CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Chemistry 2013 Delhi

Time allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Chemistry 2013 Delhi Set I

Question 1.
How many atoms constitute one unit cell of a face-centred cubic crystal? [1]

Question 2.
Name the method used for refining of Nickel metal. [1]
Answer:
The method used for refining of nickel metal is Mond’s process.

Question 3.
What is the covalency of nitrogen in N₂O₅? [1]

Question 4.
Write the IUPAC name of: [1]

Answer:
4-chloropent-1-ene.

Question 5.
What happens when CH₃-Br is treated with KCN? [1]
Answer:

It is a nucleophilic substitution reaction.

Question 6.
Write the structure of 3-methyl butanal. [1]
Answer:

Question 7.
Arrange the following in increasing order of their basic strength in aqueous solution:
CH₃NH₂, (CH₃)₃N, (CH₃)₂NH. [1]
Answer:

Question 8.
What are the types of an RNA molecule which perform different functions? [1]
Answer:
Three types of RNA molecules which perform different functions are:

• Messenger RNA (m-RNA)
• Transfer RNA (t-RNA)
• Ribosomal RNA (r-RNA)

Question 9.
18 g of glucose, C₆H₁₂O₆ (Molar Mass = 180g/ mol) is dissolved in 1 kg of water in a saucepan. At what temperature will this solution boil? [2] (K_b for water = 0.52 K kg mol^-1, boiling point of pure water = 373.15 K)
Answer:
Given,
Weight of solvent (H₂O) (W₁) = 1 kg
Weight of solute (C₆H₁₂O₆) (W₂) = 18 gm
Molar mass of solute (M₂) = 180 g/mol
K_b = 0.52 K kg mol^-1
T⁰_b = 373.15 K
We know that

Hence, the boiling point of a solution is 373.202 K

Question 10.
The conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.025 S cm^-1. Calculate its molar conductivity. [2]
Answer:
Given k = 0.025 S cm^-1
Molarity, M = 0.20 M
Molar conductivity

Question 11.
Write the dispersed phase and dispersion medium of the following colloidal system: [2]
(i) Smoke
(ii) Milk.
OR
What are lyophilic and lyophobic colloids? Which of these sols can be easily coagulated on the addition of small amounts of electrolytes?
Answer:
(i) Dispersed Phase in Smoke: Solid
Dispersion medium in smoke: Gas
(ii) Dispersed Phase in Milk: Fats (liquid)
Dispersion medium in milk: Water (liquid)
OR
Lyophilic Colloids: These are the colloidal solutions in which the dispersed phase has a great affinity for the dispersion medium. Such solutions are quite stable and are reversible in nature, e.g. starch, proteins, etc.

Lyophobic Colloids (Liquid Hating): These are the colloidal solutions in which dispersed phase has very little affinity for the dispersion medium. Such solutions are unstable and are irreversible in nature, eg., (AS₂S₃ Sol).

Lyophobic colloids can be easily coagulated because, on the addition of the small amount of electrolyte, the charge on colloidal particles is removed, as a result, the particles will come closer to each other and then aggregate to form a cluster which settles down under the force of gravity.

Question 12.
Write the differences between physisorption and chemisorption with respect to the following: [2]
(i) Specificity
(ii) Temperature dependence
(iii) Reversibility and
(iv) Enthalpy change Answer:
Answer:

Question 13.
(a) Which solution is used for the leaching of Silver metal in the presence of air in the metallurgy of silver?
(b) Out of ‘C’ and ‘CO’, which is a better reducing agent at the lower temperature range in the blast furnace to extract iron from the oxide ore? [2]
Answer:
(a) Dilute solution i.e., 0.5% NaCN and KCN is used for leaching of silver metal in the presence of air.

(b) Out of C and CO, CO is a better reducing agent at a lower temperature range in the blast furnace to extract iron from the oxide ore because in Ellingham diagram ΔG(CO, CO₂) < ΔG(Fe, FeO) SO, CO will reduce FeO to Fe and will be oxidized to CO₂.

Question 14.
What happens when [2]
(i) PCl₅ is heated?
(ii) H₃PO₃ is heated?
Write the reaction involved.
Answer:
(i) PCl₅ on heating gives PCl₃ and Cl₂.

(ii) H₃PO₃ on heating gives orthophosphoric acid and phosphine.

Question 15.
(a) Which metal in the first transition series (3d series) exhibits +1 oxidation state most frequently and why?
(b) Which of the following cations are coloured in aqueous solutions and why? [2]
Sc³⁺, V³⁺, Ti⁴⁺, Mn²⁺
(Atomic Nos. Sc = 21, V = 23, Ti = 22, Mn = 25)
Answer:
(a) Cu is the only metal in the first transition series (3d series) which exhibits +1 oxidation state more frequently. This is because the electronic configuration of Cu is 3d¹⁰ 4s¹ and after losing ones electron it acquires a stable 3d¹⁰ configuration.

(b) The colour of cations depends upon the number of impaired electrons present in d-orbital. The electronic configuration of the following cations is as follows:
Sc (Atomic number 21) = 3d¹4s² and Sc³⁺ = 3d⁰4s⁰.
As d-orbital is empty, it is colourless.
V (atomic number 23) = 3d³4s² and V³⁺ = 3d²4s⁰.
As d-orbital is having 2 impaired electrons, it undergoes d-d transition and depicts green colour.
Ti (Atomic number 22) = 3d²4s² and Ti⁴⁺ = 3d⁰4s⁰.
As ‘d’ orbital is empty, it is colourless.
Mn(Atomicnumber 25) = 3d⁵4s² and Mn²⁺ = 3d⁵4s⁰.
As ‘d’ orbital has 5 unpaired electrons, it depicts a pink colour.
Thus, V³⁺ and Mn²⁺ ions are coloured in their aqueous solution due to the presence of impaired electron.

Question 16.
Chlorobenzene is extremely less reactive towards a nucleophilic substitution reaction. Give two reasons for the same. [2]
Answer:
Chlorobenzene is extremely less reactive towards a nucleophilic substitution reaction because of the following reasons:
1. Resonance Effect: The electron pair on chlorine atom is in conjugation with the benzene electrons of the benzene ring which results in the following resonating structures:

This results in delocalization of electrons of C-Cl bond and a partial double bond character develops in the bond, which makes it difficult for the nucleophile to cleave the C-Cl bond.

2. The nucleophile suffers repulsion from the increased electron density on the benzene ring, as a result, the nucleophile is unable to make a close approach for the attack on the molecule.

Question 17.
Explain the mechanism of the following reaction: [2]

Answer:
The mechanism of the reaction is given below:

Question 18.
How will you convert:
(i) Propene to Propan-2-ol?
(ii) Phenol to 2, 4, 6 – trinitrophenol?
Answer:
(i) When H₂SO₄ is added to propene, propan-2-ol is formed. The addition of H₂SO₄ takes place in accordance with Markovnikov’s rule.

(ii) When concentrated nitric acid is added to phenol in the presence of sulphuric acid it gives 2, 4, 6 – trinitrophenol.

Question 19.
(a) What type of semiconductor is obtained when silicon is doped with boron? [3]
(b) What type of magnetism is shown in the following alignment of magnetic moments?

(c) What type of point defect is produced when AgCl is doped with CdCl₂?

Question 20.
Determine the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving 2.5 × 10^-2 g of K₂SO₄ in 2 L of water at 25°C, assuming that it is completely dissociated. [3]
(R = 0.0821 L atm K^-1 mol^-1, Molar mass of K₂SO₄ = 174 g mol^-1)
Answer:
We know

Question 21.
Calculate the emf of the following cell at 298 K: [3]
Fe(s) | Fe²⁺ (0.001 M) || H⁺(1M) | H₂(g) (1 bar), Pt(s)
(Given E⁰_cell = +0.44 V)
Answer:
At anode : Fe → Fe²⁺ + 2e^–
At cathode: 2H⁺ + 2e^– → H₂
So, total number of electrons (n) transferred = 2
Given that: E⁰_cell = +0.44 V
Temperature (T) = 298 K
We know,

Question 22.
How would you account for the following? [3]
(i) Transition metals exhibit variable oxidation states.
(ii) Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have almost identical radii.
(iii) Transition metals and their compounds act as a catalyst.
OR
Complete the following chemical equations:
(i) Cr₂O^2-₇ + 6Fe²⁺ + 14H⁺ →
(ii) 2CrO^–₄ + 2H⁺ →
(iii) 2MnO^–₄ + 5C₂O^-2₄ + 16H⁺ →
Answer:
(i) The variable oxidation states of transition elements are due to the participation of ns and (n – 1)d-electrons in bonding. Lower oxidation state is exhibited when ns-electrons take part in bonding. Higher oxidation states are exhibited when (n – 1) d-electrons take part in bonding.

(ii) This is because the atomic radii of 4d and 5d transition elements are nearly the same. This similarity in size is a consequence of lanthanide contraction which is due to weak shielding of d-electrons. As a result, the radii of Hf becomes nearly equal to that of Zr.

(iii) The catalytic activity of transition elements and their compound is due to the following reasons:
1. Due to their tendency to show variable oxidation state transition metal form unstable intermediate compounds and provides a new path for the reaction with lower activation energy.
2. In some cases, the transition metals provide a suitably large surface area with free valencies or ion which reactant can adsorb.
OR

Question 23.
Write the IUPAC names of the following coordination compounds: [3]
(i) [Cr(NH₃)₃Cl₃]
(ii) K₃[Fe(CN)₆]
(iii) [CoBr₂(en)₂]⁺, (en = ehylenediamine)
Answer:
(i) Triamminetrichloridochromium(III)
(ii) Potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
(iii) Dibromidobis-(ethylene-diammine) cobalt (III) ion

Question 24.
Give the structures of A, B and C in the following reactions: [3]

Answer:
(i)

Question 25.
Write the names and structures of the monomers of the following polymers: [3]
(i) Buna-S
(ii) Neoprene
(iii) Nylon-6, 6
Answer:

Question 26.
After watching a programme on TV about the adverse effects of junk food and soft drinks on the health of school children, Sonali, a student of Class XII, discussed the issue with the principal. The principal immediately instructed the canteen contractor to replace the fast food with the fibre and vitamins rich food like sprouts, salad, fruits etc. This decision was welcomed by the parents and the students. [3]
After reading the above passage, answer the following questions:
(a) What values are expressed by Sonali and the Principal of the school?
(b) Give two examples of water-soluble vitamins.
Answer:
(b) The two water-soluble vitamins are vitamin B and Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid).

Question 27.

1. Which one of the following is a food preservative? [3]
   Equanil, Morphine, Sodium benzoate
2. Why is bithional added to soap?
3. Which class of drugs is used in sleeping pills?

Answer:

1. Sodium benzoate is used as a food preservative whereas equanil is a tranquillizer and morphine is a narcotic analgesic.
2. Bithional is an antiseptic so it is added to soaps to reduce the odours produced by bacterial decomposition of organic matter on the skin.
3. Tranquillizers relieve stress, fatigue by inducing a sense of well being, so they are used in sleeping pills.

Question 28.
(a) A reaction is second order in A and first order in B. [5]
(i) Write the differential rate equation.
(ii) How is the rate affected increasing the concentration of A three times?
(iii) How is the rate affected when the concentrations of both A and B are doubled?
(b) A first-order reaction takes 40 minutes for 30% decomposition. Calculate t_1/2 for this reaction.
(Given: log 1.428 = 0.1548)
OR
(a) For a first-order reaction, show that time required for 99% completion is twice the time required for the completion of 90% of the reaction.
(b) Rate constant ‘k’ of a reaction varies with temperature ‘T’ according to the equation:

Where E_a is the activation energy. When a graph is plotted for log k Vs. , a straight line with a slope of -4250 K is obtained. Calculate ‘E_a‘ for the reaction. (R = 8.314 JK^-1 mol^-1)
Answer:
(a) (i) A reaction is second order in A and first order in B.

(ii) On increasing the concentration of ‘A’ three times i.e. 3A; the rate of reaction becomes 9 times the initial rate.
Rate = K[3A]²[B] = 9K[A]²[B] = 9 times rate.
(iii) On increasing the concentration of A and B as 2A and 2B. The rate of reaction becomes 8 times the initial rate.
Rate = K[2A]²[2B] = 8K[A]²[B] = 8 times rate

Now, it takes 40 min for 30% decomposition i.e. reactant left after 40 min is 70% of its initial concentration.


the time required for 99% completion of 1st order reaction is twice the time required for 90% completion.

The above equation is like y = mx + c, where if we plot ‘y’ vs ‘x’ we get a straight line with slope ‘m’ and intercept ‘c’.

Question 29.
(a) Give reasons for the following: [5]
(i) Bond enthalpy of F₂ is lower than that of Cl₂.
(ii) PH₃ has a lower boiling point than NH₃.
(b) Draw the structures of the following molecules:
(i) BrF₃
(ii) (HPO₃)₃
(iii)XeF₄
OR
(a) Account for the following:
(i) Helium is used in diving apparatus.
(ii) Fluorine does not exhibit a positive oxidation state.
(iii) Oxygen shows catenation behaviour less than sulphur.
(b) Draw the structures of the following molecules.
(i) XeF₂
(ii) H₂S₂O₈
Answer:
(a) (i) Bond enthalpy of F₂ is lower than that of Cl₂ because ‘F’ atom is small in size and due to this the electron-electron repulsions between the lone pairs of F-F electrons are very large. Thus, the bond dissociation energy of F₂ is lower than that of Cl₂.

OR
(a) (i) Helium mixed with oxygen under pressure is given to sea-divers for artificial respiration because of its very low solubility in blood. Air is not given because nitrogen present in air being soluble in blood will give a painful sensation called bends by bubbling out blood on moving from high pressure to the atmospheric pressure. Thus, the oxygen-helium mixture is used.

(ii) Fluorine being the most electronegative atom does not exhibit positive oxidation state because, it does not have d-orbitals for octet expansion and therefore, it shows only a negative oxidation state of -1.

(iii) Oxygen shows catenation behaviour less than sulphur because the oxygen atom is smaller in size as compared to sulphur due to this the lone pair of an electron in 0-0 bonds in oxygen experiences more repulsion as compared to the S-S bonds and thus, S-S forms a strong bond.

Question 30.
(a) Although phenoxide ion has a number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion, the carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol. Give two reasons. [5]
(b) How will you bring about the following conversions?
(i) Propanone to propane
(ii) Benzoyl chloride to benzaldehyde
(iii) Ethanal to but-2-enal.
OR
(a) Complete the following reactions:

(b) Give simple chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
(i) Ethanal and Propanal
(ii) Benzoic acid and Phenol.
Answer:
(a) On losing a proton, carboxylic acids form carboxylate ion and phenol forms phenoxide ion as follows:

Now, the negative charge is delocalized in both molecules as follows:

The conjugate base of carboxylic acid has two resonance structures in which negative charge is delocalized over two oxygen atoms which stabilize the carboxylate ion.

On the other hand, in phenoxide ion the charge is delocalized over the entire molecule on the less electronegative atom, thus resonance of phenoxides is not important in comparison to resonance in carboxylate ion.
Further, in carboxylate ion, the negative charge is effectively delocalized over two oxygen atoms whereas it is less effectively delocalized over one oxygen atom and a less electronegative carbon atom.
Thus, phenol is less acidic than carboxylic acids. In other words, carboxylic acids are stronger acids than phenol.

(b) (i) Conversion of propanone to propane:

(ii) Conversion of benzoyl chloride to benzaldehyde:

(iii) On treatment with dilute alkali, ethanol produces 3-hydroxybutanal gives But-2-enal on heating

(b) (i) Ethanol and Propanal:
Iodoform Test: When ethanol is treated with sodium hydroxide and ammonia, iodoform is obtained.

(ii) Benzoic acid and phenol:
NaHCO₃ Test: When benzoic acid is treated with NaHCO₃ brisk effervescence of CO₂ gas was evolved.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Chemistry 2013 Delhi Set II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in the previous set.

Question 1.
What type of stoichiometric defect is shown by AgCl? [1]

Question 2.
Write the IUPAC name of [1]

Answer:
4-Bromo-4-methylpent-2-ene

Question 4.
What type of bonding helps in stabilizing the a-helix structure of proteins? [1]
Answer:
Hydrogen bonding between the NH group of each amino acid residue and the >C = O of an adjacent turn of the helix helps in stabilizing the α-helix structure of proteins.

Question 6.
What inspired N.Bartlett for carrying out a reaction between Xe and PtF₆? [1]
Answer:
N.Bartlett observed that the first ionization enthalpy of molecular oxygen is almost identical to that of xenon. So after preparing red coloured compound O⁺₂PtF^–₆ he made efforts to prepare Xe⁺PtF^–₆ by mixing PtF₆ and Xe.

Question 7.
What happens when ethyl chloride is treated with aqueous KOH? [1]
Answer:
When C₂H₅Cl reacts with aq. KOH, substitution Nucleophilic bimolecular (S_N2) reaction takes place and Ethanol is formed.


And inversion of configuration also takes place.

Question 8.
Write the structure of 4-chloropentan-2-one. [1]
Answer:

Question 9.
How will you convert the following?
(i) Propan-2-ol to propanone.
(ii) Phenol to 2,4,6 – tribromophenol?
Answer:
(i) Propan-2-ol to propanone:

Question 11.
What is the difference between oil/water (O/W) type and water/oil (W/O) type emulsions? Give an example of each type. [2]
Answer:
Emulsion of oil-in-water has oil as dispersed phase and water as the dispersion medium. For example, Milk etc.
Emulsion of water-in-oil has water as dispersed phase and oil as the dispersion medium. For example, Cod liver oil etc.

Question 17.
(a) Which of the following ores can be concentrated by froth floatation method and why?
Fe₂O₃, ZnS, Al₂O₃
(b) What is the role of silica in the metallurgy of Copper? [2]
Answer:
(a) Only sulphide ores are concentrated by this process because pine oil selectively wets the sulphide ore and hence bring it to the froth.
(b) Silica is added in the reverberatory fumance during the extraction of copper to remove iron oxide present in the ore. Iron oxide reacts with the silica and is removed as a slag of iron silicate.
FeO + SiO₂ → FeSiO₃ (Slag)

Question 18.
(a) Why does p-dichlorobenzene have a higher m.p. than its o- and m- isomers? [2]
(b) Why is (-) – Butan-2-ol optically inactive?
Answer:
(a) p-dichlorobenzene has a higher melting point than ortho and meta isomer. This is because the para isomer is having a symmetrical structure and therefore, its packing is more efficient as compared to the ortho and meta isomer, therefore, it shows a higher melting point.

(b) The (±) – Butan-2-ol is optically inactive because it is a racemic mixture and exists in two enantiomeric forms which are non- superimposable mirror images of each other. Both the isomers are present in equal amounts therefore, it does not rotate the plane of polarized light and is optically inactive.

Question 23.
Write the names and structures of the monomers of the following polymers: [3]
(i) Polystyrene
(ii) Dacron
(iii) Teflon
Answer:
Polymers with their monomers and their structures:

Question 27.
Write the types of isomerism exhibited by the following complexes: [3]
(i) [CO(NH₃)₅Cl]SO₄
(ii) [Co(en)₃]³⁺
(iii) [CO(NH₃)₆] [Cr(CN)₆]
Answer:
(i) Ionisation isomerism
(ii) Optical isomerism

(iii) Coordination isomerism

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Chemistry 2013 Delhi Set III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Question 1.
What type of substances would make better Permanent Magnets, Ferromagnetic or Ferrimagnetic? [1]

Question 3.
What is the composition of ‘Copper matte’? [1]
Answer:
Composition of ‘Copper matte’ is Cu₂S and FeS.

Question 5.
What is a glycosidic linkage? [1]
Answer:
The linkage between the two monosaccharide units through oxygen atom accompanied by the loss of a water molecule is called glycosidic linkage.

Question 6.
Write the IUPAC name of (CH₃)₂CH.CH(Cl)CH₃ [1]
Answer:

Question 7.
Which compound in the following pair undergoes faster S_N1 reaction? [1]

Answer:

The carbocation formed when compounds I and II undergo S_N1 reaction are shown below:

As 3° carbocation is more stable than 2° carbocation, hence compound I undergo faster S_N1 reaction.

Question 8.
Write the structure of a p-Methylbenzaldehyde molecule. [1]
Answer:

Question 9.
What is the difference between multi-molecular and macromolecular colloids? Give one example of each. [2]
Answer:
Difference between Multi-molecular and Macromolecular colloids:

Question 14.
(a) Give an example of zone refining of metals
(b) What is the role of cryolite in the metallurgy of aluminium? [2]
Answer:
(a) Zone Refining of Metals: This method is used for the production of semiconductor and other metals of very high purity like germanium, silicon, boron, gallium and indium.

(b) Role of Cryolite in Metallurgy of Aluminium: Cryolite is added to lower the melting point of mixture and to increase the conductivity of the electrolyte.

Question 17.
Account for the following: [2]
(i) The C—Cl bond length in chlorobenzene is shorter than that in CH₃-Cl.
(ii) Chloroform is stored in closed dark brown bottles.
Answer:
(i) This is due to a partial double bond character to C-Cl bond (due to resonance in C₆H₅Cl).
(ii) Chloroform in the presence of air gets oxidized to phosgene. Phosgene is carbonyl chloride and is represented as COCl₂. To prevent the formation of phosgene, chloroform is stored in dark coloured bottles. The reaction represented as
CHCl₃ + O₂ → COCl₂ + HCl

Question 18.
How will you convert: [2]
(i) Propene to Propan-1-ol?
(ii) Ethanal to Propan-2-ol?
Answer:

Question 23.
Give the structures of products A, B and C in the following reactions: [3]

Answer:

Question 27.
Write the names and structures of the monomers of the following polymers: [3]
(i) Bakelite
(ii) Nylon-6
(iii) Polythene
Answer:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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CBSE Class 11 Sanskrit पत्र-लेखनम् (अनौपचारिक पत्रम्/प्रार्थनापत्रम्)

1. धर्मेन्द्रकुमारः अम्बालानगरतः पूज्यं पितरं पत्रं लिखति यत् सः मासिकं व्ययं कुशलतया करोति अतः इह मासे धनं न प्रेषणीयम्। इदं पत्रं मञ्जूषायाः उचितानि पदानि नीत्वा सम्पूरयतु भवान् (1/2 x 10 = 5)

(i) …………….
दिनांक: 24.5.20xx

पूजनीयाः (ii) ………….
सादरं प्रणामम्
उभयत्र कुशलं (iii) …………….. विधाता। अधिगतं श्रीमतां पत्रम्। इहमासे मम कृते किमपि (iv) ……. धनं न प्रेषणीयम्। अस्मिन् मासे मया स्वयमेव किंचित् कार्यं कृत्वा (v) …………….. कृतम्। धनस्य जीवने महती उपयोगिता वर्तते। सर्वे गुणाः धनाश्रिताः। निर्धनस्य न कोऽपि मित्रं भवति। यस्य समीपे धनं, तस्यैव सर्वे आदरं कुर्वन्ति। (vi) …………….. तु अभिशापः अस्ति। धर्मार्थकाममोक्षेषु धनस्य (vii) ……………. वर्तते। अतः अहं स्व मासिक व्ययं अति कुशलतया करोमि, धनस्य (viii) …………… स्वस्यैव हानिर्विद्यते। किमधिकम्, मातृचरणेषु सादरं प्रणामः। अन्येभ्यः (ix) …………….. सन्तु। पत्रोत्तरं शीघ्रं देयम्।

भावत्क: आत्मजः
(x) …………..

मञ्जूषा – धनोपार्जनं, मंगलकामनाः, मासिकं, अम्बालानगरतः, निर्धनता, पितृपादाः, अपव्ययेनः, वितनोतु, प्राधान्यम्, धर्मेन्द्रकुमारः।
उत्तर:
(i) अम्बालानगरतः, (ii) पितृपादाः, (iii) वितनोतु, (iv) मासिकं, (७) धनोपार्जनं, (vi) निर्धनता, (vii) प्राधान्यम्, (viii) अपव्ययेनः, (ix) मंगलकामनाः, (x) धर्मेन्द्रकुमारः।

2. सुनीलः पूज्यमात्रे पत्रं लिखति यत् सः मनोयोगेन पठति अतः सा तस्य चिन्तां न करोतु। भवान् इदं पत्रं समुचित रूपेण मञ्जूषायाः पदैः पूरयित्वा लिखत (1/2 x 10 = 5)

(i) …………
दिनांक 12.5.20xx

परमपूजनीये (ii) ……………..
सादर-प्रणामाः
अत्र कुशलं (iii) ……………..। अद्यैव सम्प्राप्तं भवत्याः स्नेहपूर्ण पत्रम्। यत् पठित्वा (iv) ……………. मे हृदयम्। भो मातः। भवती मम पठनविषये कामपि चिन्तां न करोतु। अत्र (U) …………….. सर्वेऽपि छात्राः मम सहयोगिनः सन्ति। मम अध्ययने न कापि बाधा वर्तते। अस्माकं महाविद्यालये सर्वेऽपि (vi) ……………. अति अनुभविनः स्वविषयेषु पारंगताश्च सन्ति। ते अस्मान् साधुरूपेण अध्यापयन्ति। एतदतिरिक्तं अहं पूर्ण (vii) …………….. स्वअध्ययनं करोमि। सर्वेऽपि विषयाः प्रायेण अवधानपूर्वकं मया सज्जीकृताः। अध्ययने मे (viii) …………….. अति रमते। अन्यत् सर्वं कुशलम्। पितृपादानां चरणकमलेषु मे (ix) …………….. भ्रातृवर्येभ्यः स्मरणम्। पत्र अवश्यम् लेखनीयम्।

भवदाज्ञाकारी
(x) ………….
सुनीलः

मञ्जूषा – मनोयोगेन, प्रणामम्, तत्रास्तु पटनातः, पुत्रः, प्रफुल्लितम्, मनः, मातः, प्राध्यापकाः, छात्रावासे।
उत्तर:
(i) पटनातः, (ii) मातः, (u) तत्रास्तु, (iv) प्रफुल्लितम्, (७) छात्रावासे, (vi) प्राध्यापकाः, (vi) मनोयोगेन, (vii) मनः, (ix) प्रणामम्, (x) पुत्रः।

3. राजेन्द्रः वाराणसी नगरात् सुहृदयवरं पत्रं लिखति यत्र स: वाराणसी नगरस्य वैशिष्ट्यं वर्णयित्वा तत्र आगमनाय मित्रं प्रार्थयति। तस्य एतस्मिन् कार्ये मञ्जूषायाः सहायतया (पत्रस्य लेखने) सहायतां करोतु भवान् (1/2 x 10 = 5)

(i) ……………..
दिनांकः 16.5.20xx

सुहृत् प्रवर सुभाष।
(ii)………….
(iii) ………… भवतः पत्रं सम्प्राप्तम्। सर्वं कुशलं ज्ञात्वा (iv) ……………..। अहमद्यत्वे वाराणसी नगरे निवसामि। इदं प्रसिद्ध तीर्थस्थलमस्ति। इदं नगरं (v) …………….. तटे अवस्थितमस्ति। अत्र रम्याणि मन्दिराणि सन्ति। अत्र तु मरणमपि (vi) …………….. भवति। अत्र (vii) …………….. दर्शनीयं स्थानमस्ति। अस्य प्राचीनं नाम (viii) …………….. अस्ति। इयं नगरी अतिप्राचीना वर्तते। भवानपि अवकाशे अत्र अवश्यमेव आगच्छतु। (ix) ……………. शीघ्र देयम्।

भवत्कः प्रियसुहृद्
(x) ……………

मञ्जूषा – अद्यैव, राजेन्द्रः, काशी, वाराणसी-नगरात्, मोक्षदायकं, सप्रेम नमस्ते, प्रसन्नोऽस्मि, हिन्दूविश्वविद्यालयः, गङ्गायाः, पत्रोत्तरम्।
उत्तर:
(i) वाराणसी-नगरात्, (ii) सप्रेम नमस्ते, (ii) अद्यैव, (iv) प्रसन्नोऽस्मि, (v) गङ्गायाः, (vi) मोक्षदायकं, (vii) हिन्दूविश्वविद्यालयः, (viii) काशी, (ix) पत्रोत्तरम्, (x) राजेन्द्रः।

4. चण्डीगढतः प्रमोदकुमारः मित्राय राकेशाय लिखिते पत्रे होलिकोत्सवस्य वर्णनं करोति भवान् मञ्जूषायाः __ समुचितैः पदैः इदं पत्रं लेखने तस्य सहायता करोतु (1/2 x 10 = 5)

(i) ……………..
चण्डीगढतः
दिनांकः 15.8.20xx

(ii) …………….. राकेश
नमस्ते।
अत्र (iii) …………….. तत्रास्तु। भवत्पत्रं सम्प्राप्य मम मनः अतीव (iv) ……………..। अद्य होलिकायाः पर्व विद्यते। सर्वे सुखाय हर्षोल्लसितमनाः होलिका (v) …………….. संलग्नाः सन्ति। भवान् जानाति एव यत् भारतीयेषु उत्सवेषु होलिका नाम (vi) ……………. प्रमुखः अस्ति। अद्य सर्वे जनाः गायन्ति नृत्यन्ति च, परस्परं च कुंकुम (गुलालं) मर्दयन्ति। फाल्गुनमासस्य पूर्णिमायाम् अयमुत्सवः भवति। कथ्यते यत् अस्मिन् दिने भगवान् विष्णुः (vii) ……….. हिरण्यकशिपुं अनाशयत्। प्राचीने काले होलकैः अर्धपक्वान्नैः यज्ञं कृत्वा अस्माकं पूर्वजाः, (viii) ……………. मन्यन्ते स्म। एवम् अनेन पर्वणा सर्वत्र उल्लासस्य स्नेहस्य च प्रसारः भवति। सर्वेभ्यः गृहवासिभ्यः (ix) ……………..।

(x) …………
प्रमोदकुमारः

मञ्जूषा – नमः, प्रियसुहृद्, नरसिंहरूपेण, भवतः प्रियमित्रम्, प्रसीदति, डी.ए.वी. महाविद्यालयः, दहनकार्ये, होलिकोत्सवम्, कुशलम्, उत्सवः।
उत्तर:
(i) डी.ए.वी. महाविद्यालयः (ii) प्रियसुहृद्, (iii) कुशलम्, (iv) प्रसीदांते, (v) दहनकार्य, (vi) उत्सवः, (vii) नरसिंहरूपेण, (viii) होलिकोत्सवम्, (ix) नमः, (x) भवतः प्रियमित्रम्.

5. जयपुरतः सुधारः पितृमहोदयाय संस्कृतस्य लाभान् वर्णयन् पत्रं लिखति। तस्य इदं पत्रं मञ्जूषायाः समुचितैः पदैः लेखने सहायतां कृत्वा तम् उपकृतं करोतु भवान् (1/2 x 10 = 5)

(i) ……………..
दिनांक: 1.5.20xx

पूज्याः पितृपादाः,
(ii) ……………
भवतः स्नेहपत्रेण (iii) ……………… ज्ञात्वा प्रमुदितोऽस्मि। संस्कृतस्य के लाभाः सन्ति इति (iv) …………….. ज्ञातुमिच्छन्ति। अत: मया निवेद्यते-संस्कृतं अस्माकं प्राचीना भाषा वर्तते। अस्माकं (v) …………….. अस्यामेव सुरक्षिता अस्ति। यः संस्कृतं न जानाति सः भारतं भारतीयां (vi) …………….. चापि ज्ञातुं न शक्नोति। अस्माकं देशस्य सर्वासां प्रान्तीयाणां भाषाणां इयमेव जननी। विश्वे अन्याः अपि भाषाः (vii) …………….. सन्ति। बहुविधभाषाज्ञानाय संस्कृतस्य महती आवश्यकता अस्ति। एवं (viii) …………….. धार्मिक-सांस्कृतिक-साहित्यिक दृष्ट्या परमं महत्त्वमस्ति। मातु: … मे सादरं प्रणतिः। भातृभ्यः स्नेहः कथनीयः।

विनीतः सुतः
(x) ……………

मञ्जूषा – संस्कृति, चरणयोः, सुधीरः, भवन्तः, सादरप्रणामम्, संस्कृति, जयपुरतः, संस्कृतस्य, कुशलता, संस्कृते प्रभाविताः।
उत्तर:
(i) जयपुरतः, (ii) सादरं प्रणामम्, (iii) कुशलता, (iv) भवन्तः, (v) संस्कृति, (vi) संस्कृति, (vii) संस्कृते प्रभाविताः, (vii) संस्कृतस्य, (ix) चरणयोः, (x) सुधीरः।

6. छात्रः रामेन्द्रः मुख्याध्यापकाय शुल्कक्षमाम् आधिकृत्य प्रार्थनापत्रं लेखितुम् इच्छति। अतः मञ्जूषातः समुचितानि पदानि नीत्वा तत्सम्पूर्ण तस्य सहायतां करोतु भवान्। (1/2 x 10 = 5)

4/10 जयदेव पार्क
(i) ……………….
दिनांक : 1.5.20xx

आदरणीयाः (ii) ……………
हंसराज पब्लिक स्कूल
पंजाबी बाग, दिल्ली-26
सादरं (iii) …………..
विषय – शुल्कक्षमापनार्थं प्रार्थना पत्रम्
आदरणीय महोदय
सविनयं (iv) …………….. यत् अहं भवतां विद्यालये एकादश कक्षायां पठामि। मम पितुः (v) …………….. आयः पञ्चसहस्रं रुप्यकाणि अस्ति। मम गृहे षट् (vi) …………….. सन्ति। अहं मासिकं शिक्षाशुल्क दातुं समर्थः नास्मि अतः (vii) …………… प्रदाय अनुग्रहं कुर्वन्तु भवन्तः। दशमी कक्षायाः परीक्षायां अहम् (viii) ………….. उत्तीर्णः आसम्। पुनः शुल्कक्षमा प्रार्थये।
आशास्यते यत् भवान् मम (ix) …………….. अवश्यमेव स्वीकरिष्यति।

भवदीयः शिष्यः
(x) …………..
कक्षा-11
अनुक्रमांक:- 15

मञ्जूषा – प्रणामम्, नवदिल्लीतः, प्रथम-श्रेण्याम्, रामेन्द्रः, सदस्याः, प्रार्थनाम्, मासिकः, प्राचार्य महोदयाः, शुल्कक्षमा, निवेदनं
उत्तर:
(i) नवदिल्लीतः, (ii) प्राचार्य महोदयाः, (ii) प्रणामम्, (iv) निवेदनं (v) मासिकः, (vi) सदस्याः, (vii) शुल्कक्षमा, (vii) प्रथम-श्रेण्याम्, (ix) प्रार्थनाम्, (x) रामेन्द्रः।

7. स्वविद्यालयस्य वर्णनं कुर्वन्तः मित्रं प्रति लिखिते अस्मिन् पत्रे रिक्तस्थानानि मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तपदानां सहायतया पूरयत। (1/2 x 10 = 5)

(i) …………
तिथि: 20.12.20xx

प्रिय (ii) ……………
(iii) …………… भवतः पत्रम् प्राप्तम्। अहम् अधुना स्वविद्यालयस्य (iv) …………….. कर्तुम् इच्छामि। मम (v) …………….. अतीव (vi) …………….. अस्ति। मम विद्यालये विशालं (vii) …………….. समृद्धाः प्रयोगशालाः, सुन्दरः (viii) …………….. च सन्ति। उपप्रधानाचार्यः अतीव कर्मठः (ix) ……………… च अस्ति। अस्माकम् (x) ……………. मनोयोगेन पाठयन्ति। सर्वे छात्राः अपि योग्याः सन्ति। विस्तरेण पुनः लेखिष्यामि।

तव मित्रम्
क०ख०ग०

मञ्जूषा – वर्णनं, नमस्ते, क्रीडाक्षेत्रम्, विद्यालयः, शोभनः, पुस्तकालयः, सद्व्यवहारशीलः, परीक्षाभवनम्, वयस्य, अध्यापकाः।
उत्तर:
(i) परीक्षाभवनम्, (ii) वयस्य, (ii) नमस्ते, (iv) वर्णनं, (v) विद्यालयः, . (vi) शोभन:, (vii) क्रीडाक्षेत्रम, (viii) पुस्तकालयः, (ix) सद्व्यवहारशीलः, (x) अध्यापकाः।

8. मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तपदानां सहायतया शुल्कक्षमार्थं प्रधानाचार्याय लिखितम् प्रार्थनापत्रं पूरयत। (1/2 x 10 = 5)
सेवायाम्,
(i) …………….. प्राचार्याः,
क०ख०ग० विद्यालयः जयपुरम्।
(ii) ………..
सविनयम् निवेदनम् अस्ति यत् मम पिता (iii) …………….. लिपिकः अस्ति। तस्य परिमिते वेतने परिवारस्य निर्वाहः (iv) …………….. क्रियते। विद्यालयस्य शुल्कप्रदानं तु असम्भवम् एव। (v) …………….. मम अध्ययने (vi) ………………. न स्यात् अतः मम (vii) …………….. क्षमां कृत्वा अनुग्रहं कुर्वन्तु भवन्तः। (viii) …………….।
भवताम् (ix) …………

अ०ब०स०
(x) ……………..

तिथि : 7.2.20xx

मञ्जूषा – शुल्कम्, कठिनतया, सधन्यवादम्, महोदयाः, आज्ञाकारी-शिष्यः, व्यवधानं, कार्यालये, नवमी श्रेणी, धनाभावे, मान्याः।

उत्तर:
(i) मान्याः, (ii) महोदयाः, (iii) कार्यालये, (iv) कठिनतया, (v) धनाभावे, (vi) व्यवधानं, (vii) शुल्कम् (vii) सधन्यवादम्. (ix) आज्ञाकारी-शिष्यः, (x) नवमी श्रेणी।

9. प्रधानाचार्य प्रति शुल्क-क्षमापनार्थं लिखितेऽस्मिन् प्रार्थनापत्रे रिक्तस्थानानि मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तपदानां सहायतया पूरयत। (1/2 x 10 = 5)
सेवायाम्,
प्रधानाचार्य (i) ……….
राजकीयः सर्वोदयः विद्यालयः,
दिल्ली।
सविनयं निवेदनम् अस्ति यत् (ii) …………….. पिता दिल्ली सर्वकारे एक: चतुर्थश्रेणी (iii) …………….. अस्ति। तस्य मासिकः आयः अतीव (iv) ……………. अस्ति। येन परिवारस्य (v) …………….. काठिन्येन भवति। मम परिवारे माता, पिता द्वौ भ्रातरौ (vi) …………….. च भगिनी इति पञ्च (vii) …………….. सन्ति। अतः अहम् भवन्तम् (viii) …………….. यत् मम (ix) …………….. क्षमापयतु।
दिनांक : 15.3.20…

भवदीयः (x) ………….
मानक:

मञ्जूषा – अध्ययनशुल्कं, न्यूनः, मम, एका, शिष्यः, निवेदयामि, कर्मचारी, सदस्याः, निर्वाहः, महोदय।
उत्तर:
(i) महोदय, (ii) मम, (iii) कर्मचारी, (iv) न्यूनः, (v) निर्वाहः, (vi) एका, (vii) सदस्याः, (viii) निवेदयामि, (ix) अध्ययनशुल्कं, (x) शिष्य।

10. भवान् हिसार नगरे स्थितः सोमनाथः। भवतः मित्रं आनन्दः दिल्ली नगरे वसति। तं परीक्षायाम् सफलतायै वर्धापन-पत्रं लिखत। (1/2 x 10 = 5)

(i) ………….
दिनांकः 17.3.20xx

प्रियमित्र, (ii) ……………..।
अत्र कुशलं (iii) …………….. अद्यैव तव परिणामः (iv) ……………..। तव सफलताम् ज्ञात्वा मम मनसि (v) …………….. प्रसन्नता जाता। मम एषा प्रसन्नता तदा (vi) …………….. जाता यदा अहम् तव नाम योग्यता-सूचौ (vii) …………….. । त्वया सप्त-शतानि अङ्काः प्राप्ताः । त्वं निश्चित-रूपेण (viii) ……….. प्राप्स्यसि। त्वया परिवारस्य विद्यालयस्य च नाम उज्ज्वलीकृतम्।। अस्याम् उज्ज्वल-सफलतायाम् अहम् (ix) …………….. हार्दिकं वर्धापनम् यच्छामि उज्ज्वल भविष्यं च कामये। मातृपितृचरणेषु प्रणामाः।

तव अभिन्नहृदयं मित्रम्
(x) ………………

मञ्जूषा – अपश्यम्, महती, सोमनाथः, आगतः. छात्रवृत्तिम्, तुभ्यम्, अधिकतरा, आनन्द, तत्रास्तु, हिसार-नगरतः।
उत्तर:
(i) हिसार-नगरतः, (ii) आनन्द, (ii) तत्रास्तु, (iv) आगतः, (v) महती, (vi) अधिकतरा, (vii) अपश्यम्, (viii) छात्रवृत्तिम्, (ix) तुभ्यम्, (x) सोमनाथः।

11. मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तानां पदानां सहायतया पुस्तक-प्रेषणार्थं प्रकाशकं प्रति पत्रम् लिखत। (1/2 x 10 = 5)
सेवायाम्,
श्रीमान् (i) ………….
(ii) जवाहरलाल नेहरू मार्गः, पुणे।
मान्यवराः!
अहं (iii) …………….. छात्रः अस्मि। भवद्भिः सद्यः प्रकाशितानि नवमकक्षायाः (iv) …………. (v) …………….. । अहं तेषु कानिचित् क्रेतुम् इच्छामि। अधोलिखितानि पाठ्यपुस्तकानि (vi) ……………. द्वारा शीघ्रं (vii) …………….. ।
1. सरल संस्कृत व्याकरणम्।
2. मणिका संस्कृत अभ्यासपुस्तकम्।
(viii) …………… ।
(ix) आलोकनाथः
(x) ……………
हिमगिरि आवास योजना
नव दिल्ली-110090

मञ्जूषा – नवमकक्षायाः, प्रबन्धक-महोदयः, गृहसंख्या 27, श्री अक्षर प्रकाशन संस्था, पाठ्यपुस्तकानि, वी.पी.पी.. भवताम् विश्वासपात्रः, प्रेषणीयानि, दृष्टानि, सधन्यवादम्।
उत्तर:
(i) प्रबन्धक-महोदयः,(i) श्री अक्षर प्रकाशन संस्था, (iii) नवमकक्षायाः, (iv) पाठ्यपुस्तकानि, (v) दृष्टानि, …………. (vi) वी.पी.पी., (vii) प्रेषणीयानि, (vii) सधन्यवादम्, (ix) भवताम् विश्वासपात्रः, (x) गृहसंख्या।

12. स्वजन्मदिवसमुपलक्ष्य मित्रं प्रति लिखितं निमन्त्रणपत्रं मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तपदैः पूरयत। (12x 10 = 5)
परीक्षा भवनात्,

(i) …………..
दिनांकः 18.3.20xx

प्रिय मित्र अवधेश,
(ii) ………….।

इदं शुभसमाचारं वर्तते यत् अस्मिन् वर्षे मम जन्मदिवस: आगामि रविवारे (iii) ……………..। प्रतिवर्षमिव मम जनकेन लघुसमारोहस्य (iv) …………….. कृतम्। पूजायाः कार्यक्रमः (v) …………….. भविष्यति। तत्पश्चात् (vi) …………. भविष्यति। सर्वाणि अपि मम (vii) …………….. सपरिवारं (viii) …………….. आगमिष्यन्ति। तुभ्यम् अपि निमन्त्रणम् प्रेषयामि। कृपया (ix) …………….. उचितसमये आगत्य समारोहस्य शोभाम् वर्धस्व।

तव (x) ……………..
सर्वेशः

मञ्जूषा – सार्धचतुर्वादने, अभिन्नहृदयः, मित्राणि, अत्र, भविष्यति, मधुरस्मृतयः, आयोजनम्, जलपानम्, सपरिवारम्:, दिल्लीनगरम्।

उत्तराणि – (i) दिल्लीनगरम्, (ii) मधुरस्मृतयः, (iii) भविष्यति, (iv) आयोजनम्, (v) सार्धचतुर्वादने, (vi) जलपानम्, (vii) मित्राणि, (viii) अत्र, (ix) सपरिवारम्:, (x) अभिन्नहृदयः।

13. भवान् मोहनः छात्रावासे वसति। भवान् च स्वदिनचर्या-विषये पितरं प्रति पत्रं मञ्जूषायाः सहायता लिखत। (1/2 x 10 = 5)

(i) …………..
महात्मा हंसराज विद्यालयः
पञ्चकुला (हरियाणा)
दिनांक : 5.3.20…

पूजनीयाः (ii) ……………..।
अत्र कुशलं (iii) …………….. मया भवतः पत्रं प्राप्तम्। मम अर्धवार्षिक परीक्षा-परिणामः अतिशोभनः अस्ति। (iv) …………….. तु शतम् अझैः उत्तीर्णः । अहम् (v) …………….. पञ्चवादने उत्थाय पठामि। ततः सप्तवादने नित्यकर्म कृत्वा (vi) …………….. स्मरामि। सायम् उद्याने भ्रमणाय अपि गच्छामि। रात्री भोजनस्य पश्चात् (vii) …………….. द्वादशपर्यन्तं पठामि। अहम् अन्न स्वस्थः अस्मि। काऽपि (viii) …………….. न कार्या। वार्षिक-परीक्षायाम् अपि शोभनैः अझैः उत्तीर्णः भविष्यामि इति आशा अस्ति। .
(ix) …………….. मात्रे नमः। अनुजाय स्नेहः।

भवदीयः (x) ……………….
मोहनः

मञ्जूषा – पितृपादः, नववादनतः, सुतः, संस्कृतविषये, ईश्वरं, चिन्ता, तत्रास्तु, पूज्यायै, छात्रावासतः, प्रातः काले।
उत्तर:
(i) छात्रावासतः, (ii) पितृपादः, (ii) तत्रास्तु, (iv) संस्कृतविषये, (v) प्रातः काले, (vi) ईश्वरं, (vii) नववादनतः, (viii) चिन्ता, (ix) पूज्यायै, (x) सुतः।

14. प्रधानाचार्य प्रति शुल्क-क्षमापनार्थं लिखिते अस्मिन् प्रार्थनापत्रे रिक्तस्थानानि मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तपदानां सहायतया पूरयत। (2x 10 = 5)

(i) ……………..
प्रधानाचार्यः (ii) …………..
राजकीयः सर्वोदयः विद्यालयः,
दिल्ली।
सविनयं निवेदनम् अस्ति यत् (iii) …………….. पिता दिल्ली सर्वकारे एक: चतुर्थश्रेणी (iv) …………….. अस्ति। तस्य मासिक वेतनं अतीव न्यूनम् अस्ति। येन परिवारस्य (v) …………….. काठिन्येन भवति। मम परिवारे माता, पिता (vi) ……………… भ्रातरौ (vii) …………….. च भगिनी इति पञ्च सदस्याः सन्ति। अतः अहं भवन्तम (viii) …………….. यत् मम अध्ययनशुल्क क्षमापयतु भवान्।
(ix) …………
दिनांक : 15.3.20xx

भवदीयः (x) …………
अजयः

मञ्जूषा – निर्वाहः, द्वौ, कर्मचारी, सेवायाम्, मम, सधन्यवादम्, एका, शिष्यः, निवेदयामि, महोदयः।
उत्तर:
(i) सेवायाम्, (ii) महोदयः, (iii) मम, (iv) कर्मचारी, (v) निर्वाहः, (vi) द्वौ, (vii) एका, (vii) निवेदयामि, (ix) सधन्यवादम्, (x) शिष्यः।

15. प्रधानाचार्य प्रति शुल्कक्षमापनार्थं पत्रं प्रदत्तशब्दैः पूरयत। (1/2 x 10 = 5)
सेवायाम्
पूज्याः (i) …………
सनातनधर्म विद्यालयः,
दिल्ली नगरम्।
विषयः (ii) …………
श्रीमन्,
सविनयं निवेदनम् अस्ति यत् अहम् (iii) …………….. विद्यालये नवमकक्षायाः छात्रः अस्मि। मम पिता एकः लिपिकः (iv) …………….. तस्य मासिक वर्तनं द्विसहस्त्ररूप्यकाणि मात्रमेव अस्ति। अस्माकं (v) …………….. निर्वाह: अतीव काठिन्येन भवति। अहं कक्षायां (vi) …………….. प्रथमस्थानं प्राप्नोमि। अतः शुल्कक्षमापनार्थं (vii) …………….. (viii) …… अत्रभवान् मम एतां प्रार्थनां स्वीकृत्य अनुगृहीति।
(ix) …………

भवतः विनीतः शिष्यः,
(x) …………
नवम कक्षास्थः, अनुक्रमांक द्वादशः

मञ्जूषा – सधन्यवादः, प्रार्थये प्रतिवर्षम्, रामेश्वरः, शुल्कक्षमापनार्थम् निवेदनम्, कुटुम्बस्य, अस्ति, आशासे, प्राचार्यवर्याः, भवतः।
उत्तर:
(i) प्राचार्यवर्याः, (ii) शुल्कक्षमापनार्थम् निवेदनम् (iii) भवतः (iv) अस्ति , (v) कुटुम्बस्य, (vi) प्रतिवर्षम्. (vii) प्रार्थये, (vii) आशासे, (ix) सधन्यवादः, (x) रामेश्वरः।

16. स्वभगिन्याः विवाहोत्सवे सम्मिलितुं मित्रं प्रति लिखितमिदं पत्रं मञ्जूषायाः उचितैः पदैः सम्पूरयत।

परीक्षाभवनात्,
(i) ……………
दिनांक: 10.07.20xx

प्रिय मित्र,
नमस्ते।
कुशलोपरान्तं (ii) …………….. इदं वर्तते यत् मम (iii) …………….. विवाहः आगामीमासे भविष्यति। वरयात्रा (iv) …………… आगमिष्यति। अस्मिन् (v) …………… दिनैकपूर्वं (vi) …………… विवाहस्य शोभा वर्ध-यन्तु (vii) …………….. कार्यक्रमः पत्रेण सह संलग्नः।
तव आगमनस्य (viii) …………….

