NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 Integrals

The topics and sub-topics included in the Integrals chapter are the following:

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7  Integrals: Engineering aspirants and students appearing for CBSE Class 12 board exams must take the NCERT Mathematics textbooks seriously and finish them from top to bottom. They must also go through the NCERT solutions for Class 12 Maths and Class 11 Maths to have a better understanding of the various concepts. In this article, we will provide you with NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 – Integrals which have been designed by the best teachers in India.

Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 NCERT Solutions Integrals

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 – Integrals contains step-by-step and detailed solutions for every question.

1. Introduction
2. Integration as an Inverse Process of Differentiation
3. Geometrical interpretation of indefinite integral
4. Some properties of indefinite integral
5. Comparison between differentiation and integration
6. Methods of Integration
7. Integration by substitution
8. Integration using trigonometric identities
9. Integrals of Some Particular Functions
10. Integration by Partial Fractions
11. Integration by Parts
12. Integral of the type
13. Integrals of some more types
14. Definite Integral
15. Definite integral as the limit of a sum
16. Fundamental Theorem of Calculus
17. Area function
18. First fundamental theorem of integral calculus
19. Second fundamental theorem of integral calculus
20. Evaluation of Definite Integrals by Substitution
21. Some Properties of Definite Integrals

Integrals Ex 7.1 Class 12

Question 1.
sin 2x
Solution:

Question 2.
cos 3x
Solution:

Question 3.

Solution:

Question 4.
(ax + c)²
Solution:

Question 5.

Solution:

Find the following integrals in Exercises 6 to 20 :

Question 6.

Solution:

Question 7.

Solution:

Question 8.

Solution:

Question 9.

Solution:

Question 10.

Solution:

Question 11.

Solution:

Question 12.

Solution:

Question 13.

Solution:

Question 14.

Solution:

Question 15.

Solution:

Question 16.

Solution:

Question 17.

Solution:

Question 18.

Solution:

Question 19.

Solution:

Question 20.

Solution:

Choose the correct answer in Exercises 21 and 22.
Question 21.
The antiderivative equals
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Solution:

Question 22.
If such that f(2)=0 then f(x) is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Solution:

Integrals Ex 7.2 Class 12

Updated NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths for 2019 Exams.

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 Integrals appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Class 11 Sanskrit अनुच्छेद-लेखनम् (चित्रमधिकृत्य, निर्दिष्टशब्दसूचीसाहाय्येन)

कस्यचिद् विषयस्य एक केन्द्रीयभावं विचारं वा आश्रित्य कृतं लघु निबन्धात्मकं चित्रणम् अनुच्छेदः कथ्यते। सामान्यः विशेषता

• एकः एव भावः विचारो वा प्रस्तोतव्यः।
  (एक ही भाव या विचार प्रस्तुत करना चाहिए।)
• भूमिका उपसंहारो वा न भवितव्यः।
  (भूमिका या उपसंहार नहीं होना चाहिए।)
• विषयस्य सद्यः एव आरम्भः कर्त्तव्यः।
  (विषय को तुरंत शुरू कर देना चाहिए।)
• वाक्यानि परस्परं सम्बद्धानि भवेयुः।
  (वाक्य आपस में सम्बद्ध हों।)
• रोचकतागुणः अनुच्छेदस्य विशिष्टता भवति।
  (रोचकता अनुच्छेद का विशिष्ट गुण है।)
• भाषा सरला, सुबोधा प्रवाहमयी च भवेत्।
  (भाषा सरल, सुबोध व प्रवाहमयी होनी चाहिए।)
• केन्द्रीयभावः अन्ते प्रारंभे वा अवश्यम् दातव्यः
  (प्रारंभ में अथवा अंत में केन्द्रीय भाव अवश्य लिखना चाहिए।)
• वाक्यं न तु अतिविस्तृतं स्यात् न तु अतिलघु वा स्यात्।
  (वाक्य न तो अधिक लंबा हो और न हो अधिक छोटा।)
• वाक्यसंख्या प्रश्नानुसारम् एव देया।
  (वाक्य संख्या प्रश्न के अनुसार देनी चाहिए।)

(क) चित्रमधिकृत्य

प्रश्न: 1.
अधोदत्तानि चित्राणि अधिकृत्य अनुच्छेदं लिखत –

उत्तरम्:
चित्रे विद्यालयस्य कक्षः चित्रितोऽस्ति। कक्षस्य एकस्मिन् कोणे प्रवेशद्वारः अस्ति। तत्र भित्त्याम् श्यामपट्टः अवलम्बते। श्यामपट्टे एकः शिक्षकः चाकद्वारा एकां वर्तुलाकृतिं करोति। तस्य समक्षं मञ्चेषु छात्राः अवस्थिताः सन्तिा ते श्यामपटं दृष्ट्वा निजेषु लिपिपुस्तकेषु किमपि लिखन्ति। एक: छात्रः उत्थाय शिक्षकं किमपि पृच्छति। अन्ये छात्राः ध्यानेन शृण्वन्ति। कक्षस्य वातावरणम् अतीव शान्तिपूर्णम् अस्ति।

प्रश्न: 2.
अधोदत्तानि चित्राणि अधिकृत्य अनुच्छेद लिखत

उत्तरम्:
चित्रे विद्यालयस्य पुस्तकालयः चित्रितः अस्ति। पुस्तालयस्य प्रवेशद्वारस्य समक्षं कार्यालयः वर्तते। तत्र पुस्तकाध्यक्षः तिष्ठति। सः छात्रेभ्यः गृहं नेतु पुस्तकानि ददाति। पुस्तकालये कतिचन मञ्जूषाः सन्ति। मञ्जूषाणां विविध भागाः सन्ति, यत्र विषयानुसारं पुस्तकानि सम्यक्तया स्थापितानि सन्ति। मञ्जूषाभ्यः पुस्तकानि निष्कास्य छात्राः आसनेषु उपविश्य तानि पठन्ति, पठित्वा च तत्रैव पटलेषु स्थापयन्ति। पुस्तकालयस्य अपरे भागे पटलेषु पत्रिकाः समाचारस्य पत्राणि च सन्ति, तत्र मञ्चेषु स्थित्वा छात्राः अध्ययनं कुर्वन्ति। पुस्तकालयस्य वातावरण अत्यन्तं शान्तिपूर्णम् अस्ति ।

प्रश्न: 3.
अधोदत्तानि चित्राणि अधिकृत्य अनुच्छेदं लिखत

उत्तरम्:
चित्रे वर्षायाः दृश्यं चित्रितम् अस्ति। आकाशः मेघाच्छन्नः वर्तते। तत्र कदाचित् विद्युत् अपि विलसति। वर्षायाः बिन्दवः शनैः शनैः पृथिव्यां पतन्ति। छात्राः छात्रिकाश्च आतपत्राणि आश्रित्य तिष्ठन्ति। केचन वृक्षाणाम् अध: आश्रयं स्वीकुर्वन्ति। भूम्यां हरिता दूर्वा शोभते। पशवः पक्षिणः अपि वर्षा-बिन्दुभिः आर्द्राः सन्ति। तेऽपि आश्रयम् इच्छन्ति। एकस्मिन् कोणे मयूरः नृत्यति। सर्वं वातावरणम् अतीव आनन्ददायकम् अस्ति।

प्रश्न: 4.
अधोलिखितानि चित्राणि अधिकृत्य अनुच्छेदं लिखत

उत्तरम्:
अस्मिन् चित्रे गृहस्य स्वागतकक्षः चित्रितोऽस्ति। गृहस्वामी अत्रैव अतिथीनां स्वागतं करोति। तेभ्यः चायादिकमपि ददाति। मध्यभागे पटलस्य मध्ये पुष्पगच्छः शोभते। पटलस्य अधोभागे पत्रिकाः समाचारपत्राणि च सन्ति। कक्षस्य द्वयोः दिशयोः सोफासेट-आसनानि शोभन्ते। तृतीये भागे आसन्धः विराजन्ते। एकस्मिन् कोणे दूरभाषयन्त्रं चलदूरभाषयन्त्रं च तिष्ठतः। अपरस्मिन् कोणे विविधवर्णानां पुष्पाणां पात्रं वर्तते। भित्तिषु चित्राणि शोभन्ते। एक वातायनम् अपि अस्ति। स्वागतकक्षः गृहस्य सुरम्यं दृश्यं वर्धयति।

प्रश्नः 5.
अधोलिखितानि चित्राणि अधिकृत्य अनुच्छेदं लिखत-

उत्तरम्:
इदम् उद्यानस्य चित्रम् अस्ति। प्रात:काले सायंकाले च जनाः भ्रमणाय अत्र आगच्छन्ति। रविवासरे जनानां सङ्ख्या अधिका भवति। अत्र सुगन्ध-पूरितः पवनः सर्वतः प्रवहति। विविधाः वृक्षाः पादपाः लता: च सन्ति। तेषु विचित्रवर्णानि पुष्पाणि विराजन्ते। मालाकारः यथाकालं जलादिदानेन पुत्रवत्सलतया पादपानां पालनं रक्षणं सवर्धनं च करोति। अस्मिन् उद्याने विशुद्धजलवायुसेवनेन प्रातः कालीनं भ्रमणम्, धावनं, व्यायामादिकं च कृत्वा, प्रमुदिताः जनाः नन्दनकाननम् इव स्वर्गसुखम् अनुभवन्ति।

प्रश्न: 6.
अधोलिखितानि चित्राणि अधिकृत्य अनुच्छेदं लिखत

उत्तरम्:
चित्रे कुरुक्षेत्रस्य युद्धभूमेः दृश्यम् चित्रितम् अस्ति। यथा महाभारते वर्णितम्, तथैव अत्र युद्धक्षेत्रस्य एकस्मिन् भागे कौरवसेना वर्तते, द्वितीये भागे पाण्डव सेना वर्तते। मध्ये कृष्णार्जुनस्य रथम् अस्ति। कौराव दले अपि ये महारथयः आसन्, तेषु अर्जुनस्य पितामहः, मातुलः, भ्रातरः आसन् यान् दृष्ट्वा अर्जुन मोहग्रस्तः जातः। गाण्डीवं धनुः तस्य हस्तात् स्रसते। तदा तस्य सारथी श्रीकृष्ण: गीतायाः उपदेशेन तस्य मोहं निवारयति-सः कथयति ‘योगस्थः कुरु कर्माणि।’

प्रश्न: 7.
अधोदत्तानि चित्राणि अधिकृत्य अनुच्छेदं लिखत

उत्तरम्:
अस्मिन् चित्रे विद्यालयस्य छात्राणां छात्रिकाणां च मध्ये क्रीडा-प्रतियोगिता चित्रिता अस्ति। बालिकानां क्रीडा अतीव रुचिकरी वर्तते। अत्र कन्यकाः मृद्भाण्ड-त्रयं गृहीत्वा धावन्ति। तथा कुर्वन्ति या कन्या सर्वासाम् आग्रतः तिष्ठति, सा विजयिनी उघुष्यते। या पूर्वस्थापितं मानम् (Record) अतिलङ्घते सा सर्वेषां प्रशंसाभजनं भवति। चित्रे अन्यत्र छात्राः राज्जु-कर्षण-प्रतियोगितायां भागं गृह्णन्ति। दर्शकाः ताली-वादनेन तेषाम् उत्साहं वर्धयन्ति। छात्रैः अत्र अपूर्वः उत्साहः प्रदर्श्यते।

प्रश्न: 8.
अधोदत्तानि चित्राणि अधिकृत्य अनुच्छेदं लिखत

उत्तरम्:
इदं हरिद्वारनगरे (हर की पैडी) इति स्थानस्य दृश्यम् वर्तते। गङ्गायाः तटे, मध्ये चापि गंगा-मन्दिराणि सपताकानि विराजन्ते। गङ्गाजले जनाः स्नानं कुर्वन्ति, गङ्गा-मातुः पूजां चापि कुर्वन्ति। केचन जनाः श्रद्धालवः पूजा-पिण्डदान-स्नान-मन्त्रपाठादिषु कृत्येषु व्यापृताः सन्ति! पुरोहिताः पण्डिताः च तेषां पूजां कारयन्ति। प्रात:काले सायंकाले गङ्गायाः आरती-दृश्यते अतीव मनमोहकं भवति।

प्रश्न: 9.
अधोदत्तानि चित्राणि अधिकृत्य अनुच्छेद लिखत

उत्तरम्
इदं स्वामिरामदेवस्य शिविरस्य चित्रम् अस्ति। स्वामी महोदयः काष्ठासने विराजमानः प्राणायाम कारयति। सः प्राणायामस्य विधिं महत्त्वस्य अपि वर्णयति। शिविरे भागं गृह्णन्तः पुरुषाः एकस्मिन् भागे तिष्ठन्ति। अपरे भागे स्त्रियः तिष्ठन्ति। स्वामी महोदयः अनुलोम-विलोम-प्राणायामेन के के रोगाः नश्यन्ति? ‘कपालभाति’ प्राणायामस्य को लाभ:? इत्यादिकं श्रावयति। सर्वे जनाः तथैव अनुसरन्ति यथा स्वामी महोदयः वदति। अत्रागत्य सर्वे स्वास्थ्य लाभं कुर्वन्ति?

प्रश्न: 10.
अधोदत्तानि चित्राणि अधिकृत्य अनुच्छेदं लिखत –

उत्तरम्:
इदं ‘कबड्डी’ क्रीडायाः चित्रम् अस्ति। क्रीडायाम् दलद्वयं वर्तते। क्रीडाक्षेत्रम् द्वयो; समानभागयोः विभक्तम् अस्ति। मध्ये ‘पाला’ नाम्नी मध्यरेखा वर्तते। प्रत्येकं दले सप्त क्रीडकाः नवक्रीडकाः वा क्रीडन्ति। इयं श्वासावरोधिका क्रीडा वर्तते। एकभागस्य कोऽपि क्रीडक: कबड्डी-कबड्डी इति वदन् द्वितीयभागस्य क्रीडकान् स्प्रष्टुं यतते। सः . मध्यरेखां यावत् श्वासग्रहणं विना प्रत्यावर्तते। अन्ये तं ग्रहीतुं यतन्ते एवं क्रीडा प्रचलति।

(ख) निर्दिष्टशब्दसूचीसाहाय्येन

प्रश्न:
अधोलिखितायाः शब्दसूचेः सहायतया निर्दिष्टविषये अनुबन्धम् लिखत।
1. मम प्रियः कविः (भर्तृहरिः)
शब्दसूची – भर्तृहरिः। नीतिशतकम्। शृंगारशतकम्। वैराग्यशतकम्। विक्रमादित्यस्य अग्रजः। इत्सिंगस्य मतम्। गृहस्थ-वानप्रस्थयोः वारंवारं भ्रमणम्। सरसपदावली। नीति: वैराग्यम्। शृङ्गारादिविषयाः।
उत्तरम्:
मम प्रियः कविः (महाकविः भर्तृहरिः)

साहित्यसंगीतकलाविहीनः साक्षात्पशुपुच्छविषाणहीनः।
तृणं न खादन्नपि जीवमानस्तद्भागधेयं परमं पशूनाम्।

महाकविः भर्तृहरिः संस्कृत-गीतिकाव्यस्य अद्वितीयः अलंकारः अस्ति। सः नीतिशतकम् शृंगारशतकम्, वैराग्यशतकम् च रचितवान्। सः महाराजविक्रमादित्यस्य अग्रजः आसीत् इति जनश्रुतिः अस्ति। तस्य स्थितिकालः षष्ठीशताब्द्याः उत्तरार्धः अस्ति। इत्सिंग-मतानुसारं भर्तृहरिः बारम्बारं गृहस्थाश्रमस्य वानप्रस्थाश्रमस्य च मध्ये इतस्ततः पर्यभ्रमत्। शतकेषु वर्णिताः प्रसङ्गाः इत्सिंगमतस्य पुष्टिं कुर्वन्ति। एकैके शतके शतसंख्यकाः पद्याः सन्ति। नीतिशतके विद्या-वीरता-साहस-सत्संगति-मैत्री-परोपकार-धर्म-राजधर्म-इत्यादि वृत्तीनां सरसपदावल्यां वर्णनम् अस्ति। शृङ्गारशतके मधुरशैल्यां शृङ्गारस्य प्रमुखः विषयः वर्तते परं शनैः शनैः जीवनस्य अस्थिरतां प्रदर्श्य शान्तरसस्य तुलनायां तस्य तुच्छता प्रकटीक्रियते। वैराग्यशतके संसारस्य निस्सारताम्, मोक्षसोपानरूपस्य वैराग्यस्य च महत्त्वं प्रदर्श्यते।

2. सदाचारः
शब्दसूची – यद्यदाचरति श्रेष्ठः। सताम् आचरणम्। परमोधर्मः। शीलम्। शिष्टः। सभ्यः विनीतः नम्रः। मातृवत् परदारेषु। परद्रव्येषु लोष्ठवत्। श्रीरामः वाक्संयमी। मधुरभाषी।
उत्तरम्:
सदाचारः
यद्यदाचरति श्रेष्ठं स्वत्तदेवेतरो जनः।
स यत्प्रमाणं कुरुते लोकस्तदनुवर्तते।।
श्रेष्ठजनानाम् आचरणम् एव सदाचारः शीलं वा कथ्यते – सताम् आचारः सदाचारः। सत्पुरुषाः शास्त्रविहितं प्रशस्तं कार्य कुर्वते, इतरे जनाः तदेव अनुसरन्ति। ‘आचारः परमो धर्मः’ इति शास्त्रविहितं मतम्। शीलमेव जीवस्य परमं भूषणम् अस्ति। सदाचारी जनः शिष्टः, सभ्यः, विनीतः, विनम्रः च भवति। सः परदारेषु मातृवत् परधनेषु लोष्ठवत्, सर्वभूतेषु च आत्मवत् पश्यति। वाक्यसंयतो भूत्वा स कामक्रोधादीन् विकारान् निगृह्य कर्मसु प्रवर्तते। सदाचारस्य प्रतिपालनेन एव भगवान् श्रीरामः मर्यादापुरुषोत्तमः इति विश्रुतः भवति। वयं तादृशं सुशीलं कामयामहे येन जगत् विनम्र भवेत्।

3. श्रीमद्भगवद्गीता
शब्दसूची – महाभारते दीपस्तम्भः। श्रीकृष्णार्जुनसंवादः। नष्टो मोहः कर्मोपदेशः। निष्काम-कर्म। कर्मण्येवाधिकारस्ते। असक्तः कुरु कर्माणि सङ्ग त्यक्त्वा धनञ्जय। कृष्णस्य विराट् रूपं गीतायाम् उपलभ्यते।
उत्तरम्
श्रीमद्भगवद्गीता
संस्कृतभाषायां महर्षिवेदव्यासेन विरचितस्य महाभारते श्रीमद्भगवद्गीता दीपस्तम्भः इव स्थिता प्रतीयते। धर्मक्षेत्रे कुरुक्षेत्रे समवेतानां युयुत्सुकां पाण्डवानां कौरवाणां च मध्ये युद्धविरतम् अर्जुनम् अभिलक्ष्य भगवान् श्रीकृष्णस्य उपदेशेन तस्य मोहम् अनश्यत् तत्सर्वं श्रीमद्भगवद्गीतायां निबद्धम् अस्ति। श्रीमद्भगवद्गीतायां कर्मयोगस्य उपदेशः वर्तते। अर्जुनस्य विषाद: जीवन-संग्रामात् निवर्तकस्य जनसामान्यस्य विषादः अस्ति। कृष्णस्य उपदेशैः, भगवत्कृपया, विराट्रूपदर्शनेन च सः विषाद नष्टः। सङ्गरहितो भूत्वा, कर्मफलेषु आसक्ति त्यक्त्वा कर्माणि कुर्वन् जनः मोक्षं प्राप्नोति, यथा गीतायाम् उपदिष्टम् अस्तिअसक्तः कुरु कर्माणि, सङ्गं त्यक्त्वा धनञ्जय।

4. दीपावली
शब्दसूची – कार्तिकमासस्य अमावस्यायाम्। सुधालिप्तानि भवनानि। भगवतः रामस्य गृहागमने दीपमालिकायाः परम्परा। शुद्धवस्त्रधाारणम्। मिष्टान्नसेवनम्। स्फोटकानाम् आस्फोटनम्। दीपानां, मोमवर्तिकानां प्रयोगः। होमादिकम्। लक्ष्मीपूजनम्। नव-बही-खाता-आरम्भः। सर्वातिशयः उत्साहः।
उत्तरम्
दीपावली
भारतीयजनानां दीपावलि महोत्सवः तैः सर्वातिशयेन उत्साहेन मान्यते। अयम् उत्सवः कार्तिकमासस्य अमावस्यायाः दिने भवति। श्रुयते यत् अस्मिन् दिने भगवान् श्रीरामचन्द्रः रावणं हत्वा अयोध्या निवृत्तः आसीत्। तदा च तस्य स्वागतं लोकैः रात्रौ दीपमालां कृत्वा कृतम् आसीत्। ततः प्रभृति जनाः तस्मिन् एव दिने प्रतिवर्षं स्वगृहेषु दीपमाला कुन्ति। अस्मिन् अवसरे रात्री लक्ष्मीपूजनम् क्रियते। केषुचित् गृहेषु होमादि अपि सम्पाद्यते। वणिजः प्रायेण अस्मात् दिनात् एव ‘बही-खाता’ इत्यस्य आरम्भं कुर्वन्ति, अतः ते ‘बही-खाता’–पूजनं कुर्वन्ति। उद्योगिनः यन्त्रपूजनं कुर्वन्ति।

5. मम प्रियं पुस्तकम् ( उत्तररामचरितम्)
शब्दसूची – उत्तररामचरितम्। भवभूतेः नाटकम्। करुणरसप्राधान्यम्। पत्नी परित्यागस्य दोषः निराकृतः। छायासीता-अङ्कः। तमसा-मुरला इत्यादि नदीपात्राणि। वनदेवता। एक : रस: करुणः एव। भवभूति: तादृशः कविः यं ब्राह्मणं वाग् वश्येव अनुवर्तते। सप्त अङ्का! चित्रदर्शनम्। गर्भाङ्कनाटकम्।
उत्तरम्:
मम प्रियं पुस्तकम् , मम प्रियं पुस्तकम् उत्तररामचरितम् अस्ति। इदं नाटकं महाकवि-भवभूतेः रचना अस्ति। अत्र करुणरसस्य प्राधान्यं वर्तते। ‘एको रसः करुण एव’ इति अत्र प्रतिपादितम् अन्यरसानां समावेश: करुणे एव भवति। भवभूतिः तादृशः कविः अस्ति यं ब्रह्माणमियं देवी वाग्वश्येवानुवर्तते। उत्तररामचरिते भाषा प्रौढता, औदार्यम् अर्थगौरवम्–सर्वे गुणाः समाविष्टाः सन्ति। अस्मिन् नाटके सप्त अङ्का सन्ति। तत्र चित्रदर्शनं, छायासीता, गर्भाकनाटकम् च इति दृश्यानि कवेः स्वकल्पनाप्रसूतानि सन्ति।

6. कोऽपि महापुरुषः (श्री कृष्णः)
शब्दसूची – वसुदेवसुतः देवकीनन्दनः वासुदेवः श्रीकृष्णः मम आदर्शः। कारावासे जन्म। नन्दगृहे रक्षणम्। द्वैमातुरः। यशोधानन्दनः। असुरविनाशं। कंस-जरासन्ध-शिशुपालादीनां वध। महाभारते। सारथिकार्यग्रहणं। न्यायपक्षस्य विजयः। मोहग्रस्ताय अर्जुनाय निष्कामकर्मोपदेशः। श्रीमद्भगवद्गीतायाः गायकः।
उत्तरम्:
कोऽपि महापुरुषः (श्री कृष्णः) भगवान् श्रीकृष्णः षोडश-कला-सम्पूर्णः आसीत्। भीष्मपितामहः अपि तस्य महिमानम् अजानात्। युधिष्ठिरस्य राजसूययज्ञे श्रीकृष्णस्य एव प्रथमपूजा सर्वैः स्वीकृता। शिशुपालः तस्य विराधम् अकरोत्। यदा तस्य विरोधस्य पराकाष्ठा जाता तदा श्रीकृष्णः तस्य शिरच्छेदनं कृतवान्। महाभारते पाण्डवानां विजयस्य एकमात्र कारणम् श्रीकृष्णः एव आसीत्। सः कर्मयोगी आसीत्। सः जरासन्धस्य वधं कृत्वा तत्र बन्दीगृहे निर्दोषं स्थापितान् संख्यातीत् जनान्, तस्य अन्तः पुरे च स्थिताः महिलाश्च मुक्ताः कारयति स्म।

7. गणतन्त्र दिवसः
शब्दसूची – जनवरीमासस्य षड्विंशतितमे दिवसे। संविधानस्य आरम्भ दिवसः। 1950 तमे वर्षे। नवदिल्लयाम्। महान् संरम्भः विविधाः दृश्यावल्याः। सैनिकैः राष्ट्रपति सम्माने। प्रणामाः। स्वतन्त्रतायाः आन्दोलनकाले लवपुरे 1924 तमे वर्षे रावीतटे नेहरूमहाभागैः ‘पूर्णस्वतन्त्रताप्राप्तिः’ इति स्वतन्त्रता-आन्दोलनस्य लक्ष्य निर्धारितम्। अस्माभिः संविधानस्य परिपालनार्थं सङ्कल्पः करणीयः।
उत्तरम्:
गणतन्त्रदिवस समारोहः जनवरीमासस्य षड्-विंशति-तमे दिवसे भारते गणतन्त्रदिवसः प्रतिवर्षं सम्पद्यते। अस्य दिवसस्य इव अस्याः तिथेः अपि महत्त्वं वर्तते। स्वतन्त्रतायाः आन्दोलनकाले 1929 मते ईसवीये वर्षे लवपुरे जवाहरलालनेहरूमहोदयस्य सभापतित्वे कांग्रेसदलस्य अधिवेशने जनवरीमासस्य 26 तमे दिवसे ‘पूर्णस्वतन्त्रताप्राप्तिः’ एव अस्माकं लक्ष्यम् अस्ति, इति घोषणा सञ्जाता। अतः सः एव दिवसः संविधानस्य अपि आरम्भदिवसः स्वीकृतः नेतृभिः।

अभ्यासः

1. मञ्जूषायाः शब्दान् नीत्वा चित्रस्य वर्णनम् पञ्चवाक्येषु कुरुत।
(मञ्जूषा से शब्दों को लेकर चित्र का वर्णन पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
(Write the description of the picture in five sentences taking words from the box).
मञ्जूषा – वृक्षाः, वदति,शृणोति, अधः, हस्ते, वानरः, शाखायाम्, हस्तौ, खादति, उपतिष्ठति।

2. मञ्जूषायाः शब्दान् नीत्वा चित्रस्य वर्णनम् पञ्चवाक्येषु कुरुत।
(मञ्जूषा के शब्दों को लेकर चित्र का वर्णन पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
(Taking suitable words from the box, describe the picture in five sentences).
मञ्जूषा – गुरुः, शिष्याः, वृक्षाः, उपदिशति, आकर्णयन्ति, शान्तिप्रदम्, गुरुकुलः शृण्वन्ति, शिक्षा गृहीतव्या।

3. मञ्जूषायाः शब्दान् नीत्वा चित्रस्य वर्णनम् पञ्चसु वाक्येषु कुरुत।
(मञ्जूषा के शब्दों को लेकर चित्र का वर्णन पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
(Taking suitable words from the box, describe the picture in five sentences.)
मञ्जूषा – अनेके, यवनिका, क्रीडकाः, बालिकाः, दूरदर्शनम्, पश्यन्ति, क्रिकेटम्, कक्षः, सुसज्जितः, अस्ति।

4. मञ्जूषायाः सहायतया चित्रस्य वर्णनम् पञ्चवाक्येषु कुरुत।
(मञ्जूषा की सहायता से चित्र का वर्णन पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
(Describe the picture in five sentences with the help of the box.)
मञ्जूषा – उपवनस्य, बालकाः, बालिकाः, पुष्पाणि, विकसन्ति, उद्याने, भ्रमणम्, कर्त्तव्यम्, स्वास्थ्यप्रदम्, हसन्ति।

