with the state authority to confirm.

NTSE Stage 2 Admit Card will be issued only for students who clear the Stage 1. If you have cleared the Stage 1 and still the Admit Card for Stage 2 has not been issued for you, contact NCERT directly.

Question 3:
What all the documents do I need to carry with myself to the exam hall?

Answer:
Students need to carry their NTSE Admit Card along with a valid ID Proof. Otherwise, students will not be allowed to enter the exam hall.

The post NTSE Admit Card 2019 | Dates, Download Stage II Hall Ticket, Exam Centers appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Important Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 1 Electric Charges and Fields Class 12 Important Questions

Electric Charges and Fields Class 12 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Which orientation of an electric dipole in a uniform electric field would correspond to stable equilibrium ? (All India 2008)
Answer:
When dipole moment vector is parallel to electric field vector

Question 2.
If the radius of the Gaussian surface enclosing a charge is halved, how does the electric flux through the Gaussian surface change ?
Answer:
Electic flux ϕ_E is given by

…. where [Q is total charge inside the closed surface
∴ On changing the radius of sphere, the electric flux through the Gaussian surface remains same.

Question 3.
Define the term electric dipole moment of a dipole. State its S.I. unit
Answer:
τ = OE sin θ
If E = 1 unit, θ = 90°, then τ = P
Dipole moment may be defined as the torque acting on an electric dipole, placed perpendicular to a uniform electric dipole, placed perpendicular to a uniform electric field of unit strength.
or Strength of electric dipole is called dipole moment.

∴ SI unit is Cm.

Question 4.
In which orientation, a dipole placed in a uniform electric field is in

• stable,
• unstable equilibrium ? (Delhi 2010)

Answer:

• For stable equilibrium, a dipole is placed parallel to the electric field.
• For unstable equilibrium, a dipole is placed antiparallel to the electric field.

Question 5.
Figure shows three point charges, +2q, -q and + 3q. Two charges +2q and -q are enclosed within a surface ‘S’. What is the electric flux due to this configuration through the surface ‘S’ (Delhi 2010)

Answer:

Question 6.
Name the physical quantity whose S.I. unit is JC^-1. Is it a scalar or a vector quantity? (All India 2010)
Answer:

• Physical quantity whose S.I. unit is JC^-1 is Electric potential.
• It is a Scalar quantity.

Question 7.
Define electric dipole moment. Write its S.I. unit. (All India 2011)
Answer:
Electric dipole moment of an electric dipole is defined as the product of the magnitude of either charge and dipole length.

S.I. unit of dipole () is coulomb metre (Cm).

Question 8.
Why should electrostatic field be zero inside a conductor? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Electrostatic field inside a conductor should be zero because of the absence of charge. As in a static condition, charge remains only on the surface.

Question 9.
Why must electrostatic field be normal to the surface at every point of a charged conductor? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
So that tangent on charged conductor gives the direction of the electric field at that point.

Question 10.
A charge ‘q’ is placed at the centre of a cube of side l. What is the electric flux passing through each face of the cube? (All India 2012)
Answer:
Electric flux through each phase of the cube

Question 11.
A charge ‘q’ is placed at the centre of a cube of side l. What is the electric flux passing through two opposite faces of the cube? (All India)
Answer:

Question 12.
Depict the direction of the magnetic field lines due to a circular current carrying loop. (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Direction of the magnetic field lines is given by right hand thumb rule.

Question 13.
What is the direction of the electric field at the surface of a charged conductor having charge density σ < 0? (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
Answer:
The direction of electric field is normal and inward to the surface.

Question 14.
Why do the electric field lines not form closed loops? (Comptt. All India 2012)
Answer:
Electric field lines do not form closed loops because the direction of an electric field is from positive to negative charge. So one can regard a line of force starting from a positive charge and ending on a negative charge. This indicates that electric field lines do not form closed loops.

Question 15.
Is the electric field due to a charge configuration with total charge zero, necessarily zero? Justify. (Comptt. All India 2012)
Answer:
No, it is not necessarily zero. If the electric field due to a charge configuration with total charge is zero because the electric field due to an electric dipole is non-zero.

Question 16.
Two charges of magnitudes – 2Q and + Q are located at points (a, 0) and (4a,0) respectively. What is the electric flux due to these charges through a sphere of radius ‘3a’ with its centre at the origin? (All India 2013)
Answer:

Question 17.
Two charges of magnitudes -3Q and + 2Q are located at points (a, 0) and (4a, 0) respectively. What is the electric flux due to these charges through a sphere of radius ‘5a’ with its centre at the origin?
Answer:

Question 18.
Write the expression for the work done on an electric dipole of dipole moment p in turning it from its position of stable equilibrium to a position of unstable equilibrium in a uniform electric
field E. (Comptt. Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Torque, acting on the dipole is, τ = pE sin θ

Question 19.
Why do the electrostatic field lines not form closed loops? (All India 2014)
Answer:
Electric field lines do not form closed loops because the direction of an electric field is from positive to negative charge. So one can regard a line of force starting from a positive charge and ending on a negative charge. This indicates that electric field . lines do not form closed loops.

Question 20.
Why do the electric field lines never cross each other? (All India)
Answer:
The electric lines of force give the direction of the electric field. In case, two lines of force intersect, there will be two directions of the electric field at the point of intersection, which is not possible.

Question 21.

distance ‘d’ apart as shown in the figure. The electric field intensity is zero at a point ’P’ on the line joining them as shown. Write two conclusions that you can draw from this. (Comptt. Delhi 2014)
Answer:

• Two point charges ‘ q₁‘ and ‘ q₂ should be of opposite nature.
• Magnitude of charge ql must be greater than that of charge q₂.

Question 22. What is the electric flux through a cube of side 1 cm which encloses an electric dipole? (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Zero because the net charge of an electric dipole (+ q and – q) is zero.

Question 23.
Why are electric field lines perpendicular at a point on an equipotential surface of a conductor? (Comptt. All India 2015)
Answer:
If the electric field lines were not normal to the equipotential surface, it would have a non-zero component along the surface. To move a unit test charge against the direction of the component of the field, work would have to be done which means this surface cannot be equipotential surface.
Hence, electric field lines are perpendicular at a point on an equipotential surface of a conductor.

Question 24.

Is the potential difference V_A – V_B positive, negative or zero? (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
The potential difference is positive.

Question 25.
How does the electric flux due to a point charge enclosed by a spherical Gaussian surface get affected when its radius is increased? (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
The electric flux due to a point charge enclosed by a spherical gaussian surface remains ‘unaffected’ when its radius is increased.

Question 26.
Show on a plot the nature of variation of the

• Electric field (E) and
• potential (V), of a (small) electric dipole with the distance (r) of the field point from the centre of the dipole. (Comptt. Outside Delhi 2016)

Answer:

Question 27.
Does the charge given to a metallic sphere depend on whether it is hollow or solid? Give reason for your answer. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
No, it does not, because the charge resides only on the surface of the conductor.

Question 28.
Draw a plot showing variation of electric field with distance from the centre of a solid conducting sphere of radius R, having a charge of +Q on its surface. (Comptt. Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Plot between E and r

Question 29.
A point charge +Q is placed in the vicinity of a conducting surface. Draw the electric field lines between the surface and the charge.
(Comptt. Outside Delhi 2017)
Answer:

Question 30.
Derive an expression for the torque experienced by an electric dipole kept in a uniform electric field. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Consider an electric dipole consisting of charges + q and – q and of length 2a placed in a uniform electric field making an angle θ with it. It has a dipole moment of magnitude,

Hence the net translating force on a dipole in a uniform electric field is zero. But the two equal and opposite forces act at different points of the dipole. They form a couple which exerts a torque.
Torque = Either force × Perpendicular distance between the two forces
x = qE × 2a sin θ
X = pE sin θ [ ∵ p = q × 2a; p is dipole moment]
As the direction of torque is perpendicular to and , so we can write

Question 31.
Define electric flux. Write its S.I. unit.
A charge q is enclosed by a spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is reduced to half, how would the electric flux through the surface change? (All India 2009)
Answer:
Electric flux over an area in an electric field is the total number of lines of force passing through the area. It is represented by ϕ . It is a scalar quantity. Its S.I unit is Nm² C^-1 or Vm.

Electric flux ϕ by q_enclosed
Hence the electric flux through the surface of sphere remains same.

Question 32.
A spherical conducting shell of inner radius rx and outer radius r2 has a charge ‘Q’. A charge ‘q’ is placed at the centre of the shell.
(a) What is the surface charge density on the
(i) inner surface,
(ii) outer surface of the shell?
(b) Write the expression for the electric field at a point x > r₂ from the centre of the shell. (All India 2010)
Answer:
(a) Surface charge density on the :

(b) Electric field at a point x > r₂ from the centre of the shell will be E =

Question 33.
Show that the electric field at the surface of a charged conductor is given by , where σ is the surface charge density and h is a unit vector normal to the surface in the outward direction. (All India 2010)
Answer:
Electric field at a point on the surface of charged conductor, E =
For simplicity we consider charged conductor as a sphere of radius ‘R’. If ‘σ’ is in surface charge density, then

…where [ is a unit vector normal to the surface in the outward direction]

Question 34.
A thin straight infinitely long conducting wire having charge density X is enclosed by a cylindrical surface of radius r and length l, its axis coinciding with the length of the wire. Find the expression for the electric flux through the surface of the cylinder. (All India 2011)
Answer:
Since the field is everywhere radial, flux through the two ends of the cylindrical Gaussian surface is zero. At the cylindrical part of the surface, E is normal to the surface at every point, and its magnitude is constant, since it depends only on r. The surface area of the curved part is 2πrl, where l is the length of the cylinder.

Flux through the Gaussian surface = Flux through the curved cylindrical part of the surface is zero. At the cylindrical part of the surface, E is normal to the surface at every point, and its magnitude is constant, since at every point, and its magnitude is constant, since it depends only on r. The surface area of the cylinder.

Flux through the Gaussian surface = Flux through the curved cylindrical part of the surface
= E × 2πrl

(a) Electric field due to an infinitely long thin straight wire is radial.
(b) The Gaussian surface for a long thin wire of uniform linear charge density
The surface includes charge equal to λl.
Gauss’s law then gives

Question 35.
Plot a graph showing the variation of coulomb force (F) versus , where r is the distance between the two charges of each pair of charges : (1µC, 2µC) and (2µC, – 3µC). Interpret the graphs obtained. (All India 2010)
Answer:

Here positive slope depicts that force is repulsive in nature and negative slope depicts that the force is attractive in nature.

Question 36.
A hollow cylindrical box of length 1m and area of cross-section 25 cm² is placed in a three dimensional coordinate system as shown in the figure. The electric field in the region is given by where E is in NC^-1 and x is in metres. Find

• Net flux through the cylinder.
• Charge enclosed by the cylinder. (Delhi 2013)

Answer:

Question 37.
Given a uniform electric field , find the flux of this field through a square of 10 cm on a side whose plane is parallel to the y-z plane. What would be the flux through the same square if the plane makes a 30° angle with the x-axis? (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Given :
A = 10 × 10 × 10^-4m²,
Flux (ϕ) = EA cos θ
(i) For first case, θ = 0, cos 0 = 1
∴ Flux = (5 × 10³) × (10 × 10 × 10^-4)
(ii) Angle of square plane with x-axis = 30°
Hence the 0 will be 90° – 30° = 60°
EA cos θ = (5 × 10³) × (10 × 10 × 10^-4) × cos 60
= 50 ×
= 25 Nm²C^-1

Question 38.
Given a uniform electric field = 2 × 10³ N/ C, find the flux of this field through a square of side 20 cm, whose plane is parallel to the y-z plane. What would be the flux through the same square, if the plane makes an angle of 30° with the x-axis? (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Given :
A = 10 × 10 × 10^-4m²,
Flux (ϕ) = EA cos θ
(i) For first case, θ = 0, cos 0 = 1
∴ Flux = (5 × 10³) × (10 × 10 × 10^-4)
(ii) Angle of square plane with x-axis = 30°
Hence the 0 will be 90° – 30° = 60°
EA cos θ = (5 × 10³) × (10 × 10 × 10^-4) × cos 60
= 50 ×
= 25 Nm²C^-1
Hint : (i) 80 Nm²C^-1
(ii) 40 Nm²C³

Question 39.
Given a uniform electric field N/C. Find the flux of this field through a square of 5 cm on a side whose plane is parallel to the Y-Z plane. What would be the flux through the same square if the plane makes a 30° angle with the x-axis? (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Given :
A = 10 × 10 × 10^-4m²,
Flux (ϕ) = EA cos θ
(i) For first case, θ = 0, cos 0 = 1
∴ Flux = (5 × 10³) × (10 × 10 × 10^-4)
(ii) Angle of square plane with x-axis = 30°
Hence the 0 will be 90° – 30° = 60°
EA cos θ = (5 × 10³) × (10 × 10 × 10^-4) × cos 60
= 50 ×
= 25 Nm²C^-1
Hint:
(i) 10 Nm²C^-1
(ii) 5 Nm²C^-1

Question 40.
A small metal sphere carrying charge +Q is located at the centre of a spherical cavity in a large uncharged metallic spherical shell. Write the charges on the inner and outer surfaces of the shell. Write the expression for the electric field at the point P₁ (Comptt. Delhi)

Answer:

1. Charge on inner surface : – Q
2. Charge on outer surface : + Q
3. Electric field at point P₁ (E) =

Question 41.
An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field with its dipole moment parallel to the field. Find
(i) the work done in turning the dipole till its dipole moment points in the direction
opposite to .
(ii) the orientation of the dipole for which the torque acting on it becomes maximum. (Comptt. All India 2014)
Answer:

(ii) τ = = pE sin θ
For θ = , sin θ = 1 and τ is maxximum

Question 42.
A sphere S₁ of radius r₁ encloses a net charge Q. If there is another concentric sphere S₂ of radius r₂ (r₂ > r,) enclosing charge 2Q, find the ratio of the electric flux through S₁ and S₂. How will the electric flux through sphere S₁ change if a medium of dielectric constant K is introduced in the space inside S₂ in place of air? (Comptt. All India 2014)

Answer:

Therefore, there will be no change in the flux through S₁ on introducing dielectric medium inside the sphere S₂.

Question 43.
Define the term ‘electric flux’. Write its S.I. units. What is the flux due to electric field N/C through a square of side 10 cm, when it is held normal to if? (Comptt. All India 2015)
Answer:

Electric flux over an area in an electric field is the total number of lines of force passing through the area. It is represented by ϕ . It is a scalar quantity. Its S.I unit is Nm² C^-1 or Vm.

Electric flux ϕ by q_enclosed
Hence the electric flux through the surface of sphere remains same.

Electric Charges and Fields Class 12 Important Questions Short Answer Type

Question 44.
A thin conducting spherical shell of radius R has charge Q spread uniformly over its surface. Using Gauss’s law, derive an expression for an electric field at a point outside the shell.
Draw a graph of electric field E(r) with distance r from the centre of the shell for 0 ≤ r ≤ ∞
Answer:
Electric field at a point outside the shell :
(a) (i) To find out electric field at a point outside a spherical charged shell we imagine a symmetrical Gaussian surface in such a way that the point lies on it.

Graph of electric field E(r) :

Question 45.
State Gauss’ law in electrostatics. Using this law derive an expression for the electric field due to a uniformly changed infinite plane sheet.
Answer:
Gauss’ Law states that “the total flux through a closed surface is times the net charge enclosed by

Let σ be the surface charge density (charge per unit area) of the given sheet and let P be a point at distance r from the sheet where we have to find

Choosing point P’, symmetrical with P on the other side of the sheet, let us draw a Gaussian cylindrical surface cutting through the sheet as shown in the diagram. As at the cylindrical part of the Gaussian surface, and are at a right angle, the only surfaces having and parallel are the plane ends

…[As E is outgoing from both plane ends, the flux is positive.
This is the total flux through the Gaussian surface.

This value is independent of r. Hence, the electric field intensity is same for all points near the charged sheet. This is called uniform electric field intensity.

Question 46.
State ‘Gauss law’ in electrostatics. Use this law to derive an expression for the electric field due to an infinitely long straight wire of linear charge density λ cm^-1
Answer:
Gauss’s law in electrostatics : It states that “the total electric flux over the surface S in vaccum is times the total charge (q).”

Electric field due to an infinitely long straight wire : Consider an infinitely long straight line charge having linear charge density X to determine its electric field at distance r. Consider a cylindrical Gaussian surface of radius r and length l coaxial with the charge. By symmetry, the electric field E has same magnitude at each point of the curved surface S₁ and is directed radially outward.
Total flux through the cylindrical surface,

Question 47.
A positive point charge (+ q) is kept in the vicinity of an uncharged conducting plate. Sketch electric field lines originating from the point on to the surface of the plate.
Derive the expression for the electric field at the surface of a charged conductor. (All India) Answer: Representation of electric field, (due to a positive charge)
Answer:
Representation of electric field. (due to a positive charge)

Question 48.
Use Gauss’s law to derive the expression for the electric field between two uniformly charged large parallel sheets with surface charge densities a and -a respectively. (All India)
Answer:

Gauss’ Law states that “the total flux through a closed surface is times the net charge enclosed by

Let σ be the surface charge density (charge per unit area) of the given sheet and let P be a point at distance r from the sheet where we have to find

Choosing point P’, symmetrical with P on the other side of the sheet, let us draw a Gaussian cylindrical surface cutting through the sheet as shown in the diagram. As at the cylindrical part of the Gaussian surface, and are at a right angle, the only surfaces having and parallel are the plane ends

…[As E is outgoing from both plane ends, the flux is positive.
This is the total flux through the Gaussian surface.

This value is independent of r. Hence, the electric field intensity is same for all points near the charged sheet. This is called uniform electric field intensity.

Question 49.
State Gauss’s law.
A thin straight infinitely long conducting wire of linear charge density ‘X’ is enclosed by a cy¬lindrical surface of radius V and length ‘l’—its axis coinciding with the length of the wire. Obtain the expression for the electric field, indi¬cating its direction, at a point on the surface of the cylinder. (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Gauss’s law. Gauss law states that “Total flux (electric flux) over the closed surfaces in vacuum is He0 times the total charge (Q) contained inside S.”

Since the field is everywhere radial, flux through the two ends of the cylindrical Gaussian surface is zero. At the cylindrical part of the surface, E is normal to the surface at every point, and its magnitude is constant, since it depends only on r. The surface area of the curved part is 2πrl, where l is the length of the cylinder.

Flux through the Gaussian surface = Flux through the curved cylindrical part of the surface is zero. At the cylindrical part of the surface, E is normal to the surface at every point, and its magnitude is constant, since at every point, and its magnitude is constant, since it depends only on r. The surface area of the cylinder.

Flux through the Gaussian surface = Flux through the curved cylindrical part of the surface
= E × 2πrl

(a) Electric field due to an infinitely long thin straight wire is radial.
(b) The Gaussian surface for a long thin wire of uniform linear charge density
The surface includes charge equal to λl.
Gauss’s law then gives

Question 50.
(a) Define electric flux. Write its S.I. units.
(b) Consider a uniform electric field
= 3 × 10³ N/C. Calculate the flux of this field through a square surface of area 10 cm² when
(i) its plane is parallel to the y-z plane, and
(ii) the normal to its plane makes a 60° angle with the x-axis. (Comptt. Delhi 2013)
Answer:
(a)
Electric flux over an area in an electric field is the total number of lines of force passing through the area. It is represented by ϕ . It is a scalar quantity. Its S.I unit is Nm² C^-1 or Vm.

Electric flux ϕ by q_enclosed
Hence the electric flux through the surface of sphere remains same.

Question 51.
Two charged spherical conductors of radii R₁ and R₂ when connected by a conducting wire acquire charges q₁ and q₂ respectively. Find the ratio of their surface charge densities in terms of their radii. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Two charged spherical conductors of radii R₁ and R₂ when connected by a conducting wire acquire charges q₁ and q₂ respectively. Thus these two conductors have a common potential V.
Two charged spherical conductors of radii R1 and R2 when connected by a conduction wire acquire charges q1 and q2 respectively. Thus these two conductors have a common potential V

Question 52.
Two point charges + q and -2q are placed at the vertices ‘B’ and ‘C’ of an equilateral triangle ABC of side as given in the figure. Obtain the expression for (i) the magnitude and (ii) the direction of the resultant electric field at the vertex A due to these two charges.

(Comptt All India)
Answer:

Question 53.
Two point charges + 3q and – 4q are placed at the vertices ‘B’ and ‘C’ of an equilateral triangle ABC of side ‘a’ as given in the figure. Obtain the expression for

(i) the magnitude and
(ii) the direction of the resultant electric field at the vertex A due to these two charges. (Comptt. All India 2014)
Answer:

Question 54.
An electric dipole of dipole moment is placed in a uniform electric field ?. Obtain the expression for the torque experienced by the dipole. Identify two pairs of perpendicular vectors in the expression. (Comptt. Delhi 2015)
Answer:
(i)
(a) Torque on electric dipole. Consider an electric dipole consisting of two equal and opposite point charges separated by a small distance 2a having dipole moment

So net force on the dipole is zero
Since is uniform, hence the dipole does not undergo any translatory motion.

These forces being equal, unlike and parallel, from a couple, which rotates the dipole in clock-wise direction
∴ Magnitude of torque = Force × arm of couple

[The direction of is given by right hand screw rule and is normal to  ] and
Special cases
(i) when θ = 0 then τ = PE sin θ = 0
∴ Torque is zero and the dipole is in stable equilibrium
(ii) When θ = 90 then τ = PE sin 90 = PE
∴ The Torque is maximum
(b) Ratio of flux


∴ Electric flux through the sphere S₁ decreases with the introduction of dielectric inside it.

