CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Outside Delhi 2015

ScienceMathsSanskritEnglishComputer ScienceHindiSocial Science
Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                        Maximum marks: 90
General Instructions:

1. The Question Paper comprises two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the Sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. There is no choice in any of the questions.
4. All questions of Section-A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
5. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
6. Question numbers 4 to 6 in Section A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
7. Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about 56 words each.
8. Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section A are five marks questions, these are to be answered in about 70 words each.
9.  Question numbers 25 to 33 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
10. Question numbers 34 to 36 in Section B are two marks questions based on practical skills. These are to be answered in brief.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1. Write title number of covalent bonds in the molecule of ethane.
Answer.

Question.2. Name the life process of an organism that helps in the growth of its population.
Answer. Reproduction is the process that helps in the growth of population of an organism.

Question.3. What will be the amount of energy available to the organisms of the 2nd trophic level of a food chain, if the energy available at the first trophic level is 10,000 joules?
Answer. According to 10% law, only 10% of energy entering a particular trophic level of organisms is available for transfer to the next higher trophic level.
If energy in the 1st trophic level is 10000 J.
Then, energy in 2nd trophic level = 10% of 10000 J = 10/100 x 10000 J = 1000 Joules

Question.4. The absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the speed of light is 2 x 10⁸ m/s, calculate the speed of light in (i) vacuum, (ii) water.
Answer.

Question.5. List -two main causes of the pollution of water of the river Ganga. State how pollution and contamination of river water prove harmful for the health of the people of neighbouring areas.
Answer. Two main cause of the pollution of water of the river Ganga :
(i) Disposal of industrial effluents into tire river.
(ii) Human activities like bathing, washing, immersion of ashes; etc.
Pollution and contamination of river wafer has led to various harmful effects on health of people in neighbouring areas who use river water for domestic or drinking purposes. It has led to various types of water borne diseases such as typhoid or cholera. Also human and industrial activities have lead to contamination of marine life which can be hazardous for consumption.

Question.6. What is biodiversity? What will happen if biodiversity of an area is not preserved? Mention one effect of it.
Answer. Biodiversity is the diversity of life in an area. It is the number and range of variety of species of life forms in an area.
The loss of biodiversity of an area will lead to the loss of ecological stability of the eco- system. It can result in environment disasters such as floods, forest fires, etc.

Question.7. List two tests for experimentally distinguishing between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid and describe how these tests are performed.
Answer. Test-1—Litmus Test. Take 2 strips of blue litmus paper. Place a drop each of alcohol and carboxylic acid on these strips separately. The blue litmus paper turns red in the case of carboxylic acid and remains unaffected in the case of alcohol.
Test-2—Sodium hydrogen carbonate Test /Sodium carbonate Test. A pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate or sodium carbonate is added to both alcohol and a carboxylic acid separately. If brisk effervescence with the evolution of a colourless gas is observed, it ! indicates the presence of carboxylic acid whereas no effervescence is seen in case of an alcohol.

Question 8. Draw the electron-dot structure for ethyne. A mixture of ethyne and oxygen is burnt for welding. In your opinion, why cannot we use a mixture of ethyne and air for this purpose?
Answer. In pure oxygen, ethyne undergoes complete combustion and high temperature suitable for welding is attained. Whereas air contains less percentage/amount of oxygen which results in incomplete combustion of ethyne and the temperature required for the welding is not attained. Hence we cannot use a mixture of ethyne and air for this purpose.

Question.9. Two elements ‘P’ and ‘Q’ belong to the same period of the modern periodic table and are in Group-1 and Group-2 respectively. Compare their following characteristics in tabular form:
(a) The number of electrons in their atoms
(b) The sizes of their atoms
(c) Their metallic characters
(d) Their tendencies to lose electrons
(e) The formula of their oxides
(f) The formula of their chlorides
Answer.

Question.10. Taking the example of an element of atomic number 16, explain how the electronic configuration of the atom of an element relates to its position in the modern periodic table and how valency of an element is calculated on the basis of its atomic number.
Answer. Atomic number of the element = 16 Electronic configuration = K L M = 2, 8, 6
Since this element has 3 shells, the period number will be 3 as period number is equal to the number of shells that start filling up in it.
No. of valence electrons = 6
The group number will be 10 + 6 = 16
The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons present in the outermost shell.
Valency of the element will be = 8 – valence electrons = 8-6 = 2

Question.11. List six specific characteristics of sexual reproduction.
Answer. Characteristics of sexual reproduction are:

1. In sexual reproduction, two parents are involved (male and female).
2. The new organism produced is genetically different from both parents.
3. During gamete formation meiosis occurs. After fertilisation all divisions are mitotic.
4. Sexual reproduction helps in evolution.
5. Fertilisation of gametes leads to zygote formation. This zygote grows and develops to form a new organism.
6. Humans, fish, dogs, hens, cats, cows, horses, deer, rabbit, lions and tigers all reproduce by the method of sexual reproduction. Most of the flowering plants also reproduce by sexual reproduction.

Question.12. What are chromosomes? Explain how in sexually reproducing organisms the number of chromosomes in the progeny is maintained.
Answer. Chromosomes are thread-like structures made up of DNA and proteins. They are found in the nucleus at the time of cell division.
During gamete formation meiosis occurs and the original number of chromosomes becomes half. Hence, when two gametes combine the zygote formed contains the full set of chromosomes and the original number of chromosomes gets restored in the progeny.

Question.13. List four points of significance of reproductive health in a society. Name any two areas related to reproductive health which have improved over the past 50 years in our country.
Answer. The significance of reproductive health of society are:

1. Regular medication and check-ups have led to development of reproductive health.Healthy mothers give birth to healthy children.
2. Reproductive health should be maintained in order to prevent sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
3. Family planning by using various contraceptives enables a couple to decide on the number of children they want to have and when to have them. If a couple has less number of children they can provide good food, clothes and education to each child. So a small family is a happy family.
4.  Having fewer children also keeps the mother in good health. This will reduce the cases of maternal mortality as well as new born mortality.

Areas which have improved:

1. Better family planning has led to reduction in family size and better economic stability.
2. Decrease in STD cases due to more awareness and wider use of contraceptives.

Question.14. Explain with an example for each, how the following provides evidences in favour of evolution in organisms: (a) Homologous organs (b) Analogous organs (c) Fossils
Answer. See Q. 12, 2011 (I Delhi).

Question.15. Explain the following:
(a) Speciation (b) Natural Selection
Answer. See Q. 11, 2011 (I Delhi).

Question.16. If the image formed by a mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it is always erect and diminished, what type of mirror is it? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer. Where and why do we generally use this type of mirror?
Answer. Convex mirror always forms an erect, virtual and diminished image for all positions of the object placed in front of it.

Uses:

1. Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles to see the traffic at the rear side (or back side) because —(i) a convex mirror always produces an erect image of the object; (ii) the image formed in a convex mirror is highly diminished due to which a convex mirror gives a wide field of view.
2. Big convex mirrors are used as ‘shop security mirrors’. By installing a big convex mirror at a strategic point in the shop, the shop owner can keep an eye on the customer to look for thieves and shoplifters among them as convex mirrors always form a virtual, diminished and erect image.

Question.17. What is meant by scattering of light? Use this phenomenon to explain why the clear sky appears blue or the sun appears reddish at sunrise.
Answer. Scattering of light is the phenomenon to throw light in various random directions. Light is scattered when it falls on various types of suspended particles in its path. The colour of the scattered light depends on the size of the scattering particles in the atmosphere.
— The larger particles of dust and water droplets present in the atmosphere scatter the light of longer wavelengths due to which the scattered light appears white.
— The extremely minute particles such as air molecules present in the atmosphere scatter mainly blue light present in the white sunlight.
Colour of the sky appears blue. The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have a size smaller than the wavelength of visible light. So these particles scatter more effectively the light rays of shorter wavelength at the blue end than light of longer wavelength at the red end. When the scattered blue light enters our eyes, it gives us the feeling of a blue sky.
Colour of the sun appears red at sunrise and sunset. The sun at sunrise and sunset is very near to the horizon, and near the horizon most of the blue light of shorter wave-lengths is scattered away by the particles in the atmosphere. Therefore, the light that reaches our eyes is of longer wavelengths that gives rise to the reddish appearance of the sun.

Question.18. Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances with the help of one example each. List two changes in habit that people must adopt to dispose non- biodegradable waste, for saving the environment.
Answer. Difference between biodegradable substances and non-biodegradable substances. See Q. 2, 2011 (II Outside Delhi).
Habits for disposing non-biodegradable waste:

1. Disposal of wastes after separating them into biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes in separate dustbins and treating wastes properly before dumping in landfills.
2. Encourage the use of gunny bags, jute bags and paper bags in place of polythene/ plastic bags.
3. Recycle the plastic and glass objects after use.

Question.19. Both soap and detergent are some type of salts. What is the difference between them? Describe in brief the cleansing action of soap. Why do soaps not form lather in hard water? List two problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps
Answer.

Problems that arise due to the use of detergents instead of soaps:

1. Detergents are non-biodegradable, i.e., they cannot be decomposed organisms and hence cause water pollution in lakes and rivers.
2. Detergents can also cause skin problems.

Question.20. (a) Name the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and also secretes a hormone. Write the functions of the secreted hormone.
(b) Name the parts of the human female reproductive system where
(i) fertilisation takes place,
(ii) implantation of the fertilised egg occurs.
Explain how the embryo gets nourishment inside the mother’s -body.
Answer. (a) Testis produces sperms and secretes male hormone—testosterone.
Function of testosterone hormone is to control the development of male sex organs and male features such as deeper voice, moustaches, body hair, etc. All these changes caused by testosterone are associated with male puberty which the boys attains at an age of 13 to 14 years. It also controls the formation of male gamete, i.e., sperm.
(b) (i) Fertilisation takes place in fallopian tube (oviduct).
(ii) Implantation of the fertilised egg occurs in the uterus.
Nourishment of embryo. After fertilisation, zygote is formed which develops into an embryo. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. This is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue. On the mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the villi. This provides a large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. In this way, embryo gets its nutrition.

Question.21. How do Mendel’s experiments show that the
(a) traits may be dominant or recessive,
(b) traits are inherited independently?
Answer. Mendel’s experiments show that the
(a) Traits may be dominant or recessive. When Mendel cross-bred plants of two different traits of character, a tall pea plant (TT) and a dwarf pea plant (tt) to get a progeny ( F₁ generation), all F₁ plants were tall. Only the dominant trait was visible in this generation. But when plants of F₁ generation were self bred then the two traits of character got separated in the plants of F₂ generation. All plants obtained in the F₂ generation were not tall. One-fourth of the F₂ plants were short.
Appearance of tall characters in both the F₁ and F₂ generations shows that it is a dominant character. Whereas the absence of dwarf character in F₁ generation and its reappearance in F₂ generation shows dwarfness is the recessive character.
(b) Traits are inherited independently. Mendel cross-bred pea plants showing two different characteristics, rather than just one. When he cross-bred pea plants of round green seeds with wrinkled yellow seeds, he got F₁ generation with all such seeds which were Gametes yellow and round. So, it was concluded that round and yellow character of seeds were dominant traits in the pea plant. On selfing of F₁ progeny, different types of F₂ progeny were obtained.
So traits of two different characters were inherited independent of each other and made new combination characteristics independent of their previous combinations.

Question.22. What is meant by power of a lens? Define its S.I. unit. You have two lenses A and B of focal lengths +10 cm and 10 cm respectively. State the nature and power of each lens.Which of the two lenses will form a virtual and magnified image of an object placed 8 cm from the lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.
Answer.

The power of a concave lens is negative therefore, lens B is a concave lens.
When an object is placed at 8 cm (i.e., between the optical centre and principal focus) only convex lens will form the virtual and magnified image.

Therefore, lens A will form a virtual and magnified image of the object placed 8 cm from it. When the object is placed between the optical centre and the focus: (i.e., between O and F) the image formed is behind the object (on the same side), virtual, erect and magnified.

Question.23. One half of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm is covered with a black paper. Can such a lens produce an image of a complete object placed at a distance of 30 cm from the lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your answer.
A 4 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 15 cm. Find nature, position and size of the image.
Answer. (i) Yes. If a convex lens of focal length 10 cm is covered one half with a black paper, it can produce an image of the complete object between F2 and 2F2. The rays of light coming from the object get refracted by the upper half of the lens. The image formed will be real, inverted and diminished.

Question.24. Write the importance of ciliary muscles in the human eye. Name the defect of vision that arises due to gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles in old age. What type of lenses are required by the persons suffering from this defect to see the objects clearly? Akshay, sitting in the last row in his class, could not see clearly the words written on the blackboard. When the teacher noticed it, he announced if any student sitting in the front row could volunteer to exchange his seat with Akshay. Salman immediately agreed to exchange his seat with Akshay. He could now see the words written on the blackboard clearly. The teacher thought it fit to send the message to Akshay’s parents advising them to get his eyesight checked.
In the context of the above event, answer the following questions:
(a) Which defect of vision is Akshay suffering from? Which type of lens is used to correct this defect?
(b) State the values displayed by the teacher and Salman.
(c) In your opinion, in what way can Akshay express his gratitude towards the teacher and Salman?
Answer. Importance of ciliary muscles. The focal length of eye lens can be changed by changing its shape by the action of ciliary muscles. Ciliary muscles modify the curvature of the eye lens to enable the eye to focus objects at varying distances.
In old age, ciliary muscles become weak and the eye lens become inflexible. As a result, the eye loses its power of accommodation. Because of this, an old person cannot see the nearby objects clearly. This leads to the defect called presbyopia.
Bifocal lenses are required by the persons suffering from presbyopia in which upper part consists of a concave lens for distant vision and the lower part consists of a convex lens used to see nearby objects.
(a) Akshay is suffering from myopia or near sightedness. Myopia is corrected by using spectacles containing concave lenses. The concave lens used for correcting myopia should be of such a focal length that it produces a virtual image of the distant object (lying at infinity) at the far point of the myopic eye.
(b) • The teacher is concerned about the health of the student.
• Salman is very helpful and caring.
(c) Akshay should express his gratitude towards his teacher as well as his friend Salman by getting his eyesight checked and by also following their values in his own life.

SECTION B
Question.25. What do we observe on pouring acetic acid on red and blue litmus papers?
(A) Red litmus remains red and blue litmus turns red.
(B) Red litmus turns blue and blue litmus remains blue.
(C) Red litmus turns blue and blue litmus turns red.
(D) Red litmus becomes colourless and blue litmus remains blue.
Answer. (A)

Question.26. While preparing soap a small quantity of common salt is generally added to the reaction mixture of vegetable oil and sodium hydroxide. Which one of the following may be the purpose of adding common salt?
(A) To reduce the basic nature of the soap
(B) To make the soap neutral
(C) To enhance the cleansing power of the soap
(D) To favour the precipitation of the soap
Answer. (D)

Question.27. A student takes about 4 mL of distilled water in four test tubes marked P, Q, R and S. He then dissolves in each test tube an equal amount of one salt in one test tube, namely sodium sulphate in P, potassium sulphate in Q, calcium sulphate in R and magnesium sulphate in S. After that he adds an equal amount of soap solution in each test tube. On shaking each of these test tubes well, he observes a good amount of lather (foam) in the test tubes marked
(A) P and Q (B) Q and R (C) P, Q and S (D) P, R and S
Answer. (A)

Question.28. A student was asked to observe and identify the various parts of an embryo of a red kidney bean seed. He identified the parts and listed them as under:
I. Tegtnen II. Testa III. Cotyledon IV. Radicle V. Plumule
The correctly identified parts among these are:
(A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV (C) III, IV and V (D) I, III, IV and V
Answer. (C)

Question.29. Given below is the list of vegetables available in the market. Select from these the two vegetables having homologous structures: Potato, sweet potato, ginger, radish, tomato, carrot, okra (Lady’s finger)
(A) Potato and sweet potato (B) Radish and carrot
(C) Okra and sweet potato (D) Potato and tomato
Answer. (B)

Question.30. A student obtains a sharp image of the distant window (W) of the school laboratory on the screen (S) using the given concave mirror (M) to determine its focal length. Which of the following distances should he measure to get the focal length of the mirror?
(A) MW (B) MS
(C) SW (D) MW-MS

Answer. (B)

Question.31. A student used a device (X) to obtain/focus the image of a well illuminated distant building on a screen (S) as shown below in the diagram. Select the correct statement about the device (X).
(A) This device is a concave lens of focal length 8 cm.
(B) This device is a convex mirror of focal length 8 cm.
(C) This device is a convex lens of focal length 4 cm.
(D) This device is a convex lens of focal length 8 cm.

Answer. (D)

Question.32. A student traces the path of a ray of light through a rectangular glass slab for the different values of angle of incidence. He observes all possible precautions at each step of the experiment. At the end of the experiment, on analysing the measurements, which of the following conclusions is he likely to draw?
(A) ∠z = ∠e < ∠r (B) ∠z < ∠e < ∠r (C) ∠z > ∠e > ∠r (D)∠z = ∠e > ∠r
Answer. (D)

Question.33. A student traces the path of a ray of light through a triangular glass prism for different values of angle of incidence. On analysing the ray diagrams, which one of the following conclusions is he likely to draw?
(A) The emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray.
(B) The emergent ray bends at an angle to the direction of the incident ray.
(C) The emergent ray and the refracted ray are at right angles to each other.
(D) The emergent ray is perpendicular to the incident ray.
Answer. (B)

Question.34. When you add sodium hydrogen carbonate to acetic acid in a test tube, a gas liberates immediately with a brisk effervescence. Name this gas. Describe the method of testing this gas.
Answer. When sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to acetic acid in a test tube, then a brisk effervescence is observed due to the liberation of CO₂ gas which is colourless and odourless.

Question.35. Students were asked to observe the permanent slides showing different stages of budding in yeast under high power of a microscope.
(a) Which adjustment screw (coarse/fine) were you asked to move to focus the slides ?
(b) Draw three diagrams in correct sequence showing budding in yeast.
Answer. (a) A fine adjustment screw is moved to focus the slides.

Question.36. A 4 cm tall object is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens. The distance of the object from the optical centre of the lens is 12 cm and its sharp image is formed at a distance of 24 cm from it on a screen on the other side of the lens. If the object is now moved a little away from the lens, in which way (towards the lens or away from the lens) will he have to move the screen to get a sharp image of the object on it again? How will the magnification of the image be affected?
Answer. (a) The screen should be moved towards the lens to get a sharp image of the object again. (b) Magnification of the image decreases on moving the object away from the lens.

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
SECTION A
Question.1. Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of propane, C₃H₈.
Answer.

Question.2. Where is DNA found in a cell?
Answer. DNA is found in the nucleus of the cell.

Question.3. The first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant. Why?
Answer. The first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant because green plants have a mechanism for trapping solar energy with the help of their green pigment called chlorophyll and convert it into chemical energy which is stored as carbohydrates in the plant for the use of the next tropic level.

Question.5. We often observe domestic waste decomposing in the by lanes of our homes. List four ways to make the residents aware that the improper disposal of wastes is harmful to the environment and also for their own health.
Answer. The various ways to make residents aware of the harmful effects of improper disposal of wastes are as follows:

1. By putting posters and hoardings.
2. By distributing pamphlets to the residents.
3. By conducting meetings of residents, welfare society, etc.
4. By advertisements through TV/radio/cable operators, etc.
   Through all these mediums we can make the residents aware of how such waste serves as a breeding ground for mosquitoes, releases harmful gases, reduces soil fertility, etc.

Question.6. List any two advantages associated with water stored in the ground.
Answer. Advantages of underground water:

1. The water stored in the ground does not evaporate.
2. The water stored in the ground does not promote breeding of mosquitoes.

Question.7. What is meant by homologous series of carbon compounds? Classify the following carbon compounds into two homologous series and name them.
C₃H₄ C₄H₆, C₄H₈, C₅H₈, C₅H₁₀
Answer. A homologous series is a group of organic compounds having similar structure and similar chemical properties in which the successive compounds differ by CH₂ group.

Question.9. The elements 4Be, 12Mg and 20Ca, each having two valence electrons in their valence shells, are in periods 2, 3 and 4 respectively of the modern periodic table. Answer the following questions associated with these elements, giving reason in each case:
(a) In which group should they be?
(b) Which one of them is least reactive?
(c) Which one of them has the largest atomic size?
Answer.

(a) They all belong to 2nd group of the periodic table as all the elements have two valence electrons in their valence shell.
(b) Be is least reactive as it contains the least number of shells (i.e., 2). The tendency of an atom to lose electrons on moving down in a group increases as valence electrons move more and more away from the nucleus and nuclear charge on valence electrons decreases.
(c) Ca has the largest atomic size as it has the maximum number of shells.

Question.11. List three distinguishing features between sexual and asexual types of reproduction, in tabular form.
Answer. Difference between Sexual and Asexual reproduction. See Q. 16, 2014 (III Outside Delhi).

Question.14. A pea plant with blue colour flower denoted by BB is cross-bred with a pea plant with white flower denoted by ww.
(a) What is the expected colour of the flowers in their F₄ progeny?
(b) What will be the percentage of plants bearing white flower in F₂ generation, when the flowers of F₄ plants were selfed?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotype BB and Bw in the F₂ progeny.
Answer.

Question.18. What is an ecosystem? List its two main components. We do not clean natural ponds or lakes but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Why is it so? Explain.
Answer. An ecosystem is a self-contained unit of living things (plants, animals and decomposers) and their non-living environment (soil, air and water). An ecosystem needs only the input of sunlight energy for its functioning.
Ecosystem is made up of two main components:
(i) Abiotic component meaning non-living component.
(ii) Biotic component meaning living component.
An aquarium is an artificial ecosystem. It needs to be cleaned regularly because it has – stagnant water and no decomposers. Therefore the dead parts and excrete of the organisms of the aquarium are not decomposed and would never be returned to their original pool. The accumulation of these wastes can be dangerous for the living organisms in the aquarium.

Question.19. What are fossils? How are they formed? Described in brief two methods of determining the age of fossils. State any one role of fossils in the study of the process of evolution.
Answer. See Q. 18, 2012 (I Outside Delhi).

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II.
SECTION A
Question.1. Write the number of covalent bonds in the molecule of butane, C₄H₁₀.
Answer.

Question.2. Name two simple organisms having the ability of regeneration.
Answer. Two simple organisms having the ability of regeneration are Planaria and Hydra.

Question.3. Which of the following are always at the second trophic level of food chains?
Carnivores, Auto trophs, Herbivores
Answer. Herbivores are always at the second trophic level of food chains.

Question.4. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to an incident ray of light parallel to the principal axis of a convex mirror and show the angle of incidence and angle of reflection on it.
Answer. See Q. 5, 2014 (I Delhi).

Question.5. Why is sustainable management of natural resources necessary? Out of the two reuse and recycle which, in your opinion, is better to practise? Give reason.
Answer. Sustainable management is management that encourages the judicious use of natural resources to meet the current basic human needs while preserving the resources for the needs of future generations.
Reuse is a better practise than recycle as recyling requires a large amount of energy and money. In this strategy, we are encouraged to use things again and again instead of throwing them away with no expense of energy. Reuse also does not cause pollution. Example, plastic bottles of jams and pickles can be reused for storing things in the kitchen.

Question.7. Write the name and general formula of a chain of hydrocarbons in which an addition reaction with hydrogen is possible. State the essential condition for an addition reaction. Stating this condition, write a chemical equation giving the name of the reactant and the product of the reaction.
Answer. Addition of hydrogen is possible in Alkenes C_nH_2n and Alkynes C_nH_2n-2

• Addition reaction of unsaturated hydrocarbons occurs in the presence of catalysts such as nickel (Ni) or palladium (Pd) or platinum (Pt) to form saturated hydrocarbons.
• Example, Ethene reacts with hydrogen when heated in the presence of nickel catalyst to form ethane.
  

Question.9. Given below are some elements of the modern periodic table. Atomic number of the element is given in the parentheses: A(4), B(9), C(14), D(19), E(20)
(a) Select the element that has one electron in the outermost shell. Also write the electronic configuration of this element.
(b) Which two elements amongst these belong to the same group? Give reason for your answer.
(c) Which two elements amongst these belong to the same period? Which one of the two has bigger atomic radius?
Answer.

(a) D has 1 electron in the-outermost shell. Atomic no. = 19, Elec. Configuration = 2, 8, 8,1
(b) A and E belong to the same group, i.e., 2nd group of the periodic table as both have same number of valence electrons (i.e., 2) in their outermost shell.
(c) A & B and D &’E belong to the same period as they have the same no. of valence shells. A and B have 2 shells thus belong to 2nd period of the periodic table.
D and E have 4 shells thus belong to 4th period of the periodic table.
A has the bigger atomic radius among A and B and D has the bigger atomic radius among D and E as atomic size decreases on moving from left to right in a period (or atomic size decreases as the atomic number increases in a period).

Question.12. List four categories of contraceptive methods. State in brief two advantages of adopting such preventive methods.
Answer. Three different methods of contraception. See Q. 12, 2014 (Delhi).
Advantages of adopting such preventive methods:

1. Contraceptive methods are used to prevent the spread of sexually transmitted diseases like syphilis, AIDS, etc.
2. Contraceptives prevent unwanted and frequent pregnancies. If a couple has less number of children, they can provide good clothes, good food and a good education to each child. This will make the parents as well as children happy.

Question.17. An object of height 5 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of focal length 10 cm. If the distance of the object from the optical centre is 20 cm, determine the position, nature and size of the image formed using the lens formula.
Answer.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Outside Delhi 2015 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Delhi – 2012

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1.  The Question Paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the Sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. All questions ofSection-A and all questions ofSection-B are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section-A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
5. Question numbers 4 to 6 in Section-A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
6. Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section-A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in
   about 50 words each.
7. Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section-A are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
8.  Question numbers 25 to 36 in Section-B are questions based on practical skills. Question nos. 25 to 33 are MCQs. Each question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you. Question nos. 34 to 36 are short answer questions carrying two marks each.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1 Name the functional group present in each of the following organic compounds:
(i)C₂H₅Cl (ii) C₂H₅OH
Answer. Functional group present in:
(i) C₂H₅Cl — Chloro (halide)
(ii)C₂H₅OH — alcohol

Question.2 What will be the colour of the sky when it is observed from a place in the absence of any atmosphere?
Answer. The colour of sky will be black when it is observed from a place where atmosphere is absent as dispersion of light does not take place when there is no atmosphere.

Question.3 Which class of chemicals is linked to the decrease in the amount of ozone in the upper atmosphere of the earth?
Answer.The depletion of ozone layer is due to the use of chemicals called chlorofluorocarbons.

Question.4 List two advantages of vegetative reproduction practised in case of an orange plant.
Answer. Advantages of vegetative reproduction in case of an orange plant:

1.  In case an orange plant is grown from seeds it may take many years before it starts to bear fruit. But if the plant is grown from vegetative reproduction, it starts bearing fruits much earlier.
2. Seedless oranges can be obtained by this method.

Question.5 How can the valency of an element be determined if its electronic configuration is known? What will be the valency of an element of atomic number 9 (nine)?
Answer. Valency of an element can be determined by knowing its valence electrons which can be determined by knowing the electronic configuration.
The elements with valence electrons 1 to 4. Their valencies are also equivalent to their respective valence electrons.
The elements with valence electrons 5 to 8. Their valencies correspond to (8 – V.E.).
Atomic number = 9      Electronic configuration = 2, 7
Valence electrons = 7   Valency = 8-7 = 1

Question.6 An element ‘X’ has atomic number 11:
(a) Write its electron configuration, (b) State the group to which ‘X’ belongs?
(c) Is ‘X’ a metal or a non-metal? (d) Write the formula of its bromide.
Answer.

Question.7 Explain the variation of the following properties of the element in the periodic table.

1. Atomic radius in a period.
2. Metallic character in a period.
3. Valency in a group.

Answer.

1. On moving from left to right in a period of the periodic table, the atomic radius of elements decreases.
2. On moving from left to right in a period, the metallic character of elements decreases and non-metallic character increases.
3. and non-metallic character increases.
   As the number of valance electrons in a group is the same, all the elements in a group have the same valency.

Question.8 (a)Name any four varieties of vegetables which have been produced from ‘wild cabbage’ by the process of artificial selection.
(b)Give one example of an evolutionary change produced in an organism for one purpose which later on becomes more useful for a different function.
Answer.
(a)Cabbage, broccoli, kale, kohlrabi are evolved from wild cabbage by artificial selection.
(b)Sometimes an evolutionary change produced in an organism for one purpose later on becomes more useful for an entirely different function. For example: Birds have evplved feathers as a means of providing insulation to their bodies in cold weather but later on these feathers became more useful for the purpose of flying.

Question.9 Subhash has started the project of constructing his building. His architect suggested that he should add a system of rain water harvesting in his building. He thought by adopting water harvesting in his project he can solve his water crisis problem in the years to come.
(i)Is Subhash correct in his approach? Support your answer.
(ii)Give the value shozvn by Subhash.
Answer.
(i)Rain water collected on the roof is not alloroed to go into the drain. It is allowed to percolate under the ground by a specially made passage so as to recharge the ground-water. This process is called rain water harvesting.
Advantages of rain water harvesting:

• Rain water stored as underground ivater does not evaporate.
• ‘The water stored in ground does not promote breeding of mosquitoes.
• It is protected from contamination by human and animal waste.
• This water recharges wells.

(ii)Water is precious. We should not waste it.

Question.10 A student cannot see a chart hanging on a wall placed at a distance of 3 m from him. Name the defect of vision he is suffering from. How can it be corrected? Draw ray diagrams for the

1.  defect of vision and also
2.  for its correction.

Answer. If a student cannot see the object clearly placed at a distance of 3 m from him then he is suffering from Myopia or Short Sightedness.

Question.11 The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 45 cm from a spherical lens is formed on a screen placed at a distance of 90 cm from the lens. Identify the type of lens and calculate its focal length. If the height of the flame is 2 cm, find the height of its image.
Answer.

Question.12 State the type of mirror preferred as

1.  rear view mirror in vehicles,
2. shaving mirror.

Justify your answer giving two reasons in each case.
Answer.

1. Convex mirror is used as rear view mirror in vehicles because the image formed in a convex mirror is highly diminished thus a convex mirror gives a wide field of view. Therefore a convex mirror enables a driver to view a much larger area of the traffic , behind him.
2.  Concave mirror is used as shaving mirror because when face is held within the focus of a concave mirror, an enlarged image of the face is seen in the concave mirror.

Question.13 What are isomers? Draw the structures of two isomers of butane,C₄H₁₀.Why can’t we have isomers of first three members of alkane series?
Answer.The organic compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures are known as isomers.

Isomerism is not possible in first three members of alkane series (i.e., methane, ethane, propane) because they contain only one, two or three carbon atoms respectively and with only 1,2 or 3 carbon atoms, it is not possible to have different arrangements of carbon atoms.

Question.14 F, Cl and Br are the elements each having seven valence electrons. Which of these

1.  has the largest atomic radius,
2.  is most reactive? Justify your answer stating reason for each.

Answer. F, Cl and Br belong to the same group (17th) as each has same number of valence elements ‘7.

•  Out of F, Cl and Br, Bromine has the largest atomic radius because on going down in a group of the periodic table, the size of atoms increases as number of electron shell of electrons is added to the atoms at every step.
•  Out of F, Cl and Br, Fluorine is the most reactive because the chemical reactivity of non-metals decreases on going down in a group of the periodic table as moving down in a group of non-metals, the size of the atoms goes on increasing. Thus the nucleus of atoms goes more and more deep inside it and hence attraction for the incoming electrons decreases. Therefore the tendency of atoms to gain electrons decreases, due to which their reactivity decreases.

Question.15 Explain the meaning of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Give two examples of STDs each, caused due to

1.  bacterial infection and
2.  viral infection. State in brief how the spread of such diseases may be prevented.

Answer. The diseases which are spread by sexual contact with an infected person are called sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).

1. Gonorrhea and Syphilis are some common STDs caused by bacteria.
2. AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome) and Genital Warts are some examples of STDs caused by virus.
   Spread of such diseases may be prevented by educating people in high risk groups, : screening tests for blood donors and mutually faithful monogamous relationships.

Question.16 A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is crossbred with that of white colour flower plant denoted by bb.
(a) State the colour of flower you would expect in their F₁ generation plants.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F₂   generation if flowers of F₁ plants are self-pollinated?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F₂ progeny.
Answer.

Question.17 What is meant by the term speciation? List four factors which could lead to speciation. 
Answer. The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as speciation. Important factors which could lead to the formation of a new species are as follows:

•  Genetic drift caused by drastic changes in the frequencies of particular genes by chance alone.
• Geographical isolation of a population caused by various types of barriers like moun¬tain ranges, river, sea etc. The geographical isolation leads to reproductive isolation due to which there is no flow of genes between separated groups of population.
•  Variation caused in individuals due to natural selection.
• Sometimes the sub-population becomes reproductively isolated by ecological barriers. Therefore it occurs within the same geographical area and within the original population. –

Question.18 Distinguish between homologous organs and analogous organs. In which category would you place wings of a bird and wings of a bat? Justify your answer giving a suitable reason.
Answer.

Reason. Wings of a bird and wings of a bat are homologous organs because they have similar basic design.

Question.19 List in tabular form three physical and two chemical properties on the basis of which ethanol and ethanoic acid can be differentiated.
Answer.

Question.20 State the law of refraction of light that defines the refractive index of a medium with respect to the other. Express it mathematically. How is refractive index of any medium ‘A’ with respect to a medium ‘B’ related to the speed of propagation of light in two media A and B? State the name of this constant when one medium is vacuum or air. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to vacuum are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively. If the speed of light in glass is 2×10⁸ m/s, find the speed of light in (i) vacuum, (ii) water.
Answer. The second law of refraction gives a relationship between the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction. This law is also known as Snell’s Law of Refraction.

Question.21 List the sign conventions for reflection of light by spherical mirrors. Draw a diagram and . apply these conventions in the determination of focal length of a spherical mirror which forms a three times magnified real image of an object placed 16 cm in front of it.
Answer. Sign conventions for reflection of light by spherical mirrors.

1.  All the distances are measured from pole of the mirror as origin.
2.  The object is always placed to the left of the mirror.
3. Distances measured in the direction of incident light are considered to be positive (+ve).
4.  Distances measured against the direction of incident light are considered to be negative (-ve).
5. The perpendicular distances to the principal axis in the upward direction are considered to be positive (+ve).
6.  The perpendicular distances to the principal axis in the downward direction are considered to be negative      (-ve).
   u = object distance           v = image distance f = focal length
   h = height of the object   h = height of the image
   P = Principal axis             C = Centre of curvature F = Focus
   
   

Question.22 What is the difference between the chemical composition of soaps and detergents? State in brief the action of soaps in removing an oily spot from a shirt. Why are soaps not considered suitable for washing where water is hard?
Answer. Difference between the chemical composition of soaps and detergents:

Action of soaps. See Q. 20(b), 2011 (I Delhi). [Page P – 7
Soaps are not considered suitable for washing where water is hard. See Q. 20(a), 2011 (Delhi). [Page P-6

Question.23 Define the terms pollination and fertilisation. Draw a diagram of a pistil showing pollen tube growth into the ovule and label the following:
pollen grain, male gamete, female gamete, ovary.
Answer. Pollination: Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel. Pollination occurs only in plants. Pollination can occur in two ways: (a) self pollination and (b) cross pollination. It is a physical process.
Fertilisation: The fusion of a male gamete with a female gamete to form zygote is called fertilisation. Fertilisation occurs in plants as well as in animals. Fertilisation is also of two types: (a) external fertilisation and (b) internal fertilisation. It is a biochemical process.

Question.24 Describe in brief the role of

1.  testis
2.  seminal vesicle,
3.  vas deferens,
4.  ureter and
5.  prostate gland in human male reproductive system.

Answer. Role in human male reproductive system:

1.  Testis. Testis is the main reproduction organ of the male reproductive system. There are two testes located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum because sperm forma¬tion requires a lower temperature than the normal body temperature. So testis pro¬duces male germ cells (sperms). Testis also produces male sex hormone (testosterone).
2. Seminal vesicle. Seminal vesicle is a pair of male reproductive glands present between the rectum and urinary bladder. It secretes seminal fluid which is alkaline and neutralises the acidity of urine and activates sperms.
3. Vas deferens. Vas deferens or sperm duct is a long tube which joins the testes with another tube called urethra coming from the bladder. The sperms formed in the testis are delivered through the vas deferens to urethra.
4. Ureter. These are a pair of long, narrow, thin-walled and tubular structures which start from the hilum of the kidneys, ran downward and open in urinary bladder. These conduct the urine from the kidneys to urinary bladder.
5.  Prostate gland. It is a single, large sized & lobulated gland present just below the urinary bladder. It adds its secretion to the sperm which provides nutrition to the sperms.

SECTION B
Question.25 The colour of a freshly prepared solution filled in a test tube is pale green. The solution could be:
(A) Zinc sulphate (B) Ferrous sulphate
(C) Copper sulphate (D) Aluminium sulphate
Answer. (B) Ferrous sulphate

Question.26 A student prepared an aqueous solution of CuSO₄ in beaker X and an aqueous solution of FeSO₄ in beaker Y. He then dropped some iron pieces in beaker X and some zinc pieces in beaker Y. After about 10 hours he observed that the solutions in X and Y respectively appear:
(A) blue and green (B) colourless and pale green
(C) colourless and light blue (D) greenish and colourless
Answer.(D) greenish and colourless

Question.27 A student adds 4 ml of acetic acid to a test tube containing 4 mL of distilled water. He then shakes the test tube and leaves it to settle. After about 10 minutes he observes:
(A) a layer of water over the layer of acetic acid
(B) a layer of acetic acid over the layer of water
(C) a precipitate settling at the bottom of the test tube
(D) a clear colourless solution
Answer. (D) a clear colourless solution

Question.28 To determine focal length of a concave mirror a student obtains the image of a well lit distant object on a screen. To determine the focal length of the given concave mirror he needs to measure the distance between:
(A) mirror and the object
(B) mirror and the screen
(C) screen and the object
(D) screen and the object and also mirror and the screen
Answer.(B) mirror and the screen

Question.29 To determine the focal length of a convex lens by obtaining a sharp image of a distant object we generally follow the following steps which are not in proper sequence.,
(A) Hold the lens between the object and the screen
(B) Measure the distance between the lens and the screen
(C) Select a well lit distant object
Answer.(B) Measure the distance between the lens and the screen

Question.30 A student traces the path of a ray of white light through a rectangular glass slab and marks the angles of incidence (∠i), refraction (∠r) and emergence (∠e) as shown. Which angle or angles has he NOT marked correctly?

(A) ∠i only      (B) ∠i and ∠r
(C) ∠i and ∠e (D) ∠r and∠e

Answer. (C) ∠i and ∠e

Question.31 After viewing different slides, a student draws following which depicts binary fission in amoeba.

Answer.(C) C

Question.32 After observing the prepared slides of binary fission in amoeba and budding in yeast . following observations were reported:
(A) Single cells of amoeba and yeast were undergoing binary fission and budding respectively.
(B) Cytokinesis was observed in the yeast cell.
(C) Elongated nucleus was dividing to form two daughter nuclei in amoeba.
(D) A chain of buds was observed due to reproduction in amoeba.
The correct observation(s) is/are:
(A) A and C (B) B only (C) C and D (D) D, A and C
Answer. (A) A and C

Question.33 While performing the experiment with raisins to determine the percentage of water absorbed by them, a student made following measurements:
Mass of water in the beaker = 40 g
Mass of raisins before soaking = 5 g
Mass of raisins after soaking for 2 hours = 8 g
Mass of water left in the beaker after the experiment = 35 g
The percentage of water absorbed by raisins is:

Answer.

Question.34 How will you distinguish between a concave mirror and convex mirror in the laboratory?
Answer.

1. Concave mirror forms both inverted and erect image of the object.
   Convex mirror forms only erect image.
2.  Erect image formed by a concave mirror is magnified in size.
   Erect image formed by a convex mirror is always diminished in size.

Question.35 Can we test hard water by using detergent? Write one more method other than using soap to test the hardness of hard water.
Answer. We cannot use detergent for testing hard water. As detergents form lather in both hard water and soft water.
Method to test the hardness of water. If on boiling the water, some insoluble salt’s precipitates (white ppt.) are formed, these precipitates then settle down and can be removed by filtering the water. The given sample of water is then hard,water.

Question.36 Out of potato, sweet potato, radish and carrot; make pairs of Homologous organs and Analogous organs.
Answer. Radish and carrot both are homologous organs as these are modified roots.
Potato and sweet potato are analogous organs, as these both are underground structures and store food. But potato is a stem and sweet potato is an underground modified root,

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
SECTION A
Question.1 Name the functional group present in each of the following compounds:
(i) HCOOH (ii) C₂H₅CHO
Answer. Organic compound:
(i) HCOOH
(ii) C₂H₅CHO
Functional group:
(i) Carboxylic acid ( —COOH)
(ii) Aldehyde (—CHO)

Question.2 The sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut. State its reason.
Answer. There is no atmosphere containing air in space to scatter sunlight. As there is no scattering of light in space, the scattered light does not reach the eyes and the sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut in outer space.

Question.3 Depletion of ozone in the ozone layer is a cause for our worry. Why?
Answer. Depletion of ozone in the ozone layer is a cause for our worry because if the ozone layer in the atmosphere disappears completely, then all the extremely harmful ultraviolet radiations coming from the Sun would reach the earth. These ultraviolet radiations would cause skin cancer and other ailments hi men and animals, and also damage the plants.

Question.4 How does a growing embryo get nutrition from the mother’s blood?
Answer.There is a special tissue developed between the uterus wall and embryo called placenta. It is through the placenta that all the requirements of the developing foetus like nutrition, respiration and excretion etc. are met from the mother’s body.

Question.5 State the modern periodic law for classification of elements. How many

1. groups and
2.  periods are there in the modern periodic table?

Answer.

1.  Groups = 18,
2. Periods = 7

Question.6 An element ‘M’ has atomic number 11:
(a) Write its electron configuration(b) State the group to which ‘M’ belongs?
(c) Is ‘M’ a metal or a non-metal?    (d) Write the formula of its chloride.
Answer.

Question.10 The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 30 cm from a spherical lens is formed on a screen placed at a distance of 60 cm from the lens. Identify the type of lens and calculate its focal length. If the height of the flame is 2.4 cm, find the height of its image.
Answer.