5. मञ्जूषायाः शब्दानाम् सहायतया चित्रस्य वर्णनम् पञ्चवाक्येषु कुरुत।
(मञ्जूषा के शब्दों की सहायता से चित्र का वर्णन पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
(Describe the picture in five sentences with the help of the words from the box).
मञ्जूषा – क्षेत्रस्य, कृषकाः, बीजानि, वपन्ति, महिलाः, गृहाणि, वृक्षाः, शुद्धम्, वातावरणम्, भवति।

6. मञ्जूषायाः शब्दानाम् सहायतया अधोचित्रितस्य चित्रस्य वर्णनम् पञ्चसु वाक्येषु कुरुत।
(मञ्जूषा के शब्दों की सहायता से नीचे बनाए गए चित्र का वर्णन पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
(Describe in five sentences the picture drawn below with the help of the words from the box).
मञ्जूषा – परिवारः, पारिवारिकजनाः, दूरदर्शनम्, पञ्च, जनाः, समाचारान्, अवधानेन, अङ्के, कक्षः, सुसज्जितः।

7. मञ्जूषायाः शब्दान् नीत्वा चित्रस्य वर्णनम् पञ्चसु वाक्येषु कुरुत।
(मञ्जूषा के शब्दों को लेकर से चित्र का वर्णन पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
Describe the picture in five sentences taking words from the box.)
मञ्जूषा – जलपानगृहम् , सेवकः, आसन्दिकाः, आदेशम्, पुरुषः, पिबति, चत्वारः, लिखति, कलमेन, बालिका।

8. मञ्जूषायाः शब्दान् नीत्वा चित्रस्य वर्णनम् पञ्चसु वाक्येषु कुरुत।
(मञ्जूषा के शब्दों को लेकर चित्र का वर्णन पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
(Describe the picture in five sentences taking words from the box.)
मञ्जूषा – उपवनस्य, उपविशन्ति, भ्रमन्ति, सर्वत्र, वृक्षाः, वाहनानि, जनाः, सर्वे, स्वास्थ्यलाभम्, प्राप्नुवन्ति।

9. मञ्जूषायाः शब्दान् नीत्वा चित्रस्य वर्णनम् पञ्चसु वाक्येषु कुरुत।
(मञ्जूषा के शब्दों को लेकर से चित्र का वर्णन पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
(Describe the picture in the five sentences taking words from the box.)
मञ्जूषा – उत्तमः, संकल्पः, नव, जनाः, भारतीयाः, एकतायाः, प्रतीकम्, प्रसन्नाः, हस्तान्, वयम्, एकता, भारतीयाः स्मः।

10. मञ्जूषायाः सहायतया चित्रस्य वर्णनम् पञ्चवाक्येषु कुरुत।
(मञ्जूषा की सहायता से चित्र का वर्णन पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
(Describe the picture in five sentences with the help of the box.)
मञ्जूषा – उपनवस्य, बालकाः, बालिकाः, पुरुषः पुष्पाणि, पश्यन्ति, वृक्षाः, उपनेत्रम् (चश्मा), धारितः शिक्षकः।

11. मञ्जूषायाः शब्दानाम् सहायतया चित्रस्य वर्णनम् पञ्चसु वाक्येषु कुरुत।
(मञ्जूषा के शब्दों की सहायता से चित्र का वर्णन पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
(Describe the picture in five sentences with the help of the words from the box.)
मञ्जूषा – उपवनस्य, महिलाः, बालकाः, क्रीडन्ति, पुष्पाणि, विकसन्ति, वृक्षैः, शुद्धम्, भवति, भ्रमन्ति।

12. मञ्जूषायाः शब्दानाम् सहायतया चित्रस्य वर्णनम् पञ्चवाक्येषु कुरुत।
(मञ्जूषा के शब्दों की सहायता से चित्र का वर्णन पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
(Describe the picture in five sentences with the help of the words from the box).
मञ्जूषा – दीपावली, महोत्सवः, दीपानाम्, उत्सवः, सर्वे, जनाः, मानयन्ति, प्रकाशः, क्रियते, प्रसन्नाः, भवन्ति।

13. अधः प्रदत्तचित्रस्य वर्णनं पञ्चसु वाक्येषु संस्कृते कुरुत (सहायतार्थ केचन शब्दाः मञ्जूषायां दत्ताः)।
(नीचे दिए गए चित्र का वर्णन पाँच वाक्यों में संस्कृत में कीजिए। सहायतार्थ कुछ शब्द मञ्जूषा में दिए गए हैं।)
(Describe the following picture in five sentences in Sanskrit. Some words are given in the box for your help.)
मञ्जूषा – बसस्थानकम्, उपविष्टं, प्रतीक्षा, बसयानम्, चालकः, जनः, दीर्घासन्दिका, पङ्कितबद्धाः, आरोहति, जनसम्मर्दः, दण्डः, अष्ट, एका महिला।

14. चित्रं दृष्ट्वा प्रदत्तपदानां सहायतया चित्रस्य वर्णनम् पञ्चसंस्कृतवाक्येषु कुरुत।
(चित्र को देखकर दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से चित्र का वर्णन संस्कृत के गच आल्यों में कीजिए।)
(Look at the picture and describe it in five Sanskrit sentences with the help oi se given words.)
मञ्जूषा – प्रात:काले, भ्रमणम्, सूर्योदयः, खगाः, पर्वताः, व्यायाम, चत्वारः, वृक्षाः, बालौ, भ्रमत:।

15. अधः चित्रं दृष्ट्वा मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दानां सहायतया पञ्चवाक्यानि रचयत।
(नीचे दिए गए चित्र को देखकर मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से पाँच वाक्यों की रचना कीजिए।)
(Look at the picture and make five sentences with the help of the words given in the box.)
मञ्जूषा – विद्यालयः, ध्वजः, वृक्षाः, छात्राः, पादकन्दुकम्, तिस्त्रः, एकः, बद्दलः, कूर्दन्ति, द्वौ।

16. चित्रं दृष्ट्वा प्रदत्तपदानां सहायतया चित्रस्य वर्णनं पञ्चसु संस्कृतवाक्येषु कुरुत।
(चित्र को देखकर दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से चित्र का वर्णन संस्कृत के पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
(Describe the picture in five Sanskrit sentences after seeing it with the help of the given words.)
मञ्जूषा – कुटीरे, मेघाः, कन्या, महिला, सूर्यः, बीजानि, नदी, जलम्, वपन्ति, चटकाः।

17. चित्रं दृष्ट्वा प्रदत्तपदानां सहायतया चित्रस्य वर्णनं पञ्चसंस्कृतवाक्येषु कुरुत।
(नीचे को देखकर दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से चित्र का वर्णन संस्कृत के पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
(Describe the picture in five Sanskrit sentences after seeing it with the help of the given words.)
मञ्जूषा – अध्यापिका, कक्षायाः, श्यामपट्टः, छात्राः, सङ्केतम्, अवधानेन,शृण्वन्ति, पृच्छति, पुस्तकानि, पाठयति।

18. अधः प्रदत्त-चित्रस्य वर्णनं पञ्चसु वाक्येषु संस्कृते कुरुत। सहायतार्थ केचन शब्दा मञ्जूषायां दत्ताः।
(नीचे दिए गए चित्र का वर्णन पाँच संस्कृत वाक्यों में कीजिए। सहायता के लिए कुछ शब्द मञ्जूषा में दिए गए हैं।)
(Describe the following picture in five sentences in Sanskrit. For help some words tre given in the hox)
मञ्जूषा – पर्यटनस्य, तिस्त्रः महिलाः, उपविष्टाः, विशालवृक्षस्य, खाद्य-पान, फलानि, पात्राणि, भूतले, पञ्च जनाः।

19. अधः चित्रं दृष्ट्वा, मञ्जूषायाम् प्रदत्तानां पदानां सहायतया संस्कृतभाषायाम् पञ्चवाक्यानि लिखत।
(नीचे दिए गए चित्र को देखकर मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से संस्कृत भाषा द्वारा पाँच वाक्यों को लिखिए।)
(Write five sentences in Sanskrit with the help of the words given in box after seeing the picture given below.)
मञ्जूषा – रमणीयम्, वृक्षाणाम्, पर्वतात्, पूर्वदिशायाम्, चित्तम्, सघनानाम्, उदेति, निर्गच्छति, कूजन्ति, पुष्पाणि, आनन्दयति।

20. चित्रं दृष्ट्वा प्रदत्त शब्दानां सहायतया चित्रस्य वर्णनं पञ्चसु संस्कृतवाक्येषु कुरुत।
(चित्र को देखकर दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से चित्र का वर्णन पाँच संस्कृत वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
(Describe the picture in five sentences in Sanskrit with the help of the given words after seeing the picture.)
मञ्जूषा – प्रात:काले, आकाशे, एकः, बालकौ, खगौ, व्यायाम, कुरुतः, शीतलवायुः, सूर्योदयः, वातावरणम्।

21. अधः प्रदत्त चित्रस्य वर्णनं पञ्चसु वाक्येषु संस्कृते कुरुत। सहायतार्थं केचन शब्दाः मञ्जूषायां दत्ताः।
(नीचे दिए गए चित्र का वर्णन संस्कृत के पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए। सहायता के लिए कुछ शब्द मञ्जूषा में दिए गए हैं।)
(Describe the following picture in five sentences in Sanskrit. Words are given for help in the box.)
मञ्जूषा – सूदः, स्थालानि, जनेभ्यः, भोजनम् पानपात्राणि, सूप-ओदनम् रोटिकाः, यच्छति, जलम्, भृत्यः, शाकम्, जनाः।

22. चित्रं दृष्ट्वा शब्दसूचीसहायतया पञ्चवाक्यानि लिखत।
(चित्र को देखकर शब्द सूची की सहायता से पाँच वाक्य लिखिए।)
(Write five sentences about the picture after seeing it with the help of the list of words.)
मञ्जूषा – विद्यालयः, चत्वारः, बालकाः, कन्दुकेन, क्रीडन्ति, बालिकाः, तिस्त्रः, विशालभवनम्, क्रीडाक्षेत्रे, सुन्दरम्, क्रीडाक्षेत्रम्।

23. चित्रं दृष्ट्वा अधोलिखितशब्दानाम् सहायतया पञ्चसु वाक्येषु दीपावली वर्णनं कुरु।
(चित्र देखकर नीचे लिखे शब्दों की सहायतया से पाँच वाक्यों में दीपावली का वर्णन कीजिए।)
(Describe about Deepawali in five sentences after seeing the picture with the help of the words given below.)
मञ्जूषा – मिष्ठान्नम्, महापर्व. अमावस्यायाम् लक्ष्मीपूजनम्, प्रज्वालयन्ति, अवकाशः, अलकुर्वन्ति, स्फोटकपदार्थाः।

24. चित्रं दृष्ट्वा मञ्जूषातः पदानि अवचित्य संस्कृते पञ्चवाक्यानि लिखत।
(चित्र को देखकर मञ्जूषा से शब्दों को चुनकर पाँच वाक्य लिखिए।)
(Write five sentences after seeing the picture with the help of the words chosen from the box.)
मञ्जूषा – गृहस्य, महिमा, दूरदर्शनम्, प्रसन्नः, हस्तौ, सुसज्जितः, पुरुषः, माता-पिता, काष्ठफलकदीपः, विद्यते, अस्ति।

25. अधः प्रदत्तचित्रस्य वर्णनं मञ्जूषायां लिखितपदानां प्रयोगं कृत्वा पञ्चभिः वाक्यैः क्रियताम्।
(नीचे दिए चित्र का वर्णन मञ्जूषा में लिखित शब्दों का प्रयोग करके पाँच वाक्यों के द्वारा कीजिए।)
(Write five sentences about the following picture with the help of the words written in the box.)
मञ्जूषा – राष्ट्रीयध्वजारोहणं, प्रधानाचार्यःस्वतन्त्रतादिवसस्य, कार्यक्रमः, भाषणम्, छात्राः, संकल्पः, क्रीडा, मुख्यातिथि:, क्रियते, विद्यालये।

26. अधोनिर्दिष्टं चित्रं दृष्ट्वा स्वतन्त्ररूपेण मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दसहायतया वा संस्कृते पञ्चवाक्यानि लिखत।
(नीचे दिए गए चित्र को देखकर स्वतन्त्र रूप से अथवा मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से संस्कृत में पाँच वाक्य लिखिए।)
(Write the five sentences in Sanskrit after seeing the following picture independently or with the help of the words from the box.)
मञ्जूषा – कन्दुकम्, भ्रमन्ति, उद्यानम्, पक्वानि, फलानि, वृक्षाः, खगाः, बालः, बाला, पिकः, गीतानि, जनाः, वरिष्ठनागरिकः।

27. चित्रं दृष्ट्वा मञ्जूषातः पदानि अवचित्य संस्कृते पञ्चवाक्यानि लिखत।
(चित्र को देखकर मञ्जूषा से शब्दों को चुनकर संस्कृत में पाँच वाक्यों को लिखिए।)
(Write five sentence in Sanskrit, choosing words from the box after seeing the picture.)
मञ्जूषा – सूर्यः, वृक्षाः वृषभौ पुष्पाणि, ग्राम्यजीवनम्, कृषक:, हलम्, कुटीरः, विकसन्ति, भ्रमन्ति, कर्षति,उदेति।

28. चित्रं दृष्ट्वा मञ्जूषातः पदानि आदाय पञ्चवाक्यानि संस्कृते लिखत।
(चित्र को देखकर मञ्जूषा से शब्दों को लेकर पाँच वाक्य संस्कृत में लिखिए।)
(Write five sentences in Sanskrit with the help of the words in the box after seeing the picture.)
मञ्जूषा – उद्यानस्य, केचन, क्रीडन्ति, उद्याने, वृक्षाः, भ्रमणम्, मालाकारः, वृक्षान्, पुष्पाणि, बालकाः।

29. अधोनिर्दिष्टं चित्रं दृष्ट्वा मञ्जूषायां प्रदत्तशब्दसहायतया वा संस्कृते पञ्चवाक्यानि लिखत।
(नीचे दिए गए चित्र को देखकर मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से में पाँच वाक्य लिखिए।)
(Write the five sentences in Sanskrit after seeing the following picture or with the help of the words from the box.)
मञ्जूषा – वृक्षाः, खगाः, कमलानि, सूर्योदयः प्रातः, भ्रमणम्, सरोवरे, जलचराः, स्वास्थ्यम्, पुष्पाणि, जनाः, छात्राः।

30. मञ्जूषायाम् प्रदत्तैः पदैः चित्रस्य वर्णनं पञ्चभिः वाक्यैः कुरुत।
(मञ्जूषा में दिए गए शब्दों से चित्र का वर्णन पाँच वाक्यों में कीजिए।)
(Describe the picture in five sentences with the help of box).
मञ्जूषा – पर्वतीयस्थलम्, वृक्षाः पक्षिणः, सुन्दराणि, गृहाणि, चित्रम्, जनाः, भ्रमन्ति, सुन्दरम्, पर्वताः, रम्याः।

अनुच्छेदलेखनम्
(पञ्चवाक्यानि एव)

उदाहरणम् –
मञ्जूषायाः सहायतया संस्कृतभाषायां पञ्च सरल वाक्यानि लिखत।
‘बालश्रमः बालकेषु अत्याचारः’ इति विषयम् अधिकृत्य संस्कृतेन पञ्चवाक्यानि लिखत। सहायतार्थं मञ्जूषा अपि दत्ता।

1. बालश्रमः देशाय अभिशापरूप वर्तते।
2. अनेक अनेके बालाः बाल्यसुखात् वञ्चिताः भवन्ति।
3. ते शिक्षातः वञ्चिताः भूत्वा जलपानगृहेषु भोजनालयेषु वा अल्पवेतने कार्य कुर्वन्ति।
4. तेषाम् उपरि अनेके अत्याचाराः भवन्ति।
5. जनाः तान् निर्धन परिवारेभ्यः क्रीत्वा अपि आनयन्ति।

मञ्जूषा – जलपानगृहेषु, भोजनालयेषु, उद्योगेषु, बालकाः, अल्पवेतनम्, सुविधानाम् अभावः, शिक्षातः वञ्चिताः, सूचीकार्यम्, क्रीडनात्-बाल्यसुखात् वञ्चिताः, विविधाः अत्याचाराः, जनाः, ग्रामेभ्यः, आनयन्ति, क्रीत्वा अपि।

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit

The post CBSE Class 11 Sanskrit अनुच्छेद-लेखनम् appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2018

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 80

General Instructions:

• All question in both sections are compulsory.
• Marks for questions are indicated against each questions.
• Question Nos. 1-4 and 13-16 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 marks each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
• Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18 are short- answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
• Question No. 7-9 and 19-21 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
• Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24 are long- answer questions carrying 6 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
• Answer should be brief and to the point and the above words limits should be adhered to as far as possible.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2018

SECTION — A

Question 1.
When the total fixed cost of producing 100 units is ₹ 30 and the average variable cost ₹ 3, total cost is : (Choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) ₹ 3
(b) ₹ 30
(c) ₹ 270
(d) ₹ 330
Answer:
(d) ₹ 330.

Question 2.
When the Average Product (AP) is maximum, the Marginal Product (MP) is : (Choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Equal to AP
(b) Less than AP
(c) More than AP
(d) Can be any one of the above
Answer:
(a) Equal to AP

Question 3.
State one example of positive economics. [1]
Answer:
Increasing the interest rate to encourage people to save is an example of positive economics.

Question 4.
Define fixed cost. [1]
Answer:
Fixed costs are those costs which do not vary with the level of output. For e.g. Rent of factory.

Question 5.
Explain the central problem of “choice of technique”.
OR
Explain the central problem of “for whom to produce”. [3]
Answer:
The problem of “choice of technique” is the second major central problem faced by the economy ever. Basically, there are two choices of techniques i.e.,

• Capital-intensive technique: This is the technique, in which capital is required more than the labour.
• Labour-intensive technique: This is the technique in which labour is required more than the capital.

OR
An economy faces a major central problem
i. e., for whom the production is to be done? Production/Income is distributed either on the basis of the purchasing powers of the consumers or on the basis of requirements of the individuals.
Two types of distribution are:

• Functional Distribution
• Personal Distribution.

Question 6.
What is meant by inelastic demand ? Compare it with perfectly inelastic demand. [3]
Answer:
Elasticity is a measure of the responsiveness of the quantity demanded to a change in its price. Inelastic demand means that the demand for a product does not increase or decrease corresponding to the fall or rise in its price. In this case elasticity is less than 1, as percentage change in quantity demanded is less than the percentage change in price.
For Ex.—Percentage change in quantity demanded is 10%
whereas percentage change in price = 20%
So, Elasticity (Ed < 1) = 0.5
On the other hand, when increase or decrease in price does not affect the quantity demanded, it is known as perfectly inelastic demand.
For Ex.—Price is changed by 10% but quantity demanded remains the same i.e.,
Percentage change in quantity demand = 0
Percentage change in price = 20%
So, elasticity is 0.

Question 7.
When the price of a commodity changes from ? 4 per unit to ? 5 per unit, its market supply rises from 100 units to 120 units. Calculate the price elasticity of supply. Give reason. [4]
Answer:

It is inelastic, as elasticity is less than one.

Question 8.
What is meant by price ceiling? Explain its implications. [4]
Answer:
Price ceiling is a situation when the price charged is more than or less than the equilibrium price determined by market forces of demand and supply. It has been found that higher price ceilings are ineffective. Price ceiling has been found to be of great importance in the house rent market.

Implications of Trice Ceiling’

• Price ceiling enables the availability of basic goods at reasonable price to the poor. This enables to increase the welfare of the people.
• When there is a fall in the price level, the demand for a good increases more than the supply of the good. Hence, it creates an excess demand for the good.

Question 9.
Given the price of a good, how will a consumer decide as to how much quantity to buy of that good ? Explain.
OR
What is Indifference Curve? State three properties of indifference curves. [4]
Answer:
Consumer equilibrium refers to the situation when consumer gets maximum satisfaction/utility from the goods it consumes. It is the situation through which a consumer decides how many units of the goods to consume.

Price remains constant when MU of goods is more than its price, and it that case, consumer will decide not to purchase that good.
Also, when MU is less than its price, then also consumer will give up its consumptions. As a consumer will consume only when, MU is equal to price.
MUx = Px
In the figure,
X-axis = Consumption
Y-axis = Price
E = Consumer Equilibrium
OR
A curve on a graph (the axis of which represent quantities of two commodities) linking those combinations of quantities which the consumer regards as of equal value.

IC—Indifference Curve.
X-axis = Goodx
Y-axis’= Goody
Properties:

• Higher IC gives higher level of satisfaction.
• Two Indifference curves never intersect each other.
•  Indifference curve is convex to the origin.

Question 10.
State three characteristics of monopolistic competition. Which of the characteristics separates it from perfect competition and why ?
OR
Explain the implications of the following :
(a) Freedom of entry and exit of firms under perfect competition.
(b) Non-price competition under oligopoly. [6]
Answer:
The main features of monopolistic competition are as under:
(1) Large Number of Buyers and Sellers : There are large numbers of firms but not as large as under perfect competition. That means each firm can control its price- output policy to some extent. It is assumed that any price-output policy of a firm will not get reaction from other firms so each firm follows the independent price policy.

(2) Less Mobility : Under monopolistic competition, both the factors of production as well as goods and services are not perfectly mobile.

(3) More Elastic Demand: Under monopolistic competition, demand curve is more elastic. In order to sell more, the firms must reduce its price.
The characteristics which separates monopo¬listic competition from perfect competition are :
(1) Nature of Firms: Under perfect competition, an industry consists of a large number of firms. Each firm in the industry has a very little share in the total output. The firms have to accept the price determined by the industry. On the other hand, under monopolistic competition the number of firms is limited. The firms can influence the market price by their individual actions.

(2) Nature of Price and Output: Under perfect competition, price is equal to marginal cost as well as marginal revenue whereas under imperfect competition it is not so. Although, under monopolistic competition marginal cost and marginal revenue are equal yet not equalising the price.

(3) Nature of Product: Under perfect competition, firms produce homogeneous products. The cross elasticity of demand among the goods is infinite. Under imperfect competition, all the firms produce differentiated products and the cross elasticity of demand among them is very small.
OR
(a) Freedom of entry and exit of firms under perfect competition : There is freedom of entry and exit of firms in perfect competition. This implies that under perfect competition, in long-run, firms earn only normal profits, so new firms does not enter or exit the market in long-run. The firms in this competition do not earn supernormal profits or losses in long-run. It is only in short-run that the firms enter or exit the market.

(b) Non-price competition under oligopoly: In an oligopoly market, firms do not compete with each other for changes in the price. If the firm increases the price, rival firms may not increase it, so it will lead to a loss of the market. Consumers will shift to rival firms. On the other hand, if the firm decreases the price, the rival firms may decrease it, so it will lead to a loss of total revenue. There will not be an increase in the demand for the product. They take into consideration the decisions of rival firms, and hence, the price does not move freely and it leads to non-price competition. High selling cost prevails in the market, resources are not fully used and welfare is not maximised.

Question 11.
Explain the conditions of consumer’s equilibrium using Indifference Curve Analysis. [6]
Answer:
According to indifference curve analysis, a consumer attains equilibrium at a point where budget line is tangent to an indifference curve. Consumer equilibrium is achieved where slope of indifference curve (MRS) = slope of budget line (Px/Py).
MRS = Px ÷ Py (Ratio of prices of two goods) Given the indifference map (preference schedule) of the consumer and budget or price line, we can find out the combination which gives the consumer maximum satisfaction. The aim of the consumer is to obtain highest combination on his indifference map and for this, he tries to go to the highest indifference curve with his given budget line. He would be in equilibrium only at such point which is common between a budget line and the highest attainable indifference curve. A consumer is in equilibrium at a point where budget line is tangent to indifference curve. At this point, slope of indifference curve (called MRS) is equal to slope of budget line.

In the above fig, P is the equilibrium point at which budget line M just touches the highest attainable indifference curve IC₂ within consumer budget. Combinations on IC₃ are not affordable because his income does not permit whereas combinations on IC₁ gives lower satisfaction than IC₂. Hence, best combination is at point P where budget line is tangent to the indifference curve IC₂. It is at this point that consumer attains the maximum satisfaction at the state of equilibrium.
For consumer’s equilibrium, two conditions are necessary:
(a) Budget line should be tangent to indifference curve (MRS = Px/Py).
(b) Indifference curve should be convex to the point of origin (i.e., MRS should be diminishing at a point of equilibrium.)

Question 12.
Explain the conditions of producer’s equilibrium in terms of marginal revenue and marginal cost. [6]
Answer:
Producer’s equilibrium refers to the state in which a producer earns his maximum profit or minimise its losses. According to MR- MC approach, the producer is at equilibrium, when the Marginal Revenue (MR) is equal to the Marginal Cost (MC) and Marginal Cost curve cuts the Marginal Revenve curve from below.
Two conditions under this approach are :
(i) MR = MC
(ii) MC curve should cut the MR curve from below, or MC should be rising.
MR is the addition to TR from the sale of one more unit of output and MC is the addition to TC for increasing the production by one unit. In order to maximise profits, firms compare its MR with its MC.
As long as the addition to revenue is greater than the addition to cost, it is profitable for a firm to continue producing more units of output. In the diagram, output is shown on the X-axis, revenue and cost on the Y-axis. The Marginal Cost (MC) curve is U-shaped and P = MR = AR, is a horizontal line parallel to X-axis.

MC = MR at two points R and K in the diagram, but profits are maximised at point K, corresponding to OQ level of output. Between OQ and Q₁ levels of output, MR exceeds MC. Therefore, firm will not stop at point R but will continue to produce to take advantage of additional profit. Thus, equilibrium will be at point K, where both the conditions are satisfied.
Situation beyond OQ₁ level:
MR < MC when output level is more than OQ₁ MR < MC, which implies that firm is making a loss on its last unit of output. Hence, in order to maximise profit a rational producer decreases output as long as MC > MR. Thus, the firm moves towards producing OQ units of output.

SECTION—B

Question 13.
Define money supply. [1]
Answer:
Money supply is the total amont of money in circulation or in existence in a country at a specific time.

Question 14.
Which of the following affects national income? (Choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Goods and Services tax
(b) Corporation tax
(c) Subsidies
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Subsides

Question 15.
Why does the consumption curve not start from the origin? [1]
Answer:
As consumption includes autonomous consumption and autonomous consumption can never be zero.

Question 16.
The central bank can increase the availability of credit by: (Choose the correct alternative).[1]
(a) Raising the repo rate
(b) Raising reverse repo rate
(c) Buying government securities
(d) Selling government securities
Answer:
(c) Buying government securities.

Question 17.
Given nominal income, how can we find real income? Explain.
OR
Which among the following are final goods and which are intermediate goods ? Give reasons. [3]
(a) Milk purchased by a tea stall
(b) Bus purchased by a school
(c) Juice purchased by a student from the school canteen
Answer:
Real income can be calculated by applying the following formula:
Real Income = × Price Index of base year
Consider price index of base year as 100 When nominal income is given, we can convert it into real income with the help of GDP deflator.
∴ Real Income = × 100
OR
(a) It is an intermediate good because it is used by producer during production process of making tea and not for final consumption.
(b) It is a final good as, it is purchased by school for final consumption.
(c) It is a final good as, it is purchased by a student for final consumption.

Question 18.
Define multiplier. What is the relation between marginal propensity to consume and multiplier ? Calculate the marginal propensity to consume if the value of multiplier is 4. [3]
Answer:
In economics, a multiplier is the factor by which gains in total output are greater than the change in spending that caused it. It is usually used in reference to the relationship between investment and total national income.

Relationship between marginal propensity to consume and multiplier
There is a direct relationship between MPC and Multiplier as, the higher the MPC, the higher the multiplier and vice versa.

Question 19.
What is meant by inflationary gap? State three measures to reduce this gap.
OR
What is meant by aggregate demand ? State its components. [4]
Answer:
An inflationary gap, is the amount by which the actual gross domestic product exceeds the potential full-employment GDP. Three measures to reduce this gap are:
1. Fiscal Policy: Fiscal policy is the expenditure and revenue (taxation) policy of the government to accomplish the desired objectives.
In case of excess demand (when current demand is more than aggregate supply at full employment), the objective of fiscal policy is to reduce aggregate demand.

