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SC Scholarship | List, Eligibility, Awards, Application Process

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SC Scholarship 2019: The scheduled caste (SC) students are given SC Scholarships to allow them to pursue their higher studies without any financial constraints. A variety of SC scholarships are provided by the Department of Social Welfare and Empowerment, Government of India, along with their state-level affiliates. The purpose of these scholarships is to provide adequate financial assistance to economically disadvantaged and meritorious students. An SC scholarship is split into the pre-matric, post-matric, national fellowship of Rajiv Gandhi and scholarship from overseas.

This article introduces you to all important SC scholarship information such as the complete list of SC scholarships, their eligibility, the application process, award details, selection criteria, required documents and more.

SC Scholarship – Objectives and Coverage

By providing full financial support, the Scheme seeks to identify and encourage quality education among students belonging to SCs. The program will protect students from SC to follow studies above 12th grade. The system will operate in all schools approved by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

A scholarship will be awarded to SC students who secure admission to the notified institutions to meet the requirements for full tuition fees and non-refundable fees (there will be a ceiling of Rs. 2.00 lakhs per year per student for private sector institutions and Rs. 3.72 lakhs per year per student for private sector flying clubs for commercial pilot training and type rating). Books and stationery @ Rs. 3000/-per year per student and the latest computer with accessories such as UPS, Printer, Multi-media limited to Rs. 45000/-per student as one-time support during the course.

The Institute will provide the award winners with computers and supplies. Alternatively, the Institute may also consider reimbursing the costs of buying the computer from a student. Only Rs. 45,000/-given, the software and accessories are purchased from a reputable manufacturer/supplier. Due to adequate results, the scholarship, if granted, will continue until the course is completed.

SC Scholarships Eligibility

Students from the SC who have obtained admission to the approved institutions in compliance with the requirements specified by the respective institutions shall be eligible for scholarships under the system to the sum of the number of scholarships allotted to the respective institutions. In the case that the amount of admitted students meets the number of awards, the grant will be limited to the highest in the inter-se merit list.

The remaining SC students admitted to the college in various courses shall be eligible as a federally funded scheme for the Post-Matric Scholarship (PMS) administered by this Ministry, given that such students are otherwise eligible for the scheme. In the event that the Institute finds that the number of eligible candidates in the 1st year is less than the number of scholarships allocated to it, the balance scholarships may be offered to students studying in the 2nd, 3rd and 4th year, etc. one of the inter-secondary merits of the results of the previous year, giving priority to those with a higher number of years left to complete their respective course, i.e. 1st year to get priority over the 2nd year and so on.

Thirty percent (30 percent) of the slots allotted to the Institute shall be reserved according to their inter-se merit to deserving SC girl students. In the absence of a sufficient number of girl students, the slots may be allocated according to their merit to deserving by students. Moreover, the 30 million slots as stated above will not include girl students chosen on the basis of their success in the Institute’s overall merit list of SC students.

If there is more than one student with equivalent marks for the last available slot in an institution; priority may be granted to the student with the lowest parental income.

The Scheme’s advantage will not be extended to more than two siblings in a household. Students must send an affidavit in the Institute to this extent and confirm that he/she is not the family’s 3rd sibling who profits from the Program.

The total annual family income ceiling for all sources under the Scheme shall be Rs. 6.00 lakh and the general selection criteria for any institution’s eligible candidates shall be the merit. Furthermore, if there is more than one candidate with equivalent marks for the last available slot in an institution; priority may be granted to the applicant with the lowest parental income.

The scholarship will be paid immediately after a student has obtained entry and has started attending classes. If the student fails to pass the final exam, the scholarship will be cancelled. Nonetheless, he will still be qualifying for the Post-Matric Scholarship.

SC Scholarship List

The following table provides information for SC students in India on all types of scholarships available. You should look for and qualify for a scholarship that suits the criteria within the timeframe defined. You’ll also hear about the amount of SC scholarships that the governments are providing.

ScholarshipNo of ScholarshipTimeline for application
Pre-matric scholarship for SCNAApril
Post-matric scholarship for SCNAApril
Rajiv Gandhi National Fellowship for SC2,000July-October
National Overseas Scholarship for SC100December (once in an academic year)

National Overseas Scholarship for SC

Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India launched the National Overseas Scholarship initiative to support financially constrained SC students/professionals to be able to study abroad through this fellowship. Applications are eligible for applications from students or professionals belonging to the SC category who wish to pursue a master’s or Ph.D. in institutes abroad.

Engineering and management, pure science and applied science, agricultural science and medicine, international trade, accounting finance, humanities, social science, and fine arts are the fields of study covered by this SC scholarship scheme.

Types of allowanceUSUK
Annual maintenance allowanceUSD 15,400GBP 9,900
Research/teaching assistantshipSupplementedSupplemented
ContingencyUSD 1,500GBP 1,100
Incidental journey allowanceUSD 20NA
VISA fees, poll tax, etc.Actual feesActual fees
Air travel, Local travel, etc.As applicableAs applicable

For the actual amount to be paid on the nominee by the Government of India, the chosen applicant will have to conduct a bond on a non-judicial stamp paper before a notary. The candidates are not required to change the course of study or research while making use of the scholarship.

Eligibility

  • Applicants from the SC category may apply.
  • They must be under 35 years of age.
  • In their last examination, applicants must have secured more than 55 percent marks.
  • The annual income from the family should not exceed Rs. 6 Lakh per year.

Application Process

The applicants can follow the steps below to apply online for this SC Scholarship

  • Step – 1: Click here to start the application.
  • Step – 2: To create login details, click the’ Register Yourself ‘ button.
  • Step – 3: Log in to your account once you have registered successfully to proceed with the application.
  • Step – 4: Complete all required details including personal details, details of employment, work details and details of visas.
  • Step – 5: Upload the following documents
    • Caste certificate
    • Birth certificate
    • Photograph of the applicant
    • Scanned signature of the applicant
    • Current address proof
    • Permanent address proof
    • Sheet/degree Qualification
    • Valid document for marks
    • Valid report on entry to the Foreign University
    • Income Certificate of all the family members
    • NOC certificate of the Employer family
  • Step – 6: Apply electronically through the completed application form.

Selection Process

Students who have already been admitted to the academic being applied by an authorized body in that country in one of the accredited foreign universities or institutions. On the basis of the criteria given here, the recruitment and testing committee should make appropriate recommendations.

Pre-Matric Scholarship for SC

This SC scholarship is offered by the Indian Government and implemented by the State Government or territories of the Union (UT). The goal is to provide financial support to Class 9th and 10th students and to reduce their dropout due to lack of funds so that they can continue their higher studies. The amount of financial support that each scholar will receive under this scheme is given under this scheme.

