NTSE Goa: National talent search exam Goa is going to be conducted on 3rd November 2019. Students should note that the application process for the exam was going to be conducted in the first week of August through offline mode. Candidates will be able to collect the application form from their school authorities and submit the same to the state liaison officer till the final week of August. Candidate should score at least 70% marks in class 9 to be able to eligible for appearing in the NTSE Goa 2019 exam. However, for students from reserved categories, the minimum eligibility is 55% marks. For applying on NTSE, students should keep an eye on the official SCERT Goa website which is education.goa.gov.in.

The NTSE Exam this year is going to be conducted in two stages. For stage 1, the state or the union territories is going to conduct the exam. While for stage 2, NCERT will conduct the exam.

NTSE Goa 2019 Exam Overview

• Exam Name – National Talent Search Examination, Goa
• Level of the Exam – State/UT
• Conducted by – State Council for Educational Research and Training (SCERT), Goa
• Mode of Examination – Pen, and Paper
• Medium of Exam – English

State/UT Liaison Officer and Addresses:

Sh. Jaywant Waman Naik, Vocational Education Officer
Directorate of Education
State Council of Educational Research and Training,
Alto-Porvorim Bardez-403521 (Goa)
Ph. 0832-2417276, 0832-2413649

NTSE Goa 2019 Exam Important Dates

NTSE Goa 2019 Exam Eligibility

• Students should check the eligibility criteria before applying for the NTSE Goa exam. Below are the points mentioned to know the eligibility criteria for NTSE Goa 2019 exam.
• Students that are applying for NTSE Goa 2019 exam should have at least 70% marks in class 9 in order to be eligible for NTSE Goa exam.
• For students belonging to reserved category, a minimum score of 55% is enough to be eligible for appearing in NTSE Goa 2019 exam.
• Students that are enrolled under the open schooling are also eligible to appear for the NTSE stage 1 exam.
• No candidate who is employed with job salary, stipend, or remuneration is eligible to apply for NTSE exam.

NTSE Goa 2019 Exam Application Form

Students should note that they have to fill the NTSE application form from the first week of August through offline mode. The application form shall be mailed to state liaison officer by alk the schools of the state. NTSE Goa application form 2019 must be filed and signed duly and submitted by last week of August to the concerned school authorities.

How To Fill NTSE Goa Application Form?

• Collect the application form from the state liaison officer for NTSE Goa exam or from the school authorities.
• Fill the required details like preferred exam center, category, etc.
• Now fill the admit card form also that is attached with the application form and paste the photograph for the given column.
• Do not separate the admit card from the application form.
• Submit the application form after filling all the required details to respective school authorities by the August last week
• Collect the admit card from state liaison’s office at least 10 days before the NTSE Goa stage 1 exam.

NTSE Goa Admit Card

Candidates should be able to collect the admit card for NTSE Goa stage 1 exam from October 2019. Students are advised to collect the admit card from state liaison’s office at least 10 days before the NTSE Goa stage 1 exam. The NTSE Goa exam admits card will contain details like roll number, candidate’s name, information regarding the test center, exam schedule, etc. It should be remembered that no student will be allowed to sit in the exam hall without the admit card.

NTSE Goa 2019 Exam Pattern

Students should go through the NTSE exam pattern in order to know about the marking scheme and the difficulty level of the exam.

NTSE Goa 2019 Exam Syllabus

The conducting body for the NTSE Goa exam does not specify ant syllabus. But according to experts, the questions that are frequently asked are very similar to class 9 and 10 syllabi. Go through the table below for understanding more important topics about NTSE exam

NTSE Goa Exam Question Papers and Answer Key

Students are advised to solve the NTSE Goa exam sample papers while preparing for the main exam. There are previous years question papers available which can help the students to know about the exam pattern. Solving these papers will further help candidates to know about the questions that are frequently asked, difficulty level, and marking scheme.

SCERT Goa will release the answer key for NTSE Goa 2019 exam by November last week. Students can refer to the answer keys that are released by coaching centers. NTSE Goa exam answer key will help the candidates to predict their scores that will help them to know if they are qualified for the second stage of the exam or not.

NTSE Goa Exam Result and Cutoff

The NTSE Goa exam result will be released in April 2020. NTSE Goa result will be released in the form of a merit list of students that are selected for the second stage of NTSE exam. The result will be available for everyone in the PDF format. NTSE Goa exam result will contain details like roll number, candidate’s name, total score, marks obtained in MAT and SAT.

SCERT Goa may or may not release the cutoffs along with the result. Cutoff marks are the minimum marks that a candidate needs to score for appearing in the NTSE stage 2 exam. For qualifying NTSE stage 1 exam, general category students need to score 40% while SC/ST students should score a minimum of 32% marks.

NTSE Goa Exam Scholarship

NTSE Goa Exam Reservation Criteria

The post NTSE Goa 2019-20 for Class 10 | Admit Card, Question Paper, Answer Key, Result appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste

Question 1.
What is the percentage of seats reserved for women in local bodies? (2012)
Answer:
33%

Question 2.
What is the ‘term’ used for a person who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men? (2012)
Answer:
Feminist

Question 3.
What proportion of the country’s population do the SC, ST and OBC together account for? (2013)
Answer:
The SC, ST and OBC together account for about two-thirds of the country’s population.

Question 4.
Define the term ‘feminist’.
Answer:
A woman or a man, who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men, is called a feminist.

Question 5.
Explain the term ‘feminist movements’.
Answer:
Feminist Movements are radical women’s movements aiming at attaining equality for women in personal and family life and public affairs. These movements have organized and agitated to raise channels for enhancing the political and legal status of women and improving their educational and career opportunities.

Question 6.
What is a patriarchal society?
Answer:
A patriarchal society is essentially male dominated. The line of descent is traced through the father. Men are valued more in terms of work they do and the place they hold in society. This gives them more power than women.

Question 7.
Why do Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes have the prefix ‘Scheduled’ in their names?
Answer:
Both these broad groups include hundreds of castes or tribes whose names are listed in an official Schedule. Hence, the prefix ‘scheduled’ in their name.

Question 8.
What is communal politics?
Answer:
When the demands of one religious group are formed in opposition to another and when State power is used to establish domination of one religious group over the rest, this manner of using religion in politics is called communal politics.

Short Answer Questions (SA) 3 Marks

Question 9.
Mention any two constitutional provisions that make India a Secular State.
Answer:
Two constitutional provisions that make India a Secular State are:

1. There is no official religion for the Indian State. Unlike the status of Buddhism in Sri Lanka, Islam in Pakistan and Christianity in England, our Constitution does not give a special status to any religion.
2. At the same time, the Constitution allows the State to intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious communities; for example, it bans untouchability.

Question 10.
Suppose a politician seeks your vote on the religious ground. Why is his act considered against the norms of democracy? Explain. (2015)
Answer:
If a politician seeks votes on religious grounds, he is acting against the norms of democracy because—

1. This act of his is against the Constitution. He is exploiting social differences which may create social discard and lead to social division.
2. Religion becomes a problem when it is expressed in politics and when one religion and its followers are pitted against another.
3. When beliefs of one religion are presented as superior to those of other religions and the demands of one religious group are formed in opposition to another and the state power is used to establish the domination of one religious group over the rest, it leads to communal politics.

Question 11.
Explain the status of women’s representation in India’s legislative bodies. (2014)
Answer:
The one way to ensure that women related problems get adequate attention is to have more women as elected representatives. To achieve this, it is legally binding to have a fair proportion of women in the elected bodies.

• Panchayati Raj in India has reserved one-third seats in Local Government bodies for women.
• In India, the proportion of women in legislature has been very low. The percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha is not even 10 per cent and in State Assemblies less than 5 per cent. India is behind several developing countries of Africa and Latin America. Women organisations have been demanding reservations of at least one-third seats in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies for women.
• And only recently, in March 2010, the women’s reservation bill was passed in the Rajya Sabha ensuring 33% reservation to women in Parliament and State Legislative bodies.

Question 12.
How does religion influence the political set up in our country? Explain. (2015)
Answer:
Gandhiji said, “Religion can never be separated from politics”. By religion he did not mean any particular religion like Hinduism or Islam, but moral values and ethics drawn from religion to guide politics. Religion in politics is not as dangerous as it may seem to us. Ethical values of each religion can play a major role in politics. According to human rights groups, most of the victims of communal riots in our country are from religious minorities.

Government can take special steps to protect them. Family laws of all religions discriminate against women. The government can change laws to make them more equitable. These instances show a relationship between religion and politics. People should be able to express in politics their needs, interests and demands as members of a religious community. Thus, it is the responsibility of those whose political power is able to regulate the practice of religion, to prevent discrimination and oppression. These political acts are not wrong as long as they treat every religion equally.

Long Answer Questions (LA)

Question 13.
“Gender division is not based on Biology but on social expectations and stereotypes’. Support the statement. (2012)
Or
Mention different aspects of life in which women are discriminated against or disadvantaged in India.
Answer:
‘Gender division is not based on Biology but on social expectations and stereotypes’:

1. Boys and girls are brought up to believe that the main responsibility of women is house work and bringing up children. There is sexual division of labour in most families where women stay at home and men work outside to play the role of breadwinners.
2. Literacy rate among women is only 54% in comparison to 76% among men. In studies, girls mostly perform better than boys, but they drop out simply because parents prefer to spend their resources on their sons’ education. A smaller proportion of girls go for higher studies.
3. On an average, a woman works more than an average man everyday. Since much of her work is not paid for, therefore often not valued. The Equal Wages Act provides for equal wages for equal work, but in almost all areas of work from sports to cinema, from factories to fields, women are comparatively paid less because of the male chauvinistic bent of mind of society.
4. Child sex-ratio (number of girl children per thousand boys) is very low. In India, the national average is 927. In some places it is even lower because parents prefer to have sons so they get girl child aborted.
5. In urban areas too, women are not respected and are unsafe even in their homes being subjected to beating, harassment and other forms of domestic violence.
6.  The role of women in politics in most societies is minimal.

Question 14.
State how caste inequalities are still continuing in India.
Answer:
Caste has not disappeared from contemporary India and caste division is special to India. Some of the older aspects of caste persist even today.

1. Even now most people marry within their own caste.
2. Untouchability has not ended completely despite constitutional prohibition.
3. Effects of centuries of advantages and disadvantages can be felt today. The caste groups that had access to education under old system have done well, whereas those groups that did not have access to education have lagged behind.
4. There is a large presence of ‘upper caste’ among the urban middle classes in our country.
5. Caste continues to be linked to economic status as is evident from National Sample Survey:
   • The average economic status of caste groups still follows the old hierarchy
   • the ‘upper’ castes are best off, the Dalits and Adivasis are worst off and the backward classes are in between.
   • Although every caste has some poor members, the proportion of those living in extreme poverty is higher for lowest castes and much lower for the upper castes.
   • Similarly, every caste has some members who are rich. The upper castes are heavily over-represented among the rich while the lower castes are under-represented.
   • The SC, ST and OBC together account for about two-thirds of India’s population.

Question 15.
What factors have brought about a change in the Indian Caste system in modern times? Explain. (2012)
Answer:
The castes and caste system in modern India have undergone great changes due to the efforts of social reformers and the socio-economic changes in India. With economic development, large scale urbanisation, growth of literacy and education, occupational mobility and weakening of the position of landlords in the villages, the old notions of caste hierarchy are breaking down. Politics too influences the caste system and caste identities by bringing them into the political arena. The Constitution of India prohibits any caste-based discrimination and has laid foundations of policies to reverse injustices of the caste system.

Question 16.
Explain the various forms that caste can take in politics.
Answer:
Various forms of caste in politics:

1. When governments are formed, political parties usually take care that representatives of different castes and tribes find a place in it.
2. When parties choose candidates, they keep in mind the composition of the electorate and accordingly choose candidates from different castes so as to muster necessary support to win elections.
3. Political parties make appeals to caste sentiments to gain support. Some political parties are known to favour some castes.
4. Universal adult franchise and the principle of one-person-one-vote compelled political leaders to mobilise political support. It also brought new consciousness among people belonging to those castes which were treated as inferiors.

Question 17.
What was the Feminist Movement? Explain the political demands of the Feminist Movement in India. (2013)
Answer:
Feminist Movements are radical women’s movements aiming at attaining equality for women in personal and family life and public affairs. These movements have organised and agitated to raise channels for enhancing the political and legal status of women and improving their educational and career opportunities.

Political demands of the feminist movement in India:
The one way to ensure that women related problems get adequate attention in India is to have more women as elected representatives. To achieve this, it is legally binding to have a fair proportion of women in the elected bodies. Panchayati Raj in India has reserved one-third seats in Local Government bodies for women.

In India, the proportion of women in legislature has been very low. The percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha is not even 10 per cent and in State Assemblies less than 5 per cent. India in behind several developing countries of Africa and Latin America. Women organizations have been demanding reservations of at least one-third seats in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies for women.

And only recently, in March 2010, the women’s reservation bill was passed in the Rajya Sabha ensuring 33 per cent reservation for women in Parliament and State Legislative bodies.

Question 18.
What have been the consequences of the political expression of gender division in free India? (2013)
Answer:
Political expression of gender division and political mobilisation has helped improve women’s role in public life all over the world including India. However, despite some improvements since Independence, ours is still a male-dominated society and women lag behind in all fields.

• Literacy rate among women is only 54 per cent as compared with 76 per cent among men.
• Proportion of women among highly paid and valuable jobs in still very small.
• Equal Wages Act provides that equal wages should be paid for equal work. However, in all areas from sports and cinema, factories to fields, women are paid less than men for the same amount of work.
• In many parts of India, parents prefer to have sons and find ways to abort the girl child before she is born.

Question 19.
Explain the factors that have led to the weakening of the caste system in India. (2014)
Answer:
Reasons which have contributed to changes in caste system:

1. Efforts of political leaders and social reformers like Gandhiji, B.R. Ambedkar who advocated and worked to establish a society in which caste inequalities are absent.
2. Socio-economic changes such as:
   • urbanisation
   • growth of literacy and education
   • occupational mobility
   • weakening of landlord’s position in the village
   • breaking down of caste hierarchy have greatly contributed.
3. The Constitution of India prohibited any caste-based discrimination and laid the foundations of policies to reverse the injustices of the caste system.
4. Provision of fundamental rights has played a major role because these rights are provided to all citizens without any discrimination.

Question 20.
How far is it correct to say that it is not politics that gets caste ridden but it is the caste that gets politicised? Explain. (2015)
Answer:
Politics too influences the caste system and caste identities by bringing them into the political arena. This takes several forms:

1. Each caste group tries to become bigger by incorporating within itself neighbouring castes or sub¬castes.
2. Various caste groups enter into a coalition with other castes for negotiations.
3. New caste groups like ‘backward’ and ‘forward’ have come up in the political arena.
4. Expressions of caste differences in politics give many disadvantaged communities the chance to demand their share of power and thus gain access to decision-making.
5. Many political and non-political organisations have been demanding and agitating for an end to discrimination against particular castes for more dignity and more access to land, resources and opportunities.

Question 21.
What was the Feminist Movement? Explain the political demands of the Feminist Movement in India. (2017 D)
Answer:
Feminist Movements are radical women’s movements aiming at attaining equality for women in personal and family life and public affairs. These movements have organised and agitated to raise channels for enhancing the political and legal status of women and improving their educational and career opportunities.
Political demands of the feminist movement in India:

The one way to ensure that women related problems get adequate attention in India is to have more women as elected representatives. To achieve this, it is legally binding to have a fair proportion of women in the elected bodies. Panchayati Raj in India has reserved one-third seats in Local Government bodies for women.

In India the proportion of women in legislature has been very low. The percentage of elected women members in Lok Sabha is not even 10 per cent and in State Assemblies less than 5 per cent. India is behind several developing countries of Africa and Latin America. Women organizations had been demanding reservations of at least one-third seats in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies for women.

And only recently, in March 2010, the women’s reservation bill was passed in the Rajya Sabha ensuring 33 per cent reservation to women in Parliament and State Legislative bodies.

Question 22.
“The Government of India gives holidays for the festivals of most of the religions.” Why is it so? Give your viewpoint. (2015)
Answer:
The Government of India gives all religious holidays because India is a secular state.
Certain provisions were adopted in the Constitution to make India a secular state:

1. There is no official religion for the Indian State. Unlike the status of Buddhism in Sri Lanka and Islam in Pakistan, our Constitution does not give a special status to any religion.
2. The Constitution provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion or not to follow any.
3. The Constitution prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion.
4. Constitution allows the State to intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious communities, for example, it bans untouchability.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions

The post Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Practical Work in Geography Class 11 Solutions Chapter 5 Topographical Maps

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

Question 1(i).
What are topographical maps?
Answer:
These are also known as general purpose maps. These are drawn at relatively large scales. These maps show important natural and cultural features such as relief, vegetation, water bodies, cultivated land, settlements, and transportation networks, etc. In other words, it is a map of a small area drawn on a large scale depicting detailed surface features both natural and man made. Relief in this map is shown by contours.

Question 1(ii).
Name the organisation which prepares the topographical maps of India.
Answer:
Topographical maps under India and Adjacent Countries Series were prepared by the Survey of India till the coming into existence of Delhi Survey Conference in 1937. Since then the preparation of maps for the adjoining countries was abandoned and the Survey of India confined itself to prepare and publish the topographical maps for India as per the specifications laid down for the International Map Series of the World.

Question 1(iii).
Which are the commonly used scales for mapping our country used by the Survey of India?
Answer:
The topographical maps of India are prepared on 1 : 10,00,000, 1 : 250,000, 1:1,25,000,1:50,000 and 1:25,000 scale providing a latitudinal and longitudinal coverage of 4° x 4°, 1° x 1°, 30′ x 30′, 15′ x 15′ and 5′ x 7′ 30″, respectively.

Question 1(iv).
What are contours?
Answer:
Contours are imaginary lines joining places having the same elevation above mean sea level. In other words, these are imaginary lines joining all the points of equal elevation or altitude above mean sea level. They are also called “level lines”. A map showing the landform of an area by contours is called a contour map. The method of showing relief features through contour is very useful and versatile. The contour lines on a map provide a useful insight into the topography of an area.

Question 1(v).
What does the spacing of contours indicate?
Answer:
Spacing in the contours represent slope.

• Closely spaced contours represent steep slopes.
• Widely spaced contours represent gentle slope.

Question 1(vi).
What are conventional signs?
Answer:
There are some internally determined standard symbols, signs and colours which are used to depict settlements, buildings, roads and railways are important cultural features shown on topographical sheets. When these features are exhibited through conventional signs, symbols and colours, it becomes easy to understand and interpret the map. Conventional signs and symbols are internationally accepted so that anyone can read any map anywhere in the world without knowing the language of that particular country.

2. Write short notes on-
Question 2(i)
Contours
Answer:
Some basic features of contour lines are:

• A contour line is drawn to show places of equal heights.
• Contour lines and their shapes represent the height and slope or gradient of the landform.
• Closely spaced contours represent steep slopes while widely spaced contours represent gentle slope.
• When two or more contour lines merge with each other, they represent features of vertical slopes such as cliffs or waterfalls.
• Two contours of different elevation usually do not cross each other.

Question 2(ii).
‘Marginal Information’ in Topographical sheets
Answer:
Marginal Information: It includes the topographical sheet number, its location, grid references, its extent in degrees and minutes, scale, the districts covered, etc. In other words, it provides information related to what exactly a topographical sheet is showing. Without this marginal information, it is not possible to derive any meaning from a topographical sheet.

Question 2(iii).
The Survey of India
Answer:
The Survey of India prepares the topographical maps in India for the entire country. Topographical maps under India and Adjacent Countries Series were prepared by the Survey of India till the coming into existence of Delhi Survey Conference in 1937. Henceforth, the preparation of maps for the adjoining countries was abandoned and the Survey of India confined itself to prepare and publish the topographical maps for India as per the specifications laid down for the International Map Series of the World.

3. Explain what is meant by ‘map interpretation’ and what procedure is followed for its interpretation.
Answer:
Map interpretation involves the study of factors that explain the causal relationship among several features shown on the map. For example, the distribution of natural vegetation and cultivated land can be better understood against the background of landform and drainage. Likewise, the distribution of settlements can be examined in association with the levels of transport network system and the nature of topography.

Deriving accurate meanings from maps is called map interpretation. Knowledge of map language and sense of direction are essential in reading and interpreting topo-sheets. We must first look for the northline and the scale of the map and orient ourselves accordingly. We must have a thorough knowledge of the legends / key given in the map depicting various features. All topo-sheets contain a table showing conventional signs and symbols used in the map. We must be acquainted with conventional symbols, signs and colours.

The following procedure is followed in map interpretation:

• Finding from the index number of the topographical sheet, the location of the area in India. This would give an idea of the general characteristics of the major and minor physiographic divisions of the area.
• Find the scale of the map and the contour interval, which will give the extent and general landform of the area.
• Find the following features on tracing sheets.
  • Major landforms – as shown by contours and other graphical features.
  • Drainage and water features – the main river and its important tributaries.
  • Land use – i.e. forest, agricultural land, wastes, sanctuary, park, school, etc.
  • Settlement and Transport pattern.
• Explain the distributional pattern of each of the features separately drawing attention to the most important aspect.
• Superimpose pairs of these maps and note down the relationship, if any, between the two patterns. For example, if a contour map is superimposed over a land use map, it provides the relationship between the degree of slope and the type of the land used.
• Aerial photographs and satellite imageries of the same area and of the same scale can also be compared with the topographical map to update the information.

4. If you are interpreting the cultural features from a topographical sheet, what information would you like to seek and how would you derive this information? Discuss with the help of suitable examples.
Answer:
Settlements, buildings, roads and railways are important cultural features shown on topographical sheets through conventional signs, symbols and colours. The location and pattern of distribution of different features help in understanding the area shown on the map. Distribution of Settlements can be seen in the map through its site, location pattern, alignment and density.

The nature and causes of various settlement patterns may be clearly understood by comparing the settlement map with the contour map. Transport And Communication Pattern Relief, population, size and resource development pattern of an area directly influence the means of transport and communication and their density. These are depicted through conventional signs and symbols. Means of transport and communication provide useful information about the area shown on the map.

Settlements, occupation, means of communication and transportation, land use pattern are some of the cultural features which are shown on topographical sheet using conventional signs, colours and symbols. We need to collect information for all of these we may get all this information through Survey of India. The means of transportation include national or state highways, district roads, cart tracks, camel tracks, footpaths, railways, waterways, major communication lines, post offices, etc. Settlements are studied under the two heads: Rural Settlements and Urban Settlements.

The general occupation of the people of the area may be identified with the help of land use and the type of settlement. For example, in rural areas the main occupation of majority of the people is agriculture; in tribal regions, lumbering and primitive agriculture dominates and in coastal areas, fishing is practised. Similarly, in cities and towns, services and business appear to be the major occupations of the people.

5. Draw the conventional signs and symbols for the following features—

1. International Boundary
2. Bench Mark
3. Villages
4. Metalled Road
5. Footpath with bridges
6. Places of Worship
7. Railway line.

Answer:

EXERCISE A

Study the contour pattern and answer the following questions.

1. Name the geographical feature formed by contours.
Answer:
Plateau

2. Find out the contour interval in the map.
Answer:
100 metre

3. Find out the map distance between E and F and convert it into ground distance.
Answer:
2 cm = 4 km on the ground

4. Name the type of slope between A and B; C and D and E and F.
Answer:
A and B Gentle Slope
C and D Steep Slope
E and F Gentle Slope

5. find out the direction of E, D and F from G.
Answer:
From G, E is in west, D is in North and F is in South directions.

EXERCISE B

Study the extract from the topographical sheet No. 63K/12. as shown in the figure below and answer the following questions.

1. Convert 1:50,000 into a statement of scale.
Answer:
1 cm on map is showing 50000 cm on ground.

2. Name the major settlements of the area.
Answer:
Kachhwa, Prem Ka Pura, Bhatauli,
Bahraini.

3. What is the direction of flow of the river Ganga?
Answer:
Direction of flow of river Ganga is from North west to south east.

4. At which one of the banks of river Ganga, Bhatauli is located?
Answer:
It is located in the middle of Ganga river.

5. What is the pattern of rural settlemen ts along the right bank of river Ganga?
Answer:
Compact pattern of rural settlements is seen along the right bank of river Ganga.

6. Name the villages/settlements where Post Office/Post and Telegraph Office are located?
Answer:
Villages indicating PO, and PTO have post office or post and telegraph office.

7. What does the yellow colour in the area refer to?
Answer:
Yellow colour in the area refers to plains.

8. What means of transportation is used to cross the river by the people of Bhatauli village ?
Answer:
Boats used to cross the river by the people of Bhatauli village.

EXERCISE C

Study the extract for topographical sheet 63K/12 shown in the figure given below and answer the following questions.

1. Give the height of the highest point on the map.
Answer:
208 metres.

2. River Janitihwa Nadi is flowing through which quarter of the map0
Answer:
River Jamtihwa Nadi is flowing through south east quarter of the map.

3. Which is the major settlement located in the east of the Kuardari Nala?
Answer:
Bandhwa settlement is located in the east of the Kuardari Nala.

4. What type of settlement does this area have?
Answer:
Linear settlements are there in this area. ;

5. Name the geographical feature represented by white patches in the middle of Sipiu Nadi.
Answer:
It is showing plains.

6. N ame the two types of vegetation shown on part of the topographical sheet.
Answer:
Tropical deciduous vegetation.

7. Vdhat is the direction of the flow of the Kuardari?
Answer:
It is flowing from South to North.

8. In which part of the sheet area is Lower Khajuri Dam located?
Answer:
In Southern part of the sheet Lower Khajuri Dam is located.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 5 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a type of j settlements?
(a) Compact
(e) Linear
(6) Dispersed
(d) Polar.
Answer:
(d) Polar

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a type of urban towns?
(a) Mountain towns
(b) Capital towns
(c) Beauty towns
(d) Religious towns.
Answer:
(c) Beauty towns

Question 3.
A widely stretched flat-topped high land, with relatively steeper slopes, rising above the adjoining plain or sea is called a:
(a) Mountain
(b) Valley
(c) Spur
(d) Plateau.
Answer:
(d) Plateau

Question 4.
A sudden and more or less perpendicular descent of water from a considerable height in the bed of a river is called a:
(a) Spur
(b) Valley
(c) Waterfall
(d) Plateau.
Answer:
(c) Waterfall

Question 5.
A tongue of land, projecting from higher ground into the lower is called a:
(a) Spur
(b) Valley
(c) Waterfall
(d) Plateau.
Answer:
(a) Spur.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 5 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How are relief maps different from topographical maps?
Answer:

Question 2.
What methods are used to present topography?
Answer:
A number of methods have been used to show the relief features of the Earth’s surface on maps, over the years. These methods include hachure, hill shading, layer tints, benchmarks and spot heights and contours. However, contours and spot heights are predominantly used to depict the relief of an area on all topographical maps.

Question 3.
What are Hachure?
Answer:
Small straight lines drawn on the map along the direction of maximum slope, running across the contours. They give an idea about the differences in the slope of the ground.

Question 4.
Define Contour lines.
Answer:
These are imaginary lines joining all the points of equal elevation or altitude above mean sea level. They are also called “level lines”.

Question 5.
Differentiate between vertical interval and horizontal distance.
Answer:

Question 6.
What is a Topographic Map?
Answer:
A map of a small area drawn on a large scale depicting detailed surface features both natural and man-made. Relief in this map is shown by contours.

Question 7.
Explain different types of settlements shown on a topographical sheet.
Answer:
Four types of rural settlements may be identified on the map
(a) Compact
(b) Scattered
(c) Linear
(d) Circular.

Urban settlements are distinguished as

• Cross-road town
• Nodal point
• Market centre
• Hill station
• Coastal resort centre
• Port
• Manufacturing centre with suburban villages or satellite towns
• Capital town
• Religious centre.

Question 8.
How is density of settlement related to food supply?
Answer:
Density of settlement is directly related to food supply.

Question 9.
What are linear settlements?
Answer:
Sometimes, village settlements form alignments, i.e. they are spread along a river valley, road, embankment, coastline – these are called linear settlements.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 5 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the features of contours?
Answer:
Some basic features of contour lines are:

• A contour line is drawn to show places of equal heights.
• Contour lines and their shapes represent the height and slope or gradient of the landform.
• Space between contour lines represents slope. Closely spaced contours represent steep slopes while widely spaced contours represent gentle slope.
• When two or more contour lines merge with each other, they represent features of vertical slopes such as cliffs or waterfalls.
• Two contours of different elevation usually do not cross each other.

Question 2.
Explain how do we interpret a topographical sheet?
Answer:
It is essential to have knowledge of map language and sense of direction are essential in reading and interpreting topo-sheets. We must first look for the northline and the scale of the map and orient ourselves accordingly. We must have a thorough knowledge of the legends / key given in the map depicting various features. All topo-sheets contain a table showing conventional signs and symbols used in the map. We must be acquainted with conventional symbols, signs and colours.

Question 3.
Under which heads is a topographical sheet interpreted? Explain each in short.
Answer:
A topographic sheet is usually interpreted under the following way:

• Marginal Information: It includes the topographical sheet number, its location, grid references, its extent in degrees and minutes, scale, the districts covered, etc.
• Relief of the Area: The general topography of the area is studied to identify different landforms along with peaks, ridges, spur and the general direction of the slope.
• Drainage of the Area: We also need to interpret the important rivers and their tributaries and the type and extent of valleys formed by them, the types of drainage pattern, i.e. dendritic, radial, ring, trellis, internal, etc.
• Land Use: It includes the use of land under different categories like Natural vegetation and forest which part of the area is forested, whether it is dense forest or thin, and the categories of the forest found there like Reserved, Protected, Classified / Unclassified.
• Transport and Communication: The means of transportation include national or state highways, districts roads, cart tracks, camel tracks, footpaths, railways, waterways, major communication lines, post offices, etc. topographical sheet presents each of these.
• Settlement: Settlements are studied under rural settlements and urban settlements.
• Occupation: The general occupation of the people of the area may be identified with the help of land use and the type of settlement.

Question 4.
What factors determine the site of settlements?
Answer:
Various factors determine the site of settlements like

• Source of water
• Provision of food
• Nature of relief
• Nature and character of occupation
• Defence.

Question 5.
Write a short note on map interpretation.
Answer:
Map interpretation involves the study of factors that explain the causal relationship among several features shown on the map. For example, the distribution of natural vegetation and cultivated land can be better understood against the background of landform and drainage. Likewise, the distribution of settlements can be examined in association with the levels of transport network system and the nature of topography.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 5 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the steps involved in drawing, a Cross-section from their contours in different topographical landforms.
Answer:
The following steps may be followed to draw cross-sections of various relief features from their contours:

• Draw a straight line cutting across the contours on the map and mark it as XY.
• Take a strip of white paper or graph and place its edge along the XY line.
• Mark the position and value of every contour that cuts the line XY.
• Choose a suitable vertical scale, e.g. V2 cm =100 metres, to draw horizontal lines parallel to each other and equal to the length of XY. The number of such lines should be equal or more than the total contour lines.
• Label the appropriate values corresponding to the contour values along the vertical of the cross-section. The numbering may be started with the lowest value represented by the contours.
• Place the edge of the marked paper along the horizontal line at the bottom line of the cross-section in such a way that XY of the paper corresponds to the XY of the map and mark the contour points.
• Draw perpendiculars from XY line, intersecting contour lines, to the corresponding line at the cross-section base.
• Smoothly join all the points marked on different lines at the cross-section base.

Question 2.
Under which heads are topographical maps explained?
Answer:
A topographic sheet is usually interpreted in the following way:

• Marginal Information: It includes the topographical sheet number, its location, grid references, its extent in degrees and minutes, scale, the districts covered, etc.
• Relief of the Area: The general topography of the area is studied to identify different landforms along with peaks, ridges, spur and the general direction of the slope. These features are studied under the following heads:
  • Hill: With concave, convex, steep or gentle slope and shape.
  • Plateau: Whether it is broad, narrow, flat, undulating or dissected.
  • Plain: Its types, i.e. alluvial, glacial, karst, poastal, marshy, etc.
  • Mountain: General elevation, peak, passes, etc.
• Drainage of the Area: We also need to interpret the important rivers and their tributaries and the type and extent of valleys formed by them, the types of drainage pattern, i.e. dendritic, radial, ring, trellis, internal, etc.
• Land Use: It includes the use of land under different categories like Natural vegetation and forest, which part of the area is forested, whether it is dense forest or thin, and the categories of forest found there like Reserved, Protected, Classified / Unclassified.
• Transport and Communication: The means of transportation include national or state highways, district roads, cart tracks, camel tracks, footpaths, railways, waterways, major communication lines, post offices, etc. topographical sheet presents each of these.
• Settlement: Settlements are studied under the following heads:
  • Rural Settlements: The types and patterns of rural settlements, i.e. compact, semi-compact, dispersed, linear, etc.
  • Urban Settlements: Type of urban settlements and their functions, i.e. capital cities, administrative towns, religious towns, port towns, hill stations, etc.
• Occupation: The general occupation of the people of the area may be identified with the help of land use and the type of settlement. For example, in rural areas the main occupation of majority of the people is agriculture; in tribal regions, lumbering and primitive agriculture dominates and in coastal areas, fishing is practised. Similarly, in cities and towns, services and business appear to be the major occupations of the people.

Question 3.
Explain about identification of cultural features from topographical sheets
Answer:
Settlements, buildings, roads and railways are important cultural features shown on topographical sheets through conventional signs, symbols and colours. The location and pattern of distribution of different features help in understanding the area shown on the map.
Types of Settlements: Four types of rural settlements may be identified on the map:

1. Compact
2. Scattered
3. Linear
4. Circular

Urban centres are distinguished as:

• Cross-road town
• Nodal point
• Market centre
• Hill station
• Coastal resort centre
• Port
• Manufacturing centre with suburban villages or satellite towns
• Capital town
• Religious centre

Site of settlements:
It should be closely examined with reference to the contour and drainage map. Density of settlement is directly related to food supply. Sometimes, village settlements form alignments, i.e. they are spread along a river valley, road, embankment, coastline – these are called linear settlements. In the case of an urban settlement, a cross-road town assumes a fan-shaped pattern, the houses being arranged along the roadside and the crossing being at the heart of the town and the main market place. In a nodal town, the roads radiate in all directions.

Transport and Communication Pattern:
Relief, population, size and resource development pattern of an area directly influence the means of transport and communication and their density. These are depicted through conventional signs and symbols. Means of transport and communication provide useful information about the area shown on the map.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 4 Viva Questions

Question 1.
What is the purpose of topographical maps?
Answer:
They serve the purpose of base maps and
are used to draw all the other maps.

Question 2.
Who prepares the topographical maps in India for the entire country?
Answer:
The Survey of India prepares the topographical maps in India for the entire country.

Question 3.
What are relief features of the earth? Answer: The elevation and depressions of the earth’s surface are known as physical features or relief features of the earth.

Question 4.
Name some of the methods used to depict relief features of the earth. Which of these are most common?
Answer:
A number of methods have been used to show the relief features of the Earth’s surface on maps, over the years. These methods include hachure, hill shading,
‘ layer tints, benchmarks and spot heights and contours. However, contours and spot heights are predominantly used to depict the relief of an area on all topographical maps.

Question 5.
Name the slope if contours show following features:

• Contours in this type of slope are widely spaced in the lower parts and are closely spaced in the upper parts.
• The contours are widely spaced in the upper parts and are closely spaced in the lower parts.
• The contours representing this type of slope are far apart.
• The contours are closely spaced Answer:
  • Concave Slope
  • Convex Slope
  • Gentle Slope
  • Steep Slope.

Topographical Maps Notes

• Topographical maps which are also known as general purpose maps, are drawn at relatively large scales. These maps show important natural and cultural features such as relief, vegetation, water bodies, cultivated land, settlements, and transportation networks, etc. They serve the purpose of base maps and are used to draw all the other maps.
• These maps are prepared and published by the National Mapping Organisation of each countiy. For example, the Survey of India prepares the topographical maps in India for the entire country.

• The topographical maps are drawn in the form of series of maps at different scales. Hence, in the given series, all maps employ the same reference point, scale, projection, conventional signs, symbols and colours.
• The topographical maps in India are prepared in two series, i.e. India and Adjacent Countries Series and The International Map Series of the World.
• Topographical maps under India and Adjacent Countries Series were prepared by the Survey of India till the coming into existence of Delhi Survey Conference in 1937. Henceforth, the preparation of maps for the adjoining countries was abandoned and the Survey of India confined itself to prepare and publish the topographical maps for India as per the specifications laid down for the International Map Series of the World.
• The topographical maps of India are prepared on 1 : 10,00,000, 1 : 250,000, 1 : 1,25,000, 1 : 50,000 and 1: 25,000 scale providing a latitudinal and longitudinal coverage of 4° x 4°, 1° x 1°, 30′ x 30′, 15′ x 15′ and 5′ x 7′ 30″, respectively.
• A number of methods have been used to show the relief features of the Earth’s surface on maps, over the years. These methods include hachure, hill shading, layer tints, benchmarks and spot heights and contours. However, contours and spot heights are predominantly used to depict the relief of an area on all topographical maps.
• The contour lines on a map provide a useful insight into the topography of an area. Earlier, ground surveys and levelling methods were used to draw contours on topographical maps. However, the invention of photography and subsequent use of aerial photography have replaced the conventional methods of surveying, levelling and mapping.
• The slopes can broadly be classified into gentle, steep, concave, convex and irregular or undulating. The contours of different types of slopes show a distinct spacing pattern.
• When two or more contour lines merge with each other, they represent features of vertical slopes such as cliffs or waterfalls. Two contours of different elevation usually do not cross each other.
• All the topographical features show varying degrees of slopes. For example, a flat plain exhibits gentler slope and the cliffs and gorges are associated with the steep slopes. Similarly,valleys and mountain ranges are also characterised by the varying degree of slopes, i.e. steep to gentle. Hence, the spacing of contours is significant since it indicates the slope.
• Settlements, buildings, roads and railways are important cultural features shown on topographical sheets through conventional signs, symbols and colours. The location and pattern of distribution of different features help in understanding the area shown on the map.