2. Monetary Policy: Monetary policy of the central bank of a country is to control the money supply and credit in the economy. Therefore, it is also called Central Bank’s Credit Control Policy. Money broadly refers to currency notes and coins whereas credit generally means loans, i.e., finance provided to others at a certain rate of interest. Monetary measures (instruments) affect the cost of credit (i.e., rate of interest) and availability of credit. Thus, it helps in checking excess demand when credit availability is restricted and credit is made costlier.

3. Miscellaneous: Other anti-inflationary measures are import promotion, wage freeze, control and blocking of liquid assets, compulsory savings scheme for households, increase in production by utilising idle capacities, etc.
OR
Aggregate demand (AD) or Domestic Final demand (DFD) is the total demand for final goods and services in an economy at a given time. It specifies the amount of goods and services that will be purchased at all possible price levels.
Components of aggregate demand are:
AD = C + I + G + (x + m)
Where
C = Consumption
I = Investment
G = Government Spending
X – M = Net Exports
1. Consumption: This is made by households, and sometimes consumption accounts for the larger portion of aggregate demand. An increase in consumption shifts the AD curve to the right.

2. Investment: Investment, second of the four components of aggregate demand, refers to the spending by firms not households. However, investment is also the most volatile component of AD. An increase in investment shifts AD to the right in the short rim and helps to improve the quality and quantity of factors of production in the long run.

3. Government: Government spending forms a large total of aggregate damand, and an increase in government spending shifts aggregate demand to the right. This spending is categorized into transfer payments and capital spending. Transfer payments include pensions and unemployment benefits and capital spending is on things like roads, schools and hospitals. Government spends to increase the consumption of health services, education and to redistribute income. They may also spend to increase aggregate demand.

4. Net Exports: Imports are foreign goods bought by consumers domestically, and exports are domestic goods bought abroad. Net exports is the difference between exports and imports, and this component can be net imports too if imports are greater than exports. An increase in net exports shifts aggregates demand to the right. The exchange rate and trade policy affects net exports.

Question 20.
The value of marginal propensity to consume is 0.6 and initial income in the economy is ₹ 100 crores. Prepare a schedule showing Income, Consumption and Saving. Also show the equilibrium level of income by assuming autonomous investment of ₹ 80 crores. [4]
Answer:
Given that,
Marginal propensity to consume (MPC) = 0.6
Initial income = ₹ 100 crores
Autonomous investment = ₹ 80 crores
C = + c(Y)
C = 0 + 0.6(Y)

Aggregate Demand (AD) = Aggregate Supply (AS)
AD = C + I and AS = C + S
Therefore, the equilibrium level of income is ₹ 200 crores.

Question 21.
Explain the role of the Reserve Bank of India as the “lender of last resort”. [4]
Answer:
A person or organisation which is ready to help the individual or organisation who is in need of immediate financial help to come out of the financial struggles is the lender of the last resort. It means that if a commercial bank fails to get financial accommodation from anywhere, it approaches the Reserve Bank as a last resort. Reserve Bank advances loan to such banks against approved securities. By offering loan to the commercial bank in situations of emergency, the Reserve Bank ensures that:

• The banking system of the country does not suffer from any setback.
• Money market remains stable.

It preserves the stability of the banking and financial system by protecting individual’s depsoited funds and preventing panic-ridden withdrawals from banks with temporary limited liquidity. For more than century and a half, central banks have been trying to avoid great depressions by acting a lenders of last resort in times of financial crisis.

Question 22.
(a) Explain the impact of rise in exchange rate on national income.
(b) Explain the concept of ‘deficit’ in balance of payments. [6]
Answer:
(a) If the exchange rate of a country falls with respect to the other country then its exports become cheap while imports become expensive. For example : If earlier, the exchange rate was US$1 = INR 60, and if the exchange rate decreased to US$1 = INR 70, then businesses that are selling their products in the US will receive more money. So, if my product was priced at US$5, earlier I was receiving 5*60 = INR 3Q0, now the exchange rate depreciated to INR 70, so for the same priced product in the US that is priced at US$5, I will be receiving 5*70 = INR 350. Similarly, for imports, as the ‘ exchange rate depreciated to INR 70 and if I want to purchase a Smartphone worth US$200; earlier I had to pay 200*60 = INR 12,000. Now I will pay, 200*70 = INR 14,000.
Exactly opposite will happen when exchange rate will appreciate. For example : when US$1 = INR 60 will become US$1 = INR 50.

(b) The deficit in the Balance of Payment (BOP) is governed by the balance of autonomous transactions in the BOP. The BOP would show a deficit if the autonomous receipts are lesser than the autonomous payments. As autonomous receipt implies a receipt of foreign exchange and autonomous payment implies a payment of foreign exchange, so, it can be said that BOP would show a deficit when the foreign exchange receipts are less than foreign exchange payment which also means that the BOP deficit would reflect depletion of foreign exchange reserves of the country.

Question 23.
Calculate (a) Net National Product at market price, and
(b) Gross Domestic Product at factor cost: [4 + 2 = 6]

Answer:
NDP_FC = Wages and salaries + SSC by employers + Rent and interest + Dividend + Corporation tax + Undistributed profit + Mixed income
NDP_FC = 1800 + 200 + 6000 + 80 +120 + 400 + 1000
NDP_FC = ₹ 9600 Crores
(a) NNP_MP = NDP_FC + NFIA + NIT
NNP_MP = ₹ 9600 + (- 70) + 100
NNP_MP = ₹ 9630 Crores

(b) GDP_FC = NDP_FC + Consumption of fixed capital
GDP_FC = ₹ 9600 + 50
GDP_FC = ₹ 9650 Crores

Question 24.
Explain the meaning of the following : [6]
(a) Revenue deficit
(b) Fiscal deficit
(c) Primary deficit
OR
Explain the following objectives of government budget:
(a) Allocation of resources
(b) Reducing income inequalities.
Answer:
(a) Revenue Deficit: A revenue deficit occurs when the net income generated (revenues less expenditures), falls short of the projected net income. This happens when the actual amount of revenue received and/ or the actual amount of expenditures do not correspond with budgeted revenue and expenditure figure.

(b) Fiscal Deficit: A fiscal deficit occurs when a government’s total expenditures exceed the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings. Deficit differs from debt, which is an accumulation of yearly deficits.

(c) Primary Deficit: The deficit can be measured with or without including the interest paid on the debt as expenditures. The primary deficit is defined as the difference between current government’s spending on goods and services and total current revenue from all types of taxes.
OR
(a) Allocation of Resources: It is one of the important objectives of government budget. In a mixed economy, the private producers aim towards profit maximisation, while, the government aims towards welfare maximisation. The private sector always tend to divert resources towards areas of high profit, while ignoring areas of social welfare. In such a situation, the government through the budgetary policy aims to reallocate resources in accordance with the economic and social priorities of the country.

(b) Reducing Income inequalities: Government through budget makes every possible effort to reduce income inequalities. Income inequalities are so much prevalent in an economy like India. To achieve this objective, government uses fiscal instruments of taxation and subsidies. By imposing taxes on rich and giving subsidies to the poor, the government rdistributes income in favour of poorer sections of the society. Distribution of food grain through ‘fair = price shops’ to BPL (below poverty line) population is an important step in this direction. Equitable distribution of income and wealth is a sign of social justice.
Thus, government budget reduces income inequalities.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2018 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Sociology 2017

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:

• The question paper contains 26 questions.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question no. 1 to 11 carry 1 mark each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 10-20 words each.
• Questions no. 12 to 19 carry 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 30-50 words each.
• Questions no. 20 to 26 carry 5 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 75-100 words each.

Question 1.
What do you understand by the term westernisation ? [2]
Answer:
Westernisation is the process where societies come under or adopt western culture, lifestyles and western ways of thinking in areas such as industry, language, clothing, etc.

Question 2.
In an industrial set-up, how can a manager make the workers produce more ? [2]
Answer:
In an industrial set-up, manager can make the workers produce more by providing them more than the prevailing wage rate and also by motivating them to work hard.

Question 3.
Write the meaning of term infotainment. [2]
Answer:
Infotainment refers to the type of media, usually television, which provides a combination of information and entertainment both pattern is directly proportional to status symbol because high consumption patterns depict better standards of life, products people consume indicate their status.

Question 5.
Why coastal cities were favoured by the colonial rulers ? [2]
Answer:
The coastal cities were favoured by the colonial rulers as primary commodities could be

Question 6.
What changes have been brought by the technology in newspaper industry ? [2]
Answer:
The use of internet and LAN has made the process of newspaper production fully automatic. Moreover, use of newsmaking softwares has helped in giving customised look to the newspapers. In this automatic chain, the use of paper is completely eliminated.

Question 7.
How were silk spinners and twisters of Bihar affected by globalisation ? [2]
Answer:
The silk spinners and twisters of Bihar were affected by globalisation as they lost their jobs, when Chinese and Korean silk yarn entered the market. Foreign yarn was prefered by weavers and consumers as it had shine and was cheaper.

Question 8.
What role does pressure groups play in Indian democracy ? [2]
Answer:
Pressure groups play a vital role in the process of government. A pressure group is an interest group that operates to promote the interest of its members through lobbying and external inducement of pressure. It is generally an association of people with a common economic interest who try to influence government action in legislation, administrative procedures or judicial decisions.

Question 9.
What are counter movements ? Give example. [2]
Answer:
Social movements try to bring about a social change, while counter-movements arise in defence of it. For example, when Raja Ram Mohan Roy tried to campaign against Sati and formed Brahmo Samaj, the defenders of Sati formed Dharma Sabha and petitioned the British to not legislate Sati, thus exercising counter movement.

Question 10.
What are the distinct modes of protest ? [2]
Answer:
Distinct modes of protests are candle and torch light processions, use of black cloth, street theatres, songs and poetry.

Question 11.
State the main concerns of 19^th Century’s social reformers. [2]
Answer:
The main concerns of 19^th century’s social reformers are :

1. Removal of prevailing social evils.
2. Education for the deprived and backward sections.
3. Widow—remarriage.
4. Child—marriage.
5. Caste and gender discrimination.
6. Religious discrimination.

Question 12.
In what way advertisement in technology led to revolutionary changes in global communities?
Answer:
The advertisements in technology led to revolutionary changes in global communities where it has created global platform for trade. Advertisements in newspapers and magazines have transformed following the change in technology. It has also affected the way consumers react to promotion of products.

Question 13.
Give examples of INGOs. [2]
Answer:

1. Green peace.
2. The Red Cross and Amnesty International.

Question 14.
How mass-media is a part of our every days life ? [2]
Answer:
People learn news and views during reading newspapers and magazines, or by talking over the telephone or they are kept informed by watching TV or listening to the radio. The press, the radio and television play a big role in the life of the society. They inform, educate and entertain people. They also influence the way people look at the world and make them change their views. Thus, they play an important role in everyday life.

Question 15.
Explain the policies of assimilation and integration used to establish national identity. [4]
Answer:
The policies of assimilation involve outright suppression of ethnic, linguistic or religious identities. Policies of integration try to assert a single national identity by trying to remove ethnic, national and cultural differences in the political and public domains, while still allowing it in private domains. The purpose of both sets of identities is to formulate a single national identity.

Question 16.
Differentiate the sociological and economic perspective of market. [4]
OR
How did the advent of colonialism in India produce a major upheaval in the economy ?
Answer:
According to the economic perspective of market, the purpose of a market is profit-making. Adam Smith believed that the market economy is made up of a number of individual exchanges or transactions which helps in creating a functioning and ordered system. This involves trading buying, selling. However, Sociological perspective considers market in a culturally specific way.

This means that markets are usually controlled or organised by specific social groups. They consider market as a social institution involving trading, buying, selling, distribution, money oriented process etc. social proceeds and structure. According to sociologists, economies are socially embedded which are evident through weekly tribal market (haat) and traditional business community.
OR
The advent of colonialism in India produced a major upheaval in the economy in the following ways :

1. It created disruptions in production, trade and agriculture. British industrialisation led to de-industrialization in India.
   For ex. : Demise of handloom industry.
2. Indian economy began to link to the capitalist economy of the world.
3. India was left as a free source of raw materials and agricultural products and merely consumer of imported machine made goods.
4. Marwari communities took advantage of cities like Calcutta (Kolkata) and spread their trade and money lending business throughout the country.

Question 17.
Nation-State became the dominant political form during the colonial period. Explain. [4]
Answer:
The nation-state became the dominant political form during the colonial period : Nation-state became the dominant political form : The idea of nationalism emerged as one when colonialism had reached at its climax. Nation-state was associated closely with the rise of nationalism and rise of democratic idea for example, sovereignty.

A nation-state is concerned with the particular type of state this is the characteristic of the modern world. The government working has sovereign power within a particular territorial area, and the people are citizens of that nation. The rise of nationalism is linked with Nation states and it believes that any t set of people have a right to be free and exercise sovereign power. This leads to the rise of democratic ideas. It implies that people of the colonized areas always have an equal right to be sovereign.

Question 18.
The 73rd amendment has been monumental in bringing voice to the people of villages. Discuss. [4]
Answer:
73^rd amendment has played a monumental role in bringing a voice to the people in villages in the following ways :

1. In the country, decentralised governance was ’ begun by the 73^rd Constitutional Amendment. By this act, the Panchayati Raj institutions were given the constitutional status.
2. All the state which have a population of over 20 lakhs were provided with a 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj by 73^rdamendment.
3. Election to these local bodies were made mandatory to be conducted every 5 years. This act has provided reservation for SC, ST and 33% seats for women in these local bodies.
4. The elected local bodies were given power to control local resources by this act. Women were also empowered.

Thus, 73^rd amendment was able to bridge the gap between centre or state level authorities and local or rural level issues. It recognised panchayats as institutions of self-government. It entrusted the rural area to prepare a plan for economic development and social justice. It also gave guidelines for powers and functions, finance and elections, etc.

Question 19.
What is the role and significance of civil society in today’s world ? [4]
OR
“Encouraging cultural diversity is good policy . from both the practical and the principled point of view.” Justify the statement using India’s case as a nation-state.
Answer:
Civil society is the non-state and non-market part of the public domain in which people come together for creating institutions and organisations. It is the sphere of active citizenship where people could take up social issues and try to influence the state or make demands on it, pursue their collective interests or seek support for a number of causes.

It includes political parties, media institutions, trade unions, non-governmental organisations (NGOs), religious organisations that are not state controlled. They are not mainly for the profit making purposes.
OR
The Indian Nation-state is socially and culturally one of the most diverse countries of the world.
It has one of the largest populations speaking multiple languages (dialects).

It consists of multiple religions, plural in beliefs and practices.

In terms of Nation-state’s relationship with community identities, the Indian case fits neither the “Assimilationist” nor the “Integrationist” model. The Constitution declares the State to be a secular state, but religion, language and other such factors have not been banished from the public sphere.

By international standards, very strong constitutional protection is offered to minority religions. India’s problems have been more in the sphere of implementation and practice rather than Laws or principles.

Question 20.
Discuss the changes that the Trade Unions bring out in the lives of workers. [4]
Answer:
Trade unions play a vital role in maintaining and enhancing the economic status by stressing on better working conditions, better wages and other benefits. They try to check that the workers are not being exploited. The trade unions also ensure safety of the workers by claiming healthy and hygenic work environment, Sickness and accident benefits etc. Trade unions use various instruments for breaking strikes and lockouts.

Question 21.
In what way the new social movements are different from the old social movements ? [4]
Answer:
Old social movements functioned within the frame of political party and were mainly concerned with the distribution of power in the society, while new social movements focused an quality of life issues like clean environment and pressure on state was put from outside (instead of political parties).

Old social movements focused mainly on the reorganisation of the power relation, while the new social movement addressed the social issues. Old movements were concerned with economic inequality while the new social movements are concerned with social, political and cultural inequality.

Old social movements had regional approach while the new social movements have international approach.

Question 22.
Explain the three key principles of social stratification with examples. (1 × 4) + 2 = 6
Answer:
The three key principles of social stratification :

1. Social stratification leads to inequality of wealth and resources : Social stratification is a feature of society and not simply a function of individual difference. Social stratification is a system which is responsible for unequal distribution of resource among different categories of people. For example, in the technologically advanced countries there is surplus production above the basic needs.
It leads to unequal distribution of resources irrespective of persons inner abilities.

2. Social stratification persists over generations : It is closely related with inheritance of social resources over generations. Morevoer, the social position is ascribed i.e., children get the social position of their parents. Similarly, occupational opportunities are ascribed. Hence, the children of a ‘dalit’ praticing worst menial job has little chances of taking up a white collar job. This ascribed feature of social inequality is further reinforced by endogamy, where a person has little chance of marrying outside the caste.

3. Social stratification is supported by patterns of belief or ideology : Any system of social stratification is not likely to persist over generations, unless it is considered to be fair or inevitable. For example, the caste system is justified on the basis of the concept of purity and pollution, in which the Brahmins occupy the most superior position and Dalits, the most inferior position by virtue of the occupation and birth.

Question 23.
Highlight the social consequences of Green Revolution. [6]
Answer:
Green Revolution : The fundamental change and phenomenal increase in food grain production in late 60’s in India has earned the name of Green Revolution. The word ‘Green’ here refers to the green fields of the countryside and ‘revolution’ indicates a substantial change.
The social consequences of Green Revolution in India:

1. Green revolution has certainly improved the food situation in the country.
2. It has solved the problem of hunger and has given a strong base to the Indian economy for further growth.
3. It has transformed the mindset of farmers.
4. However, the impact of Green Revolution has not been equally favourable for all sections of agrarian population.
5. India is a poor country. The new technology and other inputs such as improved seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, water, etc., are beyond the reach of small and marginal farmers.
6. Regional insecurities have worsened.
7. Traditional system of cultivation leading to livelihood insecurities.

Question 24.
Explain the structural tensions faced by men
and women in matriarchal societies. [6]
OR
What are the factors behind the assertion of tribal identities today ?
Answer:
The reason for the structural tensions faced by men and women in a matriarchal society is due to several contradictions in the system. One of such contradiction is the separation of the line of descent and inheritance on one hand and the structure of authority and control on the other. The former one links the mother to the daughter and the later one relates the mother’s brother to the sister’s son.

The inheritance of property is passed from mother to daughter and control is passed from the uncle to nephew. The male face a lot of role conflict. * They are torn between the responsibilities towards the natal house and towards his own wife and the children. Moreover, a women is always afraid that her husband might find her sister’s house to be more congenial. Similarly, sister also apprehend that her brother might not commit towards her welfare due to responsibilities towards his own family. Only token of authority is rendered to females and the de facto authority resides with the males. Infact, the matriarchal system also favour male matri-kin instead of male patri-kin. {i.e., the relative on the males mother’s side matters more than that on his father’s side.)
OR
Factors that are behind the assertion of Tribal identities today are :

1. Schemes for tribal development are being implemented. These are five year plans, tribal sub-plans, tribal welfare blocks, special multipurpose area schemes etc.
2. Tribal movements against their eviction and extermination from the forest lands in the name of development are the major factors behind the assertion of tribal identities. Narmada Bachao Andolan is one of the examples of tribal movements.
3. Many tribal identities today are centred on ideas of resistance and opposition to the overwhelming force on non-tribal world.
4. Many states in North-East includir Manipur or Nagaland are with tribals whose civil liberties have been limited under special laws in which they have been declared as disturbed areas. State repression is provoking rebellions which has been taken a heavy toll on the economy, culture and society of the North-Eastern States.
5. In states like Jharkhand and Chattisgarh, tribals still are powerless because autonomy is not given to larger structures.
6. Educated middle class is emerging among tribal communities. Thus, different base are growing for the assertion of tribal identity.

Question 25.
Read the passage given below and answer following questions:

Data from the National Sample Survey studies of 1999-2000 and from the 2001 Census of India reveal a sharp fall in the rate of employment generation (creation of new jobs) across both rural and urban areas. This is true for the young as well. The rate of growth of employment in the 15-30 age group, which stood at around 2.4 per cent a year between 1987 and 1994 for both rural and urban men, fell to 0.7 for rural men and 0.3 per cent for urban men during 1994 to 2004. This suggests that the advantage offered by a young labour force is not being exploited.

Strategies exist to exploit the demographic window of opportunity that India has today. But India’s recent experience suggests that market forces by themselves do not ensure that such strategies would be implemented. Unless a way forward is found, we may miss out on the potential benefit that the country’s changing age structure temporarily offers.

(a) What is demographic dividend ?
(b) Do you think that India is indeed facing a window of opportunity created by demographic dividend ? [4]
Answer:
(a) Demographic dividend refers to the growth in an economy as a result of change in age structure of population.

(b) In 2020, the average India will be only 29 years old so, India will experience the demographic dividend. However, this potential can be beneficial for India only when the rise in working age group is accompanied with increasing levels of education and employment. In case the new entrants to the working population are not educated their productivity will remain low. If they are unemployed then they are likely to become burden instead of earners.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Sociology 2017 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Chemistry 2011 Outside Delhi

Time allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Chemistry 2011 Outside Delhi Set I

Question 1.
Define ‘order of a reaction’. [1]
Answer:
The sum of powers of the concentrations of the reactants in the rate law expression is called the order of a reaction.

Question 2.
What is meant by ‘shape-selective catalysis’? [1]
Answer:
Catalysis using selective absorbents like zeolites as a catalyst is called shape-selective catalysis. In this catalysis, small-sized molecules are absorbed in the pores and cavities of zeolites.

Question 3.
Differentiate between a mineral and an ore. [1]
Answer:

Question 4.
What is meant by ‘lanthanoid contraction’? [1]
Answer:
The lanthanoid contraction refers to the steady and regular decrease in atomic radii along the period from La⁺³ to Lu⁺³.

Question 5.
Write the IUPAC name of the following compound:
CH₂=CHCH₂Br [1]
Answer:
3-Bromo-1-propene

Question 6.
Draw the structure of 4-chloropentan-2-one. [1]
Answer:

Question 7.
How would you convert ethanol to ethene? [1]
Answer:

Question 8.
Rearrange the following in increasing order of their basic strengths: [1]
C₆H₅NH₂, C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH and CH₃NH₂.
Answer:
C₆H₅NH₂ < C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂ < CH₃NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₂NH

Question 9.
Explain how you can determine the atomic mass of an unknown metal if you know its mass density and the dimensions of the unit cell of its crystal. [2]

Question 10.
Calculate the packing efficiency of a metal crystal for a simple cubic lattice. [2]
Answer:
Edge length = a

Question 11.
State the following: [2]
(i) Raoult’s law in its general form in reference to solutions.
(ii) Henry’s law about partial pressure of a gas in a mixture.
Answer:
(i) Raoult’s Law: The partial vapour pressure of each component of a solution is equal to the vapour pressure of pure component multiplied by its mole fraction in the solution.
P = P_Ax_A+P_Bx_B
Where
P = Total vapour pressure of a solution.
P_A and P_B = vapour pressure of components A and B.
x_A and x_B = mole fractions of components A and B.

(ii) Henry’s Law: It states that the partial pressure of a gas in the vapour phase (P) is directly proportional to the mole fraction of gas (x) in the solution and is expressed as
P = K_Hx
where K_H is Henry constant.

Question 12.
What do you understand by the rate law and rate constant of a reaction? Identify the order of a reaction if the units of its rate constant are: [2]
(i) L^-1 mol s^-1
(ii) L mol^-1 s^-1
Answer:
Rate law of a chemical reaction is the expression relating the rate of reaction to the concentrations or pressures of various reactants taking part in the reaction.
The rate of reaction at a unit concentration of all reactants is known as the rate constant (K)

• Zero-order
• Second-order

Question 13.
The thermal decomposition of HCO₂H is a first-order reaction with a rate constant of 2.4 × 10^-3 s^-1 at a certain temperature. Calculate how long will it take for three-fourths of the initial quantity of HCO₂H to decompose, (log 0.25 = -0.6021) [2]
Answer:

Question 14.
Describe the principle controlling each of the following processes: [2]

1. Vapour phase refining of titanium metal
2. Froth floatation method of concentration of a sulphide ore

Answer:

1. Titanium is converted to its volatile form which is evaporated and then decomposed to give pure titanium.
2. The ore particles get adsorbed on oil droplets and come to the surface where they can be collected as froth gangue is wetted by water and gets settle down.

Question 15.
How would you account for the following: [2]

1. Cr²⁺ is reducing in nature while with the same d-orbital configuration (d⁴) Mn³⁺ is an oxidizing agent.
2. In a transition series of metals, the metal which exhibits the greatest number of oxidation states occurs in the middle of the series.

Answer:

1. Cr²⁺ has configuration d⁴ which easily changes to d³ due to stable half-filled 12g orbitals. Therefore, Cr²⁺ is reducing agent and Mn³⁺ easily changes to Mn²⁺ and acts as an oxidizing agent.
2. Due to the presence of more unpaired electrons and more number of partially filled orbitals in the middle of a transition series, these metals exhibit the greatest number of oxidation states.

Question 16.
Complete the following chemical equations: [2]

OR
State reasons for the following:
(i) Cu (i) ion is not stable in an aqueous solution.
(ii) Unlike Cr³⁺, Mn²⁺, Fe³⁺ and the subsequent other M²⁺ ions of the 3d series of elements, the 4d and the 5d series metals generally do not form stable cationic species.
Answer:

OR
(i) Cu²⁺ is more stable than Cu⁺ because hydration energy of Cu²⁺ is high and it is, therefore, stable in aqueous solution. Therefore, Cu⁺ disproportionates to Cu²⁺ and Cu.
2Cu⁺ → Cu²⁺ + Cu
(ii) Because of Lanthanoid contraction, an expected increase in size does not occur. That is why they do not form stable cations.

Question 17.
Explain what is meant by the following: [2]
(i) Peptide linkage
(ii) Pyranose structure of glucose
Answer:
(i) Peptide linkage is the peptide bond formed between amino acids. It is a covalent bond formed between an amino group of one molecule and a carboxylic acid group of another molecule, causing the release of one molecule of water.

(ii) The cyclic structure of glucose is called pyranose because it resembles the pyran ring. Its structure includes a six-membered ring with 5-carbon atoms and one oxygen atom having no double bonds.

Question 18.
Write the main structural difference between DNA and RNA. Of the four bases, name those which are common to both DNA and RNA. [2]
Answer:

Adenine, cytokine and guanine are bases present in both DNA and RNA

Question 19.
A solution prepared by dissolving 8.95 mg of a gene fragment in 35.0 mL of water has an osmotic pressure of 0.335 torrs at 25°C. Assuming that the gene fragment is a non-electrolyte, calculate its molar mass. [3]
Answer:

Question 20.
Classify colloids where the dispersion medium is water. State their characteristics and write an example of each of these classes. [3]
OR
Explain what is observed when
(i) an electric current is passed through a Solution
(ii) a beam of light is passed through a Solution
(iii) an electrolyte (say NaCl) is added to ferric hydroxide sol
Answer:
Colloids can be classified into two types where the dispersion medium is water. They are as follows:
1. Hydrophilic Colloids or Lyophilic: The substances when mixed with dispersion medium form colloidal solution directly are called hydrophilic colloids. They are quite stable, reversible solutions and can’t get precipitated easily, e.g., Gum starch, etc.
2. Hydrophobic Colloids or Lyophobic: The substances which do not form a colloidal solution with dispersion medium are called hydrophobic colloids. They are unstable, irreversible solutions and can be easily precipitated, e.g., Metals and their sulphides.
OR
(i) When an electric current is passed through a solution, then positively charged ions move towards the cathode and negatively charged ions move towards the anode. Then they get coagulate.
This is known as Electrophoresis.

(ii) When a beam of strong light is passed through the solution, the light gets scattered by the colloidal particles and the path of light becomes visible. This is known as the Tyndall effect.

(iii) When NaCl is added to ferric hydroxide sol then a negatively charged solution is obtained with the absorption of OH^– ion.

Question 21.
How would you account for the following: [3]

1. H₂S is more acidic than H₂O.
2. The N-O bond in NO₂^– is shorter than the N-O bond in NO₃^–
3. Both O₂ and F₂ stabilize high oxidation states but the ability of oxygen to stabilize the higher oxidation state exceeds that of fluorine.

Answer:

1. Size of sulphur is larger than oxygen due to which S-H bond length increases and hence the bond dissociation energy of S-H is less than O-H. Therefore S-H easily loses H+ and is more acidic than H₂O.
2. Due to the tendency of nitrogen to form pπ-pπ multiple bonds, there is a difference in N-O bond lengths of NO₂ and NO₃.
3. Due to the property of oxygen to form double bonds with the metal atoms, oxygen stabilizes the higher oxidation state even more than fluorine.