AwardDay scholarsHostellers
Scholarship per month (for 10 months)Rs. 225Rs. 525
Books and Ad-hoc grants per annumRs. 750Rs. 1,000

Eligibility

  • Students should be classified as SC.
  • Parents should not exceed the annual income of Rs. 2.5 Lakh per year.
  • The students should not receive any other central government funds.
  • The applicant should be a regular student recognized by the government or the Central / State Board of Secondary Education in a government school or school.

Application Process

  • Students will submit through the National Science Portal (NSP) or portals of the respective state.
  • Together with the main application, the following documents should be uploaded: passport size photo, self-tested certificate copies, diploma, degree, etc. caste certificate, and income statement.

Post-Matric Scholarship for SC

CourseDay Scholar allowance (for ten months)Hostellers allowance (for ten months)Readers allowance (for blind candidates)
Group 1 – (I) Graduate and postgraduate courses in Medicine, Engineering, Technology, Agriculture, etc. (II) Management and Medicine postgraduate courses. (III) CA / ICWA / CS / ICFA and so on (IV) MPhil, Ph.D. and postdoctoral programsRs. 1,200Rs. 550Rs. 240
Group 2 – Professional degree program, Pharmacy certificate, medical, etc.Rs.820Rs.530Rs.240
Group 3 – Graduate and post-graduate courses not covered by Group 1 and 2Rs.570Rs.300Rs.200
Group 4 – Post matriculation level non-degree courses (10th passed)Rs.380Rs.230Rs.160

The students will also receive reimbursement for non-refundable fees, study tour fees, thesis typing/printing fees, book allowance, and book bank facilities in addition to the maintenance allowance.

Eligibility

  • This scholarship may be applied for/by SC students enrolled in postgraduate or post-secondary courses at recognized institutes/universities/colleges.
  • The parents/guardians’ annual family income should not exceed Rs. 2.5 Lakh per annum

Application Process

  • The application form can be filled out online via the national scholarship portal (NSP) or national portal.
  • Candidates must ensure that they upload scanned required documents such as self-tested certificate copies, diplomas, degrees, etc., and caste certificates & declarations of income.

Rajiv Gandhi National Fellowship for SC

The SC students receive support from the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment for the Rajiv Gandhi National Fellowship or RGNF program. There are 2,000 scholarships awarded annually to students of SC. Students should be enrolled in the University Grants Commission (UGC) recognized universities. The fellowships are for M.Phil and the Ph.D. in particular.

Course nameDurationAmountSubjects
M.Phil2 yearsFor the original 2 years Rs. 25,000 (JRF) Rs. 28,000 (SRF) for the remaining termHumanities, Social science, and Science
P.HD.5 yearsRs. 25,000 (JRF) for the initial two years Rs. 28,000 (SRF) for the remaining tenure Rs. 10,000Engineering and Technology
For the initial two years Rs. 20,500 (for the remaining tenure) Rs. 12,000Contingency for humanities and social science
For the initial two years Rs. 25,000 for the remaining tenure Rs. 3,000 per year per student to the host institutionContingency for science, engineering, technology
Rs. 2,000 per month for students with physical disabilitiesDepartmental assistance

Eligibility

  • Only students from the SC category can apply.
  • You have to get admission in MPhil/Ph. D. University degree or university degree.

Application Process

  • On the official website of the RGNF, students can fill out an online application.
  • There are two sections to the application: (1) personal details (2) educational skills and research experience.
  • Applicants must upload scanned copies of the following documents: mark sheets and certificates of the institution (all in PDF format or JPG format).

FAQ’s on SC Scholarship

Question 1.
Which is the main authority that provides the SC Scholarships?

Answer:
A variety of SC scholarships are provided by the Department of Social Welfare and Empowerment, Government of India, along with their state-level affiliates.

Question 2.
How many different types of SC Scholarships are available currently?

Answer:
An SC scholarship is split into the pre-matric, post-matric, national fellowship of Rajiv Gandhi and scholarship from overseas.

You can also find more Scholarship Articles for 12th passed, 10th passed Students and many more

The post SC Scholarship | List, Eligibility, Awards, Application Process appeared first on Learn CBSE.


Post Matric Scholarship 2019 | Important Dates, Eligibility, Application, and Selection Process 

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Post Matric Scholarship 2019: Post-Matric Scholarship is an initiative of the Ministry of Minority Affairs, Government of India. This scholarship is awarded to the SC, ST, and OBC category students. This scholarship empowers the minority community students from the deprived section of people to undertake education. National Scholarship Portal (NSP) has invited online application for minority community students to provide financial aid under this scheme.

Eligible students can fill and submit their application form on or before 31st October 2019. Govt of India and many State Govt initiated various scholarships under this scheme. 30% of this scholarship reserved for Girl students. Students can check the Post Matric Scholarship Status. Read the article below to know the complete information about Post Matric Scholarship.

Post Matric Scholarship for Minorities

Post Matric Scholarship provided to students for studying in any Govt or Private colleges/universities in India. This scholarship also awarded state-wise to students belonging to minority communities. Students from class 11 to Ph.D. belonging to minority communities can get multiple awards under this scheme. This scholarship offers financial support to students belonging to minority communities for higher education.

Students belong to SC, ST, OBC, Economically Backward Classes (EBC), and Minority Community can get scholarships under this scheme. This scholarship aims to provide financial help to minority community students from lower-income families. Post Matric Scholarship is available in various states of India for SC, ST, and OBC students. These are listed below:

  • Post Matric Scholarship Karnataka
  • Post Matric Scholarship Bihar
  • CG Post Matric Scholarship
  • Post Matric Scholarship Kerala
  • Post Matric Scholarship Odisha
  • Post Matric Scholarship MP
  • Post Matric Scholarship West Bengal
  • Post Matric Scholarship Uttarakhand
  • Post Matric Scholarship Rajasthan
  • Post Matric Scholarship Punjab
  • Post Matric Scholarship Chhattisgarh
  • Post Matric Scholarship Tripura and so forth.