Question.14 Define homologous series of organic compounds. List its two characteristics. Write the name and formula of the first member of the series of alkenes.
Answer.A homologous series is a group of organic compounds having similar structures and similar chemical properties in which the successive compounds differ by CH₂ group. Characteristics
of homologous series:

1.  All the members of a homologous series can be represented by the same general formula.
2. The difference in the molecular mass of any two adjacent homologues is 14 u.
   

Question.17 State and describe in brief any three main factors responsible for the rise of a new species.
Answer. See Q. 17, 2012 (I Delhi). [Page P – 33

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and
Set-11.
SECTION A
Question.1 Name the functional group present in each of the following organic compounds:
(i) CH₃COCH₃(ii) C₂H₅COOH
Answer. Organic compound Functional group
(i) CH₃COCH₃ (>C = O) Ketonic group
(ii)C₂H₅COOH (-COOH) Carboxylic acid

Question.2 Which phenomenon is responsible for making the path of light visible?
Answer. Tyndall effect is responsible for making the path of light visible.

Question.3 Which class of carbon compounds is responsible for the depletion of ozone layer at the higher level of the atmosphere?
Answer. The depletion of ozone layer is due to the use of chemicals called chlorofluorocarbons.

Question.4 List four properties of the image formed by a concave mirror when object is placed between focus and pole of the mirror.
Answer. Characteristics of image formed by a concave mirror when object is placed between focus and pole of the mirror.
Image is virtual, erect, magnified, i.e., bigger than the object and behind the mirror.

Question.5 Define the term puberty. List two changes observed in girls at the time of puberty.
Answer. Puberty. The age at which the sex hormones (or gametes) begin to be produced and the boy and girl become sexually mature (able to reproduce) is called puberty.
Generally boys attain puberty at the age of 13 to 14 years while girls reach puberty at the age of 10 to 12 years.
Changes observed in girls at the time of puberty are—mammary glands develop and enlarge; menstruation starts.

Question.6 What is meant by asexual reproduction. List its any two different forms.
Answer. Asexual reproduction. The production of a new organism from a single parent without the involvement of sex cells is called asexual reproduction.
Different forms: (i) fission and (ii) budding.

Question.10 The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 36 cm from a’spherical lens is formed on a screen placed at a distance of 72 cm from the lens. Identify the type of lens and calculate its focal length. If the height of the flame is 2.5 cm, find the height of the image.
Answer.

Question.11 An element ‘M’ has atomic number 12:
(a) Write its electronic configuration.
(b) State the group to which ‘M’ belongs.
(c) State the period to which ‘M’ belongs.
(d) State the valency of ‘M’.
(e) Is ‘M’ a metal or a non-metal?
If) Write the formula of its oxide.
Answer.

Question.17 Define the term ‘evolution’. “Evolution cannot be equated with progress.” Justify this statement.
Answer.Evolution. Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes which take place in the primitive organisms over millions of years in which new species are produced.
Evolution cannot be equated with progress. More and more complex body designs have emerged and evolved over time, but this does not mean that the older designs are inefficient. One of the simplest life for bacteria came into being very early in evolution is still surviving in the present conditions. Bacteria inhabits the most inhospitable habitats like hot springs, deep sea, thermal vents and ice in Antarctica. But human beings, have a body design which is best suited to their environment and supports their existence.

Question.18 Complete the following equations:

Answwer.

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The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Delhi – 2012 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Outside Delhi – 2012

ScienceMathsSanskritEnglishComputer ScienceHindiSocial Science
Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1.  The Question Paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the Sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. All questions ofSection-A and all questions ofSection-B are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section-A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
5. Question numbers 4 to 6 in Section-A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
6. Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section-A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in
   about 50 words each.
7. Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section-A are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
8.  Question numbers 25 to 36 in Section-B are questions based on practical skills. Question nos. 25 to 33 are MCQs. Each question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you. Question nos. 34 to 36 are short answer questions carrying two marks each.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1 Write the name and formula of the second member of the carbon compounds having functional group—OH.
Answer. Second member of alcohol family — C₂H₅OH CH₃-CH₂-OH Ethanol

Question.2 State one function of iris in human eye.
Answer. Function of iris. Iris regulates the amount of light entering the eye by adjusting the size of the pupil.

Question.3 What happens when higher energy ultraviolet radiations act on the oxygen at the higher level of the atmosphere?
Answer. The high energy ultraviolet radiation (UV radiation) coming from the Sun splits oxygen
gas into free oxygen atoms

The free oxygen atoms thus produced react with an oxygen molecule to form ozone molecule

Question.4 In a food chain, if 10,000 joules of energy is available to the producer, how much energy will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to the tertiary consumer?
Answer.

Question.5 Choose from the following:

Answer.

Question.6 An element ‘X’ belongs to 3rd period and group 17 of the periodic table. State its
(i) electronic configuration, (ii) valency. Justify your answer with reasoning.
Answer.

Question.7(a) State the role of placenta in the development of embryo.
(b) What happens when the egg is not fertilised?
Answer.
(a) Role of placenta. After implantation, a disc like special tissue develops between the uterus wall and the embryo called placenta.
The exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste products between the embryo and the mother takes place through the placenta.
(b) If the egg does not get fertilised (due to non-availability of sperms in the female body) then the thick and soft inner lining of uterus along with the blood vessels and the dead egg comes out of the vagina in the form of bleeding called menstruation.

Question.8 To construct ray diagram we use two light rays which are so chosen that it is easy to know their directions after reflection from the mirror. List these two rays and state the path of these rays after reflection. Use these rays to locate the image of an object placed between centre of curvature and focus of a concave mirror.
Answer. Rays used and their path after reflection:
(i) A ray parallel to the principal axis after reflection this ray will pass through the principal focus in case of a concave mirror or appear to diverge from the principal focus in case of a convex mirror.
(ii)A ray passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror or directed in the direction of the centre of curvature of a convex mirror, after reflection, is reflected back along the same path.

Question.9 (a) Draw a labelled ray diagram to illustrate the dispersion of a narrow beam of white light when it passes through a glass prism.
(b) A star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position in the sky. Illustrate it with the help of a labelled diagram.
Answer.

Question.10 A 4 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 24 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 16 cm. Find the position, size and nature of the image formed, using the lens formula.
Answer.

Question.11 List three problems which arise due to construction of big dams. Suggest a solution for these problems.
Answer. Three problems that arise due to construction of big dams:

1. Social problems. Due to the construction of high rise dams, a large number of human settlements are submerged in the water of large reservoir formed by the dam and many people are rendered homeless.
2.  Environmental problems. The construction of high rise dams on the rivers contributes to deforestation and loss of biodiversity.
3.  Economic problems. Some people believe that the construction of high-rise dams involve the spending of huge amounts of public money without the generation of proportionate benefits.
   Suggestions for these problems. All the people who are displaced from the dam site should be given adequate compensation by the Government for rehabilitation so as to start their life afresh.

Question.12 List the products pf combustion of fossil fuels. What are their adverse effects on the environment?
Answer. When fossil fuels are burnt, the products of combustion are—carbon dioxide, water, sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides. If combustion takes place in an insufficient supply of air then carbon monoxide is produced. All these products are harmful and create some adverse effects on the environment.

1.  Sulphur dioxide dissolves in rainwater making it acidic. The acid rain thus produced damages trees, plants, buildings and metal structures.
2. Nitrogen oxide also causes acid rain.
3.  Carbon monoxide is a green house gas which traps Sun’s heat energy falling on the earth. The increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere causes increased green house effects leading to global warming.

Question.13 What is meant by homologous series of organic compounds? Write the chemical formulae of two members of a homologous series and state which part determines the

1.  physical properties,
2. chemical properties, of these compounds.

Answer. A homologous series is a group of organic compounds having similar structures and similar chemical properties in which the successive compounds differ by CH₂ group. Example: The general formula of. the homologous series of alkenes is where n is
the number of carbon atoms.
1st member is CH₄, 2nd member is C₂H₆

1. The members of a homologous series show a gradual change in their physical pro¬perties with increase in molecular mass, e.g., as the number of carbon atoms increases, the melting points, boiling points and densities of its members increase gradually.
2. All the compounds of homologous series show similar chemical properties because the basic structure of all the members of a homologous series is similar.

Question.14 Na, Mg and A1 are the elements having one, two and three valence electrons , . respectively. Which of these elements

1. has the largest atomic radius,
2.  is least

reactive? Justify your answer stating reason for each.
Answer. Na, Mg and AI are the elements of same period where Na is the first, Mg is the second and A1 is the third member.

1.  Na has the largest atomic radius because on moving from left to right in a period, the atomic radius of elements decreases. As we move from left to right in a period, the atomic number of elements increases and the extra electrons are added to the same
   shell. Due to large positive charge on the nucleus, the electrons are pulled in more close to the nucleus and the size of the atom decreases.
2.  Sodium is very reactive, Mg is less reactive whereas Al is still less reactive because on moving from left to right in a period, the chemical reactivity first decreases and then increases.

Question.15 List and explain in brief three methods of contraception.
Answer. Three different methods of contraception:

1.  Barrier methods. In these methods, physical devices such as condoms, diaphragm and cervical caps are used. These devices prevent the entry of sperm in the female genital tract, thus acting as a barrier between them.
2. Surgical methods. There are surgeries that can be carried out in males and females. In males, a small portion of the sperm duct (vas deferens) is blocked by surgical operation. It prevents the egg to reach the uterus. In both the cases, fertilisation will not take place.
3.  Chemical methods. This category of contraceptives acts by changing the hormonal balance of the body so that eggs are not released and fertilisation cannot occur. Females use two types of pills for preventing pregnancies, i.e., oral pills and vaginal pills. The oral pills contain hormones which stop the ovaries from releasing ovum into fallopian tube. This is also called oral contraceptives (OC).
   Other contraceptive devices such as loop or the copper-T are placed in the uterus to prevent pregnancy.

Question.16 If we cross pure-bred tall (dominant) pea plant with pure-bred dwarf (recessive) pea plant we will get pea plants of  F₁ generation. If we now self-cross the pea plant of F₁ generation, then we obtain pea plants of  F₂ generation.
(a) What do the plants of F₁ generation look like?
(b) State the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F₂ generation.
(c) State the type of plants not found in  F₁, generation but appeared in  F₂ generation, mentioning the reason for the same.
Answer.
(a) The plants of F₁generation are all Tall.
(b) Tall plants : Dwarf plants — 3:1
(c) Dwarf plants: This is because irt  F₂ generation, Tall is a dominant trait whereas in  F₂ generation, two copies of ‘tt’/recessive traits made the plant dwarf.

Question.17 List in tabular form two distinguishing features between acquired traits and inherited traits, with one example of each.
Answer.

Question.18 How are fossils formed? Describe, in brief, two methods of determining the age of fossils.
Answer. When organisms (plants or animals) die, their bodies will decompose by the action of micro-organisms in the presence of oxygen, moisture, etc.
Sometimes in the lack of such conditions (oxygen, moisture, etc.), their body does not decompose completely and is preserved as fossil with the passage of time in the rocks. In many cases the soft parts of the organism get decomposed and hard parts (like bones etc.) become fossil. Sometimes even the soft parts (like leaf etc.) remain preserved as fossils in the form of their impressions inside the rocks.
Methods to determine the age of fossils:

1.  Relative method. The fossils which we find in layers closer to the surface of the earth are more recent; the fossils which are found in deeper layers are older.
2.  Carbon dating. Fossils were once living objects and all living objects contain some carbon-14 atoms which are radio-active. When a living object dies and forms fossil, its carbon-14 radioactivity goes on decreasing gradually. The age of the fossil is found by comparing the carbon-14 radioactivity left in the fossil with the carbon-14 radio¬activity present in the living objects today.

Question.19 Ethanol is one of the most important industrial chemicals. It is used in medicine, to synthesize many important compounds, it is an excellent solvent.
However, inspite of its benefits it causes many social problems. If a person drinks alcohol regularly, he becomes an alcoholic. Alcohol is non-toxic but it produces physiological effects disturbing brain activity. These persons are also a threat to the lives of othets.
(a) Give three reasons in favour and three reasons against ‘alcohol-free world’.
(b) ‘Alcohol drinking should not be potrayed on media.’ Give valid reasons to justify.
(c) As a student what initiative would you take in the concern of “We should condemn
drinking alcohol”.
Answer. (a) In favour of ‘Alcohol-free world’:

•  Alcohol drinking,Jowers inhibitions which leads to increased violence and crime in the
  society.
•  A liver disease ‘cirrhosis’ caused by alcohol can lead to death.
•  Drunken driving leads to increased road accidents.
  Against ‘Alcohol-free world’:
•  Alcohol is used for making some medicines like cough syrups, tincture iodine, some tonics etc.
• Mixed with petrol, it is now being used as a fuel for light vehicles.
•  It is used-for making antifreeze material for cooling engines of vehicles.

(b) ‘Alcohol drinking should not be portrayed on media’ because young people and children are very much influenced by the media.
(c) Initiatives taken by a student to create awareness about drinking alcohol could be:

1. By slogan writing
2.  By debates
3. By article writing
4. By role plays/skits

Question.20 With the help of a ray diagram, state what is meant by refraction of light. State Snell’s law for refraction of light and also express it mathematically.
The refractive index of air with respect to glass is 2/3 and the refractive index of water with respect to air is 4/3. If the speed of light in glass is 2×10⁸ m/s, find the speed of light in (a) air, (b) water.
Answer. Refraction of light. The bending of light when it passes from one medium to another is called refraction of light.

Question.21 List the new Cartesian sign convention for reflection of light by spherical mirrors. Apply these conventions for calculating the focal length and nature of a spherical mirror which forms a 1/3 times magnified virtual image of an object placed 18 cm in front of it.
Answer.

Question.22 What are hydrocarbons? Write the name and general formula of
(i) saturated hydro-carbons,
(ii) unsaturated hydrocarbons, and draw the structure of one hydrocarbon of each type. How can an unsaturated hydrocarbon be made saturated?
Answer.


Or
What are detergents chemically? List two merits and two demerits of using’detergents for cleansing. State the reason for the suitability of detergents for washing, even in the case of water having calcium and magnesium ions.
Answer. Detergents are generally ammonium of sulphonate salts of long chain carboxylic acids.
A detergent is the sodium salt of a long chain benzene sulphonic acid. A common detergent is sodium n-dodecyl benzene sulphonate.
Detergent can lather well even in hard water because they do not form insoluble calcium water. A detergent works by making the oil and grease particles of dirty clothes dissolve in water through the formation of miscelles.
Merits of using detergents. Detergents are strong cleansing agents. Detergents form foam even with hard water.
Demerits of using detergents. Detergents are non-biodegradable.

Question.23 Distinguish between unisexual and bisexual flowers giving one example of each. Draw a diagram showing the process of germination of pollen grains on stigma and label the following parts:
(i) Female germ cell; (ii) Male germ cell; (iii) Ovary
Answer.Difference between unisexual and bisexual flowers

Question.24 Draw a diagram of human female reproductive system and label the part
(i) that produces eggs.
(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm takes place.
(iii) where zygote is implanted.
What happens to human egg when it is not fertilised?
Answer.

SECTION B
Question.25 The aqueous solutions of copper sulphate and zinc sulphate appear
(A) blue and green respectively (B) green and colourless respectively
(C) blue and brown respectively (D) blue and colourless respectively
Answer.(D) blue and colourless respectively

Question.26 On adding acetic acid to sodium hydrogen carbonate in a test tube, a student observes
(A) no reaction
(B) a colourless gas with pungent smell
(C) bubbles of a colourless and odourless gas
(D) a strong smell of vinegar
Answer.(C) bubbles of a colourless and odourless gas

Question.27 Which one of the following are the correct observations about acetic acid?
(A) It hums blue litmus red and smells like vinegar
(B) It hums blue litmus red and smells like burning sulphur
(C) It turns red litmus blue and smells like vinegar
(D) It turns red litmus blue and has a fruity smell
Answer.(A) It hums blue litmus red and smells like vinegar

Question.28 A student has to determine the focal length of a concave mirror by obtaining the image of a distant object on a screen. For getting the best result he should focus
(A) a distant tree or an electric pole
(B) a well-illuminated distant building
(C) well-lit grills of the nearest window
(D) a burning candle placed at the distant edge of the laboratory table
Answer.(A) a distant tree or an electric pole

Question.29 If you are to determine the focal length of a convex lens, you should have ,
(A) a convex lens and a screen
(B) a convex lens and a lens holder
(C) a lens holder, a screen holder and a scale
(D) a convex lens, a screen holder for them and a scale.
Answer.(D) a convex lens, a screen holder for them and a scale.

Question.30 Four students showed the following traces of the path of a ray of light passing through
a rectangular glass slab.

Answer.  (C) III

Question.31 The following figures illustrate binary fission in Amoeba in an incorrect sequence.

Answer. (A) III, II, IV, I

Question.32 A student weighed some raisins and recorded the weight as V. She then soaked the raisins in distilled water. After about 2 hours she removed the raisins, wiped them dry and weighed again and recorded that as ‘y’. The percentage of water absorbed by raisins may be determined using the relationship

Answer.

Question.33 A chain of yeast cells forms because
(A) yeast cells do not separate after budding
(B) daughter cells are unable to survive without parent cells
(C) buds reproduce as soons as they are formed
(D) daughter cells stick together with the help of mucus
Answer. (A) yeast cells do not separate after budding

Question.34 What are cotyledons? How are the number of cotyledons different in gram seed and the maize (com) seed?
Answer. Cotyledons are special structures in the seeds of the plants. Cotyledons store food for the embryo of the plant.
In gram seeds, there are two cotyledons and in maize (com) seeds, there is only one cotyledon.

Question.35 Why is emergent ray parallel to the incident ray, after the refraction of Incident ray through a glass slab?
Answer. ∠i =∠e in this case, and these are alternate angles. So incident ray is parallel to the emergent ray.

Question.36 When boilers of water are used for a very long time, then white layers get deposited on inside of these boilers? How can these white layers be removed? 
Answer. When hard water is used in these bioilers, then white scum of salts present in the hard water gets deposited inside the boilers making a white layer. These white layers can be removed by washing the boilers with dil. HCl acid.

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-1.
SECTION A
Question.1 Write the name and formula of the first member of the carbon compounds having functional group—COOH.
Answer. First member of carboxylic acid group is:
HCOOH — Methanoic acid.

Question.2 State one function of pupil in human eye.
Answer. The amount of light entering the eye cap be controlled by the pupil. If the intensity of outside light is low, then the pupil expands to allow more light to enter the eye. Gn the other hand, if outside intensity of light is high, then the pupil contracts so that less light enters the eye.

Question.3 State one harmful effect of depletion of ozone layer on the living organisms of the ecosystem.
Answer. If the ozone layer in the atmosphere depletes then the extremely harmful ultraviolet radiations coming from the Sim would reach the earth. These uv-radiations would cause skin cancer and other ailments in men, animals and plants.

Question.4 “DNA copies generated during reproduction will be similar but may not be identical to the original.” Justify the statement.
Answer. A basic event in reproduction is the creation of a DNA copy. This is necessary to produce organisms which are similar to their parents. DNA copying is accompanied by the creation of an additional cellular apparatus. When two DNA copies separate, each with its own cellular apparatus by cellular division, so from one cell, two cells are produced. The process of copying of DNA brings some variations each time. Thus the surviving cells are similar to but subtly different from each other. This inbuilt tendency for variation during reproduction brings variations among the individuals of the same species.

Question.5 The formula of magnesium oxide is MgO. State the formula of barium nitrate and barium sulphate, if barium belongs to the same group as magnesium.
Answer.

Question.6 Choose from the following:

(i) An element having two shells completely filled with electrons.
(ii) Two elements belonging to the same group of the periodic table.
Answer.

(i) Ne has two completely filled shells.
(ii)Li and Na belong to the same group as both have same number of valence
electrons (1).

Question.8 (a) Which two criteria did Mendeleev use to classify the elements in his periodic table?
(b) Which element of period ‘3’ of the modem periodic table

1.  is the most reactive non-metal?
2. is the most reactive metal?
3.  forms ion with -2 charge?
4. forms ion with +2 charge?

Answer.
(a) Mendeleev was guided by two factors:

1. increasing atomic masses.
2. grouping together of elements having similar properties.

(b)

1.  Cl is the most reactive non-metal.
2.  Na is the most reactive metal.
3.  S forms -2 charged ion.
4. Mg forms +2 charged ion.

Question.10 Define the term, dispersion of white light. State the colour which bends

1.  the least,
2.  the most, while passing through a glass prism. Draw the dispersion of light through prism.
   

Answer. Dispersion of white light. The splitting up of white light into seven colours on passing through a transparent medium like a glass prism is called dispersion of white light.

1.  The red colour is deviated the least.
2. the violet colour is deviated the most.

Question.14 “The father is responsible for the sex of a child, not the mother.” Justify this statement.
Answer.

1.  A male has one X-chromosome and one Y-chromosome. Thus half the male gametes have
   X-chromosomes and the other half have Y-chromosomes.
2.  A female has two X-chromosomes. Thus all female gametes have only X- chromosomes.
3. If a sperm carrying Y-chromosome fertilises an ovum carrying X-chromosome, then the child bom will be a boy.
4.  If a sperm carrying X-chromosome fertilises an ovum carrying X-chromosome, then the child bom will be a girl.
   
   Therefore it is the sperm from the father which determines the sex of the child.

Question.17 (a) How are the following related?
(i) Number of valence electrons of different elements in the same group.
(ii) Number of shells of elements in the same period.
(b) How do the following change?
(i) Number of shells of elements as we go down a group.
(ii) Number of valence electrons of elements on moving from left to right in a period.
(iii)Atomic radius in moving from left to right along a period.
(iv)Atomic size down a group.
Answer. (a)
(i)

•  All the elements of a group of the periodic table have the same number of
  valence electrons.
• Group number of an element upto 2 Valance Electrons (VE). is equal to the number of valence electrons and group number of an element having Valance Electrons (VE) more than 2 is equal to (10 + V.E.).

(ii)

•  All the elements of a period of the periodic table have same number of shells.
• The period number of an element is equal to the number of electron shells in its atom.

(b)

1. As we go down in a group, a new shell of electrons is added to the atoms at
   every step.
2.  On moving from left to right in a period, the number of valence electrons increases from 1 to 8.
3. On moving from left to right in a period the atomic radius of elements decreases due to the large positive charge on the nucleus, the electrons are pulled in more close to the nucleus.
4. On going down in a group, the size of the atoms increases as a new shell of electrons is added to the atoms at every step.

Question.18 A 2.4 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 18 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 12 cm. Find the position, size and nature of the image formed, using the lens formula.
Answer.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and
Set-11.
SECTION A
Question.1 Write the name and formula of the first member of the carbon compounds having functional group—CHO.
Answer. First member of Aldehyde group (-CHO) is:
Methanal/Formaldehyde, HCOOH.

Question.2 State one role of ciliary muscles in the human eye.
Answer. The focal length of eye-lens can be changed by changing its shape by the action of ciliary muscles.

Question.3 Write the name and formula of a molecule made up of three atoms of oxygen.
Answer. A molecule made up of these atoms of oxygen is:
O₄ –> Ozone

Question.4 What is the colour of the clear sky during day-time? Give reason for it.
Answer. During day time the colour of the sky is blue.
Reason: The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have a size smaller than the wavelength of visible light. So these particles scatter more effectively the light
rays of shorter wavelength at the blue end than light of longer wavelengths at the red end. When the scattered blue light enters our eyes, it gives us the feeling of a blue sky.

Question.5 Why do all the elements of the (a) same group have similar properties, (b) same period have different properties?
Answer.
(a) All the members of the same group have similar properties because the elements of a group of same valence electrons.
(b) All the members of the same period have different properties because the elements of a period have different valence electrons.

Question.6 An element E has following electronic configuration:

(a) To which group of the periodic table does element E belong?
(b) To which period of the periodic table does element E belong?
(c) State the number of valence electrons present in element E.
(d) State the valency of the element E.
Answer.

Question.10 Name the oxidising agent used for the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid. Distinguish between ethanol and ethanoic acid on the basis of (i) litmus test, (ii) reaction with sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Answer. Alkaline KMn04 or acidified potassium dichromate (K₂Cr₂O₇) are used for the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid.
Difference between ethanol and ethanoic acid

Question.14 State the meaning of inherited traits and acquired traits. Which of the two is not passed on to the next generation? Explain with the help of an example.
Answer. See Q. 17, 2012 (I Outside Delhi). [Page P – 47

Question.17 A 5 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length 12 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 8 cm. Using the lens forumla find the position, size and nature of the image formed.
Answer.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Outside Delhi – 2012 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Delhi 2014

ScienceMathsSanskritEnglishComputer ScienceHindiSocial Science
Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                        Maximum marks: 90
General Instructions:

1. The Question Paper comprises two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the Sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. There is no choice in any of the questions.
4. All questions of Section-A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
5. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
6. Question numbers 4 to 6 in Section A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
7. Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about 56 words each.
8. Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section A are five marks questions, these are to be answered in about 70 words each.
9.  Question numbers 25 to 33 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
10. Question numbers 34 to 36 in Section B are two marks questions based on practical skills. These are to be answered in brief.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1. Write the number of vertical columns in the modem periodic table. What are these columns called?
Answer. There are 18 vertical columns in a periodic table. These vertical columns are called groups.

Question.2. Give the respective scientific terms used for studying:
(i) the mechanism by which variations are created and inherited and (ii) the development of new type of organisms from the existing ones.
Answer. (i) Reproduction
(ii) Speciation

Question.3. Water is a valuable resource. List two ways that you would suggest every family member to save this resource.
Answer.

1. Leakage of taps should be checked and repaired.
2. Rinsed water of washed clothes can be reused for watering the plants or for cleaning the floor etc.

Question.4. List four advantages of vegetative propagation.
Answer. Four advantages of vegetative propagation.

1. Plants grown by vegetative propagation grow much faster than those grown from seeds.
2. A large number of plants can be produced by the method of vegetative propagation.
3. The plants grown by vegetative propagation usually need less attention in their early years than the plants grown from seeds.
4. Seedless plants can also be grown from this method.

Question.5. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to an incident ray which is directed towards the principal focus of a convex mirror. Mark on it the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection.
Answer.

Question.6. Why is Government of India imposing a ban on the use of polythene bags? Suggest two alternatives to these bags and explain how this ban is likely to improve the environment.
Answer. Plastic bags are non-biodegradable which can not be broken down into non-poisonous substances in nature.
Plastic bags are the main cause of sewer blockages as plastic bags are not decomposed by micro-organisms.
Plastic bags if eaten by stray animals (like cows) can block their alimentary canal.
Two alternatives:

1. We should take our own jute or cloth bags while going for purchasing articles from the market.
2. Disposable paper cups should be used for serving tea in trains instead of plastic cups.
3. Shopkeepers can use paper bags instead of plastic bags.

Question.7. State the meaning of functional group in a carbon compound. Write the functional group present in (i) ethanol and (ii) ethanoic acid and also draw their structures.
Answer. An ‘atom’ or ‘a group of atoms’ which makes a carbon compound reactive and decides its properties (or functions) is called a functional group. .
(i) Ethanol —> Alcohol group (—OH)
(ii) Ethanoic acid —> carboxylic acid group (—COOH)

Question.8. Write the name and general formula of a chain of hydrocarbons in which an addition reaction with hydrogen can take place. Stating the essential conditions required for an addition reaction to occur write the chemical equation giving the name of the reactant and the product of such a reaction.
Answer. Addition reactions are a characteristic property of unsaturated hydrocarbons, i.e., Alkenes and Alkynes.
General formula of—Alkene: C_nH_2n, Alkyne: C_nH_2n-2
For example, Ethene undergoes addition reaction with hydrogen when heated in the presence of nickel catalyst to form ethane saturated hydrocarbon.

Thus addition of hydrogen to an unsaturated hydrocarbon gives a saturated hydrocarbon. This reaction is known as hydrogenation.

Question.9. Based on the group valency of elements state the formula for the following giving justification for each:
(i) Oxides of 1st group elements,
(ii) Halides of the elements of group 13, and
(iii) Compounds formed when an element of group 2 combines with an element of group 16.
Answer.

Question.10. (a) Define the following terms:
(i) Valency; (ii) Atomic size
(b) How do the valency and the atomic size of the elements vary while going from left to right along a period in the modem periodic table?
Answer. (a) (i) Valency. The combining capacity of an element is called its valency.
• The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons present in the atom of the element.
• The number of electrons lost or gained or shared by one atom of an element to achieve the nearest inert gas configuration gives the valency of the element.
(ii)Atomic size. The atomic size of an atom is the distance between the centre of the nucleus and outermost electron shell of an isolated atom.
(b) -On moving from left to right along a period in the modem periodic table, the valency of elements increases from 1 to 4 and then decreases to zero.
-On moving from left to right in a period of the periodic table, the size of the atoms decreases.

Question.11. Draw diagrams to explain the regeneration that takes place in each of the body parts of planaria when its body is cut into three pieces. Name any other organism in which a similar process can be observed.
Answer. The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called regeneration. The simple animals like hydra and planaria show regeneration.
Diagram for regeneration in planaria. See Q. 24(b), 2011 (I Delhi).

Question.12. List any four methods of contraception used by humans. How does their use have a direct effect on the health and prosperity of a family?
Answer. There are three different methods of contraception:

1. Barrier methods. In these methods, physical devices such as condoms, diaphragm and cervical caps are used. These devices prevent the entry of sperm in the female genital tract, thus acting as a barrier between them.
2.  Surgical methods. There are surgeries that can be carried out in males and females. In males, a small portion of the sperm duct (vas deferens) is blocked by surgical operation. It prevents the egg to reach the uterus. In both the cases, fertilisation will not take place.
3. Chemical methods. This category of contraceptive acts by changing the hormonal balance of the body so that eggs are not released and fertilisation cannot occur. Females use two types of pills for preventing pregnancies, i.e., oral pills and vaginal pills. The oral pills contain hormones which stop the ovaries from releasing ovum into the fallopian tube. This is also called oral contraceptives (OC).
4. Other contraceptive devices such as loop or the copper-T are placed in the uterus to . prevent pregnancy.

Effect on health and prosperity of a family:

1. Contraceptive methods are used to prevent the spreading of sexually transmitted diseases like syphilis, AIDS, etc.
2. Contraceptive methods are also used to control human population by checking the unwanted pregnancies during sexual activities.
3. It helps in family planning by controlling the number of children in the family, thereby reducing the chances of financial burden and poverty.

Question.13. (a) Give the evidence that the birds have evolved from reptiles.
(b) Insects, octopus, planaria and vertebrates possess eyes. Can we group these animals together on the basis of eyes that they possess? Justify your answer giving reason.
Answer. (a) A fossil bird called Archaeopteryx looks like a bird but it has many features which are found in reptiles. Archaeopteryx has feathered wings like birds but teeth and tail like those of reptiles. Therefore Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between the reptiles and birds and hence suggests that the birds have evolved from the reptiles.
(b) Insects, octopus, planaria and vertebrates posses eyes but these animals can not be put together on the basis of eyes because the structure of eyes in each of. there ‘ organisms is different which suggests their separate evolutionary origins. Thus all
these animals are put in different groups.

Question.14. A cross was made between pure breeding pea plants, one with round and green seeds and the other with wrinkled and yellow seeds.
(a) Write the phenotype of F₁ progeny. Give reason for your answer.
(b) Write the different types of F₂ progeny obtained along with their ratio when F₁ progeny was selfed.
Answer. (a) The cross was made between round, green seeds and wrinkled, yellow seeds. In the given cross, were taken into account, which is a dihybrid cross.
Yellow colour and round shape is dominant over green colour and wrinkled shape.

The above cross shows round and yellow seeds in generation. It occurs because dominant traits (round and yellow) express themselves, whereas recessive traits (wrinkled and green) get suppressed.

Question.15. A spherical mirror produces an image of magnification -1 on a screen placed at a distance of 50 cm from the mirror.
(a) Write the type of mirror.
(b) Find the distance of the image from the object.
(c) What is the focal length of the mirror?
(d) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Answer.

Question.16. State the laws of refraction of light. If the speed of light in vacuum is 3 x 10⁸ ms-1, find the speed of light in a medium of absolute refractive index 1.5.
Answer. Laws of refraction of light:

1. The incident, the refracted ray and the normal at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
2. The second law of refraction is called Snell’s law of refraction. According to Snell’s law, “The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a constant for a given pair of mediums”.
   
   

Question.17. Explain giving reason why the sky appears blue to an observer from the surface of the earth? What will the colour of the sky be for an astronaut staying in the international space station orbiting the earth? Justify your answer giving reason.
Answer. Sky appears blue. The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have a size smaller than the wavelength of visible light. So these particles scatter more effectively the light rays of shorter wavelength at the blue end than light of longer wavelengths at the red end. When the scattered blue light enters our eyes, it gives us the feeling of a blue sky.
Colour of sky to an astronaut. There, is no atmosphere containing air in space to scatter sunlight. As there is no scattering of light in space, the scattered light does not reach the eyes and the sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut in outer space.

Question.18. Our food grains such as wheat and rice, the vegetables and fruits and even meat are found to contain varying amounts of pesticide residues.” State the reason to explain how and why it happens?
Answer. Pesticides are poisonous chemical substances which are sprayed over crop plants to protect them from pests and diseases. These pesticides mix up with soil and water and are then absorbed by growing plants along with water and other minerals.. Thus pesticides enter the food chain at the producer level (plant level) and in the process s of transfer of food through food chains these harmful chemicals get concentrated at each trophic level. These chemicals are non-biodegradable, so they get accumulated at each trophic level. Pesticides present in wheat grains, fruits vegetables and meat cannot always be removed by washing, etc.

Question.19. State the reason why carbon can neither form C⁴⁺ cations nor C^4- anions, but forms covalent compounds. Also state reasons to explain why covalent compounds:
(a) are bad conductors of electricity?
(b) have low melting and boiling points?
Answer. Carbon atoms have 4 electrons in their outermost shell. So needs to gain or lose electrons to attain noble gas configuration.
— It could gain four electrons forming C^4- anion. But it would be difficult for the nucleus with six protons to hold on to ten electrons.
— It could lose four electrons forming C⁴⁺ cation. But it would require a large amount energy to remove four electrons from its outermost shell.
Because of these reasons, carbon shares its valence electrons to complete its octet with other atoms to form covalent bonds.
(a) Covalent compounds are bad conductors of electricity because they do not contain ions.
(b) Covalent compounds have usually low melting and boiling points because they are made up of electronically neutral molecules. So the force of attraction between the molecules of a covalent compound is very weak. Only a small amount of heat energy is required to break these weak molecular forces, due to which covalent compounds have low melting and boiling points.

Question.20. (a) Give one example each of a unisexual and a bisexual flower.
(b) Mention the changes a flower undergoes after fertilisation.
(c) How does the amount of DNA remain constant though each new generation is a
combination of DNA copies of two individuals?
Answer. (a) Unisexual Flower — Papaya Bisexual Flower — Hibiscus
(b) After fertilisation, the fertilised egg divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The ovule, develops a tough coat around it and is gradually converted into a seed (containing the baby plant along with food). The ovary of flower develops and becomes a fruit (with seeds inside it). The other parts of flower like sepals, petals, stamens, stigma and style dry up and fall off. Only the vary is left behind.
(c) In sexual reproduction, though the genetic material DNA from two gametes, male and female gametes, combine together to form a new cell ‘zygote’ but the amount of DNA in zygote does not get doubled. This is because the gametes are special type of cells which contain only half the amount of DNA as compared to the normal body cells of an organism. So the new cell zygote formed by two gametes cells will have the normal amount of DNA.

Question.21. (a) Name the respective part of human female reproductive system:
(i) that produces eggs.
(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm takes place, and
(iii) where zygote get implanted.
(b) Describe in brief what happens to the zygote after it gets implanted.
Answer. (a) Part of human female reproductive system:
(i) that produces eggs—Ovary
(ii) where fusion of egg and sperm takes place—Fallopian tube
(iii) where zygote get implanted—Uterus
(b) After zygote gets implanted, a disc like special tissue develops between the uterus wall and embryo (foetus) which is called placenta. The foetus is connected to the placenta in the mother’s body through the umbilical cord. The exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste products between the embryo and the mother takes place through the placenta.

Question.22. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on the walls of school laboratory by using a lens:
(a) Which type of lens should he use and why?
(b) At what distance in terms of focal length ‘F’ of the lens should he place the candle flame so as to get (i) a magnified, and (ii) a diminished image respectively ou the wall?
(c) Draw ray diagram to show the formation of the image in each case.
Answer. (a) A convex lens should be used. This is because it can produce a real image of the
candle flame on the wall as it is a converging lens where refracted rays actually meet. (b) & (c) (i) A real magnified image is formed when the candle flame is placed between F and 2F from the convex lens on the other side of the wall.

(ii) A real diminished image is formed when the candle flame is placed beyond 2F from the convex lens on the other side of the wall.

Question.23. (a) List three common Refractive defects of vision. Suggest the way of correcting these defects.
(b) About 45 lac people in the developing countries are suffering from corneal blindness. About 30 lac children below the age of 12 years suffering from this defect can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of a donated eye. How and why can students of your age involve themselves to create awareness about this fact among people?
Answer. (a) The three defects of vision:
1. Myopia. Myopia is the defect of the eye vision due to which a person can see the near objects clearly, but he can not see the far objects clearly.
Causes of myopia. Myopia is caused due to the elongation of the eye ball and due to decrease in the focal length of the eye lens. The eye lens becomes more convergent. Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable focal length in the spectacles of such a person.
Diagram. See Q. 17, 2011 (I Outside Delhi).
2. Long-sightedness or hypermetropia. Due to this defect, a person is not able to see the nearby objects clearly but can see the distant objects clearly.
Causes of hypermetropia. It is caused due to the following reasons:
(i) Normal increase in the focal length of the eye lens. The lens becomes less convergent.
(ii) Shortening of the eyeball size.
Correction. Long sightedness can be corrected by using a convex lens of suitable focal length in the spectacles of such a person.
When a convex lens of suitable power is placed in front of the hypermetropic eye then the diverging rays of light coming from the nearby object are first converged by this convex lens. Due to this, the convex lens forms a virtual image of the nearby object at a point near to the hypermetropic eve. Then the hypermetropic eye can easily focus the image formed by convex lens on the retina.
Diagram. See Q. 17, 2011 (I Delhi).
3. Presbyopia. The power of accommodation of the eye decreases with ageing. It occurs due to the gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles and decreasing flexibility of the crystalline lens. The near point of the eye increases with age. It may reach even 2 metres. This defect is called presbyopia.
Causes of presbyopia. It is mainly caused due to the weakening of the ciliary muscles of the eyes. Such a person may suffer from myopia and hypermetropia. This defect is then corrected by using bifocal lenses of suitable focal lengths. The upper part of the lens is a concave lens for correcting myopia to see the distant objects clearly, while the lower part of the lens has a convex lens to correct the hypermetropia to see the nearby objects clearly.
(b) We have seen advertisements in media persuading people for eye donation. If cornea of the eyes are removed within 6 hours of the death of a person, it can be transplanted to a person suffering from corneal blindness. There are more than 45 lakh cases of corneal blindness and unfortunately out of these a major portion is that of children aged below 12 years. If a person comes forward for eye donation, he can save two corneal blind persons by donating one eye to each.
How exciting it feels to think that after one’s death, he/she can make two blind persons see this wonderful world! Therefore it is a must to promote such advertisements to encourage people and make them aware of this noble cause.

Question.24. The position of three elements A, B and C in the Periodic Table are shown below:

Giving reasons, explain the following:
(a) Element A is a non-metal.
(b) Atom of element C has a larger size than atom of element A.
(c) Element B has a valency of 1.
Answer. (a) Element A is a non-metal because it belongs to Group VII therefore it has 7 electrons
in its outermost shell. It needs one electron to acquire nearest inert gas configuration ’ and form a monovalent -ve ion.
(b) Atom of element C has a larger size than that of element A because C belongs to the 3rd period therefore it has three shells whereas A belongs to the 2nd period thus it has two shells.
(c) Element B has a valency of 1 because it belongs to Group I and has one valence electron. To complete its outermost shell or to acquire nearest noble gas configuration it loses one electron and forms a monovalent + ve ion.

SECTION B
Question.25. Why you add about 2 mL of acetic acid to a test tube containing an equal amount of distilled water and leave the test tube to settle after shaking its contents, then after about 5 minutes what will you observe in the test tube:
(A) A white precipitate settling at its bottom,
(B) A clear colour less solution,
(C) A layer of water over the layer of acetic acid, or
(D) A layer of acetic acid over the layer of water.
Answer. (B)

Question.26. In order to study saponification reaction we first prepare 20% solution of sodium hydroxide. If we record the temperature of this solution just after adding sodium hydroxide flakes to water and also test its nature using litmus, it may be concluded that the process of making this solution is:
(A) exothermic and the solution is alkaline.
(B) endothermic and the solution is alkaline.
(C) endothermic and the solution is acidic.
(D) exothermic and the solution is acidic.
Answer. (A)

Question.27. While studying saponification reaction for the preparation of soap, the teacher suggested to a student to add a small quantity of common salt to the reaction mixture. The function of common salt in this reaction is to:
(A) reduce the alkalinity of the soap.
(B) reduce the acidity of the soap.
(C) enhance the cleansing capacity of soap, or
(D) favour precipitation of soap.
Answer. (D)

Question.28. A student has obtained the image of a distant object with a concave mirror to determine its focal length. If he has selected a well illuminated red building as object, which of the following correctly describes the features of the image formed?
(A) Virtual, inverted, diminished image in red shade
(B) Real, erect, diminished image in pink shade
(C) Real, inverted, ^diminished image in red shade
(D) Virtual, erect, enlarged image in red shade
Answer. (C)

Question.29. A student obtained an image of a distant object on a screen to determine the focal length F₁ of the given lens. His teacher after checking the image, gave him another lens of focal length F₂ and asked to focus the same object on the same screen. The student ‘ found that to obtain a sharp image he has to move the lens away from the screen. From this finding we may conclude that both the lenses given to the student were: 
(A) Concave and F₁ < F₂
(B) Convex and F₁ < F₂
(C) Convex and F₁> F₂
(D) Concave and F₁ >F₂
Answer. (B)

Question.30. Which one of tire following pairs of vegetables is an example of homologous structures:
(A) Potato and sweet potato
(B) Carrot and radish
(C) Carrot and tomato
(D) Tomato and radish
Answer. (B)

Question.31. Study the following diagrams showing various stages of binary fission in Amoeba:
The correct sequence is:

(A) I, IV, III, II, V (B) I, III, IV, II, V (C) I, II, IV, III, V (D) I, II, III, IV, V
Answer. (B)

Question.32. Identify the figures showing the process of budding in yeast.

