CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Delhi – 2013

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The Question Taper consists of 31 questions divided into four Sections A, B. C. and D.
3. Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
4.  Use of calculators is not permitted.

SET I

Questions number 1 to 4 carry 1 mark each.
Question.1 Find the common difference of the Ap

Solution.

Question.2 In Fig.1, Calculate the area of triangle ABC (in sq.units).

Solution.

SECTION A
Question.3 In Fig. 2, PA and PB are two tangents drawn from an external point P to a circle with centre C and radius 4 cm. If PA PB, then find the length of each tangent.

Solution.

Question.4 If the difference between the circumference and the radius of a circle is 37 cm, then using
π= 22/7, calculate the circumference (in cm) of the circle.
Solution.

SECTION B
Questions number 5 to 20 carry 2 marks each.
Question.5 Solve the following quadratic equation for x:

Solution.

Question.6 How many three-digit natural numbers are divisible by 7?
Solution.

Question.7 In Fig. 3, a circle inscribed in triangle ABC touches its sides AB, BC and AC at points D, E and F respectively. If AB = 12 cm, BC = 8 cm and AC = 10 cm, then find the lengths of AD, BE and CF.

Solution.

Question.8 Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.
Solution.

Question.9 A card is drawn at random from a well shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. Find the probability that the drawn card is neither a king nor a queen.
Solution.

Question.10 Two circular pieces of equal radii and maximum area, touching each other are cut out from a rectangular card board of dimensions 14 cm x 7 cm. Find the area of the remaining card
board. [Use π = 22/7 ]
Solution.

SECTION C
Questions number 11 to 20 carry 3 marks each.
Question.11 For what value of k, are the roots of the quadratic equation kx(x – 2) + 6 =0 equal?
Solution.

Question.12 Find the number of terms of the AP18,15^1/2, 13,…., -49^1/2 and find the sum of all its terms.
Solution.

Question.13 Construct a triangle with sides 5 cm, 4 cm and 6 cm. Then construct another triangle whose
sides are 2/3 times the corresponding sides of first triangle.
Solution.

Question.14 The horizontal distance between two poles is 15 m. The angle of depression of the top of first pole as seen from the top of second pole is 30°. If the height of the second pole is 24 m, find the height of the first pole. [Use √3 = 1.732]
Solution.

Question.15 Prove that the points (7,10), (-2,5) and (3, -4) are the vertices of an isosceles right triangle.
Solution.

Question.16 Find the ratio in which the y-axis divides the line segment joining the points (-4, -6) and (10,12). Also find the coordinates of the point of division.
Solution.

Question.17 In Fig. 4, AB and CD are two diameters of a circle with centre O, which are perpendicular to each other. QB is the diameter of the smaller
circle. If QA = 7 cm, find the area of the shaded region. [Useπ= 22/7]

Solution.

Question.18 A vessel is in the form of a hemispherical bowl surmounted by a hollow cylinder of same diameter. The diameter of the hemispherical bowl is 14 cm and the total height of the vessel is 13 cm. Find the total (inner) suface area of the vessel. [Use π = 22/7 ]
Solution.

Question.19 A wooden toy was made by scooping out a hemisphere of same radius from each end of a solid cylinder. If the height of the cylinder is 10 cm, and its base is of radius 3.5 cm, find the volume of wood in the toy. [Use π = 22/7 ]
Solution.

Question.20 In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the centre.
Find: (i) the length of the arc (ii) area of the sector formed by the arc. [Use π = 22/7 ]
Solution.

SECTION D
Questions number 21 to 31 carry 4 marks each.
Question.21 Solve the following for x:

Solution.

Question.22 Sum of the areas of two squares is 400  cm². If the difference of their perimeters is 16 cm, find the sides of the two squares.
Solution.

Question.23 If the sum of first 7 terms of an A.P. is 49 and that of first 17 terms is 289, find the sum of its first n terms.
Solution.

Question.24 Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
Solution.

Question.25 In Fig. 5, l and m are two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O, touching the circle at A and B respectively. .Another tangent at C intersects the line / at D and m at E. Prove that ∠DOE = 90°.

Solution.

Question.26 The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of the tower is 30° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 60°. If the tower is 60 m high, find the height of the building.
Solution.

Question.27 A group consists of 12 persons, of which 3 are extremely patient, other 6 are extremely honest and rest are extremely kind. A person from the group is selected at random. Assuming that each person is equally likely to be selected, find the probability of selecting a person who is
(i) extremely patient
(ii) extremely kind or honest.
Which of the above values you prefer more?
Solution.

Question.28 The three vertices of a parallelogram ABCD are A(3, -4), B(-l, -3) and C(-6, 2). Find the coordinates of vertex D and find the area of ABCD.
Solution.

Question.29 Water is flowing through a cylindrical pipe, of internal diameter 2 cm, into a cylindrical tank of base radius 40 cm, at the rate of 0.4 m/s. Determine the rise in level of water in the tank in half an hour.
Solution.

Question.30 A bucket open at the top, and made up of a metal sheet is in the form of a frustum of a cone. The depth of the bucket is 26 Cm and the diameters of its upper and lower circular ends are 30 cm and 10 cm respectively. Find the cost of metal sheet used in it at the rate of Rs 10 per 100 cm2. [Use π = 3.14]
Solution.

Question.31 In Fig. 6, ABC is a right-angled triangle right angled at A.
Semicircles are drawn on AB, AC and BC as diametres. Find the area of the shaded region.

Solution.

SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-1,
Question.4 Find the common difference of the A.P.

Solution.

Question.10 A die is tossed once. Find the probability of getting an even number or a multiple of 3.
Solution.

Question.17 Prove that the points A(0, -1), B(-2, 3), C(6, 7) and D(8, 3) are the vertices of a rectangle ABCD?
Solution.

Question.18 Draw a triangle PQR in which QR = 6 cm, PQ = 5 cm and ∠PQR = 60°. Then construct an-
other triangle whose sides are 3/5 times the corresponding sides of ΔPQR?
Solution.

Question.19 The «th term of an A.P. is given by (-4n + 15). Find the sum of first 20 terms of this A.P.
Solution.

Question.20 For what value of k, the roots of the quadratic equation kx(x – 2√5) + 10 = 0, are equal?
Solution.

Question.28 Find the value of x for which the points (x, -1), (2,1) and (4, 5) are collinear.
Solution.

Question.29 From a point P on the ground, the angle of elevation of the top of a 10m tall building is 30°. A flagstaff is fixed at the top of the building and the angle of elevation of the top of the flagstaff from P is 45°. Find the length of the flagstaff and the distance of the building from the point P. (Take √3 = 1.73)
Solution.

Question.30 The 24^th term of an AP is twice its 10^th term. Show that its 72^nd term is 4 times its 15^th term.
Solution.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II.
Question.4 Find the common difference of the A.P.

Solution.

Question.10 A card is drawn at random from a well shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. Find the probability that the drawn card is neither a jack nor an ace.
Solution.

Question.17 For what values of k, the roots of the quadratic equation (k + 4)x² + (k + 1)x + 1 = 0 are equal?
Solution.

Question.18 The sum of first n terms of an AP is 3n² + 4n . Find the 25^th term of this AP.
Solution.

Question.19 Construct a tangent to a circle of radius 4cm from a point on the concentric circle of radius 6 cm.
Solution.

Question.20 Show that the points (-2, 3), (8, 3) and (o, 7) are the vertices of a right triangle.
Solution.

Question.28 Find the number of terms of the A.P. -12, -9, -6,……,21. If 1 is added to each term of this
A.P., then find the sum of all terms of the A.P. thus obtained.
Solution.

Question.29 Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite each other on either side of the road, which is 80 m wide. From a point between them on the road, the angles of elevation of the top of the poles are 60° and 30° respectively. Find the height of the poles and the distances of the point from the poles.
Solution.

Question.30 If the area of triangle ABC formed by A(x, y), B(1, 2) and C(2,1) is 6 square units, then prove that x + y = 15 or x + y = -9.
Solution.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Delhi – 2013 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Delhi-2014

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                             Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

• The Question Paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are
• Marks are indicated against each question.
• Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are Very Short Answer questions. Each question carries one mark.
• Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 mark Answers of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
• Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks Answers of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
• Question number 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 mark each from History and Geography both. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.

SET I

Question.1. In which year and place did Mahatma Gandhi organise Satyagraha for the first time in India?
Answer. In 1916, in Champaran, Bihar.

Question.2. Which mineral is formed by decomposition of rocks, leaving a residual mass of weathered material?
Answer. Bauxite.

Question.3. Give one characteristic feature of’a sectional interest group.
Answer. Sectional interest groups are organisational that undertake activities to promote the interests of specific social sections such as workers, employees, teachers and lawyers change etc.

Question.4. Which special privilege is given to recognised political parties by the Election Commission?
Answer. RPP are given a special election symbol. Only official candidates of that party can use the election symbol.

Question.5. With the help of an example each compare a single issue movement and a long-term movement?
Answer. • Single issue movements are those which seek to achieve a single objective within a :limited time period. Example, Narmada Bachao Andolan.
• Long term movements are those which seek to achieve a long goal in a very long term, e.g., environmental movements, etc.

Question.6. Which organisation lays stress on liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment?
Answer. World Trade Organization.

Question.7. What is collateral?
Answer. A collateral is an asset that the borrower uses as a guarantee to the lender until the loan is repaid. Collateral may include land, building, vehicle livestock, land documents, deposits with banks, etc.

Question.8. Mrs. Sharma bought a packet of dal from her local grocer. When she came back home and began cooking the dal, she could not find the best before date on the packet. So, she had to cook the entire packet of dal.
Which consumer right is being violated here?
Answer. Right to be informed.
The packet of dal has important information like date of expiry missing from it. Thus essential information required by the consumer is missing.

Question.9. Explain the idea of Satyagraha according to Gandhiji.
Answer. Mahatma Gandhi returned to India in 1915 from South Africa. Gandhiji’s novel method of mass agitation is know as ‘Satyagraha’. Satyagraha emphasised truth. Gandhiji believed that if the cause is true, if the struggle is against injustice, then physical force was not necessary to fight the oppressor. A satyagrahi can win the battle through non-violence. People, including oppressors, had to be persuaded to see the truth. Truth was bound to ultimately triumph. Gandhiji believed that dharma of non- violence could unite all India.

Question.10. Describe any three suppressive measures taken by the British administration to clampdown on nationalists.
Answer. Suppressive measures taken by the British administration ivere:
(i) The fear that the lines of communication, such as railways and telegraph, might get disrupted, the British Government started even stronger repressive measures. Local leaders were picked up. Gandhiji was barred from entering Delhi. On 10th April, 1919 the police in Amritsar fired upon a peaceful procession.
(if) This provoked widespread attacks on banks, post offices and railway stations. Martial law was imposed and General Dyer took command. The government replied with further brutalities. The people of Punjab were made to crawl on the streets and salute to all ‘Sahibs’. Some were put in open cages and flogged.
(iii) Newspapers were banned and their editors were arrested. A reign of terror followed. Intellectuals like Rabindranath Tagore renounced their knighthood.

Question.11. How did the local people in the areas conquered by Napoleon react to Fianch rule?
Explain.
Answer. The reactions of the local population to the French rule were mixed.
Initially, in many places such as Holland and Switzerland, as well as in cities like Brussels, Mainz, Milan and Warsaw, the French armies were welcomed as harbingers of liberty. As new administrative arrangements did not go hand in hand with political freedom, enthusiasm turned into hostility. Increased taxation, censorship, forced conscription into the French armies to conquer the rest of Europe, outweighed the advantages of the administrative changes.
Or
Why did a major protest erupt in 1926 in the Saigon Native Girls School in Vietnam? Explain.
Answer. A major protest erupted in the Saigon Native Girls School when a Vietnamese girl sitting in one of the front seats was asked to move to the back of the class and allow a local French student to occupy the front seat. The girl refused and she was expelled by the Principal (also a local French). When the angry students protested, they too were expelled. This led
to further open protests. Seeing the situation getting out of control, the government forced the school to take the students back.

Question.12. Why is energy required for all activities? How can energy be generated? Explain.
Answer. Energy is needed to cook, to provide light and heat, to propel vehicles and to drive machinery in industries. Energy is a basic requirement for economic development. Every sector of the national economy — agriculture, industry and transport-commercial and domestic needs inputs of energy.
Energy can be generated from fuel minerals like coal, petroleum, natural gas, uranium and from electricity. Conventional sources like firewood and cattledung cakes are most commonly used in rural India to generate energy.

Question.13. Give reasons for which foreign tourists visit India.
Answer. Foreigners visit India for various purposes. These are:

1.  Heritage tourism
2. Eco-tourism
3. Adventure tourism
4.  Cultural tourism
5. Medical tourism
6. Business tourism
   — Broadened cultural awareness of each others tradition.
   — It is economically viable. India is a great value destination as tourists can travel cheaply and lavishly.
   — Indian hospitality is famous worldwide—‘Atithi devo bhava’.
   — India is an avenue to explore spirituality through yoga, meditation.
   — Indian cuisine predominantly, North Indian is world famous.
   — India has several historical and architectural attractions. Regional handicrafts and ethnic designs of traditional products attract tourists.

Question.14. ‘Environmental degradation has been seen everywhere/ Explain any three values that can help to prevent environment degradation.
Answer. Three values that can help to prevent Environment Degradation:

1.  We must ensure sustainable and equitable use of resources without degrading the environment or risking health or safety.
2.  We must raise awareness and consciousness among people about the importance of judicious use of resources to prevent degradation of land, water, vegetation and air.
3. The following measures must be adopted to prevent environmental degradation: — Minimising use of water for processing by reusing and recycling it.
   — Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories.
   — Almost all machinery can be redesigned to increase energy efficiency and reduce noise:

Question.15. How is democratic government known as a responsive government? Explain with an example.
Answer. Over a hundred countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic politics.
— They have formal constitutions, hold elections, have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens. Thus, in most countries, the democracy produces a government that is . accountable to the citizens and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens. — No society can fully and permanently resolve conflict among different groups. But we can learn to respect these differences and evolve mechanisms to negotiate them. Democracy is best suited as it develops a procedure to conduct competitions. Belgium is a successful example of negotiating difference among ethnic population.
— Passion for respect and freedom is the basis of democracy and has been achieved in various degrees in various democracies.
— The support for democracy is overwhelming all over the world and is evident from South Asia, where the support exists in countries with democratic as well as undemocratic regimes.
— People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them as a democratic government is people’s own government and makes them believe that it is suitable for their country as it is a legitimate government.

Question.16. Describe in brief the three challenges faced by democracy.
Answer.

1.  Foundational challenge. It relates to making the transition to democracy and then instituting democratic government. It involves bringing down the existing non- democratic regime, keeping military away from controlling government and establishing a sovereign and functional State.
2.  Challenge of expansion. It involves applying the basic principle of democratic government across all the regions, different social groups and various institutions. It pertains to ensuring greater power to local governments, extension of federal principle to all the units of the federation, inclusion of women and minority groups, etc. Most established democracies, e.g, India and US, face the challenge of expansion.
3. Challenge of deepening of democracy. This challenge involves strengthening of the institutions and practices of democracy. It means strengthening those institutions that help people’s participation and control in the government. It aims at bringing down the control and influence of rich and powerful people in making governmental decisions.

Question.17. ‘Democracy is seen to be good in principle, but felt, to be not so good in practice.’
Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
Answer. If we look at some of the democratic policies being implemented in more than one hundred countries of the world, democracy seems to be good. For example, having a formal Constitution, holding regular elections, guaranteeing the citizens certain rights, working for the welfare of the people, etc. make us advocate that democracy is good.
But if we look in terms of social situations, their economic achievements and varied cultures, we find a very big difference in most of the democracies. The vast economic disparities, social injustice based on discrimination, standard of life, sex discrimination, etc. create many doubts about the merits of democracy.
Whenever some of our expectations are not met, we start blaming the idea of democracy. Since democracy is a form of government, it can only create conditions for achieving our goals if they are reasonable.

Question.18. Define the term liberalization. Explain the reasons why the Indian Government started the policy of liberalization in 1991. 
Answer. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government on foreign trade and foreign investment is what is known as liberalization. The Indian Government removed these barriers because:

1. Liberalization of trade and investment policies allows Indian producers to compete with producers around the globe leading to an improvement in performance and quality of products.
2.  After the barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large
   extent, goods could be imported and exported easily and also foreign companies could set up factories and offices in India. This has led to an increase in trade with different countries.
3.  Businesses are allowed to make decisions freely about what they wish to import or export due to the liberal policies of the government.
4.  Doors of investment opened up for MNCs. They have been investing large sums of money in India and have been seeking to earn large profits.

Question.19. How does money solve the problem of double coincidence of wants? Explain with an example.
Answer. Money acts as a medium of exchange. Money can be exchanged for any kind of commodity or service of one’s choice or need. Before money was introduced, people practised barter system. They exchanged goods with each other.
Example: A farmer could buy a dhoti from a weaver or a pair of shoes from a cobbler in exchange of grains he produced.
The problem with the barter system was that both the parties had to agree to sell and buy each other’s product. This is known as double coincidence of wants.
In barter system, where goods are directly exchanged without the use of money, it is essential that there is a double coincidence. Double coincidence is a situation where two * persons need or desire to have each other’s product.
Money solves this problem as with money we can buy whatever we want and whenever we want, without having to exchange something in return.

Question.20. How has information and communication technology stimulated globalisation process?
Explain with examples.
Answer. Information and communication technology has helped globalisation in the following ways:

1.  Rapid improvement in technology has contributed greatly towards globalisation. Advanced technology in transport systems has helped in the delivery of goods faster across long distances at lower costs.
2. Development in information and communication technology has also helped a great deal. Telecommunication facilities —telegraph, telephone, mobile phones, fax are used to contact one another quickly around the world, access information instantly and communicate from remote areas. This is possible due to satellite communication devices. Teleconferences help in saving frequent long trips across the globe.
3. Information technology has also played an important role in spreading out production of services across countries. Orders are placed through internet, designing is done on computers, even payment of money from one bank to another can be done through e-banking through internet. Internet also allows us to send instant electronic mail (e-mail) and talk (voice-mail) across the world at negligible cost.

Question.21. Explain any five social and administrative reforms introduced by Napoleon in regions under his control.
Answer. Napoleon had brought revolutionary changes in the administrative field in order to make the whole system rational and efficient. The Civil Code of 1804 is usually known as the Napoleonic Code.

1. The first major change was doing away with all privileges based on birth, establishing equality before law and securing the right to property.
2.  Administrative divisions were simplified.
3. Feudal system was abolished and peasants were freed from serfdom and manorial dues (abuse of manorial lords).
4. In towns, guild restrictions were removed.
5. Transport and communication systems were improved.
6. Peasants, artisans, workers and new businessmen enjoyed a new found freedom.
7. Businessmen and small-scale producers of goods in particular began to realise that uniform laws, standardised weights and measures and a common national currency would facilitate the movement and exchange of goods and capital from one region to another. [any five
   Or
   “The measures taken by the French to control the spread of bubonic plague in Hanoi created a serious problem.” Explain the statement.
   Answer.
8. The modern city of Hanoi got infested with rats in 1902 and was struck by bubonic plague. The large sewers in the modem part of the city served as breeding ground for rats.
9.  To get rid of the rats, a ‘Rat Hunt’ was started. The French hired Vietnamese workers and paid them for each rat they caught. Rats began to be caught in thousands. This incident taught the Vietnamese the first lesson of collective bargaining. Those who did the dirty work of entering sewers found that if they came together they could negotiate a higher prize.
10. They also discovered innovative ways to profit from the situation. The prize was paid when a tail was given as a proof that a rat had been killed. So the rat catchers began clipping the tails and releasing the rats, so that the process could be repeated over and over again.
11.  Defeated by the resistance of the Vietnamese, the French were forced to scrap the bounty programme. Bubonic plague swept through the area in 1903 and in subsequent years. In a way, the rat menace marks the limits of French power and contradiction in their civilizing mission. This incident is also an example of the numerous small ways in which colonialism was fought by Vietnamese in everyday life.

Question.22. How could non-cooperation become a movement? Explain with examples.
Answer. Mahatma Gandhi felt that British rule was established in India with the cooperation of the
Indian people. If the Indians would refuse to cooperate, British rale would collapse.

1.  According to Gandhiji, non-cooperation could become a movement by unfolding in stages.
2.  It would begin with the surrender of titles that the government awarded, and a boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils, schools and foreign goods. Then if the Government used repression, a full civil disobedience campaign would be launched.
3.  Throughout 1920, Gandhiji and Shaukat Ali toured extensively mobilising popular support for the movement.
4. In the cities, the movement started with middle class participation. Thousands of students left government controlled schools and colleges. Headmasters and teachers resigned and lawyers gave up their legal practices.
5. The Council elections were boycotted, foreign goods and foreign cloth was boycotted. Traders and merchants also refused to trade in foreign goods.

Question.23. What is trade? Why is ‘tourism’ considered as a trade and industry?
Answer. The exchange of goods among people, states and countries is referred to as trade.

1.  With increase in the number of foreign tourists visiting India, we earned foreign exchange worth ?21,828 crore in 2004.
2.  Over 2.6 million foreign tourists visit India every year for appreciating our heritage, our culture for medical purposes or for business purposes, etc.
3.  Over 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry.
4. Tourism promotes national integration, provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits.
5.  Tourism also helps in the development of international understanding about our culture and heritage.
6. Rajasthan, Goa, Jammu & Kashmir and temple towns of south India are the most popular tourist destinations. These states earn huge sums of money from tourism trade.

Question.24. “‘Agriculture’ and ‘Industry’ are complementary to each other.” Explain with five examples.
Answer. Agriculture and Idustry in India are inseparable or interdependent on each other:

1.  Agro-industries in India have boosted agriculture by raising its productivity.
2.  Industries depend on agriculture for their raw materials, eg. cotton textile industry.
3.  Industries provide many agricultural inputs like irrigation pumps, fertilisers,
   insecticides, PVC pipes, machines and tools etc. to the farmers.
4. Manufacturing industries have assisted agriculturists to increase their production and also made tfie production processes very efficient.
5. Development of different modes of transport by industrial sector has not only helped farmers to obtain agricultural inputs but has also helped them trade their products.

Question.25. How is democracy a better form of government in comparison with other forms of governments? Explain.
Answer. Over a hundred countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic politics.

1.  They have formal constitutions, hold elections, have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens. Thus, in most countries, the democracy produces a government that is accountable to the citizens and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.
2.  No society can fully and permanently resolve conflict among different groups. But we can learn to respeqt these differences and evolve mechanisms to negotiate them. Democracy is best suited as it develops a procedure to conduct competitions. Belgium is a successful example of negotiating difference among ethnic population.
3. Passion for respect and freedom is the basis of democracy and has been achieved in various degrees in various democracies.
4.  The support for democracy is overwhelming all over the world and is evident from South Asia, where the support exists in countries with democratic as well as undemocratic regimes.
5. People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them as a democratic government is people’s own government and makes them believe that it is suitable for their country as it is a legitimate government.

Question.26. Why do we need political parties? Explain.
Answer. To fill political offices and exercise political power, political parties are needed to perform a series of functions, which are the following:

1. Parties contest elections. Elections are fought mainly among candidates put up by political parties. In India, top party leaders choose candidates for contesting elections.
2. Parties put forward different policies and programmes. Political parties in a democracy group together similar opinions, to provide a direction in which government policies can be formulated.
3.  Parties make laws for a country. Laws are debated and passed in the legislature.
4. Parties that lose elections play the role of the opposition. Opposition parties voice their views by criticising government for its failure or wrong policies.
5.  Parties shape public opinion. They raise and highlight issues and resolve people’s problems. Many pressure groups are the extensions of political parties.
6. Parties provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemes. For
   an ordinary citizen it is easy to approach a local party leader than a government officer.

Question.27. Explain the role of multinational corporations in the globalization process.
Answer. Globalization is the process of rapid integration or inter-connection among countries.
MNCs have contributed greatly in the process of globalisation.

1.  MNCs have set up production centres in various countries and are supplying produced goods, services and technology to various countries.
2.  The countries of the world have come closer. It has also increased the movement of people between countries.
3. The MNCs provide money for additional investments, for faster production. Also, MNCs bring with them the latest technology for enhancing and improving the production.

Question.28. How does exploitation of consumers take place in the market? Explain with any five facts.
Answer. Some common ways by which consumers are exploited by manufacturers and traders are
given below:

1. Underweight and under-measurement. Goods sold in the market are sometimes not measured or weighed correctly.
2.  High prices. Very often the traders charge a price higher than the prescribed retail price.
3.  Sub-standard quality. The goods sold are sometimes of sub-standard quality, eg. selling medicines beyond their date of expiry, selling deficient or defective home appliances.
4. Duplicate articles. In the name of genuine parts or goods, fake or duplicate items are sold to the consumers.
5. Adulteration and impurity. In costly edible items like oil, ghee and spices, adulteration is common in order to earn more profit.This causes heavy loss to the consumers. They suffer from monetary loss as well as’damage to their health.
6. Lack of safety devices. Fake or inferior electronic goods, electrical devices or other appliances, produced locally lack the required in-built safety measures. This may cause accidents.
7.  False and incomplete information. Sellers easily mislead consumers by giving wrong information about a product, its price, quality, reliability, life-cycle, expiry date, durability, its effect on health, environment, safety and security, maintenance cost involved and terms and conditions of purchase. Cosmetics, drugs and electronic
   goods are common examples where consumers face such problems. (any five)

Question.29. Identify and label the following on the map of India:
(a) The place where the Indian National Congress session was held in September 1920.
(b) The place where the cotton mill worker’s Satyagraha was organised in 1918.
(c) The place where the movement of Indigo farmers was held.

Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 29.
(1) Name the place where the Indian National Congress session was held in December 1920.
(2) At which place did the cotton mill workers start the Satyagraha in 1918?
(3) Name the place where the movement of Indigo farmers was held.
Answer. (a) Calcutta (b) Ahmedabad (c) Champaran

Question.30. On the given political outline map of India:
(a) Identify
A. Bhilai—Iron and Steel Plant; B. Coimbatore—Cotton Textile Centre
(b) Locate and label ,
(i) Raja Sansi—International Airport

Answer.

Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 30.
(1) In which state is Bhilai iron ind steel plant located?
(2) Name the state where Coimbatore textile centre is located.
(3) In which city Raja Sansi international airport is located?
Answer. (1) Chhattisgarh (2) Tamil Nadu (3) Amritsar

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.2. Name the state where the largest wind farm cluster is located?
Answer. Tamil Nadu.

Question.13. Mention the six mail channels introduced recently to facilitate quick delivery of mails.
Answer. Mail channels introduced by the Indian postal network are:

1. Rajdhani Channel
2. Business Channel
3.  Metro Channel
4.  Bulk Mail Channel
5. Green Channel
6.  Periodical Channel
   The main purpose is to facilitate quick delivery of mail to large towns and cities.

Question.14. Why has ‘Chhota Nagpur Region’ maximum concentration of iron and steel industries? Explain any three reasons.
Answer. Reasons for concentration of iron and steel industries in Chhota Nagpur region:

1.  Low cost of iron-ore which is mined here.
2.  High grade raw materials in close proximity.
3.  Availability of cheap labour.
4. Vast growth potential in the home market.
5.  Efficient transport network for their distribution to the markets and consumers.
6. Availability of power because this region has many thermal and hydel power plants.

Question.16. Describe the three components of a political party.
Answer. Components of a political party are:
(i) The leaders, (ii) active members and (iii) the followers.
— The leaders are recruited and trained by parries. They are made ministers to run the government. The big policy decisions are taken by the political executives that come from the political parties.
— Parties have lakhs of members and activists spread over the country. Many of the pressure groups are the extensions of political parries among different sections of society. But since most of the members belong to a party, they go by the direction of the party leadership, irrespective of their personal opinion.
— The followers are the ordinary citizens, who believe in the policies of their respective party and give popular support through elections. Often the opinion of the followers crystallise on the lines parties take.

Question.18. Why had Indian government put barriers to foreign trade and.foreign investment after independence? Explain.
Answer.

1. The Indian government after independence had put barriers to foreign trade and investment. This was done to protect the producers within the country from foreign competition. Industries were just coming up in the 1950s and 1960s and competition from imports at that stage would not have allowed these industries to develop and grow. Imports of only essential items such as machinery, fertilisers, petroleum etc. was allowed.
2.  Another reason was to protect the Indian economy from foreign infiltration in industries affecting the economic growth of the country as planned. India wanted to move faster to catch up with the main industries in the world market and therefore had to keep an extra watch on its progress in international trade and give incentives to the more rapidly growing industries through fiscal tariff and other means.

Question.19. How is money used in everyday life? Explain with examples.
Answer.

1. Money plays a central role in our daily life. It is used as a medium of exchange to
   carry out transactions.
2.  Money buys us food, clothing, shelter and other basic necessities of life.
3.  Money provides us social security. It is needed to procure services like transport, education, healthcare, entertainment, recreation, and so on. Money facilitates business and trade and is the basis of the working of an economy. .

Question.22. How did different social groups participate in Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain with examples.
Answer.

1. Rich peasant communities, like the Patidars of Gujarat and the Jats of Uttar Pradesh, became active in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
   — Being producers of commercial crops, they were hard hit by trade-depression and falling prices.
   — For them fight for Swaraj was a struggle against high revenues.
2.  Small tenants had been cultivating rented land of landlords. They were not interested in the lowering of the revenue demand.
   — They wanted unpaid rent to be remitted.
   — They often joined the radical movements led by the socialists and communists.
3.  Merchants reacted against colonial policies that restricted business activities. They wanted protection against import of foreign goods and wanted a rupee-sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports.
4. Industrialsits formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920.
   — They formed the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927.
   — They refused to sell or buy imported goods. They gave financial assistance and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement.
5. Another important feature of the Civil Disobedience Movement was large-scale participation of women.
   — They participated in protest marches, manufactured salt and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops. Many women went to jail.
   — These women came from high-caste families in urban areas and rich peasant households in rural areas.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II.
Question.1. Who is the author of the famous book ‘Hind Swaraj’?
Answer. Mahatma Gandhi.

Question.2. In which State are the ‘Balaghat’ Copper mines located?
Answer. Madhya Pradesh.

Question.13. Why is air travel preferred in the north-eastern states of India? Explain.
Answer. The north-eastern part of the country is marked with:
(i) Dissected relief, (ii) dense forests, (iii) frequent floods and (iv) big rivers.
Under these difficult conditions, the road and rail transport is not well developed. Journey through land transport is very tiresome and time-consuming. So, for all these reasons, air travel is preferred in this part of the country, where special provisions are made to extend the services to common people at cheaper rates.

Question.19. Explain with examples, how people are involved with the banks.
Answer.

1. Banks help people to save their money and keep their money in safe custody of the bank. Banks accept deposits from the public and also help people to earn interest on their deposits.
2.  People can withdraw the money deposited with the bank at the time of their need. As the money can be withdrawn on demand, these are called demand deposits.
3. Banks also grant loans to people for a variety of purposes. In times of need individuals, business houses and industries can borrow money from the banks.

Question.22. Explain with examples the role of industrialists in the freedom struggle of India.
Answer. Role of merchants and the industrialists in the Civil Disobedience Movement:

1. Merchants reacted against colonial policies that restricted business activities.
2.  They wanted protection against import of foreign goods and wanted a rupee-sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports.
3. Industrialists formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920.
4.  They formed the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries
   (FICCI) in 1927.
5.  They refused to sell or buy imported goods. They gave financial assistance and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement.
6.  Industrialists like G.D.Birla and Purshottamdas Thakurdas attacked colonial control over the Indian economy.

Question.25. Suggest any five political reforms to strengthen democracy.
Answer. Broad guidelines for political reforms:

1. As legal-constitutional changes by themselves cannot overcome challenges to democracy, democratic reforms need to be carried out mainly by political activists, parties, movements and politically conscious citizens.
2.  Any legal change must carefully look at what results it will have on politics. Generally, laws, that seek a ban on something are rather counter-productive; for example, many states have debarred people who have more than two children from contesting Panchayat elections. This has resulted in denial of democratic opportunity to many poor women, which was not intended. The best laws are those which empower people to carry out democratic reforms; for example, the Fight to Information Act which acts as a watchdog of democracy by controlling corruption.
3.  Democratic reforms are to be brought about principally through political parties. The most important concern should be to increase and improve the quality of political participation by ordinary citizens.
4. Any proposal for political reforms should think not only about what is a good solution, but also about who will implement it and how. Measures that rely on democratic movements, citizens organizations and media are likely to succeed.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Delhi-2014 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Outside Delhi-2014

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                             Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

• The Question Paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are
• Marks are indicated against each question.
• Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are Very Short Answer questions. Each question carries one mark.
• Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 mark Answers of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
• Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks Answers of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
• Question number 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 mark each from History and Geography both. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.

SET I

Question.1. In which novel was the hymn ‘Vande Mataram’ included and who was the novel written by?
Answer. Novel—Aandamath
Author—Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

Question.2. Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? Name its four major forms.
Answer. Coal
(i) Anthracite (ii) Lignite
(Hi) bituminous (iv) peat

Question.3. What is ‘transparency’ in a democracy?
Answer. Democracy ensures that decision-making will be based on norms and procedures. So a citizen, who wants to know if a decision was taken through the correct procedures, can find out as democracy guarantees to the citizens the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. This is known as transparency.

Question.4. Name the national political party which draws inspiration from the teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Naicker and Babasaheb Ambedkar.
Answer. Bahujan Samaj Party.

Question.5. With the help of an example each, compare sectional interest groups and public interest groups.
Answer. Sectional interest group. They seek to promote the interest of a particular section or group of society. They promote selective good and are concerned only about the interest of their section of the society, their own members and not the society in general. For example, FEDECOR.
Public interest group. They seek to promote collective interests rather than selective good. They promote collective good and are concerned with welfare of the society and not just their own members. For example, BAMCEF.

Question.6. What do you understand by the term ‘Foreign Direct Investment’?
Answer. FDI is the investment of foreign capital in the economic and productive activities of a country by foreign companies or MNCs with the aim of expanding capacity and production to earn profits.

Question.7. When is ‘National Consumers Day’ celebrated in India?
Answer. National Consumers Day is celebrated every year on 24th December.

