NCERT  Exemplar problems for Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Short Answer Questions

Question 1. Why does a light ray incident on a rectangular glass slab immersed in any medium emerges parallel to itself? Explain using a diagram.
Answer. Due to variation in speed of light in different medium, light bends as it moves from One medium to another. Since, there are two surfaces for refraction which are parallel, the light ray should bend in opposite sense in them equally, the emerging light ray is always parallel to the incident ray.

Question 2. A pencil when dipped in water in a glass tumbler appears to be bent at the interface of air and water. Will the pencil appears to be bent to the same extent, if instead of water we use liquids like, kerosene or turpentine. Support your answer with reason.
Answer. No, it will depend on the refractive index of the liquid in which the pencil is dipped. The tip at the bottom will get elevated as per the relation.

Question 3. Refractive index of diamond with respect to glass is 1.6 and absolute refractive index of glass is 1.5. Find out the absolute refractive index of diamond.
Answer.

Question 4. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm can produce a magnified virtual as well as real image. Is this a correct statement? If yes, where shall the object be placed in each case for obtaining these images?
Answer. Yes, for getting virtual image the object has to be placed between the optical centre and the focus. For real and enlarged image, the object should be placed between F and 2F.

Question 5. Under what condition in an arrangement of two plane mirrors, incident ray and reflected ray will always be parallel to each other, whatever may be angle of incidence. Show the same with the help of diagram.
Answer. When the two mirrors are placed at 90° to each other, the incident and the reflected rays will remain parallel to each other.

Long Answer Questions

Question 6. Draw ray diagrams showing the image formation by a convex mirror when an object is placed
(a) at infinity
(b) at finite distance from the mirror
Answer.

Question 7. The image of a candle flame formed by a lens is obtained on a screen placed on the other side of the lens. If the image is three times the size of the flame and the distance between lens and image is 80 cm, at what distance should the candle be placed from the lens? What is the nature of the image at a distance of 80 cm and the lens?
Answer.

Question 8. Define power of a lens. What is its unit? One student uses a lens of focal length 50 cm and another of -50 cm. What is the nature of the lens and its power used by each of them?
Answer. Power of a lens: The ability of a lens to converge or diverge the light rays is called power (P) of the lens. It is defined as the reciprocal of the focal length, i.e. f=1/f .The SI unit of power of a lens is dioptre (D). A lens of focal length 100 cm has a power of 1 dioptre, i.e. 1 dioptre = 1 m^-1. The lens of focal length +50 cm has a power of +2 D and is convex while the other is having a power of -2 D and is concave.

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 NCERT Exemplar problems for Class 10 Science Chapter 4 Carbon and its Compounds

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Short Answer Questions

Question.1 Draw the electron dot structure of ethyne and also draw its structural formula.
Answer.

Question.2 Write the names of the following compounds.


Answer.
(a) Pentanoic acid (b) 1-Butyne
(c) Heptanal (d) 1-Pentanol

Question.3 Identify and name the functional groups present in the following compounds.


Answer.

Question.4 A compound X is formed by the reaction of a carboxylic acid C₂H₄O₂ and an alcohol in presence of a few drops of H₂SO₄. The alcohol on oxidation with alkaline KMnO₄ followed by acidification gives the same carboxylic acid as used in this reaction. Give the names and structures of
(a) carboxylic acid, (6) alcohol and (c) the compound X. Also write the
reaction.
Answer.

Question.5 Why detergents are better cleansing agents than soaps? Explain.
Answer. It is because detergents form lot of lather even with hard water.
Hard water contains Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions which react with soap to form insoluble salts of calcium and magnesium called scum and soap goes waste. Detergents do not form insoluble compounds with  Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions, therefore, these are more effective.

Question.6 Intake of small quantity of methanol can be lethal. Comment.
Answer. Methanol is oxidised to methanal in liver.’ Methanal is highly reactive and good reducing agent. It causes protoplasm to coagulate. It also affects optic nerve and leads to blindness.

Question.7 A gas is evolved when ethanol reacts with sodium. Name the gas evolved and also write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction involved.
Answer. Hydrogen gas is evolved.

Question.8 Catenation is the ability of an atom to form bonds with other atoms of the same element. It is exhibited by both carbon and silicon. Compare the ability of catenation of the two elements. Give reasons.
Answer. Carbon shows catenation to large extent as compared to silicon as well as any other element due to smaller size of carbon. C—C bond is stronger than Si-Si bond because Si is larger in size, forms wea’ker bond.

Question.9 Match the reactions given in Column (A) with the names given in Column (B).

Answer.
(a) – (iv) is esterification reaction because ester is being formed from carboxylic acid and alcohol.
(b) – (i) is addition reaction as hydrogen is being added.
(c) – (ii) is substitution reaction because hydrogen of methane is being substituted by
chlorine atom.
(d) – (iii) is neutralisation reaction because acetic acid reacts with sodium hydroxide to form salt and water.

Question.10 What is the role of metal or reagents written on arrows in the given chemical reactions?

Answer.
(a) Ni is used as a catalyst.
(b) Cone. H₂SO₄ acts as a dehydrating agent.
(c) Alkaline KMnO₄ is an oxidising agent.

Long Answer Questions

Question.11 (a) Write the formula and draw electron dot structure of carbon tetrachloride.
(b) What is saponification? Write the reaction involved in this process.
Answer.

Question.12 A compound ‘C’ (molecular formula, C₂H₄O₂) reacts with Na-metal to form a compound ‘R’ and evolves a gas which burns with a pop sound. Compound ‘C’ on treatment with an alcohol ‘A’ in presence of an acid forms a sweet smelling compound ‘S’ (molecular formulaC₃H₆O₂). On addition of NaOH to ‘C’, it also gives ‘R’ and water. ‘S’ on treatment with NaOH solution gives back ‘R’ and ‘A’.
Identify ‘C’, ‘R’, ‘A’, ‘S’ and write down the reactions involved.
Answer.

Question.13 How would you bring about the following conversions? Name the process and write the reaction involved.
(a) Ethanol to ethene
(b) Propanol to propanoic acid
Answer.

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NCERT  Exemplar problems for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution

Short Answer Questions

Question 1. Do genetic combination of mothers play a significant role in determining the sex of new born?
Answer. No, mothers have no role in determining the sex of the new born. Mothers have a pair of X chromosome. And all children will inherit an ‘X’ chromosome from their mother regardless of whether they are boys or girls.

Question 2. Mention three important features of fossils which help in the study of evolution.
Answer. The three important features of fossils that help in the study of evolution are as follows:

1.  It helps in establishing the time period in which the organisms lived.
2.  It helps in establishing evolutionary traits among organisms and their ancestors.
3.  It is the mode of preservation of the remains of ancient species.

Question 3. In human beings, the statistical probability of getting either a male or female child is 50 : 50. Give a suitable explanation.
Answer. The sex of a child is determined by the type of sex chromosome contributed by male gamete. The statistical probability of getting either a male or female child is 50: 50, because the ratio of male gametes containing X chromosome and those containing Y chromosome is 50 : 50.

Question 4. What are homologous structures? Give an example. Is it necessary that homologous structures always have a common ancestor?
Answer. Homologous organs are those organs which have the same basic structural design and developmental origin but have different functions and appearance. Example: The forelimb of a frog, a lizard, a bird and a man seem to be built from the same basic design of bones, but they perform different functions.
Yes, it is necessary that homologous structures always have a common ancestor in order to carry out the different activities. Otherwise there cannot be any similarity in basic plan, internal structure, development or origin.

Question 5. Does the occurrence of diversity of animals on earth suggest their diverse ancestry also? Discuss this point in the light of evolution.
Answer. Diversity of animals does not mean that they have diverse ancestry because common ancestry greatly limit the extent of diversity. If the animals are inhabiting in the same habitat their evolution by speciation and geographical isolation is also not likely. Animals having a common ancestor have developed new traits forming various groups of animals.

Question 6. A woman has only daughters. Analyse the situation genetically and provide a suitable explanation.
Answer. The women produces ova with ‘X’ chromosome and man produces sperms with X and Y chromosome.
If the husband of the woman transfer X chromosome, then child will be a girl. On the other hand, if the husband transfer Y chromosome, the child will be a boy. In the case, the husband is always transferring X chromosome and hence, all the children are girl.

Long Answer Questions

Question 7. Give reasons why acquired characters are not inherited.
Answer. Acquired characters are not inherited because they do not produce change in the DNA of germ cells, only those characters which have a gene for them can be inherited.

Question 8. Does geographical isolation of individual of a species lead to formation of a new species? Provide a suitable explanation.
Answer. Yes, geographical isolation of individual of a species lead to the formation of a new species.
Geographical isolation of a population leads to genetic drift and there will be no gene flow between it and the parent species. Inbreeding in small population will reproduce among themselves and generate new variations. Accumulation of those variations over several generations will lead to formation of new species.

Question 9. Bacteria have a simpler body plan when compared with human beings. Does it mean that human beings are more evolved than bacteria? Provide a suitable explanation.
Answer. Both bacteria and human beings perform all activities of life to live in their environment. Human beings have more complex organisation and differentiation which are absent in bacteria. Since, complexity and differentiation develop only through evolution, humans are more evolved than bacteria.

Question 10. Evolution has exhibited a greater stability of molecular structure when compared with morphological structures. Comment on the statement and justify your opinion.
Answer. There is immense diversity in size, form, structure and morphological features in the living world. At the molecular level, these diverse types of organisms exhibit similarity of the basic bio molecules like DNA, RNA, carbohydrates, proteins, etc.

Question 11. Study the following cross and showing self-pollination in Flf fill in the blank and answer the question that follows (Q12, Q13 and Q14):

Answer. Rr Yy Round, yellow.

Question 12. In previous question, what are the combinations of character in the F2 progeny? What are their ratios?
Answer. Round yellow – 9, Round green – 3, Wrinkled yellow – 3 Wrinkled green – 1, Le. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.

Question 13. Give the basic features of the mechanism of inheritance.
Answer. Basic features for the mechanism of Inheritance are as follows:

1. Characters are controlled by genes,
2. Each gene controls one character.
3. Genes are located oh chromosomes.
4. There may be two or more forms of gene.
5. An individual possess two forms of genes whether similar or dissimilar.
6.  One form may be dominant over the other.
7. The two alleles separate at the time of gamete formation.
8. The two forms are brought together in the zygote.
9. Alleles of different genes located on separate chromosomes behave independent of one another.

Question 14. Give reasons for the appearance of new combinations of characters in the F2 progeny.
Answer. An organism can inherit each character independently. So, in the F2 progeny new combination of character appears. Tall/ Short and Round/Wrinkled seed trait are independently inherited.

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NCERT Exemplar problems for Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

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Short Answer Questions

Question.1 “Hydrogen occupies a unique position in the Modern Periodic Table”. Justify the statement.
Answer. Hydrogen resembles with both group 1 (Alkali metals) as well as group 17 (Halogens), therefore, it occupies a unique position in the Modern Periodic Table.

Question.2 Write the formula of chlorides of Eka-silicon and Eka-aluminium, the elements predicted by Mendeleev.
Answer.
Germanium is Eka-silicon. The formula isGeCl_4.
Gallium is Eka-aluminium. The formula is GaCl₃.

Question.3 Three elements A, B and C have 3, 4 and 2 electrons respectively in their outermost shell. Give the group number to which they belong in the Modern Periodic Table. Also, give their valencies
Answer.

Question.4 If an element X is placed in group 14, what will be the formula and the nature of bonding of its chloride?
Answer.‘X’ belongs to group 14, it has four valence electrons and valency is equal to 4.

The nature of bond is covalent.

Question.5 Compare the radii of two species X and Y. Give reasons for your answer.
(a) X has 12 protons and 12 electrons
(b) Y has 12 protons and 10 electrons
Answer. ‘X’ has 12 protons and 12 electrons. It has bigger atomic size as compared to
‘Y’ which has 12 protons and 10 electrons because effective nuclear charge is less in X than Y. Secondly, number of shells are more in ‘X’ than ‘Y’.
Therefore,
(a) ‘X’ has bigger atomic size.
(b) Y has smaller size as compared to ‘X’.

Question.6 Arrange the following elements in increasing order of their atomic radii,
(a) Li, Be, F, N
(b) Cl, At, Br, I
Answer. (a) F < N < Be < Li is increasing order of atomic size because atomic size decreases along a period from left to right.
(b) Cl < Br < I < At is increasing order of atomic size because atomic size increases down the group due to increase in number of shells.

Question.7 Identify and name the metals out of the following elements whose electronic configurations are given below.
(a) 2, 8, 2 (b) 2, 8. 1
(c) 2.8. 7 (d) 2. 1
Answer. (a) Magnesium (b) Sodium (c) Chlorine (d) Lithium
Metals are (a) Magnesium, (b) Sodium and (d) Lithium as they have 1 to 3 valence electrons. Whereas, (c) chlorine is a non-metal.

Question.8 Write the formula of the product formed when the element A (atomic number 19) combines with the element B (atomic number 17). Draw its electronic dot structure. What is the nature of the bond formed?
Answer.

Question.9 Arrange the following elements in the increasing order of their metallic character: Mg, Ca, K, Ge, Ga.
Answer. Ge < Ga < Mg < Ca < K is increasing order of metallic character. It is because ‘K’ can lose electron more easily due to larger size whereas, ‘Ge’ is smallest and cannot lose electrons.

Long Answer Questions

Question.10. An element is placed in 2nd Group and 3rd Period of the Periodic Table, burns in presence of oxygen to form a basic oxide,
(a) Identify the element.
(b) Write the electronic configuration.
(c) Write the balanced equation when it burns in the presence of air.
(d) Write a balanced equation when this oxide is dissolved in water.
(e) Draw the electron dot structure for the formation of this oxide.
Answer.

Question.11. An element X (atomic number 17) reacts with an element Y (atomic number 20) to form a divalent halide.
(a) Where in the periodic table are elements X and Y placed?
(b) Classify X and Y as metal(s), non- metal(s) or metalloid(s).
(c) What will be the nature of oxide of element Y? Identify the nature of bonding in the compound formed.
(d) Draw the electron dot structure of the divalent halide.
Answer.

(a) ‘X’ is in group 17 and 3rd period, ‘Y’ is in group 2 and 4th period.
(b) ‘X’ is non-metal and ‘Y’ is a metal.
(c) ‘Y’ forms basic oxide. It has ionic bonding in the compound formed.
(d) :X“Y”X: is the electron dot diagram.

Question.12. Atomic number of a few elements are given below.
10, 20, 7, 14
(a) Identify the elements. .
(b) Identify the Group number of these elements in the Periodic Table.
(c) Identify the Periods of these elements in the Periodic Table.
(d) What would be the electronic configuration for each of these elements?
(e) Determine the valency of these elements.
Answer.

Question.13 (i) Electropositive nature of the elements(s) increases down the group and decreases across the period.
(ii) Electronegativity of the element decreases down the group and increases across the period.
(iii) Atomic size increases down the group and decreases across a period (left to right).
(iv) Metallic character increases down the group and decreases across a period.
On the basis of the above trends of the Periodic Table, answer the following about the elements with atomic numbers 3 to 9.
(a) Name the most electropositive element among them.
(b) Name the most electronegative element.
(c) Name the element with smallest atomic size.
(d) Name the element which is a metalloid.
(e) Name the element which shows maximum valency.
Answer.
(a) Lithium (3)
(b) Fluorine (9)
(c) Fluorine (9)
(d) Boron (5)
(e) Carbon (6). Its valency is 4.

Question.14 An element X which is a yellow solid at room temperature shows catenation and allotropy. X forms two oxides which are also formed during the thermal decomposition of ferrous sulphate crystals and are the major air pollutants.
(a) Identify the element X.
(b) Write the electronic configuration of X.
(c) Write the balanced chemical equa-tion for the thermal decomposition of ferrous sulphate crystals.
(d) What would be the nature (acidic/ basic) of oxides formed?
(e) Locate the position of the element in the Modern Periodic Table.
Answer.

Question.15 An element X of group 15 exists as diatomic molecule and combines with hydrogen at 773 K in presence of the catalyst to form a compound, ammonia which has a characteristic pungent smell.
(a) Identify the element X. How many valence electrons does it have?
(b) Draw the electron dot structure of the diatomic molecule of X. What type of bond is formed in it?
(c) Draw the electron dot structure for ammonia and what type of bond is formed in it? .
Answer.

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NCERT Exemplar problems for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce ?

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Short Answer Questions

Question.1 In a bisexual flower, inspite of the young stamens being removed artificially, the flower produces fruit. Provide a suitable explanation for the above situation.
Answer. Removal of stamens of a bisexual flower will not affect pollination of its intact pistil and formation of fruit. Cross-pollination has occurred leading to fertilisation.

 Question. 2 Can you consider cell division as a type of reproduction in unicellular organism? Give one reason.
Answer. Yes, because cell division in a unicellular organism results in the formation of two daughter cells which means it produces more individuals of the organisms.

Question.3 Explain how, offspring and parents of organisms reproducing sexually have the same number of chromosomes.
Answer. The parents are diploid (2n) as each of them has two sets of chromosomes. They form haploid (1n) male and female gametes through the process of meiosis. The haploid gametes have one set of chromosomes. Since, these two gametes fuse during fertilisation, the original number of chromosomes is restored in the offspring.

Question. 4 Colonies of yeast fail to multiply in water, but multiply in sugar solution. Give one reason for this.
Answer. Energy is essential for any activity in living organisms. Sugar provides this energy for sustaining all life activities in yeasts. In water, it fails to reproduce because of inadequate energy in its cells. So, colonies of yeast fail to multiply in water but multiply in sugar solution.

Question. 5 Why does bread mould grow profusely on a moist slice of bread rather than on a dry slice of bread?
Answer.Bread mould require moisture and nutrients for its growth. A moist slice of bread contains both moisture and nutrients hence, it grows profusely as compared to a dry slice of bread which contains only nutrients but no moisture.

Question. 6 Give two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction.
Answer.

1.  In sexual reproduction, two parents have different sets of characters.
2. Gene combinations are different in gametes.

Question. 7 In tobacco plant, the male gametes have twenty four chromosomes. What is the number of chromosomes in the female gamete?
What is the number of chromosomes in the zygote?
Answer. The number of chromosomes in the female gamete is 24. The number of chromosomes in the zygote is 48.

Question. 8 Is the chromosome number of zygote,
embryonal cells and adult of a particular organism always constant? How is the constancy maintained in these three stages?
Answer. Yes, the chromosome number of zygote, embryonal cells and adult of a particular organism is always constant.
The constancy is maintained because the cells in all these three structures undergo only mitotic divisions.

Question. 9 How are general growth and sexual v maturation different from each other?
Answer. General growth is the growth of different types of developmental process in the body like increase in height, weight gain, changes in shape and size of the body.
Sexual maturation is a set of changes in body of an individual at puberty like cracking of voice, new hair patterns, development of breast in female, etc.

Question. 10 What would be the ratio of chromosome number between an egg and its zygote? How is the sperm genetically different from the egg?
Answer. The ratio of chromosome number between an egg and its zygote is 1: 2.
Sperm is genetically different from the egg in the way that it contains either X or Y chromosome whereas, an egg always contains an X chromosome.

Long Answer Questions

Question. 11 Distinguish between a gamete and zygote. Explain their roles in sexual reproduction.
Answer.

Role of Gamete in sexual reproduction — Gamete is the sex or germ cell specialised to take part in sexual reproduction. Fusion of male gamete with a female gamete produces a zygote. Role of Zygote in sexual reproduction — Zygote develops into embryo that later forms the new individual.

Question. 12 What is placenta? Mention its role during pregnancy?
Answer. Placenta is a special tissue that develops between the uterine wall and the embryo (foetus).
The role of placenta during pregnancy is as follows:

1.  Placenta attaches the foetus to uterine wall.
2.  It possesses villi that increases the surface area for fixation and absorption.
3.  It facilitates the passage of nutrition and oxygen to embryo from mother through blood.
4.  Waste substances produced by embryo (foetus) are removed through placenta into mother’s blood.

Question. 13 How does fertilisation take place? Fertilisation occurs once in a month. Comment.
Answer. Fertilisation takes place in the following ways:

1. The sperm enters through the vaginal passage during sexual intercourse and moves upward.
2. Egg released from the ovary reaches the oviduct.
3. Sperm encounters egg in the oviduct and fertilisation takes place. Fertilisation occurs once in a month because egg is released by female ovary once every month in the middle of menstrual cycle.

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CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Chapter 11 Psychology and Sports

1 Mark Questions
Question.1. What is anxiety? [CBSE2013]
Answer. Anxiety is a disturbed state of the body or an unrealistic and unpleasant state of body and mind. It,is accompanied by nervousness, restlessness, increased heart rate, sweating, drying of the mouth, apprehension of danger, fear and rapid shallow breathing.

Question.2. What is ethics in sports?
Answer. Ethics is a branch or subdiscipline of philosophy called axiology, the study of values. Ethics in sports means to have an ideal conduct and knowledge of good and evil and what should be done and not to be done by a person.
Ethical behaviour in sports includes:

1.  sportsmanship
2.  good character
3.  fair play
4.  cooperative and self- disciplined behaviour

Question.3. What is sports psychology?
Or
Define sports psychology.
Answer. Sports psychology is the branch of applied psychology which deals with sports performance and the behaviour of a player during training/competitions.

Question.4.What is motivation?
Answer.Motivation means to be inspired to do something. It is a kind of inner force which energises a person to make constant effort.

Question.5.What are the types of motivation?
Answer.(i) Internal or natural (intrinsic) motivation.
(ii) External or artificial (extrinsic) motivation

Question.6.Define anxiety in one sentence.
Answer.Anxiety is a chronic fear that limits our ability to carry out normal functions.

Question.7.What is intrinsic motivation?
Answer.This motivation is within an individual and guides him to perform better. It is based upon needs, interest, nature, emotions, social needs etc.

Question.8.What are the causes and symptoms of anxiety in sports?
Answer.Causes:

1.  Genetics
2.  Brain chemistry
3. Environmental factors
4. Stress

Symptoms:

1.  Feeling restlessness
2.  Muscular tension
3. Nervousness
4.  Headache
5.  Increased BP
6.  Confusion

Question.9.How extrinsic motivation may sometimes kill intrinsic motivation?
Answer.Extrinsic motivation may kill intrinsic motivation sometimes because the physical appearance of something has more influence on the mind of an athlete.

Question.10.What do you understand by self-esteem?
Answer.Self-esteem means how you value and respect yourself as a person. It is the real opinion you have of yourself. It impacts how you take care of yourself physically, emotionally and spiritually.

3 Marks Questions
Question.11. Explain any three causes of anxiety.
Answer. The various causes of anxiety are (any three):

1.  Uncertainty about Result Competitions provide challenge and stimulation. It is in the field of unpredictability. The outcome is not known. One is under pressure for one’s achievements.
2.  Level of Competition The more important the contest, the greater is the stress or level of anxiety for that particular competition.
3. Expectations of Spectators The spectators have a huge role or impact on how athletes feel. The expectations are more when it is a home venue.
4.  Possibility of Getting Hurt This can be a source of anxiety, especially in games like boxing, martial arts, gymnastics etc because the chances of injury are more.
5. Expectations of Success Some athletes take up the challenge and are psyched up to perform better and get success, whereas some are not coming upto the expectations and are psyched-out, which causes failure.

Question.12. Explain goal setting as a technique of motivation in brief. [CBSE 2012]
Answer. Goal setting technique is one of the most important techniques of motivation. If you do not set a goal, you cannot achieve an apex position in life. A person should set goals according to one’s capabilities on a regular basis. Coaches should not be too rigid while setting goals for a sportsperson. There should be some flexibility in their approach.

Question.13. Explain two techniques of motivation.
Answer. Two techniques of motivation are:

1.  Goal Setting Sportsmen should be encouraged to set a few ambitious but achievable long-term as well as medium-term goals, e.g. if a person wants to get a good position or a medal in Olympic Games, he should also set the goals for getting a position in Asian or National Games.
2.  Elaborate Arrangement of Competition Sports persons perform better in competitions if there are elaborate arrangements of competition. However, an inexperienced sportsperson may not be able to put up a good show.

Question.14. What is the importance of sports psychology?
Answer. The importance of sports psychology can be understood from the following points:

1.  It analyses the behaviour of sportsmen.
2.  It identifies talent for specific sports.
3.  It creates a better learning situation.
4. It stabilises the performance of a sportsperson for a longer period.
5.  It is important from the research point of view.
6.  It encourages the players to perform better.

Question.15. Explain any three techniques of motivation for higher achievement in sports.
Answer.Techniques of motivation for higher achievement in sports are

1.  Healthy Sports Environment A healthy sports environment plays a vital role in motivating the sportsperson. Healthy sport environment consists of proper humidity and temperature, smooth and clean sports fields, good quality of sports equipment and other facilities. .
2.  Positive Attitude For proper motivation, the coaches should try to encourage positive attitude among sportspersons. Players must think positively.
3.  Cash Prizes, Certificates and Trophies These are good incentives to sportspersons. Governments offer cash prizes to sportspersons who win.

Question.16. What is the role of anxiety in sports?
Answer. Anxiety plays an important role in sports. It is an essential ingredient of any competitive situation. Anxiety levels differ from athlete to athlete and from situation to situation. Athletes learn how to cope with stressful and competitive situations and manage anxiety with or assistance from a coach, otherwise they would not be able to give outstanding performances.

Question.17. How can you manage anxiety in sports?
Answer. Anxiety can be managed by:

1.  Keeping cool
2.  Yogic meditation
3.  Biofeedback
4.  Following a behaviour modification strategy
5. Progressive relaxation breathing technique
6. Somatic adjustment (control of cognitive processes)
7. Guidance from a technically trained sports psychologist

Question.18. What are general sports ethics?
Answer. Sports ethics means the code of conduct of players, coaches, supervisors and administrators of various organisations. Ethics such as honesty, fairplay, obedience of rules, discipline and many moral behaviours are developed through participation.
Some common ethics related to sports are:

1.  Winning and losing gracefully.
2. Getting recognition, name and fame without using unfair means.
3.  Loyalty towards his/her team, game, institution or country.

Question.19. What principles should be followed for goal setting?
Answer. Principles to be followed for goal setting are:

1.  Make goals specific, measurable, and observable.
2.  Clearly identify time constraints.
3. Use moderately difficult goals; they are superior to either easy or very difficult goals.
4. Write goals down and regularly monitor progress.
5. Use a mix of process, performance, and outcome goals.
6.  Use short range goals to achieve long range goals.
7.  Set team as well as individual performance goals.
8. Set practice as well as competition goals.
9.  Make sure goals are internalised by the athlete.
10. Consider personality and individual differences in goal setting.

Question.20. Explain any two techniques to manage stress.
Answer. Two techniques to manage stress are:

1. Participation in Physical Activities Physical exercises of moderate to high intensity, like aerobic exercises, are one of the”best methods to relieve stress. Physically fit persons are more resistant to the effects of stress than others.
2.  Achieve a High Level of Physical Fitness Achieving fitness is important to manage stress advantageously, while not eliminating it totally. Too little or too severe stress both lower performance in sports.

5 Marks Questions
Question.21. Define sports psychology and elucidate its importance in the field of sports.
Answer. Sports psychology is the branch of applied psychology which deals with sports performance and the behaviour of a player during training or competitions.
Importance of Sports Psychology is due to :

1.  Learning of Motor Skills Sports psychology plays a major role in the learning of motor skills. Motor ; skills learning depends on the dividual’s level of readiness.
2.  Analysing the Behaviour of Sportsmen Performance of a player depends upon the behaviours which are influenced by various factors such as sex differences, family conditions, personal background, heredity, growth, physical and mental maturity levels etc.
3.  Identifying Talent for Specific Sports Every sports has specific psychological demands, e.g. boxing requires more aggressiveness, whereas archery and shooting require more concentration.
4.  Stabilising the Performance for Longer Period It helps in stabilising the performance of a player for a longer period. Then the performance of the player largely depends upon his psychological make up and anxiety level.
5.  Important from Research Point of View Sports psychologists works in very close proximity to coaches to uplift the performance of players. Research findings help in promotion of sports and games.
6.  Encouraging the Players to Make a Comeback in Professional Sports Sports psychology encourages the players, who, due to injury or some accident, are forced to take a long break from their professional career, to return to their sport.

Question.22. What is motivation? Explain different types of motivation.
Answer. Motivation means to be inspired to do something. It is a kind of inner force which energises a man to make constant effort.
According to Crook and Stein, “Motivation is any condition that might energise and direct our action.”
Types of Motivation
There are two types of motivation:

1.  Intrinsic Motivation This motivation is within an individual and guides him/her to perform better. It is based upon needs, interest, nature, emotions, social need etc. It also depends upon knowledge of result, personal factor, competition zeal etc. He/she participates in sports for his/her own sake.
2.  Extrinsic Motivation This motivation depends upon environmental factors. It has a great impact on an individual’s performance. It is of various types like rewards, punishment, active participation, test evaluation, teaching methods, equipment and surroundings etc.

Question.23. Participation in sport results in all-round development of personality. Justify.
Answer. Games and sports are essential for the all- round development of personality. It is by participating in games and sports that we can develop and maintain our health, keep our body alert, active, youthful and energetic. Participation increases blood circulation and we get an increased supply of oxygen. This makes a person healthier. Only a healthy person can work long, hard and cheerfully. An unhealthy person may not take as much interest in work.
Games and sports have additional benefits to exercise as they are played in groups and in a healthy competitive spirit. Among many other things, they help develop cooperation, quality of leadership, team spirit and a willingness to submit to, and further, the rule of law. Games instil in participants the spirit of self-reliance, justice, fair play and sporting spirit. They make people bold, adventurous, social, disciplined and more conscious of their responsibilities towards society and the nation. People participating regularly in games and sports have been found better equipped to fight superstitions, communalism, obscurantism and a narrow approach to issues of national interest.
Games also help in overcoming feelings of violence, arrogance and superiority as these are purged by providing them a sufficient outlet through them. A sports person may not lose his or her temper and morale even in the face of defeat because he/ she would take it coolly, calmly and then would try to perform better the next time. Players know that victory and defeat are two aspects of the same coin. There is more joy in playing than in its end result. Thus, participation in sport results in all-round development of personality.

The post CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Psychology and Sports appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Chapter 12 Training in Sports

1 Mark Questions
Question.1. What are pace races? [CBSE 2013]
Answer. Pace races are an effective training method for improving speed endurance. A pace race generally means running a race of 800 metres or more at a uniform speed, with another athlete running 10-15 metres ahead of the other athletes who sets the pace of running. This uniform speed running is repeated at intervals fixed according to the standard of the athlete.

Question.2. Define cardiovascular endurance. [CBSE2012]
Answer. It is the ability of the heart, lungs and blood vessels to supply a sufficient amount of oxygen and nutrients to the cells to meet demands of activities for prolonged performance or large muscle dynamic exercises at moderate to high levels of intensity.

Question.3. What is the interval training method? [CBSE 2011]
Answer. Interval training method is called terrace training. It is a training of the heart through endurance training and based upon the effort and recovery principle.

Question.4. What is sports training?
Answer. Sportstraining is a specialised process of all round physical conditioning aimed at the preparation of sportspersons for improving performance in games and sports.

Question.5. What is speed?
Answer. Speed is the ability of an individual to perform a movement of the same pattern at a faster rate.

Question.6. What is flexibility?
Answer. Flexibility is the range of movement of joints. Flexibility can be defined as the ability to execute movement with greater amplitude or range.

Question.7. What is endurance?
Answer. Endurance is the ability of an individual to sustain any activity for a longer period. It also means the ability to resist fatigue.

Question.8. What is fartlek training?
Answer. Fartlek is a Swedish word which means speed play. In this method, pace and speed are not pre-planned. An individual can change his speed according to the surroundings (hills, forests, rivers, muddy roads, metal roads, grassy ground etc). .

