CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2016 Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 80

General Instructions:

• All question in both sections are compulsory.
• Marks for questions are indicated against each questions.
• Question Nos. 1-4 and 13-16 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 marks each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
• Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18 are short- answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
• Question No. 7-9 and 19-21 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
• Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24 are long- answer questions carrying 6 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
• Answer should be brief and to the point and the above words limits should be adhered to as far as possible.

** Answer is not given due to change in the present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2016 Delhi Set – I

Section – A

Question 1.
What is the relation between marginal cost and average variable cost when marginal cost is rising and average variable cost is falling? [1]
Answer:
Marginal cost lies below the average variable cost when marginal cost is rising and average variable cost is falling. In other words as long as marginal cost is below the average variable cost, the AVC continues to fall, no matter the MC is rising.

Question 2.
Suppose total revenue is rising at a constant rate as more and more units of a commodity are sold, marginal revenue would be : (choose the correct alternative). [1]
(a) Greater than average revenue
(b) Equal to average revenue
(c) Less than average revenue
(d) Rising
Answer:
(b) Equal to Average Revenue.

Question 3.
When does ‘increase’ in demand take place? [1]
Answer:
Increase in demand: Rise in demand takes place due to change in factors other than price of the commodity.

Question 4.
‘Homogenous products’ is a characteristic of : (choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Perfect competition only
(b) Perfect oligopoly only
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) (a) and (b)

Question 5.
There is inverse relation between price and demand for the product of a firm under : (choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Monopoly only
(b) Monopolistic competition only
(c) Both under monopoly and monopolistic competition
(d) Perfect competition only
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 6.
A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y. Marginal utilities of X and Y are 5 and 4 respectively. The prices of X and Y are ₹ 4 per unit and ₹ 5 per unit respectively. Is the consumer in equilibrium? What will be the further reaction of the consumer? Explain. [3]
Answer:
Marginal utility of X = 5
Price of X = ₹ 4
Marginal utility of Y = 4
Price of Y = ₹ 5
MUx ÷ Px = 5 ÷ 4 = 1.25
MUy ÷ Py = 4 ÷ 5 = 0.8
No, the consumer is not in an equilibrium because the marginal utility of X is more than the marginal utility of Y and to reach the equilibrium level, the consumer should increase the consumption of good X and decrease the consumption of good Y.

Question 7.
Price elasticity of demand of good X is -2 and of good Y is -3. Which of the two goods is more price elastic and why? [3]
Answer:
Price elasticity of good X = -2
Price elasticity of good Y = -3
Good Y is more price elastic as compared to good X. There is inverse relationship between price and demand. For elasticity, negative sign is ignored and hence.
= 3 > 2
Thus, price elasticity of good Y is more .

Question 8.
What is maximum price ceiling? Explain its implications. [3]
OR
Explain the chain effects, if the prevailing market price is below the equilibrium price.
Answer:
A price ceiling occurs when the government puts a legal limit on how high the price of the product can be. In order for the price ceiling to be effective, it must be set below the natural market equilibrium. It is also known as maximum price. This maximum price is fixed below the equilibrium price for the welfare of poor and vulnerable sections of the society. Implications of price ceiling :
(a) When prices are lowered below the equilibrium price, than the demand increases more as compared to available supply. This leads to the situation of excess demand.
(b) With price ceiling, all the necessity products come under the reach of poorer and vulnerable sections of the society.
(c) Due to price ceiling, there is the situation of more demand and less of supply, since there is less supply, goods are made available to people in a fixed quantity (quota), otherwise this at times lead to a problem of shortage.
OR
When the prevailing market price is below the equilibrium price, then there is a condition of excess demand . This excess demand increases the competition among the buyers and buyers tend to buy the output at higher prices which increases the market price. As the market price starts rising, demand contracts and supply expands. This market price tend to rise till the equilibrium is restored.

In the above fig, it is assumed that the market price p_s is below the equilibrium price p_e. According to demand curve, quantity demanded. q_d, quantity supplied q_s, there emerges the situation of excess demand (q_d – q_s).
The excess demand pushes the price up from the OP_s price level. With rise in price, the quantity demanded contracts and quantity supplied expands. This process continues till the equilibrium gets established at point E at OP_e price level and OQ_e quantity.

Question 9.
Explain in effect of change in prices of the related goods on demand for the given good. [4]
Answer:
Goods are said to be related when price of one good (say ‘X’) causes change in demand for other good (say ‘Y’). Related goods are of two types:
(a) Substitute goods (direct relationship) : Substitute goods are a pair of goods which can be used (substituted) in place of each other. They are competitive good. Like pepsi and coca-cola or tea and coffee. Demand for a given commodity is affected if the price of its substitute rises or falls. For the case of tea and coffee-the, demand for tea will fall when the price of its substitute-coffee falls. A fall in the price of substitute good (tea) reduces the consumers demand for given good (coffee).

If related good is a substitute of a given good, then a rise in price of substitute good will lead to rise in demand for given good because it becomes relatively cheaper.


As can be seen is the above graph that when the price of coffee is OP₁, the demand for tea is OQ₁. When the price of coffee rises to OP₂, the demand for tea increased to OQ₂. Hence there is direct relationship between price of coffee and demand for tea.

(b) Complementary goods (inverse relation¬ship) : Complementary goods are pair of goods which are used together to satisfy a given want. They are complementary to each other in the sense that they complete the deficiencies of each other. For eg fountain pen and ink. A fall in the price of one commodity leads to rise in the de¬mand for the other commodity also. If the price of ink falls, demand for its complementary good -fountain pen will rise. Thus, a fall in price of one complementary good increases the demand for the other complementary good.
If related good is complementary to the given good, then a rise in price of complementary good will result in fall in demand of given good.


As can be seen is the above graph that when price of the ink was OP₁, the demand for pen was OQ₁. When the price of ink falls to OP₂, the demand for pen rises to OQ₂. Hence there is an inverse relationship between price of ink and demand for pen.

Question 10.
Define production function. Distinguish between short run and long run production functions. [4]
OR
Define cost. Distinguish between fixed and variable costs. Give one example of each.
Answer:
Production function : Production has been defined as “transformation of inputs into output”. The physical relationship between inputs and outputs under given technology is called production function.
Q = f(F₁,F₂ ………. F_n)

OR
Cost: The sum of explicit cost (cash payments made by firms to outsiders for hiring factor services and buying raw materials) and implicit costs (cost of self owned and self supplied inputs) constitute total cost of production of a commodity.

Question 11.
A producer supplies 80 units of a good at a price of ₹ 10 per unit. Price elasticity of supply is 4. How much will he supply at ₹ 9 per unit ? [4]
Answer:
Given : Q₁ = 80 units, Q₂ = ? P₁ = ₹ 10/ unit and P₂= ₹ 9/unit and Es = 4
Let Q₂ be x
ΔQ = (Q₂ – Q₁)
= (x – 80)
ΔP = (P₂ – P₁)
= (9 – 10)
= -1
Es = (ΔQ ÷ ΔP) × (P ÷ Q)
4 = (x – 80 ÷ (-1) × (10 ÷ 80)
4 = x – 80 ÷ -8
-32 = x – 80
x = 48 units
Thus, a producer will supply 48 units at ₹ 9 per unit.

Question 12.
Assuming that no resource is equally efficient in production of all goods, name the curve which shows production potential of the economy. Explain, giving reasons, its properties. [6]
Answer:
The curve which shows the production potential of the economy , assuming that no resource is equally efficient in production of all goods is ” Production Possibility Curve (PP Curve)”.
Production possibility curve: It is a curve which depicts all possible combinations of two goods which an economy can produce with available technology and with full and efficient use of its given resources.

Properties of PP Curve:
(a) Downward sloping curve from left to right: PP Curve is downward sloping from left to right because in a situation of full employment of resources, production of one good can be increased only after sacrificing some quantity of the other good.

(b) PP curve is concave to the origin: The shape of PP Curve is concave to the origin because of increasing marginal opportunity cost.
(c) Optimum utilisation of resources : When economy is producing on PP Curve, every point on it (A, B, C, D, E ,F) reflects situation of full and efficient employment of resources i.e. optimum utilisation of resources.

Question 13.
Explain the condition of consumer’s equilibrium using indfference curve analysis. [6]
Answer:
According to indifference curve analysis, a consumer attains equilibrium at a point where budget line is tangent to indifference curve. Con¬sumer equilibrium is achieved where slope of indifference curve (MRS) = slope of budget line (Px/Py)
MRS = Px ÷ Py ( Ratio of prices of two goods) Given the indifference map (preference schedule) of the consumer and budget or price line, we can find out the combination which gives the consumer maximum satisfaction. The aim of the consumer is to obtain highest combination on his indifference map and for this he tries to go to the highest indifference curve with his given budget line. He would be in equilibrium only at such point which is common point between budget line and the highest attainable indifference curve. A consumer is in equilibrium at a point where budget line is tangent to indifference curve. At this point, slope of indifference curve (called MRS) is equal to slope of budget line.

In the above fig, P is the equilibrium point at which budget line M just touches the highest attainable indifference curve IC₂ within consumer budget. Combinations on IC₃ are not affordable because his income does not permit whereas combinations on IC₁ gives lower satisfaction than IC₂. Hence, best combination is at point P where budget line is tangent to the indifference curve IC₂. It is at this point that consumer attains the maximum satisfaction at the state of equilibrium.
For consumer’s equilibrium, two conditions are necessary:
(a) Budget line should be tangent to indifference curve (MRS = Px / Py).
(b) Indifference curve should be convex to the point of origin (i.e.. MRS should be diminishing at a point of equilibrium.)

Question 14.
Explain the distinction between “Change in quantity supplied” and “Change in supply”. Use diagram. [6]
Answer:

Question 15.
Explain the implication of the following in a perfectly competitive market: [6]
(a) Large number of buyers
(b) Freedom of entry and exit to firms
OR
Explain the implications of the following in an oligopoly market:
(a) Inter-dependence between firms
(b) Non-price competition
Answer:
Implications of the following in perfectly competitive market:
(a) Large number of buyers: There are very large number of buyers in perfectly competitive market that no individual buyer can influence the price or demand of any commodity. An individual buyer is the price taker and not the price maker.

(b) Freedom of entry and exit to the firms: Implies that there are no obstacles for the firms to move in and out of industry. The implication is that when existing firms are making profits, new firms enters, raise the output of industry, brings down the market price enough for the firm to earn only normal profit in the long run. The opposite happens if the existing firms are facing losses.
OR
Implications of the following in oligopoly market:
(a) Inter-dependence between firms: There are very few large firms in oligopoly market and these firms are mutually dependent on each other and hence influence the market price and output. To fix the price and its output , every firm has to consider the decision of the rival firm also as all the firms are mutually dependent on each other.

(b) Non-price competition: Since the firms in oligopolistic market are inter- dependent and they fix the prices together, so there is no price competition among the firms as they fix the price after taking into consideration the decision of all the firms together.

Section – B

Question 16.
Define Stocks. [1]
Answer:
Stock: A stock are the variables whose magnitude is measured at a point of time, e.g. population.

Question 17.
Depreciation of fixed capital assets refers to : (choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Normal wear and tear
(b) Foreseen obsolescence
(c) Normal wear and tear and foreseen obsolescence
(d) Unforeseen obsolescence
Answer:
(c) Normal wear and tear and foreseen obsolescence.

Question 18.
What is revenue expenditure? [1]
Answer:
Revenue Expenditure: An expenditure which neither creates assets nor reduces liabilities is called revenue expenditure.

Question 19.
Fiscal deficit equals : (choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Interest Payments
(b) Borrowings
(c) Interest payments less borrowing
(d) Borrowings less interest payments
Answer:
(b) Borrowings.

Question 20.
Foreign exchange transactions dependent on other foreign exchange transactions are called: (choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Current account transactions
(b) Capital account transactions
(c) Autonomous transactions
(d) Accommodating transaction
Answer:
(d) Accommodating transactions.

Question 21.
Find net value added at factor cost: [3]

Answer:
Value of output = sales + change in stock
= 20 + 2 = 22 lakh.
Gross value added at market price = value of output – intermediate consumption (single use producer goods)
= 22 – 5 = 17 1akh.
Depreciation = (Cost of producers good ÷ no. of life in years)
= (10 ÷ 10) = 1
Net Indirect taxes = Taxes on production – subsidy
=1 – 0=1
Net value added at FC = GVAmp – Depreciation – Net indirect taxes
= 17 – 1 – 1
= ₹ 15 lakhs.

Question 22.
Distinguish between marginal propensity to consume and average propensity to consume. Give a numerical example. [3]
OR
Explain the role of taxation in reducing excess demand.
Answer:


OR
Role of taxation to reduce excess demand :
Important part of fiscal policy is revenue policy which is expressed in terms of taxes. During inflation, government should raise rates of all taxes especially on rich people because taxation withdraws purchasing power from the tax payers and to that extent reduces effective demand. The non-discretionary elements refer to in built stabilizers of income which operate automatically in reducing excess demand like progressive income tax, subsidies, old-age pension and others such as transfer payments .

Question 23.
In an economy investment is increased by ₹ 300 crore. If marginal propensity to consume is 2/3, calculate increase in national income. [3]
Answer:
MPC = 2/3
ΔI = ₹ 300 crores
k = [1 ÷ (1 – MPC)]
= [1 ÷ (1 – 2/3)]

Increase in national income is ₹ 900 crore.

Question 24.
Government incurs expenditure to popularize yoga among the masses. Analyze its impact on gross domestic product and welfare of the people. [4]
Answer:
Impact on GDP: With the help of yoga, people will be in good state of health as well as in a good state of mind and it is rightly said that healthy mind stays in a healthy body. When a person has healthy mind and healthy body, he/ she will work hard towards producing good and increased quantity of goods which will help in increasing the GDP of the economy. People with healthy mind will provide their efficient services to the economy which will have a positive impact on the GDP of the country and will help in increasing the standards of the economy.

Impact on the welfare of people : Yoga keeps the body, mind and soul healthy and happy. With healthy body, mind and soul people are able to work in an efficient manner and help the others in society, rooting up the welfare of all the people in the society.

Question 25.
Explain the “store of value” function of money.
How has it solved the related problem created by barter ?** [4]
OR
Explain the “unit of account’ function of money. How has it solved the related problem created by barter ?**

Question 26.
Explain how open market operations are helpful in controlling credit creation. [4]
Answer:
Open market operations : Open market operations refer to buying and selling of government securities by central bank to public and banks. This is done to influence money supply in the country. Sale of government securities to commercial bank means flow of money into central bank which reduces cash reserves. Consequently, credit availability of commercial banks is controlled.

On the other hand, if R.B.I purchases government securities, it will increase the money supply with commercial banks that will increase their lending capacity and flow of money into the economy,

Question 27.
What is government budget ? Explain how taxes and subsidies can be used to influence allocation of resources. [6]
Answer:
A government budget is an annual financial statement of estimated revenue and estimated expenditure during a financial year. Government budget is a statement of its income and expenditure.

Through budgetary policy, government aims to allocate resources in accordance with economic (profit maximisation) and social (public welfare) priorities of the country.
To encourage investments, government can give tax concessions, subsidies, etc. to the producers. For example : government discourages the production of harmful consumption goods like liquor or cigarettes, etc. through levying heavy taxes and encourages the use and production of “khaadi” products by providing subsidies. Government budget can be used to bring price stability or economic stability in the economy :

Government can bring price/economic stability i.e., control fluctuations in the general price level through taxes, subsidies and expenditure. For instance, when there is inflation (continuous rise in price), government can reduce its own expenditure. When there is depression, government can reduce taxes and grant subsidies to encourage spending by the people.

Question 28.
Given Consumption curve, derive saving curve and state the steps taken in the process of derivation. Use diagram. [6]
Answer:
Consumption + saving is always equal to income because income is either consumed or saved. It implies that consumption and saving curves representing consumption and saving functions are complementary curves.

In part A, CC curve shows consumption function whereas 45° line represents income. C curve intersects 45° line at point B at which BR = OR i.e., consumption = income. Point B is the break even point showing zero saving. It states that saving curve must intersect X-axis at the same income level where consumption curve and 45° line intersects. Left of point B is negative saving and to the right of point B is positive saving.

In part B, we derive saving function in the form of saving curve. In part A , the amount of saving is the vertical distance between C curve and 45°line. By plotting, the vertical distances of saving/dissaving and by joining them, we derive a saving curve. In part A the vertical distance OC (dissaving) is plotted as OS₁ below X-axis in part-B. At OR level of income in Part A, vertical distance at point B is shown as point B₁ on X-axis in lower part of figure is nil. LM of part A is shown as L₁M₁ in part -B. By joining points S, B₁ and L₁ in lower segment, we get saving curve. Thus saving curve is derived from consumption curve.


Question 29.
(a) In which sub-account and on which side of balance of payments account will foreign investments in India be recorded ? Give reasons.
(b) What will be the effect of foreign investment in India on exchange rate? Explain. [6]
Answer:
(a) Foreign investments in India will be recorded in the capital account on the credit side of Balance of Payments accounts. It is recorded as the positive item in the capital account of BOP because foreign investments is an inflow of foreign currency into our country and give rise to foreign exchange liabilities.

(b) Foreign investment in India will increase the supply of foreign currency in our country. This increase in supply is reflected as shift in the supply curve. With the shift, new equilibrium point is established, where exchange rate falls and thus the demand and supply of foreign currency rises and exchange rate falls. This will continue till the equilibrium is reached.

As can be seen in the above diagram that the supply curve of foreign exchange is SS. As the foreign investment in India increases, the supply curve of foreign exchange shifts to rightward and now the new supply curve is S’S’. This shift in supply curve from SS to S’S’ changes the equilibrium from E to E₁ where the exchange rate falls from OR to OR₁ and demand and supply quantity of foreign exchange rises from OQ to OQ₁. Hence the new equilibrium gets established at OR₁ exchange rate and OQ₁ quantity of foreign exchange.

Question 30.
Find national income and (private income**): [6]


Answer:
NNP_fc = NNP_fc = Wages and salaries + Social security contributions by employers + Rent + interest + profit + royalty – Net factor income paid to abroad.
NNP_fc = 1000 + 100 + 200 + 300 + 400 + 50 – 10
= 2050 – 10
= ₹ 2040 crores

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2016 Delhi Set – II

Section – A

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 4.
When does ‘increase” in supply take place ? [1]
Answer:
When supply of a commodity rises due to change in factors other than the price, it is called increase in supply. Increase in supply is the rightward shift of the supply curve.

Question 5.
What is the relation between marginal cost and average cost when average cost is constant? [1]
Answer:
Relation between marginal cost and average cost when average cost is constant is, marginal cost is also constant because at this point MC curve cuts the AC curve which implies that MC = AC, and AC curve is at its minimum point.

Question 7.
A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y. If marginal utilities of X and Y are 4 and 5 respectively, and if price of X is ₹ 5 per unit and that of Y is ₹ 4 per unit, is the consumer in equilibrium? What will be further reaction of the consumer? Explain. [3]
Answer:
Marginal utility of X = 4
Price of X = ₹ 5
Marginal utility of Y = 5
Price of Y = ₹ 4
MUx ÷ Px = 4 ÷ 5 = 0.8
MUy ÷ Py = 5 ÷ 4 = 1.25
The ratio of MUy to the price of Y is greater than the ratio of MUx to the price of X, so the consumer is not at equilibrium and to reach equilibrium level, consumer should increase the consumption of good Y and decrease the consumption of good X.

Question 9.
Price elasticity of supply of a good is 2. A producer supplies 100 units of a good at a price of ₹ 20 per unit. At what price will he supply 80 units. [4]
Answer:
Elasticity of supply (Es) = 2
Quantity supplied (Q) = 100 units
Price (P) = ₹ 20/unit
New quantity (Q₁) = 80 units
New price (P₁) = ?
Change in quantity supplied
(ΔQ) = Q₁ – Q
= 80 – 100
= -20 units.
Es = (ΔQ ÷ AP) × (P ÷ Q)
2 = (-20 ÷ ΔP) × (20 ÷ 100) 2
= (-20/(-ΔP) × (1/5)
(-ΔP is taken because prices are fallen, supply is falling)
2 = (-4/ (-ΔP))
2ΔP = -4
-ΔP = -4/2
-ΔP = -2
ΔP = 2
ΔP = (P – Pl)
2 = (20 – PI)
PI = 20 – 2 = ₹ 18
Hence, the seller will supply 80 units at ₹ 18 per unit.

Question 10.
Explain the effects of change in income on demand for a good. [4]
Answer:
Effects of change in income on demand for a good: Relationship between income and demand is direct in case of normal good but negative in case of inferior good.
(a) In case of normal good, an increase in income of the buyer will increase the demand at the same price because he can afford to buy more and shift the demand curve to the right but fall in the income will decrease the demand and shift the demand curve to the left.

(b) In case of an inferior good , an increase in income usually leads to decrease in demand at the same price and shift the demand curve to the left but decrease in income leads to increase in demand at the same price and shifts the demand curve to the right.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2016 Delhi Set – III

Section – A

Question 3.
What is the relation between Marginal Cost and Average Cost when average cost is rising? [1]
Answer:
When AC is rising, MC rises at a faster rate and MC remains above AC curve.

Question 5.
When does ‘Decrease’ in supply take place?           [1]
Answer:
Decrease in supply refers to the fall in the supply due to unfavourable changes in the determinants other than price of a good. Graphically, decrease in supply is indicated by a leftward upward shift of the supply curve.

Question 8.
A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y. Marginal utility of each is 2. The price per unit of X and Y is ₹ 1 and ₹ 2 respectively. Is the consumer in equilibrium? What will be the further reaction of the consumer? Explain. [1]
Answer:
According to the utility approach, a consumer reaches equilibrium where the following equality is met.

According to the given question :

Thus, a consumer is not in equilibrium. In order to reach the equilibrium, a rational consumer would increase the consumption of good X and decrease that of good Y.

Question 10.
When price of good rises from ₹ 12 per unit to ₹ 15 per unit the producer supplies 50 percent more output. What is the price elasticity of supply? Calculate. [4]
Answer:
Given,
Percentage change in quantity supplied is 50%
P = ₹ 12, P₁ = ₹ 15 and E_s = ?
ΔP = PI – P
= 15 – 12
= 3
Percantage change in Price = × 100

Question 11.
Explain the effect of (a) change in own price and (b) change in price of substitute on demand of a good. [4]
Answer:
Effect on demand of good if :
(a) Change in own Price : Other things remaining constant, as the price of the goods rises, the quantity demanded of the goods falls, on the other hand as the price of the goods falls, the quantity demanded or the goods rises. Thus price of the goods and its quantity demanded shares a negative relationship.

(b) Change in price of Substitute Goods : In case of substitute goods, if the price of one good increases, the consumer will shift his demand to other substitute good i.e., rise in the price of one good results in a rise in the demand for the other goods.

Section – B

Question 20.
What is revenue deficit in government budget ? [1]
Answer:
Revenue deficit refers to the excess of revenue. Expenditure over revenue receipts. Revenue deficit implies that the government is not able to cover its revenue expenditure by its revenue receipt. In other words, the consumption and administrative expenditure of the government is greater than its tax and non-tax receipts.
Algebraically it is depicted as
Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts.

Question 22.
In an economy an increase in investment by ₹ 100 crore led to ‘increase’ in national income by ₹ 1,000 crore. Find marginal propensity to consume. [3]
Answer:
Given,
ΔI = ₹ 100 crore
ΔY = ₹ 1,000 crore
MPC = ?

Question 23.
Find gross value added at market price : [3]

Answer:
Value of output = Sales – Net Change in stock
= (Domestic Sales + Exports) + Net change in Stock
= (200 + 10) + (- 10)
= ₹ 200 lakh
Gross value added at market price = Value of output – Intermediate Consumption
= 200 -120
= ₹ 80 lakh.

Question 25.
Explain how ‘margin requirements’ are helpful in controlling credit creation? [4]
Answer:
The Commercial Banks function to grant loan depends upon the value of security being mortgaged by the borrower so banks keep a margin, which is the difference between the market value of security and loan value. Raising the marginal requirement reduces the maximum amount a borrower can borrow from the Commercial Banks. In this way margin requirements helps in controlling credit creation.

For example, a Commercial Bank grants loan of ₹ 80,000 against the security of ₹ 1,00,000. So margin is calculated as ₹ 1,00,000 – ₹ 80,000 = ₹ 20,000. When the Central Bank decides to control the flow of credit, then margin require-ment of loan is raised.

Question 29.
Find net national product at market price and personal disposable income:

Answer:
NDP_fc = Wages and salaries + Social security contribution by employers + Rent + Interest + Profit
= 1,200 + 250 + 300 + 400 + 500
= ₹ 2,650 crores.
NNP_mp = NDP_fc – Net factor income to abroad + Net indirect tax
= 2,650 – 20 + 300
= ₹ 2,930 crores.
Personal disposable income = Private income – Corporation tax – Undistributed Profit – Personal taxes
– 2,000 – 200 – 50 – 200 = 1,550 crores

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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सुभाषितानि संस्कृतभाषायाः रत्नानि सन्ति। ‘सुष्ठु भाषितम्’ इति सुभाषितम्। लघुकलेवराणि अपि एतानि सुभाषितानि भावदृष्ट्या महान्तम् अर्थम् उद्वहन्ति। व्यावहारिके जीवने एतेषां सुवचनानां विशिष्टं महत्त्वम् अस्ति। नैराश्ये एतानि प्रेरकानि वचनानि प्रेरणारूपेण कार्य कुर्वन्ति। लोकाचारं व्यवहारज्ञानं च प्रदाय जीवनपथं परिष्कुर्वन्ति। जीवनस्य पथि एतानि पाथेयमिव अस्माकं हितं रचयन्ति।

पाठे सङ्कलितानां सुभाषितानां सन्दर्भग्रन्थाः

सारांशः
ज्ञातिभिः सह प्रीतिभोजनम्, स्नेहवार्तालापः, परस्परं प्रीतिः च कार्याणि, न च कदापि विरोधः करणीयः। चक्षुषा मनसा वचसा कर्मणा लोकं प्रसादयेत्। आशा येषां दासी, लोकः तेषां दासवत् आचरति। अव्यवस्थित-चित्तानाम प्रसादः अपि भयङ्करः। मित्रम् प्रति अविचार्य प्रियं करणीयम्। अज्ञः अल्पारम्भः व्यग्रः तिष्ठति परं कृतधियः महारम्भाः निराकुलाः तिष्ठन्ति। यः पठनं, लेखन, दर्शनं, पृच्छनम्, पण्डिताश्रयं च करोति तस्य बुद्धिः विकासम् प्राप्नोति। कर्मणा मनसा गिरा सर्वप्राणिषु अनुग्रहः दानं च प्रशस्यते।

हिन्दीभाषायां पाठपरिचयः
प्रस्तुत पाठ में श्लोक विदुरनीति, कवितामृतकूप, वैद्यकीय सुभाषितम्, सुभाषितरत्नभाण्डागारम्, मनुस्मृति तथा शिशुपालवध म् पाठ से लिए गए हैं।

सारांशः
संबंधियों के साथ प्रीतिभोज, प्रेमपूर्वक वार्तालाप तथा व्यवहार करना चाहिए, उनसे कभी विरोध नहीं करना चाहिए। चक्षु, मन, वाणी तथा कर्म चार प्रकार से लोगों को प्रसन्न करना चाहिए। आशा जिनकी दासी होती है लोग उनके दास बनकर व्यवहार करते हैं। अव्यवस्थित चित्त वालों की प्रसन्नता भी भयंकर होती है। मित्र का बिना विचारे ही प्रिय करना चाहिए। मूर्ख अल्पारम्भ से ही घबरा जाते हैं। महारथ वाले बुद्धिमान् सदा निश्चिन्त रहते हैं। जो पढ़ता है, लिखता है, देखता है, पूछता रहता है तथा पण्डितों की सेवा करता है उसकी बुद्धि विकसित होती है। सब प्राणियों के प्रति कर्म से, मन से तथा वाणी से अद्रोह, अनुग्रह तथा दान का भाव प्रशस्त माना जाता है।

सुभाषित संस्कृत भाषा का रत्न है। सुष्ठु भाषित को ही सुभाषित कहते हैं। छोटे आकार वाले भी ये सुभाषित भाव-दृष्टि से बड़े गंभीर तथा महत्त्वपूर्ण हैं। व्यावहारिक जीवन में इन सुवचनों का विशेष महत्त्व है। निराशा के समय ये प्रेरक वचन नीति का काम करते हैं, लोकाचार तथा व्यावहारिक ज्ञान देकर जीवन के मार्ग को परिष्कृत करते हैं तथा जीवन के मार्ग में ये नीतिवचन हमारे लिए पाथेय का कार्य करते हैं।

क. मूलपाठः, अन्वयः, शब्दार्थः, भावार्थः, सरलार्थश्च
1. सम्भोजनम् सङ्कथनं सम्प्रीतिश्च परस्परम्।
ज्ञातिभिः सह कार्याणि न विरोधः कदाचन॥1॥ (विदुरनीतिः)
शब्दार्थाः – ज्ञातिभिः – परिजनैः, सम्बन्धिभिः (रिश्तेदारों से । संभोजनम् – सहभोजनम् (प्रीतिभोज)। सङ्कथनम् – प्रेमणा वार्तालापः (प्रेमपूर्वक वार्तालाप)। सम्प्रीतिः – प्रेममयः व्यवहारः (स्नेहपूर्ण व्यवहार)।
सरलार्थ – सम्बन्धियों के साथ प्रीतिभोज, सम्यक् वार्तालाप तथा प्रेमपूर्वक व्यवहार करना चाहिए। उनके प्रति कभी द्वेष भाव नहीं रखना चाहिए।

2. चक्षुषा मनसा वाचा कर्मणा च चतुर्विधम्।
प्रसादयति यो लोकं तं लोकाऽनुप्रसीदति॥2॥ (विदुरनीति:)
शब्दार्थाः – चक्षुषा – नेत्रेण (आँख से)। प्रसादयति – प्रसन्नं करोति (प्रसन्न करता है)। अनुप्रसीदति – तदनुसृत्य प्रसन्नो भवति (वैसा ही प्रसन्न होता है)।
सरलार्थ – जो मनुष्य आँखों से, मन से, वचन से तथा कर्म से, चार प्रकार से लोगों को प्रसन्न रखता है, लोग भी उसको उसी तरह (अर्थात् चार प्रकार से) प्रसन्न रखते हैं।

3. आशायाः ये दासास्ते दासाः सर्वलोकस्य।
आशा येषां दासी तेषां दासायते लोकः॥3॥ (कवितामृतकूपः)
शब्दार्थाः – आशायाः – कामनायाः (इच्छा के)। दासाः – सेवकाः (नौकर, गुलाम)। सर्वलोकस्य – सर्वेषां लोकानाम् (सब लोगों के)। दासी – सेविका (नौकरानी)। दासायते – दासवत् भवति (दास के समान होता है)।
सरलार्थ – जो लोग आशा के दास होते हैं वे सब लोगों के दास होते हैं। किन्तु आशा जिनकी दासी होती है, लोग उनके दास बनकर आचरण करते हैं।

4. क्षणे रुष्टाः क्षणे तुष्टा, रुष्टास्तुष्टा क्षणे क्षणे।
अव्यवस्थितचित्तानां प्रसादोऽपि भयङ्करः॥4॥ (अज्ञातः)
शब्दार्थाः – रुष्टाः – क्षुब्धाः (नाराज़)। तुष्टाः – प्रसन्नाः (सन्तुष्ट)। अव्यवस्थितचित्तानाम् – अस्थिरमनसाम् (जिनके मन स्थिर नहीं, उनका)। प्रसादः- अनुग्रहः (प्रसन्नता, कृपा)।
सरलार्थ – जो लोग क्षण में क्षुब्ध तथा क्षण में प्रसन्न होते हैं तथा इस प्रकार क्षण-क्षण में क्षुब्ध तथा प्रसन्न होते रहते हैं, ऐसे अव्यवस्थित मन वाले लोगों की प्रसन्नता भी भयंकर होती है।

5. यथा भूमिः तथा तोयं, यथा बीजं तथाङ्करः।
यथा देशः तथा भाषा, यथा राजा तथा प्रजा॥5॥ (वैद्यकीय-सुभाषितम्)
शब्दार्थाः – तोयम्- जलम् (पानी)। तथाङ्करः- तथा। अङ्करः – बीजस्य विस्फोटः (वैसा ही अंकुर)।
सरलार्थ – जैसी भूमि होती है, वैसा ही पानी का स्वाद होता है। जैसा बीज होता है, वैसा ही अंकुर होता है। जैसा देश होता है, वहाँ के रहने वालों की वैसी भाषा होती है। जैसा राजा होता है, प्रजा भी वैसी ही होती है।

6. कराविव शरीरस्य नेत्रयोरिव पक्ष्मणी।
अविचार्य प्रियं कुर्यात्तन्मित्रं मित्रमुच्यते॥6॥ (सुभाषितरत्नभाण्डागारम्)
शब्दार्थाः – करौ- हस्तौ (दोनों हाथ)। पक्ष्मणी- नेत्रयोः पक्ष्मणी (दोनों आँखों की पलकें)। नेत्रयोः- नयनयोः (दोनों आँखों का)। अविचार्य- न विचार्य (बिना विचारे)। प्रियं- प्रियकार्य (हित)। कुर्यात्- करोति (करता है)। उच्यतेकथ्यते (कहा जाता है)।
सरलार्थ – जैसे दोनों हाथ शरीर का बिना विचारे हित करते हैं, दोनों पलकें आँखों का बिना विचारे ध्यान रखती हैं, वैसे ही जो मित्र, मित्र का बिना विचारे प्रिय करता है वही मित्र (वास्तव में) मित्र होता है।

7. आरभन्तेऽल्पमेवाज्ञाः कामं, व्यग्राः भवन्ति च।
महारम्भाः कृतधियस्तिष्ठन्ति च निराकुलाः॥7॥ (मनुस्मृतिः)
शब्दार्थाः – अज्ञाः – मूर्खाः (मूर्ख)। अल्पम्- लघु (थोड़ा)। आरभन्ते- प्रारम्भं कुर्वन्ति (शुरू करते हैं)। व्यग्राःचिन्तिताः (चिन्तित, व्याकुल)। कृतधियः- बुद्धिमन्तः (बुद्धिमान्)। निराकुला:- अनुद्विग्नाः (शान्तचित्त, व्याकुल न होने वाले)। महारम्भाः – अतीव उद्योगं कुर्वन्तः (अधिक उद्योग करने वाले)।
सरलार्थ – मूर्ख लोग किसी लघु काम को भी आरम्भ करते हैं तो अधिक चिन्तित हो जाते हैं पर बुद्धिमान् महान् कार्य को आरम्भ करके भी चिन्तित नहीं होते, वे शान्तचित्त रहते हैं।

8. यः पठति लिखति पश्यति, परिपृच्छति पण्डितानुपाश्रयति।
तस्य दिवाकरकिरणैः नलिनीदलमिव विकास्यते बुद्धिः॥8॥ (शिशुपालवधम्)
शब्दार्थाः – परिपृच्छति- प्रतिप्रश्नं करोति (प्रतिप्रश्नं करता है)। उपाश्रयति- समीपं तिष्ठति, सेवते (सेवा करता है, समीप बैठता है)। दिवाकरकिरणैः- सूर्यस्य किरणैः (सूर्य की किरणों से)। नलिनीदलम् इव- कमलिनी-पत्रम् इव (कमलिनी के पत्ते के समान)। विकास्यते- विकास नीयते (विकसित की जाती है)।
सरलार्थ – जो व्यक्ति पढ़ता, लिखता, देखता, बार-बार पूछता रहता है तथा पण्डितों (बुद्धिमानों) के पास बैठता है, इन क्रियाओं से उसकी बुद्धि वैसे ही विकास को प्राप्त होती है, जैसे सूर्य की किरणों के द्वारा कमल के पुष्प की पंखुड़ियों तथा पत्तों का विकास होता है। .

9. अद्रोहः सर्वभूतेषु कर्मणा मनसा गिरा।
अनुग्रहश्च दानञ्च शीलमेतत् प्रशस्यते॥9॥ (सुभाषितरत्नाभाण्डागारम्)
शब्दार्थाः – अद्रोहः- अद्वेष (द्वेष न करना)। अनुग्रह:- कृपा (दया)। शीलम्- सद्व्यवहारः (सच्चरित्र)। प्रशस्यते- प्रशंसनीयः भवति (प्रशस्त होता है)।
सरलार्थ – मन, वचन, कर्म से सब प्राणियों के प्रति द्वेष न करना, अनुग्रह तथा दान देना ऐसा शील प्रशंसा योग्य होता है।

ख. अनुप्रयोगस्य-प्रश्नोत्तराणि

1. क. निम्नलिखितानां पदानां उच्चारणम् कुरुत (निम्नलिखित पदों का उच्चारण कीजिए) –
सम्प्रीतिश्च, लोकोऽनुप्रसीदति, रुष्टास्तुष्टाः, नेत्रयोरिव, कराविव, कुर्यात्तन्मित्रम्, कृतधियस्तिष्ठन्ति।
(ख) अधोलिखितानां अनुलेखनम् कुरुत (उपर्युक्त पदों को फिर से लिखिए) –
सम्प्रीतिश्च, लोकोऽनुप्रसीदति, रुष्टास्तुष्टाः, नेत्रयोरिव, कराविव, कुर्यात्तन्मित्रम्, कृतधियस्तिष्ठन्ति।

2. (अ) अधोलिखितुषु पदेषु तालव्यवर्णानाम् चयनं कुरुत (निम्नलिखित पदों में तालव्यवर्ण चुनकर लिखिए)
o
उत्तरः
(क) च्
(ख) श् य्
(ग) श् य् इ
(घ) च् इ
(ङ) ज्।

2. (ब) निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत (निर्देश के अनुसार उत्तर दीजिए) –
(क) ‘रुष्टः’ इति पदे कः वर्णः ओष्ठ्यः ?
(ख) ‘तुष्टः’ इति पदे कः वर्णः दन्त्यः?
(ग) “किरणैः’ इति पदे कः वर्णः कण्ठतालव्यः?
(घ) ‘अविचार्य’ इति पदे कः वर्णः दन्तोष्ठ्यः ?
(ङ) ‘भाषा’ इति पदे कः वर्णः मूर्धन्यः?
उत्तरः
(क) उ
(ख) त्
(ग) ऐ
(घ) व्
(ङ) ष्

3. (अ) उदाहरणम् अनुसृत्य अधोलिखितानां पदानां समासं कुरुत (उदाहरण के अनुसार निम्नलिखित पदों का
समास कीजिए) –
यथा न धर्मः – अधर्मः
न अभ्यासः – अनभ्यासः
(क) न विचार्य …………………..
(ख) न द्रोहः …………………..
(ग) न ज्ञः (जानाति इति) …………………..
(घ) न जीर्णः …………………..
(ङ) न उचितम् …………………..
उत्तरः
(क) अविचार्य
(ख) अद्रोहः
(ग) अज्ञः
(घ) अजीर्णः
(ङ) अनुचितम्।

3. (ब) अधोलिखिततालिकायां रिक्तस्थानपूर्ति कुरुत (निम्नलिखित तालिका में रिक्त स्थान भरिए)
(क) दानम् + च = …………………..
(ख) रुष्टाः + तुष्टाः = …………………..
(ग) प्रीतिः + ………………….. = प्रीतिश्च
(घ) ……………… + इव = नेत्रयोरिव
(ङ) ……………… + च = अनुग्रहश्च
(च) करौ + इव = ………………..
(छ) प्रसादः + अपि = ………………….
उत्तरः
(क) दानञ्च
(ख) रुष्टास्तुष्टाः
(ग) च
(घ) नेत्रयोः
(ङ) अनुग्रहः
(च) कराविव
(छ) प्रसादोऽपि।

4. पदानां समानार्थकानि पदानि पाठात् चित्वा लिखत (पदों के समानार्थक पद पाठ से चुनकर लिखिए) –
(क) सहभोजनम् ………………………..
(ख) सम्बन्धिभिः ………………………..
(ग) जलम् ………………………..
(घ) संसारः ………………………..
(ङ) वाचा ………………………..
(च) अनुग्रहः ………………………..
(छ) हस्तौ ………………………..
(ज) परितृप्तः ………………………..
उत्तरः
(क) सम्भोजनम्
(ख) ज्ञातिभिः
(ग) तोयम्
(घ) लोकः
(ङ) गिरा
(च) प्रसादः
(छ) करौ
(ज) तुष्टः।

5. ‘यथा’ ‘तथा’ इति अव्यययोः प्रयोगः सह एव भवति।
उदाहरण- यथा गुरवे रोचते शिष्यः तथा करोति।
एवमेव अधोलिखितानि वाक्यानि पूरयत –
(क) …………….. भूमिः …………….. जलम्।
(ख) ………………….. बीजम् ………………… अङ्करः।
(ग) …………….. देशः ………………….. भाषा।
(घ) …………………. राजा ……………… प्रजा।
(ङ) …………………. करौ शरीरं रक्षतः पक्ष्मणी च नेत्रयोः रक्षां कुरुतः ………….. एव सन्मित्रम् मित्रस्य हितं करोति।
(च) ……………… सूर्यकिरणाः कमलिनीपत्रं विकासयन्ति ………………… विद्यायाः अभ्यासः बुद्धः विकासं करोति।
उत्तरः
(क) यथा, तथा
(ख) यथा, तथा
(ग) यथा, तथा
(घ) यथा, तथा
(ङ) यथा, तथा
(च) यथा, तथा।

6. अधोलिखितान् प्रश्नान् संस्कृतभाषया उत्तरत (निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के संस्कृत भाषा में उत्तर दीजिए) –
(क) कैः सह विरोध: न कर्तव्यः?
(ख) लोकः केभ्यः दासवत् आचरति?
(ग) केषां कृपा अपि भयम् उत्पादयति?
(घ) संसारः कं नरम् अनुप्रसीदति?
(ङ) शीलं किं कथ्यते?
(च) कस्य बुद्धिः विकसिता भवति?
(छ) महत्कार्यं कुर्वन्तः अपि के व्याकुलाः न भवन्ति?
उत्तरः
(क) ज्ञातिभिः सह विरोधः न कर्तव्यः।
(ख) लोकः तेभ्यः दासवत् आचरति ये आशायाः दासाः सन्ति।
(ग) अव्यवस्थितचित्तानां कृपा अपि भयम् उत्पादयति।
(घ) संसारः तं नरम् अनुप्रसीदति यः चक्षुषा, मनसा, वाचा कर्मणा च चतुर्विधं लोकं प्रसीदति।
(ङ) कर्मणा, मनसा, गिरा सर्वभूतेषु अद्रोहः, अनुग्रहः दानं च शीलं कथ्यते।
(च) यः पठति, लिखति, पश्यति, परिपृच्छति, पण्डितान्, उपाश्रयति तस्य बुद्धिः विकसिता भवति।
(छ) महत्कार्य कुर्वन्तः अपि कृतधियः व्याकुलाः न भवन्ति।

7. अधोलिखितभावानां समक्षं पाठात् चित्वा समुचितं श्लोकं पंक्तिम् वा लिखत (निम्नलिखित भावों के सामने पाठ से चुनकर समुचित श्लोक या पंक्ति लिखिए) –
(क) बुद्धिमन्तः महद् अपि कार्यम् आरभ्य कदापि व्याकुलाः न भवन्ति।
………………………………………………………………
(ख) यादृशी भूमिः भवति जलस्य आस्वादः अपि तादृशः एव भवति।
………………………………………………………………
(ग) अस्थिरचित्ताः जनाः अतिशीघ्रम् प्रसन्नाः अप्रसन्नाः वा भवन्ति। अतः तेषाम् अनुग्रहः अपि विश्वसनीयः न भवति।
………………………………………………………………
(घ) बुद्धः सम्यक् विकासार्थं पठनं लेखनं परिप्रश्नः आदिभिः क्रियाविधिभिः अभ्यासः कर्तव्यः।
………………………………………………………………
(ङ) यस्य नरस्य नयनयोः प्रेमभावः, मनसि परहितचिन्तनम् वाचि माधुर्य, कर्मणि च प्रियं, हितं कर्तुम् तत्परता भवति सः एव लोके प्रशंसनीयः।
………………………………………………………………
उत्तरः
(क) महारम्भाः कृतधियस्तिष्ठन्ति च निराकुलाः।
(ख) यथा भूमिः तथा तोयम्।
(ग) अव्यवस्थितचित्तानां प्रसादोऽपि भयङ्करः।
(घ) यः पठति लिखति पश्यति परिपृच्छति पण्डितानुपाश्रयति।
तस्य दिवाकरकिरणैः नलिनीदलमिव विकास्यते बुद्धिः।।
(ङ) अद्रोहः सर्वभूतेषु कर्मणा मनसा गिरा।
अनुग्रहश्च दानञ्च शीलमेतत् प्रशस्यते।

8. श्लोकान् आधृत्य रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत (श्लोकों के आधार पर रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति कीजिए) –
(क) सम्बन्धिभिः सह कदापि ………………. न कर्त्तव्यः।
(ख) ………………. दासाः सर्वलोकस्य दासाः भवन्ति।
(ग) अस्थिरचित्तानाम् अनुग्रहः अपि ………………. जनयति।
(घ) ……………. कार्यम् आरभ्य व्याकुलाः भवन्ति।
(ङ) सर्वभूतेषु ………………. , अनुग्रहः ………………… च शीलं कथ्यते।
उत्तरः
(क) विरोधः,
(ख) आशायाः,
(ग) भयम्,
(घ) अज्ञाः,
(ङ) अद्रोहः, दान।

9. अधोलिखितानां सूक्तीनां समक्षं पाठात् चित्वा समुचितपङ्क्तिं लिखत (निम्नलिखित सूक्तियों के सामने पाठ से चुनकर समुचित पंक्ति को लिखिए) –
(क) सङ्गच्छध्वं संवदध्वं सं वो मनांसि जानताम्।
…………………………………………..
(ख) अङ्गीकृतं सुकृतिनः परिपालयन्ति।
…………………………………………..
(ग) देशमाख्याति भाषणम्।
…………………………………………..
(घ) राज्ञि धर्मिणि धर्मिष्ठाः, पापे पापाः समे समाः।
…………………………………………..
(ङ) अवशेन्द्रियचित्तानां हस्तिस्नानमिव क्रियाः।
…………………………………………..
उत्तरः
(क) सम्भोजनं सङ्ककथनं सम्प्रीतिश्च परस्परम् ज्ञातिभिश्च कार्याणि।
(ख) महारम्भाः कृतधियास्तिष्ठन्ति च निराकुलाः।
(ग) यथा देशः तथा भाषा।
(घ) यथा राजा तथा प्रजा।
(ङ) अव्यवस्थितचित्तानां प्रसादोऽपि भयङ्करः।

ग. पाठ-विकासः

समानान्तरसूक्तयः
(क) आशा नाम मनुष्याणां काचिदाश्चर्यशृङ्खला।
यया बद्धा प्रधावन्ति मुक्तास्तिष्ठन्ति पङ्गुवत्॥
भावार्थ:- आशा मनुष्यों की एक ऐसी आश्चर्यजनक जंजीर है जिसमें बँधकर मनुष्य दौड़ते रहते हैं तथा घुटकर लँगड़े जैसे हो जाते हैं। .

(ख) अवशेन्द्रियचित्तानां हस्तिस्नानमिव क्रिया।
दुर्भगाभरणप्रायो ज्ञानं भारः क्रिया विना॥
भावार्थ:- इन्द्रियों तथा मन के वश में न रहने वालों की क्रिया हाथी के स्नान के समान होती है। क्रिया के बिना ज्ञान कुरूप स्त्री के आभूषणों के समान भारस्वरूप होता है।

(ग) विनैः पुनः पुनः अपि प्रतिहन्यमानाः।
प्रारभ्य चोत्तमजना: न परित्यजन्ति।
भावार्थ:- विघ्नों से बार-बार आहत होकर भी उत्तम जन प्रारम्भ करके किसी काम को बीच में नहीं छोड़ते।

(घ) अङ्गीकृतं सुकृतिनः परिपालयन्ति।
भावार्थ:- पुण्यशाली स्वीकृत नियम का पूर्ण पालन करते हैं।

(ङ) न्याय्यात्पथः प्रविचलन्ति पदं न धीराः।
भावार्थ:- न्यायपथ से धीर कभी विचलित नहीं होते।

(च) समानी व आकूतिः समाना हृदयानि वः।
समानमस्तु वो मनो यथा वः सुसहासति॥ (ऋग्वेदः 10/191/4)
भावार्थ:- तुम्हारे अभिप्राय समान हों, हृदय समान हों, मन समान हों, जिससे तुम्हारी संगति शुभ हो।

(छ) क्षणमानन्दितामेति क्षणमेति विषादिताम्।
क्षणं सौम्यत्वमायाति सर्वस्मिन्नटवन्मनः॥ (योगवासिष्ठः 1/28/38)
भावार्थ:- मन नटवत् (नट के समान) क्षण में प्रसन्न हो जाता है, क्षण में दुःखी हो जाता है तथा क्षण में सबके प्रति सौम्य स्वभाव का होता है।

(ज) किमिवावसादकरमात्मवताम्। (किरातार्जुनीयम् 6/19)
भावार्थ:- मन को वश में रखने वालों के लिए क्या दुःखकारक है अर्थात् कुछ भी दुःखकारक नहीं है।

घ. पठितांश-अवबोधनम्

1. अधोलिखितं श्लोकं पठित्वा समुचितरूपेण प्रश्नान् उत्तरत।
(क) कराविव शरीरस्य नेत्रयोरिव पक्ष्मणी।
अविचार्य प्रियं कुर्यात्तन्मित्रं मित्रमुच्यते॥

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) करौ कस्य प्रियं कुरुतः?
(ii) पक्ष्मणी कयोः प्रियं कुरुतः?
(iii) मित्रं कस्य प्रियम् अविचार्य करोति?
(iv) सन्मित्रं मित्रस्य किं करोति?
उत्तरः
(i) शरीरस्य
(ii) नेत्रयोः
(iii) मित्रस्य
(iv) प्रियम्।

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत
सन्मित्रम् कः कथ्यते?
उत्तरः
सः सन्मित्रं कथ्यते यः मित्रस्य तथैव प्रियं करोति यथा करौ शरीरस्य अथवा पक्ष्मणी नेत्रयोः प्रियं
कुरुतः।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत
(i) श्लोके ‘उच्यते’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) प्रियम्
(ख) मित्रम्
(ग) अप्रियम्
(घ) नेत्रम्
उत्तरः
(ख) मित्रम्

(ii) ‘हस्तौ’ इति पदस्य कः पर्यायः श्लोके आगतः?
(क) करौ
(ख) कराविव
(ग) पक्ष्मणी
(घ) करः
उत्तरः
(क) करौ

(iii) श्लोके ‘रिपुः’ पदस्य कः विपर्ययः लिखितः?
(क) पक्ष्मणी
(ख) कराविव
(ग) करौ
(घ) मित्रम्
उत्तरः
(घ) मित्रम्

(iv) श्लोके ‘तत्’ पदं कस्मै प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) जनाय
(ख) ग्रहाय
(ग) मित्राय
(घ) प्रियाय
उत्तरः
(ग) मित्राय

(ख) यथा भूमिः तथा तोयं, यथा बीज तथाङ्करः।
यथा देशः तथा भाषा, यथा राजा तथा प्रजा॥
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) यादृशं बीजम् तादृशः कः भवति?
(ii) तोयं कस्याः सदृशं भवति?
(iii) राज्ञः सदृशी का कथिता?
(iv) यथा देशः तथा का भवति?
उत्तरः
(i) अङ्करः
(ii) भूमेः
(iii) प्रजा
(iv) भाषा।

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
प्रजा कस्य व्यवहारम् अनुसरति?
उत्तरः
प्रजा राज्ञः व्यवहारम् अनुसरति।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत –
(i) श्लोके ‘नृपः’ पदस्य कः विपर्ययः प्रयुक्तः?
(क) राजा
(ख) जनः
(ग) प्रजा
(घ) स्वामी
उत्तरः
(ग) प्रजा

(ii) ‘यथा देशः तथा भाषा’। अत्र अव्ययपदं किम्?
(क) देशः
(ख) भाषा
(ग) भाषाः
(घ) यथा-तथा
उत्तरः
(घ) यथा-तथा

(iii) जलस्य पर्यायवाचिपदं श्लोके किम् आगतम्?
(क) तोयम्
(ख) भूमिः
(ग) आपः
(घ) अङ्कुरः
उत्तरः
(क) तोयम्

(iv) ‘बीजम्’ इति पदस्य लिङ्गः कः?
(क) पुल्लिङ्गः
(ख) नपुंसकलिङ्गः
(ग) स्त्रीलिङ्गः
(घ) किमपि न
उत्तरः
(ख) नपुंसकलिङ्गः

(ग) चक्षुषा मनसा वाचा कर्मणा च चतुर्विधम्।
प्रसादयति यो लोकं तं लोकोऽनुप्रसीदति॥
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत
(i) प्रसादः कतिविधः भवति?
(ii) लोकः किं करोति?
(iii) श्रेष्ठं जनं कः अनुप्रसीदति?
(iv) श्लोके प्रसादस्य प्रथम साधनं किं वर्तते?
उत्तरः
(i) चतुर्विधः
(ii) अनुप्रसीदति
(iii) लोकः
(iv) चक्षुः

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत
लोकः कम् अनुप्रसीदति?
उत्तरः
लोकः तम् अनुप्रसीदति यः लोकं चतुर्विधम् प्रसादयति।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत –
(i) ‘संसारः’ इत्यस्य स्थाने किं पदं श्लोके प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) जगत्
(ख) जगतः
(ग) लोकः
(घ) लोकम्
उत्तरः
(ग) लोकः

(ii) ‘गिरा’ इत्यस्य स्थाने अत्र कः पर्यायः प्रयुक्तः?
(क) वाचा
(ख) मनसा
(ग) चक्षुषा
(घ) कर्मणा
उत्तरः
(क) वाचा

(iii) ‘यो लोकं’। अत्र ‘यः’ (यो)’ पदं कस्मै प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) लोकाय
(ख) जनाय
(ग) नेत्राय
(घ) कर्मणे
उत्तरः
(ख) जनाय

(iv) श्लोके ‘अनुप्रसीदति’ इति क्रियापदस्य कर्तृपदं किम्? .
(क) यः
(ख) लोकम्
(ग) तम्
(घ) लोकः
उत्तरः
(घ) लोकः

(घ) सम्भोजनम् सङ्कथनम् सम्प्रीतिश्च परस्परम्।
ज्ञाततिभिः सह कार्याणि न विरोधः कदाचन॥
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) कैः सह सम्भोजनम् करणीयम्?
(ii) ज्ञातिभिः सह क: न कर्तव्यः?
(iii) ज्ञातिभिः सह किं कर्तव्यम्?
(iv) परिजनैः सह कीदृशं कथनं कर्तव्यम्?
उत्तरः
(i) ज्ञातिभिः
(ii) विरोधः
(iii) सम्भोजनम्
(iv) सङ्कथनम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
सम्बन्धिभिः (ज्ञातिभिः) सह किं-किं कर्तव्यम्?
उत्तरः
सम्बन्धिभिः (ज्ञातिभिः) सह सम्भोजनम् सङ्कथनम् सम्प्रीतिश्च कर्तव्याः।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत –
(i) ‘मैत्री’ पदस्य कः विपर्ययः श्लोके आगतः?
(क) सङ्कथनम्
(ख) सम्भोजनम्
(ग) सम्प्रीतिः
(घ) विरोधः
उत्तरः
(घ) विरोधः

(ii) श्लोके ‘सम्भोजनम् सङ्ग्रथनं सम्प्रीतिश्च’ इति कर्तृपदस्य क्रियापदं किं प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) कदाचन
(ख) कार्याणि
(ग) विरोधः
(घ) परस्परम्
उत्तरः
(ख) कार्याणि

(iii) अत्र श्लोके ‘सार्धम्’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः प्रयुक्तः?
(क) सह
(ख) कदाचन
(ग) ज्ञातिभिः
(घ) परस्परम्
उत्तरः
(क) सह

(iv) अस्मिन श्लोके ‘प्रीतिभोजनम्’ इत्यस्य पदस्य अर्थे किं पदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) सम्प्रीतिः
(ख) सङ्कथनम्
(ग) सम्भोजनम्
(घ) परस्परम्
उत्तरः
(ग) सम्भोजनम्

(ङ) आशायाः ये दासास्ते दासाः सर्वलोकस्य।
आशा येषां दासी तेषां दासायते लोकः॥
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) जनाः कस्याः दासाः वर्तन्ते?
(ii) आशायाः दासाः कस्य दासाः भवन्ति?
(ii) सर्वलोकस्य दासाः के?
(iv) श्रेष्ठ जनानां दासी का भवति?
उत्तरः
(i) आशायाः
(ii) सर्वलोकस्य
(iii) आशादासाः
(iv) आशा

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
लोकः केषां दासायते?
उत्तरः
लोकः तेषां दासायते येषां दासी आशा भवति।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत –
(i) श्लोके ‘आशा’ इति विशेष्यस्य विशेषणपदं किम्?
(क) येषां
(ख) तेषां
(ग) दासी
(घ) लोकः
उत्तरः
(ग) दासी

(ii) ‘आशायाः ये दासाः’ अत्र ‘ये’ पदं केभ्यः प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) लोकेभ्यः
(ख) जनेभ्यः
(ग) आशाभ्यः
(घ) दासेभ्यः
(घ) दासायते
उत्तरः
(ख) जनेभ्यः

(iii) श्लोके ‘लोकः’ इति कर्तृपदस्य क्रियापदं किम्?
(क) दासास्ते
(ख) तेषां
(ग) सर्वलोकस्य
(घ) दासाः
उत्तरः
(घ) दासायते

(iv) ‘निराशा’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः विपर्ययः अत्र प्रयुक्तः?
(क) आशा
(ख) आशायाः
(ग) दासी
उत्तरः
(क) आशा

(च) क्षणे रुष्टाः क्षणे तुष्टाः, रुष्टास्तुष्टा क्षणे क्षणे।
अव्यवस्थितचित्तानां प्रसादोऽति भयङ्करः॥
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) के क्षणे रुष्टाः भवन्ति?
(ii) क्षणे-क्षणे अव्यवस्थितचित्ताः कीदृशाः भवन्ति?
(iii) के क्षणे तुष्टाः भवन्ति?
(iv) केषां प्रसाद: भयङ्करः भवति?
उत्तरः
(i) अव्यवस्थितचित्ताः
(ii) रुष्टास्तुष्टाः
(iii) अव्यवस्थितचित्ताः
(iv) अव्यवस्थितचित्तानाम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
अव्यवस्थितचित्तानां कः भयङ्करः भवति?
उत्तरः
अव्यवस्थितचित्तानां प्रसादोऽपि भयङ्करः भवति।

III. निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत –
(i) श्लोके ‘तुष्टाः’ पदस्य कः विपर्ययः प्रयुक्तः?
(क) नष्टाः
(ख) सन्तुष्टाः
(ग) असन्तुष्टाः
(घ) रुष्टाः
उत्तरः
(घ) रुष्टाः

(ii) ‘प्रसन्नता’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः अत्र श्लोके आगतः?
(क) भयङ्करः
(ख) प्रसादः
(ग) प्रसादोऽपि
(घ) तुष्टः
उत्तरः
(ख) प्रसादः

(iii) श्लोके ‘प्रसादः’ इति विशेष्यपदस्य किं विशेषणं प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) भयङ्करः
(ख) रुष्टः
(ग) तुष्टः
(घ) सन्तुष्टः
उत्तरः
(क) भयङ्करः

(iv) ‘प्रतिक्षणम्’ इत्यस्य समस्तपदस्य कः विग्रहः श्लोके आगतः?
(क) रुष्टाः
(ख) क्षणे क्षणे
(ग) क्षणे
(घ) तुष्टाः
उत्तरः
(ख) क्षणे क्षणे

(छ) आरभन्तेऽल्पमेवाज्ञाः कामं, व्यग्राः भवन्ति च।
महारम्भाः कृतधियस्तिष्ठन्ति च निराकुलाः॥
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) के निराकुलाः तिष्ठन्ति?
(ii) अज्ञाः कथं कार्यम् आरभन्ते?
(iii) के कामं व्यग्राः भवन्ति?
(iv) कृतधियः कीदृशाः भवन्ति?
उत्तरः
(i) कृतधियः
(ii) अल्पमेव
(iii) अज्ञाः
(iv) महारम्भाः

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
अज्ञाः कीदृशाः भवन्ति?
उत्तरः
अज्ञा: अल्पमेव कार्य प्रारभ्य कामं व्यग्राः भवन्ति।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत –
(i) श्लोके ‘आरभन्ते’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) अज्ञाः
(ख) अल्पमेव
(ग) कामम्
(घ) व्यग्राः
उत्तरः
(i) (क) अज्ञाः

(ii) ‘कृतधियः’ इति कर्तृपदस्य क्रियापदं किम्?
(क) निराकुलाः
(ख) तिष्ठन्ति
(ग) स्तिष्ठन्ति
(घ) महारम्भाः
उत्तरः
(ख) तिष्ठन्ति

(iii) श्लोके ‘अल्पम्’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः विपर्ययः आगतः?
(क) व्यग्राः
(ख) कृतधियः
(ग) एव
(घ) कामम्
उत्तरः
(घ) कामम्

(iv) ‘व्याकुलाः’ इति पदस्य कः पर्यायः अत्र लिखितः?
(क) अज्ञाः
(ख) अल्पमेव
(ग) व्यग्राः
(घ) महारम्भाः
उत्तरः
(ग) व्यग्राः

(ज) यः पठति लिखति पश्यति, परिपृच्छति पण्डितानुपाश्रयति।
तस्य दिवाकर किरणैः नलिनीदलमिव विकास्यते बुद्धिः॥
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) अत्र श्रेष्ठजनस्य कति गुणाः वर्णिता?
(ii) दिवाकर किरणैः किं विकस्यते?
(iii) श्रेष्ठजनः कान् उपाश्रयति?
(iv) श्रेष्ठकर्मभिः कस्याः विकासः भवति?
उत्तरः
(i) पञ्च
(ii) बुद्धिः
(iii) पण्डितान्
(iv) बुद्धेः

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
श्रेष्ठः जनः किं-किं करोति?
उत्तरः
श्रेष्ठः जनः पठति, लिखति, पश्यति, परिपृच्छति पण्डितान् उपाश्रयति।

III. निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत
(i) श्लोके ‘यः’ सर्वनाम पदं कस्मै प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) लोकाय
(ख) जनाय
(ग) देशाय
(घ) कुलाय
उत्तरः
(ख) जनाय

(ii) श्लोके ‘पठति’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) तस्य
(ख) बुद्धिः
(ग) यः
(घ) नलिनीदलम्
उत्तरः
(ग) यः

(iii) ‘सूर्य’ इति पदस्य कः पर्यायः श्लोके आगतः?
(क) दिवाकर
(ख) किरणैः
(ग) दिवाकर किरणैः
(घ) भानुः
उत्तरः
(क) दिवाकर

(iv) ‘मूर्खान्’ पदस्य कः विपर्ययः अत्र श्लोके लिखितः?
(क) दिवाकर किरणैः
(ख) पण्डितान्
(ग) उपाश्रयति
(घ) विज्ञान
उत्तरः
(ख) पण्डितान्

(झ) अद्रोहः सर्वभूतेषु कर्मणा मनसा गिरा।
अनुग्रहश्च दानश्च शीलमेतत् प्रशस्यते॥
I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) दानम् किं भवति?
(ii) केषु अद्रोहः कर्तव्यः?
(iii) द्वितीयं शीलं किम्?
(iv) अद्रोहः केन कर्तव्यः ?
उत्तरः
(i) शीलम्
(ii) सर्वभूतेषु
(iii) अनुग्रहः
(iv) कर्मणा

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
कीदृशं शीलं प्रशस्यते?
उत्तरः
सर्वभूतेषु कर्मणा-मनसा-गिरा अद्रोहः, अनुग्रहः दानम् च एतत् शीलं प्रशस्यते।

III. निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत –
(i) श्लोके ‘शीलम्’ इति कर्तृपदस्य क्रियापदं किम् प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) एतत्
(ख) अद्रोहः
(ग) प्रशस्यते
(घ) दानम्
उत्तरः
(ग) प्रशस्यते

(ii) ‘वाचा’ इत्यस्य पदस्य अर्थ किं पदं श्लोके प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) गिरा
(ख) कर्मणा
(ग) मनसा
(घ) अनुग्रहः
उत्तरः
(क) गिरा

(iii) ‘कृपणता’ श्लोके अस्य पदस्य कः विपर्ययः आगतः?
(क) दानम्
(ख) दानञ्च
(ग) अनुग्रहः
(घ) शीलम्
उत्तरः
(क) दानम्

(iv) ‘शीलमेतत्’ अनयोः पदयोः विशेषणपदं किम्?
(क) शीलम्
(ख) एतत्
(ग) शील
(घ) मेतत्
उत्तरः
(ख) एतत्

2. निम्नलिखितं श्लोकं पठित्वा तस्य भावपूर्ति मञ्जूषायाः समुचितैः पदैः करोतु भवान् –
(क) सम्भोजनम् सङ्कथनम् सम्प्रीतिश्च परस्परम्।
ज्ञातिभिः सह कार्याणि न विरोधः कदाचन॥
अस्य भावोऽस्ति- यत् अस्मिन् जगति सदैव (i) …………………. सह प्रीतिभोजनम्, सम्यक् (ii) ………………….प्रेममयः व्यवहारः च कुयुः। तैः सह (iii) ………………….परस्परं (iv) …………………. न कुर्यात्।
मञ्जूषा – वार्तालापः, कदापि, सम्बन्धिभिः, द्वेषम्
उत्तरः
(i) सम्बन्धिभिः
(ii) वार्तालापः
(iii) कदापि
(iv) द्वेषम्

(ख) चक्षुषा मनसा वाचा कर्मणा च चतुर्विधम्।
प्रसादयति यो लोकं तं लोकोऽनुप्रसीदति॥
अर्थात्यः –
(1) ………………… स्वनेत्राभ्याम्, मनसा (ii) ………………… स्वकार्येण च अनेन (ii) ……………….. जनान् प्रसन्नान् करोति। जनाः अपि तं (iv)…………………. दृष्ट्वा प्रसीदन्ति (प्रसन्नं कुर्वन्ति)।
मञ्जूषा – जनं, जनः, चतुः प्रकारेण, वचनेन
उत्तरः
(i) जनः
(ii) वचनेन
(iii) चतुः प्रकारेण
(iv) जनं

(ग) आशायाः ये दासास्ते दासाः सर्वलोकस्य।
आशा येषां दासी तेषां दासायते लोकः॥
अस्य भावोऽस्ति- अस्मिन् संसारे ये जनाः (i) …………………. दासाः भवन्ति ते जनाः सर्वेषाम् (ii) ……………….. दासाः भवन्ति। परं कामना (आशा) यस्य (iii) ………………… भवति। जनाः (लोकाः ) (iv) ……….. दासाः इव आचरणं कुर्वन्ति।
मञ्जूषा – तेषां, कामनायाः, दासी, लोकानाम् ।
उत्तरः
(i) कामनायाः
(ii) लोकानाम्
(iii) दासी
(iv) तेषां

(घ) क्षणे रुष्टाः क्षणे तुष्टाः रुष्टास्तुष्टा क्षणे क्षणे।
अव्यवस्थितचित्तानां प्रसादोऽपि भयङ्करः॥
भावार्थ: – अस्मिन् जगति ये जनाः क्षणे एव (i) …………………. क्षणे च (ii) ………………… एवमेव प्रतिक्षणं क्षुब्धाः प्रसन्नाः च भवन्ति। संसारे ईदृशाणाम् अस्थिर मनसां (iii) …………………. प्रसन्नता अपि (iv) …………….. भवति।
मञ्जूषा – जनानां, भयङ्करा, क्षुब्धाः, प्रसन्नाः
उत्तरः
(i) क्षुब्धाः
(ii) प्रसन्नाः
(iii) जनानां
(iv) भयङ्करा

(ङ) यथा भूमिः तथा तोयं, यथा बीजं तथाङ्कुरः।
यथा देशः तथा भाषा, यथा राजा तथा प्रजा॥ अस्य भावोऽस्ति यत् संसारे आधारस्य (i) …………… सर्वत्र दृश्यते। दृश्यते यत् यादृशी भूमिः भवति तस्याः अन्तः स्थितस्य (ii) …………….. स्वादः अपि तादृशः एव भवति। एवमेव यादृशं (iii) ………………. भवति तादृशम् एवम् अङ्कुरः अपि भवति, तथैव यादृशः देशों वर्तते तादृशी एव जनानां (iv) ………………. भवति। राज्ये यादृशः नृपः उपकारी अनुपकारी वा भवति तादृशी एव उत्तमा अनुत्तमा वा तस्य प्रजा अपि भवति।
मञ्जूषा – जलस्य, प्रभावः, भाषा, बीजम्
उत्तरः
(i) प्रभावः
(ii) जलस्य
(iii)बीजम्
(iv) भाषा

(च) कराविव शरीरस्य नेत्रयोरिव पक्ष्मणी।
अविचार्य प्रियं कुर्यात्तन्मित्रं मित्रमुच्यते॥ अर्थात्- यथा शरीरस्य रक्षा (प्रियं) (i) ……………. कुरुतः, नेत्रयो (ii) …………….. रक्षतः तथैव यः जनः (iii) ………………. प्रिय (हित) कार्यम् अविचार्य एव करोति तत् (iv) ………………. एव वास्तविक मित्रम् उच्यते (कथ्यते)।
मञ्जूषा – मित्रम्, मित्रस्य, पक्ष्मणी, हस्तौ
उत्तरः
(i) हस्तौ
(ii) पक्ष्मणी
(ii) मित्रस्य
(iv) मित्रम्

(छ) आरभन्तेऽल्पमेवाज्ञाः काम, व्यग्राः भवन्ति च।
महारम्भाः कृतधियस्तिष्ठन्ति च निराकुलाः॥
अस्य श्लोकस्य भावोऽस्ति- अस्मिन् संसारे इदं दृश्यते यत् मूर्खाः जनाः स्वल्पं विचिन्त्य एव (i) ……………. आरम्भणं कुर्वन्ति तथा विपत्तौ आगते सति अधिकाधिकं (ii) …………… भवन्ति। परं (iii) ………….. जनाः महताम् उद्योगानाम् (iv) …………. कृत्वा विपत्ते आगतौ सति अपि कदापि उद्विग्नाः न भवन्ति।
मञ्जूषा – चिन्तिताः, आरम्भणं, कार्यस्य, बुद्धिमन्तः |
उत्तरः
(i) कार्यस्य
(ii) चिन्तिताः
(iii) बुद्धिमन्तः
(iv) आरम्भणं

(ज) यः पठति लिखति पश्यति, परिपृच्छति पण्डितानुपाश्रयति।
तस्य दिवाकर किरणैः नलिनीदलमिव विकास्यते बुद्धिः॥
भावार्थ: – अस्य श्लोकस्य भावोऽयम् यत्-अस्मिन् संसारे यः जनः निरन्तरं सद्ग्रन्थान् (i) ………………….. तस्य लेखनं करोति तान् निरन्तरं पश्यति विद्वद्भिः सह (ii) ……………. करोति विदुषः च सेवते। एताभिः क्रियाभिः तस्य (iii) …………. तथैव विकासं प्राप्नोति यथा सूर्यस्य किरणैः (iv) ………………… विकासः भवति।
उत्तरः
(i) पठति
(ii) प्रतिप्रश्नान्
(iii) बुद्धिः
(iv) कमलपत्राणां

(झ) अद्रोहः सर्वभूतेषु कर्मणा मनसा गिरा।
अनुग्रहश्च दानञ्च शीलमेतत् प्रशस्यते॥
भावार्थः – अस्मिन् संसारे (i) …………….. स्व कर्मणा, मनसा (ii) ……………… द्वेषं न करणम् सर्वान् प्रति (ii) ……………… करणं तेभ्यश्च दानं करणम् एते त्रयः गुणाः जनानां (iv) ……………… शीलं भवन्ति।
मञ्जूषा – कृपां, प्रशंसनीयं, सर्वप्राणिषु, वाण्या
उत्तरः
(i) सर्वप्राणिषु
(ii) वाण्या
(iii) कृपां
(iv) प्रशंसनीयं

3. निम्नलिखितस्य सन्दर्भ ग्रन्थस्य लेखकस्य च नामनी लिखत
(i) ज्ञातिभिः सह कार्याणि न विरोधः कदाचन।
(ii) चक्षुषा मनसा वाचा कर्मणा च चतुर्विधम् प्रसादयति यो लोकं तं लोकोऽनुप्रसीदति।
(iii) आशायाः ये दासाः ते दासाः सर्वलोकस्य।
(iv) अव्यवस्थिचित्तानां प्रसादोऽपि भयङ्करः।
(v) यथा देशः तथा भाषा, यथा राजा तथा प्रजा।
(vi) अविचार्य प्रियं कुर्यात् तन्मित्रं मित्रम् उच्यते।
(vii) महारम्भाः कृतधियः तिष्ठन्ति च निराकलाः
(viii) यः पठति लिखति पश्यत् िपरिपृच्छति पण्डितानुपाश्रयति, तस्य दिवाकर किरणैः नलिनीदलम् इव विकास्यते बुद्धिः।
(ix) अनुग्रहश्च दानञ्च शीलम् एतत प्रशस्यते। उत्तरम्सन्दर्भग्रन्थः

4. निम्नश्लोकं पठित्वा तस्य अन्वयं रिक्त-स्थान-पूर्ति-माध्यमेन उचितैः पदैः सम्पूरयत –
(क) सम्भोजनं सङ्कथनं सम्प्रीतिश्च परस्परम्।
ज्ञातिभिः सह कार्याणि न विरोधः कदाचन।
अन्वयः – ज्ञातिभिः सह (i) …………… सङ्कथनम् (ii) …………… च कार्याणि। (iii) …………………. विरोधः (iv) …………………. न (कर्तव्यः )।
उत्तरः
(i) सम्भोजनम्
(ii) सम्प्रीति
(iii) परस्परं
(iv) कदाचन।

(ख) चक्षुषा मनसा वाचा कर्मणा च चतुर्विधम्।
प्रसादयति यो लोकं तं लोकोऽनुप्रसीदति॥
अन्वयः- यः (i) …………………. चक्षुषा मनसा (ii) …………… कर्मणा च (iii) …………… प्रसादयति (iv) …………… तम् अनुप्रसीदति।
उत्तरः
(i) लोकम्
(ii) वाचा
(iii) चतुर्विधम्
(iv) लोकः

(ग) आशायाः ये दासास्ते दासाः सर्वलोकस्य। आशा येषां दासी तेषां दासायते लोकः॥
अन्वयः – ये (जनाः) (i) ………………. दासाः (भवन्ति) ते (ii) ……………… दासाः (भवन्ति), आशा (iii) ……………… दासी (अस्ति) (iv) ……………. तेषां दासायते।
उत्तरः
(i) आशायाः
(ii) सर्वलोकस्य
(iii) येषाम्
(iv) लोकः

(घ) क्षणे रुष्टाः क्षणे तुष्टा, रुष्टास्तुष्टा क्षणे क्षणे।
अव्यवस्थितचित्तानां प्रसादोऽपि भयङ्करः॥
अन्वयः – ये (जनाः) (i) …………. रुष्टाः क्षणे तुष्टाः (ii) ……………… (च) रुष्टाः तुष्टाः (भवन्ति), (तेषाम्) (iii) …………… प्रसादः अपि (iv) …………… (भवति)।
उत्तरः
(i) क्षणे
(ii) क्षणे-क्षणे
(iii) अव्यवस्थितचित्तानां
(iv) भयङ्करः

(ङ) यथा भूमिः तथा तोयं, यथा बीजः तथाङ्कुरः।
यथा देशः तथा भाषा, तथा राजा तथा प्रजा॥
अन्वयः – यथा (i) ……………… तथा तोयम् यथा बीजम् तथा (ii) ……………… यथा (iii) ……………… तथा भाषा यथा (iv) ……………… तथा प्रजा (भवति)।
उत्तरः
(i) भूमिः
(ii) अङ्कुरः
(iii) देशः
(iv) राजा।

(च) कराविव शरीरस्य नेत्रयोरिव पक्ष्मणी।
अविचार्य प्रियं कुर्यात्तन्मित्रं मित्रमुच्यते॥
अन्वयः – (यत् मित्रम्) करौ (i) ……………… इव (ii) ……………… नेत्रयोः इव अविचार्य (मित्रस्य) (iii) …………… कुर्यात् तत् (iv) …………… मित्रम् उच्यते।
उत्तरः
(i) शरीरस्य
(ii) पक्ष्मणी
(iii) प्रियम्
(iv) मित्रम्।

(छ) आरभन्तेऽल्पमेवाज्ञाः कामं व्यग्राः भवन्ति च।
महारम्भाः कृतधियस्तिष्ठन्ति च निराकुलाः॥
अन्वयः – अज्ञाः (i) …………… एव आरभन्ते (ii) …………… व्यग्राः च भवन्ति, (iii) …………… महारम्भाः (iv) …………… च तिष्ठन्ति।
उत्तरः
(i) अल्पम्
(ii) कामम्
(iii) कृतधियः
(iv) निराकुलाः।

(ज) यः पठति लिखति पश्यति, परिपृच्छति पण्डितानुपाश्रयति।
तस्य दिवाकरकिरणैः नलिनीदलमिव विकास्यते बुद्धिः॥
अन्वयः – यः पठति (i) ……………. पश्यति, परिपृच्छति (i) …………… उपाश्रयति। (ii) …………… नलिनीदलम् इव तस्य (iv) …………… विकास्यते।
उत्तरः
(i) लिखति
(ii) पण्डितान्
(iii) दिवाकरकिरणैः
(iv) बुद्धिः ।

(झ) अद्रोहः सर्वभूतेषु कर्मणा मनसा गिरा।
अनुग्रहश्च दानञ्च शीलमेतत् प्रशस्यते॥
अन्वयः – सर्वभूतेषु (i) …………… मनसा (ii) …………… अद्रोहः अनुग्रहः च (ii) …………… च एतत् (iv) …………….. प्रशस्यते।
उत्तरः
(i) कर्मणा
(ii) गिरा
(iii) दानम्
(iv) शीलम्।

5. ‘क’ वर्गीय पदानां ‘ख’ वर्गीय पदैः सह अर्थमेलनं कृत्वा लिखत –

उत्तरः

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit Chapter 3 शीलम् एतत् प्रशस्यते appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2017 Outside Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:

• • The question paper contains 26 questions.
  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Question no. 1 to 11 carry 1 mark each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 10-20 words each.
  • Questions no. 12 to 19 carry 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 30-50 words each.
  • Questions no. 20 to 26 carry 5 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 75-100 words each.

** Answer is not given due to change in present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2017 Outside Delhi Set – I

Part – A

Question 1.
Identify any two strategies evolved by Brahmanas to enforce the norms of Varna Order from c. 600 BCE to 600 CE. [2]
Answer:
Two strategies evolved by the Brahmanas to enforce the norms of Varna order are :

• To assert that the Varna order was of divine origin.
• They advised kings to ensure that these norms were followed within their kingdoms.

Question 2.
Examine how the Amara-nayaka system was a political innovation of the Vijaynagar Empire ? [2]
Answer:
The Military Commanders of the Rayas of the Vijaynagar were known as Amara-nayakas They had to do the following works :

1. Amara-nayaka system was derived from the Iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate. Amara is believed to be derived from the Sanskrit word ‘Samara’ meaning batde or war.
2. They were entided to collect taxes and other dues from the peasants, traders and craftpersons. They had to pay tribute to the king once in a year.

Question 3.
“The relationship between India and Pakistan has been profoundly shaped by the legacy of partition.” Explain any two consequences of it. [2]
Answer:
The two consequences of it:

1. The Partition generated memories, hatreds, stereotypes and identities that still continue to shape the history of people on both sides of the border.
2. This hatred have manifested themselves during inter-community conflicts and communal clashes in turn have kept alive the memories of past violence.

Part – B

Question 4.
Describe the distinctive features of domestic architecture of Mohenjodaro. [4]
Answer:
The domestic architecture of Mohenjodaro had distinctive features :

1. The lower town of Mohenjodaro had an expansion of residential buildings. All these buildings had a courtyard.
2. The rooms were on all the sides of the courtyards.
3. In the hot and dry weather, the courtyards were the centre of activities like cooking and weaving.
4. While constructing residential buildings, the people had foil concern for privacy. These buildings did not have any window in the walls, along the ground level. Besides, the main entrance did not give a direct view of the interior or the courtyard.
5. Every house had its own bathroom as well. House drains first emptied into a sump or cesspit into which solid matter settled while waste water flowed out into the street drains.

Question 5.
Explain the language and content of Mahabharata. [4]
Answer:

1. Mahabharata is one of the major epics. It was originally written in Sanskrit. Today it is available in world’s leading languages.
2. There are versions in other languages as well i.e., Prakrit ,Pali, Tamil etc.
3. The content of the Mahabharata is broadly divided into two sections : narrative and didactic.
   • The ‘narrative section’ includes social messages.
   • Generally historians agree that Mahabharata was meant to be a dramatic, moving story and that the didactic portion was probably added later.
4. • The ‘didactic section’ contains prescriptions about social norms and stories.
   • Didactic refers to something that’s meant for purposes of instruction.

Question 6.
Examine the causes that made Al-Baruni visit India. [4]
Answer:
The causes that made Al-Baruni visit India are :

1. In 1017, Sultan Mahmud invaded Khwarizm and took Al-Baruni with other scholars as hostage to Ghazni.
2. Al-Baruni developed a liking for India and interest in Indian culture and literature. When Punjab became a part of the Ghaznavid Empire.
3. Al-Baruni was highly educated of his times.
4. He was well versed in Syrian, Arabic, Hebrews, and Persian.
5. He wanted to learn more of mathematics, astronomy and medicine.
6. Al-Baruni spent years learning Sanskrit and studying religious and philosophical text.
7. He visited India, contacted local people and learnt Indian philosophy too.

Question 7.
How do you think that the chronicles commissioned by the Mughal Emperors are an important source for studying Mughal history ? [4]
Answer:
(i) Chronicles commissioned by the Mughal Emperors are an important source to study the empire and its court. They were written in order to project a vision of an enlightened kingdom to all those who came under its umbrella. The authors of Mughal chronicles focused on events related to life of the rulers their family, the court and the nobles, wars and administrative systems.

(ii) These chronicles were written in Persian. This language flourished as a language of the court and of literary writings, alongside North Indian languages, especially Hindavi and its regional variants. The Mughals were Chagtai Turks by origin, Turkish was their mother tongue.

(iii) Rulers wanted to ensure that there was an account of their rule for posterity. The histories that the authors of Mughal chronicles wrote focused on events centered on the ruler, his family, the courts and nobles, wars and administrative arrangements,

(vi) Akbar Nama, ShahjahanNama, Alamgir Nama suggest that in the eyes of their authors the history of the empire and the court was synonymous with that of the emperor.

Question 8.
Examine the events that took place during 1920s and 1930s which consolidated the communal identities in the country. [4]
Answer:
The events that took place during 1920s and 1930s that further consolidated the communal identities in the country are as follows :

1. An important development came in 1906 with the formation of the All India Muslim League at Dhaka.
2. Muslims were angered by ‘Music— before-mosque’. The playing of music by a religious procession outside a mosque at the time of namas^ could lead to Hindu-Muslim violence.
3. The Congress won an absolute majority in five out of eleven provinces and formed governments in seven of them.
4. Hindus were angered by the rapid spread of ‘tabligh’ (Propaganda) and tanzim (Organization) after 1923.
5. Middle class publicists and communal activists sought to build greater solidarity within their communities, mobilising people against the other community.
6. Hindu Mahasabha defines Hindu identity in opposition to Muslim identity.
7. Separate Electorate 1909 for Muslims expanded in 1919, created temptations to use sectarian slogans and divided society.

Question 9.
Describe the different arguments made in favour of protection of depressed classes in the Constituent Assembly. [4]
Answer:

1. N. G. Ranga , a socialist leader argued that real minorities were the poor and down trodden. They needed protection, props and ladder through constitutional rights.
2. Some members of depressed castes emphasized that that problems of “untouchables “could not be resolved through protection and safeguard alone. Their disabilities were caused by the social norms and moral values of caste society.
3. Society had used their services and labour but kept them at a social distance such as refusing them to enter into temples and mix or dine with them.
4. J. Nagappa pointed out that numerically the depressed castes formed between 20 to 25 percent of the total population were not a minority. Their sufferings were due to their systematic marginalization not their numerical insignificance. They had no access to education, no share in the administration.
5. Ambedker advocated/recommended the abolition of untouchability. The Constituent Assembly finally recommended that untouchability be abolished, Hindu temples be thrown open to all ca’Stes, and seats in legislatures and jobs in government offices be reserved for the lowest castes.

Question 10.
“Gandhiji was as much a social reformer as he was a politician. He believed that in order to be worthy of freedom, Indians had to get rid of social evils such as child marriage and untouchability. Indians of one faith had also to cultivate a genuine tolerance for Indians of another religion—hence his emphasis on Hindu-Muslim harmony.”
In the light of the statement, highlight the values upheld by Mahatma Gandhi.” [4 × 1 = 4]

Part – C

Question 11.
Explain the agricultural practices followed by the cultivators to increase productivity from c. 600 BCE to 600 CE. [8]
OR
Explain the main features of the Mauryan administration.
Answer:
One such strategy was the shift to plough agriculture,with spread in fertile alluvial river valley such as those of the Ganga and Kaveri from 6^th century BCE. The iron tipped ploughshare was used to turn the alluvial soil areas which had high rainfall. Transplantation was the strategy used for paddy cultivation in area- where water was plentiful. Broadcasting of seeds was used in paddy cultivation. While the iron plough share let to the growth in agricultural productivity, its use was restricted to certain parts of the subcontinent cultivators in areas which were semi-arid, such as parts of Punjab and Rajasthan did not adopt till the twentieth century, and those living in hilly tracts in the north-eastern and central parts of the subcontinent practiced hoe agriculture which was much better suited to the terrain.

Another strategy adopted to increase agricultural : production was the use of irrigation, through wells
and tanks, and less commonly, canals: Communities as well as individuals organised the construction of irrigation works. The latter, usually powerful men including kings, often recorded such activities in inscriptions. A new type of strategies named ‘Land ‘ grants’ were adopted by ruling lineages to extend agriculture to new areas.
OR
The main features of the Mauryan administration are as follows :

1. There were five major political centres in the empire—the capital Pataliputra and the provincial centres of Taxila, Ujjaini, Tosali and Suvarnagiri.
2. It was likely that administrative control was strongest in areas around the capital and the provincial centres. These centres were carefully choosen, Taxila and Ujjaini being situated on important long distance 1 trade routes, while Suvarnagiri was important for tapping the goldmines of Karnataka.
3. Communication along both land and water routes was vital for the existence of the empire. Journeys from the centre to the provinces could have taken weeks not months. These meant arranging provisions as well as protection of those who were, on the move. The army was important to ensure security and safety.
4. Megasthenese mentions a committee with six sub-committees for coordinating military activity. Of
   these, one looked after the navy, the second managed transport and provisions, third was responsible for , foot soldiers, the forth for horses, the fifth for the chariots and the sixth for elephants.
5. The activities of the second committee were rather varied arranging bullock carts to carry equipment, procuring food for the soldiers and fodder for animals and recruiting servants and assistants to look after the soldiers.
6. Ashoka also tried to hold his empire together propagating Dhamma, the principles of which were simple and virtually universally applicable. This would ensure the well being of the people.
7. He recruited special officers known as Dhamma Mahamattas. It was their duty to spread the message of Dhamma.
8. According to Megasthenes—Officers were appointed to different work. Such as some superintended the rivers, measure the land; inspect the sluices by which water is let out from the main canals into branches, so everyone may have equal supply of it. Some officers collect the taxes.

Question 12.
Identify the relationship between the Sufis and the State from the eighth to the eighteenth century.
OR
Identify the relationship of the Alvars and Nayanars of Tamil Nadu with the State from the eighth to the eighteenth century. [8]
Answer:

1. The group of Sufis-the Chishtis, who migrated to India in the late twelveth century adopted the local environment and maintained an influencing relationship with the state.
2. One of the major feature of the Sufis was austerity including maintaining distance from worldly power. However, they did not maintain the complete isolation from political power.
3. The Sufis accepted unsolicited grants and donations from political elites. The sultans in turn set up charitable trusts (auqaf) as endowments for hospices and tax-free land (inam).
4. The Chishtis accepted donations in cash and kind. Rather than accumulate donations, they preferred to use these fully on immediate requirements such as food, clothes, living quarters and ritual necessities (such as sama).
5. Akbar visited Ajmer Dargah of Khawaja Muinuddinchisti fourteen times to seek blessings for new conquets, fulfilment of vows and the birth of sons. Each of his visits was celebrated by generous gifts, which were recorded in Imperial documents.
6. Kings did not simply need to demonstrate their association with sufis; they also required legitimation from them.
7. When the Turks set up the Delhi Sultanate, they resisted the insistence of the ulama on imposing shari’a as state law because they anticipated opposition from their subjects, the majority of whom were non-MuslimsT The Sultans then sought out the sufis—who derived their authority directly from God—and did not depend on jurists to interpret the shari’a.
8. In spite of this there were some instances of conflicts between Sufis and the Sultan, because both wanted to ascertain their authorities by emphasising on certain rules and regulations. Such ritual includes kissing of feet and prostration.
9. Sometimes the Sufi Shaikhs were also adorned with high sounding titles. E.g., Nizamuddin Auliya adorned the title of Sultan U1 Mashaikh (literally, Sultan among Shaikhs).

OR

1. Alvars were devotees of Vishnu and Nayanars were devotees of Shiva.
2. Chola rulers supported Brahmanical and Bhakti traditions. Royal patronage was granted to Nayanars.
3. They tried to claim the divine support and with this motive they built magnificent Shiva temples at Chidambaram. Thanjavur and Gangaikandaholapuram.
4. In these temples, bronze made sculptures of Lord Shiva were kept and known as Nataraj.
5. Chola ruler Prantaka I consecrated metal images of saints of Shaivism—Appar, Sambandar and Sundarar.
6. Krishna I, a Rashtrakuta ruler, who built Kailash temple at Ellora, also granted for the construction of many temples. These rulers not only popularised the hymns of Shiva but also made a great contribution in the compilation of Tevaram.
7. The chola rulers often attempted to claim divine support and proclaim their own power and status by building splendid temples and metal sculpture to recreate the visions of these popular saints.
8. The vellala peasants revered both Nayanars and Alvars.

Part – C

Question 13.
“After introducing the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, the zamidars regularly failed to pay the land revenue demand.” Examine the causes and consequences of it.
OR
“A chain of grievances in Awadh linked the prince, taluqdars, peasants and sepoys to join ‘ hands in the revolt of 1857 against the British.” Examine the statement. [8]
Answer:

1. The initial demands were very high arguing that the burden on zamindar would gradually decline as agricultural production expanded and price rose.
2. A high demand was imposed in 1790s when the agricultural prices were depressed. This made difficult to pay their dues to zamindar.
3. The zamindars could not collect rent and pay the rent.
4. Revenue was in variable, regardless of the harvest and had to be paid punctually. As per sunset law, the payment had to be paid before sunset. If not done, the zamindari was liable to be auctioned.
5. The permanent settlement limited the power of zamindar to collect rent from the ryot.
6. The Company recognized zamindars as important but wanted to control and regulate them.
7. Zamindars lost their power to organize local justice and local police.
8. Rent collection was a perennial problem. Sometimes bad harvest and low prices made payments of dues difficult for ryots.
9. Sometimes ryots deliberately delayed payments but the zapiindar could not assert his power over them.
10. Rich ryot, village head man, Jotedars and Mandals were happy to see the zamindars in trouble.

OR
A chain of grievances in Awadh linked the prince, taluqdars, peasants and sepoys to join hands in the revolt of 1857 against the British.

(i) The Nawab of Awadh, Wajid Ali Shah was removed by Dalhousie on the pretext of poor governance. It was looked down upon by the people as high insult to them. The local people sympathised with the Nawab. Thus, the public sentiment was gainst the British government that got a vent during the revolt.

(ii) The British land revenue policy further undermined the position and authority of the taluqdars. After annexation, the first British revenue settlement, known as the Summary Settlement of 1856, was based on the assumption that the taluqdars were interlopers with no permanent stakes in land. The Summary Settlement proceeded to remove the taluqdars wherever possible. The increase of revenue demand in some place was 30 to 70%. Thus taluqdars were not happy with the annexation.

(iii)

• British land revenue officers believed that by removing taluqdars they would be able to settle the land with the actual owners of the soil.
• They thought they will be able to reduce the level of exploitation of peasants while increasing revenue returns for the state. But this did not happen in practice.
  The revenue flows for the state increased but the burden of demand on the peasants did not decline. Thus neither taluqdars nor peasants had any reasons to be happy with the annexation.

(iv) The grievances of the peasants were carried over into the sepoy lines since a vast majority of the sepoys were recruited from the villages of Awadh. For decades the sepoys had complained of low levels of pay and the difficulty of getting leave. The relationship of the spoys with their superior white officers underwent a significant change in the years preceding the uprising of 1857.

(v) In the 1840s, the officers developed a sense of superiority and started treating the sepoys as their racial inferiors, riding roughshod over their sensibilities. Abuse and physical violence became common and thus, the distance between sepoys and officers grew. .

(vi) The company introduced a new catridge for its soldiers. It was to be bitten before use by soldiers. It was reported that it was made of the fat of cow and pig. Hence, soldiers of both Hindu and Muslim thought that it was a conspirary of the Company to destroy their religion.

(vii) During the early phase of the company rule, British soliders and officers had friendly relation with the Indian soldiers. Things changed after 1835 and British began to consider themselves as superior. All senior positions in the army were given to them and even at the same ranks Britishers were paid more. The native soliders were treated with disrespect.

Part – D

Question 14.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Buddhism in Practice
This is an excerpt from the Sutta Pitaka, and contains the advice given by the Buddha to a wealthy householder named Sigala :

In five ways should a master look after his servants and employees … by assigning them work according to their strength, by supplying them with food and wages, by tending them in sickness;-by sharing delicacies with them and by granting leave at times ……

In five ways should the clansmen look after the needs of samanas (those who have renounced the world) and Brahmanas : by affection in act and speech and mind, by keeping open house to them and supplying their worldly needs.
There are similar instructions to Sigala about how to behave with his parents, teacher and wife.
(14.1) In what ways should amasterlook after his servants and employees ? [2]
(14.2) In what ways should the clansmen look after the needs of samanas ? [2]
(14.3) Explain the main aspects of Buddhist philosophy. [3]
Answer:
(14.1) There are five ways to look after the servants and the employees : assigning them work according to their strength, supplying them with food and wages, tending them in sickness, sharing delicacies and granting leaves at times.

(14.2) The clansman should look after the needs of samanas in the following ways : by affection in act and speech and mind, by keeping open house to them, supplying their worldly needs.

(14.3) According to the Buddhist philosophy the world is transient (annica) and constantly changing, it is also soulless (anatta) as there is nothing permanent or eternal. Within this transient world sorrow is intrinsic to human existence. It is by following the path of moderation between severe penance and self-indulgence that human beings can rise above these worldly troubles.

Question 15.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The Ain on land revenue collection Let him (the amil-guzar) not make it a practice of taking only in cash but also in kind. The latter is effected in several ways, First, kankut : in the Hindi language kan signifies grain, and
kut, estimates If any doubts arise, the crops should be cut and estimated in three lots, the good, the middling and the inferior, and the hesitation should be removed. Often, too, the land taken by appraisement, gives a sufficiently accurate return. Secondly, batai, also called bhaoli, the crops are reaped and stacked and divided by agreement in the presence of the parties. But in this case several intelligent inspectors are required; otherwise, the evil-minded and false are given to deception. Thirdly, khet-batai, when they divide the fields after they are sown. Fourthly, lang batai, after cutting the grain, they form it in heaps and divide it among themselves, and ceash takes his share home and turns it to profit.
(15.1) Explain the kankut system of land revenue. [2]
(15.2) How as the land revenue assessed in the case of batai or bhaoli ? [2]
(15.3) Do you think that the land revenue system of the Mughals was flexible ? [3]
Answer:
(15.1) In the Kankut system, in the Hindi language kan signifies grain and kut estimates. If any doubts arise the crops should be cut and estimated in three lots : the good, the middling and the inferior, and the hesitation should be removed. Often, too, the land taken by appraisement, gives a sufficiently accurate return.

(15.2.) Batai also called bhaoli, the crops are reaped and stacked and divided by agreement in the presence of the parties.

(15.3.) Yes, the land revenue system of the Mughals was flexible.

1. First tax assessment —(Jama) was made and then actual collection—(Hasil)
2. The option of paying in cash or kind was available to farmers.
3. The lands were actually measured and then the assessment of revenue made.

Question 16.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow :
A rural city ?
Read this excerpt on Madras from the Imperial Gazetteer, 1908 :
… the better European residencies are built in the midst of compounds which almost attain the dignity of parks; and rice-fields frequently wind in and out between these in almost rural fashion. Even in the most thickly peopled native quarters such as Black Town and Triplicane, there is litde of the crowding found in many other towns
(16.1) Where and why were better European residencies built ? [2]
(16.2) Explain the condition of black towns. [2]
(16.3) State the meaning of gradual urbanisation of Madras (Chennai). [3]
Answer:
(16.1) (a) Better European residences were built due to the economic activities of the English East India Company in Bombay/Calcutta/Madras.
(b) Better European residences are built in the midst of compounds, which almost attain the dignity of parks and rice field and at the areas of the free flow of the winds.
(c) Buildings that build in these cities bore marks of their colonial origin. They mould tastes, popularize styles and shape the contours of culture.
(16.2) The black towns were thickly populated, with less hygienic living conditions and with no planning. The “Black” areas come to be symbolised not only chaos and anarchy, but also filth and disease.
(16.3) The ‘dubashes’ were Indians who could speak two languages—the local language and English.

Part – E

Question 17.
(17.1) On the given political outline map of India, locate and label the following appropriately : [1 × 2 = 2]
(a) Masulipatanam—a territory under British control during 1857.
(b) Goa—a territory under the Mughals.
(17.2) On the same map of India, three places which are major Buddhist sites have been marked as A, B and C. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. [3]

Answer:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2017 Outside Delhi Set – II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Part – A

Question 1.
Identify any two occupations to be performed by Kshatriyas as per Varna Order. [2]
Answer:
The two occupations to be performed by the Kshatriyas were to engage in warfare, protect people and administer justice.

Question 3.
Examine the outcome of the battle of Rakshasi- Tangadi (Talikota). [2]
Answer:
The battle was fought in 1565. Rama Raya, the Chief Minister of Vijaynagar led the army into the batde of Rakshasi-Tangadi (Talikota) where his forces were routed by combined forces of Bijapur, Ahmednagar and Golconda. These forces sacked the city of Vijaynagar.

Part – B

Question 5.
What do you know about the authors and the period when Mahabharata was compiled ? Explain. [4]
Answer:
There are so many views about the author of Mahabharata. Following views have been put forward regarding the authorship of Mahabharata : It is believed that the original story was written by the charioteer-bards known as Sutas. They originally accompanied Kshatriya warriors to the battlefield and composed poems celebrating their victories and other achievements. It is also believed that the beginning text of Mahabharata was orally circulated. Scholars and priests carried it from one generation to another.

From the 5^th century BCE, the Brahmanas took over the story and started writing. This was the time when Kurus and Panchals were gradually becoming Kingdoms. This story of Mahabharata also revolved around them. Some parts of the story reflect that old social values were replaced by the new ones. c. 200 BCE and 200 CE is another phase in the composition of the Mahabharata. During this period worship of Vishnu was gaining ground. Krishna came to be identified as Vishnu. Large didactic sections resembling Manusmriti were added during the period between C 200 and 400 CE. These interpretations made the Mahabharata an epic consisting of 100,000 verses. This enormous composition is traditionally attributed to a sage named Vyasa.

Question 6.
“India had a unique system of communication during the fourteenth century.” Examine the statement of Ibn Batuta. [4]
Answer:
Ibn Batuta arrived India in the 14th century. He was much impressed by the Postal System of India. Two kinds of postal system were prevalent in the society. These two systems, the horse-post called the Uluq and foot-post called the Dawa. Uluq had their station at every four miles, while the foot-post had three stations per mile and a dawa meant one-third of a mile. The foot system was much spread than the horse system and was prevalent in the entire subcontinent. It is because of this efficient postal system the rulers were able to keep a strict watch over the vast empire. The ruler used to get all the information about all the events in the minimum possible time. It took nearly 50 days to travel from Sindh to Delhi, whereas, the spies of the king were able to send their news reports in just five days through this efficient system of post. This also proved beneficial for the traders since it enabled them to despatch their goods in a short period of time.

Question 7.
“The granting of titles to the men of merit was an important aspect of Mughal polity.” Explain. [4]
Answer:
Grand tides were adopted by the Mughal emperors at the time of coronation or after a victory over an enemy. High-sounding and rhythmic, they created an atmosphere of awe in the audience when announced by ushers (naqib). The granting of titles to men of merit was an important aspect of Mughal polity. A man’s ascent in the court hierarchy could be traced through the tides he held. The title Asaf Khan for one of the highest ministers originated with Asaf, the legendry minister of the prophet king Sulaiman (Solomon). The title Mirza Raja was accorded by Aurangazeb to his two highest ranking nobles, Jai Singh and Jaswant Singh. TMef could be earned or paid for. Mir Khan offered ? one lakh to Aurangazeb for the letter Alif, that is A, to be added to his name to make it Amir Khan.

Part – C

Question 13.
Examine the land revenue system that was introduced in Bombay Deccan. How did the peasants fall into the debt-trap of the moneylenders ? Explain. [8]
OR
“Rumours and prosphesies played a part in moving the people into action during the revolt of 1857.” Examine the statement with rumours and reasons for its belief.
Answer:
Land Revenue System

1. The revenue system that was introduced in the Bombay Deccan came to be known as the ryotwari settlement. The revenue was directly settled with the ryot.
2. The average income from different types of soil was estimated, the revenue-paying capacity of the ryot was assessed and a proportion of it fixed as the share of the state.
3. The lands were resurveyed every 30- years and the revenue rates increased. Therefore, the revenue
   demand was no longer permanent.
4. It was based on Ricardian ideas.

Peasants fell into Debt-trap of money lenders

1. During the 1820s the revenue that was demanded was so high.
2. In areas of poor soil and fluctuating rainfall, the problem was particularly acute. When rains failed and harvests were poor, peasants found it impossible to pay the revenue.
3. However, the collectors in charge of revenue collection were keen on demonstrating their efficiency and pleasing their superiors. So, they went about extracting payment with utmost severity.

OR
Rumours and prophesies of the revolt of 1857 :

1. The sepoys who had arrived in Delhi from Meerut had told Bahadur Shah about bullets coated with the faifof cows and pigs.
2. Biting those bullets would corrupt their caste and religion. They were referring to the cartridges of the Enfield rifles which had just been given to them.
3. The British tried to explain to the sepoys that this was not the case but the rumour that the new cartridges were greased with the fat of cows and pigs spread like wildfire across the sepoy lines of North India.
4. In the third week of January 1857 a “low-caste” khalasi who worked in the magazine in Dum Dum had asked a Brahmin sepoy for a drink of water from his lota. The sepoy had refused saying that the “lower caste’s” touch would defile the lota.
5. There was the rumour that the British government had hatched a gigantic conspiracy to destroy the caste and
   religion of Hindus and Muslims. To this end, the rumours said, the British had mixed the bone dust of cows and pigs into the flour that was sold in the market.
6. There was fear and suspicion that the British wanted to convert Indians to Christianity.
7. The response to the call for action was reinforced by the prophecy that British rule would come to an end on the centenary of the Battle of Plassey, on 23 June, 1857.
8. In North India, chapattis were being distributed from village to village. A person would come at night and give a chapatti to the watchman of the village and ask him to make five more and distribute to the next village, and so on.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2017 Outside Delhi Set – III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Part – A

Question 1.
State whether gender differences were really important in the early societies. from c. 600 BCE to 600 CE. [2]
Answer:
Gender Differences (Patrilineal succession, Claim of resources, Gotra System)

1. Under patriliny, sons could clairJi the resources (including the throne in the case of kings) of their fathers when the latter died. .
2. According to the Manusmriti, the paternal estate was to be divided equally amongst sons after the death of the parents, with a special share for the eldest.

Question 2.
Examine the significance of enclosing agricultural land within the fortified area of the city of Vijaynagar. [2]
Answer:
Agricultural tracts were incorporated within the fortified area. The objective of medieval sieges was to starve the defenders into submission. These sieges could last for several months and sometimes even years. Normally rulers tried to be prepared for such situations by building large granaries within fortified areas.

Part – B

Question 5.
Explain how you will prove that the text of Mahabharata was a dynamic one. [4]
Answer:
Mahabharata is a dynamic text:

1. The growth of the Mahabharata did not stop with the Sanskrit version.
2. Over the centuries, versions of the epic were written in a variety of languages through an ongoing process of dialogue between peoples, communities, and those who wrote the texts.
3. Several stories that originated in specific regions or circulated amongst certain people found their way into the epic. At the same time, the central story of the epic was often retold in different ways.
4. Episodes of Mahabharata were depicted in sculpture and painting.
5. They also provided themes for a wide range of performing arts—plays, dance and other kinds of narrations.

Question 6.
Examine why Bernier described the Mughal towns as the ‘Camp Towns’. [4]
Answer:
During the seventeenth century about 15 percent of the population lived in the towns. This was on average, higher than the proportion of urban population in Western Europe in the same period. In spite of this, Bernier described the Mughal cities as ‘Camp towns’, by which he meant towns that owed their existence and depended for their survival, on the imperial camp. He believed that these came into existence when the imperial court moved in and rapidly declined when it moved out. He suggested that they did not have viable social and economic foundations but were dependent on imperial patronage.

Bernier was drawing an over simplified picture. There were all kinds of towns : manufacturing towns, trading towns, port-towns, sacred centres, pilgrimage towns, etc. Their existence is an index of the prosperity of merchant communities and professional classes.

Question 7.
How do you think that Qandahar remained a bone of contention between the Mughals and the Safavids ? Explain. [4]
Answer:
There was a constant effort by the Mughal policy to ward off this potential danger by controlling strategic outposts – notably Kabul and Qandhar. Qandahar was a bone of contention between the Safavids and the Mughals. All conquerors who sought to make their way into the Indian subcontinent had to cross the Hindukush to have access to north India. The fortress town had initially been in the possession of Humayun, reconquered in 1595 by Akbar. While the Safavid Court retained diplomatic relations with the Mughals, it continued to stake claims to Qandhar. In 1613, Jahangir sent a diplomatic envoy to the court of Shah Abbas to plead the Mughal case for retaining Qandhar but the mission failed. In the winter of 1622 a Persian army besieged Qandhar. The ill-prepared Mughal garrison was defeated and had to surrender the fortress and the city to the Safavids.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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NIOS Admission 2019-20: The National Institute of Open Schooling which was earlier known as National Open School is an autonomous organization. It was founded by the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), Govt. of India in 1989 to provide quality and relevant education at the school to pre-degree level. NIOS is an Open and Distance Learning Education (ODL) where students who are working can continue their study to avail the formal schooling facility. NIOS conducts the 10th and 12th board admissions online in two blocks i.e, Block I and Block II. NIOS admission for Block I starts from 16th March and continues till July 31, 2019, without any late fee. Other than this, students can also apply for NIOS admission on September 15, 2019, with the late fee.

Students must pay the admission fees and also can track the admission status on nios.ac.in. NIOS is responsible to examine and certify learners registered with it up to pre-degree level courses whether Technical, Academic or Vocational. NIOS also offers elementary level courses to the learners through its Open Basic Education Programmes (OBE). Students read this article below to know more about NIOS admission, dates, fees, eligibility, and syllabus, etc.

NIOS Admission Dates 2019-20

NIOS conducts admission twice yearly. Admissions for block1 is going on and can be applied till the last date. Whereas the admissions for block II will be started from 16th September 2019.

NIOS Block-I

NIOS Block-II

NIOS 2019 Exam Dates

NIOS will release the date sheet for Block I exam in February 2020. However, NIOS Block I exam will be conducted in March/April 2020. Whereas the NIOS Block II exam will be conducted in October/ November 2020. In 2019, NIOS 10th exam conducted on 3rd April whereas NIOS 12th exam conducted on 2nd April. The date sheet contains the exam dates for secondary and higher secondary courses offered by NIOS. Last year, NIOS secondary date sheet was released along with higher secondary date sheet on February 27, 2019.

NIOS Admission Eligibility Criteria

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Class 10 Eligibility Conditions:

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NIOS board is similar to CBSE and ICSE boards. So, learners can choose NIOS admission to continue their secondary and senior secondary education to get higher scores. Learners must refer to the below-mentioned procedures for NIOS admission.

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After that, the learners can view their NIOS admission status online.

NIOS Admission Fee 2019-20

The learner who is seeking admission in NIOS must pay the admission fee online to complete the admission process. Refer the table below to know the admission fee for NIOS 2019-20.

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NIOS Exam Fee 2019-20

• The learners who are attending the secondary and higher secondary exam have to fill the application form.
• Then they must pay the exam fee after getting confirmation of the admission.
• Exam fee must be paid separately, not with an admission fee. NIOS Block I exam fee will be paid in November / December.
• Whereas the NIOS Block II exam fee will be paid in February / March.
• Exam fee can only be paid online through credit card/ debit card/ net banking.

NIOS Admit Card Details

• NIOS admit card will be available online to download on March 2019.
• Learners have to enter their enrollment number to download separate admit cards for practical and theory examination.
• NIOS admit card contains learner and exam center details.
• Exam center will be allotted to learners as per their selection at the time of filling the exam form.
• Finally, NIOS will decide the allotment of exam center. Once it is allotted any request for changing it will not be considered.
• Admit card is an important document which needs to be carried by the learner to sit in the exam.

NIOS Question Paper Details

Learners who are preparing for NIOS secondary and senior secondary exams can practice the previous year’s question papers. From question papers, learners will get the information of marking scheme, type, and difficulty of the questions asked in the exam. Learners can evaluate their preparation within a certain time interval to reduce the exam pressure. NIOS question papers will be available online in pdf format to download and practice whenever required.

NIOS Exam Result 2019-20

NIOS releases the online result for secondary and senior secondary courses. Learners can check their results by entering their enrollment number. NIOS Block I Result releases in June month whereas Block II result in December month. NIOS secondary result releases along with the senior secondary result.

NIOS Syllabus Details

Learners can prepare from the various topics of subjects recommended in the NIOS syllabus. Learners can check the complete syllabus of the chosen subjects and plan the preparation accordingly. NIOS secondary syllabus includes the subjects of 10th class. Learners can check the NIOS senior secondary syllabus to get information about exam pattern, preparation tactics, etc.

NIOS Education Programmes 2019-20

NIOS provides the following programs to learners who have chosen admission in NIOS and continue their education.

Open Basic Education (OBE)

Learners will get basic education under this program and are similar to other affiliated recognized schools. The OBE is categorized into three levels.

1. OBE ‘A’ level course similar to class III
2. OBE ‘B’ level course similar to class V
3. OBE ‘C’ level course similar to class VIII

Academic Courses

NIOS academic courses are categorized into two levels.

1. Secondary Course similar to class X
2. Senior Secondary Course similar to class XII

Vocational Education Courses

NIOS offers various vocational education courses to teach learners about target skills in different fields such as Business,  Accounts & Commerce, Agriculture & Animal Husbandry, IT & Technology, Engineering & Architecture, Health & Paramedical Science, Home Science, Hospitality Management, Teachers  Training, etc. More than 100 types of vocational courses are available in NIOS. Within this learners can choose some courses according to their interest.

Life Enrichment Programmes

Women empowerment, Yoga & Meditation, Indian music, etc. comes under life enrichment programs offered by NIOS.

FAQ’s on NIOS Admission

Question 1.
Why are learners looking for NIOS admission?

Answer:
If any learners are not getting admission in recognized schools due to some economic, social or any other problems then they can seek admission in NIOS. Also, learners who are working can seek admission in NIOS for continuing their study to avail the formal schooling facility.

Question 2.
What is the age limit for admission in NIOS Secondary and Senior Secondary course?

Answer:
The minimum age of the learner must be 14 years as on July 31, 2019, for the secondary course. Whereas it must be 15 years as on July 31, 2019, for the senior secondary course.

Question 3.
What is the educational qualification required for admission in secondary and senior secondary courses?

Answer:
Learners must have completed class 8th for admission in secondary courses and class 10th for admission in senior secondary courses.

Question 4.
Is birth certificate required in NIOS admission?

Answer:
Yes, a valid birth certificate is required to submit as the date of birth proof. A birth certificate issued by a municipal corporation, village panchayat or Govt. of India will be considered as a valid proof.

Question 5.
What documents are required to be submitted in NIOS admission?

Answer:
Aadhar card or passport or ration card for identity proof. Birth Certificate for checking the date of birth. Valid residential Address proof (Aadhaar card/Water Bill/Electricity Bill/Voter Id/Ration card). Recent passport size color photo with the signature in black ink. Caste certificate for reserved category and Disability Certificate for PwD category students. Ex-serviceman certificate for Ex-serviceman category learners. Class 8th mark sheets for secondary and class 10th mark sheets for senior secondary courses.

Hope this article will help you to get information about NIOS Admission 2019-20. For any queries in NIOS Admission, leave your queries in the comment box to get in touch with us.

The post NIOS Admission 2019-20 for Class X and XII | Exam Dates, Eligibility, Pattern and Syllabus appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2017 Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:

• • The question paper contains 26 questions.
  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Question no. 1 to 11 carry 1 mark each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 10-20 words each.
  • Questions no. 12 to 19 carry 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 30-50 words each.
  • Questions no. 20 to 26 carry 5 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 75-100 words each.

** Answer is not given due to change in present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2017 Delhi Set – I

Part – A

Question 1.
“The burials in Harappan sites reveal the economic and social differences amongst the people living within a particular culture.” Give two evidences in support of your answer. [2]
Answer:
The evidences that reveal the social and economic differences in Harappan sites are :

1. Burials : From the site, it is found that few deads were laid down in ordinary pits whereas few others were laid down in proper lined and hollowed out spaces with brick coverings.
2. In some graves, pottery and ornaments were also found indicating the belief that these could be used in the afterlife.

Question 2.
Examine why Bernier was against the idea of crown ownership of land in Mughal India. [2]
Answer:
Bernier saw that the crown ownership of land is harmful for both the state and its people. The crown owner distributed the land among his nobles which had disastrous consequence for economy and society as it led to the ruination of agriculture, excessive oppression of peasantry and continuous decline in the living standard. This was the reason Bernier was against the idea of crown-ownership of land in Mughal India.

Question 3.
Why were many Zamindaris’ auctioned after the Permanent Settlement in Bengal ? Give two reasons. [2]
Answer:

1. The East India Company had fixed the revenue with the zamindars. The estates of those who failed to pay were to be auctioned to recover the revenue or accumulated arrears.
2. Due to the Sunset Law (if the payment did not come in by the sunset of the specified date) the zamindaris were liable to be auctioned.
3. Jotedars deliberately delayed payments to the zamindars.
4. Peasants too delayed payments to tne jotedars and the zamindars.
5. Zamindars because of their own reasons delayed payments.

Part – B

Question 4.
What evidences have been put forward to explain the collapse of the Harappan Civilization ? [4]
Answer:

1. After 1900 BCE there were disappearance of the distinctive artefacts of the civilization — weights, seals, special beads, etc.
2. Writing, long distance trade and craft specialization also disappeared.
3. House construction techniques deteriorated.
4. Large public structures were no longer produced.
5. Artefacts and settlements indicated a rural life called as Late Harappan and Successive Culture.
6. Disappearance of the seals, the script, distinctive beads and pottery.

Question 5.
Explain the sources used by historians to reconstruct the history of the Mauryan Empire. [4]
Answer:
Variety of sources have been used by historians to reconstruct the history of the Mauryan Empire. There are archaeological discoveries, especially sculpture, and accounts of Megasthenes who was a Greek ambassador to the court of Chandragupta Maurya. Another source which is used, is the Arth- Shastra, parts of which were probably composed by Kautilya or Chanakya, minister of Chandragupta Maurya.

The Mauryans are also mentioned later on in Buddhist, Jaina and Puranic literature as well as in Sanskrit literature. The other valuable sources are the inscription of Ashoka Chakra on rocks and pillars.

Question 6.
“Kabir was and is to the present a source of inspiration for those who questioned entrenched social institutions and ideas in their search for divine.” Explain. [2 + 2 = 4]
Answer:

1. He believed in the Nirguna Bhakti.
2. The range of traditions Kabir drew on to describe the Ultimate Reality include Islam: as Allah, Khuda, Hazrat and Pir.
3. Verses ascribed to Kabir have been compiled in the KabirBijak, KabirGranthavali and Adi Grantha Sahib. The terms with mystical connotations such as shabda (sound) or shunya (emptiness) were drawn from yogic traditions.
4. He probably crystallised through dialogue and debate with the traditions of Sufis and Yogis.
5. He believed in divinity rather than any particular religion.

Question 7.
“The nobility was recruited consciously by the Mughal rulers from diverse ethnic and religious groups.” Justify. [4]
Answer:
One of the most important pillar of the Mughal state was its Corps of officers also referred to by historians collectively as the nobility. The officer corps of the Mughals were described as a bouquet of flowers herd together by loyalty to the emperor. People from many races (Arabs, Iranians, Turks, Tajiks, Kurds, Tatars, Russians, Abyssinians, people from Egypt, Syria, Iraq, Arabia, Iran, Khurasan, Turan)—have sought refuge in the imperial court. Aurangzeb appointed the Rajputs to high positions and Marathas accounted for a sizeable number within the body of officers. Raja Bharmal of Kachhwaha dynasty, a small kingdom of Amer (Jaipur), was the father-in-law of Akbar. This ensured that no faction was large enough to challenge the authority of the state.

Question 8.
Examine the circumstances that led to the passing of ‘Limitation Laws’ by the British in 1859. [4]
Answer:

1. In 1859, British passed a limitation law that stated that the loan bonds signed between moneylenders and ryots would have validity for only three years.
2. This law was meant to check the accumulation of interest over time.
3. Cotton boom and the American civil war.
4. The moneylenders were powerful and were violating the customary norms that regulated the relationship between moneylenders and ryots.
5. Moneylenders were unwilling to give the loan to ryots without legal bonds. This way ryots faced unjustice in the hands of moneylenders.

Question 9.
Highlight the measures taken to ensure unity among the rebels of 1857. [4]
Answer:
Following measures were taken to ensure unity among rebels :

1. The rebel proclamations in 1857 repeatedly appealed for unity to all sections of the population, irrespective of their caste and creed.
2. The rebellion was seen as a war in which both Hindus and Muslims had equally to lose or gain.
3. The ishtahars harked back to the pre-British Hindu-Muslim past and glorified the coexistence of different communities under the Mughal Empire.
4. The proclamation that was issued under the name of Bahadur Shah appealed to the people to join the fight under the standards of both Muhammad and Mahavir.
5. Fear and suspicion that British wanted Indian to convert Indian to Christianity.

Part – C

Question 10.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow : [4 × 1 = 4]
“For the success of democracy one must train oneself in the art of self-discipline. In democracies, one should careless for himself and more for others. There can’t be any divided loyalty. All loyalties must exclusively be centered round the state. If in a democracy, you create rival loyalties or you create a system in which any individual or a group, instead of suppressing his extravagance cares not for larger or other interests, then democracy is doomed.”
In the light of the above passage highlight the values which a loyal citizen of a democratic country should uphold.**

Question 11.
“The Mahabharata is a story of kinship, marriages and patriliny.” Examine the statement. [8 × 3 = 24]
OR
“Because of the diversity of the Indian subcontinent there have always been populations whose social practices were not influenced by the Brahminical ideas during 600 BCE-600 CE.” Examine the statement.
Answer:
Mahabharata is a story of kinship, marriages and patriliny:

1. The Mahabharata is a story about kinship describing a feud over land and power between the Kauravas and the Pandavas.
2. Pandavas became victorious due to their virtues.
3. Kinsmen claimed the throne, and, in very exceptional circumstances, women such as Prabhavati Gupta exercised power.
4. Under patriliny, sons could claim the authority of their fathers.
5. Men acquired wealth through means led by the Manusmriti like inheritance, work, etc.
6. Women acquired wealth through Stridhan( by father, brother, husband).
7. While sons were important for the continuity of the patriliny, daughters had no claims to the resources of the household.
8. Various systems followed for the marriage were endogamy, exogamy, polygamy and polyandry.
9. Members of the same gotra could not marry.
10. One of the most challenging episode in the Mahabharata is Draupadi’s marriage with the Pandavas an instance of Polyandry.

OR
Brahmanical ideas during 600 BCE-600 CE :

1. In Sanskrit texts populations whose social practices were not influenced by Brahmanical ideas are often described as odd, uncivilised, or even animal-like.
2. In some instances, these included forest-dwellers- for whom hunting and gathering remained an important means of subsistence.
3. Categories such as the Nishada, to which Ekalavya is supposed to have belonged, are examples of this.
4. While the Brahmanas considered some people as being outside the system, they also developed a sharper social divide by classifying certain social categories as “untouchables but historians have tried to find out whether chandalas accepted the life of degradation prescribed in the shastras.
5. Hidimba marrying Bhima against the social practices prescribed in the Dharamshastras.
6. Others who were viewed with suspicion included population such as Pastoralist.
7. Whenever brahmanical authorities encountered new groups which did not easily fit into the fourfold varna system they classified them as Jatis.
8. Others who were viewed with suspicion included populations such as nomadic pastoralists, who could not be easily accommodated within the framework of settled agriculturists who spoke non-Sanskritic languages were labelled as Melachhas.

Question 12.
Identify the rituals and practices associated with the Mahanavami Dibba, a structure in the Royal Centre of Vijaynagar Empire.
OR
Outline the distinctive features of the Virupaksha temple and the Vitthala temple in the Royal Centre of Vijaynagar Empire. [5 + 3 = 8]
Answer:
The Mahanavami Dibba is located on one of the highest points in the city. It is a very large platform rising from a base of about 11,000 feet to a height of 40 feet. The platform must have supported a wooden structure and other perishable material during festivals. The base of the platform is covered with relief carvings.

Rituals and Practices:

1. Rituals associated with the structure must have coincided with Mahanavami of ten day Hindu festival during the autumn months of September and October, known variously as Dussehra (North India), Durga Puja (West Bengal) and Navratri (Peninsular India).
2. Ceremonies performed on the occasion included worship of image, worship of state hbrse, and the sacrifice of buffaloes and other animals.
3. Dances, wrestling, procession of horse elephants and chariots as ritual presentation before the king.
4. On the last day of festival, the king inspected his army and armies of nayaks in a grand ceremony in an open field. .
5. The Nayakas brought gifts and tribute for the king. It had two of the most impressive platforms, the “Audience Hall” and the “Mahanavami Dibba”. The entire complex was surrounded by high double walls with a street running between them.
6. The audience hall was a high platforrtlwith slots for wooden pillars at close and regular intervals. It had a staircase going up to the second floor. The pillars were closely spaced.

OR
Features of Virupaksha and Vitthala temples :
Virupaksha temple:

1. It is built over centuries, may be during ninth or tenth centuries as suggested in the inscription.
2. It is dedicated to Lord Virupaksha, the guardian deity of kingdom.
3. It is decorated with carved pillars.
4. There are many big halls which are used for marriages, social programmes and other social occasions.
5. Rulers indicated close links with God using title “Hindu Suratrana”.
6. Kings visits to temples along with Amaranayakas were important occassion.

Vitthala Temple :

1. The Prinicipal deity of this important shrine is Vitthala, a form of Lord Vishnu.
2. Temple has several halls and a unique shrine designed as chariot.
3. A feature of temple complexes is the chariot streets that extended from temple Gopuram in a straight line.
4. These streets were paved with stone slabs and lined with pillared pavilions in which merchants set up their shops.

Part – C

Question 13.
Explain how Non-Cooperation Movement made Gandhiji a national leader.
OR
Explain why some scholars see partition of India as the culmination of communal politics. [8]
Answer:
About Non-Cooperation Movement, Louis Fisher wrote, “it became the name of epoch in the fife of India, the land of Gandhiji”. Non-Cooperation Movement was negative for British ruler but at the same time was peaceful and positive enough to be effective. It was in South Africa, he first focussed in distinctive technique of non-violent protest known as Satyagrah and promoted harmony between religion.

1. He successfully organised Satyagraha at Champaranl (1917), Ahmedabad and Khera (1918). ,Ths was the beginning of Gandhiji’s popularity among the public.
2. After Jallianwala Bagh massacre, he called for a campaign of non-cooperation with British rule and joined hands with Khilafat movement.
3. Gandhiji became popular amongst Indians because he dressed like them, lived like them and spoke their language.
4. When he was in prison in 1924, he devoted himself in constructive work like promotion of home spun khadi clothes, abolition of untouchability, Hindu-Muslim unity.
5. He also promoted the concept of self rule through the charkha.
6. Gandhiji displayed a concern for the laboring poor of India, as he believed that salvation for India could come only through the farmers and workers who constituted the majority of the Indian population.(reference to BHU speech)
7. He wanted Indian nationalism, from being an elite phenomenon- a creation of lawyers doctors and landlords, to nationalism more suitably representative of the Indian people as a whole.
8. He popularised Satyagraha.
9. Non-Cooperation-a much wider and popular Movement in terms of participation from all sections, widespread over India, participation by both Hindus and Muslims-Khilafat & Non Cooperation, a united Challenge to British imperialism like never before under his leadership.

OR

1. British adopted a policy of divide and rule and encouraged communal politics in India.
2. Encouragement to formation of Muslim League. The demand of Separate Electorate for Muslims was agreed to by the British in 1909 which began to dig a big gap between the two communties.
3. Govt, of India Act 1919 expanded communal electorate and thus the gap between the two kept increasing.
4. Development in 1920s. — Tabligh, Tanzim and Shuddhi movement music before mosque.
5. Jinnah’s two nation theory also instigated feelings of alienation and difference between the two communities.
6. In 1940 in the Lahore session, the Muslim League placed their demand for autonomous province with Muslim majority. Aim of the Muslim League was to establish an autonomous state in the north western and eastern parts of India.
7. Indian National Congress began the Quit India Movement but the Muslim League did not support it.
8. The proposal of the Cabinet Mission was first accepted by the Muslim League and the Congress but soon the Muslim League rejected it and refused to take part in the Interim Govt.
   Communal violence in 1946, erupted in 1946, which was a result of the direct action called on by the Muslim League and other such factors.
9. Mountbatten Plan endorsed a separate nation for Muslims and partitioned India.
10. Hindu Muslim riots after partition of India.

Part – D

Question 14.
Read the following excerpt carefully and answer the questions that follow : [7 × 3 = 21]
The world beyond the palace
Just as the Buddha’s teachings were compiled by his followers, the teachings of Mahavira were also / , recorded by his disciples. These were often in the form of stories, which could appeal to ordinary people. Here is one example, from a Prakrit text i, known as the Uttaradhyayana Sutta, describing how a queen named Kamalavati tried to persuade her husband to renounce the world :

If the whole world and all its treasures were yours, f you would not be satisfied, nor would all this be able to save you. When you die, O king and leave all things behind, dhamma alone, and nothing else, will save you. As a bird dislikes the cage, so do I dislike (the world). I shall live as a nun without offspring, without desire, without the love of gain, and without hatred ….

Those who have enjoyed pleasures and renounced them, move about like the wind, and go wherever they please, unchecked like birds in their flight ….
Leave your large kingdom ….. abandon what pleases the senses, be without attachment and property, then practice severe penance, being firm of energy ….
(14.1) Who compiled the teachings of Buddha and Mahavira ? [2]
(14.2) Explain how did the queen try to convince her husband to renounce the world. [2]
(14-3) Describe any three principles of Jainism. [3]
Answer:
(14.1) (i) Buddha’s teachings were compiled by his followers at a council of elders of senior monks,
(ii) Mahavira’s teachings were also recorded/ compiled by his disciples.

(14.2) The queen Kamlawati tried to persuade her husband to renounce the world. She said “The treasures of whole world will be able to save you. When you die, O King and leave all things behind, dhamma alone, and nothing else, will save you. As a bird dislikes the cage, I do dislike the world. I shall live like a nun without offspring, without desire, without the love of gain, and without hatred”.

(14.3) The three principles of Jainism are :
(a) Life exists even in rocks and stones normally considered as non-living.
(b) The principle of non-violence is practised in extreme form in Jainism. No harm should be caused to anyone* including non-living.
(c) The cycle of birth and re-birth is shaped through karma, one must practice ascetism and penance to free oneself from this cycle of Karma. It is possible when one renounces the world. So, one has to live in monastery to attain salvation.
(d) Jain monks and nuns have to take vows to observe the following:

1. Not to kill anyone.
2. Not to steal anything.
3. Not tell lies.
4. Not to possess property.
5. To observe celibacy.

Question 15.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Irrigating trees and fields
This is an excerpt from the Babumama that describes the irrigation devices the emperor observed in Northern India:
The greater part of Hindustan country is situated on level land. Many though its towns and cultivated lands are, it nowhere has running waters. For water is not at all a necessity in cultivating crops and orchards. Autumn crops grow by the downpour of the rains themselves; and strange it is that spring crops grow even when no rains fall. (However) to young trees water is made to flow by means of buckets or wheels….

In Lahore, Dipalpur (both in present-day Pakistan) and those other parts, people water by means of a wheel. They make two circles of rope long enough to suit the depths of the well, fix strips of wood between them, and on these fasten pitchers. The ropes with the wood and attached pitchers are put over the wheel-well. At one end of the wheel-axle a second wheel is fixed, and close to it another on an upright axle. The last wheel “the bullock turns; its teeth catch in the teeth of the second (wheel), and thus the wheel with the pitchers is turned. A trough is set where the water empties from the pitchers and from this the water is conveyed everywhere. In Agra, Chandwar, Bayana (all in present-day Uttar Pradesh) and those parts again, people water with a bucket. At the well-edge they set up a fork of wood, having a roller adjusted between the forks, tie a rope to a large bucket, put the rope over a roller, and tie its other end to the bullock. One person must drive the bullock, another empty the bucket.
(15.1) Explain the irrigation technology as observed by the Emperor. [2]
(15.2) What was the necessity of irrigation ? [2]
(15.3) Explain any three factors which are responsible for the expansion of agriculture in India. [3]
Answer:
(15.1) The Emperor observed that technology used for irrigation was that people water by means of a wheel. They make two circles of rope to suit the depth of the well, fix strips of wood between them, and on this fasten pitchers (Earthen pot, Ghara). Such ropes are put over the wheel-well. At one end of the wheel axle, a second wheel is fixed. And close to it another on an upright axle. The last wheel the bullock turns and thus the wheel with pitchers is turned. A trough is set where the water empties from the pitchers and from this water is conveyed everywhere.
(15.2) Most of Hindustan country is situated on level land. This had many towns and cultivated lands, but nowhere has running water. Water was required to water young trees.
(15.3) Factors which are responsible for the expansion of agriculture in India :

1. Its level land which can be cultivated without running water.
2. Autumn crops can grow by the down pour of the rains.
3. Spring crops grow even when no rains fall.
4. Better irrigation technology.
5. The abundance of land.
6. Availability of labour.
7. Mobility of peasants.

Question 16.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow :
Escaping to the countryside
This is how the famous poet Mirza Ghalib described what the people of Delhi did when the British forces occupied the city in 1857.

Smiting the enemy and driving him before them, the victors (i.e., the British) overran the city in all directions. All whom they found in the street they cut down…. For two to three days every road in the city, from the Kashmiri Gate to Chandni Chowk, was a battlefield. Three gates—the Ajmeri, the Turkman and the Delhi—were still held by the rebels … At the naked spectacle of this vengeful wrath and malevolent hatred the colour fled from men’s faces, and a vast concourse of men and women took to precipitate flight through these three gates. Seeking the little villages and shrines outside the city, they drew breath to wait until such time as might favour their return.
(16.1) Who was Mirza Ghalib ? What did he describe ? [2]
(16.2) Why did British attack Delhi ? Give two reasons. [2]
(16.3) How did the people escape from Delhi and where did they take shelter ? [3]
Answer:
(16.1) Mirza Ghalib the famous Urdu poet who described what the people of Delhi did when the British forces occupied the city in 1857.
(16.2) Reasons of British attack on Delhi:

1. Rebels recognised the symbolic value of Delhi.
2. To establish the British control over the heels.
3. To uproot the parallel government set up by the rebels.
4. To suppress the revolt of 1857.

(16.3) As the three gates, the Ajmeri Gate, Turkman gate and Delhi gate were in control of rebels, people who saw with naked eyes, spectacle of this vengeful wrath and malevolent hatred, fled through these three gates. Seeking the little villages and shrines outside the city, wherever they could found safe shelter.

Part – E

Question 17.
(17.1) On the given outline political map of India, locate and label the following with appropriate symbols : [1 × 2 = 2]
(a) Ajmer, a territory under Mughals.
(b) Gwalior, a centre of the Revolt of 1857.

(17.2) On the same map three places related to the mature Harappan sites has been marked as A, B, C. Identify them and write their names correctly on the lines drawn near them. [3]
Answer:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2017 Delhi Set – II

Part – A

Question 1.
Explain how different methods of irrigation were developed for agriculture in the Harappan sites. [2]
Answer:
Canals and wells were constructed for irrigation. Traces of canals e.g., Shortugai in Afghanistan and water reservoirs e.g., Dholavira.

Question 3.
Why did the Santhals rebel against Zamindars and Colonial Power ? Give two reasons. [2]
Answer:

1. Santhals were settled in Danim-i-koh area.
2. Moneylenders charged the high rate of interest and took over their land when they were unable to pay the money.
3. The state was levying heavy taxes on them. The ‘ Zamindars also had begun to increase their hold over their Damin area.

So, the Santhals revolted against the exploitations of the zamindars, moneylenders and the state.

Part – B

Question 4.
Describe the contribution of John Marshall in the Indian archaeology. [4]
Answer:
John Marshall is a famous archaeologist who studied Harappan civilization. Marshall tended to excavate along regular horizontal units, measured uniformly through the mound, ignoring the straight lines of the site. This meant that all the artefacts recovered from the same unit were grouped together, even they are found at different layers. As a result valuable information about the contexts of these findings have been found. There are also evidences of seals, toys, games and stringed musical instruments in Indus valley This shows that society at that time was civilised.

Question 5.
“The nobility was recruited consciously by the Mughal rulers from diverse ethnic and religious groups.” Justify. [4].
Answer:
One of the most important pillar of Mughal state was its corps or officers, known as nobility. Nobility was created from diverse ethnic and religious groups which ensured that no faction was large enough to challenge the authority of state. People from many races (Arabs, Iranians, Turks, Tajiks, Kurds, Tatars, Russians, Abyssinians, people from Egypt, Syria, Iraq, Arabia, Iran, Khurasan, Turan) have sought refuge in the imperial court. They were as one bouquet of flowers held together by loyality to the Emperor. Aurangzeb appointed Rajputs to high positions, and under him the Marathas accounted for a sizeable number within the body of officers.

All holders to the government offices held ranks or mansabs having designation of ‘Zat’. It was the indication of the position in the imperial hierarchy and the salary of Mansabdar, and the second one was of Sawar indicating the number of horse men required to maintain in service.
The nobles participated in military campaigns and also served as officers of the empire in provinces.

Question 6.
“In the late 12th Century, the Chishtis adapted to the local environment and adopted features of Indian devotional traditions.” Explain. [4]
Answer:
The Chishtis in the subcontinent adapted to local environment and adopted features of Indian devotional traditions :

1. Life in the Chishtikhanqah sirnilar to Ashram— The khanqah was the centre of social life. It comprised several small rooms and a big hall where inmates and visitors lived and prayed. The Shaikh lived in a small room on the roof of the hall where he met visitors in the morning and evening.
2. Hindus Jogis and qalandars travellers came seeking discipleship from the Shaikh.Visitors, poets such as Amir Hassan, Amir Khusrau and the court historian Ziyauddin Barani wrote about the Shaikh.
3. They received the patronage of royal visitors. Verses of Baba Farid were incorporated in the Guru Granth Sahib.
4. Short and long poems like “PremAkhyan “were attributed to Chishti Sufis.
5. The Chishtis accepted donations in cash and kind.

Part – C

Question 13.
Examine why Quit India Movement was started and how do you think the Quit India Movement was genuinely a mass movement.
OR
“Oral testimonies and memories are the important sources for constructing the history of partition of India.” Examine the statement. [8]
Answer:
“Quit India Movement” was started in 1942 because :

1. Failure of Cripps Mission led to the launch of Quit India Movement in August 1942 for the liquidation of British imperialism.
2. It was a mass movement bringing into the ambit, hundred of thousands ordinary Indians. Younger activitists organised strikes and acts of sabotage all over the country.
3. Particularly active in the underground resistance were socialist members of the Congress, such as Jayaprakash Narayan. In several districts, such as Satara in the west and Medinipur in the east, “independent” governments were proclaimed.
4. It especially energised the young who in large number left their colleges and joined the Congress, whose leaders were captivated in jails.
5. Jinnah and his colleagues worked patiently to expand their influence.
   In June 1944, Gandhiji was released from jail.

OR
Oral narratives and memories are the important sources for constructing the history of partition of India.

(i) Millions of people viewed partition in terms of the suffering and challenges of times. For them it was no more constitutional divisions or just the party politics of the Muslim League, Congress and others. For them, it meant the unexpected alterations in life as it is unfolded between 1946 and 1950 and beyond requiring psychological, emotional and social adjustments. Memories and experiences shape the reality of an event.

(ii) Oral history allows historians to broaden, the boundaries of their discipline by rescuing from oblivion, the lived experience of the poor and the powerless. The oral history of partition has succeeded in exploring the experiences of those men and women whose experience has hitherto been ignored, taken for granted or mentioned only in passing in mainstream history. Oral testimonies become more important because official reports lack personal experiences.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2017 Delhi Set – III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Part – A

Question 2.
Explain the techniques of craft production, especially bead making at the Harappan sites of Lothal and Chanhudaro. [2]
Answer:

1. The variety of materials used to make beads is remarkable: stones like carnelian, jasper, crystal, quartz and steatite;
2. Metals like copper, bronze and gold; and shell, faience and terracotta or burnt clay.
3. Steatite, a very soft stone, was easily worked.
4. Some beads were molded out of a paste made with steatite powder.

Part – B

Question 4.
Describe the drainage system of the Harappan cities. [4]
Answer:
The most distinctive feature of Harappan cities was the carefully planned drainage system. In the lower town, the roads and streets were laid out along an approximate “grid” pattern, intersecting at right angles. If the domestic waste water has to flow into street drains, every house needed to have atleast one wall along a street.

Every house was connected to the street drains. The main channels were made of bricks set is mortar and were covered with loose bricks or lime stones that could be removed for cleaning. House drains were first emptied into a sump or cess pit into which solid matter settled while waste water flowed out into the street drains. Very long drainage channels were provided at intervals with sumps for cleaning. Drainage systems were not unique to the larger cities but were found in smaller sedements as well.

Question 6.
“Islam and its principles permeated far and wide through the sub-continent.” Explain the statement. [4]
Answer:
Islam and its principles were permeated far and wide through the subcontinent due to the following:

1. Islam said that there is one God,’Allah and Prophet Mohammad its messenger.
2. Offering the prayers five times a day (Namaz/Salat)
3. Giving alms (Zakat).
4. Fasting during the month of Ramzan.
5. Performing the pilgrimage to Mecca (Haj).

Question 8.
Critically examine ‘the Fifth Report’ of late Eighteenth century. [4]
Answer:

1. The fifth report was submitted to British Parliament in 1813 about administration activities of “East India Company”.
2. There were many groups in Britain who were opposed to the monopoly of trade that “East India Company” had with India and China. These groups wanted revocation against this rule for lifting monopoly.
3. It ran into 1002 pages, of which over 800 pages were appendices that reproduced petitions of zamindars and ryots, reports of collectors from different districts.
4. It carried statistical tables on revenue returns, and notes on the revenue and judicial administration of Bengal and Madras.
5. Information about company misrule and maladministration was hotly debated in Britain and incidence of the greed and corruption of company officials was widely publicised in the press. The British parliament passed a series of acts in late 18^th century to regulate the control of company rule in India and appointed committees to enquire into the such report produced by a select committee.

Part – C

Question 13.
Examine why did Gandhiji start the Salt Satyagraha. Why was Salt Satyagraha a notable event ? [8]
OR
Examine the outcome of the provincial elections of 1937 and explain the role of Congress ministeries and Muslim League on it.
Answer:

1. Mahatma Gandhi led a march against the British monopoly in the manufacture and sale of salt.
2. He gave his blessing to the all India campaign against in opposition to All White Simon Commission and the Bardoli Satyagaraha in 1928.
3. He supported the Lahore session of INC. He gave instructions for the observation of ‘Independence Day’ and hoisting of national flag bn 26th January, 1930.
4. Mobilized a wider discontent against British rule.
5. 12 March, 1930 Gandhiji broked the salt law meanwhile, parallel salt marches were being conducted.
6. For Swaraj, Hindus, Muslims, Parsis and Sikhs were united steps towards Swaraj.
7. It was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers.
8. Every strata of people joined the revolt, students, lawyers, officials, peasants, workers, women, traders all joined movement. It was a mass movement.

The salt march was notable for at least three reasons :

1. Mahatma Gandhi got the world attention. The march was widely covered by the European and American press.
2. Women participated in large numbers.
3. The salt march forced upon the British the realization that their Raj would not last forever.

OR

1. Only about 10 to 12 per cent of the population enjoyed the right to vote.
2. The Congress did well in the elections, winning an absolute majority in five out of eleven provinces and forming governments in seven of them.
3. It did badly in the constituencies reserved for Muslims, but the Muslim League also fared poorly.
4. The League failed to win a single seat in the North West Frontier Province (NWFP)
5. In the United Provinces, the Muslim League wanted to form a joint government with the Congress
6. The Congress had won an absolute majority in .the province, so it rejected the offer.
7. Some scholars argue that this rejection convinced the League that if India remained united, then Muslims would find it difficult to gain political power because they would remain a minority.
8. The League represented Muslim interests.
9. The Congress ministries also contributed to the widening rift.
10. In the United Provinces, the party had rejected the Muslim League proposal for a coalition
    government partly because the League tended to support landlordism, which the Congress wished to abolish.
11. The congress ministries resigned in October 1939.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2017 Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2013 Outside Delhi

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2013 Outside Delhi Set-I

Question 1.
Two charges of magnitudes -2Q and +Q are located at point (a, 0) and (4a, 0) respectively. What is the electric flux due to these charges through a sphere of radius ‘3a’ with its center at the origin ?
Answer:
Gauss’s theorem states that the electric flux through a closed surface enclosing a charge
is equal to times the magnitude of the charge enclosed. The sphere encloses a charge of -2Q thus

Question 2.
How does the mutual inductance of a pairs of coils change when
(i) distance between the coils is increased and
(ii) number of turns in the coils is increased ? [1]
Answer :
(i) As Φ = MI, with the increase in the distance between the coils, the magnetic flux linked with the stationary coil decreases and hence the mutual inductance of the two coils will decrease.
(ii) Mutual inductance of two coils can be found out by
M = μ₀ n₁ n₂ AI
i.e., M ∝ n₁ n₂ so with the increase in number of turns, mutual inductance increases. turns mutual inductance increases.

Question 3.
The graph shown in the figure represents a plot of current versus voltage for given semiconductor. Identify the region, if any, over which the semiconductor has a negative resistance. [1]

Answer :
Resistance of a material can be found out by the slope of the V-I curve. Part BC of the curve shows the negative resistance as with the increase in voltage, current decreases.

Question 4.
Two identical cells, each of emf E , having negligible internal resistance, are connected in parallel with each other across an external resistance R. What is the current through this resistance ? [1]

Answer :
The cells are arranged as shown in the circuit diagram. As the internal resistance is negligible,
so total resistance of the circuit = R.
So, current through the resistance, I = E/R.

Question 5.
The motion of copper plate is damped when it is allowed to oscillate between the two poles of a magnet. What is the cause of this damping ? [1]
Answer :
As the copper plates oscillate in the magnetic field between the two poles of the magnet, there is a continuous change of magnetic flux linked with the copper plate. Due to this, eddy currents are set up in the copper plate which try to oppose the motion of the plate according to the Lenz’s law and finally bring it to rest.

Question 6.
Define the activity of a given radioactive substance. Write its S.I. unit. [1]
Answer :
Activity of a radioactive substance is defined as number of radioactive disintegrations taking place in one second in the sample.
S. I. unit of activity is Becquerel (Bq).
1 Becquerel = 1 Bq = 1 decay per second.

Question 7.
Welders wear special goggles or face masks with glass windows to protect their eyes from electromagnetic radiations. Name the radiations and write the range of their frequency. [1]
Answer:
Welders wear special goggles with glass windows to protect the eyes from ultraviolet rays (UV rays). The range of frequency of UV rays is 8 x 10¹⁴ Hz to 3 x 10¹⁶ Hz.

Question 8.
Write the expression for the de-Broglie wavelength associated with a charged particle having charge ‘q’ and mass ‘m’, when it is accelerated by a potential V. [1]
Answer:
Let v be the velocity gained by the given charge particle when it is accelerated through a potential difference of ‘V’ volts.
Kinetic energy of the particle
Kinetic energy of the particle = Work done on the particle by electric field.

de-Broglie wavelength (λ,) associated with the particle,

Question 9.
Draw a typical output characteristics of an n-p-n transistor in CE configuration. Show how these characteristics can be used to determine output resistance. [1]

Question 10.
A parallel beam of light of 500 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 1 m away. It is observed that the first minimum is at a distance of 2.5 mm from the center of the screen. Calculate the width of the slit. [5]
Answer :
The distance of the n^th minimum from the center of the screen is,

Where, D = distance of slit from screen = 1 m
λ = wavelength of the light = 500 x 10^-9 m
a = width of the slit
For first minimum, n = 1
Thus, 

Question 11.
A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area as that of the plates of a parallel plate capacitor but has the thickness d/2, where d is the separation between the plates. Find out the expression for its capacitance when the slab is inserted between the plates of the capacitor. [2]
Answer:
Initially when there is vacuum between the two plates, the capacitance of the two parallel plate is

Where, A is the area of parallel plates.
Suppose that the capacitor is connected to a battery, an electric field Eo is produced.
Now, if we insert the dielectric slab of thickness
t = d/2 the electric field reduces to E.
Now, the gap between plates is divided in two parts, for distance t there is electric field E and for the remaining distance (d -t) the electric field is E₀
If V is the potential difference between the plates of the capacitor, then V = Et + E₀ (d-t).

Question 12.
A capacitor, made of two parallel plates each of plate area A and separation d, being charged by an external ac source. Show that the displacement current inside the capacitor is same as the current charging the capacitor. [2]
Answer :
Let the alternating emf charging the plates of capacitor be E = E₀ sin ωt.


From equations (i) and (ii), the displacement current inside the capacitor is same as the current charging the capacitor.

Question 13.
Explain the term ‘drift velocity’ of electrons in a conductor. Hence obtain the expression for the current through a conductor in terms of ‘drift velocity’. [3]
OR
Describe briefly, with the help of a circuit diagram, how a potentiometer is used to determine the internal resistance of a cell.
Answer :
Drift velocity of electrons in a conductor : Metals contain a large number of free electrons. These electrons are in continuous random motion. Due to the random motion, the free electrons collide with positive metal ions with high frequency and undergo change in direction at each collision. So the average velocity for the electrons in a conductor is zero. Now, when this conductor is connected to a source of emf, an electric field is established in the conductor, such that

Where, V = potential difference across the conductor and,
L = length of the conductor.
The electric field exerts an electrostatic force ‘-Ee’ on each free electron in the conductor. The acceleration of each electron is given by

Where, e = electric charge on the electron and
m = mass of electron.
The negative sign indicates the force and hence the acceleration is in a direction opposite to the direction of the electric field. Due to this acceleration, the electrons attain a velocity in addition to thermal velocity in the direction opposite to that of electric field. The average velocity of all the free electrons in the conductor is called the drift velocity of free electrons of the conductor.
Thus, the expression for the drift velocity in electric field (E)
………. (i)
Where T= relaxation time between two successive collision,
Let n = number density of electrons in the conductor.
No. of free electrons in the conductor = nAL_e
Total charge on the conductor, q = nALe. Time taken by this charge to cover the length L of the conductor,

OR
Measurement of internal resistance of a cell using potentiometer is shown in figure. The cell of emf, E is connected across a resistance box (R) through key K₂ .



Question 14.
A convex lens of focal length f₁ is kept in contact with a concave lens of focal length f₂ . Find the focal length of the combination. [2]
Answer:
For convex lens, focal length, f = f₁ and for concave lens, the focal length,f= – f₂
The equivalent focal length of a combination of convex lens and concave lens is given as :

Question 15.
In the block diagram of a simple modulator for obtaining an AM signal, shown in the figure, identify the boxes A and B. Write their functions. [2]

Question 16.
In the circuit shown in the figure, identify the equivalent gate of the circuit and make its truth table.  [2]

Question 17.
(a) For a given a.c., i = i_m sin ωt show that the average power dissipated in a resistor R over a complete cycle is

(b) A light bulb is rated at 100 W for a 220 V a.c. supply. Calculate the resistance of the bulb. [2]
Answer:
(a) The average power dissipated

(b) Power of the bulb, P = 100 W and voltage, V= 220 V.

Question 18.
A rectangular conductor LMbfO is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T. The field is directed perpendicular to the plane of the conductor. When the arm MN of length of 20 cm is moved towards left with a velocity of 10 ms-1, calculate the emf induced in the arm. Given the resistance of the arm to be 5 Ω (assuming that other arms are of negligible resistance) find the value of the current in the arm. [2]

A wheel with 8 metallic spokes each 50 cm long is rotated with a speed of 120 rev/min in a plane normal to the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field. The Earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.4 G and the angle of dip is 60°. Calculate the emf induced between the axle and the rim of the wheel. How will the value of emf be affected if the number of spokes were increased ?
Answer:
Let ON be x at same instant the emf induced in the loop = e.


The value of emf induced is independent of the number of spokes as the emf across the spokes are in parallel. So, the emf will be unaffected with the increase in spokes.

Question 19.
Define the current sensitivity of a galvanometer. Write S.I. unit. Figure shows two circuits each having a galvanometer and a battery of 3 V. When the galvanometers in each arrangement do not show any deflection, obtain the ratio R1/R2. [2]

Answer :
Current sensitivity of a galvanometer is defined as the deflection in galvanometer per unit current. Its SI unit is radians/ampere.

For balanced Wheatstone bridge, there will. _ no deflection in the galvanometer.


For the equivalent circuit, when the Wheatstone bridge is balanced, there will be no deflection in the galvanometer.

Question 20.
A wire AB is carrying a steady current 12 A and is lying on the table. Another wire CD carrying 5 A is held directly above AB at a height of 1 mm. Find the mass per unit length of the wire CD so that it remains suspended at its position when left free. Give the direction of the current flowing in CD with respect to that in AB. [Take the value of g = 10 ms^-2]. [2]
Answer :
Force per unit length between the current carrying wires is given as :

The direction of current in CD is opposite to the direction of current AB. because in this they will repel each other and CD will remain suspended.

Question 21.
Draw V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode. Answer the following questions, giving reasons:
(i) Why is the current under reverse bias almost independent of the applied potential up to a critical voltage ?
(ii) Why does the reverse current show a sudden increase at the critical voltage ?
Name any semiconductor device which operates under the reverse bias in the breakdown region. [3]
Answer:
V-I characteristics of p-n junction diode:

(i) Under the reverse bias condition, the holes of p-side are attracted towards the negative terminal of the battery and the electrons of the n-side are attracted towards the positive terminal of the battery. This increases the depletion layer and the potential barrier. However the minority charge carriers are drifted across the junction producing a small current. At any temperature the number of minority carriers is constant and very small so there is the small current at any applied potential. This is the reason for the current under reverse bias to be almost independent of applied potential. At the critical voltage, avalanche break down takes place which results in a sudden flow of large current.

(ii) At the critical voltage, the holes in the n-side and conduction electrons in the p-side are accelerated due to the reverse-bias voltage. These minority carriers acquire sufficient kinetic energy from the electric field and collide with valence electrons. Thus, the bond is finally broken and the valence electrons move into the conduction band resulting in enormous flow of electrons and thus result in formation of hole-electron pairs. Thus, there is a sudden increase in the current at the critical voltage.
Zener diode is a semiconductor device which operates under the reverse bias condition in the breakdown region.

Question 22.
Draw a labelled ray diagram of a refracting telescope. Define its magnifying power and write the expression for it.
Write two important limitations of a refracting telescope over a reflecting type telescope. [3]
Answer:
Refracting telescope :

Magnifying power : The magnifying power is the ratio of the angle (3 subtended at the eye by the final image to the angle a which the object subtends at the lens or the eye.

Limitations of refracting telescope over reflecting type telescope:
(i) Refracting telescope suffers from chromatic aberration as it uses large sized lenses.
(ii) The requirement of big lenses tend to be very heavy and therefore, difficult to make and support by their edges.

Question 23.
Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation and point out any two characteristic properties of photons on which this equation is based.
Briefly explain the three observed features which can be explained by this equation. [4]
Answer:
Einstein’s photoelectric effect equation:

The two characteristics properties of the photon on which this equation is based :
(i) The light travel in the form of photons i.e. small packet of enery and each photon has energy hv.
(ii) Each photon interact with one electron. Three observed features that can be explained by this equation.
(i) When v < v₀, K_max becomes negative. The negative value of K./E. has no physical significance. Hence, no photoelectric effect is possible below there shold frequency.
(ii) When v > v₀/ K_max ∝ v, i.e. max. K.E. of the emitted photo electrons depends linearly on the frequency of incident radiations.
(iii) It is clear from the photoelectric equation that the maximum K.E. of photo electrons is independent of intensity of incident reactions.

Question 24.
Name the type of waves which are used for line of sight (LOS) communication. What is the range of their frequencies ?
A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a height of 20 m and the height of the receiving antenna is 45 m. Calculate the maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication in LOS mode. (Radius of the Earth = 6.4 x 10⁶m) [5]

Question 25.
(a) What is linearly polarized light. Describe briefly using a diagram how sunlight is polarized.
(b) Unpolarised light is incident on a Polaroid. How would the intensity of transmitted light change when the Polaroid is rotated ? [5]
Answer:
(a) The light in which the vibrations of electric vector are restricted to a particular plane, is called plane polarized light.

The incident sunlight is unpolarised. The dot and double arrows show the polarization in the perpendicular and in the plane of the figure respectively. Under the influence of the electric field of the incident wave, the electrons in the molecules of the atmosphere acquire components of motion in both these directions. For an observer looking at 90° to the direction of the sun, the charges accelerating parallel to the double arrows do not radiate energy towards this observer since their acceleration has no transverse component. The radiation scattered by the molecule is therefore, represented by dots. It is linearly polarized light perpendicular to the plane of the figure.

(b) If the unpolarised light is incident on a Polaroid, the intensity is reduced by half. Even if the Polaroid is rotated by angle θ the average

Thus, the intensity of the transmitted light remains unchanged when the Polaroid is rotated.

Question 26.
One day Chetan’s mother developed a severe stomach ache all of a sudden. She rushed to the doctor who suggested for an immediate endoscopy test and gave an estimate of expenditure for the same. Chetan immediately contacted his class teacher and shared the information with her. The class teacher arranged for the money and rushed to the hospital. On realizing that Chetan belonged to a below average income group family, even the doctor offered concession for the test fee. The test was conducted successfully. Answer the following questions based on the above information: [5]
(a) Which principle in optics is made use of in endoscopy ?
(b) Briefly explain the values reflected in the action taken by the teacher.
(c) In what way do you appreciate the response of the doctor on the given situation ?
Answer:
(a) Endoscopy is based on total internal reflection principle. It has tubes which are made up of optical fibres and are used for transmitting and receiving electrical signals, which are converted into light by suitable transducer.
(c) Doctor gave monetary help to Chetan by understanding his poor financial condition

Question 27.
(a) Using Biot-Savart’s law, derive the expression for the magnetic field in the vector form at a point on the axis of a circular current loop.
(b) What does a toroid consist of ? Find out the expression for the magnetic field inside a toroid for N turns of the coil having the average radius r and carrying a current I. Show that the magnetic field in the open space inside and exterior to the toroid is zero. [5]
OR
(a) Draw a schematic sketch of a cyclotron. Explain clearly the role of crossed electric and magnetic field in accelerating the charge. Hence derive the expression for the kinetic energy acquired by the particles.
(b) An α-particle and a photon are released from the center of the cyclotron and made to accelerate.
(i) Can both be accelerated at the same cyclotron frequency ? Give reason to justify your answer.
(ii) When they are accelerated in turn, which of the two will have higher velocity at the exit slit of the dees ?
Answer:
(a) Magnetic field on the axis of a circular loop
I → Current
R → Radii
X → Axis
x → Distance of OP
dl → Conducting element of the loop
According to Biot-Savart’s law, the magnetic field at P is

dB has two components dB_x and dB_y. d.B_y components being in opposite direction cancel out each other and dB_x component being in same direction added up.


(b) Toroid is a hollow circular ring on which a large number of turns of a wire are closely wound. Figure shows a sectional view of the toroid. The direction of the magnetic field inside is clockwise as per the right-hand thumb rule for circular loops. Three circular Amperian loops 1, 2 and 3 are shown by dashed lines.

By symmetry, the magnetic field should be tangential to each of them and constant in magnitude for a given loop.
Let the magnetic field inside the toroid be B. Then by Ampere’s circuital law,

Where, L is the length of the loop for which B is tangential, I is the current enclosed by one loop and N is the number of turns.
We find, L = 2πr

The current threads the ring as many times are there are turns in the solenoid, therefore total current in the solenoid is NI.


Open space inside the toroid encloses no current thus,
I= 0.
Hence, B = 0
Open space exterior to the toroid :
Each turn of current carrying wire is cut twice by the loop 3. Thus, the current coming out of the plane of the paper is cancelled exactly by the current going into it. Thus,
1= 0, and B = 0
OR
(a) Schematic sketch of cyclotron :
The combination of crossed electric and magnetic field is used to increase the energy of the charged particle. Cyclotron uses the fact that the frequency of revolution of the charged particle in a magnetic field is independent of its energy. Inside the dees particle is shielded from the electric field and magnetic field acts on the particle and makes it to go round in a circular path. Every time the particle moves from one dee to the other it comes under the influence of electric field which ensures to increase the energy of the particles as the sign of the electric field changed alternately. The increase in energy increases the radius of the circular path so the accelerated particle moves in a spiral path.




Thus, particles will not exit the dees with same velocity. The velocity of proton is twice the velocity of alpha particle.

Question 28.
(a) Define electric dipole moment. Is it a scalar or a vector ? Derive the expression for the electric field of a dipole at a point on the equatorial plane of the dipole.
(b) Draw the equipotential surfaces due to an electric dipole. Locate the points where the potential due to the dipole is zero. [5]
OR
Using Gauss’ law deduce the expression for the electric field due to a uniformly charged spherical conducting shell of radius R at a point
(i) outside and
(ii) inside the shell.
Plot a graph showing variation of electric field as a function of r > R and r < R. (r being the distance from the center of the shell)
Answer :
(a) Electric dipole moment : Electric dipole moment is defined as the product of magnitude of either charges and the distance between the positive and negative charge of the electric dipole. The strength of any electric dipole is measured by the magnitude of its electric dipole moment

In vector form it is written as where
the direction of is from negative charge to positive charge.
Electric Field of dipole at points on the equatorial plane:

Let P be the point on the equatorial plane of the dipole where electric field is to be calculated. Let its distance from either charge be r. The magnitude of the electric field due to the two charges +q and -q at P is given by


(b) Equipotential surface due to electric dipole:

The potential due to the dipole is zero at the line bisecting the dipole length.
OR
Electric field due to a uniformly charged thin spherical shell:

• When point P lies outside the spherical shell : Consider a spherical shell of radius R and center O. Let q be the charge on the spherical shell. Suppose that we have to calculate electric field at the point P at a distance r (r > R) from its center. Draw the Gaussian surface through point P so as to enclose the charged spherical shell. The Gaussian surface is a spherical shell of radius r and centre O.

• When point P lies inside the spherical shell : In such a case the Gaussian surface encloses no charge

Question 29.
Using Bohr’s postulates, derive the expression for the frequency of radiation emitted when electron in hydrogen atom undergoes transition from higher energy state (quantum number n_i)to the lower state, (n_f).
When electron in hydrogen atom jumps from energy state n_i = 4 to n_f = 3, 2, 1, identify the spectral series to which the emission lines belong. [5]
OR
(a) Draw the plot of binding energy per nucleon (BE/A) as a function of mass number. Write two important conclusions that can be drawn regarding the nature of nuclear source.
(b) Use this graph to explain the release of energy in both the processes of nuclear fusion and fission.
(c) Write the basic nuclear process of neutron undergoing P-decay. Why is the detection of neutrinos found very difficult ?
Answer:
In the hydrogen atom,


Now, according to Bohr’s frequency condition when electron in hydrogen atom undergoes transition from higher energy state to the lower energy state (n_f) is,



(a) Plot of binding energy per nucleon as the function of mass number A is given as below:

Following are the two conclusion that can be drawn regarding the nature of the nuclear force:

• The force is attractive and strong enough to produce a binding energy of few MeV per nucleon.
• The constancy of the binding energy in the range 30 < A < 170 is a consequence of the fact that the nuclear force is short range force.

(b) Nuclear fission : A very heavy nucleus (say, A = 240) has lower binding energy per nucleon as compared to the nucleus with A = 120. Thus, if the heavier nucleus breaks to tire lighter nucleus with high binding energy per nucleon, nucleons are tightly bound. This implies that energy will be released in the process which justifies the energy release in fission reaction.

Nuclear fusion: When two light nuclei (A < 10) are combined to form a heavier nuclei, the binding energy of the fused heavier nuclei is more than the binding energy per nucleon of the lighter nuclei. Thus the final system is more tightly bound than the initial system. Again the energy will be released in fusion reaction.

(c) The basic nuclear process of neutron undergoing (3-decay is given as :

Neutrinos are mass less and charge less particles. Neutrinos interact very weakly with matter that it becomes very difficult to detect them. That’s why the detection of neutrinos is found very difficult.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2013 Outside Delhi Set-II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous Set.

Question 1..
Two charges of magnitudes -3Q and +2Q are located at points (a, 0) and (4a, 0) respectively. What is the electric flux due to these charges through a sphere of radius ‘5a’ with its center at the origin.  [1]
Answer: According to Gauss’ theorem, the electric flux through a closed surface enclosing a charge is equal to times the magnitude of the charge enclosed.

The sphere enclose charge = -3Q + 2Q = -Q
∴  Total electric flux,

Question 2.
A light metal disc on the top of an electromagnet is thrown up as the current is switched on. Why ? Give reason. [2]
Answer :
A light metal disc on the top of an electromagnet is thrown up as the current is switched on because when the current flows through the electromagnet, the magnetic flux through the disc increases which leads in setting up an eddy current in the disc in the same direction of the electromagnetic current. So the upper surface of electromagnet and the lower surface of the disc acquire same polarity. Since body with same polarity repels, therefore, the disc is thrown up.

Question 3.
In the circuit shown in the figure, identify the equivalent gate of the circuit and make its truth table. [2]

Question 4.
A parallel beam of light of 600 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 1.2 m away. It is observed that the first minimum is at a distance of 3 mm from the centre of the screen. Calculate the width of the slit. [3]
Answer :
The distance of the nth minimum from the centre of the screen is,
where, D= distance of slit from screen
λ = wavelength of the light
a = width of the slit
For first minimum, n = 1

Question 5.
A wire AB is carrying a steady current of 10 A and is lying on the table. Another wire CD canying 6 A is held directly above AB at a height of 2 mm. Find the mass per unit length of the wire CD so that it remains suspended at its position when left free. Give the direction of the current flowing in CD with respect to that in AB. [Take the value of g = 10 ms-2] [3]
Answer :
Force per unit length between the current carrying wires is given as :

where
The current in wire AB, I₁ = 10 A
The current in wire CD, I₂ = 6 A
The distance between wires, r = 2 mm = 2 x 10^-3 m
Let m be the mass per unit length of wire CD.
As this force balances the weight of the wire CD

The direction of current in CD w.r.t. AB is opposite (anti parallel) because in this condition both the wires will repel each other.

Question 6.
Name the type of waves which are used for line of sight (LOS) communication. What is the range of their frequencies ?
A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a height of 45 m and the height of the receiving antenna is 80 m. Calculate the maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication in LOS mode. (Radius of the Earth = 6.4 × 10⁶ m) [4]

Question 24.
(a) For a given a.c., i = i_m sin ωt, show that the average power dissipated in a resistor R over a complete cycle is
(b) A light bulb is rated at 120 W for a 240 V a.c. supply. Calculate the resistance of the bulb. [5]
Answer:
(a) The average power dissipated

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2013 Outside Delhi Set-III

Note: Except (or the following questions all the remaining question have been asked in previous Sets.

Question 1.
Write the expression for the de-Broglie wavelength associated with a charged particle having charge ‘q’ and mass ‘m’, when it is ‘ accelerated by a potential V. [1]
Answer :
de-Broglie wavelength associated with the particle,

Question 2.
Two charges of magnitudes + 4Q and -Q are located at points (a, 0) and (-3a, 0) respectively. What is the electric flux due to these charges through a sphere of radius ‘2a’ with its center at the origin ? [1]
Answer :
Gauss’s theorem states that the electric flux through a closed surface enclosing
a charge is equal to times the magnitude of the charge encl0sed.

Question 3.
In the circuit shown in the figure, identify the equivalent gate of the circuit and make its truth table. [1]

Question 4.
A parallel beam of light of 450 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 1.5 m away. It is observed that the first minimum is at a distance of 3 mm from the center of the screen. Calculate the width of the slit. [2]
Answer :
The distance of the nth minimum from the center of the screen,

Question 5.
A wire AB is carrying a steady current of 6 A and is lying on the table. Another wire CD carrying 4 A is held directly above AB at a height of 1 mm. Find the mass per unit length of the wire CD so that it remains suspended at its position when left free. Give the direction of the current flowing in CD with respect to that in AB. [Take the value of g = 10 ms^-2] [3]
Answer :
Force per unit length between the current carrying wire is given as :

The current in CD is in opposite direction to that in AB than they will repel each other and CD wire remain suspended in air.

Question 6.
A light bulb is rated at 125 W for a 250 V a.c. supply. Calculate the resistance of the bulb. [3]
Answer:
Power of the bulb, P = 125 W Voltage,
V = 250 V The resistance of the bulb is given as

Question 7.
Name the type of waves which are used for line of sight (LOS) communication. What is the range of their frequencies ?
A transmitting antenna at the top of a power has a height of 45 m and the receiving antenna is on the ground. Calculate the maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication in LOS mode. (Radius of the Earth = 6.4 x 10⁶ m) [5]

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2013 Outside Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2015 Outside Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 80

General Instructions:

• All question in both sections are compulsory.
• Marks for questions are indicated against each questions.
• Question Nos. 1-4 and 13-16 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 marks each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
• Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18 are short- answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
• Question No. 7-9 and 19-21 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
• Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24 are long- answer questions carrying 6 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
• Answer should be brief and to the point and the above words limits should be adhered to as far as possible.

** Answer is not given due to change in the present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2015 Outside Delhi Set – I

Section – A

Question 1.
Define indifference curve. [1]
Answer:
Indifference curve is a curve that depicts various combinations of two goods that provides a consumer with the same level of satisfaction. In other words, it shows those combinations of two goods between which the consumer is indifferent.

Question 2.
If due to fall in the price of good X, demand for good Y rises, the two goods are : (choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Substitutes
(b) Complements
(c) Not related
(d) Competitive
Answer:
(b) Complements.

Question 3.
If Marginal Rate of Substitution is increasing throughout, the Indifference Curve will be : (choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Downward sloping convex
(b) Downward sloping concave
(c) Downward sloping straight line
(d) Upward sloping convex
Answer:
(b) Downward sloping concave.

Question 4.
Giving reason comment on the shape of Production Possibilities curve based on the following schedule: [3]

Answer:
Based on the below schedule, we can say that PPC is concave to origin. This is because as the production increases, to produce each additional unit of Good X, more and more units of Good Y need to be sacrificed. In other words, the opportunity cost of producing one good in terms of another increases.


Thus, the shape of PPC is concave which can be attributed to the law of increasing opportunity cost.

Question 5.
What is likely to be the impact of “Make in India” appeal to the foreign investors by the Prime Minister of India, on the production possibilities frontier of India? Explain.
OR
What is likely to be the impact of efforts towards reducing unemployment on the production potential of the economy? Explain. [3]
Answer:
“Make in India” appeal to the foreign investors by the Prime Minister of India will lead

to the large scale inflow of foreign capital which will result in the increase in the availability of resources in the economy, thereby shifting the Production Possibility Curve (PPC) parallelly to the right from AB to CD as shown in the following diagram.
Impact of “Make in India” appeal on PPC
OR
Due to the efforts towards reducing unemployment. The point which was earlier below the Production possibility curve (indicating under utilisation of resources) will shift close to or on the PPC (indicating better utilisation of resources). This movement is being depicted in the below graph with the help of the arrow from point P.

Question 6.
Explain the significance of ‘minus sign’ attached to the measure of price elasticity of demand in case of a normal good, as compared to the ‘plus sign’ attached to the measure of price elasticity of supply. [3]
Answer:
The measure of price elasticity of demand of normal good carries minus sign as there exists an inverse relationship between demand and price of the good. That is, other things remaining constant, as the price of a good rises (or falls), the quantity demanded of the good falls (or rises). On the other hand, price elasticity of supply carries plus sign as there exists a positive relationship between the supply of a commodity and its price. To put in other words, when the price of a good rises (or falls), then the quantity supplied will increase (or decrease), other things remaining unchanged.

Question 7.
In a perfectly competitive market the buyers treat products of all the firms as homogeneous. Explain the significance of this feature. [3]
Answer:
In a perfectly competitive market, the buyers treat products of all the firms as homogeneous. This implies that all the firms in perfect competitive market produces homogeneous product. This further implies that the product of each and every firm in the market is perfect substitute to other product in terms of quantity, quality, colour, size, features, etc. This indicates that the buyers are indifferent between the products of different firms. Due to homogeneity of the products, existence of uniform price is guaranteed.
Implication: The products of different firms are qualitatively and quantitatively homogeneous.

Question 8.
What are the effects of ‘price-floor’ (minimum price ceiling) on the market of a good? Use diagram. [3]
Answer:
Price floor implies legislated or government fixed minimum price that should be charged by the seller. Since price floor is above the equilibrium price (OP_e), thus the imposition of the price floor leads to excess supply as shown in the diagram below.

The following are the consequences and effects of price floor:
Assurance to the farmers: The imposition of the price floor assures the farmers that, whatever they produce will get sold in the market. This implies that the farmers can produce to their maximum.
Assurance of returns: Due to the price floor, the farmers need not to bother about the sale of their output. This ensures a minimum guaranteed return to their investment in the production process.

Higher income: The minimum guaranteed returns in form of minimum price and minimum wage to labourers, result in increase in the income of the poor people.

Burden on consumers: Price floor exerts additional pressure on the consumers and the traders, as they need to buy the products at comparatively higher price (OP_c in the figure) instead of the equilibrium price (OP_e).

Burden on government: It also puts extra burden on the government revenues. It becomes mandatory for the government to purchase the excess produce, even if it runs a sufficient volume of buffer stocks.

Higher taxes: The government tries to shift the burden (associated with purchasing the excess produce at higher price) to the consumers and traders in form of higher taxes.

Question 9.
A consumer spends ₹ 1,000 on a good priced at 10 per unit. When its price falls by 20 percent, the consumer spends ₹ 800 on the good. Calculate the price elasticity of demand by the Percentage method. [4]
Answer:
Given:
Initial Total Expenditure (TE₀) = ₹ 1000
Final Total Expenditure (TE₁) = ₹ 800
Initial Price (P₀) = ₹ 10
Percentage change in price = -20

E_d = 0
E_d = 0
Thus, the price elasticity of demand is 0.

Question 10.
What is the behaviour of (a) Average Fixed Cost and (b) Average Variable Cost as more and more units of a good are produced?
OR
Define Average Revenue. Show that Average Revenue and Price are same. [4]
Answer:
(a) Average Fixed cost is defined as the fixed cost per unit of output produced. It is derived by dividing the total fixed cost produced. That is,

As more and more units of output are produced, the shape of AFC becomes that of rectangular hyperbola. That is, AFC is downward sloping rectangular hyperbola. This is because at any point on AFC curve, if AFC is multiplied by corresponding unit of output, then we get TFC. For example, at point A in the above figure, AFC is ₹ 2.5 and corresponding output produced is 2 units, hence, TFC is ₹ 5 {i.e. ₹ 2.5 × 2)

(b) Average Variable Cost is defined as the variable cost per unit of output produced. It is derived by dividing the Total Variable Cost by quantity of output produced. That is,

AVC is a U-shaped curve, That is, as output increases, the AVC curve falls and reaches its minimum point ‘K’ and then rises up. The reason behind the U-shape of AVC curve is the Law of Variable Proportion.
OR
Average Revenue(AR) is defined as revenue earned per unit of output sold. AR is same as that of price (P) of the output (Q).
Algebraically,
AR =
where, TR is total revenue
Q = Output
We know that TR = P × Q
∴ AR =
AR = P
Thus, AR is always equal to the price of the output.

Question 11.
A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y, both priced at ₹ 2 per unit. If the consumer chooses a combination of the two goods with Marginal Rate of Substitution equal to 2, is the consumer in equilibrium? Why or why not?
What will a rational consumer do in this situation? Explain. [6]
OR
A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y whose prices are ₹ 5 and ₹ 4 respectively. If the consumer chooses a combination of the two goods with marginal utility of X equal to 4 and that of Y equal to 5, is the consumer in equilibrium? Why or why not? What will a rational consumer do in this situation? Use utility analysis.
Answer:
At the point of consumer equilibrium the following equality should be met:

So, MRS is greater than the price ratio. Thus, to reach the equilibrium point a rational consumer would decrease the consumption of good y.
OR
According to the utility approach, a consumer reaches equilibrium where the following equality is met.


So, is greater than .Thus, to reach the equilibrium, a rational consumer would increase the consumption of good y and decrease that of good x.

Question 12.
What are the different phases in the Law of Variable Proportions in terms of marginal product? Give reason behind each phase. Use diagram. [6]
Answer:
The Law of Variable Proportions states that if more and more of variable factor (labour) is combined with the same quantity of fixed factor (capital), then initially the total product will increase but gradually after a point, the total product will become smaller and smaller. Also, a point will be reached thereafter, the marginal product of the variable factor will start falling and after this point the marginal product of any additional variable factor can be zero and even be negative.
The following are the three phases (stages) of the Law of Variable Proportions.

Ist Stage : Increasing returns to a factor This stage starts from the origin point O and continues till the point M on the TP curve. During this phase, TP increases at an increasing rate and is also accompanied by rising MP curve (in figure ii). The MP curve attains its maximum point (U) corresponding to the point of inflexion (K). Throughout this stage, AP continues to rise.

Reasons for Increasing returns to a factor
(1) Underutilization of the fixed factor: In the first stage of production, there are not enough labour units to fully utilise the fixed factor. Therefore, the firm can increase its output just by combining more and more of labour inputs with the fixed factor, thereby; the output of the additional unit of labour (i.e. MP) tend to rise.
(2) Division of labour: The increase in the labour input enables the division of labour, which further increases the efficiency and productivity of the labour.
(3) Specialisation of labour: Due to the division of labour, specialisation of individual labour unit increases, which in turm raises the overall efficiency and productivity. Consequently, the MP curve rises and TP curve continues to rise.

IInd Stage : Diminishing returns to a factor This stage starts from point K and continues till point B on the TP curve. During this stage, the TP increases but at a decreasing rate and attains its
maximum point at B, where it remains constant. On the other hand (in the figure ii), the MP curve continues to fall. When TP attains its maximum point, corresponding to it, MP becomes zero. AP, in this stage initially rises, attains its maximum point at Z and thereafter starts falling.

Reasons for decreasing returns to a factor
(1) Fuller utilisation of fixed factor—In this stage, the fixed factor is utilised to its maximum level as more and more of labour inputs are employed. Imperfect substitutability between labour and capital, the variable factors are imperfect substitute for the fixed factor. Therefore, the firm cannot substitute labour for capital and as a result diminishing retuns takes place.
(2) Optimum proportion/ideal factor ratio :
The optimum proportion (or ideal factor ratio) is a fixed ratio in which the labour and capital inputs are employed. These factors will be most efficient if they are employed as per the optimum proportion. If this proportion is disturbed (by combining more of labour inputs to the fixed units of capital), then the efficiency of the factors will fall, thereby leading to the diminishing retuns to the factor.

IIIrd Stage : Negative returns to a factor
This stage begins from the point B on the TP curve. Throughout this point, TP curve is falling and MP curve is negative. Simultaneously, the AP curve continues to fall and approaches the X-axis (but does not touch it). Like the first stage, this stage is also known as non- economic zone as any rational producer would not operate in this zone. This is because the addition to the total output by the additional labour unit (i.e. marginal product) is negative. This implies that employing more labour would not contribute anything to the total product but will add to cost of the production in form of additional wage. Hence, the cost of the additional labour input is greater than the benefit of employing it.

Reasons for negative returns to a factor
(1) Over utilisation of the fixed factors : In the third stage of production, the variable factor is in excessive relative to the fixed factors. This leads to the over utilisation of the fixed factor, thereby negative returns to a factor sets in.
(2) Negative marginal product : Throughout this stage the TP curve is continuously falling, consequently, the additional product by the additional unit of labour becomes negative. This implies that in this stage of production, the cost of employing labour is substantially higher than its contribution to the total product.
(3) Problem of management: With the increased number of labour units employed, it becomes hard for the management of the firm to efficiently manage them. Thus, due to the mismanagement and lack of responsibility, inefficiency is infused in the system. Let us understand the various stages with the help of following schedule and graph.

Question 13.
Explain why will a producer not be in equilibrium if the conditions of equilibrium are not met. [6]
Answer:
According to MR-MC approach, the firm (or producer) will attain its equilibrium, when the following two necessary and sufficient conditions are fulfilled.
1. MR = MC
2. MC is rising at the point of intersection with MR
Now, let us evaluate what would happen if the two conditions are not met.
Case A : If Price (MR) > MC

‘At output OQ₁,. price is KQ₁, and the marginal cost is LQ₁ such that KQ₁, > LQ₁. Therefore, OQ₁, is not the profit maxmising output. This is due to the fact that the firm can increase profit by increasing the production of output to OQ₂.

At output OQ₃, price is HQ₃ and the marginal cost is GQ₃, such that HQ₃ < GQ₃. Therefore, OQ₃ is not the profit maximizing output. This is due to the fact that the firm can increase its profit by reducing its output level to OQ₂.

Thus, we can conclude that at profit maximization output, the equilibrium price (or MR) must be equal to the MC curve and it cannot be greater or lesser than the MC curve.
The equality of MR and MC is only the necessary condition. The sufficient condition is that the MC should be rising at the point of intersection with MR.

Case B : If Price (MR) < MC

In the figure, the MC curve cuts the price line (or MR) at two different points i.e., at Z’ and ‘E’. The first order condition of profit maximization, i.e., Price (or MR) = MC is fulfilled at both of these points. Now let us evaluate which of the following two cases fulfills the second order condition of profit maximization.

Case A: At point ‘Z’
At point ‘Z’, price is equal to MC but MC is falling and is negatively sloped. At this point, any output level slightly more than the OQ₀, the firm is facing price that exceeds the MC. This implies that the profit can be maximized by increasing output level beyond OQ₀. Therefore, OQ₀ is not a profit maximisation output.

Case B: At point ‘E’
To the left of the point ‘E’, if the firm produces slightly lesser level of output than OQ₂, then the firm is facing price that exceeds the MC. This implies that higher profits can be achieved by ‘ increasing the level of output to OQ₂. On the other hand, to the right of the point ‘E’. If the firm produces slightly higher level of output than OQ₂, then the firm is facing price that falls short of the MC. This implies that higher profits can be achieved by reducing the output level to OQ₂. Thus, the point E is the producer’s equilibrium and OQ₂ is the profit maximizing output level, where Price = MC and also MC curve is rising.

Question 14.
Market for a good is in equilibrium. The supply of good “decreases”. Explain the chain of effects of this change. [6]
Answer:
When the market is in equilibrium, this implies that the market demand is equal to the market supply at the equilibrium point. Now, in case the market supply decreases, this leads to a leftwards shift in the market supply curve. This is because a decrease in supply refers to a fall in the supply of the given commodity due to change in factors other than price. Thus, in the given case the supply curve will shift towards left. As a result, there will exist a situation of excess demand at the equilibrium point. This can be shown in the following diagram.

As the market supply decreases, the initial supply shifts leftwards to the new supply curve S₂S₂ from S₁S₁. Now at the initial market price of OP₁. There exists excess demand. This excess demand will increase competition among the buyers and they will now be ready to pay a higher price to acquire more units of a good. This will further raise the market price. The rise in the price will continue till the market price becomes OP₂. The new market supply curve intersects the initial demand curve. The total quantity supplied will fall to Oq₂ and the new equilibrium price will rise to OP₂.

Section – B

Question 15.
What is ‘aggregate demand’ in macroeconomics? [1]
Answer:
Aggregate demand refers to the total value of final goods and services which all the sectors of an economy are planning to buy at a given level of income during a period of an accounting year.

Question 16.
If MPC = 1, the value of multiplier is : (choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) Between 0 and 1
(d) Infinity
Answer:
The value of multiplier is
Here, MPC
refers to the Marginal propensity to consume.
As we are given the value of MPC as 1.
Thus, the value of multiplier becomes infinity.
Hence, the correct answer is option (d).

Question 17.
Primary deficit in a government budget is : (Choose the correct alternative). [1]
(a) Revenvue expenditure – Revenvue receipts
(b) Total expenditure – Total receipts
(c) Revenvue deficit – Revenue payments
(d) Fiscal deficit – Interest payments
Answer:
(d). Fiscal deficit

Question 18.
Direct tax is called direct because it is collected directly from: (Choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) The producers on goods produced
(b) The sellers on goods sold
(c) The buyers of goods
(d) The income earners
Answer:
(d) The income earners

Question 19.
Other things remaining the same, when in a country the market price of foreign currency falls, national income is likely: (Choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) to rise
(b) to fall
(c) to rise or to fall
(d) to remain unaffected
Answer:
(b) to fall

Question 20.
If the Real GDP is ₹ 400 and Nominal GDP is ₹ 450, calculate the Price Index (base = 100). [3]
Answer:
We know,

Question 21.
What are fixed and flexible exchange rates? [3]
OR
Explain the meaning of Managed Floating Exchange Rate.
Answer:
Fixed exchange rate refers to a system where the exchange rate is held constant or fixed by the monetary authority of the country. Under this regime, the monetary authority of the country pegs (or, fixes) the value of its currency against various other currencies. This system of exchange rate avoids frequent fluctuations in the exchange rate and makes international trade more predictable.

On the other hand, a flexible exchange rate refers to a system where the exchange rate is determined by the market forces (demand for foreign exchange and supply of foreign exchange) with minimum or no government intervention. The equilibrium exchange rate is determined where the demand for foreign currency is equal to the supply of foreign currency.
OR
Managed floating system of exchange rate combines the features of both the fixed exchange rate as well as the flexible exchange rate. On one hand, the foreign exchange market is allowed to operate freely and on the other hand, there is an official declaration of rules or guidelines for the intervention by the monetary authority. In other words, the managed floating exchange rate regime determines the exchange rate through the market forces with intervention of the monetary authority as and when required.

Question 22.
Where is ‘borrowings from abroad’ recorded in the Balance of Payments Accounts? Give reasons. [3]
Answer:
Borrowings by a country from the foreign countries or from the international money market are recorded in the Capital Account of the BOP. As these borrowings results in inflow of foreign exchange into the country. Hence, they are recorded as positive items in the Capital Account of BOP.

Question 23.
Explain the “Banker’s Bank as a function” of the central bank. [4]
OR
Explain the “Bank of Issue function” of the central bank.
Answer:
Banker’s Bank: Central bank is the apex bank of all the commercial banks and financial institutions in the country. It holds the same relationship with the commercial banks as the commercial bank holds with its customer. The central bank accepts deposits from the commercial banks and holds it as reserves for them. The commercial banks are compulsorily required to hold a part of their deposits as reserves with the central bank in accordance with the cash reserve ratio (CRR). In addition to the CRR requirements, the commercial banks hold reserves with the central bank for clearing their settlements with other banks and to fulfill their requirements of inter-bank transfers.
OR
Bank of issue function of central bank implies that Central Bank has the exclusive authority to issue the currency (notes + coins). The currency issued by the central bank is known as ‘legal tender money’ i.e., the value of such currency is backed by the central bank. However, the currency issued by the central bank is its monetary liability. In other words, the central bank is obliged to back the currency issued with, assets of equal value such as gold coins and bullions, foreign exchange, etc. In addition to issuing currency to the general public, the central bank also issues currency to the central government of the country. That is, the central government if required, can sell its securities to the central bank and in return gets the required cash currency.

Question 24.
Currency is issued by the central bank, yet we say that commercial banks create money. Explain. How is this money creation by commercial banks likely to affect the national income? Explain. [4]
Answer:
We know that RBI prints new money, while on the other hand, commercial banks multiplies money supplied by the RBI through the process of credit creation. People deposit money in their respective bank accounts. As per the central bank guidelines, the commercial banks are required to maintain a portion of total deposits in form of cash reserves. With the help of the past experiences, the commercial banks know that not all the depositors will turn-up for withdrawal at the same day. Consequently, the commercial banks lends the remaining portion (left after maintaining cash reserves) of the total deposits to the general public in form of credit, loans and advances. It is the second portion of the total deposits that is responsible for the credit creation (credit money).

The process of creation of credit money begins as soon as the commercial banks start the lending process. The amount of the credit money increases as the banks lend loans to more and more number of people in the economy. The deposit of money by the people in the banks and the subsequent lending of loans by the commercial banks is a recurring process. This lending process of the commercial banks increases the rate of investment and production in the economy, which in turn helps in improving the national income in the economy.

Question 25.
An economy is in equilibrium. Calculate the Investment Expenditure from the following : [4]
National Income = 800
Marginal Propensity to Save = 0.3
Autonomous Consumption = 100
Answer:
Given
Y = 800 MPS(s) = 0.3
i.e. MPC(c) = 1 – MPS = 1 – 0.3 = 0.7
C = 100
We know that at equilibrium,
Y = C + I
C = ab + by
= 100 + 0.7y
By putting the value of Y & C
800 = 100 + 0.7 (800) + I
800 = 100 + 560 + 1
I = 800 – 660
I = ₹ 140
Thus, the Investment expenditure is ₹ 140.

Question 26.
Giving reason explain how the following should be treated in estimation of national income: [6]
(i) Payment of interest by a firm to a bank
(ii) Payment of interest by a bank to an individual
(iii) Payment of interest by an individual to a bank
Answer:
(i) Payment of interest by a firm to bank will be included in the national income. This is because the firm would have taken loan for productive purposes.
(ii) Payment of interest by a bank to an individual will be included in the national income. This is because the bank would have used the savings of the individuals (on which the loan is paid) for productive purposes.
(iii) Payment of interest by an individual to a bank will not be included in the national income. This is because the individual is expected to have taken a loan for consumption purposes rather than for productive purposes.

Question 27.
What is ‘deficient demand’? Explain the role of ‘Bank Rate’ in removing it. [6]
OR
What is ‘excess demand’? Explain the role of ‘Reverse Repo Rate’ in removing it.
Answer:
Deficit demand refers to a situation where the actual or equilibrium level of demand for output (AD₂) is less than the full employment level of output (AD₁). That is, if AD₂ < AD₁ (situation of Deficit Demand)

In the figure, AD₁ and AS represents the aggregate demand curve and aggregate supply curve. The economy is at full employment equilibrium at point ‘E’, where AD₁ intersects AS curve. At this equilibrium point, or represents the full employment level of output and EY is the aggregate demand at the full employment level of output.

Let us suppose that, the actual aggregate demand for output is only CY, which is lower than EY. This implies that actual aggregate output demanded by the economy CY falls short of the potential (full employment) aggregate output EY. Thus, the economy is facing a deficiency in demand. This situation is termed as deficit demand.

Bank rate refers to the rate at which the central bank provides loans to the commercial banks. In case of deficit demand, central bank reduces the bank rate, which reduces the cost of borrowings for the commercial banks. This implies that people can get loans at cheap rates from the commercial banks. This increases the demand for loans and credits in the market, Therefore, the consumption expenditure increases and finally the aggregate demand increases.
OR
Excess demand refers to a situation where the actual aggregate demand for output (AD₂) is above the full employment level of output (AD₁), then there exists excess demand. That is, if AD₂ > AD₁ (situation of Excess Demand)

In the figure, AD₁ and AS represents the aggregate demand curve and aggregate supply curve respectively. The economy is at full employment equilibrium at point ‘E’, where AD₁ intersects AS curve. At this equilibrium point, OY represents full employment level and EY is aggregate demand at the full employment level of output.

Let us suppose that, the actual aggregate demand for output is FY, which is higher than EY. This implies that actual aggregate output demanded by the economy FY is more than the potential (full employment) aggregate output EY. Thus, the economy is facing surplus demand. This situation is termed as excess demand.
Reverse repo rate refers to the rate at which the Central Bank borrows from the commercial banks. In situation of excess demand, the Central Bank would increase the reverse repo rate. An increase in the reverse repo rate reduces the money supply in the economy, thereby aggregate demand falls.

Question 28.
Explain how the government can use the budgetary policy in reducing inequalities in incomes. [6]
Answer:
The govenment through its budgetary policy attempts to promote fair and right distribution of income in an economy. This is done through taxation and expenditure policy. On one hand, through its taxation policy, the government taxes the higher income group and on the other hand, through the expenditure policy (subsidies, transfer payments, etc.), it transfers the purchasing power in the hands of the poor sections of society. With the help of these policies, the government aims at fair distribution of income in the society.

Question 29.
Calculate the ‘National Income’ and ‘Private Income’ : [6]

Answer:
National Income = Wages and salaries + Social security contributions by employers + Rent + Interest + Dividends + Corporation tax + Undistributed profits – Net factor income to abroad
NNP_FC = 700 + 100 + 200 + 150 + 50 + 30 + 20 – 10
= ₹ 1240 crore

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2015 Outside Delhi Set – II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Section – A

Question 2.
Define budget line. [1]
Answer:
A budget line represents the different combinations of two goods that are affordable and are available to a consumer; while being aware of his/her income level and market prices of both the goods. The budget line is represented by the following equation.
M = P_x.Q_x + P_y.Q_y

Question 5.
Giving reasons comment on the shape of Production Possibilities curve based on the following schedule: [3]

Answer:
Based on the schedule given below, we can say that PPC is a downward sloping straight line. This is because the opportunity cost of producing one good (i.e. Good X) in terms of another (i.e. Good Y) remains the same, that is, 4 (ignoring the minus sign).

The following figure depicts the shape of PPC.

Thus, the shape of PPC is downward sloping straight line which can be attributed to the constant opportunity cost.

Question 8.
Explain the implication of non-price competition in an oligopoly market. [3]
Answer:
Non-price competition in an oligopoly implies that the demand curve faced by an oligopolistic firm cannot be determined as it is uncertain to forecast its sales. This is because any change in the price or output decisions by a firm sets in a series of the reaction of the rival firms. That is why the demand curve is indeterminate and indefinite. The oligopolistic firm faces a kinked demand curve at any given price. The following figure shows the demand curve faced by an oligopolistic firm.

The upper portion of this demand curve is more elastic than the lower portion of the demand curve.

Question 10.
A consumer spends ₹ 100 on a good priced at ₹ 4 per unit. When its price falls by 25 percent, the consumer spends ₹ 75 on the good. Calculate the price elasticity of demand by the percentage method. [4]
Answer:
Given:
Initial Total Expenditure TE₀ = ₹ 100
Final Total Expenditure TE₁ = ₹ 75
Initial Price P₀ = ₹ 4
Percentage change in price = -25

Now,
Ed = Percentage change in quantity demanded = Percentage change in price

Thus, the price elasticity of demand is 0.

Question 11.
Market for a good is in equilibrium. The supply of the good ‘Increases’. Explain the chain of effects of this change. [6]
Answer:
When the market is in equilibrium, this implies that the market demand is equal to the market supply at the equilibrium point. Now, in case the market supply increases, this leads to a rightward shift in the market supply curve. This is because, an increase in supply refers to a rise in the supply of the given commodity due to change in factors other than price. Thus, in the given case the supply curve will shift towards right. As a result, there will exist a situation of excess supply at the equilibrium point. This can be shown in the following diagram.

As the market supply increases, the initial supply shifts rightwards to the new supply curve S₂S₂ from S₁S₁. Not at the initial market price of OP₁, there exists excess supply. Due to the excess supply, some of the existing firms are ready to sell the output at comparatively lower prices to increase their sale, therefore, the market price will tend to fall. The fall in the market price will continue until it reaches OP₂. The new market equilibrium will occur at point E₂, where the new market supply curve intersects the initial demand curve. The total quantity supplied will be equal to the quantity demanded at Oq₂ and the new equilibrium price will fall to OP₂.

Section – B

Question 21.
If the Real GDP is ₹ 500 and Price Index (base = 100) is 125, calculate the Nominal GDP. [5]
Answer:

Question 23.
An economy is in equilibrium. Calculate the Marginal Propensity to Save from the following:
National income = 1,000
Autonomous consumption = 100
Investment = 120
Answer:
Given :
National Income (Y) = 1000
Autonomous Consumption (a) = 100
Investment (I) = 120
Y = C + I
C = a + by
Y = 100 + b × 1000 + 120
1000 – 120 = 100 + b
880 = 100 + 1000
880 – 100 = 1000 b
780 = 1000 b
b = = 0.78
MPC = 0.78
MPS = 1 – MPC
= 1 – 0.78
= 0.22

Question 29.
Calculate ‘Net National Product at Market Price’ and ‘Personal Income’** : [6]


Answer:
NNP_MP = Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption expenditure + (Net domestic fixed capital formation + depreciation) + Change in stock – Net imports – depreciation – Net factor income to abroad
NNP_MP = 300 + 50 + 60 + 12 + (8 – 8) – (-10) – 12 – (-5)
NNP_MP = ₹ 425 Crore

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2015 Outside Delhi Set – III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Section – A

Question 3.
Define Indifference Map. [1]
Answer:
Indifference map is a family or collection of indifference curves that depicts the different levels of satisfaction and preferences of a consumer. Each indifference curve in an indifference map depicts a particular level of satisfaction’.

Question 5.
Distinguish between co-operative and non-cooperative oligopoly. [3]
Answer:
Co-operative oligopoly is the oligopoly in which firms might decide to collude together and not to compete with each other. Thus, in such a case the firms would behave as a single monopoly and aim at maximising their collective profits rather than their individual profits.
On the other hand, non-cooperative oligopoly is the oligopoly where each firm aims at maximising its own profits and decides how much quantity to produce assuming that the other firms would not change their quantity supplied.

Question 8.
Giving reason comment on the shape of Production Possibilities Curve based on the following table: [3]

Answer:
Based on the below schedule, we can say that PPC is concave to origin. This is because as the production increases, to produce each additional unit of Good X, more and more units of Good Y need to be sacrificed. In other words, the opportunity cost of producing one good in terms of another increases.

Thus, the shape of PPC is concave which can be attributed to the law of increasing opportunity cost.

Question 9.
A consumer spends ₹ 400 on a good priced at ₹ 8 per unit. When its price rises by 25 percent, the consumer spends ₹ 500 on the good. Calculate the price elasticity of demand by the Percentage method. [4]
Answer:
Given
Initial Total Expenditure TE₀ = ₹ 400
Final Total Expenditure TE₁ = ₹ 500
Initial Price P₀ = ₹ 8
Percentage change in price = +25


Ed = 0
Thus, the price elasticity of demand is 0.

Section – B

Question 22.
If the Nominal GDP is ₹ 600 and Price Index (base = 100) is 120, calculate the Real GDP. [3]
Answer:
We know,

Question 24.
An economy is in equlibrium. Calculate the national Income from the following : [4]
Autonomous Consumption = 120
Marginal Propensity to Save = 0.2
Investment Expenditure = 150
Answer:
a = 120
MPS = 0.20
(b) MPC = 1 – MPS = 1 – 0.20 = 0.86
I = 150
Y =?
Y = C + I
C = a + by
= 120 + 0.8Y
Y = 120 + 0.8Y + 150
1Y – 0.8Y = 270
0.2Y = 270
Y = = 1350

Question 29.
Calculate ‘Net Domestic Product at Market Price’ and ‘Gross National Disposable Income’**:


Answer:
Net Domestic Product at Market Price = Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption expenditure + Gross domestic fixed capital formation + change in stock + Net exports – depreciation
Net Domestic Product at Market Price = 400 + 90 + 80 + (20 – 10) + (10 – 15) – 25
Net Domestic Product at Market Price = ₹ 550 crore

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2015 Outside Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Get Free NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 Integers Ex 7.3 PDF. Integration Class 12 Maths NCERT Solutions are extremely helpful while doing your homework. Exercise 7.3 Class 12 Maths NCERT Solutions were prepared by Experienced LearnCBSE.in Teachers. Detailed answers of all the questions in Chapter 7 Maths Class 12 Integrals Exercise 7.3 provided in NCERT Textbook.

Free download NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 Exercise 7.3 Integrals PDF in Hindi Medium as well as in English Medium for CBSE, Uttarakhand, Bihar, MP Board, Gujarat Board, BIE, Intermediate and UP Board students, who are using NCERT Books based on updated CBSE Syllabus for the session 2019-20.

The topics and sub-topics included in the Integrals chapter are the following:

• Integration Formulas
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.1
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.1 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.2
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.2 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.3
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.3 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.4
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.4 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.5
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.5 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.6
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.6 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.7
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.7 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.8
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.8 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.9
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.9 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.10
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.10 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.11
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.11 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Miscellaneous Exercise
• RD Sharma Class 12 Integrals
• NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Maths Integrals
• Integrals Class 12 Notes Maths Chapter 7
• Important Questions Class 12 Maths Integrals
• JEE Main Mathematics Definite and Indefinite Integrals

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 Integers Ex 7.3

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 Integers Ex 7.3 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths. Here we have given Class 12 Maths NCERT Solutions Integrals Ex 7.3

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 Ex 7.3

Find the integrals of the functions in Exercises 1 to 22.
Question 1.
sin²(2x+5)
Solution:

Question 2.
sin3x cos4x
Solution:

Question 3.
∫cos2x cos4x cos6x dx
Solution:

Question 4.
∫sin³(2x+1)dx
Solution:

Question 5.
sin³x cos³x
Solution:

Question 6.
sinx sin2x sin3x
Solution:

Question 7.
sin 4x sin 8x
Solution:

Question 8.

Solution:

Question 9.

Solution:

Question 10.
∫sinx⁴ dx
Solution:

Question 11.
cos⁴ 2x
Solution:

Question 12.

Solution:

Question 13.

Solution:

Question 14.

Solution:

Question 15.

Solution:

Question 16.
tan⁴x
Solution:

Question 17.

Solution:

Question 18.

Solution:

Question 19.

Solution:

Question 20.

Solution:

Question 21.
sin^-1 (cos x)
Solution:


Question 22.

Solution:

Question 23.

(a) tanx+cotx+c
(b) tanx+cosecx+c
(c) -tanx+cotx+c
(d) tanx+secx+c
Solution:

Question 24.

(a) -cot(e.x^x)+c
(b) tan(xe^x)+c
(c) tan(e^x)+c
(d) cot e^x+c
Solution:

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Exercise 7.3 in Hindi

निर्देश- 1 से 22 तक के प्रश्नों में प्रत्येक का समाकलन ज्ञात कीजिए।

प्रश्न 1.
sin² (2x + 5)
हल-
माना I = ∫sin ² (2x + 5) dx

प्रश्न 2.
sin 3x cos 4x dx
हल-

प्रश्न 3.
cos 2x cos 4x cos 6x dx
हल-
cos 2x cos 4x cos 6x dx

प्रश्न 4.
sin³ (2x + 1)
हल-
माना I = ∫sin³ (2x + 1) dx

प्रश्न 5.
sin³x cos³x
हल-

प्रश्न 6.
sinx sin2x sin3x
हल-
माना I = ∫sinx sin2x sin3x

प्रश्न 7.
sin 4x sin 8x
हल-

प्रश्न 8.

हल-

प्रश्न 9.

हल-

प्रश्न 10.
sin x⁴ dx
हल-

प्रश्न 11.
cos⁴ 2x
हल-

प्रश्न 12.

हल-
माना

= ∫(1-cosx)dx = ∫1 dx – ∫ cosx dx
= x – sinx +C

प्रश्न 13.

हल-

प्रश्न 14.

हल-

प्रश्न 15.
tan³ 2x sec 2x
हल-

प्रश्न 16.
tan⁴ x
हल-

प्रश्न 17.

हल-

प्रश्न 18.

हल-

प्रश्न 19.

हल-

प्रश्न 20.

हल-

प्रश्न 21.
sin^-1 (cosx)
हल-

प्रश्न 22.

हल-

प्रश्न 23.

हल-

प्रश्न 24.

हल-

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 Integers Ex 7.3 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Get Free NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 Integers Ex 7.5 PDF. Integration Class 12 Maths NCERT Solutions are extremely helpful while doing your homework. Exercise 7.5 Class 12 Maths NCERT Solutions were prepared by Experienced LearnCBSE.in Teachers. Detailed answers of all the questions in Chapter 7 Maths Class 12 Integrals Exercise 7.5 provided in NCERT Textbook.

Free download NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 Exercise 7.5 Integrals PDF in Hindi Medium as well as in English Medium for CBSE, Uttarakhand, Bihar, MP Board, Gujarat Board, BIE, Intermediate and UP Board students, who are using NCERT Books based on updated CBSE Syllabus for the session 2019-20.

The topics and sub-topics included in the Integrals chapter are the following:

• Integration Formulas
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.1
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.1 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.2
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.2 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.3
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.3 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.4
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.4 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.5
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.5 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.6
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.6 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.7
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.7 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.8
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.8 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.9
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.9 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.10
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.10 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.11
• Integrals Class 12 Ex 7.11 in Hindi Medium
• Integrals Class 12 Miscellaneous Exercise
• RD Sharma Class 12 Integrals
• NCERT Exemplar Class 12 Maths Integrals
• Integrals Class 12 Notes Maths Chapter 7
• Important Questions Class 12 Maths Integrals
• JEE Main Mathematics Definite and Indefinite Integrals

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 Integers Ex 7.5

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 Integers Ex 7.5 are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths. Here we have given Class 12 Maths NCERT Solutions Integrals Ex 7.5

Question 1.

Solution:

Question 2.

Solution:

Question 3.

Solution:

Question 4.

Solution:

Question 5.

Solution:

Question 6.

Solution:

Question 7.

Solution:


Question 8.

Solution:

Question 9.

Solution:

Question 10.

Solution:

Question 11.

Solution:

Question 12.

Solution:

Question 13.

Solution:

Question 14.

Solution:

Question 15.

Solution:

Question 16.

[Hint : multiply numerator and denominator by x^n-1 and put xⁿ = t ]
Solution:


Question 17.

Solution:

Question 18.

Solution:


Question 19.

Solution:

Question 20.

Solution:

Question 21.

Solution:

Question 22.
choose the correct answer in each of the following :

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) log|(x-1)(x-2)|+c
Solution:

Question 23.

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Solution:

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Exercise 7.5 in Hindi

प्रश्न 1 से 21 तक के प्रश्नों में परिमेय फलनों का समाकलन कीजिए

प्रश्न 1.

हल-

प्रश्न 2.

हल-

प्रश्न 3.

हल-

प्रश्न 4.

हल-

प्रश्न 5.

हल-

प्रश्न 6.

हल-

प्रश्न 7.

हल-

प्रश्न 8.

हल-

प्रश्न 9.

हल-

प्रश्न 10.

हल-

प्रश्न 11.

हल-

प्रश्न 12.

हल-

प्रश्न 13.

हल-

प्रश्न 14.

हल-

प्रश्न 15.

हल-

प्रश्न 16.

हल-

प्रश्न 17.

हल-

प्रश्न 18.

हल-

प्रश्न 19.

हल-

प्रश्न 20.

हल-

प्रश्न 21.

हल-

प्रश्न 22.

हल-

प्रश्न 23.

हल-

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Maths Chapter 7 Integers Ex 7.5 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2016 Outside Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:

• • The question paper contains 26 questions.
  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Question no. 1 to 11 carry 1 mark each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 10-20 words each.
  • Questions no. 12 to 19 carry 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 30-50 words each.
  • Questions no. 20 to 26 carry 5 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 75-100 words each.

** Answer is not given due to change in present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2016 Outside Delhi Set – I

Part – A

Question 1.
Why are Buddhist Stupas said to bed’stories in stone” ? Explain. [2]
Answer:
Stupas were built of stones ‘bricks. Buddha encouraged building Stupas tcr mark some events or places associated with Buddhism. Scenes from Vessantara Jakata, empty seat meant to indicate the meditation of the Buddha all narrate buddha’s stories Goddes and Animals.were depicted through idols and carvings.

Question 2.
Mention any two sources to know about Bhakti and Sufi traditions from eight century to eighteenth century. [2]
Answer:
The sources for Bhakti movement are the Hagiographical or biographical writings of saint poets, the Qawwals. Textual sources attributed to poet saints, orally in regional languages Such as short poems in Dakhani, bhajans of Mira Bai.

Question 3.
Name the fortification of East India Company in Madras. Mention any one feature of it. [2]
Answer:
The fortification of Madras by British is known as St. George. There were two settlements called White Town and Black Town in this fort.

Part – B

Question 4.
“Early Harappan archaeologists thought that certain objects which seems unusual and unfamiliar may have had a religious significance”. Substantiate. [4]
Answer:
The early Harappan archaeologists thought that anything unusual or unfamiliar had a religious significance.The terracota figurines of women found in Harappa were thought to be of mother goddess. The men figures were thought to be of priest kings. The great bath was considered as a place of ritual. A figure sitting cross legged was called yogi or Pashupatinath by some. Conical objects found were termed as lingas. Even the script has trident or plants which was given religious significance. So, that Harappan archeologists relate the things and make religious significance.

Question 5.
How was the fate of Amravati stupa different from the Sanchi stupa ? Explain. [4]
Answer:
Amravati Stupa was grand in architecture but Amravati has been invaded by many dynasties and after the decline of Mauryas it was vandalised and was in ruins. Sanchi Stupa was renovated a number of times and was well looked after by the Nawabs especially Shah Jehan Begum.

1. Amaravati was discovered before scholars understood the value of the finds and realised how critical it was to preserve things instead of removing them from the site.
2. When Sanchi was “discovered” in 1818, three of its four gateways were still standing, the fourth was in good condition.
3. The rulers of Bhopal, Shahjehan Begum’s permission to take away the eastern gateway but she ‘refused.
4. Begum and her successor Sultan Jehan Begum, provided money for the preservation of the ancient site. That is why John Marshall dedicated his important volumes on Sanchi to Sultan Jehan.
5. She funded the museum that was built there as well as the guesthouse where John Marshall lived and wrote the volumes.
6. She also funded the publication of the volumes written by John Marshall.
7. By the 1850’s some of the slabs from Amaravati had begun to be taken to different places :
   • To the Asiatic Society of Bengal at Calcutta.
   • To the India Office in Madras and some even to London.

Question 6.
Highlight the contribution of Krishnadeva Raya in the expansion of Vijaynagar Empire. [4]
Answer:
Krishnadeva Raya was the most powerful of the Vijayanagara kings. He defeated the Adilshah of Bijapur, Golkonda and the Raja of Odisha. He was a kind but ruthless administrator and a very able general who fought along with his soldiers. He’s credited with building so as well fine temples and Gopurams. He was a poet. He encouraged artists and expanded trade. The great mathematician Nilkantha was encouraged by him. Vijaynagar was at its peak in his times.

Question 7.
“Mughal rulers efficiently assimilated heterogeneous populace within an imperial edifice.” Support the statement. [4]
Answer:
The Mughal Kings commissioned court historians and to write accounts of their achievements.

Their writers collected vast amounts of information from the regions of the sub continent information from the regions of the sub continent to help the rulers govern their domain.

The ideal of the Sulh-i-Kul (absolute peace) was implemented through state policies. All religions and schools of thought had freedom of expression but on condition that they did not undermine the authority of the state or fight among themselves. In Akbar’s imperial service, Turani and Iranian nobles were present, Two ruling groups of Indian origin entered the imperial service from 1560 onwards : the Rajputs and the Indian Muslims.

Question 8.
What was Damin-i-Koh ? Why did Santhals resist against Britishers during eighteenth century ? Give three reasons. [1 + 3 = 4]
Answer:
Damin-i-Koh was the name given to the forested hilly areas in Rajmahal hills in Jharkhand in 1832.
The Santhals, who were settled in Damin-E-Koh, were roused to revolt by two Santhal leaders against the British colonists and the zamindars. The objective was to collect taxes. Santhals soon found that the land they brought under cultivation was slipping away was from their hands. The state was levying heavy taxes on the land. The money lenders (dikus) were charging them high rates of interest and talking over the land when debts remained unpaid. The zamindars were r asserting control over the Damin area. It was also an attempt to establish Santhal identity which in later ‘ years paved way for their own province.

Question 9.
With the help of specific examples examine the nature of Indian leadership that emerged against the British in the revolt 1857. [4]
Answer:
The nature of Indian leadership in 1857:
Bahadur Shah Zafar was accepted by the rebels as a leader in 1857 who was old and without any ambition. Bakht Khan was in the Company but after revolt he joined them and built an army of the Rohilas. Nana Saheb was denied his right to be Peshwa and all his attempts had failed so he expelled British and declared himself Peshwa. He joined the, revolt. Rani Laxmi Bai was ordered to leave Jhansi but she refused and fought bravely and died. All these were forced to enter the revolt. The sepoys of who started the revolt were leaderless and indisciplined.

Question 10.
Read the following passage and answer the question that follows: [4]
“Arya Samaj, A north Indian Hindu reform ‘organisation of the late nineteenth and early’ twentieth centuries, particularly active in Punjab (tried to bring back Hindus who had converted to some other religion) which sought to revive Vedic learning and combine it with modern education in f the sciences”.

Illustrate how the values integrated with the rich Indian literature paved way for the scientific development of modern India.”

Part – C 

Question 11.
Analyse the role of Zamindars during the Mughal period. [8]
OR
Examine how were the lives of forest dwellers transformed in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries.
Answer:
Role of Zamindars during the Mughal period:
(i) The zamindars were holders of huge land properties. Most of them were related to the royal families. They were given the right to collect revenue from the ryot. They had to pay a fixed amount to the state. The remaining amount remained with them. The Mughal rulers were not very friendly with them but they allowed them to prosper. The Zamindars collected revenue from the peasants who were the owners of the land.

The zamindars collected the revenue and sometimes gave wrong accounts to the administrators and amassed money. Like the feudal lords they also sometimes had their own private armies and held courts to decide the matters in their jurisdiction. Upper caste brahamans and Rajputs had full control over village society. The dispossession of weaker people was a way of expanding zamindari. Rajputs and jats adopted various strategies to consolidate power in north India. Zamindars spearheaded the colonization of agricultural lands and helped in settling cultivators. The buying and selling of zamindari accelerated the process of monetization in the countryside. In few cases, zamindars came to be a exploitative class on peasantry section.
OR
An average of 40 per cent of Mughal Empire was covered by forests.

Their livelihood came from the gathering of forest produce, hunting and shifting agriculture. Collection of livelihood was largely season specific. Spring was reserved for collecting forest produce, summer for fishing, the monsoon months for cultivation, and autumn and winter for hunting.

For the state, the forest was a place of rebels and trouble makers.

1. State required elephants for the army. Elephants were captured from forest and sold.
2. Rulers went for regular hunting expeditions which enabled the emperor to travel across the extensive territories of his empire and personally attend to the grievances of its inhabitants.
3. The spread of commercial agriculture was an important external factor that impinged on the lives
4. Forest products—like honey, beeswax and gum lac—were in great demand. Some, such as gum lac, became major items of overseas export from India in the seventeenth century.
5. Social factors too brought changes in the lives of forest dwellers. Like the head men of the villages, tribes also had their chieftains. Many trial chiefs and become zamindars, some even became kings.

Question 12.
What does Ashokan inscriptions tell about the Mauryas ? Describe the limitations of the inscriptional evidences. |3 + 5 = 8]
OR
State any three features of Mahajanpadas. How did Magadha become the powerful Mahajanpada ? Explain.
Answer:
Ashokan inscriptions about the Mauryas :
The Ashokan inscriptions describe the era of Mauryan empire from 269 BCE to 232 BCE. The pillars are scattered in India, Nepal, Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan. They are mostly about Buddhism which was prevalent in this subcontinent. They tell about the dharma, social and moral values, about Ashoka’s efforts to spread Buddhism. Ashoka refers to himself as Devanam Piya. His conversion to Buddhism, his advice to the monks and people and the ideas about morals are the major themes. The limitations of these inscriptions :
We do not know much about the times as the themes are limited.

We have no way of knowing whether the reforms given in the edicts were brought into practice.

1. Letters are very faintly engraved, and thus reconstructions are uncertain.
2. Inscriptions may be damaged or letters missing.
3. It is not always easy to be sure about the exact meaning of the words used in inscriptions.
4. Not all have been deciphered, published and translated.
5. Politically or economically significant was necessarily not recorded in inscriptions.
6. Routine agricultural practices and the joys and sorrows of daily existence find no mention in inscriptions.

OR
Three features of Mahajanapada :
(a)

1. Vajji, Magadha, Koshala, Kuru, Panchala, Gandhara and Avanti were amongst the most important mahajanapadas.
2. Each triahajanapada had a capital city, which was often fortified.
3. Each mahajanapada had a well maintained standing army and regular bureaucracies for administration.
4. Dharmasutras, written by Brahmans laid down norms for rulers.
5. Rulers were ideally expected to be Kshatriyas.
6. Rulers were advised to collect taxes.
7. Rulee by ganas and sanghas and were oligarchies,
8. Power was shared by the rajas.
9. Fortified capital cities.
10. Rulers collected taxes and tributes from the cultivators.

(b) Magadha was the most prominent of all Mahajanpadas. The confluence of rivers made its land fertile. There were deposits of iron which were used by Magadhans to make powerful weapons. They had agrarian economy which was supported by the military strength. Pataliputra was its capital. Its location was convenient for trade. It prospered in Trade, and gradually emerged as the most powerful Mahajanapada.

Part – B

Question 13.
“Within the Constituent Assembly of India the language issue was intensely debated.” Examine the views put forward by the members of the Assembly on this issue. [8]
OR
How did the Constituent Assembly of India protect the powers of the Central Government ? Explain.
Answer:
The language issue was intensely debated in the Constituent Assembly Language issue has always been very hot in India. In India besides the languages included in the eighth schedule, there are several languages. And the speakers of all those languages are very proud of their languages.

Before independence, there was consensus among the national leaders that Hindi should be the national language of Independent India. Mahatma Gandhi was for Hindi in Devanagari script. After Independence, the Constituent Assembly was equally divided between English and Hindi. At the time of independence, only one percent of Indians knew English but still it had been the language of the administration because it was the language of the rulers. It was President Dr. Rajendra Prasad’s vote which decided that Hindi would be the national language of India.

In the debate, Mr. Dhulekar argued in favour of Hindi. Mr. Frank Antony spoke in favour of English. He said that English was his mother tongue and it could not be called a foreign language.

Many members took part in the debate. Hindi was no doubt a language of a big majority. Members argued that it was the lingua franca when people from different parts of India communicated with each other. There were references to Urdu which was to be the national language of Pakistan. The members said in Uttar Pradesh, the court proceedings were ‘ in Urdu. Some member like Pandit Mitra talked in favour of Sanskrit also.

At one point Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru was irritated. He was English educated. Most of his books were penned in English. He favoured Hindi. Frank Antony Said that he had been familiar with Hindi and he had no problem with it. He talked proudly about English. He felt that to communicate ; with the world we need English. He strongly felt that English was one of the Indian languages.

South Indian members were in favour of English. They opposed Hindi. Krishnammachari gave a warning on behalf of the people of South against imposition of Hindi. It was decided that English would continue till Hindi takes its place. The official communication from the government would be in both the languages.
OR
The powers of State Governments and Central Government were also debated in the Constituent Assembly.
Pt. Nehru pleaded for a strong centre as it was required for an independent India. It would be injurious to the interest of the country to provide for a weak central authority which would be incapable of ensuring peace and speaking effectively for the whole country in the international affairs. The Union also had control of minerals and key industries.

Article 356 gave the Centre the powers to take over [ a state administration on the recommendation of the Governor. Centre remained with all the fiscal powers. The rights of the states were most eloquently defended by K. Santhanam from Madras; the fiscal, provisions would impoverish the provinces

The argument for greater power to the provinces provoked a strong reaction in the Assembly. Ambedkar wanted “a strong and united Centre (hear, hear) much stronger than the Centre we had created under the Government of India Act of 1935”. The Centre was strengthened to stop the communal frenzy. The Constitution thus showed a distinct bias towards the right of the Union of India over those of its constituent states. The Constituent Assembly prepared three lists.

The first list was called the Union fist in which tax, defence and foreign affairs were main, was exclusively for Central Government. The second list was State list in which education, health were the main issues was to be looked after by the states. The third list was a concurrent list in which forest and agriculture were main, were to be jointly looked after by the States and the Central Government.

In this way the Constituent Assembly protected the powers of the Central Government.

Part – D

Question 14.
Read the following excerpt carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Draupadi’s Marriage
Drupada, the king of Panchala, organised a competition where the challenge was to string a bow and hit a target; the winner would be chosen to marry his daughter Draupadi. Arjuna was victorious and was garlanded by Draupadi. The Pandavas returned with her to their mother Kunti, who, even before she , saw them, asked them to share whatever they had got. She realised her mistake when she saw Draupadi, but her command could not be violated. After much deliberation, Yudhisthira decided that Draupadi would be their common wife. When Drupada was told about this, he protested. However, the seer Vyasa arrived and told him that the Pandavas were in reality incarnations of Indra, whose wife had been reborn as Draupadi, and they were thus destined for each other. Vyasa added that in another instance a young woman had prayed to Shiva for a husband, and in her enthusiasm, had prayed five times instead of once. This woman was now reborn as Draupadi and Shiva had fulfilled her prayers. Convinced by these stories, Drupada consented to the marriage.
(14.1) How does this story reveal that mother was considered as the highest guru ? [2]
(14.2) Why didn’t Kunti save Draupadi from the dire situation ? [3]
(14.3) Why did Drupada and Sage Vyasa decide Draupadi’s strange marriage with five men ? [2]
Answer:
(1) After Arjuna won the archery contest, Draupadi garlanded him. The Pandavas returned with her to their mother who asked them to share whatever they had brought without looking at them. They accepted her command because they regarded her as their greatest guru.

(2) Kunti could not save Draupadi from that situation because the command had been given and it could not be violated. She was a firm believes of Dharma and her command once given could not be taken back.

(3) Vyasa gave two explanations. One was that all the Pandavas were incarnations of Indra and Draupadi was Indra’s wife, and according to another explanation, Draupadi in her earlier birth had prayed to Shiva for a husband five times. So, Drupada and Vyasa decided that she would be a common wife of all the Pandavas.

Question 15.
Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow:
A warning for Europe Bernier warned that if European kings followed the Mughal model:
Their kingdoms would be very far from being well- cultivated and peopled, so well built, go rich, so polite and flourishing as we see them. ‘Our kings are otherwise rich and powerful; and We must avow that they are much better and more royally served. They would soon be kings of deserts and solitudes, of beggars and barbarians, such as those are whom I have been representing (the Mughals) … We should find the great Cities and the great Burroughs (boroughs) rendered uninhabitable because of ill air, and to fall to ruine (ruin) without any bodies (anybody) taking care of repairing them; the hillocks abandon’d, and the fields overspread with bushes, or fill’d with pestilential marishes (marshes), as hath been already intimated. .
(15.1) In what ways did Bernier condemn
Mughal rulers ? [3]
(15.2) What contrasts do the account of Bernier and Abul Fazl’s Ain-i-Akbari ? [2]
(15.3) “Pride has its fall if power and negligence of duty rules any one.” Explain the statement in relevance to the Bernier’s warning. [2]
Answer:
(15.1) Bernier condemns the Mughals as the kings of deserts, solitudes, beggars and barbarians.
(15.2) Abul Fazal who was one of the nine gems in the court of Akbar has written in glowing terms about the reign of Akbar, the land , the people and the crops, customs etc. Abul was a scholar and he had first hand knowledge of India. On the other hand Bernier did not know much about Mughals or India. Thus, he saw the Mughal Emperor, as the king of beggars and Barbarians.
(15.3) Bernier had noted the decay and he knew that the Mughal empire was on the downward trend. He had witnessed the corruption in the officers of the state and the negligence that is why he felt that the power had its fall if power and negligence of duty rules any one. They would be kings of deserts and solitudes of beggars and barbarians.

Question 16.
Read the following excerpt carefully and answer the questions that follows :
“Tomorrow we shall break the salt tax law”
On 5 April 1930, Mahatma Gandhi spoke at Dandi: When I left Sabarmati with my companions for this seaside hamlet of Dandi, I was not certain in my mind that we would be allowed to reach this place. Even while I was at Sabarmati there was a rumour that I might be arrested. I had thought that the Government might perhaps let my party come as far as Dandi, but not me certainly. If someone says that this betrays imperfect faith on my part, I shall not deny the charge. That I have reached here is in no small measure due to the power of peace and non-violence : that power is universally felt. The Government may, if it wishes, congratulate itself on acting as it has done, for it could have arrested every pne of us. In saying that it did not have the courage to arrest this army of peace, we praise it. It felt ashamed to arrest such an army. He is a civilised man who feels ashamed to do anything which his neighbours would disapprove. The Government deserves to be congratulated on not arresting us, even if it desisted only from fear of world opinion. Tomorrow we shall break the salt tax law. Whether the Government will tolerate that is a different question. It may not tolerate it, but it deserves congratulations on the patience and forbearance it has displayed in regard to this party What if I and all the eminent leaders in Gujarat and in the rest of the country are arrested ? This movement is based on the faith that when a whole nation is roused and on the march no leader is necessary.
(CWMG) vol. 49 Collected works of Mahatma Gandhi
(16.1) Why did Gandhiji started the Dandi March ? [2]
(16.2) Why was Salt March notable ? [3]
(16.3) “The power of peace and non-violence is universally felt.” Why did Gandhiji said so ? [2]
Answer:
(1) Gandhiji started the Dandi to break the salt law.
(2) Salt march was notable due to the power of peace and non-violence. Women participated in large numbers which made this movement all the more powerful.
(3) The Govt, did not have the courage to stop the march or arrest all of them and the whole world was watching with wonder. That was the power of peace and non-violence. It aroused feelings of nationalism. This is the reason, Gandhiji opined that the power of peace and non violence is felt universally

Part – E

Question 17.
(17.1) On the given political outline map of India locate and label the following with appropriate

(a) The place where Gandhiji called off Non-Cooperation Movement.
(b) Agra, the imperial capital of Mughal.

(17.2) On the same outline map of India, three places related to the mature Harappa sites have been marked as A, B and C. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. [1 + 1 + 3 = 5]

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2016 Outside Delhi Set – II

Part – A

Question 1.
Why were the Europeans during the nineteenth century interested in the Stupas ? Give two reasons. [2]
Answer:
The European Interest in Stupa :
Nineteenth-century Europeans like the french and English sought Shahjehan Begum’s permission to take away the eastern gateway, which was the best preserved, to be displayed in museums in France and England.

Cunningham look drawings of the place deciphered the inscription and bored shafts down these domes. According to the letter written by Cunningham, about his interest in stupas :

1. One reason was numismatics as he found several gold coins and artifacts while excavating stupas.
2. Second reason was he wanted to trace the history of Buddhism, compare it with Brahminism and wanted to make the task of the missionaries easier.

Question 2.
How did Karaikkal Ammaiyar become the greatest figure of Nayanar tradition ? Explain.
[2]
Answer:
Karaikkal Ammaiyar is one of the three female Nayanars. She is reverentially called Amma which means mother. Her real name was Punithavathi. She was a great devotee of Shiva from her childhood. She cared for all Shaivites like a mother. Even Shiva addressed her as mother. She followed the path of devotion and protested against ortholoxy and caste system. She promoted social freedom and challenged patriachial norms. There are depictions of her in the form of mother goddess and there is a temple dedicated to her. She probably lived during the sixth century.

Part – B

Question 4.
“One of the most distinctive features of the Harappan cities was the carefully planned drainage system.” Elaborate. [4]
Answer:
The drainage system of Harappa :
The Harappans were very keen on health and sanitation. Every house had its own soak pit which was drained into the sewers in the main street. This sewer had inspection taps at regular intervals.

Question 6.
“The keeping of the exact and detailed record was the major concern of the Mughal administration.” Support the statement with examples. [4]
Answer:
They were written in order to project a vision of an enlightened kingdom to all those who came under its umbrella. They were meant to convey to those who resisted the rule of the mughals. The rulers wanted ensure that there was an account of their rule for posterity. The mir bakhshi supervised the corps of court writers who recorded all applications and documents presented to the court, and all imperial orders. Agents of nobels and regional rulers recorded the entire proceedings of the court with the date and time of the session. The AkhbHarat contained all kinds of information such as attendance at the court, grant of offices and titles, diplomatic missions, presents received or the enquiries.

Question 8.
What was the Limitation Law ? Why was this considered as a symbol of oppression against the ryots of the 19th century ? Give three reasons. [1 + 3 = 4]
Answer:
Limitation Law : In 1859, the British passed a limitation law that stated that the loan bonds signed between the moneylenders and ryots would have validity for only three years. The law was meant to stop the interest over time. The moneylender turned the law. They made the ryot to sign a new bond on the unpaid with its interest. They wrote figures and finally acquired the land and the property of the ryot and it became the symbol of oppression for the ryot. Which resulted in the revolt of the ryot which is known as “Deccan Riots.”

The ryot in large number attacked the shops and demanded Bahi Khata and the account books were burnt. Sahukars were attacked and debt bonds were burnt down. This spread to an area of 6000 kilometres.

The British were frightened because of 1857 memories were still strong. It took several months to bring the situation under control.

Part – C

Question 11.
Assess the role played by Panchayats in the villages during Mughal period.
OR
Examine the status and role played by the women in the agrarian society during Mughal period. [8]
Answer:
Role of Mughal Panchayats :

1. The village panchayat was an assembly of elders, with hereditary rights.
2. In mixed-caste villages, the panchayat was usually a heterogeneous body.
3. The panchayat was headed by a headman known as muqaddam or mandal, chosen through the consensus of the elders and zamindar.
4. Headmen held office as long as they enjoyed the confidence of the village elders.
5. The chief function of the headman was to supervise the preparation of village accounts, assisted by the accountant or patwari.
6. The panchayat derived its funds from common financial pool.
7. Expenses for community welfare activities such as digging a canal, tiding over floods were also met from these funds.
8. One important function of the panchayat was to ensure the caste boundaries among the communities inhabiting the village were upheld.
9. In eastern India all marriages were held in the presence of mandals.
10. Panchayats also had the authority of levy fines and inflict more serious forms of punishment like expulsion from the commodity.
11. Caste or jati in the village had ifs own jati panchayat.
12. In Rajasthan jati panchayats arbitrated civil disputes between members of different castes.

OR
Mughal agrarian women:

1. They worked shoulder to shoulder in the fields.
2. Men tilled and ploughed, while women sowed, weeded, threshed and winnowed the harvest.
3. Artisanal tasks such as spinning yarn, sifting and kneading clay for pottery and embroidery were among the many aspects of production dependent on female labour.
4. They even went to the houses of their employers or to the markets if necessary.
5. They were child bearers in a society dependent on labour.
6. Marriages in many rural communities required the payment of bride-price rather than dowry to the bride’s family.
7. Remarriage was considered legitimate.
8. Women were kept under strict control by the family and the community.
9. Record petitions sent by women to the village panchayats, seeking redress and justice.
10. Wives protested against the infidelity.
11. Women had the right to inherit property.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2016 Outside Delhi Set – III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Part – A

Question 1.
How do the principles of Jainism influence Indian thinking ? [2]
Answer:
Influence of Jainism on Indian thinking:
Jainism is an ancient religion and it has its own philosophy which has been influencing Indian thought. Jainism thinks that the world is real, and the spirit is also real. It has a theory of karma which explains the interaction between soul and nature. It also preaches Ahimsa (non-violence) and aparigraha (non-storage). It has also influenced the Shaiva and Vaishnava cults. Jainism preaches intellectual tolerance and has a practical appreciation of all living. Jainism has never believed in miracles and has tried to give practical solutions. In the sphere of arts and culture also, the Jains have contributed a lot. The Jain authors wrote their books in Ardhamagadhi and were instrumental in popularizing local languages. Jains also spread vegetarianism.

Question 2.
How did Naths and Jogis gain ground in the north India during fourteenth and fifteenth centuries ? [2]
Answer:
Nath/ Jogi in the 14th century :
Nath sampradaya was founded by Matsyendranath and was spread throughout India by the eight Nathas who followed him. The most prominent among them was Gorakhnath who popularized laya yoga. He wrote a book on it and composed many songs which are popular to this date. Gorakhnath wandered throughout India and composed songs in many languages. There were mutts established by nathas.

Jogi is a corrupt form of Yogi. The word nathjogi is redundant. The yogis are called jogis. From 11^th century, the jogis wandered throughout India. Their needs were minimum, they begged and remained engaged in spiritual practices. The arrival of Sufis must have influenced the Nathjogis. Later this cult culminated in Bhakti Movement which gripped the whole India in the middle ages.

Part – B

Question 4.
“Archaeologists have no proper response for the central authority of the Harappans.” Substantiate. [4]
Answer:
Archaelogists have no response for the central authority in Harappa.

Archaeologists found many things in Harappa. There was a lot of damage because the bricks were used for the railway project and also by the locals for their housing needs. They could find out much about the city planning, They were astonished by the drainage system. They found two parts in the town well separated. They found the seals and they came to know about the script. But the script remains undeciphered. The archeologists are in the dark about the social structure or the central authority of Harappa, because the weapons found were very few, the people were apparently peace loving because the weapons found were very few. Whether they were ruled democratically or autocratically could not be ascertained because the script remains undeciphered.

Question 7.
“Mughal history provides accounts of ‘ diplomatic relationship and conflicts with the
neighbouring political powers.” Explain with examples. [4]
Answer:
Mughal history is about the diplomatic relations and conflicts about neighbouring states. The Mughal emperors appointed authors to write the history of their times. They recorded the events. In addition to that they collected vast information about the neighbouring kingdoms and their relations and conflict with the Mughals. These histories were called chronicles. These chronicles were painstakingly written. When Akbar commissioned Abul Fazl, he requested his aunt to give her memories of the earlier times of Babar and Humayun. Babar himself was a poet and a keen observer. In Akbarnama and Badshahnama we come to know about the events in the lives of these emperors, the battles they fought as well as their relations with the neighbours.

Question 8.
What was the ryotwari system ? Why did the ryots turn violent ? Explain three reasons. [1 + 3 = 4]
Answer:
Ryotwari was the land revenue system started by Munroe in the Bombay Deccan based on fixation of revenue terms directly with the ryots only.

Ryots turned violent

1. The revenue that was demanded was so high that in many places peasants deserted their villages and migrated to new regions.
2. In areas of poor soil and fluctuating rainfall the problem was particularly acute.
3. However, the collectors went about extracting payment with utmost severity.
4. When someone failed to pay, his crops were seized and a fine was imposed on the whole village.
5. By the 1830s the problem became more severe. Prices of agricultural products fell sharply after 1832.
6. This meant a further decline in peasants income.
7. At the same time the countryside was devastated by a famine.
8. Inevitably, they borrowed. Revenue could rarely be paid without a loan from a moneylender,
9. But once a loan was taken, the ryot found it difficult to pay it back.

Part – C

Question 11.
Examine the strengths and weaknesses of Ain- i-Akbari.
OR
Examine the Panchayat system of the Mughal Empire. [8]
Answer:
Importance and limitations of Ain-i- Akbari
Importance :

1. The Ain gives detailed accounts of the organization of the court, administration and army, the sources of revenue and the physical layout of the provinces and the literary, cultural and religious traditions of the people.
2. Along with a description of the various departments of Akbar’s government and elaborate descriptions of the various provinces (subas) of the empire.
3. The Ain gives us intricate quantitative information of those provinces.
4. The Ain is therefore a mine of information for us about the Mughal Empire during Akbar’s reign.
5. The Ain is made up of five books (daftars), of which the first three books describe the administration.
6. The first book, called mazil-abadi, concerns the imperial household and its maintenance.
7. The second book, sipah-abadi, covers the military and civil administration and the establishment of servants.
8. The third book, mulk-abadi, is the one which deals with the fiscal side.

Limitations of Ain-i-Akbari:

1. Numerous errors in totaling have been detected. These are ascribed to simple slips of arithmetic or of transcription by Abul Fazl’s assistants.
2. Ain is the somewhat skewed nature of the quantitative data.
3. Data were not collected uniformly from all provinces. ,
4. For many subas detailed information was compiled about the caste composition of the zamindars, such information is not available for Bengal and Odisha.
5. Vital parameters such as prices and wages from these areas are not as well documented except Agra.
6. It has limited relevance for the rest of the country.

OR
The panchayat sytem of the Mughals :

1. The village panchayat was an assembly of elders, with hereditary rights.
2. In mixed-caste villages, the panchayat was usually a heterogeneous body.
3. The panchayat was headed by a headman known as muqaddam or mandal chosen through the consensus of the elders and zamindar.
4. Headmen held office as long as they enjoyed the confidence of the village elders.
5. The chief function of the headman was to supervise the preparation of village accounts, assisted by the accountant or patwari.
6. The panchayat derived its funds from common financial pool.
7. Expenses for community welfare activities such as digging a canal, tiding over floods were also met from these funds.
8. One important function of the panchayat was to ensure the caste boundaries among the communities inhabiting the village were upheld.
9. In eastern India all marriages were held in the presence of mandals.
10. Panchayats also had the authority to levy fines and inflict more serious forms of punishment like expulsion from the community.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2016 Outside Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2016 Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:

• • The question paper contains 26 questions.
  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Question no. 1 to 11 carry 1 mark each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 10-20 words each.
  • Questions no. 12 to 19 carry 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 30-50 words each.
  • Questions no. 20 to 26 carry 5 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 75-100 words each.

** Answer is not given due to change in present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2016 Delhi Set – I

Part – A

Question 1.
Who was John Marshall ? How did he mark a change in the Indian archaeology ? [1 + 1 = 2]
Answer:
John Marshall was the Director General of Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) from 1902 to 1928. He was known for excavations in Harappa, Mohenjodaro, Sanchi, Sarnath and Taxila.

Question 2.
Point out one similarity and one dissimilarity between Lingayats and Nayanars. [1 + 1 = 2]
Answer:
Both condemned Brahmanical norm like rituals and opposed caste system, but Nayanars worshipped Shiva in both Linga and idol form while Lingayats worshipped only linga forms.

Question 3.
How did Indian hill stations become racial enclaves for the Europeans in the 19^th century ? Explain two reasons. [2]
Answer:

1. Introduction of the railways made hills accessible to wide range of people.
2. Setting up of tea and coffee plantation which caused an influx of immigrant labour from the plain.

Part – B

Question 4.
Mention any two changes that were observed after 1900 BCE in Harappan civilization. What could have brought these changes ? Explain. [2 + 2 = 4]
Answer:

1. Europeans recreated settlements reminiscent of their homes.
2. Buildings were built in European style.
3. Churches and educational institutions were set up by the British.
4. They were the summer capital for British Government like Simla, Nainital, Ooty etc.
   Reasons for changes are :
   Climatic change
   Deforestation.

Question 5.
“The mid first millennium BCE is often regarded as a major turning point in world history.” Justify. [4]
Answer:
The mid millennium BCE a turning point in world history:

1. Emergence of various thinkers like Socrates, Buddha etc., in different parts of the world.
2. Emergence of Upanishads in India.
3. Attempt to understand mystery of existence, ultimate reality etc.
4. Attempt to understand life after death.
5. To understand relationship between humans and cosmic order.
6. Compilation of Rig Veda.
7. Sacrificial tradition existed and was questioned,
8. Philosophical debates to understand the world in Kutagrashala.

Question 6.
Highlight any four aspects observed by the Portuguese traveller Barbosa on the Urban Core of the Vijaynagar Empire. [4]
Answer:
Barbosa has described a detailed account of Vijaynagar rulers, economic and social life of the empire. Four aspects observed by Barbosa are given below:

1. Most of the houses were thatched but well built.
2. Houses were arranged according to the occupation of the people in long streets in many open places.
3. The whole nagar was surrounded by a mountain, a river, a good wall.
4. There were many jewels which were brought from Pegu and Celani and in the country itself many diamonds are found.

Question 7.
State the inherent problems faced by Al-Baruni in the task of understanding Indian Social and Brahamanical practices. Mention any two sources that provided him the support. [2 + 2 = 4]
Answer:
Two inherent problems that were faced by Al-Baruni were:

1. Language : Al-Baruni was familiar only with Arabic and Persian and could not understand Sanskrit Language.
2. Difference in religious beliefs and practices. Two soures that provided him the support were :
   • Vedas and Puranas
   • The Bhagwad Geeta and Manusmriti.

Question 8.
“The battle between the hoe and the plough was a long one.” Substantiate the statement with reference to the Santhals and Paharis of Raj Mahal Hills during 18th century. [4]
Answer:
Paharis were the main residents of the Rajmahal hills. They practised Jhooming cultivation. They were very close to nature. In 1770s, the British embarked on a brutal policy of extermination, hunting the Paharis down and killing them. Then by the 1780s, Augustus Cleveland, proposed a policy of pacification. But this was refused by Paharis. As the Paharia pacification campaign continued, the Paharis withdrew deep into the mountains carrying a war with outsiders. But by this time, there were new intimations of danger from Santhals. Santhals were pouring into the area, clearing forest, cutting down timber, ploughing land and growing rice and cotton. As the lower hills were taken over by Santhal setders, the Paharia receded deeper into the Rajmahal hills. If Paharia life was symbolised by the Hoe, the Santhals came to represent the power of plough.

Question 9.
Examine how Lord Dalhousie’s policy of annexation created dissatisfaction amongst the people of Awadh. [4]
Answer:
British were felt that the soil of Awadh was very good for producing indigo and cotton and the region was ideally located to be developed into the principal market of upper India. Lord Dalhousie had carried out Awadh annexation in 1856 which created the dissatisfaction among the people of Awadh. Here the Nawab Wajid Ali Shah was dethroned and exiled to Calcutta on the plea that the region was being misgoverned. He was widely loved and when he left his beloved Lucknow, there were many who followed him all way to Kanpur singing songs of lament. This emotional upheaval was aggravated by immediate material losses. The removal of Nawab led to the dissolution of the court and its culture. Thus a whole range of people—musicians, dancers, poets, artisians, cooks, retainers, administrative officers so on lost their livelihood. Taluqdars and sepoys were rendered jobless and powerless.

Question 10.
Read the following passage and answer the question that follows : [4 × 1 = 4]
Every citizen in a free state should be treated in a manner that satisfied not only his material wants but also his spiritual sense of the self respect and the majority community has an obligation to try and understand the problems of the minorities and empathise with their aspiration. How could a citizen of a free nation express his imbibed values of equality and social justice while dealing with the members of the minority community ? Explain. **

Part – C

Question 11.
“There was more to rural India than the sedentary agriculture.” Explain the statement in the context of Mughal Period.
OR
“In spite of the limitations, the Ain-i-Akbari remains an extraordinary document of its time.” Explain the statement. [8]
Answer:
“There was more to rural India than the sedentary agriculture.” This statement can be explained on the basis of the following points :

1. In the contemporary texts, forest dwellers were known as ‘Jangli’. However, it did not mean an absence of civilisation.
2. The term Jangli was described for those whose livelihood came from the gathering of forest produce, hunting and shifting agriculture.
3. These activities were mainly season specific. For example, among the Bhils, the spring season was reserved for gathering of forest produce.
4. Among the Bhils, spring was reserved for gathering forest produce, summer for fishing, the monsoon months for cultivation whereas, winter and autumn for hunting.
5. The three factors that accounted for the continuous expansion of agriculture were:
   • abundance of land,
   • available labour,
   • mobility of peasants.
6. Though monsoon always remained the backbone of Indian agriculture yet these were crops which required additional water. For this purpose, artificial systems of irrigation had to be devised.
7. Irrigation projects got state support. In northern India, digging of new canals and repairing of old ones was undertaken by the state.
8. The Indo-Persian sources of the Mughal period frequendy used the term ‘raiyat’ to denote a peasant. Sources available in the 17^th century AD refer to two types of peasants—
   • Khud-Kashta
   • Pahi-Kashta.

OR
In spite of limitations, that Ain-i-Akbari is an extraordinary document of its time is very true as it provides fascinating glimpses into the structure and organisation of the Mughal Empire and gives us the quantitative information about its products and people. Abul Fazl achieved a major break through in the tradition of medieval chronicles who wrote mostly about remarkable political events, wars conquests political machinations and dynastic turmoil.

The Ain recorded the information about the empire and the people of India and thus constitutes a bench mark for studying India at the turn of the 17th C. The value of the Ain’s quantitative evidence is uncontested where the study of agrarian relation is concerned. The information on the people, their professions and trades and on the imperial establishment and the mansabdars of the empire provided in Ain enables the historians to reconstruct the social fabric of India at that time.

Question 12.
Analyse the distinctive aspects of the oral testimonies to understand the history of the partition of British India.
OR
Examine various events that led to the partition of British India. [8]
Answer:
1. Following are the strengths and limitations of oral history :

1. Oral history visits those areas of events which are not included in the formal domain. It also helps us in understanding trials and tribulations of common masses.
2. Oral history unfolds those mysterious vistas of events that helps us in graping experiences and memories in detail.
3. Oral history spots those points which would have remained in the dark sans oral sources.
4. Oral history permits historians to broaden the frontiers of their discipline. This provides information which is impossible to extract from government documents.
5. It helps in or succeeds in exploring the experiences of those men and women whose existence till now has been ignored.

2. Following are the limitation of oral history :

1. However, many historians remain sceptical of oral history. They out rightly dismiss its veracity and put it in the category of fiction instead of facts.
2. In the absence of evidences, oral data seem to lack concreteness and the chronology may be imprecise.
3. Oral accounts are related with peripheral issues and that the small individual experiences which remain in memory are irrelevant to the unfolding to larger processes of history.

3. Oral sources helped us in understanding partition in a better way :

1. Historians can use oral testimonies to collaborate written sources of the Indian holocaust and thus can help remove internal controversies and contradictions.
2. Oral sources have supported the official description of partition by providing a more personal edge.
3. The experiences it relates are pivotal to the story, so much so that oral sources should be incorporated to check and justice versa.

OR
The major four events happened that led to paritition of British India :
1. Salt March
2. Quit India Movement
3. Hindu-Muslim conflict
4. Indian Independence.

1. Salt March: On 12 March, 1939 Gandhiji began walking from his Ashram at Sabarmati towards the ocean. Gandhiji wanted to say that the salt is made by nature by any effort, then why British make so much tax on it.

2. Quit India Movement: After failure of Cripps Mission, Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch his third major movement against British rule. The Quit India campaign, which began in August 1942. It was a mass movement, bringing into its ambit hundreds of thousands of ordinary Indians.

3. Hindu-Muslim Conflicts : Early in 1946, fresh elections were held to the provincial legislatures. But the seats reserved for Muslims the league won an overwhelming majority Cabinet Mission in 1946 failed to get the Congress and League to agree on a federal system that would keep India together. On the designated day, 16 August 1946, that was Jinnah called for a “Direct Action Day” to press the League’s demand for Pakistan, blood riots broke out in Calcutta and spread to rural Bengal, Bihar, Punjab and all over the country. In some places, Hindu were the main sufferers, in other places, Hindus.

4. Indian Independence Act : In February 1947, Wavell was replaced as viceroy by Lord Mountbatten. Mountbatten called one last round of talks, but when these too proved inconclusive, he common announced that British India would be freed but divided the formal transfer of power was fixed for 15 August.

Question 13.
Explain the system of land grants and trade from c. 600 BCE to 600 CE.
OR
Explain any four sources to reconstruct the history of Mauryas. Examine the system of Maury an administration. [4 + 4 = 8]
Answer:
(i) The system of land grants (C. 600 BCE to CE 600) :

1. Grants of land were recorded in inscriptions from the early centuries of the Common Era. Some of these inscriptions were found on stone, but most were on copper plates.
2. Land grants were given to religious institutions or to Brahmanas. Grants called agrahara grants were made to Brahmanas.
3. Women were not supposed to have independent access to resources such as land. However, the inscription clearly indicates that Prabhavati had6 access to land.
4. Some scholars say, that land grants were indicative of weakening political power, as kings were losing control over their Samantas. Rulers wanted to present themselves as supermen by granting lands.

(ii) The system of trade :

1. The land and river router criss-crossed. The subcontinent and extended in different directions from the 6^th century BCE. Inland and overland trade existed.
2. These routes were traversed by the peddlers who travelled on foot. Whereas, merchants travelled with caravans of bullock carts and pack-animals.
3. There were seafarers also. There ventures were full of risks but highly profitable. Merchants designated as masattuwan in Tamil and Sethi’s and Satthava’s has in Praknit were very rich.
4. There was a comprehensive range of goods, which were carried from one place to another such as salt, stone, timber, spices and pepper, medicinal plants etc. All these items were transported across the Arabain sea to the Mediterranean.

OR
Four sources to reconstruct the history of Mauryas are:

1. Sculptures
2. Valuable contemporary works, such as account of Megasthenes
3. Arthashastra, parts of which are probably composed by Kautilya.
4. Inscriptions of Ashoka on rocks and pillars are most valuable sources.

Mauryan ‘Administration : There were five major political centres in the empire—The capital Patliputra and the provincial centres of Taxila, Ujjayini, Tosali and Suvarnagiri, all mentioned in Ashokan inscriptions. The regions included within the empire were just too diverse. Imagine the contract between the hilly terrain of Afghanistan and the coast of Odisha. It is likely that administrative control was strongest in the areas around the capital and the provincial centres. These centres were carefully chosen, both Taxila and Ujjayini being situated on important long distance trade routes, while Suvarnagiri was possible important for tapping the gold mines of Karnataka. Ashoka’s Dhamma spread respect towards elders, generosity towards Brahmanas and those who renounced wordly life, treating slaves and servants kindly, respect for religious and traditions other than one’s own.

Part – D

Question 14.
Read the following excerpt carefully and answer the questions that follow:

A Tiger-Like Husband
This is a summary of a story from the Adi Parvan of the Mahabharata:

The Pandavas had fled into the forest. They were tired and fell asleep; only Bhima, the second Pandava, renowned for his prowess, was keeping watch. A man-eating Rakshasa caught the scent of the Pandavas and sent his sister Hidimba to capture them. She fell in love with Bhima, transformed herself into a lovely maiden and proposed to him. He refused. Meanwhile, the Rakshasa arrived and challenged Bhima to a wrestling match. Bhima accepted the challenge and killed him. The others woke up hearing the noise. Hidimba introduced herself, and declared her love for Bhima. She told Kunti; “I have forsaken my friends, my dharma and my kin; and good lady, chosen your tiger-like son for my man … whether you think me a fool, or your devoted servant, let me join you, great lady, with your son as my husband.”

Ultimately, Yudhisthira agreed to the marriage on condition that they would spend the day together but that Bhima would return every night. The couple roamed all over the world during the day. In due course Hidimba gave birth to a Rakshasa boy named Ghatotkachha. Then the mother and son left the Pandavas. Ghatotkachha promised to return to the Pandavas whenever they needed him.

Some historians suggest that the term rakshasa is used to describe people whose practices differed from those laid down in Brahmanical texts.
(14.1) How did the story from Adi Parvan play
an important role in shaping the values and ethos of the society ? [2)
(14.2) How was this story a unique example
of exogamy ? [2]
(14.3) How did Hidimba and Yudhishthira interpret dharma in their context ? [3]
Answer:
(14.1) This Adi Parvan story reinforced the moral values and social values prescribed by Brahmanas. Story shows integration of the communities beyond the varnas into the Varna order.
(14.2) Exogamy refers to marriage outside the unit. Hidimba was out of Gotra of the Bheem. So, their marriage is an example of exogamy.
(14.3) Hidimba fell in love with Bhima and transformed herself into, a lovely maiden and proposed to him. She left her dharma, kin for Bheem. It was a definition of love for Hidimba and her dharma. Whereas Yudhishthira agreed for their marriage on a condition because he was keen follower of dharma but to uphold the dignity of Hidimba, marriage and love, he promised for their marriage on a condition.

Question 15.
Read the following excerpt carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The Accessible Emperor
In the account of his experiences, Monserrate, who was a member of the first Jesuit mission, says : It is hard to exaggerate how accessible he (Akbar) makes himself to all who wish audience of him. For he creates an opportunity almost every day for any of the common people or of the nobles to see him and to converse with him; and he endeavours to show himself pleasant-spoken and affable rather than severe towards all who come to speak with him. It is very remarkable how great an effect this courtesy and affability has in attaching him to the minds of his subjects.
(15.1) Who were Jesuits ? How did they establish their network in India ? [2]
(15.2) How did Monserrate accord his experience about the Akbar ? [2]
(15.3) How had Akbar’s courtesy brought affability for his subjects ? Explain. [3]
Answer:
(15.1) Jesuists were the missionaries of the Society of Jesus. They came to India in 15th and 16th century and they were the part of the process of trade and empire building.
(15.2) Monserrate, who was a member of the first Jesuit Mission explains how Akbar makes himself accessible to all who wished audience of him. For he create an opportunity almost everyday for any of the common people or of nobles to see him and to converse with him.
(15.3.) Akbar’s characteristics brought affability for his subjects which includes :

1. Relaxation in the taxes which made him popular in the audiences.
2. He was religiously very humble and secular.
3. He was very keen to meet the public and listen their voices.

Question 16.
Read the following excerpt carefully and answer the questions that follow :
Why the Salt Satyagraha ?
Why was salt the symbol of protest ? This is what Mahatma Gandhi wrote : The volume of information being gained daily shows how wickedly the salt tax has been designed. In order to prevent the use of salt that has not paid the tax which is at times even fourteen times its value, the Government destroys the salt it cannot sell profitably.

Thus, it taxes the nation’s vital necessity; it prevents the public from manufacturing it and destroys what nature manufactures without effort. No adjective is strong enough for characterising this wicked dog-in-the-manger policy. From various sources I hear tales of such wanton destruction of the nation’s property in all parts of India. Maunds if not tons of salt are said to be destroyed on the Konkan coast. The same tale comes from Dandi. Wherever, there is likelihood of natural salt being taken away by the people living in the neighbourhood of such areas for their personal use, salt officers are posted for the sole purpose of carrying on destruction. Thus valuable national property is destroyed at national expense and salt taken out of the mouths of the people.

The salt monopoly is thus a fourfold curse. It deprives the people of a valuable easy village industry, involves wanton destruction of property that nature produces in abundance, the destruction itself means more national expenditure, and fourthly to crown this folly, an unheard-of tax of more than 1,000 per cent is exacted from a starving people. This tax has remained so long because of the apathy of the general public. Now, that it is sufficiently roused, the tax has to go. How soon it will be abolished depends upon the strength of the people.
The Collected Works of Mahatma Gandhi (CWMG),
Vol. 49
(16.1) Why was salt monopoly introduced by
the British considered as a curse by the Indians ? [2]
(16.2) How did Gandhiji illustrate his
tactical wisdom with regard to salt monopoly ? [2]
(16.3) Explain the significance of Gandhiji’s challenge of salt protest. [3]
Answer:
(16.1) Because it deprived the people of a valuable easy village industry, involved wanton destruction of property that nature produced in abundance, the destruction itself means more national expenditure and more starving of people.

(16.2) Gandhiji announced that he would lead a march to break one of the most widely disliked laws in British India, which gave the state a monopoly in the manufacture and sale of salt. For in every Indian household, salt was indispensable, yet people were forbidden from making salt even for domestic use, compelling them to buy it from shops at a high price. To make it target, Gandhiji hoped to mobilise a wider discontent against British rule.

(16.3) Significance of the Gandhiji’s challenge of salt protest includes :

1. The march was widely covered by the European and American press. This made Gandhiji popular.
2. It was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers.
3. This salt march made people come together and forced upon the British the realisation that their Raj would not last forever.

Part – E

Question 17.
(17.1) On the given political outline map of India, locate and label the following with appropriate symbols : [1 × 2 = 2]
(a) Rakhigarhi
(b) Agra, the imperial capital of Mughal

(17.2) On the same outline map of India three centres related to the Indian National Movement have been marked as A, B and C. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. [1 × 3 = 3]
Answer:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2016 Delhi Set – II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Part – A

Question 1.
Who was R.E.M. Wheeler ? Mention any one of his contribution in the field of Archaeology. [1 + 1 = 2]
Answer:
R.E.M. Wheeler was mainly a British archaeologist. He was the Director General of Indian Archaeology from 1944-48. He did a lot for Harappa excavations. His main contribution involves the use of scientific method in archaeology and cartesian coordinate system.

Question 2.
Point out any two similarities between the philosophy of Kabir and Guru Nanak Dev ? [2]
Answer:
Kabir and Guru Nanak Dev both believed in practice of Nam-Simran. Both were against the polytheism and idol worships.

Part – B

Question 4.
The problems of Archaeological interpretation are perhaps most evident in the attempts to reconstruct religious practices of Harappans. Explain ? [4]
Answer:
The objects found in the excavation in Harappa seem like Hindu God and Goddesses. Archaeologists used the concept of known to unknown that is present to past to relate the things with Hindu deities. Some examples are :

1. Terracotta figurines of women, heavy jewelled with elaborate head dresses.
2. Stone statuory of men which is seated with one hand on the knee—such as priest king.
3. Great Bath and fire altars found in the Kalibangan and Lothal.
4. Some animals depicted on seals such as unicorn—one-horned animal seem to be mythical, composite creatures.
5. Some seales showing the figure of cross-legged in a logic posture surrounded by animals regarded as depiction of proto Shiva.
6. Rudra in the Rigveda neither depicted as Pashupati nor as a yogi. This’depiction does not match with Shiva.

So, these statutory bodies were not the men or women, some scholars suggest that they were be Shaman possibly.

Part – C

Question 11.
“The village panchayat during the Mughal / period regulated rural society.” Explain the
statement. [8]
Answer:

1. The village Panchayat was an assembly of elders of important people of the village. They had hereditary landed properties.
2. The panchayat represented various castes and communities in the village but it was dominated by the Brahmanas and the Kshatriyas.
3. The menial-cum-agricultural worker was unlikely to be represented.
4. The Panchayat was headed by a headman known as muqaddam or mandal.
5. The headman was chosen by consensus by the village elders. This was ratified by the zamindar.
6. The headmen held office as long as they t enjoyed the confidence of the village elders, failing
   which they could be dismissed by them.
7. The chief function of the headman was to ‘ supervise the preparation of village accounts,
   assisted by the accountant or patwari.
8. The mandals often misused their positions, for under assessing the revenue from their own lands and passing the burden to the smaller cultivator.
9. The funds came from contributions made by the individuals to a common pool.
10. This money was used for looking after the state revenue officials who visited the village, community welfare activities during natural calamities like floods, construction of a bund or digging a canal etc.
11. The panchayat ensured that caste boundaries among the various communities of the village were upheld to prevent any offence against their caste. In eastern India, all marriages were held in the presence of the mandal.
12. Panchayats also had the authority to impose fines. They could give severe punishment like expulsion from the community, thus forcing a person forced to leave the village and losing his right to practice his profession.
13. Each caste or jati in the village had its own jati panchayat with considerable power.
14. In Rajasthan jati, panchayats took care of civil disputes, land marriages, ritual precedence in village functions regarding members of different castes.

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2016 Delhi Set – III

Part – A

Question 1.
Who was Cunningham ? Mention any one source he collected to understand the Harappa culture. [2]
Answer:
Cunningham was the first Director General of Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). Cunningham used the accounts left by Chinese Buddhist pilgrims who had visited the subcontinent between the fourth and seventh centuries to understand the Harappan culture.

Question 2.
Point out one difference and one similarity between Be-shari’a and Ba-shari’a Sufi traditions. [2]
Answer:
The Shari’a is the law governing the Muslim community. The Sufi, traditions which were antisharia are called Be-shari while the tradition of Sufi Vichar Pro-Sharia are called Be-sharia. Similarity between these two is that both are related with Sufi traditions.

Part – B

Question 4.
Why do archaeologist and historians find Harappan script enigmatic ? Explain reasons.
[4]
Answer:
Harappan script is an enigmatic script because of the following reasons :

1. Most inscriptions are short and the longest one containing about 26 signs.
2. These scripts were not alphabetical as it has too many signs (between 375 to 400).
3. The script was written from right to left as some seals show a wider spacing on the right and cramping on then left.
4. Harappan seals have a line of writing probably containing the name and title of the owner.
5. The motif, generally an animal, conveyed a meaning to those who could not read.
6. The writing has been found on variety of objects such as seals, copper tools, rims of jars, copper and terracotta tablets, jewellery and bone rods.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2016 Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2015 Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 80

General Instructions:

• All question in both sections are compulsory.
• Marks for questions are indicated against each questions.
• Question Nos. 1-4 and 13-16 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 marks each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
• Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18 are short- answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
• Question No. 7-9 and 19-21 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
• Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24 are long- answer questions carrying 6 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
• Answer should be brief and to the point and the above words limits should be adhered to as far as possible.

** Answer is not given due to change in the present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2015 Delhi Set – I

Section – A

Question 1.
Give equation of Budget Line. [1]
Answer:
The equation for budget line is as follows.
P₁X₁ + P₂X₂ = M Where,
P₂ represents price of good 1 X₁ Quantity of good 1
P₂ represents price of good 2 X₂ Quantity of good 2
M represents income of the consumer

Question 2.
When income of the consumer falls the impact on price-demand curve of an inferior good is : (choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Shifts to the right.
(b) Shifts to the left.
(c) There is upward movement along the curve.
(d) There is downward movement along the curve.
Answer:
(a) Shifts to the right.

Question 3.
If Marginal Rate of Substitution is constant throughout, the Indifference curve will be : (choose the correct alternative. [1]
(a) Parallel to the x-axis.
(b) Downward sloping concave.
(c) Downward sloping convex.
(d) Downward sloping straight line.
Answer:
(a) Downward sloping straight line.

Question 4.
Giving reason comment on the shape of Production Possibilities Curve based on the following schedule: [3]

Answer:
The PPC would be concave in shape. This is because of the increasing opportunity cost. ‘With increase each additional unit of production of good X of the amount of good Y that must be sacrificed increases. For example, as the production of good X moves from first unit to second unit, 2 units of good Y must be sacrificed (9 – 7). Further, as the production moves from second unit to third unit, the units of good Y that must be sacrificed increases to three. Thus, the opportunity cost of producing one additional unit of good X goes on increasing. This increasing opportunity cost gives rise to concave shape of PPC.

Question 5.
What will be the impact of recently launched ‘Clean India Mission’ (Swachh Bharat Mission) on the Production possibilities curve of the economy and why? [3]
OR
What will likely be the impact of large scale outflow of foreign capital on Production Possibilities curve of the economy and why?
Answer:
The ‘Clean India Mission’ (Swachh Bharat Mission) will lead to better waste- management technique. Consequent to this, there will be drastic reduction in the number of people falling ill. Both these factors will lead to better and efficient utilisation of existing resources of an economy. Accordingly, the economy will move higher and closer to initial PPC. This movement is being depicted in the below graph with the help of the arrow from point P.

OR
The large scale outflow of foreign capital will lead to a decrease in the availability of resources, thereby shifting the Production Possibility Curve (PPC) parallelly to the left from AB to CD as shown in the following diagram. Hence, we can say that leftward shift of PPC results in fall in output and resources.

Question 6.
The measure of price elasticity of demand of a normal good carries minus sign while price elasticity of supply carries plus sign. Explain why? [3]
Answer:
The measure of price elasticity of demand carries a minus sign because it shows an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded i.e., other things remaining constant, as the price of a good rises or falls, the quantity demanded of the good falls (or rises). On the other hand, price elasticity of supply carries plus sign as there exists a positive relationship between the supply of a commodity and its price. To put’ in other words, when the price of a good rises (or falls), then the quantity supplied will increase (or decrease), other things remaining unchanged.

Question 7.
There are large number of seller in a perfectly competitive market. Explain the significance of this feature. [3]
Answer:
There exists a large numbers of buyers and sellers in a perfect competitive market. The number of sellers is so large that no individual firm owns the control over the market price of the commodity. Due to the existence of large number of sellers in the market, there exists perfect and free competition in the market. The firm acts as a price taker. That is, the firms have no control over the existing market price and cannot influence it. If an individual firm raises its price, then it will lose all its buyers to other firms and vice-versa. Thus, firms have no role to play other than supplying the required output at the existing market price and therefore a firm is a price taker and not a price maker.

Question 8.
Explain the effects of ‘maximum price ceiling’ on the market of a good. Use diagram. [3]
Answer:
Price ceiling is the legislated or government imposed maximum level of price that can be charged by the seller. Since price ceiling is lower than the equilibrium price (OP_e), thus the imposition of the price ceiling leads to excess demand as shown in the diagram below.

The following are the consequences and effects of price ceiling.
Excess demand: Due to artificially lowering the price, the demand becomes comparatively higher than the supply. This leads to the emergence, of the problem of excess demand.

Enhances welfare: The imposition of the price ceiling ensures the access of the necessity goods within the reach of the poor people. This safeguards and enhances the welfare of the poor and vulnerable sections of the society.

Fixed quota: Each consumer gets a fixed quantity of good (as per the quota). The quantity often falls short of meeting the individual’s requirements. This further leads to the problem of shortage and the consumer remains unsatisfied.

Inferior goods: Often it has been found that the goods that are available at the ration shops are usually inferior goods and are adulterated and infiltrated.

Black marketing: The needs of a consumer remain unfulfilled as per the quota laid by the government. Consequently, some of the unsatisfied consumers get ready to pay higher price for the additional quantity. This leads to black-marketing and artificial shortage in the market.

Question 9.
A consumer spends ₹ 1000 on a good price at ₹ 8 per unit. When price rises by 25 percent, the consumer continues to spend same amount on the good. Calculate price elasticity of demand by percentage method. [4]
Answer:
Given:
Initial Total Expenditure (TE₀) = ₹ 1000
Final Total Expenditure (TE₁) = ₹ 1000
Initial Price (P₀) = ₹ 8
Percentage change in price = +25%
Percentage change in price =

∴ E_d = 0.8
Thus, the price elasticity of demand is 0.8

Question 10.
Define cost. State the relation between marginal cost and average variable cost. [4]
OR
Define revenue. State the relation between marginal revenue and average revenue.
Answer:
Cost or cost of production refers to the expenditures incurred or payments made by a firm to various factors of production (such as, land, labour, capital and entrepreneur) and also non-factors of production (such as, raw materials, etc.)
Relationship between AVC and MC
(1) When AVC is falling, MC falls at a faster rate and stays below AVC curve.
(2) When AVC is rising, MC rises at a faster rate and remains above AVC curve.
(3) When AVC is at minimum point (y), MC is equal to AVC.
MC curve cuts AVC curve at its minimum point.
(4) The minimum point of.MC curve (x) will always lie left to the minimum point of AVC curve (y).
(5) AVC and MC both are derived from TVC.

OR
Revenue is the money income for a firm which it receives from the sale of goods produced. In other words, revenue refers to the sale proceeds or sales receipts.

Relationship between MR and AR
The relationship between AR and MR can be studied under two forms of market-under Perfect Competition market and under Imperfect Competition market.
1. Under perfect competition market: AR equals MR throughout all output levels. Graphically, MR curve is a straight horizontal line parallel to the x-axis and coincides with the AR curve.

2. Under imperfect competition market : As output increases both AR and MR falls. However, AR remains greater than MR at all levels of output. Also, when AR curve becomes zero, then the MR curve is negative. Graphically, both AR curve and MR curve are downward sloping but the AR curve remains above the MR curve.

Question 11.
A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y both priced at ₹ 3 per unit. If the consumer chooses a combination of these two goods with Marginal Rate of Substitution equal to 3, is the consumer in equilibrium ? Give reasons. What will a rational consumer do in this situation? Explain. [6]
OR
A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y whose prices are ₹ 4 and ₹ 5 per unit respectively. If the consumer chooses a combination of the two goods with marginal utility of X equal to 5 and that of Y equal to 4, is the consumer in equilibrium? Give reason. What will a rational consumer do in this situation? Use utility analysis.
Answer:
At the point of consumer equilibrium the following equality should be met:

So, MRS is greater than the price ratio. Thus, to reach the equilibrium point a rational consumer would decrease the consumption of good y.
OR
According to the utility approach, a consumer reaches equilibrium where the following equality is met.

So, is greater than . Thus, to reach the equilibrium, a rational consumer would increase the consumption of good x and decrease that of good y.

Question 12.
State the different phases of changes in Total Product and Marginal Product in the Law of Variable Proportions. Also show the same in a single diagram. [6]
Answer:
The different phases of changes in Total Product (TP) and Marginal Product (MP) can be understood with the help of Law of Variable Proportions. As per this law, if more and more of variable factor (labour) is combined with the same quantity of fixed factor (capital), then initially the total product will increase but gradually after a point, the total product will become smaller and smaller. The following are the three phases (stages) of the Changes in the two variables.

1st Stage: Increasing returns to a factor This stage starts from the origin point 0 and continues till the point of inflexion (K) on the TP curve. During this phase, TP increases at an increasing rate and is also accompanied by rising MP curve (in figure ii). The MP curve attains its maximum point (U) corresponding to the point of inflexion. Throughout this stage, AP continues to rise.

IInd Stage: Diminishing returns to a factor
This stage starts from point K and continues till point B on the TP curve. During this stage, the TP increases but at a decreasing rate and attains its maximum point at B, where it remains constant. On the other hand (in the figure (ii)), the MP curve continues to fall and cuts AP from its maximum point Z, where MP equals AP. When TP attains its maximum point, corresponding to it, MP becomes zero. AP, in this stage initially rises, attains its maximum point at Z and thereafter starts falling.

IIIrd Stage: Negative Returns to a Factor This stage begins from the point B on the TP curve. Throughout this point, TP curve is falling and MP curve is negative. Simultaneously, the AP curve continues to fall and approaches the x-axis (but does not touch it). Like the first stage, this stage is also known as non-economic zone as any rational producer would not operate in this zone. This is because the addition to the total output by the additional labour unit (i.e. marginal product) is negative. This implies that employing more labour would not contribute anything to the total product but will add to cost of the production in form of additional wage. Hence, the cost of the additional labour input is greater the benefit of employing it.

The law of variable proportion can be easily understood with the help of following schedule and diagram.

Question 13.
Why is the equality between marginal cost and marginal revenue necessary for a firm to be in equilibrium? Is it sufficient to ensure equilibrium? Explain. [6]
Answer:
According to MR-MC approach, the firm (or producer) will attain equilibrium where the following two necessary and sufficient conditions are fulfilled.
Case A: If Price (MR) > MC

At output OQ₁, price is KQ₁ and the marginal cost is LQ₁, such that KQ₁ > LQ₁. Therefore, OQ₁ is not the profit maximising output. This is due to the fact that the firm can increase its profit by increasing the production of output to OQ₂.

Case B: If Price (MR) < MC
At output OQ₃, price is HQ₃ and the marginal cost is GQ₃, such that HQ₃ < GQ₃. Therefore, OQ₃ is not the profit maximising output. This is due to the fact that the firm can increase its profit by reducing its output level to OQ₂.

Thus, we can conclude that at profit maximisation output, the equilibrium price (or MR) must be equal to the MC curve and it cannot be greater or lesser than the MC curve. The equality of MR and MC is only the necessary condition, The sufficient condition is that the MC should be rising at the point of intersection with MR.

In the figure, the MC curve cuts the price line (or MR) at two different points i.e., at Z’ and E’. The first order condition of profit maximisation, i.e., Price (or MR) MC is fulfilled at both of these points. Now let us evaluate which of the following two cases fulfill the second order condition of profit maximisation.

Case A: At point’Z’
At point ‘Z’, price is equal to MC but MC is falling and is negatively sloped. At this point, any output level slightly more than the OQ₀, the firm is facing price that exceeds the MC. This implies that, the profit can be maximised by increasing output level beyond OQ₀. Therefore, OQ₀ is not a profit maximisation output.

Case B: At point ‘E’
To the left of the point ‘E’, if the firm produces slightly lesser level of output than OQ₂, then the firm is facing price that exceeds the MC. This implies that higher profits can be achieved by increasing the level of output to OQ₂. On the other hand, to the right of the point ‘E’, if the firm produces slightly higher level of output than OQ₂, then the firm is facing price that falls short of the MC. This implies that higher profits can be achieved by reducing the output level to OQ₂. Thus, the point E is the producer’s equilibrium and OQ₂ is the profit maximizing output level, where Price = MC and also MC curve is rising.

Question 14.
Market for a good is in equilibrium. The demand for the good ‘increases’. Explain the chain of effects of this change. [6]
Answer:

Suppose D₁D₁ and S₁S₁ are the initial market demand curve and market supply curve, respectively. The initial equilibrium is established at point E₁, where the market demand curve and the market supply curve intersects each other. Accordingly, the equilibrium price is OPx and the equilibrium quantity demanded is Oq₁.

Now, assume that market demand increases (may be due to an increase in the consumer’s income). This shifts the market demand curve parallel rightwards to D₂D₂ from D₁D₁. While the market supply curve remains unchanged at S₁S₁. This imples that at the initial price OP₁. There exist excess demand equivalent to (Oq₁ – Oq₃) units. This excess demand will increase competition among the buyers and they will now be ready to pay a higher price to acquire more units of good. This will further raise the market price. The rise in the price will continue till the market price becomes OP₂. The new equilibrium is established at point E₂ where the new demand curve D₂D₂ intersects the supply curve S₁S₁. Observe that at the new equilibrium both market price and quantity demanded are more than the initial equilibrium. The new equilibrium quantity supplied Oq₂ and the new equilibrium price is OP₂ Hence, an increase in demand with supply remaining constant, results in rise in the equilibrium price as well as the equilibrium quantity.
To summarise,
Increase in demand ⇒ Excess demand at the existing price Competition among the buyers ⇒ Rise in the price level ⇒ New equilibrium ⇒ Rise in both quantity demanded as well as price.

Section – B

Question 15.
What is ‘aggregate supply’ in macroeconomics? [1]
Answer:
Aggregate supply refers to the total output produced in the country or the total national product of the country at a given level of employment.

Question 16.
The value of multiplier is : (choose the correct alternative) [1]

Answer:
(b)

Question 17.
Borrowing in government budget is: (choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Revenue deficit
(b) Fiscal deficit
(c) Primary deficit
(d) Deficit in taxes
Answer:
Borrowing in the government is the fiscal deficit. The fiscal deficit basically shows the borrowing requirement of a country. It is defined as the excess of government expenditure over government revenue.
Hence, the correct answer is option (b).

Question 18.
The non-tax revenue in the following is: (choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Export duty
(b) Import duty
(c) Dividends
(d) Excise
Answer:
The non-tax revenue is dividends. This is because the import duty, export duty and excise are different kinds of tax revenues for the government. Hence, the correct answer is option (c).

Question 19.
Other things remaining unchanged, when in a country the price of foreign currency rises, national income is : (choose the correct alternative) [1]
(a) Likely to rise
(b) Likely to fall
(c) Likely to rise and fall both
(d) Not affected
Answer:
When the prices of foreign currency rises, the national income is likely to rise. This is because rise in foreign prices will lead to increase in the one of the components of national income i.e. net exports. That is, exports will increase and imports will decrease (as imports have become expensive), this will ultimately lead to increase in national income.
Hence, the correct answer is option (a).

Question 20.
If Real GDP is ₹ 200 and Price Index (with base = 100) is 110, calculate Nominal GDP. [3]
Answer:
We know,

Question 21.
Name the broad categories of transactions recorded in the ‘capital account’ of the Balance of Payments Accounts. [3]
OR
Name the broad categories of transactions recorded in the ‘current account’ of the Balance of Payments Accounts.
Answer:
The following are the three broad categories of transactions recorded under capital account of BOP.
1. Foreign direct investment (FDI) and portfolio investment: Foreign Direct Investment refers to the investment in the assets of a foreign country. By investing, the government or any resident of domestic country owns the control over the asset of the foreign country. On the contrary, Portfolio Investment refers to the investment in the assets of a foreign country without any control over that asset.

FDI and Portfolio Investment cause an inflow of foreign exchange into the country. Thus, they are recorded as positive items in the Capital Account of BOP. It should also be noted that FDI and Portfolio Investment are the non-debt creating capital transactions.

2. Loans and Borrowings: Loans and borrowings by a country from the foreign countries or from the international money market are recorded in the Capital Account of the BOP. These borrowings can be in the form of commercial borrowings or in the form of assistance. When a country borrows with the consideration of assistance, the transaction would involve a lower rate of interest as compared to the prevailing market rate of interest. As against this, commercial borrowings involve open market rate of interest. Loans and borrowings result in inflow of foreign exchange into the country. Hence, they are recorded as positive items in the Capital Account of BOP. Unlike FDI and Portfolio Investments, loans and borrowings are debt creating capital transactions.

3. Banking Capital Transactions: Another form of Capital Account transactions are banking capital transactions. Such transactions refer to the transactions of external financial assets and liabilities of the commercial banks and co-operative banks that operate as authorised dealers in the foreign exchange market.
OR
The following are the broad categories of transactions recorded under current account of BOP.
1. Export and import of goods : The transactions of a country in the form of export and import of goods is recorded in the current account of the BOP. This record of export and import of goods is also called the ‘Balance of Visible Trade’. The export of goods is recorded as a positive item in the Current Account of BOP. This is because exports result in the inflow of foreign exchange into the country. On the other hand, imports of goods are recorded as negative items in the Current Account of BOP, as they result in an outflow of the foreign exchange from the country.

2. Export and import of services: Another component of the Current Account is the export and import of services. The record of export and import of services is also called the ‘Balance of invisible trade’. Similar to the export of goods, export of services is also recorded as positive items in the Current Account of BOP. As against this, the import of services is recorded as negative items in the Current Account of BOP. The following are some of the major services that are included in the Current Account of BOP.
(a) Shipping services, insurance and banking services, etc.
(b) Income from investment (i.e. income from profits and dividends)
(c) Foreign travel
(d) Miscellaneous transactions such as royalties, consultancy services, telephone services, etc.

3. Unilateral Transfers: Unilateral transfers refer to the one-sided transfers such as gifts, donations, grants from foreign governments, etc. A country makes such transfers to the rest of the world as well as receives transfers from the rest of the world. Receipts of unilateral transfers are recorded as positive items in the Current Account of BOP, while payments of unilateral transfers are recorded as negative items in the Current Account of BOP.

Question 22.
Where will sale of machinery to abroad be recorded in the Balance of Payments Accounts? Give reasons. [3]
Answer:
Sale of machinery to abroad (exports) will be recorded as positive item in the current account of BOP, The current account of BOP is that account which maintains the records of imports and exports of goods and services as well as record of unilateral transfers. Those transactions that result in an inflow of foreign exchange in the country are recorded as positive items in the current account of BOP. On the other hand, those items that lead to an outflow of foreign exchange from the country are recorded as negative items in the current account of BOP. Therefore, as sale of machinery abroad leads to an inflow of foreign exchange in the country it will be recorded as a positive item in the current account of BOP.

Question 23.
Explain the ‘bank of issue’ function of the central bank. [4]
OR ‘
Explain ‘Government’s Bank’ function of central bank.
Answer:
Bank of issue function of central bank implies that the central bank of a country has the exclusive authority to issue the currency (notes + coins). The currency issued by the central bank is known as ‘legal tender money’ i.e. the value of such currency is backed by the central bank. However, the currency issued by the central bank is its monetary liability. In other words, the central bank is obliged to back the currency issued by it by assets such as gold coins and bullions, foreign exchange. In addition to issuing currency to the general public, the central bank also issues currency to the central government of the country. That is, the central government if required, can sell its securities to the central bank and in return gets the required cash currency.
OR
Central bank acts as a banker and financial advisor to the government. As a banker to the government, it performs the following functions.
(a) It manages the account of the government.
(b) It accepts receipts from the government and makes payment on behalf of it.
(c) It grants short-term loans and credit to the government.
(d) It performs the task of managing the public debt.
(e) The central bank advises the government on all the banking and financial related matters.

Question 24.
Government of India has recently launched ‘Jan-Dhan Yojna’ aimed at every household in the country to have at least one bank account. Explain how deposits made under the plan are going to affect national income of the country. [4]
Answer:
With the ‘Jan Dhan Yojna’ a greater number of individuals are brought under the ambit of banking system. Those individuals who earlier did not have savings account now have access to banking facilities and have opened savings account with the commercial banks. In this way, the commercial banks are able to tap greater savings which in turn can be used to lend loans for investment purposes. Thus, the yojna indirectly helps in increasing the investment and production in the economy which in turn would help in improving the national income.

Question 25.
An economy is in equilibrium. Calculate national income from the following. [4]
Autonomous consumption = 100
Marginal propensity to save = 0.2
Investment expenditure = 200
Answer:
Given
Autonomous consumption = 100
MPS(s) = 0.2
i.e. MPC (c) = 1 – MPS = 1 – 0.2 = 0.8
1 = 200
y = ??
We know that at equilibrium,
Y = C + I
i.e. Y = + cY + I
⇒ Y = 100 + 0.8Y + 200
⇒ Y = 0.8Y +300
⇒ Y – 0.8Y = 300
⇒ 0.2Y = 300
so, Y = 1,500

Question 26.
Giving reason explain how should the following be treated in estimation of national income: [6]
(i) Expenditure by a firm on payment of fees to a chartered accountant
(ii) Payment of corporate tax by a firm
(iii) Purchase of refrigerator by a firm for own use
Answer:
(a) The services of chartered accountant hired by the firm should not be included in the estimation of national income. This is because it forms a part of the firm’s intermediate consumption.
(b) Payment of corporate tax is not included in the national income as it is a mere transfer payment from the firm to the government. It is a part of corporate profits which already form part of national income, therefore, it should not be separately included in national income (in addition to corporate profits).
(c) Purchase of refrigerator by a firm for own use will be included in the national income as it is regarded as final consufnption expenditure.

Question 27.
Explain the concept of Inflationary Gap. Explain the role of Repo Rate in reducing this gap. [6]
OR
Explain the concept of Deflationary Gap and the role of ‘Open Market Operations’ in reducing this gap.
Answer:
Due to the excess of aggregate demand, there exists a difference (or gap) between the actual level of aggregate demand and full employment level of demand. This difference is termed as inflationary gap. This gap measures the amount of surplus in the level of aggregate demand. Graphically, it is represented by the vertical distance between the actual level of aggregate demand (AD_E) and the full employment level of output (AD_F). In the figure, EY denotes the aggregate demand at the full employment level of output and FY denotes the actual aggregate demand. The vertical distance between these two represents inflationary gap. That is,
FY – EY = FE (Inflationary Gap)
Let us understand the situation of excess demand and concept of inflationary gap with the help of the following figure.

In the figure, AD₁ and AS represents the aggregate demand curve and aggregate supply curve respectively. The economy is at full employment equilibrium at point ‘E’, where AD₁ intersects AS curve. At this equilibrium point, OY represents full employment level and EY is aggregate demand at the full employment level of output.

Let us suppose that the actual aggregate demand for output is FY, which is higher than EY. This implies that actual aggregate output demanded by the economy FY is more than the potential (full employment) aggregate output EY. Thus, the economy is facing surplus demand. This situation is termed as excess demand. As a result of the excess demand, inflationary gap arises.

The inflationary gap is measured by the vertical distance between the actual aggregate demand for output and the potential (or full employment level) aggregate demand. In other words, the distance between FY and EY, i.e. FE represents the inflationary gap.

Repo rate refers to the rate at which the central bank lends to the commercial bank. In such inflationary gap, the central bank would increase repo rate. An increase in the repo rate increases the cost of borrowings for the commercial banks. This discourages the demand for loans and borrowings. Thereby, the consumption expenditure falls, and hence aggregate demand falls
OR
Due to the deficiency in the aggregate demand, there exists a difference (or gap) between the actual level of aggregate demand and full employment level of demand. This difference is termed as deflationary gap. This gap measures the amount of deficiency in the level of aggregate demand. Graphically, it is represented by the vertical distance between the aggregate demand at the full employment level of output (AD_E) and the actual level of aggregate demand (AD_f). In the figure below, EY denotes the aggregate demand at full employment level of output and CY denotes the actual aggregate demand. The vertical distance between these two represents deflationary gap. That is,
EY – CY = EC (Deflationary Gap)
Let us understand the situation of deficit demand and concept of deflationary gap with the help of the following figure.

In the figure, AD₁ and AS represents the aggregate demand curve and aggregate supply curve. The economy is at full employment equilibrium at point ‘E’, where AD₁ intersects AS curve. At this equilibrium point, OY represents the full employment level of output and EY is the aggregate demand at the full employment level of output.

Let us suppose that the actual aggregate demand for output is only CY, which is lower than EY. This implies that actual aggregate output demanded by the economy CY falls short of the potential (full employment) aggregate output EY. Thus, the economy is facing a deficiency in demand. This situation is termed as deficit demand. As a result of the deficit demand, deflationary gap arises. The deflationary gap is measured by the vertical distance between the potential (or full employment level) aggregate demand and the actual aggregate demand for output. In other words, the distance between EY and CY, i.e. EC represents the deflationary gap.

To correct deflationary gap, the central bank purchases the securities in the market, thereby, increasing the flow of money and subsequently enhancing the purchasing power of the people. The higher purchasing power increases the aggregate demand.

Question 28.
Explain the role the government can play through the budget in influencing allocation of resources. [6]
Answer:
The government through its budgetary policy can reallocate the resources to different areas. In a mixed economy, the private producers aim towards profit maximisation, while, the government aims towards welfare maximisation. The private sector always tend to divert resources towards areas of high profit, while, ignoring areas of social welfare. In such a situation, the government through its budgetary policy reallocates resources to maintain a balance between the social objectives of welfare maximisation and economic objective of profit maximisation. For example- government levies taxes on socially harmful goods such as tobacco, etc., and provides subsidies for the socially desirable goods such as food grains, kerosene, etc.

Question 29.
Calculate National Income and (Personal Disposable Income ). [6]

Answer:
National Income = Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption expenditure + (Net domestic fixed capital formation + depreciation + change in stock) – net imports – depreciation – Net Indirect Taxes – Net factor income to abroad
National income :
= 600 + 100 + (70 + 14 -10) – 20 -14 – 60 – 10 = ₹ 670
or, National income = ₹ 670 crore

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2015 Delhi Set – II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Section – A

Question 2.
Give equation of Budget Set. [1]
Answer:
The budget set or the consumption bundles available to the consumer will be governed by the following inequality condition :
P₁x₁ + P₂x₂ ≤ M
(Budget Constraint) where,
x₁ = Quantity of good 1
x₂ = Quantity of good 2
P₁ = Price of good 1
P₂ = Price of good 2

Question 5.
Giving reason comment on the shape of Production Possibilities curve based on the following schedule: [3]

Answer:
Based on the below schedule, we can say that PPC is a downward sloping straight line. This is because the opportunity cost of producing one good (i.e. Good X) in terms of another (i.e. Good Y) remains the same, that is, 2 (ignoring the minus sign).

The following figure depicts the shape of PPC.

Thus, the shape of PPC is downward sloping straight line which can be attributed to the constant opportunity cost.

Question 10.
A consumer spends ₹ 60 on a good priced at ₹ 5 per unit. When price falls by 20 percent, the consumer continues to spend ₹ 60 on the good. Calculate price elasticity of demand by percentage method.
Answer:
Given:
Initial Total Expenditure (TE₀) = ₹ 60
Final Total Expenditure (TE₁) = ₹ 60
Initial Price (P₀) = ₹ 5
Percentage change in price = – ₹ 20

E_d = 1.25
∴ E_d = 1.25
Thus, the price elasticity of demand is 1.25.

Question 11.
Market for a good is in equilibrium. The demand for the good ‘decreases’. Explain the chain of effects of this change. [6]

Answer:
If market demand decreases, then the market demand curve shifts parallel leftwards to D₂D₂. NOW, at the initial price OP₁, there exists excess supply equivalent to Oq₁ – Oq’₁ units of output. Due to the excess supply, the competition among the producers increases and they try to get rid of the excess stock by selling their output at comparatively lower price. The price will continue to fall until it reaches OP₂, and the new equilibrium is established at point E₂, where the new demand curve D₂D₂ intersects the initial market supply curve S₁S₁. Hence, a decrease in market demand with supply remaining constant, results in fall in the equilibrium price as well as the equilibrium quantity.

Decrease in demand ⇒ Excess supply at the existing price ⇒ Competition among the producers ⇒ Fall in the price level ⇒ New equilibrium ⇒ Fall in both quantity demanded as well as price.

Section – B

Question 21.
If the Nominal GDP is ₹ 1,200 and Price Index (with base = 100) is 120, calculate Real GDP.[3]
Answer:

Question 23.
An economy is in equilibrium. Find ‘autonomous consumption’ from the following: [4]
National income = 1,000
Marginal propensity to consume = 0.8
Investment expenditure = 100
Answer:
Given
Y = 1,000
MPC (c) = 0.8
I = 100
Autonomous consumption () = ??
We know that at equilibrium,
Y = C + I
i.e., 1,000 = + cY + I
1,000 = + 0.8 × 1,000 + 100
1,000 = + 900
1,000 – 900 =
So, = 100

Question 29.
Calculate ‘Gross National Product at Market Price’ and ‘Net National Disposable Income’** : [6]

Answer:
GNP_MP = Compensation of employees + Rent + Interest + Royalty + Profit + Mixed income + NFIA + Net indirect taxes + Gross domestic capital formation – Net domestic capital formation
GNP_MP = 500 + 100 + 110 + 20 + 200 + 600 – 10 + 150 + 140 – 120
GNP_MP = ₹ 1690 crore

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2015 Delhi Set – III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Section – A

Question 3.
Define Budget Set. [1]
Answer:
A budget set represents those combinations of consumption bundles that are available to the consumer given his/her income level and at the existing market prices. In other words, it represents those consumption bundles that the consumer can purchase using his/her money income (M).

Question 5.
Explain the feature ‘interdependence of firms’ in an oligopoly market. [3]
Answer:
There exists a very high degree of mutual interdependence between the firms in an oligopoly market. The price and the quantity decisions of a particular firm are dependent on the price and the quantity decisions of the rival (other) firms. Hence, a firm must take into consideration the probable rival reactions, while formulating its own price and output decisions.

Question 8.
Giving reason comment on the shape of Production Possibilities curve based on the following schedule: [3]

Answer:
Based on the below schedule, we can say that PPC is concave to origin. This is because as the production increases, to produce each additional unit of Good X, more and more units of Good Y are sacrificed. In other words, the opportunity cost of producing one good in terms of another increases.

The following figure depicts the shape of PPC. Thus, the shape of PPC is concave which can be attributed to the law of increasing opportunity cost.

Question 9.
A consumer spends ₹ 100 on a good priced at ₹ 4 per unit. When price falls by 50 percent, the consumer continues to spend ₹ 100 on the good. Calculate price elasticity of demand by percentage method. [4]
Answer:
Given:
Initial Total Expenditure (TE₀) = ₹ 100
Final Total Expenditure (TE₁) = ₹ 100
Initial Price (P₀) = ₹ 4
Percentage change in price = -50

E_d = 2
∴ E_d = 2
Thus, the price elasticity of demand is 2.

Section – B

Question 22.
If the Real GDP is ₹ 300 and Nominal GDP is ₹ 330, calculate Price Index (base = 100). [3]
Answer:
We know,

Question 24.
An economy is in equilibrium. Find Marginal Propensity to Consume from the following : [4]
National income = 2,000
Autonomous consumption = 400
Investment expenditure = 200
Answer:
C = + cY where,
represents autonomous consumption expenditure
c represents marginal propensity to consumre
So,
Y = C + cY + I
Substituting the given values,
2000 = 400 + c (2000) + 200
2000 = 600 + 2000 c
or, c = 0.7
Thus, marginal propensity to consume is 0.7.

Question 29.
Calculate ‘Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost’ and ‘Gross National Disposable Income’** : [6]

Answer:
NDP_FC = Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption expenditure + (Net domestic capital formation + depreciation) – Net imports – depreciation – Net indirect taxes
or, NDP_FC = 800 + 200 + 100 + 50 – (-20) -50 -120
or, NDP_FC = ₹ 1000 crore

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit Chapter 5 मानसं मम विकसितं कुरु (मेरे मन को विकसित कर दो)

पाठपरिचयः, सारांशः च
पाठपरिचयः
इयं कविता कविवराणां रवीन्द्रनाथठाकुर-महाभागानां प्रसिद्धग्रन्थात् गीताञ्जलेः गृहीता वर्तते। अत्र कविः मनसः विकासार्थं प्रार्थनां करोति।

सारांशः
कविः प्रार्थनां करोति यत् हे प्रभो! मम मानसं विकसितं कुरु निर्मलम्, उज्ज्वलम्, उद्यतम्, अतिप्रबुद्धम्, निर्भयम्, सुशिवम्, अनलसम्, निः संशयम् च कुरु। माम् निखिलसङ्गे नियोजय। मम बन्धनं मुञ्च, सकलकर्मसु तवच्छन्दः शान्तं सञ्चारय। मम चित्तं चरणपट्टे निष्पन्दितं कुरु, नन्दितम्, अतिनन्दितम्, अभिनन्दितम् च कुरु। मम आन्तरम् (अन्तःकरणं) विकसितं कुरु।
अस्माकं शरीरं रथवत् अस्ति। पञ्च अश्वाः एनं वहन्ति-चक्षुः, श्रोत्रम्, नासिका, जिह्वा, त्वक् च। मनः एतैः संसारस्य विषयाणाम् उपभोगाय मनुष्यं प्रेरयति। यदि मनुष्यः मनः संयम्य विवेकेन कार्यं करोति तदा जीवने सुखं प्राप्नोति। यदि अविवेकेन कार्य करोति तदा जीवनं नश्यति। अतः मनसः विकासः अपेक्षितः। वेदेषु अपि कथितम्-तन्मे मनः शिवसङ्कल्पमस्तु।

गीतायामपि उक्तम् –
असंशयं महाबाहो मनो दुर्निग्रहं चलम्।
अभ्यासेन तु कौन्तेय, वैराग्येण च गृह्यते॥
अतः कविवरः रवीन्द्रठाकुरमहाभागः एतस्यां कवितायां मनसः विकासार्थम् ईश्वरं प्रति प्रार्थनां करोति।

हिन्दीभाषायां पाठपरिचयः
यह कविता गुरुदेव रवीन्द्रनाथठाकुर की गीताञ्जलि के आधार पर विकसित की गई है। इसमें कवि भगवान् से प्रार्थना करता है कि हे प्रभो! मेरे मन को विकसित करो, निर्मल, उज्ज्वल, उद्यत, प्रबुद्ध, निर्भय, सुशिव, आलस्यरहित, बन्धनरहित, शान्त, नन्दित, अतिनन्दित तथा अभिनन्दित करो। मेरा चित्त सदा आप के चरणकमलों में निष्पन्दित हो कर रहे।

क. मूलपाठः, अन्वयः, शब्दार्थः, सरलार्थश्च

मानसं मम विकसितं कुरु
मानसचर हे।
कुरु निर्मलम् उज्ज्वलम् अयि
चिर सुन्दर है।
उद्यतम् अतिप्रबुद्धम् अपि
निर्भयं कुरु हे।
सुशिवम् अनलसम् अति
निःसंशयं कुरु हे।
आन्तरं मम विकसितं कुरु
आन्तरतर हे।
योजय मां निखिलसङ्गे
मुञ्च हे मम बन्धनम्।
सञ्चारय सकलकर्मसु
शान्तं तवच्छन्दः।
चरणपो चित्तं मम
निष्पन्दितं कुरु हे।
कुरु नन्दितम्, अतिनन्दितम्,
अभिनन्दितम् हे।
आन्तरं मम विकसितं कुरु
आन्तरतर है।

शब्दार्थाः – विकसितम्- प्रफुल्लम् (खिला हुआ)। उद्यतम्- उन्नतम् (ऊँचा)। प्रबुद्धम्- जागरितम् (जागरूक)। आन्तरम्- हृदयम्, अन्तवर्तिनम् (हृदय को)। निखिलसङ्गे- सर्वेषां सङ्गे (सब के साथ)। छन्दः- गीतम् (गीत)। निष्पन्दितम्गतिहीनम् (स्थिर)। नन्दितम्- हृष्टम्, (प्रसन्न)। अभिनन्दितम्- प्रियम् (प्रिय)।

सरलार्थ: –
सरलार्थ – हे मन में विचरण करने वाले परमेश्वर, मेरे हृदय को खिला हुआ करो।
सरलार्थ – हे अति सुन्दर प्रभो, मेरे मन को प्रकाशमान तथा मलरहित करो।
सरलार्थ – हे प्रभो, ऊँचे, अति जागरूक मेरे मन का निडर करो।
सरलार्थ – हे प्रभो, मेरे मन को शुभ कार्यों में संलग्न, आलस्यरहित व सन्देहरहित करो।
सरलार्थ – हे अन्तवर्ती प्रभो, मेरे अन्तवर्ती मन को खिलाओ।
सरलार्थ – हे प्रभो, मुझे सबके संग में मिलाओ, मेरे बन्धन को मुक्त करो।
सरलार्थ – सकल कर्मों में अपने शान्त गीत का संचार करो।
सरलार्थ – हे प्रभो, मेरे चित्त को अपने चरण कमलों में स्थिर करो।
सरलार्थ – हे प्रभो, मेरे मन को प्रसन्न, अति प्रसन्न, प्रिय करो।
सरलार्थ – हे अन्तवर्ती प्रभो, मेरे आन्तरिक मन को प्रफुल्लित करो।

ख. अनुप्रयोगस्य-प्रश्नोत्तराणि

1. द्वौ छात्रौ अधोलिखितान् शब्दान् अधिकृत्य अन्योन्यं श्रुतलेखं कारयताम्- (दो छात्र निम्नलिखित शब्दों को लेकर एक-दूसरे को लिखवाएँ) –

2. अनलसम्, अप्रियः, अनुपस्थितः, अनेकः, अनृतम्, अनिच्छा, अशिक्षितः, असत्यम्, अविवेकः, अनीश्वरः, अनधीत्य, अस्वस्थः।
उपरि नञ् तत्पुरुषस्य उदाहरणानि दत्तानि। ‘अ’-अन् परिवर्तनम् अधिकृत्य पदानि पृथक्-पृथक् स्तम्भयोः लिखन्तु –

(ऊपर नञ् तत्पुरुष के उदाहरण दिए गए हैं। अ तथा अन् के आधार पर पदों को अलग-अलग लिखिए। न के स्थान पर अन् हो जाता है यदि परवर्ती शब्द का प्रथम वर्ण स्वर होता है। जैसे- न उचितम् = अनुचितम्। न के स्थान पर अ हो जाता है यदि परवर्ती प्रथम वर्ण व्यञ्जन होता है। जैसे- न सत्यम् = असत्यम्।)

उत्तरः

3. अधस्तात् केषांचित् पदानां विग्रहाः समासनामानि च दीयन्ते। पाठं पठित्वा तेषां समस्तपदानि लिख्यन्ताम् –
( नीचे कुछ पदों के विग्रह तथा समास के नाम दिए गए हैं। पाठ पढ़कर उनके समस्तपद लिखिए –


उत्तरः
(क) चरणपद्मम्
(ख) निर्मलम्
(ग) सकलकर्मसु
(घ) नि:संशयम्
(ङ) मानसचरः
(च) निर्भयम्
(छ) निखिलसङ्गे
(ज) निष्पन्दितम्।

4. (अ) मञ्जूषायाः समुचितपदानां चयनं कृत्वा अधोदत्तशब्दानां प्रत्येकं पदस्य त्रीणि समनार्थकपदानि लिखन्तु –
(मंजूषा से उचित पद चुनकर निम्न शब्दों के प्रत्येक पद के तीन-तीन समानार्थक लिखिए) –


उत्तरः

(ब) अधोलिखितेषु पदेषु सन्धि सन्धिच्छेद वा कृत्वा रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत (निम्नलिखित पदों में सन्धि अथवा . सन्धिच्छेद करके रिक्त स्थान भरिए)–
(क) ……………………. = उत् + ज्वलम्
(ख) सञ्चारय = ……………………. + …………………….
(ग) ……………………. = तव + छन्दः
(घ) निःसंशयम् = ……………………. +…………………….
(ङ)……………………. = निर् + स्पन्दितम्

उत्तरः
(क) उज्ज्वलम्,
(ख) सम् + चारय,
(ग) तवच्छन्दः,
(घ) निर् + संशयम्,
(ङ) निष्पन्दितम्।

5. मनसः पञ्चविशेषणानि पाठात् चित्वा लिखन्तु (मनस् के पाँच विशेषण पद पाठ से चुनकर लिखिए)
(क) ………………………………….
(ख) ……………………………………
(ग) ………………………………….
(घ) ………………………………….
(ङ) ……………………………….
उत्तरः
(क) निर्मलम्
(ख) निर्भयम्
(ग) शान्तम्
(घ) विकसितम्
(ङ) निष्पन्दितम्।

6. अधोलिखितबङ्गलाशब्दानां तत्समसंस्कृतरूपाणि पाठात् चित्वा लिखत् (निम्नलिखित बंगला शब्दों के तत्सम संस्कृत शब्द पाठ से चुनकर लिखिए) –

उत्तरः
(क) आन्तरम्,
(ख) मम,
(ग) निष्पन्दितम्,
(घ) नन्दितम्,
(ङ) बन्धनम्,
(च) सकल,
(छ) चित्तम्,
(ज) उज्ज्वलम्,
(झ) उद्यतम्,
(ज) चरणपद्म।

7. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत (पूर्ण वाक्यों में उत्तर दीजिए) –
(क) कविः आत्मानं कस्मिन् योजयितुम् इच्छति?
(ख) ईश्वरस्य छन्दः कीदृशम् अस्ति?
(ग) कस्य विकासार्थम् अत्र प्रार्थना क्रियते?
(घ) मम चित्तं कुत्र संलग्नं स्यात्?
(ङ) कविः ईश्वरं किम् निर्भयं कर्तुं कथयति?
उत्तरः
(क) कविः आत्मानं निखिलसङ्गे योजयितुम् इच्छति।
(ख) ईश्वरस्य छन्दः शान्तम् अस्ति।
(ग) मनसः विकासार्थम् अत्र प्रार्थना क्रियते।
(घ) मम चित्तं चरणपर्दो संलग्नं स्यात्।
(ङ) कविः ईश्वरं मानसं निर्भयं कर्तुं कथयति।

8. मञ्जूषातः चित्वा अधोलिखितसारांशं पूरयत (मंजूषा से चुनकर निम्नलिखित सारांश को भरिए) –
भक्त:हृदये निवसन्तं ……………. प्रार्थयते यत् हे अन्तर्यामिन् परमेश्वर! मम सङ्कीर्ण ……………. विकसितं कुरु। तव कृपया ……………… उज्ज्वलं निर्भयं, ……………….. निरतं, ………………. हीनम्, उद्योगपरं सन्देहरहितं, बन्धनमुक्तम्, उदारम्; अतिसन्तुष्टं सर्वेषां ……………… च भवतु। हे प्रभो मम ………………… निजचरणकमले स्थिरं कुरु।
मञ्जूषा – मानसं, परमेश्वरं, शुभकर्मसु, मनः, आलस्येन, प्रियं, एतत्।
उत्तरः
भक्त:हृदये निवसन्तं परमेश्वरं प्रार्थयते यत् हे अन्तर्यामिन् परमेश्वर! मम सङ्कीर्ण मानसं विकसितं कुरु। तव कृपया एतत् उज्ज्वलं निर्भयं, शुभकर्मसु निरतं, आलस्येन हीनम्, उद्योगपरं सन्देहरहितं, बन्धनमुक्तम्, उदारम्, अतिसन्तुष्टं सर्वेषां प्रियं च भवतु। हे प्रभो मम मनः निजचरणकमले स्थिरं कुरु।

9. आज्ञार्थे लोट् लकारः प्रयुज्यते। ‘कृ’ धातोः लोट् लकारे रूपाणि (आज्ञा के अर्थ मे लोट् लकार प्रयुक्त होता है। कृ धातु के लोट् लकार के रूप ये हैं) –

अधोलिखितवाक्येषु क्रियापदानां स्थाने लोट्लकारस्य क्रियापदानि लिखन्तु (निम्नलिखित क्रियापदों के स्थान पर लोट् लकार के क्रियापद लिखिए) –
(क) हे आन्तरतर! मम आन्तरं विकसितं कुर्याः।
…………………………………………
(ख) हे ईश्वर! मम बन्धनं मुञ्चेः ।
…………………………………………
(ग) प्रभो! मां सकलकर्मसु सञ्चारयः।
…………………………………………
(घ) भोः सृष्टिकर्तः! मां निखिलसङ्गे योजयेः।
…………………………………………
(ङ) हे मानसचर! मम हृदयम् उज्ज्वलं कुर्याः।
…………………………………………
उत्तरः
(क) हे आन्तरतर! मम आन्तरं विकसितं कुरु।
(ख) हे ईश्वर! मम बन्धनं मुञ्च।
(ग) प्रभो! मां सकलकर्मसु सञ्चारय।
(घ) भोः सृष्टिकर्तः! मां निखिलसङ्गे योजय।
ङ) हे मानसचर! मम हृदयम् उज्ज्वलं कुरु।

ग. पाठ-विकासः

कविपरिचयः
रवीन्द्रनाथठाकुरः श्रेष्ठः कथाकारः, उपन्यासलेखकः, गीतकारः, सङ्गीतरचनायां पटुः, अभिनये कुशलः, नाटकरचनायां दक्षः, महान् शिक्षाविद् च आसीत्। तेन रचितगीतानां सङ्ख्या द्विसहस्त्रतः अपि अधिका अस्ति। स स्वयम् एव तेषां गीतानां स्वरलिपि कृतवान्।
1913 तमे वर्षे तस्य गीजाञ्जलिः इति नाम्नी कृतिः नोबेलपुरस्कारेण सम्मानिता अभवत्। अनेन पुरस्कारेण तस्य कीर्तिः सर्वेषु पश्चिमदेशेषु भारते च प्रसारम् अलभत।

हिन्दी में कवि परिचय –
रवीन्द्रनाथ ठाकुर श्रेष्ठ कवि, कथाकार, उपन्यास लेखक, गीतकार, संगीत रचना में निपुण, अभिनय में कुशल, नाटक रचना में प्रवीण तथा महान् शिक्षाविद् थे। उनके द्वारा रचित गीतों की संख्या दो हजार से भी अधिक है। उन्होंने स्वयं ही उन गीतों की स्वरलिपि का निर्माण किया।
वर्ष 1913 में इनकी गीतांजलि नाम की कृति नोबेल पुरस्कार से सम्मानित हुई। उस पुरस्कार से उनकी कीर्ति पश्चिम के सब देशों में तथा भारत में फैल गई।
(इच्छुक छात्र बंगला भाषा में मूल गीत को अपनी पाठ्यपुस्तक में देखें)।

घ. पठितांश-अवबोधनम्

1. अधोलिखितायाः कवितायाः आधारितान् प्रश्नान् संस्कृतभाषया उत्तरत –
(क) मानसं मम विकसितं कुरु
मानसचर हे।
कुरु निर्मलम् उज्ज्वलम् अयि
चिर सुन्दर है।
उद्यतम् अतिप्रबुद्धम् अपि
निर्भयं कुरु हे।
सुशिवम् अनलसम् अति
निःसंशयं कुरु हे।
आन्तरं मम विकसितं कुरु
आन्तरतर हे।

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) ‘मानसचर’ इति पदेन कः सम्बोद्ध्यते?
(ii) ‘आन्तरतर’ इति पदेन कः सम्बोद्ध्यते?
(iii) ‘चिर सुन्दर’ इति पदेन कः सम्बोद्ध्यते?
(iv) कविः कं विकसितं कर्तु प्रार्थनां करोति?
उत्तरः
(i) ईश्वरः,
(ii) ईश्वरः,
(iii) ईश्वरः,
(iv) मानसम्।

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
कविः मानसं कीदृशं कर्तु प्रार्थनां करोति?
उत्तरः
कविः मानसम् विकसितम् उज्ज्वलम् निर्मलम् निर्भयम् उद्यतम् अतिप्रबुद्धम्, सुशिवम्, अनलसम्, निःसंशयं च कर्तुम् प्रार्थनां करोति।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत –
(i) ‘अनलसम्’ इति विशेषणस्य विशेष्यः कः?
(क) मानसम्
(ख) शरीरम्
(ग) आत्मानम्
(घ) देहम्
उत्तरः
(क) मानसम्

(ii) ‘उज्ज्वलम्’ इति पदं कस्मै प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) शरीराय
(ख) आत्मने
(ग) मनसे
(घ) चित्ताय
उत्तरः
(ग) मनसे

(iii) श्लोके ‘कुरु’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) सः
(ख) यूयम्
(ग) ते
(घ) त्वम्
उत्तरः
(घ) त्वम्

(iv) पद्याशे ‘मलिनम्’ इति पदस्य कः विपर्ययः आगतः? ।
(क) उज्ज्वलम्
(ख) निर्मलम्
(ग) उद्यतम्
(घ) प्रबुद्धम्
उत्तरः
(ख) निर्मलम्।

(ख) योजय मां निखिलसङ्गे
मुञ्च हे मम बन्धनम्।
सञ्चारय सकलकर्मसु
शान्तं तवच्छन्दः।
चरणपत्मे चित्तं मम
निष्पन्दितं कुरु हे।
कुरु नन्दितम्, अतिनन्दितम्,
अभिनन्दितम् हे।
आन्तरं मम विकसितं कुरु
आन्तरतर हे।

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) ईश्वरः किम् मुञ्चे?
(ii) कविः कुत्र चित्तं निष्पन्दितं कर्तुं कथयति?
(iii) ईश्वरं किं विकसितं कर्तुं कविः प्रार्थयति?
(iv) कविः स्वात्मानं किं कर्तुं याचते?
उत्तरः
(i) बन्धनम्
(ii) चरणपट्टे
(iii) आन्तरम्
(iv) नन्दितम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
कविः ईश्वरं कस्मिन् योक्तुं किं च मोक्तुं प्रार्थयति?
उत्तरः
कविः ईश्वरं निखिलसङ्गे योक्तुं बन्धन च मोक्तुं प्रार्थयति।

III. निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत –
(i) ‘योजय’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) यूयम्
(ख) सः
(ग) त्वम्
(घ) अहम्
उत्तरः
(ग) त्वम्

(ii) पद्यांशे ‘माम्’ इति पदं कस्मै आगतम्?
(क) कवये
(ख) ईश्वरस्य
(ग) भगवते
(घ) जनाय
उत्तरः
(क) कवये

(iii) ‘चरणकमले’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः अत्र?
(क) निखिल सङ्गे
(ख) चरणपट्टे
(ग) पद्मे
(घ) सकल कर्मसु
उत्तरः
(ख) चरणपर्दो

(iv) ‘मुक्तिम्’ इति पदस्य कः विपर्ययः पद्यांशे अत्र ‘लिखितः?
(क) चित्तम्
(ख) मोक्षम् ।
(ग) निष्पन्दितम्
(घ) बन्धनम्
उत्तरः
(घ) बन्धनम्

2. (क) इदं पद्यांशम् ‘कः कं कथयति’ इति सम्यक्तया लिखत –
(i) मानसं मम विकसितं कुरु मानसचर हे।
(ii) उद्यतम् अतिप्रबुद्धम् अपि, निर्भयं कुरु हे।
(iii) सुशिवम् अनलक्षम् अति, नि:संशयं कुरु हे।
(iv) आन्तरं मम विकसितं कुरु, आन्तरतर हे।
(v) योजय मां निखिलसङ्गे, मुञ्च हे मम बन्धनम्।
(vi) चरणपट्टे चित्तं मम, निष्पन्दितं कुरु हे।
(vii) कुरु नन्दितम्, अतिनन्दितम्, अभिनन्दितम् हे।
उत्तरः

(ख) निम्न पंक्तेः सन्दर्भ ग्रन्थः लेखकस्य च नाम लिखत –
(i) मानसं में विकसितं कुरु, मानसचर है।
(ii) उद्यतम् अतिप्रबुद्धम् अपि, निर्भयं कुरु हे।
(iii) सुशिवम् अनलसम् अति, नि:संशयं कुरु हे।
(iv) आन्तरं मम विकसितं कुरु, आन्तरतर हे।
(v) योजय मां निखिलसने, मुञ्च हे मम बन्धनम्।
(vi) चरणपट्टे चित्तं मम, निष्पन्दितं कुरु हे।
(vii) कुरु नन्दितम्, अतिनन्दितम्, अभिनन्दितम् हे।
उत्तरः

3. निम्न पद्यांशस्य समुचित भावं मञ्जूषायाः उचित पदानां सहायतया सम्पूर्य लिखत –
(क) मानसं मम विकसितं कुरु, मानसचर हे। अर्थात् –
अस्य भावोऽस्ति- हे मम (i) ………….. विचरणकर्तः (ii) ………….. भवान् कृपया मम (iii) ………….. विकसितं (iv) ………….. वा करोतु।
मञ्जूषा – प्रफुल्लितं, हृदये, हृदयं, प्रभो
उत्तरः
(i) हृदये
(ii) प्रभो
(iii) हृदयं
(iv) प्रफुल्लित।

(ख) कुरु निर्मलम् उज्ज्वलम् अयि, चिर सुन्दर हे। अर्थात् –
भावार्थ:- हे अनन्तकालात् (i) ………….. सुन्दर प्रभो। भवान् (ii) ………….. मानसम् (iii) ………….. उज्ज्वलं च करोतु। यतः मम (iv) ………….. सदैव शुद्धः भवेत्।
मञ्जूषा – विचारः, मम, चिर, निर्मलम्
उत्तरः
(i) चिर
(ii) मम
(iii) निर्मलम्
(iv) विचारः।

(ग) उद्यतम् अतिप्रबुद्धम् अपि, निर्भयम् कुरु हे। अर्थात् –
हे ईश! त्वं (i) ………….. मानसम् (ii) ………….. जागरितं (iii) ………….. च मुक्तं (iv) ………….. येन वयं संसारे सदैव निर्भयाः भूत्वा विचरेम।
मञ्जूषा – मम, कुरु, तत्परं, भयात्
उत्तरः
(i) मम
(ii) तत्परं
(iii) भयात्
(iv) कुरु।

(घ) सुशिवम् अनलसम् अति, निःसंशयं कुरु हे। अर्थात् –
अर्थात- हे प्रभो! कृपया त्वम् मम (i) ………….. सदैव (ii) ………….. युक्तं (iii) ………….. रहितम् (iv) ………….. च रहितम् कृत्वा माम् सुखिनं कुरु।
मञ्जूषा – आलस्येन, मानसं, शुभकर्मसु, सन्देहेन |
उत्तरः
(i) मानसं
(ii) शुभकर्मसु
(iii) आलस्येन
(iv) सन्देहेन।

(ङ) आन्तरं मम विकसितं कुरु, आन्तरतर हे। अर्थात् –
भावार्थ:- हे प्रभो! त्वं मम (i) ………….. स्थितः असि। अतः त्वं (ii) ………….. अन्तः (iii) ………….. मानसं सदैव (iv) ………….. कुरु। येन कदापि अहं दुःखं न अनुभवोयम्।
मञ्जूषा – प्रफुल्लितं, मम, वर्तिनं, अन्तः
उत्तरः
(i) अन्तः
(ii) मम
(iii) वर्तिनं
(iv) प्रफुल्लित।

(च) योजय मां निखिलसने, मुञ्च हे मम बन्धनम्। अर्थात् –
अस्य भावोऽस्ति यत्- (i) ………….. माम् (ii) ………….. जनानां (iii) ………….. योजय एवं मम (iv) ………….. कृपया मुञ्च। एषा मम प्रार्थना अस्ति।
मञ्जूषा – बन्धनं, हे प्रभो!, सड्ने, सर्वेषां
उत्तरः
(i) हे प्रभो!
(ii) सर्वेषां
(iii) सगे
(iv) बन्धन।

(छ) सञ्चारय सकल कर्मसु, शान्तं तवच्छन्दः।
भाव:- हे ईश्वर! भवान् (i)………….. सम्पूर्णेषु (ii) ………….. भवतः (iii)………….. गीतं (प्रेरणां) प्रसारयतु यतः मम (iv) ………….. अपि शान्तं भवेत्।
मञ्जूषा- मम, शान्तं, जीवनम्, कर्मसु |
उत्तरः
(i) मम
(ii) कर्मसु
(iii) शान्तं
(iv) जीवनम्।

(ज) चरणपो चित्तं मम, निष्पन्दितं कुरु हे।
भावार्थ: – हे विभो! त्वं (i) ………….. चित्तं (मनः) स्व (ii) ………….. स्थिरं कृत्वा (iii) ………….. शान्तं कुरु। येन मम जीवनं कदापि (iv) ………….. मा भवेत्।
मञ्जूषा – अस्थिरं, मम, इदम्, चरणकमलेषु |
उत्तरः
(i) मम
(ii) चरणकमलेषु
(iii) इदम्
(iv) अस्थिरं।

(झ) कुरु नन्दितम्, अतिनन्दितम्, अभिनन्दितम् हे।
भावार्थ: – हे आनन्दरूप प्रभो! त्वं मम (i) ………….. प्रसन्नम् (ii) ………….. प्रसन्नम् (iii) ………….. च कुरु। येन जीवने कदापि (iv) ………….. मा आगच्देत्।
मञ्जूषा – |अस्थिरता, मनः, अति प्रियं, अतीव
उत्तरः
(i) मनः
(ii) अतीव
(iii) अतिप्रियं
(iv) अस्थिरता।

4. निम्नलिखितानां पद्यानाम् अन्वयं समुचितैः पदैः लिखतु भवान् –
(क) मानसं मम विकसितं कुरु, मानसचर हे।
अन्वयः – हे (i) …………. (प्रभो)! (ii) ………….. मानसम् (iii) …………. (iv) …………।
उत्तरः
(i) मानसचर
(ii) मम
(iii) विकसितं
(iv) कुरु।

(ख) कुरु निर्मलम् उज्ज्वलम् अयि, चिर सुन्दर है।
अन्वयः – हे (i) …………. चिर (ii) …………. (प्रभो)! (मम मानसम्) (iii) …………. निर्मलम् (च) (iv)…………।
उत्तरः
(i) अयि
(ii) सुन्दर
(iii) उज्ज्व लम्
(iv) कुरु।

(ग) उद्यतम् अतिप्रबुद्धम् अपि निर्भयं कुरु हे।
अन्वयः – हे (प्रभो) (मम मानसम्) (i) …………. अति (ii) …………. अपि (iii) …………. (iv) …………. ।
उत्तरः
(i) उद्यतम्
(ii) प्रबुद्धम्
(iii) निर्भयम्
(iv) कुरु।

(घ) सुशिवम् अनलसम् अति निःसंशयं कुरु हे।
अन्वयः – हे (प्रभो)! (मम मनः) (i) …………. (ii) …………. अति (iii) …………. (च त्वं) (iv) ………….. ।
उत्तरः
(i) सुशिवम्
(ii) अनलसम्
(iii) नि:संशयं
(iv) कुरु।

(ङ) आन्तरं मम विकसितं कुरु, आन्तरतर हे।
अन्वयः – हे (i) …………. ईश्वर! त्त्वं) (ii) …………. आन्तरं (iii) …………. (iv) …………. ।
उत्तरः
(i) आन्तरतर
(ii) मम
(iii) विकसितं
(iv) कुरु।

(च) योजय मां निखिलसङ्गे, मुञ्च हे मम बन्धनम्।
अन्वयः – हे (भगवन्)! (त्वं) (i) …………. निखिल (ii) …………. योजय (iii) …………. बन्धनम् (iv) …………. ।
उत्तरः
(i) माम्
(ii) सङ्गे
(iii) मम
(iv) मुञ्च।

(छ) सञ्चारय सकल कर्मसु, शान्तं तवच्छन्दः।
अन्वयः- हे (भगवन्)! (मम) (i) ………….. कर्मसु (ii) ………….. (iii)………….. छन्दः (iv) …………..
उत्तरः
(i) सकल
(ii) तव
(iii) शान्तं
(iv) सञ्चारय।

(ज) चरणपो चित्तं मम, निष्पदितं कुरु हे।
अन्वयः – हे (ईश्वर)! (i) …………. चित्तं (स्व) (ii) …………. (ii) …………. (iv) …………. ।
उत्तरः
(i) मम
(ii) चरण पट्टे
(iii) निष्पन्दितम्
(iv) कुरु।

(झ) कुरु नन्दितम्, अतिनन्दितम्, अभिनन्दितम् हे।
अन्वयः – (i) …………. (प्रभो! मम मानसम्) (ii) …………. (iii) …………. अभिनन्दितम् (iv) …………. ।
उत्तरः
(i) हे
(ii) नन्दितम्
(iii) अतिनन्दितम्
(iv) कुरु।

(ञ) आन्तरं मम विकसितं कुरु, आन्तरतर है।
अन्वयः – हे (i) …………. (प्रभो!) (ii) …………. (iii) …………. विकसितं (iv) …………. ।
उत्तरः
(i) आन्तर
(ii) मम
(iii) आन्तरम्
(iv) कुरु।

5. निम्न’क’ वर्गीयानां पदानां ‘ख’ वर्गीय पदैः सह अर्थ संयोग्य लिखत –

उत्तरः
1. शुद्धम्
2. प्रफुल्लितम्
3. अतीव
4. मनः
5. कल्याणकरम्
6. सन्देहरहितम्
7. अन्तर्मनः
8. युक्तं कुरु
9. सम्पूर्ण
10. गीतम्
11. चरणकमले
12. स्थिरम्
13. प्रसन्नम्
14. चालय गीतम्

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit Chapter 5 मानसं मम विकसितं कुरु appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2015 Outside Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:

• • The question paper contains 26 questions.
  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Question no. 1 to 11 carry 1 mark each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 10-20 words each.
  • Questions no. 12 to 19 carry 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 30-50 words each.
  • Questions no. 20 to 26 carry 5 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 75-100 words each.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2015 Outside Delhi Set – I

Part – A

Question 1.
How have the Prashasds drawn the factual information about the Gupta rulers ? [2]
Answer:
Factual information from prashastis about the Gupta rulers :

1. Histories of the Gupta rulers have been reconstructed from Literature, coins and inscriptions, including prashastis, composed in praise of kings by poets.
2. While historians often attempt to draw factual information from such compositions, those who composed and read them treasured them as works of poetry rather than as accounts.
3. The Prayaga Prashasti (also known as the Allahabad Pillar Inscription) composed in Sanskrit by Harishena, the court poet of Samudragupta is a good example.

Question 2.
The Lingayats disapproved certain practices of the Dharmashastras. Cite any two such practices. [2]
Answer:
Lingayats and Dharmashastras:

1. They worship Shiva in his manifestation as a linga. They do not practice funerary rituals such as cremation, prescribed in the Dharmashastra. Instead, they bury their dead bodies.
2. The Lingayats challenged the idea of caste and ‘pollution’ attributed to certain groups by Brahmans.
3. They questioned the theory of rebirth.
4. They encouraged practices eg, post puberty marriage, widow remarriage which were not approved in the Dharmashastra. (Any two)

Question 3.
Name the region where the Lottery Committee initiated town planning during the 18^th century. Mention any one feature of it. [2]
Answer:
Lottery Committee :

1. Lottery committee initiated in Kolkata (Calcutta).
2. Features:
   • It collected funds for town improvement which were raised through public lotteries.
   • The Lottery Committee commissioned a new map of the city so as to get a comprehensive picture of Kolkata (Calcutta).
   • The Committee’s major activities were road building in the Indian part of the city and clearing the river bank of “encroachments”.
   • Removing huts for cleaner city and displacing the labouring poor who were pushed to the outskirts of Kolkata (Calcutta). (Any one)

Part – B

Question 4.
Why were the water resources of the Vijaynagar Empire developed ? Give reasons. [4]
Answer:
Water resources of Vijaynagar

1. The natural basin formed by the Tungabhadra which flows in a north—easterly direction hills surrounds this and a number of streams flow down to the river from these hills.
2. Embankments were built along the streams to create reservoirs of varying sizes.
3. As Vijaynagar was in one of the most arid zones of the peninsula, elaborate water arrangements had to be made to store rain water and conduct it to the city.
4. Kamalapuram tank not only irrigated fields nearby but water was also conducted through a channel to the “royal centre”.
5. One of the most prominent was the Hiriya canal. It drew water from a dam across the Tungabhadra and irrigated the cultivated valley which separated the sacred centre from the urban core.

Question 5.
Examine the policies adopted by the British towards the Paharias during early 18^th century in Bengal. [4]
Answer:
Policies adopted by the British towards the Paharias L

1. In the 1770s the British embarked on the brutal policy of extermination, hunting the Paharias down and killing them.
2. By the 1780s , Augustus Cleveland, proposed a policy of pacification.
3. Paharia chiefs were given an annual allowance and made responsible for the proper conduct of their men.
4. Many Paharia chiefs refused the allowances, those who accepted lost authority within the community and came to be known as ‘Stipendiary chiefs’.
5. The Paharias withdrew deep in the mountains insulating themselves from hostile forces and carrying on a war with the outsiders. The brutal repression shaped their perception of British infiltration into the area.
6. British put Santhals in their areas which led to conflict between them.

Question 6.
Explain the strategies for procuring materials by the Harappans for the craft production. [4]
Answer:
Procuring materials by Harappans :

1. The Harappans procured materials for craft production in various ways. They established, settlements such as Nageshwar and Balakot in areas where shell was available.
2. Other sites like Shortughai, in far off Afghanistan,
   the best source of lapis lazuli, a blue stone that was highly valued.
3. From Lothal and Bharuch—carnelian was procured, steatite from south Rajasthan and north Gujarat.
4. Another strategy for procuring raw material may have been to send expeditions to areas such as Khetri region of Rajasthan for copper and South – India for Gold.
5. Recent Archaeological finds suggest that Harappans procured material from other countries like—they got copper from Oman a region called Magan in Mesopotamian texts. It is likely that communication with Oman, Bahrain or Mesopotamia was by sea.

Question 7.
Historians have used avariety of, sources to reconstruct the history of the Mauryan Empire.
State any four such sources. [4]
Answer:
Historians have used the following of sources to reconstruct the history of the Mauryan ’ Empire. These include :

1. Archaeological findings especially sculpture.
2. The account of Megasthenes which survive in fragments.
3. The Arthashastra, parts of which were probably composed by Kautilya or Chanakya.
4. Buddhist, Jain and Puranic literature, as well as Sanskrit literary works.
5. The inscriptions of Ashoka (c. 272/268-23) on rocks and pillars. (Any four)

Question 8.
Identify the distinctive features of the imperial household of the Mughal Empire. [4]
Answer:
The imperial household of the Mughal

1. The Mughal household consisted of the emperor’s wives and concubines, his near and distant relatives and female servants and slaves.
2. Polygamy was practiced widely.
3. Distinction was maintained between begams and aghas.
4. The concubines occupied the lowest position in the hierarchy.
5. The lineage based family structure was not entirely static. Motherhood played important roles in elevating status.
6. Slave eunuchs worked as guards, servants and also as agents for women dabbling in commerce.
7. Mughal queens and princesses began to control significant financial resources.
8. Control over resources enabled important women of the Mughal household to commission buildings and gardens.
9. Women also played an important role in resolving conflicts in the imperial household.

Question 9.
Critically examine Lord Dalhousie’s policy of annexation in Awadh. [4]
Answer:
Dalhousie’s policy of annexation of Awadh:

1. Dalhousie described the kingdom of Awadh as “a cherry that will drop into our mouth one day.”
2. The conquest happened in stages. The subsidiary Alliance had been imposed on Awadh in 1801.
3. By the terms of this alliance the Nawab had to disband his military force, allow the British to position their troops within the kingdom, and act in accordance with the advice of the British Resident who was attached to the court. Thus, the Nawab became dependent on British.
4. The British were keen to acquire Awadh as its soil was good for growing Indigo and cotton and was ideally located for trade.
5. Annexation of Awadh would complete the territorial annexation by the British beginning with that of Bengal a century earlier.
6. It was annexed on the grounds of maladministration. The British wrongly assumed that the Nawab Wajid Ali Shah was an unpopular ruler, on the cohtrary he was widely loved.

Question 10.
Read the following passage and answer the question that follows : [1 + 3 = 4]
Dr. Khushdeva Singh describes his work as “humble efforts I made to discharge my duty as a human being to fellow human beings.”
“Love is stronger than hate.” How true is this value which was proved at the time of the partition of India ? What are the values one needs to instill and nurture to avoid hatred ? Explain.
“The Revolt of 1857 marked first nationalist challenge to the English in India.” Explain giving examples the values imbibed and practised by the rebels to set the beginning for it.
Answer:
This value is true as historians have discovered numerous stories of how people helped each other during the partition.
For e.g, Dr. Khushdeva Singh won the hearts of people of different communities by his service to them.
The values one needs to instill and nurture to avoid hatred are :

• Integrity and feeling of oneness.
• Respect for all religions equally.
• Secularism and democracy.
• Peaceful coexistence.
• Equality before law. ,
• Humanist feeling.
• Social justice.
• Selflessness
• Tolerance
• Kindness and compassion
• Sharing and caring

Part – C

Question 11.
“The Salt March of 1930 was the first event that brought Mahatma Gandhi to world attention”. Explain the significance of this movement for Swaraj. [8]
Answer:
Salt March of Gandhiji:
(i) On 12th March, 1930 Gandhiji began the march from Sabarmati and broke the Salt Law by making salt at Dandi and broke the monopoly of the salt.

(ii) Parallel salt marches and protests were also conducted in other parts of the country. Peasants, factory workers, lawyers, students and local officials joined the march.

(iii) During the march Gandhiji told the upper castes that if they want Swaraj they must serve untouchables. Hindus, Muslims, Parsis and Sikhs have to unite and these are the steps towards Swaraj.

(iv) The salt march of Gandhiji was reported in the American news magazine, Time. In its 1st report on the march the magazine was deeply sceptical of the salt march reaching its destination. But shordy it changed its view and saluted Gandhi as a ‘saint’ and statesman.

(v) Salt march was notable for three reasons: Firstly, this event brought Gandhiji to world attention. It was widely covered by the European and American Press.

Secondly, it was the 1st nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay the socialist activist persuaded Gandhiji not to restrict the protest to men alone. She herself courted arrest by breaking salt and Liquor Laws.

Thirdly, the most significant aspect of the Salt March was that it forced the British the realization that their Raj would not last forever, and they would have to devolve some power to the Indians.

(vi) To that end British Government convened a series of Round Table Conferences in London. First meeting was held in Nov. 1930 without any pre-eminent political Indian leader and was futile. When Gandhiji was released from jail in Jan. 1931, many meetings were held with the Viceroy and it culminated in the ‘Gandhi-Irwin Pact’ by which civil disobedience would be called off and all prisoners were released and salt manufacture allowed along the coast. Gandhiji represented the congress at Second Round Table Conference at London.

Question 12.
“The architecture in colonial Bombay represented ideas of imperial power,
nationalism and religious glory.” Support the statement with examples. [8]
Answer:
Architecture in colonial Bombay :

1. As Bombay’s economy grew in mid 19^th century the British developed new administrative structures. Many new buildings were constructed in European style to reflect the culture and confidence of the rulers. To symbolise their power, their superiority, which would also mark a difference between colonial masters and their Indian subjects.
2. For public buildings British adopted three architectural styles . The 1st was Neo-classical which were geometrical structures fronted with lofty pillars.
3. Its original style was that of ancient Rome, the British considered it ideal to express their glory of imperial India, e.g., The Town Hall in Bombay built id 1833, Elphinstone Circle later named Horniman Circle which was inspired from models in Italy. It made innovative use of covered arcades to shield shoppers and pedestrians from sun and rain of Bombay.
4. Another style was Neo Gothic characterised by high pitched roofs pointed arches and detail decoration.
5. The Gothic style had its roots in buildings, especially churches built in North Europe during medieval period.
6. The Neo-Gothic style was revived in mid -19th century in England and the Victoria Terminus is the most spectacular example of this style.
7. Towards the 20th century a new hybrid architectural style developed called Indo—Saracenic. Europeans used Saracen term to designate Muslim and Indo was Shorthand for Hindu. The inspiration came from medieval buildings in India—domes, chhatris, jalis and arches. Example of Indo-Saracenic is Gateway of India and Taj Mahal Hotel.
8. By integrating India and European styles the British wanted to prove that they were legitimate rulers of India.

Question 13.
Describe the life of forest dwellers in the Mughal era. [8]
Answer:
Forest dwellers of Mughal India

1. Forest dwellers were termed jangli in contemporary texts. Being jangli, however did not mean an absence of civilization. The term described those whose livelihood came from gathering forest produce, hunting and shifting agriculture.
2. These activities were season specific which perpetuated mobility.
3. For the state, the forest was a place of refuge for troublemakers.
4. External forces entered the forest in different ways. The state required elephants for the army so the peshkash levied from forest people often included a supply of elephants.
5. The hunt symbolized the overwhelming concern of the state to ensure justice to all its subjects and paintings were also done on it.
6. The spread of commercial agriculture was an important external factor that impinged on the life of forest dwellers.
7. Forest products-like honey, beeswax and gum lac—were in great demand and became major items of overseas export from India.
8. Elephants were captured and sold. Trade involved exchange through barter system. Lohanis tribe from Punjab were involved in overland trade between India and Afghanistan.
9. Social factors too affected their lives. Tribal ’ chiefs who became zamindars and even Kings,
   required an army and recruited people from their lineage groups or demanded that their fraternity provide military service, e.g., Tribes from Sind region had armies consisting of cavalry and infantry. In Assam, the Ahom kings had their paiksi
10. Sufi saints played a major role in spread of Islam among these people.

Part – D

Question 14.
How did Sutta-Pitaka reconstruct the philosophy of Buddhism ? Mention about Buddhist Tipitaka. [8]
Answer:
Sutta Pitaka reconstructed the philosophy of Buddhism.

1. Buddha’s teachings have been reconstructed from stories found mainly in the Sutta Pitaka. These stories describe his miraculous powers and reason rather than display of supernatural power.
2. The world is transient and constantly changing; it is also soulless as there is nothing permanent.
3. Sorrow is intrinsic to human existence.
4. It is by following the path of moderation between severe penance and self-indulgence that human beings can rise above these worldly troubles.
5. In the earliest form of Buddhism existence of god was irrelevant. Buddha regarded the social
   world as the creation of humans rather than of divine origin.
6. He advised kings to be humane and ethical.
7. Individual effort was expected to transform social relations.
8. The Buddha emphasized individual agency and righteous action as a means to escape from the cycle of rebirth and attain self-realization and nirvana.
9. The extinguishing of the ego and desire would thus end the cycle of suffering.
10. The importance attached to conduct and values rather than claims of superiority based on birth, the emphasis placed on fellow feeling and karuna for weaker.
11. The Buddhist developed an alternative understanding of social inequalities and institutions required to regulate social conflict. In a myth found in Sutta Pitaka they suggest that originally human beings did not have fully evolved bodily forms, nor was the world of plants fully developed.
12. All beings lived in idyllic state of peace, taking from nature only what they needed.

Buddhist Tipitakas :

1. It means three baskets which hold three types of texts. They were first transmitted orally and then written and classified according to the subject matter.
2. The Vinaya Pitaka included rules and regulations ’for those who joined the sangha or monastic order.
3. The Sutta Pitaka which contains the teachings of Buddha and the Abhidhamma Pitaka dealt with philosophical matters.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph carefully and answer the questions that follow:
“Proper” social roles
Here is a story from the Adi Parvan of the Mahabharata :
Once Drona, a Brahmans who taught archery to the Kuru princes, was approached by Eklavya, a forest-dwelling nishada (a hunting community). When Drona, who knew the dharma, refused to have him as his pupil, Eklavya returned to the for-est, prepared an image of Drona out of clay, and treating it as his teacher, began to practise on his own. In due course, he acquired great skill in archery. One day, the Kuru princes went hunting and their dog, wandering in the woods, came upon Eklavya. When the dog smelt the dark nishada wrapped in black deer skin, his body caked with dirt, it began to bark. Annoyed, Eklavya shot seven arrows into its mouth. When the dog returned to the Pandavas, they were amazed at this superb display of archery. They tracked down Eklavya, who introduced himself as a pupil of Drona.

Drona had once told his favourite student Arjuna, that he would be unrivalled amongst his pupils. Arjuna now reminded Drona about this. Drona approached Eklavya, who immediately acknowledged and honoured him as his teacher. When Drona demanded his right thumb as his fee, Eklavya unhesitatingly cut it off and offered it. But, thereafter when he shot with his remaining fingers, he was no longer as fast as he had been before. Thus, Drona kept his word : no one was better than Arjuna.
(15.1) Why did Drona refuse to have Eklavya as his pupil ? [2]
(15.2) How did Eldavya react to the demand of his Guru ? [2]
(15.3) Mention two versions of Guru-Shishya Parampara mentioned in the given extract. [3]
Answer:
Source Based Question:
(15.1) Guru Drona refused to have Eklavya as his pupil because :

1. He was a forest dweller and belonged to nishada (a hunting community).
2. Drona was a Brahman and followed his dharma because according to Dharma-shastta, Brahmans were not to teach the lower community.

(15.2) Ekalavya’s Reaction :

1. Eldavya acknowledged Drona’s demand and honoured his Guru.
2. When Drona demanded his right thumb as his fee or guru dakshina, Eklavya unhesitatingly cut it off and offered it:

(15.3) Guru—Shishya Parampara :

1. Drona kept his promise for Arjuna as Drona had once told his favourite student Arjuna that he would be unrivalled amongst his Pupils.
2. Drona for keeping his promise for Arjuna compelled Eklavya to cut off his thumb and offer it to himself as guru dakshina.
3. Eklavya acknowledged and honoured him as his guru and following the Guru Shishya Parampara, gave his thumb as guru dakshina to him.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The Child Sad
This is perhaps one of the most poignant descriptions by Bernier:
At Lahore, I saw a most beautiful young widow sacrificed, who could not, I think, have been more than twelve years of age. The poor litde creature appeared more dead than alive when she approached the dreadful pit: the agony of her mind cannot be described; she trembled and wept bitterly; but three or four of the Brahmans, assisted by an old woman who held her under the arm, forced the unwilling victim toward the fatal spot, seated her on the wood, tied her hands and feet, lest she should run away, and in that situation the innocent creature was burnt alive. I found it difficult to repress my feelings and to prevent their bursting forth into clamorous and unavailing rage …
(16.1) Why did Bernier consider this treatment as a crucial marker of the difference between western and eastern societies ? [3]
(16.2) What role did the Indian patriarchal society play towards this social evil ? [2]
(16.3) Compare the condition of the women of the era mentioned above to that of today. [2]
Answer:
(16.1) Bernier considered this treatment as a crucial marker of difference between western and eastern society because :

1. In the western societies women took part in administration but in the eastern societies women were exploited badly.
2. Women enjoyed rights in the western society while no rights were given to them in the eastern society.
3. Women received education in the west but in the eastern society there was no education and many social evils like sari, purdah system and child marriages existed.
4. Eastern societies were male dominated unlike the western.

(16.2) Indian patriarchal society :

1. It was a male dominated society where women had no rights, were ill treated, discriminated and confined to the house.
2. Social inequalities were prominent and thus led to these social evils.

(16.3) Comparison of condition of women :

1. In medieval era women had no rights but today sari , slavery has been prohibited.
2. Today’s women are well educated and assertive.
3. In this era there is women empowerment.
4. She has social, economic and political rights.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph carefully and answer the questions that follow :
“British element is gone but they have left the mischief behind”.
Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel said :
It is no use saying that we ask for separate electorates, because it is good for us. We have heard it long enough. We have heard it for years, and as a result of this agitation we are now a separate nation… Can you show me one free country where there are separate . electorates ? If so, I shall be prepared to accept it. But in this unfortunate country if this separate electorate is going to be persisted in, even after the division of the country, woe betide the country; it is not worth living in. Therefore, I say, it is not for my good alone, it is for your own good that I say it, forget the past. One day, we may be united … The British element is gone, but they have left the mischief behind. We do not want to perpetuate that mischief. (Hear, hear). When the British introduced this element they had not expected that they will have to go so soon. They wanted it for their easy administration. That is all right. But they have left the legacy behind. Are we to get out of it or not ? (CAD, VOL.V)
(17.1) Why are separate electorates considered as a mischief ? [2]
(17.2) State the arguments given by Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel for building political unity and forging a nation. [3]
(17.3) How did the philosophy of separate electorates result in a separate nation ?
[2]
Answer:
(17.1) Separate electorate was considered as a mischief :

1. It was like a poison that had entered into politics.
2. The demand had turned one community against another.
3. It caused bloodshed, civil war riots.
4. It divided the nation.

(17.2) Building political unity and forging a nation:

1. He considered separate electorate as a poison.
2. For the goodness of the country it should not be followed.
3. It was necessary for maintenance of peace that this system is not followed.
4. In order to build a strong nation every individual must be moulded as a citizen and assimilated within the nation.
5. For political unity assimilation is a must but not separatist feelings.

(17.3) Philosophy of Separate electorate :

1. It turned one community against another and caused lot of bloodshed.
2. Separatist feelings were cultivated by the British for their selfish ends.
3. Communal hatred led to the tragic partition.
4. It led to the isolation of minorities and eventual partition.

Part – E

Question 18.
(18.1) On the given political outline map of India, locate and label the following with appropriate symbols : [2]
(a) Dholavira
(b) Agra—the capital city of Mughals

(18.2) On the same outline map of India, three centres related to the Revolt of 1857 have been marked as A, B and C. Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. [3]
Answer:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2015 Outside Delhi Set – II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Part – A

Question 1.
How were the coins used in the first century CE ? Give two examples. [2]
Answer:

1. The first gold coins were issued in the first century CE by the Kushanas which were identical in weight with those issued by contemporary Roman Kings and Parthian rulers of Iran. Its wide spread use indicated network of trade.
2. Coins were issued by tribal republics of Yaudheyas of Punjab and Haryana in 1^st century (c. first century CE). ,
3. Several thousands of copper coins have been unearthed issued by Yaudheyas pointing to their interest in economic exchanges.

Question 2.
Kabir Bijak and Kabir Granthavali are the two distinct but overlapping traditions. How are they preserved ? [2]
Answer:
Kabir Bijak and Kabir Granthavali are preserved as :

1. Kabir Bijak is preserved by the Kabir Panth (the path or sect of Kabir) in Varanasi and elsewhere in U.P.
2. Kabir Granthavali is associated with the Dadupanth in Rajasthan.

Part – B

Question 4.
Why was Vitthala temple of the Vijaynagar unique ? [4]
Answer:
Features of Vitthala temple of the Vijaynagar:

1. The principal deity was Vitthala, a form of Vishnu generally worshipped in Maharashtra.
2. The introduction of the worship of the deities in Karnataka drew on different traditions to create an imperial culture.
3. This temple too has several halls and a unique shrine designed as a chariot.
4. A characteristic feature of the temple complexes is the chariot streets that extended from the temple gopuram in a straight line
5. These streets were paved with stone slabs and lined with pillared pavilions in which merchants set up their shops.
6. Nayakas have supported these temples.

Question 5.
What was the other name of ‘Bombay Deccan revenue system of 1820s’. Mention any three features of it. [1 + 3 = 4]
Answer:
Another name of Bombay Deccan revenue system was the Ryotwari System.
Features :

1. The revenue was direcdy setded with the ryots.
2. The average income from different types of soil was estimated.
3. The revenue-paying capacity of the ryot was assessed. A proportion of it fixed as the share of the state.
4. The lands were resurveyed every 30 years and the revenue rates increased.
5. The revenue demand was no longer permanent.

Question 6.
Describe the opinions of the archaeologists over the central authority of the Harappan civilisation. [4]
Answer:
Various opinions of the archeologists over the central authority of the Harappa civilisation :

1. A large building found at Mohenjodaro was labelled as a palace by archaeologists but no spectacular finds were associated with it.
2. A stone statue was labelled and continues to be known as the “priest-king”.
3. Some archaeologists are of the opinion that Harappan society had no rulers, and that everybody enjoyed equal status.
4. Others feel there was no single ruler but several that Mohenjodaro had a separate ruler, Harappa another, and so forth.
5. Others argue that there was a single state, given the similarity in artifacts , the evidence for planned settlements, the standardised ratio of brick size, and the establishment of settlements near sources of raw materials. The last theory is the most plausible, as it is unlikely that entire communities could have collectively made and implemented such complex decisions.

Question 7.
“The keeping of exact and detailed records was a major concern of the Mughal administration.” Justify. [4]
Answer:
The keeping of exact and detailed record was a major concern of the Mughal administration

1. The Mir Bakhshi supervised the corps of court writers who recorded all applications and documents presented to the court, and all imperial orders (farman).
2. Agents or wakils of nobles and regional rulers recorded the entire proceedings of the court under the heading “News from the Exalted court(Akhbarat)” with the date and time of the session.
3. The Akhbarat contained all kinds of information such as attendance at the court, grant of offices and tides, diplomatic missions, presents received, or the enquires made by the emperor about the health of an officer.
4. It was valuable for writing the history of the public and private lives of kings and nobles.
5. News reports and important official documents travelled across the length and breadth of the regions under imperial post.
6. Round —the-clock relays of foot-runners carried papers rolled up in bamboo containers.
7. The emperor received reports from even distant provincial capitals within a few days.
8. Agents of nobles posted outside the capital and Rajput princess and tributary rulers copied these announcements and sent their contents by messenger back to their masters. The empire was connected by a surprisingly rapid information loop for public news.

Question 9.
Examine the provisions of ‘Subsidiary Alliance System’ devised by Lord Wellesley in 1798 for India. [4]
Answer:
Following point examine the provision of subsidiary Alliance System:

1. The British would be responsible for protecting their ally from external and internal threats to their power.
2. In the territory of the ally, a British armed contingent would be stationed.
3. The ally would have to provide the resources for maintaining this contingent.
4. The ally could enter into agreements with other ruler or engage in warfare only with the permission of the British.
5. The ajly had to keep the resident who was the representative of the Governor General and was not under direct British rule.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2015 Outside Delhi Set – III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Part – A

Question 1.
How did Kushana rulers exemplify themselves with the high status ? [2]
Answer:
Kushana Rulers :

1. One means of claiming high status was to identify with a variety of deities.
2. The notions of Kingship they wished to project are seen in their coins and sculptures.
3. Colossal statues of Kushana rulers were installed in Mathura and Afghanistan.
4. They projected themselves godlike.
5. They adopted the tide of devaputra or ‘Son of God’.

Question 2.
“The message of Guru Nanak Devji was based on divinity.” Mention any two aspects of it. [2]
Answer:
Guru Nanak Dev’s Divinity:

1. He advocated nirguna bhakti.
2. He rejected sacrifices, ritual baths, image worship, austerities and the scriptures of both Hindus and Muslims.
3. For him the Absolute or ‘rab’ had no gender or form.
4. He proposed a simple way to connect to the divine by remembering and repeating the divine name.
5. He expressed his ideas through hymns called ‘Shabad’.

Part – B

Question 4.
Why did the imperial power of Vijaynagar decline after the death of Krishnadeva Raya ? [4]
Answer:
Vijaynagar declined after the death of Krishnadeva Raya:

1. After Krishnadeva Raya’s death in 1529 his successors were troubled by rebellious nayakas or military chiefs.
2. By 1542 control at the centre shifted to the Aravidu lineage.
3. The military ambitions resulted in shifting alignments.
4. This led to an alliance of the Sultanates against Vijaynagar.
5. In 1565 Rama Raya, the chief minister of Vijaynagar, led the army into the battle at Rakshasi- Tangadi (Talikota), where he was defeated by Bijapur, Ahmednagar and Golconda.
6. The victorious armies sacked the city of Vijaynagar. The city was totally abandoned within a few years.

Question 5.
Analyse the impact of cotton boom in India during the American Civil War. [4]
Answer:
Impact of cotton boom in India during the American civil war :

1. When the American Civil War broke out in 1861, a wave of panic spread in Britain.
2. As cotton prices soared export merchants in (Bombay) Mumbai were keen to meet the British demand.
3. They gave advances to urban sahukars who in turn extended credit to rural moneylenders who promised to secure the produce.
4. The ryots in the Deccan villages suddenly found limitless credit.
5. While the American crisis continued, cotton production in the Bombay Deccan expanded. By 1862 over 90 percent of cotton imports into Britain were coining from India.
6. As the Civil war ended, cotton production in America revived and Indian cotton exports declined.

Question 6.
Explain the exclusive features of the craft production in Chanhudaro. [4]
Answer:
Features of the craft production in Chanhudaro :

1. It was exclusively devoted to craft production ,
   including bead—making, shell-cutting, metal-working, seal-making and weight—making.
2. The variety of materials used to make beads was—stones like carnelian, jasper, crystal, quartz and steatite, metals like copper, bronze and gold, faience and terracotta or burnt clay.
3. Some beads were made of two or more stones, cemented together or with gold caps. ,
4. The shapes were numerous—disc shaped, cylindrical, spherical, barrel-shaped and segmented.
5. Some were decorated by incising or painting and some had designs etched onto them.
6. Techniques for making beads differed according to the material. Steatite a very soft stone was easily worked. Carnelian was obtained by firing raw material and beads at various stages of production.
7. Nodules were chipped into rough shapes, and then finely flaked into the final form.
8. Grinding, polishing and drilling completed the process.
9. It is likely that finished products such as beads from Chanhudaro were taken to large urban centres such as Mohenjodaro and Harappa.

Question 7.
“Historians have provided accounts of diplomatic relationships and conflicts with the neighbouring political powers of the Mughal Empire.” Elaborate. [4]
Answer:
Diplomatic relationship and conflicts with the neighbouring political power of the Mughal Empire.

1. Tension-and political rivalry between them was due to regional interests.
2. The political and diplomatic relations between the Mughals and Iran and Turan hinged on the control of the Hindukush mountains.
3. A constant aim of Mughal policy was to control strategic outposts-Kabul and Qandhar.
4. Qandhar was a bone of contention between the Safavids and the Mughals.
5. In 1613 Jahangir sent a diplomatic envoy to the court of Shah Abbas to plead for retaining Qandhar, but the mission failed.
6. In the winter of 1622 a Persian army besieged Qandhar. The Mughal garrison was defeated and had to surrender the fortress and the city to the Safavids.
7. The relationship between the Mughals and the Ottomans was marked by the concern to ensure free movement for merchants and pilgrims where the important pilgrim centres of Mecca and Medina were located.
8. The Mughal emperor usually combined religion and commerce by exporting valuable merchandise to Aden and Mokha both Red Sea Ports.

Question 9.
Examine the repressive measures adopted by the British to subdue the rebels of 1857. [4]
Answer:
Repressive measures adopted by the British to subdue the rebels of 1857 :

1. Before sending out troops to reconquer north India the British passed a series of Laws to help them quell the insurgency.
2. By a number of Acts, the whole of north India was put under Martial Law.
3. Military officers and even ordinary Britons were given the power to try and punish Indians suspected of rebellion.
4. Ordinary processes of Law and trial were suspended and it was put out that rebellion would have only one punishment-death.
5. Reinforcements were brought in from Britain. British mounted a two-pronged attack. One force moved from Calcutta and another from Punjab to reconquer Delhi.
6. In the Gangetic plains the forces had to reconquer the area, village by village.
7. The British other than using military power, also tried to break up the unity between the landholders and peasants.
8. Rebel Landholders were dispossessed and loyal rewarded. Many Landholders died fighting the British or they escaped into Nepal.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 History 2015 Outside Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2014 Outside Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 80

General Instructions:

• All question in both sections are compulsory.
• Marks for questions are indicated against each questions.
• Question Nos. 1-4 and 13-16 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 marks each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
• Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18 are short- answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
• Question No. 7-9 and 19-21 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
• Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24 are long- answer questions carrying 6 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
• Answer should be brief and to the point and the above words limits should be adhered to as far as possible.

** Answer is not given due to change in the present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2014 Outside Delhi Set – I

Section – A

Question 1.
The government has started promoting foreign capital. What is its economic value in the context of Production Possibilities Frontier ? [1]
Answer:
Promotion of foreign capital by the government will lead to an increment in resources as fresh investment into the country. It will increase the production in the country and will lead to a rightward shift in Production Possibility Frontier (PPF).

Question 2.
Define indifference curve. [1]
Answer:
A curve that shows different combinations of two commodities that yield the same level of satisfaction to a consumer is called an indifference curve.

Question 3.
Define marginal product. [1]
Answer:
Marginal product refers to the change in the total output brought by employing one additional unit of labour. Algebraically, marginal product = change in total product/change in
labour units MP =

Question 4.
What is market supply of a product? [1]
Answer:
The total quantity of a commodity supplied by all the producers at a given price during a given period of time is called the market supply of a product.

Question 5.
What is imperfect oligopoly? [1]
Answer:
When the firms produce different products in an oligopoly market, it is called imperfect oligopoly, e.g., automobile industry.

Question 6.
Why is Production Possibilities Curve concave? Explain. [3]
Answer:
The Production Possibility Curve is concave because marginal rate of transformation, which is the slope of the curve, increases continuously as each additional unit of one good is produced by reducing quantity of the other good. It means to produce more and more units of one good, more and more units of other good need to be sacrificed. MRT and opportunity cost increases because no resource is equally efficient in production of all goods. This can be explained with the help of the following diagram.

In the above figure, AE represents the PPC for capital goods and consumer goods. Suppose that the initial production point is B, where 1 unit of capital good and 48 units of consumer goods are produced. To produce one additional unit of capital good, 4 units of consumer good must be sacrificed (point C). Thus, at point C, the opportunity cost of one additional capital good is 4 units of consumer goods. Further moving to point D, to produce one more unit of capital good, 9 units of consumer goods must be sacrificed. That is, the opportunity cost rises to 9 units of consumer goods. Thus, as we move down the PPC from point C to point D, the opportunity cost and MRT increases. This confirms tire concave shape of the PPC.

Question 7.
When the price of a good falls from ₹ 10 to ₹8 per unit, its demand rises from 20 units to 24 units. What can you say about price elasticity of demand of the good through the ‘expenditure approach’ ?** [3]

Question 8.
Explain how technological progress is a determinant of supply of a good by a firm. [3]
OR
Explain how input prices are a determinant of supply of a good by a firm.
Answer:
The level of technology directly affects the supply of a good, i.e., while other things remain the same, there exists a positive relationship between the state of technology and the quantity produced. With the appreciation in the level of production techniques, per unit cost of production goes down. This encourages the producers to produce higher quantities of goods, thereby increasing the supply of the goods.

On the contrary, a depreciation in the production technology raises the per unit cost of production, thereby decreasing the supply of good.
OR
Input prices are related to the supply of a good. If the prices of inputs increases then the cost of production also increases, while other things remain the same. Due to the rise in the cost of production, it becomes relatively less profitable for a producer to produce the good. Consequently, lesser quantity is supplied at the given price. On the other hand, if the input prices falls, the cost of production also falls, thereby enabling the producer to supply more quantities of output at the given price. Thus, the change in the input prices positively affects the supply of a product.

Question 9.
Why is Average Revenue always equal to price? [3]
Answer:
Average Revenue (AR) is defined as the revenue earned per unit of output sold. AR is the same as the price (P) of the output (Q). Algebraically, it can be expressed as follows :
AR = TR/Q, where TR is total revenue,
TR = P × Q
∴ AR = ⇒ AR = P
Thus, AR is always equal to the price of the output.

Question 10.
Why is the number of firms small in an oligopoly? Explain. [3]
Answer:
Oligopoly refers to the form of market where very few big firms (giants) own major control over the whole market by producing significant portion of the market demand. The number of firms is small in oligopoly, because there exists a cut-throat competition among the firms which makes it very difficult for any new firm to enter the industry. Moreover, as the existing firms are the only giants in the market, new entry into the market is associated with high costs, which further narrows the scope for a new entrant.

Question 11.
A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y and is in equilibrium. Show that when the price of good X rises, the consumer buys less of good X. Use utility analysis. [4]
OR
Given the price of a good, how will a consumer decide as to how much quantity of that good to buy? Use utility analysis.
Answer:
In case of two commodities, the consumer’s equilibrium is attained at that point, where; the utility derived from each additional unit of the rupee spent on each of the goods is equal. That is, Marginal Utility of a Rupee spent on the good X (i.e., MU_x/P_y) is equal to the Marginal Utility of a Rupee spent on the good Y (i.e., MU_y/P_y), which in turn is equal to the Marginal Utility of Money (MUy). That is,
MU_x/P_x = MU_y/P_y = MU_M
However, when the price of commodity X rises, the ratio of marginal utility to price of X (MU_x/ P_x) becomes lower than that of Y, that is MU_x/ P_x< MU_y/P_y.

In such a case, the consumer rearranges his consumption combination such that the equality is again restored. He would decrease his consumption of commodity X. With the decrease in the consumption of commodity X, marginal utility of X rises. As a result, the ratio of marginal utility to price of X rises. The consumer would continue decreasing the consumption of commodity X till the equality between the ratio of marginal utility to price in case of X and Y is again reached.
OR
In order to decide, how much of a good to buy at a given price, a consumer compares Marginal Utility (MU) of the good with its price (P). The consumer will be at equilibrium, when the Marginal Utility of the good will be equal to the price of the good. i.e., MU_x = P_x. If MU_x > P_x that is, when price is lesser than the Marginal Utility, then the consumer will buy more of that good. On the other hand, if MU_x < P_x, that is when price is more than the Marginal Utility, then the consumer will buy less of good. This is reflected in the following diagram.

In the figure, the quantity of commodity x is represented on the x-axis, while, the price and the utility are represented on the y-axis. OP is the price of the commodity. MUX curve is downward sloping representing diminishing Marginal Utility of x. The consumer attains consumer’s equilibrium at point E, where, the Marginal Utility becomes equal to the price of the commodity.

Question 12.
Give the meaning of “inferior” good and explain the same with the help of an example. [4]
Answer:
Inferior goods refer to those goods that share an inverse relationship with the income of a consumer. As income increases the demand for inferior goods fall and vice-versa. This is because with an increase in the income, the consumer tends to shift demand to superior quality goods, thereby, reducing the demand for inferior goods.
For example, coarse cereals can be considered as inferior goods. A good can be normal or inferior depending on the level of consumer’s income. For instance, at a very low level of income, coarse cereals may be a normal good. However, for higher income level, ceteris paribus, coarse cereals will be an inferior good because with an increase in income, a consumer will reduce his/ her consumption of inferior cereals and it will be substituted by superior cereals.

Question 13.
Giving reasons, explain the ‘Law of Variable Proportions’. [4]
Answer:
The Law of Variable Proportions states that if more and more of variable factor (labour) is combined with the same quantity of fixed factor (capital), then initially the total product will increase but gradually after a point, the total product will become smaller and smaller. MP of variable factor may initially rise but eventually a situation will come when MP of variable factor starts declining. It may go to zero or even negative.

In the upper panel, TP is the Total Product curve. In the lower panel, AP represents the Average Product curve and MP represents the Marginal Product curve. According to the Law of Variable Proportions, the whole production phase can be distinguished into three different production stages.

Ist Stage: Increasing Returns to a Factor During this phase, TP curve increases at an increasing rate and is also accompanied by rising MP curve in the lower panel. TP continues to increase at an increasing rate till point K (inflexion point). Corresponding to the inflexion point, K, the MP curve attains its maximum point (U). Throughout this stage, the marginal product of labour is rising which implies that production (or total product) can be increased by employing more units of labour. The first stage of production is also known as non-economic zone as a rational producer will not operate profitably in this stage.

Reasons for Increasing Returns to a Factor
1. Underutilisation of the fixed factor: In the first stage of production, there are not enough labour units to fully utilize the fixed factor. Therefore, the firm can increase its output just by combining more and more of labour inputs with the fixed factor, thereby; the output of the additional unit of labour (i.e., MP) tends to rise.

2. Division of labour : The increase in the labour input enables the division of labour, which further increases the efficiency and productivity of the labour.

3. Specialisation of labour: Due to the division of labour, specialization of individual labour unit increases, which in turn raises the overall efficiency and productivity. Consequently, the MP curve rises and TP curve continues to rise.

IInd Stage: Diminishing Returns to a Factor In this stage, the TP curve increases but at a decreasing rate and attains its maximum at point B, where it remains constant. On the other hand, in the lower panel, the MP curve continues to fall and cuts AP from its maximum point Z, where MP equal AP. When TP attains its maximum point, corresponding to it, MP becomes zero. AP, in this stage initially rises, attains its maximum point at Z and thereafter, starts falling. This stage is known as the economic zone as any rational producer produces in this stage.

Reasons for Decreasing Returns to a Factor
1. Full utilization of fixed factor : In this stage, the fixed factor is utilized to its maximum level as more and more of labour inputs are employed.

2. Imperfect substitutability between labour and capital: The variable factors are imperfect substitute for the fixed factor. Therefore, the firm cannot substitute labour for capital and as a result diminishing returns takes place.

3. Optimum Proportion/Ideal Factor Ratio: The optimum proportion (or ideal factor ratio) is a fixed ratio in which the labour and capital inputs are employed. These factors will be the most efficient if they are employed as per the optimum proportion. If this proportion is disturbed (by combining more of labour inputs tp the fixed units of capital), then the efficiency of the factors will fall, thereby to the diminishing returns to the factor.

IIIrd Stage: Negative Returns to a Factor This stage begins from the point B on the TP curve. Throughout this stage, TP curve falls and MP curve becomes (crosses the x-axis) negative. Simultaneously, the AP curve continues to fall and approaches the x-axis (but does not touch it). This stage is also known as non-economic zone as any rational producer would not operate in this zone. The addition to the total output in this stage by the additional labour unit (i.e. marginal product) is negative. This implies that employing more labour would not contribute anything to the total product but will add to cost of the production in form of additional wage.

Question 14.
Explain why is an indifference curve (a) downward sloping and (b) convex. [6]
OR
Explain the concept of ‘Marginal Rate of Substitution’ with the help of a numerical example. Also explain its behaviour along an indifference curve.
Answer:
(a) Indifference curves are downward sloping from left to right. This reflects the fact that the consumer cannot simultaneously have more of both the goods. In other words, an increase in the quantity of one good is associated with the decrease in the quantity of the other good. This is in accordance with the assumption of monotonic preferences.

(b) Indifference curve is convex to the origin because as we move with the Indifference curve towards the right, the slope of IC(MRS) decreases. This is because as the consumer consumes more and more of one good, the marginal utility of the good falls. On the other hand, the marginal utility of the good sacrificed will rise. In other words, the”consumer is willing to sacrifice less and less for each additional unit of the other good consumed. Thus, as we move down the IC, MRS diminishes. This suggests the convex shape of indifference curve.
OR
Marginal rate of substitution refers to the rate at which a consumer is willing to substitute one good for each additional unit of other good. Algebraically, it is represented as follows :
MRS = Δx₂/Δx₁
This can be better understood with the help of the following numerical example.

Now as we can see, a movement from Bundle A to Bundle B, in order to get one more units of Good X₂, the consumer must sacrifice 3 units of Good X₁. This implies that MRS = -3/1 = -3.
As we move down along the Indifference curve to the right, Marginal Rate of Substitution decreases. This is because as the consumer consumes more and more of one good, the marginal utility of that good falls. On the other hand, the marginal utility of the good sacrificed will rise. In other words, the consumer is willing to sacrifice less and less for each additional unit of the other good consumed. Thus, as we move down the IC, MRS diminishes. This suggests the convex shape of indifference curve. For instance, in the example given above, a further movement from bundle B to bundle C suggests that with one unit of increase in good 2, the consumer is willing to sacrifice good 1 falls to 1 unit. Thus, MRS falls.

Question 15.
From the following information about a firm, find the firm’s equilibrium output in terms of marginal cost and marginal revenue. Give reasons. Also find profit at this output. [6]

Answer:

According to the MR-MC approach, the firm (or producer) will attain its equilibrium in two conditions.
1. MR = MC
2. MC must be rising after the equilibrium level of output.
Thus, by looking at the table, we can say that the firm is in equilibrium where output equal to 4 units. When output is 4 units, MR = MC (thus, the first condition is satisfied) and MC increases after the 4th unit of output (therefore, the second condition is satisfied).

When output is less than 4 units, if the firm produces slightly lesser level of output than 4 units, then the firm is facing price that exceeds the MC. This implies that higher profits can be achieved by increasing the level of output to 4 units. On the other hand, if the firm produces slightly higher level of output than 4 units, then the firm is facing price that falls short of the MC. This implies that higher profits can be achieved by reducing the output level to 4 units. Thus, only at 4 units of output, the producer will be in equilibrium and the profit maximizing output level, where Price (P) = MC and also MC curve is rising.

Question 16.
Market of a commodity is in equilibrium. Demand for the commodity ‘decreases’. Explain the chain of effects of this change till the market again reaches equilibrium. Use diagram. [6]
Answer:

A decrease in the demand for the commodity leads to a fall in the equilibrium price and quantity. Let us understand how it happens : D₁D₁ and S₁S₁ represent the market demand and market supply respectively. The initial equilibrium occurs at E₁, where the demand and the supply intersect each other. Due to the decrease in the demand for the commodity, the demand curve will shift leftward parallel from D₁D₁ to D₂D₂, while the supply curve will remain unchanged. Hence, there will be a situation of excess supply, equivalent to (q₃ – q₁). Consequently, the price will fall due to excess supply. The price will continue to fall until it reaches E₂ (new equilibrium), where D₂D₂ intersects the supply curve S₁S₁. The equilibrium price falls from P₁ to P₂ and the equilibrium output falls from q₃ to q₂.

Section – B

Question 17.
What are the time deposits? [1]
Answer:
Time Deposits refer to those deposits that are held for a fixed (specific) period of time (called maturity period).

Question 18.
Define inflationary gap. [1]
Answer:
Due to the excess of aggregate demand, there exists a difference (or gap) between the actual level of aggregate demand and full employment level of demand. This difference is termed as inflationary gap.

Question 19.
What is full employment? [1]
Answer:
Full employment refers to the situation where the resources of a country i.e., labour are fully and efficiently employed. But, it is not a situation of zero unemployment. In other words, full employment can be said to take place when cyclical unemployment is zero while the structural and frictional unemployment are minimum.

Question 20.
Define fiscal deficit. [1]
Answer:
Fiscal deficit refer to the excess of total budget expenditure over the total revenue receipts excluding borrowings during a given fiscal year.
Fiscal Deficit = Total Budget Expenditure – Revenue Receipts + Capital Receipts excluding borrowings.

Question 21.
Define foreign exchange rate. [1]
Answer:
Foreign exchange rate refers to the rate at which price of one currency is measured in terms of other currency.

Question 22.
What are externalities? Give an example of a positive externality and its impact on welfare of the people. [3]
Answer:
An externality is said to occur when the action of one entity made an impact on other entity. These externalities can be positive as well as negative. A positive externality occurs when the action of one person positively affects the other. For instance, plantation by a person provides fresh air to others. Also, it contributes to the environment along with increasing the welfare of people. Thus, plantation by a person affects the life of the people living on the surrounding areas, it enhances the overall welfare of the society and creates positive externality.

Question 23.
Explain the significance of the ‘Unit of Account function of money.** [3]
OR
Explain the significance of the ‘Standard of Deferred Payment’ function of money.**

Question 24.
Is the following a revenue receipt or a capital receipt in the context of government budget and why? [3]
(i) Tax receipts
(ii) Disinvestment
Answer:
(i) Tax receipts are revenue receipts as these receipts neither creates any liability nor it creates any reduction in the assets of the government.
(ii) Disinvestment is treated as capital receipts because it results in the reduction of government assets.

Question 25.
Distinguish between ‘autonomous’ and ‘accommodating’ Balance of Payments transactions. [3]
Answer:

Question 26.
Foreign exchange rate in India is on the rise recently. What impact is it likely to have on exports and how? [3]
Answer:
A rise in the exchange rate say from $1 = ₹ 40 to $1 = ₹ 50 implies that domestic country’s export to foreign countries have become cheaper because now foreigners can purchase ₹ 50 worth of goods for $1, as compared to the earlier situation where they could purchase only ₹ 40 worth of goods for $1. Thus, this raises the demand for exports.

Question 27.
Explain ‘Banker to the Government’ function of the central bank. [4]
OR
Explain ‘Bankers’ Bank’ function of the central bank.
Answer:
Central bank acts as a banker and financial advisor to the government. As a banker to the government, it performs the following functions.

• It manages the account of the government.
• It accepts receipts from the government and makes payment on behalf of it.
• It grants short-term loans and credit to the government. It performs the task of managing the public debt.
• The central bank advises the government on all the banking and financial matters. RBI gives loans to government when its expenditure exceeds its revenue. This is called deficit financing through funding from RBI.

OR
Central bank is the apex bank of all the commercial banks and financial institutions in the country. It holds the same relationship with the commercial banks as a commercial bank holds with its customer. The central bank accepts deposits from the commercial banks and holds it as reserves for them. The commercial banks are compulsorily required to hold a part of their deposits as reserve with the central bank in accordance with the cash reserve ratio (CRR). In addition to the CRR requirements, the commercial banks hold reserves with the central bank for clearing their settlements with other banks and to fulfill their requirements of interbank transfers.

Question 28.
Calculate Marginal Propensity to Consume from the following data about an economy which is in equilibrium: [4]
National income = 2000
Autonomous consumption expenditure = 200
Investment expenditure = 100
Answer:
Given,
National Income (Y) = 2000
Autonomous consumption expenditure = 200
Investment expenditure =100
As we know in equilibrium,
Y = C +1
Since, C = C + cY
We get Y = C + cY + I
2000 = 200 + c (2000) + 100
1700 = 2000c
⇒ c = 0.85
Therefore, marginal propensity to consume is 0.85.

Question 29.
Tax rates on higher income group have been increased. Which economic value does it reflect? Explain. [4]
Answer:
Increasing the tax rate on higher income groups leads to an increase in the tax revenue of the government without hurting the tax group. The government can, in turn, use the revenue thus, generated from this taxation to finance the welfare activities in the nation. Thus, by increasing the tax rate on the higher income groups, the government can bridge the gap between the rich and the poor, thereby moving the society towards being an egalitarian society. Moreover, the government can reallocate resources to maintain a balance between the social objectives of welfare maximization and economic objective of profit maximization.

Thus, we can say that by increasing the tax rate on higher income groups, the government satisfies the value of equality and welfare.

Question 30.
Calculate ‘Net National Product at Factor Cost’ and ‘Gross National Disposable Income**’ from the following: [6]

Answer:
NNP_FC = Wages and Salaries + Social security contribution by employers + Rent and Royality + Profit + Interest – Net factor income to abroad
= 800 + 100 + 300 + 500 + 400 – 50
= ₹ 2050 Arab

Question 31.
How should the following be treated in estimating national income of a country? You must give reasons for your answer. [6]
(i) Taking care of aged parents
(ii) Payment of corporate tax
(iii) Expenditure on providing police services by the government
Answer:
(i) Taking care of aged parents: This will not be included in national income as it does not involve any production of goods and services. Moreover, these services that are meant for self-consumption and it is difficult to estimate the market value of such services.

(ii) Payment of corporate tax: Corporate tax is a part of corporate profit and therefore, it is included in national income of the country.

(iii) Expenditure on providing police services by the government: It is included in national income of a country as it forms a part of Government Final Consumption Expenditure.

Question 32.
When is an economy in equilibrium? Explain with the help of Saving and Investment functions. Also explain the changes that take place in an economy when the economy is not in equilibrium. Use diagram.
OR
Outline the steps required to be taken in deriving the Consumption Curve from the given Saving Curve. Use diagram.
Answer:
An economy is in equilibrium when either of the two conditions are satisfied.
1. Aggregate Demand = Aggregate Supply
2. Saving = Investment (Saving and Investment Approach)
According to this approach, the equilibrium is determined at that point, where the saving and investment are equal to each other. In other words, the equilibrium is established, where leakages are equal to the injections.

In the diagram, SS represents the saving curve and II represents the investment curve. The investment curve is a horizontal line as it represents the autonomous investment. At point E, Savings = Investment, thus point E represents the equilibrium point, where the saving curve SS and the investment curve II intersects. Accordingly, OQ is the equilibrium level of income (output).

To the left of point E, saving is less than investment. When I exceeds S i.e., when injections into the circular flow of income is greater than withdrawal from the income, implies that available supply of goods and services is less than what is required to meet the current demand for goods and services. In other words, we can understand this as low saving implies high consumption, which means that the output demand (due to high consumption) is greater than the planned output. Thus, there exists a portion of demand that remains unsatisfied, thereby, leading to an unplanned decline in the inventory. Thus to prevent inventories from falling, savings in the economy must be increase. This will happen till savings are again equal to investment and the equilibrium is restored.

To the right of point E, savings is greater than investment. When S exceeds I i.e., when withdrawal from the income is greater than injections into the circular flow of income, implies that total consumption expenditure is less than what is required to purchase the available supply of goods and services. In other words, we can understand this as high saving implies low consumption, which means that the output sold (due to low consumption) is less than the planned output. Thus, there exists a portion of produced output that remained unsold, thereby, leading to accumulation of unplanned inventory. Thus to prevent accumulation of inventories, savings in the economy will be reduced. This will happen till savings are again equal to investment and the equilibrium is restored.
OR
Derivation of Consumption Curve from Saving Curve

In the lower part of the diagram, + sY is the saving curve. OS equal to represents the saving at zero level of income.
Steps for the derivation of consumption curve from the saving curve are as follows :
(i) Corresponding to : in the saving function, we have in the consumption function. That is, it represents the autonomous consumption or the consumption at zero level of income. The autonomous consumption is financed by drawing down savings.
(ii) At point B, saving equals zero. This suggests that whole of income is spent on consumption. That is, Y = C. This point is also known as the break-even point. This is shown by point A in the upper panel denoting Y = C.
(iii) By joining the points C and A we derive the straight upward sloping consumption curve.
(iv) CC is the required consumption curve.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2014 Outside Delhi Set – II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Section – A

Question 3.
Give the meaning of ‘inelastic demand’. [1]
Answer:
When the percentage change in quantity demanded is less than the percentage change in prices; it is said to be inelastic demand.

Question 5.
Define marginal revenue. [1]
Answer:
Marginal revenue refers to an addition to the total revenue from producing one more unit of output.

Question 8.
When the price of a good rises from ₹ 10 to ₹ 12 per unit, its demand falls from 25 units to 20 units. What can you say about price elasticity of demand of the good through the ‘expenditure approach’?** [3]

Question 13.
How does change in price of a substitute good affect the demand of the given good? Explain with the help of an example. [4]
Answer:
Substitute goods refer to those goods that can be consumed in place of each other. In other words, they can be substituted with each other. For example, tea and coffee, Colgate and pepsodent, cello pens and reynolds pen, etc. In case of substitute goods, if the price of one good increases, the consumer shifts his demand to the other (substitute) good i.e., rise in the price of one good results in a rise in the demand of the other good and vice-versa.

For example, if price of tea increases, then the demand for tea will decrease. As a result, consumers will shift their consumption towards coffee and the demand for coffee will increase. (Price of tea ↑⇒ Demand for coffee ↑ ). It should be noted that the demand for a good moves in the same direction as that of the price of its substitute.

Question 18.
What is floating exchange rate ? [1]
Answer:
When the market forces of demand and supply determine the conversion rate of currencies, it is called floating exchange rate.

Section – B

Question 20.
Define deflationary gap. [1]
Answer:
Due to the deficiency in the aggregate demand, there exists a difference ( or gap) between the actual level of aggregate demand and full employment level of demand. This difference is termed as deflationary gap.

Question 24.
When foreign exchange rate in a country is on the rise, what impact is it likely to have on imports and how? [3]
Answer:
When foreign exchange rate in a country is on the rise then the demand for foreign currencies will be low. A rise in the exchange rate i.e., $1 = ₹ 40 to $1 = ₹ 50 implies that the goods of abroad become more expensive i.e,. it now cost ₹ 50 to purchase a commodity worth $1 instead of ₹ 40 earlier. This would result in a reduction in the demand for the foreign commodifies. Thus, there will be fall in imports.

Question 29.
Calculate investment expenditure from the following date about an economy which is in equilibrium. [4]
National Income = 1000
Marginal propensity to save = 0.20
Autonomous consumption expenditure = 100
Answer:
Given,
National Income (Y) = 1000
Marginal propensity to save (MPS) = 0.20
Autonomous consumption expenditure = 100
MPC (c) = 1 – MPS = 1 – 0.20 = 0.8
As we know in equilibrium,
Y = C + I
Since, C = C + cY
We Y = C + cY + I
1000 = 100 + 0.8 (1000) + I
1000 = 900 + 1
⇒ I = 100
Therefore, investment expenditure is ₹ 100.

Question 31.
Calculate ‘National Income’ and ‘Net National Disposable Income’** from the following: [6]

Answer:
NNP_FC = Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption expenditure + Gross domestic fixed capital formation + Net change in stocks – Net imports – Depreciation – Net indirect tax – Net factor income to abroad
= 500 + 100 + 200 + 50 – 40 – 70 -120 – (-10)
= ₹ 630 Arab

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2014 Outside Delhi Set – III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Section – A

Question 1.
Define variable cost. [1]
Answer:
Variable cost always changes with the change in the level of output of a good.

Question 5.
What is meant by monotonic preferences? [1]
Answer:
Some goods offer high level of satisfaction to the consumer then he prefers more of that good. This is known as monotonic preferences.

Question 10.
A consumer buys 27 units of a good at a price of ₹10 per unit. When the price falls to ₹ 9 per unit, the demand rises to 30 units. What can you say about price elasticity of demand of the good through the ‘expenditure approach’** ? [3]

Question 11.
How does change in price of a complementary good affect the demand of the given good? Explain with the help of an example. [4]
Answer:
If we use a pair of goods together to satisfy a particular want or need then these goods are known as complementary goods. When one commodity’s price falls then the other good’s demand rises, e g., car and petrol.

Section – B

Question 17.
What is ‘excess demand’ in macroeconomics ? [1]
Answer:
At full employment level of output, the access of aggregate demand over aggregate supply is called excess demand in macroeconomics.

Question 19.
What is ‘managed floating exchange rate’ ? [1]
Answer:
It is a system in which the foreign exchange rate is determined by market forces. In this system the central bank stabilies the value of currency like appreciation or depreciation.