PUBG Mobile will soon have helicopter, RPG, combat vehicle and more

August 23, 2019, 6:56 am

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PUBG Mobile players will soon be able to fly a helicopter in the game. It will spawn on a helipad located on top of School in the Erangel map. The helicopter will be able to accommodate an entire squad.

Tencent Games recently revealed that it is working on a redesign of its Erangel map, bringing it closer to the new Erangel map on PUBG PC. It is unknown as to when we will get to see the new redesign. However, the game will soon get a new vehicle, which will allow them to navigate through the maps in a new way.

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Clik here to view. PUBG Mobile will soon have helicopter

According to Mr Ghost Gaming, players will soon be able to fly a helicopter in the game. It will spawn on a helipad located on top of School in the Erangel map. The helicopter will be able to accommodate an entire squad. From the looks of it, the helicopter seems to be based on the real-life Boeing AH-6 light helicopter.

Check out the video below for all the details:

Another vehicle addition includes the BRDM military vehicle, which we first saw introduced in PUBG PC. The vehicle is not readily available and needs to be spawned by shooting a flare gun when outside of the safe zone. BRDM is a combat vehicle, which does not have a weapon of its own, however, it offers high durability against gunfire and can travel on land and water.

Other additions we will get to see soon include a homing missile launcher, grenade launchers, and an RPG. The game will also get new equipment, which includes a pair of binoculars, with which players can call for an airstrike at a particular location, converting that location into a red zone immediately and a vehicle repair kit.

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The excitement around PUBG Mobile continues as we have reached halfway through season 8. While the next season is a few weeks away, a bunch of beta updates have been released for the Chinese version of the popular battle royale game.

Thanks to popular PUBG Mobile tipster Mr Ghost Gaming, we have an early look of some interesting additions to the game which include a new mode where you can fly helicopters, a brand new BRDM military vehicle, and use grenade launchers as well as rocket launchers.

So first up there is a brand new mode where you can use all of the above-mentioned items. We are not sure what exactly this mode is called, and there is a possibility that it will not be launched in the global version. Nevertheless, it does look quite exciting. The mode includes helicopters. Yup, you can fly around and even have your squad members join you to hunt for people from the skies. Like all vehicles, you can destroy helicopters and you can shoot while sitting on the aircraft.

Then there are some new weapons including the M3E1-A rocket launcher and the MGL and M79 grenade launchers. The rocket launcher comes with homing rockets meaning that they will follow the locked target, no matter how you shoot. The grenade launchers work pretty much like a regular gun and shoot out grenades up to a certain range. Additionally, there is also an RPG available in this mode.

Then there is a new BRDM military vehicle which replaces the armoured UAZ and can be called by shooting a flare outside the play zone circle. The BRDM is essentially built like a tank and can accommodate an entire squad. It also has the ability to work in water so you can use it in water bodies.

There is also an addition where a player can mark a location and call in for an airstrike. The area gets marked on the map as a red-zone. Also, gas cans can be used as bombs as they blow up when you shoot them.

The new mode seems way more action-packed thanks to the special guns and vehicles, however this mode is only available in the beta version of PUBG Mobile in China. Let’s hope that Tencent brings the special mode for the global version of the game.

PUBG Mobile New Weapons

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Clik here to view. PUBG Mobile New Weapons

PUBG Mobile’s update that brings the helicopters may turn the tide heavily in the favour of those that get to the chopper first. However, gamers do not worry as Tencent is also adding a bunch of new guns to counter the flying vehicle. In the new update, a homing missile launcher will be present to make sure the hail of bullets from above do not win from mere advantageous positioning.

It means that both the team on the ground and the ones flying in the sky need to keep an eye on each others movement. Other guns such as a grenade launcher is also being added and will be one of the go to weapons against BRDM users in PUBG Mobile. Unfortunately, it is currently unknown when the feature goes live since it is only available in China, but a global launch is expected to arrive soon.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers

August 23, 2019, 8:30 pm

≫ Next: NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Playing With Numbers Exercise 3.2

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NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers

Free download NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Exercise 3.1, Ex 3.2, Ex 3.3, Ex 3.4, Ex 3.5, Ex 3.6 and Ex 3.7 Playing with Numbers PDF for CBSE 2020 Exams.

Playing with Numbers Class 6 Ex 3.1

Question 1.
Write all the factors of the following numbers:
(a) 24 (b) 15 (c) 21
(d) 27 (e) 12 (f) 20
(g) 18 (h) 23 (i) 36
Solution:
(a) Factors of 24 are:
24 = 1 x 24;
24 = 2 x 12;
24 = 3 x 8;
24 = 4 x 6
Hence, all the factors of 24 are: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12 and 24.

(b) Factors of 15 are:
15 = 1 x 15;
15 = 3 x 5
Hence, all the factors of 15 are: 1, 3, 5 and 15.

(d) Factors of 27 are:
27 = 1 x 27;
27 = 3 x 9.
Hence, all the factors of 27 are: 1, 3, 9 and 27.

(e) Factors of 12 are:
12 = 1 x 12;
12 = 2 x 6;
12 = 3 x 4
Hence, all the factors of 12 are: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 12.

(f) Factors of 20 are:
20 = 1 x 20;
20 = 2 x 10;
20 = 4 x 5
Hence, all the factors of 20 are: 1, 2, 4, 5, 10 and 20.

(g) Factors of 18 are:
18 = 1 x 18;
18 = 2 x 9;
18 = 3 x 6
Hence, all the factors of 18 are: 1, 2, 3, 6, 9 and 18.

(h) Factors of 23 are:
23 = 1 x 23
Hence, all the factors of prime number 23 are: 1 and 23.

(i) Factors of 36 are:
36 = 1 x 36;
36 = 2 x 18;
36 = 3 x 12;
36 = 4 x 9;
36 = 6 x 6
Hence, all the factors of 36 are: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18 and 36.

Question 2.
Write first five multiples of:
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 9
Solution:
(a) First five multiples of 5 are:
5 x 1 = 5;
5 x 2 = 10;
5 x 3 = 15;
5 x 4 = 20;
5 x 5 = 25
Hence, the required multiples of 5 are: 5, 10, 15, 20 and 25.

(b) First five multiples of 8 are:
8 x 1 = 8;
8 x 2 = 16;
8 x 3 = 24;
8×4 = 32;
8 x 5 = 40
Hence, the required multiples of 8 are: 8, 16, 24, 32 and 40.

(c) First five multiples of 9 are:
9 x 1 = 9;
9 x 2 = 18;
9 x 3 = 27;
9 x 4 = 36;
9 x 5 = 45
Hence, the required multiples of 9 are: 9,18, 27, 36 and 45.

Question 3.
Match the items in column I with the items in column II.
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Clik here to view. playing with numbers class 6
Solution:
(i) ↔ (b) [∵ 7 x 5 = 35]
(ii) ↔ (d) [∵ 15 x 2 = 30]
(iii) ↔ (a) [∵ 8 x 2 = 16]
(iv) ↔ (f) [∵ 20 x 1 = 20]
(v) ↔ (e) [∵ 25 x 2 = 50]

Question 4.
Find all the multiples of 9 upto 100.
Solution:
9 x 1 = 9;
9 x 2 = 18;
9 x 3 = 27;
9 x 4 = 36;
9 x 5 = 45;
9 x 6 = 54;
9 x 7 = 63;
9 x 8 = 72;
9 x 9 = 81;
9 x 10 = 90;
9 x 11 = 99
Hence, all the multiples of 9 upto 100 are:
9, 18, 27, 36, 45, 54, 63, 72, 81, 90 and 99.

Move to Top → Playing with Numbers

Playing with Numbers Class 6 Ex 3.2

Question 1.
What is the sum of any two:
(a) Odd numbers?
(b) Even numbers?
Solution:
(a) The sum of any two odd numbers is even.
(b) The sum of any two even numbers is even.

Question 2.
State whether the following statements are True or False.
(a) The sum of three odd numbers is even.
(b) The sum of two odd numbers and one even number is even.
(c) The product of three odd numbers is odd.
(d) If an even number is divided by 2, the quotient is always odd.
(e) All prime numbers are odd.
(f) Prime numbers do not have any factors.
(g) Sum of two prime numbers is always even.
(h) 2 is only the even prime number.
(i) All even numbers are composite numbers.
(j) The product of any two even numbers is always even.
Solution:
(а) False [∵ 3 + 5 + 7 = 15 (odd)]
(b) True [∵ 3 + 5 + 6 = 14 (even)]
(c) True [∵ 5 x 7 x 9 = 315 (odd)]
(d) False [∵ 6 + 2 = 3 (odd)]
(e) False [∵ 2 is a prime number but it is even]
(f) False [∵ 3 is a prime number having 1 and 3 as its factors]
(g) False [∵ 7 + 2 = 9 (odd)]
(h) True [∵ 2 is even and the lowest prime number]
(i) False [∵ 2 is even but not composite number]
(j) True [∵ 4 x 6 = 24 (even)]

Question 3.
The numbers 13 and 31 are prime numbers. Both these numbers have same digits 1 and 3. Find such pairs of prime numbers up to 100.
Solution:
The required pair of prime numbers having same digits are:
(17 and 71), (37 and 73), (79 and 97).

Question 4.
Write down separately the prime and composite numbers less than 20.
Solution:
Prime numbers less than 20 are:
2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17 and 19
Composite numbers less than 20 are:
4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, 14, 15, 16 and 18

Question 5.
What is the greatest prime number between 1 and 10?
Solution:
The greatest prime number between 1 and 10 is 7.

Question 6.
Express the following as the sum of two odd primes.
(a) 44
(b) 36
(c) 24
(d) 18
Solution:
(a) 44 = 13 + 31
(b) 36 = 17 + 19
(c) 24 = 7 + 17
(d) 18 = 7 + 11

Question 7.
Give three pairs of prime numbers whose difference is 2.
[Remark: Two prime numbers whose difference is 2 are called twin primes]
Solution:
Required pairs are: (3 and 5), (5 and 7) and (11 and 13)

Question 8.
Which of the following numbers are prime?
(a) 23
(b) 51
(c) 37
(d) 26
Solution:
(a) 23 is a prime number [ ∵ 23 = 1 x 23]
(b) 51 is not a prime number [∵ 51 = 1 x 3 x 17]
(c) 37 is a prime number [∵ 37 = 1 x 37]
(d) 26 is not a prime number [∵ 26 = 1 x 2 x 13]

Question 9.
Write seven consecutive composite numbers less than 100 so that there is no prime number between them.
Solution:
Required seven consecutive composite numbers are:
90, 91, 92, 93, 94, 95 and 96

Question 10.
Express each of the following numbers as the sum of three odd primes.
(a) 21
(b) 31
(c) 53
(d) 61
Solution:
(a) 21 can be expressed as 3 + 5 + 13
(b) 31 can be expressed as 5 + 7 + 19
(c) 53 can be expressed as 13 + 17 + 23
(d) 61 can be expressed as 11 + 13 + 37

Question 11.
Write five pairs of prime numbers less than 20 whose sum is divisible by 5.
(Hint: 3 + 7 = 10)
Solution:
Required pairs of prime numbers less than 20 are:
(i) 2 + 3 = 5
(ii) 2 + 13 = 15
(iii) 11 + 9 = 20
(iv) 17 + 3 = 20
(v) 7 + 13 = 20

Question 12.
Fill in the blanks.
(a) A number which has only two factors is called a ………… .
(b) A number which has more than two factors is called a ………… .
(c) 1 is neither ………… nor ………… .
(d) The smallest prime number is ………… .
(e) The smallest composite number is ………… .
(f) The smallest even number is ………… .
Solution:
(a) prime number
(b) composite number
(c) prime, composite
(d) 2
(e) 4
(f) 2

Move to Top → Playing with Numbers

Playing with Numbers Class 6 Ex 3.3

Question 1.
Using divisibility tests, determine which of the following numbers are divisible by 2, by 3, by 4, by 5, by 6, by 8, by 9, by 10, by 11 (Say, Yes or No)
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Solution:
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Clik here to view. ncert solution for class 6 maths chapter 3

Question 2.
Using divisibility tests, determine which of following numbers are divisible by 4; by 8.
(a) 572
(b) 726352
(c) 5500
(d) 6000
(e) 12159
(f) 14560
(g) 21084
(j) 2150
(h) 31795072
(i) 1700
Solution:
(a) Given number = 572
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the number formed by the last two digits of the given number is 72.
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Remainder 0. Hence, 572 is divisible by 4.

(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the number formed by the last three digits of the given number is 572.
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Clik here to view. playing with numbers class 6 solution
Remainder 4. Hence, 572 is not divisible by 8.

(b) Given number = 726352
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the number formed by the last two digits of the given number = 52.
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Remainder = 0.
Hence, 726352 is divisible by 4.

(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the number formed by the last three digits of the given number = 352
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Remainder = 0.
Hence, 726352 is divisible by .

(c) Given number = 5500
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here the last two digits of the given number are 0. Hence, 5500 is divisible by 4.
(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the number formed by the last three digits of the given number = 500
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Remainder = 4. Hence, 5500 is not divisible by 8.

(d) Given number = 6000
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the last two digits of the given number are 0.
Hence, 6000 is divisible by 4.

(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the last three digits of the given number are 0.
Hence, 6000 is divisible by 8.

(e) Given number = 12159
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the number formed by last two digits of the given number = 59
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Remainder = 3.
Hence, 12159 is divisible by 4.

(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the number formed by the last three digits of the given number = 159
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Remainder = 7.
Hence, 12159 is not divisible by 8.

(f) Given number = 14560
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the number formed by the last two digits of the given number = 60.
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Clik here to view. numbers 6
Remainder = 0.
Hence, 14560 is divisible by 8.

(g) Given number = 21084
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the number formed by the last two digits of the given number = 84.
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Clik here to view. class 6th maths
Remainder = 0. Hence, 21084 is divisible by 4.

(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the number formed by the last three digits of the given number = 084.
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Remainder = 4.
Hence, 21084 is not divisible by 8.

(h) Given number = 31795072
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the number formed by the last two digits of the given number = 72.
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Clik here to view. maths of 6th class
Remainder = 0. Hence, 31795072 is divisible by 4.

(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the number formed by the last three digits of the given number = 072.
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers
Remainder = 0. Hence, 31795072 is divisible by 8.

(i) Given number = 1700
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the last two digits of the given number is 0. Hence, 1700 is divisible by 4.
(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the number formed by the last three digits of the given number = 700
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Remainder = 4. Hence, 1700 is not divisible by 8.
(j) Given number = 2150
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the number formed by the last two digits of the given number = 50.
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Remainder = 2. Hence, 2150 is not divisible by 4.

(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the number formed by the last three digits of the given number = 150
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Clik here to view. six class maths
Remainder = 6. Hence, 2150 is not divisible by 8.

Question 3.
Using divisibility tests, determine which of the following numbers are divisible by 6:
(a) 297144
(b) 1258
(c) 4335
(d) 61233
(e) 901352
(f) 438750
(g) 1790184
(h) 12583
(i) 639210
(j) 17852
Solution:
We know that a number is divisible by 6 if it is also divisible by both 2 and 3.
(a) Given number = 297144
The given number 297144 has even digit at its ones place.
So, it is divisible by 2.
The sum of all the digits of 297144 = 2 + 9 + 7 + 1 + 4 + 4 = 27
which is divisible by 3.
Hence, the given number 297144 is divisible by 6.

(b) Given number = 1258
The given number 1258 has even digit i.e., 8 at its ones place.
So, it is divisible by 2.
The sum of all digits of 1258 = l + 2 + 5 + 8 = 16 which is not divisible by 3.
Hence, the given number 1258 is not divisible by 6.

(c) Given number = 4335
The digit at ones place of the given number is not even.
So, it is not divisible by 2.
The sum of all the digits of 4335 = 4 + 3 + 3 + 5 = 15 which is divisible by 3.
Since the given number 4335 is not divisible by both 2 and 3 therefore, it is not divisible by 6.

(d) Given number = 61233
The digit at ones place of the given number is not even.
So, it is not divisible by 2.
The sum of the digits of the given number 61233 = 6 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 3 = 15 which is divisible by 3.
Since, the given number is not divisible by both 2 and 3, it is not divisible by 6.

(e) Given number = 901352
The digit at ones place of the given number is even.
So, it is divisible by 2.
The sum of all the digits of the given number 901352 = 9 + 0 + 1 + 3 + 5 + 2 = 20 which is not divisible by 3.
Since, the given number is not divisible by both 2 and 3 hence, it is not divisible by 6.

(f) Given number = 438750
The digit at ones place of the given number is 0. So, it is divisible by 2.
The sum of all the digits of the given number 438750
=4 + 3 + 8 + 7 + 5 + 0 = 27 which is divisible by 3.
Hence, the given number is divisible by 6.

(g) Given number = 1790184
The digit at ones place of the given number is even.
So, it is divisible by 2.
The sum of all the digits of the given number 1790184
= 1 + 7 + 9 + 0 + 1 + 8 + 4 = 30 which is divisible by 3.
Hence, the given number is divisible by 6.

(h) Given number = 12583
The digit to ones place of the given number is odd.
So, it is not divisible by 2.
Sum of all the digits of the given number 12583
= 1 + 2 + 5 + 8 + 3 = 19
which is not divisible by 3.
Hence, the given number is not divisible by 6.

(i) Given number = 639210
The digit at ones place of the given number is 0.
So, it is divisible by 2.
The sum of all the digits of the given number 639210
= 6 + 3 + 9 + 2 + 1 + 0 = 21 which is divisible by 3.
Hence, the given number is divisible by 6.

(j) Given number = 17852
The digit at ones place of the given number is even.
So, it is divisible by 2.
The sum of all the digits of the given number 17852
= 1 + 7 + 8 + 5 + 2 = 23 which is not divisible by 3.
Hence, the given number is not divisible by 6.

Question 4.
Using divisibility tests, determine which of the following numbers are divisible by 11:
(a) 5445
(b) 10824
(c) 7138965
(d) 70169308
(e) 10000001.
Sol. We know that a number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of the digits at odd places (from the right) and the sum of the digits at even places (from the right) of the number is either 0 or divisible by 11.
(a) Given number = 5445
Sum of the digits at odd places = 5 + 4 = 9
Sum of the digits at even places = 4 + 5 = 9
Difference = 9 – 9 = 0
Hence, the given number is divisible by 11.

(b) Given number = 10824
Sum of the digits at odd places = 4 + 8 + 1 = 13
Sum of the digits at even places = 2 + 0 = 2
Difference = 13 – 2 = 11
which is divisible by 11.
Hence, the given number is divisible by 11.

(c) Given number = 7138965
Sum of the digits at odd places = 5 + 9 + 3 + 7 = 24
Sum of the digits at even places = 6 + 8 + 1 = 15
Difference = 24 – 15 = 9
which is not divisible by 11.
Hence, the given number is not divisible by 11.

(d) Given number = 70169308
Sum of all the digits at odd places = 8 + 3 + 6 + 0 = 17
Sum of all the digits at even places = 0 + 9 + 1 + 7 = 17
Difference = 17-17 = 0
Hence, the given number is divisible by 11.

(e) Given number = 10000001
Sum of all the digits at odd places = 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 = 1
Sum of all the digits at even places = 0 + 0 + 0 + 1 = 1
Difference = 1 – 1 = 0
Hence, the given number is divisible by 11.

Question 5.
Write the smallest digit and the greatest digit in the blank space of each of the following numbers so that the number formed is divisible by 3.
(a) ____ 6724
(b) 4765 ____ 2
Solution:
We know that number is divisible by 3 if the sum of all the digits of the number is also divisible by 3.
(a) ___ 6724
Sum of the digits = 4 + 2 + 7 + 6 = 19
The smallest digit to be placed is blank space = 2
Then the sum = 19 + 2 = 21 which is divisible by 3.
The greatest digit to be placed in blank space = 8
Then, the sum = 19 + 8 = 27 which is divisible by 3
Hence, the required digits are 2 and 8.

(b) 4765 ____ 2.
Sum of digits = 2 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 4 = 24
The smallest digits to be place in blank space = 0
Then, sum = 24 + 0 = 24
which is divisible by 3.
The greatest digit to be placed in blank space = 9.
Then, the sum = 24 + 9 = 33 which is divisible by 3.
Hence, the required digits are 0 and 9.

Question 6.
Write a digit in the blank space of each of the following numbers so that the numbers formed is divisible by 11.
(a) 92 ___ 389
(b) 8 ___ 9484
Solution:
(a) 92 ___ 389
Sum of the digits at odd places = 9 + 3 + 2 = 14
Sum of the digits at even places = 8 + ( ) + 9 = 17
Difference = 17 + ( ) – 14 = () + 3
For the given number to be divisible by 11
( ) + 3 = 11
∴ ( ) = 11 – 3 = 8
So, the missing digit = 8
Hence, the required number is 928389.

(b) 8 ___ 9484
Sum of the digits at odd places = 4 + 4 + ( ) = 8 + ( )
Sum of the digits at even places = 8 + 9 + 8 = 25
∴ Difference = 25 – [8 + ( )]
= 25 – 8 – ( ) = 17 – ( )
For the given number to be divisible by 11
17 – 0 = 11
∴ 17 – 11 = 6
So, the missing digit = 6
Hence, the required number = 869484.

Move to Top → Playing with Numbers

Playing with Numbers Class 6 Ex 3.4

Question 1.
Find the common factors of:
(a) 20 and 28
(b) 15 and 25
(c) 35 and 50
(d) 56 and 120
Solution:
(a) Given numbers are : 20 and 28
Factors of 20 are 1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20
Factors of 28 are 1, 2, 4, 7, 28
Hence, the common factors are 1, 2 and 4.

(b) Given numbers are: 15 and 25
Factors of 15 are 1, 3, 5, 15
Factors of 25 are 1, 5, 25
Hence, the common factors are 1 and 5.

(c) Given numbers are: 35 and 50
Factors of 35 are: 1, 5, 7, 35
Factors of 50 are: 1, 2, 5, 10, 50
Hence, the common factors are 1 and 5.

(d) Given numbers are: 56 and 120
Factors of 56 are 1, 2, 4, 7, 8, 14, 28, 56
Factors of 120 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10, 12, 15, 20, 30, 40, 60, 120
Hence, the common factors are 1,2, 4, and 8.

Question 2.
Find the common factors of:
(a) 4, 8 and 12
(b) 5, 15 and 25
(6) 8 9484
Solution:
(a) Given numbers are: 4, 8 and 12
Factors of 4 are 1, 2, 4
Factors of 8 are 1, 2, 4, 8
Factors of 12 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12
Hence, the common factors are 1, 2 and 4.

(b) Given numbers are: 5, 15 and 25
Factors of 5 are 1, 5
Factors of 15 are 1, 3, 5, 15
Factors of 25 are 1, 5, 25
Hence, the common factors are 1 and 5.

Question 3.
Find first three multiples of:
(a) 6 and 8
(b) 12 and 18
Solution:
(a) Given numbers are 6 and 8
First three multiples of 6 are
6 x 1= 6; 6 x 2 = 12; 6 x 3 = 18.
First three multiples of 8 are
8 x 1 = 8; 8 x 2 = 16; 8 x 3 = 24.

(b) Given numbers are 12 and 18.
First three multiples of 12 are
12 x 1 = 12;
12 x 2 = 24;
12 x 1 = 36;
First three multiples of 18 are
18 x 1 = 18;
18 x 2 = 36;
18 x 3 = 54.

Question 4.
Write all the numbers less than 100 which are common multiples of 3 and 4.
Solution:
Given numbers are 3 and 4.
Multiples of 3 less than 100 are:
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Hence, the common multiples of 3 and 4 less than 100 are: 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84 and 96.

Question 5.
Which of the following numbers are co-prime?
(a) 18 and 35
(b) 15 and 37
(c) 30 and 415
(d) 17 and 68
(e) 216 and 215
(f) 81 and 16
Solution:
(a) Given number are 18 and 35
Factors of 18 are 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18
Factors of 35 are 1, 5, 7, 35
Since, the common factors of 18 and 35 is only 1.
Hence, 18 and 35 are co-prime.

(b) Given numbers are 15 and 37
Factors of 15 are 1, 3, 5, 15
Factors of 37 are 1,37
Since, the common factor of 15 and 37 is only 1.
Hence, they are co-prime.

(c) Given numbers are 30 and 415
Factors of 30 are 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 15, 30
Factors of 415 are 1, 5, 83
Since, the numbers have common factors 1 and 5
Hence, they are not co-prime.

(d) Given numbers are 17 and 68
Factors of 17 are 1, 17
Factors of 68 are 1, 2, 4, 17, 34, 68
Since, the numbers have common factors 1 and 17
Hence, they are not co-prime.

(e) Given numbers are 216 and 215
Factors of 216 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, 54, 72, 108, 216
Factors of 215 are 1, 5, 43
Since only 1 is the common factor of 216 and 215.
Hence, they are co-prime.

(f) Given numbers are 81 and 16
Factors of 81 are 1, 3, 9, 27, 81
Factors of 16 are 1, 2, 4, 8, 16
Since only 1 is common to 81 and 16
Hence, they are co-prime.

Question 6.
A number is divisible by both 5 and 12. By which other will that number be always divisible?
Solution:
If the number is divisible by both 5 and 12 this the number will also be divisible by 5 x 12 i.e., 60.

Question 7.
A number is divisible by 12. By what other will that number be divisible?
Solution:
Factors of 12 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12
Hence the number which is divisible by 12, will also be divisible by its factors i.e., 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 12.

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Playing with Numbers Class 6 Ex 3.5

Question 1.
Which of the following statements are true?
(a) If a number is divisible by 3, it must be divisible by 9.
(b) If a number is divisible by 9, it must be divisible by 3.
(c) A number is divisible by 18, if it is divisible by both 3 and 6.
(d) If a number is divisible by 9 and 10 both, then it must be divisible by 90.
(e) If two numbers are co-primes, at least one of them must be prime.
(f) All numbers which are divisible by 4 must also be divisible by 8.
(g) All numbers which are divisible by 8 must also be divisible by 4.
(h) If a number exactly divides two numbers separately,- it must exactly divide their sum.
(i) If a number exactly divides the sum of two numbers, it must exactly divide the two numbers separately.
Solution:
(a) False
(b) True
(c) False
(d) True
(e) False
(f) False
(g) True
(h) True
(i) False

Question 2.
Here are two different factor trees for 60. Write the missing numbers.
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers
Solution:
Given that
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Here, 6 = 2 x missing number
∴ Missing number = 6 2 = 3
Similarly, 10 = 5 x missing number
∴ Missing number = 10 ÷ 5 = 2
Hence, the missing numbers are 3 and 2.

(b) Given that:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. math for class 6
Let the missing numbers be m₁, m₂, m₃ and m₄.
60 = 30 x m₁
⇒ m₁ = 60 ÷ 30 = 2
30 = 10 x m₂
⇒ m₂ = 30 ÷ 10 = 3
10 = m₃ x m₄
⇒ m₃ = 2 or 5 and m₄ = 5 or 2
Hence, the missing numbers are 2, 3, 2, 5.

Question 3.
Which factors are not included in the prime factorisation of a composite number?
Solution:
1 and the number itself are not included in the prime factorisation of a composite number.

Question 4.
Write the greatest 4-digit number and express it in terms of its prime factors.
Solution:
The greatest 4-digit number = 9999
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Clik here to view. playing with numbers class 6 questions
Hence, the prime factors of 9999 = 3 x 3 x 11 x 101.