Question.9. What is circuit training?
Answer. Circuit training is a formal type of training in which an athlete goes through a series of selected exercises that are arranged in a circuit. There are usually 5 to 10 stations in a circuit.

Question.10. What do you mean by training?
Answer. Training means to prepare someone for some assignment. Training is the process of preparation for some task.

Question.11. Write any two definitions of sports training.
Answer. According to Mathew “Sports training is the basic form of preparation of a sportsman.”
According to Martin, “It is a planned and controlled process to achieve goals in which the changes of motor performance and behaviour are made through measures of content, methods and organisation.”

Question.12. List any four training methods.
Answer. Some useful training methods are (any four)

1. Circuit training
2. Interval training
3. Continuous training
4.  Fartlek training
5. Weight training

Question.13. What are the methods for developing flexibility?
Answer. Methods for developing flexibility are

1. Ballistic method
2.  Static stretching method
3.  Dynamic stretching method
4.  Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique

3 Marks Questions
Question.14. Suggest different ways to improve reaction ability of a player. [CBSE 2013 Modified]
Answer. Improved reaction ability is a performance prerequisite to do motor actions under given conditions in minimum time. There are two methods for improving this. They are:

1. Acceleration Runs They test the ability to achieve high speed of locomotion from a stationary position or from a slow moving position. Acceleration ability is improved indirectly by improving on explosive strength, technique and movement frequency.
2. Short Sprints For direct improvement of acceleration, short sprints of 25 to 80 m are the best means. The maximum speed achieved by a sprinter from a stationary start is for about 6 sec. Various researches have shown that during a sprint run the speed also increases with time.
   At the end of 1st sec the approximate speed is 55% of maximum.
   At the end of 3rd sec the approximate speed is 91 % of maximum.
   At the end of 5th sec the approximate speed is 99% of maximum.

Question.15. Briefly explain the advantages of fartlek training. [CBSE 2012 Modified]
Answer. Advantages of fartlek training are:

1. It is good for increasing strength and cardiorespiratory endurance.
2.  Several athletics can take part in the training programme at a time.
3.  It does not require any equipment and can be organised easily.
4.  This training method is not rigid; it is flexible in nature.
5.  It improves the efficiency of the heart and lungs.
6. It provides experience of nature.

Question.16. Explain the meaning of training.
Or
What do you understand by the term sports training?
Answer. The word training means to give practical and theoretical knowledge of a specific field. But in physical education, training is a scientific and systematic way to enhance sports performance. The training methods are based upon scientific principles in a systematic order. In other words, we can say that these are the methods to improve general and specific performance in games and sports.

Question.17. Differentiate isometric and isotonic exercises.
Answer. Isometric is derived from a latin word which means some length. Therefore, in these exercises, the length of muscles remains the same during workout. These exercises have no external movements and work done is zero, hence these are not visible to others.
Isotonic is derived from a latin word which means some tension. In these exercises, the muscular group has tension along with movement. In isotonic exercises, the length of muscles changes (shortens or lengthens) during action along with tension in them.
A comparison between their characteristics is given below:

Question.18. Elucidate any two principles of sports training.
Answer. Two principles of sports training are:

1. Principle of Progression The principle of progression also makes us realise the need for proper rest and recovery. The overload should not be increased too rapidly. If the overload is increased too rapidly, it may result in injury or muscle damage.
2.  Principle of Specificity Principle of specificity states that exercising a certain part of component of the body primarily develops that part. It means that to become better at a particular exercise or skill, you must perform that exercise or skill.

Question.19. Discuss two types of flexibility.
Answer. Two types of flexibilities are

1. Active Flexibility It is the ability to do movement for a longer distance without external help e.g. exercise without partner. .
2.  Passive Flexibility It is the ability to do movement for a greater distance with external help e.g. stretching exercise with the help of a partner. It is always more than active flexibility.

Question.20. What are various’ factors of speed?
Or
Explain the types of speed.
Answer. The various factors of speed are:

1. Reaction Time Time taken to respond to a given stimulus, e.g. start in races.
2. Acceleration Ability Ability of the body to achieve maximum possible speed in’minimum possible time e.g. 50 m run, 60 m run, 80 m run etc.
3.  Speed of Movement Time taken by a muscle or group of muscles to complete a movement e.g. 100 m race from start to finish.
4.  Locomotor Ability Ability of the body to maintain maximum speed for maximum duration e.g. maintenance phase in 100 m race.
5.  Speed Endurance Ability of the body to perform any movement speedily under the condition of fatigue e.g. pace races.

Question.21. Explain the concept of fartlek training.
Answer. Fartlek is a Swedish term which means speed play. In such type of training, an athlete can adopt any pace as .per his wish and ability to complete a specific distance. The main aspect of this training is that he has to cover the distance in fixed time. He can also change his speed or pace according to the various geographical surroundings like hills, rivers, forests, muddy roads and grassy grounds etc. During fartlek training, the rate of heartbeat should range between 140-180 beats/min. It improves the efficiency of the lungs and heart for an activity for duration of not less than 15 min.

Question.22. How would you train for developing speed?
Or
Explain the various methods of speed development.
Answer. Speed is the ability of moving a body part or the whole body with the greatest possible speed or velocity.
To develop speed, we can use the following methods :

1.  Acceleration runs (sprints)
2. Pace races (speed endurance)

For developing speed in sprinting and running over distances of 800 m or more

1.  An athlete should commence his training with around 75% of his maximum speed.
2. He should move gradually towards 100% of his maximum speed.
3. The total number of runs per unit (in one day) should be between 6 and 12, depending upon the capacity of the athlete.
4.  Acceleration runs should be started after proper warming up.
5. Training at maximum speed in early morning should be avoided.
6.  In case of pain or cramp in muscles, training should be discontinued.

Question.23. Define speed. Explain the methods of speed development.
Or
How do acceleration runs and pace races develop speed?
Answer. Speed It is the ability of an individual to cover maximum distance in minimum possible time.
Developing Methods

1. Acceleration Runs A good athlete generally accelerates ter the first 30-60 “m, so the acceleration should be performed for 30-60 m only.
   
   Intensity — High; 90% and above nature
2.  Pace Races When an athlete has accelerated to his maximum speed, he should maintain this speed for maximum duration without any slowing down. The method to be followed in these – races involves the following.
   (i) Intensity should be 60-80%
   (ii) Repetitions should be 2-6
   (iii) Distance should be 60-600 m
   In pace races, the speed can be increased by
   • increasing the stride length.
   • lifting the knee higher.
   • developing coordination between arms and legs.

Question.24. Explain the term ‘warming up’. What are its advantages?
Answer. Warming up is a process in which muscles are warmed up by running, jogging and performing some freehand exercises prior to training or competition.
A warming up session is divided into two parts:

1. General warming up
2. Specific warming up .

Warming up should not be less than 15 min and not more than 40 min.
Advantages:

1.  It raises the body temperature.
2.  It creates tension in the muscles and makes the joints comparatively active.
3. It improves metabolic reaction.
4. It reduces the chances of muscular injuries.

Question.25. What is strength? Discuss any two types of exercises used for strength development.
Answer. Strength It is the ability of muscles to overcome resistance. It is the ability of an individual to work against resistance, e.g. various throws and jump events, swimming etc.
Types of exercises for strength development are:

1. Isometric Exercises or Static Contraction The literal meaning of the word isometric is constant length, i.e. iso means constant and metric means length.
   In this contraction, muscles work against a resistance but there is no change in the length of muscle. No external movement is visible to a third person, e.g. leg press, pushing a wall, squat position, holding leg at 45°.
2.  Isokinetic Exercises The literal meaning of the term isokinetic is constant speed, i.e. iso means constant and kinetic means motion.
   It is defined as maximal contraction with constant speed over the full range of movement, e.g. cycling, arm stroke jn butterfly style swimming etc.

Question.26.Discuss the continuous training method in detail.
Answer.In this method, exercise is done for a long duration without giving any break or pause in between the exercise. It is of three types

1.  Slow Pace Continuous Method In this method,
   Intensity (rate of doing work) —Low
   Distance — Long (10-30 km)
   Heart rate — 140-160 beats/m in
2. Fast Pace Continuous Method
   Intensity — High
   Distance — Less (2-10 km)
   Heart rate— 160-180 beats/min
3.  Variable Pace Method
   Intensity— Between low and high
   Distance — 8-20 km
   Heart rate— 140-180 beats/min (1×3)

Question.27. Discuss any two methods of endurance development.
Answer.

1. Interval Training Method In this method, the whole workload is divided into smaller load periods with a rest period in between them. Incomplete recovery is given in intervals.
   
   In this method, heart rate increases from normal to 180 beats/min. The bouts of load are repeated when the heart rate comes down to about 120 beats/min.
   Interval training method is of two types
   (a) Slow or Extensive Interval Method
   Intensity — Low (60-80%)
   Distance — 400-800 m
   Frequency — 15-25 repetitions
   (b) Fast or Intensive Interval Method
   Intensity — High (80-100%)
   Distance — 50-400 m,
   Frequency — 8-12 repetitions
2.  Fartlek Training Method
   Fartlek training was introduced by Dr Astrand. In this training, the athlete can run at any pace, can select any path, can run for any distance, but the course has to be completed in the specified time. The training involves running through streets, woods, river or seaside, running up and down a hill, forest and muddy track etc.

5 Marks Questions
Question.28. Draw ten stations circuit training programme for improving the jumping ability of a player. [CBSE2013]
Answer. Circuit training is a very popular and effective method of training for the improvement of physical fitness components. In circuit training, several exercises are done one after the other. Completion of one set of each exercise in rotation is called one round. There are normally three or more rounds in circuit training which consists of 7-12 exercises generally.
The exercises in a circuit are arranged in such a manner that different muscle groups are exercised in rotation. A specific circuit, however, can consist of several exercises involving the same muscle groups. An example ofciituit training is given below.

Question.29. Define the term strength. Draw 8 stations circuit training programme for upper body strength. [CBSE 2012]
Answer. Strength It is the ability to resist stress. It is the ability of the muscles to overcome resistance. Strength of the body can be measured in pounds or dynes.
8 Stations Circuit Training Programme:

Question.30. Explain the concept of sports training.
Or
Discuss about the three periods of a sports training programme.
Answer. Training is based upon scientific principles in a systematic order. In other words, we can say that sports training consists of methods to improve general and specific performance in games and sports. It gives us knowledge regarding performance and it also guides us how to improve further through different ways.
Sports training consists of training periods which are split into training sessions which are further divided into training schedules. In the training periods, work/load is performed. It is performed in a progressive way through macro, mesoand micro cycles. The training period is a long process which may extend to one year or more.
Training Programme Basically, a training programme can be divided into three periods

1. Preparatory Period In this period, the player achieves the physical fitness and skill efficiency necessary for competition.
   It is practiced in three phases:
   (a) Phase I In this phase, the player develops general abilities relating to physical fitness like basic skills. It is perfected after about four to six month’s practice.
   (b) Phase II In this phase, the player develops specific fitness abilities like speed, flexibility and coordination. It is about two month’s practice.
   (c) Phase III In this phase, the player develops tactics and strategies and achieves perfection for competition.
2. Competition Period In this period, the player actually plays in competition and aims to achieve top performance in competition. It is practiced in two phases
   Phase I In this phase, special attention is given towards specific exercises, skills and techniques, practical application of tactics in a game etc.
   4 Phase II In this phase, there is actual competition for the players.
3. Transitional Period This is the relaxation period after each competition.

Question.31. Define strength. Explain the details of strength training methods with the advantages and disadvantages of each.
Answer. Strength is the ability of our muscles to overcome resistance, We use the following methods of strength development

1. Isometric Exercises They are those exercises in which the length of the muscles remain the same during workout. No external movement is visible to a third person. During an isometric contraction, the muscle develops tension but does not change its length. In isometric exercises, special instruments may be used, e.g. power rack.
   Advantages:
   (a) They can be performed anywhere.
   (b) In these exercises, less time is required.
   (c) In these exercises, less equipment is required.
   (d) They develop a high level of static and maximum strength.
   Disadvantage: It raises the blood pressure, and therefore it is not recommended for heart patients.
2.  Isotonic Exercises These are exercises in which movements are clearly visible in the concerned body part. Length of the muscles changes and work done is clearly visible. These exercises help muscles to also improve their flexibility along with developing strength in them.
   Isotonic contractions are of two types:
   (a) Concentric (b) Eccentric
   Advantages:
   (a) They develop dynamic strength.
   (b) They contribute to hypertrophy of muscles.
   Disadvantages:
   (a) In these exercises, there are chances of strain and stress injuries.
   (b) In these exercises, usually some equipment is required.
3.  Isokinetic Exercises In these exercises, there is movement along with continuous tension in both flexor and extensor muscles. Here, both the flexor and extensor muscles develop tension ” along with full range of movement (may be upward or downward) simultaneously. These require special equipment, e.g. cycling upward, swimming, weight training machines etc.
   Advantages:
   (a) They develop a high level of dynamic as well as explosive strength,
   (b) These are effective for almost every game.
   Disadvantages:
   (a) They require special types of equipment,
   (b) They must be performed under observation of a coach.

Question.32. Explain circuit training method in detail.
Or
How does circuit training develop strength, speed and endurance?
Answer. Circuit training programme was designed by GT Adamson and RE Morgan in 1957. It is very effective method for strength, speed and endurance development. Circuit training is a formal type of training in which an athlete goes through a series of selected exercises that are arranged in a circuit with 5 to 10 stations.
Classification of Circuit Training:

1.  General Circuit Training In this type of training, different muscle groups are given exercises in rotation.
   Number of stations – 5-10
   Intensity Frequency – 60-80%
   Frequency – 3 days per week
   Exercise performed – 30 sec, 1 min
   Rest between two stations -5 to 15 sec
   Rest between two circuits- 2 to 5 min
2. Specific Circuit Training In this training, specific muscle groups are given exercises at every station. Exercises are also similar to competitive stress e.g. circuit training for football, volleyball, badminton etc.
   
   Note: EP represents exercises to be performed, Ml represents muscles involved, CD represents physical fitness component developed.

Advantages of Circuit Training:

1. A single teacher can supervise the training programme.
2. A large number of athletes (20-30) can be accommodated.
3. It can be performed anywhere — indoor, outdoor, on rooftop etc.
4. Any specific component of physical fitness can be developed.
5. Intensity or load can be increased if required.
6. All muscles of body can be exercised.
7. It is an interesting method of training.
8. It can be performed in bad weather also.

Question.33. Define flexibility and explain the methods of flexibility development.
Answer. Flexibility is the range of movement. It is the ability of joints to move in the maximum range.
Types of Flexibility:

1. Active Flexibility It is performed without external help or self-movement of a part to the maximum range.
2. Passive Flexibility It is the ability of joints to move in their maximum range with external help.

Developing Methods of Flexibility:

1. Ballistic Method In ballistic method, the movement is performed with a swing in a rhythmic way.
2. Static Stretching Method In this method, the joint is stretched and held for 10 to 30 sec.
3. Dynamic Stretching Method In this method, activities are performed with a motion or movement in a full range.
4.  Post Isometric Stretch or PNF Technique This method is based on the principle of proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation. PNF is a more advanced technique that involves both stretching (static + dynamic) techniques and contraction of the muscle groups being targeted. For gaining flexibility in the shortest possible time, PNF technique is the most appropriate method for developing flexibility.

The post CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Training in Sports appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Delhi-2011

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

• The Question Paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are
• Marks are indicated against each question.
• Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are Very Short Answer questions. Each question carries one mark.

• Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 mark Answers of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
• Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks Answers of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
• Question number 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 mark each from History and Geography both. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.

SET I

Question.1. Why was the Rowlatt Act imposed?
Answer. The imposing of the Rowlatt Act authorized the government to imprison any person without trial and conviction in a court of law.

Question.2. Name the finest quality Pf iron ore.
Answer. Magnetite is the finest quality of iron ore.

Question.3. What is a recognised political party?
Answer. A recognised political party is a party, recognised by the ‘Election Commission’ with all the privileges and facilities.

Question.4. Give an example of a Public Interest group.
Answer. Backward and Minorities Community Employees Federation (BAMCEF).

Question.5. What was the main aim of the movement in Nepal in 2006?
Answer. The main aim of the movement in Nepal was to re-establish democracy in Nepal.

Question.6. The currency notes on behalf of the Central Government are issued by whom?
Answer. Reserve Bank of India.

Question.7. Which cases does the district level court deal with?
Answer. The district level court deals with cases involving claims upto ?20 lakhs.

Question.8. In which year did the government decide to remove barriers on foreign trade and investment in India?
Answer. 1991

Question.9. How did cultural processes help in creating a sense of collective belongingness in India? Explain.
Answer. Though nationalism spread through the experience of united struggle but a variety of cultural processes captured the imagination of Indians and promoted a sense of collective belongingness:

1. Use of figures or images. The identity of India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata. Devotion to the mother figure came to be seen as an evidence of one’s nationalism.
2.  Indian folklore. Nationalists started recording and using folklores and tales, which they believed, gave a true picture of traditional culture that had been corrupted and damaged by outside forces. So preservation of these became a way to discover one’s national identity and restore a sense of price in one’s past.
3. Use of icons and symbols in the form of flags. Carrying the tricolour flag and holding it aloft during marches became a symbol of defiance and promoted a sense of collective belonging.
4. Reinterpretation of history. Indians began looking into the past to rediscover the glorious developments in ancient times in the field of art, science, mathematics, religion and culture, etc. This glorious time was followed by a history of decline when India got colonized, as Indian history was miserably written by the colonisers.
   All these techniques were used to bring the Indian people together against the common enemy. (any three)

Question.10. Explain any three facts about the new economic situation created in India by the First World War.
Answer. The First World War created a dramatically new economic situation in India:

1.  Manchester imports into India declined as the British mills were busy with war production to meet the needs of the army paving the way for the Indian mills to supply for the huge home market.
2.  As the war prolonged, Indian factories were called upon to supply war needs. As a result new factories were set up, new workers were employed and everyone was made to work longer hours.
3.  Cotton production collapsed and exports of cotton cloth from Britain fell dramatically after the war, as it was unable to modernize and compete with US, Germany, Japan. Hence within colonies like India, local industrialists gradually consolidated their position capturing the home market.

Question.11. Explain any three beliefs of the conservatism that emerged after 1815.
Answer. Three beliefs of conservatism that emerged after 1815 were:

1.  Established and traditional institutions of state and society like monarchy, the Church, property and family should be preserved.
2.  They believed in the modernization of the traditional institution to strengthen them, rather than returning to the society of pre-revolutionary days.
3. Also they believed that abolition of feudalism and serfdom and replacing it with a modem army, an efficient bureaucracy and a dynamic economy could strengthen autocratic monarchies of Europe.

Or
Explain any three features of the “go east movement” in Vietnam.
Answer. The three features of the “go east movement” in Vietnam xvere:

1. Primary objective of Vietnamese students who went to Japan to acquire modem education in 1907-08, was to drive out French from Vietnam.
2.  Their aim was to overthrow the puppet regime and re-establish the Nguyen dynasty that had been deposed by the French with the help of foreign arms.
3. The Vietnamese nationalists asked for Japanese support to accomplish their mission as Japan had modernized itself and had resisted colonisation by West and its victory over Russia in 1907 proved its military capabilities.

Question.12. How is energy an indispensable requirement of our modem life? Explain with three I examples.
Answer. Modem life is highly governed by technology and revolves around it. Modem technology is driven by energy and is highly automated. Every sector of National economy agriculture, industry, transport and commerce need greater inputs of energy. In the i domestic sector also, energy demands, in the form of electricity, are growing because of increasing use of electric gadgets and appliances. Energy? is the basic requirement for economic development.

Question.13. Write the characteristics of Kandla seaport.
Answer.

1. It was developed after independence to reduce the load on the Mumbai port as the Karachi port had gone to Pakistan after partition.
2.  It is a tidal port and caters to exports and imports of the granary and industrial belts of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
3. Kandla port is located in Kuchchh in Gujarat.
4.  It caters to the convenient handling of exports and imports for northern and western states of India.

Question.14. Outline the values that means of transport and communication help in developing among ; people of a na tion.
Answer.

1. Respect for unity in diversity. People from different culture and ethnic backgrounds are able to intermingle and interact.
2.  It helps to develop love and concern for fellow countrymen.
3.  It also promotes dignity and respect for national property.

Question.15. Explain three ways under which pressure groups exert influence on politics.
Answer. Interest groups and movements do not directly engage in party politics but they seek to
exert influence on political parties. They have a political position on major issues and take political stance without being a party.
Pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics in the following ways:

1.  They try to gain public support and sympathy for their goals through campaigns, organizing meetings, filing petitions and influencing the media for attention.
2.  They organize protest activities like strikes, in order to force the government to take
   note of their demand.
3.  Business groups employ professionals/lobbyists or sponsor expensive advertise-ments. Some members from pressure groups participate in official bodies that offer ! advice to the government.

Question.16. How do democratic governments ensure transparency? Explain any three points.
Answer.

1. Democracy ensures that decision-making will be based on norms and procedures. So a citizen, who wants to know if a decision was taken through the correct procedures, can find out as democracy guarantees to the citizens the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making.
2.  In a democracy people have the right to choose their rulers and people will have control over them. Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision-making that affects them all. Thus it ensures transparency by producing a government that is accountable to the citizens and is responsive to their needs and expectations.
3.  It is right to expect democracy to produce a government that follows procedures and is accountable to people. To do so, the democratic government develops mechanisms for citizens —regular, free and fair elections, open public debate on major policies and legislations and citizens’ right to information about the government and its functioning.

Question.17. Explain with examples why some laws that seek to ban something are not very successful in politics.
Answer. Law has an important role to play in political reform. Carefully devised changes in law can help to discourage wrong political practices and encourage good ones. But legal constitutional changes by themselves are not effective, until carried out by political activists, parties, movements and politically conscious citizens.
Any legal change must carefully look at what results it will have on politics. Sometimes it can be counter-productive. For example, many states have banned people who have more than two children from contesting panchayat elections. This has resulted in denial of democratic opportunity to many poor men and women.
The best laws are those which empower the people to carry out democratic reforms. The Right to Information Act is a good example that supplements the existing laws. “Any law for political reforms is a good solution but who will implement it and how” — is the question. It is not necessary that the legislators will pass legislations that go against the interests of the political parties and MPs.

Question.18. Explain the three conditions that determine MNCs setting up production in other countries.
Answer.

1. MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get skilled and unskilled labour at low costs to minimize the production cost and earn greater profits. For example, densely populated countries like China, Bangladesh and India have ample labour and provide the advantage of cheap manufacturing locations.
2. MNCs also need close-by markets for their manufactured goods. Mexico and Eastern Europe are useful for their closeness to the markets in the US and Europe.
3. Besides these, MNCs also require skilled engineers and IT personnels and a large number of English speaking people who are able to provide customer care services. In addition, MNCs might look for government policies that look after their interests.

Question.19. What is standardization of products? Mention any two organizations responsible for the standardization of products in India.
Answer. Standardization of a product or service is done by government agencies to ensure consistency in quality of products or services. It helps consumers get assured of quality while purchasing the goods and services. The organizations that monitor and issue these certificates allow producers to use their logos, i.e., ISI, Agmark or Hallmark provided they follow certain quality standards.
The two organizations responsible for the standardization of products in India are:

1.  Bureau of Indian Standards issues ISI for industrial products and Hallmark for . jewellery.
2.  Ministry of Agriculture issues Agmark for food items.

Question.20. Explain the role of government to make globalization fair.
Answer. The government can play a major role in making fair globalization possible:
Fair globalization would create opportunities for all, and also ensure that the benefits of globalization are shared better. Government policies must protect the interests not only of the rich and the powerful, but also of all the people in the country.

1. Government should ensure that labour laws are implemented and workers’ rights are protected.
2. Government should support small producers, to improve their performance till the time they become strong enough to compete with foreign competition.
3.  If necessary, government should use trade and investment barriers.
4. It can negotiate with WTO for fairer rules.
5.  It can also align with other developing countries with similar interests to fight against the domination of developed countries in the WTO.

Question.21. Explain any five economic hardships that Europe faced in the 1830s.
Answer. Following are the causes of economic hardships in Europe during 1830s:

1.  Europe had come under the grip of large scale unemployment. In most of the countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment.
2.  Cities had become overcrowded and slums had emerged as population from the rural areas migrated to the cities.
3.  Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England where industrialization was more advanced specially in the field of textile production.
4. In those regions of Europe, where aristocracy still enjoyed power, peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues and obligations.
5. The rise of food prices and bad harvests added to the hardships of the peasants.

Or
Explain the views of Paul Bernard regarding the economy of Vietnam. 5
Answer. Paul Bernard was an influential writer and policy-maker who strongly believed that the purpose of acquiring colonies was to make profits.

1.  According to him, the development of economy will raise the standard of people and people would buy more goods. The market would consequently expand, leading to better profit for French business.
2. According to Bernard, there were several barriers to economic growth in Vietnam, such as large population, low agricultural productivity and extensive indebtedness amongst the peasants.
3. To reduce the poverty and increase agricultural productivity, it was necessary to carry out land reforms.
4.  Industrialization was also essential for creating more jobs as agriculture was not likely to ensure sufficient employment opportunities.

Question.22. What was Gandhiji’s idea behind launching the Non-cooperation Movement? Mention four proposals suggested by Mahatma Gandhi with reference to Non-cooperation Movement.
Answer. Mahatma Gandhi felt (in his book Hind Swaraj, 1909) that British rule was established in India with the cooperation of Indians. It has survived because of their cooperation. If the Indians refuse to cooperate, British rule in India will collapse and Swaraj would come. Proposals suggested by Mahatma Gandhi with reference to Non-cooperation Movement:

1.  According to Gandhiji, Non-cooperation could become a movement by unfolding in stages.
2.  It would begin with the surrender of titles that the government awarded and a boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils, schools and foreign goods.
3.  Then if the government used repression, a full civil disobedience campaign would be launched.
4.  Throughout 1920, Gandhiji and Shaukat Ali toured extensively mobilizing popular support for the movement.

Question.23. Explain the importance of air transport in India giving/me points. 5*1=5
Answer. Importance of air transport in India:

1.  Air travel is the fastest, most comfortable and prestigious mode of transport.
2. India is a vast country with wide variation in relief. Air transport can cover difficult terrains like high mountains of the Himalayas, the Western Ghats, dreary deserts of Rajasthan, dense forests and long coastlines with great ease.
3.  Air travel has made access easier in the north-eastern part of the country, which is marked with the presence of big rivers like Brahmaputra, dissected relief, dense forests, frequent floods and international frontiers.
4.  At the time of natural calamities, relief measures and relief operations can be carried out quickly with the help of air transport.
5.  High value perishable goods can easily be exported or imported by airways.

Question.24. How does textile industry occupy a unique position in Indian economy? Explain giving any five points.
Answer. The textile industry occupies a unique position in Indian economy because:

1. It contributes 14% of the total industrial production.
2.  It employs largest number of people after agriculture, i.e., 35 million persons, directly.
3.  Its share in the foreign exchange earnings is about 24.6%.
4. It contributes 4% towards GDP.
5.  It is the only industry in the country which is self-reliant and complete in the value chain, i.e., from raw materials to the highest value added products.

Question.25. “Most destructive feature of democracy is that its examination never gets over.” Support the statement with appropriate arguments.
Answer. Suitable arguments:

1.  As people get some benefits of democracy, they ask for more.
2.  People always come up with more expectations from the democratic set up.
3. They also have complaints against democracy.
4. More and more suggestions and complaints by the people is also a testimony to the success of democracy.
5. A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of the democratic project.

Question.26. Explain any five suggestions to reform political parties in India. 5*1=5
Answer. Five suggestions made to reform the political parties:

1. Law to regulate the internal affairs of political parties like maintaining a register of its members, to follow its own constitution, to have independent authority, to act as judge in case of party dispute, to hold open elections to the highest post.
2. It should be mandatory for political parties to give one-third tickets to women candidates. Also there should be quota for women on the decision-making bodies of the party.
3. There should be state funding of elections. The government should give money to parties to support their election expenses in kind (petrol, paper, telephone, etc.) or in cash on the basis of votes secured by the party in the previous election.
4. The candidate should be educated, so that he can solve and understand people’s problems. His previous record should be cleared. He should be honest and there should be no criminal case against him.
5.  Citizens can reform politics if they take part directly and join political parties. People can put pressure on political parties through petitions, publicity in media, agitations etc.

Question.27. What is the basic objective of ‘Self Help Groups’? Describe any four advantages of ‘Self Help Groups’ for the poor.
Answer. The basic objective of ‘Self Help Groups’ is to organize rural poor, particularly women belonging to one neighbourhood into small Self Help Groups (15-20 members). These members save regularly and the amount varies from ?25-100 or more.
The four advantages of ‘Self Help Groups’ are as follows:

1.  The members can take small loans from the group itself to meet their needs. The group charges interest on these loans which is still less than what moneylenders charge.
2.  After a year or two, if the group is regular in savings, it becomes eligible for availing loan from the bank which is sanctioned in the name of the group to create self employment opportunities.
   For instance, small loans are provided to the members for releasing mortgaged land, meeting working capital needs, for acquiring assets like sewing machines, handlooms, cattle etc.
3.  Banks are willing to lend to the poor women when organized in SHGs, even though they have no collateral as such. Thus, the SHGs help women to become financially self reliant.
4.  The regular meetings of the group provide a platform to discuss and act on a variety of social issues such as health, nutrition, domestic violence etc.

Question.28. (a) Explain two reasons responsible for enacting ‘Consumer Protection Act 1986 by the Government of India.
(b) Consumers have the right to be informed about goods and services they purchase. Explain its three advantages.
Answer. (a) The ‘Consumer Protection Act, 1986’ was enacted:
• to protect consumers in the market place and promote the interests of consumers against unethical and unfair trade practices like rampant food shortages, hoarding, black marketing over pricing, adulteration of food and edible oil.
• to stop big companies from manipulating the market by giving false information through media, thereby exploiting the consumers.
• to give rights to consumers to represent in the Consumer Court and seek redressal against unfair trade practices and exploitation.
(b) It is mandatory for the manufacturer to display certain details on the packing because consumers have the right to be informed about the particulars of goods and services they purchase. These details are about ingredients used, price, quantity, quality, potency, batch number, date of manufacture, expiry date and the address of the manufacturer.
The advantages of this rule are:

1.  Consumers can use this information to complain and ask for compensation or replacement if the product proves to be defective in any manner. For example, if we buy a product and find it defective well within the expiry period, we can ask for a replacement. If the expiry period was not printed, the manufacturer would blame the shopkeeper and will not accept the responsibility.
2.  One can protest and’complain if someone sells a good at more than the printed price on the packet. This is indicated by ‘MRF—maximum retail price. In fact if the MRP is missing from the packing, a consumer can bargain with the seller to sell at less than the MRP.
3. In October 2005, the Government of India enacted a law known as RTI (Right to Information) Act, which ensures its citizens all the information about the functions of government departments. The RTI Act gives consumers the power to question the government about the functions and various services provided by the government.

Question.29. Identify and label the following on the map of India:
(a) The place where Indian National Congress session of December 1920 was held.
(b) The place where the cotton mill workers satyagraha was held.
(c) The place where Jallianwala Bagh incident took place.
Answer.

Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 29.
(1) Name the place where the Indian National Congress session was held in December, 1920.
(2) Name the place where the cotton mill workers satyagraha took place.
(3) Name the place where the Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place.
Answer. (1) Nagpur (2) Ahmedabad (3) Amritsar

Question.30. On the given political outline map of India:
(a) Identify
A. Coal Mine
B. International airport
(b) Locate and label
(i) Mohali—Software Technology Park

Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 30.
(1) Name the southern terminal station of the North-South Corridor.
(2) In which state is the Rawat Bhata Nuclear power plant located?
(3) In which state is the Kandla port located?
Answer. (1) Kanyakumari (2) Rajasthan (3) Gujarat

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.10. Explain any three problems faced by the peasants of Awadh.
Answer. Three problems faced by the peasants of Awadh were:

1.  Talukdars and landlords demanded exorbitantly high rents and a variety of other taxes from the peasants.
2.  Peasants had to do begar and work at the landlords’ farms without any payment.
3. As tenants they had no security of tenure and were being regularly evicted so that they could acquire no right over the leased land.

Question.11. Describe any three reforms introduced by Napoleon in the territories he conquered.
Answer. Three reforms introduced by Napoleon in the territories he conquered were:

1. The Napoleonic Code—It finished all the privileges based on birth and established equality before law and secured the right to property.
2.  He simplified administrative divisions, abolished the feudal system and freed : peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
3. He introduced uniform laws, standardized weights and measures and common national currency to facilitate the movement and exchange of goods and capital from one place to another.
   Or
   Describe the ‘rat hunt scheme’ ordered by the French in Hanoi.
   Answer. The modem city of Hanoi get infested with rats in 1902 and was struck by Bubonic plague
   To get rid of the rats, a ‘rat hunt scheme’ was started. To stop the plague from spreading in Hanoi, the French hired Vietnamese workers and paid them for each rat they caught. Rats began to be caught in thousands. The bounty was paid when a tail was given as proof that a rat had been killed.
   So the rat-catchers also discovered innovative ways to profit from this situation. They began clipping the tails and releasing the rats so that the process could be repeated over and over again.

Question.12. Mention any three characteristics of ferrous group of minerals found in India.
Answer. Metallic minerals that have iron in them are called ferrous minerals. For example, iron ore, manganese, nickel, cobalt etc.
Three characteristics of ferrous group of minerals found in India are:

1.  Ferrous minerals account for about three fourths of the total value of the production of metallic minerals.
2.  They provide a strong base for the development of metallurgical industries.
3.  India exports substantial quantities of ferrous minerals to Japan and South Korea after meeting her internal demands.

Question.16. Describe the movement for democracy in Nepal.
Answer. The Nepalese for democracy arose with the specific objective of reversing the kingCs order that led to suspension of democracy. The popular struggle in Nepal involved many organizations other than political parties like the SPA or the Nepalese Communist Party. All the major labour unions and their federations joined the movement. Many other organizations of the indigenous people, teachers, lawyers and human rights groups extended support to the movement.

Question.17. “Legal constitutional changes by themselves cannot overcome challenges to democracy.” Explain with example.
Answer. As legal constitutional changes by themselves cannot overcome challenges to democracy, democratic reforms need to be carried out mainly by political activists, parties, movements and politically conscious citizens.

1. Any legal change must carefully look at what results it will have on politics. Generally, laws that seek a ban on something are rather counter-productive;
   For example, many states have, debarred people who have more than two children from contesting Panchayat elections. This has resulted in denial of democratic opportunity to many poor women, which was not intended. The best laws are those which empower people to carry out democratic reforms; for example, the Right to Information Act which acts as a watchdog of democracy by controlling corruption.
2.  Democratic reforms are to be brought about principally through political parties. The most important concern should be to increase and improve the quality of political participation by ordinary citizens.
3.  Any proposal for political reforms should think not only about what is a good solution, but also about who will implement it and how. Measures that rely on democratic movements, citizens’ organizations and media are likely to succeed.

Question.24. “Manufacturing industry is considered the backbone of economic development of India.” Give three reasons.
Answer. Manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of development in general and economic development in particular mainly because:

1. Manufacturing industries not only help in modernizing agriculture but also reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.
2.  Industrial development is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty from our country.
3.  Establishing industries in tribal and backward areas help in bringing down regional disparities.
4. Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
5. Industrial development brings prosperity to the country as it transforms raw materials into valuable products.

Question.27. What is the meaning of SEZ? Mention any three features of SEZ.
Answer. SEZ or Special Economic Zones are industrial zones set up by the Central and State Governments with world class facilities in electricity, water, roads, transport, storage, recreational and educational facilities.
Three features of SEZ:

1.  The companies who set up production units in the SEZs do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years.
2.  Government has also allowed flexibility in the labour laws to attract foreign investment. This is done to reduce the cost of labour for the company.
3. These are being set up to attract foreign companies to invest in India.

Question.28. How do the large companies often manipulate the markets? Explain with an example.
Answer. The big companies eliminate their competitors by lowering down the price of products thereby establishing their monopolies in the market giving less choice to people.
The large companies with huge wealth, power and reach often manipulate the market in various ways. Some common ways by which consumers are exploited in the market are :

1.  Goods sold in the market are sometimes not measured or weighed correctly.
2.  The goods sold are sometimes of sub-standard quality, For example, selling medicines beyond their date of expiry.
3.  In costly edible items such as oil, ghee etc. adulteration is common.
4.  At times false information is passed on through the media and other sources to attract consumers.
   For example, a company for years sold powder milk for babies all over the world as the most scientific product claiming it to be better than mother’s milk. It took years of struggle before the company was forced to accept that it had been making false claims.
   Similarly, a long battle had to be fought with court cases to make cigarette manufacturing companies accept that their product could cause cancer.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II
Question.10. Explain any three reasons for the lukewarm response of some Muslim organizations to the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer. Three reasons for lukewarm response of some Muslim organizations to Civil Disobedience Movement were:

1.  After the decline of Non-cooperation-Khilafat movement, a large section of Muslims felt alienated from the Indian National Congress.
2. The visible and open association of Congress with Hindu religious nationalist groups like the Hindu Mahasabha in mid 1920s made the Muslims suspicious of Congress motives.
3.  The frequent communal clashes not only deepened the distance between the two communities but also there was an important difference over the question of representation in the future assemblies that were to be elected.

Question.11. Explain the contribution of Otto von Bismarck in German unification.
Answer. Contribution of Otto von Bismarck in German unification. Nationalist feelings started spreading amongst the middle class Germans, who in 1848, tried to unite different parts of German confederation into a nation state to have an elected parliamentarian government. However, this liberal movement was repressed by the combined forces of monarchy and military supported by Prussian landowners.
Prussian Chief Minister, Otto von Bismarck, took the responsibility of national unification with the help of Prussian army and bureaucracy. Under his leadership he fought three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark and France. Prussia was victorious in all these wars and the process of unification of Germany was completed as a result of Prussia’s victory over France.
Or
Explain the reactions within the United States to its involvement in the Vietnam War during the 1960s.
Answer. The effect of United States being involved in the Vietnam War of 1960s was also felt within United States:

1.  Many became critical of the government for getting involved in an indefensible war.
2.  Anger spread out amongst the youth because of the government’s discriminatory practise. Compulsory service in armed forces was only forced on the minorities and children of working class families and not on the privileged elites.
3. US media and films played a major role in both, supporting and motivating the youth to participate in war, as well as criticizing the war as unreasonable.

Question.12. Why is there a pressing need to use non-conventional sources of energy in India?
Explain any three reasons.
Answer.

1. The growing consumption of energy has resulted in India becoming increasingly dependent on fossil fuels such as coal, oil and gas which are found in limited quantity on the earth.
2.  Rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortages have raised uncertainties about the security of energy supply in future, which in turn has serious repercussions on the growth of the national economy.
3. Increasing use of fossil fuels also causes serious environmental degradation like air pollution, water pollution etc.
   So there is an urgent need to use sustainable energy resources like solar, water, wind, tide biomass etc.

Question.14. How are integrated steel plants different from mini steel plants? 3*1=3
Answer. An integrated steel plant is large, handles everything in one complex—from putting together raw material to steel making, rolling and shaping. An integrated steel plant uses a b’ast furnace and iron-ore as raw material.
Mini steel plants are smaller, have electric furnaces, use steel scrap and sponge iron. They have re-rollers that use steel in gots as well. They produce mild and alloy steel of given specifications.

Question.25. The movement in Nepal and the struggle in Bolivia have some elements relevant to the study of democracy. Explain these elements.
Answer. The movement in Nepal was to establish democracy, while the struggle in Bolivia involved claims on an elected democratic government. Despite the differences, both these struggles share some elements relevant to study of democracies.

1.  Both these are instances of political conflict that led to popular struggles. The Nepalese movement arose with the specific objective of reversing the King’s order that led to the dismissal of the Prime Minister and the dissolution of the popularly elected Parliament.
   In Bolivia, the struggle was against the privatization and increase in prices of water after the government sold these rights to an MNC.
2.  In both cases, the struggle involved mass mobilization. The popular struggle in the form of a protest turned into an indefinite strike. In Nepal, all major political parties in Parliament formed a Seven Party Alliance and called a four-day strike which turned into an indefinite strike in which the Maoists and insurgent groups joined hands.
   In the Bolivian struggle against privatization of water, an alliance of labour human rights and community leaders organized a successful four-day general strike.

Question.27. Give the meaning of WTO? What is the major aim of WTO? Mention any two shortcomings of WTO? 
Answer. WTO (World Trade Organization). WTO believes that there should not be any barriers between trade of different countries. Trade between countries should be free.
Aims of WTO:

1.  To liberalize international trade.
2. To establish rules regarding international trade.

Two shortcomings of WTO:

1. Though WTO is supposed to allow free trade for all, in practice, it is seen that the developed countries have unfairly retained trade barriers and continued to provide protection to their producers. For example, farmers in the US receive huge sums of money from the government and as a result can sell the farm products at abnormally low prices in other countries, adversely affecting farmers in those countries.
2. On the other hand WTO ruies have forced the developing countries to remove trade barriers.

Question.28. What is ‘Consumer Protection Act’? Explain any three reasons responsible of enacting ‘Consumer Protection Act, 1986’ by the Government of India.
Answer. Consumer Protection Act. The COPRA was enacted to protect and promote the interests of consumers against unethical and unfair trade practices.
The rationale behind COPRA (Consumer Protection Act) is to provide the consumers the means to redressal at three levels of quasi-judicial courts—District Forum, State Consumer Courts and National Commission.
This Act has enabled the consumers to have a right to represent themselves in the consumer courts.
The ‘Consumer Protection Act, 1986′ was enacted:
• to protect consumers in the market place and promote the interests of consumers against unethical and unfair trade practices like rampant food shortages, hoarding, black marketing, over pricing, adulteration of food and edible oil.
• to stop big companies from manipulating the market by giving false information through media, thereby exploiting the consumers.
• to give rights to consumers to represent in the Consumer Court and seek redressal against unfair trade practices and exploitation.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Delhi-2011 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science Outside SA2 Outside Delhi-2011

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                             Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

• The Question Paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are
• Marks are indicated against each question.
• Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are Very Short Answer questions. Each question carries one mark.

• Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 mark Answers of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
• Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks Answers of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
• Question number 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 mark each from History and Geography both. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.

SET I

Question.1. What was the Rowlatt Act?
Answer. Rowlatt Act gave the government enormous powers to suppress political activities and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years. In other words, the Act proposed no appeal, no vakil and no daleel.

Question.2. Orissa is the leading producer of which mineral?
Answer. Manganese ore.

Question.3. The Seven Party Alliance (SPA) in Nepal has succeeded in removing monarchy, holding elections and forming a government. Identify the challenge to democracy here.
Answer. Foundational challenge.

Question.4. What are the three main components of a political party?
Answer. (i) The leaders;
(ii) The active members; and
(iii) The followers

Question.5. What are sectional interest groups? Give an example.
Answer. Organizations that undertake activities to promote the interests of specific social sections
such as lawyers, teachers, workers, employees are called sectional interest groups.

Question.6. Why is ‘tax’ on imports known as a trade barrier?
Answer. Tax on imports is known as a trade barrier because it increases the price of imported commodities. It is called a barrier because some restriction has been set up.

Question.7. Why do banks ask for collateral while giving credit to a borrower?
Answer. Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns (land, building, vehicle, livestock, land documents, deposits with banks, etc.) which stands as a security against the money borrowed. In case the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender has the right to sell the asset or collateral.

Question.8. A shopkeeper insists that you buy a guide with your NCERT Textbook. Which right of the consumer is being violated here?
Answer. Right to choose.

Question.9. Explain any three effects of the Non-cooperation Movement on the economy of India.
Answer. The economic sphere was affected by the Non-cooperation Movement.
(i) Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops were picketed and foreign cloth was burnt. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921-1922. Its value dropped from Rs.102 crore to Rs.57 crore.
(if) Many merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.
(iff) People began discarding imported clothes and wearing Indian ones.
(iv) The production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up. Use of khadi was popularized.

Question.10. How did the rich peasants and women take part in Civil Disobedience Movement?
Answer. Role of rich peasants:

1. Being producers of commercial crops, they were hard hit by trade-depression and falling prices.
2. As their cash income reduced, they found it impossible to pay the government’s revenue demand.
3.  These rich peasants became ardent supporters of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
4. For them fight for Swaraj was a struggle against high revenues.
   Role of women:
5.  Women participated in protest marches, manufactured salt and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops. Many women went to jail.
6.  Women who participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement, came from high-caste families in urban areas and rich peasant households in rural areas.

Question.11. Explain any three ways in which nationalist feelings were kept alive in Poland in the 18th and 19th centuries.
Answer. The three ways in which nationalist feelings were kept alive in 18th and 19th centuries in Poland:

1.  Emphasis on vernacular language. Language played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. The use of the Folish language came to be seen as a symbol of struggle against Russian dominance. For example, In Poland, following armed rebellion against Russian rule, Polish was used for church gatherings and religious instruction,. As a result, a number of priests and bishops were put in jails or sent to Siberia as punishment for their refusal to preach in Russian.
2.  Emphasis on collection of local folklore. It was not just to recover an ancient national spirit, but also to cany the modern nationalist message to the large audience who were mostly illiterate.
3. Use of music to keep the nationalist feeling alive. For example, Karol Kurpinski, celebrated the national struggle through his operas and music, turning folk dances like the polonaise and mazurka into nationalist symbols.

Or
Explain any three characteristics of the ‘Tonkin Free School’ in Vietnam.
Answer. The main objective of the Tonkin Free School was to provide western style education. Features:

1. This education included classes in Science, Hygiene and French. (These classes were held in the evening and had to be paid for separately).
2.  It was not enough to acquire knowledge in Science and western ideas but was also important to learn to look ‘modem’.
3. The school encouraged the adoption of western style such as having a short haircut. This was a major break for the Vietnamese identify because they traditionally kept long hair.
4.  The French tried to strengthen their rule in Vietnam through the control of education and tried to change the values, norms and perceptions of people to accept the superiority of French culture and civilization.
   Vietnamese intellectuals, on the other hand, feared that Vietnam was losing not just control over its territory but its very identity, its own culture and customs and traditions. (any three)

Question.12. ‘Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.’ Support this statement with suitable examples.
Answer.

1. Almost everything we use, from a tiny pin to a towering building or a ship, all are made from minerals.
2. All means of transport are manufactured from minerals and run on power resources derived from the earth.
3.  Even the food that we eat contains minerals. Human beings have used minerals for their livelihood, decorations, festivities and in all stages of development.

Question.13. Explain any three problems faced by Iron and Steel Industry in India.
Answer. Inspite of being an important producer of iron and steel, India has not been able to exploit her complete potential, because of:

1.  High cost of production and limited availability of coking coal.
2. Lower productivity of labour.
3.  Irregular supply of energy.
4. Poor infrastructure.

Question.14. Make a distinction between hydroelectricity and thermal electricity stating three points all are of distinction.
What values are associated with using hydroelectricity?
Answer.

Values:

1.  It is eco-friendly as it saves our reserves of fossil fuels but requires submergence of large forest cover or land for damming the river.
2. It is an absolutely clean source of energy.
3.  Hydroelectric power plants do not create any waste by-products in their conversion.

Question.15. Explain the role of democratic governments in reducing economic disparities.
Answer. Over the years, careful evidence has been gathered to see what the relationship of democracy with economic growth and economic inequalities is.
It is seen that on an average dictatorial regimes have had a slightly better record of economic growth, i.e., 4.34%. But when we compare their record only in poor countries (4.28%), there is no difference.
There is enough evidence to show that within democracies there can be very high degree of inequalities. In countries like South Africa and Brazil, the top 20 per cent people take away more than 60 per cent of the national income, leaving Jess than 3 per cent for the bottom 20 per cent population.
Perhaps more than development, it is reasonable to expect democracies to reduce economic disparities. Democracies are based on political equality, but despite equality in the political arena there are growing economic inequalities. The poor constitute a large proportion of our voters and no party would like to lose its votes. Yet democratically elected governments do not appear to be keen to tackle the problem of poverty’. Democracies are expected to produce good government, but there is no guarantee that they would also produce development. As evidence shows, tire economic development depends on several factors, such as country’s size, global situation, co-operation from other countries, economic priorities adopted by the country etc.

Question.16. Explain how the relationship between political parties and pressure groups can take different forms?
Answer. The relationship between political parties and pressure groups can take different forms, some direct and others very’ indirect.
In some instances the pressure groups are either formed or led by the leaders of political parties or act as extended arms of political parties. For example, most trade unions and students’ organizations in India are either established by or affiliated to one or the other major political party.
Sometimes political parties grow out of movements. For example, the Assam Movement led by students against the ‘foreigners’ led to the formation of the Asom Gana Parishad. The roots of parties like the DMK and the AIADMK in Tamil Nadu can be traced to social reform movement during the 1930s and 1940s.
When the relationship between parties and interest groups is not so direct they often take positions opposed to each other. Yet they are in dialogue and negotiation. New issues raised by movements have been taken up by political parties.

Question.17. Explain the ‘foundational challenge’ of democracy by stating three points.
Answer.

1. Foundational challenge relates to making the transition to democracy and then
   instituting democratic government. It involves establishing a sovereign and functional state.
2.  It involves bringing down the existing non-democratic regime, keeping military away. from controlling government and establishing a civilian control over all governmental institutions by holding elections.
3.  It involves the recognition of people’s choice and opportunity to change rulers, recognise people’s will. In countries like Myanmar political leader Suu Kyi has been kept under house arrest for more than 20 years. Thus, in this case, foundational challenge recognizes the need to release political leaders and recall them from exile and holding of multiparty elections.

Question.18. Explain any three advantages of globalization.
Answer. Globalization means integrating the economy of the country with the world economy.

1. Under this process, goods and sendees along with capital, resources and technology can move freely from one nation to another.
2.  It has increased the movement of people between countries. People usually move from one country’ to another in search of better income, better jobs ‘or better education. Earlier the movement of people between countries was less due to various restrictions.
3. Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the globalization process.‘For instance, advancement in transportation technology has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances possible at lower costs. Container services have led to huge reduction in port handling costs. The cost of air transport has fallen which has enabled much greater volumes of goods being transported by airlines.
4.  Developments in information and communication technology (IT in short) has brought a revolution in telecommunications. It has made e-banking, e-commerce, e- leaming, e-mail and e-govemance a reality.
5. Globalization has resulted in greater competition among producers and has been of advantage to consumers, particularly the well-off section. Rich people now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products. (any three)

Question.19. Explain any three actors which gave birth to the Consumer Movement in India.
Answer. The Consumer Movement as a ‘social force’ originated with the necessity of protecting and promoting the interests of consumers against unethical and unfair trade practices of the producers and sellers.

1.  Rampant food shortages, hoarding, black marketing and adulteration of food and edible oil gave birth to the Consumer Movement in an organized form in the 1960s.
2.  In the early phase, consumer organizations were mainly engaged in writing articles and holding exhibitions. They formed groups to look into malpractices in ration shops and overcrowding in road passenger transport.
3.  Because of all these efforts, the movements succeeded in putting pressure on business firms and the government to change their unfair ways.
   As a result of all this, a major step was taken by the Indian Government in 1986. It enacted the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, which popularly came to be known as COPRA.

Question.20. What is a trade barrier? Why did the Indian Government put up trade barriers after Independence? Explain. 
Answer. The restrictions set by the Government to regulate foreign trade are called trade barriers. Tax on imports is an example of a trade barrier.
The Indian Government had put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment after independence to protect the domestic producers from foreign competition. Imports at that stage would not have allowed local industries to come up. India allowed imports of only essential items such as machinery, fertilizers, petroleum, etc.

Question.21. What did Liberal Nationalism stand for? Explain any four ideas of Liberal Nationalists in the economic sphere.
Answer. Liberalism or Liberal Nationalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law.
Four ideas of Liberal Nationalists in the economic sphere are:

1. Liberalism stood for freedom of markets and abolition of state imposed restriction. For example, Napoleon’s administration was a confederation of 29 states, each of these possessed its own currencies, weight and measures. Such conditions were viewed as obstacles to economic exchange.
2.  Liberal Nationalists argued for the creation of a unified economic territory allowing the unhindered movement of goods, people and capital.
3. In 1834, a customs union or “zollverein” was formed. The anion abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies from 30 to 2.
4. The creation of a network of railways further stimulated mobility, harnessing economic interest to national unification.
   Or
   Explain any five ways in which teachers and students organized resistance against the French in Vietnam.
   Answer. Five ways in which teachers and students organized resistance against the French in Vietnam were:
5.  Teachers and students did not blindly follow the French curriculum. While teaching, the Vietnamese teachers quietly modified the text and criticized the text.
6.  The Saigon Native Girls School incident led to a major protest against the French by
   Vietnamese students. The students who were expelled by the school authorities for protesting, were taken back because of the pressure of the open protest by students in Vietnam. .
7. Students fought against the colonial government’s efforts to prevent the Vietnamese from qualifying for white collar jobs. By 1920s students started forming various political parties and publishing nationalist journals.
8. Vietnamese intellectuals including students and teachers started fighting against the French education system as it tried to change the values, norms and perceptions of people, to make them believe in the superiority of the French Civilization and the inferiority of the Vietnamese.
9.  By the 1920s, students formed various political parties, such as the party of ‘Young Annan’ and published nationalist journals such as the ‘Annanese Student’.

Question.22. Explain five points about Gandhiji’s idea of ‘satyagraha’.
Answer. Five points about Gandhiji’s idea of ‘satyagraha’:

1.  According to Gandhiji, satyagraha is not physical force. In the use of satyagraha there should not be any scope of ill-will.
2.  Satyagraha is about soul-force and truth is the very substance of soul and the soul is informed with knowledge.
3. According to Gandhiji, satyagraha is not the wreapon of the weak, instead it can only be used by the strongest of the strong as it totally depends upon mental strength but not on physical strength.
4.  Gandhiji said “Satyagraha is passive resistance, lohich is about intense activity but in a non¬violent manner.” India cannot rival Britain in force of arms as the British worship the war-god and all of them are bearers of arms. Indians can’t compete with them in arms but can only defeat them using the wreapon of “ahimsa” alone,’ “that is by using mental strength Indians can defeat the British. Tolerance and non-violence can only become the pillar of strength for the Indians.”
5.  Non-violence is the supreme dharma which could unite all Indians. Without seeking vengeance or being aggressive, a satyagrahi can win the battle.

Question.23. Mention any two inland waterways of India. Write three characteristics of each.
Answer. Two inland water ways are:
(A) The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia:
Characteristics:

1.  The Inland Waterways Authority has declared this waterway as National Waterway No.1.
2. Its total length is 1620 km.
3. It is one of the most important waterway of India which is navigable by mechanical boats upto Patna.

(B) The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri:
Characteristics:

1.  The total length is 891 km.
2.  It is declared as National Waterway No. 2.
3.  It is navigable by steamers upto Dibrugarh.

Question.24. Describe any five factors that control industrial location.
Answer.

1. Raw material. Cheap and abundant availability of raw material. Industries which use heavy and perishable raw material have to be located close to the source of raw material.
2. Labour. Availability of cheap labour is necessary for keeping the cost of production low.
3. Power. Cheap and continuous supply of power is extremely necessary for continuity in the production process.
4.  Capital. It is necessary for developing infrastructure, for the entire manufacturing process and for meeting manufacturing expenditure.
5. Banking and insurance facilities, favourable government policies are other factors which affect location of an industry.
   The ‘key’ to the decision of a factory location is least cost so that the venture is profitable.

Question.25. How do democracies accommodate social diversity? Explain.
Answer. No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and evolve a mechanism to negotiate the differences. Belgium is an example of how successfully differences were negotiated among ethnic groups. Therefore, democracy is best suited to accommodate various social divisions as it usually develops a procedure to conduct their competition. But the example of Sri Lanka shows how distrust between two communities turned into widespread conflict, and thus a democracy must fulfil the following two conditions in order to achieve a harmonious social life:

1. Majority and minority opinions are not permanent. Democracy is not simply rale by majority opinion. The majority needs to work wrth minority so that government may function to represent the general view.
2.  Rule by majority does not become rule by majority community in terms of religion or race or linguistic groups, etc. Democracy remains democracy so long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority’ at some point of time. No individual should be debarred from participating in a democracy7 on the basis of religion, caste, community, creed and other such factors.

Question.26. Explain the growing role of money and muscle power in political parties.
Answer. Political parties need to face and overcome the growing challenge of Money and Muscle power during elections in order to remain effective instruments of democracy.
Since parties are focussed only on winning elections, they tend to use shortcuts to win elections, for example, like booth-rigging, distribution of food, money, alcohol, etc. to the poor voters to get their votes.
Political parties tend to nominate those candidates who have or can raise lots of money. Rich people and companies who give funds to the parties tend to have influence on the policies and decisions of the party. These days, parties are supporting criminals who can win elections. This is a major cause of concern to the democrats all over the world who are worried about the increasing role of rich people and big companies in democratic politics.

Question.27. What is globalization? Explain with three examples how top Indian companies have benefitted from globalization. 
Answer. Globalization is the process of rapid integration or interconnection among countries. It is the integration between countries through foreign trade and foreign investments by multinational corporations. It means the coming together of various economies of the world to form a global economy.
The top Indian companies have benefitted from the increased competition and globalization.

1. They have invested in new technology and production methods and raised their production standards.
2.  Some have gained from successful collaborations with foreign companies.
3. Moreover, globalization has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as multinationals themselves. For example, Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy, Asian Paints, Sundaram Fasteners etc.

Question.28. ‘Banks and cooperatives help people in obtaining cheap and affordable loans.
Which values according to you does this support?
Answer. Cheap and affordable loans help people to grow crops, do business, set up small scale industries or trade in goods.
This promotes:

1.  Self reliance and financial security and independence of people.
2.  Protection of the relatively poor against corrupt moneylenders.
3.  Eradication of poverty in general.
4. All this indirectly helps in the country’s development.

Question.29. Identify and label the following on the map of India:
(a) The place where the Indian National Congress session of September 1920 was held.
(b) The place where the movement of Indigo Planets took place.
(c) The place where No Tax campaign was held.

Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 29.
(1) The place where the Indian National Congress session of September 1920 was held.
(2) Name the place where the Civil Disobedience Movement started.
(3) Name the place where No Tax campaign was held.
Answer. (1) Calcutta (Kolkata) (2) Chhmparan (3) Bardoli

Question.30. On the given political outline map of India:
(a) Identify
A. Coal Mine
B. International airport
(b) Locate and label
(i) Kandla—Sea Port

Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 30.
(1) Name the state where Bhadravati Iron and Steel Plant is located.
(2) In which state is the Kandla Sea Port located?
(3) Name the international airport in Tamil Nadu.
Answer. (1) Karnataka (2) Gujarat (3) Meenam Bakkam Airport

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.10. Why did the industrialists participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain any three reasons.
Answer. The industrialists participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement because of the following reasons:

1.  The merchants and the industrialists had made huge profits and became powerful . during the First World War. As they were keen on expanding their business, they reacted against colonial policies as it restricted business activities.
2.  Industrialists wanted protection against import of foreign goods, and a rupee-sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports.
3.  Most businessmen came to see Sioaraj as a time when colonial restrictions on business would no longer exist and trade and industry would flourish without any obstacles.

Question.11. Explain any three causes of conflict in the ‘Balkan area’ after 1871.
Answer. The nationalist tensions emerged in the Balkans due to the following reasons:

1. Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising modern-day Romania, Bulgaria Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro whose inhabitants were known as the Slavs. A large part of Balkans was under the control of the Ottoman empire.
2.  After the decline of the Ottoman empire and the growth of romantic nationalism in the Balkans, the region became very explosive. Its European subject nationalities broke away from its control and declared independence.
3. As the different nationalities struggled to define their identity and independence, the Balkan area became an area of intense conflict. The Balkan states were fiercely jealous of each other and each hoped to gain more territory at the expense of others.
4. Balkan also became the scene of big power rivalry. Russia, Germany, England, Austria, Hungry—all big powers were keen in countering the hold of other powers. This ultimately turned Balkan into a war region which eventually provided a minor cause for the First World War.
   Or
   Explain any three points, how school textbooks in Vietnam glorified the French and justified colonial rule?
   Answer. Three points to prove that the school textbooks in Vietnam glorified the French and justified colonial rule:
5.  The Vietnamese were represented as primitive and backward, capable of manual labour but not of intellectual reflection.
6.  Vietnamese were said to be only capable of working in the fields but not rule themselves as they were merely copyists and lacked creativity.
7.  School children were told that only French rule could ensure peace in Vietnam. The French claimed that the establishment of French rule had led to an atmosphere of security against the constant terror of pirates, so that Vietnamese peasants could live and work in peace.

Question.12. Explain the use of petroleum as an energy resource and as an industrial raw material.
Answer. The use of petroleum as a source of energy:

1.  It is used as a fuel for internal combustion engines in automobiles.
2.  It is used as a fuel for railways and aircrafts.
3. It provides fuel for heat and lighting.

The use of petroleum as an industrial raw material:

1.  It is used as lubricant for machinery.
2.  It is used as raw material for a number of manufacturing industries, for example, chemical industry.
3. Its numerous by-products are used in petrochemical industries such as fertilizer, synthetic rubber, synthetic fibre, medicines, vaseline wax, soap, cosmetics etc.

Question.15.Differentiate between sectional interest groups and public interest groups with examples.
Answer.

Question.20. What steps have been taken by NTPC towards environmental protection?
Answer.

1.  Optimum utilization of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment.
2. Minimizing waste generation by maximizing ash utilization.
3.  Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance
4.  Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond management, ash water recycling system and liquid waste management.
5. Ecological monitoring of all its power stations.

Question.27. Explain why a consumer should learn to be well informed.
Answer. Consumers should learn to be well informed to avoid exploitation and unfair trade practices that happen in the market place in various ways. For example, sometimes shopkeepers weigh less than what they should or when traders add charges that were not mentioned before or when adulterated and defective goods are sold to ignorant consumers.
At times false information is passed on through the media to attract consumers. Consumers have the right to be informed about the particulars of goods and services that they purchase. Consumers can then complain and ask for compensation and replacement if the product proves to be defective in any manner.
One can also protest and complain if someone sells a good at more than MRP or can bargain with the seller to sell at less than the MRP.
When we as consumers become conscious of our rights, while purchasing various goods and services, we will be able to discriminate and make informed choices. This calls for acquiring the knowledge and skill to become a well informed consumer.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II
Question.10. How did the plantation workers understand the idea of ‘Swaraj’? Explain.
Answer. For the plantation workers of Assam, “Swaraj” meant freedom to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they all were enclosed and also to be able to keep the link with their native village intact. .
Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were not allowed to leave their tea gardens without permission, which they were rarely given.
When they heard of the Non-cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied authorities, left the plantations and headed home.