Question 22.
Explain the following terms giving a suitable example in each case: [3]

1. Ambident ligand
2. Denticity of a ligand
3. Crystal field splitting in an octahedral field

Answer:

1. Ligands which can ligate to the central atom in two places ligands such as SCN which can attach at either S atom or N atom are called ambidentate ligand.
2. The number of donor atoms of a ligand, when bound with the central atom in a coordination complex, is called its denticity.
3. The splitting of five degenerated d-orbitals in two sets, one with three orbitals and another with two orbitals is known as crystal field splitting.

Question 23.
Rearrange the compounds of each of the following sets in order of reactivity towards S_N2 displacement: [3]

1. 2-Bromo-2-methyl butane, 1-Bromopentane, 2-Bro-neopentane
2. 1-Bromo-3-methyl butane, 2-Bromo-2- methyl-butane, 2-Bromo-3-methyl butane
3. 1-Bromobutane, 1-Bromo-2, 2-dimethylpropane, 1- Bromo-2- methyl butane.

Answer:

1. 1-bromopentane > 2-bromopentane > 2-bromo-2-methylbutane.
2. 1-bromo-3 methylbutane > 2-bromo-3- methylbutane > 2-bromo-2-methyl butane.
3. 1-bromobutane > 1-bromo-3-methylbutane > 1-bromo-2, 2-dimethylpropane.

Question 24.
How would you obtain the following: [3]
(i) Benzoquinone from phenol
(ii) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol from methyl magnesium bromide
(iii) Propan-2-ol from propene
Answer:

Question 25.
State reasons for the following: [3]
(i) pK_b value for aniline is more than that for methylamine.
(ii) Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not soluble in water.
(iii) Primary amines have higher boiling points than tertiary amines.
Answer:
(i) A higher value of pK_b means lower basicity, therefore, aniline is less basic than methylamine because in aniline the lone pair of electrons on N atom gets delocalized over the benzene ring and remains unavailable for protonation due to resonance but this is absent in methylamine.

(ii) Ethylamine forms H-bonds with water therefore, it is soluble in water but aniline does not form H-bonds with water due to its larger hydrocarbon part and is insoluble in water.

(iii) In primary amines, two H-atoms are attached to N-atom and they undergo intermolecular H-bonding, but tertiary amines due to the absence of H-atom on N-atom do not undergo H-bonding. Therefore, primary amines have a higher boiling point than tertiary amines.

Question 26.
Draw the structures of the monomers of the following polymers: [3]
(i) Polythene
(ii) PVC
(iii) Teflon
Answer:
(i) Ethene —CH₂=CH₂—
(ii) Vinyl chloride —HCH₂=CHCl—
(iii) Tetrafluoroethylene —CF₂=CF₂—

Question 27.
What are the following substances? Give one example of each. [3]

1. Food preservatives
2. Synthetic detergents
3. Antacids

Answer:

1. Chemicals added to food to prevent its spoilage by killing or preventing the growth of microorganisms like bacteria, yeasts and moulds, e.g., sodium benzoate.
2. Synthetic detergents are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain sulphonic acids. They don’t precipitate in hard water, e.g., Sodium lauryl sulphate.
3. Antacids are chemicals consumed to get relief from acidity in the stomach by neutralizing excess acid, e.g., milk of magnesia.

Question 28.
(a) What type of battery is lead storage battery? Write the anode and cathode reactions and the overall cell reaction occurring in the operation of a lead storage battery. [5]
(b) Calculate the potential for half-cell containing 0.10 M K₂Cr₂O₇ (aq), 0.20 M Cr³⁺ (aq) and 1.0 × 10^-4 M H⁺ (aq). The half-cell reaction is and the standard electrode potential is given as E⁰ = 1.33 V.

OR
(a) How many moles of mercury will be produced by electrolyzing 1.0 M Hg(NO₃)₂ solution with a current of 2.00 A for 3 hours? [Hg(NO₃)₂ = 200.6 g mol^-1]
(b) A voltaic cell is set up at 25°C with the following half-cells Al³⁺ (0.001 M) and Ni²⁺ (0.50 M). Write an equation for the reaction that occurs when the cell generates an electric current and determine the cell potential.

Answer:
(a) The lead storage battery is a secondary cell (rechargeable). The electrode reaction is as follows:

Question 29.
(a) Draw the structures of the following molecules: [5]
(i) (HPO₃)₃
(ii) BrF₃
(b) Complete the following chemical equations:
(i) HgCl₂ + PH₃ →
(ii) SO₃ + H₂SO₄ →
(iii) XeF₄ + H₂O →
OR
(a) What happens when
(i) Chlorine gas is passed through a hot concentrated solution of NaOH?
(ii) Sulphur dioxide gas is passed through an aqueous solution of a Fe(III) salt?
(b) Answer the following:
(i) What is the basicity of H₃PO₃ and why?
(ii) Why does fluorine not play the role of a central atom in interhalogen compounds?
(iii) Why do noble gases have very low boiling points?
Answer:
(a) (ii) BrF₃

(b) (ii) Since fluorine is the most electro-negative halogen, it does not acts as a central atom in interhalogen compounds due to the absence of d-orbital.
(iii) Noble gases are monoatomic with weak Vander Waals forces of attraction and hence have low boiling points.

Question 30.
(a) Illustrate the following name reactions: [5]
(i) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(ii) Clemmensen reduction
(b) How would you obtain the following:
(i) But-2-enal from ethanal
(ii) Butanoic acid from butanol
(iii) Benzoic acid from ethylbenzene
OR
(a) Give chemical tests to distinguish between the following:
(i) Benzoic acid and ethyl benzoate
(ii) Benzaldehyde and acetophenone
(b) Complete each synthesis by giving missing reagents or products in the following:

Answer:
(a) (i) Aldehydes having no a -hydrogen atom undergoes self oxidation and reduction on treatment with concentrated alkali and produces alcohol and carboxylic acid salt.

(iii) Reduction of aldehydes and ketones to their respective hydrocarbons. On treating with zinc amalgam and concentrated hydrochloric acid


OR
(a) (i) Benzoic acid gives CO₂ gas on reacting with NaHCO₃ but ethyl benzoate does not
(ii) Acetophenone gives iodoform test but

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Chemistry 2011 Outside Delhi Set II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in the previous set.

Question 2.
What are lyophobic colloids? Given one example for them. [1]
Answer:
Colloids in which the colloidal particles have no affinity for the dispersion medium and they do not form a colloidal solution are lyophobic colloids, like, Al(OH)₃ and AS₂S₃ sols.

Question 3.
Why is it that only sulphide ores are concentrated by ‘froth floatation process’? [1]
Answer:
Due to the affinity of heavy oil droplets to adsorb sulphide particles. The ore particles come on the surface as froth, gangue particles are wetted by water and get settle down.

Question 5.
Write the IUPAC name of the following compound: [1]

Answer:
3-Bromo-2-methyl prop-1-ene

Question 6.
Draw the structure of 2, 6-Dimethylphenol. [1]
Answer:

Question 9.
Define the following terms in relation to crystalline solids: [2]
(i) Unit Cell
(ii) Coordination number

Question 12.
A reaction is of second order with respect to a reactant How is the rate of reaction affected if the concentration of the reactant is reduced to half? What is the unit of the rate constant for such a reaction? [2]
Answer:

Question 14.
Describe the principle controlling each of the following processes: [2]
(i) Zone refining of metals
(ii) Electrolytic refining of metals
Answer:
(i) Zone refining of Metals: It is based on the principle that impurities are more soluble in the molten state of metal than in the solid-state

(ii) Electrolytic refining: Impure metal is made of an anode, a thin sheet of pure metal is made of a cathode and a salt of the metal is used as an electrolyte. On passing current, metal from anode goes into the solution and ions in the solution reduce on cathode leading to deposition of pure metal.

Question 15.
Explain giving a suitable reason for each of the following: [2]
(i) Transition metals and their compounds are generally found to be good catalysts.
(ii) Metal-metal bonding is more frequent for the 4d and the 5d series of transition metals than that for the 3d series.
Answer:
(i) Due to the presence of vacant orbitals and tendency to form a large number of oxidation states, transition metals have a high tendency to form complexes and hence acts as catalysts.

(ii) In transition metals of 4d and 5d series, the 4d and 5d electrons are at a greater distance from the nucleus, therefore, they are less tightly held to the atom by the nucleus and hence contribute more to metallic bonding as compared to transition metals of 3d series.

Question 19.
What mass of NaCl must be dissolved in 65.0 g of water to lower the freezing point of water by 7.50°C? The freezing point depression constant (K_f) for water is 1.86°C/m. Assume Van’t Hoff factor for NaCl is 1.87. (Molar mass of NaCl = 58.5 g) [3]
Answer:

Question 22.
Write the structures and names of all the stereoisomers of the following compounds: [3]
(i) [Co(en₃)]Cl₃
(ii) [Pt(NH₃)₂Cl₂]
(iii) [Fe(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl
Answer:
(i) Stereoisomerism is of two types:
(1) Geometrical isomerism
(2) Optical isomerism
[Co(en)₃]Cl₃: Tris (ethylenediamine) cobalt (III) chloride

Question 27.
(a) Differentiate between a disinfectant and an antiseptic. Give one example of each.
(b) What is a tincture of iodine and what is it used for? [3]
Answer:

(b) 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol and water is called tincture iodine and is widely used as an antiseptic.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Chemistry 2011 Outside Delhi Set III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Question 1.
Define ‘activation energy’ of a reaction. [1]
Answer:
Activation energy is the minimum energy that is to be provided to the reactants for the reaction to take place.

Question 2.
What is meant by ‘reverse osmosis’? [1]
Answer:
When a pressure higher than the osmotic pressure is applied the solvent will flow from the solution into the pure solvent through the semipermeable membrane, called reverse osmosis.

Question 3.
What type of ores can be concentrated by magnetic separation method? [1]
Answer:
Ores with different magnetic properties and impurities which are magnetic in nature can be concentrated by magnetic separation method. e.g. Chromite (FeO.Cr₂O₃), Magnetite (Fe₃O₄)

Question 14.
Describe the principle controlling each of the following processes: [2]
(i) Preparation of cast iron from pig iron.
(ii) Preparation of pure alumina (Al₂O₃) from bauxite ore.
Answer:
(i) Preparation of cast iron from pig iron: The iron obtained from a blast furnace is called pig iron. Cast iron is prepared by melting pig iron with scrap iron and coke using hot air blast. It has slightly lower carbon content (about 3%). It is extremely hard and brittle.

(ii) Preparation of pure alumina from bauxite ore: The principal ore of aluminium is bauxite Al₂O₃xH₂O. Bauxite is concentrated by digesting the powdered ore with a concentrated solution of NaOH at 473-523K. The Al₂O₃ is leached out as sodium aluminate. The sodium aluminate is neutralized by passing CO₂ gas and hydrated Al₂O₃ is precipitated which is filtered, dried and heated to give pure Al₂O₃.

Question 15.
Explain giving reasons: [2]
(i) Transition metals and their compounds generally exhibit paramagnetic behaviour.
(ii) The chemistry of actinoids is not so smooth as that of lanthanoids.
Answer:
(i) Transition metals and their compounds exhibit a paramagnetic behaviour due to the presence of unpaired electrons in the Penultimate shell of d-orbital.

(ii) Lanthanoids show a limited number of oxidation states, +2, +3, +4 because of the large energy gap between 4f and 5d subshells. Actinoids show a number of oxidation states +4, +5, +6, +7 due to the small energy difference between 5f, 6d and 7s subshells.

Question 18.
Write such reactions and facts about glucose which cannot be explained by its open-chain structure. [2]
Answer:
Limitations of open chain structure of glucose:

• Glucose does not form NaHSO₃ as an additional product.
• Glucose penta-acetate does not react with NH₂OH due to the absence of the aldehyde group.

Question 21.
How would you account for the following: [3]
(i) NF₃ is an exothermic compound but NCl₃ is not.
(ii) The acidic strength of compounds increases in the order PH₃ < H₂S < HCl
(ii) As electronegativity increases in the same period from left to right so their electronegativity is in the increasing order P < S < Cl. Therefore, acidic strength increases in the order PH₃ < H₂S < HCl
(iii) SF6 is protected by six F atoms and hence does not allow to attack sulphur atom.

Question 22.
Write the state of hybridization, the shape and the magnetic behaviour of the following complex entitles: [3]

1. [Cr(NH₃)₄Cl₂]Cl
2. [Co(en)₃]Cl₃
3. K₂[Ni(CN)₄]

Answer:

1. d²sp³, octahedral, diamagnetic
2. d²sp³, octahedral, diamagnetic
3. dsp², square planar, diamagnetic

Question 26.
Write the names and structures of the monomers of the following polymers: [3]
(i) Buna-S
(ii) Dacron
(iii) Neoprene
Answer:
(i) Buna-S: 1, 3-Butadiene
CH₂=CH-CH-CH₂ and styrene C₆H₅CH=CH₂
(ii) Dacron: Ethylene glycol HOCH₂CH₂OH, Terephthalic acid

(iii) Neoprene: Chloroprene

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Maths 2012 Delhi

Time allowed: 3 hours
Maximum marks : 100

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper consists of 29 questions divided into four sections A, B, C and D. Section A comprises of 4 questions of one mark each, Section B comprises of 8 questions of two marks each, Section C comprises of 11 questions of four marks each and Section D comprises of 6 questions of six marks each.
• All questions in Section A are to be answered in one word, one sentence or as per the exact requirement of the question.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in 1 question of Section A, 3 questions of Section B, 3 questions of Section C and 3 questions of Section D. You have to attempt only one of the alternatives in all such questions.
• Use of calculators is not permitted. You may ask for logarithmic tables, if required.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Maths 2012 Delhi Set I

Section -A

Question 1.
If a line has direction ratios 2, -1, – 2, then what are its direction cosines ? [1]
Solution:
Given direction ratios are 2, -1, – 2
i.e., a = 2, b = -1, c = – 2.
Direction cosines are:

Question 2.
Find ‘λ’ when the projection of on is 4 units. [1]
Solution:

Question 3.
Find the sum of the vectors , . [1]
Solution:

Question 4.
Evaluate: [1]

Solution:

Question 5.
Evaluate: [1]

Solution:

Question 6.
If ∆ = , write the minor of the element a₂₃. [1]
Solution:

Question 7.
If , write the value of x. [1]
Solution:

Question 8.
Simplify:
[1]
Solution:

Question 9.
Write the principal value of
[1]
Solution:

Question 10.
Let * be a ‘binary’ operation of N given by a * b = LCM (a, b) for all a, b ϵ N. Find 5 * 7.** [1]

Section – B

Question 11.
If (cos x)^y = (cos y)^x, find . [4]
Solution:
Given, (cos x)^y = (cos y)^x
Taking log on both sides, we get
log (cos x)^y = log (cos y)^x
⇒ y log cos x = x log cos y
On differentiating w.r.t. x, we get

OR
If sin y = x sin(a + y), prove that .
Solution:
Given, sin y = x sin(a + y)

Question 12.
How many times must a man toss a fair coin, so that the probability of having at least one head is more than 80%? [4]
Solution:
Let us consider,
x = Number of times a man should toss a coin.
P(H) = Probability of getting atleast one head.
If x = 1, sample space will be H, T

Hence, a coin should be tossed 3 times in order to have the probability of getting atleast one head is more than 80%.

Question 13.
Find the vector and cartesian equations of the line passing through the point (1, 2, – 4) and perpendicular to the two lines . [4]
Solution:
Let, the direction ratios of required line be p, q, r and given that, line is perpendicular to two given lines,
Therefore, we get
3p – 16q + 7r = 0
3p + 8q – 5r = 0
On solving, we get

Equation of line passing through (1, 2, – 4) has direction ratios, proportional to 2, 3, 6.
i.e. in vector form, this line passes through point having position vector,

Question 14.
If are three vectors such that = 12 and find the value of . [4]
Solution:

Question 15.
Solve the following differential equation :
[4]
Solution:
The given differential equation is

Question 16.
Find the particular solution of the following differential equation; = 1 + x² + y² + x²y², given that y = 1 when x = 0. [4]
Solution:

Question 17.
Evaluate:
[4]
Solution:


OR
Evaluate:

Solution:
By method of partial fractions:

Question 18.
Find the point on the curve y = x³ – l1x + 5 at which the equation of tangent is y = x – 11. [4]
Solution:
Given curve is y = x³ – 11x + 5 …..(i)
Slope of tangent to curve


The points on the curve are, (2, – 9), (- 2, 19) Now, put these values in (ii)
-9 = 2 – 11
So, (2, – 9) is satisfying the tangent equation.
But (-2, 19) does not satisfy tangent equation.
Hence (2, – 9) is the required point on curve.
OR
Using differentials, find the approximate value of .
Solution:

Question 19.
If y = (tan^-1 x)², show that
[4]
Solution:

Question 20.
Using properties of determinants, prove that
[4]
Solution:
Given,

Question 21.
Prove that :
[4]
Solution:


OR
Prove that

Solution:

Question 22.
Let A = R – {3} and B = R – {1}. Consider the function f : A → B defined by f(x) = Show that f is one-one and onto and hence find f^-1. [4]
Solution:
Let x, y ϵ R such that

Section – C

Question 23.
Find the equation of the plane determined by the points A (3, -1, 2), B (5, 2, 4) and C (-1, -1, 6) and hence find the distance between the plane and the point P (6, 5, 9). [6]
Solution:
Any plane passes through A is,
a(x – 3) + b(y + 1) + c(z – 2) = 0 …(i)
Plane (i) passes through B and C
a(5 – 3) + (2 + 1) + c(4 – 2) = 0
⇒ 2a + 3b + 2c = 0
a(-1 – 3) + b(-1 + 1) + c(6 – 2) = 0
⇒ -4a + 4c = 0
On solving equations, we get

Question 24.
Of the students in a college, it is known that 60% reside in hostel and 40% are day scholars (not residing in hostel). Previous year results report that 30% of all students who reside in hostel attain’A’grade and 20% of dayscholars attain ‘A’ grade in their annual examination. At the end of the year, one student is chosen at random from the college and he has an ‘A’ grade, what is the probability that the student is a hostler ? [6]
Solution:
Let the events be defined as
E₁ = Students reside in hostel
E₂ = Selected student is a day scholar
A = Getting “A” grade
and P(E₁) = 0.60
P(E₂) = 0.40
P(A/E₁) = 0.30
P(A/E₂) = 0.20
We know that by Bayes’ theorem

Question 25.
A manufacturer produces nuts and bolts.lt takes 1 hour of work on machine A and 3 hours on machine B to produce a package of nuts. It takes 3 hours on machine A and 1 hour on machine B to produce a package of bolts. He earns a profit of ₹ 17.50 per package on nuts and ₹ 7 per package of bolts. How many packages of each should be produced each day so as to maximize his profits if he operate his machines for at the most 12 hours a day? Form the above as a linear programming problem and solve it graphically. [6]
Solution:

Let Packages of Nuts = x
Packages of Bolt = y
If Z denotes the total cost.
To maximise the cost, we have to maximize Z.
Maximize Z = 17.50 x + 7y
Subject to the constraints
x + 3y ≤ 12
3x + y ≤ 12
x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
First we draw the lines AB and CD whose equations are
x + 3y = 12 …(i) 3x + y = 12 …(ii)

The feasible region OAEDO is shaded in the figure.
The lines are intersecting the point E(3, 3).
∴ The vertices of the feasible region are O(0, 0), A (0, 4), E (3, 3) and D(4, 0).

∴ The maximum value of Z is 73.50 at the point E(3, 3).
Hence the 3 packages of nuts and 3 packages of bolt should be produced each day to get the maximum profit of ₹ 73.50.

Question 26.
Prove that:
[6]
Solution:
Taking L. H. S.



OR
Evaluate: as a limit of a sum.
Solution:

Question 27.
Using the method of integration, find the area of the region bounded by the lines 3x – 2y +1 = 0, 2x + 3y – 21 = 0 and x – 5y + 9 = 0.
Solution:
Given equations are,
3x – 2y + 1 = 0
2x + 3y – 21 = 0 .
x – 5y + 9 = 0
Taking, 3x – 2y + 1 = 0


The required area of shaded bounded region ABCA = Area under line AB + Area under line BC – Area underline AC

Question 28.
Show that the height of a closed right circular cylinder of given surface and maximum volume, is equal to the diameter of its base. [6]
Solution:
Let the surface area of cylinder is ‘S’ and volume is ‘V’.

Question 29.
Using matrices, solve the following system of linear equations:
x – y + 2z =7
3x + 4y – 5z = – 5
2x -y + 3z = 12[6]
Solution:
Given equations are
x – y + 2z = 7
3x + 4y – 5z = – 5
2x – y + 3z = 12



OR
Using elementary operations, find the inverse of the following matrix:

Solution:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Maths 2012 Delhi Set II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Section – A

Question 9.
Find the sum of the following vectors:
[1]
Solution:
The given vectors are

Question 10.
If ∆ = write the cofactor of the element a₃₂. [1]
Solution:

Section – B

Question 19.
Using properties of determinants, prove the following:
[4]
Solution:
L.H.S.

Question 20.
If y = 3 cos (log x) + 4 sin (log x), show that
[4]
Solution:
Given, y = 3 cos (log x) + 4 sin (log x) ….(i)

Question 21.
Find the equation of the line passing through the point (-1, 3, – 2) and perpendicular to the lines
[4]
Solution:
Let a, b, c be the direction ratios of the line which is perpendicular to the lines

Question 22.
Find the particular solution of the following differential equation; (x + 1) = 2e^-y -1; y = 0 when x = 0. [4]
Solution:
The given differential equation is

Section – C

Question 28.
A girl throws a die. If she gets a 5 or 6, she tosses a coin three times and notes the number of heads. If she gets 1, 2, 3 or 4, she tosses a coin two times and notes the number of heads obtained. If she obtained exactly two heads, what is the probability that she threw 1, 2, 3 or 4 with the die ? [6]
Solution:
Let A₁ be even that the girl gets 5 or 6 and hence tosses a coin 3-times.
A₁ be the even that girl gets 1, 2, 3 or 4 and hence tosses a coin 2-times.
and A be even that the girl gets exactly two heads.

Question 29.
Using the method of integration, find the area of the region bounded by the following lines 3x – y – 3 = 0, 2x + y -12 = 0, x – 2y -1 = 0. [6]
Solution:
The given lines are

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Maths 2012 Delhi Set III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Section – A

Question 9.
Find the sum of the following vectors:
[1]
Solution:
The given vectors are

Question 10.
If ∆ = , write the minor of the element a₂₂. [1]
Solution:

Section – B

Question 19.
Using properties of determinants, prove the following:
[4]
Solution:

Question 20.
If y = sin^-1 x, show that (1 – x²) = 0 [4]
Solution:

Question 21.
Find the particular solution of the following differential equation:
[4]
Solution:
The given differential equation is


This is the required particular solution of the given differential equation.

Question 22.
Find the equation of a line passing through the point P(2, -1, 3) and perpendicular to the lines
[4]
Solution:
The given lines are

Section – C

Question 28.
Bag I contains 3 red and 4 black balls and Bag II contains 4 red and 5 black balls. Two balls are transferred at random from Bag I to Bag II and then a ball is drawn from Bag II. The ball so drawn is found to be red in colour. Find the probability that the transferred balls were both black. [6]
Solution:
Let,
E₁ = Both transferred balls from bag I to bag II are red.
E₂ = Both transferred balls from bag I to bag II are black.
E₃ = Out of transferred balls one is black and other is red.
A = Drawing a red ball from bag II

Question 29.
Using the method of integration, find the area of the region bounded by the following lines 5x – 2y -10 = 0, x + y – 9 = 0, 2x – 5y – 4 = 0. [6]
Solution:
The given lines are

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Sociology 2018

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:

• The question paper contains 26 questions.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question no. 1 to 11 carry 1 mark each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 10-20 words each.
• Questions no. 12 to 19 carry 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 30-50 words each.
• Questions no. 20 to 26 carry 5 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 75-100 words each.

Question 1.
What is meant by the age structure of the population ? [2]
Answer:
The age structure of the population refers to the proportion of persons in different age groups in relation to the total population. The age structure varies in response to changes in the level of development and the average life expectancy.
Eg: 0-14, 15-59, 60 + age groups.

Question 2.
What are the two important issues which gave rise to tribal movements ? [1 + 1 = 2]
Answer:

1. The issues relating to control over vital economic resources like land and specially forests and matters relating to ethnic-cultural identity.
2. The coming of private property in land has also adversely affected tribes.
3. The most recent such example is the series of dams being built on the Narmada.
4. Dikus-migrant traders and money lenders-grabbed wealth, leading to impoverishment.
5. Acquisition of land for large irrigation projects and firing ranges.
6. Survey and settlement operations, which were held up, camps closed down etc.
7. Collection of issue rent and cooperative duse which were resisted.

Question 3.
What is meant by laissez-faire ? [2]
Answer:
The French term ‘Laissez Faire’ means ‘Leave alone’ or ‘Let it be’. This policy or norm is in favour of giving freedom to an individual so that, he is able to fulfil his desires and look after his interests. Adam Smith supported the idea of ‘free market mechanism’ or where there is no regulation by government.

Question 4.
State any two factors that encourage regionalism. [2]
Answer:
The two factors which encourage regionalism are diversity of languages and culture. Either geographical concentration of diverse identity markers in a region or regional deprivation affects regionalism.

Question 5.
Why should the minorities be given constitutional protection ? [2]
Answer:
The minority groups are considered disadvantageous group which are subjected to prejudice and discrimination, since a long time. The religious and cultural minorities need special constitutional protection due to demographic dominance of the majority which makes them politically vulnerable.

Question 6.
How did colonial laws favour the owners and managers of tea plantations ? [2]
Answer:
Colonial law favoured the owners and managers of tea plantation. The owners and managers of tea industry were Britishers.

1. They often used unfair means to employ labours and many a times forced them to work in tea plantation.
2. They used harsh measures against the labourers for the benefit of the tea plantation owners.

Question 7.
Explain Sanskritisation as a process of change. [2]
Answer:
Sanskritisation refers to a process by which a low Hindu caste or tribal group, changes its custom, ideology, rituals and ways of life in the direction of high and twice-born caste. It is followed by a claim, after a long time, to belong to a higher position in the caste hierarchy.

Question 8.
What is the role of Nyaya Panchayats in providing justice at grass root levels ? [2]
Answer:
Role of Nyaya Panchayats :

1. Nyaya Panchayats have been constituted in some states. They possess the authority to hear some petty, civil and criminal cases. They can impose fines but cannot award a sentence.
2. These village courts have been often successful in bringing about an agreement among contending parties. They have been particularly effective in punishing men who harass women for dowry and perpetrate violence against them.

Question 9.
What do you understand by the idea of imagined communities’ that Benedict Anderson wrote of? [2]
Answer:

1. Benedict Anderson stated that the people, who do not even know each other’s existence feel like members of the family, can be named as ‘imagined community’.
2. It gave people who never meet each other, a sense of togetherness.

Question 10.
What are national dailies ? Name any two. [1 + 1 = 2]
Answer:
The Newspapers which circulate across regions are often called National Dailies and circulate across all regions.
Two national dailies are Hindustan Times and Times of India.

Question 11.
How has automation brought about a change in the making of the newspaper ? [2]
Answer:
The newspaper production has become fully automatic. From the reporter’s desk to final page proof, automation has led to creation of e-newspaper and use of paper has been completely eliminated. It has become possible due to networks of computers (LAN) and use of news making softwares like ‘Newsmaker’.

Question 12.
What do you understand by Universal Adult Franchise ? [2]
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise means that the right to vote should be given to all adult citizens without the discrimination of caste, class, colour, religion or gender. Example—in India, above 18 years of age, every adult citizen has right to vote.

Question 13.
What were the demands of the Bombay textile workers. [2]
Answer:
The Bombay Textile strike of 1982, was led by the trade union leader, Dr. Datta Samant.
Their demands were :

1. The workers wanted better wages and also wanted the right to form their own union.
2. According to Bombay Industrial Relations Act (BIRA), a union was required to be approved and the only way it could get approval was if it gave up the idea of strikes.

Question 14.
Differentiate between Reformative and Revolutionary Movement. [1 + 1 = 2]
Answer:
Reformist social movements strive to change the existing social and political movements through gradual, incremental steps. Example: Rights to Information Campaign.