Important Terms

• Topographical Maps: These are also known as general purpose maps. These are drawn at relatively large scales. These maps show important natural and cultural features such as relief, vegetation, water bodies, cultivated land, settlements, and transportation networks, etc.
• Relief Maps: The earth’s surface is not uniform and it varies from mountains to hills to plateaus and plains. The elevation and depressions of the earth’s surface are known as physical features or relief features of the earth. The map showing these features is called a relief map.
• India and Adjacent Countries Series: Topographical maps under India and Adjacent Countries Series were prepared by the Survey of India till the coming into existence of Delhi Survey Conference in 1937. Henceforth, the preparation of maps for the adjoining countries was abandoned and the Survey of India confined itself to prepare and publish the topographical maps for India as per the specifications laid down for the International Map Series of the World.
• International Map Series of the World: Topographical Maps under International Map Series of the World are designed to produce standardised maps for the entire World on a scale of 1 : 10,00,000 and 1 : 250,000.
• Contours: These are imaginary lines joining all the points of equal elevation or altitude above mean sea level. They are also called “level lines”.
• Contour Map: A map showing the landform of an area by contours is called a contour map.
• Contour Interval: It is interval between two successive contours. It is also known as vertical interval, usually written as V. I. Generally, it is constant for a given map.
• Cross-section: A side view of the ground cut vertically along a straight line. It is also known as a section or profile.
• Hachures: Small straight lines drawn on the map along the direction of maximum slope, running across the contours. They give an idea about the differences in the slope of the ground.
• Gentle Slope: When the degree or angle of slope of a feature is very low, the slope will be gentle.
• Steep Slope: When the degree or angle of slope of a feature is high and the contours are closely spaced, they indicate steep slope.
• Concave Slope: A slope with a gentle gradient in the lower parts of a relief feature and steep in its upper parts is called the concave slope.
• Convex Slope: The convex slope is fairly gentle in the upper part and steep in the lower part. As a result, the contours are widely spaced in the upper parts and are closely spaced in the lower parts.
• Conical Hill: It rises almost uniformly from the surrounding land. A conical hill with uniform slope and narrow top is represented by concentric contours spaced almost at regular intervals.
• Plateau: A widely stretched flat-topped high land, with relatively steeper slopes, rising above the adjoining plain or sea is called a plateau.
• Valley: A geomorphic feature lying between two hills or ridges and formed as a result of the lateral erosion by a river or a glacier is called a valley.
• Spur: A tongue of land, projecting from higher ground into the lower is called a spur. It is also represented by V-shaped contours but in the reverse manner.
• Cliff: It is a very steep or almost perpendicular face of landform. On a map, a cliff may be identified by the way the contours run very close to one another, ultimately merging into one.
• Waterfall: A sudden and more or less perpendicular descent of water from a considerable height in the bed of a river is called a waterfall.
• Rapids: When a waterfall succeeds or precedes with a cascading stream, it forms rapids upstream or downstream of a waterfall.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Practical Work in Geography Class 11 Solutions Chapter 5 Topographical Maps appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NTSE Arunachal Pradesh: State council of educational research and training commonly known as SCERT, Itanagar has released the notification for the NTSE Arunachal Pradesh exam 2019-20. The NTSE exam will be conducted on November 3, 2019. NTSE Arunachal Pradesh exam is supposed to be conducted with students currently studying in class 10. The application process for the NTSE Exam will begin in the month of August and the results are expected to be released in April month next year.

NTSE which is a short form of national talent search exam is going to be conducted in two stages which are stage 1 and stage 2. The NTSE exam conducted in the stage is considered as the selection round for stage 2 exam. The candidates will be selected for NTSE Arunachal Pradesh 2019 exam will compete with each other on the basis of merit-based scholarships at 2nd stage of the NTSE exam. NTSE exam is expected to be conducted in June next year by the national council of educational research and training which is NCERT.

NTSE Arunachal Pradesh 2019 Exam Overview

NTSE Arunachal Pradesh 2019 Exam Dates

Stage 1 of the NTSE exam is going to be conducted by the respective states and union territories. While the stage 2 of the 2019-20 exam is going to be conducted by NCERT for class 10 students. The candidates that qualify the stage 1 exam are going to be eligible for the stage 2 exam conducted by NCERT, New Delhi.

Below are the important dates for NTSE AP exam 2019

NTSE Arunachal Pradesh 2019 Exam Eligibility

The students of class 10 that are in their current academic year can apply for NTSE stage 1 exam. Candidates should not be more than 18 years of age.

NTSE Arunachal Pradesh 2019 Exam Application Form

Application form for the NTSE AP exam will be available online for everyone to download by the second week of August 2019. Students can download this application form from the official NTSE AP website. Besides this, students can also collect the NTSE 2019 application form from their respective state liaison officer.

How To Apply for NTSE Arunachal Pradesh Exam 2019?

• Go to the NTSE AP official website and click on the link to download the application form.
• Take a copy of the application form after downloading it.
• There will be an admit card or hall ticket form for NTSE AP 2019 exam attached with the application form.
• Fill all the details that are required for the application form as well as admit card and get it signed by the candidate, head of the Institution, and candidate’s parents.
• The application forms filled should be submitted to the respective state liaison officer for the Arunachal Pradesh NTSE exam within the given deadline.
• Applicants can also download their hall ticket or admit card from the NTSE main website at least 21 days before the exam is conducted.

NTSE Arunachal Pradesh 2019 Exam Pattern

There are two parts to the stage 1 exam. Part 1 here is the mental ability test which is MAT, this carries 100 questions which are 1 mark each. Also, part 2 is the scholastic ability test which is the SAT and it also carries 100 questions worth 1 mark each. The time duration for both sections will be 120 minutes. For more details related to the exam pattern follow the table below:

NTSE Arunachal Pradesh Result 2019

Students that have applied for the stage 1 exam can expect their result to be out in the month of April, next year. This result will contain the CAT, MAT, and overall scores of the candidates. Along with this, NTSE AP 2019 results, there will be a merit list for candidates that are selected for stage 2 NTSE 2019 will also be made official.

NTSE Arunachal Pradesh 2019 Exam Sample Papers

Candidates are advised to prepare for the exam through sample papers in order to score well. NTSE 2019 Arunachal Pradesh sample papers will help students get familiar with the exam pattern, time duration, subject of the questions, etc. These sample papers available can be downloaded by everyone from the NTSE AP official website.

NTSE Arunachal Pradesh 2019 Scholarships and Awards

Students that are selected through NTSE AP 2019 can compete for the merit-based scholarships at the 2nd stage of the exam. Under the NTSE program, there are 2000 scholarships being distributed every year by the national conducting body which is NCERT.

The post NTSE Arunachal Pradesh 2019-20 for Class 10 | Exam Dates, Eligibility, Application Form appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 5 Popular Struggles and Movements

Very Short Answer Questions (VSA)

Question 1.
Give an example of a Public Interest group. (2011)
Answer:
Backward and Minorities Community Employees Federation (BAMCEF).

Question 2.
What was the main aim of the movement in Nepal in 2006? (2011)
Answer:
The main aim of the movement in Nepal was to re-establish democracy in Nepal.

Question 3.
What are sectional interest groups? Give an example. (2011)
Answer:
Organizations that undertake activities to promote the interests of specific social sections such as lawyers, teachers, workers, employees are called sectional interest groups.

Question 4.
Name the ‘Third World’ country that has won democracy in 1990. (2012)
Answer:
Nepal

Question 5.
Give a special feature that distinguishes a pressure group from a political party? (2012)
Answer:
Pressure groups do not seek to get into power whereas political parties do.

Question 6.
Which special feature distinguishes a movement from an interest group? (2012)
Answer:
Movements are usually issue specific to achieve a single objective within a limited time frame.

Question 7.
What gave rise to the struggle in Bolivia in 2000? (2012)
Answer:
In the year 2000, there was a popular struggle in Bolivia against privatization and subsequent increase in the price of water.

Question 8.
What is a pressure group? Give an example.
Answer:
Pressure groups are organizations that attempt to influence government policies. They could do so by forming an organization and undertaking activities to promote their interest or their viewpoint. These organizations are formed when people with common occupation, interest, aspirations or opinions come together in order to achieve a common objective.

A few examples are: BAMCEF (Backward and Minorities Community Employees’ Federation), FEDECOR—a Bolivian organization, RWAs, AITUC.

Question 9.
Give two dissimilarities of popular struggles in Nepal and Bolivia? (2013)
Answer:

1. The movement in Nepal was to establish democracy. The struggle in Bolivia involved claims on an elected, democratic government.
2. The struggle in Nepal was about the foundation of the country’s politics. The struggle in Bolivia was about one specific policy.

Question 10.
Which financial agency pressurized the government of Bolivia to give an MNC, control over the water supply arrangements in the city of Cochabamba? (2013)
Answer:
Bank of Cochabamba.

Question 11.
Give one characteristic feature of a sectional interest group. (2014)
Answer:
Sectional interest groups are organisational that undertake activities to promote the interests of specific social sections such as workers, employees, teachers and lawyers change, etc.

Question 12.
With the help of an example each compare a single issue movement and a long-term movement? (2014)
Answer:

• Single issue movements are those which seek to achieve a single objective within a limited time period. Example, Narmada Bachao Andolan.
• Long term movements are those which seek to achieve a long goal in a very long term, e.g., environmental movements, etc.

Question 13.
With the help of an example each, compare sectional interest groups and public interest groups. (2014)
Answer:
Sectional interest group. They seek to promote the interest of a particular section or group of society. They promote selective good and are concerned only about the interest of their section of the society, their own members and not the society in general. For example, FEDECOR.

Public interest group. They seek to promote collective interests rather than selective good. They promote collective good and are concerned with welfare of the society and not just their own members. For example, BAMCEF.

Question 14.
Who dissolved the popularly elected parliament in February 2005 in Nepal? (2015)
Answer:
King Gyanendra, the new king dismissed the Prime Minister and dissolved the popularly elected Parliament.

Question 15.
What was the main role of ‘FEDECOR’ organisation in Bolivia? (2015)
Answer:
The main role of FEDECOR involved claims over an elected government to protest against its policy of water privatization.

Question 16.
What was the main aim of the popular movement of April 2006, in Nepal? (2015)
Answer:
Aim of popular movement of April 2006 in Nepal:

1. Restoring democracy.
2. Regaining popular control over the government from the King.

Question 17.
How are issue specific movements different from generic movements? (2016)
Answer:
Issue specific movements seek to achieve a single objective within limited time frame.
General generic movements seek to achieve a broad goal in the very long term.

Question 18.
Which organisation led the protest against water privatisation in Bolivia? (2016)
Answer:
The protest against water privatisation in Bolivia was led by FEDECOR.

Question 19.
Name any two sectional interest groups. (2016)
Answer:
Trade Unions and Professional bodies like lawyers, teachers, etc.

Question 20.
Distinguish between pressure groups and political parties by stating any one point of distinction. (2016)
Answer:
Pressure groups do not aim to directly control or share political power but political parties directly control and share political power.

Short Answer Questions (SA)

Question 21.
Explain with examples the two types of political movements. (2011)
Answer:
The movement in Nepal and movement in Bolivia are examples of two types of political movements for democracy.
The movement in Nepal was to regain popular control over the government from the King. This was a struggle to restore democracy. The movement in Bolivia was against a specific policy of the elected democratic government. The people of Bolivia agitated and protested against the government’s decision of privatization of water.

Both these movements are instances of political conflicts that led to popular struggles. Even though in both cases public demonstration of mass support clinched the dispute, their level of impact was different.

Question 22.
What inspiration do we get from Bolivia’s popular struggle? Explain any three values that we can learn from it. (2014)
Answer:
We can identify the following values in Bolivia’s struggle:

1. It was a conflict between the people and the government to fight for justice and fairness and to fight against the greed of the government.
2. The Bolivian organization FEDECOR represented the common or general interest. The members of the organization did not necessarily benefit from the cause that the organization represented. They were fighting for collective social good.
3. The political conflict that led to popular struggle in Bolivia involved mass mobilization. It showed the power of the common people.

Question 23.
Mention any three similarities between struggles of Nepal and Bolivia. (2012)
Answer:
The struggle in both these countries relates to establishing and restoring democracy. The success of peoples’ struggle is a reminder that popular struggles are integral to the working of democracy. The democratic struggle in Nepal and Bolivia share some elements:

• The popular struggle in the form of protest turned into indefinite strike.
• Struggle involved mass mobilization.
• Political conflict led to popular struggle.
• Political organization played a critical role.

Question 24.
Explain with examples, how movements are different from interest groups. (2013)
Answer:
Movements:

1. Movements have a loose organization.
2. Movements are issue specific and long-term involving more than one issue.
3. Their decision-making is more informal and flexible.
4. They depend much on spontaneous mass participation.
   Example: Narmada Bachao Andolan under Medha Patkar.

Interest groups:

1. Interest groups form organizations and undertake activities to promote their interests.
2. Interests groups are both sectional and public. Sectional interest groups promote interest of particular section of society and promotional or public interest groups aim to help groups other than their own members.
3. They promote collective good and are concerned with welfare of the society and not just their own members.
   Example: BAMCEF (Backward and Minorities Community Employee Federation).

Question 25.
Describe the movement for democracy in Nepal. (2011)
Answer:
The Nepalese for democracy arose with the specific objective of reversing the king’s order that led to suspension of democracy. The popular struggle in Nepal involved many organizations other than political parties like the SPA or the Nepalese Communist Party. All the major labour unions and their federations joined the movement. Many other organizations of the indigenous people, teachers, lawyers and human rights groups extended support to the movement.

Question 26.
Differentiate between sectional interest groups and public interest groups with examples.
Answer:

Question 27.
Explain how the relationship between political parties and pressure groups can take different forms? (2011)
Answer:
The relationship between political parties and pressure groups can take different forms, some direct and others very indirect.
In some instances the pressure groups are either formed or led by the leaders of political parties or act as extended arms of political parties. For example, most trade unions and students’ organizations in India are either established by or affiliated to one or the other major political party.

Sometimes political parties grow out of movements. For example, the Assam Movement led by students against the ‘foreigners’ led to the formation of the Asom Gana Parishad. The roots of parties like the DMK and the AIADMK in Tamil Nadu can be traced to social reform movement during the 1930s and 1940s. When the relationship between parties and interest groups is not so direct they often take positions opposed to each other. Yet they are in dialogue and negotiation. New issues raised by movements have been taken up by political parties.

Question 28.
“The struggle of the Nepali people is a source of inspiration to democrats all over the world.” Support the statement. (2015)
Answer:

1. The Nepalese movement for democracy arose with the specific objective of reversing the king’s order that led to suspension of democracy.
2. The movement of 2006 was aimed at regaining popular control over the government from the king.
3. The popular struggle in Nepal involved many organisations other than political parties like the SPA or the Nepalese Communist Party.
4. All major political parties in the Parliament formed a Seven Party Alliance (SPA) and called a four day strike in Kathmandu. This strike turned into an indefinite strike in which the Maoists and other insurgent groups joined hands.
5. All the major labour unions and their federations joined the movement. Many other organisations of the indigenous people, teachers, lawyers and human rights groups extended support to the movement.
6. The movement put forward three demands:
   • Restoration of Parliament
   • Power to an all-party government
   • A new Constituent Assembly.
7. The number of protesters reached between three to five lakhs. They stuck to their demands and the king was forced to concede to all three demands. On 24th April, the SPA chose Girija Prasad Koirala as the new Prime Minister of the interim government.

Question 29.
What are sectional interest groups? Describe their functioning. (2016)
Answer:
Sectional interest groups are the groups that seek to promote the interests of a particular section or a group of society. For example, FEDECOR (Bolivian organisation).
Functioning:

• They perform a meaningful role in countering the undue influence of other groups.
• They create awareness about the needs and concerns of their own society.

Question 30.
What is the difference between pressure group and a political party ?
Answer:

Question 31.
What are public interest pressure groups? Describe their functioning. (2016)
Answer:
Public Interest Groups are those that promote collective rather than selective interests. Their functioning is as follows:

1. It aims to help groups other than their own members.
2. They represent some common interest that needs to be defended.
3. The members of the organization may not benefit from the cause that the organization represents. For example, a group fighting against bonded labour fights not for itself but for those who are suffering under such bondage. E.g., BAMCEF.

Question 32.
What was common to the democratic struggles in Poland, Nepal and Bolivia?
Answer:
The struggles in all the three countries relate to establishing and restoring democracy. The success of peoples’ struggle is a reminder that popular struggles are integral to the working of democracy.
The democratic struggle in Poland, Nepal and Bolivia share some elements:

• The popular struggle in the form of protest turned into indefinite strike.
• Struggle involved mass mobilisation.
• Political conflict led to popular struggle.
• Political organisations played a critical role.

Long Answer Questions (LA)

Question 33.
Explain how the activities of pressure groups are useful in the functioning of a democratic government.
Answer:
Pressure groups and movements have deepened democracy. A democracy must look after the interest of all, not just one section. Putting pressure on the government is a healthy activity in a democracy so long as everyone gets this opportunity. Public interest groups or pressure groups perform a useful role of countering the undue influence of the rich and powerful people on the government and reminding the government of the needs and concerns of ordinary citizens.

Where different groups function actively, no single group can achieve dominance over society. The government listens to what different sections of the population want. These activities of pressure groups lead to a rough balance of power and accommodation of conflicting interests in a democracy. In a democracy, conflict is resolved through mass mobilisation and it is these pressure groups who make spontaneous public participation effective.

Question 34.
The movement in Nepal and the struggle in Bolivia have some elements relevant to the study of democracy. Explain these elements. (2011)
Answer:
The movement in Nepal was to establish democracy, while the struggle in Bolivia involved claims on an elected democratic government. Despite the differences, both these struggles share some elements relevant to study of democracies.
(i) Both these are instances of political conflict that led to popular struggles. The Nepalese movement arose with the specific objective of reversing the King’s order that led to the dismissal of the Prime Minister and the dissolution of the popularly elected Parliament.
In Bolivia, the struggle was against the privatization and increase in prices of water after the government sold these rights to an MNC.

(ii) In both cases, the struggle involved mass mobilization. The popular struggle in the form of a protest turned into an indefinite strike. In Nepal, all major political parties in Parliament formed a Seven Party Alliance and called a four-day strike which turned into an indefinite strike in which the Maoists and insurgent groups joined hands.

In the Bolivian struggle against privatization of water, an alliance of labour human rights and community leaders organized a successful four-day general strike.

Question 35.
How do pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics? Explain with examples. (2012; 2013; 2015)
Or
“Pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics in different ways.” Support the statement with suitable examples. (2016)
Answer:
Interest groups and movements do not directly engage in party politics but they seek to exert influence on political parties. They have a political position on major issues and take political stance without being a party.
Pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics in the following ways:

1. They try to gain public support and sympathy for their goals through campaigns, organising meetings, filing petitions and influencing the media for attention.
2. They organise protest activities like strikes, in order to force the government to take note of their demand.
3. Business groups employ professionals/lobbyists or sponsor expensive advertisements. Some members from pressure groups participate in official bodies that offer advice to the government.
4. In some cases the pressure groups are either formed or led by the leaders of political parties or act as extended arms of political parties.
   For example, most trade unions and students’ organisations such as NSUI, ABVP in India are either established or affiliated to one or the other major political party.
5. Sometimes political parties grow out of movements.
   For example, the roots of parties like the DMK and the AIADMK in Tamil Nadu can be traced to a long drawn social reform movement during the 1930s and 1940s.

Question 36.
“The democracy has been evolved through struggles and movements all over the world.” Support the statement with examples. (2015)
Answer:

1. Democracy has evolved through struggles and movements all over the world. The struggles in Poland, Nepal and Bolivia all relate to establishing and restoring democracy. The struggled in these countries is a reminder that popular struggles are integral to the working of democracy.
2. The role of popular struggle does not come to an end with the establishment of democracy. Democracy involves conflict of interests and viewpoints. These views are expressed in organised ways through which ordinary citizens can play a role in democracy.
3. In a democracy, several different kinds of organisations work behind any big struggle. These organisations influence the decisions in a democracy either by creating parties, contesting elections and forming government. They promote the interest and viewpoints of citizens in a democracy through interest groups or pressure groups.
4. Democracy evolves through popular struggle. Some major decisions may take place through consensus. But some decisions involve conflict between the groups who have exercised power and those who aspire to share power. Here the popular struggle helps in the expansion of democracy.

Question 37.
What is the difference between movements and interest groups?
Answer:
Difference between Movements and Interest groups

Question 38.
Describe the popular struggle ‘against privatization of water’ in Bolivia. (2012)
Or
Describe the popular struggle of Bolivia. (2016)
Answer:
Bolivia, a poor country in Latin America, witnessed popular struggle against privatization of water:

1. The World Bank had pressurised the elected democratic government to give up its control of
   municipal water supply. The government sold these rights for the city of Cochambamba to a multinational company (MNC).
2. The MNC immediately increased the price of water by four times. This led to a spontaneous popular protest. The mass struggle was not led by any political party.
3. A new alliance of labour human rights and community leaders organized a successful four-day general strike in the city in January 2000.
4. Ultimately the government agreed to negotiate and the strike was called off. But yet nothing happened.
5. Later on, an organization comprising local professionals, engineers, environmentalists, farmers, confederation of factory workers union, middle class students and street children formed the FEDECOR. They called another strike in April and the government imposed martial law.
6. But the power of the people forced the officials of the MNC to free the city and made the government concede to the demands of the protesters.
7. Lastly, the contract with the MNC was cancelled and water supply was restored to the municipality at old rates. This came to be known as ‘Bolivia’s Water War’.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions

The post Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 5 Popular Struggles and Movements appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Chapter Wise Important Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers and Solutions Pdf free download was designed by expert teachers from latest edition of NCERT books to get good marks in board exams. Here we have given CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Important Questions With Answers Chapter Wise State Board.

Important Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter Wise State Board

1. The Solid State Class 12 Important Questions
2. Solutions Class 12 Important Questions
3. Electrochemistry Class 12 Important Questions
4. Chemical Kinetics Class 12 Important Questions
5. Surface Chemistry Class 12 Important Questions
6. General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Class 12 Important Questions
7. The p-Block Elements Class 12 Important Questions
8. The d- and f-Block Elements Class 12 Important Questions
9. Coordination Compounds Class 12 Important Questions
10. Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Class 12 Important Questions
11. Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Class 12 Important Questions
12. Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Class 12 Important Questions
13. Amines: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Class 12 Important Questions
14. Biomolecules Class 12 Important Questions
15. Polymers Class 12 Important Questions
16. Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 12 Important Questions

The post Important Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers Chapter Wise appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 6 Political Parties

Question 1.
What is meant by a political party? (2015 D, 2015 OD)
Answer:
Political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and to hold power in the government. They agree on some policies to promote collective good. They seek to implement those policies by winning popular support through elections. Thus political parties tend to fill political offices and exercise political power.

Question 2.
What are the three main components of a political party? (2011 OD)
Answer:

1. The leaders;
2. The active members; and
3. The followers

Question 3.
How many parties are needed in any democratic system to compete in elections and provide a fair chance for the competing parties to come to power? (2012 D)
Answer:
At least two parties.

Question 4.
What is the source of inspiration of the ‘Bhartiya Janata Party’? (2012 OD)
Answer:
The source of inspiration of the Bhartiya Janata Party or the BJP is ancient Indian culture and values.

Question 5.
In which state does ‘Biju Janata Dal’ exist as a regional party? (2012 OD)
Answer:
Odisha (Orissa)

Question 6.
In which state does the ‘Rashtriya Lok Dal’ exist as a regional party? (2012 OD)
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh

Question 7.
What is a recognised political party? (2011 D)
Answer:
A recognised political party is a party, recognised by the ‘Election Commission’ with all the privileges and facilities.

Question 8.
What does Universal Adult Suffrage stand for? (2013 OD)
Answer:
Universal Adult suffrage stands for the ‘Right to Vote’.

Question 9.
Given one point of difference between a pressure group and a political party. (2013 OD)
Answer:
A pressure group is an organized or unorganized body that seeks to promote its interests while a political party is a body that seeks to attain political power by contesting elections.

Question 10.
Which special privilege is given to recognised political parties by the Election Commission? (2014 D)
Answer:
RPP are given a special election symbol. Only official candidates of that party can use the election symbol.

Question 11.
Name the national political party which draws inspiration from the teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Naicker and Babasaheb Ambedkar. (2014 OD)
Answer:
Bahujan Samaj Party.

Question 13.
Name any two regional parties of West Bengal. (2015 D)
Answer:

1. Forward BLOCK (1940),
2. TRINAMOOL CONGRESS (1997).

Question 14.
What is the guiding philosophy of Bhartiya Janata Party? (2015 OD)
Answer:
The source of inspiration of Bharatiya Janata Party is the ancient Indian culture and values. Cultural nationalism (Hindutva) is an important element in its conception of Indian nationhood and politics.

Question 15.
Name any one political party that has national level political organisation but not recognised as a national political party. (2016 D)
Answer:
State parties like the Samajwadi Party, Samata Party and Rashtriya Janata Dal have national level political organisations with units in several states but are not recognised as national parties.

Question 16.
Why did India adopt multi-party system? Give reasons. (2016 OD, 2013 D)
Answer:
India adopted multi-party system because:

• India is a large country and has social and geographical diversities.
• It is easy to absorb different diversities in a multi-party system.

Question 17.
Why do political parties involve partisanship? (2016 OD)
Answer:
Partisanship is marked by a tendency to take a side and inability to take a balanced view on an issue. Parties reflect fundamental political divisions in a society. Parties are a part of the society and they involve partisanship.

Question 18.
Mention the ideology of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
Under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru, the Indian National Congress sought to build a modern secular democratic republic in India. The party propagates secularism and welfare of the weaker sections and minorities of society. It supports new economic reforms but with a human face.

Question 19.
Name any one political party of India which grew out of a movement. (2017 OD)
Answer:
Asom Gana Parishad.

Short Answer Questions (SA) 3 Marks

Question 20.
Name the national political party which gets inspiration from India’s ancient culture and values. Mention four features of that party. (2013 D)
Answer:
Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) founded in 1980 draws inspiration from India’s ancient culture and values.
Features:

1. Cultural Nationalism (Hindutva) is an important element in its conception of Indian nationhood and politics.
2. Wants full territorial and political integration of Jammu and Kashmir with India.
3. A uniform civil code for all people living in the country irrespective of religion and ban on religious conversions.
4. Earlier limited to north and west and to urban areas, the party expanded support in the south, east, the north-east and rural areas.

Question 21.
“No party system is ideal for all countries and in all situations.” Justify the statement with five arguments. (2013 0D)
Answer:
Parties are a necessary condition for a democracy. The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies. Party system is not something any country can choose. It evolves depending on the nature of society, its social and regional divisions, its history of politics and system of elections.

Each country develops a party system that is conditioned by its special circumstances.

For example, India has evolved a multi-party system, because of its social and geographical diversity which cannot be easily absorbed by two or three parties.
Political parties make policies to promote collective good and there can be different views on what is good for all. Therefore no system is ideal for all countries and situations.

Question 22.
Describe the three components of a political party. (2014 D, 2015 OD)
Answer:
Components of a political party are:

1. The leaders,
2. active members and
3. the followers.
   • The leaders are recruited and trained by parties. They are made ministers to run the government. The big policy decisions are taken by the political executives that come from the political parties.
   • Parties have lakhs of members and activists spread over the country. Many of the pressure groups are the extensions of political parties among different sections of society. But since most of the members belong to a party, they go by the direction of the party leadership, irrespective of their personal opinion.
   • The followers are the ordinary citizens, who believe in the policies of their respective party and give popular support through elections. Often the opinion of the followers crystallise on the lines parties take.

Question 23.
What is a multi-party system? Why has India adopted a multi-party system? Explain. (2015 D)
Or
How has multi-party system strengthened democracy in India? (2012 D)
Answer:
Multi-party system. In this system, the government is formed by various parties coming together in a coalition. When several parties in a multi-party system join hands for the purpose of contesting elections and winning power, it is called an alliance or a front.

For example, in India there were three major alliances in 2004 parliamentary elections—the National Democratic Alliance (NDA), the United Progressive Alliance (UPA) and the Left Front. This system on one hand leads to political instability but at the same time, allows for a variety of interests and opinions to enjoy political representation.

Each country develops a party system that is suitable for its special circumstances. India has evolved as a multi-party system because its social and geographical diversity cannot be absorbed by two or three parties. Thus, such representation strengthens democracy. Multi-party system facilitates representation of regional and geographical diversities. In India, several regional parties are in power at the State level such as the DMK in Tamil Nadu, Akali Dal in Punjab the BSP in Uttar Pradesh.

Question 24.
“Lack of internal democracy within parties is the major challenge to political parties all over the world”. Analyse the statement. (2015 D)
Answer:

1. Most political parties do not practise open and transparent procedures for their functioning like maintaining membership registers, holding organisational meetings or conducting internal elections regularly. Thus, ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on the happenings in the party and have no means to influence the decisions.
2. Also, there are very few chances for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party. Since one or, at the most, a few leaders exercise paramount power in the party, those who disagree with the leadership, find it difficult to continue in the party.
3. Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position to take undue advantage and favour people close to them or even their family members. And, in many parties, the top positions are invariably controlled by members of one family which is bad for democracy.

Question 25.
“Dynastic succession is one of the most serious challenges before the political parties.” Analyse the statement. (2015 OD)
Answer:
Most political parties do not practise open and transparent procedures for their functioning. So there are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party. Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position of unfair advantage as they favour people close to them or even their family members. In many parties in India, we see a trend of dynastic succession. The top positions are always controlled by members of a particular family, which is unfair to other members of the party, and bad for democracy. This is so because people who do not have adequate experience or popular support come to occupy positions of power.

More than loyalty to party principles and policies, personal loyalty to the leader becomes more important. This tendency is seen all over the world, even in older democracies.

Question 26.
What is meant by a ‘national political party’? State the conditions required to be a national political party. (2016 D)
Answer:
National political parties have their units in various states. By and large all these units follow the same policies, programmes and strategy that is decided at the national level.
Conditions required to be a national political party:

• A party that secures at least 6% of the total votes in general elections of Lok Sabha or assembly elections in four states.
• A party that wins at least 4 seats in the Lok Sabha.

Question 27.
What is meant by regional political party? State the conditions required to be recognised as a ‘regional political party’. (2016 OD)
Answer:
A regional party is a party that is present in only some states. Regional parties or State parties need not be regional in their ideology. They have state identity as they are present only in some states. Some of these parties are all India parties that happen to have succeeded only in states. Example, Samajwadi Party, Rashtriya Janta Dal.
Conditions required for a party to be recognized as a regional political party:

• A party that secures atleast six percent of the total votes in an election to the legislative assembly of a state.
• Wins atleast two seats in the legislative assembly.

Question 28.
“Nearly every one of the state parties wants to get an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national level coalition.” Support the statement with arguments. (2016 D)
Answer:
The state parties also referred to as regional parties are not necessarily regional in ideology. Some of these parties are all India parties that happen to have succeeded only in some states. Over the last three decades, the number and strength of these parties has expanded. Before the general elections one national party was able to secure on its own a majority in the Lok Sabha.

As a result, the national parties were compelled to form alliances with state parties.

Since 1996, nearly every one of the state parties got an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national level coalition government. This contributed to the strengthening of federalism and democracy. Example of state parties having national level political organisation with units in several states are Samajwadi Party (SP), Rashtriya Janata Dal, Samata Party.

Question 29.
Analyse the three components of a political party. (2016 OD)
Answer:
The three components of a political party are as follows:

• The leaders. A political party consists of leaders, who contest elections and if they win the elections, they perform the administrative jobs.
• The active members. They are the ones who work actively for the party. They are the assistants of the leaders and implement the plans and ideologies of the political party.
• The followers. They are the ardent followers of the parties and their leaders and support them in the elections.

Long Answer Questions (LA)

Question 30.
Explain any five suggestions to reform political parties in India. (2011 D)
Or
Suggest and explain any five effective measures to reform political parties. (2016 OD, 2015 OD)
Answer:
Five suggestions made to reform the political parties:

1. Law to regulate the internal affairs of political parties like maintaining a register of its members, to follow its own constitution, to have independent authority, to act as judge in case of party dispute, to hold open elections to the highest post.
2. It should be mandatory for political parties to give one-third tickets to women candidates. Also there should be quota for women on the decision-making bodies of the party.
3. There should be state funding of elections. The government should give money to parties to support their election expenses in kind (petrol, paper, telephone, etc.) or in cash on the basis of votes secured by the party in the previous election.
4. The candidate should be educated, so that he can solve and understand people’s problems. His previous record should be cleared. He should be honest and there should be no criminal case against him.
5. Citizens can reform politics if they take part directly and join political parties. People can put pressure on political parties through petitions, publicity in media, agitations etc.

Question 31.
Explain the growing role of money and muscle power in political parties. (2011 OD)
Or
How do money and muscle power play an important role in elections? (2015 OD)
Answer:
Political parties need to face and overcome the growing challenge of Money and Muscle power during elections in order to remain effective instruments of democracy.

Since parties are focussed only on winning elections, they tend to use shortcuts to win elections, for example, like booth-rigging, distribution of food, money, alcohol, etc. to the poor voters to get their votes. Political parties tend to nominate those candidates who have or can raise lots of money. Rich people and companies who give funds to the parties tend to have influence on the policies and decisions of the party. These days, parties are supporting criminals who can win elections. This is a major cause of concern to the democrats all over the world who are worried about the increasing role of rich people and big companies in democratic politics.

Question 32.
Why do we need political parties? Explain. (2014 D)
Or
Describe any five major functions performed by political parties. (2015 D)
Answer:
To fill political offices and exercise political power, political parties are needed to perform a series of functions, which are the following:

1. Parties contest elections. Elections are fought mainly among candidates put up by political parties.
   In India, top party leaders choose candidates for contesting elections.
2. Parties put forward different policies and programmes. Political parties in a democracy group together similar opinions, to provide a direction in which government policies can be formulated,
3. Parties make laws for a country. Laws are debated and passed in the legislature.
4. Parties that lose elections play the role of the opposition. Opposition parties voice their views by criticizing government for its failure or wrong policies.
5. Parties shape public opinion. They raise and highlight issues and resolve people’s problems. Many pressure groups are the extensions of political parties.
6. Parties provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemes. For an ordinary citizen it is easy to approach a local party leader than a government officer.

Question 33.
Examine the role of opposition parties in a Democracy. (2014 OD)
Answer:
Opposition parties play an important role in democracies. They play both positive and negative role. Positive role,

1. They ensures political party in power does not misuse or abuse its power;
2. They expose the weaknesses of the ruling party;
3. They also keep a close vigil on the bills and expenditure of the government.

Negative role.

• They target the government and aim at dislodging and discrediting the government for all the ills and the troubles the people face;
• Through stalling the proceedings of the parliament, dhamas and gheravs, it curtails the progress of the country.
  The opposition’s work is not to abstract the functioning of the administration but keep a close watch on the working of the party in power so that democracy becomes meaningful.

Question 34.
“About hundred years ago there were few countries that had hardly any political party. Now there are few countries that do not have political parties.” Examine this statement. (2014 OD)
Answer:
We can understand the necessity of political parties by imagining a situation without parties. Every candidate in the election will be independent. Therefore, no major policy changes will be made. Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency but no one will be responsible for the smooth running of the country. As societies become large and complex, they need an agency to gather views on various issues and to present them to the government. There is a need to bring various representatives together so that a responsible government can be formed.

A mechanism is needed to support or restrain the government to make policies, justify or oppose them. Political parties fulfil the needs of a representative government and are thus a necessary condition for a democracy.

Question 35.
“All over the world, people express their dissatisfaction with the failure of political parties to perform their functions well.” Analyse the statement with arguments. (2016 D)
Or, Which three challenges do you feel are being faced by political parties in India? Give your opinion. (2016 OD)
Or, Identify and explain challenges which political parties need to face and over come in order to remain affective instruments of democracy. (2016 OD)
Answer:
Since parties are the most visible face in a democracy, people blame them for whatever is wrong with the working of democracy.
There are four major areas where the working of political parties faces challenge:
(i) Lack of internal democracy. There is concentration of power in one or a few leaders at the top. Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings and do not conduct internal elections regularly. More than loyalty to party principles and policies, it is personal loyalty which becomes more important. The leaders assume greater power to make decisions in the name of the party. Since one or few leaders exercise paramount power in the party, those who disagree with leadership find it difficult to continue in the party.

(ii) Dynastic succession. In many parties, top positions are always held by members of one family. Most political parties do not practice transparent and open procedures for their functioning and it is very difficult for an ordinary worker to rise to the top. This is bad for democracy, since people who do not have adequate experience or popular support come to occupy positions of power.

(iii) Money and muscle power. Since parties are focussed only on winning elections, they tend to use short-cuts to win elections. They nominate candidates who have or can raise money and thus are able to have influence on the policies and decisions of the party.

(iv) No meaningful choice. There has been a decline in the ideological differences among parties. They agree more on fundamental aspects, but differ only in details, on how policies are to be framed and implemented. Sometimes people cannot even elect different leaders as the same set of leaders keep shifting from one party to another.

Question 36.
“Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy”. Analyse the statement with examples.
Answer:
“Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy” in the following ways:

1. Without political parties democracies cannot exist. If we do not have political parties, every candidate in elections will be independent.
2. No one will be able to make any promises to the people about any major policy changes.
3. The government may be formed but its utility will remain uncertain.
4. Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency, for what they do in their locality but no one will be responsible for how the country will run.
5. As societies become large and complex they also needed some agencies to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government, that’s why political parties are needed.

Question 37.
Describe any five efforts made to reform political parties in India. (2017 D)
Answer:
Five efforts made to reform the political parties:

1. Law to regulate the internal affairs of political parties like maintaining a register of its members, to follow its own constitution, to have independent authority, to act as judge in case of party dispute, to hold open elections to the highest post.
2. It should be mandatory for political parties to give one-third tickets to women candidates. Also there should be quota for women on the decision-making bodies of the party.
3. There should be state funding of elections. The government should give money to parties to support their election expenses in kind (petrol, paper, telephone, etc.) or in cash on the basis of votes secured by the party in the previous election.
4. The candidate should be educated, so that he can solve and understand people’s problems. His previous record should be cleared. He should be honest and there should be no criminal case against him.
5. Citizens can reform politics if they take part directly and join political parties. People can put pressure on political parties through petitions, publicity in media, agitations etc.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions

The post Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 6 Political Parties appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 1 Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition

Class 12 Geography Chapter 1 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answers of the followings from the given options:

Question 1.(i)
India’s population as per 2001 census is:
(a) 1028 million
(b) 3182 million
(c) 3287 million
(d) 20 million
Answer:
(a) 1028 million

Question 1.(ii)
Which one of the following states has the highest density of population in India?
(a) Bihar
(b) Kerala
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Punjab
Answer:
(a) Bihar

Question 1.(iii)
Which one of the following states has the highest proportion of urban population in India according to 2001 Census?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Kerala
(d) Gujarat
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

Question 1.(iv)
Which one of the following is the largest linguistic group of India?
(a) Sino – Tibetan
(b) Indo – Aryan
(c) Austric
(d) Dravidian
Answer:
(b) Indo – Aryan

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
Very hot and dry and very cold and wet regions of India have low density of population. In this light, explain the role of climate on the distribution of population.
Answer:
People tend to concentrate in areas with moderate climatic conditions, that is areas that are neither too hot nor too dry and also with adequate precipitation to support life activities. The extremities of climate tend to push people away from the region and make the region less attractive for human inhabitation. In India western Rajasthan, which is characterized by high temperatures and dry conditions, is one of the least inhabited regions. The population density tends to be high in Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar etc. because these regions have moderate temperature conditions with adequate precipitation therefore making the region conducive for population concentration.

Question 2.(ii)
Which states have large rural population in India? Give one reason for such large rural population.
Answer:
States of Himachal Pradesh, Odisha, U.P., Bihar and Sikkim have very high percentage of rural population. The reason for high rural population is that these areas are the ones with low level of economic, social development and hence low level of infrastructural development, which tend to inhibit the process of urbanization. Also with sluggish growth people tend to be concentrated in the field of primary activities therefore.

Question 2.(iii)
Why do some states of India have higher rates of work participation than others?
Answer:
Work participation rate is the number of people engaged in economic activities. Some states of India like Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh etc. tend to have higher work participation rate. The work participation rate tends to be higher in the areas of lower levels of economic development since number of manual workers are needed to perform the subsistence or near subsistence economic activities in the absence of other opportunities.

Question 2.(iv)
The agricultural sector has the largest share of Indian workers.’ – Explain.
Answer:
The occupational composition of India’s population shows a large proportion of primary sector workers compared to secondary and tertiary sectors. In India about 58.2 per cent of total working population are cultivators and agricultural labourers, whereas only 4.2% of workers are engaged in household industries and 37.6 % are other workers including non-household industries, trade, commerce, construction and repair and other services. India is an agricultural country with maximum population engaged in it as job opportunities in the other sectors are limited due to low rate of infrastructural development. Workers are declining over the last few decades from 66.85% in 1991 to 58% in 2001 leading to rise in share of tertiary sector.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
Discuss the spatial pattern of density of population in India.
Answer:
India has a highly uneven pattern of population distribution. U.P., Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh along with Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Karnataka and Gujarat, together account for about 76 per cent of the total population of the country. On the other hand, share of population is very small in the states like Jammu & Kashmir (0.98%), Arunachai Pradesh (0.11%) and Uttaranchal (0.83%) inspite of these states having fairly large geographical area. The density of population in India (2011) is 382 persons per sq km and ranks third among the most densely populated countries of Asia.