Question.11. Explain the contribution of Giuseppe Mazzini in spreading revolutionary ideas in Europe.
Answer. The year following 1815, was the period of revolutionaries. Most of the revolutionaries were committed to oppose monarchical forms and to fight for liberty and freedom One such prominent revolutionary was ”Giuseppe Mazzini”, an Italian revolutionary. Mazzini also saw the creation of nation-states as a necessary part in the struggle for freedom. He strongly believed in the unification of Italy as a single unified republic which could be the basis of Italian liberty.
Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his vision of a democratic republic frightened the Conservatives. His ideas also influenced the revolutionaries of .Germany, France, Switzerland and Poland.
Or
Explain the role of women as warriors in Vietnam during the 1960s. 
Answer. Role of women in the anti-imperial struggle in Vietnam:

1. In the 1960s, photographs in magazines and journals showed women as brave fighters. There were pictures of women militia shooting down planes. Women were portrayed as young, brave and dedicated. Some stories spoke of their incredible bravery in single-handedly killing the enemy—Nguyen Thi Xuan, for instance, was reputed to have shot down a jet with just twenty bullets.
2.  Women were represented not only as warriors but also as workers. They were shown with a rifle in one hand and a hammer in the other. Whether young or old, women began to be depicted as selflessly working and fighting to save the country.
3.  Many women joined the resistance movement. They helped in nursing the wounded, constructing underground rooms and tunnels and fighting the enemy.
4.  Along the Ho Chi Minh trail, voung volunteers kept open 2195 kms of strategic roads and guarded 2500 key points. They built six airstrips, neutralized tens of thousands of bombs, transported tens of thousands of kilograms of cargo, weapons and food and shot down fifteen planes. Of the 17,000 youth who worked on the trail, 70 to 80 per cent were women.

Question.12. Explain any three steps to be taken to conserve the energy resources. 3*1=3
Answer.

1. We need to develop a sustainable path of energy development, i.e., increased use of renewable or non-conventional energy resources.
2. We have to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our limited energy resources.
3. As concerned citizens we can do our bit by using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles, switching off electricity when not in use, using power saving devices etc.

Question.13. Examine the contribution of manufacturing industry to national economy.
Answer. Over the last two decades, the share of manufacturing sector has stagnated at 17% of GDP—out of a total of 27% for the industry which includes 10% for mining, quarrying, electricity and gas. The trend of growth rate over the last decade has been around 7% per annum. Since 2003 it has shown the increased growth rate of 9-10% per annum. The desired growth rate over the next decade is 12%.
To attain this target, follozving steps can be taken:

1. Appropriate policy interventions by the government.
2.  Renewed efforts by the industries to improve productivity.

Question.15. Explain with examples the two types of political movements.
Answer. The movement in Nepal and movement in Bolivia are examples of two types of political movements for democracy.
The movement in Nepal was to regain popular control over the government from the King. This was a struggle to restore democracy. The movement in Bolivia was against a specific policy of the elected democratic government. The people of Bolivia agitated and protested against the government’s decision of privatization of water.
Both these movements are instances of political conflicts that led to popular struggles. Even though in both cases public demonstration of mass support clinched the dispute, their level of impact was different.

Question.19. Why are rules and regulations required in the marketplace? Give reasons.
Answer. Rules and regulations are required in the market place for the following reasons:

1. Individual consumers often find themselves in a weak position, whenever there is a complaint regarding a good or service that had been bought. The seller tries to shift all the responsibility on to the buyer as if the seller has no responsibility once a sale is completed.
2. To check exploitation in the market place that happens in various ways. For example, unfair trade practices such as when shopkeepers weigh less than what they should or when traders add charges that were not mentioned before or when adulterated goods are sold. –
3.  Markets do not work in a fair manner when producers are few and powerful whereas consumers purchase in small amounts and are scattered. Large companies sometimes manipulate the market in various ways.
   For example, at times false information is passed on through media to attract consumers.
   Hence there is a need for rules and regulations to ensure protection for consumers.

Question.27. What is an MNC? Give two examples of Indian companies that have emerged as MNCs. What are the harmful effects of MNCs to a host country? Give three examples.
Answer. A Multi-National Corporation (MNC) is a company that owns or controls production in more than one nation. The goods and services are produced globally. The production process is divided into small parts and spread out across the globe.
Tate Motors (automobiles), ‘Tnfosys (IT), Ranbaxy (medicines), Asian Paints (paints), Sundaram Fasteners (nuts and bolts), etc. are some of the Indian companies which are spreading their operations worldwide as MNCs.
Harmful effects of MNCs to a host country:

1.  Small producers compete or perish. MNCs have posed major challenges for a large number of small producers and workers. The small manufacturers have been hit hard due to competition. Several of the units have shut down rendering many workers jobless. Batteries, taps, tyres, dairy-products, vegetable oil are some of the industries that are badly affected due to stiff competition from MNCs.
2.  Uncertain employment. In order to maximize the profit MNCs look for a location with minimum labour costs. Faced with competition, most employers these days prefer to employ workers on temporary basis so that they do not have to pay workers for the whole year. This has changed the lives of workers and their jobs are no longer secure.
3.  The Condition of employment. Workers also have to put in very long working hours and work night shifts on a regular basis during the peak season. Wages are low and workers are forced to work overtime to make both ends meet. The workers are denied their fair share of benefits and no longer get the protection that they enjoyed earlier, for example, the Indian garment export industry often deny their workers their fair share of benefits.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Outside Delhi-2011 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Delhi 2016

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The Question Taper consists of 31 questions divided into four Sections A, B. C. and D.
3. Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
4.  Use of calculators is not permitted.

SET I

SECTION A 
Questions number 1 to 4 carry 1 mark each.
Question .1. From an external point P, tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle with centre O. If ∠PAB = 50° then find ∠AOB.
Answer.

Question 2. In Fig. 1, AB is a 6 m high pole and CD is a ladder inclined at an angle of 60° to the horizontal and reaches up to a point D of pole. If AD = 2.54 m. Find the length of the ladder. (Use √3 = 1.73)

Answer.

Question 3. Find the 9th term from the end (towards the first term) of the A.P. 5, 9,13, …, 185.
Answer.

Question 4. Cards marked with number 3,4,5,…., 50 are placed in a box and mixed thoroughly. A card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the selected card bears a perfect square number.
Answer.

SECTION B
Questions number 5 to 10 carry 2 marks each.
Question 5. If x = 2/3 and x = -3 are roots of the quadratic equation ax² + 7x + b = a and b.
Answer.

Question 6. Find the ratio in which y-axis divides the line segment joining the points A(5, -6), and B(-1, -4). Also find the coordinates of the point of division.
Answer.

Question 7. In Fig. 2, a circle is inscribed in a ΔABC, such.that it touches the sides AB, BC and CA at points D, E and F respectively. If the lengths of sides AB, BC and CA are 12 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm respectively, find the lengths of AD, BE and CF.

Answer.

Question 8. The x-coordinate of a point P is twice its y-coordinate. If P is equidistant from Q (2, -5) and R(-3, 6), find the coordinates of P.
Answer.

Question 9. How many terms of the A.P. 18,16,14,…. be taken so that their sum is zero?
Answer.

Question 10. In Fig. 3, AP and BP are tangents to a circle with centre O, such that AP = 5 cm and ∠APB = 60°. Find the length of chord AB.

Answer.

SECTION C
Questions number 11 to 20 carry 3 marks each.
Question 11. In Fig. 4, ABCD is a square of side 14 cm. Semi-circles are drawn with each side of square as diameter. Find the area of the shaded region. [Use π = 22/7 ]

Answer.

Question 12. In Fig. 5, is a decorative block, made up of two solids—a cube and a hemisphere. The base of the block is a cube of side 6 cm and the hemisphere fixed on .the top has a diameter of 3.5 cm. Find the total surface area of the block. [Use π = 22/7 ]

Answer.

Question 13. In Fig. 6, ABC is a triangle Coordinates of whose vertex A are (0, -1). D and E respectively are the mid-points of the sides AB and AC and their coordinates are (1, 0) and (0, 1) respectively. If F is the mid-point of BC, find the areas of ΔABC and ΔDEF.

Answer.

Question 14. In Fig. 7, are shown two arcs PAQ and PBQ. Arc PAQ is a part of circle with centre O and radius OP while arc PBQ is a semicircle drawn on PQ as diameter with centre M. If OP = PQ = 10 cm, show that area of shaded region is 25(√3-π /6)cm².

Answer.

Question 15. If the sum of first 7 terms of an A.P is 49 and that of its first 17 terms is 289, find the sum of first n terms of the A.P.
Answer.

Question 16. Solve for x:

Answer.

Question 17. A well of diameter 4 m is dug 21 m deep. The earth taken out of it has been spread evenly all abound it in the shape of a circular ring of width 3 m to form an embankment. Find the height of the embankment.
Answer.

Question 18. The sum of the radius of base and height of a solid right circular cylinder is 37 cm. If the total surface area of the solid cylinder is 1628 sq. cm, find the volume of the cylinder.[Use π = 22/7 ]
Answer.

Question 19. The angles of depression of the top and bottom of a 50 m high building from the top of a tower are 45° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the tower and the horizontal distance between the tower and the building. [Use√3 = 1.73]
Answer.

Question 20. In a single throw of a pair of different dice, what is the probability of getting (i) a prime number on each dice? (ii) a total of 9 or 11?
Answer.

SECTION D
Questions number 21 to 31 carry 4 marks each.
Question 21. A passenger, while boarding the plane, slipped from the stairs and got hurt. The pilot took the passenger in the emergency clinic at the airport for treatment. Due to this, the plane got delayed by half an hour. To reach the destination 1500 km away in time, so that the passengers could catch the connecting flight, the speed of the plane was increased by 250 km/hour than the usual speed. Find the usual speed of the plane. What value is depicted in this question?
Answer.


Value: By giving utmost importance to the health and well-being of the passenger the pilot displays the value of compassion. By making up for the time lost due to this delay he displays concern for the passengers’ time and money and shows dedication towards his airline and job.

Question 22. Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal. ‘
Answer. See Q. 27 (Theorem), 2011 (I Delhi).

Question 23. Draw two concentric circles of radii 3 cm and 5 cm. Construct a tangent to smaller circle from a point on the larger circle. Also measure its length.
Answer.

Question 24. In Fig. 8, O is the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm. T is a point such that OT 13 cm and OT intersects circle at E. If AB is a tangent to the circle at E, find the length of AB, where TP and TQ are two tangents to the circle.

Answer.

Question 25. Find x in terms of a, b and c:

Answer.

Question 26. A bird is sitting on the top of a 80 m high tree. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the bird is 45°. The bird flies away horizontally in such a way that it remained at a constant height from the ground. After 2 seconds, the angle of elevation of the bird from the same point is 30°. Find the speed of flying of the bird. (Take √3 = 1.732)
Answer.

Question 27. A thief runs with a uniform speed of 100 m/minute. After one minute a policeman runs after the thief to catch him. He goes with a speed of 100 m/minute in the first minute and increases his speed by 10 m/ minute every succeeding minute. After how many minutes the policeman will catch the thief.
Answer.

Question 28. Prove that the area of a triangle with vertices (f, t. – 2), (f + 2/ f + 2) and (f + 3, f) is independent of f.
Answer.

Question 29. A game of chance consists of spinning an arrow on a circular board, divided into 8 equal parts, which comes to rest pointing at one of the numbers 1, 2, 3, …., 8 (Fig. 9), which are equally likely outcomes. What is the probability that the arrow will point at (i) an odd number (ii) a number greater than 3 (iii) a number less than 9.

Answer.

Question 30. An elastic belt is placed around the rim of a pulley of radius 5 cm. (Fig. 10) From one point C on the belt, the elastic belt is pulled directly away from the centre O of the pulley until it is at P, 10 cm from the point O. Find the length of the belt that is still in contact with the pulley. Also find the shaded area. Use (π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73)

Answer.

Question 31. A bucket open at the top is in the form of a frustum of a cone with a capacity of 12308.8 cm³. The radii of the top and bottom circular ends are 20 cm and 12 cm respectively. Find the height of the bucket and the area of metal sheet used in making the bucket. (Use π= 3.14)
Answer.

SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I.
Question 10. How many terms of the A.P. 27, 24, 21, … should be taken so that their sum is zero?
Answer.

Question 18. Solve for x:

Answer.

Question 19. Two different dice are thrown together. Find the probability of:
(i) getting a number greater than 3 on each die
(ii) getting a total of 6 or 7 of the numbers on two dice
Answer.

Question 20. A right circular cone of radius 3 cm, has a curved surface area of 47.1 cm2. Find the volume of the cone. (Use π = 3.14)
Answer.

Question 28. The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from two points at a distance of 4 m and 9 m from the base of the tower and in the same straight line with it are 60° and 30° respectively. Find the height of the tower.
Answer.

Question 29. Construct a triangle ABC in which BC = 6 cm, AB = 5 cm and ∠ABC = 60°. Then construct another triangle whose sides are 3/4 times the corresponding sides of ∆ABC.
Answer.

Question 30. The perimeter of a right triangle is 60 cm. Its hypotenuse is 25 cm. Find the area of the triangle.
Answer.

Question 31. A thief, after committing a theft, runs at a uniform speed of 50 m/minute. After 2 minutes, a policeman runs to catch him. He goes 60 m in first minute and increases his speed by 5 m/ minute every succeeding minute. After how many minutes, the policeman will catch the thief?
Answer.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I and Set II.
Question 10. How many terms of the A.P. 65, 60, 55, … be taken so that their sum is zero?
Answer.

Question 18. A box consists of 100 shirts of which 88 are good, 8 have minor defects and 4 have major defects. Ramesh, a shopkeeper will buy only those shirts which are good but ‘Kewal’ another shopkeeper will not buy shirts with major defects. A shirt is taken out of the box at random. What is the probability that
(i) Ramesh will buy the selected shirt?
(ii) ‘Kewal’ will buy the selected shirt?
Answer.

Question 19. Solve the following quadratic equation for x:

Answer.

Question 20. A toy is in the form of a cone of base radius 3.5 cm mounted on a hemisphere of base diameter 7 cm. If the total height of the toy is 15.5 cm, find the total surface area of the toy. [Use π = 22/7]
Answer.

Question 28. The sum of three numbers in A.P. is 12 and sum of their cubes is 288. Find the numbers.
Answer.

Question 29. Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
Answer. See Q. 27, 2012 (I Delhi).

Question 30. The time taken by a person to cover 150 km was 2 1/2 hours more than the time taken in the return journey. If he returned at a speed of 10 km/hour more than the speed while going, find the speed per hour in-each direction.
Answer.

Question 31. Draw a triangle ABC with BC = 7 cm, ∠B -=45° and ∠A = 105°. Then construct a triangle whose sides are 4/5 times the corresponding sides of ΔABC.
Answer.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Delhi 2016 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Delhi – 2011

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The Question Taper consists of 31 questions divided into four Sections A, B. C. and D.
3. Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
4.  Use of calculators is not permitted.

SET I

SECTION A
Questions number 1 to 4 carry 1 mark each.
Question.1 In Fig. 1, O is the centre of a circle, AB is a chord and AT is the tangent at A. If ∠AOB = 100°, then calculate ∠BAT.

Solution.

Question.2. In Fig. 2, PA and PB are tangents to the circle with centre O. If ∠APB = 60°, then calculate ∠OAB.

Solution.

Question.3. A sphere of diameter 18 cm is dropped into a cylindrical vessel of diameter 36 cm, partly filled with water. If the sphere is completely submerged, then calculate the rise of water level (in cm).
Solution.

Question.4. In which quadrant the point P that divides the line segment joining the points A(2, – 5) and B(5, 2) in the ratio 2 : 3 lies?
Solution.

SECTION B
Questions number 5 to 10 carry 2 marks each.
Question.5. The angles of a triangle are in A.P., the least being half the greatest. Find the angles.
Solution.

Question.6. Three vertices of a parallelogram taken in order are (- 1, 0), (3, 1) and (2, 2) respectively. Find the coordinates of fourth vertex.
Solution.

Question.7. Find the value of p so that the quadratic equation px(x – 3) + 9 = 0 has two equal roots.
Solution.

Question.8. Find whether – 150 is a term of the A.P. 17,12, 7, 2, … ?
Solution.

Question.9. Two concentric circles are of radii 7 cm and r cm respectively, where r >7. A chord of the larger circle, of length 48 cm, touches the smaller circle. Find the value of r.
Solution.

Question.10. Draw a line segment of length 6 cm. Using compasses and ruler, find a point P on it which divides it in the ratio 3 : 4.
Solution.

SECTION C
Questions number 11 to 20 carry 3 marks each.
Question.11 In Fig. 3, APB and CQD are semi-circles of diameter 7 cm each, while ARC and BSD are semi-circles of diameter 14 cm each.
Find the perimeter of the shaded region. [Use π = 22/7 ]

Or
Find the area of a quadrant of a circle, where the circumference of circle is 44 cm.
[Use π = 22/7 ]
Solution.

Question.12 Two cubes, each of side 4 cm are joined end to end. Find the surface area of the resulting cuboid.
Solution.

Question.13 Find that value(s) of x for which the distance between the points P(x, 4) and Q(9,10) is 10 units.
Solution.

Question.14 A coin is tossed two times. Find the probability of getting at least one head.
Solution.

Question.15 Find the roots of the following quadratic equation: 2 √3 x² – 5x + -√3 = 0
Solution.

Question.16 Find the value of the middle term of the following A.P.: – 6, – 2, 2, …, 58.
Or
Determine the A.P. whose fourth term is 18 and the difference of the ninth term from the fifteenth term is 30.
Solution.

Question.17 In Fig. 4, a triangle ABC is drawn to circumscribe a circle of radius 2 cm such that the segments BD and DC into which BC is divided by the point of contact D are of lengths 4 cm and 3 cm respectively. If area of ΔABC = 21 cm², then find the lengths of sides AB and AC.

Solution.

Question.18 Draw a triangle ABC in which AB = 5 cm, BC = 6 cm and ∠ABC = 60°. Then construct a triangle whose sides are y times the corresponding sides of ΔABC.

Solution.

Question.19 Find the area of the major segment APB, in Fig. 5, of a circle of radius 35 cm and ∠AOB = 90°. [Use π = 22/7 ]

Solution.

Question.20 The radii of the circular ends of a bucket of height 15 cm are 14 cm and r cm (r< 14 cm)
the volume of bucket is 5390 cm3, then find the value of r. [Use π= 22/7 ]
Solution.

SECTION D
Questions number 21 to 31 carry 4 marks each.
Question.21 A survey has been done on 100 people out of which 20 use bicycles, 50 use motorbikes and 30 use cars to travel from one place to another. Find the probability of persons who use bicycles, motorbikes and cars respectively?
Which mode of transport do you think is better and why?
Solution.

Question.22 A game consists of tossing a coin 3 times and noting its outcome each time. Hanif wins if he gets three heads or three tails, and loses otherwise. Calculate the probability that Hanif will lose the game.
Or
From the top of a tower 100 m high, a man observes two cars on the opposite sides of the tower with angles of depression 30° and 45° respectively. Find the distance between the cars. [Use √3 = 1.73]
Solution.
The possible out comes on tossing a coin 3 times are,

Question.23 If (3, 3), (6, y), (x, 7) and (5, 6) are the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order, find the values of x and y.
Solution.

Question.24 If two vertices of an’equilateral triangle are (3, 0) and (6, 0), find the third vertex.
Or
Find the value of k, if the points P(5, 4), Q(7, k) and R(9, – 2) are collinear.
Solution.

Question.25 A motor boat whose speed is 20 km/h in still water, takes 1 hour more to go 48 km
upstream than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.
Or
Find the roots of the equation 1/x+4- 1/x-7 = 11/30,x ≠ -4,7
Solution.

Question.26 If the sum of first 4 terms of an A.P. is 40 and that of first 14 terms is 280, find the sum of its first n terms.
Or
Find the sum of the first 30 positive integers divisible by 6.
Solution.

Question.27 Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal
Solution.

Question.28 In Fig. 6, arcs are drawn by taking vertices A, B and C of an equilateral triangle ABC of side 14 cm as centres to intersect the sides BC, CA and AB at their respective mid-points D, E and F. Find the area of the shaded region.
[Use π = 22/7 and√3 =1.73]

Solution.

Question.29 From a solid cylinder whose height is 15 cm and diameter 16 cm, a conical cavity of the same height and same diameter is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid. [Take π = 3.14] :
Solution.

Question.30 Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite to each other on either side of the road, which is 100 m wide. From a point between them on the road, the angles of elevation of the top of the poles are 60° and 30° respectively. Find the height of the poles.
Solution.

Question.31 Two pipes running together can fill a cistern in 3  1/13  minutes. If one pipe takes 3 minutes more than the other to fill it, find the time in which each pipe would fill the cistern.
Solution.

SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set 1.

Question.5 Which term of the progression 4, 9,14,19,… is 109?
Solution.

Q.6 Find a relation between x and y such that the point P(x, y) is equidistant from the points A (2, 5) and B (-3, 7).
Solution.

Question.13 Find the value of k so that the quadratic equation kx (3x – 10) + 25 = 0, has two equal roots.
Solution.

Q.14. A coin is tossed two times. Find the probability of getting not more than one head.
Solution.

Question.23 Draw a triangle ABC with side BC = 7 cm, ∠B = 45° and ∠A = 105°. Then construct a
triangle whose sides are 3/5 times the corresponding sides of AABC.
Solution.

Question.24 If P(2, 4) is equidistant from Q(7, 0) and R(x, 9), find the values of x. Also find the distance PQ
Solution.

Question.28 From a point on the ground, the angles of elevation of the bottom and top of a transmission tower fixed at the top of a 10 m high building are 30° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the tower.
Solution.

Question.29 Find the area of the shaded region in Fig. 7, where arcs drawn with centres A, B, C and D intersect in pairs at mid-points P, Q, R and S of the sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively of a square ABCD, where the length of each side of square is 14 cm.
[Use π = 22/7 ]

Solution.

Question.30 A toy is in the shape of a solid cylinder surmounted by a conical top. If the height and diameter of the cylindrical part are 21 cm and 40 cm respectively, and the height of cone is 15 cm, then find the total surface area of the toy. [π = 3.14, be taken]
Solution.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I and Set II.

Question.5 Find the roots of 4x²+ 3x + 5 = 0 by the method of completing the squares.
Solution.

Question.6 Determine the ratio in which the line 3x + y – 9 = 0 divides the segment joining the points (1, 3) and (2, 7).
Solution.

Question.7 A coin is tossed two times. Find the probability of getting both heads or both tails.
Solution.

Question.8 Find the value of m so that the quadratic equation mx(5x – 6) + 9 = 0 has two equal roots.
Solution.

Question.23 Draw a triangle PQR such that PQ = 5 cm, ∠P = 120° and PR = 6 cm. Construct another
triangle whose sides are 3/4 times the corresponding sides of APQR.
Solution.

Question.24 Find the point of y-axis which is equidistant from the points (- 5, – 2) and (3, 2).
Solution.

Question. 25 From a solid cylinder of height 20 cm and diameter 12 cm, a conical cavity of height 8 cm
and radius 6 cm is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid.
[Use π = 22/7 ]
Solution.

Question.26 The length and breadth of a rectangular piece of paper are 28 cm and 14 cm respectively. A semi-circular portion is cut off from the breadth’s side and a semi-circular portion is added on length’s side, as shown in Fig. 8. Find the area of the shaded
region. [Use π = 22/7 ]

Solution.

Question.31 From the top of a 15 m high building, the angle of elevation of tire top of a cable tower is 60° and the angle of depression of its foot is 30°. Determine the height of the tower.
Solution.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Delhi – 2011 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Delhi-2012

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                             Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

• The Question Paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are
• Marks are indicated against each question.
• Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are Very Short Answer questions. Each question carries one mark.

• Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 mark Answers of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
• Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks Answers of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
• Question number 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 mark each from History and Geography both. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.

SET I

Question.1. In which session of the Indian National Congress was the demand for ‘Puma Swaraj’ formalized?
Answer. Lahore Session, December 1929.

Question.2. Name one fossil fuel which is considered environment friendly.
Answer. Natural gas.

Question.3. Name the ‘Third Wave’ country that has won democracy in 1990.
Answer. Nepal

Question.4. How many parties are needed in any democratic system to compete in elections and provide a fair chance for the competing parties to come to power?
Answer. At least two parties.

Question.5. Give a special feature that distinguishes a pressure group from a political party?
Answer. Pressure groups do not seek to get into power whereas political parties do,

Question.6. What do banks do with the deposits they accept from customers?
Answer. Banks use a major portion of deposits to extend loans.

Question.7. Which organization lays stress on liberalization of foreign trade and foreign investment?
Answer. World Trade Organization

Question.8. In which court a consumer should file a case if he/she is exploited in the market?
Answer. Consumer Court

Question.9. Why did Non-cooperation Movement gradually slow down in cities? Explain any three reasons.
Answer. The Non-cooperation Movement gradually slowed down in cities for a variety of reasons:

1.  Khadi cloth was more expensive than mill cloth and poor people could not afford to buy it. As a result they could not boycott mill cloth for too long.
2. Alternative Indian institutions were not there which could be used in place of the British ones. These were slow to come up.
3. So students and teachers began trickling back to government schools and lawyers joined back work in government courts.

Question.10. Describe the role of the peasants in Awadh in the Non-cooperation Movement.
Answer. Role of the peasants in Awadh in the Non-cooperation Movement:

1.  In Awadh, the peasants’ movement was led by Baba Ramchandra—a Sanyasi who had earlier worked in Fiji as indentured labour.
2.  The movement was against taluqdars and landlords who demanded high rents from the peasants. Peasants had to do ‘begad and work at landlords’ farms without any payment. As tenants, they had no security of tenure and could be evicted without any notice.
3. The peasants’ movement demanded reduction of revenue, abolition of begar and social boycott of these landlords.
4.  In many places Nai-Dhobi bandhs were organized to deprive landlords of the services of even washermen and barbers.
5. In 1920, Jawahar Lai Nehru began talking to the villagers and formed Oudh Kisan Sabha’. Within a month 300 branches had been setup in the villages.
6. As the movement spread in 1921, the houses of taluqdars and merchants were attacked, bazaars were looted and grain hoards were taken over.

Question.11. Describe the process of unification of Germany.
Answer. Unification of Germany:
In the 18th century, Germany w’as divided into a number of states. Some of these states ceased to exist during the Napoleonic wars. At the end of the war, there were still 39 independent states in Germany. Prussia was most powerful, dominated by big landlords known as Junkers.

1. Nationalist feelings were widespread among middle class Germans who had tried to unite the different regions of the German federation into a nation-state governed by an elected Parliament.
2.  In May 1848, a large number of political associations came together to vote for an All German National Assembly. Their representatives met at Frankfurt and the Frankfurt Assembly proposed the unification of Germany as a constitutional monarchy under the King of Prussia as emperor.
3.  The King of Prussia rejected the offer and the liberal initiative of nation building was repressed by combined forces of the monarchy, the military and the ‘Junkers’.
4.  Then on, Prussia under its Chief Minister Otto von Bismarck led the movement for unification of Germany. Bismarck carried out this process with the help of the Prussian army and the bureaucracy. He fought three wars over seven years with Denmark, Austria and France. Prussia was victorious in all these wars and the process of unification was completed as a result of Prussia’s victory over France.
5.  Consequently, on 18th January 1871, an assembly comprising of princes of German states, representatives of the army, important Prussian ministers and Bismarck gathered in the Palace of Versailes and proclaimed the Prussian King, Kaiser William, the new German Emperor.

Or
Describe infrastructural projects which were developed by the French colonisers in Vietnam.
Answer. Infrastructural projects which were developed by the French colonisers in Vietnam:

1.  The French built canals and drained lands in the Mekong Delta to increase cultivation. The irrigation canals helped to increase rice production and allowed the export of rice to the international market.
2.  Transport networks were laid to help transport goods for trade and move military garrisons.
3.  The French constructed trans-Indo-China rail network to connect the northern and the southern parts of Vietnam and Yunan in China.
4. The second line was built linking Vietnam to Siam via the Cambodian Capital of Phnom Penh.

Question.12. Mention any three major iron-ore belts of India. Write any three characteristics of the southern most iron-ore belt.
Answer. The three major iron-ore belts of India are as follows:

1.  Orissa-] harkhand belt.
2.  Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt in Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra.
3. Bellary-Chitradurga-Chikmaglur-Tumkur belt in Karnataka.
4. Maharashtra-Goa belt. (any three)

Bellary-Chitradurga-Chikmaglur-Tumkur belt is the southern most iron-ore belt. Characteristics:

1. This belt in Karnataka has large reserves of iron-ore.
2.  Kudremukh mines in the Western Ghats are known to be one of the largest in the world.
3.  Kudremukh is a 100 per cent export unit and the ore is transported as slurry through a pipeline to a port near Mangalore.

Question.13. Why was cotton textile industry concentrated in the cotton growing belt of Maharashtra and Gujarat in the early years? Explain any three reasons.
Answer. The following reasons favoured the concentration of cotton textile industry in Maharashtra and Gujarat:

1.  Availability of raw cotton from the nearby black soil region of Maharashtra and Gujarat.
2.  Humid climatic conditions are suitable for spinning and weaving, else the yam snaps.
3. Well developed transport network and proximity to Mumbai (Bombay) port facilitated import of machineries and export of finished products, thereby led to the concentration of textile industry in Maharashtra and Gujarat.
4.  India is a tropical country and cotton clothes are ideal and comfortable to wear. So there was a ready market within the country as well as outside India because of fine quality cloth produced here.

Question.14. What is the use of manganese? Name the largest manganese-ore producing state of India.
Answer. Manganese is mainly used in the manufacturing of the following items:

1.  Steel (nearly 10 kg of manganese is required to manufacture 1 tonne of steel).
2.  Ferro-manganese alloy
3.  Bleaching powder
4.  Insecticides and paints
   Odisha (Orissa) is the largest producer of manganese-ore in India.

Question.15. Explain the conditions in which democracies are able to accommodate social diversities.
Answer. No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and evolve a mechanism to negotiate the differences. Belgium is an example of how successfully differences were negotiated among ethnic groups. Therefore, democracy is best suited to accommodate various social divisions as it usually develops a procedure to conduct their competition. But the example of Sri Lanka shows how distrust between two communities turned into widespread conflict and thus a democracy must fulfill the following two conditions in order to achieve a harmonious social life:

1.  Majority and minority opinions are not permanent. Democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion. The majority needs to work with the minority so that government may function to represent the general view.
2. Rule by majority does not become rule by majority community in terms of religion or race or linguistic groups, etc. Democracy remains democracy so long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority at some point of time. No individual should be debarred from participating in a democracy on the basis of religion, caste, community, creed and other such factors.

Question.16. Name the three challenges faced by a democracy. Explain ‘the challenge of deepening of democracy’ by stating three points.
Answer. Three challenges faced by a democracy:

1.  Foundational challenge
2.  Challenge of expansion
3.  Challenge of deepening of democracy

The challenge of deepening of democracy:

1.  This challenge involves strengthening of the institutions and practices of democracy. It means strengthening those institutions that help people’s participation and control in the government.
2.  The challenge lies in realising the expectations of the people in a democracy. It is possible that some significant decisions may take place through consensus but challenging moments in democracy usually involve conflict between those groups who have power and those who aspire for a share in power. In Bolivia, the water struggle was a challenge of deepening of democracy.
3.  The challenge of deepening of democracy is faced by every nation in one form or another. It aims at bringing down the control and influence of the rich and powerful people in making governmental decisions. The need is for individual freedom and dignity to have legal and moral force.

Question.17. How are some countries of the world facing the ‘challenge of expansion of democracy’?
Explain with examples.
Answer. Most of the established democracies face the challenge of expansion. This involves . applying the basic principle of democratic government across all the regions, different social groups and various institutions.
Ensuring greater power to local government, extension of federal principle to all the units of federation, inclusion of women and minority groups, etc. falls under this challenge. This means less and less decisions should remain outside the arena of democratic control. Most of the countries including India and the US face this challenge.

