Quantcast
Channel: Learn CBSE
Viewing all 9448 articles
Browse latest View live

Medical Entrance Exams | List of Medical Entrance Exams After 12th

$
0
0

Medical Entrance Exam is conducted every year by different universities to provide admissions to the candidates who want to persevere their Graduation or Post graduations from the Medical colleges, hospitals or institutes. These exams are administered by various national and state-level institutes or universities. Even this year, the entrance exam for Medical programme will be conducted for admittance in the next academic session, i.e. 2019-2020. 

Medical Entrance Exams 2019-20. | Medical Entrance Exams after 12th

There are many important entrance exams for Medical courses for which candidates can apply such as AFMC, AIIMS, AIPMT, AMU CAT, BHU PMT, SRMC, UPMT, VCI, etc. The objective of conducting these entrance exam is the selection of candidates for admittance in the various medicine courses available in different medical institutes & hospitals at multiple level such as diploma, degree, post-diploma, postgraduate degree, and research.

Here, we are producing you a list of national and state-level Medical entrance examinations which are conducted for admissions in topmost institutes of the country. Candidates can check below the Medical Entrance Exams 2019 Forms Date (Tentative).

NEET 2020

JIPMER MBBS 2020

  • Application form available from: 1st week of Mar 2020
  • JIPMER Entrance Exam – 1st week of Jun 2020
  • Declaration of Merit list – 4th week of Jun 2020

CMC Vellore 2020

  • Online Registration Start – Third week of February 2020
  • Examination Group A – Third week of May 2020
  • Examination Group B – Third week of May 2020
  • Group A Result: Last week of July 2020
  • Group B Result: First week of August 2020

MP DMAT 2020

  • Online registration for MP DMAT examination will start from May 2020
  • Last date for receipt of the filled examination form will be June 2020
  • Last date for fee submission: June 2020
  • Date of examination: June 2020

Punjab PMET 2020

  •  Date of issuing of online Application Form is first week of March 2020.
  • Last date of submission of Application Form is last week of March 2020.
  • Date of written test is first week of May 2020
  • Tentative month of release of result is June 2020

NEET PG 2020

  • Availability of Application Form – 1st week of Nov 2019
  • Last date to fill application form – 3rd week of Nov 2019
  • Last date for payment of application fees – 3rd week of Nov 2019 upto
  • Admit Card Release – 4th week of Dec 2019
  • NEET PG 2020 Exam date – 1st week of Jan 2020
  • Declaration of Result – 4th week of Jan 2020

AIIMS PG 2020

AIIMS DM/MCh (3 years)/ MD (Hospital Admin)

AIIMS PG 2020 January Session

  • Availability of Online Registration Form – 06 July 2019
  • Entrance Examination (Stage 1) – 03 Nov 2019
  • Result – 07 Nov 2019
  • Departmental Assessment (Stage 2) – 18-20 Nov 2019
  • Final Result – 26 Nov 2019

AIIMS PG 2020 July Session

  • Availability of Online Registration Form – to be announced
  • Entrance Examination (Stage 1) – 04 Apr 2020
  • Result – 09 Apr 2020
  • Departmental Assessment (Stage 2) – 21-23 Apr 2020
  • Final Result – 01 May 2020

AIIMS PG (MD/MS/MCh/DM/MDS- 6 years)

EventsJanuary 2020July session 2020
Entrance Examination (Stage 1)17 Nov 201903 May 2020
Result22 Nov 201908 May 2020
Departmental Assessment (Stage 2)to be announcedto be announced
Final Resultto be announcedto be announced

UAPMT 2020

  • Offline Application form start – January 2020
  • Offline Application form close – April 2020
  • Online Registration start – April 2020
  • Online Registration close – May 2020
  • Admit Card – June 2020
  • Exam Date – June 2020
  • Result Declaration – June to July 2020
  • Counselling –  July to August 2020

SVNIRTAR CET 2020

PGET

  • Publication of Application form on the website – April 2020
  • Post Graduation Entrance test – Last week of June 2020.
  • Declaration of Result – 3rd week of July 2020.
  • Counseling – First week of August 2020.

CET

  • Publication of Application form on the website – April 2020
  • Post Graduation Entrance test – First week of June 2020.
  • Declaration of Result – Last week of June 2020.
  • Counselling – Last week of July 2020.

AIA PGET 2020

  • AIAPGET 2019 online registration – 2nd week of May 2020.
  • Last date to apply – 3rd week of June 2020.
  • Last date of successful final transaction of fee (through Credit/Debit Card/Net Banking upto 11.50 p.m) – 3rd week of June 2020.
  • Correction in Particulars of Application Form on Website only – Last week of June 2020.
  • Availability of AIAPGET 2019 admit card – First Week of July 2020.
  • Date of APA PGET 2020 Exam – Second week of July 2020.
  • Issuance of answer keys – Third week of July 2020.
  • Last date to submit objection – Last week of July 2020.
  • Declaration of result – August 2020.

AIIMS Nursing 2020 Medical Entrance Exam

  • Application form release – 4th week of November 2019
  • Last date to submit application form – 2nd week of January 2020
  • Correction in application form (starts) – 2nd week of January 2020
  • Correction in application form (ends) – 3rd week of January 2020
  • Final status update – 4th week of January 2020
  • Admit Card availability – 3rd week of May 2020
  • Exam date – 28th June 2020
  • Result declaration – 7th July 2020
  • First counseling – 3rd week of July 2020
  • Second counseling – 3rd week of August 2020
  • Open counseling – 4th week of September 2020

PGIMER 2020 Medical Entrance Exam

The PGIMER 2020 Exam dates for January session various events can be checked below:

For MD/MS Courses

  • Starting of Online application – 1st week of October 2019
  • Last date for application submission – 1st week of November 2019
  • Last date of fee payment – 1st week of November 2019
  • Availability of admit card – 4th week of November 2019
  • Exam date – 24th November 2019
  • Announcement of Result – 25th November 2019
  • 1st counselling date – 16th December 2019
  • 2nd counselling – 10th January 2020
  • 3rd counselling 18th January 2020
  • 4th counselling 24th January 2020

For DM/MCH and DM Hospital Administration

  • Starting of online application – 2nd week of October 2019
  • Last date of submission of application – 2nd week of November 2019
  • Last date for fee payment – 2nd week of November 2019
  • Last date of fee payment through E-Challan – 3rd week of November 2019
  • Exam date – 15th December 2019
  • Result – 16th December 2019
  • Clinic/ practical exam – 17th December 2019
  • Counselling begins – 18th December 2019

AFMC Nursing 2020 Medical Entrance Exams

  • Notification update – 2nd week of November 2019
  • Application form release – 2nd week of November 2019
  • Submission of application form – 4th week of November 2019
  • Admit card publish date – 4th week of December 2019
  • AFMC Nursing exam date – 2nd week of January 2020
  • Result declaration – 1st week of March 2020
  • Interview Month of April 2020

Banasthali University Aptitude Test – BUAT 2020

  • Availability of online application form 1st week of February 2020
  • Last date to submit the application form Last week of April 2020
  • Date of issue of admit card 10-15 days before the exam
  • Date of examination 1st week of June
  • Declaration of Result June 2020
  • Counseling June 2020

JUEE 2020 Medical Entrance Exam

  • Date of Examination JUEE 2020  – Last week of July 2020.

NIMS Entrance Examination [NIMSEE] 2020

  • Application process: Start Date Third week of April 2020
  • Application process: End Date Fourth week of June 2020
  • Availability of admit card Fourth week of June 2020
  • NIMSEE Entrance Exam Fifth week of June 2020

SRHU CEENPB 2020 (Swami Rama Himalayan University Common Entrance Examination in Nursing, Paramedical & Bio-Science)

  • Application Form Start Date – April 8, 2019
  • Application Form Last Date – June 4, 2019
  • Release of Admit Card – June 20, 2019
  • SRHU CEENPB 2019 Exam – June 30, 2019
  • SRHU CEENPB 2019 Results Date – July 9, 2019
  • Counseling Begins From – July 19, 2019

National Exit Exam – NEXT 2020

National Exit Examination (NEXT) is currently a proposed amendment to be brought in the form of a test that will be regulated at final year MBBS level for all the MBBS enrolled students in India. It is currently proposed under the National Commission Medical Bill (NMC).

List of Medical Entrance Exams 2019 – 2020

  • Common Entrance Test for Pondicherry Private Medical/Dental Colleges [CETPPMC]
  • Madhya Pradesh Dental/Medical Association Test [MP DMAT]
  • All India Pre Medical Test [AIPMT]
  • CMC Vellore MBBS Entrance Exam [CMC Vellore]
  • Punjab Pre Medical Entrance Test [Punjab PMET]
  • Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research MBBS Entrance Exam [JIPMER MBBS]
  • Christian Medical College [CMC Vellore PG]
  • National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test [NEET]
  • All India Post Graduate Medical Entrance Examination [AIPGMEE]
  • AIIMS Post Graduate Medical Entrance Exam [AIIMS PG]
  • Uttarakhand Ayush Pre Medical Test[UAPMT]
  • Swami Vivekanand National Institute of Rehabilitation Training And Research Common Entrance Test [SVNIRTAR CET]
  • National Eligibility Cum Entrance PG [NEET PG]
  • NEXT Exit Exam [NEXT]
  • All India Ayush Post Graduate Entrance Test [AIA PGET]
  • AIIMS Nursing Entrance Exam [AIIMS Nursing]
  • Armed Forces Medical College Nursing Exam [AFMC Nursing]
  • Banasthali University Aptitude Test [BUAT]
  • Jagannath University Entrance Examination [JUEE]
  • Devi Ahilya Vishwavidyalaya Common Entrance Test [DAVV CET]
  • NIMS Entrance Examination [NIMSEE]
  • Swami Rama Himalayan University Common Entrance Examination in Nursing, Paramedical & Bio-Science [SRHU CEENPB]
  • Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education & Research [PGIMER]

Students of Class 12th are eligible to give entrance exam for getting admissions in Medical colleges or universities. They should have passed 10+2 with Physics, Chemistry and Biology as mandatory subjects, from a recognised board. Usually the Entrance Examination for admission in the degree and diploma courses is conducted separately at state level and all India level. Though, the Entrance Examination for admission in the postgraduation and research courses is done on state and all India basis.

Medical is a high profile professional programme among the learners after their Class 12th. It is one of the most strived career areas in the country. There are different Medical entrance exams arranged across the nation to find the eligible students for admissions into different medicine programmes. There are many career opportunities in the outside world which the candidates can seize once they have completed their graduation or post-graduation. If one qualifies in the merit list of an Entrance Examination, they can be placed on a platform from where one can choose a number of Career Options available in the field of medicine.

The post Medical Entrance Exams | List of Medical Entrance Exams After 12th appeared first on Learn CBSE.


Social Science Class 10 Important Questions History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

$
0
0

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Short Answer Questions (SA) 3 Marks

Question 1.
Why did the industrial production increase in India during the First World War? (2014)
Answer:
The War had created a new opportunity for the industrial production in India:

  1. The War situation had forced the British mills to produce things that were needed for the army. This had led to the decline of Manchester imports into India. Suddenly, Indian mills had a vast home market to supply to:
  2. As the War prolonged, Indian factories were called upon to supply war needs: jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents and leather boots, horse and mule saddles and a host of other items.
  3. New factories were set up and old ones ran multiple shifts. Many new workers were employed and everyone was made to work longer hours.
    Over the war years, industrial production boomed, local industries consolidated their position, substituting foreign manufactures and capturing home markets.

Question 2.
How did a series of inventions in the eighteenth century increased the efficiency of each step of the production process in cotton textile industry? Explain. (2013)
Answer:
A series of inventions in the 18th century increased the efficiency in every step of the production process, especially of cotton. The process of producing cotton involved carding, twisting, spinning and milling.

  • The inventions enhanced the output per worker, enabling each worker to produce more, and they made possible the production of stronger threads and yam.
  • Richard Arkwright then created the cotton mill. Cloth production was spread all over the countryside and was carried out in village households.
  • Also now the costly new machines could be purchased, set up and maintained in the mill under one roof and management. This allowed a more careful supervision over the production process, a watch over the quality and the regulation of labour, all of which was difficult to do when production was in the countryside.

Question 3.
What problems were faced by the Indian cotton weavers in the 19th century? Describe. (2012)
Answer:
The Indian cotton weavers faced many problems in the 19th century:

  1. Their export collapsed.
  2. The local market shrank being flooded by the Manchester imports. Produced by machines at lower costs, the Manchester cotton goods were so cheap that they attracted the buyers and the Indian textiles could not compete with them.
  3. By 1860, Indian weavers faced a new problem. They could not get sufficient supply of raw cotton of good quality. This happened because a Civil War had broken out in America and the cotton supplies from the US to Britain were cut off and Britain turned to India. As raw cotton export from India
    increased, the price of raw cotton shot up. Indian weavers were forced to buy raw cotton at a very high price, so weaving did not remain profitable.
  4. Factories in India also produced goods at a mass scale which flooded the Indian markets. Thus the Indian weavers faced a tough time and it became difficult to survive.

Question 4.
Why did technological changes occur slowly in Britain in early 19th century? Explain any three reasons. (2012)
Answer:
Technological changes occurred slowly in Britain due to the following reasons:

  • New technology was expensive and merchants and industrialists were cautious about using it. For example, at the beginning of the 19th century, there were only 321 steam engines. There were no buyers of steam engines for years.
  • The machines often broke down and repair was costly.
  • The machines were not as effective as their inventors and manufacturers claimed.
  • Machines were oriented to produce uniform, standardised goods for a mass market. But the demand in the market was often for goods with intricate designs and specific shapes which required human skill, not mechanical technology. At that time the upper classes preferred things produced by hand.

Question 5.
Who were gomasthas? Why were they appointed? How did they treat the weavers? (2012)
Answer:
The paid servants appointed by the East India Company to supervise weavers are called gomasthas.

The East India Company appointed them to establish a more direct control over the weavers and to eliminate traders and brokers connected with cloth trade.

The gomasthas acted arrogantly and punished weavers for delays in supply, often beating them. In many weaving villages there were reports of clashes between weavers and gomasthas as they often marched into villages with sepoys and peons.

Question 6.
Who were ‘gomasthas?’ How did they become good partners of the British management system? (2014, 2015)
Answer:
The Gomasthas were paid servants whose job was to supervise weavers, collect supplies and examine the quality of cloth. The aim of the East India Company behind appointing gomasthas was to work out a system of management and control that would eliminate competition, control costs and ensure regular supplies of cotton and silk.
Soon there were clashes between the weavers and the gomasthas who began ill-treating the weavers.

  • It developed a system of management and control that would eliminate competition, control costs and ensure regular supplies of cotton and silk from India. For this reason, gomasthas were appointed to supervise, collect supplies and examine the quality of cloth.
  • They did not allow the company weavers to sell their produce to other buyers. Once an order was placed, the weavers were given loans to purchase the raw material. Weavers who had accepted loans from the company had to hand over the cloth they produced to the gomasthas only.

Question 7.
Describe the achievements of any three early industrialists in British India. (2013)
Answer:
Having earned enough from trade, some businessmen had visions of developing industrial enterprises in India.
In Bengal, Dwarkanath Tagore made his fortune in the China trade. He turned to industrial investment, setting up six joint stock companies in 1830s and 1840s.

In Bombay, Parsis like Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata who built huge industrial empires in India accumulated their initial wealth from exports to China and raw cotton shipments to England. Seth Hukumchand, a Marwari businessman, who set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta in 1971, also traded with China.

Question 8.
How did many Indian Entrepreneurs survive despite of tight economic controls imposed by the British Government? (2013)
Answer:

  • Many Indians became junior players in the trade with China by providing finance, procuring supplies and shipping consignments.
  • Some merchants from Madras traded with Burma, Middle East and East Africa and accumulated capital.
  • Certain other commercial groups operated within India by carrying goods from one place to another, banking money, transferring funds between cities and financing traders.

Question 9.
Explain any three factors responsible for the decline of the cotton textile industry in India in the mid-nineteenth century. (2013)
Or
Describe any three main reasons for the decline of textile exports from India in the 19th century. (2014)
Answer:

  1. As cotton industries developed in England, industrial groups began to pressurize the Government to impose import duties on cotton textiles so that Manchester goods could sell in Britain without facing any competition from outside.
  2. At the same time industrialists persuaded the East India Company to sell British manufactures in Indian market as well. Exports of British cotton goods increased dramatically in the early 19th century.
  3. The export market for the Indian cotton weavers collapsed and the local market shrank, being glutted with Manchester imports.
  4. The imported cotton goods were cheap and our weavers could not compete with them.
  5. When the American Civil War broke out the cotton supplies to Britain from the US were cut off. As raw cotton export from India increased, the price of raw cotton shot up. Weavers in India were starved of supplies and forced to buy raw cotton at exorbitant prices.

Question 10.
Advertisements played a part in expanding the markets for products and in shaping a new consumer culture. Explain. (2014)
Or, Explain the role played by advertisements in creating new consumers for the British products. (2014)
Or
In which ways did the British and the Indian manufacturers and traders advertise their products? (2013)
Answer:

  1. When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in India, they put labels on the cloth bundles, to make the place of manufacture and the name of the company familiar to the buyer.
  2. When buyers saw ‘Made in Manchester’, written in bold on the label, they felt confident to buy the cloth.
  3. But labels did not carry words and texts. They carried images and were beautifully illustrated with images of Indian gods and goddesses. The printed image of Krishna or Saraswati was also intended to make the manufacture from a foreign land, appear familiar to Indians.
  4. Manufacturers also printed calendars to popularise their products. These calendars were used even by the illiterate. They were hung in tea shops and in the homes of the poor and even in offices and middle class apartments.
  5. When Indian manufacturers advertised, the nationalist message was clear and loud. If you care for the nation, then buy only ‘Indian’ products. Advertisements became a vehicle of the nationalist message of Swadeshi.

Question 11.
Why was it difficult to get jobs in Indian factories and mills even when so many of them had come up in the 19th century? (2015)
Answer:
Even when the mills multiplied and demand for workers increased, it was difficult to get jobs. The reason was that

  1. The number seeking jobs always remained more than the jobs available.
  2. During the same time agriculture was also not prosperous. Therefore, there was always a large influx of unemployed youths from villages who came to cities and towns looking for jobs in the newly set up mills and factories.
  3. Entry into the mills was also restricted. Industrialists usually employed jobbers to get new recruits. Very often, the jobber was an old and trusted worker. He got people from his own village, ensured them jobs and helped them settle in the city. Gradually, they began to demand money and gifts for this favour and began controlling the lives of workers.

Question 12.
How was foreign trade from India conducted before the age of machine industries? Explain. (2015)
Answer:

  1. Before the age of machine industries, silk and cotton goods from India dominated the international markets in textile. Coarse cottons were produced in many countries, but finer varieties came from India. Armenian and Persian merchants took the goods from Punjab to Afghanistan, Eastern Persia and Central Asia.
  2. Bales of fine textiles were carried on camel back through the mountain passes of North-West Frontier.
  3. A vibrant sea trade operated through pre-colonial ports—Surat connected India to the Gulf, Masulipatnam on the Coromandel coast and Hooghly in Bengal had trade links with South East Asian ports.

Question 13.
Analyse the contribution of Dwarkanath Tagore in the field of industrial development. (2015)
Answer:

  1. In Bengal, Dwarkanath Tagore made his fortune in the China trade before he turned to industrial investment. He set up six joint-stock companies in 1830s and 1840s.
  2. Tagore’s enterprises sank along with those of others in the wider business crises of the 1840s, but later in the 19th century many of the China traders became successful industrialists.
  3. Dwarkanath Tagore believed that India would develop through westernization and industrialisation. He invested in shipping, mining, banking, plantation and insurance. He had visions of developing industrial enterprises in India.

Question 14.
How did many Indian Entrepreneurs survive despite of tight economic controls imposed by the British Government? (2017 OD)
Answer:

  • Many Indians became junior players in the trade with China by providing finance, procuring supplies and shipping consignments.
  • Some merchants from Madras traded with Burma, Middle East and East Africa and accumulated capital.
  • Certain other commercial groups operated within India by carrying goods from one place to another, banking money, transferring funds between cities and financing traders.

Question 15.
Describe the achievements of any three early industrialists in British India. (2017 D)
Answer:
Having earned enough from trade, some businessmen had visions of developing industrial enterprises in India.
In Bengal, Dwarkanath Tagore made his fortune in the China trade. He turned to industrial investment, setting up six joint stock companies in 1830s and 1840s.

In Bombay, Parsis like Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata who built huge industrial empires in India accumulated their initial wealth from exports to China and raw cotton shipments to England. Seth Hukumchand, a Marwari businessman, who set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta in 1971, also traded with China.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks

Question 16.
Why were there frequent clashes between gomasthas and weavers in the villages? (2012)
Answer:
The ‘gomasthas’ were paid servants whose job was to supervise weavers, collect supplies and examine the cloth. In many weaving villages there were clashes between the gomasthas and the weavers who began ill-treating the villagers.

  1. The earlier supply merchants had lived within the villages and had a close relationship with the weavers, looking after their needs and helping them in times of crisis.
  2. The new gomasthas were outsiders with no long-term social link with the village.
  3. They acted arrogantly and punished weavers for delays in supplies, beating and flogging them with the help of sepoys and peons.
  4. The weavers lost their freedom to bargain for prices and sell to different buyers and received miserably low prices from the company.
  5. The loans they had accepted had tied them to the British Company.

Question 17.
Describe the process of gradual growth of factories in England in the light of problems it faced. (2012)
Answer:
The earliest factories in England came up by the 1730s. Their number multiplied in the late 18th century. A series of inventions in the 18th century increased the efficacy of each step of the production process. They enhanced the output per worker, enabling each worker to produce more. With the creation of cotton mill by Richard Arkwright, all the processes of cloth production were brought together under one roof and management. This allowed a more careful supervision of the production process, a watch over quality, and the regulation of labour, all of which had been difficult to do when production was in the countryside.

Question 18.
Highlight Any five points which enabled the handloom sector score over machine made goods and face the competition. (2013)
Answer:
The handloom sector scored over the machine made goods and was able to face competition because:

  1. This happened partly because of technological advancements. By the second decade of the 20th century, weavers started using fly shuttle. This increased productivity of every worker, sped up production and reduced labour demand. By 1941, over 35 per cent of handlooms in India were fitted with fly shuttles. In regions like Travancore, Madras, Mysore, Cochin and Bengal, 70 to 80 per cent of handlooms had fly shuttles.
  2. There were many other small inventions that helped weavers improve productivity and compete with mills.
  3. Also, the demand for finer varieties of cloth bought by the rich, was very stable. Even famines did not affect the sale of Banarsi or Baluchari sarees.
  4. Mill production could not imitate and compete with specialized weaves such as the famous sarees with woven borders and the famous lungis and handkerchiefs of Madras.

Question 19.
How did the First World War prove to be a boon to the Indian Industries? Explain. (2013)
Answer:
The First World War proved to be a boon to Indian Industries:

  1. The war created a dramatically new situation with British Mills busy with war production to meet the needs of the army, Manchester imports into India declined.
  2. Suddenly, Indian mills had a vast home market to supply to.
  3. As the war prolonged, Indian factories were called upon to supply war needs, jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents and leather boots, horse and mile saddles and a host of other items.
  4. New factories were set up and old ones ran multiple shifts.
  5. Many new workers were employed and everyone was made to work longer hours. Over the war years industrial production boomed, local industrialists consolidated their position, substituting foreign manufactures and capturing home markets.

Question 20.
Explain the process of industrialization in Britain during the 19th century. (2014)
Answer:
The most dynamic industries in Britain were clearly cotton and metals. Growing at a rapid pace, cotton was the leading sector in the first phase of industrialization up to the 1840s.

Later iron and steel industry led the way. With the expansion of railways in England from the 1840s and in the colonies from 1860s, the demand for iron and steel increased.

The new industries could not displace traditional industries. At the end of the 19th century, less than 20 per cent of the total workforce was employed in technologically advanced industrial sectors. The pace of change in the ‘traditional’ industries was not set by steam-powered cotton or metal industries. Ordinary and small innovations were the basis of growth in many non-mechanized sectors such as food processing, building, pottery, glass work, tanning, furniture making and production of implements.

The technological changes occurred slowly. New technology was expensive and merchants and industrialists were cautious about using it. The machine often broke down and repair was costly.

Question 21.
Explain any five ways by which new markets and consumers were created in India by British manufacturers. (2014)
Or
Describe the techniques which were adopted by the Manchester industrialists to sell their goods in India. (2015)
Answer:

  1. When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in India, they put labels on the cloth bundles, to make the place of manufacture and the name of the company familiar to the buyer.
  2. When buyers saw ‘Made in Manchester’, written in bold on the label, they felt confident to buy the cloth.
  3. But labels did not carry words and texts. They carried images and were beautifully illustrated with images of Indian gods and goddesses. The printed image of Krishna or Saraswati was also intended to make the manufacture from a foreign land, appear familiar to IndiAnswer:
  4. Manufacturers also printed calendars to popularise their products. These calendars were used even by the illiterate. They were hung in tea shops and in the homes of the poor and even in offices and middle class apartments.
  5. Figures of important personages, of emperors and nawabs adorned the advertisements and calenders. The message often seemed to say that if you respect a royal figure, then respect this product as it was being used by kings.
  6. When Indian manufacturers advertised, the nationalist message was clear and loud. If you care for the nation, then buy only ‘Indian’ products. Advertisements became a vehicle of the nationalist message of Swadeshi.

Question 22.
How did cotton factories become an intimate part of the English landscape in the early nineteenth century? Explain. (2015)
Answer:
A series of inventions in the eighteenth century increased the efficiency in every step of the production process, especially of cotton. The process of producing cotton involved carding, twisting, spinning and milling.

  1. The inventions enhanced the output per worker, enabling each worker to produce more, and they made possible the production of stronger threads and yam.
  2. Richard Arkwright then created the cotton mill. Cloth production was spread all over the countryside and was carried out in village households.
  3. Also, now the costly new machines could be purchased, set up and maintained in the mill under one roof and management. This made the process more centralised and integrated.
  4. This allowed a more careful supervision over the production process, a watch over the quality and the regulation of labour, all of which was difficult to do when production was in the countryside.
  5. In the early nineteenth century new mills and factories with new technologies became extremely visible.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions

The post Social Science Class 10 Important Questions History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 7 Natural Hazards and Disasters

$
0
0

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 7 Natural Hazards and Disasters

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved.

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

Question 1(i).
Which one of the following states of India experiences floods frequently?
(a) Bihar
(b) West Bengal
(c) Assam
(d) Uttar Pradesh.
Answer:
(c) Assam

Question 1(ii).
In which one of the following districts of Uttaranchal did Malpa Landslide disaster take place?
(a) Bageshwar
(b) Champawat
(c) Almora
(d) Pithoragarh.
Answer:
(d) Pithoragarh.

Question 1(iii).
Which one of the following states receives floods in the winter months?
(a) Assam
(b) West Bengal
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu.

Question 1(iv).
In which of the following rivers is the Majuli River Island situated?
(a) Ganga
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Godavari
(d) Indus.
Answer:
(b) Brahmaputra

Question 1(v).
Under which type of natural hazards do blizzards come?
(a) Atmospheric
(b) Aquatic
(c) Terrestrial
(d) Biological.
Answer:
(a) Atmospheric

2. Answer the following questions in less than 30 words.

Question 2(i).
When can a hazard become a disaster?
Answer:
A hazard becomes a disaster when either there are no mitigating circumstances to prevent the disaster from happening or the mitigating circumstances fail. For example, if there are floods which lead to great loss of life and property, it will be called disaster. But if through GPS, it was pre-informed and evacuation was successful, it will be a hazard but not a disaster.

Question 2(ii).
Why are there more earthquakes in the Himalayas and in the north-eastern region of India?
Answer:
Indian plate is moving at a speed of one centimetre per year towards the north and northeastern direction and this movement of plates is being constantly obstructed by the Eurasian plate from the north. As a result of this, both the plates are said to be locked with each other resulting in accumulation of energy at different points of time. Excessive accumulation of energy results in building up of stress, which ultimately leads to the breaking up of the lock and the sudden release of energy causes earthquakes along the Himalayan arch.

Question 2(iii).
What are the basic requirements for the formation of a cyclone?
Answer:
Following are the basic requirements for the formation of cyclones:

  • Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air that can release enormous latent heat.
  • Strong Coriolis force that can prevent filling of low pressure at the centre because absence of Coriolis force near the equator prohibits the formation of tropical cyclone between 0°-5° latitude.
  • Unstable condition through the troposphere that creates local disturbances around which a cyclone develops.
  • Absence of strong vertical wind wedge, which disturbs the vertical transport of latent heat.

Question 2(iv).
How are the floods in Eastern India different from the ones in Western India?
Answer:
Important rivers of Eastern India are Brahmaputra, Ganga, Damodar, Mahanadi, Krishna, Kaveri, Godavari. In western India, important rivers are Luni, Mahi, Narmada and Tapti. In eastern India floods occur more frequently as compared to Western India because more rainfall takes place in eastern India as compared to western India. Moreover, floods of eastern India are more severe in comparison of western India floods.

Question 2(v).
Why are there more droughts in Central and Western India?
Answer:
In central and western India less rainfall takes place. Due to this, water scarcity takes place. Less rainfall, excessive evaporation, scarcity in ground water and water bodies create conditions of drought. Western India consists of deserts and central India has plateaus and in both regions ground water level is less. It creates drought conditions.

3. Answer the following questions in not more than 125 words.

Question 3(i).
Identify the Landslide-prone regions of India and suggest some measures to mitigate the disasters caused by these.
Answer:
Highly unstable, relatively young mountainous areas in the Himalayas and Andaman and Nicobar, high rainfall regions with steep slopes in the Western Ghats and Nilgiris, the north-eastern regions, along with areas that experience frequent ground-shaking due to earthquakes, etc. and areas of intense human activities, particularly those related to construction of roads, dams, etc. are highly prone to landslides.

Areas that have almost similar conditions to those included in the very high vulnerability zone are also included in this category. The only difference between these two is the combination, intensity and frequency of the controlling factors. All the Himalayan states and the states from the north-eastern regions except the plains of Assam are included in the high vulnerability zones.

Subsidence are most common in states like Jharkhand. Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Kerala.

Measures for Mitigation

  • Promoting large-scale afforestation programmes.
  • Construction of bunds to reduce the flow of water.
  • Terrace farming should be encouraged in the north-eastern hill states.
  • Restriction on the construction and other developmental activities such as roads and dams, limiting agriculture to valleys and areas with moderate slopes, and control on the development of large settlements in the high vulnerability zones, should be enforced.

Question 3(ii).
What is vulnerability? Divide India into natural disaster vulnerability zones based on droughts and suggest some mitigation measures.
Answer:
Vulnerability refers to the risk of becoming a victim to a disaster. Those areas which are more prone to natural calamities are more vulnerable.
On the basis of severity of droughts, India can be divided into the following regions:

1. Extreme Drought Affected Areas: Most parts of Rajasthan, particularly areas to the west of the Aravali hills, i.e. Marusthali and Kachchh regions of Gujarat fall in this category. Included here are also the districts like Jaisalmer and Barmer from the Indian desert that receive less that 90 mm average annual rainfall.

2. Severe Drought Prone Area: Parts of eastern Rajasthan, most parts of Madhya Pradesh, eastern parts of Maharashtra, interior parts of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka Plateau, northern parts of interior Tamil Nadu and southern parts of Jharkhand and interior Odisha are included in this category.

3. Moderate Drought Affected Area: Northern parts of Rajasthan, Haryana, southern districts of Uttar Pradesh, the remaining parts of Gujarat, Maharashtra except Konkan, Jharkhand and Coimbatore plateau of Tamil Nadu and interior Karnataka are included in this category. The remaining parts of India can be considered either free or less prone to the drought.

Remedial Measures

  • Provision for the distribution of safe drinking water, medicines for the victims and availability of fodder and water for the cattle and shifting of the people and their livestock to safer places, etc.
  • Identification of ground water potential in the form of aquifers, transfer of river water from the surplus to the deficit areas, and particularly planning for inter-linking of rivers and construction of reservoirs and dams, etc.
  • Remote sensing and satellite imageries can be useful in identifying the possible river-basins that can be inter-linked and in identifying the ground water potential.
  • Rainwater harvesting can also be an effective method in minimising the effects of drought.

Question 3(iii).
When can developmental activities become the cause of disasters?
Answer:
Development has created many such problems whereby disasters occur. There are some activities carried by human beings that are directly responsible for disasters.

  • Industrial development: Bhopal Gas tragedy, Chernobyl nuclear disaster, wars, release of CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) etc are examples where industrial development has created disasters.
  • Pollution: Increase of green house gases, environmental pollutions like noise, air, water and soil are some of the disasters which are caused directly by human actions.
  • Deforestation: There are some other activities of human beings that accelerate or intensify disasters indirectly. Landslides and floods due to deforestation, unscientific land use and construction activities in fragile areas are some of the disasters that are the results of indirect human actions.

Project/ Activity

Prepare a project report on any one of the topics given below:
(i) Malpa landslide
(ii) Tsunami
(iii) Odisha and Gujarat Cyclones
(iv) Inter-linking of rivers
(v) Tehri Dam/Sardar Sarovar
(vi) Bhuj/Latur Earthquakes
(vii) Life in a delta
(viii) Prepare a model of rooftop rainwater harvesting.
Answer:
Attempt yourself.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Rapid sliding of large mass of bedrocks is called:
(a) Erosion
(b) Earthquake
(c) Tsunami
(d) Landslides.
Answer:
(d) Landslides.

Question 2.
In how many regions has India been divided on the basis of proneness to earthquake?
(a) Five Regions
(b) Seven Regions
(c) Eight Regions
(d) Ten Regions.
Answer:
(a) Five Regions

Question 3.
From the point of view of earthquake, which areas of India are most vulnerable?
(a) Northern Himalayas and Kachchh
(b) North-eastern India
(c) Northern Plains
(d) Peninsular India.
Answer:
(a) Northern Himalayas and Kachchh

Question 4.
Natural calamities which cause heavy loss to life and property are called:
(a) Famine
(b) Disaster
(c) Calamity
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(b) Disaster

Question 5.
The centre of the cyclone is mostly a warm and low-pressure, cloudless core known as:
(a) Storm Surge
(b) Eye of the storm
(c) Cyclone
(d) Jet Stream.
Answer:
(b) Eye of the storm

Question 6.
Which regions have highest number of landslides?
(a) Plateau regions
(b) Mountainous regions
(c) Coastal Regions
(d) Desert regions.
Answer:
(b) Mountainous regions

Question 7.
Which region of India is most prone to drought?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Coastal Regions.
Answer:
(a) Rajasthan

Question 8.
Natural changes which have side effects on human life are called:
(a) Common Hazards
(b) Manmade hazards
(c) Natural Hazards
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Natural Hazards

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a natural calamity?
(a) Earthquake
(b) Drought
(c) Fire Borne
(d) Tsunami.
Answer:
(c) Fire Borne

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a flood prone area?
(a) Assam
(b) West Bengal
(c) Bihar
(d) Rajasthan.
Answer:
(d) Rajasthan.

Question 11.
Which of the following is not a earthquake prone area?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) East Coast.
Answer:
(d) East Coast.

Question 12.
Which of the following is not a landslide prone area?
(a) Himalayas and Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Steep slopes in the Western Ghats
(c) Nilgiris in the north-eastern regions,
(d) Aravali regions in Rajasthan.
Answer:
(d) Aravali regions in Rajasthan.

Question 13.
Which of the following is not a type of drought?
(a) Meteorological Drought
(b) Agricultural Drought
(c) Hydrological Drought
(d) Desert Drought
Answer:
(d) Desert Drought

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are natural calamities?
Answer:
Natural calamities are elements of circumstances in the Natural environment that have the potential to cause harm to people or propertv or both.

Question 2.
Name some common natural calamities.
Answer:
Some important natural disasters are earthquake, floods, tsunamis, drought, landslides, cyclones, volcanoes, tornado, hailstorms, dust storms, hurricanes, etc.

Question 3.
What is a disaster?
Answer:
Disaster is an undesirable occurrence resulting from forces that are largely outside human control, strikes quickly with little or no warning, which causes or threatens serious disruption of life and property including death and injury to a large number of people, and requires therefore, mobilisation of efforts in excess of that which are normally provided by statutory emergency services.

Question 4.
What is the unit of measuring earthquake?
Answer:
Richter scale is the unit of measuring earthquake.

Question 5.
Name the states of India having high risk of earthquake.
Answer:
Areas of North-eastern states, Darbhanga and Araria along the Indo- Nepal border in Bihar, Uttarakhand, Western Himachal Pradesh and Kashmir Valley in the Himalayan region and the Kutch (Gujarat), Northern parts of Punjab, Eastern parts of Haryana, Delhi, Western Uttar Pradesh, and Northern Bihar fall under the High Damage Risk Zone.

Question 6.
Mention the speed of cyclones.
Answer:
Cyclones move with a speed of 20 km per hour. As it moves further, its energy keeps on reducing. Its duration is 5 to 7 days.

Question 7.
Name flood prone areas of India.
Answer:
Assam, West Bengal and Bihar are among the high flood-prone states of India. Apart from these, most of the rivers in the northern states like Punjab and Uttar Pradesh are also vulnerable to occasional floods.

Question 8.
Mention three causes due to which flood affected areas have increased in India.
Answer:
Three causes due to which flood affected areas have increased in India:

  • Deforestation
  • Barrier in flow of water by means of transport and buildings.
  • Construction of dams.

Question 9.
What is disaster management?
Answer:
Disaster management is inclusive of all those processes and preparations which are undertaken to mitigate the losses from disasters. It includes steps that should be taken before disaster, during disaster and after disaster.

Question 10.
On the basis of origin, in how many groups are calamities categorized?
Answer:
On the basis of origin, natural disasters have been classified into four groups:

  1. Atmospheric: Thunderstorm, Tornado, Drought, Hailstorm
  2. Terrestrial: Earthquake, Volcanic Eruption, Avalanches, Soil Erosion
  3. Aquatic: Floods, Tidal Waves, Storm Surge, Tsunami
  4. Biological: Viral Diseases, Plants and Animals as colonisers.

Question 11.
National Institute of Disaster Management, have made an intensive analysis of more than 1,200 earthquakes that have occurred in India in different years in the past and has divided into how many zones?
Answer:
National Geophysical Laboratory, Geological Survey of India, Department of Meteorology, Government of India, along with the recently formed National Institute of Disaster Management, have made an intensive analysis of more than 1,200 earthquakes that have occurred in India in different years in the past, and based on these, they divided India into the following five earthquake zones:

  1. Very high damage risk zone
  2. High damage risk zone
  3. Moderate damage risk zone
  4. Low damage risk zone
  5. Very low damage risk zone.

Question 12.
Expand IDNDR.
Answer:
International Decade for Natural Disaster Reduction.

Question 13.
How can we control floods?
Answer: Construction of flood protection embankments in the flood-prone areas, construction of dams, afforestation and discouraging major construction activities in the upper reaches of most of the flood-creating rivers, etc. are some measures to control floods.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a landslide? What are its effects on human life?
Answer:
A form of mass movement in which rock and debris moves rapidly down the slope under the influence of gravity as a result of failure along a shear plane.
It affects human life quite adversely:

  • It leads to floods.
  • It leads to loss of life and property.
  • It leads to failure of transport and communication system.
  • It leads to hurdles in economic activities and destruction of natural beauty.

Question 2.
What are the conditions for cyclone?
Answer:
Following are the basic requirements for the formation of cyclones:

  • Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air that can release enormous latent heat.
  • Strong Coriolis force that can prevent filling of low pressure at the centre because absence of Coriolis force near the equator prohibits the formation of tropical cyclone between 0°-5° latitude.
  • Unstable condition through the troposphere that creates local disturbances around which a cyclone develops.
  • Absence of strong vertical wind wedge, which disturbs the vertical transport of latent heat.

Question 3.
Give measures to mitigate the impact of cyclones.
Answer:
Following measures can be taken to mitigate the impact of cyclones:

  • We need to improve our Geographical Positioning System (GPS) to provide timely information;
  • Construction of dams, coast lines and water bodies.
  • Planting of trees in coastal areas;
  • By providing beforehand information.

Question 4.
How can we mitigate the effect of earthquakes?
Answer:
We can take following steps to mitigate the effect of earthquake:

  • Establishing earthquake monitoring centres for regular monitoring and fast dissemination of information.
  • Use of Geographical Positioning System (GPS).
  • Preparing a vulnerability map of the country and dissemination of vulnerability risk information.
  • Modifying the house types and building-designs in the vulnerable areas and discouraging construction of high-rise buildings, large industrial establishments and big urban centres in such areas.

Question 5.
Explain the effects of landslides.
Answer:
Effects of landslides are as follows:

  • Landslides have relatively small and localised area of direct influence, but roadblock, destruction of railway lines and channel- blocking due to rock-falls have far-reaching consequences.
  • Diversion of river courses due to landslides can also lead to flood and loss of life and property.
  • It also makes spatial interaction difficult, risky as well as a costly affair, which, in turn, adversely affects the developmental activities in these areas.

Question 6.
Explain the effects of drought.
Answer:
Droughts has many side effects:

  • It leads to shortage of food grains, fodder and water.
  • It leads to crop failure creating scarcity of food grains (akal), fodder (trinkal), inadequate rainfall, resulting in shortage of water (jalkal).
  • Large-scale death of cattle and other animals, migration of humans and livestock.
  • Scarcity of water compels people to consume contaminated water resulting in spread of many waterborne diseases like gastro-enteritis, cholera, hepatitis, etc.

Question 7.
How can we mitigate the effects of floods?
Answer:
We can mitigate the effects of floods in the following ways:

  • Dams are built along rivers to regulate the flow of water.
  • Connect with hydroelectric power plants.
  • Rivers should be dredged and their beds need to be laid deeper.
  • Reservoirs are built to hold back water and control the flow of small rivers.

Question 8.
Discuss socio-environmental effects of earthquake.
Answer:
Following are the socio-environmental effects of earthquake.

  • Surface waves produce fissures on the earth’s surface. Earthquakes are responsible for landslides and often these cause obstructions in the flow of rivers and channel resulting in the formation of reservoirs.
  • It not only damages and destroys the settlements, infrastructure, transport and communication network, industries and other developmental activities but also robs the population of their material and socio-cultural gains that they have preserved over generations.
  • It renders them homeless, which puts an extra-pressure and stress, particularly on the weak economy of the developing countries.

Question 9.
What are the ways to mitigate instances of landslides?
Answer:
It is always advisable to adopt area- specific measures to deal with landslides,

  • Restriction on the construction and other developmental activities such as roads and dams, limiting agriculture to valleys and areas with moderate slopes, and control on the development of large settlements in the high vulnerability zones, should be enforced.
  • Some positive actions like promoting large-scale afforestation programmes and construction of bunds to reduce the flow of water should be taken.
  • Terrace farming should be encouraged in the north-eastern hill states.

Question 10.
Explain the spatial distribution of tropical cyclones in India.
Answer:
Owing to its Peninsular shape surrounded by the Bay of Bengal in the east and the Arabian Sea in the west, the tropical cyclones in India also originate in these two important locations.