Such an uneven spatial distribution of population in India suggests a close relationship between population and physical, socio-economic and historical factors. As far as the physical factors are concerned, it is clear that climate along with terrain and availability of water largely determines the pattern of the population distribution. Consequently, we observe that the North Indian Plains, deltas and Coastal Plains have higher proportion of population than the interior districts of southern and central Indian States, Himalayas, some of the north eastern and the western states. However, development of irrigation (Rajasthan), availability of mineral and energy resources (Jharkhand) and development of transport network (Peninsular States) have resulted in moderate to high concentration of population in are.as which were previously very thinly populated.

Among the socio-economic and historical factors of distribution of population, important ones are evolution of settled agriculture and agricultural development; pattern of human settlement; development of transport network, industrialisation and urbanisation. It is observed that the regions falling in the river plains and coastal areas of India have remained the regions of larger population concentration. Even though the uses of natural resources like land and water in these regions have shown the sign of degradation, the concentration of population remains high because of an early history of human settlement and development of transport network. On the other hand, the urban regions of Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Bangalore, Pune, Ahmedabad, Chennai and Jaipur have high concentration of population due to industrial development and urbanisation drawing a large numbers of rural-urban migrants.

Question 3.(ii)
Give an account of the occupational structure of India’s population.
Answer:
The population of India according to their economic status is divided into three groups, namely; main workers, marginal workers and non-workers. It is observed that in India, the proportion of workers (both main and marginal) is only 39 per cent (2001) leaving a vast majority of 61 per cent as non-workers. This indicates an economic status in which there is a larger proportion of dependent population, further indicating possible existence of large number of unemployed or under employed people.

The occupational composition of India’s population (which actually means engagement of an individual in farming, manufacturing trade, services or any kind of professional activities) shows a large proportion of primary sector workers compared to secondary and tertiary sectors. About 58.2 per cent of total working population are cultivators and agricultural labourers, whereas only 4.2% of workers are engaged in household industries and 37.6% are other workers including non household industries, trade, commerce, construction and repair and other . services. As far as the occupation of country’s male and female population is concerned, male workers out-number female workers in all the three sectors. The number of female workers is relatively high in primary sector, though in recent years there has been some improvement in work participation of women in secondary and tertiary sectors.

The participation rate in secondary and tertiary sectors has registered an increase. This indicates a shift of dependence of workers from farm-based occupations to non-farm based ones, indicating a sectoral shift in the economy of the country. The spatial variation of work participation rate in different sectors in the country is very wide. For instance, the states like Himachal Pradesh and Nagaland have very large shares of cultivators. On the other hand states like Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand, West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh have higher proportion of agricultural labourers. The highly urbanised areas like Delhi, Chandigarh and Puducherry have a very large proportion of workers being engaged in other services.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 1 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 1 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the sources of population data in India? When was the first complete data collection completed/conducted?
Answer:
The main source of data collection in India is Census data collected every 10 years. First complete data collection was conducted by census in 1881.

Question 2.
What is India’s population density?
Answer:
As per 2011 census the density of population is 382 people/sq. km.

Question 3.
Which is the most densely populated country of Asia?
Answer:
Singapore is the most densely populated country of Asia.

Question 4.
Define: Physiological density, Agricultural density, Agricultural population
Answer:
Physiological density is the number of people per unit of arable land. Agricultural density is the number of farmers per unit of arable land. Agricultural population includes cultivators and agricultural labourers and their family members.

Question 5.
What is meant by population doubling time?
Answer:
The time taken by any population to double itself at its current annual growth rate is called population doubling time.

Question 6.
Which decade experienced negative growth in India?
Answer:
The decade of 1911-1921 experienced negative population growth rate in India.

Question 7.
Categorize population based on their place of residence.
Answer:
Based on the place of residence population can be categorized into rural and urban.

Question 8.
What are the two components of population growth?
Answer:
Natural and induced are the two components of population growth.

Question 9.
Define population composition.
Answer:
It is a distinct field of study within population geography with a vast coverage of the analysis of age and sex, place of residence, ethnic characteristics, religion, language, literacy, marital status, occupational characteristics, etc.

Question 10.
What are the major occupation categories as per the census of India, 2011?
Answer:
Four major categories are Cultivators, Agricultural labourers, Household industrial workers and Other workers.

Question 11.
When was the latest census survey conducted? When was the last day and time of census survey?
Answer:
In India, the latest census survey was conducted in 2011. It was based on the data till 28 February, 2011 at 12 mid night.

Question 12.
What -is the total population of India as per the latest survey? Also tell rural and urban population of India as per this survey.
Answer:
As per the 2011 census the total population of India is 1210193422 persons. Rural population – 833087662 Urban population – 377105760

Question 13.
India has 7th position in the world in terms of land area and 2nd position in terms of population. Substantiate.
Answer:
2.4% of total land of the world is under India There are six more nations whose land area is more than India. Therefore from population perspective India is at 2nd position after China with its total population of 1210193422 persons (2011). While in terms of land area, it is at 7th position in the world.

Question 14.
Why is the average annual growth rate of population less in 1951 as compared to 1941?
Answer:

• High participation in the World Wars and many lives were lost in these wars.
• Spread of epidemic diseases.

Question 15.
Describe the regional variations in population growth of India.
Answer:

• The southern states like Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Puducherry 8s Goa have a low rate of growth not exceeding the lowest growth rate of 9.4%.
• Growth rate in states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Punjab, UP, Haryana, Uttaranchal, MP, Sikkim, Assam, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh & Jharkhand, the growth rate on the average remained 20-25 %.

Question 16.
How much percentage of population lives in rural and urban areas?
Answer:
According to 2011 census survey, it is as follows:

• Rural – 68.84%
• Urban – 31.16%

Question 17.
What does the increase in the participation rate of secondary and tertiary sectors signify?
Answer:
The participation rate in secondary and tertiary sectors has registered an increase. This indicates a shift of dependence of workers from farm-based occupations to non-farm based ones, indicating a sector shift in the economy of the country.

Question 18.
Which religious community holds the most dominant position in India?
Answer:
The Hindus hold the most dominant position in India.

Question 19.
Name the largest spoken language of India. Name any four states where they are spoken.
Answer:
The largest spoken language in India is Hindi. It is spoken in Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.

Question 20.
Which are the smallest spoken languages?
Answer:
Kashmiri and Sanskrit languages.

Question 21.
Name the states which have less population in comparison to their land area.
Answer:
States with lowest density of population are Arunachal Pradesh (7 persons per sq km), Mizoram, (52 persons per sq km and Sikkim (86 persons per sq km).

Question 22.
Which of the Union Territories has highest and lowest population density?
Answer:
The National Capital Territory of Delhi has the highest population density of 11,297 persons whereas Andaman and Nicob&i Island with 46 persons per sq km, has the lowest population density.

Question 23.
Which states and the UT’s of India exhibit less than 10% population growth rate and which of them have negative growth rate?
Answer:
In India two states i.e. Goa and Kerala have less than 10% population growth rate. In Goa, it is 8.17% and in Kerala it is 4.68%. Amongst Union Territories, in Andaman and Nicobar Island it is 6.68% and in Lakshadweep it is 6.23%. Nagaland is the only state where negative growth rate has been observed and it is -0.47%.

Question 24.
Which states of India have highest population under rural area?
Answer:
In India approximately 68.84% of population is living in rural areas. 89.96% population of Himachal Pradesh, 88.70% population of Bihar, 85.92% population of Assam and 83.32% population of Odisha is living in rural areas.

Question 25.
Which state of India is the most urbanized? Name some other states in terms of highest level of urbanization.
Answer:
Goa is the most urbanized state of India. 62.71% population of Goa lives in urban areas. After this, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Gujarat,
Karnataka and Punjab have more than 50% population living in urban areas.

Question 26.
How many scheduled languages does Indian constitution have?
Answer:
Indian constitution has 22 Scheduled languages.

Question 27.
Who is a main worker?
Answer:
A worker who works for more than or equal to 183 days in a year is called main worker.

Question 28.
In how many groups is Indian population divided from economic perspective?
Answer:
They are divided into three groups:

1. Main worker
2. Marginal worker
3. Non worker

Question 29.
In how many categories is working population of India divided?
Answer:
The 2001 Census has divided the working population of India into four major categories:

• Cultivators
• Agricultural labourers
• Household industrial workers
• Other workers.

Question 30.
What does World Development Report say about present rate of growth of India’s population?
Answer:
World Development Report has projected that population of India will touch 1,350 million by 2025.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 1 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give in brief the factors that affect population distribution in India.
Answer:
Physical, socio-economic and historical factors influence population distribution in India. Climate along with terrain and availability of water largely determines the pattern of the population distribution. North Indian Plains, deltas and Coastal Plains have higher proportion of population than the interior districts of southern and central Indian States, Himalayas, some of the north eastern and the western states. Evolution of settled agriculture and agricultural development, pattern of human settlement, development of transport network, industrialization and urbanization also affect population distribution.

Question 2.
Why does rural/urban distribution of population vary in India?
Answer:
Pattern of distribution of rural population of India reveals that both at intra-State and inter-State levels, the relative degree of urbanization and extent of rural-urban migration regulate the concentration of rural population.

The growth rate of urban population has accelerated due to enhanced economic development and improvement in health and hygienic conditions. In almost all the states and Union Territories, there has been a considerable increase of urban population. Urbanization is low in remote, hilly, tribal and flood prone areas.

Question 3.
What does the ‘sectoral workforce’ of population in India signify?
Answer:
In India, there is large proportion of primary sector workers compared to secondary and tertiary sectors. But it is important to note that the proportion of workers in agricultural sector in India has shown a decline over the last few decades (58.2% in 2001 to 54.6% in 2011). Consequently, the participation rate in secondary and tertiary sectors has registered an increase. This indicates a shift of dependence of workers from farm based occupations to non-farm based ones, indicating a sectoral shift in the economy of the country. Male workers overshadow the female workers in all sectors.

Question 4.
Some places in India are densely populated while others are sparsely populated. Substantiate.
Answer:
Some places in India are densely populated while others are sparsely populated. It is clear from the following statistics:

• Spatial variations of population densities in the country which ranges from low as 13 persons per sq. km in Arunachal Pradesh to 9,340 persons in the National Capital Territory of Delhi.
• Among the northern Indian states, West Bengal, Bihar & U.P. have high population densities, while Kerala and Tamil Nadu have higher population densities among the peninsular Indian states.
• States like Assam, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Jharkhand and Odisha have moderate densities.
• The hill states of the Himalayan region and North-eastern states of India have relatively low densities (except Assam).
• The Union Territories (excluded Andaman 8s Nicobar) have very high densities of population.

Question 5.
What do you mean by population growth? Explain how is it estimated?
Answer:
Population growth refers to the change in the number of people living in a particular area between two points of time. It is calculated as follows:

Question 6.
India is a secular country. Substantiate the statement with statistical facts.
Answer:
It is absolutely right that India is a secular country where people following different religions live together with unity.

• Hindus: Range from 70-80 per cent except in the districts of states along Indo- Bangladesh border, Indo-Pak border, Jammu 8s Kashmir, hill states of North¬east 8s in scattered areas of Deccan Plateau 8s Ganga Plain.
• Muslims: They are the largest religious minority that are concentrated in Jammu & Kashmir, West Bengal, Kerala, UP, Delhi & Lakshadweep. They form majority in Kashmir valley & Lakshadweep.
• Christians: They are concentrated along the Western coast of Goa, Kerala, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Chotanagpur & Hills of Manipur.
• Sikhs: They are concentrated in small areas of the country particularly in states of Punjab, Haryana and Delhi.
• Jains and Buddhists: They are the smallest religious groups.
• Other religions include Zoroastrians tribal and other indigenous faiths and beliefs.

Question 7.
Analyse the linguistic composition of India.
Answer:
India is a land of linguistic diversity. According to Grierson (Linguistic Survey of India, 1903-1928) there were 179 languages and as many as 544 dialects in the country.

• In the context of modern India, there are about 22 scheduled languages and number of non-scheduled languages.
• Among the scheduled languages, the speakers of Hindi have the highest percentage (40.42).
• The smallest language groups are Kashmiri and Sanskrit speakers (0.01 per cent each).

Question 8.
What are the salient features of population of India?
Answer:
Some of the salient features of population of India are given below:

• India is the second most populous country after China with population of more than 1 billion in 2001 A.D.
• The average growth rate of the population from 1991-2001 has been 19.3%. Cities & towns have registered higher growth of population due to migration from rural areas.
• Population is male dominated and sex ratio is continuously declining.
• At present growth rate, India’s population will be doubled after 36 years.
• About 50% of the population is less than 20 years of age. Such a youth population has its own socio-economic and political problems.
• Majority of population consists of non-workers.

Question 9.
Name four Indian Linguistic families and give four examples of each family. Ans. Indian languages have been grouped in four families as follows:

• Austric (Nishada): Meghalaya, Bihar, Orissa, Madhya Pradesh
• Dravidian (Dravida): M.P., Karnataka, Kerala, Bihar
• Sino-Tibetian (Kirata): Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Meghalaya.
• Indo-European (Aryan): Jammu & Kashmir, U.P., M.P., Goa.

Question 10.
“Socio-economic factors influence high density of population”. Give reasons with examples.
Answer:
It is absolutely right to say that social-economic factors influence high density of population:

• Evolution of settled agriculture and agricultural development.
• Pattern of human settlement.
• Development of transport network.
• Urbanisation and industrialisation before.
• River plains and coastal areas; urban centres/industrial areas.

Question 11.
Why is there a decline in the number of workers in agricultural sector?
Answer:
There is a decline in the number of workers in agricultural sector due to following reasons:

• Availability of limited farming.
• Lack of employment in rural areas due to mechanization of agriculture.
• Seasonal nature of employment.
• Large scale urbanization and industrialization.
• Attraction and access towards tertiary and quarternaiy occupations.

Question 12.
“Female participation rate is low in India” Why?
Answer:
Female participation rate is low in India due to following factors:

• Joint family system.
• Low rate of literacy among females.
• Frequent child birth.
• Greater family responsibility.
• Male dominated society.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 1 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe India’s population growth over the years.
Answer:
The growth rate of population in India over the last one century has been caused by annual birth rate and death rate and rate of migration and thereby shows different trends. There are four distinct phases of growth identified within this period:

Phase-I: The period from 1901-1921 is referred to as a period of stagnant or stationary phase of growth of India’s population, since in this period growth rate was very low, even recording a negative growth rate during 1911-1921. Both the birth rate and death rate were high keeping the rate of increase low.

Phase II: The decades 1921-1951 are referred to as the period of steady population growth. An overall improvement in health and sanitation throughout the country brought down the mortality rate. At the same time better transport and communication system improved distribution system. The crude birth rate remained high in this period leading to higher growth rate than the previous phase.

Phase III: The decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India, which was caused by a rapid fall in the mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the country. The average annual growth rate was as high as 2.2 percent. Increased international migration bringing in Tibetans, Bangladeshis, Nepalies and even people from Pakistan contributed to the high growth rate.

Phase IV: In the post 1981 till present, the growth rate of country’s population though remained high, has started slowing down gradually.. A downward trend of crude birth rate is held responsible for such a population growth. This was, in turn, affected by an increase in the mean age at marriage, improved quality of life particularly education of females in the country.
Though the growth rate of population is still high in India, there is wide regional variation from one region to the other.

Question 2.
Write a note on the adolescent population in India.
Answer:.
An important aspect of population growth in India is the growth of its adolescents. At present the share of adolescents i.e., up to the age group of 10-19 years is about 20.9 per cent (2011), among which male adolescents constitute 52.7 per cent and female adolescents constitute 47.3 per cent. The adolescent population, though, regarded as the youthful population having high potentials, but at the same time they are quite vulnerable if not guided and channelized properly.

There are many challenges for the society as far as these adolescents are concerned, some of which are lower age at marriage, illiteracy – particularly female illiteracy, school dropouts, low intake of nutrients, high rate of maternal mortality of adolescent mothers, high rates of HIV/ AIDS infections, physical and mental disability or retardedness, drug abuse and alcoholism, juvenile delinquency and commitence of crimes, etc.

In view of these, the Government of India has undertaken certain policies to impart proper education to the adolescent groups so that their talents are better channelized and properly utilized. The National Youth Policy of Government of India, launched in 2003, stresses on an all round improvement of the youth and adolescents enabling them to shoulder responsibility towards constructive development of the country. It also aims at reinforcing the qualities of patriotism and responsible citizenship.

The thrust of this policy is youth empowerment in terms of their effective participation in decision making and carrying the responsibility of an able leader. Special emphasis was given in empowering women and girl child to bring parity in the male-female status. Moreover, deliberate efforts were made to look into youth health, sports and recreation creativity and awareness about new innovation in the spheres of science and technology.

Question 3.
To which families do the major Indian languages belong? Give details of their sub-family and areas.
Answer:
The major Indian languages belong to four main language families – Austric, Dravidian, Sino-Tibetan and Indo-European.

Question 4.
What is the occupational composition of Indian’s population? Give a detailed report.
Answer:
The occupational composition of India’s population (which actually means engagement of an individual in farming, manufacturing trade, services or any kind of professional activities) shows a large proportion of primary sector workers compared to secondary and tertiary sectors. About 54.6 % of total working population are cultivators and agricultural labourers, whereas only 3.8% of workers are engaged in household industries and 41.6 % are other workers including non-household industries, trade, commerce, construction and repair and other services. As far as the occupation of country’s male and female population is concerned, male workers out-number female workers in all the three sectors.
The number of female workers is relatively high in primary sector, though in recent years there has been some improvement in work participation of women in secondary and tertiary sectors.

It is important to note that the proportion of workers in agricultural sector, in India has shown a decline over the last few decades (58.2% in 2001 to 54.6% in 2011). Consequently, the participation rate in secondary and tertiary sectors has registered an increase. This indicates a shift of dependence of workers from farm ‘ based occupations to non-farm based ones, indicating a sectoral shift in the economy of the country.

The spatial variation of work participation rate in different sectors in the country is very wide. For instance, the states like Himachal Pradesh and Nagaland have very large shares of cultivators. On the other hand states like Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand, West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh have higher proportion of agricultural labourers. The highly urbanized areas like Delhi, Chandigarh and Puducherry have a very large proportion of workers being engaged in other services. This indicates not only availability of limited farming land, but also large scale urbanisation and industrialization requiring more workers in non-farm sectors.

Question 5.
What are the challenges before adolescents? What steps have been taken by government to overcome these challenges?
Answer:
The challenges before adolescents are
as follows:

• Female illiteracy
• School dropouts
• Low intake of nutrients.
• High rates of HIV/AIDS infections.
• Drug abuse and alcoholism
• Physical and mental disabilities.
• Lack of job opportunities.
• Peer pressure
• High rate of maternal mortality of adosescents mothers
• Lower age at marriage
• Domestic violence.
• Juvenile delinquency and commitance of crimes, etc.

In order to solve all these problems government has launched a National Youth Policy.
Features of National Youth Policy:

• It was launched in 2003. It stresses on all round development of youth and adolescents.
• It enables them to shoulder responsibility for constructive development.
• It also aims at reinforcing the qualities of patriotism and responsible citizenship.
• Special emphasis is given on empowering women and girl child to bring equality and status.
• It also lays stress on involvement of youth in decision making process.
• Under this policy, deliberate efforts were taken to improve health, sports, recreation, creativity, technology and create innovations in all spheres of life.

Question 6.
Explain the variations in the proportion of working population in India.
Answer:
The variations in the proportion of working population in India are:

• Moderate variation from about 25 per cent in Goa to about 53 per cent in Mizoram.
• Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Meghalaya have larger percentages of workers. Among the Union Territories Dadra & Nagar Haveli, Daman & Diu have higher participation rate because these states have variations in the levels of economic development.
• About 58.2 per cent of total working population are cultivators and agricultural labourers.
• Only 4.2% of workers are engaged in household industries.
• 37.6 % are other workers including non-household industries, trade, commerce construction and repair and other services as proportion of people in agricultural sector has shown a decline over last few decades i.e., 68.5% to 58.2% consequently participation in tertiary and secondary sectors have increased.

Question 7.
Differentiate between marginal worker and main worker.
Answer:

Class 12 Geography Chapter 1 Map Based Questions

Question 1.
Locate and label the following on the given political map of India with appropriate symbols.
(i) Highest density state
(ii) Lowest density state
Answer:
(i) Bihar (ii) Arunachal Pradesh

Question 2.
Locate and label the following on the given political map of India with appropriate symbols.
(i) State with low percentage of urban population.
(ii) State with high percentage of urban population.
(in) State with highest urban population.
(iv) State with highest rural population.
(v) State having lowest rural and urban population
Answer:
(i) Himachal Pradesh and Bihar
(ii) Goa
(iii) Maharashtra
(iv) Uttar Pradesh
(v) Sikkim

Class 12 Geography Chapter 1 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Name the state of India having the highest density of population and also mention its density.
Answer:
Bihar, 1102 persons per sq. km.

Question 2.
Define the term Positive Growth of Population. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
When the birth rate is more than death rate between two points of time or when people from other countries migrate permanently to a region, it is gives rise to positive growth of population.

Question 3.
Mention any two causes of the negative growth rate of population in India during 1901-1921. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:

• During 1901-1921 both the birth rate and death rate were high keeping the rate of increase low.
• Poor health and medical facilities.
• Lack of basic necessities.
• Spread of epidemic and endemics.
• Inefficient public distribution system.

Question 4.
Define the term “population distribution. ’(CBSE 2015)
Answer:
The term ‘population distribution’ refers to the way people are spaced over the earth’s surface.

Question 5.
How is density of population of a region calculated? (A.I. 2015)
Answer:
Density of population is ratio between the numbers of people to the size of land. It is usually measured in persons per sq. km.

Question 6.
What is the main thrust of the National Youth Policy of Government of India, 2003? . (A.I. 2015)
Answer:
The thrust of the National Youth Policy 2003 is youth empowerment in terms of their effective participation in decision¬making and carrying the responsibility of an able leader.

Question 7.
Name the state of India with largest area. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
Rajasthan is the largest state of India in area.

Question 8.
Name the union territory of India having lowest density of population as per 2011 census. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar Union Territory has the lowest density of population as per 2011 census.

Question 9.
Name the state of India having the least share of population according to the Census 2011. (Delhi 2017, 2018)
Answer:
State having least share of population: Sikkim

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Why is the growth rate of population in phase IV, slowing down in India? Give three reasons. (Foreign 2010)
Answer:
The growth rate of population in Phase IV is slowing down in India because

• Downward trend of crude birth rate.
• Increase mean age of marriage.
• Improved quality of life particularly female education.

Question 2.
“The distribution of rural population is I not uniform throughout India.” Support this statement with three suitable examples. (Foreign 2010)
Answer:
The distribution of rural population is not uniform throughout India as

• Both development of urban areas in terms of social-economic conditions and an increase rate of rural-urban migration.
• The rural-urban migration is conspicuous in the case of urban areas along the main road links and railroads in the North Indian plains and some industrial areas.
• Agriculturally stagnant parts of the middle and lower Gangaplains, Telangana, remote hilly, etc., the degree of urbanization has remained low.

Question 3.
The decades 1951-1981 are referred as the period of population explosion in India.” Explain the statement by giving any three reasons. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:

• This period is called population
• explosion because
• Rapid fall in the mortality rate due to centralized planning process.
• Fertility rate remained high with the result of average growth.
• High natural increase and higher growth rate

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain with examples the occupational structure of India’s population. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:

• Most of the India’s population is engaged in primary sector rather than secondary and tertiaiy sectors.
• About 58.2 per cent of total working population are cultivator and agricultural labourers; where as only 4.2% of workers are engaged in household industries and 37.6 per cent are other workers engaged in non-household industries, trade, commerce construction and repair and other services.
• As the occupation of country’s male and female population concerned, male workers out number female workers in all the three sectors.
• The proportion of working population of states show a moderate variation from 25 to 53 per cent.
• The number of female workers is relatively high in primary sector.
• The proportion of workers in agricultural sector has shown a decline over the last few decades.

Question 2.
Explain with examples any five factors that affect the population distribution in India
Answer:
Five factors that affect population distribution in India are:

• Climate along with terrain and availability of water largely determines the pattern of the population distribution. Example; The North Indian Plains, deltas and Coastal Plains have higher proportion of population than the interior districts of southern and central Indian States, Himalayas, some of the north eastern and the western states.
• Development of irrigation (Rajasthan). Availability of mineral and energy resources (Jharkhand).
• Development of transport network (Peninsular States) have resulted in moderate to high concentration of population in areas which were previously very thinly populated.
• Evolution of settled agriculture and agricultural development: pattern of human settlement; development of transport network, industrialization and urbanization.
• The urban regions of Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Bangalore, Pune, Ahmedabad, Chennai and Jaipur have high concen¬tration of population due to industrial development and urbanization drawing a large numbers of rural-urban migrants.

Question 3.
How are physical and economic factors responsible for uneven distribution of population in India? (Al 2011)
Answer:
Physical factors that determine the pattern of the population distribution:

• Climate along with terrain and availability of water.
• Development of transport network.
• Availability of mineral and energy resources.

Economic factors that determine the pattern of the population distribution:

• Development of irrigation and evolution of settled agriculture and agricultural development.
• Industrialization and urbanization.
• Pattern of human settlement.

Question 4.
“The decaded 1921-1951 are referred to as the period of steady growth of population whereas the decaded 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India.” Explain giving reasons. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
Decades of 1921-51:

• It brought down the mortality rate.
• There was a lot of invention in life-saving drugs. Hence, improvement in health and sanitation took place in the country.
• Crude birth rate (CBR) remained high.

Decades of 1951-81:

• There was high fertility rate of population in the country.
• There was much improvement in the living conditions of the people.
• There was rapid fall in mortality rate.
• There was huge increase in population

Question 5.
Define the term Growth of population. Describe the third phase of growth of population in India. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Growth of population is the change in the number of people living in a particular area between two points of time. Its rate is expressed in percentage. It has two components-natural and induced.
Third Phase of growth of population in India:

• The decades of 1951-1981 are the phase of population explosion.
• Caused by a rapid fall in mortality rate but a high fertility rate of population in the country.
• The average annual Growth rate was as high as 2.2 per cent.
• Developmental activities were introduced through a centralized planning process.
• Increased international migration contributed to the high growth rate.

Question 6.
What is population doubling time? Explain the characteristics of the growth of population in India in Phase I and II. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Population Doubling time is the time taken by any population to double itself at its current annual growth rate.
Characteristics of the population growth in Phase I:

• This phase (1901 -21) is known as a period of stagnant or stationary phase.
• Growth rate was very slow, even recording a negative growth rate during 1911-1921.
• Both the birth rate and death rate were high keeping the rate of increase low.

Characteristics of the population growth in Phase II:

• This phase (1921-1951) is known as steady population growth.
• Improvement in health and sanitation brought down the mortality rate.
• Crude birth rate remained high leading to higher growth rate.

Question 7.
Locate and label the following on the given political map of India with appropriate symbols.
(i) The State having largest area.
(ii) State having highest density of population.
(iii) State having lowest density of population
Answer:
(i)Rajasthan
(ii) Bihar
(iii) Arunachal Pradesh

Question 8.
What is density of population? Describe the spatial variation of population density in India. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Density of population is expressed as number of persons per unit area. Spatial Variation of population densities in the country ranges 17 persons per sq. km. in Arunachal Pradesh to 11297 persons in the National Capital Territory of Delhi according to Census-2011. Bihar 1102, West Bengal 1029 and Uttar Pradesh 828 have higher densities, while Kerala 1013 and Tamil Nadu 859 have higher densities among the peninsular Indian states. Assam, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Jharkhand and Odisha have moderate densities. The hill states of the Himalayan region and north-eastern states have relatively low densities.

Question 9 .
What is the source of population data in India? Explain the distribution of population in India. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Population data are collected through census operation held every 10 years in our country. India has a highly uneven pattern of population distribution. Uttar Pradesh has the highest population followed by Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh. On the other hand, share of population is very small in the state like Jammu and Kashmir, Arunachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Such an uneven spatial distribution of population in India suggests a close relationship between population and physical, social, economic and historical factors. As far as the physical factors are concerned it is clear that terrain, climate and water largely determines the pattern of the population distribution. North India plains, deltas and coastal plains have higher population than the interior districts of southern and central Indian states. Among the socio-economic and historical factors of distribution of population important once are evolution of settled agriculture and agricultural development, pattern of human settlement, development of transport network, industrialization and urbanization.

Question 10.
“An uneven distribution of population suggests a close relationship between population and physical and socio-economic factors.” Support the statement with suitable examples. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Population density is closely related to physical and socio-economic factors- Dense population in UP, West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Kerala is due to flat and fertile plains, favourable climate water availability and socio-economic factors.

Sparse population of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, North-East States is due to hilly terrain, dense forests and harsh climate. Rajasthan has water shortage and its hot 8s dry climate accounts for low population density.

Moderate density is seen in Odisha, Assam, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu etc. due to possibilities of agriculture, industrial development and favorable climate to some extent. Favorable factors for Transport network, industrialization, urbanization in Maharashtra, Goa, Delhi NCR etc. account for high population density. (Examples from the world should be considered as well)

Question 11.
‘The decadal and annual growth rates of population in India are both very high and steadily increasing over time.” Substantiate the statement. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
The decadal and annual growth rate of population in India:
The decades between 1921 to 1951 recorded steady growth of population. Overall improvement in health and sanitation minimized the mortality rate but the birth rate remained high.

In the next three decades 1951-81 are known as the period of population explosion. It was caused by a rapid fall in the mortality rate but birth rate remained high. Average annual growth rate was very high as the living conditions of people improved due to developmental activities resulting in high natural increase in birth rate and thus, growth rate remained high. International migration also contributed to the high growth rate of population. Since 1981 till date, population growth rate has been high although a downward trend of crude birth rate has started.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 1 Population: Distribution, Density, Growth and Composition appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark

Question 1.
How can you say that democracies are based on political equality? (2015 OD)
Answer:
Democracies are based on political equality as individuals have equal weight in electing representatives.

Question 2.
What is ‘transparency’ in a democracy? (2014 OD, 2015 OD)
Answer:
Democracy ensures that decision making will be based on norms and procedure. Every citizen has the right and means to examine the process of decision making. This is known as transparency.

Short Answer Questions (SA) 3 Marks

Question 3.
How do democratic governments ensure transparency? Explain any three points. (2011 D)
Answer:

1. Democracy ensures that decision-making will be based on norms and procedures. So a citizen, who wants to know if a decision was taken through the correct procedures, can find out as democracy guarantees to the citizens the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making.
2. In a democracy people have the right to choose their rulers and people will have control over them. Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision-making that affects them all. Thus it ensures transparency by producing a government that is accountable to the citizens and is responsive to their needs and expectations.
3. It is right to expect democracy to produce a government that follows procedures and is accountable to people. To do so, the democratic government develops mechanisms for citizens—regular, free and fair elections, open public debate on major policies and legislations and citizens’ right to information about the government and its functioning.

Question 4.
What are the differences between democracy and dictatorship in the decision making process? (2012 OD)
Answer:

Question 5.
“An ideal government would not only keep itself away from corruption but also make fighting corruption and black money a top priority”. Justify the statement. (2013 D)
Answer:
The values attached to the above statement signify the following practices and institutions:

• Regular free and fair elections, open public debate on major policies and legislation and citizens’ right to information about the government and its functions.
• An ideal government in a democracy follows procedures and is accountable to the people.
• A citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision making. This is known as transparency.
• An ideal government is attentive and responsive to the needs and expectations of the people and is largely free of corruption as it is a legitimate government. It is peoples own government.

Question 6.
Explain the role of democratic governments in reducing economic disparities. (2011 OD)
Or, “Democracies do not appear to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities”. Examine the statement with examples. (2013 OD)
Answer:
Over the years, careful evidence has been gathered to see what the relationship of democracy with economic growth and economic inequalities is.

• It is seen that on an average dictatorial regimes have had a slightly better record of economic growth, i. e., 4.34%. But when we compare their record only in poor countries (4.28%), there is no difference.
• There is enough evidence to show that within democracies there can be very high degree of inequalities. In countries like South Africa and Brazil, the top 20 per cent people take away more than 60 per cent of the national income, leaving less than 3 per cent for the bottom 20 per cent population.

Perhaps more than development, it is reasonable to expect democracies to reduce economic disparities. Democracies are based on political equality, but despite equality in the political arena there are growing economic inequalities. The poor constitute a large proportion of our voters and no party would like to lose its votes. Yet democratically elected governments do not appear to be keen to tackle the problem of poverty.

Democracies are expected to produce good government, but there is no guarantee that they would also produce development. As evidence shows, the economic development depends on several factors, such as country’s size, global situation, co-operation from other countries, economic priorities adopted by the country etc.

Question 7.
‘Democracy is seen to be good in principle, but felt, to be not so good in practice.’ Justify the statement with suitable arguments. (2014 D)
Answer:
If we look at some of the democratic policies being implemented in more than one hundred countries of the world, democracy seems to be good. For example, having a formal Constitution, holding regular elections, guaranteeing the citizens certain rights, working for the welfare of the people, etc. make us advocate that democracy is good.

But if we look in terms of social situations, their economic achievements and varied cultures, we find a very big difference in most of the democracies. The vast economic disparities, social injustice based on discrimination, standard of life, sex discrimination, etc. create many doubts about the merits of democracy. Whenever some of our expectations are not met, we start blaming the idea of democracy. Since democracy is a form of government, it can only create conditions for achieving our goals if they are reasonable.

Question 8.
How is democracy accountable and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens? Analyse. (2015 OD)
Answer:
A democracy is concerned with ensuring that people have the right to choose their rulers and have control over the rulers:

• Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision-making in a democracy.
• Democracy ensures that decision-making is based on norms and procedures. A citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. Thus democracy entails transparency.
• For a democracy to produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate government, it must ensure the following:
  • Regular, free and fair elections.
  • Open public debate on major policies and legislations.
  • Citizens’ right to be informed about government policies.
  • A government free from corruption.

Question 9.
“Democratic government is legitimate government?” Support the statement with arguments. (2016 D)
Answer:
Democratic government is a legitimate government. It may be slow, less efficient, not always very responsive or clean. But a democratic government is peoples’ own government. That is why there is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world. People’s wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them. As a democratic government is peoples’ own government, they believe that democracy is suitable for their country as it is a legitimate government. Democracy’s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot be ignored.

Question 10.
“Democracy accommodates social diversities.” Support the statement with examples. (2016 OD)
Answer:
“Democracy accommodates social diversities” in the following ways:

1. Democracies develop a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the possibility of these tensions becoming explosive or violent.
2. No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and can evolve mechanism to negotiate these differences.
   Example, Belgium has successfully negotiated differences among ethnic population. This reduces the possibility of tensions.
3. Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite plus point of democratic regimes.

Question 11.
Analyse any three values that make democracy better. (2017 D)
Answer:
We feel that democracy is a better form of government than any other form of government because:

1. Democracy promotes equality among citizens.
2. It enhances dignity of individual. It promotes dignity of women and strengthens the claims of the disadvantaged.
3. It improves the quality of decision making. There is transparency in a democracy.
4. It provides methods to resolve conflicts.
5. Democracy allows room to correct mistakes.

Question 12.
On the basis of which values will it be a fair expectation that democracy should produce a harmonious social life? Explain. (2017 OD)
Answer:
No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and evolve a mechanism to negotiate the differences. Belgium is an example of how successfully differences were negotiated among ethnic groups. Therefore, democracy is best suited to accommodate various social divisions as it usually develops a procedure to conduct their competition. But the example of Sri Lanka shows how distrust between two communities turned into widespread conflict. Thus, a democracy must fulfil the following conditions and be based on these values in order to achieve a harmonious social life—

1. Majority and minority opinions are not permanent. Democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion. The majority needs to work with minority so that government may function to represent the general view.
2. Rule by majority does not become rule by majority community in terms of religion or race or linguistic groups, etc.
3. Democracy remains democracy so long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority at some point of time. No individual should be debarred from participating in a democracy on the basis of religion, caste, community, creed and other such factors.

Question 13.
Why do we feel that democracy is a better form of government than any other form? Explain. 2015OD Answer: Democracy is a better form of government than any other form because:

1. It is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation. Thus the necessary delay in implementation.
2. Decisions are acceptable to people and are more effective.
3. A citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. There is transparency in a democracy.
4. Democratic government is a legitimate government, people’s own government.
5. Ability to handle differences, decisions and conflicts is a positive point of democratic regimes.
6. Democracy has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity.

Question 14.
Why do we feel that democracy is a better form of government than any other form of government? Explain. (2012 OD)
Or
How do you feel that democracy is better than any other form of government? Explain. (2013 OD)
Or
“Democracy is more effective than its other alternatives.” Justify the statement. (2015 D)
Answer:
We feel that democracy is a better form of government than any other form of government because:

1. Democracy promotes equality among citizens.
2. It enhances dignity of individual. It promotes dignity of women and strengthens the claims of the disadvantaged.
3. It improves the quality of decision making. There is transparency in a democracy.
4. It provides methods to resolve conflicts.
5. Democracy allows room to correct mistakes.

Question 15.
How do democracies accommodate social diversity? Explain with examples. (2011 OD, 2014 OD)
Or
Explain the conditions in which democracies are able to accommodate social diversities. (2012 D)
Or
“Democracies lead to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens”. Support the statement with suitable examples. (2013 OD)
Answer:
No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and evolve a mechanism to negotiate the differences. Belgium is an example of how successfully differences were negotiated among ethnic groups. Therefore, democracy is best suited to accommodate various social divisions as it usually develops a procedure to conduct their competition. But the example of Sri Lanka shows how distrust between two communities turned into widespread conflict, and thus a democracy must fulfil the following two conditions in order to achieve a harmonious social life:

1. Majority and minority opinions are not permanent. Democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion. The majority needs to work with minority so that government may function to represent the general view.
2. Rule by majority does not become rule by majority community in terms of religion or race or linguistic groups, etc.
3. Democracy remains democracy so long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority at some point of time. No individual should be debarred from participating in a democracy on the basis of religion, caste, community, creed and other such factors.

Question 16.
Explain the ways in which democracy has succeeded in maintaining dignity and freedom of citizens. (2012 D)
Or, “Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual.” Support the statement with suitable examples. 20130D
Answer:
The passion of respect and freedom are the basis of democracy:

1. Economic disparity in society has been minimized to a great extent.
2. In many democracies women were deprived of their right to vote for a long period of time. After long struggle they achieved their right, respect and equal treatment.
3. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal states and opportunities, for example, SCs and STs.
4. In democracy all adult citizens have the right to vote.
5. Democracy evolves a mechanism that takes into account the differences and intrinsic attributes of various ethnic groups. In a democracy majority always needs to work taking into account the interest of the minority so that the minority do not feel alienated.

Question 17.
How is democracy a better form of government in comparison with other forms of governments? Explain. (2016 D, 2014 D)
Or, “There is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world.” Support the statement. (2015 OD)
Answer:
Over a hundred countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic politics.

• They have formal constitutions, hold elections, have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens.
  Thus, in most countries, the democracy produces a government that is accountable to the citizens and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.
• No society can fully and permanently resolve conflict among different groups. But we can learn to respect these differences and evolve mechanisms to negotiate them. Democracy is best suited as it develops a procedure to conduct competitions. Belgium is a successful example of negotiating difference among ethnic population.
• Passion for respect and freedom is the basis of democracy and has been achieved in various degrees in various democracies.
• The support for democracy is overwhelming all over the world and is evident from South Asia, where the support exists in countries with democratic as well as undemocratic regimes.
• People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them as a democratic government is people’s own government and makes them believe that it is suitable for their country as it is a legitimate government.