(A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV (C) I, II and IV (D) III, IV and I ,IV
Answer. (C)

Question.33. Study the following four experimental set-ups I, II, III and IV for the experiment, “To trace the path of a ray of light through a rectangular glass slab”.
Which of the marked set-ups is likely to give best results (P₁ and P₂ are the positions of pins fixed on the incident ray)?

(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
Answer. (D)

Question.34. What do you observe when dil. HCl is added on Zn pieces taken in a test tube? How would you identify the gas evolved? Write one use of this gas.
Answer. Observation. A colourless gas is evolved with brisk bubbles from the test tube.
When a burning match stick is brought near the gas, then the gas bums with a pop sound. The gas evolved is H₂ gas. H₂ gas is used as fuel in the space crafts.

Question.35. What do you observe on seeing the glides showing reproduction in amoeba? What is the name given to this method of reproduction in Amoeba?
Answer. On observing this slide, we see different stages under which the nucleus of amoeba cell is dividing into two parts. Method of reproduction in amoeba. Binary fission

Question.36. For finding the focal length of a concave mirror, where do we keep the object? What is the position of image formed? On which structure we get the image? What is the nature of the image formed?
Answer. A large sized object placed at a far off (Infinity) place, seen from the window of the lab, is taken as object.
The image is formed at F point of the mirror. This image is formed on the screen.
The distance between the mirror and the screen is measured; which is equal to focal length of the mirror. The image formed is real and inverted.

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
SECTION A
Question.1. Write the number of horizontal rows in the modern periodic table. What are these rows called?
Answer. The horizontal rows of elements in a modem periodic table are called periods. There are seven periods in the modem periodic table.

Question.2. Name the information source for making proteins in the cells.
Answer. DNA—(Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid) is the information source for making proteins in the cells.

Question.3. List two measures that you would suggest for the better management of water resources.
Answer.

•  Rainwater harvesting—it means rain water should not be allowed flow into the drains but make it percolate into the soil more efficiently.
• Recycling of water used in bathrooms and kitchens should be encouraged.
• Construction of dams.

Question.4. List four modes of asexual reproduction.
Answer. Four mode of asexual reproduction:

• Binary fission
•  Budding
• Spore formation
• Regeneration

Question.5. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray corresponding to an incident ray which is directed parallel to the principal axis of a convex mirror. Mark on it the angle of reflection.
Answer. Ray diagram. See Q. 5, 2014 (I Delhi).

Question.7. Consider two elements ‘A’ (Atomic number 17) and ‘B’ (Atomic number 19):
(i) Write the positions of these elements in the modem periodic table giving justification.
(ii) Write the formula of the compound formed when ‘A’ combines with ‘B’.
(iii) Draw the electron dot structure of the compound and state the nature of the bond formed between the two elements.
Answer. (i) Element ‘A’:
Atomic number = 17 Electronic configuration = 2, 8, 7
‘A’ belongs to 17th group as it has ‘7 electrons in its outermost shell.
‘A’ belongs to 3rd period as it has three shells in its atom.

Question.10. (a) Write the names of those parts of a flower which serve the same function as the following do in the animals:
(i) testis (ii) sperm (iii) ovary (iv) egg
(b) State the function of flowers in the flowering plants.
Answer. (a) (i) testis — anther .
(ii) sperms — pollen grains
(iii) ovary — ovary –
(iv) egg — egg or ovum
(b) The function of flower in flowering plants is to assist in sexual reproduction, i.e., to make male and female gametes and to ensure that fertilisation will take place to make new seeds for the reproduction in plants.

Question.12. (a) Mendel Crossed tall pea plants with dwarf pea plants in his experiment. Write his observations giving seasons on the and F₂ generations.
(b) List any two contrasting characters other than height that Mendel used in his experiments in pea plants.
Answer. (a) In Mendel’s experiments with pea plants, when he cross bred a tall pea plant with a dwarf pea plant, he found that the first generation F₂ was of only tall plants. In the progeny, no dwarf plants were obtained. However in F₂ generation, both tall and dwarf plants were obtained in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. In the F₂ progeny both traits tallness and dwarfness were inherited where the tall character was the dominant trait and dwarf character was the recessive trait. .
Flow chart depicting Mendel’s experiment. See Q. 14, 2013 (I Outside Delhi).
(b) Contrasting characters of pea plant
— round and green seeds.
— wrinkled and yellow seeds.

Question.14. A spherical mirror produces an image of magnification -1 on a screen placed at a distance of 40 cm from the mirror: 3
(i) Write the type of mirror (ii) What is the nature of the image formed?
(iii) How far is the object located from the mirror?
(iv) Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Answer. • Spherical mirror • m = -1
• image is formed on a screen • image distance, v = 40 m

Question.15. Why does sun seem to rise two minutes before the actual sunrise and set two minutes after the actual sunset? Explain with the help of labelled diagram.
Answer. See Q. 4, 2011 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.17. State the meaning of the functional group in an organic compound. Write the formula of the functional group present in alcohols, aldehydes, ketones and carboxylic acids.
Answer. An ‘atom’ or ‘a group of atoms’ which makes a carbon compound reactive and decides its properties is called a functional group.

Question.24. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on the walls of school laboratory by using a mirror.
(a) Which type of mirror should he use and why?
(b) At what distance in terms of focal length ‘f’ of the mirror should he place the candle flame so as to get the magnified image on the wall?
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in this case.
(d) Can he use this mirror to project a diminished image of the candle flame on the same wall? State ‘how’ if your answer is ‘yes’ and ‘why not’ if your answer is ‘no’.
Answer. (a) Concave mirror should be used as only this mirror will produce a real image (i.e, on the wall).
(b) The object should be placed between and ‘2/’ so as to get the magnified image on the wall.

(d) When the candle flame is placed beyond 2f, A diminished real image will be formed on the wall.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-11.
SECTION A
Question.1. Write any one difference in the electronic configurations of group 1 and group 2 elements?
Answer.

• Elements of group 1 have one electron in their outermost shell.
• Elements of group 2 have two electrons in their outermost shell.

Question.2. Write the contribution of Charles Darwin in the field of ‘evolution’.
Answer. Charles Robert Darwin gave the theory of evolution in his famous book “The Origin of Species”.

• The theory of evolution proposed by Darwin is known as “The Theory of Natural Selection”.
• This theory suggests that the best adapted organisms are selected by nature to pass on their characteristics to the next generation.

Question.3. “We need to manage our resources.” List two reasons to justify this statement.
Answer. (i) The resources of the earth are limited.
(ii) The proper management can ensure equitable distribution of natural resources so that all the people can benefit from the development of these resources.

Question.6. List two environment friendly practices or habits which need to be followed by every member of a family/community. Explain how these practices will support the “Save the Environment” mission.
Answer. Two environment friendly practices to help save the environment are:

1. Disposal of wastes after separating them into biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste material.
2. Use of unleaded petrol and alternate sources of energy, keeping the car engines properly tuned and serviced and types inflated to the right pressure, so that the vehicle runs smoothly.

Question.7. Explain with help of a labelled diagram, the cause of twinkling of stars.
Answer. Twinkling of Stars. The twinkling of a star is due to atmospheric refraction of star light. The atmospheric refraction occurs in a medium of gradually changing refractive index. Since the atmosphere bends star light – towards the normal, the apparent position of the star is slightly different from the actual position. This apparent position of the star is not stationary, but keeps on changing slightly as the physical conditions of the earth’s atmosphere are not stationary.
Since the stars are very distant, they act as point-sized sources of light. As the path of rays of light coming from the star goes on varying slightly, the apparent position of the star fluctuates and the amount of light entering the eye flickers—the star sometimes appears brighter and at other times appears fainter, which is the twinkling effect.

Question.10. A spherical mirror produces an image of magnification -1.0 on a screen placed at a distance of 30 cm from the pole of the mirror.
(i)Write the type of minor in this case.
(ii)What is the focal length of the mirror?
(iii)What is the nature of the image formed?
(iv)Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Answer.

Question.11. What are esters? How are they prepared? List two uses of esters.
Answer. Esters are usually volatile liquids having pleasant smell (in fruity smell).
Preparation. When carboxylic acid reacts with an alcohol in the presence of a little concentrated sulphuric acid, it gives a pleasant smelling ester.
For example. When ethanoic acid is warmed with ethanol in the presence of a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid, a sweet smelling ester called ethyl ethanoate is formed.

Uses:

1. Esters are used in making perfumes.
2. Esters are used in making artificial flavours and essences used in icecreams, sweets and cold drinks.

Question.15. On cutting the body of an organism into many pieces it was observed that many of these pieces developed as new individuals. Name the process and list two organisms in which this process may be observed. Draw a schematic diagram to illustrate the changes that are likely to be observed during the development of new individuals in any one of the organisms named.
Answer. Process is Regeneration.
Examples. The simple animals like hydra and planaria show regeneration.
Diagram. See Q. 24(b), 2011 (I Delhi).

Question.18. (a) Mendel in one of his experiments with pea plants crossed a variety having round seeds with one having wrinkled seeds. Write his observations, giving reasons, of F₁ and F₂ progeny.
(b) List any two contrasting characters other than roundness of pea plants that Mendel used in his experiments with pea plants.
Answer. (a) In Mendel’s experiment with pea plants, when he cross bred a round seed plant with a wrinkled seed plant, he found that the first generation (F₁) was only round seed plants. In the F₁ progeny, no wrinkled seed plants were obtained. However, in the F₂ progeny both traits round seed and wrinkled seed were obtained in the ratio 3 : 1 respectively. The trait which is obtained in F₁ generation is dominant trait, therefore round seed character was dominant.
Flow chart:

(b) • Tallness and dwarfness.
• Green seed and yellow seed. These are the two contrasting characters that Mendel used in his experiment with pea plants.

Question.24. (a) Write the name of the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and secretes a hormone. Name the hormone secreted and state its function?
(b) Write the site of fertilization and the part where the zygote gets implanted in the human female.
(c) State, in brief, how an embryo gets its nourishment inside the mother’s body.
Answer. (a) Testes is the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and secretes male
sex hormone—testosterone. The function of testosterone hormone is to control the development of male sex organs and male features such as deeper voice, moustache, beard and more body hair during male puberty.
(b) • Site of fertilisation: Fallopian Tube.
• Zygote gets implanted in uterus of human female.
(c) See Q. 13, 2013 (III Outside Delhi).

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Delhi 2014 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English  SA2 Delhi – 2013

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                               Maximum marks: 70
The Question Paper is divided into three Sections:
Section A – Reading 20 Marks
Section B Writing & Grammar 25 Marks
Section C – Literature 25 Marks
General Instructions:

1.  All questions are compulsory.
2.  You may attempt any Section at a time.
3. All questions of that particular Section must be attempted in the correct order.

SET I

SECTION A – READING
Question.1. Read the following passage carefully.
We sat in silence in the dark of the night as the large head appeared from the large foliage. The female ,was young, healthy and alert. Seconds later, she walked confidently to the edge of a waterhole followed by not one, not two, but three beautiful young cubs. Like works of art on display, all four tigers bent low at the waterhole that had been created for them and for the myriad creatures that shared their troubled kingdom. The Goshri tigers had come visiting and we watched them with rapt attention on our closed-circuit TV screens, in the conservation retreat of Harsh and Poonam Dhanwatey, a husband and wife team whose life had been dedicated to the protection of tigers in and around Maharashtra’s Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve. Their son Nikhii carefully positioned the cameras and cabled them 40 metres from their conservation retreat, near the waterhole that had turned into a magnet for every conceivable animal found in the Tiger Reserve itself. We were making preparations to set up one of the first Community Conservation Reserves in Central India. Originally into business, the Dhanwatevs changed tracks midstream by shutting down a thriving interior design business in response to just one meeting they had with Dr. Ullas Karanth and Valmik Thapar, two of India’s finest tiger people, in Nagpur. In their own words: “From admirers of wildlife we became passionate defenders and we launched our non-governmental organization called Tiger Research and Conservation Trust (TRACT).” The Dhanwatevs lived for years in a small hut that was their field camp near the famous Tadoba Lake and they discovered the secrets of the forest in the best way possible, by walking its trails, and generally learning all they could about the magical mix of life that comprised this tropical, dry deciduous forest.

Question.1.1 Based on your reading of the passage, complete the following sentences with appropriate words/phrases:
(a) The narrator and the others watched with rapt attention as the
(b) Harsh and Poonam Dhanwatey had dedicated their lives to the cause of
(c) Before taking up the cause of tigers the Dhanwateys were .
(d) The waterhole is referred to as a magnet because
(c) The narrator had gone to the Tiger Reserve to
if) The meeting with Dr. Ullas Karanth and Valmik Thapar changed the lives of
(g) The Dhanwateys discovered the secrets of the forest by
(h) TRACT stands for
Answer. (a) the four Goshri tigers, the mother and the three cubs had come visiting the
waterhole.
(b) protection of tigers in and around Maharashtra’s Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve.
(c) managing an interior design business.
(d) all the animalsln the tiger reserve were attracted to it.
(e) set up the first Community Conservation Reserve.
(f) the Dhanwateys.
(g) walking the trails of the forest and generally learning all they could about the deciduous forest.
(h) Tiger Research and Conservation Trust.

Question.2. Read the following passage carefully.
“Mum!” I shouted. “Are you okay?” I saw her little tent shuddering in the gale and listened closely for her response. Her voice was almost casual: “Oh, yes, I’m fine.” That’s my mother. It was the first night of our cycling trip through the interior of Iceland—a region so remote and inhospitable that for centuries, according to legend, it was abandoned. The weather was decidedly hurricane-like, but Mum wasn’t concerned. Months ago, I told her about my plan to pedal across Iceland. “It will be really difficult,” I said. “The roads are unpaved and often washed out, and the wind is blowing constantly — sometimes so hard that it pushes you off the road.” There was silence for a moment. Then she asked, “Can I come?” “Sure,” I replied. “But like the rest of us, you have to train to do two 160 kilo metres a day back-to-back,” “Wow,” she said, “I could never do that.” I had more faith in my mother’s physical abilities than she did. I’d seen her raise six children and put in long hours doing physical labour on our small farm. “Sure you can,” I told her, “Start tomorrow.” What really concerned me was what 1 perceived to be her frustrating humility: I thought her too self-depreciating about her intellect just because she had not completed college. 1 felt she underestimated her attractiveness just because she was not the type to wear makeup or fancy clothes. As I had grown into adulthood, the life I’d chosen seemed light-years away from Mum’s quiet existence, still caring for her children and her children’s children. Sometimes, on a visit home, I’d describe some recent trip I’d taken, and her blue eyes would shine with interest. So I couldn’t help thinking this trek might revitalize Mum, who had started to slow down in her 50s. It might spice up what I saw as her humdrum life. And it might be a boost to her tentative and retiring persona. Mum trained furiously, months in advance. As the trip roster was pared down to Mum, my good friend Allen and me, she stood as the most dedicated. Soon she was riding 80-100 kilo metres per day, and was as strong a rider as Allen or I.

Question.2.1 On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the following questions briefly:
(a) How does the narrator describe the weather and road conditions in Iceland?
(b) What training did the adventure cycling trip require? Why did the narrator have faith in his mother’s physical ability to undertake the trip?
(c) In what way did the narrator think the trip would help his mother?
(d) When were the narrator and his friend sure about his mum’s preparation?
Answer. (a) The weather in the interiors of Iceland is decidedly hurricane-like and the roads are
mostly unpaved and washed out. The wind blows constantly and sometimes so hard that it pushes one off the road.
(b) The training included doing two 160 kilometers a day back-to-back. The narrator had faith in his mother’s physical abilities as he had seen her raise six children and seen her put in long hours doing physical work on their small farm.
(c) The narrator thought that the cycling trip would revitalize his mum who had started to slow down in her 50s. He thought that it would spice up her humdrum life and boost her tentative and retiring persona.
(d) The narrator’s mother trained Juriously for the cycling trip months in advance. His mother stood as the most dedicated when the trip roster was pared down to him, his friend Allen and her and was soon riding 80-100 kilometers per day.

Question.2.2 Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given word from the options provided:
(a) The word ‘perceived’ means
(i) associate (ii) acknowledge (iii) pressurize (iv) notice/ become aware of
(b) The word ‘revitalize’ means
(i) to pause (ii) to enjoy (iii) to give new life (iv) to end something
(c) The word ‘tentative’ means ..
(i) hesitant/not certain (ii) sure/ certain (iii) tense (iv) tempted
(d) The word ‘abandoned’ means
(i) to give up/leave behind (ii) to choose (iii) to accept something
Answer. (a)(iv) notice/ become aware of
(b) (iii) to give new life
(c) (i) hesitant/not certain
(d) (i) to give up/leave behind

SECTION B – WRITING & GRAMMAR
Question.3. You have noticed many stray animals on the road during the busy hours of the day. Write a letter to the editor of a leading newspaper about the nuisance created by the stray animals. Sign your name as Kriti/ Krishna. (100-120 words)

Or
While reading the newspaper, you came across the following news items.

Such incidents deter tourists from visiting the country. Based on the information given above, and using the ideas from the Unit ‘Travel and Tourism’ and your own, write an article for a national newspaper in about 100-120 words on the subject offering suggestions for improving tourist facilities. Also give a suitable title.
Answer.D-2051, Palam Road .
XYZ City The Editor The Times Delhi
22nd October, 20xx Sir
Through the medium of this letter I would like to express my anxiety about the roaming of stray animals on the road especially during the busy traffic hours.
These stray animals that keep roaming on the roads also cause injury to people besides blocking traffic. Last week there was news of stray dogs and even monkeys biting people. and a young man was even attacked by a stray bull. More often than not we have seen stray cows and donkeys blocking the traffic. I am sure you too have witnessed this menace. These stray animals also cause unhygienic conditions in the city by strewing the waste of garbage dumps all over. The urgent need of the hour is to stop this growing menace. Strict action should be taken against owners who allow their animals to go astray. Animal shelters should be built to provide a shelter for these stray animals. Moreover public awareness has to be created as to whom people should contact if they see stray animals on the road. If these simple steps are taken we will gradually see the number of stray animals decreasing and a great deal of our inconvenience will be reduced.
I sincerely hope you will publish my letter in your esteemed newspaper so that the nuisance created by stray animals can at least be minimized.
Yours Sincerely,
Kriti
Or
Incredibly Unsafe India
By: XYZ
Despite the grand scale at which ‘Incredible India’ campaign has been pitched, the issue of safety and security of tourists visiting India is of vital concern. There have been regular reports of women tourists being robbed, raped and even killed. There are people who pass themselves off as tourist guides but they are actually out to cause harm to vulnerable women tourists. The police should ensure that the touts, guides and others who come into contact with tourists are screened and questioned. It is high time our tourism ministry realized just how grave the situation is and take up realistic and effective steps to cleanse tourist destinations. It is not an impossible task, it only requires the determination and willingness to work together. Knee jerk reactions will not serve any purpose. Catchy slogans like ‘Incredible India’ will only appear grotesque if firm steps are not taken up to give tourist spots in India a new and safe image. Tourism is a very important industry that fetches our country foreign revenue and the image of our country greatly depends on the tourists’ experience because ‘word of mouth’ is the best form of publicity.

Question.4. Develop the following into a readable story in 150-200 words.
It was dark, when we got down from the train. The place was totally strange to us. Gopi who had promised to be at the station was nowhere in sight ………………..
Or
At the party, Lalitha was thrilled to notice that sitting in a corner all alone, was her friend whom she had not met for a long time ………………. Complete the story in 150-200 words in any suitable way.
Answer.It was dark, when we got down from the train. The place was totally strange to us. Gopi who had promised to be at the station was nowhere in sight We got off the train with a lot of apprehension and anxiety. It was dark and stormy and it was just the three of us, nineteen year old lads. Our friend Gopi who was to receive us at the station was not there. We tried to contact Gopi on his mobile but it was not reachable. As we were deciding what to do next, a young boy of almost our age approached us and offered to help us. At first we were apprehensive to take his help but soon realized we had no choice but to follow him. He led us out of the station into a waiting taxi. We thought the taxi driver looked suspicious but he assured us and as soon as we were seated in the taxi, the driver shot his taxi off like a bullet. We told him to go slow but he would not listen. We wanted him to stop but he did not. He took us to a deserted area and there he halted the taxi. We got off mortified and were ready to run for our lives when we heard a familiar voice. It was Gopi in the guise of the driver who had devised this welcome plan for us.
Or
At the party, Lalitha was thrilled to notice that sitting in a corner all alone, was her friend whom she had not met for a long time she could not believe that her childhood friend Seema was sitting right in front of her. She approached her and decided she would play a guessing game with her. After a casual greeting, Lalitha asked her to guess who she was. Seema looked a little baffled and confused and was unable to place Lalitha, Lalitha then reminded her of some childhood pranks that they had played together. Seema looked amused but she was still not able to recognize Lalitha. It was only when Lalitha called out Seema’s name in an exasperated tone that the latter burst out laughing. She jumped in excitement and hugged Lalitha. The boring party suddenly became a memorable experience for the two childhood friends. They chatted like two school-going girls for the next two hours. Soon the party wrapped up but not for them as Lalitha invited Seema to stay with her for the night.

Q.5. Choose the appropriate options from the ones given below to complete the following passage.
As a young boy I (a)………….. to play on the ground near my home. At the (b) ……………. end of the ground was a library. I had often seen people walk in and out of it(c) ……………. books in their hands. One evening I walked in and politely asked the librarian for a book.
(a) (i) was         (ii) used            (iii) are        (iv) had
(b) (i) far          (ii) near            (iii) off          (iv) hind
(c) (i) carried (ii) carrying    (iii) carries  (iv) carry
Answer. (a) (ii) used      (b) (i) far         (c) (ii) carrying           (d) (i) for

Question.6. The following passage has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Identify the error and write it along the correction in the answer sheet. The first one has been done for you as an example. Incorrect one Correctsome
One morning I finished one business at the bank (a)
and was returning inpick my motorbike which I had left(b)
in the parking lot outside. Suddenly he realized that I had(c)
lost the bike key. Upset I searched about it in the bank. (d)
A bank employee tried to help me find it, and in vain.
Answer. (a) in …. to       (b) he …. I
(c) about…. for                 (d) and …. but

Question.7. Rearrange the following word phrases to form meaningful sentences. The first one has been done for you.
watching TV/on exercise/while you are/the following ways/The American Council/suggests/to exercise/
The American Council on exercise suggests the following ways to exercise while you are watching TV.
(a) the remote / the channel / to change / get up / from the couch / instead of using /
(b) the room during / Walk up / the stairs / or around / and down / commercial breaks/
(c) a treadmill / use / you watch / while / you can /TV /
Answer. (a) Get up from the couch to change the channel instead of using the remote.
(b) Walk up and down the stairs or around the room during commercial breaks.
(c) You can use a treadmill while you watch TV.

SECTION C – LITERATURE & LONG READING TEXT
Question.8. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
At least, that was what I thought then. Now I knew that Sebastian Shultz, the boy from the game, really did exist. I’d seen the proof in the newspaper. .
(a) What had Michael thought earlier?
(b) Why is Sebastian Shultz called ‘the boy from the game’?
(c) What had Michael seen in the newspaper?
Or
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
‘Shall Caesar send a lie?
Have I in conquest stretch’d mine arm so far,
To be afraid to tell graybeards the truth?
Decius, go and tell them Caesar will not come’.
(a) Why has Decius come to Caesar’s place?
(b) What message does Caesar give him?
(c) Who are the ‘graybeards’ referred to here?
Answer. (a) Michael had thought earlier that Sebastian was a boy who was a part of the game.
(b) Sebastian is called ‘the boy from the game’ because he was Michael’s companion in the psycho-drive game. The real Sebastian and the one in the game were actually one person.
(c) In the newspaper Michael had seen proof of Sebastian’s existence in real life, the same Sebastian whom Michael had succeeded in saving in the game. He had read a headline in the newspaper which said ‘Miracle Recovery.’ According to this article, Sebastian Shultz survived coma that the doctors felt might last forever.
Or
(a) Decius had come to Caesar’s palace to fetch him (Caesar) to the senate-house.
(b) Caesar tells him to bear his greetings to the senators and also tell them that he will not come to the senate-house on that day.
(c) The ‘graybeards’ are the old men, the senators whom Caesar was to go and meet on that particular day in the senate house.

Question.9. Answer any four of the following in 30-40 words each.
(a) Why had Michael and his father gone to the computer fair?
(b) Why does Lavinia feel that the Ouija board would help her husband?
(c) How did the mariners reach the land of ice and snow?
(d) How does Brutus convince the Romans that Caesar deserved his death?
(e) Why does the poet decide to stand and wait till the snake has finished drinking? What
does this tell you about the poet?
Answer. (a) Michael’s father was crazy about computers. Technology was advancing every day
and his father could not resist any of the new gadgets and mechanical devices that came on the market. He had bought the latest computer which could do anything: paint, play music, create displays. He had also bought many latest psycho-drive games and a virtual reality visor and glove. That is why both of them had gone to the Computer Fair.
(b) Lavinia feels that the Ouija board would help her husband write his stories. If he wanted to write a historical novel, rather than reading thick history books he would get the Ouija board and talk to the spirit of Napoleon the Great or Helen of Troy and he would directly get all the information he needed.
(c) The sea which had earlier been calm turned tyrannous and wild after a storm and the strong winds forced the ship to sail southwards ultimately leading them to the land of the ice and snow. They were surrounded by large masts of ice and their ship could hardly move in the frozen sea.
(d) Brutus convinces the Romans that Caesar deserved his death. Brutus justifies Caesar’s assassination by telling the Roman citizens that Caesar had become overambitious and had started placing his own interest before that of the country. He did not want the Romans to live the life of slaves under an autocratic ruler like Caesar.
(e) Since the snake had come to the water-trough before the poet he decided to stand and wait till the snake had finished drinking. Treating the snake as an equal and an early arriver at the water trough, the poet is content to wait as a ‘second-comer’. This act of the poet tells us that the poet respects the right of existence of all creatures who have as much a right to enjoy nature’s resources as much as he has.

Question.10. Patol Babu always remembered the words of his mentor that one has to accept whatever is offered and make the best of any opportunity. Write a letter to a friend telling him about the value of hard work and the art of putting in your best. Write the answer in 80-100 words.
Or
The value of Trust is the foundation of any relationship. Families should be built on the concept of honesty and trust.’ Helen the ghost causes great chaos and upheaval in John Hallock’s life. As Lavinia, John Hallock’s wife, write a letter to your sister on Helen, the ghost and how you misunderstood your husband.
Answer.
ABC Lane XYZ City
22nd November, 20xx Dear friend,
I hope my letter finds you and your family in good health and great spirits. You will be happy to know that I have been selected as the General Manager of my company from among twenty aspiring candidates.
I feel my selection just proves that the value of hard work and the art of putting in your best is never wasted. Hard work is challenging but rewarding. To succeed in life you need to put in your best. A person can excel in any. field by his hard work. If a person has the ability to work
hard he possesses a great quality because it is the key to success. All great men of the world were diligent and hardworking. Hard work also makes us better prepared to face adverse situations.
I can go on and on about the value of hard work but I shall wait till the time we meet to discuss this topic further. Give my regards to all elders and love to the children.
Yours lovingly,
XYZ
Or
ABC Lane 4
XYZ City
22nd December, 20xx
Dearest Sister,
I hope my letter finds you and your family in good health. You will be shocked and somewhat amused to know about an incident that caused a great misunderstanding between John and me.
I know you must be wondering about this undue delay in writing to you but I am sure after reading what I have been through you will understand the reason for this delay. My relationship with John had almost been on the verge of breaking up due to a terrible misunderstanding and lack of trust but fortunately we are now over that worst phase of our life. I am sure you will be all the more puzzled when I tell you that a ghost would have been responsible if we had drifted apart. An Ouija board that I brought home revealed that someone by the name of Helen had been communicating with John and I foolishly suspected John of seeing another women. I had even decided to leave him as I felt John too was behaving rather suspiciously. But it was actually a ghost by the name of Helen who had been communicating with John. I felt very embarrassed and miserable at my immature reaction and immediately apologised to John. My loving husband forgave me instantly and we are together again. I promise to never to lose faith in our relationship.
I know it was extremely silly of me to lose trust on my .husband and suspect him of having an affair but, I guess, love makes you extremely possessive. Do write to me soon. Awaiting your letter.
Yours lovingly ,
Lavinia Part (A)

Question.11A. When Anne told her father about Peter and herself, what was his reaction? Did she take his words kindly? Support your answer with examples from her diary entries of May 1944.
Or
What light do the diary entries of Anne throw on the character of Mr. Dussel?
Answer.Anne’s relationship with Peter intensifies and she spends all her time with him. Her father disapproves of this. Anne takes Margot’s advice to write a letter to her father about her thoughts and feelings about Peter. Anne writes a letter to her father telling him how she has struggled bitterly and can now live without being responsible to anyone. Her letter upsets her father. He tells him her loving parents did not deserve such a reproach. Anne feels guilty for being so harsh, and her pride is wounded, for she has been taken off the pedestal where she could do no wrong or hurt anyone. She is ashamed of herself and realizes that she still has a lot to learn.
Or
Anne gives a very negative portrayal of Mr. Dussel. He is an ill-tempered old dentist and Anne’s roommate in the Secret Annex. He does not respect Anne at all and demands her cooperation with all of his absurd wishes, never taking Anne’s own feelings and desires into consideration. He is basically a selfish man, never grateful to the Franks or Van Daans for sharing their hiding place with him, never showing any kind of gratitude to his protectors. He frequently endangers the other members of the Secret Annex by breaking their security rules and hoards food, which he refuses to share. He fights with everyone in the Annex and often give them the silent treatment.

Question.11B. “And even now I sometimes feel the same uneasiness and disquietude.” Why does Helen speak these words? How did she come out of her uneasiness? 
Or
Write a character sketch of Bishop Brooks.
Answer.Helen was devastated by the charges of plagiarism, and by Michael Anagnos’ efforts to distance himself from her. She feels a sense of “uneasiness and disquietude” when she is writing for fear that she plight be plagiarizing someone else’s words although she was cleared of any wrongdoing. To put this feeling of uneasiness behind her, Helen visits the Niagara Falls where she feels “the air vibrate and the earth tremble” and the World Fair, both of which have a positive impact on her and help her to overcome her feeling of disquietude and anxiety.
Or
Bishop Brooks was one of the many men of genius whom Helen met. He was the most inspiring spiritual influence in Helen’s life. He was a true preacher and a noble soul. Helen considered it her privilege to be acquainted with him and to talk to him. She knew him from her childhood when she used to sit on his lap as he talked about God and spirituality. He was like a father figure to Helen and his lesson inspired her to broaden her love for humanity. He also taught Helen the concept of universal religion and the religion of love. Her closeness to Bishop Brooks taught Helen how to embrace humanity and the lessons taught by him left an indelible impression on Helen’s heart.

SET-II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.3. You happened to witness a film being shot in your locality. Using ideas from the picture given, write a letter in 100-120 ivords to a friend describing your experience. You are Rani/Raman of 15, Vinay Nagar, Jaipur.

Answer.
15, Vinay Nagar Jaipur
1st October, 20xx
Dearest Riya
I hope you and your family are in good health and great spirits. We all are doing well.
I am really excited because for the first time I witnessed a film scene being shot that too in my locality. This film which is likely to release after about three months just completed a ten day shooting schedule here. We got a chance to meet and take the autographs of superstars Deepika Padukone and Ranveer Singh.
It was also good a learning experience to see exactly how a film is shot. From the camera, lighting, sound equipment to the vanity vans of the actors, it was fascinating to see how much effort and detail goes into a single shot. Let me tell you it is not an easy task and each minor detail needs to be taken into consideration. I have so much more to tell you about this unique experience but it will have to wait until we meet.
It was surely one of the most exciting days of my life. Give my due regards to your parents and reply soon.
Yours lovingly,
Rani

Question.7. Read the dialogue given below and complete the passage that follows.
Teacher : Why were you absent yesterday?
Ravi : I went for a family friend’s wedding.
Teacher : The exams are approaching. Don’t miss classes until absolutely necessary.
Rain : Sorry ma’am. I promise not to miss classes any more.
Tire teacher asked Ravi (a) ……….Ravi replied that he had gone for a family friend’s
wedding. The teacher then reminded him (b)……………… and advised him not to miss classes
until absolutely necessary. Ravi said he was sorry and (c)…………… ,
Answer.(a) why he was absent the previous day
(b) that the exams were approaching
(c) promised not to miss classes anymore

SET -III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in ‘ Set-I and Set-II
Question.3. You have joined your new office in Hyderabad. Write a letter in 100-120 words to your parents telling them about the new city and your new job. You are Pradeep/Pushpa, 15, Bank Street, Hyderabad.
Answer.
15, Bank Street
Hyderabad
17th January, 20xx
Dearest Mummy and Papa
I hope you both are doipg well. You will be happy to know that I have started settling in my new job and in this new city.
Initially I did face a few problems regarding commuting and accommodation but thanks to my colleagues, who have been extremely cooperative, I have overcome all my problems. Infect I am enjoying my new job because the people in my office are very kind and helpful. Hyderabad is a nice city, the people here are also warm and friendly though the language barrier does pose a problem sometimes. But my initial apprehension and anxiety regarding my shift to a new city for a new job is now a thing of the past.
I am really happy with my decision and will remain grateful to both of you for supporting me in my decision.
My love and regards to you both and looking forward to you visiting me in the near future.
Yours sincerely,
Pushpa

Question.7.Read the dialogue given below and complete the paragraph that follows.
Peter : When did you come back from Mumbai?
William : I arrived yesterday.
Peter : How is your father? Has he recovered from his illness?
William : He has left the hospital but the doctor has advised him a month’s rest.
Peter asked William (a)………….. from Mumbai. William replied that he had arrived the
previous day. Peter then enquired how (b) …………….and whether he had recovered from
his illness. William told him that (c)………….. , a month’s rest.
Answer.(a) when he had come back
(b) his father was
(c) he had left the hospital but the doctor has advised him

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The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English SA2 Delhi – 2013 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English  SA2 Outside Delhi – 2013

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                               Maximum marks: 70
The Question Paper is divided into three Sections:
Section A – Reading 20 Marks
Section B Writing & Grammar 25 Marks
Section C – Literature 25 Marks

General Instructions:

1.  All questions are compulsory.
2.  You may attempt any Section at a time.
3. All questions of that particular Section must be attempted in the correct order.

SET I

SECTION A – READING
Question.1. Read the following passage carefully.
We sat in silence in the dark of the night as the large head appeared from the large foliage. The female ,was young, healthy and alert. Seconds later, she walked confidently to the edge of a waterhole followed by not one, not two, but three beautiful young cubs. Like works of art on display, all four tigers bent low at the waterhole that had been created for them and for the myriad creatures that shared their troubled kingdom. The Goshri tigers had come visiting and we watched them with rapt attention on our closed-circuit TV screens, in the conservation retreat of Harsh and Poonam Dhanwatey, a husband and wife team whose life had been dedicated to the protection of tigers in and around Maharashtra’s Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve. Their son Nikhii carefully positioned the cameras and cabled them 40 metres from their conservation retreat, near the waterhole that had turned into a magnet for every conceivable animal found in the Tiger Reserve itself. We were making preparations to set up one of the first Community Conservation Reserves in Central India. Originally into business, the Dhanwatevs changed tracks midstream by shutting down a thriving interior design business in response to just one meeting they had with Dr. Ullas Karanth and Valmik Thapar, two of India’s finest tiger people, in Nagpur. In their own words: “From admirers of wildlife we became passionate defenders and we launched our non-governmental organization called Tiger Research and Conservation Trust (TRACT).” The Dhanwatevs lived for years in a small hut that was their field camp near the famous Tadoba Lake and they discovered the secrets of the forest in the best way possible, by walking its trails, and generally learning all thev could about the magical mix of life that comprised this tropical, dry deciduous forest.

Question.1.1 Based on your reading of the passage, complete the following sentences with appropriate words/phrases:
(a) The narrator and the others watched with rapt attention as the
(b) Harsh and Poonam Dhanwatey had dedicated their lives to the cause of
(c) Before taking up the cause of tigers the Dhanwateys were .
(d) The waterhole is referred to as a magnet because
(c) The narrator had gone to the Tiger Reserve to
if) The meeting with Dr. Ullas Karanth and Valmik Thapar changed the lives of
(g) The Dhanwateys discovered the secrets of the forest by
(h) TRACT stands for
Answer. (a) the four Goshri tigers, the mother and the three cubs had come visiting the
waterhole.
(b) protection of tigers in and around Maharashtra’s Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve.
(c) managing an interior design business.
(d) all the animals in the tiger reserve were attracted to it.
(e) set up the first Community Conservation Reserve.
(f) the Dhanwateys.
(g) walking the trails of the forest and generally learning all they could about the deciduous forest.
(h) Tiger Research and Conservation Trust.

Question.2. Read the following passage carefully.
“Mum!” I shouted. “Are you okay?” I saw her little tent shuddering in the gale and listened closely for her response. Her voice was almost casual: “Oh, yes, I’m fine.” That’s my mother. It was the first night of our cycling trip through the interior of Iceland—a region so remote and inhospitable that for centuries, according to legend, it was abandoned. The weather was decidedly hurricane-like, but Mum wasn’t concerned. Months ago, I told her about my plan to pedal across Iceland. “It will be really difficult,” I said. “The roads are unpaved and often washed out, and the wind is blowing constantly — sometimes so hard that it pushes you off the road.” There was silence for a moment. Then she asked, “Can I come?” “Sure,” I replied. “But like the rest of us, you have to train to do two 160 kilometres a day back-to-back,” “Wow,” she said, “I could never do that.” I had more faith in my mother’s physical abilities than she did. I’d seen her raise six children and put in long hours doing physical labour on our small farm. “Sure you can,” I told her, “Start tomorrow.” What really concerned me was what 1 perceived to be her frustrating humility: I thought her too self-depreciating about her intellect just because she had not completed college. 1 felt she underestimated her attractiveness just because she was not the type to wear makeup or fancy clothes. As I had grown into adulthood, the life I’d chosen seemed light-years away from Mum’s quiet existence, still caring for her children and her children’s children. Sometimes, on a visit home, I’d describe some recent trip I’d taken, and her blue eyes would shine with interest. So I couldn’t help thinking this trek might revitalize Mum, who had started to slow down in her 50s. It might spice up what I saw as her humdrum life. And it might be a boost to her tentative and retiring persona. Mum trained furiously, months in advance. As the trip roster was pared down to Mum, my good friend Allen and me, she stood as the most dedicated. Soon she was riding 80-100 kilometres per day, and was as strong a rider as Allen or I.

Question.2.1 On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the following questions briefly:
(a) How does the narrator describe the weather and road conditions in Iceland?
(b) What training did the adventure cycling trip require? Why did the narrator have faith in his mother’s physical ability to undertake the trip?
(c) In what way did the narrator think the trip would help his mother?
(d) When were the narrator and his friend sure about his mum’s preparation?
Answer. (a) The weather in the interiors of Iceland is decidedly hurricane-like and the roads are
mostly unpaved and washed out. The wind blows constantly and sometimes so hard that it pushes one off the road.
(b) The training included doing two 160 kilometers a day back-to-back. The narrator had faith in his mother’s physical abilities as he had seen her raise six children and seen her put in long hours doing physical work on their small farm.
(c) The narrator thought that the cycling trip would revitalize his mum who had started to slow down in her 50s. He thought that it would spice up her humdrum life and boost her tentative and retiring persona.
(d) The narrator’s mother trained Juriously for the cycling trip months in advance. His mother stood as the most dedicated when the trip roster was pared down to him, his friend Allen and her and was soon riding 80-100 kilometers per day.

Question.2.2 Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given word from the options provided:
(a) The word ‘perceived’ means
(i) associate                   (ii) acknowledge       (iii) pressurize (iv) notice/ become aware of
(b) The word ‘revitalize’ means
(i) to pause                     (ii) to enjoy               (iii) to give new life (iv) to end something
(c) The word ‘tentative’ means .
(i) hesitant/not certain (ii) sure/ certain (iii) tense           (iv) tempted
(d) The word ‘abandoned’ means
(i) to give up/leave behind (ii) to choose (iii) to accept something
Answer. (a)(iv) notice/ become aware of
(b) (iii) to give new life
(c) (i) hesitant/not certain
(d) (i) to give up/leave behind

SECTION B-  WRITING AND GRAMMAR
Question.3. Read the news item on a survey that was carried out by www.shine.com.
More than 90 per cent of people agree that being part of a team is one of the best things about their work. Working in a team is a challenge but our poll results on www.shine.com indicates that most people are unhappy working in teams and are intolerant of any changes in group structure.
Taking help from the verbal stimulus given below, write an article in about 100-120 words for your school magazine on how to get the best out of a team.

• Working in a team—healer and stress buster.
• Team—everybody works towards a common goal.
• Effective communication between team members.
— Strong leadership — Avoid conflicts
— Focus on the goals — Respect for others’ competencies
Or
You are Mr. William who loves travelling. You saw the following picture in a reading daily. It made you wonder about the present state of tourism in India. Write an article in 100-120 words on the state of tourism in India and how to promote it further. Take ideas from the unit on ‘Travel and Tourism’.
Answer.Team Spirit
By: XYZ
Working in a team may be a challenge but it can produce great results if all members of the team work selflessly to achieve a common goal.
Working in a team is actually a healer and a stress buster because the success or failure of a task, is a collective responsibility and not an individual problem. Each team member works towards a common target and gives varied views and ideas which can enhance productivity. Successful team work requires effective communication and a strong leadership, only then can conflicts be avoided and the focus is only on achievement of goals. In a team, negative attitudes should be discouraged and each member must have respect for the others’ competencies. Good example should be set and unhealthy competition should be strictly avoided. There are always two sides of a coin but team work is a boon if some general rules regarding team spirit are adhered to.
One must also try to put his best foot forward so that the concept of team spirit always remains beneficial and successful to each member of the team.
Or
Promoting Tourism
By: William
The present-day state of tourism in India is a cause of national concern. Though infrastructure and connectivity has relatively improved, much needs to be done about the boarding and lodging which does not cater to all levels of society. Another major area of concern for tourists coming to India is the dismal state of the security and safety. The Tourism Department of our country needs to take up concrete steps to improve the state of tourism in India. This should begin with maintaining and improving heritage sites, some of which are part of our historical legacy. Our tourism needs more aggressive marketing which should now be done using the power of the media. Last but not the least, each and every one of us should make a sincere effort to keep our city and country clean, as a beautiful and clean city beckons more tourism. By following these simple measures the tourism in our country is bound to witness a significant rise.