Question.18. What is money? Why is modern money currency accepted as a medium of exchange?
Answer. Money is a medium of exchange in transactions. A person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity or service that he or she might want.
Modem money currency is accepted as a medium of exchange because
• it is certified for a particular denomination (For example, Rs.10, Rs.20, Rs.100, Rs.1,000).
• it is issued by the Central Bank of the country.
• it is authorized by the government of the country.

Question.19. What would happen if Government of India puts heavy tax on import of Chinese toys? Explain any three points.
Answer. If Government of India puts heavy tax on import of Chinese toys

1.  The cost of Chinese toys will increase.
2. Less Chinese toys would come in the Indian market.
3.  Indian buyers would have lesser choice in the market and toys will become more expensive.
4. For Indian toy makers this would provide an opportunity to expand business as there
   will be less competition in the market. (any three)

Question.20. Explain the ways in which consumers are exploited in the market.
Answer. Some common ways by which consumers are exploited by manufacturers and traders are given below:

1.  Underweight and under-measurement. Goods sold in the market are sometimes not measured or weighted correctly.
2.  High prices. Often the traders charge a price higher than the prescribed retail price.
3. Sub-standard quality. The goods sold are sometimes of sub-standard quality, for example, selling medicines beyond their date of expiry, selling deficient or defective home appliances.
4. Adulteration and impurity. In costly edible items like oil, ghee and spices, adulteration is common in order to earn more profit. This causes heavy loss to the consumers. They suffer from monetary’ loss as well as damage to their health.
5.  False and incomplete information. Sellers easily mislead consumers by giving wrong information about a product, its price, quality, reliability, life-cycle, expiry, date, durability, its effect on health, environment, safety and security, maintenance cost involved and terms and conditions of purchase. Cosmetics, drugs and electronic goods are common examples where consumers face such problems. (any three)

Question.21. “Napoleon had, no doubt, destroyed democracy in France, but in the administrative field he had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole system more rational and efficient.” Support the statement.
Answer. Napoleon had brought revolutionary changes in the administrative field in order to make the whole system rational and efficient. The Civil Code of 1804 is usually known as the Napoleonic Code.

1.  The first major change was doing away with all privileges based on birth, establishing equality before law and securing the right to property.
2. Administrative divisions were simplified.
3. Feudal system was abolished and peasants were freed from serfdom and manorial dues (abuse of manorial lords).
4. In towns, guild restrictions were removed.
5. Transport and communication systems were improved.
6. Peasants, artisans, workers and new businessmen enjoyed a new found freedom.
7.  Businessmen and small-scale producers of goods in particular began to realize that uniform laws, standardised weights and measures and a common national currency would facilitate the movement and exchange of goods and capital from one region to another.
   Or
   “The division of Vietnam set in motion a series of events that turned the country into a battlefield.” Support the statement.
   Answer. The division of Vietnam into north and south turned the country into a battlefield bringing death and destruction to its people as well as the environment.
   The Bao Dai regime in the south was overthrown by a coup led by Ngo Dinh Diem. Diem built a repressive and authoritarian government. Anyone who opposed Diem was called a communist and jailed and killed.
   • Diem retained ordinance 10, a French law that permitted Christianity but outlawed Buddhism. Diem’s dictatorial rule was opposed by the National Liberation Front (NLF).

Question.22. How did people and the colonial government react to the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain.
Answer. Reactions of people to the Civil Disobedience Movement:

1.  Mahatma Gandhi’s famous ‘Dandi March’ from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the coastal town of Dandi and violating the law by manufacturing salt marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
2. As the movement spread, foreign cloth was boycotted, liquor shops were picketed and peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes. Village officers resigned and forest people ventured into reserved forests to collect wood and graze cattle, thereby violate forest laws.

Reactions of colonial government to the Civil Disobedience Movement:

1.  Worried by the reaction of the people the colonial government began arresting the Congress leaders one by one.
2.  Abdul Ghaffar Khan was arrested in Peshawar and later Mahatma Gandhi was arrested which led to violent clashes in many places.
3.  The Government followed a policy of brutal repression. Peaceful satyagrahis were attacked, women and children were beaten and about 1,00,000 people were arrested.

Question.23. “Dense and efficient network of transport and communication is a prerequisite for national and international trade.” Support the statement with five arguments.
Answer.

1. Transport and communication establish links between producing centres and consuming centres. Trade or the exchange of such commodities relies on transportation and communication. Transport provides the network of links and carriers through which trade takes place.
2.  Dense network of roads, railways and airways connect the remote areas of the country hence help in production and distribution of goods and services.
3. Advancement in communication system has accelerated trade by carrying infor-mation all over the world quickly.
4.  Good transport helps in quick carrying of raw material from remote areas to the production centre and allows distribution of goods efficiently.
5. With expansion of rail, ocean and air transport, better means of refrigeration and preservation, trade has experienced spatial expansion.

Question.24. “There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development.” Give two broad measures for it. As concerned citizens, how can yon help conserve energy?
Answer. Two broad measures to develop a sustainable path of energy development are:

1. We have to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our limited energy resources. So conservation of energy should be done at all levels.
2. Increased use of renewable energy resources, for example, solar energy, hydel power, etc.

Concerned citizens can help conserve energy in the following ways:

1.  Using more of public transport system instead of individual vehicles.
2. Switching off electricity when not in use.
3.  Using power saving devices.
4. Using non-conventional sources of energy such as solar energy, wind energy, etc.
5.  Getting the power equipments regularly checked to detect damages and leakages.

Question.25. What are the features a democracy must have to be called a good democracy?
Answer.

1. The rulers elected by the people must take all the major decisions.
2.  Elections must offer a choice and a fair opportunity to the people to change the current rulers.
3.  Choice and opportunity should be available to all the people on an equal basis.
4.  Exercise of choice should lead to a government limited by basic rules of the Constitution and citizen’s rights.
5. Besides political rights, some social and economic rights are offered to the citizens by democracy.
6. Power-sharing is the spirit of democracy and is necessary between government and social groups in a democracy.
7.  Democracy is not the brute rule of the majority and respect for minority voice is necessary for a democracy.
8. Elimination of discrimination based on caste, religion and gender is important in a democracy. (any five)

Question.26. What is multi-party system? How has multi-party system strengthened democracy in India? Explain.
Answer. Multi-party system. In tkis system, the government is formed by various parties coming together in a coalition. When several parties in a multi-party system join hands for the purpose of contesting elections and winning power, it is called an alliance or a front.

1. This system appears messy and leads to political instability. But, at the same time, it allows for a variety’ of interests and opinions to enjoy political representation.
2.  Each country develops a party system that is conditioned by its special circumstances. If India has evolved as a multi-party system, it is because its social and geographical diversity cannot be absorbed by two or three parties. Thus, such representation of social diversity strengthens democracy.
3.  Multi-party7 system facilitates representation of regional and geographical diversities. In India, several regional parties are in power at the State level such as the DMK in Tamil Nadu, Akali Dal in Punjab and BSP in Uttar Pradesh.

Question.27. Explain the role of technology in stimulating the process of globalization.
Answer. Information and technology have contributed to the process of globalization in the following ways:

1. Technology. Rapid improvement in technology has contributed greatly towards globalization. Advanced technology in transport systems has helped in the delivery of goods faster across long distances at lower costs.
2.  Development in information and communication technology has also helped a great deal. Telecommunication facilities — telegraph, telephone (including mobile phones),
   fax are now used to contact one another quickly around the world, access information instantly and communicate from remote areas. Teleconferences help in saving frequent long trips across the globe.
3.  Information technology has also played an important role in spreading out production of services across countries.
4.  Orders are placed through internet, designing is done on computers, even payment for designing and printing can be arranged through internet.
   (v) Internet also allows us to send instant electronic mail (e-mail) and talk (voice-mail) across the world at negligible cost.

Question.28. What is Credit? Why is cheap and affordable credit important for the country’s development? Give four reasons. 
Answer. Credit means loans. It refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future repayment.

1.  Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s growth and economic development. Credit is in great demand for various kinds of economic activities—big or small investments, to set up business, buying cars, houses, etc.
2.  In rural areas credit helps in the development of agriculture by providing funds to farmers to buy seeds, fertilizers, expensive pesticides.
3. Manufacturers need credit for buying raw material or to meet ongoing expenditure of production. Credit helps in the purchase of plant, machinery, equipment, etc.
4.  Some people may need to borrow for illness, marriages etc.
   Thus, cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s growth and economic development.

Question.29. Identify and label the following on the map of India:
(a) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in September 1920.
(b) The place where the Peasant Satyagraha was held in Gujarat.
(c) The place of calling off the Non-cooperation Movement (N.C.M.).

Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 29.
(1) At which place Indian National Congress Session was held in December 1920?
(2) Name the place where the Peasant Satyagraha was held in Gujarat.
(3) Name the place where the Non-cooperation Movement was called off.
Answer. (1) Calcutta (2) Kheda (3) Chauri-Chaura

Question.30. On the given political outline map of India:
(a) Identify
A. Iron-ore mine
B. Terminal Station of N.H. 7
(b) Locate and label
(i) Durgapur—Iron and Steel Industry

Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 30.
(1) Name the northern terminal station of N.H. 7.
(2) In which state Kaiga Nuclear power plant located?
(3) Name the state in which Durgapur Iron and Steel plant is located?
Answer. (1) Varanasi (2) Karnataka (3) West Bengal

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.1. Who composed ‘Vande Mataram’?
Answer. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Question.13. Why are most of the jute mills located along the banks of the River Hugli? Explain any three reasons for this.
Answer. Factors responsible for the concentration of jute mills along the banks of River Hugli:

1.  Proximity of the jute producing areas to the Hugli Basin.
2. Inexpensive water transport provided by the Hugli River.
3.  It is well connected by a good network of railways, roadways and waterways to facilitate movement of raw material to the mills.
4.  Abundant water for processing new jute.
5. Cheap labour from West Bengal and adjoining states of Bihar, Orissa and Uttar Pradesh.
6.  Kolkata as a large urban centre provides banking, insurance and port facilities for
   export of jute goods. (any three)

Question.15. Describe the popular struggle ‘against privatization of water’ in Bolivia.
Answer. Bolivia, a poor country in Latin America, witnessed popular struggle against privatization of water:

1. The World Bank had pressurised the elected democratic government to give up its control of municipal water supply. The government sold these rights for the city of Cochambamba to a multinational company (MNC).
2.  The MNC immediately increased the price of water by four times. This led to a spontaneous popular protest. The mass struggle was not led by any political party.
3.  A new alliance of labour human rights and community leaders organized a successful four-day general strike in the city in January 2000.
4. Ultimately the government agreed to negotiate and the strike was called off. But yet nothing happened.
5.  Later on, an organization comprising local professionals, engineers, environmentalists, farmers, confederation of factory workers union, middle class students and street children formed the FEDECOR, They called another strike in April and the government imposed martial law.
6.  But the power of the people forced the officials of the MNC to free the city and made the government concede to the demands of the protesters.
7.  Lastly, the contract with the MNC was cancelled and water supply was restored to the municipality at old rates. This came to be known as ‘Bolivia’s Water War’.

Question.19. How does ‘Right to Safety’ help consumers? Explain with an example.
Answer. Safety is everyone’s right. There are many goods and services that we purchase require special attention to safety. The consumers have the right to be protected against the marketing of goods and deliver}’ of services that are hazardous to life and property. Producers need to strictly following required safety rules and regulation.
For example: Pressure cookers have a safety valve which, if defective, can cause a serious accident. The manufacturers of the safety valve have to ensure high quality. We also need public or government action to see that this quality is maintained.
LPG cylinder, cinema theatres, circus, medicines, edible oil, high risk buildings, etc. are . some of the products/ services that require proper Safety rules to be observed by the producer/service provider.

Question.22.How did Non-cooperation Movement start in cities? Explain its economic effects.
Answer.

1. The Non-cooperation Movement started with middle class participation in the cities.
2.  Thousands of students left government controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned and lawyers gave up their legal practices.
3. ‘The Council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras, where the Justice Party, the party of the non-Brahmans, felt that entering the Council was one way of gaining some power  something that usually only Brahmans had access to.

Economic effects of Non-cooperation Movement:

1.  The effect of Non-cooperation Movement on the economic front was more dramatic. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires.
2.  The people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, thus giving a boost to Indian textile mills and handlooms.
3. Merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.
4.  The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922 and its value dropped drastically.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II
Question.1. Who created the first image of Bharat Mata?
Answer. Abanindranath Tagore.

Question.9. Which one of the following organizations lays stress on liberalization of foreign trade and foreign investment?
Answer. World Trade Organization

Question.12. Classify energy resources into two categories. Give two examples of each.
Answer. Energy resources can be classified as conventional and non-conventional sources.
Conventional sources include—firewood, cattle-dung cake, coal, petroleum, natural gas, etc.
Non-conventional sources include—solar, wind, tidal, geothermal energy and biogas.

Question.14. Why is there a tendency for the sugar mills to concentrate in the southern and western states of India? Explain any three reasons.
Answer. Sugar mills are shifting towards southern and western states, because:

1.  Cane produced her£ has higher sucrose content.
2.  The favourable climatic conditions (cooler climate) ensure a longer growing and crushing season.
3.  The Cooperatives are more successful in these states and sugar industry being seasonal in nature, is ideally suited to cooperative sector.
4.  Yield per hectare is higher in southern states.

Question.15. Mention any three similarities between struggles of Nepal and Bolivia.
Answer. The struggle in both these countries relates to establishing and restoring democracy. The success of peoples’ struggle is a reminder that popular struggles are integral to the working of democracy. The democratic struggle in Nepal and Bolivia share some elements:
— The popular struggle in the form of protest turned into indefinite strike.
— Struggle involved mass mobilization.
— Political conflict led to popular struggle.
— Political organization played a critical role.

Question.25. Explain the ways in which democracy has succeeded in maintaining dignity and freedom of citizens.
Answer. The passion of respect and freedom are the basis of democracy:

1.  Economic disparity in society has been minimized to a great extent.
2.  In many democracies women were deprived of their right to vote for a long period of time. After long struggle they achieved their right, respect and equal treatment.
3.  Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal states and opportunities, for example, SCs and STs.
4.  In democracy all adult citizens have the right to vote.
5.  Democracy evolves a mechanism that takes into account the differences and intrinsic attributes of various ethnic groups. In a democracy majority always needs to work taking into account the interest of the minority so that the minority do not feel alienated.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Delhi-2012 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Outside Delhi-2012

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                             Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

• The Question Paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are
• Marks are indicated against each question.
• Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are Very Short Answer questions. Each question carries one mark.

• Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 mark Answers of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
• Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks Answers of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
• Question number 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 mark each from History and Geography both. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.

SET I

Question.1. Why was the Khilafat movement started?
Answer. Khilafat movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi and the Ali Brothers, Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali in response to the harsh treatment given to the Caliph of Ottoman empire and the dismemberment of the Ottoman empire by the British.

Question.2. On what basis is the industrial sector classified into public and private sectors?
Answer. The industrial sector is classified into public and private sectors on the basis of ownership of enterprises.

Question.3. Which special feature distinguishes a movement from an interest group?
Answer. Movements are usually issue specific to achieve a single objective within a limited time frame.

Question.4. What is the source of inspiration of the ‘Bhartiya Janata Party’?
Answer. The source of inspiration of the Bhartiya Janata Party or the BJP is ancient Indian culture and values.

Question.5. What gave rise to the struggle in Bolivia in 2000?
Answer. In the year 2000, there was a popular struggle in Bolivia against privatization and subsequent increase in the price of water.

Question.6. What comprises ‘terms of credit’?
Answer. Interest rate, collateral and documentation requirement and mode of repayment together comprise terms of credit.

Question.7. What was the main cause of the rise of the consumer movement?
Answer. The consumer movement grew out of consumers’ dissatisfaction due to unfair trade practices of sellers.

Question.8. Give one characteristic feature of a ‘Special Economic Zone’?
Answer. Special Economic Zones or SEZs are industrial zones set up by the government having word class facilities such as electricity, water, roads, transport, storage, recreational and educational facilities. Companies who set up production units in SEZs are exempted from taxes for an initial period of five years.

Question.9. Explain the circumstances under which Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1931.
Answer. Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil Disobedience movement in 1931 because:

1. Political leaders like Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan were arrested. More than one lakh people were arrested.
2. Government responded with brutal repression and peaceful satyagrahis were arrested. Women and children were beaten up.
3.  It resulted in an uprising in Peshawar in 1930.
4.  Industrial workers in Sholapur attacked police post. In Chittagong, the revolutionaries captured the armoury and a pitched battle was fought between the government troops and the revolutionaries. (any three)
   In such a situation, Gandhiji called off the movement and the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed.

Question.10. Explain the reaction of Indian people against the Rowlatt Act passed through the Imperial Legislative Council in 1919.
Answer. Reaction of Indian people against the Rowlatt Act of 1919:

1.  Rallies were organized against this Act.
2.  Railways, workshops and shops closed down.
3.  The procession in Amritsar provoked widespread attacks on buses, post offices, railway stations, telegraphic lines, etc.
4.  On 6th April Gandhiji held Hartal against this unjust law (Rowlatt Act).
5. The peaceful demonstration in Jallianwala Bagh led to a violent movement all across the country.

Question.11. Describe the process of ‘Unification of Italy’.
Answer. The process of ‘Unification of Italy’:

1.  Political fragmentation. Like Germany, Italy was also politically fragmented. During the middle of the 10th century, Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one, Sardinia-Piedmont was ruled by an Italian Prince.
2.  Role of Mazzini. Giuseppe Mazzini put his efforts to unite Italian Republic. He had . formed a secret society called ‘Young Italy’ for achieving his goal.
3.  Role of Count Cavour. He was the chief minister, who led the movement to unify Italy. He formed a tactful diplomatic alliance with France and defeated the Austrian forces.
4.  Role of Giuseppe Garibaldi. Garibaldi also formed armed volunteers. In 1860, they marched into South Italy and Kingdom of Two Sicilies and succeeded in driving out the Spanish rulers.
   In 1861, Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed King of United Italy.

Or
Describe any three steps taken by the French to develop agriculture in Vietnam.
Answer. Three steps taken by the French to develop agriculture in Vietnam:

1.  Building canals and draining lands to increase cultivation in Mekong delta.
2.  Increased rice production and export.
3. Vast system of irrigation works, canals and earth works.
4. Infrastructure projects started in order to transport goods. (any three)

Question.12. Why is iron and steel industry called the basic industry? Explain any three reasons.
Answer. Iron and steel industry is called the basic industry due to the following reasons:

1. Since all the other industries—heavy, medium and light, depend on it for their machinery.
2.  Steel is needed to manufacture a variety of engineering goods.
3.  Steel is needed for construction material, defence and medical equipments.
4. Steel is needed for telephonic, scientific equipment and a variety of consumer goods.
5. Production and consumption of steel is often regarded as the index of a country’s
   development. (any three)

Question.13. Why is conservation of mineral resources essential? Explain any two methods of conserving mineral resources.
Answer. Conservation of minerals is essential because of the following reasons:

1. The formation of minerals takes a long geological period of millions of years.
2.  They are finite, i.e., limited in nature.
3.  Many of them are non-renewable and exhaustible.
4. The rate of replenishment of minerals is infinitely small in comparison to rate of consumption.
5.  They have to be preserved for our future generations because they are very important for industrial development of the nation.

Methods of mineral conservation:

1.  We should use minerals in a planned and sustainable manner.
2.  Improved technologies need to be evolved to allow use of low grade ores at low cost.
3. Recycling of metals.
4.  Using scrap metals and other substitutes.
5.  Wastages in mining, processing and distribution should be minimized.
6.  Controlled export of minerals. (any two)

Question.14. Mention any four merits and any two demerits of air transport.
Answer. Merits of air transport.

1. It is the fastest but costliest mode of transport.
2.  It is the most comfortable and prestigious mode of transport.
3.  It can cover very difficult and dreary terrains, like mountains, forests, deserts and long oceanic stretches with great ease.
4. During natural calamities, relief measures and relief operation can be carried out quickly. Demerits of air transport.
5. Air travel is very expensive and not within the reach of the common people. Air travel is very luxurious.
6.  It is adversely affected by bad weather conditions.

Question.15. What are the differences between democracy and dictatorship in the decision making process?
Answer.

Question.16. (a) What do you understand by the ‘Challenge of Expansion’?
(b) How are some countries in the world facing foundational challenge of democracy? Explain with examples.
Answer. (a) Challenge of expansion. It involves applying the basic principle of democratic government across all the regions, different social groups and various institutions. It pertains to ensuring greater power to local governments, extension of federal principle to all the units of the federation, inclusion of women and minority groups, etc. Most established democracies, e.g., India and US, face the challenge of expansion. (b) Foundational challenge of democracy is faced by some countries of the world in the following manner:

1.  Making the transition to democracy and then instituting democratic government.
2.  This involves bringing down the existing non-democratic. regime, keeping military away from controlling government and establishing a sovereign and functional- state.
3.  Examples: Nepal, Egypt, Pakistan
4. In countries like Pakistan, democracy comes for and/or remains for a short time and gets replaced by dictatorial rule.

Question.17. How do pressure groups and movements exert pressure on politics? Explain with an example.
Answer. Interest groups and movements do not directly engage in party politics but they seek to exert influence on political parties. They have a political position on major issues and take a political stand without being a party.
Pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics in the following ways:

1.  They try to gain public support and sympathy for their goals through campaigns, organizing meetings, filing petitions and influencing the media for attention.
2. They organize protest activities like strikes, in order to force the government to take note of their demand.
3. Business groups employ professionals/lobbyists or sponsor expensive
   advertisements. Some members from pressure groups participate in official bodies that offer advice to the government.

Question.18. How has foreign trade been integrating markets of different countries in the world?
Explain with examples.
Answer.

1.  Foreign trade creates opportunities for producers to reach beyond domestic markets.
   Producers can compete in markets located in other countries of the world. Similarly for the buyers, import of goods from another country leads to expanding choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced. Buyers can thus choose from a wide range of products to suit their individual tastes.
2.  With the opening of trade, goods travel from one market to another. Choice of goods in the market rises. Prices of similar goods in two markets tend to become equal, and producers in the two countries now closely compete against each other even though they are separated by thousands of miles.
   Foreign trade, thus, results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.
   For example., There are endless number of footwear brands available in the Indian market. A consumer who is aware of international trends can choose between a local brand like Bata, Lakhani and international brands like Adidas, Nike, Reebok etc.

Question.19. ‘Governments initiate schemes and programmes to alleviate the suffering of the poor and meet their basic needs.
(1) Identify the fundamental right which is related to the Statement.
(2) But poverty remains in the country. What could be the reason for such a situation?
Answer.

1. Right to Equality
2.  The situation of poverty remains unchanged despite government’s initiatives because every citizen does not participate directly in competitive politics and the. problems and needs of the public, especially the poor are not duly represented. People may not have the desire, the need or the skill to take part in direct political activity other than voting. Sometimes people act together without forming any organization, which indirectly helps people to reach the government to listen to their demand or point of view.

Question.20. How do ‘Consumer Protection Councils’ help consumers? Explain three ways.
Answer. The consumer movement led to the formation of various organizations locally known as ‘Consumer forums’.. These are voluntary organizations.

1.  They guide consumers on how to file cases in the consumer courts.
2. They represent consumers in the consumer courts.
3.  These voluntary organizations receive financial support from the government for creating awareness among the consumers.

Question.21. Describe any four measures which were introduced by the French Revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.
Answer. The first clear-cut expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. In 1789, France was under the rule of an absolute monarch.
When the revolutionaries came to power in France, they were determined to create a new sense of unity and nationhood. For this, they emphasized the concept of France being the father land (La Patrie) for all French people, who were from now on addressed as citizens (citoyen). They were given the tri-colour flag, the three colours representing liberty*; equality and fraternity.
French revolutionaries introduced various other measures such as:

1. The Estate General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly.
2.  New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated all in the name of the nation.
3.  A centralized administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.
4.  Internal customs, duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.
5.  Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation. .
6. They further declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the people of Europe from despotism and help them to become nations.

Or
Which were the two major problems before the French in the field of colonial education in Vietnam? How did they try to solve these problems? Explain.
Answer. The two major problems before the French in the field of colonial education in Vietnam were as follows:

1.  The French were in a dilemma whether or not to introduce French education in Vietnam, because they feared that Vietnamese may begin to question colonial domination.
2. The French wanted to dismantle the Chinese (Traditional) education system in Vietnam.
3. Consequently, they had to remove Chinese as a language of instruction, but they were in a fix whether to introduce only French or Vietnamese in the lower classes and French in the higher classes.

They tried to solve the problems in the following ways:

1. They started the ‘Tonkin Free School’ to provide a western style education. This education included classes in Science, Hygiene and French.
2.  They suggested that Vietnamese to be taught in lower classes and French in the higher classes.
3. The few who learnt French and acquired French culture were to be awarded with French citizenship.

Question.22. Who was Alluri Sitaram Raju? Explain his role in inspiring the rebels with Gandhiji’s
ideas.
Answer. Alluri Sitaram Raju was the tribal leader of the peasants in Andhra Pradesh. He claimed
that he had a variety of special powers.
He inspired the rebels with Gandhiji’s ideas in the following ways:

1.  Raju inspired them by talking of the greatness of Mahatma Gandhi.
2.  He said that he was inspired by the Non-cooperation Movement.
3. He persuaded people to wear khadi and to give up drinking.
4.  He asserted that India could be liberated only with the use of force.

Question.23. Explain the improvements made by the Indian Railways in its functioning.
Answer.

1. Railways make it possible to conduct multifarious activities like business, sight-seeing, pilgrimage, transportation of goods and passengers.
2.  It accelerated the deployment of industrial and agricultural sector.
3.  Konkan Railways along the west coast has facilitated the movement of passengers and goods.
4. Metro Rail, Mono Rail and Rapid metro systems are helping lakhs of people to commute everyday. These have helped in easing the traffic situation in cities like Delhi, Mumbai and Gurgaon.
5.  The railways provide effective container service.

Question.24. Explain with examples how industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture.
Answer.

1. Agro-industries in India have boosted agriculture by raising its productivity.
2.  Industries depend on agriculture for their raw materials, e.g., cotton textile industry.
3. Industries provide many agricultural inputs like irrigation pumps, fertilizers, insecticides, PVC pipes, machines and tools etc. to the farmers.
4.  Manufacturing industries have assisted agriculturists to increase their production and also made the production processes very efficient.
5.  Development of different modes of transport by industrial sector has not only helped farmers to obtain agricultural inputs but has also helped them trade their products.

Question.25. “Democracies have been able to reduce inequality and poverty.” Examine the statement
highlighting the values attached to it.
Answer. Democracies have been able to reduce inequality and poverty:

1. Social. Reservation for SCs and STs and women in various organizations, jobs, schools, etc.
2.  Economic. Provision of welfare schemes, subsidy, food for work programme, etc.
3.  Political. Democracies ensure universal adult franchise. All citizens above the age of 18 have the right to vote without any discrimination on the basis of sex, religion, caste, language, etc.
4.  Religious. Secular country-no religion is an official religion.
5. Transparency. Every citizen has the right and means to examine the process of decision making.

Question.26. Identify and explain any three challenges which political parties need to face and overcome in order to remain effective instruments of democracy.
Answer. The challenges which political parties need to face:

1.  Lack of internal democracy within the parties. There is a tendency towards the concentration of power in one or a few top leaders.
2.  Parties do not keep membership registers, they do not hold organizational meetings and also do not hold internal elections regularly.
3. The leaders assume greater power to make decisions in the name of the party.
4. Since one or few leaders exercise paramount power in the party, those who disagree with the leadership find it difficult to continue in the party.
5.  Due to dynastic succession and lack of open and transparent procedures, it becomes difficult for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party.
6.  Growing role of money and muscle power, increasing role of rich people and big companies in political parties, support to criminals, etc. influence the policies and decisions of the party.
   (vii) Often political parties do not offer a meaningful choice to voters.

Question.27. Which government body supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans in India?
Explain its functioning.
Answer. The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans. Functions of Reserve Bank of India.

1.  RBI requires commercial banks to maintain a minimum cash balance out of the deposits they receive. The RBI monitors that the banks actually maintain the cash balance.
2.  RBI sees that the banks give loans not just to profit-making businesses and traders but also to small cultivators, small-scale industries, small borrowers, SHGs, etc.
3.  RBI issues guidelines for fixing rate of interest on deposits and lending by commercial banks.
4.  Periodically, banks have to submit information to the RBI on how much they are lending, to whom, at what interest rate, etc.

Question.28. How has globalization been advantageous to both the producers as well as the consumers in India? Explain.
Answer. To Producers. Several of the top Indian Companies have been able to benefit from the increased competition.
• They have invested in newer technology and production methods and thereby raised their production standards.
• They have gained from successful collaborations with foreign companies. .
• Globalization helped in the development of IT sector.
• Good quality products are being produced at lower prices.
To Consumers. There is greater choice before consumers who can enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products.
• People today, enjoy much higher standards of living than was possible earlier.

Question.29. Identify and label the following on the map of India:
(a) The place, where the Indian National Congress session was held in 1927.
(b) The place where the movement of Indigo Planters took place.
(c) The place where the Peasant Satyagraha was held.

Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 29.
(1) The place, where the Indian National Congress session was held on September, 1920.
(2) At which place was the Civil Disobedience movement started?
(3) Where was the Peasant Satyagraha held?
Answer. (1) Calcutta
(2) Dandi
(3) Kheda

Question.30. On the given political outline map of India:
(a) Identify
A. Mica mines
B. Software Technology Park
(b) Locate and label
(i) Kandla—Sea Port

Answer.

Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 30.
(1) In which state is Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant located?
(2) Name any one Technology Park located in Karnataka state.
(3) Name the southernmost major sea port of India.
Answer. (1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Bangalore/Mysore (3) Tuticorin

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.1. What combination of colours was there in the ‘Swaraj flag’ designed by Gandhiji in 1921?
Answer. Red, Green and White

Question.4. In which state does ‘Biju Janata Dal’ exist as a regional party?
Answer. Odisha (Orissa)

Question.13. Why is iron and steel industry called a heavy industry? Give three reasons.
Answer. Iron and steel industry is called a heavy industry because:

1.  All the raw materials are heavy.
2.  All the finished products are also heavy.
3.  Raw materials as well as finished goods are bulky also.
4. Iron-ore, coal, limestone are the major raw materials used in producing iron and steel and they are heavy.
5. Transportation costs of raw materials and finished goods of iron and steel industry are heavy (costly).
6.  Efficient transport network is needed for its distribution. (any three)

Question.14. Explain any three reasons for dense railway network in the North Indian Plains.
Answer. Three reasons for dense network of railways in Northern Indian Plains are:

1. The vast level land provided the most favourable conditions for their growth. It is cheaper and easier to construct railway tracks here.
2. The agricultural and industrial development in this region necessitated the development of railway lines.
3.  High population density in this region further required the development of railway lines.
4.  Resources such as iron and steel, fuels, etc., required for the development of railways are available in abundance in the Northern Indian Plains.

Question.25. Why do we feel that democracy is a better form of government than any other form of government? Explain.
Answer. We feel that democracy is a better form of government than any other form of government because:

1. Democracy promotes equality among citizens.
2.  It enhances dignity of individual. It promotes dignity of women and strengthens the claims of the disadvantaged.
3.  It improves the quality of decision making. There is transparency in a democracy,
4.  It provides methods to resolve conflicts.
5.  Democracy allows room to correct mistakes.

Question.27. “There is a great need for acquiring the knowledge and skill to become a well informed consumer.” Support this statement.
Answer. There is a great need for acquiring the knowledge and skill to become a well informed consumer because

1.  We, as consumers participate in the market.
2.  Consumer consciousness is very important for every buyer while purchasing various goods and services.
3.  We should know the rules and regulations protecting the consumers’ rights.
4. When we buy a commodity, we should know the details like the ingredients, date of manufacturing, date of expiry, directions of usage and risk associated.
5.  This enables consumers to make the right choice.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II.
Question.1. Which Act did not permit plantation workers to leave the tea gardens without permission?
Answer. Inland Emigration Act of 1859.