Courses Under Post Matric Scholarship

  • Polytechnic courses
  • Bachelor’s and Master’s Degree courses in Arts, Science & Commerce
  • Diploma Courses (XI & XII)
  • Integrated LAW (BBA, LLB, UG, B.Sc.)
  • Nursing (Auxiliary Nursing And Midwifery UG, GNM)
  • Various Technical & Vocational Courses
  • Research Programmes (D.Pharma, M.phil, P.hd & Rural Development)
  • Diploma Courses of Management & Computer Applications, Unger-graduate, and Postgraduate

Pre Matric Scholarship

Post Matric Scholarship Important Dates

EventsImportant Dates
Start of Post Matric Scholarship ApplicationJuly 15, 2019
Last Date to Submit Post Matric Scholarship ApplicationOctober 31, 2019
Closing Date for Defective VerificationNovember 15, 2019
Closing Date for Institute VerificationNovember 15, 2019

Post Matric Scholarship Eligibility Criteria

  • Both girl and boy candidates who belong to a minority community can apply for this scholarship.
  • Candidates must belong to Indian Citizenship.
  • Class 11th & 12th, UG, PG, M.Phil, Ph.D. or Diploma students are eligible.
  • Candidate’s family income from all sources should not be more than 2 Lakh per annum.
  • Candidates must have secured at least 50% marks in the previous examination.

Post Matric Scholarship Benefits

This scholarship provides financial assistance for admission and course/ tuition fees as well as maintenance allowance. Refer to the below-given benefits:

State Merit Scholarship Benefits

Admission and Tuition feeHostellerDay Scholar (INR)
Class 11-127000 pa7000 pa
technical and vocational courses10000 pa10000 pa
graduation and post-graduation studies3000 pa3000 pa
Maintenance Allowances380-1200 pm230-550 pm

Post Matric Scholarship Amount

ItemHosteller Day Scholar
Admission and tuition fee for classes XI and XII.Actual subject to a maximum ceiling of Rs.7,000 p.a.Actual subject to a maximum ceiling of Rs.7,000 p.a.
Admission and course/ the tuition fee for technical and vocational courses of XI and XII level. (Includes fees/charges for raw materials, etc.)Actual subject to a maximum ceiling of Rs.10,000 p.a.Actual subject to a maximum ceiling of Rs.10,000 p.a.
Admission and tuition fee for under-graduate, postgraduate.Actual subject to a maximum ceiling of Rs.3,000 p.a.Actual subject to a maximum ceiling of Rs.3,000 p.a.
Maintenance allowance for 10 months only in an academic year (Includes expenses for study material, etc.)Rs.380 p.m.Rs.230 p.m.
Classes XI and XII including technical and vocational courses of this level.
Courses other than technical and professional courses at undergraduate and postgraduate levelRs.570 p.m.Rs.300 p.m.
M. Phil and Ph.D.Rs.1200 p.m.Rs.550 p.m.

Post Matric Scholarship Selection Process

A limited number of Post Matric Scholarship for SC Category is available. Students from the lowest income BPL families will be given preference in the ascending order. The renewal applications will be fully devastated before the new applications are considered.

How to Apply Online Post Matric Scholarship Application?

Refer to the following points to fill the Post Matric Scholarship online application form.

  • Go to the official website of NSP – scholarships.gov.in.
  • Click on the ‘Ministry of Minority Affairs’ appeared under the ‘State Schemes’ of the NSP homepage.
  • Read the ‘Post Matric Scholarships Scheme for Minorities Guidelines’ carefully.
  • Then, click on the ‘New Registration’ appeared on the homepage.
  • You will be redirected to the new student registration form instruction page. Read all the instructions mentioned for registration and click on ‘Continue’.
  • Then, you will be redirected to the new student registration form. Fill the correct and valid information in the registration form such as name, email Id, phone number, etc.
  • Enter your correct bank details. An OTP will be sent to your mobile number given at the time of registration.
  • Enter OTP and login to NSP to fill the form.
  • This will generate an application Id and password which can be used for future references.
  • Fill the Post Matric Scholarship application form along with the relevant documents.
  • Submit the Post Matric Scholarship application form and take the printout for future usage.

Post Matric Scholarship Necessary Documents

The following documents should be uploaded along with the application form.

  • Minority community certificate
  • Self- attested Passport size photo with signature
  • Permanent address proof
  • Students Bank Account proof
  • Aadhaar Card
  • Attested copies of mark sheet of previous exams
  • Institution Verification Form
  • Fee Receipt of current course year
  • Income declaration
  • Residential Certificate
  • Domicile certificate, if required

Post Matric Scholarship Renewal Scheme

  • Once the Post Matric Scholarship will be awarded to the students may be renewed during the next academic year. That means during the next academic year course on the production of a certificate.
  • Students who have secured at least 50% of marks in the examination will be allotted for scholarship Renewal.

Post Matric Scholarship Result

The Post Matric Scholarship Result will be announced by the Ministry of Minority Affairs, Government of India. students can check their results on the official website scholarships.gov.in. Shortlisted candidates will be awarded scholarships after the result declaration.

Post Matric Scholarship Terms and Conditions

Refer to the following Post Matric Scholarship terms and conditions:

  • The scholarship can be given to only a maximum of two children in the same family.
  • The scholarship may be canceled in case of a violation of any terms and conditions of the scholarship.
  • The scholarship will be canceled in case it is found that the students have obtained a scholarship by false statement or certificates.
  • The Government of India has the power to change the regulations at any time.
  • Students of 18 years of age have to provide a self-certified community certificate.
  • Transfer from one school/college to another is not allowed for renewal candidates during the period of an academic course.
  • The scholarship awards and allowances will be credited only to the student’s bank account under the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
  • The scholarship provides 100% funding for the scheme. Since this is a Central Sector Scheme.
  • The Ministry has the power to evaluate the scheme at regular intervals.

Post Matric Scholarship Contact Details

In case of any queries/complaints regarding this scholarship students can reach out to the concerned authority using the following details:

AddressMinistry of Minority Affairs, CGO Complex, Paryavaran Bhawan, 11th Floor, Lodhi Road, New Delhi-110003
Phone011-24364279  or 011-24364310
Email IDpostmatric-mma@nic.in
Helpline Number18001122001

FAQ’s on Post Matric Scholarship

Question 1.
What is the Post Matric Scholarship?

Answer:
Post Matric Scholarship is an initiative of the Ministry of Minority Affairs, Government of India. This scholarship offers financial support to students belonging to minority communities for higher education. Students belong to SC, ST, OBC, Economically Backward Classes (EBC), and Minority Community can get scholarships under this scheme.

Question 2.
Is there any reservation for girl candidates under Post Metric Scholarship?

Answer:
Yes, 30% of this scholarship reserved for Girl students. If the required girl students will not be available, then it can be awarded to eligible boy students.

Question 3.
What is the qualification required to apply for Post Matric Scholarship?

Answer:
Class 11th & 12th, UG, PG, M.Phil, Ph.D. or Diploma students are eligible to apply.

Question 4.
What is the deadline to submit the Post Matric Scholarship application?

Answer:
The deadline for submitting this scholarship application is 31st October 2019.

Question 5.
Is the Post Matric Scholarship available for the States in India?