Question 5.
Write the smallest 5-digit number and express it in the form of its prime factors.
Solution:
The smallest 5-digit number = 10000
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Clik here to view. maths model for class 6th
Hence, the required prime factors: 10000 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5.

Question 6.
Find all the prime factors of 1729 and arrange them in ascending order. Now state the relations, if any, between the two consecutive prime factors.
Solution:
Given number = 1729
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Hence, the prime factors of 1729 = 7 x 13 x 19.
Here, 13 – 7 = 6 and 19 – 13 = 6
We see that the difference between two consecutive prime factors is 6.

Question 7.
The product of three consecutive numbers is always divisible by 6. Verify this statement with the help of some examples.
Solution:
Example 1:
Take three consecutive numbers 20, 21 and 22.
Here 20 is divisible by 2 and 21 is divisible by 3.
Therefore, the product 20 x 21 x 22 = 9240 is divisible by 6.

Example 2:
Take three consecutive numbers 30; 31 and 32.
Here 30 is divisible by 3 and 32 is divisible by 2.
Therefore, the product 30 x 31 x 32 = 29760 is divisible by 6.

Example 3:
Take three consecutive numbers 48, 49 and 50.
Here, 48 is divisible by 3 and 50 is divisible by 2.
Therefore, the product 48 x 49 x 50 = 117600 which is divisible by 6.

Question 8.
The sum of two consecutive odd numbers is divisible by 4. Verify this statement with the help of some examples.
Solution:
Example 1:
Let us take two consecutive odd numbers 97 and 99.
Sum = 97 + 99 = 196
Here, the number formed by last two digits is 96 which is divisible by 4.
Hence, the sum of numbers 97 and 99 i.e. 196 is divisible by 4.

Example 2:
Let us take two consecutive odd numbers 121 and 123.
Sum = 121 + 123 = 244
Here, the number formed by last two digits is 44 which is divisible by 4.

Example 3:
Let us take two consecutive odd numbers 105 and 107.
Sum = 105 + 107 = 212
Here, the number formed by the last two digits is 12 which is divisible by 4.

Question 9.
In which of the following expressions, prime factorisation has been done?
(a) 24 = 2 x 3 x 4
(b) 56 = 7 x 2 x 2 x 2
(c) 70 = 2 x 5 x 7
(d) 54 = 2 x 3 x 9.
Solution:
(a) 24 = 2 x 3 x 4
Here, 4 is not a prime number.
Hence, 24 = 2 x 3 x 4 is not a prime factorisation.

(b) 56 = 7 x 2 x 2 x 2
Here, all factors are prime numbers
Hence, 56 = 7 x 2 x 2 x 2 is a prime factorisation.

(d) 54 = 2 x 3 x 9
Here, 9 is not a prime number.
Hence, 54 = 2 x 3 x 9 is not a prime factorisation.

Question 10.
Determine if 25110 is divisible by 45.
Solution:
45 = 5 x 9
Here, 5 and 9 are co-prime numbers.
Test of divisibility by 5: unit place of the given number 25110 is 0. So, it is divisible by 5.
Test of divisibility by 9:
Sum of the digits = 2 + 5 + l + l + 0 = 9 which is divisible by 9.
So, the given number is divisible by 5 and 9 both. Hence, the number 25110 is divisible by 45.

Question 11.
18 is divisible by both 2 and 3. It is also divisible by 2 x 3 = 6. Similarly, a number is divisible by both 4 and 6. Can we say that the number must also be divisible by 4 x 6 = 24? If not, give an example to justify your answer.
Solution:
Here, the given two numbers are not co-prime. So, it is not necessary that a number divisible by both 4 and 6, must also be divisible by their product 4 x 6 = 24.
Example: 36 and 60 are divisible by 4, both 4 and 6 but not by 24.

Question 12.
I am the smallest number, having four different prime factors. Can you find me?
Solution:
We know that the smallest 4 prime numbers are 2, 3, 5 and 7.
Hence, the required number = 2 x 3 x 5 x 7 = 210

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Playing with Numbers Class 6 Ex 3.6

Question 1.
Find the HCF of the following numbers:
(a) 18, 48
(b) 30, 42
(c) 18, 60
(d) 27,63
(e) 36,84
(f) 34, 102
(g) 70, 105, 175
(h) 91, 112, 49
(i) 18, 54, 81
(j) 12, 45, 75
Solution:
(a) Given numbers are 18 and 48.
Prime factorisations of 18 and 48 are:
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Here, the common factors are 2 and 3.
Hence, the HCF = 2 x 3 = 6.

(b) The given numbers are 30 and 42.
Prime factorisations of 30 and 42, are:
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Here, the common factors are 2 and 3.
Hence, the HCF = 2 x 3 = 6.

(c) Given numbers are 18 and 60.
Prime factorisations of 18 and 60 are:
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 exercise 3.6 in english
Here, the common factors are 2 and 3.
Hence, the HCF of 18 and 60 = 2 x 3 = 6.

(d) Given numbers are 27 and 63.
Prime factorisations of 27 and 63 are:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 exercise 3.6 free study
Here, the common factor is 3 (occurring twice).
Hence, the HCF = 3 x 3 = 9.

(e) Given numbers are 36 and 84.
Prime factorisations of 36 and 84 are:
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 exercise 3.6 all questions answers
Here, the common factors are 2, 2 and 3.
Hence, the HCF = 2 x 2 x 3 = 12.

(f) Given numbers are 34 and 102.
Prime factorisations of 34 and 102 are:
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 exercise 3.6 free guide
Here, the common factors are 2 and 17.
Thus, HCF is 2 x 17 = 34.

(g) The given numbers are 70, 105 and 175.
Prime factorisatios of 70, 105 and 175 are:
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 ex 3.6 all questions
Here, common factors are 5 and 7.
Hence, the HCF of 70, 105 and 175 is 5 x 7 = 35.

(h) Given numbers are 91, 112 and 49.
Prime factorisations of 91, 112 and 49 are:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 exercise 3.6 free to use online
Here, the common factor is 7.
Hence, the HCF = 7.

(i) Given numbers are 18, 54 and 81.
Prime factorisations of 18, 54 and 81 are:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 ex. 3.6 free to download
Here, the common factor is 3 (occurring twice).
Thus, the HCF = 3 x 3 = 9.

(j) Given numbers are 12, 45 and 75.
Prime factorisations of 12, 45 and 75 are:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 exercise 3.6 in english medium
Here, the common factor is 3.
Hence, the HCF = 3.

Question 2.
What is the HCF of two consecutive
(a) numbers?
(b) even numbers?
(c) odd numbers?
Solution:
(a) The common factor of two consecutive numbers is always 1.
Hence, the HCF = 1.
(b) The common factors of two consecutive even numbers are 1 and 2.
Hence, the HCF = 1 x 2 = 2.
(c) The common factor of two consecutive odd numbers is 1.
Hence, the HCF = 1.

Question 3.
HCF of co-prime numbers 4 and 15 was found as follows by factorisation:
4 = 2 x 2 and 15 = 3 x 15. Since there is no common prime factors, so HCF of 4 and 15 is 0.
Is the answer correct? If not, what is the correct HCF?
Solution:
No, answer is not correct.
Reason: 0 is not the prime factor of any number.
1 is always the prime factor of co-prime number.
Hence, the correct HCF of 4 and 15 is 1.

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Playing with Numbers Class 6 Ex 3.7

Question 1.
Renu purchases two bags of fertiliser of weights 75 kg and 69 kg. Find the maximum value of weight which can measure the weight of the fertiliser exact number of times.
Solution:
Maximum value of weight which can measure the given weight exact number of time = HCF of 75 g and 69 kg
Prime factorisations of 75 and 69 are
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 exercise 3.7 free study
Here, the common factor is 3.
∴ HCF of 75 and 69 = 3.
Hence, the required maximum value of weight = 3 kg.

Question 2.
Three boys.step off together from the same spot. Their steps measure 63 cm, 70 cm and 77 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should cover so that all can cover the distance in complete steps?
Solution:
The minimum distance that each boy should walk must be the least common multiple (LCM) of the measure of their steps.
To find LCM of 63, 70 and 77, we use division method.
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 all exercise
∴ LCM of 63, 70 and 77 = 2 x 3 x 3 x 5 x 7 x 11 = 6930
Hence, the required minimum distance = 6930 cm.

Question 3.
The length, breadth and height of a room are 825 cm, 675 cm and 450 cm respectively. Find the longest tape which can measure the three dimensions of the room exactly.
Solution:
The longest tape required to measure the three dimensions of the room = HCF of 825, 675 and 450
Prime factorisations of 825, 675 and 450 are
825 = 3 x 5 x 5 x 11
675 = 3 x 3 x 3 x 5 x 5
450 = 2 x 3 x 3 x 5 x 5
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 exercise 3.7 in english
Here, common factors are 3, 5 (two times).
∴ HCF of 825, 675 and 450 = 3 x 5 x 5 = 75
Hence, the required longest tape = 75 cm.

Question 4.
Determine the smallest 3-digit number which is exactly divisible by 6, 8 and 12.
Solution:
The smallest 3-digit number = 100
Since LCM of 6, 8 and 12 is divisible by them.
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 exercise 3.7 all questions answers
∴ LCM of 6, 8 and 12 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 = 24
Since, all the multiples of 24 will also be divisible by 6, 8 and 12.
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Clik here to view.
So, the smallest multiple of 24 in three digits will be just above
100 = (100 – 4) + 24 = 96 + 24 = 120
Hence, the required number is 120.

Question 5.
Determine the greatest 3-digit number exactly divisible by 8, 10 and 12.
Solution:
To find the LCM of 8, 10 and 12, we have
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 exercise 3.7 all questions
∴ LCM of 8, 10 and 12 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 5 = 120
The greatest 3-digit number = 999
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Clik here to view.
∴ Multiple of 120 just below 999 is 960.
Hence, the required number is 960.

Question 6.
The traffic lights at three different road crossings change after every 48 seconds, 72 seconds and 108 seconds respectively. If they change simultaneously at 7 a.m., at what time will they change simultaneously again?
Solution:
To find the LCM of 48, 72 and 108, we have
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 ex. 3.7 free to download
∴ LCM = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 3= 432
So, after 432 seconds, the light will change simultaneously.
Hence, the required time = 432 seconds = 7 minutes 12 seconds i.e., 7 minutes 12 seconds past 7 a.m.

Question 7.
Three tankers contain 403 litres, 434 litres and 465 litres of diesel respectively. Find the maximum capacity of a container that can measure the diesel of the three containers exact number of times.
Solution:
Maximum capacity of the required measure is equal to the HCF of 403, 434 and 465.
Prime factorisations of 403, 434 and 465 are
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 exercise 3.7 in english medium
Common factor = 31.
So, the HCF of 403, 434 and 465 = 31.
Hence, the maximum capacity of the required container = 31 litres.

Question 8.
Find the least number which when divided by 6, 15 and 18 leave remainder 5 in each case.
Solution:
To find the LCM of 6, 15 and 18, we have
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 exercise 3.7 pdf download
∴ LCM of 6, 15 and 18 = 2 x 3 x 3 x 5 = 90.
Here, 90 is the least number exactly divisible by 6, 15 and 18.
To get a remainder 5, the least number will be 90 + 5 = 95.
Hence, the required number is 95.

Question 9.
Find the smallest 4-digit number which is divisible by 18, 24 and 32.
Solution:
The smallest 4-digit number = 1000.
To find the LCM of 18, 24 and 32, we have
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Clik here to view. 6 Maths 3.7 in Hindi
∴ LCM = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 = 288
Since, 288 is the smallest number which is exactly divisible by 18, 24 and 32.
But it is not a 4-digit number.
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Clik here to view. Class 6 Maths Ex 3.7
So, the multiple of 288 just above 1000 is: 1000 – 136 + 288 = 1152.
Hence, the required number is 1152.

Question 10.
Find the LCM of the following numbers:
(a) 9 and 4
(b) 12 and 5
(c) 6 and 5
(d) 15 and 4
Observe a common property in the obtained ’ LCMs. Is LCM the product of two numbers in each case?
Solution:
(a) To find the LCM of 9 and 4, we have
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Clik here to view. Class 6 Maths Exercise 3.7
∴ LCM = 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 = 36.
The product 9 and 4 = 9 x 4 = 36.
Hence, the LCM of 9 and 4 = Product of 9 and 4.

(b) To find LCM of 12 and 5, we have
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Clik here to view. Ch 3 Ex 3.7
∴ LCM = 2 x 2 x 3 x 5 = 60.
The product of 12 and 5 = 12 x 5 = 60.
Hence, the LCM of 12 and 5 = Product of 12 and 5.

(c) To find the LCM of 6 and 5, we have
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Clik here to view. Ch 3 Playing with Numbers
∴ LCM = 2 x 3 x 5 = 30.
The product of 6 and 5 = 6 x 5 = 30.
Hence, the LCM of 6 and 5 = Product of 6 and 5.

(d) To find the LCM of 15 and 4, we have
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. Playing with numbers 6th Maths Question and Answers
∴ LCM = 2 x 2 x 3 x 5 = 60.
Product of the numbers 15 and 4 = 15 x 4 = 60.
Hence, the LCM of 15 and 4 = Product of 15 and 4.

Question 11.
Find the LCM of the following numbers in which one number is the factor of the other.
(a) 5, 20
(b) 6, 18
(c) 12, 48
(d) 9, 45
What do you observe in the results obtained?
Solution:
(a) To find the LCM of 5 and 20, we have
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. Class 6 Playing with Numbers PDF
∴ LCM = 2 x 2 x 5 = 20.
Hence, the LCM of 5 and 20 = 20.

(b) To find the LCM of 6 and 18, we have
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Clik here to view. 6th Maths Playing with Numbers
∴ LCM = 2 x 3 x 3 = 18.
Hence, the LCM of 6 and 18 = 18.

(c) To find the LCM of 12 and 48, we have
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Clik here to view. 6th Maths Ex 3.7
LCM = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 = 48.
Hence, the LCM of 12 and 48 = 48.

(d) To find the LCM of 9 and 45, we have
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Clik here to view. Ex 3.7 class vi all questions and answers
∴ LCM = 3 x 3 x 5 = 45.
Hence, the LCM of 9 and 45 = 45.
From the above examples, we observe that the LCM of the two numbers, where one number is a factor of the other, is the greater number.

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CBSE Class 6 Study Material

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Playing With Numbers Exercise 3.2

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Playing With Numbers Exercise 3.2

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers Ex 3.2

Exercise 3.2

Question 1.
What is the sum of any two:
(a) Odd numbers?
(b) Even numbers?
Solution:
(a) The sum of any two odd numbers is even.
(b) The sum of any two even numbers is even.

Question 5.
What is the greatest prime number between 1 and 10?
Solution:
The greatest prime number between 1 and 10 is 7.

Question 6.
Express the following as the sum of two odd primes.
(a) 44
(b) 36
(c) 24
(d) 18
Solution:
(a) 44 = 13 + 31
(b) 36 = 17 + 19
(c) 24 = 7 + 17
(d) 18 = 7 + 11

NCERT Solutions Maths Science Social English Hindi Sanskrit RD Sharma

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Playing With Numbers Exercise 3.5

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Playing With Numbers Exercise 3.5

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers Ex 3.5

Exercise 3.5

(b) Given that:
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers
Let the missing numbers be m₁, m₂, m₃ and m₄.
60 = 30 x m₁
⇒ m₁ = 60 ÷ 30 = 2
30 = 10 x m₂
⇒ m₂ = 30 ÷ 10 = 3
10 = m₃ x m₄
⇒ m₃ = 2 or 5 and m₄ = 5 or 2
Hence, the missing numbers are 2, 3, 2, 5.

Question 3.
Which factors are not included in the prime factorisation of a composite number?
Solution:
1 and the number itself are not included in the prime factorisation of a composite number.

Question 4.
Write the greatest 4-digit number and express it in terms of its prime factors.
Solution:
The greatest 4-digit number = 9999
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers
Hence, the prime factors of 9999 = 3 x 3 x 11 x 101.

Question 5.
Write the smallest 5-digit number and express it in the form of its prime factors.
Solution:
The smallest 5-digit number = 10000
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers
Hence, the required prime factors: 10000 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 5 x 5 x 5 x 5.

Question 6.
Find all the prime factors of 1729 and arrange them in ascending order. Now state the relations, if any, between the two consecutive prime factors.
Solution:
Given number = 1729
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers
Hence, the prime factors of 1729 = 7 x 13 x 19.
Here, 13 – 7 = 6 and 19 – 13 = 6
We see that the difference between two consecutive prime factors is 6.

Example 2:
Take three consecutive numbers 30; 31 and 32.
Here 30 is divisible by 3 and 32 is divisible by 2.
Therefore, the product 30 x 31 x 32 = 29760 is divisible by 6.

Example 3:
Take three consecutive numbers 48, 49 and 50.
Here, 48 is divisible by 3 and 50 is divisible by 2.
Therefore, the product 48 x 49 x 50 = 117600 which is divisible by 6.

Example 2:
Let us take two consecutive odd numbers 121 and 123.
Sum = 121 + 123 = 244
Here, the number formed by last two digits is 44 which is divisible by 4.

Example 3:
Let us take two consecutive odd numbers 105 and 107.
Sum = 105 + 107 = 212
Here, the number formed by the last two digits is 12 which is divisible by 4.

(b) 56 = 7 x 2 x 2 x 2
Here, all factors are prime numbers
Hence, 56 = 7 x 2 x 2 x 2 is a prime factorisation.

(d) 54 = 2 x 3 x 9
Here, 9 is not a prime number.
Hence, 54 = 2 x 3 x 9 is not a prime factorisation.

NCERT Solutions Maths Science Social English Hindi Sanskrit RD Sharma

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Playing With Numbers Exercise 3.6

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Playing With Numbers Exercise 3.6

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers Ex 3.6

Exercise 3.6

Question 1.
Find the HCF of the following numbers:
(a) 18, 48
(b) 30, 42
(c) 18, 60
(d) 27,63
(e) 36,84
(f) 34, 102
(g) 70, 105, 175
(h) 91, 112, 49
(i) 18, 54, 81
(j) 12, 45, 75
Solution:
(a) Given numbers are 18 and 48.
Prime factorisations of 18 and 48 are:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers
Here, the common factors are 2 and 3.
Hence, the HCF = 2 x 3 = 6.

(b) The given numbers are 30 and 42.
Prime factorisations of 30 and 42, are:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers
Here, the common factors are 2 and 3.
Hence, the HCF = 2 x 3 = 6.

(c) Given numbers are 18 and 60.
Prime factorisations of 18 and 60 are:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers
Here, the common factors are 2 and 3.
Hence, the HCF of 18 and 60 = 2 x 3 = 6.

(d) Given numbers are 27 and 63.
Prime factorisations of 27 and 63 are:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers
Here, the common factor is 3 (occurring twice).
Hence, the HCF = 3 x 3 = 9.

(e) Given numbers are 36 and 84.
Prime factorisations of 36 and 84 are:
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers
Here, the common factors are 2, 2 and 3.
Hence, the HCF = 2 x 2 x 3 = 12.

(f) Given numbers are 34 and 102.
Prime factorisations of 34 and 102 are:
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Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers
Here, the common factors are 2 and 17.
Thus, HCF is 2 x 17 = 34.

(g) The given numbers are 70, 105 and 175.
Prime factorisatios of 70, 105 and 175 are:
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Here, common factors are 5 and 7.
Hence, the HCF of 70, 105 and 175 is 5 x 7 = 35.

(h) Given numbers are 91, 112 and 49.
Prime factorisations of 91, 112 and 49 are:
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Here, the common factor is 7.
Hence, the HCF = 7.

(i) Given numbers are 18, 54 and 81.
Prime factorisations of 18, 54 and 81 are:
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Here, the common factor is 3 (occurring twice).
Thus, the HCF = 3 x 3 = 9.

(j) Given numbers are 12, 45 and 75.
Prime factorisations of 12, 45 and 75 are:
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Here, the common factor is 3.
Hence, the HCF = 3.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Playing With Numbers Exercise 3.3

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Playing With Numbers Exercise 3.3

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers Ex 3.3

Question 1.
Using divisibility tests, determine which of the following numbers are divisible by 2, by 3, by 4, by 5, by 6, by 8, by 9, by 10, by 11 (Say, Yes or No)
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Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.

Question 2.
Using divisibility tests, determine which of following numbers are divisible by 4; by 8.
(a) 572
(b) 726352
(c) 5500
(d) 6000
(e) 12159
(f) 14560
(g) 21084
(j) 2150
(h) 31795072
(i) 1700
Solution:
(a) Given number = 572
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the number formed by the last two digits of the given number is 72.
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Remainder 0. Hence, 572 is divisible by 4.

(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the number formed by the last three digits of the given number is 572.
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Remainder 4. Hence, 572 is not divisible by 8.

(b) Given number = 726352
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the number formed by the last two digits of the given number = 52.
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Remainder = 0.
Hence, 726352 is divisible by 4.

(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the number formed by the last three digits of the given number = 352
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Remainder = 0.
Hence, 726352 is divisible by .

(c) Given number = 5500
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here the last two digits of the given number are 0. Hence, 5500 is divisible by 4.
(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the number formed by the last three digits of the given number = 500
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Remainder = 4. Hence, 5500 is not divisible by 8.

(d) Given number = 6000
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the last two digits of the given number are 0.
Hence, 6000 is divisible by 4.

(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the last three digits of the given number are 0.
Hence, 6000 is divisible by 8.

(e) Given number = 12159
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the number formed by last two digits of the given number = 59
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Remainder = 3.
Hence, 12159 is divisible by 4.

(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the number formed by the last three digits of the given number = 159
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Remainder = 7.
Hence, 12159 is not divisible by 8.

(f) Given number = 14560
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the number formed by the last two digits of the given number = 60.
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Remainder = 0.
Hence, 14560 is divisible by 8.

(g) Given number = 21084
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the number formed by the last two digits of the given number = 84.
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Remainder = 0. Hence, 21084 is divisible by 4.

(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the number formed by the last three digits of the given number = 084.
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Remainder = 4.
Hence, 21084 is not divisible by 8.

(h) Given number = 31795072
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the number formed by the last two digits of the given number = 72.
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Remainder = 0. Hence, 31795072 is divisible by 4.

(i) Given number = 1700
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the last two digits of the given number is 0. Hence, 1700 is divisible by 4.
(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the number formed by the last three digits of the given number = 700
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Remainder = 4. Hence, 1700 is not divisible by 8.
(j) Given number = 2150
(i) Divisibility by 4
Here, the number formed by the last two digits of the given number = 50.
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Clik here to view.
Remainder = 2. Hence, 2150 is not divisible by 4.

(ii) Divisibility by 8
Here, the number formed by the last three digits of the given number = 150
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Remainder = 6. Hence, 2150 is not divisible by 8.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Playing With Numbers Exercise 3.7

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Playing With Numbers Exercise 3.7

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 4 Basic Geometrical Ideas Ex 4.1

Exercise 3.7

Question 1.
Renu purchases two bags of fertiliser of weights 75 kg and 69 kg. Find the maximum value of weight which can measure the weight of the fertiliser exact number of times.
Solution:
Maximum value of weight which can measure the given weight exact number of time = HCF of 75 g and 69 kg
Prime factorisations of 75 and 69 are
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Here, the common factor is 3.
∴ HCF of 75 and 69 = 3.
Hence, the required maximum value of weight = 3 kg.

Question 2.
Three boys.step off together from the same spot. Their steps measure 63 cm, 70 cm and 77 cm respectively. What is the minimum distance each should cover so that all can cover the distance in complete steps?
Solution:
The minimum distance that each boy should walk must be the least common multiple (LCM) of the measure of their steps.
To find LCM of 63, 70 and 77, we use division method.
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∴ LCM of 63, 70 and 77 = 2 x 3 x 3 x 5 x 7 x 11 = 6930
Hence, the required minimum distance = 6930 cm.

Question 3.
The length, breadth and height of a room are 825 cm, 675 cm and 450 cm respectively. Find the longest tape which can measure the three dimensions of the room exactly.
Solution:
The longest tape required to measure the three dimensions of the room = HCF of 825, 675 and 450
Prime factorisations of 825, 675 and 450 are
825 = 3 x 5 x 5 x 11
675 = 3 x 3 x 3 x 5 x 5
450 = 2 x 3 x 3 x 5 x 5
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Here, common factors are 3, 5 (two times).
∴ HCF of 825, 675 and 450 = 3 x 5 x 5 = 75
Hence, the required longest tape = 75 cm.

Question 4.
Determine the smallest 3-digit number which is exactly divisible by 6, 8 and 12.
Solution:
The smallest 3-digit number = 100
Since LCM of 6, 8 and 12 is divisible by them.
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∴ LCM of 6, 8 and 12 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 = 24
Since, all the multiples of 24 will also be divisible by 6, 8 and 12.
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So, the smallest multiple of 24 in three digits will be just above
100 = (100 – 4) + 24 = 96 + 24 = 120
Hence, the required number is 120.

Question 5.
Determine the greatest 3-digit number exactly divisible by 8, 10 and 12.
Solution:
To find the LCM of 8, 10 and 12, we have
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∴ LCM of 8, 10 and 12 = 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 5 = 120
The greatest 3-digit number = 999
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∴ Multiple of 120 just below 999 is 960.
Hence, the required number is 960.

Question 6.
The traffic lights at three different road crossings change after every 48 seconds, 72 seconds and 108 seconds respectively. If they change simultaneously at 7 a.m., at what time will they change simultaneously again?
Solution:
To find the LCM of 48, 72 and 108, we have
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∴ LCM = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 x 3= 432
So, after 432 seconds, the light will change simultaneously.
Hence, the required time = 432 seconds = 7 minutes 12 seconds i.e., 7 minutes 12 seconds past 7 a.m.

Question 7.
Three tankers contain 403 litres, 434 litres and 465 litres of diesel respectively. Find the maximum capacity of a container that can measure the diesel of the three containers exact number of times.
Solution:
Maximum capacity of the required measure is equal to the HCF of 403, 434 and 465.
Prime factorisations of 403, 434 and 465 are
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Common factor = 31.
So, the HCF of 403, 434 and 465 = 31.
Hence, the maximum capacity of the required container = 31 litres.

Question 8.
Find the least number which when divided by 6, 15 and 18 leave remainder 5 in each case.
Solution:
To find the LCM of 6, 15 and 18, we have
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∴ LCM of 6, 15 and 18 = 2 x 3 x 3 x 5 = 90.
Here, 90 is the least number exactly divisible by 6, 15 and 18.
To get a remainder 5, the least number will be 90 + 5 = 95.
Hence, the required number is 95.

Question 9.
Find the smallest 4-digit number which is divisible by 18, 24 and 32.
Solution:
The smallest 4-digit number = 1000.
To find the LCM of 18, 24 and 32, we have
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∴ LCM = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 = 288
Since, 288 is the smallest number which is exactly divisible by 18, 24 and 32.
But it is not a 4-digit number.
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So, the multiple of 288 just above 1000 is: 1000 – 136 + 288 = 1152.
Hence, the required number is 1152.

Question 10.
Find the LCM of the following numbers:
(a) 9 and 4
(b) 12 and 5
(c) 6 and 5
(d) 15 and 4
Observe a common property in the obtained ’ LCMs. Is LCM the product of two numbers in each case?
Solution:
(a) To find the LCM of 9 and 4, we have
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∴ LCM = 2 x 2 x 3 x 3 = 36.
The product 9 and 4 = 9 x 4 = 36.
Hence, the LCM of 9 and 4 = Product of 9 and 4.