Question.4. In which state does the ‘Rashtriya Lok Dal’ exist as a regional party?
Answer. Uttar Pradesh

Question.14. Why does Chhota Nagpur Plateau region have the maximum concentration of iron and steel industry? Explain any three reasons.
Answer. Reasons:

1.  Low cost of iron-ore which is mined here. .
2.  High grade raw materials in close proximity.
3.  Availability of cheap labour.
4. Vast growth potential in the home market.
5. Efficient transport network for their distribution to the markets and consumers.
6. Availability of power because this region has many thermal and hydel power plants.
   (any three)

Question.18. What is the main aim of World Trade Organization? Explain its functions.
Answer. World Trade Organization. WTO believes that there should not be any barriers between trade of different countries. Trade between countries should be free.
Functions of WTO:

1.  To liberalize international trade.
2. To establish rules regarding international trade.

Question.22. Describe the actions taken by the British administration against the nationalists who opposed the Rowlatt Act.
Answer. Alarmed by the popular upsurge and scared that lines of communication would be disrupted, the British administration decided to damp down on nationalists as such.

1. Local leaders were picked up from Amritsar. .
2.  Mahatma Gandhi was barred from entering Delhi.
3. On 10th April, the police at Amritsar fired upon a peaceful procession provoking the public.
4. Martial law was imposed.
5. General Dyer took command.

Question.27. How is the consumer redressal process becoming cumbersome, expensive and time consuming? Explain.
Answer. The consumer redressal process is becoming cumbersome, expensive and time-consuming.

1. Many a time, consumers are required to hire lawyers. These cases require time for filing and attending court proceedings.
2. In most purchases, cash memos are not issued, therefore it is difficult to gather evidence in case a consumer is cheated.
3.  The existing laws are also not very clear on the issue of compensation to consumers injured by defective goods.
4.  Enforcement of laws that protect workers in the unorganized sectors is weak.
5.  Also, consumer awareness is spreading slowdy. Rules and regulations of working markets are not followed.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Outside Delhi-2012 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Outside Delhi – 2011

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The Question Taper consists of 31 questions divided into four Sections A, B. C. and D.
3. Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
4.  Use of calculators is not permitted.

SET I

SECTION A
Questions number 1 to 4 carry one mark each.
Question.1 Find the roots of the equation x² – 3x – m (m + 3) = 0, where m is a constant.
Solution.

Question.2 In Figure 1, O is the centre of a circle, PQ is a chord and PT is the tangent at P. If ∠POQ = 70°, then calculate ∠TPQ.

Solution.

Question.3 In Figure 2, AB and AC are tangents to the circle with centre O such that∠BAC = 40°. Then calculate ∠BOC.

Solution.

Question.4 Find the perimeter (in cm) of a square circumscribing a circle of radius a cm.
Solution.

SECTION B
Questions number 5 to 10 carry 2 marks each.
Question.5 A card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 playing cards. Find the probability that the card drawn is neither an ace nor a king.
Solution.

Question.6 Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are (1, 2), (3, 7) and (5, 3).
Solution.

Question.7 Find the value of m so that the quadratic equation mx (x -7) + 49 = 0 has two equal roots.
Solution.

Question.8 Find how many two-digit numbers are divisible by 6?
Solution.

Question.9 In Figure 3, a circle touches all the four sides of a quadrilateral ABCD whose sides are AB = 6 cm, BC = 9 cm and CD = 8 cm. Find the length of side AD.

Solution.

Question.10 Draw a line segment AB of length 7 cm. Using ruler and compasses, find a point P on AB such that AP/AB =3/5.
Solution.

SECTION C
Questions number 11 to 20 carry 3 marks each.
Question.11 Find the perimeter of the shaded region in Figure 4, if ABCD is a square of side 14 cm arid APB and CPD are semicircles.
[Use π = 22/7]

Solution.

Question.12 Two cubes each of volume 27 cm³ are joined end to end to form a solid. Find the surface area of the resulting cuboid.
Or
A cone of height 20 cm and radius of base 5 cm is made up of modelling clay. A child reshapes it in the form of a sphere. Find the diameter of the sphere.
Solution.

Question.13 Find the value of y for which the distance between the points A (3, -1) and B (11, y) is 10 units.
Solution.

Question.14 A ticket is drawn at random from a bag containing tickets numbered from 1 to 40. Find the probability that the selected ticket has a number which is a multiple of 5.
Solution.

Question.15. Find the roots of the following quadratic equation : x² -3√5x + 10 = 0
Solution.

Question.16 Find an A.P. whose fourth term is 9 and the sum of its sixth term and thirteenth term is 40.
Solution.

Question.17 In Figure 5, a triangle PQR is drawn to circumscribe a circle of radius 6 cm such that the segments QT and TR into which QR is divided by the point of contact T, are the lengths 12 cm and 9 cm respectively. If the area of ΔPQR = 189 cm², then find the lengths of sides PQ and PR.

Solution.

Question.18 Draw a pair of tangents to a circle of radius 3 cm, which are inclined to each other at an angle of 60°.
Or
Draw a right triangle in which the sides (other than hypotenuse) are of lengths 4 cm and 3
cm. Then construct another triangle whose sides are 3/5 times the corresponding sides of the given triangle.
Solution.

Question.19 A chord of a circle of radius 14 cm subtends an angle of 120° at the centre. Find the area of
the corresponding minor segment of the circle. [Use π = 22/7 and √3 = 1.73]
Solution.

Question.20 An open metal bucket is in the shape of a frustum of a cone of height 21 cm with radii of its lower and upper ends as 10 cm and 20 cm respectively. Find the cost of milk which can
completely fill the bucket at ?30 per litre. [Use π = 22/7 ]
Solution.

SECTION D
Questions number 21 to 31 carry 4 marks each.
Question. 21 Point P(x, 4) lies on the line segment joining the points A(- 5,8) and B(4, – 10). Find the ratio in which point P divides the line segment AB. Also find the value of x.
Solution.

Question.22. Find the area of the quadrilateral ABCD, whose vertices are A(- 3, – 1), B(- 2, – 4), C(4, -1) and D(3, 4).
Or
Find the area of the triangle formed by joining the mid-points of the sides of the triangle whose vertices are A(2, 1), B(4, 3) and C(2, 5).
Solution.

Question.23 From the top of a vertical tower, the angles of depression of two cars, in the same straight line with the base of the tower, at an instant are found to be 45° and 60°. If the cars are 100
m apart and are on the same side of the tower, find the height of the tower. [Use √3 = 1.73]
Or
Two dice are rolled once. Find the probability of getting such numbers on the two dice, whose product is 12.
Solution.

Question.24 The probability of guessing the correct answer to a certain question is x/12. If the probability
of guessing the wrong answer is 3/4, find x.
If a student copies the answer, then its probability is 2/6 . If he doesn’t copy the answer, then
the probability is 2y/3. Find the value of y.
If he does not copy the answer, which moral value is depicted by him?
Solution.

Question.25 Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
Solution.

Question. 26 The first and the last terms of an A.P. are 8 and 350 respectively. If its common difference is 9, how many terms are there and what is their sum?
Or
How many multiples of 4 lie between 10 and 250? Also find their sum.
Solution.

Question.27 A train travels 180 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 9 km/hour more, it would have taken 1 hour less for the same joumev. Find the speed of the train.
Or
Find the roots of the equation 1/2x-3 + 1/x-5 = 1,x =/ 3/2, 5
Solultion.

Question.28 In Figure 6, three circles each of radius 3.5 cm are drawn in such a way that each of them touches the other two. Find the area enclosed
between these three circles (shaded region). [Use π= 22/7 ]

Solution.

Question.29 Water is flowing at the rate of 15 km/ hour through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a cuboidal pond which is 50 m long and 44 m wide. In what time will the level of water in the pond rise by 21 cm?
Solution.

Question.30 The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower from a point on the ground is 60°. From another point 10 m vertically above the first, its angle of elevation is 30°. Find the height of the tower.
Solution.

Question.31 If pth, qth and rth terms of an A.P. are a, b, c respectively, then show that (a – b)r + (b – c)p + (c – a)q = 0.
Solution.

SET II

Note:Except for the following questions, all the remaining questionr have been asked in Set I.
Question.5 Find 10th term from end of the A.F. 4, 9,14, …, 254.
Solution.

Question.6 Solve for x : 36 x² – 12ax + (a²  – b² ) = 0
Solution.

Question.13 Which term of the A.P. 3,14, 25, 36, … will be 99 more than its 25th term?
Solution.

Question.14 In Figure 7, a semi-circle is drawn with O as centre and AB as diameter. Semi-circles are drawn with AO and OB as diameters.
If AB = 28 m, find the perimeter of the shaded region.
[Use π = 22/7]

Solution.

Question.23 A chord of a circle of radius 21 cm subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. Find the area of
the corresponding minor segment of the circle. [Use π = 22/7 and √3 = 1.73]
Solution.

Question.24 Point M(11, y) lies on the line segment joining the points P(15, 5) and Q(9, 20). Find the ratio in which point M divides the line segment PQ. Also find the value of y.
Solution.

Question.25 In Figure 8, an equilateral triangle has been inscribed in a circle of radius 6 cm. Find the area of the shaded region. [Use π = 3.14]

Solution.

Question.26A farmer connects a pipe of intemaTdiameter 20 cm, from a canal into a cylindrical tank in his field, which is 10 m in diameter and 4 m deep. If water flows through the pipe at the rate of 5 km/hour, in how much time will the tank be filled?
Solution.

Question.27 The angles of depression of the top and bottom of a 12 m tall building, from the top of a multi-storeyed building are 30° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the multi-storeyed building.
Solution.

SET III

Note:Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I and Set II.
Question.1 In Figure 1, find the area of the shaded region.

Solution.

Question.2 If the perimeter of a semi-circular protractor is 36 cm, find the diameter of the protractor. (Take it = 22/7)
Solution.

Question.7 How many natural numbers are there between 200 and 500, which are divisible by 7?
Solution.

Question.14 In Fig. 9, ABC is a triangle right-angled at B, with AB = 14 cm and BC = 24 cm. With the vertices A, B and C as centres, arcs are drawn, each of radius 7 cm. Find the area of the shaded region.
[Use π = 22/7]

Solution.

Question.15 The point A(3, y) is equidistant from the points P(6, 5) and Q(0, – 3). Find the value of y.
Solution.

Question.16 Area of a sector of a circle of radius 14 cm is 154 cm². Find the length of the corresponding
arc of the sector. [Use π = 22/7]
Solution.

Question.25 The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of a tower is 30° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 60°. If the tower is 50 m high, find the height of the building.
Solution.

Question.26 Water is flowing at the rate of 10 km/hour through a pipe of diameter 16 cm into a cuboidal tank of dimensions 22 m x 20 m x 16 m. How long will it take to fill the empty tank?
[Use π = 22/7]
Solution.

Question.27 Find the area of the shaded region in Figure 10, where ABCD is a square of side 28 cm.

Solution.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Outside Delhi – 2011 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Delhi – 2012

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The Question Taper consists of 31 questions divided into four Sections A, B. C. and D.
3. Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
4.  Use of calculators is not permitted.

SET I

SECTION A
Questions number 1 to 4 carry 1 mark each.
Question.1 If 1 is a root of the equations ay² + ay + 3 = 0 and y² + y + b = 0, then find the value of ab.
Solution.

Question.2 In Fig. 1, the sides AB, BC and CA of a triangle ABC touch a circle at P, Q and R respectively. If PA = 4 cm, BP = 3 cm and AC = 11 cm, find the length of BC (in cm).

Solution.

Question.3 In Fig. 2, a circle touches the side DF of ΔEDF at H and touches ED and EF produced at K and M respectively. If EK = 9 cm, calculate the perimeter of ΔEDF (in cm).

Solution.

Question.4 If the area of a circle is equal to sum of the areas of two circles of diameters 10 cm and 24 cm, calculate the diameter of the larger circle (in cm).
Solution.

SECTION B
Questions number 5 to 10 carry 2 marks each.
Question.5 Find the sum of the first 25 terms of an A.P. whose n^th term is given by  t_n= 2 – 3n.
Solution.

Question.6 In a simultaneous toss of two coins, find the probability of getting:
(i) exactly one head, (ii) atmost one head.
Solution.

Question.7 Find the value(s) of k so that the quadratic equation x² – 4kx + k = 0 has equal roots.
Solution.

Question.8 Find the sum of all three digit natural numbers, which are multiples of 11.
Solution.

Question.9 Tangents PA and PB are drawn from an external point P to two concentric circles with centre O and radii 8 cm and 5 cm respectively, as shown in Fig. 3. If AP = 15 cm, then find the length of BP.

Solution.

Question.10 In Fig. 4, an isosceles triangle ABC, with AB = AC, circumscribes a circle. Prove that the point of contact P bisects the base BC.

Or
In Fig. 5, the chord AB of the larger of the two concentric circles, with centre O, touches the smaller circle at C. Prove that AC = CB.

Solution.

SECTION C
Questions number 11 to 20 carry 3 marks each.
Question.11 A milkman was serving his customers using two types of mugs A and B of inner diameter 5 cm to serve the customers. The height of the mugs is 10 cm.
He decided to serve the customers in ‘B’ type of mug.
(a) Find the volume of the mugs of both types.
(b) Which mathematical concept is used in the above problem?
(c) By chasing the mug of type ‘B’, which value is being depicted MUg ‘A’ bv the milkman?

Solution.

Question.12 In Fig. 6, OABC is a square of side 7 cm. If OAPC is a quadrant of a circle with centre O, then find the area of the shaded region.
[Use π = 22/7 ]

Solution.

Question.13 If a point A(0, 2) is equidistant from the points B(3, p) and C(p, 5), then find the value of p,
Solution.

Question.14 A number is selected at random from first 50 natural numbers. Find the probability that it is a multiple of 3 and 4.
Solution.

Question.15 Solve for x: 4×2 – 4ax + (a² – b²) = 0
Or
Solve for x: 3x² – 2√6x + 2 = 0
Solution.

Question.16 Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.
Or
Prove that opposite sides of a quadrilateral circumscribing a circle subtend supplementary angles at the centre of the circle.
Solution.

Question.17 Construct a right triangle in which the sides, (other than the hypotenuse) are of length 6 cm
and 8 cm. Then construct another triangle, whose sides are 3/5 times the corresponding sides of the given triangle.
Solution.

Question.18 In Fig. 7, PQ and AB are respectively the arcs of two concentric circles of radii 7 cm and 3.5 cm and centre O. If ∠POQ = 30°
then find the area of the shaded region. [Use π= 22/7 ]

Solution.

Question.19 From a solid cylinder of height 7 cm and base diameter 12 cm, a conical cavity of same height and same base diameter is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the remaining
solid. [Use π = 22/7 ]
Or
A cylindrical bucket, 32 cm high and with radius of base 18 cm, is filled with sand. This bucket is emptied on the ground and a conical heap of sand is formed. If the height of the conical heap is 24 cm, then find the radius and slant height of the heap.
Solution.

Question.20 The angles of depression* of two ships from the top of a light house and on the same side of it are found to be 45° and 30°. If the ships are 200 m apart, find the height of the light house.
Solution.

SECTION D
Questions number 21 to 31 carry 4 marks each.
Question.21 A point P divides the line segment joining the points A(3, -5) and B(-4, 8) such that AP K
pg = Y . If P lies on the line x + y = 0, then find the value of K.
Solution.

Question.22 If the vertices of a triangle are (1, -3), (4, p) and (-9, 7) and its area is 15 sq. units, find the value(s) of p.
Solution.

Question.23 A box contains 100 red cards, 200 yellow cards and 50 blue cards. If a card is drawn at random from the box, then find the probability that it will be
(i) a blue card
(ii) not a yellow card
(iii) neither yellow nor a blue card.
Solution.

Question.24 The 17th term of an AP is 5 more than twice its 8th term. If the 11th term of the AP is 43, then find its nth term.
Solution.

Question. 25 A shopkeeper buys some books for Rs80. If he had bought 4 more books for the same amount, each book would have cost Rs 1 less. Find the number of books he bought.
Or
The sum of two numbers is 9 and the sum of their reciprocals is 1/2. Find the numbers.
Solution.

Question.26 Sum of the first 14 terms of an AP is 1505 and its first term is 10. Find its 25^th term.
Solution.

Question.27 Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
Or
A quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle. Prove that AB + CD = AD + BC.
Solution.

Question.28 A solid is in the shape of a cone surmounted on a hemisphere, the radius of each of them being 3.5 cm and the total height of solid is 9.5 cm. Find the volume of the solid.
[Use π = 22/7 ]
Solution.

Question.29 A bucket is in the form of a frustum of a cone and it can hold 28.49 litres of water. If the radii of its circular ends are 28 cm and 21 cm, find the height of the bucket.
[Use π = 22/7 ]
Solution.

Question.30 The angle of elevation of the top of a hill at the foot of a tower is 60° and the angle of depression from the top of the tower of the foot of the hill is 30°. If the tower is 50 m high, find the height of the hill.
Solution.

Question.31 From the top of a hill, the angles of depression of two consecutive kilometre stones due east are found to be 30° and 45°. Find the height of the hill.
Solution.

SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.13 Find the value(s) of k so that the quadratic equation 2x² + kx + 3 = 0 has equal roots.
Solution.

Question.14 Find the sum of all three digit natural numbers, which are multiples of 9.
Solution.

Question. 21 A box contains 35 blue, 25 white and 40 red marbles. If a marble is drawn at random from the box, find the probability that the drawn marble is
(i) white
(ii) not blue
(iii) neither white nor blue.
Solution.

Question.22 The 15th term of an AP is 3 more than twice its 7th term. If the 10th term of the AP is 41, then find its n^th term.
Solution.

Question.23 Draw a triangle ABC with side BC = 7 cm, ∠ABC = 60° and AB = 6 cm. Then construct
another triangle whose sides are 3/4 times the corresponding sides of ΔABC.
Solution.

Question.24 The shadow of a tower standing on a level ground is found to be 20 m longer when the Sun’s altitude is 45° than when it is 60°. Find the height of the tower.
Solution.

Question.29 The sum of the first 15 terms of an AP is 750 and its first term is 15. Find its 20th term.
Solution.

Question.30 A container shaped like a right circular cylinder having base radius 6 cm and height 15 cm is full of ice-cream. The ice-cream is to be filled into cones of height 12 cm and radius 3 cm, having a hemispherical shape on the top. Find the number of such cones which can be filled with ice-cream.
Solution.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II.
Question.13 Find the sum of all three digit natural numbers, which are multiples of 7.
Solution.

Question.14 Find the value(s) of k so that the quadratic equation 3x²– 2kx + 12 = 0 has equal roots.
Solution.

Question.21 A kite is flying at a height of 45 m above the ground. The string attached to the kite is temporarily tied to a point on the ground. The inclination of the string with the ground is 60°. Find the length of the string assuming that there is no slack in the string.
Solution.

Question.22 Draw a triangle ABC with side BC = 6 cm, ∠C = 30° and ∠A = 105°. Then construct another
triangle whose sides are 2/3 times the corresponding sides of ΔABC.
Solution.

Question.23 The 16th term of an AP is 1 more than twice its 8th term. If the 12th term of the AP is 47, then find its nth term.
Solution.

Question.24 A card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting
(i) a king of red colour
(ii) a face card
(iii) the queen of diamonds.
Solution.

Question.29 Sum of the first 20 terms of an AP is -240, and its first term is 7. Find its 24th term.
Solution.

Question.30 A solid is in the shape of a cone standing on a hemisphere with both their radii being equal to 7 cm and the height of the cone is equal to its diameter. Find the volume of the solid.
[Use π = 22/7]
Solution.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Delhi – 2012 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Delhi-2013

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                             Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

• The Question Paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are
• Marks are indicated against each question.
• Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are Very Short Answer questions. Each question carries one mark.

• Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 mark Answers of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
• Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks Answers of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
• Question number 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 mark each from History and Geography both. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.

SET I

Question.1. Name two main ‘Satyagraha’ movements organized by Mahatma Gandhi successfully in favour of peasants in 1916 and 1917.
Answer.

1. Indigo Planters Movement in Champaran, Bihar in 1916.
2. Peasants Satyagraha Movement was organized in Kheda district in Gujarat in 1917 to support peasants in the demand for relaxation of revenue collection.

Question.2. Which port in India is the biggest with a spacious natural and well sheltered harbour?
Answer. Mumbai

Question.3. What is a pressure group? Give an example.
Answer. Pressure groups are organizations that attempt to influence government policies. They could do so by forming an organization and undertaking activities to promote their interest or their viewpoint. These organizations are formed when people with common occupation, interest, aspirations or opinions come together in order to achieve a common objective.
A few examples are: BAMCEF (Backward and Minorities Community Employees’ Federation), FEDECOR—a Bolivian organization, RWAs, AITUC.

Question.4. Give a reason why a multi-party system has evolved in India?
Answer. A multi-party system evolved in India because of the social and geographical diversity of the country. This diversity cannot be absorbed by 2 or 3 parties alone.

Question.5. Give two dissimilarities of popular struggles in Nepal and Bolivia?
Answer.

1. The movement in Nepal was to establish democracy. The struggle in Bolivia involved claims on an elected, democratic government.
2.  The struggle in Nepal was about the foundation of the country’s politics. The struggle in Bolivia was about one specific policy.

Question.6.What is the main informal source of credit for rural households in India?
Answer.Money lenders are the main source of informal credit for rural households.

Question.7.Name an important barrier on foreign trade.
Answer.Tax on imports is an important barrier on foreign trade.

Question.8.Mention two ways in which consumer ignorance can cause their exploitation?
Answer.

1.  Consumers may not be careful in looking at the quality of the products or guarantee of the products and services. They do not bother about the warranty card.
2. They may not bother to buy quality marked products (such as ISI, Agmark).
3.  They may not bother to take the cash memo without which they cannot make complaints or get redressal. (any two)

Question.9.How had the First World War created a new economic situation in India? Explain with three examples.
Answer.The First World Warxreated a dramatically new economic situation in India:

1.  Manchester imports into India declined as the British mills were busy with war production to meet the needs of the army paving the way for the Indian mills to supply for the huge home market.
2. As the war prolonged, Indian factories were called upon to supply war needs. As a result new factories were set up, new workers were employed and everyone was made to work longer hours.
3. Cotton production collapsed and exports of cotton cloth from Britain fell dramatically after the war, as it was unable to modernize and compete with US, Germany, Japan. Hence within colonies like India, local industrialists gradually consolidated their position capturing the home market.

Question.10.How was Rowlatt Act opposed by the people in India? Explain with examples.
Answer.Gandhiji, who had formed a Satyagraha Sabha earlier, called for a countrywide protest against the proposed Rowlatt Act. Throughout the country, 6 April 1919 was observed as a National Humiliation Day. Gandhiji wanted a non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust laws. Hartals (Strikes) and rallies were organized in various cities. Workers went on strike in railway workshops. Shops closed down. The movement was non-violent but proved to be effective.

Question.11.Explain the process of unification of Italy.
Answer.Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered over dynastic states and the multinationals Hamsburg Empire. Italy was divided into seven states. Italian language did not have one common form.
Guiseppe Mazzini had played an important role in the unification of Italy. He formed a secret society called ‘Young Italy’ in Marseilles, to spread his goals. He believed Italy could not continue to be a patchwork of small states and had to be forged into a single unified republic. During 1830s, Mazzini sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic. As uprisings in 1831 and 1848 had failed, the mantle now fell on Sardinia-Piedmon t under its ruler Emmanuel II to unify Italy.
Under Chief Minister Cavour, Sardinia-Piedmont succeeded in defeating the Austrian forces in 1859. Even Garibaldi joined the fray. In 1860, they marched towards South Italy and the Kingdom of the two Sicilies, and with the help of the local peasants, drove out the Spanish rulers. In 1861, Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed as King of United Italy.
Or
Explain any three steps taken by the French to develop cultivation in the Mekong Delta.
Answer.

1. The French began by building canals and draining lands in Mekong delta to increase cultivation. The vast system of irrigation works was built mainly with forced labour .
2.  The rice production increased which allowed the export of rice to the international market.
3.  Vietnam exported two-thirds of its rice production and by 1931 had become the third largest exporter of rice in the world.
4.  An efficient system of transport was built for trade. Rail and port facilities were set up to serve this sector.
5.  To reduce rural poverty and increase agricultural productivity, it was necessary to carry out land reforms as the Japanese had done in the 1890s. (any three)

Question.12. Differentiate between metallic and non-metallic minerals with examples.
Answer.

Question.13. Why is road transport more useful than rail transport in India? Give reasons.
Answer.Reasons:

1. Construction of roads is easier and cheaper as compared to railways.
2.  Roads provide door to door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much
   lower as compared to railways which generally leave the people and goods at the destined railway stations.
3.  Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slope and, as such, can traverse through mountainous terrain. But railways cannot negotiate steep gradients.
   (iv) Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller
   amount of goods over short distances. (any three)

Question.14. “Agriculture and industry move hand in hand.” Analyze the statement with three examples.
Answer. Agriculture and industry in India move hand in hand:

1. Agro-industries in India have boosted agriculture by raising its productivity.
2. Industries depend on agriculture for their raw materials, e.g., cotton textile industry,
3.  Industries provide many agricultural inputs like irrigation pumps, fertilizers, insecticides, PVC pipes, machines and tools etc. to the farmers.
4. Manufacturing industries have assisted agriculturists to increase their production and also made the production processes very efficient.
5. Development of different modes of transport by industrial sector has not only helped farmers to obtain agricultural inputs but has also helped them trade their products.
   (any three)

Question.15. “An ideal government would not only keep itself aivay from corruption but also make fighting corruption and black money a top priority”. Justify the statement by highlighting the values attached to it.
Answer. The values attached to the above statement signify the following practices and institutions:
• Regular free and fair elections, open public debate on major policies and legislation and citizens’ right to information about the government and its functions.
• An ideal government in a democracy follows procedures and is accountable to the people.
• A citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision making. This is known as transparency.
• An ideal government is attentive and responsive to the needs and expectations of the people and is largely free of corruption as it is a legitimate government. It is peoples’ own government.

Question.16. Name the national political party which gets inspiration from India’s ancient culture and values. Mention four features of that party.
Answer. Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) founded in 1980 draws inspiration from India’s ancient culture and values.
Features:

1. Cultural Nationalism (Hindutva) is an important element in its conception of Indian nationhood and polities.
2. Wants full territorial and political integration of Jammu and Kashmir with India.
3. A uniform civil code for all people living in the country irrespective of religion and ban on religious conversions.
4.  Earlier limited to north and west and to urban areas, the party expanded support in . the south, east, the north-east and rural areas.

Question.17. “Legal constitutional changes by themselves cannot overcome challenges to democracy”. Justify the statement with an example.
Answer. As legal constitutional changes by themselves cannot overcome challenges to democracy, democratic reforms need to be carried out mainly by political activists, parties, movements and politically conscious citizens.

1. Any legal change must carefully look at what results it will have on politics. Generally, laws, that seek a ban on something are rather counter-productive; for example, many states have debarred people who have more than two children from contesting Panchayat elections. This has resulted in denial of democratic opportunity to many poor women, which was not intended. The best laws are those which empower people to carry out democratic reforms; for example, the Right to Information Act which acts as a watchdog of democracy by controlling corruption.
2.  Democratic reforms are to be brought about principally through political parties. The most important concern should be to increase and improve the quality of political participation by ordinary citizens.
3.  Any proposal for political reforms should think not only about what is a good solution, but also about who will implement it and how. Measures that rely on democratic movements, citizens organizations and media are likely to succeed.

Question.18. How do Multinational Companies manage to keep the cost of production of their goods low? Explain with examples.
Answer.

1. MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources. Example, Countries like China, Bangladesh and India. They also provide with the advantage of cheap manufacturing locations.
2.  MNCs also need close-by markets for their manufacturing goods. Mexico and Eastern Europe are useful for their closeness to the markets in the US and Europe.
3.  Besides these, MNCs also require skilled engineers and IT personnel and a large number of English speaking people who are able to provide customer care services (India possibly tops in this area).
4.  All these factors help MNCs in saving costs of production by 50-60%.

Question.19. How is money used as a medium of exchange? Explain with examples.
Answer. Money as a medium of exchange is used in the sale and purchase of goods and sendees. Anyone can get commodities in the exchange of money. Money removed the problem of barter system. Money offers freedom of choice and its owner can use it at the article, place, time and the way he likes.

Question.20. How do we participate in the market as producers and consumers? Explain with three examples.
Answer. We participate in the market both as producers and consumers.

1. As producers of goods and services we could be working in any of the sectors like agriculture, industry or services.
   For example, a farmer who sells wheat to a flour mill. The man at the mill grinds the wheat and sells the flour to a biscuit company. The biscuit company uses flour, sugar and oil to make packets of biscuits. It sells the biscuits in the market to the consumer. Biscuits are the final goods, i.e., the goods that reach the consumer and people as consumers buy.
2.  We as producers in the market could be made to sell the produce to the moneylender at a low rate in return for a timely loan.
   For example, in case of small farmers; the failure of crops often makes loan repayment impossible. They have to sell a part of their land to repay the loans.
3.  As consumers we participate in the market when we purchase goods and services that we need. As individual consumers we often find ourselves in a weak position. Whenever there is a complaint regarding a good or service that had been bought, the seller tries to shift all the responsibility on to the buyer.
   For example, a long battle had to be fought with court cases to make cigarette manufacturing companies accept that their product could cause cancer.

Question.21. How did culture play an important role in creating the idea of the ‘nation’ in Europe?
Explain with examples.
Answer. Culture, music, dance and religion played an important role in the growth of nationalism.

1.  Role of culture was important in creating the idea of the nation. Art, poetry, music etc. helped in developing and expressing nationalist feelings. Romanticism was a cultural movement that led to the development of nationalist sentiment. Romantic artists and poets criticized the glorification of reason and science and instead focussed on emotions and intuition.
2.  Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries portrayed nations as female figures. The female form, that was chosen to personify the nation, did not stand for any particular woman in real life. Rather it sought to give the abstract idea of the nation in concrete form. That is, the female figure became the allegory of the nation. In France, she was named Marianne—a popular Christian name and in Germany, Germania.
3.  Language too played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. After Russian occupation, the Polish language was forced out of schools and Russian language was imposed everywhere. In 1831, an armed rebellion against Russian rule took place which was ultimately crushed. Following this, many members of the clergy in Poland began to use language as a weapon of national resistance.
4.  Romantics such as the German philosopher Herder claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people das volk. It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation was popularized.

Or
How were Vietnamese nationalists inspired by Japan and China to set up a democratic republic? Explain with examples.
Answer. Influence of Japan. In 1907-08, around 300 students from Vietnam went to Japan to acquire modem education.

1. The primary objective was to drive out the French from Vietnam, overthrow the puppet emperor and reestablish the Nguyen dynasty that had been deposed by the French. For this, they needed foreign help.
2.  Japan had modernized itself and had resisted colonisation by the West. It had defeated Russia in 1907 and proved its military strength. The Vietnamese nationalists looked for foreign amis and help and appealed to the Japanese as fellow Asians.
3.  Vietnamese students established a branch of Restoration Society in Tokyo but, in 1908, the Japanese Ministry of Interior clamped down on them. Many, including Phan Boi Chau, were deported and forced to seek exile in China and Thailand. Developments in China also inspired Vietnamese nationalists:
   In 1911, the long established monarchy in China was overthrown by a popular movement under Sun Yat Sen, and a republic was set up. Vietnamese students organized the Association for the Restoration of Vietnam.
   Now, the nature of the Anti-French independent movement changed. The objective of the Vietnamese now was to set up a democratic republic.