Answer:
Yes, the Post Matric Scholarship is available in various states of India for SC, ST, and OBC students.

Hope this article will help you to know more about Post Matric Scholarship. For any queries related to Post Matric Scholarship, leave it in the comment box.

You can also find more Scholarship Articles for 12th passed, 10th passed Students and many more.

The post Post Matric Scholarship 2019 | Important Dates, Eligibility, Application, and Selection Process  appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Accountancy Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners. Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Accountancy Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Pdf

Select the Best Alternate :
1. Sacrificing Ratio :
(A) New Ratio – Old Ratio
(B) Old Ratio – New Ratio
(C) Old Ratio – Gaining Ratio
(D) Gaining Ratio – Old Ratio

Answer

Answer: B


2. Gaining Ratio :
(A) New Ratio – Sacrificing Ratio
(B) Old Ratio – Sacrificing Ratio
(C) New Ratio – Old Ratio
(D) Old Ratio – New Ratio

Answer

Answer: C


3. A and B were partners in a firm sharing profit or loss equally. With effect from 1st April 2019 they agreed to share profits in the ratio of 4 : 3. Due to change in profit sharing ratio, A’s gain or sacrifice will be :
(A) Gain \frac{1}{14}
(B) Sacrifice \frac{1}{14}
(C) Gain \frac{4}{7}
(D) Sacrifice \frac{3}{7}

Answer

Answer: A


4. A and B were partners in a firm sharing profit or loss equally. With effect from 1st April, 2019 they agreed to share profits in the ratio of 4 : 3. Due to change in profit sharing ratio, B’s gain or sacrifice will be :
(A) Gain \frac{1}{14}
(B) Sacrifice \frac{1}{14}
(C) Gain \frac{4}{7}
(D) Sacrifice \frac{3}{7}

Answer

Answer: B


5. A and B were partners in a firm sharing profit or loss in the ratio of 3 : 5. With effect from 1st April, 2019, they agreed to share profits or losses equally. Due to change in profit sharing ratio, A’s gain or sacrifice will be :
Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners 1

Answer

Answer: B


6. A and B were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1. With effect from 1st January 2019 they agreed to share profits and losses equally. Individual partner’s gain or sacrifice due to change in the ratio will be :
Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners 2

Answer

Answer: B


7. A and B share profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. With effect from 1st . January, 2019, they agreed to share profits equally. Sacrificing ratio and Gaining Ratio will be :
Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners 3

Answer

Answer: C


8. A and B were partners in a firm sharing profit or loss in the ratio of 3 : 1. With effect from Jan. 1, 2019 they agreed to share profit or loss in the ratio of 2 : 1. Due to change in profit-loss sharing ratio, B’s gain or sacrifice will be :
(A) Gain \frac{1}{12}
(B) Sacrifice \frac{1}{12}
(C) Gain \frac{1}{3}
(D) Sacrifice \frac{1}{3}

Answer

Answer: A


9. A, B and C were partners sharing profit or loss in the ratio of 7 : 3 : 2. From Jan. 1,2019 they decided to share profit or loss in the ratio of 8 : 4 : 3. Due to change in the profit-loss sharing ratio, B’s gain or sacrifice will be :
(A) Gain \frac{1}{60}
(B) Sacrifice \frac{1}{60}
(C) Gain \frac{2}{60}
(D) Sacrifice \frac{3}{60}

Answer

Answer: A


10. A y and Z are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. The partners decide to share future profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2:1. Each partner’s gain or sacrifice due to change in the ratio will be :
Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners 4

Answer

Answer: D


11. A, B and C were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. The partners decide to share future profits and losses in the ratio of 2:2:1. Each partner’s gain or sacrifice due to change in ratio will be :
Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners 5

Answer

Answer: A


12. A, B and C were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. The partners decide to share future profits and losses in the ratio of 2:2: 1. Each partner’s gain or sacrifice due to change in the ratio will be :
Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners 6

Answer

Answer: C


13. A, B and C were partners in a lirm sharing profits in 4 : 3 : 2 ratio. They decided to share future profits in 4 : 3 : 1 ratio. Sacrificing ratio and gaining ratio will be :
Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners 7

Answer

Answer: D


14. X, Y and Z were partners sharing profits in the ratio 2:3:4 with effect from 1st January, 2019 they agreed to share profits in the ratio 3:4:5. Each partner’s gain or sacrifice due to change in the ratio will be :
Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners 8

Answer

Answer: A


15. X, 7 and Z were in partnership sharing profits in the ratio 4 : 3 : 1. The partners agreed to share future profits in the ratio 5 : 4 : 3. Each partner’s gain or sacrifice due to change in ratio will be :
Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners 9

Answer

Answer: A


16. A, B and C are equal partners in the firm. It is now agreed that they will share the future profits in the ratio 5:3:2. Sacrificing ratio and gaining ratio of different partners will be :
Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners 10

Answer

Answer: C


17, The excess amount which the firm can get on selling its assets over and above the saleable value of its assets is called :
(A) Surplus
(B) Super profits
(C) Reserve
(D) Goodwill

Answer

Answer: D


18. Which of the following is NOT true in relation to goodwill?
(A) It is an intangible asset
(B) It is fictitious asset
(C) It has a realisable value
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: B


19. When Goodwill is not purchased goodwill account can :
(A) Never be raised in the books
(B) Be raised in the books
(C) Be partially raised in the books
(D) Be raised as per the agreement of the partners

Answer

Answer: A


20. The Goodwill of the firm is NOT affected by : (CPT; June 2011)
(A) Location of the firm
(B) Reputation of firm
(C) Better customer service
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: D


21. Capital employed by a partnership firm is ₹5,00,000. Its average profit is ₹60,000. The normal rate of return in similar type of business is 10%. What is the amount of super profits? (C.S. Foundation, Dec., 2012)
(A) ₹50,000
(B) ₹10,000
(C) ₹6,000
(D) ₹56,000

Answer

Answer: B


22. Weighted average method of calculating goodwill is used when : (CPT; June 2009)
(A) Profits are not equal
(B) Profits show a trend
(C) Profits are fluctuating
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: B


23. The profits earned by a business over the last 5 years are as follows : ₹12,000; ₹13,000; ₹14,000; ₹18,000 and ₹2,000 (loss). Based on 2 years purchase of the last 5 years profits, value of Goodwill will be :
(A) ₹23,600
(B) ₹22,000
(C) ₹1,10,000
(D) ₹1,18,000

Answer

Answer: B


24. The average profit of a business over the last five years amounted to ₹60,000. The normal commercial yield on capital invested in such a business is deemed to be 10% p.a. The net capital invested in the business is ₹5,00,000. Amount of goodwill, if it is based on 3 years purchase of last 5 years superprofits will be :
(A) ₹1,00.000
(B) ₹1,80,000
(C) ₹30.000
(D) ₹1,50,000