Question.8. ‘Modem currency is without any use of its own’; then why is it accepted as a medium of exchange?
Answer. Modem currency is accepted as a medium of exchange because it is certified for a particular denomination (Rs.10, Rs.100, etc.) of the country’ by authorities set up by the Central Government. It is issued by the Reserve Bank of India and it can be used for buying any commodity which is on sale. It is authorized by the government of the country.

Question.9. Why did Gandhiji decide to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act, 1919? Explain.
Answer. The Rowlatt Act was passed despite the united opposition of the Indian members of Imperial Legislative Council.
(?) The Act gave the government enormous powers to oppress political agitations.
(;ii) It had allowed the detention of political prisoners without trial for two years. There was no provision for appeal.
The passing of this Act aroused large scale indignation.
Gandhiji, who had formed a Satyagraha Sabha earlier, called for a countrywide protest against the proposed Rowlatt Act. Throughout the country, 6 April 1919 was observed as a National Humiliation Day. Gandhiji wanted a non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust laws. Hartals and rallies were organized in various cities. Workers went on strike in railway workshops. Shops were closed down. The movement was non-violent but proved to be effective.

Question.10. Describe the main features of the ‘Salt March’.
Answer. Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation.
(i) On 31st January’, 1930 he sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands, one of which was the demand to abolish Salt Tax.
(ii) Salt was one of the most essential food items consumed by the rich and poor alike . and a tax on it was considered an oppression on the people by the British
Government.
(iii) Mahatma Gandhi’s letter was an ultimatum and if his demands were not fulfilled by March 11, he had threatened to. launch a civil disobedience campaign.
(;iv) So, Mahatma Gandhi started his famous Salt March accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi.
(i>) The volunteers walked for 24 days, about 10 miles a day. Thousands came to hear Mahatma Gandhi wherever he stopped, and he told them what he meant by Swaraj and urged them to peacefully defy the British.
(vi) On 6th April, he reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water. This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question.11. Explain the conditions that were viewed as obstacles to the economic exchange and growth by the new commercial classes during the nineteenth century in Europe.
Answer. In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on movement of goods and capital.
(i) But in the 19th century Napoleon’s administrative measures had created out of countless small principalities a confederation of 39 states. Each possessed its own currency, and weights and measures.
(ii) A merchant travelling from Hamburg to Nuremberg had to pass through 11 custom barriers and pay 5% duty at each one of them.
(;iii) As each region had its own system of weights and measures this involved time-consuming calculations.
Such conditions were viewed as obstacles to economic growth and exchange by the new commercial classes who argued for the creation of a unified economic territory allowing free movement of goods, people and capital.
Or
How did students in Vietnam fight against the colonial government’s efforts to prevent Vietnamese from qualifying for ‘white collar jobs’?
The students were inspired by patriotic feelings and the conviction that it was the duty of the educated to fight for the benefit of society.
This brought them into conflict with the French as well as the traditional elite since both saw their position threatened.
By the 1920s, students were forming various political parties, such as the Party of the Young Annan and publishing nationalist journals such as the Annanese Student.
Schools thus become an important place for political and cultural battles.

Question.12.What are the two main ways of generating electricity? How are they different from each other? Explain.
Answer.Electricity is generated mainly in two ways:
(i) By running water which drives hydro turbines to generate hydro electricity.
(if) By burning other fuels such as coal, petroleum and natural gas to drive turbines to produce thermal power.
Answer.

Question.13.Why is the distribution of roads not uniform in India? Explain with examples.
Answer.(i) Distribution of roads is not uniform in India due to different types of geographical features.
(it) Moreover, the volume of traffic as well as passengers also affects road networking in India. Roads are highly congested in cities. Most of the bridges and culverts have become narrow, old and broken.
(iff) Some roads are metalled, that is well built with brick and cement and about half of the roads are unmetalled specially in rural areas which makes them unaccessible during rainy seasons.
(iv) The regions with rugged terrain have steep roads with lots of hairpin bends.

Question.14.Why are efficient means of transport prerequisites for the fast development of the country? Explain.
Answer.India is well linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size and diversities because of efficient means of transport and communication. They are rightly called the lifelines of a nation because:
(i) Economic development of a country depends on the well developed and efficient means of transport and communication.
(it) They are indispensable for movement of people, goods and services from one place to another.
(Hi) They have contributed to socio-economic progress in many ways by connecting far flung areas of the country. They help in the balanced regional development of the country.
(iv) They promote trade, tourism and business thus adding value to the economy.
(v) They link areas of production with consumption, i.e. agricultural farms are linked to the markets and industries.
(vi) Transport and communication have made possible international trade which is essential for ever}7 economy as no country is self-sufficient in all resources.

Question.15. What inspiration do we get from Bolivia’s popular struggle? Explain any three values that we can learn from it.
Answer. We can identify the following values in Bolivia’s struggle:
(/) It was a conflict between the people and the government to fight for justice and fairness and to fight against the greed of the government.
(ii) The Bolivian organization FEDECOR represented the common or general interest. The members of the organization did not necessarily benefit from the cause that the organization represented. They were fighting for collective social good.
(Hi) The political conflict that led to popular struggle in Bolivia involved mass mobilization. It showed the power of the common people.

Question.16. How is Deepening of Democracy a major challenge to modern democracies?
Answer. Deepening of democracy is a challenge that is faced by almost every democracy m one form or the other. For example, In case of India, some challenges that are faced are as follows:
(i) Strengthening of institutions and practices of democracy. –
(it) Strengthening of those institutions that may help people’s participations and control.
(iii) This may require to check the influence of rich and powerful people in making government decisions.

Question.17. What do you mean by foundational challenge in democracy? What values cm help to overcome this challenge?
Answer. Transition to democratic institutions from non-dcmocratic regimes, separation of military from governing authority, establishing a sovereign and afunctional state can be some of the foundational challenges in democracies.
The values that may help overcome them are:
• honesty • equality • freedom

Question.18. How are MNCs able to cope with large deniands from all over the world and control prices?
Answer. (i) Large MNCs in developed countries place orders for production with small producers.
(ii) The MNCs sell these under their own brand names to the customers.
(iii) As they control the market with the huge demand, they are able to control prices.

Question.19. How have markets been transformed in recent years? Explain with examples.
Answer. The initial aspect of unequal situations in a market and poor enforcement of rules and
regulations have now seen a transformation in the market in recent years.
(i) The transformation of markets in recent years has come because of legal institutions helping consumers in getting compensated and upholding their rights as consumers.
(ii) The awareness of being a well-informed consumer which arose out of consumer movement has also shifted the responsibility of ensuring quality of goods and services on the sellers.
(iii) The producers in the market need to strictly follow the required safety rules and regulations. The manufacturer in the market is now required to display information about the ingredients used, price, batch number, date of manufacture, expiry date and the address of the manufacturer.
For example, pressure cookers have safety valves and manufacturers have to ensure its high quality. While buying medicines the ‘directions for use’ and information relating to side effects and risk associated with its usage are to be mentioned on the packets. Q.20. In spite of Globalization, creating good quality products and expanding market, how is it affecting the stability in jobs for the workers?
Ans. (i) Employment of ‘flexible workers’.
(ii) Increased competition, objective to lower costs, the axe falls on the ‘labour costs’ — temporary jobs given.
(iii) Longer working hours for labour to get suitable salaries.

Question.21. How had revolutionaries spread their ideas in many European States after 1815?
Explain with examples.
Answer. During the years following 1815, the fear of repression drove many liberal nationalists underground.
(i) Secret societies sprang up in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas. Revolutionary ideas were spread by opposing monarchical forms and to fight for liberty and freedom.
(ii) Most of the revolutionaries also saw the creation of nation-states as a necessary part of this struggle for freedom.
(iii) Giuseppe Mazzini was an Italian revolutionary born in Geneva in 1807. He was a member of the Secret Society of the Carbonari. He attempted a revolution in 1831 and was sent into exile.
(iv) He had set up two more underground societies, namely, Young Italy (1832) in Marseilles and then Young Europe in Berne. The members were like-minded young men from Poland, France, Italy and Germany.
(v) He opposed monarchy and small states and kingdoms and dreamt of a Democratic Republic. He believed the unification of Italy alone could be the basis of Italian liberty.
Or
Explain, with examples, how religious groups played an important role in the development of anti-colonial feelings in Vietnam.
Answer. Scholars’ Revolt, 1868. It was an early movement against French control and spread of Christianity. It was led by officials at the imperial court angered by the spread of Catholicism and French power. There was an uprising in Ngu An and Ha Tien provinces where the Catholic missionaries had been active in converting people to Christianity since the early 17th century. By the middle of the 18th century, nearly 3,00,000 people had got converted. This had angered the people of these provinces and led to the uprising. Though this uprising was crushed by the French, it had inspired the people of other regions to rise against the French colonialism.
Hoa Hao Movement. It began in 1939 and gained popularity in Mekong delta area. The founder of Hoa Hao was Huynh Phu So. He performed miracles and helped the poor. His criticism against useless expenditure, opposition to the sale of child brides, gambling and : the use of alcohol and opium had a wide appeal. The French tried to suppress the
movement led by Huynh Phu So and declared him mad, called him the Mad Bonze and put him in a mental asylum. Interestingly, the doctor, who had to certify him insane, became his follower and finally, in 1941, the French doctors declared that he was sane. The French authorities exiled him to Laos and sent his many followers to concentration camps.

Question.22. How did different social groups conceive the idea of ‘Non-Cooperation’? Explain with examples.
Answer. Various social groups participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement, each with its own specific aspiration. All of them responded to the call of ‘Swaraj’ but the term meant different things to different people.
Movement in the cities:
(?) Thousands of students from government controlled schools, headmasters, teachers resigned and left the school.
(ii) Lawyers gave up their legal practices. The Council elections were also boycotted in most provinces.
Movement spread to the countryside:
(?) In Awadh, the peasants’ movement led by Baba Ramchandra was against talukdars and landlords who demanded extremely high rents and a variety of other cesses from the peasants. Peasants were forced to work in landlords’ farms without any payment (begar). Peasants had no security of tenure, they were regularly evicted so that they could acquire no right over the leased land. The demands of the peasants were: reduction of revenue, abolition of begar and social boycott of oppressive landlords.
(it) In the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh a militant guerrilla movement spread in the early 1920s against the closure of forest areas by the colonial government, preventing people from entering the forests to graze their cattle, or to collect fuelwood and fruits. They felt that their traditional rights were being denied.
(Hi) For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed. Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were not permitted to leave tea gardens without permission which was hardly granted. When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities and left for their homes.

Question.23. “Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its prosperity/’ Support the statement with suitable examples.
Answer. Exchange of goods (buying and selling of goods) between two countries is called international trade. It may take place through sea, air or land routes. It has two components—export and import. .
(?) Advancement of international trade of a country’ is an index to its economic prosperity.
(ii) As no country is self-sufficient in all resources, it cannot survive without international trade.
(???) If the balance of international trade is favourable that is value of export is more than the value of import, a country will be able to earn more foreign exchange.
(iv) International trade encourages a country to develop secondary and tertiary sectors for exporting goods which can fetch more foreign exchange. In this day and age of globalization exchange of goods and commodities has also been overtaken by the exchange of information and knowledge as well.
(v) A country’s economic prosperity can be gauged by the health of its international trade.

Q.24. Explain the main factors responsible for the concentration of jute industry in Hugli
basin.
Answer. Factors responsible for the concentration of jute industry on the banks of Hugli are:
(?) Proximity of the jute producing areas to the Hugli Basin.
(ii) Inexpensive water transport provided by the Hugli river.
(it?) It is well connected by a good network of railways, waterways and roadways to facilitate movement of raw materials to the mills.
(iv) Abundant water for processing raw jute.
(v) Availability of cheap labour from West Bengal and the adjoining States of Bihar, Orissa and Uttar Pradesh.
(vi) Kolkata as a port and large urban centre, provides banking, insurance and port facilities for export of jute goods.

Question.25. How do democracies accommodate various social divisions? Explain with examples.
Answer. No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and evolve a mechanism to negotiate the differences. Belgium is an example of how successfully differences were negotiated among ethnic groups. Therefore, democracy is best suited to accommodate various social divisions as it usually develops a procedure to conduct their competition. But the example of Sri Lanka shows how distrust between two communities turned into widespread conflict, and thus a democracy must fulfil the following two conditions in order to achieve a harmonious social life :
(;i) Majority and minority opinions are not permanent. Democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion. The majority needs to work with the minority so that government may function to represent the general view.
(ii) Rule by majority does not become rule by majority community in terms of religion or race or linguistic groups, etc.
(Hi) Democracy remains democracy so long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority at some point of time. No individual should be debarred from participating in a democracy on the basis of religion, caste, community, creed and other such factors.
Q.26. Examine the role of opposition parties in a Democracy. 5
Ans. Opposition parties play an important role in democracies. They play both positive and negative role.
Positive role, (i) They ensures political party in power does not misuse or abuse its power;
(ii) They expose the weaknesses of the ruling party; (Hi) They also keep a close vigil on the bills and expenditure of the government.
Negative role. (i) They target the government and aim at dislodging and discrediting the government for all the ills and the troubles the people face; (ii) Through stalling the proceedings of the parliament, dhamas and gheravs, it curtails the progress of the country. The opposition’s work is not to abstract the functioning of the administration but keep a close watch on the working of the party in power so that democracy becomes meaningful.

Question.27. “Globalization has been advantageous to consumers as well as to producers.” Support the statement with suitable examples.
Answer. People with education, skill and wealth have benefitted by globalization.
(i) Greater competition among producers (both local and foreign) has been advantageous to consumers, particularly the well-off section. Rich people enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products and enjoy a higher standard of living.
(ii) MNCs have increased their investments in India over the past 20 years in industries such as cellphones, automobiles, electronics, soft drinks, fast food and banking services.
(in) New jobs have been created in all these industries and services.
(iv) Top Indian companies have benefitted from the increased competition. They have invested in newer technology and production methods.
(v) Some Indian companies have gained from successful collaborations with foreign companies. Globalization has enabled some companies to emerge as multinationals.

Question.28. What is credit? Explain with an example, how credit plays a vital and positive role for development.
Answer. Credit means loans. It refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future repayment.
(z) Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s growth and economic development. Credit is in great demand for various kinds of economic activities—big or small investments, to set up business, buying cars, houses, etc.
(zz) In rural areas credit helps in the development of agriculture by providing funds to farmers to buy seeds, fertilizers, expensive pesticides.
(zzz) Manufacturers need credit for buying raw material or to meet ongoing expenditure of production. Credit hfelps in the purchase of plant, machinery, equipment, etc. Thus, cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s growth and economic development.

Question.29. Identify and label the following on the map of India:
(a) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927.
(b) The place which is associated with the movement of India Shanters.
(c) The place associated with the ‘No Tax Campaign’ of 1928.

Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 29.
(1) Name the place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in September, 1920.
(2) Name the place where the movement of Indigo Planters was started.
(3) Name the place associated with the ‘No Tax Campaign’ of 1928.
Answer. (1) Calcutta (2) Champaran (3) Bardoli

Question.30. On the given political outline map of India:
(a) Identify
A. A nuclear power plant
B. An iron and steel plant
(b) Locate and label
(z) Paradip—A major sea port

Answer.

Note: The following questions are for the BLIND CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 30.
(1) In which State is Narora nuclear power plant located?
(2) In which State is Rourkela iron and steel plant located?
(3) Name the State where Kandla sea port is located.
Answer. (1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Orissa (3) Gujarat

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.8. Which certification is maintained for standardization of electrical goods?
Answer. ISI

Question.12. Classify energy resources into two categories. Give two examples of each.
Answer. Energy resources can be classified as conventional and non-conventional sources.
Conventional sources include coal, petroleum, natural gas and electricity (both hydel and thermal). All these sources have been in use for quite some time.
Non-conventional sources of energy are relatively new sources as their large scale generation has started recently. These include solar, wind, tidal, geothermal, biogas and atomic energy.

Question.18. How are MNCs spreading their products? Explain with examples.
Answer. MNCs set up production in various countries based on the following factors:
(i) MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources; eg., in countries like China, Bangladesh and India. These countries also provide with the advantage of cheap manufacturing locations.
(it) At times, MNCs set up production jointly with some of the local companies of countries around the world. Such joint production also provides benefits to the local company.
(iii) MNCs with huge amounts of wealth sometimes buy up local companies to expand production, eg., Cargill Foods, a very large American MNC has bought over smaller Indian companies such as Parakh Foods.
(iv) There is another way in which MNCs control production and that is by placing orders for production with small producers in developing nations; e.g„ garments, footwear, sports items etc. The products are supplied to these MNCs which then sell these under their own brand name to customers. MNCs also enter into close competition with local companies thereby influencing production in distant locations.

Question.20. How is the consumer redressal process becoming cumbersome, expensive and time¬consuming? Explain.
Answer. The consumer redressal process is becoming cumbersome, expensive and time consuming.
(i) Many a times, consumers are required to hire lawyers. These cases require time for filing and attending court proceedings. Also a lot of money and resources have to be spent on the lawyers’ fees, paperwork etc.
(ii) hi most purchases, cash memos are not issued, therefore it is difficult to gather evidence in case a consumer is cheated.
(in) The existing laws are also not very clear on the issue of compensation to consumers injured by defective goods.
(iv) Also, enforcement of laws that protect workers in the unorganized sectors is weak.

Question.22. How did people belonging to different communities, regions or languages develop a sense of collective belonging? Explain with examples.
Answer. History and fiction, folklore and songs, popular prints and symbols—all played an important
role in creating a sense of collective belonging leading to the growth of nationalism.
Image of Bharat Mata:
(i) With the growth of nationalism, the identity of the Indian nation came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata.
(ii) This image was first created and popularized by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. In 1870, he wrote Vande Mataram as a hymn to the motherland. This song was widely sung during the Swadeshi Movement.
(Hi) Moved by the Swadeshi movement, Rabindranath Tagore painted the famous image of Bharat Mata. She was portrayed as an ascetic figure—calm, composed, divine and spiritual.
(iv) Later this image was painted by many other artists which acquired different forms. This image was circulated in popular prints and devotion to this mother figure was seen as a sign of nationalism.
Icons and Symbols (Flag):
(i) During the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, a tricolour flag (red, green and yellow), with eight lotuses (depicting eight provinces of British India), was designed.
(ii) Gandhiji had designed the Swaraj flag by 1921—a tricolour (red, green and white) with a spuming wheel in the centre.
(in’) Carrying the flag during marches became a symbol of defiance and a sense of collective belonging.
Reinterpretation of History:
(i) The glorification of developments in ancient India in the fields of art and architecture, Science and Mathematics, religion ar. 1 culture, law and philosophy, craft and trade
had also helped in the growth of nationalism.
(ii) These nationalist histories encouraged the readers to take pride in India’s great achievements in the past and struggle to change the miserable conditions of life under the British rule.
Indian Folklore:
(i) Idea of nationalism also developed through a movement to revive Indian folklore.
(ii) Folk tales were sung by bards in the villages, to give a true picture of traditional culture, which had been damaged by outside forces.
(iii) In Bengal, Rabindranath Tagore himself began collecting ballads, nursery rhymes and myths to revive folk culture. In Madras, Natesa Sastri published a four volume collection of Tamil folk tales, “The Folklore of Southern India”.

Question.26. “About hundred years ago there were few countries that had hardly any political party. Now there are few countries that do not have political parties.” Examine this statement.
Answer. We can understand the necessity of political parties by imagining a situation without parties. Every candidate in the election will be independent. Therefore, no major policy changes will be made. Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency but no one will be responsible for the smooth running of the country.
As societies become large and complex, they need an agency to gather views on various issues and to present them to the government. There is a need to bring various representatives together so that a responsible government can be formed.
A mechanism is needed to support or restrain the government to make policies, justify or oppose them. Political parties fulfil the needs of a representative government and are thus a necessary condition for a democracy.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II
Question.8. Which one of the following is the certification maintained for standardization of edible goods?
Answer. ISO

Question.14. Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? Mention its different forms.
Answer. The most abundantly available fossil fuel is Coal.
There are four types of coal:
(i) Anthracite. It is the highest quality hard coal. It contains more than 80% carbon content. It gives less smoke.
(ii) Bituminous. It is the most popular coal in commercial use and has 60-80% carbon content. Metallurgical coal is high grade bituminous coal and is of special value for smelting iron in blast furnaces.
(iii) Lignite. It is a low grade brown coal. It is soft with high moisture content.
(iv) Peat. It has a low carbon and high moisture content. It has low heating capacity and gives lot of smoke on burning.

Question.19. How did consumer movement originate as a ‘social force’ in India?
Answer. The consumer movement as a ‘social force’ originated with the necessity of protecting and promoting the interests of consumers against unethical and unfair trade practices of the producers and sellers.
(i) Rampant food shortages, hoarding, black marketing and adulteration of food and edible oil gave birth to the consumer movement in an organized form in the 1960s.
(ii) In the early please, consumer organizations were mainly engaged in writing articles and holding exhibitions. They formed groups to look into malpractices in ration shops and overcrowding in road passenger transport.
(iii) Because of all these efforts, the movement succeeded in putting pressure on business firms and the government to change their unfair ways.
As a result of all this, a major step was taken by the Indian Government in 1986. It enacted the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, which popularly came to be known as COPRA.

Question.22. Explain the impact of Jallianwala Bagh incident on the people.
Answer. (i) Jallianwala Bagh Incident. On 13th April 1919, a crowd of villagers who had come to attend a Baisakhi fair, gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwala Bagh. Being from outside the city, many were not aware of the martial law that had been imposed as a repressive measure.
(ii) Some people had also gathered to protest against the government’s repressive measures.
(iii) General Dyer with his British troops entered the park arid closed tire only exit point without giving any warning to the assembled people and ordered the troops to fire at the crowds, killing hundreds. This brutal act of General Dyer provoked unparalleled indignation.
(w) As the news of Jallianwala Bagh spread, crowds took to the streets in many North Indian towns. There were hartals, clashes and attacks on government buildings.
(u) The government replied with further brutalities. The people of Punjab were made to crawl on the streets and salute to all ‘Sahibs’. Some were put in open cages and flogged.
(vi) Newspapers were banned and their editors were arrested. A reign of terror followed. Intellectuals like Rabindranath Tagore renounced their knighthood.

Question.25. Explain any five major challenges being faced by the Indian democracy.
Answer. (i) Politics through religion. Religious communities on their own can find ways of peaceful existence, but increasing political interference has led to a greater religious intolerance. This intolerance becomes dangerous when politicians interfere with people’s passions. For example, Sectarian tensions mixed with the rivalries of the 2007 elections in Punjab, when activists of various Sikh bodies clashed with the followers of the Sirsa based Dera Sacha Sauda, which had close ties with the Congress Party, over an advertisement the Dera placed in various dailies depicting its chief dressed as Guru Gobind Singh, the 10th Sikh Guru.
(ii) Caste War. Caste wars are not going to disappear from the democratic map of India because politics is moving consistently on narrow sectarian lines. At present, it is difficult to decide if caste is altering politics or politics is shifting caste equations. For example, caste alienation has been deepened by the reservation for Jats and the government needs to rethink about its reservation policy.
(iii) Remove economic inequality. To remove economic inequality the need is delivery of basic social and physical infrastructure. We still have poor infrastructure, Inspector Raj and labour policy that discourages employment. It is the failure of the State which is a major cause of concern. The present growth is in stride with the rapidly changing global environment but for the poor to really benefit, the country needs more functioning schools and health centres. Our concern in India should be to lift poor people into the middle class.
(iv) Gender division. Gender discrimination and women’s political representation are not given adequate attention. In India proportion of women in legislatures has been very low.
(v) Corruption. The Indian democracy has faced with routine cases of corruption. For example, 2G scam, CWG scam, fodder scam, to mention a few. In substantive terms it may be reasonable to expect from democracy a government that is attentive to the needs and demands of the people and is largely free of corruption. But unfortunately the record of Indian democracy is not impressive and clean.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Outside Delhi-2014 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Outside Delhi – 2013

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The Question Taper consists of 31 questions divided into four Sections A, B. C. and D.
3. Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
4.  Use of calculators is not permitted.

SET I

SECTION A
Questions number 1 to 4 carry 1 mark each.
Question.l In Fig. 1, a circle is inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD touching its sides AB, BC, CD and AD at P, Q, R and S respectively. If the radius of the circle is I Q cm, BC = 38 cm, PB = 27 cm and AD ⊥ CD, then calculate the length of CD.

Solution.

Question.2 A ladder 15 m long just reaches the top of a vertical wall. If the ladder makes an angle of 60° with the wall, then calculate the height of the wall.
Solution.

Question.3 A box contains cards numbered 6 to 50. A card is drawn at random from the box. Calculate the probability, that the drawn card has a number which is a perfect square.
Solution.

Question.4 If n is taken as 22/7 calculate the distance (in metres) covered by a wheel of diameter 35 cm, in one revolution.
Solution.

SECTION B
Questions number 5 to 10 carry 2 marks each.
Question.5 Solve the following for x:

Solution.

Question.6 Find the number of all three-digit natural numbers which are divisible by 9.
Solution.

Question.7 In Fig. 2, two circles touch each other at the point C. Prove that the common tangent to the circles at C, bisects the common tangent at P and Q.

Solution.

Question.8 In Fig. 3, a quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle. Prove that AB + CD = AD + BC.

Solution.

Question.9 Two coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability of getting at least one head.
Solution.

Question.10 The length of the minute hand of a clock is 14 cm. Find the area swept by the minute hand in 5 minutes.
Solution.

SECTION C
Questions number 11 to 20 carry 3 marks each.
Question.11 For what values of k, are the roots of the quadratic equation:
(k + 4) x²+ (k + l) x + 1 = 0 equal?
Solution.

Question.12 The 19th term of an AP is equal to three times its 6th term. If its 9th term is 19, find the A.P.
Solution.

Question.13 Draw a pair of tangents to a circle of radius 4 cm, which are inclined to each other at an angle of 60°.
Solution.

Question.14 As observed from the top of a 60m high light-house from the sea-level, the angles of depression of two ships are 30° and 45°. If one ship is exactly behind the other on the same side of the light-house, find the distance between the two ships. [Use √3 = 1.732]
Solution.

Question.15 Prove that the points A(2, 3), B(-2, 2), C(-l, -2) and D(3, -1) are the vertices of a square ABCD
Solution.

Question.16 Find the ratio in which point P(-l, y) lying on the line segment joining points A(-3,10) and B(6, -8) divides it. Also find the value of y.
Solution.

Question.17 In Fig. 4, a square OABC is inscribed in a quadrant OPBQ of a circle. If OA = 21 cm, find the area of the shaded region. [Use π = 22/7 ]

Solution.

Question.18 A toy is in the form of a cone mounted on a hemisphere of same radius 7 cm. If the total
height of the toy is 31 cm, find its total surface area. [Use π = 22/7 ]
Solution.

Question.19 A solid cone of base radius 10 cm is cut into two parts through the mid-point of its height, by; a plane parallel to its base. Find the ratio in the volumes of the two parts of the cone.
Solution.

Question.20 A solid metallic sphere of diameter 8 cm is melted and drawn into a cylindrical wire of uniform width. If the length of the wire is 12 m, find its width.
Solution.

SECTION D
Questions number 21 to 31 carry 4 marks each.
Question.21 Solve for x:

Solution.

Question.22 A box contains cards numbered 3, 5, 7, 9,…,35, 37. A card is drawn at random from the
box. Find the probability that the number on the drawn card is a prime number.
Solution.

Question.23 The sum of first n terms of an A.P. is 5n² + 3n. If its m^th term is 168, find the value of m. Also find the 20^th term of this A.P.
Solution.

Question.24 Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Solution.

Question.25 In Fig. 5, the sides AB, BC and CA of triangle ABC touch a circle with centre O’and radius r at P, Q and R respectively.
Prove that:
(i) AB + CQ = AC + BQ
(ii) Area (ΔABC) = 1/2 (Perimeter of ΔABC ) x r

Solution.

Question.26 The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of a tower is 30°. The angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 60°. If the tower is 60 m high, find the height of the building.
Solution.

Question.27 If the points A(l, -2), B(2,3), C(-3,2) and D(-4, -3) are the vertices of parallelogram ABCD, then taking AB as the base, find the height of this parallelogram.
Solution.

Question.28 Water running in a cylindrical pipe of inner diameter 7 cm, is collected in a container at the rate of 192.5 litres per minute. Find the rate of flow of water in the pipe in km/h. [Use π = 22/7 ]
Solution.

Question.29 While boarding an aeroplane, a passenger got hurt. The pilot, showing promptness and concern, made arrangements to hospitalise the injured and so the plane started late by 30 minutes. To reach the destination, 1500 km away, in time, the pilot increased the speed by 100 km/hour. Find the original speed/hour of the plane.
Do you appreciate the values shown by the pilot, namely, promptness in providing help to the injured and his efforts to reach in time?
Solution.

Question.30 A container, open at the top and made up of metal sheet is in the form of a frustum of a cone of height 16 cm with diameters of its lower and upper ends as 16 cm and 40 cm respectively. Find the cost of metal sheet used to make the container, if it costs Rs 10 per 100 cm2. [Take π = 3.14]
Solution.

Question.31 Find the probability that a leap year selected at random, will contain 53 Mondays.
Solution.

SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.1 Calculate the common difference of the A.P.

Solution.

Question.10 Three coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability of getting exactly two heads.
Solution.

Question.17 For what value of k, are the roots of the quadratic equation (k – 12)x² + 2(k – 12)x + 2 = 0 equal?
Solution.

Question.18 The 8th term of an A.P. is equal to three times its third term. If its 6th term is 22, find the A.P.
Solution.

Question.19 Draw a pair of tangents to a circle of radius 4.5 cm, which are inclined to each other at an angle of 45°.
Solution.

Question.20 Prove that the points A(2, -1), B(3, 4), C(-2, 3) and D(-3, -2) are the vertices of a rhombus ABCD. Is ABCD a square?
Solution.

Question.28 Solve for x:

Solution.

Question.29 For the triangle ABC formed by the points A(4, -6), B(3, -2) and C(5, 2), verify that median divides the triangle into two triangles of equal area.
Solution.

Question.30 The sum of first m terms of an AP is 4m² – m. If its n^th term is 107, find the value of n. Also find the 21^th term of this A.P.
Solution.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II.
Question.1 Calculate the common difference of the A.P

Solution.

Question.10 Two dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting a doublet.
Solution.

Question.17 For what value of k, are the roots of the quadratic equation x² + k² = 2 (k + l)y equal?
Solution.

Question.18 The 9^th term of an A.P. is equal to 6 times its second term. If its 5^th term is 22, find the A.P.
Solution.

Question.19 Draw two tangents to a circle of radius 3.5 cm, from a point P at a distance of 6.2 cm from its centre.
Solution.

Question.20 Find that value of k for which point (0, 2), is equidistant from two points (3, k) and (k, 5).
Solution.

Question.28. Solve for x:

Solution.

Question.29 The sum of first q terms of an A.P. is 63q – 3q². If its p^th term is -60, find the value of p. Also find the 11th term of this A.P.
Solution.

Question.30 Find the area of a parallelogram ABCD if three of its vertices are A(2, 4), B(2 + √3,5) and C(2, 6).
Solution.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Outside Delhi – 2013 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Outside Delhi 2015

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The Question Taper consists of 31 questions divided into four Sections A, B. C. and D.
3. Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
4.  Use of calculators is not permitted.

SET I

SECTION A
Questions number 1 to 4 carry 1 mark each
Question.1. If the quadratic equation px²– 2-√5 px + 15 = 0 has two equal roots, then find the value of p.
Answer.

Question.2. In Figure 1, a tower AB is 20 m high and BC, its shadow on the ground, is 20-√3 m long. Find the Sun’s altitude.

Answer.

Question.3. Two different dices are tossed together. Find the probability that the product of the two numbers on the top of the dice is 6.
Answer.

Question.4. In Figure 2, PQ is a chord of a circle with centre O and PT is a tangent. If ∠QPT = 60°, find ∠PRQ.

Answer.

SECTION B
Questions number 5 to 10 carry 2 marks each.
Question.5. In Figure 3, two tangents RQ and RP are drawn from an external point R to the circle with centre O. If ∠PRQ = 120°, then prove that OR = PR + RQ.

Answer.

Question.6. In Figure 4, a triangle ABC is drawn to circumscribe a circle of radius 3 cm, such that the segments BD and DC are respectively of lengths 6 cm and 9 cm. If the area of ∆ABC is 54 cm², then find the lengths of sides AB and AC.

Answer.

Question.7. Solve the following quadratic equation for x:

Answer.

Question.8. In an AP, if S₅+ S₇ = 167 and S₁₀ = 235, then find the AP, where Sn denotes the sum of its first n terms.
Answer.

Question.9. The points A(4, 7), B(p, 3) and C(7, 3) are the vertices of a right triangle, right-angled at B. Find the value of p.
Answer.

Question.10. Find the relation between x and y if the points A(x, y), B(-5, 7) and C(-4, 5) are collinear.
Answer.

SECTION C
Questions number 11 to 20 carry 3 marks each.
Question.11. The 14th term of an AP is twice its 8th term. If its 6th term is -8, then find the sum of its first 20 terms.
Answer.

Question.12. Solve for x:

Answer.

Question.13. The angle of elevation of an aeroplane from a point A on the ground is 60°. After a flight of 15 seconds, the angle of elevation changes to 30°. If the aeroplane is flying at a constant height of 1500 √3 m, find the speed of the plane in km/hr.
Answer.

Question.14. If the coordinates of points A and B are (-2, -2) and (2, -4) respectively, find the coordinates of P such that AP = 3/5 AB, where P lies on the line segment AB.
Answer.

Question.15. The probability of selecting a red ball at random from a jar that contains only red, blue and orange balls is 1/4. The probability of selecting a blue ball at random from the same jar is 1/3 . If the jar contains 10 orange balls, find the total number of balls in the jar.
Answer.

Question.16. Find the area of the minor segment of a circle of radius 14 cm, when its central angle is 60°. Also find the area of the corresponding major segment. [Use π = 22/7 ]
Answer.

Question.17. Due to sudden floods, some welfare associations jointly requested the government to get 100 tents fixed immediately and offered to contribute 50% of the cost. If the lower part of each tent is of the form of a cylinder of diameter 4.2 m and height 4 m with the conical upper part of same diameter but of height 2.8 m, and the canvas to be used costs Rs 100 per sq. m, find the amount, the associations will have to pay. [Use π = 22/7 ] What values are shown by these associations?
Answer.


Values: Helping the flood victims and showing concern for humanity.