  • Most of the cyclones originate between 10°-15° north latitudes during the monsoon season.
  • The Bay of Bengal cyclones mostly develop during the months of October and November.
  • They originate between 16°-2° N latitudes and to the west of 92° E.
  • By July, the place of origin of these storms shifts to around 18° N latitude and west of 90°E near the Sunderban Delta.

Question 11.
Differentiate between:
1. Natural Hazards and Natural Disaster.
2. Manmade disaster and Natural
Answer:
1.

BasisNatural HazardsNatural disaster
MeaningNatural Hazards are elements of circumstances in the Natural environment that have the potential to cause harm to people or property or both.Natural Disaster is an undesirable occurrence resulting from forces that are largely outside human control, strikes quickly with little or no warning, which causes or threatens serious disruption of life and property including death and injury to a large number of people, and requires therefore, mobilisation of efforts in excess of that which are normally provided by statutory emergency services.
ScopeEvery natural hazard is not a disaster.Every natural disaster is a natural hazard.
ExampleUSA facing -50 degree temperature every year. It is a hazard but due to preparedness, it never becomes a disaster.Tsunami occurred in 2004 proved to be a great disaster.

2.

BasisManmade DisasterNatural disaster
MeaningManmade disasters are undesirable occurrences resulting from human actions.Natural Disaster is an undesirable occurrence resulting from forces that are largely outside human control, strikes quickly with little or no warning, which causes or threatens serious disruption of life and property.
ExampleBomb blast, industrial explosions, wars, fire accidents, etc.Earthquake, landslides, cyclones, floods, droughts, etc.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain about different types of drought.
Answer:
Different types of droughts are as follows:

  • Meteorological Drought: It is a situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with mal-distribution of the same over time and space.
  • Agricultural Drought: It is also known as soil moisture drought, characterised by low soil moisture that is necessary to support the crops, thereby resulting in crop failures. Moreover, if an area has more than 30 percent of its gross cropped area under irrigation, the area is excluded from the drought-prone category.
  • Hydrological Drought: It results when the availability of water in different storages and reservoirs like aquifers, lakes, reservoirs, etc. falls below what the precipitation can replenish.
  • Ecological Drought: When the productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to shortage of water and as a consequence of ecological distress, damages are induced in the ecosystem. Various parts of India experience these droughts recurrently which result in some serious socio-economic and ecological problems.

Question 2.
On the basis of past experiences, frequency and certain causal relationships with the controlling factors like geology, geomorphic agents, slope, land-use, vegetation cover and human activities, India has been divided into how many zones?
Answer:
On the basis of past experiences, frequency and certain causal relationships with the controlling factors like geology, geomorphic agents, slope, land-use, vegetation cover and human activities, India has been divided into a number of zones.

1.Very High Vulnerability Zone: Highly unstable, relatively young mountainous areas in the Himalayas and Andaman and Nicobar, high rainfall regions with steep slopes in the Western Ghats and Nilgiris, the north-eastern regions, along with areas that experience frequent ground-shaking due to earthquakes, etc. and areas of intense human activities, particularly those related to construction of roads, dams, etc. are very highly vulnerable.

2. High Vulnerability Zone: Areas that have almost similar conditions to those included in the very high vulnerability zone are also included in this category. All the Himalayan states and the states from the north-eastern regions except the plains of Assam are included in the high vulnerability zones.

3. Moderate to Low Vulnerability Zone: Areas that receive less precipitation such as Trans-Himalayan areas of Ladakh and Spiti, undulated yet stable relief and low precipitation areas in the Aravali, rain shadow areas in the Western and Eastern Ghats and Deccan plateau also experience occasional landslides. Landslides due to mining and subsidence are most common in states like Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Kerala.

4. Other Areas: The remaining parts of India, particularly states like Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Assam and Coastal regions of the southern States are safe as far as landslides are concerned.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Hots Questions

Question 1.
Development may be disastrous. How?
Answer:
When the drive for economic growth occurs without regard to hazard profiles, existing mitigation technologies, and ongoing risk reduction programs, an increase in overall disaster risk results. Unsafe and unwise development practices lead to increased and additional risk factors, and often times result in an elimination of existing man¬made and natural risk protections. For example, in many coastal communities where development of the tourism infrastructure leads to the destruction of coral reefs, mangrove forests, wetlands, and dunes, natural protections from storm surges and tsunamis disappear. In the aftermath of the 2004 tsunami in Asia, was wide evidence that the destruction of these natural resources led to increased devastation in some areas over others where the protection was maintained.

Question 2.
Why do the rich countries and the poor countries differ so much in terms of the nature of their disaster consequences?
Answer:
Poor people, and likewise poor countries, tend to be much more vulnerable to events that exceed their capacity to withstand disaster impacts and to respond once a disaster has occurred. They are also much less likely to effectively recover in the aftermath of a disaster event.

1. The interaction between exposure and vulnerability can explain a lot about a country’s disaster profile. The instructor can illustrate the relationship between disasters and vulnerability by providing the students with an example of similar disaster events that occur in two different countries – one that is wealthy and one that is poor.

2. In most wealthy countries, an event of this magnitude causes little damage, very few injuries, and rarely any fatalities. However, in poor countries, it is not uncommon for a seismic event of this scale to cause significant injuries and fatalities.

3. In the wealthy countries, where buildings are constructed to code, and enforcement is effective, vulnerability is low to a magnitude 6.0 event. However, in poor countries, it is not uncommon for structures to be built in an informal fashion (out of traditional materials, including mud and stone, for example), with no consideration or enforcement of resistant building codes. In the event of a moderate earthquake, such as a 6.0 magnitude event, these informal structures can collapse.

4. It is poverty, and the many factors associated with poverty (such as corruption, poor access to building skills, knowledge, and materials, and other reasons), that create the vulnerability gap between the rich and the poor countries.

Question 3.
Disasters limit economic development. How?
Answer:
Disasters wipe out the gains of economic development. Examples include:

1. Hurricane Isaac (1982) – destroyed 22% of Tongo’s housing stock.

2. Mozambique Flood (2000) – resulted in over $165 million in costs to reconstruct and repair damage to water, sanitation, energy, telecommunication, roads and railway infrastructure.

3. Vietnam Flooding – each year in Vietnam, flooding destroys an average of 300,000 tons of food. Catastrophic disasters result in the destruction of a nation’s assets, and interrupt production, trade, investment, and other economic engines. Larger countries, with a greater geographical spread of economic assets relative to the spatial impact of disasters, are more able to avoid direct loss and minimize downstream, indirect or secondary losses.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Value Based Questions

Question 1.
How can man survive with earthquakes?
Answer:
Man can survive with earthquakes by taking following precautions:

  • When earthquake occurs we should leave the house. If it is not possible to go out of the house stand in four corners of the walls or get inside bed, table etc.
  • Switch off all electricity connections in the house.
  • There should not be any fire. Put off all types of fire like gas stove must be switched off.
  • Never drive any vehicle during earthquake.

Question 2.
Explain about disaster management in short.
Answer:
Disasters Management refers to the series of actions undertaken due to cyclones, unlike the ones caused by earthquakes, tsunamis and volcanic eruptions are more predictable in terms of the time and place of their occurrences.

Moreover, with the help of development of techniques to monitor the behaviour of cyclones, their intensity, direction and magnitude, it has become possible to manage the cyclonic hazard to some extent. Construction of cyclone- shelters, embankments, dykes, reservoirs and afforestation to reduce the speed of the winds are some of the steps that can help in minimizing the damages.

  • Pre-disaster management involves generating data and information about the disasters, preparing vulnerability zoning maps and spreading awareness among the people about these.
  • During disasters, rescue and relief operations such as evacuation, construction of shelters and relief camps, supplying of water, food, clothing and medical aids, etc. should be done on an emergency basis.
  • Post-disaster operations should involve rehabilitation and recovery of victims. It should also concentrate on capacity¬building in order to cope up with future disasters.

Question 3.
What are different stages of disaster preparedness and management?
Answer:
There are three stages involved in disaster mitigation and management:

  1. Pre-disaster management: It involves generating data and information about the disasters, preparing vulnerability zoning maps and spreading awareness among the people about these. Apart from these, disaster planning, preparedness and preventive measures are other steps that need to be taken in the vulnerable areas.
  2. During disasters: During disasters, rescue and relief operations such as evacuation, construction of shelters and relief camps, supplying of water, food, clothing and medical aids etc. should be done on an emergency basis.
  3. Post-disaster operations: It should involve rehabilitation and recovery of victims. It should also concentrate on capacity-building in order to cope up with future disasters, if any.

Question 4.
Development can help in disaster management as well as cause management. Justify the statement.
Answer:
Efforts to build upon and improve the social and economic engines, infrastructure, and institutions within a country can either increase or decrease hazard exposure, hazard vulnerability, and risk.

  • (i) Practices that incorporate risk reduction methodologies, such as stringent building codes, resistant materials, proper land use planning, and other important mitigation measures and practices, often reduce the likelihood of disaster events or the consequences that result when events do occur.
  • Unwise, uncoordinated, or unsafe development can quickly and dramatically increase the disaster risk faced by the people of a country.
  • Mass urbanization and coastal migration which occur with little regard to wise building practices – as is often seen in the megacities of the developing world – is a primary contributor to increased risk of development.

Map Skills

Question 1.
Locate and label ten flood prone areas on an outline map of India.
Answer:
Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 7 Natural Hazards and Disasters Map Skills Q1

Question 2.
Locate and label drought prone areas on an outline map of India.
Answer:
Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 7 Natural Hazards and Disasters Map Skills Q2

Question 3.
Locate and label earthquake prone areas on an outline map of India.
Answer:
Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 7 Natural Hazards and Disasters Map Skills Q3

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 7 Natural Hazards and Disasters appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions History Chapter 6 Work, Life and Leisure

$
0
0

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions History Chapter 6 Work, Life and Leisure

Short Answer Question3 Marks

Question 1.
What was the impact of industrialization and urbanization on the family life in Britain in the nineteenth century? Explain. (2012)
Answer:
The industrialization and urbanization in Britain in the 19th century transformed the family in terms of function and shape. The family as an institution had broken down as the ties between members of households loosened, and among the working class the institution of marriage tended to break down. Women of the upper and middle classes in Britain faced increasingly higher levels of isolation, although their lives were made easier by domestic maids who cooked, cleaned and cared for young children on low wages.

The new city life encouraged the spirit of individualism and freedom from the collective values among both men and women. But men and women did not have equal access to the new urban space. Women lost their industrial jobs and were forced to withdraw into their homes. The public space became increasingly a male preserve, and the domestic sphere was seen as the proper place for women.

Question 2.
What was the status of the women folk in the conservative industrial towns? (2013)
Answer:
Position of women in Britain at the end of the 18th century and early 19th century. Life in the industrial city of London began to change and transform in various ways –

  1. Ties between members of the household weakened. Women of the upper and middle class faced the problem of isolation although their lives were made easy by domestic servants who worked for them.
  2. Women from the lower social classes had some control over their lives. They worked for wages as domestic maids who cooked, cleaned, and looked after young children.
  3. Public space was mainly a male preserve. Only the domestic sphere was seen as a proper place for women. After the Chartism Movement, women came to participate in political movements for suffrage and the right to vote.

Question 3.
What steps were taken by the British State to provide housing for working classes between 1919-1939 (during the War period)? (2012)
Answer:
Between the two World Wars, the responsibility for housing the working classes was accepted by the British State and a million houses, most of them single family cottages, were built by local authorities. Meanwhile, the city had extended beyond the range where people could walk to work, and the development of suburbs made new forms of mass transport, absolutely necessary, which led ultimately to the setting up of railways.

Question 4.
What were the steps taken to clean up London in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries? (2012, 2015)
Answer:

  1. Demands were made for new ‘lungs’ for the city and some attempts were made to bridge the difference between the city and the countryside through a Green Belt around London.
  2. Attempts were made to decongest localities, green the open spaces, reduce pollution and landscape the city.
  3. Large blocks of apartments were built and rent control was introduced in Britain during the First World War to ease the impact of a severe housing shortage.
  4. Architect and planner Ebenezer Howard developed the principles of the ‘Garden City’, a pleasant space full of plants and trees, where people would both live and work. Such green spaces were believed to produce better quality citizens.
  5. Raymond Unwin and Barry Parker developed the Garden suburb of New Earswick based on Howards idea. It had common gardens and beautiful spaces but could eventually be afforded by only the well-off workers.

Question 5.
Explain the benefits of London Tube railway for the population in the city. (2014)
Answer:
Benefits of London Tube railway:

  • The London underground railway partially solved the housing crisis by carrying large masses of people to and from the city. The population in the city became more dispersed.
  • Better-planned suburbs and a good railway network enabled large numbers to live outside Central London and travel to work.
  • The new conveniences wore down social distinctions.

Question 6.
How did air pollution become a nuisance for the Londoners? What steps were taken to solve the problem? (2015, 2014)
Answer:
The congestion in the 19th century industrial city of London led a yearning for clean country air. Because of widespread use of coal in homes and industries, air pollution led to bad tempers, smoke-related illnesses and dirty clothes. Demands were made for new ‘lungs’ for the city and some attempts were made to bridge the difference between the city and the countryside through a Green Belt around London.

  1. Factory owners and steam engine owners were told invest on technologies that would improve their machinery. However, it was not easy to monitor the smoke as owners got away with small adjustments to their machines that didn’t help to stop the smoke.
  2. Despite hurdles and opposition from the industries, the Smoke Abatement Acts of 1847 and 1853 were passed. However, these did not always work to clear the air.
  3. Attempts were made to decongest localities, green the open spaces, reduce pollution and landscape the city.
  4. Large blocks of apartments were built and rent control was introduced.
  5. Architect and planner Ebenezer Howard developed the principles of the ‘Garden City’, a pleasant space full of plants and trees, where people would both live and work.

Question 7.
How was Bombay turned into an industrial city? (2015)
Answer:
At first, Bombay was the major outlet for cotton textiles from Gujarat. Later, in the 19th century, the city functioned as a port through which large quantities of raw materials, such as cotton and opium, would pass. Gradually, it also became an important administrative centre in Western India, and then, by the end of the 19th century, a major industrial centre.

Bombay became the capital of the Bombay Presidency in 1819 after the Maratha defeat in the Anglo- Maratha war. The city quickly expanded. With the growth of trade in cotton and opium, large communities of traders and bankers as well as artisans and shopkeepers came to settle in Bombay. The establishment of textile mills led to a fresh surge in migration.

Bombay had its first cotton textile mill established in 1854. By 1921, there Were 85 cotton mills with about 1,46,000 workers. A large number of people flowed in from the nearby district of Ratnagiri to work in the Bombay mills. Women formed as much as 23% of the mill workforce in the period between 1919 and 1926. After that their number dropped.

Bombay dominated the maritime trade of India till well into the twentieth century.

Question 8.
‘The Chawls of Bombay were a small cosmopolitan community in themselves’. Explain the statement. (2012)
Answer:
With the rapid and unplanned expansion of the Bombay city, the crisis of housing became acute by mid 1850s. The arrival of textile mills increased the pressure on Bombay’s housing. The working people who migrated from various parts lived in thickly populated Chawls. Chawls are multi-storeyed structures built in the native parts of the town. Each Chawl was divided into smaller one room tenements which had no private toilets.

The homes being small, streets and neighbourhoods were used for a variety of activities such as working, washing, sleeping and various types of leisure activities. The magicians, monkey players and acrobats used to regularly perform their act in an open space in the middle of four Chawls. Liquor shops and akharas came up in any empty spot. These were also the place for the exchange of news about jobs, strikes, riots or demonstrations.

Question 9.
When was the Rent Act passed in Mumbai (Bombay)? What was its aim? What was the impact? (2013, 2014)
Answer:
The Rent Act was passed in Mumbai (Bombay) in the year 1918.
Aim: To solve the problem of housing, the Rent Act was passed with the aim of keeping the rents reasonable.
Impact However, it had the opposite effect of producing a severe housing crisis, since landlords withdrew houses from the market.

Question 10.
Examine the living conditions of different sections of society in Bombay prior to reclamation. (2015)
Answer:
Living conditions of different sections of society in Bombay prior to reclamation-

  • Bombay had sprawling, spacious and palatial private bungalows and governmental mansions where usually the European elite and the richer Parsi, Muslim and upper class traders lived.
  • More than 70% of the working people lived in the thickly populated chawls of Bombay.
  • Each chawl was divided into smaller one room tenements which had no private toilets. Due to high rents, workers shared homes either with relatives or caste fellows. People had to keep the windows of their rooms closed even in humid weather due to close proximity of filthy gutters, privies, buffalo stables, etc. Water was scarce and people often quarreled every morning for a turn at the tap. Living conditions were poor.

Question 11.
How did the development or expansion of Bombay (Mumbai) differ from London? State any three points of difference between the two. (2014)
Answer:
Difference between the expansion of Bombay and London:

  1. Town planning in London emerged from fears of social revolution and planning in Bombay came about as a result of fears about the plague epidemic.
  2. Bombay was a crowded city. Every Londoner in 1840s enjoyed an average space of 155 square yards while Bombay had a mere 9.5 square yards. By 1872, when London had an average of 8 persons per house, the density of Bombay was as high as 20.
  3. The city of Bombay began to develop along with the development of trade in agricultural goods whereas London began to develop after the industrial revolution.
  4. Bombay began to develop after European settlements there whereas London was developed by its own people.

Question 12.
State any three causes of air-pollution in Calcutta in the 19th century. (2017 D, 2013)
Answer:
Calcutta had a long history of air pollution:
City development everywhere occured at the expense of ecology and environment. Kolkata (Calcutta) was also not an exception. It too had a long history of air pollution.

  1. High levels of pollution were a consequence of the huge population that depended on dung and wood as fuel in their daily life.
  2. The main polluters were the industries and establishments that used steam engines run on coal. The city was built on marshy land the resulting fog combined with smoke generated thick block fog.
  3. The railway line introduced in 1855 brought a dangerous new pollutant into the picture—coal from Raniganj. The high content of ash in Indian coal was a problem.
  4. In 1920, the rice mills of Tollygunge began to bum rice husk instead of coal leading to air filled with black soot falling like drizzling rain.

Question 13.
What was the status of the women folk in the conservative industrial towns? (2017 OD)
Answer:
Position of women in Britain at the end of the 18th century and early 19th century:
Life in the industrial city of London began to change and transform in various ways-

  1. Ties between members of the household weakened. Women of the upper and middle class faced the problem of isolation although their lives were made easy be domestic servants who worked for them.
  2. Women from the lower social classes had some control over their lives. They worked for wages as domestic maids, who cooked, cleaned, and looked after young children.
  3. Public space was mainly a male preserve. Only the domestic sphere was seen as a proper place for women. After the Chartism Movement, women came to participate in political movements for suffrage and the right to vote.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks

Question 14.
Describe the role of industrialisation in shaping of the modern cities in England. (2015)
Answer:
Industrialisation changed the form of urbanisation in the modem period. The early industrial cities of Britain such as Leeds and Manchester attracted large numbers of migrants to the textile mills set up in the eighteenth century.

  • During the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries, London became a centre for international trade and commerce and attracted a large number of traders and merchants from all over the world. It also became the refuge of democrats fleeing from the despotic regime. For example, large communities from all over Europe came and settled in London.
  • London was a powerful magnet for migrant population even when it did not have large factories. According to the historian Gareth Stedman Jones, “It became the city of clerks and shopkeepers, of small masters and skilled sweated out workers, of soldiers and servants, of casual labourers, street sellers and beggars.”
  • Apart from the dockyard, five major types of industries employed large number of workers:
    1. clothing and footwear,
    2. wood and furniture,
    3. metals and engineering,
    4. printing and stationery and
    5. precision products such as surgical instruments, watches and objects of precious metal.
  • By 1950, one out of 9 people in England and Wales lived in London. It was a colossal city with a population of 4 million (between 1810-1880). In addition, after 1840s, the building activities intensified in the city (construction of roads, railway lines, stations, tunnels, drainage and sewer) and attracted many more workers from outside making the city highly populated.
  • During the First World War, London began manufacturing motor cars and electrical goods and the number of large factories increased.

Question 15.
‘The function and the shape of the family were completely transformed by life in the industrial city.’ Explain. (2012)
Answer:
In the eighteenth (18th) century, the family had been a unit of production and consumption as well as of political decision-making. There was a big change in the older pattern.

  1. Ties between members of household loosened.
  2. The institution of marriage among the working class tended to break down.
  3. Women of the upper and middle classes in Britain, on the other hand, faced increasingly higher level of isolation, although their lives were made easier by maids who cooked, cleaned and cared for young children on low wages.
  4. Women, who worked for wages, had some control over their lives, particularly among the lower social classes.
  5. By the twentieth century, the urban family had been transformed yet again, partly by experience of the wartime work done by women who were employed in large numbers. The family now consisted of much smaller units.

Question 16.
How did marginal groups threaten the city of London? What was the root cause of this problem? How did the authorities in London try to solve this problem. (2012)
Answer:
London grew, crime flourished and became a matter of concern for the police and philanthropists. 20,000 criminals were listed living in the city who were in fact poor people and lived by stealing lead from roofs, food from shops, lumps of coal and clothes drying on hedges. The cheats, tricksters, pickpockets and petty thieves disturbed the law and order situation of the city. This happened due to mismatch between huge influx of labour from surrounding rural areas and the opportunities available to earn livelihood. In an attempt to discipline the population, the authorities imposed high penalties for crime and offered work to those who were considered the deserving poor.

Question 17.
Why did the underground railway soon become a necessity in London? Mention any three disadvantages of this system. (2013)
Answer:
London, like other old cities, became very crowded after the Industrial Revolution, when people began pouring in. The major problem, which cropped up, was of housing. Factory and workshop owners did not house the migrants. Instead, individual land-owners put up cheap tenements for the working class which were neither safe nor properly ventilated. Attempts were made to decongest the city of London and solve the housing crisis. Meanwhile, the city had extended beyond the range where people could walk to work. Thus, the development of suburbs made new forms of mass transport absolutely necessary. The London underground railway (set up in 1863) solved the housing crisis by carrying large masses of people to and from the city.
Three disadvantages of the underground railway:

  1. The underground railway added to the mess and unhealthiness of the city.
  2. To make approximately two miles of railway, 900 houses had to be destroyed. Thus, London tube rail led to massive displacement of the London poor.
  3. The underground railway was considered a menace to health due to the lack of oxygen created in the compartments by smoking pipes, fumes of gas lamps and coal dust.

Question 18.
Explain any five sources of entertainment for the common people of London in the nineteenth century. (2012, 2014)
Or
How did people from different classes organised their leisure time in England? (2014)
Answer:

  1. The concept of ‘London Season’ was an annual feature for the wealthy Britishers. Several cultural events such as the opera, the theatre and classical music performance were organized for an elite group of 300-400 families in the late eighteenth century.
  2. Meanwhile, the working class met in pubs to have drinks, exchange news or to discuss politics.
  3. In the nineteenth century some libraries, art galleries and museums were established to provide people with a sense of history and encourage them to take pride in the achievements of the British. To encourage people to visit the above mentioned places, the entry fee was waived.
  4. Music halls were popular among the lower classes. By the early twentieth century, cinema became the great mass entertainment for mixed audiences.
  5. Holidaying by the sea became popular among the industrial workers, who enjoyed the benefits of the sun and the bracing winds.

Quesstion 19.
Describe the emergence of Bombay as a city of film industry in the 20th century. (2013)
Answer:
Bombay with its expansion in trade, business and industries in the 19th century attracted a large number of migrants to come here and fulfill their dreams.

Despite massive overcrowding and difficult living conditions, Bombay (Mumbai) appears to many as mayanagari

  • a city of dreams.
  •  Many films of Bombay deal with the arrival in the city of new migrants and their pressures of daily life. Even some songs from films like CID (1956) and Guest House (1959) speak of the contradictory aspects of the city.
  • By 1925, Bombay had become India’s film capital, producing films for a national audience.
  • Most of the people in the film industry were themselves migrants who came from cities like Lahore, Calcutta, Madras and contributed to the national character of the film industry. Those who came from Lahore, then in Punjab, were very important for the development of the Hindi film industry. Many famous writers like Ismat Chugtai and Saadat Hasan Manto were associated with Hindi cinema.
  • Bombay films have contributed greatly to produce an image of the city as a blend of dreams and reality of slums and star bungalows.

Question 20.
Throw some light on Bombay chawls.
Answer:
Chawls were multi-storeyed structures which had been built from at least the 1860s in the ‘native’ parts of the town.

  1. Like tenements in London, these houses were largely owned by private landlords, such as merchants, bankers and building contractors, looking for quick ways of earning money from anxious migrants.
  2. Each chawl was divided into one-room tenements, which had no private toilets.
  3. Many families could reside at a time in a tenement. High rents forced workers to share homes, either with relatives or caste fellows who were streaming into the city. Average occupants in one room used to be 4 or 5.
  4. People had to keep the windows of their rooms closed even in humid weather due to the close proximity of filthy gutters, privies, buffalo stables, etc.
  5. Inadequate supply of water led to frequent quarrels among residents for a turn at the tap. Rooms were usually kept clean. Due to small rooms, neighbourhoods were used for a variety of activities, such as cooking, washing and sleeping. Liquor shops and Akharas had come up on empty spots.
  6. People, who belonged to the depressed classes and lower castes, were kept out of many chawls and often had to live in shelters made of corrugated sheets, leaves or bamboo poles.

Question 21.
Explain the land reclamation process in Bombay (Mumbai).
Answer:

  1. Seven islands of Bombay were joined into one landmass over a period of time. The need for additional commercial place in mid-nineteenth century led to the formulation of several plans for the reclamation of more land from sea. Both private companies and government were involved.
  2. In 1864, the Black Bay Reclamation Company won the right to reclaim the western foreshore from the tip of Malabar Hills to the end of Colaba. Reclamation often meant levelling of hills around Bombay.
  3. By 1870, the city had expanded 22 square km. As the population continued to increase, every bit of available area was built over and new areas were reclaimed from the sea.
  4. A successful reclamation project was undertaken by the Bombay Port Trust, which built a dry dock between 1914 and 1918 and used the excavated earth to create the 22 acre Ballad Estate. Subsequently the famous Marine Drive of Bombay was developed.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions

The post Social Science Class 10 Important Questions History Chapter 6 Work, Life and Leisure appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Board Exam 2019-20

$
0
0

CBSE Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Board Exam 2019-2020 pdf free download will help you in scoring more marks. Here we have given NCERT Important Questions for Class 10 Maths with Solutions and Answers.

Important Questions for Class 10 Maths with Solutions

Please find Important questions for Class 10 maths chapter wise.

Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Board Exam – List of chapters

  1. Real Numbers Class 10 Important Questions
  2. Polynomials Class 10 Important Questions
  3. Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables Class 10 Important Questions
  4. Quadratic Equations Class 10 Important Questions
  5. Arithmetic Progressions Class 10 Important Questions
  6. Triangles Class 10 Important Questions
  7. Coordinate Geometry Class 10 Important Questions
  8. Introduction to Trigonometry Class 10 Important Questions
  9. Some Applications of Trigonometry Class 10 Important Questions
  10. Circles Class 10 Important Questions
  11. Constructions Class 10 Important Questions
  12. Areas Related to Circles Class 10 Important Questions
  13. Surface Areas and Volumes Class 10 Important Questions
  14. Statistics Class 10 Important Questions
  15. Probability Class 10 Important Questions

The post CBSE Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Board Exam 2019-20 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions History Chapter 7 Print Culture and the Modern World

$
0
0

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions History Chapter 7 Print Culture and the Modern World

Very Short Answer Question s (VSA) 1 Mark

Question 1.
What did the Grimm Brothers publish? (2014)
Answer:
The Grimm Brothers of Germany compiled traditional folktales gathered from peasants and published them in 1812.

Question 2.
Which was the first book written by Gutenberg? (2012)
Answer:
The bible was the first book written by Gutenberg.

Question 3.
Who brought the first printing press to India? (2012)
Answer:
Portuguese missionaries.

Question 4.
Who developed the first printing press? (2013)
Answer:
Johann Gutenberg

Question 5.
“The printing press is the most powerful engine of progress and public opinion is the force that will sweep despotism away.” Who said these words? (2013)
Answer:
Louise Sebastian Mercier

Question 6.
Which method of hand-printing was developed in China? (2014)
Answer:
From AD 594, books in China were printed by rubbing paper against the inked surface of woodblocks.

Question 7.
How were Bibliotheque Bleue different from penny chapbooks? (2015)
Answer:
Penny chapbooks were carried by petty pedlars known as chapmen in England. These books were sold for a penny, so that even the poor could buy them. “Bibliotheque Bleue’, were low-priced small books printed in France. Both were low priced books printed on poor quality paper but the Biliotheque Bleue were bound in cheap blue covers.

Question 8.
What was Protestant Reformation? (2015)
Answer:
Protestant Reformation was a 16th Century movement to reform Catholic Church dominated by Rome. Martin Luther was one of the main Protestant reformers. He wrote Ninety Five Theses criticizing many practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic Church. Several traditions of anti-Catholic Christianity developed out of the movement.

Question 9.
What kind of books were available in India before the introduction of print culture?
Answer:
Earlier, the books used to be handwritten either on palm leaves or handmade paper. India has a tradition of handwritten manuscripts in Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian as well as in various vernacular languages. Pages were sometimes beautifully illustrated. They would either be pressed between wooden covers or sewn together to ensure preservation.

Question 10.
Why is Charles Metcalfe called the ‘Liberator of the Press’ in India?
Answer:
Charles Metcalfe was the Acting-Governor General of India in 1835. He distinguished himself by liberating the Press in India and was responsible for removing all the restrictions on the Press in India.

Question 11.
What kind of information did the periodical press and newspapers carry in the 18th century?
Answer:
The periodical press and newspapers carried combined information about current affairs with entertainment. They also carried information about wars and trade as well as news of developments in other places.

Question 12.
Mention the contribution of Richard M. Hoes (New York) in print culture in the mid-nineteenth century.
Answer:
Richard M.Hoes had perfected the power-driven cylindrical press. This press was capable of printing 8,000 sheets per hour and was very useful for printing newspapers.

Question 13.
What were ‘penny chapbooks’?
Answer:
Penny chapbooks were pocket-sized books sold for a penny by pedlars known as chapmen.

Question 14.
Who was the first printing press was developed by? (2017 D)
Answer:
Johan Gutenberg

Question 15.
Why is Charles Metcalfe called the ‘Liberator of the Press’ in India. (2017 OD)
Answer:
Charles Metcalfe was the Acting Governor General of India in 1835. He distinguished himself by liberating the Press in India and was responsible for removing all the restrictions on the press in India.

Short Answer Questions (SA) 3 Marks

Question 16.
Explain any five reasons for bringing in large number of new readers among children, women and workers during the late 19th century. (2014)
Answer:
The five reasons are

  • compulsory primary education;
  • women became important as readers;
  • lending libraries became instrumental for educating white collar workers, artisans and lower middle class people;
  • self educated working novelist were women who defined a new type of strong woman; and
  • best known novelist were who defined a new type of strong woman.

Question 17.
‘Print played a significant role in awakening sentiments of nationalism amongst the Indians’. Explain the statement with examples. (2012)
Answer:
There is no denying that print culture connected the different people and communities and stimulated among them a spirit of togetherness, oneness and nationalism. Both Indian press and literature played a vital role in the growth of nationalism in India. In the nineteenth century, a large quantity of national literature was created which brought about a great revolution in the minds of people and inspired them to fight against British imperialism.

The Indian press contributed in arousing national consciousness among the people of India. Many vernacular newspapers like the ‘Indian Mirror’, ‘Bombay Samachar’, ‘The Amrita Bazar Patrika’, ‘The Hindu/ ‘The Kesari’ and several others had a great influence on the political life of the country. A continuous flow of articles by national leaders and thinkers like Gandhiji, Tagore, Tilak, etc. passed on ideas of a new free India to the masses and prepared them for the national struggle.

Question 18.
How did the printers manage to attract the people, largely illiterate, towards printed books? (2012)
Answer:
The rate of literacy was very low in European countries till the twentieth century:

  • To attract the illiterate common people towards printed books, publishers realised the wider reach of printed work whereby even those who could not read could certainly enjoy listening to books being read out.
  • So printers began publishing popular ballads and folk tales. Such books would be profusely illustrated with pictures.
  • These were also sung and recited at gatherings in villages and in taverns in towns.

Question 19.
What were the new inventions that increased the circulation of printed materials? (2012)
Answer:
With the growing demand for books, woodblock printing gradually became more and more popular and was widely used in Europe to print textiles, playing cards, and religious pictures with simple, brief texts. The breakthrough in printing technology occurred when Johann Gutenberg developed the first printing press.

The Olive Press provided the model for the printing press, and moulds were used for casting the metal types for the letters and alphabet. The first book Gutenberg printed was Bible. As the number of printing press grew, book production boomed. The shift from hand printing to mechanical printing led to the print revolution.

Question 20.
Give any three reasons favouring shift from hand printing to mechanical printing in China? (2013)
Answer:

  1. By the 17th century, urban culture bloomed in China and the use of print diversified. It was important for a shift from hand printing to mechanical printing in China to take place. Print was no longer used just by scholar-officials. Merchants used print in their everyday life to collect trade information.
  2. Reading increasingly became a leisure activity. Rich women began to read and many women began publishing their poetry and plays.
  3. In the late 19th century as Western powers established their outposts in China, western printing techniques and mechanical presses were imported. Shanghai became the hub of the new print culture catering to Western-style schools.

Question 21.
Highlight any three circumstances that led to the intermingling of the hearing culture and the reading culture. (2014)
Answer:

  • With the printing press, a new reading public emerged. Printing reduced the cost of books. Access to books created a new culture of reading. Earlier reading was restricted to the elite.
  • Common people lived in a world of oral culture. They heard sacred texts read out, ballads recited and folk tales narrated. Knowledge was transferred orally.
  • Printers began publishing popular ballads and folk tales, illustrated with pictures. These were sung and recited at gatherings. Oral culture thus entered print and printed material was orally transmitted.
  • The line that separated oral and reading cultures diminished and the hearing and reading public intermingled.

Question 22.
Highlight any three innovations which have improved the printing technology from nineteenth century onwards. (2014)
Answer:
Three innovations which have improved the printing technology from nineteenth century onwards:

  1. Methods of feeding paper improved.
  2. The quality of printing plates became better.
  3. Automatic paper reels and photoelectric controls of the colour register were introduced.
  4. The accumulation of several individual mechanical improvements transformed the appearance of printed texts.

Question 23.
In which three ways did the printed books at first closely resemble the written manuscripts? (2014)
Answer:
The printed books at first closely resembled the written manuscripts in appearance and layout. The metal letters initiated the ornamental handwritten styles.

Borders were illuminated were by hand with foliage and patterns and illustrations painted.

In the books printed for the rich, space for decoration was kept blank on the printed page for the purchaser to choose the design and the painting school that would do the illustration.

Question 24.
How did new forms of popular literature appear in print targeting new audience in the Eighteenth century? Explain with examples. (2014)
Answer:
New forms of popular literature appeared in print targeting new audiences.
Book sellers employed pedlars who roamed around villages, carrying little books for sale. There were almanacs or ritual calendars, along with ballads and folktales.

In England, penny chapbooks were carried by petty pedlars known as chapmen and sold for a penny.
In France ‘Biliotheque Blue’, low priced small books printed on poor quality paper were bound in cheap blue covers. Romances and the ‘histories’ which were stories about the past were printed on four to six pages.

Books were of various sizes, serving many different purposes and interests.

Question 25.
What made the Englishmen, under colonial rule, demand a clamp down on the ‘native press’, after the revolt of 1857? How was it done? (2013)
Or, Why did the attitude of the colonial Government towards the freedom of the press change after the revolt of 1857? What repressive measures were adopted by them to control the freedom of press? (2013)
Answer:
The English Government wanted to suppress the native press because the vernacular newspapers had become assertively nationalist. They feared that if their freedom of Press is not curtailed, it might encourage the masses to rise again against the colonial rule.

In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed which provided the Government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press.

Then onwards, the government kept regular track of the vernacular newspapers published in different provinces. When a report was judged as seditious, the newspaper was warned, and if the warning was ignored, the Press could be seized and the printing machinery confiscated.

Question 26.
Why was Martin Luther in favour of print? Explain three reasons. (2012)
Answer:
Martin Luther was in favour of print and spoke out in praise of it, because:

  1. He wrote ‘Ninety-Five Theses’ criticizing many of the practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic Church. His ideas were reproduced in print in vast numbers and reached a large section of people,
  2. According to him printing was the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one.
  3. His protests ultimately led to the division of Church and beginning of the Protestant Reformation.

Question 27.
Write a short note on Gutenberg Press. (2012)
Answer:
Gutenberg Press. A breakthrough in print technology occurred at Strasbourg, Germany where Johann Gutenberg developed the first known printing press in 1430s. Gutenberg developed metal types for each of the 26 characters of the Roman alphabet and devised a way of moving them around so as to compose different words of the text.

This came to be known as the moveable type printing machine, and it remained the basic print technology over the next 300 years. Books could now be produced much faster than was possible when each print block was prepared by carving a piece of wood by hand. The Gutenberg press could print 250 sheets on one side per hour. The first book printed by Gutenberg was the Bible and it took three years to print 180 copies.

Question 28.
Write a short note on Vernacular Press Act. (2012)
Answer:
The Vernacular Press Act.

  • In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed by the British Government in India to impose restrictions on vernacular press, which was responsible for spreading nationalist ideas in much of India.
  • The government started to keep a regular track of the vernacular newspapers published in different provinces and had extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press.
  • When a report was judged as seditious, the newspaper was warned, and if the warning was ignored, the press was liable to be seized and the printing machinery confiscated.
  • The most discriminating aspect of the law was that though it put serious restrictions on the freedom of Indian language newspapers, yet it spared the English newspapers from its purview.

Question 29.
Why did some people in the eighteenth century Europe think that print culture would bring enlightenment and end despotism?
Answer:
By mid-eighteenth century, people started believing that books were a means of spreading progress and enlightenment. They believed books could change the world and liberate society from despotism and tyranny. Thinkers hoped that widespread use of books would help people to reason out and give them strength to fight despotism. The knowledge imparted in the books would help the masses to Question the rights of the rulers (or divine right theory). Louise Sebastien Mercier, a novelist staunchly believed that the power of print would spread enlightenment and destroy the very basis of despotism.

Question 30.
What do you understand by ‘visual culture’ and its role in printing in India?
Answer:

  1. By the end of 19th century, a new visual culture had started.
  2. Increasing number of printing presses helped in the production of visual images and reproduced them in multiple copies.
  3. Painters like Raja Ravi Varma helped in producing images for mass circulation.
  4. Cheap prints and calendars were easily available in markets and could be bought even by the poor to decorate the walls of their homes or workplaces. These prints helped in developing popular ideas about modernity and tradition, religion and politics and society and culture.

Question 31.
Evaluate the impact of print technology on the poor people in India. (2017 D)
Answer:
Impact of Print on the poor. Very cheap books were brought to markets in 19th century Madras towns and sold at crossroads, allowing poor people travelling to markets to buy them. Public libraries were set up from the early 20th century, expanding access to books.
From the late 19th century, issues of caste discrimination began to be written about in many printed tracts and essays:

  1. Jyotiba Phule, the Maratha pioneer of Tow caste’ protest movements, wrote about the injustices of the caste system in his Gulamgiri (1871). B.R. Ambedkar in Maharashtra and E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker in Madras, better known as Periyar, wrote powerfully on caste and their writings were read by people all over India.
  2. A mill worker at Kanpur called Kashibaba, wrote and published Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal in 1930 to show the links between caste and class exploitation. Bangalore Cotton Mill workers set up libraries to educate themselves following the example of Bombay workers.

Question 32.
Why did the attitude of the colonial Government towards the freedom of the press change after the revolt of 1857? What repressive measures were adopted by them to control the freedom of press? (2017 OD)
Answer:
Enraged English officials clamped down the native press:

  1. The English Government wanted to suppress the native press because the vernacular newspapers had become assertively nationalist. They feared that if their freedom of Press is not curtailed, it might encourage the masses to rise again against the colonial rule.
  2. In 1878, the Vernacular Press Act was passed which provided the Government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press.
  3. Then onwards, the government kept regular track of the vernacular newspapers published in different provinces. When a report was judged as seditious, the newspaper was warned, and if the warning was ignored, the Press could be seized and the printing machinery confiscated.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks

Question 33.
Why did the British Government pass the Vernacular Press Act in 1878? What powers did it give to the Government? (2012)
Or
Critically examine the Vernacular Press Act of 1878. (2015)
Answer:
The British Government passed the Vernacular Press Act in 1878 because the Company was worried that their criticism in Indian media might be used by their critics in England to attack their trade monopoly in India.

After the Revolt of 1877, the criticism against the government grew in the Indian media. The Vernacular newspapers reported on colonial misrule and encouraged nationalist activities. So it became necessary for the administrators in India to suppress the local newspapers. It provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the Vernacular Press.

The government had the power to warn, seize and confiscate the printing machinery of the newspaper if it was judged as seditious. The most discriminating aspect was that it put severe restrictions on the Indian language newspapers while the English ones were spared from its purview.

Question 34.
What is a manuscript? List any four shortcomings of manuscripts. (2013)
Answer:
India had a very rich and old tradition of handwritten manuscripts—in Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian and other vernacular languages.
Manuscripts were copied on palm leaves or on handmade paper. Pages were sometimes beautifully . illustrated.
Shortcomings of manuscript:

  1. Manuscripts were highly expensive and fragile and could not be carried around easily.
  2. They could not be read easily as the script was written in different styles.
  3. Production of handwritten manuscripts could not satisfy the ever-increasing demand for books.
  4. Copying was an expensive, laborious and time-consuming business.
  5. Even though pre-colonial Bengal had developed an extensive network of village, primary schools, students very often did not read texts. They only learnt to write.

Question 35.
“Print not only stimulated the publication of conflicting opinions amongst communities, but it also connected communities and people in different parts of India.” Examine the statement. (2014)
Answer:

  • By the close of the eighteenth century, a number of newspapers and journals appeared in print. The first newspaper to come out was the weekly Bengal Gazette, brought out by Gangadhar Bhattacharya.
  • Printed tracts and newspapers not only spread new ideas, but they also shaped the nature of debate. A wider public could now participate in public discussions and express their views.
  • There were intense controversies between the social and religious reformers and Hindu orthodoxy over matters like widow immolation, monotheism, Brahmanical priesthood and idolatry. So that these ideas and thoughts could reach a wider audience, newspapers were printed in the spoken language of ordinary people.
  • Rammohan Roy published the Sambad Kaumudi from 1821 and the Hindu orthodoxy commissioned the Samachar Chandrika to oppose his opinions. Two Persian newspapers, Jam-i-Jahan Nama and Shamsul Akhbar were also published.
  • After the collapse of Muslim dynasties Ulama feared that colonial rulers would change the Muslim personal laws. To counter this they published Persian and Urdu translations of holy scriptures and printed religious newspapers and tracts.
  • Newspapers and journals not only helped the publication of conflicting opinions but also connected people and communities in different parts of India. Newspapers conveyed news from one place to another, creating Pan-Indian identities.

