Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 2 The World Population (Distribution, Density and Growth)

Class 12 Geography Chapter 2 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.(i)
Which one of the following continents has the highest growth of population?
(a) Africa
(b) South America
(c) Asia
(d) North America
Answer:
(a) Africa

Question 1.(ii)
Which one of the following is not an area of sparse population?
(a) The Atacama
(b) Equatorial region
(c) South-east Asia
(d) Polar regions
Answer:
(c) South-east Asia

Question 1(iii)
Which one of the following is not a push factor?
(a) Water shortage
(b) Medical/educational facilities
(c) Unemployment
(d) Epidemics
Answer:
(d) Epidemics

Question 1.(iv)
Which one of the following is not a fact?
(a) Human population increased more than ten times during the past 500 years.
(b) It took 100 years for the population to rise from 5 billion to 6 billion
(c) Population growth is high in the first stage of demographic transition.
Answer:
(c) Population growth is high in the first stage of demographic transition.

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
Name three geographical factors that influence the distribution of population:
Answer:

• Availability of water: It is the most important factor of life. People prefer to live in areas where fresh water is readily available. Water is essential in development of agriculture and carrying out day-to-day activities.
• Land forms: People prefer to live in flat plains and gentle slopes as they are favorable for the production of crops and in building roads and industries.
• Climate: People prefer living in areas that do not have extreme climatic conditions that is areas that do not have high diurnal and annual range of temperature and also which have adequate rainfall.
• Soils: Fertile soils are important for agricultural and allied activities. Therefore, areas which have fertile loamy soils, have more people living on them as they can support intensive agriculture.

Question 2.(ii)
There are a number of areas of high population density in the world. Why does this happen?
Answer:
The areas with high population density across the world have at least one or usually multiple factors favorable for the settlement of population. Wherever people found conducive conditions for living, they have been settling there. With passage of time and growth of population, these areas became regions of thick population density. For example, the regions with availability of water, good climate, presence of minerals and other resources, of religious or cultural significance became regions of thick population. Example: Ganga-Yamuna Doab, Mediterranean regions.

Question 2.(iii)
What are the three components of population change?
Answer:
The three components of population change are:

• Crude Birth Rate (CBR): It is expressed as number of live births in a year per thousand of population in a particular region.
• Crude Death Rate (CDR): It is the number of deaths in a place per thousand of population in a particular region. CBR and CDR are natural factors of population growth. They result in natural population growth, which is equal to the difference between CBR and CDR.
• Migration: It is the induced factor in population growth. It is the number of people moving in and out of a place due to various social, economic and political reasons. It is taken into account while calculating actual growth of population.

3. Distinguish between:

Question 3.(i)
Distinguish between Birth rate and Death rate:

Question 3.(ii)
Distinguish between Push factors and pull factors of migration:

4. Answer the following questions in about 150 words:

Question 4.(i)
Discuss the factors influencing the distribution and density of population in the world.
Answer:
The factors influencing the distribution and density of population in the world may be classified into three broad categories, which may again be sub divided into minor factors. They are enumerated below:
Geographical factors:

• Availability of water: It is the most important factor of life. People prefer to live in areas where fresh water is readily available. Water is essential for development of agriculture and carrying out day to day activities.
• Land forms: People prefer to live in flat plains and gentle slopes as they are favorable for the production of crops and in building roads and industries. The mountainous and uneven terrain offers obstacles in infrastructure development activities that hamper human development hence are less populated. Eg. Himalayan region’s in India.
• Climate: People prefer living in areas that do not have extreme climatic conditions that is areas that do not have high diurnal and annual range of temperature and also which have adequate rainfall. Eg. Mediterranean regions.
• Soils: Fertile soils are important for agricultural and allied activities. Therefore areas which have fertile loamy soils, have more people living on them as these can support intensive agriculture. Eg. Northern plains.

Economic factors:

• Minerals: Areas rich in minerals attract industries. Mining and allied activities generate employment. Skilled and semi skilled workers move to these areas and make them densely populated. Eg. Katanga Zambia copper belt in Africa.
• Industrialization: Industrial belts provide job opportunities and attract large numbers of people. These include not only factory workers but also transport operators, shopkeepers, doctors and other professionals.
  Example; The Kobe- Osaka industrial region of Japan.
• Urbanization: Better employment opportunities, educational and medical facilities, better means of transport and communication attract people to cities. It leads to rural-urban migration and hence cities grow in size. Eg. a large number of people move to cities like .Delhi, Mumbai, etc. and hence make them densely populated.
• Social and cultural factors: Some places attract more people because they have religious or cultural significance. In the same way, people tend to move away from places where there is social and political unrest. Example; emigration of people from civil war affected areas of Africa. Many a times government offers incentives to people to live in sparsely populated areas. Example; Indira Gandhi canal colonies.

Question 4.(ii)
Discuss the three stages of demographic transition.
Answer:
Demographic transition theory can be used to describe and predict the future population of any area. The theory tells us that the population of any region changes from high births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as a society progresses from rural, agrarian and illiterate to urban, industrial and literate society. These changes occur in stages, which are collectively known as the demographic cycle.

The first stage has high fertility and high mortality rates because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply. Population growth is slow and most people are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life expectancy is low; people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of technology. Two hundred years ago all the countries were in this stage.

In the second stage, fertility remains high in the beginning, but it declines with time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of this gap the net addition to population is high. This results in population explosion. Eg. Countries like India.

In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes urbanized, literate and has high technical know how and deliberately controls the family size. Some countries even face negative growth of population, E.g., many Western European countries.

Map Skill:

Question 1.
On an outline map of the world name the following:
(a) Countries of Europe and Asia with negative growth rate of population.
(b) African countries with growth rate of population more than three per cent.
Answer:

• Europe: Estonia, Croatia, Romania, Bulgaria etc. Asia : Japan, Armenia, etc.
• Angola, Niger, Guinea, etc.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 2 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 2 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What was world’s population at the beginning of the 21st century?
Answer:
The world at the beginning of the 21st century recorded the presence of over 6 billion people.

Question 2.
What did George B Cressey say about Asia’s population distribution?
Answer:
George B Cressey said that ‘Asia has many places where people are few and few places where people are many’.

Question 3.
60% of world’s population is contributed by how many countries? How many of them are in Asia?
Answer:
60% of world’s population is contributed by 10 countries. 6 of them are in Asia.

Question 4.
What is population density?
Answer:
Population density is the ratio between the number of people and the size of the land.

Question 5.
Which areas in the world have > 200 persons per sq. km?
Answer:
NE USA, NW Europe, South, South east and East Asia.

Question 6.
Name two areas with <1 person/sq. km.
Answer:
North and South Poles and hot and cold deserts of the world.

Question 7.
Name two countries with medium density of population.
Answer:
Norway and Sweden.

Question 8.
Why do people migrate?
Answer:
People migrate for ^/better economic and social life.

Question 9.
What was the population of the world around 8000 – 12000 years back?
Answer:
Roughly 8 million was the population of the world around 8000-12000 years back.

Question 10.
How long did the world take to increase its population from 5 billion to 6 billion?
Answer:
It took 12 years to increase the world’s population from 5 billion to 6 billion.

Question 11.
What is population doubling time?
Answer:
Time takes for a region to double it’s population at the current growth rate.

Question 12.
Which country has the highest and lowest growth rate of population respectively?
Answer:
Liberia has the highest growth rate of population (8.2%).
Latvia has the lowest growth rate of population (-1.5%).

Question 13.
What is the correlation between population growth and economic development?
Answer:
There is a negative correlation between population growth and economic development.

Question 14.
Which is the most serious problem of population growth?
Answer:
Depletion of resources is the most serious problem of population’ growth.

Question 15.
What is the world’s and India’s doubling time of population?
Answer:
World : 37 Years and India : 36 years.

Question 16.
Name a country each from the different stages of demographic transition.
Answer:
1st stage : Bangladesh 2nd stage : Sri Lanka 3rd stage : USA

Question 17.
What is meant by family planning?
Answer:
Family planning is the spacing or preventing the birth of children.

Question 18.
What do you mean by the term ‘population distribution?
Answer:
Population distribution refers to the way people are spaced over the earth’s surface. Patterns of population distribution and density help us to understand the demographic characteristics of any area.

Question 19.
Mention the names of areas where density of population is very low.
Answer:

• Hot Deserts — Sahara, Kalahari, Atacama and West Australia.
• Extremely Cold Areas—Northern Part of Canada, Greenland and Northern Part of Siberia.
• Cold Deserts — Areas of Central Asia.
• Equatorial Region — Amazon basin of South America and Zaire basin of Africa.

Question 20.
What is the impact of migration?
Answer:
Migration changes the size of population of an area by either addition (due to immigration) or subtraction (due to emigration) in the number of people.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 2 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is population growth? What does population change indicate for an area?
Answer:
Population growth or population change refers to the change in the number of inhabitants of a territory during a specific period of time.
It is an important indicator of economic development and historical and cultural background of the region.

Question 2.
What are the components of population change?
Answer:
There are three components of population change: Births, deaths and migration. Population growth occurs not only by increasing birth rate but also due to decreasing death rate. Apart from these the population size is also affected by the movement of people from one place to another in pursuit of better living i.e. migration.

Question 3.
Distinguish between place of origin and place of destination.
Answer:
Migration may be explained as a spontaneous effort to achieve a better balance between resources and population. When people move from one place to another, the place they move from is called the place of origin and the place they move to is called the place of destination.

Question 4.
How did science and technology help in population growth?
Answer:
Steam engine replaced human and animal energy and also provided mechanized energy from other sources and helped in increasing agricultural and industrial production. Improvement in medical facilities, inoculation against epidemics and sanitation helped in the decline of death rate.

Question 5.
What are the impacts of population change?
Answer:
A small increase is beneficial for a growing economy. But growth beyond the carrying capacity of land create problems. Resource depletion is the most serious of all the problems.Population decline also indicate that the resources are insufficient to support the population of an area which it had done earlier.

Question 6.
What was Thomas Malthus’s theory?
Answer:
Thomas Malthus in his theory (1793) stated that the number of people would increase faster than the food supply. Any further increase would result in population crash caused by disease, famine, and war. Preventive checks are better than physical checks. For future sustainability world population need to be controlled.

Question 7.
Which areas of the world have high density of population?
Answer:
Fertile plains with favorable climate and highly industrialized and urbanized areas are densely populated. There are four areas where density is more than 200 persons per sq. km. They are:

• East Asia (China, Japan, Korea, and Taiwan).
• South and .South-east Asia (India, Indonesia, Bangladesh and Pakistan).
• North-West Europe (UK, France and Germany).
• The Northeastern Coast of North America.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 2 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the trend in growth of population over the years in the world?
Answer:
The world population attained its present strength over centuries. It grew very slowly in the early periods. About 8000 – 10000 years ago, after the introduction of agriculture the size of population was around 8 million.

In the 1st centuries it was below 300 million. The 16th and 17th centuries set the stage for growth of population with expanding trade. The 2nd most significant cultural change that impacted the growth of population came around the 1750 in the dawn of ‘Industrial Revolution’ with approx 550 million population. It exploded after the industrial revolution in the 18th century. The 3rd major cultural and technological change that influenced the population growth came in the 20th century through ‘Medical Revolution’ – which drastically brought down the ‘death rate’ with the introduction of several life saving drugs and improved medical facilities through better connectivity and paved the path for rapid population growth.

Question 2.
What is population change? What is the Spatial Rate of population change?
Answer:
Difference in the birth, death and migration of an area between two points of time leads to the size of population thus resulting in change. Population growth is low in developed countries than the developing countries. Population growth and economic developments are negatively correlated. In a developing country with a large population, even a small annual growth rate will lead to a huge change in population. Even if the growth rate continues to decline, the total population grows each year.

Presently the population of the world is 7.033 billion and is increasing at an alarming rate with more than 8 crores being added every year. Though the developed nations have stabilized their growth, the developing nations are yet to reach that target. The population in the developing nations is bound to increase in the coming years as the proportion of their youthful population is high.

Question 3.
What is Demographic Transition? Explain the stages of demographic transition theory with examples.
Answer:
The Demographic Transition Theory gives us the relationship between the level of economic development of a country and its demographic characteristics. It mentions the transition of a society from a phase of high fertility and mortality to a phase where both come down to low and the countries move from primitive agricultural, illiterate and rural economy to a modern industrial, literate and urban state. Initially, there were three stages of the theory—Underdeveloped stage, Developing stage and Developed stage.

Stage-1: Stage of slow population growth. This stage was marked by both high birth rate and high death rates. So population growth rate was very low. Agriculture oriented activities depended on the vagaries of nature leading to low productivity. Society was highly illiterate with poor technology. Large families with high birth rates were the norms as they had to compensate the high death rate. About a couple of centuries back all the economies were at this stage of demographic transition.

Stage-2: Stage of the beginning of Industrial Revolution. With betterment economic conditions and living standards, this stage started with improvement of medical facilities, sanitation and as a result death rate went down but birth rate remained high initially. This gave rise to a sudden increase in population which is common in a developing economy.

Though both of them were falling, the rate of fall in death rate was much faster than that of birth rate – creating a wide gap between them – which in turn gave rise to sharp increase in population, often termed as population explosion triggered by the better medical facilities and food supply. Stage-3: Stage of late Industrial Revolution and urban state.

Typically characterized by low and stable growth rate of population. This stage is marked with a decline in birth rate along with a steady decrease in death rate. The mortality rate gets very low and stabilizes. This Demographic Transition theory clearly shows how an economy changes from an agrarian, illiterate rural state with high birth rate, and Death rate to an industrial, literate and urban state with low Birth rate and Death rate through technological innovations and medical improverhents.

Question 4.
What are the repercussions of population increase? What are the population control measures?
Answer:
A small increase in population is desirable in a growing economy but uncontrolled population growth leads to numerous problems mainly on the limited resources.

Thomas Malthus in his theory (1793) stated that the number of people would increase faster than the food supply. Any further increase would result in population crash caused by disease, famine and war. Preventive checks are better than physical checks. For future sustainability world population need to be controlled.

Access to family planning measures is an important factor in controlling population. Propaganda, creating awareness, free availability of contraceptives, tax disincentives for large families are some of the measures which can be adopted for controlling population.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 2 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS)

Question 1.
Why is there great variation among various regions in doubling their population?
Answer:
Developed countries have controlled their growth rate due to expansion of educational facilities and advancement in medical facilities. Developed countries are taking more time to double their population. Developing countries are taking less time to double their population due to lack of educational and medical facilities.

Question 2.
What are the positive impacts of population change?
Answer:
Declining population has the following positive impacts:

• Less pressure on land and on other resources.
• Less pressure on infrastructure and civic amenities.
• High per capita income and better standard of living.

An increasing population if in a desirable proportion, has the following positive impacts:

• Favourable for expanding economy.
• Resources can be utilised in a better way.
• Biodiversity is kept intact.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 2 Data Based Question

Question 1.

From the above diagram identify the Asian, South American and North American countries respectively.
Answer:
Asian countries — Japan, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Indonesia, India and China ‘ South America — Brazil, North America —USA

Class 12 Geography Chapter 2 Map Based Questions

Question 1.
Study the given map and answer the following questions:

(i) Name the nations that take a very long time to double their population? Why?
(ii) Which are the nations taking about 31 to 40 years to double their population? Why?
Answer:

• Developed nations like Russia, Ukraine, Germany, Spain, etc. took a very long time to double their population because of low birth rates and much older populations.
• Developing nations like Brazil, India, etc. because of high birth rates and high youth population.

Question 2.
Study the given map and answer the following questions:

(i) Name the nations having high density of population in Asia.
(ii) Name the nations having less than one person of population density.
(iii) Give appropriate reasons for the above two questions.
Answer:
(i) South, South-East and East Asia nations.
(ii) Chile, Brazil, Afghanisatan, etc.
(iii) (a) These nations have high density of population because of the geographical, economic, social and cultural factors.
(b) Because of the unfavourable factors like hot and cold deserts and also have high rainfall

Class 12 Geography Chapter 2 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
How is the actual growth of population calculated? (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Actual growth of population = Birth – Death + In migration – Out Migration.

Question 2.
Which continent has the highest growth rate of population? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Africa.

Question 3.
Which parts of U.S.A and Europe have density more than 200 persons- per sq. km? (A.1.2011)
Answer:
Eastern part of USA and North Western Part of Europe.

Question 4.
Define the term ‘positive growth of population’. (A.1.2011)
Answer:
Positive growth of population takes •place when the birth rate is more than the death rate and people from the other countries migrate permanently.

Question 5.
Mention any two sparsely populated regions of the world with less than 1 person per sq. km. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Hot Deserts—Sahara, Kalahari, Atacama etc.

Question 6.
Name the most densely populated region of North America. (A.I. 2013)
Answer:
North eastern part of U.S.A.

Question 7.
How is density of population of a region calculated? (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
The density of population of a region is measured by person living per sq. km area.

Question 8.
Why do people migrate in large number from rural to urban areas in India? (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
In India people migrate from rural to urban areas mainly due to poverty, high population pressure on the land, lack of basic infrastructural facilities like health care, education, etc.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Explain with examples three economic factors influencing the population distribution in the world. (CBSE 2011)
Answer:

• Minerals: Areas with mineral deposits attract industries and generate employment. Skilled and semi skilled workers move to these areas and make them densely populated. Example; Katanga Zambia copper belt in Africa.
• Urbanization: Cities offer better employment opportunities, educational and medical facilities, better means of transport and communication. Good civic amenities and attraction of city life draw people to cities. It leads to rural urban migration. Example; Mega cities of the world.
• Industrialization: Provide job opportunities and attract large numbers of people. Provide different types of jobs to different categories due to industrial belt. Example; Kobe-Osaka region of Japan.

Question 2.
Describe any three characteristics of last stage of Demographic Transition Theory. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:
In the last stage of demographic transition theory, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. Its characteristics features are:

• It is the stage of stable population.
• It is also the indicator of slow population growth.
• It also indicates that humans are extremely flexible and are able to adjust their fertility.

Question 3.
Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow:
a) Which class of towns/cities support the largest urban population?
(b) Explain any two reasons for such a high concentration of population in this class of towns/cities. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
(a) Class – I towns/cities
(b) Reasons:

• Job opportunities
• Education
• Medical facilities
• Security
• Better communication
• Amenities of life

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is the meaning of Density of population? Explain with examples four geographical factors influencing the distribution of population in the world. (CBSE 2009, 2010)
OR
Define the term ‘density of population’. Explain four geographical factors affecting the distribution of population in the world, with examples. (CBSE2018)
Answer:
The ratio between the numbers of people to the size of land is the ‘density of population’. Density of Population = Population /Area.
Geographical factors influencing the distribution of population in the world:

• Availability of Water – People lives where fresh water is easily available. River valleys are among most densely populated areas.
• Land forms – People prefer living on flat plains and gentle slopes. Mountainous areas hinder the development of transport. Hence the Ganga plains are among the most densely populated areas.
• Climate – Areas with moderate climate attract people. Areas with cold and dry climates are uncomfortable for humans. Mediterranean regions were inhabited from early periods in history.
• Soils – Fertile soils are important for agricultural and allied activities. Areas which have loamy soils have more people living on it. The Ganga- Brahmaputra basins are veiy fertile.

Question 2.
Describe any three characteristics of the first stage of Demographic Transition Theoiy. (CBSE 2014)
Answer:

• The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and variable food supply.
• The population growth is slow and most of the people engaged in agriculture where large families are in asset.
• Life expectancy is low due to lack of medical aid and food security.

Question 3.
Explain the trends in population growth of the world with special reference to the help of science and technology. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Population on the earth is more than 6 billion. It has grown to this size over centuries. Population of earth grew slowly in early period. It is during last few hundred years’ population has increased at an alarming rate. The steam engine replaced human and animal energy. They provided mechanized . energy of water and wind. This increased agricultural and industrial production. Inoculation against epidemics and other communicable diseases, improvement in medical facilities and sanitation contributed to a rapid decline in death rates throughout the world.

Question 4.
Explain any three ‘push’ and any two ‘pull’ factors that influence the migration of population in the world. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
People migrate for a better economic and social life. There are two sets of factors that influence migration. The Push factors make the place of origin seem less attractive for reasons like unemployment, poor living conditions, political turmoil, unpleasant climate, natural disasters, epidemics and social-economic backwards. The Pull factors make the place of destination seem more attractive than the place of origin for reasons like better job opportunities and living conditions, peace and stability, security of life and propery and pleasant climate.

Question 5.
How is the mortality rate of a region affected? Explain any four push factors responsible for emigration. (CBSE 2015)
Answer:
Death rate plays an active role in population change. By and large mortality rates are affected by the region’s demographic structure, social advancement and levels of its economic development.
The following push factors make the place of origin seem less attractive:

• Unemployment
• Poor living conditions
• Unpleasant climate
• Natural disasters
• Epidemics
• Social-economic backwardness :

Question 6.
“90 percent of the world population lives in about 10 percent of its total land area, whereas remaining 10 percent population resides in the 90 percent of its land area.” Support the statement with suitable examples. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
The population of world is unevenly distributed due to:

• Availability of water like in river valleys
• Land forms e.g. plains are densely populated while hilly areas are sparsely populated. Deserts are also sparsely populated.
• Climate: Hot, cold and dry climates have sparse population e.g. tundra region, desert regions etc. Areas of moderate climate have dense population.
• Fertile soil regions are densely populated for the possibility of agriculture.
• Availability of minerals.
• Industrialisation.
  (Any 5 points to be explained)

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

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NTSE Andhra Pradesh Overview

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NTSE Andhra Pradesh Exam 2020 Dates

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NTSE Andhra Pradesh Eligibility Criteria

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Documents Required for NTSE Andhra Pradesh Exam 2020

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NTSE AP 2020 Admit Card

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NTSE AP Exam 2020 Exam Pattern

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NTSE Andhra Pradesh Exam Cutoff

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NTSE AP 2020 Scholarship

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NTSE AP 2020 students are shortlisted on the basis of rigorous tests like SAT and MAT. To crack these exams a candidate should have logical reasoning and good analytical skills. Students should go through the syllabus thoroughly and start the preparation accordingly. Students should follow the steps given below for NTSE AP 2020 preparation and score good marks.

1. Cover all the subjects that are required for the exam. For this, students should refer the best books for preparing the NTSE AP 2020 exam.
2. Make a regular study schedule and follow it rigorously.
3. For solving difficult questions, take help from friends or teachers.
4. In order to have a better understanding of the types of questions asked in the exam candidates should practice the NTSE AP mock papers.
5. Revise more and more numbers of reasoning as well as aptitude questions.

The post NTSE Andhra Pradesh 2019 – 2020 for Class X | Exam Dates, Eligibility, Exam Pattern appeared first on Learn CBSE.

SBI Education Loan – The State Bank of India which is commonly known as SBI offers education loan for pursuing higher education in India as well as in abroad for various courses in leading institutions. The SBI has come up with various loan schemes such as Student Loan, Skill Loan, Scholar Loan, Global Ed-Vantage Loan, Take-over of Education Loans. The SBI Education Loan comes with low-interest rate, easy repayment options, moratorium period, income tax benefits, interest rate concession for female students and many other benefits. 

With these many benefits, SBI education loans are the best option for many students in India. Students who are interested in SBI Education Loan must be aware of SBI Education Loan Eligibility, Courses, Rate of Interest, Repayment, Comparison in order to avail the loan.  So in this article, we will explain to you with all the necessary information regarding the list of schemes that are covered under SBI Education Loan, eligibility criteria, courses covered, interest rates etc. Read on to find out everything about SBI Education Loan. 

SBI Education Loan  Eligibility Criteria For All Schemes 

The SBI Education Eligibility Criteria for various schemes are listed below:

SBI Student Loan Eligibility – The SBI Student Loan is the loan offered by SBI for pursuing higher education in India or abroad.  Students who belong to the Indian Nationality are eligible to avail this loan.

SBI Skill Loan Eligibility – The SBI Skill Loan is the loan granted to Indian Nationals for pursuing Skill development courses in India. The eligibility criteria for various training institutes and Schools are listed below:

• Training Institutes/ Courses: Courses run by Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs), Polytechnics, training partners affiliated to National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)/ Sector Skill Councils, State Skill Mission, State Skill Corporation, preferably leading to a certificate / diploma / degree issued by such organization as per National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF) are eligible for a SBI Skill Loan.
• Schools recognized by Central or State Education Boards or Colleges affiliated to recognized university leading to a certificate/diploma/ degree issued by such organization as per National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF) is eligible for SBI Skill Loan.

SBI Scholar Loan Eligibility  – The SBI Scholar Loan is the loan granted for pursuing higher education in “Select Premier Institutions” in India. The eligibility criteria for SBI Scholar Loan are listed below:

• Students who belong to the Indian Nationality are eligible.
• Students must have secured admission to Professional/Technical courses in “Selecr Premier Insititions” through entrance test or selection process.

The List of Select Premier Institutions in India is tabulated at the end of the article. 

SBI Global Ed-Vantage Loan Eligibility – SBI Global Ed-Vantage is an overseas education loan especially for those who wish to pursue full time regular courses at foreign colleges/universities. Students who belong to Indian Nationals are eligible for SBI Global Ed-Vantage Loan.

SBI Education Loan – Courses Covered

Several courses are being offered under SBI Education Loan. The list of courses covered under each scheme are listed below:

Courses Covered Under SBI Student Loan:

 Courses Offered In India:

•  UG and PG degree from UGC/ AICTE/IMC/Govt. Approved Institutions.
• Regular Degree/ Diploma Courses from top institutions such as IIT, IIM, etc.
• Teacher training/ Nursing courses approved by govt and central courses.

Courses Offered In Abroad: 

• MCA, MBA, MS, and various other degrees offered by top universities.
• Courses by CIMA (Chartered Institute of Management Accountants) – London, CPA (Certified Public Accountant) – USA, etc.

Courses Covered Under SBI Scholar Loan:

• Regular full-time DegreeCourses through entrance test/ selection process.
• Regular full-time  Diploma Courses through entrance test/ selection process.
• Full-time Executive Management Courses like PGPX.

Courses Covered Under SBI Skill Loan:

• List of courses offered by ITIs, Polytechnics, National Skill Development Corporation.
• Certificate/Diploma/Degree courses issued by any organization as per National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF).

Courses Covered Under SBI Global Ed-Vantage Loan:

Regular UG/ PG/Ph.D. courses in all disciplines offered by foreign Institutes in the USA, UK, Canada, Australia, Europe, Singapore, Japan, Hong Kong, and New Zealand.

SBI Education Loan – Expenses Covered

The SBI education loan covers various expenses including Admission Fee, Tuition fee, Hostel Fee/Living Expenses. The list of expenses covered under each scheme are listed below:

Expenses Covered Under SBI Student Loan: 

• School fees, Hostel fees, and College fees will be paid by SBI. 
• Fees payable to Exams, Library and Laboratory.
• Purchase of Books/Equipment/Instruments/Uniforms, Purchase of computers- essential for completion of the course (Maximum 20% of the total tuition fees payable for completion of the course)
• Caution Deposit/Building Fund/Refundable Deposit (Maximum 10% of tuition fees for the entire course)
• Travel Expenses/Passage money for studies abroad
• Cost of a Two-wheeler up to Rs. 50,000/-
• Any other expenses required to complete the course like study tours, project work, etc will also be paid

Expenses Covered Under SBI Scholar Loan: 

• Fees payable to College or School or Hostel
• Examination/ Library/ Laboratory fees
• Purchase of Books/Equipment/Instruments
• Caution deposit/building fund/ refundable deposit supported by Institution bills/ receipts (The amount should not exceed 10% of the tuition fees for the entire course)
• Travel expenses/expenses on an exchange programme (No voucher/ receipt required, purpose (end-use) need to be self-certified)
• Purchase of computer/laptop (Expenditure not to exceed 25% of the loan amount (up to a lumpsum amount of max Rs. 1 Lac))
• Any other expenses related to education (Expenditure beyond 25% cap permitted subject to production of voucher/ receipt)

Expenses Covered Under SBI Skill Loan: 

• Tuition / Course Fee
• Examination / Library / Laboratory fee
• Caution deposit
• Purchase of books, equipment and instruments
• Any other reasonable expenditure found necessary for the completion of the Course. 

Expenses Covered Under SBI Global Ed-Vantage Loan 

• Fee payable to college/school/hostel.
• Examination/Library/Laboratory fee.
• Travel expenses/passage money for studies abroad.
• Purchase of books/equipments/instruments/uniforms/ computer at reasonable cost, if required for course completion and any other expense required to complete the course– like study tours, project work, thesis, etc. can be considered for loan subject to the condition that these should be capped at 20% of the total tuition fees payable for completion of the course.
• Caution deposit /building fund/refundable deposit supported by Institution bills/receipts the amount considered for the loan should not exceed 10% of the tuition fees for the entire course.

<h3>SBI Education Loan – Loan Amount and Security

1. SBI Student Loan Scheme Amount and Security

Loan Amount – SBI Student Loan Scheme offers a maximum of INR 10 lakhs for studies in India and whereas for students opting abroad, this scheme offers a maximum of INR 20 lakhs. 

Security –  

• For loan amount up to INR 7.5 lakhs does not require any collateral security or third-party guarantee. Only parent/guardian as co-borrower are considered.
•  Tangible collateral security and parent/guardian as co-borrower are required for loan amount above INR 7.5 lakhs.

2. SBI Scholar Loan Scheme Amount And Security

• The minimum loan amount is of INR 7.5 lakhs and the maximum loan amount is  INR 40 lakhs is offered under SBI Scholar Loan scheme depending upon the type of institution the student is opting for. 
• Minimum loan amounts for all covered institutions, no security is required; only parent/guardian can act as the co-borrower.
•  Maximum loan amount for List A and List B institutions, tangible collateral of full value and parent/guardian as co-borrower are necessary.

3. SBI Skill Loan Scheme amount and security

• SBI Skill Loan Scheme grants a minimum loan amount of INR 5,000 and a maximum loan amount of INR 1,50,000. 
• No collateral or third-party guarantee is required. Only parent/guardian as co-borrower are considered. 

4. SBI Global Ed-Vantage Scheme amount and security

• SBI Global Ed-Vantage Scheme offers a minimum loan amount of INR 20 lacs and maximum loan amount of INR 1.5 Cr. 
• Tangible collateral security is required. 
• Collateral security offered by third-party (other than parents) will also be accepted here. 

SBI Education Loan – Interest Rate

SBI education loan comes with low-interest rates and also there are special permits for female students. In the below table we have listed down the loan limit, institution code and the interest rate for each scheme under Education Loan.

EDUCATION LOAN SCHEMES – RATE OF INTEREST (w.e.f. 10.07.2019)

SBI Education Loan – Repayment Rules

The repayment rules for each scheme under SBI Education Loan varies. The repayment rules under various shcmes are listed below:

SBI Student Loan Repayment Rules:

• Students must start repaying the amount one year after the completion of course.
• The loan has to be rapaid within 15 years once the repayement is intitiated.
• In case if students avail any loan for higher stuides, the same shoud be repayed by combing the amount within 15 years after the completion of the second course. 

SBI Skill Loan Repayment Rules:

SBI Scholar Loan Repayment Rules:

• Students must start repaying the amount one year after the completion of course.
• The loan has to be rapaid within 15 years once the repayement is intitiated.
• In case if students avail of any loan for higher stuides, the same should be repayed by combing the amount within 15 years after the completion of the second course. 

SBI Global Ed-Vantage Loan

• Repayment will commence 6 months after completion of course
• Repayment upto maximum of 15 years
• Accrued interest during the moratorium to be added to the principal and repayment in EMI fixed.

SBI Education Loan – Documents Required

In order avail education loan from SBI, candidates must obatin certain documents to the officials. The list of documents requried for SBI education loan for various schemes are listed below: 

• Academic Records- 10th Result, 12th Result, Graduation Result- Semester-wise, entrance exam result through which admission is being taken.  
• Two passport size photographs
• Application form
• PAN Card of the candidate
• Proof of admission from the university
• Proof of Identity (any one) – Valid Passport / Driving License / Voters ID card / Aadhar card
• Proof of Residence/Address – Valid Passport / Driving License / Voters ID card / Electricity Bill / Telephone Bill
• Security needed to take education loan from SBI
• Statement of assets and liabilities of student/ co-borrower/ guarantor
• Statement of cost of study
• Student/ co-borrower/ guarantor’s bank account statement for the last six months
• Student/ co-borrower/ guarantor’s proof of income

SBI Scholar Loan Scheme – List of Approved Institutions

List of AA Institutions are tabulated below:

List of A Institutions under SBI Education Loan are tabulated below:

List of B Institutions under SBI Education Loan

List of C Institutions under SBI Education Loan

FAQs Regarding SBI Education Loan

The frequently asked questions regarding SBI Education Loan are listed below: 

Question 1. How to get an education loan from SBI?

Answer 1:  The procedure get Education Loan from SBI is very simple. Follow the step by step procedure as listed below to avail SBI education loan:

• Step 1 – Visit the official website of SBI.
• Step 2 – Now on the home page, in the left side bottom corner of the screen, you will find a list of schemes.
• Step 3 – Click on the scheme under which you want to avail the SBI education loan. (SBI Student Loan, SBI Skill Loan, SBI Scholar Loan, SBI Global Ed-Vantage Loan).
• Step 4 – The page will be directed.
• Step 5 – Now carefully read all the information provided and hit the button “Apply Online Now”.
• Step 6 –  Start Filling the application form to get education loan from SBI.

Question 2. What is the procedure for education loan in SBI?

Answer 2.  Follow the procedure as listed below to get education loan from SBI. 

• Step 1 – Visit the official website of sbieducationloan.co.in
• Step 2 – Read the instructions carefully provided on the page. 
• Step 3 – Click on Apply Now
• Step 4 – A pop up appears “Please Confirm – I need an education loan to (Study in India or Study In Abroad)”
• Step 5 – Select the button which you want and the page will be directed.
• Step 6 – Now start filling the application form and upload all the necessary documents.

Question 3. Which bank has lowest interest for education loan?

Answer 3.  SBI offers lowest interest rate in the market with interest rates as low as 8.65%.

Question 4- Can I get education loan without security?

Answer 4 –  According to SBI, for loan amount up to INR 7.5 lakhs does not require any collateral security or third-party guarantee. Only parent/guardian as co-borrower are considered.

Question 5. How can I check my education loan status in SBI?

Answer 5 –  Generally education loan processing may take anything between 7 to 10 days from the day of submission of complete loan application with required documents.

• Students can make call to the following number to know about their SBI loans – 1800 112 211 or 1800 425 3800.
• If not students can visit the nearest branch to enquire regarding the same.
• Also students can login with the help of their credentials to check their education loan status. 

Question 6 – How can I apply for education loan?

Answer 6 – Students who wish to apply for education loan in SBI must visit the official page of SBI Education Loan Page. Students must know the terms and conditions completely and start filling the application form. Also The loan is available from all branches in metro/urban areas as well as those having personal banking divisions.

Question 7 – What are the important documents that I need to provide?

Answer 7 – Students will need to furnish the following documents along with the completed application form. Relevant information would relate to the guardian and the student both, when the loan is jointly taken.

• Mark sheet of last qualifying examination for school and graduate studies in India
• Proof of admission to the course
• Schedule of expenses for the course
• Copies of letter confirming scholarship, etc.
• Copies of foreign exchange permit, if applicable.
• 2 passport size photographs
• Statement of Bank account for the last six months of the borrower
• Income tax assessment order not more than 2 years old
• A brief statement of assets and liabilities of the borrower.
• If you are not an existing bank customer you would also need to establish your identity and give proof of residence.

Question 8. How to link education loan account in SBI online?

Answer 8. Please visit the nearest website to know all details about how to link the education loan account in SBI online.

Question 9.  How to close education loan in SBI?

Answer 9. You first have to prepay your entire outstanding due amount. Then submit an application form with the branch to close the education loan account. The lender will then issue a “Letter of Closure” Or “No Dues Letter” which clearly states that the amount has been fully paid and no money is due. Once you receive the letter, you can consider the account officially close. 

Now that you are provided all the necessary information regarding SBI Education Loan and we hope this detailed article is helpful. If you have any questions regarding this article or SBI Education loan, drop your comments in the comment box below and LearnCBSE.in team will get back to you as soon as possible.

The post SBI Education Loan – All You Need to Know appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Motion Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 8

Extra Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 8 Motion

Motion Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
The phenomenon of motion was placed on a sound scientific footing by two scientists. Write their names.
Answer:
Galileo Galilei and Isaac Newton.

Question 2.
Are rest and motion absolute or relative terms?
Answer:
They are relative terms.

Question 3.
Suppose a ball is thrown vertically upwards from a position P above the ground. It rises to the highest point Q and returns to the same point P. What is the net displacement and distance travelled by the ball?
Answer:
Displacement is zero. Distance is twice the distance between position P and Q.

Question 4.
Which speed is greater: 30 m/s or 30 km/h?
Answer:
30 m/s

Question 5.
What do you mean by 2 m/s²?
Answer:
The velocity of the body increases by 2 m/s after every second.

Question 6.
Can uniform linear motion be accelerated?
Answer:
No

Question 7.
Define one radian.
Answer:
It is the angle which is subtended at the centre by an arc having a length equal to the radius of the circle.

Question 8.
What is the relation between linear velocity and angular velocity?
Answer:
Linear velocity = Angular velocity × Radius of circular path.

Question 9.
Give an example when we infer the motion indirectly.
Answer:
We infer the motion of air by observing the movement of dust particles or leaves and branches of trees, or simply by feeling the blowing air on our face.

Question 10.
What is essential to describe the position of an object?
Answer:
We need to specify a reference point called the origin.

Question 11.
What is the simplest type of motion?
Answer:
Motion in a straight line.

Question 12.
What indicates the motion of the earth?
Answer:
The phenomenon like day and night indicates the motion of the earth.

Question 13.
If the displacement of a body is zero, is it necessary that the distance coyered by it is also zero?
Answer:
No. When the body comes back to the same position after travelling a distance, its displacement is zero though it has travelled some distance.

Question 14.
Can the displacement be greater than the distance travelled by an object?
Answer:
No, it is always either equal to or less than the distance travelled by the object.

Question 15.
When do the distance and displacement of a moving object have the same magnitude?
Answer:
The magnitude of distance and displacement of a moving object are same when the object moves along the same straight line in the same fixed direction.

Question 16.
Does the speedometer of a car measure its average speed?
Answer:
No. It measures its instantaneous speed.

Question 17.
A body is moving with a velocity of 10 m/s. If the motion is uniform, what will be the velocity after 10 s?
Answer:
As the motion is uniform, the velocity remains 10 m/s after 10 s.

Question 18.
Can a body have constant speed but variable velocity?
Answer:
Yes, e.g. a body in uniform circular motion has constant speed but due to the change in the direction of motion, its velocity changes at every point.

Question 19.
When is the acceleration taken as negative?
Answer:
Acceleration is taken as negative if it is in the direction opposite to the direction of velocity.

Question 20.
What is uniform acceleration?
Answer:
Acceleration of an object is said to be uniform if it travels in a straight line and its velocity increases or decreases by equal amounts in equal intervals of time.For example, motion of a freely falling body.

Question 21.
Give an example of non-uniform acceleration.
Answer:
A car is travelling along a straight road increases its speed by unequal amounts in equal intervals of time.

Question 22.
How are the distances travelled by an object related to the time taken when an object travels equal distances in equal intervals of time?
Answer:
In this case, distance travelled by the object is directly proportional to the time taken.

Question 23.
What would be acceleration of a body if its velocity-time graph is a line parallel to the time axis?
Answer:
Zero, as the body possesses uniform velocity.

Question 24.
Is the motion of a body uniform or accelerated if it goes round the sun with constant speed in a circular orbit?
Answer:
It is accelerated, as its velocity changes due to change in direction.

Motion Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Questions-I

Question 1.
Give an example of a body which may appear to be moving for one person and stationary for the other.
Answer:
The passengers in a moving bus observe that the trees, buildings as well as the people on the roadside appear to be moving backwards. Similarly, a person standing on the roadside observes that the bus (along with its passengers) is moving in forward direction. But, at the same time, each passenger in a moving bus or train observes, his fellow passengers sitting and not moving. Thus, we can tell that motion is relative.

Question 2.
How can we describe the location of an object?
Answer:
To describe the position of an object we need to specify a reference point called the origin.
For example, suppose that a library in a city is 2 km north of the railway station. We have specified the position of the library with respect to the railway station i.e., in this case, the railway station acts as the reference point.

Question 3.
What do you mean by average speed? What are its units?
Answer:
Average speed is defined as the average distance travelled per unit time and is obtained by dividing the total distance travelled by the total time taken.
The unit of average speed is the same as that of the speed, that is, ms^-1.

Question 4.
What is the difference between uniform velocity and non-uniform velocity?
Answer:
Uniform velocity: An object with uniform velocity covers equal distances in equal intervals of time in a specified direction, e.g., an object moving with speed of 40 kmh^-1 towards west has uniform velocity.

Non-uniform velocity: When an object covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time in a specified direction, or if the direction of motion changes, it is said to be moving with a non-uniform or variable velocity, e.g., revolving fan at a constant speed has variable velocity.

Question 5.
What do you understand by instantaneous velocity?
Answer:
Instantaneous velocity is the velocity of a body at any particular instant during its motion. For example, the instantaneous velocity of a motorcycle at a particular instant is 40 kmh^-1 if it is moving at 40 kmh^-1 at that particular instant. It is measured by the speedometers on the vehicles.

Question 6.
What is negative acceleration?
Answer:
If the velocity of a body decreases with time, then its final velocity is less than the initial velocity and thus its acceleration is negative. Negative acceleration is called retardation or deceleration. For example, when brakes are applied to a moving truck, its velocity gradually decreases. In other words, it is under retardation.

Question 7.
How will the equations of motion for an object moving with a uniform velocity change? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Acceleration a = 0, v = u
So, the equations of motion will become
s = ut
v² – u² = 0

Question 8.
Express average velocity when the velocity of a body changes at a non-uniform rate and a uniform rate.
Answer:
When the velocity of a body changes at a non-uniform rate, its average velocity is found by dividing the net displacement covered by the total time taken.
i.e., Average velocity =
In case the velocity of a body changes at a uniform rate, then the average velocity is given by the arithmetic mean of initial velocity and final
i.e., Average velocity =

Question 9.
A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r. What would be the displacement after half a circle?
Answer:
Displacement = AB
= Shortest distance between initial and final positions
= r + r = 2r

Motion Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Questions-II

Question 1.
Differentiate between distance and displacement.
Answer:

Question 2.
What are the uses of a distance-time graph?
Answer:
The various uses of a distance-time graph are as follows:

• It tells us about the position of the body at any instant of time.
• From the graph, we can see the distance covered by the body during a particular interval of time.
• It also gives us information about the velocity of the body at any instant of time.