Question.18. A hemispherical bowl of internal diameter 36 cm contains liquid. This liquid is filled into 72 cylindrical bottles of diameter 6 cm. Find the height of the each bottle, if 10% liquid is wasted in this transfer.
Answer.

Question.19. A cubical block of side 10 cm is surmounted by a hemisphere. What is the largest diameter that the hemisphere can have? Find the cost of painting the total surface area of the solid so formed, at the rate of Rs 5 per 100 sq. cm. [Use π= 3.14]
Answer.

Question.20. 504 cones, each of diameter 3.5 cm and height 3 cm, are melted and recast into a metallic sphere. Find the diameter of the sphere and hence find its surface area. [Use π = 22/7 ]
Answer.

SECTION D
Questions number 21 to 31 carry 4 marks each.
Question.21. The diagonal of a rectangular field is 16 metres more than the shorter side. If the longer side is 14 metres more than the shorter side, then find the lengths of the sides of the field.
Answer.

Question.22. Find the 60th term of the AP 8,10,12,…, if it has a total of 60 terms and hence find the sum of its last 10 terms.
Answer.

Question.23. A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 54 km and then travels a . distance of 63 km at an average speed of 6 km/h more than the first speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete the total journey, what is its first speed?
Answer.

Question.24. Prove that the lengths of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Answer. See Q. 27,2012 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.25. Prove that the tangent drawn at the mid-point of an arc of a circle is parallel to the chord joining the end points of the arc.
Answer.

Question.26. Construct a ∆ABC in which AB = 6 cm, ∠A = 30° and ∠B = 60°. Construct another ∆AB’C’ similar to ∆ABC with base AB’ = 8 cm.
Answer.

Question.27. At a point A, 20 metres above the level of water in a lake, the angle of elevation of a cloud is 30°. The angle of depression of the reflection of the cloud in the lake, at A is 60°. Find the distance of the cloud from A.
Answer.

Question.28. A card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled deck of playing cards. Find the probability that the card drawn is
(i) a card of spade or an ace. (ii) a black king.
(iii) neither a jack nor a king. (iv) either a king or a queen.
Answer.

Question.29. Find the values of k so. that the area of the triangle with vertices (1, -1), (-4, 2k) and (-k, -5) is 24 sq. units.
Answer.

Question.30. In Figure 5, PQRS is a square lawn with side PQ = 42 metres. Two circular flower beds are there on the sides PS and QR with centre at O, the intersection of its diagonals. Find the total area of the two flower beds (shaded parts).

Answer.

Question.31. From each end of a solid metal cylinder, metal was scooped out in hemispherical form of same diameter. The height of the cylinder is 10 cm and its base is of radius 4.2 cm. The rest of the cylinder is melted and converted into a cylindrical wire of 1.4 cm thickness. Find the length of the wire. [Use π = 22/7 ]
Answer.

SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.10. If A(4, 3), B(-l, y) and C(3, 4) are the vertices of a right triangle ABC, right-angled at A, then find the value of y.
Answer.

Question.18. All the vertices of a rhombus lie on a circle. Find the area of the rhombus, if the area of the circle is 1256 cm2. [Use π= 3.14]
Answer.

Question.19. Solve for x:

Answer.

Question.20. The 16th term of an AP is five times its third term. If its 10th term is 41, then find the sum of its first fifteen terms.
Answer.

Question.28. A bus travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 75 km and then travels a distance of 90 km at an average speed of 10 km/h more than the first speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete the total journey, find its first speed.
Answer.

Question.29. Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the I point of contact.
Answer. See Q. 27, 2012 (I Delhi).

Question.30. Construct a right triangle ABC with AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm and ∠B = 90°. Draw BD, the perpendicular from B on AC. Draw the circle through B, C and D and construct the tangents from A to this circle.
Answer. See Q. 13, 2014 (I Delhi).

Question.31. Find the values of k so that the area of the triangle with vertices (k + 1, 1), (4, -3) and (7, -k) is 6 sq. units.
Answer.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-l.
Question.10. Solve the following quadratic equation for x:

Answer.

Question.18. The 13^th term of an AP is four times its 3^rd term. If its fifth term is 16, then find the sum of its first ten terms.
Answer.

Question.19. Find the coordinates of a point P on the line segment joining A(1, 2) and B(6, 7) such that AP=2/5 AB.
Answer.

Question.20. A bag contains, white, black and red balls only. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. If the probability of getting a white ball is 3/10 and that of a black ball is 2/5, then find the probability of getting a red ball. If the bag contains 20 black balls, then find the total number of balls in the bag.
Answer.

Question.28. A truck covers a distance of 150 km at a certain average speed and then covers another 200 km at an average speed which is 20 km per hour more than the first speed. If the truck covers the total distance in 5 hours, find the first speed of the truck.
Answer.

Question.29. An Arithmetic Progressions, 12,19,… has 50 terms. Find its last term. Hence find the sum of its last 15 terms.
Answer.

Question.30. Construct a triangle ABC in which AB = 5 cm, BC = 6 cm and ∠ABC = 60°. Now construct another triangle whose sides are 5/7 times the corresponding sides of ∆ABC.
Answer. See Q. 18, 2011 (I Delhi).

Question.31. Find the values of k for which the points A(k + 1, 2k), B(3k, 2k + 3) and C(5k – 1, 5k) are collinear.
Answer.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Outside Delhi 2015 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Delhi-2015

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                             Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

• The Question Paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are
• Marks are indicated against each question.
• Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are Very Short Answer questions. Each question carries one mark.
• Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 mark Answers of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
• Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks Answers of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
• Question number 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 mark each from History and Geography both. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.

SET I

Question.1. What was the major change that occurred in the political and constitutional scenario due to the French Revolution in Europe? 
Answer. It led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens. The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
Or
How was the maritime silk route useful for Vietnam?
Answer. Vietnam was linked to maritime silk route which brought in goods, people and ideas.

Question.2. Which rock consists of a single mineral only?
Answer. Limestone consists of a single mineral only.

Question.3. Who dissolved the popularly elected parliament in February 2005 in Nepal?
Answer. King Gyanendra, the new king dismissed the Prime Minister and dissolved the popularly elected Parliament.

Question.4. What was the main role of ‘FEDECOR’ organisation in Bolivia?
Answer. The main role of FEDECOR involved claims over an elected government to protest against its policy of water privatization.

Question.5. If all the decisions of a political party are made by a single family and all other members are neglected, then what challenge is being faced by that party?
Answer. Challenge of deepening of democracy.

Question.6. What is the meaning of ‘barter system’?
Answer. Barter system refers to the system of exchange of goods and services. It is the system by which one commodity is exchanged for another without the use of money. Before money was introduced, people practised barter system.
Example: A farmer could buy a dhoti from a weaver or a pair of shoes from a cobbler m exchange of grains he produced.

Question.7. Why had the Indian Government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment after independence? State any one reason.
Answer. The Indian government after independence had put barriers to foreign trade and investment.

1. This was done to protect the producers within the country from foreign competition.
2. To protect the Indian economy from foreign infiltration in industries affecting the
   economic growth of the country as planned. (any one)

Question.8. Which logo would you like to see for purchasing electrical goods?
Answer. ISI

Question.9. Describe the events of French Revolution which had influenced the people belonging to other parts of Europe.
Answer.
— The first clear-cut expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789. In 1789, France was under the rule of an absolute monarch.
— When the revolutionaries came to power in France, they were determined to create a new sense of unity and nationhood. For this, they emphasized the concept of France being the father land (La Patrie) for all French people, who were from now on addressed as citizens (citoyen). They were given the tri-colour flag, the three colours representing liberty, equality and fraternity.
French revolutionaries introduced various other measures such as:

1. The Estate General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly.
2.  New hymns were composed, oaths taken and martyrs commemorated all in the name of the nation.
3. A centralised administrative system was put in place and it formulated uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.
4. Internal customs, duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.
5. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.
6.  They further declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the people of Europe from despotism and help them to become nations.

Or
Describe the major protest which erupted in Saigon Native Girls School in 1926, in Vietnam.
Answer. There was a protest in Saigon Girls School on the issue of racial discrimination. The protest erupted when a Vietnamese girl sitting in the front row was asked to move back to allow a local French student to occupy the front seat. The girl refused and was expelled along with other students who protested. The government was forced to take the expelled students back in the school to avoid further open protests.

Question.10. Why did Mahatma Gandhiji decide to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act? Explain any three reasons.
Answer. The Rowlatt Act was passed despite the united opposition of the Indian members of Imperial Legislative Council.

1. The Act gave the government enormous powers to oppress political agitations.
2. It had allowed the detention of political prisoners without trial for two years. There was no provision for appeal.

The passing of this Act aroused large-scale indignation.
Gandhiji’s Reaction. Gandhiji, who had formed a Satyagraha Sabha earlier, called for a country-wide protest against the proposed Rowlatt Act. Throughout the country, 6th April, 1919 was observed as a National Humiliation Day. Gandhiji wanted a non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust laws. Hartals and rallies were organised in various cities. Workers went on strike in railway workshops. Shops closed down. The movement was non-violent but proved to be effective.

Question.11. “The Congress was reluctant to include the demands of industrial workers in its programme of struggle.” Analyse the reasons. 
Answer. Some workers did participate in the civil disobedience movement, selectively adopting some of the ideas of the Gandhian programme, like boycott of foreign goods as a part of their own movements against low wages and poor working conditions.
There were strikes by railway workers in 1930 and dock workers in 1932. Thousands of workers in Chotanagpur tin mines wore Gandhi caps and participated in protest rallies and boycott campaigns. The Congress was reluctant to include the demands of workers as part of its programme of struggle. It felt that this would alienate industrialists and divide the anti-imperial forces.

Question.12. How is the mining activity injurious to the health of the miners and environment? Explain.
Answer. The dust and noxious fumes inhaled by miners make them vulnerable to pulmonary diseases. The risk of collapsing mine roofs, inundation and fires in coal mines are a constant threat to miners.
The water sources in the region get contaminated due to mining.
Dumping of waste leads to degradation of land, soil and increase in stream and river pollution. Stricter safety7 regulations and implementation of environmental laws are essential to prevent mining from becoming a ‘killer industry’.

Question.13. Explain with examples, how do industries give boost to the agriculture sector?
Answer. Agriculture and industry in India are inseparable or interdependent on each other. See Q. 24, 2012 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.14. In the present day energy crisis what steps will you like to take for saving energy?
Answer. We, as concerned citizens can help conserve energy in the following ways:

1. Using more of public transport system instead of individual vehicles.
2. Switching off electrical devices when not in use.
3. Using power saving devices.
4. Using non-conventional sources of energy such as solar energy, wind energy etc.
5. Getting the power equipment regularly checked to detect damages and leakages.

Question.15. “The struggle of the Nepali people is a source of inspiration to democrats all over the world.” Support the statement.
Answer.

1. The Nepalese movement for democracy arose with the specific objective of reversing the king’s order that led to suspension of democracy.
2. The movement of 2006 was aimed at regaining popular control over the government from the king. .
3.  The popular struggle in Nepal involved many organisations other than political parties like the SPA or the Nepalese Communist Party.
4.  All major political parties in the Parliament formed a Seven Party Alliance (SPA) and called a four day strike in Kathmandu. This strike turned into an indefinite strike in which the Maoists and other insurgent groups joined hands.
5.  All the major labour unions and their federations joined the movement. Many other organisations of the indigenous people, teachers, lawyers and human rights groups extended support to the movement.
6. The movement put forward three demands:
   — Restoration of Parliament
   — Power to an all-party government — A new Constituent Assembly.
7. The number of protesters reached between three to five lakhs. They stuck to their demands and the king was forced to concede to all three demands. On 24th April, the SPA chose Girija Prasad Koirala as the new Prime Minister of the interim government.

Question.16. What is a multi-party system? Why has India adopted a multi-party system? Explain.
Answer. Multi-party system. In this system, the government is formed by various parties coming together in a coalition. When several parties in a multi-party system join hands for the purpose of contesting elections and winning power, it is called an alliance or a front.
For example, in India there were three major alliances in 2004 parliamentary elections—the National Democratic Alliance (NDA), the United Progressive Alliance (UPA) and the Left Front. This system on one hand leads to political instability but at the same time, allows for a variety of interests and opinions to enjoy political representation.
Each country develops a party system that is suitable for its special circumstances. India has evolved as a multi-party system because its social and geographical diversity cannot be absorbed by two or three parties. Thus, such representation strengthens democracy. Multi-party system facilitates representation of regional and geographical diversities. In India, several regional parties are in power at the State level such as the DMK in Tamil Nadu, the BSP in Uttar Pradesh.

Question.17. “Lack of internal democracy within parties is the major challenge to political parties all over the world”. Analyse the statement.
Answer.

1. Most political parties do not practice open and transparent procedures for their functioning like maintaining membership registers, holding organisational meetings or conducting internal elections regularly. Thus, ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on the happenings in the party and have no means to influence the decisions.
2. Also, there are very few chances for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party. Since one or, at the most, a few leaders exercise paramount power in the party, those who disagree with the leadership, find it difficult to continue in the party.
3.  Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position to take undue advantage and favour people close to them or even their family members. And, in many parties, the top positions are invariably controlled by members of one family which is bad for democracy.

Question.18. Describe the conditions in which markets do not work in a fair manner.
Answer. Markets do not work in fair manner when:

•  producers are few and powerful;
• consumers are numerous and purchase in small amounts and are scattered;
• large companies producing these goods having huge wealth; power and reach ; manipulate the market in various ways; and
• consumers are misinformed through the media and are unaware of their rights.

Question.19. In recent years how our markets have been transformed? Explain with examples.
Answer. See Q. 19, 2014 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.20. Why is it necessary for the banks and cooperative societies to increase their lending facilities in rural areas? Explain.
Answer. Banks and Cooperatives can help people in obtaining cheap and affordable loans. This will help people to grow crops, do business, set up small-scale industries or trade in goods and also help indirectly in the country’s development. They should do so, so that relatively poor people do not have to depend on informal sources of credit (money-lenders).

Question.21. Describe the process of unification of Germany.
Answer. See Q. 11,2013 (II Delhi).
Or
Describe the major problems in the field of education for the French in Vietnam.
Answer.

1.  The French needed an educated local labour force, but they feared that once the Vietnamese got educated, they may begin to question colonial domination.
2. French citizens living in Vietnam (called ‘colons’) feared that they might lose their jobs as teachers, shopkeepers, policemen to the educated Vietnamese. So they opposed the policy of giving the Vietnamese full access to French education.
3. Another problem faced by the French was that the elites in Vietnam were still powerfully influenced by Chinese culture. So the French carefully and systematically dismantled the traditional Vietnamese education system and established French schools for the Vietnamese.
4. In the battle against French colonial education, schools became an important place for political and cultural battles. Students fought against the colonial government’s efforts to prevent the Vietnamese from qualifying for white-collared jobs.
5. There was a protest in Saigon Girls School on the issue of racial discrimination. The protest erupted when a Vietnamese girl sitting in the front row was asked to move back to allow a local French student to occupy the front seat. The girl refused and was expelled along with other students who protested. The government Was forced to take the expelled students back in the school to avoid further open protests.
   Thus, the battle against French colonial education became part of the larger battle against colonialism and for independence.

Question.22. “Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part of the same nation.” Support the statement.
Answer. See Q. 22, 2014 (II Outside Delhi).

Question.23. Why is conservation of mineral resources essential? Explain any three methods to conserve them.
Answer. See Q. 24, 2013 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.24. Analyse the physiographic and economic factors that have influenced the distribution pattern of the railway network in our country.
Answer. Factors that affect the distribution pattern of railway network in India:

1. Physiographic factors. The Northern plains with vast level land, high population density and rich agricultural resources provide most favourable conditions for railway network. The nature of terrain and the number of rivers running through the
   (i) region determine the density of railway network in that region. Mountains, marshy,
   (ii) sandy and forested areas have sparse network whereas plain areas have dense network of the railways. It was difficult to lay railway lines on the sandy plains of Western Rajasthan, swamps of Gujarat and forested tracks of Madhya Pradesh.
2.  Economic factors. Regions which have rich resources and are economically more developed have denser network of railways in comparison to the regions with low economic development.
3. Administrative factors. The administrative and political decisions also affect the distribution of railway network in a region.

Question.25. Describe any five major functions of political parties.
Answer. To fill political offices and exercise political power, political parties perform a series of functions, which are the following:

1. Parties contest elections. Elections are fought mainly among candidates put up by political parties. In some countries like the USA, members and supporters of a party choose its candidates. In India, top party leaders choose candidates for contesting elections.
2. Parties put forward different policies and programmes. Political parties in a democracy,, group together similar opinions to provide a direction in which government policies can be formulated.
3. Parties make laws for a country. Laws are debated and passed in the legislature.
   Since most of the members belong to a party, they go by the party leadership than personal opinions.
4.  Parties that lose elections play the role of the opposition. Opposition parties voice *
   their views by criticising government for its failure or wrong policies.
5. Parties shape public opinion. They raise and highlight issues and resolve people’s problems. Many pressure groups are the extensions of political parties.

Question.26. How do pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics? Explain with examples.
Answer. Interest groups and movements do not directly engage in party politics but they seek to exert influence on political parties. They have a political position on major issues and take political stance without being a party.
Pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics in the following ways:

1. They try to gain public support and sympathy for their goals through, campaigns, organising meetings, filing petitions and influencing the media for attention.
2. They organise protest activities like strikes, in order to force the government to take note of their demand.
3. Business groups employ professionals/lobbyists or sponsor expensive advertisements.
   Some members from pressure groups participate in official bodies that offer advice to the government.
4. In some cases the pressure groups are either formed or led by the leaders of political parties or act as extended arms of political parties.
   For example, most trade unions and students’ organisations such as NSUI, ABVP in India are either established or affiliated to one or the other major political party.
5.  Sometimes political parties grow out of movements.

For example, the roots of parties like the DMK and the AIADMK in Tamil Nadu can be traced to a long drawn social reform movement during the 1930s and 1940s.

Question.27. How are multinational corporations (MNCs) controlling and spreading their production across the world? Explain. 
Answer. MNCs set up production in various countries based on the following factors:

1. MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap ; labour and other resources; e.g., in countries like China, Bangladesh and India. These
   countries also provide with the advantage of cheap manufacturing locations.
2. At times, MNCs set up production jointly with some of the local companies of countries around the world. The benefit of such joint production to the local company is two-fold. First, the MNCs can provide money for additional investments for faster production. Secondly, the MNCs bring with them the latest technology for enhancing and improving production.
3. Some MNCs are soo big that their wealth exceeds the entire budgets of some developing countries. This is the reason why they buy up local companies to expand production.
4. There is another way in which MNCs control production and that is by placing orders for production with small producers in developing nations; e.g., garments, footwear, sports items etc. The products are supplied to these MNCs which then sell these under their own brand name to customers.
5. MNCs also enter into close competition with local companies thereby influencing production in distant locations.

Question.28. How do the large companies manipulate the market? Explain with examples.
Answer. See Q. 28, 2011 (II Delhi).

Question.29. Three features A, B and C are marked in the political outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked on the map:
(A) The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in 1920.
(B) The city where the Jallianwala Bagh incident occurred.
(C) The place where the peasants struggled against the indigo plantation system.

Answer.

Note: The following questions are for the VISUALLY IMPAIRED CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 29.
(29.1) Name the place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in September 1920.
(29.2) In which city Jallianwala Bagh incident occurred?
(29.3) Where the peasants struggled against the indigo plantation system?
Answer. (a) Nagpur (b) Amritsar (c) Champaran

Question.30. (30.1) On the given political outline map of India, two features A and B are marked.
Identify these features with the help of the following information:
A. Iron-ore mines B. Terminal station of North-South Corridor
(30.2) On the same map locate and label the following:
(i) Gandhinagar—Software Technology Park

Answer.

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Question No. 30.
(30.1) In which State are Kudremukh iron-ore mines located?
(30.2) Name the eastern terminal station of East-West Corridor.
(30.3) In which State is Gandhinagar Software Technology Park located?
Answer. (1) Karnataka (2) Silchar (3) Gujarat

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-1.
Question.2. Why is the ‘least cost’ known as decision making factor for ideal location of an industry?
Answer. Industrial locations are influenced by availability of raw material, labour, capital, power and market, etc. It is a rare possibility of finding all these factors at one place. The manufacturing sector tends to locate an appropriate place where all factors of industrial location are either available or can be arranged at lowest cost.
The ‘least cost’ is a decision making factor for ideal location of an industry.

Question.3. What is meant by a ‘political party’?
Answer. Political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and to hold power in the government. They agree on some policies to promote collective good. They seek to implement those policies by winning popular support through elections. Thus political parties tend to fill political offices and exercise political power.

Question.4. Which logo would you like to see for purchasing electrical goods?
Answer. ISI.

Question.6. What is the meaning of ‘investment’?
Answer. Investment is buying of an asset in the form of a factory, a machine, land and building, etc. (physical assets) or shares (monetary assets) for the purpose of making or sharing profits of the enterprises concerned.
Common investments are buying land, factories, machines for faster production, buying small local companies to expand production, cheap labour, skilled engineers, IT personnel, etc.

Question.10. Why did the Non-Cooperation Movement gradually slow down in the cities? Explain.
Answer. Non-cooperation movement gradually slowed down in the cities for a variety of reasons:

1. Khadi cloth was often more expensive than mass produced mill cloth and poor people could not afford to buy it.
2. Boycott of British institutions posed a problem for the movement to be successful. Alternative Indian institutions had to be set up so that they could be used in place of the British ones.
3.  The institutions were slow to come up. So teachers and students began trickling back to the government schools and even lawyers joined back work in government courts.

Question.15. “Democracy is more effective than its other alternatives.” Justify the statement.
Answer. Difference between Democracy and Dictatorship. See Q. 25, 2012 (II Outside Delhi).

Question.21. Describe the process of Unification of Italy.
Answer. See Q. 11, 2013 (I Delhi).
Or
Describe the ‘Rat Hunt’ activity introduced by the French in Vietnam.
Answer.

1.  The modem city of Hanoi got infested with rats in 1902 and was struck by bubonic plague. The large sewers in the modem part of the city served as breeding grounds for rats.
2.  To get rid of the rats, a ‘Rat Hunt’ was started. The French hired Vietnamese workers and paid them for each rat they caught. Rats began to be caught in thousands. This incident taught the Vietnamese the first lesson of collective bargaining. Those who did the dirty work^of entering sewers found that if they came together they could negotiate a higher bounty.
3. They also discovered innovative ways to profit from the situation. The bounty was paid when a tail was given as a proof that a rat had been killed. So the rat catchers began clipping the tails and releasing the rats, so that the process could be repeated over and over again.
4. Defeated by the resistance of the Vietnamese, the French were forced to scrap the bounty programme. Bubonic plague swept through the area in 1903 and in subsequent years. In a way, the rat menace marks the limits of French power and contradiction in their civilizing mission. This incident is also an example of the numerous small ways in which colonialism was fought by Vietnamese in everyday life.

Question.23. WhygjLs energy needed? How can we conserve energy resources? Explain.
Answer. Energy is required for all activities. It is needed to cook, to provide light and heat, to : propel vehicles and to drive machinery in industries.

1. Energy is the basic requirement for economic development.
2. Every sector of national economy—agriculture, industry, transport and commerce needs greater inputs of energy.
3.  In the domestic sector also, energy demands, in the form of electricity, are growing because of increasing use of electrical gadgets and appliances.

We have to adopt a cautious  approach for the judicious use of our limited energy resources. So conservation of energy should be done at all levels. Increased use of renewable energy resources, e.g., solar energy, hydel power, etc.
Energy resources can be conserved in the following ivays:

1.  Using more of public transport system instead of individual vehicles.
2. Switching off electricity when not in use.
3. Using power saying devices.
4. Using non-conventional sources of energy such as solar energy, wind energy etc.
5. Getting the power equipment regularly checked to detect damages and leakages.

Question.27. How are deposits with the banks beneficial for an individual as well as for the nation? Explain with examples.
Answer.

1. Banks help people to save their money and keep their money in safe custody of the bank. Banks also help people to earn interest on their deposits.
2. People can withdraw the money deposited with the bank at the time of their need. As the money can be withdrawn on demand, these are called demand deposits.
3. Banks also grant loans to people for a variety of purposes. In times of need, individuals, business houses and industries can borrow money from the banks.
4.  Banks use the major portion of the deposits to extend loans. Banks make use of the deposits to meet the loan requirements of the people. In this way, banks mediate between those who have surplus funds (the depositors) and those who are in need of these funds (the borrowers).
5. Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than what they offer on deposits. The difference is the main income of the bank.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I
and Set-II.
Question.2. What is the major objective to develop Super Highways?
Answer. Super Highways are 6-lane roads built by National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) under the Road Development Project launched by the government. The major objective of these loads is to reduce time and distance between the mega cities of India, especially the Golden Quadrilateral, which links Mumbai-Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai.

Question.3. Name any two regional parties of West Bengal.
Answer.

1.  Forward BLOC (1940),
2.  TRINAMOOL CONGRESS (1997).

Question.6. On which day is ‘National Consumer’s Day’ celebrated every year in India?
Answer. 24th December, as on this day the Consumer Protection Act (COPRA) was enabled in 1986.

Question.7. Which logo would you like to see for purchasing electrical goods?
Answer. ISI

Question.10. Why did Mahatma Gandhiji decide to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922? Explain the reasons.
Answer. In February 1922, Gandhiji decided to launch a no tax movement. The police opened fire at the people who were taking part in a demonstration, without any provocation. The people turned violent in their anger and attacked the police station and set fire to it. The incident took place at Chauri Chaura in Uttar Pradesh. When the news reached Gandhiji, he decided to call off the Non-cooperation movement as he felt that it was turning violent and that the satyagrahis were not properly trained for mass struggle.

Question.13. “Textile industry occupies a unique position in Indian economy “. Support the statement with appropriate arguments.
Answer. The Textile industry occupies a unique position in the Indian Economy because:

1. It contributes significantly to industrial production (14%).
2. It employs largest number of people after agriculture, i.e., 35 million persons directly.
3. Its share in the foreign exchange earnings is significant at about 24.6%.
4. It contributes 4% towards GDP.
5. It is the only industry in the country which is self-reliant and complete in the value chain, i.e., from raw material to the highest value added products.

Question.15. How are the challenges to democracy linked to the possibility of political reforms? Explain.
Answer. Broad guidelines for political reforms:

1. As legal-constitutional changes by themselves cannot overcome challenges to democracy, democratic reforms need to be carried out mainly by political activists, parties, movements and politically conscious citizens.
2. Any legal change must carefully look at what results it will have on politics. Generally, laws, that seek a ban on something are rather counter-productive; For example, many States have debarred people who have more than two children from contesting Panchayat elections. This has resulted in denial of democratic opportunity to many poor women, which was not intended.
   The best laws are those which empower people to carry out democratic reforms; For example, the Right to Information Act which acts as a watchdog of democracy by controlling corruption.
3. Democratic reforms are to be brought about principally through political parties. The most important concern should be to increase and improve the quality of political participation by ordinary citizens.
4. Any proposal for political reforms should think not only about what is a good solution, but also about who will implement it and how. Measures that rely on democratic movements, citizens’ organizations and media are likely to succeed.

Question.21. Describe the process of Unification of Britain.
Answer. Nationalism in Britain was different from the rest of Europe.

1. Nationalism in Britain was not the result of a sudden uprising or revolution. It was the result of a long drawn out process.
2. There was no British nation prior to 18th century. The inhabitants of British Isles were ethnic ones—English, Welsh, Scot or Irish. Though each had their own culture and political traditions, the English nation steadily grew in wealth, importance and power and expanded its influence over other nations, such as Scotland.
3. The British Parliament was dominated by its English members. They tried to suppress Scotland’s distinct culture and political institutions. They could neither speak their language nor could they wear their national dress. A large number of them were driven out of their homeland.
4. In 1688, through a bloodless revolution the English Parliament seized power from the monarchy and became the instrument to set up a nation-state at its centre.
5. By the Act of Union in 1707, Scotland was incorporated in the United Kingdom. Though the Irish Catholics were against a union with England, Ireland was forcibly incorporated in United Kingdom in 1801.
6.  Thus it was parliamentary action and not revolution or war that was the instrument through which the British nation was formed.
7. A new ‘British Nation’ was formed through propagation of English culture. The symbols of the New Britain—”the British Flag (Union Jack), National Anthem (God save our noble King) and the English language” were promoted, and the older nations became the subordinate partners in the Union.

Or
Describe the ‘Scholar’s Revolt’ of 1868 against the spread of Christianity in Vietnam.
Answer.

1.  Scholars’ Revolt, 1868. It was an early movement against French control and spread of Christianity. .
2. It was led by officials at the imperial court angered by the spread of Catholicism and French power.
3.  There was an uprising in Ngu An and Ha Tien provinces where the Catholic missionaries had been active in converting people to Christianity since the early 17th century. ‘
4. By the middle of the 18th century, nearly 3,00,000 people had got converted. This had angered the people of these provinces and led to the uprising.
5. Though this uprising was crushed by the French, it had inspired the people of other regions to rise against the French colonialism.

Question.23. Explain any five factors affecting the location of an industry.
Answer. Factors affecting the location of an industry:

1. Raw material. Cheap and abundant availability of raw material. Industries which use heavy and perishable raw material have to be located close to the source of raw material.
2.  Labour. Availability of cheap labour is necessary for keeping the cost of production low.
3. Power. Cheap and continuous supply of power is extremely necessary for continuity in the production process.
4.  Capital. It is necessary for developing infrastructure, for the entire manufacturing process and for meeting manufacturing expenditure.
5. Banking and insurance facilities, favourable government policies are other factors also affect the location of an industry.
   The ‘key’ to the decision of a factory location is least cost so that the venture is profitable.

Question.27. What are Self Help Groups? How do they work? Explain.
Answer. The basic idea/objective of SHGs is to organize rural poor, particularly women belonging to one neighbourhood into small Self Help Groups (15-20 members). These members save regularly and the amount varies from rupees 25-100 or more depending on their ability to save.
The members can take loan from the group itself to meet their requirements. The group charges interest on these loans which is less than the interest charged by money-lenders. After a year or two, with regular savings, the group is eligible for availing loans from the bank. The loan is sanctioned in the name of the group to create self-employment opportunities. All important decisions regarding loan, purpose, amount of interest, non-payment of loan are taken by the group members. For example, small loans are provided to members to release mortgaged land, for buying seeds, fertilizers, etc. Since any instance of non-repayment of loans is dealt with seriously by group members, therefore banks are willing to lend to women belonging to SHGs even though they have no collateral as such.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Delhi-2015 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Outside Delhi-2015

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                             Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

• The Question Paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are
• Marks are indicated against each question.
• Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are Very Short Answer questions. Each question carries one mark.
• Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 mark Answers of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
• Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks Answers of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
• Question number 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 mark each from History and Geography both. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.

SET I

Question.1. What was the main aim of the French revolutionaries?
Answer. The main aim of the French revolutionaries was to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. They proclaimed that it was the people who would constitute the nation and shape its decisions.
Or
What is the meaning of concentration camps?
Answer. Concentration camps are prisons where people are detained and tortured without due process of law.

Question.2. How do minerals occur in sedimentary rocks?
Answer. In sedimentary rocks a numbers of minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation and concentration in horizontal strata.
For example, coal, iron ore.

Question.3. What was the main aim of the popular movement of April 2006, in Nepal?
Answer. Aim of popular movement of April 2006 in Nepal:

1. Restoring democracy.
2. Regaining popular control over the government from the King.

Question.4. How can you say that democracies are based on political equality?
Answer. Democracies are based on political equality as individuals have equal weight in electing representatives.

Question.5. Why do political parties involve partisanship?
Answer. Partisanship is marked by a tendency to take a side and inability to take a balanced view, on an issue. Parties reflect fundamental political divisions in a society. Parties are a part of the society and they involve partisanship.

Question.6. What is meant by double coincidence of wants?
Answer. Double coincidence of wants means when both parties have agreed to sell and buy each other’s commodities.

Question.7. Suppose your parents want to purchase Gold jewellery along with you; then which logo will you look for on the jewellery?
Answer. Hallmark, is the logo to look for while purchasing Gold jewellery.

Question.8. How does money act as a medium of exchange?
Answer. Money acts as a medium of exchange as it acts as an intermediate in the exchange process and transactions. A person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity or services that he or she might want.

Question.9. How did nationalism develop through culture in Europe? Explain.
Answer. Culture, music, dance and religion played an important role in the growth of nationalism.

1. Culture. Role of culture was important in creating the idea of the nation. Art, poetry, music etc. helped in developing and expressing nationalist feelings. Romanticism was a cultural movement that led to the development of nationalist sentiment. Romantic artists and poets criticized the glorification of reason and science and instead focussed on emotions and intuition.
2. Language. Language too played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. After Russian occupation, the Polish language was forced out of schools and Russian language was imposed everywhere. In 1831, an armed rebellion against Russian rule took place which was ultimately crushed. Following this, many members of the clergy in Poland began to use language as a weapon of national resistance.
3. Music and Dance. Romantics such as the German philosopher Herder claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people—das volk. It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation was popularised.

Or
How did Paul Bernard argue in favour of economic development of Vietnam? Explain.
Answer. Paul Bernard was an influential writer and policy-maker who strongly believed that the
purpose of acquiring colonies was to make profits.

1. According to him, the development of economy will raise the standard of people and people would buy more goods. The market would consequently expand, leading to better profit for French business.
2. According to Bernard, there were several barriers to economic growth in Vietnam, such as large population, low agricultural productivity and extensive indebtedness amongst the peasants.
3. To reduce the poverty and increase agricultural productivity, it was necessary to carry out land reforms.
4. Industrialisation was also essential for creating more jobs as agriculture was not likely to ensure sufficient employment opportunities.

Question.10. Describe the main features of ‘Poona Pact’.
Answer. The Poona Pact:

1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, who organised the dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930 demanded separate electorates for dalits in the Second Round Table Conference organised in London.
2.  When British accepted this demand in the name of Communal Award, Gandhiji started a fast into death. He believed that separate electorates for dalits would slow down the process of their integration into the society.
3. Ambedkar and Gandhi came to an agreement with Ambedkar accepting Gandhis position and the result was the Poona Pact of September, 1932.
   — It gave the depressed classes (later to be known as Schedule castes) reserved seats in provincial and central legislative councils.
   — But, they were to be voted in by the general electorate.