Question 18.
“Most destructive feature of democracy is that its examination never gets over.” Support the statement with appropriate arguments. (2011 D)
Answer:
Suitable arguments:

1. As people get some benefits of democracy, they ask for more.
2. People always come up with more expectations from the democratic set up.
3. They also have complaints against democracy.
4. More and more suggestions and complaints by the people is also a testimony to the success of democracy.
5. A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of the democratic project.

Question 19.
“Democracy is seen to be good in principle but felt to be not so good in practice.” Justify the statement. (2013 D)
Answer:
If we look at some of the democratic policies being implemented in more than one hundred countries of the world, democracy seems to be good. For example, having a formal Constitution, holding regular elections, guaranteeing the citizens certain rights, working for the welfare of the people etc. make us advocate that democracy is good.

But if we look in terms of social situations, their economic achievements and varied cultures, we find a very big difference in most of the democracies. The vast economic disparities, social injustice based on discrimination, standard of life, sex discrimination, etc. create many doubts about the merits of democracy. Whenever some of our expectations are not met, we start blaming the idea of democracy. Since democracy is a form of government, it can only create conditions for achieving our goals if they are reasonable.

Question 20.
“Democracy stands much superior in promoting dignity and freedom of the citizens”. Justify the statement. (2016 OD)
Answer:
Examples to illustrate that dignity and freedom of citizens are best guaranteed in a democracy:

(i) Dignity of women. Democracy recognizes dignity of women as a necessary ingredient of society. The one way to ensure that women related problems get adequate attention is to have more women as elected representatives. To achieve this, it is legally binding to have a fair proportion of women in the elected bodies. Panchayati Raj in India has reserved one-third seats in local government bodies for women. In March 2010, the Women’s Reservation Bill was passed in the Rajya Sabha ensuring 33% reservation for women in Parliament and State legislative bodies.

(ii) Democracy has strengthened the claims of disadvantaged and discriminated castes. When governments are formed, political parties usually take care that representatives of different castes and tribes find a place in it. Some political parties are known to favour some castes. Democracy provides for equal status and opportunities for all castes.

(iii) Democracy transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen. A democracy is concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose their rulers and people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision-making that affects them all.

(iv) A citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. There is transparency in a democracy like India. In October 2005, the Right to Information (RTI) law was passed which ensures all its citizens the right to get all the information about the functions of the government departments. In a democracy, people also have the right to complain about its functioning.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions

The post Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Practical Work in Geography Class 11 Solutions Chapter 6 Introduction to Aerial Photographs

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 6 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Multiple choice questions.

Question 1(i).
In which of the following aerial photographs the horizon appears?
(a) Vertical
(b) Near-vertical
(c) Low-oblique
(d) High-oblique.
Answer:
(c) Low-oblique

Question 1(ii).
In which of the following aerial photographs the Nadir and the principle points coincide?
(a) Vertical
(b) Near-vertical
(c) Low-oblique
(d) High-oblique.
Answer:
(d) High-oblique.

Question 1(iii).
Which type of the following projections is used in aerial photographs?
(a) Parallel
(b) Orthogonal
(c) Central
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Central.

2. Answer the following questions in about 60 words.

Question 2(i).
State any three advantages that an aerial photograph offers over ground based observations.
Answer:
The photographs taken from ground provide us with a view of the object similar to the way we see them with our own eyes. In other words, we get a horizontal perspective of the objects photographed. The basic advantages that aerial photographs offer over ground based observation are:
1. Improved vantage point and Time freezing ability: Aerial photography provides a bird’s eye view of large areas, enabling us to see features of the earth surface in their spatial context. An aerial photograph is a record of the surface features at an instance of exposure. Therefore, it can be used as a historical record.

2. Broadened Sensitivity: The sensitivity of the film used in taking aerial photographs is relatively more than the sensitivity of the human eyes. Our eyes perceive only in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum, i.e. 0.4 to 0.7 pm whereas the sensitivity of the film ranges from 0.3 to 0.9 pm.

3. Three Dimensional Perspective: Aerial photographs are generally taken with uniform exposure interval. It enables us in obtaining stereo pair of photographs. Such a pair of photographs helps us in getting a three-dimensional view of the surface photographed.

Question 2(ii).
How is an aerial photograph taken?
Answer:
Aerial photographs are taken from the camera kept in aeroplane or helicopter. These are taken from aerial camera which is a precision camera specifically designed for use in aircrafts. It makes use of Aerial Film which is a roll film with high sensitivity, high intrinsic resolution power and dimensionally stable emulsion support. Therefore we can say that aerial photography is an art, science and technology of taking aerial photographs from an air-bome platform.

Question 2(iii).
Present a concise account of aerial photography in India.
Answer:
Aerial photography in India was taken for the first time in1920 when large-scale aerial photographs of Agra city were obtained.
Subsequently, Air Survey Party of the Survey of India took up aerial survey of Irrawaddy Delta forests, which was completed during 1923-24. Subsequently, several similar surveys were carried out and advanced methods of mapping from aerial photographs were used.
Today, aerial photography in India is carried out for the entire country under the overall supervision of the Directorate of Air Survey (Survey of India) New Delhi. Three flying agencies, i.e. Indian Air Force; Air Survey Company, Kolkata and National Remote Sensing Agency, Hyderabad have been officially authorised to take aerial photographs in India.

3. Answer the following questions in about 125 words.

Question 3(i).
What are the two major uses of an aerial photograph? Elaborate.
Answer:
Aerial photographs are used in topographical mapping and interpretation. These two different uses have led to the development of photogrammetry and photo/image interpretation as two independent but related sciences.
1. Photogrammetry refers to the science and technology of making reliable measurements from aerial photographs. The principles used in photogrammetry facilitate precise measurements related to the length, breadth and height from such photographs. Hence, they are used as the data source for creating and updating topographic maps.
2. Image Interpretation is an art of identifying images of objects and judging their relative significance. The principles of image interpretation are applied to obtain qualitative information from the aerial photographs such as land use/land cover, topographical forms, soil types, etc. A trained interpreter can thus utilise aerial photographs to analyse the land- use changes.

Question 3(ii).
What are the different methods of scale determination?
Answer:
Scale is the ratio of a distance on an aerial photograph the distance between the same two places on the ground in the real world. It can be expressed in unit equivalents like 1 cm = 1,000 km(or 12,000 inches) or as a representative fraction (1:100,000). Scale determines what objects would be visible, the accuracy of estimates and how certain features will appear.
There are three methods to compute the scale of an aerial photograph using different sets of information.

Method 1:
By Establishing Relationship Between Photo Distance and Ground Distance: If additional information like ground distances of two identifiable points in an aerial photograph is available, it is fairly simple to work out the scale of a vertical photograph. The corresponding ground distances is expressed by Dg and for which the distances on an aerial photograph is expressed as Dp. Both are measured. In such cases, the scale of an aerial photograph will be measured as a ratio of the two, i.e.Dp /Dg.

Method 2:
By Establishing Relationship Between Photo Distance and Map Distance: The distances between different points on the ground are not always known. However, if a reliable map is available for the area shown on an aerial photograph, it can be used to determine the photo scale. In other words, the distances between two points identifiable both on a map and the aerial photograph enable us to compute the scale of the aerial photograph (Sp).
The relationship between the two distances may be expressed as under: (Photo scale: Map scale) = (Photo distance: Map distance) We can derive Photo scale (Sp) = Photo distance (Dp): Map distance (Dm) x Map scale factor (msf)

Method 3:
By Establishing Relationship Between Focal Length (f) and Flying Height (H) of the Aircraft:
If no additional information is available about the relative distances on photograph and ground/map, we can determine the photo scale provided the information about the focal length of the camera (f) and the flying height of the aircraft (H) are known. The photo scale so determined could be more reliable if the given aerial photograph is truly vertical or near vertical and the terrain photographed is flat. The focal length of the camera (f) and the flying height of the aircraft (H) are provided as marginal information on most of the vertical photographs. Aerial photograph may be used to derive the photo-scale formula in the following way: Focal Length (f): Flying Height (H) = Photo distance (Dp):
Ground distance (Dg)

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 6 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 6 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a type of aerial photograph on the basis of axis of the camera?
(a) Vertical photographs
(b) Low oblique photographs
(c) High oblique photographs
(d) Oblique photographs
Answer:
(d) Oblique photographs

Question 2.
When and which city of India was the first where aerial photograph was taken?
(a) Gaya (1905)
(b) Varanasi (1910)
(c) Agra (1920)
(d) Lucknow (1930)
Answer:
(c) Agra (1920)

Question 3.
When and which country of the world was the first where aerial photograph was taken?
(a) France (1909)
(b) Germany (1910)
(c) Australia (1922)
(d) USA (1858)
Answer:
(a) France (1909)

Question 4.
The perpendicular distance between the camera lens and the negative plane is known as what?
(a) Orthophoto
(b) Aerospace
(c) Focal length
(d) Flying image
Answer:
(c) Focal length

Question 5.
What is the ratio of a distance on an aerial photograph the distance between the same two places on the ground in the real world called?
(a) Scale
(b) Vertical length
(c) Focal length
(d) Axis
Answer:
(a) Scale

Question 6.
What is the perpendicular distance from the perspective centre to the plane of the photograph called?
(a) Principal point .
(b) Principal distance
(c) Oblique
(d) Vertical length.
Answer:
(b) Principal distance.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 6 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are aerial photographs?
Answer:
A photograph taken from an air-borne platform using a precision camera is called an aerial photograph.

Question 2.
What is the difference between aerial photographs and satellite images?
Answer:
Aerial photographs are taken from the camera kept in helicopter or aeroplanes. On the other hand, satellite images are taken from man-made satellites launched in the space.

Question 3.
Name the eight elements used to describe Satellite images.
Answer:
Eight important elements which are being used for describing satellite images are element size, shape, shadow, colour coordination, colour formation, background, correlation and context.

Question 4.
What is a satellite image?
Answer:
An image taken from man-made satellites launched in the space is called satellite image.

Question 5.
What is a small scale photograph?
Answer:
The photographs with the scale being smaller than 1 : 30,000, are referred to as small scale photographs

Question 6.
What are fudicial marks?
Answer:
Index marks, rigidly connected at the central or corner edges of the camera body are called fudicial marks. When the film is exposed, these marks appear on the film negative.

Question 7.
What are orthophotos?
Answer:
Aerial photographs need to be transformed from perspective view to the planimetric view before they can be used as map substitute. Such transformed photographs are known as orthophotos.

Question 8.
What are the different bases used for classifying aerial photographs?
Answer:
The aerial photographs are classified on the basis of the position of the camera axis, scale, angular extent of coverage and the film used.

Question 9.
Why can we use aerial photographs as historic record?
Answer:
An aerial photograph is a record of the surface features at an instance of exposure. It can, therefore, be used as a historical record.

Question 10.
How can aerial photograph be used to derive the photo scale formula?
Answer:
Aerial photograph may be used to derive the photo-scale formula in the following way:
Focal Length (f): Flying Height (H) = Photo distance (Dp): Ground distance (Dg)

Question 11.
What is Orthogonal Projection?
Answer:
This is a special case of parallel projections. Maps are orthogonal projections of the ground.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 6 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the advantages of aerial photographs?
Answer:
Given below are the advantages of aerial photographs:

• The photographs taken from ground provide us with a view of the object similar to the way we see them with our own eyes. In other words, we get a horizontal perspective of the objects photographed. Aerial photography
  provides a bird’s eye view of large areas, enabling us to see features of the earth surface in their spatial context.
• An aerial photograph is a record of the surface features at an instance of exposure. Therefore, it can be used as a historical record.
• The sensitivity of the film used in taking aerial photographs is relatively more than the sensitivity of the human eyes. Our eyes perceive only in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum, i. e. 0.4 to 0.7 pm whereas the sensitivity of the film ranges from 0.3 to 0.9 pm.
• Aerial photographs are generally taken with uniform exposure interval. It enables us in obtaining stereo pair of photographs.
• Such a pair of photographs also helps us in getting a three-dimensional view of the surface photographed.

Question 2.
The distance between two points on an aerial photograph is measured as 2 centimetres. The known distance between the same two points on the ground is 1 km. Compute the scale of the aerial photograph (Sp).
Answer:
Sp = Dp : Dg
= 2 cm :1 km
= 2cm : 1 x 100,000 cm
= 1 : 100,000/2 = 50,000 cm
= 1 unit represents 50,000 units
Therefore, Sp = 1: 50,000.

Question 3.
The distance measured between two points on a map is 2 cm. The corresponding distance on an aerial photograph is 10 cm. Calculate the scale of the photograph when the scale of the map is 1: 50,000.
Answer:
Photo scale (Sp) = Photo distance (Dp) : Map distance (Dm) x Map scale factor (msf)
= 10 cm : 2 cm x 50,000
= 10 cm : 100,000 cm
= 1 : 100,000/10 = 10,000 cm
= 1 unit represents 10,000 units
Therefore, Sp = 1: 10,000

Question 4.
Compute the scale of an aerial photograph when the flying height of the aircraft is 7500 m and the focal length of the camera is 15 cm.
Answer:
Focal Length (f) : Flying Height (H) = Photo distance (Dp) : Ground distance (Dg)
Sp = f: H
Or Sp = 15 cm : 7,500 x 100 cm
Or Sp = 1 : 750,000/15
Therefore, Sp = 1 : 50,000

Question 5.
Differentiate between:
(i) Aerial photograph and map.
(it) Aerial photographs and satellite images.
(iii) High oblique photograph and low oblique photograph.
(iv) Vertical photograph and high oblique photograph.
(v) Vertical photograph and low oblique photograph.
Answer:
(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 6 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain about different types of aerial photographs on the basis of position of camera axis.
Answer:
Types of Aerial Photographs Based on
the Position of the Cameral Axis:
1. Vertical Photographs: While taking aerial photographs, two distinct axes are formed from the camera lens centre, one towards the ground plane and the other towards the photo plane. The perpendicular dropped from the camera lens centre to the ground plane is termed as the vertical axis, whereas the plumb line drawn from the lens centre to the photo plane is known as the photographic/optical axis. When the photo plane is kept parallel to the ground plane, the two axes also coincide with each other. The photograph so obtained is known as vertical aerial photograph

2. Low Oblique: An aerial photograph
taken with an intentional deviation of 15° to 30° in the camera axis from the vertical axis is referred to as the low oblique photograph. This kind of photograph is often used in reconnaissance surveys. It is shown with the help of following figure.

3. High Oblique: The high oblique are photographs obtained when the camera axis is intentionally inclined about 60° from the vertical axis. Such photography is useful in illustrative surveys. It is shown with the help of following figure.

Question 2.
How can we classify aerial photographs on the basis of scale?
Answer:
There are three types of Aerial Photographs Based on Scale.

1. Large Scale Photographs: When the scale of an aerial photograph is 1:15,000 and larger, the photography is classified as large-scale photograph. It is shown with the help of following figure.
   
2. Medium Scale Photographs: The
   aerial photographs with a scale ranging between 1 : 15,000 and 1 : 30,000 are usually treated as medium scale photographs as shown in the figure given below:
   
3. Small Scale Photographs: The
   photographs with the scale being smaller
   than 1 : 30,000, are referred to as small scale photographs as shown in the figure.
   

Question 3.
Explain in detail about aerial photographs and satellite images.
Answer:
These days, it has become very easy to draw’ maps and interpret them through aerial photographs and satellite images. It requires a special type of training to understand and interpret aerial photographs. Many countries are making use of aerial photographs not only for defence purposes but also for planning land use, development of cities and towns, development of multipurpose projects etc.

Satellite images are used to predict climatic conditions. It becomes easy to predict weather by using satellite images, wre can find mineral availability, land use plan by making use of satellite images.

Question 4.
Explain different types of projection.
Answer:
There are three types of projection:
1. Parallel Projection: In this projection, the projecting rays are parallel but not necessarily perpendicular. The triangle
ABC is projected on LLj as triangle abc.

2. Orthogonal Projection: This is a special case of parallel projections. Maps are orthogonal projections of the ground. The advantage of this projection is that the distances, angles or areas on the plane are independent of the elevation differences of the objects. In the figure given below an orthogonal projection is where the projecting rays are perpendicular to the line LLr

3. Central Projection: Figure given below shows an example of Central Projection. In this figure the projecting rays Aa, Bb and Cc pass through a common point O, which is called the perspective Centre. The image projected by a lens is treated like a central projection. An aerial photograph, as discussed earlier is a central projection. In an absolutely vertical flat terrain the aerial photograph will be geometrically the same as the corresponding map of the area. However, because of the tilt of the photograph and relief variations of the ground photographed, an aerial photograph differs geometrically from the map of the corresponding area.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 6 Viva Questions

Question 1.
Name three agencies eligible to take aerial photographs in India.
Answer:
In India three flying agencies are officially permitted to carry out aerial photography. They are:

1. Indian Air Force,
2. Air Survey Company, Kolkata and
3. National Remote Sensing Agency, Hyderabad.

These are identified on the aerial photographs as A, B and C respectively.

Question 2.
How can aerial photograph be used to derive the photo scale formula?
Answer:
Aerial photograph may be used to derive the photo-scale formula in the following way:
Focal Length (f): Flying Height (H) = Photo distance (Dp): Ground distance (Dg).

Question 3.
How can scale of aerial photographs be obtained by establishing relationship between Photo Distance and Ground Distance?
Answer:
If additional information like ground distances of two identifiable points in an aerial photograph is available, the corresponding ground distances is expressed by Dg and for which the distances on an aerial photograph is expressed as Dp. Both are measured. In such cases, the scale of an aerial photograph will be measured as a ratio of the two, i.e. Dp/ Dg.

Question 4.
Explain how can scale of aerial photograph be measured by establishing relationship between Photo Distance and Map Distance?
Answer:
The distances between different points on the ground are not always known. However, if a reliable map is available for the area shown on an aerial photograph, it can be used to determine the photo scale. In other words, the distances between two points identifiable both on a map and the aerial photograph enable us to compute the scale of the aerial photograph (Sp).

The relationship between the two distances may be expressed as under: (Photo scale: Map scale) = (Photo distance : Map distance) We can derive Photo scale (Sp) = Photo distance (Dp): Map distance (Dm) x Map scale factor (msf).

Question 5.
Scale of an aerial photograph is 1:20,000. It will be called what type of ph otograph?
Answer:
It will be called Medium Scale Photograph.

Question 6.
Some photographs are obtained when the camera axis is intentionally inclined about 60° from the vertical axis. It will be called what type of photograph?
Answer:
It will be called high oblique photograph.

Question 7.
What is the visibility range of our eyes and film of aerial photographs?
Answer: Our eyes perceive only in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum,
i. e. 0.4 to 0.7 pm whereas the sensitivity of the film ranges from 0.3 to 0.9 pm.

Introduction to Aerial Photographs Notes

• First aerial photograph was taken in France in 1858 through a balloon. But in 1909, first time aeroplane was used to take aerial photographs when a photo for a city of Italy was taken. Aerial photographs were used at a large scale during both world wars.

• Aerial photography in India was taken for the first time inl920 when large-scale aerial photographs of Agra city were obtained. Subsequently, Air Survey Party of the Survey of India took up aerial survey of Irrawaddy Delta forests, which was completed during 1923—24.
• Today, aerial photography in India is carried out for the entire country under the overall supervision of the Directorate of Air Survey (Survey of India) New Delhi. Three flying agencies, i.e. Indian Air Force; Air Survey Company, Kolkata and National Remote Sensing Agency, Hyderabad have been officially authorised to take aerial photographs in India.
• The procedure for indenting aerial photographs for educational purposes could be made with APFPS Party No. 73, Directorate of Air Survey, Survey of India, West Block IV, R. K. Puram, New Delhi.
• Aerial photographs are used in topographical mapping and interpretation. These two different uses have led to the development of photogrammetry and photo/image interpretation as two independent but related sciences.
• Photogrammetry is the science and technology of making reliable measurements from aerial photographs. The principles used in photogrammetry facilitate precise measurements.
• The aerial photographs are classified on the basis of the position of the camera axis, scale, angular extent of coverage and the film used.
• On the basis of the position of the camera axis, aerial photographs are classified into the following types : (i) Vertical photographs («) Low oblique photographs (Hi) High oblique photographs
• On the basis of scale, aerial photographs are of three types: large scale photographs, medium scale photographs and small scale photographs.
• While taking aerial photographs, two distinct axes are formed from the camera lens centre, one towards the ground plane and the other towards the photo plane.
• To understand the geometry of an aerial photograph, it is important to appreciate the orientation of the photograph with respect to the ground, i.e. the way the rays connect or ‘project’ onto the ground in relation to the ground representation (photograph or map).

Important Terms

• Aerial Camera: It is a precision camera specifically designed for use in aircrafts.
• Aerial Film: It is a roll film with high sensitivity, high intrinsic resolution power and dimensionally stable emulsion support.
• Aerial Photography: Art, science and technology of taking aerial photographs from an air-borne platform is called aerial photography.
• Aerial Photograph: It is a photograph taken from an air-borne platform using a precision camera.
• Fiducial Marks: Index marks, rigidly connected at the central or corner edges of the camera body. When the film is exposed, these marks appear on the film negative.
• Forward Overlap: The common area on two successive photographs in the flight direction. It is usually expressed in per cent.
• Image Interpretation: It is an act of identifying the images of the objects and judging their relative significance.
• Nadir Point: It is the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the camera lens centre on the ground plane.
• Principal Point: It is the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the camera lens centre on the photo plane.
• Principal Distance: It is the perpendicular distance from the perspective centre to the plane of the photograph.
• Perspective Centre: The point of origin (perspective centre) of the bundle of light rays.
• Photogrammetry: It refers to the science and technology of making reliable measurements from aerial photographs.
• Image Interpretation: It is an art of identifying images of objects and judging their relative significance.
• Tilted Photographs: Any photography with an unintentional deviation of more than 3° in the optical axis from the vertical axis is known as a tilted photograph.
• Optical Axis: While taking aerial photographs, two distinct axes are formed from the camera lens centre, one towards the ground plane and the other towards the photo plane. The perpendicular dropped from the camera lens centre to the ground plane is termed as the vertical axis, whereas the plumb line drawn from the lens centre to the photo plane is known as the photographic/optical axis.
• Low Oblique: An aerial photograph taken with an intentional deviation of 15° to 30° in the camera axis from the vertical axis is referred to as the low oblique photograph.
• High Oblique: The high oblique are photographs obtained when the camera axis is intentionally inclined about 60° from the vertical axis. Such photography is useful in reconnaissance surveys.
• Focal Length: The perpendicular distance between the camera lens and the negative plane is known as the focal length.
• Flying Height: The perpendicular distance between the camera lens and the ground photographed is known as the flying height.
• Parallel Projection: In this projection, the projecting rays are parallel but not necessarily perpendicular.
• Orthogonal Projection: This is a special case of parallel projections. Maps are orthogonal projections of the ground.
• Large Scale Photographs: When the scale of an aerial photograph is 1:15,000 and larger, the photography is classified as large-scale photograph.
• Medium Scale Photographs: The aerial photographs with a scale ranging between 1 : 15,000 and 1 : 30,000 are usually treated as medium scale photographs.
• Small Scale Photographs: The photographs with the scale being smaller than 1: 30,000, are referred to as small scale photographs.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Practical Work in Geography Class 11 Solutions Chapter 6 Introduction to Aerial Photographs appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy

Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark

Question 1.
If all the decisions of a political party are made by a single family and all other members are neglected, then what challenge is being faced by that party? (2015 D)
Answer:
Challenge of deepening of democracy.

Question 2.
Explain the meaning of ‘challenge’. (2017 D)
Answer:
A challenge is a difficulty that carries within it an opportunity for progress.

Short Answer Questions (SA) 3 Marks

Question 3.
Describe in brief the three challenges faced by democracy.
Answer:

1. Foundational challenge. It relates to making the transition to democracy and then instituting democratic government. It involves bringing down the existing non-democratic regime, keeping military away from controlling government and establishing a sovereign and functional State.
2. Challenge of expansion. It involves applying the basic principle of democratic government across all the regions, different social groups and various institutions. It pertains to ensuring greater power to local governments, extension of federal principle to all the units of the federation, inclusion of women and minority groups, etc. Most established democracies, e.g., India and US, face the challenge of expansion.
3. Challenge of deepening of democracy. This challenge involves strengthening of the institutions and practices of democracy. It means strengthening those institutions that help people’s participation and control in the government. It aims at bringing down the control and influence of rich and powerful people in making governmental decisions.

Question 4.
Explain with examples why some laws that seek to ban something are not very successful in politics. (2011 D)
Answer:
Law has an important role to play in political reform. Carefully devised changes in law can help to discourage wrong political practices and encourage good ones. But legal constitutional changes by themselves are not effective, until carried out by political activists, parties, movements and politically conscious citizens. Any legal change must carefully look at what results it will have on politics. Sometimes it can be counter-productive.

For example, many states have banned people who have more than two children from contesting panchayat elections. This has resulted in denial of democratic opportunity to many poor men and women.

The best laws are those which empower the people to carry out democratic reforms. The Right to Information Act is a good example that supplements the existing laws. “Any law for political reforms is a good solution but who will implement it and how”—is the question. It is not necessary that the legislators will pass legislations that go against the interests of the political parties and MPs.

Question 5.
“Legal constitutional changes by themselves cannot overcome challenges to democracy.” Explain with example. (2015 D, 2013 D, 2011 D)
Or
How are the challenges to democracy linked to the possibility of political reforms? Explain.
Or
Suggest any five political reforms to strengthen democracy. (2014 D)
Answer:
As legal constitutional changes by themselves cannot overcome challenges to democracy, democratic reforms need to be carried out mainly by political activists, parties, movements and politically conscious citizens.
(i) Any legal change must carefully look at what results it will have on politics. Generally, laws that seek a ban on something are rather counter-productive;
For example, many states have debarred people who have more than two children from contesting Panchayat elections. This has resulted in denial of democratic opportunity to many poor women, which was not intended. The best laws are those which empower people to carry out democratic reforms; for example, the Right to Information Act which acts as a watchdog of democracy by controlling corruption.

(ii) Democratic reforms are to be brought about principally through political parties. The most important concern should be to increase and improve the quality of political participation by ordinary citizens.

(iii) Any proposal for political reforms should think not only about what is a good solution, but also about who will implement it and how. Measures that rely on democratic movements, citizens’ organizations and media are likely to succeed.

Question 6.
Explain the ‘foundational challenge’ of democracy by stating three points. (2011 D)
Answer:

1. Foundational challenge relates to making the transition to democracy and then instituting democratic government. It involves establishing a sovereign and functional state.
2. It involves bringing down the existing non-democratic regime, keeping military away from controlling government and establishing a civilian control over all governmental institutions by holding elections.
3. It involves the recognition of people’s choice and opportunity to change rulers, recognise people’s will. In countries like Myanmar political leader Suu Kyi has been kept under house arrest for more than 20 years. Thus, in this case, foundational challenge recognizes the need to release political leaders and recall them from exile and holding of multiparty elections.

Question 7.
Explain ‘the challenge of deepening of democracy’ by stating three points. (2012 D, 2014 OD)
Answer:
The challenge of deepening of democracy:

1. This challenge involves strengthening of the institutions and practices of democracy. It means strengthening those institutions that help people’s participation and control in the government.
   The challenge lies in realising the expectations of the people in a democracy. It is possible that some significant decisions may take place through consensus but challenging moments in democracy usually involve conflict between those groups who have power and those who aspire for a share in power. In Bolivia, the water struggle was a challenge of deepening of democracy.
2. The challenge of deepening of democracy is faced by every nation in one form or another. It aims at bringing down the control and influence of the rich and powerful people in making governmental decisions. The need is for individual freedom and dignity to have legal and moral force.

Question 8.
How are some countries of the world facing the ‘challenge of expansion of democracy’? Explain with examples. (2012 D, 2012 OD)
“Most of the established democracies are facing the challenge of expansion.” Support the statement with examples. (2016 D)
Answer:
Most of the established democracies face the challenge of expansion. This involves applying the basic principle of democratic government across all the regions, different social groups and various institutions. Ensuring greater power to local government, extension of federal principle to all the units of federation, inclusion of women and minority groups, etc. falls under this challenge. This means less and less decisions should remain outside the arena of democratic control. Most of the countries including India and the US face this challenge.

Question 9.
Explain with examples how do some countries face foundational challenge of democracy. (2013 OD)
Answer:

1. Foundational challenge relates to making the transition to democracy and then instituting democratic government. It involves establishing a sovereign and functional state.
2. It involves bringing down the existing non-democratic regime, keeping military away from controlling government and establishing a civilian control over all governmental institutions by holding elections. Eg: Nepal, Egypt, Pakistan.
3. In countries like Pakistan, democracy comes for and/ or remains for a short time and gets replaced by dictatorial rule.
4. It involves the recognition of people’s choice and opportunity to change rulers, recognize people’s will. In countries like Myanmar political leader Suu Kyi was kept under house arrest for more than 20 years. Thus, in this case, foundational challenge recognizes the need to release political leaders and recall them from exile and holding of multiparty elections.

Question 10.
Analyse three major challenges before countries which do not have democratic form of governments. (2013 OD)
Answer:
Challenges faced by countries which do not have a democratic form of government:

1. These countries face the foundational challenge of making the transition to democracy and then instituting democratic government.
2. They also face the challenge of bringing down the existing non-democratic regime, and keeping the military away from controlling the government.
3. Such countries have to make great efforts to establish a sovereign and functional State.

Question 11.
Describe in brief the three challenges faced by democracy. (2014 D)
Answer:

1. Foundational challenge. It relates to making the transition to democracy and then instituting democratic government. It involves bringing down the existing non-democratic regime, keeping military away from controlling government and establishing a sovereign and functional State.
2. Challenge of expansion. It involves applying the basic principle of democratic government across all the regions, different social groups and various institutions. It pertains to ensuring greater power to local governments, extension of federal principle to all the units of the federation, inclusion of women and minority groups, etc. Most established democracies, e.g., India and US, face the challenge of expansion.
3. Challenge of deepening of democracy. This challenge involves strengthening of the institutions and practices of democracy. It means strengthening those institutions that help people’s participation and control in the government. It aims at bringing down the control and influence of rich and powerful people in making governmental decisions.

Question 12.
What do you mean by foundational challenge in democracy? What values can help to overcome this challenge? (2014 OD)
Answer:
Transition to democratic institutions from non-democratic regimes, separation of military from governing authority, establishing a sovereign and a functional state can be some of the foundational challenges in democracies.
The values that may help overcome them are:

• honesty
• equality
• freedom

Question 13.
“A challenge is an opportunity for progress.” Support the statement with your arguments. (2015 OD)
Answer:
A challenge is not just any problem. Only those difficulties are a ‘challenge’ which are significant and can be overcome and therefore carry within them an opportunity for progress. Democracy is the dominant form of government in the contemporary world. It does not face a particular challenger, but the promise of democracy is far from realised anywhere in the world. Democracy as a whole faces certain challenges. Legal constitutional changes by themselves cannot help to overcome challenges to democracy—like economic inequality, unemployment, illiteracy, caste, gender discrimination. Democratic reforms can be carried out by political activities, parties, movements and politically conscious citizens, in order to realise the opportunity in a challenge, in order to overcome it an go up to a higher level.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks

Question 14.
How far has India succeeded in overcoming the challenge of expansion before its democracy? Evaluate. (2013 D)
Answer:
Like most of the established democracies of the world, India, too, faces the challenges of expansion.

1. India applies basic principles of democracy across all the regions, different social groups and various institutions.
2. Federal principles have been extended to all the units of the federation giving the right to make laws on the subjects in the state list.
3. Local governments-both rural and urban have been ensured more powers.
4. Reservation of seats has ensured the participation of women, the minority groups, SCs, STs and OBCs in the governance of the country.
5. All the above points mean that less and less decisions are taken outside the arena of democratic control.

Question 15.
Explain any/me major challenges being faced by the Indian democracy. (2014 OD)
Answer:
(i) Politics through religion. Religious communities on their own can find ways of peaceful existence, but increasing political interference has led to a greater religious intolerance. This intolerance
becomes dangerous when politicians interfere with people’s passions. For example, Sectarian tensions mixed with the rivalries of the 2007 elections in Punjab, when activists of various Sikh bodies clashed with the followers of the Sirsa based Dera Sacha Sauda, which had close ties with the Congress Party, over an advertisement the Dera placed in various dailies depicting its chief dressed as Guru Gobind Singh, the 10^th Sikh Guru.

(ii) Caste War. Caste wars are not going to disappear from the democratic map of India because politics is moving consistently on narrow sectarian lines. At present, it is difficult to decide if caste is altering politics or politics is shifting caste equations. For example, caste alienation has been deepened by the reservation for Jats and the government needs to rethink about its reservation policy.

(iii) Remove economic inequality. To remove economic inequality the need is delivery of basic social and physical infrastructure. We still have poor infrastructure, Inspector Raj and labour policy that discourages employment. It is the failure of the State which is a major cause of concern. The present growth is in stride with the rapidly changing global environment but for the poor to really benefit, the country needs more functioning schools and health centres. Our concern in India should be to lift poor people into the middle class.

(iv) Gender division. Gender discrimination and women’s political representation are not given adequate attention. In India proportion of women in legislatures has been very low.

(v) Corruption. The Indian democracy has faced with routine cases of corruption. For example, 2G scam, CWG scam, fodder scam, to mention a few. In substantive terms it may be reasonable to expect from democracy a government that is attentive to the needs and demands of the people and is largely free of corruption. But unfortunately the record of Indian democracy is not impressive and clean.

Question 16.
What are the features a democracy must have to be called a good democracy? (2012 D)
Answer:

1. The rulers elected by the people must take all the major decisions.
2. Elections must offer a choice and a fair opportunity to the people to change the current rulers.
3. Choice and opportunity should be available to all the people on an equal basis.
4. Exercise of choice should lead to a government limited by basic rules of the Constitution and citizen’s rights.
5. Besides political rights, some social and economic rights are offered to the citizens by democracy.
6. Power-sharing is the spirit of democracy and is necessary between government and social groups in a democracy.
7. Democracy is not the brute rule of the majority and respect for minority voice is necessary for a democracy.
8. Elimination of discrimination based on caste, religion and gender is important in a democracy.

Question 17.
“It is very difficult to reform politics through legal ways”. Evaluate the statement. (2017 OD)
Answer:
Law plays an important role in bringing change in democratic policies. Properly legislated law can put down the wrong political practices and encourage constructive ones. But on the other hand, only devised law cannot improve or reform democracy. In practice, it all depends on the political leaders, awareness of the citizens, participation of pressure groups and movements.

As legal constitutional changes by themselves cannot overcome challenges to democracy, democratic reforms need to be carried out mainly by political activists, parties, movements and politically conscious citizens —

1. Any legal change must carefully look at what results it will have on politics. Generally, laws that seek a ban on something are rather counter-productive;
   For example, many states have debarred people who have more than two children from contesting Panchayat elections. This has resulted in denial of democratic opportunity to many poor women, which was not intended. The best laws are those which empower people to carry out democratic reforms; for example, the Right to Information Act which acts as a watchdog of democracy by controlling corruption.
2. Democratic reforms are to be brought about principally through political parties. The most important concern should be to increase and improve the quality of political participation by ordinary citizens. (HI) Any proposal for political reforms should think not only about what is a good solution, but also about who will implement it and how. Measures that rely on democratic movements, citizens’ organizations and media are likely to succeed.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions

The post Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Practical Work in Geography Class 11 Solutions Chapter 8 Introduction to Aerial Photographs

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 8 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

Question 1(i).
Which department prepares the weather map of India for each day?
(a) The World Meteorological Organisation
(b) The Indian Meteorological Department
(c) The Survey of India
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) The Indian Meteorological Department

Question 1(ii).
Which two liquids are used in maximum and minimum thermometers?
(a) Mercury and water
(b) Water and alcohol
(c) Mercury and alcohol
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Mercury and alcohol

Question 1(iii).
Lines connecting the places of equal pressure are called
(a) Isobars
(b) Isohyets
(c) Isotherms
(d) Isohels.
Answer:
(a) Isobars

Question 1(iv).
The primary tool for weather forecasting is
(a) Thermometer
(b) Barometer
(c) Maps
(d) Weather charts.
Answer:
(d) Weather charts

Question 1(v).
If there is more humidity in the air, the difference between the readings of a dry bulb and a wet bulb will be
(a) Less
(b) More
(c) Equal
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Less.

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

Question 2(i).
What are the basic elements of weather?
Answer:
The weather elements include temperature, pressure, wind, humidity and cloudiness.

Question 2(ii).
What is a weather chart?
Answer:
The data received from various weather observatories are in plenty and detailed. Therefore, they cannot be incorporated in one single chart unless the coding designed to give the economy of expression is used. These are called synoptic weather charts and the codes used are called meteorological symbols.

Question 2(iii).
Which instruments are normally available in Class-I observatory to measure the weather phenomena?
Answer:
The highest category is Class-I. Typical instrumental facility available in a Class-I observatory consists of the following:

• Maximum and minimum thermometers
• Anemometer and wind vane
• Dry and Wet bulb thermometer
• Rain gauge
• Barometer

Observations are taken in these observatories normally at 00,03,06,09, 12,15,18,21 hours (Greenwich Mean Time) around the globe. However, for logistic reasons, some of the observatories take limited number of daily observations upper air observation during daytime only.

Question 2(iv).
What are Isotherms?
Answer:
These are lines connecting places of equal temperature.

Question 2(v).
Which meteorological symbols are used to mark the following on a weather map?
(a) Rain
(b) Mist
(c) Sunshine
(d) Lightning
(e) Overcast Sky
Answer:

3. Answer the following question in not more than 125 words.
Discuss how weather maps and charts are prepared and how they are useful to us.
Answer:
Weather Maps: A weather map is the representation of weather phenomena of the earth or a part of it on a flat surface. It depicts conditions associated with different weather elements such as temperature, rainfall, sunshine and cloudiness, direction and velocity of winds, etc. on a particular day. These observations being taken at fixed hours are transmitted by code to the forecasting stations. The central office keeps a record of the observations, which forms
the basis for making a weather map. The upper air observations which are procured from hill stations, aeroplanes, pilot balloons, etc. are plotted separately.

Indian Meteorological Department is getting the weather maps and charts prepared regularly. Meteorological observatories transmit the data to the Central Observatory at Pune twice a day. Data is also collected on ships plying on the Indian seas. A good progress has been made in the field of weather forecasting and observation with the establishment of weather observatories in Antarctica, the International Indian Ocean Expedition, and the launching of rockets and weather satellites.