Revolutionary social movements attempt to radically transform social relations often by capturing state power. Example : Naxalite movement in India.

Question 15.
According to demographers and sociologists, what are the reasons for the decline in child sex ratio in India ?
OR
Identify the reasons for regional variations of displacement levels in India. [4]
Answer:
The factors responsible for the decline in sex-ratio include severe neglect of girl-child during infancy leading to higher death rates; sex specific abortions leading to death of girl babies even before being born and female infanticide (or killing of the girl child due to religious and cultural sentiments). The practice of female infanticide was prevalent since ages and modern medical techniques such as sonogram leads to sex-specific abortion.
OR
Reasons for regional variation of displacement is the breaking of traditional patronage bonds between labourers or tenants and landlords because the seasonal demand for agriculture, labour increased in the prosperous green regions like Punjab, where people migrated in a specific season in the areas with demand for labour and better wages. These migrant workers mainly come from droughts prone and less productive regions and they go to work for some months in the Punjab and Haryana, or in brick kilns in U.P., or construction sites of Bengaluru or Delhi.

Question 16.
“Tribals have paid a disproportionate price for the development of the rest of Indian society.” Highlight the sources of conflict between ‘national development’ and ‘tribal development’.
Answer:
Conflict between National development and Tribal development:

1. National development in the Nehruvian era, focused on the building of large dams, factories and mines etc.
2. As the tribal areas were rich in minerals, they paid a heavy price for the development activities, which benefitted the rest of the nation.
3. The displacement of tribes has been a result of setting up of dams and factories using the forested areas for various mining activities and other development work.
4. The idea of private property in land, also, adversely affected the tribes. Tribes which mostly had collective community-based ownership were at a disadvantage in the new system. Example : series of dams being built over the Narmada river.
5. Many tribal regions have experienced heavy in-migration of non-tribals. This threatens to distrupt their cultures and communities. Example : Jharkhand and Tripura.

Question 17.
Do you agree that all sections of people have benefitted from the liberalisation policy in India ? Justify your answer with example. [4]
Answer:
Liberalisation refers to the relaxation of government rules and regulations on trade and commerce. However, it would be wrong to say that liberalisation policy have benefitted all sections in India. For example, sectors such as software and information technology have been benefitted by liberalisation. However, sectors such as electronics, automoblies and oilseeds lose because of their inability to compete with the foreign producers. Moreover, farmers failed to get subsidies and support prices which were essential for their livelihood.

Question 18.
Differentiate between a democratic and an authoritarian State.
OR
What is community identity ? How have Indian politics provided national identity ? [4]
Answer:
Difference between Democratic and Authoritarian States :

Community Identity: Community provides us the language and the cultural values through which we comprehend the world. Community identity is based on birth and belonging rather than on some form of acquired qualifications or accomplishment. Birth based identity is called ascriptive because this does not involve any choice on the part of the individuals concerned. These ascriptive identities are very hard to shake off because irrespective of our efforts to disown them, other may continue to identify us by those markers of belonging.

Indian Policies and National Identity :

1. Policies of integration seek to assert a single national identity by attempting to eliminate the national and cultural differences from the public and political arena.
2. Adopting the dominant group’s language as the only official national language and making its use mandatory in all public institutions.
3. Imposing a unified legal and judicial system based on dominant group’s tradition and abolishing alternative system used by other groups.

Question 19.
Historically, what role did coastal cities play in the economic system of empires ? [4]
Answer:

1. Historically, the big cities were built near the coastal areas from the old age empire due to ease of movement and world wide trade through waterways.
2. Due to economic development, coastal cities such as Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai got importance and favour.
3. Primary commodities could be easily exported and manufactured goods could be imported at low cost.
4. These cities became prime link between economic centres throughout the world, as Goa was linked to Portugal, Chennai and Kolkata with Eastern Asia, Fizi, China etc.

Question 20.
“The varied social reform movements had common themes yet were different.” Explain.
[4]
Answer:

1. The varied social reform movements did have common themes yet there were also significant differences. For some, the concerns were confined to the problems that the upper caste, middle class women and men faced. For others, the injustices suffered by the discriminated castes were the central questions.
2. For some, social evils had emerged because of a decline of the true spirit of Hinduism. For others, caste and gender oppression was intrinsic of the religion.
3. There were movements for Muslim women. One group had argued against the practice of polygamy whereas, other group had fought for the abolishment of Triple Talaq.
4. Debates within communities were common in various movements. For instance, Sati was opposed by the Brahmo Samaj. Orthodox members of the Hindu community in Bengal formed an organisation called “Dharma Sabha” and petitioned the British arguing that reformers had no right to interpret sacred texts.

Question 21.
What were the social welfare responsibilities of the Panchayats ? [4]
Answer:
According to the Constitution, panchayats should be given powers and authority to function as institutions of self-government. Panchayats had the following social responsibilities :

1. To prepare plans and schemes for economic development : The development activities include the construction of roads, public buildings, wells, schools, small irrigation works etc.
2. To promote schemes that will enhance social justice : Nyaya Panchayats have been constituted in some states. They possess the authority to hear some petty civil, criminal and domestic violence cases. They can impose fines but cannot award a sentence against a ‘guilty’ person.
3. To levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, and fees: The main income of the Panchayats is from tax levied on property, animals, vehicles, tax on land revenue and rentals. The resources are further increased by the grants received through the Zila Panchayat or Zila Parishad.
4. To help in the devolution of governmental responsibilities especially that of finances to local authorities : Many government schemes like, Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) and Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) are monitored by members of panchayat.

Question 22.
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of Green Revolution. (3 + 3 = 6)
Answer:
Advantages of Green Revolution :
Green revolution was a government programme of agricultural modernisation. It was largely funded by international agencies that was based on high yielding variety of seeds with good pesticides, fertilisers and other input to farmers.

1. Green revolution programme was started in areas that had assured irrigation facilities, as sufficient water was necessary for the new seeds and method of cultivation. It basically targeted rice and wheat growing areas.
2. Agriculture productivity increased sharply because of new technologies. Thereafter, India became self-sufficient in food grain production.

Disadvantages of Green Revolution :

1. Since the seeds and cultivation technology was very expensive, the small and marginal farmers could not afford to spend on new technology.
2. Since the well-to-do farmers were able to afford the costly HYV seeds, fertilizers and pesticides, they began to take back their lands from tenants and cultivate it directly because new technology cultivation was becoming more profitable. This made rich farmer better off and worsened the condition of the landless and marginal holders.
   The ultimate outcome of Green Revolution was a process of “differentiation” between rich and poor farmers. ,
3. In most of green revolution areas, farmers have shifted from single crop per year to multi-crop regime, which allowed them to spread risk in case any crop fails.

Question 23.
Are global connections new to India and the world? Discuss. [6]
Answer:
Global Connections are new to World and India as :

1. Since early years—India has been never been isolated from the world, example—-silk routes, which connected India to the great civilisation which existed in China, Persia, Egypt and Rome.
2. Colonial Period (British rule) :
   • Throughtout India’s long past, people from different parts came here, sometimes as traders, sometimes as conquerors, sometimes as migrants in search of new lands and setded down here.
   • The remove Indian villages often, people ‘recall’ a time when their ancestors lived elsewhere, from where they came and settled down where they now live.
3. Colonialism was part of the system that required new sources of capital, raw materials, energy, markets and a global network that sustained it.
   For eg: the greatest movement of people was the migration of European people who settled down in the Americans and Australia.
4. Indentured labourers were taken away in ships from India to work in distant parts of Asia, Africa and Americans.
5. Slave trade carted thousands of Africans away to distant shores.

Question 24.
How are the working conditions in mines detrimental to the workers ? [6]
Answer:
1. In 1952, an act called the Mines Act was passed. The government said that the owners of the mines have to follow certain acts/rules. Still the overall conditions of mine workers have not improved much.
Those workers who are placed in overground mines have to face hot summer & rain and suffer from injuries due to mine blasting and falling objects. In fact, the rate of mining accidents in India is higher than other countries. The contractors refrain from maintaining proper register to workers for avoiding responsibility for accidents and benefits. Moreover, the company do not care to cover up the open holes of the finished area which lead to several accidents.
2. Workers in underground mines face very dangerous conditions, due to flooding, fire, the collapse of roof and sides.
3. Due to lack of fresh air, emissions of gases and ventilation failure, many workers develop breathing problems and diseases like tuberculosis and silicosis.
4. The total lifespan of mine workers are very short. Every year hundreds of workers die due to accidents in mines.

Question 25.
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
In India labels such as ‘disability’, ‘handicap’, ‘crippled’, ‘blind’ and ‘deaf’ are used synonymously. Often these terms are hurled at people as insults. In a culture that looks up to bodily ‘perfection’, all deviations from the ‘perfect body’ signify abnormality, defect and distortion. Labels such as bechara (poor thing) accentuate the victim status for the disabled person. The roots of such attitudes lie in the cultural conception that views an impaired body as a result of fate. Destiny is seen as the culprit and disabled people are the victims. The common perception views disability an retribution for past Karma (actions) from which there can be no reprieve. The dominant cultural construction in India therefore looks at disability as essentially a characteristic of the individual. The popular images in mythology portray the disabled in an extremely negative fashion.

The very term ‘disabled’ challenges each of these assumptions. Terms such as ‘mentally challenged’, Visually impaired’ and ‘physically impaired’ came to replace the more trite negative terms such as ‘retarded’ ‘crippled’ or flame’. The disabled are rendered disabled not because they are biologically disabled but because society renders them so.
(a) Who form the disabled population in our country ? [2]
(b) Do you think disabled are rendered disabled not because they are biologically disabled but because society rendered them so ? Explain. [4]
Answer:
(a) The people with any kind of physical or mental disability such as visual, speech, physical impairment or hearing disability form the disabled population of India.

(b) Yes, disabled are unfit not because of their biological inability but because of the treatment they receive from the society. At first, the people with any kind of impairment are called by insulting terms such as ‘handicap’, ‘blind’, ‘crippled’ or ‘deaf’. Secondly, these people are treated with contempt, and are looked down upon. An impairment is considered to be a result of illfate which springs from the past deeds. In Hindu mythology also, any kind of impairment is ill-portrayed. In spite of the fact that these people are fully capable of becoming self-reliant, society considers them weak and incapable.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Sociology 2018 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Sociology 2019

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:

• • The question paper contains 26 questions.
  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Question no. 1 to 11 carry 1 mark each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 10-20 words each.
  • Questions no. 12 to 19 carry 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 30-50 words each.
  • Questions no. 20 to 26 carry 5 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 75-100 words each.

Question 1.
What is social about social inequality ? [2]
Answer:
Social inequality is social as it is :

1. Not about individuals but groups.
2. Not economic though a link is usually found between social and economic inequality.
3. Systematic and structured, which means there is a definite pattern to social inequality.

Question 2.
In what ways can status symbol be identified ? [2]
Answer:
The status symbol is perceived as a visible, external denotation of one’s social position in terms of economic or social status. Many luxury goods are often considered status symbols. For example: brand of a cell-phone, model of car, brand of a watch, etc. The term status symbol was coined by Max Weber.

Question 3.
How does India benefit from a demographic dividend ? [2]
OR
State the importance of demographic data.
Answer:
According to the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA), the Demographic Dividend refers to “the economic growth potential that can result from shifts in a population’s age structure, mainly when the share of the working-age population (15 to 64) is larger than the non-working-age share of the population (14 and younger, and 65 and older).” There is a great influence of demographic dividend on the economic growth because the demographic dividend is the economic benefit that can arise when a population has a relatively large proportion of working age people, and effectively invests in their empowerment, education and employment. This simply means that because most of the citizens are working, economic growth goes up.
OR
Importance of demographic data is :

1. It helps in analysing and keeping a check on the health status and ratio of a particular place.
2. Demographic data is important for planning and implementation of state policies, specially those for economic development and general public welfare.

Question 4.
With the help of an example, highlight the concept of participatory democracy. [2]
Answer:
Participatory democracy is direct democracy. It means that all citizens are actively involved in all sorts of important decisions related to the country.
Example : Participating in a democracy by voting allows the citizens of the nation, to make changes to the country’s administration and put forward their collective thoughts. A free press is another part of a larger freedom because it gives citizens the right to be informed.

Question 5.
Economist and others have often made a distinction between the organised or formal and the unorganised or informal sector. Justify. [2]
Answer:

Question 6.
‘Social movements also develop distinct modes of protests.’ What are these ? [2]
Answer:

1. Social movement activists hold meetings to mobilise people around the issues that concern them.
2. They also include campaigns like lobbying with the government, media and other important makers of public opinion.
3. Candle march and torch light processions, use of black cloth, street theatres, songs, poetry etc. are other distinct methods of protests.

Question 7.
‘Federal system has worked fairly well though there remain many contentious issues.’ Mention any two issues. [1 + 1 = 2]
OR
How can commitment to the protection of minorities also be a challenge to the State. Answer:
Following are the issues that India still faces :

1. Increasing inter regional, economic and infrastructural inequalities.
2. The states are not developed in some uniform manner, some are well developed while some to receive attention. This creates discord among the citizens and a feeling of alievation.
3. The market economy tends to increase the gap between developed and backward classes. The rich tend to get richer while the poor tend to get poorer.

OR
States will always be held accountable for their compliance with human rights, but they also need to create conditions for realising those rights :

1. To maintain that kind of environment in state which makes them comfortable to live in society is a challenge.
2. Most states fear that recognizing such differences
   will result in social fragmentation.
3. States which respect minority rights and appeal for seccession face challenges in terms of communal tensions which arise often. Altercations along with the insecurity in the majority community begins to develop.

Question 8.
What do you understand by ascriptive identities ? [2]
OR
Identify the religious diversity found in India.
Answer:
It is a community identity based on the birth and belonging rather than on some form of acquired qualification or accomplishment. It is an identity with one’s present and has nothing to bear with the future. These are determined by the accidents of birth and do not involve any choice on . the part of the individual concerned.
OR
India is characterised by a diversity of religious beliefs and practices. India is a secular state with no state religion. Hindus constitute an overwhelming majority in India; they number about 828 millions and account for 80.5% of the total population according to the 2001 Census. The Hindu population is four times larger than the combined population of all other minority religions, and about six times larger than the largest minority group, the Muslims.

The Muslims are numbered 138 million and were 13.4% of the population in 2001. Christians constitute around 2.3% of the population (24 million) and are scattered all over. The Sikhs constitute 1.9% of the population (19 million). There are also several other small religious groups—Buddhists (8 million, 0.8%), Jains (4 million, 0.4%) and ‘Other Religions and Persuasions’ (under 7 million, 0.7%). Religious diversity and religious tolerance are both established in the country by the law and custom. The constitution of India has declared the right to freedom of religion as fundamental right.

Question 9.
In response to the harsh working conditions workers have expressed anger through trails unions. Differentiate between strike and lockout in the light of the above statement. [1 + 1 = 2]
Answer:
Strike is a weapon in the armoury of the working class to fight collectively and to create a pressure on the employer. It is used by the labour class to safeguard their interests, both economic and cultural.

Lockout is an Act by the employer by which his industrial establishment is temporarily closed to suppress the demands of his employees and make them resume duties at terms and conditions dictated by him.

Question 10.
‘Adivasi experiences of marginalization and their sense of injustice were the mobilized to create shared Jharkandi identity.’ Mention the issues against which leaders of Jharkhand agitated. [2]
Answer:
The issues against which the leaders of Jharkhand agitated were :

1. Acquisition of land for large irrigation projects and firing ranges.
2. Survey and settlement operations, which were held up, camps closed down etc.
3. Collection of loans, rent, dues which were resisted.
4. Nationalisation of forest produce which they boycotted.

Question 11.
What ideas of society did the Dharma Sabha project ? [2]
OR
Modernisation and Secularisation are part of a set of modern ideas. How are the two processes linked ?
Answer:
Dharma Sabha was formed in 1829 in Calcutta by Raja Radhakant Deb. The organisation was established mainly to counter the ongoing social reform movements led by protagonists such as Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Henry Derozio. They petitioned against british rule which banned the practice of sati in the country, the focus of this new association was to repel the law which was seen as an intrusion by the British into the religious affairs of the indigenous people by some sections of the Hindu-community. They considered these steps by British government radical and against their traditions and rituals.
OR
If we look into the process of modernisation and secularisation together, undoubtedly they are closely linked as both are part of a set of modern ideas. Modernisation refers in social sciences to the process of evolution from the traditional to modern society. Two processes modernisation and secularisation are linked to each other, they are both part of a set of modern ideas. Modernisation referred to improvement in technology and production processes. Secularization means wider acceptance of all religions. It has been an assumption of all theorists of modernisation that modern societies have become increasingly secular.

Modernization has been proportionally linked to secularization. Secularisation marks a process in which especially in industrialized societies, the religious beliefs, practices and institutions have lost their former social importance, the traditional beliefs are subjected to rational questioning, the monopoly of religious symbols is broken with the pluralization of the life spheres and people have established more control on their environment with the rise of individualism and modernisation.

Question 12.
Give two examples of caste based movements. [2]
Answer:
One example of Caste based movement was the Dalit movement. This was a struggle for recognition as fellow human beings. It was a struggle for self-confidence and a space for self-determination. It was a struggle for abolishment of stigmatization, that untouchability implied. Adi Dharma Movement in Punjab, the Mahar Movement in Maharashtra, the socio-political mobilisation among the Jatavas of Agra and the Anti Brahman Movement in south India are some examples.

Question 13.
How do people find jobs in an industrial society ? [2]
Answer:

1. Formerly people used to search jobs through newspapers, magazines, ads, or through word of mouth.
2. Now a days, there are websites and HR recruitments applications where major companies search for employees.
3. There are employment exchange programs and seminars, where one can register and find jobs as per his qualification.

Question 14.
How did deindustrialisation take place in colonial India ? [1 + 1 = 2]
OR
The impact of English language has been many sided and paradoxial in India. Give reasons.
Answer:
Deindustrialisation is the process of social and economic change caused due to the reduction in industrial capacity to industrialisation.

Just as manufacturing boomed in Britain, traditional exports of cotton and silk manufactures from India declined in the face of Manchester competition. Small scale manufacturers and native industries were all closed because of competition from the west. Many village artisans abandoned their hereditary craft and moved to agriculture.
OR
Impact of English language on Indian society are :

1. It has been a major contributor in growth of nationalism since it gave a common base for lingually diverse people to communicate.
2. Its knowledge has given Indians an edge over others in the job market in the era of globalisation.
3. However, sometimes it is linked to social prestige and status which makes its impact derogatory because people who know the language are preferred upon people who don’t. It leads to prejudices and partiality. English continues to be a mark of privilege, not knowing English creates a problem for people in search of jobs.

Question 15.
The Family Planning Programme suffered a setback during the years of national emergency. Justify the statement. [4]
Answer:
Reasons for the setback of the Family Planning Programme during emergency are as follows :

1. Introduction of a coercive programme of mass sterilisation.
2. A vast number of mostly poor and powerless people were forcibly sterilised. Sterilisation refers to medical procedures like vasectomy for men and tubectomy for women which prevent conception and childbirth.
3. There was massive pressure on lower level government officials to bring people for sterilisation to the family planning camps, which were organised specially for this purpose.
4. However, there was widespread popular opposition to the programme. Ultimately, this programme was abandoned by the new government elected after the emergency.

Question 16.
Explain commodification as feature of capitalism. [4]
OR
According to Alfred Gell the market has significance beyond its economic function. Explain.
Answer:
Commodification as feature of capitalism described as :

1. Commodification occurs when things not traded in the market became commodities.
2. According to Marx and other critics of capitalism, the process of commodification has negative social effects.
3. But in modern society, almost everyone accepts the idea that a person’s labour can be bought or that other services or skills can be provided in exchange for money.
4. Under commodification, labour or skills become things that can be bought and sold.

OR

Market refers to a place where things are bought and sold, markets can also be considered a physical place for the gathering of buyers and sellers.
We are used to thinking of the market as an economic institution but sociologist view market as social institutions that are constructed in culturally specific ways and are socially embedded e.g., weekly tribal haat and traditional business community. Alfred Gells says that the “Dhorai market (adivasi village market in Bastar) has significance beyond its economic function. Its layout symbolizes the hierarchical inter-group social relations. Thus, it is a representative of a social order of the society there it fulfils a lot of social functions, not just only economic ones.

Different social groups are located according to their position in the caste and social hierarchy as well as in the market system. The quality of social relations are expressed in the kinds of goods that are bought and sold, and the way in which transactions are carried out.

Question 17.
Caste is a discriminatory system. Elaborate. [4]
OR
Explain the key principles that help explain social stratification.
Answer:
Caste is a discriminatory system and this can be observed through following factors :

Exclusion : The untouchables and reserved caste people go through the worst type of exclusion. In the past, they were not given opportunities like others and were excluded from the smallest things. Even though the system of untouchability has been abolished now, the differences of caste continues to plague our society.

Exploitation : People of downtrodden classes and castes are given very low salaries and low grade jobs in certain parts of the country. They were given jobs which no one wanted to do and were not paid.

Humiliation: Earlier, they were not allowed to wear bright coloured clothes and could not use the same roads, which Brahmins used, and had to walk with their heads bowed down. This has taken a different form now for certain parts of the country.
OR
Key principles of social stratification :

1. Social stratification is a characteristic of society, not simply a function of individual differences.
2. Social stratification remains over generations. A person’s social position is ascribed. It means children assume the social position of their parents. The ascribed part of social inequality is reinforced by the practice of endogamy.
3. Social stratification is supported by the patterns of belief, or ideology in this sense, no system of social stratification is likely to remain over generations unless it is generally understood as being either fair or necessary.

Question 18.
Competing interests do not always reflect clear class divide. Explain with suitable examples. [4]
Answer:
Competing interests do not always reflect a clear class divide. The multi-religious and multicultural composition of the population with distinct streams of tribal culture is one aspect of the plurality. Many divides classify the Indian people. The impact that culture, religion, and caste have on the urban-rural divide, rich-poor divide and the literate-illiterate divide is varied. However, there are some basic objectives laid down in the constitution and which are generally agreed in the Indian political world as being obviously just. These would be empowerment of the poor and marginalised, proverty alleviation, ending of caste and positive steps to treat all groups equally.

For example, the issue of the closure of factories because they emit toxic waste and affect the health of those around this is a matter of life which the constitution protects. Closure of the factory will render people jobless. This does not however reflect class divide.

Question 19.
Which cities were developed by the British in India and why ? [4]
Answer:

1. The coastal cities such as Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai played a pivotal role in the economic system. These colonial cities were the prime link between the economic centre or core in Britain and periphery or margins in colonised India.
2. From these coastal cities, primary commodites could be easily exported and manufactured goods could be cheaply imported.
   That is why, these cities were well developed by British. The communication transportation and other facilities were built, new buildings for branch offices constructed, coastlines created and a lot of other facilities were made available as well.

Question 20.
‘Process of Sanskritisation encourages inequality and discrimination.’ Explain. [4]
Answer:
Sanskritisation is a process by which some members of a low caste or tribe try to imitate/follow, the customs, ritual beliefs, ideology and lifestyle of a caste.

Process of sanskritisation encourages inequalities and discrimination.

It has been critized for exaggerating social mobility or the scope of lower castes to move up the social ladder for it leads to no structural change but only positional change of some individuals. Inequality continues to persist though some individuals may be able to improve their position within the unequal structure.

1. The ideology of sanskritisation accepts the ways of the upper caste as superior and that of the lower caste as inferior. Thus, the desire to imitate the upper caste is seen as natural and desirable.

2. Sanskritisation seems to justify a model that rests on inequality and exclusion. It appears to suggest that to believe in pollution and purity of groups’ of people is justifiable or all right. Therefore, to be able to look down on some groups of people just as the upper caste looked down on the lower castes, is a mark of privilege. It shows how such discriminatory ideas become a way of life. Instead of aspiring for an equal society, the exclusion and discrimination seek to give their own meaning to their excluded status. This gives rise to an undemocratic society.

3. Since sanskritisation results in the adoption of upper caste rites and rituals, it leads to practices of secluding girls and women, adopting dowry practices instead of bride-price and practising caste- discrimination against other groups.

4. The effect of such a culture is that it erodes characteristics of dalit culture and society. For example, the very worth of labour for which lower castes are degraded’and rendered shameful. Identities based on the basis of work, crafts, artisanal ability are regarded useless.

Question 21.
Is it easy to describe a State but hard to define ? Why ? [4]
OR
The Indian people had a brief experience of authoritarian rule during emergency.’ Justify.
Answer:
A nation is a peculiar sort of community that is easy to describe but hard to define. We can describe many specific nations found on the basis of common cultural, historical and political institutions like a shared religion, language, ethnicity, history of regional culture.

But it is hard to come up with any defining features, any characteristics that a nation must possess. For every possible criterion there are exceptions. There are many nations that do not share a single common language, religion, ethnicity and so on. On the other hand, there are many languages, religions or ethnicities. All these diversities and varieties render the sociologists incapable of defining a state.
OR
The Indian people had a brief experience of authoritarian rule during the “Emergency” because:

1. Parliament was suspended, along with most of the rights given to the citizens by the constitution were revoked.
2. New laws were made directly by the government. Civil liberties were revoked.
3. Large number of politically active people were arrested and jailed without trial.
4. Censorship was imposed on the media and government officials could be dismissed without normal procedures. There was arbitariness of laws and nothing was being followed according to set rules and regulations.

Question 22.
‘The pattern of farmer’s suicides points to the significant crisis that the rural areas are experiencing.’ What do you understand by ‘matrix event’ and how are they responsible for farmer’s suicides ? [6]
OR
Migration and lack of job security create poor working and living conditions for migrant labour. Explain with reference to the circulation of labour in India.
Answer:
Matrix Events : A range of factors that coalesce or combine or come together to form an event are called matrix events e.g., farmers distress/ suicide.

Sociologists have tried to analyze this event of suicides by looking at the structural and social changes that have been taking place in society, such suicides have become matrix events.

Farmers in our country for centuries have periodically faced lots of distress due to crop failures, drought and debt. They have been facing terrible conditions which encourages them to take negative steps. Some of the reasons why suicides are becoming a regular phenomenon are because the farmers are :

1. Unable to bear the burden of debt.
2. They can not fulfill their social obligations due to loss in crops.
3. Costs of agricultural equipment, costs of chemicals and seeds for cultivation and farming are already high and increasing every day. This creates difficulties for the farmers to survive.
4. Hiring labour and breeding animals is getting costlier too.
5. Lack of adequate support or market price also contributes.

OR
Concept of circulation of labour :

1. Commercialisation of agriculture has been responsible for the growth of migrant agricultural labour. Seasonal demand for these labourers increased in Green Revolution regions like Punjab.
2. Labourers migrate also due to increasing inequalities in rural areas. Men migrate out periodically in search of work and better wages, while women and children are often left behind in their villages.
3. Migrant workers come mainly from drought prone and less productive regions and they go to work for part of the year on farms in the Punjab and Haryana or on brick kilns in U.P. or construction sites in cities such as New Delhi or Bangaluru.
4. These migrant workers have been termed “footloose labour” by Jan Breman. However, these landless workers do not have many rights and are also denied minimum wages.
5. The large scale circulation of labour has had several significant effects on rural society in both the receiving and the supplying regions.
6. Women are also emerging as the main source of agricultural labour, leading to the Terminisation of agricultural labour form. The work insecurity for women workers is greater because they earn lower wages than men for similar work.

Question 23.
The Khasi matriliny generates intense role conflict for men. Elaborate. [6]
OR
What are some of the rules that caste system imposes ?
Answer:

1. Khasi materiliny generates intense role conflict for men. They are torn between responsibilities to their natal house on one hand and to their wife and children on the other.
2. There is an inherent disagreement in matrilineal systems. On the one hand, the line of descent and inheritance, where woman inherits property from her mother and passes it on to her daughter. The other structure of authority and control is where a man control his sister’s property and passes on control to his sister’s son. The farmer, which links the mother to the daughter, comes in conflict with the latter, which links the mother’s brother to the sister’s son.
3. The tension generated by such role conflict affects Khasi women more intensely. A women can never be fully assured that her husband does not find his sister’s house a more pleasant place than her own.
4. Thus, men are the power holders in Khasi society, the only difference is that a man’s relatives on his mother’s side matter more than his relatives on his father’s side.