Question 36.
‘The shift from hand printing to mechanical printing led to the print revolution in Europe/ Explain the statement with examples. (2015)
Answer:
Between 1450 and 1550, printing presses were set up in most countries of Europe. Printers from Germany travelled to other countries seeking work helping start new presses. As the number of printing presses grew, book production boomed.

The second half of the 15th century saw 20 million copies of printed books flooding the markets in Europe. The number increased to 200 million copies in 16th century. This shift from hand printing to mechanical printing led to the print revolution.
Printing became a revolutionary process and became the vehicle for reaching masses of readers quickly.

  1. The printed books at first closely resembled the written manuscripts in appearance and layout.
  2. The metal letters initiated the ornamental handwritten styles.
  3. Borders were illuminated by hand with foliage and other patterns, and illustrations were painted.
  4. In the books printed for the rich, space for decoration was kept blank on the printed page for the purchaser to choose the design and the painting school that would do the illustration.

Question 37.
“The new technology could not entirely displace the existing art of producing books by hand during 15th century.” Support the statement. (2015)
Answer:

  1. The printed books at first closely resembled the written manuscripts in appearance and layout.
  2. The metal letters imitated the ornamental handwritten styles.
  3. Borders were illuminated by hand with foliage and other patterns and illustrations were painted.
  4. In the books printed for the rich, space for decoration was kept blank on the printed page. Each purchaser could choose the designs and decide on the painting school that would do the illustrations.
    The new technology did not entirely displace the existing art of producing books by hand.

Question 38.
Explain any five effects of spreading of print culture on poor people in nineteenth century India. (2012)
Or
Evaluate the impact of print technology on the poor people in India. (2013)
Answer:
The effects of spread of print culture on poor people in 19th century India:
Very cheap books were brought to markets in 19th century Madras towns and sold at crossroads, allowing poor people travelling to markets to buy them. Public libraries were set up from the 20th century, expanding access to books.

From the late 19th century, issues of caste discrimination began to be written about in many printed tracts and essays.

  • Jyotiba Phule, the Maratha pioneer of ‘low caste’ protest movements, wrote about the injustices of the caste system in his Gulamgiri (1871). B.R. Ambedkar in Maharashtra and E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker in Madras, better known as Periyar, wrote powerfully on caste and their writings were read by people all over India.
  • A mill worker at Kanpur called Kashibaba, wrote and published Chhote Aur Bade ka Sawal in 1938 to show the links between caste and class exploitation. Bangalore Cotton Mill workers set up libraries to educate themselves following the example of Bombay workers.

Question 39.
Describe any five strategies developed by the printers and publishers in the 19th century to sell their products. (2013)
Answer:
Printers and publishers continuously developed new strategies to sell their products:

  1. Serialisation of important novels in nineteenth century periodicals. This gave birth to a particular way of writing.
  2. In the 1920s in England, popular works were sold in cheap series, called the ‘Shilling Series’.
  3. Publishers feared a decline in book purchases during the Great Depression in 1930s. They brought out cheap paperback editions of novels to sustain buying.
  4. Printers published new books.
  5. In the 20th century, the dust cover or the book jacket was also introduced.

Question 40.
How far is it right to say that the print culture was responsible for the French Revolution? Explain. (2014)
Or
“Many historians argued that the conditions within which French Revolution occurred were created by the print culture”. Support this statement with three suitable arguments. (2013)
Answer:
Following are the arguments which were given in support of the above statement:

  1. Print popularised the ideas of enlightened thinkers like Voltaire and Rousseau, and those who read these books, started Question ing everything and developed critical and rational thinking. These thinkers attacked the sacred authority of the Church and despotic power of the State.
  2. All existing values, norms and institutions, which were never Question ed earlier, were revalued through debates and discussions by the public in print.
  3. By 1780s, there was an outpour of literature that mocked royalty and criticised their morality. The existing social order was criticised. Through cartoons and caricatures, they made people aware that while common people were going through tremendous hardships, the monarchy remained absorbed in merry-making and did not care about sufferings of common people. This ultimately led to the growth of a hostile feeling against the monarchy.
    In spite of these strong arguments, no one can claim that these were the only reasons for the outbreak of the French Revolution.

Question 41.
What did the spread of print culture mean to the women in 19th century India.
Answer:
Women: The spread of print culture opened a new world of education and books for many Indian women who had remained confined to their households and families due to the traditional Indian social set-up.

  • Women’s reading increased enormously in middle-class homes. Liberal husbands and fathers began educating their womenfolk at home and sent them to schools when women’s schools were set up in the cities and towns after the mid-nineteenth century.
  • Even girls and women took initiative to get liberated and educated. One such example is of a girl in a conservative Muslim family of North India who had learnt to read and write Urdu. Her family wanted her to read only the Arabic Quran which she did not understand. So she insisted on learning to read a language that was her own.
  • Another such example was: Rashsundari Debi, a young married girl in a very orthodox household who learnt to read in the secrecy of her kitchen. Later she wrote her autobiography Amur Jiban which was published in 1876.
  • From 1860, a few Bengali women like Kailashbashini Debi wrote books highlighting the experiences of women about how they were illtreated on the domestic front.
  • Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai wrote with passionate anger about the miserable lives of upper caste Hindu women, especially widows. A woman in a Tamil novel expressed what reading meant to women: ‘For various reasons, my world is small. More than half my life’s happiness has come from books.’
  • In the early twentieth century, journals, written for and sometimes edited by women, became extremely popular and discussed issues like women’s education, widowhood, widow remarriage and the national movement.
  • Pedlars took the Battala publications (Central Calcutta) to homes, enabling women to read them in their leisure time.

Question 42.
Explain the significance of newspapers and journals developed from the early 18th century.
Answer:

  • By the close of the eighteenth century, a number of newspapers and journals appeared in print.
  • Not just the English people, the Indians too began to publish Indian newspapers.
  • The first newspaper to come out was the weekly Bengal Gazette, brought out by Gangadhar Bhattacharya.
  • Printed tracts and newspapers not only spread new ideas, but they also shaped the nature of debate. A wider public could now participate in public discussions and express their views.
  • There were intense controversies between the social and religious reformers and Hindu orthodoxy over matters like widow immolation, monotheism, Brahmanical priesthood and idolatory. So that these ideas and thoughts could reach a wider audience, newspapers were printed in the spoken language of ordinary people.
  • Rammohan Roy published the Sambad Kaumudi from 1821 and the Hindu orthodoxy commissioned the Samachar Chandrika to oppose his opinions.
  • Two Persian newspapers, Jam-i-Jahan Nama and Shamsul Akhbar were also published.
  • Newspapers and journals not only helped the publication of conflicting opinions but also connected people and communities in different parts of India. Newspapers conveyed news from one place to another, creating Pan-Indian identities.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions

The post Social Science Class 10 Important Questions History Chapter 7 Print Culture and the Modern World appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11

$
0
0

Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11

Extra Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 11 Work, Power And Energy

Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
List two conditions which need to be satisfied for the work to be done on an object.
Answer:
W = Fs
Work is done when
(a) a force acts on an object
(b) object is displaced.

Question 2.
Explain the following terms with one example each:
(a) Positive work
(b) Zero work
Answer:
(a) When force acts in the direction of motion of body work done is positive. When a lawn roller is pulled forward, work done is positive.
(b) When force is perpendicular to the direction of motion, work done is zero. A porter carrying load does no work.

Question 3.
From where do we get energy for the life processes?
Answer:
The energy required for the various life processes comes from the food that we eat.

Question 4.
A girl is running along a circular path with a uniform speed. How much work is done by the girl?
Answer:
Zero.

Question 5.
Moment of force and work done by a force have the same units. Then, what is the difference between them?
Answer:
Moment of a force produces rotatory motion in a body whereas when a force does work on a body it produces translatory motion in it.

Question 6.
A coolie is walking on a railway platform with a load of 27 kg on his head. What is the amount of work done by him?
Answer:
Work done by the coolie is zero, as W = Fs cos 90° = 0.

Question 7.
What is the amount of work done by a man in pressing a rigid wall with a force of 400 N?
Answer:
Zero because there is no displacement.

Question 8.
Which law was verified experimentally by James Prescott Joule?
Answer:
Law of conservation of energy.

Question 9.
State the law of conservation of energy.
Answer:
The law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed, it can only be transformed from one form to another.

Question 10.
Name the two common forms of mechanical energy.
Answer:
Kinetic energy and potential energy.

Question 11.
By what factor does the kinetic energy of a body increase when its speed is doubled?
Answer:
By a factor of 4 ( KE ∝ v2).

Question 12.
What is negative work.
Answer:
Work done against friction is a negative work.

Question 13.
Out of a light and a heavy body having equal kinetic energy, which one will is move fast?
Answer:
The lighter body because v = \sqrt{\frac{2 K E}{m}}

Question 14.
What type of energy is stored in the spring of a watch?
Answer:
Elastic potential energy.

Question 15.
When an arrow is shot from its bow, it has kinetic energy. From where does it get this kinetic energy?
Answer:
A stretched bow possesses potential energy on account of a change in its shape. When the arrow is released, the potential energy of the bow gets converted into the kinetic energy of the arrow.

Question 16.
Can kinetic energy of a body be negative?
Answer:
No, because both m and v2 are always positive.

Question 17.
An electric cell converts which form of energy into which other form?
Answer:
Chemical energy gets converted into electrical energy.

Question 18.
Which instrument transforms electrical energy into mechanical energy?
Answer:
Electric motor.

Question 19.
When an electric bulb is switched on, what energy transformation takes place?
Answer:
Electric energy changes into light energy and heat energy.

Question 20.
What kind of energy transformation takes place at thermal power station?
Answer:
Heat energy is converted into electrical energy.

Question 21.
A car is accelerated on a levelled road and attains a velocity four times its initial velocity. In this process, how does the potential energy of the car change?
Answer:
Potential energy (= mgh) does not change as it does not depend on velocity.

Question 22.
What is the angle between the force and displacement in the case of negative work?
Answer:
180°.

Question 23.
A student picks up four books from the floor, walks across the room through some distance with the books at the same height and then keeps these books at the new place. In which of these sequence of actions work is said to be performed ?
Answer:
When the student is picking up books from the floor in the beginning.

Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Questions-I

Question 1.
Give two examples from everyday life where work is done.
Answer:

  • We apply a force to lift a book at a height and the book rises.
  • When a bullock pulls a cart, it moves as work is done by the bullock on the cart.

Question 2.
On what factors the work done on a body depends?
Answer:
The work done on a body depends upon two factors:

  • Magnitude of the force (F), and
  • The displacement through which the body moves (s).

Question 3.
What is energy? What is unit of energy?
Answer:
The capacity of a body to do work is called energy possessed by the body. It is a scalar quantity and is measured in joule (J).
Generally, for practical purposes, a bigger unit called kilojoule (kj) is used (1 kj = 1000 J).

Question 4.
Give any two uses of kinetic energy.
Answer:

  • The kinetic energy of air is used to run windmills.
  • The kinetic energy of the running water is used to generate electricity.

Question 5.
Give one example each of potential energy
(i) due to position
(ii) due to shape.
Answer:
(i) Potential energy due to position: Water stored in dam has potential energy.
(ii) Potential energy due to shape: In a toy car, the wound spring possesses potential energy, and as the spring is released, its potential energy changes into kinetic energy due to which the car moves.

Question 6.
(a) What kind of energy transformation takes place when a body is dropped from a certain height?
Answer:
When a body falls, its potential energy gradually gets converted into kinetic energy. On reaching the ground, the whole of the potential energy of the body gets converted into kinetic energy.

(b) What is the commercial unit of energy?
Answer:
The commercial unit of energy is kilowatt hour [kWh].
1 kWh is the energy used in one hour at the rate of 1000 Js-1.

Question 7.
What is the relationship between the commercial unit and SI unit of energy?
Answer:
We know that,
lkWh = 1 kW × 1 h
= 1000 W × 3600 s
= 1000 Js-1 × 3600 s
= 3600000J
∴ lkWh = 3.6 × 106J

Question 8.
Calculate the work done against the gravity.
Answer:
Suppose a body of mass m is lifted vertically upwards through a distance h. In this case, the force required to lift the body will be equal to weight of the body, mg (where m is mass and g is acceleration due to gravity). Now,
Work done in lifting a body = Weight of body × Vertical distance
W = mg × h
= mgh
Where W = Work done, and h = Height through which the body is lifted.

Question 9.
What is power? How do you differentiate kilowatt from kilowatt hour? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Power is the rate of doing work. Kilowatt is the unit of power and kilowatt hour is the unit of energy.

Question 10.
Observe the diagrams I and II carefully. An object of mass m is lifted from A to B to height h along path 1 and path 2. What would be the work done on the object in both the cases? Give reasons for your answer.
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 1
Answer:
Work done in diagram I = mgh. Work done in diagram II = mgh. Work done by gravity depends on the differences in vertical heights of the initial and final positions of the object and not on the path along which the object is moved.

Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Questions-II

Question 1.
Give three examples when the object is not displaced in spite of a force acting on it.
Answer:
Three examples when force being supplied and still there is no displacement are:

  • A man pushing a stationary truck.
  • A man pushing a rigid wall.
  • A boy carrying a basket on his head and standing still. Here, force of gravity acts on the basket, but there is no displacement.

Question 2.
What types of energy transformation takes place in the following:
(i) Electric heater
(ii) Solar battery
(iii) Dynamo
(iv) Steam engine and
(v) Hydroelectric power station?
Answer:
(i) Electric heater: Electric energy into heat energy.
(ii) Solar battery: Solar energy into electric energy.
(iii) Dynamo: Mechanical energy into electric energy.
(iv) Steam engine: Heat energy to mechanical energy.
(v) Hydroelectric power station: Mechanical energy into electric energy.

Question 3.
(a) Derive an expression for kinetic energy of an object.
(b) If the velocity of an object is doubled. What will be change in its kinetic energy?
Answer:
Suppose a body of mass m is moving with velocity v. It is brought to rest by applying a retarding force F. Suppose it traverses a distance s before coming to rest.
Kinetic energy of body, KE = Work done by retarding force to stop it.
i.e., Kinetic energy = F. s …(i) .
But Retarding force, F = ma …(ii)
Initial velocity = v, final velocity = 0
From the equation, v2 = u2 + 2as, we have
0 = v2 – 2as (because here a is retardation)
⇒ Distance = s = \frac{v^{2}}{2 a} ………(iii)
Substituting values of F and s from (ii) and (iii) in (i), we get
Kinetic energy, KE = ma × \frac{v^{2}}{2 a}=\frac{1}{2} mv2

Question 4.
A rocket is moving up with a velocity v. If the velocity of this rocket is suddenly tripled, what will be the ratio of two kinetic energies? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Initial velocity = v, then final velocity, v’ = 3v
Initial kinetic energy = \frac{1}{2}mv2
Final kinetic energy (KE) = \frac{1}{2} mv’2 = \frac{1}{2} m(3v)2 = 9\left(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}\right)
(KE)initial : (KE )final = 1 : 9.

Question 5.
Avinash can run at a speed of 8 ms-1 against the frictional force of 10 N, and Kapil can move at a speed of 3 ms-1 against the frictional force of 25 N. Who is more powerful and why? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Power of Avinash PA = FA . vA = 10 × 8 = 80 W
Power of Kapil Pk = Fk . vk = 25 × 3 = 75 W
So, Avinash is more powerful than Kapil.

Question 6.
The velocity of a body moving in a straight line is increased by applying a constant force F, for some distance in the direction of the motion. Prove that the increase in the kinetic energy of the body is equal to the work done by the force on the body. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 2

Question 7.
(a) Give one example of each of the following:

  • Small mass but high kinetic energy
  • Large mass but low kinetic energy

(b) Prove mathematically that the total mechanical energy of a freely falling body in air is conserved.
Answer:
(a)

  • A cricket/hockey ball which has been hit hard and is travelling fast.
  • A shot put thrown by an athlete

(b) Let the body of mass m at height h above the ground starting from rest, be falling freely.
Total energy of the body at height h
= mgh (PE) + 0 (KE) = mgh
After the body has fallen freely through a distance x (say),
KE = mgh, PE = mg (h – x)
Total energy = KE + PE
= mgh + mg (h – x) = mgh
When it reaches the ground KE = \frac{1}{2}m.2gh = mgh
PE = 0, Total Energy = KE + PE = mgh
Thus, the total mechanical energy, which is the sum of KE and PE is always equal to mgh.

Question 8.
Figure shows, in order, five stages of an athlete successfully performing a pole-vault.
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 3
Describe the energy changes which take place during the performance of the pole-vault, from the original stationary position of the pole-vaulter before the run-up, to the final stationary position after the vault.
Answer:
Standing : Chemical energy
Run-up : Kinetic energy
Pole bent : Elastic energy
Rise : Potential energy gained
Fall : Kinetic energy gained
On mat : Heat or sound energy

Question 9.
Two workmen are employed on a building project, as shown in figure.
(i) Workman 1 drops a hammer, which falls to the ground. The hammer has a mass of 2.0 kg, and is dropped from a height of 4.8 m above the ground.
(a) Calculate the change in gravitational potential energy of the hammer when it is dropped.
(b) Describe the energy changes from the time the hammer leaves the hand of workman 1 until it is at rest on the ground.
(ii) Workman 2 picks up the hammer and takes it back, up the ladder to workman 1. He climbs the first 3.0 m in 5.0 s. His total weight, including the hammer, is 520 N.
Calculate the useful power which his legs are producing.
Answer:
(i) (a) Mass, m = 2.0 kg, height, h = 4.8 m
= mgh
= 2 × 10 × 4.8 = 96 J
(b) Potential energy → Kinetic energy → Heat and/or sound energy
(ii) Weight, mg = 520 N, height, h = 3.0 m, Time, t = 5.0 s
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 4

Question 10.
(a) A body thrown at a certain angle to the ground moves in a curved path and falls back to the ground. The initial and final points of the path of the object lie on the same horizontal line. What is the work done by the force of gravity on the object?
(b) You lift a heavily packed carton of mass m in vertically upward direction through a height h. What is the work done

  • by you on the carton,
  • by force of gravity on the carton?

(c) Anil is doing work at a rapid rate but works for only one hour. Ashok does work at a somewhat slower rate but continues to work for six hours. Who has greater power? Who has more energy?
Answer:
(a) Work done is zero. This is because equal and opposite work is done in the two paths.
(b)

  • Work done by me is positive and having a value = mgh. This is because I am applying force in vertically upward direction on the carton to hold it and displacement is also in the same direction.
  • Work done by the force of gravity on the carton= – mgh. This in because force is vertically – downward but motion is vertically upward.

(b) Anil has greater power because his rate of doing work is more. Ashok has more energy as he worked for a longer time and the total work done by him in definitely more.

Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Briefly describing the gravitational potential energy, deduce an expression for the gravitational potential energy of a body of mass m placed at a height h, above the ground.
Answer:
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 5
When an object is raised through a certain height above the ground, its energy increases. This is because the work is done on it, against gravity. The energy present in such an object is called gravitational potential energy. Thus, the gravitational potential energy of an object at a point above the ground is defined as the work done in raising it from the ground to that point against gravity. Consider a body of mass m lying at point P on the Earth’s surface, where its potential energy is taken as zero. As weight, mg acts vertically downwards, so to lift the body to another position Q at a height h, we have to apply a minimum force which is equal to mg in the upward direction. Thus, work is done on the body against the force of gravity.
We know that,
Work done, W = Fs …(i)
As F = mg and s = h
Putting these values in equation (i), we get
W = mg × h = mgh
This work done on the body is equal to the gain in energy of the body. This is the potential energy of the body.
∴ Potential energy PE = mgh

Question 2.
Show that when a body is dropped from a certain height, the sum of its kinetic energy at any instant during its fall is constant.
Answer:
The mechanical energy (kinetic energy + potential energy) of a freely falling object remains constant. It may be shown by calculation as follows:
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 6
Suppose a body of mass m falls from point A, which is at height ‘H’ from the surface of earth. Initially at point A, kinetic energy is zero and the body has only potential energy.
Total energy of body at point A
= Kinetic energy + Potential energy
= 0 + mgH = mgH …(i)
Suppose during fall, the body is at position B. The body has fallen at a distance x from its initial position. If velocity of body at B is v, then from formula v2 = u2 + 2as, we have
v2 = 0 + 2 gx = 2 gx
Kinetic energy of body at point B = \frac{1}{2} × mv2
= \frac{1}{2}m × 2gx = mgx
Potential energy of body at point B = mg (H – x)
∴ Total energy of body at point B = Kinectic energy + Potential energy
= mgx + mg(H – x) = mgx …(ii)
Now suppose the body is at point C, just above the surface of earth (i.e., just about to strike the earth). Its potential energy is zero.
The height by which the body falls = H
If v is velocity of body at C, then from formula
v2 = u2 + 2as
We have u=0, a = g, s = H
So, v2 = 0 + 2gH = 2gH
Kinetic energy of body at position C = \frac{1}{2}mv2
= \frac{1}{2} m × 2gH = mgH
∴ Total energy of body at C
= Kinetic energy + Potential energy
= mgH + 0 = mgH …(iii)
Thus, we see that the sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of freely falling body at each point remains constant.
Thus, under force of gravity, the total mechanical energy of body remains constant.

Question 3.
A light and a heavy object have the same momentum, find out the ratio of their kinetic energies.
Which one has a larger kinetic energy ? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Linear momentum of first object, p1 = m1v1 and of second object, p2 = m2v2
But, p1 = p2
or, m1v1 = m2v2
If m1 < m2 then v1 > v2
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 7
Therefore, (K.E.)1 > (K.E.)2

Question 4.
Four men lift a 250 kg box to a height of 1 m and hold it without raising or lowering it. (a) How much work is done by the men in lifting the box? (b) How much work do they do in just holding it? (c) Why do they get tired while holding it? (g = 10 ms-2) [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(a) F = 250 kg × 10 ms-2 (g = 10 ms-2)
= 2500 N
s = 1 m
W = F.s
= 2500 N × 1 m
= 2500 Nm = 2500 J
(b) Zero, as the box does not move at all while holding it.
(c) In order to hold the box, men are applying a force which is opposite and equal to the gravitational force acting on the box. While applying the force, muscular effort is involved. So, they feel tired.

Question 5.
A car of mass 900 kg is travelling at a steady speed of 30 m/s against a resistive force of 2000 N, as illustrated in figure.
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 8
(i) Calculate the kinetic energy of the car.
(ii) Calculate the energy used in 1.0 s against the resistive force.
(iii) What is the minimum power that the car engine has to deliver to the wheels?
(iv) What form of energy is in the fuel,used by the engine to drive the car?
Answer:
(i) Kinetic energy = \frac{1}{2} mv2
= \frac{1}{2} × 900 × (30)2 = \frac{1}{2} × 900 × 900
= 4,05,000 J

(ii) Energy used = Work done against resistive force
= Force × Distance
= 20,000 × 30 = 60,000 J = 60 kJ

(iii) Minimum power = \frac{\text { Energy used }}{\text { Time taken }}
= \frac{60,000 \mathrm{J}}{1 \mathrm{s}} = 60,000 W = 60 kW
(iv) Chemical energy.

Question 6.
Figure shows a conveyor belt transporting a package to a raised platform. The belt is driven by a motor.
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 9
(i) State three types of energy, other than Motor-gravitational potential energy, into which the electrical energy supplied to the motor is converted.
(ii) The mass of the package is 36 kg. Calculate the increase in the gravitational potential energy (P.E.) of the package when it is raised through a vertical height of 2.4 m.
(iii) The package is raised through the vertical height of 2.4 m in 4.4 s. Calculate the power needed to raise the package.
(iv) Assume that the power available to raise package is constant. A package of mass greater than 36 kg is raised through the same height. Suggest and explain the effect of this increase in mass on the operation of the belt.
Answer:
(i) (a) Kinetic energy of belt or the package.
(b) Heat energy
(c) Sound energy
(ii) m = 36 kg, h = 2.4 m, g = 10 m/s2
Gravitational potential energy = mgh
= 36 × 10 × 2.4 = 864 J
(iii) Poer = \frac{\text { Work done }}{\text { Time taken }}=\frac{36 \times 10 \times 2.4}{4.4}=\frac{864}{4.4}=\frac{2160}{11} = 196.36 W
(iv) Mass is increased and power is constant, so increase in potential energy of mass is greater. Also, as mass is increased, speed is reduced and hence time taken is longer.

Numericals
Question 1.
A force of 20 N displaces a body through a distance of 1 m at an angle of 60° from its own direction. Calculate the amount of work done.
Solution:
Here, force F = 20 N, displacement, s = 1m.
Angle between force and displacement θ = 60°.
∴ Work done, W = Fs cos θ = 20 × 1 × cos 60°= 20 × 1 × \frac{1}{2} = 10 J.

Question 2.
Calculate the work done in lifting 200 kg of a mass through a vertical distance of 6 m. Assume g = 10 m/s2.
Solution:
Work in lifting the mass is done against gravity.
Therefore, the work done is W = mgh
We know, m = 200 kg, g = 10 m/s2 and h = 6 m .
W = mgh
= 200 × 10 × 6 = 12000J.

Question 3.
Find the velocity of a body of mass 100 g having a kinetic energy of 20 J.
Solution:
Here, mass of the body, m = 100 g = 0.1 kg
Kinetic energy, K.E. = 20 J = 20 Nm = 20 kg (m/s)2
Kinetic energy = \frac{1}{2} mv2
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 10
So, the velocity of the body is 20 m/s.

Question 4.
The speed of a vehicle of mass 500 kg increases from 36 km/h to 72 km/h. Calculate the increase in its kinetic energy.
Solution:
Given mass, m = 500 kg
The given unit of speed is km/h. It is to be converted into m/s.
1 km/h = \frac{1 \times 1000 \text { metre }}{3600 \text { second }}=\frac{5}{18} \mathrm{m} / \mathrm{s}
Initial speed, u = 36 km/h = 36 × \frac{5}{18} m/s = 10 m/s
Final speed, v = 72 km/h = 72 × \frac{5}{18} m/s = 20 m/s
∴ Gain in KE = Final KE – Initial KE
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 11

Question 5.
A man of mass 60 kg runs up a flight of 30 steps in 15 seconds. If each step is 20 cm high, calculate the power developed by the man. (Take g = 10 m/s2).
Solution:
Height of each step = 20 cm =0.20 cm
Height of 30 steps, H = 30 × 0.20 .
Time, t = 15 seconds
Force exerted by man against gravity
F = Weight of man = mg
∴ Work done by man = Force × Height = mg × H
Power, P = \frac{\text { Work }}{\text { Time }}=\frac{m g H}{t}
= \frac{60 \times 10 \times 6.0}{15} = 240 joule.

Question 6.
A machine raises a load of 750 N through a height of 16 m in 5 seconds. Calculate the power at which the machine works.
Solution:
Given force, F = 750 N, displacement = height, h = 16 m and time, t = 5
Work done by machine,
W = Force × Displacement = F × h
= 750 N × 16 joule
Power of machine, P = \frac{W}{t}=\frac{750 \mathrm{N} \times 16 \mathrm{J}}{5 \mathrm{s}} = 2400 watt.

Question 7.
If the power of a motor is 40 kW, at what speed can it raise a load of 20,000 N?
Solution:
Given power, P = 40 kW = 40 × 103 = 40,000 W
Force applied, F = Load = 20,000 N
If v is the speed of load, then we have
P = Fv
⇒ Speed, v = \frac{P}{F}=\frac{40,000}{20,000} = 2 m/s

Question 8.
An engine can pump 30,000 litres of water to a vertical height of 45 metres in 10 minutes. Calculate the work done by the machine and its power. [g = 9.8 m/s2; Density of water = 103 kg/m3, 1000 litre = 1 m3].
Solution:
Volume of water raised = 30,000 litres = \frac{30,000}{1000}m3 = 30 m3.
Mass of water raised, M = Volume × Density
= (30 m3) × (103 kg/m3)
= 30 × 103 kg
Height, h = 45 metre
Work done by machine,
W = Weight of water raised × Height
= (Mg) × h = (30 × 103 × 9.8) × 45
W= 1.323 × 107 joule.
Time taken, t = 10 minutes = 10 × 60= 600 seconds.
Power, P = \frac{W}{t}=\frac{1.323 \times 10^{7} \mathrm{J}}{600 \mathrm{s}}
= 22 × 103W
= 22 kW.

Question 9.
A boy is moving on a straight road against a friction force of 5 N. After travelling a distance of 1.5 km he forgot the correct path at a round about (Fig.) of radius 100 m. However, he moves on the circular path for one and half cycle and then he moves forward up to 2.0 km. Calculate the work done by him. [NCERT Exemplar]
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 12
Solution:
Force F = 5N; s = 1500 m + 2 × 100 m + 2000 m
Work done, W = F. s
W= 5 × [1500 + 200 + 2000]
= 18500 J.

Question 10.
The power of a motor pump is 2 kW. How much water per minute can the pump raise to a height of 10 m? (Given g =10 ms-2). [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
P = \frac{W}{\Delta t}=\frac{m g h}{\Delta t}
\frac{m \times 10 \times 10}{60} = 2000 W
or m = \frac{12000}{10}
= 1200 g.

Question 11.
If an electric iron of 1200 W is used for 30 minutes every day, find the electric energy consumed in the month of April. [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
Power, P = \frac{1200}{1000} = 1.2 kW
Time, t = \frac{30}{60} = 0.5 h
Electric energy, E = Power × time × days
= 1.2 × 0.5 × 30
= 18 kWh.

Question 12.
An automobile engine propels a 1,000 kg car A along a levelled road at a speed of 36 km h-1. Find the power if the opposing frictional force is 100 N. Now, suppose after travelling a distance of 200 m, this car collides with another stationary car B of same mass and comes to rest. Let its engine also stop at the same time. Now car B starts moving on the same level road without getting its engine started. Find the speed of the car B just after the collision. [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
mA = mB = 1000 kg. v= 36 km/h =10 m/s
Frictional force = 100 N
Since, the car A moves with a uniform speed, it means that the engine of car applies a force equal to the frictional force.
Power = \frac{\text { Force } \times \text { distance }}{\text { time }} = F.v
= 100N × 10m/s = 1000W
After collision,
mAuA + mBuB = mAvA + mBvB
1000 × 10 + 1000 × 0 = 1000 × 0 + 1000 × vB
vB = 10 ms-1.

Question 13.
A girl having a mass of 35 kg sits on a trolley of mass 5 kg. The trolley is given an initial velocity of 4 ms-1 by applying a force. The trolley comes to rest after traversing a distance of 16 m. (a) How much work is done on the trolley? (b) How much work is done by the girl? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
u = 4 ms-1, v = 0,5 = 16 m
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 13
Work done on the trolley = 20N × 16m = 320 J.
Work done by the girl = 0 J.

Question 14.
The Jog falls in Karnataka state are nearly 20 m high 2,000 tonnes of water falls from it in a minute. Calculate the equivalent power if all this energy can be utilised, (g = 10 ms-2) [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
h = 20 m, and mass = 2000 × 103 kg = 2 × 106 kg
Power = \frac{m g h}{t}=\frac{2 \times 10^{6} \times 10 \times 20}{60} \mathrm{W}
= \frac{4}{6} × 107 W = 6.6 × 106 W.

Question 15.
How is the power related to the speed at which a body can be lifted? How many kilograms will a man working with the power of 100 W, be able to lift at constant speed of 1 ms-1 vertically? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 14

Question 16.
A 150 kg car engine develops 500 W for each kg. What force does it exert in moving the car at a speed of 20 ms-1? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
1 kilowatt = 1000 J s-1
Total power = 150 × 5 00 = 7.5 × 104 W
Force = \frac{\text { Power }}{\text { Velocity }}
= \frac{7.5 \times 10^{4}}{20} = 3.75 × 103 N
Force = 3750 N.

Question 17.
Compare the power at which each of the following is moving upwards against the force of gravity, (given g = 10 ms-2). [NCERT Exemplar]
(i) A butterfly of mass 1.0 g that flies upward at a rate of 0.5 ms-1.
(ii) A 250 g squirrel climbing up a tree at a rate of 0.5 m s-1
Solution:
(i) Power = mg × velocity; g =10 ms-2
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 15
Hence, the power with which the squirrel is climbing is much higher than that of a flying butterfly.

Question 18.
The weight of a person on a planet A is about half of that on the Earth. He can jump up to 0.4 m high on the surface of the Earth. How high can he jump on planet A? [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
The potential energy of the person will remain the same on the Earth and on planet A.
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 16

Question 19.
A ball is dropped from a height of 10 m. If the energy of the ball reduces by 40 per cent after striking the ground, how high can the ball bounce back? (g = 10 ms-2). [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
mgh = m × 10 × 10 = 100 m J.
If energy is reduced by 40%, then the remaining energy is 60 mJ.
Therefore, 60 m = m × 10 × h’
or h’ = 6 m

Question 20.
(a) Two masses in the ratio 1 : 4 have their speeds in the ratio 4 : 5. Find the ratio of their kinetic energy.
(b) The heart does 1.5 J of work in every beat. How many times per minute does it beat if its power is 2W?
Solution:
(a) Let m1 and m2 are masses of two bodies. Their velocities are v1 and v2 respectively.
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 17

(b) Let number of heart beats per minute = n
Work done = 1.5 × n
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 18

Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions HOTS (Higher Order Thinking Skills)

Question 1.
Can any object have mechanical energy even if its momentum is zero? Explain. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Yes, mechanical energy comprises of both potential energy and kinetic energy. Zero momentum means that velocity is zero. Hence, there is no kinetic energy but the object may possess potential energy.

Question 2.
Can any object have momentum even if its mechanical energy is zero? Explain. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
No. Zero mechanical energy means that there is no potential energy and no kinetic energy. Therefore, if kinetic energy is zero, velocity becomes zero and hence, there will be no momentum.
Mathematically,
Mechanical energy = 0
⇒ PE = 0, KE = 0
⇒ v = 0
⇒ mv = p = 0

Question 3.
Is it possible that an object is in the state of accelerated motion due to external force acting on it, but no work is being done by the force? Explain with example. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Yes, it is possible, if an object is moving in a circular path because force is always acting perpendicular to the direction of displacement.

Question 4.
The diagram below shows a pendulum which was released from position A.
Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 19
(a) What form(s) of energy did the pendulum have at

  • A?
  • B?
  • C?

(b) Eventually the pendulum would stop moving. Explain what has happened to the initial energy of the pendulum.
Answer:
(a)

  • Potential energy
  • Potential energy + Kinetic energy
  • Kinetic energy

(b) The initial energy is transformed into heat energy when the pendulum bob strikes the air molecules. Thus, the amplitude of pendulum decreases and finally it stops.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Science

The post Work, Power And Energy Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 11 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 6 Secondary Activities

$
0
0

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 6 Secondary Activities

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.(i)
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Cheap water transport has facilitated the jute mill industry along the Hugli.
(b) Sugar, cotton textiles and vegetable oils are footloose industries.
(c) The development of hydro-electricity and petroleum reduced, to a great extent, the importance of coal energy as a locational factor for industry.
(d) Port towns in India have attracted industries.
Answer:
(b) Sugar, cotton textiles and vegetable oils are footloose industries.

Question 1.(ii)
In which one of the following types of economy are the factors of production owned individually?
(a) Capitalist
(b) Mixed
(c) Socialist
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Capitalist

Question 1.(iii)
Which one of the following types of industries produces raw materials for other industries?
(a) Cottage industries
(b) Small-scale industries
(c) Basic industries
(d) Footloose industries
Answer:
(c) Basic industries

Question 1.(iv)
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Automobile industry … Los Angeles
(b) Ship building industry… Lusaka
(c) Air craft industry … Florence
(d) Iron and steel industry … Pittsburgh
Answer:
(d) Iron and steel industry … Pittsburgh

2. Write a short note on the following in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
High-Tech industry:
Answer.
This is the latest generation of manufacturing industries. It merges the application of intensive research and development into the manufacturing of products of an advanced scientific and engineering character. Professional (white collar) workers make up a large share of the total workforce and outnumber the actual (blue collar workers).

Question 2.(ii)
Manufacturing:
Answer:
Manufacturing adds value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into finished goods of higher value for sale in local or distant markets. It involves a full array of production from handicrafts to moulding iron and steel and stamping out plastic toys to assembling delicate computer components or space vehicles.

Question 2.(iii)
Footloose industry:
Answer:
Foot loose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any specific raw-material, weight losing or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts which can be obtained anywhere.

3. Answer the following in not more than 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
Differentiate between primary and secondary activities.
Answer:

Primary ActivitiesSecondary Activities
(i) those activities, which depend directly on nature for extraction of resources.(i) They convert raw material obtained from primary activities into finished goods of higher value.
(ii) It includes activities like agriculture, mining, fishing, etc.(ii)It concerned with manufacturing, processing and construction (infrastructure) industries.
(iii) They are pre-dominant in under developed/developing countries.(iii) They are dominant in developed countries.
(iv) They earn low value and some need to be processed by secondary activities for sale in market.(iv) produce goods of higher value. They are dependent on primary activities for procurement of raw material.
(v) As economies develop, the share of primary activities decline.(v) As economies develop, the share of secondary activities increase.
(vi) They form the basis of village economies(vi) Secondary activities along with tertiary, quaternary and quinary activities form the basis of urban centers.

Question 3.(ii)
Discuss the major trends of modem industrial activities especially in the developed countries of the world.
Answer:
Major concentrations of modern manufacturing have flourished in a few number of places. These cover less than 10 per cent of the world’s land area. These nations have become the centres of economic and political power. However, in terms of the total area covered, manufacturing sites are much less conspicuous and concentrated on much smaller areas than that of agriculture due to greater intensity, of processes. For example, 2.5 sq km of the American corn belt usually includes about four large farms employing about 10-20 workers supporting 50¬100 persons. But this same area could contain several large integrated factories and employ thousands of workers.

Following are the characteristics of the modem industries in the modern world:

Mechanisation: Mechanisation refers to using gadgets which accomplish tasks. Automation (without aid of human thinking during the manufacturing process) is the advanced stage of mechanisation.
Technological Innovation: Technological innovations through research and development strategy are an important aspect of modern manufacturing for quality control, eliminating waste and inefficiency, and combating pollution.
Organisational Structure and Stratification:
Modern manufacturing is characterized by:

  • a complex machine technology extreme specialisation and division of labour for producing more goods with less effort, and low costs.
  • vast capital
  • large organisations
  • executive bureaucracy.

Development of high tech industries and technopolies: High technology, or simply high-tech, is the latest generation of manufacturing activities. It is best understood as the application of intensive research and development (R and D) efforts leading to the manufacture of products of an advanced scientific and engineering character. Robotics on the assembly line, computer -aided design (CAD) and manufacturing, electronic controls of smelting and refining processes, and the constant development of new chemical and pharmaceutical products are notable examples of a high-tech industry.

High-tech industries which are regionally concentrated, self-sustained and highly specialised are called technopolies. The Silicon Valley near San Francisco and Silicon Forest near Seattle are examples of technopolies.

Offshoring: Most of the industries in the developed countries are seeking and establishing their back office operations in third world countries where the work force is available in abundance at a cheaper rate. The government in the countries where they set up their operations is also eager to accommodate them with relaxed policies so as to generate employment.

Agglomeration economies: The present times also happen to be a high for agglomeration economies and industrial hubs where different related industries localize themselves close to each other in order to maximize profits and reduce overheads,

Question 3.(iii)
Explain why high-tech industries in many countries are being attracted to the peripheral areas of major metropolitan centers ?
Answer:
High technology, or simply high tech, is the latest generation of manufacturing activities. Professional workers make up for a large number of the total workforce. These professional skilled workers are located in urban areas, and due to high rent in the central areas of the cities, they situate themselves in the periphery.

The industry is also situated in the periphery because of the low rent, and also because of the closeness to the urban centres which provide them with availability of the workers. Neatly spaced, low, modem, dispersed, office-plant-lab buildings rather than massive assembly structures, factories and storage areas mark the high-tech industrial landscape.

This requires large areas for massive set up which due to increased population in major metropolitan cities is not available. Hence, these industries are set up near the urban centers where adequate space is available. Also their situation near urban places helps them to gain access to the-urban market, and also to tap the skilled workforce that is available therein due to availability of educational institutes.
Example in case would be Gurgaon in Haryana, which has grown into one of the greatest high tech hub near Delhi.

Question 3.(iv)
Africa has immense natural resources and yet it is industrially the most backward continent. Comment.
Answer:
Although Africa has natural resources in abundance in terms of its land resources, its forest and water resources, its mineral and energy resources, the most important component to transfer these into usable form- the human resource, is not well developed. All the characteristics that mark an industrially developed nation are lacking. The following discussion would make it amply clear why Africa remains industrially backward.

  • Specialization of skills/methods of production: African industries still use primitive methods of production, which makes its yield low. Lack of adequate training and opportunities forces most of the African state to have low skilled human capital and most of the workforce remains to be unskilled.
  • Mechanization and Technological innovation: Low level of mechanization leads to a cut in the production level and as the industries in Africa are generally not connected with the other competing industries in the world, sharing of technology does not take place in a greater scale and therefore innovation, which is the important for the progress of industries, does not take place.
  • Organizational structure and stratification: A high level of organization and an efficient division of labour is essential for the thriving of giant enterprises. They lack in the said continent.
  • Access to market and raw material: For basic industries, it is important that the raw materials are easily accessible to the factories of production, and the finished goods should find easy access to markets. This however, lacks because of the lack of good transport network, effective communication facilities and international markets.
  • Access to labour supply: Although Africa is quite populous and blue collar workers are available aplenty, skilled labour is in a shortage, which makes industries suffer further on managerial and technological fronts.
  • Government policy: Because of the political turmoil that go on in most of the African nations, a long term and healthy government policy towards the progress of industries is absent, thus making it a push factor for foreign multinationals to invest in the said areas. This in turn acts as a repelling factor for the formation of agglomeration economies, which are vital for the sharing of technological innovation between different industries.
  • Transportation facilities: Development of modem industries requires well transport linkage, so that agglomeration economies can be created. Also it is necessity for development of trading network both at national as well as international level. Africa lacks development of adequate network of highways, railways and airway linkage.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the advanced stage of mechanization?
Answer:
Automation is the advanced stage of mechanization.

Question 2.
Which is a vital factor for the industry to be located closer to the raw material?
Answer:
Perishability is a vital factor affecting location of industries close to raw material.

Question 3.
What are technopolies?
Answer:
High tech industries which are regionally concentrated, self sustained and highly specialized are called technopolies.

Question 4.
Define secondary activity.
Answer:
Secondary activities involve transforming of the raw material (primary products) into finished goods of higher value. They are converted with manufacturing, processing and construction (infrastructure industries).

Question 5.
What is manufacturing?
Answer:
Manufacturing is a process which involves transforming raw materials into finished goods of higher value for sale in local or distant markets.

Question 6.
What are the criteria for classifying industry based on size?
Answer:
The amount of capital invested, number of workers employed and volume of production determine the size of industry.