Utility:

• Weather maps help us to predict weather.
• Weather forecasting helps farmers, fishermen, soldiers, navigators and pilots in many ways.
• Disaster management is not possible without weather maps and charts. Weather Charts: The data received from various weather observatories are in plenty and detailed. As such, they cannot be incorporated in one single chart unless the coding designed to give the economy of expression is used. These are called synoptic weather charts and the codes used are called meteorological symbols.
•  Utility:
  • Weather charts provide the primary tools for weather forecasting.
  • They help in locating and identifying different air masses, pressure systems, fronts and areas of precipitation.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 8 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 8 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following element of weather is measured through dry and wet thermometer?
(a) Temperature
(b) Humidity
(c) Pressure
(d) Wind Velocity.
Answer:
(b) Humidity

Question 2.
Weather charts are shown:
(a) Through Coding
(b) Through Information System
(c) Through Millibar
(d) Through Pressure Instruments.
Answer:
(a) Through coding

Question 3.
Which unit is used for measuring pressure?
(a) Centigrade
(b) Millibar
(c) Millimeter
(d) Centimeter.
Answer:
(b) Millibar

Question 4.
Weather charts do not help to recognize:
(a) Air masses
(b) Pressure systems
(c) Fronts
(d) Fog.
Answer:
(d) Fog

Question 5.
(a) What is the air pressure at sea level under normal condition?
(а) 500 gram per sq centimeter
(b) 800 gram per sq centimeter
(c) 1.03 kg per sq centimeter
(d) 2.06 kg per sq centimeter.
Answer:
(c) 1.03 kg per sq centimeter

Question 6.
Where are Central Observatory of India located?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Pune
(c) Kolkata
(d) Chennai.
Answer:
(b) Pune

Question 7.
These are lines connecting places of same mean’ daily duration of sunshine. What are these lines called?
(a) Isobars
(b) Isohyets
(c) Isotherms
(d) Isohels.
Answer:
(d) Isohels

Question 8.
What are lines connecting places of equal amount of rainfall over a given period of time called?
(a) Isobars
(b) Isohyets
(c) Isotherms
(d) Isohels.
Answer:
(b) Isohyets

Question 9.
What are the lines connecting places of same pressure called?
(a) Isobars
(b) Isohyets
(c) Isotherms
(d) Isohels.
Answer:
(a) Isobars

Question 10.
What are the lines connecting places of same mean value of cloud cover called?
(a) Isobars
(b) Isohyets
(c) Isonephs
(d) Isobits.
Answer:
(c) Isonephs.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 8 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define the word weather.
Answer:
Weather denotes the atmospheric conditions of weather elements at a particular place and time.

Question 2.
What are basic elements of weather? Answer: The weather elements include temperature, pressure, wind, humidity and cloudiness.

Question 3.
How is relative humidity calculated?
Answer: In simple words, we can say that relative humidity is expressed in ratio or percentage of total moist absorbing capacity of air.
It is calculated by using following formula:

For example, if humidity at a place is 5 gm while it has the capacity of absorbing 10 gm humidity at that temperature. Then we can say that relative humidity is 50%.

Question 4.
What are weather maps?
Answer:
A weather map is the representation of weather phenomena of the earth or a part of it on a flat surface. It depicts conditions associated with different weather elements such as temperature, rainfall, sunshine and cloudiness, direction and velocity of winds, etc. on a particular day.

Question 5.
What is the utility of weather charts?
Answer:
Weather charts provide the primary tools for weather forecasting. They help in locating and identifying different air ‘ masses, pressure systems, fronts and areas of precipitation.

Question 6.
When and why was first weather map drawn?
Answer:
First of all need for weather map was felt by boatmen. N 1688, Admond Hally drew first weather map for 30° North and 30° South latitude.

Question 7.
What are three levels for recording meteorological observations worldwide?
Answer:
Globally, meteorological observations are recorded at three levels, viz. surface observatories, upper air observatories and space-based observation platforms. The World Meteorological Organization (WMO), a specialised agency of the United Nations, coordinates these observations.

Question 8.
What is aneroid barometer?
Answer:
Aneroid barometer gets its name from the Greek word, aneros in which ‘a’ means ‘not’, neros means moisture, hence aneroid means without liquid. It is a compact and portable instrument. It consists of a corrugated metal box made up of a thin alloy, sealed completely and made airtight after partial exhaustion of air.

Question 9.
Explain about rain gauge.
Answer:
The amount of rainfall is measured with the help of a rain gauge. The rain gauge consists of a metal cylinder on which a circular funnel is fitted. The diameter of the funnel’s rim is normally 20 cm. The rain drops are collected and measured in a measuring glass. Normally, rainfall is measured in the units of millimetres or centimetres. Snow is also measured in a similar manner by turning it into liquid form.

Question 10.
On what elements of weather does INS AT provide observations?
Answer:
The Indian National Satellite (INSAT) provides valuable observations of temperature, cloud cover, wind and associated weather phenomena.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 8 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is weather forecasting useful for different groups?
Answer:
Weather forecasting is very important for all groups:

• Weather forecasts help in taking safety measures in advance in case of the likelihood of bad weather.
• It reduces the likely loss from natural calamities. Had tsunami been predicted in advance, the loss that happened could be minimized to a great extent.
• Predicting weather a few days in advance may prove very useful to farmers and to the crew of ships, pilots, fishermen, defence personnel, etc.

Question 2.
Explain in short about Wind Vane.
Answer:
Purpose: Wind vane is a device used to measure the direction of the wind. Structure: The wind vane is a light-weight revolving plate with an arrowhead on one end and two metal plates attached to the other end at the same angle. This revolving plate is mounted on a rod in such a manner that it is free to rotate on a horizontal plane. It responds even to a slight blow of wind.
Important Aspect: The arrow always points towards the direction from which the wind blows.

Question 3.
Explain in short about Anemometer.
Answer: An anemometer is an instrument that measures wind speed and wind pressure. Anemometers are important tools for meteorologists, who study weather patterns. They are also important to the work of physicists, who study the way air moves. The most common type of anemometer has three or four cups attached to horizontal arms. The arms are attached to a vertical rod. As the wind blows, the cups rotate, making the rod spin. The stronger the wind blows, the faster the rod spins. The anemometer counts the number of rotations, or turns, which is used to calculate wind speed. Because wind speeds are not consistent—there are gusts and lulls-wind speed is usually averaged over a short period of time.

A similar type of anemometer counts the revolutions made by windmill-style blades. The rod of windmill anemometers rotates horizontally. Other anemometers calculate wind speed in different ways. A hot-wire anemometer takes advantage of the fact that air cools a heated object when it flows over it.

Question 4.
How do Weather observatories work in India?
Answer:
Each day weather maps are prepared for that day by the Meteorological Department from the data obtained from observations made at various weather stations across the world. In India, weather-related information is collected and published under the auspices of the Indian Meteorological Department, New Delhi, which is also responsible for weather forecasting.

The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) was established in 1875, with its headquarters at Calcutta. The IMD headquarters are presently located at New Delhi.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Stevenson Screen.
Answer:
The Stevenson screen is designed to protect thermometers from precipitation and direct sunlight while allowing air to circulate freely around them. Formation: It is made from wood with louvered sides to allow free and even flow of air. It is painted white to reflect radiation. It stands on four legs and is about 3 feet 6 inches above the level of the ground. The legs must be sufficiently rigid and be buried sufficiently in the ground to prevent shaking.

The front panel is hinged at the bottom to form a door, which allows for maintenance and reading of the thermometers. The door of Stevenson screen is always towards the north in the northern hemisphere and towards the south in the southern hemisphere because direct sunrays also affect mercury.

Objective: The purpose of the Stevenson screen is to create a uniform temperature enclosure that closely represents the same temperature as the air outside.

Question 6.
What is aneroid barometer? How does it work?
Answer:
Aneroid barometer gets its name from the Greek word, aneros in which ‘a’ means ‘not’, ‘neros’ means ‘moisture’, hence aneroid means without liquid. It is a compact and portable instrument. It consists of a corrugated metal box made up of a thin alloy, sealed completely and made airtight after partial exhaustion of air.

It has a thin flexible lid, which is sensitive to changes of pressure. As the pressure increases, the lid is pressed inward, and this, in turn, moves a system of levers connected to a pointer, which moves clockwise over the graduated dial and gives higher reading. When the pressure decreases, the lid is pushed outward and the pointer moves counter clockwise, indicating lower pressure. Barograph works on the principle of aneroid barometer.

There are a number of vacuum boxes placed one above the other so that the displacement is large. A system of levers magnifies this movement which is recorded by a pen on a paper attached to a rotating drum. The readings of a barograph are not always accurate, and therefore, they are standardised by comparing them with a mercury barometer reading.

Question 7.
Explain about surface observatory in detail.
Answer:
A typical surface observatory has instruments for measuring and recording weather elements like temperature (maximum and minimum), air pressure,humidity, clouds, wind and rainfall. Information: Specialised observatories record elements like radiation, ozone atmospheric trace gases, pollution and atmospheric electricity. These observations are taken all over the globe at fixed times of the day as decided by the WMO and the use of instruments are made conforming to international standards, thus making observations globally compatible.

Different types of surface observatories in India: In India, meteorological observations are normally classified into five categories depending upon their instruments and the number of daily observations taken. The highest category is Class-I. Typical instrumental facility available in a Class-I observatory consists of the following: Maximum and minimum thermometers, Anemometer, and wind vane, Dry and Wet bulb thermometer, Rain gauge and Barometer.

Question 8.
Differentiate between:

(i) Wet bulb and dry bulb,
Answer:
The dry bulb and wet bulb thermometers are two identical thermometers fixed to a wooden frame. But they are different in following way:

(ii) Aneroid Barometer and Mercury Barometer.
Answer:

(iii) Centigrade and the Fahrenheit.
Answer:
Both are units of measuring temperature but they have some differences.

Centigrade	Fahrenheit
On the Centigrade thermometer, the temperature of melting ice is marked 0°C and that of boiling water as 100°C, and the interval between the two is divided into 100 equal parts.	On the Fahrenheit thermometer, the freezing and boiling points of water are graduated as 32°F and 212°F respectively.
Centigrade = (Fahrenheit -32)	Fahrenheit= Centigrade × +32

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 8 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How is information about weather and related facts collected organized and dispensed in India?
Answer: In India, weather-related information is collected and published under the auspices of the Indian Meteorological Department, New Delhi, which is also responsible for weather forecasting.

A typical surface observatory has instruments for measuring and recording weather elements like temperature (maximum and minimum), air pressure, humidity, clouds, wind and rainfall. Specialised observatories also record elements like radiation, ozone atmospheric trace gases, pollution and atmospheric electricity. These observations are taken all over the globe at fixed times of the day as decided by the WMO and the use of instruments are made conforming to international standards, thus making observations globally compatible. In India, meteorological observations are normally classified into five categories depending upon their instruments and the number of daily observations taken. The highest category is Class-I.

Typical instrumental facility available in a Class-I observatory consists of the following:

• Maximum and minimum thermometers
• Anemometer and wind vane
• Dry and Wet bulb thermometer
• Rain gauge
• Barometer

Observations are taken in these observatories normally at 00,03,06,09, 12,15,18,21 hours (Greenwich Mean Time) around the globe. However, for logistic reasons, some of the observatories take limited number of daily observations upper air observation during daytime only.

Weather satellites make comprehensive and large-scale observations of different meteorological elements at the ground level as well in the upper layers of the atmosphere. The geo-stationary satellites provide space-based observations about weather conditions. The Indian National Satellite (INSAT) provides valuable observations of temperature, cloud cover, wind and associated weather phenomena.

Question 2.
Explain the working of a barometer.
Answer:
The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is called a barometer. The unit of measurement is in the millibar. The most commonly used barometers are the mercury barometer, aneroid barometer and barographs. All the three work differently. Their working is explained below briefly:

1. Mercury barometer: It is an accurate instrument and is used as a standard. In it the atmospheric pressure of any place is balanced against the weight of a column of mercury in an inverted glass tube.

2.Aneroid barometer: It is a compact and portable instrument. It consists of a corrugated metal box made up of a thin alloy, sealed completely and made airtight after partial exhaustion of air. It has a thin flexible lid, which is sensitive to changes of pressure. As the pressure increases, the lid is pressed inward, and this, in turn, moves a system of levers connected to a pointer, which moves clockwise over the graduated dial and gives higher reading. When the pressure decreases, the lid is pushed outward and the pointer moves counter clockwise, indicating lower pressure.

3. Barograph: It works on the principle of aneroid barometer. There are a number of vacuum boxes placed one above the other so that the displacement is large. A system of levers magnifies this movement which is recorded by a pen on a paper attached to a rotating drum. The readings of a barograph are not
always accurate, and therefore, they are standardised by comparing them with a mercury barometer reading.

Question 3.
Write short notes on the following:
(i) Safe place for a thermometer
(ii) Indian Daily Weather report
Answer:
(i) Safe place for thermometer: It is not safe to keep a thermometer in sunlight. We should also not keep it in airtight surroundings. The Stevenson screen is designed to protect thermometers from precipitation and direct sunlight while allowing air to circulate freely around them. It is made from wood with louvered sides to allow free and even flow of air. It is painted white to reflect radiation. The purpose of the Stevenson screen is to create a uniform temperature enclosure that closely represents the same temperature as the air outside.

It stands on four legs and is about 3 feet 6 inches above the level of the ground. The legs must be sufficiently rigid and be buried sufficiently in the ground to prevent shaking. The front panel is hinged at the bottom to form a door, which allows for maintenance and reading of the thermometers. The door of Stevenson screen is always towards the north in the northern hemisphere and towards the south in the southern hemisphere because direct sunrays also affect mercury.

(ii) Indian Daily Weather Report: IMD became a member of the World Meteorological Organization after independence on 27 April 1949. The agency has gained in prominence due to the significance of the monsoon rains on Indian agriculture. It plays a vital role in preparing the annual monsoon forecast, as well as in tracking the progress of the monsoon across India every season.

IMD undertakes observations, communications, forecasting and weather services. In collaboration with the Indian Space Research Organisation, the IMD also uses the IRS series and the Indian National Satellite System (INSAT) for weather monitoring of the Indian subcontinent. IMD was the first weather bureau of a developing country to develop and maintain its own satellite system. IMD is one of the 6 worldwide Regional Specialized Meteorological Centers of the Tropical Cyclone Programme of the World Weather Watch of the World Meteorological Organization. It is regional nodal agency for forecasting, naming and disseminating warnings about tropical cyclone in the Indian Ocean north of the Equator.

Question 4.
Explain the history of weather forecasting in India.
Answer:
In 1686, Edmond Halley published his treatise on the Indian summer monsoon, which he attributed to a seasonal reversal of winds due to the differential heating of the Asian land mass and the Indian Ocean. The first meteorological observatories were established in India by the British East India Company. These included the Calcutta Observatory in 1785, the Madras Observatory in 1796 and the Colaba Observatory in 1826. Several other observatories were established in India during the first half of the 19th century by various provincial governments.

After a tropical cyclone hit Calcutta in 1864, and the subsequent famines in 1866 and 1871 due to the failure of the monsoons, it was decided to organise the collection and analysis of meteorological observations under one roof.
As a result, the Indian Meteorology Department was established in 1875. Henry Francis Blanford was appointed the first Meteorological Reporter of the IMD. In May 1889,Sir John Eliot was appointed the first Director General of Observatories in the erstwhile capital, Calcutta. The IMD headquarters were later shifted to Shimla in 1905, then to Pune in 1928 and finally to New Delhi in 1944.

Question 5.
Explain about the instruments used to measure atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
A barometer is a scientific instrument used in meteorology to measure atmospheric pressure. A simple barometer consists of a long glass tube (closed at one end, open at the other) filled with mercury and turned upside down into a container of mercury. The barometer works by balancing the mercury in the glass tube against the outside air pressure, just like a set of scales. As air pressure increases—that is, as the air becomes heavier—it pushes more of the mercury up into the tube. As air pressure decreases, more of the mercury drains from the tube. So the level of mercury in the tube provides a precise measure of air pressure.

Mercury barometer is . an accurate instrument and is used as a standard. In it the atmospheric pressure of any place is balanced against the weight of a column of mercury in an inverted glass tube. Aneroid barometer is a compact and portable instrument. It consists of a corrugated metal box made up of a thin alloy, sealed completely and made airtight after partial exhaustion of air. It has a thin flexible lid, which is sensitive to changes of pressure. As the pressure increases, the lid is pressed inward, and this, in turn, moves a system of levers connected to a pointer, which moves clockwise over the graduated dial and gives higher reading.

When the pressure decreases, the lid is pushed outward and the pointer moves counter clockwise, indicating lower pressure. Barograph works on the principle of aneroid barometer. There are a number of vacuum boxes placed one above the other so that the displacement is large. A system of levers magnifies this movement which is recorded by a pen on a paper attached to a rotating drum. The readings of a barograph are not always accurate, and therefore, they are standardised by comparing them with a mercury barometer reading.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 8 Viva Questions

Question 1.
When was IMD established?
Answer:
The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) was established in 1875.

Question 2.
When was the headquarter of IMD established? Where is it located now?
Answer:
In 1875, it was established with its headquarters at Calcutta. The IMD headquarters are presently located at New Delhi.

Question 3.
What is the air pressure at sea level under normal condition?
Answer: At the sea level, under normal conditions, the pressure of air is 1.03 kg per square centimetre.

Question 4.
Name the instrument used to measure:
(a) Air temperature.
(b) Direction of the wind.
(c) Atmospheric pressure
(d) Amount of rainfall
Answer:
(a) Thermometer
(b) wind vane
(c) Barometer
(d) Rain Gauge

Question 5.
Name the lines connecting:
(a) Places of equal air pressure.
(b) Places of equal temperature
(c) Places of equal amount of rainfall
(d) Places having the same mean values of temperature, rainfall, pressure, sunshine, clouds, etc.
(e) Places of same mean daily duration of sunshine.
(f) Places of same mean value of cloud cover.
Answer:
(a) Isobar
(b) Isotherms
(c) Isohyets
(d) Isopleth
(e) Isohels
(f) Isonephs

Map Skills

Study the Figures 1 and 2 and answer the following questions.


(a) Which seasons are shown in these maps?
Answer:
These maps are showing winter season and monsoon season.

(b) What is the value of the highest isobar in Figure 1 and through which part of the country does it pass?
Answer:
The value of highest isobar in figure 1 is 1010 millibar and it is passing through south¬west part of the country.

(c) What are the values of the highest and the lowest isobars in Figure 2 and where are they located?
Answer:
The value of highest isobar in figure 2 is 1020 millibar and lowest isobar is 1013 millibar. Highest values are located in Lakshadweep and coastal areas of Kerala and lowest is located in Pakistan.

(d) What are the patterns of temperature distribution in both the maps?
Answer:
In figure 1, the temperature of July in South India is 20° and temperature of North India is between 20° to 30°. In figure 2 the temperature of January in North India is between 10° to 15° and temperature of South India is between 20° to 25°.

(e) In which parts do you see the highest and the lowest mean temperature in Figure 1?
Answer:
In figure 1, we can see highest mean temperature in North India and lowest mean temperature in South India.

(f) What relationship do you see between the distribution of temperature and pressure in both the maps?
Answer:
As temperature increases, pressure decreases and vice

Weather Instruments, Maps and Charts Notes

• Weather denotes the atmospheric conditions of weather elements at a particular place and time. The weather elements include temperature, pressure, wind, humidity and cloudiness.
• Each day weather maps are prepared for that day by the Meteorological Department from the data obtained from observations made at various weather stations across the world.
• The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) was established in 1875, with its headquarters at Calcutta. The IMD headquarters are presently located at New Delhi.
• Weather forecast helps us to take preventive action for bad weather in advance. Some time
  ago weather forecasting was used at a large scale by farmers, fishers, boatmen, pilot, ship navigators, soldiers, etc.

The wind vane is a lightweight revolving plate with an arrowhead on one end and two metal plates attached to the other end at the same angle. This revolving plate is mounted on a rod in such a manner that it is free to rotate on a horizontal plane. It responds even to a slight blow of wind. The arrow always points towards the direction from which the wind blows.

The amount of rainfall is measured with the help of a rain gauge. The rain gauge consists of a metal cylinder on which a circular funnel is fitted. The diameter of the funnel’s rim is normally 20 cm. The rain drops are collected and measured in a measuring glass. Normally, rainfall is measured in the units of millimetres or centimetres. Snow is also measured in a similar manner by turning it into liquid form.

Thermometer is used to measure air temperature. Most thermometers are in the form of a narrow closed glass tube with an expanded bulb at one end. The bulb and the lower part of the tube are filled with liquid such as mercury or alcohol. Before the other end is sealed off, the air in the tube is released by heating it. The bulb of the thermometer in contact with the air gets heated or cooled, as the case may be, as a result of which the mercury in the bulb rises or falls. A scale is marked on the glass tube and readings are taken from there.

The two most common scales used in thermometers are Centigrade and the Fahrenheit. On the Centigrade thermometer, the temperature of melting ice is marked 0°C and that of boiling water as 100°C, and the interval between the two is divided into 100 equal parts. On the Fahrenheit thermometer, the freezing and boiling points of water are graduated as 32°F and 212°F respectively.

While the maximum thermometer and minimum thermometer are used to measure the air temperature, the dry bulb and the wet bulb thermometers are used to determine the humidity in the air. A set of these thermometers is kept in the Stevenson Screen.

The maximum thermometer is designed to record the highest temperature during a day. As the temperature increases, the mercury moves up into the tube; however, as the mercury cools, it cannot move downwards because of a constriction in the tube. It must be reset again to bring it down. The minimum thermometer records the lowest reading in a day. In this thermometer, alcohol is used in place of mercury. When the temperature decreases, the metal pin in the tube goes down and strikes at the minimum temperature.

The air around us has weight, and it exerts great pressure on the earth’s surface. At the sea level, under normal conditions, the pressure of air is 1.03 kg per square centimetre. Due to constant movement of air, change in temperature and variation in its vapour content, the weight of the air changes continuously with time and place. The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is called a barometer.

The most commonly used barometers are the mercury barometer, aneroid barometer and barographs. The unit of measurement is in the millibar.
Globally, meteorological observations are recorded at three levels, viz. surface observatories, upper air observatories and space-based observation platforms. The World Meteorological Organization (WMO), a specialised agency of the United Nations, coordinates these observations.

A typical surface observatory has iiistruments for measuring and recording weather elements like temperature (maximum and minimum), air pressure, humidity, clouds, wind and rainfall. Specialised observatories also record elements like radiation, ozone atmospheric trace gases, pollution and atmospheric electricity. These observations are taken all over the globe at fixed times of the day as decided by the WMO and the use of instruments are made conforming to international standards, thus making observations globally compatible.

Weather Instruments, Maps and Charts Important Terms

• Weather: The condition of the atmosphere at a given place and time with respect to atmospheric pressure, temperature, humidity, precipitation, cloudiness and wind is called weather.
• Weather Elements: Pressure, temperature, humidity, precipitation, cloudiness and wind are known as weather elements.
• Weather Forecast: It is weather prediction with a reasonable amount of certainty about the conditions of weather that would prevail in the coming 12 to 48 hours in a certain area.
• Thermometer: Thermometer is used to measure air temperature.
• Wind Vane: Wind vane is a device used to measure the direction of the wind.
• Barometer: The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is called a barometer.
• Rain Gauge: The amount of rainfall is measured with the help of a rain gauge.
• Weather Maps: A weather map is the representation of weather phenomena of the earth or a part of it on a flat surface. It depicts conditions associated with different weather elements such as temperature, rainfall, sunshine and cloudiness, direction and velocity of winds, etc. on a particular day.
• Weather Symbols: These are standard symbols used to convey messages received from all the observatories for plotting on the map. These are standardised by the World Meteorological Organisation and the National Weather Bureaus.
• Isopleth: Isopleth can be interpolated for places having the same mean values of temperature, rainfall, pressure, sunshine, clouds, etc.
• Isobars: These are lines connecting places of equal air pressure.
• Isotherms: These are lines connecting places of equal temperature.
• Isohyets: These are lines connecting places of equal amount of rainfall over a given period of time. ‘
• Isohels: These are lines connecting places of same mean daily duration of sunshine.
• Isonephs: Lines connecting places of same mean value of cloud cover.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Practical Work in Geography Class 11 Solutions Chapter 8 Weather Instruments, Maps and Charts appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 4 Human Settlements

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answers of the followings from the given options:

Question 1.(i)
Which one of the following towns is NOT located on a river bank?
(a) Agra
(b) Bhopal
(c) Patna
(d) Kolkata
Answer:
(b) Bhopal

Question 1.(ii)
Which one of the following is NOT the part of the definition of a town as per the census of India?
(a) Population density of 400 persons per sq km.
(b) Presence of municipality, corporation, etc.
(c) More than 75% of the population engaged in primary sector.
(d) Population size of more than 5,000 persons.
Answer:
(c) More than 75% of the population engaged in primary sector.

Question 1.(iii)
In which one of the following environments does one expect the presence of dispersed rural settlements?
(a) Alluvial plains of Ganga
(b) Arid and semi-arid regions of Rajasthan
(c) Lower valleys of Himalayas
(d) Forests and hills in north-east
Answer:
(d) Forests and hills in north-east

Question 1.(iv)
Which one of the following group of cities have been arranged in the sequence of their ranks i.e. 1, 2, 3 and 4 in size?
(a) Greater Mumbai, Bangalore, Kolkata, Chennai
(b) Delhi, Greater Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata
(c) Kolkata, Greater Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata
(d) Greater Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai
Answer:
(d) Greater Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
What are garrisson towns? What is their function?
Answer:
Garrison towns are the towns whose formation is a result of the setting up of a military base. They are also referred to as cantonment towns. Ambala, Mhow, etc can be referred to as garrison towns. The main function of the garrison towns is to cater to the needs of defence and people employed in defence services of the nation. These are specially designed for the purpose of military, navy or airforce activities.

Question 2.(ii)
How can one identify an urban agglomeration?
Answer:
An urban agglomeration consists of any one of the following three combinations:

• a town and its adjoining urban outgrowths,
• two or more contiguous towns with or without their outgrowths, and
• a city and one or more adjoining towns with their outgrowths together forming a contiguous spread.

Examples of urban outgrowth are railway colonies, university campus, port area, military cantonment, etc. located within the revenue limits of a village or villages contiguous to the town or city.

Question 2.(iii)
What are the main factors for the location of villages in desert regions?
Answer:
Desert regions are characterized by aridity that is lack of water, hence scanty vegetation which is xerophytic in nature. Main factor in the desert for settlement patterns is supply of water. In Rajasthan in India there tend to be clustered settlements around oasis and other regions of water availability. Since these are the only few regions where water is available, therefore settlement around the water source become clustered and is the main driving force for habitation.

Question 2.(iv)
What are metropolitan cities? How are they different from urban agglomerations?
Answer:
According to census of India the cities with population between 1 to 5 million are termed as metropolitan cities. An urban agglomeration is a stretch of urban area which may comprise two or more cities. Many of the metropolitan cities of India are basically urban agglomeration.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
Discuss the features of different types of rural settlements. What are the factors responsible for the settlement patterns in different physical environments?
Answer:
In India compact or clustered village of a few hundred houses is common, particularly in the northern plains. But, there are areas, with other forms of rural settlements. There are various factors and conditions responsible for having different types of rural settlements in India. These include:

• physical features – nature of terrain, altitude, climate and availability of water
• cultural and ethnic factors – social structure, caste and religion
• security factors – defense against thefts and robberies. Guided by these factors rural settlements in India can broadly

be put into four types:

• Clustered, agglomerated or nucleated,
• Semi-clustered or fragmented,
• Hamleted, and
• Dispersed or isolated.

Clustered Settlements: The clustered rural settlement is a compact or closely built . up area of houses. Here the general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, barns and pastures. The closely built-up area and its intervening streets give rise to pattern or geometric shape, such as rectangular, radial, linear, etc. These are generally found in fertile alluvial plains and in the northeastern states. People live in compact village for security or defence reasons, such as in the Bundelkhand region of central India and in Nagaland. In Rajasthan, scarcity of water has necessitated compact settlement for maximum utilisation of available water resources.

Semi-Clustered Settlements: Semi-clustered or fragmented settlements may result from tendency of clustering in a restricted area of dispersed settlement. In this case, one or more sections of the village society choose or is forced to live a little away from the main cluster or village. Generally, the land-owning and dominant community occupies the central part of the main village, whereas people of lower strata of society and menial workers settle on the outer flanks of the village.

Hamleted Settlements: This settlement is fragmented into several units physically separated from each other bearing a common name. These units are locally • called panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani, etc. in various parts of the country. This segmentation of a large village is often due to social and ethnic factors.

Dispersed Settlements: Dispersed or isolated settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles, or on small hills with farms or pasture on the slopes. Extreme dispersion of settlement is often caused by extremely fragmented nature of the terrain and land resource base of habitable areas.

Question 3.(ii)
Can one imagine the presence of only one-function town? Why do the cities become multi-functional?
Answer:
Towns and cities are generally classified on the basis of the functions they perform. No town performs a single function, rather they are classified on the basis of the dominant function they perform. Even specialised cities, as they grow into metropolises become multifunctional wherein industry, business, administration, transport, etc. become important. The functions get so intertwined that the city can not be categorised in a particular functional class. Due to varying needs of human beings all the people of a town cannot be engaged in a single activity. Even if a town is a garrison town, basic trade activities must be carried out to provide the residents with the articles of day to day need, food items etc. To support the dominant activity of the town, the ancillary activities start emerging.

Mumbai is a transport town due to presence of port in Mumbai but it is also hub of international trade in India, hence is a trade town, Also it is the commercial capital of the country due to varying commercial activities, which are a result of the presence of large capital in the city because of it being a trading town and a port city. Therefore the presence of a dominant of a single function also attracts people to the town, which in turn create conditions conducive for development of other functions hence, towns become multifunctional. The functions performed in a town are extremely dynamic, new functions keep’ on adding and old functions getting linked with each other. Therefore, in modern economies no town can be a single functioned town.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define human settlements.
Answer:
Human settlement means cluster of dwellings of any type or size where human beings live. It involves grouping of people and apportioning of territory as a resource base.

Question 2 .
Which factors help in determining types of settlement?
Answer:
Types of settlement are determined by the extent of the built up area and inter house distance.

Question 3.
Define and name an ancient town.
Answer:
Ancient towns are over 2000 years old with a historical background and developed as religious and cultural centres. Varanasi, Prayag, Pataliputra, Madurai are examples of ancient towns.

Question 4.
Which are the medieval towns of India?
Answer:
Some medieval towns of India are Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Agra, Lucknow, Nagpur, etc.

Question 5.
Why did the foreigners first establish the modern towns in India?
Answer:
Foreigners first developed trading ports to get their foothold like Surat, Daman, Puducherry, Goa.

Question 6.
What percentage of people in India live in urban centers?
Answer:
31.16% people live in urban centers in India.

Question 7.
How is level of urbanization measured?
Answer:
Level of urbanization is measured in terms of percentage of urban population to total population.

Question 8.
How many million plus cities are there in India? Name the largest and the smallest one.
Answer:
As per 2011 census, there are 53 million plus cities/ urban agglomerations in India. The largest million plus city in India is Mumbai and the smallest is Kota.

Question 9.
What can be the size of human settlement?
Answer:
The size of settlement ranges from a hamlet in rural areas to metropolitan cities.

Question 10.
Classify the human settlements on the basis of economic activities.
Answer:
On the basis of economic activities, human settlements are of two types:

• Rural Settlement
• Urban Settlement

Question 11.
Define urban settlements.
Answer:
Settlements are generally compact and longer in size with the main population engaged in non-agricultural, economic and administrative functions.

Question 12.
Name different types of rural settlements.
Answer:
Types of rural settlements:

• Clustered, agglomerated or nucleated,
• Semi-clustered or fragmented,
• Hamleted, and
• Dispersed or isolated.

Question 13.
What are different categories of Indian towns on the basis of history?
Answer:
On the basis of history, Indian towns have been categorized into:

• Ancient Towns
• Medieval Towns
• Modern Towns

Question 14.
Which towns have developed in India after independence?
Answer:
Modern towns have developed in India after independence. The British and other Europeans have developed a number of towns in India. They first developed some trading ports such as Surat, Daman, Goa, Puducherry, Mumbai (Bombay), Chennai (Madras), and Kolkata (Calcutta).

Question 15.
Name the ancient towns of India.
Answer:
Prayag (Allahabad), Pataliputra (Patna), Madurai, etc. are some of the examples of the ancient towns of India.

Question 16.
Name those towns which have become mega cities.
Answer:
Greater Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai, Bangalore and Hyderabad are mega cities in the country.

Question 17.
Name the biggest urban agglomeration of India.
Answer:
Greater Mumbai is the largest urban agglomeration with 16.4 million people.

Question 18.
On the basis of census, in how many categories have towns of India been divided?
Answer:
On the basis of census, towns have been classified into six categories.

Question 19.
What is a metropolitan city?
Answer:
It is a city with population of 1 million to 5 million.

Question 20.
Are towns static in their functions?
Answer:
Cities are not static in their functions and functions change due to their dynamic nature. Even specialized cities, as they grow in metros become multi functional where industries business, administration, transport become important.

Question 21.
Name a few religious and cultural towns of India.
Answer:
Varanasi, Mathura, Amritsar, Madurai, Puri, Ajmer, Pushkar, Tirupati, Kurukshetra, Haridwar, Ujjain, etc. are some of the religious and cultural towns.

Question 22.
Name some of the tourist towns of India.
Answer:
Nainital, Mussoorie, Shimla, Pachmarhi, Jodhpur, Jaisalmer, Udagamandalam (Ooty), Mount Abu are some of the tourist towns.

Question 23.
What are garrisson cantonment towns?
Answer:
The towns which emerge by defence functions of the government are called garrisson cantonment towns. For example, Ambala, Jalandhar, Mhow, Babina, Udhampur, etc.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give two characteristics of urban settlement in India. How are cities connected to rural centres?
Answer:
Urban settlements are generally compact and larger in size and they are engaged in variety of non agricultural, economic and administrative functions. Cities are functionally linked to rural areas around them. Exchange of goods and services with food and raw materials is either performed directly or sometimes through market towns and cities.

Question 2.
Write a note on evolution of towns in India.
Answer:
On the basis of their evolution in different periods, Indian towns may be classified as:

• Ancient towns
• Medieval towns and
• Modern towns.

Ancient Towns: There are number of towns in India having historical background spanning over 2000 years. Most of them developed as religious and cultural centres. Varanasi is one of the important towns among these. Prayag (Allahabad), Pataliputra (Patna), Madurai are some other examples of ancient towns in the country.

Medieval Towns: About 100 of the existing towns have their roots in the medieval period and they developed as headquarters of principalities and kingdoms. These are fort towns which came up on the ruins of ancient towns. Important among them are Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra and Nagpur.

Modern Towns: The British and other Europeans have developed a number of towns in India. Starting their foothold on coastal locations, they first developed some trading ports such as Surat, Daman, Goa, Pondicherry, etc. Later they developed principle nodes of Mumbai (Bombay), Chennai (Madras), and Kolkata (Calcutta). They established administrative centres, hilltowns as summer resorts, and added military areas to them. After independence, a large number of towns were developed as administrative headquarters, example; Chandigarh, Bhubaneswar, Gandhinagar, Dispur, etc. and industrial centres such as Durgapur, Bhilai, Sindri, Barauni. Some old towns also developed as satellite towns around metropolitan cities such as Ghaziabad, Rohtak, Gurgaon around Delhi.

Question 3.
What factors are responsible for different types of rural settlements in India?
Answer:
There are many factors and conditions responsible for different types of rural settlements in India. They are:

• Physical features – nature of terrain, altitude, climate and availability of water,
• Cultural and ethnic factors – social structure, caste and religion.
• Security factors – defence against thefts and robberies.

Question 4.
Where do we find clustered settlements in India? Explain their features.
Answer:
Clustered settlements are found in fertile alluvial plains and the north-eastern states. People live in compact village for security or defence reasons, such as in the Bundelkhand region of central India and in Nagaland. In Rajasthan, scarcity of water has necessitated compact settlement for maximum utilisation of available water resources.
Their features:

•  It is an area of compact or closely built up area of houses
• The general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms and pastures.
• The closely built-up area and its intervening streets present some recognisable pattern or geometric shape, such as rectangular, radial, linear, etc.

Question 5.
Write a few features of rural settlements.
Answer:
Features of rural settlements:

• Rural settlements are most closely and directly related to land.
• They are dominated by primary activities such as agriculture, animal husbandry, fishing, etc.
• The settlements size is relatively small and rate of growth and expansion is low.
• Usually rural settlements are located near water bodies such as rivers, lakes, and springs where water can be easily obtained.
• People living in rural areas have strong relationship among themselves because they are similar in their culture, social and religious issues.
• The houses in rural areas are similar in their construction pattern which is according to the climatic conditions.

Question 6.
Write a few features of urban settlements.
Ans. Features of urban settlements:

• Urban settlements have a close relationship with technology and man made things.
• Most of the people are engaged in secondary, tertiary and quaternary activities in these areas.
• The settlement size is large and there is high density of population.
• Urban settlements are located near industrial areas, ports, administrative centers, etc.
• In order to take care of urban areas, Municipality, Cantonment Board or Notified Area Council are formed. Similarly, in Latin American countries, such as Brazil and Bolivia, any administrative centre is considered urban irrespective of its population size.

Question 7.
Explain the classification of urban settlement on the basis of population size.
Answer:
Census of India classifies urban centres in the six following classes.

• Population of more than one lakh people is called a city or class I town.
• Cities accommodating population size between one to five million are mega cities.
• 61% of population living in urban areas lives in class I town.
• Out of 423 cities, 35 urban agglomerations are metros, 6 of them are mega cities with one fifth (21.01%) of population.

Question 8.
What do you mean by urbanization and levels of urbanization in India?
Answer:
Urbanization refers to development of villages and rural areas into towns with high standard of living and civic amenities. The level of urbanization is measured in terms of percentage of urban population to the total population. The level of urbanization in India in 2001 was 28%.

Question 9.
What factors are responsible for different types of human settlements?
Answer:
There are various factors and conditions responsible for having different types of rural settlements in India. These include:

• Physical features – nature of terrain, altitude, climate and availability of water,
• Cultural and ethnic factors – social structure, caste and religion.
• Security factors – defence against thefts and robberies.

Question 10.
When did maximum urban growth take place in India? What were its causes?
Answer:
With increasing investment in rural areas, a large number of medium and small towns have developed all over the country. The level of urbanization in India in 2001 was 28 per cent, which is quite low in comparison to developed countries. Total urban population has increased eleven fold during twentieth century. Enlargement of urban centers and emergence of new towns have played a significant role in the growth of urban population and urbanization in the country.

Question 11.
What do you mean by urban agglomeration?
Answer:
An urban agglomeration may consist of any one of the following three combinations:

• A town and its adjoining urban outgrowths,
• Two or more contiguous towns with or without their outgrowths, and
• A city and one or more adjoining towns with their outgrowths together forming a contiguous spread.

Question 12.
What is the total urban population of India? In which type of towns does this population live?
Answer:
As per 2011 census urban population in India is 377,000,000. 60% of urban population in India lives in class I towns.

Question 13.
Name different types of towns on the basis of their functions.
Answer:
On the basis of their functions different types of towns are as follows:

• Administrative towns and cities
• Mining towns
• Industrial towns
• Garrisson cantonment towns
• Transport cities
• Educational towns
• Commercial towns
• Religious and cultural towns
• Tourist towns

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define Human settlement. Briefly describe the rural settlement types in India.
Answer:
Cluster of dwellings of any type or size where human beings live is called human settlement. It involves grouping of people and apportioning of territory as a resource base. Settlements vary in size and type. Types of settlements are determined by the extent of built up area, inter house distance. There are four types of rural settlements in India:

The clustered rural settlement is a compact or closely built up area of houses. Here, the general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, barns and pastures. The closely built-up area and streets form recognizable pattern or geometric shape, such as rectangular, radial, linear, etc. These are found in fertile alluvial plains and in the northeastern states. People live in compact village for security or region of central India and in Nagaland. In Rajasthan, scarcity of water has necessitated compact settlement for maximum utilisation of available water resources.

Semi-Clustered Settlements: Semi- clustered or fragmented settlements may result from tendency of clustering in a restricted area of dispersed settlement. Sometimes one or more sections of the village society choose or is forced to live a little away from the main cluster or village. Generally, the land-owning and dominant community occupies the central part of the main village.

Hamleted Settlements: Sometimes settlement is divided into several units physically separated from each other bearing a common name motivated by social and ethnic factors. These units are locally called panna, para, palli, nagla, dhani, etc. in various parts of the country.

Dispersed Settlements: Dispersed or isolated settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles, or on small hills with farms or pasture on the slopes. Extreme dispersion of settlement is caused by fragmented nature of the terrain and land resource base of habitable areas.