(b) To find LCM of 12 and 5, we have
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∴ LCM = 2 x 2 x 3 x 5 = 60.
The product of 12 and 5 = 12 x 5 = 60.
Hence, the LCM of 12 and 5 = Product of 12 and 5.

(c) To find the LCM of 6 and 5, we have
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∴ LCM = 2 x 3 x 5 = 30.
The product of 6 and 5 = 6 x 5 = 30.
Hence, the LCM of 6 and 5 = Product of 6 and 5.

(d) To find the LCM of 15 and 4, we have
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∴ LCM = 2 x 2 x 3 x 5 = 60.
Product of the numbers 15 and 4 = 15 x 4 = 60.
Hence, the LCM of 15 and 4 = Product of 15 and 4.

Question 11.
Find the LCM of the following numbers in which one number is the factor of the other.
(a) 5, 20
(b) 6, 18
(c) 12, 48
(d) 9, 45
What do you observe in the results obtained?
Solution:
(a) To find the LCM of 5 and 20, we have
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∴ LCM = 2 x 2 x 5 = 20.
Hence, the LCM of 5 and 20 = 20.

(b) To find the LCM of 6 and 18, we have
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∴ LCM = 2 x 3 x 3 = 18.
Hence, the LCM of 6 and 18 = 18.

(c) To find the LCM of 12 and 48, we have
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LCM = 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 = 48.
Hence, the LCM of 12 and 48 = 48.

(d) To find the LCM of 9 and 45, we have
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∴ LCM = 3 x 3 x 5 = 45.
Hence, the LCM of 9 and 45 = 45.
From the above examples, we observe that the LCM of the two numbers, where one number is a factor of the other, is the greater number.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Playing With Numbers Exercise 3.4

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Playing With Numbers Exercise 3.4

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 3 Playing With Numbers Ex 3.4

Exercise 3.4

(b) Given numbers are: 15 and 25
Factors of 15 are 1, 3, 5, 15
Factors of 25 are 1, 5, 25
Hence, the common factors are 1 and 5.

(c) Given numbers are: 35 and 50
Factors of 35 are: 1, 5, 7, 35
Factors of 50 are: 1, 2, 5, 10, 50
Hence, the common factors are 1 and 5.

(d) Given numbers are: 56 and 120
Factors of 56 are 1, 2, 4, 7, 8, 14, 28, 56
Factors of 120 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10, 12, 15, 20, 30, 40, 60, 120
Hence, the common factors are 1,2, 4, and 8.

(b) Given numbers are: 5, 15 and 25
Factors of 5 are 1, 5
Factors of 15 are 1, 3, 5, 15
Factors of 25 are 1, 5, 25
Hence, the common factors are 1 and 5.

(b) Given numbers are 12 and 18.
First three multiples of 12 are
12 x 1 = 12;
12 x 2 = 24;
12 x 1 = 36;
First three multiples of 18 are
18 x 1 = 18;
18 x 2 = 36;
18 x 3 = 54.

Question 4.
Write all the numbers less than 100 which are common multiples of 3 and 4.
Solution:
Given numbers are 3 and 4.
Multiples of 3 less than 100 are:
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Hence, the common multiples of 3 and 4 less than 100 are: 12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84 and 96.

(b) Given numbers are 15 and 37
Factors of 15 are 1, 3, 5, 15
Factors of 37 are 1,37
Since, the common factor of 15 and 37 is only 1.
Hence, they are co-prime.

(c) Given numbers are 30 and 415
Factors of 30 are 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 15, 30
Factors of 415 are 1, 5, 83
Since, the numbers have common factors 1 and 5
Hence, they are not co-prime.

(d) Given numbers are 17 and 68
Factors of 17 are 1, 17
Factors of 68 are 1, 2, 4, 17, 34, 68
Since, the numbers have common factors 1 and 17
Hence, they are not co-prime.

(f) Given numbers are 81 and 16
Factors of 81 are 1, 3, 9, 27, 81
Factors of 16 are 1, 2, 4, 8, 16
Since only 1 is common to 81 and 16
Hence, they are co-prime.

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2017 Delhi

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2017 Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks : 100

General Instructions:

All questions are compulsory. This questions paper has 27 questions in all. There are five sections in this question paper.
Section A contains Questions number 1-5 of 1 mark each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 20 words each.
Section B contains Questions number 6-10 of 2 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
Section C contains Questions number 11-16 of 4 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
Section D contains Questions number 17-21 of 5 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 150 words each.
In Section D Question number 21 is a map-based question. Write its answer in your answer-book.
Section E contains Question number 22-27 of 6 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 150 words each.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2017 Delhi Set – I

Question 1.
State any one special feature of Indo-Russian friendship. [1]
Answer:
More than 80 Bilateral agreements have been signed between India and Russia as part of the Indo-Russian strategic agreement of 2001.
India and Russia share a very friendly, and cordial relationship between themselves. One important feature is that Russia supplies most of Indian’s military’s hardware and equipments.

Question 2.
Which one of the following was a part of its Global war on terrorism by the U.S. ? [1]
(a) ‘Operation Desert Storm’
(b) Computer War
(c) ‘Operation Enduring Freedom’
(d) Videogame War.
Answer:
(c) “Operation Enduring Freedom”.

Question 3.
Give any one example to show that events taking place in one part of the world could have an impact on another part of the world. [1]
Answer:
The best example of an event taking place in one part of a country, affecting other countries is the outpour of help from all parts of the world for victims of major earthquake/tsunami. This is a sign of emergence of a global society.

Question 4.
What has been the ideology of left parties in India? [1]
Answer:
The communist groups which emerged in different parts of India, took inspiration from the Bolshevik revolution in Russia and advocated socialism, Maoism and Marxism as a solution to problems affecting the country.

Question 5.
How far is the demand for reservation beyond SCs, STs and OBCs justified? [1]
Answer:
At present in India, approximately 50% seats are reserved for SCs, STs and OBCs. Reservation is justified because it provides opportunities to economically, socially backward classes, however it should not affect able candidates of socially forward castes: Choices should be made as per the capability.

Question 6.
Starting in the 1960s, the two super powers signed which two significant agreements to control arms ? [2]
Answer:
The two super powers, USA and USSR signed the following two significant agreements :
(i) LTBT (Limited Test Ban Treaty)—In 1963, treaty Banning Nuclear Weapon Tests in the Atmosphere, in Outer Space and Under Water, which prohibited all test detonations of nuclear weapons except for those conducted underground was signed.

(ii) NPT—Non-Proliferation Treaty or NPT, is an international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to promote cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy. The further goal is to achieve complete nuclear disarmament and general disarmament.

Question 7.
Assess the commonly agreed upon two goals visualized by the Indians during the national movement which have been fulfilled after independence. [2]
Answer:
Two goals visualised by Indians were :

India to be run by a democratic Government. Every citizen to be independent and to choose a leader.
The government to be run by all, including poor people and socially disadvantaged groups.

Question 8.
Match the following leaders in List-A with the suitable statements in List-B: [2]

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(a) Lai Bahadur Shastri	(i) Founder of Communist Party of India (Marxist- Leninst).
(b) C. Natrajan Annadurai	(ii) Founder of D.M.K.
(c) Charu Majumdar	(iii) A Member of Parliament from 1952 till his death in 1986.
(d) Jagjiwan Ram	(iv) Coined the famous slogan Jai Jawan— Jai Kisan.

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Colurim ‘B’
(a) Lai Bahadur Shastri	(iv) Coined the famous slogan Jai Jawan—Jai Kisan.
(b) C. Natrajan Annadurai	(ii) Founder of D.M.K.
(c) Charu Majumdar	(i) Founder of ommunist Party of India (Marxist-Leninst).
(d) Jagjiwan Ram	(iii) A Member of Parliament from 1952 till his death in 1986.

Question 9.
In your opinion, was Anandpur Sahib Resolution a plea for strengthening federalism or a plea for separate Sikh nation? [2]
Answer:
It was in 1970 when a section of Akalis began to demand political autonomy for the region. This was reflected in a resolution passed at their conference at Anandpur Sahib in 1973. The resolution was a plea for strengthening federalism as it helped centre-state relations to be redefined, and fulfilled other aspirations of sikhs.

Question 10.
Assess the role of democratic negotiations in responding to regional aspirations. [2]
Answer:
A large and diverse democracy like India must deal with regional aspirations on regular basis. Situation in Punjab, North East, Assam, Kashmir Valley has threatened the government but government of India reached negotiated setdement with regional activists. Government decided not encourage regional aspirations which espouse separatism. Thus, politics in India has succeeded in accepting regionalism as a part and parcel of democratic policy, for example Punjab Accord, Assam Accord are some negotiations which helped in accepting regional aspirations as a part of policy.

Question 11.
Describe the four major objectives of ASEAN Economic Community. [4]
Answer:
ASEAN is Association of South East Asian Nations. Four main objectives are :

To provide assistance to each other in the form of training and research facilities in the educational, professional, technical and administrative spheres.
The objective is to create a common market and production base within ASEAN states and to aid social and economic development in the region.
This community would also like to improve the existing ASEAN dispute setdement mechanism to resolve economic disputes.
ASEAN has focused on creating a Free Trade Area (FTA) for investment, labour and services.

Question 12.
What is meant by alliance building as a component of traditional security policy ? State its advantages. [4]
Answer:
The benefit of alliance building is :

An alliance is a coalition of states that coordinate their actions of deter or defend against military attack. Thus, it strengthens the security backup of a country.
Countries form alliances to increase their effective power relative to another country or alliance.
This is based on national interests and can change when national interests change, e.g.,US backed the Islamic militants in Afghanistan against Soviet Union in 1980.

Question 13.
Highlight any four negative consequences of globalisation for the people of India. [4]
Answer:
The negative consequences of globalisation :

Many farmers committed suicide because their crops failed. They had bought very expensive seeds supplied by a multinational company.
Many retail shopkeepers fear that they will lose their livelihoods if some major international companies opens retail chains in the country. Thus, globalisation affects indigenous market.
Many public sector enterprises were running in losses in spite of heavy investment in them.
It has created disparities among people also by making the rich richer and poor even poorer. Globalisation affects the culture as well.

Question 14.
Explain the circumstances that led to the accession of Hyderabad to India. [4]
Answer:
Just before independence, British rulers announced the end of their rule over India and all princely states were free to join any country or remain independent. This was a very serious problem and could threaten the very existence of united India. The problem started when few of princely states decided on their independence and Hyderabad was the biggest of these ruled by Nizam.

The interim government at the centre took a firm stance against the possible division of India. Sardar Patel who was the home minister at that time played a historic role in negotiating with all the rulers of I princely states and bringing them into the Indian Union.

However, the ruler of Hyderabad Nizam, one of the richest man of world, did not agree to sign the agreement. When the movement of the people of Hyderabad state, against Nizam’s rule, gathered force, against Nizam’s rule joined by peasantry of state, they became victim of Nizam’s oppressive rule. The atrocities and communal riots started and Nizam’s paramilitary forces were against public. At this point, central government ordered the army to tackle the situation. In September 1948, Indian army moved in to control the Nizam’s forces. After fighting for few days, the Nizam surrendered. This led to Hyderabads accession to India.

Question 15.
How did the methods of voting in free India go f on changing from time to time till day ? Explain the reasons also. [4]
Answer:
Over the period voting system in India has changed.
(i) In the first general election in 1952 a box was placed inside each polling booth for each candidate with the election symbol of the candidate. Each voter was given a blank ballot paper to drop into the box. He/she could write their choice.

(ii) After first two elections, this method was changed. Now a ballot paper carrying the names and symbols of candidates was given to the voter and the voter stamped against the name of the candidate they wanted to vote for.

(iii) In 2004, Electronic Voting Machines (EVM) were introduced to press the button according to choice of the voter containing the name of the candidate and symbol of the political party.

Question 16.
Analyse any four factors responsible for the downfall of the Janata Government in 1979. [4]
Answer:
The factors responsible for the downfall of the Janata Government are :

The Janata Party government that came to power after 1977 election, was far from cohesive. Morarji Desai became the Prime Minister but did not bring the power within the party to an end.
The Janata Party lacked direction, leadership and a common programme.
The Janata Party government could not bring, about a fundamental change in policies from those pursued by the Congress.
The Janata Party split and the government which was led by Morarji Desai lost its majority in less than 18 months.

Question 17.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow : [5]
In the event of a nuclear war, both sides will be so badly harmed that it will be impossible to declare one side or the other as the winner, even if one of them tries to attack and disable the nuclear weapons of its rival, the other would still be left with enough nuclear weapons to inflict unacceptable destruction. Both sides have the capacity to retaliate against an attack and to cause so much destruction that neither can afford to initiate war. Thus, the cold war— inspite of being an intense form of rivalry between great powers—remained a ‘cold’ and not hot or shooting war. The deterrence relationship prevents war but not the rivalry between powers.
(i) Why did intense rivalry between the super pothers remain a cold war only ?
(ii) Why can’t a nuclear war between the two nuclear powers be decisive ?
(iii) Explain the logic of ‘deterrence’.
Answer:
(i) Both sides have the capacity to retaliate against an attack and to cause so much destruction that neither can afford to initiate war. Thus, the cold war—inspite of being an intense form of rivalry between great powers — remained a ‘cold’ and not the shooting war.
(ii) In the event of nuclear war, both sides will be so badly harmed that it will be impossible to declare one side or the other as winner, even if one of them tries to attack and disable the nuclear weapons of its rival, the other would still be left with enough nuclear weapons to inflict unacceptable destruction.
(iii) The logic of deterrence bars the country (blocs) from initiating a war inspite of them being capable to fight wars.

Question 18.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow : [5]
Despite the mixed record of the democratic experience, the people in all these countries of South Asia share the aspiration for democracy. A recent survey of the attitudes of the people in the five big countries of the region showed that there is widespread support for democracy in all these countries. Ordinary citizens, rich as well as poor and belonging to different religions, view the idea of democracy positively and support the institutions of representative democracy. They prefer democracy over any other form of government and think that democracy is suitable for their country. These are significant findings, for it was earlier believed that democracy could flourish and find support only in prosperous countries of the world.
(i) Assess the popularity of representative democracy ?
(ii) Analyse the reasons for the widespread support for democracy in the five big countries of South Asia.
(iii) How far do you agree with the statement that democracy can flourish and support only in prosperous countries ?
Answer:
(i) A recent survey of the attitudes of the people in the five big countries of the region showed that there is widespread support for representative democracy in all these countries.

(ii) Ordinary citizens, rich as well as poor and belonging to different religions in these Asian countries, view the idea of democracy positively and support the institutions of representative democracy. They prefer democracy over any other form of government and think that democracy is best suitable for their country.

(iii) We do not agree with the statement that democracy can flourish only in prosperous countries. To support, we have examples of many countries which might not be as prosperous but have a successful democratic administration, such as India and Sri Lanka.

Question 19.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow : [5]
Movements are not only about collective assertions or only about rallies and protests. They involve a gradual process of coming together of people with similar problems, similar demands and similar expectations. But then movements are also about making people aware of their rights and the expectations that they can have from democratic institutions. Social movements in India have been involved in these educative tasks for a long time and have thus contributed to expansion of democracy rather than causing disruptions.
(i) Mention any one right granted to the people of India as a result of any movement.
(ii) How far do you agree that social movements have contributed to the expansion of democracy rather than causing disruptions ?
(iii) What is the relationship between the movements and the democratic institutions ?
Answer :
(i) “RIGHT TO INFORMATION”.
(ii) We agree with the statement that social movements have contributed to the expansion of democracy. Social movements in India have been involved in these educative tasks for a long time and have thus contributed to expansion of democracy rather than causing disruptions.

(iii) Movement is not only a collective assertion or only about rallies and protests. They involve a gradual process of coming together of people with similar problems, similar demands and similar expectations. Movements are also about making people aware of their “RIGHTS” and the expectation that they can have from democratic institutions.

Question 20.
Study the following cartoon carefully and answer the questions that follow : [5]
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2017 Delhi 1
(i) Identify and name the leader shown on the right in the cartoon.
(ii) What type of relationship does the cartoon indicate between the people and the ruler ?
(iii) In your opinion, how successful was the approach adopted by the leader on the right to solve the issue of Princely States?
Answer:
(i) Sardar Patel, the Home Minister at that time is shown in the cartoon.
(ii) The state is princely state and ruler of state is a Monarch, the people of princely states were suppressed by the ruler very badly.
(iii) The government’s approach was consolidation and integration of the territorial boundaries of the nation and it had assumed supreme significance. Sardar Patel played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of princely states, offering them privy’ purses and bringing them into the Indian Union.

Question 21.
In the given political outline map of the world, five countries have been marked as A, B, C, D and E. Identify these countries on the basis of information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets as per the following format:

Sr. no. of the Information used	Alphabet Concerned	Name of the Country
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)

Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2017 Delhi 2
(i) The country where ‘Earth Summit’ was held in June 1992.
(ii) A leading contributor to green house gas emissions.
(iii) A country known for its anti-dam pro-river movements.
(iv) A country exempted from the requirement of the Kyoto Protocol.
(v) The second larget producer of crude oil in the world.
Answer:

Sr. no. of the Information used	Alphabet Concerned	Name of the Country
(i)	C	Brazil
(ii)	B	USA
(iii)	E	India
(iv)	A	China
(V)	D	Iraq

Question 22.
How did India play a crucial role in the Non- aligned Movement during the Cold War period ? Explain. [6]
OR
Why did the Soviet Union, the second most powerful country in the world, disintegrate ? Explain any six reasons.
Answer:
Non-alignment movement during Cold War period :

India’s policy was neither negative nor passive, though India took care to stay away from the two alliances.
Non-alignment was not a policy of fleeing away.
On the contrary, India was in favour of actively intervening in world affairs to soften cold war rivalries. India tried to reduce the differences between the alliances. Thereby preventing differences from escalating into a full scale war.
Indian diplomats and leaders often used to communicate and mediate between cold war rivals such as in Korea war in the early 1950s.
India chose to involve other members of the non-aligned group to reduce the tension in the cold war. For example; India repeatedly tried to activate those regional and international organisations, which were not a part of alliances led by the US and USSR.
Nehru took help of many countries, who were the members of a ‘genuine commonwealth of free and cooperating nations’ to play a positive role in softening , if not ending the cold war.

OR
Reasons responsible for the disintegration of USSR:

The soviet system became very bureaucratic and authoritarian, making life very difficult for its citizens. It also impacted in lack of democracy. The absence of freedom of speech stifled people who often expressed their dissent in jokes and cartoons.
Lack of democracy.
Most of the institutions of the Soviet State needed reforms; the one party system represented by the Communist Party of the Soviet Union had tight control over all institutions and was unaccountable.
Economic stagnation for many years led to serve consumers in shortages and a large section of Soviet society began to question and doubt the system.
The Soviet economy used much of its resources in maintaining nuclear and military arsenals and the development of the satellite states in Eastern Europe and within the Soviet system. This led to huge economic burden that the system could not handle.
Dominance of Russia; neglect of the interests of other republics.

Question 23.
“The bedrock of contemporary U.S. power lies in the overwhelming superiority of its military power.” Justify the statement with any three suitable arguments. [6]
OR
Analyse any three major factors responsible for evolving the European Union from an economic union in a political one.
Answer:
The military domination of US is relevant to its current position in world politics.
(i) In 1999, in response to Yugoslavia, action against the pre-dominantly Albanian population, in the province of Kosovo, NATO forces led by US bombarded targets around Yugoslavia, forcing the downfall of government and thus stationing of NATO forces in Kosovo.

(ii) Inspite of sanctions made by UN, US used all its forces in curbing terrorism.

(iii) Significant US military action during the Clinton years was in response to the bombing of the US embassies in Nairobi, Kenya, Dar-es-Salaam and Tanzania. In the few days of bombing President Clinton ordered “OPERATION INFINITE REACFI”. In this operation a series of missile strikes on Al-Qaeda were used to curb terrorism.

(iv) In absolute terms, the US today can reach any point of the planet accurately and in real time and able to finish the opposite side while its own forces are sheltered to the maximum extent possible from the danger of war.

(v) US spends more on its military capability and technology than the next 12 powers combined.

(vi) The military dominance of US is based on “QUALITATIVE GAP” a technological chasm or advancement that no other power can at present conceive or span.
OR
EU (European Union) was initially started as Economic power and now a major political power too. This is explained as below :
(i) ELT’s foundation was laid for a common foreign and security policy cooperation, with its own flag, anthem and currency. It also has a common foreign and securin’ policy in its dealing with other nations.

(ii) EU is the world’s biggest economy. Its currency, Euro, can pose a threat to the dominance of the US Dollar. Its share in world trade is 3 times larger than that of US.

(iii) Now, the EU also has political and diplomatic influence. Two members of EU, Britain and France, hold permanent seats on the UN Security Council. This has enabled the EU to influence some US policies such as current US position of on Iran’s nuclear programme.

(iv) Its use of diplomacy, economic investments, and negotiations rather than coercion and military forces has been effective.

Question 24.
Describe any three challenging global issues that can only be dealt with when everyone works together. [6]
OR
What is meant by traditional notion of internal and external security ?
Answer:
The three international challenging issues :
(i) Terrorism refers to political violence that targets civilians deliberately and indiscriminately. International terrorism involves the citizens or territory of more than one country. Terrorist groups seek to change a political context or condition that they do not like by threat of force. Civilian targets are usually chosen to terrorise the public and to use the unhappiness of the public as a weapon against national governments or other parties in conflict.

(ii) Human rights have come to be classified into three types. The first type is political rights such as freedom of speech and assembly. The second type is economic and social rights. The third type is the rights of colonised people or ethnic and indigenous minorities. Since the 1990s, developments such as Iraq’s invasion of Kuwait, the genocide in Rwanda, and the Indonesian military’s killing of people in East Timor have led to a debate on whether or not the UN should intervene to stop human rights abuses.

(iii) Global poverty is another source of insecurity. World population—now at 650 crore—will reach 700 to 800 crore within 25 years and may eventually level out at 900 to 1000 crore. Poverty in the South has also led to large-scale migration to seek a better life, especially better economic opportunities, in the North. This has created international political frictions.
OR
The Traditional notion of Security’ covers both the external and internal threats of a country’s security. Internal threats include maintenance of internal peace, security and order, to recognise cooperative security to limit violence, internal military actions and separatist movements. External security includes danger from outside military threats, deterrence, defence and balance of power and alliance building.

Traditional notion of internal security: Traditional security must also concern itself with internal security. After the Second world war, for the most powerful countries on earth, internal security was more or less assured. After 1945, the US and the Soviet Union appeared to be united and could expect peace within their borders. In Europe, most of the powerful countries faced no threat from groups or communities living within their borders. However, newly independent countries of Asia and Africa faced problems during Civil war.

Traditional notion of External security: The period after the Second World war was the Cold war period in which the US led western alliance faced the Soviet led Communist alliance. The two alliances feared a military attack from each other. Some European powers, in addition, continued to worry about violence in their colonies, from colonised people who wanted Independence.

Question 25.
Analyse the impact on Sino-Indian relations since 1962 onwards. [6]
OR
How far has India been successful in conducting its foreign policy peacefully and avoiding international conflicts ? Explain with the help of examples.
Answer:
India and China are two powerful countries of Asia with a very large population. Relations between these two countries have always been topsy-turvy.
(i) China and India were involved in a border conflict in 1962 over territorial disputes principally in Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and the Aksai Chin region of Ladakh. China attacked India on 20th October, 1962 and captured many Indian areas but declared a unilateral ceasefire on 21st November. This worsened our relations with China.

(ii) Rajiv Gandhi visited China in 1988 and government took measures to solve issues of conflict and maintain peace and tranquillity on the border.

(iii) They also signed an agreement on cultural exchanges and began cooperating in fields science and technology. Both the countries also opened border posts for trade.

(iv) Trade has been growing at 30% per year since 1999, which is a positive move. A new perspective on relations with China has emerged. Bi-lateral trade between India and China has increased from $ 330 million to more than $ 18 billion.
OR
India’s foreign policy in avoiding international conflicts : India decided to conduct its foreign policies and relations with an aim to respect the sovereignty of all other nations and achieve security- through the maintenance of peace. By following the principles of non-alignment, India has been able to maintain cordial relations with all powerful countries of the world.

India has always followed the policy of non-alignment on various international issues.
India has kept a safe distance from both the military blocks led by USA and USSR respectively.
India criticised the issue of Suez Canal. Nehru’s intervention in Egypt’s support 60 years ago, won India, global respect for putting non-alignment into practice.
India played a crucial role in mediating and bringing the Korean conflict to an end.

Question 26.
Examine the developments that gave rise to the conflict between the Union Government and the Judiciary in India. [6]
OR
Analyse the circumstances that led to the restoration of Congress System after the Party’s split in 1969.
Answer:
Three constitutional issues have emerged :
(i) The Supreme Court said that the parliament cannot pass any law that abridges the fundamental rights, to which the Parliament reacted bitterly.

(ii) The Court said that Parliament cannot amend the Constitution in such a manner that rights are curtailed in regards with the right to property which also caused upheavals and chaos.

(iii) The Parliament amended the] Constitution saying that it can abridge Fundamental Rights for giving effects to Directive’ Principles. But the Supreme Court rejected this provision also. This led to a crisis as far as the relations between government and the judiciary were concerned. The best example is the famous Kesavananda Bharti case. • In this case, the court gave a decision that there are some basic features of the Constitution and the Parliament cannot amend these features.
OR
The split in the Congress reduced the Indira Gandhi government to minority. Yet her government continued in the office with the issue based support of few parties including CPI and DMK. During this period, government made conscious attempts to project its socialist credentials.

The results of Lok Sabha elections in 1971 were unexpected.The Congress (Indira)—CPI alliance had more seats and votes than the Congress has ever won in the first four general elections. Indira Gandhi Congress won 354 seats in Lok Sabha and secured 44% of popular votes of its own. Contradictory to this, with the performance of Congress (O) with so many stalwarts could manage only one-fourth votes than Indira Gandhi party and could win only 16 seats. With this, Congress Party led by Indira Gandhi established its claim to being (Real Congress) and restored its dominant position in Indian Politics. Soon after the Lok Sabha elections, a major political and military crisis broke out in East Pakistan and the Indo-Pak war leading to the establishment of Bangladesh. These events added to the popularity of Indira Gandhi. Her party swept through all the assembly elections held in 1972.

She was seen not only as the protector of the poor and underprivileged, but also a strong nationalist leader. Any opposition against her, either within the party or outside it, simply did not matter. With two successive election victories, one at the central and other at state level, the dominance of Congress was restored.

Question 27.
Describe the external and internal disputes responsible for making the politics of Jammu and Kashmir continuously controversial. [6]
OR
Describe any three major developments that left a long lasting impact on the politics of India after the death of Rajiv Gandhi.
Answer:
Soon after independence, the issue of Jammu and Kashmir came up. It was not only a conflict between India and Pakistan, it was a question of political aspirations of people of Kashmir Valley. Jammu and Kashmir comprises three social and political regions: Jammu, Kashmir Valley and Ladakh. The Kashmir Valley consists of mostly Muslims speaking Kashmiris and very few Kashmiri speaking Hindu minority. Jammu region is a mix of foothills ‘and plains, with population of Hindu, Muslims and Sikhs, speaking various languages. The Ladakh region is mountainous, has very little population, divided between Buddhist and Muslims. The Kashmir issue has external and internal dimensions. It involves the issue of Kashmiri identity known as Kashmiryat and the aspirations of the people of J&K for political autonomy.