(ii) Two pairs of perpendicular vectors are,
(a) is perpendicular to
(b) is perpendicular to

Question 55.
(a) Two spherical conductors of radii Ra and R2 (R₂ > R₁) are charged. If they are connected by a conducting wire, find out the ratio of the surface charge densities on them.
(b) A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section. Which of these quantities is constant along the conductor : current, current density, electric field, drift speed? (Comptt. Delhi 2015)
Answer:
(a) When two charged spherical conductors of Radii R₁ and R₂ respectively (R₂ > R₁) are connected by a conducting wire, we know that the common potential (V) is given by,

Question 56.
A charge is distributed uniformly over a ring of radius ‘a’. Obtain an expression for the electric intensity E at a point on the axis of the ring. Hence show that for points at large distances from the ring, it behaves like a point charge. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Electric Intensity on the axis of a ring:

This is the Electric Field due to a point charge at distance x.

Question 57.
Two thin concentric and coplanar spherical shells, of radii a and b (b > a) carry charges, q and Q, respectively. Find the magnitude of the electric field, at a point distant x, from their common centre for
(i) 0 < x < a
(ii) a ≤ x < b
(iii) b ≤ x < ∞ (Comptt. Delhi 2016) Answer: Magnitude of Electric field : Two thin concentric and coplanar spherical shells of radii ‘a’ and ‘b’ (b > a) carry charges ‘q’ and ‘Q’ respectively.
(i) For 0 < x < a
Point lies inside both the spherical shells.
Hence, E(x) = 0

(ii) For a ≤ x < b
Point is outside the spherical shell of radius ‘a’ but inside the spherical shell of radius ‘b’.
∴ E(x) =
(iii) For b ≤
x < ∞
Point is outside of both the spherical shells. Total effective charge at the centre equals (Q + q).
E(x) =

Question 58.
A charge +Q, is uniformly distributed within a sphere of radius R. Find the electric field, due to this charge distribution, at a point distant r from the centre of the sphere where :
(i) 0 < r < R and
(ii) r > R (Comptt. Outside Delhi )
Answer:
We have

Question 59.
(i) Derive the expression for electric field at a point on the equatorial line of an electric dipole.
(ii) Depict the orientation of the dipole in
(a) stable,
(b) unstable equilibrium in a uniform electric field. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(i)

Electric dipole moment: It is the product of the magnitude of either charge and distance between them.

It is a vector quantity whose direction is from negative to positive charge.

Electric field intensity at P due to +q charge is

Electric field intensity at P due to -q charge is,

(ii) (a) For stable equilibrium, the angle between p and E is 0°,

(b) For unstable equilibrium, the angle between p and E is 180°,

Question 60.
(i) Obtain the expression for the torque experienced by an electric dipole of dipole moment in a uniform electric ?
(ii) What will happen if the field were not uniform? (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(i)
(a) Torque on electric dipole. Consider an electric dipole consisting of two equal and opposite point charges separated by a small distance 2a having dipole moment

So net force on the dipole is zero
Since is uniform, hence the dipole does not undergo any translatory motion.

These forces being equal, unlike and parallel, from a couple, which rotates the dipole in clock-wise direction
∴ Magnitude of torque = Force × arm of couple

[The direction of is given by right hand screw rule and is normal to  ] and
Special cases
(i) when θ = 0 then τ = PE sin θ = 0
∴ Torque is zero and the dipole is in stable equilibrium
(ii) When θ = 90 then τ = PE sin 90 = PE
∴ The Torque is maximum
(b) Ratio of flux


∴ Electric flux through the sphere S₁ decreases with the introduction of dielectric inside it.

(ii) If the electric field is non uniform, the dipole experiences a translatory force as well as a torque.

Question 61.
State Gauss’s law in electrostatics. Derive an expression for the electric field due to an infinitely long straight uniformly charged wire. (Comptt. Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Gauss Theorem : The surface integral of electric field over a closed surface is equal to times the charge enclosed by the surface.

Electric Charges and Fields Class 12 Important Questions Long Answer Type

Question 62.
(a) Using Gauss’ law, derive an expression for the electric field intensity at any point outside a uniformly charged thin spherical shell of radius R and charge density a C/m2. Draw the field lines when the charge density of the sphere is
(i) positive,
(ii) negative.
(b) A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 2.5 m in diameter has a surface charge density of 100 µC/m². Calculate the
(i) charge on the sphere
(ii) total electric flux passing through the sphere (Delhi 2008)
Answer:
(a) (i) To find out electric field at a point outside a spherical charged shell we imagine a symmetrical Gaussian surface in such a way that the point lies on it.

Question 63.
(a) Define electric flux. Write its SI units.
(b) The electric field components due to a charge inside the cube of side 0.1 m are as shown :
E_x = ax, where α = 500 N/C^-m

Calculate
(i) the flux through the cube, and
(ii) the charge inside the cube. (All India 2008)
Answer:
(a) Electric flux through a surface represents the total number of electric lines of force crossing the surface.
∴ S.I. unit is Nm² C^-1.
(b) (i) Flux through R.H.S. of the cube is

Question 64.
(a) Define electric flux. Write its S.I. units.
(b) Using Gauss’s law, prove that the electric field at a point due to a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet is independent of the distance from it.
(c) How is the field directed if
(i) the sheet is positively charged,
(ii) negatively charged? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
(a) Electric flux: The electric flux through a given area held inside an electric field is the measure of the total number of electric lines of force passing normally through that area.

(b) Consider a thin, infinite plane sheet of charge with uniform surface charge density 0. We wish to calculate its electric field at a point P at distance r from it.

By symmetry, electric field E points outwards normal to the sheet. Also, it must have same magnitude and opposite direction at two points P anel F equidistant from the sheet and on opposite sides. We choose cylindrical Gaussian surface of cross¬sectional area A and length 2r with its axis perpendicular to the sheet.

As the lines of force are parallel to the curved surface of the cylinder, the flux through the curved surface is zero. The flux through the plane-end faces of the cylinder is :

(i) For positively charged sheet ➝ away from the sheet
(ii)For negatively charged sheet ➝towards the sheet

Question 65.
(a) Define electric flux. Write its S.I. unit.
(b) A small metal sphere carrying charge +Q is located at the centre of a spherical cavity inside a large uncharged metallic spherical shell as shown in the figure the expressions for the electric field at points P₁ and P₂.
(c) Draw the pattern of electric field lines in this arrangement. (Comptt. All India 2012)

Answer:
(a) Electric flux: The electric flux through a given area held inside an electric field is the measure of the total number of electric lines of force passing normally through that area.

(b) Consider a thin, infinite plane sheet of charge with uniform surface charge density 0. We wish to calculate its electric field at a point P at distance r from it.

By symmetry, electric field E points outwards normal to the sheet. Also, it must have same magnitude and opposite direction at two points P anel F equidistant from the sheet and on opposite sides. We choose cylindrical Gaussian surface of cross-sectional area A and length 2r with its axis perpendicular to the sheet.

As the lines of force are parallel to the curved surface of the cylinder, the flux through the curved surface is zero. The flux through the plane-end faces of the cylinder is :

(i) For positively charged sheet ➝ away from the sheet
(ii)For negatively charged sheet ➝towards the sheet

(b) Calculation of electric field at point Pt:
Net charge enclosed by the Gaussian surface is +Q

As electric field of positive charge is radially outwards, it is parallel to the area vector on the surface chosen.

As point P₂ lies inside the metal, therefore electric field at point P₂ is zero.

Question 66.
Define electric dipole moment. Is it a scalar or a vector? Derive the expression for the electric field of a dipole at a point on the equatorial
plane of the dipole. (All India 2013)
Answer:
Electric dipole moment: It is the product of the magnitude of either charge and distance between them.

It is a vector quantity whose direction is from negative to positive charge.

Electric field intensity at P due to +q charge is

Electric field intensity at P due to -q charge is,

Question 67.
Using Gauss’ law deduce the expression for the electric field due to a uniformly charged spherical conducting shell of radius R at a point
(i) outside and
(ii) inside the shell.
Plot a graph showing variation of electric field as a function of r > R and r < R (r being the distance from the centre of the shell) (All India)
Answer:
(i) Field Outside Shell :
Consider a thin spherical shell of radius R with centre O. Let charge +q be distributed uniformly over the surface of shell. To calculate electric field intensity at P where OP = r, imagine a sphere S, with centre at O and radius r. The surface of sphere is Gaussian surface over at every point. Electric field is same and directed radially outwards.

Applying Gauss’ theorem

is distance of point P from centre where E is calculated]
(ii) Inside Shell: As we know charge is located on its surface,

(iii) at r < R is zero and r  = R, E is maximum at r > R, E is decreasing at E ∝

Question 68.
Using Gauss’s law, derive the expression for the electric field at a point
(i) outside and
(ii) inside a uniformly charged thin spherical shell. Draw a graph showing electric field E as a function of distance from the centre. (Comptt. All India 2013)
Answer:
Electric field due to a uniformly charged spherical shell:
Suppose a thin spherical shell of radius R and centre O
Let the charge + q be distributed over the surface of sphere
Electric field intensity is same at every point on the surface of sphere directed directly outwards
Let a point P be outside the shell with radius vector

Question 69.
(a) Deduce the expression for the torque acting on a dipole of dipole moment in the presence of a uniform electric field E.
(b) Consider two hollow concentric spheres, S₁ and S₂, enclosing charges 2Q and 4Q respectively as shown in the figure.

(i) Find out the ratio of the electric flux through them.
(ii) How will the electric flux through the sphere S₁ change if a medium of dielectric constant ‘ε_r‘ is introduced in the space inside S₁, in place of air? Deduce the necessary expression. (All India 2014)
Answer:
(a) Torque on electric dipole. Consider an electric dipole consisting of two equal and opposite point charges separated by a small distance 2a having dipole moment

So net force on the dipole is zero
Since is uniform, hence the dipole does not undergo any translatory motion.

These forces being equal, unlike and parallel, from a couple, which rotates the dipole in clock-wise direction
∴ Magnitude of torque = Force × arm of couple

[The direction of is given by right hand screw rule and is normal to  ] and
Special cases
(i) when θ = 0 then τ = PE sin θ = 0
∴ Torque is zero and the dipole is in stable equilibrium
(ii) When θ = 90 then τ = PE sin 90 = PE
∴ The Torque is maximum
(b) Ratio of flux


∴ Electric flux through the sphere S₁ decreases with the introduction of dielectric inside it.

Question 70.
(a) An electric dipole of dipole moment consists of point charges + q and – q separated by a distance 2a apart. Deduce the expression for the electric field due to the dipole at a distance x from the centre of the dipole on its axial line in terms of the dipole moment ?. Hence show that in the limit x >> a, —>2 (4πε₀x³).
(Delhi 2015)
Answer:
(a) Expression for magnetic field due to dipole on its axial lane:

(b)Only the faces perpendicular to the direction of x-axis, contribute to the Electric flux. The remaining faces of the cube given zero

Question 71.
(a) Define electric flux. Write its S.I. unit. “Gauss’s law in electrostatics is true for any closed surface, no matter what its shape or size is”. Justify this statement with the help of a suitable example.
(b) Use Gauss’s law to prove that the electric field inside a uniformly charged spherical shell is zero. (All India)
(a) Electric flux. The electric lines of force passing through that area, when held normally to the lines of force.
Answer:
Electric flux. The electric lines of force passing through that area, when held normally to the lines of force.

S.I. units: Vm, Nm²C^-1
Gauss’s Law states that the electric flux through a closed surface is given by

The law implies that the total electric flux through a closed surface depends on the quantity of total charge enclosed by the surface, and does not depend on its shape and size.

For example, net charge enclosed by the electric dipole (q, -q) is zero, hence the total elec¬tric flux enclosed by a surface containing electric dipole is zero.
(b) Electrical field inside a uniformly charged spherical shell. Let us consider a point ‘P’ inside the shell. The Gaussian surface is a sphere through P centred at O.

The flux through the Gaussian surface is E × 4πr².

However, in this case, the Gaussian surface encloses no charge. Gauss’s law then gives
E × 4πr² = 0
or E = 0
(r < R)
that is, the field due to a uniformly charged thin shell is zero at all points inside the shell.

Question 72.
(a) Derive the expression for the energy stored in a parallel plate capacitor. Hence obtain the expression for the energy density of the electric field.
(b) A fully charged parallel plate capacitor is connected across an uncharged identical capacitor. Show that the energy stored in the combination is less than that stored initially in the single capacitor. (All India 2015)
Answer:
(a) (i) Energy of a parallel plate capacitor. Consider a capacitor of capacitance C. Initial charge on plates is zero. Initial potential difference between the capacitor plates is zero. Let a charge Q be given to it in small steps. When charge is given to capacitor, the potential difference between its plates increases. Let at any instant when charge on capacitor be q, the potential difference between its plates be,

Now work done in giving an additional infinitesimal charge dq to capacitor

The total work done in giving charge from 0 to Q will be equal to the sum of all such infinitesimal works, which may be obtained by integration. Therefore total work


If V is the final potential difference between capacitor plates, then Q = CV

This work is stored as electrostatic potential energy of capacitor i.e., Electriostatic potential energy,

(ii) Expression for Energy Density.
Consider a parallel plate capacitor consisting of plates, each of area A, separated by a distance d. If space between the plates is filled with a medium of dielectric constant K, then
Capacitence of Capacitor,

If σ is the surface charge density of plates, then electric field strength between the plates.

This is the expression for electrostatic energy density in medium of dielectric constan K. In air of free space  (K = 1), therefore energy density,

(b) The energy of the capacitor when fully charged is

When this charged capacitor is connected to an identical capacitor C, then the charge will be distributed equally, on each of the capacitors, then


Hence, the total energy stored is half of that stored initially in one capacitor which means the energy stored in combination is less than that stored initially in the single capacitor.

Question 73.
(i) Use Gauss’s law to find the electric field due to a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet. What is the direction of field for positive and negative charge densities?
(ii) Find the ratio of the potential differences that must be applied across the parallel and series combination of two capacitors Cj and C2 with their capacitances in the ratio 1 : 2 so that the energy stored in the two cases becomes the same. (All India 2016)
Answer:
(i)
(a) Electric flux: The electric flux through a given area held inside an electric field is the measure of the total number of electric lines of force passing normally through that area.

(b) Consider a thin, infinite plane sheet of charge with uniform surface charge density 0. We wish to calculate its electric field at a point P at distance r from it.

By symmetry, electric field E points outwards normal to the sheet. Also, it must have same magnitude and opposite direction at two points P anel F equidistant from the sheet and on opposite sides. We choose cylindrical Gaussian surface of cross¬sectional area A and length 2r with its axis perpendicular to the sheet.

As the lines of force are parallel to the curved surface of the cylinder, the flux through the curved surface is zero. The flux through the plane-end faces of the cylinder is :

(i) For positively charged sheet ➝ away from the sheet
(ii)For negatively charged sheet ➝towards the sheet

(b) and

Question 74.
(a) Derive an expression for the electric field E due to a dipole of length ‘2a’ at a point distant r from the centre of the dipole on the axial line. (b) Draw a graph of E versus r for r >> a.
(c) If this dipole were kept in a uniform external electric field diagrammatically represent the position of the dipole in stable and unstable equilibrium and write the expressions for the torque acting on the dipole in both the cases. (Outside Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(a) Expression for magnetic field due to dipole on its axial lane:

(b)Only the faces perpendicular to the direction of x-axis, contribute to the Electric flux. The remaining faces of the cube given zero

(b) Graph between E Vs r

(i) Diagrammatic representation
(ii) Torque acting on these cases
(i) In stable equilibrium, torque is zero (θ = 0)

(ii) In unstable equilibrium also, torque is zero (θ = 180°)

Question 75.
(a) Use Gauss’s theorem to find the electronic field due to a uniformly charged infinitely large plane thin sheet with surface charge density a.
(b) An infinitely large thin plane sheet has a uniform surface charge density +a. Obtain the expression for the amount of work done in bringing a point charge q from infinity to a point, distant r, in front of the charged plane sheet. (Outside Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(a) Electric flux: The electric flux through a given area held inside an electric field is the measure of the total number of electric lines of force passing normally through that area.

(b) Consider a thin, infinite plane sheet of charge with uniform surface charge density 0. We wish to calculate its electric field at a point P at distance r from it.

By symmetry, electric field E points outwards normal to the sheet. Also, it must have same magnitude and opposite direction at two points P anel F equidistant from the sheet and on opposite sides. We choose cylindrical Gaussian surface of cross¬sectional area A and length 2r with its axis perpendicular to the sheet.

As the lines of force are parallel to the curved surface of the cylinder, the flux through the curved surface is zero. The flux through the plane-end faces of the cylinder is :

(i) For positively charged sheet ➝ away from the sheet
(ii)For negatively charged sheet ➝towards the sheet

Question 76.
(a) State Gauss’ law. Using this law, obtain the expression for the electric field due to an infinitely long straight conductor of linear charge density X.
(b) A wire AB of length L has linear charge density λ = kx, where x is measured from the end A of the wire. This wire is enclosed by a Gaussian hollow surface. Find the expression for the electric flux through this surface.
(Comptt. Outside Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(a)
Gauss’s law in electrostatics : It states that “the total electric flux over the surface S in vaccum is times the total charge (q).”

Electric field due to an infinitely long straight wire : Consider an infinitely long straight line charge having linear charge density X to determine its electric field at distance r. Consider a cylindrical Gaussian surface of radius r and length l coaxial with the charge. By symmetry, the electric field E has same magnitude at each point of the curved surface Sj and is directed radially outward.
Total flux through the cylindrical surface,

(b) Given : Length of wire = L, Charge density (λ) = kx, ϕ = ?
We know

Question 77.
Two point charges 4 (J.C and +1 pC are separated by a distance of 2 m in air. Find the point on the line-joining charges at which the net electric field of the system is zero. (Comptt. Outside Delhi 2017)
Answer:
q₁ = 4 µC, q₂ = 1 µC, r = 2 m
At this point, the net electric field of the system is zero.

Important Questions for Class 12 Physics

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Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 9 Planning and Sustainable Development in Indian Context

Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answers of the following from the given options:

Question 1.(i)
Regional planning relates to:
(a) Development of various sectors of economy.
(b) Area specific approach of development.
(c) Area differences in transportation network.
(d) Development of rural areas.
Answer:
(b) Area specific approach of development.

Question 1.(ii)
ITDP refers to which one of the following?
(a) Integrated Tourism Development Programme
(b) Integrated Travel Development Programme
(c) Integrated Tribal Development Programme
(d) Integrated Transport Development Programme
Answer:
(c) Integrated Tribal Development Programme

Question 1.(iii)
Which one of the following is the most crucial factor for sustainable development in Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area?
(a) Agricultural development
(b) Eco-development
(c) Transport development
(d) Colonisation of land
Answer:
(b) Eco-development

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
What are the social benefits of ITDP in the Bharmaur tribal region?
Answer:
The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among ‘Scheduled Tribes’. The social benefits derived from ITDP include tremendous increase in literacy rate, improvement in sex ratio and decline in child marriage. The female literacy rate in the region increased from 1.88 per cent in 1971 to 42.83 per cent in 2001. The difference between males and females in literacy level i.e. gender inequality, has also declined. The most significant contribution of tribal sub plan in Bharmaur region is the development of infrastructure in terms of schools, health care facilities, potable water, roads, communications and electricity. Practise of transhumance has decreased and now people migrate to Kangra as wage labourers thereby bringing in new life to their enclosed world.

Question 2.(ii)
Define the concept of sustainable development.
Answer:
(WCED) Brundtland Commission report (also known as Brundtland Report) ‘Our Common Future’ in 1987 defines sustainable development as a “development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. It reflected the concern of people about undesirable effects of industrial development on the environment.

Sustainable development takes care of ecological, social and economic aspects of development during the present times and pleads for conservation of resources to enable the future generations to use these resources. It takes into account the development of whole human kind which have common future.

Question 2.(iii)
What are the positive impacts of irrigation on Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area?
Answer:
Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as the Rajasthan Canal, is one of the largest canal systems in India. The canal originates at Harike barrage in Punjab and runs parallel to Pakistan border at an average distance of 40 km in Thar Desert (Marusthali) of Rajasthan. The introduction of canal irrigation in this dry land has transformed its ecology, economy and society. It has influenced the environmental conditions of the region both positively as well as negatively. The availability of soil moisture for a longer period of time and various afforestation and pasture development programmes under CAD have resulted in greening the land. This has also helped in reducing wind erosion and siltation of canal systems. It has led to tremendous increase in agricultural and livestock productivity. Spread of canal irrigation has led to increase in cultivated area and intensity of cropping. The traditional crops sown in the area, gram, bajra and jowar have been replaced by wheat, cotton, groundnut and rice.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
Write short notes on drought-prone area programme. How does this programme help in the development of dryland agriculture in India?
Answer:
Drought prone area programme was initiated during the Fourth Five Year Plan with the objectives of providing employment to the people in drought-prone areas and creating productive assets. Initially this programme laid emphasis on the construction of labour-intensive civil works. But later on, it emphasised on irrigation projects, land development programmes, afforestation, grassland development and creation of basic rural infrastructure such as electricity, roads, market, credit and services.

Since growing population pressure is forcing the society to utilise the marginal lands for agriculture, and, thereby causing ecological degradation, there is a need to create alternative employment opportunities in the drought-prone areas. The other strategies of development of these areas include adoption of integrated watershed development approach at the micro-level. The restoration of ecological balance between water, soil, plants, and human and animal population should be a basic consideration in the strategy of development of drought-prone areas. Broadly, the drought- prone area in India spread over semi-arid and arid tract of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Western Madhya Pradesh, Marathwada region of Maharashtra, Rayalseema and Telangana plateaus of Andhra Pradesh, Karantka plateau and highlands and interior parts of Tamil Nadu. The drought prone areas of Punjab, Haryana and north-Rajasthan are largely protected due to spread of irrigation in these regions.

Since the focus of the programme is sustainable development of the entire ecology and provide with the irrigational facilities to the regions, therefore the dryland agriculture gets a boost. The adoption of integrated watershed management and other programmes also contribute towards common property resource, collective farming etc. which increases the size of the cultivable plots, increasing the productivity. With introduction of drought prone area programmes, even the areas in the diyland region were able to avail proper agricultural technology and therefore dryland agriculture had prospects of increased productivity.