Question 2.
How many classes of town are there in India based on population size? Give the size as well. Which of them has the highest percentage of people?
Answer:
6 classes of towns.
Class I — More than 1 lakh population
Class II — 50,000 – 99999
Class III — 20,000 – 49999
Class IV — 10,000 – 19999
Class V — 5000 – 9999
Class VI — Less than
Class I towns have highest percentage.

Question 3.
Write a note on functional classification of towns.
Answer:
Some towns and cities specialize in certain functions and they are known for some specific activities, products or services. Indian cities and towns can be broadly classified as follows:

Administrative towns and cities: Towns supporting administrative headquarters of higher order are administrative towns, such as Chandigarh ,New Delhi, Bhopal, Shillong, Guwahati, Imphal, Srinagar, Gandhinagar, Jaipur, Chennai, etc.

Industrial towns: Industries constitute prime motive force of these cities such as Mumbai, Salem, Coimbatore, Modinagar, Jamshedpur, Hugli, Bhilai, etc.

Transport Cities: They may be ports primarily engaged in export and import activities such as Kandla, Kochchi, Kozhikode, Vishakhapatnam, etc. or hubs of inland transport such as Agra, Dhulia, Mughal Sarai, Itarsi, Katni, etc.

Commercial towns: Towns and cities specialising in trade and commerce are kept in this class. Kolkata, Saharanpur, Satna, etc. are some examples.

Mining towns: These towns have developed in mineral rich areas such as Raniganj, Jharia, Digboi, Ankaleshwar, Singrauli, etc.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Data Based Questions

Question 1.
Study table 4.1 and write a note on Trends of urbanization in India during 1901-2001.

Answer:
In 1901 11% of India’s population was living in urban areas, while in 2011 it increased to 31%. Decennial growth rate was highest in decade of 1971 and 1981 at 46%. The growth rate has now come down to 31%. The rate of urbanization came down during the decade of 1951 to 1961 and again started rising and the decennial growth was highest in 1971-1981 decade, possibly due to development in agriculture and industrial sector and better economic conditions of our country.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Differentiates

Question 1.
Differentiate between urban and rural settlements in India.
Answer:

Question 2.
Differentiate between semi-clustered and dispersed settlements.
Answer:

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
“Compact or clustered village is a universal feature in the northern plains”. Give reasons.
Answer:
Compact or clustered village is a universal feature in the northern plains due to following reasons:

• Level and fertile land
• More labour force
• Abundant supply of water for various activities
• Social security
• Better transportation facilities
• Major portion of the population is landless; hence they are bound to live together.

Question 2.
Mention how will you judge whether a settlement to be classified as a town according to 2001 census.
Answer:
Given below are the criterion that I will use to judge whether a given settlement is to be classified as a town or not:

• Population size should be 5000 or more.
• Density of population should be more than 400 persons/sq. km
• More than 75% of male workers should be engaged in non-agricultural activities.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Map Based Questions

Question 1.
Locate and label the following on the political map of India with appropriate symbols:
Cities with more than 10 million population.
Answer:
Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Name the most developed religious and cultural centre of the ancient period in India. (Foreign 2009)
Answer:
Varanasi and Ayodhya.

Question 2.
Name the largest metropolitan city of Uttar Pradesh. Write its population according to Census 2001. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
Kanpur, population 2.69 million.

Question 3.
Name the largest metropolitan city of Madhya Pradesh. What was its population according to the census 2001? (AJ. 2009)
Answer:
Indore, population 1.64 million.

Question 4.
Which class of cities has the highest percentage of urban population in India? (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Cities of class-I over 1,00,000 .population.

Question 5.
What is the population size of class II cities in India? (Foreign 2010)
Answer:
50,000 – 99,999.

Question 6.
Which class of cities has the largest number of towns and cities in India? (A.I. 2010)
Answer:
Class-I cities has the largest number of towns and cities in India.

Question 7.
Give any two examples of Ancient towns of India. (CBSE 2008, 2014)
Answer:
Pataliputra and Varanasi.

Question 8.
Give the meaning of human settlement. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Human settlement means cluster of dwellings where people live more or less permanently.

Question 9.
Name the metropolitan city of Karnataka State as per 2001 census. (A.I. 2011)
Answer:
Bengaluru.

Question 10.
Name the metropolitan city of Bihar. (A.I. 2011)
Answer:
Patna.

Question 11.
Name any two ‘Garrisson Contonment’ cities of India. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Ambala and Jalandhar.

Question 12.
Name any two famous transport cities of India. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Kandla and Kochi.

Question 13.
Name any two famous administrative cities of India. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Chandigarh and New Delhi.

Question 14.
Give any two examples of mining towns in India. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Two examples of mining towns in India are:

1. Raniganj and
2. Jharia.

Question 15.
Give the meaning of ‘clustered rural settlement’ of India. (A.I. 2013)
Answer:
The clustered rural settlement is a compact or closely built up area of houses. In this type of village the general living area is distinct and separated from the surrounding farms, barns and pastures. The closely built up area and its intervening streets present some recognisable pattern or geometric shape. Q16. Give one example of ancient historical town of Bihar. (A.I. 2014)
Answer:
Pataliputra (Patna)

Question 16.
Distinguish between towns and villages on the basis of occupation. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
The basic difference between towns and villages is that in towns the main occupation of the people is related to secondary and tertiary sectors, while in the villages most of the people are engaged in primary occupations such as agriculture, fishing, lumbering, mining, animal husbandry etc.

Question 17.
What two factors mostly helped in the development of ancient towns in India? (CBSE 2015)
Answer:

• Religion
• Culture

Question 18.
How is the level of urbanization measured in India? (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
The level of urbanization is measured in terms of percentage of urban population to total population.

Question 19.
Name any two garrison (cantonment towns of India. (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
Garrison Town – Ambala, Jalandhar, Mhow, Babina, Udhampur (Any two)

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Explain any three characteristics of dispersed settlements found in India. (Foreign 2009)
Answer:
Three characteristics of dispersed settlement in India Eire:

1. It appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles.
2. It also appears on small bills with farms or pasture on the slopes.
3. Its extreme dispersion is caused by extremely fragmented nature of the terrain and land resource base of habitable areas.

Question 2.
Divide the population of the world into two groups on basis of residence. How do they differ from each other? Explain any two points of difference. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
(a) Rural
(b) Urban

• Rural and urban lifestyles differ from each other from the point of view of lifestyle and social structure.
• Occupational structure is different. In the rural areas people predominantly are engaged in primary activities.
• Level of development varies vastly especially in the developing countries.

Question 3.
Give the meaning of ‘dispersed settlement’. Explain any two reasons for the development of such settlements in India. (A.I. 2014)
Answer:
Dispersed settlement pattern in India appears in the form of isolated huts or hamlets of few huts in remote jungles or on small hills with farms or pastures on slopes.
Reasons for development:

• It develops due to extremely fragmented nature of the terrain.
• These settlements are land resource base

Question 4.
“Many of the modern towns in India were developed during the period of British domination”. Substantiate the statement. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:

• The British had developed a number of the modern towns in India.
• Starting their foothold on coastal locations.
• First of all they developed some trading ports.
• Surat, Daman, Goa, Puducherry (Pondicherry) etc., were developed as trading centres.
• After that they consolidated their hold around three nodes. Mumbai (Bombay), Chennai (Madras) and Kolkata (Calcutta).
• They also developed their administrative centres, hill towns as summer resorts.
• They developed new civil administrative and military areas.
• Towns based on modern industries also evolved after 1850 such as Jamshedpur.

Question 5.
Explain any three features of semi- clustered rural settlements of India. (A.I. 2015)
Answer:
Features:

• Semi-clustered settlements may result from tendency of clustering in a restricted area of dispersed settlement.
• Such settlements may also result from fragmentation of a large compact village,
• In this case, one or more sections of the village society is forced to live a little away from the main village

Question 6.
Explain the three basic differences between rural and urban settlements in India. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Differences between Rural and Urban settlements in India:

• Rural settlements derive their life support from land based primary activities while urban settlements depend on processing of raw materials and various services.
• Cities act as nodes of economic growth. They provide goods and services to both urban and rural centres.
• Rural settlements supply food and raw materials while urban areas provide services.
• Both settlements differ in social relationships, attitude and outlook.
  (Any three points of difference to be explained)

Question 7.
Explain any three features of urban settlements in India. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Three features of urban settlements in India;.

• Urban settlements are generally compact and larger in size.
• Some towns and cities specialize in certain functions and they are known for some specific activities, products and services.
• People are engaged in non-agricultural activities, economic and administrative functions.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 4 Human Settlements appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NTSE Exam: National Talent Search Examination is conducted by National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) for recognizing talented students who desire to pursue higher studies in Science and Social Studies branches. The exam is administered at two levels, first is state-level talent search examination and next is the National Level Talent Search Exam. The State Level Exam is conducted by 29 States/07 UT’s (Union Territories) for all students of Class 10th. Students who have qualified in State Level Talent Search Examination are eligible to give NTSE stage II examination which will be conducted by NCERT. The purpose of the NTSE scheme is to award skilled students seeking education in Science and Social Studies stream with scholarships to help them continue their studies.

The program was commenced in 1963 as National Science Talent Search Scheme (NSTSS) as an action to help capable students with scholarships. The scholars who applied for NTSE scholarships were chosen based on qualification in the written test, project report, and interview. The written test consists of Science Aptitude Test (SAT) and an essay based on a scientific description only. The project record is also required to be submitted at the time of the written test. The scholarships will be awarded to only those students who want to pursue higher studies in Basic Sciences from Class 11th to Doctorate level.

NTSE Exam Overview

• Name of the Exam: National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
• Conducting Body: NCERT
• Level of the Exam: National
• Mode of the Exam: Offline
• Exams: Mental Aptitude Test, Scholastic Aptitude Test
• Class level: 10th standard
• Exam duration: 120 minutes for both MAT and SAT
• Application Form Availability: August 2019
• Total Scholarships: 2000
• Scholarship amount:
  • Higher Secondary level – Rs. 1250/- p.m.
  • Graduate and Post Graduate – Rs. 2000/- p.m. (3 Years),
  • For a Ph.D. degree 2000/- (four years) – As per UGC norms
• Official Website: http://www.ncert.nic.in

NTSE Exam Dates

Note: The Exams on the given dates will be conducted for the following states and UTs.

• November 03, 2019 for Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Andaman and Nicobar Islands
• November 04, 2019 for All other states and UTs
• November 17, 2019, for Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal Delhi NCR, and Jammu & Kashmir
• May 10, 2020, for all states and UTs

NTSE Exam Eligibility

The National Talent Search Examination is open for scholars of Indian nationality whether they study in India or abroad at Class Xth level.

In 2015, The minimum qualifying marks for SC/ST/PH candidates is 35%. In 2017 4% reservation to Physical Challenged Category was implemented for group of students, with benchmark disabilities of which, one percent each shall be reserved for persons with benchmark disabilities under clauses (a), (b) and (c) and one percent for persons with benchmark disabilities under clauses (d) and (e) namely

1. Blindness and Low Vision
2. Deaf and Hard of Hearing
3. Locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims and muscular dystrophy
4. Autism, intellectual disability, specific learning disability, and mental illness
5. Multiple disabilities from amongst persons under clauses (a) to (d) including deafblindness in the posts identified for each disability.

NTSE Exam Eligibility for Indian Candidates

Only the applicants selected by the States/UTs on the base of their screening exam will be eligible to appear in the National level examination which will be conducted by the NCERT firm on the Second Sunday of May each year The NCERT will dispatch the roll number, the venue, the date and time for the national level examination to all the applicants directly through its website, www.ncert@nic.in.

NTSE Exam Eligibility for Abroad Candidates

Students of Indian nationality who are studying abroad at the Class 10th level may also participate for Talent Search Award under the following conditions

• The Indian students studying abroad in Class X or equivalent class will be spared from the first level-screening test and will be allowed to appear directly at the second level examination conducted by the NCERT.
• A candidate will be eligible to appear in the second level NTSE examination only if he or she has obtained at least 60 percent marks (in aggregate) at the previous annual examination.
• A candidate will have to appear in the NTSE examination at a center in India at her/his own cost.
• An applicant desiring to appear in the NTS examination may request through the Head of the Institution where he or she is studying along with an attested copy (by the Head of the Institution) of the mark sheet of Class IX. The request should reach the Head, Department of Educational Survey Division, NCERT, New Delhi-110016 latest by 31st December of the concerned year.
• The Council shall allot roll numbers to the eligible candidates and inform them about the date, time and venue of examination along with other relevant instructions.
• No request for change of Centre shall be entertained.
• If a candidate is selected, the scholarship shall be paid for pursuing studies in India only.
• Change of center will be permitted in genuine cases and as per instructions issued from NCERT.

NTSE Eligibility for Scholarships

• The applicant should pursue the recommended courses in Science, Social Sciences, Engineering and Medical streams only. The candidate should be ready to pursue higher education in India only.
• The applicants should be certified as managing good conduct at their school and should continue their higher education.
• They should not be absent from school without proper leave or informing the school officials.
• The applicants should be a full-time student and should not be working anywhere or getting salary/stipend.
• If the candidate is getting scholarship under any other scheme as well then, he/she should decide which scholarship scheme he/she wants to continue with.
• If any candidate is getting any other scholarship then, his/her NTS Scholarship will be stopped for that year and can be continued only after he/she requests NCERT for resuming the scholarship; they have to discontinue benefits from other scholarship schemes.
• The candidates getting fee waivers/ one-time grant/fee subsidy and accommodation are eligible for NTSE Scholarship
• If any candidate drops studies or discontinues his/her education within one year of admission, then no scholarship will be awarded to him/her.
• The candidates should pass in all subjects of their course in first attempt only and if they fail in any of the core subject his/her scholarship will be canceled.

NTSE Syllabus

There is no designated syllabus for the NTSE examination. However, the type of items will be according to the level of Classes IX and X. A separate booklet called ‘Learn about the Test’ holding sample items for both the Tests – MAT and SAT is available in print as well as on the NCERT website www.ncert.nic.in.

NTSE MAT Syllabus

Checkout the MAT Paper Syllabus from below

1. Verbal and Non Verbal Analogy
2. Verbal and Non-Verbal Series
3. Classification
4. Coding-Decoding
5. Distance and Direction
6. Blood Relations
7. Alphabet and Number Test
8. Ranking and Arrangements
9. Venn Diagrams
10. Mathematical Operations
11. Calendar, Time and Clock
12. Missing Characters
13. Embedded Figures
14. Paper Cutting and Folding
15. Cube and Dice
16. Word Problems

NTSE SAT Syllabus

As mentioned above, the SAT has two parts

• Language Test and Science,
• Social science & Maths.

The SAT, basically, tests students for their academic knowledge, reading skills, application skills, etc

Check Out Complete NTSE Syllabus

NTSE Exam Pattern/Scheme

The written examination shall consist of two paper; Paper-I Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Paper-II Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT). Both the tests will be administered on the same day.

• Mental Ability Test: There shall be 100 multiple-choice type items, with four alternatives. Each item will carry one mark. Candidates are required to answer the items on a separate OMR sheet as per instructions are given in the test booklet and on the OMR sheet.
• Scholastic Aptitude Test: The Scholastic Aptitude Test will consist of 100 multiple-choice items of one mark each. Each item shall have four alternatives, out of which only one will be the correct answer. There shall be 40 items from Science, 40 from Social Science and 20 from Mathematics, Candidates are required to answer the items on a separate OMR sheet to be provided at the examination center as per instructions.
• Medium of Exam: The tests will be available in the following languages: Asamiya, Bangla, English, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu. The candidate has to mention his option regarding the language in which he/she want to take the test in the application form. Accordingly, the question booklet in that language shall be made available to the candidate at the center. After exercising this option, no request for the change of medium will be entertained.

NTSE Stage – I Exam Pattern for MAT

• NTSE Stage I Exam Dates for MAT
  • For Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Andaman, and the Nicobar Islands – November 02, 2019
  • For All other states and UTs – November 03, 2019
  • For Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Delhi NCR, and J&K – November 17, 2019
• Exam Timings: 09.30 AM to 11.30 AM (09.30 AM to 12.00 PM – 30 minutes extra for visually Challenged Candidates)
• Total Questions: 100
• Total Marks: 100
• Types of Questions: Multiple Choice (MSQ)
• Time Duration: 120 minutes, 150 for Visually Challenged
• Minimum Qualifying Marks: 32% for SC, ST, and PwD,  40% for Others (General and OBC)
• Marking Scheme: No negative marking for wrong attempts. One mark for each correct attempt.

NTSE Stage – I Exam Pattern for SAT

• NTSE Stage I Exam Dates for MAT
  • For Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Andaman, and the Nicobar Islands – November 02, 2019
  • For All other states and UTs – November 03, 2019
  • For Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Delhi NCR, and J&K – November 17, 2019
• Exam Timings: 1:30 PM to 03.30 PM (01:30 PM to 04.00 PM – 30 minutes extra for visually Challenged Candidates)
• Total Questions: 100 (Science – 40, Mathematics – 20,  Social Science – 40)
• Total Marks: 100
• Types of Questions: Multiple Choice (MSQ)
• Time Duration: 120 minutes, 150 minutes for Visually Challenged
• Minimum Qualifying Marks: 32% for SC, ST, and PwD,  40% for Others (General and OBC)
• Marking Scheme: No negative marking for wrong attempts. One mark for each correct attempt.

NTSE Stage-II Exam Pattern for SAT

• NTSE Stage-II Exam Dates for SAT: May 10, 2020
• Exam Timings: 9.30 AM to 11.30 AM (09.30 AM to 12.00 PM – 30 minutes extra for visually Challenged Candidates)
• Total Questions: 100
• Total Marks: 100
• Types of Questions: Multiple Choice (MSQ)
• Time Duration: 120 minutes, 150 minutes for Visually Challenged
• Minimum Qualifying Marks: 32% for SC, ST, and PwD,  40% for Others (General and OBC)
• Marking Scheme: No negative marking for wrong attempts. One mark for each correct attempt.

NTSE Stage-II Exam Pattern for SAT

• NTSE Stage-II Exam Dates for SAT: May 10, 2020
• Exam Timings: 1:30 PM to 03.30 PM (01:30 PM to 04.00 PM – 30 minutes extra for visually Challenged Candidates)
• Total Questions: 100 (Science – 40, Mathematics – 20,  Social Science – 40)
• Total Marks: 100
• Types of Questions: Multiple Choice (MSQ)
• Time Duration: 120 minutes, 150 minutes for Visually Challenged
• Minimum Qualifying Marks: 32% for SC, ST, and PwD,  40% for Others (General and OBC)
• Marking Scheme: No negative marking for wrong attempts. One mark for each correct attempt.

Note:

1. Only candidates qualifying in both the papers separately will be considered for merit
2. Selection of the awardees will be made on the basis of total marks scored in MAT & SAT based on merit
3. There will be No Negative marking

NTSE Application Form

• The application form of NTSE 2018 will be available in online mode or offline mode. Each state or UT provides their own application form for stage 1 examination of NTSE 2019.
• Applicants need to fill and submit the application form of NTSE stage 1 before the last date of application as mentioned by their respective state or UT.
• Applicants need to contact the Liaison Officer of the state for questions related to application form submission.
• Applicants need to send the application fee for NTSE stage 1 exam as specified by the states.
• However, applicants need not submit an application form to NCERT and also no fee required for NTSE stage 2 to be conducted by NCERT.

How To Fill NTSE 2020 Application Form?

• Candidates are required to download the NTSE registration form from the official website of NCERT or they can collect it from the liaison officer of the state.
• Applicants are required to fill up the application form in their own writing as per the directions and paste their recent passport size photograph along with signature at the space provided.
• Applicants will be required to enter the following details in the NTSE application form:
  • Name of the candidate
  • Mother’s name
  • Father’s name
  • Caste or category
  • Address etc.
  • Candidates will be required to pay the NTSE application fee (if specified by the state/UT).
• Documents Required with Application Form
  • Caste certificate
  • Recent passport size colored photograph

The NTSE application form has to be submitted in an offline/online mode as specified. Since last year, some states have begun to receive the completed NTSE application form in the online mode too. Applicants must assure that the application form of NTSE is filled and attached with the required documents as per the instructions are given.

NTSE Admit Card

The NCERT will upload the E-Admit Cards for the second level examination on its website, www.ncert.nic.in. In case there is any modification of address prior to the National Level Examination, it will be required on the part of the candidate to say the same to the state examining authority, who will inform the NCERT department for change of address after the applicant has downloaded the admit card/letter for second-level examination. The same may be said to the NCERT directly.

The admit card will have all the details about the venue, the roll number, the date and time of the test. Applicants can download their E-Admit cards themselves before 21 days of examination.

The admission letter assigned to the candidate should contain E-Admit Card to be filled in by the applicant. They have to paste an attested passport size photograph at the relevant place in the E-Admit Card. This shall have to be submitted to the Centre Superintendent on the day of the National Level Examination.

NTSE Results

• NTSE Results will be available online only.
• The scoring of the OMR-sheets for both the MAT and the SAT will be done through the computer system.
• The final prize will be published on the basis of combined scores of MAT and SAT exams.
• Only the selected candidates will be notified by registered letter and through NCERT website www.ncert.nic.in.
• Marks secured by the applicants in written examination will be revealed to all the contestants individually through the NCERT website.

Since the NCERT applies accurate checks and counterchecks before the announcement of the result, no application for re-evaluation or rechecking of scripts will be considered. Applicants will be given facility to have access to their scanned OMR sheets which will be placed on the NCERT website along with final scoring key so that they can calculate their own score.

NTSE State-Wise Quota

Total Seats: 8387 Seats, Quota is revised after every three years

The scholarship under the present scheme awarded to the candidates for pursuing courses in science and social science up to doctoral level and in professional courses like medicine and engineering up to second-degree level subject to the fulfillment of the conditions. As on date, 2000 scholarships are awarded in the country with reservation of 15 percent for SC, 7.5 percent for ST and 27 percent for other backward classes and 4 percent for a group of students with benchmark disabilities.

NTSE Contact Details

Prof. Indrani Bhaduri Head,
Educational Survey Division,
NCERT, Sri Aurobindo Marg,
New Delhi – 110016
Email ID: esdhead@gmail.com
NCERT Website: www.ncert.nic.in

NTSE Notification 2019-20 – NTSE Scholarship

The top 1000 students get scholarship amount as follows

Find Out Benefits of Becoming An NTSE Scholar Here

We hope we have provided all the necessary information about NTSE Exam. If you have any doubt regarding this post or NTSE Exam, please comment in the comment section we will get back to you at the earliest.

The post NTSE Exam 2019-2020 | Exam Dates, Eligibility, Steps to Apply, Detailed Exam Pattern, Syllabus Here appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NTSE Result 2019-20: NTSE Exam is conducted by National Council of Education Research and Training (NCERT). NCERT will release results and will be declared online in the form of a merit list. In the Merit list, all details will display in a list like students roll number and other details who have successfully cleared in Stage I Exam of 2020.

NCERT will release the result for stage 2 and in September 2020. Students who appear for stage I Exam can check their results on the official website. This year NCERT will be awarding 2000 NTSE Scholarships. Students can check results from the official website and we will also update here in this article. NTSE 2019 results will release in PDF along with NTSE Cutoff Scores. In this article, we will provide all the details on NTSE Result Stage 2.

Check NTSE Notification

NTSE Exam Stage-II Result 2020

NTSE Stage-II Exam result is based on the scores of MAT and SAT. Students who have been selected for NTSE Scholarship will be informed through a registered letter and exam results will be the available online and provisional result of stage 2 exam also available online on the official website and scanned copies of their OMR sheets also available for both MAT and SAT papers. Candidates can check results in online by entering the required details like roll number and date of birth in the login page. NTSE Exam Stage II Results will contain the information of separate scores and a combined score of MAT and SAT.

How To Check NTSE Result 2019-20

Follow the step by step procedure to check NTSE Result on the official website.

• Step – 1: Visit the official website of NCERT @ ncert.nic.in
• Step – 2: From the left side click on “Talent Search – NTSE”
• Step – 3: You will be redirected to a new page and now click on “Other Details” from the right-hand side.
• Step – 4: Scroll down and click on NTSE Exam Result Link. A PDF will open on the screen containing all the list of candidates.
• Step – 5: Search your Name/Roll Number in PDF. If you had found your name on the list you have cleared the exam. Download NTSE Result 2019 PDF for future purpose.

NTSE Result 2019 – NTSE Merit List and Rechecking

Final NTSE result will be released on the official website along with the NTSE Merit List which is the list of final shortlisted students.  NTSE Candidates will also be informed by registered letter. NTSE Merit List will contain details of Roll Number, candidates name and fathers name. it doesn’t contain Scores or ranks of the result of NTSE Stage II Exam. NTSE Exam results will be available in online mode only and NCERT makes sure that there is no discrepancy in the processing of results. Therefore NCERT will not consider any request or anything for Re-checking or Re- evaluating in results if students found any inaccuracy in the scoring of NTSE Exam.

NTSE 2020 Qualifying Cutoff

NTSE Previous Year Cutoff

NTSE 2020 State Quota Cutoff

NTSE Scholarship 2020

Find out Everything About NTSE Scholarship

We hope we have provided all the necessary information about NTSE Result. If you have any doubt regarding this post or NTSE Result, Please comment in the comment section we will get back to you at the earliest.

The post NTSE Result 2019 for Stage 2 | Check NTSE Stage 2 Result and Merit List for NTSE Scholarship appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Practical Work in Geography Class 12 Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Maps

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1(i).
A number or character which represents measurement is called
(a) Digit
(b) Data
(c) Number
(d) Character
Answer:
(b) Data

Question 1(ii).
A single datum is a single measurement from the
(a) Table
(b) Frequency
(c) Real world
(d) Information
Answer:
(c) Real world

Question 1(iii).
In a tally mark grouping by four and crossing fifth is called
(a) Four and Cross Method
(b) Tally Marking Method
(c) Frequency plotting Method
(d) Inclusive Method
Answer:
Both
(a) Four and Cross Method
(b) Tally Marking Method

Question 1(iv).
An Ogive is a method in which
(a) Simple frequency is measured
(b) Cumulative frequency is measured
(c) Simple frequency is plotted
(d) Cumulative frequency is plotted
Answer:
(d) Cumulative frequency is plotted

Question 1(v).
If both ends of a group are taken in frequency grouping, it is called
(a) Exclusive method
(b) Inclusive method
(c) Marking method
(d) Statistical method
Answer:
(b) Inclusive method

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2(i).
Differentiate between data and information.
Answer:
The data is defined as numbers that represent measurements from the real world. Datum is a single measurement. Thus, numerical information is called data. Information is defined as either a meaningful answer to a query or a meaningful stimulus that can cascade into further queries.

Question 2(ii).
What do you mean by data processing?
Answer:
Data processing is the process of organising, presenting, analysing and interpreting data. Once the data are collected, these data need to be organised, presented and analysed for proper interpretation.

Question 2(iii).
What is the advantage of footnote in a table?
Answer:
Footnote gives the necessary information about the statistics. For example, if we use abbreviation M and F for male and female respectively, it can be clarified through footnote. By giving a star mark, we also give source of data in footnote.

Question 2(iv).
What do you mean by primary sources of data?
Answer:
Primary data refers to the data which is originally collected by the investigator for the purpose of present enquiry directly from individuals or group of individuals using direct personal investigation, indirect personal investigation, mailing interview method, telephonic interview method, etc. It is also called first hand or original data. It is much more reliable as compared to secondary data.

Question 2(v).
Enumerate five sources of secondary data.
Answer:

1. Published Printed Sources
   • Books
   • Journals/periodicals
   • Magazines/newspapers
2. Published Electronic Sources
   • E-journals
   • General websites
   • Weblogs
3. Unpublished personal records
4. Government records
5. Central Statistical Office (CSO) and National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)

3. Answer the following questions in about 125 words:

Question 3(i).
Discuss the national and international agencies where from secondary data may be collected.
Answer:
National and international agencies from where secondary data may be collected are given below:
1. Government Publications: The publications of the various ministries and the departments of the Government of India, State Governments and the District Bulletins are one of the most important sources of secondary information. These include the Census of India published by the Office of the Registrar General of India, reports of the National Sample Survey, Weather Reports of Indian Meteorological Department, and Statistical Abstracts published by state governments, and the periodical reports published by different Commissions.

2. Semi/Question uasi-government Publications: The publications and reports of Urban Development Authorities and Municipal Corporations of various cities and towns, Zila Parishads (District Councils), etc. fall under this category.

3. International Publications: The international publications comprise yearbooks, reports and monographs published by different agencies of the United Nations such as United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO), United Nations Development Programme (UNDP),World Health Organisation (WHO), Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO), etc. Some of the important publications of the United Nations that are periodically published are Demographic Year Book, Statistical Year Book and the Human Development Report.

4. Private Publications: The yearbooks, surveys, research reports and monographs published by newspapers and private organisations fall under this category.

5. Newspapers and Magazines: The daily newspapers and the weekly, fortnightly and monthly magazines serve as easily accessible source of secondary data. (fi Electronic Media: The electronic media specially internet has emerged as a major source of secondary data in recent times.

Question 2(ii).
What is the importance of an index number? Taking an example examine the process of calculating an index number and show the changes.
Answer:
Index numbers are statistical devices designed to measure the relative change in the level of variable or group of variables with respect to time, geographical location, etc. In other words, these are the numbers which express the value of a variable at any given period called ‘current period’ as a percentage of the value of that variable at some standard period called “base period’.

Index numbers are indispensable tools of economics and business analysis. Following are the main uses of index numbers. Index numbers are used as economic barometers. Index numbers help in formulating suitable economic policies and planning. They are used in studying trends and tendencies. Businessmen need to know the trends in the market to take decisions about wage rates, prices of the product, prices of raw materials, etc. Therefore, index numbers are very useful for them. They provide information regarding foreign trade. They are useful in forecasting future economic activity. The cost of living index numbers determines .whether the real wages are rising or falling or remain constant. It is used in deflating. For example, suppose rice sells at ?9/kg at BBSR in 2005 as compare to ₹ 4.50/Kg in 1985.
Therefore the index number of price of rice in 2005 compared to 1985 is calculated as

This means that there is a net increase of 100% in the price of rice in 2005 as compared to 1985. [The base year’s index number is always treated as 100]
Suppose, during the same period 2005 the rice sells at Rs. 12.00/kg in Delhi. Therefore, the index number of price at Bhubaneswar compared to price at Delhi is

This means that there is a net decrease of 25% in the price of rice in 2005 as compared to 1985.
The above index numbers are called ‘Price Index Numbers’.
To take another example the production of rice in 2012 in Orissa was 42,000 metric tons in comparison to 36,000 metric tons in 2001. So the Index Number of the quantity produced in 2012 compared to 2001 is

That means that there is a net increase of 21.61% in production of rice in 2012 as compared to 2001.

ACTIVITY

Question 1.
In a class of 35 students of Geography, following marks were obtained out of 10 marks in unit test – 1, 0, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 2, 3, 4, 0, 2, 5, 8, 4, 5, 3, 6, 3, 2, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 7, 8, 9, 7, 9, 4, 5, ‘4, 3. Represent the data in the form of a group frequency distribution.
Answer:

Question 2.
Collect the last test result of Geography of your class and represent the marks in the form of a group frequency distribution
Answer:
Do yourself.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by data?
Answer:
Numerical and quantitative measurement of geographical events, human activities and their interrelationship are called data.

Question 2.
When do we get meaningful result from collected data?
Answer:
Data collected are required to be organised and presented and then analysed. Only then we can reach at meaningful conclusions from data.

Question 3.
Explain different methods of presentation of data.
Answer:
There can be many methods of presenting the data like: tabulation of data (in absolute terms, in percentage or ratio); graphical presentation, pictoral presentation or presentation using maps.

Question 4.
Name two important sources of collecting data.
Answer:
Two important sources of collecting data are primary data and secondary data.

Question 5.
What are absolute data?
Answer:
When data are presented in their original form as integers, they are called absolute data or raw data. For example, the total population of a country or a state, the total production of a crop or a manufacturing industry, etc.

Question 6.
Differentiate between primary and secondary data.
Answer:
Primary Data: The data which are collected for the first time by an individual or the group of individuals, institution/organisations are called Primary sources of the data. Secondary Data: Data which are collected from any published or unpublished sources are called Secondary sources.

Question 7.
Why is it necessary to convert data into percentage or ratio?
Answer:
Sometimes data are tabulated in a ratio or percentage form that are computed from a common parameter, such as literacy rate or growth rate of population, percentage of agricultural products or industrial products, etc. It is important because absolute data cannot be compared.

Question 8.
What do you mean by index numbers?
Answer:
Index numbers are statistical devices designed to measure the relative change in the level of variable or group of variables with respect to time, geographical location, etc. In other words, these are the numbers which express the value of a variable at any given period called ‘current period’ as a percentage of the value of that variable at some standard period called ‘base period’.

Question 9.
Why is it necessary to analyse the collected data?
Answer:
When we collect data, it is in absolute terms. We need to organise and present these data. After organisation and presentation, these data are converted into percentage and ratio. Thereafter, we need to calculate mean, median, mode, etc. to reach at the conclusion. Therefore, it is necessary to analyse collected data.

Question 10.
Explain the methods adopted to determine class size of data.
Answer:
The grouping of the raw data requires determining of the number of classes in which the raw data are to be grouped and what will be the class intervals. The selection of the class interval and the number of classes, however, depends upon the range of raw data. For example, if raw data is more expanded we can take class interval as 0-10, 10-20, etc. if it is less expanded, class interval can be 0-2, 2-4, etc.

Question 11.
What do you mean by frequency distribution?
Answer: A frequency distribution divides observations in the data set into conveniently established numerically ordered classes (groups or categories). The number of observations in each class is referred to as frequency denoted as f.

Question 12.
Give the difference between normal frequency and cumulative frequency.
Answer:
Simple Frequencies: It is expressed by ‘f and represent the number of individuals falling in each group. On the other hand, Cumulative Frequencies are expressed by ‘Cf and can be obtained by adding successive simple frequencies in each group with the previous sum.

Question 13.
What do you mean by frequency distribution polygon?
Answer:
A graph of frequency distribution is known as the frequency polygon. It helps in comparing the two or more than two frequency distributions. The two frequencies ‘ are shown using a bar diagram and a line graph respectively.

Question 14.
What do you mean by Ogive?
Answer:
When the frequencies are added they are called cumulative frequencies and are listed in a table called cumulative frequency table. The curve obtained by plotting cumulative frequencies is called an Ogive. It is constructed either by the less than method or the more than method.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the exclusive method by less than and more than cumulative frequencies.
Answer:

Question 2.
Exhibit the above data using a frequency polygon.
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain the difference between inclusive method and exclusive method.
Answer:
An inclusive method is one in which there is generally a difference between the upper limit of one class interval and the lower limit of the other class interval. For example, 0-9, 10-19, 20-29 are inclusive classes because it includes 9, 19, 29, etc. On the ‘ other hand, an exclusive method is one in which there is generally no difference between the upper limit of one class interval and the lower limit of the other class interval. For example, 0-10, 10-20, 20-30 are examples of exclusive classes because 10, 20, 30 are not included in the classes where these are upper limits.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the procedure of tabulating and making frequency distribution with the help of an example.
Marks obtained by students in Geography are given below.

Make a frequency distribution.
Answer:
Step-1: Find the difference between the largest and the smallest items. Highest value is 97 and lowest value is 7. Therefore, the difference is 90 (97-7).
Step-2: Keeping in mind the range the class interval will be 10 and classes will be 0-10, 10-20, 20-30, etc.
Step-3: It is to be noted that upper limit is excluded and lower limit is included in the class, i.e. the value 30 will be included in 30-40 not in 20-30.


Conclusions derived from analysis:

• The highest number of students lie in the class interval 50-60, i.e. 10.
• Only 3 students have got marks between 0-10.
• Only 14 students have got marks less than 40%.
• 2 students have got marks more than 90.
• 48 students have got marks less than 90.

Class 12 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 Viva Questions

Question 1.
Give two methods of collecting primary data.
Answer:
Direct oral investigation and interview method.

Question 2.
Give two examples where geographers use secondary data.
Answer:
Geographers use secondary data to find various information. Geographical Survey of India collects data and others use it for different purposes.

Question 3.
Is Internet primary or secondary method of data collection?
Answer:
It is a secondary method of data collection.

Question 4.
What is cumulative frequency?
Answer:
It is summation of frequencies for particular class intervals. It can be obtained by adding successive simple frequencies in each group with the previous sum.

Question 5.
Give two examples of quantitative data.
Answer:
Temperature and rainfall.

Question 6.
Give two examples of qualitative data.
Answer:
Diversity of flora and fauna, forest quality.

Question 7.
What is stub?
Answer:
Heading of a row in a table is called stub.

Question 8.
What is caption?
Answer:
Heading of a column in a table is called caption.

Introduction to Maps Notes

• Numerical and quantitative measurement of geographical events, human activities and their interrelationship are called data. In other words, quantitative information is called datum. Therefore, data are also called quantitative information. Numbers that define measurement from real world.
• It may be easily realized that there are large volume of data available around the world today. However, at times, it becomes difficult to derive logical conclusions from these data if they are in a raw form. Hence, it is important to ensure that the measured information is algorithmically derived and/or logically deduced and/or statistically calculated from multiple data.
• The use of statistical methods in the analysis, presentation and in drawing conclusions plays a significant role in almost all disciplines, including geography, which use the data.
• It may, therefore, be inferred that the concentration of a phenomena, e.g. population, forest or network of transportation or communication not only vary over space and time but may also be conveniently explained using the data.
• Analytical tools and techniques have become more important these days to make the study more logical and derive precise conclusion. Precise quantitative techniques are used right from the beginning of collecting and compiling data to its tabulation, organisation, ordering and analysis till the derivation of conclusions.
• The data are collected through the following ways. These are:
  (i) Primary Sources (ii) Secondary Sources.
• The data which are collected for the first time by an individual or the group of individuals, institution/organisations are called primary sources of the data.
• Data collected from any published or unpublished sources are called secondary sources.
• When data are presented in their original form as integers, they are called absolute data or raw data. For example, the total population of a country or a state, the total production of a crop or a manufacturing industry, etc.
• Percentage/Ratio: Sometimes data are tabulated in a ratio or percentage form that are computed from a common parameter, such as literacy rate or growth rate of population, percentage of agricultural products or industrial products, etc.
• An index number is a statistical measure designed to show changes in variable or a group of related variables with respect to time, geographic location or other characteristics. It is to be noted that index numbers not only measure changes over a period of time but also compare economic conditions of different locations, industries, cities or countries. Index number is widely used in economics and business to see changes in price and quantity. There are various methods for the calculation of index number.
• The grouping of the raw data requires determining of the number of classes in which the raw data are to be grouped and what will be the class intervals. The selection of the class interval and the number of classes, however, depends upon the range of raw data.

Introduction to Maps Important Terms

• Data: Numerical and quantitative measurement of geographical events, human activities and their interrelationship are called data.
• Information: Information is defined as either-a meaningful answer to a query or a meaningful stimulus that can cascade into further queries.
• Primary Data: The data which are collected for the first time by an individual or the group of individuals, institution/organisations are called Primary sources of the data.
• Secondary Data: Data which are collected from any published or unpublished sources are called Secondary sources.
• Inclusive Method: Under this method, upper limit of a class is not the lower limit of next class. It includes lower limit as well as upper limit in the class interval.
• Exclusive Method: Under this method, upper limit of a class is the lower limit of next class. It does not include upper limit in the class interval.
• Simple Frequencies: It is expressed by ‘f and represent the number of individuals falling in each group.
• Cumulative Frequencies: It is expressed by ‘Cf and can be obtained by adding successive simple frequencies in each group with the previous sum.
• Frequency Polygon: A graph of frequency distribution is known as the frequency polygon. It helps in comparing the two or more than two frequency distributions. The two frequencies are shown using a bar diagram and a line graph respectively.
• Ogive: When the frequencies are added they are called cumulative frequencies and ‘ are listed in a table called cumulative frequency table. The curve obtained by plotting cumulative frequencies is called an Ogive. It is constructed either by the less than method or the more than method.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Practical Work in Geography Class 12 Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Maps appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NTSE Scholarship 2019: National Talent Search Examination is one of the most Competitive and scholarship scheme exam in India. For Class 10 students it’s a prestigious scholarship program from all over the country. NCERT Conducts exam for class 10 students every year, 1000 meritorious students are selected for NTSE Scholarship.