Question.11. How did ‘Salt March’ become an effective tool of resistance against colonalism? Explain.
Answer. Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation.

1. On 31st January, 1930 he sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands, one of which was the demand to abolish Salt Tax.
2. Salt was one of the most essential food items consumed by the rich and poor alike and a tax on it was considered an oppression on the people by the British Government,
3.  Mahatma Gandhi’s letter was an ultimatum and if his demands were not fulfilled by March 11, he had threatened to launch a civil disobedience campaign.
4. So, Mahatma Gandhi started his famous Salt March accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers. The march was over 240 miles, from Gandhiji’s ashram in Sabarmati to the Gujarati coastal town of Dandi.
5. On 6th April, he reached Dandi, and ceremonially violated the law, manufacturing salt by boiling sea water. This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question.12. Explain the importance of railways as the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India.
Answer.

1. Railways are the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India, as they link different parts of the country.
2.  They carry huge loads and bulky goods to long distances.
3. Railways make it possible to conduct multiple activities like business, tourism, pilgrimage along with goods transportation over longer distances.
4. Railways have been a great integrating force for the nation, for more than 150 years now,
5. They have been helpful in binding the economic life of the country and also promoted cultural fusion.
6.  They have accelerated the development of the industry and agriculture.

Question.13. Why the ‘Chhotanagpur Plateau Region’ has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries? Analyse the reasons.
Answer. Chhotanagpur Plateau has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries because of the relative advantages this region has for the development of this industry like:

1.  Low cost of iron ore which is mined here.
2. High grade raw materials in close proximity.
3. Availability of cheap labour.
4. Vast growth potential in the home market.
5. Availability of power because this region has many thermal and hydel power plants.
6. Liberalisation and FDI have also given boost to the industry with efforts of private enterpreneurs.

Question.14. How can solar energy solve the energy problem to some extent in India? Give your opinion.
Answer. Reasons:

1. India is a tropical country and gets abundant sunshine.
2.  It has enormous possibilities of tapping solar energy.
3. It is an inexhaustible source of energy which is freely available in nature.
4.  It is a cheaper source of energy and is fast becoming popular in rural and remote areas.
5.  Photovaltic technology is available which converts sunlight directly into electricity.
6. Because of its abundant and free availability in all parts of India in addition to its eco friendly nature, solar energy is called the energy of future.

Also use of solar energy will minimise the dependence of rural households on firewood. It will contribute to environmental conservation and reduce pressure on conventional sources of energy.

Question.15. “Dynastic succession is one of the most serious challenges before the political parties.” Analyse the statement.
Answer. Most political parties do not practise open and transparent procedures for their functioning. So there are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party. Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position of unfair advantage as they favour people close to them or even their family members.
In many parties in India, we see a trend of dynastic succession. The top positions are always controlled by members of a particular family, which is unfair to other members of the party, and bad for democracy. This is so because people who do not have adequate experience or popular support come to occupy positions of power.
More than loyalty to party principles and policies, personal loyalty to the leader becomes more important. This tendency is seen all over the world, even in older democracies.

Question.16. How is democracy accountable and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens? Analyse.
Answer. A democracy is concerned with ensuring that people have the right to choose their rulers and have control over the rulers.
— Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making in a democracy.
— Democracy ensures that decision-making is based on norms and procedures. A citizen has the right anti the means to examine the process of decision-making. Thus democracy entails transparency.
— For a democracy to produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate government, it must ensure the following:

1. Regular, free and fair elections.
2. Open public debate on major policies and legislations. .
3. Citizens’ right to be informed about government policies.
4.  A government free from corruption.

Question.17. “A challenge is an opportunity for progress.” Support the statement with your arguments.
Answer. A challenge is not just any problem. Only those difficulties are a ‘challenge’ which are significant and can be overcome and therefore carry within them an opportunity for progress. Democracy is the dominant form of government in the contemporary world. It does not face a particular challenger, but the promise of democracy is far from realised anywhere in the world. Democracy as a whole faces certain challenges.
Legal constitutional changes by themselves cannot help to overcome challenges to democracy—like economic inequality, unemployment, illiteracy, caste, gender discrimination. Democratic reforms can be carried out by political activities, parties, movements and politically conscious citizens, in order to realise the opportunity in a challenge, in order to overcome it an go up to a higher level.

Question.18. Why is modern currency accepted as a medium of exchange without any use of its own? Find out the reason.
Answer. Modem forms of money currency in India include paper notes and coins which are known as Rupees and Paise.

1. It is accepted as a medium of exchange because the currency is authorised by the Government of India.
2. In India, the Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government. As per Indian law, no other individual or organisation is allowed to issue currency.
3.  The law legalises the use of the rupee as a medium of payment that cannot be refused in settling transactions in India.
4. No individual in India can legally refuse a payment made in rupees.
   Therefore, the rupee is widely accepted as a medium of exchange.

Question.19. “Foreign trade integrates the markets in different countries.” Support the statement with arguments.
Answer. See Q. 18, .2012 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.20. Explain with an example how you can use the right to seek redressal.
Answer. See Q. 20, 2013 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.21. Describe any five steps taken by the French Revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity among the French people.
Answer. See Q. 21, 2012 (1 Outside Delhi).
Or
Describe any five steps taken by the French for the development of the ‘Mekong Delta Region’.
Answer. Steps taken by the French for the development of the ‘Mekong Delta Region’:

1. Colonies were considered essential to supply natural resources and other essential goods. Like other western nations, France also thought that it was the mission of the advanced’ European countries to bring benefits of civilization to backward people.
2. The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based on rice cultivation and rubber
   plantations owned by the French and a small Vietnamese elite. The French built canals and drained lands in the Mekong Delta to increase rice cultivation. A vast system of irrigation was built which led to great expansion in rice production and gradually Vietnam became the third largest exporter of rice in the world.
3. Rail and port facilities were set up to support and service this sector.
4.  Indentured Vietnamese labour was widely used in the rubber plantations, French did little to industrialise the economy.
5. in the rural areas landlordism spread and standard of living declined.

Question.22. Explain the attitude of the Indian merchants and the industrialists towards the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’.
Answer. Role of merchants and the industrialists in the Civil Disobedience Movement:

1. Merchants reacted against colonial policies that restricted business activities.
2. They wanted protection against import of foreign goods and wanted a rupee-sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports.
3. Industrialsits formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920.
4.  They formed the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries ‘ (FJCCl) in 1927.
5.  Thev refused to sell or buy imported goods. They gave financial assistance and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement.
6.  Industrialists like G.D. Birla and Pursnottamdas Thakurdas attacked colonial control over the Indian economy.

Question.23. What is the manufacturing sector? Why is it considered the backbone of development? Interpret the reason.
Answer. Production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more valuable products is called manufacturing.
Manufacturing belongs to the secondary’ sector in which the primary’ materials are processed and converted into finished goods. The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.
Importance of manufacturing industries for development in India:

1. It helps in modernising agriculture, which is the base of our economy.
2.  It reduces heavy dependence on agricultural income by providing jobs in non- agricultural sectors.
3.  Industrial development is necessary for eradication of poverty and unemployment because people get jobs and generate more income.
4.  Export of manufactured goods expands trade and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
5. Industries bring riches faster to a nation because manufacturing changes raw materials into finished goods of a higher value, so industrial development brings prosperity to the country.

Question.24. Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India? Assess the importance of its different forms. 
Answer. Coal is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India.
Four types of coal and their characteristics:
(a) Anthracite. 1. It is the highest quality hard coal; 2. It contains more than 80% carbon content. It gives less smoke.
(b) Bituminous. 1. It is the most popular coal in commercial use and has 60-80% carbon content; 2. Metallurgical coal is high grade bituminous coal and is of special value for smelting iron in blast furnaces.
(c) Lignite. 1. IHs a low grade brown coal; 2. It is soft with high moisture content. The main lignite reserve is Neyveli in Tamil Nadu.
(d) Peat. 1. It has a low carbon and high moisture content; 2. It has low heating capacity and gives lot of smoke on burning.

Question.25. What is meant by a political party? Describe the three components of a political party.
Answer. Political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and to hold power in the government. They agree on some policies to promote collective good. They seek to implement those policies by winning popular support through elections. Thus political parties tend to fill political offices and exercise political power.
Answer. Components of a political party are: (1) The leaders, (2) active members and (3) the followers.

1. The leaders are recruited and trained by parties. They are made ministers to run the government. The big policy decisions are taken by the political executives that come from the political parties.
2.  Parties have lakhs of members and activists spread over the country. Many of the pressure groups are the extensions of political parties among different sections of society. But since most of the members belong to a party, they go by the direction of the party leadership, irrespective of their personal opinion.
3. The followers are the ordinary citizens, who believe in the policies of their respective party and give popular support through elections. Often the opinions of the followers crystallise on the lines parties take.

Question.26. Suggest any five effective measures to reform political parties.
Answer. See Q. 26, 2011 (I Delhi).

Question.27. How do banks play an important role in the economy of India? Explain.
Answer.

1. Banks help people to save their money and keep their money in safe custody. To ensure safety of their money, people deposit their money with banks. Banks accept deposits and pay interest on deposits. People have the provision to withdraw their money as and when they require.
2. Banks also grant loans to people for a variety of purposes. In times of need individuals, business houses and industries can borrow money from the banks.
3. Credit provided by banks is crucial for the country’s growth and economic
   development. Credit is needed for all kinds of economic activities, to set up business, buy cars, houses, etc.
4. Banks also help people in obtaining cheap and affordable loans. This can help people to grow crops, do business, set up small-scale industries or trade in goods and also help indirectly in the country’s development. They should do so, so that relatively poor people do not have to depend on informal sources of credit (money-lenders).

Question.28. “Globalisation and greater competition among producers has been advantageous consumers.” Support the statement with examples.
Answer.

1.  Greater competition among producers (both local and foreign) has been advantageous to consumers, particularly the well-off section. Rich people enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products and enjoy a higher standard of living.
2. MNCs have increased their investments in India over the past 20 years in industries such as cell phones, automobiles, electronics, soft drinks, fast food and services such as banking thereby providing consumers with a vast variety of products.
3. New jobs have been created in all these industries and services, thereby increasing purchasing power of individuals.
4. Top Indian companies have benefitted from the increased competition. They have invested in newer technology and production methods indirectly benefitting the consumers.
5.  Consumers today, enjoy much higher standards of living than was possible earlier.

Question.29. Three features A, B and C are marked on the given political outline map of India.
Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their
correct names on the lines marked in the map:
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
B. The place associated with the Peasant’s Satyagraha.
C. The place related to calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Answer.

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Question No. 29.
(29.1) Name the place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in Dec., 1920.
(29.2) Name the place associated with the movement of Indigo Planters.
(29.3) Name the place related to the Satyagraha of peasants in Gujarat.
Answer. (29.1) Nagpur (29.2) Champaran (29.3) Kheda

Question.30 (30.1) Two features A and B are marked on the given political outline map of India.
Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:
A. Iron-orb mines B. Terminal Station of East-West Corridor
(30.2) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label the following:
(i) Vishakhapatnam—Software Technology Park

Answer.

Note: Tite foil Giving questions are for the VISUALLY IMPAIRED CANDIDATES only, in lieu of Question No. 30.
(30.1) In which state are Bailadila Iron-ore mines located?
(30.2) Name the Western Terminal Station of East-West Corridor.
(30.3) Name the well known Software Technology Park located in Karnataka State.
Answer. (30.1) Chhattisgarh (30.2) Porbandar (30.3) Bangalore or Mysore

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-1.
Question.2. Why has the ‘National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council’ been set up?
Answer. The trend of growth rate in the manufacturing sector over the last decade has been around 7% per annum. The desired growth rate over the next decade is 12%. The NMCC has been set up to improve productivity with government policy intervention and efforts by Industry.

Question.3. What is the guiding philosophy of Bhartiya Janata Party?
Answer. The source of inspiration of Bharatiya Janata Party is the ancient Indian culture and values. Cultural nationalism (Hindutva) is an important element in its conception of Indian nationhood and politics.

Question.6. What is meant by trade barrier?
Answer. Barriers or restrictions that are imposed by the government on free import and export activities are called trade barriers. Tax on imports is an example of a trade barrier because it increases the price of imported commodities. The government can use a trade barrier like ‘tax’ to increase or decrease (regulate) foreign trade and to decide what kind of goods and how much of what should come into the country.

Question.10. Describe the spread of Non-Cooperation Movement in the countryside.
Answer. The Non-cooperation movement spread to the countryside also.
It drew into the struggles of peasants and tribals from different parts of India.

1. In Awadh, the peasants’ movement ied by Baba Ramchandra was against talukdars and landlords who demanded extremely high rents and a variety of other cesses from the peasants. Peasants were forced to work in landlords’ farms without any payment (begar). Peasants had no security of tenure, thus being regularly evicted so that they could acquire no right over the leased land. The demands of the peasants were— reduction of revenue, abolition of begar and social boycott of oppressive landlords.
2. In the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh a militant guerrilla movement spread in the early 1920s against the closure of forest areas by the colonial government, preventing people from entering the forests to graze their cattle, or to collect fuelwood and fruits. They felt that their traditional rights were being denied.
3. For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed. It meant retaining a link with the village from which they had come.

Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were not permitted to leave tea gardens without permission. In fact the permission was hardly granted. When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities and left for their homes.

Question.12. Describe any three features of waterways in India,
Answer.

1. Waterways are the cheapest means of transport.
2.  Waterways are a fuel efficient and environment friendly mode of transport.
3. They are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
4.  India’s trade with foreign countries if carried from the ports located along the coast, and more than 95% of the’country’s trade volume is moved by the sea.

Question.15. How do money and muscle power play an important role in elections?
Answer. See Q. 26, 2011 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.22. Explain any five major problems posed by the First World War in India.
Answer. The outbreak of the First World War had created a new economic and political situation in India:

1. Tire increased defence expenditure was financed by war loans and by raising tax rates, custom duties, etc. There was tremendous price rise during the war years. Between 1913 and 1918, the prices had almost doubled. People, particularly common people, were lacing extreme hardships.
2. Forced recruitment in the army caused widespread anger in the villages. .
3. The failure of crops in many parts of India had created food shortages, leading to the added misery of the people.
4. In addition to this, there was the outbreak of the great influenza epidemic. Millions of people perished due to influenza and starvation.
5. The nationalist movement grew stronger during the war years. A large number of Muslims were drawn into the anti-British struggle during the war. The defence of the ‘Caliphate’ (Khilafat) became an important question for Muslims. Peasant movements during war period also had helped the nationalist movement to grow stronger.

Question.23. Why was the cotton textile industry concentrated in the cotton growing belt in the early years? Explain.
Answer. In the early years, the cotton growing belt was primarily concentrated in Maharashtra and Gujarat.

1. Availability of raw cotton was abundant and cheap here because these are the traditional cotton growing states.
2. Moist climate in these coastal states also helped in the development of cotton textile industry because humid conditions are required for weaving the cloth, else the yam breaks.
3. Well developed transportation system and accessible port facilities in Maharashtra and Gujarat led to their concentration there.
4. Proximity to the market was yet another factor as cotton clothes were ideal and comfortable to wear in these warm and humid states.
5. Cheap labour was also abundantly available.

Question.26. “The democracy has been evolved through struggles and movements all over the world.” Support the statement with examples.
Answer.

1. Democracy has evolved through struggles and movements all over the world. The struggles in Poland, Nepal and Bolivia all relate to establishing and restoring democracy. The struggled in these countries is a reminder that popular struggles are integral to the working of democracy.
2. The role of popular struggle does not come to an end with the establishment of democracy. Democracy involves conflict of interests and viewpoints. These views are expressed in organised ways through which ordinary citizens can play a role in democracy.
3. In a democracy, several different kinds of organisations work behind any big struggle. These organisations influence the decisions in a democracy either by creating parties, contesting elections and forming government. They promote the interest and viewpoints of citizens in a democracy through interest groups or pressure groups.
4. Democracy evolves through popular struggle. Some major decisions may take place through consensus. But some decisions involve conflict between the groups who have exercised power and those who aspire to share power. Here the popular struggle helps in the expansion of democracy.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II.
Question.2. Why was the Haldia sea-port set up?
Answer. Haldia sea-port was set up as a subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on the Kolkata port.

Question.3. What is meant by ‘transparency’?
Answer. In a democracy, every citizen has the right and means to examine the process of decision making. This is known as transparency.

Question.6. Why was the Consumer Protection Act enacted by the Indian Parliament?
Answer. The Consumer Protection Act was enacted by the Indian parliament in 1986 to protect the consumers from unfair trade practices and retain interest of consumers.

Question.10. Describe any three major problems faced by the peasants of Awadh in the days of Non-Cooperation Movement.
Answer. The movement of Awadh peasants was led by:

1. The peasants’ movement Baba Ramchandra was against talukdars and landlords who demanded extremely high rents and a variety of other cesses from the peasants.
2. Peasants were forced to work in landlords’ farms without any payment (begar). Peasants had no security of tenure, thus being regularly evicted so that they could acquire no right over the leased land.
3. The demands of the peasants were: reduction of revenue, abolition of begar and social boycott of oppressive landlords.

Question.12. Describe the significance of tourism as a trade in India.
Answer.

1. With increase in the number of foreign tourists visiting India, we earned foreign exchange worth ?21,828 crore in 2004 which is further increasing year by year making tourism an important trade.
2. Over 2.6 million foreign tourists visit India every year for appreciating our heritage, our culture, for medical purposes or for business purposes, etc.
3. Over 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry.
4. Tourism promotes national integration, provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits.
5. Tourism also helps in the development of international understanding about our culture and heritage.
6.  Rajasthan, Goa, Jammu & Kashmir and temple towns of south India are the most popular tourist destinations. These states earn huge sums of money from tourism trade.

Question.15. “There is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world.” Support the statement.
Answer. Over a hundred countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic politics.
— They have formal constitutions, hold elections, have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens. Thus, in most countries, the democracy produces a government that is accountable to the citizens and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.
— No society7 can fully and permanently resolve conflict among different groups. But we can learn to respect these differences and evolve mechanisms to negotiate them. Democracy is best suited as it develops a procedure to conduct competitions. Belgium is a successful example of negotiating difference among ethnic population.
— Passion for respect and freedom is the basis of democracy and has been achieved in various degrees in various democracies.
— The support for democracy is overwhelming all over the world and is evident from South Asia, where the support exists in countries with democratic as well as undemocratic regimes.
— People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them, as a democratic government is people’s own government and makes them believe that it is suitable for their country as it is a legitimate government.

Question.22. How did the ‘Non-Cooperation Movement’ spread in cities across the country? Explain its effects on the economic front.
Answer. In the cities, the Non-Cooperation Movement started with middle class participation.

1. Thousands of students left government-controlled schools and colleges. Headmasters and teachers resigned and. lawyers gave up their legal practices.
2.  The Council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras.
3. Foreign goods and foreign cloth was boycotted. Traders and merchants also refused to trade in foreign goods.

The economic sphere was affected by the Non-Cooperation Movement.

1. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops were picketed and foreign doth was burnt. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921-1922. Its value dropped from Rs 102 crores to Rs 57 erores.
2. Many merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. (Hi) People began discarding imported clothes and wearing Indian ones.
3. The production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up. Use of khadi was popularised.

Question.23. Explain the pro-active approach adopted by the National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) for preserving the natural environment and resources.
Answer. NTPC is taking the following measures in places where it is setting up power plants to preserve natural environment and resources:

1. Optimum utilisation of equipment by adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment.
2. Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilisation.
3.  Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance. .
4. Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond management, ash water recycling system and liquid waste management.
5. Ecological monitoring,, reviews and online data base management for all its power stations.

Question.26. Why do we feel that democracy is a better form of government than any other form? Explain.
Answer. Democracy is a better form of government than any other form because:

1. It is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation. Thus the necessary delay in implementation.
2. Decisions are acceptable to people and are more effective.
3. A citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. There is transparency in a democracy.
4.  Democratic government is a legitimate government, people’s own government.
5. Ability to handle differences, decisions and conflicts is a positive point of democratic regimes.
6. Democracy has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Outside Delhi-2015 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Delhi – 2014

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The Question Taper consists of 31 questions divided into four Sections A, B. C. and D.
3. Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
4.  Use of calculators is not permitted.

SET I

SECTION A
Questions number 1 to 4 carry 1 mark each.
Question.1 In Fig. 1, PQ and PR are two tangents to a circle with centre O. If ∠QPR = 46°, then calculate ∠QOR.

Solution.

Question. 2 If two different dice are rolled together, calculate the probability of getting an even number on both dice.
Solution.

Question.3 If the points A(x, 2), B(-3, -4) and C(7, -5) are collinear, then find the value of x.
Solution.

Question.4 Find the number of solid spheres, each of diameter 6 cm that can be made by melting a solid metal cylinder of height 45 cm and diameter 4 cm.
Solution.

SECTION B
Questions number 5 to 10 carry 2 marks each.
Question.5 Solve the quadratic equation 2x²+ ax – a² = 0 for x.
Solution.

Question.6 The first and the last terms of an AP are 5 and 45 respectively. If the sum of all its terms is 400, find its common difference.
Solution.

Question.7 Prove that the line segment joining the points of contact of two parallel tangents of a circle, passes through its centre.
Solution.

Question.8 If from an external point P of a circle with centre O, two tangents PQ and PR are drawn such that ∠QPR = 120°, prove that 2PQ = PO.
Solution.

Question.9 Rahim tosses two different coins simultaneously. Find the probability of getting at least one tail.
Solution.

Question.10 In Fig. 2, a square OABC is inscribed in a quadrant OPBQ of a cirlce. If OA = 20 cm, find the area of the shaded region. (Use π = 3.14)

Solution.

SECTION C
Questions number 11 to 20 carry 3 marks each.
Question.11 Solve the equation

Solution.

Question.12 If the seventh term of an AP is 1/2 and its ninth term is 1/7 find its 63^rd term.
Solution.

Question.13 Draw a right triangle ABC in which AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm and ∠B = 90°. Draw BD perpendicular from B on AC and draw a circle passing through the points B, C and D. Construct tangents from A to this circle.
Solution.

Question.14 If the point A(0, 2) is equidistant from the points B(3, p) and C(p, 5), find p. Also find the length of AB.
Solution.

Question.15 Two ships are there in the sea on either side of a light house in such a way that the ships and the light house are in the same straight line. The angles of depression of two ships as observed from the top of the light house are 60° and 45°. If the height of the light house is 200 m, find the distance between the two ships. [Use √3 =1.73]
Solution.

Question.16 If the points A(-2,1), B(a, b) and C(4, -1) are collinear and a – b = 1, find the values of a and b.
Solution.

Question.17 In Fig. 3, a circle is inscribed in an equilateral triangle ABC of side 12 cm. Find the radius of inscribed circle and the area of the shaded region. [Use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73]

Solution.

Question.18 In Fig. 4, PSR, RTQ and PAQ are three semicircles of diameters 10 cm, 3 cm and 7 cm respectively. Find the perimeter of the shaded region. [Use π = 3.14]

Solution.

Question.19 A farmer connects a pipe of internal diameter 20 cm from a canal into a cylindrical tank which is 10 m in diameter and 2 m deep. If the water flows through the pipe at the rate of 4 km per hour, in how much time will the tank be filled completely?
Solution.

Question.20 A solid metallic right circular cone 20 cm high and whose vertical angle is 60°, is cut into two parts at the middle of its height by a plane parallel to its base. If the frustum so obtained be drawn into a wire of diameter 1/2 cm, find the length of the wire.
Solution.

SECTION D
Questions number 21 to 31 carry 4 marks each.
Question.21 The difference of two natural numbers is 5 and the difference of their reciprocals is1/10 Find the numbers.
Solution.

Question.22 Prove that the length of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
Solution.

Question.23 The angles of elevation and depression of the top and the bottom of a tower from the top of a building, 60 m high, are 30° and 60° respectively. Find the difference between the heights of the building and the tower and the distance between them.
Solution.

Question.24 A bag contains cards numbered from 1 to 49. A card is drawn from the bag at random, after mixing the cards thoroughly. Find the probability that the number on the drawn card is:
(i) an odd number
(ii) a multiple of 5
(iii)a perfect square
(iv) an even prime number
Solution.

Question.25 Find the ratio in which the point P(x, 2) divides the line segment joining the points A(12, 5) and B(4, -3). Also find the value of x.
Solution.

Question.26 Find the values of k for which the quadratic equation (k + 4)x² + (k + l)x + 1 = 0 has equal roots. Also find these roots.
Solution.

Question.27 In an AP of 50 terms, the sum of first 10 terms is 210 and the sum of its last 15 terms is 2565. Find the AP.
Solution.

Question.28 Prove that a parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.
Solution.

Question.29 Sushant has a vessel, of the form of an inverted cone, open at the top, of height 11 cm and radius of top as 2.5 cm and is full of water. Metallic spherical balls each of diameter 0.5 cm
are put in the vessel due to which 2/5th of the water in the vessel flows out. Find how many balls were put in the vessel. Sushant made the arrangement so that the water that flows out irrigates the flower beds.
What value has been shown by Sushant?
Solution.

Question.30 From a solid cylinder of height 2.8 cm and diameter 4.2 cm, a conical cavity of the same height and same diameter is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the remaining
solid. [Take π= 22/7]
Solution.

Question.31 A peacock is sitting on the top of a pillar, which is 9 m high. From a point 27 m away from the bottom of the pillar, a snake is xoming to its hole at the base of the pillar. Seeing the snake the peacock pounces on it. If their speeds are equal, at what distance from the hole is the snake caught?
Solution.

SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I.
Question.10 The first and last terms of an AP are 7 and 49 respectively. If sum of all its terms is 420, find its common difference.
Solution.

Question.18 Solve the equation

Solution.

Question.19 Points A(-l, y) and B(5, 7) lie on a circle with centre 0(2, -3y). Find the values of y. Hence find the radius of the circle.
Solution.

Question.20 If the points P(-3,9), Q(a, b) and R(4, -5) are collinear and a + b – 1, find the values of a and b.
Solution.

Question.27 The difference of two natural numbers is 3 and the difference of their reciprocals is
Find the numbers.
Solution.

Question.28 Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
Solution.

Question.29. All the black face cards are removed from a pack of 52 playing cards. The remaining cards are well shuffled and then a card is drawn at random. Find the probability of getting a:
(i) face card
(ii) red card
(iii) black card
(iv) king
Solution.

Question.30 Find the values of k for which the quadratic equation (3k + l)x + 2(k + l)x + 1 = 0 has equal roots. Also find the roots.
Solution.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set I and Set II.
Question.10 The first and the last terms of an AP are 8 and 65 respectively. If the sum of all its terms is 730, find its common difference.
Solution.

Question.18 If the points A(-l, -4), B(b, c) and C(5, -1) are collinear and 2b + c = 4, find the values of b and c.
Solution.

Question.19 If the point P(2, 2) is equidistant from the points A(-2, k) and B(-2k, -3), find k. Also find the length of AP.
Solution.

Question.20 Solve the equation

Solution.

Question.27 Find the value of p for which the quadratic equation (2p + l) x²– (7p + 2) x + (7p – 3) = 0 has equal roots. Also find these roots.
Solution.

Question.28 Cards numbered from 11 to 60 are kept in a box. If a card is drawn at random from the box, find the probability that the number on the drawn card is :
(i) an odd number
(ii) a perfect square number
(iii) divisible by 5
(iv) a prime number less than 20
Solution.

Question.29 Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
Solution.

Question.30 The difference of two natural numbers is 5 and the difference of their reciprocals is 5/14. Find the numbers.
Solution.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Delhi – 2014 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Delhi-2016

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                             Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

• The Question Paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are
• Marks are indicated against each question.
• Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are Very Short Answer questions. Each question carries one mark.
• Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 mark Answers of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
• Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks Answers of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
• Question number 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 mark each from History and Geography both. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.

SET I

Question.1. Name the Treaty of 1832 that recognised Greece as an independent nation.
Answer. Treaty of 1832: Constantinople
Or
What was the result of the peace negotiation in Geneva that followed the French defeat in Vietnam?
Answer. In the peace negotiation in Geneva that followed the French defeat, the Vietnamese were persuaded to accept the division of the country. North and South were split. Ho Chi Minh and the communists took power in North. Bao Dai’s regime was put in power in South.

Question.2. Why are there a wide range of colours, hardness, crystal forms, lustre and density found in minerals? 
Answer. A mineral that will be formed from a certain combination of elements depends upon the physical and chemical conditions under which the mineral forms. It is because of these physical and chemical conditions that minerals possess a wide range of colours, crystal forms, lustre and density.

Question.3. How are issue specific movements different from generic movements?
Answer. Issue specific movements seek to achieve a single objective within limited time frame.
General generic movements seek to achieve a broad goal in the very long term.

Question.4. Name any one political party that has national level political organisation but not recognised as a national political party.
Answer. State parties like the Samajwadi Party, Samata Party and Rashtriya Janata Dal have national level political organisations with units in several states but are not recognised as . national parties.

Question.5. Which organisation led the protest against water privatisation in Bolivia?
Answer. The protest against water privatisation in Bolivia was led by FEDECOR.

Question.6. Differentiate between investment and foreign investment.
Answer. The money that is spent to buy assets (land, building, machines and other equipments) is called investment, while the investment made by the MNCs is called foreign investment.

Question.7. Suppose you have to buy a packed bottle for drinking water in your journey. Which logo will you like to see to be sure about its quality?
Answer. Indian Standard Instrument (ISI) issued by Ministry of Agriculture.

Question.8. How do the deposits with banks become their source of income?
Answer. Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans they extend than what they offer on deposits.
The difference of interest is the main source of income of banks.

Question.9. How had the female figures become an allegory of the nation during nineteenth century in Europe? Analyse.
Answer. Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries portrayed nations as female figures. The female form, that was chosen to personify the nation, did not stand for any particular woman in real life. Rather it sought to give the abstract idea of the nation in concrete form. That is, the female figure became the allegory of the nation.
In France, she was named Marianne—a popular Christian name and in Germany, Germania. Germania wears a crown of oak leaves as the German oak stands for heroism. The characteristics of Marianne were drawn from those of Liberty and Republic —the red cap, the tricolour and cockade.
Or
How did nationalism emerge in Vietnam through the efforts of different sections of society to fight against the French? Analyse.
Answer. Nationalism in Vietnam emerged through the efforts of different sections of the society:

1. The colonisation of Vietnam by the French brought the people of the country into conflict with the colonisers in all areas of life. Nationalist resistance developed when the French troops landed in Vietnam.
2.  Schools became an important place for cultural and political battles. Students played a major role by travelling outside Vietnam to Japan to acquire modem education. Their main aim was to seek foreign help to overthrow the puppet emperor and re¬establish the Nguyen dynasty. By 1920s, students were forming various political parties such as Party of Young Annan and publishing journals such as Annanese Student to promote patriotic feelings.
3. Teachers and students did not accept the French curriculum in schools. Teachers spread nationalism by modifying texts and criticising what was stated in the textbooks.
4. During the nationalist movement, a new image of womanhood emerged. Political thinkers and writers began idealising women rebels of the past. Many women joined the resistance movement. They helped in nursing the wounded, constructing underground rooms and tunnels and even shot down 15 enemy fighter-planes.
5. Religious scholars opposed the presence and spread of Christianity by French Christian missionaries.

Question.10. Who had designed the ‘swaraj flag’ by 1921? Explain the main features of this ‘swaraj flag’.
Answer. Mahatma Gandhi designed the ‘Swaraj Flag’ by 1921.
Main features of the ‘Swaraj Flag’:

1. It had tricolours — Red, Green and White.
2. It had a spinning wheel in the centre.
3. It represents the Gandhian idea of self-help.
4. Carrying the flag during marches had become a symbol of defiance and a sense of collective belonging.

Question.11. “The Civil Disobedience Movement was different from the Non-Cooperation Movement”. Support the statement with examples.
Answer. The Civil Disobedience Movement was different from the Non-Cooperation Movement in the following ways:
Non-Cooperation Movement:

1. The people were asked not to cooperate with the government.
2. Foreign goods and foreign cloth were boycotted. In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign traders.
3.  Students left the government owned schools and colleges and lawyers gave up legal practices.

Civil Disobedience Movement:

1. People were asked not only to refuse cooperation with the British but also to break colonial laws.
2. The countrymen broke the salt law by manufacturing salt by boiling sea water at Dandi.
3. Peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari tax.
4.  Village officials resigned from their jobs. Forest people violated forest rules and laws.

Question.12. Classify industries on the basis of capital investment. How are they different from one another? Explain with examples.
Answer. On the basis of capital investment industries can be classified as:
(i) Small-scale industry (ii) Large-scale industry
Difference:
If the investment is more than one crore rupees in any industry, it is considered as a large scale industry. For example, Iron and Steel industry, Cement industry.
If the investment is less than one crore rupees in any industry, it is considered as a small scale industry. For example, Plastic industry, Toy industry.

Question.13. “Efficient means of transport are pre-requisites for the fast development.” Express your views in favour of this statement.
Answer. See Q. 14, 2014 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.14. “The textile industry is the only industry in the country which is self-reliant and complete in the value chain.” Justify the statement.
Answer. See Q. 13, 2015 (III Outside Delhi).

Question.15. What is meant by a ‘national political party’? State the conditions required to be a national political party.
Answer. National political parties have their units in various states. By and large all these units follow the same policies, programmes and strategy that is decided at the national level. Conditions required to be a national political party:

1. A party that secures at least 6% of the total votes in general elections of Lok Sabha or assembly elections in four states.
2. A party that wins at least 4 seats in the Lok Sabha.

Question.16. What are sectional interest groups? Describe their functioning.
Answer. Sectional interest groups are the groups that seek to promote the interests of a particular section or a group of society. For example, FEDECOR (Bolivian organisation). Functioning:

1. They perform a meaningful role in countering the undue influence of other groups.
2. They create awareness about the needs and concerns of their own society.
3. Their principal concern is .the betterment and well-being of their own members and not the society in general.

Question.17. “Most of the established democracies are facing the challenge of expansion.” Support the statement with examples.
Answer. See Q. 17, 2012 (I Delhi).