(ix) …………….. मित्रम्,
(x) ……………..

मञ्जूषा – भवतः, मोहितः, दिल्लीनगरात्, समाचारम्, आगत्य, भगिन्याः,
अवसरे, प्रतीक्षमाणः, विवाहस्य, गाजियाबादम्।
उत्तर:
(i) गाजियाबादम्, (ii) समाचारम्, (iii) भगिन्याः, (iv) दिल्लीनगरात्, (v) अवसरे, (vi) आगत्य,  (vii) विवाहस्य, (viii) प्रतीक्षमाणः,  (ix) भवतः, (x) मोहित।

अभ्यासः

1. निजभगिन्याः विवाहे सम्मिलितार्थे प्रधानाचार्य प्रति अधोलिखिते अवकाशपत्रे रिक्तस्थानानि मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तपदानां सहायतया पूरयता (1/2 x 10 = 5)

(i) ……………
श्रीमन्तः  (ii) …………
राजकीयः सर्वोदय विद्यालयः,
प्रेमनगरम् दिल्ली।
विषय – अवकाशप्रदानार्थम् आवेदनपत्रम्।
(iii) …………..  सविनयं निवदेनम् इदमस्ति यत् अहं (iv) …………….. विद्यालये नवम (v) …………….. छात्रोऽस्मि। (vi) ……. मम भगिन्याः विवाहः अस्ति। अतः अहम् अद्य विद्यालयम् आगन्तुं न (vii) ……………..। कृपया माम् (viii) ….. अवकाशं स्वीकृत्य (ix) …………… भवन्तः।
सधन्यवादम्।
दिनांकः 10.03.20xx

भवतः आज्ञाकारी शिष्यः
क० ख० ग०
(x) …………

मञ्जूषा – अद्य, कक्षायाः, अनुग्रहीष्यन्ति, नवमी श्रेणी, सेवायाम्, महोदयाः, भवंतः शक्नोमि, प्राचार्यमहोदयाः, एकदिवसस्य।

2. स्वजन्मदिवसमुपलक्ष्य मित्रं प्रति लिखितं निमन्त्रणपत्रं मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तपदैः पूरयत। (1/2 x 10 = 5)

(i) ………………
दिल्ली नगरम्।
दिनांक : 05.03.20…

प्रियमित्र मनोज,
(ii) …………

शुभसमाचारं यत् अस्मिन् वर्षे मम जन्मदिवसः आगामि रविवासरे (iii) ……………..। प्रतिवर्षमिव मम जनकेन लघु समारोहस्य (iv) …………….. कृतम् पूजायाः कार्यक्रमः सार्धचतुर्वादने भविष्यति। तत्पश्चात् (v) ……. भविष्यति। सर्वाणि अपि मम (vi) …………… सपरिवारं (vii) ……………… आगमिष्यन्ति। तुभ्यम् अपि (viii) …………….. प्रेषयामि। सपरिवारम् उचितसमये आगत्य समारोहस्य शोभाम् (ix) ………….. तव अभिन्नं मित्रम् (x) केन्द्रीय विद्यालयः दिल्ली।

मञ्जूषा – मित्राणि, महेशः, वर्धस्व, अत्र, भविष्यति, मधुरस्मृतयः, आयोजनम्, परीक्षाभवनम्, जलपानम्, निमन्त्रणम्।

3. मञ्जूषातः पदानि चित्वा अधोलिखितं पत्रं पूरयत। (1/2 x 10 = 5)

(i) ………..
तिथि 08.10.20xx

(ii) ……………..।
सप्रेम नमस्ते।
तव परीक्षाफलम् अद्य एव (iii) ……………..। तव सफलतां ज्ञात्वा माम् अति (iv) …………….. अस्ति। अहोरात्रं श्रमं कृत्वा भवान् 95% (v) …………….. लब्धवान्। त्वं च मम पारिवारिक जनस्य (vi) …………….. अर्हसि। पत्रस्य अन्ते पुनरपि वर्धापनं (vii) ……………..। (viii)…………….. सादरं नमो नमः।
(ix) …………..

भवदीयम् (x) …………..
क०ख०ग०

मञ्जूषा – पितृभ्याम्, आङ्कान्, सन्तोषः, सधन्यवादम्, कामये, साधुवादान्, प्राप्तम्, प्रियमित्र, परीक्षाभवनम्, मित्रम्।

4. नवमकक्षायां प्रवेशार्थम् प्रधानाचार्य प्रति अधोलिखिते प्रार्थना-पत्रे मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तपदानां सहायतया रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत। (1/2 x 10 = 5)
सेवायाम्, (i) …………….. प्रधानाचार्यमहोदया: राजकीयः उच्चतमः विद्यालयः (ii) …………….. नवदेहली। विषयः (iii) …………….. प्रवेशार्थम् आवेदनपत्रम्।
(iv) …………….
सविनयं निवेदनम् इदमस्ति यदहं (v) …………….. विद्यालये नवम् कक्षायां प्रवेशमिच्छामि। मम पितुः स्थानान्तरणं गतमासे एव (vi) …………….. स्थाने अभवत्। अतः (vii) …………….. स्वविद्यालये (viii) …………….. दत्
वा अनुग्रहणन्तु (ix) ………………
सधन्यवादम्।

भवतः आज्ञाकारी (x) ……………
क०ख०ग०
दिनांकः 10.01.20xx

मञ्जूषा – अस्मिन्नेव, शिष्यः, भवन्तः, श्रीमन्तः, सादिकनगरम्, भवतः, प्रवेशम्, महोदयाः, नवमीकक्षायाम्, मह्यम्।

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2015 Delhi

Section-A

Question 1.
Define capacitor reactance. Write its S.I. units. [1]
Answer :
Capacitor reactance is the resistance offered by a capacitor to the flow of a.c. It is given by

Question 2.
What is the electric flux through a cube of side 1 cm which encloses an electric dipole ? [1]
Answer:
The electric flux through a cube of side 1 cm which encloses an electric dipole will be zero, as net charge enclosed by a cube is zero.

Question 3.
A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 1.65. What is the nature of the lens ? [1]
Answer:
Since μ_g lens < μ_m surroundings. It behaves like a converging lens.

Question 4.
How are side bands produced ? [1]

Question 5.
Graph showing the variation of current versus voltage for a material Ga As is shown in the figure. Identify the region of: [1]
(i) negative resistance
(ii) where Ohm’s law is obeyed.

Answer:
(i) DE is the region of negative resistance because the slope of curve in this part is negative,
(ii) BC is the region where Ohm’s law is obeyed because in this part, the current varies linearly with the voltage.

Section-B

Question 6.
A proton and an a-particle have the same de-Broglie wavelength. Determine the ratio of
(i) their accelerating potentials
(ii) their speeds.    [2]
Answer :
(i) The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle is given by


Question 7.
Show that the radius of the orbit in hydrogen atom varies as n². Where n is the principal quantum number of the atom. [2]
Answer :
According to the Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom, the angular momentum of a revolving electron is given by

Here, m = Mass of the electron
v = Velocity of the electron
r = Radius of the orbit
h = Planck’s constant
n = Principal quantum number of the atom
If an electron of mass m and velocity v is moving in a circular orbit of radius r, then the centripetal force required is given by

Also, if the charge on the nucleus is Ze, then the force of electrostatic attraction between the nucleus and the electron will provide the necessary centripetal force.

Question 8.
Distinguish between ‘intrinsic’ and ‘extrinsic’ semiconductors. [2]
Answer:

Question 9.
Use the mirror equation to show that an object placed between f and 2f of a concave mirror produces a real image beyond 2f. [2]
OR
Find an expression for intensity of transmitted light when a Polaroid sheet is rotated between two crossed Polaroids. In which position of the Polaroid sheet will the transmitted intensity be maximum ?
Answer:
mirror equation is

Where u is the distance of object from the mirror, v is the distance of image from the mirror and f is the focal length of the mirror. For a concave mirror f is negative i.e. f < 0, u < 0 For a real object (on the left of mirror)

This implies that v is negative and greater than 2f This means that the image lies beyond 2f.

Let us consider two crossed polarisers P₁ and P₂ with a polaroid sheet P₃ placed between them. Let I₀ be the intensity of polarised light after passing through the first polarizer P₁. If θ is the angle between the axes of P₁ and P₃, then the intensity of the polarized light after passing through P₃ will be I = I₀ cos² θ .
As P₁ and P₂ are crossed. The angle between the axes of P₁ and P₂ = 90°.
Angle between the axes of P₁ and P₃ = (90° – θ) The intensity of light emerging from P₂ will be given by


Question 10.
Use Kirchhoff’s rules to obtain conditions for the balance condition in a Wheatstone bridge. [2]
Answer :
Let us consider a Wheatstone bridge arrangement as shown below :
Wheatstone bridge is a special bridge type circuit which consists of four resistances, a galvanometer and a battery. It is used to determine unknown resistance.

In figure four resistance P, Q, R and S are connected in the form of four arms of a quadrilateral. Let the current given by battery in the balanced position be I. This current on reaching point A is divided into two parts I₁ and I₂ . As there is no current in galvanometer in balanced state, therefore, current in resistances P and Q is Ii and in resistances R and S it is I₂ .

Section-C

Question 11.
Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is
(a) suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation
(b) used to treat muscular strain
(c) used as a diagnostic tool in medicine
Write in brief, how these waves can be produced.
Answer :
(a) Microwaves are suitable for radar systems that are used in aircraft navigation. These rays are produced by special vacuum tubes, namely klystrons, magnetrons and Gunn diodes.
(b) Infrared waves are used to treat muscular strain. These rays are produced by hot bodies and molecules.
(c) X-rays are used as a diagnostic tool in medicine. These rays are produced when high energy electrons are stopped suddenly on a metal of high atomic number.

Question 12.
(i) A giant refracting telescope has an objective lens of focal length 15 m. If an eye-piece of focal length 1.0 cm is used. What is the angular magnification of the telescope ?
(ii) If this telescope is used to view the moon. What is the diameter of the image of the moon formed by the objective lens ? The diameter of the moon is 3.48 x 10⁶ m and the radius of lunar orbit is 3.8 x 10⁸ m. [3]
Answer:
(i) Let
f₀ = Focal length of the objective lens = 15 m = 1500 cm
f_e = Focal length of the eye lens = 1.0 cm
Angular magnification of the giant refracting telescope is given by


Question 13.
Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation and mention which important features in photoelectric effect can be explained with the help of this equation.
The maximum kinetic energy of the photo electrons gets doubled when the wavelength of light incident on the surface changes from λ₁ to λ₁. Derive the expressions for the threshold wavelength λ₀ and work function for the metal surface. [3]
Answer :
Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given by

• If v < v₀, then the maximum kinetic energy is negative, which is impossible. Hence, photoelectric emission does not take place for the incident radiation below the threshold frequency. Thus, the photoelectric emission can take place if v > v₀.
• The maximum kinetic energy of emitted photo electrons is directly proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation. This means that maximum kinetic energy of photo electron depends only on the frequency of incident light not on the intensity According to the photoelectric equation,

Question 14.
In the study of Geiger-Marsdon experiment on scattering of α-particles by a thin foil of gold, draw the trajectory of α-particles in the Coulomb field of target nucleus. Explain briefly how one gets the information on the size of the nucleus from this study.
From the relation R = R₀ A^1/3, where R₀ is constant and A is the mass number of the nucleus, show that nuclear matter density is independent of A. [3]
OR
Distinguish between nuclear fission and fusion. Show how in both these processes energy is released. Calculate the energy release in MeV in the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction:

From this experiment, the following is observed:

• Most of the alpha particles pass straight through the gold foil. It means that they do not suffer any collision with gold atoms.
• About one alpha particle in every 8000 alpha particles deflects by more than 90°.As most of the alpha particles go undeflected and only a few get deflected, this shows that most of the space in an atom is empty and at the center of the atom, there exists a nucleus. By the number of the alpha particles deflected, the information regarding size of the nucleus can be known.

If m is the average mass of a nucleon and R is the nuclear radius, then mass of nucleus = mA, where A is the mass number of the element


This shows that the nuclear density is independent of A.
OR
Nuclear fission: Nuclear fission is a disintegration process, in which a heavier nucleus gets split up into two lighter nuclei, with the release of a large amount of energy.

Nuclear fusion : When two or more light nuclei combine to form a heavy stable nuclide, part of mass disappears in the process and is converted into energy. This phenomenon is called nuclear fusion.

Question 15.
Draw a block diagram of a detector for AM signal and show, using necessary processes and the wave forms, how the original message signal is detected from the input AM wave. [3]
Answer:

Question 16.
A cell of emf ‘E’ and internal resistance ‘r’ is connected across a variable load resistor R. Draw the plots of the terminal voltage V versus
(i) R and
(ii) the current i.
It is found that when R = 4Ω the current is 1 A when R is increased to 9 Ω, the current reduces to 0.5 A. Find the values of the emf E and internal resistance r. [3]
Answer:
(i) Graph between terminal voltage (V) and resistance (R):



Question 17.
Two capacitors of unknown capacitance’s C₁ and C₂ are connected first in series and then in parallel across a battery of 100 V. If the energy stored in the two combinations is 0.045 J and 0.25 J respectively, determine the value of C₁ and C₂. Also calculate the charge on each capacitor in parallel combination. [3]
Answer :
When the capacitors are connected in parallel.


Question 18.
State the principle of working of a galvanometer. A galvanometer of resistance G is converted into a voltmeter to measure upto V volts by connecting a resistance R₁ in series with the coil. If a resistance R₂ is connected in series with it, then it can measure up to V/2 volts. Find the resistance, in terms of R₁ and R₂, required to be connected to convert it into a voltmeter that can read up to 2 V. Also find the resistance G of the galvanometer in terms of R₁ and R₂. [3]
Answer :
Principle : When a current-carrying coil is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a torque. From the measurement of the deflection of the coil, the strength of the current can be computed. A high resistance is connected in series with the galvanometer to convert it into voltmeter. The value of the resistance is given by

Question 19.
With what considerations in view, a photo diode is fabricated ? State its working with the help of a suitable diagram.
Even though the current in the forward bias is known to be more than in the reverse bias, yet the photo diode works in reverse bias. What is the reason ? [3]
Answer :
A photo diode is used to observe the change in current with change in the light intensity under reverse bias condition.
In fabrication of photo diode, material chosen should have band gap -1.5 eV or lower so that solar conversion efficiency is better. This is the reason to choose Si or GaAs material.

Working : It is a p-n junction fabricated with a transparent window to allow light photons to fall on it. These photons generate electron hole pairs upon absorption. If the junction is reverse biased using an electrical circuit, these electron hole pair move in opposite directions so as to produce current in the circuit. This current is very small and is detected by the micro ammeter placed in the circuit.


That is, the fractional increase in majority carriers is much less than the fractional increase in minority carriers. Consequently, the fractional change due to the photo-effects on the minority carrier dominated reverse bias current is more easily measurable than the fractional change in the majority carrier dominated forward bias current. Hence, photo diodes are preferably used in the reverse bias condition for measuring light intensity.

Question 20.
Draw a circuit diagram of a transistor amplifier in CE configuration.
Define the terms:
(i) Input resistance and
(ii) Current amplification factor. How are these determined using typical input and output characteristics? [3]

Question 21.
Answer the following questions : [3]
(a) In a double slit experiment using light of wavelength 600 nm, the angular width of the fringe formed on a distant screen is 0.1°. Find the spacing between the two slits.
(b) Light of wavelength 5000 A propagating in air gets partly reflected from the surface of water. How will the wavelengths and frequencies of the reflected and refracted light be affected ?
Answer :
(a) Angular width (θ) of fringe in


Question 22.
An inductor L of inductance X_L is connected in series with a bulb B and an ac source. How would brightness of the bulb change when
(i) number of turn in the inductor is reduced.
(ii) an iron rod is inserted in the inductor and
(iii) a capacitor of reactance X_C = X_L is inserted in series in the circuit. Justify your answer in each case. [3]
Answer:

(i) When the number of turns in the inductor is reduced, its reactance X_L decreases. The current in the circuit increases and hence brightness of the bulb increases.
(ii) When an iron rod is inserted in the inductor, the self inductance increases. Consequently, the inductive reactance X_L = ωL increases. This decreases the current in the circuit and the bulb glows dimmer.
(iii) With capacitor of reactance X_C=X_L, the impedance

becomes minimum, the current in circuit becomes maximum. Hence, the bulb glows with maximum brightness.

Section-D

Question 23.
A group of students while coming from the school noticed a box marked “Danger H.T. 2200 V” at a substation in the main street. They did not understand the utility of such a high voltage, while they argued the supply was only 220 V. They asked their teacher this question the next day. The teacher thought it to be an important question and therefore, explained to the whole class. [4]
Answer the following questions:
(i) What device is used to bring the high voltage down to low voltage of a.c. current and what is the principle of its working ?
(ii) Is it possible to use this device for bringing down the high dc voltage to the low voltage? Explain.
(iii) Write the values displayed by the students and the teacher.
Answer:
(i) The device that is used to bring high voltage down to low voltage of an a.c. current is a transformer. It works on the principle of mutual induction of two winding’s or circuits. When current in one circuit changes, emf is induced in the neighboring circuit.
(ii) The transformer cannot convert d.c. voltages because it works on the principle of mutual induction. When the current linked with the primary coil changes the magnetic flux linked with the secondary coil also changes. This change in flux induces emf in the secondary coil. If we apply a direct current to the primary coil the current will remain constant. Thus, there is no mutual induction and hence no emf is induced.

Section-E

Question 24.
(a) State Ampere’s circuital law. Use this law to obtain the expression for the magnetic field inside an air cored toroid of average radius, having ‘n’ turns per unit length and carrying a steady current I.
(b) An observer to the left of a solenoid of N turns each of cross section area A observes that a steady current I in it flows in the clockwise direction. Depict the magnetic field lines due to the solenoid specifying its polarity and show that it acts as a bar magnet of magnetic momentum M = NIA. [5]

OR
(a) Define mutual inductance and write its S.I. units.
(b) Derive an expression for the mutual inductance of two long co-axial solenoids of same length wound one over the other
(c) In an experiment two coils C₁ and C₂ are placed close to each other. Find out the expression for the emf induced in the coil C₁ due to a change in the current through the coil C₂.
Answer :
(a) Ampere’s circuital law in electromagnetism is analogous to Gauss’ law in electrostatics. This law states that “The line integral of resultant. magnetic field along a closed plane curve is equal to μ₀ time the total current crossing the area bounded by the closed curve provided the electric field inside the loop

remains constant. Thus where μ₀ is permeability of free space and I_enc is the net current enclosed by the loop. A toroid is a hollow circular ring on which a large number of turns of a wire are closely wound. Consider an air-cored toroid (as shown below) with center O.

Given :
r = Average radius of the toroid
I = Current through the solenoid
n = Number of turns per unit length
To determine the magnetic field inside the toroid, we consider three amperian loops (loop 1, loop 2 and loop 3) as shown in the figure below.

According to Ampere’s circuital law, we have

Total current for loop 1 is zero because no current is passing through this loop
So, for loop 1

For loop 3
According to Ampere’s circuital law, we have

Total current for loop 3 is zero because net current coming out of this loop is equal to the net current going inside the loop.
For loop 2:

This is the expression for magnetic field inside air-cored toroid.
(b) Given that the current flows in the clockwise direction for an observer on the left side of the solenoid. This means that left face of the solenoid acts as south pole and right face acts as north pole. Inside a bar magnet the magnetic field lines are directed from south to north. Therefore, the magnetic field lines are directed from left to right in the solenoid.
Magnetic moment of single current carrying loop is given by m = IA
where
I = Current flowing through the loop
A = Area of the loop
So, Magnetic moment of the whole solenoid is given by
M = Nm = N(IA)
OR
(a) Mutual inductance is the property of two coils by the virtue of which each opposes any change in the value of current flowing through the other by developing an induced emf. The SI unit of mutual inductance is henry and its symbol is H.
(b) Consider two long solenoids S₁ and S₂ of same length l such that solenoid S₂ surrounds solenoid S₁ completely.

Let:
n₁ = Number of turns per unit length of S₁
n₂ = Number of turns per unit length of S₂

I₁ = Current passed through solenoid S₁
Φ₂₁ = Flux linked with S₂ due to current flowing through S₁
Φ₂₁ ∝ I₁
Φ₂₁ = M₂₁I₁
where M₂₁ = Coefficient of mutual induction of the two solenoids .
When current is passed through solenoid S₁, an emf is induced in solenoid S₂.
Magnetic field produced inside solenoid S₁ on passing current through it is given by
B₁ = μ₀n₁I₁
Magnetic flux linked with each turn of solenoid S₂ will be equal to B₁ times the area of cross section of solenoid S₁.
Magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid Φ₂₁ = B₁A .
Therefore, total magnetic flux linked with the solenoid S₂ is given by

where N₂ is total number of turns wound over the secondary coil.
∴ M₂₁ = μ₀n₁N₂A
Similarly the mutual inductance between the two solenoids when current is passed through solenoid S₂ and induced emf is produced in solenoid Si is given by
M₁₂ = μ₀N₁n₂A
where N₁ total numbers of turns wound over primary coil.
(c) It is found that,
Φ ∝I
Φ = MI
Where, I is the strength of current in coil 2, and Φ is the total amount of magnetic flux linked with coil 1.
E.m.f. induced in neighbouring coil C₁ is,

Question 25.
(a) A point object ‘O’ is kept in a medium of refractive index n in front of a convex spherical surface of radius of curvature R which separate the second medium of refractive index n₂ from the first one as shown in the figure. Draw the ray diagram showing the image formation and deduce the relationship between the object distance and the image distance in terms of n₁, n₂ and R.

(b) When the image formed above acts as a virtual object for a concave spherical surface separating the medium n₂ from n₁ (n₂ > n₁) draw this ray diagram and write the similar (similar to (a)) relation. Hence obtain the expression for the Lens Maker’s formula. [5]
Answer :
(a) Let a spherical surface separate a rarer medium of refractive index n₁ from second medium of refractive index n₂. Let C be the centre of curvature and R = MC be the radius of the surface.

Consider a point object O lying on the principal axis of the surface. Let a ray starting from O incident normally on the surface along OM and pass straight. Let another ray of light incident on NM along ON and refract along NI.
From M, draw MN perpendicular to OI.

The above figure shows the geometry of formation of image I of an object O and the principal axis of a spherical surface with centre of curvature C and radius of curvature R.

Let us make the following assumptions :

• The aperture of the surface is small as compared to the other distance involved.
• The object consists only of a point lying on the principal axis of the spherical refracting surface

Question 26.
(a) An electric dipole of dipole moment consists of point charges +q arid – q separated by a distance 2a apart. deduce the . expression for the electric field due to the dipole at a distance x from the centre of the dipole on its axial line in terms of the dipole moment . Hence show that in the limit

(b) Given the electric field in the region , find the net electric flux through the cube and the charge enclosed by it. [5]

OR
(a) Explain, using suitable diagrams, the difference in the behavior of a
(i) conductor and
(ii) dielectric in the presence of external electric field.
Define the terms polarization of a dielectric and write its relation with susceptibility.
(b) A thin metallic spherical shell of radius carries a charge Q on its surface. A point
charge Q/2 is placed at its center C and another charge +2Q is placed outside the shell at a distance x from the center as shown in the figure. Find
(i) the force on the charge at the center of shell and at the point A,
(ii) the electric flux through the shell.


OR
(a) (i) Conductor:
Let E₀ = external field, and
Em= internal field created by the redistribution of electrons inside the metal.
When a conductor like a metal is subjected to external electric field, the electrons experience a force in the opposite direction collecting on the left hand side.
A positive charge is therefore induced on the right hand side. This creates an opposite electric field (E_m) that balances out (E₀).
.’. The net electric field inside the conductor becomes zero.


When an external electric field is applied, dipoles are created (in case of non-polar dielectrics). The placement of dipoles is as shown in the given figure. An internal electric field is created which reduces the external electric field.

Polarization of dielectric (P) is defined as the dipole moment per unit volume of the polarized dielectric.

Note: All questions of Delhi Set 11 are from Delhi Set I and Delhi Set III are from Set I and Set 11.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2015 Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physical Education 2019 Outside Delhi

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physical Education 2019 Outside Delhi Set-I

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:

• The question paper contains 26 questions.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question no. 1 to 11 carry 1 mark each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 10-20 words each.
• Questions no. 12 to 19 carry 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 30-50 words each.
• Questions no. 20 to 26 carry 5 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 75-100 words each.

** Answer is not given due to change in the present syllabus.

Section – A

Question 1.
What do you understand by ‘Planning in Sports’? [1]
Answer:
According to Cambridge dictionary, Planning is the act of deciding how to do some¬thing. Planning in sports is the act of deciding activities or events or training schedules in an organized way so that the athlete or athletes achieve their aim in a particular time frame.

Question 2.
Write briefly about ‘Micronutrients’. [1]
OR
Suggest two reasons, why our body requires food-supplements.
Answer:
Micronutrients are those nutrients which are needed only in minuscule or small amounts. They (Vitamins and Minerals) enable the body to produce enzymes, hormones and other substances essential for proper growth and development. Lack of it may cause a major threat to the health.
Example : Iodine deficiency may result in impaired cognitive development in children. Vitamin A deficiency results in night blindness, Iron deficiency results in anaemia.
OR
Answer:
Two Reasons for requirement of Food Supplement in the body are :

1. They ensure that one is getting a measurable amount of essential nutrients and make up for the poor nutrient content of the many foods we eat.
2. Athletes suffer from many nutritional deficiencies and can use supplements to ensure optimum supplies of nutrients for maximum performance. It helps to improve physical performance, fat loss and also muscle gain.

Question 3.
Mention any two disability ettiquettes. [1]
Answer:
Two Disability Ettiquette are :

1. While going to help someone with a disability, ask if he or she needs it, and listen to any instructions the person may want to give.
2. When planning events involving persons with disabilities, consider their needs ahead of time.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Intellectual Disability? [1]
Answer:
Intellectual Disability is characterized by below-average intelligence or mental ability and a lack of skills necessary for day-to-day living. It involves problems with general mental abilities that affect functioning in two areas :

1. Intellectual functioning (such as learning, problem solving, judgement).
2. Adaptive functioning (activities of daily life such as communication and independent living).

Question 5.
Which type of deformity is “Kyphosis”? [1]
OR
What is Motor Development ?
Answer:
Kyphosis is an excessive outward curvature of the spine, causing hunching of the back. In other words kyphosis is a deformity of the spine of the upper back causing an exaggerated outward curve.
OR
Answer:
Motor development refers to the development of a child’s bones, muscles and ability to move around and use his or her environment. Motor development can be divided into two sections:
gross motor development and fine motor development.

1. Gross motor development involves the development of the large muscles in the child’s
   body. These muscles allow us to sit, stand, walk and run, among other activities.
2. Fine motor development involves the small muscles of the body, especially in the hand.

Question 6.
Among females, what type of Menstrual Dys-function is called Amenorrhea? [1]
Answer:
Amenorrhea is when menstruation is absent during the reproductive years, between puberty and menopause.

1. Primary amenorrhea—Menstruation never takes place. It fails to occur at puberty.
2. Secondary amenorrhea—Menstruation starts but then stops.

Question 7.
What do you mean by “Bulimia” ? [1]
OR
Give two objectives of Extramural activities.
Answer:
It is a life-threatening eating disorder. People with bulimia may be eat large amounts of food with a loss of control over the eating and then purge, trying to get rid of the extra calories in an unhealthy way. There is a fear of to puton weight.
OR
Answer:
Two Objectives of Extramural Activities are :

1. To provide experience to students.
2. To provide the knowledge of new rules and advanced techniques.

Question 8.
Which test will you suggest to measure general motor ability ? [1]
Answer:
Barrow Motor test measures the general motor ability (speed, strength, coordination, power). In this test there are three item standing broad jump, zigzag run and medicine ball throw.

Question 9.
On the basis of physiological parameters, mention any two gender differences. [1]

Question 10.
Which type of sports injury is known as “Strain” ? [1]
OR
What do you mean by soft tissue injuries?
Answer:
Strain is an injury to muscle or tendon. Tendons are fibrous cords of tissue that attach muscles to the bone. Strains often occur in foot, leg (typically the hamstring) or back.
OR
Answer:
Soft-tissue injury includes damage of muscles, ligaments, and tendons. The result can be pain, swelling, bruising, and damage. Soft-tissue injuries are classified as the following :
Contusions, Sprains, Tendonitis, Bursitis, Stress injuries, Strains.

Question 11.
Which method will you suggest to develop endurance? [1]
Answer:
Methods to develop endurance are Interval Method, Repetition Method, Continuous method, Fartlek Method.

Section – B

Question 12.
Explain about the procedure and advantages of ‘Bhuj angasana’. [3]
Answer:
The meaning of Bhujang is cobra and asana means yoga pose. Bhujangasana is the stretching yoga exercise of the front torso and the spine. Bhujangasana is the final stage when the cobra is ready to attack its prey by raising its hood; hence the name is cobra pose.
Procedure :

1. Lie down on the stomach by keeping legs together.
2. Put palms besides shoulder and the head should rest on the ground.
3. With inhaling raise head up to navel region and try to see the roof.
4. Maintain the position till 10 to 60 seconds with steadily inhaling and exhaling.
5. Come to the original position slowly with deep exhalation.

Advantages:

1. It helps to strengthen up the spine and relieves backache.
2. Helps in improving the efficiency of the kidneys.
3. It is good for digestion. It gives a good massage to the organs of abdominal region such as stomach, pancreas, liver and gallbladder.
4. It is helpful in treating of many digestion relation conditions such as constipation, indigestion, etc.
5. It is beneficial against slipped disc or sciatica.
6. It regulates thyroid gland thus helps to maintain good health.
7. It improves lung capacity: The cobra pose helps to expand the chest thus beneficial for breathing related problems.

Question 13.
What is the role of Yoga in preventing lifestyle diseases? [3]
Discuss about meal intake guidelines for pre, during and post sports event.
Answer:
Yoga places a great importance on a proper and healthy lifestyle whose main components are healthy activities, healthy relationships, healthy thoughts, healthy food, and healthy recreation. The holistic art and science of yoga is the best lifestyle ever designed and is effective in managing prevalent lifestyle disorders such as diabetes and hypertension.

(i) Role of Yamas and Niyamas :
Yama is for building interpersonal relationship and niyama is for developing self-discipline majorly through healthy relationships, healthy food, and healthy thoughts and this helps in developing the ability to face stress thereby preventing lifestyle diseases.

(ii) Yoga asanas :
It works in the human body through tissues and muscles. Asana helps in removal of waste products and carbon dioxide, supply of oxygen, internal secretion of the endocrine glands and functioning of nerve-connections. Yoga asana creates a feeling of gentle massage to the digestive systems and makes abdominal muscles strong and elastic thereby our digestive system functions better.

Deep and rhythmic breathing multipes the competence of the respiratory system. Further, oxygen-rich blood is supplied to every tissue of the body and this in turn helps the body to be healthy. All the above development helps in better healthy activities and healthy recreation there by preventing life-style diseases.

(iii) Pranayama increases lungs capacity :
Pranayama increases lungs capacity helps to perform endurance activity with ease. Pranayama provides relaxation. Relaxed mind helps to understand the situations of life better and also helps to keep oneself cool during demanding situation. It helps in removal of toxins like lactic acid from the muscles which helps in removing muscle soreness.

All the above development helps in healthy activities, healthy relationships, and healthy thoughts there by preventing lifestyle diseases

(iv) Role of Pratyahar, Dhrana, Dhyana :
Helps to concentrate. Improvement in concentration helps to get involved in the work meaningfully for longer duration. It helps to overcome stress. Dhama and Dhyana helps one to relax and face the situation boldly. This helps in developing healthy activities, healthy relationships, and healthy thoughts there by preventing lifestyle diseases.

Question 14.
Pawan got admission in class IX in a reputed school. All the students of his class welcomed him. After few days Aryaman, the class monitor observed that Pawan’s behaviour is different from other students. He is aggressive, rude and non-cooperative. He finds it difficult to make friends. Even in school, nobody wants to be his friends. Aryaman had read about ODD in a science magazine in the library, which was similar to Pawan’s behaviour. He discussed this situation with his classmates and suggested to interact and be friends with Pawan. This would help him to remain calm and happy.
Answer the following questions based on the above passage :
(a) What do you mean by ODD?
(b) What are the symptoms of ODD?
(c) What values are shown by Aryaman? [3]
Answer:
(a) Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) is a childhood disorder that is defined by a pattern of hostile, disobedient, and defiant behaviours directed at adults or other authority figures.

(b) Symptoms of ODD are as follows :

1. Rude, aggressive and non-cooperative.
2. Difficulty to make friends.
3. Often and easily loses temper.
4. Is frequently touchy and easily annoyed by others.
5. Is often angry and argumentative.
6. Often argues with adults or people in authority.
7. Often actively refuses to comply with adults’ requests or rules.

Question 15.
What are the causes of Osteoporosis ? [3]
OR
Write briefly about the prevention and management of “Anorexia”.
Answer:
Osteoporosis causes bones to become weak and brittle, so brittle that a fall or even mild stresses such as bending over or coughing can cause a fracture.

Causes of Osteoporosis are as follows :

1. Women are much more likely to develop osteoporosis than are men. Lowered sex hormone levels tend to weaken bone. The reduction of oestrogen levels in women at menopause is one of the strongest risk factors for developing osteoporosis.
2. The old age people are at greater risk of osteoporosis.
3. Having a parent or sibling with osteoporosis puts greater risk to have osteoporosis
4. Low calcium intake contributes to diminished bone density, early bone loss and an increased risk of fractures.
5. Severely restricting food intake and being underweight weakens bone in both men and women.
6. Long-term use of oral or injected corticosteroid medications, such as prednisone and cortisone, interferes with the bone-rebuilding process.

OR
Answer:
Prevention of Anorexia
Prevention is a term that can refer to either the elimination of factors causing eating disorders :

1. Teach children not to be pre-occupied with their weight. It means placing less emphasis on appearance and more on personality and individuality.
2. Teachers and school counsellors should educate about the causes and perpetuating factors of eating disorders.
3. Teachers should also educate students about accepting a wide range of weights and the dangers of dieting.
4. School students can be engaged in discussions about social pressures on women to be thin, pressure to achieve, as well as prejudice against fat.
5. Teachers can initiate discussions focussing on ways of achieving a sense of self-worth and role-play exercises to develop assertiveness skills.
6. Teachers identifying students with low self-esteem or family problems should recommend counselling for those students.

Management of Anorexia

1. The treatment options should be discussed fully with the patient in order that he or she can make informed choices.
2. Health care professionals involved in the treatment of anorexia nervosa should take time to build an empathic, supportive and collaborative relationship with patients.
3. Motivation to change may go up and down over the course of treatment and the therapist needs to remain sensitive to this.

Question 16.
Explain the various factors affecting projectile trajectory. [3]

Question 17.
Explain the various types of axes of rotation. [3]
Answer:
An axis is a straight line around which an object rotates. Movement at the joint takes place in a plane about an axis. There are three axis of rotation.

1. Sagital Axis : It passes horizontally from posterior to anterior and is formed by the intersection of the sagital and transverse planes.
2. Frontal Axis : It passes horizontally from left to right and is formed by the intersection of the frontal and transverse planes.
3. Vertical Axis : It passes vertically from inferior to superior and is formed by the intersection of the sagital and frontal planes.

Question 18.
What do you mean by coping strategies? Write briefly. [3]
OR
Explain the strategies for enchancing adherence to exercise.
Answer:
Getting started and continuing an exercise program can be a challenging yet, rewarding undertaking. There is no clear ‘best strategy’ for increasing exercise adherence, rather following interventions should be considered a tool box of strategies that could be used in order to find a successful formula for different groups or individuals for the purpose of adhering to exercise:

1. Work out with friends.
   It helps to have companion, social support and encouragement.
2. Choose an activity you like.
   Start by identifying activities that you enjoy. One is more likely to stick to a program if it is fun and convenient. Activity of one’s choice will pull one to continue practicing it.
3. Learning new activity.
   The new challenge will prompt one to come back and learn challenge.
4. Begin easy and slowly increase effort. Slowly increase the load of performing the activity reduces, the chances of sore muscles or injury. Aim for small but regular improvements.
5. Cross-training.
   Performing same thing every day may be boring. Try different activities. This type of training will keep one away from becoming bored with exercise.
6. Goal Setting
   Goals should be self-set, flexible, and time based. Setting realistic short-term goal will motivate one to do task and note ones progress toward goal.
7. Keep a record of progress.
   It will act as a progress chart showing where one has reached are and how much one has to progress. Seeing one’s improvement motivates one work towards one goals.
8. Establish a routine.
   Fix a time for exercise. As one sticks to routine, exercise will become a habit
9. Combine family-time with exercise. Evening walk, yoga with family will help develop bond with family members and also in exercise adherence.
10. Provide cues for exercises.
    Place posters and quotes to motivate while performing exercise.

Question 19.
Write briefly about the techniques of Stress management. [3]
Answer:
Stress induces bodily or mental tension. Techniques of stress management are as follows :

1. Own one’s own feelings-Do not blame someone else for personal feelings.
2. Express what one is feeling-Do not blame someone else for personal feelings.
3. Express what one is feeling, get it out or forgive.
4. Reduce caffeine and sugar-By reducing the amount of coffee, soft drinks, chocolate, and sugar snacks in diet, one will feel more relaxed and will sleep better.
5. Get enough sleep-Adequate sleep refreshes the mind and body.
6. Include rest and relaxation in daily schedule-This time provides a break from all responsibilities and recharge oneself.
7. Spend time with positive people-A strong support system will buffer one from the negative effects of stress.
8. Keep sense of humour. This includes the ability to laugh at one self. The act of laughing helps the body fight stress.
9. Don’t try to control the uncontrollable. Many things in life are beyond our control-particularly the behaviour of other people.
10. Learn to forgive-Free oneself from negative energy by forgiving and moving on.
11. Focus on the positive-When stress is getting one down, take a moment to reflect on all the things one appreciates in one’s life, including one’s own positive qualities and gifts.
12. Eat a healthy diet.
13. Go for a walk.
14. Spend time in nature.
15. Call a good friend.
16. Play with a pet.
17. Work in garden.
18. Read a good book.
19. Take a long bath.
20. Listen to music.
21. Watch a comedy.
22. Get a massage.

Section – C

Question 20.
What is league tournament? Draw a fixture of nine (9) teams on the basis of league tournament using cyclic method. Explain British method to declare the Winner. [5]
Answer:
In a league tournament, each team competes with every other team participating in the tournament. Winners are decided on the basis of the points acquired after all the competitions. For each win a team may be awarded 2 points, for draw 1 point and for a loss no point is awarded. Formulae to find the number of matches in a league tournament = n (n – 1)/2, where n = number of teams participating in the tournament. The number of matches in a league tournament of 9 teams = 9 (9 -1)/2 = 36 matches. In a single league tournament, every team competes with every other team participating in the tournament once. In a double league tournament, every team competes with every other team participating in the tournament twice.

Advantages of league Tournament:

1. Luck factor does not have a role to play as each team gets to play with all the teams.
2. If a good team has lost a match, it still can be winner of the tournament because it has other matches to play.
3. There is less pressure on players to perform well bacause each match is not crucial.
4. More number to matches for players to show their talent and also for the selectors to spot the talent.

Disadvantages of league Tournament:

1. It takes more time to finish the tournament. Number of matches in a league tournament is more compared to knock-out tournament.
2. It is not economical
   Each match is not crucial. So, some matches may become boring for sopectators

Number of Matches = N(N-1)/2 = 9(9-1)/2= 36
N = Number of teams

British Method to Decide the Winner
In British method to decide winner in a league tournament, team which wins secures 2 points and for a draw 1 point and for a loss a team gets zero points.

Formulae for deciding the winner in a league tournament by British Method is number of points secured divided by maximum point which can be secured whole multiplied by 100. Percentage scored by a team = (Number of points secured/Maximum point which can be secured) 100

If there are 9 teams maximum points which can be scored by a team are 18 points (9 × 2) and the team which has secured 10 points will have a percentage score of (10/18 ) 100 is equal to 55 percentage. The team which has higher percentage will be considered winner.