NTSE Scholarship is awarded to selected students all through the different stages of their education. In this article, we will provide all the necessary information about NTSE Scholarship. Read on to find more about NTSE Scholarship.

NTSE Scholarship 2019

Central Government provides scholarship for students all through their education. NTSE Scholars Students receive a scholarship at different stages of their education:

NTSE Scholarship – Other Advantages Of Being An NTSE Scholar

Apart from the above-mentioned scholarship, NTSE Scholars receive a scholarship throughout their education and advantages as well. Various advantages of being an NTSE Scholar as listed below:

• Appearance and preparing for NTSE build confidence in students to appear for various competitive exams as well. Most of the students who have appeared in NTSE Scholars become top rankers in Competitive exams like JEE Main, JEE Advanced, AIIMS, and NEET.FpNTSE Scholarship will become a gateway to topmost colleges in India. In many colleges in India, students have reserved seats for NTSE Scholars.
• Students planning to join foreign universities for their higher studies get an edge over other students if they are NTSE scholars
• NTSE Scholar will get high preferences when it comes to a job in the government and private sector.
• Students of NTSE Scholars also get preferences in the selection of NDA.
• For NTSE Scholars there are different courses and study materials are available at discounted prices.

As you can see NTSE Scholarship is helpful in every aspect of academic life and career. Students who are studying in class 10 must appear for NTSE and give their best in the NTSE Exam.

NTSE Exam Overview

• Name of the Exam: National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)
• Conducting Body: NCERT
• Level of the Exam: National
• Mode of the Exam: Offline
• Exams: Mental Aptitude Test, Scholastic Aptitude Test
• Class level: 10th standard
• Exam duration: 120 minutes for both MAT and SAT
• Application Form Availability: August 2019
• Total Scholarships: 2000
• Scholarship amount:
  • Higher Secondary level – Rs. 1250/- p.m.
  • Graduate and Post Graduate – Rs. 2000/- p.m. (3 Years),
  • For a Ph.D. degree 2000/- (four years) – As per UGC norms
• Official Website: http://www.ncert.nic.in

Students who are going to appear for the exam must have knowledge about NTSE Syllabus and NTSE Exam Pattern.

Find out the best books for NTSE

We hope the NTSE Scholarship is helpful. we hope we have provided all the necessary information about NTSE Scholarship. If you have any doubt regarding this post or NTSE Scholarship Please comment in the comment section we will get back to you at the earliest.

The post NTSE Scholarship Details | Advantages of Being An NTSE Scholar appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NTSE Bihar 2019-20: The State Council of Educational Research and Training (SCERT), Bihar has released the stage 1 exam date. NTSE Bihar will be conducted by SCERT on 17th November 2019. Candidates who want to appear for the NTSE Bihar 2019-20 can download the admit card in October 2019. The application process will start from the second week of August 2019. The NTSE Bihar exam is conducted in 2 stages. The result for stage 1 will be declared on April 2020. While the result for stage 2 will declare in September 2020. Only qualified candidates in the stage1 exam are entitled to the stage 2 exam. The final merit list will be prepared depending on the candidate’s entire performance.

NTSE is conducted to recognize and encourage young talent in India. Students who are currently studying in Class X are eligible to appear for NTSE Bihar 2019-20. Finally, the NTSE will award scholarships to the deserving candidates till the doctorate level of their academics. Read this article to know more related information about NTSE Bihar 2019-20. Information such as exam dates, the application process, eligibility, question pattern, and syllabus, etc.

NTSE Bihar Exam Dates

NTSE Bihar Eligibility Criteria

The following are the eligibility criteria for NTSE Bihar 2019-20.

• Age of the candidate should be less than 18 years as on 1st July 2019.
• Candidates should have obtained at least 60% marks in Class IX to be able to appear for NTSE Bihar 2019-20. This marks may change for the reserved candidates.
• Candidates who are studying in Bihar Government / State Madrasa Education Board / Sanskrit Education Board / CBSE or ICSE affiliated schools are eligible to appear for NTSE Bihar 2019-20.
• Candidates who are registered under open schooling or distance learning are also eligible.
• Candidates who have got a scholarship from any other source will not be eligible to get a scholarship from NTSE for that year.

NTSE Bihar Application Form

NTSE Bihar application form will be released in the 2nd week of August 2019. Candidates must fill NTSE Bihar application form on or before the due date. The below-given steps are related to the NTSE Bihar application process.

• NTSE application form will be released online on the official website of SCERT, Bihar.
• Candidates should visit the official website biharscert.in and download the application form.
• Candidates have to keep ready of all important documents for filling the application form.
• Candidates will be required to enter personal details, contact details, course-related details, and some additional details.
• Candidates should use an only blue or black ballpoint pen to fill the application form.
• Candidate should fill the necessary details in capital letters and recheck all the information to avoid rejection of the application.
• Candidates can take a hard copy of the application form.
• Fill the form correctly and get the form attested by the respective school principal. It should be submitted along with the registration fee to the school Principal on or before the due date.

NTSE Bihar Exam Fee

The below mentioned is the application fee which needs to be submitted in favor of SCERT, Bihar.

NTSE Bihar Admit Card

Candidates can collect their admit card from their respective school authority in October 2019. The NTSE Bihar admit card includes some details such as a candidate’s name, roll number, exam date, timings, and exam center, etc.

It is important that candidates must carry their NTSE Bihar 2019-20 admit card on the exam day. On failure of the same, Candidate will not be permitted to sit in the exam.

NTSE Bihar Question Paper Pattern

The NTSE Bihar stage 1 exam divided into 2 parts. These are the scholastic ability test, and mental ability test. The following table shows the details of each paper for NTSE Bihar 2019-20. These are maximum marks, questions, and time allotted.

• Each correct answer in MAT and SAT carries 1 mark while there is no negative marking for wrong attempts.
• SAT evaluates the candidate’s reading abilities, general knowledge, and interpretation of the subjects.
•  SAT section consists of a total of 100 questions from math, science, and social science subjects with a duration of 120 minutes.
• The level of questions in the SAT is equivalent to class X or XII exam.
• MAT evaluates the candidates reasoning skills, thinking ability, ability to discriminate and visualize.
• MAT questions are based on logical reasoning, coding-decoding, problem-solving, series, analogies, hidden figures and pattern perception.
• MAT section consists of a total of 100 questions with a duration of 120 minutes.

NTSE Bihar Answer Key

The answer key for the NTSE Bihar will be released on the official website in the 2nd week of November 2019. The answer key contains answers to each question that has been asked in the exam. Candidates can download the answer keys to check their answers and estimate their scores. The following points are given to check the NTSE Bihar exam answer key

1. Candidate has to check the official website of the NTSE Bihar exam. Then, click on the answer key link.
2. Download the answer key and save it.
3. Then compare the answers marked by the candidate which they have already submitted in the exam.
4. Candidates should follow the correct marking strategy. The answer key can be changed based on significant proof.
5. The NTSE exam results show the final revised answer key.
6. Candidate can compare the score with last year’s cut-off and get an idea whether he/she will be eligible for NTSE stage 2 exam or not.

NTSE Bihar Exam Result

NTSE Bihar exam result will be released by SCERT in the 2nd week of April 2020. Candidates should go through the following steps to check the NTSE Bihar exam results:

• Candidates can check their result on the official website biharscert.in.
• NTSE Bihar result link can be seen in the homepage of the portal, click on it.
• Candidates should enter their name or roll number in the displayed list.
• After that, the screen will display the NTSE Bihar result.
• The result list can be downloaded to keep track of the record.

Details Mentioned on NTSE Bihar Exam Result

Candidates can check their NTSE Bihar result on the official website biharscert.in. The NTSE Bihar exam result contains the following information of the selected candidate.

• Roll number of the candidate
• Candidates Name
• School address
• Marks scored by the candidates in MAT & SAT
• Candidates date of birth, gender, caste, and disability status
• Total marks and disqualified questions in each paper
• Candidates Rank

NTSE Bihar Exam Qualifying Scores

Qualifying scores are the minimum scores a candidate needs to achieve in order to eligible for the NTSE stage 2 exam. NTSE Bihar qualifying scores will be released by SCERT after the declaration of the result. Candidates must know that the qualifying scores depends on various reasons as given below:

• Regulations of the exam conducting authority
• The difficulty level of the question papers
• Previous year’s cut-off tendencies
• Highest marks obtained by a candidate

The below-given table shows the qualifying marks for NTSE Bihar stage 1 category candidates

NTSE Bihar Stage 1 Reservation Criteria

The below-mentioned table shows the reservation criteria for NTSE Bihar 2019-20.

NTSE Bihar Stage 1 Syllabus

The questions asked in the NTSE Bihar are equivalent to the class IX and X syllabus. So, candidates must prepare from class IX and X syllabus with the aim of getting selected in this exam. The following table shows the important topics for NTSE Bihar 2019-20.

We hope this article will help you to get more information about NTSE Bihar 2019-20. If you have any doubts regarding this post or NTSE Bihar, Please comment in the comment section we will get back to you at the earliest.

The post NTSE Bihar 2019-20 for Class X | Exam Dates, Eligibility, Question Pattern and Syllabus appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 5 Land Resources and Agriculture

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answers of the followings from the given options:

Question 1.(i)
Which one of the following is NOT a land-use category?
(a) Fallow land
(b) Marginal land
(c) Net Area Sown
(d) Culturable Wasteland
Answer:
(b) Marginal land

Question 1.(ii)
What one of the following is the main reason due to which share of forest has shown an increase in the last forty years?
(a) Extensive and efficient efforts of afforestation
(b) Increase in community forest land
(c) Increase in notified area allocated for forest growth
(d) Better peoples’ participation in managing forest area.
Answer:
(c) Increase in notified area allocated for forest growth

Question 1.(iii)
Which one of the following is the main form of degradation in irrigated areas?
(a) Gully erosion
(b) Wind erosion
(c) Salinisation of soils
(d) Siltation of land
Answer:
(c) Salinisation of soils

Question 1.(iv)
Which one of the following crops is not cultivated under diyland farming?
(a) Ragi
(b) Jowar
(c) Groundnut
(d) Sugarcane
Answer:
(d) Sugarcane

Question 1.(v)
In which of the following group of countries of the world, HYVs of wheat and rice were developed?
(a) Japan and Australia
(b) U.S.A. and Japan
(c) Mexico and Philippines
(d) Mexico and Singapore
Answer:
(c) Mexico and Philippines

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
Differentiate between barren and wasteland and culturable wasteland.
Answer:

Question 2.(ii)
Tow would you distinguish between net sown area and gross cropped area?
Answer:

Question 2.(iii)
What is the difference between dryland and wetland farming?
Answer:

Question 2.(iv)
Why is the strategy of increasing cropping intensity important in a country like India?
Answer:
The strategy of increasing crop intensity aims at increasing the productivity of a piece of land by increasing the number of times it is cultivated in a year. It aims at increasing the productivity of agriculture by increasing the productivity of already cultivated area. It is important for country like India where there is dearth of land so it is difficult to bring new pieces of land under cultivation to meet the ever-increasing demand of rising population.

Question 2.(v)
How do you measure total cultivable land?
Answer:
Total cultivable land is the entire land which can be cultivated either in the current state or after reclaiming it through the available technologies. It is a sum of total culturable wasteland, Fallow other than current fallow, current fallow and net sown area.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
What are the different types of environmental problems of land resources in India?
Answer:
Land resources in India are faced with multiple issues that lead to decline in their productivity. The causes are both environmental and related to malpractices. The main environmental issues confronting Indian resources are:

Dependence on Erratic Monsoon: Irrigation covers only about 33 per cent of the cultivated area in India. The crop production in rest of the cultivated land directly depends on rainfall. Poor monsoon adversely affects the supply of canal water for irrigation. Rainfall in drought prone areas is too meager and highly unreliable. Even the areas receiving high annual rainfall experience considerable fluctuations. This makes them vulnerable to both droughts and floods. Droughts and floods continue to be twin menace in India.

Low productivity: The yield of the crops in the country is low in comparison to the international level. Indian agriculture is also very low in comparison to international level. The vast rainfed areas of the country, particularly drylands, which mostly grow coarse cereals, pulses and oilseeds, have very low yields.

Degradation of Cultivable Land: One of the serious problems that arises out of faulty strategy of irrigation and agricultural development is degradation of land resources. It leads to depletion of soil fertility. In irrigated areas a large tract of agricultural land lost its fertility due to alkalisation and salinisation of soils and waterlogging. Excessive use of chemicals such as insecticides and pesticides has led to their concentration in toxic amounts in the soil profile. Leguminous crops have been displaced from the cropping pattern in the irrigated areas and duration of fallow has substantially reduced owing to multiple cropping. This has obliterated the process of natural fertilization such as nitrogen fixation. Rainfed areas also experience degradation of several types like soil erosion by water and wind erosion which are often induced by human activities.

Question 3.(ii)
What are the important strategies for agricultural development followed in the post-independence period in India?
Answer:
Indian agricultural economy was largely subsistence in nature before Independence. During partition about one-third of the irrigated land in undivided India went to Pakistan. After Independence, the immediate goal of the Government was to increase foodgrains production by

• switching over from cash crops to food crops;
• intensification of cropping over already cultivated land; and
• increasing cultivated area by bringing cultivable and fallow land under plough.

Later, Intensive Agricultural District Programme (IADP) and Intensive Agricultural Area Programme (IAAP) were launched. But two consecutive droughts during mid-1960s resulted in food crisis in the country.

New seed varieties of wheat (Mexico) and rice (Philippines) known as high yielding varieties (HYVs) were available for cultivation by mid-1960s. India took advantage of this and introduced package technology comprising HYVs, along with chemical fertilizers in irrigated areas of Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh hnd Gujarat leading fast agricultural growth. This spurt of agricultural growth came to be known as ‘Green Revolution’. This also gave fillip to the development of a large number of agro-inputs, agro-processing industries and small-scale industries. This strategy of agricultural development made the country self-reliant in food grain production.

The Planning Commission of India focused its attention on the problems of agriculture in rained areas in 1980s. It initiated agro-climatic planning in 1988 to induce regionally balanced agricultural development in the country. It also emphasized ‘ the need for diversification of agriculture and harnessing of resources for development of dairy farming, poultry, horticulture, live- tock rearing and aquaculture.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Define land-use.
Answer:
The different uses to which land is put to use. Different types of land are used for different purposes. Human beings thus, use land as a resource for production as well as residence and recreation.

Question 2.
What factors influence land-use to a large extent?
Answer:
Land-use in a region, to a large extent, is influenced by the nature of economic activities carried out in that region.

Question 3.
Define Common Property Resources (CPR).
Answer:
CPR’s can be defined as community’s natural resource, where every member has the right of access and usage with some obligations, without anybody having the rights to property over them.

Question 4.
How is cropping intensity calculated?
Answer:
Cropping intensity is the number of times of a crop is planted per year in a given agricultural area. It is the ratio of effective crop area harvested to the physical area.

Question 5.
Which is the 2nd most important cereal crop in India?
Answer:
Wheat is the 2nd most important cereal crop in India.

Question 6.
Where is bajra grown in India?
Answer:
Bajra is grown in Maharashtra, Gujarat, UP, Rajasthan and Haryana.

Question 7.
What are the main fibre crops of India? How are they used?
Answer:
Cotton and jute are fibre crops of India. They provide fibre for making cloth, bags, sacks and other items of daily necessities and fashion.

Question 8.
What is India’s rank in sugarcane production of the world?
Answer:.
India ranks second after Brazil in sugarcane production of world as per 2011.

Question 9.
Name the beverage crops of India.
Answer:
Tea and coffee are two main beverage crops of India.

Question 10.
Cotton is grown in which season? Name another crop of this season.
Answer:
Cotton is tropical crop grown in kharif season in semi arid areas of the country. Rice is another kharif crop.

Question 11.
Name the coarse cereals.
Answer:
Jowar, Bajra, maize and ragi are course cereals.

Question 12.
What is India’s rank in cotton production?
Answer:
India ranks 4th in cotton production after China, USA and Pakistan.

Question 13.
What percentage of cropped area in India is under rice & wheat cultivation?
Answer:
25% of the total cropped area is under rice, and 14% of the total cropped area is under wheat cultivation in India.

Question 14.
What is India’s rank in rice production in the world?
Answer:
India ranks second in rice production in the world after China.

Question 15.
What are the functions of Land Revenue Department?
Answer:
Land-use records are maintained by Land Revenue Department. The land- use categories add up to reporting area, which is somewhat different from the geographical area.

Question 16.
What are the functions of the Survey of India?
Answer:
The Survey of India is responsible for measuring geographical area of administrative units in India.

Question 17.
Explain two reasons for the increase pressure on agricultural land in developing country like India.
Answer:
Two reasons for the increase pressure on agricultural land in developing country are:
In developing countries, share of population development on agriculture declines more slowly compared to decline in sector’s share in GDP. The number of people that agricultural sector has to feed is increasing day by day.

Question 18.
Why is it important for India to develop land saving technology?
Answer:
In India land area is extremely less in comparison to its population. Therefore, India needs to develop land saving technology.

Question 19.
Why are various crop seasons not found in south India?
Answer:
Since weather does not change much in south India therefore the climate is suitable for the same types of crops throughout the year. Therefore,
there are not various crop seasons in south India.

Question 20.
Explain why does the southern parts of India grow the same crops thrice a year?
Answer:
In southern India the temperature remains high throughout the year. It is suitable for growing tropical crops throughout the year. Thus, in this region the tropical varieties of crop are grown thrice in a year.

Question 21.
What are fibre crops?
Answer:
The crops which provide us fiber for preparing cloth, bags, sacks and a number of other items. Cotton and jute are two main fiber crops grown in India.

Question 22.
What are beverage crops?
Answer:
Those crops which are used as beverage after processing are called beverage crops. Example; Tea and coffee.

Question 23.
Name the programmes initiated in the end of 1960 for development of agriculture.
Answer:
Green revolution or package technology was initiated in the end of 1960s for development of agriculture.

Question 24.
What do you mean by low productivity?
Answer:
Low productivity means output per unit of labour employed or per unit of land use is low.

Question 25.
Name the two HYV seeds imported in 1960.
Answer:
New seed varieties of wheat (Mexico) and rice (Philippines) were imported in 1960.

Question 26.
What do you mean by small and fragmented landholdings?
Answer:
Landholdings of less than 1 hectare are called small landholdings. When these are scattered at different places, it is called fragmented landholdings.

Question 27.
What do you mean by under¬employment?
Answer:
When a person is working below his potential, he is said to be under-employed and this situation is called under¬employment.

Question 28.
What is barren and wasteland?
Answer:
The land which may be classified as a wasteland such as barren hilly terrains, desert lands, ravines, etc. normally cannot be brought under cultivation with the available technology. ,

Question 29.
Define fallow land?
Answer:
This is the land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year. Fallowing is a cultural practise adopted for giving the land rest. The land recoups the lost fertility through natural processes.

Question 30.
What is fallow other than current fallow?
Answer:
This is also a cultivable land which is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than five years. If the land is left uncultivated for more than five years, it would be categorized as culturable wasteland.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Which four categories witnessed a decline in land use? Why?
Answer:
The four categories that have registered a decline are barren and wasteland, culturable wasteland, area under pastures and tree crops and fallow lands. The following explanations can be given for the declining trends:

• As the pressure on land increased, both from the agricultural and non agricultural sectors, the wastelands and culturable wastelands have witnessed decline over time.
• The decline in land under pastures and grazing lands can be explained by pressure from agricultural land. Illegal encroachment due to expansion of cultivation on common pasture lands is largely responsible for this decline.

Question 2.
What are the varieties of rice in India?
Answer:
Rice is a tropical crop and has about 3,000 varieties that are grown in different agro-climatic regions from sea level to about 2,000 m altitude and from humid areas in eastern India to dry but irrigated areas of the west. In southern states and West Bengal two to three crops of rice in an agricultural year. In West Bengal farmers grow three crops of rice called ‘aus’, ‘aman’ and ‘boro’. In Himalayas and northwestern parts of the country, it is grown as a kharif crop during southwest Monsoon season.

Question 3.
What is the importance of pulses in India?
Answer:
Pulses are a very important as part of vegetarian food as a source of protein. Since these are legume crops they help in restoring the natural fertility of soils through the nitrogen fixing bacteria rhizobium in their roots. Since they do not much care, they can be grown in drier parts of the country, where the fine cereals cannot be grown.

Question 4.
What problems are faced by the fibre crops in India?
Answer:
India lost a big cotton growing area to Pakistan during partition and jute growing area to East Pakistan that is Bangladesh. Also these fibres are facing stiff competition from synthetic fibre as they are cheap, durable and easy to work with.

Question 5.
Write a note on tea cultivation in India.
Answer:
Tea is a plantation crop used as beverage. Black tea leaves are fermented whereas green tea leaves are unfermented. In India, tea plantation started in 1840’s in Brahmaputra valley of Assam which still is a major tea growing area in the country. Later, it was introduced in the sub-Himalayan region of West Bengal. It is also grown in Nilgiri and Cardamom hills. India accounts for about 28 per cent of total production in the world. Presently, it ranks third among tea exporting countries in the world after Sri Lanka and China. Assam accounts for about 53.2 per cent of the total cropped area and contributes more than half of total production of tea in the country. West Bengal and Tamil Nadu are the other leading producers of tea.

Question 6.
What is the importance of coarse cereals in India?
Answer:
Coarse cereals like Jowar, Bajra, ragi and maize occupy about 17% of the total cropped area. These crops are sometimes grown as part of mixed cropping and are grown almost all over dry and semi arid parts of India since they do not require much care, fertilizer, etc. So, the areas where rice and wheat are not grown, these are grown by farmers who cannot afford to grow fine cereals. Coarse cereals also have a very high nutritious value. For a developing country like India, they are highly suitable for poor farmers to grow them on inferior quality, drier lands.

Question 7.
Why does India need irrigation?
Answer:
In India irrigation is needed for the spatio-temporal variation in rainfall. The water intensive crops makes irrigation necessary. Irrigation also makes multiple cropping possible. HYV varieties of crops require assured water supply at the right time to give the maximum production.

Question 8.
What are the advantages of common property resources?
Answer:

• CPR’s provide fodder for the livestock and fuel for the households.
• It provides products like fruits, nuts, fibre, medical plants, etc.
• It provides livelihood of the landless and marginal farmers and other weaker sections. They depend on income from their livestock due to limited access to land.
• CPR’s are also important for women to collect most of the fodder and fuel in rural areas.

Question 9.
Explain the conditions for the growth of wheat.
Answer:
Wheat is the second most important cereal crop in India after rice.
Conditions:

• It is primarily a crop of temperate zone. It is cultivated in India during winter, i.e. rabi season.
• It requires fertile soil, therefore about 85 per cent of total area under this crop is concentrated in north and central regions of the country, i.e. Indo Gangetic Plain, Malwa Plateau and Himalayas up to 2,700 m altitude.
• Being a rabi crop, it is mostly grown under irrigated conditions. But it is a rained crop in Himalayan highlands and parts of Malwa plateau in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 10.
Explain the conditions for the growth of rice.
Answer:
Rice is a staple food for the overwhelming majority of population in India.
Conditions:

• Though, it is considered to be a crop of tropical humid areas, it has about 3,000 varieties which are grown in different agro-climatic regions.
• These are successfully grown from sea level to about 2,000 m altitude and from humid areas in eastern India to diy but irrigated areas of Punjab, Haiyana, western U.P. and northern Rajasthan.
• In southern states and West Bengal the climatic conditions allow the cultivation of two or three crops of rice in an agricultural year. But in Himalayas and northwestern parts of the country, it is grown as a kharif crop during southwest Monsoon season.
• West Bengal, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh were the leading rice producing states in the country in 2009-10.

Question 11.
Which crops are included in oil seeds? Give a brief account of their production.
Answer:
Oil seeds include:

• Groundnut
• Rapeseed and mustard
• Soyabean and
• Sunflower

The oil seeds are produced for extracting edible oils. Drylands of Malwa plateau, Marathwada, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Telangana and Rayalseema region of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka plateau are oil seeds growing regions of India. These crops together occupy about 14 per cent of total cropped area in the country.

Question 12.
Give the desired conditions for the growth of cotton.
Answer:
Desired Conditions:

• Cotton is a tropical crop grown in kharif season in semi-arid areas of the country.
• Cotton requires clear sly during flowering stage.
• Black soil is most suitable for production of cotton.
• Leading producers of this crop are Maharashtra, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana. Per hectare output of

cotton is high under irrigated conditions in north western region of the country. Its yield is very low in Maharashtra where it is grown under rained conditions.

Question 13.
Give the desired conditions for the growth of sugarcane.
Answer:
Desired Conditions:

• Sugarcane is a crop of tropical areas. Under rained conditions, it is cultivated in sub-humid and humid climates.
• It is largely an irrigated crop in India.
• In Indo-Gangetic plain, its cultivation is largely concentrated in Uttar Pradesh. Sugarcane growing area in western India is spread over Maharashtra and Gujarat.
• In Southern India, it is cultivated in irrigated tracts of Karnataka.

Question 14.
What is package technology?
Answer:
New seed varieties of wheat (Mexico) and rice (Philippines) known as high yielding varieties (HYVs) were available for cultivation by mid-1960s. India also introduced package technology comprising HYVs, along with chemical fertilisers in irrigated, areas of Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat. Its basic need was assured supply of soil moisture through irrigation. This strategy of agricultural development paid dividends instantly and increased the foodgrains production at very fast rate. This spurt of agricultural growth came to be known as ‘Green Revolution’ which is a result of package technology.

Question 15.
Explain the land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue Records?
Answer:
The land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue Records are as follows:

• Forests
• Land put to non-agricultural Uses
• Barren and Wastelands
• Area under Permanent Pastures and Grazing Lands
• Area under Miscellaneous Tree Crops and Groves (Not included is Net sown Area)
• Culturable Wasteland
• Current Fallow
• Fallow other than Current Fallow
• Net Area Sown

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give the land-use categories based on Land revenue records.
Answer:
The land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue Records are as follows: (zj Forests: It is important to note that area under actual forest cover is different from area classified as forest. The latter is the area which the Government has identified and demarcated for forest growth.

• Land put to Non-agricultural Uses: Land under settlements (rural and urban), infrastructure (roads, canals, etc.), industries, shops, etc. are included in this category.
• Barren and Wastelands: The land which may be classified as a wasteland such as barren hilly terrains, desert lands, ravines, etc. normally cannot be brought under cultivation with the available technology.
• Area under Permanent Pastures and Grazing Lands: Most of this type land is owned by the village ‘Panchayat’ or the Government. Only a small proportion of this land is privately owned. The land owned by the village panchayat comes under ‘Common Property Resources’.
• Area under Miscellaneous Tree Crops and Groves (Not included is Net sown Area): The land under orchards and fruit trees are included in this categoiy. Much of this land is privately owned.
• Culturable Waste-Land: Any land which is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than five years is included in this categoiy. It can be brought under cultivation after improving it through reclamation practices.
• Current Fallow: This is the land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year. Fallowing is a cultural practice adopted for giving the land rest. The land recoups the lost fertility through natural processes.
• Fallow other than Current Fallow: This is also a cultivable land which is left uncultivatedfor more than a year but less than five years. If the land is left uncultivated for more than five years, it would be categorised as culturable wasteland.
• Net Area Sown: The physical extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested is known as net sown area.

Question 2.
How is land significant/valuable in the livelihood of people?
Answer:
Land resource is more crucial to the livelihood of the people depending on agriculture:

• Agriculture is a purely land based activity unlike secondary and tertiary activities. In other words, contribution of land in agricultural output is more compared to its contribution in the outputs in the other sectors. Thus, lack of access to land is directly correlated with incidence of poverty in rural areas.
• Quality of land has a direct bearing on the productivity of agriculture, which is not true for other activities.
• In rural areas, aside from its value as a productive factor, land ownership has a social value and serves as a security for credit, natural hazards or life contingencies, and also adds to the social status.

Question 3.
What is the staple crop of our country? How many varieties are there? What is India’s contribution to the world? Where is it grown in India?
Answer:
Rice is the staple crop of the country. Rice is a tropical crop and has about 3,000 varieties that are grown in different agro-climatic regions from sea level to about 2,000 m altitude and from humid areas in eastern India to dry but irrigated areas of the west. In southern states and West Bengal two to three crops of rice in an agricultural year. In West Bengal farmers grow three crops of rice called ‘aus’, ‘aman’ and ‘boro’.

India contributes 21.6 per cent of rice production in the world and ranked second after China (2008-09). West Bengal, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh were the leading rice producing states in the country in 2009-10. The yield level of rice is high in Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Haryana, Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Kerala. The yield of this crop is very low in rainfed areas of M.P., Chhattisgarh and Odisha.

Question 4.
Show with example the development of agricultural with technology.
Answer:
There has been a significant increase in agricultural output and improvement in technology during the last fifty years.

• Production and yield of many crops such as rice and wheat has increased at an impressive rate. The production of sugarcane, oil seeds and cotton has also increased appreciably. India ranked first in the production of pulses and jute in 2008-09. It is the second largest producer of rice, wheat, groundnut, sugarcane and vegetables.
• Expansion of irrigation has played a very crucial role in enhancing agricultural output in the country and helped in the introduction of modern agricultural society such as high yielding varieties of seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides and farm machinery. The net irrigated area in the country has increased from 20.85 to 54.66 million ha over the period 1950-51 to 2000-01. Over these 50 years, area irrigated more than once in an agricultural year has increased from 1.71 to 20.46 million ha.
• In various areas of the country modern agricultural technology has spread very fast. Consumption of chemical fertilizers has increased by 15 times since mid-sixties. In 2001-02, per hectare consumption of chemical fertilizers in India was 91 kg which was at par with average consumption in the world (90 kg). Punjab and Haryana uses three to four times of this. Since the high yielding varieties are highly susceptible to pests and diseases, the use of pesticides has increased significantly since 1960’s.

Question 5.
Write a note on the problems of Indian agriculture.
Ans. The nature of problems faced by •Indian agriculture varies according to agro-ecological and historical experiences of its different regions. But there are some problems which are common and range from physical constraints to institutional hindrances. Some problems are:

• Dependence on Erratic Monsoon: Irrigation covers only about 33 per cent of the cultivated area in India. The crop production in rest of the cultivated land directly depends on rainfall. Spatio- temporal variations in rainfall causes fluctuations in steady supply of water and makes them vulnerable to both drought and floods.
• Low productivity: The yield of the crops in the country is low in comparison to the international level. Because of the very high pressure on the land resources, the labour productivity in Indian agriculture is also very low in comparison to international level.
• Constraints of Financial Resources and Indebtedness: The inputs of modem agriculture are very expensive for marginal and small farmers for them to invest in agriculture. Crop failures and low returns from agriculture have forced them to fall in the trap of indebtedness.
• Lack of Land Reforms: In India there had been unequal distribution of land over the years. Though land reforms were made after independence, they were not implemented affectively due to lack of strong political will. Lack of implementation of land reforms resulted in unequal distribution of cultivable land.
• Small Farm Size and Fragmentation of Landholdings: There are a large number of marginal and small farmers in the country. The average size of land holding is shrinking due to law of inheritance. The land holdings are mostly fragmented. Even the states where consolidation of land holdings was carried out once, second consolidation is required. The small size fragmented landholdings are uneconomic.
• Lack of Commercialization: A large number of farmers produce crops for self-consumption. These farmers do not have enough land resources to produce more than their requirement. Most of the small and marginal farmers grow food grains, which are meant for their own family consumption.
• Vast Under-employment: There is a massive under-employment in the agricultural sector in India, particularly in the un-irrigated tracts. The people engaged in agriculture do not have the opportunity to work round the year.
• Degradation of Cultivable Land: Degradation of land resources is a serious problem caused due to faulty strategy of irrigation and agricultural development which leads to depletion of soil fertility.Excessive use of chemicals such as insecticides and pesticides has made the soil toxic. Absence of leguminous plants and decrease in duration of fallow land has reducd natural fertilization of soil.

Question 6.
Define common property resources.
Answer:
Land, according to its ownership can broadly be classified under two broad heads – private land and common property resources (CPR’s). While the former is owned by an individual or a group of individuals, the latter is owned by the state meant for the use of the community, fodder form a degraded area of CPR. CPR’s can be defined as community’s natural resource, where every member has the right of access and usage with specified obligations, without anybody having property rights over them. Community forests, pasture lands, village water bodies and other public space are examples of CPR’s which are used and managed by households.

CPR’s provide fodder for the livestock and fuel for the households along with other minor forest products like fruits, nuts, fibre, medicinal plants, etc. In rural areas, such land is of particular relevance for the livelihood of the landless and marginal farmers and other weaker sections since many of them depend on income from their livestock due to the fact that they have limited access to land. CPR’s also are important for women as most of the fodder and fuel collection is done by them in rural areas. They have to devote long hours in collecting fuel and fodder from a degraded area of CPR.

Question 7.
Classify farming based on the ‘source of moisture’.
Answer:
On the basis of main source of moisture for crops, the farming can be classified as irrigated and rainfed (barani). There is difference in the nature of irrigated farming as well based on objective of irrigation, i.e. protective or productive. The objective of protective irrigation is to protect the crops from adverse effects of soil moisture deficiency which often means that irrigation acts as a supplementary source of water over and above the rainfall. The strategy of this kind of irrigation is to provide soil moisture to maximum possible area. Productive irrigation is meant to provide sufficient soil moisture in the cropping season to achieve high productivity. In such irrigation the water input per unit area of cultivated land is higher than protective irrigatioh. Rainfed farming is further classified on the basis of adequacy of soil moisture during cropping season into dryland and wetland farming. In India, the dryland farming is largely confined to the regions having annual rainfall less than 75 cm.

These regions grow hardy and drought resistant crops such as ragi, bajra, moong, gram and guar (fodder crops) and practise various measures of soil moisture conservation and rain water harvesting. In wetland farming, the rainfall is in excess of soil moisture requirement of plants during rainy season. Such regions may face flood and soil erosion hazards. These areas grow various water intensive crops such as rice, jute and sugarcane and practise aquaculture in the fresh water bodies.

Question 8.
What are the three economic factors that affect land-use?
OR
Describe the three types of changes that of changes that an economy undergoes which affect its land use pattern.
Answer:
Three factors that affect land-use are as follows:

• The size of the economy: The size of the economy grows over time as a result of increasing population, change in income levels, available technology and associated factors. As a result, the pressure on land will increase with time and marginal lands would come under use.
• The composition of the economy: The composition of the economy would undergo a change over time. In other words, the secondary and the tertiary sectors usually grow much faster than the primary sector,, specifically the agricultural sector. This type of change is common in developing countries like India. This process would result in a gradual shift of land from agricultural uses to non-agricultural uses. Such changes are sharp around large urban areas. The agricultural land is being used for building purposes.
• Continuous pressure on agricultural land: Though the contribution of the agricultural activities reduces over time, the pressure on land for agricultural activities does not decline. The reasons for continued pressure on agricultural land are:
  • In developing countries, the share of population dependent on agriculture usually declines far slowly as compared to the decline in the sector’s share in GDP.
  • The number of people that the agricultural sector has to feed keeps increasing day by day.

Question 9.
Which three categories have undergone increase in land use pattern? Explain why.
Answer:
Categories that have undergone increase in land use pattern are as follows:

• The rate of increase is the highest in case of area under non-agricultural uses. This is due to the changing structure of Indian economy, which is increasingly depending on the contribution from industrial and services sectors and expansion of related infrastructural facilities. Also, an expansion of area under both urban and rural settlements has added to the increase. Thus, the area under non-agriculturaluses is increasing at the expense of wastelands and agricultural land.
• The increase in the share under forest, as explained before, can be accounted for by increase in the demarcated area under forest rather than an actual increase in the forest cover in the countiy.
• The increase in the current fallow cannot be explained from information pertaining to only two points. The trend of current fallow fluctuates a great deal over years, depending on the variability of rainfall and cropping cycles.
• The increase in net area sown is a recent phenomenon due to use of culturable waste land for agricultural purpose. Before which it was registering a slow decrease. There are indications that most of the decline had occurred due to the increases in area under non-agricultural use.

Question 10.
Give statistical account of small and fragmented landholdings. Why are small and fragmented landholdings undesirable?
Answer:
There are a large number of marginal and small farmers in the countiy. More than 60 per cent of the ownership holdings have a size smaller than one hectare. Furthermore, about 40 per cent of the farmers have operational holding size smaller than 0.5 hectare. The average size of landholding is shrinking further under increasing population pressure. Furthermore, in India, the landholdings are mostly fragmented. There are some states where consolidation of holding has not been carried out even once. Even the states where it has been carried out once, second consolidation is required as landholdings have fragmented again in the process of division of land among the owners of next generations.

The small size fragmented landholdings are uneconomic. A lot of land gets wasted in fencing and modern farming methods cannot be used for small landholdings.

Question 11.
What is the importance of pulses in our diet? What are the main pulses grown in India?
Answer:
Pulses are a very important ingredient of vegetarian food as these are rich sources of proteins. These are legume crops which increase the natural fertility of soils through nitrogen fixation.

• India is a leading producer of pulses and accounts for about one-fifth of the total production of pulses in the world.
• The cultivation of pulses in the country is largely concentrated in the drylands of Deccan and central plateaus and northwestern parts of the countiy.
• Pulses occupy about 11 per cent of the total cropped area in the country.
• Being the rainfed crops of drylands, the yields of pulses are low and fluctuate from year to year.
• Gram and tur are the main pulses cultivated in India. Gram is cultivated in subtropical areas. It is mostly a rainfed crop cultivated during rabi season in central, western and northwestern parts of the countiy. Tur (Arhar) is the second important pulse crop in the countiy. It is also known as red gram or pigeon pea. It is cultivated over marginal lands and under rainfed conditions in the dry areas of central and southern states of the countiy. This crop occupies only about 2 per cent of total cropped area of India.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Differentiates

Question 1.
What is the basic difference between Land Revenue Department and Survey of India?
Answer:

Question 2.
Differentiate between protective irrigation and productive irrigation.
Answer:

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
Compare the features of productive and protective irrigation.
Answer:
Protective Irrigation:

• To protect crops from adverse effects of soil moisture deficiency.
• To provide soil moisture to maximum possible area.
• To supplement rain fed irrigation.

Productive Irrigation:

• To provide sufficient soil moisture in the cropping season to achieve high productivity.
• The water input in per unit area of cultivated land is higher than protective irrigation.
• To grow various water intensive crops such as rice, sugarcane etc.

Question 2.
Why is traditional cropping pattern changing in India nowadays
Answer:
Traditional cropping pattern is changing nowadays because:

• Expansion in irrigation facilities has facilitated growth of non-traditional crops. For example, growing rice in Punjab, wheat in West Bengal etc.
• Modem technology or advent of package technology.
• Changing food habits of people.
• Initiation of policy of liberalization and free market economy.
• Easy credit facility to farmers.

Question 3.
The Green Revolution was not equally successful in all parts of India. Why?
Answer:
The Green Revolution was not equally successful in all parts of India due to following reasons:

• Irrigation facilities were limited only to Punjab, Haryana and Western U.P.
• Farmers were not aware of modern technology and its accessibility.
• Good and high yielding varieties of seeds were not easily available because of faulty distribution and storage system.
• Poverty of farmers.
• Small size of land holdings.
• Lack of investment capacity.