Question.18. How can money be easily exchanged for goods or services? Give an example to explain.
Answer. Money as a medium of exchange for goods and services:
A person holding money can easily exchange it for any commodity or service that he or she might want. Everyone prefers to receive payments in money and exchange the money for things they want.
For example: A shoemaker wants to sell shoes in the market and buy wheat. The shoe maker will first exchange shoes for money and then exchange the money for wheat. If the shoemaker had to directly exchange shoes for wheat without the use of money, he would have to look for a wheat growing farmer who not only wants to sell wheat but also wants to buy the shoes in exchange. Both the parties have to agree to sell and buy each other’s commodities. This process is very difficult, time consuming and unhealthy.

Question.19. ‘Barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent in India since 1991’. Justify the statement.
Answer. See Q. 18. 2014 (I Delhi).

Question.20. “The credit activities of the informal sector should be discouraged.” Support the statement with arguments.
Answer. The credit activities of the informal sector should be discouraged because:

1. 85% of loans taken by the poor households in the urban areas are from informal sources. There is no organisation that supervises the credit activities of lenders in the informal sector.
2. Informal lenders charge very high interest on their loans. They try to charge more and more interest on their loans as there are no boundaries and restrictions.
3. Higher cost of borrowing means a larger part of the earnings of the borrowers is used to repay the loan.
4. In certain cases, the high interest .rate for borrowing can mean that the amount to be repaid is greater than the income of borrower. This could lead to increasing debt and debt trap, therefore the credit activities of the informal sector should be discouraged.

Question.21. Analyse the measures and practices introduced by the French revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.
Answer. See Q. 21,2012 (I Outside Delhi).
Or
“U.S. entry into the war in Vietnam marked a new phase that proved costly to Vietnamese as well as to the Americans.” Analyse the statement.
Answer. Effect of the War on Vietnam:

1. US entry into the war proved costly to the Vietnamese as well as to Americans. The phase of struggle with the US was brutal.
2. From 1965-1972, many (over 403100) US personnel served in Vietnam out of which 7484 were women. Many died in battle and a large number of people were wounded.
3. Thousands of US troops arrived equipped with heavy weapons and tanks backed by most powerful bombers of the time—B52s. The widespread attacks and use of chemical weapons—Napalm, Agent Orange and Phosphorous bombs destroyed many villages and decimated jungles. Civilians died in large numbers.

Effect of the US involvement on life within the US:

1. Most of the people were critical of the government’s policy of war. When the youths were drafted (forced recruitment) for the war, the anger grew.
2. Compulsory service in the armed forces could be waived only for university graduates. This meant many of those sent to fight did not belong to the privileged elite, but were minorities and children of working class families which created a lot of resentment.
3.  US media played a major role in both supporting and criticising the war. Hollywood made films in support of the war. (Example: John Wayne’s Green Berets; 1968). The film was taken as a war propaganda film, responsible for motivating many young men to die in the war. Other films were more critical. (Example: John Ford Coppola’s Apocalypse Now 1979 reflected the moral confusion that the war caused in the US).

Question.22. Why did Gandhiji decide to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act 1919? How was it organised? Explain.
Answer. See Q. 10, 2015 (I Delhi).

Question.23. Highlight the importance of petroleum. Explain the occurrence of petroleum in India.
Answer. Importance of Petroleum in India:

1. It is the second most important energy source of India after coal. It can be easily transported by pipelines and does not leave any residue. This property of petroleum gives it an added advantage in its use over other fuels.
2. It provides fuel for heat and light.
3. It provides lubricants for machinery.
4. It provides raw material for a number of manufacturing industries.
5. It is an important fuel used in transportation sector.
6. Petroleum refineries act as a ‘nodal industry’ for synthetic textiles, fertilizers and many chemical industries.

Occurrence of Petroleum in India:

1. Most of the petroleum occurrences in India are associated with anticlines and fault traps in the rock formations of the tertiary age.
2. In regions of folding anticlines it occurs where oil is trapped in the crest of the up fold. The oil bearing layer is porous limestone or sandstone through which oil may flow.
3. Petroleum is also found in fault traps between porous and non-porous rocks.

Question.24. “The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.” Support the statement with arguments.
Answer. See Q. 23, 2015 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.25. How are the democratic governments better than the other forms of governments? Compare.
Answer. See Q. 25, 2014 (I Delhi).

Question.26. “Pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics in different ways.” Support the statement with suitable examples.
Answer. See Q. 26, 2015 (I Delhi).

Question.27. Describe the vital and positive role of credit with examples.
Answer. See Q. 28, 2014 (I Outside Delhi).
Example: In the festive season, a shoe manufacturer, Ram receives an order from a large trader in town for 3,000 pairs of shoes to be delivered in a month’s time. To complete production on time Ram has to hire workers for stitching and pasting work. He has to purchase the raw materials. To meet these expenses Ram obtains loans from two sources. First, he asks the leather supplier to supply leather now and promises to pay him later. Second, he obtains loan in cash from the large traders as advance payment for 1000 pairs of shoes with a promise to deliver the whole order by the end of the month.
At the end of the month, Salim is able to deliver the order, make a good profit and repay the money he had borrowed.
Salim obtains credit to meet the working capital needs of production. The credit helps him to meet the ongoing expenses of production, complete production on time and thus increase his earnings. Credit therefore plays a vital and positive role in this situation.

Question.28. What is globalisation? Describe the role of Multinational Corporations (MNCs) in promoting globalisation process.
Answer. Globalisation is the process of rapid integration or inter-connection among countries. Over the last 20-30 years, these has been a tremendous increase in globalisation with the increase in the number of MNCs.

1. MNCs set up production centres worldwide where cheap labour is available, markets are near and government policies are favourable.
2. They supply produced goods to different countries.
3. Countries of the world have come closer due to increased movement of people between countries.
4. MNCs provide money for additional investments for faster production.
5. MNCs bring with them the latest technology and know-how for enhancing and improving the production process.

Question.29. Three features A, B and C are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:
A. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.
B. The place associated with the Peasant’s Satyagraha.
C. The city associated with the Jallianwala Bagh incident.

Answer.

Note : The following questions are f Or the Visually impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q No. 29:
(29.1) Name the place where the Indian National Congress Session was held in 1927.
(29.2) Name the state where the Indigo planters organised satyagraha.
(29.3) Name the city related to the Jallianwala Bagh incident.
Answer. (29.1) Madras
(29.2) Bihar
(29.3) Amritsar

Question.30 On the given political outline map of India locate and label the following with appropriate symbols:
A. Ankleshwar—Oil field
B. Durgapur—Iron and steel plant
C. Tuticorin—Major seaport
Answer.

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q.No. 30:
(30.1) In which state is Ankleshwar oil field located?
(30.2) In which state is Durgapur iron and steel plant located?
(30.3) Name the southern most major seaport of India.
Answer. (30.1) Gujarat
(30.2) West Bengal
(30.3) Tuticorin

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.1. Name the event that mobilised nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe in 1830-1848?
Answer. The Greek War of Independence in 1821.
Or
Name the writer who wrote a play based on the lives of Trung sisters.
Answer. Phan Boi Chau.

Question.2. How do minerals occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks?
Answer. In igneous and metamorphic rocks, minerals may occur in cracks, crevices, faults and joints.

Question.8. Why one cannot refuse a payment made in rupees in India?
Answer. One cannot refuse a payment made in rupees in India because it is accepted as a medium of exchange. The currency is authorized by the government of the country.

Question.17. “Democratic government is legitimate government?” Support the statement with arguments.
Answer. Democratic government is a legitimate government. It may be slow, less efficient, not always very responsive or clean. But a democratic government is peoples’ own government. That is why there is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world. People’s wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them. As a democratic government is peoples’ own government, they believe that democracy is suitable for their country as it is a legitimate government. Democracy’s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot be ignored.

Question.18. “A wide ranging choice of goods are available in the Indian markets.” Support the statement with examples in context of globalisation.
Answer. Globalisation has led to integration of markets across countries. The Indian markets are now flooded with a wide ranging choice of goods. Import from other countries has led to an expanding choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced —:

1.  We have a wide variety of goods and services before us in the market.
2.  The latest models of digital cameras, mobile phones and televisions made by leading manufacturers of the world like Sony, Samsung etc. are available in the market.
3. Every season, new models of automobiles can be seen on Indian roads. Today Indians are buying cars produced by nearly all the top companies in the world.
4. A similar explosion of brands can be seen for many other goods like footwear. For example, Adidas, Nike, Reebok, Puma and many more.

Question.19. “Cheap and affordable credit is crucial for the country’s development.” Assess the statement.
Answer. See Q. 28, 2012 (I Delhi). [Page 34

Question.22. Why did Mahatma Gandhi find in ‘salt’ a powerful symbol that could unite the nation? Explain.
Answer. See Q. 11, 2015 (I Outside Delhi). [Page 114

Question.23. Why are sugar mills concentrated in sugarcane producing areas? Explain any three problems faced by sugar industry in India.
Answer. Sugar industries are concentrated in the sugarcane producing areas because:

1.  The raw material used in the sugar mills ,t.e., sugarcane is bulky and perishable.
2. It cannot be transported to long distances because its sucrose content dries up fast, so it should be processed within 24 hours of harvest.

Challenges faced by the sugar industry in India are:

1.  Seasonal nature of the industry.
2.  Old and inefficient methods of production.
3. Delays in transportation of cane to the factories.
4. The need to maximize the use of bagasse.

Question.25. “All over the world, people express their dissatisfaction with the failure of political parties to perform their functions well.” Analyse the statement with arguments.
Answer. Since parties are the most visible face in a democracy, people blame them for whatever is wrong with the working of democracy.
There are four major areas where the working of political parties faces challenge:

1.  Lack of internal democracy. There is concentration of power in one or a few leaders at the top. Parties do not hold organisational meetings and do not conduct internal elections regularly. More than loyalty to party principles and policies, it is personal loyalty which becomes more important.
2. Dynastic succession. In many parties, top positions are always held by members of one family. Most political parties do not practice transparent and open procedures for their functioning and it is very difficult for an ordinary worker to rise to the top. This is bad for democracy, since people who do not have adequate experience or popular support come to occupy positions of power.
3. Money and muscle power. Since parties are focussed only on winning elections, they tend to use short-cuts to win elections. They nominate candidates who have or can raise money and thus are able to have influence on the policies and decisions of the party.
4. No meaningful choice. There has been a decline in the ideological differences among parties. They agree more on fundamental aspects, but differ only in details, on how policies are to be framed and implemented. Sometimes people cannot even elect different leaders as the same set of leaders keep shifting from one party to another.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-11.
Question.1. What was the main aim of revolutionaries of Europe during the years following 1815?
Answer. The main aim of revolutionaries of Europe was to oppose monarchial forms of government.
Or
What were the two bases of colonial economy in Vietnam?
Answer. Bases of colonial economy in Vietnam:

1. Rice cultivation
2. Rubber plantation

Question.2. How do minerals occur in sedimentary rocks?
Answer. In sedimentary rocks a number of minerals occur in beds or layers. They have been formed as a result of deposition, accumulation and concentration in horizontal stratas.

Question.8. Compare formal sector loans with informal sector of loans regarding interest only.
Answer. Most of the informal lenders charge a much higher interest on loans than the formal sector loans.

Question.17. “Nearly every one of the state parties wants to get an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national level coalition.” Support the statement with arguments.
Answer. The state parties also referred to as regional parties are not necessarily regional in ideology. Some of these parties are all India parties that happen to have succeeded only in some states. Over the last three decades, the number and strength of these parties has expanded. Before the general elections one national party was able to secure on its own a majority in the Lok Sabha.
As a result, the national parties were compelled to form alliances with state parties.
Since 1996, nearly every one of the state parties got an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national level coalition government. This contributed to the strengthening of federalism and democracy. Example of state parties having national level political organisation with units in several states are Samajwadi Party (SP), Rashtriya Janata Dal, Samata Party.

Question.18. “Consumer awareness is essential to avoid exploitation in the market place.” Support the statement.
Answer. Consumer awareness is essential to avoid exploitation in the market place. Markets do not work in a fair manner. Exploitation happens in various ways. Therefore, awareness is essential. Certain details are given on the packing of all commodities. When we buy medicines, details are marked on the packets. Rules have been made so that the manufacturer displays the information. Consumers who are not aware may buy, for example,

1. medicines that have not been properly inspected and certified by the appropriate authority, or whose expiry date is already over,
2. They may buy electronic/ electrical goods which may have defects or these products may not adhere to safety norms. Consumers can complain and ask for compensation or replacement of the product, if it proves to be defective in any manner.

Question.19. “Globalisation and greater competition among producers has been of advantage to consumers.” Justify the statement with examples.
Answer. See Q. 28, 2015 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.22. How did a variety of cultural processes play an important role in making of nationalism in India? Explain with examples.
Answer. See Q. 22, 2014 (II Outside Delhi)

Question.23. What is trade? Explain the importance of international trade.
Answer. The exchange of goods among people, states and countries is referred to as trade. Importance of international trade:

1. International trade of a country is an index to its economic prosperity.
2. It is considered the economic barometer for a country. If the balance of international trade is favourable, a country will be able to earn more foreign exchange.
3. As no country is self-sufficient in all resources it cannot survive without international trade.
4. Countries have trade relations with the major trading blocks.
5. Exchange of commodities and goods have been superseded by the exchange of information and knowledge.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Delhi-2016 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Outside Delhi-2016

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                             Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

• The Question Paper has 30 questions in all. All questions are
• Marks are indicated against each question.
• Questions from serial number 1 to 8 are Very Short Answer questions. Each question carries one mark.
• Questions from serial number 9 to 20 are 3 mark Answers of these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
• Questions from serial number 21 to 28 are 5 marks Answers of these questions should not exceed 100 words each.
• Question number 29 and 30 are map questions of 3 mark each from History and Geography both. After completion, attach the map inside your answer book.

SET I

Question.1. Who remarked “when France sneezes the rest of Europe catches cold”.
Answer. Duke Metternich
Or
Who were called colons in Vietnam?
Answer. French citizens living in Vietnam were known as colons.

Question.2. Why should the use of cattle cake as fuel be discouraged?
Answer. Using dung cake or cattle cake as fuel is being discouraged because it consumes most valuable manure which could be used in agriculture.

Question.3. Distinguish between pressure groups and political parties by stating any one point of distinction.
Answer. Pressure groups do not aim to directly control or share political power but political parties directly control and share political power.

Question.4. Why did India adopt multi-party system?
Answer. India adopted multi-party system because:

1. India is a large country and has social and geographical diversities.
2. It is easy to absorb different diversities in a multi-party system.

Question.5. Name any two sectional interest groups.
Answer. Trade Unions and Professional bodies like lawyers, teachers etc.

Question.6. Why do MNCs set up their offices and factories in those regions where they get cheap labour and other resources?
Answer. MNCs set up offices and factories for products in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources so that (i) the cost of production is low and (ii) the MNCs can earn greater profits.

Question.7. If any damage is done to a consumer by a trader, under which consumer right one can move to consumer court to get compensation?
Answer. Right to seek redressal. The consumers can seek redressal against trade practices of exploitation and have the right to fair settlement of the genuine grievances.

Question.8. Why is the supervision of the functioning of formal sources of loans necessary?
Answer. Supervision of the functioning of formal sources of loans is necessary because banks have to submit information to the RBI on how much they are lending, to whom they are lending and at what interest rate etc.

Question.9. “The decade of 1830 had brought great economic hardship in Europe.” Support the statement with arguments.
Answer. See Q. 11, 2013 (I Outside Delhi).
Or
“The Ho Chi Minh Trail became advantageous to Vietnamese in the war against U.S.” Support the statement with arguments.
Answer. “The Ho-Chi-Minh Trail became advantageous to Vietnamese in the war against U.S.”

1. The trail symbolizes how the Vietnamese used their limited resources to great advantage.
2. The trail, an immense network of footpaths and roads was used to transport men and material from North to South.
3. It was improved in late 1950s and from 1967 about 20,000 North Vietnamese troops came south each month. The trail had support bases and hospitals along the way.
4. Mostly supplies were carried by women porters on their backs or on their bicycles.
5. The U.S regularly bombed this trail to disrupt supplies but efforts to destroy this important supply line by intensive bombing failed because they were rebuilt very quickly.

Question.10. What type of flag was designed during the ‘Swadeshi Movement’ in Bengal? Explain its main features.
Answer. During the ‘Swadeshi Movement’ in Bengal, a tricolour flag—red, green and yellow was designed. It had eight lotuses representing the eight provinces of British India.
It had a crescent moon, representing Hindus and Muslims.

Question.11. “The plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj”. Support the statement with arguments.
Answer. “The plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj”

1. For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed.
2. Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859 plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission.
3. Swaraj meant retaining a link with the village from which they had come.
4. When they heard of the Non-cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities, left the plantations and headed home.
5. They believed that Gandhi Raj was coming and everyone would be given land in their own village.

Question.12. Classify industries on the basis of source of raw material. How are they different from each other?
Answer. On the basis of sources of raw material industries are classified as:
(i) Agro based industries; (ii) Mineral based industries

Question.13. ‘Consumption of energy in all forms has been rising all over the country. There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development and energy saving.’ Suggest and explain any three measures to solve this binning problem.
Answer. Every sector of the national economy—agriculture, industry, transport, (commercial and domestic), needs greater inputs of energy.
With increasing population and changing lifestyles energy consumption is increasing very fast. We are not self sufficient in energy according to demands. Therefore we have to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our limited resources. Conservation of energy should be done at all levels.
Three measures to reduce consumption of energy in all forms:

1. We can do our bit by using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles.
2. Switching off electricity when not in use.
3. Using power saving devices or using non-conventional sources of energy such as solar energy, wind energy etc.
4. Checking the power equipment’s regularly can help in saving of energy.

Question.14. Suggest any three steps to minimise the environmental degradation caused by the industrial development in India.
Answer. Steps to minimize the environmental degradation caused by industrial development in India are: –

1. Minimizing use of water for processing by reusing and recycling in two or more successive stages. Harvesting of rain water to meet water requirements of industries and other domestic purposes.
2. Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds.
3.  Particulate matter in the air can be reduced by fitting smoke to factories with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers and inertial separators. Smoke can be reduced by using oil or gas instead of coal in factories.
4. Machinery and equipment’s can be fitted with silencers to prevent noise pollution.

Question.15. What is meant by regional political party? State the conditions required to be recognised as a ‘regional political party’.
Answer. A regional party is a party that is present in only some states. Regional parties or State parties need not be regional in their ideology. They have state identity as they are present only in some states. Some of these parties are all India parties that happen to have succeeded only in states. Example, Samajwadi Party, Rashtriya Janta Dal.
Conditions required for a party to be recognized as a regional political party:

1. A party that secures at least six percent of the total votes in an election to the legislative assembly of a state.
2. Wins at least two seats in the legislative assembly.

Question.16. What are public interest pressure groups? Describe their functioning.
Answer. Public Interest Groups are those that promote collective rather than selective interests. Their functioning is as follows:

1. It aims to help groups other than their own members.
2. They represent some common interest that needs to be defended.
3. The members of the organization may not benefit from the cause that the organization represents.

For example, a group fighting against bonded labour fights not for itself but for those who are suffering under such bondage. E.g., BAMCEF.

Question.17. Which three challenges do you feel are being faced by political parties in India? Give your opinion.
Answer. There are four major areas where the working of political parties faces challenge: See Q. 25, 2016 (II Delhi).

Question.18. “Deposits with the banks are beneficial to the depositors as well as to the nation”. Examine the statement.
Answer. Benefit of deposits to the depositors:

1. Bank accepts the deposits and pays interest to the depositor.
2.  Banks help people save their money and keep their money in safe custody of the bank.
3. People can withdraw the money as and when they require.
4.  Banks also grant loans to people for a variety of purposes.

Benefit of deposits to the Nation:

1. Banks use the major proportion of the deposit to extend loans.
2. There is a huge demand for loans for various economic activities. In times of need, business houses and industries can borrow money from the banks.
3. Banks mediate between those who have surplus funds and those who are in need of these funds. Thus, it helps in the economic development of the Nation.

Question.19. Why had the Indian government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investments after independence? Analyse the reasons.
Answer. See Q. 18, 2014 (II Delhi).

Question.20. “Rules and regulations are required for the protection of the consumers in the market place.” Justify the .statement with arguments.
Answer. See Q. 28, 2013 (I Delhi).

Question.21. “Napoleon had destroyed democracy in France but in the administrative field he had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole system more rational and efficient.” Analyse the statement with arguments.
Answer. See Q. 21, 2012 (I Delhi).
Or
“The peace negotiations in Geneva followed the division of Vietnam that set in motion a series of events that turned Vietnam into a battle field.” Analyse the statement with arguments.
Answer. The peace negotiations in Geneva followed the division of Vietnam that set in motion a series of events that turned Vietnam into a battle field.”

1. In the peace negotiations in Geneva that followed the French defeat, the Vietnamese were persuaded to accept the division of the country, i.e., North and South.
2. The division set in motion a series of events that turned Vietnam into a battlefield bringing death and destruction to its people as well as the environment.
3. The Bao Dai regime was soon overthrown by a coup led by Ngo Dinh Diem. Diem built a repressive and authoritarian government.
4. Anyone who opposed him was called a Communist and was jailed and killed.
5. With the help of Ho Chi Minh government in North, the NLF fought for the unification of the country. The U.S watched this alliance with fear. Worried about the communist gaining power, it decided to intervene decisively sending in troops and arms.

Question.22. Why did Mahatma Gandhiji decide to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain.
Answer. Mahatma Gandhi decided to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement because:

1. Worried by the development of Civil Disobedience Movement the colonial government began arresting the Congress leaders one by one.
2. This led to violent clashes in many places.
3. When Abdul Ghaffar khan, a devout disciple of Mahatma Gandhi was arrested in April 1930, angry crowds demonstrated in the streets of Peshawar, facing armoured cars and police firing. Many were killed.
4. A month later, when Mahatma Gandhi was arrested industrial workers in Sholapur attacked the police force, municipal buildings, law courts, railway stations and all other structures that symbolized British rule.
5. A frightened government responded with the policy of brutal repression. The peaceful satyagrahis were attacked, women and children were beaten and about 1 lakh people were arrested.

Question.23. Explain the importance of conservation of minerals. Highlight any three measures to conserve them.
Answer. See Q. 13, 2012 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.24. “Roadways still have an edge over railways in India.” Support the statement with arguments.
Answer. Roadways score over railways:

1. Construction of roads is easier and cheaper as compared to railways.
2. Roads provide door to door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much . lower as compared to railways which generally leave the people and goods at the
   destined railway stations.
3. Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slope and, as such, can traverse through mountainous terrain. But railways cannot negotiate steep gradients.
4.  Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances.
5. Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport. They provide links between railway stations, airports and sea ports.
6. They link agricultural farms with markets and industries, thus linking rural and urban
   areas.

Question.25. Describe the popular struggle of Bolivia.
Answer. See Q. 15, 2012 (II Delhi).

Question.26. “Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy”. Analyse the statement with examples.
Answer. “Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy” in the following ways:

1. Without political parties democracies cannot exist. If we do not have political parties, every candidate in elections will be independent.
2. No one will be able to make any promises to the people about any major policy changes.
3. The government may be formed but its utility will remain uncertain.
4. Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency, for what they do in their locality but no one will be responsible for how the country will run.
5. As societies become large and complex they also needed some agencies to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government, that’s why political parties are needed.

Question.27. How can the formal sector loans be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers? Suggest any five measures.
Answer. Formal sector loans can be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers in the following ways:

1. Create greater awareness among farmers about formal sector loans.
2. Process of providing loans should be made easier. It should be simple, fast and timely.
3. More number of Nationalized Banks/cooperative banks should be opened in. rural sectors. Banks and cooperatives should increase facility of providing loans so that dependence on informal sources of credit reduces.
4. The benefits of loans should be extended to poor farmers and small scale industries,
5. While formal sector loans need to expand, it is also necessary that everyone receives these loans. It is important that formal credit is distributed more equally so that the poor can benefit from cheaper loans.

Question.28. Describe the impact of globalisation on Indian economy with examples.
Answer. Impact of Globalisation on the Indian Economy:

1. Greater competition among producers (both local and foreign), has been advantageous to consumers, particularly the well-off section. There is greater choice before the consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products.
2. Globalisation has led to a higher standard of living especially in urban areas.
3. MNCs have increased their investments in India in industries such as electronics, automobiles, cellphones, soft drinks, fast food, banking services etc. leading to more job opportunities in these industries and services.
4.  Globalisation has enabled some large Indian companies to emerge as MNCs themselves like Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy, Asian Paints, etc.
5.  Globalisation has also created new opportunities for companies providing services particularly those involving IT (Information Technology). For example, call centres.
6. Local companies supply raw materials to foreign industries and have prospered. However, for a large number of producers and workers the impact has not been uniform, and globalisation has posed major challenges.

Question.29. Three features A, B and C are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify these features with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines marked in the map:
A. The place where cotton mill workers organised Satyagraha.
B. The place related to the calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.
C. The place where the Indian National Congress Session was held.

Answer.

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.No. 29:
(29.1) Name the city where cotton mill workers organised Satyagraha.
(29.2) Name the place related to the calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement.
(29.3) Where was the Indian Nation Congress Session held in December 1920?
Answer. (29.1) Ahmedabad (29.2) Chauri Chaura (29.3) Nagpur

Question.30. On the given political outline map, of India, locate and label the following with appropriate symbols:
A. Oil Field—Digboi
B. Iron and Steel Plant—Bhilai
C. Major Sea Port—Kochi
Answer.

Note: The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only, in lieu of Q.No. 30:
(30.1) In which state is Digboi oil field located?
(30.2) Name the state where Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant is located.
(3Q.3) Name the Southernmost major sea port located on the eastern coast of India.
Answer. (30.1) Assam (30.2) Chattisgarh (30.3) Tuticorin

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.1. Who was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871?
Answer. Kaiser William I of Prussia was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871.
Or
What was the main aim of the Scholar Revolt of 1868?
Answer. The main aim of Scholar Revolt of 1868 was to oppose French control and expansion of Christianity.

Question.2. How are ‘Gobar gas plants’ beneficial to the farmers?
Answer. “Gobar Gas Plants” are beneficial to the farmers in the form of energy and improved quality of manure.

Question.8. Prove with an argument that there is a great need to expand formal sources of credit in rural India.
Answer. There is great need to expand formal sources of credit in rural India because:

1. There is no organisation that supervises the credit activities of lenders in the informal sector. They lend at whatever interest rate they choose.
2. No one can stop rural money-lenders from using unfair means to get their money back.

Question.17. “Democracy accommodates social diversities.” Support the statement with examples.
Answer. “Democracy accommodates social diversities” in the following ways:

1. Democracies develop a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the possibility of these tensions becoming explosive or violent.
2.  No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and can evolve mechanism to negotiate these differences.
   Example, Belgium has successfully negotiated differences among ethnic population. This reduces the possibility of tensions.
3.  Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite plus point of democratic regimes.

Question.18. Explain by giving examples that Multinational Corporations (MNCs) are spreading their productions in different ways.
Answer. See Q. 27, 2015 (I Delhi). [Page 106

Question.19. ‘Credit has its own unique role for development’. Justify the statement with arguments.
Answer. See Q. 28, 2012 (I Delhi).

Question.22. Why did Mahatma Gandhi relaunch the Civil Disobedience Movement with great apprehension? Explain.
Answer. Mahatma Gandhi entered into a pact with Irwin on 5 March, 1931.

1.  By this Gandhi-Irwin Pact, Gandhiji committed to participate in a Round Table Conference in London and the government agreed to release the political prisoners.
2. In December 1931, Gandhiji went to London for the conference, but the negotiations broke dowrn and he returned disappointed.
3.  Back in India, he discovered that the government had begun a new cycle of repressive measures.
4. Abdul Ghaffar Khan and Jawaharlal Nehru were both in jail and the Congress had been declared illegal.
5.  A series of measures hacj been imposed to prevent meetings, demonstrations and boycotts. Thus, with great apprehension Gandhiji relaunched the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Question.23. Explain any five major problems faced by road transport in India.
Answer. Problems faced by road transportation:

1. The road network is inadequate in proportion to the volume of traffic and passengers.
2. About half of the roads are unmetalled which makes them useless during rainy season.
3. The National Highways are inadequate and lack roadside amenities.
4. The roadways are highly congested in cities.
5. Most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow.

Question.25. Suggest and explain any five measures to reform political parties.
Answer.

1. Law to regulate the internal affairs of political parties like maintaining a register of its members, to follow its own constitution, to have independent authority, to act as judge in case of party dispute, to hold open elections to the highest post.
2.  It should be mandatory for political parties to give one-third tickets to women candidates.
   Also there should be quota for women on the decision-making bodies of the party.
3.  There should be state funding of elections. The government should give money to parties to support their election expenses in kind (petrol, paper, telephone etc.) or in cash on the basis of votes secured by the party in the previous election.
4.  People can put pressure on political parties in various ways through petitions, publicity in media and agitations.
5. Ordinary citizens, pressure groups and movements and the media can play an important role in this. Ordinary citizens can reform politics if they take part directly and join political parties.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-1 and Set-ll.
Question.1. Who was proclaimed the King of United Italy in 1861?
Answer. Victor Emmanuel-II
Or
Who led the ‘Scholar Revolt’ in Vietnam in 1868?
Answer. The “Scholar Revolt” in Vietnam in 1868 was led by officials at the imperial court.

Question.2. Why has aluminium metal great importance?
Answer. Aluminium metal has great importance because:

1. It combines the strength of metals such as iron with extreme lightness.
2. It has good conductivity and great malleability.

Question.8. Why are most of the poor households deprived from the formal sector of loans?
Answer. Most of the poor households are deprived from the formal sector loans because of lack of proper documents and absence of collateral.

Question.17. Analyse the three components of a political party.
Answer. The three components of a political party are as follows:

1. The leaders. A political party consists of leaders, who contest elections and if they win the elections, they perform the administrative jobs.
2.  The active members. They are the ones who work actively for the party. They are the assistants of the leaders and implement the plans and ideologies of the political party. (in) The followers. They are the ardent followers of the parties and their leaders and support them in the elections.

Question.18. How are consumers exploited in the market place? Explain.
Answer. See Q. 28, 2014 (I Delhi).

Question.19. “The consumer movement arose out of dissatisfaction of the consumers”. Justify the statement with arguments.
Answer. See Q. 19, 2014 (III Outside Delhi).

Question.22. How did the Civil Disobedience Movement come into force in various parts of the country? Explain with examples.
Answer. Civil Disobedience Movement came into force in various parts of the country:

1. Gandhiji led the salt march from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi with his followers starting the Civil Disobedience Movement.
2.  Thousands in different parts of the country broke the salt law, manufactured salt and demonstrated in front of government salt factories.
3. In the countryside, the rich Patidars of Gujarat and Jats of Uttar Pradesh were active in the movement. As rich communities were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices, they became enthusiastic supporters of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
4.  As the depression continued and cash invoice dwindled, the small tenants found it difficult to pay the rent. They wanted the unpaid rent to the landlords to be remitted and thus they joined the movement.
5.  Merchants and industrialists supported the movement by giving financial assistance and also by refusing to buy and sell the imported goods.
6.  The industrial working class of Nagpur region also participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement. Railway workers, dock workers, mineral of Chota Nagpur etc. participated in protest rallies and boycott campaigns .

Question.23. Classify communication services into two categories? Explain main features of each.
Answer. Two types of means of communication are—A. Personal communication,’ B. Mass communication.
A. Features of Personal communication:

1.  It is the communication between two or more persons at personal level.
2. The Indian postal network handles parcels as well as personal written communication.
3.  It includes cards and envelops, posts and telegraph, email etc.
4. Telephone services like STD, ISD provide easy and comfortable network to a large number of people.

A. Features of Mass communication:

1.  It is communication through which one can communicate with several people at the same time.
2. It provides entertainment and creates awareness among people about various National programmes and policies.
3.  It includes print media like newspapers, magazines, books etc. and electronic media like radio, television etc.

Question.25. “Democracy stands much superior in promoting dignity and freedom of the citizens”. Justify the statement.
Answer. Examples to illustrate that dignity and freedom of citizens are best guaranteed in a democracy:

1. Dignity of women. Democracy recognises dignity of women as a necessary ingredient of society. The one way to ensure that women related problems get adequate attention is’+o have more women as elected representatives. To achieve this, it is legally binding to have a fair proportion of women in the elected bodies. Panchayati Raj in India has reserved one-third seats in local government bodies for women. In March 2010, the Women’s Reservation Bill was passed in the Rajya Sabha ensuring 33% reservation for women in Parliament and State legislative bodies.
2.  Democracy has strengthened the claims of disadvantaged and discriminated castes. When governments are formed, political parties usually take care that representatives of different castes and tribes find a place in it. Some political parties are known to favour some castes. Democracy provides for equal status and opportunities for all castes.
3. Democracy transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen. A democracy is concerned with ensuring that people will have the right to choose their rulers and people will have control over the rulers. Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision-making that affects them all.
4. A citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision-making. There is transparency in a democracy like India. In October 2005, the Right to Information (RTI) law was passed which ensures all its citizens the right to get all the information about the functions of the government departments. In a democracy, people also have the right to complain about its functioning.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Social Science SA2 Outside Delhi-2016 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Outside Delhi – 2014

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The Question Taper consists of 31 questions divided into four Sections A, B. C. and D.
3. Section A contains 4 questions of 1 mark each. Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 11 questions of 4 marks each.
4.  Use of calculators is not permitted.

SET I

SECTION A
Questions number 1 to 4 carry 1 mark each.
Question.1 In a right triangle ABC, right-angled at B, BC = 12 cm and AB = 5 cm. Calculate the radius of the circle inscribed in the triangle (in cm).
Solution.

Question.2 In a family of 3 children calculate the probability of having at least one boy.
Solution.

Question.3 ABCD is a rectangle whose three vertices are B(4, 0), C(4, 3) and D(0, 3). Calculate the length of one of its diagonals.
Solution.

Question.4 A chord of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at its centre. Calculate the length of the chord (in cm).
Solution.

SECTION B
Questions number 5 to 10 carry 2 marks each.
Question.5 Find the values of p for which the quadratic equation 4x² + px + 3 = 0 has equal roots.
Solution.

Question.6 Find the number of natural numbers between 101 and 999 which are divisible by both 2 and 5.
Solution.

Question.7 In Figure 1, common tangents AB and CD to the two circles with centres O₁ and O₂ intersect at E. Prove that AB = CD.

Solution.

Question.8 The incircle of an isosceles triangle ABC, in which AB = AC, touches the sides BC, CA and AB at D, E and F respectively. Prove that BD = DC.
Solution.