Answer

Answer: C


25. Under the capitalisation method, the formula for calculating the goodwill is : (CPT; Dec. 2011)
(A) Super profits multiplied by the rate of return
(B) Average profits multiplied by the rate of return
(C) Super profits divided by the rate of return
(D) Average profits divided by the rate of return

Answer

Answer: C


26. The net assets of a firm including fictitious assets of ₹5,000 are ₹85,000. The net liabilities of the firm are ₹30,000. The normal rate of return is 10% and the average profits of the firm are ₹8,000. Calculate the goodwill as per capitalisation of super profits.
(A) ₹20,000
(B) ₹30,000
(C) ₹25,000
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: B


27. Total Capital employed in the firm is ₹8,00,000, reasonable rate of return is 15% and Profit for the year is ₹12,00,000. The value of goodwill of the firm as per capitalization method would be : (C.S. Foundation, June 2013)
(A) ₹82,00,000
(B) ₹12,00,000
(C) ₹72,00,000
(D) ₹42,00,000

Answer

Answer: C


28. The average capital employed of a firm is ?4,00,000 and the normal rate of return is 15%. The average profit of the firm is ?80,000 per annum. If the . remuneration of the partners is estimated to be ? 10,000 per annum, then on the basis of two years purchase of super-profit, the value of the Goodwill will be :
(A) ₹10,000
(B) ₹20,000
(C) ₹60,000
(D) ₹80,000

Answer

Answer: B


29. A firm earns ₹1,10,000. The normal rate of return is 10%. The assets of the firm amounted to ₹11,00,000 and liabilities to ₹1,00,000. Value of goodwill by capitalisation of Average Actual Profits will be : (C.S. Foundation Dec., 2012)
(A) ₹2,00,000
(B) ₹10,000
(C) ₹5,000
(D) ₹1,00,000

Answer

Answer: D


30. Capital invested in a firm is ₹5,00,000. Normal rate of return is 10%. Average profits of the firm are ₹64,000 (after an abnormal loss of ?4,000). Value of goodwill at four times the super profits will be :
(A) ₹72,000
(B) ₹40,000
(C) ₹2,40,000
(D) ₹1,80,000

Answer

Answer: A


31. P and Q were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. They decided that with effect from 1st January, 2019 they would share profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3. Goodwill is valued at ? 1,28,000. In adjustment entry :
(A) Cr. P by ₹3,200; Dr. Q by ₹3,200
(B) Cr. P by ₹37,000; Dr. Q by ₹37,000
(C) Dr. P by ₹37,000; Cr. Q by ₹37,000
(D) Dr. P by ₹3,200 Cr. Q by ₹3,200

Answer

Answer: D


32. A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2 decided to share profits equally. Goodwill of the firm is valued at ? 10,800. In adjusting entry for goodwill :
(A) A’s Capital A/c Cr. by ₹4,800; B’s Capital A/c Cr. by ₹3,600; C’s Capital A/c Cr. by ₹2,400.
(B) A’s Capital A/c Cr. by ₹3,600; B’s Capital A/c Cr. by ₹3,600; C’s Capital A/c Cr. by ₹3,600.
(C) A’s Capital A/c Dr. by ₹1,200; C’s Capital A/c Cr. by ₹1,200;
(D) A’s Capital A/c Cr. by ₹1,200; C’s Capital A/c Dr. by ₹1,200

Answer

Answer: D


33. A, B and C were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 7 : 3 : 2. From 1st January, 2019 they decided to share profits and losses in the ratio of 8:4:3. Goodwill is ₹1,20,000. In Adjustment entry for goodwill:
(A) Cr. A by ₹6,000; Dr. B by ?2,000; Dr. C by ₹4,000
(B) Dr. A by ₹6,000; Cr. B by ?2,000; Cr. C by ₹4000
(C) Cr. A by ₹6,000; Dr. B by ?4,000; Dr. C by ₹2,000
(D) Dr. A by ₹6,000; Cr. B by ?4,000; Cr. C by ₹2,000

Answer

Answer: A


34. P, Q and R were partners in a firm sharing profis in 5 : 3 : 2 ratio. They decided to share the future profits in 2 : 3 : 5. For this purpose the goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹1,20,000. In adjustment entry for the treatment of goodwill due to change in the profit sharing ratio :
(A) Cr. P by ₹24,000; Dr. R by ₹24,000
(B) Cr. P by ₹60,000; Dr. R by ₹60,000
(C) Cr. P by ₹36,000; Dr. R by ₹36,000
(D) Dr. P by ₹36,000; Cr. R by ₹36,000

Answer

Answer: C


35. A, B and C are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 1. They decided to share profits equally w.e.f. 1 st April, 2019. On that date the Profit and Loss Account showed the credit balance of ?96,000. Instead of closing the Profit and Loss Account, it was decided to record an adjustment entry reflecting the change in profit sharing ratio. In the journal entry :
(A) Dr. A by ₹4,000; Dr. B by ₹16,000; Cr. C by ₹20,000
(B) Cr. A by ₹4,000; Cr. B by ₹16,000; Dr. C by ₹20,000
(C) Cr. A by ₹16,000; Cr. B by ₹4,000; Dr. C by ₹20,000
(D) Dr. A by ₹16,000; Dr. B by ₹4,000; Cr. C by ₹20,000

Answer

Answer: B


36. A, B and C are partner sharing profits in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. On 1-4-2019 they decided to share the profits equally. On the date there was a credit balance of ? 1,20,000 in their Profit and Loss Account and a balance of ? 1,80,000 in General Reserve Account. Instead of closing the General Reserve Account and Profit and Loss Account, it is decided to record an adjustment entry for the same. In the necessary adjustment entry to give effect to the above arrangement:
(A) Dr. A by ₹50,000; Cr. B by ₹50,000
(B) Cr. A by ₹50,000; Dr. B by ₹50,000
(C) Dr. A by ₹50,000; Cr. Cby ₹50,000
(D) Cr. A by ₹50,000; Dr. Cby ₹50,000

Answer

Answer: C


37. X, Y and Z are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2. Their Balance Sheet as at 31-3-2019 showed a debit balance of Profit & Loss A/c ₹1,80,000. From 1-4-2019 they will share profits equally. In the necessary journal entry to give effect to the above arrangement when A Y and Z decided not to close the Profit & Loss Acccount:
(A) Dr. X by ₹20,000; Cr. Z by ₹20,000
(B) Cr. X by ₹20,000; Dr. Z by ₹20,000
(C) Dr. X by ₹40,000; Cr. Z by ₹40,000
(D) Cr. X by ₹40,000; Dr. Z by ₹40,000