Question.22. “Dalit participation was limited in the Civil Disobedience Movement”. Examine the statement.
Answer. The abstract concept of ‘Swaraj’ did not move the nation’s ‘untouchables’, who from around the 1930s had begun to call themselves dalit or oppressed.
The Congress had ignored the dalits, for the fear of offending the Sanatanis, the conservative high caste Hindus.
Gandhiji persuaded upper castes to change their heart. He himself cleaned toilets to dignify the work of the bhangi. He called the untouchables, Harijans, organized satyagraha to secure them entry into temples and access to public wells, tanks and schools.
The dalit leaders were keen on a different political solution. Political empowerment, they believed would resolve the problems of their social disability. They began demanding reserved seats in educational institutions and a separate electorate that would choose dalit members for the Legislative Council.

Question.23. What is Road Density? Describe any four major problems faced by road transport in India.
Answer. Road density is the length of a road per 100 sq. km of area.
Problems faced by road transport in India:

1. The road network is inadequate in proportion to the volume of traffic and passengers.
2.  About half of the roads are unmetalled which makes them useless during rainy season.
3.  The National Highways are inadequate and lack roadside amenities.
4.  The roadways are highly congested in cities.
5. Most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow.

Question.24. Explain any five measures to control industrial pollution in India.
Answer. Five measures to control industrial pollution:

1. Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting smoke stacks to factories with fabric filteis, electrostatic precipitators, etc.
2. Equipments to control aerosol emissions can be used in industries, e.g., electrostatic precipitators, scrubbers and inertial separators. Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories.
3.  Harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirements of industries and other domestic purposes.
4.  Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds.
5.  Machinery and equipment can be fitted with silencers.
6.  Noise absorbing material may be used apart from personal use of earplugs and
   earphones. (any five)

Question.25. “Democracy is seen to be good in principle but felt to be not so good in practice.”
Justify the statement.
Answer. If we look at some of the democratic policies being implemented in more than one hundred countries of the world, democracy seems to be good. For example, having a formal Constitution, holding regular elections, guaranteeing the citizens certain rights, working for the welfare of the people etc. make us advocate that democracy is good.
But if we look in terms of social situations, their economic achievements and varied cultures, we find a very big difference in most of the democracies. The vast economic disparities, social injustice based on discrimination, standard of life, sex discrimination, etc. create many doubts about the merits of democracy.
Whenever some of our expectations are not met, we start blaming the idea of democracy. Since democracy is a form of government, it can only create conditions for achieving our goals if they are reasonable.

Question.26. How far has India succeeded in overcoming the challenge of expansion before its democracy? Evaluate.
Answer. Like most , of the established democracies of the world, India, too, faces the challenges of expansion.

1.  India applies basic principles of democracy across all the regions, different social groups and various institutions.
2.  Federal principles have been extended to all the units of the federation giving the right to make laws on the subjects in the state list.
3. Local governments-both rural and urban have been ensured more powers.
4.  Reservation of seats has ensured the participation of women, the minority groups, SCs, STs and OBCs in the governance of the country.
5.  All the above points mean that less and less decisions are taken outside the arena of democratic control.

Question.27. What are the various sources of credit in rural areas? Which one of them is the most dominant source of credit and why? 5
Answer. Moneylender are the most dominant amongst sources of credit for rural households. They constitute an informal source of credit. They charge a very high rate of interest on loans as they do not require any collateral. They are the most convenient source of credit in the rural areas.
Other sources of rural credit:

1. Cooperative Societies are another major source of rural credit. They are a source of formal sector credit. Members of a Cooperative pool their resources for helping one another, e.g., Farmers’ Cooperatives, Weavers’ Cooperatives, etc. They offer cheap credit in rural areas for their members.

Once these loans are repaid, another round of loans is offered:

1. Agricultural traders, relatives and friends are other informal sources of rural credit. Some farmers borrow from agricultural traders who supply the farm inputs (such as seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, etc.) on credit at the beginning of the cropping season and repay the loans after the harvest.
2. Commercial banks also give loans to rural households. However, not many rural households borrow from banks as they require proper documentation and collateral.

Question.28. Why are rules and regulations required for the protection of the consumers, in the market place? Explain with examples.
Answer. Rules and Regulations are required in the market place for the follozving reasons:

1. Individual consumers often find themselves in a weak position, whenever there is a complaint regarding a good or service that had been bought. The seller tries to shift all the responsibilities on to the buyer as if the seller has no responsibility once a sale is completed.
2.  To check exploitation in the market place that happens in various ways. For example, unfair trade practices such as when shopkeepers weigh less than what they should ‘or’ when traders add charges that were not mentioned before or when adulterated goods are sold.
3.  Markets do not work in a fair manner when producers are few and powerful whereas consumers purchase in small amounts and are scattered. Large companies sometimes manipulate the market in various ways.
4.  False and incomplete information. Sellers easily mislead consumers by giving wrong information about a product, its price, quality, reliability, lifecycle, expiry date, durability, its effect on health, environment, safety and security’, maintenance cost involved and terms and conditions of purchase. Cosmetics, drugs and electronic goods are common examples where consumers face such problems.
   For example, At times false information is passed on through media to attract . consumers.
   Hence there is a need for rules and regulations to ensure protection of the consumers.

Question.29. Identify and label the following on the map of India:
(a) The place, where the Indian National Congress Session was held in December, 1920.
(b) The place, where the ‘Movement of Indigo Planters’ was started.
Answer.

(c) The place where 22 policemen were burnt forcing Gandhiji to call off the Non-cooperation Movement
Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No, 29.
(1) Name the place where the Indian National Congress session was held in December, 1920.
(2) Name the place where the ‘Movement of Indigo Planters’ was started.
(3) Name the place where 22 policemen were burnt forcing Gandhiji to call off the Non-cooperation Movement.
Answer. (1) Nagpur (2) Champarar. (3) Chauri Chaura

Question.30. On the given political outline map of India:
(a) Identify
A. Nuclear Power Plant
B. Major Sea Port
(b) Locate and label
(i) Bhadrawati—Iron and Steel Plant

Answer.

Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 30.
(1) Name the nuclear plant located in Uttar Pradesh.
(2) Name the iron and steel plant located in Chhattisgarh.
(3) Which is the southernmost sea port of India?
Answer. (1) Narora (2) Bhilai (3) Tuticorin

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.11. Explain the process of unification of Germany.
Answer. Unification of Germany:
In the 18th century, Germany was divided into a number of states. Some of these states ceased to exist during the Napoleonic wars. At the end of the war, there were still 39 independent states in Germany. Prussia was most powerful, dominated by big landlords known as Junkers.

1.  Nationalist feelings were widespread among middle class Germans who had tried to unite the different regions of the German federation into a nation-state governed by an elected Parliament.
2.  In May 1848, a large number of political associations came together to vote for an All German National Assembly. Their representatives met at Frankfurt and the Frankfurt Assembly proposed the unification of Germany as a constitutional monarchy under the King of Prussia as emperor.
3.  The King of Prussia rejected the offer and the liberal initiative of nation building was repressed by combined forces of the monarchy, the military and the “Junkers’.
4.  Then on, Prussia under its Chief Minister Otto von Bismarck led the movement for unification of Germany. Bismarck carried out this process with the help of the Prussian army and the bureaucracy. He fought three wars over seven years with Denmark, Austria and France. Prussia was victorious in all these wars and the process of unification was completed as a result of Prussia’s victory over France.
5.  Consequently, on 18th January 1871, an assembly comprising of princes of German states, representatives of the army, important Prussian ministers and Bismarck gathered in the Palace of Versailles and proclaimed the Prussian King, Kaiser William, the new German Emperor.

Or
Explain the contribution of Ho Chi Minh in the freedom movement of Vietnam.
Answer. Ho Chi Minh was one of the greatest teachers, who fought for the freedom and unification
of Vietnam.

1. He started organizing the Communist and Nationalist movements soon after the end of the First World War.
2. In 1930, he brought together competing nationalist groups to establish Vietnamese Communist Party. He was inspired by the militant demonstration of the European Communist Parties.
3. In 1940, Japanese occupied Vietnam. So the nationalists now had to fight against the Japanese as well as French. A league called ‘Viet Minh’ was formed to fight with Japanese and Ho Chi Minh became its Chairman.
4.  After the US intervention in Vietnam, he supported the NLF (National Liberation
   Front) with resources and army to fight against the mighty US army.
   In his honour, the capital city of Saigon is now named as Ho Chi Minh city.

Question.12. Differentiate between ferrous,and non-ferrous minerals with examples.
Answer. Ferrous minerals:

1. Ferrous minerals account for about three fourths of the total value of the production of metallic minerals.
2.  They provide a strong base for the development of metallurgical industries.
3.  India exports substantial quantities of ferrous minerals to Japan and South Korea after meeting her internal demands.

Non-ferrous minerals:

1.  India’s reserves and production of non-ferrous minerals is not very satisfactory.
2.  Non-ferrous minerals include copper, bauxite, lead, zinc and gold.
3. They provide a strong base for the development of metallurgical, engineering and electrical industries.
4.  Non- ferrous minerals like copper and bauxite are mainly found in Madhya Pradesh and Odisha respectively.

Question.16. Name the national political party which espouses secularism and welfare of weaker
sections and minorities. Mention any four features of that party.
Answer. Party which espouses secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities is Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP).
Features:

1. Formed in 1984 under the leadership of Shri Kanshi Ram, seeks to represent and secure power for the Bahujan Samaj which includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities.
2.  Draws inspiration from the teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule and Babasaheb Ambedkar.
3. Stands for the cause of securing the interests and welfare of dalits and oppressed people.
4. It has its main base in the State of Uttar Pradesh and presence in neighbouring States like Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Delhi and Punjab.

Question.19. What are the modern forms of money? Why is the ‘rupee’ widely accepted as a medium of exchange? Explain two reasons.
Answer. Modem forms of money currency in India include paper notes and coins which are known as Rupees and Paise.

1.  It is accepted as a medium of exchange because the currency is authorized by the Government of India.
2.  In India, the Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government. As per Indian law, no other individual or organization is allowed to issue currency.
3.  The law legalizes the use of mpee as a medium of payment that cannot be refused in settling transactions in India.
4.  No individual in India can legally refuse a payment made in rupees.
   Therefore, the rupee is widely accepted as a medium of exchange. (any tzoo)

Question.22. “Some of the Muslim political organizations in India, were lukewarm in their response to the ‘Civil Disobedient Movement’.” Examine the statement.
Answer. Muslim response was lukewarm to the Civil Disobedience Movement as a large section of Muslims felt alienated from the Congress.

1. The Congress members were seen as associates of Hindu religious nationalist groups like Hindu Mahasabha.
2.  After the Non-cooperation Movement, relations between Hindus and Muslims worsened as each community organized religious processions, provoking Hindu- Muslim communal clashes and riots.
3.  The important differences were over the question of representation in the future Assemblies that were to be elected.
4.  When Civil Disobedience Movement started, there was an atmosphere of suspicion and distrust between communities. Muslims feared that they would be submerged under the domination of a Hindu majority in Independent India.

Question.24. How do industries pollute environment? Explain with five examples.
Answer. The five types of industrial pollution are:
(1) Air pollution (2) Water pollution
(3) Land pollution (4) Noise pollution and
(5) Thermal pollution.

1. Air pollution. Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting plants, and burning of fossil fuels in factories that ignore pollution norms. Air-borne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid particles like dust, sprays, mist and smoke.
2.  Water pollution. Major water pollutants are dyes, detergents, acids and salts. Heavy metals like lead and mercury, pesticides and fertilizers and synthetic chemicals with carbon, plastics and rubber etc. discharged in the water bodies without treatment pollute these water bodies.
3.  Noise pollution. The generators, compressors, machines, furnaces, looms, exhaust fans, etc. used by industries create a lot of noise. Noise can raise blood pressure and can have physiological effects as well.
4. Land pollution. Land and water pollution are closely related. Dumping of industrial wastes especially glass, harmful chemicals, industrial effluents, packing, salts and garbage renders the soil useless.
5.  Thermal pollution. Wastes from nuclear power plants, nuclear and weapon production facilities cause cancer and birth defects.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II
Question.11. How has Britain come into existence? Explain.
Answer. In Britain, the formation of the nation state was the consequence of a long drawn out process. There was no British nation before the 18th century. The people who inhabited British Isles were of ethnic groups like English, Irish, Scot or Welsh. In 1688, English Parliament wrested control from the monarchy. The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland led to creation of ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’. The English now dominated Scotland’s culture and its political institutions. The Catholic people of Scottish Highlands were forbidden to speak their Gaelic language and a large number of them were forced out of their homelands. .
Ireland met the same fate, the English supported the Protestants of Ireland and increased their domination over this largely Catholic nation. In 1801, Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom. A new ‘British nation’ with symbols like British flag (Union Jack), National Anthem (God Save Our Noble King) and the English language became the forbearer of English culture and the older nations became subservient partners in this Union.
Or
Explain the views of Phan Chu Trinh as a nationalist.
Answer. Phan Chu Trinh was intensely hostile to the monarchy. He wished to overthrow the monarchy and create a democratic Republic for Vietnam.

1.  He was greatly influenced by the western ideas of democracy and did not want a wholesale rejection of the western civilization.
2. He accepted the French revolutionary ideal of liberty but charged the French for not abiding by the ideal.
3.  He demanded that the French set up legal and educational institutions, and develop agriculture and industries in Vietnam.

Question.12..Differentiate between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy with examples.
Answer.

Question.19. What is collateral? Why do lenders ask for collateral while lending? Explain. 
Answer. Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns (land, building, vehicle, livestock, land documents, deposits with banks etc.) which stands as a security against the money borrowed. In case the borrower fails to repay the loan, the lender has the right to sell the asset or collateral to recover the loan money. Most lenders ask for collateral while lending as a security against their own funds.

Question.22. “Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part of the same nation.” Justify the statement.
Answer. History and fiction, folklore and songs, popular prints and symbols —all played an important role in creating a sense of collective belonging leading to the growth of nationalism.
Image of Bharat Mata:

1. With the growth of nationalism, the identity of the Indian nation came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata (as it had happened in Germany and France: Germania in Germany and Marianne in France).
2.  This image was first created and popularized by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. In 1870, he wrote Vande Mataram as a hymn to the motherland. This song was widely sung during the Swadeshi Movement.
3.  Moved by the Swadeshi Movement, Rabindranath Tagore painted the famous image of Bharat Mata. The identity of the Indian nation came to be visually associated with this image. She was portrayed as an ascetic figure—calm, composed, divine and spiritual.
4.  Later this image was painted by many other artists which acquired different forms. This image was circulated in popular prints and devotion to this mother figure was seen as a sign of nationalism.

Icons and Symbols (Flag):

1.  During the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, tricolour flag (red, green and yellow), ’ with eight lotuses (ctepicting eight provinces of British India), was designed.
2.  Gandhiji had designed the Swaraj flag by 1921—a tricolour (red, green and white) with a spinning wheel in the centre.
3.  Carrying the flag during marches became a symbol of defiance and a sense of collective belonging.

Reinterpretation of History:

1.  The glorification of developments in ancient India in the fields of art and architecture, Science and Mathematics, religion and culture, law and philosophy, craft and trade had also helped in the growth of nationalism.
2.  These nationalist histories encouraged the readers to take pride in India’s great achievement in the past and struggle to change the miserable conditions (cultural and economic decline) of life under the British rule.

Indian Folklore:

1.  Idea of nationalism also developed through a movement to revive Indian folklore.
2.  Folk tales were sung by bards in the villages, to give a true picture of traditional culture, which had been damaged by outside forces.
3.  In Bengal, Rabindranath Tagore himself began collecting ballads, nursery rhymes and myths to revive folk culture.
4.  In Madras, Natesa Sastri published a four volume collection of Tamil folk tales, “The Folklore of Southern India”.

Question.24. How do industries pollute water? Suggest any four measures to control water pollution.
Answer.

1. Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes and affluents discharged into rivers.
2.  Major water pollutants are dyes, detergents, acids and salts.
3.  Heavy metals like lead and mercury, pesticides and fertilizers and synthetic chemicals with carbon, plastics and rubber, etc. discharged in the water bodies without treatment, pollute these water bodies.
4.  Solid wastes, e.g., fly ash, phospho-gypsum and iron and steel slags, etc. wastes from nuclear power plants cause water pollution.
5. Dumping of harmful chemicals and industrial effluents, etc. on the land causes rainwater to percolate. As a result, these pollutants contaminate ground water.

Water pollution caused by industries can be controlled by:

1.  Minimizing the use of water for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages..
2.  Harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirements of industries and other domestic purposes.
3.  Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds in the following ways:
   — Primary treatment by mechanical means such as screening, grinding, flocculation and sedimentation.
   — Secondary treatment by biological process.
   — Tertiary treatment by biological, chemical and physical processes. This involves recycling of waste water.

Question.26. How do pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics? Explain any five points in this regard?
Answer. Pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics in the following ways:

1.  Interest groups and movements do not directly engage in party politics but they seek to exert influence on political parties.
2.  They have a political position on major issues and take political stance without being a party.
3.  They try to gain public support and sympathy for their goals through campaigns, organizing meetings, filing petitions and influencing the media for attention.
4.  They organize protest activities like strikes, in order to force the government to take note of their demand.
5.  Business groups employ professionals/lobbyists or sponsor expensive
   advertisements. Some members from pressure groups participate in official bodies that offer advice to the government.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Delhi-2013 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Outside Delhi-2013

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                             Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

• The Question Paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are
• Marks are indicated against each question.
• Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are Very Short Answer questions. Each question carries one mark.

• Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 mark Answers of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
• Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks Answers of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
• Question number 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 mark each from History and Geography both. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.

SET I

Question.1. What was the main reason to withdraw the Non-cooperation Movement?
Answer. Mahatma Gandhi called off the Non-cooperation Movement as the movement had turned violent in many places. The Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 turned into a violent clash and 22 policemen were killed. Gandhiji felt satyagrahis were not ready for mass struggles.

Question.2. In which non-conventional source of energy is India referred to as a super power?
Answer. Wind Power.

Question.3. Which financial agency pressurized the government of Bolivia to give an MNC, control over the water supply arrangements in the city of Cochabamba?
Answer. Bank of Cochabamba.

Question.4. What does Universal Adult Suffrage stand for?
Answer. Universal Adult suffrage stands for the ‘Right to Vote’.

Question.5. Given one point of difference between a pressure group and a political party.
Answer. A pressure group is an organized or unorganized body that seeks to promote its interests while a political party is a body that seeks to attain political power by contesting elections.

Question.6. What is meant by ‘fair globalization’?
Answer. Fair globalization means globalization that would create opportunities for all and ensure that its benefits are shared better.

Question.7. Which body supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans?
Answer. Reserve Bank of India.

Question.8. Hallmark is the certification maintained for standardization of which type of products?
Answer. Jewellery

Question.9. Explain any three measures taken by the British administration to repress the movement started against the ‘Rowlatt Act’.
Answer. British officials were alarmed by the popular upsurge:

1.  The fear that the lines of communication, such as railways and telegraph, might get disrupted, the British Government started even stronger repressive measures.
2.  Local leaders were picked up. Gandhiji was barred from entering Delhi. On 10th April, 1919 the police in Amritsar fired upon a peaceful procession.
3.  This provoked widespread attacks on banks, post offices and railway stations. Martial law was imposed and General Dyer took command.

Question.10. Which were the two types of. demands mentioned by Gandhiji in his letter to Viceroy Irwin on 31st January 1930? Why was abolition of ‘salt tax’ most stirring demand? Explain.
Answer. Some of the demands were of general interest; others were specific demands of different classes from industrialists to peasants.
(i) On 31st January, 1930 Gandhiji sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands, one of which was the demand to abolish Salt Tax.
(it) Salt was one of the most essential food items consumed by the rich and poor alike and a tax on it was considered an oppression on the people by the British Government.
(iii) Gandhiji’s letter was an ultimatum and if his demands were not fulfilled by March 11, he had threatened to launch a civil disobedience campaign.

Question.11. Why was the decade of 1830s known as great economic hardship in Europe? Explain any three reasons.
Answer. The decade of 1830s was known as great economic hardship in Europe because of the following reasons:

1. Europe had come under the grip of large-scale unemployment. In most of the countries there were more seekers of jobs than employment.
2.  Cities had become overcrowded and slums had emerged as population from the rural areas migrated to the cities.
3. Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England where industrialization was more advanced specially in the field of textile production.
4.  In those regions of Europe, where aristocracy still enjoyed power, peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues and obligations. The rise of food prices and bad harvests added to their hardships.

Or
Why was the ‘Tonkin School’ started in Vietnam? Explain any three reasons.
Answer. The main objective of the Tonkin Free School was to provide western style education to Vietnamese.
Reasons:

1. This education included classes in Science, Hygiene and French. (These classes were held in the evening and had to be paid for separately.)
2.  It was not enough to acquire knowledge in Science and western ideas but was also important to learn to look ‘modem’.
3.  Tire school encouraged the adoption of western style such as having a short haircut. This was a major break for the Vietnamese identity because they traditionally kept long hair.
4.  The French tried to strengthen their rule in Vietnam through the control of education
   and tried to change the values, norms and perceptions of people to accept the superiority of French culture and civilization. . (any three)

Question.12. Why is India not able to perform to her full potential in iron and steel production?
Explain any three reasons.
Answer. Tnspite of being an important producer of iron and steel, India has not been able to exploit her complete potential, because of:

1. High cost of production and limited availability of coking coal.
2.  Lower productivity of labour.
3. Irregular supply of energy.
4.  Poor infrastructure. (any three)

Question.13. Explain any three objectives of the ‘National Jute Policy 2005’.
Answer. In 2005, National Jute Policy was formulated with the objective of increasing productivity, improving quality’, ensuring good prices to the jute farmers and enhancing the yield per hectare. .
The jute industry faced stiff competition in the international market from synthetic substitutes and competitors like Bangladesh and Brazil.
The growing global concern for environment friendly, biodegradable materials also led to the government policy of mandatory use of jute packaging.

Question.14. How are means of transport and communication complementary to each other? Explain with three examples.
Answer.

1. Transport and communication establish links between producing centres and consuming centres. Trade or the exchange of such commodities relies on transportation and communication. Transport provides the network of links and carriers through which trade takes place.
2.  Dense network of roads, railways and airways connect the remote areas of the country hence help in production and distribution of goods and services.
3.  Advancement in communication system has accelerated trade by carrying information all over the world quickly.
4.  Good transport helps in quick carrying of raw material from remote areas to the production centre and allows distribution of goods efficiently.
5.  With expansion of rail, ocean and air transport, better means of refrigeration and preservation, trade has experienced spatial expansion.

Question.15. How do you feel that democracy is better than any other form of government? Explain.
Answer. We feel that democracy is a better form of government than any other form of government because:

1.  Democracy promotes equality among citizens.
2.  It enhances dignity of individual. It promotes dignity of women and strengthens the claims of the disadvantaged.
3.  It improves the quality of decision making. There is transparency in a democracy.
4.  Democracy provides methods to resolve conflicts.
5.  Democracy allows room to correct mistakes. (any three)

Question.16. Explain with examples how do some countries face foundational challenge of democracy.
Answer.

1. Foundational challenge relates to making the transition to democracy and then instituting democratic government. It involves establishing a sovereign and functional state.
2. It involves bringing down the existing non-democratic regime, keeping military away from controlling government and establishing a civilian control over all governmental institutions by holding elections.
3. It involves the recognition of people’s choice and opportunity to change rulers, recognize people’s will. In countries like Myanmar political leader Suu Kyi was kept . under house arrest for more than 20 years. Thus, in this case, foundational challenge recognizes the need to release political leaders and recall them from exile and holding of multiparty elections.

Question.17. Analyse three major challenges before countries which do not have democratic form of governments.
Answer. Challenges faced by countries which do not have a democratic form of government:

1. These countries face the foundational challenge of making the transition to democracy and then instituting democratic government.
2.  They also face the challenge of bringing down the existing non-democratic regime, and keeping the military away from controlling the government.
3.  Such countries have to make great efforts to establish a sovereign and functional State.

Question.18. How are local companies benefitted by collaborating with multinational companies?
Explain with examples.
Answer. When local companies enter into a joint venture with MNCs:

1. First, the MNCs provide money for additional investments for faster production.
2.  Second, MNCs bring with them the latest technology for enhancing and improving the production.
3.  Some Indian companies have gained from successful collaborations with foreign companies. Globalization has enabled some companies to emerge as multinationals.
4.  Parakh Foods was a small company which has been bought over by a large American Company — Cargill Foods. Parakh foods had built a large marketing network in various parts of India as a well-reputed brand. Parakh Foods had four oil refineries whose control has now shifted to Cargill. Cargill is now the largest manufacturer of edible oil in India making five million pouches daily.

Question.19. “Cheap and affordable credit is essential for poor households both in rural and urban areas.” In the light of the above statement explain the social and economic values attached to it.
Answer. Credit means loans. It refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future repayment.

1.  Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s growth and economic development. Credit is in great demand for various kinds of economic activities big or small investments, to set up business, buying cars, houses, etc.
2.  In rural areas credit helps in the development of agriculture by providing funds to farmers to buy seeds, fertilizers, expensive pesticides.
3.  Manufacturers need credit for . buying raw material or to meet ongoing expenditure of production. Credit helps in the purchase of plant, machinery, equipment, etc.
4. Some people may need to borrow for illness, marriages etc.
   Tims, cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s growth and economic development.

Question.20. Explain the ‘Right to seek redressal’ with an example.
Answer. Right to seek redressal:

1. The consumers can seek redressal against trade practices of exploitation and have the right to fair settlement of the genuine grievances.
2.  He has a right to get compensation from a manufacturer/trader if he is harmed. The consumer can seek redressal through Consumer Courts functioning at district, state and national levels.
   Example: Mahesh sent a money order to his village for his mother’s medical treatment. The money did not reach his mother at the time when she needed it and reached months later. Mahesh, thus filed a case in the district level consumer court to seek redressal.

Question.21. Describe the role of culture in shaping the feelings of nationalism in Europe from 1830 to the end of 19th Century.
Answer. Culture, music, dance and religion played an important role in the growth of nationalism.

1.  Culture. Role of culture was important in creating the idea of the nation. Art, poetry, music etc. helped in developing and expressing nationalist feelings. Romanticism was a cultural movement that led to the development of nationalist sentiment. Romantic artists and poets criticized the glorification of reason and science and instead focussed on emotions and intuition.
2.  Language. Language too played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. After Russian occupation, the Polish language was forced out of schools and Russian language was imposed everywhere. In 1831, an armed rebellion against Russian rule took place which was ultimately crushed. Following this, many members of the clergy in Poland began to use language as a weapon of national resistance.
3. Music and Dance. Romantics such as the German philosopher Herder claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people—das volk. It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation was popularized.

Or
Describe any five features of the ‘Go East Movement’
Answer.

1. In the first decade of the 20th century, a ‘Go East Movement’ became popular. In 1907-08, around 300 students from Vietnam went to Japan to acquire modem education.
2.  The primary objective was to drive out the French from Vietnam, overthrow’1 the puppet emperor and reestablish the Nguyen dynasty that had been deposed by the French. For this, they needed foreign help.
3. Japan had modernized itself and had resisted colonization by the West. It had defeated Russia in 1907 and proved its military strength. The Vietnamese nationalists looked for foreign arms and help and appealed to the Japanese as fellow Asians.
4.  Vietnamese students established a branch of Restoration Society in Tokyo but, in 1908, the Japanese Ministry of Interior clamped down on them. Many, including Phan Boi Chau, were deported and forced to seek exile in China and Thailand.

Question.22. Why did Gandhiji start the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’? Explain any four features of Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer. Non-fulfillment of demands made by Gandhiji on behalf of all the members of the Congress led to the launching of the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930.
Gandhiji’s ‘Dandi March’ marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement. Gandhiji started his march with 78 volunteers from his ashram at Sabarmati to the Gujarat coastal town of Dandi. On 6th April, Gandhiji reached Dandi and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water.
Features of Civil Disobedience Movement:

1. People were now asked not only to refuse cooperation with the British but also to break colonial laws.
2.  Foreign cloth was boycotted and people were asked to picket liquor shops.
3.  Peasants were asked not to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes.
4. Students, lawyers and village officials were asked not to attend English medium schools, colleges, courts and offices.

Question.23. “Advancement of international trade of a country is an index of its economic prosperity.” Justify the statement with five arguments.
Answer. “Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its economic prosperity”,

1.  As no country is self-sufficient in all resources, it cannot survive without international trade.
2.  If the balance of international trade is favourable, a country will be able to earn more foreign exchange.
3. International trade encourages a country to develop secondary and tertiary sectors for exporting goods which can fetch more foreign exchange.
4. A country’s economic prosperity can be gauged by the health of its international trade.
5. A country can earn large amounts of foreign exchange through international trade.

Question.24. Why is it necessary to conserve mineral resources? Suggest any four ways to conserve mineral resources.
Answer. Conservation of minerals is necessary because of the following reasons:

1.  The formation of minerals takes a long geological period of millions of years.
2.  They are finite, i.e., limited in nature.
3.  Many of them are non-renewable and exhaustible.
4.  The rate of replenishment of minerals is infinitely small in comparison to rate of consumption.
5.  They have to be preserved for our future generations because they are very important for industrial development of the nation.

Ways to mineral conservation:

1.  We should use minerals in a planned and sustainable manner.
2. Improved technologies need to be evolved to allow use of low grade ores at low cost.
3. Recycling of metals should be done.
4. Using scrap metals and other substitutes should be promoted.
5. Wastages in mining, processing and distribution should be minimized.
6. Controlled export of minerals should be undertaken. (any four)

Question.25. “Democracies do not appear to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities.”
Examine the statement with examples.
Answer. Over the years, careful evidence has been gathered to see what the relationship of democracy with economic growth and economic inequalities is.
— It is seen that on an average dictatorial regimes have had a slightly better record of economic growth, i.e., 4.34%. But when we compare their record only in poor countries (4.28%), there is no difference.
— There is enough evidence to show that within democracies there can be very high degree of inequalities. In countries like South Africa and Brazil, the top 20 per cent people take away more than 60 per cent of the national income, leaving less than 3 per cent for the bottom 20 per cent population.
Perhaps more than development, it is reasonable to expect democracies to reduce economic disparities. Democracies are based on political equality, but despite equality in the political arena there are growing economic inequalities. The poor constitute a large proportion of our voters and no party would like to. lose its votes. Yet democratically elected governments do not appear to be keen to tackle *:he problem of poverty. Democracies are expected to produce good government, but there is no guarantee that they would also produce development. As evidence shows, the economic development depends on several factors, such as country’s size, global situation, cooperation from other countries, economic priorities adopted by the country etc.

Question.26. “No party system is ideal for all countries and in all situations.” Justify the statement with five arguments. 
Answer. Parties are a necessary condition for a democracy. The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies. Party system is not something any
country can choose. It evolves depending on the nature of society, its social and regional divisions, its history of politics and system of elections.
Each country develops a party system that is conditioned by its special circumstances.
For example, India has evolved a multi-party system, because of its social and geographical diversity which cannot be easily absorbed by two or three parties.
Political parties make policies to promote collective good and there can be different views on what is good for all. Therefore no system is ideal for all countries and situations.