Since J & K was initially a princely state, its Hindu ruler did not want to merge with India or Pakistan and wanted an independent status for his state. Pakistani leaders thought that ‘Kashmir region’ belongs to Pakistan, as majority of the population is Muslim. The popular movement led by Sheikh Abdullah of ‘National Conference’ wanted to get rid of the Maharaja, but was against joining Pakistan. In October 1947, Pakistan sent tribal infiltrators from its side to capture Kashmir. This forced Maharaja Hari Singh to ask for Indian Military help. India sent the military support and drove back the tribal infiltrators. Since then, Kashmir became an Indian state with a special provision under article 370.
Nowadays, Pakistan is directly involved in terrorist and secessionist violence in the Kashmir Valley.
OR
The assassination of Rajiv Gandhi in May 1991 led to a change in leadership of the Congress party. He was assassinated by a Sri Lankan Tamil linked to the LTTE when he was on an election campaign tour in Tamil Nadu. In the next elections, Congress had to form a coalition with the support of few other parties.The defeat of the Congress party marked the end of Congress dominance over the Indian party system.

During the early ninetees, several parties emerged in such a way that one or two parties did not get most of the votes or seats. This also meant that no single party secured a clear majority of seats in any Lok Sabha election held since 1989 till 2014. This development initiated an era of coalition governments at the Centre, in which regional parties played a crucial role in forming ruling alliances.

The nineties also saw the emergence of powerful parties and movements that represented the Dalit and backward castes (Other Backward Classes or OBCs). Many of these parties represented powerful regional assertion as well. The support for the Congress among many sections of; the ‘backward castes’ had declined. This created a space for nonCongress parties that drew more support from these communities.

The other long-term development during this period was the rise of politics based on religious identity, leading to a debate about secularism and democracy. Initially, the BJP adopted a broader political platform than that of the Jana Sangh. It embraced ‘Gandhian Socialism’ as its ideology. After 1986, however, the party began to emphasise the Hindu nationalist element in its ideology The BJP pursued the politics of ‘Hindutva’ and adopted the strategy of mobilising the Hindus.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2017 Delhi Set – II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 3.
How far do you agree with the statement that cultural globalization is dangerous not only for the poor countries but for the entire globe ? [1]
Answer:
The cultural effect of globalisation leads to the fear that this process might pose a threat to indigenous culture of various regions. It does so because globalisation leads to the rise of a uniform culture or cultural homogenisation.

The use of a uniform culture is not the emergence of a global culture rather the imposition of western culture on the rest of the world.
The culture of the politically and economically dominant society leaves its imprint on a less powerful society.
This is dangerous not only for the poor countries but for the whole of humanity, for it leads to the shrinking of the rich cultural heritage of the entire globe.

Question 11.
In which four ways did the new economic policies of China benefit its economy ? [4]
Answer:
New economic policies of China :

China has now turned up as the third major alternative centre of power.
China’s economic success since 1978 has been linked to its rise as a great power.
China has been the fastest growing economy since the reforms first began. Now it is projected that China’s economy will overtake the US as the World’s largest economy by year 2040.
The economic integration into the region makes it the driver of East Asian growth, thereby giving it enormous influence in regional affairs.

Question 12.
What is Veto Power ? Which member nations of the U.N. Security Council enjoy this special power and why ? [4]
Answer:
For taking decision in UN Security Council, every member of the Security Council has one vote. However, permanent members can veto the decision so that even if all other permanent and nonpermanent members vote for a particular decision, even a single permanent member’s negative vote can stop the decision. This negative vote is called “Veto Power”. This Veto Power is only enjoyed by the five permanent members of the Security Council.

Question 13.
How does globalisation result in erosion of state capacity ? Explain. [4]
Answer:
Globalisation results in erosion of state capacity:

Economic globalisation gives more importance to institutions like the IMF and the WTO.
As the restrictions imposed by different countries have been reduced. So, greater trade in commodities across the globe can be seen which might affect the indigenous trade of the regions.
Economic globalisation might lead to economic ruin for the weaker countries, especially for the poor within these countries.
In place of old welfare states, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of economic and social priorities. The entry and the increased role of the multinational companies all over the world leads to a reduction in the capacity of the government to take decision on their own, thus reduces state capacity.

Question 23.
Analyse the biggest three constraints that operate on American hegemony [6]
OR
Examine any three major areas of conflict between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Three constraints on American hegemony :
(i) The biggest constraint to American hegemony lies within the heart of hegemony itself. We can identify the constraints on American power after 9/11.

(ii) Another constraint is the institutional structure of the American states itself. A system of division of powers between the three branches of government places significant breaks upon the unrestrained and immediate exercise of America’s military power by the executive branch.

(iii) Next constraint on American power is also domestic in nature and comes from the open nature of American society. Although the American mass media may from time to time impose or promote a particular perspective on domestic public opinion in the US, there is nevertheless a deep scepticism regarding the purpose and method of government in American political culture. This factor, in the long run, is a huge constraint on the US military action overseas.

(iv) Last constraint is the International system which can put restrictions on the US hegemony. There is only one organisation in the international system that could possibly moderate the exercise of American power today and that is the NATO. The US has an enormous interest in keeping the alliances of democracies and which in return can help the allies in NATO to put constraint on the exercise of US hegemony.
OR
Areas of Conflict between India and Pakistan :
(i) Territorial disputes over the Kashmir region sparked two of the three major Indo-Pakistan wars in 1947 and 1965, and a short war in 1999. Although both countries have maintained a fragile ceasefire, violations beginning in July 2014, and artillery shelling and small arms fire continued through late 2016. Both, sides accuse each other for violating the ceasefire and claim to be shooting in retaliation to attacks.

(ii) Loss of trust between the Government of India and Pakistan is another issue. After conflict in Kargil, on the advise of the then UN Gen. Secretary Kofi Annan, Prime Minister of India Atal Bihari Bajpayee and President of Pakistan Gen. Parvez Musharraf met in Agra summit in July 2001. After much diplomatic efforts, the Agra summit started amid high hopes of resolving various disputes between two countries. Since Parvez Musharraf met face to face with Kashmiri leaders of All Parties Hurriyat conference, the talks and peace process between two countries collapsed and no signatures were attained. It was widely felt that it was Parvez Musharraf who sabotaged joint peace efforts.

(iii) The diversion of Jihadi fighters and proxy groups in Kashmir threaten to further increase violence along the border and even within Indian territory. If one more attack resembling Mumbai 2008 attacks was carried out attack where Laskar-e- Taiba’s militants, whose leader is Hafiz Mohammad Saeed, rampaged through the city for 4 days killing 174 persons, were carried out by Pakistan’s militants, it could trigger a severe military confrontation between the two nuclear armed states. Yet again, Pakistani militants of Jaish-e-Mohammad, whose leader Ma$ood Azhar freely moves in Pakistan, attacked Uri Air Base in 2016 killing 16 Indian soldiers.

Question 24.
Describe the three main complaints related to the U.N. Security Council which were reflected in the resolution passed by the U.N. General Assembly in 1992. [6]
OR
Describe various aspects of human security as well as global security.
Answer:
In 1992, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution. The resolution reflected three main complaints :

The Security Council no longer represents contemporary political realities.
Its decision reflects only western values and interest and are dominated by a few powers.
It lacks equitable representation.

In view of these growing demands for the restructuring of the UN, on 1st January 1997, the UN Secretary General Kofi Annan initiated an enquiry into how the UN should be reformed.
Since then, the following are just some of the criteria which have been proposed for election of new permanent and non-permanent members of the Security Council. A new member, it has been suggested, should be :

A major Economic Power,
A major Military Power,
A substantial contributor to the UN budget,
A big nation in terms of the population,
A nation that respects democracy and human rights,
A country that would make the council more representative of the world’s diversity in terms of geography, economic system and culture.

OR
Human Security :

It is about the protection of people more than the protection of states.
The primary goal here is the protection of individuals.
According to the narrow concept, human security forces on violent threats to individuals.
Under the board concept of human security, the threat agenda includes hunger, diseases and natural disasters
In the broadest formulation, the human security agenda also emcompasses. Economic security and threats to human dignity. It secures ‘freedom from want’ and ‘freedom from fear’.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2017 Delhi Set – III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set. .

Question 3.
Distinguish between cultural homogenization and cultural hetrogenisation. [1]
Answer:
Cultural homogenisation is accepting, adopting and adhering to foreign cultures making it uniform, where as cultural heterogenisation means upholding one’s own culture to and making it more different and distinctive.

Question 11.
Mention any four negative consequences on the people of China inspite of improvement in the Chinese economy. [4]
Answer:
China has been the fastest growing economy since the reforms took place but there were negative effects on the lives of Chinese people.

Unemployment had risen.
Female employment and condition of work has deterioated.
Environmental degradation and corruption had increased.
Inequality between rural & urban residents and coastal and inland provinces has increased.

Question 12.
Why do some countries question India’s inclusion as a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council ? Explain. [4]
Answer:
India has supported the restructuring of the UN on several grounds. India supports an increase in the number of both permanent and non- permanent members.

India itself wishes to be a permanent member of restructured UN. India is the most populous country ” and also the world’s largest democracy. The country’s economic emergence in the world is another factor to claim the permanent seat in Security Council. There are some countries who question India’s inclusion in Security Council. Pakistan has opposed ‘ India due to their strained political relationship. Few other countries feel that if India was included, then even other emerging powers will have to be accommodated such as Brazil, Germany, Japan and South Africa.

Question 13.
How has state capacity received a boost as a consequence of globalization? Explain. [4]
Answer:
If we view the scenario of the world today, state capacity’ has received a boost as a consequence of globalisation.

Enhanced technology is available at the disposal of the state to collect information about its citizens. With this information, the state is better equipped to make its policies with regard to various schemes.
States become more powerful than they were earlier as an outcome of new policy.
From economic globalisation, a state has broader way of understanding other countries and its market.

Question 23.
Analyse any three different views within India about the type of relationship India should have with the U.S. [6]
OR
Analyse the differences in relationship between India and Bangladesh.
Answer:
In the post Cold War era, the Indian Foreign policy has shifted to more pro—US stand. India’s current foreign policy emphasises more on economic interest in place of military.
However, three possible strategies have been suggested through debates by Indian analysts :
(i) Aloofness from the US : By observing military nature of US hegemony and closeness between India and US, some Indian analysts suggests that India should maintain its aloofness from US and focus upon increasing its own comprehensive national power.

(ii) Take advantage of US hegemony: Other group of analysts see growing convergence of interest between the US and India as a historic opportunity for India. They advocate a strategy that would allow India to take advantage of US hegemony and the mutual convergences to establish the best possible option for itself. According to them, opposing US is futile strategy that will only hurt India in a long run.

(iii) India should join coalition to challenges US hegemony: The third strategy suggested by the analysts is that India should take the lead in establishing a coalition of countries from the developing world and over the time, a coalition would become more powerful and may. succeed in weakening the hegemony away from its dominating ways.
By observing the above strategies, we can conclude that Indo-US relations are perhaps too complex to be managed by a single strategy. Actually India needs to develop a mixed strategy in its foreign policy to deal with the US by maintaining its own identity in the global hegemony
OR
The population of East Pakistan had voted to protest against years of being treated as second class citizens. In 1971, Pakistan arrested the Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and unleashed a reigp of terror on the people of East Pakistan. People took shelter in the neighbouring areas of India. India extended moral and material support to the freedom struggle in Bangladesh. Welcomed and supported by the local population, the Indian army made rapid progress in East Pakistan. Within 10 days, Indian army had surrounded Dhaka from three sides and the army of Pakistan had to surrender. Now as a new free country Bangladesh, India declared a unilateral ceasefire. India gave shelter to refugees but these Bangladeshi refugees have become a problem for India as they did not return back. They entered every state of India and demanded shelter and jobs.

Another issue water sharing of Teesta, Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.
Some terrorist groups are active in Bangladesh who are involved in terrorism activities against India. Bangladesh is not able to tackle the problem of terror activities. , On disaster management and environmental issues, the two countries have cooperated regularly.

Question 24.
Describe the three new criteria that have been proposed for new permanent members of the U.N. Security Council. [6]
OR
Describe health epidemics as the new source of threat under the non-traditional sources of threat to security.
Answer:
Considering the growing demands for the restructuring of the UN, on 1st January 1997, the UN Secretary General Kofi Annan initiated an enquiry about how should the UN be reormed.

Since then, the following are just some of the criteria which has been proposed for new permanent and non-permanent members of the Security Council. A new member, it has been suggested, should be :

A major economic Power,
A major Military Power,
A substantial contributor to the UN budget,
A big nation in terms of the population,
A nation that respects democracy and human rights,
A country that would make the council more representative of the world’s diversity in terms of geography, economic system and culture.

Clearly, each of these criteria has some validity. Governments saw advantages in some criteria and disadvantages in others depending upon their interests and aspirations. The biggest three criterias have been analysed now. Countries could see that the criteria were ambiguous. There was no answer to how big the country’s economic or military power should be.
OR
Non-traditional notions of security go beyond military threat to include of wide range of threat and dangers affecting the conditions of human existence. In the non-traditional conception, the referent is expanded proponents of non-traditional security reply “not just the state but also individuals, communities or indeed all of humankind”. Non-traditional views of security have been called ‘human security or global security’.

Health epidemics such as HIV-AIDS, bird flu and severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) spread across countries through migration, business, tourism and military operations. By 2003, an estimated four crore people were infected with HIV- AIDS worldwide, two third of them in Africa and half on the rest in South Asia. In North America and other industrialised countries, new drug therapies dramatically lowered the death rate from HIV-AIDS. Other new and poorly understood diseases such as ebolavirus, hantavirus and hepatitis C have emerged, while old diseases like tuberculosis, malaria, dengue fever and cholera have mutated into drug-resistant forms that are difficult to treat.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Understanding Elementary Shapes Ex 5.9

August 23, 2019, 9:30 pm

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Understanding Elementary Shapes Ex 5.9

Free download NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Ex 5.9 Understanding Elementary Shapes PDF for CBSE 2020 Exams.

You can also Download CBSE 6th Class 6 Maths Textbook Solutions to help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes Ex 5.9

Exercise 5.9

Question 1.
Match the following:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes
Give two examples of each shape.
Solution:
(a) 4 ↔ (ii)
Examples:
(i) An ice-cream cone
(ii) Birthday cap

(b) ↔ (iv)
Examples:
(i) Tennis ball
(ii) Cricket ball

(d) ↔ (iii)
Examples:
(i) Math book
(ii) A brick

(e) ↔ (i)
Examples:
(i) A diamond
(ii) Egypt-Pyramids

Question 2.
What shape is
(a) Your instrument box?
(b) A brick?
(b) A matchbox?
(d) A road-roller?
(e) A sweet laddu?
Solution:
(a) Shape of instrument box is cuboid.
(b) Shape of a brick is cuboid.
(c) Shape of a matchbox is cuboid.
(d) Shape of a road-roller is cylinder.
(e) Shape of a sweet laddu is sphere.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Understanding Elementary Shapes Ex 5.2

August 23, 2019, 9:30 pm

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Understanding Elementary Shapes Ex 5.2

Free download NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Exercise 5.2 Understanding Elementary Shapes PDF for CBSE 2020 Exams.

You can also Download Class 6 Maths to help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes Ex 5.2

Exercise 5.2

Question 1.
What fraction of a clockwise revolution does the hour hand of a clock turn through, when it goes from
(a) 3 to 9
(b) 4 to 7
(c) 7 to 10
(d) 12 to 9
(e) 1 to 10
(f) 6 to 3
Solution:
(a) 3 to 9
9 – 3 = 6 ÷ 12 = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ of a revolution

(b) 4 to 7
7 – 4 = 3 ÷ 12 = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 4 }$ of a revolution

(d) 12 to 9 i.e., 0 to 9
9 – 0 = 9 ÷ 12 = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 4 }$ of a revolution

(e) 1 to 10
10 – 1 = 9 ÷ 12 = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 4 }$ of a revolution

(f) 6 to 3 i.e., 6 to 12 and then 12 to 3
6 to 12 = 12 – 6 = 6 and 12 to 3 = 0 to 3 = 3 – 0 = 3
6 + 3 = 9 ÷ 12 = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 4 }$ of a revolution

Question 2.
Where will the hand of a clock stop if it
(a) starts at 12 and makes Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ of a revolution, clockwise?
(b) starts at 2 and makes Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ of a revolution, clockwise?
(c) starts at 5 and makes Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ of a revolution, clockwise?
(d) starts at 5 and makes Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ of a revolution, clockwise?
Solution:
(a) Starting from 12 and making Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ of a revolution, the clock hand stops at 6.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes
(b) Starting from 2 and making Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ of a revolution, the clock hand stops at 8.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
(c) Starting from 5 and making Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ of a revolution, the clock hand stops at 8.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes
(d) Starting from 5 and making Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ of a revolution, the clock hand stops at 2.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.

Question 3.
Which direction will you face if you start facing
(a) east and make Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ of a revolution clockwise? z
(b ) east and make Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $1\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ of a revolution clockwise? z
(c) west and make Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 4 }$ of a revolution anticlockwise?
(d) south and make one full revolution? (Should we specify clockwise or anticlockwise for this last question? Why not?)
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes
Taking one full revolution we will reach back to the original (starting) position. Therefore, it make no difference whether we turn clockwise or anticlockwise.

Question 4.
What part of a revolution have you turned through if you stand facing
(a) east and turn clockwise to face north?
(b) south and turn clockwise to face east?
(c) west and turn clockwise to face east?
Solution:
(a) If we start from east and reach at north (turning clockwise) Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 4 }$ of a revolution is required.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes
(b) If we start from south turning clockwise to face east, Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 4 }$ of a revolution is required.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
(c) If we start from west turning clockwise to face east, Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ of a revolution is required.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes

Question 5.
Find the number of right angles turned through by the hour hand of a clock when it goes from
(a)3 to 6
(b) 2 to 8
(c) 5 to 11
(d) 10 to 1
(e) 12 to 9
(f) 12 to 6
Solution:
(a) 3 to 6
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes
Starting from 3 to 6, the hour hand turns through 1 right angle.

(b) 2 to 8
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes
Starting from 2 to 8, the hour hand turns through 2 right angles.

(c) 5 to 11
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes
Starting from 5 to 11, the hour hand turns through 2 right angles.

(d) 10 to 1
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes
Starting from 10 to 1, the hour hand turns through 1 right angle.

(e) 12 to 9
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes
Starting from 12 to 9, the hour hand turns through 3 right angles.

(f) 12 to 6
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes
Starting from 12 to 6, the hour hand turns through 2 right angles.

Question 6.
How many right angles do you make if you start facing
(a) south and turn clockwise to west?
(b) north and turn anticlockwise to east?
(c) west and turn to west?
(d) south and turn to north?
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes

Question 7.
Where will the hour hand of a clock stop if it starts
(a) from 6 and turns through 1 right angle?
(b) from 8 and turns through 2 right angles?
(c) from 10 and turns through 3 right angles?
(d) from 7 and turns through 2 straight angles?
Solution:
(a) Starting from 6 and turning through 1 right angle, the hour hand stops at 9.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes
(b) Starting from 8 and turning through 2 right angles, the hour hand stops at 2.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
(c) Starting from 10 and turning through 3 right angles, the hour hand stops at 7.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes
(b) Starting from 7 and turning through 2 right angles, the hour hand stops at 7.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.

Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT-Solutions-For-Class-6-Maths-understanding-Elementary-Shapes-Exercise-5.2-01
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT-Solutions-For-Class-6-Maths-understanding-Elementary-Shapes-Exercise-5.2-07
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Understanding Elementary Shapes Ex 5.7

August 23, 2019, 9:30 pm

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Understanding Elementary Shapes Ex 5.7

Free download NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Ex 5.3 Understanding Elementary Shapes PDF for CBSE 2020 Exams.

You can also Download Class 6 Maths Solution to help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Chapter 5 Understanding Elementary Shapes Ex 5.7

Exercise 5.7

Question 1.
Say True or False:
(a) Each angle of a rectangle is a right angle.
(b) The opposite sides of a rectangle are equal in length.
(c) The diagonals of a square are perpendicular to one another.
(d) All the sides of a rhombus are of equal length.
(e) All the sides of a parallelogram are of equal length.
(f) The opposite sides of a trapezium are parallel.
Solution:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True
(d) True
(e) False
(f) False

Question 2.
Give reasons for the following:
(a) A square can be thought of as a special rectangle.
(b) A rectangle can be thought of as a special parallelogram.
(c) A square can be thought of as a special rhombus.
(d) Square, rectangles, parallelograms are all quadrilaterals.
(e) Square is also a parallelogram.
Solution:
(a) A square has all the properties as that of rectangle. So, it is a special rectangle.
(b) A rectangle has the same properties as that of parallelogram. So, it is a special parallelogram.
(c) A square has the same properties as that of a rhombus. So, it is a special rhombus.
(d) Square, rectangles and parallelogram are all quadrilateral as they are all enclosed by four sides.

Question 3.
A figure is said to be regular if its sides are equal in length and angles are equal in measure. Can you identify the regular quadrilateral?
Solution:
Square is only the regular quadrilateral with equal sides and equal angles.
Therefore, square is a regular quadrilateral.

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Clik here to view. NCERT-Solutions-For-Class-6-Maths-understanding-Elementary-Shapes-Exercise-5.7-01
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NTSE Eligibility Criteria 2019-20 | Check Stage wise Eligibility and Reservation

August 23, 2019, 10:26 pm

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NTSE Eligibility Criteria 2020: NCERT will publish the notification for NTSE eligibility criteria. The National Talent Search Examination is the most prestigious national level scholarship exam. The NTSE conducted in two stages for secondary school students. NTSE Stage 1 2020 will be conducted by various states or Union Territories in the first week of November. Whereas the NTSE Stage 2 exam is conducted by NCERT in the 2nd week of May 2020. NCERT offers 2000 scholarships every year out of which 15% is reserved for SC, 7.5% for ST, 27% for OBS and 4% for PH candidates. These reservation percentages are the same for the students studying in India or Abroad.

The NTSE scholarship is awarded to talented students in India to help them financially up to their higher studies. Only the qualified candidates of Stage 1 exam will be invited to appear for the Stage 2 exam. If candidates are not eligible for this exam then their applications will be rejected by the exam conducting authorities. That’s why students must know the NTSE eligibility criteria 2020 before filling the form. Read the article below to get more information about NTSE eligibility criteria 2020.

NTSE Eligibility Criteria 2020 for Class 10

The NTSE eligibility criteria are different for both stages of the exam. As per the NTSE eligibility criteria, the age limit of the students must be below 18 years as on July 1, 2020. Students who are studying in class X can be eligible for NTSE 2020. In this article, students can check both stages of eligibility criteria separately.

NTSE Eligibility Criteria Stage 1

States may enforce other eligibility criteria for NTSE Stage 1. Refer to the below mentioned NTSE eligibility criteria 2020 for stage 1.

Nationality: Students must belong to the citizenship of India. However, class X students of India who are studying abroad can also eligible for NTSE.
Education Board: Students from any recognized schools including Kendriya Vidyalaya, Navodaya Vidyalaya or Sainik school, etc. can appear for the NTSE 2020. Students studying in class X under the Open and Distance Learning (ODL) with the age limit of below 18 years can also appear for the NTSE 2020. Students must not be employed in any job.
Domicile: Students studying in class 10 of various states/UTs can appear for this scholarship examination. So, the domicile certificate is not required in this exam.
Class: Students studying in class IX can also appear for the NTSE 2020 but they must clear the class IX exam with 60% of the marks.

NTSE Eligibility Criteria Stage 2

Refer to the below mentioned NTSE eligibility criteria 2020 for stage 2.

Students who have secured 80% marks or above in the state level exam are eligible to appear for the NTSE stage 2 exam at the national level.
Approximately 4000 students appear for the NTSE stage 2 every year. Out of which only those students who qualify stage 2 with the minimum cut off scores will be awarded the scholarship.

NTSE Eligibility Criteria 2020 for Indian Students Studying Abroad

Refer to the below mentioned NTSE eligibility criteria 2020 for Indian students studying abroad.

Indian students who are studying abroad can directly apply for NTSE stage 2.
These students have to secure at least 60% of marks in aggregate at the previous annual examinations.
Abroad students can appear in the NTSE at their own cost. The exam conducting authority is not responsible for any kind of reimbursement.
These students have to appear the NTSE in India in any of the exam centers.
The application form will be released in October for the students studying abroad.
After filling the application form, it should be sent along with the photocopy of previous exam mark sheets to the address of the NCERT.
Students studying abroad can get a scholarship only if they study further in India.

NTSE 2019 Reservation Policy for Indian Nationals

The NTSE will follow some rules defined by the Government of India. The candidate must be Indian nationals. The candidates who qualify the NTSE stage 2 examinations will be getting reservation benefits.

The general category candidates must secure 40% marks in each of the NTSE exam paper. The reserved category students need to secure 32% marks in each of the exams. The NTSE reservation scheme is as follows:

Category Details	Percentage Reservation
SC (scheduled cast)	15%
ST (scheduled tribe)	7.5%
Physically challenged	3%

NTSE 2019 Reservation Scheme for Indian Nationals Studying Abroad

The candidates of Indian origin who are completing class 10 from any foreign board or school will be getting a scholarship only if he/she studies further in India. The reservation ratio percentage scheme in NTSE exam is as follows the criteria:

Category	Percentage Reservation
SC (Scheduled Caste)	15%
ST (Scheduled Tribe)	7.5%
Physically Challenged	3%

FAQ’s on NTSE Eligibility Criteria 2020 for Class 10

Question 1.
Is the eligibility criteria for NTSE Stage 1 same as NTSE Stage 2?

Answer:
No, the eligibility criteria for both stages are different.

Question 2.
What is the age limit of the students to appear for the NTSE Stage 1?

Answer:
As per the eligibility criteria, the age limit of the students must be below 18 years as on July 1, 2020.

Question 3.
How many marks required in Stage 1 exam to be eligible for NTSE Stage 2?

Answer:
Students have to obtain 80% marks or above in Stage 1 exam to be eligible for the NTSE stage 2 at the national level.

Hope this article will help you to get information about NTSE Eligibility Criteria 2020 for Class 10. If you have any queries, leave your queries in the comment box to get in touch with us.

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2016 Outside Delhi

August 23, 2019, 10:37 pm

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2016 Outside Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks : 100

General Instructions:

All questions are compulsory. This questions paper has 27 questions in all. There are five sections in this question paper.
Section A contains Questions number 1-5 of 1 mark each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 20 words each.
Section B contains Questions number 6-10 of 2 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
Section C contains Questions number 11-16 of 4 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
Section D contains Questions number 17-21 of 5 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 150 words each.
In Section D Question number 21 is a map-based question. Write its answer in your answer-book.
Section E contains Question number 22-27 of 6 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 150 words each.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2016 Outside Delhi Set – I

Question 1.
Which one of the following was NOT given : primacy by the makers of the Soviet System ? [1]
(a) Abolition of Private property.
(b) Society based on the principle of equality.
(c) No opposition party to be allowed.
(d) No state control over economy.
Answer:
(d) No State control over economy.

Question 2.
What does the logo on the ASEAN flag symbolize? [1]
Answer:
The logo of ASEAN flag-the ten stalks of paddy represent the ten South-East Asian countries bound together in friendship and solidarity. The Circle represents the unity of ASEAN.