Question.9 Two different dice are tossed together. Find the probability
(i) that the number on each die is even.
(ii) that the sum of numbers appearing on the two dice is 5.
Solution.

Question.10 If the total surface area of a solid hemisphere is 462 cm², find its volume. [Take π=22/7]
Solution.

SECTION C
Questions number 11 to 20 carry 3 marks each.
Question.11 Solve for

Solution.

Question.12 The sum of the 5^th and the 9^th terms of an AP is 30. If its 25^th term is three times its 8^th term, find the AP.
Solution.

Question.13 Construct a triangle with sides 5 cm, 5.5 cm and 6.5 cm. Now construct another triangle,
whose sides are 3/5 times the corresponding sides of the given triangle.
Solution.

Question.14 The angle of elevation of an aeroplane from a point on the ground is 60°. After a flight of 30 seconds the angle of elevation becomes 30°. If the aeroplane is flying at a constant height of 3000 √3 m, find the speed of the aeroplane.
Solution.

Question.15 If the point P(k – 1, 2) is equidistant from the points A(3, k) and B(k, 5), find the values of k.
Solution.

Question.16. Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points A(3, -3) and B(-2, 7) is divided by x-axis. Also find the coordinates of the point of division.
Solution.

Question.17 In Figure 2, two concentric circles with centre O, have radii 21 cm and 42 cm. If ∠AOB = 60°, find the area of the shaded region. [Use π = 22/7 ]

Solution.

Question.18 The largest possible sphere is carved out of a wooden solid cube of side 7 cm. Find the
volume of the wood left. [Use π = 22/7 ]
Solution.

Question.19 Water in a canal, 6 m wide and 1.5 m deep, is flowing at a speed of 4 km/h. How much area will it irrigate in 10 minutes, if 8 cm of standing water is needed for irrigation?
Solution.

Question.20 In Figure 3, ABCD is a trapezium of area 24.5 sq. cm. In it, AD || BC, ∠DAB = 90°, AD = 10 cm and BC = 4 cm. If ABE is a quadrant of a circle, find the area of
the shaded region. [Take π = 22/7 ]

Solution.

SECTION D
Questions number 21 to 31 carry 4 marks each.
Question.21 Solve for x:

Solution.

Question.22 In a school, students decided to plant trees in and around the school to reduce air pollution. It was decided that the number of trees, that each section of each class will plant,
will be double of the class in which they are studying. If there are 1 to 12 classes in the school and each class has two Sections, find how many trees were planted by the students. Which value is shown in this question?
Solution.

Question.23 The angle of elevation of the top of a tower at a distance of 120 m from a point A on the ground is 45°. If the angle of elevation of the top of a flagstaff fixed at the top of the tower, at A is 60°, then find the height of the flagstaff. [Use √3 = 1.73]
Solution.

Question.24 Red queens and black jacks are removed from a pack of 52 playing cards. A card is drawn at random from the remaining cards, after reshuffling them. Find the probability that the drawn card is
(i) a king (ii) of red colour (iii) a face card (iv) a queen
Solution.

Question.25 If A(-3, 5), B(-2, -7), C(l, -8) and D(6, 3) are the vertices of a quadrilateral ABCD, find its area.
Solution.

Question.26 A motorboat whose speed in still water is 18 km/h, takes 1 hour more to go 24 km upstream than to return downstream to the same spot. Find the speed of the stream.
Solution.

Question.27 In Figure 4, PQ is a chord of length 16 cm, of a circle of radius 10 cm. The tangents at P and Q intersect at a point T. Find the length of TP.

Solution.

Question.28 Prove that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact
Solution.

Question.29  150 spherical marbles, each of diameter 1.4 cm, are dropped in a cylindrical vessel of diameter 7 cm containing some water, which are completely immersed in water. Find the rise in the level of water in the vessel.
Solution.

Question.30 A container open at the top, is in the form of a frustum of a cone of height 24 cm with radii of its lower and upper circular ends as 8 cm and 20 cm respectively. Find the cost of milk which can completely fill the container at the rate of Rs 21 per litre. [Use π = 22/7]
Solution.

Question.31 A tent consists of a frustum of a cone, surmounted by a cone. If the diameter of the upper and lower circular ends of the frustum be 14 m and 26 m respectively, the height of the frustum be 8 m and the slant height of the surmounted conical portion be 12 m, find the area of canvas required to make the tent. (Assume that the radii of the upper circular end of the frustum and the base of surmounted conical portion are equal).
Solution.

SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.10 Find the values of k for which the quadratic equation 9x² – 3kx + k = 0 has equal roots.
Solution.

Question.18 The sum of the 2nd and the 7^th terms of an AP is 30. If its 15^th term is 1 less than twice its 8^th term, find the AP.
Solution.

Question.19 Draw a line segment AB of length 8 cm. Taking A as centre, draw a circle of radius 4 cm and taking B as centre, draw another circle of radius 3 cm. Construct tangents to each circle from the centre of the other circle.
Solution.

Question.20 Prove that the diagonals of a rectangle ABCD, with vertices A(2, -1), B(5, -1), C(5, 6) and D(2, 6), are equal and bisect each other.
Solution.

Question.27

Solution.

Question.28 All the red face cards are removed from a pack of 52 playing cards. A card is drawn at random from the remaining cards, after reshuffling them. Find the probability that the drawn card is
(i) of red colour (ii) a queen (iii) an ace (iv) a face card
Solution.

Question.29 A(4, -6), B(3, -2) and C(5, 2) are the vertices of a ΔABC and AD is its median. Prove that the median AD divides ΔABC into two triangles of equal areas.
Solution.

Question.30 Prove that opposite sides of a quadrilateral circumscribing a circle subtend supplementary angles at the centre of the circle.
Solution.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-11.
Question.10 Find the value of p so that the quadratic equation px (x – 3) + 9 = 0 has equal roots.
Solution.

Question.18 The sum of the first seven terms of an AP is 182. If its 4^th and the 17^th terms are in the ratio 1 : 5, find the AP.
Solution.

Question.19 From the top of a 60 m high building, the angles of depression of the top and the bottom of a tower are 45° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the tower. [Take √3 = 1.73]
Solution.

Question.20 Find a point P on the y-axis which is equidistant from the points A(4, 8) and B(-6, 6). Also find the distance AP.
Solution.

Question.27

Solution.

Question.28 Five cards—the ten, jack, queen, king and ace of diamonds, are well shuffled with their faces downwards. One card is then picked up at random.
(a) What is the probability that the drawn card is the queen?
(b) If the queen is drawn and put aside, and a second card is drawn, find the probability
that the second card is (i) an ace (ii) a queen.
Solution.

Question.29 If A(4, 2), B(7, 6) and C(l, 4) are the vertices of a ΔABC and AD is its median, prove that the median AD divides ΔABC into two triangles of equal areas.
Solution.

Question.30 In Figure 4, a triangle ABC is drawn to circumscribe a circle of radius 4 cm, such that the segments BD and DC are of lengths 8 cm and 6 cm respectively. Find the sides AB and AC.

Solution.

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The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths SA2 Outside Delhi – 2014 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Delhi 2016

ScienceMathsSanskritEnglishComputer ScienceHindiSocial Science
Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                        Maximum marks: 90
General Instructions:

1. The Question Paper comprises two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the Sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. There is no choice in any of the questions.
4. All questions of Section-A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
5. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
6. Question numbers 4 to 6 in Section A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
7. Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about 56 words each.
8. Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section A are five marks questions, these are to be answered in about 70 words each.
9.  Question numbers 25 to 33 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
10. Question numbers 34 to 36 in Section B are two marks questions based on practical skills. These are to be answered in brief.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1. Write the next homologue of each of the following:
(i)C₂H₄ (ii) C₄H₆
Answer. (i) Next homologue of C₂H₄ is C₃H₆.
(ii) Next homologue of C₄H₆ is C₅H₈.

Question.2. Name the part of Bryophyllum where the buds are produced for vegetative propagation.
Answer. The leaves produce buds in Bryophyllum which are used for vegetative propagation.

Question.3. List two natural ecosystems.
Answer. Two natural ecosystems are: Lake and Pond

Question.4. State two positions in which a concave mirror produces a magnified image of a given object. List two differences between the two images.
Answer. The two positions are:

1. When an object is placed between the pole (p) and focus (f) of a concave mirror, the image formed is larger than the object (or magnified).
2. When an object is placed between the focus (f) and centre of curvature (c) of a concave mirror, the image formed is larger than the object.
   

Question.5. List four advantages of properly managed watershed management.
Answer. Four advantages of properly managed watershed management are:

1. Watershed management emphasizes scientific soil and water conservation in order to increase the biomass production. It strictly maintains the water quality.
2. Watershed management develops primary resources of land and water, to produce secondary resources of plants and animals for use in a manner which will not cause ecological imbalance.
3. Watershed management increases the production and income of the watershed community.
4. It mitigates droughts and floods and increases the life of the downstream dam and reservoirs.

Question.6. Explain giving example where active involvement of local people lead to efficient management of forest.
Answer.

1. People’s participation in the management of forests can help in increasing forest produce as well as in their conservation. ‘
2. In 1972, the West Bengal Forest Department formulated a novel scheme to revive the degraded Sal forests by involving the local people.
3. A far sighted forest officer A.K. Banerjee involved the villagers of the area around the forest in the protection of 1272 hectares of badly degraded Sal forest.
4. In return for help in protecting the forest, the villagers were given employment in both silviculture and harvesting operations of the forest, 25% of the final harvest produce, and were allowed to collect firewood and fodder from the forest area on nominal payment.
5. With the active and willing participation of local people living around the forest, the degraded Sal forest of Arabari became thick and green within ten years.

Question.7. What are covalent compounds? Why are they different from ionic compounds? List their three characteristic properties.
Answer.

1. The chemical bond formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms is known as a covalent bond. The molecules formed by sharing of electrons between two or more same atoms or between two or more non-metals are called covalent compounds.
2. Covalent compounds are different from ionic compounds as ionic compounds are formed by transference of electrons.

Characteristics of covalent compounds:

1. Covalent compounds usually have low melting and boiling points as they are formed by electrically neutral molecules. So, the force of attraction between the molecules of covalent compounds is very weak. Only a small amount of heat energy is required to break these forces.
2. Covalent compounds are usually insoluble in water but they are soluble in organic solvents.
3. Covalent compounds do not conduct electricity as they do not contain ions.

Question.8. When ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of cone. H₂SO₄ a substance with fruity smell is produced. Answer the following:

1. State the class of compounds to which the fruity smelling compounds belong. Write the chemical equation for the reaction and write the chemical name of the product formed.
2.  State the role of cone. H₂SO₄ in this reaction.

Answer.

1. Esters are the fruity smelling compounds.
   
2. Esterification takes place in the presence of catalyst concentrated H₂SO₄. It acts as a dehydrating agent, i.e., helps in the removal of water formed in the reaction between alcohol and carboxylic acid.

Question.9. Calcium is an element with atomic number 20. Stating reason answer each of the following questions:

1. Is calcium a metal or non-metal?
2. Will its atomic radius be larger or smaller than that of potassium with atomic number 19?
3. Write the formula of its oxide.

Answer. Calcium (Ca)
Atomic number = 20 Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 2

1. It is a metal as it has two electrons in its outermost shell and it loses these two electrons to acquire inert gas configuration and form +2 ion.
2.  Potassium (atomic number 19) is placed before Calcium (atomic number 20) in the same period (IV period). Therefore, size of Ca is smaller than K since on moving from left to right in a period of the periodic table, the size of the atoms decreases. As on moving from left to right in a period, the atomic number of the elements increases which means that the number of protons and electrons in the atoms increases (the extra electrons being added to the same shell). Due to large positive charge on the nucleus, the outermost shell is pulled with more force by the nucleus, it moves closer to the nucleus and the size of the atom decreases.
3. The oxide of calcium is calcium oxide (CaO).

Question.10. An element ‘M’ with electronic configuration (2, 8, 2) combines separately with (N0₃)^–, (S0₄)^2- and (P0₄)^3- radicals. Write the formula of the three compounds so formed. To which group and period of the Modem Periodic Table does the elements ‘M’ belong? Will ‘M’ form covalent or ionic compounds? Give reason to justify your answer.
Answer.

• The electronic configuration (2, 8, 2) of the element ‘M’ suggests that it belongs to group 2 and period 3 of the Modern Periodic Table and its valency is 2.
• The chemical formulae of the compounds formed are:
  (i) M(N0₃)₂ (ii) MS0₄ (iii) M₃(P0₄)₂
•  ‘M’ will form ionic compounds by losing two valence electrons to achieve a noble gas configuration, that is, a stable octet in the valence shell.

Question.11. How do organisms, whether reproduced asexually or sexually maintain a constant chromosome number through several generations? Explain with the help of suitable example.
Answer.

• When organisms reproduce asexually, a basic event in reproduction is the creation of a DNA copy. Cells use chemical reactions to build copies of their DNA. This creates two copies of the DNA in a reproducing cell, and they will need to be separated from each other. However, keeping one copy of DNA in the original cell and simply pushing the other one out would not work, because the copy pushed out would not have any organised cellular structure for maintaining life processes. Therefore, DNA copying is accompanied by the creation of an additional cellular apparatus, and then DNA copies separate, each with its own cellular apparatus. Effectively, a cell divides to give rise to two cells. Thus, chromosome number remains unchanged. For example, reproduction of amoeba by binary fission.
• In sexual reproduction, organisms produce gametes through a special type of division, meiosis —reductional division, in which the original number of chromosomes becomes half. These two gametes then combine to form the zygote and the original number of chromosomes is restored as in the case of human beings.

Question.12. Name the parts A, B and C shown in the following diagram and state one function of each.

Answer. A—> Anther. It produces pollen grains which are the male gametes.
B —> Style. It provides the path through which the pollen tube grows and reaches the ovary.
C—> Ovary. It contains ovules and each ovule has an egg cell/female gamete. It develops into fruit after fertilization.

Question.13. Suggest three contraceptive methods to control the size of human population which is essential for the health and prosperity of a country. State the basic principle involved in each.
Answer. There are three different methods of contraception:

1. Barrier methods. In these methods, physical devices such as condoms, diaphragms and cervical caps are used. These devices prevent the entry of sperm in the female genital tract, thus acting as a barrier between them.
2. Surgical methods. There are surgeries that can be carried out in males and females. In males, a small portion of the sperm duct (vas deferens) is blocked by a surgical operation. This prevents the sperms from coming out.
   In females, a small portion of the fallopian tubes (oviducts) is blocked by a surgical operation. It prevents the egg from reaching the uterus. In both the cases, fertilisation will not take place.
3. Chemical methods. This category of contraceptives acts by changing the hormonal balance of the body so that eggs are not released and fertilisation cannot occur. Females use two types of pills for preventing pregnancies, i.e., oral pills and vaginal pills. The oral pills contain hormones which stop the ovaries from releasing ovum into the fallopian tube. This is also called oral contraceptives (OC). Other contraceptive devices such as loop or the copper-T are placed in the uterus to prevent pregnancy.

Question.14. In one of his experiments with pea plants Mendel observed that when a pure tall pea plant is crossed with a pure dwarf pea plant, in the first generation, Fa only tall plants appear.

1. What happens to the traits of the dwarf plants in this case?
2. When the F₁ generation plants were self-fertilised, he observed that in the plants
   of second generation, F₂ both tall plants and dwarf plants were present. Why it happened? Explain briefly.

Answer.

1. Mendel first crossed pure-bred tall pea plants with pure-bred dwarf pea plants and found that only tall pea plants were produced in the first generation or F₁ generation. No dwarf pea plants were obtained in the first generation of progeny. From this Mendel concluded that the F₁ generation showed the traits of only one of the parent plants: tallness being the dominant trait. The trait of other parent plant, dwarfness, being recessive did not show up in the progeny of first generation.
   
2. In the F₂ generation, both the tall and dwarf traits are present in the ratio of 3 :1. This showed that the traits for tallness and dwarfness are present in the F₁  generation, being the recessive trait does not express itself in the presence of tallness, the dominant trait.
   

Question.15. List three distinguishing features, in tabular form, between acquired traits and the inherited traits.
Answer.

Question.16. Draw the following diagram, in which a ray of light is incident on a concave/convex mirror, on your answer sheet. Show the path of this ray, after reflection, in each case.

Answer.

Question.17. Why does the sun appear reddish early in the morning? Will this phenomenon be observed by an observer on the moon? Justify your answer with a reason.
Answer. The sun at sunrise (early in the morning) is located near the horizon of the earth. Light from the sun near the horizon has to pass through thick layers of air and a large distance through the earth’s atmosphere before reaching our eyes. Near the horizon, most of the blue light rays with shorter wavelength are scattered away by the particles in the atmosphere. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is the red light of longer wavelengths. This gives rise to the reddish appearance of the sun.
This phenomenon will not be observed by an observer on the moon because there is no atmosphere on the moon to. scatter light.

Question.18. Give reason to justify the following:

1. The existence of decomposers is essential in a biosphere.
2.  Flow of energy in a food chain is unidirectional.

Answer.

1. Decomposers break down complex organic substances (dead remains and waste products of organisms) into simpler inorganic substances that can be absorbed by the plants. They are essential for the proper functioning of an ecosystem.
   • Decomposers play an important role in the cycling of materials in the biosphere.
   • By decomposing dead bodies of plants and animals they help irt cleaning the environment.
   • They replenish the soil naturally.
2. In the ecosystem energy flows from one trophic level to the next trophic level of the food chain. Energy flows from producers, i.e., green plants to the consumers. It does not flow from the last consumers to its previous consumers and so on. The energy captured by the autotrophs does not go back to the solar input. Thus the energy does not flow back from consumers to the producers. Hence the flow of energy in a food chain is unidirectional.

Question.19. (a) Give a chemical test to distinguish between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbon.
(b) Name the products formed when ethane burns in air. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction showing the types of energies liberated.
(c) Why is reaction between methane and chlorine in the presence of sunlight considered a substitution reaction?
Answer. (a) Bromine water test. The addition of bromine (Br₂ ) gives addition reactions with unsaturated compounds (like alkenes and alkynes). The addition of bromine is used as a test for unsaturated compounds. For this purpose, bromine is used in the form of bromine water. A solution of bromine in water is called bromine water. Bromine water has a red-brown colour due to the presence of bromine in it. When bromine water is added to an unsaturated compound, then bromine gets added to the unsaturated compound and the red-brown colour of bromine water is discharged. So, if an organic compound decolourises bromine water, then it will be an unsaturated hydrocarbon (containing a double bond or a triple bond), but saturated hydrocarbon (alkanes) do not decolourise bromine water.
(b) When ethane bums in air, carbon dioxide and water vapours are formed along with heat and light.

(c) Methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight to form chloromethane and hydrogen chloride.

In this reaction, one ‘H’ atom of methane has been substituted (replaced) by a ‘Cl’ atom, converting CH₄ to CH₃Cl. Hence, it is considered a substitution reaction.

Question.20. (a) Write the functions of the following parts in human female reproductive system: (i) Ovary (ii) Oviduct (iii) Uterus
(b) Describe the structure and function of placenta.
Answer. (a) (i) Ovary. The ovaries produce thousands of eggs in the female body.
• It produces female hormones called estrogen.
• It produces female gamete ova.
(ii) Oviduct
• Transfer of female gamete (egg) from the ovary to the uterus takes place through the oviduct (or fallopian tube).
• The fertilisation of egg (or ovum) by a sperm takes place in the oviduct.
(iii) Uterus. The growth and development of a fertilised ovum into a baby takes place in the uterus.
(b) Structure of placenta. Placenta is the link between the mother’s body and the baby (embryo). It is a disc like structure embedded in the uterine wall connected to the embryo. It has villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue and on the mother’s side, it has blood spaces which surround the villi.
Function of placenta. It provides a large surface area for nutrients (glucose) and oxygen to pass from the mother’s side to the embryo and waste substances from the embryo’s side to the mother’s blood.

Question.21. What is meant by speciation? List four factors that could lead to speciation. Which of these cannot be a major factor in the speciation of a self-pollinating plant species. Give reason to justify your answer.
Answer.  Speciation. The process by which new species develop from the existing species by evolution or any genetic modification of previous species is known as speciation.
The important factors which could lead to the formation of new species are:

1. Geographical isolation of a population caused by various types of barriers like mountain ranges, rivers, sea etc. The geographical isolation leads to reproductive isolation due to which there is no flow of genes between separated groups of population.
2.  Genetic drift caused by drastic changes in the frequencies of particular genes by’ chance alone,
3. Variations caused in individuals due to natural selection.
4. Drastic change in the genes or DNA called mutation is also a cause of speciation. Reproductive isolation can not be a major factor for the speciation of a self-pollinating plant species as it does not depend on any other plant for its reproduction process.

Question.22. (a) Define the following terms in the context of spherical mirrors:
(i) Pole (ii) Centre of curvature
(iii) Principal axis (iv) Principal focus
(b) Draw ray diagrams to show the principal focus of a:
(i) Concave mirror (ii) Convex mirror
(c) Consider the following diagram in which M is a mirror and P is an object and Q is its magnified image formed by the mirror.

State the type of the mirror M and one characteristic property of the image Q.
Answer.

(i) Pole. The middle point of the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is called letter P represents pole, MP = M’P.
(ii) Centre of curvature. It is the centre of the sphere of glass of which the mirror is a part,The letter C represents the centre of curvature.
(iii) Principal axis of a spherical mirror is the straight line joining the centre of and pole of the mirror.
(iv) Principal focus. The mid-point of CP is called focus (F). It is the point on the axis of a spherical mirror where all incident rays parallel to the Principal axis meet or appear to diverge after reflection.
(b) Ray diagrams of principal focus:
(i) Concave mirror. In a concave mirror the reflected rays of incident rays parallel to principal axis actually pass through the focus concave mirror has a real principal focus.

(ii) Convex mirror. In a convex mirror the reflected rays do not actually pass through the focus (F). Thus, a convex mirror has a virtual principal focus situated behind the mirror.

(c) The mirror used in the given diagram is a concave spherical mirror. Image formed (Q) is virtual and magnified.

Question.23. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image by a convex lens when an object is placed in front of the lens between its optical centre and principal focus.
(b) In the above ray diagram mark the object-distance (u) and the image-distance (ν) with their proper signs (+ve or -ve as per the new Cartesian sign convention) and state how these distances are related to the focal length if) of the convex lens in this case.
(c) Find the power of a convex lens which forms a real, and inverted image of magnification -1 of an object placed at a distance of 20 cm from its optical centre.
Answer. (a) When the object is placed in front of a convex lens between its optical centre and principal focus (i.e., between O and F’): –

The image formed is (i) behind the object (on the same date)
(ii) virtual
(iii) erect
(iv) magnified
(b) —u (OB)
-ν (OB’)
+/(OF)
as shown in the above diagram.

Question.24. (a) Write the function of each of the following parts of human eye:
cornea; iris; crystalline lens; ciliary muscles (b) Millions of people of the developing countries of the world are suffering from corneal blindness. These persons can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of a donated eye. A charitable society of your city has organised a campaign in your neighbourhood in order to create awareness about this fact. If you are asked to participate in this mission how would you contribute in this noble cause?
(i) State the objective of organising such campaigns.
(ii) List two arguments which you would give to motivate the people to donate their eyes after death.
(iii) List two values which are developed in the persons who actively participate and contribute in such programmes.
Answer. (a) Functions of the following parts of human eye:

1. Cornea. The front part of the eye is called cornea. It is made up of a transparent substance. The light coming from objects enters the eye through cornea.
2. Iris. This is a flat, coloured, ring-shaped membrane behind the cornea. Pupil is a hole in the middle of the iris. Iris controls the size of the pupil.
3. Crystalline lens. Eye lens is a convex lens which focuses the image of the object on the retina.
4.  Ciliary muscles. Ciliary muscles hold the eye lens and changes the thickness of eye-lens while focussing.

(b) (i) Objective of such campaigns. To make people aware of corneal blindness and make them realise their duties towards the society by taking pledge for eye donation.
(ii) • One pair of eyes can give eyesight to two corneal blind persons (each getting one eye), and make them see this beautiful world.
• Our eyes can live even after our death. People belonging to all age groups, even people with medical conditions like cataract, diabetes, hypertension can donate their eyes.
(iii) Values developed in persons who actively participate in such programmes:
• Concern for others and social welfare.
• Responsible behaviour and awareness.

SECTION B
Question.25. Which of the following sets of materials can be used for conducting a saponification reaction for the preparation of soap?
(a) Ca(OH)₂ and neem oil (b) NaOH and neem oil
(c) NaOH and mineral oil (d) Ca(OH)₂ and mineral oil
Answer. (b)

Question.26. A student takes four test tubes marked P, Q, R and S of 25 mL capacity and fills 10 mL of distilled water in each. He dissolves one spoon full of four different salts in each as — KCl in P, NaCl in Q, CaCl₂ in R and MgCl₂ in S. He then adds about 2 mL of a sample of soap solution to each of the above test tubes. On shaking the contents of each of the test tubes, he is likely to observe a good amount of lather (foam) in the test tubes marked:
(a) P and Q (b) R and S (c) P, Q and R (d) P, Q and S
Answer. (a)

Question.27. Consider the following comments about saponification reactions:
(I) Heat is evolved in these reactions. ‘
(II) For quick precipitation of soap sodium chloride is added to the reaction mixture.
(III) Saponification reactions are special kind of neutralisation reactions.
(IV) Soaps are basic salts of long chain fatty acids.
The correct comments are:
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and IV (d) Only 1 and IV
Answer. (c)

Question.28. A student has to perform the experiment “To identify the different parts of an embryo of a dicot seed.” Select from the following an appropriate group of seeds:
(a) pea, gram, wheat (b) red kidney bean, maize, gram
(c) maize, wheat, red kidney bean (c) red kidney bean, pea, gram
Answer. (d)

Question.29. Which of the following is a correct set of homologous organs?
(a) Forelimbs of frog, bird and lizard (b) Spine of cactus and thorn of bougainvillea
(c) Wings of bat and wings of butterfly (d) Wings of a bird and wings of a bat
Answer. (a)

Question.30. A student obtained a sharp image of a candle flame placed at the distant end of the laboratory table on a screen using a concave mirror to determine its focal length. The teacher suggested him to focus a distant building about 1 km far from the laboratory, for getting more correct value of the focal length. In order to focus the distant building on the same screen the student should slightly move the
(a) mirror away from the screen (b) screen away from the mirror
(c) screen towards the mirror (d) screen towards the building
Answer. (c)

Question.31. To determine the approximate focal length of the given convex lens by focussing a distant object (say, a sign board), you try to focus the image of the object on a screen. The image you obtain on the screen is always:
(a) erect and laterally inverted (b) erect and diminished
(c) inverted and diminished (d) virtual, inverted and diminished
Answer. (c)

Question.32. Select from the following the best experimental set-up for tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab:

(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
Answer. (d)

Question.33. Study the following figure in which a student has marked the angle of incidence (∠i), angle of refraction (∠r), angle of emergence (∠e), angle of prism (∠A) and the angle of deviation (∠D).The correctly marked angles are:

Answer. (a)

Question.34. What do you observe when you drop a few drops of acetic acid Pi a test tube containing:

1. phenolphthalein
2. distilled water
3. universal indicator
4. sodium hydrogen carbonate powder

Answer. Action of acetic acid on

1. phenolphthalein —> no change/ remains colourless
2. distilled water —> no change, acetic acid dissolves in distilled water.
3. universal indicator —> Turns orange
4.  sodium hydrogen carbonate powder —> evolution of colourless, odourless gas with brisk effervescence.

Question.35. Draw a labelled diagram to show that particular stage of binary fission in amoeba in which its nucleus elongates and divides into two and a constriction appears in its cell membrane.
Answer.

Question.36. A student focuses the image of a well illuminated distant object on a screen using a convex lens. After that he gradually moves the object towards the lens and each time focuses its image on the screen by adjusting the lens.

1. In which direction—towards the screen or away from the screen, does he move the lens?
2. What happens to the size of the image —does it decrease or increase?
3. What happens to the image on the screen when he moves the object very close to the lens?

Answer.

1. He should move the lens towards the screen.
2. Size of the image increases.
3. No image will be formed on the screen.

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
SECTION A
Question.1. Name the following compounds:

Answer.

Question.2. What is DNA?
Answer. DNA. Deoxyribonucleic acid is a genetic material found in all the living organisms.
It is the carrier of hereditary information from parents to the next generation.

Question.3. List two biotic components of a biosphere.
Answer.  Biotic components:

• Plants
• Animals
•  Micro organisms
• Decomposers, etc.

Question.4. A ray of light is incident on a convex mirror as shown. Redraw the diagram and complete the path of this ray after reflection from the mirror. Mark angle of incidence and angle of reflection on it.

Answer.

Question.7.What is an oxidising agent? What happens when an oxidising agent is added to propanol? Explain with the help of a chemical equation.
Answer.

• The substance that supplies oxygen in a reaction for oxidation is called an oxidising agent. Examples of oxidising agents are potassium permanganate, potassium dichromate etc.
• When propanol is heated with alkaline potassium permanganate solution (or acidified potassium dichromate solution), it gets oxidised to propanoic acid.
  

Question.10. Name any two elements of group one and write their electronic configurations. What similarity do you observe in their electronic configurations? Write the formula of oxide of any of the aforesaid element.
Answer. Two elements of group 1
Na = Sodium K = Potassium
Electronic configuration of:
Na = 2, 8,1 K = 2, 8, 8,1
Similarity between Na and K. Both have one electron in their outermost shell. Thus both have one valence electron-and valency one.
Oxide of Sodium => Na₂0 Oxide of Potassium => K₂0

Question.11. What are the functions of testes in the human male reproductive system? Why are these located outside the abdominal cavity? Who is responsible for bringing about changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty?
Answer. Functions of testes are:

1. to make male sex cells (or male gametes) called sperms.
2.  to make the male sex hormone called testosterone.
3. The testes of a man lie in a small muscular pouch called scrotum outside the abdominal cavity of the body. This is because the sperm formation requires a lower temperature than the normal body temperature. Being outside the abdominal cavity, the temperature of scrotum is about 3° C lower than the temperature inside the body and thus the testes are provided an optimal temperature for the formation of sperms. The male sex hormone testosterone is responsible for bringing about changes in ‘ appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty.

Question.13. What is multiple fission? How does it occur in an organism? Explain briefly. Name one organism which exhibits this type of reproduction.
Answer. Multiple fission. The process of asexual reproduction in which many individuals are produced from the parent cell Process. Sometimes during unfavourable conditions a protective wall or cyst is formed around the cell of a single celled organism (like in plasmodium). Inside the cyst, the nucleus of the cell splits several times to form many smaller nuclei called daughter nuclei. Each nucleus gathers a bit of cytoplasm around itself, develops a membrane around each structure. Thus many daughter cells develop which on liberation grow into adult organisms. Plasmodium exhibits multiple fission.

Question.14. How did Mendel interpret his result to show that traits may be dominant or recessive? Describe briefly.
Answer.

• In Mendel’s experiment with pea plants, when he cross bred a pure tall pea plant with a pure dwarf pea plant, he found that the first generation F₁ was of only tall plants. Tallness is the dominant trait.
• Then he produced F₂ generation by selling of hybrids F₁ .
•  In the T₁ progeny, no dwarf plants were obtained. However in F₂ generation, both tall and dwarf plants were obtained in the ratio 3 : 2 respectively.
• The trait which remains hidden in F, generation, i.e., dwarfness is the recessive trait.
• He observed that even when riot expressed in the first generation, alternate forms of a trait could retain their identify in the hybrid and could re-emerge in the next generation.
  

Question.16. What is meant by scattering of light? The sky appears blue and the Sun appears reddish at sunrise and sunset. Explain these phenomena with reason.
Answer. Scattering of light. The phenomenon of spreading of light when it falls on various types of suspended particles in its path is called scattering of light.

1. The sky appears blue because of scattering of white light that takes place in the atmosphere. The molecules of air and other fine particles suspended in the atmosphere have a size smaller than the wavelength of visible light. So these particles scatter more effectively the light rays of shorter wavelength at the blue end than light rays of longer wavelengths at the red end. Thus, when sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the fine particles in air scatter blue light. When the scattered blue light enters our eyes, it gives us the feeling of a blue sky.
2. The sun at sunrise and at sunset time is located very near to the horizon of the earth. Hence light has to travel a long distance through the earth’s atmosphere. Near the horizon most of the blue light of shorter wavelength is scattered away by the particles in the atmosphere. Therefore, the red light of longer wavelengths is least scattered by the air particles and is able to reach our eyes. This gives rise to the reddish appearance of the Sun at sunrise and sunset.

Question.22. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image by a concave lens when an
object is placed in front of it.
(b) In the above diagram mark the object-distance (u) and the image-distance (ν) with their proper signs (+ve or -ve as per the new Cartesian sign convention) and state how these distances are related to the focal length (f) of the concave lens in this case.
(c) Find the nature and power of a lens which forms a real and inverted image of
magnification -1 at a distance of 40 cm from its optical centre.
Answer. (a) Concave lens. See Q. 24(a), 2011 (I Outside Delhi).
(b) CB = —u CF = -f CB=-ν

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II.
SECTION A
Question.1. Select saturated hydrocarbons from the following:
C₃H₆ ; C₅H₁₀ ; C₄H₁₀ ; C₆H₁₄ ; C₂H₄
Answer. Saturated hydrocarbons:
General formula = C_nH_2n+2
C₄H₁₀, C₆H₁₄

Question.2. What happens when a Planaria gets cut into two pieces?
Answer. When a Planaria gets cut into two pieces, then each piece regenerates into a new planaria.

Question.3. Why are green plants called producers?
Answer. Green plants are called producers because green plants synthesize their own food during photosynthesis by taking raw materials from the earth and energy from the Sun.

Question.4. What is meant by power of a lens? What does its sign (+ve or -ve) indicate? State its S.I. unit. How is this unit related to focal length of a lens?
Answer.

• The power of a lens is a measure of the degree of convergence or divergence of light rays falling
• +ve sign —> converging lens/’convex lens -ve sign —> diverging lens/concave lens
•  The SI unit of lens is dioptre. One dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal length is 1 metre.

Question.6. “Reuse is better than recycling of materials”. Give reason to justify this statement.
Answer. The ‘reuse’ strategy is better than ‘recycling’ because even the process of recycling uses large amount of energy and money. In the reuse strategy we can preserve energy. For instance, plastic bottles in which we buy various food items like jam and pickle can be used for storing things in the kitchen. Whereas, if we send the discarded plastic bottles for recycling to the industry, we will be using energy sources for the recycling process.