Question 7.
Give examples of cottage industry.
Answer:
Basket weaving, matchsticks making, pottery, figurines, furniture, containers, leather, pottery, jewellery, artifacts from bamboo, wood, etc, are examples of cottage industries.

Question 8.
Give examples of large scale industry.
Answer:
Iron-steel, shipbuilding, automobile are some of the examples of large scale industry.

Question 9.
What is agri-business?
Answer:
Agri-business is commercial farming on an industrial scale often financed by business whose main interests lie outside agriculture. For
example, large corporations in tea plantation business.

Question 10.
Give example of a technopolies.
Answer:
The Silicon Valley near San Francisco and Silicon Forest near Seattle are examples of technopolies.

Question 11.
Which area is called ‘rust bowl’ and why?
Answer:
Pittsburgh is called ‘rust bowl’ because earlier there were many iron and steel plants but now they have shifted to other places.

Question 12.
What is the importance of Ruhr region of Germany?
Answer:
It has been a major industrial region of Europe for a long time. With time the demand for coal has declined as petrol, diesel, CNG, solar energy have replaced coal and therefore coal industry is shrinking but as iron and steel form the basis of industrial growth. The Ruhr region is responsible for 80% of Germany’s steel production.

Question 13.
What are mini steel plants?
Answer:
These are less expensive to build and operate and can be located near markets because of the abundance of scrap metal, which is the main input. Traditionally, most of the steel was produced at large integrated plants, but mini mills are limited to just one-step process steel making and are gaining ground.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are footloose industries?
Answer:
Footloose industries can be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts which can be obtained anywhere. They produce in small quantity and also employ a small labour force. These are generally not polluting industries. The important factor in their location is accessibility by road network.

Question 2.
Discuss three sub-sectors of cotton textile industry.
Answer:
Cotton textile industry has three sub¬sectors i.e. handloom, power loom and mill sectors.

  • Hand loom sector is labour intensive and provides employment to semi skilled workers. It requires small capital investment. This sector involves spinning, weaving and finishing of the fabrics.
  • The powerloom sector introduces machines and becomes less labour intensive and the volume of production increases.
  • Cotton textile mill sector is highly capital intensive and produces fine clothes in bulk.

Question 3.
What is an industry? Classify industry based on output.
Answer:
An industry is a geographically located manufacturing unit maintaining books of accounts and, records under a management system. As the term industry is comprehensive, it is also used as synonymous with ‘manufacturing’. When one uses terms like ‘steel industry’ and ‘chemical industry’ one thinks of factories and processes. Based on output there are two types of industries:

  • Basic industries: The industry whose products are used to make other goods by using them as raw materials are basic industries. Eg. Iron and steel industry for making machineries for textile industries to make clothes.
  • Consumer goods industries: The consumer goods industries produced goods which are consumed by consumers directly. Example, industries producing breads and biscuits, tea, soaps and toiletries, paper for writing, televisions, etc. are consumer goods or non-basic industries.

Question 4.
Classify industry based on ownership.
Answer:
Based on ownership, industries are classified as:

  • Public Sector Industries are owned and managed by government. In India, there were a number of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). Socialist countries have many state owned industries. Mixed economies have both Public and Private sector enterprises.
  • Private Sector Industries are owned by individual investors. These are managed by private organisations. In capitalist countries, industries are generally owned privately.
  • Joint Sector Industries are managed by joint stock companies or sometimes the private and public sectors together establish and manage the industries.

Question 5.
What are the characteristics of traditional large scale industrial region?
Answer:
Traditional large scale industrial regions are based on heavy industry, often located near coal-fields and engaged in metal smelting, heavy engineering, chemical manufacture or textile production. These industries are now known as smokestack industries. Traditional industrial regions can be recognized by:

  • High proportion of employment in manufacturing industry. High-density housing, often of inferior type, and poor services. Unattractive environment, for example, pollution, waste heaps, and so on.
  • Problems of unemployment, emigration and derelict land areas caused by closure of factories because of a worldwide fall in demand.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the major trends of modern industrial activities especially in the developed countries of the world.
Answer:
Traditional large scale industries were based on heavy industry, often located near coal-fields and engaged in metal smelting, heavy engineering, chemical manufacture or textile production. These industries are now known as smokestack industries. With modernization, there has been changes in industrial sector which have led to the decay of some areas, and there are problems of industrial waste and pollution. The future prosperity of these traditional areas has shifted from their traditional activities to high technology, or simply high-tech, which is the latest generation of manufacturing activities. It is best understood as the application of intensive research and development (R and D) efforts leading to the manufacture of products of an advanced scientific and engineering character.

Robotics on the assembly line, computer- aided design (CAD) and manufacturing, electronic controls of smelting and refining processes, and the constant development of new chemical and pharmaceutical products are notable examples of a high-tech industry. Neatly spaced, low, modem, dispersed, office-plant-lab buildings rather than massive assembly structures, factories and storage areas mark the high-tech industrial landscape. The Silicon Valley near San Francisco and Silicon Forest near Seattle are examples of technopolies. The traditional industrial regions have shifted their focus from traditional large scale industries to assembly plants (footloose industries), new chemical plants, universities, out of town shopping centres etc.

Question 2.
Give a brief account on the following:
(a) Iron and Steel industry
(b) Cotton Textile Industry
Answer:
(a) The iron and steel industry:
It forms the base of all other industries and, therefore, it is called a basic industry. It is basic because it provides raw material for other industries such as machine tools used for further production. It may also be called a heavy industry because it uses large quantities of bulky raw materials and its products are also heavy. Iron is extracted from iron ore by smelting in a blast furnace with carbon (coke) and limestone. The molten iron is cooled and moulded to form pig iron which is used for converting into steel by adding strengthening materials like manganese. The large integrated steel industry is traditionally located close to the sources of raw materials – iron ore, coal, manganese and limestone – or at places where these could be easily brought, e.g. near ports. But in mini steel mills access to markets is more important than inputs.

Distribution: This industry is one of the most complex and capital-intensive industries and is concentrated in the advanced countries of North America, Europe and Asia. In U.S.A, most of the production comes from the north
Appalachian region (Pittsburgh), Great Lake region. The industry has also moved towards the southern state of Alabama. Pittsburg area is now losing ground. It has now become the “rust bowl” of U.S.A. In Europe, U.K., Germany, France, Belgium, Luxembourgh, the Netherlands and Russia are the leading producers. In Asia, the important centres include Nagasaki and Tokyo-Yokohama in Japan; Shanghai, Tienstin and Wuhan in China; and Jamshedpur, Kulti-Bumpur, Durgapur, Rourkela, Bhilai, Bokaro, Salem, Visakhapatnam and Bhadravati in India centres.

(b) Cotton textile industry:
Cotton textile industry has three sub¬sectors i.e. handloom, powerloom and mill sectors. Handloom sector is labour¬intensive and provides employment to semi-skilled workers. It requires small capital investment. This sector involves spinning, weaving and finishing of the fabrics. The powerloom sector introduces machines and becomes less labour intensive and the volume of production increases. Cotton textile mill sector is highly capital intensive and produces fine clothes in bulk. Cotton textile manufacturing requires good quality cotton as raw material. India, China, U.S.A, Pakistan, Uzbekistan, Egypt produce more than half of the world’s raw cotton. The U.K, NW European countries and Japan also produce cotton textile made from imported yam. Europe alone accounts for nearly half of the world’s cotton imports.

The industry has to face very stiff competition with synthetic fibres hence it has now shown a declining trend in many countries. With the scientific advancement and technological improvements the structure of industries changes. For example, Germany recorded constant growth in cotton textile industry since Second World War till the seventies but now it has declined. It has shifted to less developed countries where labour costs are low.

Question 3.
Define manufacturing. List the characteristics of modern large scale manufacturing.
Answer:
Manufacturing literally means “to make by hand’. However, now it includes goods ‘made by machines’. It is essentially a process which involves transforming raw materials into finished goods of higher value for sale in local or distant markets. Modern large scale manufacturing has the following characteristics: Specialization of Skills/Methods of Production: Under the ‘craft’ method factories produce only a few pieces which are made-to-order. So the costs are high. On the other hand, mass production involves production of large quantities of standardized parts by each worker performing only one task repeatedly.

Mechanization: Mechanization refers to using gadgets which accomplish tasks. Automation (without aid of human thinking during the manufacturing process) is the advanced stage of mechanization. Technological Innovation: Technological innovations through research and development strategy are an important aspect of modern manufacturing for quality control, eliminating waste and inefficiency, and combating pollution. Organisational Structure and Stratification: Modern manufacturing is characterized by:

  • a complex machine technology
  • extreme specialization and division of labour for producing more goods with less effort, and low costs
  • vast capital
  • large organisations
  • executive bureaucracy.

Question 4.
Describe the factors that affect the location of industries.
Answer:
Major concentrations of modern manufacturing have flourished in a few number of places. These cover less than 10 per cent of the world’s land area. These nations have become the centres of economic and political power. Industries maximise profits by reducing costs. Therefore, industries should be located at points where the production costs are minimum. Some of the factors influencing industrial locations are as under: Access to Market: The existence of a market for manufactured goods is the most important factor in the location of industries. ‘Market’ means people who have a demand for these goods and also have the purchasing power (ability to purchase) to be able to purchase from the sellers at a place. Remote areas inhabited by a few people offer small markets. The developed regions of Europe, North America, Japan and Australia provide large global markets as the purchasing power of the people is very high. The densely populated regions of South and South-east Asia also provide large markets.

Access to Raw Material: Raw material used by industries should be cheap and easy to transport. Industries based on cheap, bulky and weight-losing material (ores) are located close to the sources of raw material such as steel, sugar, and cement industries. Perishability is a vital factor for the industry to be located closer to the source of the raw material. Agro-processing and dairy products are processed close to the sources of farm produce or milk supply respectively. Access to Labour Supply: Labour supply is an important factor in the location of industries. Some types of manufacturing still require skilled labour. Increasing mechanization, automation and flexibility of industrial processes have reduced the dependence of industry upon the labours. Access to Sources of Energy: Industries which use more power are located close to the source of the energy supply such as the aluminium industry. Earlier coal was the main source of energy, today hydroelectricity and petroleum are also important sources of energy for many industries.

Access to Transportation and Commu-nication Facilities: Speedy and efficient transport facilities to carry raw materials to the factory and to move finished goods to the market are essential for the development of industries. The cost of transport plays an important role in the location of industrial units. Communication is also an important need for industries for the exchange and management of information. Government Policy: Governments adopt ‘regional policies’ to promote ‘balanced’ economic development and hence set up industries in particular areas.
Access to Agglomeration Economies/ Links between Industries: Many industries benefit from nearness to a leader-industry and other industries. These benefits are termed as agglomeration economies. These factors operate together to determine industrial location.

Question 5.
Classify industry based on inputs. Ans. On the basis of the raw materials used, the industries are classified as:
(a) agro-based
(b) mineral based
(c) chemical based
(d) forest based and
(e) animal based.
Answer:
(a) Agro based Industries:
Agro processing involves the processing of raw materials from the field and the farm into finished products for rural and urban markets. Major agro-processing industries are food processing, sugar, pickles, fruits juices, beverages (tea, coffee and cocoa), spices and oils fats and textiles (cotton, jute, silk), rubber, etc. Food and Agro processing includes canning, producing cream, fruit processing and confectionary. While some preserving techniques, such as drying, fermenting and pickling, have been known since ancient times, these had limited applications to cater to the pre-industrial Revolution demands.
(b) Mineral based Industries:
These industries use minerals as a raw material. Some industries use ferrous metallic minerals which contain ferrous (iron), such as iron and steel industries but some use non-ferrous metallic minerals, such as aluminium, copper and jewellery industries. Many industries use non-metallic minerals such as cement and pottery industries.
(c) Chemical based Industries:
Such industries use natural chemical minerals, e.g. mineral-oil (petroleum) is used in petrochemical industry. Salts, sulphur and potash industries also use natural minerals. Chemical industries are also based on raw materials obtained from wood and coal. Synthetic fibre, plastic, etc. are other examples of chemical based industries.
(d) Forest based raw Material using Industries:
The forests provide many major and minor products which are used as raw material. Timber for furniture industry, wood, bamboo and grass for paper industry, lac for lac industries come from forests.
(e) Animal based Industries:
Leather for leather industry and wool for woollen textiles are obtained from animals. Besides, ivory is also obtained from elephant’s tusks.

Question 6.
Give the characteristics of hightech industries.
Answer:
High technology, or simply high-tech, is the latest generation of manufacturing activities. It is best understood as the application of intensive research and development (R and D) efforts leading to the manufacture of products of an advanced scientific and engineering character. Professional (white collar) workers make up a large share of the total workforce. These highly skilled specialists greatly outnumber the actual production (blue collar) workers.

Robotics on the assembly line, computer-aided design (CAD) and manufacturing, electronic controls of smelting and refining processes, and the constant development of new chemical and pharmaceutical products are notable examples of a high-tech industry. Neatly spaced, low, modern, dispersed, office-plant-lab buildings rather than massive assembly structures, factories and storage areas mark the high-tech industrial landscape. Planned business parks for high-tech start-ups have become part of regional and local development schemes.

High-tech industries which are regionally concentrated, self-sustained and highly specialized are called technopolies. The Silicon Valley near San Francisco and Silicon Forest near Seattle are examples of technopolies. Bangalore is known as Silicon Valley of India.

Question 7.
Distinguish between cottage industrie and small scale industries.
Answer:

Cottage IndustrySmall Scale Industries
(i) It is the smallest manufacturing unit. Finished products may be for consumption in the same household or, for sale in local (village) markets, or, for barter.(i) Small scale manufacturing is distinguished from household industries by its production techniques and place of manufacture (a workshop outside the home/cottage of the producer).
(ii) The artisans use local raw materials and simple tools to produce everyday goods in their homes with the help of their family members or part time labour.(ii) This type of manufacturing uses local raw material, simple power-driven machines and semi-skilled labour.
(iii) Some common everyday products produced in this sector of manufacturing include foodstuffs, fabrics, mats, containers tools, furniture, shoes, and figurines from wood lot and forest, shoes, thongs and other articles from leather; pottery and bricks from clays and stones. Goldsmiths make jewellery of gold, silver and bronze. Some artefacts and crafts are made out of bamboo, wood obtained locally from theforests.(iii) It provides employment and raises local purchasing power. Therefore, countries like India, China, Indonesia and Brazil, etc. have developed labour¬intensive small scale manufacturing in order to provide employment to their population.

 

 

Question 8.
Distinguish between small scale & large scale manufacturing industry.
Answer:

Small Scale IndustriesLarge Scale Industries
(i) Its manufacturing place (workshop) is outside the home/cottage of the producer.(i) Large scale industry is totally market oriented industry, involving large scale production and technological advanced methods of production of goods in large factory set up.
(ii) It uses local raw material, simple power-driven machines and skilled labour.(ii) It involves a large market, various raw materials, enormous energy, specialized workers, advanced technology, assembly-
(iii) Countries like India, China, Indonesia and Brazil, etc. have developed labour-intensive small scale manufacturing in order to provide employment to their population.(iii) This kind of manufacturing developed in the last 200 years, in the United Kingdom, north-eastern U.S.A. and Europe.

Question 9.
Differentiate between Basic Industry and Consumer Goods industry
Answer:

Basic IndustryConsumer Goods Industry
(i) Industries whose products are used to produce other goods by using them as raw materials are called basic industries.

(ii) Iron and steel industry produces steel which is used by other industries as a raw material to produce machines.

(i) Industries which produce goods for direct consumption are known as consumer goods industries.

(ii) Tea, bread, soap and television which are used by consumers.

Question 10.
Differentiate between Private Sector Industry and Public Sector Industry
Answer:

Basic IndustryConsumer Goods Industry
(i) Industries owned and managed by an individual or a corporate body belongs to private sector. Individuals invest their own capital and they manage these industries themselves.

(ii) Reliance Industries Limited

(i) When the ownership and management of an industry is in the hand of the state, it is called public sector industry.

(ii) Bharat Heavy Electronics Limited

Question 11.
Differentiate between white collar worker and blue collar worker.
Answer:

White Collar WorkerBlue Collar Worker
(i) Those group of workers which is highly qualified and skilled and does mental work is called white collar worker.

(ii) These workers enjoy high standard of living and better social status.

(i) Those group of workers which is not so qualified and skilled and does physical work is called blue collar worker.

(ii) They get relatively lesser wages.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Map Based Question

Question 1.
Identify the industrial regions on the political map of the world.
Answer:
Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 6 Secondary Activities 1

Class 12 Geography Chapter 6 Important Questions.

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1 .
What is the importance of secondary activities in the world? (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
The importance of secondary activities in the world is that it adds value to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products.

Question 2.
Name any three sub-sections of cotton textile industry in the world. (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
Two sub-sections of cotton textile industry in the world are Handloom and Power loom sectors & mill sectors.

Question 3.
Which is the leading steel producing region of Germany? (A.I. 2011)
Answer:
The Ruhr region which is responsible for 80% of Germany’s total steel production, is the leading steel producing region of Germany cottage industry.

Question 4.
What is a household industry? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
It is the smallest manufacturing unit. The craftsmen used local raw materials and simple tools to produce goods in their homes for local market. Family members or part time labourers sometimes help.

Question 5.
Which sector of economy accounted for the highest percentage of India’s total value of exports in 2003-2004? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Industrial/manufacturing sector.

Question 6.
How has the ‘New Ruhr’ landscape emerged? (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
Ruhr is based less on the products of coal and steel, for which it was initially famous, and more on the new industries like the -Opel car assembly plant, new chemical plants, universities. Out of- town shopping centres have appeared resulting in a ‘New Ruhr’ landscape.

Question 7.
What is a household industry?
Answer:
It is the smallest manufacturing unit. The craftsmen used local raw materials and simple tools to produce goods in their homes for local market. Family members or part time labourers sometimes help.

Question 8.
Mention any two major problems of Ruhr-industrial rgion. (A.I. 2016)
Answer:

  • Changes in the industrial structure.
  • Problems of industrial waste and pollution.

Question 9.
Explain any two featurs of footloose industries. (A.I. 2016)
Answer:
Two features of footloose industries are:

  1. It depends on any specific raw material, weight losing or otherwise.
  2. It largely depends -on component parts which can be obtained anywhere.

Question 10.
“Agri-business farms are mechanized and large in size”. Examine the statement. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
Agri-business farms are large estates or commercial in nature therefore, they are mechanized and used scientific methods of cultivation. Tea estate, coffee state and cocoa estate are the examples of agri-business farms.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Distinguish between the small scale industries and large scale industries in the world, by stating three points of distinction of each. (CBSE 2008)
Answer:
Three points of distinction between small and large scale industries are:

Small Scale ManufacturingLarge Scale manufacturing
(i) The place of manufacture is a workshop outside the home or cottage of the producer.

(ii) Capital investment is little.

(iii) This type of manufacturing uses local raw material.

(i) The place of manufacture is a huge industry.

(ii) It requires large capital investment.

(iii) This type of manufacturing uses various raw materials and large market for the products.

Question 2.
Classify industries of the world on the basis of ownership into three groups. State the main feature of each group. (CBSE 2009, 10)
Answer:
On the basis of ownership industries can be grouped into:

  • Public Sector Industries,
  • Private Sector Industries and
  • Joint Sector Industries

Main features of each group are:

  • Public Sector Industries are owned and ‘ managed by governments. In India, there are a number of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).
  • Private Sector Industries are owned by individual investors. These are managed by private organisations.
  • Joint Sector Industries are managed by joint stock companies or sometimes the private and public sectors together establish and manage the industries.

Question 3.
How are technological innovations an important aspects of modem manufacturing industries? Explain any three aspects in this regard. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Technological innovations through research and development strategy are an important aspect of modem manufacturing,

  • It is essential for quality control,
  • Technological innovations required for eliminating waste and inefficiency,
  • In the modern days it is highly essential for combating pollution.

Question 4.
How do secondary activities add to natural resources? Explain with three examples. (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Secondary activities add values to natural resources by transforming raw materials into valuable products. Three examples are:

  • Cotton in the ball has limited use but after it is transformed into yarn, becomes more valuable and can be used for making clothes and garments
  • Iron ore can be used; directly from the mines, but after being converted into steel it gets its value and can be used for making many valuable machines, tools, etc.
  • Most of the materials from the farm, forest, mine and the sea are processed into various valuable items.

Question 5.
Give the meaning of high tech industry. State any two characteristics of this industry. (A.1.2013)
Answer:
High technology is the latest generation of manufacturing activities. It is the best understood as the application of intensive research and development efforts leading to the manufacture of products of an advanced scientific and engineering character.
Characteristics of High tech Industry:

  • They are neatly spaced, low, modern, dispersed, office plant lab buildings rather than massive assembly structures.
  • Robotics on the assembly line computer aided design and manufacturing, electronic controls of smeting and refining processes.

Question 6.
Differentiate between small scale manufacturing and large scale manufacturing. (CBSE2018)
Answer:
Points of distinction between small scale manufacturing and large scale manufacturing:

  • Small scale industries use local raw material, whereas large scale industries use variety of raw materials brought from far and near.
  • Small scale industries use simple power driven machines, whereas large scale industries use advanced technology and work on assembly line production,
  • Small scale industries use skilled and semi-skilled labour, whereas large scale industries use skilled labour.
  • Small scale industries provide large scale employment and raise local purchasing power, whereas large scale industries provide employment with mass production and huge capital.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Define the term ‘manufacturing’. Explain any four features of ‘small scale manufacturing’. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
Manufacturing literally means ‘to make by hand’. However, now it includes goods “made by machines’. Manufacturing is essentially a process which involves transforming raw materials into finished goods of higher value for sale in local or distant markets.
Four features of small scale manufacturing are:

  • Small scale manufacturing is a workshop outside the home/cottage of the producer.
  • This type of manufacturing uses local raw material, simple power-driven machines.
  • It requires semi-skilled labour. Labour¬intensive small scale manufacturing units have been developed in India, China, Indonesia and Brazil in order to provide employment to their population.
  • It provides employment and raises local purchasing power.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 6 Secondary Activities appeared first on Learn CBSE.


Architecture Entrance Exam – 2019-2020 Academic Session

$
0
0

Architecture Entrance Exam is conducted both in state-level and national level. It is conducted every year by different universities to give admissions to the candidates who want to seek their Graduation in B.Arch courses from recognised colleges or institutes. In this year as well, the entrance exam for Architecture programme will be conducted for admission in the next academic session, i.e. 2019-2020.

Architecture Entrance Exams | Architecture Entrance Exams after 12th

Candidates have the option to apply for multiple entrance exams for Architecture courses. List of some of the entrance test for architecture are given here;

  • JEE Advanced AAT
  • JEE Main Paper II
  • COMEDK UGET
  • DASA(Direct admissions of students abroad)
  • DASA PG
  • NATA(National Aptitude Test in Architecture)
  • SUEE(Sathyabhama University Entrance Exam)

Candidates can check below the Architecture Entrance Exams 2019 Forms Date (Tentative).

JEE Advanced AAT 2020

  • Online Registration Process for JEE Advanced AAT – 2nd Week of June 2020
  • JEE Advanced AAT 2020 Exam Date – 3rd Week of June 2020
  • JEE Advanced AAT Result Date – 3rd Week of June 2020

JEE Main Paper – II 2020

JEE Main 2020 Dates January Exam

  • Application Form available from – 02nd week of Sep 2019
  • Dates of Examination – 02nd week of Jan 2020
  • Declaration of Result – 1st week of Feb 2020

JEE Main 2020 Dates April Exam

  • Application Form available from – 2nd week of Feb 2020
  • Dates of Examination – 02nd week of Apr 2020
  • Declaration of Result – 1st week of May 2020

COMEDK UGET 2020

  • Start of Application Form – 02nd week of January 2020
  • Mock Test Availability – 01st week of February 2020
  • Last date of Application Form submission – 03rd week of April 2020
  • Admit Card Download – 01st week of May 2020
  • COMEDK UGET 2020 Exam Date – 02nd week of May 2020
  • Provisional Answer Key Release – 03rd week of May 2020
  • Receive Challenges Last Date – 03rd week of May 2020
  • Final Answer Key Release – 04th week of May 2020
  • Scorecard release – 04th week of May 2020

DASA(Direct admissions of students abroad)

UG Courses:

  • Application form release – 2nd week of April 2020
  • Submission of application form – 2nd week of June 2020
  • Last date of submission of SAT Test Score – 2nd week of June 2020
  • Seat Allotment – 1st round 4th week of June 2020
  • 1st round confirmation – 4th week of June 2020
  • Seat Allotment – 2nd round – 4th week of June 2020
  • 2nd round confirmation – 1st week of July 2020
  • Seat Allotment – 3rd round – 2nd week of July 2020
  • 3rd round confirmation – 2nd week of July 2020
  • Choice filling & registration of new applicants – 2nd week of July 2020
  • Seat Allotment – 4th round – 3rd week of July 2020
  • 4th round confirmation – 3rd week of July 2020
  • All rounds reporting by candidates to allotted institute – 4th week of July 2020
  • Spot round vacant seat matrix announcement – 4th week of July 2020
  • Choice filling & registration of spot round by new applicants – 1st week of August 2020
  • Spot round against vacant seat & spot round allotment – 1st week of August 2020
  • Reporting to allotted institution by candidates of spot round – 2nd week of August 2020

PG Courses:

  • Application form release 3rd week of April 2020
  • Submission of application form 3rd week of June 2020
  • Receipt last date (GRE/ GMAT score) for round – 1 & 2 4th week of June 2020
  • 1st round seat allotment – 1st week of July 2020
  • 1st round confirmation – 2nd week of July 2020
  • 2nd round seat allotment – 2nd week of July 2020
  • 2nd round confirmation – 2nd week of July 2020
  • Reporting to allotted institution – 3rd week of July 2020

Architecture Entrance Exams | NATA(National Aptitude Test in Architecture) 2020

For First Session:

  • Events Dates 2020 (Tentative)
  • Starting of online application – 4th week of January
  • Last date of application submission – 2nd week of March
  • Image upload and fee payment – 2nd week of March
  • Confirmation page printing available till – 2nd week of March
  • Correction window open – 2nd or 3rd week of March
  • Admit card release – 1st week of April
  • Exam dates – 2nd week of April
  • Announcement of result – 1st week of May

For Second Session:

  • Starting of online application – Last week of January
  • Last date of application submission – 2nd week of June
  • Image upload and fee payment – 2nd week of June
  • Confirmation page printing available till – 3rd week of June
  • Correction window open – 3rd week of June
  • Admit card release – Last week of June
  • Exam dates – 1st week of July
  • Announcement of result – 4th week of July

Architecture Entrance Exams | SUEE(Sathyabhama University Entrance Exam)

  • Publishing of application forms – August 2019
  • Offline Application Forms – April 2020
  • Last date for the submission of the filled application form – April 2020
  • Commencement of Slot booking / downloading of Admit Card – April 2020
  • Last date for Slot booking / downloading of Hall Tickets – April 2020
  • Date of Online Examination – April 2020
  • Issuing of Results and Initiation of downloading of counseling call letter – April 2020
  • Counseling dates – May 2020

If you are interested in architecture and like the process of designing, planning and constructing, then this is the best course you can opt for For those candidates who cherish the historical constructions and wish to make a innovative construction piece or building of their own, then this article is for them. For all the aspiring architects, we have collected the list of all top-level architecture entrance test with detailed information.

Students of Class 12th are eligible to give entrance exam to get admissions in Architecture programme in various colleges or universities. They should have passed 10+2 with Physics, Chemistry, and Maths as compulsory subjects, from a recognised board.

Architecture is a creative branch of studies. Professions in architecture will provide budding professionals with a life of exploration and personal growth. Architecture is a speedy evolving career now and has become one of the best career opportunities in a few years. Students who love creativity and designing want to be in the most suitable architecture colleges. To get admission in the topmost architecture institutes or universities, the candidates have to appear in the Architecture Entrance level Exams conducting in 2019 for 2019-20 academic session. Some of the exams through which students can get admission in the top-level architecture universities are listed here.

The post Architecture Entrance Exam – 2019-2020 Academic Session appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions History Chapter 8 Novels, Society and History

$
0
0

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions History Chapter 8 Novels, Society and History

Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark

Question 1.
Which was the earliest novel written in Marathi? (2012)
Answer:
Yamuna Paryatan

Question 2.
Who wrote the novel Sultana’s Dream? (2012)
Answer:
Rokeya Hossein

Question 3.
Who was the novel ‘Anguriya Binimoy’ written by? (2013)
Answer:
Bhudeb Mukhopadhyay

Question 4.
Which novel depicts a topsy turvy world in which women take the place of men? (2013)
Answer:
Sultana’s Dream

Question 5.
Who wrote the novel ‘Oliver Twist’? (2014)
Answer:
Charles Dickens

Question 6.
Identify the hero of the novel ‘Indulekha’. (2014)
Answer:
Hero of ‘Induleka’ was Madhavan, a member of the newly English-educated class of Nayars from the University of Madras. A first rate sanskrit-scholar, dressed in western clothes, with a long tuft of hair.

Question 7.
By whom was the novel ‘Pride and Prejudice’ written? (2015)
Answer:
‘Pride and Prejudice’ was written by Jane Austen giving a glimpse of the world of women in genteel rural society in early 19th Century Britain.

Question 8.
Name the first novel written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya. (2015)
Answer:
‘Durgeshnandini’ (1865) was Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya’s first novel. The plot of the novel had many interesting twists and turns. It was written in prose style and was relished for its language.

Question 9.
Who was the novel ‘Anguriya Binimoy’ was written by? (2017 D)
Answer:
Bhudeb Mukhopadhyay

Question 10.
Name the novel written by Rokeya Hossein which depicts a topsy turvy world in which women take the place of men. (2017 OD)
Answer:
Sultana’s Dream

Short Answer Questions (SA) 3 Marks

Question 11.
Describe how the works of Munshi Prem Chand reflect the social conditions of the Indian society in the early 20th century and promote the feeling of nationalism. (2015)
Answer:
Munshi Prem Chand was one of the greatest literary figures of modem Hindi and Urdu literature:

  1. Munshi Premchand’s novels are filled with powerful characters drawn from all the levels of the society. In his novels one can meet aristocrats and landlords, middle-level peasants and landless – labourers, middle class professionals and people from all the sections of the society.
  2. Premchand’s Sevasadan throws light on the lives of ordinary people, mainly poor people and their sufferings.
  3. His story Rangbhoomi was inspired by Gandhiji’s ideas and throws light on the negative effect of the caste system which had led to social injustice. His characters created a community based on democratic values.
  4. Issues such as child marriage, dowry system were highlighted in his writings to draw the attention of the educated class and reformers so that something could be done to remove these evils.
  5. Premchand’s writings also covered the lives of upper class Indians and the ways in which they used whatever little opportunities they got from colonial authorities to govern themselves.
  6. Godan published in 1936 remains Premchand’s best known work. It is an epic on Indian peasantry. The theme of the novel revolves around the socio-economic conditions of the Indian peasants.

Question 12.
In what ways did novels help to give the people a vision of being ideal characters without losing one’s identity? Explain. (2012)
Answer:
Although novels were about imaginary stories, they often spoke to the readers about the real world. Sometimes they presented a vision of how things ought to be.

  1. Social novelists often created heroes and heroines with ideal qualities, who their readers could admire and imitate.
  2. The characters in the novels show how to be modem without rejecting tradition, how to accept ideas coming from the West without losing one’s identity.
  3. Chandu Menon portrayed ‘Indulekha’, as a woman of breathtaking beauty, high intellectual abilities, artistic talent and with an education in English and Sanskrit.
  4. Madhavan, the hero of the novel was also an ideal character. He was a member of the newly educated class of Nayars from the University of Madras. He was also a Sanskrit scholar. He dressed in western clothes but had kept a long tuft of hair, according to the Nayar custom.
  5. Under the colonial rule, many of the English educated class found the western ways of living and thinking attractive. Characters like Indulekha and Madhavan showed readers how Indian and foreign lifestyle could be brought together in an ideal combination.

Question 13.
What are the main features of the novel ‘Sevasadan’ written by Munshi Premchand? Mention any three. (2012)
Answer:
Main features of the novel ‘Sevasadan’

  1. ‘Sevasadan’ (The Abode of Service) written by Munshi Premchand lifted the Hindi novel from the realm of fantasy, moralising and simple entertainment to a serious reflection on the lives of ordinary people and social issues.
  2. It deals mainly with topics like the poor condition of women in society, child marriage and dowry.
  3. It also tells about the ways in which the Indian upper classes used opportunities they got from colonial authorities.

Question 14.
How did the characters like Indulekha and Madhavan inspire the contemporary generations to strike a balance between the Western ideas and Indian traditional culture? (2012)
Answer:
During the colonial period social novelists often created heroes and heroines with ideal qualities who could imbibe western lifestyles without rejecting traditional Indian culture and one’s own identity. Chandu Menon portrayed “Indulekha” as a woman of breath-taking beauty, high intellectual abilities, artistic talent, and with an education in English and Sanskrit. Madhavan, the hero of the novel, was also presented in ideal colours.

He was a member of the newly English-educated class of Nayars from the University of Madras and a first-rate Sanskrit scholar. He dressed in Western clothes but at the same time, he kept a long tuft of hair, according to the Nayar custom. Characters like Indulekha and Madhavan through their ways of living and thinking showed how Indian and foreign lifestyles could be brought together in an ideal combination.

Question 15.
Differentiate between the novels written by Charlotte Bronte and the novels written by Jane Austen. (2013)
Answer:
The novels of Jane Austen gave a glimpse of the world of women in genteel rural society in early 19th century Britain. They make us think about a society which encouraged women to look for ‘good marriages and find wealthy or propertied husbands, as stated in Jane Austens ‘Pride and Prejudice’. Austen portrays women to be preoccupied with marriage and money.

Charlotte Bronte’s ‘Jane Eyre’ published in 1874, shows Jane as young and assertive. She is independent and protests against the hypocrisy of her elders. Her novel dealt with women who broke established norms of society before adjusting to them and therefore found sympathetic readers.

Question 16.
Explain any three main contributions of novel to modem society. (2013)
Answer:
Novels had a unique contribution in making the modem world:

  1. As novels began to be mass circulated and widely read, they made an immense contribution in shaping the behaviour and minds of people.
  2. Novels also helped in establishing a relationship with the past. Many of them told thrilling stories of adventures and intrigues set in the past. Through glorified accounts of the past, novels helped in creating a sense of national pride among their readers.
  3. The most exciting element of novels was the involvement of women, who began both reading and writing novels. Novels began exploring the world of women-their emotions, identities, their experiences and problems. Women novelists did not only popularise their domestic roles but also wrote to mould and shape society and the contemporary world.

Question 17.
How does Daniel Defoe’s ‘Robinson Crusoe’ justify colonialism? Explain. (2013)
Answer:

  1. Daniel Defoe’s ‘Robinson Crusoe’ made the readers feel that they are a part of a superior community.
  2. The hero is a slave trader and adventurer.
  3. He treats coloured people not as human beings equal to him, but as inferiors.
  4. He rescues a native and makes him his slave and calls him ‘FRIDAY’.
  5. He idolizes the idea that colonised people are primitive, barbaric and less than humans.

Question 18.
How does the novel ‘Pariksha Guru’ reflect the inner and outer world of the newly emerging middle classes? Explain. (2013)
Answer:
Srinivas Das’s novel, ‘Pariksha Guru’ cautioned young men of well-to-do families against the dangerous influence of bad company and consequent loose morals.
It reflected the inner and outer world of the emerging middle classes through the characters of the novel who are caught in difficulty of adapting to colonised society and at the same time preserving their own cultural identity. The colonial modernity seems to be both frightening and irresistible to the characters. The novel tries to teach the reader the right way to live and expects all ‘sensible men’ to be worldly wise and practical. It also suggests to live life with dignity and honour and to remain rooted in the values of tradition and culture.

In the novel the characters attempt to bridge two different worlds through their actions. The young are urged to cultivate the ‘healthy habit of reading newspapers. The novel emphasised that colonial modernity must be adopted without sacrificing the traditional values of the middle-class household.

Question 19.
How did novels fulfil the task of nation building during the British period? Explain. (2013)
Answer:
The modern novel developed in India in the nineteenth century during the British period. Leading novelists wrote to develop a modern literature of the country. They wanted to produce a sense of national belonging and cultural equality with the British. Novels could be read by people from all walks of life. This helped in creating a sense of collective identity on the basis of one’s language. Novels helped people to understand about the culture of other parts of the country. They helped to create a sense of pan-Indian belonging.

In Bengal, many historical novels were about Marathas and Rajputs. These novels portrayed the nation to be full of adventure, heroism, romance and sacrifice. Bankim’s Anandmath is a novel about secret Hindu militia which fights Muslims to establish a Hindu kingdom. This novel inspired many kinds of freedom fighters.

Question 20.
How did the historical novels in India try to create a sense of Pan-Indian belonging? 2014, 2015
Or
How did novels fulfil the task of nation-building during the British period? Explain.
Answer:

  1. In India, many novels were written for glorification of India’s past, to create a sense of national pride among people and a sense of collective belonging.
  2. Many novels were written in all the main Indian languages in different parts of the country that helped in the growth of national feelings among the readers of the entire nation and propagated the idea of uprooting the foreign rule.
  3. Some of the greatest novelists of modern India were protagonists of the national movement like Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. He infused the ideas of nationalism and freedom from colonial rule in novels like ‘Anandamath’ and ‘Kapalkundala’.
    In Bengal, many historical novels were about Marathas and Rajputs. These novels portrayed the nation to be full of adventure, heroism, romance and sacrifice. Bankim’s Anandmath is a novel about secret Hindu militia which fights Muslims to establish a Hindu kingdom. This novel inspired many kinds of freedom fighters. Several other novelists wrote for the same cause.
  4. The novels also helped in the nation building process by taking up the cause of the poor and downtrodden people, women and such sections of society who were being exploited by rich aristocratic people.
  5. Novels also attacked the racial superiority of the English people who regarded the Indian culture as inferior. Novels took up the cause of nationalism and urged the people to be true to their culture and fight for the freedom of their country.

Question 21.
Describe the growth of Hindi novels from their origin to the period of excellence. (2014)
Answer:
Growth of Hindu novels from origin to period of excellence:
In the north, Bharatendu Harishchandra encouraged many poets and writers to recreate and translate novels from other languages. The first modem novel was written by Srinivas Das of Delhi, who published his novel ‘Pariksha Guru’ in 1872. The novel cautioned young men of well to do families against bad company. The young are urged to cultivate the ‘healthy habit’ of reading the newspapers. The novel could not win many readers as it was too moralising.

The writings of Devaki Nandan Khatri created a novel-reading public in Hindi. His best-seller ‘Chandrakanta’ a romantic fantasy contributed to popularising Hindi language and the Nagari script among the educated.
With the writing of Premchand, Hindi novels achieved excellence. He drew on the traditional art of Kisa- goi (storytelling). His novel ‘Sewasadan’ lifted the Hindi novel to a serious reflection on the lives of ordinary people and social issues.

Question 22.
Describe in brief about any two famous novels written by Charles Dickens. (2014)
Or
Examine the contribution of Charles Dickens in the field of English literature. (2015)
Answer:
Charles Dickens highlights the changes brought about in people’s lives and characters, by industrialization. His novels stress on the evil effects of industrialization.

  • In his novel ‘Hard Times’ (1854), he describes Coketown (a fictitious industrial town) ‘as a grim place full of machinery, smoking chimneys, rivers polluted purple and buildings that all looked the same.’ Workers had no identity, they were known as ‘hands’ — operators of machines. The greed for more profits had reduced human beings into simple instruments. Humane qualities were fast disappearing. Rich people had no concern for the poverty stricken people living in inhuman conditions.
  • His ‘Oliver Twist’ (1838) gives harsh details of the grim conditions of the workers and the unemployed poor. Dickens’ ‘Oliver Twist’ is the tale of a poor orphan who lived in a world of petty criminals and beggars. It gives harsh details of the grim conditions of the workers and the unemployed poor. However, Oliver was finally adopted by a wealthy man and lived happily ever after.

Question 23.
Who wrote the novel ‘Saraswati Vijayam’? Highlight any two messages given to the people through the novel. (2014)
Answer:
Potheri Kunjambu, a Tower caste’ writer from North Kerala, wrote a novel called ‘Saraswati Vijayam’ in 1892, mounting a strong attack on caste oppression. This novel shows a young man from an ‘untouchable’ caste, leaving his village to escape the cruelty of his Brahmin landlord. He converts to Christianity, obtains modern education and returns as the judge of the local court. Meanwhile, the villagers thinking that the landlord’s men had killed him, file a case. At the conclusion of the trial, the judge reveals his true identity, the Nambuthri (Brahmin) repents and reforms his ways. The novel lays emphasis on the importance of education for the upliftment of the lower castes.

Question 24.
Explain how novel reading became a popular source of pleasure in India. (2015)
Answer:
As elsewhere in the world, in India too, the novel became a popular medium of entertainment among the middle class. The circulation of printed books allowed people to amuse themselves in new ways.

Picture books, translations from other languages, popular songs composed on contemporary events, stories in newspapers and magazines—all these offered new forms of entertainment.

Within this new culture of print, novels soon became immensely popular.

Question 25.
Explain any three reasons for the popularity of novels. (2012)
Answer:

  1. Novels became very popular because the world, which the novels created, was absorbing and believable and seemingly real.
  2. While reading novels, the reader travelled to another person’s world and began looking at life as it was experienced by the characters of the novel.
  3. Besides, novels allowed individuals the pleasure of reading in private as well as the joy of publicly reading or discussing stories with friends or relatives.
  4. In rural areas, people would collect to hear one of them reading a novel aloud, often becoming deeply involved in the lives of the characters.

Question 26.
Differentiate between the novels written by Charlotte Bronte and the novels written by Jane Austen. (2017 D)
Answer:
The novels of Jane Austen gave a glimpse of the world of women in genteel rural society in early 19th century Britain. They make us think about a society which encouraged women to look for ‘good marriages and find wealthy or propertied husbands, as stated in Jane Austens ‘Pride and Prejudice’. Austen portrays women to be preoccupied with marriage and money.

Charlotte Bronte’s ‘Jane Eyre’ published in 1874, shows Jane as young and assertive. She is independent and protests against the hypocrisy of her elders. Her novel dealt with women who broke established norms of society before adjusting to them and therefore found sympathetic readers.

Question 27.
How does Daniel Defoe’s ‘Robinson Crusoe’ justify colonialism? Explain. (2017 OD)
Answer:

  1. Daniel Defoe’s ‘Robinson Crusoe’ made the readers feel that they are a part of a superior community.
  2. The hero is a slave trader and adventurer.
  3. He treats coloured people not as human beings equal to him, but as inferiors.
  4. He rescues a native and makes him his slave and calls him ‘FRIDAY’.
  5. He idolizes the idea that colonised people are primitive, barbaric and less than humAnswer:

Long Answer Questions (LA)

Question 28.
Why were people worried about the ill-effects of novels on women and young people? (2012)
Answer:
People got worried about the effects of the novel on women and young readers because:

  • Novels took away readers from their real surroundings into an imaginary world where anything could happen.
  • People wrote in magazines and newspapers, advising people to stay away from the immoral influences of novels. Women and children were often singled out for such advice as they were seen as easily corruptible.
  • Parents kept novels in the lofts in their houses, out of their childrens’ reach. Young people often read them in secret. Even older women who could not read listened with attention to popular novels by their grandchildren.
  • A reason for the popularity of novels among women was that it allowed for a new conception of womanhood. Novels showed women who could control their lives. Stories of love, which was a staple theme of many novels, showed women who could choose or refuse their partners and relationships.
  • It was believed that novels would pollute the minds of women and children and make them suffer from ailments and diseases. Many men were suspicious of women writing novels or reading them.