Question 3.
Why is it said that history of petroleum is also the history of war and struggles ? [1]
Answer:
It is true because world Economy is based on petroleum and immense wealth is associated with oil. It generated political struggles and wars to have control over it.

Question 4.
During Nehru era, why did some political parties and groups in our country believe that India should be more friendly with the bloc led by the U.S. ? [1]
Answer:
It was because the US bloc claimed to be pro democracy and our leaders felt the need of being closer to nations where democracy was functioning well.

Question 5.
How did the farmers associated with Bharatiya Kisan Union differ from the most other farmers in India ? [1]
Answer:

Farmers related to BKU grew cash crops for the market while other farmers in India engaged in subsistence agriculture.
They were from a prosperous community and belonged to the same region, but other farmers were not so.

Question 6.
What constrained the Super powers to go for a full-fledged war inspite of having nuclear ‘weapons? [2]
Answer:
Both the Super Powers, USSR and USA knew very well the intensity of destruction that would take place if a full-fledged war was fought. No political gain could have justified the destruction of their societies and citizens. Property and other resources would have been destroyed.
That is why they did not go for a full fledged nuclear war.

Question 7.
Assess the role of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad towards maintaining communal harmony in India. [2]
Answer:
Role of Maulana Abul Kalam Azad :

He was a great freedom fighter and was opposed to the partition of India.
He was a proponent of Hindu-Muslim unity.

Question 8.
Match the following in Column ‘A’ with those in Column ‘B’ in a meaningful way : [4 × 1/2 = 2]

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(a) Head of the Commission of Enquiry.	(i) Chowdhary Charan Singh
(b) Deputy Prime Minister of India from 1967 to 1969.	(ii) Jagjiwan Ram
(c) Deputy Prime Minister of India from 1977-79.	(iii) J. C. Shah
(d) Union Minister of India from 19521977.	(iv) Morarji Desai

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(a) Head of the Commission of Enquiry.	(iii) J. C. Shah
(b) Deputy Prime Minister of India from 1967 to 1969.	(iv) Morarji Desai
(c) Deputy Prime Minister of India from 1977 – 79.	(i) Chowdhary Charan Singh
(d) Union Minister of India from 1952 1977.	(ii) Jagjiwan Ram

Question 9.
What was ‘Operation’ Blue Star* ? Why did it hurt the sentiments of the Sikh Community ?[1 + 1 = 2]
Answer:
Operation Blue Star was an Indian Army action in the Golden Temple, Amritsar to flush out the militants. This operation damaged the historical temple and hurt the sentiments of the Sikh community because they saw military action as an attack on their faith.

Question 10.
Why and how did the Mizo Movement for secession gain popular support? [2]
Answer:
The movement for secession in the Mizo Hills area gained popular support because some Mizos believed that they were never a part of British India and therefore did not belong to the Indian Union. The movement for secession gained popular support after the Assam government failed to respond adequately to the great famine of 1959 in Mizo hills which affected the dwellers gready. This caused a kind of hatred and disappointment.

Question 11.
Describe India—China relations from 1947 to 1962. [4]
Answer:
Indo-China relations from 1947-1962 :

After the Chinese revolution in 1949, India was one of the first countries to recognize the Communist Government of China.
When China annexed Tibet fit 1950, both the countries developed some differences.
In 1954, joint enunciation of Panchsheel was made by Indian Prime Minister Pt. Jawahar Lai Nehru and Chinese Premier Zhou Enlai.
In 1959, India gave political asylum to Dalai Lama. This annoyed China.
In 1962, China invaded the territory of India and relations between both the countries got strained.

Question 12.
What is Human Rights Watch ? Describe its main contribution to the field of Human Rights. [1 + 3 = 4]
Answer:
Human Rights Watch is an American founded international NGO involved in research and advocacy on human rights.
Its contributions :

Human rights organisation investigates and exposes human right violations, holds abusers accountable and challenges government and those who hold power, to end abusive practices.
It help in building international coalitions.
It makes efforts to stop the use of child soldiers.
It establish the International Criminal court.

Question 13.
What was the ‘Earth Summit’ ? How far did the summit prove to be useful? Explain. [1 + 3 = 4]
Answer:
The increasing focus on environmental issues within the periphery of global politics was firmly consolidated at the UN Conference on Environment. A conference was thus held in Rio de Janerio, Brazil in June 1992. It was also called the ‘ Earth Summit.

This Summit produced conventions dealing with climate change, biodiversity and forestry.
It recommended a list of development practices called Agenda 21.
Under this list, there was consensus on combining economic growth with ecological responsibility, known as sustainable development.

Question 14.
Explain any four reasons for the dominance of the Congress Party in the first three general elections in India. [4 × 1 = 4]
Answer:
Reasons for the dominance of Congress Party in first three general elections in India :
(i) The results of the first general election did not surprise anyone as the Indian National Congress was expected to win this election. The Congress party had inherited the legacy of the National Movement. Moreover, it was the only political party to have an organization spread all over the country.

(ii) The Congress Party had’ the most popular and charismatic leader in Nehru ji. The final results of the election did surprise many. The party got 364 of the 489 seats in the first Lok Sabha and finished way ahead of any other challenger party.

(iii) In the’ second and the third general elections, held in 1957 and 1962 respectively, the Congress Party kept its position intact in the Lok Sabha. It won three-fourth of the total seats the other votes were divided among rival parties thus rendering all of them powerless. It was well-distributed among various regions in the country.

(iv) Congress was all inclusive a social and ideological coalition, which contributed to its dominance.

Question 15.
Evaluate the major outcomes of the Indian model of mixed economy. [4]
Answer:
Major outcomes of the Indian model of mixed economy:

The State controlled key heavy industries provided the infrastructure. It regulated trade in India.
Although agriculture was in the private sector, the public sector made some intervention in agriculture. This model laid the foundation of India’s future economic growth.
Infrastructure for transport and communication was improved substantially.
Abolition of Zamindari system was the most significant and successful reform.
Areas which required lot of investment were taken up by the public sector as they were very essential for the national progress.

Question 16.
Examine the conditions responsible for the growth of Naxalite Movement in India. Suggest ways and means to crush it. [2 + 2 = 4]
Answer:
Conditions responsible for the growth of Naxalite Movement:

Social and economic injustice prevailing in the society.
Forced labour.
Expropriation of resources by outsiders.
Exploitation by moneylenders.
The naxalites say it is a fight for improved land rights and more jobs for neglected agricultural labour and poor.

Some suggestions to crush Naxalite Movement:

Government should provide the basic rights to the people of backward areas and Adivasis.
Forced labour and exploitation by moneylenders must be stopped.
The Government should follow constitutional norms while dealing with the Naxalites.

Question 17.
The value of the ruble declined dramatically. The rate of inflation was so high that people lost all their savings. The collective farm system disintegrated leaving people without food security, and the government started to import food. The old trading structure broke down with no alternative in its place. The old system of social welfare was systematically destroyed. The withdrawal of government subsidies pushed large sections of the people into poverty.
Read the above passage carefully and answer the following questions:
(i) What is meant by subsidy?
(ii) How did the disintegration of collective farm system lead to the loss of food security?
(iii) This passage is associated to which country?
Why did the government start importing food? [1 + 2 + 2 = 5]
Answer:
(1) Subsidy is the help usually provided by the government to keep the price of a product or service low as compared to the open market price.
(ii) Collective farming was to be replaced by private farming which meant food grains were to be purchased from the open market. The government had no control over the prices as well as the stock. This created loss of food security.
(iii) (1) This passage is associated with Russia.
(2) The government started importing food due to scarcity of food grains and privatization of agriculture.

Question 18.
Globalization does not always reduce state capacity. The primacy of the state continues to be the unchallenged basis of the political community. The old jealousies and rivalries between countries have not ceased to matter in world politics. The state continues to discharge its essential functions (law and order, national security) and consciously withdraws from certain domains from which it wishes to. State continue to be important.
Indeed, in some respects state capacity has received a boost as a consequence of globalization, with enhanced technologies available at the disposal of the state to collect information about its citizens.
Read the passage given above carefully and answer the following questions :
(i) What are the two most essential functions of the state?
(ii) How do enhanced technologies enable the state to rule better?
(iii) Justify with the help of an example that
globalization gives a boost to the state capacity. [1 + 2 + 2 = 5]
Answer:
(i) (1) To defend and secure the boundaries of the State to maintain national security.
(2) To provide justice and maintain law and order.

(ii) (1) On the basis of enhanced technologies, the state can keep proper check on its citizens grievance and other problems.
(2) Enhanced technologies enable the State to collect important information about its citizens.

(iii) Globalisation helps the states to connect better, administrate better through the help of enhanced technologies available for the state to use. This helps it to perform better.

Question 19.
Two developments strained this relationship. China annexed Tibet in 1950 and thus removed a historical buffer between the two countries. Initially, the Government of India did not oppose this openly. But as more information came in about the suppression of Tibetan culture, the Indian Government grew uneasy. The Tibetan spiritual leader, the Dalai Lama, sought and obtained political asylum in India in 1959. China alleged that the Government of India was allowing anti-China activities to take place within India.
Read the above passage carefully and answer the following questions :
(i) What is meant by ‘historical buffers?
(ii) Why didn’t the Government of India oppose the annexation of Tibet by China?
(iii) How far was it justified on the part of India to grant political asylum to the Dalai Lama and thousands of Tibetan refugees? [1 + 2 + 2 = 5]
Answer:
(i) ‘Historical buffer’ means the country or area that lies between two large and powerful countries and reduces the risk of war between them.

(ii) India was a newly independent country and did not want to get involved with war against China unnecessarily. It was an internal matter of China, so India did not want to spoil its relation with China. But on a later stage, India realized its mistake.

(iii) In 1958, there was an armed uprising in Tibet against China’s occupation. However, more information came in about the suppression of Tibetan culture by the Chinese forces. Consequently, the Dalai Lama sought and got political asylum in India in 1959, along with thousands of Tibetan refugees.
Thus it was fully justified to help them on humanitarian grounds as well as a good neighbour country.

Question 20.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2016 Outside Delhi 1
Study the above cartoon carefully and answer the following questions :
(i) Who was head of the Government formed by the National Front in 1989 ?
(ii) Why was the government formed by him called a puppet government ?
(iii) Identify the puppeteers pulling the strings and the political parties they belong to. [1 + 2 + 2 = 5]
Answer:
(i) V.P. Singh
(ii) The National Front Government did not get the clear majority. It was being supported by BJP and the Communist Party from outside. The government of V.P. Singh worked according to the directions of leaders of BJP and CPI so it was called a puppet government.
(iii) The puppeteers were :
(1) Jyoti Basu of Communist Party.
(2) L.K. Advani from BJP.

Question 21.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2016 Outside Delhi 2
In the given outline map of South Asia, five countries have been marked as (A),(B), (C), (D) and (E) . Identify them on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book with their respective serial number of the information used and the alphabet concerned as per the following format:
as a military rule both.

Sr. no. of the Information used	Alphabet Concerned	Name of the Country
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)

(i) The country has experienced civilian as well
(ii) Democracy was restored in this country in 2006.
(iii) This country is still a monarchy.
(iv) The Parliament of this country voted unanimously to introduce multi-party system in June 2005.
(v) This country is a part of India’s ‘Look East Policy via Myanmar.’ [5 × 1 = 5]
Answer:

Sr. no. of the Information used	Alphabet Concerned	Name of the Country
(i)	B	Pakistan
(ii)	C	Nepal
(iii)	A	Bhutan
(iv)	E	Maldives
(v)	D	Bangladesh

Question 22.
How did the Soviet Union suddenly disintegrate ? Explain any six reasons. [6 × 1 = 6]
OR
Why was the end of the Second World War considered to be the beginning of Cold War ? Explain.
Answer:
Reasons for disintegration :

Internal weakness of Soviet political and economical institutions.
Soviet Union used much of its resources in maintaining nuclear and military arsenals. The Cherynobyl disaster was one of the major effect of neglegnce. Thus, a large amount was spent to avoid such accident.
The Communist party that had ruled the Soviet Union for over 70 years was not accountable to the people.
Ordinary people were alienated by slow and stifling administration, rampant corruption, the inability of the system to correct mistake it had made, the unwillingness to allow more openness in government and the centralization of authority in a vast land.
The party bureaucrats gained more privileges than ordinary citizens.
The Soviet Union had became stagnant in administrative and political sense.
Reforms introduced by Mikhail Gorbachev had also divided the country.

OR
Due to the following reasons the end of the Second World War was considered to be the beginning of Cold War:

The end of the Second World War was also considered to be the beginning of the Cold War. The war came to an end when the US dropped two atom bombs on the Hiroshima and Nagasaki. This action of the US forced Japan to surrender.
Virtually, the US action was akin to one upmanship. It was intended to check the USSR from having military and political gains in Asia and other parts of the world.
The end of the Second World War created new power equations along with new and changed areas of conflicts. The fire of the Second World War extinguished but left some cinders.
The US and the USSR emerged as two superpowers who were rivals to each other. Both sides had capacity to retaliate against an attack and cause lots of destruction, but neither could afford to begin war.
Thus, the rivalry between the two superpowers remained a ‘cold’ and not hot or shooting war. Both sides followed the logic of deterrence and began to make military blocs. The smaller states were forced to link to the superpowers.

Question 23.
“Resistance is the only option available to overcome the hegemony.” Justify the statement by comparing it to other anti-hegemony strategies. [6]
OR
Assess the role of ASEAN as an economic association.
Answer:
Hegemony can be overcome by the following the given strategies :
(i) Band wagon strategy
(ii) Hide strategy
(i) Band wagon strategy: Some people think that it is strategically more prudent to take advantage of the opportunities provided by the hegemony. For instance, raising economic growth rates requires increased trade, technological transfers and investment, which are best acquired by working with rather than against the hegemony. Instead of engaging in activities opposed to the hegemonic power it may be better to extract benefits. This is called band wagon strategy.

(ii) Hide strategy: Another strategy open to states is to hide. This implies stay away from the dominant power as far as possible. However this wouldn’t seem to be viable for the big countries. This strategy can be an attractive policy for small states but it is hard to imagine for mega-states like China, India, Russia and European Union being able to hide for a long time from the influence of US. Resistance seems an easier option than these two because it can be applied for a long time. These strategies together, will definitely be successful in resisting the hegemony.
OR
Role of ASEAN as an Economic association :

The economy of ASEAN region is growing much faster than that of the US, EU and Japan.
This accounts for the growth in its influence both in the region and beyond.
ASEAN is trying to create a common market and production base within the ASEAN States.
A mechanism is being evolved to settle and resolve the economic disputes.
ASEAN has focused on creating a Free Trade Area for investment, labour and services.
Its vision 2020 defined an outward looking role for ASEAN in the international community.
The current economic strength of ASEAN is being a trading and investment partner to the growing Asian economies such as India and China, Singapore and Thailand.

Question 24.
Trace the evolution of the United Nations since its establishment in 1945. How does it function with the help of its structures and agencies? [2 + 4 = 6]
OR
Describe the security challenges faced by the newly independent countries of Asia and Africa after the Second World War.
Answer:
Evolution of the UN :

The United Nations was founded as a successor to the League of Nations. It was established in 1945 just after the Second World War.
The UN was set up through the Signing of the UN Charter by 51 Nations.
Tt was formed with the hope that it would act to stop conflict and wars.
By 2006, UN had 192 members. These included almost all independent states. Presently, its Secretary General is Ban ki Moon of South Korea. Antonio Guteress, the ex President of Portugal. Its current strength is 193 members.

Its Functions :

In the UN General Assembly, all member nations have one vote each.
In the UN Security Council, there are five Permanent members — Britain, France, US, Russia and China and 10 temporary members.
The UN consists of many structures and agencies, like General Assembly, Security Council, Environment Programme, WHO and other agencies which all focus on issues like economic social and cultural issues plaguing the world.
War, peace, and difference, disputes between the member states are discussed in the General Assembly.
Social and Economic issues are dealt with by many agencies including WTO, UNDP, UNHRC, UNICEF and UNESCO.

OR
Following are the security challenges faced by the newly-independent countries of Asia and Africa after the Second World War :

The security challenges facing the newly independent countries of Asia and Africa were certainly different from the challenges in Europe in two ways. These new countries faced the prospect of military conflict with neighbouring countries.
These countries also had to worry about internal-military conflict. These countries faced threats not only from outside their boundaries or from their neighbours, but also from within.
Several newly independent countries came to fear their neighbours even more than they feared the US or the USSR or the former colonial powers. They had disputes and differences over borders and territories or control over people or all of these simultaneously.
Internally the new states were anxious and troubled about threats from separatist movements which desired to make independent countries.
A neighbour might assist or provoke an internal separatist movement leading to a lot of tensions between the two neighbouring countries.

Question 25.
Analyse any six consequences of the partition of India in 1947. [6 × 1 = 6]
OR
Assess the outcomes of the early phase of – planned development in India. [6]
Answer:
Consequences of partition of India in 1947:

The Year 1947 was the year of one of the largest, most abrupt, unplanned and tragic transfer of population that human history has known.
There were killing and atrocities on both sides of the border in the name of religion. People of one community ruthlessly killed and mained people of the other community.
Thousands of women were abducted on both sides of the border. They were made to convert to the religion of the abductor and were forced into marriage.
People were forced to abandon their homes and move across the border.
Women were killed by their own family members to preserve family honour. Many children were separated from their parents.
All the writers poets in various fields expressed their grief and anger.
Minorities on both sides of border, fled their homes and secured temporary shelter in refugee camps.

OR
Outcomes of early phase of Planned Development in India.

The foundation of India’s future economic growth was laid down.
Some of the largest development projects in India’s history were undertaken during this period.
Infrastructure for transport and communication was developed.
Land reforms did not take place effectively in most parts of the country.
Political power remained in the hands of landowning classes.
Big industrialists continued to benefit and thrive while poverty did not reduce much.
Those who benefitted from unequal development soon became politically powerful and made it even more difficult to move in the desired direction.

Question 26.
Examine the major changes that the country witnessed at the time of fourth general election in 1967. [6]
OR
Why is emergency considered to be one of the most controversial episodes in Indian politics? Analyse any three reasons. [3 × 2 = 6]
Answer:
Major changes country witnessed at the time of Fourth General Elections :

Two Prime Ministers died in quick succession and the new Prime Minister, who was being seen as a political noble, had been in office for less than a year.
The period was fraught with grave economic crises.
Widespread drought and decline in agricultural production.
Serious food shortage.
Depletion of foreign exchange reserves.
Drop in industrial production and exports.
Combined with sharp rise in military expenditures and diversion of resources from planning and economic development.

OR
Due to the following reasons the emergency became controversial:
(i) The Constitution simply mentioned internal disturbance as the reason for declaring emergency. Before 1975 emergency was never proclaimed on this ground.
There was no specification regarding which acts could be considered “internal disturbances”.

(ii) People had the right to politically protest against the government. Bihar and Gujarat agitation were mostly peaceful and non-violent. Those who were arrqsted were never tried for any anti-national activity.

(iii) The Home Ministry, which is entrusted with the responsibility of monitoring the internal situation of the country, also did not express any concern about the law and order situation in the country.
Hence, most people did not find any concrete reasons for the emergency to be proclaimed. This was why, it was considered controversial.

Question 27.
Who were Dalit Panthers? Describe their main activities.
OR
Describe the story of Goa’s liberation from the Portuguese to its becoming a state of the Indian Union. [2 + 4 = 6]
Answer:
Dalit Panthers were a militant organization of the Dalit Youth which was formed in Maharashtra in 1972 as a part of these assertions.
Main Activities of Dalit Panthers :

Their activities always mostly centered around fighting against atrocities on Dalits in various parts of the State.
Their main ideological agenda was to destroy the caste-system.
To build an organization of all the oppressed sections like the landless poor peasants and urban industrial workers along with Dalits.
It provided a platform for the Dalit educated youth t-6 use their creativity as. a protest activity.
Dalit writers protested against the brutalities of the caste system.
Dalit Panthers got involved in electoral compromises to strengthen their position.

OR
Although the British empire in India came to an end in 1947, Portugal refused to withdraw from the territories of Goa, Diu and Daman which were under its colonial rule since the sixteenth century. During their long rule, the Portuguese suppressed the people of Goa, denied them civil rights, and carried out forced religious conversions. After India’s Independence, the Indian government tried very patiently to persuade the Portuguese government to withdraw. There was also a strong popular movement within Goa for freedom. They were strengthened by socialist satyagrahis from Maharashtra. Finally, in December 1961, the Government of India sent the army which this liberated territory after barely two days of action. Goa, Diu and Daman became Union Territories.

Another complication arose soon. Led by the Maharashtrawadi Gomantak Party (MGP) one section desired that Goa, as a Marathi speaking area should merge with Maharashtra. However, many Goans were keen to retain a separate Goan identity and culture, particularly the Konkani language. They were led by the United Goan Party (UGP). In January 1967, the Central Government held a special ‘opinion poll’ in Goa asking people to decide if they wanted to be part of Maharashtra or remain separate. This was the only time in independent India that a referendum-like procedure was used to ascertain people’s wishes on a subject. The majority voted in favour of remaining outside of Maharashtra. Thus, Goa continued as a Union Territory. Finally, in 1987, Goa became a State of the Indian Union.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2016 Outside Delhi Set – II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 6.
Mention any two of the agreements signed between the two super powers starting in the 1960s. [2 × 1 = 2]
Answer:
(i) Limited Test Ban Treaty: It banned nuclear weapon tests in the atmosphere, in outer space and under water. It was signed by the US, UK and USSR in Moscow on 5th August, 1963.
(ii) Nuclear non-proliferation’ Treaty: It allows only the nuclear weapon states to have nuclear weapons and stops* others from acquiring them.

Question 11.
Inspite of the improvement in the Chinese economy, there have been negative consequences affecting the people of China. Mention any four such consequences. [4 × 1 = 4]
Answer:

Unemployment has risen in China with nearly 100 million people looking for jobs.
Female employment and conditions of work are as bad as in Europe of the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries.
Environment degradation increased.
Corruption has increased.
Rise in economic inequality between rural and urban residents.
Rise in economic inequality between coastal and inland provinces.

Question 12.
What is meant by alliance building as a component of traditional security policy? What are its advantages? [2 + 2 = 4]
Answer:
Alliance building as a component of traditional security policy is a coalition of states that coordinates their actions to deter or defend against military attack. Most alliances are formalised in written treaties and are based on a fairly clear identification of who constitutes the threat. Countries make alliances to exchange their effective power , relative to another alliance.
Its advantages are :

It increases their effective power relative to another country or alliance.
Alliances are based on national interests and can change when national interests change.

Question 13.
Explain the concept of “Common property resource” with the help of an example from India. [4]
Answer:
The concept of common propern’ resource means common property for a group. The underlying norm is that members of the group have both rights and duties with respect to the nature, levels of use and the maintenance of a given resource. For example, the management of sacred groves on state-owned forest land along the forest belt of South India. The institutional arrangement for the actual management of the sacred groves on state-owned forest land appropriately fits the description of a common property regime.

Question 14.
Explain the functioning of the Congress Party as an ideological and social coalition. [2 + 2 = 4]
Answer:
(i) As a social coalition: The Congress began as a party dominated by the English speaking, upper caste, upper middle-class and urban elite. But with every civil disobedience movement it launched, its social base widened. It brought together diverse groups, whose interests were often contradictory. Peasants and industrialists, urban dwellers and villagers, workers and owners, middle, lower and upper classes and castes, all found space in the Congress.

(ii) As an ideological coalition: It accommodated the revolutionary and pacifist, conservative and radical, extremist and moderate and the right, left and all shades of the centre. The Congress was a ‘platform’ for numerous groups, interests and even political parties to take part in the national movement. In pre-Independence days, many organizations and parties with their own constitution and organizational structures were allowed to exist within the Congress.

Question 24.
Which three complaints related to the U.N. Security Council were reflected in the resolution passed by the U.N. General Assembly in 1992? Describe any three criteria that have been proposed for new permanent members of the Security Council. [6]
OR
What is meant by non-traditional notion of security? Differentiate between the narrow and the broad concept of human security.
Answer:
The three complaints were :

The Security Council no longer represents contemporary political realities.
Its decisions reflect only western values and interests and are dominated by a few powers.
Security Council lacks equitable representation.

The three criteria are : A new member should be :

A major economic power.
A major military power.
A substantial contributor to the UN budget.
A big nation in terms of its population.
A nation that respects democracy and human rights.
A country that would make the Council more representative of the world’s diversity in terms of geography, economic systems, and culture.

OR
Non-traditional notions of security goes beyond military threats. It includes a wide range of threats and dangers affecting the conditions of human . existence. They begin by questioning the traditional referent of security. In doing so, they also question the other three elements of security — what is being secured, from what kind of threats and the approach to security.

The narrow concept of human security focuses on violent threats of individuals.
The broad concept of human security on the other hand, advocates the ‘broad’ concept of human security and argues that the threat agenda should include hunger, disease and natural disasters because they kill far more people than war, genocide and terrorism combined.

Question 27.
Describe any six advantages of popular movements. [6]
OR
What is the social and political composition of Jammu and Kashmir ? Describe the roots of ‘Kashmir Issue’ which compelled the Indian Government to maintain autonomy in this state.
Answer:
Advantages of popular movements :

They represented new social groups whose economic and social grievances were not redressed in the realm of electoral politics. They ensured effective representation of diverse groups and their demands.
They reduced the possibility of deep social conflict and disaffection of these groups from democracy.
Popular movement suggested new forms- of active participation and thus broadened the idea of participation in Indian democracy.
They involve a gradual process of coming together of people with similar problems, similar demands and similar expectations.
They make people aware of their rights and the expectations that they can have from democratic institutions.
They have been involved in educative tasks for a long time and have thus contributed to expansion of democracy rather than causing disruptions.

OR
Jammu and Kashmir comprises three social and political regions: Jammu, Kashmir and Ladakh. The heart of the Kashmir region is the Kashmir valley; the people are Kashmiri speaking and mostly Muslim with a small Kashmiri speaking Hindu minority. Jammu region is a mix of foothills and plains, of Hindus, Muslims and Sikhs and speakers of various languages. The Ladakh region is mountainous, has very little population which is equally divided between Buddhists and Muslims.
Roots of Kashmir Issue :

When Maharaja of Kashmir signed the Instrument of Accession with Government of India, it was also agreed upon that once the situation got normalised, the views of the people of J & K would be ascertained about their future.
India agreed to maintain the autonomy of Jammu and Kashmir.
Since then the politics of J & K always remained controversial and conflict ridden both for external and internal reasons. Externally, Pakistan has always claimed that Kashmir valley should be part of Pakistan.
There is a dispute among Kashmiri citizens about the status of the state within the Indian Union.
Article 370 and 371 give special status to J & K; the state has its own constitution. Not all provisions are applicable to J & K. Laws passed by the Parliament apply to J & K only if the state agrees. So, the problem persists.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2016 Outside Delhi Set – III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 6.
Name any four founders of NAM and the countries they belonged to respectively. [4 × 1/2 = 2]
Answer:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2016 Outside Delhi 3

Question 11.
What were the two major policy decisions taken by the Chinese leadership in the 1970s ? [2 × 2 = 4]
Answer:
Major decisions taken by China in 1970 :

China ended its political and economic isolation with the establishment of relations with the USA in 1972.
Premier Zhou Enlai proposed the four modernisations— Agriculture, Industry, Science and Technology and Military in 1973.
Den Xiaoping announced the “Open Door” policy and rapid economic reforms in China.