Question.7. Name the compound formed when ethanol is heated is excess of cone, sulphuric acid at 443 K. Also write the chemical equation of the reaction stating the role of cone, sulphuric acid in it. What would happen if hydrogen is added to the product of this reaction in the presence of catalysts such as palladium or nickel?
Answer.

• When ethanol is heated with excess of concentrated sulphuric acid at 170° C (443K) it gets dehydrated to form ethene (an unsaturated hydrocarbon).
  
• In this reaction, concentrated sulphuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent which removes water molecule from the ethanol molecule.
•  If hydrogen is added to the ethene (product of above reaction) in the presence of catalysts like palladium or nickel then one atom of H adds to each carbon atom of ethene due to which the double bond opens up to form a single bond in ethane.
  

Question.9. Two elements ‘A’ and ‘B’ belong to the 3rd period of Modern periodic table and are in group 2 and 13 respectively. Compare their following characteristics in tabular form:
(a) Number of electrons in their atoms
(b) Size of their atoms
(c) Their tendencies to lose electrons
(d) The formula of their oxides
(e) Their metallic character
(f) The formula of their chlorides 3
Answer. Electronic configuration of A = 2, 8, 2
Electronic configuration of B = 2, 8, 3

Question.11. What is meant by pollination? Name and differentiate between the two modes pollination in flowering plants.
Answer. See Q. 21, 2013 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.14. In a mono hybrid cross between tall pea plants (TT) and short pea plants (tt) a scientist obtained only tall pea plants (Tt) in the F₁ generation. However, on selfing the F₂ generation pea plants, he obtained both tall and short plants in F₂ generation. On the basis of above observations with other angiosperms also, can the scientist arrive at a law? If yes, explain the law. If not, give justification for your answer.
Answer. Law of Segregation:
When plants of two different traits of character are cross bred to get a progeny (F₁ generation), only the dominant trait is visible in this generation. But when plants of F₁ generation are self bred then the two traits of character get separated and the recessive traits also appears in the plant of F₂ generation. This is known as Law of Segregation (separation) of traits.
Law of Dominance:
According to this law, the characteristics (or traits) of an organism are determined by internal ‘factors’ which occur in pairs. Only one of a pair of such factors can be presented in a single gamete. This law explains expression of only of the parental character in F₁ generation and expression of both in F₂ generation.

Question.16. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through a glass slab and mark angle of refraction and the lateral shift suffered by the ray of light while passing through the slab.
(b) If the refractive index of glass for light going from air to glass is 3/2, find the refractive index of air for light going from glass to air.
Answer. (a) Ray diagram of refraction through a glass slab.

Question.17. State the cause of dispersion of white light passing through a glass prism. How did Newton show that white light of Sun contains seven colours using two identical glass prisms. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of light when two identical glass prisms are arranged together in inverted position with respect to each other and a narrow beam of white light is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the focus of the first prism.
Answer.

• White light is a mixture of lights of seven colours, red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet. The dispersion of white light occurs because colours of white light travel at different speeds through the glass prism. The amount of refraction depends on the speed of coloured light in glass.
• When white light consisting of seven colours falls on a glass prism, each colour in it is refracted by a different angle, with the result that seven colours are spread out to form a spectrum. The red light bends the least, while violet bends the most.

Newton s experiment with two identical prisms:

• When a beam of white light is passed through a glass prism, a band of seven colours is formed on a white screen. This band of seven colours is called spectrum of white light.
• Newton showed that the seven coloured lights of the spectrum can be recombined to give back white light.
• First he tried to split the colours of the spectrum of white light using a prism.
• He then placed a second identical prism in an inverted position with respect to the first prism. This allowed all the colours of the spectrum to pass through the second prism. He found a beam of white light emerging from the other side of the second prism.
  

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Delhi 2016 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Delhi – 2011

ScienceMathsSanskritEnglishComputer ScienceHindiSocial Science
Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1.  The Question Paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the Sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. All questions ofSection-A and all questions ofSection-B are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section-A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
5. Question numbers 4 to 6 in Section-A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
6. Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section-A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in
   about 50 words each.
7. Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section-A are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
8.  Question numbers 25 to 36 in Section-B are questions based on practical skills. Question nos. 25 to 33 are MCQs. Each question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you. Question nos. 34 to 36 are short answer questions carrying two marks each.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1 How many covalent bonds are there in a molecule of ethane,C₂H₆?
Answer. There are seven covalent bonds in a molecule of ethane:

Question.2 What is Tyndall effect?
Answer. The scattering of a beam of light is called the Tyndall effect. Tyndall effect can be observed when sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest. In a dense forest, the mist contains tiny droplets of water, which act as particles of colloid dispersed in air.

Question.3 What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?
Answer. It will disturb the food chains and food web, which in turn will decrease the chances of food availability to the succeeding trophic levels and will result in instability of the ecosystem.

Question.4(i) How do you calculate the possible valency of an element from the electronic
configuration of its atoms?
(ii)Calculate the valency of an element X whose atomic number is 9.
Answer.
(i) The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons present in the atom of the element. Electronic configuration gives the number of valence electrons in its atom. The number of valence electrons decides the number of electrons lost or gained by one atom of an element to achieve the nearest inert gas electron configuration and gives the valency of element.

X gains 1 electron to achieve the nearest inert gas configuration , i.e,, 2, 8. Therefore the valency of X is ‘T.

Question.5 Write any two differences between binary fission and multiple fission in a tabular form as observed in cells of organisms.
Answer.

Question.6 How does the electronic configuration of an atom of an element relate to its position in the modern periodic table? Explain with one example.
Answer. The electronic configuration of an atom of an element gives its position in the modem periodic table.

(i) The ‘period number’ of an element is equal to the number of electron shells in its atom.
(ii)

•  The group number of an element having up to two valence electrons is equal to the
  number of valence electrons.
•  The group number of an element having more than 2 valence electrons is equal to the number of valence electrons plus 10.
  Example: If the electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 7
  Then its period number is 3 as it has three electron shells.
  Its group number is 17 as it has 7 valence electrons. (.^..  Group no. = 7+10 = 17)

Question.7 (a) What is meant by the dispersion of white light? Draw a diagram to show
dispersion of white light by the glass prism.
(b) Explain why the planets do not twinkle but the stars twinkle.
Answer.

(a) Dispersion of light. The splitting of white light into its component colours on passing through a prism is called dispersion of light.
(b) The planets are much closer to the earth. A planet can be considered as a collection of large number of point-sized sources of light.
So the total variation in the amount of light entering our eye from all the individual point-sized sources will average out to zero thereby nullifying the twinkling effect. On the other hand stars twinkle because stars are point-sized sources of energy therefore the continuously changing atmosphere causes atmospheric refraction which causes variation in light.

Question.8 Define homologous and analogous organs.
Classify the following as homologous or analogous organs:
(i) Wings of an insect and wings of bat.
(ii)Forelimbs of a man and forelimbs of a frog.
Answer.
Homologous organs: Those organs which have the same basic structure or same basic design but different functions, are called homologous organs.
Analogous organs: Those organs which have different basic structure or different basic design but have similar appearance and perform similar functions are called analogous organs.

1. Wings of an insect and wings of bat are analogous organs.
2. Forelimbs of a man and forelimbs of frog are homologous organs.

Question.9(a) List any two characteristics of a good fuel.
(b) What are non-renewable resources of energy? Give two examples of such resources.
Answer.(a) Characteristics of a good fuel:

1.  It should have a high calorific value.
2. It should burn without giving out any smoke or harmful gases.
3. Its ignition temperature should neither be too low nor too high.
4.  After burning it should not leave much ash behind. (any.two)

(b) Those sources of energy which have accumulated in nature over a very-very long time and cannot be quickly replaced when exhausted, are called non-renewable sources of energy.
Example: Fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, natural gas) and nuclear fuels (uranium) are non-renewable sources of energy.

Question.10 Explain how equal genetic contribution of male and female parents is ensured in the progeny.
Answer. Both the parents contribute equal DNA material to progeny. Every sexually reproducing organism bears two sets of all genes, one inherited from each parent. Each germ cell must have only one gene set. Thus the male gamete and female gamete carry one gene for each characteristic from the gene pairs of parents. But when a male gamete fuses with a female gamete during fertilisation, they make a new cell called zygote with a full set of genes. Thus zygote grows and develops to form a new organism having equal characteristics from both the parents which it has inherited through genes.

Question.11 Explain the terms:
(i) Speciation (ii) Natural selection
Answer.
(i) Speciation. The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as speciation.
The important factors which could lead to the formation of new species are:

•  Geographical isolation of a population caused by various types of barriers like mountain ranges, rivers, sea etc. The geographical isolation leads to reproductive isolation due to which there is no flow of genes between separated groups of population.
•  Genetic drift caused by drastic changes in the frequencies of particular genes by chance alone.
•  Variations caused in individuals due to natural selection.

(ii) Natural selection. Natural selection is the process of evolution of a species whereby characteristics which help individual organisms to survive and reproduce are passed on to their offsprings and those characteristics which do not help are not passed on.

Question.12 Explain with examples how the following are evidences in favour of evolution in organisms.

1.  Homologous organs
2. Analogous organs
3.  Fossils

Answer.

1.  Homologous organs. Those organs, which have the same basic structure but different functions, are called homologous organs.
   For example: The forelimbs of a man, a lizard, a frog, a bird and a bat have the same basic design of bones but they perform different functions.
   The presence of homologous organs in different animals provides evidence for evolution that they are derived from the same ancestor who has the basic design of the organ on which all the homologous organs are based.
2.  Analogous organs. Those organs, which have different basic structure but have similar appearance and perform similar functions are called analogous organs.
   For example: The wings of an insect and a bird have different structures but they perform the same function of flying.
   Analogous organs provide evidence for evolution that the organisms from different ancestors perform similar functions to survive, flourish and keep on evolving in prevailing environment.
3.  Fossils. The remains of dead animals or plants that lived in the remote past are known as fossils. The fossils provide evidence for evolution.
   For example: A fossil of a bird called Archaeopteryx looks like a bird but it has many other features found in reptiles. Therefore Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between the reptiles and birds and hence suggests that the birds have evolved from the reptiles.

Question.13 Write one chemical equation to represent each of the following types of reactions of organic substances:
(i) Esterification (ii) Saponification (iii) Substitution
Answer.

Question.14 Two elements X and Y belong to group 1 and 2 respectively in the same period of periodic table. Compare them with respect to:

1. the number of valence electrons in their atoms;
2. their valencies;
3. metallic character;
4. the sizes of their atoms;
5.  the formulae of their oxides;
6. the formulae of their chlorides.

Answer.

•  X and Y belong to same period.
• X belongs to group ‘T.
• Y belongs to group ‘2’.

1. Valence electron in X is 1 whereas valence electrons in Y are 2.
2. The valency of X is 1 whereas valency of Y is 2.
3. X is more metallic than Y because metallic character decreases on moving from left to right in a period.
4.  The size of X is more than Y because size of the atom decreases on moving from left to right in a period.
5. Oxide of X = X₂ 0 Oxide of Y = YO
6.  Chloride of X = XCl Chloride of Y = YCl₂

Question.15 Draw the ray diagram and also state the position, the relative size and the nature of image formed by a concave mirror when the object is placed at the centre of curvature of the mirror.
Answer.

When the object is at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, i.e., point C:
The image formed is

1. real
2. inverted
3.  same size as the object at C
4.  at C

Question.16 Define, ‘refractive index of a transparent medium.’ What is its unit? Which has a higher refractive index—glass or water?
Answer.

•  The light bending ability of a transparent medium is called the refractive index of that medium.
•  The ratio of speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is called the refractive index of that qredium.
  
•  Since refractive index is a ratio of two similar quantities therefore it has no units.
•  The refractive index of glass is more than water.

Question.17 What eye defect is hypermetropia? Describe with a ray diagram how this defect of vision can be corrected by using an appropriate lens.
Answer. Long sightedness is hypermetropia. Due to this defect, a person is not able to see the nearby objects clearly but can see the distant objects clearly.
Causes of long-sightedness. It is caused due to the following reasons:
— Normal increase in the focal length of the eye lens. The lens becomes less convergent.
— Shortening of the eyeball size.
Long sightedness can be corrected by using a convex lens of suitable focal length in the spectacles of such a person.
When a convex lens of suitable power is placed in front of the hypermetropic eye then the diverging rays of light coming from the nearby object are first converged by this convex lens. Due to this, the convex lens forms a virtual image of the nearby object at a point near to the hypermetropic eye. Then the hypermetropic eye can easily focus the image formed ‘ by convex lens on the retina.

Question.18 (a) List two sexually transmitted diseases in each of the following cases:
(i) Bacterial infections
(ii) Viral infections
(b) How may the spread of such diseases be prevented?
Answer.
(a) Sexually transmitted diseases:
(i) Bacterial infections. Gonorrhoea, Syphilis
(ii)Viral infections. Warts, AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome)

• Barrier method of contraception provides protection against STDs like AIDS,
  Syphilis etc.
• Observing hygienic conditions.

Question.19 Nalin and his four friends were sitting on his roof on a pleasant day. All of them were enjoying Ludo. Suddenly Ayush saw seven colours in the sky. He jumped with joy and shouted “Look, there is an Indradhanush in the sky”. Then Nalin explained all about the rainbow. After that every one clapped for him.
(a) What information is given by Nalin to his friends about a rainbow?
(b) Is it possible to obtain rainbow phenometwn on the earth?
(c) Which term is used for the seven colours of the rainbow?
(d) Which colour appeals at the top and at the bottom of the rainboiv?
(e) Which moral value is shown by Nalin towards his friends?
Answer.
(a) Rainbow is a natural phenomenon in which an arch of seven colours visible in the sky is produced by the dispersion of white sunlight by raindrops in the atmosphere. Each raindrop acts as a tiny glass prism splitting the sunlight into seven colours.
(b)Yes, in daily life, when white light of the Sun is passed through a glass prism, it splits into seven colours.
(c) The band of seven colours obtained by the splitting of white light is called VIBGYOR.
(d) The red colour appears at the top of the rainbow whereas violet colour appears at its bottom.
(e) Nalin shares his knowledge of Science with his friends. He shares interesting information about the concept of the rainbow with his friends. Sharing infor-mation is the moral value shown by Nalin.

Question.20 (a) What is a soap? Why are soaps not suitable for washing clothes when the water is hard?
(b) Explain the action of soap in removing an oily spot from a piece of cloth.
Answer.
(a) Soaps are sodium salts of fatty acids. Fatty acids are a type of carboxylic acids with
long chain of carbon atoms.
Soaps are not suitable for washing clothes when the water is hard:

• The formation of lather is necessary for removing dirt from clothes during the washing of clothes. Soap does not give lather with hard water as it reacts with the
  calcium and magnesium ions present in hard water to form insoluble precipitates of calcium and magnesium salts of fatty acids.
•  The scum (or precipitate) formed by the action of hard water on soap sticks to the clothes being washed and it interferes with the cleaning ability of soap. This makes the cleaning of clothes difficult.

(b) Action of soap in removing an oily spot from a piece of cloth. Most of the dirt particles on skin or clothes are oily in nature. When a dirty cloth is put in water containing dissolved soap, the oil does not dissolve in

water. The soap molecules are sodium or potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acids. The acid end of soap dissolves in water while its carbon chain dissolves in the oil. In this way soap molecules form rounded special type of structures called micelles in which one end of the soap molecule is towards the oil droplet while the acid end is towards the water. This forms an emulsion in water. In this way soap micelles help in removing the dirt particles from the surface and this dirt dissolves in water and the surface gets cleaned and washed.

Question.21 (a) Draw a diagram of the longitudinal section of a flower and label on it sepal, petal, ovary and stigma.
(b) Write the names of male and female reproductive parts of a flower.
Answer.

Question.22 (a) If the image formed by a lens is diminished in size and erect, for all positions of
the object, what type of lens is it?
(b) Name the point on the lens through which a ray of light passes undeviated.
(c) An object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal
length 20 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 30 cm. Find

1.  the position
2.  the magnification and
3.  the nature of the image formed.

Answer.
(a) The lens is concave.
(b) Optical centre is the point on the lens through which a ray of light passes undeviated.
(c) Convex lens
Focal length, f = + 20 cm Object distance, u = -30 cm
Image distance, v = ? Magnification, m = ?
Nature of the image = ?

Nature. The +ve sign of v shows that the image is formed on the right side of the convex lens, so the image formed is real.

•  The magnification is two (i.e., more than one) so the image is larger than the object.
•  The -ve sign for m shows that the image is formed below the principal axis. Hence the image is inverted.

.^.. Nature of image: Real, inverted and magnified
Or
(a) One-half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper. Will such a lens produce an image of the complete object? Support your answer with a ray diagram.
(b) An object 5 cm high is held 25 cm away from a converging lens of focal length 10 cm.

1.  Draw the ray diagram and
2.  Calculate the position and size of the image formed.
3.  What is the nature of the image?

(a) As we can see in the figure given, when the lower half of the convex lens is covered with a black paper, it still forms lens. However the intensity of the image is reduced when the convex lens is covered with black paper.

   (iii)Nature of the image  

• The +ve sign of v shows that image is real.
•  The -ve sign of h₂ shows that image is inverted.
  .^..  Size of image = 3.3 cm

Question.23(a) In a tabular form, differentiate between ethanol and ethanoic acid under the
following heads:

1.  Physical state
2.  Taste
3. NaHCO₃ test
4.  Ester test

(b) Write chemical reactionto show the dehydration of ethonol
Answer. 

(b) Dehydration of ethanol. When ethanol is heated with excess of cone. H₂SO₄ at 170°C, it
gets dehydrated to fern ethene (an unsaturated hydrocarbon).

Question.24 (a) What is fragmentation in organisms? Name a reproduces by this method.
(b) What is regeneration in organisms? Describe regeneration in Planaria with the help of a suitable diagram.
Answer.
(a) Fragmentation. It occurs in multicellular organisms with relatively simple body organisation, for example, in spirogyra (an algae plant) and planaria (a simple multicellular animal). The body bracks up on maturation into two or more smaller pieces and each piece then develops into a new individual.
(b) The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called regeneration. The simple animals like hydra and planaria show regeneration.
Explanation. If the bodu planaria gets cut into a number of pices, then each body pice can regenerate into a complete planaria by growing all the missing parts. The regeneration of an organism from its cut body part occurs by the process of growth and development. The cells of cut body part devide rapidluy to make a ball of cells. The cells then become specilised to from diffrent types of tissues which again from various organs and body parts.

SECTION B
Question.25 Following signs are usually shown on the bottles of commercial acetic acid. The symbols indicate respectively that acetic acid is:

(a) Flammable and corrosive  (b) Radioactive and flammable
(c) Oxidizing and corrosive     (d) Flammable and explosive
Answer.(a) Flammable and corrosive

Question.26 To find the focal length of a concave mirror Rahul focuses a distant object with this mirror. The chosen object should be
(a) a tree (b) a building (c) a window (d) the Sun
Answer.(a) a tree

Question.27 For finding the focal length of a convex lens by obtaining the image of a distant object, one should use as the object
(a) a well lit distant tree
(b) window grill in the class room
(c) any distant tree
(d) a lighted candle kept at the other end of the table
Answer.(a) a well lit distant tree

Question.28 Four students A, B, C and D traced the paths of incident ray and the emergent ray by fixing pins P and Q for incident ray and pins R and S for emergent ray for a ray of light passing through a glass slab.

The correct emergent ray was traced by the student:
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Answer.(b) B

Question.29 To show that zinc is a more active metal than copper, the correct procedure is to
(a) add dilute nitric acid on strips of both the metals.
(b) observe transmission of heat through strips of zinc and copper.
(c) prepare solution of zinc sulphate and hang strip of copper into it.
(d) prepare solution of copper sulphate and hang strip of zinc into it.
Answer.(d) prepare solution of copper sulphate and hang strip of zinc into it.

Question.30 Acetic acid solution turns
(a) blue litmus red (b) red litmus blue
(c) blue litmus colourless (d) red litmus colourless
Answer.(a) blue litmus red

Question.31 A student was given two permanent slides, one of binary fission in amoeba and other of budding in yeast. He was asked to identify any one difference in the nucleus of the two. One such difference, he identified correctly was
(a) Presence of one nucleus in amoeba, two in yeast cell and one in bud.
(b) Presence of two nucei certrally constricted amoeba, one in yeast cell and one in its bud.
(c) Presence of two distant nuclei in amoeba, one in yeast cell and two in bud.
(d) Presence of a single nucelus each in amoeba, yeast cell and its attached bud.
Answer. (b) Presence of two nucei certrally constricted amoeba, one in yeast cell and one in its bud.

Question.32 Raisins are wiped off gently before final weighing with help of
(a) a filter paper (b) a cotton piece (c) a cloth piece (d) a polythene piece
Answer.(a) a filter paper

Question.33 One of the examples of two analogous organs can be the wings of parrot and
(a) flipper of whale (b) foreleg of horse’ (c) front leg of frog (d) wings of housefly
Answer. (d) wings of housefly

Question.34 How will you test in the laboratory, whether the given sample of water is hard or soft?
Name two salts which make the water hard. 
Answer. When few drops of soap solution are added in the given sample of water, if lather is formed with soap then water is soft water. If lather is not formed then water is hard. Calcium chloride and Magnesium sulphate salts present in water make the water hard.

Question.35 Name two animals which show reproduction by regenration method, which one of these also reproduces by budding method?
Answer. Planaria and Hydra reproduce by regeneration.
Hydra also reproduces by the budding method.

Question.36 Which out of the two spherical mirrors, has positive focal length? Which of the two will form real and inverted image at its ‘¥ point, which can be taken on the screen?
Answer. Convex Mirror has positive focal length. Concave mirror forms a highly diminished sized, ‘ real and inverted image of the object at ‘F point which can be taken on the screen.

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
SECTION A
Question.1 Which compound are responsible for the depletion of ozone layer?
Answer. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are the chemicals which are responsible for the depletion of ozone layer.

Question.2 Define, ‘trophic level’.
Answer. The various steps in a food chain at Which the transfer of food (or energy) takes place are called trophic levels. In a food chain, each step representing an organism forms a trophic level.

Question.3 Write the electron dot structure of ethene molecule, C₂H₄.
Answer. Electron dot structure of ethene molecule, C₂H₄:

Question.4 The atomic numbers of three elements, X, Y and Z are 9,11 and 17 respectively. Which two of these elements will show similar chemical properties? Why?
Answer.

Element X and Z show similar chemical properties because both have same number of valence electrons, i.e., 7 as chemical properties of the element depends on the valence electrons.

Question.6 List any four modes of asexual reproduction.
Answer. Four modes of asexual reproduction:

1. Fission: (a) Binary fission, (b) Multiple fission
2.  Budding
3. Spore formation
4. Fragmentation

Question.9 Draw a ray diagram to show the reflection of light through triangular glass prism and mark angle of deviation on it.
Answer. Reflection of light through triangular glass prism:

Question.13 A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bend towards or away from the normal? Why? Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light in this situation.

Answer. When a ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water, the light ray will bend towards the normal. Because when a ray of light travels obliquely from rarer medium to denser medium, it will bend towards the normal.

Question.16 Explain Mendel’s view of a dominant trait. Give an example
Answer. According to Mendel’s view of dominant trait, the traits of an organism are determined by internal factors which occur in pairs. Out of two contrasting traits only one expresses itself in an individual. This trait is called dominant, while the other which has not shown its effect in the presence of dominant trait is called recessive.

Example, When true bred tall pea plants are crossed with true bred dwarf plants, the plants that appeared in Fa generation are tall, although they have received a factor (trait) from dwarf plant. So trait of tallness is dominant one. However this recessive hidden character reappeared, unchanged in F₂ generation.

Question.18 What is an ‘esterification’ reaction? Describe an activity to show esterification.
Answer. Carboxylic acid when reacts with alcohols in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and
Set-11.
SECTION A
Question.1 What are the various steps in a food chain called?
Answer. The various steps of a food chain are called trophic levels. These steps are:

1. First trophic level consists of producers.
2.  Second trophic level consists of primary consumers or herbivores.
3.  Third trophic level consists of secondary consumers or carnivores.
4.  Fourth trophic level consists of tertiary consumers or top carnivores.

Question.2 What is the important function of presence of ozone in earth’s atmosphere?
Answer. Ozone layer absorbs the harmful UV radiations of the sunlight, so this layer is very important for the survival and existence of life on earth.

Question.3 Write the electron dot structure of ethane molecule, C₂H₆.
Answer. Electron dot structure of ethane, C₂H₆:

Question.4 What makes the earth’s atmosphere a heterogeneous mixture?
Answer. Density of various components of the atmosphere is different. Therefore the earth’s atmosphere is a heterogeneous mixture, for example, the heavier gases like CO₂ and O₂ of the atmosphere occupy the lower level (i.e., near the earth’s surface) of the atmosphere whereas lighter gases like O₃ Occupy the higher level of the atmosphere.
So the components of atmosphere are not equally distributed.

Question.8(a) On the basis of electronic configuration, how will you identify the first and the
last element of a period?
(b) The stars appear higher from horizon than they actually are. Explain why it is so?
Answer. (a) The number of valence electrons increases from 1 to 8 on going from left to right in a period. Therefore the first element in every period has 1 valence electron and the last element in every period has 8 valence electrons (except in the first period where last element helium has only 2 valence electrons).
(b) A ray of light coming from the star travels through earth’s atmosphere. As optical density changes continuously, therefore bending of light takes place continuously. This results in a curved path of light rays due to atmospheric refraction. It appears to the observer as if the ray is coming straight from the source (star). Thus the stars appear higher than their actual positions.

Question.16 Out of HCl and CH₃ COOH, which one is a weak acid and why? Describe ah activity to support your answer.
Answer. Dilute ethanoic acid turns universal indicator paper to orange showing that its pH is about 4. This shows that ethanoic acid is a weak acid. On the other hand dil. hydrochloric acid turns universal indicator paper to red, showing that its pH is about 1. This shows that hydrochloric acid is a strong acid.

Question.18

1. “The refractive index of diamond is 2.42”. What is the meaning of this statement?
2.  Name a liquid whose mass density is less than that of water but it is optically denser than water.

Answer.

1.  The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. It means that the ratio of the speed of light in air and the speed of light in diamond is equal to 2.42.
   Higher is the refractive of a medium, lower is the speed of light in that medium. Because the refractive index of diamond is very high. Therefore the speed of light in diamond is very low.
2. Kerosene has the mass density less than water but it is optically denser than water.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Delhi – 2011 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Outside Delhi 2016

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                        Maximum marks: 90
General Instructions:

1. The Question Paper comprises two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the Sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. There is no choice in any of the questions.
4. All questions of Section-A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
5. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
6. Question numbers 4 to 6 in Section A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
7. Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about 56 words each.
8. Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section A are five marks questions, these are to be answered in about 70 words each.
9.  Question numbers 25 to 33 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
10. Question numbers 34 to 36 in Section B are two marks questions based on practical skills. These are to be answered in brief.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1. Write the name and structure of an alcohol with three carbon atoms in its molecule.
Answer. Name of an alcohol: Propanol

Question.2. What happens when a mature spirogyra filament attains considerable length?
Answer. When a mature spirogyra filament attains considerable length, it breaks up into smaller fragments or pieces, and each fragment grows into a new filament or individual.

Question.3. The depletion of ozone layer is a cause of concern. Why?
Answer. The depletion of ozone layer is a cause of concern because ozone shields the surface of the earth from harmful ultraviolet radiations coming from the Sun. These radiations are very harmful and can cause skin cancer and other health problems in human beings. Moreover ozone protects the ecosystem from damage.

Question.4. Name the type of mirrors used in the design of solar furnaces. Explain how high temperature is achieved by this device.
Answer. Concave mirrors are used in the design of solar furnaces.
When a solar furnace is placed at the focus of a large concave mirror (called reflector), it focuses a parallel beam of light on the furnace, as a result a temperature is achieved after some time.

Question.5. “What was Chipko Andolan”? How did this Andolan ultimately benefit the local people and the environment?
Answer. Chipko Movement. Chipko Movement is an example of contribution of common people towards the conservation of forests. The Chipko Movement also called ‘Hug the tree’ movement originated from an incident in a remote village called ‘Reni’ in Garhwal (Himalayas), where the people of this village clasped the tree trunks with their arms to protect them from being cut down by a contractor’s workers. The people acted this way because they knew that this mass deforestation would spoil their healthy environment. The forest trees were thus saved.
The Chipko Movement quickly spread across all the communities and helped in the conservation of forests and thus helped in safeguarding the environment.

Question.6. “Burning of fossil fuels results in global warming”. Give reasons to justify this statement.
Answer. When fossil fuels (coal and petroleum based fuels like petrol, diesel etc.) are burnt, they produce C0₂, CO, water vapours, S0₂, oxides of nitrogen.
Though C0₂ is not a poisonous gas but it is a green house gas which traps sun’s heat energy falling on the earth. The burning of more and more of fossil fuels is increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere causing increased greenhouse effect leading to global warming.

Question.7. Write chemical equation of the reaction of ethanoic acid with the following:
(a) Sodium; (b) Sodium hydroxide; (c) Ethanol
Write the name of one main product of each reaction.
Answer.

Question.8. An aldehyde as well as a ketone can be represented by the same molecular formula, say C₃H₆O. Write their; language of science.
Answer.

They are called isomers because both have same molecular formula but different structural formula (having different functional groups).

Question.9. An element ‘X’ belongs to 3rd period and group 16 of the Modern Periodic Table.
(a) Determine the number of valence electrons and the valency of ‘X’.
(b) Molecular formula of the compound when ‘X’ reacts with hydrogen and write its electron dot structure.
(c) Name the element ‘X’ and state whether it is metallic or non-metallic.
Answer.

Question.10. An element ‘X! has mass number 35 and number of neutrons 18. Write atomic number and electronic configuration of ‘X’. Also write group number, period number and valency of ‘X’. 
Answer. ‘X’
Mass number 5= 35 No. of neutrons = 18
Atomic number of X = Mass number – Number of neutrons = 35 – 18 = 17
K L M
Thus, electronic configuration of X = 2, 8, 7
Group number = 17th    Period number = 3rd
Valency = 8-7 = 1

Question.11. Define reproduction. How does it help in providing stability to the population of species?
Answer. The production of new organisms from the existing organisms of the same species is known as reproduction. It is essential for the survival of a species on earth. It helps in replacing the lost section of the population due to death and various other causes.

• Populations of organisms live in well defined places called niches in the ecosystem using their ability to reproduce.
• Reproduction involves DNA copying which is the source of information for making proteins thereby controlling body design.
• These body designs allow the organism to use a particular niche for the stability of the population of a species.
• Minor variations may also lead to the stability of the species.

Question.12. Explain the term “Regeneration” as used in relation to reproduction of organisms. Describe briefly how regeneration is carried out in multicellular organisms like Hydra.
Answer. Regeneration is a mode of asexual reproduction in some organisms. The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called regeneration. The simple multicellular animals like hydra and planaria show regeneration.
Regeneration in hydra:

• If the body of hydra gets cut into a number of pieces, then each body piece can regenerate into a complete hydra by growing all the missing parts.
• The regeneration of an organism from its cut body part occurs by the process of growth and development.
• The cells of cut body parts divide rapidly to make a ball of cells.
• The cells then become specialised to form different types of tissues which again form various organs and body parts.

Question.13. (a) List two reasons for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction.
(b)

(i) Name the part marked ‘A’ in the diagram.
(ii) How does ‘A’ reach part ‘B’?
(iii) State the importance of part ‘C.
(iv) What happens to the part marked ‘D’ after fertilisation is over?
Answer. (a) The appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction is due to the following reasons:
(i) Sexual reproduction takes place by the combination of two germ cells produced by two different individuals. Fusion of the male and female gametes.
(ii) Each time zygote is formed by the new combination of variants.
(b) (i) A => Pollen grains .
(ii) Pollen grains, i.e., ‘A’ reach part ‘B’, i.e., stigma of the carpel by the process of pollination.
Pollination is carried out by insects (like bees, butterfuly, etc.), birds, wind, water, etc.
(in) ‘C’ => Pollen tube Pollen tube grows downward through the style towards the female gamete in the ovary. Pollen tube helps the male gamete reach the egg or ovule (female gamete).
(iv) ‘D’ => Fertilised egg or Zygote . The fertilized egg (or zygote) divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule.

Question.14. How does Mendel’s experiment show that traits are inherited independently?
Answer. See Q. 21(F), 2015 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.15. “Two areas of study namely ‘evolution’ and ‘classification’ are interlinked”. Justify this statement.
Answer. Classification of organisms is based on relative similarities and differences in their internal and external structures. Similarities among organisms will allow us to group them and study the groups and classify them. Some basic characteristics will be shared by most organisms. The more characteristics the two species will have in common, the more closely they are related. The more closely they are related, the more recently they have had a common ancestor. So we can say that classification of a species is in fact a reflection of their evolutionary relationship.

Question.16. The image of an object formed by a mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification -1. If the image is at a distance of 40 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Where would the image be if the object is moved 20 cm towards the mirror? State reason and also draw ray diagram for the new position of the object to justify your answer.
Answer.

Question.17. Describe an activity to show that the colours of white light splitted by a glass pr ism can be recombined to get white light by another identical glass prism. Also draw ray- diagram to show the recombination of the spectrum of white light.
Answer. See Q. 17, 2016 (III Delhi).

Question.18. The activities of man had adverse effects on ail forms of living organisms in the biosphere. Unlimited exploitation of nature by man disturbed the delicate ecological balance between the living and non-living components of the biosphere. The unfavourable conditions created by man himself threatened the survival not only of himself but also the entire living organisms on the mother earth. One of your classmates is an active member of ‘Eco-club’ of your school which is creating environmental awareness amongst the school students, spreading the same in the society and also working hard for preventing environmental degradation cf the surroundings.
(a) Why is it necessary to conserve our environment?
(b) State the importance of green and blue dust-bins in the safe disposal of the household waste.
(c) List two values exhibited by your classmate who is an active member of Eco-club
of your school.
Answer. (a) It is necessary to conserve our environment because of the following reasons:
(i) To save natural resources like air, water and soil from pollution which are essential for our survival.
(ii) To maintain ecological balance in nature.
(iii) The environment provides us fresh air to breathe, a number of useful products such as wood, paper, medicines, etc. The ozone layer of the environment also protects us from harmful ultraviolet radiations from the sun.
(b) Green dustbins are used for biodegradable wastes, and Blue dustbins are used for non-biodegradable wastes.
Importance of two types of dustbins:
(i) Disposal of wastes after separating them into biodegradable and non- biodegradable wastes in separate dustbins and treating wastes properly before dumping in landfills.
(ii) Segregation of biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes occur without wasting time and energy.
(c) Values: Cooperative spirit, concern about environment, civic sense, sensitive human being.