Answer

Answer: A


38. Aran and Varan are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4 : 3. Their Balance Sheet showed a balance of ? 5 6,000 in the General Reserve Account and a debit balance of ? 14,000 in Profit and Loss Account. They now decided to share the future profits equally. Instead of closing the General Reserve Account and Profit and Loss Account, it is decided to pass an adjustment entry for the same. In adjustment entry :
(A) Dr. Aran by ₹3,000; Cr. Varan by ₹3,000
(B) Dr. Aran by ₹5,000; Cr. Varan by ₹5,000
(C) Cr. Aran by ₹5,000; Dr. Varan by ₹5,000
(D) Cr. Aran by ₹3,000; Dr. Varan by ₹3,000

Answer

Answer: D


39. X, Y and Z are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. They decided to share future profits equally. The Profit and Loss Account showed a Credit balance of ₹60,000 and a General Reserve of ₹30,000. If these are not to be shown in balance sheet, in the journal entry :
(A) Cr. X by ₹15,000: Dr. Z by ₹15,000
(B) Dr. X by ₹15,000; Cr. Z by ₹15,000
(C) Cr. X by ₹45,000; Cr. Y by ₹30,000; Cr. Z by ₹15,000
(D) Cr. X by ₹30,000; Cr. Y by ₹30,000; Cr. Z by ₹30,000

Answer

Answer: C


40. X Y and Z are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 5 : 3 : 2. They decide to share the future profits in the ratio 3 : 2 : 1. Workmen compensation reserve appearing in the balance sheet on the date if no information is available for the same will be :
(A) Distributed to the partners in old profit sharing ratio
(B) Distributed to the partners in new profit sharing ratio
(C) Distributed to the partners in capital ratio
(D) Carried forward to new balance sheet without any adjustment

Answer

Answer: A


41. Any change in the relationship of existing partners which results in an end of the existing agreement and enforces making of a new agreement is called (C.B.S.E. Sample Paper, 2015)
(A) Revaluation of partnership.
(B) Reconstitution of partnership.
(C) Realization of partnership.
(D) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: B


We hope the given Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Change in Profit Sharing Ratio among the Existing Partners MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 3 Admission of a Partner

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Accountancy Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 3 Admission of a Partner. Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Accountancy Admission of a Partner MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Admission of a Partner Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Pdf

Choose the Best Alternate :
1. A new partner may be admitted into a partnership :
(A) With the consent of any one partner
(B) With the consent of majority of partners
(C) With the consent of all old partners
(D) With the consent of 2/3rd of old partners

Answer

Answer: C


2. On the admission of a new partner :
(A) Old firm is dissolved
(B) Old partnership is dissolved
(C) Both old partnership and firm are dissolved
(D) Neither partnership nor firm is dissolved

Answer

Answer: B


Calculation of New Profit Sharing Ratios :
3. A and B are partners sharing profit in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admit C as a partner by giving him 1/3 share in future profits. The new ratio will be : (C.S. Foundation, Dec., 2012)
(A) 12 : 8 : 5
(B) 8: 12 : 5
(C) 5 : 5 : 12
(D) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: D


4. X and Y are partners sharing profit in the ratio of 3 : 2. Z was admitted with 1/4 share in profits which he acquires equally from X and Y. The new ratio will be:
(A) 9 : 6 : 5
(B) 19 : 11 : 10
(C) 3 : 3 : 2
(D) 3 : 2 : 4

Answer

Answer: B


5. A and B share profits in the ratio of 2 : 1. C is admitted with 1/4 share in profits. C acquires 3/4 of his share from A and 1/4 of his share from B. The new ratio will be:
(A) 2 : 1 : 1
(B) 23 : 13 : 12
(C) 3 : 1 : 1
(D) 13 : 23 : 12

Answer

Answer: B


6. B and N are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admit S as a partner for l/4th share in the profits. S acquires his share from B and N in the ratio of 2 : 1. The new profit-sharing ratio will be :
(A) 2:1:4
(B) 19:26: 15
(C) 3:2:4
(D) 26 : 19 : 15

Answer

Answer: D


7. A and B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 7 : 5. They agree to admit C, their manager, into partnership who is to get 1/6th share in the profits. He acquires this share as 1/24th from A and 1/8th from B, The new profit sharing ratio will be :
(A) 13 : 7 : 4
(B) 7 : 13 : 4
(C) 7 : 5 : 6
(D) 5 : 7 : 6

Answer

Answer: A


8. A and B share profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. They agreed to admit C on the condition that A will sacrifice \frac{3}{25}th of his share of profit in favour of C and B will sacrifice \frac{1}{25}th of his profits in favour of C. The new profit sharing ratio will be :
(A) 12 : 9:4
(B) 3 : 2 : 4
(C) 66 : 48 : 11
(D) 48 : 66 : 11

Answer

Answer: C


9. A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. A new partner C is admitted. A surrenders 1/15th share of his profit in favour of C and B surrenders 2/15th of his share in favour of C. The new ratio will be :
(A) 8 : 4 : 3
(B) 42 : 26 : 7
(C) 4 : 8 : 3
(D) 26 : 42 : 7

Answer

Answer: B


10. A and B are partners sharing profit or loss in the ratio of 4 : 1. A surrenders 1/4 of his share and B surrenders 112 of his share in favour of C, a new partner. What will be the C’s share?
Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 3 Admission of a Partner 1

Answer

Answer: D


11. A and B are partners in a business sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 7 : 3 respectively. They admit C as a new partner. A sacrificed 1/7th share of his profit and B sacrificed 1/3rd of his share in favour of C. The new profit sharing ratio of A, B and C will be : (C.S. Foundation, June, 2013)
(A) 3 : 1 : 1
(B) 2 : 1 : 1
(C) 2 : 2 : 1
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: A


12. A and B are partners sharing profit or loss in the ratio of 3 : 2. C is admitted into partnership as a new partner. A sacrifices 1/3 of his share of B sacrifices 1/4 of his share in favour of C. What will be the C’s share in the firm?
Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 3 Admission of a Partner 2

Answer

Answer: C


13. A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 3. C is admitted for 1/5 share in the profits of the firm. If C gets it wholly from A, the new profit sharing ratio after C’s admission will be :
(A) 1 : 3 : 3
(B) 3 : 1 : 1
(C) 2 : 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 3 : 1

Answer

Answer: D


14. A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4 : 3. They admitted C as a new partner who gets 1/5th share of profit, entirely from A. The new profit sharing ratio will be :
(A) 20 : 8 : 7
(B) 13 : 15 : 15
(C) 13 :15:7
(D) 15 : 13 : 5