Question 12.
How do per capita income and population growth affect the economic disparity in the world ? Suggest any two ways to reduce economic disparity between the poor and the rich at the global level. [2 + 2 = 4]
Answer:
Per Capita income and population growth:
(i) Per Capita income and population growth affect in the economic disparity in the world. As we know that high per capita income and low population growth make rich countries or rich social groups, richer.

(ii) On the other hand, per capita low income and high population growth reinforce each other to make poor countries and poor groups, poorer.

Two ways to reduce Economic Disparity :
(i) To reduce economic disparity between the poor and the rich at the global level, countries affected by this economic disparity will have to slow down population growth and raise incomes.

(ii) Countries hit by the economic disparity will have to use their available resources judiciously. They will have to strengthen their political, economic, social, cultural and demographic structures as to abridge the gap of economic disparity.

Question 13.
Explain India’s stand on environmental issues. [4]
Answer:
India’s stand towards environmental issues has always been thoughtful and positive.

India signed and ratified the 1997 Kyoto Protocol in August 2002.
At the G-8 Meeting in June 2005, India pointed out that the per capita emission rates of the developing countries are a tiny fraction of those in the developed world.
India’s international negotiating position relies heavily on principles of historical responsibility as enshrined in UNFCCC.
India has one of the largest renewable energy programmes in the world.

Question 14.
Distinguish between the economic ideologies of the Congress Party and the Swatantra Party formed in 1959. [4]
Answer:
Difference between the economic ideologies of the Congress Party and the Swatantra Party:

At the Nagpur session in 1959 Congress passed the resolution, which called for:
- Land ceilings.
- Take over the food grains trade by the state.
- Adoption of cooperative farming.
In the same year Swatantra Party was formed with a different ideology as the following:
- Government should be less involved in controlling the economy.
- It was not in favour of economic development through centralized economy.
- It believed that prosperity could come only through individual freedom.
- It was in favour of private sector.
- It was also opposed to cooperative farming.

Question 24.
Describe the composition of U.N. Security Council. What is the major difference in the privileges given to its permanent and non¬permanent members ? [6]
OR
Describe any three new sources of threat to security giving examples for each. [6]
Answer:
The Security Council is an important organ of the UN which is mainly responsible for ensuring peace in the world. The Security Council of 15 members of which 5 are permanent members and 10 are elected by the General Assembly after every two years. The non-permanent members are not eligible for immediate re-election. Each member of Security Council has one vote. The approval of all the permanent members is necessary on important matters. In the event of a threat to peace or occurrence of war between two or more countries, the Security Council has the power to take appropriate measures to restore peace and security.

U.N. Security Council is an important organ of United Nations. It has fifteen members — five permanent and ten elected by the General Assembly for two year terms. Difference in the privileges between permanent and non-permanent members :
(i) The main privileges of the permanent members are permanency and the veto power, which can neglect any resolution of the Security Council.
(ii) The non-permanent members serye for only two years at a time. A country cannot be re-elected immediately after completing their term. They do not have Veto power.
OR
New source of threat are :
(i) Terrorism: It refers to political violence f that targets civilians indiscriminately. International terrorism involves the citizens or territory of more than our country. They use civilians as a weapon against national government to change a political context or condition they do not like.
Example: Plane hijacking, planting bombs at crowded places etc.

(ii) Human rights: These are in the form of political, economical, social rights and the rights of colonized people or ethnic and indigenous minorities.’ Example : Iraq’s invasion of Kuwait, Indonesian military’s killing of people in East Timor.

(iii) Health epidemics: Due to migration, business, tourism etc. epidemics like HIV— AIDS, bird flu, and SARS have rapidly spread across countries. By 2003, an estimated 4 crore people were infected with HIV—AIDS worldwide. Treatment of these epidemics have proved to be a major factor in driving the region backward into deeper poverty.

Question 27.
Describe the journey of the movement for Right to Information which ultimately culminated into an Act i.e. RTI Act, 2005. [6]
OR
Describe the internal and external disputes responsible for making the politics of Jammu and Kashmir continuously controversial. [6]
Answer:
Movement for Right to Information Act, 2005:

The movement started in 1990 by Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) in Rajasthan who adopted the initiative in asking for records of famine relief work along with accounts of labourers.
The villagers asserted their right to information.
The movement had a small success when they could force an amendment in the Rajasthan Panchayati Raj Act.
In 1966, MKSS formed National Council for People’s Right to Information in Delhi to raise RTI to the status of National Campaign.
In 2002, a weak Freedom of Information Act was legislated but never came into force.
In 2004, RTI Bill was tabled and received Presidential assent in June 2005.

OR
The politics of Jammu and Kashmir always remained controversial and conflict ridden both for external and internal reasons. Externally, Pakistan has always claimed that Kashmir valley should be the part of Pakistan. Pakistan sponsored a tribal invasion of the State in 1947, as a consequence of which one part of the State came under Pakastani control. India claims that this area is under illegal occupation. Pakistan describes this area as Azad Kashmir’. Ever since 1947, Kashmir has remained a major issue of conflict between India and Pakistan.

Internally, there is a dispute about the status of Kashmir within the Indian union. Kashmir was given a special status by Article 370 and 371 last year in Indian Constitution at work. Article 370 gives greater autonomy to Jammu and Kashmir compared to other States of India. The state has its own Constitution. All provisions of the Indian Constitution are not applicable to the state. Laws passed by the Parliament apply to J & K only if the State agrees.

This special status has provoked two opposite reactions. There is a section of people outside of J & K that believes that the special status of the state conferred by Article 370 does not allow full integration of the State with India.

Another section, mostly Kashmiris, believe that the autonomy conferred by Article 370 is not enough. A section of Kashmiris has expressed at least three major grievances. First, the promise that accession would be referred to the people of the state after the situation created by tribal invasion was normalised, has not been fulfilled. This has generated the demand for a ‘Plebiscite’. Secondly, there is a feeling that the special federal status guaranteed by Article 370, has been eroded in practice. This has led to the demand for restoration of autonomy or ‘Greater State Autonomy’. Thirdly, it is felt that democracy which is practiced in the rest of India has not been similarly institutionalized in the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2017 Outside Delhi

August 23, 2019, 10:46 pm

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2017 Outside Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions :

There are 22 questions in all.
All questions are compulsory.
Question number 1 to 7 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40
Question numbers 8 to 13 are short-answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
Question numbers 14 to 20 are long-answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150
Question numbers 21 to 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps, carrying 5 marks each.
Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer-book.
Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2017 Outside Delhi Set – I

Question 1.
State the two groups of factors which affect the profitability of mining. [1/2 + 1/2 = 1]
Answer:
Several factors affecting the profitability of mining operations are :

Richness or Grade of the Ore,
Size of Deposit,
Method of Mining,
Accessibility,
Stage of Industrial Development

Question 2.
Which country of the world has the highest road density ? [1]
Answer:
Japan with respect to country size/area, Japan has highest road density and is 327 km length of roads per 100 sq. km area.

Question 3.
Name any two garrison (cantonment) towns of India. [1/2 + 1/2 = 1]
Answer:
Main cantonment towns of India are :

Ambala,
Jalandhar,
Mhow,
Babina and
Udhampur.

Question 4.
Why is West Asia the least developed in rail facilities ? Explain one reason. [1]
Answer:
West Asia is the least developed in terms of rail facilities because of vast deserts and sparsely populated regions.

Question 5.
Examine the twin environmental problems that have emerged in the ‘Indira Gandhi Canal Command Area’. [1]
Answer:
Due to intensive irrigation and excessive use of water has led to the emergence of problems of water logging and soil salinity and both these have adverse effect on soil fertility and agricultural productivity.

Question 6.
Classify minerals on the basis of chemical and physical properties. [1/2 + 1/2 = 1]
Answer:
Minerals are divided into groups on the basis of chemical and physical properties. These are :

Metallic and
Non-Metallic minerals. Examples of metallic minerals are iron, copper, gold, silver and non-metallic minerals are salt, coal, copper etc.

Question 7.
How can you help in improving the quality of water in your locality ? [1]
Answer:
Quality of water suffers from large scale of pollution almost throughout the country. In the populated locality, we can avoid dumping all waste matter into water and into our rivers.

Question 8.
Study the map given below carefully and answer the questions that follow : [3]
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2017 Outside Delhi 1

Question 8.1.
Identify and name the canal shown in the map.
Answer:
The canal shown in map is Suez Canal, constructed in 1869 between Port Said and Port Suez in Egypt.

Question 8.2.
Write any four characteristics of this canal.
Answer:
The main characteristics of this canal are :

It gives Europe a new gateway to the Indian ocean and reduces sea-route distance between Liverpool and Colombo by 6400 km compared to Cape of Good Hope route.
It is a sea level canal without locks which is 130 km long and 11 to 15 meter deep.
About 100 ships travel daily and each ship takes around 10-12 hours to cross the canal.
As the tolls are heavy, some find it cheaper to go by the longer Cape Route whenever the consequent delay is not important.
A navigable fresh canal also follows from Nile.

Question 9.
Describe any three characteristics of chain stores in the world. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
The distinctive features of multiple shops are as under :

Chain stores are able to purchase merchandise most economically to their specification.
They often direct the manufacturers. They employ highly skilled specialists.
The main objective of the chain stores is to establish direct contact with the consumers by eliminating middlemen.
They operate under centralised control and are horizontally integrated.
The layout of these shops is simple and similar. They have the ability to experiment in one store and apply the results to many.

Question 10.
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow : [3 × 1 = 3]
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2017 Outside Delhi 2
Question 10.1.
Identify and name the steel plant given above. In which state this plant located ?
Answer:
Steel plant is “Bhilai” and located in Chhattisgarh State.

Question 10.2.
Which is the main source of power for this steel plant ? Which rail route provides transport facilities to this plant ?
Answer:
Main power source is “Korba Thermal Power Station”. The rail route connecting to this plant is Kolkata-Mumbai rail route.

Question 10.3.
What are the major sources of Iron ore and water for this steel plant ?
Answer:
Major source of rich Hemetite Iron Ore for this plant is “Dalli-Rajhara range” of mines. The water source is “Tandula Tank”.

Question 11.
“There is no consensus on what exactly defines a village or a town.” Analyse the statement by using different criteria. [3]
Answer:
We all live in cluster of houses which can be called as village or a town. It is widely accepted that settlements can be differentiated in terms of rural (village) and urban (town), but there is no consensus on what exactly defines a village or a town. Although population size is an important criterion, it is not a universal criteria since many villages in densely populated countries in like India and China have population exceeding than some towns of Europe and USA.

In certain countries, urban settlements are defined on the economic basis. For example, in India, towns are called urban towns cities when it has 75% of its work force engaged in non-agricultural activities, whereas in some western countries an urban area is if more than 50% of the economically productive population are engaged in non-agricultural pursuits.

Question 12.
“Nature provides opportunities and humans make use of these and slowly nature gets humanised and starts bearing the imprints of human endeavour.” Justify the statement. [3]
Answer:
When the human being makes use of opportunities provided by nature, it starts bearing the imprints of human endeavour and this situation is known as humanisation of nature. Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology. Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society.

Knowledge about nature is extremely important to develop technology and advanced technology loosens the shackles of environment on human beings. In the early stages of their interaction with their natural environment humans were greatly influenced by it. They adapted to the dictates of nature. This is so because the level of technology was very low and the stage of human social development was also primitive. They create possibilities with the resources obtained from the environment. The human activities create the cultural landscape. The imprints of human activities are created everywhere; health resorts on highlands, huge urban sprawls, fields, orchards and pastures in plains and rolling hills, ports on the coasts, oceanic routes on the oceanic surface and satellites in the space.

Question 13.
“Indiscriminate use of water by increasing population and industrial expansion has led to degradation of the water quality considerably in India.” Explain the values that can help in maintaining the quality of water. [3]
Answer:
Indiscriminate use of water by increasing population and industrial expansion has led to degradation of the quality of water considerably. Values that can help in maintaining the quality of water are :

Judicious/optimum use of water; controlling population and recycle and reuse of water; Watershed Management and Rainwater Harvesting.
Haryali is the watershed development started by the government of India for the same reason.
Industries which are located on the river banks should be monitored for the waste disposals. They should not be throwing the waste in the river.

Question 14.
Mention any four major objectives of the New Industrial Policy, 1991 of India. Describe the role of globalisation in achieving these objectives. [2 + 3 = 5]
Answer:
Major objectives of India’s New Industrial Policy 1991 are as follows :

The New Industrial Policy, 1991 seeks to liberate the industry from the shackles of licensing system.
Maintain a sustained growth in productivity.
Encourage foreign participation in India’s industrial development.
Gainful employment and attain international competitiveness.

The process of globalisation includes opening up of world trade, development of advanced means of communication, internationalization of financial markets, growing importance of MNCs, population migrations and increased mobility of persons, goods, capital, data and ideas. It refers to the integration of economies of the world through uninhibited trade and financial flows, as also through mutual exchange of technology and knowledge. It also contains free inter-country movement of labour. This implies opening up the economy to foreign direct investment by providing facilities to foreign companies to invest in different fields of economic activity in India, removing constraints and obstacles to the entry of MNCs, allowing Indian companies to enter into foreign collaborations and also encouraging them to set up joint ventures abroad; carrying out massive import liberalisation programs by switching over from quantitative restrictions to tariffs and import duties, therefore globalisation has been identified with the policy reforms of 1991 in India.

Question 15.
“The size of a territory and per capita income are not directly related to human development.” Support the statement with examples. [5]
Answer:
Yes, it is true that the size of territory and per capita income are not directly related to human development.

Growth of economy and productivity is generally assessed with the help of gross national product and per capital income.
There are few rich and developed states like Maharashtra, Punjab, Haryana, Gujarat and Delhi have per capita income more than ₹ 4,000/month.
Poverty is reflected in poor quality of life. Hundreds of people suffer malnutrition, deprivation, illiteracy and consequent low level of human development. It does not depend upon the size of territory.
Often Smaller Countries have done better than larger ones in human development. Similarly, relatively poorer nations have been ranked higher than richer neighbours in terms of human development.
For example Sri Lanka, Trinidad and Tobago have a higher rank than India in the human development index despite having smaller economies. Similarly, within India, Kerala performs much better than Punjab and Gujarat in human development despite having lower per capita income.
Some large states like Odisha, Bihar, MP, UP and Tamilnadu have more than 50% population below poverty line while Delhi is much smaller areawise but is a prosperous state.

Question 16.
How is migration a response to the uneven distribution of opportunities over a space ? Explain the economic consequences of migration in India. [2 + 3 = 5]
Answer:
Migration is a response to the uneven distribution of opportunities because of the following reasons :

In India many people live in rural areas and they migrate to urban areas mainly due to poverty, high population pressure on land, lack of basic infrastructural facilities like health, education, etc. This proves that migration is responsible for the uneven distribution over space.
People tend to move from place of low opportunities and less safety to a place which has more opportunities and safe.

Economic Consequences :

People migrating send remittance to their families at home and add to economic prosperity. Remittance from international migrants is one of the major sources of foreign exchange. In 2002, India received US $11 billion as remittances from international migrants.
Remittance are used for food, repayment of debts, treatment, marriages, children education, agricultural development, construction of houses, etc. Thousands of poor villages of many states works as live blood for economy.
Punjab, Kerala and Tamil Nadu receive very significant amount from their international migrants. Internal Migrants play an important role in the growth of economy of the source area.

Question 17.
“In modem times international trade is the basis of the world economy.” Support the statement with examples. [5]
Answer:
Trade is the base of world economy. The exchange of surplus goods between different countries is called international trade. It is the index of economic development of the country. The countries which export the commodities earn foreign exchange. Developed countries are major trading countries. It also helps to raise the standards of living of the people of developing countries. Some densely populated countries have to import raw materials to meet their demands for their economic and industrial development.

Such countries are Japan, Sri Lanka and other countries. The actual tonnage of goods traded makes up the volume. However, services traded cannot be measured in tonnage. Therefore, the total value of goods and services traded is considered to be the volume of trade. The total volume of world trade has been steadily rising over the past decades. Trade of primary products was dominant in the beginning of the last century. Later manufactured goods gained prominence and currently, though the manufacturing sector commands the bulk of the global trade, service sector which includes travel, transportation and other commercial services have been showing an upward trend.

Question 18.
Review any five measures adopted to solve the problems of Indian agriculture. [5 × 1 = 5]
Answer:
Measures adopted to solve the problems are :

(i) Indian agriculture is totally dependent on monsoon. The crop production in the cultivated land is directly dependent on rainfall. Excessive rainfall causes flood and less rainfall causes drought conditions. For expansion of irrigation dams, rivers and canals have played a crucial role enhancing agriculture output in country.

(ii) The yield of the crops in country is low in comparison to international level. Output of most of the crops such as rice, wheat, cotton and oil seeds in India is much lower than that of USA, Russia, Japan. Use of modern agricultural technologies such as high yield variety of seeds, chemical fertilisers, pesticides and farm machinery are introduced in India.

(iii) The inputs of modern agriculture are very expensive for the farmers to afford. So government is supporting them by introducing the facilities like farmer loans, machinery loans at very low interest rates.

(iv) A large number of farmers produce crops for self consumption. These farmers do not have enough land and resources to produce more than their requirement. Government is encouraging them to use high yield seeds, fertilisers and provide it in competitive rates.

(v) New seed varieties of wheat (Mexico) and rice (Philippines) known as high yielding varieties (HYVs)
were available for cultivation by mid-1960s. India took advantage of this and introduced package technology comprising HYVs, along with chemical fertilisers in irrigated areas of Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat.

Question 19.
Classify intensive subsistence agriculture into two categories practised in the world. How are they different from each other ? Explain. [1 + 4 = 5]
Answer:
Basically, there are two types of intensive subsistence agriculture :
Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by Wet paddy cultivation : This type of agriculture is characterised by dominance of the rice crop. Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by Non Paddy crops : This type of agriculture is characterised mainly by wheat.

Paddy	Non-Paddy
(i) Rice is the dominant crop.	Wheat, Soyabean, Barley and Sorghum are the main crops.
(ii) Land holdings are very small due to high density of population.	Land holdings are big.
(iii) Labour is supplied by the farmer and his family members.	Machinery is deployed for cultivation of non-paddy crops.
(iv) Fertility of soil is maintained by using farm manure.	Fertilisers, pesticides are highly used for increasing soil fertility.

Question 20.
Classify means of communication on the basis of scale and quality into two categories. Explain any two characteristics of each category. [1 + 4 = 5]
Answer:
Classification of means of communication on the basis of scale and quality : Personal Communication System:

It is the most effective and advanced one and widely used in urban areas.
It enables the user to establish direct connect through Email to get access to world of knowledge and information.
It is used for e-commerce and carrying out monetary transaction.
It is a huge central warehouse of data, with detailed information on various items.
(Letters, Telephone, Fax, Email, Internet, etc).

Mass Communication System :

Radio broadcasting started in India in 1923 by the Radio club of Bombay and changed the socio-cultural life of people.
Television broadcasting emerged as the most
Use of satellite and synoptic view of larger area effective audio visual medium for information and for economic and strategic reasons.
(Radio, Television, Cinema, Satellite, Newspaper, Magazine and Books, Seminar and Conference, etc.).

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the world as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information: [5 × 1 = 5]
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Clik here to view. CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2017 Outside Delhi 3
(A) A large country of Africa in terms of area
(B) A major area of subsistence gathering
(C) The terminal station of a ‘Transcontinental Railway’
(D) A major seaport
(E) An international airport
Answer:
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Clik here to view. CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2017 Outside Delhi 4

Question 22.
Locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols on the given outline political map of India: [5 × 1 = 5]
22.1. The state having the highest density of population according to census 2011.
22.2. The leading rice producing state.
22.3. The software technology park located in Gujarat.
22.4. The major coalfield located in Odisha.
22.5. An international airport located in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
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Clik here to view. CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2017 Outside Delhi 5

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2017 Outside Delhi Set – II

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 1.
What are the two types of Intensive subsistence agriculture ? [1]
Answer:
It is of the following two types :

Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation.
Intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by crops other than paddy.

Question 2.
Which country has the largest rail network in Africa ? [1]
Answer:
South Africa, with 18,000 km of railways has the densest rail network because of the gold, copper and diamond activities.

Question 3.
Name any two towns of India, initially developed as mining towns. [1/2 + 1/2 = 1]
Answer:
Raniganj, Jharia, Digboi and Singrauli were all developed as mining towns initially.

Question 9.
Describe any three characteristics of agro-based industries in the world.
Answer:
Agro-based industries are those industries which obtains raw materials from agricultural activities. Cotton textile, jute textile, silk, sugar, vegetable oil and paper industry are main industries of agro-based group of industries.
Its characteristics are :

Agro-based industries are part of small scale industry which needs very nominal investment.
Major agro processing industries are food processing industries.
Most crucial factor is the availability of the raw materials. It should be available within a radius of 60 kms. In addition, water, power and other infrastructure facilities like access to road, railways, ports and airports as well as the markets for the products have to be ensured.

Question 15.
What is meant by human development ? Classify countries into four groups on the basis of the human development scores earned by them. Explain one feature of each group. [1 + 2 + 2 = 5]
Answer:
Human Development: The concept of human development was introduced by Dr. Mahbub-ul-Haq. Dr. Haq has described human development as development that enlarges people’s choices and improves their lives. People’s choices are not fixed but keep on changing. The basic goal of development is to create conditions where people can live meaningful lives. A meaningful life is not just a long one. It must be a life with some purpose. This means that people must be healthy, be able to develop their talents, participate in society and be free to achieve their goals.
Countries can be classified into four groups on the basis of the human development scores earned by them.
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Countries which are classified under High Human Index or Very High Human Index have a score of over 0.8; this group includes 57 countries. These countries provide higher human development through proper investment in people and good governance.
Countries which are classified under High Human Index also include a good number of countries who provide appropriate human development through investment in right areas.
Countries with Medium Human Index have more than 50 countries who have emerged after the Second World War. Some were former colonies while others appeared after the Soviet Union collapsed. They have a high social diversity however, they have faced social or political instability and uprising in history.
About 32 countries record Low Level of Human Development because they have been going through political turmoil.

Question 18.
Explain the importance of five non-conventional sources of energy with suitable examples. [5]
Answer:
Importance of non-conventional sources of energy are :

(i) Solar Energy : Sun rays tapped in photovoltaic cells can be converted into energy, known as solar energy. The two effective processes considered to be very effective to tap solar energy are photovoltaics and solar thermal technology. It is cost competitive, environment friendly and easy to construct. It is generally used more in appliances like heaters, crop dryers, cookers, etc. The Western part of India has greater potential for the development of solar energy in Gujarat and Rajasthan.

(ii) Wind Energy : Wind energy is absolutely pollution free, inexhaustible source of energy. The mechanism of energy conversion from blowing wind is simple. The kinetic energy of wind, through turbines is converted into electrical energy. The permanent wind systems such as the trade winds, westerlies and seasonal winds like monsoon have been used as source of energy. Besides these, local winds, land and sea breezes can also be used to produce electricity. India, already has started generating wind energy. It has an ambitious programme to install 250 wind-driven turbines with a total capacity of 45 megawatts, in Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Karnataka, favourable conditions for wind energy exists.

(iii) Tidal and Wave Energy : Ocean currents are the store-house of infinite energy. Since the beginning of seventeenth and eighteenth century, persistent efforts were made to create a more efficient energy system from the ceaseless tidal waves and ocean current. Large tidal waves are known to occur along the west coast of India. Hence, India has great potential for the development of tidal energy along the coasts but so far these have not yet been utilised.

(iv) Geothermal Energy: When the magma from the interior of earth, comes out on the surface, tremendous heat is released. This heat energy can successfully be tapped and converted to electrical energy. Apart from this, the hot water that gushes out through the geyser wells (hot wells) is also used in the generation of thermal energy. It is popularly known as geothermal energy. This energy is now considered to be one of the key energy sources which can be developed as an alternate source. The hot springs and geysers are being used since medieval period. In India, a geothermal energy plant has been commissioned at Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh.

(v) Bio-energy: Bio-energy refers to energy derived from biological products which includes agricultural residues, municipal, industrial and other wastes. Bio energy is a potential source of energy conversion. It can be converted into electrical energy, heat energy or gas for cooking. It will also process the waste and garbage and produce energy. One such project converting municipal waste into energy is Okhla in Delhi.

Question 19.
Analyse the significance and growth of service sector in the modern economic development of the world. [5]
Answer:

Services are provided to individual consumers who can afford to pay for them. For example gardener, launderers and barber do primarily physical labour. Teachers, lawyers, physicians, musicians and others perform mental labour.
Many services have now been regulated. Making and maintaining highways and bridges, maintaining fire fighting departments and supplying or supervising education.
Customer care is among the important services often supervised or performed by governments or companies.
Professional services are primarily healthcare, engineering, law and management. The location of recreational and entertainment services depends on the market.
In modern times, Service sector has grown at a very fast speed all over the world. Economy of most of the developed countries is based on the earnings of service sectors.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2017 Outside Delhi Set – III

Note : Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 1.
Mention any two main regions of commercial dairy farming. [1/2 + 1/2 = 1]
Answer:
The main regions for dairy farming on commercial basis in the world are :

The largest is North-Western Europe.
Canada and North-Eastern USA.
South-Eastern Australia, New Zealand and Tasmania.

Question 2.
Which inland waterway of the world is most heavily used ? [1]
Answer:
Rhine Waterways.

Question 3.
Name any two towns of India, initially developed as educational centres. [1/2 + 1/2 = 1]
Answer:
Some towns of India were initially developed as education as their primary function are : Roorkee, Varanasi, Aligarh, Pilani, etc.

Question 9.
Describe any three features of open-cast mining. [3]
Answer:
Features of open-cast mining are :

This is the cheapest and easiest method of mining and is used for mining those minerals which occur close to the surface.
The overhead costs such as safety precaution and equipment is relatively low.
The output is both large and rapid.

Question 15.
Classify the population of the world on the basis of their residence into two groups. How are they different ‘from each other ? Explain. [1 + 4 = 5]
Answer:
The division of population into rural and urban is based on the residence.

Rural Population	Urban Population
(i)The population living in a village is known as rural population.	The population living in towns and cities is known as urban population.
(ii) It supports small size population.	Urban population is engaged in secondary and tertiary activities.
(iii) Rural population is mostly engaged in agricutural and other primary occupation.	Urban population is engaged in secondary and tertiary activities.
(iii) Share of the rural population is 55% of the whole population of the world.	Share of the urban population is 45% of the whole population of the world.

Question 18.
What was the main aim of the ‘Tribal Sub-Plan’ introduced in 1974 in Bharmaur area ? Review its contribution in the development of the Bharmaur region. [1 + 4 = 5]
Answer:
The process of development of tribal area of Bharmaur started in 1970s when Gaddis were included among ‘scheduled tribes’. Under the Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP) in Himachal Pradesh. This area development plan was aimed at improving the quality of life of the Gaddis and narrowing the gap in the level of development between Bharmaur and other areas of Himachal Pradesh. This plan laid, the highest priority on development of transport, communications, agriculture and allied activities, social and community services.

The most significant contribution of tribal sub plan in Bharmaur region is the development of infrastructure in terms of schools, health care facilities, potable water, roads, communications and electricity. But the villages located along the river Ravi in Holi and Khani areas are the main beneficiaries of infrastructural development. The female literacy rate in the region increased from 1.88 per cent in 1971 to 65 per cent in 2011. Traditionally, the Gaddis had subsistence agricultural-cum-pastoral economy having emphasis on food grains and livestock production. But during the last three decades of twentieth century, the cultivation of pulses and other cash crops has increased in Bharmaur region. But the crop cultivation is still done with traditional technology. The declining importance of pastoralism in the economy of the region can be gauged from the fact that at present only about one-tenth of the total households practise transhumance.