Question 21.
Explain macro-nutrients and their role in our diet. [5]
Answer:
Macronutrients are defined as chemical substances required in large amounts by the body for survival. The three macro-nutrients are protein, carbohydrates, and fats. The amounts of different macro-nutrients a person needs as well as the ratio of nutrients to each other varies by age, lifestyle (sedentary, active, or very active), gender, health status, and health goals.

Role of micro-nutrients in our diet :
(a) Carbohydrates include starches, sugars, and fiber.
(b) Body uses carbohydrates to fuel the body.
(c) Carbohydrates come in two forms complex and simple. Simple carbohydrates include sugars like table sugar and high fructose corn syrup, which have one or two sugar molecules (mono- and disaccharides). Honey and maple syrup contain simple sugars, as well as other nutrients. Complex carbohydrates are long chains of simple sugars stuck together, also called polysaccharides. They can be either starches or fiber (cellulose from plants). Foods like whole wheat pasta and white potatoes contain complex carbohydrates.
(d) Adults should get between 45-65% of their daily calories from carbohydrates.
(e) Humans don’t produce the enzymes necessary to digest fiber.
(f) Sources of Carbohydrates : The best carbohydrates are micro nutrients dense whole foods that contain sugar or starches along with fiber. Breads, cereals, pasta, rice, beans and peas, and starchy vegetables such as potatoes, green peas, corn honey, candy, soft drinks, and frosting or icing are sources of carbohydrates.

(ii) Proteins
(a) Protein is the building block responsible for the growth and maintenance of eyes, skin, hair, nails, organs, and muscle tissue.
(b) During digestion, protein is broken down into smaller chains called polypeptides and individual units called amino acids for absorption. Of the 22 amino acids that make up proteins, nine are called “essential” amino acids, which means that our bodies do not produce them and must get them from food. These include histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan and valine. Histidine is unique in that it is only required during infacy.
(c) Protein embeds themselves in cells to regulate what goes in and out. They even envelop and transport some molecules to other locations in the body.
(d) Enzymes that catalyze the various chemical reactions in the body are made of folded chains of amino acids.
(e) The body creates hormones like leptin, immune proteins like interferon and antibodies using amino acids.
(f) Sources of Protein
Nuts, seeds, grains and vegetables, are called incomplete proteins because they do not contain all nine essential amino acids together, as meats, eggs and dairy products do. One won’t develop a protein deficiency on a plant-based diet as long as one eats a balanced died that combines plant foods with different amino acids.

(iii) Fat
(a) Fat is the densest source of energy in the diet.
(b) In the body, fats make up cell membranes, steroids, cholesterol, and 60% of the brain.
(c) Fats support the absorption of fat soluble vitamins, cushion organs, and acts as largest form of energy storage.
(d) Fats should account for 25-35% of the daily calories.
(e) Dietary fats include saturated and unsaturated fats.
(f) Saturated fats tend to come from animal sources, while most plant fats are unsaturated. There are also important essential fatty acids, namely omega-3 and omega-6. As with essential amino acids, the term essential means that the human body cannot produce it and we must get these from our diet. There is also an unnatural type of fat known as trans fats. Trans fats are often described as poison. Trans fat raise “bad” LDL cholesterol and have no place in a healthy diet.
(g) Sources of Fat
Nuts, seeds, avocados, olives, coconut, dark chocolate, grape seed oil, sunflower oil, walnut oil, sesame oil, coconut oils, meat are good source of fat.

Question 22.
Explain ‘Flat Foot’ and ‘Knock Knees’ and also suggest corrective measures for both postural deformities. [5]
Answer:
1. Flat Foot

Flat foot is one physical deformity on which the medial longitudinal and transverse arches of foot are depressed and medial border of foot comes in contact with ground. In other words, in this deformity the arch of the foot collapses, with the entire sole of the foot coming into complete or near-complete contact with the ground. Flat foot deformity can be diagnosed with a very simple test called as ‘Wet Foot test’. It creates problem in walking and running.’
Causes of knock knee are

1. Birth defect.
2. Overweight or obesity.
3. Deficiency of the vitamin D, calcium, etc. during childhood.

Knock Knee
Knock-knee is a type of postural deformity. In this deformity, both the knees touch each other in normal standing position. It creates problem in walking and running. Causes of Knock Knee are :

1. Birth defect.
2. Overweight or obesity.
3. Deficiency of the vitamin D, calcium, etc. during childhood.

Corrective Measures for Knock Knee and Flat Foot

Following exercises can be performed as a remedy for Flat Foot deformity :

1. Walking on heels.
2. Walking on inner and outer side of feet.
3. Walking on toes.
4. To perform up and down the heels.
5. Jumping on toes for some time.
6. To skip on rope.
7. To perform the yogic asana.
8. Surgery
9. Standing on toes
10. Picking small stone with toes and placing it a little far
11. Perform yogic asana like Tadasana (Tree posture), Vajrasana and Utkatasana (Chair posture).

Following exercises can be performed as a remedy for Knock Knee deformity :

1. Walking on the outer edge of the brick (One feet on one side and other on other side)
2. Names of the yoga exercise which help in treatment of knock knee : Padmasana (Lotus posture), Vatayanasan (Horse face posture), Bhadrasana (Gracious pose) etc.
3. Use of walking callipers may also be beneficial.
4. Keep a pillow between the knees and stand erect for some time.

Question 23.
Write in detail about AAPHER (American Alliance For Health, Physical Education and Recreation) Motor Fitness Test. [5]
OR
What do you know about Harvard Step Test? Explain its procedure and administration.
Answer:
The Harvard Step test is a test to test aerobic fitness :

Equipment required : Step or platform 20 inches / 50.8 cm high for men and 16 inches for women, stopwatch, and metronome or cadence tape. Things to be done before the test: Explain the test procedures to the subject. Perform screening of health risks and obtain informed consent. Prepare forms and record basic information such as age, height, body weight, gender, test conditions. Check step height and set metronome.

Procedure : The athlete steps up and down on the platform at a rate of 30 steps per minute (every two seconds) for 5 minutes or until exhaustion. Exhaustion is defined as when the athlete cannot maintain the stepping rate for 15 seconds. The athlete immediately sits down on completion of the test, and the total number of heart beats are counted between 1 to 1.5 minutes after finishing. This is the only measure required if using the short form of the test. If the long form of the test is being conducted, there is an additional heart rate measures at between 2 to 2.5 minutes, and between 3 to 3.5 minutes.

Scoring : The Fitness Index score is determined by the following equations :
Fitness Index (short form) = (100 × test duration in seconds) divided by (5.5 × pulse count between 1 and 1.5 minutes).
Fitness Index (long form) = (100 × test duration in seconds) divided by (2 × sum of heart beats in the recovery periods).

Question 24.
What are the effects of exercise on Respiration System ? Write in detail. [5]

Question 25.
What do you understand by fracture? How can fracture be classified? Explain. [5]
Answer:
A bone fracture is a medical condition where the continuity of the bone is broken. A break in the bone that does not damage surrounding tissue or tear through the skin is known as a closed fracture. On the other hand, one that damages surrounding skin and penetrates the skin is known as a compound fracture or an open fracture.
Classification of Fracture:

1. Comminuted fracture: The bone is shattered into many pieces.
2. Compression (crush) fracture : Generally occurs in the spongy bone in the spine. For example, the front portion of a vertebra in the spine may collapse due to osteoporosis.
3. Greenstick fracture : The bone partly fractures on one side, but does not break completely because the rest of the bone can bend. This is more common among children, whose bones are softer and more elastic.⁵
4. Hairline fracture : A partial fracture of the bone. Sometimes this type of fracture is harder to detect with routine X-rays.
5. Impacted fracture : When the bone is fractured, one fragment of bone goes into another.
6. Longitudinal fracture : The break is along the length of the bone.
7. Oblique fracture : A fracture that is diagonal to a bone’s long axis.
8. Spiral fracture : A fracture where at least one part of the bone has been twisted.
9. Stress fracture : More common among athletes. A bone breaks because of repeated stresses and strains.
10. Transverse fracture : A straight break right across a bone.
11. Complicated fracture : Structures surrounding the fracture are injured.

Question 26.
What do you understand by coordinative ability? Discuss about different types of coordinative abilities. [5]
OR
Write in detail about strength improving methodisometric, Isotonic and Isokinetic.
Answer:
Coordination is the ability to integrate separate motor systems with varying sensory modalities into efficient movements. The harmonious working together of the synchrony, rhythm, and sequencing aspect of one’s movements is crucial to coordinated movement. Various parts of the body may be involved, such as eye foot coordination, as in kicking a ball or walking upstairs. Eye-hand coordination is evident in fine motor activities such as bead stringing, tracing and clay modelling or in gross motor activities such as catching, striking or volleying a ball.

Different Types of Coordinative ability Following are different types of coordinative abilities :

(i) Coupling Ability : Coupling ability to synchronize movements and direction efficiently and to let different parts to cooperate in order to achieve a desired and smooth movement. Coupling ability of the body is considered as capacity of an individual to perform better coordination of different parts of the body. For example, while dribbling a basketball, the coordination of both the limbs is required.

(ii) Reaction Ability : Reaction ability is a skill to react quickly to a stimulus. For example, chaser in Kho-Kho runs quickly after Kho is given.

(iii) Balance Ability : Balance ability is known as capability of an individual to maintain balance while the body is in motion. Even during distributed balance regaining the lost balance is known as balance ability.

(iv) Orientation Ability : The orientation ability is a skill to determine and change the position in complex situations. For example, defending an opponent in football, the position is changed according to the movement of opponent.

(v) Adaptation Ability: Adaptation ability is the capability of a person to change the movement on the basis of predicted changes. This ability is achieved after mastering the skills.

(vi) Rhythm Ability : Rhythm ability is to make out motor actions on a well-defined rhythm. Rhythm ability enables to grasp and express rhythm which is externally determined or contained in the motor activity itself.
OR
Answer:
(i) Isometric:
They are exercises in which muscular tension is built without any visible movement of muscle being used. Contraction during such an exercise is called isometric contraction. Work done during isometric exercise is zero. Isometric exercise is practiced by pushing or pulling an immovable object like a wall or bar anchored to the floor. Isometric exercise increases muscle tension significantly but fails to change the length of the muscles. Today, it is primarily used for rehabilitation purposes.
Examples:

1. Balancing on one foot.
2. Pressing against the wall.
3. Standing with heavy load on head.
4. Maintaining a sitting posture without a chair.
5. Holding a weight at arm’s length.
6. Attempting to lift an immoveable object. Characteristic of isometric exercise
   • The amount of heat generated and tension developed is higher than that of isotonic.
   • Increased muscular tension leads to tremor in muscles.

(ii) Isotonic:
Exercise where we can see movement of an object on application of force is called Isotonic exercise and contraction of the muscle during such an exercise is called isotonic contraction. Isotonic exercises are carried out against a fixed resistance. As each muscle moves through its complete range, isotonic contraction creates tension with maximum effort at the beginning and end of each exercise. Two types of muscular contraction take place while performing Isotonic exercise they are concentric contraction in which length of the muscle decreases from the normal size and eccentric contraction in which length of the muscle increases from the normal size.
Examples :

(iii) Isokinetic:
They are exercises in which speed remains same throughout the range of movement. It can be also called as a combination of isometric and isotonic contraction. Isokinetic exercise uses a machine that controls the speed of contraction within the range of motion. Cybex and Biodex machines provide this kind of workout, but these machines are generally used by physical therapists and not readily available to most people. Exercise which can be found similar to isokinetic exercise in sports activity are :

1. Ice skating
2. Chin ups
3. Rope climbing
4. While Rowing
5. While Swimming

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit Chapter 1 मम मित्रं भवन्तु (मेरे मित्र हो जाएँ)

पाठपरिचयः, सारांशः च

पाठपरिचयः
अस्मिन् पाठे चत्वारः, मन्त्राः विविधेभ्यः वेदेभ्यः सङ्कलिताः सन्ति। प्रथमः मन्त्रः ऋग्वेदात्, द्वितीयः यजुर्वेदात्, तृतीयः अथर्ववेदात्, चतुर्थः च पुनः यजुर्वेदात् एव सङ्कलितः। एते मन्त्राः अस्मान् मैत्रीभावस्य, भ्रातृभावस्य, समताभावस्य, त्याग, भावस्य च पाठं शिक्षयन्ति।

सारांशः
प्रथमः मन्त्रः शिक्षयति यत् सूर्योदयः सवेषां कल्याणाय भवेत्। चतस्त्रः दिश दृढतया स्थिताः भवेयुः। पर्वताः, सरितः, सागरः, जलानि च सर्वेषां मङ्गलम् कुर्वन्तु। सम्पूर्णा प्रकृतिः सर्वेभ्यः शुभदा भवेत्।
द्वितीयः मन्त्रः शिक्षयति यत् सर्वे प्राणिनः मम मित्राणि सन्ति। मित्रता सुखदा भवति। यत्र परस्परं स्नेहः, विश्वासः च भवतः तत्र आनन्दमयं वातावरणम् भवति। सर्वे जनाः मित्रभावेन परस्परम् अवलोकयन्तु। अहम् अपि सर्वान् मित्रभावेन पश्यानि।
तृतीयः मन्त्रः शिक्षयति यत् अस्माकं जीवन निर्भयं भवेत्, कस्मादपि मित्रात् शत्रोः वा भयं न भवेत्। मित्रभूताः सर्वाः दिशः अस्मभ्यम् सुखम् आनयन्तु।

चतुर्थः मन्त्र शिक्षयति यत् संसारे पदार्थानां भोगः तु करणीयः, किन्तु असौ उपभोगः आसक्ति विना करणीयः। वयं परेषां सम्पत्तिं, वैभवं च प्रति कदापि लोभम् न कुर्याम। त्यागभावेन एव भोगाः भोक्तव्याः।
सर्वेषाम् मन्त्राणाम् अयं सारांशः अस्ति यत् अद्यत्वे अपि समाजे लोभमयम्, कलहपूर्णम्, भयावहम्, शत्रुतापूर्णम् च वातवरणम् दृश्यते। वयं कलहं, भयं, लोभं, शत्रुतां च त्यक्त्वा स्नेह, अभयं, त्यागं, मैत्रीभावम् च स्वीकर्तुं सङ्कल्पं कुर्याम।
अद्यत्वे समाजे वयं द्वेषपूर्ण कलहपूर्णं च वातावरणं पश्यामः। प्रायः लोभाकृष्टाः जना लोकविरुद्धम् आचरन्ति। समाजस्य सुखाय लोभः न कर्तव्यः। अस्माभिः परस्परं मैत्रीभावेन व्यवहर्तव्यम्। सर्वा प्रकृतिः अपि मानवेभ्यः कल्याणमयं सन्देशं यच्छति। अस्मिन् पाठे वयम् इमं सन्देशम् एव पठामः।

हिन्दीभाषायां पाठपरिचयः
इस पाठ में चार मन्त्र विविध वेदों से लिए गए हैं। पहला मन्त्र ऋग्वेद से, दूसरा यजुर्वेद से, तीसरा अथर्ववेद से और चौथा पुनः यजुर्वेद से लिया गया है। इन मन्त्रों में मैत्रीभाव, भ्रातृभाव, समताभाव व त्यागभाव का पाठ पढ़ाया गया है।

सारांश
पहला मन्त्र सिखाता है कि सूर्योदय सबके कल्याण के लिए होवे। चारों दिशाएँ दृढ़ता से स्थित हों, पर्वत, नदियाँ, सागर और जल सबका मंगल करें, सम्पूर्ण प्रकृति सबके लिए शुभकारक हो।
दूसरा मन्त्र सिखाता है कि सब प्रणाली मेरे मित्र हैं। मित्रता सुख देने वाली होती है। जहाँ आपस में प्रेम और विश्वास होता है। वहाँ आनन्द का वातावरण होता है। सब लोग मित्रभाव से एक-दूसरे को देखें। मैं भी सबको मित्रभाव से देखू।
तीसरा मन्त्र सिखाता है कि हमारा जीवन निडर बने। किसी मित्र अथवा शत्रु से भी भय न होवे। मित्र बनकर सब दिशाएँ हमें सुख प्रदान करें।चौथा मन्त्र सिखाता है कि संसार के पदार्थों का भोग तो करना चाहिए पर वह भोग आसक्ति से रहित होकर करना चाहिए। हम दूसरों की सम्पत्ति या वैभव के प्रति लोभ का भाव न रखें तथा त्यागभाव से ही सभी भोगों को भोगें।

सब मन्त्रों का संक्षेप में यही सार है कि आजकल समाज में जो लोभ, कलह, भय तथा शत्रुता का वातावरण बना हुआ है, हम उसके स्थान पर स्नेह, अभय, त्याग और मैत्रीभाव को स्वीकार करने का संकल्प करें और ब्रह्मभाव में स्थित हो जाएँ।
आजकल समाज में हम द्वेषपूर्ण तथा क्लेशपूर्ण वातावरण देख रहे हैं। प्रायः लोभी लोग लोकविरुद्ध आचरण करते हैं। समाज के सुख के लिए लोभ नहीं करना चाहिए। हमें परस्पर मैत्रीभाव से व्यवहार करना चाहिए। सारी प्रकृति भी मनुष्यों को कल्याण का सन्देश देती है। इस पाठ में यही सन्देश दिया गया है।

क. मूलपाठः, अन्वयः, शब्दार्थः, भावार्थः, सरलार्थश्च

शं नः सूर्य उरुचक्षा उदेत, शं नश्चतस्त्रः प्रदिशो भवन्तु।
शं नः पर्वता ध्रुवयो भवन्तु, शं नः सिन्धवः शमु सन्त्वापः॥1॥ (ऋग्वेद 7/35/8)

शब्दार्थाः – उरुचक्षा – अतिप्रकाशवान् (तेजोमय)। सूर्य: – रविः (सूरज)। न: – अस्मभ्यम् (हमारे लिए)। शम्कल्याणम् (कल्याण, सुख)। उदेतु (उत् + एतु) – उदयतु (उदय हो)। चतस्त्रः प्रदिशः – चतस्त्रः दिशाः (चारों दिशाएँ)। भवन्तु – सन्तु (हों)। पर्वता: – गिरयः (पर्वत)। ध्रुवयः – दृढाः. दृढतया स्थिताः (मबूत, स्थिर)। सिन्धवः – सरितः, सागराः (नदियाँ, सागर)। उ – अथ, च (और)। आपः- वहन्ति जलानि (बहते हुए पानी)। शम् – कल्याण कराणि (कल्याणकारक)। सन्तु- भवन्तु (हों)।

सरलार्थ – अतिप्रकाशवान सूर्य का उदय हम सबके कल्याण के लिए हो। पूर्व, पश्चिम, उत्तर तथा दक्षिण ये चारों दिशाएँ हमारा कल्याण करें। दृढ़ता से स्थित होकर पर्वत, नदियाँ तथा समुद्र हम सबका कल्याण करें तथा बहता हुआ जल कल्याणकारक हो। सम्पूर्ण प्रकृति सबके लिए कल्याण करने वाली हो।

मित्रस्य मा चक्षुषा सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षन्ताम्।
मित्रस्याहं चक्षुषा सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षे। मित्रस्य
चक्षुषा वयं सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षामहे॥2॥ (यजुर्वेदः 36/10/18)

शब्दार्था: – सर्वाणि- सर्वे (सब)। भूतानि- प्राणिनः (प्राणी)। मा- माम् (मुझे)। मित्रस्य- सुहृदः (मित्र की)। चक्षुषा- नेत्रेण, दृष्ट्या (नेत्र से, दृष्टि से, नजर से)। समीक्षन्ताम्- पश्यन्तु (देखें)। अहम्- अयं जनः (मैं)। सर्वाणि भूतानि- सर्वान् प्राणिनः (सब प्राणियों को)। समीक्षे- पश्यानि (देखू)। वयम्- वयं सर्वे इमे जनाः (ये हम सब लोग)। समीक्षामहे- पश्याम (देखें)।

सरलार्थ – सब प्राणी मुझे मित्र की दृष्टि से देखें। मैं मित्र की नजर से सब प्राणियों को देखू। हम सब मित्रभाव से (मित्रवत्) सब प्राणियों को देखें। लोगों में आपस में मित्रता का सम्बन्ध विकसित हो।

अभयं मित्रादभयममित्राद्, अभयं ज्ञातादभयं पुरो यः।
अभयं नक्तमभयं दिवा नः, सर्वा आशा मम मित्रं भवन्तु॥3॥ (अथर्ववेदः 19/15/6)

टिप्पणी -‘पुरो यः’ के स्थान पर परोक्षात् तथा पुरो यः दोनों पाठ प्राप्त होते हैं।
शब्दार्था: – मित्रात्- मित्रतः (मित्र से)। अभयम्- निर्भयता (निर्भीकता)। न:- अस्मभ्यम् (हमें)। अमित्रात्- शत्रोः (शत्रु से)। ज्ञाताम्- परिचितात् जनात् (परिचित जन से)। परोक्षात्- अज्ञातात्, अपरिचितात् जनात (अज्ञात, अपरिचित जन से)। नक्तम्- रात्रौ (रात में)। दिवा- दिने (दिन में)। सर्वाः आशा:- सर्वाः दिशः (सब दिशाएँ)। मम- मामकीनम् (मेरी)। भवन्तु- सन्तु (हों)। पुरः- समक्षम् (सामने)। यः- जो।
सरलार्थ – कोई व्यक्ति मित्र से, शत्रु से, परिचित से अथवा जो सामने है, उससे तथा अपरिचित से भयभीत न हों। हम दिन या रात्रि में भय रहित हों। सब दिशाएँ हमारे लिए मित्र बन जाएँ। (हमारा जीवन भय रहित तथा मित्रता से पूर्ण हो।)

ईशा वास्यमिदं सर्व यत्किञ्च जगत्यां जगत्।
तेन त्यक्तेन भुञ्जीथाः मा गृधः कस्यस्विद् धनम्॥4॥ (यजुर्वेदः 40/1)

शब्दार्थाः जगत्याम् – संसारे (संसार में)। यत् किम् च – यत् किञ्चिद् अपि (जो कुछ भी)। सर्वम्- सम्पूर्णम् (सब)। जगत् – परिवर्तनशीलम् (परिवर्तनशील)। ईशा – ईश्वरेण (ईश्वर के द्वारा)। वास्यम् – आच्छादितम् (आच्छादित, ढका हुआ, व्याप्त)। तेन – अतः (इसलिए) त्यक्तेन – त्यागभावेन, आसक्तिं विना (बिना आसक्ति के, त्याग भाव से)। भुञ्जीथाःउपभोगं कुरु (उपभोग करो)। कस्यस्विद् – कस्यापि (किसके भी)। धनम् – सम्पत्तिम् (धन का)। मा गृधः – लोभं मा कुरु (लालच न करो)।

सरलार्थ – संसार में जो कुछ भी जड़-चेतन परिवर्तन है वह सब ईश्वर के द्वारा व्याप्त है अतः आसक्ति के बिना त्याग भाव से भोग करो। किसी के धन की लालच न करो।

ख. अनुप्रयोगस्य प्रश्नोत्तराणि

1. अधोलिखितानां पदानां शुद्धोच्चारणं कृत्वा तेषाम् अनुलेखनम् क्रियताम् (निम्नलिखित पदों का शुद्ध उच्चारण
करके उनको फिर से लिखें)
(क) समीक्षन्ताम् ……………………..
(ख) मित्रादभयममित्राद् ……………………..
(ग) नश्चतस्त्रः ……………………..
(घ) सन्त्वापः ……………………..
(ङ) यत्किञ्च ……………………..
उत्तर:
छात्र इन पदों को उनके सामने फिर से लिखें।

2. पाठम् अनुसृत्य अधोलिखितेषु पदेषु सन्धि-सन्धिच्छेदं वा कुरुत (पाठ के अनुसार निम्न पदों में सन्धि अथवा
सन्धिच्छेद कीजिए)
(क) शम् + नः = ………………………
(ख) प्रदिशो भवन्तु = ……………………… + ………………………
(ग) सर्वाः + आशाः = ………………………
(घ) उरुचक्षा उदेतु = …………………. + ……………………..
(ङ) यत् + किम् + च = ………………………
उत्तर:
(क) शं नः
(ख) प्रदिशः + भवन्तु
(ग) सर्वा आशाः
(घ) उरुचक्षाः + उदेतु
(ङ) यत्किञ्च

3. अधोलिखितानाम् अर्थानां स्थाने पाठे प्रयुक्तानि पदानि लिखत (निम्नलिखित अर्थों के स्थान पर पाठ में प्रयुक्त पदों को लिखिए) पदानि अर्थाः

उत्तर:
(क) समीक्षे
(ख) शम्
(ग) चक्षुष् (चक्षुः)
(घ) अमित्रम्
(ङ) पुरः
(च) पर्वताः
(छ) नः
(ज) आपः
(झ) ज्ञात:
(ञ) नक्तम्।

4. उचितसर्वनामपदैः रिक्तस्थानपूर्ति कुरुत (उचित सर्वनाम पदों से रिक्त स्थानों को भरिए)
(क) सर्वे प्राणिनः ……………. मित्रदृष्ट्या पश्यन्तु। (अस्मद्)
(ख) ……………. वस्तूनाम् उपभोगः आसक्तिं विहाय एव कर्तव्यः। (सर्व)
(ग) ………….. त्यक्तेन भुञ्जीथाः। मा गृधः कस्यस्विद् धनम्। (तत्)
(घ) दिने वा रात्रौ वा ……………….. भयरहिताः भवेम। (अस्मद्)।
(ङ) अहं मित्रस्य चक्षुषा …………………. भूतानि समीक्षे। (सर्व)
उत्तर:
(क) सर्वे प्राणिनः मां मित्रदृष्ट्या पश्यन्तु।
(ख) सर्वेषां वस्तूनाम् उपभोगः आसक्तिं विहाय एव कर्तव्यः।
(ग) तेन त्यक्तेन भुञ्जीथाः। मा गृधः कस्यस्विद् धनम्।
(घ) दिने वा रात्रौ वा वयम् भयरहिताः भवेम।
(ङ) अहं मित्रस्य चक्षुषा सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षे।

5. पाठात् चित्वा विशेषणानि योजयत (पाठ से चुनकर विशेषण जोडिए) विशेषणानि
विशेष्याणि

उत्तर:
(क) ध्रुवयः
(ख) सर्वाणि
(ग) इदं
(घ) चतस्त्र
(ङ) सर्वाः
(च) उरुचक्षाः।

6. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु कोष्ठकात् उचितं क्रियापदं विचित्य योजयत (निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में कोष्ठक से उचित क्रियापद चुनकर जोड़िए)
(क) अहं मित्रस्य चक्षुषा सर्वाणि भूतानि ………….। (समीक्षे । समीक्षामहे)
(ख) वयं अहर्निशं भयरहिताः ………….। (भवेयम् । भवेम)
(ग) त्वं त्यागपूर्वकं वस्तूनि ……….। (भुञ्जीथाः । भुञ्जीत)
(घ) आपः अस्माकं कल्याणाय …………..। (अस्तु । सन्तु)
(ङ) सर्वाः दिशः मम मित्रं …………। (भवन्तु / भवतु)
उत्तर:
(क) समीक्षे
(ख) भवेम
(ग) भुञ्जीथाः
(घ) सन्तु
(ङ) भवन्तु।

7. अधोलिखितान् प्रश्नान् संस्कृतभाषया उत्तरत (निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के संस्कृत भाषा में उत्तर दीजिए)
(क) सर्वाणि भूतानि कथं द्रष्टव्यानि?
(ख) इदं सर्वं जगत् केन व्याप्तम्?
(ग) कति प्रदिशः अस्माकं कल्याणं कुर्वन्तु?
(घ) ध्रुवयः पर्वताः अस्माकं कृते कीदृशाः भवेयुः?
(ङ) मम मित्रं काः भवन्तु?
(च) केभ्यः अस्माकम् अभयं भवेत्?
उत्तर:
(क) सर्वाणि भूतानि मित्रस्य चक्षुषा द्रष्टव्यानि।
(ख) इदं सर्वं जगत् ईश्वरेण व्याप्तम्।
(ग) चतस्त्रः प्रदिशः अस्माकं कल्याणं कुर्वन्तु।
(घ) ध्रुवयः पर्वताः अस्माकं कृते कल्याणकारकाः भवेयुः।
(ङ) मम मित्रं सर्वाः आशाः (दिशाः) भवन्तु।
(च) मित्रात् अमित्रात् ज्ञातात् परोक्षात् च अस्माकम् अभयं भवेत्।

8. अधोलिखितेषु अन्वयेषु उचित-रिक्तस्थानपूर्तिं कुरुत। (निम्नलिखित अन्वयों में उचित रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति कीजिए।)
(क) जगत्यां यत् किञ्च ………………………. इदं सर्वम् ईशा वास्यम्, तेन ……………………… भुञ्जीथाः। कस्यस्विद् धनम् मा …………………….।
(ख) उरुचक्षा ……………….. नः शम् उदेतु। चतस्रः ……………….. नः शं भवन्तु। ध्रुवयः पर्वताः ……………. शं भवन्तु। सिन्धवः नः शम्। उ ………………….. शं सन्तु।
उत्तर:
(क) जगत्यां यत् किञ्च जगत् इदं सर्वम् ईशा वास्यम्, तेन त्यक्तेन भुञ्जीथाः। कस्यस्विद् धनम् मा गृधः।
(ख) उरुचक्षा सूर्यः नः शम् उदेतु। चतस्त्रः प्रदिशः नः शं भवन्तु। ध्रुवयः पर्वताः नः शं भवन्तु। सिन्धवः नः शम्। उ आपः शं सन्तु।

9. अधोलिखितपक्तीनां भावम् अनुसृत्य पाठात् चित्वा पक्तिं लिखत। (निम्नलिखित पंक्तियों के भाव के अनुसार पाठ से चुन कर पंक्ति लिखिए।)
(क) सकलाः दिशः मम मित्रभूताः सन्तु। ………………..
(ख) सरितः सागराः च अस्माकं कल्याणं कुर्वन्तु। ………………..
(ग) सर्वे प्राणिनः मां मित्रवत् पश्यन्तु। ………………..
(घ) सर्वः संसारः ईश्वरेण व्याप्तः। ………………..
उत्तर:
(क) सर्वा आशा मम मित्रं भवन्तु।
(ख) शं नः सिन्धवः।
(ग) मित्रस्य चक्षुषा सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षन्ताम्।
(घ) ईशा वास्यमिदं सर्वम्।

10. अधः केषाञ्चित् श्लोकानां भावार्थः दत्तः। उचितपदैः रिक्तस्थानपूर्तिं कुरुत। (नीचे कुछ श्लोकों का भावार्थ दिया गया है उचित पदों से रिक्त स्थान भरिए।)
(क) सर्वे प्राणिनः मां……………………… पश्यन्तु। अहम् अपि तान् मित्रवत् ………………….। यतः मित्रता सुखदायिनी भवति। यस्मिन् परिवारे समाजे वा ……………….. स्नेहः भवति तत्र आनन्दमयं वातावरणं जायते। अतः जनेषु मैत्रीसम्बन्धः …………………… प्राप्नोतु।
उत्तर:
सर्वे प्राणिनः मां मित्रवत् पश्यन्तु। अहम् अपि तान् मित्रवत् पश्यामि। यतः मित्रता सुखदायिनी भवति। यस्मिन् परिवारे समाजे वा परस्परं स्नेहः भवति तत्र आनन्दमयं वातावरणं जायते। अतः जनेषु मैत्रीसम्बन्धः विकासं प्राप्नोतु।।

(ख) एषः जडचेतनरूपः संसारः …………………………. व्याप्तः। संसारे लभ्याः ………………………….. आहारादिकं च प्राणिनाम् उपभोगाय सन्ति। वस्तूनाम् उपभोगः आसक्तिं ………………………. एव कर्तव्यः। अन्येषां जनानां धनादिकं प्रति ……………………. न कर्तव्यः ।
उत्तर:
एषः जडचेतनरूपः संसारः ईश्वरेण व्याप्तः। संसारे लभ्याः पदार्थाः आहारादिकं च प्राणिनाम् उपभोगाय सन्ति। वस्तूनाम उपभोगः आसक्तिं विना एव कर्तव्यः। अन्येषां जनानां धनादिकं प्रति लोभः न कर्तव्यः।

(ग) अस्माकं जीवनं ………………………….. भवेत्। मित्रात्, शत्रोः परिचितात् नरात् वस्तुनः वा ……………………….. भयं न स्यात्। दिने वा ………………………. वा वयं भयरहिताः भवेम। मित्रभूताः सर्वाः दिशः अस्मान् ………………….।
उत्तर:
अस्माकं जीवनं भयरहितं भवेत्। मित्रात्, शत्रोः परिचितात् नरात् वस्तुनः वा किमपि भयं न स्यात्। दिने वा रात्रौ वा वयं भयरहिताः भवेम। मित्रभूताः सर्वाः दिशः अस्मान् सुखयन्तु।

ग. पाठ-विकासः

महान् ज्ञानराशिग्रन्थः वेदः। वेदाः चत्वारः सन्तिः- ऋग्वेदः, यजुर्वेदः, सामवेदः, अथर्ववेदश्च इति। आदर्शा समाजव्यवस्था अत्र उपदिष्टा। यथा
संगच्छध्वं, संवदध्वं, सं वो मनांसि जानताम्। देवा भागं यथा पूर्वे संजानाना उपासते॥ (ऋग्वेद: 1.191.2)
प्रतिगृहम् अपि परस्परं सम्मानभावः भवेत्।
अनुव्रतः पितुः पुत्रो, मात्रा भवतु संमनाः। (अथर्ववेदः 3.30.2)
जाया पत्ये मधुमतीं वाचं वदतु शान्तिवाम्॥
अपि च
न स सखा यो न ददाति सख्ये। (ऋग्वेदः 10.117.4)
केवलाघो भवति केवलादी। (ऋग्वेदः 10.117.6)

वेद महान् ज्ञानराशि से युक्त ग्रन्थ हैं। वेद चार हैं – ऋग्वेद, यजुर्वेद, सामवेद तथा अथर्ववेद। इनमें आदर्श समाज व्यवस्था का उपदेश दिया गया है। मिल कर चलो, मिलकर बोलो, सब तुम्हारे हृदयों को अपने समान जानें। जिस प्रकार पहले विद्वान् सम्यक् जानते हुए व्यवहार करते हैं वैसे ही तुम भी व्यवहार करो।
हर घर के प्रति आपस में सम्मान का भाव हो, पुत्र पिता का आज्ञाकारी हो। माता के साथ एक मन वाला हो। पत्नी पति को माधुर्य से युक्त शान्तिप्रद वचन बोले।
और भी, वह मित्र नहीं जो मित्र को नहीं दे। स्वयं खाने वाला केवल पाप को खाता है।
समानान्तरप्रयोगाः (पाठों के भावों से मिलते-जुलते मन्त्र)

(क) मेधां मे वरुणो ददातु, मेधामग्निः प्रजापतिः।
मेधामिन्द्रश्च वायुश्च, मेधां धाता ददातु मे॥ (यजुर्वेदः 32/35)

भावार्थ: – वरुणः मह्यम् बुद्धिं ददातु, अग्निः प्रजापतिः अपि मह्यं बुद्धिं ददातु।
विश्वस्य धारणकर्ता ईश्वरः अपि मह्यम् बुद्धिं ददातु।।
(वरुण मुझे बुद्धि दे. अग्नि तथा प्रजापति भी मुझे बुद्धि दें। विश्व के धारणकर्ता ईश्वर भी मुझे बुद्धि दें।)

(ख) शं नो मित्रा शं वरुणः, शं नो भवत्वर्यमा।
शं न इन्द्रो बृहस्पतिः, शं नो विष्णुरुरुक्रमः॥ (ऋग्वेदः 1/90/9)

भावार्थ: – मित्राणिः अस्मभ्यं सुखकराणि भवन्तु, वरुणः, अर्यमा, इन्द्रः, बृहस्पतिः, दूरात्दूरं गमने समर्थः विष्णुः-एते सर्वे एव अस्मभ्यं सुखकराः भवन्तु।
(मित्र हमारे लिए सुखद हो, वरूण, अर्यमा, इन्द्र, बृहस्पति तथा विष्णु जो दूर से दूर जाने में समर्थ हैं, ये सब ही हमारे लिए सुखकर हों।)

(ग) यतो यतः समीहसे, ततो नो अभयं कुरु।
शं नः कुरु प्रजाभ्योऽभयं नः पशुभ्यः॥ (यजुर्वेदः 40/16)

भावार्थ: – हे देवानां देव! यस्मात् एव स्थानात् त्वं प्रकटितः भवसि, तस्मात् एव स्थानात् अस्मभ्यं निर्भयतां प्रयच्छ, अस्माकं सन्ततिः, पशवः च भयमुक्ताः भवेयुः।।
(हे देवों के देव, जिस स्थान से तुम प्रकट हुए हो, उस स्थान से हमें निर्भयता प्रदान करो, हमारी सन्तानें तथा पशु भयरहित हों।)

(घ) अनमित्रं नो अधराद् अनमित्रं न उत्तरात्, इन्द्रानमित्रं नः पश्चाद् अनमित्रं पुरस्कृधि॥
भावार्थ: – हे इन्द्र! भवान् अस्मभ्यं सर्वतः शत्रुराहित्यं प्रददातु। सर्वतः अस्मभ्यं अभयदानं प्रापयतु। (हे इन्द्र! आप हमें शत्रुओं से रहित करें। सबसे सब तरफ से अभय प्रदान करें।)

घ. पठितांश-अवबोधनम्

1. अधोलिखितं गद्यांशं पठित्वा प्रश्नान् उत्तरत।
(क) शं नः सूर्य उरुचक्षा उदेतु, शं नश्चतस्रः प्रदिशो भवन्तु।
शं नः पर्वता ध्रुवयो भवन्तु, शं नः सिन्धवः शमु सन्त्वापः॥1॥

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) कीदृशः सूर्यः उदेतु?
(ii) कति प्रदिशः नः शं भवन्तु?
(iii) ध्रुवयः पर्वताः केभ्यः शं भवन्तु?
(iv) आपः कथं सन्तु?
उत्तर:
(i) उरुचक्षाः
(ii) चतस्रः
(iii) नः
(iv) शम्।

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
के के सर्वेषां कल्याणं कुर्वन्तु?
उत्तर:
चतस्त्रः दिशः, दृढतया स्थिताः पर्वताः, सरितः, सागराः, अन्यानि जलानि च सर्वेषां कल्याणं कुर्वन्तु।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत1. ध्रुवयः केषां विशेषणम् अस्ति?
(i) पर्वतानाम्
(ii) खगानाम्
(iii) जनानाम्
(iv) नक्षत्राणाम्
उत्तर:
(i) पर्वतानाम्

2. अत्र ‘सूर्यस्य’ विशेषणं किम् अस्ति?
(i) चक्षा
(ii) उरु
(iii) उरुचक्षा
(iv) शं नः ।
उत्तर:
(iii) उरुचक्षा

3. कोष्ठकगत शब्देभ्यः उचितपदानि अवचित्य रिक्तस्थानं पूरयत –
(सिन्धवः, ध्रुवयः, प्रदिशः, उदेतु)
(i) शं नः सूर्य उरुचक्षा ……………….।
(ii) शं नश्चतस्रः ………………. भवन्तु।
उत्तर:
(i) उदेतु
(ii) प्रदिशः।

(ख) मित्रस्य मा चक्षुषा सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षन्ताम्।
मित्रस्याहं चक्षुषा सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षे।
मित्रस्य चक्षुषा वयं सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षामहे॥

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) कस्य चक्षुषा अहं सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षे?
(ii) सर्वाणि भूतानि कं मित्रस्य चक्षुषा समीक्षन्ताम्?
(iii) वयं मित्रस्य केन सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षामहे?
(iv) कति भूतानि माम् मित्रवत् पश्यन्तु?
उत्तर:
(i) मित्रस्य
(ii) मा
(iii) चक्षुषा
(iv) सर्वाणि।

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत
मित्रस्य चक्षुषा वयं किं कुर्याम?
उत्तर:
मित्रस्य चक्षुषा वयं सर्वाणि भूतानि पश्येम (समीक्षामहे वा)।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत –

(i) ‘सर्वाणि’ कस्य पदस्य विशेषणम् अस्ति?
(क) भूतानि पदस्य
(ख) चक्षुषा पदस्य
(ग) मित्राणि पदस्य
(घ) नेत्राणि पदस्य
उत्तर:
(क) भूतानि पदस्य

(ii) अत्र कर्मकारके किं सर्वनामपदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) वयं
(ख) सर्वाणि
(ग) भूतानि
(घ) मा
उत्तर:
(घ) मा

(iii) कोष्ठकगत उचितपदाभ्यां रिक्तस्थानं पूरयत –
(वयम् सर्वाणि, भूतानि, समीक्षामहे)
(क) मित्रस्य चक्षुषा ……….. सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षामहे।
(ख) मित्रस्य मा चक्षुषा सर्वाणि ………….. समीक्षन्ताम्।
उत्तर:
(क) वयम्
(ख) भूतानि।

(ग) अभयं मित्रादभयममित्राद्, अभयं ज्ञातादभयं पुरो यः। अभयं नक्तमभयं दिवा नः, सर्वा आशा मम मित्रं भवन्तु॥

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) सर्वा आशा कस्य मित्रं भवन्तु?
(ii) ज्ञातात् किं भवतु?
(iii) केषाम् दिवा अभयं भवतु?
(iv) अस्माकं किम् अभयं भवेत्?
उत्तर:
(i) मम
(ii) अभयम्
(iii) नः
(iv) नक्तम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
(i) मित्रात् नः किम् भवेत्?
(ii) काः मम मित्रं भवन्तु?
उत्तर:
(i) मित्रात् नः अभयं भवेत्।
(ii) सर्वाः आशाः मम मित्रं भवन्तु।

III. निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत
(i) मन्त्रे ‘आशाः’ इत्यस्य पदस्य किं विशेषणं प्रयुक्तम्?
(ii) ‘भवन्तु’ इत्यस्याः क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(iii) मन्त्रे ‘यः’ सर्वनाम पदं कस्मै आगतम्?
(iv) ‘दिवा’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः विपर्ययः अत्र आगतः?
उत्तर:
(i) सर्वाः
(ii) सर्वा आशा
(iii) जनाय
(iv) नक्तम्

(घ) ईशावास्यमिदं सर्व यत्किञ्च जगत्यां जगत्। तेन त्यक्तेन भुञ्जीथाः मा गृधः कस्यस्विद् धनम्॥

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) सर्वं जगत् केन वास्यं वर्तते?
(ii) जगत्यां किं वर्तते?
(iii) कस्यास्विद् धनस्य कः मा भवेत्?
(iv) ईशा किं वास्यम् अस्ति?
उत्तर:
(i) ईशा
(ii) जगत्
(iii) गृधः
(iv) सर्वम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
(i) जगत् कथं भुञ्जीथाः?
(ii) किं प्रति गृधः मा भवेत्?
उत्तर:
(i) जगत् त्यक्तेन भुञ्जीथाः।
(ii) कस्यस्विद् धनं प्रति गृधः मा भवेत्।

III. निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत –
(i) मन्त्रे ‘वास्यम्’ इति क्रियापदस्य कर्तृपदं किम्?
(ii) ‘संसारम्’ इति पदस्य कः पर्यायः अत्र प्रयुक्तः?
(iii) मन्त्रे ‘इदं’ सर्वनाम पदं कस्मै प्रयुक्तम्?
(iv) ‘इदं सर्वं’ अनयोः पदयोः विशेषणं किम्?
उत्तर:
(i) ईशा
(ii) जगत्
(iii) जगते
(iv) इदम्

2. I. कः कम् कथयति –
(i) ‘मित्रस्याहं चक्षुषा सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षे।’
(ii) ‘अभयं मित्रादभयममित्राद्, अभयं ज्ञातादभयं पुरो यः।’
(iii) ‘तेन त्यक्तेन भुञ्जीथाः मा गृधः कस्यस्विद् धनम्।’
उत्तर:
(i) यजुर्वेदः जनान् कथयति।।
(ii) अथर्ववेदः जनान् कथयति।
(iii) यजुर्वेदः जनान् कथयति।

II. सन्दर्भग्रन्थस्य लेखकस्य च नामनी
(i) ‘शं नः सूर्य उरुचक्षा उदेतु।’ ।
(ii) ‘मित्रस्य मा चक्षुषा सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षन्ताम्।’
(iii) ‘सर्वा आशा मम मित्रं भवन्तु।’
(iv) ‘ईशावास्यमिदं सर्व यत्किञ्च जगत्यां जगत्।’
उत्तर:
(i) ग्रन्थः – ऋग्वेदः, लेखकः-अग्निः ऋषिः
(ii) ग्रन्थः – यजुर्वेदः, लेखकः-वायुः ऋषिः
(iii) ग्रन्थः – अथर्ववेदः, लेखक:-अगिरा ऋषिः
(iv) ग्रन्थः – यजुर्वेदः, लेखकः-वायुः ऋषिः