Question 3.(ii)
Suggest the measures of promotion of sustainability in Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area.
Answer:
The ecological sustainability of Indira Gandhi Canal Project has been questioned by various scholars. It is a hard fact that attaining sustainable development in the command area requires major thrust upon the measures to achieve ecological sustainability. Hence, five of the seven measures proposed to promote sustainable development in the command area are meant to restore ecological balance.

• The first requirement is strict implementation of water management policy. The canal project envisages protective irrigation in Stage-I and extensive irrigation of crops and pasture development in Stage-II.
• In general, the cropping pattern shall not include water intensive crops. It shall be adhered to and people shall be encouraged to grow plantation crops such as citrus fruits.
• The CAD programmes such as lining of water courses, land development and levelling and warabandi system (equal distribution of canal water in the command area of outlet) shall be effectively implemented to reduce the conveyance loss of water.
• The areas affected by water logging and soil salinity shall be reclaimed.
• The eco-development through afforestation, shelterbelt plantation and pasture development is necessary particularly in the fragile environment of Stage-II.
• The social sustainability in the region can be achieved only if the land allottees having poor economic background are provided adequate financial and institutional support for cultivation of land.
• The economic sustainability in the region cannot be attained only through development of agriculture and animal husbandry. The agricultural and allied activities have to develop along with other sectors of economy. This shall lead to diversification of economic base and establishment of functional linkages between basic villages, agro-service centers and market centers.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by planning?
Answer:
Planning means process of thinking, formulating schemes or programmes and implanting them by actions to achieve economic development in the country.

Question 2.
Who is responsible for planning in India?
Answer:
The Planning Commission, a statutory body headed by the Prime Minister and members, is responsible for planning in India.

Question 3.
What are the two approaches to planning in India?
Answer:
The two approaches to planning in India are:

1. Sectoral Planning
2. Regional Planning

Question 4.
What do you mean by Rolling Plans?
Answer:
Two successive droughts during mid¬sixties (1965-66 and 1966-67) and war with Pakistan in 1965 forced plan holiday in 1966-67 and 1968-69. This period was covered by annual plans, which are also termed as Rolling Plans.

Question 5.
What do you mean by sectoral planning?
Answer:
Sectoral planning means formulation and implementation of schemes or programmes for the development of various sectors of the economy such as agriculture, irrigation, power, manufacturing, construction, transport, communication, services and social infrastructure.

Question 6.
What do you mean by regional planning?
Answer:
Regional planning means formulation and implementation of schemes or programmes for the development of backward region to reduce regional imbalance in the development.

Question 7.
Give examples of programmes directed towards the development of target area in the country.
Answer:

• Command Area Development Programme
• Drought-prone Area Development Programme
• Desert Development Programme
• Hill Area Development Programme
• The Small Farmers Development Agency (SFDA) and Marginal Farmers Develop¬ment Agency (MFDA). These are the few examples of target group programme.

Question 8.
Name the tribal community included in ‘Scheduled Tribes’ in 1970’s.
Answer:
Gaddis were included among ‘Scheduled Tribes’ in 1970’s.

Question 9.
When was the tribal subplan introduced?
Answer:
Tribal subplan was introduced in 1974, under Fifth Five Year Plan:

Question 10.
Name the four physiographic Bharmaur Region?
Answer:

• Kugit Area
• Tundah Area
• Khani Area
• Holi Area

Question 11.
What are the two phases incorporated •in the definition of development?
Answer:
The two phases are:

• Redistribution with growth
• Growth and equity

Question 12.
Mention the issues included in the concept of development.
Answer:
The issues included in the concept of development are as improving the well¬being and living standard of people, availing of health, education and equality of opportunity and ensuring political and civil rights.

Question 13.
Name the two publications associated with sustainable development.
Answer:

• The Population Bomb’ by Ehrlich in 1968.
• The Limits to Growth’ by Meadows.

Question 14.
Why is WECD established? Who headed it?
Answer:
In view of the growing concern of the world community about the growing environmental problems, the United Nations established a World Commission on Environment and Development (WECD). It was headed by Harlem Brundtland, Prime Minister of Norway.

Question 15.
What was the name of Brundtland Report?
Answer:
The name of the Brundtland Report was “Our Common Future”.

Question 16.
Explain the concept of sustainable development.
Answer:
It defines as a development that .meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their on needs. Sustainable development takes care of ecological, social and economic aspects of development during the present times and pleads for conservation of resources to enable the future generations to use these resources.

Question 17.
What are the features of Indira Gandhi Canal Command area?
Answer:

• Indira Gandhi Canal, previously known as Rajasthan Canal, is one of the largest canal systems in India.
• It originates at Harike barrage in Punjab and runs parallel to Pakistan border at an average distance of 40 km in Thar Desert.
• Its total length is 9,060 km.
• It caters to the irrigation needs of a total culturable command area of 19.63 lakh hectares.

Question 18.
What is meant by target area?
Answer:
In order to arrest regional imbalance, schemes and programmes for the development of backward regions of India which needs special attention were introduced in the form of target area.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention the important features of Hill Area Development Programmes.
Answer:

• Hill Area Development Programmes were initiated during Fifth Year Plan.
• It covered 15 districts comprising all the hilly districts of Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Assam, West Bengal and Tamil Nadu.
• The hill areas in the country having height above 600 metres and not covered under tribal subplan be treated as Backward Hill Areas.
• These programmes aimed at harnessing the indigenous resources of the hill areas through development of horticulture, plantation agriculture, animal husbandry, poultry, forestry and small-scale and village industry.

Question 2.
Name those Five Year Plans of India which could not complete its duration.
Answer:
India has centralised planning and the task of planning in India has been entrusted to the Planning Commission. It is a statutory body headed by the Prime Minister and has a Deputy Chairman and members. The planning in the country is largely carried out through Five Year Plans by the Planning Commission.

Two successive droughts during mid¬sixties (1965-66 and 1966-67) and war with Pakistan in 1965 forced plan holiday in 1966-67 and 1968-69. This period was covered by annual plans. It was called rolling plans. The Fifth Five Year Plan began in 1974-75 but it was terminated by the then government one year earlier, i.e. in 1977-78. Once again due to the political instability and initiation of liberalization policy, the Eighth Five Year Plan got delayed.

Question 3.
Explain the need and importance of Target Area Planning.
Answer:
Need of Target Area Planning:

• The planning process has to take special care of those areas which have remained economically backward.
• The economic development of a region depends upon its resource base. But resources are not equally distributed. Economic development also requires technological investments besides resource. Therefore, sometimes resource- rich regions also remain backward. It demands Target Area Planning for balanced regional development.

Importance of Target Area Planning:

• With the planning experience of about one and half decades, it was realised that regional imbalances in economic development were getting accentuated. In order to arrest the accentuation of regional and social disparties, the Planning Commission introduced the ‘target area’ and ‘target group’ approaches to planning.
• It will help in bringing balanced regional development which in turn has multiple benefits.

Question 4.
Mention the important features of Drought Prone Area Programmes.
Answer:

• This programme was initiated during the Fourth Five Year Plan.
• Irrigation Commission (1972) introduced the criterion of 30 per cent irrigated area and demarcated the drought prone areas.
• The objectives of providing employment to the people in drought-prone areas and creating productive assets.
• This programmes laid emphasis on the construction of labour intensive civil works. Irrigation projects, land development programmes, afforestation, grassland development and creation of basic rural infrastructure such as electricity, roads, market, credit and services.
• Other strategies include adoption of integrated watershed development approach at micro level.
• The restoration of ecological balance between water, soil, plants and human population.

Question 5.
What are the positive and negative influences of Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area Development Programme on the environment of the region?
Answer:
The positive and negative, influences of Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area Development Programme are as follows:
Positive:

• The availability of soil moisture for a longer period of time and various afforestation and pasture development programmes under CAD have resulted in transformation in agricultural economy.
• Spread of canal irrigation has led to increase in cultivated area and intensity of cropping.
• It has also helped in reducing wind erosion and siltation of canal systems.
• Traditional crops such as gram, bajra and jowar have been replaced by wheat, cotton, groundnut and rice.
• Intensive irrigation led to an increase in agricultural and livestock productivity.

Negative:

• The intensive irrigation and excessive use of water has led to the emergence of twin environmental problems of waterlogging and soil salinity.
• Soils are getting infertile and thus in the long run agriculture would be affected.
• It has degraded the environment of the region hampering sustainability of agriculture.

Question 6.
Indian lifestyle was quite environment friendly but globalization has brought a change in lifestyle which is not environment friendly. Do you agree? Justify your answer.
Answer:
It is quite right that Indian lifestyle is environment friendly. People use local materials to build houses, natural cycle is followed in agriculture so that soil is replenished. They are habitual of working during day hours and hence electricity consumption is less. But due to globalization, we have come in contact with western nations. It has affected our old ways and our lifestyles are no more environment friendly with increase use of resources.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How did the concept of sustainable development originate?
Answer:
Development is a multi-dimensional concept and signifies the positive, irreversible transformation of the economy, society and environment. The concept of development is dynamic and has evolved during the second half of twentieth century.

Phase I: Development and Economic Growth are synonyms: In the post World War II era, the concept of development was synonymous to economic growth. Economic growth is measured in terms of temporal increase in gross national product (GNP) and per capita income or per capita consumption.

Phase II: Development is growth with equity: But, even the countries having high economic growth, experienced speedy rise in poverty because of unequal distribution of income and wealth. So, in 1970s, the phrases such as redistribution with growth and growth and equity were incorporated in the definition of development.

Phase III: Development is economic as well as social: When discussions continued regarding redistribution and equity, it was realized that the concept of development cannot be restricted to the economic sphere alone. It also includes the issues such as improving the well-being and living standard of people, availing of the health, education and equality of opportunity and ensuring political and civil rights. By 1980’s, development emerged as a concept encapsulating widespread improvement in social as well as material well-being of all in a society. The notion of sustainable development merged with the awareness of environmental issue in 1960’s with the undesirable effects of industries on environment.

Concerned with the growing opinion of world community on the environmental issues, the United Nations established a World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED). It was headed by the Norwegian Prime Minister Gro Harlem Brundtland. The Commission gave its report in 1987. It is called Brundtland Report and was entitled ‘Our Common Future’. According to this report, sustainable development is a “development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.”

Question 2.
Which socio-economic benefits are being experienced by implementation of Integrated Tribal Development Project in Bharmaur?
Answer:
Two tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh, namely Bharmaur and Holi were notified as a tribal area since 21 November, 1975. Bharmaur is inhabited by ‘Gaddi’, a tribal community who have maintained a distinct identity in the Himalayan region as they practise transhumance and conversed through Gaddiali dialect. It is one of the economically and socially backward areas of Himachal Pradesh. Due to implementation of Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP), there have been tremendous socio-economic benefits,
Social Benefits:

• The most significant contribution of tribal subplan in Bharmaur region is the development of infrastructure in terms of schools, health care facilities, potable water, roads, communications and electricity.
• Tremendous increase in literacy rate (female literacy increase from 1.9% to 65%)
• Improvement in sex ratio.
• Decline in child marriage.
• Difference between males and females in literacy rate, i.e. gender inequality, has also declined.

Economic Benefits:

• The cultivation of pulses and other cash crops has increased in Bharmaur region.
• Now a few people practise transhumance because the importance of pastoralism is gradually declining. (About 1/10 household practises pastoralism).

Question 3.
What measures for promotion of sustainable development have been taken under Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area?
Answer:
The following measures for promotion of sustainable development have been taken under Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area:

• The first requirement is strict implemen¬tation of water management policy. It envisages protective irrigation in Stage-I and extensive irrigation of crops and pasture development in Stage-II.
• The cropping pattern shall not include water-intensive crops. It shall be adhered to and people shall be encouraged to grow plantation crops such as citrus fruits.
• The CAD programmes such as lining of water courses, land development and levelling and warabandi system shall be effectively implemented to reduce the conveyance loss of water.
• The areas affected by water logging and soil salinity shall be reclaimed.
• The eco-development through afforestation, shelterbelt plantation and pasture development is necessary particularly in the fragile environment of Stage II.
• The social sustainability in the region can be achieved only if the land allottees having poor economic background are provided adequate financial and institutional support for cultivation of land.
• The agricultural and allied activities have to develop along with other sectors of economy. It leads to diversification of economic base and establishment of functional linkages between basic villages, agro-services centres and market centres.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
How did the notion of sustainable development emerge? Also, state some of its salient features.
Answer:
Notion of sustainable development has emerged in phases:

• Rise in the awareness of environmental issues in western world.
• Concern of people about undesirable effects of industrial development on the environment.
• The publications like — “The Population Bomb” and “The Limits to Growth” further raised the issue. Salient Features:
• It takes care of ecological, social and economic aspects of development.
• It meets the needs of the present without compromising to the needs and aspirations of the future generations.
• It takes into account the development of whole human being.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 9 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
In which Five Year Plan of India were Hill Area Development Programmes initiated? (A.I. 2009)
Answer:
Fifth Five Year Plan.

Question 2.
What was the main objective to implement the Fourth Five Year Plan for the people in drought prone areas? (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
The main objective of Fourth Five Year Plan for the people of drought prone area was to provide employment and create productive assets.

Question 3.
How has the Gaddi Tribal community of Bharmaur region maintained a distinct identity? (A.I. 2013)
Answer:

• They practiced transhumance in the Himalayan region.
• They conversed through Gaddiali dialect.

Question 4.
Examine the twin environmental problems that have emerged in the “Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area’. (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
Environmental problems:

• Water logging
• Soil salinity The intensive irrigation and excessive use of water has led to the emergence of twin environmental problems of Water logging and Soil salinity in the Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area.

Question 5.
Examine the concept of ‘regional planning’. (Delhi 2018)
Answer:
The concept of regional planning: To develop a particular region/ to reduce the regional imbalance in the development.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

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CBSE Important Questions for Class 12 History Chapter Wise in hindi and english medium Pdf free download was designed by expert teachers from latest edition of NCERT books to get good marks in board exams. Here we have given History Class 12 Important Questions.

CBSE Important Questions for Class 12 History Chapter Wise

• Chapter 1 Bricks, Beads and Bones (The Harappan Civilisation)
• Chapter 2 Kings, Farmers and Towns (Early States and Economies)
• Chapter 3 Kinship, Caste and Class (Early Societies)
• Chapter 4 Thinkers, Beliefs and Buildings (Cultural Developments)
• Chapter 5 Through the Eyes of Travellers (Perceptions of Society)
• Chapter 6 Bhakti-Sufi Traditions (Changes in Religious Beliefs and Devotional Texts)
• Chapter 7 An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara
• Chapter 8 Peasants, Zamindars and the State (Agrarian Society and the Mughal Empire)
• Chapter 9 Kings and Chronicles: The Mughal Courts
• Chapter 10 Colonialism and the Countryside (Exploring Official Archives)
• Chapter 11 Rebels and the Raj: The Revolt of 1857 and its Representations
• Chapter 12 Colonial Cities: Urbanisation, Planning and Architecture
• Chapter 13 Mahatma Gandhi and the Nationalist Movement (Civil Disobedience and Beyond)
• Chapter 14 Understanding Partition (Politics, Memories, Experiences)
• Chapter 15 Framing the Constitution (The Beginning of a New Era)

We hope the given CBSE Important Questions for Class 12 History Chapter Wise in hindi and english medium Pdf free download will help you. If you have any query regarding History Class 12 Important Questions, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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Practical Work in Geography Class 12 Solutions Chapter 4 Map Projections

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 4 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the correct option for the alternatives given below:
Question 1(i).
What type of graph would you use to represent the following data?

(a) Line
(b) Multiple bar graph
(c) Pie-diagram
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Pie-diagram

Question 1(ii).
Districts within states would be represented in which type of spatial data?
(a) Points
(b) Lines
(c) Polygons
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Polygons

Question 1(iii).
Which is the operator that is calculated first in a formula given in a cell of a worksheet?
(a) +
(b) –
(c) /
(d) ×
Answer:
(c) /

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2(i).
What are the functions of different hardware components and software requirements of a computer?
Answer:
The hardware components of a computer include the following:

• A Central Processing Unit and Storage System: It facilitates the execution of program instructions for processing data and controlling peripheral equipments
  All data together with the operating system and the application programs occupy space in disk storage unit which functions as working memory.
• A Graphic Display Sub-system: A graphic display system or monitor serves as the user’s prime visual communication medium in all computers. A high resolution display system with a greater range of possible display colours and Look-up Tables (LUT) for rapid alteration of colour patterns is generally preferred in graphic and mapping applications.
• Input Devices: The instruction and the statistical data are entered into the computer using the keyboard functions. The keyboard is an important input device that resembles with a typewriter. It has various keys for different purposes.
• Output Devices: The output devices include a variety of printers such as ink-jet, laser and colour laser printers; and the plotters that are available in different sizes ranging from A3 to AO size.

Computer Software Requirements

Computer Software: It is a written program that is stored in memory. It performs specific functions as per the instructions given by the user.

1. The Data Entry and Editing Modules: These inbuilt modules in the data processing and mapping software facilitate the data entry system interface, database creation, error removal, scale and projection manipulations, their organisation, and maintenance of the data.
2. Coordinate Transformation and Manipulation Modules: The present day softwares provide a wide range of capabilities used to create layers of spatial data, coordinate transformation, editing and linking the spatial data sets with the related non-spatial attributes of data.
3. Data Display and Output Modules: The data display and output operations vary over a range of functions and are very much dependent on the skills developed in the field of computer graphics. Some of the common capabilities that the present day softwares provide are:
   • Zooming/Windowing to display of selected areas and scale change operation
   • Colour assignment/change operation
   • Three dimensional and perspective display
   • Selective display of various themes
   • Polygon shading, line styling and point markers display
   • Output device interface commands for interfacing with plotter devices/printers
   • Graphic User Interface (GUI) based menu organisation for an essay interface

Question 2(ii).
What are the advantages of using computer over manual methods of data processing and representation?
Answer:
When we use computer, it is less time consuming and the results arrived are more reliable but manual data processing takes too much time and results are not so reliable

Question 2(iii).
What is a worksheet?
Answer:
A worksheet is a rectangular table (or grid) to store information. The worksheets are located in Workbooks or Excel files. Most of the MS Excel screen is devoted to the display of the worksheet, which consists of rows and columns. The intersection of a row and column is a rectangular area, which is called a cell. In other words, a worksheet is made up of cells. A cell can contain a numerical value, a formula (which after calculation provides numerical value) or text. Texts are generally used for labelling numbers entered in the cells. A value entry can either be a number (entered directly) or result of a formula. The value of a formula will change when the components (arguments) of the formula change.

3. Answer the following questions in about 125 words:

Question 3(i).
What is difference between spatial and non-spatial data? Explain with examples.
Answer:
Spatial Data: The spatial data represent a geographical space. They are characterised by the points, lines and the polygons. The point data represent positional characteristics of some of the geographical features such as schools, hospitals, wells, tube- wells, towns and villages, etc. on the map. In other words, if we want to present occurrence of the objects on a map in dimensionless scale but with reference to location, we use points.

Similarly, lines are used to depict linear features like roads, railway lines, canals, rivers, power and communication lines, etc. Polygons are made up of a number of inter-connected lines bounding a certain area and are used to show area features such as administrative units (countries, districts, states, blocks); land use types (cultivated area, forest lands, degraded/wastelands, pastures, etc.) and features like ponds, lakes, etc.

Non-spatial Data: The data describing the information about spatial data are called as non-spatial or attribute data. For example, if you have a map showing positional location of your school you can attach the information such as the name of the school, subject stream it offers, number of students in each class, schedule of admissions, teaching and examinations, available facilities like library, labs, equipments, etc. In other words, you will be defining the attributes of the spatial data. Thus, non-spatial data are also known as attribute-data.
Sources of Geographical Data: The geographical data are available in analogue (map and aerial photographs) or digital form (scanned images).

Question 3(ii).
What are the three forms of geographical data in computer?
Answer: There are three forms of geographical data in a computer. The extensions of these files are shp, shx and dbf. The dbf file is dbase file that contains attribute data and is linked to shx and shp files. The shx and shp files, on the other hand, contain spatial (map) information. The dbf file can be edited in MS Excel.

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Carry out the following steps using the given data set:
(a) Enter the given data in a file and store in ‘My Documents’ folder (Name the file as rainfall).
(b) Calculate the standard deviation and mean for the given data set using Function Wizard in Excel spreadsheet.
(c) Compute coefficient of variation using the results derived in step (b)
(d) Analyse the results.
Answer:
Do yourself.

Question 2.
Represent the data given below using a suitable technique with the help of a computer and analyse the graph.

Answer:
Do yourself.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 4 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 4 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a computer?
Answer:
A computer is an electronic device. It consists of various sub-systems like memory, micro-processor, input system and output system. All these sub-systems work together to make it an integrated system.

Question 2.
What are the main component parts of a computer?
Answer:
Any computer has two components:
(a) Hardware: The hardware configurations comprise of the storage, display, and input and output sub-systems.
(b) Software: These are the programs that are made up of electronic codes according to which a computer works.

Question 3.
What are the important hardware components of a computer?
Answer:
The hardware components of a computer include:

• A Central Processing Unit (CPU)
• Storage System
• A Graphic Display Sub-system
• Input Devices
• Output Devices

Question 4.
Name the important software used in geography.
Answer:
There are a number of commercially available mapping softwares such as ArcGIS, ArcView, Geomedia, GRAM, Idrisi, Geometica, etc. There are also a few freely downloadable softwares that can be downloaded with the help of Internet, e.g., QGIS.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 4 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How does computer work?
Answer:
A computer carries out the instructions it receives from the users. In other words, it cannot perform any function on its own. It does according to the software saved in it. A Computer software is a written program that is stored in memory. It performs specific functions as per the instructions given by the user. The present day commercial packages such as MS Excel/Spreadsheet, Lotus 1-2-3, and d – base provide capabilities for data processing and generation of graphs. On the other hand, Arc View/Arc GIS, Geomedia, possess modules for mapping and analysis.