Question 3.
Draw a velocity versus time graph of a stone thrown vertically upwards and then coming downwards after attaining the maximum height. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
During upward motion, acceleration = -g and during downward motion acceleration = + g. Times of upward and downward motion is equal. Also initial and final velocities are equal to .

Question 4.
The data regarding the motion of two different objects P and Q is given in the following table. Examine them carefully and state whether the motion of the objects is uniform or non-uniform.

Answer:
We can see that the object P covers a distance of 10 m in every fifteen minutes. In other words, it covers equal distance in equal interval of time. So, the motion of object P is uniform. On the other hand, the object Q covers 7 m from 9:30 am to 9:45 am, 4 m from 9:45 am to 10:00 am, and so on. In other words, it covers unequal distance in equal interval of time. So, the motion of object Q is non-uniform.

Question 5.
How will you show that the slope of displacement-time graph gives velocity of the body ?
Answer:

The adjoining figure shows the displacement-time graph for a body moving with uniform velocity. Clearly, it covers distance s₁ and s₂ at times t₁ and t₂ respectively.
Slope of line PQ = tanθ =
=
As is velocity, so the slope of the distance-time graph gives velocity of the body.

Question 6.
What are the characteristics of distance-time graph for an object moving with a non-uniform speed?
Answer:
The characteristics of distance-time graph for a non-uniform speed are:

• It is always a curve (parabola).
• The speed of the moving object at any point is given by the slope of the tangent to the curve at that point.

Question 7.
Given below is the velocity-time graph for the motion of the car. What does the nature of the graph show ? Also find the acceleration of the car.

Answer:
The nature of the graph shows that velocity changes by equal amounts in equal intervals of time. For a uniformly accelerated motion, velocity-time graph is always a straight line.
As we know, acceleration is equal to the slope of the graph

Motion Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
With the help of a graph, derive the relation v = u + at.
Answer:
Consider the velocity-time graph of an object that moves under uniform acceleration as shown in the figure (u ≠ 0).
From this graph, we can see that initial velocity of the object (at point A) is u and then it increases tow (at point B) in time t. The velocity changes at a uniform rate a. As shown in the figure, the lines BC and BE are drawn from point B on the time and the velocity axes respectively, so that the initial velocity is represented by OA, the final velocity is represented by BC and the time interval t is represented by OC. BD = BC – CD, represents the change in velocity in time interval t.

If we draw AD parallel to OC, we observe that
BC = BD + DC = BD + OA
Substituting, BC with v and OA with u,
we get
v = BD + u
or BD = v – u …(1)
Thus, from the given velocity-time graph, the acceleration of the object is given by
a =
=
Substituting, OC with t, we get
a = or BD= at …..(2)
From equations (1) and (2),
we have
v – u = at or v = u + at

Question 2.
Deduce the following equations of motion:
(i) s = ut + at²
(ii) v² = u² + 2as
Answer:
(i) Consider a body which starts with initial velocity u and due to uniform acceleration a, its final velocity becomes v after time t. Then, its average velocity is given by

Question 3.
Obtain a relation for the distance travelled by an object moving with a uniform acceleration in the interval between 4^th and 5^th seconds. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Using the equation of motion s = ut + at²
Distance travelled in 5 seconds, s = u × 5 + a × 5 ²
or s = 5u + a
Similarly, distance travelled in 4 seconds, s’ = 4u + a
Distance travelled in the interval between 4^th and 5^th seconds
= (s – s’) = (u + a)m

Question 4.
Two stones are thrown vertically upwards simultaneously with their initial velocities u] and w2 respectively. Prove that the heights reached by them would be in the ratio of .
(Assume upward acceleration is —g and downward acceleration to be +g). [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:

Question 5.
The driver of train A travelling at a speed of 54 kmh^-1 applies brakes and retards the train uniformly. The train stops in 5 seconds. Another train B is travelling on the parallel with a speed of 36 kmh^-1. Its driver applies the brakes and the train retards uniformly; train B stops in 10 seconds. Plot speed-time graphs for both the trains on the same axis. Which of the trains travelled farther after the brakes were applied?
Answer:
For train A, the initial velocity,
u = 54 kmh^-1 = 54 × = 15 ms^{– 1}
Final velocity, v = 0 and time, t = 5 s
For train B, u = 36 kmh^{– 1} = 36 × = 10 ms^{– 1}
v = 0; t = 10 s
Speed-time graph for train A and B are shown in the figure.

Distance travelled by train A
= Area under straight line graph RS
= Area of ∆ORS
= × OR × OS = × 15 ms^{– 1} × 5 s = 37.5 m
Distance travelled by train B = Area under PQ = Area of ∆OPQ
= × OP × OQ = × 10 ms^-1 × 10 s = 50 m
Thus, train B travelled farther after the brakes were applied.

Numericals
Question 1.
Study the speed-time graph of a body given here and answer the following questions:

(a) What type of motion is represented by OA?
(b) What type of motion is represented by AB?
(c) What type of motion is represented by BC?
(d) Find out the acceleration of the body.
(e) Calculate the retardation of the body.
(f) Find out the distance travelled by the body from A to B.
Answer:
(a) OA is a straight line graph between speed and time, and it is sloping upward from O to A. Therefore, the graph line OA represents uniform acceleration.
(b) AB is a straight line graph between speed and time, which is parallel to the time axis (x-axis).
So, AB represents uniform speed. There is no acceleration from A to B.
(c) BC is a straight line graph between speed and time which is sloping downwards from B to C. Therefore, BC represents uniform retardation or negative acceleration.
(d) Acceleration of the body as we see from graph line OA represents it. So, the slope of velocity-time graph OA will give the acceleration of the body. Thus,
Acceleration = Slope of line OA = AD/OD
We have, AD = 6 m/s, and OD = 4 s
So, acceleration = = 1.5 m/s
(e) The slope of line graph BC represents the retardation of the body.
So, retardation = Slope of line BC = BE/EC
We have, BE = 6m/s, EC = 16 – 10 = 6s
Retardation = = 1m/s²
(f) Distance travelled from A to B = Area under the line AB and the time axis
= Area of rectangle DABE = DA × DE
Here, DA = 6 m/s and DE = 10 – 4 = 6 s
Distance travelled from A to B = 6 × 6 = 36m

Question 2.
The graph given below shows the positions of a body at different times. Calculate the speed of the body as it moves from
(i) A to B
(ii) B to C and
(iii) C to D.

Answer:
(i) The distance-time graph represents the line AB which shows the speed of the body. So,
Speed = = 1 cm/s
(ii) The distance-time graph shows that the body is at rest between graph line B to C, it means no movement. So speed is zero i.e.,
Speed = = 0
(iii) The distance-time graph represents the line CD which shows the speed of the body. So,
Speed = = 2 cm/s

Question 3.
Distance travelled by a train and time taken by it is shown in the following table, (i) Plot distance-time graph. (ii) What is the average speed of the train? (iii) When is the train travelling at the highest speed? (iv) At what distance does the train slow down? (v) Calculate the speed of the train between 10:40 AM to 11:00 AM.

Answer:


(iii) We know, speed = slope of distance-time graph. The greater the slope, the greater is the speed.
From the graph, it is clear that slope of distance-time graph is maximum between 10:00 AM to 10:30 AM, so the train was travelling at the highest speed during this interval of time.
(iv) The part CD of the graph has minimum slope, so the train had minimum speed between 11:00 AM and 11:15 AM. Thus, the train had slowed down between 40 km and 42 km.
(v) Speed between 10:40 AM to 11:00 AM = = 36 kmh^-1

Question 4.
The velocity-time graph shows the motion of a cyclist. Find (i) its acceleration (ii) its velocity and (iii) the distance covered by the cyclist in 15 seconds. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer:
(i) Since velocity is not changing acceleration is equal to zero. [a = = 0]
(ii) Reading the graph, velocity = 20 ms^-1 (constant)
(iii) Distance covered in 15 seconds = Area of ABNO
= v × t
= 20 × 15 = 300 m

Question 5.
A body starts to slide over a horizontal surface with an initial velocity of 0.5 m/s. Due to friction, its velocity decreases at the rate 0.05 m/s². How much time will it take for the body to stop?
Answer:
Initial velocity, u = 0.5 m/s
Final velocity, v= 0
Acceleration, a = -0.05 m/s²
Now, from the first equation of the motion,
v = u + at
or, 0 = 0.5 + (- 0.05t) ⇒ 0.5 = 0.05t,
∴ t = 0.5/0.05 = 10 s
Thus, the body will take 10 s to stop.

Question 6.
A particle moves in a circle with O as centre and AO = OB = 5 cm, as radius, as shown in the figure. It starts from A. Calculate:
(a) the distance covered, and
(b) the displacement, when it reaches B.

Answer:
(a) Distance covered = π × OA = π × 5 = 5π cm
(b) Displacement = 2 × OB
= 2 × 5 = 10 cm along AB

Question 7.
A body travels along a circular path of radius 70 m. After travelling half a revolution in 20 s, find the
(i) average velocity,
(ii) average speed.
Answer:

Question 8.
A cheetah is the fastest land animal and can achieve a peak velocity of 100 km/h up to distances less than 500 m. If a cheetah spots its prey at a distance of 100 m, what is the minimum time it will take to get its prey, if the average velocity attained by it is 90 km/h?
Answer:
Average velocity = 90 km/h =
= = 25 ms^-1
Also, Average velocity =
∵ Cheetah moves in a straight line displacement is equal to 100 m.
Therefore, time taken = = 4 s

Question 9.
The brakes applied to a car produce an acceleration of 6 ms^-2 in the opposite direction to the motion. If the car takes 2s to stop after the application of brakes, calculate the distance it travels during this time.
Answer:
We have been given

Thus, the car will move 12 m before it stops after the application of brakes.

Question 10.
A car starts from rest and moves along the x-axis with constant acceleration 5 ms^-2 for 8 seconds. If it then continues with constant velocity, what distance will the car cover in 12 seconds since it started from the rest? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Initial velocity ,u = 0
Using s = ut + at²
The distance travelled in first 8s,
s₁ = 0 + × 5 × 8² = 160 m
At this point the velocity, v = u + at
= 0 + 5 × 8 = 40 ms^-1
So, the distance covered in last four seconds
s₂ = 40 × 4 = 160 m
Hence, total distance, s = s₁ + s₂
= 160 m + 160 m = 320 m

Question 11.
A motorcyclist drives from A to B with a uniform speed of 30 kmh^-1 and returns back with a speed of 20 kmh^-1. Find its average speed. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:

Question 12.
An object is dropped from rest at a height of 150 m and simultaneously another object is dropped from rest at a height 100 m. What is the difference in their heights after 2 s if both the objects drop with same accelerations? How does the difference in heights vary with time? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Initial difference in height = (150 – 100) m = 50 m
Distance travelled by first body in 2 s = h₁ = 0 + g(2)² = 2g
Distance travelled by another body in 2 s = h₂ = 0 + g(2)² = 2g
After 2 s, height at which the first body will be = h₁‘ = 150 – 2g
After 2 s, height at which the second body will be = h’₂ = 100 – 2g
Thus, after 2 s, difference in height = 150 – 2g – (100 – 2g) = 50 m = initial difference in height Thus, difference in height does not vary with time.

Question 13.
An object starting from rest travels 20 m in first 2s and 160 m in next 4s. What will be the velocity after 7s from the start? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
s₁ = ut + at² or 20 = 0 + a(2)² or a = 10ms^-2
v = u + at = 0 + (10 × 2) = 20 ms^-1
s₂ = 160 = vt’ + a'(t’)² = (20 × 4) + (a’ × 16) ⇒ a’ = 10ms^-2
Since accelerations is the same, we have v’ = 0 + (10 × 7) =70 ms^-1

Question 14.
An electron moving with a velocity of 5 × 10⁴ ms^-1 enters into a uniform electric field and acquires a uniform acceleration of 104 ms^-2 in the direction of its initial motion.
(i) Calculate the time in which the electron would acquire a velocity double of its initial velocity.
(ii) How much distance the electron would cover in this time? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Given initial velocity, u = 5 × 10⁴ ms^-1
and acceleration, a = 10⁴ms^-2
(i) Final velocity = v = 2u = 2 × 5 × 10⁴ms^-1 = 10 × 10⁴ms^-1
To find t, use v = u + at

Motion Class 9 Extra Questions HOTS (Higher Order Thinking Skills)

Question 1.
Four cars A, B, C and D are moving on a levelled road. Their distance versus time graphs are shown in figure. Which car is the slowest?

Answer:
Speed = Slope of distance-time graph. The smaller the slope, the smaller is the speed.
From the figure, slope is minimum for car D. So, D is the slowest car.

Question 2.
A girl walks along a straight path to drop a letter in the letterbox and comes back to her initial position. Her displacement-time graph is shown in figure. Plot a velocity-time graph for the same. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer:
Velocity from 0 to 50 s is v₁ = = 2 ms^-1
At 50 – 0
Velocity from 50 s to 100 s, v₂ = = – 2 ms^-1
Accordingly the velocity-time graph is shown in figure below.

Question 3.
Suppose a squirrel is moving at a steady speed from the base of a tree towards some nuts. It then stays in the same position for a while, eating the nuts, before returning to the tree at the same speed. A graph can be plotted with distance on the x-axis and the time on y-axis.

Observe the graph carefully and answer the following questions.
(i) Which part of the graph shows the squirrel moving away from the tree?
(ii) Name the point on the graph which is 6 m away from the base of the tree.
(iii) Which part of the graph shows that the squirrel is not moving?
(iv) Which part of the graph shows that the squirrel is returning to the tree?
(v) Calculate the speed of the squirrel from the graph during its journey.
Answer:
(i) Part AB
(ii) Part B
(iii) Part BC
(iv) Part CD
(v) Total distance travelled = 6m + 6m=12m
Time = 11 s.
Speed = = 1.09m/s.

Question 4.
The table given below shows distance (in cm) travelled by bodies A, B and C. Read this data carefully and answer the following questions.

(i) Which of the bodies is moving with
(a) constant speed?
(b) constant acceleration?
(c) non-uniform acceleration?
(ii) Which of the bodies covers
(a) maximum distance in 3rd second?
(b) minimum distance in 3rd second?
Answer:
(i) (a) Body A (b) Body C (c) Body B
(ii) (a) Body C. Total distance travelled = 100 – 60 = 40 cm
(b) Body B. Total distance travelled = 24 – 36 = (-) 12 cm
The negative sign implies decceleration.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Science

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Hindi B 2017 Delhi Term 2

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Hindi B 2017 Delhi Term 2 Set – I

निर्धारित समय :3 घण्टे
अधिकतम अंक : 90

खण्ड ‘क’

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए       [2 × 6 = 12]
पता नहीं क्यों, उनकी कोई नौकरी लम्बी नहीं चलती थी। मगर इससे वह न तो परेशान होते, न आतंकित, और न ही कभी निराशा उनके दिमाग में आती। यह बात उनके दिमाग में आई कि उन्हें अब नौकरी के चक्कर में रहने की बजाय अपना काम शुरू करना चाहिए। नई ऊँचाई तक पहुँचने का उन्हें यही रास्ता दिखाई दिया। सत्य है, जो बड़ा सोचता है, वही एक दिन बड़ा करके भी दिखाता है और आज इसी सोच के कारण उनकी गिनती बड़े व्यक्तियों में होती है। हम अक्सर इंसान के छोटे-बड़े होने की बातें करते हैं, पर दरअसल इंसान की सोच ही उसे छोटा या बड़ा बनाती है। स्वेट मार्डेन अपनी पुस्तक ‘बड़ी सोच को बड़ा कमाल’ में लिखते हैं कि यदि आप दरिद्रता की सोच को ही अपने मन में स्थान दिये रहेंगे, तो आप कभी धनी नहीं बन सकते, लेकिन यदि आप अपने मन में अच्छे विचारों को ही स्थान देंगे और दरिद्रता, नीचता आदि कुविचारों की ओर से मुँह मोड़े रहेंगे और उनको अपने मन में कोई स्थान नहीं देंगे, तो आपकी उन्नति होती जाएगी और समृद्धि के भवन में आप आसानी से प्रवेश कर सकेंगे। भारतीय चिंतन में ऋषियों ने ईश्वर के संकल्प मात्र से सृष्टि रचना को स्वीकार किया है और यह संकेत दिया है। कि व्यक्ति जैसा बनना चाहता है, वैसा बार-बार सोचे। व्यक्ति जैसा सोचता है, वह वैसा ही बन जाता है। सफलता की ऊँचाइयों को छूने वाले व्यक्तियों का मानना है कि सफलता उनके मस्तिष्क से नहीं, अपितु उनकी सोच से निकलती है। व्यक्ति में सोच की एक ऐसी जादुई शक्ति है कि यदि वह उसका उचित प्रयोग करे, तो कहाँ से कहाँ पहुँच सकता है। इसलिए सदैव बड़ा सोचें, बड़ा सोचने से बड़ी सोच द्वारा बड़े आदमी बन जाएँगे। इसके लिए हैजलिट कहते हैं महान सोच जब कार्यरूप में परिणत हो जाती है, तब वह महान कृति बन जाती है।
(क) गद्यांश में किस प्रकार के व्यक्ति के बारे में चर्चा की गई है। ऐसे व्यक्ति ऊँचाई तक पहुँचने का क्या उपाय अपनाते हैं ?
(ख) गद्यांश में समृद्धि और उन्नति के लिए क्या सुझाव दिये गए हैं ?
(ग) भारतीय विचारधारा में संकल्प और चिंतन का महत्व है ?
(घ) गद्यांश में किस जादुई शक्ति की बात की गई है ? उसके क्या परिणाम हो सकते हैं ?
(ङ) “सफलता’ और ‘आतंकित’ शब्द में प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग और प्रत्यय का उल्लेख कीजिए।
(च) गद्यांश से दो मुहावरे चुनकर उनका वाक्य प्रयोग कीजिए।
उत्तर:
(क) गद्यांश में बड़ी और व्यापक सोच रखने वाले व्यक्ति के बारे में चर्चा की गई है। ऐसे व्यक्ति ऊँचाई तक पहुँचने के लिए दरिद्रता, नीचती आदि कुविचारों को अपने मन में कोई स्थान नहीं देते बल्कि हमेशा उन्नति और उपलब्धियों की ही योजना बनाते हैं।

(ख) समृद्धि और उन्नति पाने के लिए, मनुष्य को सकारात्मक और बड़ी सोच रखनी चाहिए क्योंकि बड़ा सोचने से ही बड़ी उपलब्धियाँ हासिल होंगी और देखते-ही-देखते, सकारात्मक सोच रखने वाला मनुष्य बड़ा आदमी बन जाएंगी।

(ग) भारतीय चिंतन में ऋषियों ने संकल्प और चिंतन के विषय में यह संकेत दिया है कि व्यक्ति जैसा बनना चाहता है, वैसा बार-बार सोचे, तो अवश्य ही वह अपने संकल्प को हासिल कर लेता है।

(घ) मनुष्य की सोच और उसके विचार एक ऐसी जादुई शक्ति है, जिसके उचित प्रयोग से वह कहाँ से कहाँ तक पहुँच सकता है। इसलिए हमेशा बड़ी सोच रखनी चाहिए।

(ङ) सफलता–स (उपसर्ग) + फल (शब्द) + ता (प्रत्यय)
आतंकित-आतंक (शब्द) + इत (प्रत्यय) (च)
(i) मुँह मोड़ना जब से बेटा कमाने लगा है तब से
उसने अपने माँ-बाप से मुँह मोड़ लिया है।
(ii) ऊँचाइयों को छूना विधान सभा में मंत्री पद पाने से बेटा ऊँचाइयों को छूने लगा।

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए :    [2 × 4 = 8]
इस पृथ्वी पर
एक मनुष्य की तरह
मैं जीना चाहता हूँ।
वे खत्म करना चाहते हैं।
बैक्टेरिया की तरह
उनके तमाम हथकंडों के बावजूद
मैं नहीं मरता
उपेक्षा, भूख और तिरस्कार से लड़ते-झगड़ते
बढ़ गई है मेरी प्रतिरोधक सामर्थ्य
मैं मृत्यु से नहीं डरता
और अमरत्व में मेरा विश्वास नहीं
लेकिन मैं नहीं चाहता प्रतिदिन मरना
थोड़ा-थोड़ा।
किंचित विनम्रता
किंचित अकड़
और मित्र हँसी के साथ
बेहतर सृष्टि के लिए।
मैं एक पके फल की तरह टपकना चाहता हूँ
जिसे लपकने के लिए
झुक जाएँ एक साथ।
असंख्य नन्हे-नन्हे हाथ
अधूरी लड़ाई बढ़ाने के लिए
फल के रस की तरह
मैं उनके रक्त में घुल जाना चाहता हूँ।
मैं एक मनुष्य की तरह मरना चाहता हूँ।
(क) कवि की प्रतिरोध क्षमता कैसे बढ़ गई है ? समझाइए।
(ख) कवि के हथकंडों’ शब्द के प्रयोग का तात्पर्य क्या है ?
(ग) “मैं नहीं चाहता प्रतिदिन मरना’ का आशय समझाइए।
(घ) पके फल की तरह टपकने की चाह क्यों व्यक्त की गई
उत्तर:
(क) कवि की प्रतिरोधक क्षमता, उपेक्षा, भूख और तिरस्कार का सामना करने से और अवहेलना और अपमान से लड़ते-लड़ते बढ़ गई है।

(ख) ‘हथकंडों’ शब्द द्वारा कवि उन सभी उपायों और तरीकों की ओर संकेत कर रहे हैं जो दुनिया उन्हें समाप्त करने और उनका अस्तित्व मिटाने के लिए प्रयोग कर रही है।

(ग) प्रस्तुत पंक्ति द्वारा कवि यह कहना चाहते हैं कि झूठ, बेईमानी और छल कपटपूर्ण जीवन जीकर, वे रोज-रोज मृत्यु का अहसास नहीं करना चाहते। वे मृत्यु से डरते नहीं, परन्तु अपने जमीर को, मारकर जीने को, वे प्रतिदिन मरने के समान मानते हैं।

(घ) वे एक परिपक्व और आदर्शवादी इंसान के रूप में जीकर, मृत्यु के आगोश में सोना चाहते हैं, ताकि उनकी मृत्यु के पश्चात भी, नई पीढ़ी उन्हें अपनी सोच और अपने आदर्शों में सदैव जीवित रखे।

खण्ड ‘ख’

प्रश्न 3.
शब्द किसे कहते हैं ? उदाहरण देकर शब्द और पद को समझाइए। [1 + 1 = 2]
उत्तर:
वर्गों के सार्थक समूह को शब्द कहते हैं। जब कोई शब्द व्याकरणक दृष्टि से क्रमबद्ध रूप में किसी वाक्य में प्रयुक्त हो जाता है, तब वह शब्द पद बन जाता है।
उदाहरण- (i) अनुशासन (शब्द)
(ii) हमें अनुशासन के नियमों का पालन करना चाहिए। (पद)

प्रश्न 4.
निर्देशानुसार वाक्य रूपान्तरण कीजिए : [1 × 3 = 3]
(i) वह फल खरीदने गया। वहाँ से फल लेकर आ गया। (संयुक्त वाक्य में)
(ii) चाय पीने की यह एक विधि है। जापानी में उसे चा-नो-यू कहते हैं। (मिश्र वाक्य में)
(iii) भारतीय सैनिक ऐसे हैं कि कोई उनकी बराबरी नहीं कर सकता। (सरल वाक्य में)
उत्तर:
(i) संयुक्त वाक्य- वह फल खरीदने बाजार गया और वहाँ से फल लेकर आ गया।
(ii) मिश्र वाक्य- चाय पीने की यह एक विधि है उसे जापानी में चा-नो-यू कहते हैं।
(iii) सरल वाक्य- भारतीय सैनिकों की कोई बराबरी नहीं कर सकता।

प्रश्न 5.
(क) निम्नलिखित शब्दों का विग्रह करते हुए समास का नाम लिखिए : [1 + 1 = 2]
(i) नीलकमल
(ii) घुड़साल
(ख) निम्नलिखित का समस्त पद बनाकर समास का नाम लिखिए : [1 + 1 = 2]
(i) नया जो आभूषण
(ii) गगन में विचरण करने वाला
उत्तर:
(क)
(i) नीला है जो कमल- कर्मधारय समास
(ii) घोड़ों की साल (शाला)– तत्पुरुष समास

(ख)
(i) नवाभूषण- कर्मधारय समास
(ii) नभचर (पक्षी)- कर्मधारय समास .

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को शुद्ध रूप में लिखिए : [1 × 4 = 4]
(क) सावित्री सत्यवान की पत्नी रहीं।
(ख) प्रधानाचार्य छात्र को बुलाए।
(ग) वह अनुत्तीर्ण होकर परीक्षा में फेल हो गया।
(घ) मोहन ने सोया।
उत्तर:
(क) सावित्री सत्यवान की पत्नी थी।
(ख) प्रधानाचार्य ने छात्र को बुलाया।
(ग) वह परीक्षा में फेल हो गया।
(घ) मोहन सोया।

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित मुहावरों का प्रयोग इस प्रकार कीजिए कि अर्थ स्पष्ट हो। [2]
मुठभेड़ होना, एक-एक शब्द को चाट जाना।
उत्तर:
मुठभेड़ होना- कल रात पुलिस की बदमाशों के साथ मुठभेड़ हो गयी।
एक-एक शब्द को चाट जाना— बड़े भाई साहब ऐसे पढ़ते थे मानो एक-एक शब्द चाट रहे हों।

खण्ड ‘ग’

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए : [2 + 2 + 1 = 5]
(क) ‘गिरगिट’ कहानी में पुलिस और जनता के सम्बन्धों को कैसे दिखाया गया है ?**
(ख) शुद्ध सोना और गिन्नी के सोने में क्या अन्तर है ?
(ग) काठगोदाम के पास भीड़ क्यों इकट्ठी हो गई थी ?
उत्तर:
(ख) शुद्ध सोना पूर्ण रूप से शुद्ध होता है, जबकि गिन्नी के सोने में कुछ मात्रा में ताँबा मिला होता है। ताँबे के कारण गिन्नी का सोना चमकता है और मजबूत होता है। स्त्रियाँ शुद्ध सोने के नहीं वरन् गिन्नी के सोने के ही आभूषण बनवाती हैं।

(ग) काठगोदाम के पास एक कुत्ते ने ख्यूक्रिन नामक मिस्त्री की उँगली काट खाई थी, इसलिए वह चीख-चीखकर कुत्ते को पकड़ रहा था। इस शोर को सुनेकर काठगोदाम के पास भीड़ इकट्ठी हो गई थी।

प्रश्न 9.
जी अली कौन था ? उसके चरित्र की क्या विशेषताएँ हैं ? अपने शब्दों में सोदाहरण स्पष्ट कीजिए।
उत्तर:
वज़ीर अली, नवाब आसिफउद्दौला का एकलौता बेटा और अवध का बादशाह था। उसे पकड़ना अंग्रेजों के लिए बहुत मुश्किल था, कई सालों से वे वज़ीर अली को पकड़ना चाह रहे थे, परन्तु निडरता, बहादुरी और जाँबाजी के कारण, वे वज़ीर अली को छू भी नहीं पा रहे थे।

निडरता- वजीर अली एक निडर सिपाही था। जो अंग्रेजों से बहुत नफरत करता था, इसलिए उसने खुलेआम अंग्रेजों के वकील का कत्ल कर डाला।

बहादुर- वज़ीर अली की बहादुरी को किसी उदाहरण की आवश्यकता नहीं है। उनकी बहादुरी के किस्से अंग्रेजी खेमों में प्रायः ही सुने और सुनाए जाते थे। वज़ीर अली अपनी बहादुरी । के दम पर ही अंग्रेजों के खेमे से, उनके कारतूस, उन्हीं के हाथों से लेकर गये थे और कर्नल देखता रह गया था।

जाँबाज सिपाही- वजीर अली एक जाँबाज अर्थात जान की बाजी लगा देने वाला सिपाही था। वह अंग्रेजों को खूब छका रहा था और अपनी जान की परवाह किए बगैर कर्नल कालेज के खेमे में घुस गया था।

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए : [2 + 2 + 1 = 5]
खुद ऊपर चढ़े और अपने साथ दूसरों को भी ऊपर ले चलें, यही महत्व की बात है। यह काम तो हमेशा आदर्शवादी लोगों ने ही किया है। समाज के पास अगर शाश्वत मूल्यों जैसा कुछ है। तो आदर्शवादी लोगों का ही दिया हुआ है। व्यवहारवादी लोगों ने तो समाज को गिराया ही है।
(क) महत्व की बात क्या है और क्यों ?
(ख) शाश्वत मूल्य क्या हैं ? इन मूल्यों से समाज को क्या लाभ है ?
(ग) समाज को पतन की ओर ले जाने वाले लोग कौन हैं ?
उत्तर:
(क) महत्वपूर्ण बात यह है कि अपने विकास और उन्नति के साथ दूसरों को भी सफलता की ओर ले जाने वाले लोग ही आदर्शवादी और शुद्ध सोने के समान होते हैं।

(ख) शाश्वत मूल्य अर्थात ऐसे मूल्य और आदर्श जो समय और परिस्थितियों के अनुसार बदलते नहीं हैं। इन्हीं मूल्यों के कारण कोई समाज प्रगति के पथ की ओर अग्रसर हो सकता है जैसे-सत्य, अहिंसा, दया, त्याग, परोपकार आदि।

(ग) व्यवहारवादी लोग, जिनके आदर्श खोखले और मिलावटी होते हैं, समाज को पतन की ओर ले जाते हैं।

प्रश्न 11.
(क) बिहारी के दोहों की रचना मुख्यतः किन भावों पर आधारित है? उनके मुख्य ग्रंथ और भाषा के नाम का उल्लेख कीजिए। [2]
(ख) “मनुष्यता’ कविता में कैसी मृत्यु को सुमृत्य कहा गया है और क्यों? [2]
(ग) ‘कर चले हम फिदा’ कविता में धरती को दुलहन क्यों कहा गया है? [1]
उत्तर:
(क) बिहारी मुख्य रूप से नीति, भक्ति श्रृंगारपरक दोहों के लिए जाने जाते हैं। उनका प्रमुख ग्रन्थ ‘सतसई’ है जिसे मानक ब्रजभाषा में लिखा गया है।

(ख) सुमृत्यु वह मृत्यु होती है, जिसे लोग बाद में भी लम्बे समय तक याद रखें। ऐसी मृत्यु परोपकार करने से मिलती है। किसी महान उद्देश्य के लिए मरना ही सुमृत्यु

(ग) ‘धरती अर्थात मातृभूमि को सबसे प्रिय बताने के लिए उसकी तुलना दुल्हन से की गयी है सैनिकों के लिए देश की धरती दुल्हन के समान प्रिय है।

प्रश्न 12.
“आत्मत्राण’ शीर्षक का अर्थ बताते हुए उसकी सार्थकता, कविता के सन्दर्भ में स्पष्ट कीजिए। [5]
उत्तर:
‘आत्मत्राण’ शीर्षक पूर्णतः सार्थक है। इस कविता में कवि अपने भय से छुटकारा चाहता है। कवि ईश्वर की सहायता तो केवल भयमुक्ति के लिए चाहता है, पर इसके लिए संघर्ष वह स्वयं ही करेगी। यह शीर्षक कविता की मूल भावना को पूर्णतः स्पष्ट कर देता है। कवि ईश्वर से सहायता नहीं चाहता, बल्कि वह पौरुष-बल चाहता है, जिसके माध्यम से हर संकट का सामना वह साहस एवं गम्भीरतापूर्वक कर सके। कवि ईश्वर से स्वयं को तारने की माँग नहीं करता, बल्कि तैरने की क्षमता प्रदान करने की कामना करता है। अतः शीर्षक पूर्णतः सार्थक है।

प्रश्न 13.
‘सपनों के से दिन’ पाठ में पीटी सर की किन चारित्रिक विशेषताओं का उल्लेख किया गया है ? वर्तमान शिक्षा व्यवस्था में स्वीकृत मान्यताओं और पाठ में वर्णित युक्तियों के सम्बन्ध में अपने विचार जीवन मूल्यों की दृष्टि से व्यक्त कीजिए। [5]
उत्तर:
पी. टी. सर का नाम प्रीतमचंद था। उनका चेहरा दागों से भरा था। उनकी आँखें बाज-सी तेज थीं। वे बड़े कठोर स्वभाव के थे। उन्हें किसी ने स्कूल के समय में मुसकराते नहीं देखा था।
बाह्य विशेषताएँ
(i) उनका कद ठिगना और बदन गठीला था। वे खाकी वर्दी पहने रहते थे। उनके पैरों में चमड़े के चौड़े पंजों वाले बूट होते थे।
(ii) प्रीतमचंद पढ़ाने के प्रति बहुत सचेत रहते थे। पाठ याद न करने पर बर्बरता की हद तक सजा देते थे। उनके इसी रूप ने उन्हें नौकरी से मुअत्तल करा दिया।
(iii) स्काउटिंग की परेड़ कराते समय उनको रूप लड़कों को बहुत अच्छा लगता था। तब वे सामान्य व्यवहार से हटकर, लड़कों को उत्साहित करते हुए शाबासी देते थे।
(iv) अंत में उन्हें एक नरमदिल व्यक्ति के रूप में दर्शाया गया है जो नौकरी से निकाले जाने पर दुखी न थे और प्रेमपूर्वक अपने तोतों को बादाम की गिरियाँ खिलाते थे। पाठ में बताया गया है कि स्कूल में अनुशासन बनाए रखने के लिए छात्रों को भयभीत अवस्था में रखा जाता था। पाठ याद न करने पर उन्हें मुर्गा बना दिया जाता था। इस तरह की सजा देना अत्यंत बर्बरतापूर्ण है। वर्तमान समय में शारीरिक दंड और भयपूर्ण वातावरण में छात्रों को पढ़ाने पर पूर्ण प्रतिबन्ध लगाया गया है। ऐसी शारीरिक सजाओं पर प्रतिबन्ध लगाना बिलकुल उचित है।

खण्ड ‘ध’

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित विषयों में से किसी एक पर संकेत बिन्दुओं के आधार पर लगभग 100 शब्दों में अनुच्छेद लिखिए : [5]
(क) अपनी भाषा प्यारी भाषा

• अपनी भाषा का परिचय
• प्यारी क्यों है ?
• अन्य भाषाओं से मेल

(ख) स्वच्छता अभियान

• क्या है।
• क्यों और कैसे
• सुझाव

(ग) लड़कियों की शिक्षा

• समाज में लड़कियों का स्थान
• शिक्षा की अनिवार्यता और बाधाएँ
• सबका सहयोग

उत्तर:
(क) “अपनी भाषा प्यारी भाषा”
हर देश की अपनी भाषा होती है। भाषा के माध्यम से ही हम एक-दूसरे की बातों और विचारों को समझ और समझा पाते हैं। भारत देश में वैसे तो अलग-अलग राज्यों में अलग-अलग भाषाएँ बोली जाती हैं पर “हिन्दी” हमारे देश की अपनी और प्यारी भाषा है। हिन्दी भाषा को 14 सितम्बर के दिन दुल्हन की तरह सजाया, धजाया और मनाया जाता है। इस दिन प्रतिवर्ष हम हिन्दी दिवस मनाते हैं। हिन्दी भाषा है भावनाओं की, भारत की संस्कृति और परंपराओं की इसलिए यह भाषा, एक प्यारी भाषा का दर्जा पाने की हकदार है। हिन्दी अपने आप में एक मिलनसार और विशाल हृदय वाली भाषा है, जिसने अन्य अनेक भाषाओं को भी व्यापक रूप में अपने शब्दकोश में समाहित किया हुआ है। हिन्दी हमारे देश की जन सम्पर्क की भाषा है और भारतीयों के दिल में रची-बसी भाषा है।

गूंज उठे भारत की धरती, हिन्दी के जय गानों से।
पूजित पोषित परिर्द्धित हो, बालक वृद्ध जवानों से।”

(ख) “स्वच्छता-अभियान”
स्वच्छ भारत अभियान भारत सरकार द्वारा चलाया जाने । वाला एक राष्ट्रव्यापी सफाई अभियान है। इस अभियान द्वारा भारत को एक स्वच्छ राष्ट्र बनाया जाएगा। इस अभियान में शौचालयों का निर्माण करवाना, पीने का साफ पानी हर घर तक पहुँचाना, ग्रामीण इलाकों में स्वच्छता कार्यक्रमों को बढ़ावा देना, सड़कों की सफाई करना और देश का नेतृत्व करने के लिए देश के बुनियादी ढाँचे को बदलना शामिल है। स्वच्छ भारत का सपना राष्ट्रपिता महात्मा गाँधी जी ने देखा था। स्वच्छ भारत अभियान 2 अक्टूबर, 2014 को गाँधी जयंती के दिन भारत के प्रधानमन्त्री श्री नरेन्द्र मोदी जी ने राजघाट में शुरू किया था। उन्होंने एक मंत्र दिया कि हम “न गन्दगी खुद करेंगे और न दूसरों को करने देंगे।” इस अभियान को सफल बनाने के लिए हमें सर्वप्रथम स्वयं स्वच्छ रहना होगा तभी हम अपने वातावरण और पर्यावरण को स्वच्छ रख सकते हैं।
“एक कदम स्वच्छता की ओर”

(ग) लड़कियों की शिक्षा”
जहाँ तक शिक्षा का प्रश्न है, वह तो लड़कों की हो या लड़कियों की, दोनों के लिए समान रूप से महत्वपूर्ण है। शिक्षा का कार्य तो व्यक्ति के विवेक को जगाकर, उसे सही दिशा प्रदान करना है, परन्तु फिर भी भारत जैसे विकासशील देश में लड़कियों की शिक्षा का महत्व इसलिए अधिक है कि वे देश की भावी पीढ़ी को योग्य बनाने के कार्य में उचित मार्ग दर्शन कर सकती हैं। एक शिक्षित और विकसित मन-मस्तिष्क वाली नारी अपनी आय, परिस्थिति, घर के प्रत्येक सदस्य की आवश्यकता आदि का ध्यान रखकर उचित व्यवस्था एवं संचालन कर सकती है। इसलिए आज लड़कियों को शिक्षित किया जाने लगा है। स्त्री-शिक्षा के आँकड़े बढ़ते ही जा रहे हैं। स्त्री शिक्षा के महत्व को लोगों ने सहर्ष स्वीकारा है।

प्रश्न 15.
आए दिन बस चालकों की असावधानी के कारण हो रही दुर्घटनाओं पर चिंता व्यक्त करते हुए किसी समाचार पत्र के संपादक को एक पत्र लिखिए।
उत्तर:
सेवा में,
प्रधान संपादक,
नवभारत टाइम्स,
आई. टी. ओ., दिल्ली
दिनांक-20 फरवरी, 20XX
विषय : बस चालकों की असावधानी के कारण हो रही दुर्घटनाओं, पर चिन्ता व्यक्त करते हुए पत्र।
महोदय,
मैं आपके लोकप्रिय दैनिक समाचार-पत्र के माध्यम से सरकार और आम जनता का ध्यान बस चालकों की बढ़ती लापरवाही और असावधानी की ओर आकर्षित करना चाहती हूँ ताकि इस समस्या से छुटकारा पाने के सुदृढ़ उपाय किए जा सकें। बस चालक चाहे सरकारी नौकरी में कार्यरत हों या निजी क्षेत्र में काम करते हों, बसों को निर्धारित गति-सीमा से अधिक तेज चलाते हैं ताकि वे अपने गंतव्य पर समय से पहले ही पहुँच जाएँ। अधिक से अधिक सवारियों को अपनी बस में बैठाने की होड़ में वे असावधानी बरतते हैं।

इसी जल्दबाजी और सवारियों को चढ़ाने की आपा-धापी में कितने यात्री बस से गिरते–पड़ते उतरते हैं और भाग-दौड़ में ही बस में चढ़ते हैं। बुजुर्ग और दिव्यांग यात्रियों को दुर्घटनाग्रस्त भी होना पड़ता है। कितनी बार तेज बस चलाने के कारण, वे लाल-बत्ती भी पार कर जाते हैं जिससे सड़क दुर्घटनाएँ दिन-ब-दिन बढ़ती जा रही हैं। आम आदमी को इन सभी कारणों से परेशानी झेलनी पड़ रही है।

जनता के सब्र का बाँध टूटने से पहले, इन सभी को कड़ी से चेतावनी दी जानी चाहिए, अन्यथा स्थिति बेकाबू हो जाएगी।
सधन्यवाद!
भवदीया,
अंजलि गुप्ता (सचिव),
पीतमपुरा समाज सुधार कार्यालय,
दिल्ली।

प्रश्न 16.
विद्यालय में साहित्यिक क्लब के सचिव के रूप में ‘प्राचीर’ पत्रिका के लिए लेख, कविता, निबन्ध आदि विद्यार्थियों द्वारा प्रस्तुत करने हेतु सूचना पट के लिए एक सूचना लगभग 30 शब्दों में लिखिए। [5]
उत्तर:
अ.ब.स. स्कूल,
क.ख.ग. रोड, नई दिल्ली।
सूचना
7 फरवरी, 20XX
साहित्यिक क्लब
सभी इच्छुक छात्र/छात्राओं को सूचित किया जाता है। कि वे विद्यालय पत्रिका ‘प्राचीर’ हेतु अपने लेख, निबन्ध, कविताएँ, चित्र और अन्य सामग्री 24 फरवरी, 20xx तक, क्लब के अध्यक्ष को जमा करवा दें। सभी प्रतियाँ मौलिक और रोचक/ज्ञानवर्धक होनी चाहिए।
अंजलि छाबड़ा
(अध्यक्षा)

प्रश्न 17.
पुस्तक मेले में जाने के लिए उत्सुक पुत्री और उसकी माँ के बीच के संवाद को लगभग 50 शब्दों में लिखिए। [5]
उत्तर:
मनिका – माँ! मेरे सभी मित्र कल पुस्तक–मेला देखने जा रहे हैं। क्या मैं भी उनके साथ जा सकती हैं ? .
माँ – हाँ! तुम जा सकती हो। परन्तु जाने से पहले यह तो सोच लो कि तुम्हें किस तरह की पुस्तकें चाहिए ?
मनिका – माँ! मुझे सामान्य विज्ञान और साहित्यिक पुस्तकों में रुचि है, इसलिए में इन्हीं विषयों की किताबें खरीदना चाहती हूँ।
माँ – अच्छी साहित्यिक पुस्तकों का चयन करते समय यदि पौराणिक किताबों की नवीकृत प्रतियाँ मिलें तो मेरे लिए लेते आना।
मनिका – ठीक है! मैं तो बस कल का इन्तजार कर रही हूँ कि कब सुबह हो और कब में पुस्तक मेले में जाऊँ।
माँ – चलो बस बहुत हुआ, अब सो जाओ। सुबह उठकर पढ़ना भी है। शुभ रात्रि!
मनिका – शुभ रात्रि माँ!