Answer

Answer: C


15. A, B, C, D are in partnership sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 9 : 6 : 5 : 5. E joins the partnership for 20% share. A. B, C and D would in future share profits among themselves as 3/10 : 4/10 : 2/10 : 1/10. The new profit sharing ratio will be:
(A) 3:4:2: 1:5
(B)9:6:5:5:5
(C) 6 : 8 : 4 : 2 : 5
(D) 8 : 6 : 4 : 2 : 5

Answer

Answer: C


16. A and B are in partnership sharing profits and losses as 3 : 2. C is admitted for 1/4th share. Afterwards, D enters for 20 paisa in the rupee. The new profit sharing ratio after D’s admission will be :
(A) 9 : 6 : 5 : 5
(B) 6 : 9 : 5 : 5
(C) 3 : 2 : 4 : 5
(D) 3 : 2 : 5 : 5

Answer

Answer: A


Calculation of Sacrificing Ratio :
17. The formula for calculating the sacrificing ratio is :
(A) New share – Old share
(B) Old share – New share
(C) (iaining Ratio – Old Ratio
(D) Old Ratio – Gaining Ratio

Answer

Answer: B


18. X and Y are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. Z is admitted as a partner. Calculate sacrifi cing ratio if new profit sharing ratio is 9 : 7 : 4.
(A) 3 : 1
(B) 3 : 2
(C) 1:3
(D) 9 : 7

Answer

Answer: A


19. A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3. A surrenders \frac{1}{4}th of his share and B surrenders \frac{1}{5} of his share in favour of C, a new partner. What is the sacrificing ratio?
(A) 4 : 5
(B) 5 : 4
(C) 12 : 25
(D) 25 : 12

Answer

Answer: D


20. A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 11 : 4. C was admitted. A surrendered \frac{1}{11}th of his share and B\frac{1}{4} of his share in favour of C. The sacrificing ratio will be :
(A) 11 : 4
(B) 1 : 1
(C) 4:11
(D) 7 : 4

Answer

Answer: B


21. P and Q are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 9 : 7. R is admitted as a partner with \frac{9}{20}th share in the profits, which he takes \frac{1}{5}th from P and \frac{1}{4}th from Q Sacrificing ratio will be :
(A) 5 : 4
(B) 9 : 7
(C) 7 : 9
(D) 4 : 5

Answer

Answer: D


22. A, B and C are partners sharing in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 3. They admit D for \frac{1}{7}th share. It is agreed that B would retain his original share. Sacrificing ratio will be :
(A) A, B and C — 5 : 4 : 3
(B) A and C — 4 : 3
(C) A and C — 5 : 4
(D) Z and C — 5 : 3

Answer

Answer: D


23. A and B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 4. C is admitted for \frac{1}{5}th share. A and B decide to share equally in future. Sacrificing
ratio will be :
(A) 5 : 4
(B) 2 : 7
(C) 7 : 2
(D) 1 : 1

Answer

Answer: C


24. A and B are partners. They admit C for \frac{1}{3}rd share. In future the ratio between A and B would be 2 : 1. Sacrificing ratio will be :
(A) 2 : 1
(B) 1 : 1
(C) 5:1
(D) 1 : 5

Answer

Answer: D


Treatment of Goodwill :
25. A and B are partners sharing profits and losses as 2 : 1. C is admitted and profit sharing ratio becomes 4 : 3 : 2. Goodwill is valued at ₹94,500. C brings required goodwill in cash. Goodwill amount will be Credited to :
(A) A ₹14,000 and B ₹7,000
(B) A ₹12,000 and B ₹9,000
(C) A ₹21,000
(D) A ₹94,500

Answer

Answer: C


26. X and 7 are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admit Z into partnership with \frac{1}{5}th share in profits which he acquires equally from A and Y. Z brings in ₹40,000 as goodwill in cash. Goodwill amount will be credited to :
(A) X ₹20,000; Y ₹20,000
(B) X ₹25,000; Y ₹15,000
(C) X ₹24,000; T ₹16,000
(D) X ₹4,000; Y ₹4,000

Answer

Answer: A


27. A and B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. C is admitted into partnership for \frac{1}{5}th share in profit. He pays ₹1,00,000 as goodwill. The ratio of the partners A, B and C in the new firm would be 3 : 1 : 1. Goodwill will be credited to:
(A) Only A ₹1,00,000
(B) Only B ₹1,00,000
(C) A ₹60,000; B ₹40,000
(D) A ₹75,000; B ₹25,000

Answer

Answer: B


28. A and B are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 1. C is admitted as a partner. A and B surrender \frac{1}{2} of their respective share in favour of C. C is to bring his share of premium for goodwill in cash. The goodwill of the firm is estimated at ? 60,000. Credit will be given to :
(A) A ₹15,000; B ₹15,000
(B) A ₹40,000; B ₹20,000
(C) A ₹30,000; B ₹30,000
(D) A ₹20,000; B ₹10,000

Answer

Answer: D


29. P and S are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. R is admitted with \frac{1}{5}th share and he brings in ₹84,000 as his share of goodwill which is Credited to the Capital Accounts of P and S respectively with ₹63,000 and ₹21,000. New profit sharing ratio will be :
(A) 3 : 1 : 5
(B) 9 : 7 : 4
(C) 3 : 2 : 5
(D) 7 : 9 : 4

Answer

Answer: B


30. Partners A, B and C share the profits of a business in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1 respectively. They admit D who brings in ₹60,000 for his share of goodwill. A, B, C and D decide to share the profits respectively in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2 : 2. Credit will be given to :
(A) A ₹6,000; B ₹6,000
(B) A ₹30,000; B ₹18,000; C ₹12,000
(C) A ₹30,000; B ₹20,000; C ₹10,000
(D) A ₹30,000; B ₹30,000

Answer

Answer: D


31. A and B are partners sharing profits and losses as 2 : 1. C and D are admitted and profit sharing ratio becomes 3 : 2 : 4 : 1. Goodwill is valued at ?90,000. C and D bring required goodwill in Cash. Credit will be given to :
(A) A ₹30,000; B ₹15,000
(B) A ₹66,000; B ₹24,000
(C) A ₹33,000; B ₹12,000
(D) A ₹27,000; B ₹18,000

Answer

Answer: C


32. A and B are partners sharing profits and losses in 3 : 2. They admit C into partnership for \frac{3}{30}th share in the profits. A surrenders \frac{1}{3}rd of his share and B surrenders \frac{1}{4}th of his share in favour of C. Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹3,00,000 but C is unable to bring his share of goodwill in cash. Credit will be given to :
(A) A ₹54,000; B ₹36,000
(B) A ₹60,000; B ₹30,000
(C) A ₹2,00,000; B ₹1,00,000
(D) A ₹1,80,000; 5 ₹1,20,000