Question.4. Develop the following hints into a readable story of 150-200 words:
Once there was a farmer—lots of farm animals—one goose laid golden egg—farmer sold golden eggs daily—became richer and richer—neglected his farm and other animals— farmer and wife became greedy—killed the good—ripped open belly—found nothing— greed ruined them.
Or
Complete the following story in 150-200 words in any suitable way?
The boys lifted trophy amidst cheers and jubilation from the spectators…………………
Answer. Once upon a time there was a farmer who had a farm and lots of animals. He and his family, lived a happy and comfortable life. One day something unusual happened. The farmer went to the bam to collect the eggs the geese had laid. The farmer was taken by surprise when he found that one of his goose had laid a golden egg. He rushed to the town to sell the egg and got lots of money for it. The goose continued to lay a golden egg each day and the farmer and his family became richer and richer. He started neglecting his farm and other animals and soon it came to its ruin. But the farmer was not worried as long as he had the goose that laid the golden egg. One day the farmer and his wife were overcome by greed and thought to themselves that if they killed the goose, they would get all the golden eggs at once. They would become so rich overnight that they would never have to work again. They killed the goose and ripped open its belly but did not find any thing. It was like any other ordinary goose. By this,action, they even lost one golden egg daily. The farmer repented greatly over his folly and wept and cursed himself for letting his greed ruin him.
Or
It was a proud moment for the team of St. Joseph’s School as their boys had won the regional level football trophy after a long gap of ten years. I was a mere spectator in the stadium but the sense of jubilation and euphoria was contagious. I felt as though I was a part of the winning team. The feeling of pride and joy was evident not only on the faces of the players but also on the face of everyone associated with the school. Their football team had made them proud. The principal of St. Joseph’s School, who had accompanied the team, went to the field to personally congratulate the coach and each player. He announced that all the players would be felicitated by the school authorities in a special ceremony. An atmosphere of sheer nostalgia prevailed in the National Football Stadium. The merry-making continued as the winning trophy was taken to the school in the bus with loud cheers and excitement.

Question.5.Complete the passage given below by choosing the correct alternatives from the ones the following?
As a small boy I used to play cricket with my mother.She used to bowl (a) …………. me in a small room in our house.There was (b)………………..space so she would kneel and throw the ball gently to me.Once I hit hard and hit her (c)…………… the nose.It started bleeding and I had frightented.
(a)(i)for (ii)at (iii)over (iv)to
(b)(i)few (ii)little (iii)hardly (iv)any
(c)(i)in (ii)for(iii)on(iv)into
Answer. (a) (iv) to     (b) (ii) little      (c) (ii) on

Question.6.The following passage has not been edited.There is one error in each line.Identified the error and write it along the correction along the answer sheet.The first one has been done for you as an example?                           eg.       Incorrect            correct 
During a summer holidays I accompanied my                                    a                           the
friend from his village. It was a small place consisting (a)             _                              _
of about 200 houses. The villagers are simple people    (b)              _                             _
and very hospitable. The natural scenery or fresh          (c)              _                               _
air were very soothing. I stayed here for three days      (d)              _                                 _
and enjoyed myself in the lap of nature.
Answer. (a) from …. to      (b) are …. were     (c) or …. and      (d) here …. there

Question.7.Rearrange the following wordf/phrases to form meaningful sentences. The first one has been done for you.
Railway station / my parents / one evening/ along with / to the / I went /
One evening I went along with my parents to the railway station.
(a) crowd at / counter / there was / the ticket / a huge /
(b) for the / was alive / train / with passengers / the platform / anxiously waiting /
(c) arrived / started / compartment / the passengers / from one / running / to another / the train / and /
Answer. (a) There was a huge crowd at the ticket counter.
(b) The platform was alive with passengers anxiously waiting for the train.
(c) The hawkers were shouting at the top of their voices.

SECTION C – LITERATURE & LONG READING TEXT
Question.8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
“I’ve come to tell you that 1 am leaving,” she staccatoed.
“Oh, yes, yes’.” I agreed, flapping my arms about to attract attention from the comer.
(a) Who is the ‘she’ referred to here?
(b) Why had she decided to leave?
(c) Why did her husband behave in a strange manner?
Or
Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
I do beseech ye, if you bear me hard,
Now, whilst your purpled hands do reek and smoke,
Fulfil your pleasure. Live a thousand years,
shall not find myself so apt to die:
(a) When does Antony say these words?
(b) What is his request?
(c) What does ‘reek’ in the above lines mean?
Answer. (a)’She’ refers to John’s wife, Lavinia.
(b) She had decided to leave because she suspected John of having an affair with another woman.
(c) Her husband behaved in a strange manner because he did not want her to catch sight of the ghost, Helen.
Or
(a) Antony says these words when he sees Caesar’s slain body.
(b) His request to the assassins is that he should also be killed by them at that time.
(c) ‘Reek’ in the above lines means ‘stench’ (stink).

Question.9. Answer any four of the following in 30-40 words each.
(a) What was the aim of the game, ‘Dragonquest’?
(b) What was Patol Babu’s role in Baren Mullick’s film?
(c) How was the ancient mariner punished for his crime?
(d) Why does the narrator in the poem, ‘Snake’ consider himself a coward?
(e) What makes Helen and the other ghosts organise ‘The Writer’s Inspiration Bureau’? What was their mode of working?
Answer. (a) The aim of the game ‘Drangonquest’ appeared to be simple. Michael had to rescue the
fair Princess Aurora who was imprisoned at the top of a tall tower from the wicked dragon, and collect the wicked creature’s treasure along the way.
(b) Patol Babu was to play the part of a pedestrian in Baren Mullick’s film. He was to act as an absent-minded, short-tempered pedestrian with whom the hero Chanchal Kumar was Supposed to collide as he hurries out of his car and charges across the pavement.
(c) The ancient mariner had killed the innocent albatross. To punish him for the crime he had committed, the other sailors hung the dead albatross around his neck. The burden of the sin in this way stayed with him forever and bearing his guilt in mind, he stops every stranger he meets to narrate his story.
(d) The poet D.H. Lawrence considers himself a coward as he feels that he is not brave and daring enough to listen to the voices of his education and kill the snake. Rational instinct tells the poet that the golden-brown venomous snake should be killed but the poet does not have the courage to actually kill the snake.
(e) In her other life Helen used to be a writer and the memory of not being able to the conjure up sufficient ideas weighed heavily upon her mind. So when she attained the form of a ghost, she made up her mind to help writers without ideas. She found others who had suffered similarly and between them they organised ‘The Writer’s Insrpiration Bureau’. It was a voluntary sendee by the ghost fraternity to help the mortals.

Question.10. “Cowards die many times before their deaths; The valiant never taste of death but once.”
These words of Julius Caesar bring out the importance of courage in the face of adversity. Send an e-mail in 80-100 words to your younger brother on the importance of courage and bravery in one’s life.
Or
“Often life throws challenges at us. Challenges expose our weaknesses and strengths. True strength of character is shown by those who turn challenges into opportunities.” Discuss in the context of the lesson ‘Patol Babu, Filmstar’.
Answer.From: Arya Wasan <aryawasan@yahoo.com>
To : Armaan Wasan < armwasan@gmail.com>
Subject: Importance of courage and bravery
Dear Armaan
Hope you are doing well and taking good care of, Mom and Dad.
These days we are reading the play ‘Julius Caesar’ which is a part of our academic curriculum. While reading the play I was really impressed by Caesar’s words ‘Cowards die many times before their deaths; the valiants never taste of death but once.’ I am writing this mail to you to tell you how important it is to be brave and courageous. It is a very vital character trait. Often, people do not do things that they would like to do, only because they are afraid or have self-doubts. It is very important to dream about what you really want and then go out boldly and just do it. Being brave takes away your fears permanently. We have to learn to stand up to our fears in their face so that they never bother us again.
Lots more on this will follow soon. Till then take care
Yours Lovingly,
Arya
Or
When Patol Babu got an offer to act in a movie he is very excited. But later when he comes to know that his only dialogue in the movie is the monosyllable, ‘Oh!’, he is utterly disappointed. Nevertheless he quickly overcomes his initial disappointment and decides to turn this challenge into an acting opportunity and decides to give in his best to his miniscule role. He remembers his mentor’s words that no part, however big or small, is beneath the dignity of an actor. He began rehearsing the monosyllable ‘Oh’ giving the exclamation a different inflection each time he uttered it. He further improvises his performance by being busy in reading a newspaper while walking on the pavement. Patol Babu, in this way, shows great strength of character. He does not get bogged by this challenge but gives it his best and performs the scene f lawlessly.

Question.11A.What changes came in Anne’s personality because of her life in the Secret Annex? What impression does it leave on your mind?
Or
Give a character sketch of Edith Frank.
Answer.Her life in the Secret Annex sees Anne’s progession of individuation from childhood into adolescence, away from externally imposed restrictions and parental expectations. This process of self discovery and adolescent rebellion takes place within a timespan that allows very little space for Anne to test out her evolving self. Her body and self image change radically but others still treat and judge her as the child she once was. But it is not possible for Anne to retain her former childish self in the Annex because of the long hours of silence and the need for constant self-control. Tired of playing the family “clown and mischief maker”, Anne wants to take on a role different from the one others have come to expect of her.
Or
Edith Frank was Anrte’s mother with whom Anne felt little closeness and sympathy. The two have a very tumultuous relationship. Anne thinks her mother is too sentimental and critical. But Edith Frank was good for Margot, Anne’s elder sister. Anne was not happy with the way her mother never took care of her and felt the latter had failed in being a loving and caring mother to her. Anne also mentions that her mother is frightfully irritable and always seemed to herald undue unpleasantness towards her and would stick up for Margot all the time. Her mother and Margot always backed each other up and finally. Anne became so indifferent that she resorted to utter indifference to her mother’s jawing.

Question.11B. Helen had a special love for outdoor life. Explain by giving examples from the story of her life.
Or
Give a character sketch of Kate Adams.
Answer. It is quite surprising that Helen had a special love for outdoor life. The sweet voices of the earth reached her through avenues other than hearing and sight. When Helen was in the woods, she loved to put her hand and catch the rustling of a small creature in the leaves. She enjoyed following dark roads that smelled of mo$s and wet grass, and hill roads and deep valley roads that were so narrow that the trees and bushes touched her as she passed. She often stood on little bridges and felt the stream flowing under it with her hands filled with tiny minnows (small fish). Many a times Helen would sit on a fallen tree for so long that many forest animals would step across her feet. The fragrance and vibrations of the forest relaxed Helen and she thoroughly enjoyed every minute that she spent outdoors.
Or
Helen was extremely close to her mother Kate Adams. During the first months after her illness, Helen only sat in her mother’s lap or clung to her dress as she went around doing her household duties. Kate Adams was extremely sensitive to Helen’s needs and was also of the firm opinion that Helen should be tutored. In the first five years of her life Helen developed a limited sign language which only Kate Adams understood. Kate Adams got some hope for Helen after reading about a blind and deaf girl Laura Bridgman. It was because of her and her husband’s determination and sincere efforts that Helen was able to overcome the strong barriers of her dark world.

SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.3. You are a member of the Society for Prevention of Cruelty to Animals in your locality. Taking help from the verbal stimulus given below write an article in about 100-120 words to be published in the forthcoming issue of ‘The Week’ on how animals are ill- treated and what can be done to prevent it. 5
Hints:
• 50% people believe that animals are exploited for selfish ends.
• 35% people have indifferent towards animals.
• 15% people believe that animals are man’s slaves.
Or
Hints:
depleting condition of parks — no greenery — plants dying — broken swings and benches — government agencies negligent — RWAs unite — school students plant saplings — corporate houses adopt parks — develop green play areas for children.
A leading newspaper has started a column, ‘Generation Next-Speak out’. For this they are inviting articles from school students. As Secretary of the Eco Club of your school, you decide to write an article on the depleting condition of parks in your city. Using the hints given, along with your own ideas, write this article in about 100-120 words.
Answer.EXPLOITATION OF ANIMALS
By: Ramesh
The Society for Prevention of Cruelty to Animals has been working for the well-being of animals for many years now. But it is most unfortunate that in spite of our active efforts people’s attitude towards animals has remained unchanged. They continue to take animals for granted and ill-treat them to suit their own selfish purpose. Almost 15% people believe that animals are man’s slaves. So, they continue to burden and torture them keeping this belief foremost in their minds. Another 35% people have an indifferent attitude towards animals. They simply do not care about animal welfare. They are blissfully unaware about even the existence of animals leave alone caring about their welfare. Around 50% people exploit animals for their own selfish interests. Animals are slaughtered mercilessly for their flesh, skin, tusks etc. It is high time we took a serious view of this torture to animals by making people aware of the injustice and cruelty upon animals. One way of achieving this is my making cruelty to animals a punishable offence. After all animals too are living beings and have as much a right as humans do to live peacefully on this earth.
Or
DEPLETING CONDITION OF PARKS
By: ABC, Secretary Eco Club
XYZ School
Well maintained parks seem to be a thing of the past for the residents of Delhi. In the name of parks what is seen today is barren land, deplorable structures and garbage dumps.
In spite of the government sanctioning lakhs of rupees the condition of parks in our city is depleting. Devoid of greenery, with plants dying, broken swings and rusted benches the parks present a pathetic sight. Even the government agencies are negligent towards maintenance of city parks. This is most unfortunate as these parks are supposed to be the lungs of the residents of Delhi. The Resident Welfare ‘Associations need to unite with the concerned agencies for the development and maintenance of the parks. School students should volunteer to plant saplings in parks. Corporate houses can also come forward to adopt the parks and work on their makeover and beautification. We need to take up individual as well as Elective efforts to develop our city parks.
Green play areas at needed for children and it is the duty of the local government to ensure that the condition of the parks of our city is improved.

Question.7. Read the dialogue given below and complete the paragraph that follows:
Arjun : Do you know that the cultural fest is postponed?
Akshay : Anu called last night and told me about it.
Arjun : Do you know when it is scheduled to take place?
Akshay : It is postponed to the 25th of this month.
Arjun asked Akshay if he knew that the cultural fest was postponed. Akshay replied that Anu (a)………….. about that. Arjun then asked him (b)……………. to take place. Akshay told him that (c)……………….. month.
Answer. (a) had called him the previous night and told him about it
(b) if he knew when it was scheduled
(c) it was postponed to the 25th of that

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II.
Question.3. Accidents have become an everyday affair. Write an article in 100-120 words on why the number of accidents is increasing and what their consequences are.
Or
Read the following advertisment for products using solar energy.

Write a letter to the Editor of an English daily making a plea to the common people to switch over to solar energy to conserve electricity and limit electricity bills.
Answer.Incessant Rise in Road Accidents
By: ABC
Growing prosperity has resulted in an ever increasing number of motor vehicles on the roads, with flow-on increases in traffic density, kilometers travelled and the number of hours people spend in their vehicles. Due to this, there has been an incessant rise in the overall road fatalities, and a ten-fold increase in deaths due to road accidents. Danger on roads is a man-made crisis with human error accounting for over ninety percent accidents. Road accidents are related to bad driving behaviour like driving recklessly and speeding under the influence of alcohol, changing lanes without signalling and jumping traffic signals. Road danger is not merely statistics, it causes a great deal of suffering for the people who lose their dear ones or who become handicapped for life. We cannot even imagine the extent of the disaster that takes place on our roads everyday and how big an impact it has on our lives.
Or
XYZ Lane ABC City
22nd September, 20xx
The Editor The Daily Times Delhi
Subject: Need of the hour—Switch over to solar energy Sir
Through the medium of this letter I wish to make a plea to the common people to switch over to solar energy to conserve electricity and limit electricity bills.
If we decide to use solar energy as an alternative energy source it will be a great decision both for our budget as well as the environment. The Solar Power Systems have come up with excellent offers to promote a greener India. Solar cookers, lanterns, water heaters and heating and cooking systems are now available with v arious incentives. Let us not forget
that the more electricity the solar energy systems generate during the day the lesser we need to buy from the electricity grid and this will certainly limit our electricity bills. As responsible citizens it is our duty to conserve electricity.
I hope you will publish my letter in your esteemed newspaper so that my mass appeal reaches out to a vast majority of people.
Your sincerely ,
PQR

Question.7. Read the conversation given below and complete the paragraph that follows:
Vishal : I called you yesterday but you were not at home.
Vijay : I went for a movie with my brother. Why did you call?
Vishal : Do you have my practical note book with you?
Vijay : After referring to it I gave it back to you immediately.
Vishal told Vijay that (a)………………… at home. Vijay replied that he had gone for a movie with his brother and asked him why he had called. Vishal wanted to know (b) …………….. Vijay replied that after referring to it (c)……………….. immediately.
Answer.(a) he had called him the previous day but he was not
(b) if Vijay had his practical note book with him
(c) he had given it back to him

EnglishScienceMathsSanskritComputer ScienceHindiSocial Science

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English SA2 Outside Delhi – 2013 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Delhi – 2013

ScienceMathsSanskritEnglishComputer ScienceHindiSocial Science
Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1.  The Question Paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the Sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. All questions of Section-A and all questions of Section-B are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section-A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
5. Question numbers 4 to 6 in Section-A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
6. Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section-A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in
   about 50 words each.
7. Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section-A are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
8.  Question numbers 25 to 36 in Section-B are questions based on practical skills. Question nos. 25 to 33 are MCQs. Each question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you. Question nos. 34 to 36 are short answer questions carrying two marks each.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1 How many vertical columns are there in the modem periodic table and what are they called?
Answer. There are 18 vertical columns in the modem periodic table and they are called groups.

Question.2 What is speciation?
Answer. The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as speciation.

Question.3 Why should biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes be discarded in two separate dustbins?
Answer. Biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes should be discarded in two separate dust¬bins because biodegradable waste is decomposed by the micro-organisms to form simple harmless substances which can be used as manures for the plants (e.g., in the potted plants in our garden/terrace garden). Non-biodegradable waste cannot be broken down naturally.

Question.4 “The chromosomes number of the sexually reproducing parents and their offspring is the same.” Justify this statement.
Answer. In sexual reproduction, though the genetic material DNA (in the form of chromosomes) from two gametes, male and female gametes, combines together to form a new cell ‘zygote’ but the amount of DNA (the number of chromosomes) in the zygote does not get
doubled because gametes are the special type of cells called reproductive cells which contain only half the amount of DNA (or half the number of chromosomes) as compared to the normal body cells of an organism. So when a male gamete (having half number of chromosomes of the organism) combines with a female gamete (which also contain half the number of chromosomes) during sexual reproduction, then the new cell zygote will have the normal amount of DNA or normal number of chromosomes in it.

Question.5 “A ray of light incident on a rectangular glass slab immersed in any medium emerges parallel to itself.” Draw a labelled ray diagram to justify the statement.
Answer.

Question.6 We often observe domestic waste decomposing in the bylanes of residential colonies. Suggest ways to make people realise that the improper disposal of waste is harmful to the environment.
Answer.

1. When the domestic waste is decomposed by the action of micro-organisms then it becomes the breeding place of flies and mosquitoes. Flies and mosquitoes are the carrier and vector of many dangerous diseases. So some posters related to the spread of such diseases can be pasted on the walls in public places to create awareness.
2.  There should be a strict fine imposed by the sanitary officer from the families which throw their domestic wastes on the roads.

Question.7 Write the name and the structural formula of the compound formed when ethanol is heated at 443 K with excess of cone. H₂SO₄. State the role of cone. H₂SO₄ in this reaction. Write chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer. When ethanol is heated with excess of concentrated sulphuric acid at 443 K, it gets dehydrated to form ethene (an unsaturated hydrocarbon)

In this reaction, concentrated sulphuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent which removes water molecules from the ethanol molecule.

Question.8 Why homologous series of carbon compounds are so called? Write chemical formula of two consecutive members of a homologous series and state the part of these compounds that determines their (i) physical properties, and (ii) chemical properties.
Answer.

1.  All the organic compounds having similar structures show similar properties and
   they are put together in the same groups or series called homologous series.
2. For example, all the alkanes have similar structures with single covalent bonds and show similar chemical properties so they are grouped together in a homologous series having general formula C_nH_2n+2.
3.  The two consecutive members of a homologous series are methane CH₄ and ethane C₂H₆.

Question.9 Given below are some elements of the modem periodic table:

(i) Any two adjacent homologues differ by 1 carbon and 2 hydrogen atoms in their molecular formulae. So the difference in molecular masses of any two adjacent homologues is 14 u. Thus the members of a homologous series show a gradual change in their physical properties with increase in molecular mass.
(ii)All the compounds of a homologous series show similar chemical properties because they have similar structures and similar bonding.
(iii) Select two elements that belong to the same period. Which one of the two has bigger atomic size?
Answer.

Question.10 Write the number of periods the modem periodic table has. How do the valency and metallic character of elements vary on moving from left to right in a period? How do the valency and atomic size of elements vary down a group?
Answer.

•  There are seven periods in the modem periodic table.
•  On moving from left to right in a period, the valency of elements increases from 1 to
  4 and then decreases to 0
•  On moving from left to right in a period, the metallic characters of elements decreases as the electropositive character of elements decreases on moving from left to right in a period.
• All the elements in a group have same valency, because the number of valence electrons in a group is same.
• On going down in a group of the periodic table, the size of atoms increases because a
  : new shell of electrons is added to the atoms at every step on moving down in a
  group.

Question.11 (a) Explain the process of regeneration in Planaria.
(b) How is regeneration different from reproduction?
Answer. (a) Planaria, a flatworm, possesses great power of regeneration. If the body of planaria gets cut into a number of pieces, then each body piece can regenerate into a complete planaria by growing all missing parts.
Diagram. See Q. 24, 2011 (I Delhi).
(b) Regeneration is different from reproduction because most simple animals would not
depend on being cut into pieces to be able to reproduce.

Q.12. Write two examples each of sexually transmitted diseases caused by (i) virus, (ii) bacteria. Explain how the transmission of such diseases be prevented?
Answer. Sexually transmitted diseases caused by
(i) Virus:

•  AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome)
•  Genital warts

(ii) Bacteria: • Gonorrhoea – • Syphilis
Transmission of such diseases can be prevented by the following ways:
— Screening tests for blood donors
— Mutually faithful monogamous relationships
— Educating people in high risk groups
— Using condoms etc.

Question.13 Tabulate two distinguishing features between acquired traits and inherited traits with one example of each.
Answer. See Q. 17, 2012 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.14 “The sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance and none of the parents may be considered responsible for it.” Justify this statement with the help of a flow chart showing determination of sex of a newborn.
Answer. Sex determination flow chart. See Q. 14, 2012 (II Outside Delhi).
Thus in human beings, the sex of the baby is determined by the type of sperm that fuses with ovum. As human male produces two types of sperms in equal proportion, so there are 50% chances of a male baby and 50% chances of a female baby.

Question.15 Mention the types of mirrors used as
(i) rear view mirrors,
(ii) shaving mirrors. List two reasons to justify your answers in each case.
Answer.
(i) Convex mirror is used as rear view mirror in vehicles because

• it always produces an erect image of the objects;
•  the image formed in a convex mirror is highly diminished thus it gives a wide field of view.

(ii)Concave mirrors are used as shaving mirrors because

•  when the face is held within the focus of a concave mirror, then an enlarged image of the face is seen in the concave mirror. This helps in making a smooth shave.

Question.16 An object of height 6 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of focal length 5 cm. Use lens formula to determine the position, size and nature of the image if the distance of the object from the lens is 10 cm.
Answer.


Thus the image is formed at a distance of 3.3 cm from the concave lens. The negative (-) sign for image distance shows that the image is formed on the left side of the concave lens (i.e., virtual). The size of the image is 2 cm and the positive (+) sign for hand image shows that the image is erect.
Thus a virtual, erect, diminished image is formed on the same side of the object (i.e., left side).

Question.17 State the difference in colours of the Sun observed during sunris^sunset and noon.
Give explanation for each.
Answer. The Sim and surrounding sky appear red at sunrise and at sunset because at this time the Sun is near the horizon and sunlight has to travel the greatest distance through the atmosphere to reach us. Thus most of the blue colour present in sunlight has been scattered out and away from our line of sight, leaving behind mainly red colour in the direct sunlight beam that reaches our eyes.
When the Sun is overhead (as at noon) then the light coming from the Sun has to travel a relatively shorter distance through the atmosphere to reach us. Thus only a little of blue colour of the white light is scattered. Since the light coming from the overhead Sun has almost all its component colours in the right proportion, therefore the Sun in the sky overhead appears white.

Question.18 (a) What is an ecosystem? List its two main components.
(b) We do not clean ponds or lakes, but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Explain.
Answer.
(a) An ecosystem is a self-contained unit of living things (plants, animals and decomposers) and their non-living environment (soil, air and water). An ecosystem needs only the input of sunlight energy for its functioning.
The two main components of an ecosystem are:

• Abiotic component. It includes all non-living components like soil, water, air temperature, light, pressure, etc.
•  Biotic component. It includes all living components like plants, animals, decomposers, etc.

(b) A pond is a self sufficient or independent unit in nature. It contains all the components of the ecosystem. In this ecosystem, producers (hydrophytes) trap the solar energy and then provide the basic food or energy for all other life in the pond. When the producers and consumers die, the decomposers present in the pond act on their dead bodies to return the various elements back to the nutrient pool.
On the other hand, in an aquarium there are not any. producers and nutrient pool to trap solar energy, therefore the fishes living in an aquarium need to be nourished. Moreover due to absence of decomposers the excreta of the fishes cannot be decomposed. Therefore the aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly.

Question.19 (a) Define the term ‘isomers’.
(b) Draw two possible isomers of the compound with molecular formula C₃H₆O and write their names.
(c) Give the electron dot structures of the above two compounds. 
Answer. (a) The organic compounds having same molecular formula but different structures are
known as isomers.

Question.20 (a) List three distinguishing features between sexual and asexual types of reproduction.
(b) Explain why variations are observed in the off springs of sexually reproducing organisms?
Answer.

(b) Reason. There is always a possibility of diversity of characters in the off springs because the offspring is formed as a result of fusion of two gametes produced by two different individuals—the male and the female parents. So there is an opportunity for new combinations of characters.

Question.21 (a) Identify A, 6 and C in the given diagram and write their functions.
(b) Mention the role of gamete and zygote in sexually reproducing organisms

Answer. (a)
A—Stigma. The top part of carpel is called stigma. Stigma is for receiving the pollen grains from the anther of stamen during pollination.
B—Pollen tube. When a pollen grain falls on the stigma, it bursts open and grows a pollen tube downward through the style towards the female gamete in the ovary. A male gamete moves down the pollen tube.
C—Female gamete (ovum). It is a special reproductive female sex cell which combines with male gamete to form zygote.
(b) Sexual reproduction takes place by the combination of special reproductive cells called sex cells. These cells are of two types —male sex cells and female sex cells, which are coming from two different parents—a male and a female. The cells involved in sexual reproduction are called gametes. In sexual reproduction, a male gamete fuses with a female gamete to form a new cell called zygote. This zygote then grows and develops into a new organism in due course of time.

Question.22 (a) State the laws of refraction of light. Give an expression to relate the absolute refractive index of a medium with speed of light in vacuum.
(b) The refractive indices of water and glass with respect to air are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the speed of light in glass is 2×10⁸ ms^-1, find the speed of light in (i) air, (ii) water.
Answer.

Question.23 (a) A person cannot read newspaper placed nearer than 50 cm from his eyes. Name the defect of vision he is suffering from. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate this defect.
List its two possible causes. Draw a ray diagram to show how this defect may be corrected using a lens of appropriate focal length.
(b) We see advertisements for eye donation on television or in newspapers. Write the importance of such advertisements.
Answer.
(a) If a person cannot read newspaper nearer than 50 cm from his eyes then he is suffering from hypermetropia. It is also called long-sightedness.
Ray diagram, causes and correction of this defect. See Q. 17, 2011 (I Delhi).
(b) We have seen advertisements in media persuading people for eye donation. If cornea of the eyes are removed within 6 hours of the death of a person, it can be transplanted to a person suffering from corneal blindness. There are more than 45 lakh cases of corneal blindness and unfortunately out of these a major portion is that of children aged below 12 years. If a person comes forward for eye donation, he can save two corneal blind persons by donating one eye to each.
How excitingjt feels to think that after one’s death, he/she can make two blind persons see this wondeiful world! Therefore it is a must to promote such advertisements to encourage people and make them aware of this noble cause.

Question.24 The elements of the third period of the Periodic Table are given below:

(a) Which atom is bigger, Na or Mg? Why?
(b) Identify the most
(i) metallic and
(ii) non-metallic element in Period 3.
(c) Which is more non-metallic, S or Cl?
(d) Which has higher atomic mass, A1 or Cl?
Answer.
(a) Na is bigger than Mg because on moving from left to right in a period, the atomic
number of elements increases which means that the number of protons and electrons in the atom increases. (The extra electrons being added to the same shell).
(b) (i) Most metallic element is Na. Most non-metallic element is Cl;
Because on moving from left to right in a period the nuclear charge increases thus the valence electrons are pulled in more strongly by the nucleus and it becomes more and more difficult for the atoms to lose electrons so tendency of atoms to lose electrons (i e., metallic character) decreases on moving from left to right in a period. On the other hand, due to increased nuclear charge, it becomes easier for the atoms to gain electrons. So the tendency to gain electrons (i.e. non-metallic character) increases on moving from left to right in a period.
(c) Cl is more non-metallic from S because on moving from left to right in a period,
nuclear charge increases so the tendency to gain electrons increases (i.e., non-metallic character).
(d) Cl has higher atomic mass because on moving from left to right in a period, atomic number increases. Simultaneously, atomic mass increases.

SECTION B
Question.25 A student takes 2 mL acetic acid in a dry test tube and adds a pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate to it. He makes the following observations:
I. A colourless and odourless gas evolves with a brisk effervescence.
II. The gas turns lime water milky when it is passed through it.
III.The gas bums with an explosion when a burning splinter is brought near it.
IV. The gas extinguishes the burning splinter that is brought near it.
The correct observations are:
(A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV (C) III, IV and I (D) IV, I and II
Answer.  (D) IV, I and II

Question.26 A student prepared 20% sodium hydroxide solution in a beaker containing water. The observations noted by him are given below.
I. Sodium hydroxide is in the form of pellets.
II. It dissolves in water readily.
III.The beaker appears cold when touched from outside.
IV. The red litmus paper turns blue when dipped into the solution.
The correct observations are:
(A) I, Hand III (B) II, III and IV (C) III, IV and I (D) I, II and IV
Answer.  (D) I, II and IV

Question.27 Hard water required for an experiment is not available in a school laboratory. However, following salts are available in the laboratory. Select the salts which may be dissolved in water to make it hard for the experiment.
1. Calcium Sulphate
2. Sodium Sulphate .
3. Calcium Chloride
4. Potassium Sulphate
5. Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate
6. Magnesium Chloride
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 6 (C) 3, 5 and 6 (D) 2, 4 and 5
Answer. (B) 1, 3 and 6

Question.28 A student focussed the image of a distant object using a device ‘X’ on a white screen ‘S’ as shown in the figure. If the distance of the screen from the device is 40 cm, select the correct statement about the device.

(A) The device X is a convex lens of focal length 20 cm.
(B) The device X is a concave mirror of focal length 40 cm.
(C) The device X is a concave mirror of radius of curvature 40 cm.
(D) The device X is a convex lens of focal length 40 cm.
Answer.(D) The device X is a convex lens of focal length 40 cm.

Question.29 Select from the following the best set-up for tracing the path of a ray of light through a rectangular glass slab:

(A) I                                                 (B)II                                             (C)III ,                                     (D) IV
Answer. (A) I

Question.30 In an experiment to trace the path of a ray of light through a glass prism for different values of angle of incidence a student would find that the emergent ray:
(A) is parallel to the incident ray
(B) perpendicular to the incident ray
(C) is parallel to the refracted ray
(D) bends at an angle to the direction of incident ray
Answer.(D) bends at an angle to the direction of incident ray

Question.31 Select the correct statements for the process of budding in yeast:
I. A bud arises from a particular region on a parent body.
II. A parent cell divides into two daughter cells, here the parental identity is lost.
III.Before detaching from the parent body a bud may form another bud.
IV. A bud when detaches from the parent body grows into a new individual.
(A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV (C) III, IV and I (D) IV, I and II
Answer. (C) III, IV and I

Question.32 Study the different conclusions drawn by students of a class on the basis of observations of preserved/available specimens of plants and animals.
I. Potato and swTeet potato are analogous organs in plants.
II. Wings of insects and wings of birds are homologous organs in animals.
III.Wings of insects and wings of bats are analogous organs in animals.
IV. Thoms of citrus and tendrils of cucurbita are analogous organs in plants.
The correct conclusions are:
(A) I and II (B) II and IV (C) I and III (D) III and IV ‘
Answer.  (C) I and III

Question.33 In the figure, the parts marked A, B and C are sequentially:

(A) Plumule, Radicle and Cotyledon
(B) Radicle, Plumule and Cotyledon
(C) Plumule, Cotyledon and Radicle
(D) Radicle, Cotyledon and Plumule
Answer. (A) Plumule, Radicle and Cotyledon

Question.34 Why does a ray of light while passing through a prism, bend towards its base?

Answer. When a ray of light passes through a prism, it under goes refraction twice. First from rarer to denser medium of glass, it bends towards normal which is towards the base of the prism. Second time from denser to rarer medium, i.e., glass to air, it bends away from the normal i.e., towards the base of the prism.

Question.35 Name two types of fissions. Name two living beings of each type which reproduce by these methods of fission.
Answer.
Two types of fissions are:

1.  Binary Fission
2. Multiple Fission

Two examples of binary fission — Amoeba and Paramoecium
Two types of multiple fission are— Plasmodium and Spirogyra

Question.36 Write two tests you would perform to detect, whether the given colourless liquid is Acetic Acid or not.
Answer.Two tests:

1.  If we put a drop of the given colourless liquid on blue litmus paper, if the blue litmus paper changes to red, then the given acid is Acetic acid.
2.  If we smell the given liquid and the liquid gives a smell like that of vinegar, then the given acid is Acetic acid.

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
SECTION A
Question.l How many horizontal rows are there in the modern periodic table and what are they called?
Answer. There are seven horizontal rows in the modern periodic table. The horizontal rows in a periodic table are called periods.

Question.2 List any two factors that could lead to speciation.
Answer. Two factors that could lead to speciation:

1.  Geographical isolation of a population caused by various types of barriers {such as mountain range, rivers and sea). This leads to reproductive isolation due to which there is no flow of genes between separated groups of population.
2.  Genetic drift caused by drastic changes in the frequencies of particular genes by chance alone.

Question.3 Mention one negative effect of our affluent life, style on the environment.
Answer. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are the chemicals which are used in refrigerators and air conditioners as coolant when released into the air react with ozone gas present in the ozone layer and destroy it gradually. If the ozone layer in the atmosphere disappears completely, then all the extremely harmful ultraviolet radiations coming from the Sun would reach the earth and cause skin cancer and other ailments in humans, animals and plants.

Question.4 Mention the two functions of human testis.
Answer. Functions of human testis:

1.  Testes make male sex hormones called testosterone.
2.  Testes produce male sex gametes, i.e., sperms.

Question.5 Every one of us can do something to reduce our consumption of various natural resources. List four such activities based on 3-R approach.
Answer.

1. We can reduce the use of LPG by making use of solar cooker for cooking food.
2.  We can reduce the wastage of water by repairing the leakage in taps.
3.  We should collect all the discarded household items like newspapers, broken plastic items, glass bottles etc. and send them to the respective industries for recycling to make fresh paper, plastic and glass objects.
4. We can drink soft cold drinks available in the glass bottles instead of pearipet or metal containers as these glass bottles can be refilled and thus reused again.

Question.8 Name the oxidising agent used for the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid. Distinguish between ethanol and ethanoic acid on the basis of (i) litmus test, (ii) reaction with sodium carbonate.
Answer. Acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ can be used as oxidising agent for the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid.

(i) Litmus test:

• If an organic compound (to be tested) does not change the colour of either of the litmus solution (blue or red) then the organic compound is neutral in nature. Ethanol is a neutral compound.
•  When some blue litmus solution is added to the organic compound (to be tested), if the blue litmus solution turns red; it shows that the organic compound is acidic and hence it is ethanoic acid.

(ii) Reaction with sodium carbonate:

•  When the organic compound (to be tested) is taken in a test tube and a pinch of sodium carbonate is added to it; if no reaction occurs in the reaction mixture, it is ethanol.

Question.9 (a) Differentiate between alkanes and alkenes. Name and draw the structure of one
member of each.
(b) Alkanes generally burn with clean flame. Why?
Answer.

(b) Alkanes bum in air with a blue and non-sooty flame because the percentage of carbon in the alkane is comparatively low which gets oxidised completely by oxygen . present in air.

Question.11 An element X (atomic number 17) reacts with an element Y (atomic number 20) to form a compound.
(a) Write the position of these elements in the modem periodic table.
(b) Write the formula of the compound formed.
Justify your answer in each case.
Answer. Element ‘X’                     Electronic configuration
Atomic number = 17                        2, 8, 7

Question.16 An object of height 5 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave lens of focal length 10 cm. Use lens formula to determine the position, size and nature of the image if the distance of the object from the lens is 20 cm.
Answer.

Question.20 (а) Write the function of placenta in human females.
(b) List four ways of preventing pregnancy. State, two advantages of using such preventive methods.
Answer.
(a) The exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste products between the embryo and the mother takes place through placenta.
(b) Methods to prevent pregnancy. See Q. 15, 2012 (I Outside Delhi). [Page P – 47
Advantages of using preventive methods.

1. Contraceptive methods are used to prevent the spreading of sexually transmitted diseases like syphillis, AIDS etc.
2.  Contraceptive methods are also used to control human population by checking the unwanted pregnancies during sexual activities.

Question.23 State Snell’s law of refraction of light. Write an expression to relate refractive index of a medium with speed of light in vacuum.
The refractive index of a medium ‘a’ with respect to medium ‘b’ is 2/3 and the refractive index of medium ‘b’ with respect to medium ‘c’ is 4/3. Find the refractive index of medium ‘c’ with respect to medium ‘a’.
Answer. Snell’s law states that, “the ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is constant for a given pair of media”.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and
Set-11.
SECTION A
Question.1 Write two reasons responsible for late discovery of noble gases?
Answer. The noble gases were discovered very late because they are very unreactive and present in extremely low concentration in the atmosphere.

Question.2 “Cell division is a type of reproduction in unicellular organisms.” Justify.
Answer. Cell division is a type of reproduction in unicellular organisms because many unicellular • organisms split into two identical halves during cell division leading to the creation of new organisms.

Question.3 List any two measures that you suggest for better management of water resources.
Answer. Rain water harvesting and installation of used water recycling plants are the two measures for better management of water resources.

Question.4 (a) Trace the path of sperms from where they are produced in human body to the
exterior.
(b) Write the functions of secretions of prostate gland and seminal vesicles in humans.
Answer.
(a) Testis —> Epididymis —> Vas deferens —> Urethra —> Penis
(b) Along the path of vas-deferens, the glands called seminal vesicles and prostrate gland, add their secretions to sperms to provide nutrition to the sperms and also make their further transport easier.

Question.5 A ray of light falls normally on the surface of a transparent glass slab. Draw a ray diagram to show its path and also mark angle of incidence and angle of emergence.
Answer.

Question.8 What happen when:
(a) ethanol is burnt in air,
(b) ethanol is heated with excess cone.H₂SO₄at 443 K,
(c) a piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol?
Answer.

Question.10 The elements Li, Na and K, each having one valence electron, are in period 2, 3 and 4 respectively of modern periodic table.
(a) In which group of the periodic table should they be?
(b) Which one of them is least reactive?
(c) Which one of them has the largest atomic radius? Give reason to justify your answer in each case.
Answer.

(a) All these elements belong to 1st group because all elements have one electron in their respective outermost shell.
(b) Li is least reactive as reactivity of metals decreases on going down in a group.
(c) K has the largest atomic radius because Li belongs to 2nd period thus has 2 energy shells, Na belongs to the 3rd period thus has 3 energy shells and K belongs to 4th period thus has 4 energy shells. So as the number of shells increases so does the size of the atom.

Question.13 (a) Name the following:
(i) thread like non-reproductive structures present in Rhizopus.
(ii) ‘blobs’ that develop at the tips of the non-reproductive threads in Rhizopus. (b) Explain the structure and the function of the structures released from the ‘blobs’ in Rhizopus.
Answer. (a)

1.  Thread like non-reproductive structures present in Rhizopus is hyphae.
2. Blob like structure at the tip of hyphae is sporangia.

(b) The thread like non-reproductive parts develop on the substrate (like bread) called hyphae. At the tip of the hyphae tiny blob like structures develop called sporangia which contain spores. These spores can develop into new Rhizopus individuals. The spores are covered by thick walls that protect them until they come into contact with another moist surface and can begin to grow.

Question.15 What are fossils? State their importance in the study of evolution with the help of a suitable example.
Answer. The remains or impressions of extinct animals or plants that lived in the remote past are known as fossils.
Importance of fossils:

1.  Fossils provide evidence for evolution, e.g., a fossil bird called Archaeopteryx looks like a bird but it has many features which are found in reptiles. Archaeopteryx has feathered wings like birds but teeth and tail like those of reptiles. Therefore Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between the reptiles and birds and hence suggests that the Birds have evolved from the reptiles.
2.  Habits and behaviour of extinct species can be inferred. For example, the estimation of age of dinosaur fossils have told that they first appeared on earth about 250 million years ago and became extinct about 65 million years ago.
3.  Fossils provide direct evidence of past life.
4.  With the help of fossils broad historical sequence of biological evolution can be built up.

Question.16 An object of height 4 cm is kept at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens. Use lens formula to determine the image distance, nature and size of the image formed if focal length of the lens is 15 cm.
Answer.

Thus the image is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the concave lens.
The negative (-) sign for image distance shows the image is formed on the left side of the concave lens, i.e., it is virtual.

Thus a 1.33 cm high image is formed and positive (+) sign of h₂ shows that image is erect. Thus image distance = 10 cm, image height = 1.33 cm.
Nature of the image is virtual and erect.