प्रश्न 18.
अपनी पुरानी पुस्तकें गरीब विद्यार्थियों में सबसे कम दामों में वितरण करने के लिए एक विज्ञापन लगभग 25 शब्दों में लिखिए। [5]
उत्तर:
निःशुल्क पुस्तक वितरण
इच्छुक विद्यार्थी सम्पर्क करें !!
सी.बी.एस.ई. पाठ्यक्रम की अंग्रेज़ी
माध्यम की कक्षा नवीं, दसवीं, ग्यारहवीं
और बारहवीं की पुरानी किताबों को
सबसे कम दामों में खरीदने के लिए
संपर्क करें।
स्थान : मदर डेयरी, पटपड़गंज,
दिल्ली : 1100031
दूरभाष : कत्याल बुक स्टोर : 009999337925

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Hindi B 2017 Delhi Term 2 Set – II

निर्धारित समय :3 घण्टे
अधिकतम अंक : 90

खण्ड ‘ख’

प्रश्न 3.
शब्द और पद में क्या अन्तर है ? सोदाहरण स्पष्ट कीजिए। [1 + 1 = 2]
उत्तर:
शब्द-वर्गों के सार्थक शब्द-समूह को शब्द कहते हैं जैसे ल् + अ + ड़ + अ + क् + आ = लड़का।
पद-जब कोई शब्द किसी वाक्य में प्रयुक्त हो जाता है तब वह पद कहलाता है। जैसे—लड़का बीमार है।

प्रश्न 4.
निर्देशानुसार वाक्य रूपान्तरण कीजिए : [1 × 3 = 3]
(i) चाय तैयार हुई, उसने वह प्यालों में भरी (संयुक्त वाक्य)
(ii) बाहर बेढब-सा एक मिट्टी का बरतन था। उसमें पानी भरा हुआ था। (मिश्र वाक्य में)
(iii) अँगीठी सुलगाई और उस पर चायदानी रखी। (सरल वाक्य में)
उत्तर:
(i) चाय तैयार हुई और उसने वह प्यालों में भरी।
(ii) बाहर बेढब-सा मिट्टी का एक बरतन बाहर था जिसमें पानी भरा हुआ था।
(iii) अँगीठी सुलगाकर उस पर चायदानी रखी।

प्रश्न 5.
(क) निम्नलिखित शब्दों का विग्रह करते हुए समास का नाम लिखिएः [1 + 1 = 2]
(i) वाद्य यंत्र
(ii) न्यायालय
(ख) निम्नलिखित शब्दों को समस्त पद बनाकर समास का नाम लिखिए : [1 + 1 = 2]
(i) नत है जो मस्तक
(ii) दूसरों पर उपकार
उत्तर:
(क)
(i) वाद्य के लिए है जो यंत्र-कर्मधारय समास
(ii) न्याय का आलय-तत्पुरुष समास

(ख)
(i) नतमस्तक–कर्मधारय समास
(ii) परोपकार-तत्पूरूष समास

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को शुद्ध रूप में लिखिए : [1 × 4 = 4]
(क) आप कहाँ रहते हो ?
(ख) कुसंगति से बुरे-बुरे कुविचार मन में उठते हैं।
(ग) उसने कोई बात नहीं माना।
(घ) अरे, तुमने ये क्या करो।
उत्तर:
(क) आप कहाँ रहते हैं ?
(ख) कुसंगति से बुरे-बुरे विचार मन में उठते हैं।
(ग) उसने कोई बात नहीं मानी।
(घ) अरे! तुमने ये क्या किया ?

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित मुहावरों का वाक्य में इस प्रकार प्रयोग कीजिए कि उनका अर्थ स्पष्ट हो जाए : [2]
आड़े हाथों लेना, हाथ मलना।।
उत्तर:
(i) आड़े हाथों लेना–मदन का झूठ सामने आने पर अध्यापक ने उसे आड़े हाथों लिया।
(ii) हाथ मलना–परीक्षा परिणाम आने पर हाथ मलना व्यर्थ

खण्ड ‘ग’

प्रश्न 11.
(क) “बिहारी के दोहे’ के आधार पर लिखिए कि गोपियाँ श्रीकृष्ण की बाँसुरी क्यों छिपा लेती हैं ? [2]
उत्तर:
(क) गोपियाँ बात करने के सुख के लालच में श्रीकृष्ण की बाँसुरी छिपा लेती हैं। वे नटखट श्रीकृष्ण से प्रेम भरी बातें करना चाहती हैं। इस उद्देश्य से वे जान-बूझकर श्रीकृष्ण की बाँसुरी छिपा लेती हैं, ताकि इसी बहाने से वे उनसे बातें कर सकें।

प्रश्न 17.
आजकल स्कूली वाहनों द्वारा हो रही असावधानियों पर माँ-बेटे के बीच हुए संवाद को लगभग 50 शब्दों में लिखिए। [5]
उत्तर:
माँ – बेटा! आज तुम विद्यालय नहीं जा रहे ?
बेटा – नहीं माँ! आज मेरी स्कूल वैन नहीं आएगी। सभी प्राइवेट वैन और कैब चालकों ने हड़ताल कर दी है।
माँ – हड़ताल, अचानक ऐसा क्यों किया ?
बेटा – माँ कल एक वैन तेजी से चल रही थी और वैन चालक ने नशा भी किया हुआ था इसलिए उसे पुलिस ने पकड़ लिया। इसी के विरोध में सब हड़ताल कर रहे हैं।
माँ – आजकल स्कूल बस और अन्य वाहनों के असावधानी के कारण कितनी दुर्घटनाएँ हो रही हैं।
बेटे – इन सभी के कारण निर्दोष लोगों को मुसीबतों का सामना करना पड़ता है।
माँ – हाँ! और कितने बच्चे दुर्घटनास्थल पर ही, गम्भीर रूप से घायल हो जाते हैं। इन सभी के खिलाफ कुछ सख्त कदम उठाने चाहिए।
बेटा – स्कूली वाहनों के लिए विशेष निर्देश भी दिए जाने चाहिए
माँ – बिलकुल ठीक कहा तुमने। चलो! मुझे दफ्तर के लिए पहले ही देर हो रही है। मैं चलती हूँ तुम अपना ध्यान रखना।

प्रश्न 18.
अपने पुराने मकान का विवरण देते हुए उसकी बिक्री के लिए लगभग 25 शब्दों में एक विज्ञापन लिखिए। [5]
उत्तर:
बिकाऊ है।
रोहिणी में एक दो मंजिला, 500 फीट जमीन पर बनी पाँच साल पुराना मकान बिकाऊ है। तीन कमरे, रसोई, बॉलकनी और गाड़ी पार्किंग की पर्याप्त सुविधा। इच्छुक ग्राहक सम्पर्क करें। दूरभाष 085439468 anilgarg @ yahoo.com

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Hindi B 2017 Delhi Term 2 Set – III

निर्धारित समय :3 घण्टे
अधिकतम अंक : 90

खण्ड ‘ख’

प्रश्न 3.
शब्द क्या है ? वाक्य में प्रयुक्त होने पर शब्द को क्या कहते हैं ? [1 + 1 = 2]
उत्तर:
वर्गों के सार्थक समूह को शब्द कहते हैं। जब वह शब्द व्याकरणिक रूप से क्रमबद्ध रूप में किसी वाक्य में प्रयोग होता है तो उसे ‘पद’ कहते हैं।

प्रश्न 4.
निर्देशानुसार वाक्य रूपान्तरण कीजिए : [1 × 3 = 3]
(i) चाय तैयार हुई, उसने वह प्याले में भरी, फिर वे प्याले हमारे सामने रख दिए। (मिश्र वाक्य में)
(ii) दरवाजा खुलने पर वह अन्दर आ गया। (संयुक्त वाक्य)
(iii) वह व्यक्ति बहुत बीमार था, जिसे मैंने आज देखा। (सरल वाक्य में)
उत्तर:
(i) मिश्र वाक्य-जैसे ही चाय तैयार हुई, वैसे ही उसने उन्हें प्याले में भरकर हमारे सामने रख दिया।
(ii) संयुक्त वाक्य-दरवाजा खुला और वह अन्दर आ गया। प्याले में ,
(iii) सरल वाक्य–आज मैंने एक बीमार व्यक्ति को देखा।

प्रश्न 5.
(क) निम्नलिखित शब्दों का विग्रह करते हुए समास का नाम लिखिए: [1 + 1 = 2]
(i) अन्नजल
(ii) समाचार–वाचन
(ख) निम्नलिखित शब्दों का समस्त पद बनाकर समास का नाम लिखिए : [1 + 1 = 2]
(i) गंगा का जल
(ii) चंद्र जैसा मुख
उत्तर:
(क)
(i) अन्न और जल-द्वंद्व समास
(ii) समाचार का वाचन-तत्पुरुष समास

(ख)
(i) गंगाजल–तत्पुरुष समास
(ii) चन्द्रमुख-कर्मधारय समास

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को शुद्ध रूप में लिखिए : [1 × 4 = 4]
(क) मैंने बहुत कोशिश की।
(ख) वह अपनी बात कहता ही रहा।
(ग) आजकल ऐसे विद्यार्थी कम ही मिलते थे।
(घ) मेरे पास मात्र केवल दस रुपये हैं।
उत्तर:
(क) मैंने बहुत कोशिश की।
(ख) वह अपनी बात कहता ही रहा।
(ग) आजकल ऐसे विद्यार्थी कम ही मिलते हैं।
(घ) मेरे पास मात्र दस रुपये हैं।

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित मुहावरों का वाक्य प्रयोग इस प्रकार कीजिए कि अर्थ स्पष्ट हो जाए [1 + 1 = 2]
साँस थमना, दाँतों पसीना आना।
उत्तर:
साँस थमना-सरहद पर डटे जवानों की साँसें थमती जा रही थीं फिर भी वे मातृभूमि की रक्षा में तैनात थे। दाँतों पसीना आना-रानी लक्ष्मीबाई के उग्र रूप को देखकर अंग्रेजों के दाँतों पसीना आ गया।

प्रश्न 11.
(क) ‘बिहारी के दोहे’ के आधार पर लिखिए कि किन प्राणियों में स्वाभाविक बैर है ? वे आपसी बैर कब और क्यों भूल जाते हैं ? [2]
उत्तर:
(क) बिहारी जी कहते हैं कि तपती गरमी के कारण जब पानी के सभी स्रोत सूख जाते हैं, तब आपस में बैर रखने वाले सर्प, मयूर, मृग और सिंह भी आपसी शत्रुता को भुला कर; एक ही घाट पर प्रेमपूर्वक व्यवहार करते हैं। इस दोहे द्वारा विपत्ति में शत्रु को भी मित्र बनाने का सन्देश दिया गया है।

प्रश्न 17.
गृहकार्य में शिथिलता देखकर पिता-पुत्र के बीच हुए संवाद को लगभग 50 शब्दों में लिखिए। [5]
उत्तर:
पिता – राहुल बेटा! आज तुम्हारी गणित की परीक्षा कैसी हुई ?
राहुल – पिताजी परीक्षा तो अच्छी हुई, परन्तु कुछ प्रश्नों को हल करने में कठिनाई हुई।
पिता – कठिनाई क्यों हुई क्या तुमने उनका अभ्यास भली प्रकार नहीं किया था ?
राहुल – पिताजी में उन प्रश्नों को गृहकार्य में करना भूल गया था, अतः परीक्षा की तैयारी करते समय अभ्यास नहीं कर सका।
पिता – राहुल यह बहुत गलत बात है, कल तुम अपना अंग्रेजी का गृहकार्य भी नहीं करके गए थे। तुम्हारे अध्यापक को फोन आया था। वे तुम्हारे इस भुलक्कड़ स्वभाव से बहुत परेशान हैं।
राहुल – पिताजी आजकल बैडमिंटन कोचिंग और ट्यूशन क्लास के कारण, विद्यालय का कार्य अधूरा रह जाता है। मुझे माफ़ कर दीजिए, अब ऐसा नहीं होगा।
पिता – बेटा! जीवन में सफलता उन्हीं की मिलती है, जो हर परिस्थिति में खरे उतरते हैं। तुम्हें ये आखिरी मौका दिया जा रहा है, अब मुझे तुम्हारी और कोई शिकायत नहीं चाहिए।
राहुल – ठीक है पिताजी।

प्रश्न 18.
अपने पिताजी की पुरानी कार की बिक्री हेतु विवरण देते हुए लगभग 25 शब्दों में एक विज्ञापन लिखिए। [5]
उत्तर:
कार खरीदे
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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 4 Climate

Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved.

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

Question 1(i).
What causes rainfall on the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu in the beginning of winters?
(а) South-West monsoon
(b) Temperate cyclones
(c) North-Eastern monsoon
(d) Local air circulation
Answer:
(c) North-Eastern monsoon

Question 1(ii).
What is the proportion of area of India which receives annual rainfall less than 75 cm?’
(a) Half
(b) One-third
(c) Two-third
(d) Three-fourth
Answer:
(d) Three-fourth

Question 1(iii).
Which one of the following is not a fact regarding South India?
(а) Diurnal range of temperature is less here.
(b) Annual range of temperature is less here.
(c) Temperatures here are high throughout the year.
(d) Extreme climatic conditions are found here.
Answer:
(d) Extreme climatic conditions are found here.

Question 1(iv).
Which one of the following phenomenon happens when the sun shines vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn in the southern hemisphere?
(a) High pressure develops over North-western India due to low temperatures.
(b) Low pressure develops over North-western India due to high temperatures.
(c) No changes in temperature and pressure occur in north-western India.
(d) ‘Loo’ blows in the North-western India.
Answer:
(a) High pressure develops over North-western India due to low temperatures.

Question 1(v).
In which of the following states in India do we find ‘As’ type of climate as per Koeppen’s classification?
(a) In Kerala and coastal Karnataka
(b) In Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) On Coromandel Coast
(d) In Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
(c) On Coromandel Coast

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

Question 2(i).
What are the three important factors which influence the mechanism of Indian weather?
Answer:
The three important factors which influence the mechanism of Indian weather are:

• Distribution of air pressure and winds on the surface of the earth.
• Upper air circulation caused by factors controlling global weather and the inflow of different air masses and jet streams.
• Inflow of western cyclones generally known as disturbances during the winter season and tropical depressions during the south-west monsoon period in India, creating weather conditions favourable for rainfall.

Question 2(ii).
What is the Inter-Tropical Convergene Zone?
Answer:
The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a low pressure zone located at the equator where trade winds converge, and so, it is a zone where air tends to ascend. In July, the ITCZ is located around 20°N-25°N latitudes (over the Gangetic plain). These are sometimes called the monsoon trough. This monsoon trough encourages the development of thermal low over north and northwest India. Due to the shift of ITCZ, the trade winds of the southern hemisphere cross the equator between 40° and 60°E longitudes and start blowing from southwest to northeast due to the Coriolis force. It becomes southwest monsoon. In winter, the ITCZ moves southward, and so the reversal of winds from northeast to south and southwest, takes place. They are called northeast monsoons.

Question 2(iii).
What is meant by ‘bursting of monsoon’? Name the place of India which gets the highest rainfall.
Answer:
High velocity winds with extreme thundering and lightening cause sudden rainfall. It is called bursting of the monsoon. The easterly jet stream sets in along 15°N latitude only after the western jet stream has withdrawn itself from the region. This easterly jet stream is held responsible for the burst of the monsoon in India.

The highest rainfall occurs along the west coast, on the Western Ghats, as well as in the sub-Himalayan areas is the northeast and the hills of Meghalaya. Here the rainfall exceeds 200 cm. In some parts of Khasi and Jaintia hills, the rainfall exceeds 1,000 cm. In the Brahmaputra valley and the adjoining hills, the rainfall is less than 200 cm.

Question 2(iv).
Define ‘climatic region’? What are the bases of Koeppen’s classification?
Answer:
A climatic region has a homogeneous climatic condition which is the result of a combination of factors. Temperature and rainfall are two important elements which are considered to be decisive in all the schemes of climatic classification. Koeppen identified a close relationship between the distribution of vegetation and climate. He selected certain values of temperature and precipitation and related them to the distribution of vegetation and used these values for classifying the climates. Koeppen introduced the use of capital and small letters to designate climatic groups and types. Koeppen recognised five major climatic groups, four of them are based on temperature and one on precipitation.

• Tropical climates,
• Dry climates,
• Warm temperate climates,
• Cool temperate climates,
• Ice climates

Question 2(v).
Which type(s) of cyclones cause rainfall in north-western India during winter? Where do they originate?
Answer:
Western cyclonic disturbance cause rainfall in north western India during winter. The western cyclonic disturbances which enter the Indian subcontinent from the west and the north-west during the winter months originate over the Mediterranean Sea and are brought into India by the westerly jet stream. An increase in the prevailing night temperature generally indicates an advance in the arrival of these cyclones disturbances.

3. Answer the following questions in not more than 125 words.

Question 3(i).
Notwithstanding the broad climatic unity, the climate of India has many regional variations. Elaborate this statement giving suitable examples.
Answer:
The monsoon regime emphasises the unity of India with the rest of south-east Asian region. This view of broad unity of the monsoon type of climate should not, however, lead one to ignore its regional variations which differentiate the weather and climate of different regions of India. The climate of Kerala and Tamil Nadu in the south is so different from that of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar in the north, and yet all of these have a monsoon type of climate.

1.While in the summer the mercury occasionally touches 55°C in the western Rajasthan, it drops down to as low as minus 45°C in winter around Leh. Churu in Rajasthan may record a temperature of 50°C or more on a June day while the mercury hardly touches 19°C in Tawang (Arunachal Pradesh) on the same day.

2. On a December night, temperature in Drass (Jammu and Kashmir) may drop down to minus 45°C while Thiruvananthapuram or Chennai on the same night records 20°C or 22°C.

3. In Kerala and in the Andaman Islands, the difference between day and night temperatures may be hardly seven or eight degree Celsius. But in the Thar desert, if the day temperature is around 50°C, at night, it may drop down considerably upto 15°-20°C.

4. While snowfall occurs in the Himalayas, it only rains over the rest of the country. Similarly, variations are noticeable not only in the type of precipitation but also in its amount. While Cherrapunji and Mawsynram in the Khasi Hills of Meghalaya receive rainfall over 1,080 cm in a year, Jaisalmer in Rajasthan rarely gets more than 9 cm of rainfall during the same period.

5. Tura situated in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya may receive an amount of rainfall in a single day which is equal to 10 years of rainfall at Jaisalmer. While the annual precipitation is less than 10 cm in the north-west Himalayas and the western deserts, it exceeds 400 cm in Meghalaya.

6. The Ganga delta and the coastal plains of Orissa are hit by strong rain-bearing storms almost every third or fifth day in July and August while the Coromandal coast, a thousand km to the south, goes generally dry during these months. Most parts of the country get rainfall during June-September, but on the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu, it rains in the beginning of the winter season.

These examples confirm that there are seasonal variations in temperature from place to place and from region to region in India. In spite of these differences and variations, the climate of India is monsoonal in rhythm and character.

Question 3(ii).
How many distinct seasons are found in India as per the Indian Meteorological Department? Discuss the weather conditions associated with any one season in detail.
Answer:
In India as per the Indian Meteorological Department, there are four distinct seasons:

• Winter Season (from December to February)
• Summer Season (from March to May)
• South west monsoon season (from June to September)
• Retreating Monsoon (from October to November)

Summer Season: April, May and June are the months of summer in north India.
In most parts of India, temperatures recorded are between 30°-32°C. In March, the highest day temperature of about 38°C occurs in the Deccan Plateau while in April, temperature ranging between 38°C and 43°C are found in Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh. In May, the heat belt moves further north, and in the north-western part of India, temperatures around 48°C are not uncommon.

The hot weather season in south India is mild and not too intense as found in north India. The Peninsular situation of south India with moderating effect of the oceans keeps the temperatures lower than that prevailing in north India. Therefore, temperatures remain between 26°C and 32°C. Due to altitude, the temperatures in the hills of Western Ghats remain below 25°C. In the coastal regions, temperature does not decrease from north to south rather it increases from the coast to the interior. The mean daily minimum temperature during the summer months also remains quite high and rarely goes below 26°C. ”

Project/Activity

On the outline map of India, show the following:

1. Areas of winter rain
2. Wind direction during the summer season
3. Areas having variability of rainfall over 50 per cent
4. Areas having less than 15°C temperature in January
5. Isohyte of 100 cm.

Answer:

Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The winds blow across the Asian continent at latitudes north of the Himalayas roughly parallel to the Tibetan highlands. These are known as what?
(a) Monsoon bursting
(b) Western cyclones
(c) Jet streams
(d) Monsoon winds
Answer:
(c) Jet streams

Question 2.
The sudden onset of the moisture-laden winds associated with violent thunder and lightning is often termed as what?
(a) Bursting of monsoon
(b) Western cyclones
(c) Jet streams
(d) Monsoon winds
Answer:
(a) Bursting of monsoon

Question 3.
Highest rainfall takes place in India at:
(a) Mawsynram
(b) Eastern Coast
(c) Gaya
(d) Bhabhar
Answer:
(a) Mawsynram

Question 4.
Which of the following is most humid region of India?
(a) Northeast India and Western coast
(b) Ladhakh region
(c) Coastal regions of Tamil Nadu
(d) Rann of Kachchh
Answer:
(a) Northeast India and western coast

Question 5.
What are the bases of Koeppen’s classification?
(a) On the basis of latitude and longitude
(b) On the basis of winds and pressure
(c) On the basis of temperature and precipitation
(d) On the basis of local weather conditions
Answer:
(c) On the basis of temperature and precipitation

Question 6.
In Assam, nor westers storms are known as what?
(a) Kalbaisakhi
(b) Western Cyclone
(c) Bardoli Chheerha
(d) Amravati
Answer:
(c) Bardoli chheerha

Question 7.
What is the position of southern branch of jet streams?
(a) 35° S latitude .
(b) 25° N latitude
(c) 15° N latitude
(d) 25° S latitude
Answer:
(c) 15° N latitude

Question 8.
How much average rainfall is received by Mawsynram?
(a) 1020 cm
(b) 1050 cm
(c) 1080 cm
(d) 1000 cm
Answer:
(c) 1080 cm

Question 9.
What do we call when monsoon withdraws itself?
(а) Retreating monsoon
(b) Bursting of monsoon
(c) Western cyclone
(d) Bardoli chheerha
Answer:
(a) Retreating monsoon

Question 10.
Which season is there during September to December?
(a) Winter season
(b) Retreating monsoon
(c) Summer season
(d) Rainy season
Answer:
(b) Retreating monsoon

Question 11.
In which regions of India does mango shower take place?
(a) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
(b) Kerala and Coastal Karnataka
(c) Orissa and West Bengal
(d) Punjab and Haryana
Answer:
(b) Kerala and coastal Karnataka

Question 12.
Which crops grow as a result of blossom shower?
(a) Cotton
(b) Coffee
(c) Jute
(d) Cashew
Answer:
(b) Coffee

Question 13.
In which regions of India do we experience cyclones?
(a) In eastern coastal regions
(b) In western coastal regions
(c) In northern plains
(d) In west India
Answer:
(a) In eastern coastal region

Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by the word “Monsoon’?
Answer:
It is derived from the Arabic word Mausim meaning Season. Monsoon connotes the climate associated with seasonal reversal in the direction of winds.

Question 2.
Explain two factors helpful in affecting Indian Monsoon.
Answer:
Two factors helpful in Indian monsoon are:

1. Jet stream winds
2. Difference in atmospheric pressure.

Question 3.
Name two important seasons of Indian climate.
Answer:
Two important seasons of Indian climate are:

1. North-west monsoon
2. South-east monsoon

Question 4.
Name the seasons of India of sankranti time with months. .
Answer:

• Summer Season (March to May)
• Winter Season (December to February)

Question5.
What is a jet stream?
Answer:
The winds that blow across the Asian continent at latitudes north of the Himalayas roughly parallel to the Tibetan highlands are called jet stream.

Question 6.
What is break in monsoon?
Answer:
During the south-west monsoon period after having rains for a few days, if rain fails to occur for one or more weeks, it is known as break in the monsoon.

Question 7.
Winter monsoons do not cause rainfall as they move from land to the sea. Why?
Answer:
It is because of two reasons: Firstly, they have little humidity; and Secondly, due to anti cyclonic circulation on land, the possibility of rainfall from them reduces.

Question 8.
What is the direction of winds in Kerala during retreating monsoon?
Answer:
The direction of winds in Kerala during retreating monsoon is from north to east and from east to west.

Question 9.
What is the difference between loo and chilled wave?
Answer:
Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in the Northern plains from Punjab to Bihar with higher intensity between Delhi and Patna are called loo. When temperature falls too much in northern plains, then winds blowing in these regions are called chilled wave.

Question 10.
Which formula is used to measure variability in rainfall?
Answer:
imageee

Question 11.
Where is polar climate found in India?
Answer:
In India polar climate is found in upper portion of Himalayas which is located 4000 metre above sea level.

Question 12.
Name the most comfortable places of India during winter season.
Answer:
Coastal areas and South India are most comfortable places during winter season.

Question13.
Name most humid regions of India.
Answer:
The most humid regions of India are south east India and Western Ghats.

Question 14.
What is mango shower?
Answer:
Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers which are a common phenomena in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. They are known as mango showers, locally since they help in the early ripening of mangoes.

Question 15.
What are western cyclones?
Answer:
The western cyclonic disturbances enter the Indian subcontinent from the west and the north-west during the winter months. It originate over the Mediterranean Sea and are brought into India bv the westerly jet stream.

Question 16.
What is meant by bursting of monsoon?
Answer:
The sudden onset of the moisture-laden winds associated with violent thunder and lightning is often termed as the ‘break’ or ‘burst” of the monsoon.

Question 17.
Why do the Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during south-west monsoon?
Answer:

• The Tamil Nadu coast is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of southwest monsoon.
• It lies in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the south-west monsoon.

Question 18.
What is meant by October-heat’?
Answer:
The retreating south-west monsoon season is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the condition of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive and this is known as the October-heat.

Question 19.
Where do tropical cyclones originate? Which states do they hit the most?
Answer:
Tropical cyclones originate over the Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean. These tropical cyclones have very high wind velocity and heavy rainfall and hit the Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Orissa coast. Most of these cyclones are very destructive due to high wind velocity and torrential rain that accompanies it.

Question 20.
Name the areas receiving rainfall from South-east monsoon.
Answer:
Only coastal areas of Tamil Nadu receive rainfall from South-east monsoon.

Question 21.
What are important features of Kalbaisakhi.
Answer:
These are dreaded evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam. Their notorious nature can be understood from the local nomenclature of ‘Kalbaisakhi’. It is a calamity of the month of Baisakh.

Question 22.
What is El-Nino?
Answer:
EI-Nino is a complex weather system that appears once every three to seven years, bringing drought, floods and other weather extremes to different parts of the world.

Question23.
Give the climatic classification given by Koeppen.
Answer:
Koeppen recognised five major climatic groups, four of them are based on temperature and one on precipitation.

• Tropical climates,
• Dry climates,
• Warm temperate climates,
• Cool temperate climates,
• Ice climates

Question 24.
Which two branches in the Bay of Bengal branch split into?
Answer:

• The Western Branch.
• The North-east Branch.

Question 25.
What is the nature of rainfall received from the Western Branch?
Answer:
The amount of rainfall decreases from east to west.

Question 26.
What type of rainfall does the North-east Branch cause?
Answer:
Heavy rainfall.

Question 27.
Where does the heaviest rainfall of the World occur?
Answer:
At Mawsynram, 1080 cm.

Question 28.
What are the basic features of the Monsoon?
Answer:
Irregularity, uncertainty, unevenness and unreliability.

Question 29.
In which months does the Monsoon retreat?
Answer:
From mid-September to November.

Question 30.
When does the Monsoon leave the Northern Plains?
Answer:
In October.

Question 31.
Where does the low pressure area develop during November?
Answer:
On the Bay of Bengal.

Question 32.
Where do the cyclones cause rainfall in November?
Answer:
On the Eastern coasts of the Peninsular India.

Question 33.
Mention the two heaviest rainfall areas of the country.
Answer:

• The windward slopes of the Western Ghats.
• The Meghalayas Plateau.

Question 34.
Which three regions receive less amounts of rainfall in India?
Answer:

• Western Rajasthan.
• Interior parts of the Peninsular Plateau.
• Ladakh Region.

Question 35.
Which regions of India experience snowfall regularly?
Answer:
The Himalayan lofty mountain ranges.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the characteristics of monsoonal rainfall in India.
Answer:

• Rainfall received from the south-west monsoons is seasonal is character, which occurs between June and September.
• The monsoon rainfall has a declining trend with increasing distance from the sea. Kolkata receives 119 cm during the south-west monsoon period, Patna 105 cm, Allahabad 76 cm and Delhi 56 cm.
• The summer rainfall comes in a heavy downpour leading to considerable runoff and soil erosion.
• Monsoon play a pivotal role in the agrarian economy of India because over three-fourth of the total rain in the country is received during the south-west monsoon season.
• Its spatial distribution is also uneven which ranges from 12 cm to more than 250 cm.
• The beginning of the rains sometimes is considerably delayed over the whole or a part of the country.

Question 2.
What is meant by break in the monsoon? Give features of hot weather season.
Answer:
During the south-west monsoon period after having rains for a few days, if rain fails to occur for one or more weeks, it is known as break in the monsoon.
Features of hot weather season are:

• With the apparent-northward movement of the sun towards the tropic of cancer in March, temperature starts rising in north India.
• April, May and June are the months of summer in North India.
• The hot weather season in south India is mild and not so intense as found in North India.
• Because of the heating of the subcontinent, the ITCZ moves northwards occupying a position centered at 25°N in July.
• Roughly, this elongated low pressure monsoon trough extends over the Thar Desert in the north-west to Patna and Chota Nagpur Plateau in the east-south east.
• In the heart of ITCZ in the northwest, the dry and hot winds known as ‘loo’ blow in the afternoon and very often, they continue to well into midnight.
• Dust storms in the evening are very common during May in Punjab, Haryana, eastern Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 3.
What are features of El-Nino?
Answer:
EI-Nino is a complex weather system that appears once every three to seven years, bringing drought, floods and other weather extremes to different parts of the world.
Features:

• The system involves oceanic and atmospheric phenomena with the appearance of warm currents off the coast of Peru in the Eastern Pacific and affects weather in many places including India.
• EI-Nino is merely an extension of the warm equatorial current which gets replaced temporarily by cold Peruvian current or Humbolt current.
• This current increases the temperature of water on the Peruvian coast by 10°C. id) This results in:
  • The distortion of equatorial atmospheric circulation;
  • Irregularities in the evaporation of sea water;
  • Reduction in the amount of planktons which further reduces the number of fish in the sea.

Question 4.
Why India gets a monsoon named as south-west monsoon?
Answer:

• The low pressure conditions by early June are powerful enough to attract the trade winds of Southern Hemisphere coming from the Indian Ocean.
• These South-east trade winds cross the Equator and enter the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian sea, only to be caught up in the air circulation over India.
• Passing over the equatorial warm currents they bring with them moisture in abundance.
• After crossing the equator, they follow south westerly directions and they are known as south-west monsoon.

Question 5.
Enumerate the factors that influence the climate of the Subcontinent of India.
Answer:

• Relief
• Latitude
• Altitude
• Pressure and wind systems: This in turn depends on:
  • Trade winds.
  • Western disturbances.
  • Jet stream,
• Distance from the sea
• Ocean currents.

Question 6.
Differentiate between South-west monsoon and Retreating monsoon.
Answer:

Question 7.
Differentiate between the South-West Monsoon and Retreating Monsoon.
Answer:
The differences between the South-West Monsoon and Retreating Monsoon:

Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the important features of Winter Season of India.
Answer:
By October, the rainy season comes to an end all over the country and the days become short and the night become long. The rays of the sun are not overhead. The air turns cooler in the plains marking the coming of the winter season.

The winter season lasts from November to February every year. In the Northern Plains, very cold wind blow making the winter months severe. December and January are the coldest months in the northern plain. The mean daily temperature remains below 21°C over most parts of the northern India.

Most of the hilly areas receive heavy snowfall. January is the coldest month in the Northern Plains. The winter season in Peninsular India is mild as a result of the influence of the surrounding water bodies. The coromandel Coast receives heavy rainfall during this season.

The desert is cool during the day but cold at night. The air starts warming up in the month of March, and the weather is neither cold nor hot. This time of early summer is also called the spring season. Every part of our country regularly experiences this cycle of seasons.

Question 2.
According to Koeppen, in how many groups- can you classify the climate of India?
Answer:
Koeppen identified a close relationship between the distribution of vegetation and climate. He selected certain values of temperature and precipitation and related them to the distribution of vegetation and used these values for classifying the climates. Koeppen introduced the use of capital and small letters to designate climatic groups and types. Koeppen recognised five major climatic groups, four of them are based on temperature and one on precipitation.

• Tropical climates,
• Dry climates,
• Warm temperate climates,
• Cool temperate climates,
• Ice climates

Classification of Indian climatic regions: Amw – Monsoon with short dry season.
Areas: West coast of India south of Goa
As – Monsoon with dry summer
Areas: Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu
Aw – Tropical savannah.
Areas: Most of the Peninsular plateaus, south of the Tropic of Cancer
Bwhw – Semi-arid steppe climate.
Areas: North-western Gujarat, some parts of western Rajasthan and Punjab
Bwhw – Hot desert. Areas: Extreme western Rajasthan
Cwg – Monsoon with dry winter.
Areas: Ganga plain, eastern Rajasthan, northern Madhya Pradesh, most of North-east India
Dfc – Cold humid winter with short summer.
Areas: Arunachal Pradesh
E – Polar type. Areas: Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand.

Question 3.
Explain the spatial variation in the rainfall throughout the country.
Answer:
There is great variation in rainfall throughout the country.

• While Cherrapunji and Mawsynram in the Khasi Hills of Meghalaya receive rainfall over 1,080 cm in a year, Jaisalmer in Rajasthan rarely gets more than 9 cm of rainfall during the same period.
• Tura situated in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya may receive an amount of rainfall in a single day which is equal to 10 years of rainfall at Jaisalmer. While the annual precipitation is less than 10 cm in the north-west Himalayas and the western deserts, it exceeds 400 cm in Meghalaya.
• The highest rainfall occurs along the west coast, on the western Ghats as well as in the sub-Himalayan areas in the north-west and the hills of Meghalaya, rainfall exceeding 200 cm. In some parts of Khasi and Jaintia hills, the rainfall exceeds 1,000 cm. In the Brahmaputra valley and the adjoining hills, the rainfall is less than 200 cm.
• Rainfall between 100-200 cm is received in southern parts of Gujarat, east Tamil Nadu, North-eastern Peninsular covering Orissa, Jharkhand, Bihar, eastern Madhya Pradesh, Northern Ganga Plain along the sub-Himalayas and the Cachar valley and Manipur.
• Western Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Haryana, Punjab, Jammu and Kashmir, eastern Rajasthan, Gujarat and Deccan Plateau receive rainfall between 50-100 cm.

Question 4.
Explain the spatial variation in temperature in India.
Answer:
India has hot monsoonal climate which is the prevalent climate in south and south-east Asia.

• While in the summer the mercury occasionally touches 55°C in the western Rajasthan, it drops down to as low as minus 45°C in winter around Leh.
• Churu in Rajasthan may record a temperature of 50°C or more on a June day while the mercury hardly touches 19°C in Tawang (Arunachal Pradesh) on the same day.
• On a December night, temperature in Drass (Jammu and Kashmir) may drop down to minus 45°C while Thiruvananthapuram or Chennai on the same night records 20°C or 22°C.
• In Kerala and in the Andaman Islands, the difference between day and night temperatures may be hardly seven or eight degree Celsius. But in the Thar desert, if the day temperature is around 50°C, at night, it may drop down considerably upto 15°-20°C.
• While snowfall occurs in the Himalayas, it only rains over the rest of the country. Similarly, variations are noticeable not only in the type of precipitation but also in its amount.

Question 5.
How economic life in India is affected by monsoon?
Answer:
Economic life of India is extremely affected by the monsoon.

• Monsoon is that axis around which revolves the entire agricultural cycle of India. Around 64 % people of India depend on agriculture for their livelihood and agriculture itself is based on south-west monsoon.
• Except Himalayas all the parts of the country have temperature above the threshold level to grow the crops or plants throughout the year.
• Regional variations in monsoon climate help in growing various types of crops.
• Variability of rainfall brings droughts or floods every year in some parts of the country.
• Agricultural property of India depends very much on timely and adequately distributed rainfall. If it fails, agriculture is adversely affected particularly in those regions where means of irrigation are not developed.
• Sudden monsoon burst creates problems of soil erosion over large areas in India.
• Winter rainfall by temperate cyclones in north India is highly beneficial for Rabi crops.
• Regional climatic variation in India is reflected in the vast variety of food, clothes and house types.

Question 6.
What is Global Warming? What are the effects of Global Warming?
Answer:
Due to global warming the polar ice caps and mountain glaciers would melt and the amount of water in the ocean would increase. It leads to rise in the sea level and melting of glaciers and sea-ice due to warming.

Effects:

• Sea level will rise 48 cm by the end of twenty first century.
• Increase the incidence of annual flooding.
• Insect-borne diseases like malaria, and leads to shift in climatic boundaries, making some regions wetter and other dries.
• Agricultural pattern would shift and human population as well as the ecosystem would experience change.
• The peninsular India would be submerged.
• Global warming refers to the increase in average ground temperatures refers to the increase in average ground temperatures on earth. These higher temperatures across the planet are caused by an intensification of the greenhouse effect.

Question 7.
What is Break in Monsoon? What are its causes? When is the monsoon expected to break in Kerala and reach the plains of Punjab?
Answer:
During the south-west monsoon period after having rains for a few days, if rain fails to occur for one or more weeks, it is known as break in the monsoon. These dry spells are quite common during the rainy season. These breaks in the different regions are due to different reasons:

• In northern India rains are likely to fail if the rain-bearing storms are not very frequent along the monsoon trough or the ITCZ over this region.
• Over the west coast the dry spells are associated with days when winds blow parallel to the coast.

Breaking of Monsoon:

• Breaking of the Monsoon in Kerala: Beginning of June.
• Reaching Punjab: First week of July.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Hots Questions

Question 1.
Give reasons for the following:

1. North west India gets rainfall even in winter season.
2. In Tamil Nadu, more rainfall takes place in winter season as compared to summer season.
3. Very less rainfall occurs in Rajasthan.
4. In winter season there is high atmospheric pressure in North west part of India.
5. In North west monsoon the winds of Gangetic plains flow from west to east.
6. Highest rainfall occurs in Mawsynram and Cherrapunji.
7. Temperature range of Delhi is more than Mumbai.
8. Temperature falls in winter season in north India.

Answer:
1. In northwestern India, some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean sea cause rainfall in Punjab, Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar Pradesh. Although the amount is meagre, it is highly beneficial for rabi crops. The precipitation is in the form of snowfall in the lower Himalayas. It is this snow that sustains the flow of water in the Himalayan rivers during the summer months. The precipitation goes on decreasing from west to east in the plains and from north to south in the mountains.

2. The coasts of Tamil Nadu or Chennai coasts have more than 5 cm of rainfall in winter. It is because the North-east monsoon winds passing over the Bay of Bengal get moisture and when they reach the Tamil Nadu coasts they cause rainfall here.

3. Moving along the Narmada and Tapi river valleys, monsoon winds along the Arabian Sea cause rainfall in extensive areas of central India. The Chota Nagpur plateau gets 15 cm rainfall from this part of the branch. Thereafter, they enter the Ganga plains and mingle with the Bay of Bengal branch. When this monsoon wind strikes the Saurashtra Peninsula and the Kachchh. It then passes over west Rajasthan and along the Aravalis, causing only a scanty rainfall because these winds are no wetter.

4. In south India, the air pressure is slightly lower. The isobars of 1019 mb and 1013 mb pass through north-west India and far south, respectively. As a result, winds start blowing from north-western high pressure zone to the low air pressure zone over the Indian Ocean in the south. Due to low pressure gradient, the light winds with a low velocity of about 3-5 km per hour begin to blow outwards. By and large, the topography of the region influences the wind direction.

5. By and large, the topography of the region influences the wind direction. They are westerly or north-westerly down the Ganga Valley. They become northerly in the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta. Free from the influence of topography, they are clearly north-easterly over the Bay of Bengal. During the winters, the weather in India is pleasant. The pleasant weather conditions, however, at intervals, get disturbed by shallow cyclonic depressions originating over the east Mediterranean Sea and travelling eastwards across West Asia, Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan before they reach the north-western parts of India. On their way, the moisture content gets augmented from the Caspian Sea in the north and the Persian Gulf in the south.

6. It is covered with three hills Garo, Khasi and Jantia. Being covered from hills from three sides, due to which winds once enter can’t leave this region. They strike with mountains and cause rainfall. Therefore, Mawsynram and Cherrapunji have highest rainfall.

7. Range of temperature is low in areas which are near to sea and high in areas which are far off from the sea. Delhi is far off from the sea and Mumbai is near to sea. Therefore, temperature range of Delhi is more than Mumbai.

8. There are three main reasons for the excessive cold in north India during this season :

• States like Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan being far away from the moderating influence of sea experience continental climate.
• The snowfall in the nearby Himalayan ranges creates cold wave situation;
• Around February, the cold winds coming from the Caspian Sea and Turkmenistan bring cold wave along with frost and fog over the north-western parts of India.

Question 2.
Explain the meaning of advancing monsoon and retreating of monsoon.
Answer:
The season when rainy season begins in India, it is called advancing monsoon. It starts from Bay of Bengal and Arabian sea. The season of retreating monsoon is the period of Transition. During the period of transition low pressure of the north-west shifts to the Bay of Bengal. It results in the formation of cyclones over the Bay of Bengal. These cyclones cause havoc on the coasts of Orissa and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 3.
Which areas have more than 50 cm and less than 5 cm of rainfall in July? Why is it so?
Answer:
Most areas of the country have more than 50 cm of rainfall in July. The western Rajasthan (Thar Desert) and the North-eastern Ladakh experience less than 5 cm. of rainfall in July. Due to parallel situated of Aravalis, lack of vegetation, high temperatures and non-condensation of moisture in western Rajasthan rainfall is very scanty. The Zaskar range does not allow the monsoon winds to reach North-eastern Ladakh. Hence it also receives very scanty rainfall during July.

Question 4.
How have the easterlies assumed the name ‘Trade’?
Answer: The word ‘Trade’ has been derived from the German world ‘Track’. Track means the path on which winds blow in the same direction throughout the year and on the same course. The easterlies characterise these qualities. Hence, they have assumed the name ‘trade’.