Question 2.
What are the important software applications of a computer?
Answer:
There is utility of computer in almost every field of life. It has affected all fields of life. The present day commercial packages such as MS Excel/Spreadsheet, Lotus 1-2 – 3, and d – base provide capabilities for data processing and generation of graphs.
On the other hand, Arc View/Arc GIS, Geomedia, possess modules for mapping and analysis.

Question 3.
How is MS-excel an important software in Geography?
Answer:
MS Excel is an important software used for data processing, and drawing graphs and diagrams. MS Excel being most widely used and commonly available software program in all parts of the country has been chosen among other software to carry out the data processing. It is compatible with map-making software as one can easily feed data in MS Excel and attach it to the map-making software to create maps. MS Excel is a spreadsheet programme.

Question 4.
What do you mean by a spreadsheet?
Answer:
A spreadsheet of MS Excel is a rectangular table (or grid) to store information. The spreadsheets are located in Workbooks or Excel files. Most of the MS Excel screen is devoted to the display of the worksheet, which consists of rows and columns. The intersection of a row and column is a rectangular area, which is called a cell. In other words, a worksheet is made up of cells. An Excel worksheet contains 16,384 rows, numbered 1 through 16,384 and 256 columns.

Queston 5.
Explain the keyboard functions of MS Excel.
Answer:
For opening a new file, press File menu New or Ctrl + N. For opening an existing file go to file menu and press or Ctrl + O. To save a file, give a file name and define where you want to store it (by default, it is c:\….\my documents’^ go to file menu and press Save or press Ctrl + S. For Copy, move and paste a set of data, select the set of data by pressing the left mouse button and dragging it over the set of the data you want to select Edit menu and press Copy or press Ctrl + C. Cut, move and paste a set of data. Select the set of data by pressing the left mouse button and dragging it over the set of the data you want to select Edit Cut Ctrl + X. For pasting a set of data take the cursor to the cell where you want to paste it. Go to Edit menu and press Paste or press Ctrl + V for undoing the last action Edit menu and press Undo or Ctrl + Z. For redoing the last action go to Edit menu and press Repeat or press Ctrl + Y.

Question 6.
What are the important rules for presentation of data?
Answer:
(i) A figure should have its figure number.
(ii) It should have a suitable title in which time and space it relates to should also be mentioned.
(iii) Within title or as sub-title, the unit in which the quantities are shown should be mentioned.
(iv) The title, sub-title, title of axes, legend and the main presentation should be shown with suitable font size and type so that they occupy space in a balanced manner.

Question 7.
What are different types of data and how are they presented?
Answer:
There are specific diagrams and graphs suitable for data types:

• Time series data are represented through line graphs or bar diagram.
• Bar diagrams and histograms are generally used for showing shares or frequencies of various units.
• Compound bar diagrams, and pie-charts are used for showing shares of various units.
• Maps are used for location-wise repi esentation of data. This helps in comprehending spatial patterns in the data.

Question 8.
How do we solve arithmetic expressions in MS excel?
Answer:
We solve arithmetic expressions in the following sequence. First of all, brackets are solved. Thereafter division and then multiplication is done. There after addition and subtraction is done. In short the rule of BODMAS is followed. It can be understood by an example.
= 20 x 2/4 + (10 – 8 + 2)2 = 20 x 2/4 + (4)2 = 20 x 2/4 + 16 = 40/4 + 16 = 10 + 16 = 26
In MS Excel, it will be expressed as Fx = SUM (A 1 x Bl/Cl + Dl) x El

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 4 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which measures of central tendency can be measured from MS excel? Explain any one of them.
Answer:
Central tendencies include mean, median and mode. They can be calculated using MS Excel. MS Excel calls it average. Following steps for measuring mean are as follows:
Step-1: Enter year-wise cropping intensity data in a worksheet.

Step-2: Click on cell B12 using mouse.

Step-3: Click on Insert Menu and choose f x, this will open Insert Function dialogue box. Step-4: Select Statistical from select a category menu on the dialogue box. This will bring forth the statistical functions available in Excel in the box below in the same dialogue box.

Step-5: In the box, select a Function, click on Average, and press OK button. This will open another dialogue box called Function Argument.

Step-6: Either enter the cell range of data of the first decade CI_50s (which shows year-wise cropping intensity in 1950s) in the Number 1 box on Function Argument dialogue box of data, or drag cursor pressing the left button of mouse over the cell range of data.

Step-7: Press OK button on the Function Argument dialogue box. This calculates mean cropping intensity for the decade 1950s in cell B12, where you had put your cursor in the beginning.

Step-8: Now calculate the mean for other decade either the following steps 1-7 given above or dragging cursor right handward in the same row selecting the small square from rectangle of cell B12 or you can copy the cell B12 and paste it on D12, F12, H12 and J12. This will give you mean value of cropping intensity for the decades 1960s, 1970s, 1980s and 1990s, respectively. It is shown with the help of following diagrams:

Question 2.
Using a suitable example, explain the steps to be followed for drawing different types of diagrams and charts in MS Excel.
Answer:
Step-1: Enter the data in worksheet.

Step-2: Select the cells dragging mouse (right button pressed) over the cells.

Step-3: Click on Chart Wizard. This will open Step 1 of 4 of Chart Wizard.

Step-4: Double click on the simple bar diagram in the box ‘Chart Sub-type’. will lead you to Step 2 of 4 of Chart Wizard.

Step-5: Choose the type of chart you want and click on ok button.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 4 Viva Questions

Question 1.
What is spatial data?
Answer:
The spatial data represent a geographical space. They are characterised by the points, lines and the polygons. The point data represent positional characteristics of some of the geographical features such as schools, hospitals, wells, tube- wells, towns and villages, etc. on the map.

Question 2.
What is Non-spatial data?
Answer: The data describing the information about spatial data are called non-spatial or attribute data. For example, if you have a map showing positional location of your school you can attach the information such as the name of the school, subject stream it offers, numbers of students in each class, schedule of admissions, teaching and examinations, available facilities like library, labs, equipments, etc.

Question 3.
What is a mapping software?
Answer:
A mapping software provides functions for spatial and attribute data input through onscreen digitisation of scanned maps, corrections of errors, transformation of scale and projection, data integration, map design, presentation and analysis.

Question 4.
What is a digitised map?
Answer:
A digitised map consists of three files. The extensions of these files are shp, shx and dbf. The dbf file is dbase file that contains attribute data and is linked to shx and shp files. The shx and shp files, on the other hand, contain spatial (map) information. The dbf file can be edited in MS Excel.

Question 5.
What .are the important software applications of computer?
Answer: There is utility of computer in almost every field of life. It has affected almost all fields of life. The present day commercial packages such as MS Excel/Spreadsheet, Lotus 1-2-3, and d – base provide capabilities for data processing and generation of graphs. On the other hand, Arc View/Arc GIS, Geomedia, possess modules for mapping and analysis.

Question 6.
Name the important software used in Geography.
Answer: There are a number of commercially available mapping softwares such as Arc GIS, Arc View, Geomedia, GRAM, Idrisi, Geomedia, etc. There are also a few freely downloadable softwares that can be downloaded with the help of Internet.

Map Projections Notes

• Computer may be used for data processing, preparation of diagrams/graphs and the drawing of maps, provided you have an access to the related application software. In other words, a computer can be used for a wide range of applications.
• A computer is an electronic device. It consists of various sub-systems like memory, micro-processor, input system and output system. All these sub-systems work together to make it an integrated system.
• A computer carries out the instructions it receives from the users. In other words, it cannot perform any function on its own.
• Since when computers are invented, its forms have changed and its utility and quality has also imoproved a lot. At present, it is an extremely powerful device, which is apt to have an important effect on the systems of data processing, mapping and analysis. It is a data processor that can perform substantial computation, including numerous arithmetic or logical operations, without intervention by a human operator during the run.
• Important functions/advantages of computer are:
  • It substantially increases the speed of the computation and data processing.
  • (b) It can handle huge volume of the data, which is normally not possible manually.
  • It facilitates copy, edit, save and retrieve the data at will.
  • It further enables validation, checking and correction of data easily.Aggregation and analysis of data becomes extremely simple. Computer makes it very easy to perform comparative analysis, whether by drawing maps or graphs.

• Any computer has two components:
  • Hardware: The hardware configurations comprise storage, display, and input and output sub-systems, whereas software are the programs that are made up of electronic codes
  • Software: These are programmes according to which a computer works.
• The hardware components of a computer include:
  • A Central Processing Unit (CPU)
  • Storage System
  • A Graphic Display Sub-system
  • Input Devices
  • Output Devices

• Computer Software: Computer software is a written program that is stored in memory. It performs specific functions as per the instructions given by the user. The present day commercial packages such as MS Excel/Spreadsheet, Lotus 1-2-3, and d – base provide capabilities for data processing and generation of graphs. On the other hand, Arc View/Arc GIS, Geomedia, possess modules for mapping and analysis.
• MS Excel or Spreadsheet: MS Excel is the most widely used and commonly available software program in all parts of the country. Therefore, it has been chosen among other software to carry out the data processing. Besides, it is also compatible with map-making software as one can easily feed data in MS Excel and attach it to the map-making software to create maps.
• A spreadsheet of MS Excel is a rectangular table (or grid) to store information. The spreadsheets are located in Workbooks or Excel files. Most of the MS Excel screen is devoted to the display of the worksheet, which consists of rows and columns. The intersection of a row and column is a rectangular area, which is called a cell. In other words, a worksheet is made up of cells. An Excel worksheet contains 16,384 rows, numbered 1 through 1,6384 and 256 columns.

• For opening a new file, press File menu New or Ctrl + N. For opening an existing file, go to file menu and press Ctrl + O. To save a file, give a file name and define where you want to store it (by default, it is c:\….\my documents\) go to file menu and press Save or press Ctrl + S. For Copy, move and paste a set of data, select the set of data by pressing the left mouse button and dragging it over the set of the data you want to select Edit menu and press Copy or press Ctrl + C. Cut, move and paste a set of data Select the set of data by pressing the left mouse button and dragging it over the set of the data you want to select Edit Cut Ctrl + X. For pasting a set of data take the cursor to the cell where you want to paste it go to Edit menu and press Paste or press Ctrl + V. For undoing the last action Edit menu and press Undo or Ctrl + Z. For redoing the last action go to Edit menu and press Repeat or press Ctrl + Y.

• S.No.	Function	Instructions	Menu	Secondary menu (from dropdown list)	Keyboard shortcuts
  1.	For opening a new file		File	New	Ctrl + N
  	For opening an existing file		File	Open	Ctrl + 0
  2.	Save a file	Give a file name and define where you want to store it (by default, it is c:\…\my documents \).	File	Save	Ctrl + S
  3.	Copy, move and paste a set of data	Select the set of data by pressuring the left mouse button and dragging it over the set of the data you want to select.	Edit	Copy	Ctrl + C
  4.	Cut, move and paste a set of data	Select the set of data by pressuring the left mouse button and dragging it over the set of the data you want to select.	Edit	Cut	Ctrl + X
  5.	Paste a set of data	Take the cursor to the cell where you want to paste it.	Edit	Paste	Ctrl + V
  6.	For undoing the last action		Edit	Undo	Ctrl + Z
  7.	For redoing the last action		Edit	Repeat	Ctrl + V

• There are some important norms for data representation :
• A figure should have its figure number.
• It should have a suitable title in which time and space it relates to should also be mentioned.
• Within title or as sub-title, the unit in which the quantities are shown should be mentioned.
• The title, sub-title, title of axes, legend and the main presentation should be shown with suitable font size and type so that they occupy space in a balanced manner.
• There are specific diagrams and graphs suitable for data types:
  • Time series data are represented through line graphs or bar diagram,
  • Bar diagrams and histograms are generally used for showing shares or frequencies of various units,
  • Compound bar diagrams, and pie-charts are used for showing shares of various units,
  • Maps are used for location-wise representation of data. This helps in comprehending spatial patterns in the data.

Map Projections Important Terms

• Computer: A computer is an electronic device. It consists of various sub-systems like memory, micro-processor, input system and output system. All these sub-systems work together to make it an integrated system.
• CPU: The core of modern computers consists of a central processing unit (CPU), which facilitates the execution of program instructions for processing data and controlling peripheral equipments. All data together with the operating system and the application programs occupy space in disk storage unit which functions as working memory.
• Input Devices: The instruction and the statistical data are entered into the computer using the keyboard functions.
• Output Devices: The output devices include a variety of printers such as ink-jet, laser and colour laser printers; and the plotters that are available in different sizes ranging from A3 to AO size.
• Computer Software: Computer software is a written program that is stored in memory. It performs specific functions as per the instructions given by the user.
• The Data Entry and Editing Modules: These inbuilt modules in the data processing and mapping software facilitate the data entry system interface, database creation, error removal, scale and projection manipulations, their organisation, and maintenance of the data. Any of these and other related data entry, editing and management capabilities might be performed using displayed menus and icons on the screen.
• Spreadsheet: A spreadsheet is a rectangular table (or grid) to store information. The spreadsheets are located in Workbooks or Excel files. Most of the MS Excel screen is devoted to the display of the worksheet, which consists of rows and columns.
• Spatial Data: The spatial data represent a geographical space. They are characterised by the points, lines and the polygons. The point data represent positional characteristics of some of the geographical features such as schools, hospitals, wells, tube- wells, towns and villages, etc. on the map.
• Non-Spatial Data: The data describing the information about spatial data are called as non-spatial or attribute data. For example, if you have a map showing positional location of your school you can attach the information such as the name of the school, subject stream it offers, number of students in each class, schedule of admissions, teaching and examinations, available facilities like library, labs, equipments, etc.
• Mapping Software: A mapping software provides functions for spatial and attribute data input through onscreen digitisation of scanned maps, corrections of errors, transformation of scale and projection, data integration, map design, presentation and analysis.
• Digitised Map: A digitised map consists of three files. The extensions of these files are shp, shx and dbf. The dbf file is dbase file that contains attribute data and is linked to shx and shp files. The shx and shp files, on the other hand, contain spatial (map) information. The dbf file can be edited in MS Excel.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Practical Work in Geography Class 12 Solutions Chapter 4 Map Projections appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NTSE Exam Pattern 2019-20: National Talent Search Examination is a prestigious Scholarship program conducted by NCERT. It is a national level exam which is conducted every year. Around 9 – 10 lakh students appear for the scholarship program every year. It is a national level exam which is conducted every year for class 10 students.

Students preparing for this exam must have a clear knowledge about NTSE Exam Pattern and NTSE Syllabus. This will help them in preparation for the exam. Having a clear knowledge about the NTSE Exam Pattern – marking scheme, sections, number of questions, time duration, etc. and the NTSE syllabus is a must if you want to crack this exam. so students must be thorough with them before they start their preparation. In this article, we will provide you all the information about NTSE Exam Pattern. Read on to find more about NTSE Exam Pattern.

NTSE Exam Pattern 2019

• Name of the Exam: National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
• Conducting Body: NCERT
• Level of the Exam: National
• Type of Questions: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
• Number of Stages: 2 – Stage 1 (State-level) and Stage 2 (National-level)
• Number of Sections in Each Stage: 2 – Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)
• Total Number of Questions in Each Stage: 200
• Total Marks for Each Stage: 200
• Exam Duration: 2 Hours
• Penalty for Wrong Answers: No negative marking

NTSE Exam Pattern for Stage 1

NTSE Exam Pattern for Stage 2

For both stages of NTSE, there is no negative marking and no marks will be deducted for wrong answers.

For the SAT – Science, Social Science & Maths section of both Stage 1 and Stage 2, there will be 40 questions from Science, 40 questions from Social Science, and 20 questions from Mathematics.

NTSE Exam Pattern – Interview

Students who had qualified in stage II of NTSE will be called for an Interview. The best 1000 students will be selected for NTSE Scholarship.

Now that you a clear idea about NTSE Exam Pattern, we hope we have provided all the necessary information about NTSE Exam Pattern. If you have any doubt regarding this post or NTSE Exam Pattern, Please comment in the comment section we will get back to you at the earliest.

The post NTSE Exam Pattern 2019-20 | Detailed NTSE Exam Pattern for Stage 1 and Stage 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Practical Work in Geography Class 12 Solutions Chapter 1 Data – Its Source and Compilation

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1(i).
A number or character which represents measurement is called
(a) Digit
(b) Data
(c) Number
(d) Character
Answer:
(b) Data

Question 1(ii).
A single datum is a single measurement from the
(a) Table
(b) Frequency
(c) Real world
(d) Information
Answer:
(c) Real world

Question 1(iii).
In a tally mark grouping by four and crossing fifth is called
(a) Four and Cross Method
(b) Tally Marking Method
(c) Frequency plotting Method
(d) Inclusive Method
Answer:
Both
(a) Four and Cross Method
(b) Tally Marking Method

Question 1(iv).
An Ogive is a method in which
(a) Simple frequency is measured
(b) Cumulative frequency is measured
(c) Simple frequency is plotted
(d) Cumulative frequency is plotted
Answer:
(d) Cumulative frequency is plotted

Question 1(v).
If both ends of a group are taken in frequency grouping, it is called
(a) Exclusive method
(b) Inclusive method
(c) Marking method
(d) Statistical method
Answer:
(b) Inclusive method

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2(i).
Differentiate between data and information.
Answer:
The data is defined as numbers that represent measurements from the real world. Datum is a single measurement. Thus, numerical information is called data. Information is defined as either a meaningful answer to a query or a meaningful stimulus that can cascade into further queries.

Question 2(ii).
What do you mean by data processing?
Answer:
Data processing is the process of organising, presenting, analysing and interpreting data. Once the data are collected, these data need to be organised, presented and analysed for proper interpretation.

Question 2(iii).
What is the advantage of footnote in a table?
Answer:
Footnote gives the necessary information about the statistics. For example, if we use abbreviation M and F for male and female respectively, it can be clarified through footnote. By giving a star mark, we also give source of data in footnote.

Question 2(iv).
What do you mean by primary sources of data?
Answer:
Primary data refers to the data which is originally collected by the investigator for the purpose of present enquiry directly from individuals or group of individuals using direct personal investigation, indirect personal investigation, mailing interview method, telephonic interview method, etc. It is also called first hand or original data. It is much more reliable as compared to secondary data.

Question 2(v).
Enumerate five sources of secondary data.
Answer:

1. Published Printed Sources
   • Books
   • Journals/periodicals
   • Magazines/newspapers
2. Published Electronic Sources
   • E-journals
   • General websites
   • Weblogs
3. Unpublished personal records
4. Government records
5. Central Statistical Office (CSO) and National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)

3. Answer the following questions in about 125 words:

Question 3(i).
Discuss the national and international agencies where from secondary data may be collected.
Answer:
National and international agencies from where secondary data may be collected are given below:
1. Government Publications: The publications of the various ministries and the departments of the Government of India, State Governments and the District Bulletins are one of the most important sources of secondary information. These include the Census of India published by the Office of the Registrar General of India, reports of the National Sample Survey, Weather Reports of Indian Meteorological Department, and Statistical Abstracts published by state governments, and the periodical reports published by different Commissions.

2. Semi/Question uasi-government Publications: The publications and reports of Urban Development Authorities and Municipal Corporations of various cities and towns, Zila Parishads (District Councils), etc. fall under this category.

3. International Publications: The international publications comprise yearbooks, reports and monographs published by different agencies of the United Nations such as United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO), United Nations Development Programme (UNDP),World Health Organisation (WHO), Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO), etc. Some of the important publications of the United Nations that are periodically published are Demographic Year Book, Statistical Year Book and the Human Development Report.

4. Private Publications: The yearbooks, surveys, research reports and monographs published by newspapers and private organisations fall under this category.

5. Newspapers and Magazines: The daily newspapers and the weekly, fortnightly and monthly magazines serve as easily accessible source of secondary data. (fi Electronic Media: The electronic media specially internet has emerged as a major source of secondary data in recent times.

Question 2(ii).
What is the importance of an index number? Taking an example examine the process of calculating an index number and show the changes.
Answer:
Index numbers are statistical devices designed to measure the relative change in the level of variable or group of variables with respect to time, geographical location, etc. In other words, these are the numbers which express the value of a variable at any given period called ‘current period’ as a percentage of the value of that variable at some standard period called “base period’.

Index numbers are indispensable tools of economics and business analysis. Following are the main uses of index numbers. Index numbers are used as economic barometers. Index numbers help in formulating suitable economic policies and planning. They are used in studying trends and tendencies. Businessmen need to know the trends in the market to take decisions about wage rates, prices of the product, prices of raw materials, etc. Therefore, index numbers are very useful for them. They provide information regarding foreign trade. They are useful in forecasting future economic activity. The cost of living index numbers determines .whether the real wages are rising or falling or remain constant. It is used in deflating. For example, suppose rice sells at ?9/kg at BBSR in 2005 as compare to ₹ 4.50/Kg in 1985.
Therefore the index number of price of rice in 2005 compared to 1985 is calculated as

This means that there is a net increase of 100% in the price of rice in 2005 as compared to 1985. [The base year’s index number is always treated as 100]
Suppose, during the same period 2005 the rice sells at Rs. 12.00/kg in Delhi. Therefore, the index number of price at Bhubaneswar compared to price at Delhi is

This means that there is a net decrease of 25% in the price of rice in 2005 as compared to 1985.
The above index numbers are called ‘Price Index Numbers’.
To take another example the production of rice in 2012 in Orissa was 42,000 metric tons in comparison to 36,000 metric tons in 2001. So the Index Number of the quantity produced in 2012 compared to 2001 is

That means that there is a net increase of 21.61% in production of rice in 2012 as compared to 2001.

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
In a class of 35 students of Geography, following marks were obtained out of 10 marks in unit test – 1, 0, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 2, 3, 4, 0, 2, 5, 8, 4, 5, 3, 6, 3, 2, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 7, 8, 9, 7, 9, 4, 5, ‘4, 3. Represent the data in the form of a group frequency distribution.
Answer:

Question 2.
Collect the last test result of Geography of your class and represent the marks in the form of a group frequency distribution
Answer:
Do yourself.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by data?
Answer:
Numerical and quantitative measurement of geographical events, human activities and their interrelationship are called data.