Question.20 (a) Draw a sectional view of human female reproductive system and label the following parts:
(i) Where the development of egg occurs.
(ii)Where fertilisation takes place.
(b) Describe the changes the uterus undergoes:
(i) to receive the zygote.
(ii) if zygote is not formed.
Answer.
(a) Human female reproductive system.

Parts where:

1.  Development of egg occurs—Ovary
2.  Fertilisation takes place—Fallopian tube

(b)

1.  When the uterus receives the zygote, zygote divides rapidly by mitosis and forms a hollow ball of hundreds of cells called embryo which gets embedded in the thick lining of the uterus. This process is called implantation. After implantation, a disc like special tissue develops between the uterus wall and the embryo which is called placenta. The exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste products between the embryo and the mother takes place through placenta.
2. If zygote is not received by the uterus, then the thick and soft uterus lining having lot of blood cappillaries in it is not required. The unfertilised ovum dies within a day and the uterus lining also breaks down. The breaking of the uterus lining produces blood along with tissues in the form of bleeding through the vagina. This vaginal bleeding is called menstrual flow or menstruation.

Question.24 Define the term absolute refractive index. The absolute refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is the meaning of this statement? Refractive indices of media A, B, C and D are given below:

In which of these four media is the speed of light (i) minimum and (ii) maximum? Find the refractive index of medium C with respect to medium B.
Answer. When light is going from vacuum to another medium, then the value of refractive index is called absolute refractive index to the medium.
The absolute refractive index of diamond is 2.42. It means that the speed of light in diamond is 1/2.42 times the speed of light in vacuum.
As the refractive indices increase, speed of the light decreases in the medium.
(i) The refractive index of medium D is maximum (1.65). So the speed of light in medium D is minimum.
(ii) The refractive index of medium A is minimum (1.33). So the speed of light in medium A is maximum.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Delhi – 2013 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Outside Delhi 2014

ScienceMathsSanskritEnglishComputer ScienceHindiSocial Science
Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                        Maximum marks: 90
General Instructions:

1. The Question Paper comprises two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the Sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. There is no choice in any of the questions.
4. All questions of Section-A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted separately.
5. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
6. Question numbers 4 to 6 in Section A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
7. Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about 56 words each.
8. Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section A are five marks questions, these are to be answered in about 70 words each.
9.  Question numbers 25 to 33 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
10. Question numbers 34 to 36 in Section B are two marks questions based on practical skills. These are to be answered in brief.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1. List any two properties of the elements belonging to the first group of the modern periodic table.
Answer. Elements of first group have one valence electron each in their atoms.
All the elements of group 1 have the same valency of 1.

Question.2. What is gene?
Answer. A gene is a unit of DNA on a chromosome which governs the synthesis of one protein that controls a specific character of an organism. Thus genes are actually units of heredity which transfer characteristics from parents to their off springs during reproduction.

Question.3. Give one example each from your daily life where the domestic waste can be effectively reused and recycled.
Answer. We should collect the used and discarded items of plastic, paper, glass and metals and send them for recycling to get these items again for use.
Paper envelopes can be reversed inside out and used again.

Question.4. What is the main difference between sperms and eggs of humans? Write the importance of this difference.
Answer. The main difference lies in the difference in the sex chromosome of sperm (male gamete) and egg (female gamete). The main difference between sperms and eggs of humans is that half of the sperms of a male (father) will have X chromosomes and the other half will have Y chromosomes. All the eggs of female (mother) will have only X chromosomes. Importance. If the father contributes X sex chromosome, at fertilisation through his sperm, the baby bom will be a girl. On the other hand, if the father contributes a Y sex chromosome at fertilisation through his sperm, then the baby born will be a boy. Therefore the sperm determines the sex of the child.

Question.5. List two possible ways in which a concave mirror can produce a magnified image of an 1 object placed in front of it. State the difference, if any, between these two images.
Answer. Case 1. Concave mirror can produce an erect, magnified, virtual image when the object is placed between pole and focus of the mirror
Case 2. Concave mirror also produces an inverted, magnified, real image when the object is placed between the focus and the centre of curvature.

Question.6. What are decomposers? List two important roles they play in the environment.
Answer.

1. Decomposers are micro organisms that break down complex organic substances (dead remains and waste products of organisms) into simpler inorganic substances that go into the soil and are used up once more by the plants.
2. Decomposers play an important role in the cycling of materials in the biosphere.
3. By decomposing dead bodies of plants and animals they help in cleansing the environment. Example, Bacteria and fungi are examples of decomposers.

Question.7. What are homologous series of carbon compounds? Write the molecular formula of two consecutive members of homologous series of aldehydes. State which part of these compounds determines their (i) physical and (ii) chemical properties.
Answer. Homologous series. A series of carbon compounds in which the same functional group substitutes for hydrogen on a carbon chain is called a homologous series. There is a difference of -CH2 in the molecular formulae of two nearest compounds of a homologous series. Each such seiies has same general molecular formula and has a general scientific name. There is a difference of 14 g (unified mass) in the molecular masses of two nearest compounds of a series.
Members of homologous series of aldehydes:
H – CHO Methanal
CH₃– CHO Ethanal
C₂H₅—CHO Propanal
(i) The carbon-chain attached to aldehyde group, i.e., (H —, CH₃ —, C₂H₅ —) determine the physical properties.
(ii) The functional group attached to all aldehydes ( — CHO) determines the chemical properties.

Question.8. A carboxylic acid (molecular formal C₂H₄0₂) reacts with an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst to form a compound ‘X. The alcohol on oxidation with alkaline KMnO₄ followed by acidification gives the same cairboxylic acid C₂H₄0₂. Write the name and structure of (i) carboxylic acid, (ii) alcohol and (iii) the compound ‘X.
Answer. See Q. 8, 2013 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.9. The electrons in the atoms of four elements A, B, C and D are distributed in three shells having 1, 3, 5 and 7 electrons in the outermost shell respectively. State the period in which these elements can be placed in the modern periodic table. Write the electronic configuration of the atoms of A and D and the molecular formula of the compound formed when A and D combine.
Answer.

Question.10. Study the following table in which positions of six elements A, B, C, D, E and F are shown as they are in the modern periodic table:

On the basis of the above table, answer the following questions:
(i) Name the element which forms only covalent compounds.
(ii) Name the element which is a metal with valency three.
(in) Name the element which is a non-metal with valency three.
(iv) Out of D and E, which is bigger in size and why?
(v) Write the common name for the family to which the elements C and F belong.
Answer. (i) E (ii) D (iii) B
(iv) D is bigger in size because as we move from left to right in a period, the size of the atom decreases as positive charge increases but the number of shells remains the same. Thus the electrons are pulled in more close to the nucleus.
(v) Noble gases

Question.11. Explain the process of regeneration in Planaria. How is this process different from reproduction?
Answer. Process of regeneration. The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called regeneration. The simple animals like Hydra and planaria show regeneration. Diagram. See Q. 24(b), 2011 (I Delhi).
Regeneration is different from reproduction. Regeneration of an organism from its cut body part occurs by the process of growth and development.

Question.12. What is placenta? State its function in human female:
Answer. See Q. 13, 2013 (III Outside Delhi).

Question.13. With the help of suitable examples, explain why certain traits cannot be passed on to the next generation. What are such traits called?
Answer. A trait of an organism which develops in response to the environment and brought in the non-reproductive tissues can not be passed on to the DNA of the germ cells. Such traits are called acquired traits. An individual cannot pass these traits to its progeny as these traits cannot be passed on to the DNA of the germ cell.
Example:

1. If a beetle does not get sufficient food for a considerable time, its weight will reduce due to starvation. The low weight is an acquired trait.
2. Cut tail of a mouse.

Question.14. “A trait may be inherited, but may not be expressed.” Justify this statement with the help of a suitable example.
Answer.

• Mendel crossed pure-bred tall pea plants with pure-bred dwarf pea plants and found that only tall pea plants were produced in the generation.
• Mendel then crossed the tall pea plants of generation and found that tall plants and dwarf plants were obtained in the F₂ generation in the ratio of 3 :1.
• This experiment shows that the traits of dwarfness had rot been lost but it was merely concealed in the F₁ generation.
  Thus “A trait may be inherited, but may not be expressed.”

Question.15. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 60 cm in front of a mirror by keeping the flame at a distance of 15 cm from its pole.
(i) Write the type of mirror he should use.
(ii) Find the liner magnification of the image produced.
(iii) What is the distance between the object and its image?
(iv) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Answer.

Question.16. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the refracted ray in each of the following cases: A ray of light incident on a concave lens is
(i) passing through its optical centre.
(ii) parallel to its principal axis.
(iii) directed towards its principal focus.
Answer. (i) A ray of light passing through optical centre of a concave lens. An incident ray passing through the optical centre of a lens (concave or convex) goes straight after refraction.

(ii) Light ray parallel to principal axis

(iii) A ray of light directed towards principal focus

Question.17. A narrow beam PQ of white light is passing through a glass prism ABC as shows in the diagram.
(i) Write the name and cause of the phenomenon observed.
(ii) Where else in nature is this phenomenon observed?
(iii) Based on this observation, state the conclusion which can be drawn about the constituents of white light.

Answer. (i) The phenomenon of splitting of white light into seven colours on passing through a glass-prism is called dispersion of light. The dispersion of white light occurs because colours of white light travel at different speeds through the glass prism.

(ii) Formation of rainbow is an example of dispersion of white light in nature.
(iii) The formation of spectrum of seven colours shows that white light is made up of lights of seven different colours mixed together. That is, white light is a mixture of seven colours (or seven coloured lights), t.e., red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet.

Question.18. “Energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional.” Justify this statement. Explain how the pesticides enter a food chain and subsequently get into our body.
Answer. “Energy flow in a food chain is unidirectional.” In the ecosystem energy flows from one trophic level to the next trophic level of the food chain. Energy flows from producers i.e., green plants to the consumers. It does not flow from the last consumer to its previous consumer and so on. Thus the energy does not flow back from consumers to the producers. So we say that flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional. Entry of pesticides in a food chain. Some harmful chemicals like pesticides, when absorbed by the plants through soil and water, get transferred from first trophic to the last trophic level of the food chain. As these chemicals are non-degradable, their concentration in the bodies of living organisms at each trophic level progressively increases. Their increase in the concentration of harmful chemicals in the body of living organisms at each trophic level of a food chain is called biological magnification. The level of concentration of chemicals is maximum for human beings as they are at the highest trophic level.

Question.19. Elements forming ionic compounds attain noble gas configuration by either gaining or losing electrons from their outermost shells. Give reason to explain why carbon cannot attain noble gas configuration in this manner to form its compounds. Name the type of bonds formed in ionic compounds and in the compounds formed by carbon. Also give reason why carbon compounds are generally poor conductors of electricity.
Answer. Carbon mainly forms covalent bonds because carbon atoms have 4 electrons in their outermost shell. So it .needs to gain or lose electrons to attain noble gas configuration.
(i) It could gain four electrons forming C^4- anion. But it would be difficult for the nucleus with six protons to hold on to ten electrons.
(ii) It could lose four electrons forming C⁴⁺ cation. But it would require a large amount of energy to remove four electrons from its outermost shell.
Because of these reasons, carbon shares its valence electrons to complete its octet with other atoms to form covalent bonds.
• Carbon compounds are generally poor conductors of electricity because they are covalent in nature. A carbon atom has 4 valence electrons in it and all the 4 valence electrons of carbon are used up in sharing of with either carbon or with other atoms. So there are no free electrons and charge on carbon compounds.

Question.20. (a) Draw a sectional view of human female reproductive system and label the part where
(i) eggs develop.
(ii) fertilisation take place.
(iii) fertilised egg gets implanted.
(b) Describe, in brief, the changes the uterus undergoes
(i) to receive the zygote.
(ii) if zygote is not formed.
Answer.

(b) (i) The inner lining of the uterus becomes thick and soft with lots of blood capillaries before release of a fertilised egg (zygote). The uterus has to keep this zygote for further development and supply it with food, oxygen, etc.
(ii) If no fertilization occurs then the thick uterus lining breaks down along with its bloods vessels in the form of vaginal bleeding called menstrual flow.

Question.21. (a) Name the parts labelled as A, B, C and D in the diagram given below:

(b) What is pollination? State its significance.
(c) How does fertilisation occur in flowers? Name the parts of the flower that develop into (i) seed, and (ii) fruit after fertilisation.
Answer. (a) A — Pollen grains B — Pollen tube C — Ovary D — Ovule (ovum)
(b) The transfer of pollen grains from anther (male sexual part) of a flower to the stigma part of the pistil (female sexual part) is known as pollination.
Signification of pollination. It may be the cause of variation in a species of a plant.
(c) Fertilisation in flower. A pollen grain contains two male gametes. When a pollen grain falls on the stigma of the carpel, it grows a pollen tube downwards into the style. One of the male gametes reaches the ovary through pollen tube and fuses with female gamete present in the ovule. This fertilisation of the two germ cells forms a zygote. The zygote is capable of growing into a new plant.
The other male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei to form endosperm nucleus. This fusion is called triple fusion. The zygote grows into an embryo and an endosperm nucleus grows into endosperm (the food storage tissue of seed).
(i) All the eggs in the ovule present in the ovary of a flower gets fertilised by male gametes from pollen grains and grow to become seeds.
(ii) The ovary of flower develops and becomes fruit.

Question.22. Explain the following terms related to spherical lenses:
(i) optical center
(ii) centres of curvature
(iii) principal axis
(iv) aperture
(v) principal focus
(vi) focal length
(b) A converging lens has focal length of 12 cm. Calculate at what distance should the object be placed from the lens so that it forms an image at 48 cm on the other side of the lens.
Answer. (a) (i) Optical center. It is a point within the lens that lies on the principal axis through which a ray of light passes undeflected.
(ii) Centre of curvature. The centre of curvature of the surface of a lens is the centre of the sphere of which it forms a part. A lens has two centres of curvature because it has two surfaces.
(iii) Principal axis. It is a line through the centres of curvature of the lens.
(iv) Aperture. The diameter of the circular boundary of the lens is called the aperture of the lens.
(v) Principal focus. A beam of light parallel to the principal axis either converges to a point or appears to diverge from a point on the principal axis after refraction through the lens, is called the principal focus. All lenses have two principal focuses.
(vi) Focal length. The distance between the optical centre and the principal focus of the lens is called its focal length.

Question.23. (a) List the parts of the human eye that control the amount of light entering into it. Explain how they perform this function.
(b) Write the function of retina in human eye.
(c) Do you know that the corneal-impairment can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of the donated eyes? How and why should we organise groups to motivate the community members to donate their eyes after death?
Answer. (a) The iris and pupil control the amount of light entering the eyes. If the amount of light received by the eye is large (as during the day time), then the iris contracts the pupil (makes the pupil small) and reduces the amount of light entering the eye.
If the amount of light received by the eye is small (as in a dark room or during night), the iris expands the pupil (makes the pupil large) so that more light may enter the eyes.
(b) The screen on which the image is formed in the eye is called retina. Retina is a delicate membrane having a large number of light sensitive cells called ‘rods’ and ‘cones’ which respond to the ‘intensity of light’ and ‘colours of object’ respectively.
(c) See Q. 23(c), 2013 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.24. (a) Why do we classify elements?
(b) What were the two criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his Periodic Table?
(c) Why did Mendeleev leave some gaps in his Periodic Table?
(d) In Mendeleev’s Periodic Table, why was there no mention of Noble gases like Helium, Neon and Argon?
(e) Would you place the two isotopes of chlorine, Cl-35 and Cl-37 in different slots because of their different atomic masses or in the same slot because their chemical properties are the same? Justify your answer.
Answer. (a) As different elements were being discovered, scientists gathered more information about the properties of these elements. It was observed that it was difficult to organise all the information or properties of these elements. So scientists started discovering some pattern in their properties to classify all the known elements to make their study easier.
(b) Atomic mass and similarity of chemical properties (compounds formed by elements with oxygen and hydrogen) were the two criteria used by Mendeleev in his Periodic Table.
(c) Mendeleev left some gaps in his Periodic Table as he predicted the existence of some elements that had not been discovered at that time.
(d) Noble gases like helium, neon, argon etc. were not mentioned in Mendeleev’s Periodic Table because these gases were discovered later as they are very inert and present in extremely low concentrations in our atmosphere. After the discovery of noble gases they could be placed in a new group without disturbing the existing order of the Periodic Table.
(f) The two isotopes of chlorine Cl-35 and CI-37 would be placed in different slots of Mendeleev’s Periodic Table as both have different atomic masses. But the two isotopes have same chemical properties so would also be placed in the same slot. This is a contradiction. Thus position of isotopes of an element is not defined in Mendeleev’s Periodic Table.

SECTION B
Question.25. In an experiment to study the properties of ethanoic acid, a student takes about 3 mL of ethanoic acid in a dry test tube. He adds an equal amount of distilled water to it and shakes the test tube well. After some time he is likely to observe that
(A) a colloid is formed in the test tube.
(B) the ethanoic acid dissolves readily in water.
(C) the solution becomes light orange.
(D) water floats over the surface of ethanoic acid.
Answer. (B)

Question.26. A student takes about 2 mL ethanoic acid in a dry test tube and adds a pinch of sodium hydrogen carbonate to it. He reports the following observations:
I. Immediately a colourless and odourless gas evolves with a brisk effervescence.
II. The gas turns lime water milky when passed through it.
III. The gas burns with an explosion when a burning splinter is brought near it.
IV. The gas extinguishes the burning splinter that is brought near it.
The correct observations are
(A) I, II and III (B) II, III arid IV (C) III, IV and I (D) I, II and IV
Answer. (D)

Question.27. In a locality, hard water, required for an experiment, is not available. However, the following salts are available in the school laboratory: 
1. Sodium sulphate 2. Calcium sulphate
3. Magnesium chloride 4. Sodium chloride
5. Calcium chloride 6. Potassium sulphate
Which of the above salts may be dissolved in water to obtain hard water for the experiment?
(A) 2, 3 and 5 (B) 1, 2 and 5 (C) 1, 2, 4 and 6 (D) 3 and 5 only
Answer. (A)

Question.28. A student has obtained an image of a well-illuminated distant object on a screen to determine the focal length, F₁ of the given spherical mirror. The teacher then gave him another mirror of focal length, F₂ and asked him to obtain a focussed image of the same object on the same screen. The student found that in order to focus the same object using the second mirror, he has to move the mirror away from the screen. From this observation it may be concluded that both the spherical mirrors given to the student were (select the correct option)
(A) Concave and F₁< F₂ (B) Concave and F₁> F₂
(C) Convex and F₁< F₂ (D) Convex and F₁ > F₂
Answer. (A)

Question.29. After tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab for four different values of the angle of incidence, a student reported his observations in tabular form as given below:

The best observation is (A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
Answer. (C)

Question.30. Study the following diagrams in which the path of a ray of light passing through a glass prism as traced by four students P, Q, R and S is shown:

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S
Answer. (B)

Question.31. When you study a slide showing different stages of budding in yeast, you observe the following stages:
I. The bud may get separated from the parent body and develop into a new individual.
II. The body of the bud .develops and gives rise to another baby bud.
III. A bud comes out in any direction from the body of the parent cell.
IV. Thus they may form a colony.
The proper sequence of the above stages is
(A) II, I, III, IV (B) II, III, I, IV (C) in, II, I, IV (D) III, I, II, IV .
Answer. (D)

Question.32. Study the following statements:
I. Wings of birds and wings of bats are homologous organs.
II. Wings of birds and wings of insects are modified forelimbs.
III. Wings of birds and wings of insects are analogous organs.
IV. Wings of birds and forelimbs of horse are homologous organs.
The correct statements are:
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) III and IV (D) I and IV
Answer. (C)

Question.33. In the following diagram showing the structure of embryo of a dicot seed, what are the parts marked I, II and III sequentially?

(A) Plumule, Cotyledon, Radicle (B) Plumule/Radicle, Cotyledon
(C) Cotyledon, Plumule, Radicle (D) Radicle, Plumule, Cotyledon
Answer. (A)

Question.34. What happens when acetic acid is added in a solution of Na₂C0₃ in a test tube. Write the equation for detecting the gas evolved.
Answer. CO₂ gas is evolved with brisk bubbles in this reaction.
White ppt. are formed, when C0₂ gas is passed through the lime water.

Question.35. When a ray of light passes through a glass slab how many times does it change its path and why?
Answer. The ray of light bends twice. First time when it enters from air to the glass slab, it bends towards the normal, i.e., from rarer medium to denser medium.
Second time, when the ray moves out from the glass slab to air, it bends away from the normal, i.e., it moves from denser medium to rarer medium.

Question.36. Why do raisins absorb water when soaked in water? Explain the phenomenon.
Answer. Raisins absorb water due to the process of endosmosis. Water moves from semi permeable membrane of raisins into the raisin, i.e., from hypotonic solution to the hypertonic solution of raisin cell sap.

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-l.
SECTION A
Question.1. Write the atomic numbers of two elements ‘X and ‘Y having electronic configuration
Answer.

Question.2. What is heredity?
Answer. The transmission of characters from the parents to their offspring is called heredity.

Question.3. List two items which can be easily recycled, but we generally throw them in the dustbins.
Answer. Two items which can be easily recycled:

1. Broken plastic containers
2. Broken metal pipe

Question.4. “The chromosomal number of the sexually producing parents and their offspring is the same.” Justify this statement.
Answer. During the formation of sex gamete cells in the parents, the number of chromosomes are reduced to half in these cells. As these cells combine (fuse) to form the offspring, the number of chromosomes in the offspring becomes equal to parents’ number.

Question.5. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual, erect and larger than the object. Where should the position of the object be relative to the mirror? Draw ray diagram to justify your answer.
Answer. When the object is placed between pole and focus of the concave mirror, the image formed is virtual, erect and magnified.

Question.6. List two reasons to show that the existence of decomposers is essential in an ecosystem.
Answer. Role of decomposers:

1. Decomposers naturally replenish the nutrients in the soil, air and water.
2. Decomposers help in keeping the environment clean. They play an important role in the cycling of materials in the biosphere.

Question.10. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 48 cm in front of a mirror by keeping the flame at a distance of 12 cm from its pole.
(a) Suggest the type of mirror he should use.
(b) Find the linear magnification of the image produced.
(c) How far is the image from its object?
(d) Draw ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Answer.

Question.13. What is meant by homologous series of carbon compounds? Write the general formula of (i) alkenes, and (ii) alkynes. Draw the structures of the first member of each series to show the bonding between the two carbon atoms.
Answer.

Question.15. What is meant by ‘group’ in the modem periodic table? How do the following change on moving from top to bottom in a group?
(i) Number of valence electrons
(ii) Number of occupied shells
(iii) Size of atoms
(iv) Metallic character of elements
(v) Effective nuclear change experienced by valence electrons
Answer. The vertical columns in a periodic table are called groups.
(i) All the elements of a group have the same number of valence electrons.
(ii) On moving down in a group the number of occupied (filled) shells increases gradually,
(iii) On going down in a group the size of atoms increases because a new shell of electrons is added to the atoms at every step.
(iv) On going down in a group the metallic character of elements increases.
(v) On moving down in a group, one more electron shell is added at every stage and size of the atom increases. Thus valence electrons move more and more away from the nucleus and hold of the nucleus or nuclear charge on valence electrons decreases.

Question.17. List four methods of contraception used by humans.
Justify the following statement:
“The use of contraceptive methods has a direct effect on the health and prosperity of a family.”
Answer. See Q. 12, 2014 (I Delhi).

Question.18. “It is a matter of chance whether a couple will give birth to a male child or a female child.” Justify this statement with the help of a flow chart showing the fusion of sex chromosomes.
Answer. See Q. 14, 2012 (II Outside Delhi).

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II.
SECTION A
Question.1. The atomic numbers of three elements A, B and C are 12,18 and 20 respectively. State, giving reason, which two elements will show similar properties.
Answer.

Elements A and C will show similar properties as both have same number of valence elements.

Question.2. No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population. Why?
Answer. DNA copying is an essential part of the process of reproduction for the inheritance of features from parents to the next generation. The process of DNA copying brings some variation each time. The surviving cells are similar to but subtly different from each other. This in built tendency for variation during reproduction brings variations among individuals of the same species. Thus, no two individuals are absolutely alike in a population.

Question.3. Write one negative effect of affluent lifestyle of few persons on the environment.
Answer. Affluent lifestyle increases the consumption of various natural resources. For example, if every member of family has his own vehicle then the consumption of fuel (petrol, diesel) increases. Exploitation and over- consumption of resources in this manner will lead to their scarcity.

Question.4. Draw labelled diagrams to illustrate budding in Hydra.
Answer. See Q. 20, 2011 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.5. “A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm can form a magnified erect as well as inverted image of an object placed in front of it.” Justify this statement stating the position of the object with respect to the pole of the mirror in both cases for obtaining the images.
Answer. Case 1. When the object is placed between less than 15 cm from the pole, i.e., between the pole and the focus of a concave mirror, a magnified, erect and virtual image will be formed.
Case 2. When the object is placed between 15 to 30 cm, i.e., between the focus and the centre of curvature of the concave mirror, a magnified, inverted and real image will be formed.

Question.6. State with reason any two possible consequences of elimination of decomposers from the Earth.
Answer. If there were no decomposers, then the dead bodies of plants and animals would keep lying as such and the elements of which plant and animals bodies are made, would never be returned to their original pools like soil, air and water. In that case, the cycling process of life and death would be disrupted. All the nutrients present in soil, air and water would soon be exhausted and evolution of life would come to an end.

Question.9. The elements Be, Mg and Ca each having two electrons in their outermost shells are in periods 2, 3, and 4 respectively of the modern periodic table. Answer the following questions, giving justification in each case:
(i) Write the group to which these elements belong.
(i) Name of the least reactive element.
(iii) Name the element having largest atomic radius.
Answer.

(i) All these elements belong to the 2nd group as all have two electrons in their outermost shell.
(ii) Be is the least reactive metal because reactivity of metals increases in a period as the tendency to lose electrons in a group increases.
Therefore Be being the smallest in all the given elements of a period has its valence electrons nearest to the nucleus. So the removal of electrons from its valence shell will be difficult.
(iii) Ca has the largest atomic radius because it has maximum number of shells, i.e., 4.

Question.11. Define the term ‘structural isomerism’. Explain why propane cannot exhibit this property. Draw the structures of possible isomers of butane, C ₄H ₁₀.
Answer. (i) The organic compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures are known as structural isomers.
(ii) The phenomenon of occurring two or more different organic compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures is called ‘structural isomerism’.
(iii) No isomerism is possible in propane as it has only 3 carbon atoms, it is not possible to have different arrangement of carbon atoms in propane.

Question.12. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on a screen 90 cm in front of a mirror by keeping the flame at a distance of 15 cm from its pole.
(a) Suggest the type of mirror he should use.
(b) Determine the liner magnification in this case.
(c) Find the distance between the object and its image.
(d) Draw ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.
Answer.

Question.16. Write one difference between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction. Which species is likely to have better chances of survival—the one reproducing asexually or the one reproducing sexually? Justify your answer.
Answer.

The survival of animal reproducing sexually has better chance of survival:
(i) Modes of sexual reproduction allow for greater variations to be generated which are useful for ensuring the survival of the individuals of species during the struggle for existence. Sexually reproductive young ones are more healthy than those reproduced by asexual methods.
(ii) In asexual reproduction, the off springs are almost identical to their parent because they have the same genes as their parent, so much genetic variation is not possible in asexual reproduction. This is a disadvantage because it inhibits the further evolution of the organism.

Question.17. What is the effect of DNA copying, which is not perfectly accurate, on the reproduction process? How does the amount of DNA remain constant though each new generation is a combination of DNA copies of two individuals?
Answer. DNA coping is not perfectly accurate. During reproduction, no bio-chemical reaction is absolutely reliable so the process of copying the DNA will have some variations each time. As a result, the DNA copies generated will be similar but may not be identical to the original. Thus the surviving new born cells are similar to but subtly different from each other. This inbuilt tendency for variation during reproduction is the basic for evolution. DNA remains constant. The DNA in the cell nucleus is the information source for making proteins.
The basic event in reproduction is the creation of a DNA copy. Cells use chemical reactions to build copies of their DNA. This creates two copies of the DNA in a reproducing cell, and they will need to be separated from each other. DNA copying occurs accompanied by the creation of an additional cellular apparatus. The DNA copies then separate, each having its own cellular apparatus for maintaining life processes.

Question.18. List three main factors responsible for the speciation and briefly describe each one of them.
Answer. See Q. 17, 2012 (I Delhi).

Question.20. List two reasons for carbon forming a large number of compounds. Name the type of bonding found in most of its compounds. Why does carbon form compounds mainly by this kind of bonding?
Give reason why the carbon compounds
(i) generally have low melting and boiling points.
(ii) do not conduct electricity in molten state.
Answer. Carbon forms a large number of compounds.
The two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon compounds are:
— Catenation. Catenation is the unique property of carbon atoms to form bonds with other atoms of carbon giving rise to large molecules.
— Tetravalency. Since carbon has a valency of four, it is capable of bonding with four other atoms of carbon or atoms of some other monovalent elements.
Carbon compounds are formed mainly by covalent bonding, i.e., bond formed by sharing of electrons because Carbon atoms have 4 electrons in their outermost shell. So needs to gain or lose electrons to attain noble gas configuration. It could gain four electrons forming C^4- anion. But it would be difficult for the nucleus with six protons to hold on to ten electrons. It could lose four electrons forming C⁴⁺ cation. But it would require a large amount of energy to remove four electrons from its outermost shell.
Because of these reasons, carbon shares its valence electrons to complete its octet with other atoms to form covalent bonds.
Carbon compounds generally have low melting and boiling points because carbon compounds are generally formed by covalent bonds in which the force of attraction between their molecules is not very strong. Carbon compounds do not conduct electricity. As carbon compounds have covalent bonds between them, these do not give rise to any ions in their solution form or molten state. So carbon compounds do not conduct electricity through them.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Outside Delhi 2014 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English SA2 Delhi – 2014

EnglishScienceMathsSanskritComputer ScienceHindiSocial Science

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                               Maximum marks: 70
The Question Paper is divided into three Sections:
Section A – Reading 20 Marks
Section B Writing & Grammar 25 Marks
Section C – Literature 25 Marks

General Instructions:

1.  All questions are compulsory.
2.  You may attempt any Section at a time.
3. All questions of that particular Section must be attempted in the correct order.

SET I

SECTION A – READING
Question.1. Read the following passage:
It’s Beginning to Bite
In these trying times, when buying ordinary food stuff can bum a hole in your pockets, comes the news that can actually help us save some hard cash when we go out to shop the next time. According to a Stanford University’ study, the first of its kind in the world, there is no evidence to suggest that there are more nutritional benefits from expensive organic food than those grown by conventional methods. The researchers add that there is no difference in protein and fat content between organic and conventional milk and the vitamin count is similar in both types. The only benefit is that organic foods are not contaminated with pesticides but then before you chew on that plate of organic okra with roti made from organic wheat, they are not 100% pesticide free either. In India, organic food has been growing at 20-22% and the export market is valued at Rs 1,000 crore. Obviously, the study is not good news for that sector and for people who are big on organic food.
In India, eating organic food is more of a style statement than due to health worries because the stuff is expensive. But people who can, do indulge in not only organic vegetables but even organic eggs laid by ‘happy’ hens’, who are allowed to roam around freely whereas ‘unhappy hens’ are kept in coops. Then there are companies that have installed music channels in their cowsheds and the milk from those sheds is sold at a marked up price since it has more nutritional value because the animals are happy thanks to lilting 24 x 7 music. We don’t know yet any farmer using music to improve his crop quality, but then you never know: plants are known to respond to music.
Why such pickiness about food? These days, the huge number of TV shows and articles that we see and read on food provide bread and butter for the specialist. But instead of decoding food, its sources and what has gone into growing it, isn’t it much better to enjoy what’s on the plate? (Adapted from The Hindustan Times)

1.1 On the basis of your reading of the above passage complete the following statements with suitable words/phrases:
(a) Buying ordinary food stuff can———-in these trying times. ,
(b) Organic and conventional milk has the———-and———-content and the vitamin count is also similar in both.
(c) According to a Stanford University study, organic food in relation to conventional food is ———-.
(d) One benefit of organic food is that ———-.
(e) Milk from cows which have music channels installed in the cowshed is ———-.
(f) In India, eating organic food is a ———-.
(g) The growth rate of organic food market in India is———-and the export market is valued at———-
(h) According to the author it is much better to ———- the food on one’s plate rather than ———-it.
Answer.
(a)bum a hole in our pockets
(b)protein; fat
(c)as nutritious
(d)it is less contaminated with pesticides
(e)sold at a higher price
(f)style statement
(g)20-22%; Rs 1,000 crore
(h)enjoy; decoding

Question.2. Read the passage given below:
The Perfect Dog
1. In the summer of 1967, when I was 10 years old, my father caved into my persistent pleas and took me to get my own dog. Together we drove in the family station wagon far into the Michigan countryside to a farm run by a rough-hewn woman and her ancient mother. The farm produced just one commodity — dogs. Dogs of every imaginable size and shape and age and temperament. They had only two things in common: each was a mongrel of unknown and distinct ancestry and each was free to a good home.
2. I quickly decided the older dogs were somebody else’s charity case. I immediately raced to the puppy cage. “You want to pick one that’s not timid,” my father coached. “Try rattling the cage and see which ones aren’t afraid.”
3. I grabbed the chain-link gate and yanked on it with a loud clang. The dozen or so puppies reeled backward, collapsing on top of one another in a squiggling heap of fur. Just one remained. He was gold with a white blaze on his chest, and he charged at the gate, yapping fearlessly. He jumped up and excitedly licked my fingers through the fencing. It was love at first sight.
4. I brought him home in a cardboard box and named him Shaun. He was one of those dogs that gives dogs a good name. He effortlessly mastered every command I taught him and was naturally well behaved. I could drop a crust on the floor and he would not touch it until I gave the okay.
5. Relatives would visit for the weekend and returned home determined to buy a dog of their own, so impressed were they with Shaun—or “Saint Shaun,” as I came to call him. Bom with the curse of an uncertain lineage, he was one of the tens of thousands of unwanted dogs in America. Yet by some stroke of almost providential good fortune, he became wanted. He came into my life and I into his—and in the process, he gave me the childhood every kid deserves.
6. The love affair lasted fourteen years and by the time he died I was no longer the little boy who had brought him along on that summer day. I was a man, out of college and working across the state in my first real job. Saint Shaun had stayed behind when I moved on. It was where he belonged. My parents, by then retired, called to break the news to me. My mother would later tell me, “In fifty years of marriage, I’ve only seen your father cry twice. The first time was when we lost Mary Ann” — my sister, who was stillborn. “The second time was the day Shaun died.”
7. Saint Shaun of my childhood. He was a perfect dog. At least that’s how I will always remember him. It was Shaun who set the standard by which I would judge all other dogs to come. ‘ (Marley and Me by John Grogan)

2.1 On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the following questions briefly:
(a) What commodity did the farm produce? Which two things were common in each of these commodities?
(b) How did the author decide which puppy he wanted to take home from the dog farm?
(c) Why was Shaun one of those dogs that give dogs a good name?
(d) On what two instances did the author’s father cry?
Answer. (a) The farm produced just one commodity and that was dogs of every shape size, age and temperament. All these dogs had two things in common, each dog was a mongrel of unknown and distinct ancestry and each was free to a good home.
(b) On his father’s advice, the author took the chain-linked puppy cage and yanked on it loudly. This action scared* all the puppies but one who charged at the gate, yapping fearlessly. He was a gold puppy with a white blaze on his chest. The author automatically fell in love with this puppy as he excitedly jumped up and licked the author’s fingers and decided to take him home.
(c) Shaun was an extremely obedient dog. He mastered every command taught to him by the author and was naturally well behaved. He was so obedient that even if a crust would fall on the floor, he did not touch it till he got an okay from his master.
(d) The author’s father first cried when they lost his sister Mary Ann, who was stillborn. And the second instance was when the author’s dog ‘Shaun’ died.

2.2 Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given word from the options provided
(a) The word ‘pleas’ means
(i) to please someone (ii) noticeable
(iii) urgent request (iv) a command
(b) The word ‘collapsing’ means
(i) falling (ii) lying (iii) climbing (iv) declining
(c) The word ‘lineage’ means
(i) lining up (ii) descent from an ancestor
(iii) forefathers (iv) move forward
(d) The word ‘retired’ means
(i) to get tired (ii) withdraw from one’s work
(iii) to get hurt (iv) join work
Answer. (a) (iii) urgent request
(b) (i) falling
(c) (ii) descent from an ancestor
(d) (ii) withdraw from one’s work

SECTION B – WRITING & GRAMMAR
Question.3. You are Ankita staying at 35, Palam Street, Nagpur. You recently attended a seminar on ‘Effective Listening Skills’ and found it to be of great value. Write a letter to your friend, Anita in 100-120 words, giving details of the seminar and sharing what you learnt in the seminar. You can use the points given below: 5
* Venue and participants
* Listening is as important as speaking
* Listening—a tool in good communication
* Builds concentration
* Important for a student
Or
Write-an article in about 100-120 words on ‘River pollution.’ You may use the clues given below:
* rivers, biggest source of water
* victims of pollution
* industrial waste
* city waste drained into them
* religious ceremonies—idol immersion
* garlands and flowers
* ashes after cremation poured into rivers
Answer.
35, Palam Street
Nagpur
13th September, 2014
Dearest Anita
I hope you and your family are doing well.
I recently attended a two-day seminar on ‘Effective Listening Skills’ in my school and found it to be of great value. Almost fifty class X students participated in this seminar which was conducted by various experts that included renowned psychologists and writers. This seminar emphasized on how one could become an active listener and also acquire the skills to listen strategically. We understood that listening is a tool in good communication and is as important as speaking. It builds concentration which is most important for students. We were also told about the four key components of the strategic listening process, which are hearing, interpreting, evaluating and responding.
This seminar helped us to develop an understanding of the attitudes and skills necessary for effective listening. It was indeed most enlightening.
Bye for now. Give my regards to Uncle and Auntie.
Ankita
Or
River Pollution
By: ABC
It is indeed unfortunate that rivers, which are our largest source of water are victims of pollution.
Countless tanneries, chemical plants, textile mills, slaughter houses, hospitals contribute to pollution of rivers by dumping untreated waste into it. People who do not have the proper living Conditions in India, resort to carrying out all their daily activities like bathing, washing and defecation, on the bank of rivers, and thus pollute them. Discharge of sewage and other domestic waste into the rivers is yet another cause of river pollution in our country. During religious ceremonies idol immersion in the rivers is yet another environmentally hazardous practice, that is polluting the rivers. Religious practices also demand that floral offerings be cast off in rivers and the ashes, after cremating a person should also be poured into rivers. Unfortunately one concludes despite laws dealing with the task of prevention and control of river pollution there is no end to the misery we humans inflict on our rivers.

Question.4. Complete the given story in 150-200 words.
It was an unusual instance. Mr. Subramanium was late for his lecture. He hurried to his room and saw a peon dusting the table by putting all the articles of his table to one side. Mr. Subramanium mistook him for a thief who had come to steal the office property ——.
Or
Complete the given story in 150-200 words.
One day a father of a very wealthy family took his son on a trip to the country with the purpose of showing his son how the poor people live so he could be thankful for his wealth. They spent a couple of days and nights on the farm of what would be considered a very poor family. On their return from their trip, the father asked his son, “How was the trip”?—————.
Answer. It was an unusual instance. Mr. Subramanium was late for his lecture. He hurried to his room and saw a peon dusting the table by putting all the articles of his table to one side. The professor mistook him for a thief who had come to steal the office property. He entered the room silently and caught hold of the peon. Caught off guard, the peon tried his best to reveal his identity, but the professor was not ready to reason out. He did not let him loose lest he might run away. At last, the office boy had to yell for help. Many people gathered’ to help the poor man and assured the professor of his identity. Discovering the truth, the professor felt embarrassed and apologized for his misunderstanding.
Or
One day a father of a very wealthy family took his ‘son on a trip to the village with the purpose of showing his son how the poor people live so he could be thankful for his wealth. They spent a couple of days and nights on the farm of what would be considered a very poor family. On their return from their trip, the father asked his son, “How was the trip”? “It was great, Dad,” the son replied. “Did you see how poor people can be?” the father asked. “Oh yes” said the son. “So what did you learn from the trip?” asked the father. The’ son answered, “I saw that we have one dog and they had four. We have a pool that reaches to the middle of our garden and they have a creek that has no end.” “We have imported lanterns in our garden and they have the stars at night.” “Our verandah reaches to the front yard and they have the whole horizon.” “We have a small piece of land to live on and they have fields that go beyond our sight.” “We have servants who serve us, but they serve others.” “We buy our food, but they grow theirs.” “We have walls around our property to protect us; they have friends to protect them.” With this the boy’s father was speechless. Then his son added, “Thanks dad for showing me how poor we are.”

Question.5. Complete the paragraph given below by filling in the blanks with one word only with the help of options that follow:
While peeling the sweet lime and oranges (a)……… careful so that the segments are not mashed. The lettuce leaves are (b)……… into pieces. They are kept in ice-cold water (c)………ten minutes.
(a) (i) was (ii) is (iii) be (iv) will
(b) (i) broken (ii) break (iii) breaks (iv) broke
(c) (i) with (ii) for (iii) on (iv) during
Answer. (a) (iii) be
(b) (i) broken
(c) (ii) for

Question.6. In the following passage, one word has been omitted in each line. Write the missing words along with the word that comes before and the word that comes after in your answer sheet against correct blank number.
The days global warming a very hot (a) —–                         ——-                       ——–
topic, seeing as the earth grows hotter each passing (b) —–       ——-          ——–
year. The effect of man’s industrialization quietly (c) —–              ——-             ——–
yet continuously eked away at the delicate balance the (d) —–      ——-            ——–
planet’s atmosphere and ecosystem, but within last (e) —–             ——-            ——-
30 years the damage markedly increased. (f) —–                                   ——-              ——–
The cruel perspective of global warming a phenomenon (g) —–      ——-               ——–
of increase the average temperature of an atmosphere. (h) —–       ——-                ——–
Answer. (a) warming is a (b) hotter with each
(c) industrialization has quietly (d) balance of the
(e) within the last (f) damage has. markedly
(g) warming is a (h) increase in the

Question.7. Rearrange the following words / phrases to form meaningful sentences:
(a) more than / are child workers / the Indian population / five per cent of /
(b) engaged / in agriculture / tens of thousands / are chiefly /
(c) work / in urban areas / many/of industries / in a variety /
Answer. (a) More than five percent of the Indian population are child workers.
(b) Tens of thousands are chiefly engaged in agriculture.
(c) Many work in urban areas in a variety of industries.