Question 4.
“Indian farmers gamble with the monsoon”. Illustrate this statement.
Answer:
It is rightly said that Indian farmers gamble with monsoon. It can be proved through following facts:

• Uneven distribution of rainfall-spatial and temporal.
• Uncertainty of monsoon.
• Lack of irrigation facilities.
• Frequent flood and drought is a common phenomenon associated with the monsoon.

Question 5.
Why do the large number of farmers produce crops for self-consumption in India?
Answer:
In India many farmers are producing crops for self-consumption. Following reasons are responsible for it:

• Limited and small land holdings.
• Most of the farmers grow food grains to meet their family requirements.
• Lack of infrastructure and poor economic affordability.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Map Based Questions

Question 1.
Locate and label the following on the political map of India with appropriate symbols.
(i) Rice producing states
(ii) Wheat producing states
Answer:
(i) West Bengal, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Tamil nadu
(ii) Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and M.P.

Question 2.
Locate and label the following on the political map of India with appropriate symbols.
(i) Major maize producing states
(ii) Major jowar producing states
(iii) Major bajra producing states
Answer:
(i) M.P., A.P., Karnataka, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
(ii) Maharashtra, Karnataka, M.P., A.P.
(iii) Maharashtra, Gujarat, U.P., Rajasthan and Haryana

Question 3.
Locate and label the following on the political map of India with appropriate symbols,
(i) Leading producer of groundnut
(ii) Leading producer of sugarcane
Answer:
(i) Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra
(ii) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat

Question 4.
Locate and label the following on the political map of India with appropriate symbols.
(i) Leading cotton producing states
(ii) Leading jute producing states
Answer:
(i) Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh
(ii) West Bengal, Bihar, Assam

Question 5.
Locate and label the following on the political map of India with appropriate symbols.
(i) Tea producing states
(ii) Coffee producing states
Answer:
(i) Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu
(ii) Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu

Class 12 Geography Chapter 5 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
How is the productive irrigation able to achieve high productivity in India? (A.I. 2009)
Answer:
Productive irrigation provides timely water in required quantity to crops and help in achieving high productivity in India.

Question 2.
What is the main objective of productive irrigation in India? (Foreign 2009)
Answer:
The main objective of productive irrigation is to achieve high productivity in India.

Question 3.
What is the contribution of India in the production of rice in the world? (A.I., Delhi 2011)
Answer:
India contributes 21.6 per cent of rice production in the world and ranked second after China.

Question 4.
Mention the two processes that induce land degradation in India. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Faulty strategy of irrigation and agricultural development.

Question 5.
Classify rainfed farming on the basis of adequacy of soil moisture during cropping season. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Classification of Rain fed farming:
(i) Dry land farming
(ii) Wet land farming

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
“Land degradation caused by human made processes are more harmful than natural processes in India.” Analyse the statement with suitable example. (Delhi 2009)
OR
Explain any three factors responsible for land degradation in India. (Delhi 2010)
OR
“Degradation of cultivable land is one of the most serious problems that arises out of irrigation and agricultural development in India.” Support this statement with three points. (CBSE 2011)
OR
How is the degradation of cultivable land one of the serious problems in India? Explain in any three points. (CBSE 2010)
Answer:

• A large tract of agricultural land has lost its fertility due to alkalisation and salinisabon of soils and waterlogging,
• Excessive use of chemicals such as insecticides and pesticides has led to their concentration in toxic amounts in the soil profile.
• Leguminous crops have been displaced from the cropping pattern in the irrigated areas and duration of fallow has substantially reduced owing to multiple cropping.

Question 2.
Classify rainfed farming of India into two categories on the basis of adequacy of soil moisture during cropping season. Explain any two features of each. (A.I. 2010)
Answer:
Rainfed farming is classified on the basis of adequacy of soil moisture during cropping season into dryland and wetland farming.

Question 3.
Classify Indian farming into two groups on the basis of main source of moisture for crops. Write two features of each.
Answer:
On the basis of main source of moisture for crops, Indian farming can be classified into irrigated and rainfed farming. Features of irrigated farming:

• It protects the crops from adverse effects of soil moisture deficiency.
• It provides sufficient soil moisture in the cropping season to achieve high productivity.

Features of rainfed farming:

• Hardy and drought resistant crops such as ragi, bajra, moong, gram are grown.
• Practise various measures of soil moisture conservation and rain water harvesting.

Question 4.
Describe any three characteristics of ‘wetland farming’ in India. (A.I. 2013)
Answer:
Characteristics:

• In wetland farming, the rainfall is in excess of soil moisture requirement of planis during rainy season.
• These regions may face flood and soil erosion hazards.
• In these regions various water intensive crops are grown such as rice, jute and sugarcane.
• In the fresh water bodies aquaculture is pracitsed.

Question 5.
State any two characteristics each of the three distinct ‘cropping seasons’ of India. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:

Kharif Crop Season:

• Kharif season largely concides with South West Monsson.
• Generally it prevails between June to September.
• Rice, Maize, Ragi Jowar, Bajara, Cotton, Jute are the major crops of this season.

Rabi Crop Season:

• This season begins with the onset of winter.
• It begins in October and November and ends in March-April.
• Wheat, Gram, Rapeseeds, Masturd and Barley are its major crops of this season.

Zaid Crop Season:

• Zaid is the short duration cropping season.
• It begins after harvesting of rabi crops.
• The cultivation of watermelon, cucumbers, fruits, vegetables and fodder crops are largely grown in this season.

6. Study the given diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow: (Delhi 2017)

Question 7.(1)
Which land use category has shown the highest increasing trend? What percentage in reporting area has increased in that category, during the given period?
Answer:
Highest increasing trend in land use – Area under Non agricultural uses & 5:9 or 80%

Question 7.(2)
Explain any two reasons responsible for the increasing trend in that category.
Answer:

• Changing structure of the Indian Economy.
• Expansion of industrial and service sector.
• Expansion of related infrastructural facilities.
• Expansion of area under urban and rural settlemc its.
• It is expanding at the expense of waste lands and agricultural lands.
  (Any two reasons to be explained)

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Explain the term ‘cropping intensity’. Describe the three cropping seasons in India. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
Intensity of cropping means the number of crops raised on a field during an agricultural year. It indicates the efficiency of land use. The three cropping seasons of India are: kharif, rabi and zaid.

Kharif: It coincides with southwest Monsoon. This season starts from June and ends in September. During this season tropical crops such as rice, cotton, jute, jo war. bajra and tur are grown.

Rabi: The rabi season begins with the onset of winter in October-November and ends in March-April. The low temperature conditions during this season facilitate the cultivation of temperate and subtropical crops such as wheat, gram and mustard.

Zaid: Zaid is a short duration summer cropping season beginning after harvesting of rabi crops. Watermelons, cucumbers, vegetables and fodder crops are cultivated during this season.

Question 2.
Explain the importance of foodgrains in the Indian agricultural economy. Describe any three characteristics of rice cultivation. (CBSE, A.I. 2015)
OR
Explain the importance of food grains in the Indian agricultural economy. Describe any three characteristics of rice cultivation. (A.I. 2015)
Answer:
The importance of foodgrains in Indian agricultural economy:

• These crops occupy about two-third of total cropped area in the country.
• They are dominant crops in all parts of the country whether they have subsistence or commercial agricultural economy.
• They feed a large population of the country.
• They are used as raw materials in the agro-based industries.

Question 3.
“Erratic monsoon” and ‘Indebtness are the major problems of India agriculture.’ Suggest and explain the measures to overcome these problems. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
Suggestions to solve the problem of erratic monsoon are:

• Expansion of Irrigation Facilities: Irrigation covers only 33 per cent of cultivated area. The rest of the cultivated land directly depends on rainfall. More and more cultivated area should be under irrigation to get more production from the same field.
• Efficient use of water is essential.
• Improved methods for irrigation be adopted.
• Rainwater harvesting is required to recharge ground water and to check the declining ground water table so that the availability of ground water continue for irrigation.
• Linkage of rivers.
• Maintenance of existing water bodies such as lakes, ponds, tanks etc.
• Availability of drought resistant good quality of seeds.

Suggestions for solving the problem of rural indebtedness:

• Minimum support price.
• Provision of subsidies on seeds and fertilizers.
• Cheap loan facilities to be provided to the farmers for their purchases and marriages.
• Gramin banks, Banks and Cooperative banks to be opened more and more in rural areas.
• Storage facilities be provided to the farmers.
• Rural roads should be developed.
• To supplement the economy of farmers, rearing of wild animals is essential.

Question 4.
Review any five measures adopted to solve the problems of Indian agriculture. (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
Five measures adopted to solve the problems of Indian agriculture:
To increase food grains production by

• Intensification of cropping over cultivated land.
• Increase cultivated area wherever possible.
• To use HYV seeds, .
• Easy availability of fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides.
• Expansion of irrigation facilities,
• Use modern agricultural technology.
  ( Review any five points/measures)

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 5 Land Resources and Agriculture appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 6 Water Resources

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answers of the followings from the given options:

Question 1.(i)
Which one of the following types describes water as a resource?
(a) Abiotic resource
(b) Non-renewable Resources
(c) Biotic Resource
(d) Cyclic Resource
Answer:
(d) Cyclic Resource

Question 1.(ii)
Which one of the following rivers has the highest replenishable ground water resource in the country?
(a) The Indus
(b) The Brahmaputra
(c) The Ganga
(d) The Godavari
Answer:
(a) The Indus

Question 1.(iii)
Which of the following figures in cubic kilometres correctly shows the total annual precipitation in India?
(a) 2,000
(b) 3,000
(c) 4,000
(d) 5,000
Answer:
(c) 4,000

Question 1.(iv)
Which one of the following south Indian states has the highest groundwater utilization (in per cent) of its total ground water potential?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(a) Tamil Nadu

Question 1.(v)
The highest proportion of the total water used in the country is in which one of the following sectors?
(a) Irrigation
(b) Industries
(c) Domestic use
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Irrigation

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
It is said that the water resources in India have been depleting very fast. Discuss the factors responsible for depletion of water resources?
Answer:
Water scarcity is possibly to pose the greatest challenge on account of its increased demand coupled with shrinking supplies due to over utilization and pollution. The per capita availability of water is dwindling day by day due to increase in population. The available water resources are also getting polluted with industrial, agricultural and domestic effluents, and this, in turn, is further limiting the availability of usable water resources.

Some states utilize large proportion of their ground water potential which has resulted in ground water depletion in these states. Over withdrawals in some states like Rajasthan, and Maharashtra has increased fluoride concentration in ground-water, and this practice has led to increase in concentration of arsenic in parts of West Bengal and Bihar. Water, gets polluted by foreign matters such as micro-organisms, chemicals, industrial, domestic and other wastes. When toxic substances enter lakes, steams, rivers, ocean and other water bodies, they get dissolved or lie suspended in water. This results in pollution of water whereby quality of water deteriorates affecting aquatic systems. Sometimes, these pollutants also seep down and pollute groundwater. The Ganga and the Yamuna are the two highly polluted rivers in the country,

Question 2.(ii)
What factors are responsible for the highest groundwater depletion in the states of Punjab, Haryana, and Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The states of Punjab, Haryana and Tamil Nadu have agriculture supported mainly by irrigated water and the main source for it is the underground water. These reasons were the target regions for green revolution. All the green revolution crops are water intensive, hence the demand for water in these states is very high. These regions have soft alluvial soil which allows the rain water to seep down and recharge the underground water table. This area is easy to be dug, hence extraction of underground water is easiest source of water.

It has also been found that irrigated lands have higher agricultural productivity than unirrigated land. Further, the high yielding varieties of crops need regular moisture supply, which is made possible only by a developed irrigation systems. In Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh more than 85 per cent of their net sown area is under irrigation. Wheat and rice are grown mainly with the help of irrigation in these states. Of the total net irrigated area 76.1 per cent in Punjab and 51.3 per cent in Haryana are irrigated through wells and tube wells. This shows that these states utilize large proportion of their groundwater potential which has resulted in groundwater depletion in these states. The over-use of groundwater resources has led to decline in ground water table in these states.

Question 2.(iii)
Why the share of agricultural sector in total water used in the country is expected to decline?
Answer:
At present the agriculture use accounts for the highest share of utilization for both ground and surface water resources. The main reason being that the agriculture accounts or the largest share in economy of the country, but in recent times the share of secondary and tertiary activities have been rising in the economy. This in turn will reduce the share of the agriculture and increase the share of industrial and domestic sector in the consumption of all resources including the water resources of the country.

Question 2.(iv)
What can be possible impacts of consumption of contaminated/unclean water on the people?
Answer:
Water constitutes a large proportion of human body. Water intake is an essential part of human life. Contaminated water intake is one of the biggest reasons of many chronic diseases. The intake of contaminated water is the cause of severe water borne disease and is also one of the main causes of high infant mortality rates. The contaminated water is the reason for several diseases like Cholera, typhoid, etc. which are major killer diseases in India.

3. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
Discuss the availability of water resources in the country and factors that determine its spatial distribution?
Answer:
India accounts for about 2.45 per cent of world’s surface area, 4 per cent of the world’s water resources and about 16 per cent of world’s population. The total water available from precipitation in the country in a year is about 4,000 cubic km. The availability from surface water and replenishable groundwater is 1,869 cubic km. Out of this only 60 per cent can be put to beneficial uses. Due to topographical, hydrological and other constraints, only about 690 cubic km (32 per cent) of the available surface water can be utilised. Water flow in a river depends on size of its catchment area or river basin and rainfall within its catchment area.

Precipitation in India has very high spatial variation, and it is mainly concentrated in Monsoon season. Rivers in the country like the Ganga, the Brahmaputra, and the Indus have huge catchment areas. Given that precipitation is relatively high in the catchment areas of the Ganga, the Brahmaputra and the Barak rivers, these rivers, although account for only about one-third of the total area in the country, have 60 per cent of the total surface water resources. Morever Himalayan rivers are glacial fed perennial whereas Southern rivers are rainfed seasonal rivers. Much of the annual water flow in south Indian rivers like the Godavari, the Krishna, and the Kaveri has been harnessed, but it is yet to be done in the Brahmaputra and the Ganga basins.

Groundwater Resources: The total replenishable groundwater resources in the country are about 432 cubic km. The level of groundwater utilisation is relatively high in the river basins lying in north-western region and parts of south India. The groundwater utilisation is very high in the states of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, and Tamil Nadu. However, there are States like Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Kerala, etc., which utilise only a small proportion of their groundwater potentials. States like Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Tripura and Maharashtra are utilising their ground water resources at a moderate rate.

Lagoons and Backwaters: India has a vast coastline and the coast is very indented in some states. Due to this, a number of lagoons and lakes have formed. The States like Kerala, Odisha and West Bengal have vast surface water resources in these lagoons and lakes. Water is generally used for fishing and irrigating certain varieties of paddy crops, coconut, etc.

Surface Water Resources: There are four major sources of surface water. These are rivers, lakes, ponds, and tanks. In the country, there are about 10,360 rivers and their tributaries longer than 1.6 km each. The mean annual flow in all the river basins in India is estimated to be 1,869 cubic km.

Question 3.(ii)
The depleting water resources may lead to social conflicts and disputes. Elaborate it with suitable examples?
Answer:
It can be said with some certainty that the societies will witness demographic transition, geographical shift of population, technological advancement, degradation of environment and water scarcity. Water scarcity is possibly to pose the greatest challenge on account of its increased demand coupled with shrinking supplies due to over utilisation and pollution. Water is a cyclic resource with abundant supplies on the globe. Approximately, 71 per cent of the earth’s surface is covered with it but fresh water constitutes only about 3 per cent of the total water. In fact, a very small proportion of fresh water is effectively available for human use. The availability of fresh water varies over space and time. The tensions and disputes on sharing and control of this scare resource are becoming contested issues among communities, regions, and states.

India accounts for about 2.45 per cent of world’s surface area, 4 per cent of the world’s water resources and about 16 per cent of world’s population. The total utilizable water resource in the country is only 1,122 cubic km. This dearth of utilizable water has been cause of several disputes in India at local, state and national levels. Sadly in India there is conflict on issues like social structure (casteism, communalism etc.)
Rivers of Northern India have condition of water surplus and many regions face flood situation whereas, the rivers in Southern India have perennial flow concentrated in the months of monsoon leading to water scarcity during rest of the year. To solve the situation there have been many proposed river linkage schemes which became causes for disputes among the states over the sharing of water resources.

It is the scarcity of water that has caused longstanding disputes between the state of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu over sharing of waters of Kaveri River. Sharing of water of Brahmaputra has always been a cause of conflict between India and Bangladesh. Much to India’s dislike and concern China is planning to build a dam on river Brahmaputra.

Question 3.(iii)
What is watershed management? Do you think it can play an important role in sustainable development?
Answer:
Watershed management basically refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources with community participation. It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods like percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc. However, in broad sense watershed management includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources – natural (like land, water, plants and animals) and human within a watershed. Watershed management aims at bringing about balance between natural resources on the one hand and society on the other. The success of watershed development largely depends upon community participation. In short community is the soul of the entire scheme.

Watershed management not only conserves the entire ecosystem of an area but also empowers the people by making them socially and economically self reliant as it has community participation as its vital component. Since local people understand the local ecosystem in the best way, therefore they conserve in the best way. Sustainable development is the development, which fulfills the needs of present generation without depriving the future generations from the benefits arising from the resources. Watershed management helps conserving the environment along with fulfilling need of the people.

The importance of watershed management in sustainable development has been identified and many programmes both by government and NGOs have been launched for the watershed management. Some examples are—
Haryalis, a watershed development project sponsored by the Central Government which aims at enabling the rural population to conserve water for drinking, irrigation, fisheries and afforestation. The Project is being executed by Gram Panchayats with people’s participation.
Neeru-Meeru (Water and You) programme (in Andhra Pradesh) and Arvary Pani Sansad (in Alwar, Rajasthan) have taken up constructions of various water -harvesting structures such as percolation tanks, dug out ponds (Johad), check dams, -etc. through people’s participation. Tamil Nadu has made water harvesting structures in the houses compulsory. No building can be constructed without making structures for water harvesting.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What percentage of world’s water resource does India have?
Answer:
About 4% of the world’s water resource.

Question 2.
What is the percentage of fresh water to total water in the world?
Answer:
About 71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water but fresh water is about 3% of the total water resource.

Question 3.
What is the total replenishable groundwater resource of India?
Answer:
The total replenishable groundwater resource of India is about 432 cubic km.

Question 4.
Define rainwater harvesting.
Answer:
Rain water harvesting is a method to capture and store rainwater for various uses. It is also used to recharge groundwater aquifers. It is a low cost and eco-friendly technique for preserving every drop of water by guiding the rain water to bore well, pits and wells. Rainwater harvesting increases water availability, checks the declining groundwater table, improves the quality of groundwater, controls soil erosion and flooding.

Question 5.
What is watershed management?
Answer:
Watershed management basically refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater resources. It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of groundwater through various methods like percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc. However, in broad sense watershed management includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources – natural (like land, water, plants and animals) and human with in a watershed.

Question 6.
What are the water conservation projects of Andhra Pradesh & Rajasthan?
Answer:
Neeru-Meeru (Water and You) programme (in Andhra Pradesh) and Arvary Pani Sansad (in Alwar, Rajasthan) are the two water-harvesting projects through people’s participation.

Question 7.
What are the different water harvesting structures?
Answer:
Percolation tanks, recharge wells, dugout ponds (Johad).

Question 8.
Which was the first state to make water harvesting system compulsory?
Answer:
Tamil Nadu.

Question 9.
What are the rainwater harvesting structures in Rajasthan?
Answer:
The rainwater harvesting structures in Rajasthan is a Kund or Tanka (a covered underground tank) near or in the house or village and Johads are used to store harvested rain water. Rooftop rain water is diverted and stored in them.

Question 10.
In spite of the fact that 71% of the earth is covered with water, water is scarce. Substantiate.
Answer:
Approximately, 71 per cent of the earth’s surface is covered with it but only 3% of it is fresh water. A very small proportion of fresh water is effectively available for human use. The availability of fresh water varies over space and time. The tensions and disputes on sharing and control of this scare resource are becoming contested issues among communities, regions, and states. The assessment, efficient use and conservation of water, therefore, become necessaiy to ensure development.

Question 11.
In which sector the share of total water used in the country is high?
Answer:
In agricultural sector the share of total water is high in the country.

Question 12.
Compare water resources of India and it population with respect of the world.
Answer:
16% of the world population live in India but only 4% of total water resources of the world belongs to India.

Question 13.
Mention four sources of surface water.
Answer:
There are four major sources of surface water: rivers, lakes, ponds, and tanks.

Question 14.
Give an account of river water in India.
Answer:
There are about 10,360 rivers and their tributaries longer than 1.6 km each. The mean annual flow in all the river basins in India is estimated to be 1,869 cubic km.

Question 15.
In which rivers precipitation rates are high and what are its effects?
Answer:
Precipitation is relatively high in the catchment areas of the Ganga, the Brahmaputra and the Barak rivers. As a result, these rivers, although account for only about one-third of the total area in the country, have 60 per cent of the total surface water resources.

Question 16.
Which states have surface water in the form of lagoons and lakes? For what purpose is it used?
Answer:
The states like Kerala, Odisha and West Bengal have vast surface water resources in these lagoons and lakes. Although, water is generally brackish in these water bodies, it is used for fishing and irrigating certain varieties of paddy crops, coconut, etc. .

Question 17.
Where is the highest replenishable water concentrated?
Answer:
The total replenishable groundwater resources in the country are about 432 cubic km. The Ganga and the Brahamaputra basins, have about 46 per cent of the total replenishable groundwater resources. The level of groundwater utilisation is relatively high in the river basins lying in north-western region and parts of south India.

Question 18.
What is the utility of irrigation in agriculture?
Answer:
Irrigation makes it possible to use:
(a) Modern farming methods
(b) Multi-cropping for more production.
(c) Reduces dependence on monsoon which is very uncertain.

Question 19.
How does irrigation help in multi¬cropping?
Answer:
Through irrigation land can be utilised throughout the year but if irrigation facilities are not there we can grow crops only in rainy season. Therefore, it helps in multi-cropping.

Question 20.
What do you mean by water pollution?
Answer:
Water pollution is alteration of the physical, biological, chemical, and radiological integrity of water due to human activities, any unwanted contaminating property that renders a water supply unfit for its designated use.

Question 21.
Why is rainwater harvesting important?
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting is important to conserve rainwater and utilise it for various purposes like irrigation, cleaning, washing, etc.

Question 22.
How has Ralegan Siddhi become a source of inspiration?
Answer:
Ralegan Siddhi is a small village in the district of Ahmadnagar, Maharashtra. It has become an example for watershed development throughout the country.

Question 23.
How is quality of national water resources monitored?
Answer:
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) in collaboration with State Pollution Control Boards has been monitoring water quality of national aquatic resources at 507 stations.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the three things essential for water resource development?
Answer:
A very small proportion of fresh water is available for human use. The availability of fresh water varies over space and time. The tensions and disputes on sharing and control of this scare resource have become serious problems. So assessment, efficient use and Conservation of water, have become necessary to ensure development.

Question 2.
Why does the use of groundwater vary from state to state?
Answer:
The rate of groundwater utilization is very high in the river basins of north west India and parts of south India, where the rain water percolates down easily through the soft soils and recharge underground water table. It is also easy to construct wells and tube wells here. Surface water is more utilized in the crystalline rocks of south India.

Question 3.
What are the emerging water problems facing India?
Answer:
The over-use of groundwater resources has led to decline in ground water table in the states of Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh. In fact, over withdrawals in some states like Rajasthan and Maharashtra has increased fluoride concentration in groundwater, and this practice has led to increase in concentration of arsenic in parts of West Bengal and Bihar. The per capita availability of water is dwindling day by day due to increase in population. The available water resources are also getting polluted with industrial, agricultural and domestic effluents,
and this, in turn, is further limiting the availability of usable water resources.

Question 4.
When was National Water Policy undertaken? Give its key features.
Answer:
The National Water Policy was undertaken in 2002, to prioritized the ‘ water allocation in the different sectors in the following order:
Drinking water, Irrigation, Hydro power, Navigation, Industrial and Other uses. Highlights:

• Providing drinking water is the first priority.
• Irrigation and multi-purpose projects should include drinking water in areas where it is not available.
• Regulate and limit groundwater exploitation.
• Regular monitoring of water sources for quality.
• Awareness and conservation consciousness should be promoted.

Question 5.
What do you mean by degradation of water resources?
Answer:
Water quality refers to the purity of water, or water without unwanted foreign substances. Water gets polluted by foreign matters such as micro-organisms, chemicals, industrial and other wastes. Such matters deteriorate the quality of water and render it unfit for human use. When toxic substances enter lakes, steams, rivers, ocean and other water bodies, they get dissolved or lie suspended in water. This results in pollution of water whereby the quality of water deteriorates affecting aquatic systems.

Question 6.
Why is the level of groundwater utilization relatively high in the river basins lying in north-western region and parts of South India?
Answer:

• Water percolates easily in alluvial soil construction is easy.
• Northern states are mostly the agricultural states where the water is used for irrigation.
• South India is hard in rocky terrain, percolation of the water becomes difficult, moreover, canal construction is costly because of topography.

Question 7.
Name the three states which have larger area under irrigation and why?
Answer:
The three states are:

1. Punjab
2. Haiyana
3. Western Uttar Pradesh

It is because:

• Wheat and rice are grown mainly with the help of irrigation in these states.
• Net irrigated area of Punjab and Haryana are irrigated through wells and tube wells.
• These states utilize large proportion of their groundwater potential.
• Canal irrigation is the biggest source of irrigation in North India.
• In peninsular India, tank irrigation is mostly done.

Question 8.
What are the implications of using groundwater in drought-prone areas of Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

• The over-use of groundwater resources has led to decline in its level.
• Rajasthan and Maharashtra have increased fluoride concentration in groundwater.
• This practice has led to increase in concentration of arsenic in West Bengal and Bihar.
• This practice has increased salinity in the soil of Punjab and Haryana.

Question 9.
What are the four major problems in the development of water resources in India?
Answer:
Water resources in India faced many problems such as availability, quality, usage and management.

• Availability: Water resources are excess in some regions such as West Bengal whereas it is deficient in other parts of the country like Rajasthan and peninsular India.
• Quality: Water pollution is caused by domestic waste, industrial waste and chemical use in agriculture.
• Usage: Underground water resources could be used in Northern India whereas in Gujarat, Maharashtra, West Bengal, it increases the concentration of arsenic, fluoride and salinity in the soil.
• Management: The availability of fresh water is less and is also declining whereas the demand of water is getting rapid due to industrialization and urbanization, moreover inter-state water disputes are increasing. There are seepage losses and lack of improved irrigation facilities.

Question 10.
Why there is a need to conserve water resources?
Answer:

• Increasing demand for agricultural sector, domestic use due to urbanisation and industrialisation & rise in population.
• Sustainable development.
• High cost of desalinisation.

Due to above reasons, we need to conserve water resources.

Question 11.
Give a few examples where water can be recycled and reused to improve the availability of fresh water.
Answer:

• Use of water of lesser quality such as reclaimed waste-water would be an attractive option for industries.
• Fire fighting and industrialization cooling to reduce their water cost.
• Urban areas water after bathing and washing utensils can be used for gardening.
• Water used for washing vehicle can also be used for gardening.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the major sources of surface water?
Answer:
There are four major sources of surface water. These are rivers, lakes, ponds, and tanks. In the country, there are about 10,360 rivers and their tributaries longer than 1.6 km each. The mean annual flow in all the river basins in India is estimated to be 1,869 cubic km. rate. Due to topographical, hydrological and other constraints, only about 690 cubic km (32 per cent) of the available surface water can be utilised. Water flow in a river depends on size of its catchment area or river basin and rainfall within its catchment area.

Precipitation in India has spatio temporal variation, and it is mainly concentrated in Monsoon season. Some of the rivers in the country like the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and the Indus have huge catchment areas. Precipitation is high in the catchment areas of the Ganga, the Brahmaputra and the Barak rivers, these rivers, although account for only about one-third of the total area in the country, have 60 per cent of the total surface water resources. A good percentage of water flow in south Indian rivers like the Godavari, the Krishna, and the Kaveri has been harnessed. The other sources of surface water like lakes, ponds and tanks are utilized. In south India, tank irrigation is common.

Question 2.
With the example of ‘Ralegan Siddhi’ show how watershed development projects are imperative for development.
Answer:
Ralegan Siddhi’ is a village in Maharashtra, which was under abject poverty. Transformation started with the initiative of an army personnel, who took up watershed development. Voluntary work by the villagers along with their monetary contribution changed the village from a poverty stricken village to a role model for others to emulate. Work began with a percolation tank. A youth group called Tarun Mandal was formed which worked to ban the dowry system, caste discrimination and other social evils.Cultivation of water intensive crops and practice of open grazing were banned. Crops with low water requirements were encouraged. Nyay Panchayat was set up to look in to the local problems. Utilising local resources, a school was contructed. The villagers want to buy land from adjoining villages for developmental purposes. The village transformed to a self reliant and sufficient village.

Question 3.
Give some possible solutions to water problem in India.
Answer:
In order to solve water problem in India constructive holistic approach should be adopted and implemented.

• There is a wide scope to use rainwater harvesting technique to conserve precious water resource. It can be done by harvesting rainwater on rooftops and open spaces. Harvesting rainwater also decreases the community dependence on groundwater for domestic use.
• Besides bridging the demand supply gap, it can also save energy to pump groundwater as recharge leads to rise in groundwater table. Urban areas can specially benefit from rainwater harvesting as water demand has already outstripped supply in most of the cities and towns.
• Desalinization of water particularly in coastal areas and brackish water in arid and semi-arid areas.
• Transfer of water from water surplus areas to water deficit areas through inter linking of rivers can be important remedies for solving water problem in India.
• Pricing of water for households and communities should be considered more seriously.

Question 4.
Describe the features of surface water and the groundwater distribution in India.
Answer:

Surface water:

• Major sources of surface water are rivers, lakes, ponds and tanks. In the country there are about 10,360 rivers and their tributaries are averagely longer than 1.6 km each.
• The mean annual flow in all the river basins in India is estimated to be 1869 cubic kms.
• Due to topographical, hydrological and other constraints only 32% of available surface water can be utilised.
• The Ganga, the Brahmaputra and the Indus river account for 60% of the total water resources in India. The expanse of these rivers are broader and larger and receive heavy rainfall.

Groundwater resources:

• Groundwater resources in our country are about 432 cubic kms.
• The Ganga and the Brahmaputra have larger replenishable groundwater resources.
• The level of groundwater utilization is high in river basins relatively lying in north western region and in parts of south India.
• The groundwater utilization is very high in states of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.
• The states like Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Kerala utilize only small proportion of ground water.
• The states like Kerala, Odisha and West Bengal have vast surface water resources in legumes and lake also. Although water is generally brackish in these water bodies they are used for fishing, irrigating certain amount of paddy and crops like coconut, etc.
• The states like Gujarat, U.P, Bihar, Tripura and Maharashtra, are utilizing groundwater resources at a moderate rate.

Question 5.
Explain important features of National Water Policy, 2002.
Answer:
The following points are the salient features of National Water Policy, 2002.

• Emphasis on the need for a national water framework law, comprehensive legislation for optimum development of inter-state rivers and river valleys, amendment of Irrigation Acts, Indian Easements Act, 1882, etc.
• Water, after meeting the pre-emptive needs for safe drinking water and sanitation, achieving food security, supporting poor people dependent on agriculture for their livelihood and high priority allocation for minimum ecosystem needs, be treated as economic good so as to promote its conservation and efficient use.
• Ecological needs of the river should be determined recognizing that river flows are characterized by low or no flows, small floods (freshets), large floods and flow variability should accommodate development needs. A portion of river flows should be kept aside to meet ecological needs ensuring that the proportional low and high flow releases correspond in time closely to the natural flow regime.
• Adaptation strategies in view of climate change for designing and management of water resource structures, review of acceptability criteria and increasing water storage have been emphasized.
• A system to evolve the benchmarks for water uses for different purposes, i.e., water footprints, and water auditing be developed to ensure efficient use

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Diagram Based Questions

Question 1.
Study the diagrams given below and compare. Give reasons for their variation. Domestic

Answer:
From the above diagrams, it is clear that, in both the cases it is the agricultural sector that uses maximum share of both surface and groundwater. We need more crops in order to feed our large population for which water is essential. Its easy for households to utilize more of surface water from rivers, ponds etc. Industries can afford to utilize more of underground water.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
The depleting water resources may lead to social conflicts and disputes. Elaborate it with suitable examples.
Answer:
Inter-state River Water Disputes in India! Most rivers of India are plagued with inter-state disputes. Almost all the major rivers of the country are inter-state rivers and their waters are shared by, two or more than two states.

After independence, demand for water had been increasing at an accelerated pace due to rapid growth of population, agricultural development, urbanization, industrialization, etc. These developments have led to several inter-state disputes about sharing of water of these rivers.

Following inter-state river water disputes are worth mentioning:

• The Cauvery water dispute between Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala.
• The Krishna water dispute between Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
• The Tungabhadra water dispute between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
• The Aliyar and Bhivani river water dispute between Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
• The Godavari river water dispute between Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Karnataka.

Question 2.
Why do we need to encourage watershed development?
Answer:
We need to encourage watershed development due to following reasons:

• To prevent run-off.
• To increase storage and recharge of groundwater.
• Conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources like land, water, plants, animals etc.
• To encourage community and people participation, for example, Neeru-Meeru, Haiyali etc.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Which river basin of India has the highest percentage of replenishable utilization of groundwater resources? (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Ganga.

Question 2.
Which sector (economic-activity) uses most of the surface and groundwater in India? (A.1.2010)
Answer:
Agriculture.

Question 3.
Name the two metropolitan cities which are the main polluters of river Ganga before it reaches Varanasi. (OBSE 2011)
Answer:

• Kanpur
• Allahabad.

Question 4.
How can you help in improving the quality of water in your locality? (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
Improvement in quality of water:

• Judicious use of water
• Creating awareness – importance of water
  (Any one point to be mentioned)

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Why is conservation and management of water resources essential in India? Explain any three reasons. (CBSE 2008)
Answer:
Reasons for conservation and management of water resources are:

• There is a declining availability of fresh water and increasing demand, Per capita availability of water is declining day by day.
• There is a great demand of water due to increase of population. Demand of water is increasing in different sectors like agriculture, industries and for domestic uses.
• Pollution of water is responsible for declining the quality of water. This causes the un-usability of this precious life giving resource.

Question 2.
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow: (CBSE 2011)

(i) Why is the share of surface water very limited to the industrial sector?
(ii) Which sector accounts for most of the surface water withdrawals and why? Give one reason.
Answer:
(i) Because of less development of industries and higher water utilization in agricultural sector. However, in future, with development, the share of industrial sector in the country is likely to increase,

(ii) Agricultural sector accounts for most of the surface water withdrawals. Because, agricultural sector requires more water for irrigation.

Question 3.
Study the given diagram and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Which sector accounts for most of the groundwater utilisation?
(ii) Why is the share of water utilization in domestic sector lower in groundwater as compared to surface water?
Answer:
(i) Agricultural sector as irrigation is essential to enhance agricultural productivity.

(ii) (a) People prefer to live in areas with easy accessibility productivity.
(b) Underground water is not always available.
(c) Underground water is not always accessible and portable.

Question 4.
Why is there a great need for irrigation in India? Explain any three reasons. (Foreign 2011)
OR
Explain the importance of irrigation for agriculture in India. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
There is a great need for irrigation in India because:

• Spatio-temporal variability in rainfall in the country.
• Water requirement of rice, sugarcane, jute, etc. is very high which can meet only through irrigation.
• Provision of irrigation makes multiple cropping possible.

Question 5.
Examine any three causes for the deterioration of ‘quality of water’ in India. (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
Three causes for the deterioration of ‘quality of water’ in India are:

• Water gets polluted by foreign matters such as microorganisms, chemicals, industrial and other wastes which deteriorate the quality of water and render it unfit for human use.
• When toxic substances enter lakes, steams, rivers, ocean and other water bodies, they get dissolved or lie suspended in water. This results in pollution of water whereby quality of water deteriorates affecting aquatic systems.
• The pollutants also seep down and pollute groundwater and causes the underground water unfit for human uses.

Question 6.
Analyse the economic and social values of rainwater harvesting. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:

• It develops harmony with nature.
• It helps to save energy.
• It helps n the economic development of the country.
• Saving energy means ‘save wealth’.
• It decreases the dependence of community on ground water.
• It create awareness about conservation.
• It brings people closer as community.
• Reduces floods, saves life and property.
• It develops problem solving attitude.
• It reduces conflicts among society

Question 7.
“The assessment, efficient use and conservation of water are necessary to ensure development.” Explain in the light of values regarding conservation of water resources. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:

• India has only 4 per cent of the world’s water resources but has 16 per cent of world’s population.
• Due to topographical, hydrological and other constraints, only 32 per cent of the available surface water can be utilized.
• Total utilizable water resource in India is very limited. Demand is increasing day by day.
• Population is increasing. Life-style is also changing.
• Water pollution is making water resource unusable.

Question 8.
How is rainwater harvesting helped in the development of certain areas of India? Explain with answer. (A.I. 2016)
Answer:
Rain water harvesting is a method to capture and store rainwater for various uses. It is a low cost and eco-friendly technique for preserving every drop of water by guiding the rain water to bore well, pits and wells. It has been practiced through various methods by different communities in the country for a long time – like the Tankas in Rajasthan , Rooftop collection, percolation pits etc. Ralegan Siddhi in Maharashtra is a leading example for the same.

Question 9.
“Indiscriminate use of water by increasing population and industrial expansion has led to degradation of the water quality considerably in India.” Explain the values that can help in maintaining the quality of water. (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
The values that can help in maintaining the Quality of water:

• Judicious/optimum use of water,
• Controlling population,
• Recycle and Reuse of water,
• Watershed Management
• Rain water harvesting
• Rules and regulations
  (Any three points to be explained)

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
“Scarcity of water on account of its increased demand, possess possibility the greatest demand in India.” Analyse the statement. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Increasing demand for water is a challenge to India:

• India has a large population with limited water resources.
• Rising demand for increasing population.
• More water is required for irrigation to increase agricultural production as rainfall is highly variable.
• Rapid industrial growth is increasing demand for water.
• Urbanization and modern life style has increased the demand.
• Water pollution has added to water shortage.
  (Any 5 points to be analysed)

Question 2.
Explain how Watershed management’ and ‘rainwater harvesting’ are the methods of efficient management and conservation of surface water resources in India. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Watershed management:

• It prevents runoff, recharges ground water through percolation tanks, recharge wells etc.
• Haryali is a watershed development project which aims at enabling the rural population to conserve water for drinking, irrigation, fisheries and afforestation.
• It includes conservation, regeneration and judicious use of all resources: natural and human within a watershed.
• Neeru-Meeru programme in Andhra Pradesh and Arvaiy Pani Sansad in Rajasthan have taken up construction of various water harvesting structures such as percolation tanks, check dams etc.

Rainwater Harvesting:

• Traditional rainwater harvesting mainly in rural areas is done by using surface storage bodies like lakes, ponds, irrigation tanks, etc.
• In Rajasthan rainwater harvesting structures, locally known as kunds or tankas are constructed near or in the house or village to store harvested rainwater.
• It raises water availability, increases the quantity and improves the quality of ground water by diluting pollutants, contaminants, prevents soil erosion, reduces the fury of floods and checks salt water intrusion in coastalareas.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 6 Water Resources appeared first on Learn CBSE.