Question 29.
Compare the novels written by Thomas Hardy and Charles Dickens and bring out the difference in their theme. (2012)
Answer:
The novelist Charles Dickens in his novel ‘Hard Times’ wrote about the terrible effects of industrialization on people’s lives and characters. The industrialization in Europe was accompanied by an economic philosophy which celebrated the pursuit of profit and under-valued the lives of workers. He was deeply critical of this development. In other novels too, Dickens focussed on the terrible conditions of urban life under industrial capitalism.

On the other hand the novelist Thomas Hardy, wrote about traditional rural communities of England that were fast vanishing, and the old rural culture with its independent farmers was dying out. This sense of change is beautifully caught in Hardy’s ‘Mayor of Casterbridge’. We can see that Hardy mourns the loss of the more personalized world that is disappearing, even as he is aware of its problems and advantages of the new order.

Question 30.
Describe the appearing of novels in South India during the period of colonial rule. (2013)
Answer:
Novels began appearing in South Indian languages during the period of colonial rule. Early novels came out of attempts to translate English novels into Indian languages.

O. Chandu Menon, tried to translate English novel, Henrietta Temple by Benjamin Disraeli into Malayalam. He realised that his readers were not familiar with the way in which the characters in English novels lived; their clothes, ways of speaking and manners were unknown to them. They would find a direct translation of an English novel boring.

He gave up the idea and wrote instead a story in Malayalam in the ‘manner of English novel books’. The novel called Indulekha published in 1889 was the first modern novel in Malayalam. Kandukuri Viresalingam wrote an original Telugu novel called ‘Rajasekhara Caritamu’ in 1878.

Question 31.
Describe the features of the big modern city of Calcutta (Kolkata) as viewed by the gods in the novel written by Durgacharan Ray. (2014)
Answer:
In 1880, Durgacharan Ray wrote a novel ‘Debganer Martye Aagaman’ (The Gods Visit earth), in which Brahma, the creator in Hindu mythology took a train to Calcutta with some other gods. As Varuna, the Rain god conducted them around the capital of British India, the gods were wonderstruck by the big, modern city—the train, the large ships on the river Ganges, factories emitting smoke, bridges and monuments, shops selling commodities. The gods were so impressed by the metropolis that they decided to build a Museum and a High Court in heaven.
The two faces of the city of Calcutta as described by Durgacharan Ray in his novel ‘Debganer Martye Aagaman’ were:

  1. It was a big, modern city with trains, large ships on the river Ganges, factories belching smoke, bridges, monuments, a dazzling array of shops selling a wide range of commodities. The visitors were impressed by the marvels of the teeming metropolis. The city of Calcutta in the 19th century was brimming with opportunities for trade, commerce, education and jobs.
  2. The other features of the city were its cheats, thieves, grinding poverty, poor quality of housing for many. The confusions about caste system, religious and gender identities in the city were disturbing.
  3. Wealth and poverty, splendour and dirt, opportunities and disappointments were the contrasting factors of the city of Calcutta in the 19th century.

Question 32.
Analyse the role and involvement of women in the readership and authorship of novels in India. (2014)
Answer:
Women were singled out and advised to stay away from immoral influence of novels as they were seen as easily corruptible. Old women listened with fascination to popular Tamil novels.

But women did not remain mere readers of stories written by men, they also began to write novels. In some languages, the early creations of women were poems, essays or autobiographical. Stories of love showed women who could to some extent control their lives. Some women authors also wrote about women who changed the world of both men and women. Rokeya Hossein, a reformer, wrote a fantasy in English called ‘Sultana’s Dream’ showing a world in which women take the place of men.

Men became suspicious of women writing novels or reading them. In the south, women and girls were often discouraged from reading novels.

Question 33.
Who translated the novel “Henrietta Temple” written by Disraeli in Malayalam? Why did the author give up the idea of translating English novels? What did he do instead in the literary field? (2014, 2015)
Answer:
Novels began appearing in South Indian languages during the period of colonial rule. Early novels came out of attempts to translate English novels into Indian languages. O. Chandu Menon, tried to translate English novel, ‘Henrietta Temple’ by Benjamin Disraeli into Malayalam. He realised that his readers were not familiar with the way in which the characters in English novels lived; their clothes, ways of speaking and manners were unknown to them. They would find a direct translation of an English novel boring.

He gave up the idea and wrote instead a story in Malayalam in the ‘manner of English novel books’. The novel called Indulekha published in 1889 was the first modern novel in Malayalam.

Kandukuri Viresalingam wrote an original Telugu novel called ‘Rajasekhara Caritamu’ in 1878.

Question 34.
Explain any five uses that the novels served in India. (2015)
Answer:
Novels served the following uses:

  1. For colonial administrators ‘vernacular’ novels became a valuable source of information on native life and customs. Such information was useful in governing Indian society, with its large variety of communities and castes.
  2. The new novels in Indian languages often had descriptions of domestic life. They gave details of how people dressed, their religious life, their beliefs and practices.
  3. Indians used the novels as a powerful medium to criticize what they considered defects in their society and to suggest remedies. Writers like Viresalingam used the novel to propagate their ideas of society.
  4. Many novels were written for glorification of India’s past, to create a sense of national pride among people and a sense of collective belonging.
  5. Many novels helped in the growth of national feelings and propagated the idea of uprooting the foreign rule.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions

The post Social Science Class 10 Important Questions History Chapter 8 Novels, Society and History appeared first on Learn CBSE.

AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification | Apply Online for 1.6 Lakh+ Vacancies @ gramasachivalayam.ap.gov.in

$
0
0

AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification 2019: The officials of Andhra Pradesh has released the notification of  AP Grama Sachivalayam Recruitment on 27th July 2019 on the official website of gramasachivalayam.ap.gov.in. Officials have released 1.6 lakhs vacancies for different posts such as Panchayat Secretary, VRO, MPEO, Gopalamitra Live Stoke Assistant, Live Stoke Assistant, ANM, Electrical Assistant, Grameena Engineer, Welfare Assistant, Women Police Attendant, Digital Assistant, etc.

Candidates who are interested in AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification can visit the official website and start filling out the AP Gram Sachivalayam 2019 Application Form. Candidates can start applying for AP Sachivalayam Notification from 27th July onwards, the last date to fill the application form is 10th August 2019. Before applying for AP Grama Sachivalayam Recruitment Candidates must first check AP Grama Sachivalayam Eligibility Criteria. In this article, we will provide you all the necessary information about AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification 2019. Read on to find more about AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification 2019.

AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification 2019 Dates

Before going to know about the details of AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification 2019, let’s have an overview of AP Grama Sachivalayam Recruitment Important Dates:

EventsImportant Dates
Starting Date of Application27 July 2019
Last Date of Application10 August 2019
Exam Dates01 September 2019

AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification – No of  Vacancies

Officials of AP Grama Sachivalayam is going to recruit 1.6 lakhs candidates under various posts So before getting into the details of AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification Apply, let’s have an overview of the list of posts and number vacancies announced under each post:

AP Grama Sachivalayam Vacancies Under Rural Posts

S. NoAP Grama Sachivalayam PostsNumber of Vacancies
1Panchayat Secretary7040
2Village Revenue Officer(VRO)(Grade-II)2880
3ANMs (Grade-III)13540
4Animal Husbandry Assistant9886
5Village Fisheries Assistant794
6Village Horticulture Assistant4000
7Village Agriculture Assistant (Grade-II)6714
8Village Sericulture Assistant400
9Mahila Police and Women & Child Welfare Assistant14944
10Engineering Assistant (Grade-II)11158
11Panchayat Secretary (Grade-VI) Digital Assistant11158
12Village Surveyor (Grade-III)11158
13Welfare and Education Assistant11158
Total Number of Vacancies104830

AP Grama Sachivalayam Vacancies Under Urban Posts

S. NoAP Grama Sachivalayam PostsNumber of Vacancies
1Ward Administrative Secretary3307
2Ward Amenities Secretary (Grade-II)3601
3Ward Sanitation & Environment Secretary (Grade-II)3648
4Ward Education & Data Processing Secretary3786
5Ward Planning & Regulation Secretary (Grade-II)3770
6Ward welfare & Development secretary (Grade-II)3786
Total No Vacancies 21898

Note: The vacancies are tentative and they may change as well.

AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification Eligibility Criteria

Before filling out AP Grama Sachivalayam Application Form, Candidates must check the eligibility criteria of AP Grama Sachivalayam Recruitment. The General Eligibility Criteria for all the posts are listed below:

  • Candidates health must be good and should not be involved in any defect.
  • Candidates Character must be good.
  • Candidate must possess the academic and other qualifications prescribed for the post.
  • Candidate must be a citizen of Indian and a resident of Andhra Pradesh.

AP Grama Sachivalayam Eligibility Criteria is discussed below:

AP Grama Sachivalayam Eligibility Criteria For Panchayat Secretary: Students must have a degree certificate from a recognized university.

AP Grama Sachivalayam Eligibility Criteria For Village Revenue Officer or VRO (Grade-II):

  • He/She must have cleared Secondary School Certificate Examination conducted by the Board of Secondary Education, Andhra Pradesh or its equivalent examination as prescribed from time to time in subrule 2 of rule-12 of the Andhra Pradesh State and Subordinate Service Rules, 1996.
  • b. Must have obtained National Council of Vocational Training Certificate in Draughtsman (Civil) Trade (two years) Course with Surveying as one of the subjects in any Industrial Training Institute recognized by the Government of India. Candidates with higher qualification in the same trade/course are also eligible to apply.

3. AP Grama Sachivalayam Eligibility Criteria for ANM / Multi-Purpose Health Assistant (Female) Grade-III

  • Must have passed SSC or equivalent Examination/intermediate pass with any group.
  • Must have passed 18/24 months MPHA(F) course conducted in the State (recognized by AP Nursing & Midwives Council) (or) Two Years Intermediate Vocational Multi-Purpose Health Worker (Female) Course and have completed one year Clinical Training in selected Government Hospital in which intermediate (Vocational MPHVWV(F)) students have been permitted to undergo clinical training. (or) Completed one-year Apprenticeship Training in identified hospitals and awarded “Apprenticeship Completion Certificate” by the Board of Apprenticeship training, Gol. Southern Region, Chennai.
  • Must be registered in AP Auxiliary Nurse and Midwifery and Health Visitors Council.
  • Must be registered in A.P. Para Medical Board in respect of candidates who have passed Intermediate Vocational Multi-Purpose Health Worker (Female) Course
  • Must have good physical fitness for camp life.

4. AP Grama Sachivalayam Eligibility Criteria For Animal Husbandry Assistant

  • Candidates must have attended two years Animal Husbandry Polytechnic Course conducted by Sri Venkateswara Veterinary University, Tirupati,

Or

  • Intermediate Vocational course in Dairying and Poultry Sciences as one of the subjects of study / two years Poultry Diploma Course conducted by the Polytechnic College Ramachandrapuram of Sri Venkateswara Veterinary University, Tirupati etc., / two years Intermediate Vocational Course in Multi-Purpose Veterinary Assistant (MPVA) as per the provisions of GO MS No:34 Dtd.13-09-2013 of AHDDF (AHII) Dept.

5. AP Grama Sachivalayam Eligibility Criteria For Village Fisheries Assistant

  • Must have passed Fisheries Polytechnic Diploma from any recognized university /Technical Board (or)
  • Intermediate with Biology or Vocational Course in Fisheries/Aquaculture from any recognized board (or) B.F.Sc. (4 Years) Degree from any recognized university/ (or)
  • B.Sc., (Fisheries)/ B.Sc.,(Aquaculture)/ B.Sc.,(Zoology) from any recognized University.

6. AP Grama Sachivalayam Eligibility Criteria For Village Horticulture Assistant

  • Must possess 4 years B.Sc Horticulture / B.Sc (Hons) Horticulture of a Recognized University in the State (or) any other University accredited by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Govt., of India, New Delhi.
  • Must Possess 2 years Diploma in Horticulture (from Dr. YSRHU / ANGRAU recognized)

7. AP Grama Sachivalayam Eligibility Criteria For Village Agriculture Assistant (Grade-II)

  • Must have passed the 4 Years B.Sc, (Agriculture) (Or) 4 Years B.Tech (Agriculture Engineering) from a recognized University in the State / any other University accredited by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), Ministry of Agriculture & Farmer Welfare, Govt. of India, New Delhi. (Or)
  • 2 Years Diploma in Agriculture Polytechnic (Or) 2 Years Diploma in Agriculture Polytechnic (Seed Technology) (Or) 2 Years Diploma in Agriculture Polytechnic (Organic Farming) (Or)
  • 3 Years Diploma in Agriculture Polytechnic (Agricultural Engineering) recognized by the ANGRAU (Or) Serving MPEOs with B.Sc (BZC) degree is also eligible to apply as a one-time exemption for having worked as MPEO in the Dept. of Agriculture. On selection B.Sc (BZC) candidates should acquire a 2-year Diploma in Agriculture Polytechnic to get eligibility for further promotion.

8. AP Grama Sachivalayam Eligibility Criteria For Village Sericulture Assistant

  • Must have passed Intermediate Vocational Course in Sericulture / B.Sc. with Sericulture / M.Sc., Sericulture

9. AP Grama Sachivalayam Eligibility Criteria For Mahila Police and Women & Child Welfare Assistant

  • The candidates shall pass any degree from any University in India established or incorporated by or under a Central Act, State Act or a provincial Act or an institution recognized by the University Grants Commission or by a recognized State Board of Technical Education and training.

10. AP Grama Sachivalayam Eligibility Criteria For Engineering Assistant (Grade-II)

  • Must possess a Diploma in Civil/ Mechanical Engineering awarded by the State Board of Technical Education and Training AP or its equivalent qualification. (Or)
  • Bachelor Degree in Civil/ Mechanical Engineering of a University in India established or incorporated by or under Central Act or a State Act or an Institution recognized by the University Grant Commission.

11. AP Grama Sachivalayam Eligibility Criteria For Panchayat Secretary (Grade-VI) Digital Assistant

  • Must have passed the Degree or Diploma in Electrical, Electronics, Computers, IT, Instrumentation, BCA/MCA, any degree with computers as one of the subjects such as B.Sc.,(Computers)/ B.Com.,(Computers) from any University in India established or incorporated by or under a Central Act, State Act or a Provincial Act or an Institution recognized by the University Grants Commission (or) by a recognized State Board of Technical Education and Training.

12. AP Grama Sachivalayam Eligibility Criteria For Village Surveyor (Grade-III)

  • Must have obtained NCVT Certificate in Draughtsman (Civil) Trade (Two years course with surveying as one of the subjects in any Industrial Training Institute recognized by the Govt. of A.P. or Govt. of India). (or)
  • Must pass passed Intermediate (Vocational) Course with Surveying as one of the subject conducted by the Board of Intermediate of Andhra Pradesh. (or)
  • Must have passed Diploma in Civil Engineering from any Institute recognized by any State Govts. in India(or)
  • Must have passed B.E / B Tech in Civil Engineering (or) its equivalent from any Institution/University recognized under the Acts, by GoAP or Govt. of India. (or)
  • Must have obtained the Licensed Surveyor Certificate issued by the Commissioner / Director of Survey, Settlements & Land Records, A.P., and such Licensed Surveyor Certificate shall be a valid one with the renewal as per the instructions/rules in force.

13. AP Grama Sachivalayam Eligibility Criteria For Welfare and Education Assistant

  • Must have passed the Degree from any University in India established or incorporated by or under a Central Act, State Act or a Provincial Act or an Institution recognized by the University Grants Commission.

AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification 2019 Application Form

Candidates who are interested in AP Grama Sachivalayam Recruitment and eligible can start filling the application form for AP Grama Sachivalayam Application starts from 27th July and ends on August 10th, 2019. In order to apply for AP Grama Sachivalayam application, candidates must register through one-time profile registration followed by application form submission and fee payment.

How to Fill AP Grama Sachivalayam Application Form?

Visit the official website of AP Grama Sachivalayam @ gramasachivalayam.ap.gov.in and follow the step by step procedure as listed below to fill out the application form

Step – 1: One Time Profile Registration (OPTR)

  • After visiting the official website, under the notifications tab candidates can see step by step registration process  Under Step 1  One Time Profile Registration (OPTR), hit the link Click Here
  • The page will be redirected to a new page opens, which displays as under

AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification

  • Now enter all the necessary details like Name of the Applicant, Gender, Mobile Number, Date of Birth, Aadhar Number, etc.,
  • Now Click on Choose File to Upload Photograph and Signature in the required Format.
  • Solve the Captcha and Click on “Upload”

After clicking upload, candidates will receive One Time Profile Registration (OPTR) Number to their registered mobile number.

Step – 2: Submit the Online Application

  • Now Visit the official website again and under the notifications tab candidates can see step by a step registration process of AP Grama Sachivalayam Application form. Under Step 2 – Submit Online Application Formhit the link “Click Here“.
  • The page will be redirected to a new page opens as under

AP Grama Sachivalayam Application Form

  • Click on the post which you want to apply for
  • Now the page directs and where you have to log in with the help of your OPTR Number followed by Date of Birth.

AP Grama Sachivalayam Application Form 21

  • Now solve the captcha and Click on Submit.
  • Now enter all the necessary details in the application form and click on submit.

Step – 3: Payment

In order to complete the application form candidates must Process the application fee payment. The application fee varies from each category. AP Grama Sachivalayam Application form fees vary from one category to another category and are tabulated as follow:

Application FeeRs 200
Examination FeeRs 200
SC, ST, BC, PH & Ex-Service MenRs 200 (Only Application Fee)
Non-local candidate in addition to his/her local district will be charged an additional fee per district (Maximum of 3 districts)Rs 100

Direct Link for Fee Payment

AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification and Application Direct Links

AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification & Application Links are tabulated below:

List of PostsNotification LinkApplication Link
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Panchayat SecretaryClick HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Village Revenue Officer (VRO) (Grade-II)Click HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For ANMs (Grade-III)Click HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Animal Husbandry AssistantClick HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Village Fisheries AssistantClick HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Village Horticulture AssistantClick HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Village Agriculture Assistant (Grade-II)Click HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Village Sericulture AssistantClick HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Mahila Police and Women & Child Welfare AssistantClick HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Engineering Assistant (Grade-II)Click HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Panchayat Secretary (Grade-VI) Digital AssistantClick HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Village Surveyor (Grade-III)Click HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Welfare and Education AssistantClick HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Urban
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Ward Administrative SecretaryClick HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Ward Amenities Secretary (Grade-II)Click HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Ward Sanitation & Environment Secretary (Grade-II)Click HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Ward Education & Data Processing SecretaryClick HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Ward Planning & Regulation Secretary (Grade-II)Click HereClick Here
AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification For Ward welfare & Development secretary (Grade-II)Click HereClick Here

AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification Selection Procedure

AP Grama Sachivalayam posts will be held through written exam and interview to be conducted through AP DSC (Direct Selection Committee). Officials will shortlist the candidates based on the marks obtained in the Written exam. Next Shortlisted Candidates will have to complete the document verification process, where students have to bring their original documents and get them verified. Those candidates who would be unable to produce original documents at the time of document verification will not be considered for final selection.

Now we have provided all the necessary information about AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification 2019. If you have any doubts regarding this post or AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification 2019, please comment in the comment section we will get back to you at the earliest.

The post AP Grama Sachivalayam Notification | Apply Online for 1.6 Lakh+ Vacancies @ gramasachivalayam.ap.gov.in appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Practical Work in Geography Class 11 Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Maps

$
0
0

Practical Work in Geography Class 11 Solutions

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1(i).
Which one of the following is essential for the network of lines and polygons to be called a map?
(a) Map Legend
(b) Symbols
(c) North Direction
(d) Map Scale.
Answer:
(d) Map Scale.

Question 1(ii).
A map bearing a scale of 1: 4000 and larger is called:
(a) Cadastral map
(b) Topographical map
(c) Wall map
(d) Atlas map.
Answer:
(a) Cadastral map

Question 1(iii).
Which one of the following is NOT an essential element of maps?
(a) Map Projection
(b) Map Generalisation
(c) Map Design
(d) History of Maps
Answer:
(d) History of Maps

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2(i).
What is map generalisation?
Answer:
As maps are drawn at a reduced scale to serve a definite purpose, it is the job of a cartographer is to generalise the map contents. In doing so, a cartographer must select the data relevant to the selected theme and simplify it as per the needs. It is called map generalization. Every map is drawn with a definite objective. For example, a general purpose map is drawn to show information of a general nature such as relief, drainage, vegetation, settlements, means of transportation, etc. Similarly, a special purpose map exhibits information pertaining to one or more selected themes like population density, soil types or location of industries. It is, therefore, necessary to carefully plan the map contents while the purpose of the map must be kept in the forefront.

Question 2(ii).
Why is map design important?
Answer:
Map Design is very important as it involves the planning of graphic characteristics of maps including the selection of appropriate symbols, their size and form, style of lettering, specifying the width of lines, selection of colours and shades, arrangement of various elements of map design within a map and design for map legend. The map design is a complex aspect of map-making and requires thorough understanding of the principles that govern the effectiveness of graphic communication.

Question 2(iii).
What are different types of small-scale maps?
Answer:
Small-scale maps are divided into two types:

  1. Wall Maps: These maps are generally drawn on large size paper or on plastic base for use in classrooms or lecture halls. The scale of wall maps is generally smaller than the scale of topographical maps but larger than atlas maps.
  2. Atlas Maps: Atlas maps are very small-scale maps. These maps represent fairly large areas and present highly generalized picture of the physical or cultural features. Even so, an atlas map serves as a graphic encyclopaedia of the geographical information about the world, continents, countries or regions.

Question 2(iv).
List out two major types of large-scale maps?
Answer:
Large-scale maps are divided into two types:

  1. Cadastral maps: The term ‘cadastral’ is derived from the French word ‘cadastre’ meaning ‘register of territorial property’. These maps are drawn to show the ownership of landed property by demarcating field boundaries of agricultural land and the plan of individual houses in urban areas. The cadastral maps are prepared by the government agencies to realise revenue and taxes, along with keeping a record of ownership.
  2. Topographical Maps: These maps are also prepared on a fairly large scale. The topographical maps are based on precise surveys and are prepared in the form of series of maps made by the national mapping agencies of almost all countries of the world. These maps follow uniform colours and symbols to show topographic details such as relief, drainage, agricultural land, forest, settlements, means of communication, location of schools, post offices and other services and facilities.

Question 2(v).
Is a map different from a sketch?
Answer:
A simplified map drawn freehand which fails to preserve the true scale or orientation. Map is a part of the earth’s surface on a plane surface at a reduced scale. It may also be understood that a simple network of lines and polygons without a scale shall not be called a map. It is only referred to as “the sketch”. In simple words, map has a specific scale and sketch does not have a scale. Map is drawn scientifically and sketch is drawn roughly. Sketch drawing is an art while map making is a science and science of maps is called cartography.

3. Write an explanatory account of types of maps.
Answer:
Practical Work in Geography Class 11 Solutions Chapter 1 Q3
On the basis of scale:
1. Large-scale maps: These maps are drawn to show small areas at a relatively large-scale. For example, the topographical maps drawn at a scale of 1 : 250,000, 1 : 50,000 or 1 : 25,000 and the village maps, the zonal plans of the cities and house plans prepared on a scale of 1: 4,000,1: 2,000 and 1: 500 are large-scale maps. These are of two types:

  1. Cadastral Maps
  2. Topographical Maps

2. Small-scale maps: These maps are drawn to show large areas. These are of two types:

  1. Wall Maps and
  2. Atlas Maps

On the basis of functions, maps are of two types:

  1. Physical maps: Physical maps show natural features such as relief, geology, soils, drainage, elements of weather, climate and vegetation, etc. Physical maps include relief maps, geological maps and climatic maps.
  2. Cultural maps: Cultural maps show man-made features. These include a variety of maps showing population distribution and growth, sex and age, social and religious composition, literacy, levels of educational attainment, occupational structure, location of settlements, facilities and services, transportation lines and production, distribution and flow of different commodities. It includes political maps, population maps, economic maps and transportation maps.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a type of physical map?
(а) Relief Map
(b) Geological Maps
(c) Climate Maps
(d) Transportation Maps
Answer:
(d) transportation Maps

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a type of cultural maps?
(а) Political Maps
(b) Population Maps
(c) Soil Maps
(d) Economic Maps
Answer:
(c) Soil Maps

Question 3.
What is shown under geological maps?
(a) Temperature and rain
(b) Plateaus, plains and mountains
(c) Geological structure, types of rocks
(d) Types of Soils
Answer:
(c) Geological structure, types of rocks

Question 4.
Which of the following is not an essential for map making?
(a) Scale
(b) Map Design
(c) Sketch
(d) Map Generalization
Answer:
(c) Sketch

Question 5.
A system of transformation of the spherical surface to the plane surface is called:
(a) Map projection
(b) Geoid
(c) Map Designing
(d) Sketch
Answer:
(a) Map Projection

Question 6.
An oblate spheroid whose shape resembles the actual shape of the Earth is called:
(a) Map projection
(b) Geoid
(c) Map Designing
(d) Sketch
Answer:
(b) Geoid

Question 7.
Which of the following is not relief map?
(a) Mountain
(b) Plateau
(c) Soil
(d) Plains
Answer:
(c) Soil

Question 8.
When was Survey of India established?
(a) 1767
(b)1772
(c) 1785
(d) 1905
Answer:
(a)T767

Question 9.
When was first map was made by India by Survey of India?
(a) 1767
(b)1772
(c) 1785
(d) 1905
Answer:
(c) 1785

Question 10.
What is not shown under climate maps?
(a) Temperature
(b) Direction of winds
(c) Rain
(d) Ecological System
Answer:
(d) Ecological System

Question 11.
In how many continents have Indian ancient scholars divided the world?
(a) Seven
(b) Five
(c) none
(d) Eleven
Answer:
(a) Seven

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is a map?
Answer:
A map is a simplified depiction of whole or part of the earth on a piece of paper. In other words, it is a two-dimensional form of the three-dimensional earth.

Question 2.
How is scale expressed on a map?
Answer:
Scale is expressed in three ways on a map:

  1. By a statement
  2. By graphical or bar scale
  3. By representative fraction method

Question 3.
Differentiate between globe and map.
Answer:

S.No.GlobeMap
1.Globe is such a model of the earth which gives us the right form of the earth.A map is a simplified depiction of whole or part of the earth on a piece of paper.
2.It is more accurate but it is difficult to use it.It is relatively less accurate but it is easy to be handled.
3.It is three dimensional.It is two dimensional.

Question 4.
What are the essentials of map making?
Answer:
There are five essentials of map making. These are: Scale, map projection, map generalisation, map design and map construction and production.

Question 5.
What is the importance of maps for geographers?
Answer:
Maps are extremely important for a geographer. Without maps, a geographer is like armless soldier. Maps provide him extremely important information.

Question 6.
What are two components of a map?
Answer:
Distance and direction are two com-ponents of maps.

Question 7.
What are important directions?
Answer:
Important directions are North (N), South (S), East (E) and West (W).

Question 8.
What are the important relationships that we search in maps?
Answer:
We search the following physical relationships in a map:

  • Shapes of land forms, oceans and political units;
  • their areas;
  • distances between the places;
  • direction of each place in context of other places;
  • location of different places in context of entire earth.

Question 9.
What are the basic limitations of maps?
Answer:
Map is two dimensional. It is impossible to present the accurate shape of the earth with the help of map. Moreover, it can’t be accurate in terms of area, volume and distance. Above all, we cannot show the entire earth on a map without disturbing its shape.

Question 10.
When was oldest map drawn?
Answer:
The oldest map was found in Mesopotamia drawn on a clay tablet that belongs to 2,500 B.C.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Why are maps considered an important tool for geography?
Answer:
Geographers need maps for following purposes:

  • To get information about resources, their development and planning for their utilization;
  • To study changes that are taking place on the earth;
  • To understand various physical factors;
  • To understand the inter-relationship between physical and human resources;
  • To make a comparative analysis and
  • To present facts in a way that has a memorizing effect.

Question 2.
How is area of map measured using a planimeter?
Answer:
The area calculation is also carried out using Polar Planimeter. In this instrument, a measure is made of the movement of a rod whose locus is constrained by having one end fixed to a radial arc. The area to be measured is traced along its perimeter in a clockwise direction with an index mark, starting from one convenient point to which the index of the tracing arm must exactly return. Reading on the dial, before and after the tracing of area’s perimeter, will give a value in instrumental units. These readings are multiplied by the same constant for the particular instrument to convert into areas in square inches or centimetres.

Question 3.
How is direction of map measured?
Answer:
Direction is defined as an imaginary straight line on the map showing the angular position to a common base direction. The line pointing to the north is zero direction or the base direction line. A map always shows the north direction. All other directions are determined in to this relation. The north direction enables the map- user to locate different features with respect to each other. The four commonly known directions are North, South, East and West. These are also called the cardinal points. In between the cardinal points, one may have several intermediate directions.

Question 4.
How is distance between maps measured by geographer, planner and other resource researcher?
Answer:
The linear features shown on the maps fall into two broad categories, i. e. straight lines and erratic or zigzag lines. The measurement of straight line features like roads, railway lines and canals is simple. It can be taken directly with a pair of dividers or a scale placed on the map surface. However, distances are required, more often, along erratic paths, i.e. the coastlines, rivers and streams. The distances along all such features can be measured by placing a thread at the starting point and carrying it along the line up to the end point. The thread is then stretched and measured to determine the distance. It can also be measured by using a simple instrument called Rotameter. The wheel of the ‘rotameter’ is moved along the route to measure the distance.

Question 5.
Explain in detail about physical maps.
Answer:
Physical maps: Physical maps show- natural features such as relief, geology, soils, drainage, elements of weather, climate and vegetation, etc. These are of following types:

  1. Relief Maps: Relief maps show general topography of an area like mountains and valleys, plains, plateaus and drainage.
  2. Geological maps: Geological Maps are drawn to show geological structures, rock types, etc.
  3. Climatic Maps: Climatic Maps depict climatic regions of an area. Besides, maps are also drawn to show the distribution of temperature.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the essentials of map making.
Answer:
There are five essentials of map making. These are: Scale, map projection, map generalisation, map design and map construction and production.

1. Scale: All maps are reductions. The first decision that a map-maker has to take is about the scale of the map. The choice of scale is of utmost importance. The scale of a map sets limits of information contents and the degree of reality with which it can be delineated on the map.

2. Projection: Maps are a simplified representation of the three-dimensional surface of the earth on a plane sheet of paper. The transformation of all-side- curved-geoidal surface into a plane surface is another important aspect of the cartographic process. Such a radical transformation introduces some unavoidable changes in directions, distances, areas and shapes from the way they appear on a geoid. A system of transformation of the spherical surface to the plane surface is called a map projection. Hence, the choice, utilisation and construction of projections is of prime importance in map-making.

3. Generalisation: Every map is drawn with a definite objective. For example, a general purpose map is drawn to show information of a general nature such as relief, drainage, vegetation, settlements, means of transportation, etc. Similarly, a special purpose map exhibits information pertaining to one or more selected themes like population density, soil types or location of industries. It is, therefore, necessary to carefully plan the map contents while the purpose of the map must be kept in the forefront.

4. Map Design: It involves the planning of graphic characteristics of maps including the selection of appropriate symbols, their size and form, style of lettering, specifying the width of lines, selection of colours and shades, arrangement of various elements of map design within a map and design for map legend.

5. Map Construction and Production: The drawing of maps and their reproduction is the fifth major task in the cartographic process. It can be manual or computerised method.

Question 2.
How does a geographer measure the distance?
Answer:
The measurement of area of features like that of administrative and geographic units is also carried out over the surface of the map by map-users. There are different methods in which areas can be determined.

1. By means of regular pattern of squares: In this method, the area to be measured is covered by squares by
placing a sheet of graph paper beneath the map on an illuminated tracing table or by tracing the area onto the square sheet. The total number of ‘whole squares’ are summed up, together with ‘partial squares’. The area is then determined by a simple equation:
Practical Work in Geography Class 11 Solutions Chapter 1 LA Q3

2. By using Polar Planimeter: In this instrument, a measure is made of the movement of a rod whose locus is constrained by having one end fixed to a radial arc. The area to be measured is traced along its perimeter in a clockwise direction with an index mark, starting from one convenient point to which the index of the tracing arm must exactly return. Reading on the dial, before and after the tracing of area’s perimeter, will give a value in instrumental units. These readings are multiplied by the same constant for the particular instrument to convert into areas in square inches or centimetres.

Question 3.
Explain in detail about cultural maps.
Answer:
Cultural Maps: Cultural maps show man-made features. These include a variety of maps showing population distribution and growth, sex and age, social and religious composition, literacy, levels of educational attainment, occupational structure, location of settlements, facilities and services, transportation lines and production, distribution and flow of different commodities.

  • Political Maps: These maps show the administrative divisions of an area such as country, state or district. These maps facilitate the administrative machinery in planning and management of the concerned administrative unit.
  • Population Maps: The population maps are drawn to show the distribution, density and growth of population, age and sex composition, distribution of religious, linguistic and social groups, occupational structure of the population, etc.
  • Economic Maps: Economic maps depict production and distribution of different types of crops and minerals, location of industries and markets, routes for trade and flow of commodities.
  • Transportation Maps: These maps show roads, railway lines and the location of railway stations and airports.

Class 11 Practical Work in Geography Chapter 1 Viva Questions

Question 1.
Why is Ratometer used?
Answer:
Ratometer is an instrument used to measure distance on a map.

Question 2.
Why is Planimeter used?
Answer:
Planimeter is an instrument used to measure area on a map.

Question 3.
Where was oldest map found?
Answer:
The oldest map was found in Mesopotamia drawn on a clay tablet that belongs to 2,500 B.C.

Question 4.
Which maps are generally drawn on large size paper or on plastic base for use in classrooms or lecture halls?
Answer:
Wall maps are generally drawn on large size paper or on plastic base for use in classrooms or lecture halls.

Question 5.
Give formula for measuring distance used by geographers.
Answer:
Practical Work in Geography Class 11 Solutions Chapter 1 Viva Q5

Question 6.
What do we call a system of transformation of the spherical surface to the plane surface?
Answer:
Map Projection.

Question 7.
What do we call an oblate spheroid whose shape resembles the actual shape of the Earth?
Answer:
Geoid.

Question 8.
When was Survey of India established?
Answer:
1767.

Question 9.
When was first map made by Survey of India?
Answer:
1785.

Question 10.
In how many continents have Indian ancient scholars divided the world?
Answer:
Seven.

Introduction to Maps Notes

  • The history of map making is as old as the history of mankind itself. The oldest map was found in Mesopotamia drawn on a clay tablet that belongs to 2,500 B.C.
  • Greek and the Arab geographers laid the foundation of modern cartography. The measurement of the circumference of the Earth and the use of the system of geographical coordinates in map-making are some of the significant contributions of the Greeks and the Arabs. ,
  • The art and science of map making was revitalised in early modern period, with extensive efforts made to minimise the effects of the transformation of the geoid onto a plane surface.
  • The maps were drawn on different projections to obtain true directions, correct distances and to measure area accurately. The aerial photography supplemented the ground method of survey and the uses of aerial photographs stimulated map-making in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries.
    Introduction to Maps Notes 1
  • The foundation of map-making in India was laid during the Vedic period when the expressions of astronomical truths and cosmological revelations were made. The expressions were crystallised into ‘sidhantas’ or laws in classical treaties of Arya Bhatta, Varahamihira and Bhaskara, and others. Ancient Indian scholars divided the known world into seven ‘dwipas’. Mahabharata conceived a round world surrounded by water.
  • Todarmal pioneered land surveying and map-making as an integral part of the revenue collection procedure. Besides, Sher Shah Suri’s revenue maps further enriched the mapping techniques during the medieval period.
  • The intensive topographical surveys for the preparation of up-to-date maps of the entire country, were taken up with the setting up of the Survey of India in 1767, which culminated with the map of Hindustan in 1785. Today, the Survey of India produces maps at different scales for the entire country.
  • On the basis of scale, maps may be classified into large-scale and small-scale.
  • Large scale maps are drawn to show small areas at a relatively large-scale. For example, the topographical maps drawn at a scale of 1: 250,000,1:50,000 or 1:25,000 and the village maps, the zonal plans of the cities and house plans prepared on a scale of 1:4,000, 1:2,000 and 1:500 are large scale maps.
  • On the contrary, small-scale maps are drawn to show large areas. For example, atlas maps, wall maps, etc.
  • Large-scale maps may be shown as Cadastral maps and Topographical maps
  • The cadastral maps are prepared by the government agencies to realise revenue and taxes, along with keeping a record of ownership. These maps are drawn on a very large scale, such as the cadastral maps of villages at 1: 4,000 scale and the city plans at a scale of 1: 2,000 and larger.
  • Topographical Maps are also prepared on a fairly large scale. The topographical maps are based on precise surveys and are prepared in the form of series of maps made by the national mapping agencies of almost all countries of the world.
  • Small-scale maps are further divided into Wall Maps and Atlas Maps.
  • Wall Maps are generally drawn on large size paper or on plastic base for use in classrooms or lecture halls. The scale of wall maps is generally smaller than the scale of topographical maps but larger than atlas maps.
  • Atlas Maps are very small-scale maps. These maps represent fairly large areas and present highly generalised picture of the physical or cultural features.
  • Broadly, maps based on their functions may be classified into physical maps and cultural maps. Physical maps show natural features such as relief, geology, soils, drainage, elements of weather, climate and vegetation, etc.
  • Relief maps show general topography of an area like mountains and valleys, plains, plateaus and drainage. Geological Maps are drawn to show geological structures, rock types, etc.
  • Climatic Maps depict climatic regions of an area. Besides, maps are also drawn to show the distribution of temperature.
  • Ratometer is an instrument used to measure distance on a map and planimetre is an instrument used to measure area on a map.
  • The linear features shown on the maps fall into two broad categories, i.e. straight lines and erratic or zigzag lines. The measurement of straight line features like roads, railway lines and canals is simple. It can be taken directly with a pair of dividers or a scale placed on the map surface.
  • The processes that may also be referred to as essentials of maps are:
    • Scale
    • Map Projection
    • Map Generalisation
    • Map Design
    • Map Construction and Production

Important Terms

  • Maps: A map is a simplified depiction of whole or part of the earth on a piece of paper. In other words, it is a two-dimensional form of the three-dimensional earth.
  • Geoid: An oblate spheroid whose shape resembles the actual shape of the Earth.
  • Cadastral map: It is a large-scale map drawn at a scale of 1: 500 to 1: 4000 to show property boundaries, designating each parcel of land with a number.
  • Cardinal points: North (N), South (S), East (E) and West (W) are called cardinal points.
  • Cartography: It is an art, science and technology of making maps, charts, plans and other modes of graphical expression as well as their study and use.
  • Map series: It is a group of maps produced at same scale, style and specifications for a country or a region.
  • Map projection: The system of the transformation of the spherical surface onto a plane surface is called map projection.
  • Scale: The ratio between the distances of two points on the map, plan or photograph and the actual distance between the same two points on the ground is called scale.
  • Direction: Direction is defined as an imaginary straight line on the map showing the angular position to a common base direction.
  • Zero direction or the base direction line: The line pointing to the north is zero direction or the base direction line.
  • Ratometer: It is an instrument used to measure distance on a map.
  • Sketch map: It is a simplified map drawn freehand which fails to preserve the true scale or orientation.
  • Large-scale maps: These maps are drawn to show small areas at a relatively large-scale. For example, the topographical maps drawn at a scale of 1: 250,000,1: 50,000 or 1: 25,000 and the village maps, the zonal plans of the cities and house plans prepared on a scale of 1 : 4,000, 1 : 2,000 and 1 : 500 are large scale maps.
  • Small-scale maps: These maps are drawn to show large areas. For example, atlas maps, wall maps, etc.
  • The cadastral maps: These maps are prepared by the government agencies to realise revenue and taxes, along with keeping a record of ownership. These maps are drawn on a very large scale, such as the cadastral maps of villages at 1: 4,000 scale and the city plans at a scale of 1 : 2,000 and larger.
  • Topographical maps: The topographical maps are based on precise surveys and are prepared in the form of series of maps made by the national mapping agencies of almost all countries of the world. These maps are also prepared on a fairly large scale.
  • Wall maps: These maps are generally drawn on large size paper or on plastic base for use in classrooms or lecture halls. The scale of wall maps is generally smaller than the scale of topographical maps but larger than atlas maps.
  • Atlas maps: These maps are very small-scale maps. These maps represent fairly large areas and present highly generalised picture of the physical or cultural features.
  • Physical maps: Physical maps show natural features such as relief, geology, soils, drainage, elements of weather, climate and vegetation, etc.
  • Relief maps: Relief maps show general topography of an area like mountains and valleys, plains, plateaus and drainage.
  • Geological maps: Geological Maps are drawn to show geological structures, rock types, etc.
  • Climatic Maps: Climatic Maps depict climatic regions of an area. Besides, maps are also drawn to show the distribution of temperature.
  • Cultural maps: Cultural maps show man-made features. These include a variety of maps showing population distribution and growth, sex and age, social and religious composition, literacy, levels of educational attainment, occupational structure, location of settlements, facilities and services, transportation lines and production, distribution and flow of different commodities.
  • Political maps: These maps show the administrative divisions of an area such as country, state or district. These maps facilitate the administrative machinery in planning and management of the concerned administrative unit.
  • Population maps: The population maps are drawn to show the distribution, density and growth of population, age and sex composition, distribution of religious, linguistic and social groups, occupational structure of the population, etc.
  • Economic maps: Economic maps depict production and distribution of different types of crops and minerals, location of industries and markets, routes for trade and flow of commodities.
  • Transportation maps: These maps show roads, railway lines and the location of railway stations and airports.
  • Planimeter: It is an instrument used to measure area on a map.
  • Generalisation map: It is a simplified representation of the features on the map, appropriate to its scale or purpose, without affecting their visual form. A selective, symbolised and generalised representation of the whole or part of the earth at a reduced scale.

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Practical Work in Geography Class 11 Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Maps appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers

$
0
0

Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers

Real Numbers Class 10 Important Questions Very Short Answer (1 Mark)

Question 1.
The decimal expansion of the rational number \frac { 43 }{ { 2 }^{ 4 }{ 5 }^{ 3 } } will terminate after how many places of decimals? (2013)
Solution:
Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Q1

Question 2.
Write the decimal form of \frac { 129 }{ { 2 }^{ 7 }{ 5 }^{ 7 }{ 7 }^{ 5 } }
Solution:
Non-terminating non-repeating.