3. निम्न मन्त्रं पङ्क्तिं वा आश्रित्य उचितैः पदैः भाव पूर्ति करोतु भवान् –

I. शं नः सूर्य उरुचक्षा उदेतु, शं नश्चतस्त्रः प्रदिशो भवन्तु।
शं नः पर्वता ध्रुवयो भवन्तु, शं नः सिन्धवः शमु सन्त्वापः॥
अस्य भावोऽस्ति- हे ईश्वर! अस्माकं कल्याणाय अतीव प्रकाशितः (i) ………………….. उदयं प्राप्नोतु। समस्ताः चतस्रः (ii) …………… अपि (iii) …………… कल्याणाय भवन्तु। अस्मिन् संसारे दृढ़तया स्थिताः पर्वताः, (iv) ………………………….. वहन्ति जलानि अपि अस्माकं कल्याणं कुर्वन्तु।
मञ्जूषा – सागराः, सूर्यः, अस्माकं, दिशः
उत्तर:
(i) सूर्यः
(ii) दिशः
(iii) अस्माकं
(iv) सागराः

II. “मित्रस्य चक्षुषा वयं सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षामहे’। अर्थात्
अस्मिन् (i) ……………… वयं सर्वे जनाः सर्वान् (ii) ………………. मित्रवत् पश्येम। कोऽपि कदापि कैश्चित् सह (iii) ………………… न कुर्यात्। सर्वस्मिन् संसारे प्रेमशान्तिदयादीनां प्रसारो भवेत् येन सर्वे जनाः (iv) …………………. सन्तु।
मञ्जूषा – संसारे, द्वेषभावं, जनान्, सुखिनः
उत्तर:
(i) संसारे
(ii) जनान्
(iii) द्वेषभावं
(iv) सुखिनः

III. अभयं मित्रादभयममित्राद्, अभयं ज्ञातादभयं पुरोयः।
अभयं नक्तमभयं दिवा नः, सर्वा आशा मम मित्रं भवन्तु॥
भावार्थ: – मनुष्यः ईश्वरं प्रार्थयति हे प्रभो! वयं सुदृढ़ात् शत्रोः वा कदापि (i) …………………. न प्राप्नुवाम। यत् वस्तु ज्ञातं वर्तते अथवा (ii) ………………….. अस्ति तस्मादपि अस्मभ्यम् अभयं प्राप्नुयात्। दिवसि रात्रौ वा कदापि अस्मभ्यं (iii)…………………. न प्राप्नुयात्। सर्वासु दिक्षु यद्यपि वस्तु चेतनः अचेतनः वा वर्तते तस्मादपि वयम् (iv) ……………… भवेम।
मञ्जूषा  – भयम्, निर्भयाः, भयं, अज्ञातम् |
उत्तर:
(i) भयं
(ii) अज्ञातम्
(iii) भयम्
(iv) निर्भयाः

IV. ‘तेन त्यक्तेन भुञ्जीथाः मा गृधः कस्यस्विद् धनम्।’
भावार्थ: – अस्य आश्योऽस्ति यत् ईश्वरः उपदिसति-अस्मिन् संसारे यद्यपि (i) ………………….. अचेतनः वा यद् वस्तु वर्त्तते तत् सर्वम् (ii) …………………. आच्छादितम् अस्ति। अतः लोभं त्यक्त्वा (iii) …………………. दानं वा मत्त्वा वस्तूनाम् उपयोगं कुरु। कदापि कस्यचिदपि वस्तुनः (iv) …………………. मा कर्तव्यम्। यतः सर्वेषां वस्तूनाम् स्वामी ईश्वरः एव वर्तते।
मञ्जूषा – ईश्वरस्य, चेतनः, लोभ, ईश्वरेण |
उत्तर:
(i) चेतनः
(ii) ईश्वरेण
(iii) ईश्वरस्य
(iv) लोभ

4. निम्न-मन्त्रं पठित्वा तस्य अन्वयपूर्तिम् उचितैः पदैः करोतु भवान्
I. शं नः सूर्य उरुचक्षा उदेतु, शं नश्चतस्त्रः प्रदिशो भवन्तु।
शं नः पर्वता ध्रुवयो भवन्तु, शं नः सिन्धवः शमु सन्त्वापः॥
अन्वयः – उरुचक्षा (i) ………………….. नः शम् उदेतु (ii) ………………….. प्रदिशः नः शम् भवन्तु। ध्रुवयः (iii) …………. नः शं भवन्तु, सिन्धवः नः शम्उ (iv)………………….. शं सन्तु।
उत्तर:
(i) सूर्यः
(ii) चतस्रः
(iii) पर्वताः
(iv) आपः

II. मित्रस्य मा चक्षुषा सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षन्ताम्।
मित्रस्याहं चक्षुषा सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षे।
मित्रस्य चक्षुषा वयं सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षामहे॥2॥
अन्वयः – सर्वाणि (i) ………………….. मा मित्रस्य चक्षुषा (ii) ………………….. अहम् मित्रस्य (iii)………………….. सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षे। (iv) …………………. मित्रस्य चक्षुषा सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षामहे।
उत्तर:
(i) भूतानि
(ii) समीक्षन्ताम्
(iii) चक्षुषा
(iv) वयम्।

III. अभयं मित्रादभयममित्राद्, अभयं ज्ञातादभयं पुरो यः।
अभयं नक्तभयं दिवा नः, सर्वा आशा मम मित्रं भवन्तु॥3॥
अन्वय – मित्रात् नः (i) …………. अमित्रात् अभयम् (ii) ………… अभयम् यः पुरः अभयम् (iii) …………. अभयम् नः दिवा अभयम्। सर्वाः (iv) ………………….. मम मित्रम् भवन्तु।।
उत्तर:
(i) अभयम्
(ii) ज्ञातात्
(iii) नक्तम्
(iv) आशाः

IV. ईशावास्यमिदं सर्व यत्किञ्च जगत्यां जगत्।
तेन त्यक्तेन भुञ्जीथाः मा गृधः कस्यस्विद् धनम्॥1॥
अन्वय – जगत्यां यत् (i) ……………… च सर्वं जगत् (ii) ………………… वास्यम् (अस्ति)। तेन (iii) ……………. भुञ्जीथाः कस्यस्विद् (iv) ………. मा गृधः।।
उत्तर:
(i) किम्
(ii) ईशा
(iii) त्यक्तेन
(iv) धनम्।

5. निम्नलिखितानां रेखाकितानांपदानां प्रसङ्गानुसारेण शुद्धम् अर्थ चीयताम् –
1. शं नः सूर्येः उरुचक्षा उदेतु।
(i) कीर्तिमान्
(ii) अतिप्रकाशवान्
(iii) गतिमान्
(iv) धनवान्
उत्तर:
(ii) अतिप्रकाशवान्

2. शं नः पर्वताः ध्रुवयः भवन्तु।
(i) दृढाः
(ii) शक्तिधराः
(iii) महाकायाः
(iv) रुपाकाराः
उत्तर:
(i) दृढाः

3. मित्रस्य मा चक्षुषा सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षन्ताम्।
(i) जनान्
(ii) प्राणिनः
(iii) वस्तूनि
(iv) धनानि
उत्तर:
(ii) प्राणिनः

4. मित्रस्याहं चक्षुषा सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षे।
(i) पश्यामि
(ii) अपश्यम्
(iii) पश्येयम्
(iv) पश्यानि
उत्तर:
(iv) पश्यानि

5. अभयं ज्ञातादभयं पुरो यः।
(i) दूरम्
(ii) निकटम्
(iii) समक्षम्
(iv) पृष्ठम्
उत्तर:
(iii) समक्षम्

6. सर्वा आशा मम मित्रं भवन्तु।
(i) कामनाः
(ii) दिशः
(iii) संकल्पाः
(iv) इच्छाः
उत्तर:
(ii) दिशः

7. ईशा वास्यमिदं सर्व यत्किञ्च जगत्यां जगत्।
(i) संसारे
(ii) परलोके
(iii) धारायाम्
(iv) जले।
उत्तर:
(i) संसारे

8. मा गृधः कस्यस्विद् धनम्।
(i) त्यागः
(ii) वैराग्यः
(iii) लोभः
(iv) लोभम्
उत्तर:
(iv) लोभम्

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit Chapter 1  मम मित्रं भवन्तु  appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit Chapter 2 सर्वे सन्तु निरामयाः (सब नीरोग रहें)

पाठपरिचयः, सारांशः च

पाठपरिचयः
अस्य पाठस्य मुख्यः विषयः चरकसंहितायाः सङ्कलितः। चरकसंहिता आयुर्वेदस्य प्रमुखः ग्रन्थः अस्ति। अस्मिन् ग्रन्थे अष्ट स्थानानि सन्ति। यथाहि (1) सूत्रस्थानम्, (2) निदानस्थानम्, (3) विमानस्थानम्, (4) शरीरस्थानम्, (5) इन्द्रियस्थानम्, (6) चिकित्सास्थानम्, (7) कल्पस्थानम्, (8) सिद्धिस्थानम् च इति। अत्र न केवलं रोगाणां चिकित्सा एव वर्णिता अपितु स्वास्थ्यस्य संरक्षणार्थम् आयुषः च संवर्धनार्थम् उपायाः अपि निर्दिष्टाः, अत एव अयम् आयुर्वेदस्य प्रमुखः ग्रन्थः मन्यते। चरकसंहितायाः लेखकः महर्षिः चरकः आसीत्। सः राज्ञः कनिष्कस्य राजवैद्यः आसीत्। अयम् ईसवीय-प्रथमशताब्द्याम् अभवत् इति मन्यते। एषः मूलतः गान्धारदेशवासी आसीत्।

सारांशः
अयं पाठः सन्दिशति यत् वयम् आहारविषयकाणां नियमानाम् पालनात् निरामयाः भवेम। आचार्यः विहगस्य ‘कोऽरुक्’ ध्वनेः उत्तरं ददाति यत् हितभुक्, मितभुक्, ऋतुभुक् सदा स्वस्थः रोगरहितः च भवति। यः हितकरं भोजनं करोति सः हितभुक् भवति। फलसेवनम् हितकरम् भवति यतः फलानि स्वास्थ्यरक्षकाणि सन्ति। अन्यच्च हितकराः अपि पदार्थाः यदि अतिमात्रं भुज्यन्ते तदा तेऽपि हानिकराः भवन्ति। गरिष्ठभोजनम् अपि अल्पमात्रया सेवनेन सुपाच्यं भवति। अतः मात्रानुसारम् एव खादितव्यम्। यः तत्करोति सः मितभुक् भवति। यः ऋतोः अनुसारम् आहारं खादति सः ऋतुभुक् भवति। एवं संवादरूपेण शिष्येभ्यः आचार्यः विहगस्य ‘कोऽरुक्’ इति प्रश्नस्य उत्तरं सम्यक् ददाति।

‘शरीरम् आद्यं खलु धर्मसाधनम्’ इति प्रसिद्धा उक्तिः। स्वस्थं शरीरं विना वयं संसारे किमपि कार्यं कर्तुं समर्थाः न भवामः। स्वास्थ्यं तु आहारे आश्रितम्, उक्तञ्च-आहारशुद्धौ सत्त्वसंशुद्धिः। आहारः अपि हितकरः स्यात्, उचितमात्रायां स्यात्, ऋतु-अनुसारं च स्यात् इत्येव स्वास्थ्यस्य आहारः। आहारविषये कथ्यते यद् ‘अतिभोजनं स्वास्थ्यं नाशयति, आयुषः च क्षयं करोति’। अतः आहारविषयकाणां नियमानाम् अनुपालनं कृत्वा निरामयाः भवेम इत्येव सन्दिशति अयं पाठः-‘सर्वे सन्तु निरामयाः’।

हिन्दीभाषायां पाठपरिचयः
इस पाठ का मुख्य विषय ‘चरकसंहिता’ से लिया गया है। चरकसंहिता आयुर्वेद का प्रमुख ग्रन्थ है। इस ग्रन्थ में आठ स्थान हैं- (1) सूत्रस्थान, (2) निदानस्थान, (3) विमानस्थान, (4) शरीरस्थान, (5) इन्द्रियस्थान, (6) चिकित्सास्थान, (7) कल्पस्थान तथा (8) सिद्धिस्थान। इसमें न केवल रोगों का इलाज बताया गया है अपितु स्वास्थ्य की रक्षा के लिए तथा आयु की वृद्धि के लिए भी उपाय बताए गए हैं। इसीलिए यह आयुर्वेद का प्रमुख ग्रन्थ माना जाता है। चरकसंहिता के लेखक महर्षि चरक थे। वे राजा कनिष्क के राजवैद्य थे। वे ईसा की प्रथम शताब्दी में हुए ऐसा माना जाता है। वे मूलतः गान्धार देशवासी थे।

सारांश –
यह पाठ सन्देश देता है कि आहार (भोजन) के नियमों का पालन करने से हम नीरोग हो सकते हैं। आचार्य एक पक्षी की ‘कोऽरुक्’ (क: + अरुक्) ध्वनि का उत्तर देते हैं कि हितभुक्, मितभुक् तथा ऋतुभुक् व्यक्ति सदा स्वस्थ व रोगरहित होता है। जो हितकर भोजन करता है वह हितभुक् होता है। फलों का सेवन हितकर होता है क्योंकि फल स्वास्थ्य के रक्षक होते हैं। और भी, हितकर पदार्थ भी यदि ज्यादा मात्रा में खाए जाएँ तो हानिकर होते हैं तथा गरिष्ठ (भारी) भोजन भी अल्प मात्रा में करने से सुपाच्य होता है अतः मात्रा के अनुसार ही खाना चाहिए। जो वैसा करता है वह मितभुक् होता है। जो ऋतु के अनुसार आहार करता है वह ऋतुभुक् होता है। इस प्रकार संवादरूप में शिष्यों को आचार्य पक्षी के ‘कोऽरुक्’ अर्थात् नीरोग कौन है? इस प्रश्न का उत्तर समझाते हैं।

शरीर धर्म का निश्चय ही प्रथम साधन है, यह प्रसिद्ध उक्ति है। स्वस्थ शरीर के बिना हम संसार में कुछ भी काम नहीं कर सकते। स्वास्थ्य तो आहार पर आश्रित होता है। कहा भी है-आहार की शुद्धि से मन की शुद्धि होती है। आहार भी हितकर होना चाहिए, उचित मात्रा में होना चाहिए तथा ऋतु के अनुसार होना चाहिए-यही स्वास्थ्य का आधार है। आहार के विषय में कहा जाता है कि अतिभोजन स्वास्थ्य का नाश कर देता है तथा आयु का क्षय करता है। अत: आहार के नियमों का बार-बार पालन कर हम नीरोग हो सकते हैं-यही है सन्देश, इस ‘सर्वे सन्तु निरामयाः’ पाठ का।

क. मूलपाठः, अन्वयः, शब्दार्थः, सरलार्थश्च

1. एकं वनम्। केचन शिष्याः गुरुः च वने विचरन्ति स्म। सहसा तत्र विचित्रः शब्दः श्रुतः-“कोऽरुक, कोऽरुक्”, इति। चकिता: शिष्याः इतस्ततः पश्यन्ति। ‘अये! विचित्रः खलु अयं ध्वनिः कुतः आयाति? इति चिन्तयन्ति। तदैव एकस्य शिष्यस्य दृष्टिः वृक्षस्थे विहगे अपतत्। सः पुनः पुनः रटति स्म ‘कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्’ इति। विस्मितः शिष्यः आचार्यं पृच्छति-गुरुवर! अयं किं वदति? आचार्यः अकथयत्-शोभनम् पृष्टम्। कथयिष्यामि। अस्य वृक्षस्य अधः उपविशन्तु! सर्वं कथयामि। (सर्वे उपविशन्ति)

आचार्यः – शिष्याः! शृणुत! एषः विहगः वदति ‘कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्’ इति! अर्थात् कः अरुक्? कस्तावत् स्वस्थः नीरोगः वा?
शिष्यः – आचार्य! तदा कः स्वस्थः?
आचार्यः – यः हितभुक्, मितभुक्, ऋतुभुक् च भवति स एव सर्वदा स्वस्थः।
शब्दार्थाः – अरुक्- नीरोगः, स्वस्थः (निरोग, स्वस्थ)। चकिताः- विस्मिताः (हैरान)। इतस्ततः- अत्र-तत्र (यहाँ-वहाँ, इधर-उधर)। हितभुक्- हितं भुङ्क्ते, यः हितकरं पदार्थं भक्षयति, सः (जो हितकारक पदार्थ का सेवन करता है)। मितभुक्- मितं भुक्ते, यः मितं, मात्रानुसारं वा खादति, सः (सीमित मात्रा में आहार सेवन करने वाला)। ऋतुभुक्ऋत्वनुसार, भुङ्क्ते, यः ऋत्वनुकूलं पथ्यं भोजनं भक्षयति, सः (ऋतु के अनुसार उपयुक्त भोजन करने वाला)।

सरलार्थ – एक वन था। कुछ शिष्य और आचार्य वन में विचरण कर रहे थे। अचानक वहाँ विचित्र शब्द सुनाई दिया-‘कोऽरुक, कोऽरुक, कोऽरुक्’। चकित शिष्य इधर-उधर देखते हैं। ‘अरे, यह विचित्र ध्वनि कहाँ से आ रही है?’ इस प्रकार सोचते हैं। तभी एक शिष्य की नजर वृक्ष पर बैठे एक पक्षी पर पड़ी। वह बार-बार रट रहा था-कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्। चकित शिष्य ने आचार्य से पूछा-‘गुरुवर, यह क्या कह रहा है?’ आचार्य ने कहा-ठीक पूछा। मैं बताऊँगा। आप इस वृक्ष के नीचे बैठ जाएँ। मैं
सब कहूँगा। (सब बैठ जाते हैं।)
आचार्य – हे शिष्यों, सुनो। यह पक्षी कह रहा है-कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक् अर्थात् निरोग (अरुक्) कौन है?
स्वस्थ या निरोग कौन है?
शिष्य – आचार्य जी, तब स्वस्थ कौन होता है?
आचार्य – जो हितभुक् (अर्थात् हितकर भोजन करने वाला), मितभुक् (मात्रा के अनुसार भोजन करने वाला) तथा ऋतुभुक (ऋतु के अनुसार भोजन करने वाला) होता है वही सर्वदा स्वस्थ होता है।
शिष्यः – आचार्य! “हितभुक, मितभुक्, ऋतुभुक्’ इति एतेषां कः आशयः?
आचार्यः – अपि भवद्भिः महर्षेः चरकस्य नाम श्रुतम्? ।
सर्वे शिष्याः – आम्। जानीमः। तेन एव लिखिता ‘चरकसंहिता’ इति आयुर्वेदस्य महान् ग्रन्थः।
आचार्यः – शोभनम्। एतेषाम् आशयः तु तत्रैव वर्तते! अधुना शृणुत-हितभुक् कः? यः हितकरं भुक्ते। यथा हि
तच्च नित्यं प्रयुञ्जीत, स्वास्थ्यं येनानुवर्तते।
अजातानां विकाराणामनुत्पत्तिकरं च यत्॥
अर्थात् यस्य आहारस्य सेवनेन स्वास्थ्यस्य रक्षणं भवेत्, न जातानाम् अनुत्पन्नानां विकाराणाम् उत्पत्तिः न भवेत्, स एव आहारः सेवनीयः।
शिष्याः – आचार्य! किं फलसेवनं “हितकरम्”?
आचार्यः – आम्! फलानि स्वास्थ्यरक्षकाणि एव।

शब्दार्थः – आशयः – अभिप्रायः (भाव)। अपि – किम् (क्या)। शोभनम् – सुष्ठु (ठीक है)। भुङ्क्ते – भोजनं करोति (खाता है)। अनुवर्तते – अनुसरति (अनुसरण करता है, पालन करता है)। अजातानाम् – न उत्पन्नानाम् (जो पैदा नहीं हुए उनका)। विकाराणाम् – दोषाणाम् (दोषों का)। अनुत्पत्तिकरम् – न उत्पत्तिकरम्, यत् विकारान् न उत्पादयति (जो विकारों को उत्पन्न न करे)। प्रयुञ्जीत – प्रयोग कुर्यात्, खादेत् (प्रयोग करे, सेवन करे)। फलसेवनम् – फलानाम् भक्षणम् (फलों का सेवन)। स्वास्थ्यरक्षकाणि – आरोग्यस्य कारकाणि (स्वास्थ्य के रक्षक)।

सरलार्थ
शिष्य – हे आचार्य जी, हितभुक्, मितभुक् तथा ऋतुभुक्-इनका क्या अभिप्राय है?
आचार्य – क्या आपने महर्षि चरक का नाम सुना है?
सब शिष्य – जी हाँ! हम जानते हैं। उनके द्वारा ही आयुर्वेद का महान ग्रन्थ ‘चरकसंहिता’ लिखा गया है।
आचार्य – ठीक है। उनका आशय (अभिप्राय) तो वहाँ ही बताया गया है। अब सुनो। हितभुक् कौन होता है? जो हितकारक भोजन करता है। जैसा कि (कहा गया है। जिससे स्वास्थ्य का पालन होता है और जो न पैदा हुए विकारों को (कभी) उत्पन्न नहीं होने देता है। उसे नित्य ही प्रयोग करना चाहिए। अर्थात्-जिसके सेवन से स्वास्थ्य की रक्षा होती है तथा जो उत्पन्न न हुए दोषों को उत्पन्न न करने
वाला है वह भोजन नित्य करना चाहिए।
शिष्य – आचार्य जी! क्या फलों का सेवन हितकर होता है?
आचार्य – हाँ फल स्वास्थ्य के रक्षक ही हैं।

3. एकः शिष्यः-आचार्य! इदं वनं तु बहुफलम्। बुभुक्षा अपि वर्तते। अद्य तु वयं बहुनि फलानि भक्षयिष्यामः।
आचार्यः – मा मैवम्। हितकराः अपि पदार्थाः यदि अतिमात्रं भुज्यन्ते, तदा हानिकराः भवन्ति। पदार्थानां
लघुता गुरुता च मात्रायां निर्भरा। श्रूयताम् –
अल्पादाने गुरूणां च लघूनां चातिसेवने।
मात्रा कारणमुद्दिष्ट, द्रव्याणां गुरुलाघवे॥
शिष्याः – आचार्य! अस्य कः आशयः?
आचार्यः – शृणु! गरिष्ठद्रव्याणि अपि अल्पमात्रया सेवनेन सुपाच्यानि भवन्ति, लघुद्रव्याणि च अतिमात्रं सेवनेन हानिकराणि जायन्ते। अतः मात्रानुसारम् एव खादितव्यम्।
शिष्याः – अथ तावत् ऋतुभुक् इति कः भवति?
आचार्यः – साधु पृष्टम्। कति ऋतवः, जानीथ?

शब्दार्थाः – बहुफलम् – बहुफलयुक्तम् (बहुत फलों से युक्त)। बुभुक्षा – खादितुम् (भक्षयितुम्), इच्छा (भूख, खाने की इच्छा)। वर्तते – विद्यते (लगी है)। भक्षयिष्यामः – भक्षणं करिष्यामः (खाएँगे)। मैवम् – मा एवम् (इस प्रकार ठीक नहीं)। हितकराः – हितं कुर्वन्ति इति ते (हितकारक)। पदार्थाः – वस्तूनि (वस्तुएँ)। अतिमात्रम् – मात्रायाम् अधिकम् (अधिक मात्रा में)। खाद्यन्ते – भुज्यन्ते (खाई जाती हैं)। तदा – तस्मिन् काले (तब)। हानिकराः – हानि कुर्वन्ति इति ते (हानिकारक)। लघुता (लघु + तल्)-शीघ्रपचन योग्यता, सुपाच्यता (खाद्य पदार्थों का हल्कापन)। गुरुता (गुरु + तल)- चिरात् पचनयोग्यता (खाद्य पदार्थों का भारीपन)। गरिष्ठम् – (गुरु + इष्ठन्)-यत् कठिनतया पच्यते तत् भोजनम् (जो कठिनता से पचे, भारी)। अल्पादाने – अल्पमात्रया सेवने (थोड़ी मात्रा में लेने पर)। अतिसेवने – अधिकमात्रया सेवने (अधिक मात्रा में लेने पर)। उद्दिष्टम् -कथितम् (कहा गया है)।

सरलार्थ –
एक शिष्य- आचार्य जी, यह वन तो बहुत फलों वाला है। भूख भी लगी है। आज तो हम बहुत फल खाएँगे।
आचार्य – नहीं, ऐसा (ठीक) नहीं। कल्याण करने वाले पदार्थ भी यदि अधिक मात्रा में खाए जाते हैं तो वे हानि (नुकसान) पहुँचाने वाले होते हैं। पदार्थों की सुपाच्यता तथा दीर्घपाच्यता मात्रा पर निर्भर करती है। सुनिए-‘अल्पादाने गुरूणां च लघूनां चातिसेवने। मात्राकारणमुद्दिष्टं द्रव्याणां गुरुलाघवे।’ अर्थात् भोज्य पदार्थों के भारीपन (गुरुता) तथा हल्केपन (लघुता) में-भारी पदार्थो के कम मात्रा के
सेवन में तथा हल्के पदार्थों के अल्प मात्रा के सेवन में मात्रा को ही कारण माना गया है।
सभी शिष्य – गुरुवर, इसका क्या अभिप्राय है?
आचार्य – सुनो, भारी पदार्थ भी थोड़ी मात्रा में सेवन से सरलता से पचने वाले (सुपाच्य) हो जाते हैं तथा हल्के पदार्थ भी अधिक मात्रा में सेवन से हानिकारक हो जाते हैं। इसलिए मात्रा के अनुसार ही खाना चाहिए।
शिष्यगण – और इसके बाद (बताइए कि) ऋतुभुक् कौन होता है?
आचार्य – ठीक पूछा। कितनी ऋतुएँ हैं, जानते हो?

4. शिष्याः – जानीमः वयम्। ऋतवः षट् –
ग्रीष्मः, वर्षा, शरद, शिशिरः, हेमन्तः, वसन्तः चेति।
आचार्यः – सत्यम् उक्तम्। यदि आहारः ऋतोः अनुसारं न खाद्यते, तस्मादपि स्वास्थ्यस्य हानिः भवति।
यस्याशिताद्यादाहारात्, बलवर्णञ्च वर्धते।
तस्यतुसात्म्यं विदितम्, चेष्टाहारव्यपाश्रयम्॥ (चरकसंहिता सूत्रस्थान 6.3)
शिष्याः – न स्पष्टं भगवन्!
आचार्यः – श्रूयताम! यः पुरुषः आहारविषयकम् ऋतु-सात्म्यं जानाति, तथा आचरति, तस्य अशितं अर्थात् भुक्तं पीतं सर्वमपि बलवर्धकं, वर्णकान्तिजनकं, सुखवर्धकम् आयुवर्धकञ्च भवति। अतः ऋतोः अनुसारं भोक्तव्यम्।
शिष्याः – आचार्य! धन्यवादाः। अस्य विहगस्य स्वरेण नूनम् अस्माकं ज्ञाने वृद्धिः जाता।
आचार्यः – प्रियच्छात्राः! संक्षेपेण स्थास्थ्यस्य रक्षणाय चत्वारि सूत्राणि सर्वदैव स्मर्तव्यानि।

प्रातःकाले व्यायामः, नित्यं दन्तविशोधनम्।
स्वच्छजलेन सुस्नानं, बुभुक्षायाञ्च भोजनम्॥

अतएव अस्माकम् ऋषयः अपि प्रार्थनां कुर्वन्ति स्म –
सर्वे भवन्तु सुखिनः, सर्वे सन्तु निरामयाः।

शब्दार्थाः – उक्तम्-कथितम् (कहा गया है)। यस्य-यस्य भोजकस्य (जिन भोजनकर्ता का)। चेष्टा-आहार-व्यपाश्रयम् = चेष्टा-आहार-विषयकम् (चेष्टा तथा आहार विषयक)। ऋतु-सात्म्यम्-ऋत्वनुसारं सेवनासेवनयोग्यानां खाद्यपेय पदार्थाणां ज्ञानम् (ऋतु के अनुसार सेवनीय तथा असेवनीय खाद्य तथा पेय पदार्थों का ज्ञान)। विदितम्-ज्ञातम् (ज्ञान होता है)। तस्य- तस्य जनस्य (उस व्यक्ति का)। अशिताद्यात्-अशितम्, खादितम्, पीतम् इति (खानपान से)। आहारात्-सेवनात् (सेवन से)। बलवर्णम्-बलं व वर्ण च (बल तथा वर्ण)। वर्धते-वृद्धिं गच्छति (बढ़ता है।)। बलवर्धकम्-बलवृद्धिकरं भोजनादिकम्। वर्णकान्तिजनकम्-वर्णस्य सौन्दर्यस्य उत्पादकम् (रूप-रंग निखारने वाला)। विहगस्य-पक्षिणः (पक्षी के)। सूत्राणि-नियमाः (नियम)। स्मर्तव्यानि-स्मरणीयानि (याद रखने चाहिए)। दन्त-विशोधनम्-दाँतों की भली प्रकार सफाई। निरामयाः-रोगरहिताः (रोगरहित)।

सरलार्थ –
शिष्य – हम जानते हैं। ऋतुएँ छह हैं-ग्रीष्म, वर्षा, शरद, शिशिर, हेमन्त तथा वसन्त।
आचार्य – ठीक बताया है। यदि आहार का सेवन ऋतु के अनुसार न किया जाए तो उससे भी स्वास्थ्य की हानि होती है। जिसकी कार्य पद्धति (चेष्टाएँ), भोजन विषयक् ज्ञान और व्यवहारादि ऋतुओं के अनुसार होते हैं उसके खान-पान आदि से बल व कान्ति (सुन्दरता) आदि बढ़ते हैं।
एक शिष्य – भगवन्, स्पष्ट नहीं हुआ।
आचार्य – तो सुनिए, जो व्यक्ति ऋतुओं के अनुसार खाद्य तथा पेय पदार्थों के सेवनीय तथा असेवनीय ज्ञान
को जानता तथा उसके अनुसार आचरण करता है, उसका सब खाया-पिया बल को बढ़ाने वाला, शरीर के रंग में चमक पैदा करने वाला, सुख और आयु की वृद्धि करने वाला होता है। इसलिए
ऋतु के अनुसार भोजन करना चाहिए।
शिष्य – आचार्य जी, धन्यवाद। इस पक्षी के स्वर से निश्चय ही हमारे ज्ञान में वृद्धि हुई है।
आचार्य – प्रिय छात्रो, संक्षेप में स्वास्थ्य-रक्षा के चार नियम सदा याद रखने चाहिए –
(1) प्रात:कालीन व्यायाम, (2) प्रतिदिन दाँतों की भली प्रकार सफाई, (3) साफ जल से सुन्दर (भरपूर) स्नान तथा (4) भूख लगने पर भोजन।
इसीलिए हमारे ऋषि भी प्रार्थना करते थे-सब सुखी हों, सब निरोग हों।

टिप्पणी – ऋतुसत्म्यम् (ऋतु के अनुसार सेवनीय तथा असेवनीय पदार्थों का ज्ञान) –
1. हेमन्त में स्निग्ध, अम्ल, लवण रस, गोरस (दूध), गन्ने का रस, अरबी, तेल तथा नए चावल का सेवन।
2. शिशिर में कटु, तिक्त तथा वायुकारक व हल्के एवं शीतल अन्नपान का निषेध।
3. वसन्त में वमन कार्य करो। भारी, खट्टे, चिकने व मधुर पदार्थ तथा दिन में सोने का त्याग करें।
4. ग्रीष्म में ठंडे, शर्करायुक्त मट्ठा, जंगल के मृग, पक्षी, घी, दूध, धान आदि का सेवन।
5. वर्षा में पवन आदि कुपित होते हैं अत: सामान्य भोजन करना चाहिए।
6. शरद् ऋतु में मधुर, लघु (हल्के) ठंडे, तिक्त तथा पित्त का शमन करने वाले पदार्थों का सेवन।

व्यायाम – हल्का, सामर्थ्य के अनुसार इससे स्थिरता, दृढ़ता, कष्ट सहने की शक्ति, दोषों का नाश, पाचनशक्ति में वृद्धि होती है।
स्नान – पवित्र, वृत्ति के अनुसार, आयुवर्धक, पसीने व थकावट एवं मलों को नष्ट करने वाला, शरीर के बल को बढ़ाने वाला तथा ओज पैदा करने वाला होता है। उसका भोजन व खानपान बल तथा कान्ति को बढ़ाने वाला होता है जिसकी चेष्टाएँ तथा आहार-विहार ऋतु के साथ तालमेल करके होता है।

ख. अनुप्रयोगस्य-प्रश्नोत्तराणि

1. क. निम्नलिखितानां पदानां शुद्धम् उच्चारणं कुरुत (निम्नलिखित पदों का शुद्ध उच्चारण कीजिए) –
कोऽरुक्, ऋतुसात्म्यम्, प्रयुञ्जीत, गरिष्ठद्रव्याणि, पृष्टम्, बुभुक्षा, स्मर्तव्यानि।
ख. निम्नलिखितानां पदानां अनुलेखं कुरुत (निम्नलिखित पदों के अनुसार लेखनकार्य कीजिए) –
प्रयुञ्जीत, उद्दिष्टम्, ग्रीष्मः, अशिताद्यात्, गुरुलाघवे, अनुत्पत्तिकरम्।

2. पाठात् चित्वा अधोलिखितानां पदानां यथोचितं सन्धिं सन्धि विच्छेदं वा कुरुत –
(पाठ से चुनकर निम्नलिखित पदों में यथोचित सन्धि अथवा सन्धि विच्छेद कीजिए) –
(क) इतस्ततः = ………………………….. + …………………………..
(ख) उत्पत्तिर्न = ………………………….. + …………………………..
(ग) …………. = प्रिय + छात्राः
(घ) क आशयः = ………………………….. + …………………………..
(ङ) …………. = निर् + रोग
उत्तर:
(क) इतः + ततः।
(ख) उत्पत्तिः + न।
(ग) प्रियच्छात्राः।
(घ) कः + आशयः।
(ङ) नीरोगः।

3. अधोलिखितानां वाक्यानां रिक्तस्थानेषु कोष्ठकदत्तैः शब्दैः सह विभक्तिं प्रयुज्य कर्तपदानि पूरयत
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों के रिक्त स्थानों से कोष्ठक से दिए गए शब्दों के साथ विभक्ति का प्रयोग कर कर्तृपद भरिए) –
(क) वृक्षस्थः (पक्षिन्) ………………………….. कोऽरुक् ! कोऽरुक् ! इति रटति स्म।
(ख) (लघुद्रव्य) ………………………….. अतिमात्रं सेवनेन हानि कुर्वन्ति।
(ग) (मितभुज) ……………………………. मात्रानुसारं भोजनं कुर्वन्ति।
(घ) (यत्) ………………………….. हितकर भोजनं खादति, स हितभुक् इति उच्यते।
(ङ) स्वास्थ्यरक्षायै (चतुर्) ………………………….. सूत्राणि महत्त्वपूर्णानि सन्ति।
उत्तर:
(क) पक्षी
(ख) लघुद्रव्याणि
(ग) मितभुजः
(घ) यः
(ङ) चत्वारि।

4. अधोलिखितानां वाक्यानां रिक्तस्थानेषु कोष्ठकदत्तैः धातुभिः उचितरूपं निर्माय क्रियापदानि पूरयत
(निम्नलिखित वाक्यों के रिक्त स्थानों से ‘कोष्ठक में’ दी गई धातुओं से उचित रूप बना कर क्रियापद भरिए) –
(क) किं यूयम् ऋतूणां नामानि (ज्ञा-लट) …………………………..
(ख) विहगः वृक्षस्योपरि (स्था-लङ्) …………………………..
(ग) स्वास्थ्यरक्षार्थं नरः ऋतोः अनुसारं (भुज्-विधिलिङ्) …………………………..
(घ) अद्य शिष्याः बहूनि फलानि (भक्ष्-लुट) …………………………..
उत्तर:
(क) जानीथ
(ख) अतिष्ठत्
(ग) भुञ्जीत
(घ) भक्षयिष्यन्ति।

5. पाठात् चित्वा विग्रहपदानां स्थाने समस्तपदानि, समस्तपदानां स्थाने च विग्रहान् लिखत (पाठ से चुनकर विग्रह पदों के स्थान पर समस्तपद, तथा समस्तपदों के स्थान पर विग्रहपदों को लिखिए) –
(क) बहूनि फलानि सन्ति यस्मिन् …………………………..
(ख) चकितशिष्याः …………………………..
(ग) वृक्षे स्थितः (तस्मिन्) …………………………..
(घ) न रुक् …………………………..
(च) यः हितं भुनक्ति …………………………..
(छ) मात्राम् अनतिक्रम्य …………………………..
उत्तर:
(क) बहुफले
(ख) चकिताः शिष्याः
(ग) वृक्षस्थिते
(घ) अरुक्
(च) हितभुक्
(छ) अतिमात्रम्।

6. कक्षा भागद्वये विभक्ता। एकः चरकवर्गः द्वितीयश्च सुश्रुतवर्गः। चरकवर्गः कर्तृवाच्ये सुश्रुतवर्गः च कर्मवाच्ये वदति। उभयोः वाक्यानां वाच्यपरिवर्तनं लिखत –
(कक्षा दो भागों में विभक्त है। एक चरकवर्ग है दूसरा सुश्रुत वर्ग। चरक वर्ग कर्तृवाच्य में बोलता है, सुश्रुतवर्ग कर्मवाच्य में। दोनों के वाक्यों में वाच्य परिवर्तन करके लिखिए) –


उत्तर:
(क) शिष्यैः एकः विचित्रः शब्दः श्रुतः।
(ख) अद्य वयं बहूनि फलानि भक्षयिष्यामः।
(ग) स्वास्थ्यरक्षार्थ नरेण हितकरः आहारः सेव्येत।
(घ) किं यूयम् ऋतूनां संख्यां जानीथ?
(ङ) अपि भवद्भिः महर्षेः चरकस्य नाम श्रुतम्?
(च) अयं ध्वनिः कुतः आगच्छति?
(छ) सर्वैः सुखिभिः भूयताम्।
(ज) भवान् तु पक्षिणां वाचम् अवगच्छति।

7. निम्नलिखितेषु वाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितानि सर्वनामपदानि कस्य स्थाने प्रयुक्तानि? पाठम् आधृत्य लिखत (निम्नलिखित वाक्यों में रेखांकित सर्वनाम पद किसके स्थान पर प्रयुक्त हुए हैं, पाठ के आधार पर लिखिए) –
(क) वृक्षे एकः विहगः अतिष्ठत् यः पुनः पुनः उच्चैः अरटत्। ………………………….. ।
(ख) जानीमः वयम्। ……………………..।
(ग) तेन लिखिता चरकसंहिता। ……………………..।
(घ) अस्य मूले उपविश्य सर्वं कथयामि। ……………………..।
(ङ) अस्य स्वरेण नूनम् अस्माकं ज्ञाने वृद्धिः जाता। ……………………..।
उत्तर:
(क) विहगः।
(ख) छात्राः।
(ग) महर्षिणा चरकेण।
(घ) वृक्षस्य।
(ङ) पक्षिणः।

8. प्रश्नान् उत्तरत (प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए)
1. विहगः उच्चैः किं रटति स्म?
2. चरकसंहिता कस्य वेदस्य महान् ग्रन्थः?
3. हितकराः अपि पदार्थाः कथं भुक्ताः हानिकाराः भवन्ति?
4. ऋतवः कति सन्ति?
5. यः ऋतु-अनुसारं अश्नाति तस्य आयुः वर्धते वा क्षीयते वा?
6. व्यायामः कदा करणीयः?
7. कुत्र उपविष्टः विहगः उच्चैः रटति स्म?
उत्तर:
1. विहगः कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक् इति उच्चैः रटति स्म।
2. चरकसंहिता आयुर्वेदस्य महान् ग्रन्थः।
3. हितकराः अपि पदार्थाः अतिमात्रम् भुक्ताः हानिकराः भवन्ति।
4. ऋतवः षट् सन्ति (ग्रीष्मः, वर्षा, शरद्, शिशिरः, हेमन्तः, वसन्तः चेति)।
5. यः ऋतु-अनुसारम् अश्नाति तस्य आयुः वर्धते।
6. व्यायामः प्रात:काले करणीयः।
7. वृक्षे उपविष्टः विहगः उच्चैः रटति स्म।

9. अधोलिखितेषु भावार्थयोः रिक्तस्थानपूर्ति कुरुत (अधोलिखित भावार्थों के खाली स्थान भरिए) –
(क) तच्च नित्यं प्रयुञ्जीत, स्वास्थ्यं येनानुवर्तते।
अजातानां विकाराणामनुत्पत्तिकरं च यत्॥
उत्तर:
हितकरभोजनस्य वर्णनं कुर्वन् चरकः कथयति, येन …………….. विहारेण च स्वास्थ्यस्य ………….. भवेत्, न जातानां विकाराणाम् ………….. च न स्यात्, …………… सेवनीयम्। उत्तरम्- हितकरभोजनस्य वर्णनं कुर्वन् चरकः कथयति येन आहारेण विहारेण च स्वास्थ्यस्य रक्षणं भवेत्, न जातानां विकाराणाम् उत्पत्तिः च न स्यात्, तत् सेवनीयम्।

(ख) प्रातःकाले व्यायामः, नित्यं दन्तविशोधनम्।
स्वच्छजलेन सुस्नानं, बुभुक्षायां च भोजनम्॥ अस्मिन् श्लोके स्वास्थ्यरक्षणार्थ चत्वारि …………… वर्णितानि सन्ति यथा यः प्रात:काले …………… नित्यं ……………., स्वच्छजलेन स्नान , ……………. एव भोजनं करोति, स एव स्वस्थ: नीरोगः च भवति।
उत्तर:
अस्मिन् श्लोके स्वास्थ्यरक्षणार्थ चत्वारि सूत्राणि वर्णितानि सन्ति यथा यः प्रात:काले व्यायाम, नित्यं करोति, स्वच्छजलेन स्नानं, बुभुक्षायाम् एव भोजनं करोति, स एव स्वस्थः नीरोगः च भवति।

10. अधोलिखितानां श्लोकानाम् अन्वये रिक्तस्थानपूर्तिः कार्या (निम्नलिखित श्लोकों के अन्वय में खाली स्थान भरिए) –
(क) अल्पादाने गुरूणां च, लघूनां चातिसेवने।
मात्राकारणमुद्दिष्टं, द्रव्याणां गुरुलाघवे॥
………………….. गुरुलाघवे, गुरूणां ……………. च, …………………… अतिसेवने च मात्रा (एव) …………….. उद्दिष्टम्।
उत्तर:
(क) द्रव्याणा, अल्पादाने, लघूनाम्, कारणम्।

(ख) तच्च नित्यं प्रयुञ्जीत, स्वास्थ्यं येनानुवर्तते।
अजातानां विकाराणामनुत्पत्तिकरं च यत्॥
येन ………………….. अनुवर्तते, यत् च ………………….. विकाराणाम् ………………….. (भवेत्), तत् च ………………….. प्रयुञ्जीत।
उत्तर:
स्वास्थ्यम्, अजातानां, अनुत्पत्तिकर, नित्यं।

(ग) तस्याशिताद्यादाहाराद्, बलवर्णञ्च वर्धते।
तस्यर्तुसात्म्यं विदितं, चेष्टाहारव्यपाश्रयम्॥
तस्य ………………….. व्यपाश्रयम् ………………….. विदितं, तस्य ………………….. आद्यात् आहारात् …………. च वर्धते।
उत्तर:
चेष्टाहार, ऋतुसात्म्यं अशित, बलवर्ण।

11. मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तेभ्यः कथनेभ्यः स्वास्थ्यरक्षणार्थ ‘किं कर्तव्यं किं च न कर्तव्यम्’ इति पृथक् स्तम्भेषु लिखत
(मञ्जूषा में दिए गए कथनों से स्वास्थ्य रक्षा के लिए क्या करना चाहिए क्या नहीं करना चाहिए पृथक्-पृथक् स्तम्भों में लिखिए)

उत्तर:

ग. पाठ-विकासः

समानान्तरसूक्तयः
1. आहारविषये
आयुः सत्त्वबलारोग्य-सुखप्रीतिविवर्धनाः।
रस्याः स्निग्धाः स्थिराः हृद्याः, आहाराः सात्त्विकप्रियाः॥ (भगवद्गीता 17.8)
(आयु, शक्ति, बल, स्वास्थ्य, सूख तथा प्रीति बढ़ाने वाले, रसदार, चिकने, ठोस तथा रुचिकर पदार्थ सात्त्विक आहार होते हैं।) आहारशुद्धौ सत्त्वशुद्धिः, सत्त्वशुद्धौ ध्रुवा स्मृतिः। (छान्दोग्योपनिषद् 7/26/2)

2. मात्राविषये
भोजनं प्राणरक्षार्थ विद्यते नात्र संशयः।
अधिकं हानये तस्मात् युक्ताहारपरो भवेत्॥ (चरकसंहिता व्याख्या)
(भोजन प्राणरक्षा हेतु है, इसमें सन्देह नहीं, अधिक भोजन हानिकारक है अतः यथायोग्य आहार सेवन करें।)
अनारोग्यमनायुष्यमस्वयं चातिभोजनम्।
अपुण्यं लोकविद्विष्टं तस्मात्तत्परिवर्जयेत्॥ (मनुस्मृति: 2/57)
(अतिभोजन न स्वास्थ्य, न आयु तथा न स्वर्ग, न पुण्य को देता है बल्कि लोगों से शत्रुता कराता है-अतः उसका त्याग करें)।
‘मिताहारो नरः सोढुं, शक्तः कष्ट-शतं सुखम्।
अनभ्यस्तो हि कष्टानामध्यशनो विपद्यते॥ (सुमनोवाटिका)
(कम खाने वाला नर सौ कष्टों को भी सहन कर लेता है। अधिक खाने वाला कष्टों को न सहन करता हुआ विपत्ति में ग्रस्त रहता है।)
भोजनं परमेशस्य, भक्तये जीवनाय च।
त्वं तु मूर्ख विजानासि, भोजनार्थ हि जीवनम्॥ (सुमनोवाटिका)
(भोजन परमेश्वर की भक्ति के लिए तथा जीवन के लिए होता है। हे मूर्ख, तुम तो यही ठीक समझते हो कि जीवन भोजन के लिए है।)

घ. पठितांश-अवबोधनम् |

1. अधोलिखितं संवादं (नाट्यांशं) पठित्वा प्रश्नान् उत्तरत।
आचार्यः – शिष्याः! शृणुत! एषः विहगः वदति ‘कोऽरुक् कोऽरुक्’ इति! अर्थात् कः अरुक्? कस्तावत् स्वस्थ: नीरोग: वा?
शिष्यः – आचार्य। तदा कः स्वस्थः?
आचार्यः – यः हितभुक्, मितभुक, ऋतुभुक् च भवति स एव सर्वदा स्वस्थः।
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) ‘कोऽरुक् कोऽरुक्’ इति कः वदति?
(ii) आचार्य: केन संवादं करोति?
(iii) ‘कः स्वस्थः’ इति कः पृच्छति?
(iv) विहगः किं वदति?
उत्तर:
(i) विहगः
(ii) शिष्येन
(iii) शिष्यः
(iv) कोऽरुक्।

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत
स्वस्थः कः?
उत्तर:
यः हितभुक्, मितभुक्, ऋतुभुक् च भवति स एव स्वस्थः।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत –
(i) ‘कोऽरुक्’ अत्र सन्धिच्छेदं कुरुत।
(क) कः + अरुक्
(ख) को + अरुक्
(ग) कः + रुक्
(घ) को + रुक्
उत्तर:
(क) कः + अरुक्

(ii) ‘नाट्यांशे ‘पक्षी’ पदस्य कः पर्यायः वर्तते?
(क) विहगः
(ख) खगः
(ग) पतंगः
(घ) पक्षगः
उत्तर:
(क) विहगः

(iii) ‘वदति’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) एषः
(ख) कोऽरुक
(ग) विहगः
(घ) शिष्याः
उत्तर:
(ग) विहगः

(iv) ‘अस्वस्थः’ पदस्य कः विपर्ययः अत्र लिखितः?
(क) स्वस्थः
(ख) रुक्
(ग) को
(घ) नीरोगः
उत्तर:
((क) स्वस्थः

2. शिष्याः – आचार्य! अस्य कः आशयः?
आचार्यः – शृणु! गरिष्ठद्रव्याणि अपि अल्पमात्रया सेवनेन सुपाच्यानि भवन्ति, लघुद्रव्याणि च अतिमात्रं सेवनेन हानिकराणि जायन्ते। अतः मात्रानुसारम् एव खादितव्यम्।
शिष्याः – अथ तावत् ऋतुभुक् इति कः भवति?
आचार्यः – साधु पृष्टम्। कति ऋतवः, जानीथ?