SECTION C – LITERATURE & LONG REAPING TEXT
Question.8. Read the extract given below and answer briefly the questions that follow:
“…….its sculptor well those passions read
Which yet survive, stamped on these lifeless things,
The hand that mocked them, and the heart that fed.
(a) What do “lifeless things” refer to?
(b) How do we know that he was a good sculptor?
(c) How did the heart feed the passions?
Or
Read the extract given below and answer briefly the questions that follow:
“I hadn’t the shade of an idea, but at the time that didn’t worry me in the least. You see, 1 had often been like that before “
(a) Who is ‘I’? What did he not have an idea about?
(b) Why was he not worried? . ‘
(c) What had actually happened earlier to make things right for him?
Answer. (a) “Lifeless things” refers to the fragments of the statue.
(b) We know that he was a good sculptor because the expression of the King’s frown, a wrinkled lip and a sneer survive till today on the statue’s face.
(c) The heart feeds the passions due to Ozymandias’ emotions which are revealed by the expressions on his face.
Or
(a) T -refers to John Hailock. He did not have an idea as to how he was going to find a suitable plot for writing a ghost story.
(b) He was not worried he had often been in a similar situation and finally he always came up with solutions.
(c) It seemed he had always been able to come up with an idea for a plot, out of nowhere.

Question.9. Answer any four of the following in 30-40 words each:
(a) How did Sebastian Shultz communicate with Michael? What did he say in his last message?
(b) What is the dilemma that the poet faces when he sees the snake?
(c) Why did Calpurnia try to stop Caesar from going to the senate?
(d) What happened when the ship reached the land of mist and snow?
(e) What special touches did Patol Babu give to his role to make it more authentic?
Answer. (a) Sebastian Shultz communicated with Michael through the printer attached to the computer. In his last message he asked if they could have one last try at the game and told him to enter ‘Warzone’. If that did not work, he would not bother him again.
(b) The poet experiences conflicting emotions and a dilemma when he sees the snake. The snake’s grace and dignity fascinate him. But education and social conventions tell him that the poisonous snake should be killed, whereas his instinct tells him not to kill that creature which was not harming him.
(c) Calpurnia begs Caesar not to go to the senate house because she had dreamt and heard about various unnatural occurrences on that day, which she felt were ill-omens. She considers them as a warning for Caesar’s forthcoming end. Fearing his life is in danger she forbids him from venturing out of the house.
(d) When the ship reached the land of the mist and snow, it became extremely cold and a ‘ mast-high iceberg, emerald green in colour came floating by. The floating ice and the
steep sides of the iceberg presented a very dismal scene. The mariners could see no form of life as they were totally surrounded by ice which cracked and made growling sounds.
(e) Since Patol Babu was a meticulous man he gave special touches to his inconsequential role to make it more authentic. He began with practicing the exclamation ‘Oh!’ in a number of different ways to get the perfect emotion. He decided to be engrossed in reading a newspaper at the time of colliding with the hero so as to bring out the character’s loss of attentiveness. He also brought out a series of emotions of irritation, pain and anguish when he collided with the hero.

Question.10. ‘Not that I loved Caesar less, but I loved Rome more.’
Brutus says this as he justifies to the Romans why Caesar was assassinated by them, Do you agree with Brutus? Justify your answer in 80-100 words by giving examples from the play.
What values does Brutus display as he says this line to the Romans?
Or
Sharing his grief with the wedding guest help alleviate the pain of the ancient mariner. As the wedding guest, write a page of your diary on your encounter with the ancient mariner and how you come to sympathize with him.
Answer. Although Brutus is sincere in his love for his country and for the liberty of the people of Rome, his act of joining the conspirators and assassinating Caesar are not justified. Brutus is an idealist who completely lacks practical insight and cannot judge people. Though he claims that he consented to join the conspirators for killing Caesar for the noble cause of saving his country from Caesar’s dictatorship, his claim is absolutely unjustified. By falling an easy prey to the conspirators’ malicious intentions and growing jealousy towards Caesar, Brutus displays his complete lack of insight into people’s thoughts and intentions. He is an idealist, a dreamer who commits not one but two strategic blunders. First he joins hands with the conspirators and betrays Caesar and then he permits Mark Antony to address the people of Rome after Caesar’s death.
Or
25th February, 20xx
When I had set off for the wedding never had I thought that I would be at the receiving end of an incident which would leave an everlasting impression on me. As the old man stopped me when I was about to enter the wedding hall, I had thought he was an eccentric person who had lost his mental balance. But the sparkle in his glittering eyes held me hypnotically and I was unable to move from there even though he did not hold me physically. Then he began his story and as his story unfolded I could see a tormented look on his face which I realized was the guilt of his wanton action that weighed heavily on his mind and soul. Narrating it, perhaps over and over again, always made him feel a little lighter. When the ancient mariner had started relating his tale, I was a disinterested listener eager to join the wedding feast but towards the end of his story, not only was I totally engrossed but also completely sympathized with the old man whose guilt did not allow him to get even some peace of mind.

Attempt either Part (A) or Part (B)
PART (A)
Question. 11A. Describe in 200-120 words Margot and Anne’s relationship with their parents.
Or
Write a character sketch of Mrs. Van Daan in 100-120 words.
Answer. Anne adores her father, he is her idol and they share a very special relationship. Anne feels this special bonding with him because she considers herself to be more similar to him than to her mother and sister. She continually tries to impress her father, live upto his expectations and to obey his wishes. But this is not to be seen in Anne’s relationship with her mother. Anne can sense her growing distance horn her mother, who she feels is more close to Margot. Anne feels she does not fit with her mother and sister. Anne and her mother have a different opinion on everything. Anne came to understand that her differences with her mother resulted from misunderstandings which were as much her fault as her mother’s and even realized that she added unnecessarily to her mother’s suffering. Anne was jealous of Margot for the special attention and privileges she received from their father and also because she (Margot) had quite a good relationship with their mother.
Or
Mrs. Van Daan is one person Anne cannot stand. Anne feels she is aggressive, selfish, rarely helpful and always instigates fights. Her character does not change over time. She remains petty, egotistical and disagreeable. Mrs. Van Daan frequently complains about the family’s situation, a criticism that Anne does not approve of. Being a quarrelsome and irritating woman, Mrs. Van Daan is always picking a fight with someone, especially her husband. She also constantly criticizes Anne’s behaviour, indicating that, she (Anne) has not been raised properly. She is also jealous of Anne’s relationship with her son, Peter and wants him to confide in her rather than in Anne. But generally she is a neat and tidy woman, who Anne at times finds easier to approach than her own mother.

PART (B)
Question.11B.How did Helen Keller enjoy her visit to the World Fair? (100-120 words)
Or
Attempt in 100-120 words a character sketch of Miss Sullivan.
Or, What role did Mr. Gilman play in Helen Keller’s life? (100-120 words)
Answer. During the summer of 1893, Helen and Miss Sullivan visited the World Fair with Dr. Alexander Graham Bell. Helen recalls those delightful days when she felt that many of her childish fancies became beautiful realities. Each day, in her imagination, she made a trip round the world, and saw many wonders from the farthermost parts of the world, which included marvels of invention, treasuries of industry and skill and all the activities of human life, actually passed under Helen’s finger tips. Mr. Higinbotham, President of the World Fair, gave her the consent to touch the exhibits and with a keen eagerness, Helen took in the glories of the Fair with her fingers. Everything fascinated her because it felt so lifelike and she thought them to be angel visions which the artist had caught and bound in earthly forms.
Or
Anne Sullivan was a life long teacher and companion to Helen Keller. Her arrival brought about a miraculous change in Helen’s life and the world became more meaningful and full of things quivering with life for Helen. Miss Sullivan was extremely sensitive and so she had an inexplicable sympathy with Helen’s pleasures and desires. She came up with the most interesting and novel ways to tutor Helen. Miss Sullivan’s sympathy, genius and loving nature made the first few years of Helen’s education most joyous and beautiful. Time and again she provided Helen with the much needed courage and hope and it was due to her consistent patience and perseverance that Helen came out of her dark and sordid world.
Or
Mr. Gilman was the principal at Radcliffe College, where Helen attained her degree. He was the only teacher who had learned the finger language to instruct Helen in her studies. Mr. Gilman instructed her for a part of the year in English literature. Mr. Gilman’s extensive views on history and literature, his clever explanations made Helen’s work easier and more convenient. He read all the papers to her by the means of the manual alphabet. He sat with her and read the examination papers to her sentence by sentence. He spelled out to her what she had written so that she could make the required changes. He sent her written work to the examiners with the certificate that Helen herself had written the papers. But he thought Helen was overworked even though Miss Sullivan did not think that she was. Finally due to a difference of opinion between him and Miss Sullivan,
Helen’s mother withdrew her from school. Though Mr. Gilman did help Helen he underestimated her capacity for hard work.

SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
SECTION B
Question.5. Complete the paragraph given below by filling in the blanks with one word only with the help of options that follow:
He is the first to (a)…….. served. He is a glutton (b)…….. he likes the food. While eating he (c)…….. a lot.
(a) (i) is (ii) was (iii) be (iv) been
(b) (i) if (ii) while (iii) where (iv) but
(c) (i) talk (ii) talks (iii) talked (iv) talking
Answer. (a) (iii) be
(b) (iv) but
(c) (ii) talks

Question.7. Rearrange the following words/phrases to form meaningful sentences:
(a) your destiny / it / right hand / is said / your / that / is in /
(b) problems / determine / how / our personalities / with / in life / we deal /
(c) that others / can cope / some people / better / hardships, / with /
Answer. (a) It is said that your destiny is in your right hand.
(b) Our personalities determine how we deal with problems in life.
(c) Some people can cope better with hardships than others.

SECTION C
Question.9. Answer any four of the following in 30-40 words each:
(a) How do we know that Patol Babu was a dedicated actor?
(b) Why does the ancient Mariner compel the wedding guest to listen to his story?
(c) How does Decius Brutus persuade Caesar to accompany him to the senate house?
(d) Why did the second game seem very real to Michael?
(e) What does the poet’s ‘voice of education’ tell him on seeing the snake?
Answer. (a) Patol Babu was a dedicated actor. He practices hard to give special touches to his inconsequential role, to make it more authentic. He began by practicing the monosyllable dialogue ‘Oh!’ in different ways to get the perfect emotion. He also brought about a series of facial emotions when he collided with the hero.
(b) The ancient Mariner compelled the wedding-guest to listen to his story because sharing his grief with the wedding-guest helps to alleviate the pain of the mariner. His burden of guilt of killing an innocent bird is too heavy to bear and he desperately needs someone to hear out his story to relieve himself.
(c) Decius Brutus persuades Caesar to accompany him to the senate house by reminding him that the senators had decided to crown Caesar as the king and if he did not go to the senate house on that day, the senators may change their minds about crowning him.
(d) In the second game ‘Dragonquest’ the players were knights who had to save Princess Aurora from the dragon. It seemed very real to Michael because he received a message on the scoresheet from Sebastian to save him. All through the game as he and Sebastian were running away from the dragon, Michael could hear, feel and even smell the dragon in close pursuit.
(e) The poet’s voice of education and social conventions make him think that the golden brown poisonous snake should be killed and as a brave man he must undertake the task of killing it. The poet thus puts down his pitcher, picks up a log and hurls it at the snake.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-11.
SECTION B
Question.3. You are Kiran. You have been asked to write an article for the school magazine on The Importance of Value Education in School/ Write the article in about 100-120 words from the notes given below:
* Academics not enough
* Values stay lifelong
* Values bind family, society
* Schools inculcate values
* Personality development
Answer. The Importance of Value Education in School
Value based education is an educational philosophy that promotes an approach to teaching and learning based on positive human values. Today imparting academic knowledge to students is not enough. In order to provide a well rounded education to pupils, it is of utmost importance to include value based education in the curriculum. After home, school is the most important influence in a student’s life as students spend most amount of the time there. These values which are imparted to the young generation not only stay lifelong with them but also help in binding families and societies together. Values add to the overall personality development of children making them confident positive thinking individuals who will not only work for their own individual good but for the good of society as a whole.

Question.7. Rearrange the following words / phrases to form meaningful sentences:
(a) standing / a woman / the doorway / was / in /
(h) young / dressed / in red / and was / was/ she /
(c) was / hands / my dog / her / licking /
Answer. (a) A woman was standing in the doorway.
(b) She was young and was dresses in red.
(c) My dog was licking her hands.

SECTION C
Question.9. Answer any four of the following in 30-40 words each:
(a) Why did the news of Shultz’s miracle recovery shock Michael?
(b) What were the poet’s thoughts after the snake had gone?
(c) What did Caesar leave for the Romans in his will?
(d) Why did the wedding guest “beat his breast”?
(c) How does the poet bring out the ‘insignificance of humans’ in the poem ‘Ozymandias’?
Answer. (a) Michael was shocked by the news of the ‘miracle recovery’ because it was about the recovery from coma of a boy who he had gotten to know so well recently. The boy in question was Sebastian Shultz, his companion in the psycho-drive game. Michael had’finally succeeded in saving Sebastian in the game after several futile attempts and now that finally Sebastian Shultz too had come out of coma. Michael was shocked on discovering that the real Sebastian and the one in the game were actually the same person.
(b) After the snake had gone, the poet is gripped with a sudden sense of guilt. He regrets his wanton act of hitting the snake. He feels it was wrong on his part to throw a log of wood at the snake. He wishes the snake would come back so that he could make amends and expiate for his petty, cowardly act.
(c) Caesar left seventy-five drachmas to every Roman in his will. Moreover, he left his private garden and orchards on the Tiber riverside for the rest and recreation of the citizens of Rome and their coming generations.
(d) The Wedding-Guest could hear the sound of the bassoon which signalled the arrival of the bride and meant that the wedding ceremony would begin soon. But he was not able to attend the celebrations and was forced to listen to the mariner’s tale so he beat his breast in utter desperation.
(e) The poet emphasizes how only the legs of the statue of King Ozymandias stand erect, the upper portion has fallen and is almost buried in the desert. So the message conveyed through this poem is that the glories of our blood and state are mere shadows and not everlasting. Even the authority of a king has to end. Their attempt to immortalise themselves by building statues and monuments is futile as they too get ruined as time passes by.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English SA2 Delhi – 2014 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Outside Delhi – 2013

ScienceMathsSanskritEnglishComputer ScienceHindiSocial Science
Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                           Maximum marks: 90

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1.  The Question Paper comprises of two Sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the Sections.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. All questions of Section-A and all questions of Section-B are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section-A are one mark questions. These are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
5. Question numbers 4 to 6 in Section-A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in about 30 words each.
6. Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section-A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in
   about 50 words each.
7. Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section-A are five marks questions. These are to be answered in about 70 words each.
8.  Question numbers 25 to 36 in Section-B are questions based on practical skills. Question nos. 25 to 33 are MCQs. Each question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you. Question nos. 34 to 36 are short answer questions carrying two marks each.

SET I

SECTION A
Question.1 State modern periodic law of classification of elements.
Answer. Modem periodic law states “that the properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers”.

Question.2 No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population. Why?
Answer. No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population because DNA copying is an essential part of the process of reproduction. The process of DNA copying brings some variations which brings variations among individuals of the same species.

Question.3 Give one example each from your daily life where the household waste can be effectively reused and recycled respectively.
Answer. Example of Reuse. Plastic bottles that we get with jams and pickles can be reused for storing things in the kitchen.
Example of Recycling. We should collect used and discarded items of paper, plastic, glass and metals and send them to the respective industries for making fresh paper, plastic, glass or metal objects.

Question.4 State the importance of chromosomal difference between sperms and eggs of humans.
Answer. A male has one X chromosome and One Y chromosome. Thus half the sperms will have X chromosomes and the other half will have Y chromosome.
A female has two X chromosomes. So all the female gametes will have only X chromosomes. If a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilizes an ovum then the child bom will be a girl. If a sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilizes an ovum then the child bom will be a boy.
Thus the chromosomal difference between sperms and eggs of humans determines the sex of the child.

Question.5 “A concave mirror of focal length ‘f’ can form a magnified erect as well as an inverted image of an object placed in front of it.” Justify this statement stating the position of the object with respect to the mirror in each case for obtaining these images.
Answer.
When the object is placed at a distance less than ‘f’ (focal length) from the mirror, the image formed is virtual, magnified and erect.
When the object is placed at a distance of ‘f’ (focal length) from the mirror, the image is real, inverted and highly magnified.
When the object is placed at a distance more than (focal length) but less than ‘2f’, the image formed is real, inverted and magnified.
When the object is placed at the distance of “If from the mirror, the image is real, inverted and same size of the object.
When the object is placed at a distance more than ‘If from the mirror, the image formed is real, inverted and diminished.

Question.6 Write the harmful effects of using plastic bags on the environment. Suggest alternatives to plastic bags.
Answer. Harmful effects of using plastic bags:

1. Plastic is non-biodegradable so it will remain as such and pollute the environment.
2. Burning of plastic bags produces toxic gases.
3. Plastic bags can block the drainage system.
4. Discarded plastic bags when eaten by cows and other stray animals can block their allimentary canal and cause harm to them.
5.  Plastic bags when thrown in the water bodies, can cause water pollution as these do not decompose.
   Alternatives to plastic bags. Use paper or home made cloth bags to carry goods.

Question.7 (a) Differentiate, between alkanes and alkenes. Name and draw the structure of one member of each.
(b) Alkanes generally give clean flame. Why?
Answer. See Q. 9, 2013 (II Delhi).

Question.8 A carboxylic acid C₂H₄O₂ reacts with an alcohol in the presence of H₂SO₄ to form a compound ‘X’. The alcohol on oxidation with alkaline KMnO₄ followed by acidification gives the same carboxylic acid, C₂H₄O₂. Write the name and structure of

1.  Carboxylic acid,
2.  alcohol and
3.  the compound ‘X’.

Answer. Carboxylic acid, C₂H₄O₂:

Question.9 The electronic configuration of an element ‘X’ is 2, 8, 8, 2. To which (a) period and (b) group of the modern periodic table does ‘X’ belong? State its valency. Justify your answer in each case.
Answer. Electronic configuration of ‘X’ is 2, 8, 8, 2.
(a) It belongs to the 4th period because it has four energy shells and period number of an element is equal to the number of energy shells.
(b) It belongs to 2nd group because it has 2 valence electrons and the group number of an element having up to two valence electrons is equal to the number of valence electrons.
Its valency is ‘2’. To acquire inert gas configuration ‘X’ either loses 2 electrons or gains 6 electrons. Since the shorter route is to lose 2 electrons for obtaining inert gas configuration, hence its valency is 2.

Question.10 Four elements P, Q, R and S have atomic numbers 12,13,14 and 15 respectively.
Answer the following questions giving reasons:

1. What is the valency of Q?
2.  Classify these elements as metals and non-metals.
3.  Which of these elements will form the most basic oxide?

Answer.

1.  Valency of Q is 3 as Q loses 3 electrons to obtain inert gas configuration.
2.  P and Q are metals as these elements lose 2 and 3 electrons respectively to obtain inert gas configuration and those elements which lose electrons are metals.
   R and S are non-metals as these elements either share or gain electrons for attaining inert gas configuration and those metals which accept electrons either by sharing or gaining are non-metals.
3. Element P will form the most basic oxide because P is the most metallic element among the 4 given elements and thus forms the most basic oxide.

Question.11 Explain budding in Hydra with the help of diagrams only.
Answer. Budding in Hydra. Hydra reproduces by budding which is an asexual type of reproduction.
See Q. 20, 2011 (I Outside Delhi).

Question.12 List any four methods of contraception used by humans. How does their use have a direct effect on the health and prosperity of the family? 
Answer. Methods of Contraception. See Q. 15, 2012 (I Outside Delhi).
Effect of these methods on the health. Contraceptive methods are used to prevent the spreading of STDs like syphillis, AIDS, etc.
Effect of these methods on the prosperity of the family. If a couple has less number of children, they can provide good clothes, good food and a good education to each child. This will make the parents as well as children happy.

Question.13 Explain with the help of suitable examples why certain traits cannot be passed on to the next generation? What are such traits called?
Answer. A trait (or characteristic) of an organism which is ‘not inherited’ but develops in response to the environment is called an acquired trait.
The acquired traits of an organism cannot be passed on to its future generations.
For example, ‘low weight’ of beetle, ‘cut tail’ of a mouse.
Changes brought in the non-reproductive tissues cannot be passed on to the DNA of the germ cells. So the experiences of an individual during its lifetime cannot be passed on to its progeny. Thus acquired characters of an individual cannot be inherited.

Question.14 A cross was carried out between a pure bred tall pea plant and a pure bred dwarf pea plant and F₁ progeny was obtained. Later, the F₁ progeny was selfed to obtain F₂ progeny. Answer the following questions:
(a) What is the phenotype of the F₁ progeny and why?
(b) Give the phenotypic ratio of the F₂ progeny.
(c) Why is the F₂ progeny different from the F2 progeny?
Answer. When plants of two different traits of character are crossbred to get a progeny (F₁ generation), only the dominant trait is visible in this generation. But when plants of F₁ generation are selfbred then the two traits of character get separated and the recessive traint also appears in the plant of F₂ generation. This is known as Law of Segregation (separation) of traits.
flow chart

Question.15 Name the type of mirror used

1. by dentists and
2.  in solar furnaces. Give two reasons why such mirrors are used in each case.

Answer.

1.  Concave mirrors are used by dentists to see the large images of the teeth of patients
   because when a tooth is within the focus of a concave mirror, then an enlarged image of the tooth is seen in the concave mirror. Thus it becomes easier to locate the defect in the tooth.
2.  Large concave mirrors are used in solar furnaces as reflectors. Solar furnace is placed at the focus of the concave reflector which focusses the Sun’s heat rays on the furnace due to which the solar furnace gets very hot. Even steel can be melted in this solar furnace.

Question.16 An object placed on a metre scale at 8 cm mark was focussed on a white screen placed at 92 cm mark, using a converging lens placed on the scale at 50 cm mark.
(i) Find the focal length of the converging lens.
(ii) Find the position of the image formed if the object is shifted towards the lens at a position of 29.0 cm.
(iii) State the nature of the image formed if the object is further shifted towards the lens.
Answer.

Question.17 When and where do we see a rainbow? How is a rainbow formed? Draw a labelled diagram to illustrate the formation of a rainbow.

Answer. Rainbow is caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets present in the atmosphere. The water droplets act like small prisms. They reflect the incident sunlight and then reflect it internally and finally refract it again when it comes out of the rain-drop. A rainbow is always formed in the direction opposite to that of the Sin

Question.18 State in brief two ways in which non-biodegradable substances would affect the environment. List two methods of safe disposal of the non-biodegradable waste.
Answer. Non-biodegradable wastes cannot be decomposed into simpler harmless substances by the action of micro-organisms. These substances persist in the enviromnent and cause adverse effects on the environment.

1. The use of pesticides, insecticides has increased agricultural output but the chemicals present in them enter water and food chains. This affects the fertility of the soil and causes water and soil pollution.
2. Plastic bags haVe changed the modem lifestyle but cause severe problems. They cause blockages in the drainage systems and these plastic bags when eaten by stray animals cause harm to them.

Methods of safe disposal of the non-biodegradable waste:

1. Molten plastic waste mixed with asphalt can be used for making roads.
2. Solid wastes should be buried in the urban areas as land fills.

Question.19 An organic compound ‘X’ on heating with cone. H₂SO₄forms a compound ‘Y’ which on addition of one molecule of hydrogen in the presence of nickel forms a compound ‘Z’. One molecule of compound ‘Z’ on combustion forms two molecules of CO₂ and three molecules of H₂O. Identify giving reasons the compounds ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. Write the chemical equations for all the chemical reactions involved.
Answer.

Question.20 Write the two causes of human population explosion. Explain with the help of suitable examples how this explosion can be checked.
Answer. There are three main causes of human population explosion:

1.  Decline in death rate from 13.8 per 1,000 in 1985 to 8 per 1,000 in 2001.
2. Increase in longevity.
3. Increase in birth rate.
   The uncontrolled growth of human population causes many socio-economic problems. To mitigate the various ill-effects of increasing population, there is a need of population control by reducing the birth rate through family planning programmes.

1. By adopting various methods of contraception:

•  Barrier methods—Physical devices such as condoms, diaphragm and cervical caps are used.
•  Surgical methods
•  Chemical methods—Oral and vaginal pills used by females.

2. People in reproductive age group should be educated about the advantages of a small family with the help of mass media like radio, T.V., newspapers, etc. and educational institutions.
3. Marriage age should be increased.
4. Social organisations should be involved in family planning programmes.
5. Literacy rate, especially that of females should be increased.

Question.21 What is pollination? How does it occur in plants? How does pollination lead to fertilization? Explain.
Answer. The transfer of pollen grains from anthers (male sexual parts) of a flower to the stigma part of the pistil (female sexual part) is known as pollination. Pollination is done by insects, birds, wind and water.
Pollination can occur in two ways:

1.  Self pollination. When the pollen grains from the anther of a flower are transferred to the stigma of the same flower or another flower on the same plant, it is called self pollination.
2. Cross pollination. When the pollen grains from the anther of a flower on one plant are transferred to the stigma of a flower on another similar plan it is called cross pollination.
   When a pollen grain falls on the stigma of the carpel, it grows a pollen tube downwards through the style towards the female gamete in the ovary. A male gamete moves down the tube. When the pollen tube enters the ovule, its tip bursts open and male gamete comes out of the pollen tube and combings with the nucleus of the female gamete and forms zygote. This process is known as fertilization.

Question.22(a) To construct a ray diagram we use two light rays which are so chosen that it is easy
to know their directions after reflection from the mirror. List these two rays and state the path of these rays after reflection. Use these two rays to locate the image of an object placed between infinity and the centre of curvature of a concave mirror.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image of an object placed between the pole and principal focus of a concave mirror. How will the nature and size of the image formed change, if the mirror is replaced by a converging lens of same focal length?
Answer.

Question.23(a) A student cannot see clearly a chart hanging on a wall placed at a distance of 3 m
from his eyes. Name the defect of vision he is suffering from. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate this defect. List its two possible causes.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show how this defect may be corrected using a lens of apropriate focal length.
(c) An eye donation camp is being organised by social workers in your locality. How
and why would you help in this cause?
Answer.
(a) & (b) See Q. 17, 2011 (I Outside Delhi).
(c) There are millions of blind people in our country who cannot see at all. The eyesight of most of these blind people can be restored if they are given the eyes donated by other persons after their death. Our two eyes can give eyesight to two blind persons.
In the eye donation camps, we can even today, make a pledge in writing, i.e., whenever we die, our eyes should be removed and given to the blind persons to light up their dark world.
We should be greatful to God that he has given us the gift of vision to see this wonderful world. We must try and pass on this priceless gift of vision to our less fortunate blind brothers and sisters by registering our name for eye donation.

Question.24 Explain the trends in the Modern Periodic Table of various properties like valency, atomic size, metallic and non-mettalic properties of the atoms of elements.
Answer.

1.  Valency. Elements belonging to same group have same number of valence electrons and thus same valency.
   Valency in a particular period from left to right first increases as positive valency and ‘ then decreases as negative valency.
   Example, In elements of 2nd period:
   Li ha 1⁺valency, then Be^2+, Be³⁺, C⁴⁺ covalency, N^3-valency, then  O^2- and F^(-) valency.
2. The atomic size or atomic radius increases as we move down in a group and it decreases as we move from left to right in a period. Atomic size increases down a group due to increase in the number of shells. Atomic size decreases along a period
   due to increase in the nuclear charge which tends to pull the electrons closer to the nucleus and reduces the size of the atom.
3.  Metallic and non-metallic properties. In the modern periodic table metals are on the left side and non-metals are on the right side. A zigzag line of metalloids separates metals from non-metals. Metallic character decreases from left to right in a period and increases while going down in a group. Non-metallic character increases from left to right in a period due to increase in the electro-negativity and this character decreases from top to bottom in a group due to decrease in the electro-negativity of atoms while going down in a group.

SECTION B
Question.25 Select the correct observation about dilute solution of acetic acid.
(A) It smells like rotten egg and turns blue litmus red
(B) It smells like vinegar and turns red litmus blue
(C) It smells like rotten egg and turns red litmus blue
(D) It smells like vinegar and turns blue litmus red
Answer.(D) It smells like vinegar and turns blue litmus red

Question.26 In the preparation of soap, a small amount of sodium chloride (common salt) is added to the mixture of fat and sodium hydroxide. The role of common salt is to
(A) favour the precipitation of soap
(B) enhance the cleansing capacity of soap
(C) increase the weight of the soap to earn money
(D) decrease the acidity of the soap
Answer.(A) favour the precipitation of soap

Question.27 A student takes about 6 mL distilled water in four test tubes marked P, Q, R and S. He dissolves sodium sulphate in P, potassium sulphate in Q, calcium sulphate in R and magnesium sulphate in S. After that he adds equal amount of soap solution in each test tube. On shaking these test tubes, he would observe a good amount of lather in the test tubes marked
(A) P and Q (BfQandR (C) R and S (D) P and S
Answer.(A) P and Q

Question.28 A student focussed the image of a distant object using a device X on a white screen S as shown in the figure. If the distance of the screen from the device is 30 cm, select the correct statement about the device X.

(A) The device X is a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm
(B) The device X is a concave mirror of focal length 30 cm.
(C) The device X is a concave mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm.
(D) The device X is a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm.
Answer.(B) The device X is a concave mirror of focal length 30 cm.

Question.29 A student traces the path of a ray of light through a rectangular glass slab for four different angles of incidence. He very cautiously measures the angle f, angle r and the angle e. On analysing his measurements, he is likely to draw the following conclusion:
(A) ∠i = ∠e > ∠r       (B) ∠i > ∠r > ∠e         (C) ∠i = Zr < Ze         (D) ∠i = ∠e< ∠r
Answer.(A)∠i = ∠e > ∠r

Question.30 For the refraction of a ray of light through a glass prism, the path of a ray of light is shown below:

The angle of incidence, the angle of emergence and the angle of deviation respectively have been represented by
(A) Y, N, Z (B) X, Z, M (C) X, N, Z (D) X, M, Z
Answer.(D) X, M, Z

Question.31 Slides of binary fission in amoeba and budding in yeast were given for observations to a group of students. Some of the observations reported by the group are given below:
I. Cytokinesis was observed in the yeast cell.
II. A chain of buds were observed due to reproduction in amoeba.
III. Single cell of amoeba and single cell of yeast were undergoing binary fission and budding respectively.
IV. Elongated nucleus was dividing to form, two daughter nuclei in amoeba.
The correctly reported observations are:
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) III and IV (D) I and IV
Answer.(C) III and IV

Question.32 Study the different conclusions drawn by students on the basis of their observations of fresh available specimens of plants and animals:
I. Potato and sweet potato are homologous organs.
II. Wings of insects and wings of bird are analogous organs.
III. Wings of insects and wings of bats are homologous organs.
IV. Thoms of citrus arid tendrils of cucurbita are homologous organs.
The correct conclusions are:
(A) I and II (B) II and IV (C) I and III (D) III and IV
Answer.(B) II and IV

Question.33 You have a basket of vegetables which contains carrot, potato, tomato, ginger, radish, sweet potato. Select two vegetables to represent the correct homologous structures.
(A) Potato and sweet potato (B) Carrot and radish.
(C) Potato and carrot (D) Carrot and tomato
Answer.(B) Carrot and radish.

Question.34 Name two salts each of calcium and magnesium which make the water hard?
Answer. These salts are:
Calcium chloride—CaCl₂ Magnesium chloride—MgCl₂
Calcium sulphate—CaSO₄ Magnesium sulphate—MgSO₄

Question.35 Name the process of asexual reproduction shown by yeast. What type of living being is yeast? What is its commercial importance?
Answer. Yeast reproduces by method of budding. Yeast is a unicellular fungus.
Yeast forms lots of buds in the sugar solution. These buds become young yeast cells which change sugar of the solution to produce ethyl alcohol by fermentation in the distillaries.

Question.36 List the factors on which the angle of deviation through a prism depend?
Answer. Angle of deviation through a prism depends

•  on the ∠A called ∠ of prism;
•  on the ∠ of incidence;
• on the optical density of the material of the prism.

SET II

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
SECTION A
Question.1 The automic numbers of three elements X, Y and Z are 3, 11 and 17 respectively. State living reason which two elements will show similar chemical properties.

X and Y will show similar chemical properties as both elements have same number of valence electrons, i.e., 1,
Answer.

Question.2 Why is DNA copying necessary during reproduction?
Answer. DNA copying is essential during reproduction for the inheritance of features from parents to the next generation.

Question.3 Name any two items which can be easily recycled but are generally thrown in the dustbins by us.
Answer. Cold drink cans and empty milk polypacks can be easily recycled but are generally thrown in the dustbins.

Question.4 List two advantages of growing grapes or banana plants through vegetative propagation.
Answer. Two advantages of growing grapes or banana plant through vegetative propagation:

1.  The fruit trees grown through vegetative propagation bear fruits much earlier.
2.  Banana and grapes produce either very few seeds or do not produce viable seeds. Therefore their plants are grown by vegetative propagation.

Question.5 “A convex lens of focal length ‘F can form a magnified erect as well as inverted image.” Justify this statement stating the position of the object with respect to the lens in each case for obtaining these images.
Answer. The type of image formed by a convex lens depends on the position of the object in front of the lens.

•  When the object is placed between the optical centre and the focus (i.e., between O and F’), the image formed is behind the object (on the same side). It is virtual, magnified and erect.
•  When the object is placed at the focus of a convex lens, the image formed is at infinity. It is real, inverted and highly magnified.
•  When the object is placed between focus and the centre of curvature (i.e., between F’ and 2F’) the image formed is beyond 2F. It is real, inverted and magnified.
•  When the object is placed at the centre of curvature (i.e., at 2F’), the image formed is at 2F. It is real, inverted and of same size of the object.
•  When the object is beyond 2F’ (or beyond centre of curvature), the image formed is between F and 2F. It is real, inverted and diminished.
•  When the object is at infinity, the image formed is at focus. It is real, inverted and much smaller than the object (highly diminished).

Question.8 What is meant by isomers? “We cannot have isomers of first three members of alkane series.” Give reason to justify this statement. Draw the structures of two isomers of pentane, C₅H₁₂.
Answer. The organic compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures are known as isomers.
Isomers of first three members of alkane series are not possible because only one arrangement of carbon atoms is possible in their molecules.

Question.10 The atomic number of an element is 17. Predict (a) its valency, (b) whether it is a metal or non-metal, (c) its relative size with respect to other members of its group. Justify your answer in each case.
Answer. Atomic number of given element = 17
.^.. Electronic configuration of given element = 2, 8, 7
(a) Valency = 1
Since this element requires one electron to complete its octet (outermost shell).
(b) This element is a non-metal as it gains one electron to complete its outermost shell and elements which gain electrons are non-metals.
(c) This element is the 2nd member of this group. Its size is greater than the 1st member (2, 7) and smaller than the rest of the other members of that group because size of the atom increases on going down in a group as one energy shell is added at every step.

Question.11 The electronic configuration of an element ‘X’ is 2, 8, 8, 2. To which (a) period and (b) group of the modern periodic table does ‘X’ belong? State its valency. Justify your answer in each case.
Answer.

Element: ‘X’,                                    Electronic configuration: 2, 8, 8, 2
(a) ‘X’ belongs to 4^th period because X’ has four energy shells and energy shell number
corresponds to the period number.
(b) ‘X’ belongs to 2^nd group because ‘X’ has 2 electrons in its outermost shell and valence electrons (1, 2) corresponds to the group number of the element.
Valency: 2

Question.12 Explain the process of regeneration in planaria.
Answer. The process of getting back a full organism from its body parts is called regeneration. Planaria is a flat worm which is found in fresh water ponds. It possesses great power of regeneration. If the body of planaria somehow gets cut into a number of pieces, then each body piece can regenerate into a complete planaria by growing all the missing parts. Diagram. See Q. 24, 2011 (I Delhi).

Question.14 A blue colour flower plant denoted by BB is crossbred with a white colour flower plant denoted by ww.
(a) State the colour of flower we would expect in their Fj progeny.
(b) Write the percentage of plants bearing white flower in F2 generation when the flowers of Fj plants were selfed.
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotype BB and Bw in the F2 progeny.
Answer. See Q. 16, 2012 (I Delhi).

Question.16 A student focussed the image of an object on a white screen using a converging lens. He noted down the positions of the object, screen and the lens on a scale as given below: Position of object = 10.0 cm Postion of lens = 50.0 cm Position of screen = 90.0 cm
(a) Find the focal length of the converging lens.
(b) Find the position of the image if the object is shifted towards the lens at a position of 30.0 cm.
(c) State the nature of the image formed if the object is further shifted towards the lens.
Answer.

Question.20 List the sign conventions that are followed in case of refraction of light through spherical lenses. Draw a diagram and apply these conventions in determining the nature and focal length of a spherical lens which forms a four times magnified real image of an object placed 20 cm from the lens.
Answer. Sign conventions in case of refraction of light through spherical lenses.

1.  All the distances are measured from the optical centre of the lens.
2.  The distances measured in the same direction as that of incident light are taken as positive (+ve).
3.  The distances measured in the same direction as that of incident light are taken as negative (-ve).
4. The perpendicular distances to the principal axis in the upward direction are taken as positive (+ve).
5.  The perpendicular distances to the principal axis in the downward direction are taken as negative (-ve).

u = object distance from O (optical centre)
v = image distance from O, f = focal length

These rules conclude that:
(1) ‘u’ (object distance) is always -ve
(2) ‘f’ of convex lens is always +ve
(3) ‘f’ of concave lens is always-ve
(4) ‘V’ in case of virtual image is always -ve
(5) ‘V’ in case of real image is always +ve
(6) Real image is always inverted thus h2 (size of the image) in case of real image is always -ve.

SET III

Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and
Set-II.
SECTION A
Question.1 The atomic numbers of three elements A, B and C are 11,17 and 19 respectively. State jiving reason which two elements will show similar chemical properties.
Answer.

A and C will show similar chemical properties as both elements have the same number of valence electrons, i.e., 1

Question.2 Name the body part where fertilisation occurs in human female.
Answer.
Fallopian tube.

Question.3 Write the main objective of conservation of biodiversity.
Answer.
The main objective of conservation of biodivesity is that the loss of diversity may lead to loss of ecological stability.

Question.4 (a) How do Leishmania and Plasmodium reproduce?
(b) State one difference in their mode of reproduction.
Answer.
(a) Leishmania and Plasmodium reproduce by fission (asexual mode of reproduction).
(b)

1.  Leishmania reproduce by binary fission in which the parent organism splits to
   form two new organisms.
2.  Plasmodium reproduce by multiple fission in which the parent organism splits to form many new organisms at the same time.

Question.5 What is meant by power of a lens? Define its SI unit.
Answer.
The power of a lens is a measure of the degree of convergence or divergence.
The power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length in metres.
The SI unit of power is dioptre denoted by the letter D. One dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal length is 1 metre.

Question.8 (a) Distinguish between ethanol and ethanoic acid on the basis (i) litmus test, (ii) reaction with sodium hydrogen carbonate.
(b) Name the oxidising agents used in the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid.
Answer.See Q. 10, 2012 (III Outside Delhi).

Question.10 The atomic number of an element ‘X’ is 20. Write
(a) its valency,
(b) whether it is a metal or non-metal,
(c) the formula of compound formed when the element ‘X’ reacts with an element ‘Y’ of atomic number 8.
ustify your answer in each case.
Answer.

(a) Valency of X is 2 as it loses two electrons to acquire nearest inert gas configuration.
(b) X is a metal as it loses electrons to acquire inert gas configuration and an element which loses electrons for acquiring inert gas configuration is a metal.

Question.13 What is placenta? Explain its function in human female.
Answer. After fertilisation, zygote is formed which develops into an embryo. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta. This is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue. On the mother’s side are blood spaces, which surround the villi. This provides a large surface area for glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother to the embryo. In this way, embryo gets its nutrition.

Question.15 How are fossils formed? State two methods of determining the age of fossils.
Answer.Formation of a fossil. Usually when organisms die, their bodies get decomposed by the action of micro-organisms in the presence of oxygen, moisture, etc. Sometimes, the conditions in the environment like oxygen, moisture, etc. are absent which do not let the body of the organism decompose completely. So fossils are such remains or impressions of dead animals or plants that lived in the remote past but which were not decomposed completely. For example, if a dead leaf gets caught in mud, it will not decompose quickly. The mud around the leaf will set around it as a mould and gradually harden to form a rock and retain the impression of the whole leaf. This forms a leaf fossil which can be dug out from the earth a long time after.
Determination of age of the fossil.

1.  Fossils closer to the surface are more recent compared to those found in the deeper layers of the earth’s surface.
2. Another way is by detecting the ratio of different isotopes of the same element in the fossil material.

Question.16 A student focussed the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a convex lens. He noted down the positions of the candle flame, screen and the lens as given below: Position of the candle flame = 12.0 cm Position of the lens = 50.0 cm Position of the screen = 88.0 cm
(i) Find the focal length of the convex lens.
(ii) Find the position of the image of the candle flame if it is shifted towards the lens at a position of 31.0 cm.
(iii) State the nature of the image formed if the candle flame is further shifted towards the lens,
Answer.

Question.20 A spherical mirror ‘A’ always forms an erect image of an object and another spherical mirror ‘B’ forms erect as well as inverted image of an object. State with reasons the type of spherical mirrors ‘A’ and ‘B’ and draw ray diagrams showing formation of images to justify your answer.

Answer. Mirror ‘A’ is a convex mirror as this mirror always forms an erect and virtual image.
When an incident ray is parallel to the principal axis, the reflected ray appears to be coming from the focus and when incident ray moves towards the centre of curvature, the reflected ray retraces the path.
These two rules show that the reflected rays are diverging and when produced back-wards, the rays appear to meet. Thus, this mirror always produces a virtual image which is always erect.
Mirror ‘B’ is a concave mirror. The nature, position and size of the image formed by a concave mirror depends on the position of the object in relation to points P(Pole), F(focus) and C(centre of curvature) of the mirror.