Question 2.
When do we get meaningful result from collected data?
Answer:
Data collected are required to be organised and presented and then analysed. Only then we can reach at meaningful conclusions from data.

Question 3.
Explain different methods of presentation of data.
Answer:
There can be many methods of presenting the data like: tabulation of data (in absolute terms, in percentage or ratio); graphical presentation, pictoral presentation or presentation using maps.

Question 4.
Name two important sources of collecting data.
Answer:
Two important sources of collecting data are primary data and secondary data.

Question 5.
What are absolute data?
Answer:
When data are presented in their original form as integers, they are called absolute data or raw data. For example, the total population of a country or a state, the total production of a crop or a manufacturing industry, etc.

Question 6.
Differentiate between primary and secondary data.
Answer:
Primary Data: The data which are collected for the first time by an individual or the group of individuals, institution/organisations are called Primary sources of the data. Secondary Data: Data which are collected from any published or unpublished sources are called Secondary sources.

Question 7.
Why is it necessary to convert data into percentage or ratio?
Answer:
Sometimes data are tabulated in a ratio or percentage form that are computed from a common parameter, such as literacy rate or growth rate of population, percentage of agricultural products or industrial products, etc. It is important because absolute data cannot be compared.

Question 8.
What do you mean by index numbers?
Answer:
Index numbers are statistical devices designed to measure the relative change in the level of variable or group of variables with respect to time, geographical location, etc. In other words, these are the numbers which express the value of a variable at any given period called ‘current period’ as a percentage of the value of that variable at some standard period called ‘base period’.

Question 9.
Why is it necessary to analyse the collected data?
Answer:
When we collect data, it is in absolute terms. We need to organise and present these data. After organisation and presentation, these data are converted into percentage and ratio. Thereafter, we need to calculate mean, median, mode, etc. to reach at the conclusion. Therefore, it is necessary to analyse collected data.

Question 10.
Explain the methods adopted to determine class size of data.
Answer:
The grouping of the raw data requires determining of the number of classes in which the raw data are to be grouped and what will be the class intervals. The selection of the class interval and the number of classes, however, depends upon the range of raw data. For example, if raw data is more expanded we can take class interval as 0-10, 10-20, etc. if it is less expanded, class interval can be 0-2, 2-4, etc.

Question 11.
What do you mean by frequency distribution?
Answer: A frequency distribution divides observations in the data set into conveniently established numerically ordered classes (groups or categories). The number of observations in each class is referred to as frequency denoted as f.

Question 12.
Give the difference between normal frequency and cumulative frequency.
Answer:
Simple Frequencies: It is expressed by ‘f and represent the number of individuals falling in each group. On the other hand, Cumulative Frequencies are expressed by ‘Cf and can be obtained by adding successive simple frequencies in each group with the previous sum.

Question 13.
What do you mean by frequency distribution polygon?
Answer:
A graph of frequency distribution is known as the frequency polygon. It helps in comparing the two or more than two frequency distributions. The two frequencies ‘ are shown using a bar diagram and a line graph respectively.

Question 14.
What do you mean by Ogive?
Answer:
When the frequencies are added they are called cumulative frequencies and are listed in a table called cumulative frequency table. The curve obtained by plotting cumulative frequencies is called an Ogive. It is constructed either by the less than method or the more than method.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the exclusive method by less than and more than cumulative frequencies.
Answer:

Question 2.
Exhibit the above data using a frequency polygon.
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain the difference between inclusive method and exclusive method.
Answer:
An inclusive method is one in which there is generally a difference between the upper limit of one class interval and the lower limit of the other class interval. For example, 0-9, 10-19, 20-29 are inclusive classes because it includes 9, 19, 29, etc. On the ‘ other hand, an exclusive method is one in which there is generally no difference between the upper limit of one class interval and the lower limit of the other class interval. For example, 0-10, 10-20, 20-30 are examples of exclusive classes because 10, 20, 30 are not included in the classes where these are upper limits.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the procedure of tabulating and making frequency distribution with the help of an example.
Marks obtained by students in Geography are given below.

Make a frequency distribution.
Answer:
Step-1: Find the difference between the largest and the smallest items. Highest value is 97 and lowest value is 7. Therefore, the difference is 90 (97-7).
Step-2: Keeping in mind the range the class interval will be 10 and classes will be 0-10, 10-20, 20-30, etc.
Step-3: It is to be noted that upper limit is excluded and lower limit is included in the class, i.e. the value 30 will be included in 30-40 not in 20-30.


Conclusions derived from analysis:

• The highest number of students lie in the class interval 50-60, i.e. 10.
• Only 3 students have got marks between 0-10.
• Only 14 students have got marks less than 40%.
• 2 students have got marks more than 90.
• 48 students have got marks less than 90.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 Viva Questions

Question 1.
Give two methods of collecting primary data.
Answer:
Direct oral investigation and interview method.

Question 2.
Give two examples where geographers use secondary data.
Answer:
Geographers use secondary data to find various information. Geographical Survey of India collects data and others use it for different purposes.

Question 3.
Is Internet primary or secondary method of data collection?
Answer:
It is a secondary method of data collection.

Question 4.
What is cumulative frequency?
Answer:
It is summation of frequencies for particular class intervals. It can be obtained by adding successive simple frequencies in each group with the previous sum.

Question 5.
Give two examples of quantitative data.
Answer:
Temperature and rainfall.

Question 6.
Give two examples of qualitative data.
Answer:
Diversity of flora and fauna, forest quality.

Question 7.
What is stub?
Answer:
Heading of a row in a table is called stub.

Question 8.
What is caption?
Answer:
Heading of a column in a table is called caption.

Data – Its Source and Compilation Notes

• Numerical and quantitative measurement of geographical events, human activities and their interrelationship are called data. In other words, quantitative information is called datum. Therefore, data are also called quantitative information. Numbers that define measurement from real world.
• It may be easily realized that there are large volume of data available around the world today. However, at times, it becomes difficult to derive logical conclusions from these data if they are in a raw form. Hence, it is important to ensure that the measured information is algorithmically derived and/or logically deduced and/or statistically calculated from multiple data.
• The use of statistical methods in the analysis, presentation and in drawing conclusions plays a significant role in almost all disciplines, including geography, which use the data.
• It may, therefore, be inferred that the concentration of a phenomena, e.g. population, forest or network of transportation or communication not only vary over space and time but may also be conveniently explained using the data.
• Analytical tools and techniques have become more important these days to make the study more logical and derive precise conclusion. Precise quantitative techniques are used right from the beginning of collecting and compiling data to its tabulation, organisation, ordering and analysis till the derivation of conclusions.
• The data are collected through the following ways. These are:
  (i) Primary Sources (ii) Secondary Sources.
• The data which are collected for the first time by an individual or the group of individuals, institution/organisations are called primary sources of the data.
• Data collected from any published or unpublished sources are called secondary sources.
• When data are presented in their original form as integers, they are called absolute data or raw data. For example, the total population of a country or a state, the total production of a crop or a manufacturing industry, etc.
• Percentage/Ratio: Sometimes data are tabulated in a ratio or percentage form that are computed from a common parameter, such as literacy rate or growth rate of population, percentage of agricultural products or industrial products, etc.
• An index number is a statistical measure designed to show changes in variable or a group of related variables with respect to time, geographic location or other characteristics. It is to be noted that index numbers not only measure changes over a period of time but also compare economic conditions of different locations, industries, cities or countries. Index number is widely used in economics and business to see changes in price and quantity. There are various methods for the calculation of index number.
• The grouping of the raw data requires determining of the number of classes in which the raw data are to be grouped and what will be the class intervals. The selection of the class interval and the number of classes, however, depends upon the range of raw data.

Data – Its Source and Compilation Important Terms

• Data: Numerical and quantitative measurement of geographical events, human activities and their interrelationship are called data.
• Information: Information is defined as either-a meaningful answer to a query or a meaningful stimulus that can cascade into further queries.
• Primary Data: The data which are collected for the first time by an individual or the group of individuals, institution/organisations are called Primary sources of the data.
• Secondary Data: Data which are collected from any published or unpublished sources are called Secondary sources.
• Inclusive Method: Under this method, upper limit of a class is not the lower limit of next class. It includes lower limit as well as upper limit in the class interval.
• Exclusive Method: Under this method, upper limit of a class is the lower limit of next class. It does not include upper limit in the class interval.
• Simple Frequencies: It is expressed by ‘f and represent the number of individuals falling in each group.
• Cumulative Frequencies: It is expressed by ‘Cf and can be obtained by adding successive simple frequencies in each group with the previous sum.
• Frequency Polygon: A graph of frequency distribution is known as the frequency polygon. It helps in comparing the two or more than two frequency distributions. The two frequencies are shown using a bar diagram and a line graph respectively.
• Ogive: When the frequencies are added they are called cumulative frequencies and ‘ are listed in a table called cumulative frequency table. The curve obtained by plotting cumulative frequencies is called an Ogive. It is constructed either by the less than method or the more than method.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Practical Work in Geography Class 12 Solutions Chapter 1 Data – Its Source and Compilation appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Practical Work in Geography Class 12 Solutions Chapter 5 Field Surveys

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1(i).
Which one of the following helps most in planning for a field survey?
(a) Personal interviews
(b) Secondary information
(c) Measurements
(d) Experimentation
Answer:
(a) Personal interviews

Question 1(ii).
Which one of the following is taken up at the conclusion of a field survey?
(a) Data entry and tabulation
(b) Report writing
(c) Computation of indices
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Computation of indices

Question 1(iii).
What is most important at the initial stages of field survey?
(a) Outlining the objectives
(b) Collection of secondary information
(c) Defining the spatial and thematic coverages
(d) Sample design
Answer:
(c) Defining the spatial and thematic coverages

Question 1(iv).
What level of information is acquired during a field survey?
(a) Macro level information
(b) Maso level information
(c) Micro level information
(d) All of the above levels of information
Answer:
(a) Macro level information

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2(i).
Why is a field survey required?
Answer:
Like many other sciences, geography is also a field science. Thus, a geographical enquiry always needs to be supplemented through well planned field surveys. It serves the following objectives:
(a) These surveys enhance our understanding about patterns of spatial distributions, their associations and relationships at the local level.
(b) The field surveys facilitate the collection of local level information that is not available through secondary sources.
(c) The field surveys are carried out to gather required information so as the problem under investigation is studied in depth as per the predefined objectives.

Question 2(ii).
List the tools and techniques used during a field survey.
Answer:
Field survey is basically conducted to collect information about the chosen problem for which varied types of tools are required. These include secondary information including maps and other data, field observation, data generated by interviewing people through questionnaires.

• Recorded and Published Data
• Field Observation
• Measurement
• Interviewing

Question 2(iii).
What type of coverages need to be defined before undertaking a field survey?
Answer:
During field studies, investigator has to decide whether the survey will be conducted in the form of census for the entire population or will be based on selected sample. If the study area is not very large but composed of diverse elements then entire population should be surveyed. In case of a large size area, one can limit the study to selected samples representing all segments of the population.

Question 2(iv).
Describe survey design in brief.
Answer:
From functional point of view, field surveys are designed in the following steps:

1. Defining the Problem: The problem to be studied should be defined precisely. It can be achieved by way of statements indicating the nature of the problem. It should also be clear through the title and sub-title of the topic of the survey.

2. Objectives: A further specification of the survey is done by listing the objectives. Objectives provide outline of the survey and in accordance to these, suitable tools of acquisition of data and methods of analysis will be chosen.

3. Scope: Scope of survey needs to be delimited in terms of geographical area to be covered, time framework of enquiry and if required themes of studies to be covered. This multi-dimensional delimitation of the study is essential in relation to fulfilment of the predefined objectives and limitations of analysis, inferences and their applicability.

4. Tools and Techniques: Field survey is basically conducted to collect . information about the chosen problem for which varied types of tools are required. These include secondary information including maps and other data, field observation, data generated by interviewing people through questionnaires.

5. Compilation and Computation: Surveyor needs to organise the information of varied types collected during the fieldwork for their meaningful interpretation and analysis to achieve the set objectives. Notes, field sketches, photographs, case studies, etc. are first organised according to sub-themes of the study. Similarly, questionnaire and schedule based information should be tabulated either on a master sheet or on the spreadsheet.

6. Cartographic Applications: Different methods of mapping and drawing of diagrams and graphs and also use of computer in drawing them neatly and accurately. For getting visual impressions of variations in the phenomena, diagrams and graphs are very effective tools. Therefore, the description and analysis should be duly supported by these presentations.

7. Conclusion: At the end a report is prepared. On the basis of the report, we can provide the summary of the investigation.

Question 2(v).
Why is the well-structured questionnaire important for a field survey?
Answer:
Questionnaire plays an important role in a field survey. If it is properly designed, certainly we shall get accurate results from our investigations. On the other hand, if it is not properly designed then it will lead to many problems. Rather the entire purpose of field survey will be defeated. Questionnaire is the most commonly used method in survey. Questionnaire is a list of questions either open-ended or close -ended for which the respondent gives answers. Questionnaire can be conducted via telephone, mail, live in a public area, or in an institute, through electronic mail or through fax and other methods.
There are some points which must be borne in mind while constructing a questionnaire.
To draft a questionnaire or schedule is an art. The success of statistical investigation depends on proper drafting of the questionnaire. It is a highly specialised job and following points should be borne in mind:

• The number of questions in a schedule should be brief and limited as possible. Only relevant questions to the problem under investigation should be added. Ideally it should be between 20-30.
• The questions should be simple, clear and precise. Its language should be very simple so that informants may easily understand.
• All unambiguous questions should be avoided at all, complicated and long- worded questions irritate the respondents which results in careless; replies.
• No personal questions should be asked from respondents. Such questions should be avoided.
• For example
  • Do you take alcohol?
  • Do you tell a lie?
  • Does your boss scold you? ‘
• Questions should be framed with right words. This ensures the validity. Starting a question with negative is undesirable. For example, Don’t you think India is a corrupt country?
• Questions should not be based on calculations. Only those questions should be asked which the respondents may reply immediately. Moreover, questions should avoid memories.
• The objective type questions should be given preference. Either MCQ or yes-no options should be given but in case of need and requirement of investigation, open ended questions can also be used.
• The arrangement of the questions should be such it involves a logical flow of questions. For example, it is not making sense to ask a person:
  • What is your income?
  • Are you employed?
    Or
  • How many kids do you have?
  • Are you married?

3. Design a field survey on any one of the following problems:
(a) Environmental Pollution
(b) Soil Degradation
(c) Floods
(d) Energy Issues
(e) Land Use Change Detection
Answer:
Students will choose the topic themselves and conduct a survey.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 5 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How are information gathered in field surveys?
Answer:
Sources of collecting information can be primary or secondary. Primary sources include field surveys, interviews, direct oral investigation, etc. Secondary sources can be published or unpublished. For example, different government, semi government, non-government, national and international agencies and other than this newspapers, magazines, private publications and electronic media are other sources.

Question 2.
Do field surveys provide completeness to geographical investigation?
Answer:
Actually Geography is a field descriptive science. To make its subject matter reliable and full proof we need to conduct field surveys. These are helpful in providing completeness to geographical investigation.

Question 3.
Which features can be exhibited in maps in field surveys?
Answer: Maps topographic details including relief, drainage, water bodies, settlements, means of communications and other topographical features of a village and its surrounding region can be shown through maps. These maps provide spatial dimension of inequality in land distribution if plotted by ownership of households.

Question 4.
What is the role of the investigator in field survey?
Answer:
Investigator plays an important role in any field survey. He has to define the problem, determine the objectives of field survey, scope of field survey and decide the tools and techniques to be used for survey. The investigator has to comprehend the situation and processes in totality and at the place of their occurrence. He is the one who finally prepares a report and derives final conclusions.

Question 5.
Why is it necessary to organise collected data?
Answer:
It is necessary to organise collected data because:

• Organised data are attractive and impressive.
• These are simple and easily understandable.
• Organisation of data is useful in comparison.
• It saves time, effort and energy by simplifying data.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 5 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the importance of field survey in scope of the subject matter of geography. Answer: Geographical issues addressed pertain to global or national or regional or local level. In other words, the given information helps us understand the issues at macro level. The regional level information is used to analyse different physical and human parameters of a large area. Similarly, information has to be gathered at the local level by conducting primary surveys for generating information. For understanding these issues many primary surveys are conducted. The primary surveys are also called field surveys. They help in understanding all such issues to a great extent.

Question 2.
Why is field survey required?
Answer:
Field surveys are required because it serves the following objectives:

• These surveys enhance our understanding about patterns of spatial distributions, their associations and relationships at the local level.
• The field surveys facilitate the collection of local level information that is not available through secondary sources.
• The field surveys are carried out to gather required information so as the problem under investigation is studied in depth as per the predefined objectives.
• Such studies also enable the investigator to comprehend the situation and processes in totality and at the place of their occurrence. This is possible through ‘Observation’, which is a useful method of gathering information and then to derive inferences.

Question 3.
How is field survey conducted?
Answer:
Field survey is conducted in the following ways:

• Problem: The problem to be studied should be defined precisely.
• Objectives: A further specification of the survey is done by listing the objectives.
• Scope: Scope of survey needs to be delimited in terms of geographical area to be covered, time framework of enquiry and if required themes of studies to be covered.
• Tools and Techniques: Field survey is basically conducted to collect information about the chosen problem for which varied types of tools are required.
• Compilation and Computation: Notes, field sketches, photographs, case studies, etc. are first organised according to sub-themes of the study. Similarly, questionnaire and schedule based information should be tabulated either on a master sheet or on the spreadsheet.
• Conclusion: At the end a report is prepared. On the basis of the report, we can provide the summary of the investigation.

Question 4.
From where should we obtain recorded and published data?
Answer:
These are collected and published by different government agencies, organisations and other agencies. This information along with cadastral and topographical maps, provides basis to prepare the framework of survey. Different types of data can be obtained from specialised agencies. For example, listing of households, persons, landholdings in the survey area can be done using the official records or electoral rolls available with the village panchayat or the revenue officials. Essential physical features like relief, drainage, vegetation, land use and cultural features like settlements, transport and communication lines, irrigation infrastructure, etc. can be traced out from the topographical maps.

Question 5.
Why are interviews given importance in surveys related to social issues?
Answer: In all field surveys, dealing with social issues information is gathered through personal interviews. Experiences and knowledge of each individual about his/ her environs as well as about his/her own livings are nothing but information. These experiences, if retrieved efficiently are important sources of information. However, extraction of information through personal interviews is greatly influenced by interviewer’s abilities in terms of understanding of the subject and the people to be interviewed, communicative skills and rapport with the people.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 5 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Present the outline of a field survey related to land use of a surrounding rural area.
Answer:
Agriculture is the main occupation in rural India. Majority of rural people get employment in this occupation. Some people get jobs outside rural areas and get migrated. But their minority is not capable of changing occupational structure of the rural areas. Still the area selected for field survey: Alipur, since last decade 2001, land use pattern is going through many changes. An observation:

1. Introduction: In Alipur, a village in Meerut district is an agrarian village. Some of the population of the village is engaged in agriculture while others are self- employed. All the people engaged in agriculture are not land owners. Rather they are working on others’ land as labourers. In this village 400 poor families are living, out of which only 230 families have their own cultivable land. Rest of the families are either agricultural labourers or get employment outside the village. Some of them are also self-employed.

2. Objective of Survey: To find the changes and the causes of changes in the land use pattern in village Alipur.

3. Outline of the Survey:

• Introducing yourself to regional development officer of the district and introduce him objectives of the survey;
• Also a request will be sent for getting special information related to land, land papers, land ownership records, maps and list of families. In this way, the information related to agriculture before survey and other details can be obtained.

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4. To determine the techniques to be used in field survey:

• To determine if the survey will be based on census or sample.
• To determine the timing of interview and place of interview.
• To prepare a questionnaire for the interview.
• To determine the timing to meet the sarpanch and other senior members of the village.

• Express gratitude to those who have given valuable information to you.
• Tabulating the collected data, analysing them using statistical methods, presenting graphs and showing land use pattern changes using maps and cartograms and finally giving conclusions.

5. Presenting report and deriving conclusions: Data are presented properly to exhibit the true picture of the area using flawless methods of data analysis so as to reach at proper conclusions.

Question 2.
Choose an industrial area and prepare a survey report on pollution related problems in that area.
Answer:
In the modem world where on one side we are touching new heights of development, environmental pollution is becoming a serious problem on the other hand. There are three main components of environment: water, air and earth. These are seriously struggling with the problems of pollution. The impact of pollution is visible on flora, fauna, human and air. The factors which cause pollution are called pollutants. Pollutants are chemical, solid waste and poisonous gases. Natural and human factors are responsible for this pollution. Volcanic eruptions and landslides are natural causes while industrial and domestic factors are responsible for pollution as human factors. In this we shall select an industrial region and suggest measures for the development of such systems which can help to control and improve the situations.

• Industrial Area, An Introduction: Students can choose an industrial area according to his own convenience. Name the area and its location in introduction. If possible, describe the history of its growth.
• Regional Problem: Impact on health of pollution, any specific problem due to pollution or its repetition or explanation of any disorder and its impact can be explained under regional problem.
• Objectives: The diseases commonly caused due to contaminated water are diarrhea, intestinal worms, hepatitis, etc. What is the number of incidents of such diseases in this area?
• Planning: Determining the boundaries of given industrial area and time to be allotted for completion of the survey. For this find the map of the selected industrial region and make a list of working industrial units in the area.
• Outline of the Survey:
  • Divide the students in proper groups.
  • Determine the responsibilities of each group.
  • Send one group to government agencies to collect data on health and pollution related diseases.
  • Some of them should be engaged in survey job where students should be sent according to block and sector for doing the practical or face to face investigation. If possible collect information related to solid wastes, water pollutants and air pollutants, etc. which are being disposed off by this area.
  • Data Processing: Whatever statistics have been collected through interviews or questionnaire they need to be organised, presented and analysed to reach at conclusions.
  • Conclusions: On the basis of statistical facts reach at conclusions and suggest measures for improvement.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 5 Viva Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by map orientation?
Answer:
It involves setting the map in the right direction.