Question 5.
Why does Shillong receive more rainfall than Calcutta (Kolkata)? Give two reasons.
Answer:
Shillong is situated on the Meghalaya Plateau which receives the highest rainfall in the country.

• Shillong is situated on lofty mountains, funnel shaped. Here condensation is intense causing heavy rainfall.
• Kolkata is located on the Ganga- Brahmaputra Delta. There is no mountain range obstructing the South west monsoon. Hence, it receives less rainfall.

Question 6.
What is annual range of temperature? Explain it by giving one example.
Answer:
The difference between the maximum average temperature and minimum average temperature of a place over twelve months is known as annual range of temperature.
Example:
The maximum average temperature at Jodhpur is 33.9°C and minimum, average temperature is 14.9°C. Hence the annual range of temperature at Jodhpur is 19°C (33.9°C – 14.9°C).

Question 7.
What is extreme climate? Name two places of extreme climate in India.
Answer:
Extreme Climate:
The climate which has high annual range of temperature and great variation in the amount of rainfall over the year is known as extreme climate. It is also called continental or interior climate as it is found in the interior parts of the continents.
For examples, Jodhpur, Delhi and Kanpur.

Question 8.
Why does rainfall on the Western Ghats decrease from south to north?
Answer:
Rainfall on the Western Ghats decreases from south to north because the height of the Western Ghats in the south is maximum and it goes on decreasing northwards allowing progressively less condensation. It results in the decrease of rainfall from south to north. More over the period of onset and withdrawal of monsoon in south is more than that in the north. It results in more rainfall in southern parts than in the northern parts of the Western Ghats.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 4 Value Based Questions

Question 1.
“Monsoon is a gambling for Indian farmers.” Explain
Answer:
Agricultural property of India depends very much on timely and adequately distributed rainfall. If it fails, agriculture is adversely affected particularly in those regions where means of irrigation are not developed. Monsoon is that axis around which revolves the entire agricultural cycle of India. Around 64% people of India depend on agriculture for their livelihood and agriculture itself is based on south-west monsoon. Except Himalayas all the parts of the country have temperature above the threshold level to grow the crops or plants throughout the year. Regional variations in monsoon climate help in growing various types of crops. Variability of rainfall brings droughts or floods every year in some parts of the country.

Question 2.
“In spite of abundant rainfall, India is a water thirsty land”. Why is it so?
Answer:
India is a water thirsty land in spite of abundant rainfall. This is because of the following factors:

• Occurrence of rainfall in a few months (from June to September).
• Rapid run off and the quick evaporation of rainwater.
• Long breaks and delays in the Monsoons.

Map Skills

Question 1.
Locate on an outline map of India, Eastern jet stream.
Answer:

Question 2.
Locate on an outline map of India, normal dates of onset of southwest monsoon in different states of India.
Answer:

Question 3.
Locate on an outline map of India, isotherms in India in January and July.
Answer:


Question 4.
Locate on an outline map of India, Isobars and direction of winds in India in January and July.
Answer:

Question 5.
Locate on an outline map of India, annual rainfall in different states of India.
Answer:

Question 6.
Locate on an outline map of India, Seasonal rainfall (June-September) in different states of India
Answer:

Question 7.
Locate on an outline map of India, different climatic regions of India as per Koeppen’s classification.
Answer:

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 4 Climate appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 3 Population Composition

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.(i)
Which one of the following has caused the sex ratio of the United Arab Emirates to be low?
(a) Selective migration of male working population
(b) High birth rate of males
(c) Low birth rate of females
(d) High out migration of females
Answer:
(a) Selective migration of male working population

Question 1(ii)
Which one of the following figures represents the working age group of the population? (in years)
(a) 15-65 years
(b) 15-54 years
(c) 15-66 years
(d) 15-59 years
Answer:
(d) 15-59 years

Question 1(iii)
Which one of the following countries has the highest sex ratio in the world?
(a) Latvia
(b) United Arab Emirates
(c) Japan
(d) France
Answer:
(a) Latvia

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
What do you understand by population composition?
Answer:
People of any country are diverse in many respects. Each person is unique in his own way. People can be distinguished by their age, sex and their place of residence. The entire gamut of people residing in a particular place along with their growth, distribution and variety may be termed as its population composition.

Question 2.(ii)
What is the significance of age-structure?
Answer:
Age structure represents the number of people of different age groups. This is an important indicator of population composition, since a large size of population in the age group of 15-59 indicates a large working population. A greater proportion of population above 60 years represents an ageing population which requires more expenditure on health care facilities. Similarly high proportion of young population would mean that the region has a high birth rate and the population is youthful.

Question 2(iii)
How is sex ratio measured?
Answer:
Sex ratio in the world is calculated as number of males per thousand of females in a population.
Sex ratio = (No. of males)/(No. of females) × lOOO
In countries like India sex ratio is calculated as number of females per thousand of males.
Sex ratio = (No. of females)/ (No. of males) × 1000

3. Answer the following questions in not more than 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
Describe the rural-urban composition of the population.
Answer:
The division of population into rural and urban is based on the residence. This division is necessary because rural and urban life styles differ from each other in terms of livelihood and social conditions. The age-sex-occupational structure, density of population and level of development vary between rural and urban population is also dependent on the state of development of a countiy.

The more progressed a country is with respect to its development, more number of people are engaged in non-primary activities, thus leading to shift from rural areas to urban areas. Moreover, industrialization also makes headway into the rural countryside, constructing new towns in hitherto traditionally agrarian areas, and therefore the population that was originally rural, becomes urban now. The criterion for classifying settlement as rural or urban varies from country to country. In general terms in rural areas more people are engaged in primary activities whereas in urban areas majority of population is associated with secondary or tertiary sectors.

The sex composition of rural and urban settlements varies between developed and developing countries. In the developed countries like the Western European nation due to security and availability of jobs women move out to urban areas. Farming is mostly mechanized there hence men tend to stay in rural areas and look after farming activities. Whereas a completely contrary picture can be seen in developing countries like India where due to lack of security, housing, job opportunities females tend to stay back in rural areas and look after farming whereas male members move out to urban areas in search of working opportunities,

Question 3.(iii)
Discuss the factors responsible for imbalances in the sex-age found in different parts of the world and occupational structure.
Answer:
The factors responsible for imbalances in the sex-age found in different parts of the world with focus on occupational structure are as follows:

The working population (in the age group of 15-59) takes part in various occupations ranging from agriculture, forestry, fishing, manufacturing, construction, commercial transport, services, communication and other unclassified services, being employed in the four sectors of the economy.

That work force is a clear indicator of the level of development, particularly economic and social development. This is because only a developed economy with industries and infrastructure can accommodate more workers in the secondary, tertiary and quaternary sector. If the economy is still in the primitive stages, then the proportion of people engaged in primary activities would be high as it involves extraction of natural resources. Moreover, the age structure of a country also is an indicator of the level of development. A large working population shows the progress of a nation, and a large dependent population of children and retired citizens show a burden on the economy of the country, dragging its developmental processes down. A higher participation of women in the secondary, tertiary and quaternary sectors also is a strong indicator of the progress of a nation.

The sex composition of rural and urban settlements varies between developed and developing countries. In the developed countries like the Western European nation due to security and availability of jobs women move out to urban areas. Farming there is mostly mechanized hence men tend to stay in rural areas and look after farming activities. Whereas a completely contrary picture can be seen in developing countries like India where due to lack of security, housing, job opportunities, females tend to stay back in rural areas and look after farming whereas male members move out to urban areas in search of working opportunities.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the average sex ratio of the world?
Answer:
Average sex ratio of the world is 102 males per 100 females.

Question 2.
Define sex ratio.
Answer:
It is the ratio between the number of women and men in the population of a country.

Question 3.
Which regions have unfavorable sex ratio towards women?
Answer:
In region where gender discrimination is rampant and where practice of female foeticide, infanticide and domestic violence against women are prevalent have unfavorable sex ratio towards women.

Question 4.
Which country has the highest sex ratio in the world?
Answer:
Latvia with 85 males per 100 females has the highest sex ratio in the world.

Question 5.
Name the country with lowest sex ratio in the world.
Answer:
Qatar has the lowest sex ratio with 311 males per 100 females.

Question 6.
Why have many European countries have deficit males?
Answer:
Many European countries have deficit of males because of better status of females and male-dominanted out migration to different parts of the world.

Question 7.
Define age structure.
Answer:
Age structure represents number of people of different age groups.

Question 8.
What does age-sex pyramid defines?
Answer:
The age-sex structure of a population refers to the number of males and females in different age groups. Population
pyramid is used to show age-sex structure of the population.

Question 9.
What do you mean by ageing population?
Answer:
Population ageing is a process by which the -share of the older population becomes proportionately larger. In most of the developed countries it has increased due to increased life expectancy.

Question 10.
Divide population based on the place of residence.
Answer:
Based on the place of residence population is divided into rural and urban.

Question .
What does literacy rate denote for India?
Answer:
In India literacy rate denotes the percentage of population above 7 years of age, who is able to read, write and have the ability to do arithmetic calculation with understanding.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What does the literacy rate of a country indicate?
Answer:
Proportion of literate population of a country is an indicator of its socio¬economic development as it reveals the standard of living, social status of females, availability of educational facilities and policies of government. Level of economic development is both a cause and consequence of literacy.

Question 2.
Why is unfavorable female sex ratio found in India and other South Asian countries?
Answer:
In India and South Asian countries, female sex ratio is low due to:

• Widespread gender discrimination
• High mortality rate of female child during birth.
• Lower social-economic status of women.
• High female infant mortality due to negligence and lack of medical facilities.
• Preference to male child which results in high female foeticide and female infanticide.
• Domestic violence against women.

Question 3.
What do you mean by natural advantage and social disadvantage?
Answer:
Females have a biological advantage over males as they tend to be more resilient than males. This is called Natural Advantage. Social disadvantage is that women are not preferred as a child in the society and people have a preference for a male child. The natural advantage is cancelled by the social disadvantage and discrimination against women.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How does sex ratio give important information about status of women in a country?
Answer:
In regions where gender discrimination is rampant, the sex ratio is bound to be unfavorable to women. Such areas are those where the practice of female foeticide, female infanticide and domestic violence against women are prevalent. One of the reasons could be lower social-economic status of women in these areas. You must remember that more women in the population does not mean they have a better status. It could be that the men might have migrated to other areas for employment.

Question 2.
Describe the world pattern of sex ratio.
Answer:
On an average, the world population reflects a sex ratio of 102 males per 100 females. The highest sex ratio in the world has been recorded in Latvia where there are 85 males per 100 females. In contrast, in Qatar there are 311 males per 100 females. The world pattern of sex ratio does not exhibit variations in the developed regions of the world. The sex ratio is favorable for females in 139 countries of the world and unfavorable for them in the remaining 72 countries listed by the United Nations. In general, Asia has a low sex ratio. Countries like China, India, Saudi Arabia, Pakistan, Afghanistan have a lower sex ratio.
On the other extreme is greater part of Europe (including Russia) where males are in minority. A deficit of males in the populations of many European countries is attributed to better status of women, and an excessive male-dominated out-migration to different parts of the world in the past.

Question 3.
How is occupational structure a good indicator of levels of economic development of a nation?
Answer:
The working population (i.e. women and men of the age group – 15 to 59) take part in various occupations ranging from agriculture, forestry, fishing, manufacturing construction, commercial transport, services, communication and other unclassified services. Agriculture, forestry, fishing and mining are classified as primary activities manufacturing as secondary, transport, communication and other services as tertiary and the jobs related to research and developing ideas as quaternary activities.

The proportion of working population engaged in these four sectors is a good indicator of the levels of economic development of a nation. This is because only a developed economy with industries and infrastructure can accommodate more workers in the secondary, tertiary and quaternary sector. If the economy is still in the primitive stages, then the proportion of people engaged in primary activities world be high as it involves extraction of natural resources.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Data Based Questions

Question 1.
What does the figure given below denote? What does the shape reflect?

Answer:
The figure denotes the age-sex pyramid of Nigeria. It is a triangular shaped pyramid with a wide base and is typical of less developed countries, it depicts expanding population, with large population in the lower age group due to high birth rates. The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the population. The left side shows the percentage of males while the right side shows the percentage of women in each group.

Question 2.
What does the shape of the below pyramid suggests and where do you find?

Answer:
This population pyramid has a narrow base and tapered top, indicating low birth and death rates with higher percentage of people in middle age. This indicates declining population with zero or negative growth rate, generally found in the developed countries of the world.

Question 3.
Observe the given diagram and explain the rural urban composition in the developed and developing countries of the world.

Answer:
The above figure shows rural urban sex composition of selected countries. The rural and urban differences in sex ratio in Canada and West European countries like Finland are just the opposite of those in African and Asian countries like Zimbabwe and Nepal respectively. In Western countries, males outnumber females in rural areas and females outnumber the males in urban areas.

In countries like Nepal, Pakistan and India the case is reverse. The excess of females in urban areas of U.S.A., Canada and Europe is the result of influx of females from rural areas to avail of the vast job opportunities. Farming in these developed countries is also highly mechanized and remains largely a male occupation. By contrast the sex ratio in Asian urban areas remains male dominated due to the predominance of male migration. It is also worth noting that in countries like India, female participation in farming activity in rural area is fairly high. Shortage of housing, high cost of living, paucity of job opportunities and lack of security in cities, discourage women to migrate from rural to urban areas.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 3 Important Questions

Very Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What was the percentage of urban population in the world in 2011? (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
45 per cent

Question 2.
Which country has the lowest sex ratio in the world? (CBSE 2011)
Answer:
Qatar—311 males/600 females.

Question 3.
How is sex ratio calculated in different countries of the world? (CBSE 2013)
Answer:
In some countries sex ratio is calculated by using the formula—

Question 4.
Name the country where sex ratio is most unfavourable to women in the world. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
Qatar, 311 males/100 females.

Question 5.
Why is the age structure considered an important indicator of population composition? Give one reason. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:

• Age structure represents the number of people of different age groups.
• It helps in planning process and estimates future population.

Question 6.
Why is sex ratio in some European countries recorded favourable to females? Give one reason. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:

• In some European countries, women have better socio-economic status.
• An excessively male-dominated out migration to different parts of the world in the past.

Question 7.
“In some countries of the world the sex ratio is unfavourable to women.” Give one reason. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
Because these areas practice female foeticide and domestic violence against women are prevalent and also low socio-economic status of women.

Question 8.
Which age group forms the working population? (A.1.2016)
Answer:
The age group from 15-59 years forms the working population.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
“The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the population.” Support the statement with examples. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the population. The left side shows the percentage of males while the right shows the percentage of women is each age group. There are different types of population pyramids:

• Expanding population:
  Nigeria, Bangladesh, Mexico, India and other developing and under developed countries of the world is having the characteristics of expanding population which have triangular shaped pyramid with a wide base. These have larger population in lower age groups due to high birth rate.
• Constant population:
  The developed countries like Australia, has age-sex pyramid of bell shaped and tapered towards the top. It shows birth and death rates are almost equal leading to a near constant population.
• Declining population:
  The developed countries having low birth and death rates come under this category which shows the pyramid of narrow base and a tapered top. The population growth in developed countries is usually zero or negative. Example; Japan, Britain, France, etc.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is meaning of Age Structure of population? Describe in brief four main characteristics of age structure of the world population. (CBSE2006, 14)
Answer:
Age structure represents the number of people of different age groups. This is an important indicator of population composition.
Following are the four characteristics of age structure of age composition of the world population:

• Population composition: The age group 0-15 is called young population, 15-59 age group of working population and above 60 years represents an ageing population which require more expenditure on health care facilities.
• Age-Sex Pyramid: The age-sex structure of the population refers to the number of females and males in different age- groups. ’
• Expanding population: Nigeria, Bangladesh, Mexico, India and other developing and under developed countries of the world is having the characteristics of expanding population which have triangular shaped pyramid with a wide box. These have larger population in lower age groups due to high birth rate.
• Constant population: The developed countries like Australia, has age-sex pyramid of bell shaped and tapered towards the top. It shows birth and death rates are almost equal leading to a near constant population.
• Declining population: The developed countries having low birth and death rates come under this category which shows the pyramid of narrow base and a tapered top. The population growth in developed countries is usually zero or negative. Example; Japan, Britain, France, etc.

Question 2.
Describe the main characteristics each of the major groups of human occupations in the world. (CBSE 2006, 2007, 2011)
Answer:
The working population of a country (between age group 15-59 years), who take part in various occupations ranging from agriculture, forestry, fishing, manufacturing, commercial activities, transport services etc. is called occupational structure. Four major group of occupations are:

• Primary occupation: Depends fully on nature. Example; agriculture, forestry, fishing, and mining etc.
• Secondary occupation: People engaged in manufacturing. Example; industries.
• Service sectors: Transport and communication. Example; trade and commerce, teaching etc.
• Quaternary occupation: Job related to research and developing ideas etc. Example; computing, consultancy, etc. The proportion of working population engaged in these four sectors is a poor indicator of the levels of economic development of a nation.

Question 3.
What is the impact of rural-urban migration on the age and sex structure on the place of origin and destination? (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Migration leads to redistribution of population within a country. Rural-urban migration is one of the important factors contributing to the population growth of cities. Age and skill selective out migration from rural areas have adverse effect on rural demographic structure. High out migration results in serious imbalance in age-sex composition. Male population within the working age group migrate out of rural areas leaving females, children and old aged people, which increases the share of dependent population in rural areas.

The situation is especially difficult for females because they have to look after both domestic and economic work in the villages, leading to higher participation of women in agriculture without decrease in their household workload. Also it leads to loss of human resource from the rural areas, leaving them with unskilled people thus reducing the total productivity and hence hampering the development of rural areas.
Urban areas receive heavy in migration of working age male population, causing sex ratio to be highly unfavourable for females, which gives rise to crimes against women and increases their vulnerability.

Question 4.
What is meaning of age structure of population? Describe in brief four main characteristics of age structure of the world population. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Age structure represents the number of people of different age groups. This is an important indicator of population composition.
Following are the four characteristics of age structure of age composition of the world population:

• Population composition: The age group 0-15 is called young population, 15-59 age group of working population and above 60 years represents an ageing population which require more expenditure on health care facilities.
• Age-Sex Fyramid: The age-sex structure of the population refers to the number of females and males in different age- groups.
• Expanding population: Nigeria, Bangladesh, Mexico, India and other developing and under developed countries of the world is having the characteristics of expanding population which have triangular shaped pyramid with a wide box. These have larger population in lower age groups due to high birth rate.
• Constant population: The developed countries like Australia, has age-sex pyramid of bell shaped and tapered towards the top. It shows birth and death rates are almost equal leading to a near constant population.
• Declining population: The developed countries having low birth and death rates come under this category which showsthe pyramid of narrow base and a tapered top. The population growth in developed countries is usually zero or negative. Example; Japan, Britain, France, etc.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 3 Population Composition appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Hindi B 2016 Outside Delhi Term 2

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Hindi B 2016 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set-I

खण्ड ‘क’

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए [2 × 6 = 12]
महात्माओं और विद्वानों का सबसे बड़ा लक्षण है-आवाज को ध्यान से सुनना। यह आवाज कुछ भी हो सकती है। कौओं की कर्कश आवाज से लेकर नदियों की छलछल तक। मार्टिन लूथर किंग के भाषण से लेकर किसी पागल के बड़बड़ाने तक। अमूमन ऐसा होता नहीं। सच यह है कि हम सुनना चाहते ही नहीं। बस बोलना चाहते हैं। हमें लगता है कि इससे लोग हमें बेहतर तरीके से समझेंगे। हालांकि ऐसा होता नहीं। हमें पता ही नहीं चलता और अधिक बोलने की कला हमें अनसुना करने की कला में पारंगत कर देती है। एक मनौवैज्ञानिक ने अपने अध्ययन में पाया कि जिन घरों के अभिभावक ज्यादा बोलते हैं, वहाँ बच्चों में सही-गलत से जुड़ा स्वाभाविक ज्ञान कम विकसित हो पाता है, क्योंकि ज्यादा बोलना बातों को विरोधाभासी तरीके से सामने रखता है और सामने वाला बस शब्दों के जाल में फंसकर रह जाता है। बात औपचारिक हो या अनौपचारिक, दोनों स्थितियों में हम दूसरे की न सुन, बस हावी होने की कोशिश करते हैं। खुद ज्यादा बोलने और दूसरों को अनसुना करने से जाहिर होता है कि हम अपने बारे में ज्यादा सोचते हैं और दूसरों के बारे में कम। ज्यादा बोलने वालों के दुश्मनों की भी संख्या ज्यादा होती है। अगर आप नए दुश्मन बनाना चाहते हैं, तो अपने दोस्तों से ज्यादा बोलें और अगर आप नए दोस्त बनाना चाहते हैं, तो दुश्मनों से कम बोलें । अमेरिका के सर्वाधिक चर्चित राष्ट्रपति रूजवेल्ट अपने माली तक के साथ कुछ समय बिताते और इस दौरान उनकी बातें ज्यादा सुनने की कोशिश करते। वह कहते थे कि लोगों को अनसुना करना अपनी लोकप्रियता के साथ खिलवाड़ करने जैसा है। इसका लाभ यह मिला कि ज्यादातर अमेरिकी नागरिक उनके सुख में सुखी होते, और दुख में दुखी।
(क) अनसुना करने की कला क्यों विकसित होती है?
(ख) अधिक बोलने वाले अभिभावकों का बच्चों पर क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है और क्यों?
(ग) अधिक बोलना किन बातों का सूचक है?
(घ) रूजवेल्ट की लोकप्रियता का क्या कारण बताया गया है?
(ङ) तर्कसम्मत टिप्पणी कीजिए-“हम सुनना चाहते ही नहीं।”
(च) अनुच्छेद का मूल भाव तीन-चार वाक्यों में लिखिए।
उत्तर:
(क) आज हम किसी को सुनना ही नहीं चाहते हैं और अपनी ही बोलना चाहते हैं। इसी अधिक बोलने की कला के कारण अनसुना करने की कला विकसित होती है।
(ख) अधिक बोलने वाले अभिभावकों के कारण बच्चों में सही गलत से जुड़ा स्वाभाविक ज्ञान कम विकसित होता है। ज्यादा बोलना बातों को विरोधाभासी तरीके से सामने रखता है और सामने वाला बस शब्दों के जाल में फंसकर रह जाता है।
(ग) अधिक बोलना इन बातों का सूचक है कि हम अपने बारे में ज्यादा सोचते हैं और दूसरों के बारे में हम सोचना ही नहीं चाहते।
(घ) रूजवेल्ट की लोकप्रियता इससे जाहिर होती है कि वे दूसरों की बातों को अधिक से अधिक सुनने का प्रयास करते थे और कम से कम बोलकर अपनी बात रखते थे। वे कहते थे लोगों को अनसुना करना अपनी लोकप्रियता से खिलवाड़ करना है।
(ङ) जब हम खुद ज्यादा बोलते हैं और दूसरों को बोलने का मौका ही नहीं देते हैं। इस बात से पता चलता है। कि हम दूसरों को सुनना ही नहीं चाहते, उन्हें कोई अहमियत नहीं देते। बस अपनी ही कहना चाहते हैं। उन्हें लगता है इस तरह से लोग उन्हें बेहतर तरीके से समझेंगे।
(च) हमें दूसरों की बातों को ध्यानपूर्वक सुनना चाहिए। इस तरह हम अपने लोगों के बीच लोकप्रिय होंगे। अच्छे दोस्त बनाएंगे । विद्वान व्यक्ति बोलते कम और सुनते अधिक है। और साथ ही, हमारा कोई दुश्मन नहीं होगा।

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए [2 × 4 = 8]
यादें होती हैं गहरी नदी में उठी मँवर की तरह नसों में उतरती कडवी दवा की तरह। या खुद के भीतर छिप बैठे साँप की तरह। जो औचक्के में देख लिया करता है। यादें होती हैं जानलेवा खुशबू की तरह प्राणों के स्थान पर बैठे जानी दुश्मन की तरह शरीर में पॅसे उस काँच की तरह जो कभी नहीं दिखता पर जब-तब अपनी सत्ता का भरपूर एहसास दिलाता रहता है। यादों पर कुछ भी कहना। खुद को कठघरे में खड़ा करना है। पर कहना जरूरत नहीं, मेरी मजबूरी है।
(क) यादों को गहरी नदी में उठी मँवर की तरह क्यों कहा गया है?
(ख) यादों को जानी दुश्मन की तरह मानने का क्या आशय है?
(ग) शरीर में पॅसे काँच से यादों का साम्य कैसे बिठाया जा सकता है?
(घ) आशय स्पष्ट कीजिए
“यादों पर कुछ भी कहना
खुद को कठघरे में खड़ा करना है।”
उत्तर:
(क) जिस प्रकार गहरी नदी में भंवर उठता है, तो सब कुछ उसमें समा जाता है। उसके अन्दर जो भी फंस जाता है, उसका बाहर निकलना असंभव हो जाता है। ऐसे ही यादों की नदी में भंवर उठता है, तो सब कुछ नष्ट हो जाता है। मनुष्य को दुःख के सिवाय कुछ भी हासिल नहीं होता। मनुष्य उसमें उलझकर रह जाता है और उससे बाहर आना उसके लिए असंभव, मुश्किल हो जाता है।
(ख) जब यादें मनुष्य के मन से बाहर आती हैं, तब मनुष्य को कुछ अच्छा नहीं लगता है। उन पुरानी यादों से भरे निराशा तथा दुःख के भाव उसे आ घेरते हैं, उससे दिमागी तनाव पैदा होता है, जो मनुष्य के दुश्मन की तरह उसे घेर लेता है और यादें हर वक्त पीड़ा पहुँचाती रहती हैं।
(ग) जैसे शरीर में धंसा काँच रह-रहकर दर्द देता है तथा घाव से खून निकलता रहता है, ऐसे ही यादें मनुष्य को तकलीफ देती हैं। वह चैन से नहीं रह पाता है। अतः
दोनों में एक ही तरह का साम्य दिखाया गया है।
(घ) इसका आशय है कि हम यादों को कुछ कहने लायक नहीं होते हैं। वह जैसी भी हैं हमारे अन्दर हैं, हमारी हैं। हम ही उन यादों में कहीं न कहीं शामिल हैं। अतः हम उन्हें भला-बुरा कहते हैं, तो इसका आशय है कि हम स्वयं के लिए कह रहे हैं। तब हम स्वयं को दोषी। मानने लगते हैं। हर व्यक्ति को इस प्रकार की घटनाओं से गुजरना पड़ता है।

खण्ड ‘ख’।

प्रश्न 3.
(i) शब्द क्या है ? उदाहरण देकर स्पष्ट कीजिए। [1 + 1 = 2]
(ii) शब्द वाक्य में प्रयुक्त होने पर क्या कहलाता है?
उत्तर:
(i) एक या अधिक वर्षों से बने हुए स्वतंत्र और सार्थक समूह को “शब्द” कहते हैं। उदाहरण-गंगा, कमल, किताब आदि।
(ii) जब तक शब्द का प्रयोग वाक्य में नहीं किया जाता है, वे शब्द कहलाते हैं, परन्तु जब उनका प्रयोग वाक्य में होता है तो वे “पद” बन जाते हैं। उदाहरण-गंगा भारत
की महत्त्वपूर्ण नदी है। यहाँ गंगा एक पद है।

प्रश्न 4.
निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए : [1 × 3 = 3]
(i) वह पुस्तक लेने बाजार गया। (मिश्र वाक्य में बदलकर लिखिए)
(ii) तुमने जो घड़ी खरीदी, वह अच्छी थी। (सरल वाक्य में बदलिए)
(iii) वह वाचनालय जाकर समाचार पत्र पढ़ने लगा। (संयुक्त वाक्य में बदलिए)
उत्तर:
(i) वह बाजार गया क्योंकि उसे पुस्तक लेनी।।
(ii) तुमने अच्छी घड़ी खरीदी।
(iii) वह वाचनालय गया और समाचार पत्र पढ़ने लगा।

प्रश्न 5.
(क) निम्नलिखित का विग्रह करके समास का नाम लिखिए : [1 + 1 = 2]
दहेज-प्रथा, महात्मा
(ख) निम्नलिखित का समस्त पद बनाकर समास का नाम लिखिए : [1 + 1 = 2]
नया जो युवक, ध्यान में मग्न
उत्तर:
(क) दहेज की प्रथा – तत्पुरुष समास
महान है आत्मा जिसकी – कर्मधारय समास
(ख) नवयुवक – कर्मधारय समास
ध्यान मग्न – तत्पुरुष समास

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को शुद्ध रूप में लिखिए :[1 × 4 = 4]
(क) हम यहाँ सकुशलतापूर्वक हैं।
(ख) आज लगभग कोई एक दर्जन छात्र नहीं आए हैं।
(ग) कृपया आज का अवकाश देने की कृपा करें।
(घ) मोहन ने घर गया और सो गया।
उत्तर:
(क) हम यहाँ कुशलपूर्वक हैं।
(ख) आज लगभग एक दर्जन छात्र नहीं आए हैं।
(ग) कृपया आज का अवकाश दे।
(घ) मोहन घर गया और सो गया।

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित मुहावरों का वाक्य में इस प्रकार प्रयोग कीजिए कि उनका अर्थ स्पष्ट हो जाए : [1 + 1 = 2]
नाकों चने चबाना, बाल-बाल बचना।
उत्तर:
नाकों चने चबाना-झाँसी की रानी ने अंग्रेजों को नाकों चने चबवा दिए ।
बाल-बाल बचना हमारी माताजी और मौसी जी सड़क दुर्घटना में बाल-बाल बच गईं।

खण्ड ‘ग’

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए : [2 + 2 + 1 = 2]
(क) ओचुमेलॉव की दो चारित्रिक विशेषताओं का अपने शब्दों में उल्लेख कीजिए |**
(ख) ‘अब कहाँ दूसरे के दुःख से दुःखी होने वाले पाठ के आधार पर लिखिए कि समुद्र के गुस्से का क्या कारण था? उसने अपना गुस्सा कैसे व्यक्त किया?
(ग) सआदत अली कौन था? कर्नल उसे अवध के तख्त पर क्यों बिठाना चाहता था?
उत्तर:
(ख) कई सालों से बिल्डर समुद्र को पीछे धकेल रहे थे और उसकी जमीन पर अधिकार करते चले जा रहे थे। समुद्र उत्तर सिमटता जा रहा था। उसने पहले टाँगें समेटी फिर ६ धीरे-धीरे उकडू होकर बैठा। उस स्थिति में भी लोगों ने उसे न रहने दिया तो फिर खड़ा हो गया बहुत छोटी जगह में सिमटने के कारण। इसके बावजूद धीरे-धीरे जगह और कम होती गई तो उसे गुस्सा आ गया। उसने तीन जहाज फेंक दिये। एक वर्ली में समुद्र के किनारे, दूसरा बांद्रा में कार्टर रोड के सामने और तीसरा गेट वे ऑफ इंडिया पर जो बाद में टूट-फूट गया।
(ग) सआदत अली वजीर अली का चाचा और नबावे आसिफउद्दौला का छोटा भाई था। सआदत अली अंग्रेजों का चमचा था। अंग्रेज जानते थे कि यदि अवध को अपने अधिकार में लेना है तो सआदत अली का तख्त पर बैठना आवश्यक है। वजीर अली के रहते अवध को अपने कब्जे में लेना संभव नहीं था। यही कारण था कि
वह सआदत अली को तख्त पर बैठाना चाहते थे।

प्रश्न 9.
‘झेन की देन’ पाठ में जापानी लोगों को मानसिक रोग होने के क्या-क्या कारण बताए गए हैं? आप इनसे कहाँ तक सहमत हैं ? तर्कसहित लिखिए। [2 + 2 + 1 = 2]
उत्तर:
लेखक के मित्र ने मानसिक रोग के कारण बताए हैं कि मनुष्य चलता नहीं दौड़ता है। बोलता नहीं, हर समय बक-बक करता है। एक महीने का काम एक-दो दिन में करना चाहता है, दिमाग हजार गुना अधिक गति से दौड़ाता है। अतः तनाव बढ़ जाता है। मानसिक रोगों का प्रमुख कारण प्रतिस्पर्धा के कारण दिमाग का अनियंत्रित गति से काम करना है। हम भी यह मानते हैं कि मानसिक रोग अत्यधिक तनाव के कारण होते हैं। मस्तिष्क पर अत्यधिक तनाव, अत्यधिक दुख या कष्ट मानसिक रोग उत्पन्न करते हैं। यह स्थिति मनुष्य को बीमार बना देती है। आज का मनुष्य संतोष भरा जीवन व्यतीत नहीं करता है। वह बस भागते रहना चाहता है। इस दौड़ में वह दूसरों से बहुत आगे निकल जाना चाहता है। हम इस कथन से बिल्कुल सहमत हैं कि यह स्थिति ही उसे मानसिक रोगी बना देती है।

प्रश्न 10.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए : [2 + 2 + 1 = 5]
संसार की रचना भले ही कैसे हुई हो, लेकिन धरती किसी एक की नहीं है। पंछी, मानव, पशु, नदी, पर्वत, समंदर आदि की इसमें बराबर की हिस्सेदारी है। यह और बात है कि इस हिस्सेदारी में मानव जाति ने अपनी बुद्धि से बड़ी-बड़ी दीवारें खड़ी कर दी हैं। पहले पूरा संसार एक परिवार के समान था अब टुकड़ों में बँटकर एक-दूसरे से दूर हो चुका है।
(क) ‘मानव जाति ने अपनी बुद्धि से बड़ी-बड़ी दीवारें खड़ी कर दीं-कथन का क्या आशय है?
(ख) परिवार के टुकड़ों में बँटकर एक दूसरे से दूर होने के क्या कारण हैं?
(ग) आशय समझाइए धरती किसी एक की नहीं है।
उत्तर:
(क) इसका अर्थ है कि मनुष्य ने पृथ्वी, उसके जीवों तथा स्वयं को बाँट दिया है। पहले यह संसार एक परिवार के समान था, अब वह टुकड़ो में बँट गया है।
(ख) परिवार टुकड़ों में बँट गया है, इस कारण एक-दूसरे से दूर होने के कारण आपसी मतभेद हो गए हैं। मनुष्य ने सभी को उनके रंग, रूप, आकार तथा स्वभाव के आध पर बाँट दिया है। जिसके कारण अब वे एक नहीं बल्कि अलग-अलग हो गये हैं। इसी बँटवारे की वजह से उनमें आपस में मतभेद उत्पन्न हो गए हैं।
(ग) इसका आशय है कि भगवान ने इस धरती को सबके उत्तर लिए बनाया है जिसमें हर प्राणी का समान अधिकार है। कोई एक व्यक्ति या समूह इस धरती को अपनी जागीर नहीं समझ सकता इसलिए अगर कोई एक इस पर अपना एकाधिकार दिखाने का प्रयास करे, तो उचित नहीं है। यह धरती सभी की है।

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए : [2 + 2 +1 = 5]
(क) बिहारी ने ईश्वर प्राप्ति में किन साधनों को साधक और किनको बाधक माना है?
(ख) महादेवी वर्मा अपने दीपक को किस प्रकार जलने के लिए कह रही है और क्यों?* *
(ग) ‘कर चले हम फिदा’ गीत की ऐतिहासिक पृष्ठभूमि क्या है?
उत्तर:
(क) बिहारी के अनुसार ईश्वर को तो केवल सच्ची भक्ति से ही पाया जा सकता है। हाथ में माला लेकर जपने तथा माथे पर चन्दन का तिलक लगाकर जप करने का दिखावा करने से वह किसी काम नहीं आता है। यह सब बाहरी आडम्बर है। इस तरह के आडम्बरों से ईश्वर को पाया नहीं जा सकता। ये साधन साधक के लिए बाधा के समान हैं।
(ग)  यह गीत सन् 1962 के भारत-चीन युद्ध की ऐतिहासिक पृष्ठभूमि पर लिखा गया है। चीन ने तिब्बत की ओर से आक्रमण किया और भारतीय वीरों ने इस आक्रमण का मुकाबला वीरता से किया था।

प्रश्न 12.
“आत्मत्राण’ कविता में कवि की प्रार्थना से क्या संदेश मिलता है? अपने शब्दों में लिखिए। [5]
उत्तर:
“आत्मत्राणकविता रवीन्द्रनाथ ठाकुर द्वारा लिखित कविता है। आत्मत्राण कविता में कवि मनुष्य को भगवान के प्रति विश्वास बनाए रखने का संदेश देता है। वह प्रभु से प्रार्थना करता है कि चाहे कितना कठिन समय हो या कितनी ही विपदाएँ जीवन में हों, परन्तु हमारी आस्था भगवान पर बनी रहनी चाहिए। इनके अनुसार जीवन में थोड़े से दुःख आते ही हैं और इस कारण से भगवान पर से विश्वास हट जाता है। कवि भगवान से प्रार्थना करता है कि ऐसे समय में आप मेरे मन में अपने प्रति विश्वास को बनाए रखना। उनके अनुसार भगवान पर विश्वास ही उन्हें सारी विपदाओं व कठिनाइयों से उबरने की शक्ति देता है। दूसरे वह भगवान मनुष्य को विषम उत्त परिस्थितियों में निडर होकर लड़ने के लिए प्रेरित करते हैं। उनके अनुसार भगवान में वे शक्तियाँ हैं कि वह असंभव को संभव बना सकते हैं। परन्तु कवि भगवान से प्रार्थना करते हैं। कि परिस्थितियाँ कैसी भी हों, वह उनसे स्वयं आमना-सामना करें। भगवान मात्र उसका सहयोग करें। इससे होगा यह कि वह स्वयं इतना मजबूत हो जाएगा कि हर परिस्थिति में कमजोर नहीं पड़ेगा और उसका डटकर सामना करेगा।

प्रश्न 13.
घर वालों के मना करने पर भी टोपी का लगाव इफ्फन के घर और उसकी दादी से क्यों था? दोनों के अनजान, अटूट रिश्ते के ‘ बारे में मानवीय मूल्यों की दृष्टि से अपने विचार लिखिए। [5]
उत्तर:
टोपी को इफ्फन से और इफ्फन की दादी से जो प्रेम था, वह अकथनीय था। उसे जितना प्रेम वहां मिला, उसे अपने घर में नहीं मिला। यही कारण है कि घरवालों के मना करने पर भी टोपी को लगाव इफ्फन के घर और उसकी दादी से था। इफ्फन की दादी ने तो जैसे उसके कोमल मन में गहरा स्थान पा लिया था। यह प्रेम ही जो था, जिसने न ६ र्मि को देखा, न उम्र को, बस हृदय को देखा और जीवन में आत्मसात हो गया। प्रेम ऐसा भाव है जिसमें व्यक्ति जाति-पांति, धर्म, ऊँच-नीच, बड़े-छोटे के सभी बंधनों को भूल जाता है। मानवीय मूल्यों में प्रेम सबसे सुंदर भाव है। प्रेम किसी जाति-पांति, ऊँच-नीच, बड़े-छोटे का गुलाम नहीं होता। हमारे बीच में प्रेम विभिन्न रूपों में विद्यमान हैऋ जैसे–माता-पिता का संतान से, भाई का भाई और बहन से, बहन का बहन और भाई से, चाचा-चाची, बुआ या मामा-मामी का अपने भतीजे-भतीजियों-भांजों से, गुरु का शिष्य से, बड़ों का छोटों से, एक मित्र का दूसरे मित्र से, मनुष्य का पशु-पक्षियों से, प्रिय का प्रियतमा से, पति का पत्नी से, दादा-दादी या नाना-नानी का अपने नाती-पोतों से, भक्त का भगवान से, भूखे इन्सान का रोटी से, पड़ोसी का पड़ोसी से रहता है। ये सभी रूप प्रेम के ही हैं। इसलिए कहा गया प्रेम न देखे जात-पात, न उमर का फासला”।

खण्ड “घ”

प्रश्न 14.
दिए गए संकेत बिंदुओं के आधार पर निम्नलिखित में से किसी एक विषय पर लगभग १०० शब्दों में अनुच्छेद लिखिए: [5]
(क) मित्रता

• मित्रता का महत्त्व
• अच्छे मित्र के लक्षण
• लाभ-हानि

(ख) दहेज प्रथा-एक अभिशाप |

• सामाजिक समस्या
• रोकथाम के उपाय
• युवकों का कर्तव्य

(ग) कम्प्यूटर

• उपयोगी वैज्ञानिक आविष्कार
• विविध क्षेत्रों में कंप्यूटर
• लाभ-हानि

उत्तर:
(क) मित्रता
मित्रता एक अनमोल धन है। यह एक ऐसी धरोहर है जिसका मूल्य लगा पाना संभव नहीं है। इस धन व ६ गरोहर के सहारे मनुष्य कठिन से कठिन समय से भी बाहर निकल आता है। भगवान के द्वारा मनुष्य को परिवार मिलता है और मित्र वह स्वयं बनाता है। जीवन के संघर्षपूर्ण मार्ग पर चलते हुए उसके साथ उसका मित्र कन्धे से कन्धा मिलाकर चलता है। हर व्यक्ति को मित्रता की आवश्यकता होती है। वह चाहे सुख के क्षण हों या दुःख के क्षण, मित्र उसके साथ रहता है। किसी विशेष गूढ़ बात पर मित्र ही उसे सही सलाह देकर उसका मार्गदर्शन करता है। मित्र ही उसका सही अर्थों में सच्चा शुभचिंतक, मार्गदर्शक, शुभ इच्छा रखने वाला होता है। सच्ची मित्रता में प्रेम व त्याग का भाव होता है। मित्र की भलाई दूसरे मित्र का कर्तव्य होता है। सच्चा मित्र वही होता है जो विपत्ति के समय अपने मित्र के साथ दृढ़ निश्चय होकर खड़ा रहता है। हमें चाहिए कि जब भी किसी को अपना मित्र बनाएं तो सोच विचार कर बनाएं क्योंकि जहाँ एक सच्चा मित्र आपका साथ दे, आपको ऊँचाई तक पहुँचा सकता है, कपटी मित्र अपने स्वार्थ के लिए आपको पतन के रास्ते पर भी पहुँचा सकता है। जो आपके मुंह पर आपका सगा बने और पीठ पीछे आपकी बुराई करे ऐसे मित्र को दूर से नमस्कार कहने में ही भलाई है।