Question.19. A carbon compound ‘P’ on heating with excess cone. H₂S0₄ forms another carbon compound ‘Q’ which on addition of hydrogen in the presence of nickel catalyst forms a saturated carbon compound ‘R’. One molecule of ‘R’ on combustion, forms two molecules of carbon dioxide and three molecules of water. Identify P, Q and R and write chemical equations for the reactions involved.
Answer.

Question.20. What is placenta? Describe its structure. State its functions in case of a pregnant human female.
Answer. Placenta. It is a special tissue that helps human embryo in obtaining nutrition from mother’s blood. It serves as a link between the mother’s body and the baby.
Structure and function. After fertilisation, zygote is formed which develops into an embryo. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. This is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains thousands of villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue, on the mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the villi. This provides a large surface area for glucose, nutrients and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. In this way, embryo gets its nutrition. The wastes produced by the foetus are also removed through the placenta. It also functions as an endocrine gland and secretes hormones necessary for maintaining pregnancy.

Question.21. Define evolution. How does it occur? Describe how fossils provide us evidences in support of evolution.
Answer. Evolution. Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes which take place in the primitive organisms over millions of years in which new species are produced.
How it occurs? 

• It is through the constant process of evolution taking place in the organisms since the origin of life that such an enormous variety of plants and animals have come to exist on this earth at present.
• There is an inbuilt tendency to variation during reproduction due to errors in DNA copying and as a result of sexual reproduction.

Relationship between fossils and evolution:

• Fossils are the remains of impressions of dead plants or animals which died millions of years ago. The study of fossils helps us to know about the evolution of species. Fossils tell us how new species are developed from the old. Fossils provide evidence of evolution by revealing characteristics of past organisms and the changes that have occurred m these organisms to give rise to present organisms Therefore, fossils have an importance in deciding evolutionary relationship.
• For example, a fossil called Archaeopteryx has feathered wings like birds but teeth and tail like reptiles hence suggesting that birds and reptiles had a common ancestor.

Question.22. It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using concave mirror of focal length of 12 cm.
(i) What should be the range of distance of an object placed in front of the mirror?
(ii) Will the image be smaller or larger than the object? Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in this case.
(iii) Where will the image of this object be, if it is placed 24 cm in front of the mirror?
Draw a ray diagram for this situation also to justify your answer.
Show the positions of the pole, the principal focus and the centre of curvature in the above ray diagrams.
Answer. In a concave mirror an erect image w ill be obtained when the object is placed between pole and focus ; of the mirror.

Focal length, f = 12 cm
(i) Therefore, the range of object distance is between 0 cm to <12 cm (from zero to less than 12 cm).
(ii) Image formed wall be magnified, i.e., larger than the object.
(iii) If the object is placed at 24 cm in from of the mirror, it means that object is placed at 2f, i.e., at the centre of curvature (at C) of the mirror.
The real, inverted and same size (of the object) image will also be formed at 24 cm.

Question.23.(a) Define optical centre of a spherical lens.
(b) A divergent lens has a focal length of 20 cm. At what distance should an object of height 4 cm from the optical centre of the lens be placed so that its image is formed 10 cm away from the lens. Find the size of the image also.
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in above situation.
Answer. (a) Optical centre of the lens. It is a point within the lens that lies on the principal axis through which avay of light passes undeflected.

Question.24. What is atmospheric refraction? Use this phenomenon to explain the following natural events.
(a) Twinkling of stars (b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set
Draw diagrams to illustrate your answers.
Answer. Atmospheric refraction. The refraction of light caused by the earth’s atmosphere having air layers of varying optical densities is called atmospheric refraction.
(a) Twinkling of stars. See Q. 7, 2014 (III Delhi).
(b) Advanced sun-rise and delayed sun-set. See Q. 4, 2011 (I Outside Delhi).
It is also due to atmospheric refraction that we can still see the sun for about 2 minutes even after the sun has set below the horizon. At sunset, the apparent position of the sun is visible to us and not the actual position because of the bending of light rays effect.
So, the time from sunrise to sunset is lengthened by about 2 + 2 = 4 minutes because of atmospheric refraction.

SECTION B
Question.25. A student puts a drop of reaction mixture of a saponification reaction first on a blue litmus paper and then on a red litmus paper. He may observe that:
(a) There is no change in the blue litmus paper and the red litmus paper turns white.
(b) There is no change in the red litmus paper and the blue litmus paper turns red.
(c) There is no change in the blue litmus paper and the red litmus paper turns blue.
(d) No change in colour is observed in both the litmus papers.
Answer. (c)

Question.26. For preparing soap in the laboratory we require an oil and a base. Which of the following combination of an oil and a base would be best suited for the preparation of soap?
(a) Castor oil and calcium hydroxide (b) Turpentine oil and sodium hydroxide
(c) Castor oil and sodium hydroxide (d) Mustard oil and calcium hydroxide
Answer. (c)

Question.27. In the neighbourhood of your school, hard water required for an experiment is not available. Select from the following groups of salts available in your school, a group each member of which, if dissolved in distilled water, will make it hard:
(a) Sodium chloride, calcium chloride (b) Potassium chloride, sodium chloride
(c) Sodium chloride, magnesium chloride (d) Calcium chloride, magnesium chloride
Answer. (d)

Question.28. A student while observing an embryo of a pea seed in the laboratory listed various parts of the embryo as given below:
On examining the list the teacher remarked that only three parts are correct.
Select three correct parts from the following list: 1
(a) Testa, Radicle, Cotyledon (b) Tegmen, Radicle, Micropyle
(c) Cotyledon, Plumule, Testa (d) Radicle, Cotyledon, Plumule
Answer. (d)

Q.29. If you are asked to select a group of two vegetables, out of the following, having homologous structures which one would you select?
(a) Carrot and radish (b) Potato and sweet potato
(c) Potato and tomato (d) Lady finger and potato
Answer. (a)

Question.30. To determine the approximate value of the focal length of a given concave mirror, you focus the image of a distant object formed by the mirror on a screen. The image obtained on the screen, as compared to the object is always:
(a) Laterally inverted and diminished (b) Inverted and diminished
(c) Erect and diminished (d) Erect and highly diminished
Answer. (b)

Question.31. Suppose you have focused on a screen the image of candle flame placed at the farthest end of the laboratory table using a convex lens. If your teacher suggests you to focus the parallel rays of the Sun, reaching your laboratory table, on the same screen, what you are expected to do is to move the:
(a) lens slightly towards the screen (b) lens slightly away from the screen
(c) lens slightly towards the Sun (d) lens and screen both towards the Sun
Answer. (a)

Question.32. In your laboratory you trace the path of light rays through a glass slab for different values of angle of incidence (∠i) and in each case measure the values of the corresponding angle of refraction (∠r) and angle of emergence (∠e). On the basis of your observations your correct conclusion is:
(a) ∠i is more than ∠r, but nearly equal to Ze
(b) ∠i is less than ∠r, but nearly equal to ∠e
(c) ∠i is more than ∠e, but nearly equal to ∠r
(d) ∠i is less than ∠e, but nearly equal to ∠r
Answer. (a)

Question.33. In the following ray diagram the correctly marked angles are:

(a) ∠i and ∠e (b) ∠A and ∠D
(c) ∠i, ∠e and ∠D (d) ∠r, ∠A and ∠D
Answer. (d)

Question.34. A student adds a spoon full of powdered sodium hydrogen carbonate to a flask containing ethanoic acid. List two main observations, he must note in his note book, about the reaction that takes place. Also write chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer. When sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to a flask containing ethanoic acid, then

• brisk effervescence will be formed because of CO₂ gas escaping from the reaction mixture.
• evolution of colourless and odourless gas. Some amount of heat is evolved during the reaction.
  

Question.35. A student is observing a permanent slide showing sequentially the different stages of asexual reproduction taking place in yeast. Name this process and draw diagrams of what he observes in a proper sequence.
Answer. The process of reproduction in yeast is budding.

Question.36. An object of height 2.5 cm is placed at a distance of 15 cm from the optical centre ‘O’ of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Draw a ray diagram to find the position and size of the image formed. Mark optical centre ‘O’, principal focus F and height of the image on the diagram.
Answer.

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
SECTION A
Question.1. Write the name and structure of an alcohol with four carbon atoms in its molecule.
Answer. Name of an alcohol: Butanol

Question.2. What are those organisms called which bear both the sex organs in the same individual? Give one example of such organism.
Answer. Organisms having both the sex organs in the same individual are called Hermaphrodite. Example, Earthworm.

Question.3. Write one negative effect, on the environment, of affluent life style of few persons of a society.
Answer.

• Excessive use of air conditioners which is a part of affluent lifestyle emits a lot of heat in the atmosphere.
• Excessive use of packaging materials which are mostly made up of non- biodegradable material are not environment friendly.
• Excessive use of petrol in vehicles also causes pollution.
  Thus, affluent lifestyle results in the generation of excessive waste materials.

Question.4. “The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -3”. List four information’s you obtain from this statement about the mirror/image.
Answer. Magnification produced by a spherical mirror, m = -3

•  image is 3 times magnified than the object.
• image is inverted (as m has negative sign).
•  image is real.
• nature of the mirror is concave.

Question.5. Forests are “biodiversity hot spots”. Justify this statement.
Answer. Forests are ‘biodiversity hot spots’. The measure of the biodiversity of an area is the number of species found there. Since in a forest there is a wide range of different life forms (bacteria, fungi, fern, flowering plants, nematodes, insects, birds, reptiles and so on) it can be termed a ‘biodiversity hotspot’. One of the main aims of conservation is to try and preserve the biodiversity we have inherited.

Question.6. What is water harvesting? How can this technique help in the conservation of water?
Answer. Water harvesting is a conservation technique of capturing rain water when it falls and run off and taking measures to keep the water clean.
The main purpose of water harvesting is not to hold rain water on the surface of the earth but to make rain water percolate under the ground so as to recharge ‘groundwater’. This in turn reduces dependency on rainfall for irrigation.

Question.7. On dropping a small piece of sodium in a test tube containing carbon compound ‘X’ , with molecular formula C₂H₆O, a brisk effervescence is observed and a gas ‘Y’ is produced. On bringing a burning splinter at the mouth of the test tube the gas evolved burns with a pop sound. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Also write the chemical equation for the reaction. Write the name and structure of the product formed, when you heat ‘X’ with excess cone, sulphuric acid.
Answer.

Question.10. Three elements ‘X’, ‘Y’ and 71 have atomic numbers 7, 8 and 9 respectively.
(a) State their positions (Group number and period number both) in the Modern Periodic Table.
(b) Arrange these elements in the decreasing order of their atomic radii.
(c) Write the formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ combines with ‘Z’.
Answer.

Question.12. In the context of reproduction of species state the main difference between fission and fragmentation. Also give one example of each.
Answer.

Question.15. With the help of an example justify the following statement:
“A trait may be inherited, but may not be expressed.”
Answer. In Mendel’s experiment with pea plants, when he cross-bed a tall pea plant with a short plea plant, he found that the first generation (F₁) was of only tall plants. In the F₁ progeny, no short plants were obtained. Flow ever, in the F₂ generation, both tall and short plants were obtained in the ratio 3 :1 respectively. In the F₂ generation, both traits — tallness and shortness were inherited where the tall character was the dominant trait and short character was the recessive trait.
Flow Chart. See Q. 14, 2013 (1 Outside Delhi).
Conclusion. Reappearance of dwarf character in F₂ generation proves that the dwarf trait was inherited but not expressed in the F₂ generation.

Question.16. The image of an object formed by a lens is of magnification -1. If the distance between the object and its image is 60 cm, what is the focal length of the lens? If the object is moved 20 cm towards the lens, where would the image be formed? State reason and also draw a ray diagram in support of your answer.
Answer.

Question.19. (a) Define focal length of a spherical lens.
(b) A divergent lens has a focal length of 30 cm. At what distance should an object of height 5 cm from the optical centre of the lens be placed so that its image is formed 15 cm away from the lens? Find the size of the image also.
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in the above situation.
Answer.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II.
SECTION A
Question.1. Write the name and structure of an aldehyde with four carbon atoms in its molecule.
Answer. Name of an aldehyde : Butanal

Question.2. List two functions of ovary of human female reproductive system.
Answer. Two functions of ovary:

1. To produce female gamete ovum.
2. To secrete female hormones estrogen and progestrone.

Question.3. In a food chain of frog, grass, insect and snake, assign trophic level of frog.
Answer. Food chain. Grass —> insect —> frog —> snake
Frog belongs to 3rd trophic level.

Question.4. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively. If speed of light in glass is 2 x 108 m/s, find the speed of light in water.
Answer.

Question.5. List four stakeholders which may be helpful in the conservation of forests.
Answer. Four stakeholders which may be helpful in the conservation of forests:

1. The people who live in and around the forest and are dependent to some extent on forest products for their live hood.
2. The forest department of the Government which owns the forest land and controls the resources from the forest.
3. The industrialists who use various forest products as raw materials for their factories.
4. The forest and wildlife activists who want to conserve the forests and see the forests in their original condition (pristine form).

Question.6. The construction of large dams lead to social and environmental problems. List two problems of each category.
Answer. See Q. 11, 2012 (1 Outside Delhi).

Question.7. The position of eight elements in the Modern Periodic Table is given below where atomic numbers of elements are given in the parenthesis.

(i) Write the electronic configuration of Ca.
(ii) Predict the number of valence electrons in Rb.
(iii) What is the number of shells in Sr?
(iv) Predict whether K is a metal or a non-metal.
(u) Which one of these elements has the largest atom in size?
(vi) Arrange Be, Ca, Mg and Rb in the increasing order of the size of their respective atoms.
Answer.

Question.8. Write three different chemical reactions showing the conversion of ethanoic acid to sodium ethanoate. Write balanced chemical equation in each case. Write the name of the reactants and the products other than ethanoic acid and sodium ethanoate in each case.
Answer.

Question.9. An element ‘X’ belongs to 3rd period and group 13 of the Modem Periodic Table.
(a) Determine the valence electrons and the valency of ‘X’.
(b) Molecular formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ reacts with an element ‘Y’ (atomic number = 8).
(c) Write the name and formula of the compound formed when ‘X’ combines with chlorine.
Answer.

Question.17. The image formed by a spherical mirror is real, inverted and is of magnification -2. If the image is at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Find the focal length of the mirror. List two characteristics of the image formed if the object is moved 10 cm towards the mirror.
Answer.

Question.24. (a) Define focal length of a divergent lens.
(b) A divergent lens of focal length 30 cm forms the image of an object of size 6 cm on the same side as the object at a distance of 15 cm from its optical centre. Use lens formula to determine the distance of the object from the lens and the size of the image formed.
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in the above situation.
Answer.

(a)

• The principal focus of a diverging lens is a point on its principal axis from which light rays, originally parallel to the axis appear to diverge after passing through the diverging (concave) lens.
•  The distance between pole and principal focus of a diverging lens is called the focal length. In the given diagram OF is the focal length.
  

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The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Outside Delhi 2016 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Outside Delhi – 2011

ScienceMathsSanskritEnglishComputer ScienceHindiSocial Science
Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1.  The Question Paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the Sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. All questions ofSection-A and all questions ofSection-B are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section-A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
5. Question numbers 4 to 6 in Section-A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
6. Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section-A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in
   about 50 words each.
7. Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section-A are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
8.  Question numbers 25 to 36 in Section-B are questions based on practical skills. Question nos. 25 to 33 are MCQs. Each question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you. Question nos. 34 to 36 are short answer questions carrying two marks each.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1 Draw the structure for ethanoic acid molecule, CH₃COOH.
Answer. Ethanoic acid (CH₃COOH)

Question.2 Give an example of a phenomenon where Tyndall effect can be observed.
Answer. The scattering of light by particles of colloid or suspension in its path is called Tyndall effect. When sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest, the tiny water droplets in the mist scatter sunlight.

Question.3 What is meant by biological magnification?
Answer. Some harmful chemicals like pesticides, when absorbed by the plants through soil and water, get transferred frorh first trophic to the last trophic level of the food chain. As these chemicals are non-degradable, their concentration in the bodies of living organisms at each trophic level progressively increases. This increase in the concentration of harmful chemicals in the body of living organisms at the each trophic level of a food chain is called biological magnification.

Question.4 Explain with the help of a diagram, how we are able to observe the sunrise about two minutes before the Sun gets above the horizon.

Answer. The Sun can be seen about two minutes before sunrise because when the Sun is slightly below the horizon, the Sun’s light coming from less dense air to more dense air is refracted downwards as it passes through the atmosphere. Thus due to this atmospheric refraction, the Sun appears to be raised above the horizon when actually it is slightly below the horizon.

Question.5 How does the valency of elements vary

1. in going down a group, and
2.  in going from left to right in a period of the periodic table?

Answer.

1.  The valency of elements remains the same in going down a group.
2. On moving from left to right in a period, the valency of elements increases from 1 to 4 and then decreases to 0 (zero).

Question.6 In the modern periodic table, the element Calcium (atomic number = 20) is surrounded by elements with atomic numbers 12, 19, 21 and 38. Which of these elements has physical and chemical properties resembling those of Calcium and why?
Answer.
Ca (atomic number = 20) (electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 2)
Element with
atomic number = 12          (electronic configuration = 2, 8, 2)
atomic number = 19          (electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 1)
atomic number = 21          (electronic configuration = 2, 8, 8, 3)
atomic number = 38          (electronic configuration = 2, 8, 18, 8, 2)
Elements with atomic number 12 and 38 have physical and chemical properties resembling with Ca because valence electrons in these elements are same as Ca, i.e., 2. As properties of an element depend on its valence electrons.

Question.7(a) List any two disadvantages of using fossil fuels for the production of energy.
(b) Give two examples each of the following:

1. Renewable sources of energy;
2.  Non-renewable sources of energy

Answer.
(a) Disadvantages of using fossil fuels are:

1.  Fossil fuels are non-renewable source of energy.
2. Elements like carbon, nitrogen and sulphur are present in fossil fuels. When fossil fuels are burnt, these elements react with oxygen of air to produce oxides which are acidic in nature. This leads to acid rain which adversely affects the quality of water and soil.
3. CO₂ is a gas which produces green house effect. This leads to global warming.
4. CO produced is a toxic gas that causes respiratory problems.

(b)

1.  Examples of renewable sources of energy:
   1. solar energy 2 tidal energy 3. hydel power (any two)
2.  Examples of non-renezvable sources of energy:
   1. diesel 2 petrol 3. CNG (any two)

Question.8 Describe any three ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in population.
Answer. The three ways in which individuals with a particular trait may increase in population:

1. Geographical isolation of a population caused by various types of barriers such as mountain ranges, rivers and seas, etc. The geographical isolation leads to reproductive isolation and the individuals with a particular trait may increase in population.
2. The struggle for survival within populations eliminates unfit individuals. Fit individuals (i.e., favourable trait) survive and reproduce. In other words, the variation if given survival advantage, it will be naturally selected.
3. Genetic drift caused by drastic changes in the frequencies of particular genes by chance alone.

Question.9 State the evidence we have for the origin of life from inanimate matter.
Answer. An experiment conducted by Stanley L. Miller and Harold C. Urey in 1953 proved that origin of life takes place from inanimate matter. They assembled an apparatus to create an early earth like atmosphere which was supposed to consist of gases like methane, ammonia and hydrogen sulphide but no oxygen, over water.
This was maintained at a temperature just below 100°C and sparks were passed through the mixture of gases to simulate lightning. At the end of a week, 15% of the carbon (from methane) had been converted to simple compounds of carbon including amino acids which make up protein molecules.

Question.10’What are fossils? What do they tell us about the process of evolution?
Answer. The remains (or impressions) of dead animals or plants, that lived in the remote past, are known as fossils.

•  Fossils provide evidence for evolution, e.g.r a fossil called Archaeopteryx had feathered wings like birds but teeth and tail like reptiles hence suggesting that birds and reptiles had a common ancestor.
• Fossils provide direct evidence of past life and thus provide convincing proof of organic evolution.

Question.11 (a) “The sex of the children is determined by what they inher.t from their father and not their mother.” Justify.
(b) Give an example where environmental factors like temperature determines the sex of the offspring.
Answer.(a)

•  A male has one X chromosome and one Y chromosome.
•  A female has two X chromosomes.
•  If a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilises an ovum, then the child born will be a girl.
•  If a sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilises an ovum, then the child born will be a boy.
  Thus, the sperm determines the sex of the child.

(b) In some reptiles, the temperature at which the fertilised egg is incubated before hatching plays a role in determining the sex of the offspring.
Example: In a turtle, high incubation termperature leads to female offspring.

Question.12 Dams are useful for the society but there is public opposition to the construction of large dams. Justify your answer by giving three problems.
Answer.

1.  Social problems. Due to the construction of high rise dams, a large number of human settlements are submerged in the water of large reservoir formed by the dam.
2.  Environmental problems. The construction of high-rise dams leads to deforestation and loss of bio-diversity as vast variety of flora and fauna get submerged in the water of large reservoir formed by dam and disturb ecological balance.
3.  Economic problems. Construction of high-rise dams involves the spending of huge amount of public money without the generation of proportionate benefits.

Question.13 Write chemical equations for what happens when
(i) sodium metal is added to ethanoic acid.
(ii) solid sodium carbonate is added to ethanoic acid.
(iii) ethanoic acid reacts with a dilute solution of sodium hydroxide.
Answer.

Question.14 The atomic number of an element is 16. Predict

1.  the number of valence electrons in its atom;
2.  its valencies;
3.  its group number;
4.  whether it is a metal or a non-metal;
5. the nature of oxide formed by it;
6.  the formula of its chloride.

Answer. The atomic number, Z = 16

1.  Number of valence electrons in its atom = 6
2. Valency = 2
3.  Group number = 16
4. It is a non-metal.
5.  The nature of oxide formed by it would be acidic.
6.  Let this element be represented by the symbol ‘X’. Formula of its chloride is XCl₂.

Question.15 An object is placed between infinity and the pole of a convex mirror. Draw a ray diagram and also state the position, the relative size and the nature of the image formed.

Answer. Position, size and nature of image:
Image formed by a convex mirror is virtual, diminished, erect and behind the mirror between its P (pole) and F (focus) point.

Question.16 What is the principle of reversibility of light? Show that the incident ray of light is parallel to the emergent ray of light when light falls obliquely on a side of-a rectangular glass slab.
Answer.

Question.17 What eye defect is myopia? Describe with a neat diagram how this defect of vision can be corrected by using a suitable lens.
Answer. Myopia is the defect of the eye vision due to which a person can see the near objects clearly, but he cannot see the far objects clearly.
Causes of myopia. Myopia is caused
— due to the elongation of the eye ball.
— due to decrease in the focal length of the eye lens. The eye lens becomes more convergent. Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable focal length in the spectacles of such a person.

Question.18 What does HIV stand for? Is AIDS an infectious disease? List any four modes of spreading AIDS.
Answer. HIV. Human Immuno Deficiency Virus
This virus causes AIDS which is an infectious disease.
Modes of spreading AIDS:

1. The AIDS disease usually spreads through unprotected sexual contact with an infected person carrying AIDS virus.
2.  The AIDS disease also spreads through the transfusion of blood contaminated with AIDS virus.
3. The AIDS disease also spreads through the use of infected needles for injections.
4. An AIDS infected mother can transmit the virus to her child during pregnancy or during birth.

Question.19 A team of Indian researchers went to Antarctica to study the ozone layer. They confirmed the presence of largest ozoye hole over Antarctica and was just short of 27 million sq. km. After few days of their return, one of the scientists developed rashes, burning sensation and other skin problems which the doctors have confirmed as skin cancer.
(a) What may be the cause of cancer just after return from Antarctica?
(b) What do we learn from this incident?
(c) Raghav, a student of your school organises a poster-making competition on the topic ‘Save Ozone’. What moral value is shown by Raghav? What other initiatives will you suggest in this regard?
Answer.
(a) The scientists were exposed to harmful UV-radiations of the sunlight as there was a big hole over Antarctica and this might be the cause of skin cancer. The ozone layer acts as an ozone shield and absorbs the harmful UV-radiations. The UV-radiations have extremely harmful effects on human beings, animals as well as plants.
(b) We learn that the ozone layer is very important for the existence and survival of life on earth.
Ozone layer absorbs high energy UV-radiations causing a rise in temperature of the stratosphere. The use of chemicals like CFCs has endangered the ozone layer. CFCs used as refrigerator coolants rise to the stratosphere where these molecules are broken down by UV- rays resulting in attack on the ozone molecules damaging the ozone umbrella of earth. Due to ozone layer depletion UV-rays reaching the earth cause skin cancer, cataracts, damage immune system, etc. UV-rays also decreases crop yield and certain fish larvae which are important constituents of aquatic food chains. It may also disturb global rainfall causing ecological disturbance. In this way all on the earth would be destroyed gradually.
(c) Raghav is showing concern for the environment. By this he is trying to make people aware of the harmful effects of the ozone hole on the earth’s environment. He ivants people to make efforts towards saving the ozone layer. Initiati’es as a student:

•  by role play/arama/skits create awareness of the importance of ozone layer among the people;
•  by writing slogans; and
•  by organising debates and essay competitions.

Question.20 With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the various steps of budding in Hydra.
Answer. Hydra reproduces by budding which is an asexual type of reproduction.

During this type of reproduction, a bulb like projection arises from the parent body which is known as bud. The bud may be unicellular or multicellular formed by mitotic division of its cells. This bud then grows gradually to form a small hydra. And finally, the tiny new hydra detaches itself from the body of the parent hydra and lives as a separate organism. Thus, the parent hydra produces a new hydra.
Or
What is binary fission in organisms? With the help of suitable diagrams, describe the mode of reproduction in Amoeba.
Answer. Binary fission. Binary fission is an asexual method of reproduction in which the parent organism splits to form two new daughter organisms.
Reproduction in amoebit. Unicellular organisms like amoeba and paramoecium reproduce by binary fission. During this reproduction process, first the divides nucleus into two daughter nuclei followed by the division of cytoplasm.

Question.21 Explain isomerism. State any four characteristics of isomers. Draw the structures of possible isomers of butane, C₄H₁₀.
Answer. Isomerism. The existence of two or more different organic compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures is called isomerism.
Characteristics of isomerism:

1. Isomers have the same molecular formula but different structures.
2. In the phenomenon of isomerism, a given molecular formula can represent two or more different compounds.
3. Isomers of a given molecular formula have entirely different properties.
4. Isomerism is possible only with hydrocarbons having 4 or more carbon atoms.
   

Question.22 (a)State two properties of carbon which lead to a very large number of carbon compounds.
(b)Why does micelle formation take place when soap is added to water? Why are micelles not formed when soap is added to ethanol?
Answer.
(a)The two properties of carbon which lead to a very large number of carbon compounds are: .

1. Catenation. Catenation is the unique property of carbon atoms to form bonds with other atoms of carbon giving rise to large molecules.
2. Tetravalency. Since carbon has a valency of four, it is capable of bonding with four other atoms of carbon or atoms of some other monovalent elements.

(b)Soap molecules consist of two parts —one hydrophilic (ionic ends) and other hydrophobic (hydrocarbon chains). Hydrophobic part of soap is dissolved with dirt and hydrophilic remains suspended in water. Thus more molecules of soaps are attached to dirt having their one end suspended in water to form a micelle.
Since ethanol is not as polar as soap, micelle will not be formed in other solvents such as ethanol.

Question.23 (a)What is meant by ‘power of a lens’?
(b)State and define the S.I. unit of power of a lens.
(c)A convex lens of focal length 25 cm and a concave lens of focal length 10 cm are placed in close contact with each other. Calculate the lens power of this combination.
Answer.
(a)The power of a lens is a measure of the degree of convergence or divergence of light rays falling on it.
(b)The SI unit of the power of a lens is dioptre. One dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal length is 1 metre.
(c)Focal length of the convex lens

Question.24(a) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image of an object placed between
infinity and the optical centre of a concave lens.
(b) A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image 10 cm from the lens. Calculate

1.  the distance of the object from the lens
2. the magnification for the image formed
3. the nature of the image formed
   

Answer.
(a)When an object is placed any-where between infinity and optical centre of a concave lens, the image formed is

1.  between O and F.
2. virtual.
3. erect.
4. diminished.

(b) Concave lens. Focal length, f = -15 cm

SECTION B
Question.25 Different paths of ray are shown in the following figures. Which of the following is
correct:

Answer. (c) Figure III only

Question.26 In these diagrams, the angle of refraction r is correctly marked in which diagram?

Answer.(d) IV

Question.27 To find the focal length of a concave mirror, sita should choose which one of the following set-ups?
(a) A mirror holder and a screen holder
(b) A screen holder and a scale
(c) A mirror holder, a screen holder and a scale
(d) A screen, a mirror, holders for them and a scale
Answer.(d) A screen, a mirror, holders for them and a scale

Question.28 Iron nails were dipped in an aqueous solution of copper sulphate. After about 30 minutes, it was observed that the colour of the solution changed from 1
(a) colourless to light green. (b) blue to light green.
(c) blue to colourless. (d) green to blue.
Answer. (b) blue to light green.

Question.29 Vapours of acetic acid smell
(a) pungent like vinegar. (b) sweet like rose.
(c) suffocating like sulphur dioxide. (d) odourless like water.
Answer.(a) pungent like vinegar.

Question.30 A student added acetic acid to test tubes I, II, III and IV containing the labelled substances and then brought a burning splinter near the mouth of each test tube

The splinter would be extinguished when brought near the mouth of test tube
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
Answer.(c) III

Question.31 The steps involved in observing a slide under a microscope are given below. They are not in proper sequence.
I. Focus the object under high power microscope.
II. Place the slide on the stage of the microscope.
III.Arrange the mirror to reflect maximum light to the slide.
IV. Focus the object under low power of microscope.
The proper sequence of steps is
(A) II, III, IV, I (b) I, II, III, IV (c) IV, III, II, I (d) III, I, II, IV
Answer.(A) II, III, IV, I

Question.32 The given figures illustrate binary fission in Amoeba in improper order.

(a) III, IV, II, I (b) IV, III, II, I (c) II, III, IV, I (d) I, III, IV, II
Answer.(c) II, III, IV, I

Question.33 Following are the steps involved in the experiment ‘to determine the percentage of water absorbed by raisins’. They are not in proper sequence.
I. Soak the raisins in fresh water.
II. Weigh dry raisins.
III.Weigh soaked raisins.
IV. Wipe out soaked raisins.
The proper sequence of steps is
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) II, I, IV, III (c) II, I, III, IV (d) I, II, IV, III
Answer.  (b) II, I, IV, III

Question.34 When we open a dicotyledon seed, then its embryo shows two parts. Name these two parts and write their functions.
Answer. Two parts of the embryo are: Plumule and Radicle
Plumule after germination develops into shoot of the new baby plant.
Radicle after germination develops into the root of the new baby plant.

Question.35 What is the nature of the image formed by a concave lens? Can this be taken on the screen.
Answer. A concave lens always forms erect and virtual image of the object. The image formed is diminished in size.
This image can not be taken on the screen.

Question.36 A compound ‘X’ in its aqueous solution form, is added to acetic acid taken in a test tube. Then a gas is evolved. This gas turns lime water milky. Name the compound ‘X’, and the gas evolved. Also write the equation for the reaction.
Answer. Compound ‘X’ can be Na₂CO₃ (Sodium Carbonate)
The gas evolved is CO₂ gas.

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
SECTION A
Question.1 Why is it necessary to conserve our environment?
Answer. Human beings are an important part of the environment. But human activities change the environment and the changes in the environment affect life on earth.
For example: An environmental problem caused by human activities is depletion of ozone layer. If the ozone layer in the atmosphere disappears completely, then all the extremely harmful ultraviolet radiations coining from the Sun would reach the earth and would cause skin cancer and other ailments. Therefore it is necessary to conserve our environment.

Question.2 Distinguish between biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes.
Answer.

Question.3 What is the colour of scattered sunlight when the size of the scattering particles is relatively large?
Answer. When white sunlight falls on relatively larger particles (like dust particles, etc.) present in the atmosphere, it is scattered as such so the scattered light appears blue.

Question.4 List any four disadvantages of using fossil fuels for the production of energy.
Answer. Disadvantages of fossil fuels:

1.  Fossil fuels are non-renewable source of energy.
2.  The burning of fossil fuels produces acidic gases such as sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides. These acidic gases cause acid rain.
3. The burning of fossil fuels produces smoke which pollutes the air.
4. The burning of fossil fuels, especially coal, leaves behind a lot of ash.

Question.8 Explain various stages of evolution?
Answer. Various stages of evolution:

1.  Complex organs may have evolved because of the survival advantages of the intermediate stage.
2. Complex organ like eyes are created bid by bid over generation.
3. The structure of the eye in all organisms is different enough to have separate evolutionary origin.
4. Organs may be adapted to new functions during the course of evolution, e.g., feathers are thought to have evolved for warmth and later adapted for flight.
5.  Some dissimilar looking structures also evolved from common anscestor, e.g., different vegetation like cauliflower, cabbage, broccoli, kale, etc. are generated by artificial selection from wild cabbage.
6.  Changes in DNA during reproduction are the basic events of evolution.

Question.10(a) How does the metallic character of elements change along a period of the periodic
table from the left to the right and why?
(b) How does the size of the atom change along a period of the periodic table from left to right and why?
Answer.
(a) On moving from left to right in a period the metallic character of elements decreases.
This is because on moving from left to right in a period of the periodic table, the nuclear charge increases due to gradual increase in the number of protons. Due to the increase in nuclear charge, the valence electrons are pulled in more strongly by the nuclear and it becomes more and more difficult for the atoms to lose electrons therefore on moving from left to right in a period thus metallic character decreases from left to right in a period.”
(b) On moving from left to right in a period the size of the atom decreases because number of energy shells remains same in a period but nuclear charge increases from left to right and thus the force of attraction between the nucleus and the electrons increases which reduces the size of the atoms on moving from left to right in a period.