Question 2.
How are information gathered in field surveys?
Answer:
Information can be gathered through primary or secondary sources. Primary sources include field surveys, interviews, direct oral investigation etc. secondary sources can be published or unpublished. For example, different government, semi government, non government, national and international agencies and other than this newspapers, magazines, private publications and electronic media are other sources.

Question 3.
Do field surveys provide completeness to geographical investigation?
Answer:
Actually Geography is a field descriptive science. To make its subject matter reliable and full proof we need to conduct field surveys. These are helpful in providing completeness to geographical investigation.

Question 4.
For what purpose can we use topographical maps in field surveys?
Answer:
Essential physical features like relief, drainage, vegetation, land use and cultural features like settlements, transport and communication lines, irrigation infrastructure, etc. can be traced out from the topographical maps.

Question 5.
How many families are normally selected for conducting a household survey?
Answer:
50 to 100 families are normally selected for conducting a household survey.

Field Surveys Notes

• Geographical issues addressed pertain to global or national or regional or local level. In other words, the given information helps us to understand the issues at macro level. The regional level information is used to analyse different physical and human parameters of a large area. Similarly, information has to be gathered at the local level by conducting primary surveys for generating information. The primary surveys are also called field surveys.
• Sources of collecting information can be published or unpublished. For example, different government, semi government, non government, national and international agencies and other than this newspapers, magazines, private publications and electronic media are other sources.
• Geography is also a field science. Thus, a geographical enquiry always needs to be supplemented through well-planned field surveys.
• Field surveys are conducted to gather required information. These surveys enhance our understanding about patterns of spatial distributions, their associations and relationships at the local level.
• The field survey is initiated with well-defined procedure. It is performed in the following stages:
  • The problem to be studied should be defined precisely. This can be achieved by way of statements indicating the nature of the problem. This should also be reflected in the title and sub-title of the topic of the survey.
  • A further specification of the survey is done by listing the objectives. Objectives provide outline of the survey and in accordance to these, suitable tools of acquisition of data and methods of analysis will be chosen.
  • Like clearly defined objectives, scope of survey needs to be delimited in terms of geographical area to be covered, time framework of enquiry and if required themes of studies to be covered.
  • Field survey is basically conducted to collect information about the chosen problem for which varied types of tools are required. These include secondary information including maps and other data, field observation, data generated by interviewing people through questionnaires.
• Recorded and Published Data should be collected from reliable government agencies and organisation on whose reliability there is no suspense. Listing of households, persons, landholdings in the survey area can be done using the official records or electoral rolls available with the village panchayat or the revenue officials.
• Essential physical features like relief, drainage, vegetation, land use and cultural features like settlements, transport and communication lines, irrigation infrastructure, etc. can be traced out from the topographical maps.
• Landscape scenario can also be captured by photography of the landscape, objects and activities. At times, when suitable large-scale map is not available, a sketch or a notional map of the survey area can be prepared based on reconnaissance survey. This kind of exercise also helps in getting or, :self introduced with the area as each feature needs to be observed carefully for locating them in the sketch.
• In all field surveys, dealing with social issues information is gathered through personal interviews. Experiences and knowledge of each individual about his/ her environs as well as about his/her own livings are nothing but information.
• The basic objective of regional survey is to understand interrelationship between geography and human activities. Surveyor makes use of photography, maps, graphs, pictograms and maps to exhibit and analyse gographical features and human activities.
• Surveyor can make use of Tohi Survey or google earth website and can understand these phenomena.
• Notes, field sketches, photographs, case studies, etc. are first organised according to sub-themes of the study. Similarly, questionnaire and schedule-based information should be tabulated either on a master sheet or on the spreadsheet.
• For getting visual impressions of variations in the phenomena, diagrams and graphs are very effective tools. Thus, the description and analysis should be duly supported by these presentations.

The field study report in concise form should contain all the details of the procedures followed, methods, tools and techniques employed. The major part of the report will be devoted to the interpretation and analysis of information gathered and computed along with supportive facts in the form of tables, charts, statistical inferences, maps and references. At the end of the report, you should also provide the summary of the investigation.

There are many regional issues on which field survey can be conducted. Important among these are Ground Water Change, Environmental Pollution, Soil Degradation, Poverty, Droughts and Floods, Energy Issues, Land use survey and Change Detection.

Field Surveys Important Term

• Field Survey: It is carried out to gather the required information so as to study the problem under investigation in detail as per the predefined objectives.
• Tabulation: The data collected from the primary and secondary sources has to be organised in a systematic manner for easily processing and interpretating.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Practical Work in Geography Class 12 Solutions Chapter 5 Field Surveys appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 10 Transport And Communication

Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answers of the following from the given options:

Question 1.(i)
In how many zones has the Indian Railways system been divided?
(a) 9
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 14
Answer:
(c) 16

Question 1.(ii)
Which one of the following is the longest highway of India?
(a) N.H.-l
(b) N.H.-6
(c) N.H.-7
(d) N.H.-8
Answer:
(c) N.H.-7

Question 1.(iii)
On which river and between which two places does the National Water Way No. 1 lie?
(a) The Brahmaputra, Sadiya-Dhubri
(b) The Ganga, Haldia-Allahabad
(c) West Coast Canal, Kottapuram to Kollam
Answer:
(b) The Ganga, Haldia-Allahabad

Question 1.(iv)
In which of the following year, the first radio programme was broadcast?
(a) 1911
(b).1936
(c) 1927
(d) 1923
Answer:
(d) 1923

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
Which activity does transportation convey? Name three major modes of transportation.
Answer:
Transport conveys the basic activity of mobility. Mobility is a basic need of humans which helps in trade and other activities. Transport is instrumental in bringing out about increased mobility. The three major modes of transportation are land, water and air. Land includes roadway, railway and ropeway.

Question 2.(ii)
Discuss advantages and disadvantages of pipeline transportation.
Answer:
Pipeline transportation is a newer development in the field of transportation. Advantages:

• Liquids and gases can be transported easily at low costs. Even solids can be transported in form of sluriy.
• No need of fuel is required. It is an eco friendly method. Gradient plays the main role in transportation of the material.
• Pipelines can be laid in the high altitude, rugged areas, even under the sea.
• Material can be transported between distant areas continuously without aid of human agent carrying it from one place to another.

Disadvantages:

• Cost of laying the pipelines is very high. People cannot be transported.
• Leakage in the pipelines can cause serious disasters especially in case of transportation of material like petroleum.
• Pipelines are very probable target of terrorist attacks; therefore, safety is major issue.
• All solid substances cannot be transported.

Question 2.(iii)
What do you mean by ‘communication?
Answer:
Communication is transmission of facts, words and information using various means of communication. It is disseminating of ideas, facts, information and knowledge through writing, words. Communication has been present since very initial stages of human development. Earlier there were primitive means of communication like beating of drums, sparrows etc. Now with communication revolution modem methods of communication like Internet, mobile telephony are widespread and have made communication over long distances easier and faster.

Question 2.(iv)
Discuss the contribution of Air India and Indian in the air transport of India.
Answer:
Air transport in India made a beginning in 1911 when airmail operation commenced over a little distance of 10 km between Allahabad and Naini. But its real development took place in post-independent period. The air transport in India is managed by two corporations, Air India and Indian Airlines after nationalization. Air India provides international service for both passengers and cargo. In 2005, it carried 12.2 million passengers and 4.8 lakh metric tonnes of cargo. Indian looks after air transport at national level. In 2005, domestic movement involved 24.3 million passengers and 20 lakh metric tonnes of cargo.

The country’s largest state-owned domestic carrier, Indian Airlines dropped the word ‘Airlines’ from its name and is known as ‘Indian’ w.e.f. December 8,2005. The new brand name ‘Indian’ now appears on both sides of the fuselage. The logo on the orange tail depicting ‘IA’ has also been changed. It has been replaced by a new logo which is a partly visible blue wheel and is inspired by the Sun Temple at Konark (Odisha), symbolising timeless motion, convergence and divergence. It also embodies strength as well as trust that has stood the test of time.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
Which are the chief means of transportation in India? Discuss the factors affecting their development.
Answer:
The important means of transport in India are—Land, air and water. Each mode of transportation contributes to the development of economy. Each provides a strong support for setting up industries and link even the remotest areas. All the means of transport compete and compliment each other.

• Land transport comprises road, rail and pipeline. Use of railways for carrying heavy and bulky goods along with the large number of passengers over long distances has led to the development of a dense network of railways. Within the country the network is relatively less dense in the hilly, forested and desert areas. Roads play an important role in linking the interior areas with the markets and urban centres. Their importance in facilitating door-to- door services over short distances has led to development of a well knit network of roadways.
• Water transport is an ideal means for engaging in international trade through long and indented coastline of India. Inland waterway also links the different regions within the countiy efficiently. It is the cheapest means for bulky cargo.
• Air transport has become very important means of rapid and frequent movement of people and light cargo over long distances. Role of private airlines has made the air transport trickle down to wider sections of economy. Budgets Airlines have changed the aviation scenario in India. Air transport is important in inaccessible areas, during calamities and for rapid connectivity.

Question 3.(ii)
Give a detailed account of the development of railways in India and highlight their importance.
Answer:
Indian railways network is one of the longest in the world. It facilitates the movement of both freight and passengers and contributes to the growth of economy. Indian Railway was introduced in 1853, when a line was constructed from Bombay to Thane covering a distance of 34 km.

It is the largest government undertaking in the countiy. Its network length is 63,221 km. Its very large size puts lots of pressure on a centralized railway management system. Thus, in India, the railway system has been divided into sixteen zones. Indian Railways has launched extensive programme to convert the metre and narrow gauges to broad gauge. Moreover, steam engines have been replaced by diesel and electric engines. This step has increased the speed as well as the haulage capacity.

The replacement of steam engines run by coal has also improved the environment of the stations. Metro rail has revolutionized the urban transport system in Kolkata and Delhi. Replacement of diesel buses by CNG run vehicles along with introduction of metro is a welcome step towards controlling the air pollution in urban centres.

Areas around towns, raw material producing areas and of plantations and other commercial crops, hill stations and cantonment towns were well-connected by railways from the British colonial era. These were mostly developed for the exploitation of resources. After the Independence of the country, railway routes have been extended to other areas too. The most significant development has been the development of Konkan Railway along the western coast providing a direct link between Mumbai and Mangalore.

Railway continues to remain the main means of transport for the masses. Railway network is relatively less dense in the hill states, north eastern states, central parts of India and Rajasthan.

Question 3.(iii)
Describe the role of roads in the economic development of India.
Answer:.
Roads serve as the lifeline of Indian trade. They connect the consumers with producers that is they connect urban and rural centers. Rural centers are producers of agricultural goods which are consumed by them and are transported to urban centers because they do not have production of agricultural commodities. On the other hand urban centers produce consumer products and supply them to the rural areas. Most of the intra national trade of India is carried out through roads. Since roads connect different areas, they help in boosting up of trade by joining the industrial areas with raw material producing areas, consumers with producers.

The government has categorized various road types which are headed by different authorities. The largest bulk of transportation and trade is carried out through national highways which connect major cities, ports and capitals. Following national highways, there are state highways, district roads and village roads which connect smaller administrative units and facilitate economic activity at micro level. Although most of the India’s international trade is carried out through airways and seaways but construction of border roads has helped in increasing the trade with the neighbouring countries thus providing an impetus to the international trade.

Increased connectivity of roads has not only increased trade of major industries but also has helped in establishing small scale and medium scale industries by providing them access to the closest markets. Footloose industries which depend largely on roads, are able to prosper because of the development of roads. Roads have helped in connecting the interiors of the country to the main parts and thus expanding the economy. It was due to the development of roads that British were able to penetrate and exploit the interiors of the country. Roads supplement the ports and airways. Ports and airways are major means of India’s international trade, but to connect the interiors to the ports and airports, a good working connection of roads is must, so that the products which are traded can circulate within the interiors of the country. Therefore roads play a pivoted role in connecting all other means of transportation, since it is the only means of transportation which provides door to door service.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are different means of transportation?
Answer:
There are five different means of transport:

1. Roadways
2. Railways
3. Waterways
4. Airways
5. Pipelines

Question 2.
India is deemed to have one of the world’s largest road network. Why?
Answer:
India has one of the largest road networks in the world with a total length Of 42.3 lakh km according to 2008-9 survey. About 85 per cent of passenger and 70% of freight is carried using road network.

Question 3.
Under which scheme was first modern road network constructed in India?
Answer:
The first serious attempt was made in 1943 when ‘Nagpur Plan’ was drawn. This plan could not be implemented due to lack of coordination among the princely states and British India. After Independence, Twenty-Year Road Plan was introduced in 1961 to improve the conditions of roads in India.

Question 4.
Classify roads on the basis of construction and maintenance.
Answer:
With the objective of construction and maintenance, roads have been classified into: National Highways, State Highways, District Roads and Village Roads.

Question 5.
What is the significance of means of transport?
Answer:

• Transport helps in the transportation of raw materials from farms to industries where they are turned into products which can be consumed.
• Transport helps in the movement of goods from one place to another.
• It is used to transport goods and people to large distances.
• The transportation of goods from the site of production to the market makes them available to the consumers.

Question 6.
What do you understand by Nagpur plan? What were the reasons for its failure?
Answer:

• Road transport in modem sense was very limited in India before World War II. The first attempt was made in 1943 when ‘Nagpur Plan’ was drawn.
• This plan could not be implemented due to lack of coordination among the princely states and British India.

Question 7.
What is State Highways? Write their features.
Answer:
State Highways are constructed and maintained by state governments.
Features:

• They join the state capitals with district headquarters and other important towns.
• These roads are connected to the National Highways.
• These constitute 4% of total road length in the country.

Question 8.
Name the states with highest and lowest density of roads.
Answer:
Highest is Kerala and lowest is Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 9.
What is the average road density of our country?
Answer:
Average road density of India is 142.68 km (2011).

Question 10.
Which is the longest National Highways in India?
Answer:
National Highway 44 links Srinagar to Kanniyakumari (Kanyakumari) is the longest NH in India.

Question 11.
What is the importance of International Highways?
Answer:
The International Highways are meant to promote the harmonious relationship with the neighbouring countries by providing effective links with India 8s connecting people remote area.

Question 12.
Name the two places which connects NH1.
Answer:
Amristsar and Delhi

Question 13.
On which river is NW1 made? Name two places which connect it.
Answer:
Ganga River—Allahabad and Haldia.

Question 14.
Name the two places which connect NW2. Name the river on which NW2 is made.
Answer:
Sadiya and Dhubri. NW2 is made on the Brahmaputra river.

Question 15.
Name the two places which connect NW-3.
Answer:
Kottapuram and Kollam.

Question 16.
Name the first air transport segment in India.
Answer:
Air transport in India made a beginning in 1911 when airmail operation commenced over a little distance of 10km between Allahabad and Naini.

Question 17.
Which means of transport is being used widely in India for trading?
Answer:
Water transport or oceanic routes.

Question 18.
What is the new name of Indian Airlines and when was it given to it?
Answer:
The new name of Indian Airlines is Indian and it was given on 8th December, 2005.

Question 19.
From where has the logo of ‘Indian’ been adopted and what does it signify?
Answer:
The logo of Indian is a partly visible blue wheel and is inspired by The Sun Temple at Konark (Odisha), symbolising timeless; motion convergence and divergence. It also embodies strength as well as trust that has stood the test of time.

Question 20.
Where is famous Nehru Trophy Boat Race (VALLAMKALI) held?
Answer:
The famous Nehru Trophy Boat Race (VALLAMKALI) is held in the backwaters of Kerala.

Question 21.
What services are provided by Air India?
Answer:
Air India provides international air services for both passengers and cargo traffic. It connects all the continents of the world through its services. In 2005, it carried 12.2 million passengers and 4.8 lakh metric tonnes of cargo. About 52 per cent of the total air traffic was handled only at Mumbai and Delhi airports.

Question 22.
What do you know about Pawan Hans?
Answer:
Pawan Hans is the helicopter service operating in hilly areas and is widely used by tourists in north eastern sector. Pawan Hans Limited also provides helicopter services to petroleum sector as well as to tourists.

Question 23.
What is meant by Open Sky Policy?
Answer:
To help the Indian exporters and make their export more competitive, the government had introduced an Open Sky Policy for cargo in April 1992. Under this policy, foreign airlines or association of exporters can bring any freighters to the country.

Question 24.
Name the Asia’s largest cross-country pipelines.
Answer:
Asia’s first cross country pipeline covering a distance of 1,157 km was constructed by Oil India Limited (OIL) from Naharkatiya oilfield in Assam to Barauni refinery in Bihar.

Question 25.
Name a few earlier means of communi-cation.
Answer:

• In earlier times, the messages were delivered by beating the drum or hollow tree trunks, giving indicators through smoke or fire or with the help of fast runners.
• Horses, camels, dogs, birds and other animals were also used to send messages.

Question 26.
What are the electronic media of mass communication?
Answer:
Radio and television.

Question 27.
What are the benefits of TV over radio?
Answer:

• Better recall value when we use the live visual.
• We can both listen and see.

Question 28.
What are the limitations of television?
Answer:

• Everybody does not have an access to television in remote areas.
• Not portable.

Question 29.
What is NRSA? Where is its headquarter?
Answer:
The National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA) at Hyderabad provides facilities for acquisition of data and its processing. These are very useful in the management of natural resources.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the functions of National Highways Authority of India (NHAI).
Answer:
The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was operationalised in 1995. It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Surface Transport. It is entrusted with the responsibility of development, maintenance and operation of National Highways. This is also the apex body to improve the quality of the roads designated as National Highways.

Question 2.
List some major projects of NHAI.
Answer:
NHAI has taken up some major projects in the country under different phases:

• Golden Quadrilateral: It comprises construction of 5,846 km long 4/6 lane, high density traffic corridor, to connect India’s four big metro cities of Delhi- Mumbai-Chennai-Kolkata. With the construction pf Golden Quadrilateral, the time-distance and cost of movement among the mega cities of India will be considerably minimized.
• North-South Corridors: North-South corridor aims at connecting Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir with Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu (including Kochi-Salem Spur) with 4,076 km long road.
• East-West Corridor: The East-West Corridor has been planned to connect Silchar in Assam with the port town of Porbandar in Gujarat with 3,640 km of road length.

Question 3.
Explain the functions of Border Roads Organisation.
Answer:
The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) was established in May, 1960.
Functions:

• It aimed at accelerating economic development and strengthening defence preparedness through rapid and coordinated improvement of strategically important roads along the northern and north-eastern boundary of the country.
• Border Road Organisation has completed over 40,450 km of roads by March, 2005.
• Apart from the construction and maintenance of roads in strategically sensitive areas, the BRO also undertakes snow clearance in high altitude areas.

Question 4.
Give the reasons for regional variations of the low density of roads in India.
Answer:
The reasons for low density of roads in India.

Nature of terrain:

• Construction of roads is easy and cheaper in plain areas.
• It is difficult and costly in hilly and plateau are better in plain areas.
• The density and quality of roads is relatively better in plain areas as compared to hilly areas, rainy and forested areas.

Level of economic development:

• Density and quality of roads is high in urban areas.
• It is very low in rural areas.
• Important towns are the nodes of north India.

Question 5.
What do you know about Konkan railway?
OR
What is the significance of Konkan railway?
Answer:

• One of the important achievements of Indian railways has been the construction of Konkan railway in 1998.
• It is 760 km long rail route connecting Roha in Maharashtra to Mangalore in Karnataka.
• It is considered as engineering marvel. It crosses 146 rivers, streams, nearly 2000 bridges and tunnels.
• Asia’s largest tunnel which is nearly 6.5 km long also lies on this route.
• States of Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka are partners in this undertaking.

Question 6.
What is the importance of air transport?
Answer:

• It is easily accessible to places of uneven topography.
• It is important for transportation of perishable goods.
• It is the fastest means of transport which takes comparatively lesser time to make the passengers reach their destination.
• It is efficient during calamities.
• It has strategic importance also.

Question 7.
What is pipeline and why is it important?
Answer:
Pipeline is the cheapest means of transport as only once the construction has to be done and it has low operational cost. It is important because:

• It is the most convenient and efficient mode of transporting liquids and gases over long distances.
• It solves the problems of loading and unloading of raw materials and finished goods.
• This ensures the uninterrupted supply of raw materials to the refineries and finished products to the consumers.
• It is ideally suited for transport of liquids and gases.
• It can be laid through difficult terrain and underwater also.
• It involves low energy consumption.
• It rules out transhipment losses.

Question 8.
Explain the Super National Highways of India.
Answer:

• Golden Quadrilateral: It comprises construction of 5,846 km long 416 lane, high density traffic corridor to connect India’s four big metro cities of Delhi- Mumbai-Chennai-Kolkata. With the construction of Golden quadrilateral, the time-distance and cost of movement among the mega cities of India will be considerably minimised.
• North-South and East-West Corridors: North-South corridor aims at connecting Srinagar in Jammu & Kashmir with Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu (including Kochi-Salem) with 4,076 km long road. The East-West corridor has been planned to connect Silchar in Assam with the port town of Porbandar in Gujarat with 3,640 km of road length.

Question 9.
What is Internet? What are its uses?
Answer:

Internet is one of the most effective and advanced personal communication system.
Uses:

• It enables the users to establish direct contact e-mail to get access to the world of knowledge and information.
• It is also used for e-commerce and carrying out money transactions.
• The internet is like a huge central warehouse of data, with detailed information on various items.
• It enables us with the basic facilities of direct communication.