Case 1. When the object is placed between P and
Case 2. As the object moves away from the mirror beyond F the two reflected rays actually meet below the principal axis which produces a real and inverted image.
F—the two reflected rays (one passes through the focus and other retraces through centre of curvature) are diverging and appear to meet in backward direction. This produces a virtual and erect image.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Science SA2 Outside Delhi – 2013 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English SA2 Outside Delhi – 2014

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                               Maximum marks: 70
The Question Paper is divided into three Sections:
Section A – Reading 20 Marks
Section B Writing & Grammar 25 Marks
Section C – Literature 25 Marks

General Instructions:

1.  All questions are compulsory.
2.  You may attempt any Section at a time.
3. All questions of that particular Section must be attempted in the correct order.

SET I

SECTION A – READING
Question.1. Read the following passage:
It’s Beginning to Bite
In these trying times, when buying ordinary food stuff can bum a hole in your pockets, comes the news that can actually help us save some hard cash when we go out to shop the next time. According to a Stanford University’ study, the first of its kind in the world, there is no evidence to suggest that there are more nutritional benefits from expensive organic food than those grown by conventional methods. The researchers add that there is no difference in protein and fat content between organic and conventional milk and the vitamin count is similar in both types. The only benefit is that organic foods are not contaminated with pesticides but then before you chew on that plate of organic okra with roti made from organic wheat, they are not 100% pesticide free either. In India, organic food has been growing at 20-22% and the export market is valued at Rs 1,000 crore. Obviously, the study is not good news for that sector and for people who are big on organic food.
In India, eating organic food is more of a style statement than due to health worries because the stuff is expensive. But people who can, do indulge in not only organic vegetables but even organic eggs laid by ‘happy’ hens’, who are allowed to roam around freely whereas ‘unhappy hens’ are kept in coops. Then there are companies that have installed music channels in their cowsheds and the milk from those sheds is sold at a marked up price since it has more nutritional value because the animals are happy thanks to lilting 24 x 7 music. We don’t know yet any farmer using music to improve his crop quality, but then you never know: plants are known to respond to music.
Why such pickiness about food? These days, the huge number of TV shows and articles that we see and read on food provide bread and butter for the specialist. But instead of decoding food, its sources and what has gone into growing it, isn’t it much better to enjoy what7s on the plate? (Adapted from The Hindustan Times)

1.1 On the basis of your reading of the above passage complete the following statements with suitable words/phrases:
(a) Buying ordinary food stuff can———-in these trying times. ,
(b) Organic and conventional milk has the———-and———-content and the vitamin count is also similar in both.
(c) According to a Stanford University study, organic food in relation to conventional food is ———-.
(d) One benefit of organic food is that ———-.
(e) Milk from cows which have music channels installed in the cowshed is ———-.
(f) In India, eating organic food is a ———-.
(g) The growth rate of organic food market in India is———-and the export market is valued at———.
(h) According to the author it is much better to ———- the food on one’s plate rather than ———-it.
Answer.
(a)bum a hole in our pockets
(b)protein; fat
(c)as nutritious
(d)it is less contaminated with pesticides
(e)sold at a higher price
(f)style statement
(g)20-22%; Rs 1,000 crore
(h)enjoy; decoding

Question.2. Read the passage given below:
The Perfect Dog
1. In the summer of 1967, when I was 10 years old, my father caved into my persistent pleas and took me to get my own dog. Together we drove in the family station wagon far into the Michigan countryside to a farm run by a rough-hewn woman and her ancient mother. The farm produced just one commodity — dogs. Dogs of every imaginable size and shape and age and temperament. They had only two things in common: each was a mongrel of unknown and distinct ancestry and each was free to a good home.
2. I quickly decided the older dogs were somebody else’s charity case. I immediately raced to the puppy cage. “You want to pick one that’s not timid,” my father coached. “Try rattling the cage and see which ones aren’t afraid.”
3. I grabbed the chain-link gate and yanked on it with a loud clang. The dozen or so puppies reeled backward, collapsing on top of one another in a squiggling heap of fur. Just one remained. He was gold with a white blaze on his chest, and he charged at the gate, yapping fearlessly. He jumped up and excitedly licked my fingers through the fencing. It was love at first sight.
4. I brought him home in a cardboard box and named him Shaun. He was one of those dogs that gives dogs a good name. He effortlessly mastered every command I taught him and was naturally well behaved. I could drop a crust on the floor and he would not touch it until I gave the okay.
5. Relatives would visit for the weekend and returned home determined to buy a dog of their own, so impressed were they with Shaun—or “Saint Shaun,” as I came to call him. Bom with the curse of an uncertain lineage, he was one of the tens of thousands of unwanted dogs in America. Yet by some stroke of almost providential good fortune, he became wanted. He came into my life and I into his—and in the process, he gave me the childhood every kid deserves.
6. The love affair lasted fourteen years and by the time he died I was no longer the little boy who had brought him along on that summer day. I was a man, out of college and working across the state in my first real job. Saint Shaun had stayed behind when I moved on. It was where he belonged. My parents, by then retired, called to break the news to me. My mother would later tell me, “In fifty years of marriage, I’ve only seen your father cry twice. The first time was when we lost Mary Ann” — my sister, who was stillborn. “The second time was the day Shaun died.”
7. Saint Shaun of my childhood. He was a perfect dog. At least that’s how I will always remember him. It was Shaun who set the standard by which I would judge all other dogs to come. ‘ (Marley and Me by John Grogan)

2.1 On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the following questions briefly:
(a) What commodity did the farm produce? Which two things were common in each of these commodities?
(b) How did the author decide which puppy he wanted to take home from the dog farm?
(c) Why was Shaun one of those dogs that give dogs a good name?
(d) On what two instances did the author’s father cry?
Answer. (a) The farm produced just one commodity and that was dogs of every shape size, age and temperament. All these dogs had two things in common, each dog was a mongrel of unknown and distinct ancestry and each was free to a good home.
(b) On his father’s advice, the author took the chain-linked puppy cage and yanked on it loudly. This action scared* all the puppies but one who charged at the gate, yapping fearlessly. He was a gold puppy with a white blaze on his chest. The author automatically fell in love with this puppy as he excitedly jumped up and licked the author’s fingers and decided to take him home.
(c) Shaun was an extremely obedient dog. He mastered every command taught to him by the author and was naturally well behaved. He was so obedient that even if a crust would fall on the floor, he did not touch it till he got an okay from his master.
(d) The author’s father first cried when they lost his sister Mary Ann, who was stillborn. And the second instance was when the author’s dog ‘Shaun’ died.

2.2 Choose the most appropriate meaning of the given word from the options provided
(a) The word ‘pleas’ means
(i) to please someone (ii) noticeable
(iii) urgent request (iv) a command
(b) The word ‘collapsing’ means
(i) falling (ii) lying (iii) climbing (iv) declining
(c) The word ‘lineage’ means
(i) lining up (ii) descent from an ancestor
(iii) forefathers (iv) move forward
(d) The word ‘retired’ means
(i) to get tired (ii) withdraw from one’s work
(iii) to get hurt (iv) join work
Answer. (a) (iii) urgent request
(b) (i) falling
(c) (ii) descent from an ancestor
(d) (ii) withdraw from one’s work

SECTION B – WRITING & GRAMMAR
Question.3, Your city was inundated by the recent rains causing extensive water logging, traffic Snarls and ugly jams. The life of the common man was completely disrupted.
You have decided to write a letter to the editor of a local daily describing the condition of the city. Make suggestions for improvement. As Renu/Rohit, of 25, Patel Nagar, New Delhi, write this letter in 100-120 words.
Or
Recently you came across the famous words of Swami Vivekananda which inspired a whole generation of thinkers.

Being goalless is the main problem of in today’s young generation. Write an article in 100-120 words for your school magazine on the ‘Importance of Goal-Setting in One’s life.’.
Answer. 25, Patel Nagar New Delhi 6lh October 20xx The Editor The Times of India New Delhi
Subject: City scenario after incessant rains Sir
I am writing this letter to you to bring to notice how the life of the common man in our city was completely disrupted by the recent rains.
Our city was inundated (flooded) by the recent rains causing extensive water logging at several areas and throwing normal life out of gear. Traffic signals also failed and this further aggravated the situation leading to major traffic snarls and ugly jams. Low-lying areas had rainwater seeping into the homes of people. Most of the city’s roads were inundated with the canal water flooding on to roads and residential areas. It is high time the concerned
authorities take up immediate measures for improving the situation. This should include repair and expansion of man-made sewer systems, improving the drainage channels and regular inspection of drains designed to control water run off and clean them regularly. By taking these necessary steps the municipal authorities can definitely contribute to ensuring that life of the common man is not thrown completely off gear during heavy rains. I hope you will publish my letter in your esteemed newspaper to bring to the attention of the concerned authorities the prevalent scenario.
Thank you Rohit
Or
Importance of Goal Setting
Setting goals is the fundamental component of long-term success. The main problem with today’s youth is that they have no aims and goals set in their minds. They have a very casual attitude towards their future. Goal-setting enables the youth to develop a sense of purpose in their lives. Goals help us to focus our minds and keep us motivated.
Setting goals helps students in particular to improve their academic performance. It increases their motivation to achieve and leads to a sense of pride and satisfaction. It also helps boost the self-confidence of a person. The youth of today must realize that goals give direction and purpose to one’s life. One must set clear and reasonable goals, so that one knows exactly what is required to achieve them.
One must remember getting what we want doesn’t come easy. We have to work hard to achieve the results we want. This requires dedication, perseverance and most importantly the task of goal-setting.

Question.4. Complete the story in 150-200 words.
It was the first time that Pooja was alone at home. Her parents would never leave her alone even for some hours. But this had been an emergency. Her grandfather had
suddenly taken ill and because of her school, Pooja couldn’t leave with them
Or
Complete the story in 150-200 words.
There was a poor boy who made a living with selling various objects door to door, to pay for his school. He was very hungry and felt he couldn’t walk even a few steps. He decided to ask for food at a house. He knocked the door and was stunned to see a beautiful young girl at the door step. With so much hesitation, in spite of his hunger, he asked the girl to offer a glass of water……….
Answer. It was the first time that Pooja was alone at home. Her parents would never leave her alone even for a few hours. But this had been an emergency. Her grandfather had suddenly taken ill and because of her school, Pooja couldn’t leave with them. Pooja’s mother had been very worried while leaving as she had never left her alone, but Pooja assured her that she would be fine and anyway it was just for the night, as in the morning her aunt would reach from Pune. Pooja spent the afternoon and evening playing on the computer and then finishing her home work. But with nightfall all her courage seemed to be disappearing. She thought first she would sleep with the light on but when she couldn’t get sleep with the lights shining on her face, she switched it off. Pooja started getting frightened. While tossing and turning on the bed she looked towards the window and her mind started conjuring up all sorts of shapes in the darkness. She told herself it was just a tree outside and nothing else but yet she was scared. Suddenly, she heard a noise in the hall. Pooja was alarmed. She thought of going and seeing from where the noise came from but she couldn’t get up from the bed. Finally she mustered up enough courage to go and investigate. She went into the hall and heard the noise once again. She quickly switched on the light and to her amusement and dismay, it was only her pet dog ‘Simba’ playing in the hall.
Or
There was a poor boy who made a living with selling various objects door to door, to pay for his school. He was very hungry and felt he couldn’t walk even a few steps. He decided to ask for food at a house. He knocked the door and was stunned to see a beautiful young girl at the door step. With so much hesitation, in spite of his hunger, he asked the girl to offer a glass of water.
The young girl understood his hunger through his eyes and offered him milk in a huge glass. With astonished look he drank the milk very slowly. And asked how much he owed her for the milk? The girl replied T don’t accept anything for kindness.’ With big smile on his face, the boy thanked the girl from the bottom of his heart and left the place.
Years passed by. The young girl fell ill and was diagnosed with the rarest kind of nervous condition, which was a complicated condition to treat. While many experienced doctors were baffled at her condition, she was taken to a big hospital to study about her condition. Dr. Kumar, a renowned specialist was called in by the hospital to examine her. He gave a visit to the hospital where she was admitted to learn about the rare condition. As he entered her room, Dr. Kumar immediately identified who that woman was!
With all his efforts and knowledge, Dr. Kumar battled with the disease for weeks and months. At last, he won over the disease and the woman was completely cured. Everyone praised the doctor, while the woman was quite afraid about the hospital bill as she could not afford to pay.
Dr. Kumar asked the hospital to send the bill to him so that he could add his charges. After receiving the hospital bill, he wrote a note on it and sent it to her. With lots of fear, she opened the bill and had no idea how much she was charged.
Her eyes filled with tears and happiness once she opened the bill. She found the bill cancelled and that was not the reason for her happiness.
She saw the note written by Dr. Kumar—”Bill Paid years ago with a glass of milk!”

Question.5. Complete the paragraph given below by filling in each of the blanks with the help of options that follow:
The butter (a) melted. Onions and vegetables are (b) in it for 3 minutes. Flour and stock are added. It is brought to a boil while (c) continuously.
(a) (i) be (ii) is (iii) are (iv) being
(b) (i) fried (ii) fry (iii) fries (iv) frying
(c) (i) stir (it) stirring (iii) stirs (iv) stirred
Answer. (a) (ii) is
(b) (i) fried
(c) (ii) stirring

Question.6. In the passage given below, one word has been omitted in each marked line. Write the missing word along with the word that comes before and the word that comes after it. Ensure that the word that forms your answer is underlined. The first one is done as an example.
Kite flying was a popular sport that time e.g.   sport     at that
and while the girls knitted and sewed
we boys climbed over the roofs enter (a) —-    ——        ——-
the competition. We limited pocket money (b) —-   ——  ——-
and was not enough to buy all the (c) —-         ——          ——-
material needed make our kites. (d) —-     ——       ——-
Answer. (a) roofs to enter (b) we had limited
(c) and iLwas (d) needed to make

Question.7. Rearrange the following words and phrases to form meaningful sentences:
(a) one of / that of reading / known to / is / greatest / the / pleasures / man /
(b) a rich variety / adventure and wisdom / the / world of books / has / of /
(c) own / you / book / convenience / can enjoy / a / at your /
Answer. (a) One of the greatest pleasures known to man is that of reading.
(b) The world of books has a rich variety of adventure and wisdom.
(c) You can enjoy a book at your own convenience.

SECTION C – LITERATURE & LONG REAPING TEXT
Question.8. Read the extract given below and answer briefly the questions that follow:
It all started a month ago. Dad and I had spent the entire Saturday afternoon at the Computer Fair.
(a) Who does T in the extract refer to?
(b) What started a month ago?
(c) What does the speaker have a keen interest in?
Or
Read the extract given below and answer briefly the questions that follow:
Good countrymen, let me depart alone,
And, for my sake, stay here with Antony:
(a) Identify the speaker of the above lines.
(b) When and where were the above lines spoken?
(c) Bring out the irony in the above extract.
Answer. (a) ‘T in the extract refers to Michael Dawson, the narrator.
(b) A series of events leading to Michael’s encounter with Sebastian Shultz.
(c) The speaker has a keen interest in the high technology psycho-drive games.
Or
(a) Decius Brutus is the speaker of the above lines.
(b) These lines are spoken when Brutus descends the pulpit after requesting the people of Rome to listen to what Mark Antony has to say.
(c) Brutus requests the people to stay with Antony for his (Brutus) sake but people actually stay with Antony for Caesar’s sake.

Question.9. Answer any four the following questions in 30-40 words each:
(a) Why did John’s wife get angry with him? What did she decide to do?
(b) Why did the poet throw the log at the snake?
(c) How did nature foretell Caesar’s death?
(d) How did the Albatross save the mariners from the land of ice and snow?
(e) Why did Mr. Mullick turn down Patol Babu’s request for a rehearsal?
Answer. (a) John’s wife got angry with him because she suspected him of infidelity, of cheating on
her. So she decided to go back to her grandmother’s house and informed John in writing that her lawyer would communicate with him later.
(b) Just as the snake begins to make his way back into his hole, the poet is gripped with a strange sense of horror and so conceding to the voice of his education his instinctive reaction is to pick up a log and clumsily hurl it at the snake.
(c) There was a major upheavel in the sky indicating that something undesirable was
going to happen. Calpumia dreamt of Caesar’s statue and saw blood gushing out of it like a fountain. A lioness gave birth to her cubs on the street and graves opened up exposing the dead. /
(d) After the albatross arrived on their ship the big icebergs surrounding the mariner’s ship cracked and split enabling the helmsman to steer them out of the ice. Then a favourable southwind began to blow and the weather improved considerably. The mariners welcomed the albatross as a good Christian soul who had come to their rescue.
(e) Patol Babu suggested that he should rehearse his scene. But Mr. Mullick turned down his request for the rehearsal, showing impatience at the suggestion. This was because Mr. Mullick wanted to quickly shoot the scene in the sunlight as he could see a large patch of cloud approaching the sun, which was making him impatient.

Question.10. Now let it work. Mischief thou art afoot.
Take thou what course thou wilt!
Antony seeks justice by getting the mob to kill the conspirators. But to correct a wrong, one cannot commit another wrong.
Write a speech for the school assembly on-The ‘ends do not justify the means in about 80-100 words.
Or
Explain the statement ‘Virtual Games are a Reality’ with the help of textual evidences from the lesson ‘Virtually True’.
Answer. To correct a wrong, one should not commit another wrong as two wrongs never make one right.
Good Morning Everyone, I, , have come before you all to speak on the topic, ‘The Ends do not Justify the Means’.
The concept of ‘ends justifying the means’ usually involves doing something wrong to achieve a positive end and justifying the wrong-doing by pointing to a good outcome. Means can only be justified when they are morally, ethically and socially upright. For the end to always justify the means, implies that it does not matter who gets hurt in the process. For example, if you cheat to win something, does the end (winning) justify the means (cheating). This concept is a double-edged weapon which must be dealt with in the most civilised way.
I would like to conclude by saying the methods which violate our sense of righteousness and morals, cannot validate the goal, no matter how worthy it is. After all, our values are what make us human.
Thank you
Virtual world or cyberspace is an environment using computer technology to create a simulated, three-dimensional world that a user can manipulate and explore while feeling as if he were in that world. In a virtual reality environment, the user experiences the feeling of being inside it and being a part of that world. He is also able to interact with his environment in meaningful ways.
However, some psychologists are concerned that virtual reality games could psychologically affect a player. They suggest that these games place a player in violent situations, particularly as the perpetuator of violence and could result in the user becoming desensitized. Some psychologists also believe that these games can lead to cyber addiction. There have been several news stories of gamers neglecting their real lives for their online, in-gcme presence.
Studies indicate that people can have real physical and emotional reactions to stimuli within a virtual game. Thus, it is quite possible that a victim of a virtual attack could feel real emotional trauma.

Attempt either Part (A) or Part (B)
PART (A)
Answer the following questions in 100-120 words each:
Question.11A.How did the air raids disrupt the Dutch public life?
Or
Attempt a character sketch of Anne Frank.
Or, Attempt a character sketch of Otto Frank, Anne’s father.
Answer. From Anne’s account we get a picture of the unexpected wretchedness unleashed on the Dutch people due to the air raids. The common happenings during that time were trembling houses, scared women, intense epidemics and people persistently stalked by hunger. Doctors were unable to visit their patients and there was unrestrained theft of automobiles. Thefts and burglaries became quite common. Little children smashed the windows of people’s houses and stole whatever they could lay their hands on. People could not even think of leaving their houses for five minutes for fear of finding their belongings missing in their absence. The electric clocks on the street comers were destroyed and public phones were stripped. The morale of the Dutch people was low, everyone was starving, men were shipped off to Germany and children were either sick or undernourished. Prices of commodities were expensive even in the black market.
Or
Anne’s diary entries tell us much about her character. From the very onset we can tell that Anne is confident, creative and thoughtful. She is also a very detailed observer as is evident by her lists of birthday presents and her meticulous description of her friends. Anne also seems rather disciplined, as she often writes lengthy diary entries. Her diligence in writing enables her to release strong feelings instead of blurting them out aloud and hurting her family and friends. When Anne remarks that paper is more patient than people, she emphasizes the difficulty she has in expressing herself openly in front of others. It seems she is afraid to confide in people fearing she will hurt her loved ones. This shows that although Anne is critical of the fault of others she is sensitive to their feelings.
Or
Otto Frank, Anne’s father, is the manager of a food company. He shares a close bond with Anne. His birthday present to her, the diary, is her favourite. Otto Frank is a caring, resourceful and wise man. When the Van Daan family arrives to stay in the Secret Annex with them, Otto Frank serves as the peacemaker of the group “pouring oil on troubled waters”. He keeps Anne, Margot and Peter engaged in studying, reading and making family trees. He is generous, kind and level-headed unlike the other adults in the Secret Annex who are harsh and stingy. Anne continually tries to impress her father, live up to his expectations and obey his wishes. Otto Frank has a strong character and is clearly the head of the Frank household.

PART (B)
Answer the following questions in 100-120 words each:
Question. 11B. Describe the progress made by Helen Keller during the two years she spent at Wright Humason School for the Deaf in New York City.
Or
Attempt a character sketch of Mr. Gilman as a teacher.
Or, It was her determination that helped Helen Keller get admission to Radcliffe College. Comment.
Answer. Helen joined the Wright-Humason School for the deaf for learning and improving her vocal education. Her progress in lipreading and speech was much below her own expectations and that of the expectation of her teachers. At the Wright-Humason School, Helen learned about the sign language and lip reading and also braille to a certain extent. During her two years there Helen also studied Arithmetic, Physical Geography, French and German. It was under Miss Reamy, her German teacher’s guidance that she made more progress in German than in any of the other subjects. She found French much more difficult as her teacher Madame Olivier, did not know the manual alphabet and gave her oral instructions. Helen pursued Physical Geography with unflagging interest. It was a joy for her to learn the secrets of nature. The two years that Helen spent at New York were happy ones, and she looked back at them with genuine happiness.
Or
Mr. Gilman was the principal of the Cambridge School of Young Ladies. Helen had entered this school full of hope and determination to succeed. Mr. Gilman was a kind and able teacher. He was always ready to help Helen as a teacher, mentor and interpreter. Though he was a busy man he would spend time with Helen. Being a kindhearted person, he was always concerned about Helen and her education. He was also most sympathetic towards Helen and showed a lot of patience with her. He read out the whole question paper to Helen most patiently. Being generous, he even let Milred, Helen’s sister, study at Cambridge with her. But due to a difference in opinion on Helen’s preparing period for college and a misunderstanding with Miss Sullivan, Helen’s mother was forced to withdraw both her daughters from Cambridge School.
Or
The path to get admission in Radcliffe College was marked with unimaginable difficulties. But it was the desire Helen harboured and her determination to be successful, despite the odds that helped her to overcome all the obstacles. She faced unexpected difficulties, from not having books embossed in time to begin her classes, lack of apparatus for some of her studies, to the problems related to special instructions in the classroom. Many a time even Miss Sullivan fell short of helping her with all the resources required for her preparation. At times this made Helen lose her courage but she did not lose her determination and each time moved on ahead with renewed confidence. Her faith and spirit combined with her determination helped Helen to get admission to Radcliffe College.

SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.3. Each year witnesses soaring cut-off for university admissions. Many a deserving student is left without a seat causing frustration. Write an article for a local daily in about 100-120 words highlighting the plight of students and suggest measures that the Government could take to provide enough avenues for the youth. You are Amit/Anita.

Answer. Soaring Cut-offs Frustrates Students
By: Anita
Each year witnesses soaring cut-offs for university admissions. This trend has a major impact on many deserving students who are left without a seat in the colleges thus causing frustration to them.
Many deserving candidates despite scoring well in their exams lose out in this race as there are very limited seats available in colleges and the number of applicants is far more. This has an adverse affect on them and at times even forces a few of them to resort to taking the extreme wrong decision. This is a serious matter and considering the plight of such students the Government should initiate steps to provide enough avenues for youngsters. The Government can start evening shifts in colleges to make more seats available for admission to different courses. Vocational courses should be given priority in the evening shifts as they are more popular with students because they provide them with employment opportunities. The Government should also take steps to set up more universities and colleges that impart quality education.
If our Government gives immediate attention to this matter life of many students will take on a new direction and new avenues will open-up for them.

Question.5. Given below is a conversation between Nina and Nita. Complete the dialogue by choosing the correct options from those given below:
Nina : What are your plans for the autumn break, Nita?
Nita : I plan to (a) my aunt. She lives near Gangtok, just (b) miles
away from the town.
Nina : Oh! That sounds exciting. When (c) you leave? ‘
(a) (i) visit (it) visited (iii) visits (iv) visiting
(b) (i) a few (ii) a little (iii) less (iv) fewer
(c) (i) does (ii) did (iii) done (iv) do
Answer. (a) (i) visit
(b) (i) a few
(c) (iv) do

Question.6. In the passage given below, one word has been omitted in each line. Write the missing word along with the word that comes before and the word that comes after it. Ensure that the word that forms your answer is underlined. The first one is done as an example.
Lemons are small size. They , e.g. small in size
have many qualities, are used (a) —- —— ——-
as agents add a particular taste. (b) —- —— ——-
They are also source of several (c) —- —— ——-
other benefits and a good source Vitamin C. (d) —- —— ——-
Answer. (a) qualities. They are (b) agents to add
(c) also a source (d) source of Vitamin C

Question.7. Rearrange the following words and phrases to form meaningful sentences:
(a) your destiny / right hand / it is said / your / that / is in /
(b) the problems / determine / how / our persorfalities / of life / we deal with /
(c) than others / can cope / some people / better / hardships / with /
Answer. (a) It is said that your destiny is in your right hand.
(b) How we deal with the problems of life determine our personalities.
(c) Some people can cope better with hardships than others.

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II.
Question.3. Incidents of picking pockets and petty thefts have been on the rise in public transport systems. As a concerned citizen, write an article in about 100-120 words to make people aware of this phenomenon, advise exercise of caution and suggest measures that police and citizens could take to curb this menace. Give your article a suitable title. You are Amit/Anita.
Answer. Rise in Crime in Public Transport
By: Anita
With the increase in the number of passengers using public transport, incidents of picking pockets and petty thefts have also seen an unprecedented rise.
A number of passengers have complained of losing their wallets and mobile phones while using the crowded public transport buses and metro services. Petty crimes like pickpocketing, theft of valuables from luggage on trains and buses have been reported.
Travellers who are not in groups become easy victims of pick pockets, and purse snatchers who work in crowded public transports. The concerned authorities need to exercise caution and both the police and citizens need to take up strict measures to curb this menace. Cameras should be installed in public transport and plain clothed police personnel should travel on randomly chosen hus Mid metro routes. Passengers on their part must be extra vigilant when they are travelling by public transport.
Looking at the need for security in public transport we need to look at the ends to end crime against our citizens whose life line is the public transport system.

Question.5. Complete the paragraph given below by filling in each of the blanks with the help of options that follow: For centuries lemon has been used for (a) healing properties. It acts (b) a blood purifier and helps the body to get rid (c) toxins.
(a) (i) its (ii) his (iii) their (iv) it’s
(b) (i) in (ii) as (iii) for (iv) with
(c) (i) on (ii) up (iii) in (iv) of
Answer. (a) (i) its
(b) (ii) as
(c) (iv) of

Question.7. Rearrange the following words and phrases to from meaningful sentences:
(a) all workers / child workers / in India / five percent of / are / about /
(b) them / engaged / in agriculture / most of / are /
(c) work / in urban areas / many/of industries / in a variety /
Answer. (a) About five percent of all workers in India are child workers.
(b) Most of them are engaged in agriculture.
(c) Many work in urban areas in a variety of industries.

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The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English SA2 Outside Delhi – 2014 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English SA2  Delhi – 2016

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                               Maximum marks: 70
The Question Paper is divided into three Sections:
Section A – Reading 20 Marks
Section B Writing & Grammar 25 Marks
Section C – Literature 25 Marks

General Instructions:

1.  All questions are compulsory.
2.  You may attempt any Section at a time.
3. All questions of that particular Section must be attempted in the correct order.

SET I

SECTION A – READING
Question.1 Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
One of the greatest advances in modem technology has been the invention of computers.
They are widely used in industries and in universities. Now there is hardly any sphere of
human life where computers have not been pressed into service of map. We are heading fast towards the day when a computer will be as much part of man’s daily life as a telephone or a calculator.
Computers are capable of doing extremely complicated work in all branches of learning. They can solve the most complex mathematical problems or put thousands of unrelated facts in order. These machines can be put to varied uses. For instance, they can provide information on the best way to prevent traffic jams. This whole process by which machines can be used to work for us has been called ‘automation’. In the future automation may enable human beings to enjoy more leisure than they do today. The coming of automation is bound to have important social consequences.
Some years ago an expert on automation, Sir Leon Bagrit, pointed out that it was a mistake to believe that these machines could ‘think’. There is no possibility that human beings will
be “controlled by machines”. Though computers are capable of learning from their mistakes and improving on their performance, they need detailed instructions from human beings to operate. They can never, as it were, lead independent lives or “rule the world” by making decisions of their own.
Sir Leon said that in future, computers would be developed which would be small enough
to carry in the pocket. Ordinary people would then be able to use them to obtain valuable information. Computers could be plugged into a national network and be used like radios. For instance, people going on holiday could be informed about weather conditions. Car drivers can be given alternative routes when there are traffic jams. It will also be possible to make tiny translating machines. This will enable,people who do not share a common language to talk to each other without any difficulty or to read foreign publications.
(a) What is the greatest advancement in modern technology?
(b) What complicated works are computers capable of doing?
(c) Write one use of computers.
(d) Explain automation.
(e) Why can’t computers lead independent lives or rule the world?
(f) How would computers as translating machines help people?
(g) What was the prediction of Sir Leon about computers in future?
(h) How can computers help people going on holiday?
Answer.
(a) The greatest advancement of modem technology has been the invention of computers.
(b) Computers are capable of solving the most complex mathematical problems and putting thousands of unrelated facts in order.
(c) Computers provide information on the best way to prevent traffic jams, they can carry7 out complicated work in all branches of learning, they are used in industries, universities etc.
(d) Automation refers to the process by which machines can be used to work for us.
(e) Computers cannot lead independent lives or rule the world because they need detailed instructions from human beings to operate. They cannot make decisions of their own.
(f) As translating machines, computers will enable people who do not share a common language to talk to each other without any difficulty and to read foreign publications.
(g) Sir Leon’s prediction about computers was that computers ‘which would be small enough to carry in the pocket’ would be developed and ordinary people would be able to use these pocket computers to obtain valuable information. He also predicted that computers could be plugged into a national network and be used like radios.
(h) People going on holidays can use computers to be informed about weather conditions. Computers can also help car drivers by suggesting alternative routes when there are traffic jams. Computers can also make tiny translating machines.

Question.2 Read the passage given below.
does a person become overconfident? The reason lies in over, assessment of his capabilities. Sometimes people over assess their competence and jump into situations that are beyond their control.
Napoleon Bonaparte who became Emperor of France would say that the word ‘impossible’ was common only amongst fools. The overconfident Napoleon invaded Russia in the winter of 1812. This proved to be a big disaster.
Overconfidence generally leads people into misadventures, endangering their chances in life. It is wisely said that any achievement is a result of two factors—one’s personal planning and support from the external world. People, take into account only their planning, generally ignoring external factors. They become unable to foresee future developments. Hence, the great risk’ of failure.
Then there is the question: how can one manage overconfidence? The formula is very simple. Before taking a decision discuss the matter with other informed people with an objective mind and when it is proved that you are about to go off the path, accept reality and say without delay, “I was wrong”. .
Overconfidence is a flaw characterizing people who lack the virtue of modesty. Modesty makes you a realist; you become a person who is cut down to size. People of this kind become very cautious; before taking an action they assess the whole situation. They adopt a realistic approach.
Overconfident people live within their own thoughts. They know themselves but they are unaware of others. Living inside their own cell they are unable to make use of the experiences of others. This kind of habit is highly damaging to all concerned.
There is a saying that the young man sees the rule and the old man sees the exception, with a slight change, I would like to say that the overconfident person sees the rule and the confident person sees the exception. Overconfident people are always at risk. It is said that taking risk is good but it must be well calculated otherwise it becomes very dangerous.

2.1 Answer the following questions:
(a) Why does a person become overconfident?
(b) What does overconfidence generally lead people into?
(c) How can one manage overconfidence?
(d) What kind of person does ‘modesty’ make you?
Answer.
(a) A person becomes overconfident because of over-assessment of his capabilities and competence and when he jumps into situations that are beyond his control.
(b) Overconfidence generally leads people into misadventures endangering their chances in life and putting them at great risk of failure.
(c) One can manage overconfidence by discussing the matter with other informed people with an objective mind and accepting reality when proved wrong.
(d) Modesty makes you a realist; you become a person who is cut down to size. People of this kind become very cautious before taking any action.

2.2 Find meanings of the words given below with the help of the options that follow:
(a) Misadventure (para 3)
(i) Mishap (ii) Unlucky (iii) Unhappy (iv) Unpleasant
(b) Endangering (para 3)
(i) Reckless (ii) Imperil(iii) Risky (iv) Threatening
(c) Assess (para 5)
(i) Assemble (ii) Acquire(iii) Evaluate(iv)Accept
(d) Objective (para 4)
(i) Obedient (ii) Servile(iii) Honest (iv)Impartial
Answer.
(a) (i) Mishap
(b) (iv) Threatening
(c) (iii) Evaluate
(d) (iv) Impartial

SECTION B – WRITING & GRAMMAR
Question.3.(a) Our metropolitan cities witness a large number of accidents every day. What do
you think is the reason? What can be done to bring down the rate of accidents? Write a letter in 100-120 words to the editor of a national daily expressing your concerns and offering solutions to this problem. You are AruiyAruna, 112 Model Town, Delhi.
Or
(b) Many children feel tempted to break rules in school. They find pleasure in doing so. Write an article in 100-120 words discussing reasons for it. Suggest measures to make children respect rules. You are Arun/Aruna.
Answer.
112, Model Town
Delhi
19th November, 20xx
The Hindustan Times
New Delhi
Subject: Concern regarding large number of accidents in metropolitan cities Sir
Through the medium of the columns of your esteemed newspaper I wish to express my concern over the large number of accidents taking place everyday.
There are a number of reasons for this incessant rise in the number of accidents. The main reason being that most drivers are quite stressed while driving due to the adverse and erratic driving conditions. Poor road conditions make them impatient and they often lose their cool and drive recklessly and rashly. People also do not follow traffic rules nor do they adhere to speed limits thus leading to accidents. Mobile phones and loud music act as distractions. People are always in a hurry to reach their destination and as a result drive most recklessly. There is also an unfortunate increase in the number of drunken driving mishaps.
To solve this problem the authorities need to take very stringent action and impose very heavy fines on traffic rule defaulters. Underage drivers and drunken drivers should be dealt with most severely and their licenses should be impounded immediately. I suggest that the number of traffic policemen and check-posts be increased to act as deterrents. It is also important that at the time of issuing driving licenses, a comprehensive class on traffic rules and regulations should be made mandatory.
I hope you will publish my letter in your newspaper so as to bring the attention of the concerned authorities towards this problem and enable them to take strict measures to bring down the rising number of accidents.
Yours sincerely Aruna
Or
By: Arun .
It is imperative that children should follow and respect rules whether they are at home or at school. Following rules enables children to lead a disciplined and focussed life. Indiscipline and the temptation to break rules is growing among the children of today. Lack of supervision at home due to working parents and easy access to money is one primary reason for this. Moreover, excessive exposure to TV and social media and the constant need to Took and act cool’ and to show-off has resulted in growing indiscipline and rebellion among children.
It is very important to counsel children on the importance of rules and discipline. School rules are very important as they help to ensure that students know how to behave and the consequences of misbehaving. Children should be made to understand that rules are not about punishment but about setting certain limits and wanting them to behave within
those limits. To make children respect rules we need to be clear about the behaviour expected from them and make them aware about their duties and responsibilities. Advance information and agreement about the consequences of not following the rules will act as a deterrent for a child to break the rules.
Children should be made to realize that rules are made to be followed and there is no pleasure or gratification in breaking the rules.

Question.4. Write a story in 150-200 words based on the input given below:
Uday’s dream—do something brave—win recognition far and wide—be famous in the
world—one fine day, he saw this opportunity when……..
Or
The parent-teacher meeting was scheduled for tomorrow—scared of informing them—had been scolded for missing school—no way out—cooked a story……..
Answer.
It was Uday’s dream to be famous in the world. He wanted to do an act of bravery and win recognition far and wide. One fine day, he saw four men who had recently shifted in the house opposite to his, acting rather suspiciously. At first he dismissed their suspicious behaviour to his over-imaginative mind, that was obsessed with the idea of becoming famous and was therefore always on the lookout for something sensational. But on that day he knew that the men were upto something. He saw them carry big cardboard boxes into their house, all the time looking apprehensive and being extra cautious. Uday could not ignore this. He decided that he would intimate the police and personally went to the local police station. He gave the officer-on-duty all the necessary details. The officer spoke to his senior and he immediately ordered to raid the house. Uday was told to go home and within an hour the police raided the house from which six boxes of R.D.X—an explosive material—were recovered. Uday was so happy not only because he had become famous but mainly because he had been instrumental in stopping the terrorists from causing, widespread destruction.
Or
…..The parent-teacher meeting was scheduled for the next day and Rahul was scared of
informing his parents about it. He had received a sound scolding from his teacher for missing school without permission and he was sure that his teacher would tell his parents about this. At first Rahul thought that there was no way out from this situation. He knew he had brought this upon himself, because of his own stupidity. But he also knew he had to do something to stop his parents from attending the parent-teaching meeting. Then Rahul cooked up a story. He told his friend to send him a message on his sister’s mobile saying that his class teacher would not be coming for the parent-teacher meeting the next day. He saved his friend’s number by the name of his teacher in his sister’s mobile. As soon as his friend messaged him, he showed the fake message to his mother who in turn informed Rahul’s father that they would meet the teacher some other day. Rahul heaved a sigh of relief for the time-being and promised himself that he would never do anything wrong that would annoy his parents. Even though he escaped a scolding this time, he never wanted to repeat such a mistake that would disappoint his parents and teachers.

Question.5. Complete the following paragraph by filling in the blanks with the help of given options:
There is a general belief (a)……….students that (b)……….who write long sentences get (c)………. marks.
(a) (i) in        (ii) of        (iii) among (iv) between
(b) (i) they   (ii) those (iii) all          (iv) them
(c) (i) more (ii) many (iii) most     (iv) much
Answer.
(a) (iii)among
(b) (ii) those
(c) (i) more

Question.6. The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Write the error and its correction as shown in the example.

Answer.
which … who   (e) peoples … people
that … it            (f) the … a
near … nearly  (g) can … could
he … they         (h) improving… improve

Question.7.Rearrange the following words and phrases into meaningful sentences. The first one
has been done as an example.
e.g., came/months/me/for eight/to teach/he
For eight months he came to teach me.
(a) algebra and/a week/me/geometry/twice/he taught
(b) very poor/subjects/1 was/in these/earlier
(c) very/ now / proficient/ have become/ in them/1
Answer.
(a) He taught me algebra and geometry twice a week.
(b) Earlier I was very poor in these subjects.
(c) Now, I have become very proficient in them./I have become very proficient in them
now.

SECTION C – LITERATURE : Textbook & Long Reading Text
Question.8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: 
A real message from the real Sebastian Shultz. We both knew that by reliving the accident, something wonderful had happened.
(a) Who is the narrator?
(b) What accident is he referring to?
(c) Write the antonym for the word, ‘wonderful’
Or
And immediately I regretted it.
I thought how paltry, how vulgar, what a mean act!
I despised myself and the voices of my accursed human education.
(a) What does the poet regret?
(b) Why does the poet curse his human education?
(c) What is meant by the word, ‘despised’?
Answer.
(a) Michael is the narrator.
(b) He is referring to the motorway accident in which Sebastian’s memory had been saved in the computer’s disk and he had gone into a coma.
(c) The antonym for the word, ‘wonderful’ is awful/dreadful/terrible/pathetic.
Or
(a) The poet regrets his action of hitting the snake with a log.
(b) The poet curses his human education that had shaped his thought process and urged him to kill the snake. It prompted him to harm the snake.
(c) The word ‘despised’ means hated or loathed.

Question.9. Answer any four of the following in 30-40 words each:
(a) What were the blessings the albatross brought with it?
(b) How does Brutus interpret Calpurnia’s dream?
(c) Why does Patol Babu’s wife tell him that he is counting his ‘chickens before they’re hatched’?
(d) What made the writer believe that he was good at writing ghost stories?
(e) Why did the narrator allow the snake to quench his thirst first?
Answer.
(a) The sailors were stuck in the land of mist and snow and their ship was surrounded by
icebergs, there was no sign of life. The arrival of the albatross was the first sign of life that gave them hope that they might survive. The fog lifted, the iceberg split and a ‘favourable south wind’ began to blow. .
(b) Brutus disputes Calpumia’s interpretation of her dream. He says it is a fair and fortunate vision. Caesar’s statue spouting blood in many pipes in which the Roman people were smiling and bathing signifies that Romans will gain fresh life from Caesar’s blood and great men will earnestly desire relics marked with his blood. Citizens will keep his hair and their handkerchiefs dipped in his blood as relics for their children and grandchildren.
(c) Patol Babu’s wife makes this comment when she hears her husband bragging about his supposed glories and achievements. He feels the role offered to him will go on to make him famous and wealthy. His wife feels that he is being overconfident and overexcited and so she tells him not to count his chickens before they are hatched in an attempt to keep him grounded.
(d) The writer says that he did not specialize in writing ghost stories but more or less they seemed to specialize in him. Whenever Jenkins called on the author to write a ghost story for his magazine he had always been able to manage to write one for him, not really understanding how the idea of the plot came to him.
(e) A snake visited the poet’s water trough on a hot afternoon to quench his thirst. The poet had also gone there to fill water in a pitcher. He waited for the snake and allowed him to quench his thirst first as he had come to the trough before the poet. He acts as a good host and treats the snake as an honourable guest.