OR
Rules imposed by the caste system :

1. Caste is determined by birth hence, nobody is allowed to change his caste, leave it or choose not to join it. An individual found violating caste rules shall be punished by social exclusion.
2. One cannot solemnise his marriage with the person not member of his own group. Endogamy is recognised under caste system.
3. Person of a particular caste should strictly follow all the rules of food and food sharing as practiced in his caste.
4. A person born into a caste can only practice the occupation associated with that caste.
5. Shudras and untouchables shall serve the upper castes i.e., Brahmin, Kshatriya and Vaishya popularly called Dvija. They cannot share food with upper caste individuals.

Question 24.
The effects of globalisation are far reaching. It affects us all but affects us differently. Explain. [6]
OR
Explain the economic policy of liberalisation.
Answer:
Globalisation : It refers to the growing interdependence between different people, regions and countries in the world.
The effect of globalisation is far reaching. It affects us all but affects us differently. While for some it may mean new opportunities, for others it means the loss of livelihood.
For examples, Women silk spinners and twisters of Bihar lost their jobs once the Chinese and Korean silk yarn entered the market.

Similar displacements have come with the entry of large fishing vessels into Indian waters. These vessels take away the fish that used to be earlier collected by Indian fishing vessels. The livelihood of women fish sorters, dryers, vendors and net makers thereby gets affected.

In Gujarat, women gum collectors who were picking from the Julifera, lost their employment due to the import of cheaper gum from Sudan.

In almost all cities of India, the rag pickers lost part of their employment due to import of waste paper from developed countries. Some might be benefitted with globalisation while others are made to face losses.
OR
The economic policy of Liberalisation :

1. The state after independence put in place a large number of laws that ensured that the Indian market and Indian indigenous, business were protected from competition of the wider world.
2. Liberalisation of the economy meant the steady removal of the rules that regulated Indian trade and finance regulations.
3. Since 1991, the Indian economy witnessed a series of reforms in all major sectors of the economy agriculture, industry, trade, foreign, investment and technology, public sector, financial institutions etc. As greater integration into the global market would be beneficial to Indian economy.
4. The process of liberalisation also involved taking loans from International and Monetary Fund (IMF).

Question 25.
Read the given passage and answer the following questions:

The India Languages Newspaper Revolution

The most significant happening in the few decades has been the India language newspaper revolution. The beginnings of this growth predated liberalisation.

The top two dailies in India rare Danik Jagaran and Danik Bhaskar with a readership of 21 million and 17 million, respective. The fastest growing dialies are the Assamese dialies in urban areas (51.8 per cent increase) and the Bengali dailies in rural areas (129 per cent).

The ‘Eenadu’ story also exemplifies the success of the Indian language press. Ramoji Rao the founder of ‘Eenadu’ has successfully organised a chit-fund, before launching the paper in 1974. By associating with appropriate causes in the rural areas like the Anti-arak movement in the mid-1980s, the Telugu newspaper was able to reach into the countryside.
This prompted it to launch ‘district dailies’ in 1989.

There were tabloid inserts of sensational features carrying news from particulars districts as well as classified advertisements from villages and small towns of the same. By 1998 ‘Eenadu’ was being published from ten towns in Andhra Pradesh and its circulation accounted for 70 per cent of the audited Telugu daily circulation:
(a) What are the different forms of Print media ? [2]
(b) What reasons can be attributed to the emerging growth of Indian ? [4]
Answer:
(a) Different forms of a print media are :

1. Newspapers
2. Magazines
3. Handouts
4. Books
5. Pamphelets etc.

(b) Reasons attributed to growth of Indian language newspapers :

1. Rise in numbers of literate prople.
2. Introduction of local and regional news which attracts natives.
3. Adoption of advanced printing technologies.
4. Marketing strategies.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Sociology 2019 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2017 Outside Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 80

General Instructions:

• All question in both sections are compulsory.
• Marks for questions are indicated against each questions.
• Question Nos. 1-4 and 13-16 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 marks each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
• Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18 are short- answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
• Question No. 7-9 and 19-21 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
• Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24 are long- answer questions carrying 6 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
• Answer should be brief and to the point and the above words limits should be adhered to as far as possible.

** Answer is not given due to change in the present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2017 Outside Delhi Set – I

SECTION — A

Question 1.
Any statement about demand for a good is considered complete only when the following is/are mentioned in it (Choose the correct alternative): [1]
(a) Price of the good
(b) Quantity of the good
(c) Period of time
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Price of the good.

Question 2.
Demand for a good is termed inelastic through the expenditure approach when (Choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Price of the good falls, expenditure on it rises
(b) Price of the good falls, expenditure on it falls
(c) Price of the good falls, expenditure on it remains unchanged
(d) Price of the good rises, expenditure on it falls.
Answer:
(c) Price of the good falls, expenditure on it remains unchanged.

Question 3.
Define indifference curve. [1]
Answer:
Indifference curve is a diagrammatic presentation of an indifference set of a consumer. It is a locus of all such points which show different combinations of two commodities offering the same level of satisfaction to the consumer.

Question 4.
A seller cannot influence the market price under (Choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Perfect competition.

Question 5.
State any one feature of monopolistic competition. [1]
Answer:
Product differentiation is one of the main features of monopolistic competition.

Question 6.
Give the meaning and characteristics of production possibility frontier. [3]
Answer:
PPF is a curve showing different possible combinations of two goods which can be produced with the available resources.
The main characteristics of PPF are :
(a) PPF always slopes downward from left to right: PPF has a negative slope which implies that more than one good can be produced only by loss of another good.
(b) PPF is concave to the origin: The PPF is concave to origin and shows the tendency of increasing MRT.

Question 7.
Explain the problem of “how to produce”. [3]
Answer:
‘How to produce’ refers to the choice of technique of production. It has two categories:
(1) Labour-intensive technique: It implies greater use of labour than capital. It promotes employment.
(2) Capital-intensive technique: It implies greater use of capital than labour. It promotes efficiency and accelerates the pace of growth. The choice of technique depends on the type of product manufactured by a company. For e.g.-A food and beverage company can use hundreds of workers with little application of capital (machinery) or can use more machines with few workers in order to produce the desired quantity of biscuits and soft drinks.

Question 8.
Distinguish between ‘increase in demand’ and ‘increase in quantity demanded’ of a good.
OR
Explain the meaning of ‘Budget set’ and ‘Budget line’. [3]
OR
Answer:
Difference between ‘increase in demand’ and ‘increase in quantity demanded’ of a good is:


‘Budget set’ refers to attainable combinations of a set of two goods, given prices of goods and income of the consumer. The budget set equation is:
P₁X₁ + P₂ X₂ ≤ Y
Where P₁ = Price of good 1; X₁ Quantity of good 1; P₁ Price of good 2 ; X₁ = Quantity of good 2

‘Budget line’ is a line showing different possible combinations of good 1 and good 2, which a consumer can buy, given his budget and the prices of good-1 and good-2. Anywhere on the budget line, a consumer is spending his entire income either on good 1 or on good 2 or on both good 1 and good 2.

Question 9.
Explain with the help of a numerical example, the meaning of diminishing marginal rate of substitution. [4]
Answer:
Suppose a consumer consumes two goods – X and Y. He wants one more unit of X in exchange for some amount of Y. It is explained in the following schedule:

Since marginal utility of good X goes on falling with every increase in units of X, therefore, consumer will be willing to sacrifice lesser quantity of good Y for obtaining additional units of X.

Initially for getting an additional emit of X, consumer is willing to sacrifice (20 – 16) = 4 units of Y. So MRS is 4Y : IX. When one more unit of X in acquired then (16 – 13) = 3 units of Y are sacrificed. MRS has fallen to 3Y : IX. The reason is, as more units of X are consumed, marginal utility from each successive unit of X goes on falling, this makes the consumer to sacrifice less units of Y to get additional unit of X.
Hence, we can say that marginal rate of substitution is always diminishing.

Question 10.
Define market supply. Explain the factor ‘input prices’ that can cause a change in supply.
OR
Give the behaviour of marginal product and total product as more and more units of only one input are employed while keeping other inputs as constant. [4]
Answer:
Market supply is the total amount of a commodity that all the firms/producers in the industry are willing to sell at different possible prices of that commodity.
For example: The table is showing market supply. It is based on the assumption that there are only two firms (A and B) supplying Good-X in the market
Market Supply Schedule

The above table shows the total market supply assuming only two firms in the market.
Effect of ‘input prices’ causing change in supply: Input price may increase or decrease. In case of increase in input price, cost of production tends to rise hence, producers will supply less of the commodity at its existing price. It will cause the backward shifting of the supply curve. Opposite will happen in case of decrease in input price as cost of production tends to decline hence, more supply of the commodity will be given at the existing price of the commodity. In such case forward shifting of supply curve will take place.

OR
Consider a situation when land is a fixed factor, labour is a variable factor and the farmer is producing wheat. Since land is a fixed factor, he can produce more of wheat only by using more of labour. As more labour is applied on a fixed piece of land, total productivity increases but at a diminishing rate. It occurs due to the operation of law of variable proportion. It can be understood by the following table :
Law of variable proportions


The above figure shows :
(1) MP tends to rise till OL units of labour are used. This corresponds to point E on the MP curve. It shows increasing returns to a factor.
(2) When MP is rising TP tends to rise at an in¬creasing rate. This occurs till point K on the TP curve. This corresponds to the situation of increasing returns to a factor.
(3) Beyond OL units of labour. MP tends to decline and TP increases only at diminshing rate. It occurs between E and S on MP curve and between K and T on TP curve. This is a situation of diminish-ing returns to a factor.
(4) When employment of labour exceeds OS units, MP becomes negative. Accordingly, TP starts declining. This is a situation of negative returns to a factor, occured beyond point T on TP curve and beyond S on MP curve.

Question 11.
Explain “perfect knowledge about the markets” feature of perfect competition. [4]
Answer:
Perfect knowledge means that both the buyers and sellers have full knowledge about the prices and costs prevailing in the different parts of the market. All firms have equal access to technology and inputs. This ensures the same per unit cost of production by all the firms in the industry.

Implication of perfect knowledge: No firm is in a position to charge a different price and no buyer will pay a higher price for the same product. As a result, uniform price prevails. Since, there is uniform price and uniform cost, all firms earn uniform profits because profit equals price-cost.

Question 12.
When the price of a good rises from ₹ 10 per unit to ₹ 12 per unit, its quantity demanded falls by 20 percent. Calculate its price elasticity of demand. How much would be the percentage change in its quantity demanded, if the price rises from ₹ 10 per unit ₹ 13 per unit ? [6]
Answer:
Original Price (P) = ₹ 10 per unit
New price (PI) = ₹ 12 per unit
Change in Quantity demanded (ΔQ) = 20%
Price elasticity of demand (Ed) = ?
Change in prices (ΔP) = New price – Original price
₹ (12 – 10) = ₹ 2

Now, further taking this elasticity of demand in another situation when price changes from ₹ 10 to ₹ 13 per unit
Percentage change in price

Question 13.
Complete the following table: [6]

Answer:

Question 14.
From the following total cost and total revenue schedule of a firm, find out the level of output, using marginal cost and marginal revenue approach, at which the firm would be in equilibrium. Give reasons for your answer.

Answer:

The firm will be in equilibrium at output unit 4, where MC = MR i.e. 4.
At this point, the two conditions of MC= MR approach fulfills. These conditions are :
(i) MC should be equal to MR.
(ii) At the point of equilibrium, MC should be rising i.e. MC should rise just after the equilibrium unit.
Both these conditions are fulfilled at output unit 4. Where MC = MR and MC is rising on the next unit than revenue. Hence, firm will be in equilibrium at output unit 4.

Question 15.
Distinguish between perfect oligopoly and Imperfect oligopoly. Also explain the “interdependence between the firms” feature of oligopoly.
OR
Explain the meaning of excess demand and excess supply with the help of a schedule. Explain their effect on equilibrium price. [6]
Answer:
Difference between perfect oligopoly and imperfect oligopoly: In an oligopoly market, when firms produce homogenous products, it is called perfect oligopoly whereas when firms produce differentiated products, it is called imperfect oligopoly.

It is rare to find perfect oligopaoy type of situation. Examples: cement, steel, aluminium and chemical producing industries. While examples of imperfect oligopoly are: passenger cars, cigarettes and soft drinks.

Interdependence between the firms : There is an interdependence of firms for taking decision about price and output. Since there are a few firms, a change in price and output of a product by any firm is likely to influence the output and profit of rival firms whose reaction may prove counter productive.This makes the firms mutually dependent on each other, in case of decisions about price and output. For example, there is an interdependence of decision about price between pepsi and cola. If pepsi reduces price, cola-cola may do the same substantially.
OR
When there is excess demand : Excess demand refers to a situation where at a given price, quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied. The situation of excess demand can be explained with the help of following graph and schedule :

In the given figure, OP is the equilibrium price and OP₁ is the market price. At OP₁ price quantity demanded is OQ and quantity supplied is Q₂. Thus there is an excess demand equal to AB = (OQ₁ – OQ₂). This will result in a competition among buyers. Price will rise leading to rise in supply and fall in demand as shown by arrows along DD and SS curves. This change will contiune till price rises to OP which is the equilibrium price.

When there is excess supply: Excess supply refers to a situation where quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded. The situation of excess supply can be explained with help of the following graph:

In the above figure, OP is the equilibrium price and OP₁ is the market price. At OP₁ quantity supplied is OQ₂ and quantity demanded is Q₁. Thus there is an excess supply equal to AB = (OQ₂ – OQ₁). This will lead to competition among sellers. Price will fall leading to fall in supply and rise in demand as shown by arrows along DD and SS curves. Process of this change will contiune till price falls to OP which is the equilibrium price.

SECTION — B

Question 16.
Demand deposits include (Choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Saving account deposits and fixed deposits
(b) Saving account deposits and current account deposits
(c) Current account deposits and fixed deposits
(d) All types of deposits
Answer:
(b) Saving account deposits and current account deposits.

Question 17.
Define marginal propensity to consume. [1]
Answer:
MPC is the ratio of change in consumption to change in income. Symbolically,
MPC =
Where, ΔC = change in consumption
ΔY = change in income
MPC = Marginal propensity to consume.

Question 18.
If the marginal propensity to consume is greater than marginal propensity to save, the value of the multiplier will be (Choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) greater than 2
(b) less than 2
(c) equal to 2
(d) equal to 5
Answer:
(d) equal to 5

Question 19.
Define Government budget. [1]
Answer:
Government budget is a detailed statement of the estimates of government receipts and government expenditure during a financial year.

Question 20.
What is meant by depreciation of domestic currency? [1]
Answer:
Depreciation of domestic currency means fall in the value of domestic currency in relation to foreign currency i.e., a situation where exchange rate is determined by the market forces of supply and demand for foreign exchange in the international money market.

Question 21.
Explain with the help of an example, the basis of classifying goods into final goods and intermediate goods. [3]
Answer:
The basis of classifying goods into final goods and intermediate goods is that whether the good is purchased for final use or for the use in further production.
(i) Final goods: All goods which are meant either for consumption by consumers or for investment by firms are called final goods. They are meant for final use and the final use of a product is only for consumption or investment. In other words, final goods are acquired for own use i.e. by consumers for satisfaction of their wants and by producers for capital formation. For examples, biscuits, flour, clothes are final goods when purchased by a consumer for their personal use or for satisfaction of their wants. Machine bought by a household is final good but machine bought by a firm for its use in production is not a final good.

(ii) Intermediate goods : All goods which are used as raw material for further production of other goods, or for re-sale in the same year are known as intermediate goods. For example flour, milk, sugar, salt, fuel, etc., when purchased by a firm in order to prepare biscuits are intermediate goods. The cloth if purchased by a dress maker is also an intermediate good. Machine if purchased by a firm for resale in the same year is an intermediate good.

Question 22.
Explain “difficulty in storing wealth” problem faced in the barter system of exchange.
OR
Explain the “medium of exchange” function of money. ** [3]
Answer:
In the barter system of exchange, it was difficult for the people to store wealth or generalise purchasing power for future use in the form of goods like cattle, wheat, potatoes and other perishable items, etc. Holding of stocks of such goods involved costly storage and deterioration.

Question 23.
Distinguish between direct taxes and indirect taxes. Give an example of each. [3]
Answer:
Difference between direct and indirect taxes :

Question 24.
Explain the “bankers’ bank” function of the central bank. [4]
OR
Explain the process of credit creation by commercial banks.
Answer:
As a banker’s bank, central bank works in a similar way as commercial banks deals with its customers. It accepts deposits from the commercial banks and offers them loans. The central bank also provides ‘clearing house’ facility to the commercial banks. It is a cheque clearing facility provided at one centre to all the banks. Central bank is the custodian of their cash reserves. Banks of the country are required to keep a certain percentage of their deposits with the central bank and in this way the central bank is the ultimate holder of the cash reserves of commercial banks.
OR
The process of credit creation by commercial bank can be easily understood by taking an example. Suppose a person, say X, deposits ₹ 2000, with a bank and the LRR is 10% which means the bank keeps only the minimum required ₹ 200 as cash reserve. The bank can use remaining amount ₹ 1800 (= 2000-200) for giving loan to someone. The bank lends ₹ 1800 to, say F, for this purpose and an account is opened in the name of Y and the amount is credited in his account. This is the first round of credit creation in the form of secondary deposit (₹ 1800) which equals 90% of the initial deposit.

Now again from the deposit of Y, bank keeps 10% or LRR i.e. 180 and remaining ₹ 1620 is advanced to, say Z. The bank get, new demand deposit. This is the second round of credit creation till secondary deposit becomes zero. In the end, volume of total credit created it becomes multiple of initial deposit. The quantitative outcome is called money multiplier. In short, money (or credit) creation by commercial banks depends on two factors (i) amount of initial deposit and (ii) LRR. Symbolically:
Total credit creation = Initial deposit ×

Question 25.
An economy is in equilibrium. From the following data, calculate the marginal propensity to save : [4]
(a) Income = 10,000
(b) Autonomous consumption = 500
(c) Consumption expenditure = 8,000
Answer:
Applying the equation :
c = + by
Where, c = Consumption expenditure (8, 000)
= Autonomous consumption (500)
b = MPC (marginal propensity to consume)
y = Income (10,000)
8,000 = 500 + b × 10, 000
8000 = 500 + 10, 000b .
8000 – 500 = 10,000b
7,500 = 10,000b
b =
b = 0.75, MPC = 0.75
Now,
MPS + MPC = 1
MPS = 1 – MPC
= 1 – 0.75
= 0.25
Hence, the value of MPS = 0.25

Question 26.
Explain how government budget can be helpful in bringing economic stabilization in the economy. [4]
Answer:
Government budget can be helpful in bringing economic stabilization in the economy. Economic instability occurs when there is frequent price fluctuations in the economy. Such price fluctuations can be controlled through budget by taxes, subsidies and expenditure. For instance, if there is the condition of inflation (continuous rise in prices), government can reduce its own expenditure, tax rates can be increased or subsidies can be withdrawn or reduced to control the expenditure on the part of consumer and producer both. While in the condition of depression characterised by falling output and prices, government can reduce taxes and grant subsidies to encourage spending by people.

Question 27.
Distinguish (a) between current account and capital account, and (b) between autonomous transactions and accommodating transactions of balance of payments account. [6]
Answer:
(a)


(b)

Question 28.
Explain the precautions that should be taken while estimating national income by expenditure method. [6]
OR
Will the following be included in the domestic product of India ? Give reasons for your answer.
(a) Profits earned by foreign companies in India.
(b) Salaries of Indians working in the Russian Embassy in India.
(c) Profits earned by a branch of State Bank of India in Japan.
Answer:
The following precautions need to taken for correct estimation of national income by expenditure method :

• To avoid double counting, expenditure on all intermediate goods and services is excluded. For example, purchase of vegetables by a restaurant, expenses on electricity by a fac¬tory.
• Government expenditure on all transfer pay¬ments such as scholarship, unemployment allowance, pension, etc.
• Expenditure on purchase of second-hand goods is excluded from national income because this type of expenditure is not on currently produced goods.
• Expenditure on purchase of old shares/ bonds or new shares/bonds, etc., is excluded because it is not the payment done for goods and services currently produced. It shows mere transfer of property from one person to another.
• Imputed expenditure on own account output (e.g.-owner occupying his house, self- consumed output by a farmer) should not be included.

OR
(a) Profit earned by foreign companies in India : Yes, it is included in domestic income of India because profits are earned by the company within India’s domestic territory irrespective of ownership of the company.

(b) Salaries of Indians working in Russian embassy in India : No, it is not included in domestic product of India because Russian embassy in India is not a part of domestic teritory of India (but a part of domestic territory of Russia).

(c) Profits earned by a branch of State Bank of India in Japan : No, it is not included in domestic income of India because it is not earned in Indian domestic territory.

Question 29.
Calculate (a) National Income, and (b) Net National Disposable Income : ** [6]

Answer:
(a)
NI = NDP_fc + NFLA (Net factor income from abroad)
NDPfc = COE + Mixed income + operating surplus
= COE + MI + (Rent + Royalty + Interest + Profit)
= 2,000 + 7,000 + 400 + 500 + 900
= ₹ 10,800 crores
NNP_fc or NI = NDP_fc – Net factor income to abroad
= 10,800 – 50 = 10,750 crore.

Question 30.
Given a consumption curve, outline the steps required to be taken in deriving a saving curve from it. Use diagram. [6]
Answer:

In the above diagram :
CC = Consumption function
OI = 45° degree line showing income drawn from the origin O.
B = Breakeven point where consumption = income, i.e, a point where there is no saving.
Following are the steps used in drawing saving
curve from consumption function:
(1) Take a point B on consumption curve and from it draw a perpendicular on X-axis intersecting it on point B₁.
(2) Take OS on Y-axis of lower part as equal to OC (OS = OC). This gives point S from where saving curve will start.
(3) Join points S and B₁ and extend the straight line upward and thus we get saving curve SS₁.
In this way, saving curve is diagrammatically drawn from consumption curve.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2017 Outside Delhi Set – II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Question 7.
Explain the problem of “for whom to produce.”[3]
Answer:
The problem of Tor whom to produce’ focuses on the distribution of the final goods and services produced. The distribution of the final goods and services is equal to the distribution of National Income among the factors of production such as land, labour, capital and entrepreneur. The economy needs to decide a mechanism of distributing the final goods and services among the different segments of population, to reduce the inequality of income. This problem is concerned about who gets more or who gets less? Which goods should be made available free or at low (nominal) price and to which segment?

Question 13.
Complete the following table: [6]

Answer:

Question 14.
From the following table, find out the level of output at which the producer will be in equilibrium (use marginal cost and marginal revenue approach). Give reasons for your answer. [6]

Answer:
The equilibrium level of output will be 4 emits. This is because at this point, the two conditions of equilibrium (using MR-MC approach) are met. This can be seen as follows:
We are given the Toal Revenue (TR) and Total Cost. From here, we can find Marginal Revenue (MR) and Marginal Cost (MC), as given in the following schedule.
tableee
Here, as we can see, the first and other conditions of equibrium through MR-MC approach are being ‘ met at unit 4. i.e., First Condition : MR = MC = 10
Second Condition : MC is rising from this point and meets MR from below.
Thus, equilibrium output is 4 units.

Question 21.
Explain the circular flow of income. [3]
Answer:
Circular flow of income refers to continuous circular flow of goods, services and income among different sectors of an economy. Flow of money is the aggregate value of goods and services either as factor payments or as expenditure on goods and services. It is circular since it has neither any beginning nor an end. It can be explained as household sector supply factor services and spend their income on consumption. The firms use these services in producing goods and other services. The households as owner of factors for production receive the payments in terms of money or reward for rendering productive services. The recipients of these incomes (i.e. households) in turn, spend their incomes on purchase of goods and services to satisfy their wants. In short, income is first generated by production units, then distributed among households for rendering productive services and ultimately • comes back to production units by way of expenditure by the households.
Circular flow works on two principles :

• In an exchange process, the seller (producer) receives the same amount which the buyer (or consumer) spends.
• Goods and services flow in one direction and the money paid to acquire them, flow in the reverse direction giving rise to a circular flow.

Question 28.
Explain the precautions that are taken while estimating national income by value added method. [6]
OR
Will the following be included in the national income of India ? Give reasons for your answer.
(a) Financial assistance to flood victims
(b) Profits earned by the branches of a foreign bank in India
(c) Salaries of Indians working in the Ameri-can Embassy in India.
Answer:
Precautions that are taken while estimating national income by value added method are:

• Imputed rent of owner-occupied houses be included because all houses have rental value irrespective of its use by self or tenant.
• Imputed value of goods and services produced for self-consumption or for free distribution should be included.
• Only value added and not value of output by production units should be included.
• Value of own-account production of fixed assets by enterprises, government and the households should be included.
• The value of sale and purchase of second¬hand goods should be excluded.
• Sale of bonds by a company should also be excluded since it is merely a financial transaction which does not contribute directly to the flow of goods and services.

OR
(a) Financial assistance to flood victims: This will not be included in the national income since it is a part of transfer payment.
(b) Profits earned by the branches of a foreign bank in India: This is not to be included in the national income of India since it is earned by a foreign bank.
(c) Salaries of Indians working in the American Embassy in India: It is included in national income of India since Indian employees of American embassy are the normal residents of India.

Question 29.
Calculate the (a) Net National Product at market price, and (b) Gross National Disposable Income: ** [6]

Answer:
(a) NNP_mp = Net national product at market price
NDP_fc = COE + MI + OS (Rent + interest + profit)
= (vi) + (i) + (iv) + (v) + (iii)
= 3,000 + 8,000 + 600 + 700 + 1,000
= ₹ 13, 300 crores
(b) NNP_mp = NDP_fc – (viii) + (vii)
= ₹ 13,300 – 60 + 500
= ₹ 13,740 crores.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2017 Outside Delhi Set – III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

SECTION — A

Question 7.
Explain the problem of “what to produce”. [3]
Answer:
The problem of what to produce means which goods and services and in what quantities are to be produced by an economy. We can produce a number of commodities with our limited resources, for example, the choice can be between consumer goods and capital goods. Within consumer goods, it is neecessary to decide whether to produce luxuries or necessities. More of one commodity can be produced only at the cost of another. The guiding principle while choosing goods and services, is to obtain maximum utility.

Question 13.
Complete the following table : [6]

Answer:

Question 14.
From the following data find out the level of output that will give the producer maximum profit (use marginal cost and marginal revenue approach). Give reasons for your answer. [6]

Answer:

The producer will get the maximum profit at the point where firm is in equilibrium. From the above data, it is clear that firm is in equilibrium at unit 4 where, MC=MR. i.e. 5. At this point the two conditions of MC=MR approach fulfills. These conditions are:
(i) MC should be equal to MR.
(ii) At the point of equilibrium. MC should be rising i.e., MC should be rising just after the equilibrium point. Both these conditions are fulfilled at output unit 4. Where, MC = MR and MC is rising on the next unit more than MR. Hence, firm will be in equilibrium at output unit 4.

SECTION — B

Question 16.
Define revenue deficit. [1]
Answer:
Revenue deficit is the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipt. Symbolically, it is represented as Revenue deficit = Revenue expenditure-Revenue receipt.

Question 20.
Define marginal propensity to save. [1]
Answer:
Marginal propensity to save (MPS) is the ratio of change in saving to change in income. It is shown as :
MPS =
Where, ΔS = change in saving
ΔY = change in income

Question 21.
Distinguish between stocks and flows. Give an example of each. [2]
Answer:

Question 22.
What are non-debt creating capital receipts ? Give two examples of such receipts. [4]
Answer:
Non-debt creating capital receipts are the receipts which do not create any liability of repayment on the government rather it makes only addition to the existing capital account. For example recovery of loans, proceeds from sale of public enterprises (i.e. disinvestment, etc.). These do not give rise to debt.

Question 29.
Calculate the (a) Gross National Product at market price, and (b) Net National Disposable Income: ** [6]

Answer:
(a) GNP_mp = ?
NDP_fc = COE + MI + OS (Rent + profit + interest)
(i) + (iii) + (v) + (ii) + (vi)
= 2500 + 7500 + 400 + 700 + 350
= ₹ 11,450 crores
NNP_mp = NDP_FC + NFIA + Net indirect tax.
= NDP_FC + (vii) + (N)
= 11,450 + 50 + 150
= ₹ 11,650 crores
GNP_mp = NNP_mp + Depreciation
= NNP_mp + (x)
= 11,650 + 70
= ₹ 11,720 crores.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2017 Outside Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Chemistry 2011 Delhi

Time allowed: 3 hours
Maximum Marks: 70

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Chemistry 2011 Delhi Set I

Question 1.
‘Crystalline solids are anisotropic in nature’. What does this statement mean? [1]

Question 2.
Express the relation between conductivity and molar conductivity of a solution held in a cell. [1]
Answer:
The molar conductivity of a solution is related to the conductivity of that solution as:

Question 3.
Define ‘Electrophoresis. [1]
Answer:
Electrophoresis is the phenomenon of movement of colloidal particles under the applied electric field.