Question 10.
What are National Highways? Give its three characteristics.
Answer:
The main roads which are constructed and maintained by the central government are known as National Highways.
Characteristics of National Highways are:

• These roads are meant for inter-state transport and movement of defence men and material in strategic areas.
• These also connect the state capitals, major cities, important ports, railways functions, etc.
• The length of the National Highways constitutes only two per cent of total road length but carry 40 % of road traffic.

Question 11.
What are border roads? How are they important for the country?
Answer:
Roads along the northern and north¬eastern boundary of India are known as border roads. The Border Road Organisation (BRO) was established in May 1960 for accelerating economic development and strengthening defence preparedness through rapid and coordinated improvement and suffers daily necessities to border areas.
Example; Roads in high altitude mountainous terrain joining Chandigarh with Manila. This road runs at an average altitude of 4,270 metres above the mean sea level.

Question 12.
When did air transport begin in India? Explain its present state.
Answer:
Air transport in India made a beginning in 1911 when airmail operation comm¬enced over a little distance of 10 km between Allahabad and Naini. But its real development took place in post¬independent period. The Airport Authority of India is responsible for providing safe, efficient air traffic and aeronautical communication services in the Indian Air Space. The authority manages 126 airports including 11 international, 86 domestic and 29 civil enclaves at defence air fields.

Question 13.
What are the limitations of the pipeline transport?
Answer:

• Pipelines are not flexible.
• The capacity laid cannot be increased.
• The security of pipelines is little difficult.
• The repair of underground pipelines is not easy and leakages cannot be detected easily

Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the factors affecting Indian Railways.
Answer:
The pattern of Indian railway network has been influenced by geographical, economic and political factors.
Geographical Factors: The North Indian plain with its levelled land, high density of population and rich agriculture presents the most favourable conditions for the development of railways. However, the presence of a large number of rivers makes it necessary to construct bridges which involve heavy expenditure.

There are practically no railways in the flood plains of many rivers in Bihar and Assam. The plateau region of south India is not as much suitable for railways as the North Plain area. The Himalayan region in the north is almost entirely devoid of railways due to its rugged topography.

Some railway terminals such as Jammu Tawi, Kotdwar, Dehradun, Kathgodam, etc. are found on the foothills. Some narrow gauge railway tracks are found in the Himalayan region. A railway link
between Jammu and Kashmir valley is being planned at a veiy high cost. The sandy areas of Rajasthan are also not much favourable for railways.

There was no railway line between Jodhpur and Jaisalmer till 1966. Similarly, forested areas of Madhya Pradesh and Odisha, deltaic swamps of West Bengal, marshy areas of Rann of Kachchh and hilly tract of Sahyadri are also unfavourable for the development of railways. Sahyadri can only be crossed through gaps like Thalghat, Bhorghat and Palghat to reach coastal trail heads like Mumbai, Vasco-de-Gama, Mangalore and Kochi. Obviously, the railways tend to follow the path of least resistance.

Economic Factors: Railways develop more in the economically advanced areas where the need for railway network is felt more. Conversely, railways bring about economic prosperity to the areas through which they pass. This is because of the economic linkages that we find the highest density of railways near big urban and industrial centres and in areas which are rich in mineral and agricultural resources.

Political and Administrative Factors: The present railway system in India is the legacy of the British rule. The British administration planned the direction and pattern of the railway lines in such a way that they could exploit the valuable raw materials of India for the benefit of their industries and flood the Indian markets with the finished goods from Britain.

Besides, the Britishers wanted to maintain their military supremacy, for which quick movement of troops and arms was necessary and construction of railways became unavoidable. Thus, top priority was given to the big ports of Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai. These ports were connected with their hinterlands by railway lines to facilitate imports and exports. It is from the ports that the railway network spread to other parts of the country.

Question 2.
What recent steps have been taken for development and modernisation of Indian railways? Why is unification of gauges important? What role does railway network play in economic development of our country?
Answer:
Recent development and modernisation steps taken in Indian railways:

• Extensive programme to convert the metre and narrow gauge to broad gauge.
• The steam engines have been replaced by diesel and electric engines. .
• The new trains have increased speed.
• The environment of the stations have improved. There have been computerised reservations, automatic electronic signals, loading facilities, etc.
• Introduction of metro in Kolkata and Delhi have set an example for other states also.
• Railway routes have been extended to other areas such as Konkan railway between Mumbai and Mangalore.
• Improved passenger services on the trains include AC coaches, pantry services, bedding facilities, etc.

Unification of gauges is important:

• Unification of gauges will bring uniformity across the country.
• It helps in increasing capacity with broad higher speed.
• It provides higher speed at economical rates.
• Reduction in transhipment losses, eliminates wastage of time and money.
• Maintenance of single track is easy and it promotes comfortable travelling.

Contribution of Indian railways to economic development:

• The major bulk commodities transported by railways are coal, food grains, cement and fertilizers.
• The haulage of food grains increased to about four times between 1970-71 to 2004-05. It has now reached upto 44.07 million tons from 15.1 million tons.
• It shows production has substantially increased.
• The transport of fertilizers has increased many times from 4.7 million tons in 1970-71 to 23.7 million tons in 2004-05. It shows improvement in the agricultural sector as it provides the base for agri¬cultural development.
• The transport of coal has increased from 47.9 million tons in 1970-71 to 251.7 million tons in 2004-05. It shows the expansion of railways. Moreover, the consumption of coal has brought major industrial development.

Question 3.
Discuss the growth and role of TV and radio in mass communication.
Answer:
Radio: Radio broadcasting started in India in 1923 by the Radio Club of Bombay. Since then, it gained immense popularity and changed the social-cultural life of people. Government took mode of communication under its control in 1930 under the Indian Broadcasting System. It was changed to All India Radio in 1936 and to Akashwani in 1957 (TV).

Television: TV broadcasting has emerged as the most effective audio-visual medium for disseminating information and educating masses. Initially, the TV services were limited only to the national capital where it began in 1959. After 1972, several other centres became operational. In 1976, TV was delinked from All India Radio (AIR) and got a separate identity as Doordarshan (DD). After INSAT-IA (National Television-DDl) became operational, Common National Programme (CNP) was started for the entire network and its services were extended to the backward and remote rural areas. TV and radio play an important role in mass communication.

• All India Radio broadcasts a variety of programmes related to information, education and entertainment.
• Special news bulletins are also broadcast at specific occasions like session of parliament and state legislatures.
• They are used for the purpose of advertisement of various products.
• They are used to create awareness on government policies and programmes.
• They are also used to create awareness about various diseases and their precautions. In this way they act as public health measures.
• Weather forecasting information, important facts and figures reach to general public only through radio and TV.

Question 4.
Explain the primary and secondary inland waterways of India.
Answer:
India has 14,500 km of navigable waterways, contributing about 1% to the country’s transportation. It comprises rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks, etc. At present, 3,700 km of major rivers are navigable by mechanised flat bottom vessels. For the development, maintenance and regulation of national waterways in the country, the Inland Waterways Authority was set up in 1986.

The authority has declared inland national waterways:

National Waterway 1: Allahabad-Haldia stretch (1,620 km): It is one of the most important waterways in India. It is navigable by mechanical boats up to Patna and by ordinary boats up to Haridwar. It is divided into three parts for developmental purposes:

• Haldia-Farakka (560 km)
• Farakka-Patna (460 km)
• Patna-Allahabad (600 km).

National Waterway 2: Sadiya-Dhubri stretch (891 km): The Brahmaputra is navigable by steamers up to Dibrugarh (1,384 km) which is shared by India and Bangladesh.

National Waterway 3: Kottapuram-Kollam stretch (205 km): It includes 168 km of west coast canal along with Champakarcanal (23 km) and Udyogmandal canal (14 km). Inland Waterways Authority has also identified ten other inland waterways, which could be upgraded. The backwaters (Kadal) of Kerala has special significance in Inland Waterway. It provides cheap means of transport and also attracts a large number of tourists in Kerala. The famous Nehru Trophy Boat Race (VALLAMKALI) is also held in the backwaters.

National Waterway 4: specified stretches of Godavari and Krishna rivers alongwith Kakinada, Puducherry stretch of canals (1078 km).

National Watery-5: Specified streches of Brahmani along with Matai river, delta channels of Mahanadi & Brahmani rivers and East Coast Canals (588 km).

Question 5.
Explain the functions of Oil India Limited (OIL).
Answer:
Oil India Limited (OIL) operates under the administrative set up of the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. It is engaged in the exploration, production and transportation of crude oil and natural gas. It was incorporated in 1959 as a company.
Functions:

• It constructed Asia’s first cross country pipeline covering a distance of 1,157 km from Naharkatiya oilfield in Assam to Barauni refinery in Bihar.
• It was further extended up to Kanpur in 1966.
• It has also constructed another pipeline in the western region of India of which Ankleshwar-Koyali, Mumbai High- Koyali and Hazira-Vij aipur-Jagdishpur (HVJ) are most important.
• Recently, a 1256 km long pipeline connecting Salaya (Gujarat) with Mathura (U.P.) has been constructed.
• It supplies crude oil from Gujarat to Punjab (Jalandhar) via Mathura.
• OIL is in the process of constructing of 660 km long pipeline from Numaligarh to Siliguri

Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
Why is the density of rural roads very low in hilly, plateau and forested areas?
Answer:
Due to the following factors, the density of rural roads is very low in hilly, plateau and forested areas.

• Technological difficulty in construction
• Low population density.
• Relatively lesser economic activity.
• Costs of construction are relatively higher.
• Settlements are located far away from each other.

Question 2.
“Among all the personal communication systems internet is the most effective and advanced one.” Do you agree with the statement?
Answer:
I agree with the statement because:

• It enables the users to establish direct contact.
• It is widely used in urban areas.
• It acts like a huge central warehouse of data and other information.
• It provides an efficient access to information at relatively low cost.
• It is increasingly used for e-commerce and many transactions.
• It is the most time efficient device.

Question 3.
Inspite of numerous rivers, why are India’s inland waterways poorly developed?
Answer:
Inspite of numerous rivers, India’s inland waterways are poorly developed because:

• Seasonal fluctuations in the volume of water level of most rivers.
• Higher silting in the river bed.
• Reduction in water level due to diversion of water for irrigation.
• Floods and swift currents.
• Tough competition from roads, railways and transport with regard to convenience.
• Lack of mechanised vessels.
• Undulating topography.

Question 4.
Why has the container transport become more popular nowadays?
Answer:
Container transport has become very popular nowadays because:

• It provides door to door service.
• It has reduced transport and delivery time.
• The service is economical both to the railways and its customers.
• Safety and security of product.

Question 5.
How have geographical factors influenced railway network in India?
Answer:
The North Indian plain with its level land, high density of population and rich agriculture presents the most favourable conditions for the development of railways. However, the presence of a largo number of rivers makes it necessary to construct bridges which involve heavy expenditure.

There are practically no railways in the flood plains of many rivers in Bihar and Assam. The plateau region of south India is not as much suitable for railways as the North Plain area. The Himalayan region in the north is almost entirely devoid of railways due to its rugged topography.

Some railway terminals such as Jammu Tawi, Kotdwar, Dehra Dun, Kathgodam, etc. are found on the foothills. Some narrow gauge railway tracks are found in the Himalayan region. A railway link between Jammu and Kashmir valley is being planned at a very high cost. The sandy areas of Rajasthan are also not much favourable for railways.

There was no railway line between Jodhpur and Jaisalmer till 1966. Similarly, forested areas of Madhya Pradesh and Orissa, deltaic swamps of West Bengal, marshy areas of Rann of Kachchh and hilly tract of Sahyadri are also unfavourable for the development of railways. Sahyadri can only be crossed through gaps like Thalghat, Bhorghat and Palghat to reach coastal trail heads like Mumbai, Vasco-de-Gama, Mangalore and Kochi. Obviously, the railways tend to follow the path of least resistance.

Social-Cultural significance of Roads:
Higher road density affects the society and cultural of a region. Kerala’s high density of roads can be linked to it’s highest HDI

ranking in India:
The literacy rate of 94% as children can easily travel to reach schools The infant mortality rate is low, as medical help is easily accessible, due to high road density. Longevity is higher as sick can easily reach the doctors & hospitals. The higher road density, allows people to travel more, thus make them more aware of medical facilities to control population growth & birth rate. Kerala has linear & continuous settlement pattern along the roads, where one village ends & another one begins.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 Differentiates

Question 1.
Differentiate Between National Highways and State’ Highways
Answer:

Question 2.
Differentiate Between District Roads and Rural Roads
Answer:

Question 3.
Differentiate Between Meter Gauge, Broad Gauge and Narrow Gauge
Answer:

Question 4.
Differentiate Between Air India and Indian Airlines
Answer:

Question 5.
Differentiate Between Personal Communication and mass communication
Answer:

Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 Map Based Questions

Question 1.
Locate and label the following on the political map of India.
(i) Tower on north-south and east-west corridors.
(ii) Golden Quadrilaterals
Answer:

Question 2.
Locate and label the following on the political map of India.
Mumbai CST, Kolkata, Hajipur, Bhubaneshwar, New Delhi, Allahabad, Gorakhpur, Maligaon, Jaipur, Chennai, Secunderabad, Kolkata, Bilaspur, Hubli, Mumbai (church gate), Jabalpur.
Answer:

Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is the main aim behind establishing border road organization in India? (Delhi 2008)
OR
State the main functions of border road organization. (A.1.2013)
Answer:
Border Road Organisation was established for accelerating economic development and strengthening defence through rapid and coordinated improvement of strategically important roads along the northern and north-eastern boundary of the country.

Question 2.
Name the air service which is widely used in the hilly areas of the north¬eastern sector of India. (A.I. 2011)
Answer:
Pawan Hans.

Question 3.
State the main function of ‘National Highways Authority of India’ (NHAI). (A.I. 2013)
Answer:
The main function of National Highways Authority is development maintenance and operation of National Highways.

Question 4.
Define the term ‘road density’. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Road density is the length of roads per 100 square km of area.

Question 5.
Why did Sher Shah Suri built the Shahi (Royal) Road? (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Sher Shah built the Shahi (Royal) road to strengthen and consolidate his empire from the Indus Valley to the Sonar Valley in Bengal.

Question 6.
What is the major function of the National Highways Authority of India?
Answer:
Major function of the National Highway Authority of India is: Operation, maintenance and development of National Highways.

Question 7.
Why did Sher Shah Suri built the Shahi (Royal) Road? (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Sher Shah built the Shahi (Royal) road to strengthen and consolidate his empire from the Indus Valley to the Sonar Valley in Bengal.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Classify satellite system of India into two groups on the basis of configuration and purpose. Explain the main feature of each group. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
On the basis of configuration and purposes satellite system in India is divided into two types

Indian National Satellite System (INSAT):

• It was established in 1983.
• It is a multi-purpose satellite system for telecommunication, meteorological observation.

Indian Remote Sensing Satellite System (IRS):

• With the launching of IRS-IA in March 1988 from Vaikanour in Russia, it became operational.
• It collects data in several spectral bands and trasmit them to the ground stations for various uses.
• It is useful in the management of natural resources.

Question 2.
‘The density and the quality of roads are better in plains as compared to other regions in India.” Support this statement with examples. (A.I. 2009)
Answer:
The density and the quality of roads are better in plains as compared to other regions in India because:

• Nature of terrain and the level of economic development are the main determinants of density of roads.
• Construction of roads is easy and cheaper in the plain areas while it is difficult and costly in hilly and plateau areas.
• Example; Density of roads in J & K is 10.04 km while in Uttar Pradesh it is 532.27 km with a national average of 125.02 in 2008.

Question 3.
Describe any three advantages of water transport in the world. (A.I. 2013)
Answer:

• It does not require route construction.
• Oceans are linked with each other.
• They are negotiable with ships of various sizes.
• It is much cheaper than other means of transport.
• The friction of water is far less than that of land.
• The energy cost of water transportation is lower.

Question 4.
What do you mean by satellite communication? (A.I. 2014)
Answer:
Communication through artificial satellites launched in space is called satellite communication. It has emerged as a new area in communication technology since the 1970’s after the U.S.A. and former U.S.S.R. pioneered space research. In other words, it is an electronic network of computer which connects million of people across the world. It is the result of digitalisation of information in which the telecommunication is merged with computers.

Question 5.
Explain any three benefits of satellite communication in India. (Delhi, 2014)
Answer:
Three benefits of satellite communication in India are as follows:

• Satellite images can be used for the weather forecast, monitoring of natural calamities, surveillance of border areas, etc.
• It can be used as multi-purpose system for telecommunication, meteorological observation and for various other data and programmes. The IRS satellite system became operational with the launching of IRS-IA in March, 1988 from Vaikanour in Russia.
• The National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA) at Hyderabad provides facilities for acquisition of data and its processing. These are very useful in the management of natural resources.

Question 6.
Describe any three features of Konkan ; Railway. (Delhi, 2017)
Answer:.
Features of Konkan Railways:

• One of the achievements of Indian Railways.
• It is 760 km. long.
• It crosses 146 rivers, 2000 bridges approximately and 91 tunnels.
• Asia’s largest tunnel lies in this route.
• It connects Roha in Maharashtra to Mangalore in Karnataka.
  (Any three features to be described)

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Define the term ‘road density’. Explain with examples the two main determinants of road density in India. (Delhi 2011)
OR
Explain with five suitable examples, how the level of economic development and nature of terrain affect the density of roads in India.(Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Road density is the length of roads per 100 sq. kms of an area. Determinants of road density are level of economic development and nature of terrain.

• Construction of roads is easy and cheaper in the plain areas while it is difficult and costly in hilly and plateaus areas.
• Jammu and Kashmir has only 10.48 km. road density while Uttar Pradesh 532.27.
• The road density is high in most of the northern states and major southern states.
• It is low in the Himalayan region, northeastern region, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.
• Not only the density but also the quality of roads is relatively better in plains as compared to roads in high altitude areas, rainy and forested regions.

Question 2.
‘Indian railways brought people of diverse cultures together.” Support this statement with suitable examples. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Indian Railways brought people of diverse cultures together as

• It was introduced in 1853, when a line was constructed from Bombay to Thane covering a distance of 34 km.
• Its network is more than 644060 (2011) kms which is spread in different states.
• It connects people of different regions through its sixteen (16) zones.
• It facilitates the movement of both fright and passengers and contributes to the growth of economy.
• People from different languages, customs and food habits could connect with each other through Indian Railways. By this people of different languages and customs meet and a mix culture is developing and India is developing as a “Nation” from “Federation of States.

Question 3.
Examine the role of Inland Waterways Authority of India. Explain why inland water transport is an important mode of transport. (A.1.2016)
Answer:
Inland water is an important mode of transport because:

• It was the chief mode of transport before the advent of railways.
• It contributes about 1% of the country’s transportation.
• It provides cheap means of transport.
• It also attracts large member of tourists.

Question 4.
Explain why rail transport continues to remain the chief mode of transport for the masses in India. (A.I. 2016)
Answer:
Rail transport continues to remain the chief mode of transport for the masses in India because:

• It facilitates the movement of both fright and passengers.
• It contributes to the growth of the economy of the country.
• Indian Railway has convert the metre and narrow gauges to broad gauge.
• It is also the cheap means of transport.
• Metro rail has revolutionized the urban transport system in Kolkata and Delhi.

Question 5.
Explain any five factors responsible for the development of ‘Mumbai-Pune Industrial Region’. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Factors responsible for the development of ‘Mumbai-Pune Industrial Region:

• Favorable climatic conditions for the development of cotton textile industries.
• Opening of the Suez Canal providing impetus for its growth.
• Availability of port facility for trade.
• Development of hydro-electricity in Western Ghats.
• Availability of labour.
• Nearness to off-shore oil fields favored the growth of petrochemical industries.
• Growth and development of various industries e.g. engineering goods, pharmaceuticals, chemicals etc.
  (Any five points to be explained)

Question 6.
Classify means of communication on the basis of scale and quality into two categories. Explain any two characteristics of each category. (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
Classification of means of communication on the basis of scale and quality:

• Personal Communication
• Mass Communication

Characteristics:

Personal Communication System:

• Internet is the most effective advanced one and widely used in urban areas.
• It enables the user to establish direct connect through Email to get access to world of knowledge and information.
• It is used for e-commerce and carrying out money transaction.
• It is a huge central warehouse of data, with detailed information on various items. (Letters, Telephone, Fax, Email, Internet, etc).

Mass Communication System:

• Radio broadcasting started in India in 1923 by the Radio Club of Bombay and changed the socio¬cultural life of people.
• Television broadcasting emerged as the most effective-audio-visual medium for information and educating masses.
• Use of satellite and synoptic view of larger area for economic and strategic reasons. (Radio, Television, Cinema, Satellite, News Paper, Magazine and Books, Seminar and Conference, etc).
  ( Any two points )

Question 7.
Describe any five characteristics of National Highways of India. (Delhi 2018)
Answer:
Characteristics of National Highwaysof India:

• Constructed and maintained by the Central Government.
• Meant for inter-state transport.
• Meant for movement of defence men and material in strategic areas.
• They connect the cities in different parts (state capitals, major cities, important ports, railway junctions) of India.
• They constitute 1.7% of total road length and 40% of the road traffic in India.
• NHAI is entrusted with the responsibility of development, maintenance and operation of NH.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

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lass 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 11 International Trade

Class 12 Geography Chapter 11 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answers of the following from the given options:

Question 1.(i)
Trade between two countries is termed as
(a) Internal trade
(b) External trade
(c) International trade
(d) Local trade
Answer:
(c) International trade

Question 1.(ii)
Which one of the following is a land locked harbour?
(a) Vishakhapatnam
(b) Mumbai
(c) Ennore
(d) Haldia
Answer:
(a) Vishakhapatnam

Question 1.(iii)
Most of India’s foreign trade is carried through
(a) Land and sea
(b) Land and air
(c) Sea and air
(d) Sea
Answer:
(c) Sea and air

Question 1.(iv)
Which bne of the following is India’s largest trading partner (2010-11)
(a) U.A.E.
(b) China
(c) Germany
(d) U.S.A.
Answer:
(a) U.A.E.