Question 3.
Find the largest number that will divide 398, 436 and 542 leaving remainders 7, 11, and 15 respectively.
Solution:
Algorithm
398 – 7 = 391, 436 – 11 = 425, 542 – 15 = 527
HCF of 391, 425, 527 = 17

Question 4.
Express 98 as a product of its primes.
Solution:
2 × 72

Question 5.
If the HCF of 408 and 1032 is expressible in the form 1032 × 2 + 408 × p, then find the value of p.
Solution:
HCF of 408 and 1032 is 24.
1032 × 2 + 408 × (p) = 24
408p = 24 – 2064
p = -5

Real Numbers Class 10 Important Questions Short Answer-I (2 Mark)

Question 6.
HCF and LCM of two numbers is 9 and 459 respectively. If one of the numbers is 27, find the other number. (2012)
Solution:
We know,
1st number × 2nd number = HCF × LCM
⇒ 27 × 2nd number = 9 × 459
⇒ 2nd number = \frac { 9\times 459 }{ 27 } = 153

Question 7.
Find HCF and LCM of 13 and 17 by prime factorisation method. (2013)
Solution:
13 = 1 × 13; 17 = 1 × 17
HCF = 1 and LCM = 13 × 17 = 221

Question 8.
Find LCM of numbers whose prime factorisation are expressible as 3 × 52 and 32 × 72. (2014)
Solution:
LCM (3 × 52, 32 × 72) = 32 × 52 × 72 = 9 × 25 × 49 = 11025

Question 9.
Find the LCM of 96 and 360 by using fundamental theorem of arithmetic. (2012)
Solution:
96 = 25 × 3
360 = 23 × 32 × 5
LCM = 25 × 32 × 5 = 32 × 9 × 5 = 1440
Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Q9

Question 10.
Find the HCF (865, 255) using Euclid’s division lemma. (2013)
Solution:
865 > 255
865 = 255 × 3 + 100
255 = 100 × 2 + 55
100 = 55 × 1 + 45
55 = 45 × 1 + 10
45 = 10 × 4 + 5
10 = 5 × 2 + 0
The remainder is 0.
HCF = 5
Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Q10

Question 11.
Find the largest number which divides 70 and 125 leaving remainder 5 and 8 respectively. (2015)
Solution:
It is given that on dividing 70 by the required number, there is a remainder 5.
This means that 70 – 5 = 65 is exactly divisible by the required number.
Similarly, 125 – 8 = 117 is also exactly divisible by the required number.
65 = 5 × 13
117 = 32 × 13
HCF = 13
Required number = 13

Question 12.
Find the prime factorisation of the denominator of rational number expressed as 6.\bar { 12 } in simplest form. (2014)
Solution:
Let x = 6.\bar { 12 } …(i)
100x = 612.\bar { 12 } …(ii)
…[Multiplying both sides by 100]
Subtracting (i) from (ii),
99x = 606
x = \frac { 606 }{ 99 } = \frac { 202 }{ 33 }
Denominator = 33
Prime factorisation = 3 × 11

Question 13.
Complete the following factor tree and find the composite number x. (2014)
Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Q13
Solution:
y = 5 × 13 = 65
x = 3 × 195 = 585

Question 14.
Prove that 2 + 3√5 is an irrational number. (2014)
Solution:
Let us assume, to the contrary, that 2 + 3√5 is rational.
So that we can find integers a and b (b ≠ 0).
Such that 2 + 3√5 = \frac { a }{ b }, where a and b are coprime.
Rearranging the above equation, we get
Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Q14
Since a and b are integers, we get \frac { a }{ 3b } -\frac { 2 }{ 3 } is rational and so √5 is rational.
But this contradicts the fact that √5 is irrational.
So, we conclude that 2 + 3√5 is irrational.

Question 15.
Show that 3√7 is an irrational number. (2016)
Solution:
Let us assume, to the contrary, that 3√7 is rational.
That is, we can find coprime a and b (b ≠ 0) such that 3√7 = \frac { a }{ b }
Rearranging, we get √7 = \frac { a }{ 3b }
Since 3, a and b are integers, \frac { a }{ 3b } is rational, and so √7 is rational.
But this contradicts the fact that √7 is irrational.
So, we conclude that 3√7 is irrational.

Question 16.
Explain why (17 × 5 × 11 × 3 × 2 + 2 × 11) is a composite number? (2015)
Solution:
17 × 5 × 11 × 3 × 2 + 2 × 11 …(i)
= 2 × 11 × (17 × 5 × 3 + 1)
= 2 × 11 × (255 + 1)
= 2 × 11 × 256
Number (i) is divisible by 2, 11 and 256, it has more than 2 prime factors.
Therefore (17 × 5 × 11 × 3 × 2 + 2 × 11) is a composite number.

Question 17.
Check whether 4n can end with the digit 0 for any natural number n. (2015)
Solution:
4n = (22)n = 22n
The only prime in the factorization of 4n is 2.
There is no other prime in the factorization of 4n = 22n
(By uniqueness of the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic).
5 does not occur in the prime factorization of 4n for any n.
Therefore, 4n does not end with the digit zero for any natural number n.

Question 18.
Can two numbers have 15 as their HCF and 175 as their LCM? Give reasons. (2017 OD)
Solution:
No,
LCM = Product of the highest power of each factor involved in the numbers.
HCF = Product of the smallest power of each common factor.
We can conclude that LCM is always a multiple of HCF, i.e., LCM = k x HCF
We are given that,
LCM = 175 and HCF = 15
175 = k × 15
⇒ 11.67 = k
But in this case, LCM ≠ k × HCF
Therefore, two numbers cannot have LCM as 175 and HCF as 15.

Real Numbers Class 10 Important Questions Short Answer-II (3 Mark)

Question 19.
Prove that √5 is irrational and hence show that 3 + √5 is also irrational. (2012)
Solution:
Let us assume, to the contrary, that √5 is rational.
So, we can find integers p and q (q ≠ 0), such that
√5 = \frac { p }{ q }, where p and q are coprime.
Squaring both sides, we get
5 = \frac { { p }^{ 2 } }{ { q }^{ 2 } }
⇒ 5q2 = p2 …(i)
⇒ 5 divides p2
5 divides p
So, let p = 5r
Putting the value of p in (i), we get
5q2 = (5r)2
⇒ 5q2 = 25r2
⇒ q2 = 5r2
⇒ 5 divides q2
5 divides q
So, p and q have atleast 5 as a common factor.
But this contradicts the fact that p and q have no common factor.
So, our assumption is wrong, is irrational.
√5 is irrational, 3 is a rational number.
So, we conclude that 3 + √5 is irrational.

Question 20.
Prove that 3 + 2√3 is an irrational number. (2014)
Solution:
Let us assume to the contrary, that 3 + 2√3 is rational.
So that we can find integers a and b (b ≠ 0).
Such that 3 + 2√3 = \frac { a }{ b }, where a and b are coprime.
Rearranging the equations, we get
Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Q20
Since a and b are integers, we get \frac { a }{ 2b } -\frac { 3 }{ 2 } is rational and so √3 is rational.
But this contradicts the fact that √3 is irrational.
So we conclude that 3 + 2√3 is irrational.

Question 21.
Three bells toll at intervals of 9, 12, 15 minutes respectively. If they start tolling together, after what time will they next toll together? (2013)
Solution:
9 = 32, 12 = 22 × 3, 15 = 3 × 5
LCM = 22 × 32 × 5 = 4 × 9 × 5 = 180 minutes or 3 hours
They will next toll together after 3 hours.

Question 22.
Two tankers contain 850 liters and 680 liters of petrol. Find the maximum capacity of a container which can measure the petrol of each tanker in the exact number of times. (2012)
Solution:
To find the maximum capacity of a container which can measure the petrol of each tanker in exact number of times, we find the HCF of 850 and 680.
850 = 2 × 52 × 17
680 = 23 × 5 × 17
HCF = 2 × 5 × 17 = 170
Maximum capacity of the container = 170 liters.
Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Q22

Question 23.
The length, breadth and height of a room are 8 m 50 cm, 6 m 25 cm and 4 m 75 cm respectively. Find the length of the longest rod that can measure the dimensions of the room exactly. (2015)
Solution:
To find the length of the longest rod that can measure the dimensions of the room exactly, we have to find HCF.
L, Length = 8 m 50 cm = 850 cm = 21 × 52 × 17
B, Breadth = 6 m 25 cm = 625 cm = 54
H, Height = 4 m 75 cm = 475 cm = 52 × 19
HCF of L, B and H is 52 = 25 cm
Length of the longest rod = 25 cm

Question 24.
Three alarm clocks ring at intervals of 4, 12 and 20 minutes respectively. If they start ringing together, after how much time will they next ring together? (2015)
Solution:
To find the time when the clocks will next ring together, we have to find LCM of 4, 12 and 20 minutes.
4 = 22
12 = 22 × 3
20 = 22 × 5
Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Q24
LCM of 4, 12 and 20 = 22 × 3 × 5 = 60 minutes.
So, the clocks will ring together again after 60 minutes or one hour.

Question 25.
In a school, there are two Sections A and B of class X. There are 48 students in Section A and 60 students in Section B. Determine the least number of books required for the library of the school so that the books can be distributed equally among all students of each Section. (2017 OD)
Solution:
Since the books are to be distributed equally among the students of Section A and Section B. therefore, the number of books must be a multiple of 48 as well as 60.
Hence, required num¬ber of books is the LCM of 48 and 60.
48 = 24 × 3
60 = 22 × 3 × 5
LCM = 24 × 3 × 5 = 16 × 15 = 240
Hence, required number of books is 240.
Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Q25

Question 26.
By using Euclid’s algorithm, find the largest number which divides 650 and 1170. (2017 OD)
Solution:
Given numbers are 650 and 1170.
1170 > 650
1170 = 650 × 1 + 520
650 = 520 × 1 + 130
520 = 130 × 4 + 0
HCF = 130
The required largest number is 130.

Question 27.
Find the HCF of 255 and 867 by Euclid’s divi¬sion algorithm. (2014)
Solution:
867 is greater than 255. We apply the division lemma to 867 and 255, to get
867 = 255 × 3 + 102
We continue the process till the remainder is zero
255 = 102 × 2 + 51
102 = 51 × 2 + 0, the remainder is zero.
HCF = 51
Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Q27

Question 28.
Using Euclid’s division algorithm, find whether the pair of numbers 847, 2160 are coprime or not.
To find out the minimum (least) time when the bells toll together next, we find the LCM of 9, 12, 15.
Solution:
Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Q28

Real Numbers Class 10 Important Questions Long Answer (4 Marks)

Question 29.
Prove that 3 + 2√5 is irrational. (2012, 2017 D)
Solution:
Let us assume, to the contrary, that 3 + 2√5 is rational
So that we can find integers a and b (b ≠ 0), such that
3 + 2 √5 = \frac { a }{ b }, where a and b are coprime.
Rearranging this equation, we get
Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Q29
Since a and b are integers, we get that \frac { a }{ 2b }\frac { 3 }{ 2 } is rational and so √5 is rational.
But this contradicts the fact that √5 is irrational.
So we conclude that 3 + 2√5 is irrational.

Question 30.
There are 104 students in class X and 96 stu¬dents in class IX in a school. In a house examination, the students are to be evenly seated in parallel rows such that no two adjacent rows are of the same class. (2013)
(a) Find the maximum number of parallel rows of each class for the seating arrange¬ment.
(b) Also, find the number of students of class IX and also of class X in a row.
(c) What is the objective of the school administration behind such an arrangement?
Solution:
104 = 23 × 13
96 = 25 × 3
HCF = 23 = 8
Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Q30
(a) Number of rows of students of class X = \frac { 104 }{ 8 } = 13
Number maximum of rows class IX = \frac { 96 }{ 8 } = 12
Total number of rows = 13 + 12 = 25
(b) No. of students of class IX in a row = 8
No. of students of class X in a row = 8
(c) The objective of school administration behind such an arrangement is fair and clean examination, so that no student can take help from any other student of his/her class.

Question 31.
Dudhnath has two vessels containing 720 ml and 405 ml of milk respectively. Milk from these containers is poured into glasses of equal capacity to their brim. Find the minimum number of glasses that can be filled. (2014)
Solution:
1st vessel = 720 ml; 2nd vessel = 405 ml
We find the HCF of 720 and 405 to find the maximum quantity of milk to be filled in one glass.
405 = 34 × 5
720 = 24 × 32 × 5
HCF = 32 × 5 = 45 ml = Capacity of glass
No. of glasses filled from 1st vessel = \frac { 720 }{ 45 } = 16
No. of glasses filled from 2nd vessel = \frac { 405 }{ 45 } = 9
Total number of glasses = 25

Question 32.
Amita, Sneha, and Raghav start preparing cards for all persons of an old age home. In order to complete one card, they take 10, 16 and 20 minutes respectively. If all of them started together, after what time will they start preparing a new card together? (2013)
Solution:
To find the earliest (least) time, they will start preparing a new card together, we find the LCM of 10, 16 and 20.
10 = 2 × 5
16 = 24
20 = 22 × 5
LCM = 24 × 5 = 16 × 5 = 80 minutes
They will start preparing a new card together after 80 minutes.

Question 33.
Find HCF of numbers 134791, 6341 and 6339 by Euclid’s division algorithm. (2015)
Solution:
First we find HCF of 6339 and 6341 by Euclid’s division method.
Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers Q33
6341 > 6339
6341 = 6339 × 1 + 2
6339 = 2 × 3169 + 1
2 = 1 × 2 + 0
HCF of 6341 and 6339 is 1.
Now, we find the HCF of 134791 and 1
134791 = 1 × 134791 + 0
HCF of 134791 and 1 is 1.
Hence, HCF of the given three numbers is 1.

Question 34.
If two positive integers x and y are expressible in terms of primes as x = p2q3 and y = p3q, what can you say about their LCM and HCF. Is LCM a multiple of HCF? Explain. (2014)
Solution:
x = p2q3 and y = p3q
LCM = p3q3
HCF = p2q , …..(i)
Now, LCM = p3q3
⇒ LCM = pq2 (p2q)
⇒ LCM = pq2 (HCF)
Yes, LCM is a multiple of HCF.
Explanation:
Let a = 12 = 22 × 3
b = 18 = 2 × 32
HCF = 2 × 3 = 6 …(ii)
LCM = 22 × 32 = 36
LCM = 6 × 6
LCM = 6 (HCF) …[From (ii)]
Here LCM is 6 times HCF.

Question 35.
Show that one and only one out of n, (n + 1) and (n + 2) is divisible by 3, where n is any positive integer. (2015)
Solution:
Let n, n + 1, n + 2 be three consecutive positive integers.
We know that n is of the form 3q, 3q + 1, or 3q + 2.
Case I. When n = 3q,
In this case, n is divisible by 3,
but n + 1 and n + 2 are not divisible by 3.
Case II. When n = 3q + 1,
In this case n + 2 = (3q + 1) + 2
= 3q + 3
= 3(q + 1 ), (n + 2) is divisible by 3,
but n and n + 1 are not divisible by 3.
Case III.
When n = 3q + 2, in this case,
n + 1 = (3q + 2) + 1
= 3q + 3 = 3 (q + 1 ), (n + 1) is divisible by 3,
but n and n + 2 are not divisible by 3.
Hence, one and only one out of n, n + 1 and n + 2 is divisible by 3.

Question 36.
Find the HCF and LCM of 306 and 657 and verify that LCM × HCF = Product of the two numbers. (2016 D)
Solution:
306 = 2 × 32 × 17
657 = 32 × 73
HCF = 32 = 9
LCM = 2 × 32 × 17 × 73 = 22338
L.H.S. = LCM × HCF = 22338 × 9 = 201042
R.H.S. = Product of two numbers = 306 × 657 = 201042
L.H.S. = R.H.S.

Question 37.
Show that any positive odd integer is of the form 41 + 1 or 4q + 3 where q is a positive integer. (2016 OD)
Solution:
Let a be a positive odd integer
By Euclid’s Division algorithm:
a = 4q + r …[where q, r are positive integers and 0 ≤ r < 4]
a = 4q
or 4q + 1
or 4q + 2
or 4q + 3
But 4q and 4q + 2 are both even
a is of the form 4q + 1 or 4q + 3.

Important Questions for Class 10 Maths

The post Important Questions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12

$
0
0

Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12

Extra Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound

Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What does wave transfer—matter or energy?
Answer:
Energy.

Question 2.
What are mechanical waves?
Answer:
Waves that are characterised by the motion of particles in a medium are called mechanical waves. Mechanical waves require material medium for their propagation.

Question 3.
Where is the density of air higher—at compressions or at rarefactions?
Answer:
At compressions.

Question 4.
What is one complete oscillation?
Answer:
The change in density from one maximum value to the minimum value and again to the maximum value makes one complete oscillation.

Question 5.
On what factor does the pitch of a sound depend?
Answer:
The pitch of a sound depends on the frequency of vibrations. Actually, the pitch of a sound is directly proportional to its frequency.

Question 6.
What is the wavelength in the given curve?
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 1
Answer:
AE

Question 7.
If any explosion takes place at the bottom of a lake, what type of shock waves in water will take place? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Longitudinal waves.

Question 8.
What is intensity of sound?
Answer:
The amount of sound energy passing through unit area each second is called the intensity of sound.

Question 9.
What is relation between time period and frequency?
Answer:
Frequency = \frac{1}{\text { Time period }}

Question 10.
Name two animals that communicate using infrasound.
Answer:
Rhinoceroses and whales communicate using infrasound.

Question 11.
Name the sound waves used by bats while flying in the dark.
Answer:
Bats use ultrasonic waves while flying in the dark.

Question 12.
Earthquake produces which kind of sound before the main shock wave begins?
Answer:
Infrasound.

Question 13.
Before playing the orchestra in a musical concert, a sitarist tries to adjust the tension and pluck the string suitably. By doing so, what is he adjusting?
Answer:
He is adjusting frequency of the sitar string with the frequency of the other musical instruments.

Question 14.
Name the characteristic which helps us to distinguish between a man’s voice and a woman’s voice, even without seeing them.
Answer:
Quality or timbre.

Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Questions-I

Question 1.
Draw a graph for a wave representing wave disturbance and time for a sound changing from low pitch to high pitch, keeping the amplitude of the sound same.
Answer.
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 2

Question 2.
What are longitudinal waves? Give two examples.
Answer:
The waves in which the particles of medium oscillate to and fro from their mean position in the direction of propagation of waves are called longitudinal waves.
Examples:

  • Sound waves in air.
  • The waves which travel along the spring (or slinky) when it is pushed and pulled at one end.

Question 3.
What are transverse waves? Give two examples.
Answer:
A wave in which the particles of the medium vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction in which the wave is moving.
Examples:

  • The waves produced by moving one end of a long spring (or slinky) up and down rapidly.
  • Ripples formed on the surface of water in a pond.

Question 4.
Explain the terms crests and troughs of a wave.
Answer:
The elevation or hump in a transverse wave is called crest. It is that part of the transverse wave which is above the line of zero disturbance of the medium.
The depression or hollow in a transverse wave is called trough. It is that part of the transverse wave which is below the line of zero disturbance.

Question 5.
What is a stethoscope? Name the principle on which a stethoscope works.
Answer:
Stethoscope is a medical instrument used for listening sounds produced within the body, chiefly in the heart or lungs. Stethoscope works on the principle of multiple reflection of sound.

Question 6.
Why do we hear the sound produced by the humming bees while the sound of vibrations of pendulum is not heard? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Humming bees produce sound by vibrating their wings which is in the audible range. In case of pendulum, the frequency is below 20 Hz which does not come in the audible range.

Question 7.
For hearing the loudest ticking sound heard by the ear, find the angle x in the figure. [NCERT Exemplar]
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 3
Answer:
According to the laws of reflection, ∠i = ∠r
So x = 90° – ∠r = 90°- 50° = 40°

Question 8.
Draw a curve showing density or pressure variations with respect to distance for a disturbance produced by sound. Mark the position of compression and rarefaction on this curve. Also define wavelengths and time period using this curve. [NCERT Exemplar]
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 4
Answer:
Wavelength is the distance between two consecutive compressions or two consecutive rarefactions. Time period is the time taken to travel the distance between any two consecutive compressions or rarefactions from a fixed point.

Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Questions-II

Question 1.
Write the difference between transverse waves and longitudinal waves.
Answer:

Transverse WavesLongitudinal Waves
1. The particles of the medium oscillates up and down about their mean position.1. The particles of the medium move in the parallel to the direction of propagation of the disturbance.
2. They propagate as crests and troughs.2. They propagate as compressions and rarefactions.
3. The propagation of waves is possible in solid or surface of liquid but not in gases.3. The propagation of these waves is possible in solids, liquids and gases.
Example: Light waveExample: Sound wave

Question 2.
Prove that v = vλ, where the symbols have their usual meanings. Answer:Let the time period of a wave be T seconds.
Answer:
Let the time period of a wave br T seconds.
In T seconds, number of waves generated = 1.
So, in 1 second number of waves generated = \frac{1}{T}.
But number of waves generated in 1 second is frequency.
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 5

Question 3.
Which wave characteristics determine the (a) loudness (b) pitch of sound? Draw two different waveforms and mark these characteristics on it.
Answer:

  • Amplitude
  • Frequency

Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 6

Question 4.
Plot the following:
(i) A longitudinal wave in air on a density-distance graph.
(ii) A transverse wave on a displacement-distance graph.
Answer:
(i) A longitudinal wave in air
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 7

Question 5.
Draw diagrams to represent soft sound and loud sound. [CCE 2015]
Answer:
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 8

Question 6.
Write full form of acronym SONAR. Explain how the method of echo- ranging is used to determine the depth of sea.
Answer:
Sound Navigation And Ranging: A transmitter producing ultrasonic waves is fitted at the bottom of a ship or a boat. The ultrasound waves emitted by the transmitter go to the bottom of the sea and get reflected from the bottom. These are received back by a detector also fitted at the bottom. Knowing the time elapsing between sending and receiving back of the ultrasonic waves and the speed of these waves in water, the depth of sea can be calculated.

Question 7.
What is a sound board? Explain the working of a soundboard with the help of a labelled diagram.
Answer:
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 9
The reflection of sound may take place at curved surfaces also. This fact is made use of in the large halls to spread sound evenly throughout the hall. This is done by using sound boards. The speaker is located at the focus of the sound board (Fig.) and the concave reflecting sound boards are placed behind the speakers in a large hall. The sound board prevents the spreading out of the sound waves in various directions. It sends the sound waves from the speaker at its focus, by reflection towards the audience. This helps in making the speech readily audible even at a distance.

Question 8.
In the graphs given below representing the human voice, which of the two graphs (a) or (b) is likely to be the male voice? Give reason for your answer. [NCERT Exemplar]
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 10
Answer:
Graph (a) represents the male voice. This is because the male voice has less pitch (or frequency) as compared to female.

Question 9.
A girl is sitting in the middle of a park of dimension 12 m × 12 m. On the left side of it there is a building adjoining the park and on right side of the park, there is a road adjoining the park. A sound is produced on the road by a cracker. Is it possible for the girl to hear the echo of this sound? Explain your answer. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
If the time gap between the original sound and reflected sound received by the listener is around 0.1 s, only then the echo can be heard.
The minimum distance travelled by the reflected sound wave for the distinctly listening the echo
= Velocity of sound × Time interval
= 344 × 0.1 = 34.5 m
But in this case the distance travelled by the sound reflected from the building and then reaching to the girl will be (6 + 6) = 12 m, which is much smaller than the required distance. Therefore, no echo can be heard.

Question 10.
A disused railway line has a length of 300 m. A man puts his ear against one end of the rail and another man hits the other end with a metal hammer, as shown in figure.
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 11
(a)

  • State an approximate value for the speed of sound in air.
  • Sound travels at 5000 m/s in steel. Calculate the time it takes for the sound to travel along the rail.

(b) The man with his ear to the railway line actually hears two sounds from the hammer, separated by a short interval. Explain why he hears two sounds.
Answer:
(a)

  • The approximate value for the speed of sound in air is 344 m/s.
    Distance = 300 m, Speed = 5000 m/s
    ∴ Time taken = \frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Speed }}=\frac{300}{5000} = 0.06 s

(b) As we know, the speed of sound is different in different materials. Sound travels about 15 times faster in steel than in air. The man hears two sounds one through air and other through railway line made of steel.

Question 11.
Give reasons for the following:
(a) The reverberation time of a hall used for speeches should be very short.
(b) A vibrating body produces sound. However no sound is heard when a simple pendulum oscillates in air.
(c) Sounds of same loudness and pitch but produced by different musical instruments like a violin and flute are distinguishable.
Answer:
(a) If the reverberation time of a hall is long, then the multiple echoes will enterfere with original sound. For this reason nothing will be heard distinctly. So, the reverberation time of the hall should be very short.
(b) A sound is heard only if the body vibrates with a frequency more than 20 Hz and less than 20,000 Hz. The pendulum oscillates with a frequency less than 20 Hz. Hence, ho sound is heard.
(c) This is due to the quality or timbre of sound waves.

Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
(a) What is meant by reflection of sound?
(b) Describe an activity to study the reflection of sound.
(c) State the laws of reflection of sound.
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 12
Answer:
(a) Reflection is a phenomenon of reversion of a wave going from one medium to the same medium after striking the second medium. Sound wave also experience reflection like other waves.
(b) To observe the reflection of sound, take a drawing board and fix it on the floor. Put two metallic or cardboard tubes as shown in figure. These tubes are making some angle with each other. Put a clock near the end of one tube and a screen between the two tubes so that sound of clock may not be heard directly. The sound (like tick-tick) waves pass through the tube are reflected by the drawing board. The reflected sound waves enter the second tube and are heard by the ear placed in front of the second tube.
(c) Laws of reflection:

  • The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
  • The incident ray, the normal to the reflecting surface at the point of incidence and the reflected ray, all lie in the same plane.

Question 2.
Represent graphically any two separate diagrams in each case:
(i) Two sound waves having the same amplitude but different frequencies.
(ii) Two sound waves having the same frequency but different amplitudes.
(iii) Two sound waves having different amplitudes and also different wavelengths. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(i) Same amplitude but different frequency
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 13
(ii) Same frequency but different amplitude
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 14
(iii) Different amplitudes and different wavelengths
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 15

Question 3.
Figure shows a loudspeaker cone oscillating to produce sound waves:
(a) As the sound wave passes a point, it produces regions of higher and lower pressure. State the names of these regions.
(b) Describe how the movement of the loudspeaker cone produces these regions of different pressure.
(c) State the effect on the loudness and pitch of the sound from the loudspeaker when

  • the amplitude increases but the frequency of the sound stays the same,
  • the amplitude stays the same but the frequency increases.

Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 16
Answer:
(a) Regions of higher pressure : Compressions Regions of lower pressure : Rarefactions.
(b) Production of regions of higher pressure : when the loudspeaker cone moves forward, i.e., in the direction of propagation of wave, it pushes the layer of air closer. This air layer pushes the next air layer, and process goes on. In this way, the layers of air near the cone are compressed to form a compression, which is a region of higher pressure.
Production of regions of lower pressure: when the cone moves backward, i.e., away from direction of propagation of wave, it leaves a region of low pressure and the air layers move apart to form a rarefaction.
(c)

  • Loudness increases as greater the amplitude of sound waves, louder the sound will be pitch remains same.
  • Loudness remains same.
    Pitch increases as the pitch of a sound is directly proportional to its frequency.

Sound Class 9 Extra Questions HOTS (Higher Order Thinking Skills)

Question 1.
When we put our ear to a railway track, we can hear the sound of an approaching train even when the train is far off but its sound cannot be heard through air. Why?
Answer:
Sound travels about 15 times faster in iron (or steel) than in air. So, sound travels much faster through the railway track made of steel than through air. That is why, we can hear the sound of an approaching train even when the train is far off but its sound cannot be heard through air.

Question 2.
In a ripple tank, 12 full ripples are produced in one second. If the distance between a crest and next trough is 10 cm, find
(a) wavelength,
(b) frequency and
(c) velocity of the wave.
Answer:
(a) Here, \frac{\lambda}{2} = 10 ⇒ λ = 20 cm = 0.20 m
(b) Frequency, v = Number of ripples produced in 1 second = 12 Hz
(c) Velocity, v = vλ = 12 × 0.20 = 2.40 ms>sup>-1.

Question 3.
Figure shows the position of layers of air, at one moment, as a sound wave of constant frequency passes through the air. Compressions are labelled C. Rarefactions are labelled R.
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 17
(a) State how figure would change if

  • the sound had a higher frequency,
  • the sound were louder.

(b) On figure, draw a line marked with arrows at each end to show the wavelength of the sound.
Answer:
(a)

  • More compressions and rarefactions will be produced in a given time interval (i.e., C and R will become closer together).
  • At compressions, layers become closer together. At rarefactions, layers become farther apart (i.e., C will narrower and rarefactions wider).

(b) Distance between two compressions or two rarefactions are called wavelength (λ).
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 18

Question 4.
(a) What should be the minimum distance between the listener and the reflector to hear an echo of sound propagating with a speed v ms-1?
(b) Does the speed of sound increase or decrease on a hotter day? Justify.
Answer:
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 19
(b) The speed of sound increases with temperature. So, on a hotter day speed of sound is more.

Numericals
Question 1.
A person is listening to a tone of 500 Hz sitting at a distance of 450 m from the source of the sound. What is the time interval between successive compressions from the source? [Speed of sound in air = 330 ms-1]
Solution:
Given frequency, v = 500 Hz,
Time interval between successive compressions is called time period.
Time period, T = \frac{1}{v}=\frac{1}{500 s^{-1}} = 0.002 s.

Question 2.
An echo returned in 3 s. What is the distance of the reflecting surface from the source given that the speed of sound is 342 ms-1?
Solution:
If d is the distance of reflecting surface from the source and t the time interval of echo return, then
2d = vt
⇒ d = \frac{v t}{2}
Here, v = 342 ms-1 ,t = 3 s ,
∴ d= \frac{342 \times 3}{2} = 513 m

Question 3.
A submarine emits a sonar pulse, which returns from an underwater cliff in 1.02 s. If the speed of sound in salt water is 1531 m/s, how far away is the cliff?
Solution:
Given speed of sound =1531 ms-1, time interval of return echo, t = 1.02 s
We know, 2d = vt
∴ d = \frac{v t}{2}=\frac{1531 \times 1.02}{2} = 780.81 m = 781 km

Question 4.
A person has a hearing range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. What are the typical wavelengths of sound waves in air corresponding to these two frequencies? Take the speed of sound in air as 344 ms-1.
Solution:
Given v = 344 ms-1, v1 = 20 Hz, v2 = 20 kHz
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 20

Question 5.
Two children are at opposite ends of an aluminium rod. One strikes the end of the rod with a stone. Find the ratio of time taken by the sound wave in air and in aluminium to reach the second child. [vAl = 6420 ms-1, vAir = 346 ms-1]
Solution:
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 21

Question 6.
The frequency of a source of sound is 100 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute?
Solution:
Given frequency of sound v = 100 Hz
The number of vibrations in one minute = vt = 100 × 60 = 6,000

Question 7.
A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the base of the tower. When is the splash heard at the top? Given, g = 10 ms-2 and speed of sound = 340 ms-1.
Solution:
Time taken by stone to reach the water, t = \sqrt{\frac{2 h}{g}}=\sqrt{\frac{2 \times 500}{10}}
t = 10 s
Time for the splash sound to travel back = t1 = \frac{h}{v_{s}}=\frac{500}{340}
tl1 = 1.47 s
Time for the splash to be heard = 10 + 1.47 = 11.47 s from the time the stone is dropped.

Question 8.
A sound wave travels at a speed of 339 ms-1. If its wavelength is 1.5 cm, what is the frequency of the wave? Will it be audible?
Solution:
Given, v = 339 ms-1, λ = 1.5 cm = 1.5 × 10-2 m
Frequency, v = \frac{v}{\lambda}=\frac{339}{1.5 \times 10^{-2}} = 22600 Hz = 22.6 kHz.
As the frequency is more than 20 kHz, it will not be audible.

Question 9.
A sonar device on a submarine sends out a signal and receives an echo 5 s later. Calculate the speed of sound in water if the distance of the object from the submarine is 3,625 m.
Solution:
Here, t = 5 seconds, d = 3625 m
d = \frac{v t}{2}
⇒ v = \frac{2 d}{t}=\frac{2 \times 3625}{5} = 2 × 725 = 1450 ms-1.

Question 10.
The given graph shows the displacement versus time relation for a disturbance travelling with velocity of 1500 ms-1.
Calculate the wavelength of the disturbance. [NCERT Exemplar]
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 22
Solution:
From the graph,
Time period, T = 2 × 10-6
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 23

Question 11.
Sound produced by a thunderstorm is heard 10 s after the lightning is seen. Calculate the approximate distance of the thunder cloud. (Given speed of sound = 340 ms-1) [NCERT Exemplar]
Solution:
Approximate distance of the thunder cloud, s = speed × time
s = 340 ms-1 × 10 s = 3400 m or 3.4 km.

Question 12.
If velocity of sound in air is 340 ms-1 calculate
(i) wavelength when frequency is 256 Hz.
(ii) frequency when wavelength is 0.85 m.
Solution:
Using the formula v = vλ.
Given velocity, v = 340 ms-1.
(i) 340 = 256 λ
λ = \frac{340}{256} = 1.33 m.

(ii) 340 = v(0.85)
v = \frac{340}{0.85} = 400 Hz.

Question 13.
The wavelength of waves produced on the surface of water is 20 cm. If the wave velocity is 24 ms-1, calculate (a) the number of waves produced in one second (b) the time required to produce one wave.
Solution:
Given, wavelength, λ = 20 cm = 0·20 m, wave velocity, v = 24 ms-1
(a) From the relation, v = vλ,
⇒ v = \frac{v}{\lambda}
v = \frac{v}{\lambda}=\frac{24}{0.20} =120 waves per second
(b) Time period, T = \frac{1}{v}=\frac{1}{120} second = 8.33 × 10-3 seconds.

Question 14.
A longitudinal wave of wavelength 1 cm travels in air with a speed of 330 m/s. Calculate the frequency of the wave. Can this wave be heard by a normal human?
Solution:
The relation between wave velocity (v), frequency (v) and wavelength (λ) is
v = vλ ⇒ v = \frac{v}{\lambda}
Given, λ = × m v = 330 = m/s
∴ Frequency, v = \frac{v}{\lambda}=\frac{330}{1 \times 10^{-2}} = 33,000 Hz.
This frequency is more than 20,000 Hz (maximum frequency audible to man). Hence, it cannot be heard by a normal human being.

Question 15.
A sound wave of wavelength 0.332 m has a time period of 10-3 s. If the time period is decreased to 10-4 s, calculate the wavelength and frequency of new wave.
Solution:
Given wavelength, λ = 0.332 m
Time period of wave, T = 10-3 s
∴Frequency of wave, v = \frac{1}{T}=\frac{1}{10^{-3}} = 1000 Hz
∴ Velocity of wave, v = vλ = 1000 × 0.332 = 332 m/s
In a given medium, the velocity of sound wave remains same.
New time period of new wave, T’ = 10-4
Frequency of new wave, v’ = \frac{1}{T^{\prime}}=\frac{1}{10^{-4}} = 10,000 Hz
∴Wavelength of new wave, λ’ = \frac{v}{v^{\prime}}=\frac{332}{10,000} = 0.0332 m

Question 16.
A boy hears the echo of his own voice from a distant hill after 0·8 second. If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, calculate the distance of hill from the boy.
Solution:
Lets be the distance of the hill from the boy and t the time of to and fro journey of sound waves, then from relation
Distance = Velocity × Time
We have 2s = vt
⇒ s = \frac{v t}{2}
Here, v = 340 m/s
t = 0.8 s
∴ s = \frac{340 \times 0.8}{2} = 340 × 0.4 m = 136 m

Question 17.
A person standing between two vertical cliffs and 640 m away from the nearest cliff shouted. He heard the first echo after 4 seconds and the second echo 3 seconds later. Calculate
(i) the velocity of sound in air, and
(ii) the distance between the cliffs.
Solution:
Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 24
(i) Let P be the person standing between the cliffs A and B. Let s1 be distance of nearest cliff A from P and s2 the distance of second cliff B from P. The first echo is heard when sound reaches the person after being reflected from cliff A.
Given, s1 = AP = 640 m
Time interval of first echo, t1 =4 seconds
From relation, 2s1 = vt1, we have
Speed of sound, v = \frac{2 s_{1}}{t_{1}}=\frac{2 \times 640}{4} = 320 m/s
∴ Speed of sound in air v = 320 m/s

(ii) The second echo is heard when sound reaches the person after being reflected from the cliff B. Time interval of second echo, t2 = 4 + 3 = 7 seconds
∴ From relation, 2s2= vt2,
We have, s2 = \frac{v t_{2}}{2}=\frac{320 \times 7}{2} = 1120 m
∴ Distance between cliffs A and B,
s = s1 + s2 = 640 + 1120 = 1760 m

Question 18.
A sound wave has a frequency 2 kHz and wavelength 40 cm. How long will it take to travel 1.6 km?
Solution:
Given frequency, v = 2 kHz = 2 × 103 Hz,
Wavelength, λ = 40 cm = 0.40 m
Speed of sound = Frequency × Wavelength
i.e., v = vλ = (2 × 103 Hz) × (0.40 m)
= 0.80 × 103 Hz = 800 ms-1
Time, t = \frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Speed }} = t = \frac{s}{v}
Given distance, s = 1.6 km = 1.6 × 103 m
Time, t = \frac{1.6 \times 10^{3} \mathrm{m}}{800 \mathrm{ms}^{-1}}=\frac{1,600}{800} \mathrm{s} = 2 s.

Question 19.
A powerful sound signal sent from a ship is received again after 2.4 seconds. How deep is the ocean bottom? (Speed of sound in water = 1,500 m/s).
Answer:
The time taken by the signal to reach the bottom and come back is = 2.4 s
Speed of sound in water = 1,500 m/s.
Depth of the ocean h = \frac{v t}{2}=\frac{1,500 \times 2.4}{2} = 1,800 m.

Question 20.
A radar signal is reflected by an aeroplane and is received 2 × 10-2s after it was sent. If the speed of these waves is 3 × 108 m/s, how far is the aeroplane?
Answer:
Speed of wave = 3× 108 m/s
Time taken to reach the aeroplane and come back is = 2 × 10-2s
Therefore, distance of the aeroplane
s = \frac{v t}{2}=\frac{3 \times 10^{8} \times 2 \times 10^{-5}}{2} = 3 × 103 m = 3 km.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Science

The post Sound Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 12 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Geography Chapter 7 Lifelines of National Economy

$
0
0

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Geography Chapter 7 Lifelines of National Economy

Question 1.
Why is transportation necessary?
Answer:
Transportation is necessary:

  1. for the movement of goods and services from their supply location to demand location, i.e. to link production centres with consumption centres.
  2. for the movement of people from one region to the other.
  3. for carrying out trade at all levels.
  4. to supply goods, resources, etc. from the surplus regions to deficient regions.
  5. for supplying relief measures to the regions where some natural calamities strike.
  6. for transporting raw materials from mining regions and farms to the industries, etc.
    Efficient means of transport are the prerequisites for economic development of a nation.

Question 2.
What do you understand by means of transport? Write three important domains of the earth which are covered by them.
Answer:
Means of transport include all kinds of vehicles, trains, aeroplanes and ships. Means of transport are used for the movement of people, goods and services from one place to another. These are developed on three important domains of the earth, i.e., land, water and air. Based on these, transport can also be classified into land, water and air transport.

Question 3.
Today the world has become a “global village”. Justify this statement.
Answer:
Today the world has become a “large village” because of:

  1. efficient and fast means of transport and
  2. development of telecommunication and satellite communication systems.

These two functions, i.e. various means of transport and communication have reduced time and distance, have brought the world closer and the physical distances have become meaningless. For example, now trading from local levels has been extended to the international level and even financial transactions can take place round the world in no time. All this has been made possible because of efficient and quick means of transport and communication.

Question 4.
“Modern means of transport and communication serve as lifelines of our nation.” Justify this statement by giving supportive arguments.
Or
“Efficient means of transport are prerequisites for the fast development of the country.” Express your views in favour of this statement. (2016 D, 2014 OD)
Answer:
India is well linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size and diversities because of efficient means of transport and communication. They are rightly called the lifelines or arteries of a nation because:

  1. Economic development of a country depends on the well developed and efficient means of transport and communication.
  2. They are indispensable for movement of people, goods and services from one place to another.
  3. They have contributed to socio-economic progress in many ways by connecting far flung areas of the country.
  4. They have enriched all aspects of our lives — social, cultural, individual and economic.
  5. They promote trade, tourism and business thus adding value to the economy.
  6. Transport and communication have made possible international trade which is essential for every economy as no country is self-sufficient in all resources.
  7. They link areas of production with consumption, i.e. agricultural farms are linked to the markets and industries.
  8. They help in the balanced regional development of a country.
  9. They play a very important role at the time of natural calamities, i.e., for providing relief measures.
  10. Deficient areas can obtain resources from the regions of surplus, thereby making the interdependence among the regions possible.
  11. They have added substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life.

Question 5.
Why do the movement of goods and services form one place to another require fast and efficient means of transport? Explain with examples.
Answer:
Transport plays an important role in the economy. Because of transport raw materials reach the factory and finished products reach to the consumer. The pace of development of a country depends upon the production of goods and services as well as their movement over space. Today the world has converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast moving transport:

  1. Good transport helps in quick carrying of raw materials from remote areas to the production centre and allows distribution of goods efficiently.
  2. Transport helps in the development of communication. Various means of communication help us in interacting with other people in all the parts of the world. It has brought the world closer.
  3. Transport like railways helps us in conducting various activities like business, sight seeing, pilgrimages, etc.
  4. Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil and natural gas to refineries and factories.
  5. Water provides the cheapest means of transport and is useful for international trade.
  6. Air transport provides the fastest, most comfortable mode of transport.
  7. Thus, it is clear that there are many advantages of transportation and communication. These means help in the development of the country. So they are rightly called the lifelines of a nation and its economy.

Question 6.
How are means of transport and communication complementary to each other? Explain with three examples. (2013 OD)
Answer:

  1. Transport and communication establish links between producing centres and consuming centres. Trade or the exchange of such commodities relies on transportation and communication. Transport provides the network of links and carriers through which trade takes place.
  2. Dense network of roads, railways and airways connect the remote areas of the country hence help in production and distribution of goods and services.
  3. Advancement in communication system has accelerated trade by carrying information all over the world quickly.
  4. Good transport helps in quick carrying of raw material from remote areas to the production centre and allows distribution of goods efficiently.
  5. With expansion of rail, ocean and air transport, better means of refrigeration and preservation, trade has experienced spatial expansion.