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत
(i) अल्पमात्रया सेवनेन कीदृशम् अपि द्रव्यं सुपाच्यं भवति?
(ii) गरिष्ठद्रव्याणि कथं सेवनेन सुपाच्यानि भवन्ति?
(iii) कियत् खादितव्यम्?
(iv) अतिमात्र सेवनेन किं हानिकरम्?
उत्तर:
(i) गरिष्ठद्रव्यम्
(ii) अल्पमात्रया
(iii) मात्रानुसारम्
(ii) लघुद्रव्यम्।

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
आचार्यः शिष्यान् किं पृच्छति?
उत्तर:
आचार्यः शिष्यान् पृच्छति-‘कति ऋतवः’? इति।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत –
(i) ‘भवति’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) इति
(ख) ऋतभुक्
(ग) तावत्
(घ) कः
उत्तर:
(घ) कः

(ii) अन्तिमे वाक्ये अव्यय पदं किम् वर्तते?
(क) पृष्टम्
(ख) कति
(ग) ऋतवः
(घ) जानीथ
उत्तर:
(ख) कति

(iii) ‘लाभकराणि’ इति पदस्य विपर्ययपदं किम्?
(क) हानिकराणि
(ख) हानि
(ग) मात्रानुसारम्
(घ) सुखकारी
उत्तर:
(क) हानिकराणि

(iv) अतः मात्रानुसारम् एव खादितव्यम्। अत्र क्रियापदं किम्? (क) एव
(ख) खादितव्यम्
(ग) अतः
(घ) मात्रानुसारम्:
उत्तर:
(ख) खादितव्यम्

3. आचार्य – श्रूयताम्! यः पुरुषः आहारविषयकम् ऋतुसात्म्यं जानाति तथा आचरति तस्य अशितं अर्थात् भुक्तं पीतं सर्वमपि बलवर्धकं, वर्णकान्तिजनकं, सुखवर्धकम्, आयुवर्धकञ्च भवति अतः ऋतोः अनुसारं भोक्तव्यम्।
शिष्यः – आचार्य! धन्यवादाः। अस्य विहगस्य स्वरेण नूनम् अस्माकम् ज्ञाने वृद्धिः जाता।
आचार्यः – प्रियच्छात्राः! संक्षेपेण स्वास्थ्य-रक्षणाय चत्वारि सूत्राणि सर्वदैव स्मर्तव्यानि।
प्रातःकाले व्यायामः नित्यं दन्तविशोधनम्।
स्वच्छजलेन सुस्नानं, बुभुक्षायाञ्च भोजनम्॥

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत
(i) ‘भुक्तं पीतं सर्व’ इति केन पदेन कथ्यते?
(ii) कस्य अनुसारं भोक्तव्यम्?
(iii) कस्य स्वरेण शिष्याणां ज्ञानवृद्धिः जाता?
(iv) स्वास्थ्यस्य कति सूत्राणि नित्यं स्मर्तव्यानि?
उत्तर:
(i) अशितम्
(ii) ऋतोः
(iii) विहगस्य
(iv) चत्वारि

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत
कस्य अशितम् आयुवर्धकं भवति?
उत्तर:
यः पुरुषः आहारविषयकम् ऋतु-सात्म्यं जानाति तथा आचरति तस्य अशितम् आयुवर्धकम् भवति।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत
(i) ‘आहारविषयकम्’ इति पदस्य कः विशेण्यः अस्ति?
(क) ऋतुसात्म्यम्
(ख) अशितम्
(ग) बलवर्धकम्
(घ) भुक्तम्
उत्तर:
(क) ऋतुसात्म्यम्

(ii) ‘अस्य विहगस्य स्वरेण अस्माकं ज्ञाने वृद्धिः जाता’ अस्मिन् वाक्ये किं कर्तृपदम् अस्ति?
(क) ज्ञाने
(ख) वृद्धिः जाता
(ग) अस्य
(घ) स्वरेण
उत्तर:
(ख) वृद्धिः जाता

(iii) ‘ज्ञानवृद्धिः’ अस्य स्थाने पाठे किं पदद्वयं प्रयुक्तम् अस्ति?
(क) ज्ञानस्य वृद्धिः
(ख) ज्ञानाय वृद्धिः
(ग) ज्ञाने वृद्धिः
(घ) ज्ञानम् वृद्धिः
उत्तर:
(ग) ज्ञाने वृद्धिः

(iv) ‘चत्वारि सूत्राणि सर्वदैव स्मर्तव्यानि’ अत्र क्रियापदं किम्?
(क) स्मर्तव्यानि
(ख) सर्वदैव
(ग) सूत्राणि
(घ) चत्वारि
उत्तर:
(क) स्मर्तव्यानि।

4. शिष्य – आचार्य! ‘हितभुक्, मितभुक्, ऋतुभुक्’ इति एतेषां कः आशयः?
आचार्यः – अपि भवद्भिः महर्षेः चरकस्य नाम श्रुतम्?
सर्वे शिष्या-आम्। जानीमः। तेन एव लिखिता ‘चरकसंहिता’ इति आयुर्वेदस्य महान् ग्रन्थः।
आचार्यः – शोभनम्। एतेषाम् आशयः तु तत्रैव वर्तते! अधुना शृणुत-हितभुक् कः? यः हितकरं भुङ्क्ते। यथा हि –
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत
(i) आयुर्वेदस्य ग्रन्थः कोऽस्ति?
(ii) चरक संहिता कीदृशो ग्रन्थः वर्तते?
(iii) चरक संहिता केन रचिता?
(iv) शिष्यस्य प्रश्नस्य उत्तरं को यच्छति?
उत्तर:
(i) चरकसंहिता
(ii) महान्
(iii) महर्षि-चरकेण
(iv) आचार्यः

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत
हितभुक् को भवति?
उत्तर:
यः हितकरं भुङ्क्ते सः एव हितभुक् भवति।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत
(i) ‘नाट्यांशे ‘श्रुतम्’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) अपि
(ख) महर्षेः
(ग) भवद्भिः
(घ) नाम
उत्तर:
(ग) भवद्भिः

(ii) ‘महान् ग्रन्थः’ अनयोः पदयोः विशेष्यः कः?
(क) ग्रन्थ
(ख) ग्रन्थः
(ग) महान्
(घ) महत्
उत्तर:
(ख) ग्रन्थः

(iii) ‘यः हितकरं भुक्ते’। अत्र क्रियापदं किम्?
(क) भुङ्क्ते
(ख) यः
(ग) हितकरः
(घ) हितकरम्
उत्तर:
(क) भुङ्क्ते

(iv) ‘तेन एव लिखिता’। अत्र ‘तेन’ सर्वनाम पदं कस्मै प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) खगाय
(ख) विहगाय
(ग) महर्षिणा
(घ) महर्षि चरकाय
उत्तर:
(घ) महर्षि चरकाय

5. अर्थात् यस्य आहारस्य सेवनेन स्वास्थ्यस्य रक्षणं भवेत्, न जातानाम् अनुत्पन्नानां विकाराणाम् उत्पत्तिः न भवेत्, स एव आहारः सेवनीयः।
शिष्याः – आचार्य! किं फलसेवनं “हितकरम्”?
आचार्यः – आम्! फलानि स्वास्थ्यरक्षकाणि एव।

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) कः सेवनीयः एव?
(ii) फलानि कीदृशाणि भवन्ति?
(iii) फलसेवनं कीदृशं भवति?
(iv) कस्य सेवनेन स्वास्थ्यस्य रक्षणं भवति?
उत्तर:
(i) आहारः
(ii) स्वास्थ्य रक्षकाणि
(iii) हितकरम्
(iv) आहारस्य

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत
कीदृशः आहारः सेवनीयः?
उत्तर:
यस्य आहारस्य सेवनेन स्वास्थ्यस्य रक्षणं भवेत्, न जातानाम् अनुत्पन्नानाम् विकारणाम् उत्पत्तिः न भवेत्, स एव आहारः सेवनीयः।

III. निर्देशानुसारैण उत्तरत –
(i) ‘स एव आहारः सेवनीयः’। अत्र क्रियापदं किम्?
(क) सेवनीयः
(ख) एव
(ग) स
(घ) आहारः
उत्तर:
(i) (क) सेवनीयः

(ii) ‘अनुत्पन्नानां विकाराणाम्’ अनयोः पदयोः विशेषणपदं किम्?
(क) विकाराः
(ख) विकाराणाम्
(ग) अनुत्पन्नानाम्
(घ) अनुत्पन्नाः
उत्तर:
(ग) अनुत्पन्नानाम्

(iii) ‘लाभकरम्’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः अत्र लिखित:?
(क) सुखकरम्
(ख) हितकरम्
(ग) कष्टकरम्
(घ) दु:खकरम्
उत्तर:
(ख) हितकरम्
(iv) ‘भक्षकाणि’ इत्यस्य पदस्य विपर्ययपदं चिनुत।
(क) उत्पत्तिः
(ख) हितकराणि
(ग) खादनीयानि
(घ) रक्षकाणि
उत्तर:
(घ) रक्षकाणि

6. एकः शिष्यः -आचार्य! इदं वनं तु बहुफलम्। बुभुक्षा अपि वर्तते। अद्य तु वयं बहूनि फलानि भक्षयिष्यामः।
आचार्यः – मा मैवम्। हितकराः अपि पदार्थाः यदि अतिमात्रं भुज्यन्ते, तदा हानिकराः भवन्ति। पदार्थानां लघुता गुरुता च मात्रायां निर्भरा। श्रूयताम्।
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) वनं कीदृशम् वर्तते?
(ii) पदार्थानां लघुता गुरुता च कस्यां निर्भरा अस्ति?
(iii) अद्य शिष्याः कति फलानि भक्षयिष्यन्ति?
(iv) शिष्यं किं वर्तते?
उत्तर:
(i) बहुफलम्
(ii) मात्रायाम्
(iii) बहूनि
(iv) बुभुक्षा

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत
पदार्थाः कदा हानिकराः भवन्ति?
उत्तर:
यदि हितकराः अपि पदार्थाः अतिमात्रं भुज्यन्ते तदा पदार्थाः हानिकराः भवन्ति।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत
(i) नाट्यांशे ‘वनम्’ इत्यस्य विशेष्यस्य विशेषणं किम्?
(क) इदम्
(ख) तु
(ग) बहुफलम्
(घ) बहु
उत्तर:
(ग) बहुफलम्

(ii) नाट्यांशे ‘वर्तते’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) लघुता
(ख) बुभुक्षा
(ग) अपि
(घ) गुरुता
उत्तर:
(ख) बुभुक्षा

(iii) नाट्यांशे ‘लाभकराः’ इति पदस्य कः विपर्ययः लिखित:?
(क) हानिकराः
(ख) दु:खकराः
(ग) सुखकराः
(घ) ज्ञानकराः
उत्तर:
(क) हानिकराः

(iv) नाट्यांशे ‘अद्य तु वयं बहूनि फलानि भक्षयिष्यामः’। अत्र क्रियापदं किम्?
(क) फलानि
(ख) अद्य
(ग) वयम्
(घ) भक्षयिष्यामः
उत्तर:
(घ) भक्षयिष्यामः

शिष्याः – जानीमः वयम्। ऋतवः षट् –
ग्रीष्मः, वर्षा, शरद्, शिशिरः, हेमन्तः, वसन्तः चेति।
आचार्यः – सत्यम् उक्तम्। यदि आहारः ऋतोः अनुसारं न खाद्यते, तस्मादपि स्वास्थ्यस्य हानिः भवति।
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) ऋतवः कति भवन्ति?
(ii) अन्तिमः ऋतुः कः?
(iii) ऋतोः अनुसारं किं खादितव्यम्?
(iv) आचार्येण किम् उक्तम्?
उत्तर:
(i) षट्
(ii) वसन्तः
(iii) आहारः
(iv) सत्यम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
कस्मात् स्वास्थ्यस्य हानिः भवति?
उत्तर:
यदि आहारः ऋतोः अनुसारं न खाद्यते, तस्मादपि स्वास्थ्यस्य हानिः भवति।

III. निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत –
(i) ‘भवति’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) तस्मात्
(ख) तस्मादपि
(ग) हानिः
(घ) स्वास्थ्यस्य
उत्तर:
(ग) हानिः

(ii) ‘ऋतवः’ पदस्य विशेषणम् अस्ति –
(क) षट्
(ख) वयम्
(ग) जानीमः
(घ) चेति
उत्तर:
(क) षट्

(iii) नाट्यांशे ‘वयम्’ सर्वनाम पदं केभ्यः प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) आचार्याय
(ख) जनाय
(ग) शिष्याय
(घ) शिष्येभ्यः
उत्तर:
(घ) शिष्येभ्यः

(iv) नाट्यांशे ‘लाभः’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः विपर्ययः लिखित:?
(क) हानिः
(ख) अलाभः
(ग) लाभकरः
(घ) हानिकरः
उत्तर:
(क) हानिः

2. निम्नलिखितम् अनुच्छेदं पठित्वा तदाधारितान् प्रश्नान् उत्तरत –
एकं वनम्। केचन शिष्या: गुरुः च वने विचरन्ति स्म। सहसा तत्र विचित्रः शब्दः श्रुतः-“कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्”, इति। चकिताः शिष्याः इतस्ततः पश्यन्ति। ‘अये! विचित्रः खलु अयं ध्वनिः कुतः आयाति? इति चिन्तयन्ति। तदैव एकस्य शिष्यस्य दृष्टिः वृक्षस्थे विहगे अपतत्। सः पुनः पुनः रटति स्म ‘कोऽरुक् कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्’ इति। विस्मितः शिष्यः आचार्य पृच्छति-गुरुवर! अयं किं वदति? आचार्यः
अकथयत्-शोभनम् पृष्टम् कथयिष्यामि। अस्य वृक्षस्य अधः उपविशन्तु! सर्व कथयामि। (सर्वे उपविशन्ति)

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) केचन शिष्याः कुत्र विचरन्ति स्म?
(ii) विहगः किं रटति स्म?
(iii) सर्वैः कस्य अधः उपविशन्ति?
(iv) सर्वैः कीदृशः शब्दः श्रुतः?
उत्तर:
(i) वने
(ii) कोऽरुक्
(iii) वृक्षस्य
(iv) विचित्रः

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
चकिताः शिष्याः किं चिन्तयन्ति?
उत्तर:
चकिताः शिष्याः चिन्तयन्ति-‘अये! विचित्रः खलु अयं ध्वनिः कुतः आयाति?’

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत –
(i) ‘चकिताः शिष्याः इतस्ततः पश्यन्ति।’ अस्मिन् वाक्ये कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) चकिताः
(ख) इतस्ततः
(ग) शिष्याः
(घ) पश्यन्ति
उत्तर:
(ग) शिष्याः

(ii) ‘विचित्रः शब्दः’ अनयोः पदयोः विशेषणपदं किम्?
(क) विचित्रः
(ख) शब्दः
(ग) विचित्र
(घ) शब्द
उत्तर:
(क) विचित्रः

(iii) अनुच्छेदे ‘गुरवः’ इति पदस्य कः विपर्ययः आगतः?
(क) चकिताः
(ख) शिष्याः
(ग) अध्यापकाः
(घ) केचन
उत्तर:
(ख) शिष्याः

(iv) ‘स पुनः पुनः रटति स्म।’ अत्र ‘स’ पदं कस्मै प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) शिष्याय
(ख) गुरवे
(ग) आचार्याय
(घ) विहगाय
उत्तर:
(घ) विहगाय

3. निम्न श्लोकं पठित्वा तदाधारितानां प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि लिखत –
तच्च नित्यं प्रयुञ्जीत, स्वास्थ्यं येनानुवर्तते।
अजातानां विकाराणामनुत्पत्तिकरं च यत्॥

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत
(i) भोजनं कदा प्रयुञ्जीत?
(ii) विकाराः कीदृशाः भवन्ति?
(iii) भोजनेन केषाम् उत्पत्तिः भवति?
(iv) उत्तमं भोजनं विकाराणां हेतुः कीदृशं भवति?
उत्तर:
(i) नित्यम्
(ii) अजाताः
(iii) विकाराणाम्
(iv) अनुत्पत्तिकरम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत
कीदृशं भोजनं नित्यं प्रयुञ्जीत?
उत्तर:
येन स्वास्थ्यम् अनुवर्तते तादृशं भोजनं नित्यं प्रयुञ्जीत।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत
(i) ‘तच्च नित्यं प्रयुञ्जीत’। अत्र क्रिया पदं किं वर्तते?
(क) तच्च
(ख) प्रयुञ्जीत
(ग) नित्यम्
(घ) तत्
उत्तर:
(ख) प्रयुञ्जीत

(ii) श्लोके ‘अनुवर्तते’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) येन
(ख) स्वास्थ्यम्
(ग) येना
(घ) स्वास्थ्यः
उत्तर:
(ख) स्वास्थ्यम्

(iii) श्लोके ‘विकारणाम्’ विशेष्यस्य विशेषणपदं किं वर्तते?
(क) अजातः
(ख) अनुत्पत्तिकरम्
(ग) यत्
(घ) अजातानाम्
उत्तर:
(घ) अजातानाम्

(iv) ‘उत्त्पत्तिकरम्’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः विपर्ययः श्लोके लिखितः?
(क) अनुत्पत्तिकरम्
(ख) उत्पत्तिः
(ग) अनुत्पतिः
(घ) अनुत्पत्तिकरः
उत्तर:
(क) अनुत्पत्तिकरम्

2. गुरुता च मात्रायां निर्भरा। श्रूयताम् –
अल्पादाने गुरूणां च लघूनां चातिसेवने।
मात्रा कारणमुद्दिष्ट, द्रव्याणां गुरुलाघवे॥
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत
(i) केषां पदार्थाणाम् अल्पादानं कर्तव्यम्?
(ii) केषाम् अतिसेवनं न कुर्यात्?
(iii) पदार्थाः कतिधाः भवन्ति?
(iv) पदार्थाणां सेवने किं कारणम् उद्दिष्टम्
उत्तर:
(i) गुरूणाम्
(ii) लघूनाम्
(iii) द्विधाः
(iv) मात्रा

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत
कस्मिन् मात्रा एव कारणम् उद्दिष्टम् वर्तते?
उत्तर:
द्रव्याणां गुरूलधूवे-गुरूणाम् अल्पादाने लघूनां च अतिसेवने मात्रा एव कारणम् उद्दिष्टम् वर्तते।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत
(i) ‘लघूनाम्’ इत्यस्य पदस्य क: विपर्ययः श्लोके लिखित:? .
(क) साधूनाम्
(ख) दीर्घाणाम्
(ग) जनानाम्:
(घ) गुरूणाम्
उत्तर:
(घ) गुरूणाम्

(ii) ‘न्यून’ पदस्य कः पर्यायः अत्र आगतः?
(क) अल्प
(ख) अल्पा
(ग) दाने
(घ) अल्पादाने
उत्तर:
(क) अल्प

(iii) श्लोके ‘उद्दिष्टम्’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) एव
(ख) कारणम्
(ग) मात्रा
(घ) मात्रः
उत्तर:
(ग) मात्रा

(iv) श्लोके ‘द्रव्याणाम्’ इति विशेष्यपदस्य किं विशेषणं लिखितम्?
(क) गुरूणाम्
(ख) अल्पादाने
(ग) अतिसेवने
(घ) उद्दिष्टम्
उत्तर:
(क) गुरूणाम्

3. यस्याशिताद्यादाहारात्, बलवर्णञ्च वर्धते।
तस्यर्तुसात्म्यं विदितम्, चेष्टाहारव्यपाश्रयम्॥ (चरकसंहिता सूत्रस्थान 6.3)

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत
(i) आहारात् किं वर्धते?
(ii) कस्य ऋतुसात्म्यं विदितम्?
(iii) कस्य व्यपाश्रयं भवेत्?
(iv) आहारस्य व्यपाश्रयं कस्य सात्म्यं विदितं वर्तते?
उत्तर:
(i) बलवर्णम्
(ii) चेष्टा-आहारव्यपाश्रयस्य
(iii) आहारस्य
(iv) ऋतोः

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत
कथं जनानाम् बलवर्णञ्च वर्धते?
उत्तर:
चेष्टा-आहार-व्यपाश्रयेण ऋतु-सात्म्येन च आशित-आहारात् जनानां बलवर्णञ्च वर्धते।

III. निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत
(i) श्लोके ‘वर्धते’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) विदितम्
(ख) बलवर्णञ्च
(ग) बलम्
(घ) वर्णम्
उत्तर:
(ख) बलवर्णञ्च

(ii) ‘भोजनात्’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः श्लोके आगत:?
(क) आहारात्
(ख) आद्यात्
(ग) अशिताद्यात्
(घ) अन्नात्
उत्तर:
(क) आहारात्

(iii) ‘यस्याशिताद्याहारात्’ अस्मिन् ‘यस्य’ पदं कस्मै प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) भोजनाय
(ख) भुक्तजनाय
(ग) बलाय
(घ) वर्णाय
उत्तर:
(ख) भुक्तजनाय

(iv) ‘अशिताद्यात् आहारात्’ इत्यनयोः पदयोः विशेष्यपदं किम्?
(क) अशित
(ख) आद्यात्
(ग) आहारात्
(घ) अशिताद्यात्
उत्तर:
(ग) आहारात्

4. प्रातःकाले व्यायामः, नित्यं दन्तविशोधनम्।
स्वच्छजलेन सुस्नानं, बुभुक्षायाञ्च भोजनम्॥
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत
(i) व्यायामः कदा करणीयः?
(ii) नित्यं किं कर्तव्यम्?
(iii) सुस्नानं केन भवति?
(iv) दन्तविशोधनम् कदा करणीयम्?
उत्तर:
(i) प्रात:काले
(ii) दन्तविशोधनम्
(iii) स्वच्छजलेन
(iv) नित्यम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत
भोजनं कदा लाभप्रदं भवति?
उत्तर:
भोजनं बुभुक्षायाम् एव लाभप्रदं भवति।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत
(i) ‘सायम्’ इति पदस्य कः विपर्ययः आगतः?
(क) प्रातः
(ख) प्रभाते
(ग) काले
(घ) मध्याह्ने
उत्तर:
(क) प्रातः

(ii) ‘दन्तधावनम्’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः श्लोके प्रयुक्तः अस्ति?
(क) विशोधनम्
(ख) दन्तशोधनम्
(ग) दन्तविशोधनम्
(घ) दन्तुलम्
उत्तर:
(ख) दन्तविशोधनम्

(iii) बुभुक्षायाञ्च भोजनम्। अत्र कः अव्ययः वर्तते?
(क) च
(ख) बुभुक्षा
(ग) भोजनम्
(घ) बुभुक्षायाम्
उत्तर:
(क) च

(iv) स्वास्थ्यस्य रक्षणाय कति सूत्राणि स्मर्तव्यानि?
(क) त्रीणि
(ख) द्वि
(ग) षट
(घ) चत्वारि
उत्तर:
(घ) चत्वारि

4. I. इदं वाक्यं कः कम् कथयति
1. गुरुवर! अयं किं वदति?
2. एषः विहगः वदति ‘कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्’ इति।
3. यः हितभुक्, मितभुक् ऋतभुक् च भवति स एव सर्वदा स्वस्थः।
4. तेन एव ‘चरक संहिता’ इति महान् ग्रन्थः लिखितः।
5. यः हितकरं भुक्ते सः हितकरः।
6. फलानि स्वास्थ्यरक्षकाणि एव।
7. अद्य वयं तु बहूनि फलानि भक्षयिष्यामः।
8. गरिष्ठ द्रव्याणि अपि अल्पमात्रया सेवनेन सुपाच्यानि भवन्ति।
9. अस्य विहगस्य स्वरेण नूनम् अस्माकं ज्ञाने वृद्धिः जाता।
उत्तर:

II. निम्न पतेः सन्दर्भ ग्रन्थस्य लेखकस्य च नामनी लिखत
(i) एषः विहगः वदति ‘कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्’ इति।
(ii) यः हितभुक् मित्भुक् ऋतुभुक् च भवति स सर्वदा स्वस्थः।
(iii) तच्च नित्यं प्रयुञ्जीत, स्वास्थ्यं येनानुवर्तते।
(iv) फलानि स्वास्थ्यरक्षकाणि एव।
(v) पदार्थानां लघुता गुरुता च मात्रायां निर्भरा।
(vi) गरिष्ठद्रव्याणि अपि अल्पमात्रया सेवनेन सुपाच्यानि भवन्ति।
(vii) सर्वे भवन्तु सुखिनः, सर्वे सन्तु निरामयाः।।
उत्तर:

5. निम्नलिखितं वाक्यं श्लोकं वा पठित्वा तस्य भावम् मञ्जूषायाः समुचितैः पदैः संपूरयत –
I. यः हितभुक्, मितभुक् ऋतुभुक् च भवति स एव सर्वदा स्वस्थः।
अस्य भावोऽस्ति- यः जना सदैव (i) …………. भोजनं खादति, सीमित मात्रायां अथवा (ii) ………… भोजनं करोति ऋतूणाम् अनुकूलं (iii) ………….. करोति, कदापि ऋतूणां विपरीतं किञ्चिदपि न
(iv) …………….. स जनः स्वस्थजीवनं जीवति।
मञ्जूषा- पथ्यम्, हितकर, खादति, मितम् |
उत्तर:
(i) हितकरं
(ii) मितम्
(iii) हितकरं
(iv) खादति।

II. अल्पादाने गुरूणां च लघूनां चातिसेवने।
मात्रा कारणमुद्दिष्टं, द्रव्याणां गुरुलघवे॥
अर्थात्- सदैव पदार्थानां सेवनं (i) ………… एव कर्तव्यम्। यत गुरूणां पदार्थानाम् अपि (ii) …………. लाभकरं भवति परं लघूनां सुपाच्यानाम् च पदार्थानां अतीव सेवनं (iii) ………….. वर्तते अतः द्रव्याणां लघवे गुरवे वा सदैव तेषाम् (iv) ………….. एवं प्रमुखं कारणं वर्तते। अनेन सदैव वस्तूनां सेवनं विवेकेन सह एव कर्तव्यम्।
मञ्जूषा- मात्रा, अल्पसेवनं, हानिकर, विवेकेन
उत्तर:
(i) विवेकेन
(ii) अल्पसेवनं
(iii) हानिकरं
(iv) मात्रा।

III. यस्यशिताद्यादाहारात्, बलवर्णञ्च वर्धते।
तस्यर्तुसात्म्यं विदितम्, चेष्टाहारव्यपाश्रयम्॥
अस्य भावो वर्तते यत् यस्य मनुष्ययस्य (i) ………….. चेष्टाः भोजनादि विषयकं (ii) …………. व्यवहारादयः (iii) …………. अनुकूलं भवन्ति। तस्य शरीरस्य बलम् वर्णम् च (iv) ………….. वर्धन्ते। अतः जनैः स्व कार्यणि, चेष्टाः, भोजनादयः ऋतूणाम् अनुसारमेव कर्तव्यम्।
मञ्जूषा- ऋतूणाम्, कार्यपद्धतिः, भोजनादिभ्यः, ज्ञानम् |
उत्तर:
(i) कार्यपद्धतिः
(ii) ज्ञानम्
(iii) ऋतूणाम्
(iv) भोजनादिभ्यः

IV. सर्वे भवन्तु सुखिनः सर्वे सन्तु निरामयाः। अर्थात्
प्राचीन काले अस्माकं (i) ………….. सदैव ईश-प्रार्थनां कुर्वन्ति स्म-प्रभो! अस्मिन् (ii) ………….. सर्वे जनाः सदा सुखयुक्ताः (iii) …………. एवमेव सर्वे जनाः सदैव (iv) ………….. भवेयुः। कश्चिदपि कदापि दुःखयुक्तः रुग्णः च न भवेत्।
मञ्जूषा- | भवेयुः, स्वस्थाः, ऋषयः, संसारे |
उत्तर:
(i) ऋषयः
(ii) संसारे
(iii) भवेयुः
(iv) स्वस्थाः

6. निम्नलिखितं श्लोकं पठित्वा तस्य अन्वयं रिक्त स्थानेषु पूर्यताम् –

1. तच्च नित्यं प्रयुञ्जीत, स्वास्थ्यं येनानुवर्तते।
अजातानां विकाराणा मनुत्पत्तिकरं च यत्॥
अन्वयः
येन (i) ……………… अनुवर्तते यत् च (ii) ……………..विकारणाम् (iii) …………….. तत् च (iv) …………….. प्रयुञ्जीत।
उत्तर:
(i) स्वास्थ्यम्
(ii) अजातानाम्
(iii) अनुत्पत्तिकरं
(iv) नित्यम्।

2. अल्पादाने गुरूणां च लघूनां चातिसेवने।
मात्रा कारणमुििदष्टं, द्रव्याणां गुरुलघवे॥
अन्वयः
द्रव्याणां (i) …………….. गुरूणाम् अल्पादाने (ii) ………………… च (iii) ………….. मात्रा एवं (iv) …………….. उद्दिष्टम्।
उत्तर:
(i) गुरुलघवे
(ii) लघूनाम्
(iii) अतिसेवने
(iv) कारणम्।

3. यस्याशिताद्यादाहारात्, बलवर्णञ्च वर्धते।
तस्यतु सात्म्यं विदितम्, चेष्टाहार व्यपाश्रयम्॥
अन्वयः
यस्य चेष्टा (i) …………….. व्यपाश्रयम् ऋतु (ii) ………. विदितम् तस्य अशित (iii) ………… आहारात् (iv)…….. च वर्धते।
उत्तर:
(i) आहार
(ii) सात्म्य म्
(iii) आद्यात्
(iv) बलवर्णम्

4. प्रातःकाले व्यायामः, नित्यं दन्तविशोधनम्।
स्वच्छजलेन सुस्नानं, बुभुक्षायाञ्च भोजनम्॥
अन्वयः
प्रात:काले (i) …………… नित्यं दन्त (ii) ……………. स्वच्छजलेन (iii) ………….. (iv)………….. च भोजनम् (हितकरं भवति)।
उत्तर:
(i) व्यायामः
(ii) विशोधनम्
(iii) सुस्नानं
(iv) बुभुक्षायाम्

7. निम्नवाक्यानि पठित्वा तानि कथायाः अनुसारेण क्रमबद्धानि लिखत –

1. (i) चकिताः शिष्याः इतस्ततः पश्यन्ति।
(ii) आचार्य! तदा कः स्वस्थः?
(iii) शिष्याः! यः हितभुक्, मितभुक् ऋतुभुक् च भवति स एव सर्वदा स्वस्थः।
(iv) विस्मितः शिष्यः आचार्य पृच्छति-गुरुवर! अयं किं वदति? ।
(v) सहसा तत्र विचित्रः शब्दः श्रुतः- “कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्” इति।
(vi) तदैव एकस्य शिष्यस्य दृष्टिः वृक्षस्थे विहगे अपतत्।
(vii) केचन शिष्याः गुरुः च वने विचरन्ति स्म।
(viii) सः पुनः पुनः रटति स्म-‘कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्’ इति।

2. (i) आम्। जानीमः तेन भगवता एव आयुर्वेदस्य महान् ग्रन्थः चरकसंहिता लिखिता।
(ii) आम्। फलानि स्वास्थ्यरक्षकाणि एव।
(iii) शोभनम्। एतेषाम् आशयः तु तत्रैव वर्तते! अधुना शृणुत-हितभुक् कः? यः हितकरं भुङ्क्ते।
(iv) अपि भवद्भिः महर्षेः चरकस्य नाम श्रुतम्?
(v) आचार्य! ‘हितभुक्, मितभुक्, ऋतुभुक्’ इति एतेषां कः आशयः?
(vi) यस्य आहारस्य सेवनेन स्वास्थ्यस्य रक्षणं भवति।
(vii) आचार्य! किं फलसेवनं हितकरं भवति?
(viii) सः आहारः एव सेवनीयः, स एव हितभुक् भवति।

3. (i) यदि आहारः ऋतोः अनुसारं न खाद्यते तस्मात् अपि स्वास्थ्यस्य हानिः भवति।
(ii) आचार्य! धन्यवादाः। अस्य विहगस्य स्वरेण नूनम् अस्माकं ज्ञाने वृद्धिः जाता।
(iii) वयं जानीमः। ऋतवः षट् भवन्ति।
(iv) अथ तावत् ‘ऋतुभुक्’ इति कः भवति?
(v) प्रियच्छात्रा! संक्षेपेण स्वास्थ्यस्य रक्षणाय चत्वारि सूत्राणि सर्वदा स्मरणीयानि।
(vi) यः पुरुषः आहार विषयकं ऋतु-सात्म्यं जानाति तस्य बलं वर्णकान्तिः च वर्धेते।
(vii) ग्रीष्मः, वर्षा, शरद्, हेमन्तः शिशिरः वसन्तः च इति।
(viii) अतः ऋतोः अनुसारं भोक्तव्यम्।।

4. 1. सर्वेभवन्तु सुखिनः आदि प्रार्थनां अस्माकं ऋषयः कुर्वन्ति स्म।
2. शिष्याः! शृणुत। एषः विहगः वदति-‘कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्’ इति।
3. मा, मा एवम्। हितकराः अपि पदार्थाः यदि अतिमात्रं भुज्यन्ते तदा हानिकराः भवन्ति।
4. तेन एव लिखिता एषः महान् ग्रन्थः ‘चरक संहिता’ इति।
5. केचन शिष्याः गुरूणा सह वने विचरन्ति स्म।।
6. यः हितभुक्, मितभुक् ऋतुभुक् च भवति स एव सर्वदा स्वस्थः भवति।
7. यदि आहारः ऋतोः अनुसारं न खाद्यते, तस्मात् अपि स्वास्थ्यस्य हानिः भवति।
8. आचार्य! धन्यवादाः। अस्य विहगस्य स्वरेण नूनम् अस्माकं ज्ञाने वृद्धिः जाता।
उत्तर:
1. (vii), (v), (i), (vi), (viii), (iv), (ii), (iii)
2. (v), (iv), (i), (iii), (vi), (viii), (vii), (ii)
3. (iv), (iii), (vii), (i), (vi), (viii), (ii), (v)
4. (v), (ii), (vi), (iv), (vii), (viii), (i), (iii)

8. ‘क’ स्तम्भे दत्तानां पदानां ‘ख’ स्तम्भे दत्तैः अथैः सह मेलनं कुरुत –

उत्तर:

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit Chapter 2 सर्वे सन्तु निरामयाः appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Important Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13Amines: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Class 12 Important Questions

Amines: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Class 12 Important Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Why is an alkylamine more basic than ammonia? (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
Due to electron releasing inductive effect (+1) of alkyl group, the electron density on the nitrogen atom increases and thus, it can donate the lone pair of electrons more easily than ammonia.

Question 2.
Arrange the following compounds in an increasing order of basic strengths in their aqueous solutions : NH₃, CH₃NH₂, (CH₃)₂NH, (CH₃)₃N (All India 2009)
Answer:
Basicity order (due to stability of ammonium cation)
(CH₃)₂ NH > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃ N > NH₃

Question 3.
Give the IUPAC name of H2N — CH2—CH2—CH = CH2. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
IUPAC name : But-3-ene-1-amine

Question 4.
Arrange the following compounds in an increasing order of their solubility in water : C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, C2HSNH2 (Delhi & All India 2011)
Answer:
C₆H₅NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₂NH < C2₂H₅NH₂

Question 5.
Give a chemical test to distinguish between ethylamine and aniline. (All India 2011)
Answer:
Ethylamine and aniline :
By Azo dye test: It involves the reaction of any aromatic primary amine with HNO₂(NaNO₂ + dil. HCl) at 273-278 K followed by treatment with an alkaline solution of 2-naphthol when a brilliant yellow, orange or red coloured dye is obtained.

Question 6.
Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their basic strength in aqueous solutions: CH₃NH₂, (CH₃)₂ NH, (CH₃)₃N and NH₃ (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
(CH₃)₂ NH > CH₃NH₂ > (CH₃)₃ N > NH₃

Question 7.
Arrange the following in increasing order of their basic strength in aqueous solution: CH₃.NH₂, (CH₃)₃N, (CH₃)₂NH (Delhi 2013)
Answer:

Question 8.
Write the structure of 2-aminotoluene. (All India 2013)
Answer:

Question 9.
Write the structure of n-methylethanamine. (All India 2013)
Answer:
Structure of n-methylethanamine :
H₃C—H₂C—NH—CH₂

Question 10.
Write the structure of prop-2-en-l-amine. (All India 2013)
Answer:
H₂C=CH—H₂C—NH₂

Question 11.
How may methyl bromide be preferentially converted to methyl isocyanide? (Comptt. Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Bit carbylamine reaction:

Question 12.
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of solubility in water :
C₆H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH, C₂H₅NH₂ (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
C₆H₅NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₂NH < C₂H₅NH,

Question 13.
Arrange the following in increasing order of basic strength :
C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅NHCH₃, C₆H₅CH₂NH₂ (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
C₆H₅NH₂ < C₆H₅NHCH₃ < C₆H₅CH₂NH₂

Question 14.
Arrange the following in increasing order of basic strength :
C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅NHCH₃, C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂ (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂ > C₆H₅NHCH₃ > C₆H₅NH₂

Question 15.
The conversion of primary aromatic amines into diazonium salts is known as (All India 2014)
Answer:
Diazotization.

Question 16.
Out of CH₃—NH₂ and (CH₃)₃N, which one has higher boiling point? (Comptt. Delhi 2014)
Answer:
CH₃—NH₂ has higher boiling point than (CH₃)₃N.

Question 17.
Complete the following reaction equation : (Comptt. Delhi 2015)
Answer:

Question 18.
Arrange the following in increasing order of basic strength (Comptt. All India 2015)
Aniline, p-Nitroaniline and p-Toluidine
Answer:

Question 19.
Write the IUPAC name of the given compound: (Delhi 2016)

Answer:
2, 4, 6-Tribromoaniline

Question 20.
Write IUPAC name of the following compound: (CH₃CH₂)₂NCH₃ (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
N-Ethyl-N-methylethanamine

Question 21.
Write the IUPAC name of the following compound: (Comptt. All India 2017)
CH₃NHCH(CH₃)₂
Answer:
IUPAC name: N-Methylpropan-2-amine

Question 22.
Write the IUPAC name of the following compound: (Delhi 2017)
(CH₃)₂N-CH₂CH₃
Answer:
IUPAC name: N, N Dimethylamine

Question 23.
Write IUPAC name of the following compound : (Comptt. All India 2017)

Answer:
IUPAC name : N, N-Dimethylbutanamine.

Amines: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Class 12 Important Questions Short Answer Type -I [SA – I]

Question 24.
Give the chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds :
(i) Ethyl amine and Aniline
(ii) Aniline and Benzylamine (All India 2010)
Answer:
(i) Ethylamine and aniline :
By Azo dye test: It involves the reaction of any aromatic primary amine with HNO₂(NaNO₂ + dil. HCl) at 273-278 K followed by treatment with an alkaline solution of 2-naphthol when a brilliant yellow, orange or red coloured dye is obtained.

(ii) Distinction between Aniline and Benzylamine :
By Nitrous acid test : Benzylamine reacts with HNO₂ to form a diazonium salt which being unstable even at low temperature, decomposes with evolution of N₂ gas

Question 25.
Identify A and B in each of the following processes : (All India 20100

Answer:

Question 26.
Give the chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds :
(i) Methylamine and Dimethylamine
(ii) Aniline and N-methylaniline (All India 2010)
Answer:
(i) Methylamine and Dimethylamine :
By Carbylamine test: Methylamine being a primary amine gives this test but Dimethylamine being a secondary amine does not.

(ii) Aniline and N-methylaniline
By Carbylamine test : Aniline is a 1° aromatic amine while N-methylaniline is a secondary aromatic amine. Therefore only 1° aromatic amine gives this test.

Question 27.
Describe the following giving the relevant chemical equation in each case :
(i) Carbylamine reaction
(ii) Hofmann’s bromamide reaction (All India 2012)
Answer:
(i) Carbylamine reaction : Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines on heating with chloroform and ethanolic KOH form isocyanides or carbylamines which are foul smelling substances. This reaction is known as carbylamines reaction.

(ii) Hofmann’s bromamide reaction : Primary amines can be prepared by treating an amide with Br₂ in an aqueous or alcoholic soln of NaOH.

Question 28.
Complete the following reaction equations : (All India 2012)
(i) C₆H₅N₂Cl + H₃PO₂ + H₂O →
(ii) C₆H₅NH₂ + Br₂ (aq) →
Answer:

Question 29.
Give IUPAC names of the following compounds : (Comptt. Delhi 2012)

Answer:
(a) IUPAC name : Methyl prop-2-en-1-amine
(b) IUPAC name : Phenyl acetamide

Question 30.
How are the following conversions carried out :
(a) Aniline to p-hydroxyazobenzene
(b) Ethanoyl chloride to Ethanenitrile. (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
Answer:
(a) Aniline to p-hydroxyazobenzene

Question 31.
How are the following conversions carried out?
(i) CH₃CH₂Cl to CH₃CH₂CH₂NH₂
(ii) Benzene to aniline (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
Answer:

Question 32.
How would you account for the following :
(a) Aniline is a weaker base than cyclohexyl amine.
(b) Methylamine in aqueous medium gives reddish-brown precipitate with FeCl₃. (Comptt. All India 2012)
Answer:
(a) In aniline, the lone pair of electrons on the N-atom is delocalised over the benzene ring. As a result, the electron density on the nitrogen decreases.
But in cyclohexylamine, the lone pair of electrons on N-atom is readily available due to absence of reelections. Hence aniline is weaker base than cyclohexylamine.
(b) Methylamine being more basic than H₂O, it accepts a proton from water liberating OH^– ions.