Question 19.
Classify trading centres into two categories. How are they different from each other ? Explain. [1 + 4 = 5]
Answer:
Classification of trading center :

Rural Marketing Centres :
- Rural marketing centres cater to nearby settlements.
- These are quasi-urban centres.
- They serve as trading centres of the most rudimentary type.
- Here personal and professional services are not well developed. These form local collecting and distributing centres. Most of these have mandis (wholesale markets) and also retailing areas.
Urban Marketing Centres :
- Urban marketing centres have more widely specialized urban services.
- They provide ordinary goods and services.
- Urban centres offer manufactured goods or finished products.
- Service of educational institution and professionals such as teachers, lawyers, consultants, physicians, dentists and veterinary doctors are available.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2018

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2018

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks: 70

General Instructions :

There are 22 questions in all.
All questions are compulsory.
Question number 1 to 7 are very short-answer questions carrying 1 mark each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 40
Question numbers 8 to 13 are short-answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 80-100 words.
Question numbers 14 to 20 are long-answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not exceed 150
Question numbers 21 to 22 are related to identification or locating and labelling of geographical features on maps, carrying 5 marks each.
Outline maps of the World and India provided to you must be attached within your answer-book.
Use of templates or stencils for drawing outline maps is allowed.

Question 1.
Differentiate between growth and development. [1]
Answer:
Growth is a quantitative concept and value neutral while development is a qualitative concept and value positive always.

Question 2.
Why is India a popular tourist destination in the world ? [1]
Answer:
India is a popular tourist destination in the world because it has a rich cultural heritage.

Question 3.
Evaluate the importance of ‘quaternary activities’. [1]
Answer:
Quaternary activities are centred around research, development and may be seen as an
advanced form of services involving specialised knowledge, technical skills and administrative, competence. These have replaced all primary and secondary activities as the basis of economic growth.

Question 4.
Examine the concept of ‘regional planning’. [1]
Answer:
Regional planning deals with the efficient placement of land-use activities, infrastructure and settlement growth across a larger area of land than an individual city or town to reduce regional imbalance in the development.

Question 5.
Mention any two factors responsible for the establishment of cotton textile mills in I Mumbai. [1/2 + 1/2 = 1]
Answer:
Two factors responsible for the establishment of cotton textile mills in Mumbai are :

Close proximity to the cotton producing areas of Gujarat and Maharashtra.
Humid climate and cheap, abundant labour and port facilities at Mumbai.

Question 6.
State the major problem being faced by Kolkata sea-port. [1]
Answer:
Kolkata sea-port faces a major problem of silt accumulation of Hugh river which provides
a link to the sea.

Question 7.
State any two advantages of air transport in the international trade. [1/2 + 1/2 = 1]
Answer:
Two advantages of air transport in the international trade are as follows :

Air transport is the fastest means of transportation and is preferred for long distance travel.
Valuable cargo can be carried quickly and safely anywhere.

Question 8.
“The primitive communities lived in complete harmony with their natural environment and as such the humans were naturalised.” Support the statement. [3]
Answer:
The primitive communities lived in harmony with their natural environment and as such
the humans were naturalised because the people begin to understand their environment and the forces of nature with the passage of time. With social and cultural development, humans develop better and more efficient technology. They move from a state of necessity to a state of freedom. They create possibilities with the resources obtained from the environment. The human activities create cultural landscape. The imprints of human activities are created everywhere, giving rise to possibilities. Hence, in the similar sense, an interaction exists between primitive human society and nature, called as environmental determinism. This is why, humans were naturalised.

Question 9.
Differentiate between small scale manufacturing and large scale manufacturing. [3]
Answer:

Small Scale Industries	Large Scale Industries
(i) These industries use local raw material, simple power driven machines and semiskilled labour.	These industries involve a large market, various raw materials, enormous energy, specialised workers and advanced technology.
(ii) They provide employment and raise local purchasing power.	They are diffused in different parts of the world and provide employment with mass production and huge capital.
(iii) Small scale industries use skilled and semiskilled labour.	Large scale industries use skilled labour.

Question 10.
Describe any three major problems of road transport in the world. [3 × 1 = 3]
Answer:
Three major problems of road transport are :

Road transport doesn’t have a wider reach.
About half of the roads are unmetalled and this limits their usage and service during the rainy season.
Disrespect to the traffic rules is the major problem. Roads suffer from chronic traffic congestion, thus causing delay.
Thus, these are the major three problems of road transport in India.

Question 11.
“Every January after the harvest season ‘Jonbell Mela’ takes place in Jagiroad, 35 kilometres away from Guwahati and it is possibly the only fair in India, where ‘barter system’ is still alive. A big market is organised during this fair and people from various tribes and communities exchange their products.”
In the light of the above paragraph, justify the values of ‘barter system’ in the lives of tribal communities. [3]
Answer:
Barter system is still prevalent in the lives of Tribal Communities due to the following reasons : Barter system fosters mutual cooperation, goodwill and welfare and wellbeing of communities. It is also known as C-C economy. Many tribes practice this system because it’s still acceptable in’ such societies. They have no choice other than to exchange goods for goods. As stated in paragraph, every January after the harvest season, a big market in Guwahati is organised where various tribes and communities exchange their products. In some communities, it is a cultural activity as well.

Question 12.
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow : [3]
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Geography 2018 1

Question 12.1.
Which class of towns/cities support largest urban population ?
Answer:
Class I (61.48%).

Question 12.2.
Explain any two reasons for such a high concentration of population in this class of towns/cities.
Answer:
There is such a high concentration of population in this class of cities because these are metropolitan cities and possess high growth rate.

Question 13.
“Indiscriminate use of water by increasing population and industrial expansion has led to degradation of the quality of water considerably.” Evaluate the statement. [3]
Answer:
Indiscriminate use of water by an increasing population and industrial expansion has led to degradation of the quality of water considerably. This can be evaluated by the following points :

Human beings pollute the water through industrial, agricultural and cultural activities.
Among all, industries are the most significant waste contributor.
Most of the industrial wastes are disposed off in running water or lakes. Consequently, poisonous elements reach the reservoirs, rivers and other water bodies, which destroy the bio-system of these waters.

Question 14.
Define the term ‘density of population’.
Explain four geographical factors affecting the distribution of population in the world, with examples. [1 + 4 = 5]
Answer:
Population density is defined as the number of persons that occupy a fixed area of land (square kilometer). Population density is an important index that shows the concentration of population in a specific area. A simple method to calculate the density of the population is to divide the total population of an area by the total area of land in which the population is confined. It is usually, measured in persons per sq. km.
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For example, area of region X is 100 sq. km and the population is 1,50,000 persons. The density of population is calculated as :
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Four Geographical Factors :

Availability of Water : It is the most important factor for life. So, people prefer to live in areas where fresh water is available. For eg, people live in New Delhi or nearby areas because they receive fresh water easily.
Land Forms : People prefer to live on flat plains and gentle slopes.
Eg.: Most of the Indian population lives in the central plain areas.
Climate : An extreme climate is unfavourable for any living being. Thus, people prefer to live under moderate climatic conditions. For eg., people in India, at a higher rate live in areas where they find the climate more salubrious and comfortable.
Soil : Fertile soils are important for agricultural and allied activities. Thus, this is the reason why so many people live in the states like Punjab and Haryana.

Question 15.
“Gathering and hunting are the primitive economic activities meant for the subsistence of tribal societies, but in modem times gathering is market oriented and has become commercial.” Examine the statement. [5]
Answer:
Primitive societies depend on wild animals and edible plants for their survival. Gathering and hunting are such old economic activities. These are carried out at different levels in different orientations.

Gathering is practised in regions with harsh climatic conditions. It often involves primitive societies, who extract both plants and animals for their survival.

It is practised in high latitude zones which include Northern Canada, Northern Eurasia and Southern Chile and low latitude zones such as the Amazon Basin, etc.

In modern times, gathering is market oriented and has commercial value due to the following reasons :

Gatherers collect valuable plants such as leaves, barks of trees and medicinal plants and after simple processing sell the products in the market.
They use various parts of plants, for example, the bark is used for quinine, tanin extract and cork leaves supply materials for beverages, drugs, cosmetics, fibres, thatch and fabrics, nuts for food and oils and tree trunk yielding rubber, balata, gums and resins.

Question 16.
Study the following map of the Suez Canal carefully and answer the questions that follows:
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16.1. Name the country through which this canal passes.
16.2. Name the seas connected by this canal.
16.3. Why is the canal considered a gateway of Europe to the Indian ocean ? [1 + 1 + 3 = 5]
Answer:
(i) This canal passes through Egypt.
(ii) Mediterreanean Sea and Red sea.
(iii) This canal is considered a gateway of Europe to the Indian ocean because it gives way to European ships into the Indian ocean and reduces the sea-route distance between Liverpool and Colombo compared to the Cape of Good Hope route.

Question 17.
“The decadal and annual growth rates of population in India are both very high and steadily increasing over time.” Substantiate the statement. [5]
Answer:
Growth of population is the change in the number of people living in a particular area between two points of time. Its rate is expressed in percentage. The decadal and annual growth rates of population in India are both very high and rapidly increasing over time.

The annual growth rate is 2.4%.
It is estimated that the country’s population will double itself in the next 36 years and will even surpass China.
The growth rate of population in India over the past one century has been affected by annual birth rate, death rate and rate of migration.

There are four phases :
Phase I : 1901-1921 : Period of stagnant phase of growth of India’s population.
Phase II : 1921-51 : Period of steady growth of India’s population.
Phase III : 1951-1981 : Population explosion in India.
Phase IV : 1981 till present : Population growth remained high.

Question 18.
Explain how ‘watershed management’ and ‘rainwater harvesting’ are the methods of efficient management and conservation of surface water resources in India. [5]
Answer:
Watershed management and rainwater harvesting are the major methods of efficient management and conservation of surface water resources in India.
(i) Rainwater Harvesting : Rainwater harvesting is a method to capture and store rainwater for various uses. It is also used to recharge groundwater acquifers. It is a low cost and eco-friendly technique, for preserving every drop of water by guiding the rain water to bore well, pits- and wells.
For e.g., Tankas or small tanks.

(ii) Watershed Management: It basically refers to efficient management and conservation of surface and groundwater sources. It involves prevention of runoff and storage and recharge of ground water through various methods like tanks, wells, etc. The success of watershed development, largely, depends upon community participation. ‘Haryali’ is a watershed development project of the Central Govt.
There is a wide scope to use rainwater harvesting technique to conserve the precious water resources. Therefore, both the methods are very efficient.

Question 19.
“The non-conventional sources of energy will provide more sustained, eco-friendly and cheaper energy if the initial cost is taken care of.” Examine the statement. [5]
Answer:
The non-conventional sources of energy will provide more sustained, eco-friendly and cheaper energy if the initial cost is taken care of.

Non-conventional sources of energy are: Sustainable energy resources like solar, wind and bio-mass. Some are enlisted below :

Solar Energy : Sun rays trapped in photovoltaic cells can be converted into energy. The two effective processes considered to be very effective to tap solar energy are photovoltaics and solar thermal technology.
- Photovoltaic Solar Technology : It directly converts sunlight into electricity using panels made of semi-conductors cells.
- Solar Thermal Technology: It captures the sun’s heat. This heat is used directly or converted into mechanical energy and in turn electricity, known as concentrated solar power.
  It is cost competitive, environmentally friendly and ‘ easy to construct. The western part of India has greater potential for the development of solar energy in Gujarat and Rajasthan.
Wind Energy : It is absolutely pollution free, inexhaustible source of energy. The mechanism of energy conversion from blowing wind is simple. India already has started generating wind energy. Thus, such non-conventional sources of energy are eco-friendly and cheaper.

Question 20.
Describe any five characteristics of National Highways of India. [5 × 1 = 5]
Answer:
Highways : The main roads which are constructed and maintained by the Central Government are known as National Highways.

Five characteristics of National Highways of India are :

National Highways constitute only about 1.7% of the total road network but carry about 40% of the total volume of road traffic. These highways are well connected.
These highways connect different states.
These highways are meant for inter-state transport and movement of defence material in strategic areas.
National highway constitute only 20% of the road length, they carry nearly one-third of the traffic and the World Bank decided to provide loans worth crores US dollars for the development of national highways in six states namely Gujarat, Haryana, Punjab, Tamilnadu, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
The golden quadrilateral super highway project covers a distance of 5,846 km connecting a number of major cities and towns all over India. It connects Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata.

Question 21.
Identify the five geographical features shown on the given political outline map of the World as A, B, C, D and E and write their correct names on the lines marked near them with the help of the following information :
A. A major sea-port
B. An international airport
C. A major industrial region
D. An important area of nomadic herding
E. A mega city [5×1 = 5]
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Answer:
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Question 22.
Locate and label the following features with appropriate symbols on the given political map of India. [5 × 1 = 5]
22.1. A major tea growing state
22.2. Mayurbhanj—An area of iron ore mining
22.3. An important steel plant in Karnataka
22.4. An international southernmost airport in Kerala
22.5. A city with a population of more than ten million in North India.
Answer:
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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2016 Delhi

August 23, 2019, 11:33 pm

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CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2016 Delhi

Time allowed : 3 hours
Maximum marks : 100

General Instructions:

All questions are compulsory. This questions paper has 27 questions in all. There are five sections in this question paper.
Section A contains Questions number 1-5 of 1 mark each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 20 words each.
Section B contains Questions number 6-10 of 2 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 40 words each.
Section C contains Questions number 11-16 of 4 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
Section D contains Questions number 17-21 of 5 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 150 words each.
In Section D Question number 21 is a map-based question. Write its answer in your answer-book.
Section E contains Question number 22-27 of 6 marks each. The answers to these questions should not exceed 150 words each.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2016 Delhi Set – I

Question 1.
Which one of the following statements about the Berlin wall is false ? [1]
(a) It symbolized the division between the Capitalist and the Communist worlds.
(b) It was built immediately after the Second World War.
(c) It was broken by the people on 9th November, 1989. .
(d) It marked the unification of the two parts of Germany.
Answer:
(b) It was built immediately after the Second World War.

Question 2.
Why was ASEAN established ? [1]
Answer:
ASEAN was established :

To accelerate the economic growth in member countries.
For social progress and cultural development.
To promote regional peace and security.

Question 3.
Which one of the two is more essential construction of mega dams or an environmental movement that opposes it and why ? [1]
Answer:
The construction of mega dams is essential for development and progress of country. However relocation and rehabilitation of the affected people should be done but without environmental degradation.

Question 4.
Which two objectives Jawaharlal Nehru wished to achieve through the strategy of Non-alignment ? [1]
Answer:
Jawahar lal Nehru wished to achieve these objectives through NAM:

To preserve the hard earned sovereignty
To protect territorial integrity
Peaceful co-existence for securing world peace.

Question 5.
Highlight the most novel aspect of the Chipko Movement. [1]
Answer:
The most novel aspect of Chipko Movement was the active participation of women.

Question 6.
Mention any two major military features of the Cold War. [2]
Answer:
Following are two military features of Cold war:

The two superpower and the countries in the rival blocs led by the super powers were expected to behave as rational and responsible actors.
The two superpowers and their blocs were not to encourage war or use of weapons.

Question 7.
“The leaders of the newly independent India did not see politics as a problem : They saw it as a way of solving the problems.” How far do you agree with the statement? [2]
Answer:
The above statement is absolutely true because most of the leaders of national movement joined politics and tried to be in power to solve the problems of the people. They actively engaged themselves in all political activities. Even the opposition was indulged in constructive criticism. They tried to face the challenges alongwith trying to look for their appropriate solution.

Question 8.
Match the following : [2]

Column ’A’	Column ’B’
(i) A politically controversial appointment.	(i) Charu Majumdar
(ii) Led the Railway strike in 1972.	(ii) Jayaprakash Narayan
(iii) Declined to join Nehru’s Cabinet.	(iii) George Fernandes
(iv) Died in police custody.	(iv) Justice A. N. Ray

Answer:

Column ’A’	Column ’B’
(i) A politically controversial appointment.	(iv) Justice A. N. Ray
(ii) Led the Railway strike in 1972.	(iii) George Fernandes
(iii) Declined to join Nehru’s Cabinet.	(ii) Jayaprakash Narayan
(iv) Died in police custody.	(i) Charu Majumdar

Question 9.
While the rest of the country was reorganized on linguistic lines in 1950s, why did Punjab have to wait till 1966 ? [2]
Answer:

In Punjab there were two linguistic t groups, Hindi speaking and Punjabi speaking. Punjabi speaking groups were not getting full support from non-Punjabi groups, hence they wanted a separate ‘ state for themselves.
Akali Dal was leading the Punjabi Susa movement without getting full support of non-Sikhs and other castes within Sikhs. This movement was not as strong as in other states. So Punjab had to wait.

Question 10.
How was the reorganisation of North-East India completed and by when ? [2]
Answer:
Reorganisation of North-East was almost completion 1972. Meghalaya was carved out of Assam in 1972. Manipur and Tripura too emerged as separate states. The states of Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram came into being much later in 1987. Nagaland became an independent state in 1963.

Question 11.
In which four ways did the new economic policy of China benefit its economy ? [4]
Answer:

The state played and continues to play a central role in setting up a market economy.
Privatisation of agriculture in 1982.
New trading laws and creation of special economic zones.
High personal savings in the rural economy led to an exponential growth of rural industry.

Question 12.
What is Amnesty International ? State its main functions. [4]
Answer:
It is an international NGO that campaigns for the protection of human rights. Its main functions are :

It prepares and publishes reports on human rights.
It believes that human rights are indivisible and interdependent.
It promotes respect for all the Human right in the “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”.

Question 13.
What are ‘global commons’? Why is it said that international cooperation over the global commons is not easy ? [4]
Answer:
Global commons are the resources which are not owned by any country but rather owned by the international community. For example, Earth’s atmosphere, Antarctica, the ocean floor and the outer space. They are also called, Res Communis humanitatis. It is difficult to achieve consensus on common environmental agenda. There have been significant agreements such as Antarctic treaty (1959), Montreal protocol (1987) and Antarctic Environmental Protocol (1991). History of outer space as a global common shows that the management of these areas is influenced by North-South inequalities. The benefits of exploitative activities in outer space are far from being equal either for the present or the future.

Question 14.
What distinguished the dominance of the Congress Party in India from other examples of one party dominance in other countries ? Explain. [4]
Answer:
The dominance of the Congress Party in India was different because of the following reasons :

In India, democracy was not compromised by dominance of one party.
In India, multiparty system prevailed where as in other countries like China and Russia dominance of one party was due to one party system.
There was no military interference like in Myanmar and Egypt.
Dominance of Congress party was due to its own popularity.

Question 15.
Critically examine the major outcomes of the Indian model of mixed economy. [4]
Answer:
Outcomes of the Indian model of mixed economy:

Much of the agriculture, trade and industry were left in private hands.
The state controlled key heavy industries, provided industrial infrastructure, regulated trade and some crucial interventions in agriculture.
This led to the growth of both private and public sector which became the basis for future development.

Question 16.
How did Janata Party make the 1977 elections into a referendum on the Emergency imposed in 1975? Explain. [4]
Answer:
All the opposition parties joined hands against Congress and gave a choice to the people to choose anyone out of two. Janata Party advocated the cause of democracy and called the period of emergency as the absence of democracy. JP Narayan became the icon of the opposition and provided an alternative against the current government. Janata Party asked the voters to choose between democracy and dictatorship.

Question 17.
Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions : [5]
Each of these countries was required to make a total shift to a capitalist economy, which meant rooting out completely any structures evolved during this period. Above all, it meant that private ownership was to be the dominant pattern of ownership of property. Privatisation of state assets and corporate ownership patterns were to be immediately brought in. Collective farms were to be replaced by private farming and capitalism in agriculture. This transition ruled out any alternate or ‘third way’.
(i) Name any two countries which were required to make a total shift.
(ii) Why were the collective farms to be replaced by private farming ?
(iii) Since the ‘third way’ had been ruled out, what were the only two ways of controlling the economy ?
Answer:
(i) Armenia, Georgia, Uzbekistan or any other country created after disintegration of USSR were required to make a total shift.
(ii) Due to the end of state controlled economy and introduction of privatisation and liberalisation.
(iii) Two ways to control the economy were state controlled economy (socialism) and capitalism.

Question 18.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions : [5]
At the most simple level, globalisation results in an erosion of state capacity, that is the ability of government to do what they do. All over the world, the old Svelfare state’ is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions such as the maintenance of law and order and the security of its citizens. However, it withdraws from many of its earlier welfare functions directed at economic and social well- being. In place of the welfare state, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of economic and social priorities.
(i) What do the worlds ‘erosion of state capacity’ imply ? Explain with the help of an example.
(ii) Why is the concept of welfare state giving way to a minimalist state ?
(iii) How has market become the prime determinant of social priorities ?
Answer:
(i) ‘Erosion of state capacity’ means reduction in the capability or power of the government to fulfill or take up responsibilities. Now-a-days, the governments of various countries are obliged to obey the international norms for preservation and conservation of environment.

(ii) Due to privatisation, most of the economic activities are now under control of the private sector. States do have a role to facilitate the economic development by maintaining law and order and providing security to the citizens. As such, welfare activities are getting reduced.

(iii) Multi-national companies have come into the field of economic growth. They are in search of markets to sell their products. Now markets have become the determinants of social priorities. It had lead to a reduction in the capacity of governments to take decision on their own.

Question 19.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions : [5]
When India conducted its first nuclear test, it was termed as peaceful explosion. India argued that it was committed to the policy of using nuclear power only for peaceful purposes. The period when the nuclear test was conducted was a difficult period in domestic politics. Following the Arab-Israel War of 1973, the entire world was affected by the Oil Shock due to the massive hike in the oil prices by the Arab nations. It led to economic turmoil in India resulting in high inflation.
(i) When did India conduct its first nuclear test and why ?
(ii) Why was the period, when the nuclear test was conducted in India, considered to be difficult period in domestic politics?
(iii) Which international event of 1970s was responsible for high inflation in India ?
Answer:
(i) In May 1974 at Pokhran (Rajasthan). To use nuclear energy for peaceful purposes.
(ii) Prices were rising due to Arab – Israel war. There was a hike in oil prices. So, India was facing difficulties on the economic front.
(iii) The Arab-Israel war of 1973 created the oil shock through out the whole world.

Question 20.
Study the cartoon given below and answer following questions : [5]
(i) Identify any four national leaders from the above cartoon and mention the serial number of each.
(ii) Which was the most controversial issue of the period related to leader No. 2 as Prime Minister of India ?
(iii) What was the position of the party led by leader No. 1 in the Lok Sabha elections of 1989?
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Answer:
(i) 1. Rajiv Gandhi
2. V. P. Singh
3. L. K. Advani
4. Devi Lai
5. Jyoti Basu
6. Chander Shekhar
7. N. T. Rama Rao
8. P. K. Mahanto
9. K. Karunanidhi
(ii) Implementation of Mandal Commissions recommendations.
(iii) The party lead by leader no. 1 was badly affected in 1989 and could not muster clear majority (reduced from 415 to 189).

Question 21.
In the given political outline map of South Asia, five countries have been marked as A, B, C, D and E. Identify them on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabet as per the following format: [5]

Sr. no. of the Information used	Alphabet concerned	Name of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)

(i) An important but it is not considered to be a part of South Asia.
(ii) The country has a successful Democratic System.
(iii) This country has had both Civilian and Military rulers.
(iv) This country had Constitutional Monarchy.
(v) An Island nation which was a Sultanate till 1968.
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Answer:

Sr. no. of the Information used	Alphabet concerned	Name of the State
(i)	B	China
(ii)	D	Sri Lanka
(iii)	E	Bangladesh
(iv)	A	Nepal
(v)	C	Maldives

Question 22.
Highlight any three positive and three negative features each of the Soviet system in the soviet Union. [6]
OR
How far is it correct to say the international alliances during the Cold War era were determined by the requirements of the superpower and the calculations of the smaller states? Explain.
Answer:
Positive features :

Soviet system was more developed than rest of the world except USA.
Minimum standard of living was ensured for all the citizens.
The Govt, subsidized the basic needs including health, education, child care & other welfare schemes.
There was no unemployment.

Negative features :

System was very bureaucratic and authoritarian.
There was lack of democracy and mainly absence of freedom of speech.
There was only one party system (Communist party of Soviet Union).
The party did not recognize the aspirations and feelings of people.

OR
Superpowers used their military power to bring countries into their fold.

Soviet Union used its influence in Eastern Europe backed by the large armies of countries of its alliance. .
On the other hand, the United States built alliance called SEATO and CENTO on the question of North Vietnam, North Korea and Iraq, Russia and China came closer.
Eastern alliance known as Warsaw Pact was led by USSR, came into existence in 1995. Alliances were made for the requirement of vital national resources.
Superpowers needed territories to launch their weapons and troops. In return they helped them in many ways.
Smaller states wanted financial, territorial and political security and that was why, they joined the power blocs. This guaranteed them a safe and secure future.

Question 23.
Analyse the three different views within India about the type of relationship India should have with the United States of America. [6]
OR
Evaluate any three major factors responsible for making the European Union a political force being an economic force. [6]
Answer:

Both India and US can prove beneficial for each other in terms of economy and politics.
India should take advantage of US hegemony ‘ and national understandings to establish best possible options for itself.
India should take the lead in establishing a coalition of countries from developing world.
Both US and India should established stronger trade relationships between themselves.
However one view says that India should maintain its aloofness from the US, and should focus upon inceasing its own comprehensive national power.

The Council of Europe established in 1949 was a step forward in political cooperation.
European Economic Community in 1957 acquired a political discussion leading to creation of European Parliament.
Disintegration of Soviet Union put Europe on a fast track and resulted in the establishment of the European Union in 1992.
It has its own flag, anthem, founding date and currency.
EU being the world’s biggest economy has its own political influence also.

Question 24.
Describe any three international challenging issues that can only be dealt with when all the countries work together. [6]
OR
What is meant by traditional notion of external security ? Describe any two components of this type of security.
Answer:
The three international challenging issues :
(i) Terrorism refers to political violence that targets civilians deliberately and indiscriminately. International terrorism involves the citizens or territory of more than one country. Terrorist groups seek to change a political context or condition that they do not like by force or threat of force. Civilian targets are usually chosen to terrorise the public and to use the unhappiness of the public as a weapon against national governments or other parties in conflict.

(ii) Human rights have come to be classified into three types. The first type is political rights such as freedom of speech and assembly. The second type is economic and social rights. The third type is the rights of colonised people of ethnic and indigenous minorities. Another threat is the violation of human rights. Since the 1990s, developments such as Iraq’s invasion of Kuwait, the genocide in Rwanda, and the Indonesian military’s killing of people in East Timor have led to a debate on whether or not the UN should intervene to stop human rights abuses.

(iii) Global poverty is another source of insecurity. World population—now at 650 crore—will reach 700 to 800 crore within 25 years and may eventually level out at 900 to 1000 crore. Poverty in the South has also led to large-scale migration to seek a better life, especially better economic opportunities, in the North. This has created international political frictions.
OR
Traditional conception of external security is mainly when military actions from other countries threaten the peace and security of a country’. Basic values of sovereignty, independence and territorial integrity is questioned in such cases. Not only soldiers but ordinary citizens are also at risk.