(ख) दहेज प्रथा-एक अभिशाप दहेज प्रथा हिन्दू समाज की नवीनतम बुराईयों में से एक है। विगत बीस-पच्चीस वर्षों में यह बुराई इतनी बढ़कर सामने आई है कि इसका प्रभाव समाज की आर्थिक एवं नैतिक अवस्था की कमर तोड़ रहा है। इस प्रथा के पीछे लोभ की दुष्प्रवृत्ति है। दहेज प्रथा भारत के सभी क्षेत्रों और वर्गों में व्याप्त है। दहेज प्रथा को जीवित रखने वाले तो थोड़े से व्यक्ति हैं, परन्तु समाज पर इसका कुप्रभाव अत्यधिक पड़ रहा है। कितनी ही बार देखा जाता है। कि पिता को अपनी सुंदर लड़की की शादी धन के अभाव के कारण किसी भी बिना पढ़े-लिखे, अवगुणों से भरपूर लड़के के साथ करनी पड़ती है। कई बार सुनने में आता है कि दहेज प्रथा के कारण यो तो लड़की ने आत्महत्या कर ली या ससुराल में उसे प्रताड़ित करते हुए जलाकर अथवा किसी भी तरीके से मार दिया गया। दहेज प्रथा की बीमारी पढ़े-लिखे लोगों में अनपढ़ लोगों की अपेक्षा अधिक फैली हुई है। सरकार ने दहेज प्रथा के विरुद्ध कानून बना दिया है, लेकिन दहेज प्रथा के विरुद्ध प्रताड़ित होने के बावजूद कोई वकील और कचहरी के चक्कर लगाना नहीं चाहता। अतः कानून को और सख्त बनाना पड़ेगा।

लड़कियों को उच्च शिक्षा दिलवाना आवश्यक है ताकि वह स्वयं के अधिकारों के प्रति जागरूक हों। इस प्रथा को तो समाज का युवावर्ग ही तोड़ने में समर्थ हो सकता है। वह वर्तमान परम्पराओं को एक बार तिरस्कार कर दे, तो दहेज प्रथा धीरे-धीरे खत्म हो सकती है।
कम्प्यूटर कम्प्यूटर के आविष्कार से जीवन, आफिस, संचार एवं/ फोटो/डाटा के क्षेत्र में जो क्रांति आई है, वह आज तक के दूसरे आविष्कारों के मुकाबले बहुत तीव्र है। कम्प्यूटर के माध्यम से डिजाइनिंग व छपाई को एक नया आयाम मिला। कम्प्यूटर के आविष्कार के साथ कई नये कार्यक्षेत्रों का जन्म हुआ जिससे रोजगार के नये अवसर पैदा हुए। आज कम्प्यूटर हर क्षेत्र में अपना स्थान बना चुका है। रेलवे स्टेशन, हवाई अड्डा, सरकारी या गैर-सरकारी कार्यालय, बैंक, पत्र-पत्रिकाओं।

समाचार पत्रों का कार्यालय हो, कुछ ही क्षणों में हम कम्प्यूटर के माध्यम से अपने कार्यों को सफलतापूर्वक कर सकते हैं। अपने कार्यों को और अच्छी बनाने के लिए ई-मेल का सहारा लेते हैं। आज ई-मेल भी हर क्षेत्र की महत्वपूर्ण जरूरत के रूप में सामने आया है। इसी तरह से दुनिया के किसी शहर क्षेत्र की जानकारी, कोई महत्वपूर्ण सूचना या प्रसिद्ध व्यक्तियों के बारे में जानकारी हमें “गूगल” से मिल जाती है। कम्प्यूटर के लाभ हैं, तो इससे जुड़ी हानियाँ भी कम नहीं हैं। यदि कम्प्यूटर में वायरस आ जाए, तो समस्त जानकारियाँ, फाइल इत्यादि नष्ट हो जाती हैं। कुछ आपराधिक मानसिकता के लोगों द्वारा, तो कई बैंकों या देश की सुरक्षा संबंधी क्षेत्रों में कम्प्यूटर व इन्टरनेट के माध्यम से घुसपैठ की जाती है। साइबर क्राइम इसी से जुड़ा होता है जो अत्यधिक चिन्ता का विषय है। इसके अतिरिक्त कम्प्यूटर पर ज्यादा बैठने वाले लोगों को, सिर दर्द, पीठ दर्द, स्पोन्डोलाइटिस, आँखों संबंधी परेशानी जैसी कई बीमारियाँ हो जाती हैं।

प्रश्न 15.
आपके नाम से प्रेषित एक हजार रु. के मनीआर्डर की प्राप्ति न होने का शिकायत पत्र अधीक्षक पोस्ट आफिस को लिखिए। [5]
उत्तर:
47, अशोक नगर
बरेली
सेवा में,
अधीक्षक,
मुख्य डाकघर, बरेली
दिनांक : 25 मार्च, 20XX
विषय-मनीआर्डर की प्राप्ति नहीं होने पर कार्यवाही हेतु पत्र
महोदय,
मैं बरेली का रहने वाला हूँ। मेरे घर से मेरे पिताजी ने दिनांक 3 मार्च, 20XX को 1000 रुपये का मनीआर्डर (रसीद संख्या XXXX) किया था, परन्तु अभी तक यह मनीआर्डर मुझे प्राप्त नहीं हुआ है। इस विषय में मैंने अपने क्षेत्र के पोस्ट आफिस के स्टाफ से संपर्क किया। परन्तु उनका कहना है कि उनको इसकी कोई जानकारी नहीं है। हमारा परिवार बहुत गरीब है और पिताजी दिहाड़ी की मजदूरी मेहनत करके मुझे पैसे भेजते हैं। आपसे निवेदन है कि इस दिशा में कुछ ठोस कदम उठाएं और जल्द से जल्द मुझे मनीआर्डर वाले पैसे दिलवाएं।
मुझे पूर्ण विश्वास है कि आप मेरी इस समस्या पर ध्यान देते हुए, उचित कार्यवाही करेंगे। मैं सदैव आपका आभारी रहूँगा।
धन्यवाद सहित
भवदीय
अ.ब.स.
9873XXXXXX

प्रश्न 16.
विद्यालय में आयोजित होने वाली वाद-विवाद प्रतियोगिता के लिए एक सूचना लगभग 30 शब्दों में साहित्यिक क्लब के सचिव की ओर से विद्यालय सूचना पट के लिए लिखिए। [5]
उत्तर:
सूचना पट के लिए सूचना
नवोदय विद्यालय (स्थान और शहर)
सूचना
दिनांकः 20 जनवरी, 20XX
सूचना नम्बर XX
वाद-विवाद प्रतियोगिता की सूचना
इस विद्यालय के सभी छात्र-छात्राओं को सूचित किया जाता है कि दिनांक 5 फरवरी 20XX को विद्यालय के सेंट्रल हाल में वाद-विवाद प्रतियोगिता का आयोजन किया जा रहा है। विषय-नदियों का प्रदूषण
इस विषय के पक्ष और विपक्ष में वाद-विवाद प्रतियोगिता में भाग लेने के इच्छुक विद्यार्थी दिनांक 30 जनवरी, 20XX तक अपने नाम अपने कक्षा अध्यापक को दे दें। हस्ताक्षर
साहित्यिक क्लब/प्रधानाचार्य
नवोदय विद्यालय

प्रश्न 17.
खाद्य-पदार्थों में होने वाली मिलावट के बारे में मित्र के साथ हुए संवाद को लगभग 50 शब्दों में लिखिए। [5]
उत्तर:
खाद्य पदार्थों में होने वाली मिलावट के बारे में दो दोस्तों के बीच संवाद-
अनुराग – अरे समीर! तुम यहाँ?
समीर – मैं यहाँ इस स्टोर में कुछ सामान वापस करने आया हूँ।
अनुराग – मतलब! कोई खास चीज?
समीर – अरे यार! क्या बताऊँ? मैं यहाँ से दाल ले गया था, इसमें छोटे-छोटे कंकड़ और बिल्कुल सफेद रंग के पत्थरों की इतनी मिलावट है, क्या बताऊं। माँ और बहन कंकड़ पत्थर चुनते-चुनते परेशान हो गईं। आखिर में तंग आकर उन्होंने कहा कि दाल के पैकेट को वापस करके आओ।
अनुराग – तुम कहते तो सही हो समीर ।
समीर – अभी कुछ दिन पहले गोयल अंकल सरसों का तेल ले गए थे, और उससे बने खाने से घर के सभी सदस्य बीमार पड़ गये। उन्होंने तो तेल की शिकायत पुलिस व खाद्य विभाग दोनों में कर दी।
अनुराग – कल ही मैंने देखा कि बड़ी-बड़ी कंपनियों के सामान में भी मिलावट पाई गई है और त्योहार पर मिठाइयों में बहुत ज्यादा मिलावट कर दी जाती है। इससे लोगों के जीवन के साथ खिलवाड़ किया जा रहा है, जो बिल्कुल गलत है।
समीर – सरकार को इस विषय में सख्त कानून बनाकर मिलावट करने वाले व्यापारियों पर कार्यवाही करनी चाहिए।
अनुराग – बिल्कुल सही कहा।

प्रश्न 18.
अपने पुराने मकान के बेचने संबंधी विज्ञापन का आलेख लगभग 25 शब्दों में तैयार कीजिए। [5]
उत्तर:
[बिकाऊ है।
बिकाऊ है।
बिकाऊ है।
200 वर्ग गज में निर्मित 2 मंजिल
एक पुराना रहने योग्य मकान बाजार, सब्जी मण्डी, मेन सड़क, स्कूल तथा रेलवे स्टेशन के नजदीक बाबू गुलाब राय मार्ग, देहली गेट आगरा। सम्पर्क करें
अ.ब.स.
9568XXXXXX

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Hindi B 2016 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set-II

निर्धारित समय :3 घण्टे
अधिकतम अंक : 90

प्रश्न 4.
निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए : [1 × 3 = 3]
(i) मैंने एक बीमार व्यक्ति को देखा। (संयुक्त वाक्य में बदलिए)
(ii) यद्यपि वह बहुत मेहनती है फिर भी सफल नहीं हो सका। (रचना के आधार पर वाक्य भेद बताइए)
(iii) शरीर से कमजोर व्यक्ति के लिए यह प्रतियोगिता नहीं (मिश्र वाक्य में बदलिए) |
उत्तर:
(i) संयुक्त वाक्य-मैंने एक व्यक्ति को देखा, और वह बहुत बीमार था।
(ii) मिश्र वाक्य
(iii) मिश्र वाक्य-जो शरीर से कमजोर व्यक्ति है, उसके लिए यह प्रतियोगिता नहीं है।

प्रश्न 5.
(क) निम्नलिखित का विग्रह करके समास का नाम बताइए : [1 + 1 = 2]
जनहित, मधुरफल
(ख) निम्नलिखित का समस्त पद बनाकर समास का नाम लिखिए : [1 + 1 = 2]
स्वप्न देखने वाला, अपनी रक्षा
उत्तर:
(क) (i) जन का हित – तत्पुरुष समास
(ii) मधुर है जो फल – कर्मधारय समास
(ख) (i) स्वप्नदर्शी – तत्पुरूष समास
(ii) आत्मरक्षा – तत्पुरूष समास

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को शुद्ध रूप में लिखिए : [1 × 4 = 4]
(क) एक गरम कप चाय पीलो।
(ख) उससे हमारा बात हो गया है।
(ग) यहाँ केवल मात्र दो पुस्तकें रखी हैं।
(घ) वह तुमसे भली भाँति सुपरिचित है।
उत्तर:
शुद्ध वाक्य
(क) एक कप गरम चाय पी लो।
(ख) उससे हमारी बात हो गयी है।
(ग) यहाँ केवल दो पुस्तकें रखी हैं।
(घ) वह तुमसे भली-भाँति परिचित है।

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित मुहावरों का वाक्य में इस प्रकार प्रयोग कीजिए कि उनका अर्थ स्पष्ट हो जाए : [1 + 1 = 2]
पानी-पानी होना, सिर पर कफन बाँधना ।
उत्तर:
पानी-पानी होना-नरेश की चोरी पकड़ी जाने पर वह सबके सामने पानी-पानी हो गया। सिर पर कफन बाँधना- भारतवर्ष की स्वतंत्रता की माँग को लेकर भगत सिंह, राजगुरु और सुखदेव ने अपने सिर पर कफन बाँध लिया और फांसी पर चढ़ गए।

प्रश्न 9.
पाठ के आधार पर प्रतिपादित कीजिए कि दूसरों के दुःख से दुःखी होने वाले अब कम मिलते हैं। [5]
उत्तर:
इस पाठ में लेखक सुलेमान, पैगंबर लशकर, शेख अयाज़ और अपनी माताजी के माध्यम से यह संदेश देना चाहता है कि अब संसार में इस तरह के लोग नहीं है, जो किसी दूसरे के दुःख में उसी प्रकार दुःखी होते हैं मानो उनका अपना ही दुःख हो इंसान आज इतना स्वार्थी हो गया है कि इस स्वार्थ के वशीभूत होकर वह दूसरों के हितों का भी हनन करने से नहीं चूकता। ईश्वर ने उसे यह सुंदर दुनिया दी ताकि वह इसमें सभी प्राणियों के साथ मिलकर रहे, लेकिन वह यह भूल गया है कि इस दुनिया में उसके अतिरिक्त और कोई भी रहता है। वे अपने लिए इसका व अन्य जीव-जन्तुओं का नाश करने से भी नहीं चूका। उसे यही भ्रम है कि वह इस पृथ्वी पर सबसे शक्तिशाली है। इस मद में मदमस्त होता हुआ, वह जाने अनजाने स्वयं के लिए गड्ढा खोद चुका है।

प्रश्न 15.
नेशनल बुक ट्रस्ट के प्रबंधक को पत्र लिखकर हिंदी में प्रकाशित नवीनतम बाल साहित्य की पुस्तकें भेजने हेतु अनुरोध कीजिए। [5]
उत्तर:
परीक्षा भवन
नई दिल्ली।
दिनांक : 20 जनवरी, 20XX
सेवा में,
प्रबंधक नेशनल बुक ट्रस्ट
मुख्य डाकघर
नई दिल्ली।
विषय : पुस्तक मंगाने हेतु प्रार्थना-पत्र।
महोदय,
हमने छोटे बच्चों के लिए एक वाचनालय की शुरुआत की है, जिसमें छोटी-छोटी कहानियों का संग्रह, नेताओं की जीवनी, रामायण व महाभारत संबंधित पुस्तकों का संकलन होगा। मुझे निम्नलिखित दस पुस्तकें शीघ्र भिजवा दें और यहाँ प्रकाशित बच्चों संबंधित किताबों की एक सूची भी भिजवा दें। इस आर्डर की पुस्तकों की कीमत की अग्रिम राशि 1,000 रुपये का बैंक ड्राफ्ट नं XXXXX दिनांक 20 जनवरी, 20XX बैंक, ग्रामीण आर्यावर्त बैंक इस पत्र के साथ भेज रहा हूँ। पुस्तकें भेजते हुए पहले यह सुनिश्चित कर लीजिएगा कि पुस्तकें अंदर से या बाहर से कटी-फटी न हों और प्रत्येक पुस्तक : कवर चढ़ी हुई हो। आपसे करबद्ध अनुरोध है कि सारी पुस्तकें बच्चों के वाचनालय हेतु हैं अतः हमारे द्वारा माँगी हुई सभी किताबों, पत्र-पत्रिकाओं पर यथासम्भव “छूट दें।
आपसे विनम्र निवेदन है जितना शीघ्र हो सके, निम्न पुस्तकों की 5-5 प्रतियाँ भिजवा दें :
1. मन्दाकिनी
2. अमन, प्रेम व आजादी
3. चम्पक
4. चन्द्रकान्ता
5. नन्दन
6. पंचतन्त्र की कहानियाँ
7. बच्चों की जातक कथाएँ
8. जंगल बुक
9. सिंहासन बत्तीसी
10. हितोपदेश
धन्यवाद!
भवदीय
सचिव, वाचनालय
मनीआर्डर भेजने का पता-
ईशान्त चावला
नई दिल्ली।

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Hindi B 2016 Outside Delhi Term 2 Set-III

निर्धारित समय :3 घण्टे
अधिकतम अंक : 90

प्रश्न 4.
निर्देशानुसार उत्तर दीजिए : [1 × 3 = 3]
(i) माता-पिता की सेवा करने वाले को किसी अन्य की सेवा नहीं चाहिए। (मिश्र वाक्य में बदलिए)
(ii) प्रातःकाल टहलने के कारण वह स्वस्थ रहता है। (संयुक्त वाक्य में बदलिए)
(iii) परिश्रमी व्यक्ति को दुःख नहीं झेलना पड़ता। (रचना के आधार पर वाक्य भेद बताइए)
उत्तर:
(i) मिश्र वाक्य-जो माता-पिता की सेवा करता है, वह किसी और की सेवा सहायता नहीं चाहता।
(ii) संयुक्त वाक्य-वह स्वस्थ रहता है, जो प्रातःकाल टहलने जाता है।
(iii) सरल वाक्य

प्रश्न 5.
(क) निम्नलिखित का विग्रह करके समास का नाम बताइए : [1 + 1 = 2]
चिंतारहित, शुभदिन
(ख) निम्नलिखित का समस्त पद बनाकर समास का नाम लिखिए : [1 + 1 = 2]
माता का भक्त, चाँद जैसा मुख।
उत्तर:
(क)
(i) चिंता से रहित – अपादान तत्पुरुष समास
(ii) शुभ है जो दिन – कर्मधारय समास
(ख)
(i) मातृ-भक्त – तत्पुरुष समास
(ii) चंद्रमुखी – कर्मधारय समास

प्रश्न 6.
निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को शुद्ध रूप में लिखिए : [1 × 4= 4]
(क) हमने पिताजी से मिलना है।
(ख) उत्तम चरित्र-निर्माण हमारा लक्ष्य होने चाहिए।
(ग) कितने लोग हमारा बुराई करता रहता है।
(घ) शिक्षक ने शशांक को बुलाए ।
उत्तर:
(क) हमें पिताजी से मिलना है।
(ख) उत्तम चरित्र निर्माण हमारा लक्ष्य होना चाहिए।
(ग) कितने लोग हमारी बुराई करते रहते हैं।
(घ) शिक्षक ने शशांक को बुलाया।

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित मुहावरों का वाक्य में इस प्रकार प्रयोग कीजिए कि उनका अर्थ स्पष्ट हो जाए : [1 × 1 = 2]
खून सूखना, कागजी घोड़े दौड़ाना।
उत्तर:
मुहावरों का प्रयोग
खून सूखना-डॉक्टर ने जब हमारे पिताजी को कैंसर से पीड़ित बताया तो घर के सभी सदस्यों का खून सूख गया।
कागजी घोड़े दौड़ाना–मात्र योजनाएँ बनाना, परन्तु उस पर कार्य न करना-कागजी घोड़े दौड़ाने से काम नहीं चलता सरकार द्वारा आगरा की पेयजल समस्या को हल करने के लिए गंगा जल अभी तक नहीं लाया गया।

प्रश्न 9.
‘टी सेरेमनी’ की तैयारी और उसके प्रभाव पर चर्चा कीजिए। [5]
उत्तर:
जापानी में चाय पीने की विधि को “चा-नो-यू’ कहते हैं जिसका अर्थ होता है-“टी-सेरेमनी और चाय पिलाने वाला “चाजीन” कहलाता है। जहाँ चाय पिलाई जाती है, वहाँ की सजावट पारम्परिक होती है और इस स्थान में केवल तीन लोग बैठकर चाय पी सकते हैं। यहाँ अत्यन्त शांति और गरिमा के साथ-साथ चाय पिलाई जाती हैं। टी-सेरेमनी में चाजीन द्वारा अतिथियों का उठकर स्वागत करना, आराम से अंगीठी सुलगाना, चायदानी रखना, दूसरे कमरे से चाय के बर्तन लाना, चाय को बर्तनों में डालना, सभी क्रियाएं गरिमापूर्ण ढंग से की जाती हैं। चाय पीने के बाद लेखक ने महसूस किया कि जैसे उनके दिमाग की गति मंद पड़ गई हो। धीरे-धीरे उसका दिमाग चलना भी बंद हो गया। उन्हें लगा कि मानो वे अनंतकाल से जी रहे हैं। वे भूत और भविष्य दोनों का चिंतन न करके वर्तमान काल में जी रहे हों।

प्रश्न 12.
‘कर चले हम फिदा’ कविता का प्रतिपाद्य अपने शब्दों में लिखिए। [5]
उत्तर:
इस कविता में देशभक्ति की भावना को प्रतिपादत किया गया हैं। इस कविता को पढ़कर हमें अपने देश के सैनिकों पर गर्व होता है। इन सैनिकों ने अत्यंत विषम परिस्थितियों का सामना करते हुए देश की रक्षा हेतु अपना अमर बलिदान दिया। मरते दम तक वे देश रक्षा के प्रयासों में लगे रहे और अपनी इस ६ रोहर को अपने साथियों को सौंपकर वीरगति को प्राप्त हुए। देश की धरती अत्यंत पवित्र है। हम सभी को मिलकर इस देश की रक्षा करनी है। इस देश की रक्षा में अनेक सैनिकों ने अपना रक्त बहाया है। हिमालय हमारे देश के मान-सम्मान का प्रतीक है। हमें किसी भी हालत में इसके सिर को झुकने नहीं देना है।

प्रश्न 14.
रेल द्वारा बुक कराकर भेजा गया घरेलू सामान आपके निवास के निकटस्थ स्टेशन तक नहीं पहुँचा है, इसकी शिकायत करते हुए रेल प्रबंधक को एक पत्र लिखिए।
उत्तर:
अ.ब.स.
94, साबरमती गार्डन
अहमदाबाद |
सेवा में,
रेल प्रबंधक
वाराणसी कैन्ट रेलवे स्टेशन
वाराणसी
दिनांक : 25 मार्च, 20XX
विषय-सामान न पहुंचने का शिकायती पत्र।
महोदय,
मैं एक सरकारी कर्मचारी हूँ और अहमदाबाद से तबादले के बाद वाराणसी आया हूँ। मैंने अपना ज्यादातर घरेलू सामान लकड़ियों और स्टील के बक्सों में अहमदाबाद रेलवे स्टेशन पर वाराणसी कैन्ट स्टेशन के लिए बुक किया था। रेलवे की बुकिंग रसीद संख्या XXXX दिनांक 25 फरवरी, 20XX है।
क्योंकि घरेलू सामान अभी तक यहाँ वाराणसी नहीं पहुँचा है, मैंने पार्सल घर और स्टेशन मास्टर से सम्पर्क किया, परन्तु वे कोई सन्तोषजनक उत्तर नहीं दे पा रहे हैं। रेलवे की पार्सल ट्रैकिंग की इन्टरनेट सेवा भी काम नहीं कर रही है। क्योंकि सामान घरेलू है इसलिए हमें काफी दिक्कतों का सामना करना पड़ रहा है। आपसे अनुरोध है कि हमारा घरेलू सामान जल्द से जल्द वाराणसी स्टेशन पर मँगवाया जाए और हमें हमारा सामान दिया जाए।
अग्रिम धन्यवाद
भवदीय
अ.ब.स.
9568XXXXXX

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Hindi B 2016 Outside Delhi Term 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Hindi B 2016 Term 1

Note: Except for the following questions all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

खण्ड ‘क’

प्रश्न 1.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए
कभी-कभी मैं अपने मित्रों की परीक्षा लेती हूँ, यह परखने के लिए कि वे क्या देखते हैं। हाल ही में मेरी एक प्रिय मित्र जंगल की सैर करने के बाद वापस लौटीं। मैंने उनसे पूछा, *आपने क्या-क्या देखा?”

“कुछ खास तो नहीं”, उनका जवाब था। मुझे बहुत अचरज नहीं हुआ क्योंकि मैं अब इस तरह के उत्तरों की आदी हो चुकी हूँ। मेरा विश्वास है कि जिन लोगों की आँखें होती हैं, वे बहुत कम देखते हैं। क्या यह संभव है कि भला कोई जंगल में घंटाभर घूमे और फिर भी कोई विशेष चीज न देखे? मुझे-जिसे कुछ भी दिखाई नहीं देता-सैकड़ों रोचक चीजें | मिलती हैं, जिन्हें मैं छूकर पहचान लेती हूँ। मैं भोज–पत्र के पेड़ की चिकनी छाल और चीड़ की खुरदरी छाल को स्पर्श से पहचान लेती हूँ। वसंत के दौरान मैं टहनियों में नई कलियाँ खोजती हूँ। मुझे फूलों की पंखुड़ियों की मखमली सतह छूने और उनकी घुमावदार बनावट महसूस करने में आनंद मिलता है। इस दौरान मुझे प्रकृति के जादू का कुछ अहसास होता है। कभी, जब मैं खुशनसीब होती हैं, तो टहनी पर हाथ रखते ही किसी चिड़िया के मधुर स्वर कानों में गूंजने लगते हैं। अपनी अँगुलियों के बीच झरने के पानी को बहते हुए महसूस | कर मैं आनंदित हो उठती हूँ। मुझे चीड़ की फैली पत्तियाँ या घास का मैदान किसी भी महँगे कालीन से अधिक प्रिय है।

बदलते हुए मौसम का समाँ मेरे जीवन में एक नया रंग और खुशियाँ भर जाता है।

कभी-कभी मेरा दिल इन सब चीजों को देखने के लिए मचल उठता है। अगर मुझे इन चीजों को सिर्फ छूने भर से इतनी खुशी मिलती है, तो उनकी सुंदरता देखकर तो मेरा मन मुग्ध ही हो जाएगा, परन्तु, जिन लोगों की आँखें हैं, वे सचमुच बहुत कम देखते हैं। इस दुनिया के अलग-अलग सुंदर रंग उनकी संवेदना को नहीं छूते। मनुष्य अपनी क्षमताओं की कभी कदर नहीं करता। वह हमेशा उस चीज की आस लगाए रहता है जो उसके पास नहीं है। यह कितने दुःख की बात है कि दृष्टि के आशीर्वाद को लोग एक साधारण-सी चीज समझते हैं, जबकि इस नियामत से जिंदगी को खुशियों के इंद्रधनुषी रंगों से हरा-भरा किया जा सकता है। -हेलन केलर
(i) ‘जिन लोगों की आँखें हैं, वे सचमुच बहुत कम देखते हैं -हेलन को ऐसा क्यों लगता है? [2]
(ii) ‘कुछ खास तो नहीं अपनी मित्र से ऐसा उत्तर सुनकर उनके मन में क्या विचार आए होंगे? [2]
(iii) ‘प्रकृति का जादू’ किसे कहा गया है? [2]
(iv) हेलन प्रकृति-प्रेमी थीं किन्हीं दो उदाहरणों द्वारा सिद्ध कीजिए। [2]
(v) हेलन को मनुष्य के कैसे स्वभाव पर दुःख होता है? क्यों? [2]
(vi) (क) जिन लोगों की आँखें हैं, वे सचमुच बहुत कम देखते हैं। (सरल वाक्य में बदलें)    [1]
(ख) इन गद्यांश का उपयुक्त शीर्षक लिखिए। [1]
उत्तर:
(i) ‘जिन लोगों की आँखें हैं, वे सममुच बहुत कम देखते हैं-हेलन को ऐसा इसलिए लगता है, क्योंकि वह नेत्रहीन होते हुए भी अपने आस-पास कितनी ही सुंदरता का अहसास कर सकती है, जबकि आँखों वाले लोगों को अपने आस-पास कुछ खास दिखाई ही नहीं देता।

(ii) अपनी मित्र से ऐसा उत्तर सुनकर हेलन को कोई हैरानी नहीं हुई क्योंकि उन्हें इस तरह के उत्तर सुनने की आदत हो चुकी थी। उन्हें लगने लगा था कि जिन लोगों की आँखें होती हैं, वे बहुत कम देखते हैं।

(iii) भोजपत्र के पेड़ की चिकनी छाल और चीड़ की खुरदरी छाल को स्पर्श करना, वसंत के मौसम में टहनियों में नई कलियों का निकलना, फूलों की मखमली पंखुड़ियों का अहसास-ये सब ही प्रकृति का जादू है।

(iv) हेलन प्रकृति प्रेमी थीं, क्योंकि वे अपनी अँगुलियों के बीच झरने के पानी को बहते हुए महसूस करने में अत्यंत आनंद का अनुभव करती थीं। उन्हें चीड़ की फैली पत्तियों और घास के मैदान किसी भी महँगे कालीन से अधिक प्रिय थे।

(v) हेलन को दुःख होता था जब मनुष्य अपनी क्षमताओं की कदर नहीं करता और हमेशा उस चीज की आस लगाए रहता है, जो उसके पास नहीं है। वे दृष्टि के आशीर्वाद को एक साधारण सी चीज समझते हैं।

(vi) (क) सरल वाक्य-आँखों वाले लोग कम देखते हैं।
(ख) शीर्षक ‘जो देखकर भी नहीं देखते’ या ‘आँखें : नियामत जिंदगी की’

प्रश्न 2.
निम्नलिखित काव्यांश को ध्यानपूर्वक पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए
यदि तुम्हारे घर के एक कमरे में आग लगी हो तो क्या तुम दूसरे कमरे में सो सकते हो? यदि तुम्हारे घर के एक कमरे में लाशें सड़ रही हों तो क्या तुम दूसरे कमरे में प्रार्थना कर सकते हो? यदि हाँ तो मुझे तुम से कुछ नहीं कहना है। देश कागज पर बना नक्शा नहीं होता कि एक हिस्से के फट जाने पर बाकी हिस्से उसी तरह साबुत बने रहें और नदियाँ, पर्वत, शहर, गाँव वैसे ही अपनी-अपनी जगह दिखें अनमने रहें। यदि तुम यह नहीं मानते तो मुझे तुम्हारे साथ नहीं रहना है। इस दुनिया में आदमी की जान से बड़ा कुछ भी नहीं है न ईश्वर, न ज्ञान, न चुनाव, कागज पर लिखी कोई भी इबारत फाड़ी जा सकती है और जमीन की सात परतों के भीतर गाड़ी जा सकती है। जो विवेक खड़ा हो लाशों को टेक वह अंधा है जो शासन चल रही हो बंदूक की नली से हत्यारों का धंध T है यदि तुम यह नहीं मानते तो मुझे अब एक क्षण भी तुम्हें नहीं सहना है। याद रखें एक बच्चे की हत्या एक औरत की मौत एक आदमी का किसी शासन का हीं नहीं संपूर्ण राष्ट्र का है पतन।
(i) पहले दो प्रश्नों के माध्यम से कवि क्या जानना चाहता [2]
(ii) ‘देश कागज पर बना नक्शा नहीं होता’ – स्पष्ट कीजिए। [2]
(iii) कवि ने दुनिया में किसे महत्वपूर्ण माना है? क्यों? [2]
(iv) कोई भी हत्या पूरे राष्ट्र को पतन कैसे हो सकती है? [2]
उत्तर:
(i) पहले दो प्रश्नों के माध्यम से कवि यह कहना चाहता है कि अगर देश के एक हिस्से में हिंसा, दंगे और अराजकता फैली हो, तो देश के बाकी हिस्से भी उससे अछूते नहीं रह सकते। यह मारकाट और अराजकता सारे देश के लिए एक खतरा है।

(ii) ‘देश कागज पर बना नक्शा नहीं होता’-अर्थात् देश और प्रांत आपस में एक दूसरे से जुड़े हैं। देश के किसी भी कोने में अगर अशांति और अमानवीय घटनाएँ हो रही हैं, तो देश के अन्य हिस्से आँखें मूंदकर नहीं रह सकते। एक कागज पर नक्शा बना देने से देश नहीं बनता. बल्कि भावनाओं और प्रेम के आधार पर ही किसी देश का निर्माण होता है।

(iii) कवि ने मानवीयता और आदमी की जान को इस दुनिया में सबसे बड़ा माना है। उसके अनुसार ईश्वर, ज्ञान, चुनाव और सत्ता से बड़ी इंसान की जान है।

(iv) अगर एक राष्ट्र और उसका कानून किसी निरपराध बच्चे, औरत और आदमी की जान नहीं बचा सकते, तो उस राष्ट्र को राष्ट्र कहलाने का हक नहीं है। एक राष्ट्र और उसके नेताओं का कर्तव्य है कि सभी लोगों को शांति पूर्ण और सुरक्षित माहौल प्रदान किया जाए। इसके अभाव में एक राष्ट्र का पतन निश्चित है।

खण्ड ‘ख’

प्रश्न 3.
निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को निर्देशानुसार बदलिए [3]
(क) वामीरो कुछ सचेत हुई और घर की तरफ दौड़ी। (सरल वाक्य में)।
(ख) सुभाष बाबू को पकड़कर गाड़ी द्वारा लाल बाजार लॉकअप में भेज दिया गया। (मिश्र वाक्य में)
(ग) सालाना इम्तिहान हुआ, भाई साहब फेल हो गए, मैं पास हो गया। (संयुक्त वाक्य में)
उत्तर:
(क) सरल वाक्य-वामीरो सचेत होकर घर की तरफ दौड़ी।
(ख) मिश्र वाक्य-जैसे ही सुभाष बाबू को पकड़ा गया वैसे ही उन्हें लाल बाजार लॉकअप में भेज दिया गया।
(ग) संयुक्त वाक्य-सालाना इम्तिहान हुआ, भाई साहब फेल हुए और मैं पास हो गया।

प्रश्न 4.
निम्नलिखित वाक्यों को शुद्ध करके लिखिए [4]
(क) इस जंगल में एक पागल हाथी हो गया है।
(ख) जो काम करो, वही पूरा जरूर करो।
(ग) शाम को श्रीमती मीरा एक गीत देंगी।
(घ) तुम्हारे को गुलाब की फूलों की माला ले आना।
उत्तर:
(क) इस जंगल में एक हाथी पागल हो गया है।
(ख) जो काम करो, उसे पूरा जरूर करो।
(ग) शाम को श्रीमती मीरा एक गीत गाएँगी।
(घ) तुम गुलाब के फूलों की माला ले आना।

प्रश्न 5.
(क) निम्नलिखित समस्त पदों का विग्रह कीजिए तथा समास का नाम लिखिए [4]
(i) उच्चाकांक्षा
(ii) लोकप्रिय
(ख) निम्नलिखित शब्दों से समास बनाइए व समास का नाम लिखिए
(i) सत्य के लिए आग्रह (समास विग्रह)
(ii) अंधा है जो विश्वास (समास का नाम)
उत्तर:
(क)
(i) उच्चाकांक्षा- ऊँची है जो आकांक्षा, कर्मधारय समास
(ii) लोकप्रिय- लोगों में प्रिय, तत्पुरुष समास समस्त-पद समासे का नाम

(ख)
(i) सत्य के लिए आग्रह– सत्याग्रह, तत्पुरुष समास
(ii) अंधा है जो विश्वास– अंधविश्वास, कर्मधारय समास

प्रश्न 6.
(क) “विद्यालय’ पद है या शब्द? कैसे?
(ख) छात्रों को अवकाश अच्छा लगता है। (रखांकित पद है या शब्द) क्यों?
उत्तर:
(क) विद्यालय- शब्द है, क्योंकि इसे एक वाक्य में प्रयुक्त नहीं किया गया।
(ख) रेखांकित पद है, क्योंकि (छात्रों) एक वाक्य का हिस्सा ” है। ‘वाक्य में प्रयुक्त शब्द-पद कहलाता है।

प्रश्न 7.
निम्नलिखित मुहावरों का वाक्यों में प्रयोग इस प्रकार कीजिए कि उनका अर्थ स्पष्ट हो जाए [2]
(क) दो से चार बनाना
(ख) चुल्लू भर पानी देने वाला न होना
उत्तर:
(क) दो से चार बनाने की विद्या तो कोई हितेष से पूछे, क्योंकि दो ही साल की छोटी-सी नौकरी में वह मालामाल हो गया।
(ख) एक्सीडेंट में कृष्ण के माता-पिता के अलावा सभी की मौत हो गई। अब घर में कोई चुल्लू भर पानी देने वाला ही न रहा।

खण्ड ‘ग’

प्रश्न 8.
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए
“ढीठता की हद है। मैं जब से परिचय पूछ रही हूँ और तुम बस एक ही राग अलाप रहे हो। गीत गाओ-गीत गाओ,
आखिर क्यों? क्या तुम्हें गाँव का नियम नहीं मालूम?” इतना बोलकर वह जाने के लिए तेजी से मुड़ी। तताँरा को मानो कुछ होश आया। उसे अपनी गलती का अहसास हुआ। वह उसके सामने रास्ता रोककर मानो गिड़गिड़ाने लगा।
(i) किसने ढीठता दिखाई? वह ढीठता क्या थी? [2]
(ii) तताँरा को अपनी किस गलती का अहसास हुआ? [2]
(iii) गाँव का नियम क्या था? [1]
अथवा
यह सब तो अपनी सुनी हुई लिख रहे हैं, पर सुभाष बाबू का और अपना विशेष फासला नहीं था। सुभाष बाबू बड़े जोर से वंदे मातरम् बोलते थे, यह अपनी आँख से देखा। पुलिस भयानक रूप से लाठियाँ चला रही थी। क्षितीश चटर्जी का फटा हुआ सिर देखकर तथा बहता हुआ खून देखकर आँख मिंच जाती थी। इधर यह हालत हो रही थी कि उधर स्त्रियाँ मोनुमेंट की सीढ़ियों पर चढ़ झंडा फहरा रही थीं और घोषणा पढ़ रही थीं। स्त्रियाँ बहुत बड़ी संख्या में पहुँच गई थीं। प्रायः सबके साथ झंडा था। जो वोलेंटियर गए थे वे अपने स्थान से लाठियाँ पड़ने पर भी नहीं हटते थे।
(i) यह कौन-सा दिन/वर्ष था? यह दिन महत्त्वपूर्ण क्यों था?
(ii) स्त्रियों का क्या योगदान था?
(iii) पाठ में वर्णित किन्हीं दो क्रांतिकारी स्त्रियों के नाम लिखिए
उत्तर:
(i) तताँरा ने वामीरो को छुप-छुप कर देखने और बार-बार उसका नाम पूछने की ढीठता दिखाई। वह वामीरो को बार-बार गाना गाने को कह रहा था जिसे वामीरो ने उसकी ढीठता कहा।
(ii) तताँरा, एक अनजान लड़की के गाने की तारीफ, उसके मना करने के बाद भी किए जा रहा था। वह भूल गया था कि उनके गाँव में एक गाँव का पुरुष, दूसरे गाँव की लड़की से बातें नहीं कर सकता। इस बात का अहसास होते ही, उसने वामीरो का रास्ता छोड़ दिया।
(iii) गाँव का नियम था कि अपने गाँव के बाहर वैवाहिक और प्रेम संबंध नहीं बनाए जा सकते।

अथवा

(i) यह 26 जनवरी, 1931 का दिन था। यह दिन महत्त्वपूर्ण इसलिए था, क्योंकि इस दिन कोलकाता (कलकत्ता) में दूसरा स्वाधीनता दिवस मनाया गया था।
(ii) स्त्रियाँ मोनुमेंट की सीढ़ियों पर झंडा फहरा रही थीं और घोषणा पढ़ रही थीं। एक बड़ी संख्या में स्त्रियाँ इस स्वाधीनता दिवस आयोजन में हिस्सा ले रही थीं।
(iii) जानकी देवी, मदालसा बजाज, विमल प्रतिभा।

प्रश्न 9.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए
(i) तीसरी कसम के हीरामन’ की क्या विशेषता थी? उनके अभिनय के बारे में पाठ में क्या कहा गया है?** [2]
(ii) शैलेंद्र के गीतों की दो विशेषताएँ लिखिए ।** [2]
(iii) छोटा भाई पढ़ता नहीं था फिर भी पास कैसे हो जाता था? आप इसका क्या कारण समझते हैं?
उत्तर:
(iii) छोटा भाई कम मेहनत करके भी परीक्षा में अच्छे अंक लेकर उत्तीर्ण हो जाता था। उसका मन पढ़ाई में कम, खेल-कूद में ज्यादा लगता है। वह कुशाग्र बुद्धि का था इसलिए कम मेहनत करके भी परीक्षा में अच्छे अंकों से पास हो जाता था। इससे हमारी रटन्त और अव्यावहारिक शिक्षा प्रणाली का प्रमाण मिलता है।

प्रश्न 10.
‘तीसरी कसम’ फिल्म को सैल्यूलाइड पर लिखी कविता क्यों कहा गया है?** [5]

प्रश्न 11.
निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर लिखिए
(i) मीरा कृष्ण की चाकरी करने को इतनी आतुर क्यों हैं? [2]
(ii) तोप के लिए ‘धर रखी गई है’ वाक्यांश का प्रयोग क्यों किया गया है? [2]
(iii) कबीर के अनुसार ‘राम वियोगी क्यों नहीं जी पाता है? [1]
उत्तर;
(i) मीरा कृष्ण की चाकरी करने के लिए आतुर हैं, क्योंकि वे सेवक बनकर कृष्ण के आस-पास रहना चाहती थीं। ताकि वे अपने प्रिय कृष्ण के दर्शन प्रतिदिन कर सकें। इस प्रकार मीरा चाकरी करके कृष्ण की निकटता पाना चाहती हैं।

(ii) तोप के लिए ‘धर रखी गई है’ वाक्यांश यह सीख देता है। कि आततायी शक्ति चाहे कितनी भी बड़ी क्यों न हो, पर उसका अंत अवश्य होकर रहता है। कंपनी बाग में धरी हुई इस तोप ने हमारे जाँबाजों को मौत के घाट उतारा था। पर एक दिन ऐसा आया कि लोगों ने ब्रिटिश सत्ता को ही उखाड़ फेंका। यह तोप उसी सत्ता का प्रतीक है।

(iii) राम वियोगी वह होता है जो राम से अलग रहकर तड़पता है। वह परमात्मा से वियोग की दशा को सह नहीं पाता।

प्रश्न 12.
“पर्वत प्रदेश में पावस’ कविता के आधार पर लिखिए कि वर्षा ऋतु . के दौरान पहाड़ी क्षेत्रों में क्या परिवर्तन आते हैं?
उत्तर:
पर्वत प्रदेश में पावस प्रकृत-सौंदर्य की कविता का उद्देश्य है-वर्षाकाल में पर्वतों की क्षण-क्षण बदलती। सोभा का वर्णन करना। कवि ने दिखाया है कि विशाल पर्वत पर हजारों फूल खिले हैं। पर्वत करधनी जैसा विशाल है। उसका प्रतिबिंब नीचे वाले तालाब में दिखाई दे रहा है। पहाड़ से गिरने वाले झरने झर-झर करते हुए शोर कर रहे हैं। उनका झााग वाला जल मोती की लड़ियों के समान सुंदर प्रतीत हो रहा है। पहाड़ पर खड़े हुए पेड़ बहुत ऊँचे हैं। वे मानो नीले शांत आकाश को देखते हुए कुछ सोच रहे हैं। कवि ने दिखाया है कि कभी पहाड़नुमा चमकीले बादल आकाश में उड़ चले हैं, कभी वे धरती पर टूट पड़े हैं। शाल के वृक्ष भयभीत होकर धंस गए से लगते हैं। तालाब का धुंआ उसके जलने का संकेत देता है। इस प्रकार वर्षा ऋतु में पर्वतों पर मायावी खेल-से दिखाई देते हैं।