Question.27. How has improvement in technology stimulated the globalization process? Explain with five examples.
Answer. Improvements in technology have helped in globalization in the follozving ways:

1. Rapid improvement in technology has contributed greatly towards globalization. Advanced technology in transport systems has helped in the delivery of goods faster across long distances at lower costs.
2.  Development in information and communication technology has also helped a great deal. Telecommunication facilities—telegraph, telephone (including mobile phones), fax are now used to contact one another quickly around the world, access information instantly and communicate from remote areas. Teleconferences help in saving frequent long trips across the globe.
3.  Information technology has also played an important role in spreading out production of services across countries. Orders are placed through internet, designing is done on computers, even payment for designing and printing can be arranged through internet. Internet also allows us to send instant electronic mail (e-mail) and talk (face-to-face) across the world at negligible lost.
4.  The cost of air transport has fallen which has enabled much greater volumes of goods being transported by airlines.
5.  Technology has made e-banking, e-commerce, e-learning, e-mail and e-govemance a reality.

Question.28. What are the two categories of sources of credit? Mention four features of each.
Answer. The two sources of credit are formal sources and informal sources:
Formal sources of credit:

1. Banks and cooperative societies fall under the formal sector. One can obtain loans from banks or cooperative societies.
2.  The Reserve Bank of India supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans.
3.  Bank loans require documentation and collateral (collateral is an asset such as land, building, vehicle, livestock, deposits with the bank, etc.). This is used as a guarantee to the lender until the loan is paid back.
4.  Formal sources cannot charge any rate of interest from the borrowers according to their whims.

Informal sources of credit:

1. In the informal sector money can be borrowed from a person, friend, relative, moneylender, traders, employers, etc.
2.  There is no organization that checks or supervises the activities of lenders in the informal sector.
3.  Loans from informal sources do not require any such collateral.
4.  They charge a very high rate of interest on loans as they do not require any collateral.

Question.29. Identify and label the following on the map of India:
(a) The place, where the Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927.
(b) The place, where the Non-cooperation Movement was called off.
(c) The place where the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place.

Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 29.
(1) Name the place where Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927.
(2) Which is the place where Non-cooperation Movement was called off?
(3) Name the place where the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place.
Answer. (1) Madras
(2) Chauri Chaura
(3) Amritsar

Question.30. On the given political outline map of India:
(a) Identify
A. Nuclear Power Plant : B. Iron and Steel Centre
(b) Locate and label
(i) Kandla—Major Sea Port

Answer.

Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 30.
(1) Name the Nuclear Plant located in Tamil Nadu.
(2) Name the Iron and Steel Plant located in Odisha (Orissa).
(3) Name the Southernmost Major Sea Port located on the Western coast of India.
Answer. (1) Kalpakkam (2) Rourkela (3) Kochchi

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.9. Explain any three reasons for the slowdown of ‘Non-cooperation Movement’ in cities.
Answer.

1. Khadi cloth was often more expensive than the cloth produced in mills. Poor people could not afford to buy Khadi cloth.
2. Boycott of British institutions also posed a problem as there were no alternative Indian Institutions. So students and teachers began trickling back to the government schools.
3. Even lawyers joined back work in government courts.

Question.14. “The distribution pattern of Indian Railway network is influenced by the physiographic factors”. Examine the statement.
Answer. The Northern plains with vast level land, high population density and rich agricultural resources provide most favourable conditions for railway network. The nature of terrain and the number of rivers running through the region determine the density of railway network in that region. Mountains, marshy, sandy and forested areas have sparse network whereas plain areas have dense network of the railways. It was difficult to lay railway lines on the sandy plains of Western Rajasthan, swamps of Gujarat and forested tracks of Madhya Pradesh.

Question.15. Explain with examples, how movements are different from interest groups.
Answer. Movements:

1.  Movements have a loose organization.
2.  Movements are issue specific and long-term involving more than one issue.
3.  Their decision-making is more informal and flexible.
4.  They depend much on spontaneous mass participation.
   Example: Narmada Bachao Andolan under Medha Patkar.

Interest groups:

1.  Interest groups form organizations and undertake activities to promote their interests.
2.  Interests groups are both sectional and public. Sectional interest groups promote interest of particular section of society and promotional or public interest groups aim to help groups other than their own members.
3.  They promote collective good and are concerned with welfare of the society and not just their own members.
   Example: BAMCEF (Backward and Minorities Community Employee Federation).

Question.24. Why is there a pressing need to use renewable energy resources in India? Explain any five reasons.
Answer.

1. The growing consumption of energy has resulted in India becoming increasingly dependent on fossil fuels such as coal, oil and gas which are found in limited quantity on the earth. So there is an urgent need to use sustainable energy resources like solar, water, wind etc.
2.  Rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortages have raised uncertainties about the security of energy’ supply in future, which in turn has serious repercussions on the growth of the national economy.
3. Increasing use of fossil fuels also causes serious environmental degradation like air pollution, water pollution etc.
4.  Renewable sources of energy are pollution free and do not cause harm to ozone, therefore they are eco-friendly.
5. They are a cheaper source and are freely and abundantly available in nature.

Question.25. “Democracies lead to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens.” Support the
statement with suitable examples.
Answer. No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and evolve a mechanism to negotiate the differences. Belgium is an example of how successfully differences were negotiated among ethnic groups. Therefore, democracy is best suited to accommodate various social divisions as it usually develops a procedure to conduct their competition. But the example of Sri Lanka shows how distrust between two communities turned into widespread conflict, and thus a democracy must fulfil the following two conditions in order to achieve a harmonious social life:

1.  Majority and minority opinions are not permanent. Democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion. The majority needs to work with minority so that government may function to represent the general view.
2.  Rule by majority does not become rule by majority community in terms of religion or race or linguistic groups, etc. Democracy remains democracy so long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority at some point of time. No individual should be debarred from participating in a democracy on the basis of religion, caste, community, creed and other such factors.

Question.27. How has globalization benefitted India? Explain with five examples.
Answer. Globalization has had both a positive as well as a negative effect:

1.  People with education, skill and wealth have benefitted by globalization.
   (i) Greater competition among producers (both local and foreign) has been advantageous to consumers, particularly the well-off section. Rich people enjoy improved quality at lower prices for several products and enjoy a higher standard of living.
   (ii) MNCs have increased their investments in India over the past 20 years in industries
   such as cell phones, automobiles, electronics, soft drinks, fast food and services such as banking.
   (iii) New jobs have been created in all these industries and services.
   (iv) Top Indian companies have benefitted from the increased competition. They have invested in newer technology and production methods.
   (v) Some Indian companies have gained from successful collaborations with foreign companies. Globalization has enabled some companies to emerge as multinationals.
2.  However, globalization has not been uniform among producers and workers.
   (i) Globalization has posed a major challenge for a large number of small producers and workers. Small manufacturers have been hit hard due to competition causing many industrial units to shut down, rendering many workers jobless in small industries. (The small industries in India employ 20 million workers.)
   (ii) Due to the pressure of competition, most employers do not employ workers on a permanent basis; to avoid paying for the whole year.
   (iii) Workers’ jobs are not secure any more, wages are low and they are forced to work overtime to earn adequate money.
   (iv) In order to cut costs of products for the benefit of MNCs, employers in industries such as garment exports, pay very low wages to workers.
   Hence, there is a need for ‘fair globalization’ which will ensure that the benefits of globalization are shared better in a more equitable manner.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I andSet-II.
Question.9. Explain the effects of ‘worldwide economic depression’ on India, towards late 1920s.
Answer. In 19th century, colonial India had become an exporter of agricultural goods and an importer of manufactures.
The worldwide economic depression immediately affected Indian trade. India’s exports and imports nearly halved between 1928 and 1934. As international prices crashed, prices in India also plunged. Peasants producing for the world market were worst hit. Though agricultural prices fell, the colonial government refused to reduce revenue demands. Peasants indebtedness increased. For example. Jute producers of Bengal.
In these depression years, India became an exporter of precious metals, notably gold.

Question.14. Why is air travel preferred in the North-Eastern states of India? Explain any three reasons.
Answer. The North-Eastern part of the country is marked with:
(i) Dissected relief, (ii) Dense forests, (iii) Frequent floods and (iv) Big rivers.
Under these difficult conditions, the road and rail transport is not well developed. Journey through land transport is very tiresome and time-consuming. So, for all these reasons, air travel is preferred in this part of the country, where special provisions are made to extend the services to common people at cheaper rates.

Question.24. How is energy a basic requirement for the economic development of the country?
Explain with examples.
Answer. Reasons:

1.  Energy is the basic requirement for economic development.
2.  Every sector of national economy—agriculture, industry, transport and commerce needs greater inputs of energy.
3.  In the domestic sector also, energy demands, in the form of electricity, are growing because of increasing use of electric gadgets and appliances.
4.  The economic development plans implemented since independence necessarily required increasing amounts of energy.
5. Because of all these, per capita consumption of energy is continuously increasing. Q.25. “Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity
   and freedom of the individual.” Support the statement with suitable examples. 5*1=5 Ans. The passion of

respect and freedom are the basis of democracy:

1.  Economic disparity in society has been minimized to a great extent in democracies.
2.  In many democracies women were deprived of their right to vote for a long period of time. After long struggle they achieved their right, respect and equal treatment.
3. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and opportunities, e.g., SCs and STs.
4.  In democracy all adult citizens (of 18 years and above) have the right to vote.
5.  Democracy evolves a mechanism that takes into account the differences and intrinsic attributes of various ethnic groups. In a democracy majority always needs to work taking into account the interest of the minority so that the minority do not feel alienated.

Question.27. How is the Government of India trying to attract more foreign investment? Explain with examples.
Answer. In order to attract foreign investment, the Government has taken the following steps:

1. All the barriers and restrictions on foreign trade and investment have been removed to a large extent.
2.  Liberalization of investment policies has allowed Indian producers to compete with the producers around the globe.
3. Allowing privatization of many public sector industries by the government.
4.  Allowing businesses to make decisions freely about what they wish to import or export.
5.  The government has allowed flexibility in labour laws to attract foreign investment
   for the benefit of companies.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Outside Delhi-2013 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Outside Delhi 2016

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The Question Taper consists of 31 questions divided into four Sections A, B. C. and D.
3. Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
4.  Use of calculators is not permitted.

SET I

SECTION A
Questions number 1 to 4 carry 1 mark each.
Question 1. In Fig. 1, PQ is a tangent at a point C to a circle with centre O. If AB is a diameter and ∠CAB = 30°. Find ∠PCA.

Answer.

Question 2. For what value of k will k + 9, 2k – 1 and 2k + 7 are the consecutive terms of an A.P.?
Answer.

Question 3. A ladder, leaning against a wall, makes an angle of 60° with the horizontal. If the foot of the ladder is 2.5 m away from the wall, find the length of the ladder.
Answer.

Question 4. A card is drawn at random from a well shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. Find the probability of getting neither a red card nor a queen.
Answer.

SECTION B
Questions number 5 to 10 carry 2 marks each.
Question 5. If -5 is a root of the quadratic equation 2x²+ px – 15 = 0 and the quadratic equation p(x² + x) + k = 0 has equal roots, find the value of k.
Answer.

Question 6. Let P and Q be the points of trisection of the line segment joining the points A (2, -2) and B (-7, 4) such that P is nearer to A. Find the coordinates of P and Q.
Answer.

Question 7. In Fig. 2, a quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle, with centre O, in such a way that the sides AB, BC, CD and DA touch the circle at the points P, Q, R and S respectively. Prove that: AB + CD = BC + DA.

Answer.

Question 8. Prove that the points (3, 0), (6, 4) and (-1, 3) are the vertices of a right angled isosceles triangle.
Answer.

Question 9. The 4th term of an A.P. is zero. Prove that the 25th term of the A.P. is three times its 11th term.
Answer.

Question 10. In Fig. 3, from an external point P, two tangents PT and PS are drawn to a circle with centre O and radius r. If OP = 2r, show that ∠OTS = ∠OST = 30°.

Answer.

SECTION C
Questions number 11 to 20 carry 3 marks each.
Question 11. In Fig. 4, O is the centre of a circle such that diameter AB = 13 cm and AC = 12 cm. BC is joined. Find the area of the shaded region. (Take π = 3.14)

Answer.

Question 12. In Fig. 5, a tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top of same diameter. If the height and diameter of cylindrical part are 2.1 m and 3 m respectively and the slant height of conical part is 2.8 m, find the cost of canvas needed to make the tent if the canvas is available at the rate of Rs 500/sq. metre. (Use π = 22/7 )

Answer.

Question 13. If the point P(x, y) is equidistant from the points A (a + b,b – a) and B(a -b,a + b), prove that bx = ay.
Answer.

Question 14. In Fig. 6, find the area of the shaded region, enclosed between two concentric circles of radii 7 cm and 14 cm where ∠AOC = 40°. (Use π= 22/7 )

Answer.

Question 15. If the ratio of the sum of first n terms of two A.P’s is (7n + 1) : (4n + 27), find the ratio of their m^th terms.
Answer.

Question 16. Solve for x:

Answer.

Question 17. A conical vessel, with bash radius 5 cm and height 24 cm, is full of water. This water is emptied into a cylindrical vessel of base radius 10 cm. Find the height to which the water will rise in the cylindrical vessel. (Use π= 22/7)
Answer.

Question 18. A sphere of diameter 12 cm, is dropped in a right circular cylindrical vessel, partly filled with water. If the sphere is completely submerged in water, the water level in the cylindrical vessel rises by 3 (5/9) cm. Find the diameter of the cylindrical vessel.
Answer.

Question 19. A man standing on the deck of a ship, which is 10 m above water level, observes the angle of elevation of the top of a hill as 60° and the angle of depression of the base of hill as 30°. Find the distance of the hill from the ship and the height of the hill.
Answer.

Question 20. Three different coins are tossed together. Find the probability of getting (i) exactly two heads (ii) at least two heads (ii) at least two tails.
Answer.

SECTION D
Questions number 21 to 31 carry 4 marks each.
Question 21. Due to heavy floods in a State, thousands were rendered homeless. 50 schools collectively offered to the State Government to provide place and the canvas for 1,500 tents to be fixed by the Government and decided to share the whole expenditure equally. The lower part of each tent is cylindrical of base radius 2.8 m and height 3.5 m, with conical upper part of same base radius but of height 2.1 m. If the canvas used to make the tents costs Rs 120 per sq. m, find the amount shared by each school to set up the tents. What value is generated by the above problem? (Use π= 22/7)
Answer.


Value: By helping the flood victims the schools are showing concern for humanity.

Question 22. Prove that the lengths of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Answer. Theorem. See Q. 27, 2011 (1 Delhi).

Question 23. Draw a circle of radius 4 cm. Draw two tangents to the circle inclined at an angle of 60° to each other.
Answer. See Q. 13, 2013 (I O.D.).

Question 24. In Fig. 7, two equal circles, with centres O and O’, touch each other at X. OO’ produced meets the circle with centre O’ at A. AC is tangent to the circle with centre O, at the point C. O’D is perpendicular to AC. Find the value of DO’/CO.

Answer. Given: two equal circles, with centres O and O’, touch each other at point X. OO’ is produced to meet the circle with centre O’ at A. AC is tangent to the circle with centre O, at the point C. O’D is perpendicular to AC.

Question 25. Solve for x:

Answer.

Question 26. The angle of elevation of the top Q of a vertical tower PQ from a point X on the ground is 60°. From a point Y, 40 m vertically above X, the angle of elevation of the top Q of tower is 45°. Find the height of the tower PQ and the distance PX. (Use √3= 1.73)
Answer.

Question 27. The houses in a row are numbered consecutively from 1 to 49. Show that there exists a value of X such that sum of numbers of houses preceding the house numbered X is equal to sum of the numbers of houses following X.
Answer.

Question 28. In Fig. 8, the vertices of ∆ABC are A(4, 6), B(l, 5) and C(7, 2). A line segment DE is drawn to intersect the sides AB and AC at D and E respectively such that AD/AB= AE/AC= 1/3 .Calculate the area of ∆ADE and Calculate the area compare it with area of ∆ABC.

Answer.

Question 29. A number x is selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 3 and 4. Another number y is selected at random from the numbers 1, 4, 9 and 16. Find the probability that product of x and y is less than 16.
Answer.

Question 30. In Fig. 9, is shown a sector OAP of a circle with centre O, containing ∠θ. AB is perpendicular to the radius OA and meets OP produced at B. Prove that the perimeter of shaded region is r :


Answer.

Question 31. A motor boat whose speed is 24 km/h in still water takes 1 hr more to go 32 km upstream than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.
Answer.

SET II

Note:Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question 10.Solve for x:

Answer.

Question 18. The digits of a positive number of three digits are in A.P. and their sum is 15. The number obtained by reversing the digits is 594 less than the original number. Find the number.
Answer.

Question 19. If the roots of the quadratic equation (a – b)x² + (b – c)x + (c – a) = 0 are equal, prove that 2a = b + c.
Answer.

Question 20. From a pack of 52 playing cards, Jacks, Queens and Kings of red colour are removed. From the remaining, a card is drawn at random. Find the probability that drawn card is: (i) a black King (ii) a card of red colour (iii) a card of black colour
Answer.

Question 28. Draw an isosceles ∆ABC in which BC = 5.5 cm and altitude AL = 3 cm. Then construct another triangle whose sides are 3/4 of the corresponding sides of ∆ABC.
Answer.

Question 29. Prove that the tangent drawn at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
Answer. Theorem. See Q. 25, 2011 (I Outside Delhi).

Question 30. As observed from the top of a light house, 100 m high above sea level, the angles of depression of a ship, sailing directly towards it, changes from 30° to 60°. Find the distance travelled by the ship during the period of observation. (Use √3 = 1.73)
Answer.

Question 31. A rectangular park is to be designed whose breadth is 3 m less than its length. Its area is to be 4 square metres more than the area of a park that has already been made in the shape of an isosceles triangle with its base as the breadth of the rectangular park and of altitude 12 m. Find the length and breadth of the rectangular park.
Answer.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set II.
Question 10. Solve for x:

Answer.

Question 18. There are 100 cards in a bag on which numbers from 1 to 100 are written. A card is taken out from the bag at random. Find the probability that the number on the selected card (i) is divisible by 9 and is a perfect square (ii) is a prime number greater than 80.
Answer.

Question 19. Three consecutive natural numbers are such that the square of the middle number exceeds the difference of the squares of the other two by 60. Find the numbers.
Answer.

Question 20. The sums of first n terms of three arithmetic progressions are S₁, S₂ and S₃ respectively. The first term of each A.P. is 1 and their common differences are 1, 2 and 3 respectively. Prove that S₁+ S₃ = 2S₂.
Answer.

Question 28. Two pipes running together can fill a tank in 11 (1/9) minutes. If one pipe takes 5 minutes more than the other to fill the tank separately, find the time in which each pipe would fill the tank separately.
Answer.

Question 29. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is observed to be 60°. From a point 40 m vertically above the first point of observation, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 30°. Find the height of the tower and its horizontal distance from the point of observation.
Answer.

Question 30. Draw a triangle with sides 5 cm, 6 cm and 7 cm. Then draw another triangle whose sides are 4/5 of the corresponding sides of first triangle.
Answer.

Question 31. A number x is selected at random from the numbers 1, 4, 9, 16 and another number y is selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4. Find the probability that the value of xy is more than 16.
Answer.

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The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Outside Delhi 2016 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Outside Delhi – 2012

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The Question Taper consists of 31 questions divided into four Sections A, B. C. and D.
3. Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
4.  Use of calculators is not permitted.

SET I

SECTION A
Questions number 1 to 4 carry 1 mark each.
Question.1 In Figure 1, AP, AQ and BC are tangents to the circle. If AB = 5 cm, AC = 6 cm and BC = 4 cm, then calculate the length of AP (in cm).

Solution.

Question.2 The circumference of a circle is 22 cm. Calculate the area of its quadrant (in cm²).
Solution.

Question.3 A solid right circular cone is cut into two parts at the middle of its height by a plane parallel to its base. Find the ratio of the volume of the smaller cone to the whole cone.
Solution.

Question.4. Find the distance of the point (-3, 4) from the .Y-axis.
Solution.

SECTION B
Questions number 5 to 10 carry 2 marks each.
Question.5 The 7^th term of an A.P. is 20 and its 13^th term is 32. Find the A.P.
Solution.

Question.6 PQRS is a diameter of a circle of radius 6 cm. The equal lengths PQ, QR and RS are drawn on PQ and QS as diameters, as shown in Fig. 2. Find the perimeter of the shaded region.

Solution.

Question.7 Find the value of for which the roots of the equation px(x-2)+6 = 0 are equal
Solution.

Question.8 How many two-digits number are divisible by 3?
Solution.

Question.9 In figure 3, a right triangle ABC, circumscribes a circle of radius r if AB and BC are of lenths 8cm and 6cm respectively, find the value of r

Solution.

Question.10 Prove that the tangents drawn at the ends of a diameter of a circle of parallel
Solution.

SECTION C
Question.11 In figure 4, ABCD is a square of side 4 cm. A quadrant of a circle of radius 1 cm is drawn at each vertex of the square and a circle of diameter 2 cm is also drawn. Find the area of shaded region. (Use π = 3.14)

Or
From a rectangular sheet of paper ABCD with AB = 40 cm and AD = 28 cm, a semi-circular
portion with BC as diameteris cut off. Find the area of remining paper (use π = 22/7)
Solution.

Question.12 A solid sphere of radius 10.5 cm is melted and recast into smeller solid cones, each of radius 3.5 cm and hight 3 cm. Find the number of cones so formed. (Use π = 22/7)
Solution.

Question.13 Find the value of k, if the point P(2, 4) is equidistant from the points A(5, k) and B(k, 7).
Solution.

Question.14 A card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting
(i) a red king. (ii) a queen or a jack.
Solution.

Question.15 Solve the following quadratic equation for x: x² – 4ax – b² + 4a² = 0
Or
If the sum of two natural numbers is 8 and their product is 15, find the numbers.
Solution.

Question.16Find the sum of all multiples of 7 lying between 500 and 900.
Solution.

Question.17 Draw a triangle ABC with BC = 7 cm, ∠B = 45° and ∠C = 60°. Then construct another
triangle, whose sides are 3/5 times the corresponding sides of ΔABC.
Solution.

Question.18 In Figure 5, a circle is inscribed in a triangle PQR with PQ = 10 cm, QR = 8 cm and PR = 12 cm. Find the lengths of QM, RN and PL.

Solution.

Question.19 In Figure 6, O is the centre of the circle with AC = 24 cm, AB = 7 cm and ∠BOD = 90°. Find the area of the shaded region. (Use π = 3.14)

Or
In Figure 7, find the area of the shaded region, if ABCD is a square of side 14 cm and APD and BPC are semicircles.

Solution.

Question.20 An icecream seller sells his icecreams in two ways:
(A) In a cone of r = 5 cm, h- 8 cm
(B) In a cup in shape of cylinder with r = 5 cm, h = 8 cm He charges the same price for both but prefers to sell his icecream in a cone.
(a) Find the volume of the cone and the cup.
(b) Which out of the two has more capacity?
(c) By choosing a cone, which value is not being followed by the icecream seller?

Solution.

SECTION D
Questions number 21 to 31 carry 4 marks each.
Question.21 The angles of depression of the top and bottom of a tower as seen from the top of a 60 √3 m high cliff are 45° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the tower.
Solution.

Question.22 Find the coordinates of a point P, which lies on the line segment joining the points A(-2, -2)
and B(2, -4) such that AP = 3/7 AB.
Or
Find the area of the quadrilateral ABCD whose vertices are A(-3, -1), B(-2, -4), C(4, -1) and D(3, 4).
Solution.

Question. 23 If the points A(x, y), B(3, 6) and C(-3, 4) are collinear, show that x – 3y + 15 = 0.
Solution.

Question.24 All kings, queens and aces are removed from a pack of 52 cards. The remaining cards are well shuffled and then a card is drawn from it. Find the probability that the drawn card is (i) a black face card. (ii) a red card.
Solution.

Question.25 The numerator of a fraction is 3 less than its denominator. If 1 is added to the denominator, the fraction is decreased by . Find the fraction.
Or
In a flight of 2800 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed is reduced by 100 km/h and time increased by 30 minutes. Find the original duration of the flight.
Solution.

Question.26 Find the common difference of an A.P. whose first term is 5 and the sum of its first four terms is half the sum of the next four terms.
Solution.

Question.27 Prove that the length of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Solution.

Question.28 A hemispherical tank, full of water, is emptied by a pipe at the rate of y litres per sec.
How much time will it take to empty half the tank if the diameter of the base of the tank is 3 m?
Or
A drinking glass is in the shape of the frustum of a cone of height 14 cm. The diameters of
its two circular ends are 4 cm and 2 cm. Find the capacity of the glass. [Use π = 22/7 ]
Solution.

Question.29 A military tent of height 8.25 m is in the form of a right circular cylinder of base diameter 30 m and height 5.5 m surmounted by a right circular cone of same base radius. Find the length of the canvas used in making the tent, if the breadth of the canvas is 1.5 m.
Solution.

Question.30 The angles of elevation and depression of the top and bottom of a light-house from the top of a 60 m high building are 30° and 60° respectively. Find
(i) the difference between the heights of the light-house and the building.
(ii)the distance between the light-house and tire building.
Solution.

Question.31 If the centroid of ΔABC, in which A (a, b), B(F, c), C(c, a) is at the origin, then calculate the value of (a³ + b³ + c³).
Solution.

SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.13 Find the value of k for which the roots of the equation kx (3x – 4) + 4 = 0, are equal.
Solution.

Question.14 How many three-digit numbers are divisible by 11?
Solution.

Question.21 A box contains 70 cards numbered from 1 to 70. If one card is drawn at random from the box, find the probability that it bears
(i) a perfect square number. (ii) a number divisible by 2 and 3.
Solution.

Question.22 Find the value of k, for which the points A(6, -1), B(k, -6) and C(0, -7) are collinear.
Solution.

Question.23 Draw a right triangle in which the sides (other than hypotenuse) are of lengths 8 cm and 6
cm. Then construct another triangle whose sides are 3/4 times the corresponding sides of the given triangle.
Solution.

Question.24 Find the sum of all multiples of 8 lying between 201 and 950.
Solution.

Question.29 If the sum of the first 7 terms of an A.P. is 119 and that of the first 17 terms is 714, find the sum of its first n terms.
Solution.

Question.30 Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
Solution.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-11.
Question.13 Find the value of m for which the roots of the equation
mx (6x + 10) + 25 = 0, are equal.
Solution.

Question.14 Flow many three-digit numbers are divisible by 12?
Solution.

Question.21 Find the sum of all multiples of 9 lying between 400 and 800.
Solution.

Question.22 Find the value of p, if the points A(l, 2), B(3, p) and C(5, -4) are collinear.
Solution.

Question.23 Red kings and black aces are removed from a pack of 52 cards. The remaining cards are well shuffled and then a card is drawn from it. Find the probability that the drawn card is
(i) a black face card. (ii) a red card.
Solution.

Question.24 Draw a triangle with sides 5 cm, 6 cm and 7 cm. Then construct another triangle whose
sides are 2/3 times the corresponding sides of the first triangle.
Solution.

Question.30 A sum of Rs 1,600 is to be used to give ten cash prizes to students of a school for their overall academic performance. If each prize is Rs 20 less than its preceding prize, find the value of each of the prizes.
Solution.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Outside Delhi – 2012 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Delhi 2015

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The Question Taper consists of 31 questions divided into four Sections A, B. C. and D.
3. Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
4.  Use of calculators is not permitted.

SET I

SECTION A
Questions number 1 to 4 carry 1 mark each.
Question.1. If x = -1/2, is a solution of the quadratic equation 3x²+ 2kx -3 = 0, find the value of k.
Answer.

Question.2. The tops of two towers of height x and y, standing on level ground, subtend angles of 30° and 60° respectively at the centre of the line joining their feet, then find x : y.
Answer.

Question. 3. A letter of English alphabet is chosen at random. Determine the probability that the chosen letter is a consonant.
Answer.

Question. 4. In Fig. 1, PA and PB are tangents to the circle with centre O such that ∠APB = 50°. Write the measure of ∠OAB.

Answer.

SECTION B
Questions number 5 to 10 carry 2 marks each.
Question.5. In Fig, 2, AB is the diameter of a circle with centre O and AT tangent. If ∠AOQ = 58°, find ∠ATQ.

Answer.

Question.6. Solve the following quadratic equation for x:

Answer.

Question.7. From a point T outside a circle of centre O, tangents TP and TQ are drawn to the circle. Prove that OT is the right bisector of line segment PQ.
Answer.

Question.8. Find the middle term of the A.P. 6,13, 20, …, 216.
Answer.

Question.9. If A(5, 2), B(2, -2) and C(-2, t) are the vertices of a right angled triangle with ∠B = 90°, then find the value of t.
Answer.

Question.10. Find the ratio in which the point P(3/4, 5/12) divides the line segment joining the points A(1/2, 3/2) and B(2,-5).
Answer.

SECTION C
Questions number 11 to 20 carry 3 marks each.
Question.11. Find the area of the triangle ABC with A(1, -4) and mid-points of sides through A being (2, -1) and (0, -1).
Answer.

Question.12. Find that non-zero value of k, for which the quadratic equation kx² + 1 – 2(k – l)x +x² = 0 has equal roots. Hence find the roots of the equation.
Answer.

Question.13. The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of the tower is 30° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 45°. If the tower is 30 m high, find the height of the building.
Answer.

Question.14. Two different dice are rolled together. Find the probability of getting:
(i) the sum of numbers on two dice to be 5.
(ii) even numbers on both dice.
Answer.

Question.15. If S_n, denotes the sum of first n terms of an A.P., prove that S₁₂ =3(S₈ – S₄).
Answer.

Question.16. In Fig. 3, APB and AQO are semicircles, and AO = OB. If the perimeter of the figure is 40 cm, find the area of the shaded region. [Use π = 22/7]

Answer.

Question. 17. In Fig. 4, from the top of a solid cone of height 12 cm and base radius 6 cm, a cone of height 4 cm is removed by a plane parallel to the base. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid. (Use π = 22/7 and √5 = 2.236)

Answer.

Question. 18. A solid wooden toy is in the form of a hemisphere surmounted by a cone of same radius. The radius of hemisphere is 3.5 cm and the total wood used in the making of toy is 166 (5/6) cm³. Find the height of the toy. Also, find the cost of painting the hemispherical part of the toy at the rate of Rs 10 per cm². [Use π = 22/7 ]
Answer.

Question. 19. In Fig. 5, from a cuboidal solid metallic block, of dimensions 15 cm x 10 cm x 5 cm, a cylindrical hole of diameter 7 cm is drilled out. Find the surface area of the remaining block. [Use π = 22/7]

Answer.

Question. 20. In Fig. 6, find the area of the shaded region. [Use π= 3.14]

Answer.

SECTION D
Questions number 21 to 31 carry 4 marks each.
Question. 21. The numerator of a fraction is 3 less than its denominator. If 2 is added to both the numerator and the denominator, then the sum of the new fraction and original fraction is 29/20 . Find the original fraction.
Answer.

Question. 22. Ramkali required Rs 2500 after 12 weeks to send her daughter to school. She saved Rs 100 in the first week and increased her weekly saving by Rs 20 every week. Find whether she will be able to send her daughter to school after 12 weeks. What value is generated in the above situation?
Answer.


Value: Small savings can fulfill your big desires.

Question. 23. Solve for x:

Answer.

Question. 24. Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
Answer. See 27 (Theorem), 2012 (I Delhi).

Question. 25. In Fig. 7, tangents PQ and PR are drawn from an external point P to a circle with centre O, such that ∠RPQ = 30°. A chord RS is drawn parallel to the tangent PQ. Find ∠RQS.

Answer.

Question.26. Construct a triangle ABC with BC = 7 cm, ∠B = 60° and AB = 6 cm. Construct another triangle whose sides are 3/4 times the corresponding sides of ∆ABC.
Answer. See Q. 23, 2012 (II Delhi).

Question. 27. From a point P on the ground the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 30° and that of the top of a flag staff fixed on the top of the tower, is 60°. If the length of the flag staff is 5m, find the height of the tower.
Answer.