When war breaks out, Government has a choice to defend itself, by surrendering when actually confronted by war. This prevents the war and is known as the policy of deterrence.
Governments can also choose to avoid the war completely, by refusing to fight, rather by negotiation,
Governments may choose to form alliances with powerful neighbouring countries to ensure peace and balance of power. Negotiation etc, is involved and military, economic and technological power are maintained and enhanced.

Question 25.
“The accommodation of regional-demands and the formation of linguistic states were also seen as more democratic.” Justify the statement with three suitable arguments. [6]
OR
Examine the different areas of agreement and disagreement with respect to the model of economic development to be adopted in India after independence.
Answer:
Arguments to justify the statement:

It is almost 60 years that the formation of linguistic states have changed the nature of democratic politics in a positive and constructive way.
Formation on the basis of language became a uniform basis for drawing the state boundaries.
It has united the country rather than causing it to disintegration.
Regional aspirations when fulfilled, give strength to the people and make democracy a success. Many regional aspirations are being accommodated to strengthen the democracy.

OR
Areas of Agreement:

Development of India should mean both economic growth and social and economic justice.
The matter of development cannot be left to businessmen, industrialists and farmers only but the government should play key role.
The task of poverty alleviation and social and economic redistribution was seen as the primary responsibility of government.

Areas of disagreement:

Disagreement on the kind of role to be played by the government.
Disagreement over the importance attached to the needs of justice if it differed from the economic growth.
Disagreement on the issue of giving priority to industries v/ s agriculture and private v/ s public sector.

Question 26.
Analyse the circumstances that favoured Indira Gandhi to become Prime Minister after the death of Lai Bahadur Shastri. Mention any four achievements of Indira Gandhi that made her popular as a Prime Minister. [6]
OR
Analyse the circumstances responsible for the declaration of a state of emergency in India on 25 th June, 1975.
Answer:

Indira Gandhi was the daughter of popular ex-Prime Minister J.L. Nehru.
She became Congress President in 1958.
She had been Union Minister for information in Shastri’s cabinet from 1964-66. Her personality was powerful and she was a very capable leader people saw her as a successful politician who could handle.

Four Achievements:

She had given a famous positive slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’.
She focused on growth of public sector.
She had imposed the ceiling on rural land holdings and urban property to remove disparities in income and opportunity.
She had abolished the princely privileges to prevail the principles of equality and social and economic justice.
Decisive victory in the 1971 ’s India-Pakistan war soared Indira Gandhi’s popularity.
First nuclear explosion in 1974 also increased her popularity.

OR
Circumstances that led to imposition of emergency :

Clash between the executive (Government) and judiciary.
The government diverted all energies for the maintenance of law and order, as a result development was not taking place.
Students’ movements in Bihar and Gujarat against price rise and corruption.
Railway strike led by George Fernandes.
A big rally at Ram Lila Maidan was organised and call to the employees including police/army not to obey the undemocratic orders.
Judgments of Allahabad High Court setting aside the election of Indira Gandhi.
All these led to the atmosphere of distrust against Indira Gandhi who hurriedly tried to save her position by imposing emergency.

Question 27.
Describe any six factors which made the farmers movement run by Bharatiya Kisan Union as the most successful popular movement. [6]
OR
Which three lessons do we learn from regional aspirations and their accommodation as an integral part of democratic politics? Describe. [6]
Answer:

Kisan Andolan led by BKU was one of the most disciplined agitation.
BKU used traditional caste panchayats to bring them together on economic issues.
BKU used clan networks for generating funds and resources. ‘
The demands raised by BKU were very clear to farmers and were readily accepted by the farmers.
BKU kept itself a political and worked as a pressure group.
BKU used the pressure tactics and showed the strength and power of the farmers.

OR
Lessons :

Regional aspirations are a very important part of democratic politics and expression of regional issues is a normal phenomenon.
Democratic negotiations are the best way to resolve the regional issues.
Regional matters can be resolved by power sharing within constitutional framework.
Regional balance and economic development decrease the feeling of regional discrimination. Therefore the problem of backwardness of regions should be addressed at a priority.
Constitutional provisions already incorporated resolving of regional issues. The sixth schedule of the Constitution allows different tribes complete autonomy of preserving their practices and customary laws.
Federation should be given respect in true sense.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2016 Delhi Set – II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 6.
What is meant by Cuban Missile Crisis ? [2]
Answer:
The Cuban missile crisis was a 13 day confrontation between the U.S.A. and Soviet Union, initiated by American ballistic missile deployment in Italy and Turkey, with consequent Soviet ballistic missile deployment in Cuba.

This confrontation is often considered, the closest the cold war came to escalating into a full-scale nuclear war. The two world leaders who played a crucial role in this crisis were President Khrushchev of USSR and John F. Kennedy of U.S.A.

Question 11.
Mention any four significant changes in Indo-China relations that have taken place after the Cold War. [4]
Answer:

Their relations now have a strategic as well as an economic dimension.
Both view themselves as rising powers in global politics.
Both would now like to play a major role in Asian economy and politics.
Bilateral trade between India and China has increased from $ 338 million in 1992 to more than $ 18 billion in 2006.

Question 12.
What is the full form of WTO? When was it set up? How does it function ? [4]
Answer:
Full form of WTO is “World Trade Organisation”. Its an international organisation set up on 1st January, 1995 as the successor to the general agreement on trade and tariffs. In brief, the WTO is the only international organisation dealing with the global rules of trade between nations. Its main function is to ensure that trade flows as smoothly, predictably and freely as possible. But the major economic powers such as US, European Union and Japan have managed to use the WTO to frame rules of trade in advance in their own interest.

Question 13.
“The Indian Government is already participating in global efforts through a number of programmes related to environmental issues.” Give any four examples to support the statement. [4]
Answer:

India’s National Auto Fuel Policy mandates cleaner fuels for automobiles.
The Energy Conservation Act, passed in 2001, outlines initiatives to improve energy efficiency.
The Electricity Act of 2003 encourages the use of renewable energy.
Recent trends in importing natural gas and encouraging the adoption of clean coal technologies show that India has been making real efforts to address environmental issues.

Question 14.
Highlight the circumstances that compelled the socialists to form a separate Socialist Party in 1948. Mention any two grounds on which they criticized the Congress Party. [4]
Answer:
The Congress Socialist Party was formed within the Congress in 1934. In 1948, the Congress amended its constitution to prevent its members from having a dual party membership. This forced the Socialists to form a separate Socialist Party in 1948.

They criticized the Congress for favouring capitalists and landlords and for ignoring the workers and the peasants.

Question 24.
Describe the two basic reforms of the U.N. on which almost everyone agrees that they are necessary after the Cold War. [6]
OR
Explain balance of Power as component of traditional security policy. How could a state achieve this balance ?
Answer:
Two basic reforms:
(i) Reform of the organisation’s structures and processes- On this, the biggest discussion has been on the functioning of the Security Council. Demand for increase in Council’s permanent and non-permanent membership. US and other western countries want improvements in the UN’s budgetary procedures and it.s administration.

(ii) Review of the issues that fall within the jurisdiction of the UN. Some countries want the organization to play greater or more effective role in peace and security missions while others want its role to be confined to development and humanitarian work.
OR
Balance of Power: When countries find bigger and stronger countries around them, they to who might t be a threat in the future. For instance, a neighbouring country may not say it is preparing for an attack, but the fact that this country is very powerful is a sign, that at some point in the future it may choose to be aggressive. Governments are therefore, sensitive to the balance of power between their country and other countries power with other countries,

They work hard to maintain a favourable balance of power with other countries, especially those close by, those with whom they have differences, or with those they have had conflict in the past. A good part of maintaining a balance of power is to build up one’s military power, although economic and technological power are also important.

Question 27.
Describe the issues associated with the Anti-arrack Movements in Andhra Pradesh which drew the attention of the entire country. [6]
OR
Describe the advantages of democratic approach to the question of diversity in uniting a large country like India.
Answer:
A women’s protest against the sale of alcohol was organized in Andhra Pradesh. It demanded prohibition on sale of arrack. This demand was linked to social, economic and political issues of the region which affected women’s lives. Groups of local women tried to address the issue of nexus between crime and politics. They also dealt with the issue of domestic violence emerged due to consumption of alcohol, or the destruction of rural economy which happened because of their habit of drinking. It became a part of a women’s movement.

This movement was a spontaneous mobilisation of women demanding a ban on sale of alcohol in neighbouring places. The movement emerged because of the adult literacy drive which encouraged the women enrolled to fight against the injustice meted out to them, along with the gender discrimination they were facing.
The movement demanded equal representation of women in politics.
OR
India adopted a democratic approach to support its diverse population. Democracy allows the political expressions of regional aspirations and does not look upon them as anti-national. There is one basic principle of the Indian regional and linguistic groups to retain their own culture. With a democratic approach, we live a united social life without losing the diversity of the numerous cultures that constitute it. Indian nationalism sought to balance the principles of unity and diversity. Regional issues and problems receives adequate attention and accomodation in the policy making process.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 12 Political Science 2016 Delhi Set – III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in previous set.

Question 6.
Which two ideologies were involved in a conflict during the Cold War era and why ? [2]
Answer:
An ideological conflict was between the communist Soviet Union and the capitalist liberal democratic United States. The Soviet tlnion was a communist country, which was ruled by a dictator, whereas U.S.A. was a capitalist democracy, which valued freedom and feared corhmunism.

Question 11.
While the Chinese economy has improved dramatically, why has every Chinese not received the benefits of the reforms ? Give any four reasons. [4]
Answer:
Reasons are :

Unemployment has risen.
Work conditions were not good.
Environmental degradation increased.
Corruption has also increased. .

Question 12.
Why do some countries question tne issue of India’s inclusion as a permanent member of the U.N. Security Council? Explain. [4]
Answer:

Strained relations with Pakistan.
Some countries are concerned about India’s nuclear capabilities.
China is also not in favor of India due to strategic reasons.
If India is accommodated, other developing countries will also ask for permanent membership.
Some others feel that Africa and South America must be represented before India receives representation.

Question 13.
Explain the role of environmental Movements to meet the challenge of Environmental Degradation. [4]
Answer:
(i) Some of the environmental movements work at the international level whereas most of them work at the local level. They are amongst the most vibrant, diverse and powerful social movements across the globe. It is within social movements that new forms of political action are created or reinvented.

(ii) These movements raise new ideas and long term visions of what one should do and what one should not do in our individual their lives.

(iii) Some examples are the forest movements of the south, in Mexico, Chile, Brazil, Malasiya and India against forest cleaning which is rising at an alarming rate. Minerals industry movements regarding use of chemicals, pollution of waterways, displacement of communities are making news in this category.

(iv) Another group of movements are those involved in struggles against mega-dams. Anti-dam movements are pro-river movements for more sustainable and equitable management of river systems and valleys.

Question 14.
How did the coalition like character of the Congress Party give it an unusual strength ? [4]
Answer:

A coalition accommodates all those who join it and helps in striking a balance on almost all issues.
There is a greater tolerance of internal differences and ambitions of various groups and leaders are accommodated.
This character of Congress helped it to retain a party inside it even if a group was not happy.
Internal factionalism became a strength of the Congress Party, which is usually a weakness.

Question 24.
State any six post Cold War changes that have necessitated reforms to make the U.N. work better. [6]
OR
What is meant by traditional notions of internal and external security ? [6]
Answer:
Presently, United Nation has 193 member states. The UN’s most visible public figure, and the representative had, is the General secretary Antonio Guterres who is the ex Prime Minister of Portugal. Reform and improvements are fundamental to any organisation to serve the needs of a changing environment and post cold war changes has necessitated the reforms.

The UN was established in 1945 immediately after the Second World War. The way it was organised and the way it functioned reflected the realties of world politics after the Second World War. After the cold war, those realities are different. Here are some of the changes that have occurred :

The Soviet Union has collapsed.
The US is the strongest power.
The relationship between, Russia, and the US is much more cordial.
China is fast emerging as a great power, and India also is growing rapidly.
The economies of Asia are growing really fact.

OR
The Traditional notion of Security’ covers both the external and internal threats of a country’s security. Internal threats include maintenance of internal peace and security and order, to recognise cooperative security to limit violence, internal military actions and separatist movements. External security includes danger from outside military threats, deterrence, defence and balance of power and alliance building.

Traditional notion of Internal security:
Traditional security must also concern itself with internal security. After the Second World war, for the most powerful countries on earth, internal security’ was more or less assured. After 1945, the US and the Soviet Union appeared to be united and could expect peace within their borders. In Europe, most of the powerful countries faced no threat from groups or communities living within their borders. However, . newly independent countries of Asia and Africa faced problems of Civil war.

Traditional notion of external security:
The period after the Second World war was the Cold war period in which the US-led western alliance faced the Soviet- led Communist aAiahce. The two alliances feared a military attack from each other. Some European powers, in addition, continued to worry about violence in their colonies, from colonized people who wanted Independence.

Question 27.
What is Sardar Sarovar Project ? Which benefits are expected to be if the project becomes successful ? Also state the issues of rehabilitation and relocation associated with it. [6]
OR
While trying to forge and retain unity in diversity in India, there are many difficult issues which are yet to be tackled. Describe any three such areas of tension.
Answer:
Sardar Sarovar Project is an ambitious developmental project launched in the Narmada Valley. It’s a mega dam project consisting of 30 big dams, 135 medium dams and around 3000 small dam to be constructed in Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
Benefits :
(i) Water for irrigation: About 75% of the command area in Gujarat is drought prone, while entire command in Rajasthan is drought prone. Assured water supply will soon make this area drought free.
(ii) Generation of electricity.
(iii) Flood control: In addition to helping farmers, dams help in prevention of life and property caused by flooding. Flood control dams impound floodwaters and then either release them under control to the river below the dam or store or divert the water for other uses. For centuries, people have built dams to help control devastating floods.

Issues : About 245 villages have been affected and people belonging to these villages have to be relocated and rehabilitated. Resettlement sites lack basic facilities. Compensation to the displaced people, often comes in the form of land unsuitable for farming or living.
OR
(i) Areas of tension in the way of retaining unity in diversity’: The issue of Jammu and Kashmir. Some issues of North-East about which there was no consensus regarding them being a part of India or not. Strong movements in Nagaland and Mizoram demanding separation from India.

(ii) Mass agitations in many parts for the formation of new state on the basis of language.

(iii) First phase of nation building was not enough. New challenges came up in Punjab, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Uttrakhand.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Fractions Exercise 7.3

August 24, 2019, 4:30 am

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Fractions Exercise 7.3

Free download NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Ex 7.3 Fractions PDF for CBSE 2020 Exams.

You can also Download NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths to help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions Ex 7.3

Exercise 7.3

Question 1.
Write the fractions. Are all these fractions equivalent?
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Since all the fractions in their simplest form are not equal.
∴ They are not equivalent fractions.

Question 2.
Write the fractions and pair up the equivalent fractions from each row.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
The following pairs fractions:represent the equivalent fractions.
(a) and (ii) = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$
(b) and (iv) = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 2 }{ 3 }$
(c) and (i) = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 3 }$
(d) and (v) = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 4 }$
(e) and (iii) = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 4 }$

Question 3.
Replace Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions in each of the following by the correct number:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.

Question 4.
Find the equivalent fraction of Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 5 }$ having
(a) denominator 20
(b) numerator 9
(c) denominator 30
(d) numerator 27
Solution:
(a) Here, we require denominator 20.
Let N be the numerator of the fractions.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
∴ The required fraction is Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 12 }{ 20 }$

(b) Here, we required numerator 9.
Let D be the denominator of the fraction.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
∴ The required fraction is Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 9 }{ 15 }$ .

(c) Here, we required denominator 30.
Let N be the numerator of the fraction.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
∴ The required fraction is Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 18 }{ 30 }$ .

(d) Here, we required numerator 27.
Let D be the denominator of the fraction.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
∴ The required fraction is Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 27 }{ 45 }$ .

Question 5.
Find the equivalent fraction of Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 36 }{ 48 }$ with
(a) numerator 9
(b) denominator 4
Solution:
(a) Given that numerator = 9
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
So, the equivalent fraction is Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 9 }{ 12 }$ .

(b) Given that denominator = 4
∴ Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { N }{ 4 }$ = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 36 }{ 48 }$ ⇒ N x 48 = 4 x 36
⇒ N = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 4 x 36 }{ 48 }$ = 3
So, the equivalent fraction is Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 4 }$ .

Question 6.
Check whether the given fractions are equivalent:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Solution:
(a) Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 5 }{ 9 }$ and Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 30 }{ 54 }$
We have 5 x 54 = 270
and 9 x 30 = 270
Here 5 x 54 = 9 x 30
∴ Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 5 }{ 9 }$ and Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 30 }{ 54 }$ are equivalent fractions.

(b) Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 10 }$ and Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 12 }{ 50 }$
We have 3 x 50 = 150
and 10 x 12 = 120
Here 3 x 50 ≠ 10 x 12
∴ Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 10 }$ and Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 12 }{ 50 }$ are not equivalent fractions.

(c) Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 7 }{ 13 }$ and Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 5 }{ 11 }$
We have 7 x 11 = 77 and 5 x 13 = 65
Here 7 x 11 ≠ 5 x 13
∴ Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 7 }{ 13 }$ and Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 5 }{ 11 }$ are not equivalent fractions.

Question 7.
Reduce the following fractions to simplest form:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.

Question 8.
Ramesh had 28 pencils, Sheelu had 50 pencils and Jamaal had 80 pencils. After 4 months, Ramesh used up 10 pencils, Sheelu used up 25 pencils and Jamaal used up 40 pencils. What fraction did each use up? Check if each has used up an equal fraction of her/his pencils.
Solution:
Ramesh used up 10 pencils out of 20 pencils.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Sheelu used up 25 pencils out of 50 pencils.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Jamaal used up 40 pencils out of 80 pencils.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Yes, each has used up an equal fractions, i.e., Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ .

Question 9.
Match the equivalent fractions and write two more for each.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Two additional examples of equivalent fractions are
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Two additional examples of equivalent fractions are
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Two additional examples of equivalent fractions are
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Two additional examples of equivalent fractions are
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Two additional examples of equivalent fractions are
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions

Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT-Solutions-For-Class-6-Maths-Fractions-Exercise-7.3-01
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT-Solutions-For-Class-6-Maths-Fractions-Exercise-7.3-08
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.

NCERT Solutions Maths Science Social English Hindi Sanskrit RD Sharma

The post NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Fractions Exercise 7.3 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Fractions Exercise 7.4

August 24, 2019, 4:30 am

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Fractions Exercise 7.4

Free download NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Ex 7.4 Fractions PDF for CBSE 2020 Exams.

You can also Download NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths to help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions Ex 7.4

Exercise 7.4

Question 1.
Write shaded portion as fraction. Arrange them in ascending and descending order using correct sign ‘<‘, ‘=’, ‘>’ between the fractions.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
(c) Show Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 2 }{ 4 }$ , Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 4 }{ 6 }$ , Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 8 }{ 6 }$ and Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 6 }{ 6 }$ on the number line. Put appropriate signs between the fractions given.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Solution:
(a) Total number of divisions = 8
(i) Number of shaded parts = 3
∴ Fraction = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 8 }$

(ii) Total number of divisions = 8
Number of shaded parts = 6
∴ Fraction = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 6 }{ 8 }$

(iii) Total number of divisions = 8
Number of shaded parts = 4
∴ Fraction = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 4 }{ 8 }$

(iv) Total number of divisions = 8
Number of shaded part = 1
∴ Fraction = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 8 }$
Now the fractions are:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 8 }$ , Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 6 }{ 8 }$ , Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 4 }{ 8 }$ and Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 8 }$ with same denominator.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
(b)(i) Total number of divisions = 9
Number of shaded parts = 8
∴ Fraction = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 8 }{ 9 }$
(ii) Total number of divisions = 9
Number of shaded parts = 4
∴ Fraction = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 4 }{ 9 }$
(iii) Total number of divisions = 9
Number of shaded parts = 3
∴ Fraction = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 9 }$
(iv) Total number of divisions = 9
Number of shaded parts = 6
∴ Fraction = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 6 }{ 9 }$
∴ Fractions are Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 8 }{ 9 }$ , Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 4 }{ 9 }$ , Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 9 }$ , Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 6 }{ 9 }$ with same denominator.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions

Question 2.
Compare the fractions and put an appropriate sign.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Here, denominators of the two fractions are same and 3 < 5.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Here, numerators of the fractions are same and 7 > 4.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Here, denominators of the two fractions are same and 4 < 5.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Here, numerators of the two fractions are same and 5 < 7.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.

Question 3.
Make five more such pairs and put appropriate signs.
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions

Question 4.
Look at the figures and write ’<’, or ’>’ ’=’ between the given pairs of fractions.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Make five more such problems and solve them with your friends
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Make five more such problems yourself and solve them with your friends.

Question 5.
How quickly can you do this? Fill appropriate sign. ‘<‘, ‘=’, ‘>’.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Question 6.
The following fractions represent just three different numbers. Separate them into three groups of equivalent fractions, by changing each one to its simplest form.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Now grouping the above fractions into equivalent fractions, we have
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.

Question 7.
Find answers to the following. Write and indicate how you solved them.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
By cross-multiplying, we get
5 x 5 = 25 and 4 x 9 = 36
Since 25 ≠ 36
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
By cross-multiplying, we get
9 x 9 = 81 and 16 x 5 =80
Since 81 ≠ 80
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
By cross-multiplying, we get
4 x 20 = 80 and 5 x 16 = 80
Since 80 = 80
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
By cross-multiplying, we get
1 x 30 = 30 and 4 x 15 = 60
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.

Question 8.
Ila read 25 pages of a book containing 100 pages.
Lalita read Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 2 }{ 5 }$ of the same book. Who read less?
Solution:
Ila reads 25 pages out of 100 pages.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Lalita reads Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 2 }{ 5 }$ of the same book.
Comparing Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 4 }$ and Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 2 }{ 5 }$ , we get
1 x 5 = 5 and 2 x 4 = 8
Since 5 < 8
∴ Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 4 }$ < Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 2 }{ 5 }$
Hence Ila reads less pages.

Question 9.
Rafiq exercised for Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 6 }$ of an hour, while Rohit exercised for Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 4 }$ of an hour. Who exercised for a longer time?
Solution:
Rafiq exercised for Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 6 }$ of an hour.
Rohit exercised for Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 4 }$ of an hour.
Comparing Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 6 }$ and Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 4 }$ , we get
3 x 4 = 12 and 3 x 6 = 18
Since 12 < 18
∴ Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 4 }$ > Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 6 }$
Hence Rohit exercised for longer time.

Question 10.
In a class A of 25 students, 20 passed in first class, in another class B of 30 students, 24 passed in first class. In which class was a greater fraction of students getting first class?
Solution:
In class A, 20 students passed in first class out of 25 students.
∴ Fraction of students getting first class
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
In class B, 24 students passed in first class out of 30 students.
∴ Fraction of students getting first class
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Comparing the two fractions, we get Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 4 }{ 5 }$ = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 4 }{ 5 }$
Hence, both the class A and B have the same fractions.

Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT-Solutions-For-Class-6-Maths-Fractions-Exercise-7.4-01
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT-Solutions-For-Class-6-Maths-Fractions-Exercise-7.4-08
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT-Solutions-For-Class-6-Maths-Fractions-Exercise-7.4-15
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.

NCERT Solutions Maths Science Social English Hindi Sanskrit RD Sharma

The post NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Fractions Exercise 7.4 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Fractions Exercise 7.6

August 24, 2019, 4:30 am

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NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Fractions Exercise 7.6

Free download NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Ex 7.6 Fractions PDF for CBSE 2020 Exams.

You can also Download NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths to help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions Ex 7.6

Exercise 7.6

Question 1.
Solve
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Question 2.
Sarita bought Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 2 }{ 5 }$ metre of ribbon and Lalita Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 4 }$ metre of ribbon. What is the total length of the ribbon they bought?
Solution:
Length of ribbon bought by Sarita = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 2 }{ 5 }$ metre
Length of ribbon bought by Lalita = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 3 }{ 4 }$ metre
∴ Length of ribbon bought by Sarita and Lalita
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Hence, the required length = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 23 }{ 20 }$ metre

Question 3.
Naina was given 1Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ piece of cake and Najma was given 1Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 3 }$ piece of cake. Find the total amount of cake was given to both of them.
Solution:
Piece of cake given to Naina = 1Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac 1{ 1 }{ 2 }$
Piece of cake given to Najma = 1Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac 1{ 1 }{ 3 }$
Piece of cake given to Naina and Najma
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Hence the total amount of piece given to both = 2Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 5 }{ 6 }$ .

Question 4.
Fill in the boxes:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Here, missing number is Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 4 }$ more than Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 5 }{ 8 }$ .
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Here, missing number is Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ more than Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 5 }$ .
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Here, missing number is Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 6 }$ less than Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ .
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions

Question 5.
Complete the addition-subtraction box.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Solution:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Thus the box may be completed as follows:
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.

Question 6.
A piece of wire Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 7 }{ 8 }$ metre long broke into two pieces. One piece was Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 4 }$ metre long. How long is the other piece?
Solution:
Total length of the wire = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 7 }{ 8 }$ metre
Length of one piece of wire = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 4 }$ metre
∴ Length of the other piece = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 7 }{ 8 }$ – Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 4 }$
LCM of 8 and 4 = 8
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Hence, the length of the other piece = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 5 }{ 8 }$ metre.

Question 7.
Nandini’s house is Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 9 }{ 10 }$ km from her school. She walked some distance and then took a bus for Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ km to reach the school. How far did she walk?
Solution:
Total distance from house to school = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 9 }{ 10 }$ km.
Distance travelled by Nandini by bus = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 2 }$ km
∴ Distance travelled by her on foot
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Hence, the distance travelled by her on foot = Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 2 }{ 5 }$ km.

Question 8.
Asha and Samuel have bookshelves of the same size partly filled with books. Asha’s shelf is Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 5 }{ 6 }$ th full and Samuel’s shelf is Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 2 }{ 5 }$ th full. Whose bookshelf is more full? By what fraction?
Solution:
Asha’s shelf is Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 5 }{ 6 }$ th full
and Samuel’s shelf is Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 2 }{ 5 }$ th full
Comparing Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 5 }{ 6 }$ and Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 2 }{ 5 }$
LCM of 6 and 5 = 30
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Hence, Asha’s shelf is full more than Samuel’s shelf.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Hence, Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 13 }{ 30 }$ th fraction is more full of Asha’s shelf.

Question 9.
Jaidev takes 2Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 5 }$ minutes to walk across the school ground. Rahul takes Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 7 }{ 4 }$ minutes to do the same. Who takes less time and by what fraction?
Solution:
Jaidev takes 2Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 5 }$ minutes 5
Rahul takes 2Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 7 }{ 4 }$ minutes
Comparing 2Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 1 }{ 5 }$ minutes and Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 7 }{ 4 }$ minutes
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT Solutions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 7 Fractions
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
So, the time take to cover the same distance by Rahul is less than that of Jaidev.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Hence, Rahul takes Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. $\frac { 9 }{ 20 }$ minutes less to across the school ground.

Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT-Solutions-For-Class-6-Maths-Fractions-Exercise-7.6-01
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view. NCERT-Solutions-For-Class-6-Maths-Fractions-Exercise-7.6-08
Image may be NSFW.
Clik here to view.

NCERT Solutions Maths Science Social English Hindi Sanskrit RD Sharma

The post NCERT Solutions For Class 6 Maths Fractions Exercise 7.6 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

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