Question.10. Answer the following in 80-100 words:
How does Helen’s appearance in the party make Lavinia get rid of her superstitious belief in Ouija Boards?
Or
Bring out the irony in the words, “My name is Ozymandias, king of kings, Look on my works, ye mighty, and despair!” as inscribed on the pedestal of the statue. What lesson does this irony teach us?
Answer.
When in the party the Ouija board refers to John as a traitor and hints at the name of someone by the name of Helen in his life, Lavinia is not amused. She looks at John very suspectingly, through narrow lids and then as all the other ladies get after John, Lavinia becomes all the more angry. Next morning, she tells John that she is leaving the house and her lawyers would communicate with him later. When asked by her maid, Gladolia, as to what should be done with the Ouija board, Lavinia tells her to use the board for kindling wood. When Lavinia finally gets to know Helen’s real identity that Helen is actually a ghost, she is finally able to get rid of her superstitious belief in Ouija boards. She is finally able to forgive John as he could not be having an affair with a spirit.
Or
Ozymandias is an arrogant king who is very proud of his power and glory, so he refers to himself as ‘king of kings’. When he addresses the ‘ye Mighty’—the other contemporary kings who consider themselves powerful—he tells them to despair as their achievements and accomplishments can never match or even come close to his own. Ozymandias gets his statue made to immortalize his glory. But the irony is that with the passage of time his statue is destroyed and becomes a colossal wreck. His statue which was made to create awe and wonder for the powerful king lies in a dilapidated condition, with no trace of his glory. Only the legs of the statue stand erect, the upper portion has fallen and is almost buried in the desert. Everything expect Ozymandias’ cruel face was destroyed. So the message conveyed through this poem is that the glories of our blood and state are mere shadows and not everlasting. Even the authority of a king must end.

Question.11. Answer the following in 150-200 words:
Helen’s contact with Dr. Bell raised her perception and understanding of the world. Comment.
Or
Helen’s teacher took her across the tough road of her life. What role did she play in her success?
Or
Anne Frank’s growing years were not normal. Elaborate.
Or
The Annexe was almost a prison for Anne. How did it limit her life?
Answer.
When Helen remembered the first time she met Dr. Bell as a child, she wrote that she felt he understood her and she ‘loved him at once’. Dr. Bell referred Helen to the Perkins Institution in Boston and Anne Sullivan was sent to Helen’s home to begin her education. Helen was extremely grateful to Dr. Bell for broadening her horizons. In the following year, the two frequently spent time together, developing something of a parent-child relationship along the way. In 1888, when Helen went to visit Dr. Bell she met with President Grover Cleveland. In 1893, Helen accompanied Dr. Bell to the World’s Columbian Exposition in Chicago, where he acted as Helen’s personal guide and taught her about modern science and technology. When Helen expressed a desire to attend regular college, Dr. Bell established a trust fund for Helen. When Helen began attending Radcliffe College in Boston, it was with this trust fund, as well as further financial support from Dr. Bell that paid for her education. Through Dr. Bell’s constant support Helen was exposed to a new world, new sensations, discoveries and her perception and understanding of the world was enhanced.
Or
Helen’s teacher, Miss Anne Sullivan, was instrumental in taking her across the tough road of her life. She played a very important role in Helen’s success. She taught her words, related to sense, smell and language and helped her to read and communicate.
Also, See Q. 11 (2nd option), 2012 (I Outside Delhi).
Or
Anne Frank’s growing years were not normal because she belonged to a Jew family who were in hiding during the Nazi reign of terror. Her family was subjected to various rules for Jews, like Jewish children could attend only Jewish schools, they faced curfews, were forced to wear a yellow star etc. In July 1942, they were forced to go into hiding, in the Annexe. In her diary, Anne gives an incredibly candid and eloquent account of her life in confinement. It expresses her fear, boredom and confusion at the situation she found herself in. Living in such extreme circumstances, Anne struggled with the universal problem of growing up. Anne feels very lonely and longs for kindness and affection, which she feels her mother is incapable of giving her. Anne refers to herself as a ‘bundle of contradictions’ a few days before her family is deported to the concentration camps. These contradictions highlight the difference between the young girl that she actually is and the adult this horrible situation forces her to become, thus making her growing years not normal.
Or
Anne Frank, like the others, finds it difficult hiding in the Annexe. It restricted their contact with the outside world and they always had to be very careful. Life was very tense as they lived in constant fear of being discovered. Moreover, it was certainly not easy for eight people to live in such cold quarters, sharing the darkness and dampness of the Annexe. Food was also rationed and they were deprived of basic facilities. These unusual circumstances combined with the normal occurrences of life, like Anne’s adolescent frustrations with h&r mother and her developing sexuality, limited her life to a great extent. The fact that they had to stay indoors and be extremely quiet during the day made the Annexe worse than a prison for Anne. There was also a lot of tension, probably due to the oppressive nature of the hiding place and the occupants often quarreled among themselves. As Anne’s father rightly noted about her, “It was clear from the beginning that life in hiding would be far more difficult for the spirited Anne than for us. We were aware of how much she would miss her many friends in school.” Anne herself writes,” the nicest part is being able to write down all my thoughts and feelings, otherwise I’d absolutely suffocate”.

SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.4. Write a story in 150-200 words based on the input given below: 10
She finally had it—the key to the treasure—the map—she trembled—excitement— anticipation
Or
Truth always pays—spoke truth—got in trouble—upset—changed mind—later realised — better in the long run
Answer.
She finally had it. The key to the treasure. Rani’s hands trembled with excitement and anticipation as she held the map which she had been searching for ever since her grandmother had passed away six months ago. The old lady had confided in her that a treasure lay in the house in their native place. There was a map providing the details as to the whereabouts of the treasure which was hidden somewhere in the backyard by her grandfather who had never told her exactly where he had buried it. Now she found the map, which was in quite a decent state, because it had been kept in a plastic box that was buried in the backyard. Rani decided she would leave for her native place, which was a six hour drive, the next morning. As she lay in bed, excited, sleep eluded her. Her mind drifted to what the contents of the treasure were and if it would be of value. She contemplated if she should tell her family but then decided against it. She would tell them only after she had found the treasure. If the treasure was indeed valuable, she would ensure it was fairly distributed among all the family members. She waited for the sun to rise so that she could start her journey for a day which could be most eventful.
Or
Ram had heard and believed the saying, ‘Truth always pays’. But now he began to actually consider its authenticity because he had got into trouble whenever he had spoken the truth. He was really upset and decided that from now on he would not always speak the truth. It was probably better to lie and save one’s self from undue hassles and problems one mostly faced when he was truthful. So that day when he wanted to go for a movie with his friends he lied to his parents telling them that he was going to his friend’s place to study. But as his mother interrogated him about the name, the time and the place where he was going to watch the movie, Ram could actually feel the genuineness and concern in her voice and he did not want to lie to her. He also realised that one lie was leading to the other and when she would come to know that he had lied to her and broken her trust, she would be very upset and heartbroken. He realised that in this way he would never be able to earn her trust again in future. So he made up his mind that in long run it is always better to speak the truth and that truth always pays. It enables one to win the trust of others.

Question.5. Complete the following paragraph by filling in the blanks with the help of given options:
Authorities settled (a)………..32 pages in (b)………..next answer book (c)………..for
the undergraduate courses.
(a) (i) on (ii) at (iii) up  (iv) in
(b) (i) a   (ii) an (iii) the (iv) some
(c) (i) mean(ii) meant(iii) means(iv) meaning
Answer.
(a) (i) on
(b) (iii) the
(c) (ii) meant

Question.7. Read the dialogue given below and complete the paragraph that follows:
Doctor : I hope you can read.
Patient: You may think it is funny but I can’t.
Doctor : Then why should I treat your eyes?
Patient: I believe illiterates too need eyes to see.
The doctor told the patient (a)………..The patient said that (b)………..The doctor asked(c)………..The patient replied that illiterates too need eyes to see.
Answer.
(a) that he hoped he could read.
(b) he might think it was funny, but he could not read.
(c) then why he should treat his eyes.

Question.9 Answer any four of the following in 30-40 words each:
(a) How did the mariners enjoy the arrival of the albatross?
(b) Describe the superstitions which scared Calpurnia.
(c) What did Gogon Pakrashi teach Patol Babu?
(d) Why did the ghost of Helen come to see John Hallock?
(e) Why was Michael shocked when he read the name Sebastian Shultz in a newspaper?
Answer.
(a) See Q. 9(d), 2011 (I Delhi).
(b) The superstitions which scare Calpurnia are the whelping of a lioness in the streets, the opening up of graves and yielding up their dead, fierce fiery warriors fighting upon the clouds in their proper ranks and correct battle order drizzling blood upon the city, the groaning of dying men and ghosts shrieking in the streets.
(c) Gogon Pakrashi, Patol Babu’s mentor, taught him that however small a part one was offered he should never consider it beneath his dignity to accept it. No role is big or small for an artist. As an artist one’s aim should be to make the most of this opportunity and squeeze the last drop of meaning out of his lines.
(d) The ghost of Helen had come to see John Hallock to warn him that she and her companions were going on a strike and would not offer voluntary assistance to writer’s like him to write ghost stories until he did not exert his influence and got all his friends and acquaintances to stop using the Ouija board.
(e) See Q. 9(d), 2011 (I Outside Delhi).

SET III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-l
and Set-II.
Question.3. Write an article for the school magazine emphasizing the need for art and music to be taught in schools. Mention how the study of art and music helps in the better emotional development of students in shaping their personalities.
Or
Some of us have often been ridiculed for poor time management and lack of punctuality. You feel that it affects the image of our country. Write a letter to the editor of a national daily in 100-120 words, mentioning the reasons for our weakness and how we can change ourselves. You are Arun/Aruna, 24 Mall Road, Agra.
Answer.
By: ABC
The need for teaching art and music in schools is important as it ensures better emotional development of students and also enables in shaping their personalities. Studies show that music has the power to relax the mind and is a wonderful method of relieving stress. Nobody can argue that art and music can help students relax after their long hours of studying hard. There are many scientific researches showing that music and art could reduce stress and improve human health. Students are still growing, and their bearance for stress is lower than adults. Therefore, they need music and art to minimize the risk of depression.
Experts argue that the intrinsic pleasures and stimulation of the art and music do more than sweeten an individual’s life. The experience of making choices and decisions in the course of creating art and learning music carries over into other parts of life and enables students to experiment and try new ideas, thus giving their creativity a chance to bloom. When students are encouraged to express themselves creatively they develop a sense of innovation that will help them in their life.
Another advantage of teaching art and music in secondary schools is that the talent of students in those subjects can be discovered when they are learning. The teachers are capable of assessing the students’ abilities and can help the students to develop that aptitude.
Art and music are thus a great way to encourage the process and the experience of thinking and enhancing one’s personality.
Or
24, Mall Road Agra
17^th January, 20xx
The Editor The Daily Times Agra
Subject: Expressing concern over poor time management and lack of punctuality Sir
Through the medium of the columns of your esteemed newspaper I wish to express my
concern over a problem that some of us have often been ridiculed for and that is poor time management and lack of punctuality.
Indians are generally known to be poor time keepers. We are often in the habit of procrastination, i.e., postponing tasks at hand. Being late is a cultural phenomenon and people take a lenient view on it in homes and in work places.
It is imperative that we learn the importance of punctuality and time management or else it can have serious consequences on our self-esteem, professional reputation and even personal relations. Time management is viewed from the perspective of efficiency and developing time management skills comes with practice. Once we are able to manage our time we will automatically be punctual. The most important thing we need to understand is that time can actually not be managed. Time is finite and it is the work we need to manage as per the time. A person should be able to finish his task within deadlines, without last minute scrambling or compromising on work quality. In this way he will also be able to ensure punctuality. Effective time management includes ignoring distractions that prevent us from completing our tasks.
By respecting time and staying focussed we will never miss our deadlines and compromise on the quality of our work.
Yours sincerely
Aruna

Question.8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
O, pardon me, thou bleeding piece of earth,
That I am meek and gentle with these butchers!
(a) By whom have the above lines been spoken?
(b) Why is the speaker meek with the butchers?
(c) Write the antonym of the word, ‘gentle’.
Or
“This is only the first step on the ladder, my dear better-half! Yes
……the first step that would…..God willing … mark the rise to fame
and fortune of your beloved husband!”
(a) What was “the first step on the ladder”?
(b) What characteristic does the speaker display here?
(c) What does the word, ‘fortune’ mean?
Answer.
(a) The above lines have been spoken by Mark Antony.
(b) Antony fears that he may also be killed by the conspirators. He is meek with the butchers because he wants to win their trust for the moment and then avenge Caesar’s death.
(c) The antonym of the word ‘gentle’ is brutal/harsh/ cruel/rough.
Or
(a) “The first step on the ladder” was Patol Babu being offered a role to act in a Baren Mullick film.
(b) Patol Babu boasts of his rise to becoming famous and wealthy. He displays ambition and confidence.
(c) The word ‘fortune’ means ‘wealth’.

Question.9 Answer any four of the following in 30-40 words each:
(a) Give two examples of the use of supernatural in The Rime of the Ancient Mariner.
(b) Why did the poet throw the log at the snake?,
(c) What idea did Patol Babu have while rehearsing? What was the director’s reaction?
(d) Why did the spirit in the Ouija Boards call Hallock a traitor?
(e) Why did Calpurnia not want Caesar to go to the Senate?
Answer.
(a) At first the wedding guest addresses the ancient mariner as a loon and the next
moment he is listening to him like a child. This clearly shows that the ancient mariner has a kind of magnetic power symbolised by his ‘glittering’ eyes. Strange things happen when the sea is filled with colours that witches might have produced and the crew members dream about a supernatural spirit that is haunting their ship. The emergence of the Albatross from the mist, and the sailors revering it as a sign of good luck, as though it were a “Christian Soul” sent by God to save them is another supernatural instance.
(b) See Q.9(b), 2014 (I Outside Delhi).
(c) While rehearsing Patol Babu had thought that if he had a newspaper open in his hand and then the collision took place while he had his eyes on the newspaper, the scene would look more authentic and natural. The director, Baren Mullick agreed to his suggestion and requested a bystander to give Patol Babu the newspaper he was carrying for that one shot.
(d) The spirit in the Ouija Boards called Hallock a’ traitor because Helen, the ghost, had wanted him to exert his influence and get all his friends and acquaintances to stop using the Ouija Board and Hallock, on the other hand, had joined his wife and her friends in an Ouija Board party.
(e) See Q.9(c), 2014 (I Delhi).

Question.10 Answer the following in 80-100 words:
You are one of the crew. After the mariner kills the albatross, you have to suffer and there is no hope of survival. Write a diary entry of your feelings of regret and remorse.
Or
Imagine you are Michael. Write a diary entry describing your spirit of fellow feeling with which you finally rescued Sebastian.
Answer.
11^th June, 20xx ,
Today, me and my fellow sailors have understood that we have to suffer incessantly because of the ancient mariner’s evil act of killing the innocent albatross and that there is no hope of our survival. The friendly bird’s arrival had enabled us to move away from the land of mist and snow where we were stuck without any sign of life. Then the bird travelled with us bringing us good luck all the while it was with us.
I fail to understand as to why the ancient mariner shot the albatross which was an innocent and friendly bird. The albatross represented goodness and it was our saviour to guide us out of gloom and death. The conditions changed for the worst after our ship moved out of the land of mist and snow. The breeze dropped down and our ships was stuck in the silent sea with not a drop of water to quench our thirst. Now there is nothing we can do but feel a sense of remorse and regret at the ancient mariner’s thoughtless act. This heinous act cannot be undone and we will have to face its repercussions.
Or
18^th April, 20xx
It was actually a spirit of fellow feeling that first led me towards Sebastian’s help and his final rescue. When Sebastian appeared as the second sheriff in the first game some natural instinct and affinity made me follow him instinctively. Despite not knowing who he was I just followed him and did what he said. In each consecutive game that I played thereafter I kept receiving messages from Sebastian and my only aim was to rescue him. When Sebastian sent me an e-mail in which he thanked me for saving his life, we both knew that by reliving the accident something wonderful had happened between the two of us which can be described as a spirit of ‘fellow feeling’.

The post CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English SA2 Delhi – 2016 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English SA2  Delhi – 2015

EnglishScienceMathsSanskritComputer ScienceHindiSocial Science

Time allowed: 3 hours                                                                                               Maximum marks: 70
The Question Paper is divided into three Sections:
Section A – Reading 20 Marks
Section B Writing & Grammar 25 Marks
Section C – Literature 25 Marks

General Instructions:

1.  All questions are compulsory.
2.  You may attempt any Section at a time.
3. All questions of that particular Section must be attempted in the correct order.

SET I

SECTION A – READING
Question.1. Read the following passage:
The hopping kangaroo is a familiar sight in every snapshot relating to Australia. Members of the kangaroo family can be as small as a rat or as big as a man. Kangaroos are found mainly in Australia, Tasmania and New Guinea. Kangaroos which are big-footed marsupials that evolved in Australia use their short front legs like arms. The man-sized kangaroos of Australia are capable of speeding up to 88 km/hr for short distances, their means of locomotion being their powerful hind legs, which carry them over the ground in jumps of 9 m or more at a time.
2. Weighing around 70 kg they have an average life-span of around six to eight years and a maximum lifetime of 20 years. When bothered by predators kangaroos often head for the water, standing submerged to the chest, and attempting to drown the attacker by holding him under water. Another defensive technique is to get their back to a tree and kick at their adversary with their clawed hind feet, sometimes with sufficient force to kill a man. Normally shy animals, they alert other kangaroos to danger by beating on the ground with their hind feet. This loud alarm signal carries over a long distance.
3. The tail is important for kangaroos. It holds them in balance and supports them when they sit or fight against other kangaroos. The kangaroo uses its short legs as arms. With them it scratches itself, cleans its fur and holds branches when it eats leaves. Kangaroos are marsupials and the females carry newborns in a pouch in front of their abdomens. The babies are bom small and climb up into the safety of the pouch. There for the next 225 days or so, they eat, sleep and grow. Once they reach full development they leave the pouch. A young kangaroo that leaves the pouch is called a ‘Joey’. To keep from getting too hot the kangaroos take naps in the afternoon and do most of their grazing at night. But the best stay-cool secret of these creatures is the spit bath! Kangaroos drool and lick saliva all over their faces and bodies to cool down.

Question.1.1. On the basis of your reading of the above passage, complete the following sentences with appropriate words/phrases.
(a) When followed by predators kangaroos submerge …………….. and ……………..
(b) The powerful hind legs help kangaroos to ……………….
(c) Kangaroos are mainly found in Australia and are…………………
(d) They use their front legs to ……………
(e) Kangaroos warn others of danger by …………
(f) The secret of kangaroos to stay cool is ……………..
(h) Before becoming ‘Joeys’ the young ones stay in the ………….. and …………………..
(g) They use their tails to ……………..
Answer. (a) chest-deep in water and attempt to drown the attacker by holding him under water.
(b) kick at their adversary as a defensive technique.
(c) big-footed marsupials who use their short front legs like arms.
(d) scratch themselves, clean their fur and hold branches when they eat leaves.
(e) by beating on the ground with their hind feet.
(f) is the spit bath wherein they drool and lick saliva all over their faces and bodies to cool down.
(g) balance and support them when they sit or fight against other kangaroos.
(h) safety of the pouch of their mothers and eat sleep and grow there, for the next 225 days.

Question.2. Read the passage given below:
1. It is rare to find someone with good technical and communication skills. You can get far ahead of your colleagues if you combine the two early in your career. People will judge, evaluate, promote or block you based on your communication skills. Since habits form by repeating both good and bad forms of communication, learn to observe great communicators and adopt their styles and traits—in written and verbal forms. The art of listening and learning from each and every interaction, is another secret recipe. Develop the subconscious habit of listening to yourself as you speak and know when to pause.
2. Learning what not to say is probably more important than learning what to say. As your career develops, you will realize that the wise speak less. Speak when you have value to add, else refrain. Poorly constructed e-mails with grammatical errors are acceptable between friends, but they should be seriously avoided while communicating formally with your seniors. Avoid any communication in an emotional state when you might say things you will regret later. One unnecessary word uttered at the wrong time or place can ruin a relationship, career or even your life. Such is the power of words. If such a thing happens, you should immediately apologise, else it may haunt you for life.
3. Another problem to overcome is speaking too fast. Since our minds are working faster than our speech, we are inclined to speak fast. This does not necessarily mean that the person hearing it will get it any faster. On the contrary, it is always the reverse. So slow down, think before you speak. “When I get ready to speak to people,” Abraham Lincoln said, ” I spend two-thirds of the time thinking what they want to hear and one-third thinking what I want to say
” Adding humour and wit is also essentia}. But realize that not all jokes are funny and observe certain boundaries. Never say anything that could offend. Remember you are not a comedian who must offend as many people as you can to be witty.

Question.2.1. Answer the following questions briefly.
(a) Why is it necessary to have good communication skills?
(b) How can communication skills be developed?
(c) What according to the writer should be avoided while communicating?
(d) Why should you be careful when you tend to be humorous?
Answer. (a) It is necessary to have good communication skills because they are the basis for
people to judge, evaluate, promote or block you.
(b) Communication skills can be developed by learning to observe great communicators and adopting their styles and traits and by the art of listening and learning from each and every interaction.
(c) According to the writer learning what not to say is more important than learning
what to say. One must speak only when he has value to add or else one should refrain from speaking. .
(d) You should be careful when you tend to be humorous because you need to observe certain boundaries as not all jokes are funny and certain jokes can be offensive.

Question.2.2. Choose the most appropriate meanings of the given words from the options provided:
(a) evaluate
(i) estimate (ii) assume (iii) punish (iv) evolve
(b) trait
(i) treaty (ii) trail (iii) quality (iv) liberty
(c) utter
(i) flatter (ii) speak (iii) rot (iv) unique
(d) haunt
(i) hunt (ii) chant (iii) trouble (iv) avoid
Answer. (a) (i) estimate
(b) (iii) quality
(c) (ii) speak
(d) (iii) trouble

SECTION B – WRITING & GRAMMAR
Question.3. The tourism industry can bring valuable income to the country. Using your ideas along  with ideas from the MCB unit, Travel and Tourism, write a letter to the editor of a popular daily on how the government and the public can boost the development of this industry. Write the letter in 100-120 words. You are Rama/Ram, 4 Rani Road, Ranchi.
Or
The youth of different states should be given a chance to meet one another through national meets and other programmes. Taking ideas from the MCB unit, National Integration and your own ideas write an article in 100-120 words on the topic, Youth and National Integration. You are Ram/Rama.
Answer. Rani Road Ranchi
22nd December, 20xx The Editor The Daily Times Ranchi
Subject: How the government and the public can boost the development of the tourism industry.
Sir
As we all are aware the tourism industry can bring valuable income to the country. Through the medium of your esteemed newspaper I wish to suggest ways on how the government and the public can boost the development of this industry.
The government needs to keep initiating new schemes for the continuous development of the tourism industry. The tourism industry which includes the government at a higher scale and the public at a personal level need to manipulate tourist destinations as not just sightseeing places but as experiences.
So steps need to be taken to make tourist spots replete with tour guides, culinary tours, inter activities for tourists with the cultural heritage of the place. Our country has the privilege of encashing on customized experiences, rare animal sanctuaries, religious pilgrimage places and exotic locations. With this kind of available diversity, the government should focus on how it has something on offer for everyone in all budgets.
I hope you will publish my letter in your newspaper so that the concerned authorities can take up necessary steps to boost the further development of the tourism industry.
Your Sincerely,
Ram
Or
Youth and National Integration
By: Rama
National integration is the urgent need of the hour. Every effort should be made to create emotional integration and a sense of unity especially among the youth so that the very thought process of the youngsters changes.
Schools and colleges should conduct interactive national meets and other such programmes to bring together the youth different states of the country. The youth can do wonders for national integration provided their enthusiasm is harnessed for development in this direction. The youth, who are the future of a country have a pivotal role to play in national integration.
Spirited youngsters can play a great role in the socio-economic regeneration of the society. By channelising the idealism of youngsters in the proper way the task of national integration will become easy and the face and future of our country will become brighter. The youth are the hope of tomorrow and the beacon of future for a nation. So, every nation gives a lot of importance for promoting the value of national integration in them.

Question.4. Write a short story in 150-200 words on the basis of the hints provided.
Ratan was in Goa on a school trip. The teacher asked everyone to play and remain on the seashore ……………….
Or
Hari drove fast. He was already late for office. He had got up late and it was his first day of work …………………..
Answer. ….But for Ratan who was living his dream of fifteen years of being at the sea beach, this
was easier said than done. Despite the teacher’s warning Ratan decided that he had to venture a little further into the sea. It was as if the enthralling sea waves were beckoning him and he kept walking towards the sea to a point where he suddenly realized that he had come quite far and now had to recede without any delay. Just as he turned a huge wave came up from as if nowhere, caught him totally unaware and engulfed him completely. Ratan gasped for breath. He tried to scream but could not. He was being dragged into the sea and there was absolutely nothing he could do to prevent himself from it. He lost consciousness immediately thereafter. He was in a state of oblivion. When he did regain consciousness he felt just too happy to see himself surrounded by concerned but familiar faces. The lifeguard on the beach had rescued him on being alerted by his classmates. He was just too glad to be alive and his teachers and friends were equally happy and relieved to see the faint smile on his face.
Or
…..He could not afford to be late on the first day of his new job. He decided he would drive fast to make up for the time he had lost due to waking up late. But the heavy traffic made it seemingly impossible for him to drive even at an average speed. As he helplessly waited at the over-busy traffic signal he spotted a small girl standing at the pavement with an old woman. They both looked absolutely lost as they waited to cross the very busy road. Hari knew he had to help them. He managed to park his car on one side, got off it and hurriedly went over the other side of the road to assist the ladies. Carefully manoeuvering through the heavy traffic he helped them to cross the road: In return for his assistance he received both gratitude and blessings. He reached office almost an hour late and his anxiety grew ten-fold as his boss summoned him. Awaiting to receive his quota of some unkind remarks, Hari was perplexed when his boss smiled at him and appreciated the kind and thoughtful act he had witnessed him performing that morning at the traffic signal. Hari then remembered the words which his mother always said “No act of kindness no matter how small, is ever wasted.”

Question.5. Fill in the blanks choosing the most appropriate options from the ones given below. Write the answers in your answer-sheet against the correct blank numbers.
There are four trees in the garden, (a) branches sway in the breeze. The children
play (b) the trees. Some of the girls (c) sleeping in the shade of the trees.
(a) (i) There      (ii) Their    (iii) Every     (iv) An
(b) (i) under     (ii) over     (iii) above      (iv) in
(c) (i) is              (ii) was       (iii) are         (iv) have
Answer. (a) (ii) Their
(b) (i) under
(c) (iii) are

Question.6. The following paragraph has not been edited. There is one error in each marked line. Write the error and its correction as shown in the example.
                                                                                         Error Correction
I went to the pool then no one                             e.g. then     when
was there. The place being quiet.                         (a)——-     ——-
A water was still, and the tiled                              (b)——-     ——-
bottom was so white and clean                             (c)——-      ——-
as a bathtub. I was timid for going in alone.   (d)——-     ——-
Answer. (a) being … was
(b) A … the
(c) so … as
(d) for … of

Question.7. Read the dialogue given below and complete the paragraph that follows. Write the correct answer in your answer-sheet against the correct blank numbers.
Doctor Have you got the tests done?
Kama : No, I have not.
Doctor : Get them done today itself.
The doctor asked Kama (a) ……………… He replied that (b) ………………. The doctor asked (c) ………………..
Answer. (a) if he had got the tests done
(b) that he had not
(c) him to get them done that day itself

SECTION C – LITERATURE
Question.8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
‘Were these people pulling his leg? Was the whole thing a gigantic hoax? A meek harmless man like him and they had to drag him into the middle of the city to make a laughing stock out of him.
(a) Who is the speaker?
(b) Why does he think that he is being made a ‘laughing stock’?
(c) What does the word ‘hoax’ mean?
Or
Caesar shall forth; the things that threaten’d me Ne’er look’d on my back; when they shall see The face of Caesar, they are vanished.
(a) Where is Caesar planning to go?
(b) What are the ‘things’ that threaten him?
(c) What does the word ‘vanished’ mean?
Answer. (a) Patol Babu is the speaker.
(b) Patol Babu thinks he is being made a ‘laughing stock’ because his so-called dialogue ,Oh!, was so negligible that he felt insulted and cheated as an actor.
(c) The word ‘hoax’ means ‘deceive or dupe’.
Or
(a) Caesar is planning to go to attend the senate house.
(b) The things that threaten him are the upheavals in heaven and earth and his wife’s nightmares which she considers bad omens.
(c) The word ‘vanished’ means to ‘disappear’.

Question.9. Answer any four cf the following questions in 30-40 words each:
(a) Why did the poet have to wait near the water trough? (Snake)
(b) What did Sebastian write in the final e-mail he sent to Michael?
(c) Why did the wedding guest beat his breast?
(d) What quality of King Ozymandias does the poem reflect?
(e) Why did Cassius tell Brutus not to allow Antony to speak on Caesar’s funeral?
Answer. (a) The poet had to wait near the water trough to let the snake quench his thirst as he had
arrived there before the poet. In all his gentlemanliness, the poet steps aside giving a glimpse of his generosity and consideration.
(b) In the final e-mail that Sebastian sent to Michael he thanked him for saving his life though he said he was not sure how it had happened. He also said they would meet up soon and told him to keep the games as he had earned them.
(c) The Wedding-Guest could hear the sound of the bassoon which signalled the arrival of the bride and meant that the wedding ceremony would begin soon. But he was not able to attend the celebrations and was forced to listen to the mariner’s tale so he beat his breast in utter desperation.
(d) Ozymandias was a conceited king who considered himself to be the greatest of all. He was very proud of his power, glory and position. He refers to himself as ‘king of kings’ thus revealing his arrogance and pretentiousness.
(e) Cassius tells Brutus not to allow Antony to speak on Caesar’s funeral as Cassius knows that Antony is a powerful orator and through his words he can damage their cause and incite the mob against them.

Question.10. How does the lesson, ‘A Shady Plot’ remind us that man has no right to invoke
supernatural powers through Ouija boards, Tarot cards etc. to solve his problems and that one should face life boldly and overcome difficulties using wit and intelligence. Write in 80-100 words.
Or
Respect for all forms of life is an essential value. Unmindful destruction of nature and its creatures deserves just punishment. Write in 80-100 words this essential value as brought out in the poem, ‘The Rime of the Ancient Mariner’.
Answer. There is no doubt that man should use his wit and intelligence to solve his problems and should face life boldly. Resorting to supernatural powers through Ouija boards, Tarot cards is just not correct. ‘A Shady Plot shows us how using such supernatural means can backfire as one has no control over such powers’. Only the weak and meek people resort to these means. These means weaken one’s self confidence and makes him incapable of thinking in a reasonable way, paralyzing will power under their influence. People who do not have confidence and trust in their ability to do hard work, prefer to take the easier way. Invoking of supernatural powers is thus considered a chain reaction that affects people with weak will power.
Or
Respecting all forms of life is an essential value and unmindful and careless destruction of nature and its creatures deserves just punishment. This essential value is aptly brought out in the poem ‘The Rime of the Ancient Mariner’. The old mariner continues to be haunted by a lifetime of guilt on’killing the innocent albatross. His feeling of guilt makes him so restless and uneasy that he is forced to resort to ways like narrating his tale of woe to relieve his guilty conscious. He is also punished by his fellow mariners who remove the cross and hang the albatross around his neck.

Question.11. Attempt the following in 150-200 words.
Bring out the importance of the diary in Anne’s life.
Or
Why does Anne call herself ‘a bundle of contradictions’?
Or
What was the incident of the Frost King? How did it affect Helen?
Or
Write a character sketch of Bishop Brooks as he appears in Helen Keller’s—The Story of My life.
Answer. Anne was given her diary on her thirteenth birthday. She explains that she never had any real friends and her diary named “Kitty” would be her friend in whom she could confide all her thoughts and feelings. Anne’s diary is a journal, a recording of her fears, anxieties, hatred and hopes during her stay at the Secret Annexe. It provides an avenue for Anne to vent her feelings, a friend in whom she can confide. This diary is extremely important to Anne in her long days of isolation and confinement. It relates to the journey of a young girl trying to survive adolescence. It is a chronicle of Anne’s feelings as she tries to make sense of the world around her. Anne matures considerably through the course of her diary entries, moving from detailed account of basic activities to deeper, more profound thoughts about humanity and her own personal nature. Anne’s diary describes her struggles to define herself within a climate of oppression and aggression.
Or
Anne refers to herself as a ‘bundle of contradictions’ only a few days before she and her family are betrayed and deported to concentration camps. These contradictions include the difference between the little girl she is and the adult this horrible situation forces her to be. There is a contradiction between the young and innocent girl, and the beginnings of a young woman who is starting to ask questions as adults would. Then there is the contradiction between the two sides of her personality; the side that is young, joyful and happy which appreciates flirting, a kiss, an embrace and the other pensive, sullen deeper side to herself. Anne thus describes this split within herself. She examines her own psychology thoroughly and finds evidence of an internal contradiction or split personality. She says no one knows about it and that it is her own secret. Her so-called bad side makes others find her ‘insufferable’ and her pure, good and quiet side never appears in public.
Or
Helen wrote the story ‘The Frost King’ which was published by Mr. Anagnos of the Perkins Institution. However, it was discovered that a story similar to it ‘Frost Fairies’ had already been written by Margaret to T. Canby before Helen was bom. The two stories were so much alike in thought and language that it was evident that Margaret Canby’s story had been read to Helen and her story was plagiarism. When Helen was made to understand this she was astonished and grieved and thought she had disgraced herself. She had brought suspicion upon those she loved best. Fear lingered in Helen’s mind after the ‘Frost King’ incident and made her consciously very careful that whatever she wrote was originally hers. She became exceedingly scrupulous about everything she wrote. The thought that what she wrote might not be absolutely her own tormented her. Even later in the midst of writing a paragraph, Helen would say to herself what would happen if it was found that all that she was writing had been written by someone long before. An impish fear clutched her hand and prevented her from writing any more on that day.

SET II

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I.
Question.4. Write a short story in 150-200 words on the basis of the hints provided.
Raghav walked fast. It was getting dark. He then realised that he had lost his way ………………
Or
It was late night. Anjali was about to switch off the light and go to bed when she saw a light outside the window. On close observation she realised that it was a fire …………………
Answer. ……and had probably reached the same spot from where he had started. It had not been
such a great idea to be adventurous and venture alone into the woods leaving behind all his friends and disobeying his teachers who had forewarned all the students not to go into the nearby woods, not far away from their guest house where their school had brought them on a botanical trip. But at that moment Raghav was not really scared of the punishment that would be meted out to him once he reached the guest house. He was scared because if he did not find his way back soon it would get dark and there were no lights to guide him in the darkness. Just then he felt a slight pat on his shoulder and on turning around he saw an old man carrying a lantern. He asked Raghav where he wanted to go and then asked him to follow him. Raghav was apprehensive but decided he had no choice in this matter. In a matter of ten minutes he found himself standing in front of the guest house. He was so happy and as he turned to thank the old man, he was not there. It seemed he had just vanished and Raghav did not even know where to. Totally perplexed and confused Raghav ran to the guest house without wasting any time.
Or
……in the opposite building which seemed to be quite dangerous and massive. She ran out
of her room to look for her parents who were already outside the house and had even informed the fire brigade authorities. Within a matter of a few minutes sirens resounded in the air and four fire engines reached the spot. The firemen almost immediately got into action to control the fire. Anjali had never seen such a sight of total devastation and destruction before. She stood transfixed, as if in stupor, as she witnessed the panic and chaos that heightened with each passing moment. It distressed her to see the lives of so many people in danger, many of whom would be rendered homeless. She then realized how in a matter of a few minutes one’s whole life can change and one does not know what the future has in store for him. As she came back to her room an hour later, she reflected on man’s selfish desire for material things which, if God disposes, can turn to ash. She also understood the importance of leading a good and selfless life, free from ego and greed. One’s whole life can turn upside down in a matter of few minutes.

Question.8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
Patol Babu suddenly felt that he could write a whole thesis on that monosyllabic exclamation. Why had he felt so disheartened when this single word contained a gold-mine of meaning?
(a) Wftiy was Patol Babu disheartened?
(b) Which was the word that contained a ‘gold-mine’?
(c) What does the word ‘monosyllabic’ mean?
Or
How foolish do your fears seem now, Calpumia I am ashamed. I did yield to them.
Give me my robe, for I will go.
(a) Why was Calpurnia afraid?
(b) Where did Caesar decide to go?
(c) What does the word ‘yield’ mean?
Answer. (a) Patol Babu was disheartened when he got to know that all he had got to say as a
dialogue was the monosyllabic expression “Oh”.
(b) The word that contained a gold mine was the monosyllabic expression “Oh”.
(c) The word ‘monosyllabic’ means ‘word with a single sound’.
Or
(a) Calpurnia was afraid because she had witnessed certain ill-omens in her dreams due to which she feared Caesar’s life was in danger.
(b) Caesar decided to go to the senate house.
(c) The word ‘yield’ means ‘concede’ or ‘relent’.

Question.9. Answer any four of the following questions in 30-40 words each:
(a) Why did the poet try to harm the snake?
(b) How did Michael in the last game save Sebastian?
(c) How did the mariners reach the land of ice and snow?
(d) “The hand that mocked them, and the heart that fed”. Whose hand and heart are referred to in this line? Why?
(e) Why did Caesar’s will infuriate the Romans?
Answer. (a) The poet tries to harm the snake because education and social conventions make him
think that the golden brown poisonous snake must be killed and that as a brave man he must undertake the task of killing the snake.
(b) In the last game ‘Warzone’, Michael and Sebastian had to make it to the helicopter to escape. But Sebastian got stuck in a jeep into which a tank crashed. Tumbling Sebastian landed with a thud below the helicopter hatch from where Michael scooped him up and the helicopter safely soared into the sky.
(c) The sea which had earlier been calm turned tyrannous and wild after a storm and the strong winds forced the ship to sail southwards ultimately leading them to the land of the ice and snow. They were surrounded by large masts of ice and their ship could hardly move in the frozen sea.
(d) The hand is of the sculptor and the heart belongs to Ozymandias The sculptor’s hand refers to his skill of reproducing king Ozymandias’ facial expression in stone. Ozymandias’ heart refers to the arrogance of the conceited king who thought himself to be above everyone else.
(e) Caesar’s will infuriates the Romans because Brutus misinterprets it saying that Caesar had become overambitious and had started placing his own interest before that of the country. He was a tyrant who wanted to treat the countrymen as slaves.

SET-III

Note: Except for the following questions, all the remaining questions have been asked in Set-I and Set-II.
Question.4. Write a short story in 150-200 words on the basis of the hints provided.
It was Saturday. Veena got up late. Her parents had gone to office. Veena remembered that she had planned
Or
On reaching back home the old lady opened the door and realised that her house had been
burgled. She immediately called the police
Answer. …….to go for a movie with her friends and had not informed her parents about her plans
the previous night as their outing had been confirmed quite late at night. She had thought she would inform them in the morning but as always she had got up late and they had left for office. She immediately went to call her mother but her phone was not reachable. Her father’s phone was switched off probably because he was attending a meeting scheduled for that morning. Veena was in a fix. She decided she would call her parents on her way to the theatre. She left the house and on her way to the movie hall kept calling her parents persistently. Finally, almost an hour later she was able to speak to her mother. Veena felt so relieved and happy after informing her mother of her plans. At that moment she realized the importance of rising early which she had never been able to because she slept very late at night. The internet and social networking sites kept her awake till late and so she was never able to rise early. Now she had decided that she would make a whole hearted effort to sleep and wake up on time.
Or
….. and on further inspection she realized that the burglar had very cleverly targeted not only her valuable items but had also broken open her secret safe where she kept all her cash and jewellery. She was quite sure that someone who knew the house well was responsible for the theft. When the police arrived she gave them her statement and also told them about her secret safe about which practically no one except her servant Ram Singh knew. The police launched a search for Ram Singh who had not reported for work that day. On reaching his residence they got to know that he had left for his village that very morning as his father was unwell. The police continued their search fof Ram Singh after receiving details about his native place from the ‘servant verification form’ which the old lady had submitted in her local police station when she had appointed Ram Singh. This provided valuable help to the police officials who were able to nab the culprit in a matter of just two days. The old lady was grateful to the police for their help. They in turn appreciated the fact that she had done her duty as a responsible citizen.

Question.8. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:
It is true that he needed money very badly, but what was twenty rupees when measured against the intense satisfaction of a small job done with perfection and dedication?
(a) Why was Patol Babu badly in need of money?
(b) What was the small job which gave him intense satisfaction?
(c) What does the word ‘measured’ mean in the above context?
Or
This was the most unkindest cut of all;
For when the noble Caesar saw him stab,
Ingratitude, more strong than traitors’ arms,
Quite vanquish’d him: then burst his mighty heart;
(a) Who speaks these words?
(b) Whose ingratitude was he referring to?
(c) Why did it break Caesar’s heart?
Answer. (a) Patol Babu badly needed the money because he was jobless and was struggling to make a living.
(b) The small job which gave him intense satisfaction was his negligible role for which he had put in his best and given a wonderful performance.
(c) The word ‘measured’ in the above context means ‘compared to’.
Or
(a) These words are spoken by Mark Antony.
(b) He is referring to Marcus Brutus’ ingratitude.
(c) It broke Caesar’s heart because Marcus Brutus was Caesar’s great friend who had joined hands with the conspirators and betrayed Caesar.

Question.9. Answer any four of the following questions in 30-40 words each:
(a) What were the conflicting thoughts in the poet’s mind on seeing the snake?
(b) Why did Michael arid his father go to the computer fair?
(c) How were the mariners saved from the land of ice and snow?
(d) What did the traveller see in the desert?
(e) How did Antony prove that Caesar was not ambitious?
Answer.(a)The poet experiences conflicting emotions and a dilemma when he sees the snake. The snake’s grace and dignity fascinate him. But education and social conventions tell him that the poisonous snake should be killed, whereas his instinct tells him not to kill that creature which was not harming him.
(b) Michael’s father was crazy about computers. Technology was advancing every day
and his father could not resist any of the new gadgets and mechanical devices that came on the market. He had bought the latest computer which could do anything: paint, play music, create displays. He had also bought many latest psycho-drive games and a virtual reality visor and glove. That is why both of them had gone to the Computer Fair.
(c) After the albatross arrived on their ship the big icebergs surrounding the mariners’ ship cracked and split enabling the helmsman to steer them out of the ice. Then a favourable southwind began to blow and the weather improved considerably. The mariners welcomed the albatross as a good Christian soul who had come to their rescue.
(d) The traveller saw a dilapidated statue in the vast expanse of the desert. Only two legs stood mounted on a very huge and high’ pedestal. The trunk of the statue was nowhere to be seen. Just below the statue he saw its half buried face.
(e) Antony reminds the people that the public treasury was full of wealth charged for the release of slaves whom Caesar brought to Rome as captives. Caesar shared the sorrows of the poor and wept with them and refused the Roman Crown thrice thus proving to the people that Caesar was not ambitious.

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