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
Mention the characteristics of India’s foreign trade.
Answer:
The nature of India’s foreign trade has changed over the years. Though there has been an increase in the total volume of import and export, the value of import continued to be higher than that of exports. There has also been an increase in trade deficit over the last couple of years. This increase in deficit is attributed to the price rise of crude petroleum, which forms a major component of India’s international trade. The share of primary products has decreased in the total export of India, whereas share of petroleum products has increased, share of manufactured products has remained constant over the years.

Question 2.(ii)
Distinguish between port and harbour.
Answer:

Question 2.(iii)
Explain the meaning of hinterland.
Answer:
Hinterland is the area served by a port. It is the area of influence of a port. It is a region lying inland from a coast or river. Eg. UP, Bihar, Jharkhand are hinterlands of Kolkata port.

Question 2.(iv)
Name important items which India imports from different countries.
Answer:
The major of items of India’s import as per 2009-2011 are food and allied products, fuel, fertilisers, paper board manufacturing and news print, capital goods, chemicals, pearls, precious and semi precious stones, gold and silver.

Question 2.(v)
Name the ports of India located on the east coast.
Answer:
Ports on the eastern coast of India are:

• Kolkata port – West Bengal
• Haldia port – West Bengal
• Paradip port – Odisha
• Vishakhapatnam port – Andhra Pradesh
• Chennai port – Tamil Nadu
• Ennore port – Tamil Nadu
• Tuticorin port – Tamil Nadu

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
Describe the composition of export and import trade of India.
Answer:
Composition of Export trade in India: The composition of commodities in India’s international trade has been undergoing change over years. The share of agriculture and allied products have declined whereas shares of petroleum and crude products and other commodities have increased. The shares of ore minerals and manufactured goods have largely remained constant over the years from 1997-98 to 2003-04. The increase in share of petroleum products is due to rise in petroleum price as well as India’s refining capacity. The decline in traditional products is largely due to the competition from the international market. Amongst the agricultural products, there is a great decline in the exports of traditional items such as coffee, spices, tea, pulses, etc. though an increase has been registered in floricultural products, fresh fruits, marine products and sugar, etc.

Manufacturing sector alone accounted for 68 per cent of India’s total value of export in 2010-11. Engineering goods have shown a significant growth in the export list. China and other East Asian countries are our major competitors. Gems and jewellery contribute a larger portion of India’s foreign trade.

Composition of Import trade in India: Machine and equipment, special steel, edible oil and chemicals largely make the import basket. There has been a steep rise in imports of petroleum products. It is used not only as a fuel but also as an industrial raw material. It indicates the tempo of rising industrialization and better standard of living. Sporadic price rise in the international market is another reason for the same. Import of capital goods maintained a steady increase due to rising demand in the export-oriented industrial and domestic sectors. Non¬electrical machinery, transport equipment, manufacturers of metals and machine tools were the main items of capital goods. Import of food and allied products declined with a fall in imports of edible oils. Other major items of India’s import include pearls and semi precious stones, gold and silver, metalliferrous ores and metal scrap, non-ferrous metals, electronic goods, etc.

Question 3.(ii)
Write a note on the changing nature of the international trade of India.
Answer:
In 1950-51, India’s external trade was worth Rs. 1,2140 million, which rose to Rs. 22,09,270 crore in 2009-10. The main reasons for the rise in the quantum of trade is momentum piched up by the manufacturing sector, the liberal policies of the government and the diversification of markets. The nature of India’s foreign trade has changed over the years. Though there has been an increase in the total volume of import and export, the value of import continued to be higher than that of exports. There has also been an increase in trade deficit over the last couple of years. This increase in deficit is attributed to the price rise of crude petroleum, which forms a major component of India’s international trade.

Changing Nature of India’s Export: The composition of commodities in India’s international trade has been undergoing change over years. The share of agriculture and allied products have declined whereas shares of petroleum and crude products and other commodities have increased. The shares of ore minerals and manufactured goods have largely remained constant over the years from 1997-98 to 2003-04. The increase in share of petroleum products is due to rise in petroleum price as well as India’s refining capacity. The decline in traditional products is largely due to the competition from the international market Amongst the agricultural products, there is a great decline in the exports of traditional items such as coffee, spices, tea, pulses, etc. though an increase has been registered in floricultural products, fresh fruits, marine products and sugar, etc.

Manufacturing sector alone accounted for 68 per cent of India’s total value of export in 2010-11. Engineering goods have shown a significant growth in the export list. China and other East Asian countries are our major competitors.
Gems and jewellery contribute a larger portion of India’s foreign trade.

Changing Nature of India’s Import: India faced serious food shortage during 1950s and 1960s. The major item of import at that time was foodgrain, capital goods, machinery and equipments. The balance of payment was adverse as imports were more than export in spite of all the efforts of import substitution. After 1970s, foodgrain import was discontinued due to the success of green revolution but the energy crisis of 1973 pushed the prices of petroleum, and import budget was also pushed up. Fertilisers and petroleum replaced foodgrain import. Machine and equipment, special steel, edible oil and chemicals largely make the import basket.

There has been a steep rise in imports of petroleum products. It is used not only as a fuel but also as an industrial raw material. It indicates the tempo of rising industrialisation and better standard of living. Sporadic price rise in the international market is another reason for the same. Import of capital goods maintained a steady increase due to rising demand in the export-oriented industrial and domestic sectors. Non-electrical machinery, transport equipment, manufacturers of metals and machine tools were the main items of capital goods.
Import of food and allied products declined with a fall in imports of edible oils. Other major items of India’s import include pearls and semi precious stones, gold and silver, metalliferrous ores and metal scrap, non-ferrous metals, electronic goods, etc.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 11 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 11 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What changes have taken place in exports of India due to increased competition?
Answer:
Due to tough international competition, amongst the agricultural products, there is a great decline in the exports of traditional items such as coffee, spices, tea, pulses, etc. though an increase has been registered in floricultural products, fresh fruits, marine products and sugar, etc.

Question 2.
Which goods were being imported in 1950-60?
Answer:
India faced serious food shortage during 1950’s and 1960’s. The major item of import at that time was food grain, capital goods, machineries and equipment’s. The balance of payment was adverse as imports were more than exports in spite of all the efforts of import substitution.

Question 3.
In the decade of 1970 which goods had replaced food items from imports.
Answer:
After 1970’s, food grain import was discontinued due to the success of green revolution programme but the energy crisis of 1973 pushed the prices of petroleum, and import budget was also pushed up. Food grain import was replaced with fertilizers and petroleum. Machines and equipment’s, special steel, edible oil and chemicals largely made the import items.

Question 4.
Why did India’s external trade increase rapidly between 1950-51 and 2009-10?
Answer:
India’s external trade increased rapidly due to the sharp rise in overseas trade, the momentum picked up by the manufacturing sectors, the liberal policies of the government and the diversification of market.

Question 5.
Why is the export of agricultural and allied products declining continuously after 1997-98?
Answer:
There is a great decline in the exports of traditional items such as coffee, spices, tea, pulses, etc due to the tough international competition amongst agricultural products. Though an increase has been registered in floricultural products, fresh fruits, marine products and sugar, etc.

Question 6.
After attaining a peak in 1999-2000, why has the export of manufacturing goods started decreasing?
Answer:
Engineering goods have shown a significant growth in the export list. But the share of petroleum 8s other commodities have increased.

Question 7.
Name the major items of India’s import list of 1994-2005?
Answer:

• Engineering goods, capital goods
• Gems and jewellery
• Chemical and related products
• Petroleum products (fuel).

Question 8.
Name the trading partners of India ] except the USA.
Answer:
The UAE is India’s largest trading partner and the most important destination of India’s export followed by China. Other countries in order of significance include, Belgium, Germany, Korea, Switzerland, Hong Kong, Singapore and Indonesia.

Question 9.
By which routes does most of international trade take place in India?
Answer:
Most of India’s foreign trade is carried through sea and air routes. However, a small portion is also carried through land route to neighboring countries like Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Pakistan.

Question 10.
What natural factors are favorable for international trade in India?
Answer:
India is surrounded by sea from three sides and is bestowed with a long coastline. Water provides a smooth surface for very cheap transport provided there is no turbulence. India has a long tradition of sea-faring and developed many ports with place name suffixed with pattan which means port.

Question 11.
Give share of India’s foreign trade with important partners.
Answer:
Asia and Oceania accounted for 57 per cent of India’s export followed by West Europe (23.80 per cent) and America Europe and America in 2004-05.

Question 12.
Why is the West Coast having more seaports as compared to the East Coast?
Answer:
West Coast have more ports as compared to East Coast because of the availability of indented coastline.

Question 13.
Who decides the policy and plays regulatory role for ports?
Answer:
At present, India has 12 major ports and 185 minor or intermediate ports. In case of the major ports, central government decides the policy and plays regulatory functions. The minor ports are there whose policy and functions are regulated by state governments.

Question 14.
With what objective did British develop ports in India?
Answer:
The British used the ports as suction points of the resources from their hinterlands. The extension of railways towards the interior facilitated the linking of the local markets to regional markets, regional markets to national markets and national markets to the international markets.

Question 15.
Name newly constructed ports of India.
Or
Name the port constructed on west coast immediately after independence.
Answer:
The partition of the country snatched away two very important ports, i.e. Karachi port went to Pakistan and Chittagong port to the erstwhile east-Pakistan, (now Bangladesh. To compensate the losses, many new ports like the Kandla in the west and the Diamond Harbour near Kolkata on the river Hugli in the east were developed.

Question 16.
What is the cargo capacity of Indian ports at present?
Answer:
The capacity of Indian ports increased from 20 million tonnes of cargo handling in 1951 to more than 500 million tonnes at present.

Question 17.
Why is Marmagao Port called natural port?
Answer:
Marmagao Port is situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary. Therefore, it is a natural harbour in Goa. It gained significance after its remodelling in 1961 to handle iron-ore exports to Japan. Construction of Konkan railway has considerably extended the hinterland of this port.

Question 18.
Why is Vembanad Kayal famous?
Answer:
Kochchi port which is popularly known as the “Queen of the Arabian Sea” is situated at Vembanad Kayal. It is also a natural harbour. This port has an advantageous location being close to the Suez-Colombo route. It caters to the needs of Kerala, southern-Karnataka and south western Tamil Nadu.

Question 19.
What do you know about Visakhapatnam port?
Answer:
Visakhapatnam Port in Andhra Pradesh is a land-locked harbour, connected to the sea by a channel cut through solid rock and sand.

Question 20.
How many ports are there in India at present?
Answer:
At present, India has 12 major seaports and 185 minor or intermediate ports.

Question 21.
Which port has the deepest harbour?
Answer:
Paradwip port has the deepest harbour. It is situated in the Mahanadi delta, about 100 km away from Cuttack.

Question 22.
Which port is situated at downstream Kolkata? Which goods does it handle?
Answer:
Haldia port is located at 105 km downstream from Kolkata. It has been constructed to reduce the congestion at Kolkata port. It handles bulk cargo like iron ore, coal, petroleum, petroleum products and fertilisers, jute, jute products, cotton and cotton yarn, etc.

Question 23.
Name the port which has been constructed to reduce the congestion at Kolkata port.
Answer:
Haldia port has been constructed to reduce the congestion at Kolkata port.

Question 25.
Which is the Biggest port of India?
Answer:
Mumbai Port.

Question 26.
Which is one of the oldest artificial ports in easten coast?
Answer:
Chennai

Question 27.
Which ports have been built to relieve the pressure of Chennai?
Answer:
Ennore & Tuticorin ports

Question 28.
Which is the riverine port?
Answer:
Kolkata on river Hugli.

Question 29.
Which is a land-locked harbour port?
Answer:
Vishakhapatnam

Class 12 Geography Chapter 11 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why is international trade necessary?
Answer:
International trade is beneficial as no country is self sufficient. It bridges the gap between surplus regions and deficit regions through export and imports. Countries need to trade to obtain commodities, they cannot produce themselves or they can purchase elsewhere at a lower price. It helps countries in maintaining the specialisation in the production of goods and services. It increases international cooperation and understanding. In early times it played significant role in the cultural diffusion.

Question 2.
Explain the causes behind increase in foreign trade in India.
Answer:
There are numerous reasons for this sharp increase in foreign trade:

• The momentum picked up by the manufacturing sectors.
• The liberal policies of the government.
• The diversification of markets.

Question 3.
What factors are responsible for change in nature of international trade?
Answer:
Many changes have taken place in foreign trade of India over time. There has been an increase in the total volume of import & export, but the value of import remained higher. The share of agriculture and allied products has declined while that of petroleum has increased. The increase in deficit is attributed to the price rise of crude petroleum which forms a major component of India’s import list.

Question 4.
Name the goods of imports from 2009 to 2011 whose quantity kept on increasing.
Answer:
Import of Petroleum products & capital goods maintained steady rise in imports due to rising industrialisation and better standard of living. Non-electrical machinery, transport equipment, manufacturers of metals and machine tools were the main items of capital goods. Import of food and allied products declined with a fall in imports of edible oils. Other major items of India’s import include pearls and semi precious stones, gold and silver, ferrous ores and metal scrap, non-ferrous metals, electronic goods, etc.

Question 5.
What steps have been taken by India to • increase its share in international trade?
Answer:
India aims to double its share in the international trade within the next five years. India has started adopting suitable measures such as import liberalization, reduction in import duties, de-licensing and change from process to product patents for attaining these goals.

Question 6.
What steps have been taken for modernization of Indian ports?
Answer:
Today Indian ports are handling large volumes of domestic as well as overseas trade. Most of the ports are equipped with modern infrastructure. Previously the development and modernization was the responsibility of the government agencies, but considering the increase in function and need to bring these ports at par with the international ports, private entrepreneurs have been invited for the modernization of ports in India.

Question 7.
Explain the hinterland of Kolkata port.
Answer:
Hinterland is the influence area which is closely connected to the port with roads and railways. The products of this area are sent to the port for export and imported material is distributed here for sale and consumption.

Kolkata port is also confronted with the problem of silt accumulation in the Hugli river which provides a link to the sea. Its hinterland covers U.P., Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Sikkim and the north-eastern states. Apart from this, it also extends ports facilities to our neighbouring land-locked countries such as Nepal and Bhutan.

Question 8.
Explain the features of Kandla Port.
Answer:
Features of Kandla Port:

• Objective: Kandla Port situated at the head of Gulf of Kuchchh has been developed as a major port to cater to the needs of western and north western parts of the country and also to reduce the pressure at Mumbai port.
• Goods Handled: The port is specially designed to receive large quantities of petroleum and petroleum products and fertiliser. The offshore terminal at Vadinar has been developed to reduce the pressure at Kandla port.
• Hinterland: Demarcation of the boundary of the hinterland would be difficult as it is not fixed over space. In most of the cases, hinterland of one port may overlap with that of the other. Covers the western 8s north western states.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 11 Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
India’s international trade has undergone a sea-change in recent years. Discuss.
Answer:
India has trade relations with all the major trading blocks and all geographical regions of the world. Among the commodities of export, whose share is significant over the last few years till 2010¬11, are agriculture and allied products (10 per cent), ores and minerals (4 per cent), gems and jewellery, chemical and allied products, manufactured goods (12 per cent) and petroleum products (17 per cent). The commodities imported to India include petroleum & coal petroleum products (31 per cent), pearls, precious stones (10 per cent), inorganic chemicals (5.2 per cent), machinery (12.56 per cent). Fertilisers cereals, edible oils and newsprint on other imports. International trade has undergone a sea change in the last fifteen years. Exchange of commodities and goods have been superseded by the exchange of information and knowledge. India has emerged as a software giant at the international level. It is earning large foreign exchange through the export of information technology. .

Question 2.
Describe the changes in composition of India’s exports.
Answer:.
Composition of export of India:

• The percentage share of the agriculture and allied products have declined. There is a decline in the exports of traditional items such as coffee, spices, tea, pulses, etc.
• The share of petroleum and crude products have increased due to rise in petroleum prices and increase in India’s refining capacity.
• The share of ore & minerals and have largely remained constant over the years from 1997- 98 to 2003-04.
• Manufacturing goods are the largest exporting commodities in the year 2003¬04 (75.96%). The percentage share of other commodities has increased due to an increase in fruits, marine products and sugar.
• Engineering goods are the largest commodities on the export list. Crude and petroleum products also occupy a significant place in the list.
• Textile sector could not achieve much inspite of liberal measures taken by government due to competition from China and other Asian countries.

Question 3.
Describe the changes in composition of India’s imports.
Answer:
Composition of India’s imports:

• During 1950-60s the major items of imports were foodgrain because India at that time faced food crisis.
• After 1970s import of foodgrains stop due to Green Revolution.
• Foodgrains were replaced by fertilisers and petroleum.
• Petroleum is the largest imported commodity because it is used as a fuel as well as industrial raw material.
• The capital goods like non-electrical machinery, transport equipment, machines and tools have increased on the import list.
• Special steel alloy, edible oils are also imported.
• The other major items of import include pulse, precious gold and silver, metal ores, scraps, electronic goods, etc.

Question 4.
What are the advantages of sea port? Why are they termed as gateways of International trade?
Answer:

• India is surrounded by sea from three sides and is bestowed with a long coastline.
• Water provides a smooth surface for very cheap transport provided there is no turbulence.
• India has a long traditional of sea-faring and developed many ports with place name suffixed with pattan which mean port. Since waterways is the cheapest means of transport for heavy and bulky goods and it is more favoured for international trading.
• India’s west coast has more seaports than its east coast.
• Availability of indented coastline.
• Early arrivals of British to promote their trade.
• British encouragement to establish and promote ports along the west coast to strengthen connectivity to Europe.
• Opening of suez canal also promotes an encouraged seaports along the west coast.

Question 5.
Write the differences between Major ports and Minor ports.
Answer:

Class 12 Geography Chapter 11 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
Explain the changing pattern of the international trade of India.
Answer:
Change in Export:

• The share of agriculture and allied products has declined.
• Share of petroleum and its products increased.
• Share of mineral ores remained constant.
• The decline in traditional items due to tough competition like jute products.
• Significant growth in the export of engineering and leather goods.

Change in Import:

• Share of food grains import is replaced by petroleum and fertilizers.
• Import of capital goods has increased.
• Import of edible oil and pulses in place of food items.
• Gold and silver import has increased.
• Import of professional instruments has also increased.

Question 2.
Why does India import edible oil and pulses in spite of being an agriculturally rich country?
Answer:
India imports edible oil and pulses in spite of being an agriculturally rich country due to the following reasons:

• More demand due to rapid growth of population.
• Most of the cultivated land is under food crops.
• Per hectare productivity of pulses is low as compared to other crops.
• The ‘package technology’ was not given for the the promotion of pulses & oil seeds production. So their production did not increase the desired amount.
• Risky farming due to high vulnerability.
• Increase in the purchasing power of the individuals.

Question 3.
Mention the measures adopted by the Govt, of India to double its share in the international trade.
Answer:
Following measures are adopted by the government of India to double its share in the international trade:

• Liberalization of imports.
• Reduction in import duties.
• De-licensing and change from process to product patents.

Question 4.
Why has the west coast more seaports than the east coast of India?
Answer:
West sea coast has more ports than east coast because:

• Availability of indented coastline.
• Depth of sea water is relatively more near coast.
• Early arrival of European traders and Arabs etc.
• British encouraged to establish and promote the ports along the west coast to strengthen the connectivity from Europe.
• Opening of Suez Canal also promoted and encouraged the emergence of seaports along the west coast.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 11 Map Based Questions

Question 1.
Label and locate the following on the political map of India:
Kandla, Mumbai, Murmagao, Kochchi, Ennore, Tuticorin, Chennai, Vishakhapatnam, Paradwip, Haldia
Answer:

Question 2.
Locate and label the following on the political map of India.
Ahmedabad, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Chennai, Kolkata, Guwahati, Delhi, Amritsar, Panji, Kochchi (Kochi), Thiruvananthapuram and Hyderabad.
Answer:

Class 12 Geography Chapter 11 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Which country is the largest trading partner of India? (CBSE 2009)
Answer:
UAE (United Arab Emirates).

Question 2.
Which one of Indian seaport provides port facilities to its landlocked neighbouring countries? Name any one such country. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
Kolkata, Nepal.

Question 3.
Which export commodity of India has the highest value? (CBSE 2010)
Answer:
Manufacturing goods.

Question 4.
Which import commodity of India has the highest value? (Foreign 2010)
Answer:
Crude petroleum and products.

Question 5.
Which is the principal import commodity of India? . (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Petroleum and its products.

Question 6.
Name the landlocked major port of India. (Foreign 2010)
OR
Which major sea port on the eastern coast of India has a land locked harbour? (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Vishakhapatnam.

Question 7.
Name the oldest artificial sea port of India. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Chennai sea port.

Question 8.
Which sector of economy accounted for the highest percentage of India’s total value of exports in 2003-2004? (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Manufactured goods.

Question 9.
Which sea port has been develop to relieve the pressure of Chennai Port. (CBSE 2012)
OR
Name the major seaport which has been developed. to relieve the pressure at Chennai seaport. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Ennore/Tuticorin Port.

Question 10.
Name the major sea port located on Hugli river. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Kolkata port.

Question 11.
Name the country which is the largest trading partner of India. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
United Arab Emirate (UAE) is the largest trading partner of India.

Question 12.
Name the major seaport which was developed just after independence on the western coast of India. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Kandla Port.

Question 13.
Name the seaport which was constructed to reduce the congestion at Kolkata port. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Haldia Port.

Question 14.
Name the port developed as a satellite port to relieve the pressure at ‘Mumbai’ port. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru Port.

Question 15.
Name the port which was developed as a satellite port to relieve the pressure at the Mumbai port. (Delhi 2014)
OR
Why was Jawaharlal Nehru Port developed?
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru Port at Nhava Sheva was developed as a satellite port to relieve the pressure at the Mumbai port.

Question 16.
Name the two countries which are the largest trading partners of India as per econmic survey report of 2011-12. (A.I. 2016)
Answer:
United Arab Emirates-Largest and Second largest is China.