Question 4.
What is the structure of XeF₂ molecule? [1]
Answer:

Question 5.
Write the IUPAC name of the following compound: (CH₃)₃CCH₂Br [1]
Answer:
1-Bromo-2, 2-dimethylpropane

Question 6.
Draw the structure of 3-methylbutanal. [1]
Answer:

Question 7.
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their solubility in water: [1]
C₆H₅NH₂, (C₂H₅)₂NH, C₂H₅NH₂
Answer:
C₆H₅NH₂ < (C₂H₅)₂NH < C₂H₅NH₂

Question 8.
Define Biodegradable polymers. [1]
Answer:
Biodegradable polymers are natural polymers that disintegrated themselves over a period of time by enzymatic hydrolysis, e.g., starch, cellulose, etc.

Question 9.
The chemistry of corrosion of iron is essentially an electrochemical phenomenon. Explain the reactions occurring during the corrosion of iron in the atmosphere. [2]
Answer:
According to the electrochemical theory of rusting, the impure iron surface behaves like the small electrochemical cell in the presence of water containing dissolved oxygen or carbon dioxide. In this cell pure iron acts as an anode and impure iron, the surface acts as the cathode. Moisture having dissolved CO₂ or O₂ acts as an electrolyte. The reactions at cathode and anode are as follows:

Question 10.
Determine the values of equilibrium constant (K_c) and ΔG⁰ and for the following reaction: [2]
Ni(s) + 2Ag⁺(aq) → Ni²⁺(aq) + 2Ag(s), E⁰= 1.05V (1F = 96500 C mol^-1)
Answer:
According to the formula

Question 11.
Distinguish between ‘rate expression’ and ‘rate constant of a reaction. [2]
Answer:
The rate constant is the rate of reaction when the concentration of each reactant is taken as unity.
Rate expression expresses the rate of reaction in terms of molar concentrations of the reactants with each term raised to their power, which may or may not be same as the stoichiometric coefficient of that reactant in the balanced chemical equation.

Question 12.
Give the reason for: [2]
(i) The N-O bond in NO₂^– is shorter than the N-O bond in NO₃^–
(ii) SF₆ is kinetically an inert substance.
OR
State reasons for each of the following:
(i) All the P-Cl bonds in PCl₅ molecules are not equivalent.
(ii) Sulphur has a greater tendency for catenation than oxygen.
Answer:
(ii) SF₆ is kinetically inert due to high oxidizing power and electronegativity of fluorine atom which causes steric hindrance and it unable to further react with any other atom.
OR
(ii) Sulphur has a much greater tendency for catenation than oxygen because of its bigger size and low electronegativity due to which the S-S bond is stronger than O-O bond and there is more interelectronic repulsion in O-O than in S-S bond.

Question 13.
Assign reasons for the following: [2]
(i) Copper (I) ion is not known in aqueous solution.
(ii) Actinoids exhibit a greater range of oxidation states than lanthanoids.
Answer:
(i) In aqueous solution, Cu+ undergoes disproportionation to form a more stable Cu2+ ion.
2Cu⁺(aq) → Cu²⁺(aq) + Cu(s)
The higher stability of Cu²⁺ ion in aqueous solution may be attributed to its greater negative ∆_hydH than that of Cu⁺ ion. It compensates the second ionisation enthalpy of Cu involved in the formation of Cu²⁺ ions.

(ii) Actinoids exhibit a greater range of oxidation states than lanthanoids. This is because there is less energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals belonging to actinoids than the energy difference between 4f and 5d orbitals in case of lanthanoids.

Question 14.
Explain the following giving one example for each: [2]
(i) Reimer-Tieman reaction.
(ii) Friedel Craft’s acetylation of anisole.
Answer:
(i) When phenol is treated with chloroform in the presence of aqueous NaOH at 340 K followed by hydrolysis gives salicylaldehyde.

(ii) When anisole is treated with acetyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl₃, 2-methoxy acetophenone is formed.

Question 15.
How would you obtain: [2]
(i) Picric acid (2, 4, 6-Trinitrophenol) from phenol.
(ii) 2-Methylpropene from 2-methyl propanol?
Answer:

Question 16.
What is essentially the difference between the α-form of glucose and β-form of glucose? Explain. [2]
Answer:
In α-form of glucose, OH group lies at Cl towards the right but in β-form of glucose, it is towards left. This is because the OH group at Cl in glucose is chiral.

Question 17.
Describe what you understand by primary structure and secondary structure of proteins.[2]
Answer:
Primary structure of proteins refers to the sequence in which amino acids are joined together by a peptide linkage. The sequence, of amino acids in primary structure, is very specific. Any change in the sequence of amino acids creates a different protein with different biological activity.

Secondary structure of proteins refers to the conformation which arises due to the coiling of the polypeptide chain due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding between carbonyl (=C=O) and -NH groups. Depending upon the size of -R group, there are two secondary structures of protein, i.e., α-Helix and β-Pleated sheet-like structure.

Question 18.
Mention two important uses of the following [2]

1. Bakelite
2. Nylon-6

Answer:

1. Bakelite: It is used in the manufacture of electrical switches, protective coatings, barrels, etc.
2. Nylon-6: It is used in making Fabrics, tyre cords, mountaineering ropes etc.

Question 19.
Silver crystallizes in a face-centred cubic unit cell. Each side of this unit cell has a length of 400 pm. Calculate the radius of the silver atom. (Assume the atoms just touch each other on the diagonal across the face of the unit cell. That is each face atom is touching the four comer atoms). [3]

Question 20.
Nitrogen pentoxide decomposes according to the equation: [3]
2N₂O₅(g) → 4NO₂(g) + O₂(g)
The first-order reaction was allowed to proceed at 40°C and the data below were collected:

(i) Calculate the rate constant. Include units with your answer.
(ii) What will be the concentration of N₂O₅ after 100 minutes?
(iii) Calculate the initial rate of reaction.
Answer:

Question 21.
Explain how the phenomenon of adsorption finds application in each of the following processes: [3]
(i) Production of vacuum
(ii) Heterogeneous catalysis
(iii) Froth Floatation Process
OR
Define each of the following terms:
(i) Micelles
(ii) Peptization
(iii) Desorption
Answer:
(i) In vacuum flask activated charcoal is placed between the walls of the flask so that any gas which enters into annular space either due to glass imperfection or diffusion through glass is adsorbed and create a vacuum.

(ii) If the catalysts and reactants are present in a different phase, the process of catalysis is called heterogeneous catalysis. For example, the manufacture of NH₃ from N₂ and H₂ by Haber’s process using iron as a catalyst

In this process, the reactants are in the gaseous phase whereas catalyst is in a solid phase.

(iii) This method is used for removing gangue from sulphide ores. In this powdered ore is mixed with collectors (e.g., pine oil, fatty acids etc.) and froth stabilizers (e.g., cresols, aniline) which enhance non-wettability of the mineral particles and froth stabilisation respectively. As a result of which one comes with froth and gangue remains in the solution.

OR
(i) When soaps and detergents are added to water, a cluster of the charged particle is formed by the aggregation of a variety of molecules. Thus formed is called micelle.

(ii) The process of converting a fresh precipitate into colloidal particles by shaking it with the dispersion medium in the presence of a small amount of a suitable electrolyte is called peptization.

(iii) The process of removal of the adsorbed substance from the surface of a solid or a liquid by heating or by reducing pressure is called desorption.

Question 22.
Describe the principle behind each of the following processes: [3]
(i) Vapour phase refining of a metal.
(ii) Electrolytic refining of a metal
(iii) Recovery of silver after silver ore was leached with NaCN.
Answer:
(i) Vapour Phase Refining: The impure metal is first converted to its unstable volatile compound which is evaporated and then decomposed by heating at the higher temperature to give pure metal, leaving behind the impurities.

(ii) In this method, impure metal is made anode and a thin sheet of pure metal is made cathode, and are put in a suitable electrolyte containing soluble salt of the same metal. On passing current the more basic metal remains in the solution and the legs basic one go to the anode and gets deposited as anode mud.

(iii) NaCN acts as a bleaching agent or oxidizing agent, thus oxidizes Ag to Ag⁺ which then combines with CN^– ions to form a respective soluble complex.

Question 23.
Complete the following chemical equations: [3]

Answer:

Question 24.
Write the name, stereochemistry and magnetic behaviour of the following: [3]
(At. Nos. Mn = 25, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
(i) K₄[Mn(CN)₆]
(ii) [CO(NH₃)₅Cl]Cl₂
(iii) K₂(Ni(CN)₄]
Answer:
(i) Potassiumhexacyanomanganate(II)
Shape: Octahedral
Magnetic Behaviour: Paramagnetic (one unpaired electron)
Hybridization: d²sp³

(ii) Pentaamminechloridocobalt (III) chloride
Shape: Octahedral
Hybridization: d²sp³
Magnetic Behaviour: Diamagnetic (no impaired electrons)

(iii) Potassiumtetracyanonicklate(III)
Shape: Square planar
Hybridization: dsp²
Magnetic Behaviour: Diamagnetic (no impaired electrons)

Question 25.
Answer the following: [3]
(i) Haloalkanes easily dissolve in organic solvents, why?
(ii) What is known as a racemic mixture? Give an example.
(iii) Of the two bromo derivatives, C₆H₅CH(CH₃)Br and C₆H₅CH(C₆H₅)Br, which one is more reactive in S_N1 substitution reaction and why?
Answer:
(i) Haloalkanes dissolve in organic solvents because the new intermolecular attraction between haloalkanes and organic solvent molecules have the same strength as the one being broken in the separate haloalkanes and solvent molecules.

(ii) A racemic mixture is an equimolar mixture of two enantiomers and is hence optically inactive. e.g. (± butan-2-ol)

(iii) The carbocation intermediate derived from C₆H₅CH (C₆H₅)Br i.e. C₆H₅CHC₆H₅ is more stable as compared to the carbocation C₆H₅CHCH₃ obtained from C₆H₅CH(CH₃)Br because it is stabilized by two phenyl groups due to resonance.

Question 26.
(a) Explain why an alkylamine is more basic than ammonia? [3]
(b) How would you convert:
(i) Aniline to nitrobenzene
(ii) Aniline to iodobenzene
Answer:
(a) Alkyl groups are electron-donating groups and increase the electron density on nitrogen in alkylamine making them more basic than ammonia.

Question 27.
Describe the following giving one example for each: [3]
(i) Detergents
(ii) Food preservatives
(iii) Antacids
Answer:
(i) Detergents are soluble salts of sodium-potassium sulphonic acids unlike soaps they are non-biodegradable but they can be conveniently used both with soft and hard water, e.g. Sodium alkylbenzene sulphonate.

(ii) Food preservatives are chemicals used to preserve food by preventing microbial growth, e.g. Sodium benzoate, Table salt, etc.

(iii) The substances which are taken to neutralize the excess acid and maintaining the pH to an appropriate level in the stomach are called antacids. There are two types of antacids systemic antacids, e.g., NaHCO₃ and non-systemic e.g. Milk of magnesia.

Question 28.
(a) Differentiate between molality and molarity of a solution. How does a change in temperature influence their values? [5]
(b) Calculate the freezing point of an aqueous solution containing 10.50 g of MgBr₂ in 200 g of water. (Molar mass of MgBr₂ = 184 g) (K_f for water = 1.86 K kg mol^-1)
OR
(a) Define the terms osmosis and osmotic pressure. Is the osmotic pressure of a solution a colligative property? Explain.
(b) Calculate the boiling point of a solution prepared by adding 15.00 g of NaCl to 250.0 g of water. (K_f for water = 0.512 K kg mol^-1, Molar mass of NaCl = 58.44 g)
Answer:
(a) Molarity is the number of moles of solute dissolved in 1 litre of solution. It is temperature-dependent.

Molality is the number of moles of solute dissolved per 1 kg of the solvent. It is temperature independent.

Molality is independent of temperature, whereas molarity is a function of temperature because volume depends on temperature and mass does not.

(b) Since MgBr₂ is an isotonic compound. Hence undergoes complete dissociation


OR
(a) Osmosis is the phenomenon of flow of solvent through a semi-permeable membrane from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration.
The osmotic pressure of a solution is the excess pressure that must be applied to the solution to prevent the passage of solvent molecule through a semi-permeable membrane into the solution.
Yes, osmotic pressure is a colligative property as it depends only on the amount of solute present in the solution.

(b) Initial moles after dissociation

Question 29.
Give chemical tests to distinguish between: [5]
(i) Propanal and propanone
(ii) Benzaldehyde and acetophenone
(b) How would obtain:
(i) But-2-enal from ethane
(ii) Butanoic acid from butanol
(iii) Benzoic acid from ethylbenzene
OR
(a) Describe the following giving linked chemical equations
(i) Cannizzaro reaction
(ii) Decarboxylation
(b) Complete the following chemical equations:

Answer:
(a) (i) Propanal on treatment with Fehling’s solution gives a red ppt. of cuprous oxide while propanone does not respond to this test.

(ii) Acetophenone on treatment with I⁺₂ NaOH undergoes iodoform test to give yellow ppt. of iodoform that benzaldehyde does not


OR
(a) (i) An aldehyde with no α-hydrogen atom undergoes self-reduction and oxidation in presence of cone, alkali to form alcohol and carboxylic acid salt.

(ii) Sodium acetate undergoes decarboxylation (removal of CO₂) in the presence of soda lime to give hydrocarbon.

Question 30.
(a) Explain the following: [5]
(i) NF₃ is an exothermic compound whereas NCl₃ is not.
(ii) F₂ is most reactive of all the four common halogens.
(b) Complete the following chemical equations:
(i) C + H₂SO₄ (conc) →
(ii) P₄ + NaOH+ H₂O →
(iii) Cl₂ + F₂ →
OR
(a) Account for the following:
(i) The acidic strength decreases in the order HCl > H₂S > PH₃
(ii) A tendency to form pentahalides decreases down the group in group 15 of the periodic table.
(b) Complete the following chemical equations:
(i) P₄ + SO₂Cl₂ →
(ii) XeF₂ + H₂O →
(iii) I₂ + HNO₃ (conc.) →
Answer:
(a) (ii) Fluorine is most reactive of all the four common halogens because of its low bond dissociation energy due to which it readily dissociates into atoms and reacts with other substances readily.

(a) (i) Because of the decrease in electronegativity from chlorine to phosphorus, the dissociation enthalpy from HCl to HP increases, and their tendency to release H⁺ ion decreases and thus acidic strength decreases.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Chemistry 2011 Delhi Set II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in the previous set.

Question 1.
Which stoichiometric defect in crystals decreases the density of a solid? [1]

Question 3.
What is meant by shape-selective catalysis of reactions? [1]
Answer:
The reaction that depends for shape-selective catalysts uses zeolites as a catalyst for reaction on the shape and size of pores and of reactants and products.

Question 4.
Draw the structure of XeF₄ molecule [1]
Answer:

Question 9.
Explain what is meant by

1. a peptide linkage
2. a glycosidic linkage? [2]

Answer:

1. Peptide linkage is present in proteins to bind together amino acids. The linkage involves the carboxyl group of one amino acid and amine group of another amino acids.
2. Glycosidic linkage is the (-C-O-C-) linkage present between two molecules of a monosaccharide to form a disaccharide.

Question 10.
Name the bases present in RNA. Which one of these is not present in DNA. [2]
Answer:
Four bases present in RNA are Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine and Uracil. Uracil is not present in DNA.

Question 22.
Explain the role of each the following in the extraction of metals from their ores: [3]
(i) CO in the extraction of nickel.
(ii) Zinc in the extraction of silver.
(iii) Silica in the extraction of copper.
Answer:
(i) CO is used in the vapour phase refining of nickel.

(ii) Zinc acts as a reducing agent which reduces the cyanide complex of silver into pure silver.

(iii) Silica is used to remove impurities in the form of metal oxides as slag.

Question 24.
For the complex [Fe(en)₂Cl₂]Cl, identify the following: [3]

1. The oxidation number of iron.
2. Hybrid orbitals and shape of the complex.
3. Magnetic behaviour of the complex.
4. The number of its geometrical isomers.
5. Whether there may be optical isomer also.
6. Name of the complex.

Answer:

1. +3
2. d²sp³ octahedral shape.
3. paramagnetic
4. 2 geometrical isomers, cis and trans.
5. Only cis-isomers shows optical isomerism
6. Dichloridobis (ethylenediamine) iron(III) chloride

Question 27.
Explain the following terms with one suitable example for each: [3]
(i) A sweetening agent for diabetic patients
(ii) Enzymes
(iii) Analgesics
Answer:
(i) Artificial Sweetening agents are chemicals that sweeten food. However, unlike natural sweeteners, they do not add calories to the body, not harmful to diabetic patients, e.g. Saccharin, aspartame.

(ii) Enzymes are biocatalysts which are structurally globular proteins. They are sensitive to a substrate, pH and temperature changes, e.g., Trypsin

(iii) Analgesics are chemical substances which reduces pain without causing impairment of consciousness, mental confusion, incoordination of paralysis or some other disturbance of nervous system, e.g., Aspirin, (non-narcotic analgesic) and Morphine (narcotic analgesic)

Question 28.
(a) State the following: [5]
(i) Henry’s law about partial pressure of a gas in a mixture.
(ii) Raoult’s law in its general form in reference to solutions.
(b) A solution prepared by dissolving 8.95 mg of a gene fragment in 35.0 mL of water has an osmotic pressure of 0.335 torrs at 25°C. Assuming the gene fragment is non-electrolyte, find its molar mass.
OR
(a) Difference between molarity and molality in a solution. What is the effect of temperature change on molarity and molality in a solution?

(b) What would be the molar mass of a compound if 6.21 g of it dissolved in 24.0 g of chloroform form a solution that has a boiling point of 68.04°C? The boiling point of pure chloroform is 61.7°C and the boiling point elevation constant, K_b for chloroform is 3.63°C/m.
Answer:
(a) (i) Henry’s law states that the partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is directly proportional to its mole fraction in the solution.

(ii) Raoult’s law states that for a solution with volatile components, the partial vapour pressure of each component present in the solution is proportional to its mole fraction in the solution.

Substituting all the values in the given formula

OR
(a) Molarity is defined as the number of moles of solute present in 1 litre of solution, while molality is defined as the number of moles of solute present in 1 kg of solvent. Molality does not have any effect of change in temperature because mass does not changes with temperature, whereas molarity changes with temperature.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Chemistry 2011 Delhi Set III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Question 4.
Draw the structure of BrF₃ molecule [1]
Answer:

Question 8.
In nylon 6, 6 what does the designation 6, 6′ mean? [1]
Answer:
6, 6-refers to the number of carbon atoms in each of its monomer, adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine

Question 9.
What type of battery is lead storage battery? Write the anode and the cathode reactions and the overall reactions occurring in a lead storage battery. [2]
Answer
The lead storage battery is a secondary cell which is rechargeable. During discharging, the electrode reaction occurs as follows:

Question 10.
Two half-reactions of an electrochemical cell are given below:


Construct the redox equation from the standard potential of the cell and predict it the reaction is reactant favoured or product favoured. [2]
Answer:
The redox reactions at anode and cathode can be represented as:

Question 13.
Assign reasons for each of the following: [2]
(i) Transition metals generally form coloured compounds.
(ii) Manganese exhibits the highest oxidation state of +7 among the 3d series of transition elements.
Answer:
(i) Due to the presence of unpaired electrons and d-d transition, the transition metals are generally coloured.

(ii) Manganese (Z = 25), has the maximum number of unpaired electrons. Thus, it shows oxidation states from +2 to +7 which is maximum in number as compared to other elements of transition series.

Question 18.
Name the sub-groups into which polymers are classified on the basis of the magnitude of intermolecular forces. [2]
Answer:

1. Elastomers: They have weakest intermolecular forces of attraction.
2. Fibres: They have strong intermolecular forces of attraction among its molecules.
3. Thermoplastics Polymers: They are semifluid substances having low molecular weight.
4. Thermosetting Polymers: They have inter-molecular forces intermediate between those of elastomers and fibres.

Question 19.
The density of lead is 11.35 g cm^-3 and the metal crystallizes with fcc unit cell. Estimate the radius of lead atom. (At. mass of lead = 207 g mol^-1 and N_A = 6.02 × 10²³ mol^-1) [3]

Question 26.
Complete the following chemical equations: [3]

Answer:

Question 27.
Answer the following questions: [3]
(i) Why do soaps not work in hard water?
(ii) What are the main constituents of Dettol?
(iii) How do antiseptics differ from disinfectants?
Answer:
(i) Hard water contains insoluble chloride of calcium and magnesium which forms insoluble ppt. (scum) with soap and thus cannot be rinsed off easily.

(ii) The main constituents of Dettol are chloroxylenol and α-terpene.

(iii) Antiseptics: These are chemical substances which either kill or prevent the growth of micro-organism but do not cause harm to the living tissues.
Disinfectants: These are chemical substances which kill the microbes. They are toxic in nature and thus causes harm to the tissues of the skin.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Chemistry 2011 Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2014 Delhi

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2014 Delhi Set-I

Question 1.
Define the term ‘mobility’ of charge carriers in a conductor, write its S.I. unit. [1]
Answer :
Mobility of charge carriers in a conductor is defined as the magnitude of their drift velocity per unit applied electric field.
Mobility, μ = Drift of electric field

S.I. unit of mobility is m²V^-1 s^-1.

Question 2.
The carrier wave is given by C(t) = 2 sin (8πt) volt.
The modulating signal is a square wave as shown. Find modulation index. [1]

Question 3.
For any charge configuration, equipotential surface through a point is normal to the electric field. Justify. [1]
Answer :
If the electric field were not normal ‘ to equipotential surface, it would have non zero component along the surface. To move a charge against this component, work would have to be done. But no work is needed to move a test charge on an equipotential surface. Hence electric field must be normal to the equipotential Surface at every point.

Question 4.
Two spherical bobs, one metallic and the other of glass, of the same size are allowed to fall freely from the same height above the ground. Which of the two would reach earlier and why ? [1]
Answer :
Glass bob will reach the ground earlier than the metallic bob. As the metallic bob falls, it intercepts earth’s magnetic field and induced currents are set up in it which oppose its downward motion. But no such currents are induced in the glass bob.

Question 5.
Show variation of resistivity of copper as a function of temperature in a graph. [1]
Answer :
The variation of resistivity of copper with temperature is parabolic in nature. This is shown in the following graph :

Question 6.
A convex lens is placed in contact with a plane mirror. A point object at a distance of 20 cm on the axis of this combination has its image coinciding with it self. What is the focal length of the lens ? [2]
Answer :
The figure shows a convex lens L placed in contact with a plane mirror M. P is the point object, kept in front of

this combination at a distance of 20 cm, from it. As the image coincides with itself, the rays from the object, after refraction from lens, should fall normally on the mirror M, so that they retrace their path. For this, the rays from P, after refraction from the lens must form a parallel beam perpendicular to M. For clarity, M has been shown at a small distance from L (in diagram). As the rays from P, form a parallel beam after refraction, P must be at the focus of the lens. Hence, the focal length of the lens is 20 cm.

Question 7.
Write the expression, in a vector form, for the Lorentz magnetic force due to a charge moving with velocity in a magnetic field . What is the direction of the magnetic force ? [2]
Answer:
The Lorentz magnetic force is given by the following relation:

Here q, is the magnitude of the moving charge. The direction of the magnetic force is perpendicular to the plane containing the
velocity vector and the magnetic field vector .

Question 8.
The figure given below shows the block diagram of a generalized communication system. Identify the element labelled ‘X’ and write its function. [2]

Question 9.
Out of the two magnetic materials, ‘A’ has relative permeability slightly greater than unity while ‘B’ has less than unity. Identify the nature of the materials ‘A’ and ‘B’. Will their susceptibilities be positive or negative ? [2]
Answer :
For a para magnetic material, the relative permeability lies between 1 < µr < 1 + ∈ and its susceptibility lies between 0 < x < ∈.

Hence, ‘A’ is a para magnetic material and its susceptibility is positive. This is because its relative permeability is slightly greater than unity. For a diamagnetic material, the relative permeability lies between 0 ≤ µ_r < 1 and its susceptibility lies between -1 < x < 0. Hence, ‘B’ is a diamagnetic material and its susceptibility is negative. This is because its relative permeability is less than unity. Here µ_r and x refer to the relative permeability and susceptibility.

Question 10.
Given a uniform electric field find the flux of this field through a square of 10 cm on a side whose plane is parallel to the YZ plane. What would be the flux through the same square if the plane makes a 30° angle with the X-axis ? [2]
Answer :
When the plane is parallel to the Y-Z plane:

Question 11.
For a single slit of width a, the first minimum of the interference pattern of a monochromatic light of wavelength λ occurs at an angle of λ /a At the same angle of λ /a we get a maximum for two a narrow slits separated by a distance a. Explain. [3]
Answer :
When a single slit is used, the interference pattern is due to the diffraction phenomenon. In case of diffraction from a single slit of width a using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the first minimum of the interference pattern occurs at an angle θ, which is given by

Hence, it proves the result.

Question 12.
Write the truth table for the combination of the gates shown. Name the gates used. [3]

Identify the logic gates marked ‘P’ and ‘Q’ in the given circuit. Write the truth table for the combination.

Question 13.
State Kirchhoff’s rules. Explain briefly how these rules are justified. [3]
Answer:
Kirchhoff’s first Law-Junction Rule In an electrical circuit, the algebraic sum of the currents meeting at a junction is always zero.

I₁, I₂,1₃ and I₄ are the currents flowing through the respective wires.
Convention : The current flowing towards the junction is taken as positive. The current flowing away from the junction is taken as negative.
I₃ + (-I₁) + (-I₂) + (-I₄) = 0
This law is based on the law of conservation of charge.

Kirchhoff’s Second Law – Loop rule
In a closed loop, the algebraic sum of the emfs is equal to the algebraic sum of the products of the resistances and the currents flowing through them.

Question 14.
A capacitor ‘C’, a variable resistor ‘R’ and a bulb ‘B’ are connected in series to the ac mains in circuit as shown. The bulb glows with some brightness. How will the glow of the bulb change if
(i) a dielectric slab is introduced between the plates of the capacitor, keeping resistance R to be the same;
(ii) the resistance R is increased keeping the same capacitance ? [3]

Answer :
(i) As the dielectric slab is introduced between the plates of the capacitor, its capacitance will increase. Hence, the potential drop across the capacitor will decrease (V= Q/C). As a result, the potential drop across the bulb will increase (since both are connected in series). So, its brightness will increase.
(ii) As the resistance (R) is increased, the potential drop across the resistor will increase. As a result, the potential drop across the bulb will decrease (since both are connected in series). So, its brightness will decrease.

Question 15.
State the underlying principle of a cyclotron. Write briefly how this machine is used to accelerate charged particles to high energies. [3]
Answer:
The underlying principle of a cyclotron is that an oscillating electric field can be used to accelerate a charged particle to high energy.

A cyclotron involves the use of an electric field to accelerate charge particles across the gap between the two D-shaped magnetic field regions. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the paths of the charged particles that makes them follow in circular paths within the two D_s. An alternating voltage accelerates the charged particles each time they cross the D_s. The radius of each particle’s path increases with its speed. So, the accelerated particles spiral toward the outer wall of the cyclotron.

The D_s are the semi-circular structures (D₁ and D₂) between which the charges move. The accelerating voltage is maintained across the opposite halves of the D_s. Square wave electric fields are used to accelerate the charged particles in a cyclotron.

The accelerating electric field reverses just at the time the change particle finishes its half circle. So that it gets accelerated across the gap between the D_s.

The particle gets accelerated again and again, and its velocity increases. Therefore, it attains high kinetic energy. The positively charged ion adopts a circular path with a constant speed v, under the action of magnetic field B, which is perpendicular to the planes of D’s of radius r.