Question 33.
How would you account for the following :
(a) Electrophilic susbstitution in case of aromatic amines takes place more readily than benzene.
(b) Ethanamide is a weaker base than ethanamine. (Comptt. All India 2012)
Answer:
(a) Aniline exists as a resonance hybrid of the following five structures :

The electron density is maximum at ortho and para positions to the – NH₂ group. But in benzene there is no delocalisation of electron at any position and hence electrophilic substitution in case of aromatic amines takes place more readily than benzene.

(b) In ethanamide the lone pair of electron of N-atom is not available due to resonance structure

So it is a weaker base.

Question 34.
Illustrate the following reactions :
(a) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(b) Coupling reaction (Comptt. All India 2012)
Answer:
(a) Sandmeyer’s reaction : Aniline reacts with NaNO₂ in HCl at 273 – 278 K giving diazonium salt which further reacts with cuprous chloride/bromide to give chloro or bromo benzene.

This reaction is Sandmeyer’s reaction.
(b) Coupling reaction : Arene diazonium salts react with highly reactive aromatic compounds such as phenols and amines to form brightly coloured azo compounds.
Ar – N = N – Ar. This reaction is known as coupling reaction.

Question 35.
Give chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds :
(a) Aniline and Ethylamine
(b) Ethylamine and Dimethylamine (Comptt. Delhi 2013)
Answer:
(a) Ethylamine and aniline :
By Azo dye test: It involves the reaction of any aromatic primary amine with HNO₂(NaNO₂ + dil. HCl) at 273-278 K followed by treatment with an alkaline solution of 2-naphthol when a brilliant yellow, orange or red coloured dye is obtained.

(b) Ethylamine and dimethylamine can be distinguished by the carbylamine test.
Carbylamine test: Aliphatic and aromatic amines on heating with chloroform and ethanolic potassium hydroxide form foul smelling isocyanides or carbylamines. Ethylamine (being an aliphatic primary amine) gives a positive carbylamine test, but dimethylamine does not.

Question 36.
Explain the following reactions :
(a) Gabriel Phthalimide reaction
(b) Coupling reaction (Comptt. Delhi, Comptt. All India 2013)
Answer:
(a) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis : It is used to prepare 1° amine (Primary amine). The starting compound is a phthalimide. But aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by this method because aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by phthalimide.
Example :

(b) Coupling reaction : Arene diazonium salts react with highly reactive aromatic compounds such as phenols and amines to form brightly coloured azo compounds.
Ar – N = N – Ar. This reaction is known as coupling reaction.

Question 37.
Give reasons :
(a) Aniline is a weaker base than cyclohexyl amine.
(b) It is difficult to prepare pure amines by ammonolysis of alkyl halides. (Comptt. All India 2013)
Answer:
(a) In aniline, the lone pair of electrons on the N-atom is delocalised over the benzene ring. As a result, the
electron density on the nitrogen decreases.
But in cyclohexylamine, the lone pair of electrons on N-atom is readily available due to absence of π-electrons. Hence aniline is weaker base than cyclohexylamine.
(b) Because the primary amine formed by ammonolysis itself acts as a nucleophile and produces further 2° and 3° alkyl amine.

Question 38.
Give reasons :
(i) Electrophilic substitution in aromatic amines takes place more readily than benzene.
(ii) CH₃CONH₂ is weaker base than CH₃CH₂NH₂. (Comptt. All India 2013)
Answer:
(i) Due to the strong activating effect of the NH₂ group, aromatic amines undergo electrophilic substitution reactions readily than benzene.
(ii) In case of acetamide due to resonance, the lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom is delocalized over keto group which decreases electron density hence less basic while in ethylamine due to +1 effect of ethyl group electron density increases on N-atom and hence basic character increases.

Question 39.
(i) Arrange the following compounds in an increasing order of basic strength :
C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH and CH₃NH₂
(ii) Arrange the following compounds in a decreasing order of pKb values :
C₂H₅NH₂, C₆H₅NHCH₃, (C₂H₅)₂NH and C₆H₅NH (Comptt. Delhi 2014)
Answer:
(i) Increasing order of basic strength

(ii) Decreasing order of pKb values
C₆H₅NH₂ < C₆H₅NHCH₃ < C₂H₅NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₂NH

Question 40.
Give a chemical test to distinguish between each of the following pairs of compounds :
(i) Ethylamine and Aniline
(ii) Aniline and Benzylamine (Comptt. All India 2014)
Answer:
(i) Ethylamine and aniline :
By Azo dye test: It involves the reaction of any aromatic primary amine with HNO₂(NaNO₂ + dil. HCl) at 273-278 K followed by treatment with an alkaline solution of 2-naphthol when a brilliant yellow, orange or red coloured dye is obtained.

(ii) Distinction between Aniline and Benzylamine :
By Nitrous acid test : Benzylamine reacts with HNO₂ to form a diazonium salt which being unstable even at low temperature, decomposes with evolution of N₂ gas

Question 41.
Write the chemical equations involved in the following reactions: (All India 2016)
(i) Hoffmann-bromamide degradation reaction
(ii) Carbylamine reaction
Answer:
(i) Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction : In this reaction, migration of an alkyl or aryl group takes place from carbonyl carbon of the amide to the nitrogen atom. Therefore the amine so formed has one carbon atom less than that of amide.

(ii) Carbylamine reaction. This reaction is used to distinguish primary amines from 2° and 3° amines as it is only given by 1° amines with the production of a very bad smelling organic compound.
For example :

Amines: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Class 12 Important Questions Short Answer Type -II [SA – II]

Question 42.
Giving an example for each describe the following reactions :
(i) Hofmann’s bromamide reaction
(ii) Gatterman reaction
(iii) A coupling reaction (Delhi 2009)
Answer:
(i) Hofmann’s bromamide reaction : When amide is treated with bromide in alkaline solution, an amide yields an amine containing one carbon less than the starting amide.

(ii) Gatterman reaction: When benzene or its derivative is treated with carbon monoxide and hydrogen chloride in the presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride or cuprous chloride, it gives benzaldehyde or substituted benzaldehyde.

Gattermann Koch reaction : Diazonium salt reacts with hydrogen halide in presence of copper powder giving haloarene.

(iii) A coupling reaction : Arene diazonium salts react with highly reactive aromatic compounds such as phenols and amines to form brightly coloured azo compounds.
Ar – N = N – Ar. This reaction is known as coupling reaction.

Question 43.
Complete the following reaction equations: (All India 2009)

Answer:
Reduction reaction

Question 44.
Complete the following reaction equations :
(i) C₆H₅Cl + CH₃COCl →
(ii) C₂H₅NH₂ + C₆H₅SO₂Cl →
(iii) C₂H₅NH₂ + HNO₂ →
Answer:

Question 45.
In the following cases rearrange the compounds as directed : (Delhi 2010)
(i) In an increasing order of basic strength :
C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅ N(CH₃)₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH and CH₃NH₂
(ii) In a decreasing order of basic strength :
Aniline, p-nitroaniline and p-toluidine
(iii) In an increasing order of pK_b values :
C₂H₅NH₂, C₆H₅ NHCH₃, (C₂H₅)₂NH and C₆H₅NH₂
Answer:
(i) Order of basic strength :

Since a stronger base has a lower pKb value therefore basic strength order.
(C₂H₅)₂NH > C₂H₅NH₂ > C₆H₅NHCH₃ > C₆H₅NH₂

Question 46.
Complete the following chemical equations : (Delhi)

Answer:

Question 47.
(a) Explain why an alkylamine is more basic than ammonia?
(b) How would you convert
(i) Aniline to nitrobenzene (ii) Aniline to iodobenzene (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
(a) Due to electron releasing inductive effect (+1) of alkyl group, the electron density on the nitrogen atom increases and thus, it can donate the lone pair of electrons more easily than ammonia.

(b) (i) Aniline to nitrobenzene

Question 48.
Complete the following chemical equations: (Delhi 2011)

Answer:

Question 49.
State reasons for the following :
(i) pK_b value for aniline is more than that for methylamine.
(ii) Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not soluble in water.
(iii) Primary amines have higher boiling points than tertiary amines. (All India 2011)
Answer:
(i) Higher the pK_b value, lower will be the basicity therefore aniline is less basic than methylamine because the
lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom gets delocalized over the benzene ring are unavailable for protonation due to resonance in aniline which is absent in case of alkylamine.
(ii) Ethylamine is soluble in water due to its capability to form H-bonds with water while aniline is insoluble in water due to larger hydrocarbon part which tends to retard the formation of H-bonds.
(iii) Due to presence of two H-atoms on N-atom of primary amines, they undergo extensive intermolecular H-bonding while tertiary amines due to the absence of a H-atom on the N-atom, do not undergo H- bonding. As a result, primary amines have higher boiling points than 3° amines.

Question 50.
Write chemical equations for the following conversions :
(i) Nitrobenzene to benzoic acid.
(ii) Benzyl chloride to 2-phenylethanamine
(iii) Aniline to benzyl alcohol. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
(i) Nirtobenzene to benzoic acid :

(ii) Benzyl chloride to 2-phenylethanamine

(iii) Aniline to benzyl alcohol

Question 51.
Give the structure of A, B and C in the following reactions: (Delhi 2013)

Answer:

Question 52.
Give the structure of A, B and C in the following reactions : (Delhi 2013)

Answer:

Question 53.
Complete the following reactions : (All India 2013)

Answer:

Question 54.
Write the main products of following reactions: (All India 2013)

Answer:

Question 55.
Give the structures of A, B and C in the following reactions : (Delhi 2014)

Answer:

Question 56.
How will you convert the following :
(i) Nitrobenzene into aniline
(ii) Ethanoic acid into methanamine
(iii) Aniline into N-phenylethanamide
(Write the chemical equations involved) (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
(i) Nitrobenzene into aniline

Question 57.
Account for the following :
(i) Primary amines (R-NH₂) have higher boiling point than tertiary amines (R₃N).
(ii) Aniline does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction.
(iii) (CH₃)₂NH is more basic than (CH₃)₃N in an aqueous solution. (All India 2014)
Answer:
(i) Due to presence of two H-atoms on N-atom of primary amines, they undergo extensive intermolecular H-bonding while tertiary amines due to the absence of a H-atom on the N-atom, do not undergo H- bonding. As a result, primary amines have higher boiling points than 3° amines.
(ii) Aniline being a Lewis base reacts with Lewis acid AlCl₃ to form a salt.

As a result, N of aniline acquires positive charge and hence it acts as a strong deactivating group for electrophilic substitution reaction. Consequently, aniline does not undergo Freidel Craft reaction.
(iii) Due to more steric hindrance in (CH₃)₃N it is less basic than (CH₃)₂NH.

Question 58.
Account for the following:
(i) Aniline does not give Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(ii) Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not.
(iii) pK_b of methylamine is less than that of aniline. (Comptt. Delhi 2014)
Answer:
(i) Aniline being a Lewis base reacts with Lewis acid AlCl₃ to form a salt.

As a result, N of aniline acquires positive charge and hence it acts as a strong deactivating group for electrophilic substitution reaction. Consequently, aniline does not undergo Freidel Craft reaction.
(ii) Ethylamine is soluble in water due to its capability to form Fl-bonds with water while aniline is insoluble in water due to larger hydrocarbon part which tends to retard the formation of H-bonds.
(iii) In aniline due to resonance lone pair of electron of nitrogen atom is delocalised due to which it is weaker base than methyl amine.
Hence Aniline has high pK_b molecule i.e., methylamine has less pK_b molecule.

Question 59.
An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound ‘B’ which on heating with Br₂ and KOH forms a compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C₆H₇N. Write the structures and IUPAC names of compounds A, B and C. (Comptt. Delhi 2015)
Answer:
The data shows that C₆H₇N may be C₆H₅NH₂ i.e. Aniline. Since it is obtained by heating with Br₂ and KOH (Hoffmann bromamide reaction), then the compound ‘B’ is Benzamide C₆H₅CONH₂ which is in turn obtained by reaction with aqueous ammonia then the compound ‘A’ can be Benzoic acid i.e. C₆H₅COOH

Question 60.
Write the structures A, B and C in the following : (Delhi 2016)

Answer:

Question 61.
Give reasons for the following:
(i) Aniline does not undergo Friedal-Crafts reaction.
(ii) (CH₃)₂ NH is more basic than (CH₃)₃ N in an aqueous solution.
(iii) Primary amines have higher boiling point than tertiary amines. (All India 2016)
Answer:
(i) Aniline being a Lewis base reacts with Lewis acid AlCl₃ to form a salt.

As a result, N of aniline acquires positive charge and hence it acts as a strong deactivating group for electrophilic substitution reaction. Consequently, aniline does not undergo Freidel Crafts reaction.
(ii) In (CH₃)N there is maximum steric hindrance and least solvation but in (CH₃)₂NH the solvation is more and the steric hindrance is less than in (CH₃)₃NH; although + I effect is less, since there are two methyl groups; di-methyl amine is still a stronger base than tri-methyl.
(iii) Due to presence of two H-atoms on N-atom of primary amines, they undergo extensive intermolecular H-bonding while tertiary amines due to the absence of a H-atom on the N-atom, do not undergo H- bonding. As a result, primary amines have higher boiling points than 3° amines.

Question 62.
Write major product(s) in the following reactions : (Comptt. Delhi 2016)

Answer:

Question 63.
Describe a method for the identification of primary, secondary and tertiary amines. Also write chemical equations of the reaction involved. (Comptt. Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Benzenesulphonyl chloride (C₆H₅SO₂Cl), which is also known as Hinsberg’s reagent, reacts with primary and secondary amines to form sulphonamides and tertiary amine does not react.

It does not react with tertiary amines.

Question 64.
Write the products A and B in the following : (Comptt. All India 2016)

Answer:

Question 65.
Give reasons:
(i) Acetylation of aniline reduces its activation effect,
(ii) CH₃NH₂ is more basic than C₆H₅NH₂.
(iii) Although —NH₂ is o/p directing group, yet aniline on nitration gives a significant amount of m-nitroaniline. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
(i) Acetylation of aniline reduces its activation effect because acetyl group being electron withdrawing group attracts the lone pair of electrons of the N-atom towards carboxyl group and the lone pair of electrons on N is less available for donation to benzene ring by resonance.
(ii) CH₃NH₂ is more basic than aniline due to availability of lone pair of electrons for donation while in aniline lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom is delocalised over benzene ring and thus unavailable for donation.
(iii) Because of nitration in an acidic medium, aniline gets protonated to give anilinium ion which is indirecting.

Question 66.
Give reasons for the following:
(a) Acetylation of aniline reduces its activation effect.
(b) CH₃NH₂ is more basic than C₆H₅NH₂.
(c) Although —NH₂ is o/p directing group, yet aniline on nitration gives a significant amount of m-nitroaniline. (All India 2017)
Answer:
(i) Acetylation of aniline reduces its activation effect because acetyl group being electron withdrawing group attracts the lone pair of electrons of the N-atom towards carboxyl group and the lone pair of . electrons on N is less available for donation to benzene ring by resonance.
(ii) CH₃NH₂ is more basic than aniline due to availability of lone pair of electrons for donation while in aniline lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom is delocalised over benzene ring and thus unavailable for donation.
(iii) Because of nitration in an acidic medium, aniline gets protonated to give anilinium ion which is indirecting.

Question 67.
Write the structures of compounds A, B and C in each of the following reactions: (All India 2017)

Answer:

Question 68.
Illustrate Sandmeyer’s reaction with the help of a suitable example. (Comptt. Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Sandmeyer’s reaction: The substitution of diazo group of benzene diazonium chloride by Chloro, Bromo and Cyano group with the help of solution of CuCl dissolved in HCl, CuBr/HBr and CuCN/KCN respectively is known as Sandmeyer’s reaction.

Question 69.
Identify A, B and C in the following reactions : (Comptt. Delhi 2017)

Answer:

Question 70.
Identify A, B and C in the following reactions : (Comptt. All India 2017)

Answer:

Amines: Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen Class 12 Important Questions Long Answer Type [LA]

Question 71.
An aromatic compound JA’ of molecular formula C₇H₂₇ON undergoes a series of reactions as shown below. Write the structures of A, B, C, D and E in the following reactions : (Delhi 2015)

Answer:

Question 72.
(a) Write the structures of main products when aniline reacts with the following reagents :
(i) Br₂ water (ii) HCI (iii) (CH₃CO)₂O/pyridine
(b) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their boiling point :
C₂H₅NH₂, C₂H₅OH, (CH₃)₃N
(c) Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between the following pair of compounds : (CH₃)₂NH and (CH₃)₃N (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
(a) (i) Br₂ water

(b) Increasing order of boiling point :
(CH₃)₃ < C₂H₅NH₂ < C₂H₂OH

(c) By Hinsberg test, secondary amines or (CH₃)₃NH shows precipitate formation which is insoluble in KOH. Tertiary amines or (CH₃)₃N do not react with Hinsberg’s reagent (benzene sulphonyl chloride).

Question 73.
An aromatic compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C₇H₆O₃ undergoes a series of reactions as shown below. Write the structures of A, B, C, D and E in the following reactions : (All India 2015)

Answer:

Question 74.
(a) Write the structures of main products when benzene diazonium chloride reacts with the following reagents :
(i) H₃PO₂ + H₂O (ii) CuCN/KCN (iii) H₂O
(b) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic character in an aqueous solution :
C₂H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH, (C₃H₅)₃N
(c) Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between the following pair of compounds :
C₆H₅—NH₂ and C₆H₅—NH—CH₃ (All India 2015)
Answer:
(a) The structure of main products when aniline (benzene diazonium chloride) reacts with the following reagents :

(b) C₂H₅NH₂ < (C₃H₅)₃N < (C₂H₅)₂NH
(c) Aniline and Benzylamine can be distinguished by the Nitrous acid test. Benzylamine reacts with HNO₂ to form a diazonium salt which being unstable even at low temperature, decomposes with evolution of N₂ gas.

Important Questions for Class 12 Chemistry

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प्रदत्तशब्दसूचीसाहाय्येन अधोदत्तां लघुकथां उत्तरपुस्तिकायां पुनः लिखतु भवान्
1. पिपीलका-घासवल्गी-कथा
शब्दसूची – आच्छादिता। शीतकातराः। अलसः। उपागमत्। दीनहीनां। वल्गी। पिपीलिकायाः। दयस्व। प्रियः त्वां।
उत्तरम्:
शीतकाले सम्प्राप्ते पृथ्वी हिमेन आच्छादिता अभवत्। सर्वे शीतकातराः विहगाः वृक्षे निलीय समुपविष्टाः। असौ वराक: अलसः धासवल्गी क्षुधापीडितो जातः। हताशो म्रियमाणश्चासौ पिपीलिकाम् उपागमत्। पिपीलिका तस्य दीनहीनां दशा दृष्ट्वा व्यचिन्तयत्-अयं वल्गी अधुना मम साहाय्यं याचितुम् आयातः। सा तमपृच्छत्-“बन्धोः कुतः आयानि भवान्? सुखिनस्तव किं जातम्? हे सखे! तव दुर्दशां दृष्ट्वा मम भृशं दु:खं भवति।” पिपीलिकायाः वचनं श्रुत्वा करवद्धः स घासवल्गी अकथयत्-” भद्रे! कृपया क्षुधिते मयि दयस्वा” सा पिपीलिका अवदत्-“प्रिय मिर! अस्मिन् वारे तु अहं त्वां क्षमे। भविष्ये मैवम् आचर।” इति कथयित्वा सा तस्मै प्रायच्छत्।

2. वानर-सूचीमुख-कथा
शब्दसूची – वानराः। पक्षी। अवलोक्य। वृथा। गम्यताम्। शीतरक्षा। सुरक्षितः। व्यरमत्। शिलायाम्। इतश्च।
उत्तरम्:
हेमन्ते शीतेन कम्पमानाः वानराः गुञ्जाफलानि अवचित्य वह्निवाञ्छाया फूत्कुर्वन्ति। तत्रागतः सूचीमुखः नाम पक्षी तेषां तं वृथायासम् अवलोक्य अवदत्-” भोः मूर्खाः, एते न वह्निकणाः, गुञ्जाफलानि एतानि, तत् किं वृथा श्रमेण?” वानरैः उक्तम्-“भोः मूर्ख! किं तव अनेन व्यापारेण? तद् गम्यताम्।” असौ पक्षी भूयोऽपि वानरान् अनवरतम् आह–” भोः, किं वृथा क्लेशेन? एतस्मात् शीतरक्षा न भविष्यति। कश्चित् सुरक्षितः निर्वातः वनप्रदेशः गुहा, गिरिकन्दरं वा अन्विष्यताम्।” यावत् असौ सूचीमुखः कथमपि प्रलपन् न व्यरमत् तावत् एकेन कुपितवानरेण पक्षाभ्यां गृहीत्वा शिलायाम् आस्फालितः हतश्च।

(ख) रिक्तस्थानपूर्ति-माध्यमेन लघुकथा-लेखनम्

प्रश्नः
अधोलिखितायां कथायां मञ्जूषायाः पदानि अवचित्य रिक्तस्थानपूर्तिः क्रियताम् –
1. गुरु-शिष्य-कथा
गुरुः शिष्यम् एकान्ते पक्षिशावकं हन्तुमादिशत्। शिष्यः अपरः कुत्रापि एकान्तस्थानम् अप्राप्य गुरोः समक्षं जीवितं पक्षिशावकम् एव समर्प्य न्यवेदयत्-अहं पक्षिहनने असमर्थः अस्मि। यतः कुत्रापि (i) …………….. न लभे। क्वचित् जनाः सन्ति। यत्र (ii) ……………… न सन्ति तत्र (iii) …………….. विद्यन्ते। यत्र तेऽपि न सन्ति तत्र वृक्षलताः निर्झराः (iv) …………….. च सन्ति-एते वाक्शक्तिरहिताः (v) …………….. अपि शावकवधस्य दुष्कर्मणि निरतं मां (vi) …………….। यदि क्वचित् (vii) …………….. अपि न सन्ति तदा (viii) …………….. ममान्तरात्मा मन्दस्वरेण मां कथयति यत् त्वं करोषि तदहं पश्यामि इति। सर्वं श्रुत्वा गुरुणा (ix) …………….. त्वमेव ज्ञानधारणे समर्थः। वत्स, तव मनः शुद्धम्। शुद्धमनसा एव जनः: यथार्थनिर्णयं कर्तुं शक्नोति। स आत्मनः वाणी शृणोति। आत्मा एव सर्वस्य शाश्वत: (x) …………” गरुः।
मञ्जूषा – एकान्तस्थान। कथितम्। मार्गदर्शकः। वृक्षलतादयः। पशुपक्षिणः। जनाः। भूत्वा। पर्वतादयः। धिक्कुर्वन्ति। हृदयस्थः।
उत्तर:
(i) एकान्तस्थानं, (ii) जनाः, (iii) पशुपक्षिणः, (iv) पर्वतादयः, (v) भूत्वा, (vi) धिक्कुर्वन्ति, (vii) वृक्षलतादयः, (viii) हृदयस्थः, (ix) कथितम्, (x) मार्गदर्शकः

2. सत्यभक्तः किरातः
प्रभाते प्रतिदिनम् आगत्य किरातः पूर्ववत् मांसादिभिः पूजाम् अकरोत्। तदनन्तरं ब्राह्मणः आगत्य सर्वम् उत्थाप्य अक्षिपत्-अयं क्रमः दिनत्रयं यावत् अचलत्। अन्ततोगत्वा परमकुपितः ब्राह्मणः अचिन्तयत्-“अहं श्वः प्रभाते आगत्य अवश्यं तं धरिष्यामि यः नित्यं (i) …………….. मलिनं करोति, तथा च तं ताडयिष्यामि येन असौ ईदृशम् (ii) …………….. पुनः कदापि न करिष्यति।” विचित्रा (iii) …………….. आगामिनि (iv) …………….. किरातः अपश्य त्-(v) …………….. दक्षिणवामपाश्र्वाभ्यां रक्तम् प्रावहत्। किरातः, “भगवन्, नेत्रहीनस्त्वं कथं (vi) ……………..।” इति कथयित्वा शराग्रेण स्वनेत्रे (vii) …………….. शिवलिङ्गस्य रक्ताक्तस्थानयोः योजयति स्म। तद् दृष्ट्वा प्रसन्नो भूत्वा ब्राह्मणः किरातस्य (viii) …………….. अपतत्। प्रभुकृपया किरातः पुनः दृष्टिं (ix) ……………..। सत्यभक्तस्य तादृशं (x) …………….. भवति।
मञ्जूषा – माहात्म्यं। दिने। पादयोः। मन्दिरं। द्रक्ष्यसि। शिवलिङ्गस्य। प्राप्नोत्। अकार्य। उत्पाट्य। भगवल्लीला।
उत्तर:
(i) मन्दिरं (ii) अकार्य, (iii) भगवल्लीला, (iv) दिने, (v) शिवलिङ्गस्य, (vi) द्रक्ष्यसि, (vii) उत्पाट्य (viii) पादयोः, (ix) प्राप्नोत्, (x) माहात्म्यं

3. सचिवस्य ईश्वरनिष्ठा
एकदा राज्ञः अगुली वृश्चनेन छिन्नाऽभवत्। तेन नृपः भूयसी (i) …………….. अन्वभवत्। सर्वे मन्त्रिणः आगत्य नपाय सान्त्वनावचांसि अवदन् (ii) …………….. प्रभुभक्तस्य सचिवस्य मुखे तस्मिन्नवसरे अपि तदेव (iii) …………….. आसीत् (iv) ……………… रतः परमेश्वरः यत्करोति, शोभनमेव करोति’ इति। अस्य मन्त्रिणः तद्वचनम् आकर्ण्य नृपः सचिवायाक्रुध्यत्। काले गते नृपस्य (v) …………….. शान्ताऽभवत्। तदा सः सचिवम् (vi) …………….. | ” सचिव! कथय, तव पुत्रः मृतः, मम चाङगुली छिन्ना, अत्र सर्वभूतहिते सः तव परमेश्वरः किं शोभनम् अकरोत्?” सचिवः शान्तभावेन (vii) …………….. न्यवेदयत्-प्रश्नोऽयं समीचीनः, तथा च अस्य उत्तरमपि (viii) …………….. अधुनाऽहं समर्थो नास्मि, किन्तु (ix) …………….. आवाम् तस्य कथनस्य (ix) …………….. अवगमिष्यावः।
मञ्जूषा – दातुम्। नृपाय। पीडाम्। कालान्तरे। सत्यताम्। सर्वभूतहिते। वाक्यम्। अपृच्छत्। पीडा। परं।
उत्तर:
(i) पीडाम् (ii) परं, (iii) वाक्यम्, (iv) सर्वभूतहिते, (v) पीडा (vi) अपृच्छत्, (vii) नृपाय, (viii) दातुम्, (ix) कालान्तरे, (x) सत्यताम्

4. ईश्वरः यत्करोति शुभमेव करोति
एकदा राजा सचिवमादाय आखेटाय गतः। तत्र वने सहसा केचन दस्यवः उभौ गृहीत्वा दस्युराजं समुपागताः। तत्र च उभयोः कृते आदेशोऽभवत् यत् (i) ………….. तयोः बलिः दीयताम्। दस्युराजस्य आदेशं परिपालयितुं यदा सर्व बलिकार्यं (ii) ………… आसीत् तदा दस्युराजेन (iii) ………. पुष्टः-‘अस्ति तव पुत्रः?’ सचिवः अवदत्-‘नास्ति’। दस्युराजः अकथयत्-देवी अपुत्रस्य (iv) …………….. न गृह्णाति। तर्हि मुञ्चैनम्। तदनन्तरं बलिं दातुं यदा (v) ……. दस्युराजस्य पुरतः आनीतः तदा तस्य छिन्नाम् अङ्गुली दृष्ट्वा (vi) ………. अकथयत्-“देवी अङ्गहीनस्य अपि बलिं` न वाञ्छति। अतः एनम् अपि (vii) ………..।” एवं मुक्तः नृपः राज्यसभाम् आगत्य घोषणां कृतवान् “सर्वभूतहिते रतः परमेश्वरः यत् करोत् िशोभनमेव” (viii) …………। प्रसन्नवदनः सः नृपः तस्मै सचिवाय (ix) . .. पुरस्कारस्वरूपां निजरत्नावली (x) ……………..।”
मञ्जूषा – दस्युराजः। नृपः। बलिं। प्रयच्छत्। मुञ्च। करोति। देव्यै। सज्जम्। सचिवः। सबहुमान।
उत्तर:
(i) देव्यै, (ii) सज्जम्, (iii) सचिवः, (iv) बलिं, (v) नृपः, (vi) दस्युराजः, (vii) मुञ्च, (viii) करोति, (ix) सबहुमानं (x) प्रायच्छत्

5. वीरबालकः अभिमन्युः
अभिमन्युः निजबलेन सह (i) …………….. अगच्छत्। सः एकाकी एव चक्रव्यूहस्य प्रवेशद्वारं (ii) सफलोऽभवत्, तस्य कोऽपि योद्धा अन्तः प्रवेष्टुं न समर्थः। साहसी बालक: (iii) …………….. एव षट् प्रवेशद्वाराणि त्रोटयित्वा चक्रव्यूहस्य अन्तः प्राविशत् सप्तमे प्रवेशद्वारे तस्य सप्तमहारथिभिः सह घोरं युद्धं जातम्। (iv) ……….. अतुल्या बाणवृष्टिं दृष्ट्वा सर्वे (v) …………….. मिलित्वा तस्योपरि युगपदेव (vi) …………….. अकुर्वन्। एकतः एकाकी बालकः आसीत् अपरतः (vii) ……………. सप्त महारथिनः। कुत्र गता (viii) …………….? चिरकालं (ix) …………….. युद्धं कुर्वन् अन्ततः सः वीरः वीरगति प्राप्तः। धन्योऽयं वीरबालकः। धन्या चेयं वीरभूमिः यत्र एतादृशाः वीराः बारम्बार (x) …………… ।
मञ्जूषा – युद्धभूमिम्। युद्धकलानिष्णाताः। जायन्ते। महारथिनः। एकाकी। युद्धमर्यादा। यावत्। वीरबालकस्य। आक्रमणम्। भेदने।
उत्तर:
(i) युद्धभूमिम्, (ii) भेट्ने, (iii) एकाकी, (iv) वीरबालकस्य, (v) महारथिनः, (vi) आक्रमणम्, (vii) युद्धकलानिष्णाताः, (viii) युद्धमर्यादा, (ix) यावत्, (x) जायन्ते

6. पुनर्मूषको भव दयार्द्वमुनिना योगसिद्धिना प्रथमं मूषकः विडालः कृतः, तदा (i) ………….. रक्षितुं विडालात् सः कुक्कुरः कृतः। कुक्कुरो भूत्वा इतस्ततः निर्भयं परिभ्रमन् असौ सिंहने दृष्टः। सिंहात् रक्षाम् इच्छन् कुक्कुरोऽयं मुनेः शरणं प्राप्तः। सिंहात् कुक्कुरस्य (ii) …………….. कुर्वन् योगसिद्धिः मुनिः कुक्कुरस्योपरि जलं परिसिञ्चन् अवदत्-‘सिंहो भव’। मुनी एवम् वदत्येव कुक्कुरः सिंहोऽभवत्। ‘आश्चर्यम् आश्चर्यम्’ इति (iii) …………….. सर्वे मुनयः कथयन्ति स्म-‘धन्यः एषः (iv) ………….. यस्य कृपया मूषकः सिंहोऽभवत्।’ तत् श्रुत्वा कृतघ्नः सिंहः अचिन्तयत्-‘यावद् अयं मुनिः (v) …………… तावद् मम स्वरूपस्य अपकीर्तिः भविष्यति। अतोऽहं मुनि (vi) …………….. कथं न निश्चिन्तो भवामि।’ एतद् विचार्य निजबलेन दृढं दृप्तः सिंहः मुनि (vii) …………… आगतः। योगसिद्धिः सिंहस्य दुर्भावं ज्ञात्वा (viii) ……. ‘पुनर्मूषको भव’। मुनेर्वचनात् (ix) ……. सिंहः पुनः मूषकोऽभवत्। विडालः मूषकं दृष्ट्वा तं (x) ………. अकरोत्।
मञ्जूषा – अशपत्। वदन्तः। कृतघ्नः। योगसिद्धिः। मारयित्वा। कुक्कुरात्। रक्षा निजाहारम्। जीवति। मारयितुम्।
उत्तर:
(i) कुक्कुरात्, (ii) रक्षा, (iii) वदन्तः, (iv) योगसिद्धिः, (v) जीवति, (vi) मारयित्वा, (vii) मारयितुम्, (viii) अशपत्, (ix) कृतघ्नः, (x) निजाहारम्

अभ्यासः

1. अधोलिखिताः लघुकथाः पठित्वा मञ्जूषानाञ्च सहायतया रिक्तस्थानां पूर्तिं करोतु भवान्।
(नीचे लिखीं लघुकथाओं को पढ़कर मञ्जूषाओं की सहायता से आप खाली स्थानों को भरिए।)
Read the following short story (paragraph) and fill up the blanks with the help of box.) (1 x 10 = 10)
(क) रामायणे इदं वर्णितं यत् एकदा स्व (i) …………….. जनकपुत्री सीता शृङ्गारम् अकरोत्। सा षोडश शृङ्गारं कृत्वा स्वशिरसि सौभाग्यचिह्न सिन्दूरम् अरचयत्। एतद् दृष्ट्वा श्रीहनुमान् (ii) …………….. अपृच्छत्–“मातः! भवती कथं (iii) …………….. स्वमस्तके सिन्दूरं रचयति।” माता सीता अवदत्-“प्रियवर! अनेन (iv) …………….. स्वामिनः आयुः (v) ………… सः प्रसीदति अपि। अतः अहम् एवं करोमि।” एतच्छ्रुत्वा हनुमान् ततः (vi) ………………। एकस्मिन् दिवसे श्रीहनुमान् सम्पूर्णे शरीरे (vii) …………….. लिम्पित्वा राजसभाम् आगच्छत्। तदा तस्य रक्तवर्णं (viii) …………….. दृष्ट्वा सर्वे जनाः अहसन्। कारणं पृष्टे सति हनुमान् अवदत्-“माता अवदत्-सिन्दूरेण स्वामिनः प्रसन्नता आयुश्च वर्धते, अतः अहमपि तेन कारणेन एव (ix) ……… शरीरे सिन्दूरम् अलिम्पम्।” एतच्छ्रुत्वा (x) ……… प्रसन्नः भूत्वा तस्य आलिङ्गनम् अकरोत्।

मञ्जूषा – शरीरम्, श्रीरामः, वर्धते, शृङ्गारकक्षे, प्राचलत्, स्वसम्पूर्णे, प्रतिदिनम्, सिन्दूरम्, सीताम्, सिन्दूरेण।

(ख) एकदा ऋषिः दयानन्द: वैदिकधर्मस्य प्रचारं कुर्वन् अनूपशहर नामकम् एकं (i) …………….. अगच्छत्। तत्र तस्य सत्सङ्गे अनेके नराः नार्यः च आगत्य तस्य अमृतवचनं श्रुत्वा (ii) ……………. धन्यं कुर्वन्ति स्म। अत: तस्य अनुयायिनां सङ्ख्या अपि अवर्धत। ते सर्वे ऋषिं प्रति (iii) …………….. अपि धारयन्ति स्म। एतद् दृष्ट्वा तस्य विरोधिनः ईjया दग्धाः अभवन्। ते स्वामिदयानन्दं (iv) …………….. अपि प्रयत्नम् अकरोत्। एकस्मिन् दिवसे एकस्मै युवकाय (v) …………….. दत्वा तस्य हस्तेन ऋषि दयानन्दं ताम्बूले विषम् प्रदापयन्। एतत् ज्ञात्वा योगविद्यया (vi) …………….. च ऋषिः तद् विषं बहिः निस्सार्य स्वस्थाने आगच्छत्। इदं वृत्तान्तं ज्ञात्वा स्वामिदयानन्दस्य (vii) ……………. आरक्षकः निरीक्षक: (पुलिसनिरीक्षक) सैयद मोहम्मदः तम् (viii) ……………. बन्ध नेन बद्ध्वा स्वामिनः समीपं नीतवान्। दण्डार्थञ्च स्वामिने निवेदितवान्। एतच्छ्रुत्वा ऋषिः गम्भीरस्वरेण अकथयत्-‘भवान् एनं मुञ्चतु’ अहं कञ्चिदपि जनं बंधने पतयितुं न आगच्छम् अपितु संसारं (ix) …………….. मोक्तुम् आगतवान्।’ एतत् कथयित्वा सः तं बन्धनात् मोक्तवान्। धन्यः आसीत् सः ऋषिः (x) …………….. सरस्वती।

मञ्जूषा – अपराधिनम्, धनम्, मुस्लिमभक्तः, नगरम्, बन्धनात्, मारयितुम्, ! न्यौलीक्रियाया, स्वामिदयानन्द, भक्तिभावम्, आत्मानं।

(ग) अहिंसायाः साक्षात्प्रतिमा भगवान् (i) …………….. एकदा कोसलदेशस्य राजधानी श्रावस्तीम् अगच्छत्। तदा तत्र नृपः प्रसेनजितः (ii) …………….. अकरोत्। सायंकाले भगवतः प्रवचने श्रोतृणां सङ्ख्या (iii) …………….. आसीत्। तस्याः कारणं भगवता पृष्टम्। तदा जनाः नृपश्च बिभेत्य नृशंसस्य दस्योः अङ्गुलिमालस्य (iv) ……….. अकुर्वन्। एतद् ज्ञात्वा भगवान् बुद्धः तं प्रति (v) …………….. गतवान्। विपिने महात्मानं बुद्धं दृष्ट्वा (vi) ……………… तस्मै स्थातुम् अकथयत्। तं भयङ्कराकृतिं दृष्ट्वा अपि न बिभेत्य बुद्धः अकथयत् “पुत्र! तव (vii) …………….. अहं तु अतिष्ठम् परं त्वं कदा स्थास्यसि।” सः पुनः तं शिक्षयन् विस्तारेण कथितवान्–“वत्स! अस्मिन् संसारे पूर्वस्मात् एव अनेकानि (viii) …………….. सन्ति तानि निरन्तरं जनान् पीडयन्ति। त्वं (ix) …………. कथं तानि वर्धयसि अतः त्वं तेभ्यः विरम।” बुद्धस्य उपदेशं श्रुत्वा मत्वा स च सः दस्युः (x) …………….. निक्षिप्य तस्य चरणयोः अपतत् तस्य च भक्तः अभवत्।

मञ्जूषा – अगुलिमालः, स्वखड्गं, अतिन्यूना, बुद्धः, राज्यम्, वनम्, कष्टानि, स्वपापाचरणैः, चर्चाम्, कथनेन।

(घ) महाभारतयुद्धात् पूर्वम् एकदा कौरवपाण्डवेषु सन्धिं कारयितुं योगेश्वरः (i) …………….. हस्तिनापुरं गतवान्। सः राजसभां गत्वा सम्राजं (ii) …………….. अवदत्-‘राजन्! कौरव-पाण्डवाः भवतामेव पुत्राः सन्ति। अतः तेषां मध्ये युद्धः न भवेत्। एतदर्थं भवान् एव (iii) …………….. कुर्यात्। अर्धराज्यस्य उत्तराधिकारिभ्यः (iv) …………….. यदि अर्ध राज्यं न दत्त्वा अपि भवान् पञ्चग्रामान् एव यच्छेत् तदा अपि (v) …………….. सन्तुष्टाः भविष्यन्ति महाविनाशकारी युद्धश्च न भूत्वा सर्वत्र शान्तिः, सुख सम्पन्नता: च भविष्यन्ति। एतच्छ्रुत्वा युवराजः (vi) ……………” अगर्जत् अकथयत् च-“श्रूयताम् गोपाल! अहं (vii) …………….. बिना राज्यं नाम तु किं सूच्याः अग्रभागमात्रकां (viii) ……………. अपि न दास्यामि।” एतत् श्रुत्वा श्रीकृष्णः ततः निर्गत्य स्वभक्तस्य (ix) गृहं गत्वा तत्र शाकं (x) …………….. प्रसन्नतया अखादत्।

मञ्जूषा – युद्धेन, प्रसन्नतया, धृतराष्ट्रम, दुर्योधनः, विदुरस्य, धराम्, श्रीकृष्णः, पाण्डवेभ्यः, पाण्डवाः, प्रयत्नम्।

2. छात्रस्य आत्मकथा विष्यमधिकृत्य मञ्जूषायां दत्तानाम् शब्दानां सहायतया रिक्तस्थानपूर्तिः क्रियताम्।
(छात्र की आत्मकथा के विषय में मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति कीजिए।
Fill in the blanks with suitable words given in the box about an autobiography of a student.)
अहमेकः छात्रः अस्मि। मम (i) …………….. प्रहर्षोऽस्ति। अहम् दिल्ली नगरस्य (ii) …………….. प्रतिष्ठिते (iii) ………. दशम्यां कक्षायां पठामि। मम विद्यालयः चतुर्दिक् क्षेत्रे (iv) ……….. अस्ति। अहं स्वगृहात् प्रातरेव सप्तवादने विद्यालयस्य (v) …………….. पठितुं गच्छामि। वाहने अन्येऽपि मम (vi) ……… मिलन्ति, यैः सह अहम्मनोरञ्जनं कुर्वन् विद्यालये गच्छामि। तत्र विद्यालयस्य परिश्रमिणः (vii) ………… अस्मान् श्रद्धया पाठयन्ति। तेषां सङ्गतिम् प्राप्य अहमतिप्रसन्नो भवामि। मम विद्यालये देशस्य (viii) …………… नेतारः, क्रीडकाः, अभिनेतारः, वैज्ञानिकाः अपि (ix) …………….. समागच्छन्ति स्वजीवनविषये च छात्रान् (x) ………….