प्रश्न 13.
“एक ही रात में ठाकुरबारी में जो सुख-शांति और संतोष पाया, वह अपने अब तक के जीवन में हरिहर काका ने कभी नहीं पाया था।” इस कथन के संदर्भ सच्चे सुख-शांति और संतोष की आवश्यकता पर प्रकाश डालिए तथा बताइए कि आप काका की उस स्थिति को कहाँ उचित मानते हैं? और क्यों? [5]
उत्तर:
रात में हरिहर काका को भोग लगाने के लिए जो मिष्ठान्न और व्यंजन मिले, वैसे उन्होंने कभी भी नहीं खाए थे। घी टपकते मालपुए, रस बुनिया, लड्डू, छेने की तरकारी, दही, खीर। पुजारी जी ने स्वयं अपने हाथों से खाना परोसा था। पास में बैठे महंत जी धर्म चर्चा से मन में शांति पहुँचा रहे थे। एक ही रात में ठाकुरबारी में जो सुख-शांति और संतोष उन्होंने पाया, वह अपने अब तक के जीवन में उन्होंने नहीं पाया था।

हम काका की उस स्थिति और उस सोच को बिल्कुल उचित मानते हैं, क्योंकि अपनी पत्नी और संतान ने होने के कारण उन्हें प्रतिदिन रोटी के लिए अपने भाइयों की पत्नियों पर आश्रित रहना पड़ता था और बदले में उन्हें बासी–रूखा-सूखा भोजन ही मिलता था। ऐसे में ठाकुरबारी में प्रेमपूर्वक खिलाए गए स्वादिष्ट पकवान के कारण उन्होंने ऐसा सोचा।

खण्ड “घ”

प्रश्न 14.
निम्नलिखित विषयों में से किसी एक पर संकेत बिंदुओं के आधार पर लगभग 100 शब्दों में अनुच्छेद लिखिए : [5]
(क) पुस्तकें पढ़ने की आदत

• पढ़ने की घटती प्रवृत्ति
• कारण और हानि
• पढ़ने की आदत से लाभ

(ख) कम्प्यूटर हमारा मित्र

• क्यों है।
• विद्यार्थियों के लिए उपयोग
• सुझाव

(ग) स्वास्थ्य की रक्षा

• आवश्यकता
• पोषक भोजन
• लाभकारी सुझाव

उत्तर:
(क) पुस्तकें पढ़ने की आदत
किताब/पुस्तक पढ़ना एक ऐसी आदत है, जिसके लाभों की गणना नहीं की जा सकती। अतः छोटे-बड़े सबको विशेषकर बच्चों को किताब पढ़ने की आदत डालनी चाहिए। जिस व्यक्ति या बच्चे ने पुस्तकें पढ़ने की आदत डाल ली उसने स्वयं को नाना प्रकार की बुराइयों से बचा लिया। पुस्तकें पढ़ने वाले का आत्मविश्वास पुस्तकें न पढ़ने वाले की अपेक्षा अष्टि कि होता है। जो व्यक्ति पुस्तकें पढ़ने की आदत डाल लेता है, वह स्वयं को ज्ञान में वृद्धि के स्रोत से जोड़ लेता है, ऐसे लोग अपनी इच्छाओं को और अधिक तार्किक बना लेते हैं। मनोवैज्ञानिकों का मानना है कि अध्ययन व पुस्तकें आत्मा का भोजन है। शिक्षकों और अभिभावकों को बच्चों के लिए ऐसी किताबों का चयन करना चाहिए, जो बच्चों में जिज्ञासा की भावना की प्रोत्साहित करने का कारण बने।

(ख) कम्प्यूटर हमारा मित्र
आज के युग को यदि हम कम्प्यूटर का युग कहें, तो अतिशयोक्ति नहीं होगी। शिक्षा, मनोरंजन, चिकित्सा, यातायात, संचार आदि सभी क्षेत्रों में कम्प्यूटर ने अपनी उपयोगिता सिद्ध की है। शिक्षा के क्षेत्र में कम्प्यूटर अत्यंत उपयोगी सिद्ध हो रहे हैं। कम्प्यूटर के माध्यम से पठन-पाठन का स्तर भी अच्छा हुआ है। कार्यालयों में इसके माध्यम से कार्य करना अत्यंत सहज एवं सरल हो गया है। महत्त्वपूर्ण आँकड़ों व तथ्यों को ‘फाइल’ में सुरक्षित रखा जाता है। इसी कारण से प्रत्येक सरकारी, गैर-सरकारी और निजी कार्यालयों में कम्प्यूटर का प्रयोग अनिवार्य हो गया है। इसने संचार के क्षेत्र में एक क्रांति ला दी है। ‘ई-मेल के माध्यम से हजारों मील दूर बैठे अपने संबंधी अथवा मित्रों को हम, कम खर्च और कम समय में संदेश भेज सकते हैं। इंटरनेट के माध्यम से मनुष्य हर प्रकार की जानकारी का आदान-प्रदान • विश्व के किसी भी कोने से करने में सक्षम है। इन सभी कारणों से कम्प्यूटर हमारा मित्र है।

(ग) स्वास्थ्य की रक्षा
खान-पान तथा स्वास्थ्य रक्षा के अन्य नियमों में त्रुटि आने पर ही शरीर में रोगों का जन्म होता है। यदि स्वास्थ्य रक्षा संबंधी सभी नियमों का यथाविधि पालन किया जाए, तो कभी बीमार होने के अवसर ही उपस्थित नहीं होंगे। प्रतिदिन स्नान, व्यायाम और योग करने से हम अपने स्वास्थ्य की काफी हद तक रक्षा कर सकते हैं। अच्छा स्वास्थ्य जीवन के समस्त सुखों का आधार है। धन से वस्तुएँ खरीदी जा सकती हैं, परन्तु उनको उपभोग अच्छे स्वास्थ्य पर निर्भर करता है। अच्छे स्वास्थ्य की कामना करने वाले बहुत हैं परंतु उसके लिए जागरूक होकर प्रयत्न करने वाले थोड़े ही हैं। अच्छा एवं संतुलित आहार, नियमित दिनचर्या और नियमित व्यायाम स्वास्थ्य को बनाए रखने वाले तीन मूलभूत तत्व हैं। भोजन में फल, अनाज, सब्जी और दूध का समन्वय होना चाहिए। फल, हरी ताजी सब्जियाँ, अंकुरित अनाज तथा दूध की कुछ-न-कुछ मात्रा प्रतिदिन लेने से व्यक्ति का स्वास्थ्य अच्छा बना रहता है। अतः प्रत्येक व्यक्ति का कर्तव्य है कि वह स्वास्थ्यप्रद जीवनशैली अपनाए और अपने तन को स्वस्थ और मन को आनंदित रखे।

प्रश्न 15.
विद्यालय के गेट पर मध्यावकाश के समय ठेले और रेहड़ी वालों द्वारा जंक फूड बेचे जाने की शिकायत करते हुए प्रधानाचार्य को पत्र लिखकर उन्हें रोकने का अनुरोध कीजिए।
उत्तर:
सेवा में,
प्रधानाचार्य महोदय
क ख ग विद्यालय
अ ब स स्थान
विषय : विद्यालय के गेट पर मध्यावकाश के समय जंक फूड बेचने वालों को रोके जाने के संबंध में पत्र।
महोदय,
सविनय निवेदन है कि हमारे विद्यालय के गेट पर मध्यावकाश के समय ठेले और रेहड़ी वालों द्वारा जंक फूड बेचा जाता है। बाहर जंक फूड मिलने की वजह से अधिकतर विद्यार्थियों ने टिफिन लाना भी बंद कर दिया है। यह जंक फूड विद्यार्थियों के स्वास्थ्य के लिए हानिकारक है। जंक फूड खाने से कई बच्चों की तबीयत भी खराब हुई है।

अतः आपसे विनम्र अनुरोध है कि आप यथाशीघ्र इन्हें हटवाने का प्रबंध कीजिए।
धन्यवाद!
आपकी आज्ञाकारी शिष्य
क, ख, ग
कक्षा-दसवीं

प्रश्न 16.
विद्यालय में छुट्टी के दिनों में भी प्रातःकाल योग की अभ्यास कक्षाएँ चलने की सूचना देते हुए इच्छुक विद्यार्थियों द्वारा अपना नाम देने हेतु सूचना-पट्ट के लिए एक सूचना लगभग 30 शब्दों में लिखिए।
उत्तर:
क,ख,ग, पब्लिक स्कूल
अ. ब. स. स्थान
दिनांक : 07 फरवरी, 20xx
सूचना
प्रातःकाल में योगाभ्यास कक्षा
आप सभी को सूचित किया जाता है कि विद्यालय में छुट्टी के दिनों में प्रातः काल में योग की अभ्यास कक्षाएँ चलाई जाएँगी। जो भी विद्यार्थी योगाभ्यास की कक्षाओं का लाभ उठाना चाहते हैं, वे अपना नाम अपने
कक्षाध्यापक/कक्षाध्यापिका को दे सकते हैं। नाम देने की | आखिरी तारीख 26 फरवरी, 20xx है।

योगाभ्यास कार्यक्रम
स्थान – बास्केटबॉल मैदान
समय – प्रातः 6.7 बजे
दिनांक – प्रत्येक शनिवार एवं रविवार
अभिनव छाबड़ा
अधिकृत

प्रश्न 17.
परीक्षा में आपकी शानदार उपलब्धियों पर आपके और पिताजी के बीच हुए संवाद को लगभग 50 शब्दों में लिखिए। [5] |
उत्तर:
पिता – बेटा! आज तुम्हारा परीक्षाफल देखकर मैं बहुत प्रसन्न हूँ और कामना करता हूँ कि भविष्य में भी तुम ऐसे ही सफलता के मार्ग पर आगे बढ़ते रहोगे।
बेटा – धन्यवादपिताजी!यहसबआपकेआशीर्वादऔर मेहनतका परिणाम है। पिताजी इस बार बहुत से होशियार बच्चे भी, उतना अच्छा परिणाम नहीं दे पाए, जितना कि वे दे सकते थे।
पिता – बेटा ऐसा तो हर साल ही होता है।
बेटा – आजकल परीक्षा को योग्यता जाँचने का माध्यम बना दिया गया है। अंकों को व्यक्ति की बुदिधिमता का मापदंड माना जाता है। इसलिए जो विद्यार्थी पढ़कर उत्तीर्ण हो जाते हैं, उन्हें कक्षा में श्रेष्ठ माना जाता
पिता – इसी कारण परीक्षा विद्यार्थियों में भय का कारण बन गई है। जिसके कारण बहुत से होनकार छात्र भी परीक्षा में अच्छे अंक नहीं प्राप्त कर पा रहे हैं।
बेटा – हाँ जी! मुझे लगता है हमें यहाँ यह नहीं सोचना चाहिए कि जिन विद्यार्थियों को कम अंक मिले हैं, वे योग्य नहीं हैं। शिक्षा केवल पुस्तकीय ज्ञान तक सीमित नहीं है। प्रतिदिन के जीवन के लिए सामान्य ज्ञान भी अत्यंत आवश्यक है।
पिता – शाबाश बेटा! तुम्हारे विचार जानकर मुझे तुम पर गर्व है।

प्रश्न 18.
सड़क पर टहलते हुए आपको एक बैग मिला, जिसमें कुछ रुपये, मोबाइल फोन तथा अन्य कई महत्त्वपूर्ण कागजात थे। लगभग 25 शब्दों में एक विज्ञापन तैयार कीजिए कि अधिकारी व्यक्ति आपसे
संपर्क कर अपना बैग ले जाए। [5]
उत्तर:
खोया-पाया
मैं पार्थ छाबड़ा, दिल्ली निवासी आप सभी को सूचित करना चाहता हूँ कि मुझे 12 जनवरी, 20xx को सड़क पर टहलते। हुए, पीरागढ़ी चौक पर एक काला बैग मिला, जिसमें कुछ जरूरी कागजात, रुपये और एक मोबाइल फोन है। बैग संबंधी अन्य जानकारी हेतु संपर्क करें।
दूरभाष : 011XXXXXXX

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Hindi B 2016 Term 1 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 4 Human Development

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved

Question 1.(i)
Which one of the following best describes development?
(a) an increase in size
(b) a constant in size
(c) a positive change in quality
(d) a simple change in the quality
Answer:
(c) a positive change in quality

Question 1.(ii)
Which one of the following scholars introduced the concept of Human Development?
(a) Prof. Amartya Sen
(b) Ellen C Semple
(c) Dr. Mahabub-ul-Haq
(d) Ratzel
Answer:
(c) Dr. Mahabub-ul-Haq

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words:

Question 2.(i)
What are the three basic areas of Human development?
Answer:

• Access to resources: It is taken as an indicator of economic condition and ability of individuals to purchase goods of their demands. The indicator used to determine this is per capital income, which shows purchasing power of individuals in terms of dollars.
• Health: Longevity of people of the country indicates the availability of health care services and facilities in the country. Country with higher life expectancy tends to have higher HDI.
• Education: The adult literacy rate and gross enrollment ratio represents access to knowledge.

Question 2.(ii)
Name the four main components of human development.
Answer:
The four main pillars of human development are the concepts of equity, sustainability, productivity and empowerment.

Question 2.(iii)
How are countries classified on the basis of human development index?
Answer:
Countries can be classified into four categories on the basis of human development index as:

3. Answer the following questions in not more than 150 words:

Question 3.(i)
What do you understand by the term Human development?
Answer:
Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq introduced the concept of human development. He described human development as a development that enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives. People are central to all development under this concept. These choices are not fixed but keep on changing. The basic goal of human development is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives.

A meaningful life is not just a long one. It must be a life with some purpose. This means that people must be healthy, be able to develop their talents, participate in society and be free to achieve their goals by full access to resources, education and health facilities. There should be no hindrance to a person’s progress due to deprivation of life chances. Leading a long and healthy life, being able to gain knowledge and having enough means to be able to live a decent life are the most important aspects of human development. Building people’s capabilities in areas of health, education and access to resources is therefore, important in enlarging their choices. If people do not have capabilities in these areas, their choices also get limited.

Question 3.(ii)
What do equity and sustainability refer to within the concept of human development?
Answer:
Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to everybody. The opportunities available to people must be equal irrespective of their gender, race, income and in the Indian case, caste. It aims at providing equal opportunities to all with no special privileges or restriction to any person or group of persons. It is essential for human development to ensure access to resources in order to fulfill choices and lead a meaningful life.

For example, in any country, it is interesting to see which group the most of the school dropouts belong to. This should then lead to an understanding of the reasons for such behavior. In India, a large number of women and persons belonging to socially and economically backward groups drop out of school. This shows how the choices of these groups get limited by not having access to knowledge. Sustainability can be defined as “using resources in a way that fulfill the needs of present generation without compromising on their availability for future generations.” Sustainability refers to continuity in the availability of opportunities. To have sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities. All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future. Misuse of any of these resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations.

Example; If the key resource of coal is being overused by the present generation, it will lead to its paucity in future. When adequate coal will not be available to future generation, the power generation capability wifi be hindered which in turn will affect several infrastructural, industrial and other activities, which in turn will negatively affect the available choices and quality of life of future generations.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Who introduced the concept of Human development?
Answer:
Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq introduced the concept of Human development.

Question 2.
Define human development.
Answer:
Human development is the development that enlarges people’s choice and improves their lives so that they can lead a healthy, meaningful, purposeful life with dignity.

Question 3.
Which agency brings out the Human Development report?
Answer:
United Nations Development Programme publishes human development report annually since 1990.

Question 4.
What are the approaches to human development?
Answer:
Income approach, welfare approach, basic needs approach and capability approach are the approaches to human development.

Question 5.
What does human poverty index measures?
Answer:
Human poverty index measures the shortfall in human development. It is a non-income measure.

Question 6.
What are the two important indices used by UNDP to measure human development?
Answer:
The human development index and human poverty index are the two important indices used by the UNDP to measure human development.

Question 7.
Which country is ranked no. 1 in HDI?
Answer:
Norway is ranked no. 1 in HDI.

Question 8.
Which countries fall in the score of 0.700 to 0.807?
Answer:
The high development countries fall in the above criteria.

Question 9.
What do you mean by growth?
Answer:
Growth is quantitative and value neutral. It may be positive or negative. It shows change with reference to time.

Question 10.
What are the criteria to measure level of human development?
Answer:
The criteria to measure level of human development claims that people must be healthy and educated, be able to develop their talents, participate in society and be free to achieve their goals.

Question 11.
What is meant by sustainability?
Answer:
Sustainability refers to continuity in the availability of opportunities. In other words, all generations must have the same opportunities and for this all environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future.

Question 12.
What is meant by empowerment?
Answer:
It refers to having power to make better decisions and choices in life. This power comes from freedom and capability. Good governance and people oriented policies are required for empowerment of people. The empowerment of socially and economically disadvantaged people is of special importance.

Question 13.
What do you mean by Human Development Index?
Answer:
Human Development Index measures attainments in human development. It reflects what has been attained in key areas of human development like education, health and standard of living. Its value lies between 0 and 1, 0 shows the lowest level of human.

Question 14.
What do you mean by Human Poverty Index?
Answer:
Human Poverty Index complements Human Development Index and measures the shortfall in human development. It is a non-income measure.

Question 15.
How is Bhutan different and special?
Answer:
Bhutan is different and special because it is the only country in the world which has officially proclaimed the Gross National Happiness (GNH) as the measure of the country’s progress. It is not willing to bring material growth and technological progress at the cost of happiness of the people.

Question 16.
Differentiate between growth and development.
Answer:
The difference between growth and development: Growth is quantitative, whereas development is qualitative. Growth is value neutral, whereas development is value positive.Growth may be positive or negative, whereas development will always
be positive.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
How does the Human Development Index ranks the countries?
Answer:
The Human Development Index ranks the countries based on their performance in the key areas of health, education and access to resources. These ranking are based on a score between 0 to 1, that a country earns from it record in the key areas of human development. Each of these dimensions is given a weightage of 1 / 3. The HDI is the sum total of the weights assigned to all these dimensions. The closer a score is to 1, the greater is the level of human development.

Question 2.
What are the aspects of human development?
Answer:
Leading a long and healthy life, being able to gain knowledge and having enough means to be able to live a decent life are the most important aspects of human development. Therefore, access to resources, health and education are the key areas in human development.

Question 3.
Why are some people incapable of making the basic choices?
Answer:
Very often, people do not have the capability and freedom to make even basic choices. This may be due to their inability to acquire knowledge, their material poverty, social discrimination, inefficiency of institutions and other reasons. This prevents them from leading healthy lives being able to get educated or to have the means to live a decent life. Building people’s capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is therefore, important in enlarging their choices. If people do not have capabilities in these areas, their choices also get limited. For example, an uneducated child cannot make the choice to be a doctor because her choice has got limited by her lack of education. Similarly, very often poor people cannot choose to take medical treatment for disease because their choice is limited by their lack of resources.

Question 4.
With examples show how the government expenditure on social sector is an indicator of human development in different area?
Answer:
The pattern of government expenditure on social sector is an important indicator of the level of human development in a particular region. The political environment of the country and the amount of freedom people have is also important. Countries with high levels of human development invest more in the social sectors and are generally free from political turmoil and instability. Distribution of the country’s resources is also far more equitable.

On the other hand, places with low levels of human development tend to spend more on defense rather than social sectors. This shows that these countries tend to be located in areas of political instability and have not been able to initiate accelerated economic development.

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Compare the social-economic conditions of the people in the countries with different human development levels.
Answer:
High level of human development group has 53 countries. Providing education and healthcare is an important government priority. Countries with higher human development are those where a lot of investment in the social sector has taken place. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from the others. Many of these countries have been the former imperial powers. The degree of social diversity in these countries is not very high. Many of the countries with a high human development score are located in Europe and represent the industrialized western world. Yet there are striking numbers of non-European countries also who have made it to this list.

Countries with medium levels of human development form the largest group. There are 42 countries in the medium level of human development. Most of these are countries which have emerged in the period after the Second World War. Some countries from this group were former colonies while many others have emerged after the break up of the erstwhile Soviet Union in 1990. Many of these countries have been rapidly improving their human development score by adopting more people-oriented policies and reducing social discrimination. Most of these countries have a much higher social diversity than the countries with higher human development scores. Many in this group have faced political instability and social uprisings at some point of time in their recent history.

As many as 43 countries record low levels of human development. A large proportion of these are small countries which have been going through political turmoil and social instability in the form of civil war, famine or a high incidence of diseases. There is an urgent need to address the human development requirements of this group through well thought out policies.

Question 2.
Explain the four pillars of human development.
Answer:
The idea of human development is supported by the concepts of equity, sustainability, productivity and empowerment.
Equity refers to making equal access to opportunities available to everybody. The opportunities available to, people must be equal irrespective of their gender, race, income and in the Indian case, caste. Yet this is veiy often not the case and happens in almost every society. For example, in any country, it is interesting to see which group the most of the school dropouts belong to. In India, a large number of women and persons belonging to socially and economically backward groups drop out of school. This shows how the choices of these groups get limited by not having access to knowledge.
Sustainability means continuity in the availability of opportunities. To have sustainable human development, each generation must have the same opportunities. All environmental, financial and human resources must be used keeping in mind the future. Misuse of any of these resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations.

A good example is about the importance of sending girls to school. If a community does not stress the importance of sending its girl children to school, many opportunities will be lost to these young women when they grow up. Their career choices will be severely curtailed and this would affect other aspects of their lives. So each generation must ensure the availability of choices and opportunities to its future generations.
Productivity means human labour productivity or productivity in terms of human work. Such productivity must be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people. Ultimately, it is people who are the real wealth of nations. Therefore, efforts to increase their knowledge, or provide better health facilities ultimately leads to better work efficiency.

Empowerment means to have the power to make choices. Such power comes from increasing freedom and capability. Good governance and people-oriented policies are required to empower people. The empowerment of socially and economically disadvantaged groups is of special importance.

Question 3.
What are the different approaches/ ways of looking at the problem of human development?
Answer:
Some of the important approaches of looking at human development are:
(a) Income Approach: This is one of the oldest approaches to human development. Human development is seen as being linked to income. The idea is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom an individual enjoys. Higher the level of income, the higher is the level of human development.
(b) Welfare Approach: This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, social secondary and amenities. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients. The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximising expenditure on welfare.
(c) Basic Needs Approach: This approach was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Six basic needs i.ehealth, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing were identified. The question of human choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined sections.
d) Capability Approach: This approach is associated with Prof. Amartya Sen. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is the key to increasing human development.

Question 4.
“The Human Poverty index is more revealing than the Human Development Index”. Explain with examples,
Answer:
The human development index measures attainments in human development. It reflects what has been achieved in the key areas of human development. Yet it is not the most , reliable measure. This is because it does not say anything about the distribution. The human poverty index is related to the human development index. This , index measures the shortfall in human development. It is a non-income measure. The probability of not surviving till the age of 40, the adult illiteracy rate, the number of people who do not have access to clean water, and the number of small children who are underweight are all taken into account to show the shortfall in human development in any region. Often the human poverty index is more revealing than the human development index.
Looking at both these measures of human development together gives an accurate picture of the human development situation in a country.

The ways to measure human development are constantly being refined and newer ways of capturing different elements of human development are being researched. Researchers have found links between the level of corruption or political freedom in a particular region. There is also a discussion regarding a political freedom index and, a listing of the most corrupt countries.

Question 5.
Differentiate between growth and development.
Answer:

Question 6.
State the three differences between Human Development Index and Human Poverty Index.
Answer:

Class 12 Geography Chapter 4 Important Questions

Question 1.
Name the four pillars of Human Development. (A.1.2014)
Answer:

• Equity
• Sustainability
• Productivity
• Empowerment

Question 2.
Which state in India has its highest rank in Human Development Index (HDI) value? (A.I. 2014)
Answer:
Kerala State has the highest rank in H.D.I.

Question 3.
Define the concept of human development. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
The concept of human development was introduced by Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq. Dr Haq has described human development as development that enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives. The basic goal of development is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives.

Question 4.
“Leading a long and healthy life is an important aspect of human development.” Give an argument to support the statement. (CBSE 2016)
Answer:
People must be healthy. Healthy people are able to develop their talents, participate in society and be free to achieve their goods. To access the sources, health and education are the key areas in human development.

Short Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
Why does particular region of the world keep reporting low or high levels of human development? Explain by giving suitable reasons. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Size of the territory and per capita income are not directly related to human development. Often small countries have done better than larger ones in human development. Similarly, relatively poorer nations have been ranked higher than richer neighbours in terms of human development.
Example: Sri Lanka, Trinidad and Tobago have a higher rank than India in the human development index despite having smaller economies.

Question 2.
Explain the three major areas that decide the rank of the Human Development Index in the world. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Health: The indicator chosen to assess health is the life expectancy at birth. A higher life expectancy means that people have a greater chance of living longer and healthier lives.
Education: The adult literacy rate and the gross enrolment ratio represent access to knowledge. The number of adults, who are able to read and write and the number r of children enrolled in schools show how easy or difficult it is to access knowledge in a particular country,
Access to resources: It is measured in terms of purchasing power (in U.S. dollars). Each of these dimensions is given a weight age of 1/3. The human development index is a sum total of the weights assigned to all these dimensions.

Question 3.
“Equity is one of the most important pillars of human development’. Explain any three human values that are required to give equal access to opportunities to everybody. (A.1.2013)
Answer:

• It refers to making equal , access to opportunities available to everybody,
• The opportunities available to people must be equal irrespective of their gender, race, income, etc.
• Everybody should have equal access to knowledge.

Long Answer Type Questions:

Question 1.
What is human development? Analyse the four pillars of human development. (Delhi 201 d, 2017)
Answer:
Human development is a process that enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives. The four pillars of Human Development

• Equity
• Sustainability
• Productivity
• Empowerment

Equity involves equal opportunity for all the citizens to improve their standard of living in all areas of life. Growth and development should be in such a way that it is sustainable in the long term. This specially relates to the preservation of the environment. Productivity is important for efficient use of scarce resources. Productivity also results ill higher production which leads to better satisfaction of human wants. Empowerment relates to giving more power to the people so that they are able to strengthen themselves socially and economically.

Question 2.
‘The size of a territory and per capita income are not directly related to human development.” Support the statement with examples. (Delhi 2017) (A.I. 2017)
Answer:
The size of the territory and per capita income are not directly related to human development:
Often smaller countries have done better than larger ones in human development. Similarly, relatively poorer nations have been ranked higher than richer neighbours in terms of human development.

For example Sri Lanka, Trinidad and Tobago have a higher rank than India in the human development index despite having smaller economies. Similarly, within India, Kerala performs much better than Punjab and Gujarat in human development despite having lower per capita income.

Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 12 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 4 Human Development appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Force and Laws of Motion Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 9

Extra Questions for Class 9 Science Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion

Force and Laws of Motion Class 9 Extra Questions Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Name the scientist who proved for the first time that objects move with constant speed when no force acts on them.
Answer:
Galileo.

Question 2.
Why do bicycles begin to slow down when we stop pedalling?
Answer:
This is because of the frictional forces acting opposite to the direction of motion.

Question 3.
Which law of motion gives the measure of force?
Answer:
Newton’s second law of motion.

Question 4.
Write the C.G.S unit of force.
Answer:
Dyne.

Question 5.
Can every force produce motion in every object?
Answer:
No.

Question 6.
When a force is applied to a body, what are the two essential effects it can produce?
Answer:

• It can bring about the change in the state of motion of a body or
• It can deform a body, i.e., it can change its shape.

Question 7.
Define 1 newton force.
Answer:
1 newton is the magnitude of force which produces an acceleration of 1 m/s2 in a body of mass 1 kg.

Question 8.
What do you mean by an impact force?
Answer:
The force produced by the impact of a fast moving object on another is called impact force.

Question 9.
Define force of friction.
Answer:
The force acting between any two surfaces in contact and tending to oppose motion is called force of friction.

Question 10.
Define electrostatic force.
Answer:
The force exerted by an electrically charged body is called electrostatic force.

Question 11.
If the body is found to be accelerated, is the force acting on it balanced or unbalanced?
Answer:
Unbalanced.

Question 12.
What do balanced forces usually do to a body?
Answer:
Balanced forces usually produce a change in the shape of the body.

Question 13.
When a body moves on flat surface, will its speed change?
Answer:
No.

Question 14.
What did Galileo conclude on the basis of his experiments on the motion of objects?
Answer:
A body continues to move with the same velocity if no unbalanced force acts on it.

Question 15.
What do you mean by a resultant force?
Answer:
When two or more forces act on a body simultaneously, then the single force which produces the same effect as produced by all the forces acting together is known as the resultant force.

Question 16.
Do action and reaction act on the same body?
Answer:
No, action and reaction act on different bodies.

Question 17.
Plot a graph between force applied on a body and the acceleration produced in the given mass, assuming that the magnitude of force is constantly changing.
Answer:

Question 18.
Write the SI unit of impulse.
Answer:
Ns.

Question 19.
What is the total momentum of a bullet and a gun before firing?
Answer:
Zero.

Question 20.
Name the principle on which a rocket works.
Answer:
Newton’s third law of motion

Question 21.
Body A is heavier than body Question Which has more inertia?
Answer:
A has more inertia.

Question 22.
A body is moving with uniform acceleration. Is its momentum constant?
Answer:
No.

Question 23.
Name the physical quantity that corresponds to the rate of change of momentum.
Answer:
Force.

Question 24.
Which principle is involved in the working of a jet plane?
Answer:
Newton’s third law of motion.

Question 25.
Why mass is sometimes called coefficient of linear inertia?
Answer:
It is easier to pull a lighter body than a heavier body. Therefore, more the mass more will be the inertia. That is why mass is sometimes termed as coefficient of linear inertia.

Question 26.
When a force acting on a body has equal and opposite reaction, then why should the body move at all?
Answer:
The action and reaction act on different bodies. Therefore, the body moves under the action of the acting force.

Question 27.
Does Newton’s third law apply to a system where bodies do not actually touch each other?
Answer:
Yes, whenever the bodies are in actual contact or even if there is an interaction between the bodies (e.g., attraction or repulsion between two magnets charges, etc.), Newton’s third law is applicable.

Question 28.
Suppose a ball of mass m is thrown vertically upwards with an initial speed v, its speed decreases continuously till it becomes zero. Therefore, the ball begins to fall downward and attains the speed v again before striking the ground. It implies that the magnitude of initial and final momenta of the ball are same. Yet, it is not an example of conservation of momentum. Explain why.
Answer:
Law of conservation of momentum is applicable to isolated system (no external force is applied). In this case, the change in velocity is due to the gravitational force of earth.

Force and Laws of Motion Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Questions-I

Question 1.
What is the ratio of SI units to CGS units of momentum? How do you measure the effect of an impulsive force on the body?
Answer:
A ratio of SI units to CGS units of momentum is (kg m/s)/(g cm/s) i.e., 10s.
The effect of an impulse force on the body is measured only in terms of impulse.

Question 2.
On which factors does friction depend?
Answer:
The force of friction is directly proportional to the weight of the body sliding over the surface. The force of friction also depends on the nature of the surfaces in contact.

Question 3.
A bullet fired against a glass window pane makes a hole in it, and the glass pane is not cracked. But on the other hand, when a stone strikes the same glass pane, it gets smashed. Why is it so?
Answer:
When the bullet strikes the glass pane, the part of the glass pane which comes in contact with the bullet immediately shares the large velocity of bullet and makes a hole, while the remaining part of the glass remains at rest and is therefore not smashed due to inertia of rest.

But when a slow moving stone strikes the same glass pane, the various parts of the glass pane gets enough time to share the velocity of the stone, and the glass is smashed.

Question 4.
Why can a small mass such as a bullet kill a person when fired from a gun?
Answer:
It is so because even if the mass of the bullet is small, it moves out of the gun with a very high velocity, due to which the momentum produced is high (p = mv). This high momentum of the bullet kills a person.

Question 5.
Why does a boat tend to leave the shore, when passengers are alighting from it?
Answer:
When the passengers alight from the boat, they push the boat in backward direction. As a result, the boat has a tendency to slip back into water. This difficulty is usually overcome by the boatman by tying the boat to some rigid support.

Question 6.
Describe our walking in terms of Newton’s third law of motion.
Answer:
When we walk on the ground or road, our foot pushes the ground backward (action) and the ground pushes our foot forward (reaction). Thus, the forward reaction exerted by the ground on our foot makes us walk forward.

Question 7.
There are three solids made up of aluminium, steel and wood, of the same shape and same volume. Which of them would have highest inertia? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Steel has the highest inertia. As the mass is a measure of inertia, the ball of same shape and size, having more mass than other balls will have highest inertia. Since steel has greatest density and greatest mass, therefore, it has highest inertia.

Question 8.
Why does a cricket player moves his hand backward while catching the ball?
Answer:
A fast moving cricket ball has a large momentum. In stopping or catching this ball, its momentum has reduced to be zero. Now, when a cricket player moves back his hands on catching the fast ball, then the time taken to reduce the momentum of ball to zero is increased. Due to more time taken to stop the ball, the rate of change of momentum of ball is decreased and hence a small force is exerted on the hands of player. So, the hands of player do not get hurt.

Question 9.
Two identical bullets are fired one by a light rifle and the other by a heavy rifle with the same force. Which rifle will hurt the shoulder more and why? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
According to conservation of momentum, the rifle recoils with same momentum as that of bullet. As momentum = mass X velocity; so light rifle will recoil with larger velocity and hence, will hurt the shoulder more.

Question 10.
Water sprinkler used for grass lawns begins to rotate as soon as as the water is supplied. Explain the principle on which it works. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
The working of the rotation of sprinkler is based on third law of motion. As the water comes out of the nozzle of the sprinkler, an equal and opposite reaction force comes into play. So the sprinkler starts rotating.

Force and Laws of Motion Class 9 Extra Questions Short Answer Questions—II

Question 1.
Deduce Newton’s first law from the second law.
Answer:
According to second law, F = ma
If F = 0, a =0 since m ≠ 0,
But a =
or, v – u =0 so, v = u for whatever time t is taken.
This means that the object will continue moving with uniform velocity, u throughout the time, t. If u is zero then v will also be zero. That is, the object will remain at rest.

Question 2.
When small boy is trying to push a heavy stone, mention various forces acting on the stone.
Answer:
The various forces acting on the stone are:

• The gravitational force exerted by the earth which pulls the stone downwards.
• The force of reaction exerted by the ground on the stone vertically upwards.
• The force of pushing exerted by the boy.
• The force of friction exerted by the stone.

When a small boy tries to push a heavy stone, then all these forces are balanced, and therefore the stone does not move.

Question 3.
Describe in brief an activity to illustrate the property of inertia of rest.
Answer:

• Make a pile of similar carom coins on a table, as shown in figure.
• Attempt a sharp horizontal hit at the bottom of the pile using another carom coin or the striker. If the hit is strong enough, the bottom coin moves out quickly. Once the lowest coin is removed, the inertia of the other coins makes them ‘fall’ vertically on the table.
• The inertia of coins tries to maintain its state of rest even when one of the coin moves out.

Question 4.
Give few examples of Newton’s third law of motion.
Answer:

• Jet aeroplanes and rockets work on the principle of third law of motion.
  In this case, the hot gases come out of a nozzle with great force, i.e., action and the rocket moves ‘ with high speed upwards as a reaction.
• If we fill a balloon with air and hold it with its mouth downwards, then when release the balloon, the air rushes out vertically downwards (action). The balloon moves vertically upwards (reaction).

Question 5.
Two friends on roller-skates are standing 5 m apart facing each other. One of them throws a ball of 2 kg towards the other, who catches it. How will this activity affect the position of the two? Explain your answer. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Separation between them will increase. Initially the momentum of both of them are zero as they are at rest. In order to conserve the momentum the one who throws the ball would move backward. The second will experience a net force after catching the ball and therefore will move backwards that is in the direction of the force.

Question 6.
Why does an athlete puts some sands or cushion on the ground while high jumping?
Answer:
When a high jumper falls on a soft landing site(such as cushion or a heap of sand), then the jumper takes a longer time to come to stop. The rate of change of momentum of athlete is less due to which a smaller stopping force acts on the athlete. And the athlete does not get hurt. Thus, the cushion or sand, being soft, reduces the athlete’s momentum more gently. If however, a high jumping athlete falls from a height on to hard ground, then his momentum will be reduced to zero in a very short time. The rate of change of momentum will be large due to which a large opposing force will act on the athlete. This can cause serious injuries to the athlete.

Question 7.
Describe balanced forces with the help of two examples.
Answer:
If the resultant of various forces acting on a body is zero, the forces are said to be ‘balanced forces’. These forces do not change the speed but usually change the shape of an object.
Examples:
(a) Consider a wooden block lying on a table, the strings tied to its two opposite faces, as shown in the figure.
If we pull at point P, it begins to move towards left. If we pull at point Q, it begins to move . towards right. But if we pull from both the sides with equal force, the block does not move. The two forces have now balanced each other.

(b) In a tug-of-war, the two teams pull the rope with equal effort; the rope is not moved in any direction. This is clearly because the forces exerted by the two teams are equal and opposite and thus get balanced.

Question 8.
Why do the driver and the person seated in front seat need a seat belt?
Answer:
In a car accident, a fast running car stops suddenly. Due to this the car’s large momentum is reduced to zero in a very short time. The stretchable seat belts tightened by the passengers of the car increases time taken by the passengers to fall forward. Due to longer time, the rate change of momentum of passengers is reduced and hence less stopping force acts on them. So, the passengers may either not get injured at all or may get less injuries. It is obvious that seat belts reduce the passengers’ momentum more gently and hence prevent injuries.

Force and Laws of Motion Class 9 Extra Questions Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Describe Newton’s first law of motion in detail, giving examples.
Answer:
According to Newton’s first law of motion, a body at rest or in uniform motion will remain at rest or in uniform motion unless an unbalanced force acts upon it. This law consists of three parts:

• The first part says that a body at rest continues in its state of rest. For instance, a boy standing in a train falls backward when the train suddenly starts moving forward. This is because when the bus moves, the lower part of his body begins to move along with the train while the upper part of his body continues to remain at rest due to inertia.
• The second part says that a body in uniform motion continues to move in straight line path with a uniform speed, e.g., when a moving train stops suddenly a person sitting in it falls forward. This is because as the train stops, the lower part of the person’s body comes to rest along with the bus while upper part of his body continues to remain in ^notion due to inertia of motion and thus he falls forward.
• Third part says that a body moving with a uniform speed in a straight line cannot change its direction of motion by itself. For example, when a bus takes a sharp turn, a person sitting in the bus gets force acting away from the centre of the curved path due to his tendency to move in the original direction.

Question 2.
Derive the mathematical relation of Newton’s second law of motion.
Answer:
Consider an object of mass m moving along a straight line with an initial velocity u (say). It is uniformly accelerated to velocity u in time t by the application of a constant force F in time t.
Then, initial momentum of the object = mu
p₁ =mu
Final momentum of the object = mv
p₂ = mv
∴ Change in momentum = mv – mu = m(v – u)
The rate of change in momentum =
According to Newton’s second law of motion, we have
F ∝
F = km
F = kma ……….(1)
Here, a = = the rate of change of velocity.
= acceleration
k = a constant of proportionality
Putting m = 1kg, a = 1 ms^-2
F becomes 1 N.
So, 1 N = 4 × 1kg × 1 ms^-2
∴ k = 1
From equation (1), we have
F = ma
This represents the second law of motion.
Thus, the second law of motion gives a method to measure the force acting on an object as a product of its mass and acceleration.

Question 3.
Derive the mathematical formula of conservation of momentum.
Answer:
To explain conservation of momentum, let us take the following example. Consider two balls A and B having masses ml andm, respectively. Let the initial velocity of ball A be u₁, and that of ball B be u₂ (u₁ > u₂). Their collision takes place for a very short interval of time t and after that A and B start moving with velocities v₁ and v₂ (now v₁ < v₂) respectively as shown in Figure.

The momentum of ball A before and after the collision is miul and mlvl respectively. If there are no external forces acting on the body, then the rate of change of momentum of ball A, during the collision will be
=
and, similarly the rate of change in momentum of ball B
=
Let F₁₂ be the force exerted by hall A on B F₂₁ be the force exerted by hall B on A. Then, according to Newton’s second law of motion
F₁₂ = and F₂₁ =
According to Newton’s third law of motion, we have
F₁₂ = -F₂₁
or
or m₁v₁ – m₁u₁ = -m₂v₂ + m₂u₂ or m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ =m₁v₁ + m₂v₂
i.e..Total momentum before collision = Total momentum after collision
Thus, we find that in a collision between the two balls the total momentum before and after the collision remains unchanged or conserved provided no net force acts on the system. This result is law of conservation of momentum.

Question 4.
What is the relationship between mass and inertia? Explain with the help of examples.
Answer:
The mass of a body is a measure of its inertia. It means larger the mass of a body, larger will be the inertia offered by the body to change its state of motion. The following examples will clarify the concept:

• When we kick a football, it flies a long way but at the same time if we kick a stone of the same size, it hardly moves, as the stone resists a change in its motion better than the football because of its more mass.
• We can increase the velocity of our bicycle by pedaling harder, i.e., on applying more force. But the same force will produce a negligible change in the motion of a bus, because in comparison to the bicycle, a bus has more tendency to oppose any change in its state of motion because of its larger mass i.e., the bus has more inertia than the bicycle.
  The SI unit of mass and inertia is kilogram (kg).

Question 5.
Describe Newton’s third law of motion.
Answer:
According to this law, to every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
When an object, say A, exert a force (action) on another object, say B, then B also exerts a force (reaction) on the A. These two forces are always equal in magnitude but opposite in direction.

As shown in the above figure, if be the force exerted by body A on B and is the force exerted by B on A, then according to Newton’s third law,
= –
or Force on A by B = – Force on B by A
or Reaction = – Action
This law clarifies that a single force can never exist and that the forces always exist in pairs. The two opposing forces are known as action and reaction. The forces of action and reaction always act on two different bodies.

Numericals
Question 1.
A bullet of 10 g strikes a sand bag at a speed of 10³ ms^-1 and gets embedded after travelling 5 cm. Calculate
(i) the resistive force exerted by the sand on the bullet.
(ii) the time taken by the bullet to come to rest. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
(i) m = 10 g = kg, u = 10³ m / s, v = 0, s = m
v² – u² = 2as
0 – (10³)² = 2.a.
a = × 100
= -10⁷ ms^-2
F = m . a = -10⁵ N

(ii) v = u + at
0 = 10³ – 10⁷t
10⁷t = 10³
t = = 10^-4 s

Question 2.
A body of mass 300 g kept at rest breaks into two parts due to internal forces. One part of mass 200 g is found to move at a speed of 12 m/s towards the east. What will be the velocity of the other part?
Answer:
Initially the body was at rest. The linear momentum of the body is thus p = mu = 0. The body breaks due to internal forces. As the external force acting on it is zero, its linear momentum will remain constant, that is, zero.
p₁ = m₁v₁ = (200 g) × (12 m/s), towards the east.
The linear momentum of the other part must have the same magnitude and should be opposite in direction. It therefore moves towards the west. If its speed is v₂, its linear momentum is
p₂ = m₂v₂ = (100 g) × v₂.
Now, m₁v₁ = m₂v₂.
Thus, (200 g) × (12 m/s) = (100 g) × v₂ or, v₂ = 24m/s.
The velocity of the other part is 24 m/s towards the west.

Question 3.
A force of 5 N produces an acceleration of 8 ms^-2 on a mass m₁ and an acceleration of 24 ms^-2 on a mass m₂. What acceleration would the same force provide if both the masses are tied together? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
We know, T=m a = 5 N or 5kg ms^-2

Question 4.
The velocity-time graph of a ball moving on the surface of floor is shown in the figure. Calculate the force acting on the ball, if mass of the ball is 100 g.
Answer:
The velocity-time graph shows that the velocity of the ball at t = 0 is zero. Initial velocity of ball, u = 0
Velocity of ball at t = 4 s is 20 ms^-1
That is, final velocity, v = 20 ms^-1
Time, t = 4 s
∴ Acceleration of the ball, a =

Question 5.
A bullet of mass 4 g when fired with a velocity of 50 ms^-1, can enter a wall up to a depth of 10 cm. How much will be the average resistances offered by the wall?
Answer:
The hindrance offered by the wall to the motion of bullet is called the resistance offered by wall.
Mass of the bullet, m = 4 × 1^-3 kg
Initial velocity, Depth, u = 50 ms^-1
Depth, s = 10cm = m
Final velocity, v = 0,
Force, F = ?
We know
v² = u² + 2as
v² – u² = 2as
0 – (50)² = 2a ×
or, -2500 =
⇒ a = -12500ms^-1
Force, F = ma = 4 × 10^-3 × (-12500)
= -50N
Thus, the average resistance offered = 50 N
Negative sign indicates that the force is acting opposite to the motion.

Question 6.
What is the acceleration produced by a force of 12 newton exerted on an object of mass 3 kg?
Answer:
In this problem, force, F = 12 N
Mass, m = 3 kg
We know that F = m × a,
Putting the given values, we have
12 = 3 × a
a = m/ s²
or, Acceleration, a = 4 m/s².

Question 7.
A cracker of mass 100 g explodes into two pieces of equal mass. Show that these two pieces of the cracker fly in opposite direction.
Answer:
Mass of a cracker, m = 100 g = kg = 0·1 kg.
Initially, cracker is at rest, i.e. ,u = 0
Therefore, initial momentum of the cracker = mu = 0
After explosion, mass of each piece = kg = 0·05 kg
∴ m₁ = 0·05 kg and m₂ = 0·05 kg
Let, v₁ = velocity of first piece
v₂ = velocity of second piece Momentum of cracker after explosion = m₁v₁ + m₂v₂
= 0·05 v₁ + 0·05 v₂
Applying law of conservation of momentum
0·05 v₁ + 0·05 v₂ = 0 or v₁ = -v₂
The negative sign shows that v₁ and v₂ are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.
Thus, two pieces of the cracker fly in opposite directions with same speed.

Question 8.
An iron sphere of mass 1 kg is dropped from a height of 10 m. If the acceleration of sphere is 9.8 ms^-2, calculate the momentum transferred to the ground by the ball.
Answer:
Here, initial velocity of sphere, u = 0
Distance travelled, s = 10 m
Acceleration of sphere, a = 9.8 ms^-2
Final velocity of sphere when it just reaches the ground can be calculated using
v² – u² = 2as
or, v² – 0 = 2 × 9·8 ms^-2 × 10 m = 196 m²s^-2
or, v = = 14 ms^-1
Momentum of the sphere just before it touches the ground = mv
= 1 kg × 14 ms^{– 1} = 14 kg ms^-1
On reaching the ground, the iron sphere comes to rest, so its final momentum is equal to zero according to the law of conservation of momentum.
Momentum transferred to the ground = Momentum of the sphere just before it comes to rest = 14 kg ms^-1

Question 9.
A bullet of mass 0.02 kg is fired from a gun weighing 7.5 kg. If the initial velocity of the bullet is 200 m/s, calculate the speed with which the gun recoils.
Answer:
Here, the mass of the bullet, m₁ = 0.02 kg
Mass of gun, m₂ = 7.5 kg
Velocity of bullet, v₁ = 200 m / s
and the speed of gun, v₂ = ?
According to law of conservation of momentum, we have
Total momentum of system after firing = Total momentum of system before firing
i.e., m¹v¹ + m²v² = 0
(since initial velocities of gun and bullet before firing is zero.)
or, 0.02 × 200 + 7.5 × v₂ = 0
or,7.5 × v₂ =- 0.02 × 200
or, v₂ = = – 0.533
or v₂ = – 0.53 m/s

Question 10.
The velocity-time graph of a ball moving on the surface of a floor is shown in the figure. Find the force acting on the ball if the mass of the ball is 50 g.

Answer:
The velocity-time graph shows that velocity of the ball at t = 0 is 30 ms^-1. That is, initial velocity of the ball, w = 30 ms^-1
The velocity of the ball at t = 6 s is zero.
That is, final velocity of the ball, v = 0
Time, t = 6 s
Acceleration of the ball,
a =
= – 5 ms ^-2
Negative sign shows that the ball is retarded or decelerated.
Also, mass of ball, m = 50 g = kg
∴ Force acting on the ball, F =ma
=
= – 0.25 kg ms^-2
= – 0.25 N [∵ 1 kg ms^-2 = 1 N]
Here -ve sign indicates that the force is retarding or stopping force.

Question 11.
A man throws a ball of mass 0.4 kg vertically upwards with a velocity of 10 m/s. What will be its initial momentum? What would be its momentum at the highest point of its reach?
Answer:
Here, m = 0.4 kg, u = 10 m/s
Initial momentum of the ball = mu = 0.4 × 10 = 4 kg m/s At the highest point, velocity of ball is zero,
So momentum of the ball = 0 × 4 × 0 = 0

Question 12.
Which would require a greater force—accelerating a 2 kg mass at 5 ms^-2 or a 4 kg mass at 2 ms^-2 ?
Answer:
Here, m₁ = 2 kg , a₁ = 5 ms^-2, m₂ = 4 kg, a₂ = 2 ms^-2
F₁ = m₁a₁ = 2 × 5 = 10N
F₂ = m₂a₂ = 4 × 2 = 8 N
F₁ > F₂
Thus, accelerating a 2 kg mass at 5 ms^-2 acceleration would require a greater force.

Question 13.
A bullet of mass 20 g is horizontally fired with a horizontal velocity 150 ms^-1 from a pistol of mass 2 kg. What is the recoil velocity of the pistol?

Answer:
For bullet: m₁ = 20g = 0.02 kg,
u₁ = 0 ms^-1, v₁ = + 150 ms^-1
[By convention, the direction of bullet is taken from left to right (positive)]
For pistol: m₂ = 2kg, u₂ = 0 ms^-1,
Total momenta of the pistol and bullet before the fire
= m₁u₁ + m₂u₂
= 0.02 kg × 0 ms^-1 + 2kg × 0 ms^-1
= 0 kg ms^-1
Total momenta of the pistol and bullet after the fire
= m₁v₁ + m₂v₂
= 0.02 kg × (+ 150 ms^-1) + 2kg + v₂ ms^-1
= (3+ 2v₂) kg ms^-1
According to the law of conservation of momentum,
Total momenta after the fire = Total momenta before the fire
3 + 2v₂ = 0
⇒ 2v₂ = – 3
⇒ v₂ = —1.5 ms^-1
Negative sign indicates that the direction in which the pistol would recoil is opposite to that of bullet (right to left).
Total momenta of the pistol and bullet before the fire
= m₁u₁ + m₂u₂
= 0.02 kg × 0 ms^-1 + 2 kg × 0 ms^-1
= 0 kg ms^-1
Total momenta of the pistol and bullet after the fire = m₁v₁ + m₂v₂
= 0.02kg × (+150ms^-1) + 2kg + v₂ ms^-1
= (3 + 2v₂)kg ms^-1
According to the law of conservation of momentum, we have
Total momenta after the fire = Total momenta before the fire
3 + 2v₂ = 0
⇒ 2v₂ = – 3
⇒ v₂ = – 1.5 ms^-1
Negative sign indicates that the direction in which the pistol would recoil is opposite to that of bullet (right to left).

Question 14.
A boy of mass 40 kg jumps with a horizontal velocity of 5 ms^-1 onto a stationary cart with frictionless wheels. The mass of the cart is 3 kg. What is his velocity as the cart starts moving? Assume that there is no external unbalanced force working in horizontal direction.
Answer:
Suppose the velocity of the boy on the cart, as the cart starts moving is v.
∴ The total momenta of the boy and cart before the interaction
= 40 kg × 5 ms^-1 + 3 kg × 0 ms^-1
= 200 kg ms^-1
Also, the total momenta after the interaction
= (40 + 3) kg × v ms^-1
= 43v kg ms^-1

As per the law of conservation of momentum, the total momentum is conserved during the interaction.
In other words,
43 v = 200
or, v = = 4.65 ms^-1
Thus, the boy on cart would move with a velocity of 4.65 ms-1 in the direction in which the boy jumped onto the cart.

Force and Laws of Motion Class 9 Extra Questions HOTS (Higher Order Thinking Skills)

Question 1.
Why does an athlete run a certain distance before taking a leap?
Answer:
An athlete runs a certain distance before taking a leap so that the inertia of motion of his body at the time of leaping may help him in his muscular efforts.

Question 2.
Two balls of the same size of different materials, rubber and iron are kept on the smooth floor of a moving train. The brakes are applied suddenly to stop the train. Will the balls start rolling? If so, in which direction? Will they move with the same speed? Give reasons for your answer. [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
Yes, the balls will start rolling in the direction in which the train was moving. Due to the application of the brakes, the train comes to rest but due to inertia the balls try to remain in motion, therefore, they begin to roll. Since the masses of the balls are not the same, therefore, the inertial forces are not same on both the balls. Thus, the balls will move with different speeds.

Question 3.
The velocity-time graph of an object of mass m = 50 g is shown in figure. Observe the graph carefully and answer the following questions.
(a) Calculate the force on the object in time interval 0 to 3 s.
(b) Calculate the force on the object in the time interval 6 to 10 s.
(c) Is there any time interval in which no force acts on the object? Justify your answer.

Answer:
(a) Acceleration during interval 0 to 3 s

Force, F₂ = ma₂ = = – 1.5 N
(c) During time interval 3 to 6 s, the velocity of object is constant, so in this time interval, acceleration is zero and hence force, F (= ma) is zero.]

Question 4.
If an object is not moving, does it mean that no force is acting on it?
Answer:
No, it implies that all the forces acting on the body are balanced.

Question 5.
A horse continues to apply a force in order to move a cart with a constant speed. Explain why? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answer:
A horse exerts a continuous force to move the cart with a constant velocity to overcome the force of friction between ground and cart.

Extra Questions for Class 9 Science

The post Force and Laws of Motion Class 9 Extra Questions Science Chapter 9 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions History Chapter 2 The Nationalist Movement in Indo-China

Very Short Answer Questions (VSA) 1 Mark

Question 1.
How was the maritime silk route useful for Vietnam? (2015 D)
Answer:
Vietnam was linked to maritime silk route which brought in goods, people and ideas.

Question 2.
Classify the economy on the basis of the nature of the activity. (2015)
Answer:
The economy is classified on the basis of economic activities into three sectors namely— Primary sector, Secondary sector and Tertiary sector.

Question 3.
What was the result of the peace negotiation in Geneva that followed the French defeat in Vietnam? (2016 D)
Answer:
In the peace negotiation in Geneva that followed the French defeat, the Vietnamese were persuaded to accept the division of the country. North and South were split. Ho Chi Minh and the communists took power in North. Bao Dai’s regime was put in power in South.

Question 4.
Name the writer who wrote a play based on the lives of Trung sisters. (2016 D)
Answer:
Phan Boi Chau.

Question 5.
What were the two bases of colonial economy in Vietnam? (2016 D)
Answer:
Bases of colonial economy in Vietnam:

1. Rice cultivation
2. Rubber plantation

Question 6.
Who were called colons in Vietnam? (2016 OD)
Answer:
French citizens living in Vietnam were known as colons.

Question 7.
What was the main aim of the Scholar Revolt of 1868? (2016 OD)
Answer:
The main aim of Scholar Revolt of 1868 was to oppose French control and expansion of Christianity.

Question 8.
Who led the ‘Scholar Revolt’ in Vietnam in 1868? (2016 0D)
Answer:
The “Scholar Revolt” in Vietnam in 1868 was led by officials at the imperial court.

Short Answer Questions (SA) 3 Marks

Question 9.
Describe infrastructural projects which were developed by the French colonisers in Vietnam. (2012 D, 2012 OD)
Answer:
Infrastructural projects which were developed by the French colonisers in Vietnam:

1. The French built canals and drained lands in the Mekong Delta to increase cultivation. The irrigation canals helped to increase rice production and allowed the export of rice to the international market.
2. Transport networks were laid to help transport goods for trade and move military garrisons.
3. Information projects started in order to transport goods. The French constructed trans-Indo-China rail network to connect the northern and the southern parts of Vietnam and Yunan in China. The second line was built linking Vietnam to Siam via the Cambodian Capital of Phnom Penh.

Question 10.
Explain the views of Phan Chu Trinh as a nationalist. (2013 D)
Answer:
Phan Chu Trinh was intensely hostile to the monarchy. He wished to overthrow the monarchy and create a democratic Republic for Vietnam.

1. He was greatly influenced by the western ideas of democracy and did not want a wholesale rejection of the western civilization.
2. He accepted the French revolutionary ideal of liberty but charged the French for not abiding by the ideal.
3. He demanded that the French set up legal and educational institutions, and develop agriculture and industries in Vietnam.

Question 11.
Explain any three features of the “go east movement” in Vietnam. (2011 D)
Answer:
The three features of the “go east movement” in Vietnam were:

1. Primary objective of Vietnamese students who went to Japan to acquire modern education in 1907-08, was to drive out French from Vietnam.
2. Their aim was to overthrow the puppet regime and re-establish the Nguyen dynasty that had been deposed by the French with the help of foreign arms.
3. The Vietnamese nationalists asked for Japanese support to accomplish their mission as Japan had modernized itself and had resisted colonisation by West and its victory over Russia in 1907 proved its military capabilities.

Question 12.
Explain the reactions within the United States to its involvement in the Vietnam War during the 1960s. (2011 D)
Answer:
The effect of United States being involved in the Vietnam War of 1960s was also felt within United States:

1. Many became critical of the government for getting involved in an indefensible war.
2. Anger spread out amongst the youth because of the government’s discriminatory practise. Compulsory service in armed forces was only forced on the minorities and children of working class families and not on the privileged elites.
3. US media and films played a major role in both, supporting and motivating the youth to participate in war, as well as criticizing the war as unreasonable.

Question 13.
Explain the role of women as warriors in Vietnam during the 1960s. (2011 OD)
Answer:
Role of women in the anti-imperial struggle in Vietnam:
(i) In the 1960s, photographs in magazines and journals showed women as brave fighters. There were pictures of women militia shooting down planes. Women were portrayed as young, brave and dedicated. Some stories spoke of their incredible bravery in single-handedly killing the enemy — Nguyen Thi Xuan, for instance, was reputed to have shot down a jet with just twenty bullets.
(ii) Women were represented not only as warriors but also as workers. They were shown with a rifle in one hand and a hammer in the other. Whether young or old, women began to be depicted as selflessly working and fighting to save the country.
(iii) Many women joined the resistance movement. They helped in nursing the wounded, constructing underground rooms and tunnels and fighting the enemy.
(iv) Along the Ho Chi Minh trail, young volunteers kept open 2195 kms of strategic roads and guarded 2500 key points. They built six airstrips, neutralized tens of thousands of bombs, transported tens of thousands of kilograms of cargo, weapons and food and shot down fifteen planes. Of the 17,000 youth who worked on the trail, 70 to 80 per cent were women.

Question 14.
Explain the contribution of Ho Chi Minh in the freedom movement of Vietnam. (2013 D)
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh was one of the greatest teachers, who fought for the freedom and unification of Vietnam.

1. He started organizing the Communist and Nationalist movements soon after the end of the First World War.
2. In 1930, he brought together competing nationalist groups to establish Vietnamese Communist Party. He was inspired by the militant demonstration of the European Communist Parties.
3. In 1940, Japanese occupied Vietnam. So the nationalists now had to fight against the Japanese as well as French. A league called ‘Viet Minh’ was formed to fight with Japanese and Ho Chi Mirth became its Chairman.
4. After the US intervention in Vietnam, he supported the NLF (National Liberation Front) with resources and army to fight against the mighty US army.
   In his honour, the capital city of Saigon is now named as Ho Chi Minh city.

Question 15.
Why was the ‘Tonkin School’ started in Vietnam? Explain any three reasons. (2013 OD)
Or
Explain any three characteristics of the ‘Tonkin free School’ in Vietnam. (2011 OD)
Answer:
The main objective of the Tonkin Free School was to provide western style education to Vietnamese. Reasons:

1. This education included classes in Science, Hygiene and French. (These classes were held in the evening and had to be paid for separately.)
2. It was not enough to acquire knowledge in Science and western ideas but was also important to learn to look ‘modem’.
3. The school encouraged the adoption of western style such as having a short haircut. This was a major break for the Vietnamese identity because they traditionally kept long hair.
4. The French tried to strengthen their rule in Vietnam through the control of education and tried to change the values, norms and perceptions of people to accept the superiority of French culture and civilization. (any three)
   Vietnamese intellectuals on the other hand feared that Vietnam was losing not just control over territory but also its identity, its own culture, customs and traditions.

Question 16.
Why did a major protest erupt in 1926 in the Saigon Native Girls School in Vietnam? Explain. (2015 D, 2014 D)
Answer:
A major protest erupted in the Saigon Native Girls School when a Vietnamese girl sitting in one of the front seats was asked to move to the back of the class and allow a local French student to occupy the front seat. The girl refused and she was expelled by the Principal (also a local French). When the angry students protested, they too were expelled. This led to further open protests. Seeing the situation getting out of control, the government forced the school to take the expelled students back.

Question 17.
How did students in Vietnam fighf against the colonial government’s efforts to prevent Vietnamese from qualifying for ‘white collar jobs’? (2014 OD)
Answer:
The students were inspired by patriotic feelings and the conviction that it was the duty of the educated to fight for the benefit of society.
This brought them into conflict with the French as well as the traditional elite since both saw their position threatened.

By the 1920s, students were forming various political parties, such as the Party of the Young Annan and publishing nationalist journals such as the Annanese Student.

Schools thus become an important place for political and cultural battles.

Question 18.
How did Paul Bernard argue in favour of economic development of Vietnam? Explain. (2015 OD)
Or
Explain the views of Paul Bernard regarding the economy of Vietnam. (2011 D)
Answer:
Paul Bernard was an influential writer and policy-maker who strongly believed that the purpose of acquiring colonies was to make profits.

1. According to him, the development of economy will raise the standard of people and people would buy more goods. The market would consequently expand, leading to better profit for French business.
2. According to Bernard, there were several barriers to economic growth in Vietnam, such as large population, low agricultural productivity and extensive indebtedness amongst the peasants.
3. To reduce the poverty and increase agricultural productivity, it was necessary to carry out land reforms.
4. Industrialisation was also essential for creating more jobs as agriculture was not likely to ensure sufficient employment opportunities.

Question 19.
Explain any three points, how school textbooks in Vietnam glorified the French and justified colonial rule? (2011 OD)
Answer:
Three points to prove that the school textbooks in Vietnam glorified the French and justified colonial
rule:

1. The Vietnamese were represented as primitive and backward, capable of manual labour but not of intellectual reflection.
2. Vietnamese were said to be only capable of working in the fields but not rule themselves as they were merely copyists and lacked creativity.
3. School children were told that only French rule could ensure peace in Vietnam. The French claimed that the establishment of French rule had led to an atmosphere of security against the constant terror of pirates, so that Vietnamese peasants could live and work in peace.

Question 20.
How did nationalism emerge in Vietnam through the efforts of different sections of society to fight against the French? Analyse. (2016 D)
Nationalism in Vietnam emerged through the efforts of different sections of the society:

1. The colonisation of Vietnam by the French brought the people of the country into conflict with the colonisers in all areas of life. Nationalist resistance developed when the French troops landed in Vietnam.
2. Schools became an important place for cultural and political battles. Students played a major role by travelling outside Vietnam to Japan to acquire modern education. Their main aim was to seek foreign help to overthrow the puppet emperor and re-establish the Nguyen dynasty. By 1920s, students were forming various political parties such as Party of Young Annan and publishing journals such as Annanese Student to promote patriotic feelings.
3. Teachers and students did not accept the French curriculum in schools. Teachers spread nationalism by modifying texts and criticising what was stated in the textbooks.
4. During the nationalist movement, a new image of womanhood emerged. Political thinkers and writers began idealising women rebels of the past. Many women joined the resistance movement. They helped in nursing the wounded, constructing underground rooms and tunnels and even shot down 15 enemy fighter-planes.
5. Religious scholars opposed the presence and spread of Christianity by French Christian missionaries.

Question 21.
“The Ho Chi Minh Trail became advantageous to Vietnamese in the war against U.S.” Support the statement with arguments. (2016 OD)
Answer:
“The Ho-Chi-Minh Trail became advantageous to Vietnamese in the war against U.S.”

1. The trail symbolizes how the Vietnamese used their limited resources to great advantage.
2. The trail, an immense network of footpaths and roads was used to transport men and material from North to South.
3. It was improved in late 1950s and from 1967 about 20,000 North Vietnamese troops came south each month. The trail had support bases and hospitals along the way.
4. Mostly supplies were carried by women porters on their backs or on their bicycles.
5. The U.S regularly bombed this trail to disrupt supplies but efforts to destroy this important supply line by intensive bombing failed because they were rebuilt very quickly.

Question 22.
Describe any three changes that came in the life of Vietnamese after the colonisation of Vietnam by the French. (2017 D)
Answer:
The colonization of Vietnam by the French troops brought the native population in conflict with the colonisers mainly in military, economic, educational and religious fields. The French troops had landed in Vietnam in 1858 and by the mid 1880’s they had taken control of the northern region in Vietnam. In 1887, the French Indo China was formed. The French made regular efforts to colonise most of Vietnam. This brought the French in direct conflict with the Vietnamese who mourned over the loss of their liberty. The national movement thus began to develop in Vietnam—
(i) The French expanded agricultural land in Vietnam by cutting huge chunks of jungles. Rice and rubber cultivation expanded in the region. However, these agricultural farms were largely controlled by the French and a small section of the local elite group. In rural areas the landlords held tight control over the peasants and the general standard of the people declined. The pace of industrialisation was too slow. The peasants and the middle class thus began to feel the negative effects of the French rule. Indentured labour also added to the miseries of the working and the poor classes.

(ii) The Vietnamese came into conflict with the colonisers in the field of education too. The French introduced modem education in Vietnam in order to consolidate their own position. The
traditional Vietnamese education was thus discouraged. The colonial education declared the French as modern and civilized people while the Vietnamese people were painted as uncivilized who needed to be reformed. This educational policy brought the Vietnamese in conflict with the French. The Vietnamese students also wanted to compete for the ‘white collar jobs’. This brought them in conflict with the colonisers and the Vietnamese traditional elite section of the society.

(iii) The French also tried to interfere in the religious affairs of the Vietnamese. The Vietnamese practiced Buddhism, Confucianism and few local religions. Christianity was introduced by the French missionaries. This was resisted by the locals. This brought the latter in conflict with the French. Many religious movements hostile to the French thus emerged in Vietnam such as the Floa Hao movement.

Question 23.
Describe any three problems faced by the French in the sphere of education in Vietnam. (2017 OD)
Answer:
(i) The French needed an educated local labour force, but they feared that once the Vietnamese got educated, they may begin to question colonial domination.
(ii) French citizens living in Vietnam (called ‘colons’) feared that they might lose their jobs as teachers, shopkeepers, policemen to the educated Vietnamese. So they opposed the policy of giving the Vietnamese full access to French education.
(iii) Another problem faced by the French was that the elites in Vietnam were still powerfully influenced by Chinese culture. So the French carefully and systematically dismantled the traditional Vietnamese education system and established French schools for the Vietnamese.
(iv) In the battle against French colonial education, schools became an important place for political and cultural battles. Students fought against the colonial government’s efforts to prevent the Vietnamese from qualifying for white-collared jobs.
(v) There was a protest in Saigon Girls School on the issue of racial discrimination. The protest erupted when a Vietnamese girl sitting in the front row was asked to move back to allow a local French student to occupy the front seat. The girl refused and was expelled along with other students who protested. The government was forced to take the expelled students back in the school to avoid further open protests.

Thus, the battle against French colonial education became part of the larger battle against colonialism and for independence.

Long Answer Questions (LA) 5 Marks

Question 24.
Explain any five ways in which teachers and students organized resistance against the French in Vietnam. (2011 OD)
Answer:
Five ways in which teachers and students organized resistance against the French in Vietnam were:
(i) Teachers and students did not blindly follow the French curriculum. While teaching, the Vietnamese teachers quietly modified the text and criticized the text.
(ii) The Saigon Native Girls School incident led to a major protest against the French by Vietnamese students. The students who were expelled by the school authorities for protesting, were taken back because of the pressure of the open protest by students in Vietnam.
(iii) Students fought against the colonial government’s efforts to prevent the Vietnamese from qualifying for white collar jobs. By 1920s students started forming various political parties and publishing nationalist journals.
(iv) Vietnamese intellectuals including students and teachers started fighting against the French education system as it tried to change the values, norms and perceptions of people, to make them believe in the superiority of the French Civilization and the inferiority of the Vietnamese.
(v) By the 1920s, students formed various political parties, such as the party of ‘Young Annan’ and published nationalist journals such as the ‘Annanese Student’.

Question 25.
“The division of Vietnam set in motion a series of events that turned the country into a battlefield.” Support the statement. (2012 D)
Answer:
The division of Vietnam into north and south turned the country into a battlefield bringing death and destruction to its people as well as the environment.

The Bao Dai regime in the south was overthrown by a coup led by Ngo Dinh Diem. Diem built a repressive and authoritarian government. Anyone who opposed Diem was called a communist and jailed and killed. Diem retained ordinance 10, a French law that permitted Christianity but outlawed Buddhism. Diem’s dictatorial rule was opposed by the National Liberation Front (NLF).

Question 26.
Which were the two major problems before the French in the field of colonial education in Vietnam? How did they try to solve these problems? Explain. (2012 OD)
Answer:
The two major problems before the French in the field of colonial education in Vietnam were as follows:
(i) The French were in a dilemma whether or not to introduce French education in Vietnam, because they feared that Vietnamese may begin to question colonial domination.
(ii) The French wanted to dismantle the Chinese (Traditional) education system in Vietnam. Consequently, they had to remove Chinese as a language of instruction, but they were in a fix whether to introduce only French or Vietnamese in the lower classes and French in the higher classes.
They tried to solve the problems in the following ways:

1. They started the ‘Tonkin Free School’ to provide a western style education. This education included classes in Science, Hygiene and French.
2. They suggested that Vietnamese to be taught in lower classes and French in the higher classes.
3. The few who learned French and acquired French culture were to be awarded with French citizenship.

Question 27.
How were Vietnamese nationalists inspired by Japan and China to set up a democratic republic? Explain with examples. (2013 D)
Answer:
Influence of Japan. In 1907-08, around 300 students from Vietnam went to Japan to acquire modem education.
(i) The primary objective was to drive out the French from Vietnam, overthrow the puppet emperor and reestablish the Nguyen dynasty that had been deposed by the French. For this, they needed foreign help.
(ii) Japan had modernized itself and had resisted colonisation by the West. It had defeated Russia in 1907 and proved its military strength. The Vietnamese nationalists looked for foreign arms and help and appealed to the Japanese as fellow Asians.
(iii) Vietnamese students established a branch of Restoration Society in Tokyo but, in 1908, the Japanese Ministry of Interior clamped down on them. Many, including Phan Boi Chau, were deported and forced to seek exile in China and Thailand.

Developments in China also inspired Vietnamese nationalists:
In 1911, the long established monarchy in China was overthrown by a popular movement under Sun Yat Sen, and a republic was set up. Vietnamese students organized the Association for the Restoration of Vietnam.
Now, the nature of the Anti-French independent movement changed. The objective of the Vietnamese now was to set up a democratic republic.

Question 28.
Describe any five features of the ‘Go East Movement’ (2013 OD)
Answer:

1. In the first decade of the 20th century, a ‘Go East Movement’ became popular. In 1907-08, around 300 students from Vietnam went to Japan to acquire modern education.
2. The primary objective was to drive out the French from Vietnam, overthrow the puppet emperor and reestablish the Nguyen dynasty that had been deposed by the French. For this, they needed foreign help.
3. Japan had modernized itself and had resisted colonization by the West. It had defeated Russia in 1907 and proved its military strength. The Vietnamese nationalists looked for foreign arms and help and appealed to the Japanese as fellow Asians.
4. Vietnamese students established a branch of Restoration Society in Tokyo but, in 1908, the Japanese Ministry of Interior clamped down on them. Many, including Phan Boi Chau, were deported and forced to seek exile in China and Thailand.

Question 29.
Explain, with examples, how religious groups played an important role in the development of anti¬colonial feelings in Vietnam. (2014 OD)
Answer:
Scholars’ Revolt, 1868. It was an early movement against French control and spread of Christianity. It was led by officials at the imperial court angered by the spread of Catholicism and French power. There was an uprising in Ngu An and Ha Tien provinces where the Catholic missionaries had been active in converting people to Christianity since the early 17th century. By the middle of the 18th century, nearly 3,00,000 people had got converted. This had angered the people of these provinces and led to the uprising. Though this uprising was crushed by the French, it had inspired the people of other regions to rise against the French colonialism.

Hoa Hao Movement. It began in 1939 and gained popularity in Mekong delta area. The founder of Hoa Hao was Huynh Phu So. He performed miracles and helped the poor. His criticism against useless expenditure, opposition to the sale of child brides, gambling and the use of alcohol and opium had a wide appeal. The French tried to suppress the movement led by Huynh Phu So and declared him mad, called him the Mad Bonze and put him in a mental asylum. Interestingly, the doctor, who had to certify him insane, became his follower and finally, in 1941, the French doctors declared that he was sane. The French authorities exiled him to Laos and sent his many followers to concentration camps.

Question 30.
Describe the major problems in the field of education for the French in Vietnam. (2015 D)
(i) The French needed an educated local labour force, but they feared that once the Vietnamese got educated, they may begin to question colonial domination.
(ii) French citizens living in Vietnam (called ‘colons’) feared that they might lose their jobs as teachers, shopkeepers, policemen to the educated Vietnamese. So they opposed the policy of giving the Vietnamese full access to French education.
(iii) Another problem faced by the French was that the elites in Vietnam were still powerfully influenced by Chinese culture. So the French carefully and systematically dismantled the traditional Vietnamese education system and established French schools for the Vietnamese.
(iv) In the battle against French colonial education, schools became an important place for political and cultural battles. Students fought against the colonial government’s efforts to prevent the Vietnamese from qualifying for white-collared jobs.
(v) There was a protest in Saigon Girls School on the issue of racial discrimination. The protest erupted when a Vietnamese girl sitting in the front row was asked to move back to allow a local French student to occupy the front seat. The girl refused and was expelled along with other students who protested. The government was forced to take the expelled students back in the school to avoid further open protests.

Thus, the battle against French colonial education became part of the larger battle against colonialism and for independence.

Question 31.
Describe the ‘Rat Hunt’ activity introduced by the French in Vietnam. (2015 D, 2011 D)
Or
“The measures taken by the French to control the spread of bubonic plague in Hanoi created a serious problem”. Explain the statement. (2014 D)
Answer:
(i) The modem city of Hanoi got infested with rats in 1902 and was struck by bubonic plague. The large sewers in the modern part of the city served as breeding grounds for rats.
(ii) To get rid of the rats, a ‘Rat Hunt’ was started. The French hired Vietnamese workers and paid them for each rat they caught. Rats began to be caught in thousands. This incident taught the Vietnamese the first lesson of collective bargaining. Those who did the dirty work of entering sewers found that if they came together they could negotiate a higher bounty.
(iii) They also discovered innovative ways to profit from the situation. The bounty was paid when a tail was given as a proof that a rat had been killed. So the rat catchers began clipping the tails and releasing the rats, so that the process could be repeated over and over again.
(iv) Defeated by the resistance of the Vietnamese, the French were forced to scrap the bounty programme. Bubonic plague swept through the area in 1903 and in subsequent years. In a way, the rat menace marks the limits of French power and contradiction in their civilizing mission. This incident is also an example of the numerous small ways in which colonialism was fought by Vietnamese in everyday life.

Question 32.
Describe the ‘Scholar’s Revolt’ of 1868 against the spread of Christianity in Vietnam. (2015 D)
Answer:

1. Scholars’ Revolt, 1868. It was an early movement against French control and spread of Christianity.
2. It was led by officials at the imperial court angered by the spread of Catholicism and French power.
3. There was an uprising in Ngu An and Ha Tien provinces where the Catholic missionaries had been active in converting people to Christianity since the early 17^th century.
4. By the middle of the 18^th century, nearly 3,00,000 people had got converted. This had angered the people of these provinces and led to the uprising.
5. Though this uprising was crushed by the French, it had inspired the people of other regions to rise against the French colonialism.

Question 33.
Describe any five steps taken by the French for the development of the ‘Mekong Delta Region’. (2015 OD, 2013 D)
Answer:
Steps taken by the French for the development of the ‘Mekong Delta Region’:

1. Colonies were considered essential to supply natural resources and other essential goods. Like other western nations, France also thought that it was the mission of the ‘advanced’ European countries to bring benefits of civilization to backward people.
2. The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based on rice cultivation and rubber plantations owned by the French and a small Vietnamese elite. The French built canals and drained lands in the Mekong Delta to increase rice cultivation. A vast system of irrigation was built which led to great expansion in rice production and gradually Vietnam became the third largest exporter of rice in the world.
3. An efficient system of transport was built for trade. Rail and port facilities were set up to support and service this sector.
4. Indentured Vietnamese labour was widely used in the rubber plantations. French did little to industrialise the economy.
5. In the rural areas landlordism spread and standard of living declined. To reduce rural poverty and increase agricultural productivity, it was necessary to carry out land reforms as Japanese had done in the 1890s.

Question 34.
“U.S. entry into the war in Vietnam marked a new phase that proved costly to Vietnamese as well as to the Americans:” Analyse the statement. (2016 D)
Answer:
Effect of the War on Vietnam:
(i) US entry into the war proved costly to the Vietnamese as well as to AmericAnswer: The phase of struggle with the US was brutal.
(ii) From 1965-1972, many (over 403100) US personnel served in Vietnam out of which 7484 were women. Many died in battle and a large number of people were wounded.
(iii) Thousands of US troops arrived equipped with heavy weapons and tanks backed by most powerful bombers of the time—B52s. The widespread attacks and use of chemical weapons—Napalm, Agent Orange and Phosphorous bombs destroyed many villages and decimated jungles. Civilians died in large numbers.

Effect of the US involvement on life within the US:
(i) Most of the people were critical of the government’s policy of war. When the youths were drafted (forced recruitment) for the war, the anger grew.
(ii) Compulsory service in the armed forces could be waived only for university graduates. This meant many of those sent to fight did not belong to the privileged elite, but were minorities and children of working class families which created a lot of resentment.
(iii) US media played a major role in both supporting and criticising the war. Hollywood made films in support of the war. (Example: John Wayne’s Green Berets; 1968). The film was taken as a war propaganda film, responsible for motivating many young men to die in the war. Other films were more critical. (Example: John Ford Coppola’s Apocalypse Now 1979 reflected the moral confusion that the war caused in the US).

Question 35.
“The peace negotiations in Geneva followed the division of Vietnam that set in motion a series of events that turned Vietnam into a battle field.” Analyse the statement with arguments. (2016 OD)
Answer:
The peace negotiations in Geneva followed the division of Vietnam that set in motion a series of events that turned Vietnam into a battle field.”

1. In the peace negotiations in Geneva that followed the French defeat, the Vietnamese were persuaded to accept the division of the country, i.e., North and South.
2. The division set in motion a series of events that turned Vietnam into a battlefield bringing death and destruction to its people as well as the environment.
3. The Bao Dai regime was soon overthrown by a coup led by Ngo Dinh Diem. Diem built a repressive and authoritarian government.
4. Anyone who opposed him was called a Communist and was jailed and killed.
5. With the help of Ho Chi Minh government in North, the NLF fought for the unification of the country. The U.S watched this alliance with fear. Worried about the communist gaining power, it decided to intervene decisively sending in troops and arms.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions

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Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Textbook Questions Solved.

1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

Question 1(i).
Sandalwood is an example of:
(а) Evergreen forest
(b) Deciduous forest
(c) Deltaic forest
(d) Thorny forest.
Answer:
(b)Deciduous forests

Question 1(ii).
Which one of the following was the purpose of Project Tiger?
(a) to kill tigers
(b) to put tigers in the Zoo
(c) to protect tigers from illegal hunting
(d) to make films on tigers.
Answer:
(c) To protect tigers from illegal hunting

Question 1(iii).
In which one of the following states is the Nandadevi Biosphere reserve situated?
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Odisha.
Answer:
(c) Uttarakhand

Question 1(iv).
How many of the Biosphere reserves from India are recognised by the UNESCO?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four.
Answer:
(d) Four

Question 1(v).
Which one of the following proportion of area of the country was targeted to be under forest in Forest Policy of India? (a) 33
(b) 44
(c) 55
(d) 22.
Answer:
(a) 33.

2. Answer the following questions in about 30 words.

Question 2(i).
What is natural vegetation? Under what climatic conditions do tropical evergreen forests develop?
Answer:
Natural vegetation refers to a plant community that has been left undisturbed over a long time, so as to allow its individual species to adjust themselves to climate and soil conditions as fully as possible. India is a land of great variety of natural vegetation.

Tropical Evergreen forests are found in the western slope of the Western Ghats, hills of the north-eastern region and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. They are found in warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22°C.

Question 2(ii).
What do you understand by social forestry?
Answer:
Social forestry means the management and protection of forests and afforestation on barren lands with the purpose of helping in the environmental, social and rural development.
The National Commission on Agriculture (1976) has classified social forestry into three categories. These are:

1.  Urban forestry,
2. Rural forestry and
3. Farm forestry.

Question 2(iii).
Define Biosphere reserves?
Answer:
A Biosphere Reserve is a unique and representative ecosystem of terrestrial and coastal areas which are internationally recognised within the framework of UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere (MAB) Programme. The Biosphere Reserve aims at achieving the three objectives:

• Conservation of biodiversity and ecosystem;
• Association of environment with development;
• Providing international network in research and monitoring.

Question 2(iv).
What is the difference between forest area and forest cover?
Answer:
Difference between forest area and forest cover:

• Meaning: The forest area is the area notified and recorded as the forest land irrespective of the existence of trees, while ie actual forest cover is the area occupied by forests with canopy.
• Estimation: The former is based on th| records of the State Revenue Department, while the latter is based on aerial photographs and satellite imageries.
• Indiqg facts: According to state records, the forest area covers 23.28 per cent j of the total land area of the country. According to India State of Forest Report 2011, me actual forest cover in India is only 21.05 per cent. !

3. Answer the following questions in not more ttran 150 words. j

Question 3(i).
What steps have been taken up to j conserve forests? j
Answer:
Following steps have been taken up to conserve forests:

1.Social forestry: Social forestry means the management and protection of forestg and afforestation on barren lands with the purpose of helping in the environmental, social and rural
development. The National Commission on Agriculture (1976) has classified social forestry into three categories.

• Urban forestry: Urban forestry pertains to the raising and management of trees on public and privately owned lands in and around urban centres such as green belts, parks, roadside avenues, industrial and commercial green belts, etc.
• Rural forestry: Rural forestry lays emphasis on promotion of agro-forestry and community-forestry.
• Farm forestry: Agro-forestry is the raising of trees and agriculture crops on the same land inclusive of the waste patches. It combines forestry with agriculture, thus, altering the simultaneous production of food, fodder, fuel, timber and fruit.

2. Community forestry: Community forestry involves the raising of trees on public or community land such as the village pasture and temple land, roadside, canal bank, strips along railway lines, and schools, etc. Community forestry programme aims at providing benefits to the community as a whole.

3. Farm forestry: Farm forestry is a term applied to the process under which farmers grow’ trees for commercial and non-commercial purposes on their farm, lands. Forest departments of various states distribute seedlings of trees free of cost to small and medium farmers.

Question 3(ii).
How can people’s participation be effective in conserving forests and wildlife?
Answer:
People’s participation can be very effective in conserving forests and wildlife. If is the common people who harm the wildlife and forests the most. They cut trees for shifting cultivation. They kill animals for entertainment. Therefore in 1972, government of India has passes Wildlife Protection Act whereby it is illegal to do hunting. Since then the hunting and poaching eases have reduced to a great extent.

The two main objectives of the Act are; to provide protection to the endangered species listed in the schedule of the Act and to provide legal support to the conservation areas of the country classified as National parks, sanctuaries and closed areas. This Act has been comprehensively amended in 1991, making punishments more stringent and has also made provisions for the protection of specified plant species and conservation of endangered species of wild animals. There are 105 National parks and 514 wildlife sanctuaries covering an area of 15.67 million hectares in the country.
These actions are taken by the government but their implementation and maintenance depend on the participation and cooperation of the people.

Project/Activity

On an outline map of India, mark and label the following:
(i) Areas having Mangrove forests.
(ii) Biosphere reserves of Nanda Devi, Sunderbans, Gulf of Mannar and Nilgiri.
(iii) Mark the location of Forest Survey of India Head Question uarter.
Answer:

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 NCERT Extra Questions

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Those forests which shed their leaves before summer season:
(a) Deciduous forests
(b) Evergreen forests
(c) Tidal forests
(d) Thorny forests.
Answer:
(a) Deciduous forests

Question 2.
Babool, her, and wild date palm, khair, neem are examples of:
(а) Deciduous forests
(b) Evergreen forests
(c) Tidal forests
(d) Thorny forests.
Answer:
d) Thorny forests

Question 3.
Tidal and deltai forests are found in which region of India?
(a) Eastern Coast
(b) Western Coast
(c) Rann of Kachchh
(d) Bay of Mannar.
Answer:
(a) Eastern coast

Question 4.
Sunderbans or mangrove trees are found in:
(а) Deciduous forests
(b) Evergreen forests
(c) Tidal forests
(d) Thorny forests.
Answer:
(c) Tidal forests

Question 5.
Which forests can develop in sweet as well as saline water?
(a) Deciduous forests
(b) Evergreen forests
(c) Tidal forests
(d) Thorny forests.
Answer:
(c) Tidal forests

Question 6.
Where is Sunderbans biosphere reserve located?
(a) In Ganga river delta
(b) Orissa
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Madhya Pradesh.
Answer:
(a) In Ganga river delta

Question 7.
What are important trees found in tropical evergreen forests?
(а) Babool, her, and wild date palm
(b) Teak, sal, shisham, hurra
(c) Rosewood, mahogany, aini, ebony
(d) Peepal, jamun, mahua.
Answer:
(c) Rosewood, mahogany, aini, ebony

Question 8.
Tropical evergreen forests are found in those areas where:
(а) 200 cm of rainfall takes place
(b) 100 cm of rainfall takes place
(c) 50 cm of rainfall takes place
(d) Less than 50 cm of rainfall takes place.
Answer:
(a) 200 cm of rainfall takes place

Question 9.
What is the basis of classifying important forms of natural vegetation?
(а) Climate
(b) Land
(c) Topography
(d) Atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
(a) Climate

Question 10.
Which one of the following was first biosphere of India?
(a) Nilgiri Biosphere
(b) Nanda Devi Biosphere
(c) Sunderbans Biosphere
(d) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere.
Answer:
(a) Nilgiri Biosphere

Question 11.
The National Commission on Agriculture (1976) has classified social forestry into three categories. Which of the following is not included in this?
(a) Urban forestry
(b) Rural forestry
(c) Farm forestry
(d) Agriculture forestry.
Answer:
(d) Agriculture forestry

Question 12.
Which of the following is not included in urban forestry?
(a) Green Belt
(b) Park
(c) Planting trees on roadsides
(d) Planting trees on barren and arable lands.
Answer:
(d) Planting trees on barren and arable lands

Question 13.
How many national parks and wildlife sanctuaries are there in India?
(a) There are 105 national parks and 514 wildlife sanctuaries.
(b) There are 112 national parks and 505 wildlife sanctuaries.
(c) There are 12 national parks and 51 wildlife sanctuaries.
(d) There are 78 national parks and 452 wildlife sanctuaries.
Answer:
(a) There are 105 National parks and 514 wildlife sanctuaries.

Question 14.
Which type of trees are found in 3000-4000 altitude on Himalayas?
(а) Bluepines Sproos
(b) Deodar
(c) Junior, Pine, Varch
(d) Oak, Chestnut.
Answer:
(c) Junior, Pine, Varch.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Very Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is natural vegetation?
Answer:
Natural vegetation refers to a plant community that has been left undisturbed over a long time, so as to allow its individual species to adjust themselves to climate and soil conditions as fully as possible.

Question 2.
Where can you find natural vegetation?
Answer:
We can find natural vegetation in those areas where climate and soil are suitable for plant growth. Depending upon the variations in the climate and the soil, the vegetation of India changes from one region to another.

Question 3.
In how many categories have vegetation of Himalayas been classified?
Answer:
Vegetation of Himalayas has been classified into four groups. These are:

1. Deciduous forests
2. Wet temperate forests
3. Cold climate vegetation
4. Alpine vegetation.

Question 4.
When was National Forest Policy adopted in India?
Answer:
National Forest Policy was adopted in 1952 under which Forest Conservation Board was established. This policy was modified in 1988.

Question 5.
When was Project Tiger and Project Elephant launched?
Answer:
Project Tiger was launched in 1973 and Project Elephant was launched in 1992.

Question 6.
Name the states which have less than 10% of forest cover.
Answer:
States of India which have less than 10% forest cover: ‘

1. Haryana
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Punjab
4. Rajasthan
5. Bihar
6. Delhi
7. Gujarat
8. Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 7.
Name those states which have more than two-third of area covered with forests. Answer: States which have more than two third of area covered with forests:

1. Tripura
2. Nagaland
3. Mizoram
4. Meghalaya
5. Manipur
6. Arunachal Pradesh

Question 8.
Name important trees of tropical evergreen forests.
Answer:
Important trees of tropical evergreen forests include rosewood, mahogany, aini, ebony, etc.

Question 9.
Name important trees of tropical deciduous forests.
Answer:
Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul, kusum, and sandalwood etc. are the main species of tropical deciduous forests.

Question 10.
Which state has highest and lowest percentage of forests?
Answer:
Mizoram has highest forests and Haryana has lowest forests.

Question 11.
Which union territory has highest and lowest percentage of forests?
Answer:
Lakshadweep islands and Andaman and Nicobar has largest number of trees with 85.91% and 84.01% respectively. Pondicherry and Chandigarh have lowest percentage of forest cover with 7.45% and 7.51% respectively.

Question 12.
On the basis of actual forest cover, in how many categories have Indian states been divided?
Answer:
On the basis of the percentage of the actual forest cover, the states have been grouped into four regions:

1. The region of high concentration > 40
2. The region of medium concentration 20-40
3. The region of low concentration 10-20
4. The region of very low concentration < 10.

Question 13.
What is a national park?
Answer:
A national park is an area which is strictly reserved for the protection of the wildlife and where activities such as forestry, grazing or cultivation are not allowed.

Question 14.
What is social forestry?
Answer: Social forestry means the management and protection of forests and afforestation on barren lands with the purpose of helping in the environmental, social and rural development.

Question 15.
Why vegetation in thorn forest have sukleen stem and small leaves?
Answer:
Vegetation in thorn forest have sukleen stem and small leaves because this forest lies in the areas which receives rainfall less than 50 cm.

Question 16.
Name the first Biosphere reserve?
Answer:
The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserves was the first of the fourteen biosphere reserve of India.

Question 17.
When was the new forest policy implemented?
Answer:
The new forest policy was adopted in 1952 and was further modified in 1988.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the three categories of social forestry?
Answer:
Social forestry is classified into three categories Urban forestry:
It pertains to the raising and management of trees on public and privately owned land such as green belts, parts, roadside avenues, industrial and commercial green belts etc.
Rural forestry:

• It is divided into agro-forestry and community.
• Agro-forestry is the raising of trees and agriculture crops on the same land inclusive of the waste patches.
• Community forestry involves the raising of trees on public or community land such as the village pasture and temple land, roadside, canal bank, strips, along railway lines and schools, etc. providing benefits to the community as a whole.

Farm forestry:

• It is a term applied to the process under which farmers grow trees for commercial and non-commercial purposes on their farm lands.
• Commercial purposes-Forestdepartment of various states distribute seedlings of trees free of cost to small and medium farmers. Several land such as the margins of agricultural fields grasslands and pastures, land around homes and cow sheds may be used for raising trees under non-commercial farm forestry.

Question 2.
The percent of forest cover varies state to state. Substantiate.
Answer:
According to state records, the forest area covers 23.28 per cent of the total land area of the country. According to India State of Forest Report 2011, the actual forest cover in India is only 21.05 per cent. Both forest area and forest cover vary from state to state.

• Lakshadweep has zero per cent open forest area; Andaman and Nicobar Islands have 86.93 per cent.
• Most of the states with less than 10 per cent of the forest area lie im th# nprth and north-western part of %• country. These are Rajasthan, Gqjir^, Ft^y^b, Haryana and Delhi.
• States with 10-20 p#r cent |jrea are Tamil Nadu and West ^Ungfl.
• In Peninsular India, exciting Trnnil Nadu, Dadra and Nagar Hav^i %jad ^pa, the area under forest cover is 20-30 per cent.
• The north-eastern states have :yppe than 30 per cent of the land u^#r fjrtst. Hilly topography and lg}*vy |re
  good for forest growth.
• There are 15 states where the forest cover is more than one-third of t]p t^al area, which is the basic requirement for maintaining the ecological balance.

Question 3.
What objectives have been determined for the conservation of forests according to national forest policy?
Answer:
Objectives of new forest policy art:

•  Bringing 33% of the geographical areas under forest cover.
• Maintaining environmental stability and to restore forests where ecological balance was disturbed.
• Conserving the natural heritage of the country.
• Its biological diversity and gentle pool.
• Checks soil erosion extension of the deserts land and reduction of floods and droughts.
• Increasing the forest cover through social forestry and afforestation on degraded lands.
• Increasing the productivity of forest to make timber, fuel, fodder and food available to rural population dependent on forests and encourage the substitution of wood.
• Creating massive people’s movement involving women to encourage planting of trees, stop felling of trees and thus, reduce pressure on the existing forest.

Question 4.
Write down the important features of thorn forest?
Answer:

• Tropical thorn forest occurs in the areas which receive rainfall less than 50 cm and consist of variety of grasses and shrubs.
• It includes semi-arid areas of south-west Punjab, Haryana, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.
• In these forests, plants remain leafless for most part of the year and give an expression of scrub vegetation.
• Important species found are babool, khair, neem, kherjiri, palas, etc.
• Tussocky grass grows upto a height of 2m as the under growth and cactus is an important plant of these forests.
• Its main features are that they have sukleen stems which help in retaining moisture.
• They have roots which go underground upto 1 km.
• Leaves are reduced into thorn, spines which reduce transpiration.

Question 5.
Explain about mountain forests.
Answer:
The Himalayan ranges show a succession of vegetation from the tropical to the tundra, which change in with the altitude.
Mountain forests can be classified into two types, the northern mountain forests and the southern mountain forests. Deciduous forests are found in the foothills of the Himalayas. It is succeeded by the wet temperate type of forests between an altitude of 1,000-2,000 m. In the higher hill ranges of northeastern India, hilly areas of West Bengal and Uttaranchal, evergreen broad leaf trees such as oak and chestnut are predominant. Between 1,500-1,750 m, pine forests are also well-developed in this zone, with Chir Pine as a very useful commercial tree. Deodar, a highly valued endemic species grows mainly in the western part of the Himalayan range. Blue pine and spruce appear at altitudes of 2,225-3,048 m. At many places in this zone, temperate grasslands are also found. But in the higher reaches there is a transition to Alpine forests and pastures. Silver firs, junipers, pines, birch and rhododendrons, etc. occur between 3,000-4,000 m.

Question 6.
In how many groups has wetland been divided in our country?
Answer:
The country’s wetlands have been grouped into eight categories. These are:

• The reservoirs of the Deccan Plateau in the south together with the lagoons and other wetlands of the southern west coast;
• The vast saline expanses of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the Gulf of Kachchh;
• Freshwater lakes and reservoirs from Gujarat eastwards through Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh;
• The delta wetlands and lagoons of India’s east coast;
• The freshwater marshes of the Gangetic Plain;
• The floodplains of the Brahmaputra; the marshes and swamps in the hills of northeast India and the Himalayan foothills;
• The lakes and rivers of the montane region of Kashmir and Ladakh; and
• The mangrove forest and other wetlands of the island arcs of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 7.
Differentiate between:

1. Natural Vegetation and Forests
2. Dry deciduous and Moist deciduous Forest
3. Forest cover and Forest area
4. National Park and Sanctuary
5. National Park and Biosphere Reserve.

Answer:
1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
“Natural vegetation is an outcome of climate.” Substantiate the statement by taking example of Indian vegetation.
Answer:
India is a land of great variety of natural vegetation. Himalayan heights are marked with temperate vegetation; the Western Ghats and the Andaman Nicobar Islands have tropical rain forests.

• Tropical evergreen forests are found in warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above 22°C. In these forests, trees reach at great heights up to 60 m or above. The semi¬evergreen forests are found in the less rainy parts of these regions.
• Tropical deciduous forests are spread over regions which receive rainfall between 70-200 cm.
• The moist deciduous forests are more pronounced in the regions which record rainfall between 100-200 cm. Dry deciduous forest covers vast areas of the country, where rainfall ranges between 70-100 cm.
• Tropical thorn forests occur in the areas which receive rainfall less than 50 cm. In mountainous areas, the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude leads to a corresponding change in natural vegetation.
• The Himalayan ranges show a succession of vegetation from the tropical to the tundra, with change in the altitude. Deciduous forests are found in the foothills of the Himalayas. It is succeeded by the wet temperate type of forests between an altitude of 1,000-2,000 m. In the higher hill ranges of north-eastern India, hilly areas of West Bengal and Uttarakhand, evergreen broad leaf trees such as oak and chestnut are predominant. Between 1,500-1,750 m, pine forests are also well-developed in this zone, with Chir Pine as a very useful commercial tree.

Question 2.
Mention the reasons for the decline of w’ildlife in India?
Answer:
Important reasons for the decline of Wildlife in India are-

• Industrial and technological advancement brought about a rapid increase in the exploitation of forest resources.
• More and more lands were closed for agriculture, human settlement, roads, mining, resources, etc.
• Pressure on forests maintained due to looping for fodder and fuel, wood and removal of small timber by the local people.
• Grazing by domestic cattle caused an adverse effect on wildlife and its habitat.
• Hunting was taken up as a sport by the elite and hundreds of wild animals were killed in a single hunt. Now commercial poaching is rampant.
• Incidence of forest fire.

Question 3.
According to the statistics received from state records, there are differences in forest area and actual forest cover. Explain.
Answer:
According to state records, the forest area covers 23.28 per cent of the total land area of the country. It is important to note that the forest area and the actual forest cover are not the same. The forest area is the area notified and recorded as the forest land irrespective of the existence of trees, while the actual forest cover is the area occupied by forests with canopy.
Forest area is based on the records of the State Revenue Department, while the actual forest cover is based on aerial photographs and satellite imageries.

According to India State of Forest Report 2011, the actual forest cover in India is only 21.05 per cent. Of the forest cover, the share of dense and open forests is 12.29 and 8.75 per cent respectively. Both forest area and forest cover vary from state to state. Lakshadweep has zero per cent forest area; Andaman and Nicobar Islands have 86.93 per cent. Most of the states with less than 10 per cent of the forest area lie in the north and northwestern part of the country. These are Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab, Haryana and Delhi.

States with 10-20 per cent forest area are Tamil Nadu and West Bengal. In Peninsular India, excluding Tamil Nadu, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Goa, the area under forest cover is 20-30 per cent. The northeastern states have more than 30 per cent of the land under forest. Hilly topography and heavy rainfall are good for forest growth. There is a lot of variation in actual forest cover, which ranges from 9.56 per cent in Jammu and Kashmir to 84.01 per cent in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 4.
On the basis of actual forest cover, in how many categories have Indian states been divided?
Answer:
On the basis of the percentage of the actual forest cover, the states have been grouped into four regions:

• The region of high concentration > 40: It includes Andaman and Nicobar islands, Mizoram, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh which have 80% of their total area under forests. Manipur, Tripura, Meghalaya, Sikkim and Dadar and Haveli have forest cover between 40-80%.
• The region of medium concentration 20-40: It includes Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Goa, Kerala, Assam and Himachal Pradesh. In Goa, actual forest cover is 33.27% which is highest in this range. Thereafter, comes Assam and Orissa. In other states 30% of their area is covered with forests.
• The region of low concentration 10-20: It includes states of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
• The region of very low concentration < 10: It includes states of Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, and Gujarat. It also includes union territories of Delhi and Chandigarh. It also includes West Bengal.

Question 5.
Explain in short about four important Biospheres of India.
Answer:
Four Biosphere Reserves have been recognised by the UNESCO on World Network of Biosphere Reserves. These are as follows:

1. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve: The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (NBR) is the first of the fourteen biosphere reserves of
India. It was established in September 1986. It embraces the sanctuary complex of Wyanad, Nagarhole, Bandipur and Mudumalai, the entire forested hill slopes of Nilambur, the Upper Nilgiri plateau, Silent Valley and the Siruvani hills. The total area of the biosphere reserve is around 5,520 sq. km. The largest south Indian population of elephant, tiger, gaur, sambar and chital as well as a good number of endemic and endangered plants are also found in this reserve. The topography of the NBR is extremely varied, ranging from an altitude of250 m to 2,650 m. About 80 per cent of the flowering plants reported from the Western Ghats occur in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.

2. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve: The Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is situated in Uttarakhand. It includes parts of Chamoli, Almora, Pithoragarh and Ba’geshwar districts. The major forest types of the reserve are temperate. A few important species are silver weed and orchids like latifolie and rhododendron. The biosphere reserve has a rich fauna like the snow leopard, black bear, brown bear, musk deer, snow- cock, golden eagle and black eagle.

3. Sunderbans Biosphere Reserve: It is located in the swampy delta of the river Ganga in West Bengal. It extends over a vast area of 9,630 sq. km and consists of mangrove forests, swamps and forested islands. Sunderbans is the home of nearly 200 Royal Bengal tigers. More than 170 birds species are known to inhabit these mangrove forests. In the Sunderbans, the mangrove forests are characterised by Heritiera fomes, a species valued for its timber.

4. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve: The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve covers an area of 105,000 hectares on the south-east coast of India. It is one of the world’s richest regions from a marine biodiversity perspective. The biosphere reserve comprises 21 islands with estuaries, beaches, forests of the nearshore environment, sea grasses, coral reefs, salt marshes and mangroves.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 5 Hots Questions

Question 1.
“Forest and tribal are very closely related”. Justify the statement.
Answer:

• To a vast number of tribal people, the forest, is a home, a livelihood, their very existence.
• It provides them food, fruits of all kinds, edible leaves, honey nourishing roots and wild game.
• It provides them with material to build their houses and items for practising their arts.
• The importance of forests in tribal economy is well-known as they are the source of sustenance and livelihood for tribal communities.
• The age old knowledge of tribals regarding forestry can be used in the development of forests.
• Rather than treating tribals as minor forest produce collectors they should be made growers of minor forest produce and encouraged to participate in conservation.

Question 2.
When was comprehensive Wildlife Act enacted and what are its objectives?
Answer:
In 1972, comprehensive Wildlife Act was enacted.

• To provide protection to the endangered species listed in the schedule of the act.
• To provide legal support to the conservation areas of the country classified as national parks, sanctuaries and closed areas.
• Making punishments more stringent and has also made provisions for the protection of specified plant species and conservation of endangered species of wild animals.

Question 3.
Write the objectives of Project Tiger and Project Elephant and in how many states they are implemented.
Answer:
The objectives of Project Tiger and Project Elephant are:

• Maintenance of viable population of tigers in India for scientific, aesthetic, cultural and ecological values.
• To preserve areas of biological importance as natural heritage for the benefit, education and enjoyment of the people.

The Project Tiger was launched in 1973 under which 27 tiger reserves have been set up in 17 states.
Project Elephant was launched in 1992. 14 elephant reserves have been set up during the year. Its main objective to ensure long-term survival of identified viable population of elephants in their natural habitat.

Question 4.
What is Biosphere Reserve and what are its objectives?
Answer:
Biosphere Reserve is a unique and representative ecosystem of terrestrial and coastal areas which are internationally recognized within the framework of UNESCO Man and Biosphere (MAB) programme.
The main objectives of biosphere reserve are:

• Conservation: Conservation of biodiversity and ecosystem.
• Development: Association of environment with development.
• Logistics: International network for research and monitoring.

Question 5.
Mangrove forests are unique in their own way. Explain.
Answer:
Mangrove forest:

• The tidal forests are found in the areas of the coastal margins of Krishna, Kaveri, and Brahmaputra delta mainly occupying the estuaries, etc.
• They are found in the swamp and marshy areas.
• They can survive both in fresh and salty water.
• The trees have stilt like breathing or support rots, sticking out of mud and water.
• They are exposed at low tides and get submerged at high tides.
• Hot and wet climate favours their dense growth.
• Sunderi is the well known Mangrove trees. The famous Sunderban deltas are named after these trees.

MAP SKILL
Question 1.
On an outline map of India, mark and label the following:

1. Nanda devi
2. Panchmarhi
3. Manas
4. Nilgiri
5. Similipal
6. Bay of Mannar
7. Great Nicobar
8. Nokrak
9. Sunderbans
10. Achanakmar – Amarkantak.

Answer:

Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions

The post Class 11 Geography NCERT Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Very Short Answer Questions(VSA) 1 Mark

Question 1.
What was the major change that occurred in the political and constitutional scenario due to the French Revolution in Europe? (2015 D)
Answer:
It led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens. The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.

Question 2.
What was the main aim of the French revolutionaries? (2015 OD)
Answer:
The main aim of the French revolutionaries was to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. They proclaimed that it was the people who would constitute the nation and shape its decisions.

Question 3.
What is the meaning of concentration camps? (2015 OD)
Answer:
Concentration camps are prisons where people are detained and tortured without due process of law.

Question 4.
Name the Treaty of 1832 that recognised Greece as an independent nation. (2016 D)
Answer:
Treaty of 1832: Constantinople

Question 5.
Name the event that mobilised nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe in 1830-1848? (2016 D)
Answer:
The Greek War of Independence in 1821.

Question 6.
What was the main aim of revolutionaries of Europe during the years following 1815? (2016 D)
Answer:
The main aim of revolutionaries of Europe was to oppose monarchial forms of government.

Question 7.
Who remarked “when France sneezes the rest of Europe catches cold”. (2016 OD)
Answer:
Duke Metternich

Question 8.
Who was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871? (2016 OD)
Answer:
Kaiser William I of Prussia was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871.

Question 9.
Who was proclaimed the King of United Italy in 1861? (2016 OD)
Answer:
Victor Emmanuel-II

Short Answer Questions (SA) 3 Marks

Question 10.
Explain any three beliefs of the conservatism that emerged after 1815. (2011 D)
Answer:
Three beliefs of conservatism that emerged after 1815 were:

1. Established and traditional institutions of state and society like monarchy, the Church, property and family should be preserved.
2. They believed in the modernization of the traditional institution to strengthen them, rather than returning to the society of pre-revolutionary days.
3. Also they believed that abolition of feudalism and serfdom and replacing it with a modern army, an efficient bureaucracy and a dynamic economy could strengthen autocratic monarchies of Europe.

Question 11.
Explain the contribution of Otto von Bismarck in German unification. (2011 D)
Answer:
Contribution of Otto von Bismarck in German unification. Nationalist feelings started spreading amongst the middle class Germans, who in 1848, tried to unite different parts of German confederation into a nation state to have an elected parliamentarian government. However, this liberal movement was repressed by the combined forces of monarchy and military supported by Prussian landowners.

Prussian Chief Minister, Otto von Bismarck, took the responsibility of national unification with the help of Prussian army and bureaucracy. Under his leadership he fought three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark and France. Prussia was victorious in all these wars and the process of unification of Germany was completed as a result of Prussia’s victory over France.

Question 12.
Explain any three ways in which nationalist feelings were kept alive in Poland in the 18th and 19th centuries. (2011 OD)
Answer:
The three ways in which nationalist feelings were kept alive in 18th and 19th centuries in Poland:
(i) Emphasis on vernacular language. Language played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. The use of the Polish language came to be seen as a symbol of struggle against Russian dominance. For example, In Poland, following armed rebellion against Russian rule, Polish was used for church gatherings and religious instruction. As a result, a number of priests and bishops were put in jails or sent to Siberia as punishment for their refusal to preach in Russian.

(ii) Emphasis on collection of local folklore. It was not just to recover an ancient national spirit, but also to carry the modern nationalist message to the large audience who were mostly illiterate.

(iii) Use of music to keep the nationalist feeling alive. For example, Karol Kurpinski, celebrated the national struggle through his operas and music, turning folk dances like the polonaise and mazurka into nationalist symbols.

Question 13.
Explain the contribution of Giuseppe Mazzini in spreading revolutionary ideas in Europe. (2011 OD)
Answer:
The year following 1815, was the period of revolutionaries. Most of the revolutionaries were committed to oppose monarchical forms and to fight for liberty and freedom

One such prominent revolutionary was “Giuseppe Mazzini”, an Italian revolutionary. Mazzini also saw the creation of nation-states as a necessary part in the struggle for freedom. Ele strongly believed in the unification of Italy as a single unified republic which could be the basis of Italian liberty.

Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of a democratic republic frightened the Conservatives. His ideas also influenced the revolutionaries of Germany, France, Switzerland and Poland. Question 14. Describe any three reforms introduced by Napoleon in the territories he conquered. (2011 D)
Answer:
Three reforms introduced by Napoleon in the territories he conquered were:

1. The Napoleonic Code —It finished all the privileges based on birth and established equality before law and secured the right to property.
2. He simplified administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
3. He introduced uniform laws, standardized weights and measures and common national currency to facilitate the movement and exchange of goods and capital from one place to another.

Question 15.
Explain any three causes of conflict in the ‘Balkan area’ after 1871. (2011 OD)
Answer:
The nationalist tensions emerged in the Balkans due to the following reasons:
(i) Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising modern-day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro whose inhabitants were known as the Slavs. A large part of Balkans was under the control of the Ottoman empire.

(ii) After the decline of the Ottoman empire and the growth of romantic nationalism in the Balkans, the region became very explosive. Its European subject nationalities broke away from its control and declared independence.

(iii) As the different nationalities struggled to define their identity and independence, the Balkan area became an area of intense conflict. The Balkan states were fiercely jealous of each other and each hoped to gain more territory at the expense of others.

(iv) Balkan also became the scene of big power rivalry. Russia, Germany, England, Austria, Hungry — all big powers were keen in countering the hold of other powers. This ultimately turned Balkan into a war region which eventually provided a minor cause for the First World War.

Question 16.
How did the local people in the areas conquered by Napoleon react to French rule? Explain. (2014 D)
Answer:
The reactions of the local population to the French rule were mixed.

Initially, in many places such as Holland and Switzerland, as well as in cities like Brussels, Mainz, Milan and Warsaw, the French armies were welcomed as harbingers of liberty. As new administrative arrangements did not go hand in hand with political freedom, enthusiasm turned into hostility. Increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the French armies to conquer the rest of Europe, outweighed the advantages of the administrative changes.

Question 17.
Explain the conditions that were viewed as obstacles to the economic exchange and growth by the new commercial classes during the nineteenth century in Europe. (2014 OD)
Answer:
In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on movement of goods and capital.

1. But in the 19th century Napoleon’s administrative measures had created out of countless small principalities a confederation of 39 states. Each possessed its own currency, and weights and measures.
2. A merchant travelling from Hamburg to Nuremberg had to pass through 11 custom barriers and pay 5% duty at each one of them.
3. As each region had its own system of weights and measures this involved time-consuming calculations.
   Such conditions were viewed as obstacles to economic growth and exchange by the new commercial classes who argued for the creation of a unified economic territory allowing free movement of goods, people and capital.

Question 18.
Describe the events of French Revolution which had influenced the people belonging to other parts of Europe. (2015 D)
Answer:

• The first clear-cut expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. In 1789, France was under the rule of an absolute monarch.
• When the revolutionaries came to power in France, they were determined to create a new sense of unity and nationhood. For this, they emphasized the concept of France being the father land (La Patrie) for all French people, who were from now on addressed as citizens (citoyen). They were given the tri-colour flag, the three colours representing liberty, equality and fraternity.

French revolutionaries introduced various other measures such as:

1. The Estate General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly.
2. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated all in the name of the nation.
3. A centralised administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.
4. Internal customs, duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.
5. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.
6. They further declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the people of Europe from despotism and help them to become nations.

Question 19.
How did nationalism develop through culture in Europe? Explain. (2015 OD, 2013 OD)
Or
Describe the role of culture in shaping the feelings of nationalism in Europe from 1830 to the end of 19^th century.
Answer:
Culture, music, dance and religion played an important role in the growth of nationalism.
(i) Culture. Role of culture was important in creating the idea of the nation. Art, poetry, music etc. helped in developing and expressing nationalist feelings. Romanticism was a cultural movement that led to the development of nationalist sentiment. Romantic artists and poets criticized the glorification of reason and science and instead focussed on emotions and intuition.

(ii) Language. Language too played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. After Russian occupation, the Polish language was forced out of schools and Russian language was imposed everywhere. In 1831, an armed rebellion against Russian rule took place which was ultimately crushed. Following this, many members of the clergy in Poland began to use language as a weapon of national resistance.

(iii) Music and Dance. Romantics such as the German philosopher Herder claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people —das volk. It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation was popularised.

Question 20.
How had the female figures become an allegory of the nation during nineteenth century in Europe? Analyse. (2016 D)
Answer:
Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries portrayed nations as female figures. The female form, that was chosen to personify the nation, did not stand for any particular woman in real life. Rather it sought to give the abstract idea of the nation in concrete form. That is, the female figure became the allegory of the nation.

In France, she was named Marianne —a popular Christian name and in Germany, Germania. Germania wears a crown of oak leaves as the German oak stands for heroism. The characteristics of Marianne were drawn from those of Liberty and Republic —the red cap, the tricolour and cockade.

Question 21.
Describe any three steps taken by the French revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. (2017 D)
Answer:

• The first clear-cut expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. In 1789, France was under the rule of an absolute monarch.
• When the revolutionaries came to power in France, they were determined to create a new sense of unity and nationhood For this, they emphasized the concept of France being the father land (La Patrie) for all French people, who were from now on addressed as citizens (citoyen). They were given the tri-colour flag, the three colours representing liberty, equality and fraternity.

French revolutionaries introduced various other measures such as:

1. The Estate General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly.
2. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated all in the name of the nation.
3. A centralized administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.
4. Internal customs, duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.
5. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.
6. They further declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the people of Europe from despotism and help them to become nations.

Question 22.
Describe any three economic hardships faced by Europe in the 1830s. 2017OD
Answer:
Following are the causes of economic hardships in Europe during 1830s:

1. Europe had come under the grip of large scale unemployment. In most of the countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment. Cities had become overcrowded and slums had emerged as population from the rural areas migrated to the cities.
2. Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine- made goods from England where industrialization was more advanced specially in the field of textile production.
3. In those regions of Europe, where aristocracy still enjoyed power, peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues and obligations. The rise of food prices and bad harvests added to the hardships of the peasants.

Long Answer Questions 5 Marks

Question 23.
What did Liberal Nationalism stand for? Explain any four ideas of Liberal Nationalists in the economic sphere. (2011 OD)
Answer:
Liberalism or Liberal Nationalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law. Lour ideas of Liberal Nationalists in the economic sphere are:

1. Liberalism stood for freedom of markets and abolition of state imposed restriction. For example, Napoleon’s administration was a confederation of 29 states, each of these possessed its own currencies, weight and measures. Such conditions were viewed as obstacles to economic exchange.
2. Liberal Nationalists argued for the creation of a unified economic territory allowing the unhindered movement of goods, people and capital.
3. In 1834, a customs union or ” zollverein” was formed. The union abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies from 30 to 2.
4. The creation of a network of railways further stimulated mobility, harnessing economic interest to national unification.

Question 24.
“Napoleon had, no doubt, destroyed democracy in France, but in the administrative field he had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole system more rational and efficient.” Support the statement. (2016 OD, 2014 OD, 2012 D)
Or
Explain any five social and administrative reforms introduced by Napolean in regions under his control.
Answer:
Napoleon had brought revolutionary changes in the administrative field in order to make the whole system rational and efficient. The Civil Code of 1804 is usually known as the Napoleonic Code.

1. The first major change was doing away with all privileges based on birth, establishing equality before law and securing the right to property.
2. Administrative divisions were simplified.
3. Feudal system was abolished and peasants were freed from serfdom and manorial dues (abuse of manorial lords).
4. In towns, guild restrictions were removed.
5. Transport and communication systems were improved.
6. Peasants, artisans, workers and new businessmen enjoyed a new found freedom.
7. Businessmen and small-scale producers of goods in particular began to realize that uniform laws, standardised weights and measures and a common national currency would facilitate the movement and exchange of goods and capital from one region to another.

Question 25.
How did culture play an important role in creating the idea of the ‘nation’ in Europe? Explain with examples. (2013 D)
Answer:
Culture, music, dance and religion played an important role in the growth of nationalism.
(i) Role of culture was important in creating the idea of the nation. Art, poetry, music etc. helped in developing and expressing nationalist feelings. Romanticism was a cultural movement that led to the development of nationalist sentiment. Romantic artists and poets criticized the glorification of reason and science and instead focussed on emotions and intuition.

(ii) Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries portrayed nations as female figures. The female form, that was chosen to personify the nation, did not stand for any particular woman in real life. Rather it sought to give the abstract idea of the nation in concrete form. That is, the female figure became the allegory of the nation.
In France, she was named Marianne—a popular Christian name and in Germany, Germania.

(iii) Language too played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. After Russian occupation, the Polish language was forced out of schools and Russian language was imposed everywhere. In 1831, an armed rebellion against Russian rule took place which was ultimately crushed. Following this, many members of the clergy in Poland began to use language as a weapon of national resistance.

(iv) Romantics such as the German philosopher Herder claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people – das volk. It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation was popularized.

Question 26.
Explain any five economic hardships that Europe faced in the 1830s. (2016 OD, 2013 OD, 2011 D)
Or
“The decode of 1830 has brought great economic hardship in Europe”. Support the statement with arguments.
Following are the causes of economic hardships in Europe during 1830s:

1. Europe had come under the grip of large scale unemployment. In most of the countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment.
2. Cities had become overcrowded and slums had emerged as population from the rural areas migrated to the cities.
3. Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England where industrialization was more advanced specially in the field of textile production.
4. In those regions of Europe, where aristocracy still enjoyed power, peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues and obligations.
5. The rise of food prices and bad harvests added to the hardships of the peasants.

Question 27.
Describe any five measures which were introduced by the French Revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. (2016 D, 2015 OD, 2012 OD)
Answer:

• The first clear-cut expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. In 1789, France was under the rule of an absolute monarch.
• When the revolutionaries came to power in France, they were determined to create a new sense of unity and nationhood. For this, they emphasized the concept of France being the father land (La Patrie) for all French people, who were from now on addressed as citizens (citoyen). They were given the tri-colour flag, the three colours representing liberty, equality and fraternity.

French revolutionaries introduced various other measures such as:

1. The Estate General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly.
2. New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated all in the name of the nation.
3. A centralized administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.
4. Internal customs, duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.
5. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.
6. They further declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the people of Europe from despotism and help them to become nations.

Question 28.
How had revolutionaries spread their ideas in many European States after 1815? Explain with examples. (2014 OD)
Answer:
Answer:
During the years following 1815, the fear of repression drove many liberal nationalists underground.

1. Secret societies sprang up in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas. Revolutionary ideas were spread by opposing monarchical forms and to fight for liberty and freedom.
2. Most of the revolutionaries also saw the creation of nation-states as a necessary part of this struggle for freedom.
3. Giuseppe Mazzini was an Italian revolutionary bom in Geneva in 1807. He was a member of the Secret Society of the Carbonari. He attempted a revolution in 1831 and was sent into exile.
4. He had set up two more underground societies, namely, Young Italy (1832) in Marseilles and then Young Europe in Berne. The members were like-minded young men from Poland, France, Italy and Germany.
5. He opposed monarchy and small states and kingdoms and dreamt of a Democratic Republic. He believed the unification of Italy alone could be the basis of Italian liberty.

Question 29.
Describe the process of unification of Germany. (2015 D, 2013 D, 2012 D)
Answer:
Unification of Germany:
In the 18^th century, Germany was divided into a number of states. Some of these states ceased to exist during the Napoleonic wars. At the end of the war, there were still 39 independent states in Germany. Prussia was most powerful, dominated by big landlords known as Junkers.
(i) Nationalist feelings were widespread among middle class Germans who had tried to unite the different regions of the German federation into a nation-state governed by an elected Parliament.

(ii) In May 1848, a large number of political associations came together to vote for an All German National Assembly. Their representatives met at Frankfurt and the Frankfurt Assembly proposed the unification of Germany as a constitutional monarchy under the King of Prussia as emperor.

(iii) The King of Prussia rejected the offer and the liberal initiative of nation building was repressed by combined forces of the monarchy, the military and the ‘Junkers’.

(iv) Then on, Prussia under its Chief Minister Otto von Bismarck led the movement for unification of Germany. Bismarck carried out this process with the help of the Prussian army and the bureaucracy. He fought three wars over seven years with Denmark, Austria and France. Prussia was victorious in all these wars and the process of unification was completed as a result of Prussia’s victory over France.

(v) Consequently, on 18th January 1871, an assembly comprising of princes of German states, representatives of the army, important Prussian ministers and Bismarck gathered in the Palace of Versailes and proclaimed the Prussian King, Kaiser William, the new German Emperor.

Question 30.
Explain the process of unification of Italy. (2015 D, 2013 D, 2012 OD)
Answer:
Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered over dynastic states and the multinationals Hamsburg Empire. Italy was divided into seven states. Italian language did not have one common form.
Guiseppe Mazzini had played an important role in the unification of Italy. He formed a secret society called ‘Young Italy’ in Marseilles, to spread his goals. He believed Italy could not continue to be a patchwork of small states and had to be forged into a single unified republic. During 1830s, Mazzini sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic. As uprisings in 1831 and 1848 had failed, the mantle now fell on Sardinia-Piedmont under its ruler Emmanuel II to unify Italy.

Under Chief Minister Cavour, Sardinia-Piedmont succeeded in defeating the Austrian forces in 1859. He was the chief minister, who led the movement to unify Italy. He formed a tactful diplomatic alliance with France and defeated the Austrian forces. Even Guiseppe Garibaldi joined the fray. In 1860, they marched towards South Italy and the Kingdom of the two Sicilies, and with the help of the local peasants, drove out the Spanish rulers. In 1861, Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed as King of United Italy.

Question 31.
Describe the process of Unification of Britain.
Or
How has Britain come into existence? Explain.
Answer:
Nationalism in Britain was different from the rest of Europe.
(i) Nationalism in Britain was not the result of a sudden uprising or revolution. It was the result of a long drawn out process.

(ii) There was no British nation prior to 18th century. The inhabitants of British Isles were ethnic ones — English, Welsh, Scot or Irish. Though each had their own culture and political traditions, the English nation steadily grew in wealth, importance and power and expanded its influence over other nations, such as Scotland.

(iii) The British Parliament was dominated by its English members. They tried to suppress Scotland’s distinct culture and political institutions. They could neither speak their language nor could they wear their national dress. A large number of them were driven out of their homeland.

(iv) In 1688, through a bloodless revolution the English Parliament seized power from the monarchy and became the instrument to set up a nation-state at its centre.

(v) By the Act of Union in 1707, Scotland was incorporated in the United Kingdom. Though the Irish Catholics were against a union with England, Ireland was forcibly incorporated in United Kingdom in 1801.

(vi) Thus it was parliamentary action and not revolution or war that was the instrument through which the British nation was formed.

(vii) A new ‘British Nation’ was formed through propagation of English culture. The symbols of the New Britain—”the British Flag (Union Jack), National Anthem (God save our noble King) and the English language” were promoted, and the older nations became the subordinate partners in the Union.

Social Science Class 10 Important Questions

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Engineering Entrance Exam is conducted every year by a different organisation to give admissions to the candidates who want to pursue their Graduation or Post graduations from the engineering colleges or institutes. These exams are conducted by various national and state-level institutes or universities. Even this year, the entrance exam for engineering programme will be conducted for admission in the next academic session, i.e. 2019-2020.

Engineering Entrance Exam – 2019-2020 Academic Session

There are multiple entrance exams for engineering courses candidates can apply. For UG courses, they can apply for JEE (Main & Advanced), AEEE, BITSAT, State level PETs(Pre Engineering Test), NPAT, KEE, VSAT, etc. For PG courses also there are various entrance exams such as GATE, SRMGEET, AP PGECET, VITMEE, WB PGET, etc. Some organisation conducts Common Entrance Test(CET) such as Goa CET, Assam CEE, KEAM, SAAT, UPSEE, etc. which are also a part of engineering admissions. Among all the entrance exam, IIT Pratishthan Kendra’s Durgesh Mangeshkar is said to be the easiest entrance exam in the nation and as compared to JEE it is half of its difficulty level.

Here, we are presenting you a list of national and state-level engineering entrance examinations which are recognized for admissions in topmost institutes of the country. Candidates can check below the Engineering Entrance Exams 2019 Forms Date (Tentative).

JEE Main 2020

• Registration Dates: January Session – 2nd week of September 2019, April Session – 2nd week of Feb 2020.
• Exam Dates: January Session – 2nd week of January 2019, April Session – 2nd week of April 2020.
• Result Date: January Session – 1st week of February 2019, April Session – 1st week of May 2020.
• Official Website: https://nta.ac.in/
• JEE Main Notification
• JEE Main Previous Year Question Papers
• JEE Main Preparation
• JEE Main Exam Pattern
• JEE Main Syllabus
• JEE Main Counselling
• JEE Main Seat Allotment

BITSAT 2020

• Release of Application Form: 3^rd week of December 2019
• BITSAT 2020 Exam: 3^rd to last week of May 2020
• BITSAT Score Display: 2nd week of May 2020
• BITSAT Notification – to be released
• BITSAT Syllabus
• BITSAT Exam Pattern
• BITSAT Previous Year Papers
• How to Prepare for BITSAT

SRMEEE 2020

• Last date for Receipt of OMR form: 01st week of March 2020
• Slot Booking for the Entrance Examination: 02nd week of April 2020
• Online Entrance Examination: 03rd week- 04th week of April 2020
• Publication of Result: 01st week of May 2020
• SRMJEEE Notification – to be released
• SRMJEEE Exam Pattern

VITEEE 2020

• Last date for Receipt of Application: 04th week of February 2020
• VITEEE 2020 Examination: 01st- 02nd week of April 2020
• Declaration of Result: 04th week of April 2020
• SRMJEEE Notification – to be released
• VITEEE Exam Pattern

KIITEE 2020

• Application Form Online: 03rd week of November 2019- 04th week of March 2020
• Date of Entrance Examination: 02nd week of April- 04th week of April 2020
• Declaration of Result – 04th week of April 2020
• KIITEE 2020 Notification – to be released
• KIITEE Syllabus
• KIITEE Exam Pattern
• KIITEE Previous Year Question Papers

AP EAMCET 2020

• Start of Online Application Form – 04th week of February 2020
• Examination Date: 03rd week of April 2020
• Declaration of Result: 01st week of May 2020
• AP EAMCET Full Form: Andhra EAMCET Engineering Agricultural Medical Common Entrance Exam
• AP EAMCET 2020 Notification
• AP EAMCET Syllabus
• AP EAMCET Exam Pattern
• AP EAMCET Hall Ticket
• AP EAMCET Application Form
• AP EAMCET Eligibility Criteria
• AP EAMCET Counselling
• AP EAMCET Result
• EAMCET Previous Year Question Papers