Question 16.
An electric dipole of length 4 cm, when placed with its axis making an angle of 60° with a uniform electric field, experiences a torque of 4√3 Nm. Calculate the potential energy of the dipole, if it has charge ± 8 nC. [3]

Question 17.
A proton and a deuteron are accelerated through the same accelerating potential. Which one of the two has
(a) greater value of de-Broglie wavelength associated with it, and
(b) less momentum ?
Give reasons to justify your Answer. [3]
Answer:
(a) de-Broglie wavelength, λ ∝ 1 /mass (for same accelerating potential) Mass of a proton is less as compared to a deuteron. So, proton will have greater value of de-Broglie wavelength associated with it.
(b) Momentum, p ∝ mass (for same accelerating potential) Mass of deuteron is more as compared to a proton. So, it will have a greater value of momentum.

Question 18.
(i) Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 x 10¹⁴ Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2.0 x 10^-3 W. Estimate the number of photons emitted per second on an average by the source.
(ii) Draw a plot showing the variation of photoelectric current versus the intensity of incident radiation on a given photosensitive surface. [3]

Question 19.
A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. Up to which energy level the hydrogen atoms would be excited ? Calculate the wavelength of the first member of Lyman and first member of Balmer series. [3]



Question 20.
When Sunita, a class XII student, came to know that her parents are planning to rent out the top floor of their house to a mobile company she protested. She tried hard to convince her parents that this move would be a health hazard. Ultimately her parents agreed : [3]
(1) In what way can the setting up of transmission tower by a mobile company in a residential colony prove to be injurious to health ?
(2) By objecting to this move of her parents, what value did Sunita display ?
(3) Estimate the range of e.m. waves which can be transmitted by an antenna of height 20 m. (Given radius of the earth = 6400 km) [3]
Answer :
(1) A transmitting tower makes use of electromagnetic waves such as microwaves, exposure to which can cause severe health hazards like, giddiness, headache, tumour and cancer. Also, the transmitting antenna operates on a very high power, so the risk of someone getting severely burnt in a residential area increases.
(3) Range of the transmitting antenna.

Question 21.
A potentiometer wire of length 1 m has a resistance of 10 Ω. It is connected to a 6 V battery in series with a resistance of 5 Ω. Determine the emf of the primary cell which gives a balance point at 40 cm. [3]
Answer:
From the figure below :


Question 22.
(a) Draw a labelled ray diagram showing the formation of a final image by a compound microscope at least distance of distinct vision.
(b) The total magnification produced by a compound microscope is 20. The magnification produced by the eye piece is 5. The microscope is focused on a certain object. The distance between the objective and eye-piece is observed to be 14 cm. If least distance of distinct vision is 20 cm, calculate the focal length of the objective and the eye-piece. [3]
Answer:
(a)


Question 23.
(a) A mobile phone lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror. Show, with the help of a suitable diagram, the formation of its image. Explain why magnification is not uniform.
(b) Suppose the lower half of the concave mirror’s reflecting surface is covered with an opaque material. What effect this will have on the image of the object ? Explain. [4]
Answer :
(a) The image of the mobile phone formed by the convave mirror will be as shown in fig. given below :

Since the object distance for the different parts of the mobile phone along its length are different, the different parts will be magnified differently. Hence, the magnification is not uniform.
(b) As the laws of reflection are true for all points of the mirror, the height of the whole image will be produced. However, as the area of the reflecting surface has been reduced, the image intensity will be reduced. In other words, the image produced will be less bright.

Question 24.
(a) Obtain the expression for the energy stored per unit volume in a charged parallel plate capacitor.
(b) The electric field inside a parallel plate capacitor is E. Find the amount of work done in moving a charge q over a closed rectangular loop abcda. [5]

OR
(a) Derive the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor having plate area A and plate separation d.
(b) Two charged spherical conductors of radii R₁ and R₂ when connected by a conducting wire acquire charge q₁ and q₂ respectively. Find the ratio of their surface charge densities in terms of their radii.
Answer :
(a) Let us consider a parallel-plate capacitor of plate area A. If separation between plates is d metre, capacitance C is given by



(a) Derivation for the capacitance of parallel plate capacitor:



Question 25.
(a) State Ampere’s circuital law, expressing it in the integral form.
(b) Two long coaxial insulated solenoids, S₁ and S₂ of equal lengths are wound one over the other as shown in the figure. A steady current “I” flow through the inner solenoid S₁ to the other end B, which is connected to the outer solenoid S₂ through which the same current “I” flows in the opposite direction so as to come out at end A. If n₁ and n₂ are the number of turns per unit length, find the magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field at a point
(i) inside on the axis and
(ii) outside the combined system. [5]

Answer:
(a) Ampere’s circuital law states that the circulation of the resultant magnetic field along a closed, plane curve is equal to µ₀ times the total current crossing the area bounded by the closed curve, provided the electric field inside the loop remains constant.

In the above illustration, the Ampere’s circuital law can be written as follows :

(b) (i) The magnetic field due to a current carrying solenoid:

where, n = number of turns per unit length,
i = current through the solenoid.

Now, the magnetic field due to solenoid S₁ will be in the upward direction and the magnetic field due to S₂ will be in the downward direction (by right-hand screw rule).

(ii) The magnetic field is zero outside a solenoid.

Question 26.
Answer the following: [5]
(a) Name the e.m. waves which are suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation. Write the range of frequency of these waves.
(b) If the earth did not have atmosphere, would its average surface temperature be higher or lower than what it is now ? Explain.
(c) An e.m. wave exerts pressure on the surface on which it is incident. Justify.
Answer :
(a) Microwaves are suitable for radar systems used in aircraft’s navigation. The range of frequency for these waves is 10⁹ Hz to 10¹² Hz.
(b) In the absence of atmosphere, there would be no greenhouse effect on the surface of the Earth. As a result, the temperature of the Earth would decrease rapidly, making it difficult for human survival.
(c) The momentum transported by electromagnetic waves is given by

where U is the energy transported by electromagnetic waves in a given time and c is speed of electromagnetic waves in free space. As a result, when these waves strike a surface, pressure and hence force is exerted by them on the surface.

Question 27.
(a) Deduce the expression, N = No e^-λt, for the law of radioactive decay.
(b) (i) Write symbolically the process expressing the β+ decay of Na. Also write the basic nuclear process underlying this decay.
(ii) Is the nucleus formed in the decay of the nucleus Na, an isotope or isobar? [5]
Answer:
(a) Suppose initially the number of atoms in radioactive element is N₀ and N the number of atoms after time t. After time t, let dN be the number of atoms which disintegrate in a short interval dt,

then rate of disintegration will be, dN/dt, this is also called the activity of the element.

According to Rutherford-Soddy law,
……… (i)

where λ is a constant, called decay constant or disintegration constant of the element. Its unit is s^-1. Negative sign shows that the rate of disintegration decreases with increase of time. For a given element λ, is a constant and is different for different elements. Equation (i) may be rewritten as

The neutron-proton ratio is also an important factor that determines the stability of a nucleus. A proton-rich nucleus undergoes positron emission (β+ decay), so as to improve the neutron- proton ratio. The positron emission decreases proton number relative to neutron number and the product nucleus becomes relatively more stable. In β+ decay, neutrino (v) is emitted so as to conserve spin.
ii) The nucleus so formed is an isobar of because the mass number is same, but the atomic numbers are different.

Question 28.
(a) (i) ‘Two independent mono-chromatic sources of light cannot produce a sustained interference pattern’. Give reason.
(ii) Light wave each of amplitude ‘a’ and frequency ‘ω’, emanating from two coherent light sources superpose at a point. If the displacements due to these waves is given by y1 = a cos ωt and y2 = a cos (ωt + Φ) where Φ is the phase difference between the two, obtain the expression for the resultant intensity at the point.
(b) In Young’s double slit experiment, using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where path difference is λ, is K units. Find out the intensity of light at a point where path difference is λ/3. [5]
OR
(a) How does one demonstrate, using a suitable diagram, that unpolarised light when passed through a Polaroid gets polarized ?
(b) A beam of unpolarised light is incident on a glass-air interface. Show, using a suitable ray diagram, that light reflected from the interface is totally polarized, when µ = tan i_B where µ is the refractive index of glass with respect to air and i_B is the Brewster’s angle.
Answer :
(a) (i) The condition for the sustained interference is that both the sources must be coherent (i.e., they must have the same wavelength and the same frequency, and they must have the same phase or constant phase difference).

Two sources are monochromatic if they have the same frequency and wavelength. Since they are independent, i.e., they have different phases with irregular difference, they are not coherent sources.
(ii)



The phenomenon of restricting the vibration of light (electric vector) in a particular direction perpendicular to the direction of the wave propagation is called polarization of light.

When unpolarised light is passed through a Polaroid, only those vibrations of light pass through the crystal, which are parallel to the axis of the crystal (AB). All other vibrations are absorbed and that is why intensity of the emerging light is reduced.

The plane ABCD in which the vibrations of the polarized light are confined is called the plane of vibration. The plane KLMN that is perpendicular to the plane of vibration is defined as the plane of polarization.

(b) When unpolarised light is incident on the glass-air interference at Brewster angle Z’B, then reflected light is totally polarised. This is called Brewster’s Law.

When light is incident at Brewster angle, the reflected component OB and the refracted component OC are mutually perpendicular to each Other.

Question 29.
(a) Describe a simple experiment (or activity) to show that the polarity of emf induced in a coil is always such that it tends to produce a current which opposes the change of magnetic flux that produces it.
(b) The current flowing through an inductor of self inductance L is continuously increasing. Plot a graph showing the variation.
(i) Magnetic flux versus the current
(ii) Induced emf versus dl/dt
(iii) Magnetic potential energy stored versus the current. [5]
OR
(a) Draw a schematic sketch of an ac generator describing its basic elements. State briefly its working principle. Show a plot of variation of
(i) Magnetic flux and
(ii) Alternating emf versus time generated by a loop of wire rotating in a magnetic field.
(b) Why is choke coil needed in the use of fluorescent tubes with ac mains ?
Answer :
(a) Lenz’s law : According to Lenz’s law, the polarity of the induced emf is such that it opposes a change in magnetic flux responsible for its production.

When the north pole of a bar magnet is pushed towards the coil, the amount of magnetic flux linked with the coil increase. Current is reduced in the coil from a direction such that it opposes the increase in magnetic flux. This is possible only when the current induced in the coil is in anti-clockwise direction, with respect to an observer. The magnetic moment M associated with this induced emf has north polarity, towards the north pole of the approaching bar magnet.

Similarly, when the north pole of the bar magnet is moved away from the coil, the magnetic flux linked with the coil decreases. To counter this decrease in magnetic flux, current is induced in the coil in clockwise direction so that its south pole faces the receding north pole of the bar magnet. This would result in an attractive force which opposes the motion of the magnet and the corresponding decrease in magnetic flux



It works on the process of electromagnetic induction, i.e., when a coil rotates continuously in a magnetic field, the effective area of the coil, linked (normally) with the magnetic field lines, changes continuously with time. This variation of magnetic flux with time results in the production of a (alternating) emf in the coil.


(b) A choke coil is an electrical appliance used for controlling current in an a.c. circuit. Therefore, if we use a resistance R for the same purpose, a lot of energy would be wasted in the form of heat etc.

Question 30.
(a) State briefly the processes involved in the formation of p-n junction explaining clearly how the depletion region is formed.
(b) Using the necessary circuit diagram, show how the V-I characteristics of a p-n junction are obtained in
(i) Forward biasing
(ii) Reverse biasing
How are these characteristics made use of in rectification ? [5]
OR
(a) Differentiate between three segments of a transistor on the basis of their size and level of doping.
(b) How is a transistor biased to be in active state ?
(c) With the help of necessary circuit diagram, describe briefly how n-p-n transistor in CE configuration amplifies a small sinusoidal input voltage. Write the expression for the ac current gain.
Answer :
(a) As we know that n-type semi-conductor has more concentration of electrons than that of a hole and p-type semi-conductor has more concentration of holes than an electron. Due to the difference in concentration of charge carriers in the two regions of p-n junction, the holes diffuse from p-side to //-side and electrons diffuse from n-side to p-side.

When an electron diffuses from n to p, it leaves behind an ionized donor on n-side. The ionized donor (+ve charge) is immobile as it is bounded by the surrounding atoms. Therefore, a layer of positive charge is developed on the n-side of the junction. Similarly, a layer of negative charge is developed on the p-side.

Hence, a space-charge region is formed on both side of the junction, which has immobile ions and is devoid of any charge carrier, called as depletion layer or depletion region.
(b)

Using the circuit arrangements shown in fig (a) and fig (b), we study the variation of current with applied voltage to obtain the V-I characteristics shown below.

From the V-I characteristics of a junction diode, it is clear that it allows the current to pass only when it is forward biased. So when an alternating voltage is applied across the diode, current flows only during that part of the cycle when it is forward biased.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2014 Delhi Set-II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous Set.

Question 1.
Define the term ‘electrical conductivity’ of a metallic wire. Write its S.I. unit. [1]
Answer:
The electrical conductivity of a metallic wire is defined as the ratio of the current density to the electric field it creates.
Electrical conductivity,
S.I. unit = (ohm m)^-1
OR
The reciprocal of resistivity of a material is called its electrical conductivity.
OR 

Question 2.
The carrier wave is represented by C (t) = 5 sin (10 πt) volt A modulating signal is a square wave as shown. Determine modulation index. [1]

Question 3.
An electric dipole of length 2 cm, when placed with its axis making an angle of 60° with a uniform electric field, experiences a torque of 8√3 Nm. Calculate the potential energy of the dipole, if it has a charge of ±4 nC. [2]

Question 4.
A proton and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same potential ? Which one of the two has
(i) greater value of de-Broglie wavelength associated with it and
(ii) less kinetic energy. Give reasons to justify your answer. [3]
Answer :
(i) de-Broglie wavelength of a particle depends upon its mass and charge for same accelerating potential such that

If mass and charge of a proton are m_p and e respectively, then, mass and charge of an alpha particle are 4m_p and 2e respectively. Where, e is the charge of an electron

Thus, de-Broglie wavelength associated with proton is 2√2 times of the de-Broglie wavelength of alpha particle.
(ii) K.E. ∝ q (for same accelerating potential).
Charge of an alpha particle is more as compared to a proton. So, it will have a greater value of K.E. Hence, proton will have lesser kinetic energy.

Question 5.
Given a uniform electric field Find the flux of this field through a square of side 20 cm, whose plane is parallel to the Y-Z plane. What would be the flux through the same square, if the plane makes an angle of 30° with the X-axis ? [3]
Answer:
When the plan is parallel to the Y-Z plane

Question 6.
A 12.9 eV beam of electronic is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. Up to which energy level the hydrogen atoms would be excited ? Calculate the wavelength of the first member of Paschen series and first member of Balmer series. [3]
Answer:
Energy of the electron in the n^th state of an atom



Question 7.
Answer the following: [3]
(a) Name the e.m. waves which are used for the treatment of certain forms of cancer. Write their frequency range.
(b) Thin ozone layer on top of stratosphere is crucial for human survival. Why ?
(c) Why is the amount of the momentum transferred by the e.m. waves incident on the surface so small ?

Answer :
(a) Gamma rays are used for the treatment of certain forms of cancer. Their frequency range is 3 x 10¹⁹ Hz to 5 x 10²⁰ Hz.
(b) The thin ozone layer on top of stratosphere absorb most of the harmful ultraviolet rays coming from the Sun towards the Earth. They include UVA, UVB and UVC radiations, which can destroy the life system on the Earth. Hence, this layer is crucial for human survival.
(c) The momentum transported by electroma-gnetic waves is given by

Question 8.
A potentiometer wire of length 1.0 m has a resistance of 15 Ω. It is connected to a 5 V battery in series with a resistance of 5 Ω. Determine the emf of the primary cell which gives a balance point at 60 cm. [5]
Answer:
Current through potentiometer wire,

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2014 Delhi Set-III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous Sets.

Question 1.
Define the term ‘drift velocity’ of charge carriers in a conductor and write its relationship with the current flowing through it. [1]
Answer :
The net speed achieved by an electron in a current carrying conductor is called as drift velocity. The average velocity acquired by the free electrons along the length of a metallic conductor under a potential difference applied across the conductor is called drift velocity of the electrons.

Here:
I is the current flowing through the conductor.
n is the number density of an electron.
A is the area of the conductor,
e is the charge of the electron.

Question 2.
The carrier wave of a signal is given by C(t) = 3 sin (8πt) volt. The modulating signal is a square wave as shown. Find its modulation index. [1]

Question 3.
Plot a graph showing variation of current versus voltage for the material Ga. [1]
Answer :
Current-Voltage characteristics graph for Ga:

Question 4.
An electric dipole of length 2 cm, when placed with its axis making an angle of 60° with a uniform electric field, experiences a torque of 6√3 Nm. Calculate the potential energy of the dipole, if it has a charge of ±2 nC. [1]
Answer:
As


Question 5.
A deuteron and an alpha particle are accelerated with the same accelerating potential. [3]
Which one of the two has
(1) greater value of de-Broglie wavelength, associated with it, and
(2) less kinetic energy ? Explain.
Answer :
(1) de-Broglie wavelength of a particle is dependent on its mass and charge for same accelerating potential, such that

(2) K.E. ∝q
(for same accelerating potential)
Charge of a deuteron is less as compared to an alpha particle. So, deuteron will have less kinetic energy.

Question 6.
Given a uniform electric field . Find the flux of this field through a square of 5 cm on a side whose plane is parallel to the Y-Z plane. What would be the flux through the same square, if the plane makes an angle of 30° with the X-axis ? [3]
Answer:
When the plane is parallel to the Y-Z plane:


Question 7.
A 12.3 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. Upto which energy level the hydrogen atoms would be excited ? Calculate the wavelength of the second member of Lyman series and second member of Balmer series. [3]
Answer :
Let the hydrogen atoms be excited to nth energy level.



Question 8.
Answer the following : [5]
(a) Name the em waves which are used for the treatment of certain forms of cancer. Write their frequency range.
(b) Welders wear special glass goggles while working. Why ? Explain.
(c) Why are infrared waves often called as heat waves ? Give their one application.
Answer:
(a) Gamma rays are used for the treatment of certain forms of cancer. The frequency range of Gamma rays is 3 × 10¹⁹ to 5 × 10²⁰ Hz.
(b) Welders wear special glass goggles while working so that they can protect their eyes from harmful electromagnetic radiation.
(c) Infrared waves are often called as heat waves because they induce resonance in molecules and increase internal energy in a substance. Infrared waves are used in burglar alarms, security lights and remote controls for television and DVD players.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2014 Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Maths 2011 Outside Delhi

Time allowed: 3 hours
Maximum marks : 100

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper consists of 29 questions divided into four sections A, B, C and D. Section A comprises of 4 questions of one mark each, Section B comprises of 8 questions of two marks each, Section C comprises of 11 questions of four marks each and Section D comprises of 6 questions of six marks each.
• All questions in Section A are to be answered in one word, one sentence or as per the exact requirement of the question.
• There is no overall choice. However, internal choice has been provided in 1 question of Section A, 3 questions of Section B, 3 questions of Section C and 3 questions of Section D. You have to attempt only one of the alternatives in all such questions.
• Use of calculators is not permitted. You may ask for logarithmic tables, if required.

**Answer is not given due to the change in present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Maths 2011 Outside Delhi Set I

Section – A

Question 1.
Let A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {4, 5, 6, 7} and let f = {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6)} be a function from A to B. State whether f is one-one or not. [1]
Solution:
Given,
A = {1, 2, 3},
B = {4, 5, 6, 7}
f = {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6)}
f : A → B is defined as
∴ f(1) = 4, f(2)= 5, f(3) = 6.
Different points of the domain have different f-image in the range.
∴ f is one-one.

Question 2.
What is the principal value of
[1]
Solution:
Given,

Question 3.
Evaluate:
[1]
Solution:

Question 4.
If A = write A^-1 in terms of A. [1]
Solution:

Question 5.
If a matrix has 5 elements, write all possible orders it can have. [1]
Solution:
Since a matrix of order m × n has mn elements therefore, to find all possible orders of a matrix with 5 elements, we have to fill all possible ordered pairs (m, n) of positive integers whose product is 5. Hence possible orders are 1 × 5 and 5 × 1.

Question 6.
Evaluate:
[1]
Solution:

Question 7.
Evaluate:
[1]
Solution:

Question 8.
Write the direction-cosines of the line joining the points (1, 0, 0) and (0, 1, 1). [1]
Solution:
The d.r’s of line joining points (1, 0, 0) and (0, 1, 1) are 0 -1, 1 – 0, 1 – 0 i.e. -1, 1, 1

Question 9.
Write the projection of the vector on the vector . [1]
Solution:

Question 10.
Write the vector equation of a line given by
[1]
Solution:
The given line is

Section – B

Question 11.
Let f : R → R be defined as f(x) = 10x + 7. Find the function g: R → R such that gof=fog = I_R. [4]
Solution:
It is given that f : R → R is defined as
f(x) = 10x + 7
One-one
Let f(x) = f(y), where x, y ϵ R
⇒ 10x + 7 = 10y + 7
⇒ x = y
∴ f is a one-one function.
Onto:
For y ϵ R, let y = 10x + 7

OR
A binary operation * on the set {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} is defined as:

Show that zero is the identity for this operation and each element ‘a’ of the set is invertible with 6 – a, being the inverse of ‘a’.**

Question 12.
Prove that:
[4]
Solution:
L.H.S

Question 13.
Using properties of determinants, solve the following for x:
[4]
Solution:

Question 14.
Find the relationship between ‘a’ and ‘b’ so that the function ‘f’ defined by:

is continuous at x = 3. [4]
Solution:
∵ f(x) is continuous at x = 3,

OR
If x^y = e^x-y, show that .
Solution:
We have,

Question 15.
Prove that y = is an increasing function on . [4]
Solution:
We have,


OR
If the radius of a sphere is measured as 9 cm with an error of 0.03 cm, then find the approximate error in calculating its surface area.
Solution:
Let r be the radius of sphere and ∆r be the error in measuring the radius.
Then r = 9 cm, ∆ r = 0.03 cm.
Now surface area S of the sphere is
S = 4πr²
Differentiating w.r. t r, we get

This is the approximate error in calculating surface area.

Question 16.
If x = , show that
[4]
Solution:
Given,

Question 17.
Evaluate:
[4]
Solution:

Question 18.
Solve the following differential equation :
[4]
Solution:
The given differential equation is

Question 19.
Solve the following differential equation:
[4]
Solution:
The given differential equation is

Question 20.
Using vectors, find the area of the triangle with vertices A(1, 1, 2), B(2, 3, 5) and C(1, 5, 5). [4]
Solution:
The vertices of triangle ABC are given as A(1, 1, 2), B(2, 3, 5) and C(1, 5, 5)
Let O be the origin of triangle

Question 21.
Find the shortest distance between the following lines whose vector equations are:
[4]
Solution:
Given equation are

Question 22.
A random variable X has the following probability distribution:

Determine: [4]
(i) K
(ii) P(X < 3)
(iii) P(X > 6)
(iv) P(0 < X < 3).
Solution:
It is known that the sum of probability distribution of variable is one.
(i) ∴ Σ P(X) =1 .
Therefore,
P(0) + P(1) + P(2) + P(3) + P(4) + P(5) + P(6) + P(7) = 1
0 + K + 2K + 2K + 3K + K² + 2K² + 7K² + K = 1
⇒ 10K² + 9K – 1 = 0
⇒ 10K² + 10K – K – 1 = 0
⇒ 10K (K +1) – 1(K + 1) = 0
⇒ (K +1) (10 K – 1) = 0
⇒ K + 1 = 0

OR
Find the probability of throwing at most 2 sixes in 6 throws of a single die.
Solution:
Here, n = 6
p = p (getting 6)

Section – C

Question 23.
Using matrices, solve the following system of equations:
4x + 3y + 2z = 60
x + 2y + 3z = 45
6x + 2y + 3z = 70. [6]
Solution:
4x + 3y + 2z =60,
x + 2y + 3z = 45,
6x + 2y + 3z = 70.
The equation of system can be written in matrix form
AX = B ….(i)

Question 24.
Show that the right circular cone of least curved surface and given volume has an altitude equal to times the radius of the base.
Solution:
Let radius of cone = r
Height of cone = h
and slant height of cone = l




Hence, altitude is equal to times the radius of base. Hence Proved.
OR
A window has the shape of a rectangle surmounted by an equilateral mangle. If the perimeter of the window is 12 m, find the dimensions of the rectangle that will produce the largest area of the window.
Solution:
Let ABCD be a rectangle and let the side of an equilateral triangle be AB = b (length of the rectangle) and BC = a(width of the rectangle)

Question 25.
Evaluate:
[6]
Solution:



OR
Evaluate:

Solution:

Question 26.
Sketch the graph of y = | x + 3| and evaluate the area under the curve y= | x + 3| above x-axis and between x = – 6 to x = 0. [6]
Solution:
For drawing a sketch of the graph of y = | x + 3|, we construct the following table of values

Question 27.
Find the distance of the point (-1, -5, -10), from the point of intersection of the line

Solution:
Equation of the line is

Question 28.
Given three identical boxes I, II and III each containing two coins. In box I, both coins are gold coins, in box II, both are silver coins and in box III, there is one gold and one silver coin. A person chooses a box at random and takes out a coin. If the coin is of gold, what is the probability that the other coin in the box is also of gold ? [6]
Solution:
Let E₁i be box I is chosen, E₂ be box II is chosen and E₃ be box HI be chosen and A be the coin drawn is of gold.
We have,

Question 29.
A merchant plans to sell two types of personal computer- a desktop model and a portable model that will cost ₹ 25,000 and ₹ 40,000 respectively. He estimates that the total monthly demand of computers will not exceed 250 units. Determine the number of units of each type of computers which the merchant should stock to get maximum profit if he does not want to invest more than ₹ 70 lakhs and his profit on the desktop model is ₹ 4,500 and on the portable model is ₹ 5,000. Make an L.P.P. and solve it graphically. [6]
Solution:
Let the merchant stock x desktop computers and y portable computers. We construct the following table :

∴ The LPP is
Maximize Z = 4,500 x + 5,000 y
Subject to constraints:
x + y ≤ 250
25,000 x + 40,000 y ≤ 70,00,000
⇒ 5x + 8y ≤ 1,400
and x ≥ 0 , y ≥ 0
First we draw the lines AB and CD whose equations are
x + y = 250 …(i)


The feasible region is OBPCO which is shaded in the figure.
The vertices of feasible region are O(0, 0), B(250, 0), P(200, 50) and C(0, 175).
P is the point of intersection of the lines.
x + y = 250
and 5x + 8y = 1400
Solving these equation we get point P(200, 50).
∴ The value of objective function
Z = 4500 x + 5000y
At these vertices are as follows :

Hence, the profit is maximum at ₹ 11,50,000 when 200 desktop computers and 50 portable computers are stocked.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Maths 2011 Outside Delhi Set II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Section – A

Question 9.
Evaluate:
[1]
Solution:

Question 10.
Write a unit vector in the direction of the vector
[1]
Solution:
The given vector is

Section – B

Question 19.
Prove the following:
[4]
Solution:
L.H.S

Question 20.
Using properties of determinants, solve the following for x:
[4]
Solution:
The determinant is

Question 21.
Evaluate:
[4]
Solution:

Question 22.
Solve the following differential equation:
xdy – (y + 2x²)dx = 0 [4]
Solution:
Given,
xdy – (y + 2x²)dx = 0

Section – C

Question 28.
Using matrices, solve the following system of equations: [6]
x + 2y + z = 7
x + 3z =11
2x – 3y = 1
Solution:
The given equations are x + 2 y + z = 7
x + 3z = 11
2x – 3y = 1
The given system of equations can be written in matrix form
AX = B …(i)

Question 29.
Find the equation of the plane passing througjh the line of intersection of the planes and parallel to x-axis. [6]
Solution:
The given equation of planes are

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Maths 2011 Outside Delhi Set III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Section – A

Question 1.
Evaluate:
[1]
Solution:

Question 2.
Write the angle between two vectors and magnitudes with and 2 respectively having . [1]
Solution:
Given,

Section – B

Question 11.
Prove that: . [4]
Solution:
L.H.S

Question 12.
Using properties of determinants, solve the following for x:
[4]
Solution:

Question 13.
Evaluate:
[4]
Solution: