CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2012 Outside Delhi

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2012 Outside Delhi Set-I

Question 1.
Two wires of equal length, one of copper and the other of manganin have the same resistance. Which wire is thicker ? [1]
Answer :
Since the resistivity of alloy is greater than the resistivity of its constituents. We have resistivity of manganin greater than resistivity of copper metal.

Question 2.
What are the directions of electric and magnetic field vectors relative to each other and relative to the direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves ? [1]
Answer :
Since electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature. We have electric and magnetic fields associated with an electromagnetic wave perpendicular to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves.

Let the direction of electric field and magnetic field is along Y and Z-axis then the direction of propagation of EM waves will be along positive X-axis.

Question 3.
How does the angular separation between fringes in single-slit diffraction experiment change when the distance of separation between the slit and screen is doubled ? [1]
Answer :
We know angular separation is given as

Since θ is independent of D i.e., the distance of separation between the screen and the slit, so when D is doubled, angular separation would remain same.

Question 4.
A bar magnet is moved in the direction indicated by the arrow between two coils PQ and CD. Predict the directions of induced current in each coil.

Answer :
According to Lenz’s, law the polarity of the induced emf is such that it opposes the change in magnetic flux responsible for its production.

Since, North pole of bar magnet is receding away from the coil so the right end of the coil will develop South pole i.e., induced current as seen from the left end will be anticlockwise.

Again, since South pole is pushing towards the second coil so the left end of the coil will develop South pole in order to repel it and decrease the flux i.e., induced current as seen from the left end will be clockwise.

Question 5.
For the same value of angle of incidence, the angles of refraction in three media A, B and C are 15°, 25° and 35° respectively. In which medium would the velocity of light be minimum ? [1]
Answer :
As light travels from a rarer to denser medium it bends towards the normal as its speed decreases. So, if the bending is more, the speed of the light would be less in that medium, compared to other media. As the angle of refraction is measured with respect to the normal, the ray making the least angle of refraction would bend more and the speed of light would be minimum in that case. So, the correct option is medium A where refracting angle is 15°.

Question 6.
A proton and an electron have same kinetic energy. Which one has greater de-Broglie wavelength and why ? [1]
Answer:
Since de-Broglie wavelength X in terms of kinetic energy is given as

Where, Ek is kinetic energy, m is mass of electron and h is the Planck’s constant.
Thus, for electron and proton with same kinetic energy, de-Broglie wavelength would depend on mass.

Hence, wavelength of electron is greater than wavelength of proton

Question 7.
Mention the two characteristic properties of the material suitable for making core of a transformer. [1]
Answer:
Two characteristic properties of material:

1. Low hysteresis loss.
2. Low coercivity.

Question 8.
A charge ‘q’ is placed at the center of a cube of side l. What is the electric flux passing through each face of the cube ? [1]
Answer:
By using Gauss’s law,

Question 9.
A test charge ‘q’ is moved without acceleration from A to C along the path from A to B and then from B to C in electric field E as shown in the figure,
(i) Calculate the potential difference between A and C.
(ii) At which point (of the two) is the electric potential more and why ? [2]

Question 10.
An electric dipole is held in a uniform electric field. [2]
(i) Show that the net force acting on it is zero.
(ii) The dipole is aligned parallel to the field. Find the work done in rotating it through the angle of 180°.
Answer:
(i) Consider an electric dipole consisting of two equal and opposite point charges, -q at A and +q at B, separated by a small distance 2a.

Question 11.
State the underlying principle of a transformer. How is the large scale transmission of electric energy over long distances done with the use of transformers ? [2]
Answer:
Transformer is a device which converts high voltage AC into low voltage AC and vice- versa. It is based on the principle of mutual induction. When alternating current is passed through a coil, an induced emf is set up in the neighboring coil.

Transformers are used for transmission of electrical energy over long distances. It step up the output voltage of power plant using step up transformer which reduces the current and increases the Voltage and hence reduces resistive power loss. Then a step down transformer is used at consumer end to step down the voltage and to increases the current.

Question 12.
A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’ is being charged by connecting it across a dc source along with an ammeter. Will the ammeter show a momentary deflection during the process of charging ? If so, how would you explain this momentary deflection and the resulting continuity of current in the circuit ? Write the expression for the current inside the capacitor. [2]
Answer :
Yes, the ammeter shows a momentary deflection during the process of charging because during charging, conduction current flows through the wires which leads to deposition of charges on the plates of capacitor. This produce an electric field of increasing magnitude, which in turn, produces a displacement currents between the plates and this displacement current maintains the continuity of current in the circuit.
Current inside the capacitor,

Question 13.
An object AB is kept in front of a concave mirror as shown in the figure. [2]

(i) Complete the ray diagram showing the image formation of the object.
(ii) How will the position and intensity of the image be affected if the lower half of the mirror’s reflecting surface is painted black ?
Answer:
(i)

Image formed will real and inverted, between focus and center of curvature and small in size.
(ii) If the lower half of the mirror’s reflecting surface is painted black, the position of image will be same but its intensity gets reduced.

14. Draw a labelled ray diagram of a reflecting telescope. Mention its two advantages over the refracting telescope. [2]
Answer:
Reflecting Telescope :

Advantages over refracting telescope :

• There is no chromatic aberration in reflecting telescope.
• The resolving power of a large aperture mirror is high and hence minute details of distant stars can be obtained.

Question 15.
Describe briefly with the help of a circuit diagram, how the flow of current carriers in a p-n-p transistor is regulated with emitter-base junction forward biased and base-collector junction reverse biased. [2]

Question 16.
In the given block diagram of a receiver, identify the boxes labelled as X and Y and write their functions. [2]

Question 17.
A light bulb is rated 100 W for 220 V ac supply of 50 Hz. Calculate : [2]
(i) The resistance of the bulb;
(ii) The rms current through the bulb.
OR
An alternative voltage given by V = 140 sin 314 t is connected across a pure resistor of 50 Ω. Find
(i) the frequency of the source.
(ii) the rms current through the resistor

Question 18.
A circular coil of ‘N’ turns and radius ‘R’ carries a current ‘I’. It is unwound and rewound to make another coil of radius ‘R/2’, current T remaining the same. Calculate the ratio of the magnetic moments of the new coil and original coil. [2]
Answer :
The magnetic moment m of a current, carrying loop,
m = NIA
Where, N = number of turns.
Let m₁ and m₂ be the magnetic moments of circular original coil of radius ‘R’ and new coil of radius ‘R/2’.
Length of wire remains same. Thus,

Question 19.
Deduce the expression for the electrostatic energy stored in a capacitor of capacitance ‘C’ and having charge ‘Q’. How will the
(i) energy stored and
(ii) the electric field inside the capacitor be affected when it is completely filled with a dielectric material of dielectric constant ‘K’ ? [3]
Answer :
Energy stored in a charged capacitor: The energy of a charged capacitor is measured by the total work done injharging the capacitor to a given potential. We know that, Capacitance,

Where q is the charge on the plates and V is potential difference. When an additional amount of charge dq is transferred from negative to positive plate, the small work done is given by



Question 20.
Calculate the value of the resistance R in the circuit shown in the figure so that the current in the circuit is 0.2 A. What would be the potential difference between points B and E ? [3]


Question 21.
You are given three lenses L₁, L₂ and L₃ each of focal length 20 cm. An object is kept at 40 cm in front of L₁, as shown. The final real image is formed at the focus ‘I’ of L₃. Find the separations between L₁, L₂ and L₃. [3]


Thus lens L₂ should produce image at infinity. Hence, for L₂, its object should be at focus.
But we have seen above that image by L₁ is formed at 40 cm on the right of L₁ which is at 20 cm left of L₂ (focus of L₂).
So, X₁ = distance between L₁ and L₂ = (40 + 20) cm = 60 cm
Again distance between L₂ and L₃ does not matter as the image by L₂ is formed at infinity. Hence, the distance between L₂ and L₃ can have . any value.

Question 22.
Define the terms
(i) ‘cut-off voltage’ and
(ii) ‘threshold frequency’ in relation to the phenomenon of photoelectric effect.
Using Einstein’s photoelectric equation show how the cut-off voltage and threshold frequency for a given photosensitive material can be determined with the help of a suitable plot/graph. [3]
Answer:
When light of suitable frequency is incident on a metal surface, electrons are ejected from the metal. This phenomenon is called the photoelectric effect.

(i) The cathode is illuminated with light of some fixed frequency v and fixed intensity I₁. A small photoelectric current is observed due to few electrons that reach anode just because they have sufficiently large velocity of emission. If we make the potential of the anode negative with respect to cathode then the electrons emitted by cathode are repelled. Some electrons even go back to the cathode so that the current decreases. At a certain value of this negative potential, the current is completely stopped. The least value of this anode potential which just stops the photo current is called cut off potential or stopping potential.
(ii) For a given material, there is a certain minimum frequency that if the incident radiation has a frequency below this threshold, no photoelectric emission will take place, howsoever intense the radiation may be falling. This minimum frequency is called threshold frequency.
According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, maximum K.E. is given as

Where λ is wavelength of light and v is corresponding frequency and Φ is work function. We expose a material to lights of various frequencies and thus photoelectric current is observed and cut off potential needed to reduce this current to zero is noted. A graph is plotted and that is straight line.

We can read the value of threshold frequency from graph.
From equation (i), we can find the value of stopping potential (V₀).

Question 23.
A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source. Using the phasor diagram, derive the expression for the impedance of the circuit. Plot a graph to show the variation of current with frequency of the source, explaining the nature of its variation.
[3]
Answer :
Let an alternating emf E = E₀ sin ωf is applied to a series combination of inductor L, capacitor C and resistance R. Since all three of them are connected in series the current through them is same. But the voltage across each element has a different phase relation with current.




With increase in frequency, current first increases and then decreases. At resonant frequency, the current amplitude is maximum.

Question 24.
Mention three different modes of propagation used in communication system. Explain with the help of a diagram how long distance communication can be achieved by ionospheric reflection of radio waves. [3]

Question 25.
Draw a plot of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a functions of their separations. Mark the regions where the nuclear force is
(i) attractive and
(ii) repulsive.
Write any two characteristic features of nuclear forces. [3]
Answer :
Potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation :

Here, Part AB represents repulsive force and part BCD represents attractive force. r0 is the distance at which potential energy is minimum.
Characteristic features of nuclear forces are :

• Nuclear forces are much stronger then Coulomb forces acting between charges or the gravitational forces between masses.
• The nuclear force between neutron- neutron, proton-neutron and proton-proton is approximately the same. The nuclear force does not depend on the electric charge.

Question 26.
In a Geiger-Marsden experiment, calculate the distance of closest approach to the nucleus of Z = 80, when α-particle of 8 MeV energy impinges on it before it comes momentarily to rest and reverses its direction.
How will the distance of closest approach be affected when the kinetic energy of the a-particle is doubled ? [3]
OR
The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. If an electron makes a transition from an energy level -0.85 eV to -3.4 eV, calculate the wavelength of the spectral line emitted. To which series of hydrogen spectrum does the wavelength belong ?
Answer :
Let ro be the centre to centre distance between the alpha-particle and nucleus.

Question 27.
Define relaxation time of the free electrons drifting in a conductor. How is it related to the drift velocity of free electrons ? Use this relation to deduce the expression for the electrical resistivity of the material. [3]
Answer:
Relaxation time (T) is the time for which a free electron accelerates before it undergoes a collision with the positive ion in the conductor. Or, we can say it is the average time elapsed between two successive collisions. It is of the order 10-14 seconds. It decreases with increase of temperature and is given as

Question 28.
(a) In Young’s double slit experiment, derive the condition for
(i) constructive interference and
(ii) destructive interference at a point on the screen.
(b)A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 800 nm and 600 nm is used to obtain the interference fringes in a Young’s double slit experiment on a screen placed 1.4 m away. If the two slits are separated by 0.28 mm, calculate the least distance from the central bright maximum where the bright fringes of the two wavelengths coincide. [5]
OR
(a) How does an unpolarized light incident on a Polaroid get polarized ? Describe briefly, with the help of a necessary diagram, the polarization of light by reflection from a transparent medium.
(b) Two Polaroids ‘A’ and ‘B’ are kept in crossed position. How should a third Polaroid ‘C’ be placed between them so that the intensity of polarized light transmitted by Polaroid B reduces to l/8th of the intensity of unpolarized light incident on A ?
Answer :
(a) Condition of constructive and destructive interference:

In the given figure, S is a monochromatic source of light. S₁ and S₂ are two narrow pin holes equidistant from S and they act as coherent sources. Consider a point P on the screen XY placed parallel to S₁ and S₂.
Let a₁ be the amplitude of the waves from S₁ and a₂ is from S₂. Let Φ be the phase difference between the two waves reaching the point P. Let y₁ and y₂ be the displacements of the two waves,


waves meet in the same phase or the phase difference between the waves is even multiple of π or path difference between them is the integral multiple of λ and maximum intensity is (a₁ + a₂)² which is greater than the sum intensities of individual waves by an amount 2a₁a₂.
Destructive interference : For minimum intensity at any point, cosΦ = -1.

Clearly, the minimum intensity is obtained in the region of superposition at those points where waves meet in opposite phase or the phase difference between the waves is odd multiple of π or path difference between the waves is odd

OR
(a) Polaroid is made up of a special material which blocks one of the two planes of vibration of an electromagnetic wave. Because of its chemical composition, it allows only those vibrations of the electromagnetic wave which are parallel to its crystallographic axis.

An ordinary beam of light on reflection from a transparent medium becomes partially polarized. The degree of polarization increases as the angle of incidence is increased. At a particular value of angle of incidence, the reflected beam becomes completely polarized. This angle of incidence is called the polarizing angle (i_P).
(b) By Malus law, the intensity of light emerging from the middle polaroid ‘C’ is given by

Question 29.
(a) Describe briefly, with the help of a diagram, the role of the two important processes involved in the formation of a p-n junction.
(b) Name the device which is used as a voltage regulator. Draw the necessary circuit diagram and explain its working. [5]
OR
(a) Explain briefly the principle on which a transistor-amplifier works as an oscillator. Draw the necessary circuit diagram and explain its working.
(b) Identify the equivalent gate for the following circuit and write its truth table.

Answer :
(a) Two important process involved in the formation of a p-n junction are
(i) diffusion and
(ii) drift.
In n-type semiconductor, electrons are the majority carriers and holes are minority carriers. In the same way, in p-type semiconductor holes are majority and electrons are minority carriers. During the formation of p-n junction, due to concentration gradient, the holes diffuse from p side to n side and electrons diffuse from n side to p side. This motion gives rise to diffusion current across the junction.

When an electron diffuses from n to p side, it leaves behind a positive charge. In such a manner a positively charged layer forms on n-side of the junction.

Similarly, when a hole diffuses from p to n side, it leaves behind a negative charge and a negatively charged layer forms on p side of the junction.

This space charge region is known as depletion region. An electric field directed from n-region to p-region develops across the junction. Due to this field, electrons on p side of the junction move to n-side and holes on n side of the junction move to p side. This motion of charge carriers due to the electric field is called drift.

Drift current is opposite in direction to the diffusion current. Initially, diffusion current is large and drift current is small. Space-charge region on either side increases as the diffusion process continues. This increases the electric field and hence the drift current. This process continues until the diffusion current equals the drift current.

(b) Zener diode is used as a voltage regulator.

Voltage regulator converts an unregulated dc voltage into a constant regulated dc voltage using zener diode. The unregulated voltage is connected to the zener diode through a series resistance Rs such that the zener diode is reverse biased. If the input voltage increases, the current through Rs and zener diode also increases. This increases the voltage drop across Rs without any change in voltage drop across zener diode. This is because in the breakdown region, zener voltage remain constant even though the current through zener diode changes.

Similarly, if the input voltage decreases, the current through Rs and zener diode decrease. The voltage drop across R§ decrease without any change in the voltage across the zener diode. Thus any change in input voltage results the change in voltage drop across Rs without any change in voltage across the zener diode.

Question 30.
(a) Write the expression for the force , acting on a charged particle of charge ‘q’, moving with a velocity in the presence of both electric field and magnetic field . Obtain the condition under which the particle moves undeflected through the fields.
(b) A rectangular loop of size 1 × b carrying a steady current I is placed in a uniform magnetic field Prove that the torque acting on the loop is given by, = × where in is the magnetic moment of the loop.[5]
OR
(a) Explain giving reasons, the basic difference in converting a galvanometer into
(i) a voltmeter and
(ii) an ammeter.
(b) Two long straight parallel conductors carrying steady currents I₁ and I₂ are separated by a distance’d’. Explain briefly, with the help of a suitable diagram, how the magnetic field due to one conductor acts on the other. Hence deduce the expression for the force acting between the two conductors. Mention the nature of this force.
Answer:
(a) Force acting on a charge ‘q’ moving with velocity in the presence of both electric field and magnetic field is given by,

Consider a region in which magnetic field, electric field and velocity of charge particle are perpendicular to each other.
To move charge particle undeflected, the net force acting on the particle must be zero i.e., the electric force must be equal and opposite to the magnetic force.

The direction of electric and magnetic forces are in opposite direction. Their magnitudes are in such a way that they cancel out each other to give net force zero and so the charge particle does not deflect
(b) When an electric current flows in closed loop of wire, placed in a uniform magnetic field, the magnetic forces produce a torque which

tends to rotate the loop so that area of the loop is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field.

Consider a rectangular coil PQRS placed in an external magnetic field as shown in Fig (a). Let ‘I’ be the current flowing through the coil. Each part of the coil experiences a Lorentz force. Forces of each part is  , , and as shown. The and are equal in magnitude but act in opposite directions along the same straight line. Hence, they cancel out each other.



OR
(a) (i) In converting a galvanometer into a voltmeter, a very high suitable resistance is connected in series to its coil, so, that galvanometer gives full scale deflection.
(ii) In converting a galvanometer into an ammeter, a very small suitable resistance is connected in parallel to its coil. The remaining pair of the current i.e., (I – I_g) flows through the resistance.
(b) Assumption : Current flowing in the conductors are in the same direction. Using right hand thumb rule, the direction of the magnetic field at point P due to current I₂ is perpendicular to the plane of paper and inwards.

Similarly, at point Q on X₂Y₂, the direction of magnetic field due to current Ii is perpendicularly outward. Using Fleming’s left hand rule we can find the direction of forces F₁₂ and F₂₁ which are in opposite directions,
Thus, by Ampere’s circuital law, we have,

From above we get the magnitude of forces F₁₂ and F₂₁ are equal but in opposite direction. So,
F₁₂ = – F₂₁
Therefore, two parallel straight conducting carrying current in the same direction attract each other. Similarly, we can prove if two parallel straight conductors carry currents in opposite direction, they repel each other with the same magnitude as equation (i).

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2012 Outside Delhi Set-II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous Set

Question 1.
In a single-slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is made double the original width. How does this affect the size and intensity of the central diffraction band ? [1]
Answer :
In single-slit diffraction experiment, fringe width is given as

Where, β = fringe width
λ = wavelength of light used
D = the distance between screen and slit
d = the width of the slit.

If d is doubled, the width of the central maximum is halved. Thus there is a reduction in the size of the central diffraction band. Intensity of central band of the diffraction pattern varies square of the slit width so as the slit gets double, intensity will get four times.

Question 2.
You are given three lens L₁, L₂, L₃ each of focal length 15 cm. An object is kept at 20 cm in front of L₁, as shown. The final real image is formed at the focus T of L₃. Find the separations between L₁, L₂ and L₃. [3]

For lens L₃, v₃ =f₃ = 15 cm, it means image by L₃ is formed at focus. By using lens formula we find that the object lie at infinity of L₃. Hence, L₂ will produce image at infinity. So, we can conclude that object for L₂ should be at its focus.

But, we have seen above the image by L₁ is formed at 60 cm right of L₁ which is at 15 cm left of L₂ (focus of L₂).
So, X₁ = distance between L₁ and L₂ = (60 + 15) cm = 75 cm Again distance between L₂ and L₃ does not matter as the image by L₂ is formed at infinity so X₂ can take any value.

Question 3.
In a Geiger Marsden experiment, calculate the distance of closest approach to the nucleus of Z = 75, when an particle of 5 MeV energy impinges on it before it comes momentarily to rest and reverse its direction.
How will the distance of closest approach be affected when the kinetic energy of the-particle is doubled ? [3]
OR
The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. If an electron make a transition from an energy level -0.85 eV to -1.51 eV, calculate the wavelength of the spectral line emitted. To which series of hydrogen spectrum does this wavelength belong ?
Answer :
Let ro be the centre to centre distance between the α-particle and nucleus when the a-particle is at its stopping point.



Thus, we have transition from n = 4 to n = 3.
Since transition corresponds to the transition of an electron from n = 4 to an orbit having n = 3. It is Paschen series of the hydrogen spectrum. Wavelength is given as

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Physics 2012 Outside Delhi Set-III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous Sets.

Question 1.
How does the fringe width, in Young’s double¬slit experiment change when the distance of separation between the slits and screen is doubled ? [1]
Answer:
We have, frings width

The fringe width becomes double when the distance of separation between the slits and screen is doubled

Question 2.
The speed of an electromagnetic wave in a material medium is given by being the permeability of the medium and ∈ is its permittivity. How does its frequency change ? [1]
Answer :
The frequencies of electromagnetic waves have its inherent characteristics. When an electromagnetic wave travels from one medium to another, its wavelength changes but frequency remains unchanged.

Question 3.
A proton and an electron have same kinetic energy. Which one has smaller de-Broglie wavelength and why ? [1]
Answer :
In terms of kinetic energy, wavelength is given by

So wavelength is inversely proportional to √m, i.e., more the mass, less the wavelength and vice- versa.
So, for same kinetic energy, as a proton has a larger mass than an electron, thus a proton has smaller de-Broglie wavelength than a electron.

Question 4.
A circular coil of closely wound N turns and radius r carries a current I. Write the expression for the following: [2]
(i) the magnetic field at its center
(ii) the magnetic moment of this coil
Answer :
(i) Magnetic field at its centre is given

(ii) Magnetic moment of this coil is

Question 5.
A light bulb is rated 150 W for 220 V a.c supply of 60 Hz. Calculate [2]
(i) the resistance of the bulb
(ii) the rms current through the bulb
OR
An alternating voltage given by V = 70 sin 100πt is connected across a pure resistor of 25 Ω. Find
(i) the frequency of the source.
(ii) the rms current through the resistor.
Answer:
(i) Resistance of the bulb,

Question 6.
Explain briefly the following terms used in communication system : [3]
(i) Transducer
(ii) Repeater
(iii) Amplification

Question 7.
You are given three lens L₁, L₂ and L₃ each of focal length 10 cm. An object is kept at 15 cm in front of L₁, as shown. The final real image is formed at the focus T of L₃. Find the separations between L₁, L₂ and L₃.

For lens L₃, V₃ = f₃ = 10 cm, it means image by L₃ is formed at focus. So by using lens formula, we get that object should lie at infinity for L₃. Hence, L₂ will produce image at infinity. So, we can conclude that object for L₂ should be at its focus.

But, we have seen above that image by Li is formed at 30 cm right of L₁ which is at 10 cm left of L₂ (focus of L₂).
So, X₁ = distance between L₁ and L₂ = (30 + 10) cm 40 cm. Again distance between L₂ and L₃ does not matter as the image by L₂ is formed at infinity so X₂ can take any value.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2013 Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:

• • The question paper contains 26 questions.
  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Question no. 1 to 11 carry 1 mark each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 10-20 words each.
  • Questions no. 12 to 19 carry 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 30-50 words each.
  • Questions no. 20 to 26 carry 5 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 75-100 words each.

** Answer is not given due to change in present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2013 Delhi Set – I

Geography 2013 (Delhi)
Time allowed : 3 hours

Question 1.
Give the meaning of ‘Crude Birth Rate’ (CBR). [1]
Answer:
The crude birth rate is the number of live births per 1,000 people per year. We can calculate CBR by the following formula :
CBR = Bi/P multiplied by 100 where Bi denotes live births during the year.
P is the mid year population of the area.

Question 2.
How is sex ratio calculated in different countries of the world ? [1]
Answer:
Sex ratio is calculated by the following formulas :

OR
(iii) The number of females per thousand males

Question 3.
State and two functions of World Trade Organization (W.T.O.). [1]
Answer:

1. It overseas the implementation, administration and operation of the covered agreements.
2. And it provides a forum for negotiations and for settling disputes.

Question 4.
Which State of India has the lowest female literacy rate ? [1]
Answer:
Bihar.

Question 5.
Mention any two causes of the negative growth rate of population in India during 1911-1921. [1]
Answer:

1. Poor health facilities and
2. Lack of basic necessities.

Question 6.
Give any two examples of mining towns in India. [1]
Answer:

1. Jharia
2. Digboi.

Question 7.
What is ‘sectoral planning’ ? [1]
Answer:
The Sector Plan provides general guidelines directed towards ensuring the orderly and efficient development of a plan area. The sector plan addresses essential services and facilitates, land uses, transportation systems, population density and sequencing of development. Full consideration must ^ be given to the costs and benefits of various actions upon the present and future social, economic and environmental fabric of the area.

Question 8.
Why is the density of rural roads very low in the hilly areas of India ? Give one reason. [1]
Answer:

1. Nature of difficult terrain,
2. Poor economic condition in those areas.

Question 9.
Give the meaning of the term ‘Hinterland’. [1]
Answer:
The hinterland is the land or district behind a coast or the shoreline of a river. It is the rural outlying region that supports a town or city with agricultural products and raw materials. The hinterland ships fresh fruits, vegetables, and milk into the city to provide the village with the finest fresh products.

Question 10.
Mention any two sources of water pollution in India. [1]
Answer:

1. Toxic effluents from industries.
2. Sewage disposal in rivers without detoxification.

Question 11.
Explain the concept of ‘Possibilism’, with three, suitable examples. [3]
Answer:
Possiblism is a view of the environment as a range of opportunities from which the individual may choose. This choice is based on the individual’s needs and norms. It grants that the range of choices may be limited by the environment, but allows choices to be made, rather than thinking on deterministic lines.

Examples :

1. Health resorts of highlands
2. Orchards
3. Ports on the costs
4. Satellites in the space.

Question 12.
Analyze any three major problems of slum dwellers in India. [3]
Answer:

1. Poor sanitation
2. Poor ventilation
3. Lack of basic amenities
4. They are low paid workers.
5. Their areas are overcrowded having narrow street pattern prone to serious hazard from fire.

Question 13.
Explain any three points of economic significance of ‘Trans-Siberian Railway’. [3]
Answer:

1. It is the most significant route in Asia.
2. It helps to connect Asian market with West European market.
3. It is the longest double tracked electric railway in the world.

Question 14.
What is cyber space ? Describe any two advantages of internet. [3]
Answer:
The word “cyberspace” is credited to William Gibson, who used it in his book, Neuromancer, written in 1984. Cyberspace is the notional environment in which communication over computer networks occurs. As a social experience, individuals can interact, exchange ideas, share information, provide social support, conduct business, direct actions, create artistic media, play games, engage in political discussion, and so on, using this global network.
Few advantages are :

1. Anyone can share ideas, view from any part of the world.
2. The concept of Global village becomes truth with its help.
3. It is significant in terms of education and entertainment. In fact it creates the environment for Edutainment.

Question 15.
Explain with example, how ‘stage of economic development’ and ‘foreign investment’ become the basis of international trade. [3]
Answer:
Stage of Economic Development :
The nature of items traded undergoes changes as the different stages of economic development of countries passes. In agro-based countries, agro products are exchanged for manufactured goods where as industrialized nations export machinery and finished products and import food grains and other raw materials. The study of economic development mainly focused entirely on national product, or the aggregate output of goods and services.

Foreign Investment : Foreign direct investment (FDI) has proved to be resilient during financial crisis. It boosts up the trade where the capital is limited. By developing such capital-intensive industries, the industrial nations ensure import of food stuffs, minerals and create markets for their finished products.

Question 16.
Explain any three push factors that have caused rural to urban migration in India. [3]
Answer:

1. In India, people migrate from villages to towns/cities due to poor economic conditions at village.
2. Lack of basic amenities like-education, healthcare etc.
3. Lack of infrastructure like-roads, water, electricity etc.

Question 17.
What are hamleted settlements ? Mention any two areas of India where such settlements are found. [3]
Answer:
A hamlet is a settlement, which is too small to be considered a town or village. As a general rule, hamlets are rural, and many of them arise around a specific site such as a mill or a large farm. In some countries, hamlets are legally defined, while in others; the world is simply a term to describe a small settlement, with no firm definition attached.

A typical hamlet consists of only a few houses, often clustered together close to the road. Many hamlets lack stores and services, forcing their dwellers to travel to the nearest town to meet their needs. Two areas in India are :

1. Middle and lower parts of the Ganga plain
2. Lower valleys of the Himalayas.
3. Chhattisgarh.

Question 18.
Give two advantages of ‘copper’. Mention four main copper mining areas of India. [3]
Answer:

1. Copper and the copper alloys are some of the most versatile materials available and are used for applications in every type of industry.
2. Besides good conductivity the properties include strength, hardness, ductility, and resistance to corrosion, wear and shock, low magnetic permeability, an attractive range of colors together with ease of machining, forming, polishing and plating.

Copper mining areas in India are :

• • Khetri
  • Balaghat
  • Singhbhum
  • Jhunjhunu.

Question 19.
Explain the role of ‘power’ and ‘raw-material’ in the location of heavy industries in India. [3]
Answer:
Energy crisis has a great bearing on the industrial development and production. Although the installed capacity of electricity increased from 66.08 million km in 1990-91 to 85.79 million km in 1996-97 but it is much short of the actual demand. It leads to power cut and rostering, which hampers the industrial production. Most of the state electricity boards are running in loss and are in deplorable condition. Rail transport is overburdened while road transport is plagued with many problems. Even national highways in many places are in bad shape.

Telecommunication facilities are mainly confined to big cities.

Indian Agricore, the major source of industrial raw material, is still dependent on the monsoon. Natural calamities like drought, famine, flood etc., badly affect agricultural production as well the supply of industrial raw material. Failure of monsoon even affects the purchasing power of the people and also the demand for industrial products. It sometimes creates glut in the market and industrial plumpness. Cement industry is recently facing such crisis.

Question 20.
Explain any three human values which are required to empower socially and economically disadvantaged people. *[3]

Question 21.
Study the given map, showing areas of subsistence gathering carefully and answer the following questions: [5]
(i) Identify and name the areas marked A, B, C and D in your answer-book.
(ii) Explain any four characteristics of gathering.
(iii) Why can’t gathering become important at the global level ? Give two reasons.

Answer:
(i) A-North Canada
B-Amazon Basin
C-Northern Eurasia
D-Tropical Africa

(ii)

1. Gathering is practiced in the regions having harsh climate conditions.
2. It involves primitive societies, which depends on wild animals and plants.
3. This type of activity requires a small amount of capital investment.
4. The yield per person is very low and they hardly have any surplus.

(iii)

1. Modern gatherers have had no opportunity to move into new territories.
2. Products of such types of activity cannot compete in the world market.

Question 22.
Define ‘manufacturing’. Classify manufacturing industries on the basis of size into three categories. Explain an important characteristic of each category. [5]
Answer:
Manufacturing is the production of merchandise for use or sale using labour and machines, tools, chemical and biological processing, or formulation. The term may refer to a range of human activities, from handicraft to high tech, but is most commonly applied to industrial production, in which raw materials are transformed into finished goods on a large scale. Such finished goods may be used for manufacturing other more complex products, such as aircraft, household appliances or automobiles.

Size of industry refers to the amount of capital invested, number of people employed and the volume of production. Based on size, industries can be classified into three types :

1. Cottage or household industries.
2. Small-scale industries.
3. Large-scale industries.

Cottage or household industries are a type of small-scale industry where the products are manufactured by hand, by the artisans. Basket weaving, pottery and other handicrafts are examples of cottage industry. Small-scale manufacturing is distinguished from household by its production techniques and place of manufacturing. Small- scale industries use lesser amount of capital and technology as compared to large-scale industries that produce large volume of products. Investment of capital is higher and the technology used is superior in large-scale industries. Silk weaving and food processing industries are small-scale industries. Production of automobiles and heavy machinery are large-scale industries.

Question 23.
Classify urban settlements on the basis of size, functions and services available into five categories and explain an important characteristic of each type. [5]
Answer:
Depending on the size, functions and the service available, urban settlements are designated as town city, million city, conurbation, and megalopolis.

1. Town : Population size in town is higher than the village. Functions such as, manufacturing, retail and wholesale trade, and professional services exist in towns.
2. City : A city may be regarded as a leading town. Cities are much larger than towns and have a greater number of economic functions. They tend to have transport terminals, major financial institutions and regional administrative offices. When the population crosses the one million mark it is designated as a million city.
3. Million City : The cities having more than million population is known as million city. The number of these types of cities in the world have been increasing as never before.
4. Conurbation : The term conurbation was coined by Patrick Geddes in 1915 and applied to a large area of urban development resulted from the merging of originally separate towns or cities. Greater London, Greater Mumbai, Manchester, Chicago and Tokyo are examples.
5. Megalopolis : This Greek word meaning “great city”, was popularized by Jean Gottman (1957) and signifies ‘super-metropolitan’ region extending union of conurbations. The urban landscape stretching from Boston in the north to south of Washington in U.S.A. is the best-known example of a megalopolis.

Question 24.
Explain any three factors responsible for the depletion of water resources. Examine any two legislative measures for controlling water pollution in India. [5]
Answer:
(i) Increased use of irrigation : The impact of increased use of water for irrigation is a decrease in the quality and quantity of downstream water, with, implications on both ecosystem functioning and on downstream use for agriculture, industry and municipal supplies. However, as the demand area, the farmland, is often distant from the critical urban/industrial demand areas, these linkages are often overlooked.

(ii) Use of freshwater in industrial animal production and processing systems : The demand on fresh water has a direct impact, a reduction in the overall availability of fresh water among competing users. It also has an indirect impact through decreasing the water available for diluting effluents, and hence increasing the levels of pollution in downstream systems. Discharged wastewater is generally loaded with nutrients (N and P) and organic compounds. When discharged directly onto surface water, the large quantities of wastewater easily exceed the natural cleaning capacity of the system, causing pollution and increasing biological oxygen demand.

Legislative measures in India :

1. The government of India has enacted a number of pieces of legislation, such as the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 and amended in 1998.
2. Environment Protection Act, 1986, a system of environmental audit introduced to enable the production units to evaluate the raw materials, utilities, and operational efficiencies to effect any possible midcourse corrections and minimize environmental pollution.

Question 25.
Explain with five suitable examples, how the ‘level of economic development and ‘nature of terrain’ affect the density of roads in India. [5]
Answer:

1. The roads in our villages, towns and cities are bumpy and are not traffic worthy. In villages streets or roads are uneven and if it is dark one may stumble. The Panchayats, municipalities and corporations are not particular in laying good roads, in mending them.
2. Even in the cities the roads are not well metalled and there is no footpath. Except in the main thoroughfares there are no footpaths.
3. Jammu & Kashmir has only 10.48 KM road density.
4. It is very low in the Himalayan region and Northeast region
5. It is also low in plateau areas in India.

Question 26.1.
In the given political outline Map of the World, four features have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify these features with the help of information given below and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. [5]
(A) : A major sea port.
(B) : A major air port.
(C) : The country having the highest density of population in Asia.
(D) : An area of extensive commercial grain farming.

Answer:
26.1

Question 26.2.
Locate and label the following on the given political outline Map of India with appropriate symbols:
(i) Mayurbhanj – iron ore mining area
(ii)A major seaport which has been developed after independence to cater the needs of Western and North-western parts ef the country.
(iii) A state having highest female literacy rate.
Answer:
26.2.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2013 Delhi Set – II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 2.
Mention any two key area of measuring ‘human development’. [1]
Answer:

1. Health
2. Education.

Question 3.
Name the terminal stations of ‘Australian trans-continental Railways’. [1]
Answer:

1. Perth
2. Sydney.

Question 4.
Define the term poverty. [1]
Answer:
A state or condition in which a person or community lacks the financial resources and essentials to enjoy a minimum standard of life and well being that’s considered acceptable in society. Poverty status in the United States is assigned to people that do not meet a certain threshold level set by the Department of Health and Human Services.

Question 7.
Name two rivers that provide water to Tata Iron and Steel company (TISCO). [1]
Answer:

1. Kharki
2. Swarnrekha.

Question 13.
Analyse three problems arising as a result of urban waste disposal. [3]
Answer:

1. Localized environmental health problems such as inadequate household water and sanitation and indoor air pollution.
2. City-regional environmental problems such as ambient air pollution, inadequate waste management and pollution of rivers, lakes and coastal areas.
3. Extra-urban impacts of urban activities such as ecological disruption and resource depletion in a city’s hinterland, and emissions of acid precursors and greenhouse gases.
4. Regional or global environmental burdens that arise from activities outside a city’s boundaries, but which will affect people living in the city.

Question 14.
Why is river Rhine the world’s most heavily used waterway ? Explain any three reasons. [3]
Answer:
The Rhine is an important waterway. Many goods are transported over the Rhine, and the Rhine valley is also an important wine producing region. The river Rhine begins at Tomasee, a lake in the canton of Graubunden in Switzerland and runs through Switzerland, Germany and the Netherlands. It is also the border between Switzerland and Liechtenstein and also the border between Germany and France. It runs through Basel, Bonn, Cologne and Duisburg. It also separates the cities of Mainz and Wiesbaden.

It works as a main route of transportation of goods F among these countries.

Question 18.
Give two advantages of Manganese. Mention any four main Manganese producing states in India. [3]
Answer:
Two advantages of Manganese are :

1. It is considered an essential nutrient, because the body requires it to function properly. People use manganese as medicine.
2. During the period of operation of the Merioneth manganese mines, the main applications were bleach manufacture, glass making and steel making.
3. Manganese is used as a flux in smelting silver and lead ores. Manganese producing states in India are : Odisha, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, etc.

Question 19.
Explain the role of ‘Market* and ‘Transport’ in the location of industries in India. [3]
Answer:
The demand for market comes mostly from agriculture, industry and trade. The predominant form of industrial organization developed Market becomes K a necessary infrastructure for fast industrialization and hence it’s important for the economy because India is a land if agriculture where more than 7o % of population depends upon agriculture and as India is also an developing nation so, industrialization is most necessary.

Development of any industry very much depends on good means of transport. All the production is meant for consumption from fields and factories. The product is brought from different places to market for consumers by various means of transportation.

In India, Industries are linked with roads, railways and other means of transportation but as far as agriculture sector is concerned, it is not well linked with the roads. Despite of numerous efforts, villages of India, which are considered as main source of agricultural products, still need to be linked with various means of transportation.

Question 22.
Define the term ‘Tourism’. Explain any four factors that attract tourists in the world. [5]
Answer:
Tourism is the travel for recreational, leisure, family or business purposes, usually of a limited duration. Tourism is commonly associated with transnational travel, but may also refer to travel to another location within the same country. The World Tourism Organization defines tourists as people “travelling to and staying in places outside their usual environment for not more than one consecutive year for leisure, business and other purposes.”
Factors that attracts tourists are as follow :

1. Destination is often characterized by pull factors; these are conditions that intensively attract someone to a place. Examples of pull factors are favorable environmental conditions, peculiar physical attractions, people’s culture and traditions, the tourism and hospitality industry of a place.
2. Tourists always ask friends for destination recommendations when they plan their overseas trips. This also means that if a business owner wins a tourist’s heart, it will probably see more tourists visiting there shortly after.
3. All of a sudden, group tours have been rendered less important by the rise of social media and online forums. Posts about travel destinations easily cause online buzz and have a strong influence on people’s decision-making. Independent travelers also heavily rely on online travel forums to plan their travel itineraries.
4. Easy to reach becomes an increasingly important factor for tourists as they are seeking more exciting destinations on their trips overseas. No one wants to visit such a destination that is too difficult to reach. Tourists often avoid destinations in remote areas.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2013 Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit Chapter 7 महाजनो येन गतः स पन्थाः (वही मार्ग है जिससे महापुरुष जाते हैं)

पाठपरिचयः, सारांश: च

पाठपरिचयः
अस्मिन् पाठे षट् श्लोकाः विष्णुपुराण-नीतिशतक-वैराग्यशतक-महाभारतादिभ्यः विविधग्रन्थेभ्यः संगृहीताः सन्ति। एतानि सुभाषितानि क्रमशः महाकवीनां ग्रन्थेभ्यः संगृहीतानि सन्ति। सत्कवीनां काव्येभ्यः सङ्कलितानि पद्यरत्नानि सहृदयानां पाठकानां मनांसि रञ्जयन्ति।

सारांश:
एतेषु पद्येषु भारतवन्दना, विद्यायाः उपयोगिता, समयस्य महिमा, परोपकारस्य गरिमा, पदार्थानाम् असारता, सज्जनदुर्जनयोः प्रकृतिभेदः, धर्मस्य गहनता, महापुरुषैः दर्शितस्य मार्गस्य श्रेष्ठता च प्रतिपादिता अस्ति।

हिन्दीभाषायां पाठपरिचयः
इस पाठ में संगृहीत सुभाषित विष्णुपुराण, नीतिशतक, वैराग्यशतक तथा महाभारत आदि ग्रन्थों से लिए गए हैं। इन पद्यों में भारत की वन्दना, विद्या की उपयोगिता, समय का महत्त्व, परोपकार की महिमा, पदार्थों की सारहीनता, सज्जन व दुर्जनों के स्वभाव की भिन्नता, धर्मतत्त्व की गहनता तथा महापुरुषों के द्वारा दिखाए गए मार्ग की श्रेष्ठता का प्रतिपादन किया गया है।

क. मूलपाठः, अन्वयः, शब्दार्थः, सरलार्थश्च

गायन्ति देवाः किल गीतकानि
धन्यास्तु ते भारतभूमिभागे।
स्वर्गापवर्गास्पदमार्गभूते
भवन्ति भूयः पुरुषाः सुरत्वात्॥ (विष्णुपुराणम्)
शब्दार्थः – किल- निश्चयेन (निश्चयपूर्वक)। गीतकानि- स्तोत्राणि, गीतानि (गीत, स्तुति)। स्वर्गापवर्गास्पदमार्गभूतेस्वर्गस्य अपवर्गस्य च आपस्पदम् तस्य च मार्गभूतम् साधनरूपम् तस्मिन् (स्वर्ग और मोक्ष की प्राप्ति में साधनरूप)। सुरत्वात्देवत्व प्राप्त कर लेने के बाद। भूयः- पुनः (फिर)। पुरुषा:- मानवा भवन्ति- उत्पन्नाः भवन्ति (होते हैं, जन्म लेते हैं)।

सरलार्थ – देवता निश्चय ही स्तुति करते हैं कि वे पुरुष भाग्यशाली हैं जो स्वर्ग तथा मोक्ष की प्राप्ति के साधन रूप भारत में देवत्व प्राप्त कर लेने के बाद फिर से जन्म लेते हैं।

2. विद्या समुन्नतिपथं विशदीकरोति
बुद्धिं विचारविषये प्रखरीकरोति।
कर्तव्यपालनपरां धियमादधाति
विद्या सखा परमबन्धुरथेह लोके॥ (वैद्यकीयसुभाषितम्)

शब्दार्थाः – विशदीकरोति- स्पष्टं करोति (प्रकाशित करती है)। प्रखरीकरोति- तीव्रां करोति (प्रखर, तेज करती है)। आदधाति- स्थापयति (स्थापित करती है)।

सरलार्थ – विद्या उन्नति के मार्ग को प्रशस्त करती है, बुद्धि को विचार के क्षेत्र में तीव्र करती है तथा कर्तव्यपालन में तत्पर करती है। इस लोक में विद्या मित्र व परम बन्धु है।

3. नष्टं द्रव्यं प्राप्यते ह्युद्यमेन
नष्टा विद्या प्राप्यतेऽभ्यासयुक्त्या।
नष्टारोग्यं सूपचारैः सुसाध्यं
नष्टा वेला या गता सा गतैव॥ (वैद्यकीयसुभाषितम्)
शब्दार्थः – आरोग्यम्- स्वास्थ्यम् (स्वास्थ्य)। सूपचारैः- उत्तमचिकित्साप्रयोगैः (अच्छे इलाज से)। सुसाश्म्सम्यक् साधयितुं शक्यम् (ठीक करने योग्य)।
सरलार्थ – खोया धन उद्यम करने से प्राप्त हो जाता है। नष्ट हुई विद्या अभ्यास तथा युक्ति से प्राप्त हो जाती है। नष्ट हुआ स्वास्थ्य भी उत्तम उपचारों से ठीक हो जाता है, पर जो समय बीत गया, वह तो बीत गया। वह लौटा कर नहीं लाया जा सकता।

4. पद्मकरं दिनकरो विकचीकरोति
चन्द्रो विकासयति कैरवचक्रवालम्।
नाभ्यर्थितो जलधरोऽपि जलं ददाति
सन्तः स्वयं परहितेषु कृताभियोगाः॥ (नीतिशतकम्)
शब्दार्थः – पद्मकरम्- कमलानां समूहम् (कमलों के समूह को)। कैरवचक्रवालम्- कुमुदानां समूहम् (कुमुद के गुच्छों को)। नाभ्यर्थितः- अयाचितः (न माँगने पर भी)। कृताभियोगा:- प्रयत्ने रताः (प्रयत्न में लीन)।
सरलार्थ – सूर्य स्वयं कमलों के समूह को खिला देता है। चन्द्रमा स्वयं कुमुदों के समूहों को खिला देता है। बादल स्वयं बिना माँगे जल बरसाते हैं। ऐसे ही सन्त भी सदा दूसरों के भले में स्वेच्छा से लगे रहते हैं।

5. भोगा न भुक्ताः वयमेव भुक्ताः
तपो न तप्तं वयमेव तप्ताः ।
कालो न यातो वयमेव याताः
तृष्णा न जीर्णा वयमेव जीर्णाः॥ (वैराग्यशतकम्)
शब्दार्थः – तप्ताः- पीड़िताः (पीड़ित)। जीर्णाः- वृद्धाः (वृद्ध)।
सरलार्थ – भोग समाप्त नहीं हुए हम समाप्त हो गए। तप पूरे नहीं हुए हम ही पीड़ित हो गए। समय समाप्त नहीं हुआ हम ही चलते बने। लालसा पूरी नहीं हुई, हम ही बूढ़े हो गए।

6. कटु क्वणन्तो मलदायकाः खलाः
तुदन्त्यलं बन्धनश्रृङ्खला इव।
मनस्तु साधुध्वनिभिः पदे पदे
हरन्ति सन्तो मणिनूपुरा इव॥ (कादम्बरीमुखम्)
शब्दार्थः – कटु- कठोरं (कठोर)। क्वणन्तः- रणन्तः (झनझनाते हुए)। मलदायका:- दोषारोपणकर्तारः (दोषारोपण करने वाले)। साधुध्वनिभिः- मधुरशब्दैः (मीठी वाणी से)। मणिनूपुरा:- मणिजटितनूपुराः (मणि जड़ित बिछुए)।
सरलार्थ – कठोर ध्वनि करने वाली, मैल पैदा करने वाली बन्धन की जंजीरों के समान कठोर वचन बोलने वाले, दोषारोपण करने वाले दुर्जन अत्यधिक कष्ट पहुँचाते हैं किन्तु मणि जटित बिछुओं के समान मधुर ध्वनि करने वाले सज्जन मन को हर लेते हैं।

7. तर्कोऽप्रतिष्ठः श्रुतयो विभिन्नाः
नैको मुनिर्यस्य मतं प्रमाणम्।
धर्मस्य तत्त्वं निहितं गुहायाम्
महाजनो येन गतः स पन्थाः॥ (महाभारतम्)
शब्दार्थः – अप्रतिष्ठः- न प्रतिष्ठितः, अनिश्चितः (जो सुनिश्चित नहीं है)। श्रुतयः- शास्त्राणि, वेदाः (वेदों से सम्बन्धित शास्त्र)। प्रमाणम्- सिद्धम् (सबूत)। निहितम्- गूढम् (छिपा हुआ)।
सरलार्थ – तर्क की कोई निश्चित सीमा नहीं है। वेद-शास्त्र विविधताओं से युक्त हैं। कोई ऐसा एक तत्त्ववेत्ता नहीं है जिसका सिद्धान्त प्रमाण के रूप में स्वीकार किया जाए। धर्म का रहस्य गुफा या अन्धकार में छुपा हुआ है। ऐसी स्थिति में महापुरुष जिस मार्ग से गए हैं वही सही मार्ग है।

ख. अनुप्रयोगस्य प्रश्नोत्तराणि

1. अधोलिखितान् शब्दान् उच्चैः पठत, सञ्चिकायां च लिखत। (निम्नलिखित शब्दों को ऊँचे स्वर से पढ़िए तथा कॉपी में लिखिए) –
(क) तर्कोऽप्रतिष्ठः, प्राप्यतेऽभ्यासयुक्त्या, जलधरोऽपि
(ख) अभ्यर्थितः, ह्युद्यमेन, परमबन्धुरथेह

2. ‘अ’ स्तम्भस्य श्लोकांशाः ‘ब’ स्तम्भस्य श्लोकांशैः सह संयोज्यन्ताम् (‘अ’ स्तम्भ के श्लोकांशों का मिलान ‘ब’ स्तम्भ के श्लोकांशों से कीजिए) –


उत्तरः

3. अधोलिखितेषु पदेषु सन्धिं सन्धिच्छेदं वा कृत्वा रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत (निम्नलिखित पदों में सन्धि या सन्धि विच्छेद करके रिक्त स्थान भरिए)
(क) ………………………………. = प्राप्यते + अभ्यासयुक्त्या
(ख) जलधरोऽपि = ……………. + …………………
(ग) ………………………………. = धन्याः + तु
(घ) तर्कोऽप्रतिष्ठः = ……………. + …………………
(ङ) ………………………………. = परमबन्धुः + अथ + इह
(च) नैकोमुनिर्यस्य = ……………. + …………………
(छ) ………………………………. = तुदन्ति + अलम्
(ज) मनस्तु = ……………. + …………………
उत्तरः
(क) प्राप्यतेऽभ्यासयुक्त्या
(ख) जलधरः + अपि
(ग) धन्यास्तु
(घ) तर्क: + अप्रतिष्ठः
(ङ) परमबन्धुरथेह
(च) न + एकः + मुनिः + यस्य
(छ) तुदन्त्यलम्
(ज) मनः + तु।

4. पाठात् विचित्य समस्तपदानि रचयत (पाठ से चुन कर समस्तपद बनाइए) –

उत्तरः
(क) भारतभूमिभागः
(ख) दिनकरः
(ग) साधुध्वनिभिः
(घ) महाजनः
(ङ) कर्तव्यपालनपराम्
(च) बन्धनशृङ्खला
(छ) मणिनूपुराः
(ज) परहितेषु।

5. अधोलिखितानां वाक्यानां कर्तृवाच्ये परिवर्तनं कुर्वन्तु (निम्नलिखित वाक्यों का कर्तृवाच्य में परिवर्तन कीजिए) –

उत्तरः
(क) विद्या समुन्नतिपथं विशदीकरोति।
(ख) दिनकरः पद्माकरं विकचीकरोति।
(ग) चन्द्रः कैरवचक्रवालं विकासयति।
(घ) जलधरः जलं ददाति।
(ङ) मलदायकाः खलाः सज्जनान् तुदन्ति।
(च) सन्तः मनः हरन्ति।

6. (अ) पाठात् उपयुक्तानि पदानि चित्वा अधोलिखिततालिकायां रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयन्तु (पाठ से उपयुक्त पद चुनकर निम्नलिखित तालिका के रिक्त स्थान भरिए) –

उत्तरः
(क) द्रव्यम्
(ख) भुक्ताः
(ग) वयम्
(घ) जीर्णा
(ङ) खलाः
(च) विभिन्नाः
(छ) वेला
(ज) तप्तम्।

6. (ब) विलोमपदानि पाठात् चित्वा लिखत (विलोम पदों को पाठ से चुनकर लिखिए) –

उत्तरः
(क) देवाः
(ख) धर्मः
(ग) स्वर्गम्
(घ) कटु
(ङ) सन्तः
(च) कर्तव्यम्।

7. प्रश्नान् उत्तरत (प्रश्नों के उत्तर दीजिए) –
(क) धर्मस्य तत्त्वं कुत्र निहितम् अस्ति?
(ख) का जीर्णा न भवति?
(ग) सज्जनाः कथं मनः हरन्ति?
(घ) कः स्वयम् एव जलं ददाति?
(ङ) नष्टरोग्यं कैः सुसाध्यं भवति?
(च) विद्या किं करोति?
उत्तरः
(क) धर्मस्य तत्त्वं गुहायां निहितम् अस्ति।
(ख) तृष्णा जीर्णा न भवति।।
(ग) सज्जनाः साधुध्वनिभिः मनः हरन्ति।
(घ) जलधरः स्वयम् एव जलं ददाति।
(ङ) नष्टारोग्यं सूपचारैः सुसाध्यं भवति।
(च) विद्या समुन्नतिपथं विशदीकरोति विचारविषये बुद्धिं प्रखरीकरोति, कर्तव्यपालनपरां धियम् आदधाति।

8. अधोलिखिताः सूक्ती: पठित्वा समभावसूक्तयः पाठात् विचित्य तत्समक्षं लिखत (समान भाव वाली सूक्तियों को निम्नलिखित सूक्तियों के सामने लिखिए) –
(क) दुर्लभं भारते जन्म मानुष्यं तत्र दुर्लभम्।
…………………………………………
(ख) गतः कालः कृते प्रयत्नेऽपि पुनः न आयाति।
…………………………………………
(ग) अयाचितः अपि मेघः जलं ददाति।
…………………………………………
(घ) सः तु भवति दरिद्रः यस्य तृष्णा विशाला।
…………………………………………
(ङ) विद्या बन्धुः विदेशगमने।
…………………………………………
(च) परोपकाराय सतां विभूतयः।
…………………………………………
उत्तरः
(क) गायन्ति देवाः किल गीतकानि धन्यास्तु ते भारतभूमिभागे।
स्वर्गापवर्गास्पदमार्गभूते भवन्ति भूयः पुरुषाः सुरत्वात्।।
(ख) नष्टा वेला या गता सा गतैव।
(ग) नाऽभ्यर्थितो जलधरोऽपि जलं ददाति।
(घ) तृष्णा न जीर्णा वयमेव जीर्णाः।
(ङ) विद्या सखा परमबन्धुरथेह लोके।
(च) सन्तः स्वयं परहितेषु कृताभियोगाः।

9. अन्वयं पूरयत (अन्वय पूरा कीजिए) –
(क) देवाः किल ……………….. गायन्ति। ते पुरुषाः तु ……………….. (ये) स्वर्गापवर्गास्पदमार्गभूते ……………….. सुरत्वात् भूयः भवन्ति।
उत्तरः
(क) गीतकानि, धन्याः, भारतभूमिभागे।

(ख) तर्कः …………. श्रुतयः विभिन्नाः, एकः मुनिः न यस्य ………….. प्रमाणम्। धर्मस्य तत्त्वं गुहायां …………………, येन महाजनः गतः स पन्थाः ।
उत्तरः
(ख) अप्रतिष्ठः, मतं, निहितं।

(ग) विद्या समुन्नतिपथं …………. करोति विचारविषये …. … प्रखरीकरोति, कर्तव्यपालनपरां धियम् …………….. आदधाति, इह लोके ……………. सखा अथ परमबन्धुः।
उत्तरः
(ग) विशदी, बुद्धि, विद्या।

10. पाठगतश्लोकानां भावस्पष्टीकरणम् उचितपदैः कुर्वन्तु (पाठगत श्लोकों के भाव का स्पष्टीकरण उचित पदों से कीजिए) –
(क) संसारे ……………….. अपि सन्ति दुर्जनाः अपि। तयोः व्यवहारे महान् भेदः। ……………. कटु भाषन्ते कुव्यवहारं च कुर्वन्ति। ते ………………….. इव मानवं पीडयन्ति किन्तु सज्जनाः मणिनूपुराः इव भवन्ति। ते ………………….वदन्ति प्रियं च कुर्वन्ति।
उत्तरः
(क) सज्जनाः, दुर्जनाः, बन्धन शृङ्खलाः, मधुरध्वनि।

(ख) ……………… इयं प्रकृतिः भवति यत् ते स्वयम् एव परेषां हितम् आचरन्ति। सूर्यः स्वयमेव …………. विकासयति। ………………. स्वकिरणैः कुमुदानां विकासं करोति। मेघाः स्वयमेव …………… कृत्वा
लोकस्य उपकारं कुर्वन्ति।
उत्तरः
(ख) सज्जनानाम्, कमलं, सूर्यः, वर्षां।

(ग) जीवनकालः स्वल्पः किन्तु ……………… अनन्ताः। ते अस्मिन् स्वल्पकाले भोक्तुं न शक्यन्ते। तपः अपि …………… न शक्यते। आयुषः अन्तः भवति न तु कालस्य। वयं …………… भवामः किन्तु तृष्णा सदा तरुणी तिष्ठति। एतद् …………….. मानवजीवनस्य सत्यम्।
उत्तरः
(ग) भोगाः, तप्तुं, वृद्धाः, एव।

ग. पाठ-विकासः
(क)

(ख) समानान्तरसूक्तयः (चाणक्यनीति: 5/15)
1. विद्या मित्रं प्रवासेषु।
भावार्थः- प्रवास के दौरान विद्या तभारी में मित्र होती है।

2. लोभेन बुद्धि-चलति, लोभो जनयते तृषाम्।
तृषार्तो दुःखमाप्नोति, परत्रेह न मानवः।। (हितोपदेशः मित्रलाभः/140)
भावार्थ:- लोभ से बुद्धि चंचल हो जाती है। लोभ तृष्णा को जन्म देता है। तृष्णा से पीड़ित जन परलोक तथा इस लोक में दुःख प्राप्त करता है।

3. स तु भवति दरिद्रो यस्य तृष्णा विशाला।
मनसि च परितुष्टे कोऽर्थवान् को दरिद्रः॥ (वैराग्यशतकम्/45)
भावार्थ:- वही निर्धन है जिसकी तृष्णा विशाल है। मन के सन्तुष्ट होने पर कौन धनी है, कौन दरिद्र है।

4. व्यर्थः कालातिपातो न, कर्तव्यश्चतुरैनरैः।
गतः कालः प्रयत्नेऽपि, पुन याति कर्हिचित्।।
भावार्थ:- चतुर लोगों को समय व्यर्थ नहीं बिताना चाहिए। बीता हुआ समय प्रयत्न करने पर फिर से कभी नहीं लौटता।

‘च्चि’ प्रत्ययः –
‘च्चि’ प्रत्ययः अभूततद्भावार्थकः। यद् वस्तु पूर्व यस्मिन् रूपे न आसीत्, किन्तु सम्प्रति तत् परिवर्तितं रूपं धारयति, एतस्य बोधनाय ‘च्चि’ प्रत्ययः प्रयुज्यते।
एषः प्रत्ययः ‘कृ-भू-अस्’ धातूनाम् एव योगे भवति। प्रक्रियायां प्रत्ययः लुप्तः भवति। पूर्वपदस्य अन्तिमः अकारः आकार: वा ईकाररूपं धारयति। पूर्वपदस्य अन्ते यदि स्वराः भवन्ति ते दीर्घाः जायन्ते।
‘च्वि’ प्रत्यय ‘न हुए के होने के’ अर्थ को देता है। जो वस्तु पहले जिस रूप में नहीं थी पर अब बदले रूप को धारण करती है उसे बताने के लिए ‘च्चि’ प्रत्यय प्रयुक्त होता है। इसमें कृ, भू व अस् धातुओं का योग होता है। प्रक्रिया में प्रत्यय का लोप हो जाता है। पूर्वपद में अन्तिम अकार/आकार के स्थान पर ईकार हो जाता है। पूर्वपद के अन्त में यदि स्वर हैं तो दीर्घ हो जाते हैं।

उदाहरणानि –
अकृष्णः कृष्णः क्रियते = कृष्णीक्रियते
(कृष्ण + च्चि + क्रियते = कृष्ण + ई + क्रियते)
अविशदं विशदं करोति = विशदीकरोति
अप्रखरं प्रखरं करोति = प्रखरीकरोति
अविकचं विकचं करोति = विकचीकरोति

घ. पठितांश-अवबोधनम्
1. निम्नलिखित श्लोकं पठित्वा तदाधारितान् प्रश्नान् उत्तरत –
(क) गायन्ति देवाः किल गीतकानि
धन्यास्तु ते भारतभूमिभागे।
स्वर्गापवर्गास्पदमार्गभूते
भवन्ति भूयः पुरुषाः सुरत्वात्॥ (विष्णुपुराणम्)

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) के गीतकानि गायन्ति?
(ii) के धन्याः सन्ति?
(iii) भारतभूमि भागं कीदृशं वर्तते?
(iv) कथं पुरुषाः भूयः भवन्ति?
उत्तरः
(i) देवाः
(ii) ते (पुरुषाः)
(iii) स्वर्गापवर्गास्पदमार्गभूतम्
(iv) सुरत्वात्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
भारतभूमिभागः कीदृशः वर्तते?
उत्तरः
भारतभूमिभागः स्वर्गापवर्गास्पदमार्गभूतः वर्तते।

III. निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत –
(i) श्लोके ‘देवाः’ इत्यस्य कर्तृपदस्य क्रियापदं किम्?
(क) भवन्ति
(ख) गायन्ति
(ग) धन्याः
(घ) गीतकानि
उत्तरः
(ख) गायन्ति

(ii) ‘भारत भूमिभागे’ इत्यस्य पदस्य किं विशेषणं श्लोके प्रदत्तम्?
(क) स्वर्गात्
(ख) स्वर्णापवर्गास्पद
(ग) स्वर्गापवर्गास्पदमार्गभूते
(घ) मार्गभूते
उत्तरः
(ग) स्वर्गापवर्गास्पदमार्गभूते

(iii) श्लोके ‘नूनम्’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः आगतः?
(क) ते
(ख) धन्याः
(ग) धन्यास्तु
(घ) किल
उत्तरः
(घ) किल

(iv) ‘असुराः’ पदस्य कः विपर्ययः श्लोके लिखितः?
(क) देवाः
(ख) धन्याः ।
(ग) पुरुषाः
(घ) धन्यास्तु
उत्तरः
(क) देवाः

(ख) विद्या समुन्नतिपथं विशदीकरोति
बुद्धिं विचारविषये प्रखरीकरोति।
कर्तव्यपालनपरां धियमादधाति
विद्या सखा परमबन्धुरथेह लोके॥ (वैद्यकीयसुभाषितम्)

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) विद्या किं विशदीकरोति?
(ii) का मनुष्यस्य लोके सखा अस्ति?
(iii) अथ इह लोके मनुष्यस्य कः विद्यास्ति?
(iv) विद्या का विचारविषये प्रखरीकरोति?
उत्तरः
(i) समुन्नतिपथम्
(ii) विद्या
(iii) परमबन्धुः
(iv) बुद्धिम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
विद्या काम् आदधाति?
उत्तरः
विद्या कर्तव्यपालनपरां धियम् आदधाति।

III. निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत –
(i) श्लोके ‘अस्मिन् संसारे’ इति पदस्य अर्थे किं पदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) लोके
(ख) अथेह
(ग) इह
(घ) इहलोके
उत्तरः
(घ) इहलोके

(ii) ‘विशदीकरोति’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तपदं किम्?
(क) विद्या
(ख) समुन्नतिः
(ग) पथं
(घ) समुन्नतिपथम्
उत्तरः
(क) विद्या

(iii) ‘अवनति पथम्’ इति पदस्य कः विपर्ययः श्लोके आगतः?
(क) कर्तव्यम्
(ख) कर्तव्य पालन पराम्
(ग) धियम्
(घ) समुन्नतिपथम्
उत्तरः
(घ) समुन्नतिपथम्

(iv) अत्र श्लोके ‘धियम्’ पदस्य कः पर्यायः प्रयुक्तः?
(क) समुन्नतिपथम्
(ख) बुद्धिम्
(ग) कर्तव्य पालमनपराम्
(घ) परमबन्धुः
उत्तरः
(ख) बुद्धिम्

(ग) नष्टं द्रव्यं प्राप्यते ह्युद्यमेन
नष्टा विद्या प्राप्यतेऽभ्यासयुक्त्या।
नष्टारोग्यं सूपचारैः सुसाध्यं
नष्टा वेला या गता सा गतैव। (वैद्यकीयसुभाषितम्)

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) का नष्टा पुनः न आगच्छति?
(ii) नष्टं द्रव्यं केन प्राप्यते?
(ii) किं पुनः सुसाध्यं वर्तते?
(iv) सूपचारैः आरोग्यं नष्टमपि कीदृशं वर्तते?
उत्तरः
(i) वेला
(ii) उद्यमेन
(iii) आरोग्यम्
(iv) सुसाध्यम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत
नष्टा विद्या कथं पुनः प्राप्यते?
उत्तरः
नष्टा विद्या अभ्यासयुक्त्या पुनः प्राप्यते।

III. निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत –
(i) श्लोके ‘नष्टं द्रव्यम्’ इति कर्तृपदस्य क्रिया पदं किम्?
(क) उद्यमेन
(ख) युद्यमेन
(ग) प्राप्यते
(घ) गता
उत्तरः
(ग) प्राप्यते

(ii) ‘गता सा गतैव’। अत्र ‘सा’ पदं कस्यै प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) घनाय
(ख) वेलायै
(ग) द्रव्याय
(घ) आरोग्याय
उत्तरः
(ख) वेलायै

(iii) श्लोके ‘स्वास्थ्यम्’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः आगतः?
(क) आरोग्यम्
(ख) सुसाध्यम्
(ग) द्रव्यम्
(घ) युक्त्या
उत्तरः
(क) आरोग्यम्

(iv) ‘नष्टं द्रव्यम्’ इत्यनयोः पदयोः विशेषण पदं किमस्ति?
(क) द्रव्यम्
(ख) द्रव्य
(ग) नष्टम्
(घ) नष्ट
उत्तरः
(ग) नष्टम्

(घ) पद्मकरं दिनकरो विकचीकरोति
चन्द्रो विकासयति कैरवचक्रवालम्।
नाभ्यर्थितो जलधरोऽपि जलं ददाति
सन्तः स्वयं परहितेषु कृताभियोगाः॥

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) पद्मकरं कः विकचीकरोति?
(ii) चन्द्रः कम् विकासयति?
(iii) कीदृशः जलधरः जलं ददाति?
(iv) बादलः किं ददाति?
उत्तरः
(i) दिनकरः
(ii) कैरवचक्रवालम्
(iii) नाभ्यर्थितः
(iv) जलम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
सन्तः स्वयं किं कुर्वन्ति?
उत्तरः
सन्तः स्वयं परहितेषु कृतभियोगाः भवन्ति।

III. निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत –
(i) श्लोके ‘सूर्यः’ पदस्य कः पर्यायः आगतः?
(क) पद्मकरम्
(ख) चन्द्रः
(ग) दिनकरः
(घ) जलधरः
उत्तरः
(ग) दिनकरः

(ii) ‘विकासयति’ इति क्रियायाः श्लोके कर्तृपदं किम् वर्तते?
(क) चन्द्रः
(ख) सूर्यः
(ग) दिनकरः
(घ) विधुः
उत्तरः
(क) चन्द्रः

(iii) अत्र श्लोके ‘नाभ्यर्थितः’ इति विशेषणस्य विशेष्यपदं किम्?
(क) सन्तः
(ख) चनुः
(ग) दिनकरः
(घ) जलधरः
उत्तरः
(घ) जलधरः

(iv) ‘दुष्टाः’ इत्यस्य पदस्य क: विपर्ययः अत्र श्लोके प्रदत्तः?
(क) सन्तः
(ख) कृताभियोगाः
(ग) जलधरः
(घ) चन्द्रः
उत्तरः
(क) सन्तः

(ङ) भोगा न भुक्ताः वयमेव भुक्ताः
तपो न तप्तं वयमेव तप्ताः।
कालो न यातो वयमेव याताः
तृष्णा न जीर्णा वयमेव जीर्णाः॥ (वैराग्यशतकम्)

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) के अस्मान् भुञ्जन्ति?
(ii) तपरहिताः वयं कीदृशाः भूतवन्तः?
(iii) अस्माभिः के न भुज्यन्ते?
(iv) कालेन वयं कीदृशाः अभवाम?
उत्तरः
(i) भोगाः
(ii) तप्ताः
(iii) भोगाः
(iv) याताः

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
तृष्णया वयं कीदृशाः भूताः?
उत्तरः
तृष्णया वयं जीर्णाः भूताः।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत –
(i) ‘भोगाः भुक्ताः’ इत्यनयोः पदयोः विशेषणं किम्?
(क) भुक्तः
(ख) भोगः
(ग) भोगा:
(घ) भुक्ताः
उत्तरः
(घ) भुक्ताः

(ii) ‘तप्ताः’ इति क्रियायाः श्लोके कर्तृपदं किम्? ।
(क) तपः
(ख) वयमेव
(ग) वयम्
(घ) तप्तम्
उत्तरः
(ग) वयम्

(iii) ‘सन्तोषः’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः विपर्ययः अत्र लिखितः?
(क) तृष्णा
(ख) जीर्णा
(ग) तप्ताः
(घ) भुक्ताः
उत्तरः
(क) तृष्णा

(iv) ‘नष्टः’ इत्यस्य पदस्य अर्थे श्लोके किं पदं प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) कालः
(ख) यातः (यातो)
(ग) याताः
(घ) जीर्णा
उत्तरः
(ख) यातः (यातो)

(च) कटु क्वणन्तो मलदायकाः खला: तुदन्त्यलं बन्धनश्रृखला इव।
मनस्तु साधुध्वनिभिः पदे पदे हरन्ति सन्तो मणिनूपुरा इव॥

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) मलदायकाः के सन्ति?
(ii) खला: के इव तुदन्ति?
(iii) मनः के हरन्ति?
(iv) मणिनुपूराः इव के सन्ति?
उत्तरः
(i) खलाः
(ii) बन्धनशृङ्खलाः
(iii) सन्तः
(iv) सन्तः

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
सज्जनाः किं कुर्वन्ति?
उत्तरः
सज्जनाः साधुध्वनिभिः मणिनूपुराः इव पदे पदे मनः हरन्ति।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत –
(i) ‘सन्तः’ इति कर्तृपदस्य क्रियापदं किम्?
(क) चलन्ति
(ख) गायन्ति
(ग) हरन्ति
(घ) भवन्ति
उत्तरः
(ग) हरन्ति

(ii) ‘सन्तः’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः विपर्ययः अत्र आगतः?
(क) खलाः
(ख) मलाः
(ग) श्रृंखलाः
(घ) बन्धनं
उत्तरः
(क) खलाः

(iii) ‘खलाः’ इति पदस्य विशेषणम् किम्?
(क) बन्धन शृंखला
(ख) मलदायकाः
(ग) दायकाः
(घ) मणिनूपुराः
उत्तरः
(ख) मलदायकाः

(iv) ‘सज्जनाः’ इति पदस्य कः पर्यायः अत्र प्रयुक्तः?
(क) खलाः
(ख) मलदायकाः
(ग) श्रृङ्खलाः
(घ) सन्तः
उत्तरः
(घ) सन्तः

(छ) तर्कोऽप्रतिष्ठः श्रुतयो विभिन्नाः नैको मुनिर्यस्य मतं प्रमाणम्।
धर्मस्य तत्त्वं निहितं गुहायाम् महाजनो येन गतः स पन्थाः॥

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) विभिन्नाः काः सन्ति?
(ii) एकस्यापि मुनेः मतम् कीदृशं नास्ति?
(iii) धर्मस्य तत्त्वं कुत्र निहितम्?
(iv) येन महाजनः गच्छति असौ कोऽस्ति?
उत्तरः
(i) श्रुतयः
(i) प्रमाणम्
(iii) गुहायाम्
(iv) पन्थाः

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
पन्थाः तर्केण, श्रुतिभिः, मुनीनां मतैर्वा केन निर्धारितो भवति।
उत्तरः
पन्थाः तर्केण, श्रुतिभिः, मुनीनां मतैर्वा न केनापि निर्धारितो भवति।

III. निर्देशानुसारम् उत्तरत –
(i) तर्कस्य विशेषणपदम् श्लोके किं लिखितम्?
(क) प्रतिष्ठः
(ख) अप्रतिष्ठः
(ग) विभिन्नाः
(घ) भिन्नाः
उत्तरः
(ख) अप्रतिष्ठः

(ii) ‘समाः’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः विपर्ययः लिखितः?
(क) विभिन्नाः
(ख) भिन्नाः
(ग) ग्रन्थाः
(घ) अप्रतिष्ठाः
उत्तरः
(क) विभिन्नाः

(iii) ‘येन’ सर्वनामपदं श्लोके कस्मै प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) पथे
(ख) महाजनाय
(ग) घर्माय
(घ) तत्त्वाय
उत्तरः
(क) पथे

(iv) श्लोके ‘गतः’ क्रियायाः कर्तृपदं किं लिखितम्?
(क) सः
(ख) महाजनः
(ग) पन्थाः
(घ) येन
उत्तरः
(घ) येन।

2. निम्न पद्यांशानां सन्दर्भग्रन्थस्य लेखकस्य च नामनी लिख्येताम्
(i) गायन्ति देवाः किल गीतकानि, धन्यास्तु ते भारतभूमिभागे।
(ii) विद्या सखा परमबन्धुरथेह लोके।
(iii) नष्टावेला या गता सा गतैव।
(iv) सन्तः स्वयं परहितेषु कृताभियोगाः।
(v) भोगा न भुक्ताः वयमेव भुक्ताः।
(vi) कटु क्वणन्तो मलदायकाः खलाः, तुदन्त्यलं बन्धन शृखला इव।
(vii) महाजनो येन गतः स पन्थाः ।
उत्तरः

3. मञ्जूषायाः सहायतया निम्न श्लोकानां भावार्थ रिक्तस्थान पूर्ति माध्यमेन लिखत –
(क) गायन्ति देवाः किल गीतकानि
धन्यास्तु ते भारतभूमिभागे।
स्वर्गापवर्गास्पदमार्गभूते
भवन्ति भूयः पुरुषाः सुरत्वात्॥ (विष्णुपुराणम्)
अस्य भावोऽस्ति यत- देवाः इमां निश्चितरूपेण (i) …………………. कुर्वन्ति यत् ते पुरुषाः (ii) …………………. सन्ति के स्वर्ग मुक्ति प्राप्तिः साधन रूपस्य (iii) …………………. कस्मिंश्चिदापि भागे (iv) …………………. पुनः मानवरूपे जायन्ते।
मञ्जूषा – सुरत्वात्, स्तुतिं. भारतभूमेः, धन्याः
उत्तरः
(i) स्तुति
(ii) धन्याः
(iii) भारतभूमेः
(iv) सुरत्वात्

(ख) विद्या समुन्नतिपथं विशदीकरोति
बुद्धिं विचारविषये प्रखरीकरोति।
कर्तव्यपालनपरां धियमादधाति
विद्या सखा परमबन्धुरथेह लोके॥ (वैद्यकीयसुभाषितम्)
भावार्थ:- विद्या जनेभ्यः (i) …………………. मार्ग स्पष्टं करोति, तेषां बुद्धि (ii) …………………. तीव्रां करोति तथा कर्तव्यपालने बुद्धि (iii) …………………. करोति अत: अस्मिन् लोके विद्या जनानां (iv) …………………. सखा च वर्तते।
मञ्जूषा – विचार विषये, तत्परां, उन्नतेः, परमबन्धुः।
उत्तरः
(i) उन्नतेः
(ii) विचार विषये
(iii) तत्परां
(iv) परमबन्धुः

(ग) नष्टं द्रव्यं प्राप्यते ह्युद्यमेन
नष्टा विद्या प्राप्यतेऽभ्यासयुक्त्या।
नष्टारोग्यं सूपचारैः सुसाध्यं
नष्टा वेला या गता सा गतैव॥ (वैद्यकीयसुभाषितम्)
अस्य आशयोऽस्ति यत्- नष्टं (i) …………………. परिश्रमेण प्राप्यते। नष्टा विद्या (ii) …………………. युक्त्या च प्राप्यते, नष्ट स्वास्थ्यम् उत्तमाभिः (iii) …………………. पुनः प्राप्तुं शक्यते। किन्तु नष्टः (iv) …………………. कदापि पुनः प्राप्तुं न शक्यते।
मञ्जूषा – चिकित्साभिः, समयः, धनम्, अभ्यासेन
उत्तरः
(i) धनम्
(ii) अभ्यासेन
(iii) चिकित्साभिः
(iv) समयः

(घ) पद्मकरं दिनकरो विकचीकरोति
चन्द्रो विकासयति कैरवचक्रवालम्।
नाभ्यर्थितो जलधरोऽपि जलं दाति
सन्तः स्वयं परहितेषु कृताभियोगाः॥ (नीतिशतकम्)
अस्य आशयो वर्तते- उदितः सूर्यः (i) …………………. विकासयति, चन्द्रमाः स्वकिरणैः (ii) …………………. स्वयं विकसितं करोति। अयाचितः अपि (iii) …….. जलं यच्छति (वर्षति)। एवमेव सज्जनाः स्वयमेव अन्येषां (iv) ……… प्रयासरताः भवन्ति।
मञ्जूषा – बद्दलः, कमलं, कल्याणाय, कुमुददलं
उत्तरः
(i) कमलं
(ii) कुमुददलं
(iii) बद्दलः
(iv) कल्याणाय

(ङ) भोगा न भुक्ताः वयमेव भुक्ताः
तपो न तप्तं वयमेव तप्ताः।
कालो न यातो वयमेव याताः
तृष्णा न जीर्णा वयमेव जीर्णाः।। (वैराग्यशतकम्)
अस्य श्लोकस्य भावोऽस्ति- कविः कथयति यत् भोगाः (i) …………………. न प्राप्ताः वयमेव (भोक्तारः एव) (ii) …………………. वयं (iii) …………………. न तप्ताः वयमेव तपांसि तपन्तः पीड़िताः अभवाम। अस्माकं समयः न समाप्तः वयमेव समाप्ताः अभवाम, भोगान् भोक्तुम् इच्छा न जरां प्राप्ता वयमेव (iv) …………………. अभवाम।
मञ्जूषा – जीर्णाः, तपः, समाप्ति, समाप्ताः
उत्तरः
(i) समाप्ति
(ii) समाप्ताः
(iii) तपः
(iv) जीर्णाः

(च) कटु क्वणन्तो मलदायकाः खलाः
तुदन्त्यलं बन्धनशृखला इव।
मनस्तु साधुध्वनिभिः पदे पदे
हरन्ति सन्तो मणिनूपुरा इव।। (कादम्बरीमुखम्)
अस्य भावार्थोऽयं वर्तते यत्- अस्मिन् संसारे कटुवचनानां वक्तारः अन्येषु (i) …………………. दुर्जनाः कठोरां ध्वनि कुर्वन्तः (ii) …………………. इव जनान् अतीव पीडयन्ति परन्तु (iii) …………………. मणि जटिताः नूपुराः इव स्व मधुर-ध्वनिभिः पदे-पदे जनानाम् (iv) ………………… स्वं प्रति आकर्षयन्ति।
मञ्जूषा – मनांसि, दोषारोपणकर्तारः, सज्जनाः, बन्धनशृङ्खलाः
उत्तरः
(i) दोषारोपणकर्तारः
(ii) बन्धनशृङ्खला
(ii) सज्जनाः
(iv) मनांसि

(छ) तर्कोऽप्रतिष्ठः श्रुतयो विभिन्नाः
नैको मुनिर्यस्य मतं प्रमाणम्।
धर्मस्य तत्त्वं निहितं गुहायाम्
महाजनो येन गतः स पन्थाः॥ (महाभारतम्)
अस्य भावार्थोऽयं वर्तते यत्- अस्मिन् कलियुगे सम्प्रति तर्कः (i) …………………. अभवत्। वेदादीनि शास्त्राणि अपि विविधानि सन्ति। अद्य एतादृशः एकः अपि मुनिः (तत्त्ववेत्ता) नास्ति यस्य विचारः (ii) …………………. स्यात्, अद्य। (iii) …………………. रहस्यम् अनिश्चिततायाः अन्धकारे अदृश्यं वर्तते अतः अधुना (iv) …………………. येन मार्गेण गच्छन्ति अगच्छन् वा सः एव मार्गः स्वीकरणीयः वर्तते।
मञ्जूषा – प्रामाणिकः, महापुरुषाः, धर्मस्य, अनिश्चितः
उत्तरः
(i) अनिश्चितः
(ii) प्रामाणिकः
(iii) धर्मस्य
(iv) महापुरुषाः

4. निम्न श्लोकं पठित्वा तस्य अन्वय पूर्ति समुचितैः पदैः करोतु भवान्( –
क) गायन्ति देवाः किल गीतकानि
धन्यास्तु ते भारतभूमिभागे।
स्वर्गापवर्गास्पदमार्गभूते
भवन्ति भूयः पुरुषाः सुरत्वात्॥ (विष्णुपुराणम्)
अन्वयः – देवाः किल (i) ………………. गायन्ति, ते (पुरुषाः तु) धन्याः (सन्ति) (ये) (ii) ………………. मार्गभूते भारतभूमिभागे (iii) ………………. भूयः (iv) ………………. भवन्ति।
उत्तरः
(i) गीतकानि
(ii) स्वर्गापवर्गास्पद
(iii) सुरत्वात्
(iv) पुरुषाः ।

(ख) विद्या समुन्नतिपथं विशदीकरोति
बुद्धिं विचारविषये प्रखरीकरोति।
कर्तव्यपालनपरां धियमादधाति
विद्या सखा परमबन्धुरथेह लोके॥ (वैद्यकीयसुभाषितम्)
अन्वयः – विद्या (i) ………………. विशदी करोति, विचारविषये (ii) ………………. प्रखरी करोति, (iii) ………………. धियम् आदधाति। इह लोके विद्या (iv) ……… अथ परम बन्धुः (अस्ति )।
उत्तरः
(i) समुन्नतिपथम्
(ii) बुद्धिम्
(iii) कर्तव्यपालनपराम्
(iv) सखा।

(ग) नष्टं द्रव्यं प्राप्यते ह्युद्यमेन
नष्टा विद्या प्राप्यतेऽभ्यासयुक्त्या। नष्टारोग्यं सूपचारैः सुसाध्यं नष्टा वेला या गता सा गतैव॥
(वैद्यकीयसुभाषितम्)
अन्वयः – नष्टं (i) ………………. हि उद्यमेन प्राप्यते, (ii) ………………. विद्या अभ्यास युक्त्या प्राप्यते। नष्टम् आरोग्यम्, (iii) ………………. सुसाध्यम् (वर्तते), या नष्टा (iv) ……………… . . गता, सा गता एव (भवति)।
उत्तरः
(i) द्रव्यम्
(ii) नष्टा
(iii) सूपचारैः
(iv) वेला।

(घ) पद्मकरं दिनकरो विकचीकरोति
चन्द्रो विकासयति कैरवचक्रवालम्।
नाभ्यर्थितो जलधरोऽपि जलं ददाति
सन्तः स्वयं परहितेषु कृताभियोगाः।। (नीतिशतकम्)
अन्वयः – दिनकरः (i) ……… (अनभ्यर्थितोऽपि) विकचीकरोति, (ii) ……… कैरवचक्रवालम् विकासयति। जलधरः नाभ्यर्थितः अपि (iii) ………………. ददाति, सन्तः स्वयम् (iv) ………………. कृताभियोगाः (भवन्ति)।
उत्तरः
(i) पद्मकरं
(ii) चन्द्रः
(iii) जलम्
(iv) परहितेषु।

(ङ) भोगा न भुक्ताः वयमेव भुक्ताः
तपो न तप्तं वयमेव तप्ताः ।
कालो न यातो वयमेव याताः
तृष्णा न जीर्णा वयमेव जीर्णाः। (वैराग्यशतकम्)
अन्वयः – भोगाः न (i) ………………. वयम् एव भुक्ताः (ii) ………………. न तप्तम् वयम् एव तप्ताः । कालः न यातः वयम् एव (iii) ………………. , तृष्णा न (iv) ………………. वयम् एव जीर्णाः
उत्तरः।
(i) भुक्ताः
(ii) तपः
(iii) याताः
(iv) जीर्णा।

(च) कटु क्वणन्तो मलदायकाः खलाः
तुदन्त्यलं बन्धनश्रृजला इव।
मनस्तु साधुध्वनिभिः पदे पदे
हरन्ति सन्तो मणिनूपुरा इव॥ (कादम्बरीमुखम्)
अन्वयः – कटु (i) ………………. मलदायकाः खलाः (ii) ………………. इव अलम् तुदन्ति। सन्तः (iii) ………………. इव साधुध्वनिभिः पदे-पदे (iv) ………………. हरन्ति।
उत्तरः
(i) क्वणन्तः
(ii) बन्धनशृङ्खला:
(iii) मणिनूपुराः
(iv) मनः।

(छ) तर्कोऽप्रतिष्ठः श्रुतयो विभिन्नाः
नैको मुनिर्यस्य मतं प्रमाणम्।
धर्मस्य तत्त्वं निहितं गुहायाम्
महाजनो येन गतः स पन्थाः॥ (महाभारतम्)
अन्वयः – तर्क: अप्रतिष्ठ: (i) ………………. विभिन्नाः , एकः मुनिः न यस्य (ii) ………………. ्रमाणम् (भवेत्)। धर्मस्य (iii) ………………. गुहायाम् निहितम् (iv) ………………. येन गतः सः (एव) पन्थाः (अस्ति)।
उत्तरः
(i) श्रुतयः
(ii) मतम्
(iii) तत्त्वम्
(iv) महाजनः।

(क) वर्गीय-पदानाम् उचितम् अर्थ ‘ख’ वर्गीय-पदेषु चित्त्वा मेलनं कुरुत –


उत्तरः

1. (x) निश्चितरूपेण
2. (v) मोक्षः
3. (xxiii) मार्गम्
4. (xvii) तीव्रां करोति
5. (xvi) बुद्धिम्
6. (viii) संसारे
7. (xxii) मित्रम्
8. (xiv) धनम्
9. (xxi) स्वास्थ्यम्
10. (.xviii) उत्तमचिकित्साभिः
11. (ix) समयः
12. (xix) कमलम्
13. (v) सूर्यः
14. (iv) कुमुदः
15. (vii) याचितः
16. (i) वस्तूनि
17. (vi) गतः
18. (xi) वृद्धा
19. (xiii) रणन्तः (वदन्तः )
20. (i) कष्टं यच्छन्ति (पीडयन्ति)
21. (iii) वेदाः
22. (xii) गूढम्
23. (xx) श्रेष्ठः जनः

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2012 Outside Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 100

General Instructions:

• All question in both sections are compulsory.
• Marks for questions are indicated against each questions.
• Question Nos. 1-4 and 13-16 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 marks each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
• Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18 are short- answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
• Question No. 7-9 and 19-21 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
• Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24 are long- answer questions carrying 6 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
• Answer should be brief and to the point and the above words limits should be adhered to as far as possible.

** Answer is not given due to change in the present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2012 Outside Delhi Set – I

Section – A

Question 1.
Define microeconomics. [1]
Answer:
Micro Economics is the branch of Economics, in which we study the behaviour of individual. Economic units like a firm, a consumer, an industry etc.

Question 2.
Give one reason for a shift in demand curve. [1]
Answer:
A demand curve shifts when there is a change in a factors other than own price of the product.

Question 3.
What is the behaviour of Total Variable Cost, as output increases? [1]
Answer:
When output increases total variable cost also increases initilly at a decreasing rate. After a point it increases at increasing rate.

Question 4.
What is the behaviour of Marginal Revenue in a market in which a firm can sell any quantity of the output it produces at a given price? [1]
Answer:
In the given situation marginal revenue in the market will always remain the same. This situation known as perfect competition.

Question 5.
What is a price-maker firm? [1]
Answer:
A price maker firm is one which participates in fixing the price of the product.

Question 6.
Define Production Possibilitiy Curve. Explain why it is downward sloping from left to right. [3]
Answer:
A production possibility curve is a hypothetical representation which represents the amount of two different goods that can be produced with the full use of given resources in an economy under technological conditions.
PP curve slopes downward from left to right because of the fact that in a combination if we produce more of one good with limited resources, the less we produce of the another good.

Question 7.
A consumer consumes only two goods X and Y and is in equilibrium Price of X falls. Explain the reaction of the consumer through the Utility Analysis. [3]
Answer:
The basic condition fulfilling the condition of consumer’s equilibrium when two commodities according to utility analysis is :

If the price of X falls, per rupee marginal utility of X will increase and becomes more than that of Y. The consumer will transfer expenditure from Y to X, and will buy more of X.

Question 8.
Draw Total Variable Cost, Total Cost, and Total Fixed Cost curves in a single diagram. [3]
Answer:

In the short period the total cost is the sum of total variable cost (TVC) and total fixed cost (TFC). Total variable cost initially increases with the increase in output at a decreasing rate and after that it increases at an increasing rate. Therefore total cost initially increases at a decreasing rate and after that increases at an increasing rate.

Question 9.
A producer starts a business by investing his own savings and hiring the labour. Identify implicit and explicit costs from this information. Explain. [3]
Answer:
Implicit cost: The producer is using his own savings in his business which elsewhere would have earned interest. Therefore the value of the interest on the savings invested is implicit cost.
Explicit cost: When producer is hiring labour for his business than the cost of hiring the labour involves expenditure given by the producer. Therefore the wages paid to the labour will be explicit cost.

Question 10.
Explain the implications of large number of buyers in a perfectly competitive market. [3]
OR
Explain why there are only a few firms in an oligopoly market.
Answer:
The implication of large number of buyers in a perfectly competitive market is that no individual buyer can affect the market demand for a commodity. In a perfect competition market, the number of buyers is so large and each individual buyer purchases only a small portion of the total output. As a result, no single buyer can influence the prevailing market price. He can only decide the quantities of the commodity to purchase and cannot influence the existing price.
OR
Under oligopoly there are only a few large firms, each produces a significant portion of the market output. There are some barriers, such as patents, large capital requirement, control over raw material, etc. which prevent new firms from entering into industry. Small firms, in general, do not survive because of the threat of competition, though they are independent to exist.

Question 11.
Define an indifference map. Why does an indifference curve show more utility towards right? Explain. [4]
Answer:
Indifference map is a family of collection of indifference curves that depicts the different levels of satisfaction and preferences of a consumer. Each indifference curve in an indifference map depicts a particular level of satisfaction.
Higher IC denotes higher level of satisfaction and lower IC denotes lower level of satisfaction.

The above figure depicts an Indifference Map comprising of six indifference curves (from IC₁ to IC₆). AS the consumer moves farther away from IC₁ to higher indifference curves the level of satisfaction derived by the consumer increases. IC₆ depicts the highest level of satisfaction. On the other hand, IC₁ depicts the lowest level of satisfaction.

An indifference curve is downward sloping from left to right. It implies that a consumer cannot simultaneously have more of both the goods. An increase in the quantity of one good is associated with the decrease in the quantity of the other good. This is in accordance with the assumption of monotonic preferences.

Question 12.
A consumer buys 10 units of a commodity at a price of ₹ 10 per unit. He incurs an expenditure of ₹ 200 on buying 20 units. Calculate price elasticity of demand by the percentage method. Comment upon the shape of demand curve based on this information. [4]
Answer:

Since the price remains the same the shape of demand curve will be perfectly elastic. Demand Curve will be parallel to x-axis.

Question 13.
What does the Law of Variable Proportions show? State the behaviour of marginal product according to this law. [4]
OR
Explain how changes in price of inputs influence the supply of a product.
Answer:
The law of variable proportions shows how the product will be affected if one factor is variable and other is fixed. The law explains if the units of a variable factor are increased the total product will also increase. This law can be divided into three stages. The behaviour of MP curve will be as shown in the diagram.

(i) In the first stage, the firm starts from the point of origin to the point where MP curve is maximum. According to diagram this stage is from point of origin to point B. In this stage MP curve rises and reaches the maximum.
(ii) In the second stage, MP curve ranges from point B (where it is maximum) to point C (where it is zero) i.e., MP decreases but is positive.
(iii) The third stage goes from point C and goes below X-axis. In this phase, MP decreases and gets negative. Therefore a firm always operates in the second stage.
OR
The increase in the cost of input or factors of production leads to an increase in the cost of production, which affects the supply of a commodity.
Example: When the prices of factors increases, the cost of production also increases. In the result, the supply of the commodity will be less at a given price.
Similarly, when the cost of inputs and the factors of production fall the cost falls. The cost of the product will not be changed. In this case producer will get profit. This induces producers to supply more.

Question 14.
Explain the difference between (i) Inferior goods and normal goods and (ii) Cardinal utility and ordinal utility. Give example in each case. [4]
Answer:
(i) Inferior goods are those goods whose demand falls with the increment in income of consumers. This is because when income rises the consumers want superior goods than before. Those goods which are affected negatively are called inferior goods.

Normal goods are those goods whose demand increases with the increment in income and vice- versa.
In short, when income increases the demand of normal goods increases and the demand of inferior goods decreases.

(ii) Cardinal Utility means the utility derived from units can be measured in numerical terms. Such as utility from first unit consumed is 8, from the another unit consumed is 6 etc. Unit analysis approach explains consumer’s behaviour which is based on cardinal approach.

Ordinal Utility approach explains the consumer’s behaviour in the case of preferences of the combination of two commodities instead of adopting cardinal utility approach. Indifference curve approach is basically based on ordinal approach because the fact that indifference curves express the level of satisfaction of the consumers which may be more or less. It cannot be measured in numerical terms.

Question 15.
Explain the difference between “change in quantity supplied” and “change in supply”. Use diagram. [6]
Answer:
Change in quantity supplied means the changes in supply which are caused by the changes in the price of the good, other things remaining constant. In this case, when price increases quantity supplied also increases and when price falls quantity supplied also falls. In this case, a movement along the supply curve takes place upwards or downwards as the case may be. As shown below in the diagram, when price increases from OP to OP₂, there is a movement on supply curve from point E to point F. On the other hand, when price falls from OP to OP₁, there is a movement downward on the supply curve from point E to point G. When price increases, Quantity supplied also increases and when price falls, quantity supplied also falls. This is clear looking at the diagram (i).

Change in supply. In case of change in supply, supply supplied increases or decreases due to factors other than price. These factors may be price of other commodities, state of technology, cost of production etc. In short, in the case of change in supply, the supply is either more or less at the same price.

In the case of change in supply, a shift takes place in the supply curve towards right when there is an increase in supply and towards left when there is a decrease in supply. As shown in the Diagram (ii), when supply curve shifts to S₁S₁ supply falls from OQ to OQ₁. On the other hand, when there is a shift in supply curve from SS to S₂S₂ supply increases from OQ to OQ₂. In both the cases price remains the same, i.e., OP.

Question 16.
Market for a good is in equilibrium. There is simultaneous “decrease” both in demand and supply but there is no change in market price. Explain with the help of a schedule how it is possible. [6]
OR
Market for a good is in equilibrium. Explain the chain of reactions in the market if the price is (i) higher than equilibrium price and (ii) lower than equilibrium price.
Answer:
When the Quantity Supplied and Quantity demanded are equal then the market price is in equilibrium. According to the demand supply schedule given below, the equilibrium price is ₹ 7 where the quantity of demand and supply both are 16 units in other situation there is simultaneous decrement in both supply and demand but there is no change in market price. Therefore according to the new condition D₁ and S₁ is drawn. There is no change in market price, new demand and supply are equal at 12 units. Therefore the equilibrium quantity is 16 in the original condition. In the new situation equilibrium quantity is different but the price is the same i.e., ₹ 7. This has been possible because there is equal decrease both in demand and supply in the new situation. It is because of that the equilibrium quantity has fallen from 16 to 12 units.

(i) When market price is higher than the equilibrium price : There is excess supply of goods and producers are not in a situation to sell all they want to sell at the given price. This leads to competition among producers which leads to lowering of price which in turn raises the demand and the supply reduces.

As shown in the diagram, equilibrium price is OP where equilibrium quantity is OQ. Say, if market price is fixed at OP₁ then there will be disequilibrium between demand and supply. Demand will be OQ₁ and supply OQ₂, thus there will be excess of supply equal to Q₁Q₂. For bringing equality between demand and supply, market price should be reduced from OP₁ to OP, so that there is no excess supply.

(ii) When market price is lower than the equilibrium price: There is excess demand and consumers are not able to buy all they want to buy at the given price. This leads to competition between consumers which leads to a rise in price. Rise in price reduces demand while raises supply. As shown in the diagram, equilibrium price is OP and quantity demanded OQ. If OP₁ is fixed as market price (lower than the equilibrium price), there will be excess demand equal to Q₁Q₂. Therefore for bringing about an equality between demand and supply, market price needs to be increased from OP₁ to OP, so that there is no excess demand.

Section – B

Question 17.
Define flow variable. [1]
Answer:
Flow variable refers to those variables that are measured over a period of time. These variables have an element of time attached to them. For example, interest earned on bank deposits for 1 year, i.e., from October 01, 2009 to October 30, 2010 is a flow variable.

Question 18.
Define consumption goods. [1]
Answer:
Consumption goods are those goods which are ready for the consumption in satisfaction of human needs and wants and are not used in the production of another goods.

Question 19.
What are time deposits? [1]
Answer:
Those bank deposits which cannot be withdrawn before the expiry time which has already decided. These are bank deposits, such as fixed deposits.

Question 20.
Define a ”direct tax’. [1]
Answer:
Direct tax is a tax whose liability cannot be shifted to any other person. Example- Income tax.

Question 21.
What is a fixed exchange rate? [1]
Answer:
Fixed exchange rate is fixed by the Government/Central Bank. .

Question 22.
Find Net Value Added at Market Price : [3]

Answer:
Net Value Added at Market Price
= (Units of output sold × Price per unit of output) + Closing stock – Opening stock – Intermediate cost – Depreciation
= (ii) × (iii) + (iv) – (v) – (vii) – (i)
= (900 × 40) + 1,000 – 800 – 20,000 – 700
= [36,000 + 1,000] – 21,500 = ₹ 15,500

Question 23.
Explain the ‘standard of deferred payment’ function of money.** [3]

Question 24.
Outline the steps taken in deriving Consumption Curve from the Saving Curve. Use diagram, [3]
Answer:
Before deriving consumption curve from saving curve we should know the following:

(i) Y = C + S
∴ S = Y – C
(ii) C = Autonomous consumption + That part of income which is consumed, as such.
When C is positive, saving is negative and when C = Y, S = 0
(iii) On the basis of this information, we can draw consumption curve and saving curve as shown in the diagram.
In the diagram, SS is saving curve. At OS level of income C = Y, therefore S is zero. Beyond that SS becomes positive. When SS is positive consumption is less than income and the part of consumption curve is MC.

Question 25.
Find Consumption Expenditure from the following: [3]
National Income = ₹ 5,000
Autonomous Consumption = ₹ 1,000
Marginal propensity to consume = 0.80
Answer:
National Income, Y = ₹ 5,000
Autonomous consumption (a) = ₹ 1,000
Marginal propensity to consume (b) = 0.80
∴ Consumption, (C) = a + bY = 1,000 + 0.8 (5,000)
= 1,000 + 4,000 = ₹ 5,000

Question 26.
Distinguish between revenue receipts and capital receipts in a government budget. Give example in each case. [3]
OR
Explain the role of government budget in bringing economic stability.
Answer:
Revenue receipts are those which do not either create a liability or lead to a reduction in assets, such as tax revenue.

Capital receipts are those funds which government raises either by incurring liability or by disposing of assets, such as recovery of loans, loans raised etc.
OR
Ensuring economic stability is one of the important objectives of a government budget. Government aims at insulating the economy from major economic fluctuations (such as inflation, unemployment, etc.) and the business cycles such as boom, recession, depression and recovery. It aims at achieving higher economic growth rate while combating such situations. Through the budget policy, government aims at maintaining price and employment stability. This aim of economic growth with stability ensures a smooth and efficient functioning of an economy.

Question 27.
Should the following be treated as final expenditure or intermediate expenditure? Give reasons for your answer. [4]
(i) Purchase of furniture by a firm.
(ii) Expenditure on maintenance by a firm.
Answer:
(i) Purchase of furniture by a firm is a final expenditure because firm does not invest on the furniture daily. So it is a kind of investment.
(ii) Expenditure on maintenance by a firm is an intermediate expenditure because it occurs again and again and is not of permanent nature.

Question 28.
Explain the Tender of last resort’ function of the central bank. [4]
OR
Explain ‘government’s banker’ function of the central bank.
Answer:
When commercial banks exhaust all resources to supplement their funds at the time of liquidity crisis, the Central bank acts as the lender of the last resort for them. When Commercial banks cannot meet obligations of their depositors, the Central bank comes to their help. The Central Bank advances credit against eligible securities subject to certain terms and conditions. This saves the Commercial banks from a possible breakdown. This is an important function of the Central banks in the banking system of a country.
OR
The Central bank works as a Commercial bank for the government. Central bank provides all services and facilities to the government like ordinary banks provides services to public. Central Bank manages funds of all government departmental undertakings and the funds of government. It also provides loans when • government needs. It manages Public debt also. It also accepts the payment of taxes from the public on the behalf of the government and makes payment for the cheques issued by government. Deficit financing through borrowing from RBI.

Question 29.
Explain the concept of ‘fiscal deficit’ in a government budget. What does it indicate? [4]
Answer:
Fiscal deficit refers to the excess of total expenditure over total receipts during the given fiscal year including borrowings.

• If fiscal deficit is increasing then the amount of debt repayment is also increasing. The total borrowing of the government are increasing.
• If government requires borrowing then it may borrow from Reserve Bank of India. When RBI prints new currency to meet the deficit requirements it increases the money supply in the economy and creates inflationary pressure.
• The debt and financial burden of interest payments on the revenue expenditure causes a reduction on the capital expenditure for growth and development of the economy.

Question 30.
Find out (i) Gross National Product at Market Price and (ii) Net Current Transfers to Abroad : [4]


Answer:
(i) GNP_MP = Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption expenditure + (Net domestic fixed capital formation + Closing stock – Opening stock + Depreciation) + Net exports – Net factor income to abroad.
= (i) + (v) + [(viii) + (iv) – (vii) + (ii)] + (ix) – (x)
= 1,000 + 300 + (110 + 20 – 20 + 100) + 15 – (-10)
= 1,300 + 210 + 15 + 10 = ₹ 1,535 crore

(ii) Net Current Transfers to Abroad = GNPMP – Depreciation – Net national disposable income
= GNP_MP – (ii) – (iii)
= 1,535 -100 – 1,500
= ₹ (-) 65 crores

Question 31.
Explain the concept of ‘inflationary gap’. Also explain the role of ‘legal reserves’ in reducing it.
OR
Explain the concept of ‘deflationary gap’. Also explain the role of ‘margin requirements’ in reducing it. [6]
Answer:
Inflationary Gap: The situation of inflationary gap arises when equilibrium is established after the stage of full employment. The excess of aggregate demand over aggregate supply at the full employment level is inflationary gap. For bringing equality between AD and AS as the full employment level AD has to be reduced because AS cannot be increased since all the resources are fully employed.

(i) Legal reserves: Legal reserves refer to a minimum percentage of deposits commercial banks have to keep as cash either with themselves or with the central bank. The central bank has the power to change it. When there is inflationary gap the central bank can raise the minimum limit of these reserves so that less funds are available to the bank for lending. This will reduce Aggregate Demand.

(ii) Bank rate: Bank rate is the rate of interest which central bank charges from commercial banks for giving them loans. If bank rate is increased, the rate of interest for general public also goes up and this reduces the demand for credit by the public for investment and consumption. Therefore, for controlling the situation of inflationary gap, bank rate is increased. This ultimately will lead to the decline in the demand for credit. Decline in the volume of credit as a component of money supply will have controlling pressure on inflationary forces.
OR
The situation of deflationary gap arises when equilibrium is established before the stage of full employment of output. In this case, at the full employment level, aggregate demand is less than aggregate supply. In the diagram, DEF is deflationary gap. For removing deflationary gap, the level of aggregate demand needs to be increased.

Margin requirements: Commercial banks never advance loans to its customers equal to the full value of collateral or securities. They always keep a margin with them, such as keeping a margin of 20% and advancing loans equal to 80% of value of security. The rate of margin is determined by the Central bank. In the situation of deflationary gap, this margin will be reduced so that more credit may be advanced against the security.

Question 32.
Give the meaning of ‘foreign exchange’ and ‘foreign exchange rate’. Giving reason, explain the relation between foreign exchange rate and demand for foreign exchange. [6]
Answer:
Foreign exchange: It means foreign currency. It also means the stock of foreign currency of a country. The total reserves of foreign currency is the stock of foreign currencies that a country holds at a given time.

Exchange rate: The rate for exchanging domestic currency (say ₹) into another currency (say US$) is known as exchange rate. The rate of exchange represents the value of home currency.
For Example if US$ 1 is equal to 60.86 Indian rupees then exchange rate between American dollar and Indian rupee is $1 = ₹ 60.86.
There is an inverse relationship between foreign exchange rate and demand for foreign exchange. Higher is the exchange rate, and lower is the demand for foreign exchange and vice-versa. The inverse relation between the two can be explained by an example if price of US dollar in India falls down from ₹ 60.86 to 55 it means now Indian people will pay 55 for US $1 instead of ₹ 60.86. This means American goods have become cheaper for Indians. When exchange rate decreases, the demand of foreign currency decreases and vice-versa.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2012 Outside Delhi Set – II

Section – A

Question 6.
Explain the central problem of ‘how to produce’. [3]
Answer:
A number of methods are available to a producer for producing a good. First a producer decides how he should combine all factors in producing a commodity. A producer will use that combination or technique of production where the cost is minimum. This is the central problem of how to produce in an economy.

Question 9.
A fanner takes a farm on rent and carries on fanning with the help of family members. Identify explicit and implicit costs from this information. Explain. [3]
Answer:

• In the given example, the farmer carries on farming with the help of family members. If these members had worked elsewhere they would have earned wages. Therefore, the imputed expenditure incurred on the wages of family members is implicit cost.
• The farmer takes the farm on rent. Therefore, the expenditure incurred on rent (input) is explicit cost.

Question 11.
Define a budget line. When can it shift to the right? [4]
Answer:
A budget line graphically shows the many combinations of two goods which a consumer can buy, given his entire income and the prices of the two goods. A budget line, as shown in the diagram is a straight line having a negative slope.
There will be a shift in the budget line towards right when:
(1) Income of the consumer increases, prices of both the goods given, as shown in diagram (i).

(2) Price of either of the two commodities or of both of commodities fall, as shown in diagram (ii).

Question 12.
A consumer buys 14 units of a good at a price of ₹ 8 per unit. At price ₹ 7 per unit he spends ₹ 98 on the good. Calculate price elasticity of demand by the percentage method. Comment upon the shape of demand curve based on this information. [4]
Answer:

Therefore, the shape of demand curve will be perfectly inelastic.

Section – B

Question 22.
Find Gross Value Added at Factor Cost: [3]

Answer:
Gross Value Added at Factor Cost
(Units of output sold × Price per unit of output) + Change in stock – Intermediate costs + Subsidy
= [(i) × (ii)] + (iv) – (v) – (vi)
= (2,000 × 20) + (-500) – 15,000 + 3,000
= 40,000 + 3,000 – 15,500 = ₹ 27,500

Question 25.
Find National Income from the following : [3]
Autonomous Consumption = ₹ 100
Marginal propensity to consume = 0.60
Investment = ₹ 200
Answer:
Given : Autonomous Consumption = 100
MPC = 0.60
Investment (I) = 200
∴ Income (Y) = a + bY + I
= 100 + 0.6Y + 200
⇒ (Y – 0.6) = 100 + 200 = 300
⇒ Y (0.4) = 300 ×
⇒ Y = 300
∴ Y = ₹ 750
Therefore National Income is ₹ 750 crores

Question 27.
Giving a reason, explain how should the following be treated while estimating national income : [4]
(i) Expenditure on free services provided by government.
(ii) Payment of interest by a government firm.
Answer:
(i) It should be included because it is a government final consumption expenditure.
(ii) It should not be included because it is an intermediate cost.

Question 30.
Find out (a) National Income and (b) Net National disposable Income * * : [4, 2]


Answer:
(a) National Incomes = Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption expenditure + [Net domestic fixed capital formation + Change in stocks] – Net imports – Net factor income to abroad – Net indirect tax
= (iii) + (vi) + [(ii) + (v)] – (i) – (vii) – (ix)
= 600 + 200 + [100 + (-50)] – (-10) – 20 – 70
= 800 + 100 – 50 +10 – 90 = 910 -140 = ₹ 770 crores

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2012 Outside Delhi Set – III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Section – A

Question 6.
What is Opportunity Cost? Explain with the help of an example. [3]
Answer:
The cost of enjoying more of one good in terms of sacrificing the benefit of another good is termed as opportunity cost of the additional unit of the good.


In the above figure, as we move downwards along the PPC from left to right (i.e. from A to E), we observe that in order to produce more units of capital goods, the economy must sacrifice some amount of consumer goods. In other words, it reflects the opportunity cost of producing one good in terms of another good. For example, a movement from point B to point C implies that the economy is diverting resources from the production of consumer goods to the production of goods. In order to produce one additional unit of capital good, the economy is sacrificing four units (i.e. 48 – 44 units) of consumer goods. Thus, the opportunity cost of producing one additional unit of capital goods is 4 units of consumer goods. Opportunity Cost from B to C

Question 9.
A producer borrows money and starts a business. He himself looks after the business. Identify implicit and explicit costs from this information. Explain. [3]
Answer:

• In the given example, the producer is borrowing money to start his business, So the expenses incurred (interest) on money borrowed is explicit cost.
• The producer looks after the business himself, therefore the imputed cost of the efforts of the businessman is implicit cost because of he had worked somewhere else, he would have earned some money.

Question 11.
What is budget set? Explain what can lead to change in budget set. [4]
Answer:
Budget set is the set of all consumption bundles of two goods that a consumer can afford at the same prices of goods which is given. It also shows the income level of consumers. The budget set changes because of changes in the price of the goods and changes in the income of consumer. Using M as income, P₁ as price of good X. P₂ as price of good Y. A consumer can buy any bundle which he can get by spending M on good X and good Y in the following manner:
P₁X + P₂Y ≤ M
This means money spent on good X and good Y should not exceed income. If there is any change in the budget set it takes place due to change in money variables fulfilling the basic condition stated above.

Question 12.
A consumer buys 8 units of a good at a price of ₹ 7 per unit. When price rises to ₹ 8 per unit he buys 7 units. Calculate price elasticity of demand through the expenditure approach. Comment upon the shape of demand curve based on this information. ** [4]

Section – B

Question 22.
Find out Net Value Added at Factor Cost: [3]

Answer:
NVA at Factor Cost 7,000
= [Price per unit of output × Output sold (units)] + Change in stocks – Intermediate costs – Depreciation – Excise duty
= [(i) + (ii)] + (v) – (vi) – (iv) – (iii)
= (25 × 1,000) + (-500) – 7,000 – 1,000 – 5,000
= 25,000 – 13,500 = ₹ 11,500

Question 25.
Find Investment from the following: [3]
National Income = ₹ 600
Autonomous Consumption = ₹ 150
Marginal propensity to consume = 0.70
Answer:
Given, National Income (Y) = ₹ 600
Autonomous Consumption (a) = ₹ 150
MPC (b) = 0.70
∴ Y = a + bY + I
or 600 = 150 + (0.7 × 600) + I
or 600 = 150 + 420 + 1
or 600 – 570 = I
or I = 30

Question 27.
How should the following be treated while estimating National Income? Give reasons. [4]
(i) Expenditure on education of children by a family.
(ii) Payment of electricity bill by a school.
Answer:
(i) Expenditure on education of children by a family is a final consumption expenditure of households because it is a payment for the services rendered by the school. It will be included.
(ii) Payment of electricity by a school is intermediate cost of the school and therefore is used for finding out value added and not directly included in the estimation of national income.

Question 30.
Find out (a) Net National Product at Market Price and (b) (Gross National Disposable Income**) form the following: [6]

Answer:
(a) NNP_MP
= Compensation of employees + Rent + Royalty + Undistributed profits + Dividend + Corporation tax + Net factor income earned from abroad + Interest + Net indirect tax
= (ii) + [(iii) + (v)] + [(i) + (iv) + (vii)] + (x) + (viii) + (xi)
= 800 + (300 + 40) + (20 + 100 + 50) + (-10) + 400 + 60
= 800 + 340 + 170 – 10 + 460
= ₹ 1,760 crores

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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CBSE Class 11 Sanskrit सन्धिः

अत्यन्त समीपवर्ती दो वर्गों के मेल को सन्धि (Combination of Letters) कहते हैं। जैसे-‘विद्यालय:’ में विद्या व आलयः पदों के दो अत्यन्त समीपवर्ती आ वर्गों का मेल होकर एक आ हो गया है। सन्धि को पहिता भी कहते हैं। सन्धि और संयोग में अन्तर-दो व्यञ्जनों के अत्यन्त समीपवर्ती होने पर उनका मेल संयोग कहलाता है किन्तु संयोग की अवस्था में उन वर्गों के स्वरूप में परिवर्तन नहीं होता। सन्धि में परिवर्तन हो जाता है। वाक्चातुर्यं में क्, च् का संयोग है किन्तु वाङ्मयः में म् में सन्धि है (वाक् + मयः)।

सन्धि के नियम :

निकट होने के कारण दो वर्गों में कभी सुविधा से तो कभी शीघ्रता के परिणामस्वरूप परिवर्तन हा जाता है। यह परिवर्तन कई प्रकार का होता है; जैसे –

1. कभी दोनों के स्थान पर एक नया वर्ण बन जाता है
   तत्र + उक्तः = तत्रोक्तः। (‘अ’ तथा ‘उ’ के मेल से नया वर्ण ‘ओ’ बन गया है।) –
2. कभी पूर्व वर्ण में परिवर्तन होता है
   असि + अभिहतः = अस्याभिहतः। (असि के अंतिम वर्ण ‘इ’ को ‘अ’ परे होने पर ‘य’ हो गया है।) इसी प्रकार प्रति + एकं = प्रत्येकं। प्रति + उवाच = प्रत्युवाच।

सन्धि के भेद (Types of Sandhi)

सन्धि के निम्न तीन प्रकार हैं:

1. स्वर-सन्धि या अच् सन्धि (Combination of Vowels)
यदि दो समीपस्थ स्वरों में परिवर्तन हो तो उसे स्वर-सन्धि कहते हैं; जैसे-न + अवलेढि = नावलेढि (यहाँ ‘अ’ तथा ‘अ’ दोनों स्वरों में सन्धि की गई है।)

2. व्यञ्जन-सन्धि या हल सन्धि (Combination of Consonants)
यदि दो व्यञ्जनों में सन्धि की जाती है तो उसे व्यंजन-सन्धि कहेंगे। जैसे – जगत् + जननी = जगज्जननी (यहाँ त् तथा ज् व्यञ्जनों में सन्धि की गई है)। यदि पहला वर्ण व्यञ्जन हो और दूसरा वर्ण स्वर, तो व्यञ्जन में परिवर्तन होने के कारण इसे भी व्यञ्जन-सन्धि ही कहा जाता है; जैसे-जगत् + ईशः = जगदीशः (यहाँ ‘त्’ व्यञ्जन तथा ‘इ’ स्वर में सन्धि की गई है।)

3. विसर्ग-सन्धि (Visarga Sandhi)
यदि पहला वर्ण विसर्ग है और बाद का वर्ण स्वर अथवा व्यंजन में से कोई भी है, तब विसर्ग में परिवर्तन होने के कारण इसे विसर्ग-सन्धि कहा जाता है। जैसे-वृतः + उपाध्यायः + यत् = वृत उपाध्यायो यत् (यहाँ. वृतः + उपाध्यायः में विसर्ग का लोप, ‘उपाध्यायः + यत्’ में विसर्ग को ‘उ’ होकर पूर्ववर्ती अकार से मिलकर ‘ओ’ हो जाता है)।

1. स्वर सन्धि के भेद
(Types of Vowel Combination)

स्वर सन्धि के अनेक भेद होते हैं, यथा–दीर्घ, गुण, वृद्धि, यण, अयादि, पूर्वरूप, पररूप, प्रकृतिभाव।

(क) दीर्घ सन्धि (Dirgha Sandhi)
समान वर्ण परे होने पर अक् (अ, आ, इ, ई, उ, ऊ, ऋ, ऋ) वर्गों के स्थान पर एक समान वर्ण, किन्तु दीर्घ स्वर (आ, ई, ऊ, ऋ) आदेश हो जाता है।
1. अ से परे अ हो तो दोनों के स्थान पर आ हो जाता है-अ + अ = आ। जैसे –

2. अ (ह्रस्व) से परे आ (दीर्घ) हो तो दोनों के स्थान पर आ हो जाता है-अ + आ = आ। जैसे –

3. आ (दीर्घ) से परे अ (ह्रस्व) हो तो दोनों के स्थान पर आ हो जाता है- आ + अ = आ। जैसे –

4. आ (दीर्घ) से परे आ (दीर्घ) हो तो दोनों के स्थान पर आ (दीर्घ) हो जाता है-आ + आ = आ। जैसे –

5. इ (ह्रस्व) के बाद इ (ह्रस्व) होने पर दोनों को मिलाकर दीर्घ ई हो जाता है- इ + इ = ई। जैसे –

6. इ (ह्रस्व) के परे ई (दीर्घ) होने पर दोनों के स्थान पर दीर्घ ई हो जाता है-इ + ई = ई। जैसे –

7. ई (दीर्घ) के परे इ (ह्रस्व) होने पर दोनों के स्थान में दीर्घ ई होता है-ई + इ = ई। जैसे –

8. ई (दीर्घ) के परे ई (दीर्घ) हो, तो भी दोनों के स्थान पर ई (दीर्घ) आदेश हो जाता है – ई + ई = ई। जैसे –

9. उ (ह्रस्व) के परे उ (ह्रस्व) होने पर, दोनों के स्थान पर ऊ (दीर्घ) आदेश हो जाता है – उ + ऊ = ऊ। जैसे –

10. उ (ह्रस्व) के परे ऊ (दीर्घ) होने पर, दोनों के स्थान पर ऊ (दीर्घ) आदेश हो जाता है – 3 + ऊ = ऊ। जैसे –

11. ऊ (दीर्घ) के परे उ (ह्रस्व) होने पर, दोनों के स्थान पर ऊ (दीर्घ) आदेश हो जाता है – ऊ + उ = ऊ। जैसे –

12. ऊ (दीर्घ) के परे ऊ (दीर्घ) होने पर दोनों के स्थान पर ऊ (दीर्घ) हो जाता है – ऊ + ऊ = ऊ। जैसे –
भू       +           ऊर्ध्वम्            =       भूर्ध्वम्             चमू               +                 ऊर्जः               =              चमूर्जः

13. ऋ, ऋ (ह्रस्व या दीर्घ) से परे ऋ, ऋ (ह्रस्व या दीर्घ) होने पर दोनों के स्थान पर दीर्घ ऋ हो जाता है – ऋ या ऋ + ऋ या ऋ = ऋ। जैसे –
मातृ +              ऋणम्              =       मातृणम् पितृ                       +                ऋद्धिः             =             पितृद्धिः

विशेष – ऋ से परे यदि ल हो तो वहाँ भी दोनों के स्थान में दीर्घ ऋ हो जाती है। जैसे-होतृ + लकारः = होतृकारः (होत्लुकारः, होतृलकारः भी रूप बनता है।)
परन्तु हस्व ऋ से परे ह्रस्व ऋ होने पर दोनों के स्थान पर दीर्घ ऋ विकल्प से होती है। जैसे –
 पितृ             +            ऋणम्              =            पितॄणम्, पितृणम्। होत           +                ऋकारः         =          होतृकारः, होतृकारः।

दीर्घ-सन्धि अपवाद –

(ख) गुण सन्धि (Guna Sandhi)

अ या आ के अनन्तर ह्रस्व या दीर्घ इ, ई, उ, ऊ, ऋ, ऋ तथा लु आएँ तो दोनों के स्थान पर क्रमशः ए, ओ, अर्, अल्, आदेश हो जाते हैं (अ, ए, ओ, गुण स्वर कहलाते हैं इसलिए इस सन्धि को गुण सन्धि कहते हैं)। 1. ह्रस्व अ के बाद ह्रस्व इ होने पर, दोनों के स्थान पर ए (गुण) आदेश होता है-अ + इ = ए। जैसे –

2. ह्रस्व अ के बाद दीर्घ ई होने पर, दोनों के स्थान पर ए (गुण) आदेश होता है-अ + ई = ए। जैसे –

3. दीर्घ आ के पश्चात् ह्रस्व इ होने पर, दोनों के स्थान पर ए (गुण) आदेश होता है- आ + इ = ए। जैसे –

4. दीर्घ आ के परे दीर्घ ई होने पर भी, दोनों के स्थान पर ए (गुण) आदेश होता है-आ + ई = ए। जैसे –

5. ह्रस्व अ के परे ह्रस्व उ होने पर दोनों के स्थान पर ओ (गुण) आदेश हो जाता है-अ + उ = ओ। जैसे –

6. ह्रस्व अ के पश्चात् दीर्घ ऊ होने पर, दोनों के स्थान पर ओ (गुण) आदेश हो जाता है-अ + ऊ = ओ। जैसे –

7. दीर्घ आ के पश्चात् ह्रस्व उ होने पर, दोनों के स्थान पर ओ (गुण) आदेश हो जाता है-आ + उ = ओ। जैसे –

8. दीर्घ आ के पश्चात् दीर्घ ऊ होने पर भी दोनों के स्थान पर ओ (गुण) आदेश हो जाता है-आ + ऊ = ओ। जैसे –

9. ह्रस्व अ से परे ऋ होने पर दोनों के स्थान पर अर् आदेश हो जाता है-अ + ऋ = अर। जैसे –

10. दीर्घ आ के परे ऋ होने पर भी दोनों के स्थान पर अर् आदेश होता है-आ + ऋ = अर्। जैसे –

11. अ (ह्रस्व) के बाद ल होने पर दोनों के स्थान पर अल् आदेश होता है-अ + ल = अल। जैसे –
तव + लकारः = तवल्कारः मम + लृकारः = ममल्कारः

12. दीर्घ आ के बाद ल होने पर दोनों के स्थान पर अल् आदेश होता है-आ + ल = अंल। जैसे –
माला + लकारः = मालल्कारः शाला + लृकारः = शालल्कारः

(ग) वृद्धि सन्धि (Vriddhi Sandhi)

अ अथवा आ के अनन्तर यदि ए या ऐ हो तो दोनों के स्थान पर ऐ हो जाता है और यदि ओ या औ हो तो दोनों के स्थान पर औ हो जाता है। इस सन्धि को वृद्धि सन्धि कहते हैं। (ऐ तथा औ वृद्धि स्वर कहलाते हैं)।
1. अ + ए = ऐ

(घ) यण् सन्धि (Change into Semi-Vowels)

ह्रस्व या दीर्घ इ, ई, उ, ऊ, ऋ, ऋ, ल (इक्) के अनन्तर कोई असवर्ण स्वर (अच्) आए तो इ, उ, ऋ, ल के स्थान पर क्रमशः य, व, र, ल् (यण्) आदेश हो जाते हैं।
1. इ + असमान वर्ण (इ, ई से भिन्न स्वर) = य् + असमान वर्ण

2. ई + असमान वर्ण (इ, ई से भिन्न स्वर) = य् + असमान वर्ण

3. उ + असमान वर्ण (उ, ऊ से भिन्न स्वर) = व् + असमान वर्ण

4. ऊ + असमान वर्ण (उ, ऊ से भिन्न स्वर) = व् + असमान वर्ण

5. ऋ + असमान वर्ण (ऋ, ऋ से भिन्न स्वर) = र् + असमान वर्ण

6. ल + असमान वर्ण (ल से भिन्न स्वर) = ल् + असमान वर्ण

(ङ) अयादि सन्धि (Change into अय् etc.)

ए, ओ, ऐ, औ (एच्) के अनन्तर कोई भी स्वर (अच्) हो तो ए, ओ, ऐ, औ (एच) के स्थान पर क्रमशः अय्, अव्, आय्, आव् (अयादि) हो जाते हैं।

1. ए + कोई स्वर = अय् + कोई स्वर
ने + अति = न् + अय् + अति = नयति
हरे + ए = हर् + अय् + ए = हरये

2. ओ + कोई स्वर = अव् + कोई स्वर
भो + अति = भ् + अव् + अति = भवति
पो + अनः = प् + अव् + अनः = पवनः
विष्णो + ए = विष्ण् + अव् + ए = विष्णवे

3. ऐ + कोई स्वर = आय् + कोई स्वर
नै + अकः = न् + आय् + अकः = नायकः
ग्लै + अति = ग्ल् + आय् + अति = ग्लायति

4. औ + कोई स्वर = आव् + कोई स्वर
प्रचोदितौ + अगायताम् = प्रचोदितावगायताम्।
क्षीरनिधौ + इव = क्षीरनिधाविव।
तौ + अग्राहयत = तावग्राहयत।
करौ + इव = कराविव

(च) पूर्वरूप सन्धि

यह अयादि सन्धि का अपवाद है। इसके अनुसार पदान्त (पद के अन्त) में ए या ओ होने पर और उसके बाद ह्रस्व अ होने पर अयादि सन्धि का नियम लागू नहीं होता अपितु अ को पूर्वरूप हो जाता है। पूर्वरूप होने पर वह अ पहले शब्द के अंतिम स्वर में मिल जाता है तथा उसकी सूचना मात्र के लिए 5 (अवग्रह) चिह्न लगा दिया जाता है। जैसे –

विद्यते + अयनाय = विद्यतेऽयनाय।
हरे + अव = हरेऽव
को + अत्र = कोऽत्र
अरण्ये + अगच्छत् = अरण्येऽगच्छत्
राज्यतन्त्रे + अस्मिन् = राज्यतन्त्रेऽस्मिन्

(छ) पररूप सन्धि

यदि अकारान्त उपसर्ग के बाद ऐसी धातु आए जिसके आदि में ए, ओ हो तो दोनों के स्थान पर क्रम से ए, ओ (पररूप) हो जाता है। जैसे –
प्र + एषयति = प्रेषयति
अव + ओषति = अवोषति
प्र + एजते = प्रेजते
उप + ओजति = उपोजति

(ज) प्रकृतिभाव सन्धि (Prakriti Bhava Sandhi)

नियम – यदि कोई ऐसा पद हो जो द्विवचनान्त हो तथा उसके अन्त में ई, ऊ, ए में से कोई एक हो तथा आगे कोई स्वर हो तो ई, ऊ, ए ज्यों-के-त्यों रहते हैं। जैसे –

2. व्यञ्जन (हल) सन्धि
(Consonant Sandhi)

व्यञ्जन (हल) का किसी व्यञ्जन (हल) के साथ अथवा स्वर (अच्) के साथ मेल होने पर व्यञ्जन में जो परिवर्तन होता है उसे व्यञ्जन (हल) सन्धि कहते हैं। जैसे-तत् + चित्रम् = तच्चित्रम्, तत् + टीकते = तट्टीकते। इन उदाहरणों में त् + च् मिलने से प्रथम अक्षर के स्थान पर च तथा त् + ट् मिलने से प्रथम अक्षर त् के स्थान पर ट् हो गया है। व्यञ्जन सन्धि के अनेक भेद है। जैसे-अनुस्वार श्चुत्व, ष्टुत्व, जश्त्व आदि।

1. अनुस्वार सन्धि

1. पदान्त न् परे यदि च् या छ् हो तो न् के स्थान पर अनुस्वार तथा श् दोनों हो जाते हैं। जैसे –

2. पदान्त न् से परे ट् या ठ हो तो अनुस्वार और ष् हो जाते हैं। जैसे –

3. पदान्त न् से परे यदि त् थ् हो तो न् के स्थान पर अनुस्वार के साथ ‘स्’ हो जाता है। जैसे –

4. पद के अन्दर रहने वाले न् और म् से परे वर्णों से पहले वर्णों तथा श्, ए, स्, ह में से कोई वर्ण आ जाने पर न और म् को अनुस्वार हो जाता है। जैसे –

2. परसवर्ण

अपदान्त अनुस्वार के अनन्तर यय् (वर्गों के 1, 2, 3, 4 वर्ण और य, र, ल, व) वर्गों में से कोई एक हो तो अनुस्वार को आगे आने वाले वर्ग के वर्ण का पाँचवाँ अक्षर (परसवर्ण) हो जाता है। जैसे –

(क) अपदान्त अनुस्वार के बाद कवर्ग होने पर अनुस्वार के स्थान पर छु हो जाता है। जैसे –

(ख) अपदान्त अनुस्वार के बाद चवर्ग होने पर अनुस्वार के स्थान पर बू हो जाता है। जैसे –

(ग) अपदान्त अनुस्वार के बाद टवर्ग होने पर अनुस्वार के स्थान पर ण हो जाता है। जैसे –

(घ) अपदान्त अनुस्वार के बाद तवर्ग होने पर अनुस्वार के स्थान पर न हो जाता है। जैसे –

(ड़) अपदान्त अनुस्वार के बाद पवर्ग होने पर अनुस्वार के स्थान में म् हो जाता है। जैसे –
सं + भोजनम् = सम्भोजनम्

(च) पदान्त ‘म्’ से परे कोई भी व्यञ्जन हो तो म् को अनुस्वार हो जाता है। जैसे –
हरिम् + वन्दे = हरिं वन्दे
मधुरम् + हसति = मधुरं हसति
सत्वरम् + याति = सत्वरं याति

3. श्चुत्व

स् और तवर्ग (त्, थ्, द्, ध्, न्) के साथ श् और चवर्ग (च्, छ्, ज्, झ्, ज्) में से कोई वर्ण आ रहा हो तो स् और तवर्ग (त्, थ्, द्, ध्, न्) के स्थान पर क्रमशः श् और चवर्ग (च्, छ्, ज्, झ्, ज्) हो जाते हैं। जैसे –

अपवाद – श् के परे तवर्ग को चवर्ग नहीं होता। जैसे-विश् + नः = विश्नः, प्रश् + नः = प्रश्नः आदि।

4. ष्टुत्व

स् और तवर्ग (त्, थ्, द्, ध्, न्) के साथ यदि ष् और टवर्ग (ट्, त्, ड्, द, ण) में से कोई हो तो स् और तवर्ग को क्रमशः ष् और टवर्ग आदेश हो जाते हैं। जैसे –

परन्तु कुछ अवस्थाओं में यह नियम लागू नहीं होता। जैसे, यदि पद के अन्त में टवर्ग हो और उसके पश्चात् न् के अतिरिक्त तवर्ग का वर्ण अथवा स् हो तो उसके स्थान पर टवर्ग नहीं होता। जैसे –
षट् + सन्तः = षट् सन्तः (यहाँ स् का ष् नहीं होगा)

किन्तु न् को ण होने के उदाहरण मिलते हैं यथा

इसी प्रकार तवर्ग के किसी वर्ण के पश्चात् मूर्धन्य ष् हो तो तवर्ग के वर्ण के स्थान पर टवर्ग का वर्ण नही होता। जैसे –
सन् + षष्ठः = सन् षष्ठः।

5. जश्त्व

किसी शब्द में यदि झल् अर्थात् वर्णों के पहला, दूसरा, तीसरा और चौथा वर्ण तथा श्, ए, स्, ह हों तथा उसके अनन्तर कोई भी अन्य वर्ण हो तो झलों को जश् (उसी वर्ग का तीसरा वर्ण अर्थात् ग, ज्, ड्, द्, ब्) हो जाता है। नियम व्यापक रहने पर भी भाषा में उदाहरण ऐसे ही मिले हैं जिनके अनुसार क्, च्, ट्, त्, प् पद के अन्त में होते हैं और अनन्तर कोई वर्ण होता है तो इनका क्रमशः ग्, ज, ड्, द्, ब् हो जाता है। जैसे –

2 (क) सत्व-विधानम्

स् से पूर्व अ, आ से भिन्न स्वर होने पर स् के स्थान पर ष् हो जाता है, जैसे- मुनिषु, (मुनि + सु), साधुषु (साधु + सु), रामेषु (रामे + सु) आदि। लतासु में स् को ष् नहीं होगा, क्योंकि यहाँ स् से पूर्व ‘आ’ है।

2 (ख) णत्व-विधानम्

अन्य शब्द – ऋणम्, परिणामः, रामचन्द्रेण, वर्णनम्, भीषणम्, पुरुषेण।

ऊपर के सब उदाहरणों में ‘ण’ दिखाई देता है। ध्यान से देखिए कि इन सब में ण् से पूर्व ऋ, ऋ, र्, ष् में से कोई एक वर्ण अवश्य आया है, इसीलिए न् के स्थान पर ण् हुआ है
कृपया बताएँ ण से पहले ऋ/ऋ//ष् में से इन उदाहरणों में कौन-सा वर्ण है? जैसे-रामेण में ण् से पूर्व र है।
(i) मातृणाम् में ण् से पूर्व……………है।
(ii) ऋषीणाम् में ण् से पूर्व……………है।
(iii) गृहाणि में ण् से पूर्व……………….है।
(iv) ऋणम् में ण से पूर्व………………..है।
(v) रामचन्द्रेण में ण् से पूर्व……………….है।
(vi) भीषणम् में ण् से पूर्व………………….है।
(vii) नराणाम् में ण् से पूर्व………………..है।
(viii) मनुष्याणाम् में ण् से पूर्व……………है।
(ix) प्रियाणि में ण् से पूर्व…………………है।
(x) परिणामः में ण् से पूर्व…………….है।
(xi) वर्णनम् में ण् से पूर्व… ………है।
(xii) पुरुषेण में ण् से पूर्व…………..है।

एक ही पद में न् से पहले ऋ/ऋ// में से कोई वर्ण न हो तो न् को ण नहीं होता।
उदाहरण – देवेन, देवानाम्, फलानि, वचनम्, अनामिका, दासेन, सदनम्, खगेन आदि। इन उदाहरणों में ‘न्’ से पूर्व कहीं भी ऋ/ऋ/ष् में से कोई वर्ण नहीं है अतः न् को ण् होने का कोई कारण नहीं है। पदान्त में न् → न्
किन्तु पदान्त में न् को ण् नहीं होता भले ही पदान्त न् से पूर्व ऋ/ऋार में से कोई वर्ण क्यों न हो। जैसे रामान्।ऋषीन्। मनुष्यान्। हरीन्। प्रियान्। नरान्। पितृन्। रक्षन्। कुर्वन्। स्पृशन्। आरोहन्।

नियम (2) पदान्त में न् को ण् नहीं होता।

रामान् में र पदान्त न से पूर्व है इसलिए न् को ण् नहीं हुआ।
ऋषीन् में ष् पदान्त न् से पूर्व है इसलिए न् को ण् नहीं हुआ।
निम्न वाक्यों को पूरा करें।
(i) मनुष्यान् में ष् पदान्त न् से पूर्व है ……………………………………।
(ii) हरीन् में र् पदान्त न् से पूर्व है ……………………………………….।
(iii) प्रियान में र् पदान्त न् से पूर्व है ……………………………………..।
(iv) नरान् में र् पदान्त न् से पूर्व है ……………………………………….।
(v) पितॄन् में ऋ पदान्त न् से पूर्व है ………………………………………।
(vi) रक्षन् में र् ……………………………………… इसलिए न् को ण् नहीं हुआ।
(vii) कुर्वन् में र् ……………………………………… इसलिए न् को ण् नहीं हुआ।
(viii) स्पृशन् में ऋ ………………………………………. इसलिए न् को ण नहीं हुआ।
(ix) आरोहन् में र् ………………………………………. इसलिए न् को ण नहीं हुआ।

अब ऐसे उदाहरण दिए जा रहे हैं जिन पदों में ऋ/ऋ//ष् के बाद न् को ण् नहीं हुआ और न् इनके अन्त में भी नहीं है। जैसे –
रचना। रत्नम्। रटनम्। प्रपञ्चेन। प्रवासेन। रत्नेन। रटन्तम्। आराधना। मारीचेन। रक्तेन। प्रलापेन। दर्शनानि। परिवर्तनम्। मूर्तीनाम्। गृहस्थेन। प्रधानम्। ईदृशेन। प्रतिमानम्।
अब यह सोचना पड़ेगा कि ऋ/// के बाद तथा न् से पहले कौन-से वर्ण हों तो न् को ण् होगा तथा कौन-से वर्ण नहीं हों तो न् को ण् नहीं होगा।
सह्याव्यवधान – ऋ/ऋ//ष् के बाद न् को ण् होने में जो वर्ण कोई व्यवधान या रुकावट नहीं डालते उन वर्णों को सह्य व्यवधान कहते हैं।
असह्यव्यवधान – ऋ/ऋ//ष् के बाद नं को ण् होने में जो वर्ण व्यवधान या रुकावट पैदा करते हैं उन वर्णों को असह्य व्यवधान कहते हैं।

सह्यव्यवधान-तालिका

इनके बीच में होने पर न् का ण होता है।

न् → ण् (सह्य वर्गों के उदाहरण)

प्राणाः – सह्य वर्ण (आ)
पुरुषेण – सह्य वर्ण (उ, ए)
कृपणः – सह्य वर्ण (प्, अ)
प्रियाणि – सह्य वर्ण (इ, य्, आ)
लक्ष्मणः – सह्य वर्ण (म्, अ)

उपर्युक्त सब उदाहरणों में सह्य वर्ण सह्यव्यवधान तालिका में से हैं।
असाव्यवधान – तालिका (वाधकवर्णतालिका)

इनके बीच में होने पर न् का ण होता है।
रचना – असह्यवर्ण [८]
रत्नम् – असह्यवर्ण [त्]
(i) प्रपञ्चेन – असह्यवर्ण [………………….].
(ii) रत्नेन – असह्यवर्ण [………………..]
(iii) आराधना – असह्यवर्ण [………………]
(iv) रक्तेन – असह्यवर्ण [………………]
(v) दर्शनानि – असह्यवर्ण [……………
(vi) मूर्तीनाम् – असह्यवर्ण [……………….
(vii) प्रधानम् – असह्यवर्ण [………………..
(viii) प्रतिमानम् – असह्यवर्ण [………………]
(ix) रटनम् – असह्यवर्ण […………….]
(x) प्रवासेन — असह्यवर्ण [………………]
(xi) रटन्तम् – असह्यवर्ण [……………….]
(xii) मारीचेन – असह्यवर्ण [………………..]
(xiii) प्रलापेन – असह्यवर्ण [……………]
(xiv) परिवर्तनम् – असह्यवर्ण [………….]
(xv) गृहस्थेन – असह्यवर्ण [……………]
(xvi) ईदृशेन – असह्यवर्ण […………..]

3. विसर्ग सन्धि (Visarga Sandhi)
विसर्ग से परे स्वर या व्यञ्जन के होने पर विसर्ग में होने वाले परिवर्तन को विसर्ग सन्धि कहते हैं। जैसे –
रामः + आगच्छति = ‘राम आगच्छति’ में रामः के विसर्ग का लोप हो गया है क्योंकि विसर्ग के बाद दीर्घ आ स्वर पड़ा है (लोप)।
देवः + गच्छति = देवो गच्छति। यहाँ गच्छति का ग् विसर्ग से परे है, अतः देवः के स्थान पर देवो रूप बन गया है तथा विसर्ग के स्थान पर हुआ ‘उ’ देव के आकार में मिलकर ‘ओ’ हो गया है (उत्व)।
विसर्ग सन्धि के भी अनेक भेद हैं। यहाँ कुछ प्रमुख भेदों का ही विचार किया जाएगा.

1. यदि पदान्त ‘र’ के परे वर्णों का पहला, दूसरा तथा श, ष, में से कोई वर्ण हो या अन्य का ‘स्’ हो तो उनके स्थान पर विसर्ग हो जाता है। जैसे –
पुनर् + पतितः = पुनः पतितः हरि + स् = हरिः राम + स् = रामः।

2. सत्व-विसर्ग से परे च्, छ् होने पर विसर्ग का श् हो जाता है, ट्, ठ् परे होन पर ष् हो जाता है तथा त्, थ् परे होने पर ‘स्’ हो जाता है। जैसे –

3. विसर्ग के बाद श्, ष, स् हों तो विसर्ग को श्, ष, स् विकल्प से होंगे। जैसे –

4. रुत्व-विसर्ग से पहले अ तथा आ को छोड़कर यदि कोई और स्वर हो और विसर्ग से परे कोई स्वर, वर्ग का तीसरा, चौथा और पाँचवाँ वर्ण या य, र, ल, व्, ह में से कोई वर्ण हो तो उस विसर्ग को र् हो जाता है। जैसे –

5. उत्व विधि-यदि विसर्ग से पूर्व ‘अ’ हो और परे भी ह्रस्व ‘अ’ ही हो तो विसर्ग को उ हो जाता है तथा विसर्ग पूर्व अ के साथ मिलकर ‘ओ’ हो जाता है। परवर्ती अ का पूर्वरूप हो जाता है और उसके स्थान में 5 चिह्न लिख दिया जाता है। जैसे –

6. उत्व-यदि विसर्ग के पूर्व अ हो, किन्तु विसर्ग के अनन्तर किसी वर्ग का तीसरा, चौथा या पाँचवाँ वर्ण हो अथवा य, र, ल, व् तथा ह् में से कोई वर्ण हो तो विसर्ग सहित अ को ओ हो जाता है। जैसे –

7. विसर्ग लोप –
(i) यदि पूर्व नियम की भाँति ह्रस्व अ के अनन्तर विसर्ग हो, किन्तु विसर्ग के पश्चात् अ से भिन्न कोई स्वर हो तो विसर्ग का लोप हो जाता है। जैसे
पुरुषः + एव = पुरुष एव धर्मः + एव = धर्म एव वृतः + उपाध्यायः = वृतउपाध्यायः

(ii) यदि विसर्ग से पूर्व ‘आ’ हो और परे कोई स्वर या वर्ग का तीसरा, चौथा, पाँचवाँ वर्ण अथवा य, र, ल, व, ह इन वर्गों में से कोई हो तो वहाँ पर विसर्ग का लोप हो जाता है और विसर्ग का लोप होने पर यदि कोई सन्धि प्राप्त हो तो वह नहीं होती।

प्राक्तनाः + इव = प्राक्तना इव पुरुषः + एव = पुरुष एव भवादृशाः + एव = भवादृशा एव

(iii) अ, इ, उ के अनन्तर (विसर्गों के स् के रु का) र विद्यमान हो तथा उसके पश्चात् भी र् हो तो पहले (विसर्ग के) र का लोप हो जाता है। लोप होने पर अ, इ, उ को दीर्घ भी हो जाता है। जैसे –

(iv) सः और एषः के पश्चात् कोई व्यञ्जन हो तो इनके विसर्गों का लोप हो जाता है। जैसे –
सः पठति = स पठति एषः विष्णु = एष विष्णुः
यदि सः, एषः के पश्चात् ह्रस्व अ को छोड़कर कोई अन्य स्वर हो तो उसका भी लोप हो जाता है।
जैसेसः एति =.स एति एषः + गृहीतः = एष गृहीतः
किन्तु यदि सः, एषः के परे ह्रस्व अ हो तो विसर्ग सहित अ को ओ हो जाता है। जैसे –
सः + अस्ति = सोऽस्ति एषः + अपि = एषोऽपि

(v) भोः, भगोः के विसर्गों का भी लोप हो जाता है यदि विसर्ग से परे कोई स्वर अथवा वर्ग का तीसरा, चौथा, पाँचवाँ तथा य, र, ल, व, ह में से कोई वर्ण हो। जैसे –
भोः + लक्ष्मी = भो लक्ष्मी भगोः + नमस्ते = भगो नमस्ते अघोः + याहि = अघो याहि

8. नमः, पुरः, तिरः शब्दों के विसर्ग को क्या प् के परे होने पर स् हो जाता है। जैसे

अभ्यासः

1. अधोदत्तानां पदानां सहायतया प्रतिवाक्यम् स्थूलपदयोः सन्धिं चित्वा लिखत।
(नीचे दिए गए पदों की सहयता से प्रत्येक वाक्य के मोटे पदों की सन्धि चुनकर लिखिए।)
(Choose join the bold words in each sentence by given words.)

(i) देव! तव स्वागताय तत्परः + अस्मि।
(क) तत्परःस्मि
(ख) तत्परोऽस्मि
(ग) तत्परोस्मि
(घ) तत्परःअस्मि

(ii) कुत्रस्ति जगत् + ईशः।
(क) जगदीशः
(ख) जगतीशः
(ग) जगतीशाः
(घ) जगदिशः

(iii) यज्ञदत्तः वृक्षं वि + अलोकयत्।।
(क) व्यलोकयत्
(ख) विलोकयत्
(ग) विलोकस्य
(घ) विअलोकयत्

(iv) वनेषु गजैः + गम्यते।
(क) गजैगम्यते
(ख) गजैगम्यते
(ग) गजैस्गम्यते
(घ) गजैष्णम्यते

(v) तत्र + एव मम मित्रम् आगमिष्यति।
(क) तत्रेव
(ख) तत्रैव
(ग) तत्रएव
(घ) तत्राएव

(vi) सः निर + रसं जलं किमर्थं पिबति?
(क) निरीसं
(ख) निरसं
(ग) निससं
(घ) नीरसं

2. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु स्थूलपदेषु निम्नलिखितानां पदानां सहायतया उचितं सन्धिच्छेवं सन्धि वा चित्वा लिखत।
(नीचे लिखे वाक्यों में स्थूल पदों में नीचे दिए गए शब्दों की सहायता से उचित सन्धि विच्छेद अथवा सन्धि चुनकर लिखिए।)
(Choose the separate or join the bold words in the following sentences by given words.)

(i) मुनिः बद्धाञ्जलिः तामवदत्।
(क) बद्ध + अञ्जलिः
(ख) बद्धा + अञ्जलिः
(ग) बद्ध + आञ्जलिः
(घ) बद्धा + अञ्जलिः

(ii) एका बलाका तस्य + उपरि विष्ठाम् उदसृजत्।
(क) तस्यउपरि
(ख) तस्योपरि
(ग) तस्युपरि
(घ) तस्यूपरि

(iii) हितोपदेशे कथानां सङ्कलनम् अस्ति।
(क) सम् + कलनम्
(ख) सं + कलनम्
(ग) सन् + कलनम्
(घ) सङ् + कलनम्

(iv) साम्प्रतं वदतु, कोऽहम्।
(क) कः + अहम्
(ख) को + अहम् ।
(ग) कौ + अहम्
(घ) को + हम्

(v) एतत् + चिन्तयित्वा राजा पण्डितसभा कारितवान्।
(क) एतचिन्तयित्वा
(ख) एतच्चिन्तयित्वा
(ग) एतचिन्तयित्वा
(घ) एतञ्चिन्तयित्वा

(vi) दन्तैः + हीनः शिलाभक्षी परपादेन गच्छति।।
(क) दन्तैहीनः
(ख) दन्तैस्हीनः
(ग) दन्तैीनः
(घ) दन्तैष्हीनः

3. अधोदत्तेषु पदेषु शुद्धं पदं चित्वा रिक्तस्थानानि पूरयत।
(नीचे दिए पदों में से शुद्ध पद चुनकर रिक्त स्थानों को भरें।)
(Fill in the blanks by the following suitable words.)

(i) च + इति = …………
(क) चेति
(ख) चैति
(ग) चिति
(घ) च्येति

(ii) अनयोर्विधेयः
(क) अनयो + रविधेयः
(ख) अनयोः + विधेयः
(ग) अनयो + विधेयः
(घ) अनयोर् + विधेयः

(iii) किञ्चित् = …………………. + …………………
(क) किम् + चित्
(ख) किञ् + चित्…
(ग) किन + चित्
(घ) किं + चित्

4. अधोलिखितवाक्येषु रेखाङ्कितपदेषु सन्धिच्छेदं सन्धिं वा अधो दत्तैः शुद्धपदैः चित्वा लिखत।
(नीचे लिखे रेखांकित शब्दों की सन्धि विच्छेद अथवा सन्धि नीचे दिए गए शुद्ध शब्दों द्वारा चुनकर लिखिए।)
(Choose the separate or join the following underlined by the given correct words.)

(i) आयुर्वेदः तृतीया विद्या आसीत्।
(क) आयुर् + वेदः
(ख) आयुष् + वेदः
(ग) आयुः + वेदः
(घ) आयु + वेदः

(ii) मम + एतत् सौभाग्यं वर्तते।
(क) ममेतत्
(ख) ममीतत्
(ग) ममैतत्
(घ) ममुतत्

(iii) तस्मै स्नेहं ददाम्यहम्।
(क) ददामि + अहम्
(ख) ददानि + अहम्
(ग) ददामी + अहम्
(घ) ददामि + हम्

(iv) काष्ठात् + अग्निः मथ्यामानात् जायते।
(क) काष्ठादग्निः
(ख) काष्ठाताग्नि
(ग) काष्ठाताग्निः
(घ) काष्ठादाग्निः

(v) भूमिः + तोयं खन्यमाना ददाति।
(क) भूमिष्तोयं
(ख) भूमिस्तोयं
(ग) भूमिायं
(घ) भूमितोयं

(vi) तच्चन्दनपादपस्य शाखायां सर्पाः वसन्ति।
(क) तत् + चन्दनपादपस्य
(ख) तद् + चन्दनपादपस्य
(ग) तच् + चन्दनपादपस्य
(घ) तन् + चन्दनपादपस्य

5. अधोलिखित रेखाङ्कितपदेषु यथास्थानं सन्धिः/विच्छेदो निम्नस्थानेषु दत्तैः उचितैः पदैः चित्वा लिखत।
(नीचे लिखे रेखांकित शब्दों की सन्धि विच्छेद अथवा सन्धि निम्न दिए गए उचित पदों से चुनकर लिखिए।)
(Choose the separate or join the following underlined words by given the correct words.)

(i) मुनयः ईशभक्तौ तत् + लीनाः अभवन्।
(क) तल्लीनाः
(ख) तच्लीनाः
(ग) तन्लीनाः
(घ) तंलीनाः

(ii) राक्षसाः नीरसम् भोजनं खादन्ति। .
(क) निर् + रसम्
(ख) नी + रसम्
(ग) नीर् + रसम्
(घ) नि + रसम्

(iii) आपणेषु + अपि विद्युत् गता।
(क) आपणेषपि
(ख) आपणेष्वपि
(ग) आपणेषुअपि
(घ) आपणेषुपि

(iv) एते छात्राः सच्छीलाः सन्ति।
(क) सम् + छीलाः
(ख) सद् + शीलाः
(ग) सच् + शीलाः
(घ) सत् + शीलाः

(v) यदि + अपि त्वं धर्मेन्द्रः तथापि सत्यं न जानाति।
(क) यदिपि
(ख) यदिअपि
(ग) यद्यपि
(घ) यदपि

(vi) पुनरपि त्वं अत्र आगमिष्यसि।
(क) पुनर् + रपि
(ख) पुनः + अपि
(ग) पुनर् + अपि
(घ) पुनार् + अपि

6. अधोलिखितम् रेखाङ्कितपदेषु सन्धिच्छेदं/सन्धि अधोलिखितैः शुद्धपदैः चित्वा लिखत।
(नीचे लिखे रेखांकित पदों की सन्धि विच्छेद अथवा सन्धि नीचे दिए गए पदों में से शुद्ध पर चुनकर लिखिए।)
(Choose the separate or join the underlined words by choose the following correct words.)

(i) अद्यावकाशः अस्ति।
(क) अद्य + अवकाशः
(ख) अद्या + वकाशः
(ग) अद्य + आवकाशः
(घ) अद्या + आवकाशः

(ii) मुनिः बद्ध + अंजलिः अवदत्।
(क) बद्धांजलिः
(ख) बद्धंजलिः
(ग) बद्धजांलिः
(घ) बद्धर्जलिः

(iii) एका बलाका तस्योपरि विष्ठाम् उदसृजत्।
(क) तस्यो + परि
(ख) तस्य + उपरि
(ग) तस्य + परि
(घ) तस्य + ओपरि

(iv) साम्प्रतं वदतु कोऽहम्।
(क) को + हम्
(ख) को + अहम्
(ग) को + ऽहम्
(घ) कः + आहम्

(v) दन्तैहीनः शिलाभक्षी परपादेन गच्छति।
(क) दन्तैः + हीनः
(ख) दन्तैर + हीनः
(ग) दन्तै + हीनः
(घ) दन्तै + हीनः

(vi) रमा + ईशः विद्यालयं गच्छति।
(क) रमेशः
(ख) रामेशः
(ग) रमीशः
(घ) रमिशः

पाठ्यपुस्तके प्रदत्तपदानां सन्धिच्छेदः सन्धिः वा करणम्

निम्न रेखांकित पदानां सन्धि विच्छेदं का कृत्वा लिखत
(निम्नरेखांकित पदों का सन्धि अथवा विच्छेद करके लिखिए-)

पाठः 1
(1) शं नश्चतस्त्रः प्रदिशो भवन्तु।
(2) शं नः सिन्धवः शमु सन्त्वापः।
(3) मित्रस्याहं चक्षुषा सर्वाणि भूतानि समीक्षा
(4) अभयं ज्ञातादभयं पुरो यः।
(5) यत्किञ्च जगत्यां जगत्।
उत्तर:
(1) नः + चतस्त्रः, प्रदिशः + भवन्तु
(2) सन्तु + आपः
(3) मित्रस्य + अहं
(4) ज्ञातात् + अभयं
(5) यत् + किम् + च

पाठः 2
(1) कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्, कोऽरुक्।
(2) तदैव एकस्य शिष्यस्य दृष्टिः वृक्षस्थे विहगे अपतत्।
(3) एकम् + वनम् आसीत्।
(4) तत् + च नित्यं प्रभुञ्जीत।
(5) स्वास्थ्यं येनानुवर्तते।
(6) मा मा + एवम्।
(7) ग्रीष्मः, वर्षा, शरद्, शिशिरः, हेमन्तः, वसन्तः, चेति।
(8) तस्याशिताद्यादाहारात
(9) बलवर्णञ्च वर्धते।
(10) तस्यत्सात्मयं विदितम्।
(11) प्रियच्छात्राः।
(12) चत्वारि सूत्राणि सर्वदा + एव स्मर्तव्यानि।
उत्तर:
(1) को + अरुक्/कः + अरुक्
(2) तदा + एव
(3) एकं वनम्
(4) तच्च
(5) येन + अनुवर्तते
(6) मैवम्
(7) च + इति
(8) तस्य + अशित + आद्यात् + आहारात्
(9) बलवर्णम् + च
(10) तस्य + ऋतुसात्मयं
(11) प्रिय + छात्राः
(12) सर्वदैव

पाठः 3
(1) सङ्कथनं सम्प्रीतिश्च परस्परम्।
(2) आशायाः ये दासास्ते दासाः सर्वलोकस्य।
(3) अव्यवस्थितचित्तानां प्रसादोऽपि भयङ्करः।
(4) कराविव शरस्य।
(5) नेत्रयोरिव पक्ष्मणी।
(6) आरभन्ते + अल्पमेव + अज्ञाः।
(7) महारम्भाः कृतधियस्तिष्ठन्ति।
(8) अनुग्रहः + च, दानम् + च शीलमेतत् प्रशस्यते।
उत्तर:
(1) सम्प्रीतिः + च
(2) दासाः + ते
(3) प्रसादः + अपि/प्रसादो + अपि
(4) करौ + इव
(5) नेत्रयोः + इव
(6) आरभन्तेऽल्पमेवाज्ञाः
(7) कृतधियः + तिष्ठन्ति
(8) अनुग्रहश्च, दानञ्च

पाठः 4
(1) पुरतः हिमाच्छन्नः गिरिराजः।
(2) नैव, नैव। त्वां हत्वा गां रक्षामि।
(3) वनस्य रक्षार्थं नियुक्तः किकरोऽस्मि।
(4) भगवान् शिवः ममापि आराधनीयः देवः।
(5) मम नाम कुम्भोदरः।
(6) भवता तु रुद्र + ओजसा अस्यां प्रहारः कृतः।
(7) न + एतत् शक्यम्।
(8) अहं मूढोवा बुधो वा।
(9) नवं वयः कान्तमिदं वपुश्च।
(10) किमप्यहिंस्यस्तव चेन्मतोऽहम्।
(11) पिण्डेषु + अनास्था खलु भौतिकेषु।
(12) मातः! क्वासौ सिंहः?
उत्तर:
(1) हिम + आच्छन्नः
(2) न + एव
(3) किङ्करो + अस्मि/किङ्करः + अस्मि
(4) मम + अपि
(5) कुम्भ + उदरः
(6) रुद्रौजसा
(7) नैतत्
(8) मूढः + वा
(9) वपुः + च
(10) किम् + अपि + अहिंस्यः + तव
(11) पिण्डेष्वनास्था
(12) क्व + असो

पाठः 5
(1) कुरु निर्मलम् उज्ज्वलम् अयि।
(2) शान्तं तवच्छन्दः।
(3) निर् + संशयं कुरु है।
उत्तर:
(1) उत् + ज्वलम्
(2) तव + छन्दः
(3) निस्संशयं

पाठः 6
(1) बालमित्रैः सह विविधाः क्रीडाः कुर्वनपि दोषपूर्णम् आचरणं न कृतवान्।
(2) अयं राज्यलोभं परित्यज्य स्वाग्रजस्य अनुमत्या वनं प्राविशत्।
(3) असौ बहुवारं तस्करैः दुष्टैः च गृहीतः पीड़ितश्च।
(4) मान + अपमानौ तस्य कृते समौ आस्ताम्।
(5) महाजनो येन ग्रातः स पन्थाः ।
(6) धन्याः + तु ते भारतभूमि भागे।
(7) स्वर्गापवर्गास्पदमार्ग भूते।
(8) विद्यासखापरमबन्धुरवेह लोके।
(9) नष्टं द्रव्यं प्राप्यते हि+उद्यमेन।
(10) नष्टारोग्यं सूपचारैः सुसाध्यम्।
(11) नाभ्यर्थितो जलधरोऽपि जलं ददाति।
(12) भोगा न भुक्ताः वयमेव भुक्ताः।
(13) मनस्तु साधुध्वनिभिः पदे पदे।
(14) नैको मुनिः + यस्य मतं प्रमाणम्।
उत्तर:
(1) कुर्वन् + अपि
(2) स्व + अग्रजस्य
(3) पीडितः + च
(4) मानापमानौ
(5) महाजनः + येन
(6) धन्यास्तु
(7) स्वर्ग + अपवर्ग + आस्पदमार्ग
(8) परमबन्धुः + अव + इह
(9) युद्यमेन
(10) नष्ट + आरोग्यं, सु + उपचारैः
(11) जलधरो + अपि/जलधरः + अपि
(12) भोगाः + न
(13) मनः + तु
(14) न + एकः, मुनिर्यस्य

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2013 Outside Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:

• • The question paper contains 26 questions.
  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Question no. 1 to 11 carry 1 mark each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 10-20 words each.
  • Questions no. 12 to 19 carry 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 30-50 words each.
  • Questions no. 20 to 26 carry 5 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 75-100 words each.

** Answer is not given due to change in present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2013 Outside Delhi Set – I

Question 1.
Name the most densely populated region in North America. [1]
Answer:
North-East USA.

Question 2.
Give the meaning of Age-sex structure of population. [1]
Answer:
The Age Sex structure of population generally deals with the number of male and female of different age groups.

Question 3.
Which highway connects north America to south America ? [1]
Answer:
Pan-American Highway.

Question 4.
What are naval ports ? Give one example of naval port. [1]
Answer:
Naval ports are those which have only strategic importance. These ports serve worships and have repair workshops for them.
Example-Kochi, Karwar.

Question 5.
Define the term ‘tertiary activities’. [1]
Answer:
The tertiary activities involve the provision of services to other business as well as final consumers. Services may involve the transport, distribution and sale of goods from producer to a consumer, as may happen in wholesaling and retailing, or may involve the provision of a service, such as in pest control or entertainment.

Question 6.
Give any two examples of ‘quaternary activities’. [1]
Answer:

1. Collection of information.
2. Production of information.

Question 7.
Give the meaning of ‘clustered rural settlement’ in India. [1]
Answer:
The clustered rural settlement is the kind of settlement that generally develops in the fertile plain and river valleys. The density of population in such areas is very high because of high productivity of the land.

Question 8.
State the main functions of ‘Border Roads Organization’ (BRO). [1]
Answer:
The main functions of BRO are :

1. In peace
   • To develop and maintain the operational road infrastructure of general staff in the border areas.
   • To contribute to the socio-economic development of the border states.
2. In War
   • To develop and maintain roads to keep line of control through in original sectors and re-deployed sectors.
   • To execute additional tasks as laid down by the government contributing to the war effort.

Question 9.
Name the major seaport located on Hooghly River. [1]
Answer:
Kolkata port.

Question 10.
Mention any two sources of land pollution in India. [1]
Answer:
The sources of land pollution in India are :

1. Untreated industrial wastes.
2. Excessive use of pesticides and fertilizers.

Question 11.
Define ‘Human Geography’ in your own words. Mention any four fields of human geography. [3]
Answer:
Human geography is the study of the many cultural aspects found throughout the world and how they relate to the spaces and places where they originate and then travel as people continually move across various areas.

Some of the main cultural phenomena studied in human geography include language, religion, different economic and governmental structures, art, music, and other cultural aspects that explain how and/or why people function as they do in the areas in which they live. Globalization is also becoming increasingly important to the field of human geography as it is following these specific aspects of culture to easily travel across the globe.
Fields:

1. Social geography,
2. Urban geography
3. Political geography,
4. Population geography,
5. Settlement geography,
6. Economic geography.

Question 12.
Describe three main sources of noise pollution in India. [3]
Answer:

1. Industries and factories.
2. Mechanized construction works.
3. Automobiles.

Question 13.
Describe any three advantages of water transport in the world. [3]
Answer:

1. It does not require the construction of routes because it is naturally built. Requirement of construction is nominal in comparison to other sources of transportation.
2. Entire world is linked up with this medium.
3. The cost of transportation is lower in comparison to other modes.

Question 14.
Explain any three characteristics of modern large scale manufacturing in the world. [3]
Answer:

1. Mechanization.
2. Specialization of different skills.
3. Innovation in technology.
4. Organizational structure and stratification.
5. Uneven Geographic Distribution.

Question 15.
Explain any three characteristics each of hamleted and dispersed rural settlement in India. [3]
Answer:
Hamleted Rural Settlement:

1. Houses are clustered or compacted and congested.
2. Poor sanitation and ventilation.
3. Houses are close to each other and streets are very narrow.
4. These units are locally called Panna, Para, Nagla, Dhani, etc., in various parts of the country.

Dispersed Rural Settlement:

1. It appears in India in the form of isolated huts or hamlets.
2. Safety of these households is threatened because of isolation.
3. Households have to travel a long distance for basic commodities.
4. Many areas of Meghalaya, Uttaranchal, Himachal Pradesh and Kerala have this type of settlement.

Question 16.
Explain any three features of ‘dry land farming’ in India. [3]
Answer:
Dry and farming: It refers to an ingrained system of cultivation where by maximum amount of water is conserved by soil and water management.

Characteristics :

1. It is mainly practised in areas with uncertain or limited annual rainfall.
2. Prevalence of more cropping.
3. Mostly similar crops are grown by almost all the farmers of a particular region.

Question 17.
Examine any three causes for the deterioration of ‘quality of water’ in India. [3]
Answer:

1. Wastes caused by urbanization and industrialization.
2. Excessive use of pesticides in farming.
3. Rivers receive millions of liters of sewage, mining, industrial wastes.

Question 18.
Give two advantages of ‘wind energy’. Mention four states of India having favourable conditions for the development of wind energy. [3]
Answer:
The advantages of wind energy are :

1. The wind is free and with modern technology it can be captured efficiently.
2. Once the wind turbine is built the energy it produces does not cause greenhouse gases or other pollutants.
3. Although wind turbines can be very tall each takes up only a small plot of land.

This means that the land below can still be used. This is especially the case in agricultural areas as farming can still continue.

States having favourable conditions are :

1. Rajasthan
2. Gujarat
3. Maharashtra and Karnataka.

Question 19.
Analyse any three locational factors which helped in the development of ‘Hooghly Industrial Region’. [3]
Answer:

1. Development of river ports in Hooghly River.
2. Mega city located near by Hooghly river is Kolkata that is well connected with other sources of transportation.
3. Availability of cheap labour from West-Bengal and Bihar regions.

Question 20.
“Equity is one of the most important pillars of human development.” Explain any three human values that are required to give equal access to opportunities to everybody. ** [3]

Question 21.
Study the given map, showing dairy farming regions, carefully and answer the following questions :

Question 21.1.
Identify and name the areas A and B, marked on the map. [5]
Answer:
A-Canada & North-east USA. B-North-western Europe

Question 21.2.
Define ‘dairy farming’.
Answer:
Dairy farming is described as a class of animal or agricultural husbandry that deals with milk production from dairy cows, sheep and goats. The milk may be transported to a dairy factory or be processed on site.

Question 21.3.
Explain any three characteristics of dairy farming.
Answer:

• It is most advanced type of farming for rearing milk animals.
• It is highly labour intensive farming.
• It is practiced near urban areas.

Question 22.
Explain the two types of international trade. Examine any three possible negative impacts of globalization along with free trade in the world. [5]
Answer:
Two types of international trade are :

1. Bilateral Trade : This type of trade is done by two countries with each other. They enter into agreement to trade specified commodites amongst them.
2. Multilateral Trade : This type of trade is conducted with many countries. The same country can trade with a number of other countries. The country may also grant the status of the ‘Most Favoured Nation’ (MFN) on some of the trading partners.

Negative impact of globalization :

1. Local producers are not able to compete with the foreign market products because they provide some kind of products at cheaper rates.
2. Uncertainty of employment has increased cultural invasion.
3. Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods, as long with free trade dumped goods of cheaper price can harm the domestic producers.

Question 23.
Explain any five factors that affect the location of rural settlements of the world. [5]
Answer:
The factors that affect the location of rural settlements of the World are:
(i) Water Supply : Usually rural settlements are located near water bodies such as rivers, lakes and springs where water can be easily obtained. The need for water drives people to settle in islands surrounded by swamps or low lying riverbanks. Water supply is main factor because water is used for drinking, cooking and washing, rivers and lakes can be used to irrigate farm land, water bodies also have fish which can be caught for diet and navigable rivers and lakes can be used for transportation.

(ii) Land: People choose to settle near fertile lands suitable for agriculture. Early settlers chose plain areas with fertile soils. In Europe villagers are found near gently sloping land, in south East Asia villages are near low lying river valleys and coastal plains suited for wet rice cultivation.

(iii) Upland: Villages are located on uplands, which is not prone to flooding. Thus, in low-lying river basins people chose to settle on terraces and levees, which are “dry points”.
In tropical countries people build their houses on stilts near marshy lands to protect themselves from flood, insects and animal pests.

(iv) Building Material: The availability of building materials— wood, stone near settlements is another factor. Early villages were built in forests where wood was plentiful. In African Savanna’s mud bricks are used as building materials and the Eskimos, in Polar Regions, use ice blocks to construct igloos.

(v) Defence : During the times of political instability, war, aggression of neighboring groups, villages were built on defensive hills and islands. In Nigeria, villages are built on upstanding rocks; in India most of the forts are located on hills.

Question 24.
Examine any five push factors that cause ‘migration of population’ in India. [5]
Answer:

1. Large number of young people are migrating because rural India is saturated and cannot provide employment opportunities for a growing population.
2. Most women migrants have migrated after marriage. In North India, women are not supposed to marry a man from the same village. So invariably marriage means migration. ,
3. Many end up as rag pickers or casual construction workers. Many don’t get employment throughout the year and commute between urban and rural areas. After the harvest, they migrate to urban areas for a few months before the rainy season.
4. Intolerance towards a certain class, sector cultural group also causes migration.
5. Natural disasters or epidemics are also causes of migration because it causes outbreaks of diseases which may be life-threatening.

Question 25.
What are National Highways ? Explain any four uses of National Highways in India. [5]
Answer:
The National Highways are a network of highways that is managed and maintained by agencies of the Government of India. These highways measured over 70,934 km as of 2010, including over 1,000 km of limited- access Expressways.
Uses of National Highways :

1. It works as mega source of transportation. National highways constituted about 2% of all the roads in India, but carried about 40% of the total traffic of 2010.
2. National highways form the economic backbone of the country and have often facilitated development along their routes, and many new towns have sprung up along major highways.
3. It connects almost all mega cities. Basically these are meant for inter-state transport.
4. It is connected to or passes nearby the industries so that their products can reach out to market easily.

Question 26.
(i) In the given political outline map of the world, four features have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify these features with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. [5]

(A) A major sea port Human Development Index.
(B) A major airport
(C) The country having highest rank in farming.
(D) An area of extensive commercial grain
Answer:

(ii) Locate and label the following on the political outline map of India with appropriate symbols.
(a) A state having highest literacy rate. Zone.
(b) A copper mining area of southern Jharkhand,
(c) Headquarter of North-Western Railway
(ii)

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2013 Outside Delhi Set – II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 2.
What is the difference between the Growth and Development ? [1]
Answer:
Growth is a narrower concept than development. Development is an increase in a country’s real level of national output which can be caused by an increase in the quality of resources (by education etc.), increase .in the quality1-of resources and improvements in technology or in another way an increase in the value of goods and’services produced by every sector of the economy.

Question 5.
Give the meaning of Retail trading services. [1]
Answer:
Retail trading services are kind of business engaged in offering goods and services directly to • consumers. In most cases, retail outlets are primarily concerned with selling merchandise.

Question 8.
State the main functions of ‘National Highway Authority of India’ (NHAI). [1]
Answer:
Main functions of NHAI are :

1. Development of National Highways across India.
2. Maintain the National Highways and ensure the safety.

Question 9.
How has the Gaddi Tribal community of Bharmaur region maintained a distinct identity ? [1]
Answer:

1. They practiced transhumance in the Himalayan Region.
2. They conserved their culture through Gaddian dialect.

Question 13.
What is free trade ? Give two advantages of free trade. [3]
Answer:
Free trade is a policy in international markets in which governments do not restrict imports or exports. Free trade is exemplified by the European Union/European Economic Area and the North American Free Trade Agreement, which have established open markets. Most nations are today members of the World Trade Organization (WTO) multilateral trade agreements.
Advantages :

1. Goods and services can reach to everywhere.
2. Foreign goods can compete with domestic goods.

Question 14.
Give the meaning of high-tech industry. State any two characteristics of this industry. [3]
Answer:
The term high-tech refers to technology that is at the cutting edge : the most advanced technology available. It is often used in reference to microelectronics, rather than other technologies. This sector contains business revolving around the manufacturing of electronics, creation of software, computers or products and services relating to information technology.

Characteristics :

1. Professional workers make a large share to its workforce.
2. These industries are neatly spread, low, modern, dispersed, office plant lab building rather than massive structures.

Question 16.
Describe any three characteristics of Svetland farming’ in India. [3]
Answer:
The characteristics of wetland farming in India:

1. The rainfall is excessive of soil moisture requirements.
2. These regions often face flood or soil erosion hazards.
3. Water intensive crops are grown like-paddy, jute etc.

Question 19.
Explain any three locational factors which helped in the development of ‘Gujarat Industrial Region’. [3]
Answer:
Location factors which helped in the development of Gujarat Industrial Region are :

1. Gujarat is basically known for cotton industries. Raw material for this industry is easily available here.
2. Market for industries are nearby cities like – Ahmedabad, Surat, Vadodara etc.
3. The discovery of oil fields led the establishment of petrochemical industries around Ankleshwar, Jamnagar and Vadodara.
4. Anand has developed as biggest dairy products producing city in India.

Question 23.
Explain any five patterns of rural settlements in the world with the help of suitable diagrams. [5]
Answer:
On the basis of forms of shapes, the 5 patterns of rural settlements in the world are :

1. Linear Pattern:
   • These type of setdements have two parallel rows of houses facing each other.
   • In such setdements, houses are located along a road, railway line, river or a canal edge.
   • These type of setdements are common in coastal Kerala, Manipur, Bala Ghat, Mandala and Raigrah districts of Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
   • Linear setdements are also common feature of Nagaland.
   • Fishing villages in the coastal areas also look like linear cluster.
2. Rectangular Pattern :
   • Such villages develop at the meeting place of two roads.
   • The streets are either parallel or perpendicular to each other and the settlement takes a rectangular shape.
   • These type of settlements are more common in the Northern plain especially in the Ganga-Yamuna Doab.
   • These settlements are also found in Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and the states of South India.
3. Circular Pattern :
   • When the houses are constructed along a bank of a pond or a lake, the settlement takes the shape of circle and is known as circular pattern.
   • These type of settlements are mainly found
     in Upper Ganga-Yamuna Doab, Trans-Yamuna region and in parts of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
4. Star-like Pattern :
   • A village acquires a star-like pattern when streets radiate from a common centre.
   • Expansion of these villages due to population growth leads to the formation of a double radial pattern. In this pattern, several roads converge star shaped settlements developed by houses built along the roads.
   • This type of pattern is more common in Tamil Nadu and Upper Ganga Plain.
5. T-shaped Pattern : Villages and towns confined between two rivers at their junction or confluence or between bifurcations of two roads eventually result in a T-shape pattern. Such pattern develops at tri-junction of roads.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2013 Outside Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2014 Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:

• • The question paper contains 26 questions.
  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Question no. 1 to 11 carry 1 mark each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 10-20 words each.
  • Questions no. 12 to 19 carry 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 30-50 words each.
  • Questions no. 20 to 26 carry 5 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 75-100 words each.

** Answer is not given due to change in present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2014 Delhi Set – I

Question 1.
Define the term ‘quaternary activities’. [1]
Answer:
The term ‘quaternary activities’ is a way to describe the knowledge-based part of the economy which typically includes services such as information generation, collection, production and dissemination of information and sharing information technology, consultation, education, research and development, financial planning, and other knowledge-based services. Government and Media are examples of it.

Question 2.
Give the meaning of ‘digital divide’. [1]
Answer:
A digital divide is an economic and social inequality according to categories of persons in a given population for their access to, use of, or knowledge of information and communication technologies (ICT ). The divide within countries, may refer to inequalities between individuals, households, businesses or geographic areas, usually at different socio-econommic levels or other demographic categories.

Question 3.
Name the sea-ports on each end of Suez Canal. [1/2 + 1/2 = 1]
Answer:

1. Port Said on its north,
2. Port Suez on its south.

Question 4.
Define the term ‘road density’. [1]
Answer:
Road density is the ratio of the length of the country’s total road network to the country’s land area. The road network includes all roads in the country; motorways, highways, main or national roads, secondary or regional roads, and other urban and rural roads.

Question 5.
Give any two examples of ancient towns of India. [1/2 + 1/2 = 1]
Answer:

1. Varanasi (Benaras),
2. Patliputra (Patna)

Question 6.
Name the country which is the largest trading partner of India. [1]
Answer:
USA.

Question 7.
Name the sea-port which was constructed to reduce the congestion at Kolkata port. [1]
Answer:
Haldia Port.

Question 8.
Name the major sea-port which was developed just after independence on the Western coast of India. [1]
Answer:
Kandla Port.

Question 9.
What is truck farming ? [1]
Answer:
Truck farming refers to growing one or more vegetable crops on a large scale for shipment to distant markets. It is usually less intensive fields are small in size and diversified than market gardening. The major truck-farming areas are in California, Texas, Florida, along the Atlantic Coastal Plain and in the Great Lakes area.

Question 10.
Mention the root cause of ‘acid rains’. [1]
Answer:
Causes of acid rain are :

1. Air pollution
2. Urban smog due to automobiles.

Question 11.
“There is mutual interaction between the elements of Physical Geography and Human Geography”. Support the statement with suitable examples. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
Human and physical geography is the study of the environment, people, and the resources they use. Geography determines the way in which humans live, the adaptations they have developed to survive, and the alterations to the environment they have made to better their existence. The impact of human interaction with the environment has mixed results. While human life has been improved and made more comfortable, the environment has been damaged in a variety of ways.

For example, climate is a very important part in the study of human and physical geography. Climate is the usual weather patterns that occur in an area over a long period of time.

Question 12.
Describe any three characteristics of ‘Household Industries’. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
Characteristics of household industries are:

1. It is the smallest manufacturing unit.
2. They use simple hand tools to produce goods.
3. Final products are locally marketed.

Question 13.
Study the map given below and answer the questions that follow: [1/2 + 1/2 + 2 = 3]

13.1. Name the railway line shown on this map.
13.2. Name the terminal station of this railway along the Atlantic coast.
13.3. Why is this railway line known as ‘economic artery’ of the country through which it passes ?
Answer:
13.1. Trans-Canadian Railway
13.2. Halifax
13.3. Because it connects the agricultural region with the industrial region.

Question 14.
Differentiate between rural and urban settlements of India in three points. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:

1. Rural settlements depend upon primary economic activities whereas urban settlement depends upon secondary and tertiary sectors of economy.
2. Rural settlement produces food grains and raw materials. Urban settlement gives goods or service to others.
3. Rural settlements are small in size and sparsely located. Urban settlements are fewer but of large size.

Question 15.
State any two characteristics each of the three distinct ‘cropping seasons’ of India. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
The three distinct cropping seasons are :
Kharif season :

1. This season depends upon south west monsoon.
2. This season falls between June to September.
3. Major crops :
   Rice, jowar, maize, bajra, etc.

Rabi Season :

1. This season begins with onset of winter.
2. The period of this season is from October to March.
3. Major crops – Wheat, gram, mustard, barley, etc.

Zaid Season :

1. It is a short duration between Rabi and Kharif.
2. Major crops of the season are — Watermelon, fruits, vegetables, fodder crops.

Question 16.
Explain any three main characteristics of mineral resources of India. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:

1. India has a large number of economically useful minerals but unevenly distributed over space and they constitute one-quarter of the world’s known mineral resources.
2. About two-third of its iron deposits lies in the belt along Odisha and Bihar border.
3. India has the world’s largest deposits of coal. Bituminous coal is found in Jharia and Bokaro in Bihar and Raniganj in West Bengal. Lignite coal is found in Neyveli in Tamil Nadu.

Question 17.
Describe any three advantages of satellite communication in India. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:

1. It is used for weather forecast and monitoring natural calamities.
2. It is used for border surveillance.
3. It makes communication faster.

Question 18.
Why is the ‘Urban Waste Disposal’ a serious problem in India ? Explain any three reasons. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:

1. Localized environmental health problems such inadequate household water and sanitation and indoor air pollution.
2. City-regional environmental problems such as ambient air pollution, inadequate waste management and pollution of rivers, lakes and coastal areas.
3. Impact of urban activities such as ecological disruption and resource depletion in a city’s hinterland, and emissions of acid precursors and I greenhouse gases.
4. Regional or global environmental burdens that arise from activities outside a city’s boundaries, but I which will affect people living in the city.

Question 19.
Study the diagram given below, showing the I location of an important steel plant in India, and answer the questions that follow :[1 + 1 + 1 = 3]
(i) Identify the steel plant and name it.
(ii) Mention the thermal power plant which supplies power to it.
(iii) Mention the source of water for this plant.

Answer:
(i) Bhilai Steel Plant
(ii) Korba Thermal Plant supplies power to it.
(iii) Tandula Tank is the main water source.

Question 20.
Analyse the economic and social values of rainwater harvesting. **[3]

Question 21.
Explain the three components of population change in the world. Analyse the impacts of population change. [3 + 2 = 5]
Answer:
Components of population change in the world are :
(i) Higher birth rate
(ii) Lower death rate
(iii) Migration.

Impact:

1. In developing countries like India the levels of maternal and infant mortality are very high. Repeated childbirths are seen as an insurance against multiple infant and child deaths. Vast numbers of people cannot avail of the services provided by government sponsored family planning programmes even when they are available, due to problems of knowledge and its access.
2. As the population grows, the pressure on natural resources will increase.
3. Population pressure will reduce the per capita availability of land for farming, which will affect availability of food grain, drinking water etc.
4. Pressure on basic amenities also increases due to change in population.

Question 22.
Describe any five characteristics of ‘Commercial Livestock Rearing’ practised in the world.
[5 × 1 = 5]
Answer:
Characteristics of Commercial Livestock Rearing practice are :

1. It is more organized and capital-intensive activity.
2. It is practiced on permanent ranches.
3. Parcels are fenced to regulate the grazing.
4. The number of animals in a pasture is kept according to the carrying capacity of the pasture.
5. The basic emphasis is on breeding, genetic improvement, disease control and healthcare of the animals.

Question 23.
Differentiate between Bilateral trade and Multilateral trade. Explain how ports are helpful in trade. [2 + 3 = 5]
Answer:
(i) Bilateral Trade : It is the exchange of goods between two countries. Bilateral trade agreements give preference to certain countries in commercial relationships, facilitating trade and investment between the home country and the foreign country by reducing or eliminating tariffs, import quotas, export restraints and other trade barriers. Bilateral trade agreements can also help minimize trade deficits.

(ii) Multilateral Trade : A trading system that facilitates the exchange of financial instruments between multiple countries. Multilateral trading allows eligible contract participants to gather and transfer a variety of securities, especially instruments that may not have an official market. These facilities are often electronic systems controlled by approved market operators or larger investment banks. Traders will usually submit orders electronically, where a matching software engine is used to pair buyers with sellers.

Ports are backbone of world trade, and play a key role in inward and outward movement of goods, and countries, which built good ports with excellent infrastructure became competitive manufacturing centers/hubs. Good quality port infrastructure is essential for the growth of trade and competitiveness of the manufacturing sector. For example, port sector plays an important role in the growth of Indian economy. Ninety percent of trade by volume and seventy percent of trade by value is carried out by maritime transportation, which involves handling through port. Trade or manufacturing based economy cannot grow without sufficient high quality port infrastructure.

Question 24.
Describe any five patterns of rural settlements in the world on the basis of forms of shapes. [5 × 1 = 5]
Answer:
On the basis of forms of shapes, the five patterns of rural settlements in the world are :

1. Linear Pattern – In such settlements, houses are located along a road, railway fine, river or a canal edge.
2. Rectangular Pattern — In such pattern, roads cut each other at right angle. These patterns can be seen in plain areas.
3. Circular Pattern – Such patterns develop around lakes, tanks or likewise places.
4. Star like Pattern — In the pattern, several roads converge star shaped settlements developed by houses built along the roads.
5. T-shaped Pattern – Such pattern develops at tri-junction of roads.

Question 25.
“The decades 1921-51 are referred to as the period of steady growth of population whereas the decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India.” Explain giving reasons. [21/2 + 21/2 = 5]
Answer:
1921-51 are considered to be period of steady growth because :

1. During this period the population increased from 251 million to 361 million.
2. The mortality rate started to decline due to improvement in general health and sanitation conditions.
3. The crude birth rate remained high the combined effect of these factors was that the population started increasing steadily.

1951-81 Period of Population Explosion :

1. After 1951, there was a steady pace in the mortality rate.
2. The fertility rate remained high.
3. This unprecedented growth rate was due to the improvement in wealth facilities, living condition. Death rate declined much faster than the birth rates. This resulted in high natural increase. Thus their period is called the period of population explosion.

Question 26.
(i) In the given political outline Map of the world four features A, B, C and D have been shown. Identify these features with the help of information given below and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. [4 × 1/2 = 2]
(A) An important sea port
(B) A terminal station of Australian Trans-continental Railway
(C) An Area of subsistence gathering
(D) The country with lowest growth rate of population (1995-2000) in Asia.

(ii) On the given political outline map of India, locate and label the following with appropriate symbols :
(A) The state having highest literacy rate.
(B) The leading state in the production of Jute.
(C) The northern most international airport.
Answer:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2014 Delhi Set – II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 4.
Mention the busiest ocean route of the world. [1]
Answer:
North-Atlantic sea route or big trunk route.

Question 7.
Name the port developed as a satellite port to relieve the pressure at Mumbai port. [1]
Answer:
Jawahar Lai Nehru port.

Question 12.
What are the traditional large scale industrial regions ? Give any two characteristics of them. [1 + 2 = 3]
Answer:
Traditional large scale industries are based on heavy industries. These are often located near coal fields and engaged in metal smelting, heavy engineering, chemical manufacturing and textile production. Some characteristics of this are :

1. High proportion of employment.
2. Unattractive environment.

Question 15.
Explain the main aims of ‘Bharmaur Tribal Area Development Plan’ ? [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
The main aims of Bharmaur Tribal Area Development Plan are :

1. This plan aims at improving the quality of life of Gaddis.
2. It also seeks at the development of transport, communication, agriculture and allied activities.
3. It also aims at the development of infrastructure like—Schools, Hospitals and Primary Check-up centres and ensures proper water and electricity supply.

Question 23.
What is the role of ‘World Trade Organization’ as an International Organization ? Why has the World Trade Organization been criticized by some countries ? Explain. [2 + 3 = 5]
Answer:
The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. The goal is to help producers of goods and services, exporters, and importers to conduct their business. Role of WTO are :
(i) Trade Negotiation : The WTO regulates agreements over goods, services and intellectual property. They spell out the principles of liberalization, and the permitted exceptions. They include individual countries’ commitments to lower customs tariff and other trade barriers, and to keep open services markets.

(ii) Implementation and Monitoring : All WTO members must undergo periodic scrutiny of their trade policies and practices, each review containing reports by the country concerned and the WTO Secretariat.

(iii) Dispute Settlement : The WTO’s procedure for resolving trade quarrels under the Dispute Settlement understanding is vital for enforcing the rules and therefore for ensuring that trade flows smoothly.

Various countries claim that the issues of labour and environment are stead fastly ignored. The absence of proper environmental regulation and resource management, increased trade might cause so much adverse damage that the gains from trade would be less than the environmental costs. The “Green room” discussion in the WTO as unrepresentative and non-inclusive; more active participants, representing more diverse interests and objectives, have complicated WTO decision-making.

Question 25.
Define the term ‘migration’. Explain the social and environmental consequences of migration in India. [1 + 2 + 2 = 5]
Answer:
Migration is the movement by people from one place to another with the intention of settling in the new location. The movement is typically over long distances and from one country to another, but internal migration is also possible. Migration may be by individuals, family units or large groups.

In India internal migration often involves longer working hours, poor living and working conditions, social isolation and poor access to basic amenities. Most migrant labourers in India are employed in the unorganised sector, where the lack of regulation compounds their vulnerability; they are largely ignored by government and NGO programmes. The social effects of migration vary widely. Sending areas may experience both gains and losses in the short-term but may stand to gain over the longer- term. For receiving areas temporary worker programs help to address skill shortages but may decrease domestic wages and add to public welfare burden. The social effects of migration for both sending and receiving areas may also vary depending on who is moving. Most migrants and refugees do not have the financial means to travel long distance. They seek a safe heaven in another region in their own or in a neighbouring country. The economically weakest countries are therefore most severely affected by migration and refugee problems.

Migration also has a demonstrable impact, both positive and negative, impact on the environment and territory in both the countries of origin and destination. Both phenomena are in reversible, proportional correlation and figure more apparently just before during the shortly after upon the undesirable environmental changes, depending on their expansion and cross-border territorial involvement in human and material sources.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2014 Delhi Set – III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 1.
Give the meaning of ‘retail trading’ services. [1]
Answer:
Retail trading services are component of domestic trade and the concluding phase of the circulation of personal consumption, in which goods and services are sold in exchange for the monetary income of the population. Retailers are business firms engaged in offering goods and services directly to consumers.

Question 8.
Define the term ‘Hinter Land’ of the port. [1]
Answer:
Hinter Land of the port is an area from which products are delivered to a port for shipping. It is the area in land from the port to which imports are distributed and from which exports are collected.

Question 12.
Explain the meaning of ‘technopolies’. Give two examples of technopolies. [2 + 1 = 3]
Answer:
High-tech industries which are regionally concentrated, self-sustained and highly specialized are called technopolies. Technopolies are neatly spaced, low, modern, dispersed, office-plant-lab buildings rather than massive assembly structures, factories and storage areas mark the high-tech industrial landscape. Planned business parks for high- tech start-ups are also a part of technopolies. The Silicon valley near San Francisco and Silicon forest near Seattle are examples of technopolies.

Question 17.
Explain the significance of internet services in the field of personal communication system in India. [3]
Answer:
In India, among all personal communications, Internet services play a significant role. They enable the user to establish the direct contact through e-mail to get access to the world of knowledge and information. Its demand is increasing day-by-day for e-commerce and carrying out money transaction. The internet is a huge central warehouse of data, with detailed information on various items, which enables the basic facilities of direct communication at very low cost.

Question 18.
Explain with examples, how the industries are responsible for polluting water resources in India. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
The dumping of industrial waste into rivers leads to water pollution. Industries generate ordinary domestic sewage that can be treated by municipal facilities but those industries that generate waste water with high concentrations of conventional pollutants (eg., oil and grease), toxic pollutants (eg., heavy metals, volatile organic compounds) or other non-conventional pollutants such as ammonia are highly responsible for polluting the water resources. When these enter the water resources from industries deteriorate the quality of water and render it unfit for human use. This in turn, limits the availability of usable water resources. Most industries in India do not follow the norms and let the waste water go into the rivers without the process of detoxification. For example—The Yamuna River is the most polluted river in the country between Delhi and Etawah. This is just because industries between these two cities do not detoxify their waste water. Other severely polluted river is the Sabarmati river at Ahmedabad.

Question 21.
Give the meaning of ‘human development’. Explain the four pillars of human development. [1 + 4 = 5]
Answer:
Human development is defined as the process of enlarging people’s freedoms and opportunities and improving their well-being. Human development is about the real freedom ordinary people have to decide who to be, what to do, and how to live.

Human development shares a common vision with human rights. The goal is human freedom. Therefore, human development is interconnected with human rights and human freedom because in well-managed prisons life expectancy and literacy as measured by the Human Development Index could be quite high and in pursuing capabilities and realizing rights, this freedom is vital. People must be free to exercise their choices and to participate in decision-making that affects their lives. The four pillars of human development are as follows :

1. Equity: Equity is the idea of fairness for every person, between men and women; we each have the right to an education and health care.
2. Sustainability : Sustainability is the view that we all have the right to earn a living that can sustain our lives and have access to a more even distribution of goods.
3. Productivity : Productivity states the full participation of people in the process of income generation.
4. Empowerment: Empowerment is the freedom of the people to influence development and decision that affect their lives.

Question 25.
Explain why Kerala has a higher level of human development than other States of India. [5]
Answer:
Freedom from hunger, poverty, servitude, bondage, ignorance, illiteracy and any other form of domination is the key to human development.

Kerala with the composite index value of 0.638 is placed at the top rank on Human Development Index (India)-2001.

There are several socio-political, economic and historical reasons for such a state of affairs. Kerala is able to record the highest value in the HDI largely due to its impressive performance in achieving almost hundred percent literacy (90.92 per cent) in 2001. Apart from the educational attainment, the levels of economic development too has significant impacts on HDI. Efforts to institutionalize the balanced development with its main focus on social distributive justice, has been made by the State.

Kerala has made significant achievements in most of the fields of Human Development like free from illness and ailment and living a reasonably long life span and indicative of a healthy life. Availability of pre and post natal health care facilities in order to reduce infant mortality and post-delivery deaths among mothers, old age healthcare, adequate nutrition and safety of individual are some important measures of a healthy and reasonably long life. Kerala has done reasonably well in these areas.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2014 Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2012 Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 100

General Instructions:

• All question in both sections are compulsory.
• Marks for questions are indicated against each questions.
• Question Nos. 1-4 and 13-16 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 marks each. They are required to be answered in one sentence each.
• Question Nos. 5-6 and 17-18 are short- answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 60 words each.
• Question No. 7-9 and 19-21 are also short-answer questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 70 words each.
• Question Nos. 10-12 and 22-24 are long- answer questions carrying 6 marks each. Answer to them should normally not exceed 100 words each.
• Answer should be brief and to the point and the above words limits should be adhered to as far as possible.

** Answer is not given due to change in the present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2012 Delhi Set – I

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Section – A

Question 1.
Give meaning of an Economy. [1]
Answer:
It is a system in which goods and services are produced, sold and bought in a country or region through which people get their living.

Question 2.
What is market demand ? [1]
Answer:
Market demand for a good is the sum total of demands of all the consumers in a market at a particular price during a given period of time.

Question 3.
What is the behaviour of average fixed cost as output increases? [1]
Answer:
Average Fixed Cost refers to the fixed cost per unit of output produced. It is derived by dividing the Total Fixed Cost by quantity of output produced. That is,
AFC =
As output increases, the average fixed cost (AFC) falls.

Question 4.
What is the behaviour of average revenue in a market in which a firm can sell more only by lowering the price? [1]
Answer:
AR curve slopes downward in a market in which firm can sell more only by lowering price.

Question 5.
What is a price taker firm? [1]
Answer:
A price taker firm is the firm which does not have any control over the existing market price and cannot influence it. A firm in a perfectly competitive market is regarded as a price taker firm.

Question 7.
Given price of a goods, how does a consumer decide as to how much of the good to buy? [3]
Answer:
In order to decide, how much of a good to buy at a given price, a consumer compares Marginal Utility (MU) of the good with its price (P). The consumer will be at equilibrium, when the Marginal Utility of the good will be equal to the price of the good,
i.e., MU_x = P_x
If MU_x > P_x that is, when price is lesser than the Marginal Utility, then the consumer will buy more of that good.
On the other hand, if MU_x < P_x, that is, when price is more than the Marginal Utility, then the consumer will buy less of that good. This is reflected in the following diagram.

Question 8.
Draw Average Variable Cost, Average Total Cost and Marginal Cost curves in a single diagram. [3]
Answer:

Question 9.
An individual is both the owner and the manager of a shop taken on rent. Identify implicit cost and explicit cost from this information. Explain. [3]
Answer:
In this case the implicit cost consists of imputed value of the owner’s (manager’s) services and the explicit cost consists of the rent paid for the shop.
Implicit cost (Imputed cost) refers to cost of the factor that a producer neither hires nor purchases. Such costs are not actually paid by the producers yet are included in the cost of production. It is a difference between the economic profit and accounting profit. On the other hand, explicit costs are those costs that are borne directly by a firm and are paid to the factors of production. Another way of distinguishing the two is that while explicit costs are referred to as out-of¬pocket expenses, on the other hand, implicit costs do not result in any cash outlay from the business. Thus, in the case given, the rent for the shop is to be paid by the firm, so it is considered as explicit cost, while, the costs of owner’s service are considered as implicit costs, as no cash is expended for hiring such services.

Question 10.
Explain the implication of large number of sellers in a perfectly competitive market. [3]
OR
Explain why firms are mutually interdependent in an oligopoly market.
Answer:
There exist a large number of buyers and sellers in a perfectly competitive market. The number of sellers is so large that no individual firm owns the control over the market price of a commodity. Due to the large number of sellers in the market, there exists a perfect and free competition. A firm acts as a price taker while the price is determined by the ‘invisible hands of market’, i.e., by ‘demand for’ and ‘supply of’ goods. Thus, we can conclude that under perfectly competitive market, an individual firm is a price taker and not a price maker.
OR
Oligopoly market structure consists of only a few firms. The firms under such a market structure experience a high degree of mutual interdependence. This is because the price and the output decisions of the firms are interdependent on each other. The price and output policy of a firm affects the policies and profit of another firm. This is because when one firm lowers (rises) its prices, the rival firms may or may not follow suit. This makes the demand curve under the oligopoly market structure indeterminate, thereby makes the firms mutually interdependent in an oligopoly market.

Question 11.
Define an indifference curve. Explain why an indifference curve is downward sloping from left to right. [4]
Answer:
Indifference curve is a curve that depicts various combinations of two goods that provides a consumer with the same level of satisfaction.

In the above figure, IC is the Indifference Curve. Each bundle on the IC shows those combinations of two goods that yield the consumer the same level of satisfaction.

An indifference curve is downward sloping from left to right. It implies that a consumer cannot simultaneously have more of both the goods. An increase in the quantity of one good is associated with the decrease in the quantity of the other good. This is in accordance with the assumption of monotonic preferences.

Question 12.
When price of good is ₹ 7 per unit a consumer buys 12 units. When price falls to ₹ 6 per unit he spends ₹ 72 on the good. Calculate price elasticity of demand by using the percentage method. Comment on the likely shape of demand curve based on this measure of elasticity. [4]
Answer:

Percentage change in price
= × 100 = × 100 = 14.28
Substituting the values in the formula of price elasticity of demand,
so, e_d = = 0
Thus, the demand is perfectly inelastic.
As the demand is perfectly inelastic, so the demand curve is a vertical straight line parallel to the price-axis.

Question 13.
What does the Law of Variable Proportions show? State the behaviour of total product according to this law. [4]
OR
Explain how changes in prices of other products influence the supply of a given product.
Answer:
According to this law, if more and more units of variable factor (labour) are combined with the same quantity of fixed factor (capital) then, initially the total product will increase. However, after a certain point of time, total product will start declining.
Assumptions of Law of Variable Proportions
(i) Technology level remains constant
(ii) The units of variable factors are homogeneous
(iii) One of the inputs must be fixed
(vi) No change in the input prices – wages and interests.
Behaviour of TP

OR
The supply of a given good depends on the price of other goods. In other words, the supply of the good depends on the price of its substitute goods and on the price of its complementary goods. The supply of a given good shares positive (negative) relationship with the price of its substitute goods (complementary goods).

In case of substitute goods : If the price of the substitute goods falls, then the consumer will shift their preference towards that good. As a result, the demand of good reduces. Consequently, it is not profitable to supply this good, thereby the supply of good reduces. For example, tea and coffee are substitute goods. If the price of tea falls, then the supply of coffee will fall.

In case of complementary goods : If the price of the complementary goods falls, then the consumer will shift their preference towards the given good. This will lead to increase in the demand of the given good. As a result, it becomes profitable to supply more of the good. Thereby, the supply of the good increases. For example, petrol and car are complementary goods. If, the price of petrol falls, then the supply of cars will increase.

Question 14.
Explain how do the following influence demand for a good:
(i) Rise in income of the consumer.
(ii) Fall in prices of the related goods. [6]
Answer:
(i) Rise in the income of the consumer: In case of normal goods, a rise in the income of the consumer will increase the demand for. the good. This increases leads to the outward-parallel shift of the demand curve. However, in case of inferior goods, a rise in the income of the consumer will decrease the demand for the good. This decrease leads to the inward parallel shift of the demand curve.

(ii) Fall in prices of the related goods: Let us suppose that there are two goods X and Y that are perfect substitutes of each other. A fall in the price of say Good X will lead to fall in the demand for the Good Y and vice-versa. On the other hand, if X and Y are complementary goods, then a fall in the price of Good X will increase the demand for Good Y and vice-versa.

Question 15.
Explain the conditions of a producer’s equilibrium in terms of marginal cost and marginal revenue. Use diagram. [6]
Answer:
According to MR-MC approach, the producer attains equilibrium where the following two conditions are satisfied
(i) Necessary condition of First Order Condition (FOC)

(ii) Sufficient condition or Second Order Condition (SOC)
MC curve is rising and cuts MR curve from below:
That is, Slope of MC > 0
> 0
The conditions are explained below diagrammatically.

(i) Condition 1: MR = MC
If price is greater than the MC the firm can increase profit by increasing the production. In figure (i) At output OQ₁, price is KQ₁ and the marginal cost is LQ₁, such that KQ₁ > LQ₁. Therefore, OQ₁ is not the profit maximizing output. This is due to the fact that the firm can increase its profit by increasing the production of output to OQ₂.

On the other hand, if price is less than MC the firm can increase profit by lowering the production. At output OQ₃, price is HQ₃ and the marginal cost is GQ₃, such that HQ₃ < GQ₃. Therefore, OQ₃ is not the profit maximizing output. This is because the firm can increase its profit by reducing its output level to OQ₂.

(ii) Condition 2: MC curve should be rising at the point of intersection with MR

In the diagram, the MC curve cuts the price line (or MR) at two different points i.e., at ‘21 and ‘E’. The first order condition of profit maximization, i.e. Price (or MR = MC) is fulfilled at both these points.

At Point Z: MC is falling and is negatively sloped. Any slight increase in the output would imply that the price exceeds MC. This implies that the firm can increase profit by increasing the production.
At Point E: MR is equal to MC and also MC is rising. Any deviation from this point results in a lowering of profit for the firm.
Thus, both the first order condition (MR = MC) and the second order condition (MC curve should be rising at the point of intersection with MR) are satisfied at point E. Hence, point E is the equilibrium point.

Question 16.
Market for a good is in equilibrium. There is simultaneous “increase” both in demand and supply of the good. Explain its effect on market price. [6]
OR
Market for a good is in equilibrium. There is simultaneous “decrease” both in demand and supply of the good. Explain its effect on market price.
Answer:
The simultaneous increase in demand and supply affects the equilibrium price and output depending on the magnitude of the change in demand and supply. The simultaneous increase in the demand and supply can be bifurcated into the following three conditions.
(i) When demand and Supply increase in the same proportion

According to the diagram, E₁ is the initial equilibrium with equilibrium price P₁ and equilibrium output q₁.
Now let us suppose, the demand increases to D₂D₂ and the supply increases to S₂S₂ by the same proportion to that of demand. The new demand curve and the new supply curve intersect at point E₂, which is the new equilibrium point. At the new equilibrium point, new equilibrium output is oq₂, while the equilibrium price remains the same at oP₁. Thus, an increase in the demand and the supply by same proportion leaves the equilibrium price unchanged.

(ii) When Demand increases more than increase in Supply The initial demand curve and the initial supply curve intersect each other at point E₁, with initial equilibrium price oP₁ and initial equilibrium output oq₁.

Now let us suppose that, demand increases and thereby demand curve shifts to D₂D₂. Simultaneously, the supply also rises and the supply curve shift to S₂S₂. However, the increase in the supply is less than the increase in the demand. The new supply curve and the new demand curve intersect each other at point E₂, with higher equilibrium price oP₂ and higher equilibrium output oq₂. Thus, when the demand increases more than the increase in supply, the equilibrium price rises.

(iii) When Demand increases but lesser than the increase in Supply
Let the initial equilibrium be at point E₁, with the equilibrium price oP₁ and the equilibrium output oq₁. Now, suppose that the demand increase to D₂D₂ and supply increases to S₂S₂. However, the increase in supply is more than that of the increase in demand. The new demand curve D₂D₂ and the new supply curve S₂S₂ intersect at point E₂, with lower equilibrium price oP₂. Thus, when the increase in demand is less than the increase in supply, the equilibrium price falls.

OR
The simultaneous decrease in demand and supply affects the equilibrium price and output depending on the magnitude of the change in demand and supply. The simultaneous decrease in the demand and supply can be bifurcated into the following three conditions.
(i) When Demand and Supply decreases in the same proportion

Let S₁S₁ and D₁D₁ be the initial supply curve and the initial demand curve respectively. The initial equilibrium is at point E₁, with equilibrium price at oP₁ and equilibrium output oq₁.
Suppose that both demand and supply decrease by the same proportion. Consequently, the demand curve shifts to D₂D₂ and the supply curve shifts to S₂S₂. The new equilibrium is at point E₂ with lower equilibrium output oq₂ but the same equilibrium price oP₂. Thus, When both demand and supply decrease in the same proportion, the equilibrium price remains the same, but the equilibrium quantity falls.

(ii) When Demand decreases more than the decrease in Supply

Let D₁D₁ and S₁S₁ be the initial demand curve and the initial supply curve, respectively. The initial equilibrium is at point E₁ with equilibrium price P₁ and equilibrium output q₁.
Now let us suppose that, demand decrease to D₂D₂ and supply decreases by lesser proportion to S₂S₂. Consequently, the new equilibrium is established at point E₂. At the new equilibrium, the equilibrium price falls to oP₂ and equilibrium output falls to oq₂. Thus, when decrease in demand is more than the decrease in supply, the equilibrium price falls accompanied by the fall in equilibrium output.

(iii) When decrease in demand is lesser than decrease in Supply.

Let the initial equilibrium be at point E₁, determined by the intersection of the initial demand curve D₁D₁ and the initial supply curve S₁S₁. The equilibrium price is oP₁ and the equilibrium output is oq₁.

Now suppose that, the demand decreases but lesser than the decrease in the supply. The demand curve shifts to D₂D₂ while the supply curve shifts to S₂S₂. The new equilibrium determined by the’ intersection of D₂D₂ and S₂S₂ is at point E₂, where the equilibrium price increases to oP₂ and the equilibrium quantity falls to oq₂. Thus, when decrease in demand is lesser then the decrease in supply then the equilibrium price rises and equilibrium output falls to oq₂.

Section – B

Question 17.
Define stock variable. [1]
Answer:
A variable whose value is measured at a point of time is called stock variable.

Question 18.
Define capital goods. [1]
Answer:
Capital goods are those goods which are used in producing other goods.

Question 19.
What are demand deposits? [1]
Answer:
Demand deposits are those deposits which can be withdrawn immediately by issuing cheques.

Question 20.
Define a Tax. [1]
Answer:
Taxes are the compulsory payments made by the households and the producing sectors to the government. Taxes as of two types namely, direct taxes (such as income tax) and indirect taxes (such as sales tax).

Question 21.
Give meaning of managed floating exchange rate. [1]
Answer:
A system where the government fix the exchange rate through central bank, it is called managed floating exchange rate.

Question 22.
Calculate Gross Value Added at Factor Cost: [3]

Answer:
Gross Value Added at Factor cost (GVApc) = Total Value of Sales + Change in Stock – Intermediate Consume
⇒ GVA_FC (or GDPFC) = (1000 × 30) + (3000 – 2000) – 12000 – (3500 + 2500)
or, GVA_FC = ₹ 13,000

Question 23.
Explain the significance of the ‘Store of Value’ function of money.** [3]

Question 24.
Outline the steps taken in deriving saving curve from the consumption curve. Use diagram. [3]
Answer:
In the diagram + bY is the consumption curve. The 45° line is the aggregate supply curve.
At point E, consumption = income i.e. (Y = C)
represents the autonomous consumption i.e., consumption at zero level of income. Steps for derivation of supply curve from consumption curve as follows:
(i) Corresponding to in the consumption function we have in the saving function. That is, there are negative savings equal to autonomous consumption at Y = 0. This is represented by S on the negative axis in the lower panel.
(ii) At point E (Y = ). This implies that all the income is spent on consumption expenditure. Thus, savings equal to zero. This is shown as S = 0 in lower panel. This point is also known as the Break-even point.

(iii) Beyond the break-even point, by connecting points S and Y we derive the straight upward sloping saving curve.-
(iv) SS is the required saving curve.

Question 25.
Find national income from the following: [3]
Autonomous consumption ₹ 100
Marginal propensity to consume 0.80
Investment ₹ 50
Answer:
C = ₹ 100
MPC (b) = 0.80
I = ₹ 50
At Equilibrium,
Y = C +1
or, Y = + bY + I Y = + bY + I
substituting the values, .
Y = 100 + 0.8Y + 50
or, 0.2 Y = 150
or, Y = ₹750
∴ National Income = ₹ 750

Question 26.
Distinguish between Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure in a government budget. Give examples. [4]
OR
Explain the role of Government budget in allocation of resources.
Answer:

OR
In a mixed economy, private enterprises generally have a tendency to allocate resources to only those areas of production which are economically feasible and profitable. They are not guided by the service or welfare motive; in fact they are guided by the price signals. In such a situation, the government through its budgetary policy reallocates resources to maintain a balance between the social objectives of welfare maximization and the economic objective of profit maximization. For example, the government levies taxes on socially harmful goods such as tobacco and provides subsidies for the socially desirable goods such as good grains. Thus, the government through its policy allocates resources in such a manner as to maintain a balance between the profit motive and the social welfare.

Question 27.
Giving reason explain how should the following be treated in estimating national income: [6]
(i) Expenditure on fertilizers by a farmer.
(ii) Purchase of a tractor by a farmer.
Answer:
(i) Expenditure on fertilizers by a farmer should not be included in the estimation of National Income. This is because it is an intermediate consumption that a farmer purchases in order to enhance the crop productivity, so that he can sell more output.
(ii) Purchase of tractor by a farmer should be included in the estimation of National Income. This is because it is a part of Gross Domestic Capital Formation.

Question 28.
Explain the components of Legal Reverse Ratio. [6]
OR
Explain ‘bankers’ bank, function of Central bank.
Answer:
A certain minimum fraction of deposits which is legally compulsory for the commercial banks to keep in the form of liquid assets, is known as legal reserve ratio. There are two components of this ratio, those are as follows :
(i) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): It is a part of deposits which is kept with central bank as reserve in cash by the commercial banks.
(ii) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): It is a ratio of deposits which banks have to keep with themselves in the form gold or securities.
OR
Central bank is the apex bank of all the commercial banks and financial institutions in the country. It holds the same relationship with the commercial banks as commercial banks holds with its customer. The central bank accepts deposits from the commercial banks and holds it as reserves for them. The commercial banks are compulsorily required to hold a part of their deposits as reserves with the central bank in accordance with the cash reserve ratio (CRR). In addition to the CRR requirements, the commercial banks hold reserves with the central bank for clearing their settlements with other banks and fulfill their requirements to inter-bank transfers.

Question 29.
Explain ‘revenue deficit’ in a Government budget? What does it indicate? [6]
Answer:
Revenue deficit is equal to the excess of total revenue expenditure over the total revenue receipts. In short:
Revenue deficit = Total revenue expenditure – Total revenue receipts
Revenue deficit indicates the extra amount of current expenditure which cannot be met by revenue receipts. This shows the extent of borrowings which are required to meet this deficit. Revenue expenditure increases without a corresponding increase in the revenue receipts, revenue deficit increases and this calls for additional borrowing. This means liability of the government deficit increases and this calls for additional borrowing. This means liability of the government increases.

Question 30.
Find out (a) National income and (b) Net National Disposable Income** : [6]

Answer:
(a) National Income
= Private final consumption expenditure + Government consumption expenditure + [Net domestic fixed capital formation + Change in stock] – Net imports – Net indirect tax – Net factor income to abroad
= (ii) + (iv) + [(vi) + (x)] – (viii) – (ix) – (vii)
= 600 + 200 + [110 + (-10)] – (-20) – 70 – 10
= 600 + 200 + 100 + 20 – 70 – 10
= 920 – 80 = ₹ 840 crore

Question 31.
Explain the concept of ‘excess demand’ in macroeconomics. Also explain the role of open market operations in correcting it. [6]
OR
Explain the concept of ‘deficient demand’ in macroeconomics. Also explain the role of bank Rate in correction it.
Answer:
Concept of “Excess Demand”: When the equilibrium level of income is determined after the level of full employment, it is the situation of excess demand. At the level of full employment, aggregate demand is more than aggregate supply. It leads to the high prices and it creates inflationary gap or excess demand.

Role of Open Market Operations to Correct Excess Demand: Open Market Operations refer to the buying and selling of securities either to the public or to the commercial banks in an open market. To curtail excess demand the central bank sells securities in the open market. By selling the securities in the open market the central bank withdraws excess money from the economy. This result in a lower Aggregate Demand in the economy and excess demand is controlled.
OR
Concept of “Deficient Demand”: When the equilibrium level of income is determined before the level of full employment, it is the situation of deficient demand. In this situation aggregate demand is less than aggregate supply. It leads to the less production, rising unemployment level. All the resources will not be full employed at this level. This condition creates deflationary gap or deficient demand.

Role of Bank Rate to Correct Deficient Demand: Bank rate refers to the rate at which the central bank provides loans to the commercial banks. Thus to curtail deficit demand, the central bank lowers the bank rate. This implies that cost of borrowing for the commercial banks from the central bank reduces. The commercial banks in turn reduce the lending rate (the rate at which they provide loans) for their customers. This reduction in the lending rate raises the borrowing capacity of the public, thereby, encourages the demand for loans and credit. Consequently, the level of Aggregate Demand in the economy increases and deficit demand is corrected.

Question 32.
Explain the distinction between autonomous and accommodating transactions in balance of payments. Also explain the concept of balance of payments ‘deficit’ in this context. [6]
Answer:

When autonomous foreign exchange payments are more than autonomous foreign exchange receipts, this excess is called deficit in balance of payments.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2012 Delhi Set – II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Section – A

Question 6.
What is ‘Marginal Rate of Transformation’? Explain with the help of an example. [3]
Answer:
Marginal Rate of Transformation (MRT) refers to the amount of good Y that must be sacrificed in order to gain an additional unit of X, with full and efficient utilization of available resources. It is also known as marginal opportunity cost. MRT indicates the slope of PPC.

Production Possibility Curve

In the above figure, AE represents the PPC for good X and good Y. Suppose, the initial production point in B, where 1 unit of good X and 48 units of good Y are produced. To produce one additional unit of good X, 4 units of good Y must be sacrificed (point C). Thus, at point C, the MRT is 4 units of good Y.

Thus, as we move down the PPC, MRT (or the opportunity cost) increases. This increasing MRT indicates the concave shape of PPC.

Question 9.
A producer borrows money and opens a shop. The shop premises is owned by him. Identify the implicit and explicit costs from this information. Explain. [4]
Answer:
In this case the implicit cost will consist of
(i) Imputed rent of the shop and
(ii) Imputed value of his own services
The explicit cost will consist of interest payment made on the borrowed money. Implicit cost (Imputed cost) refers to cost of the factor that a firm neither hires nor purchases. It is not actually paid by the producers but is included in the cost of production. It is estimated as the difference between the economic profit and accounting profit. On the other hand, explicit costs are those costs that are borne directly by the firm and paid to the factors of production.

Question 11.
Define Marginal Rate of Substitution. Explain why is an indifference curve convex? [4]
Answer:
The Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) is defined as the amount of good that a consumer is ready to forego or substitute for an additional unit of good 1. In other words, it represents the cost of good 1 that the consumer is ready to pay in terms of the other good. The MRS between two goods is given by the absolute value of the ratio of change in the consumption of good 2 to the change in the consumption of ‘ good 1. That is,
MRS_1,2 =
The IC is convex to the origin because of the diminishing MRS. As the consumer consumes more and more of one good, the marginal utility of the good falls. On the other hand, the marginal utility of the good which is sacrificed rises. In other words, the consumer is willing to sacrifice less and less for each additional unit of the other good consumed. Thus, as we move down the IC, MRS diminishes. This suggests the convex shape of indifference curve.

Question 12.
A consumer buys 10 units of a good at a price of ₹ 9 per unit. At price of ₹ 10 per unit he buys 9 units. What is price elasticity of demand. Use expenditure approach. Comment on the likely shape of demand curve on the basis of this measure of elasticity.** [6]

Section – B

Question 22.
Calculate Net Value Added at Factor Cost: [3]

Answer:
NVA_FC = Sales + Change in Stock – Intermediate Cost – Consumption of Fixed Capital – Net Indirect Taxes
Sales = Quantity × Price = 2,000 × 10 = ₹ 20,000
Net Indirect taxes = Taxes – subsidy
= Import duty – sub sidy
= ₹ 400 – 500 = (-100)
∴ NVA_FC = 20,000 + (-50) – 10,000 – 600 (-100)
= 20,000 – 50 – 10,000 – 600 + 100
= ₹ 9,450 crore

Question 25.
Find ‘Investment’ from the following: [4]

Answer:
At equilibrium Y = C + I
or, Y = + bY +1 where, b = MPC
500 = 100 + (0.75 × 500) + I
500 – 100 = 375 = I
∴ Investment = ₹ 25

Question 27.
Giving reason explain how should the following be treated in estimating national income :
(i) Payment of bonus by a firm
(ii) Payment of interest on a loan taken by an employee from the employer. [6]
Answer:
(i) Payment of bonus by a firm: Payment of bonus by a firm should be included in the national income because it is a part of the compensation of employees (while estimating National Income by Income Method).
(ii) Payment of interest on loan taken by employee from the employer: Payment of interest on loan taken by employee from the employer should be included in the national income because it is a part of operating surplus (while estimating National ’Income by Income Method).

Question 30.
Find out (a) Net National Product at Market Price and (b) Gross National Disposable Income . [6]

Answer:
(a) Net National Product at Market Price = Wages and salaries + social security contributions by employers + Rent + Interest + Corporation tax + Dividend + Undistributed profits + Net indirect tax – Net factor income to abroad
= (ii) + (iv) + (vi) + (xi) + (viii) + (ix) + (x) + (v) – (iii)
= 1,000 + 100 + 300 + 400 + 50 + 200 + 60 + 80 – (-20)
= ₹ 2,210 crore

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2012 Delhi Set – III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous sets.

Section – A

Question 6.
State reasons why does an economic problem arise? [3]
Answer:
The following are the main causes due to which every economy faces economic problem.
(i) Unlimited human wants: Human wants never-ends and they keep on arising. The unlimited human wants require unlimited resources to get fulfilled. But no matter how well an economy is endowed with resources, it will fall short to fulfill every wants.
(ii) Limited availability of resources: Every economy has unlimited wants but its endowment of resources remains scarce to fulfill these unlimited wants.
(iii) Alternative uses: The scarce available resources have alternative uses. This implies resources can be allocated to the production of different goods and services. The allocation of resources to one use involves a cost in terms of sacrifice of the other possible uses. Therefore, every economy has to decide the allocation of its resources in the best possible manner by analyzing the opportunity cost.

Question 9.
A producer invests his own savings in starting a business and employs a manager to look after it. Identify implicit and explicit costs from his information. Explain. [4]
Answer:
In this implicit cost consists of imputed value of the interest on the saving and the explicit cost consists of the salary paid to the manager.

Implicit cost (Imputed cost) refers to cost of the factor that a producer neither hires nor purchases. Such costs are not actually paid by the producers yet are included in the cost of production. It is a difference between the economic profit and accounting profit. On the other hand, explicit costs are those costs that are borne directly by a firm and are paid to the factors of production. Another way of distinguishing the two is that while explicit costs are referred to as out-of pocket expenses, on the other hand, implicit costs do not result in any cash outlay from the business. Thus, in the case given, the salary is to be paid to the manager, so it is considered as explicit cost, while, the costs of investing (interest) producer’s saving is considered as implicit costs, as no cash is expended for borrowings these funds (savings).

Question 11.
Define an indifference map. Explain why an indifference curve to the right shows higher utility level. [4]
Answer:
Indifference map is a family or collection of indifference curves that depicts the , different levels of satisfaction and preferences of a consumer. Each indifference curve in an indifference map depicts a particular level of satisfaction.
Higher IC denotes higher level of satisfaction and lower IC denotes lower level of satisfaction.

The above figure depicts an Indifference Map comprising of six indifference curves (from IC₁ to IC₆). As the consumer moves farther away from IC₁ to higher indifference curves the level of satisfaction derived by the consumer increases. IC₆ depicts the highest level of satisfaction. On the other hand, IC₁ depicts the lowest level of satisfaction.

An indifference curve is downward sloping from left to right. It implies that a consumer cannot simultaneously have more of both the goods. An increase in the quantity of one good is associated with the decrease in the quantity of the other good. This is in accordance with the assumption of monotonic preferences & their is an inverse relation between good 1 & 2.

Question 12.
A consumer buys 20 units of a good at a price of ₹ 5 per unit. He incurs an expenditure of ₹ 20 when he buys 24 units. Calculate price elasticity of demand using the percentage method. Comment upon the likely shape of demand curve based on this information. [6]
Answer:

Thus, the demand is perfectly elastic.
As the demand is perfectly elastic, so the demand curve is a horizontal straight line parallel to the quantity-axis.

Hence, the likely shape of demand curve is Parallel to the X-axis, i.e., perfectly elastic.

Section – B

Question 22.
Find Net Value Added at Market Price [3]

Answer:
Given:
Net Value Added at Market Prices (NDP_MP) = Total Value of Sales + Change in Stock – Intermediate Consumption – Depreciation
NDP_MP = (800 × 20) + (-500) – 8000 – 1000
or, NDP_MP = ₹ 6,500

Question 25.
Find consumption expenditure from the following : [4]

Answer:
Given:
C = ₹ 100
MPC (b) = 0.70
Y = ₹ 1,000
To Calculate : Consumption Expenditure
Consumption Expenditure (C) = + bY = 100 + 0.70 × 1,000 = ₹ 800

Question 27.
Comparing reason explain how should the following be treated in estimating National Income:
(i) Interest paid by banks on deposits by individuals.
(ii) National debt interest. [6]
Answer:
(i) Interest is a factor payment by a producer, so, interest paid by banks on deposits by individuals is included in the estimation of National Income.
(ii) National debt interest is a transfer payment and this loan is taken for consumption purposes. So, it is not included in the estimation of National Income.

Question 30.
Find out (a) Gross National Product at Market Price and (b) Net Current Transfers from abroad: [6]

Answer:
(a) GNP_MP
= Private final consumption expenditure + Government final consumption expenditure + (net domestic capital formation + Closing stock – Opening stock + Consumption of fixed capital – Net imports – Net factor income to abroad
= (ii) + (v) + [(vi) + (iv) – (ix) + (x)] – (viii) – (vii)
= 500 + 150 + (100 + 10 – 10 + 50) – 20 – (-15)
= 650 + 150 – 20 + 15
= 815 – 20 = ₹ 795 crore

(b) Net Current Transfer from abroad
= Net national disposable income – (GNP_MP – Consumption of fixed capital)
= 750 – 795 + 50
= 800 – 795 = ₹ 5 crore

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Economics 2012 Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit Chapter 8 गुरूपदेशः अजलं स्नानम् (गुरु का उपदेश बिना पानी को स्नान है)

पाठपरिचयः, सारांशःच

पाठपरिचयः सारांशश्च –
अयं पाठः महाकवेः बाणभट्टस्य कादम्बरी-नामकात् गद्यकाव्यात् सङ्कलितः।
उज्जयिनीनगरे तारापीडः नाम एकः नृपः आसीत्। तस्य महामात्यः शुकनासः परमविद्वान् नीतिज्ञः च आसीत्। चन्द्रापीडः तु राज्ञः ज्येष्ठः पुत्रः अभवत्। यदा सः विद्याध्ययनं समाप्य प्रतिनिवृत्तः तदा राजा तस्य युवराजपदे अभिषेकं कर्तुम् ऐच्छत्। सः अभिषेकसामग्री सङ्ग्रहीतुं द्वारपालान् आदिशत्। यौवराज्याभिषेकात् पूर्व राजकुमारः चन्द्रापीडः दर्शनार्थम् आचार्य शुकनासम् उपगतः तदा आचार्यः शुकनासः अवदत्-” यद्यपि त्वम् अधीतशास्त्रः ज्ञेयस्य च ज्ञाता असि, अल्पः अपि उपदेशः ते न अपेक्षते, तथापि नवयौवनस्य, राज्यसुखस्य, लक्ष्याः च मदः दारुणः भवति। अतः सम्प्रति त्वम् मद्वचनानि सावधानतया शृणु।” ततः आचार्यः शुकनासः तस्य शुभम् इच्छन् तं सस्नेहम् उपदिष्टवान्। एषः शुकनासोपदेशः ‘कादम्बरी’ इति ग्रन्थे अतीव प्रसिद्धः अस्ति ।

हिन्दीभाषायां पाठपरिचयः –
यह पाठ बाणभट्ट द्वारा लिखे गए ‘कादम्बरी’ नामक ग्रंथ से लिया गया है। तारापोड राजा के पुत्र चन्द्रापोड को, तारापीड का मन्त्री शुकनास चन्द्रापीड के युवराज पद पर अभिषेक से पहले जो उपदेश देता है वही अंश रूप में यहाँ ग्रहण किया गया है। शकुनास चन्द्रापीड को गुरूपदेश का महत्त्व विशेषतः राजाओं के लिए बताता है क्योंकि राजाओं का स्वभाव अहंकारमूलक होता है। फिर उन्हें ऐश्वर्य, नवयौवन तथा रूप की प्राप्ति हो तो कहना ही क्या? शुकनास चन्द्रापीड को लक्ष्मी के अनेक दोष बताता है तथा लक्ष्मी के चंचल स्वभाव का भी उल्लेख करता है। अन्त में शुकनास चन्द्रापीड को ऐसा आचरण करने का उपदेश करता है जिससे उसे जनता का, साधुओं का, गुरुजनों का, मित्रों का एवं धूर्तों के कारण उपहास का पात्र न बनना पड़े। अन्त में वह चन्द्रापीड को शुभकामना प्रदान करता है।

क. मूलपाठः, अन्वयः, शब्दार्थः, सरलार्थश्च –

1. तात चन्द्रापीड! गुरूपदेशश्च नाम पुरुषाणाम् अखिलमलप्रक्षालनक्षमम् अजलं स्नानम्। अयमेव ते काल: उपदेशस्य। भवादृशा एव भवन्ति भाजनान्युपदेशानाम्। विशेषेण राज्ञाम्। विरला हि तेषामुपदेष्टारः। अहङ्कारमूला हि राजप्रकृतिः। प्रतिशब्दक इवानुगच्छति राजवचनम् जनो भयात्। अपि च जन्मजातम् ऐश्वर्यम्, अभिनवयौवनत्वम्, अप्रतिमरूपत्वञ्चेति महतीयं खल्वनर्थपरम्परा सर्वा।

शब्दार्थः – गुरूपदेशः- आचार्यस्य उपदेशः (गुरु का उपदेश)। अखिलमलप्रक्षालनक्षमम्- सकल-दोष-उन्मूलन-सामर्थ्यम् (सभी दोषों को शान्त करने में समर्थ)। अजलम् स्नानम्- जलरहितम् स्नानम् (बिना जल के स्नान)। भवादृशाः- त्वादृशाः (आप जैसे)। भाजनानि- पात्राणि (पात्र)। उपदेष्टारः – उपदेशस्य दातारः (उपदेश देने वाले)। अहङ्कारमूला- अभिमानमूला
(अहंकार से युक्त)। राजप्रकृतिः- राज्ञां स्वभावः (राजाओं का स्वभाव)। प्रतिशब्दक:- प्रतिध्वनिः (गूंज की आवाज)। अभिनवयौवनत्वम्- नवयौवनम् (नई जवानी)। अप्रतिमरूपत्वम्- अतुलित-सौन्दर्यम् (अनुपम सौन्दर्य)।

सरलार्थ – वत्स चन्द्रापीड, गुरु का उपदेश निश्चय ही लोगों के समस्त मलों (दोषों) को धोने (दूर करने) वाला बिना जल का स्नान है। तुझे उपदेश देने का यही उचित समय है- आप जैसे ही उपदेशों के पात्र होते हैं। विशेषतः राजाओं के। उनको उपदेश देने वाले थोड़े होते हैं। राजाओं का स्वभाव अहंकारमूलक होता है। सामान्य लोग डर से राजा के आदेश का गूंज के समान अनुसरण करते हैं और भी, जन्म से प्राप्त ऐश्वर्य, नवयौवन तथा अद्वितीय सौन्दर्य-यह सब उनके लिए अनर्थो की महान शृङ्खला है।

2. आलोकयतु तावत् कल्याणाभिलाषी भवान् लक्ष्मीमेव प्रथमम्। इयं हि लब्धापि दुःखेन परिपाल्यते। न परिचयं रक्षति। नाभिजनमीक्षते। न कुलक्रमम् अनुवर्तते, न शीलं पश्यति, नाचारं परिपालयति, न सत्यम् अनुबुध्यते, न वैदग्ध्यं गणयति। विनीतं पातकिनमिव नोपसर्पति। तरङ्गबुबुदवत् हि चञ्चला। यथा यथा चेयं चपला दीव्यते तथा तथा दीपशिखेव कज्जलमलिनमेव कर्म केवलम् उद्वमति।

शब्दार्थः – आलोकयतु- पश्यतु (देखें)। कल्याणाभिलाषी- मंगलाकाक्षी (कल्याण की कामना करने वाला)। अभिजनम्- कुलीनताम् (ऊँचे वंश में जन्म)। कुलक्रमम्- वंश परम्पराम् (कुल की परम्परा को)। अनुवर्तते- अनुसरति (अनुगमन करती है)। अनुबुध्यते- अवगम्यते (समझती है)। वैदग्ध्यम् – पाण्डित्यम् (विद्वता को)। उपसर्पति- समीपं गच्छति (पास जाती है)। तरङ्गबुबुदवत्- उर्मिभिः बुबुदैः तुल्यं गतिशीला (लहरों व बुलबुलों के समान चंचल)। दीपशिखेव- दीपकस्य ज्योतिः इव (दीपक की लौ की तरह)। कज्जलमलमिव- कज्जलवत् मलिनम् (काजल के समान काला)। उद्वमति- उद्गिरति (उगलती है)।

सरलार्थ – पहले तो मंगलों की इच्छा करने वाले आप इस लक्ष्मी को ही देखें। यह प्राप्त होकर भी कष्टपूर्वक रक्षा की जाती है। यह न परिचय का ध्यान रखती है। न कुछ का ध्यान करती है। न कुलपरम्परा का अनुगमन करती है। न उदार स्वभाव को देखती है। न आचार का पालन करती है। न सत्य को जानती है न पाण्डित्य को समझती है। यह विनम्र व्यक्ति के पास इसी तरह से जाती है जैसे पापी के पास यह लहरों तथा बुलबुले के समान अस्थिर होती है तथा जैसे-जैसे यह चञ्चला चमकती है वैसे-वैसे दीपक की ज्योति की तरह काजल के मैल को ही उगलती है।

3. कुमार! राज्यतन्त्रेऽस्मिन् महामोहकारिणि यौवने तथा प्रयतेथाः यथा नोपहस्यसे जनैः, न निन्द्यसे साधुभिः, न धिक्रियसे गुरुभिः, नोपालभ्यसे सुहृद्भिः, न वञ्च्यसे धूतैः।
कामं भवान् प्रकृत्यैव धीरः, पित्रा च महता प्रयत्नेन समारोपितसंस्कारः। तथापि भवद्गुणसन्तोषः मामेवं मुखरीकृतवान् “सर्वथा कल्याणैः पित्रा क्रियमाणम् अनुभवतु भवान् नवयौवराज्याभिषेकमङ्गलम्।”

शब्दार्थः – महामोहकारिणी- अज्ञानान्धकारिणी (विवेकशून्य बनाने वाली)। प्रयतेथाः- प्रयत्नं कुरु (प्रयत्न करो)। उपालभ्यसे- तुभ्यम् उपालम्भः दीयते (तुम्हें उलाहना दिया जाता है)। कामम्- सत्यम् (सच है)। प्रकृत्यैव- स्वभावेन एव (स्वभाव से ही)। समारोपितसंस्कार:- संस्थापितसंस्कारः (उत्तम संस्कारों से परिष्कृत)। मुखरीकृतवान्- प्रेरितवान् (तुम्हारे गुणों ने ही प्रेरित किया है)। नवयौवनराज्याभिषेकमङ्गलम्- नूतन-युवराज-पदे अभिषेकस्य कल्याणम् (नूतन युवराज पद पर अभिषेक के मङ्गल को)।

सरलार्थ – हे राजकुमार! इस राज्यतन्त्र को मोह के घने अन्धकार में ले जाने वाले यौवन में तुम इस प्रकार से प्रयत्न करो कि लोग तुम्हारा उपहास न करें, साधुजन तुम्हारी निन्दा न करें, गुरुजन तुम्हें धिक्कार न कहें, मित्रगण तुम्हें उलाहना न दें तथा धूर्त तुम्हें ठग न सकें।
यह सच है कि आप स्वभाव से ही गंभीर हैं और पिता के द्वारा बड़े प्रयत्न से आप के सब संस्कार किए गए हैं फिर भी आप के गुणों से प्राप्त सन्तोष ने मुझे इस प्रकार से कहने के लिए प्रेरित किया है। सब प्रकार कल्याणों के साथ आप पिता के द्वारा किए जाते हुए नवराज्याभिषेक के मंगल का अनुभव करें।

ख. अनुप्रयोगस्य-प्रश्नोत्तराणि

1. अधोलिखितपदानि शुद्धोच्चारणपूर्वकम् उच्चैः पठत (निम्नलिखित पदों को शुद्ध उच्चारण के साथ ऊँचे स्वर में पढ़िए) –
गुरूपदेशश्च, तेषामुपदेष्टारः, प्रकृत्यैव, कल्याणाभिलाषी, ऐश्वर्यम्, सुहृद्भिः।
उत्तरः
विद्यार्थी स्वयं अभ्यास करें।

2. (क) वर्णवियोजनं क्रियताम् (वर्णों का वियोजन कीजिए) –
यथा- रक्षति – र् + अ + क् + ष् + अ + त् + इ
(क) प्रथमम् – ……………………………………………….
(ख) मङ्गलम् – ……………………………………………..
(ग) पित्रा – ……………………………………………………..
उत्तरः
(क) प्रथमम् – प् + र् + अ + थ् + अ + म् + अ + म्।
(ख) मङ्गलम् – म् + अ + ङ् + ग् + अ + ल् + अ + म्।
(ग) पित्रा – प् + इ + त् + र् + आ।

(ख) वर्ण-संयोजनं क्रियताम् (वर्णों का संयोजन कीजिए) –
यथा – च् + अ + ञ् + च् + अ + ल् + आ – चञ्चला
(क) त् + अ + र् + अ + ङ् + ग् + अः – ………………
(ख) स् + अ + र् + व् + आ – ……………
(ग) र् + आ + ज् + ञ् + आ + म् ……………………
उत्तरः
(क) तरङ्गः
(ख) सर्वा
(ग) राज्ञाम्।

3. अधः सन्धिरहितपदानां सन्धियुक्तानि रूपाणि लिखत (सन्धिरहित पदों के सन्धियुक्तरूप लिखिए) –
यथा – गुरु + उपदेशः = गुरूपदेशः
(क) कल्याण + अभिलाषी = ………………………
(ख) लब्धा + अपि = ………………………
(ग) न + आचारम् = ………………………
(घ) महती + इयम् = ………………………
(ङ) भाजनानि + उपदेशानाम् = ………………………
(च) खलु + अनर्थपरम्परा = ………………………
(छ) च + इयम् = ………………………
(ज) दीपशिखा + इव = ………………………
उत्तरः
(क) कल्याणाभिलाषी
(ख) लब्धापि
(ग) नाचारम्
(घ) महतीयम्
(ङ) भाजनान्युपदेशानाम्
(च) खल्वनर्थपरम्परा
(छ) चेयम्
(ज) दीपशिखेव। ..

4. अधः प्रदत्तविग्रहपदानां स्थाने समस्तपदानि पाठादेव चित्वा लिखत (दिए गए विग्रहपदों के स्थान पर समस्त पद पाठ से ही चुनकर लिखिए) –


उत्तरः
(क) प्रक्षालनक्षमम्
(ख) कुलक्रमम्
(ग) अनर्थपरम्परा
(घ) दीपशिखेव
(ङ) राजप्रकृतिः
(च) अहङ्कारमूला
(छ) कज्जलमलिनम्
(ज) नवयौवराज्याभिषेकमङ्गलम्।

5. विनयः विनीता च परस्परं वार्तालापं कुरुतः। विनयः कर्तवाच्ये पदति विनीता च कर्मवाच्ये भाववाच्ये वा। अत्र उदाहरणम् अनुसत्य विनीतायाः कथनानि लिखत (विनय और विनीता आपस में वार्तालाप करते हैं। विनय कर्तृवाच्य तथा विनीता कर्मवाच्य या भाववाच्य में बोलती है। उदाहरण के अनुसार विनीता के कथन लिखिए) –
यथा – विनयः – विनीते! किं तत्र आदित्यः वेदम् पठति?
विनीता – आम्, आदित्येन वेदः पठ्यते।
विनय: – किं त्वम् अत्र लेखम् लिखसि?
विनीता – आम्, अत्र मया लेखः लिख्यते।
विनय: – किं त्वम् विद्यालयं न गच्छसि?
(क) विनीता – नहि …………………… न ……………………।
विनय: – किं गुरुः माम् धिक्करोति?
(ख) विनीता – नहि, ………………….. न ……………………।
विनय: – किम् बालाः माम् उपहसन्ति?
(ग) विनीता – नहि, …………………… न ……………………।
विनयः – किम् मित्राणि माम् निन्दन्ति?
(घ) विनीता – नहि, ……………………….. न ……………………।
विनय: – धन्यवादः। अधुना अहम् पादपान् सिञ्चामि।
(ङ) विनीता – अस्तु, …………………… अपि …………………सिच्यन्ते।
उत्तरः
(क) नहि, मया विद्यालयः न गम्यते।
(ख) नहि, गुरुणा त्वं न धिक्क्रियसे।
(ग) नहि, बालैः त्वं न उपहस्यसे।
(घ) नहि, मित्रैः त्वं न निन्द्यसे।
(ङ) अस्तु, त्वया अपि पादपाः सिच्यन्ते।

6. निर्दिष्टशब्दरूपैः वाक्यपूर्ति कुरुत (निर्दिष्ट शब्द रूपों से वाक्य की पूर्ति कीजिए) –
यथा – अयम् एव काल: उत्सवस्य। (इदम् – प्रथमा)
(क) अस्य उत्सवस्य . .. सज्जा दर्शनीया। (सर्व – प्रथमा)
(ख) ……………. अपि आलोकयतु शोभाम्। (भवत् – प्रथमा)
(ग) हे मित्र! …………………. उत्सवपथम् निर्दिशतु। (अस्मद् – द्वितीया)
(घ) ………………… रमणीया वेला समारोहस्य।। (इदम् – प्रथमा)
(ङ) अत्र ………………… अपि मया सह उपविश। (युष्मद् – प्रथमा)
उत्तरः
(क) सर्वा
(ख) भवान्
(ग) माम्
(घ) इयं
(ङ) त्वम्।

7. निर्दिष्टधातुरूपैः वाक्यानि पूरयत (निर्दिष्ट धातुरूपों से वाक्य की पूर्ति कीजिए) –
यथा – नृपः प्रजाः पालयति। (पाल् – लट्)
(क) सैनिकाः देशं …………………….. (रक्ष् – लट्)
(ख) राजसत्तायाः मदं को न …………………… (ज्ञा – लट)
(ग) राज्ञाम् उपदेष्टारः विरलाः एव …………….. (भू — लट)
(घ) मूर्खः विद्वांसम् न ……………………. (गण् – लट्)
(ङ) राजकुमारः गुरोः उपदेशं …………… (श्रु – लट्)
(च) अहम् प्रसन्नः ………………… (अस् – लट)
(छ) त्वम् विजयी ………………… (भू – लोट)
(ज) वयम् सदा जनहितम् एव ………………………. (कृ – लुट)
उत्तरम्-
(क) रक्षन्ति
(ख) जानाति
(ग) भवन्ति
(घ) गणयति
(ङ)शृणोति
(च) अस्मि
(छ) भव
(ज) करिष्यामः।
उत्तरः
(क) रक्षन्ति
(ख) जानाति
(ग) भवन्ति
(घ) गणयति
(ङ)शृणोति
(च) अस्मि
(छ) भव
(ज) करिष्यामः।

8. अधोलिखितप्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि संस्कृतभाषया लिख्यन्ताम् (निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर संस्कृत भाषा में लिखिए)।
(क) पुरुषाणाम् अखिलमलप्रक्षालने समर्थः कः भवति?
(ख) राजप्रकृतिः कीदृशी भवति?
(ग) लब्धापि दुःखेन का परिपाल्यते?
(घ) लक्ष्मीः किमिव चञ्चला भवति?
(ङ) लक्ष्मी: दीपशिखेव किम् उद्वमति?
(च) जनः भयात् राजवचनं किमिव अनुगच्छति?
(छ) पित्रा च समारोपितसंस्कारः कः आसीत्?
(ज) आचार्यः शुकनासः युवराजाय का शुभकामनाम् अयच्छत्?
(झ) अयं पाठः कस्मात् ग्रन्थात् सङ्गहीतः, कश्च तस्य लेखकः?
उत्तरः
(क) पुरुषाणाम् अखिलमलप्रक्षालने गुरूपदेशः समर्थः भवति।
(ख) राजप्रकृतिः अहङ्कारमूला भवति।
(ग) लब्धापि दुःखेन लक्ष्मीः परिपाल्यते।
(घ) लक्ष्मीः तरङ्गबुबुद् इव चञ्चला भवति।
(ङ) लक्ष्मी: दीपशिखेव कज्जलमलम् उद्वमति।
(च) जनः भयात् राजवचनम् प्रतिशब्दक एव अनुगच्छति।
(छ) पित्रा च समारोपितसंस्कारः चन्द्रापीडः आसीत्।
(ज) आचार्यः शुकनासः युवराजाय इमां शुभकामनाम् अयच्छत् यत् सः सर्वथा कल्याणैः पित्रा क्रियमाणम् नवयौवराज्याभिषेकमङ्गलम् अनुभवतु।
(झ) अयं पाठः कादम्बरीनामकात् ग्रन्थात् सगृहीतः, बाणभट्टश्च तस्य लेखकः।

9. पदानाम् अर्थमेलनं क्रियताम् –

उत्तरः

10. कथयन्तु ‘आम्’ अथवा ‘न’ (‘हाँ’ अथवा ‘नहीं’ कहिए)।
(क) चन्द्रापीडः तारापीडस्य ज्येष्ठः पुत्रः आसीत्।
(ख) चन्द्रापीडः मूर्खः आसीत्।
(ग) गुरोः उपदेशः अजलं स्नानं कथ्यते।
(घ) राज्ञां स्वभावः अहङ्कारयुक्तः भवति।
(ङ) प्राप्ता लक्ष्मी: सुखेन रक्ष्यते।
(च) लक्ष्मी: दीपशिखेव कज्जलं न मुञ्चति।
(छ) आचार्यः शुकनासः यौवराज्याभिषेकात् पूर्व चन्द्रापीडम् उपदिष्टवान्।
(ज) चन्द्रापीडः तु गुरुणा समारोपितसंस्कारः आसीत्।
उत्तरः
(क) आम्
(ख) न
(ग) आम्
(घ) आम्
(ङ) न
(च) न
(छ) आम्
(ज) न।

11. (क) समक्षम् कोष्ठकाद् विशेषणपदं चित्वा रिक्तस्थानं पूरयत (सामने कोष्ठक से विशेषण पद चुनकर रिक्त स्थान भरिए) –
(i) ……………… ऐश्वर्यम्। (राज्ञः । जन्मजातम्)
(ii) ………………….. यौवनत्वम्। (अभिनवम् । चन्द्रापीडस्य)
(iii) पिता पुत्रं ……………………….. प्रयत्नेन संस्कारयुक्तम् अकरोत्। (उपदेशं दत्वा । महता)
उत्तरः
(i) जन्मजातम्
(ii) अभिनवम्
(iii) महता।

(ख) रेखाङ्कितं सर्वनामपदं कस्मै प्रयुक्तम्? (रेखाङ्कित सर्वनाम पद किसके लिए प्रयुक्त हुआ है?)
(i) अयमेव ते कालः उपदेशस्य।
(ii) विरलाः हि तेषाम् उपदेष्टारः।
(iii) इयम् हि लब्धापि दु:खेन परिपाल्यते।
उत्तरः
(i) चन्द्रापीडाय
(ii) राजभ्यः
(iii) लक्ष्म्यै।

(ग) यौवनं धनसम्पत्तिः प्रभुत्वमविवेकिता।
एकैकमप्यनर्थाय किमु यत्र चतुष्टयम्॥
इति श्लोकस्य भावमूला का पक्तिः विद्यते पाठे ? पठित्वा अवबुध्य च लिखत।
इस श्लोक की भावामूलक पाठगत पंक्ति को पाठ से पढ़कर तथा समझकर लिखिए।
उत्तरः
अपि च जन्मजातम् ऐश्वर्यम्, अभिनवयौवनत्वम्, अप्रतिमरूपत्वञ्चेति महतीयं खल्वनर्थपरम्परा सर्वा।

12. द्वितीये अनुच्छेदे लक्ष्याः दोषाः वर्णिताः। तेषु केवलं पञ्चदोषान् अत्र वर्णयत। (द्वितीय अनुच्छेद में लक्ष्मी के दोष बताए गए हैं। उनमें से केवल पाँच दोषों को यहाँ लिखिए।) –
यथा – लक्ष्मी: परिचयं न रक्षति।
उत्तरः
(i) लक्ष्मीः अभिजनम् न ईक्षते।
(ii) लक्ष्मीः कुलक्रमम् न अनुवर्तते।
(iii) लक्ष्मी: शीलं न पश्यति।
(iv) लक्ष्मीः आचारं न परिपालयति।
(v) लक्ष्मीः सत्यम् न अवबुध्यते।

ग. पाठ-विकासः

(क) लेखकपरिचयः
महाकविः बाणभट्टः राज्ञः हर्षवर्धनस्य राजकविः आसीत्। हर्षवर्धनस्य शासनकालः 606 ईसवीतः 648 ई० पर्यन्तम् आसीत्। हर्षवर्धनः कन्नौजस्य राजा अभवत्। अतः सप्तमशताब्द्याः पूर्वार्द्ध बाणस्य स्थिति कालः मन्यते। अयं वत्सगोत्रोत्पन्नः द्विजः आसीत्। अस्य पिता चित्रभानुः माता च राज्यदेवी आस्ताम्। दुर्भाग्येन असौ बाल्यावस्थायामेव मातृपितृविहीनः जातः। ततः सः देशाटनाय निर्गतः। यदा बाणः गृहं प्रतिनिवृत्तः तदा सः विद्वान् परिपक्वबुद्धिः अनुभवी चासीत्। अनेन रचिताः चत्वारः ग्रन्थाः सन्ति –

बाणभट्टः संस्कृतगद्यकाव्यस्य सम्राट् अस्ति। उक्तं च –
नवोऽर्थो जातिरग्राम्या श्लेषोऽश्लिष्टः स्फुटो रसः।
विकटाक्षरबन्धश्च कृत्स्नमेकत्र दुर्लभम्॥ (हर्षचरितम्)
हर्षवर्धनस्य मृत्योः अनन्तरं बाणः स्वग्राम प्रोतिकूटं निवृत्तः। तत्रैव साहित्यरचनां कृतवान्।

लेखक परिचय –
महाकवि बाणभट्ट राजा हर्षवर्धन के राजकवि थे। हर्षवर्धन का शासनकाल 600 ई० से 648 ई० तक था। हर्षवर्धन कन्नौज के राजा थे। इसलिए सातवीं शताब्दी का पूर्वार्द्ध बाण का स्थिति काल माना जाता है। बाण वत्स गोत्र में उत्पन्न ब्राह्मण थे। इनके पिता चित्रभानु तथा माता राज्यदेवी थी। दुर्भाग्य से ये बाल्यावस्था में ही माता-पिता से वंचित हो गए। उसके बाद ये देश भर में घूमने के लिए निकल पड़े। जब बाण घर लौटे तो वे विद्वान तथा परिपक्व बुद्धि वाले व अनुभवी थे। इनके द्वारा रचे गए निम्न चार ग्रन्थ हैं –
1. हर्षचरितम् – आख्यायिका
2. कादम्बरी – कथा
3. चण्डीशतकम् – पद्यकाव्यम्
4. पार्वतीपरिणयः – नाटकम्
बाणभट्ट संस्कृत गद्यकाव्य के सम्राट हैं। कहा गया है –
नया अर्थ, स्वाभाविक स्वभावोक्ति, सरल श्लेष, स्पष्ट रस तथा समस्तपद (विकटाक्षरबन्ध)-ये चारों गुण एकत्र मिलने कठिन हैं (हर्षचरित)। हर्षवर्धन की मृत्यु के बाद बाण अपने गाँव प्रीतिकूट चले आए। वहीं ये साहित्य रचना करते रहे।

(ख) रचनापरिचयः
(i) ‘हर्षचरितम्’ ऐतिहासिकतथ्यप्रधानः आख्यायिकाग्रन्थः अस्ति। राज्ञः हर्षवर्धनस्य जीवनवृत्तमेव तत्र वर्णितम्।
(ii) ‘कादम्बरी’–‘कादम्बरी’ संस्कृतसाहित्यस्य सर्वोत्कृष्टा प्रेमगाथा अस्ति। इयं हि कविकल्पनामूलक-प्रेमकथा अस्ति।
एषा तु चन्द्रापीडस्य पुण्डरीकस्य च जन्मत्रयस्य कथा वर्तते। अस्य कथानकस्य प्रारम्भः एवं भवति-प्राचीनकाले शूद्रक: विदिशायाः शासकः आसीत्। यदा स राजसभायाम् उपविष्टः आसीत् तदैव काचित् चाण्डालकन्या वैशम्पायननामकं शुकं राज्ञे समर्पितवती। शुक: मानुषी वाणीं वक्तुमपि कुशलः आसीत्। तस्य पूर्वजन्मनः स्मरणमपि आसीत्। चकितः राजा यदा शुकस्य वृत्तान्तम् ज्ञातुम् ऐच्छत् तदा सः शुक: जाबालिमुनिना ज्ञापितं स्वपूर्वजन्मनः वृत्तान्तं श्रावयति –
शुक: जाबालिमुनिना ज्ञापितं स्वपूर्वजन्मनः वृत्तान्तं श्रावयति –
उज्जयिन्यां तारापीडः नृपः आसीत्। तस्य राज्याः नाम विलासवती आसीत्। तयोः पुत्रस्य नाम चन्द्रापीडः आसीत्। तारापीडस्य महामन्त्री शुकनासः परमविद्वान् आसीत्। तस्य पुत्रस्य नाम वैशम्पायनः अभवत्। तयोः कुमारयोः परस्परं गाढमैत्री आसीत्। यदा राजकुमारः चन्द्रापीडः विद्याध्ययनं समाप्य प्रतिनिवृत्तः तदा तस्य युवराजस्य अभिषेककाले महामन्त्रिणा शुकनासेन तस्मै चन्द्रापीडाय यः उपदेशः प्रदत्तः स एव ‘शुकनासोपदेशः’ इति नाम्ना प्रसिद्धः जातः। अत: शुकनासोपदेशः कादम्बरीग्रन्थस्य एव एकं प्रमुखं स्थलम् अस्ति।
कादम्बरीरसभरेण समस्त एव
मत्तो न किञ्चिदपि चेतयते जनोऽयम्।।

रचनाओं का परिचय –
(i) हर्षचरित- यह ऐतिहासिक तथ्य प्रधान आख्यायिका ग्रन्थ है। इसमें राजा हर्षवर्धन के जीवन-चरित का वर्णन किया गया है।
(ii) कादम्बरी- यह संस्कृत साहित्य की सबसे उत्तम प्रेमकथा है। यह कविकल्पनामूलक है। इसमें चन्द्रापीड तथा पुण्डरीक के तीन जन्मों की कथा है। कथानक का प्रारंभ यहाँ से होता है –
प्राचीन समय में विदिशा के राजा शूद्रक हुए। जब वे राज्यसभा में बैठे थे तो कोई चाण्डालकन्या वैशम्पायन नामक तोते को लेकर राजा को भेंट करती है। तोता मनुष्य की वाणी में बोल सकता था। उसने कहा कि उज्जयिनी में कोई तारापीड नाम का राजा था। चन्द्रापीड उसका पुत्र था। विलासवती चन्द्रापीड की माता थी। तारापीड का मन्त्री शुकनास बड़ा विद्वान था। मन्त्री के पुत्र का नाम वैशम्पायन था। उन दोनों कुमारों में आपस में मित्रता थी। चन्द्रापीड विद्याध्ययन समाप्त कर लौटा तो उसके युवराज पद पर अभिषेक के समय महामन्त्री शुकनास ने उसे जो उपदेश दिया वह ‘शुकनासोपदेश’ के नाम से प्रसिद्ध है। शुकनासोपदेश कादम्बरी का एक महत्त्वपूर्ण भाग है।
कादम्बरीरस समूह से पूरी तरह उन्मत्त जन को कुछ भी ज्ञान नहीं रहता।

घ. पठितांश – अवबोधनम्:

1. निम्न गद्यांशान् पठित्वा तदाधारितानां प्रश्नानाम् उत्तराणि लिखत –
(क) तात चन्द्रापीड! गुरूपदेशश्च नाम पुरुषाणाम् अखिलमलप्रक्षालनक्षमम् अजलं स्नानम्। अयमेव ते कालः उपदेशस्य। भवादृशा एव भवन्ति भाजनान्युपदेशानाम्। विशेषेण राज्ञाम्। विरला हि । तेषामुपदेष्टारः। अहङ्कारमूला हि राजप्रकृतिः। प्रतिशब्दक इवानुगच्छति राजवचनम् जनो भयात्। अपि च जन्मजातम् ऐश्वर्यम्, अभिनवयौवनत्वम्, अप्रतिमरूपत्वञ्चेति महतीयं खल्वनर्थपरम्परा सर्वा।

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) पुरुषाणाम् अखिलमलप्रक्षालनक्षमम् अजलं स्नानम् किम्?
(ii) राजप्रकृतिः कीदृशी भवति?
(iii) जनः भयात् किम् अनुगच्छति?
(iv) अयं कस्य कालो वर्तते?
उत्तरः
(i) गुरूपदेशः
(ii) अहङ्कारमूला
(iii) राजवचनम्
(iv) उपदेशस्य

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
महती खलु अनर्थ परम्परा का अस्ति?
उत्तरः
महती खलु अनर्थ परम्परा जन्मजातम् ऐश्वर्यम्, अभिनव-यौवनत्वम् अप्रतिम-रूपत्वञ्च इति अस्ति ।

III. निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत –
(i) ‘अजलम् स्नानम्’ इत्यनयोः पदयोः विशेषणपदं किम्?
(क) स्नानम्
(ख) अजलम्
(ग) स्नानः
(घ) अजलः
उत्तरः
(ख) अजलम्

(ii) अनुच्छेदे ‘भाजनानि’ इत्यस्य कर्तृपदस्य क्रियापदं किम्?
(क) भावदृशाः
(ख) एव
(ग) उपदेशानाम्
(घ) भवन्ति
उत्तरः
(घ) भवन्ति

(iii) ‘अयमेव ते कालः उपदेशस्य’ अत्र ‘ते’ पदं कस्मै प्रयुक्तम्?
(क) चन्द्रापीडाय
(ख) गुखे
(ग) पुरोहिताय
(घ) शिष्याय
उत्तरः
(क) चन्द्रापीडाय

(iv) ‘स्वभावः’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः अत्र प्रयुक्तः?
(क) भाजनानि
(ख) अप्रतिमरूपम्
(ग) प्रकृतिः
(घ) राजप्रकृति
उत्तरः
(ग) प्रकृतिः

(ख) आलोकयतु तावत् कल्याणाभिलाषी भवान् लक्ष्मीमेव प्रथमम्। इयं हि लब्धापि दुःखेन परिपाल्यते। न परिचयं रक्षति। नाभिजनमीक्षते। न कुलक्रमम् अनुवर्तते, न शीलं पश्यति, नाचारं परिपालयति, न सत्यम् अनुबुध्यते, न वैदग्ध्यं गणयति। विनीतं पातकिनमिव नोपसर्पति। तरङ्गबुबुदवत् हि चञ्चला। यथा यथा चेयं चपला दीव्यते तथा तथा दीपशिखेव कज्जलमलिनमेव कर्म केवलम् उद्वमति।

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) कल्याणभिलाषी चन्द्रापीडः प्रथमं कां पश्यतु?
(ii) लक्ष्मी किं न अनुबुध्यते?
(iii) दीपशिखा किम् उद्वमति?
(iv) लक्ष्मी किं न पश्यति?
उत्तरः
(i) लक्ष्मीम
(i) सत्यम्
(iii) कज्जलमलिनम्
(iv) शीलम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
लक्ष्मी कथं परिपाल्यते?
उत्तरः
लक्ष्मी दुःखेन परिपाल्यते।

III. निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत –
(i) अनुच्छेदे ‘चपला’ विशेषणं कस्यै आगतम?
(क) लक्ष्मीम्
ख) लक्ष्म्यै
(ग) लक्ष्म्याः
(घ) लक्ष्म्याम्
उत्तरः
(ख) लक्ष्म्यै

(ii) ‘आलोकयतु’ इति क्रियायाः कर्तृपदम् अनुच्छेदे किम्?
(क) प्रथमम्
(ख) लक्ष्मीम्
(ग) कल्याणाभिलाषी
(घ) भवान्
उत्तरः
(घ) भवान्

(iii) अनुच्छेदे ‘स्वभावम्’ इत्यस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः प्रयुक्तः?
(क) शीलम्
(ख) सत्यम्
(ग) आचारम्
(घ) कुलक्रमम्
उत्तरः
(क) शीलम्

(iv) अत्र अनुच्छेदे ‘अनाचारम्’ इति पदस्य कः विपर्ययः आगतः?
(क) नाचारम्
(ख) चारम्
(ग) आचारम्
(घ) कुराचारम्
उत्तरः
(ग) आचारम्

(ग) कुमार! राज्यतन्त्रेऽस्मिन् महामोहकारिणि यौवने तथा प्रयतेथाः यथा नोपहस्यसे जनैः, न निन्द्यसे साधुभिः, न धिक्क्रयसे गुरुभिः, नोपालभ्यसे सुहृद्भिः, न वञ्च्यसे धूर्तेः।। कामं भवान् प्रकृत्यैव धीरः, पित्रा च महता प्रयत्नेन समारोपितसंस्कारः। तथापि भवद्गुणसन्तोषः मामेवं मुखरीकृतवान् “सर्वथा कल्याणैः पित्रा क्रियमाणम् अनुभवतु भवान् नवयौवराज्याभिषेकमङ्गलम्।”

I. एकपदेन उत्तरत –
(i) राजपुत्रे पित्रा महता प्रयत्नेन कः समारोपित:?
(ii) राजपुत्रः प्रकृत्या एव कीदृशः आसीत्?
(iii) किं महामोहकारणं कथितम्?
(iv) पित्रा सर्वथा कल्याणैः किं क्रियते?
उत्तरः
(i) संस्कारः
(ii) धीरः
(iii) यौवनम्
(iv) नवयौवराज्याभिषेकमङ्गलम्

II. पूर्णवाक्येन उत्तरत –
कुमारः राज्यतन्त्रेऽस्मिन् महामोहकारिणि यौवने च कीदृशं प्रयतेत?
उत्तरः
कुमारः राज्यतन्त्रेऽस्मिन् महामोहकारिणि यौवने च तथा प्रयतेत यथा नोपहस्यते जनैः, न निन्द्यते साधुभिः, न धिक्क्रयते गुरुभिः, न उपलभ्यते सुहृद्भिः न च वञ्चते धूतैः।

III. निर्देशानुसार उत्तरत –
(i) ‘न वञ्चसे धूर्तेः’। अस्मिन् वाक्ये कर्तृपदं किम्?
(क) धूतैः
(ख) न
(ग) वञ्चसे
(घ) वञ्चनम्
उत्तरः
(क) धूर्तेः

(ii) ‘राज्यतन्त्रेऽस्मिन्’ अनयोः पदयोः विशेषणपदं किम्?
(क) राज्यतन्त्रम्
(ख) राज्यतन्त्रे
(ग) स्मिन्
(घ) अस्मिन्
उत्तरः
(घ) अस्मिन् ।

(iii) ‘शिष्यैः’ अस्य पदस्य कः विपर्ययः अत्र अनुच्छेदे आगतः?
(क) साधुभिः
(ख) जनैः
(ग) गुरुभिः
(घ) सुहृद्भिः
उत्तरः
(ग) गुरुभिः

(iv) ‘चौरैः’ अस्य पदस्य कः पर्यायः अत्र आगतः?
(क) सुहृद्भिः
(ख) धूर्तेः
(ग) तस्करैः
(घ) दुराचारिभिः
उत्तरः
(ख) धूर्तेः

2. I. निम्नलिखित-वाक्यानि पठित्वा तानि ‘कः कम् कथयति’ इति लिख्यताम् –
(i) तात चन्द्रापीड! गुरूपदेशश्च नाम पुरूषाणाम् अखिलमल प्रक्षालनक्षमम् अजलं स्नानम्।
(ii) अयमेव ते काल: उपदेशस्य।
(iii) विरला हि राज्ञाम् उपदेष्टारः।
(iv) अपि च जन्म जातम् ऐश्वर्यम्, अभिनव यौवनत्वम् अप्रतिमरूपत्वञ्चेति महतीयं खलु अनर्थपरम्परा सर्वा।
(v) इयं लक्ष्मी हि लब्धापि दुःखेन परिपाल्यते।
(vi) तरङ्गबुद्बुद्वत् हि चञ्चला।
(vii) सर्वथा कल्याणैः पित्रा क्रियमाणम् अनुभवतु भवान् नवयौवनराज्याभिषेक मङ्गलम्।
उत्तरः

II. निम्न-वाक्यानाम् सन्दर्भग्रन्थस्य लेखकस्य च नामनी लिखत
(i) अहङ्कारमूला हि राजप्रकृतिः।
(ii) प्रतिशब्दक इवानुगच्छति राजवचनम् जनो भयात्।
(iii) आलोकयतु तावत् कल्याणभिलाषी भवान् लक्ष्मीमेव प्रथमम्।
(iv) यथा-यथा चेयं चपला दीव्यते तथा-तथा दीपशिखेव कज्जलमलिनमेव कर्म केवलम् उद्वमति।
(v) कुमार! राज्यतन्त्रेऽस्मिन् महामोहकारिणी यौवने तथा प्रयतेथाः यथा नोपहस्यसे जनैः।
(vi) “सर्वथा कल्याणैः पित्रा क्रियमाणम् अनुभवतु भवान् नवयौवराज्याभिषेक मङ्गलम्”।
उत्तरः

3. निम्नवाक्यानां भावार्थ मञ्जूषायाः सहायतया रिक्त स्थानानि पूरयन् लिखतु भवान् –
(क) “तात चन्द्रापीड! गुरूपदेशश्च नाम पुरुषाणाम् अखिलमलप्रक्षालनक्षमम् अजलं स्नानम्।”
अस्य भावोऽस्ति- यत् नृपस्य तारापीडस्य सचिवः शुकनासः राजपुत्रं (i) ……….. सम्बोधयन् वदति-पुत्र! चन्द्रापीड! सदैव स्मर यत् सद्गुरूणाम् (ii) …………… शिष्याणाम् कृते जीवनस्य (iii) …………… मलानाम् शुद्धौ समर्थ (iv) ………………. विना स्नानम् इव भवति। यथा जनः स्नानं कृत्वा पवित्रो भवति तथैव श्रेष्ठ-गुरूणाम् उपदेशेन सः स्व जीवनं पवित्री करोति।
मञ्जूषा – समस्तानाम्, जलेन, चन्द्रापीड, उपदेशं
उत्तरः
(i) चन्द्रापीडं
(ii) उपदेशं
(iii) समस्तानाम्
(iv) जलेन।

(ख) “प्रतिशब्दक इवानुगच्छति राजवचनम् जनो भयात्।”
अर्थात् – प्रजायाः (i) …………… नृपाणाम् वचनानि (ii) …………………. आक्रान्ताः भूत्वा तानि (iii) ……………….. इव अहर्निशं अनुगच्छन्ति। यतः तेभ्यः नृपाणाम् (iv) …………………. सदैव कष्टप्रदम् अनुभूयते।।
मञ्जूषा – प्रतिध्वनिः, जनाः, भयम्, भयात्
उत्तरः
(i) जनाः
(ii) भयात्
(iii) प्रतिध्वनिः
(iv) भयम्।

(ग) “यथा-यथा चेयं चपला दीव्यते तथा-तथा दीपशिखेव कज्जल मलिनमेव कर्म केवलम् उद्वमति’।
भावार्थ: – मन्त्री शुकनासः राजपुत्रं चन्द्रापीडम् अभिवदति- तात! समयानुसारं यथा-यथा इयं चञ्चला (i) ……………… प्रकाशिता भवति। अर्थात् (ii) ……………….. याति तथा-तथा दीपकस्य (iii) ……………… इव इयं केवलं (iv) ……………….. एव प्रकटयति। अतः अस्याः समृद्ध्याः जनानां क्षयमपि भवति अस्मात् संरक्षणं भवितव्यम्।
मञ्जूषा – ज्योतिः, राजलक्ष्मी, धूम्रम्, समृद्धिम् |
उत्तरः
(i) राजलक्ष्मी
(ii) समृद्धिम्
(iii) ज्योतिः
(iv) धूम्रम्।

(घ) “इयं हि लब्धापि दुःखेन परिपाल्यते”।
अस्य भावोऽस्ति- सचिवः शुकनासो वदति-हे तात चन्द्रापीड! इयं (i) ……………….. अतीव काठिन्येन (ii) …………. प्राप्नोति। परन्तु प्राप्ते सति तस्याः (iii) …………………. अतीव कष्टप्रदं भवति। राजलक्ष्म्याः संरक्षणे उन्नत्याम् च (iv) ………………… अधिकतरा शक्तिः आवश्यकी वर्तते।
मञ्जूषा – नृपाणाम्, राजलक्ष्मी, राज्ञः, परिपालनम्
उत्तरः
(i) राजलक्ष्मी
(ii) राज्ञः
(iii) परिपालनम्
(iv) नृपाणाम्।

(ङ) “सर्वथा कल्याणैः पित्रा क्रियमाणम् अनुभवतु भवान् नव यौवराज्याभिषेकमङ्गलम्’।
अर्थात् – सचिवः शुकनासः वदति-हे तात! भवान् गुणवान् संस्कारवान् च अस्ति अतः सम्प्रति पित्रा महाराजेन (i) ……………….. राज्याभिषेकस्य आनन्दं पित्रा चिन्तितः (ii) ……………….. सह एव भवान् (iii) ……………….. । यतः भवान् नवयौवनेन (iv) …………… वर्तते, अत: राज्यस्य आनन्दं प्राप्तुं योग्योऽपि अस्ति।
मञ्जूषा – अनुभवतु, क्रियमाणस्य, सम्पन्नः, कल्याणैः
उत्तरः
(i) क्रियमाणस्य
(ii) कल्याणैः
(iii) अनुभवतु
(iv) सम्पन्नः।

4. निम्नलिखितानां वाक्यानां कथाक्रमानुसारेण पुनःलेखनं करोतु भवान् –
I. (i) अहङ्कारमूला हि राजप्रकृतिः।
(ii) कामं भवान् प्रकृत्या एव धीरः, पित्रा च महता प्रयत्नेन समारोपितसंस्कारः।
(iii) इयं हि लब्धापि दुःखेन परिपाल्यते।
(iv) भवादृशाः एव भवन्ति भाजनानि उपदेशानाम्।
(v) तात चन्द्रापीड! गुरूपदेशः नाम पुरूषाणाम् अखिलमलप्रक्षालनक्षमम् अजलं स्नानम्।
(vi) न कुलक्रमम् अनुवर्तते, न शीलं पश्यति।
(vii) तथापि भवद्गुणसन्तोषः माम् एव मुखरीकृतवान्।
(viii) सर्वथा कल्याणैः पित्रा क्रियमाणम् अनुभवतु भवान् नवयौवराज्याभिषेकमङ्गलम्।
उत्तरः
(v), (iv), (i), (iii), (vi), (ii), (vii), (viii)

II. (i) अपि च जन्मजातम् ऐश्वर्यम्, अभिनवयौवनत्वम्, अप्रतिमरूपत्वं च खलु इयं महती अनर्थपरम्परा।
(ii) विनीतं पातकिनम् इव न उपसर्पति।
(iii) अयम् एष ते उपदेशस्य कालः।
(iv) त्वम् अस्मिन् यौवने तथा प्रयत्नं कुर्याः यथा जनाः न उपहसेयुः।
(v) अधुना भवान् युवराजपदे अभिषेकस्य सुखम् अनुभवतु।
(vi) प्रजाजनाः नृपाणां भयात् राजवचनम् प्रति ध्वनिः इव अनुकुर्वन्ति।
(vii) गुरूणाम् उपदेशाः जनेभ्यः जलं विना स्नानम् इव भवन्ति।
(viii) लक्ष्मी स्वपरिचयं न रक्षति।
उत्तरः
(vii), (iii), (vi), (i), (viii), (ii), (iv), (11)

5. निम्न ‘क’ वर्गीयाणां पदानां ‘ख’ वर्गीय-अथैः सह सम्मेलनं करोतु भवान् –

उत्तरः
(i) 12. उन्मूलनम्
(ii) 9. वमनं करोति
(iii) 1. केचिद्
(iv) 11. पापिनम्
(v) 3. नृपाणां स्वभावः
(vi) 13. स्वभावेन
(vii) 5. कुलीनताम्
(viii) 14. प्रकाशयति
(ix), 2. प्रतिध्वनिः
(x) 4. उपदेशकाः
(xi) 8. पश्यति
(xii) 16. पात्राणि
(xiii) 15. कुल परम्पराम्
(xiv) 6. चौरैः
(xv) 10. विनम्रम्
(xvi) 7. अतीव सुन्दरता

NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit

The post NCERT Solutions for Class 11 Sanskrit Chapter 8 गुरूपदेशः अजलं स्नानम् appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2014 Outside Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions:

• • The question paper contains 26 questions.
  • All questions are compulsory.
  • Question no. 1 to 11 carry 1 mark each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 10-20 words each.
  • Questions no. 12 to 19 carry 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 30-50 words each.
  • Questions no. 20 to 26 carry 5 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in approximately 75-100 words each.

** Answer is not given due to change in present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2014 Outside Delhi Set – I

Question 1.
Give the meaning of ‘Age Structure’. [1]
Answer:
The age structure of a population is the distribution of people among various ages. In graphic form, age structure is portrayed by an age pyramid where relatively broad base indicates the number of children while the peak reflects the increasing likelihood of death as people age.

Question 2.
Which country has proclaimed ‘Gross National Happiness’ as the measure of a country’s progress ? [1]
Answer:
Bhutan.

Question 3.
What is the meaning of ‘Cyber-space’ ? [1]
Answer:
Cyber space is an electronic system of interlinked networks of computers, bulletin boards, etc., that is thought of as being a boundless environment providing across to information and interactive communication. It is also referred as internet.

Question 4.
Name the most important inland waterway of Germany. [1]
Answer:
The Rhine waterway.

Question 5.
Which state of India has the highest rank in Human Development Index (H.D.I.) value ? [1]
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 6.
Name the ‘urban agglomeration’ having the highest share of immigrant population in India. [1]
Answer:
Mumbai.

Question 7.
Give an example of an ancient historical town from Bihar. [1]
Answer:
Patliputra (Patna).

Question 8.
Define the term ‘watershed management’. [1]
Answer:
Watershed management is the term used to describe the process of implementing land use practices and water management practices to protect and improve the quality of the water and other natural resources within a watershed by managing the use of those land and water resources in a comprehensive manner.

Question 9.
What is ‘satellite communication’ ? [1]
Answer:
Communication via satellite is known as satellite communication. Artificial satellites are successfully deployed in earth’s orbit to connect even the remote corners of the globe with limited on-site verification. In satellite communication, signal transferring between the sender and receiver is done with the help of satellite. In this process, the signal which is basically a beam of modulated microwaves is sent towards the satellite.

Question 10.
Mention any two diseases caused by contaminated water. [1/2 + 1/2 = 1]
Answer:
Diarrhoea and cholera.

Question 11.
Explain with examples, how nature gets humanized. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
Human starts interacting with physical environment with the help of technologies. With social and cultural development, human develops better and more efficient technologies. For example, in earlier era, people used to live in caves and were totally dependent on hunting of animals. They started developing their weapons from stones and other easily available materials. Later on they discovered more suitable instruments. When human starts interacting with physical environment, they start forming state of necessity rather than the state of freedom.

Question 12.
Describe any three characteristics of the last stage of ‘Demographic Transition Theory’. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:

1. During the last stage of demographic transition, both fertility and mortality rates drop considerably.
2. The population is either stable or grows at a slow rate.
3. The population becomes urbanised, civilised, literate and has good knowledge about everything. They deliberately control sizes of their families.
4. Thus, people are able to control their fertility and this shows that they are flexible.

Question 13.
Study the map given below and answer the questions that follow : [1 +1 + 1 = 3]

Question 13.1.
Identify and name the railway line shown on the map.
Answer:
Trans-Siberian Railway.

Question 13.2.
Name the continents linked by this rail route.
Answer:
It connects Asian countries with European countries.

Question 13.3.
Explain how this railway line is helpful for the promotion of trade in this region.
Answer:
It helped Asian region to market their products in European region.

Question 14.
“The decades 1951-81 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India.” Explain the statement by giving any three reasons. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
The decades 1951-1981 referred to as the period of population explosion in India due to following reasons :

1. There was rapid fall in mortality rate because of improvement in living conditions.
2. High fertility rate of the population in the country was pretty high.
3. Improvement in transportation and communication.
4. Improvement in health, sanitation and medical facilities.

Question 15.
Give the meaning of ‘dispersed settlement’. Explain any two reasons for the development of such settlements in India. [1 + 2 = 3]
Answer:
Dispersed Rural Settlement : Dispersed rural settlements are those in which houses are built far apart from each other. These settlements consist of one or two houses and cultural features such as a church or a temple binds the settlement together. Such settlements are found over hills, plateau and highlands. The reasons for the development of such settlements in India are :

1. Extremely fragmented nature of the terrain and land resource of habitable areas.
2. Safety of people who have to travel a long distance for basic commodities are threatened because of isolation that is why, this settlement is preferred.

Question 16.
Study the diagram given below showing the location of a major steel plant in India and answer the questions that follow : [1 + 1 + 1 = 3]

Question 16.1.
Identify and name the steel plant shown in this diagram.
Answer:
Durgapur Steel Plant

Question 16.2.
Name two coal-fields which supply coal to this plant.
Answer:
Jharia and Raniganj

Question 16.3.
Mention the source of water supply for this plant
Answer:
Damodar river.

Question 17.
“The distribution of roads in India is not uniform”. Examine the statement giving three reasons. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
Distribution of road is not uniform in India due to different types of geographical features. Moreover, the volume of traffic as well as passengers also affects road networking in India. Roads become narrow and congested with broken culverts and bridges. Some roads are metalled that are well built with brick and cement whereas some are unmetalled especially in rural areas which become inaccessible during rainy seasons. The regions with rugged terrain have steep roads with many hairpin bends. For ununiformed distribution, there are certain reasons :

1. Construction of roads is costlier in mountains, valleys and plateau region than plain region.
2. Less population also affects construction of roads. Deserts interior most parts of the country do not require large number of roads, hence have lesser number of roads.
3. The ratio of rivers, canals and other such geographical forms are higher in India. It works as a barrier in constructing roads.

Question 18.
“Most of India’s foreign trade is carried through sea routes”. Explain the statement giving three reasons. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
Port plays an important role in the growth of manufacturing and mining sector. Core manufacturing sector like steel, refinery and automobiles are dependent on trade for raw materials and sale of finished products. Logistics cost plays an important role in the cost of production and hence profitability of the business as volumes of material to be transported are huge. The 12 state-owned ports (Kolkata, Paradip, Vishakhapatnam, Ennore, Chennai, Tuticorin, Kochi, New Mangalore, Mormugao, Kandla, Mumbai and Navi Mumbai) which look after about 58 per cent of India’s external trade by volume shipped by sea. With rising demand for port infrastructure due to growing imports (crude, coal) and containerization, it will be difficult for public ports to meet demand. This provides private ports with an opportunity to serve the spill-off demand from major ports and increase their capacities in line with forecasted new demand.

Question 19.
Describe any three major problems of slums in India. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
The three problems faced by slum dwellers in India are :

1. The areas in which they live (dilapidated houses) are overcrowded having narrow street pattern prone to serious hazards from fire.
2. Lack of basic amenities like drinking water, light, and toilet facilities. They are also faced by poor ventilation, and poor hygienic conditions.
3. These slums in the nearby areas breed because of pollution and thus their existence results in health hazards. Since they have no place to bathe, go to the toilet, wash their clothes, so all this daily work is done in the open causing inconvenience to the residents of the areas.

Question 20.
Explain any three social and economic values which encourage us to use more and more non- conventional sources of energy. ** [3 × 1 = 3]

Question 21.
Explain any five characteristics of ‘extensive commercial grain cultivation’ practised in the world. [5 × 1 = 5]
Answer:
Extensive commercial farming is a system of agriculture in which relatively small amounts of capital or labour investment are applied to relatively large areas of land. At times, the land is left fallow to regain its fertility.

1. This commercial grain cultivation is practiced in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid-latitudes.
2. The size of the farm is very large, therefore entire operations of cultivation from ploughing to harvesting are mechanized.
3. There is low yield per acre but high yield per person.
4. It usually occurs at the margin of the agricultural system, at a great distance from market or on poor land of limited potential and is usually practiced in the tarai regions of Southern Nepal.
5. Wheat is the principal crop, though other crops like corn, barley, oats and rye are also grown.

Question 22.
Define the terms ‘manufacturing’. Explain any four features of ‘small scale manufacturing’. [1 + 4 = 5]
Answer:
Manufacturing is the production of merchandise for use or sale using labour and machines, tools, chemical ari3 biological processing, or formulation. The term may refer to a range of human activities, from handicrafts to high technology but is most commonly applied to industrial production. Features of small manufacturing are :

1. Simple power driver machines are used.
2. The manufacturing of products is based upon the raw material available in that area.
3. Semi-skilled and un-skilled labours are used.
4. It raises local purchasing power.

Question 23.
Why are ports known as ‘gateways’ of international trade ? Explain any three characteristics of inland ports. [2 + 3 = 5]
Answer:
Ports are known as gateways of international trade because cargoes and travelers pass from one part of the world to another through these ports. The ports provide facilities of docking, loading, unloading and the storage facilities for cargo. Port authorities make arrangements for maintaining navigable channels, arranging tugs, and barges, and providing labour and managerial services. The importance of port is judged by the size of cargo and the number of ships handled.
Characteristics of inland ports :

1. These ports are located away from the sea coast.
2. They are linked to the sea through a river or a canal.
3. Such ports are accessible to flat bottom ships or barges.
   eg. Manchester is linked with a canal.

Phine has several ports like Mannheim, Duisburg.
Kolkata is located on the river Hooghly, a branch of river Ganga.

Question 24.
Explain any five major problems of the rural settlements in the developing countries of the world. [5 × 1 = 5]
Answer:
Problems of rural settlements in the developing countries of the world are :

1. Supply of water to rural settlements in developing countries is not adequate. People in villages, particularly in mountainous and arid areas have to walk long distances to fetch drinking water.
2. Water-borne diseases such as Cholera and Jaundice are common problems because of lack of safe drinking water and unhygienic conditions.
3. Villages are adversely affected by the conditions of drought and flood. This in turn, affects the crop cultivation.
4. Unmetalled roads and lack of modern communication network causes difficulties in providing emergency services during floods.
5. It is also difficult to provide adequate health and educational infrastructure for large rural population. The problem is particularly serious where houses are scattered over a large area.

Question 25.
Analyse any five major problems of Indian agriculture. [5 × 1 = 5]
Answer:
The major problems of Indian agriculture are :

1. Dependency on monsoon due to insufficient irrigation system is major drawbacks of Indian agriculture system.
2. The yield of crops in India is very low. Less productive seeds are used for agriculture instead of hybrid seeds.
3. Poor economic system and insuffcient infra-structural developments of Indian villages also work as a barrier for agricultural development in India.
4. The employment of scientific technique, especially in America and Russia, has achieved tremendous progress. In the first place, machines have superseded manual labour. That means a larger acreage is brought under cultivation in more effcient manner. ,
5. All this needs far-sighted planning. When the determined efforts are made to modernize their ownership of land is restored to the cultivators, and outlook, agriculture in India will fourish much more.

Question 26.
Question 26.1.
In the given political outline map (on page) of the world, four features A, B, C and D have been shown. Identify these features with the help of the information given below and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : [4 × 1/2 = 2]

(A) The country with the highest growth rate of population (1995-2000) in Asia.
(B) A terminal station of Trans-Canadian railway line.
(C) An important sea port.
(D) An area of extensive commercial grain farming.

Question 26.2.
On the given political outline map (on page) of India, locate and label the following with appropriate symbols :
(i) The state having the highest percentage of urban population.
(ii) The leading state in the production of tea.
(iii) The international airport in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
26.1

26.2

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2014 Outside Delhi Set – II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 2.
Mention any two pillars of human development. [1/2 + 1/2 = 1]
Answer:
Equity, sustainability, productivty and empowerment.

Question 5.
Who are ‘marginal workers’ in India ? [1]
Answer:
Marginal worker is a worker who works for less than 183 days (or six months) in a year.

Question 12.
Describe any three characteristics of the first stage of ‘Demographic Transition Theory’. [3]
Answer:
Characteristics of the first stage of demographic transition theory are :

1. High fertility and high mortality rate,
2. Slow growth in population,
3. High rate of illiteracy.

Question 14.
Explain the main reasons for the migration of males and females separately in India.
[11/2 + 11/2 = 3]
Answer:
In India, people migrate from rural to urban areas mainly due to poverty, high population pressure on the land, lack of basic infrastructural facilities like health care, education, etc. Work and employment are the main causes for male migration (38%) while it is only 3% for the females. Contrary to this, about 65% of females move out from their parental houses after their marriage. This is the most important cause in the rural area of India.

Question 17.
Describe any three advantages of pipelines as a means of transport in India. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
Advantages of pipelines as a means of transport in India, are :

1. It is a safe and reliable mode of transport system.
2. It is an economical and dependable mode of transport system particularly to the sensitive and strategic areas.
3. It provides a long term infrastructural option.

Question 21.
Define the term ‘mixed farming’. Explain any four characteristics of mixed farming practiced in the world. [1 + 4 = 5]
Answer:
Mixed farming is an agrarian system that mixes arable farming with the raising of livestock. When on a farm along with crop production, some other agriculture based practices like poultry, dairy farming or bee keeping etc., are adopted, and then this system of farming is known as mixed farming. It is dominant system in Europe, where most farms have a mixture of fields and pastures. Some characteristics are :

1. It offers highest return on farm business, as the by-products of farm are properly utilized.
2. It provides work throughout the year.
3. Efficient utilization of land, labour, equipment and other resources.
4. The crop by products such as straw, forage, fodder etc., is used for feeding of livestock and in return they provide milk and other products.

Question 25.
Explain the term ‘cropping intensity’. Describe the three cropping seasons in India. [2 + 3 = 5]
Answer:
Cropping intensity means that a higher portion of the net area is being cropped more than once during one agricultural year. This also implies higher productivity per unit of arable land during one agricultural year.
Cropping seasons in India :
Kharif season:

1. This season depends upon south-west monsoon.
2. This season falls between June to September.
3. Major crops — Rice, jowar, maize, bajra, etc.

Rabi Season:

1. This season begins with onset of winter.
2. The period of this season is from October to March.
3. Major crops—Wheat, gram, mustard, barley, etc.

Zaid Season :
(i) It is a short duration between Rabi and Kharif. Major crops of the season are—Watermelon, fruits, vegetables, fodder crops.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2014 Outside Delhi Set – III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 1.
Give the meaning of ‘sex-ratio’. [1]
Answer:
The ratio between the number of women and the men in the population is called as the sex ratio. In India sex ratio is calculated by using this formula:

Question 6.
Define the term ‘poverty’. [1]
Answer:
A state or condition in which a person or community lacks the financial resources and essentials to enjoy a minimum standard of life and well being that’s considered acceptable in society. Poverty status in the United States is -assigned to people that do not meet a certain threshold level set by the Department of Health and Human Services.

Question 12.
Describe any three characteristics of the second stage of ‘Demographic Transition Theory’. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
The three characteristics of the second stage of ‘Demographic Transition Theory’ are :

1. Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage, but it declines with time.
2. Improvement in sanitation leads to reduce in mortality rate,
3. Better health conditions bring about decline in mortality due to which the net addition to population is high.

Question 14.
Explain the main aspects of the ‘National Youth Policy’ of Government of India launched in 2003. [3]
Answer:
The National Youth Policy of Government of India was launched in 2003. Its main aspects were:

1. It stresses on all-round improvement of the youth and adolescent enabling them to shoulder responsibilities towards constructive development of the country.
2. The thrust of this policy is youth empowerment in terms of their effective participation in decision-making and carrying the responsibility of an able leader.
3. Special emphasis was given in empowering women and girl child to bring parity in the male-female status.

Question 17.
Explain any three characteristics of ‘State Highways’ in India. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
Three characteristics of State Highways in India are :

1. These are constructed and maintained by state governments.
2. They join the state capitals with district headquarters and other important towns. These roads are connected to the National Highways.
3. These constitute 4 per cent of total road length in the country

Question 24.
Explain any two socio-cultural and any three environmental problems of urban settlements of the world. [3]
Answer:
Socio-cultural Problems : Cities in the developing countries suffer from several social ills.

1. Inadequate social infrastructure and basic facilities is due to lack of financial resources and over-population in the cities.
2. The available educational and health facilities remain beyond the reach of the urban poor.
3. Cities suffer from poor health conditions.
4. Lack of employment and education tends to aggravate the crime rates.
5. Selective male migration to the urban areas distorts the sex ratio in these cities.

Environmental Problems :

1. The large urban population in developing countries uses and disposes off a huge quantity of water and all types of waste materials.
2. Many cities of the developing countries do not provide the minimum required quantity of drinkable water and water for domestic and industrial uses.
3. An improper sewerage system creates unhealthy conditions.
4. Massive use of traditional fuel in the domestic as well as the industrial sector severely pollutes the air.
5. The domestic and industrial wastes are either let into the general sewerages or dumped without treatment at unspecified locations.
6. Huge concrete structures of buildings create heat in the city environment.

Question 25.
Define the term ‘Net Sown Area’. Explain any two characteristics each of ‘dry land farming’ and ‘wetland farming’. [1 + 2 + 2 = 5]
Answer:
The physical extent of land on which crops are sown and harvested is known as net sown area. It represents the total area sown with crops. Area shown more than once in the same year is counted only once.

On the basis of adequacy of soil moisture during the cropping season the farming is divided into two categories i.e., dry land farming and wetland farming.

Characteristics of ‘dry land farming’:

1. It is largely confined to the regions having annual rainfall less than 75 cm.
2. These regions grow hardly drought resistant crops such as ragi, bajra, moong, gram and guar.
3. It uses various soil moisture conservation and rainwater harvesting techniques.

Characteristics of ‘wetland farming’:

1. It is largely confined to the regions where rainfall is in excess of the soil moisture requirement of plant during rainy season.
2. Such regions may face flood and soil erosion hazards.
3. These areas grow various water intensive crops such as rice, jute, and sugarcane and practice aquaculture in the fresh water bodies.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2014 Outside Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2018 Outside Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks : 100

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory. This questions paper has 27 questions in all. There are five sections in this question paper.
• Section A contains Questions number 1-5 of 1 mark each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 20 words each.
• Section B contains Questions number 6-10 of 2 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
• Section C contains Questions number 11-16 of 4 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
• Section D contains Questions number 17-21 of 5 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 150 words each.
• In Section D Question number 21 is a map-based question. Write its answer in your answer-book.
• Section E contains Question number 22-27 of 6 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 150 words each.

Question 1.
What is meant by ‘Western Alliance’ ? [1]
Answer:
Most countries of Western Europe sided with U.S. after World War II and were called Western Alliances. It formalised into an organisation, the North Adantic Treaty Organisation (NATO), started with 12 number countries.

Question 2.
Which one of the following statements about the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka is false ? [1]
(a) Politics in Sri Lanka openly favoured the Sinhalas. ”
(b) Interest of Tamils were neglected.
(c) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Elam were supported by the SAARC countries.
(d) There was no political equality in Sri Lanka.
Answer:
(c) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Elam were supported by SAARC countries.

Question 3.
Analyse any one reason for the defeat of the Congress Party in 1977. [1]
Answer:
One reason for the defeat of the Congress Party in the elections 1977 was the misuse of power during Emergency (1975).

Question 4.
Explain the concept of a ‘Coalition Government’? [1]
Answer:
A coalition government is a cabinet of a parliamentary government in which different political parties choose to co-operate in the administration and regulation of a country. They are usually temporary alliances, formed when no single political party gains a clear majority in the elections.
E.g., UPA government from 1989 to 2014.

Question 5.
Which popular movement led to the empowerment of women ? [1]
Answer:
Anti-Arrack movement led to the empowerment of women.

Question 6.
Assess the main contribution of the Non-Aligned Movement to the newly independent countries. [2]
Answer:
NAM provided an alternative option of not joining the cold war politics. They were able to balance both the super powers.
It introduced the following notions to the newly independent countries :

• Protection of territorial integrity.
• Promotion of rapid economic growth.

Question 7.
Show with the help of one example globalisation has affected the dress culture of India. [2]
Answer:
(i) One of the aspects of globalisation is cultural homogenization, which refers to reduction in cultural diversity because of imposition of western culture, which in turn erodes the regional culture like dress or linguistic culture.
For example, westernization and western clothes have impacted the women folk of the country immensely who in turn have startd wearing them neglecting their own ethnic dresses.

(ii) Globalisation affects us in our home, in what we eat, drink and wear. It also affected Indian dressing style as besides saree and suit, ladies started to wear tops and jeans sleeveless tops and tight jeans are opposite to our culture.

Question 8.
List any four areas or regions which come under ‘Global Commons’. [1/2 × 4 = 2]
Answer:
The four areas which come under Global Commons are : ocean, air, celestial bodies and Antarctica.

Question 9.
Match the facts given in Column ‘A’ with those in Column ‘B’ in a meaningful way : [1/2 × 4 = 2]

Answer:

Question 10.
Highlight any two aspects of the Indian Foreign Policy which were greatly influenced by Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru. [2]
Answer:
Two aspects of current foreign policy of India influenced by Nehruji are :

• The foreign policy of .Independent India vigorously pursued the dream of a peaceful world by advocating Nehru’s policy of Non-alignment, by reducing Cold War tensions and by contributing human resource to UN peace-keeping operations,
• The current foreign policy of India encourages the use of Nuclear power for peaceful purposes which again was influenced by Nehru’s principles.

Question 11.
Explain any four steps taken by China that led to the rise of its economy. [1 × 4 = 4]
Answer:
Four steps taken by China that led to the rise of the economy are :
(i) China provides best education and health to its people. Its economy also grew at a respectable rate of 5-6% but, with an annual growth of 2.3% in population meant that, economic growth was insufficient to meet the needs of a growing population.

(ii) Regional Location: China introduced a market economy with step by step strategy of privatization of agriculture.

(iii) Political Influence: After the inception of the People’s Republic of China in 1949, following the communist revolution under the leadership of Mao, its economy was based on the Soviet model. The economically backward communist, China, chose to share its links with the capitalist world. It had little choice but to fall back on its own resources and for a brief period on soviet aid and advice. The model was to create a state owned heavy industries.

(iv) Open Door Policy : By 1978 the leader Deng Xiaping announced the open door policy and economic reforms in China. The policy was to generate higher productivity by the investment of capital and technology provided by foreign countries.

Question 12.
Highlight any four factors which justify India’s claim to a permanent seat in the U.N. Security Council. [1 × 4 = 4]
Answer:
Four factors which justify India’s claim to a permanent seat in U.N. Security Council are :

• India is the second most populous country in the world, comprising almost 1/5th of the world’s population.
• India is the world’s largest democracy.
• In the peacekeeping efforts of the UN, India has played a long substantial role.
• India has emerged as a potential economic . power in the world.
• India has also made regular financial contributions to the U.S. and never altered on the payments.

Question 13.
Evaluate any four benefits of the ‘Green Revolution’. [1 × 4 = 4]
Answer:
Four benefits of Green Revolution :

• It introduced and developed High Yielding ‘ Varieties (HYV).
• Increased use of fertilizers, water supplies and better agricultural operations on a larger scale.
• It helped in increasing the produce along with making it pest and disease resistant.
• H.Y.V. seeds has continued to rise from 1989 million hectares in 1966-69 to 45.3 million hectares in 1980-81, 56.18 million hectares in 1986-87 and in 1998-90,76 million hectare were under H.YV. seeds.

Question 14.
Why did India distance herself from the two superpower camps? [4]
Answer:
India distanced herself from the two power camps because of the following reasons :

• India wanted to preserve the hard earned sovereignty and to protect its territorial integrity.
• Economic growth of India was very slow and it wanted to promote rapid economic development.
• India vigourously pursued the dream of a peaceful world by advocating the policy of non-alignment.
• India wanted to separate herself from military alliance led by the U.S. and Soviet Union against each other.

Question 15.
Describe any four activities of the Dalit Panthers to promote their interests. [1 x 4 = 4]
Answer:
Dalit Panthers was a militant organisation of the Dalit youth and was formed in Maharashtra in 1972. Four activities to promote their interests are :
(i) The larger ideological agenda of the Panthers was to fight against caste based inequalities and to build an organisation of all the oppressed sections like the landless poor peasants and urban industrial workers along with Dalits.

(ii) The movement provided a platform for the Dalit educated youths to use their creativity as a protest activity. Dalit writers protested against the brutalities of caste system in their numerous autobiographies and other literary works.

(iii) Most downtrodden social sections of Indian society sent shock waves in Marathi literary world, made literature more broad based and representative of different social sections and initiated contestations in the cultural realm.

(iv) In the post emergency period, Dalit Panthers got involved in electoral compromises; it also underwent many splits which led to its decline, organisations like the backward and Minority Employees, (BAMCEP) took over the space.

Question 16.
Mention any four Prime Ministers of India and name their respective coalitions that led the Union Government from 1989 to 1999. [1 × 4 = 4]
Answer:
India had faced toughest period in politics during 1989 to 1999, when no popular government came to power. This was the period when coalition alliances government became reality. General elections were held in 1989 to elect 9th Lok Sabha.
Four Prime Ministers from 1989-1999 :
(i) Since none of the political party could gain majority, V.P. Singh united the entire disporate parties including National Front with the support of Left Front and B.J.P. However, he could remain the Prime minister only during December 1989 to November 1990.

(ii) In June 1991, P. V. Narsimha Rao became 9th Prime Minister of India. He was known as economic reformer. During that period, Congress took the support from AIADMK and some other small political parties, Narsimha Rao was in office for full term of 5 years from June 1991 to May 1996.

(iii) In 1996 general election held for electing 11th Lok Sabha. The result of the election was a hung parliament. The BJP formed a government under the leadership of Atal Bihari Bajpayee, where BJP was in minority. Since, Bajpayee could not prove the majority on Lok-sabha, he had to quit the government. He was the 10th Prime Minister of India, first term for 13 days in 1996 and then from 1998 to 2004.

(iv) Mr. H. D. Deve Gowda of National Front served as 11th P. M. with the support of congress. He remained in power for the period from June 1996 to April 1997 and his Government collapsed when congress withdraw support.

Question 17.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions :
The ‘Cuban Missile Crisis’ was a high point of what came to be known as the Cold War. The Cold War referred to the competitions, the tensions and a series of confrontations between the United States of America and the Soviet Union, backed by their respective allies. Fortunately, however, it never escalated into a ‘hot war*.
(a) Explain the meaning of ‘hot war’.
(b) Why was the ‘Cuban Missile Crisis’ considered as the high point of the Cold War?
(c) “Ideological conflict was also a cause of the Cold War.” How far do you agree with the statement ? [1 + 2 + 2 = 5]
Answer:
(a) Hot war was referred to direct attack by missile and bombs on other countries.

(b) Three weeks after the Soviet Union had placed the nuclear weapons in Cuba, the Americans became aware of it. The U.S. President, John F. Kennedy, and his advisers were reluctant to do anything that might lead to full-scale nuclear war between the two countries, but they were determined to get Khrushchov to remove the missiles and nuclear weapons from Cuba. Kennedy ordered American warships to intercept any Soviet ships heading to Cuba as a way of warning the USSR of his seriousness. A clash seemed imminent in what came to be known as the Cuban missile crisis. It did not break out in a hot war but is often considered as a high point in the cold war.

(c) It was indeed an ideological conflict between the two superpowers. USA represented capitalism and liberal democracy whereas USSR was committed to the ideology of socialism and communism. The cold war was not simply a matter of power rivalry and balance of power but was accompanied by a real ideological-conflict, a difference over the best and the most appropriate way of organising political, economic and social life all over the world.

Question 18.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions :
The Congress evolved from its origins in 1885 as a pressure group for the newly educated, professionals and commercial classes to a mass movement in the twentieth century. This laid the basis for its eventual transformation into a mass political party and its subsequent domination of the political system. Thus, the Congress began as a party dominated by the English speaking, upper caste, upper middle class and urban elite. But with every Civil Disobedience Movement it launched, its social base widened.
(a) What is meant by a pressure group ?
(b) Explain the reason for the Congress to be transformed into a rainbow-like social coalition by the time of Independence.
(c) What made the Congress into a mass political party in the twentieth century ? [1 + 2 + 2 = 5]
Answer:
(a) Pressure group can be described as an organised group that does not put up candidates or elections, but seeks to influence government policy or legislation indirectly or directly.

(b)

• The congress party became a social and ideological coalition for it merged different social groups alongwith their identity holding different beliefs.
• It accomodated the revolutionary, conservative, pacifist, radical, extremist and moderates and the right and the left wing with all other shades of the centre.
• In pre-independence days, many organisations and parties with their own constitutions were allowed to exist within the congress.

(c)

• When congress party started to decline, then the charismatic lady Indira Gandhi took over the control. She fulfilled the aspirations of people.
• Indira Gandhi gave slogan like “GARIBI HATAO” and implemented Twenty Point Programme for. the society.

Question 19.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions :
The Janata Party made the 1977 elections into a referendum on the Emergency. Its election campaign was focused on the non-democratic character of the Congress rule and on the various excesses that took place during this period. In the backdrop of arrests of thousands of persons and the censorship of the Press, the public opinion was against the Congress.
(a) What is meant by ‘referendum’ ?
(b) “Acts like arrests of thousands of persons and the censorship of the Press during the Emergency period were non-democratic.” Do you agree with the statement ? Justify your answer with one suitable argument for / against each act.
(c) In spite of winning the 1977 elections with a thumping majority, why could the Janata Party remain in power only for a short period ? Explain.
Answer:
(a) Referendum means to refer an important issue to the people for decision/verdict by general vote. Governments that are perceived to be anti-democratic are severely condemened by the voters.

(b) Nearly one lakh eleven thousand people were arrested under preventive detention for exercising their right of speech. Newspapers were not allowed to publish articles.

(c) In spite of winning the 1977 election with a thumping majority, Janata Party remained in power only for a short time because :

• After the election, there was still competition among three leaders for the post of Prime Minister, Morarji Desai, Jay Prakash Narayan and Jagjiwan Ram.
• The Janata party made this election into a referendum on the emergency. Its campaign was focused on the non-democratic character of the rule. The public opinion was against the Congress. Jayaprakash Narayan became the popular symbol of restroration of democracy. Party divided into many parts and as a result the government failed.

Question 20.
Study the cartoon given below carefully and answer the following questions :

(a) Which country does this cartoon refer to ?
(b) Evaluate any two changes in the economic policies of this country from ‘then’ to ‘now’.
(c) Assess any two outcomes of the latest changes that took place in this country. [1 + 2 + 2 = 5]
Answer:
(a) This cartoon refers to China. Republic of China 1949 was followed by communist revolution under the leadership of Mao, the economy was based on Soviet Model. China chose to its link with the capitalist world, the model was to create a state- owned industries from the capital accumulated from agricuture sector.

(b) Two changes in the economic policies of this country are :

• The new economic policies helped the Chinese economy to break from stagnation. The Chinese economy including both industry and agriculture grew at faster rate.
• The new trading laws led to phenomenal raise in foreign trade. China has become the most important destination for foreign direct investment (FDI) any where in the world.

(c) Major two outcomes of the latest changes that took place in the counrty are :

• Phenomenal Rise in Foreign Trade: China has an economic growth of over 10 per cent which make this country a fast moving economy.
• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI): FDI in 2000-01 was 70 billion CIS. dollars which was increased by 2010-11 to 1,15 billion U.S. dollars.

Question 21.
In the given political outline map of India, five states have been shown as (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Identify these state on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet as per the following format:

(i) The State where the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre took place.
(ii) The State where a Diary Cooperative Movement under the name ‘Amul’ was launched.
(iii) The State which was benefitted by the ‘Green Revolution*.
(iv) The State which was created in 2000.
(v) The State which faced a near-famine situation during the 1960s. [1 × 5 = 5]

Answer:

Question 22.
What is meant by ‘Shock Therapy’? Explain any four consequences of Shock Therapy. [2 + 4 = 6]
OR
Explain the idea of New International Economic Order (NIEO) for the development of Least Developed Countries (LDCs). Highlight any three reforms proposed by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development in 1972 to improve the global trading system. [3 + 3 = 6]
Answer:
The model of transition in Russia, Central Asia and East Europe that was influenced by the World Bank and the IMF came to be known as ‘Shock Therapy’. It was a painful process of transition from an authoritarian socialist system to a democratic capitalist system. The ‘Shock Therapy’ varied in intensity and speed amongst the former second world war countries, but its direction and features were quite similar.
Consequences of Shock Therapy were :
(i) Russia, the large state controlled industrial complex almost collapsed, as about 90 percent of its industries were put up for sale to private individuals and companies. This was called ‘the largest garage sale in history’, as valuable industries were undervalued and sold at throw away prices.

(ii) The value of ‘Rouble’ the Russian currency, declined dramatically due to high rate of inflation and real GDP of Russia also declined between 1989 to 1999.

(iii) The old system of social welfare was systematically destroyed. The withdrawal of government subsidies pushed to the periphery of society, and the academic and intellectual manpower was disintegrated or migrated.

(iv) Post-soviet states, especially Russia, were divided between rich and poor regions. Unlike the earlier system, there was now great economic inequality between people.

(v) The construction of democratic institutions was not given the same attention and priority as the demands of economic transformation. Dissent or opposition was not allowed.
OR
The idea behind the New International Economic Order (NIEO) was to ensure the sustainable economic development of the Least Developed Countries (LDC). The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) brought out a report in 1972 entitled “Towards a New Trade Policy for Development”.
The report proposed a reform of the global trading system to :

• give the least developed countries (LDC) control over their natural resources exploited by the developed western countries. “
• obtain access to western markets so that the LDCs could sell their products and therefore, made trade more beneficial for the poorer countries.
• reduce the cost of import of technology from the Western countries.
• provide the LDCs with a greater role in international economic institution.

Question 23.
Describe any three operations (military actions) launched by the US which proved and established its supremacy as a Hard Power. [2 × 3 = 6]
OR
Describe any three points of conflict between India and Pakistan. [2 × 3 = 6]
Answer:
The US power lies in the overwhelming superiority of its Military Power but even better than the absolute capabilities of the US is the fact that no other power in the world today can remotely match them. We can cite the three major military operations by US which indicate its supremacy as a Hard Power.
(i) In August 1990, Iraq invaded Kuwait, rapidly occupying every oil field. After a series of diplomatic attempts failed at convincing Iraq to quit its aggression, the UN mandated the liberation of Kuwait by force. This operation was known as “Operation Desert Storm”. The US President George H. W. Bush hailed the emergency and UN coalition, where 75 per cent forces were from US liberated Kuwait and Iraqi forces were quickly defeated. This is also known as first Gulf War. Thereafter, US invasion of Iraq showed the supremacy which finally ended in hanging of the President of Iraq, Saddam Hussain.

(ii) During the time of Bill Clinton, US was busy in other various issues but again in 1999, in response to Yugoslavian action against the predominantly Albanian population in the province of Kosovo, the US military action took place. The air forces of the NATO countries led by the US bombarded targets around Yugoslavia for well over two months, forcing the downfall of Yugoslavian government of in KOSOVO.

(iii) Another significant US military action during Clinton time was in response to the bombing of US embassies in Nairobi, Kenya and Dar-es-Salaam, Tanzania in 1998. These bombing was attributed to Al-Qaeda, a terrorist organisation, within a few days of this bombing, President Clinton ordered “Operation Infinite Reach”, a series of cruise missile strikes on Al-Qaeda Terrorist targets in Sudan and Afghanistan. When terrorist, through 19 hijackers attacked Twin Tower in US on 11 September, 2001 (hence forth referred as 9/11), the response of US was swift and ferocious. US military attacked mainly Al-Qaeda and Taliban regime in Afghanistan.
OR
When Britishers ended their rule in undivided India and handed over the independence in August 1947, tmdivided India was divided in four states/countries, i. e., India, West Pakistan, East Pakistan and Kashmir. The conflict began immediately thereafter when Pakistan started claiming that Kashmir should be a part of Pakistan.
The details of major three conflicts are as below :
(i) Soon after the partition, the two countries got embroiled in a conflict over the fate of Kashmir. Pakistani government claimed that Kashmir belonged to them whereas, the Indian government claimed the same. Wars between India and Pakistan in 1947-48 and 1965 failed to settle the matter. The 1947-48 war resulted in the division of Kashmir province into Pakistan occupied Kashmir and Indian province of Jammu and Kashmir divided by the Line of control (LOC). Pakistan started supporting the militants and giving training to them, and started attacks in groups and killed many civilians.

(ii) Second issue of conflict was the control of the all Siachen glacier and over acquisition of arms. The arms race between two countries assumed a new character with both states, acquiring nuclear weapons and missiles to deliver such arms against each other.

(iii) India and Pakistan also have problems over the sharing of river waters. Until 1960, they were tocked in a fierce argument over the use of the rivers of Indus basin. However, in 1960, with the help of World Bank, India and Pakistan signed the Indus Water Treaty.

Question 24.
Examine the six reforms proposed as criteria for new permanent and non-permanent members of the U.N. Security Council. [1 × 6 = 6]
OR
Analyse any three broad Components of the security strategy of India. [2 × 3 = 6]
Answer:
On the reforms of structures and processes, the biggest discussion has been on the functioning of security council. The following are just some of the criteria that have been proposed for new permanent and non-permanent members of the security council. For a new member, it has been suggested that it should be :

• A major economic power.
• A major military power.
• A substantial contributor to the UN budget.
• A big nation in terms of its population.
• A nation that respects democracy ajid Human Rights.
• A country that would make the council more representative of the world’s diversity in terms of geography, economic systems and culture.

Security council should reform and improve its working to make the UN more effective i.e., inclusion of member states should be judged on the basis of their contribution to peace keeping initiatives. Permanent members should be from industrialised developed countries and should have special Veto Powers. This position remains the same and no one is allowed to enter in this elite list. Such developed big countries usually neglect the need of smaller nations and such situation must be changed and balanced by enhancing representation from developing countries to become either permanent or non-permanent members of security council.
OR
India has faced traditional (military) and non- traditional threats to its security that have emerged from within as well as outside its borders, its security7 strategy has four broad components, which have been used in a varying combination from time to time. We will analyse these here components.
(i) The first component was strengthening its military capabilities because India has been involved in conflicts with its neighbours—Pakistan in 1947-48,1965, 1971 and 1999; and China in 1962. Since, it is surrounded by nuclear armed countries in South Asian region, India’s decision to conduct nuclear tests in 1998 was justified in terms of safeguarding her national security. India first tested a nuclear device in 1974.

(ii) The second component of India’s security strategy has been to strengthen international norms and international institutions to protect its security interest. India’s first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, supported the cause of Asian. Solidarity, decolonisation, disarmament and the UN as the forum in which international conflicts could be settled. India also took initiatives to bring about a universal and non-discriminatory non-proliferation regime in which all countries would have the same rights and obligations with respect to weapons of mass destruction (nuclear, biological, chemical). It argued for an equitable New International Economic Order (NIEO). This strategy from India’s point was also justified.

(iii) The third component of Indian security strategy is centered towards meeting security challenges within the country. Several militant groups from areas such as Nagaland, Mizoram, Punjab and Kashmir among others have, fought from time to time, to break away from India. India has tried to preserve national unity by adopting a democratic political system, which allows different communities and groups of people to freely articulate their grievances and share political power. This strategy was absolutely correct.

Question 25.
Describe any three major reasons that led to the declaration of Emergency in 1975. [2 × 3 = 6]
OR
Describe any four steps taken by Indira Gandhi to implement the ‘Garibi Hatao’ programme. [1 1/2 × 4 = 6]
Answer:
The emergency was proclaimed in response to a petition filed by Raj Narain, a socialist leader and a candidate, who had contested against Indira Gandhi in 1971, the following were the reasons given by the government for declaring a National Emergency in 1975.

• The government declared that there was a threat of internal disturbances and therefore, it invoked the article 352 of the constitution.
• The government has a number of ideological differences with the judiciary. There were communication errors between the two regarding the appointment of Chief Justice of India.
• Technically speaking, this was within the powers of government, as our constitution provides some special powers to the government once an emergency is declared.
  The President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad thus proclaimed emergency, which became the most controversial episode in India’s politics.
  OR

In 1971, Indira Gandhi gave a popular slogan “Garibi Hatao”. To implement the programme under this slogan, she took following decisions :

• Indira Gandhi focused on the growth of the public sector.
• Imposition of ceiling on rural land holding and urban property.
• Removal of disparaties in income and opportunity.
• Government nationalised total 20 banks which controlled 70 per cent of India’s deposit and controlled distribution of money.
• Indira Gandhi discontinued the princely privilages i.e., Privy Purse.
  Through Garibi Hatao programme Indira Gandhi tried to generate a support base among the disadvantaged, especially among the landless labourers, dalits and Adivasis, minorities, woman and unemployed youth. In the long run, this programme helped the people below poverty line.

Question 26.
Analyse any three threats to the global environment these days. [2 × 3 = 6]
OR
Analyse any three demerits of globalisation.
Answer:
The major three threats to the global environment are :

• Ozone layer depletion is an alarming concern for ecosystem.
• Loss of fertility of agricultural land due to extreme use of fertilisers and overgrazed grasslands.
• Coastal pollution too is increasing globally. Although the open sea is relatively clean, the coastal waters are becoming increasingly polluted largely due to land-based activities. If unchecked, intensive human setdement of coastal zones across the globe will lead to further deterioration in the quality of marine environment.
• Global warming causing melting of Glaciers.

OR
Demerits of Globalisation:

• Expensive seeds purchased form MNC’s compelled farmers committing suicides due to crop failure.
• Slowly and gradually MNC’s started buying Indian companies, resulted in instability in market.
• While some advances were made in certain arenas, critical sectors such as health, housing and primary education did not receive the attention they deserved.
• In view of increasing competition from the world, the economics tend to be over protective of domestic interests. This, ironically, leads the economics of the world to move away from one another instead of coming together.
• Due to globalisation, the developed economics use the huge population and market potential of the developing economics to maximize their profits with little regard for social and other considerations.

Question 27.
“In the midst of severe competition and many conflicts, a consensus appears to have emerged among most political parties of India.” In the light of this statement, analyse any three elements of growing consensus. [2 x 3 = 6]
OR
“Jammu and Kashmir is one of the living examples of plural society and politics.” Justify the statement with any three suitable arguments.
Answer:
Growing consensus: On many crucial issues, a broad agreement has emerged among most parties. Though many of the political parties have ideological differences but such consensus help them come together and keep their rival political parties not to become ruling party.
The main elements of such consensus are as follows :
(i) Agreement on new economic policies: While many groups are opposed to the new economic policies, many among them are in support of the new economic policies. They believe that these policies would lead the country to prosperity and status of economic power in the world.

(ii) Acceptance of the political and social claims of the backward caste: Backward population in the country is 40.94%, the SC population is 19.59%, ST population is 8.63% of the total population. Hence, to attract these population, all political parties have recognised that the social and political claims need to be accepted. As a result, all political parties now support reservation of seats for the “Backward Classes” in education and employment. Political parties are also willing to ensure that the OBCs get adequate share of power.

(iii) Emphasis on pragmatic considerations rather than ideological positions and political alliances without ideological agreement: Coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological differences to power sharing arrangements. Thus, most parties of NDA did not agree with the ‘HINDUTAVA’ ideology of the BJP. Yet, they came together to form a government and remained in power for a full term.
It is clear from the above statement that to become a “RULING PARTY/ALLIANCES”, any party can shift from one camp to other camp. In present case, BJP alliances wanted to keep congress out of Central Ruling Party.
OR
Jammu and Kashmir: The political situation in the state has many dimensions :
(i) Jammu and Kashmir comprises of three social and political regions: Jammu, Kashmir and Ladakh.

• The heart of the Kashmir region is the Kashmir valley. The people are Kashmiri speaking and mostly muslim with a small Kashmiri which consists speaking Hindu Minority
• Jammu region is a mix of foothills and plains of various languages speaking Hindus, Muslim and Sikhs.
• The Ladakh region is mountainous and has very lithe population, which is equally divided between Buddhists and Muslims.

(ii) Separatists want a separate Kashmiri Nation, independent of India and Pakistan. However, there is a group in Kashmir who wants greater autonomy for the people of state within the Indian Union. The idea of autonomy attracts the people of Jammu and Ladakh region in a different way-they ofteji complain of being backward and neglected. Therefore, the demand for Intra-state autonomy is as strong as the demand for the state autonomy.

(iii) The initial period of popular support to military has now given a way to the urge for peace. The centre has started negotiations with various sepatarist groups. Instead of demanding a separate nation, most of the sepatarists in dialogue are trying to renegotiate a relationship of the State with India. Jammu and Kashmir is one of the living examples of plural society and politics. Not only there are diversities of all kinds (religious, cultural, linguistic, ethnic, tribal) but there are also divergent political aspirations. However, despite all these diversities and divergence on the one hand and continued situation of conflict on the other, the plural and secular culture of the State has remained largely intact.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2018 Outside Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

WB Scholarship 2019: To support meritorious minority students in West Bengal, the government has introduced a scholarship known as West Bengal Scholarship Scheme. Some of the subsidiary departments and premium institutes like Indian Institute of Management (Kolkata), Indian Institute of Technology (Kharagpur), Institute of Science Education and Research (Kolkata), and National Institute of Technology (Durgapur) supports and encourages students to get hassle-free education. The Application for WB Scholarship under Aikyashree for minority students are open and last date to apply is September 15, 2019.

The government provides a number of scholarship to the students like Swami Vivekananda Merit Cum Means Scholarship for Minorities, West Bengal Post-Matric Scholarship for SC/ST/OBC, Bigyani Kanya Medha Britti Scholarship, West Bengal Pre-Matric Scholarship for SC ST Students and Hindi Scholarship Scheme.

For all the scholarship schemes, the candidate must have a domicile of the state. Candidates can apply offline or can fill online application from the official gov.in WB Scholarship website.

Latest Update:

The applications for scholarships under Aikyashree (West Bengal State Scholarship Scheme for Minority Students are now open. The last date to apply is 15 September 2019. Click here to know more.

WB Scholarship 2019 – List of Scholarships

It is difficult to find every information on a single platform when you already are tensed about how to continue further studies with financial assistance. We are here to help you out and we will list every detail about all the WB Scholarships offered in the state.

WB Scholarship 2019 – Eligibility

Swami Vivekananda Merit cum Means Scholarship for Minorities: This West Bengal merit cum means scholarship is for students studying from Class 11th onwards. The students are selected on the basis of academic merit and financial need. Candidates must have scored at least 75% marks in case studying in Diploma, Higher Secondary or graduation level. In the case of Post-graduation, a candidate must have scored at least 53% (general) or 55% (engineering) marks. The annual family income must not exceed INR 2.5 lakhs per annum.

West Bengal Post-Matric Scholarship for SC/ST/OBC: Students studying in the post – matriculation or post-secondary level can apply to this scholarship. Students who are studying in class 11th, 12th or in graduation/ post-graduation are eligible to get financial assistance. Candidate’s annual family income must be between INR 2 to 2.5 lakhs per annum. For OBC students, the family income must not exceed INR 1 lakh per annum.

Bigyani Kanya Medha Britti Scholarship: Girl students who are studying in class 12th or are in a graduate program in Medicine/Engineering/Basic Science at any college in the state are eligible to apply.

West Bengal Pre-Matric Scholarship for SC ST Students: This is a centrally sponsored scholarship scheme for students studying in class 9th and 10th. The annual family income must not exceed INR 2.5 lakhs per annum. Candidate must have a compulsory domicile of the state.

Hindi Scholarship Scheme: Students who have passed Madhyamik, Higher Secondary, undergraduate, postgraduate or research level programs are eligible to apply under this WB scholarship scheme. This scholarship is to promote the Hindi language in Non-Hindi state. Candidate must have passed the previous qualifying examination with at least 60% marks with Hindi as a subject.

West Bengal scholarships – Key Eligibility

WB Scholarship 2019 – How to Apply?

Once the candidate fulfills the eligibility criteria, he/she can apply to the respective scholarship schemes. In most of the schemes, candidates can apply online through an online portal and for Hindi Scholarship Scheme, the candidate needs to apply offline.

1. Swami Vivekananda Merit cum Means Scholarship for Minorities: Candidate can apply online through ‘West Bengal Minorities Development & Finance Corporation’ official website.
2. West Bengal Post-Matric Scholarship for SC/ST/OBC: Candidates need to apply online through ‘OASIS Scholarship Portal’.
3. Bigyani Kanya Medha Britti Scholarship: Candidates need to apply on the official portal of Jagadis Bose National Science Talent Search (JBNSTS), Kolkata.
4. West Bengal Pre-Matric Scholarship for SC ST Students: Candidates need to apply online through ‘OASIS Scholarship Portal’.
5. Hindi Scholarship Scheme: Candidates need to apply offline through ‘Scholarship & Stipend Section of Education, Directorate, West Bengal’ and send the application form to:

Bikash Bhaban, North Block,
9th floor, Bidhannagar, Kolkata – 700091

Students can also check other Scholarship Schemes:

• National Scholarship Portal – Click Here
• State-level Talent Search Exam – Click Here

The post WB Scholarship 2019 for OBC, SC, ST | How Can You Apply, Last Date, Application Form appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2016 Outside Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions :

• There are 22 questions in all.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Question number 1 to 7 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40
• Question numbers 8 to 13 are short-answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
• Question numbers 14 to 20 are long-answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150
• Question numbers 21 to 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps, carrying 5 marks each.
• Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer-book.
• Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

** Answer is not given due to change in present syllabus

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2016 Outside Delhi Set – I

Question 1.
Name the country where sex ratio is most unfavourable to women in the world. [1]
Answer:
Qatar—311 males per 100 females.

Question 2.
Define the concept of human development. [1]
Answer:
Human development is defined as process of enlarging people’s freedoms and opportunities and improving their well being.

Question 3.
How has the ‘New Ruhr’ landscape emerged ?
Answer:
In Ruhr region, the demand for coal declined and iron ore was exhausted, industries used imported iron ore leading to the shrinking of the region.

Question 4.
Assess the positive aspect of ‘trade liberalisation’. [1]
Answer:
Trade liberalization is removal or reduction of restriction or barriers and allows the free exchange of goods between the nation.

Question 5.
“The proportion of workers in the agricultural sector in India has shown a declining trend over the last few decades.” What does this trend indicate ? [1]
Answer:
This trend indicates a shift of dependence of workers, from farm based occupation to non- farmed based one. It shows a sectoral shift in the economy of the country.

Question 6.
Why do people migrate in large number from rural to urban areas in India ? [1]
Answer:
In India, people migrate from rural to urban areas mainly due to variety of factors such as social, economic and political factors which are :

1. Employment
2. Lack of basic infrastructure facility, i.e., education, healthcare.

Question 7.
Name the two countries which are the largest trading partners of India as per economic survey report of 2011-12. [1/2 + 1/2 = 1]
Answer:

1. U.A.E.
2. China.

Question 8.
“The knowledge and understanding of the laws of nature are extrememly valuable to human kind”. Explain the values that can help to use the gifts of nature in a sustainable manner. [3]
Answer:
The knowledge of laws of nature are highly valuable for mankind.

1. Better knowledge is developed because of better knowledge of laws of nature.
2. The understanding of concept of friction and heat helped discover fire.
3. We use law of aerodynamics of develop faster planes.
4. Harmony with their natural environment.

Thus law of nature, if known to man are extremely valuable.

Question 9.
Study the table given below and answer the questions that follow:
Continent-wise Distribution of Million Cities

Source : www.ciPfpopulation.delworld.html

Question 9.1.
Name the two continents which have shown the highest growth rate of million cities from 1950 to 2000.
Answer:

1. Africa,
2. Asia

Question 9.2.
What could have been the reason for such a growth of million cities ?
Answer:
Migration of people in large numbers from rural areas to urban areas for the purpose of livelihood mainly in big cities is the reason for such a growth.

Question 9.3.
Give the meaning of a ‘million city’. [3]
Answer:
The city which has one million or more than one million citizens is known as ‘million city’.

Question 10.
Differentiate between ‘Hamleted’ and
Answer:

Question 11.
How is rainwater harvesting helped in the development of certain areas of India ? Explain with examples. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting helps in development of certain area in India by :

1. It helps to capture and store rainwater for various uses.
2. It helps to recharge groundwater aquifier.
3. In Rajasthan rainwater harvesting structures locally known as Kund and Tanka are constructed near or in the house or village to store harvested rainwater.
4. It prevents soil erosion and flooding.
5. It helps to provide water supply in case of drought.
6. It improves quality of ground water by reducing salinity and other salts.

Question 12.
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:

Question 12.1.
Identify and name the steel plant shown in the diagram.
Answer:
Durgapur Steel Plant.
Jharia and Raniganj supply coal to this steel plant.

Question 12.2.
Name the mining areas which supply coal and manganese to this plant.
Answer:
Noamundi and Bonaigarh supply manganese to this plant.

Question 12.3.
Which is the source of water supply to this plant ?
Answer:
Damodar river is the source of water supply to this plant.

Question 13.
Examine the success of watershed management programme implemented in Jhabua district of Madhya Pradesh. [3]
Answer:
The watershed management program is highly successful because 20% of the total area of Jhabua district has been treated under this program.

1. It helps in prevention of land degradation.
2. Improves the soil quality.
3. Improves the growth of natural vegetation.
4. Improves the source of livelihood for the tribals.

Question 14.
Explain any three ‘push’ and any two ‘pull’ factors that influence the migration of population in the world. [3 + 2 = 5]
Answer:
The push and pull factors make their influence on the migration of population in the world.

1. Push factors influencing migration :
   • Unemployment : High population in towns often imposes pressure on agricultural land. This pressure and closing down of multiple industries, leads to unemployment.
   • Natural Disasters : Due to natural disasters such as flood, draught and earthquake, shelters are destroyed and agricultural production and other sources of income suffer; such factors force people to migrate to safer places.
   • Political Unrest: Political turmoil or situations like civil war make the surroundings insecure. Therefore, people move from such place to more safe places. Example : People migrating from Syria to European countries.
2. Pull factors :
   • Better Employment Opportunities :
     Industrialised and developed areas are able to provide better job opportunities and higher wages, attracting more people and causing migration.
   • Better Health and Education Facilities : Urban or developed areas have better healthcare, education and other facilities which attract people. For example, people migrate from less developed towns to more developed towns and cities in search of better educational and health facilities.

Question 15.
Describe any five characteristics of plantation agriculture in the world. [5]
Answer:
Plantation agriculture is a form of commercial farming where crops are grown for profit.

1. Plantation crops are generally raised on large estates of more than 40 hectares.
2. Scientific methods of cultivation is used.
3. It requires large capital investments.
4. Estate farming is the feature of plantation agriculture which is owned by foreigners employing local labour.
5. It focuses on the cultivation of cash crops for experts.
6. Tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton, sugarcane, banana, coconut etc., are the examples of plantation crops.

Question 16.
Explain the importance of ‘communication services’ in the world. [5]
Answer:
Importance of communication services in the world is :

1. Communication induces transmission of words, messages, facts and ideas from one place to another.
2. Communication through satellites have connected remote corners of the globe.
3. The use of internet has expanded the contemporary economic and social space of no mass through e-mail, e-commerce, clearing etc.
4. It helps to spread the message from one place to another very quickly.
5. The time has reduced to spread the message.
6. Global communication has revolutionised the world.
7. The whole wind has became one global village.

Question 17.
“The Rhine waterways is the world’s most heavily used inland waterway.” In the light of this statement examine the significance of this waterway. [5]
Answer:
The significance of Rhine waterways.

1. The Rhine flows through Germany and the Netherlands.
2. It is navigable for 700 km from Rotterdum; at its mouth in the Netherlands to Basol in Swit2erland.
3. Ocean going vessels can reach up to Cologne. The Ruhr river joins the Rhine from the east.
4. It flows through a rich coal field and the whole basin has become prosperous manufacturing area.
5. Dusseldorf is the Rhine post for the region.
6. Huge tonnage moves along the stretch soon of the Ruhr and it is the world’s most heavily used waterway.
7. It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland; Germany, France, Belgium and Netherland with the North Adantic Sea Route.

Question 18.
Examine the economic and social consequences of migration in India. [21/2 + 21/2 = 5]
Answer:
The economic consequences of migration are:

1. The major benefits for the source region is the remittance sent by the migrants which is the major sources of foreign exchange.
2. In year 2002, India received US 11 $ billion as remittances from international migrants.
3. Punjab, Kerala and Tamil Nadu receive very significant amount form their international migrants.
4. The remittances sent by the internal migrants play very important role in the growth of economy of the source area.
5. Unregulated migration to the metropolitan cities of India has caused over crowding.
6. It leads development of slums in industrially developed states.

Social consequences of migration :

1. Migrants act as agent of social change. The new ideas get diffused from urban to rural areas through them.
2. It leads to intermixing of people from diverse cultures.
3. It helps in the evaluation of composite culture and widens up the mental horizon of the people.
4. It creates social vacuum and sense of dejection among individuals which motivate people to fall in the trap of anti social activities.

Question 19.
‘Fragmentation of land holdings’ and ‘degradation of cultivable land’ are the serious problems of India agriculture. Suggest and explain measures to overcome these problems. [2 + 3 = 5]
Answer:
Fragmentation of land holdings and degradation of cultivable land are serious problems of Indian agriculture.

Measures for fragmentation of land holdings :

1. Consolidation of land holdings.
2. Strict implementation of land reforms.

Loose implementation leads to exploitation of farmers and workers. Strict and better implementation may act as a measure to prevent the same.

Measures to overcome degradation of cultivable land:

1. Check water logging.
2. Use of organic manure : Use of chemical manure deterioates the quality of soil, fertility is lost, to reduce the effect organic manure should be used.
3. Cultivation of leguminous crops: Leguminous crops helps in fixing the nitrogen component and makes the soil ready for cultivation.
4. Rotation of crops.

Question 20.
Which is the apex body in India to improve the quality of National Highways ? Examine the significance of National Highways. [1 + 4 = 5]
Answer:
The apex body in India to improve the quality of National Highways is National Highway Authority of India (NHAI).
Significance of National Highways :

1. National Highways passes across the country connecting major state capitals, major cities, important ports and railway junctions.
2. National highways are meant for interstate transport and for the movement of defence men and materials in strategic areas.
3. The National Highways constitute approximately 2% of total road length carries 40% of the total road traffic.
4. They are 4-6 lane and make journey fast and easy.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of following information : [5 × 1 = 5]

(A) The country with largest area in Africa.
(B) An area of dairy farming.
(C) A major sea port.
(D) An international airport.
(E) A mega city.
Answer:

Question 22.
Locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols on the given outline political map of India: [5 × 1 = 5]
(i) The state with lowest density of population.
(ii) The state with highest percentage of rural population Uttar Pradesh.
(iii) A major copper mining area in southern Rajasthan.
(iv) The integrated iron and steel plant located in Chhattisgarh.
(v) The international airport located in Assam.
Answer:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2016 Outside Delhi Set – II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 1.
What is the average sex ratio in the world ? [1]
Answer:
The average sex ratio in the world is 990 females per 1000 males or 102 males per 100 females.

Question 3.
Mention any two major problems of Ruhr-industrial region. [1/2 + 1/2 = 1]
Answer:
Problems of Ruhr industrial region are :

1. Industrial waste disposal
2. Pollution
3. Iron ore and coal ore.

Question 4.
How is the favourable balance of trade an indicator of economic development of a country ? [1]
Answer:
If the value of export is more than the value of import than the country has positive or favourable balance of trade. Favourable balance of trade is the indicator of economic development of the country.

Question 5.
What is the main thrust of the National Youth Policy of Government of India, 2003 ? [1]
Answer:
The main thrust of the National Youth Policy of 2003 is Youth Empowerment in terms of their effective participation in decision making and carrying the responsibility of an able leader.

Question 7.
Explain one reason for the import of petroleum and its products in large quantities in India [1]
Answer:
Reasons for the import of petroleum and its products in large quantities in India are as follows :

1. Production of petroleum and its product is less than the requirement in India.
2. It is used as a fuel.
3. It is also used as an industrial raw material.
4. Demand increased due to rise in population and no. of vehicles on the roads.

Question 9.
Study the table given below and answer the questions that follow :
Continent-wise Distribution of Million Cities

Source : www.citypopulation.delworld.html

Question 9.1.
Name the two continents which have shown lowest growth rate of million cities as compared to others.
Answer:
Australia and Europe.

Question 9.2.
What reasons will you assign for this growth rate ?
Answer:

1. Growth rate of population is slow.
2. Migration from rural to urban is slow.

Question 9.3.
Give the meaning of a ‘mega city’. [3]
Answer:
A mega city or megalopolis is a general term for cities together with their suburbs with a population of more than 10 million people.

Question 11.
Explain the significance of bio-energy to humankind in India. [3]
Answer:
The significance of bio-energy to humankind in India :

1. Bio energy is a potential source of energy conversion.
2. It can be converted into electrical energy, heat energy or gas for cooking.
3. It will also process the waste and garbage and produce energy.
4. This will improve economics life of rural areas in developing countries.
5. It reduces environmental pollution, enhance self-reliance and reduces pressure on fuel and wood.

Question 17.
‘Trans-Canadian railway line is considered as the economic artery of Canada.’ Support the F statement with suitable examples. [5 × 1 = 5]
Answer:
Trans-Canadian railway line is considered as the economic artery of Canada by the following reasons :

1. Trans-Canadian railway line is about 7050 km long rail-line in Canada, runs from Halifax in the east to Vancouver on the Pacific coast passing through Montreal, Ottawa, Winnipeg and Calgary.
2. It was constructed in 1886, as part of an agreement to make British Columbia on the west coast join the Federation of States.
3. It gained economic significance because it connected the Quebec-Montreal industrial Region with the wheat belt of Prairie region and the coniferous forest region in the north.
4. Each of these regions became complementary to the other.
5. A loop fine from Winnipeg to Thunder bay connects this rail-line with one of the important waterways of the world.
6. This line is the economic artery of Canada, wheat and meat are the important exports on this route.

Question 20.
Examine the role of Inland waterways authority of India. Explain why inland water transport is an important mode of transport. [2 + 3 = 5]
Answer:
Inland waterway :

1. The Inland waterways Authority of India was set up in 1986.
2. It was set up for the development, maintenance and regulations of national waterways in the country.
3. The authority has declared 3 inland waterways as national waterways.
4. It has also identified 10 other inland waterways which can be upgraded.
5. The famous Nehru Trophy Boat Race (Vallam Kali) is held in backwaters.

Importance of Inland Water Transport: India has the network of Inland water extending up to 14500 km. in the form of rivers, canals, backwater and creeks.

1. It is suitable for carrying bulky goods.
2. It carries both cargo and passengers.
3. It is the cheapest mode of transport.
4. It is fuel-efficient.
5. It is eco-friendly.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2016 Outside Delhi Set – III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 1.
Which age group forms the working population ? [1]
Answer:
The working age population is between 15 to 59 years.

Question 3.
Explain any two features of foot loose industries. [ 1/2 + 1/2 = 1]
Answer:

1. Footloose industries are not dependent on any particular raw material.
2. They produce in small amount and employ small labour force.

Question 4.
Explain the meaning of ‘Volume of Trade’. [1]
Answer:
The actual tonnage of goods traded makes up the volume. However, services traded cannot be measured in tonnage. Therefore, the total value of goods and services traded is considered to be the volume of trade.

Question 5.
How is agricultural density of population different from physiological density of population ? [1]
Answer:
The Agricultural density of a population is the number of farmers per net cultivable area of farmland. Physiological density is the total number of people per net unit area of arable land.

Question 7.
Name the riverine port on the eastern coast of India. [1]
Answer:
Kolkata port.

Question 9.
Study the table given below and answer the questions that follow:
Continent-wise Distribution of Million Cities

Source : www.citypopulation.delworld.html

Question 9.1.
Name the two continents, one with highest growth rate and the other with lowest growth rate of million cities.
Answer:
Highest – Africa,
Lowest – Europe

Question 9.2.
Why is the number of million cities increasing in the world ?
Answer:
The number of million cities is increasing in the world due to rapid increase in urban population because of migration from rural areas to urban areas for employment and better education facilities.

Question 9.3.
Why is the age structure considered an important indicator of population composition ? Give one reason. [1]
Answer:
The term conurbation was coined by Patrick Geddes in 1915 and applies to a large area of urban development that results from the merging or originally seperate towns or cities
e.g., Greater London

Question 11.
Explain the importance of ‘Integrated Tribal Development Project’ implemented in Bharmaur region of Himachal Pradesh. [3]
Answer:
Bharmaur tribal area comprises Bharmaur and Holi tehsils of Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is inhabited by ‘Gadd.?, a tribal community who practised transhumance and the economy is largely based on agriculture and allied activities such as sheep and goat rearing. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh.

1. This plan laid the highest priority on development of transport and communications, agriculture and allied activities, and social and community services.
2. The most significant contribution of tribal sub plan in Bharmaur region is the development of infrastructure in terms of schools, health care facilities, potable water, roads, communications.
3. The social benefits derived from ITDP include tremendous increase in literacy rate, improvement in sex ratio and decline in child marriage. The female literary rate in the region has also increased.
4. The cultivation of pulses and other cash crops has increased and there is a declining importance of pastoralism.

Question 17.
“Land transport plays a vital role in the development of trade and tourism in the world”. Support the statement with suitable examples. [5]
Answer:
Transport helps in the assembly of raw materials and distribution of finished goods. It makes possible to move goods from the place of production to the place where they are to be consumed. In the earlier days, there were only local markets due to the absence of safe means of transport. Now-a-days, trade is not restricted to the boundaries of a nation, but has spread throughout the world. Development of the efficient means of transport has knit together all the nations of the world into the one big world market. Even the perishable articles like fish, dairy products, meat etc., are being transported to distant places of the world. But without good transport facilities, such a development in trade and commerce would not have been possible. In India, there are many highways linking the major towns and cities.

For example, National Highway No. 7 (NH 7), connecting Varanasi with Kanyakumari, is the longest in the country. The Golden Quadrilateral (GQ) or Super Expressway connects the four metropolitan cities — New Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru, Chennai, Kolkata and Hyderabad which has helped in the development of trade.

Transportation links diverse destinations and ferries people commodities and services between these ‘ places. Tourism is much about travel and therefore the role of transportation in its operation is vital. Railways are also a mode of land transport that helps to carry passengers over long distances. The Border Road Organization has constructed roads in f high altitude mountainous terrain joining Chandigarh with Manali (Himachal Pradesh) and Leh (Ladakh).

This road runs at an average altitude of 4,270 metres above the mean sea level and has promoted tourism in such high altitude areas as well.

Question 20.
Explain why rail transport countinues to remain the chief mode of transport for the masses in India. [5]
Answer:
Railway transport occupies a significant role in the transport system of a country because the development of trade, industry and commerce of a country largely depends on the development of railways.

1. It facilitates long distance travel and transport of bulky goods which are not easily transported through motor vehicles.
2. It is a quick and more regular form of transport because it helps in the transportation of goods with speed and certainty.
3. It helps in the industrialization process of a country by easy transportation of coal and raw-materials at a cheaper rate.
4. It helps in the quick movement of goods from one place to another at the time of emergencies like famines and scarcity.
5. It encourages mobility of labour and thereby provides a great scope for employment.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2016 Outside Delhi appeared first on Learn CBSE.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 – Chemical Reactions and Equations NCERT Solutions for class 10 Science provided herein are designed by our subject matter experts in a simple and precise manner.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Before getting into the details of NCERT Solutions For Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions And Equations, let’s have an overview of a list of topics and subtopics under Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions And Equations:

1. Chemical Reactions And Equations
2. Chemical Equations
3. Types Of Chemical Reactions
4. Have You Observed The Effects Of Oxidation Reactions In Everyday Life? Y Life?

Free download NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations PDF in Hindi Medium as well as in English Medium for CBSE, Uttarakhand, Bihar, MP Board, Gujarat Board, and UP Board students, who are using NCERT Books based on updated CBSE Syllabus for the session 2019-20.

• रासायनिक अभिक्रियाएँ और समीकरण कक्षा 10 विज्ञान हिंदी में
• Class 10 Chemical Reactions and Equations Mind Map
• Chemical Equation
• Oxidation in Everyday Life
• Types of Chemical Reactions

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Intext Questions

Page Number: 6

Question 1
Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air ?
Answer:
Magnesium gets covered with a layer of magnesium oxide when kept in air for a long time. This layer hinders the burning of magnesium. Hence, it is to be cleaned before burning.

Question 2
Write the balanced equation for the following chemical reactions.
(i) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen chloride
(ii) Barium chloride + Aluminium sulphate → Barium sulphate + Aluminium chloride
(iii) Sodium + Water → Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
Answer:
(i) H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl
(ii) 3 BaCl₂ + Al₂(SO₄)₃ → BaSO₄ + 2 AlCl₃
(iii) 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂↑

Question 3
Write a balanced chemical equation with state symbols for the following reactions :
(i) Solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble barium sulphate and the solution of sodium chloride.
(ii) Sodium hydroxide solution (in water) reacts with hydrochloric acid solution (in water) to produce sodium chloride solution and water.
Answer:
(i) BaCl₂ (aq) + Na₂SO₄ (aq) → BaSO₄(s) + 2NaCl (aq)
(ii) NaOH (aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H₂O(l)

Page Number: 10

Question 1
A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for white washing.
(i) Name the substance ‘X’ and write its formula.
(ii) Write the reaction of the substance ‘X’ named in (i) above with water.
Answer:
(i) The substance whose solution in water is used for white washing is calcium oxide (or quick lime). Its formula is CaO.

Question 2
Why is the amount of gas collected in one of the test tubes in text book Activity 1.7 (i.e., electrolysis of water) double of the amount collected in the other? Name this gas. [CBSE 2015 (Delhi)]
Answer:
In Activity 1.7, water is electrolysed to give H₂ gas at one electrode and O₂ gas at the other electrode.
2H₂O(l) → 2H₂(g) + O₂(g)
Thus two molecules of water on electrolysis give two molecules of hydrogen gas and one molecule of oxygen gas or in other words the amount of hydrogen gas collected would be double than that of oxygen gas.

Page Number: 13

Question 1
Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in it ?
OR
An iron nail is dipped in the solution of copper sulphate for about 30 minutes. State the change in colour observed. Give reason for the change. [CBSE 2015 (Delhi)]
Answer:
When an iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution, the displacement reaction takes place. The colour of copper sulphate solution fades due to the formation of light green solution of iron sulphate.

Question 2
Give an example of a double displacement reaction other than the one given in Activity 1.10 (NCERT Text Book).
Answer:
Sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid react to form sodium chloride and water.

Question 3
Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances which are reduced in the following reactions.
(i) 4Na(s) + O₂(g) → 2Na₂O(s)
(ii) CuO (s) + H₂(g) → Cu (s) + H₂O(l)
Answer:
(i) Substances oxidised is Na as it gains oxygen and oxygen is reduced.
(ii) Substances reduced is Cu as hydrogen is oxidised as it gains oxygen.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Textbook Chapter End Questions

Question 1
Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect ?
2 PbO(s) + C(s) → 2Pb (s) + CO₂(g)
(a) Lead is getting reduced.
(b) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised.
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised.
(d) Lead oxide is getting reduced.

(i) (a) and (b)
(ii) (a) and (c)
(iii) (a), (b) and (c)
(iv) All
Answer:
(i) (a) and (b)

Question 2
Fe₂O₃ + 2Al → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe
The above reaction is an example of a
(a) combination reaction
(b) double displacement reaction
(c) decomposition reaction
(d) displacement reaction
Answer:
(d) Displacement reaction.

Question 3
What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filings ? Tick the correct answer :
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced.
(c) No reaction takes place.
(d) Iron salt and water are produced.
Answer:
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.

Question 4
What is a balanced chemical equation ? Why should chemical equations be balanced ?
Answer:
A balanced chemical equation has an equal number of atoms of different elements in the reactants and products.
The chemical equations should be balanced to satisfy the law of conservation of mass.

Question 5
Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them.
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide.
(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and a precipitate of barium sulphate.
(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Answer:
(a) 3H₂ (g) + N₂ (g) → 2NH₃ (g)
(b) H₂S (g) + 3O₂ (g) → SO₂ (g) + 2H₂O(l)
(c) 3BaCl₂ (aq) + Al₂(SO₄)₃ (aq) → 2AlCl₃ (aq) + 3BaSO₄ ↓(s)
(d) 2K (s) + 2H₂O (l) → 2KOH (aq) + H₂ (g)

Question 6
Balance the following chemical equations :
(a) HNO₃ + Ca (OH)₂ → Ca (NO₃)₂ + H₂O
(b) NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O
(c) NaCl + AgNO₃ → AgCl + NaNO₃
(d) BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + HCl
Answer:
(a) 2HNO₃ + Ca(OH)₂ → Ca(NO₃)₂ + 2H₂O
(b) 2NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O
(c) NaCl + AgNO₃ → AgCl + NaNO₃
(d) BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2HCl

Question 7
Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions :
(a) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide → Calcium carbonate + Water
(b) Zinc + Silver nitrate → Zinc nitrate + Silver
(c) Aluminium + Copper chloride → Aluminium chloride + Copper
(d) Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate → Barium sulphate + Potassium chloride
Answer:
(a) Ca (OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O
(b) Zn + 2AgNO₃ → Zn(NO₃)₂ + 2 Ag
(c) 2Al + 3 CuCl₂ → 2AlCl₃ + 3 Cu
(d) BaCl₂ + K₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2KCl

Question 8
Write the balanced chemical equation for the following and identify the type of reaction in each case :
(a) Potassium bromide (aq) + Barium iodide (aq) → Potassium iodide (aq) + Barium
(b) Zinc carbonate(s) → Zinc oxide (s) + Carbon dioxide (g) bromide(s)
(c) Hydrogen (g) + Chloride (g) → Hydrogen chloride (g)
(d) Magnesium (s) + Hydrochloric acid (aq) → Magnesium chloride (aq) + Hydrogen (g)
Answer:
(a) 2KBr (aq) + Bal₂(aq) → 2Kl(aq) + BaBr₂(s)
Type : Double displacement reaction

(b) ZnCO₃ (s) → ZnO (s) + CO₂ (g)
Type : Decomposition reaction

(c) H₂ (g) + Cl₂ (g) → 2HCl(g)
Type : Combination reaction

(d) Mg (s) + 2HCl (aq) → MgCl₂ (aq) + H₂ (g)
Type : Displacement reaction

Question 9
What does one mean by exothermic and endothermic reactions ? Give examples.
Answer:
Exothermic reactions : Those reactions in which heat is evolved are known as exothermic reactions. An exothermic reaction is indicated by writing “+ Heat”on the products side of an equation.
Example :
(i) C (s) + O₂ (g) → CO₂ (g) + Heat
(ii) N₂ (g) + 3H₂ (g) → 2NH3 (g) + Heat

Endothermic reactions : Those reactions in which heat is absorbed are known as endothermic reactions. An endothermic reaction is usually indicated by writing “Heat” on the product side of a chemical equation.
Examples :
(i) C (s) + 2S (s) → CS₂ (l) – Heat
(ii) N₂ (g) + O₂ (g) → 2NO(g) – Heat

Question 10
Why is respiration considered an exothermic reaction ? Explain.
Answer:
Respiration is an exothermic process because during respiration glucose combines with oxygen in the cells of our body to form carbon dioxide and water along with the production of energy.

Question 11
Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of combination reactions? Write equations for these reactions.
Answer:
In a decomposition reaction, a single compound breaks down to produce two or more simpler substances.
For example:

While, in a combination reaction, two or more substances simply combine to form a new substance.
For example:

Question 12
Write one equation each for the decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the form of heat, light or electricity.
OR
Decomposition reactions require energy either in the form of heat or light or electricity for breaking down the reactants. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the form of heat, light and electricity. [CBSE 2015 (Delhi)]
Answer:

Question 13
What is the difference between displacement and double displacement reactions? Write equations for these reactions.
Answer:
In displacement reactions, a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its solution. For example,
Fe(s) + CuSO₄(aq) → Cu(s) + FeSO₄(aq)
This is a displacement reaction where iron displaces copper from its solution.
In double displacement reactions, two reactants in solution exchange their ions. For example,
AgNO₃(aq) + NaCl (aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO₃ (aq)
This is a double displacement reaction where silver nitrate and sodium chloride exchange Cl^– and NO₃^– ions between them.

Question 14
In the refining of silver, the recovery of silver from silver nitrate solution involved displacement by copper metal. Write down the reaction involved.
Answer:

Question 15
What do you mean by a precipitation reaction ? Explain by giving examples.
Answer:
A reaction in which an insoluble solid called precipitate is formed that separates from the solution is called a precipitation reaction.
Example : When a solution of iron (III) chloride and ammonium hydroxide are mixed, a brown precipitate of iron (III) hydroxide is formed.

Question 16
Explain the following in terms of gain or loss of oxygen with two examples each:
(a) Oxidation and
(b) Reduction.
Answer:
(a) Oxidation : The addition of oxygen to a substance is called oxidation.
Example :
(i) S(s) + O₂(g) → SO₂(g) (Addition of oxygen to sulphur)
(ii) 2Mg(s) + O₂ (g) → 2MgO(s) (Addition of oxygen to magnesium)

(b) Reduction : The removal of oxygen from a substance is called reduction.
Example: (i) CuO + H2 Cu + H₂O
Here, copper oxide is being reduced to copper because oxygen gets removed from copper oxide.

(ii) ZnO + C → Zn + CO
Here, zinc oxide is being reduced to zinc because oxygen gets removed from zinc oxide.

Question 17
A shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating in air becomes black in colour. Name the element ‘X’ and the black coloured compound formed.
Answer:
Element ‘X’ is copper (Cu).
The black coloured compound is copper oxide (CuO). The reaction involved is

Question 18
Why do we apply paint on iron articles ?
Answer:
Paint does not allow iron articles to come in contact with air, water and saves iron articles from damage due to rusting.

Question 19
Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why ?
Answer:
To keep food items fresh and save from getting oxidised, food items are flushed with nitrogen.

Question 20
Explain the following terms with one example each (a) Corrosion, (b) Rancidity.
Answer:
(a) Corrosion : It is the process in which metals are eaten up gradually by the action of air, moisture or a chemical (such as an acid) on their surface.
Example : When iron is exposed to moist air for a long period of time, its surface acquires a coating of a brown, flaky substance called rust. Rust is mainly hydrated iron (III) oxide [Fe₂O₃.xH₂0].

(b) Rancidity : The condition produced by aerial oxidation of fats and oils in foods marked by unpleasant smell and taste is called rancidity.
Rancidity spoils the food materials prepared in fats and oils which have been kept for a considerable time and makes them unfit for eating.
Rancidity can be prevented by adding anti-oxidants to foods containing fats and oils. It can also be prevented by flushing fat and oil containing foods with nitrogen before sealing.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science (Chemistry) Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science. Here we have given Class 10 Science NCERT Solutions Chapter 1.

Question 1
Which of the given statements about the reaction below are incorrect?

a. Lead is getting reduced
b. Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised
c. Carbon is getting oxidised
d. Lead oxide is getting reduced
(i) (a) and (b)
(ii) (a) and (c)
(iii) (a), (b) and (c)
(iv) all
Solution:
(i) (a) and (b)

Question 2

The above reaction is an example of a
(i). Combination reaction
(ii). Double displacement reaction
(iii). Decomposition reaction
(iv). Displacement reaction
Solution:
(iv) Displacement reaction

Question 3
What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron fillings? Tick the correct answer.
a. Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced
b. Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced
c. No reaction takes place
d Iron salt and water are produced
Solution:
Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced

Download NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations PDF

Question 4
What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should chemical equations be balanced?
Solution:
An equation for a chemical reaction is an equation in which the number of atoms for each element in the reaction and the total charge is the same for both the reactants and the products. In other words, the mass and the charge are balanced on both sides of the reaction.

Question 5
Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them.
a. Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia
b. Hydrogen sulfide gas burns in air to give water and sulfur dioxide
c. Barium chloride reacts with Aluminium sulfate to give Aluminium chloride and a precipitate of barium sulphate
d. Potassium metal reacts with water to give a potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas
Solution:
a. 3H₂ + N₂ → 2NH₃
b. 2H₂S + 3O₂ → 2H₂O + 2SO₂
c. 3BaCl₂ + Al₂(SO₄)₃ → 2AlCl₃ + 3BaSO₄
d. 2K + 2H₂O → 2KOH + H₂

Question 6
Balance the following chemical equations.
a. HNO₃ + Ca(OH)₂ → Ca(NO₃)₂ + H₂O
b.NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O
C. NaCl + AgNO₃ → AgCl + NaNO₃
d. BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + HCl
Solution:
a. 2HNO₃ + 2Ca(OH)₂ → Ca(NO₃)₂ + 2H₂O
b. 6NaOH + 3H₂SO₄ → 3Na₂SO₄ + 6H₂O
C. NaCl + AgNO₃ → AgCI + NaNO₃
d. BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2HCl

Question 7
Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions:
(a) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide → Calcium carbonate + Water(b) Zinc + Silver nitrate → Zinc nitrate + Silver(c) Aluminium + Copper chloride → Aluminium chloride + Copper(d) Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate → Barium sulphate + Potassium chlorideAnswer:(a) Ca (OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O(b) Zn + 2AgNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + 2 Ag(c) 2Al + 3 CuCl2 → 2AlCl3 + 3 Cu(d) BaCl2 + K2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2KCl

Question 8
Write the balanced chemical equation for the following and identify the type of reaction of each case.

Solution:
a. 2KBr + BaI₂ → 2KI + BaBr₂ — Double Displacement reaction
b. ZnCO₃ → ZnO + CO₂ — Decomposition reaction
c. H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl — Combination reaction
d. Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂ — Displacement reaction

Question 9
What is meant by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give examples.
Solution:
An exothermic reaction is one that releases heat.
If 1 mole of N₂ molecule reacts with 1 mole of O₂ molecule, the heat of 184 KJ has to be supplied to initiate the reaction to give 1 mole of NO molecule. This means that the bonds between N – N and O – O are so strong that they do not break easily. N₂ has triple covalent bond between the two N atoms. O₂ has a double covalent bond. Thus energy has to be put into the reaction to break the strong bonds. Thus the above reaction is a good example of an endothermic reaction.

Question 10
Why is respiration considered an exothermic reaction?
Solution:
During respiration, glucose combines with oxygen in the cells of our body to form carbon dioxide and water along with the production of energy.
Glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + energy
It is an exothermic reaction, because energy is produced during this process.

Question 11
Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of combination reactions? Write equations for decomposition reactions.
Solution:
Essentially, decomposition reactions are the opposite of combination reactions. A compound decomposes (i.e., “splits-up”) into two or more compounds and/or elements. For example, mercury (II) oxide will, decompose into mercury metal and oxygen, upon heating:
2HgO →  2Hg + O₂
Since heat had to be added to make this reaction occur, it is an endothermic reaction. Most decomposition reactions are endothermic. Another example of decomposition reaction is the heating of calcium carbonate (sea shells, chalk):

Question 12
Write one equation each for decomposition reactions in which energy is supplied in the form of heat, light or electricity?
Solution:
When calcium carbonate is heated, it decomposes to give calcium oxide and carbon dioxide:

Question 13
What is the difference between displacement and double displacement reactions? Write relevant equations for the above?
Solution:
The difference between the displacement and double displacement reactions is that in a displacement reaction one element displaces another by virtue of it being more reactive whereas in a double displacement two anions and two cations switch places between two compounds respectively.
For example:
CuSO₄ (aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO₄ + Cu(s)
Blue copper sulphate solution reacting with solid zinc will give rise to colourless zinc sulphate solution and solid copper. Thus Zn displaces Cu in the salt form. Zn is more reactive than Cu.
An example of double displacement reaction is the reaction between sodium carbonate and calcium chloride, both in aqueous
Solution:
Na₂CO₃ (aq) + CaCl₂ (aq) → CaCO₃ (ppt) + 2NaCl(aq)

Question 14
In the refining of silver, the recovery of silver from silver nitrate solution involves displacement by copper metal. Write down the reaction involved.
Solution:

Question 15
What do you mean by a precipitation reaction? Explain by giving examples:
Solution:
A precipitation reaction is a reaction in which soluble ions in separate solutions are mixed together to form an insoluble compound that settles out of solution as a solid. This insoluble compound is called a precipitate.

An example of a precipitation reaction
Aqueous silver nitrate (AgNO3), when added to a solution containing potassium chloride (KCl), precipitates a white solid, and silver chloride is observed.
AgNO_{3 (aq)} + KCl_(aq) → AgCl_(s) + KNO_3(aq)
The silver chloride (AgCl) has formed a solid, which is observed as a precipitate.

Question 16
A shiny brown colored element ‘X’ on heating in the air becomes black in color. Name the element ‘X’ and the black coloured compound formed.
Solution:
The shiny brown colored element X is copper metal (Cu). When copper metal is heated in air, it forms a black colored compound copper oxide. So, the black colored compound is the copper oxide or copper (II) oxide, CuO.

Question 17
Why do we apply paint on iron articles?
Solution:
Rust is a soft and porous substance, which gradually falls from the surface of an iron object, and then the iron below starts rusting. Thus, rusting of iron (or corrosion of iron) is a continuous process which, if not prevented in time, eats up the whole iron object. So, when we apply paint on iron articles it reduces the rusting of iron.

Question 18
Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why?
Solution:
Packaging fat and oil containing foods in nitrogen gas can prevent rancidity. When the fat and oil present in food materials gets oxidised (in air), their oxidation products have an unpleasant smell and taste. When it is surrounded by unreactive gas, nitrogen, there is no oxygen (of air) to cause its oxidation and make it rancid.

Question 19
Explain the following terms with one example each.
a. Corrosion
b. Rancidity
Solution:
a. Corrosion is the process in which metals are eaten up gradually by the action of air, moisture or a chemical on their surface. Corrosion is caused mainly by the oxidation of metals by the oxygen of air.
Example: Rusting of iron is the most common form of corrosion. When an iron object is left in damp air for a considerable period of time, it gets covered with a red-brown flaky substance called ‘rust’. This is called rusting of iron.
b. The condition produced by aerial oxidation of fat and oil in food which is marked by an unpleasant smell and taste is called rancidity.
Example: Rancidity can be retarded by keeping food in a refrigerator.
The refrigerator has a low temperature inside it. When the food is kept in a refrigerator, the oxidation of fat and oil in it is slowed down due to low temperature. So, the development of rancidity due to oxidation is retarded.

Question 20
Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air?
Solution:
To remove the oxide layer and facilitates rapid burning.

Question 21
Write the balanced equation for the following chemical reactions.
i. Hydrogen + Chloride → Hydrogen chloride
ii. Barium chloride + Aluminium sulphate → Barium sulphate + Aluminium chloride
iii. Sodium + water → Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
Solution:
i. H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl
ii. 3BaCl₂ + Al₂(SO₄)₃ → 3BaSO₄ + 2AlCl₃
iii. 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂

Question 22
Write a balanced chemical equation and state symbols for the following reactions.
a. Solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble barium sulphate and the solution of sodium chloride
b. Sodium hydroxide solution (in water) reacts with hydrochloric acid solution (in water) to produce sodium chloride solution and water.
Solution:

Question 23
A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for white washing.
Name the substance ‘X’ and write its formula.
(i) Write the reaction of the substance ‘X; named in (ii) above with water
Solution:

Question 24
Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped into it?
Solution:
In this reaction, iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution. The deep blue colour of copper sulphate solution fades due to the formation of light green solution of iron sulphate. A red-brown coating of copper metal is formed on the surface of the iron metal. This displacement reaction occurs because iron is more reactive than copper.

Question 25
Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced in the following reactions.
i. 4Na(s) + O₂ (g) → 2Na₂O(s)
ii. CuO(s) + H₂(g) → Cu(s) + H₂O(l)
Solution:
i. 4Na(s) + O₂ (g) → 2Na₂O(s)
Here oxygen is added to sodium. The addition of oxygen is Called oxidation. So the substance that is oxidized is sodium Na.
ii. CuO(s) + H₂(g) → Cu(s) + H₂O(l)

In this reaction, copper oxide (CuO) gives the oxygen required for the oxidation of hydrogen; therefore, copper oxide is the oxidizing agent. Hydrogen is responsible for removing oxygen from copper oxide; therefore, hydrogen is the reducing agent here.

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 (MCQs) [1 Mark each]

Question 1.
When crystals of lead nitrate are heated strongly in a dry test tube
(a) crystals immediately melt
(b) a brown residue is left
(c) white fumes appear in the test tube
(d) a yellow residue is left
Answer:
(b)Pungent smelling, brown fumes are evolved due to NO₂ gas and brown coloured residue of lead oxide (PbO) is left.

Question 2.
A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually added to the beaker containing acidified permanganate solution. The light purple colour of the solution fades and finally disappears. Which of the following is the correct explanation for the observation? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) KMnO₄ is an oxidising agent, it oxidises FeSO₄
(b) FeSO₄ acts as an oxidising agent and oxidises KMnO₄
(c) The colour disappears due to dilution, no reaction is involved
(d) KMnO₄ is an unstable compound and decomposes in the presence of FeSO₄ to a colourless compound
Answer:
(a)Potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) in the presence of dil. H₂SO₄, i.e. in acidic medium, acts as a strong oxidising agent. In acidic medium, KMnO₄ oxidises ferrous sulphate to ferric sulphate.

Question 3.
Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to granulated zinc taken in a test tube. The following observations are recorded. Point out the correct observation.
(a) The surface of metal becomes shining
(b) The reaction mixture turns milky
(c) Odour of a pungent smelling gas is recorded
(d) A colourless and odourless gas is evolved
Answer:
(d)Zinc metal reacts with dil. HCl to form zinc chloride and bubbles of colourless and odourless hydrogen gas is evolved.

Question 4.
When a magnesium ribbon is burnt in air, the ash formed is
(a) black
(b) white
(c) yellow
(d) pink
Answer:
(b)When a Mg ribbon is burnt in air, the ash formed is of magnesium oxide which is white in colour.
2Mg(r) + O₂(g) → 2MgO(f)

Question 5.
Three beakers labelled as A, B and C each containing 25 mL of water were taken. A small amount of NaOH, anhyd. CuSO₄ and NaCl were added to the beakers A, B and C, respectively. It was observed that there was an increase in the temperature of the solutions contained in beakers A and B whereas, in case of beaker C, the temperature of the solution falls. Which one of the following statements is/are correct?
I. In beakers A and B, exothermic process has occurred.
II. In beakers A and B, endothermic process has occurred.
III. In beaker C, the exothermic process has occurred.
IV. In beaker C, endothermic process has occurred. [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) I and IV
(d) II and III
Answer:
(c)As in case of beakers A and B, heat is given out, so temperature became high, hence it is an exothermic reaction while in beaker C, heat is absorbed from water, so temperature falls, hence it is an endothermic process.

Question 6.
Which of the following will be required to identify the gas evolved when dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with zinc metal?
(a) Red litmus paper
(b) pH paper
(c) Lime water
(d) A burning splinter
Answer:
(d)On reacting with dil. HCl, zinc metal forms zinc chloride and hydrogen gas is evolved. Presence of hydrogen gas can be checked by a burning splinter because H₄ gas burnt in a splinter with a pop sound.

Question 7.
On immersing an iron nail in CuSO₄ solution for few minutes, you will observe that
(a) no reaction takes place
(b) the colour of solution fades away
(c) the surface of iron nails acquire a black coating
(d) the colour of solution changes to green
Answer:
(b)Fe(s) + CuSO₄ (aq) → FeSO₄ (aq) + Cu(s)
Fe is present above in the reactivity series of metals. Hence, Fe displaces Cu from CuSO₄ solution. And the colour of the solution fades away. This is an example of displacement reaction.

Question 8.
What happens when ferrous sulphate crystals are heated? [CCE 2014]
(a) A gas having the smell of burning sulphur is evolved
(b) No gas is evolved
(c) Brown coloured gas is evolved
(d) Colourless and odourless gas is evolved
Answer:
(a)The green colour of ferrous sulphate crystals changes to brownish black ferric oxide and smell of burning sulphur is evolved due to SO₂ and SO₃.

Question 9.
The colour of the precipitate formed when barium chloride solution is mixed with sodium sulphate solution is [CCE 2014]
(a) blue
(b) black
(c) white
(d) green
Answer:
(c)This is an example of a double displacement reaction and a white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed.

Question 10.
How the colour changes when the gases after thermal decomposition of ferrous sulphate come in contact with an acidified solution of potassium dichromate?
(a) Green to orange
(b) Red to colorless
(c) Orange to green
(d) Blue to green

Answer:
(c) The color changes from orange to green due to the formation of iron (III) sulphate

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations (Hindi Medium)

Class 10 Science Chemical Reactions and Equations Mind Map

Chemical Equation

The representation of chemical reaction by means of symbols of substances in the form of formulae is called chemical equation.
For example N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃

Balanced Chemical Equation

A balanced chemical equation has equal number of atom of each element participating in the reaction on both left and right hand sides of the reaction.
According to Law of Conservation of Mass, total mass of the elements present in the products of a chemical reaction has to be equal to the total mass of the element present in the reactants.

Balancing Of A Chemical Equation
Total No of Atoms on R.H.S = Total no of Atoms on L.H.S.
Fe₃O₄ T H₂ → Fe + H₂0
[Fe] Fe₃O₂ + H₂ → 3Fe + H₂0
[0] Fe₃O₄ + H₂ → 3Fe + 4H₂0
[H] Fe₃O₄ + 4H₂ → 3Fe + 4H₂0

Oxidation In Everyday Life

Rusting
When iron reacts with oxygen and moisture it forms a red substance called rust.

Corrosion
Metals on coming in contact with oxygen, water, acids or gases presents in air changes its surface. This is called corrosion for e.g. black coating on silver and green coating on copper.
Prevention – painting, galvanization, oiling, greasing

Rancidity
Oil and fats on exposure to air show a change in taste and smell. This property is known as rancidity.
Prevention – adding antioxidants, Vacuum packing, refrigeration, flushing food with nitrogen

Types Of Chemical Reactions

The transformation of chemical substance into a new chemical substance by making and breaking of bonds between different atom is known a chemical reaction.

Combination Reaction
When two elements or one compound and one element or two compounds combine to form a new product.
Foi example
• H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl
• Zn + CuS0₄ → ZnS0₄ + Cu
• NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O

Exothermic Reactions
Reactions producing energy are called exothermic reactions.
Most of the combination reactions are exothermic in nature.
For example : CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + Heat

Oxidation
Gain of oxygen or removal of hydrogen is called oxidation eg.
• Zn + O₂ → ZnO
• Mn + HCl → MnCl₂ + H₂

Reduction
Gain of hydrogen or removal of oxygen is called reduction.
e.g. CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂0

Redox Reactions
A chemical reaction in which both oxidation and reduction takes place simultaneously are called redox reactions.
For example
CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O

Decomposition Reaction
When a compound-split into two or more simple products for example

Decomposition reaction require energy either in the form of heat, light or electricity for decomposing the reactions

Endothermic Reactions
Reactions which require energy to occur are known as endothermic reactions.
For example:

Displacement Reactions
It takes place when a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal. For Example:
Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu

Double Displacement Reactions
In this reactions ions are exchanged between two reactants and forming new compounds.

Precipitation Reaction :
In some reactions, an insoluble mass is formed which is known as precipitate and such reactions are called precipitation reaction.
For Example
Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → 2NaCl + BaSO₄ Precipitate

Features of NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Chapter 1 Science Chemical Reactions and Equations Students can get comprehensive practice of balancing different kinds of equations.

• Find out how to create a balanced chemical equation and learn about chemical reactions with CBSE Class 10 Chemistry learning resources.
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• Our comprehensive set of study materials acts as a perfect guide when doing homework and preparing for the examination.
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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2018 Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks : 100

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory. This questions paper has 27 questions in all. There are five sections in this question paper.
• Section A contains Questions number 1-5 of 1 mark each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 20 words each.
• Section B contains Questions number 6-10 of 2 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
• Section C contains Questions number 11-16 of 4 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
• Section D contains Questions number 17-21 of 5 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 150 words each.
• In Section D Question number 21 is a map-based question. Write its answer in your answer-book.
• Section E contains Question number 22-27 of 6 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 150 words each.

Question 1.
Identify the reason responsible for the people’s disliking of the National Emergency imposed in 1975. [1]
Answer:
During the emergency, imposed in 1975 by the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, people thought that in the name of the emergency, powers given by the constitution to citizens were suspended, including Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
Explain any one difference between the ideologies represented by the US and the USSR during the Cold War period. [1]
Answer:
Difference between US and USSR—US represented the ideology of liberal democracy and capitalism. Whereas, Soviet Union was committed to the ideology socialism and communism.

Question 3.
Highlight any one advantage of the popular movements. . [1]
Answer:
One advantage of anti-arrack movement was, equal representation to women in politics during the nineties. Addition of the 73^rd and 74^th amendments have granted reservation to women in local level political offices.

Question 4.
How did the ‘Chipko Movement’ get its name ? [1]
Answer:
When contractors came to cut the trees of the forest in villages of Uttarakhand, the village ladies, children and men embraced the trees and did not allow the contractors to cut those trees. Hence, this movement was called as “CHIPKO MOVEMENT”.

Question 5.
Which one of the following statements is ‘true’ about the constraints on American hegemony ? [1]
(a) The increasing power of Russia.
(b) The widespread terrorism in the world.
(c) The institutional structure of the American State itself.
(d) The rise of the India as a new economic power.
Answer:
(c) The institutional structure of the American State itself.

Question 6.
Mention any two environmental issues that have become the concern of global politics. [1 × 2 = 2]
Answer:
Two environmental issues that have become the concern of global politics were :
(i) According to the Human Development Report 2006 of the United Nations Development Programme, 1.2 billion people in developing countries have no access to clean water and 2.6 billion have no access to basic sanitation etc., which is resulting in the increasing death rate of more than three million children every year.

(ii) Natural forests which help in stabilising the climate moderate water supplies and harbour a majority of the planet’s biodiversity on land—are being cut down and people are being displaced. The loss of biodiversity continues due to the destruction of habitat in areas which are rich in species.

Question 7.
Assess any two consequences of shock therapy. [1 × 2 = 2]
Answer:
Two consequences of shock therapy are :

• Economic set-up after disintegration in Russia, 90% of the state controlled industrial complex were put up for sale for private individuals and companies. Thus, this led to the virtual disappearance of all state controlled industries.
• The value of Rouble, the Russian currency declined very rapidly. The GDP of Russia in 1999 was below what it was in 1989. People lost all their savings due to high rate of inflation.

Question 8.
Match the facts given in Column ‘A’ with those in Column ‘B’ in a meaningful way :[1/2 × 4 = 2]

Answer:

Question 9.
In your opinion, how far is India justified in choosing the policy of Non-Alignment? [2]
Answer:
The following points can show that India is justified in choosing the policy of Non-Alignment :

• Jawaharlal Nehru always wanted to keep India away from the military alliances led by US and Soviet Union against each other.
• Through the strategy of Non-Alignment, India wanted to preserve the hardly earned sovereignty, protect territorial integrity and promote rapid economic development.

Question 10.
Give any two examples to show that globalisation has affected our food habits. [1 × 2 = 2]
Answer:
(i) In the past, Indians preferred to consume different types of juice especially in summer. As a result, small local players, like juice shops, dominated the non-alcoholic beverage segment. With the globalisation of the society, the Indian consumers are exposed to a number of beverages, such as mocktails.

(ii) Globalisation has resulted in increase in availability and diversity of food. This kind of phenomenon is more visible in urban areas. American restaurant chains have been opening their doors from last two decades. Wherever you go, you can see McDonalds, Pizza Hut and Burger King.

Question 11.
State the two main expectations on the basis of which the United Nations was formed in 1945. Mention any two organs and agencies each of the UN. [4]
Answer:
In 1945, UNO was formed with two main expectations :

• To prevent international conflicts and to facilitate the cooperation among the states.
• Its aim was intended to bring countries together, to improve the prospects of social and economic development all over the world.

Two organs of UNO :
(i) Security Council  Five permanent members (with veto powers) and ten non-permanent members, elected by general assembly for the period of two years. The five permanent members are developed industrialized nations. Five permanent members are 1. USA, 2. UK, 3. Russia, 4. China and 5. France.

(ii) General Assembly: Representatives of all 192 member state, each with one vote. Major decisions require a 2/3 (two-third) majority of assembly.

Two agencies of UNO :

• WHO: World Health Organisation which takes care of health related issues like epidemic etc., all over the world.
• IMF: International Monetary Fund, looks after the financial institutions and regulations at the international level.

Question 12.
Compare the aims and achievements of the First and the Second Five Year Plans to conclude which of the two was a turning point in India’s development. [3 + 1 = 4]
Answer:
(i) First Five Year Plan: The first five year plan largely focused on Agrarian sector :

• Sought to get the country’s economic condition out of the cycle of poverty.
• Improvement in ‘cultural and religious sector.
• Plans to identify the pattern of land distribution in the country and country’s development was its goal.

Achievements of 1st Five Year Plan :

• Land reforms did not take place effectively in most parts of the country.
• Women got equality and right to an adequate means of livelihood.
• There was very little improvement in the field of agriculture. Seeds and fertilisers were not properly provided to farmers.

(ii) Second Five Year Plan: The main objectives of 2nd five year plan :

• Stressed on heavy industries.
• Wanted to bring abctut quick structural transformation by making changes.
• Socialistic pattern of society was its goal, imposed substantial tarrifs on imports in order to protect the domestic industries.

Achievement of 2nd Five Year Plan :

• Savings and investments have started growing in this plan.
• Most of the industries of bulk investment were growing like, electricity, railways, steel plants, machineries and communication.
• Industrialisation marked a turning point in India’s development.

Question 13.
‘Coalition Governments proved to be a boon for . democracy in India.’ Support this statement with any two suitable arguments. [4]
Answer:
The defeat of the Congress party marked the end of Congress dominance over Indian Party system, thus, began an era of multi-party system in which regional parties played a crucial role in forming ruling alliances.

The nineties also saw the emergence of powerful parties and movements that represented the Dalits ‘ and backward castes in turn representing powerful regional assertion as well.
There have been various coalition governments in the country, from 1977 till date. Both UPA and NDA governments have enjoyed long phases of coalition governments after the defeat of congress in 1977 elections.
Coalition governments proved to be a boon because:

• Ideological differences and controversies were weakened and the country enjoyed better decisions which were pragmatic.
• They provided more alternatives for the people to choose from in the elections.
• These governments established the importance of small and regional parties, they removed the dominance of two parties, regional aspirations and demands came into the limelight.
• These governments led to national unity as most of the parties got a chance to be the partner in the policy formation.
• Marfy disputed issues were put off due to minimum common programme.

Question 14.
List any four demands of the Narmada Bachao Andolan. [1 × 4 = 4]
Answer:
Government took an amibitious development project in Narmada Valley which was consisting of 30 big dams on Narmada river and its tributaries. However, a lot of villages were affected. Hence, a group of affected people started, “Narmada Bachao Andolan” with the following demands :

• The Narmada Bachao Andolan demanded proper rehabilitation of all those who were affected from the construction of those projects.
• For construction of dams, those 245 villages were submerged with half a lakh population. The andolan demanded that the cost benefit analysis of dam construction vs villagers’ shifting and rehabilitation cost should be analysed.
• Larger social cost of development projects must be calculated and analysed. The social cost must include forced re-settlement of the project affected people.
• The activists opposed the project through public rallies.

Question 15.
Explain any four factors that make the European Union an influential organisation. [4]
Answer:
Four factors that make the European Union an influential organisation are :

• The European Union have tried to expand areas of cooperation while acquiring new members, especially from the erstwhile Soviet bloc.
• European union has economic, political, diplomatic‘and military influence.
• European Union is the world’s biggest economy with a GDP of more than US dollar $ 12 trillion in 2005, slightly larger than that of United States. Its currency Euro can pose a threat to the dominance of US dollar.
• Its economic power imposes its influence over its closest neighbours as well as Asia and Africa.
• It also functions as an important bloc in international economic organisation such as WTO (World Trade Organisation).

Question 16.
Explain the Nuclear Policy of India. [4]
Answer:
Nuclear programme initiated in late 1940’s and early 1950’s, under the guidance of Homi J. Bhabha. The main features of the Nuclear Policy of India are :