Question 7.
Examine with examples the role of means of transport and communication in making our life prosperous and comfortable.
Answer:
Transport and communication have a major role to play in making our lives prosperous and comfortable:

  1. Means of transport provide seamless movement of goods and people and thus facilitate various economic activities.
  2. Means of communication help in flow of information which is necessary for proper management of supply chain and financial transactions. Today, we are living in the age of communication, using telephone, television, films and Internet. Even books, magazines and newspapers are important means of communication.
  3. Various means of transport and communication have reduced distances, bringing the world closer. Modern life is so complex that one has to depend on others. The same is true of the countries as well. No country today can prosper without the co-operation and assistance of others. This requires movement of goods and materials between countries. Trade provides us with our necessities and also adds to the amenities and comfort of our life.
  4. Transport like railways help us in conducting various activities like business, sight seeing, pilgrimage and transportation of goods over longer distances.
  5. Water provide the cheapest means of transport and is useful for international trade. Air transport provides the fastest, most comfortable mode of transport. Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil and natural gas to refineries and factories.
    Thus, means of transport and communication put life into a nation and its economy. Hence, they are called the lifelines of a nation and its economy.

Question 8.
Name three means of land transport and write one advantage of each.
Answer:
Three means of land transport:

  1. Roadways. They can be laid in any type of terrain and provide door to door service.
  2. Railways. They can carry huge loads to long distances, therefore they are of great significance in the national economy.
  3. Pipelines. These can be used for transporting liquid, gaseous and solid material to great distances at low cost.

Roadways

Question 9.
Why is road transport more useful than rail transport in India. Give reasons. (2016 OD, 2013 D)
Or, “Roadways still have an edge over railways in India”. Give reasons.
Answer:
Roadways score over railways:

  1. Construction of roads is easier and cheaper as compared to railways.
  2. Roads provide door to door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower as compared to railways which generally leave the people and goods at the destined railway stations.
  3. Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slope and, as such, can traverse through mountainous terrain. But railways cannot negotiate steep gradients.
  4. Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances.
  5. Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport. They provide links between railway stations, airports and sea ports.
  6. They link agricultural farms with markets and industries, thus linking rural and urban areas.

Question 10.
Name six types of roads according to their capacity.
Answer:
Six types of roads:

  1. Super Highways —Golden Quadrilateral, North-South Corridor and East-West Corridor.
  2. National Highways
  3. State Highways
  4. District Roads
  5. Other Rural Roads
  6. Border Roads.

Question 11.
Write the characteristics of Super Highways, National Highways and State Highways.
Answer:
Super Highways:

  1. These are 6-lane roads built by National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) under the Road Development Project launched by the government.
  2. The major objective of these roads is to reduce time and distance between the mega cities of India, especially the Golden Quadrilateral, which links Mumbai-Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai.
  3. Other important roads developed by NHAI are:
    • North-South Corridor linking Srinagar in the North and Kanyakumari in the South and
    • East-West Corridor linking Porbander in Gujarat to Silcher in Assam.

National Highways:

  1. These are the primary’ road systems which run in the North-South and East-West directions connecting all the states and link extreme parts of the country.
  2. These roads are laid and maintained by the Central Government, i.e., Central Public Works Department (CPWD) as they are of national importance.
  3. The historical Shershah Suri Marg, now called National Highway No. 1, links Delhi and Amritsar and the longest highway in the country is National Highway No. 7 which links Varanasi and Kanyakumari.

State Highways:

  1. Roads linking state capitals with different district headquarters are known as State Highways.
  2. These roads are constructed and maintained by State Public Works Department (PWD) in states and union territories.
  3. The expenditure or cost and maintenance of these roads is the responsibility of the respective state governments.

Question 12.
Differentiate between District Roads and Other Rural Roads?
Answer:
District Roads:

  • District Roads connect the district headquarters with other places of the district.
  • These roads are maintained by the Zila Parishad.

Other Rural Roads:

  • Rural roads which link rural areas and villages with towns come under this category.
  • These roads received special impetus under the ‘Pradhan Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojna’. Under this scheme, special provisions are made so that every village is linked to a major town in the country by an all season motorable road.

Question 13.
What are ‘Border Roads’? What is their significance?
Answer:

  1. Border roads run along the land frontiers of our country in the northern and north-eastern border areas.
  2. The Border Road Organisation (BRO) — a department of the Central Government was established in 1960 for the development of border roads.
  3. Their construction and maintenance is the responsibility of the Central Government.

Importance of Border Roads:

  1. These roads are of strategic importance.
  2. They have increased the accessibility in areas of difficult terrain and have helped in the economic development of these areas.
  3. They are the supply lines for our jawans (soldiers) who guard our land frontiers.

Question 14.
Classify roads on the basis of the type of material used for their construction.
Answer:
Roads can be classified into two categories on the basis of material used:
Metalled roads may be made of cement, concrete or bitumen. These are all-weather roads.
Unmetalled roads are dusty and muddy tracks which go out of use in the rainy season.

Question 15.
Define ‘road density’. What is the average road density in India? Name the states having the highest and lowest densities respectively. What is the main reason for this difference in their densities? (2013 D)
Answer:
Road density is defined as the length of road per 100 sq km, of area.
Average road density of India is 75 kms / 100 sq kms of area (1996-97).
Highest road density is in Kerala — It is 375 km / 100 sq kms.
Least road density is in Jammu & Kashmir—It is 10 km / 100 sq kms.
In Jammu & Kashmir, road density is less because of mountainous terrain, whereas Kerala has levelled nature of land coupled with agricultural development which supports a lot of population, therefore road density is higher.

Question 16.
What are the problems faced by road transportation in India? (2013 D)
Answer:
Problems faced by road transportation:

  1. The road network is inadequate in proportion to the volume of traffic and passengers.
  2. About half of the roads are unmetalled which makes them useless during rainy season.
  3. The National Highways are inadequate and lack roadside amenities.
  4. The roadways are highly congested in cities.
  5. Most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow.

Question 17.
Why is the distribution of roads not uniform in India? Explain with examples. (2014 OD)
Answer:

  1. Distribution of roads is not uniform in India due to different types of geographical features.
  2. Moreover, the volume of traffic as well as passengers also affects road networking in India. Roads are highly congested in cities. Most of the bridges and culverts have become narrow, old and broken.
  3. Some roads are metalled, that is well built with brick and cement and about half of the roads are unmetalled specially in rural areas which makes them unaccessible during rainy seasons.
  4. The regions with rugged terrain have steep roads with lots of hairpin bends.

Railways

Question 18.
Railways play an important role in Indian economy. Give supportive arguments.
Or
Explain the importance of railways as the principle mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India. (2015 OD)
Answer:

  1. Railways are the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India, as they link different parts of the country.
  2. They carry huge loads and bulky goods to long distances.
  3. Railways make it possible to conduct multiple activities like business, tourism, pilgrimage along with goods transportation over longer distances.
  4. Railways have been a great integrating force for the nation, for more than 150 years now.
  5. They have been helpful in binding the economic life of the country and also promoted cultural fusion.
  6. They have accelerated the development of the industry and agriculture.

Question 19.
Describe the distribution of railway network in India.
Answer:

  1. The Indian railways have a network of 7,031 stations spread over the country.
  2. The route length is 63,221 kms.
  3. It has a fleet of 7,817 locomotives.
  4. There are 5,321 passenger service vehicles.
  5. The number of coach vehicles is 4904.
  6. We have 2,28,170 wagons which run on the total rail track of 1,08,486 kms.

Question 21.
Which factors affect the distribution pattern of the railway network in the country?
Answer:
Factors that affect the distribution pattern of railway network in India:

  1. Physical factors: The nature of terrain and the number of rivers running through the region will determine the density of railway network in that region.
    For example, mountains, marshy, sandy and forested areas have sparse network whereas plain areas have dense network of the railways.
  2. Economic factors: Regions which have rich resources and are economically more developed have denser network of railways in comparison to the regions with low economic development.
  3. Administrative factors: The administrative and political decisions also affect the distribution of railway network in a region.

Question 22.
Analyse the physiographic and economic factors that have influenced the distribution pattern of the railway network in our country. (2015 D)
Or, ‘The distribution pattern of Indian Railway network is influenced by the physiographic factors. Examine the statement. (2013 OD)
Answer:
Factors that affect the distribution pattern of railway network in India:
(i) Physiographic factors. The Northern plains with vast level land, high population density and rich agricultural resources provide most favourable conditions for railway network. The nature of terrain and the number of rivers running through the region determine the density of railway network in that region. Mountains, marshy, sandy and forested areas have sparse network whereas plain areas have dense network of the railways. It was difficult to lay railway lines on the sandy plains of Western Rajasthan, swamps of Gujarat and forested tracks of Madhya Pradesh.

(ii) Economic factors. Regions which have rich resources and are economically more developed have denser network of railways in comparison to the regions with low economic development.

(iii) Administrative factors. The administrative and political decisions also affect the distribution of railway network in a region.

Question 23.
List four factors which favoured the development of dense network of railways in the northern plains. (2012 OD)
Answer:
Four reasons for dense network of railways in northern plains are:

  1. The vast level land provided the most favourable conditions for their growth. It is cheaper and easier to construct railway tracks here.
  2. The agricultural and industrial development in this region necessitated the development of railway lines.
  3. High population density in this region further required the development of railway lines.
  4. Resources such as iron and steel, fuels, etc., required for the development of railways are available in abundance in the northern plains.

Question 24.
State reasons for the sparse railway network in Himalayan region.
Answer:
Reasons for sparse railway network in Himalayas:

  1. High relief and rugged terrain pose difficulty in construction.
  2. Sparse population.
  3. Lack of economic opportunities because of low economic development.
  4. These are also thickly forested areas.

Question 25.
Where is Konkan Railway Line developed in India and what problems are faced by it?
Answer:
Konkan Railway Line is developed along the western coast of India through the states of Maharashtra, Goa and Karnataka. This railway line has facilitated the movement of passengers and goods in this most important economic region of India.
Problems faced during its construction:

  • Sinking of track in some stretches.
  • Landslides were another hinderance.

Question 26.
What are the problems faced by Indian Railways?
Answer:
Problems faced by the Indian Railways:

  • Many passengers travel without tickets.
  • Thefts and damaging of railway property by miscreants.
  • People stop the trains and pull chains unnecessarily that causes heavy damage to the railways and also causes delays.

Question 27.
Explain the improvements made by the Indian Railways in its functioning. (2012 OD)
Answer:

  1. Railways make it possible to conduct multifarious activities like business, sight-seeing, pilgrimage, transportation of goods and passengers.
  2. It accelerated the deployment of industrial and agricultural sector.
  3. Konkan Railways along the west coast has facilitated the movement of passengers and goods.
  4. Metro Rail, Mono Rail and Rapid metro systems are helping lakhs of people to commute everyday. These have helped in easing the traffic situation in cities like Delhi, Mumbai and Gurgaon.
  5. The railways provide effective container service.

Pipelines

Question 28.
What are the advantages of pipeline transportation?
Answer:
Advantages of pipeline transportation:

  1. Pipelines can transport liquids, gases and solids (in slurry form) to any distance.
  2. Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil, petroleum products and natural gas from oil and natural gas fields to refineries, fertilizer factories and big thermal power plants.
  3. Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but subsequent running costs are minimal.
  4. It reduces trans-shipment losses and delays.
  5. They can be laid in any terrain and even through the water-bodies.

Question 29.
What made the location of inland oil refineries possible? Name any two inland oil refineries.
Answer:
Location of inland oil refineries was made possible because of pipeline transportation which links them with oilfields.
Inland oil refineries are:

  1. Barauni
  2. Mathura
  3. Panipat.

Question 30.
Write about three most important networks of pipeline transportation.
Answer:
Important networks are:

  1. From oilfield in Upper Assam to Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh) via Guwahati, Barauni and Allahabad.
  2. From Salaya (Gujarat) to Jalandhar (Punjab) via Viramgam, Mathura, Delhi and Sonepat.
  3. Gas pipeline from Hazira (Gujarat) via Bijaipur (Madhya Pradesh) to Jagdishpur (Uttar Pradesh), called HBJ gas pipeline.

Waterways

Question 31.
Write four merits of waterways in India. (2014 D)
Answer:

  1. Waterways are the cheapest means of transport.
  2. Waterways are a fuel efficient and environment friendly mode of transport.
  3. They are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
  4. India’s trade with foreign countries is carried from the ports located along the coast, and more than 95% of the country’s trade volume is moved by the sea.

Question 32.
Mention any two inland waterways of India. Write three characteristics of each. (2017 D, 2011 OD)
Answer:
Two inland water ways are:
(A) The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia:
Characteristics:

  • The Inland Waterways Authority has declared this waterway as National Waterway No. 1.
  • Its total length is 1620 km.
  • It is one of the most important waterway of India which is navigable by mechanical boats upto Patna.

(B) The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri:
Characteristics:

  • The total length is 891 km.
  • It is declared as National Waterway No. 2.
  • It is navigable by steamers upto Dibrugarh.

Major Seaports

Question 33.
What are major seaports?
Answer:
Seaports which handle our foreign trade are called major seaports. These ports handle 95 per cent of India’s foreign trade.

Question 34.
Name the northernmost and southernmost ports of eastern and western coast respectively.
Answer:
The northernmost port: of eastern coast — Kolkata
of western coast — Kandla
The southernmost port: of eastern coast — Tuticorin
of western coast — Kochi

Question 35.
Give an account of the major sea ports of India and their importance. (2011 D)
Answer:

  1. Kandla port in Kuchchh.
    • It was developed after independence to reduce the load on the Mumbai port as the Karachi port had gone to Pakistan after partition.
    • It is a tidal port and caters to exports and imports of the granary and industrial belts of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
    • Kandla port is located in Kuchchh in Gujarat.
    • It caters to the convenient handling of exports and imports for northern and western states of India.
  2. Mumbai port. It is the biggest port with a spacious natural and well-sheltered harbour.
  3. Jawahar Lai Nehru port. Planned as a subordinate and hub-port of the Mumbai port.
  4. Marmagao port (Goa).
    • It is a premium iron ore exporting port.
    • It accounts for about fifty per cent of India’s iron ore exports.
  5. New Mangalore port (Karnataka). Caters to the export of iron-ore from Kudremukh mines.
  6. Kochchi. Extreme south-western port located at the entrance of a lagoon with a natural harbour.
  7. Tuticorin (Tamil Nadu).
    • It has a natural harbour and rich hinterland.
    • It engages in flourishing trade with neighbouring countries like Sri Lanka, Maldives etc.
  8. Chennai port.
    • Oldest artificial port in the country.
    • It is second only to Mumbai in terms of volume of trade and cargo.
  9. Vishakhapatnam port. Deepest land locked and well protected port catering mainly to iron ore exports.
  10. Paradip (Orissa) specialises in iron ore export.
  11. Kolkata port.
    • It is an inland riverine port.
    • It serves as a large and rich hinterland of Ganga-Brahmaputra basin.
    • It is a tidal port which requires constant dredging of the Hugli river.
  12. Haldia port. It was developed to reduce pressure on Kolkata port.

Airways

Question 36.
Write four merits of air travel. Also mention any two demerits of air transport. (2012 OD, 2011 D)
Answer:
Merits of air travel.

  1. Air travel is the fastest, most comfortable and prestigious mode of transport.
  2. India is a vast country with wide variation in relief. Air transport can cover difficult terrains like high mountains of the Himalayas, the Western Ghats, dreary deserts of Rajasthan, dense forests and long coastlines with great ease.
  3. Air travel has made access easier in the north-eastern part of the country, which is marked with the presence of big rivers like Brahmaputra, dissected relief, dense forests, frequent floods and international frontiers.
  4. At the time of natural calamities, relief measure and relief operations can be carried out quickly with the help of air transport.
  5. High value perishable goods can easily be exported or imported by airways.

Demerits of air transport.

  • Air travel is very expensive and not within the reach of the common people. Air travel is very luxurious.
  • It is adversely affected by bad weather conditions.

Question 37.
Why is air travel preferred in the north-eastern states? Give reasons. (2014 D, 2013 D)
Answer:
The north-eastern part of the country is marked with:

  1. Dissected relief,
  2. dense forests,
  3. Frequent floods
  4. Big rivers.

Under these difficult conditions, the road and rail transport is not well developed. Journey through land transport is very tiresome and time-consuming. So, for all these reasons, air travel is preferred in this part of the country, where special provisions are made to extend the services to common people at cheaper rates.

Question 38.
Name four airline services which cater to the domestic air traffic.
Answer:
Domestic air services are:

  • Indian Airlines which extends its services to neighbouring countries also.
  • Alliance Air (Subsidiary of Indian Airlines).
  • Private scheduled airlines, e.g., Jet, Sahara, Kingfisher, Indigo, Go Air etc.
  • Private non-scheduled operators provide air-taxi service.

Question 39.
What are ‘Pawan Hans’ services? Write two purposes for which these services are used.
Answer:
The Pawan Hans Helicopter Ltd., a public sector undertaking, provides helicopter services to:

  1. Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) in its offshore operations.
  2. Inaccessible areas and difficult terrains like the north-eastern states, the interior parts of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttrakhand.
  3. They are also pressed into service at the time of emergencies and for providing relief measures at the time of natural calamities.

Question 40.
Which is the ‘International Airline’ of India?
Answer:
‘Air India’ handles our international traffic. It is a public sector undertaking. Jet and Kingfisher are examples of private airlines that fly to other countries as well.

Question 41.
Name four cities where international airports are located and name these airports.
Answer:
Cities where international airports are located:

  1. Delhi — Indira Gandhi International Airport
  2. Mumbai — Chhatrapati Shivaji Airport
  3. Chennai — Meenambakkam Airport
  4. Kolkata — Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Airport

Question 42.
Name the northernmost and southernmost international airport of India.
Answer:
Northern most international airport is Raja Sansi at Amritsar. Southern most international airport of India is situated in Tiruvanantapuram and is called Nedimbacherry Airport.

Communication

Question 43.
What is the main difference between means of transport and means of communication?
Answer:
Means of transport: These are used for the movement of people, goods and services from one place to another, e.g. roadways, airways, etc.
Means of communication: These are used for interchanging messages and ideas between people without physical movement of the communicator or receiver, e.g. letters, telephone, television, etc.

Question 44.
Write two types of means of communication and give two examples of each.
Answer:
Two types of means of communication are:
(i) Personal communication
(ii) Mass communication.
(i) Personal communication includes sending and receiving of messages between two individuals at a personal level. The important means in this category are telephone, post & telegraph services, fax, etc.
(ii) Mass communication means communicating with several people (masses) at the same time. These are of two types:

  • Print media. It includes printed material, e.g. newspapers and magazines.
  • Electronic media, e.g. Radio and T.V. This is an important media, especially for illiterate masses of the country.

Question 45.
What are the functions performed by means of mass communication?
Answer:
Functions performed by means of mass communication:

  1. It provides entertainment to masses.
  2. It creates awareness among people about various national programmes and policies.
  3. We come to know the world happenings, weather bulletins and important international phenomena, developments and researches, etc. through the means of mass communication.
  4. They help in creating public opinion.

Question 46.
Explain the importance of ‘Radio’ and ‘Television’ as an effective means of mass communication in India.
Answer:
Because a large part of the population of our country is illiterate, the electronic media of mass communication i.e., Radio and T.V. play a very crucial role in:

  • providing entertainment
  • increasing awareness among people about various national programmes and policies.

Radio. It broadcasts —

  • a variety of programmes in national, regional and local languages.
  • varied programmes for various categories of people in rural, urban and remote areas through a number of radio

stations and transmitters.
T.V. It telecasts —

  • a variety of entertainment, educational and informative programmes.
  • T.V. is a better means of mass communication as it gives a visual report of world happenings; live telecast of sports and literacy programmes etc., which become more entertaining and meaningful.

Question 47.
Name the mail channels which were introduced by the Indian postal network to facilitate quick delivery of mails. What was the main purpose of this decision? (2014 D)
Answer:
Mail channels introduced by the Indian postal network are:

  1. Rajdhani Channel
  2. Business Channel
  3. Metro Channel
  4. Bulk Mail Channel
  5. Green Channel
  6. Periodical Channel

The main purpose is to facilitate quick delivery of mail to large towns and cities.

Question 48.
“India has one of the largest telecom networks in Asia.” Justify this statement.
Answer:

  1. Most of the urban centres are connected by STD (Subscriber Trunk Dialling) telephone facility.
  2. More than 2/3rd of the villages in India have already been covered with STD telephone facility, through many telephone exchanges.
  3. In order to strengthen the flow of information from the grass-root level to the higher level, the government has made special provision to extend 24 hours STD service facility to every village in the country.
  4. There have been uniform rates of STD facilities all over India. Even ISD services are available in most of the cities of the country.

All this has been made possible by integrating the developments in space technology with communication technology and development of computers and internet. Recently a number of private companies have also entered into telecommunication area.

Question 49.
Distinguish between first class mail and second class mail.
Answer:
Difference between Class mail and Second Class mail

Class mailSecond Class mail
1. Cards and envelopes make first class mail.1. This includes book packets, registered newspapers and periodicals.
2. They are airlifted between stations covering both land and air.2. They are carried by surface mail, covering land and water transport.

Question 50.
Write in brief about A.I.R. and Doordarshan.
Answer:
All India Radio (A.I.R. or Akashwani):

  1. It broadcasts a variety of programmes in national, regional and local languages.
  2. It broadcasts programmes for various categories of people in rural, urban and remote areas.
  3. It is spread over different parts of the country through a number of radio stations and transmitters.

Doordarshan:

  1. It is the national television channel of India.
  2. It is one of the largest terrestrial networks in the world.
  3. It telecasts a variety of programmes ranging from educational, entertainment to sports, etc. for people of different age groups.

Question 51.
Approximately in how many languages are newspapers published in India?
Answer:
Newspapers are published in about 100 languages and dialects. Largest number of newspapers published in India are in Hindi followed by English and Urdu.

Question 52.
What is the status of feature film production in India?
Answer:

  1. India is the largest producer of feature films in the world.
  2. It produces short, video feature films and video short films.
  3. The Central Board of Film Certification is the authority to certify both Indian and foreign films.

International Trade

Question 53.
What is meant by trade? What is the difference between Local and State level trade? (2014 D)
Answer:
The exchange of goods and services among people, states and countries, through market channels, is referred to as trade.
Local trade is carried in cities, towns and villages.
State level trade is carried between two or more states.

Question 54.
What is ‘international trade’?
Answer:
Exchange of goods (buying and selling of goods) between two countries is called international trade. It may take place through sea, air or land routes.
Two components of international trade are — export and import.

Question 55.
Why is international trade considered as an ‘economic barometer’ for a country?
Or
“Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its prosperity.” Support the statement with suitable examples. (2014 OD)
Answer:
Exchange of goods (buying and selling of goods) between two countries is called international trade. It may take place through sea, air or land routes. It has two components—export and import.

  1. Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its economic prosperity.
  2. As no country is self-sufficient in all resources, it cannot survive without international trade.
  3. If the balance of international trade is favourable that is value of export is more than the value of import, a country will be able to earn more foreign exchange.
  4. International trade encourages a country to develop secondary and tertiary sectors for exporting goods which can fetch more foreign exchange. In this day and age of globalization exchange of goods and commodities has also been overtaken by the exchange of information and knowledge as well.
  5. A country’s economic prosperity can be gauged by the health of its international trade.

Question 56.
What is ‘balance of trade’? Explain its two types.
Answer:
The balance of trade of a country is the difference between its export and import value. Balance of trade is of two types:

  1. Favourable balance of trade. When the value of export exceeds the value of imports, it is called favourable balance of trade.
  2. Unfavourable balance of trade. If the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is called unfavourable balance of trade.

Question 57.
Write a note on the changing nature of international trade in India.
Answer:
International trade in India has undergone a substantial change in the last fifteen years. Liberalisation policies of government and lifting of barriers on trade has made it truly global in nature. India has trading relations with all major trading blocks and geographical regions of the world. In this day and age of globalisation, exchange of goods and commodities has been overtaken by the exchange of information and knowledge. India has proved to be a world leader in software technology and is earning large amounts of foreign exchange through the export of software technology.

Tourism As A Trade

Question 59.
Why is ‘tourism’ considered as a trade and industry in India? Give reasons in support of your answer. (2015 OD, 2014 D)
Answer:

  1. With increase in the number of foreign tourists visiting India, we earned foreign exchange worth Rs. 21,828 crore in 2004 which is further increasing year by year making tourism an important trade.
  2. Over 2.6 million foreign tourists visit India every year for appreciating our heritage, our culture for medical purposes or for business purposes, etc.
  3. Over 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry.
  4. Tourism promotes national integration, provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits.
  5. Tourism also helps in the development of international understanding about our culture and heritage.
  6. Rajasthan, Goa, Jammu & Kashmir and temple towns of south India are the most popular tourist destinations. These states earn huge sums of money from tourism trade.

Question 60.
Give reasons for which foreign tourists visit India. (2014 D)
Answer:
Foreigners visit India for various purposes. These are:

  1. Heritage tourism
  2. Eco-tourism
  3. Adventure tourism
  4. Cultural tourism
  5. Medical tourism
  6. Business tourism
    • Broadened cultural awareness of each others tradition.
    • It is economically viable. India is a great value destination as tourists can travel cheaply and lavishly.
    • Indian hospitality is famous worldwide — ‘Atithi devo bhava’.
    • India is an avenue to explore spirituality through yoga, meditation.
    • Indian cuisine predominantly, North Indian is world famous.
    • India has several historical and architectural attractions. Regional handicrafts and ethnic designs of traditional products attract tourists.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions

The post Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Geography Chapter 7 Lifelines of National Economy appeared first on Learn CBSE.


NTSE Karnataka for Class 10 | Application Form, Admit Card, Result and Question Paper

$
0
0

NTSE Karnataka: The NTSE exam for students of class 10 is meant to nurture talent and identify them. The NTSE Karnataka exam 2019 will be conducted every year through two stages. Stage 1 of the exam is conducted at the state level while the stage 2 exam is conducted at the national level. The NTSE Karnataka exam is going to be conducted by the department of state educational research and training.

NTSE Karnataka 2019-20

Below are the tentative dates for NTSE Karnataka exam 2019-20

ActivityExpected Date
Application starts fromThe third week of August 2019
Last date of application form submissionTBA
Stage 1 exam dateThe first week of November 2019
Result of stage 1The first week of January 2020
Stage 1 exam dateThe second week of June 2019

For more information regarding the exam, candidates can read the information brochure on the NTSE official website.

NTSE Karnataka Application Form

The NTSE Karnataka exam application form will be available for everyone through the block education office only. There is no facility to submit the application form online. Thus, students need to collect the application form offline and submit it through offline mode only.

NTSE Karnataka – Reservation and Eligibility

Any regular student of class 10 can apply for a national talent search exam. For the general category, the minimum criteria are 55% while for SC/ST category the minimum criteria are 45%. The percentage given above are the minimum marks to be scored in class 9.

NTSE Karnataka Exam Pattern

There are two stages in which the NTSE Karnataka exam will be conducted for students. In stage 1, the exam will be comprised of three papers which is

PapersTestQuestionsMarksDuration
Paper 1MAT505045 minutes
Paper 2LCT505045 minutes
Paper 3SAT10010090 minutes

While at stage 2, there is going to be negative marking in all the papers. For each wrong answer given in the exam, 1/3rd marks will be deducted. There are no marks deducted for not attempting the answers.

NTSE Karnataka Test Centers

Official List of Centers – Click Here

NTSE Karnataka 2019-20 Admit Card

The NTSE exam admits card will be given to all the candidates that have successfully applied for the exam. Also, it is an important document that candidates have to secure till the end. Also, no student will be allowed inside the examination hall without the admit card.

If students require any help regarding the downloading of the e-admit card, candidates should contact these numbers 011-26592207 and 011-26560464 of they can send an email to ntsexam.ncert@gov.in.

Last year the NTSE Karnataka exam was conducted @ Kendriya Vidyalaya, ASC center, #1 Victoria Road, Bengaluru, Karnataka – 560047.

NTSE Karnataka Answer Key

The official answer key for the NTSE Karnataka exam 2019 will be released online. Candidates will be able to download the answer key online from the link provided on the NTSE official website. There will be also many answer keys released by coaching centers. Candidates can use that to evaluate their answers.

NTSE Karnataka Result

The result for the NTSE Karnataka exam 2019 is going to announced online at the NTSE Karnataka official website. NTSE 2019 exam results will be made available for everyone when the exam process is over. Candidates that have appeared in the exam can check the result on the official website. NTSE stage 1 result or merit list shall be declared by the department of state educational research and training. The result will be available as a PDF file, in which the details of the candidates will be mentioned.

NTSE Karnataka Exam Cutoff

The cutoff for the 2019 NTSE exam is going to be declared online. As NTSE will announce the cutoff for NTSE 2019 SAT, LCT, and MAT. You can also check for the cutoff marks once they are available online on the official website.

NTSE Karnataka Sample Papers

Sample papers for NTSE Karnataka have been released online. Sample papers for the exam contain subject-wise paper with answer keys for the SAT as well as GMAT. Candidates that are interested in NTSE can check the sample papers online through the NTSE official website.

NTSE Karnataka Previous Years Question Papers

NTSE Karnataka’s answer will be available online after the exam is over. This is the opportunity for students to get an idea about the rough scores of the main exam. The question paper along with the answer key will be available for the reference paper of the exam. Once the exam is done, the candidates curiously wait for the question paper and answer keys. The procedure to download the answer key will be provided here.

NTSE Exam Selection Procedure

The identification of talent is done in two stages. The individual state level is the first level of selection. While part 2 consists of a scholastic aptitude test for nominating the required number of students for the second level test to be conducted by NCERT.

  • State Level Exam: State level is stage 1 of the exam and it will have two parts. In part 1, mental ability test is conducted and in part 2, scholastic aptitude test for nominating the required number of students for the second level test to be done by NCERT.
  • National Level Exam: Only the students that are selected by the state on the basis of their screening exam shall be eligible for appearing in the national level exam. This exam is conducted by the NCERT on the 2nd Sunday of May every year.

The post NTSE Karnataka for Class 10 | Application Form, Admit Card, Result and Question Paper appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 10 Human Settlements

$
0
0

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 10 Human Settlements

Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

Question 1.(i)
Which one of the following forms of settlement develops along either side of roads, rivers or canals?
(a) circular
(b) linear
(c) cross-shaped
(d) square
Answer:
(b) linear

Question 1.(ii)
Which one of the following types of economic activities dominates in all rural settlement?
(a) primary
(b) tertiary
(c) secondary
(d) quaternary
Answer:
(a) primary

Question 1.(iii)
In which of the following regions has the oldest well-documented urban settlement found?
(a) Huang He Valley
(b) Indus Valley
(c) Nile Valley
(d) Mesopotamia
Answer:
(b) Indus Valley

Question 1.(iv)
How many of the following cities in India have attained the million status at the beginning of 2006?
(a) 40
(b) 42
(c) 41
(d) 43
Answer:
(a) 40

Question 1.(v)
Sufficiency of which type of resources can help to create adequate social infrastructure catering to the needs of the large population in the developing countries?
(a) financial
(b) human
(c) natural
(d) social
Answer:
(c) natural

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
How would you define a settlement?
Answer:
A human settlement is defined as a place inhabited more or less permanently. It may include temporary camps of hunters or herders and also the permanent settlements called villages, towns, cities, large agglomeration.

Question 2.(ii)
Distinguish between site and situation.

Question 2.(iii)
What are the bases of classifying settlements?
Answer:
Settlements can be classified on basis of residence and main occupation into rural and urban. Settlements may also be classified on bases of their shape, pattern types into Compact or Nucleated settlements and Dispersed settlements.

Question 2.(iv)
How would you justify the study of human settlements in human geography?
Answer:
The study of human settlements is basic to human geography because the form of settlement in any particular region reflects human relationship with the environment. Human settlement in any particular area reflects human land association and is affected by physical, economic and social factors. Availability of water, type of soil, topography, availability of minerals etc. play an important role in development of any settlement. As it reflects and is deeply affected by the inter-relation between human and physical world, it becomes an important part of human geography.

3. Answer the following questions in not more than 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
What are rural and urban settlements? Mention their characteristics.
Answer:
Rural settlement: These settlements are those which have population of less than 5000 people and density of less than 400 persons and more than 75% people are engaged in primary activities.
Characteristics:

  • Most of the people are engaged in primary activities. They directly depend on land resources for their livelihood.
  • The population of villages is less and they have less density of people.
  • They depend on urban areas for obtaining manufactured consumer goods whereas they are providers for all primary products.
  • They lack in both economic and social infrastructure.

Urban settlement: The census of India defines urban settlement as “All places which have municipality, corporation, cantonment board or notified town area committee and have a minimum population of 5000 persons, at least 75 per cent of male workers are engaged in non-agricultural pursuits and a density of population of at least 400 persons per square kilometers are urban.

Characteristics:

  • The population as well as population density of urban areas is veiy high.
  • Most of the people are engaged in secondary and tertiary activities.
  • They depend on rural areas for raw material and primary products. They are supplier of manufactured and consumer goods.
  • They have advanced social and economic infrastructure.

Question 3.(ii)
Discuss the problems associated with urban settlements in developing countries.
Answer:
People flock to cities to avail of employment opportunities and civic amenities. Since most cities in developing countries are unplanned, it creates severe congestion. Shortage of housing, vertical expansion and growth of slums are characteristic features of modern cities of developing countries. In many cities an increasing proportion of the population lives in substandard housing, e.g. slums and squatter settlements.

Economic Problems: The decreasing employment opportunities in the rural as well as smaller urban areas of the developing countries consistently push the population to the urban areas. The enormous migrant population generates a pool of unskilled and semi-skilled labour force, which is already saturated in urban areas. This increases the pressure on existing infrastructure of cities.

Social-cultural Problems: Cities in the developing countries suffer from several social ills. Insufficient financial resources fail to create adequate social infrastructure catering to the basic needs of the huge population. The available educational and health facilities remain beyond the reach of the urban poor. Lack of employment and education tends to aggravate the crime rates. Male selective migration to the urban areas distorts the sex ratio in these cities. Also many people flocking to these areas are unable to adjust to changed conditions, hence face social isolation, which leads them to depression and also to crimes like alcoholism and drug abuse. Male selective migration leads to imbalance in sex ratio.

Environmental Problems: The large urban population in developing countries not only uses but also disposes off a huge quantity of water and all types of waste materials. Many cities of the developing countries even find it extremely difficult to provide the minimum required quantity of potable water and water for domestic and industrial uses. Massive use of traditional fuel in the domestic as well as the industrial sector severely pollutes the air. Huge concrete structures erected to accommodate the population and economic play a very conducive role to create heat islands.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How are the settlements of world classified based on shapes?
Answer:
The major type of settlement classified by types of shape are

  • Compact or nucleated settlements
  • Dispersed settlements.

Question 2.
What are the predominant activities in the rural settlements of the world?
Answer:
Rural settlements are dominated by primary activities such as agriculture, animal husbandry, fishing etc.

Question 3.
What does the pattern of rural settlements reflects?
Answer:
Patterns of rural settlements reflect the way the houses are cited in relation to each other.

Question 4.
What factors influence the shape and size of a village?
Answer:
The factors that influence the shape and size of a village are the site of the village, the surrounding topography and the terrain of the area.

Question 5.
Which urban center is the first to reach 1 million mark and when?
Answer:
London is the first million city of the world, and it reached 1 million mark by 1810.

Question 6.
How site of a place is different from its situation?
Answer:
Site of’ a place is its exact location whereas situation is the relative position of a place in relation to the surrounding areas and available facilities.

Question 7.
Which is the first mega city of the world?
Answer:
New York is the first city to become a mega city in 1950 with 12.5 million people.

Question 8.
Which continent has the largest number of million cities in the world?
Answer:
Asia has the largest number of million cities in the world.

Question 9.
How many mega cities are there in the world?
Answer:
There are 438 mega cities in the world in 2005.

Question 10.
Which architect planned the capital of Australia?
Answer:
Canberra, the capital of Australia was planned by American architect Walter Burley Griffin in 1912.

Question 11.
What does the name of the Ethiopian capital indicate?
Answer:
The name of the Ethiopian capital Addis Ababa indicates new city (Addis- new, Ababa-flower) and was established in 1878.

Question 12.
What is the main cause of urbanization?
Answer:
The most important cause of urbanization is rural-urban migration. During the late 1990’s some 20 to 30 million people were leaving the countryside every year and moving into towns and cities.

Question 13.
What are administrative towns?
Answer:
National capitals, which house the administrative offices of central governments are called administrative towns. For example; New Delhi, Canberra, Beijing, Addis Ababa, Washington D.C., and London etc.

Question 14.
What are trading and commercial towns?
Answer:
It includes important agricultural market towns (Winnipeg and Kansas city); banking and financial centres (Frankfurt and Amsterdam); large inland centers (Manchester and St Louis); and transport nodes (Lahore, Baghdad and Agra).

Question 15.
What is the main cause of congestion in urban areas?
Answer:
Most cities in India are unplanned which is the main cause of congestion. Migration from rural areas main cities.

Question 16.
What are cultural towns? Do they perform some other functions also? Mention.
Answer:
Places of pilgrimage are considered cultural towns. For example; Jerusalem, Mecca, Jagannath Puri and Varanasi etc. These urban centers are of great religious importance. Additional functions which the cities perform are health and recreation (Miami and Panaji), industrial (Pittsburgh and Jamshedpur), mining and quarrying (Broken Hill and Dhanbad) and transport (Singapore and Mughal Sarai).

Question 17.
Towns and cities of developed and developing countries reflect marked differences in planning and development. How?
Answer:
Towns and cities of developed and developing countries reflect marked differences in planning and development. While most cities in developed countries are planned, most urban settlements of developing countries have evolved historically with irregular shapes. For example, Chandigarh and Canberra are planned cities, while smaller towns in India have evolved historically from walled cities to large urban sprawls.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give the census definition of urban settlements in India.
Answer:
The census of India 1991 defines urban settlements as

  • All places which have municipality, corporation, cantonment board or notified town area committee.
  • Have a minimum population of 5000.
  • At least 75% of male workers are engaged in non agricultural pursuits.
  • Density ‘of population of at least 400 person per square kilometre.

Question 2.
What are the criteria of classifying rural settlement of the world?
Answer:
Rural settlements may be classified on a number of criteria.
On the basis of setting the main types are:

  • Plain village
  • Plateau village
  • Coastal village
  • Forest village
  • Desert village

On the basis of function:

  • Farming village
  • Fisherman village
  • Lumberjack villages
  • Pastoral villages

On the basis of forms or shapes of the settlements. These may be a number of geometric forms and shapes such as:

  • Linear
  • Rectangular
  • Circular
  • Star like
  • T and Y shaped village
  • Double village etc.

Question 3.
Compare the settlements pattern of the world on the basis of shape.
Answer:
Settlements may be classified by their shape, pattern, types. The major types classified by shape are

  • Compact or nucleated settlements: These settlements are those in which large nuber of houses are built very close to each other. Communities are closely knit and share common occupations. Such settlements develop along river valleys and fertile plains.
  • Dispersed settlements: In this type of settlement, houses are spaced apart from each other and often interspersed with fields. A cultural feature such as a place of worship or market binds the settlement together.

Question 4.
With example show the significance of location for urban center.
Answer:
Location of urban centers is examined with reference to their functions. Example; The requirements of a holiday resort are quite different from that of a military center, sea port or a mining town. Strategic towns require sites offering natural defence, mining towns require the presence of economically valuable minerals where ports require a harbour etc. Earlier urban settlements were based on the availability of water, fertile land and building material. Today, modern technology plays a significant role in locating urban settlements far away from the source of these materials
eg. piped water can be supplied to a distant settlement away from the source. Today apart from site, situation plays an important role in the expansion of the town.
eg. centers located closer to transport links have experienced rapid development.

Question 5.
What is a healthy city?
Answer:
As per the suggestions of World Health Organisation, a healthy city must have:

  • A clean and safe environment
  • Meets the basic needs of all its inhabitants.
  • Involves the community in local government.
  • Provides easily accessible health service.

Question 6.
What is meant by urban strategy?
Answer:
The United Nations Development Programme has outlined the following priorities as part of it’s urban strategy.

  • Increasing shelter for the poor.
  • Provision of basic services such as education, primary health care, clean water and sanitation.
  • Improving women’s access to basic services and governmental facilities.
  • Upgrading energy use and alternative transport system.
  • Reducing air pollution.

Question 7.
“There is no consensus on what exactly defines a village or a town.” Justify the statement with examples.
Answer:
Settlement is classified into urban and rural, but there is no consensus:

  • Population size is small in rural settlements than urban settlements. But it is not universally applied because many villages of India and China have population exceeding that of some towns of Western Europe and the United States.
  • People living in villages pursued agriculture or other primary activities, but presently in developed countries, large sections of urban populations prefer to live in villages even though they work in the city.
  • Petrol pumps are considered as a rural function in the United States while it is an urban function in India.
  • Facilities available in the villages of developed countries may be considered rare in villages of developing and less developed countries.

Question 8.
How are urban settlements classified around the world?
Or
What are the three common bases of classifying a settlement as urban around the world?
Or
What are the criteria for classification of urban settlements of the world?
Answer:
Urban settlements are classified on the basis of its size of the population, occupational structure and administration.

  • Population size: In India, a settlement having population of more than 5000 persons is called urban. In Japan, it is 30,000 persons whereas in Sweden it is 250 persons. The cut off figure depends on the density of population in the country.
  • Occupational structure: Besides population size, occupation is also taken as a criterion. In India, if more than 75 per cent of workforce is engaged in non-agricultural activities then the settlement is called as urban. Other countries have their own criteria for e.g. in Italy it is 50 per cent.
  • Administrative structure: In India, a settlement is classified as urban if it has a municipality, cantonment board or a notified area. In Brazil, any administrative center is termed as urban irrespective of its population.

Question 9.
Explain the role of site and situation in determining the location and expansion of towns.
Answer:
Location of urban centers is influenced by their functions. Site refers to the actual piece of ground on which the settlement is built. Situation refers to the location of the settlement in relation to the surrounding areas.

  • Strategic towns require sites offering natural defense.
  • Mining towns require the presence of economically valuable minerals.
  • Industrial towns generally need local energy supplies or raw materials.
  • Tourist centers require attractive scenery, or a marine beach, a spring with medicinal water or historical relics.

Question 10.
State any four important functions of urban centers.
Answer:
The important centers are:

  • The earlier functions of towns were related to administration, trade, industry, defence and religion.
  • Today, towns perform multiple functions such as, recreational, residential, transport, mining, manufacturing and the activities related to information technology.
  • Some towns are known for their functions. For example, Sheffield as an industrial city, London as a port city, Chandigarh as an administrative city.
  • Large cities have a rather greater diversity of functions.

Question 11.
Explain the town planning of Addis Ababa. –
Answer:
The name of Ethiopian capital Addis Ababa means “the new flower’. As the name indicates (Addis means New and Ababa means Flower). It is a ‘new’ city.

  • Establishment: It was established in 1878.
  • Road: The road pattern bears the influence of the local topography. The roads radiate from the government headquarters Piazza, Arat and Amist Kilo roundabouts.
  • Markets: Mercato has markets which grew with time and is supposed to be the largest market between Cairo and Johannesburg.
  • Infrastructure: A multi-faculty university, a medical college, a number of good schools makes Addis Ababa an educational centre. It is also the terminal station for the Djibouti-Addis Ababa rail route. Bole airport is a relatively new airport.
  • Growth: The city has witnessed rapid growth because of its multi- functional nature. It is a large nodal centre located in the centre of Ethiopia.