मञ्जूषा – शिक्षकाः, बोधयन्ति, एकस्मिन्, अभिधानम्, यथासमय, प्रसिद्धाः, सहपाठिनः, प्रसिद्धः, वाहनेन, विद्यालये।

3. निम्नानुच्छेदे रिक्तस्थानानि मञ्जूषायां दत्तानां शब्दानां सहायतया सम्पूरयत।
(निम्न अनुच्छेद के रिक्त स्थान मञ्जूषा में दिए गए पदों की सहायता से पूरे कीजिए।
Fill in the blanks in the following paragraph with the help of the words given in the box.)
मम नाम संस्कृतिः। संस्कृतं संस्कारञ्च इमौ मम (i) …………….. स्तः। जीवनस्य (ii) …………….. एव संस्कृतिः। मामाधृत्य एव जनाः (iii) …………….. भवन्ति। ते स्वजीवने (iv) …………….. भवन्ति। संस्कारेण मानवाः जीवने (v) ……………. भवन्ति, आदरञ्च लभते। इमे संस्कारा एव (vi) …………….. संस्कुर्वन्ति। संस्कृतिः संस्कारश्च (vii) …………….. एव प्राप्नुतः। यतः संस्कृतग्रन्थाः एव तादृश्यः निधयः सन्ति याभिः (viii) ……. अनेक प्रकाराणि सुखानि प्राप्य (ix) …………….. स्वजीवनं सफलीकुर्तम् पारयन्ति। अतः एतेषाम् त्रयाणां प्राप्तिः कृत्वा एव मानवः स्वजीवने (x) …………….. भविष्यन्ति।

मञ्जूषा – जनान्, सफलाः, संस्कृतेन, भ्रातरौ, सफलाः, जनाः, आधारः, स्वजीवनं, परिश्रमशीलाः, संस्कृताः।

4. निम्नलिखितमनुच्छेदस्य रिक्तस्थानानि मञ्जूषायां दत्तानाम् शब्दानां सहायतया सम्पूरयत।
(निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेद के रिक्त स्थान मञ्जूषा में दिए गए पदों की सहायता से पूरे कीजिए।
Fill in the blanks in the following paragraph with the help of the words given in the box.)
पुरा (i) …………….. त्रयः एव विश्वविद्यालयाः आसन्-तक्षशिला, विक्रमशिला नालन्दा च। तेषु (ii) …………….. केवलं नालन्दा विश्वविद्यालये (iii) …………….. शिक्षा दीयते स्म। एवमेव तस्मिन्नेव (iv) …………….. कृषिः, आयुर्वेद, पशुविज्ञानं, कला शिल्पानाञ्च (v) …………….. दीयते स्म। अतः सप्तवर्षीयः सन् (vi) ……….. पञ्चविद्याः अधीतवान्। तासु शब्द विद्या-शिल्पस्थानम्-आयुर्वेद-हेतुविद्या-आध्यात्मिकी च विद्याः आसन्। एताः (vii) …………. पठित्वा छात्राः सत्या (viii) …………….. विवेकी जीवनदर्शनं च जानन्ति स्म। तदा भारतीय विज्ञान (ix) …………….. अति उत्कृष्टा मानवीयमूल्ययुक्ता च आसीत्। तदैव अस्माकं देशः (x) …………….. ‘स्वर्णखगः’ कथ्यते स्म।

मञ्जूषा – शिक्षा, भारतम्, भारते, छात्रः, विश्वविद्यालयेषु, बौद्धदर्शनस्य, विद्याः, परम्परा, सत्य, विश्वविद्यालये।

5. केशवदासेन ब्रह्मणेन कथितं निम्नानुच्छेदम् अधोदत्तेषु शब्देषु उचितं शब्दम् नीत्वा सम्पूरयत।
(केशवदास और ब्राह्मण के द्वारा कहे गए निम्न अनुच्छेद को नीचे दिए गए शब्दों से उचित शब्द लेकर भरिए।
Complete the following paragraph told by Keshavdas and a Brahmin, with suitable words given below.)
श्रूयताम! (i) ……………… खलु केशवदासो नाम (ii) …………….. अस्मि। महाराजेन (iii) …………….. अहम् (iv) …………….. स्थापितः। (v) …………….. दुर्योधनेन पुनः (vi) …………….. निष्कासितः। अधुना अहं किं करवाणि? (vii) …………….. अहम् महाराजमपि उपागतः परं (viii) …………….. न (ix) कृतम्। अहमतिभीतोऽस्मि। अतः उत्तरस्यां दिशि (x) …………….. सकाशं अधुना प्रस्थितोऽस्मि।
मञ्जूषा – तेन, स्वमातुलस्य, अहम्, किञ्चिद्, युधिष्ठिरेण, युवराजेन, ततः, सपरिवारम्, ब्राह्मणः, इन्द्रप्रस्थे।

6. निम्नलिखितां कथामाधृत्य उचितैः पदैः रिक्तस्थानपूर्तिः कर्त्तव्या।
(निम्नलिखित कथा के रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति उचित पदों से कीजिए।
Fill in the blanks of the following story with suitable words.)
उज्जयिन्याम् (i) …………….. नाम विप्रः अवसत्। तस्य भार्या तम् (ii) …………….. स्वबालापत्यस्य रक्षार्थं अवस्थाप्य (iii) …………….. गतवती। तत्पश्चात् विप्रः राज्ञा (iv) …………….. निमन्त्रितः। ब्राह्मणः (v) …………….. अचिन्तयत्-यदि (vi) …………….. शीघ्रं तत्र न गमिष्यामि तदा तु तत्र कश्चित् आगमिष्यति। अथ सः बालरक्षार्थं एक पुत्रवत् पालितं (vii) …………….. व्यवस्थाप्य गतवान्। पश्चात् प्रत्यावृत्य सः (viii) …………….. मुखपादं नकुलं दृष्ट्वा , ‘अनेन बालको खादितः’ इति अवधार्य तम् उपकारक (ix) व्यापादितवान्। तत्पश्चात् गृहं गत्वा बालकं सुस्थं सर्पं च मृतं दृष्ट्वा सर्वां कथां अनुमानितवान्। ततः परं (x) …………… प्राप्तवान्। ………….
मञ्जूषा – नकुलं, रक्तविलिप्तं, माधवः, स्नातुं, सहजदारिद्रयात्, विषादं, नकुलं, अहम्, ब्राह्मणं, श्राद्धार्थं।

7. निम्नकथामाधृत्य मञ्जूषायाः पदानां सहायतया उचितैः पदैः रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयन्ताम्।
(निम्न कथा पर आधारित मञ्जूषा के पदों की सहायता से उचित पद से रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति कीजिए।)
Fill in the blanks of the following story with suitable words from the box.)
पुरा भारते महातपा नाम एक: (i) …………….. मुनिः आसीत्। एकदा सः वने उपविष्टः आसीत् तदैव एका (ii) …………….. तमुपरि विष्ठामुदसृजत्। तदा मुनिः ताम् क्रोध दृष्ट्या अपश्यत् अतः तस्य-प्रभावेण सा (iii) …………….. अभवत्। अनेन महर्षिः अहङ्कारमुपगतः। सः एकदा एक ब्राह्मण (iv) …………….. मत्वा तद् गृहिणी भिक्षामयाचत। सा पतिसेवाम् कुर्वन्ती आसीत्। सा तस्मै (v) …………….. स्थातुमकथमत्। सः क्रुद्धदृष्टया तामपश्यत्। तमेवं (vi) ……………. सा हसित्वा अकथयत् मुने! नाहं (vii) …………….. इति। तच्छुत्वा (viii) …………….. चकितोऽभवत्। कथितवान् च ‘त्वया इदं (ix) …………….. ज्ञातम्? मह्यमुपदेशं यच्छ’। ततः सावदत् अहं तु एका सामान्या (x) …………….. अस्मि। पतिसेवाम् अन्यकिञ्चिन्न जानामि।

मञ्जूषा – बलाका, भस्मीभूता, दृष्ट्वा, वनवासी, गृहम्, कथम्, गृहिणी, बलाका, किञ्चिद्, मुनिः।

8. अधोलिखितमनुच्छेदं मञ्जूषायां रिक्तस्थानानि दत्तानां शब्दानां सहायतया समुचितं सम्पूरयत।
(नीचे लिखे अनुच्छेद के रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति मञ्जूषा से उचित पद लेकर कीजिए।)
Fill in the blanks of the following paragraph with suitable words from the box.)
पुराकाले भागीरथीतीरे पाटलिपुत्रनामधेये नगरे (i) …………….. नाम नृपोऽवसत्। सः एकदा विचरन् (ii) …… श्लोकद्वयं शुश्राव। तयोरर्थमासीत् यत् (iii) …………… कृते किञ्चिदसाध्यं नास्ति। विद्याहीनाः संसारे (iv) …………. भवन्ति। अतः कठिनं (v) …………….. कृत्वा अपि विद्याप्राप्तिः कर्त्तव्या। तस्य नृपस्य (vi) ………….. अपि विद्याहीनाः आसन्। अतः नृपः अतिदुःखितः आसीत्। एकदा सः सर्वान् (vii) …………… आहूय तेभ्यः स्वकष्टमकथयत्-भो मन्त्रिणः! भवन्तः सर्वे एव (viii) ……….. कुर्वन्तु, यतः मे पुत्राः विद्याया युक्ताः भवेयुः। एकदा तस्य (ix) …………….. विष्णुशर्मा नाम विद्वान् आगच्छत्। नृपः तस्मै (x) …….. शिक्षितान् कर्तुं प्रार्थितवान्।
मञ्जूषा – मन्त्रिणः, स्वपुत्रान्, सुदर्शनो, शोभाहीनाः, परिश्रम, कुत्रचित्, पुत्राः, राजसभायां, प्रयत्न, प्रयत्ने।

9. निम्नानुच्छेदं मञ्जूषातः समुचितं पदमादाय रिक्तस्थानानि सम्पूरयत।
(निम्नलिखित अनुच्छेद के रिक्त स्थानों की पूर्ति मञ्जूषा से उचित पद लेकर कीजिए।
Fill in the blanks of the following paragraph with suitable words from the box.)
एकदा मथुरायां शिक्षाप्राप्ति (i) …………….. स्वामिविरजानन्दम् स्वामिदयानन्दोऽवदत् ‘गुरुवर! मम शिक्षाग्रहणे (ii) …………….. अतिप्रयत्नं कृतम् एतदर्थम् अहम् (iii) …………….. धन्यवादी अस्मि। मम योग्यां सेवां कथय। अहं किं (iv) …………….. भवत्सेवायां यच्छानि? दयानन्दस्य एतां वार्ता (v) …………….. स्वामि (vi) …………….. गम्भीरः भूत्वाऽवदत्। पुत्र! किम् मया एतदर्थमेव (vii) ……………. पाठितः आसी:? मां कस्यचिदपि वस्तुनः (viii) …………….. आवश्यकता नास्ति। संन्यासी (ix) ……………. करबद्धः तमवदत् गुरुवर! कथयः, अहं भवत्सेवायां स्वजीवनमपि अर्पयिष्यामि। एतत् श्रुत्वा (x) …………….. प्रसन्नः अभवत्।

मञ्जूषा – विरजानन्दः, काले, दयानन्दः, श्रुत्वा, अधुना, वस्तु, भवता, त्वम्, गुरु विरजानन्दः भवताम्।

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit

The post CBSE Class 11 Sanskrit लघुकथा-लेखनम् appeared first on Learn CBSE.

PM Scholarship 2019: PM Scholarship or Prime Minister Scholarship Scheme (PMSS) is a scholarship scheme that strives at promoting higher professional and technical studies for the dependent wards and widows of Central Armed Police Forces & Assam Rifles (CAPFs & AR) and State Police Personnel. Initiated in the year 2006-07, this scheme is run by the Welfare and Rehabilitation Board,  Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India. This scheme has by far affected lakhs of students and helped many of them pursue their dream career easily.

The Government of India(GOI) has recently introduced major changes in the scholarship by revising the scholarship reward amount for girls from Rs.2,250 to Rs.3,000 per month and for boys from Rs.2,000 to Rs.2,500 per month. Additionally, 500 new scholarships will also be given to the wards of State Police officials who were martyred in terror or Naxal attacks.

Now let us know the benefits offered to students under PM scholarship. Also, with that, we will see here the eligibility criteria, application procedure and other related details in this article.

PM Scholarship Important Dates

Since Candidatehave got an overview of the PM Scholarship, let us get through the important dates for this scheme, where Candidate will be informed of the date of filing the application form along with the last date, verification of document dates and also when the scholarship amount will be released to the students on their bank accounts. The list given here in the table contains the details of schedule related to the Prime Minister Scholarship Scheme. While the fresh applications are accepted within a defined time limit, the renewal of applications can be done all through the year.

PM Scholarship Eligibility Criteria

Check the eligibility criteria for the candidates who want to acquire the PM scholarship. If the candidate does not meet the criteria, they will not be able to fill the application form or get the scholarship reward. Only those who fulfill the conditions will be rewarded with the scholarship amount and benefits.

• Candidate should be a dependent ward/widow of deceased CAPFs & AR/ Ex-CAPFs & AR/ retired and serving CAPFs & AR/ State Police Personnel.
• Candidate should be pursuing professional courses. (Not applicable for lateral entry and integrated courses).
• The minimum education qualification to apply for these courses should be class 12/ diploma/ graduation.
• The candidates should have secured at least 60% marks or above in the minimum educational qualification. (For renewal in subsequent years, the Candidates need to obtain at least 50% marks in the qualifying examination).
• As per the latest decision made by the Government of India, the scholarship scheme will also cover the wards of State Police officials who are/were martyred during Naxal/terror attacks. A total of Rs.500 scholarships in a year will be given to the wards of State Police officials.
• Wards of Civilians including Para-Military Personnel are NOT ELIGIBLE.

PM Scholarship Eligible Courses

• First Professional Degree Courses like BE, B.Tech, BDS, MBBS, B.Ed, B.B.A, BCA, B.Pharma, etc. duly recognized by the respective Government Regulatory Bodies, such as All India Council for Technical Education, Medical Council of India, UGC, etc.
• Master Degree Courses are not eligible for PMSS except MBA / MCA Courses.
• Students studying abroad are not eligible for this scheme. No distance learning course is permitted under PMSS. PMSS can be availed for ONE COURSE only.

PM Scholarship Application Procedure

Let us see now how to apply for PM Scholarship. The method of application form filling. Candidates can apply through online mode for this scheme. Candidates have to apply through the National Scholarship Portal for the academic year 2019-20. Now, let us see step by step how to apply.

• Visit the official website of NSP.
• Click on the “New Registration” link.
• Read the application guidelines carefully and click on continue to proceed.
• Fill in all required details and click on “Register”.
• After getting registered the user id and password will be generated on your mobile number.

Login with User Id and Password

• Log in to the portal using application id and password received on your registered mobile number.
• An OTP will be generated on your registered mobile number for successful login.
• Verify the OTP and change the password.
• Once logged in, fill in the scholarship application form.
• Upload the scanned copy of all supporting documents.
• Finally, submit the application.

Documents Required to Apply for PM Scholarship

Once Candidate has completed the application process, they should further know about the necessary documents that candidate need to submit to apply for the Prime Minister Scholarship Scheme. Candidates have to submit the scanned copies of all the supporting documents after filling the application. Check the list of all supporting documents to provide during PM scholarship application :

• Serving Certificate (in case of serving personnel) issued by HOO
• Certificate issued by the concerned state government indicating that the State Police personnel was killed in Naxal /Terror attacks
• Certificate of Minimum Educational Qualification (MEQ) as applicable – Class 12th mark sheet, Graduation mark sheet (for all years) or diploma mark sheets (for all semesters)
• PPO/Discharge Certificate/Book (Mandatory for Category A to F)
• Death Certificate (Applicable for deceased personnel)
• Disability Certificate (Applicable for disabled personnel)
• Certificate of Gallantry Award (Applicable for Gallantry Award winners)

PM Scholarship Rewards

• The amount of which candidate will receive under the Prime Minister Scholarship Scheme and for how many years the scholarships will be disbursed are the necessary details a candidate should know.
• A total of 5500 eligible candidates get benefit under this scheme every year. And these scholarships are equally distributed among boys and girls, i.e. 2750 each.
• Besides, the amount of the scholarship offered to girls is Rs.3000 per month and to boys is Rs.2500 per month, every year.
• Moreover, the duration of the scholarship may differ from one year to five years depending on your course span.

PM Scholarship Selection Preferences

The criteria that are considered while shortlisting candidates for PM scholarship and the authorities who are responsible for the final selection of students, those details are discussed. For the end-to-end implementation and disbursement of the scheme, the Ministry of Home Affairs is completely responsible. But the preference is given to students in the following order:

• Category A: The first preference is given to the wards and widows of CAPFs & AR personnel who were killed in action.
• Category B: The second preference is given to the wards of Ex-CAPFs & AR personnel who got disabled in action.
• Category C: The third preference is given to the wards and widows of deceased CAPFs & AR personnel who died during their service for causes attributable to Government service.
• Category D: The next preference is given to the wards of Ex-CAPFs & AR personnel who got disabled during their service with disability attributable to Government service.
• Category E: Further, the preference is given to the wards of Ex-CAPFs & AR personnel who have received gallantry awards.
• Category F: The next preference is given to the wards of Ex-CAPFs & AR personnel (PBOR only).
• Category G: Lastly, the preference will be given to the wards of serving CAPFs & AR personnel (PBOR) subject to the availability of the scholarship.

Note: The dependents wards of State Police Personnel who died during Naxal/Terror attacks will also be given preference.

PM Scholarship Renewal

Let us know the renewal procedure for the candidates who want to renew their scholarship. While the selected students will get the reward of the first installment of the PM scholarship as soon as the merit list is declared, the subsequent payments are done only if the scholars apply for the renewal of scholarship at the end of each academic year. Just like the new application, the candidate can also apply for the renewal through online mode. Although to apply for the renewal application, it is necessary for a candidate to fulfill certain criteria that include:

• Candidate should secure at least 50% marks in every semester or academic year.
• Candidates have to pass all the subjects in each year/semester in one attempt.

Candidate can apply for renewal within one year of the declaration of merit list and the applications can be made throughout the year but not between January to April months.

PM Scholarship for Integrated Courses

• Minimum Educational Qualification (MEQ) will be 10+2. However when applying student need to upload mark sheets of 10+2 in all cases, 1st year and 2nd year (all semesters) where 1st course is non-professional.
• There are two types of Integrated Courses (dual degree) which are discussed below :
  • Integrated courses (dual degree) which have both the courses as Professional/Technical for example BE+ME, B.Tech+M.Tech, BBA+MBA, etc. In such cases, only the first professional degree will be granted a scholarship.
  • Integrated Courses (dual degree) which have a first degree as Academic (Non-Professional) and second degree as Professional/Technical for example BA + LLB, B.Com + LLB, B.Sc.+B.Ed. In such cases, students will be paid for the professional part of the course and not for non – professional/academic part.
• A student pursuing Integrated courses wherein one degree is professional and another degree is non-professional, he/she will be awarded scholarship for professional portion of the dual degree course only and not for the academic portion of such course. The same is illustrated with the help of an example as under :
  • “In BA+LLB (dual degree course) first degree is BA which is non-professional and 2nd degree is LLB is which is professional. Therefore, scholarship for the professional portion (i.e. LLB) only will be provided.
• When 1st degree is non-professional and 2nd degree is professional, in such cases, while seeking PM scholarship from third year onward student must have completed his previous two years of non-professional course without fail. Repetition/RA/Failure will make students ineligible to apply for a scholarship. A student should clear all the subjects of 1st & 2nd year in the first attempt and within the stipulated time frame from the date of admission, otherwise he/she will not be considered for award of scholarship and application will be rejected.

Important Instructions for Students

• Students to respond in time according to SMS/email received from Kendriya Sainik Board.
• E-mail and Mobile Number mentioned in the application must be of the student. Alternate Mobile Number can be of ESM. E-mail and mobile number once registered should not be changed since all messages being sent to the registered email/mobile number
• During checking of new application if observation raised from ZSB/RSB and KSB are not rectified within the stipulated time frame of 10 days, then the application will be automatically rejected by the system. So ensure that the observation is rectified in time to avoid system rejection of the application.
• During the period from January to May, processing, selection and preparation of merit list of a new application (1st-year students) are being done by KSB. Processing and payment of renewal application are done as and when received by KSB throughout the year EXCEPT from January to May. Student/ESM to keep in mind the periodicity of checking of application (new and renewal) before raising any query relating to checking/payment status of applications.
• Student/ESM should log in to KSB account to check the status of the application. It is to be noted while application status is showing pending to the student dashboard, but on the ground, the application is in the process at different levels/functionaries at KSB.
• Student studying abroad as well as distance learning case is not eligible for PMSS

FAQ’s on PM Scholarship

Question 1.
How to apply for PM Scholarship?

Answer:
To apply for PMSS, the candidate has to register first to National Scholarship Portal and then fill and submit the application form online.

Question 2.
How to check the status of PM scholarship?

Answer:
Follow the below steps to check the status of scholarship:

• Go to the official portal of scholarship.up.nic.in.
• Click on the “Status” tab on the homepage.
• Put the registration number and date of birth.
• Click on the search button and application status will appear on the screen.

Question 3.
What is the Minimum Educational Qualification In MEQ?

Answer 3:
Minimum Educational Qualification (MEQ) for entry into various professional courses differs e.g. for MBBS it is 10+2 whereas for BE/B Tech it is 10+2 / Diploma, for B.Ed and MBA it is graduation qualification. A candidate must have minimum 60% marks in MEQ to apply for PM Scholarship Scheme. All subjects will be taken for calculation of 60% marks including optional subjects also and not out of best subjects.

Question 4.
How to acknowledge the receipt of the scholarship amount?

Answer:
On receipt of scholarship amount from KSB, the student is required to update Column 14 of Renewal Application by logging into his/her KSB account using Log ID & Password by entering ‘Date of payment and amount received’ (two separate columns). This is a mandatory audit requirement to get the benefit of PMSS, otherwise, the scholarship will be canceled and the money already paid will be recovered. ‘Save’ button is provided at the bottom of Column 14. This action has to be completed immediately on receipt of the scholarship amount for each installment.

The post PM Scholarship for Academic Year 2019-20 | Eligibility, Application Process, Documents Required, Rewards appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physical Education 2018 Outside Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:

• The question paper contains 26 questions.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question no. 1 to 11 carry 1 mark each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 10-20 words each.
• Questions no. 12 to 19 carry 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 30-50 words each.
• Questions no. 20 to 26 carry 5 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 75-100 words each.

** Answer is not given due to change in the present syllabus

Question 1.
What do you mean by ‘Seeding’ ? [1]
Answer:
Seeding is a method in which strong teams/players are selected to keep them at appropriate places in the fixture so that they may not meet in the earlier rounds. For the selection of strong teams, the organisers must be well aware regarding the previous performance of the teams.

Question 2.
What do you mean by food intolerance ? [1]
Answer:
Food intolerance is the inability of a person to digest certain food properly. Its symptoms include nausea,vomiting, acidity, stomach upset, etc.

Question 3.
What is the main physiological cause of Asthma? [1]
Answer:
The physiological cause of asthma is airway narrowing and a subsequent interference with airflow.

Question 4.
What is Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) ? [1]
Answer:
It is a brain disorder that includes inattentiveness, hyperactivity and impulsiveness. It is a medical condition that affects how well can someone sit still, focus and pay attention.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Congenital Deformity? [1]
Answer:
The deformity in children that is present at birth is known as congenital deformity.

Question 6.
What is Bulimia ? [1]
Answer:
Bulimia is an eating disorder in which a person eats excessive amount of food. People with bulimia make up for the excess energy intake using a variety of techniques including vomiting, fasting, excessive exercise etc. to control body weight.

Question 7.
Explain the meaning of cardiac output. [1]
Answer:
The amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute is known as cardiac output. It is a product of stroke volume and heart and is measured in litres/min.

Question 8.
What type of sports injury can be termed as ‘Laceration’in sports ? [1]
Answer:
Laceration is an irregular cut on the skin with a sharp object or sharp edged sports equipment.

Question 9.
Which field of study in sports is called ‘Biomechanics’? [1]
Answer:
Biomechanics is the study of internal and external forces and their effects on living system or athlete

Question 10.
What do you mean by the term ‘Aggression’ in sports ? [1]
Answer:
In sports, aggresion means an intention to harm or injure player outside the rules of game so as to gain a competitive advantage or late tackling to stop an opponent from scoring.

Question 11.
What is coordinative ability ? [1]
Answer:
Coordinative ability is the ability of the body to bring together different elements of a complex activity into an efficient relationship.

Question 12.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of food supplements for adolescents ? Write briefly. ** [3]

Question 13.
Sushant was a good athlete. He used to practise regularly to achieve a position at the State level. But he could not get success. He got frustrated with his poor performance and started misbehaving with his teachers and friends in school. Due to depression and anxiety, he started taking drugs. The Principal counselled Sushant and called his parents.
They took him to a rehabilitation centre for treatment. After a few months, he recovered and came back home.
On the basis of above passage answer the following questions:
(a) Do you think that consuming drugs is a solution to emotion-focused problems ?
(b) What values are shown by the Principal ?
(c) What should be the attitude of the teachers and the parents after his recovery ? [3]
Answer:
(a) No, consuming drug is not a solution to emotion focussed problems or failure or poor performance.
(c) Teachers and parents should motivate Sushant for achieving his goal. They should try to make him understand that success comes after failure. So, he has to works hard and prove himself in front of everyone.

Question 14.
What are the types of disability ? Explain briefly. [3]
Answer:
Types of disability are :
(i) Cognitive disability : Cognitive disability generally refers to anyone with lower than average intellectual functioning. A person who has a cognitive disability has trouble in performing mental tasks that the average person would be able to do.
(ii) Intellectual disability: Intellectual disability is a disability characterized by significant limitations in both intellectual functioning (such as learning, problem solving, judgement) and in adaptive behaviour (activities of daily life such as communication). This disability originates before the age of 18.
(iii) Physical.disability : A physical disability is a long term loss or impairment of part of body’s physical function. It can involve difficulties in walking and mobility, sitting and standing, use of hands and arms, sight, hearing, speech, muscle control etc.

Question 15.
What are the major muscles involved in run-ning, jumping and throwing ? Explain. [3]
Answer:
Gluteeus, quads, calves and hamstring are the major muscles involved while running. Glutes muscles stabilize the hips and legs. Quads propel you forward and help straighten out the leg in front so that it can make a good contact with the surface of ground. Calves muscles provide spring action in the steps and also act as shock absorber. While moving forward, hamstring help in pulling the leg back behind.

The leg, feet and gluteus muscle groups are used in jumping. Specific muscles which are involved in jumping are gluteus maximus, hamstrings, quadriceps and soleus.

In throwing, major muscles are pectorials major, lattissimus dorsi, anterior deltoid and teres major are involved. These muscles are comparatively responsible for velocity during the throw.

Question 16.
Keeping in view the Indian ideology, critically analyse the sociological aspect of participation by women athletes in sports. ** [3]

Question 17.
What do you understand by ‘First Aid’ ? Discuss briefly about the aims and objectives of First Aid. [3]
Answer:
First Aid : It is the immediate care given to an injured or ill person. It does not take the place of proper medical treatment. It is a temporary assistance before actual medical care is obtained.

Aims & Objectives : The most obvious objective of first aid is to save one’s life before the victim gets actual medical help. The objective can be simplified into the five Ps :

1. Preserve life.
2. Protect the unconscious.
3. Prevent injury or illness becoming worse.
4. Promote recovery.
5. Procure medical aid.

If a life-threatening situation does exist, the first aider should have knowledge of procedures to keep the casualty alive. A casuality should be isolated from all further dangers and placed in a position where their injury or illness will not become worse. The casualty’s injuries or illness should be attended to in order to prevent complications arising from his or her injury or illness.

Question 18.
Mention briefly about the common sports injuries and their prevention. [3]
Answer:
Common sport injuries are broadly divided in three categories :
(i) Soft Tissues Injuries
(ii) Bone Injuries
(iii) Joint Injuries

Prevention of sports injuries :

1. Use properly fitted sports equipment and gear.
2. Hydrate adequately to maintain health and minimize cramps.
3. Perform proper warm-up and cool-down routines.
4. Have a pre-season health and wellness evaluation.
5. Body conditioning.
6. Proper use of techniques.
7. Balanced diet and adequate rest.

Question 19.
Explain the “Eight Foot Up and Go” test for measuring agility and dynamic balance. [3]
Answer:
The ‘eight foot up and go’ test is a coordination and agility test for the elderly. The purpose of this test is to measure speed, agility and balance while moving. The procedure of this test is :

1. Place the chair next to a wall and mark 8 feet in front of the chair.
2. The subject starts by fully seated, hand resting on knees and feet flat on ground.
3. On the command “GO”, timing started and the subject stands and walks as quickly as possible (no running) around the cone, returning to initial position and sit on the chair.
4. As the person sits down, the timer is stopped.
5. Perform two trials.
6. The score is better time of the two trials to the nearest 1/10^th of a second.
   Regular exercise increases agility and dynamic balance.

Question 20.
Define Combination Tournament. Draw a fixture of 16 teams using Knock-out cum League Method. [5]
Answer:
Combination Tournament are those tournaments in which initial round of tournament is played on particular basis (knock-out or league) and rest of the tournament played on another particular basis (knock-out/league).

1. Knock out cum knock out
2. League cum League
3. Knock out cum League
4. League cum Knock out

Fixture of Knock out cum League Tournament:
Divide number of team into four groups, then they are made to compete with each other on the basis of knock out tournament, the winners from four groups are made compete on the basis of league Tournament. This will declare one team as a winner.

Henceforth winners from each group WA, WB, WC & WD move to League Tournament. And each team in League Tournament plays once with other team. Team winning most matches with maximum points is declared as winner of tournament.

Four Teams
WA(1) WA Vs WB — Winner WA — 2 Points
WB (2) WC Vs WD — Winner WC — 2 Points
WC (3) WA Vs WC — Winner WA — 2 Points
WD(4) WB Vs WD — Winner WD — 2 Points
(5) WA Vs WD — Winner WA — 2 Points
(6) WB Vs WC — Winner WC — 2 Points

Final Points Tally
WA ⇒ 2 + 2 + 2 = 6 Points
WB ⇒ 0 =0 Points
WC ⇒ 2 + 2 = 4 Points
WD ⇒ 2 = 2 Points
Here WA winning 3 matches with 6 points is winner.

Question 21.
What are the causes of back pain ? Explain the procedures, benefits and contra-indications of two asanas recommended to cure back pain. [5]
Answer:
Causes of Back Pain : The human back is composed of a complex structure of muscles, ligaments, tendons, disks and bones. Problem with any of these components can lead to back pain. The most common causes of back pain are strained muscles, strained ligaments and a muscle spasm which arises due to :

1. Incorrect body posture
2. Lifting something that is too heavy

Back pain can be reduced by regular excercise, correcting the posture and doing proper asanas like Tadasana and Bhujangasana.
(a) Tadasana
Tadasana is an asana in which the posture appears like standing in the form or shape of a mountain.

1. Procedure : Stand erect and place your thighs, slightly apart, with your hands hanging alongside your body. Strengthen the inner arches of inner ankles as you lift them. Look slightly upward. Now breathe in and stretch your shoulders, arms and chest upwards. Raise your heels, making sure that your body is on your toes. Hold the pose for a few seconds. Then exhale and release.

2. Benefits:

1. It is helpful in developing physical and mental balance,
2. It improves body posture.

3. Contraindication: It is best to avoid this pose if someone is having problems like severe migraine, insomnia or low blood pressure.

(b) Bhujangasana
Bhujangasana is a basic Hatha pose that Strengthens the entire shoulder and upper back.

1. Procedure: Lie flat on your stomach. Place your hands on the side and ensure that toes touch each other. Then move your hands to the front, placing your body’s weight on your palms. Inhale and raise your head and trunk. Press your hips, thighs and feet to the floor. Hold the asana for 15 to 30 seconds then release the pose by slowly bringing your hands back to the sides.

2. Benefits:

1. It makes spine stronger and more flexible.
2. It gives lungs, shoulder, chest and abdomen a good stretch.

3. Contraindication : People should avoid this asana if they suffer from problems like hernia and back injuries. Pregnant women should not perform this pose in any case.

Question 22.
Describe exercise guidelines at different stages of growth in children. Give suitable examples for every stage. [5]
Answer:
Excerise guidelines at different stages of growth: Development is a never ending process whereas growth refers to an increase caused by physiological change in which the child becomes bigger in size and heavier in weight. As every individual is unique in himself, individual differences and specificity of activity should be considered.

(i) Infant activity (0 to 2 yrs.) : In this stage, the growth pattern involves control over big muscles. Clean, safe and hygienic environment is the need in this stage. In this tender age, the activities have to be done under the observation of parents and guardians. Main exercises for this tender age are practice of balancing, walking and hearing from different directions.

(ii) Early childhood activity (3 to 8 yrs) : During this stage of growth, the pattern involves control over small muscles and bone development. The environment needed at this stage should be clean and safe, moreover proper checks by parents and teachers are required. Suggested sports- Running, throwing etc. Parents should keep a check that he or she does not fall on ground to avoid injuries.

(iii) Later childhood activities (8 to 12 yrs): During this stage, flexibility and co-ordinated activity of growth occurs. During this stage of growth, good quality apparatus and safety measures should be considered. Wrong hab-its should be checked. Suggested exercise and sports—100 metres races, hanging from horizontal bars, Cricket, Football, Tennis, Judo, Karate etc.

Question 23.
Write in detail about the various tests items and their administration of the American Alliance for Health, Physical Education and Recreation (AAHPER) Test. ** [5]

Question 24.
What are the long term effects of regular exercise on the cardio-vascular system ? Explain. [5]
Answer:
Effect of exercise on the cardio-vascular system:

1. Cardiac output increases : The cardiac output tends to increase as a result of regular exercise.
2. Resting heart rate decreases : The resting heart rate decreases due to regular exercise. After a duration of 10 week training programme, the resting rate may reduce upto 10 beats/min from the normal 72 beats/min.
3. Stroke volume increases at resting condition : The stroke volume at rest remains up to 50-70 ml/beat in untrained individuals, but in trained individuals it ranges from 70-90 ml/beat.
4. Blood volume increases : The blood volume increases due to regular exercises. Actually, as the blood volume increases, there is an increase in plasma volume. Also, the body produces a greater number of red blood cells.
5. Blood flow increases : The body increases its number of capillaries to the requirement of supplying more oxygen during exercise to the muscles. The existing capillaries open wider as well.

Question 25.
What is aerodynamics ? Describe the various forces of aerodynamics. ** [5]

Question 26.
What is circuit training ? Draw a diagram of 10 stations to improve general fitness. How can load be increased in circuit training ? [5]
Answer:
Circuit training is a formal type of training in which an athlete goes through a series of selected exercises that are arranged in a circuit with 5 to 10 stations. In circuit training, several exercises are done one after the another. Completion of one set of each exercise in rotation is called one round. It was designed by GT Anderson and RE Morgan in 1953. It is very effective method for strength, speed and endurance development.

In circuit training, the load can be increased in the following two ways :

1. By increasing the duration
2. By enhancing the intensity of sportsperson.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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NTSE Chhattisgarh 2019-20: State council of educational research and training Chattisgarh has released the notification for the NTSE Exam for class 10 students for the year 2019-20. The second stage of the NTSE Chattisgarh exam is going to be conducted on June 16, 2020. The students that qualify the NTSE stage 1 exam are eligible to appear in the NTSE Chattisgarh stage 2 exam conducted by the NCERT.

SCERT Chattisgarh will conduct the NTSE Chattisgarh exam for class 10 in various centers in Chattisgarh. The students that qualify the stage 1 exam will be eligible for appearing in the NTSE stage 2 exam conducted by the NCERT. NTSE Chattisgarh test center details:

Kendriya Vidyalaya no. 2,
Sector 4, Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Nagar,
Raipur, Chhattisgarh – 492010

NTSE Chhattisgarh Important Dates

State-level National Talent Search Exam

NTSE Chhattisgarh Application Form

The application form for NTSE Chattisgarh for stage 1 exam will be released in the last week of August. Application forms can be downloaded using the SCERT official website which is scert.cg.gov.in on or before the final date. Below is the step by step process to download the NTSE Chhattisgarh application form:

• The candidates that appearing for the NTSE exam and applying through online mode are instructed to fill the application form and submit the form.
• However, for filling the application form, candidates need to register themselves on the official NTSE exam website.
• After registration is done successfully, candidates need to download the application form from the main website of the university.
• Then the candidates need to keep all the important documents ready to fill in with the application form.
• During the filling of the application form, candidates will be required to enter the personal details, contact details, course-related details, and more additional details will be required.
• Candidates are advised to fill all the details in the application form properly and correctly.
• Once the details are entered in the application form completely, candidates are instructed to upload the relevant documents with the application form in the size and format mentioned on the main website.
• Once the procedure for filling the application form is done applicants are requested to take a printout of the application form.
• After that applicant has to pay the application fee as mentioned below.
• After the application form is duly signed, submit it before the due date and complete your application process.

NTSE Chattisgarh Eligibility Criteria

• For class 10 students, the student must be studying in the recognized school or is eligible to appear for the stage 1 exam conducted by the state
• Candidates that will qualify for the stage 1 exam are eligible for appearing in the NTSE Chattisgarh stage 2 exam.
• Candidates that are selected in stage 2 exam will be provided Rs. 1250/month in 11th as well as 12th. For candidates studying in graduation and post-graduation, Rs. 2000/month will be given based on UGC norms.

NTSE Chhattisgarh Exam Admit Card

NTSE stage 2 exam for class 10 is going to conducted on June 16, 2020. Candidates can download the admit through the official website of NTSE Chattisgarh.

NTSE Chhattisgarh Result and Answer Key

The result for the NTSE Chattisgarh stage 1 exam can download online. The results for stage 1 of the NTSE exam is going to be released by SCERT. Candidates that have appeared for the exam can check their result by visiting the official website. There are two lists that will be released by SCERT. In the first list, all the qualified candidates that are appearing for the exam will be given while the second list contains the overall result.

The official answer key for the NTSE Chattisgarh stage 1 exam will also be published by SCERT. Candidates can check the answer key for stage 1 by visiting the official website.

NTSE Chhattisgarh Exam Pattern

Below is the NTSE Chhattisgarh  2020 exam pattern:

1. Each right answer in MAT, as well as SAT stage 1 exam, carries 1 mark. Also, there are no negative marks in any of this section.
2. SAT and MAT sections in the NTSE stage 1 exam have MCQs with 4 options. Candidates need to mark the correct answer to each question given on the OMR sheet.
3. The LCT section given is just for the qualifying exam. The marks scored in this section will not be added in the final score of the candidate. Thus, it is not considered as a decisive factor in the last stage of the state-level merit list.
4. The SAT section given evaluates candidates’ knowledge and most likely covers subjects like science, mathematics, and social science for class 10 and 12 levels.
5. The MAT section evaluates candidates’ ability to think, reasoning skills, and spatial orientation, etc. Questions that are asked in the MAR section are based on series, analogies, coding-decoding, patterns, problem-solving, etc.

NTSE Chhattisgarh Exam Scholarship

Under the NTSE program, approximately 2000 students are selected for the scholarship. This scholarship is distributed every year by the national organizing body. Students that are selected through NTSE Chhattisgarh stage 1 are selected for stage 2 exam.

The post NTSE Chhattisgarh 2019-20 | Exam Dates, Application Form, Eligibility, Syllabus appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics With Solutions PDF

Download CBSE Previous Year Economics Question Papers Class 12 PDF to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important topics to be prepared for CBSE Class 12 Economics board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE previous year question papers class 12 Economics with solutions.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics With Solutions

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Maths 2013 Delhi

Time allowed: 3 hours
Maximum marks : 100

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper consists of 29 questions divided into four sections A, B, C and D. Section A comprises of 4 questions of one mark each, Section B comprises of 8 questions of two marks each, Section C comprises of 11 questions of four marks each and Section D comprises of 6 questions of six marks each.
• All questions in Section A are to be answered in one word, one sentence or as per the exact requirement of the question.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in 1 question of Section A, 3 questions of Section B, 3 questions of Section C and 3 questions of Section D. You have to attempt only one of the alternatives in all such questions.
• Use of calculators is not permitted. You may ask for logarithmic tables, if required.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Maths 2013 Delhi Set I

Section – A

Question 1.
Write the principal value of tan^-1(1) + cos^-1. [1]
Solution:

Question 2.
Write the value of tan 2 tan(2 tan^-1). [1]
Solution:

Question 3.
Find the value of a if
[1]
Solution:

Question 4.
If then write the value of x.
Solution:

Question 5.
If , then find the matrix A. [1]
Solution:

Question 6.
Write the degree of the differential equation [1]

Solution:
The degree of the given differential equation is 2.

Question 7.
If are two equal vectors, then write the value of x + y + z. [1]
Solution:

Question 8.
If a unit vector makes angle with with and an acute angle θ with k then find the value of θ. [1]
Solution:

Question 9.
Find the cartesian equation of the line which passes through the point (- 2, 4, – 5) and is parallel to the line [1]

Solution:
Direction ratios of the line parallel to

Question 10.
The amount of pollution content added in air in a city to x-diesel vehicles is given by P(x) = 0.005x³ + 0.02x² + 30x. Find the marginal increase in pollution content when 3 diesel vehicles are added and write which value is indicated in the above question. [1]
Solution:
Here, pollution content is given by
P(x) = 0.005x³ + 0.02x² + 30x
where x is the number of diesel vehicles.

The value indicated in the question is diesel vehicles causes environmental pollution.

Section – B

Question 11.
Show that the function f in A = R- defined as f(x) = is one-one and onto. Hence find f^-1. [4]
Solution:

Question 12.
Find the value of the following:

Solution:

OR
Prove that:

Solution:
L. H. S

Question 13.
Using properties of determinants, prove the following: [4]

Solution:

Question 14.
Differentiate the following function with respect to x:
(log x)^x + x^logx [4]
Solution:
Let, y = (log x)^x + x^logx

Question 15.
If y = log[x + ], show that [4]

Solution:

Question 16.
Show that the function f(x) = | x - 3|, x ϵ R, is continuous but not differentiable at x = 3. [4]
Solution:
Given, f(x) = | x - 3|, x ϵ R

OR
If x = a sin t and y = a (cos t + log tan t/2), find .
Solution:
Given, x = a sin t

Question 17.
Evaluate: [4]

Solution:

OR
Evaluate:

Solution:

Question 18.
Evaluate: [4]

Solution:

Question 19.
Evaluate: [4]

Solution:

Question 20.
If are two vectors such that , then prove that vector is perpendicular to vector . [4]
Solution:
Given,

Question 21.
Find the coordinates of the point, where the line intersects the plane x - y + z - 5 = 0. Also find the angle between the line and the plane. [4]
Solution:
Equation of the line is
= k (say) ..(i)
∴ Point on line is (3k + 2, 4k - 1, 2k + 2).
If it lies on the plane x - y + z - 5 = 0 ...(ii)
then (3k + 2) - (4k - 1) + (2k + 2) - 5 = 0
⇒ 3k + 2- 4k + 1 + 2k - 3 = 0
⇒ k = 0
∴ Point is (2, - 1, 2)
(2, - 1, 2) is the point on line (i), where it intersects (ii).
If 0 is the angle between line (i) and plane (ii), then

OR
Find the vector equation of the plane which contains the line of intersection of the planes and which is perpendicular to the plane

Solution:
Given planes are

Question 22.
A speaks truth in 60% of the cases, while B in 90% of the cases. In what percent of cases are they likely to contradict each other in stating the same fact ? In the cases of contradiction do you . think, the statement of B will carry more weight as he speaks truth in more number of cases then A? [4]
Solution:
Probability of A speaking the truth is

Section - C

Question 23.
A school wants to award its students for the values of Honesty, Regularity and Hard work with a total cash award of ₹ 6,000. Three times the award money for Hard work added to that given for honesty amounts to ₹ 11,000. The award money given for Honesty and Hard work together is double the one given for Regularity. Represent the above situation algebraically and find the award money for each value, using matrix method. Apart from these values namely, Honesty, Regularity and Hard work, suggest one more value which the school must include for awards. [6]
Solution:
Let award for honesty be ₹ x
award for regularity be ₹ y
and award for hardwork be ₹ z.
According to question,



Apart from honesty, regularity and hard work, the school must include an award for a student to be well behaved.

Question 24.
Show that the height of the cylinder of maximum volume, that can be inscribed in a sphere of radius R is . Also find the maximum volume. [6]
Solution:
From the figure:



OR
Find the equation of the normal at a point on the curve x² = 4y which passes through the point (1, 2). Also find the equation of the corresponding tangent.
Solution:
The given curve is
x² = 4y ...(i)
Let (x₁, y₁) be the required point on curve
x₁² = 4y₁ ...(ii)
Differentiating eq. (i) w.r.t. x, we get

Question 25.
Using integration, find the area bounded by the curve x² = 4y and the line x = 4y - 2. [6]
Solution:
The equation of the given curves are :
x² = 4y ...(i)
x = 4y - 2 ...(ii)


OR
Using integration, find the area of the region enclosed between the two circles x² + y² = 4 and (x- 2 )² + y² = 4.
Solution:
The given circles are :
x² + y² = 4 ..(i)
and (x - 2)² + y² = 4 ...(ii)

Question 26.
Show that the differential equation 2ye^x/ydx + (y - 2 xe^x/y) dy = 0 is homogeneous. Find the particular solution of this differential equation, given that x = 0, when y = 1. [6]
Solution:
The given differential equation is
2ye^x/y dx + (y - 2xe^x/y) dy = 0
Separate the given differential equation, we get

Question 27.
Find the vector equation of the plane passing through three points with position vectors Also find the coordinates of the point of intersection of this plane and the line . [6]
Solution:
The given points are

Question 28.
A cooperative society of farmers has 50 hectares of land to grow two crops A and B. The profits from crops A and B per hectare are estimated as ₹ 10,500 and ₹ 9,000 respectively. To control weeds, a liquid herbicide has to be used for crops A and B at the rate of 20 litre and 10 litre per hectare, respectively. Further not more than 800 litres of herbicide should be used in order to protect fish and wildlife using a pond which collects drainage from this land. Keeping in mind that the protection of fish and other wildlife is more important than earning profit, how much land should be allocated to each crop so as to maximize the total profit ? Form an LPP from the above and solve it graphically. Do you agree with the message that the protection of wildlife is utmost necessary to preserve the balance in environment ? [6]
Solution:
Let x hectare and y hectare be allotted to grow crops A and B respectively. Then the L.P.P. is maximize:
Z = 10,500 x + 9,000 y subject to constraints,
x + y ≤ 50
20x + 10y ≤ 800
=> 2x + y ≤ 80
and x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
First we draw the line AB and CD whose equations are
x + y = 50 ...(i)


∴ The feasible region is ODPAO which is shaded in the figure.
P is the point of intersection of the lines
x + y = 50
2x + y =80
Solving these equations, we get point P (30, 20).
The vertices of the feasible region are (0, 0), D (40, 0), P (30, 20) and A (0, 50).The value of objective function Z = 10,500 x + 9,000 y at these vertices are as follows :

∴ The maximum profit is 4,95,000 at point P (30, 20). Yes, I agree with the message in the question.

Question 29.
Assume that the chances of a patient having a heart attack is 40%. Assuming that a meditation and yoga course reduces the risk of heart attack by 30% and prescription of certain drug reduces its chance by 25%. At a time a patient can choose any one of the two options with equal possibilities. It is given that after going through one of the two options, the patient selected at random suffers a heart attack. Find the probability that the patient followed a course of meditation and yoga. Interpret the result and state which of the above stated methods is more beneficial for the patient. [6]
Solution:
Let E₁ be taking a course of meditation and yoga and E₂ be taking a course of drugs.
A be the patient gets a heart attack.


Since, P(E₁/A) < P(E₂/A) the course of yoga and meditation is more beneficial for a person having chances of heart attack.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Maths 2013 Delhi Set II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Section - A

Question 3.
Find the value of b if [1]

Solution:

Question 9.
Write the degree of the differential equation [1]

Solution:
The degree of the differential equation

Section - B

Question 16.
P speaks truth in 70% of the cases and Q in 80% of the cases. In what percent of cases are they likely to agree in stating the same fact ?
Do you think, when they agree, means both are speaking truth ? [4]
Solution:
Probability of P speaking the truth is

No, not necessarily when they agree there may be case in which they both does not speak truth.

Question 18.
If , find a vector , such that . [4]
Solution:

Question 19.
Evaluate: . [4]
Solution:

Question 20.
Evaluate : [4]

Solution:

Section - C

Question 28.
Show that the differential equation is homogeneous. Find the particular solution of this differential equation given that x = 1 when y = . [6]
Solution:
The given differential equation is

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Maths 2013 Delhi Set III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Section - A

Question 2.
Write, unit vector in the direction of the sum of vectors . [1]
Solution:

Question 4.
Write the degree of the differential equation [1]

Solution:
The given differential equation is

Section - B

Question 11.
A speaks truth in 75% of the cases, while B in 90% of the cases. In what percent of cases are they likely to contradict each other in stating the same fact ? Do you think that statement of B is true ? [4]
Solution:
Let, the probability that A and B speak truth be P(A) and P(B) respectively.

Question 13.
Using vectors, find the area of the triangle ABC with vertices A (1, 2, 3), B (2, - 1, 4) and C (4, 5, -1). [4]
Solution:
The vertices of ∆ ABC are A (1, 2, 3), B (2, -1, 4) and C (4, 5, - 1).
∴ = Position vector of B - Position vector of A

Question 14.
Evaluate: . [1]
Solution:

Question 15.
Evaluate: [4]

Solution:

Section - C

Question 25.
Find the coordinates of the point where the line through (3, -4, -5) and (2, - 3, 1) crosses the plane, passing through the points (2, 2, 1), (3, 0, 1) and (4, -1, 0). [6]
Solution:
The equation of the straight line passing through the point (3, -4, -5) and (2, - 3, 1) is

Question 26.
Show that the differential equation (xe^y/x + y) dx = xdy is homogeneous. Find the particular solution of this differential equation, given that x = 1 when y = 1. [6]
Solution:
The given differential equation is

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science With Solutions PDF

Download CBSE Previous Year Political Science Question Papers Class 12 PDF to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important topics to be prepared for CBSE Class 12 Political Science board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE previous year question papers class 12 Political Science with solutions.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science With Solutions

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography With Solutions PDF

Download CBSE Previous Year Geography Question Papers Class 12 PDF to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important topics to be prepared for CBSE Class 12 Geography board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE previous year question papers class 12 Geography with solutions.

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History With Solutions PDF

Download CBSE Previous Year History Question Papers Class 12 PDF to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important topics to be prepared for CBSE Class 12 History board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE previous year question papers class 12 History with solutions.

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Sociology With Solutions PDF

Download CBSE Previous Year Sociology Question Papers Class 12 PDF to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important topics to be prepared for CBSE Class 12 Sociology board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE previous year question papers class 12 Sociology with solutions.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Sociology With Solutions

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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NTSE Rajasthan 2019-20: Board of Secondary Education (BSE) will conduct the NTSE Rajasthan on 3rd November 2019. The Rajasthan application process will start in the fourth week of August 2019. Class 10th students can apply for NTSE Rajasthan till the second week of September 2019. NTSE Rajasthan admit card will be released online in the third week of October 2019. The NTSE stage 1 qualified candidates will only be invited to appear for the stage 2 exam conducted by NCERT. Finally, shortlisted ones will be awarded scholarships for their higher studies.

NCERT provides scholarships to talented students in India to help them economically. Students should read the article below to get information about NTSE Rajasthan 2019-20. Information including exam dates, eligibility, admit card, answer key and question pattern, etc.

NTSE Rajasthan Exam Dates

State-level National Talent Search Exam

NTSE Rajasthan Eligibility Criteria

Refer to the below eligibility conditions to appear for the NTSE Rajasthan 2019-20.

• Students studying in Navodaya Vidyalaya, Kendriya Vidyalaya or any Rajasthan Board affiliated schools.
• Class 10th regular students of Rajasthan who are studying in the academic year of 2019-20.
• General category students who have obtained at least 55% marks in Class 9th.
• Reserved category students who have obtained at least 50% marks in Class 9th.
• The age limit must be less than 18 years as on 1st July 2019 to apply for NTSE Rajasthan.
• Students who are employed in any job are not eligible.
• Students who are getting a scholarship from any other source are not eligible for this year.
• NMMS scholarship holders are also eligible to apply for NTSE Rajasthan.

NTSE Rajasthan Application Form

The application form will be released online by BSE, Rajasthan in the last week of August 2019. Students can download the application from the official website and submit it on or before the 2nd week of September 2019. Otherwise, students have to submit the application along with late fee on or before the 4th week of September 2019. Students must refer to the below-mentioned information to apply for NTSE Rajasthan 2019-20.

• Visit the official website rajeduboard.rajasthan.gov.in to download the application form.
• Make sure to fill correct and valid information in NTSE Rajasthan application.
• Any misperception in the application may lead to the cancellation of the form by the BSE.
• Students must attach their passport size photo with a signature in the application and photocopies of 9th class mark sheets.
• Students must upload the photocopies of 9th class mark sheets and other necessary documents.
• Submit the filled application along with the fee to the school Principal.
• From school, the applications will be submitted further to the state liaison officer.

NTSE Rajasthan Application Fee

Applicants have to pay the application fee along with the form to appear for the NTSE Rajasthan Stage 1. Refer the table below to know the application fee for NTSE Rajasthan 2019-20.

NTSE Rajasthan Admit Card

• The admit card will be released by BSE in the third week of October 2019.
• Students can collect the admit card from their respective schools some days before the exam.
• Students can find their name, roll number, date, time and exam center details in the admit card.
• Since the admit card is the ID proof of the students, they must carry it to the exam hall.
• Without the admit card, entry to the examination hall is not allowed.

NTSE Rajasthan Question Pattern

Students must remember the NTSE Rajasthan exam pattern while preparing for the exam. The NTSE Rajasthan contains two sections i.e, the Mental Ability Test (MAT) and Scholastic Ability Test (SAT). The exam will be held in English and Hindi using pen and paper. Refer to the table below to know the exam pattern for NTSE Rajasthan Stage 1.

• Each right answer carries 1 mark whereas the wrong answer carries no negative marking.
• MAT questions test the candidates thinking abilities, verbal and non-verbal reasoning skills.
• SAT questions test the candidate’s knowledge on each subject of their class 9th and 10th syllabus.
• Both the sections contain 200 questions with a duration of 240 minutes.
• Students can expect the class 9th and 10th syllabus questions in the exam.

NTSE Rajasthan Answer Key

The official answer key will be published online by BSE, Rajasthan in November 2019. Some coaching institutes also publish the answer keys on their websites after the exam. By using the answer keys candidates can compare their answers with the correct ones and estimate their expected scores. In answer keys, candidates can find the correct answer to each question asked in MAT and SAT. The following points are given to check the NTSE Rajasthan answer keys:

1. Visit the official website rajeduboard.rajasthan.gov.in to download the answer keys.
2. Answer keys will be available in the pdf format.
3. If any student has an objection for any particular answer then they can contact the board of education using bserobjection@gmail.com.
4. Answer keys help the students to estimate the scores and determine their eligibility to appear for stage 2 exam.
5. Students must remember the exam pattern and cut-off scores while comparing the answers.

NTSE Rajasthan Exam Result

NTSE Rajasthan result will be released along with the cut-off by BSE. The result will be released on the official website in the second week of February 2020. The result will be downloaded in pdf format containing the name and scores of qualified candidates. The merit list contains only the eligible candidate’s names who can appear in the NTSE stage 2 to be held on May 10, 2020. Refer to the steps below to check the NTSE Rajasthan exam results:

• Visit the official website rajeduboard.rajasthan.gov.in.
• Click on the result link to download the pdf file of results.
• Check your name in the downloaded pdf file.
• Keep a photocopy of the NTSE Rajasthan result for future purpose.

Details Mentioned on NTSE Rajasthan Exam Result

Candidates can check the merit list on the official website of BSE, Rajasthan. The NTSE Rajasthan merit list contains the below-mentioned information.

• Roll Number, School, Name, and Rank of the candidates
• Total scores and Marks obtained in MAT & SAT
• Date of Birth, Gender, Category, and Disability Status of the candidate

NTSE Rajasthan Stage 1 Cut-Off

The cut-off is the minimum score a candidate must get it to be eligible for the stage 2 exam. Rajasthan cut-off will be declared along with the result by BSE. The NTSE Rajasthan cut-off will be released in the 2nd week of February 2020. The NTSE Rajasthan cut-off depends on various factors as given below:

• Total number of candidates
• Maximum marks obtained by the candidate in the exam
• Lowest marks obtained by the candidate in the exam
• The exam difficulty level
• Previous year’s cut-off

The NTSE Rajasthan cut-off is different for different categories. Refer to the table below to find the previous year’s category-wise cut-off for NTSE Rajasthan.

Candidates can check the category-wise qualifying cut-off for NTSE Rajasthan.

NTSE Rajasthan Reservation Criteria

Total 485 scholarships are reserved for Rajasthan state. Based on the below reservation percentages students will be selected by BSE, Rajasthan.

NTSE Rajasthan Stage 1 Syllabus

The education board has not specified any syllabus for NTSE Rajasthan stage 1. However, candidates can practice the questions from the Rajasthan board class 9th and 10th syllabus. Refer to the table below to know the important topics for NTSE Rajasthan.

NTSE Scholarship Amount 2019

Rajasthan students who qualified in NTSE Stage 2 will get the below scholarship amount from NCERT every month.

FAQ’s on NTSE Rajasthan 2019

Question 1.
What is the marking strategy of NTSE Rajasthan?

Answer:
NTSE Rajasthan consists of two sections i.e, MAT and SAT. Both sections contain a total of 200 questions with a duration of 240 minutes. There is no negative marking for wrong answers. 1 mark will be assigned to each right answer.

Question 2.
What is the reservation criteria in NTSE Rajasthan 2019?

Answer:
Total 485 scholarships are reserved for Rajasthan state. BSE, Rajasthan will select the candidates based on the reservation percentage. These are 15% for SC, 7.5% for ST and 4% for PH.

Question 3.
How do I check my NTSE Rajasthan result?

Answer:
The result will be released online in the form of merit list by BSE, Rajasthan. Students can visit the official website rajeduboard.rajasthan.gov.in to download the pdf file of results. After that students can check the result by searching their names in the merit list.

Question 4.
Is the answer keys helpful for NTSE Rajasthan students?

Answer:
Yes, answer keys helps students to estimate their probable scores and determine the eligibility status for NTSE stage 2.

Question 5.
What will be the release date of NTSE Rajasthan application form?

Answer:
The application form will be released on the official website of BSE, Rajasthan. Students can download the application in the last week of August 2019 and submit it in the 2nd week of September 2019, excluding the late fee. Otherwise, the application can be submitted in the 4th week of September 2019, including the late fee.

Question 6.
How much application fee will be paid for NTSE Rajasthan?

Answer:
General category students have to pay the application fee of Rs. 200/- excluding the late fee and Rs. 250/- including the late fee. Whereas reserved category students have to pay the application fee of Rs. 140/- excluding the late fee and Rs. 180/- including the late fee.

Hope this article will help you to get information about NTSE Rajasthan 2019-20. For any queries in NTSE Rajasthan, leave your queries in the comment box to get in touch with us.

The post NTSE Rajasthan 2019-20 for Class X | Exam Dates, Eligibility, Answer Key and Syllabus appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics Re-Exam 2018

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 80

General Instructions:

• All question in both sections are compulsory.
• Marks for questions are indicated against each questions.
• Question Nos. 1-4 and 13-16 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 marks each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
• Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18 are short- answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
• Question No. 7-9 and 19-21 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
• Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24 are long- answer questions carrying 6 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
• Answer should be brief and to the point and the above words limits should be adhered to as far as possible.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics Re-Exam 2018

SECTION — A      [30]

Question 1.
Which of the following measures of price elasticity shows elastic supply ? [1] (Choose the correct alternative)
(a) 0
(b) 0.5
(c) 1.0
(d) 1.5
Answer:
(d) 1.5

Question 2.
Define opportunity cost. [1]
Answer:
Opportunity cost is the cost of availing one opportunity in terms of the loss of the other opportunity.

Question 3.
At what level of production is total cost equal to the total fixed cost? [1]
Answer:
At zero level of production, the total cost is equal to total fixed cost.

Question 4.
Which of the following does not cause a shift of supply curve of a good? (Choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Price of input
(b) Price of the good
(c) Goods and services tax
(d) Subsidy
Answer:
(b) Price of the good.

Question 5.
A consumer buys 200 units of a good at a price of ₹ 20 per unit. Price elasticity of demand is (-) 2. At what price will he be willing to purchase 300 units? Calculate. [3]
Answer:
Original Price (P) = ₹ 20
Per Unit Original Quantity (θ) = 200 Units
Elasticity of’demand (E_d) = (-) 2
New Qty. (θ₁) = 300 Units .
New Price (P₁) = ?
Change in Qty. = New Qty. — Original Qty.
(Δθ) = 300 – 200 = 100 Units
New Price (P₁) = ΔP – P
(Change in Price – Original Price)
Utilizing the formula:
E_d =
E_d = Price elasticity of demand
Δθ = Change in Qty.
ΔP = Change in Price
P = Original Price
Q = Original Qty.

(-) sign is ignored since it tells only the inverse relationship between Price and Qty. demanded.
New Price (P₁) = P – ΔP
= ₹20 – ₹5 = ₹ 15
Hence, New Price (P₁) will be ₹ 15 at New Qty. of 300 units.

Question 6.
Explain the central problem of “What is to be produced and in what quantities”. [3]
OR
In what circumstances may the production possibility frontier shift away from the origin? Explain.
Answer:
It is the problem of choosing which goods and services should be produced and in what quantities. The economy cannot have more of everything with available resources at the same time. Thus, society has to decide between consumer goods and producer goods etc. Since resources are limited, all goods and services desired cannot be produced at the same time. So, the society has to decide which goods are to be produced and also the quantities in which they should be produced. Hence, the problem is related with two aspects i.e.,
(i) Which commodity should be produced ? (ii) In how much quantity ?
OR
Shifting away of PPC from the origin means the rightward shift of production possibility frontier. It takes place because of the two main reasons:
(i) When resources of an economy increase: It may be in the form of discovery of new natural resources, availability of new machinery through saving and investment and increase in skilled and unskilled labour through population growth.
(ii) When there is an improvement in technology: It happens as a result of the work of scientists, engineers and inventors over a long period of time. In this case, more of the two goods can be produced with the given amount of resources, causing shift of PPC to the right. Rightward shifting can be shown through the following figure:

Question 7.
Explain the implications of “Freedom of entry and exit of firms” under perfect competition. [4]
Answer:
A firm can enter or leave the industry any time. The free entry and exit of the firm is possible only in the long period, not in the short period. Because of free entry and exit, firms in the long run earn only normal profits. (TR = TC or AR = AC). In case super normal profits are earned, new firms will get attracted and join the industry. Market supply will increase and extra profit will wipe out. In case of super normal losses, some of the existing firms will leave the industry. Market supply will decrease and hence, price will increase so extra losses will wipe out. In this way, firms can only earn normal profit in the long run.

Question 8.
Write a budget line equation of a consumer if the two goods purchased by the consumer, Good X and Good Y are priced at ₹ 10 and ₹ 5 respectively and the consumer’s income is ₹ 100. [4]
OR
Define marginal rate of substitution. Explain its behaviour along an indifference curve.
Answer:
Lets take the Price of Good X = P₁
Price of Good Y = P₂
Consumer’s income = Y’
According to the sum,
P₁ = ₹ 10,
P₂ = ₹ 5
Y¹ = ₹ 100
Hence, budget equation is
P₁X + P₂Y = Y’
10X + 5Y = 100
OR
Marginal Rate of Substitution is the rate at which the consumer is ready to sacrifice some amount of good 1 for obtaining one more unit of another good 2 without affecting his total utility.
For example, a consumer has a bundle of two goods, say, 2x + 10y and shifts to another bundle of 3x + 6y maintaining the same level of satisfaction (total utility). Here, MRS is 4 (10 – 6) units of y which the consumer is willing to giving up to obtain an extra unit of x = (3x – 2x). It can also be illustrated with the help of the given figure.

The two points A & B are taken on IC curve. At point A, a consumer gets a combination of OR (= MA) of good y and OM (= RA) of good X. Suppose he shifts from point A to point B where he gets combination of OS (= MC) of good y and ON (= SB) of good X. By this change, he loses AC (MA – MC) amount of good y and gains CB (ON – OM) amount of good X which means he is willing to substitute good X for good Y.
The slope of MRS can be understood as:

Question 9.
Explain the conditions of producer’s equilibrium under perfect competition.
Answer:
A producer is said to be in equilibrium at that level of output which gives him the maximum profit and he has no incentive to increase or decrease further. A producer attains equilibrium when following two conditions are fulfilled simultaneously.
(i) MC = MR (It is expressed as P = MC under perfect competition)
(ii) MC is greater than MR after MC = MR output level or MC curve cuts MR curve from below.
It can be explained with the help of a schedule and its graph.

In the above schedule, Price (P) is constant and P = AR = MR. In the above schedule, condition 1 is satisfied initially at 2 level of units but the second condition is not satisfied thereafter since MC is below than MR at the next level so, producer is not in equilibrium.
Again at unit 4 MR = MC and MC is greater than MR thereafter so, producer will be in equilibrium at unit 4.

The situation is also shown in the graph. Under perfect competition, Price line is parallel to X-axis because it is constant and therefore, P = AR = MR. MC curve is as usual U-shaped which intersects MR (Price) curve at two points A and B. It means MR = MC at two places. But point B is only satisfying both the conditions essential for equilibrium, hence producer will be in equilibrium at point B.

Question 10.
Draw Average Variable Cost (AVC), Average Total Cost (ATC) and Marginal Cost (MC) curves in a single diagram. State the relation between MC curve and AVC & ATC curves.
[6]
Answer:

Relation between MC and AVC—
(i) When AVC falls, MC < AVC or AVC falls only when MC < AVC. (Diagrammatically MC curve lies below AVC curve till their intersection).
(ii) When AVC is minimum, MC = AVC or AVC is constant or minimum when MC AVC (Diagrammatically the point where MC curve intersects AVC curve is the minimum point of AVC).
(iii) When AVC rises, MC is more than AVC or AVC rises when MC > AVC. (Diagrammatically MC lies above AVC curve after intersecting AVC at its minimum point).

Relation between MC and ATC
(i) When AC (i.e., ATC) falls, MC< AC
(ii) When AC is constant, MC = AC
(iii) When AC rises, MC > AC

Question 11.
Define price floor. Explain the implications of price floor. [6]
OR
Market of a good is in equilibrium. Demand for the good ‘decreases’. Explain the chain of effects of this change.
Answer:
When Government fixes price of a product at a level higher than the equilibrium price, it is called support price (or floor price). It is the minimum price at which the producer must be paid for their products. Support price is generally fixed for agricultural products like food grains, sugar etc; to safeguard the interest of producers (farmers). For instance, Food Corporation of India (FCI) purchases wheat from the farmers at its fixed price and stores it in godown as buffer stock. The aim of support price is to insulate farmers from the fluctuations in their incomes caused by the price variations in the free market.

This figure shows OP as the equilibrium price and OQ as equilibrium quantity of wheat. The government fixes price at OP₁, slightly above equilibrium price OP. Traders in the market are now bound to pay at OP₁, but, a rise in price causes market demand to contract from OQ to OQ₂, on the other hand market supply expands from OQ₂ to OQ₁– There emerges excess supply AB = Q₁Q₂ (OQ₂ – OQ₁). The government buys this surplus and stores it as a buffer stock.
The following are the implications of price floor:

1. Assurance to the Farmers- The imposition of the price floor assures the farmers that whatever they produce will get sold in the market. This implies that the farmers can produce to their maximum.
2. Assurance of Retums- Due to the price floor, the farmers need not to bother about the sale of their output. This ensures a minimum garuanteed return to their investment in the production process.
3. Higher Income- The minimum guaranteed returns in form of minimum price and minimum wage to labourers result in increase in the income of the poor people.
4. Burden on Consumers- Price floor exerts additional pressure on the consumers and the traders, as they need to buy the products at comparatively higher price instead of the equilibrium price.
5. Burden on Govemment- It also puts extra burden ont the government revenues. It becomes mandatory for the government to purchase the excess produce, even if it runs a sufficient volume of buffer stocks.
6. Higher Taxes- The government tries to shift the burden (associated with purchasing the excess produce at higher price) to the consumers and the traders in form of higher taxes.

OR
Market of a good is in equilibrium. If the demand for the good decreases, it will have the effects as shown through the following figure:

• D₁D₁ is the initial demand curve and SS is the supply curve.
• Both curves are cutting at point E which is the equilibrium point.
• At point E OP₁ is the equilibrium price and OQ₁ is the equilibrium quantity.
• As the demand decreases, D₁D₁ shifts to D₂D₂ in left.
• At the existing Price OP₁ demand falls from E to F.
• As an immediate impact, there is excess supply in the market. It is EF (at the existing price.)
• Due to excess supply, price falls from OP₁ to OP₂. Due to the fall in price, the quantity supplied tends to contract. The contraction of supply occurs from E to F.
• The above process continues till excess supply is fully eliminated, and the market clears itself once again.
• The net effect of decrease in demand is
  • decrease in equilibrium price from OP₁ to OP₂ and
  • decrease in equilibrium quantity from OQ₁ to OQ₂.

Question 12.
A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y. Explain the conditions of consumer’s equilibrium using Utility Analysis. [6]
Answer:
When the consumer is consuming two commodities (say X and Y) he can reach the equilibrium when ratio of MU of a commodity to its price becomes equal to the ratio of MU of the other commodity to its price . Symbolically, it can be expressed as-

This equation also implies that if the price of the commodity x is equal to the price of the commodity y (Px = Py) the consumer will attain equilibrium when MU_x = MU_y.
It also means that satisf action is maximum when a rupee worth of MU is same in both the goods X and Y. Suppose a consumer has ₹ 20 with him to spend on two goods X and Y. Further suppose price of each unit of X is ₹ 5 and that of Y is ₹ 2. Now consumer may attain his equilibrium by utility approach in the following way:

For obtaining maximum satisfaction from spending his given income of ₹ 20, the consumer will buy 2’units of X, by spending ₹ 10 and 5 units of Y by spending ₹ 10. This combination of goods brings him maximum satisfaction because a rupee worth of MU in case of good X is 8 and in case of good Y is also 8 since per rupee
MU is same, there is no incentive for consumer to buy more of one good and less of the other good.

SECTION—B

Question 13.
Define aggregate supply. [1]
Answer:
Aggregate supply is the total production of goods and services in the economy during the year.

Question 14.
State the two components of M₁ measure of Money Supply. [1]
Answer:
The two components of M₁, measure of Money Supply are currency and demand deposits.

Question 15.
Credit creation by commercial banks is determined by (Choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(b) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
(c) Initial Deposits
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 16.
Give one example of negative externalities. [1]
Answer:
If you produce chemicals and cause pollution as a side effect, then local fishermen will not be able to catch fish. This loss of income will be the negative externality.

Question 17.
Define investment multiplier. How is it related to marginal propensity to consume ? [3]
Answer:
The number of times by which income increases as a result of increase in investment is called investment multiplier. Investment multiplier shows a relationship between initial increment in investment and the resulting increment in national income.
K =
where K = multiplier
ΔY = change in income
ΔI = change in investment
Relation of multiplier with MPC :

There is a direct relation between K and MPC. If MPC is high, K will also be high but if MPC is low K will also be low.

Question 18.
Distinguish between stock and flow variables with suitable examples. [3]
OR
What are capital goods ? How are they different from consumption goods ?
Answer:
Difference between stock and flow variables is:

Difference between capital goods and consumption goods is:

Question 19.
What is ex-Ante consumption ? Distinguish between autonomous consumption and induced consumption. [3]
Answer:
Ex-Ante consumption refers to planned or desired consumption expenditure of households. Consumption function is represented by:
C = +bY
Where,
C = Consumption expenditure
= Autonomous consumption
b = Marginal propensity to consume (MPC)
Y = National Income
Difference between Autonomous and Induced consumption:

Question 20.
What is monetary policy? State any three instruments of monetary policy. [4]
Answer:
Monetary Policy is the policy of the central bank of a country to regulate and control money supply and credit in the economy.

Bank rate: Bank rate is the rate of interest charged by the central bank on loans given to the commercial banks. In a situation of excess demand leading to inflation, central bank raises bank rate. This raises cost of borrowing which discourages commercial banks to borrow from the central bank. Raising bank rate forces the commercial banks to raise their lending rate of interest to consumers and investors. Thus, makes credit costlier. As a result, demand for loans falls or vice-versa.

Open Market Operations: It refers to the sale and purchase of government securities and bonds in the open market by the central bank. Sale of securities by central bank brings flow of money to central bank from commercial banks thereby restricting their lending capacity. During inflation, central bank sells Government securities to commercial banks which lose equivalent amount of cash reserve thereby affecting their capacity to offer loans. This absorbs liquidity from the system. As a result, there is a fall in investment and aggregate demand. Thus, it is an effective measure to control credit.

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): It is the ratio of bank deposits that a commercial bank must keep as reserve in cash with the central bank. It is compulsory for each commercial bank. When there is an inflationary situation, central bank raises the rate of CRR thereby making the banks to keep more cash reserve with RBI which curtails the lending capacity of commercial banks. Opposite takes place at the time of recursion. In this way, the central bank keeps control on the flow of money in an economy.

Question 21.
Define full employment in an economy. Discuss the situation when aggregate demand is more than aggregate supply at full employment income level. [4]
OR
What are two alternative ways of determining equilibrium level of income? How are these related ?
Answer:
Full employment refers to a situation in which every able bodied person who is willing to work at the prevailing rate of wages is, in fact, employed.
Excess demand or Inflationary gap: When in an economy, aggregate demand is in excess of aggregate supply at full employment, the situation is termed as excess demand and the gap created is called inflationary gap.
For example: Lets suppose an imaginary economy, where by employing all of its available resources, it can produce 10,000 qtls of rice. If aggregate demand for rice is, say 12,000 qtls, this demand will be called as excess demand and the gap between demand & supply is called inflationary gap.
The situation is shown through a graph:

In the graph, Point E lying on the 45° line is the full equilibrium point. This is an ideal situation because aggregate demand represented by EM is equal to full employment level of output represented by OM. The actual aggregate demand is for a level of output BM which is greater than full employment level of output EM (OM). Thus, the difference between the two is EB = (BM – EM) which is measure of inflationary gap.
OR
Equilibrium level of income is that level of income at which aggregate demand equals aggregate supply, (and planned savings equals planned investment)
The two different alternatives to reach at the equilibrium level of income are:
(i) Increase in Govt. Expenditure to pump more money in the system to increase demand. During the period of deficiency of demand, the Government should make large investments in public works like-construction of roads, bridges, buildings, railways, canals and provide free education and medical facilities although it may enlarge budget deficit. The aim is to give more money in the hands of people so that they should spend more.

(ii) Central bank should buy Govt, bonds and securities from commercial banks to increase cash stocks of banks for lending. By doing this money flow will increase in the economy. People will take loans from the banks to install new projects. More people will get jobs thus, income will increase, in turn, consumption will also increase and economy will move towards achieving equilibrium level of income.

Question 22.
Discuss briefly the meanings of: [6]
(i) Fixed Exchange Rate
(ii) Flexible Exchange Rate
(iii) Managed Floating Exchange Rate
Answer:
(i) Fixed Exchange Rate : Fixed exchange rate is the rate which is officially fixed by the government or monetary authority on a daily or monthly basis. In this system, foreign central banks stand ready to buy and sell their currencies at a fixed price. A typical kind of system was used under gold standard system in which each country committed itself to convert freely its currency into gold at a fixed price.

(ii) Flexible Exchange Rate: It is the rate which is determined by market force of supply and demand in the foreign exchange market. There is no official intervention. Here, the value of a currency is left completely free to be determined by market force of demand and supply of the currencies concerned. Under this system, the central banks, without intervention, allow the exchange rate to adjust so as to equate the supply and demand for foreign currency.

(iii) Managed Floating Exchange Rate: It is also called Dirty floating exchange rate. It is a system of floating exchange rate (where exchange rate is determined by the forces of demand and supply) but the one which the central bank of the country tries to manage by way of planned sale and purchase of foreign currencies in the international money market.

Question 23.
What is government budget? Explain its major components. [6]
OR
Explain (a) allocation of resources and (b) economic stability as ob j ectives of government budget.
Answer:
“A government budget is an annual financial statement showing estimated receipts and estimated expenditure of the government during a fiscal year.”
Components of the budget: The budget is divided into two main parts:
(i) Revenue Budget (ii) Capital Budget

(i) Revenue Budget : It comprises of current revenue receipts and current revenue expenditures met from such revenues. It includes the following components:
(a) Revenue Receipt : It includes tax revenue and non-tax revenue.
Tax Revenue: Tax revenue consist of proceeds of taxes and other duties levied by the union government. It may be direct or indirect taxes.
(i) Direct tax: When liability to pay a tax and the burden of that tax falls on the same person. The tax is called a direct tax. For e.g. income tax, corporate tax etc.
(ii) Indirect Tax: When liability to pay a tax is on one person and the burden of that tax falls on some other person, the tax is called an indirect tax. For e.g. custom duty, excise duty etc.

Non-tax Revenue : Income from sources other than taxes is called non-tax revenue. For e.g. interest, fees and fine, grant in aid etc.

(b) Revenue Expenditure: An expenditure which neither creates assets nor reduces liability is called revenue expenditure. For e.g. salaries of employees, interest, payment on past debt, subsidies etc.

(ii) Capital Budget: It comprises of current capital receipts and current capital expenditures which are described as :
(a) Capital Receipt: Government receipts which either create liabilities or reduces assets are called capital receipts. For example- borrowings, raising of funds from PPF and small saving deposits.
(b) Capital Expenditure: An expenditure which either creates an asset or reduces a liability is called capital expenditure. This type of expenditure adds to the capital stock of the economy and raises its capacity to produce more in future.
OR
(a) Allocation of Resources: To allocate resources in line with social and economic objectives, Government provides more resources into socially productive sectors where private sector is not involved eg. sanitation, water supply, rural development, education, health etc. More¬over Government allocates more funds for the production of socially useful goods and draws away resources from some other sectors to promote balanced economic growth of different regions. Moreover Govenment also undertakes production directly when necessary.

(b) Economic Stability: Government can bring economic stability i.e. can control fluctuations in general price level through taxes, subsidies and expenditure. For instance, when there is inflation, govt, can reduce its own expenditure and when there is depression characterized by falling output and prices, government can reduce taxes and grant subsidies to encourage spending by people.

Question 24.
Calculate (a) Operating Surplus, and (b) Domestic Income: [6]

Answer:
(a) Operating Surplus :
OS = Corporation tax + Rent and Interest + Dividend + Undistributed profits.
OS = (iv) + (ii) + (vii) + (viii)
= 460 + 800 + 940 + 300
= ₹ 2,500 crores

(b) Domestic Income:
NDPFc = Compensation of employees + Operating surplus + Mixed income
= 2000 + 2500 + 200 = 4,700 crore
Answer: OS = 2,500 crore
DI = 4,700 crore

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics Re-Exam 2018 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Sociology 2016

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:

• The question paper contains 26 questions.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question no. 1 to 11 carry 1 mark each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 10-20 words each.
• Questions no. 12 to 19 carry 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 30-50 words each.
• Questions no. 20 to 26 carry 5 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 75-100 words each.

Question 1.
What is the meaning of dependency ratio ? [2]
Answer:
The dependency ratio is a measure which compares the part of a population which is composed of dependents (i.e., elderly people who are very old to work., and children who are very young to work) with the part that is in the working age group, generally defined as 15 to 64 years.

Question 2.
What are the three forms of capital on which social inequality is based ? [2]
Answer:
The three forms of capital on which social inequality is based are economic capital such as material assets and income, cultural capital such as status and qualification and social capital such as social associations of the person.

Question 3.
State the two factors which encourage regionalism. [2]
Answer:
The two factors which encourage regionalism are :

1. geographical concentration
2. sense of regional deprivation.

Question 4.
What are the criteria for forming community identity ? [2]
Answer:
The community identity is based on ‘birth’ and ‘belonging’ to a particular family, caste, religion, kinship, etc. and is an ascribed status.

Question 5.
Give the meaning of Sanskritisation. [2]
Answer:
The term ‘Sanskritisation’ refers to a process in which the people of middle/lower caste take up the rituals, beliefs, way of life and ideology of the higher caste, specifically twice born caste in an attempt to raise their own social status.

Question 6.
What do you understand by the term decentralised democracy ? [2]
Answer:
The term decentralised democracy means transferring functions, resources and decision making powers to the lower-level democratically elected bodies.

Question 7.
How have ‘matrix events’ taken place in the rural society ? [2]
Answer:
Matrix events are results of a range of factors coalesing together. The suicides among farmers have become matrix event in rural society. The farmers who commit suicide are marginal farmers who try to increase their productivity particularly by adopting green revolution. They have to face several risks, such as rise in cost of production due to decrease in subsidies, instability in market; which eventually forced farmers to borrow money and doomed them in debts.

Question 8.
In what way does ‘Time Slavery’ influence Industrial society ? [2]
Answer:
Time slavery refers to employee working for more than 10-12 hours a day in order to meet the deadlines and complete the projects. Sometimes it leads to condition where the employees work overnight and sometimes might put extra stress on them.

Question 9.
What is the meaning of Glocalisation ? [2]
Answer:
The term Glocalisation refers to process of mixing of the global with the local culture. It is a strategy adopted by the foreign firms while dealing with the local traditions for improving their marketability. For example, serving of purely vegetarian food by some multinational food chains, like Me Donalds.

Question 10.
In what way ‘Fordism’ influenced the production and marketing of goods ? [2]
Answer:
Fordism refers to a system of mass production and mass consumption at a centralised place. This was started by Henry Ford. It popularized the assembly time method of mass production of cars. Due to fordism the cost of production goes up due to high labour charges and marketing of the goods often becomes difficult in the same market due to mass production.

Question 11.
How has ‘Corporate Culture’ transformed society ? [2]
Answer:
Corporate culture is a branch of management theory that seeks to increase productivity and competitiveness. It involves all members of a firm and promotes enhancement of employee solidarity and loyalty through events, rituals, tradition etc. It is a way of promoting & packaging of products.

Question 12.
Give two examples of Peasant movements. [2]
Answer:
Two examples of Peasant movements are the Tebhaga movement (1946-47) and the Telangana movement (1946-51).

Question 13.
Mention two important reasons that can be attributed for the rise of Dalit Movements. [2]
Answer:
Two important reasons that can be attributed for the rise of Dalit movements are quest for equality and eradication of untouchability.

Question 14.
Why do environmental movements take place ? [2]
Answer:
The environmental movements take place due to concerns related to checking of the use of natural resources. They take place to check the exploitation and depletion of natural resources. In the name of development, habitat of people is forcibly changed enticing environmental movements.

Question 15.
Highlight the main features of demographic dividend in India. [4]
Answer:
The main features of demographic dividend in India are as follows:

1. India has a very young population — that is, majority of Indians average age of Indians is less than that for most other countries.
2. India has a large portion of working age population, i.e. between 15 to 64 years.
3. It has relatively small proportion of old age population to support.
4. The dependent portion of population would turn into working age population in some time, due to demographic transition; thus raising the prospects for growth.

Question 16.
What were the major issues of Adivasis struggle after independence ? [4]
Answer:
The major issues of Adivasi struggle after independence were alienation of land resources which they depended upon and issues related to cultural identity. During the latter part of nineteenth century, the colonial rule has reserved forests for its use, which also served the rights of the adivasis for food gathering and shifting cultivation. However, the access of forests to the adivasis was denied as they were protected for maximising timber production. Moreover, the mineral resources and power generation capacities were mostly concentrated in the Adivasis area and were required for industrial growth. Their land was acquired for mining and dams projects, without paying proper compensation or rehabilitation.

Question 17.
Why Communalism is still a challenge to our unity and harmony ? [4]
Answer:
Communalism refers to aggressive chauvinism which is based on religious identity. The person considers his group superior to all others. It is closely related to politics. It is a threat to unity and harmony as communalists condemn or attack others who don’t share their policy. It is a recurrent source of communal riots as the selfish motives of the political parties are exploited in the name of communalism. For example, anti-Sikh riots of Delhi in 1984.

Question 18.
How has Casteism influenced politics ? [4]
Answer:
Casteism though a different sphere from politics, sometime plays a dominant role in influencing the voting choice of the people. The people of a particular caste becomes the voting bank for a political party as they choose to opt the candidate with the same caste without considering his abilities, qualifications and past achievements. Here, caste serves the selfish motives of a particular party.

Question 19.
Elaborate the power and responsibilities of the Panchayat. [4]
Answer:
The following powers and responsibility of the Panchayats:

1. To prepare plans and schemes for economic development
2. To promote schemes that will enhance social justice
3. To levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees
4. To help in the devolution of governmental responsibilities, especially that of finances to local authorities.

Question 20.
Explain the impact of land reforms on Indian agriculture after independence.
OR
Briefly highlight transformations of rural society after independence. [4]
Answer:
The impact of land reform on Indian agriculture after independence was not able to bring about any significant progress in increasing the productivity as there were many loop holes in the system. The abolition of zamindari system only removed the top layer landowners, but could not wipe of the landlordism, tenancy or share cropping system. The Tenancy Abolition and Regulation Act failed to implement properly for safeguarding the interest of the tenants. The Land Ceiling Act was misused through Benami transfers.
OR
The transformation which has taken place in rural society after independence is as follows :

1. Rise in number of agricultural labours as cultivation has become an intensive process.
2. Instead of payment in kind, such as agricultural products or grain, there is a shift to payment in cash.
3. Increase in a section of labourers, referred as ‘free wage labourers’.
4. Shift in traditional relationship between the landowner and agricultural labourer, which were termed as bonded labour.
5. There has been transitition to capitalist agriculture.

Question 21.
Discuss the issues faced by ‘migrating labourers’. OR
Explain the major forms of job recruitment in India. [4]
Answer:
The labourers migrate from their native place in search of livelihood. The breaking of patronage bond between landowner and labourer, and seasonal agricultural production are some reasons for migration of the labourers. The main migration is from drought prone areas to the ones which offer better job opportunities. The other reasons for migration are the rising inequalities in rural areas, which force them to indulge in multiple employments. They lack roots and are often termed as ‘footloose labour’ but they lack independence as well. Such labourers migrate to farms of Punjab or Haryana, or brick kilns of UP or construction sites in Delhi.

The chief issues faced by migrating labours are :

1. Low wages.
2. Long working hours.
3. Poor working conditions.
4. Cramped, unhygienic living conditions.
5. Bare minimum benefits-medical, education of children etc.
6. Job insecurity.
7. Contractual binding which is usually unfair to them.
8. Cut-off from their place of origin.
9. Easily exploited.
10. Work based on seasonal demand.
11. Increasing inequalities.
12. Breakdown of bonds of patronage.

OR
Job recruitment takes different forms in India. Very few jobs are acquired through advertisements. In professions like, plumbing, and carpentery are self employed. Among the educated section, tutors, writers and architects are self employed. Mobile phones play a dominant role in acquiring work for them. There is a lot of flexibility in their working hours.
A few workers are employed as a permanent boss head worker and get proper compensation, status and position for their work, whereas sometimes personnels are employed even on contract basis. Major forms of job recruitment are :

1. Newspaper.
2. Employment Exchange.
3. Contractors.
4. Outsourcing.
5. Internet.
6. Mobile phones.
7. Personal Contacts.

Question 22.
“The institution of caste is both visible and invisible in many respects.” Justify the statement with suitable examples.
OR
What are the rules and regulations that caste system imposes on its members ? [6]
Answer:
Caste system refers to a social stratification in which different castes are placed on the horizontal ladder of social status. Traditionally the twice born castes such as Brahmin, Kshatriya, Vaisya enjoyed the privileges and Sudras were considered as the down trodden section. Though the social reforms have played an important role in eradicating caste system and untouchability, it is still prevalent in our society. The affluent and dominant group generally belong to higher strata and the deprived and exploited sections are the lower caste. Though reservation policy in spheres has tried to eliminate this difference by providing educational and employment opportunities to them, yet this difference exists due to reservation policy. As a certain section of the society is demarcated as downtrodden arid deprived, hence, caste system exists in our society in visible and invisible forms.
OR
The rules and regulation which a caste imposes on its member are as follows :

1. Inability to move up or down the status ladder : An individual is required to remain in the same caste in which he had a chance to born. The movement up and down the status ladder is practically impossible.
2. Endogamy: Marriage outside the caste is strictly prohibited.
3. Restriction on feeding and social intercourse : The twice born caste can’t accept kaccha food from Sudra. The social interaction with the lower caste is restricted, for example even the shadow of Sudra is considered to spell a disaster on a Brahmin.
4. Lack of unrestricted choice of occupation : The members of caste are required to follow the occupation which is meant for that particular job. For example the Brahmins are meant for priestly job, Kshatriyas as warriors, Vaisyas as traders and Sudras for worst menial jobs.
5. Civil and religious disabilities : The people of lower caste are subjected to several discriminations. They are required to live at the outskirts of the village and are not allowed to draw water from the village well. Their entry in the temple is strictly restricted.

Question 23.
“The policy of liberalisation has brought about changes in our society.” Elaborate. [6]
Answer:
“The policy of liberalisation has brought about changes in our society.” This statement is very true though the changes are beneficial in some case and disadvantageous in some other cases. Liberalisation refers to a number of policies such as privatisation of public sector enterprise; loosening of government regulations, reduction in tariffs and import duties.
The result of liberalisation is evident in form of more foreign firms entering in Indian markets. This is followed by economic growth and prosperity. More employment opportunities are generated. The foreign goods are easily available in country at low costs. Though some sectors like software and information technology and agriculture (Like fruit and fish) are benefitted by liberalisation, yet there are some sectors which fail to compete with the global market, such as (automobiles, electronics or oilseeds). This was also followed by loss of employment in many sectors.

Changes brought about due to Liberalisation :

1. Participation in WT.O—free international trading system.
2. Opening up of Indian markets to imports.
3. Exposure to competition from global markets.
4. Withdrawal of State support and protected markets.
5. Entry of M.N.Cs example—Contract farming, consumer goods etc.
6. Reduction in Public Sector and increases in Private Sector.
7. Economic reforms in all major sectors- agriculture, trade, industry, foreign investment etc.
8. Cultural Changes.
9. Integration into global market—global village.

Question 24.
In what ways has colonialism brought about a social, economic and political influence on Indian society to promote urbanisation; [6]
Answer:
Colonialism refers to British rule over India. The objective of colonialism was to promote the interests of the colonial rule.
Social Influence: In order to get educated working class of people who can serve the British rule, western education was imparted; this led to opening of schools and colleges. There was a mass production of books, literature, etc. Mass media such as radio, newspaper and magazine were also promoted to safe guard the interest of the British rule.

Economic Influence : In order to generate profits, it opened many industries and introduced modern technology to gear up the process of production at lower expenses. This led to industrialisation in the country. The factory produced goods were liked and purchased by people, which helped in making their lives comfortable.

Machines were used even in the agricultural production to enhance the yields. This also led to labourers getting jobs in factories. The colonial rule promoted roads and transportation for smooth transfers of raw material and goods, which led to construction of road in country.

Opening of schools, colleges, hospitals and setting up of industries and modern means of transportation were some of the influence of colonialism in social, political and economic spheres which ushered urbanisation in the country.

Political Influence :

1. Parliamentary system, Legal system, Police, Administration, Education on the British model, were all adopted to encourage urbanisation.
2. Official buildings on British architecture.
3. Western Education led to rise of nationalism.
4. Nation-states became the dominant political form.

Question 25.
Read the following passage and answer the given question:
The place is a cramped rented shack stacked with music tapes and rusty electrical appliances which doubles up as Raghav’s radio station and repair shop.
He may not be literate, but Raghav’s ingenuous FM station has made him more popular than local politicians. Raghav’s love affair with the radio began in 1997 when he started out as a mechanic in a local repair shop. When the shop owner left the area, Raghav, son of a cancer-ridden farm worker, took over the shack with his friend. Sometime in 2003, Raghav, who by now had learned much about radio… In impoverished Bihar state, where many areas lack power supplies, the cheap battery-powered transistor remains the most popular source of entertainment. “It took a long time to come up with the idea and make the kit which could transmit my programmes at a fixed radio frequency. The kit cost me 50 rupees”, says Raghav. The transmission kit is fitted on to an antenna attached to a bamboo pole on a neighbouring three-storey hospital. A long wire connects the contraption to a creaky, old homemade stereo cassette player in Raghav’s radio shack. Three other rusty, locally made battery-powered tape recorders are connected to it with colourful wires and a cordless microphone,
(a) What changes has media experienced over the last few years ? [2]
(b) How can media be successful in representing the weaker section of society ? [4]
Answer:
(a) There has been a phenomenal expansion in the use of mass media, such as television, radio, newspaper, etc. over the past few years, as it helps in spreading news information and entertainment to masses.

(b) Media can be successful in representing the weaker sections of the society as:

1. It has a wide reach.
2. It can represent issues faced by the weaker sections of the societies like gender based discrimination, untouchability, exploitation, etc.
3. It can help in mobilising people to act against the social evils prevalent in society.
4. It can help in spreading awareness about the equality for all, irrespective of caste, religion, language, gender or class.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Sociology 2016 appeared first on Learn CBSE.