Question 12.
What is sub-urbanization? Mention the causes of sub-urbanization.
Answer:
It is a new trend of people moving away from congested urban areas to cleaner areas outside the city in search of a better quality of living. Causes of sub urbanization:

  • Congestion in urban areas.
  • Deterioration in civic amenities.
  • Unhealthy environmental conditions.
  • High rate of land.

Question 13 .
What are cultural towns? Do they perform some other functions also? Mention.
Answer:
Places of pilgrimage are considered cultural towns. For example; Jerusalem, Mecca, Jagannath Puri and Varanasi etc. These urban centres are of great religious importance. Additional functions which the cities perform are health and recreation (Miami and Panaji), industrial (Pittsburgh and Jamshedpur), mining and quarrying (Broken Hill and Dhanbad) and transport (Singapore and Mughal Sarai).

Question 14.
Towns and cities of developed and developing countries reflect marked differences in planning and development. How?
Answer:
Towns and cities of developed and developing countries reflect marked differences in planning and development. While most cities in developed countries are planned, most urban settlements of developing countries have evolved historically with irregular shapes. For example, Chandigarh and Canberra are planned cities, while smaller towns in India have evolved historically from walled cities to large urban sprawls.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
List the factors that affect the location of rural settlements of the world.
Answer:
The rural settlements of the world are influenced by the following factors:

Water supply: usually rural settlements are located near water bodies like rivers, lakes for easy access. Since water is essential for survival, so the need for water forces people to settle people on swamps or floodplains. Water bodies provide people water for drinking, cooking, washing and as well as to irrigate farmland, fishing activity and for transportation.

Land: People settle near fertile lands like the rolling meadows in Europe and low lying areas and river valleys and coastal plains of South East Asia for rice cultivation.

Upland: Higher grounds which are not prone to flooding is another factor which influences location of rural settlements.

People generally avoid the low lying river basins and choose to settle on diy points that is terraces and levees. In tropical countries people build their houses on stills to protect themselves from flood, insects and animal pests.

Building material: The availability of building materials that is wood, stone near settlement is another advantage. Early villages were build in forest clearings where wood was easily available. In African Savanna, the building material was mud bricks and Eskimos in polar areas use ice blocks to construct igloos.

Defense: In order to avoid political instability, hostility of neighboring groups, villages were build on defensive hills and islands. Example; In Nigeria inselbergs act as good defensive site. In India forts are build on high grounds.

Planned Settlements: These are build by governments where they provide shelter, water and other infrastructures. Example; The scheme of villagisation in Ethiopia, and canal colonies in Indira Gandhi canal command area.

Question 2.
Classify the rural settlements of the world on the basis of forms or shapes of the settlements.
Or
Explain different types of rural settlement patterns on the basis of the shapes of the settlements.
Answer:
Rural settlements of the world can be classified on the basis of forms or shapes of settlements as

  • Linear: In such settlements, houses are located along a road, railway line, river, canal edge or a valley or along a levee.
  • Rectangular pattern: Such pattern of rural settlements are found in plain areas or wide inter montane valleys. The roads are rectangular and cut each other at right angles.
  • Circular pattern: These develop around lakes, tanks and sometimes a village is planned in such a way that the central part remains open and is used for keeping the animals to protect them from wild animals.
  • Star like pattern: Where several roads converge, star shaped settlements develop by the houses build along the roads.
  • T-shaped, Y-shaped, cross-shaped or cruciform settlement: T-shaped settlements develop at tri-junctions of road, while Y-shaped settlements emerge at the place where two roads converge on the third one and houses are built along these roads. Cruciform settlements develop on the cross roads and houses extend in all four direction.
  • Double village: These village extend on both sides of river where there is a bridge or a ferry.

Question 3.
List the problem of rural settlement of the world in the developing countries.
Answer:
Rural settlements in developing countries are large in number and lack basic infrastructural facilities. Some of them are as under:

  • Inadequate supply of water specially in the mountainous and arid areas walk long distances to fetch drinking water.
  • Countries of South Asia face drought and flood very often which leads to water borne diseases like jaundice, cholera and aridity leads to crop failure due to lack of irrigation.
  • Absence of toilet and garbage disposal * facilities cause health related problems.
  • The houses made up of mud, wood, thatch get damaged easily during heavy rains and floods and lack ventilation. They include animal shed and storing area as well.
  • Unmetalled roads during rainy season cut off the settlement and pose serious difficulties.
  • The villages generally lack adequate health and educational infrastructure for their population, especially in areas of dispersed settlements.

Question 4.
Classify urban settlements of the world on basis of size and the services available and functions rendered.
Answer:
Depending on the basis of the size and the services available functions rendered, urban centres of the world are classified as town, city, million city, conurbation and megalopolis.

Town: The concept of town is understood with reference to village. Population size is not the only criteria. In the towns specific functions like manufacturing, retail and wholesale trade and professional services exist.

City: A city is regarded as a leading town and are much larger than the other regional towns and have a greater number of economic functions. Cities generally have transport terminals, financial institutions and regional administrative offices.

Million Cities: When the population of a city crosses the one million mark , it is designated as a million city. The number of million cities in the world has been increasing. London first reached the million mark followed by Paris and New York.

Conurbation: The term was coined by Patrick Geddes in 1915 and apply to a large area of urban development that resulted from the merging of originally separate towns and cities. Example; Greater London, Manchester, Tokyo, Chicago, etc.

Megalopolis: It is a Greek word meaning great city, was popularized by Jean Gottman (1957) and signifies super metropolitan region extending as union of conurbations. The urban landscape stretching from Boston in the North to south of Washington in South in USA is an example. Mega city or megalopolis is a general term for cities together their suburbs with a population of more than 10 million. New York was the first to attain.

Question 5.
Give the broad functional classification of towns of the world.
Answer:
Inspite of towns performing multiple functions, we refer and classify them according to their dominant function. Example; We think of London as a port city, Chandigarh as an administrative town. Large cities are multi functional and gradually develop new functions over time. Towns and cities are classified into following categories.

  • Administrative towns: National capitals which house the administrative offices of central governments such as New Delhi, Canberra, Beijing, etc. are called administrative towns. Provincial towns can also have administrative function. Example; Victoria, Albany.
  • Trading and commercial towns: Agricultural market towns, such as, Winnipeg and Kansas city; banking and financial centres like Frankfurt and Amsterdam; large inland centres like Manchester and St. Louis; and transport nodes such as Lahore, Baghdad and Agra have been important trading centres.
  • Cultural towns: Places of pilgrimage such as Jerusalem, Mecca, Varanasi etc. are considered cultural towns. These urban centres are of great religious importance. Additional functions which the cities perform are health and recreation (Miami and Panaji), industrial (Pittsburgh and Jamshedpur), mining and quarrying (Broken hill and Dhanbad) and transport (Singapore and Mughal Sarai).

Question 6.
What is the basic difference between towns and villages?
Answer:

TownsVillages
In towns the main occupation of the people is related to secondary and tertiary sectors.In the villages most of the people are engaged in primary occupations such as agriculture, fishing, lumbering, mining, animal husbandry, etc.

Question 7.
Distinguish between rural and urban settlements
Answer:

Rural settlements Urban settlements
(i) These types of settlements are chiefly concerned with primary activities such as agriculture, mining, fishing, forestry etc.(i)   These types of settlements are nodal in character and have secondary and tertiary activities.
(ii) Most of the people of rural settlements are engaged in agricultural activities(ii)   The chief occupation of the people of urban areas is non-agricultural i.e. industry, trade and services.
(iii) The major function of rural settlement is agriculture and each settlement specializes in various activities.iii)The major functions of urban areas are trades and commerce, transport and communication, mining and manuf acturing, defence, administration, cultural and recreational activities.
(iv)  Population density is small and the settlement size is small.(iv) Population density is high and the settlement size is large.

Question 8.
Differentiate between compact and dispersed settlements.
Answer:

Compact or nucleated settlementsDispersed settlements
(i) In it, a large number of houses are built very close to each other.

(ii) Compact settlements develop along river valley and fertile plains.

(iii) Communities are closely knit and share common occupations.

(i) In it, houses are spaced far apart and often interspersed with fields.

(ii) They are normally found on hills, plain and high lanes.

(iii)Cultural feature such as a place of worship or a market, binds the settlement together.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 10 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is the meaning of human settlement? (CBSE 2008)
OR
Give the meaning of human settlement? (CBSE 2012)
Answer:
Human settlement means cluster of dwellings of any type or size where human beings live.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of planned rural settlements? (Foreign 2009)
Answer:
Planned rural settlements are constructed by governments by providing shelter, water and other infrastructures on acquired lands.

Question 3.
Give any two examples of conurbation from the world. (Foreign 2009)
Answer:
Greater London and Manchester, Tokyo

Question 4.
Explain the meaning of rural settlements. (A.I. 2010) OR What are rural settlements? (CBSE 2007)
Answer:
Rural settlements are most closely and directly related to land. They are dominated by primary activities such as agriculture, animal husbandry, fishing etc. They are relatively small in size.

Question 5.
Name the rural settlement pattern that develops around lakes or ponds in the world. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Circular pattern.

Question 6.
Name the rural settlement pattern that develops along roads, rivers and canals in the world. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Linear pattern.

Question 7.
Mention any two characteristics of sub-urbanization. (A.I.; CBSE 2015)
Answer:

  • People move away from congested urban areas to cleaner areas outside the city.
  • Everyday thousands of people commute from their homes in the suburbs to their work places in the city.

Question 8.
Which are the two major types of settlements according to their shape found in the world? (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Two major types of settlements:

  1. Compact settlement
  2. Dispersed settlement

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Classify settlements of the world on the basis of their shape in two categories. Mention any three characteristic of each. (A.I. 2011) OR
Classify human settlements of the world into two types by their shape. Explain any two features of each. (A.I. 2012)
Answer:
The following are the two major types of settlements:

  • Compact or Nucleated Settlements
  • Dispersed Settlements Features of Compact Settlements:
  • Such settlements develop along river valleys and in fertile plains.
  • In such type of settlements a large number of houses are built very close to each other.
  • Communities are closely knit and share common occupations.

Dispersed Settlements:

  • A cultural feature such as a place of worship or a market, binds the settlement together.
  • In these settlements, houses are spaced far apart.
  • They are often interspersed with fields.

Question 2.
Explain with examples the ‘population size’ criteria used by most countries to define urban areas. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
The lower limit of the population size for the settlement to be designated as urban is:

  • 1,500 in Colombia, 2,000 in Argentina and Portugal, 2,500 in USA and Thailand and 30,000 in Japan and 5000 in India.
  • Besides the size of population, density of 400 persons per sq km and share of non-agricultural workers are taken into consideration in India.
  • Countries with low density of population may choose a lower number as the cut-off figure compared to densely populated countries.
  • In Denmark, Sweden and Finland all places with a population size of 250 persons are called urban.
  • The minimum population for a city is 300 in Iceland, whereas in Canada and Venezuela, it is 1,000 persons.

Question 3.
Study the table given below and answer the questions that follow: (A.I. 2016)
Continent-wise Distribution of Million Cities
Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 10 Human Settlements 1
(i) Name the two continents which have shown the highest growth rate of million cities from 1950 to 2000.
(ii) What could have been the reason for such a growth of million cities?
(iii) Give the meaning of a ‘million city’.
Answer:

  • Africa and Asia.
  • Since most of the cities are unplanned so they face several problems. People flock to the cities from the rural areas to avail of employment opportunities and civic amenities.
  • City with a population of one million is called a million city.

Question 4.
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:
Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 10 Human Settlements 2
(i) Identify and name the given rural settlement pattern.
(ii) In which type of areas do we find such type of settlement patterns?
(iii) Give an important characteristic of this type of settlement pattern.
Answer:

  • Cross-shape pattern.
  • Such patterns of rural settlement are found in plain areas. They are also found in wide inter montane valleys.

Characteristics:

  • House are built side-by-side.
  • They are in a compact fashion.
  • The roads are rectangular and cut each other at right angles. Houses extend in all four directions.

Question 5.
‘There is no consensus on what exactly defines a village or a town.” Analyse the statement by using different criteria.(A.i. 2017)
Answer:
It is true that there is no consensus on what exactly defines a village or town because different countries have different parameters as –

  • Population size
  • Occupational structure
  • Administration
  • Location
  • Functions of Urban Centres (Any three points to be analysed)

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information. (Delhi 2017)
(A) A large country of Europe in area.
(B) An area of subsistence gathering.
(C) The terminal station of a ‘trans-continental railway’.
(D) A major sea port
(E) An international airport
Answer:
Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 10 Human Settlements 3
Question 2.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the World as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information: (A.I. 2017)
(A) A large country of Africa in terms of area
(B) A major area of subsistence gathering.
(C) The terminal station of a Trans-Continental Railway.
(D) A major sea port
(E) An international airport.
Answer:
Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 10 Human Settlements 4

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 10 Human Settlements appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 1 Power Sharing

$
0
0

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 1 Power Sharing

Very Shor Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark

Question 1.
Which language was recognized as the only official language of Sri Lanka in 1956? (2012)
Answer:
Sinhala

Question 2.
Apart from the Central and the State governments, which is the third type of government practised in Belgium? (2012)
Answer:
Community government

Question 3.
Define majoritarianism. (2013)
Answer:
Majoritarianism is rule by majority community by disregarding the needs and wishes of the minority community.

Question 4.
What measure was adopted by the democratically elected government of Sri Lanka to establish Sinhala Supremacy? (2014)
Answer:

  • In 1956, an Act was passed to make Sinhala the official language.
  • The government followed preferential policies favouring Sinhala applicants for University positions and government jobs.

Question 5.
What is the language spoken by the people residing in the Wallonia region of Belgium? (2014)
Answer:
People residing in Wallonia region of Belgium speak French.

Question 6.
What is meant by the system of ‘checks and balances’? (2015)
Answer:
The horizontal distribution of power ensures that power is shared among different organs of government—the legislature, executive and judiciary. It allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. The horizontal distribution of power is also called a system of checks and balances. This system ensures that none of these organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the other.

Question 7.
After independence, Sri Lanka witnessed the supremacy of which community? (2015)
Answer:
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948 and the democratically elected government adopted a series of measures to establish Sinhala supremacy.

Question 8.
Define the term ‘Ethnic’.
Answer:
Ethnic means a social division based on shared culture and common descent. People belonging to an ethnic group need not have the same religion or nationality.

Question 9.
What is vertical division of power?
Answer:
When power is shared among governments at different levels, i.e., the Union or the Central Government, the State Government and the Municipality and Panchayat at the lower level. This division of power involving higher and lower levels of government is called the vertical division of power.

Short Answer Questions (SA) 3 Marks

Question 10.
Compare the different ways in which the Belgians and the Sri Lankans have dealt with the problem of cultural diversity. (2012)
Answer:
Both Belgium and Sri Lanka are democracies, yet they have dealt with the problem of cultural diversity very differently.
Belgium:

  1. Leaders realised that for the unity of the country it is important to respect the feelings and interests of different communities. The Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French speaking people shall be equal in the Central Government.
  2. Both Dutch and French communities share power on an equal basis at the Centre. Along with the State Government, both communities have a third kind of Government called ‘Community Government’ which decides on cultural, education and language related issues.
  3. Between, 1970 and 1993, the Constitution was amended four times to enable all linguistic groups to live together within the same country.

Sri Lanka:

  1. In Sri Lanka, there are two major communities, the Sinhalese speaking (74%) and Tamil speaking (18%). The majority community, the Sinhalese have forced their domination over Tamils, refusing to share power.
  2. Both communities have lived in tension as the Sinhalese have denied political, educational, religious, employment and economic rights to the Tamils leading to Civil War.
  3. In 1956, the Government passed an Act to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil.

Question 11.
How far do you agree with the statement that power sharing is keeping with the spirit of democracy? (2012)
Answer:
Power sharing is desirable in democracy because it helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups. Conflict between social groups leads to violence and political instability. Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order.

Imposing the will of majority community over others, in the long run may undermine the unity of the nation. Tyranny of the majority is not just oppressive for the minority, it often brings ruin to the majority as well.

A democratic rule involves sharing power with those affected by its exercise and who have to live with its effects. People have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed. A legitimate government is one where citizens, through participation, acquire a stake in the system. Prudential reasons stress that power sharing brings out better outcomes whereas moral reasons emphasize the act of power sharing as valuable.

Question 12.
Explain any three consequences of the majoritarian policies adopted by the Sri Lankan government. (2013)
Answer:
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The democratically elected government adopted a series of majoritarian measures to establish Sinhala Supremacy. Consequences of these majoritarian policies:

  1. The Sri Lankan Tamils felt that none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders were sensitive to their language and culture and the government policies denied them equal political rights which led to increased feeling of alienation among them.
  2. The Sri Lankan Tamils felt that the constitution denied them equal rights in politics, in getting jobs and ignored their interests. The relation between the Tamil and Sinhala communities became extremely strained as a result.
  3. The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in every field.
  4. Therefore, the measures adopted by the government to establish Sinhala supremacy led to distrust between the two communities which turned the widespread conflict into a Civil War. As a result, thousands of people of both communities were killed and many families were forced to leave the country as refugees and lost their livelihoods.

Question 13.
Why is the ethnic composition of Belgium complex?
Answer:
Belgium is a small country in Europe, having a population of a little over one crore.

  • 59 per cent of the country’s total population lives in the Flemish region and speak Dutch language.
  • Another 40 per cent people live in Wallonia region and speak French. Remaining one per cent of the Belgians speak German.
  • Whereas in the Belgian capital, Brussels, 80 per cent of the population is French-speaking and 20 per cent is Dutch-speaking.

Question 14.
How is Belgium’s power-sharing path different from any other country?
Or, Explain the four elements in the Belgian power-sharing model.
Or, Why do we find the Belgian model very complicated? How has it helped to prevent conflict and division of the country on linguistic lines?
Answer:
The power-sharing arrangements made by the Belgian leaders were different and more innovative than any other country. To recognise the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities, they amended their Constitution four times between 1970 and 1993.
The major elements of the Belgian Model are:

  1. Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the Central Government. No single community can take decisions unilaterally.
  2. The State Governments are not subordinate to the Central Government.
  3. Brussels, the capital, has a separate government where both the communities have equal representation.
  4. A third kind of government, ‘Community Government’, is elected by people belonging to one language community — Dutch, French and German speaking —no matter where they live. This government can decide on cultural, educational and language related issues.

Question 15.
What is majoritarianism? Is it wrong if a majority community in a country rules? Give reasons to justify your answer.
Answer:
A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is majoritarianism.
Yes, it is wrong if a majority community in a country rules.

  • The very idea of power-sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions of undivided political power.
  • A positive attitude towards diversity and willingness to accommodate it, is good for democracy.
  • Power in the hands of one community will make the other community feel marginalised, deprived and discriminated.
  • The struggle against such inequalities sometimes takes the path of conflict and defiance of State power as in Sri Lanka.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks

Question 16.
Analyse how majoritarianism has increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils? (2014, 2015)
Or
Mention the measures adopted by the government to establish Sinhala supremacy.
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The democratically elected government adopted a series of measures to establish Sinhala supremacy:

  1. In 1956, an Act was passed to make Sinhala the official language.
  2. The government followed preferential policies favouring Sinhala applicants for University positions and government jobs.
  3. The Constitution provided for State protection and fostering of Buddhism.

The Sri Lankan Tamils felt that none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders were sensitive to their language and culture and the government policies denied them equal political rights which led to increased feeling of alienation among them.

The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in every field.

Therefore, the measures adopted by the government to establish Sinhala supremacy led to distrust between the two communities which turned the widespread conflict into a Civil War.

Question 17.
“Power Sharing is the very spirit of democracy”. Justify the statement. (2015)
Answer:

  1. A democratic rule involves sharing power with those affected by its exercise. Power sharing ensures that people have the right to be consulted and have equal participation in the government.
  2. In a democracy, each individual has a say in governance through their elected representatives. This is the essence of power sharing that grants equal rights to each citizen.
  3. Sharing of power ensures that respect for diversity and desire for living together becomes a shared ideal amongst different communities in a country. It actually makes the country united and the administration easier.
  4. Prudential reasons stress that power sharing would bring out better outcomes by helping to reduce the possibility of any conflict between the social groups.
  5. Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order through unity of the nation.

Question 18.
Describe the vertical and horizontal forms of power sharing exercised in India.
Answer:
Vertical distribution of power. Power can be shared among governments at different levels —a general government for the entire country and governments at provincial or regional level. This is the federal form of government.

When power is shared among governments at different levels, i.e., the Union or the Central Government, the State Government and the Municipality and Panchayat at the lower level. This division of power involving higher and lower levels of government is called the vertical division of power.

The Constitution clearly lays down the powers of different levels of government. This federal division of power involving higher and lower levels of government is also called the vertical division of power. Example: A key change in the Constitution of Belgium in 1993 was that the regional governments were given constitutional powers that were no longer dependent on the Central Government. Thus, Belgium shifted from a unitary to a federal form of government.

Horizontal distribution of power. Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary. This is horizontal distribution of power. It ensures that power is shared among different organs of government—the legislature, executive and judiciary. It allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.

In a democracy, ministers and government officials exercise power. They are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies. The judges appointed by the executive can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislature.

The horizontal distribution of power is also called a system of checks and balances.

This system ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the other. This results in a balance of power among various institutions.

Example: In India the judiciary has an independent status. The Supreme Court is the apex court of justice. The Parliament is the legislative body where the laws governing the country are made and the Executive is the implementing body.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions

The post Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 1 Power Sharing appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 2 Federalism

$
0
0

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 2 Federalism

Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark

Question 1.
Which state in India has its own Constitution? (2012)
Answer:
Jammu and Kashmir

Question 2.
What is Rural local self government popularly known as? (2013)
Answer:
Panchayati Raj

Question 3.
Which local body has a ‘Mayor’ as its head? (2014)
Answer:
Head of Municipal Corporation is a Mayor.

Question 4.
What other factors besides politics keep the federations united? (2015)
Answer:
Besides politics, other factors which keep the federations united are culture, ideology and history. Culture of trust, cooperation, mutual respect and restraint has also helped in the smooth functioning of nations.

Question 5.
What was the main objective of the Constitutional Amendment made in 1992 in India? (2015)
Answer:
The main objective of the Constitutional Amendment in 1992 was to strengthen the three-tier system of governance, i.e., make the Panchayati Raj Institution and the urban local bodies more powerful and effective.

Question 6.
What status has been given to the ‘Hindi’ language by the Constitution of India? (2013)
Answer:
Hindi has been given the status of ‘Official language’ by the Constitution of India.

Question 7.
Much of the official work in Indian States is done in which language? (2014)
Answer:
Much of the official work in Indian States is done in the official language of the concerned state.

Question 8.
What is Federalism?
Answer:
Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. This vertical division of power among different levels of governments is referred to as federalism. Federalism is one of the major forms of power-sharing in modem democracies.

Question 9.
Name the subject list from which both the Union and the State governments can make laws? (2017 D)
Answer:
Concurrent List

Short Answer Questions (SA) 3 Marks

Question 10.
Explain the vertical division of power by giving examples from India. (2013)
Answer:
When power is shared among governments at different levels, i.e., the Union or the Central Government, the State Government and the Municipality and Panchayat at the lower level. This division of power involving higher and lower levels of government is called the vertical division of power.
Vertical division of power in India:

The Constitution declares India as a Union of States. Although the word ‘Federation’ is not used, the Indian Union is based on the principles of federation. The Constitution originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the Union Government or the Central Government representing Union of India and the State Governments.

A third-tier of federation was added in the form of Panchayats and Municipalities. As in any federation, these different tiers enjoy separate jurisdiction. The Constitution provides for a three-fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and State Government. It contains three lists:

  1. Union List (97 Subjects)
  2. State List (66 Subjects)
  3. Concurrent List (47 Subjects)

Question 11.
Why is decentralisation favoured in democracy? Identify any two reasons. (2014)
Answer:
Five advantages of decentralisation of power:

  1. When power is taken away from Central and State Governments and given to local governments, it is called decentralisation. The basic idea behind decentralisation is that there are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level. People have better knowledge of problems in their localities.
  2. They also have better ideas on where to spend money and how to manage things more efficiently.
  3. Besides, at the local level, it is possible for the people to directly participate in decision making. This helps to inculcate a habit of democratic participation.
  4. Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self¬government.
  5. The need for decentralisation was recognised in our Constitution. A major step towards decentralisation was taken in 1992. The Constitution was amended to make the third tier of democracy more powerful and effective.

Question 12.
India comes under which type of federation and why? (2014)
Answer:
India comes under ‘a holding together’ type federation. In this type of federation, a large country divides its power between the constituent States and the National government. There is one government for the entire country and the others are governments at the State level. Both Central and State Governments enjoy their power independent of the other.

The Central government tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis the states. Often different constituent units of the federation have unequal powers. For example, special powers have been granted to Jammu & Kashmir.

Question 13.
State two agreements through which federations have been formed. Give an example of each.
Answer:
(i) ‘Coming together’ federations—This agreement induces independent states coming together on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security.
Examples are: USA, Switzerland and Australia. All the constituent states have equal power and are strong vis-a-vis the federal government.

(ii) ‘Holding together’ federations — In this agreement, a large country decides to divide its power between the constituent States and the national government. The Central Governments tend to be more powerful vis-a-vis the states. Often different constituent units of the federation have unequal powers. Some units are granted special powers, for example, India granted special powers to Jammu & Kashmir.
Other examples are Spain and Belgium.

Long Answer Questions (LA)

Question 14.
Which five provisions of the constitutional amendment of 1992 really strengthened the third tier of democracy in India? Explain. (2015, 2013, 2012)
Answer:
Major steps towards decentralisation and strengthening of third tier taken in 1992 were:

  1. Now it is constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to Local Government bodies.
  2. Seats are reserved in elected bodies for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes (OBCs).
  3. Atleast one-third of all positions and seats are reserved for women.
  4. An independent institution called the State Election Commission was created to conduct Panchayat and Municipal elections.
  5. The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with Local Government bodies.

Question 15.
Why has federalism succeeded in India? Which are the policies adopted by India that have ensured it? Explain. (2013, 2012)
Answer:
Reasons for success of federalism in India are:

  1. Clearly laid out Constitutional Provisions providing a three-fold distribution of powers in the three lists—Union List, State List and Concurrent List—between the Union Government and State Governments.
  2. The nature of democratic politics in our country which ensures that the spirit of federalism, respect for diversity and desire for living together became a shared ideal.
  3. The creation of linguistic states. Boundaries of several old states of India were changed in order to create new states. This was done to ensure that people who spoke the same language lived in the same state. Later some states were created to recognise differences based on culture, ethnicity or geography.
    For example: Nagaland, Uttrakhand, Jharkhand, Telangana, etc.
  4. Restricting Centre-State relations. The constitutional arrangements for sharing power work depending on how the ruling parties and leaders follow these arrangements. For a long time, the same party ruled both at the Centre and in most of states. Post-1990 saw the rise of regional parties. Since no single party got a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, the national parties had to enter into an alliance which led to a new culture of power sharing and respect for autonomy of State Governments.

Question 16.
Explain any five features of federalism. (2015)
Answer:
Features of federalism:

  1. There are two or more levels of government.
  2. Different levels of government govern the same citizens, where each level has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
  3. Existence and authority of each level of government is constitutionally governed.
  4. The fundamental provisions of the Constitution cannot be unilaterally changed. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government.
  5. Courts have the power to interpret the Constitution and powers of the different levels of government. The highest court acts as the umpire if any dispute arises between different levels of governments.
  6. Sources of revenue for each level of government are specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
  7. Federal system has dual objectives. To safeguard and promote unity of the country, and to accommodate regional diversity.

Question 17.
Describe the three forms of power sharing among different organs of government in India. (2014)
Answer:
The Constitution declared India as a Union of States based on the principles of federalism. The Constitution originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the Union or the Central Government representing Union of India and the State Governments. Later, a third tier was added in the form of Panchayats and Municipalities.

As in any federation, these different tiers enjoyed separate jurisdiction. The Constitution provided a three-fold distribution of legislative powers:

  1. Union List includes subjects of national importance, i.e., defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency.
  2. State List contains subjects of state and local importance, i.e., police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation.
  3. Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest to both the Union Government as well as the State Governments, i.e., education, forests, trade unions, marriages, adoption and succession.
    In case of dispute, law made by the Union Government shall prevail.
  4. Residuary—Subjects which do not fall in any of the three lists, i.e., computer software, etc. Union Government has the power to legislate such subjects.
    • As India is an example of ‘holding together’ federation, all states in the Indian Union do not have identical powers. Some states enjoy special status such as Jammu & Kashmir. There are some states too small to become independent like the Union Territories of Chandigarh and Lakshadweep.
    • This sharing of power between the Union Government and State Governments is basic to the structure of the Constitution. Any change to it, has to be passed by both the Houses of the Parliament with at least two-third majority.
    • The judiciary plays an important role in the implementation of constitutional procedures. In case of any dispute about division of powers, the High Courts and the Supreme Court make a decision.

Question 18.
Describe in brief the language policy of India?
Answer:

  1. Our Constitution did not give the status of national language to any one language.
  2. The formation of linguistic states united the country and made administration easier.
  3. The leaders of our country adopted a very cautious attitude in spreading the use of Hindi. Hindi was identified as official language.
  4. The banning of use of English for official purposes in 1965 took a violent form in Tamil Nadu. The Central Government responded by agreeing to continue the use of English along with Hindi for official purposes.
  5. Promotion of Hindi is an official policy of the Government of India but it does not impose Hindi on states where people speak a different language.
  6. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as scheduled languages by the Constitution.
  7. This flexibility shown by Indian leaders helped our country avoid the situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.

Question 19.
What were the major steps taken to make decentralisation more effective?
Or
What amendments were made in the Constitution in order to make the third tier of democracy (Local Government) more powerful and effective?
Answer:
Major steps towards decentralisation taken in 1992 are:

  1. Now it is constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to Local Government bodies.
  2. Seats are reserved in elected bodies for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes (OBCs).
  3. Atleast one-third of all positions are reserved for women.
  4. The State Election Commission was created to conduct Panchayat and Municipal elections.
  5. The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with Local Government bodies.

Question 20.
Explain the structure of the new Panchayati Raj institutions, both in rural and urban areas.
Answer:
Rural Local Government is known by the name of Panachayati Raj/ Democratic decentralization.

  • Each village or group of villages has a Gram Panchayat.
  • Panch, President or Sarpanch are directly elected by all the adult population of the village and is the decision-making body.
  • The Panchayat works under the supervision of Gram Sabha, with all the voters as its members.
  • The local structure goes up to the district level—a group of Gram Panchayats form a Panchayat Samiti or Block or Mandal.
  • All the Panchayat Samitis or Mandals together constitute the Zilla Parishad which consists of elected members.
  • Lok Sabha members, Local MLAs and officers are also members of the Zilla Parishad.
  • Its Chairperson is the political head of the Parishad.

Urban areas local bodies.

  • Municipalities are set up in towns.
  • Big cities are constituted into Municipal Corporations.
  • Both are controlled by elected bodies consisting of people’s representatives.
  • Municipal chairperson is the political head of the Municipality.
    The head of Municipal Corporation is an officer called the Mayor.

Question 21.
How is federal power sharing more effective today than in the early years? Explain. (2017 OD)
Answer:

  1. Federal power sharing is more effective because of the nature of democratic politics in India. It has ensured that the spirit of federalism, respect for diversity and desire for living together have become a shared ideal in our country.
  2. Federal power sharing has helped to inculcate a habit of democratic participation. Federal power sharing is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self-government. Constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy.
    • It has increased women’s representation and voice in democracy.
    • Federal power sharing has led to formation of linguistic states which has actually made the country more united. It has also made administration easier.
    • It reduces the power of the Central government and gives power to regional governments.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions

The post Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 2 Federalism appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 3 Democracy and Diversity

$
0
0

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 3 Democracy and Diversity

Very Short Answer Questions(VSA) 1 Mark

Question 1.
Who are represented by the term ‘African American’? (2014)
Answer:
African-Americans or the Blacks is the name given to the descendants of Africans who were brought into America as slaves between 17th century and early 19th century.

Question 2.
Name the two athletes who protested at the Mexico Olympics in 1968.
Answer:
Tommie Smith, John Carlos.

Question 3.
What is a homogeneous society?
Answer:
Homogeneous Society: A society that has similar kinds of people, especially where there are no significant ethnic differences, for example: Germany and Sweden.

Question 4.
Define the term ‘migrant’.
Answer:
Anybody who shifts from one region or country to another region within a country or to another country, usually for work or other opportunities, is called migrant.

Question 5.
Explain the meaning of democracy. (2017 OD)
Answer:
Democracy can be broadly defined as a form of government where rulers are elected by the people. The representatives are elected through free and fair elections.

Short Answer Questions (SA)

Question 6.
What did the African-American athletes do in order to draw international attention to ‘black poverty’ in the Mexico Olympic? (2012)
Answer:

  1. At the Mexico Olympics in 1968, two African-American athletes Tommie Smith and John Carlos protested to draw international attention towards ‘black poverty’.
  2. They had won the bronze and gold medals respectively. They received their medals wearing black socks and no shoes to represent black poverty.
  3. They stood on the victory board with clenched fists upraised and bowed heads as a symbol of ‘black power’. Their motive was to draw international attention to racial discrimination in the United States.

Question 7.
How is that religious differences created social division in Northern Ireland and failed to do the same in Netherlands? Explain. (2012)
Answer:
Social division takes place when social difference overlaps with other differences. Both Northern Ireland and Netherlands are predominantly Christian but divided between Catholics and Protestants.

In Northern Ireland, class and religion overlap with each other. The Catholics there are less in number, poor and suffered a history of discrimination. Overlapping social differences created deep social division and tensions in Northern Ireland. As a result Catholic and Protestants have had conflict.

Whereas in the Netherlands, class and religion tend to cut across each other. Catholics and Protestants are about equally likely to be poor or rich. These cross-cutting social differences are easier to accommodate because it is difficult to pit one group of people against the other.

Question 8.
How were Carlos, Smith and Norman penalized for their action at 1968 Mexico Olympics? (2013, 2012)
Or
What consequences did Smith and Carlos have to face after their reaction to the social discrimination? (2015)
Answer:
Carlos, Smith and Norman won medals in the 200 metre race in the 1968 Olympics held at Mexico city. Carlos and Smith, the two African-Americans received their medals wearing black gloves, black socks and no shoes to represent Black poverty. They stood with clenched fists upraised and heads bowed, while the American national anthem was played to draw international attention to racial discrimination in the United States.

The silver medalist, white Australian athlete, Peter Norman, wore a human rights badge on his shirt during the ceremony to show his support to the two African-Americans.

  1. The International Olympic Association held Carlos and Smith guilty of violating the Olympic spirit by making a political statement. Their medals were taken back and they were subjected to a lot of criticism in America.
  2. Norman too suffered for his action and was not included in the Australian team for the next Olympics.

Question 9.
Explain three factors that determine the outcome of politics of social divisions. (2012)
Answer:
Three factors determining the outcome of politics of social divisions are:
(i) How people perceive their identities. If people see their identities in exclusive terms, it becomes difficult to accommodate. As long as people in Northern Ireland saw themselves as only Catholic or Protestant, their differences were difficult to reconcile. It is easier if identities are complementary with national identities. This helps to stay together. This is how most people in our country see their identity. They feel and think as Indian as well as belonging to a State or a language group or a social or religious group.

(ii) How political leaders raise demands of any community. It is easier to accommodate demands that are within the constitutional framework and are not at the cost of another community. The demand for ‘only Sinhala’ was at the cost of the interest and identity of the Tamil community in Sri Lanka.

(iii) How Government reacts to demands of different groups. If the rulers are willing to share power and accommodate the reasonable demands of minority community, as in Belgium, social divisions become less threatening for the country. But if the demand is suppressed in the name of national unity, as in Sri Lanka, the end result is quite opposite. Such attempts at forced integration sow the seeds of disintegration.

Question 10.
“Assertion of social diversities need not be seen as a source of danger”. Explain the statement with three arguments. (2013)
Answer:

  • In a democracy, political expression of social divisions is very normal and can be healthy. This allows various disadvantaged and marginal social groups to express their grievances and get the government to attend to these.
  • Expression of various kinds of social divisions in politics often results in their cancelling one another out and thus reducing their intensity. This leads to strengthening of a democracy.
  • But a positive attitude towards diversity and a willingness to accommodate it do not come about easily. People who feel deprived have to fight against the injustices. Such a fight often takes the democratic path, voicing their demands in a peaceful and constitutional manner.

Question 11.
What are the three main factors that determine the outcome of social divisions in politics? Explain. (2014, 2013)
Answer:
Three factors determining the outcome of social divisions in politics are:
(i) How people perceive their identities. If people see their identities in exclusive terms, it becomes difficult to accommodate them. As long as people in Northern Ireland saw themselves as only Catholic or Protestant, their differences were difficult to reconcile. It is easier if identities are complementary with national identities. This helps to stay together. This is how most people in our country see their identity. They feel and think as Indian as well as belonging to a State or a language group or a social or religious group.

(ii) How political leaders raise demands of any community. It is easier to accommodate demands that are within the constitutional framework and are not at the cost of another community. The demand for ‘only Sinhala’ was at the cost of the interest and identity of the Tamil community in Sri Lanka.

(iii) How Government reacts to demands of different groups. If the rulers are willing to share power and accommodate the reasonable demands of minority community, as in Belgium, social divisions become less threatening for the country. But if the demand is suppressed in the name of national unity, as in Sri Lanka, the end result is quite opposite. Such attempts at forced integration sow the seeds of disintegration.

Question 12.
Why do some people think that it’s not correct to politicize social divisions? Give three reasons. 2014
Answer:
Social divisions of one kind or another exist in most countries of the world and these divisions are reflected in politics and affect politics. Expression of social divisions in politics lead to disaster. If social divisions do exist in a country, they must never be expressed in politics, because the combination of politics and social divisions is very dangerous.

  • Democracy involves competition among various political parties. Their competition tends to divide society.
  • If they start competing in terms of some existing social division, it can make social divisions into political divisions and lead to conflict, violence or even disintegration of a country. In Yugoslavia, political competition along religious and ethnic lines led to disintegration of the country into six independent countries.
  • Social divisions affect voting in most countries. People from one community tend to prefer some party more than others.

Question 13.
“In a democracy, political expression of social division is very normal and can be healthy”. Justify this statement with suitable arguments. (2015)
Answer:
In a democracy, political expression of social divisions is very normal and can be healthy. This allows various disadvantaged and marginal social groups to express their grievances and get the government to attend to these.

Taking the examples of Belgium and Sri Lanka, if the rulers are willing to share power and accommodate the reasonable demands of minority community, social divisions become less threatening for the country. In fact it may prove healthy for a democracy.

Expressions of various kinds of social divisions in politics often results in their cancelling one another and thus reducing their intensity. This leads to strengthening of democracy.

As long as people in northern Ireland saw themselves as only Catholic or Protestant, their differences were difficult to reconcile.

A majority of Belgians now feel that they are as much Belgian as they are Dutch or German-speaking. This helps them to stay together.

Question 14.
Explain the two bases of Social differences with examples. 2017D
Answer: Origins of Social differences:

  1. Accident of birth. We don’t choose to belong to our community. We belong to it simply because we were born into it. We experience social differences based on accident of birth in our everyday lives
  2. Based on choices. Some of the differences are based on our choices. Some people are atheists. They don’t believe in God or any religion. Some people choose to follow a religion other than the one in which they were born. Most of us choose to study a subject of our interest and an occupation where we can excel. All these lead to formation of social groups that are based on our choices.

Question 15.
What penalty was imposed on ‘Carlos, Smith and Norman’ for their action at the 1967 Mexico Olympics? (2017 OD)
Answer:

  1. The International Olympic Association held Carlos and Smith guilty of violating the Olympic spirit by making a political statement. Their medals were taken back.
  2. In America, they were subjected to a lot of criticism.
  3. Norman was excluded from the Australian team in the next Olympics.

Question 16.
What are the three main factors that determine the outcome of social divisions in politics? Explain.
Answer:
Three factors determining the outcome of social divisions in politics are:
(i) How people perceive their identities. If people see their identities in exclusive terms, it becomes difficult to accommodate them. As long as people in Northern Ireland saw themselves as only Catholic or Protestant, their differences were difficult to reconcile. It is easier if identities are complementary with national identities. This helps to stay together. This is how most people in our country see their identity. They feel and think as Indian as well as belonging to a State or a language group or a social or religious group.

(ii) How political leaders raise demands of any community. It is easier to accommodate demands that are within the constitutional framework and are not at the cost of another community. The demand for ‘only Sinhala’ was at the cost of the interest and identity of the Tamil community in Sri Lanka.

(iii) How Government reacts to demands of different groups. If the rulers are willing to share power and accommodate the reasonable demands of minority community, as in Belgium, social divisions become less threatening for the country. But if the demand is suppressed in the name of national unity, as in Sri Lanka, the end result is quite opposite. Such attempts at forced integration sow the seeds of disintegration.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks

Question 16.
Distinguish between overlapping and cross-cutting of social differences. (2013)
Answer:
Difference between Overlapping and Cross-cutting of social

OverlappingCross-cutting
(i) Overlapping social differences create possi­bilities of deep social divisions and tensions.(i) Cross-cutting social differences are easier to accommodate.
(ii) In overlapping one kind of social difference becomes more important than the other and the people start feeling that they belong to a different community. For example, in Nor­thern Ireland, class and religion overlap each other. If you are Catholic, you are likely to be poor, suffering a history of discrimination.(ii) In cross-cutting, groups that share a common interest on one issue, are sometimes on different sides on different issues. For example, in Netherlands, class and religion tend to cut across each other. Catholics and Protestants are about equally likely to be poor or rich.
(iii) Catholics and Protestants have had conflicts in Northern Ireland.(iii) There are no conflicts in the Netherlands.

Question 17.
Explain the origins of social differences. (2014, 2013)
Answer:
Origins of Social differences:

  1. Accident of birth. We don’t choose to belong to our community. We belong to it simply because we were born into it. We experience social differences based on accident of birth in our everyday lives.
  2. Based on choices. Some of the differences are based on our choices. Some people are atheists. They don’t believe in God or any religion. Some people choose to follow a religion other than the one in which they were born. Most of us choose to study a subject of our interest and an occupation where we can excel. All these lead to formation of social groups that are based on our choices.
    For example, Nagaland, Uttrakhand and Jharkhand.
  3. Restricting of Centre-State relations. The constitutional arrangements for sharing power work depending on how the ruling parties and leaders follow these arrangements. For a long time, the . same party ruled both at the Centre and in most of states. Post-1990 saw the rise of regional parties. Since no single party got a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, the national parties had to enter into an alliance which led to a new culture of power sharing and respect for autonomy of State Governments.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions

The post Social Science Class 10 Important Questions Political Science Chapter 3 Democracy and Diversity appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Viewing all 9448 articles
Browse latest View live


<script src="https://jsc.adskeeper.com/r/s/rssing.com.1596347.js" async> </script>