Answer

Answer: B


33. A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 7 : 5. C is admitted into the partnership for \frac{1}{6}th share which he acquires \frac{1}{24}th from A and \frac{1}{8}th from B. C does not pay anything for his share of goodwill. On C’s admission firm’s goodwill was valued at ₹1,80,000. Credit will be given to :
(A) A ₹22,500; B ₹7,500
(B) A ₹7,500; B ₹22,500
(C) A ₹45,000; B ₹1,35,000
(D) A ₹1,35,000; B ₹45,000

Answer

Answer: B


34. X and Y are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 3. They admitted Z as a new partner. The new profit sharing ratio will be 4 : 3 : 2. The firm’s goodwill on Z’s admission was valued at ₹1,26,000. But Z could not bring any amount of goodwill in Cash. Credit will be given to :
(A) X ₹17,500; Y ₹10,500
(B) X ₹16,000; Y ₹12,000
(C) X ₹22,750; Y ₹5,250
(D) A ₹1,02,375; Y ₹23,625

Answer

Answer: C


35. A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admit C into the partnership with \frac{1}{4}th share in future profits. The new profit sharing ratio is 5 : 4 : 3. The firm’s goodwill on C’s admission was valued at ₹1,44,000. But C could not bring any amount for goodwill in Cash. Credit will be given to :
(A) A ₹80,000; B ₹64,000
(B) A ₹20,000; B ₹16,000
(C) A ₹1,05,600; B ₹38,400
(D) A ₹26,400; B ₹9,600

Answer

Answer: D


36. P, Q and R share profits in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. S is entitled for \frac{1}{5}th share in profits which he acquires equally from P, Q and R. Goodwill of the firm is to be valued at three year’s purchase of last four year’s profits which are ₹50,000; ₹60,000; (-) ₹30,000 and ₹40,000. S cannot bring his share of goodwill in cash. Credit will be given to :
(A) P ₹30,000; Q ₹30,000; R ₹30,000
(B) P ₹6,000; Q ₹6,000; R ₹6,000
(C) P ₹45,000; Q ₹27,000; R ₹18,000
(D) P ₹9,000; Q ₹9,000; R ₹9,000

Answer

Answer: B


37. When a new partner brings his share of goodwill in cash, the amount is debited to:
(A) Goodwill A/c
(B) Capital A/c of the new partner
(C) Cash A/c
(D) Capital A/cs of the old partners

Answer

Answer: C


38. When a new partner does not bring his share of goodwill in cash, the amount is debited to :
(A) Cash A/c
(B) Premium A/c
(C) Current A/c of the new partner
(D) Capital A/cs of the old partners

Answer

Answer: C


39. If at the time of admission, some profit and loss account balance appears in the books, it will be transferred to : (CPT; Dec. 2011)
(A) Profit & Loss Adjustment Account
(B) All partners’ Capital Accounts
(C) Old partners’ Capital Accounts
(D) Revaluation Account

Answer

Answer: C


40. If at the time of admission, there is some unrecorded liability, it will be :
(A) Debited to Revaluation Account
(B) Credited to Revaluation Account
(C) Debited to Goodwill Account
(D) Credited to partners’ Capital Accounts

Answer

Answer: A


41. If the new partner brings his share of goodwill in cash, it will be shared by old partners in :
(A) Ratio of sacrifice
(B) Old profit sharing ratio
(C) New profit sharing ratio
(D) In Capital ratio

Answer

Answer: A


42. A and B share profits and losses equally. They have ₹20,000 each as capital. They admit C as equal partner and goodwill was valued at ₹30,000. C is to bring in ₹30,000 as his capital and necessary cash towards his share of goodwill. Goodwill Account will not remain open in books. If profit on revaluation is ₹13,000, find the closing balance of the capital accounts.
(A) ₹31,500; ₹31,500; ₹30,000
(B) ₹31,500; ₹31,500; ₹20,000
(C) ₹26,500; ₹26,500; ₹30,000
(D) ₹20,000; ₹20,000; ₹30,000

Answer

Answer: A


43. In the absence of an express agreement as to who will contribute to new partners’ share of profi t, it is implied that the old partners will contribute :
(A) Equally
(B) In the ratio of their capitals
(C) In their old profit sharing ratio
(D) In the gaining ratio

Answer

Answer: C


44. When a new partner brings goodwill in Cash, it is credited to :
(A) His Capital A/c
(B) Sacrificing Partner’s Capital A/cs
(C) Old Partner’s Capital A/cs
(D) All Partner’s Capital A/cs

Answer

Answer: B


45. If the incoming partner brings the amount of goodwill in Cash and also a balance exists in goodwill account, then this goodwill account is written off among the old partners in
(A) The new profit sharing ratio
(B) The old profit sharing ratio
(C) The sacrificing ratio
(D) The gaining ratio

Answer

Answer: B


46. If, at the time of admission, the revaluation A/c shows a profit, it should be credited to :
(A) Old partners capital accounts in the old profit sharing ratio.
(B) All partners capital accounts in the new profit sharing ratio.
(C) Old partners capital accounts in the new profit sharing ratio.
(D) Old partners capital accounts in the sacrificing ratio.

Answer

Answer: A


47. Revaluation Account or Profit and Loss Adjustment A/c is a
(A) Real Account
(B) Personal Account
(C) Nominal Account
(D) Asset Account

Answer

Answer: C


48. In case of admission of a partner, the entry for unrecorded investments will be:
(A) Debit Partners Capital A/cs and Credit Investments A/c
(B) Debit Revaluation A/c and Credit Investment A/c
(C) Debit Investment A/c and Credit Revaluation A/c
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: C


49. When the balance sheet is prepared after the new partnership agreement, the assets and liabilities are recorded at:
(A) Historical cost
(B) Current cost
(C) Realisable value
(D) Revalued figures

Answer

Answer: D


50. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at ₹30,000. It is appearing in the books at ₹12,000. C is admitted for 1/4 share. What amount he is supposed to bring for goodwill?
(A) ₹3,000
(B) ₹4,500
(C) ₹7,500
(D) ₹10,500

Answer

Answer: C


51. A and B are partners of a partnership firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. C was admitted for 1/5th share of profit. Machinery would be appreciated by 10% (book value ₹80,000) and building would be depreciated by 20% (₹2,00,000). Unrecorded debtors of ₹1,250 would be brought into books now and a creditor amounting to ₹2,750 died and need not pay anything on this account. What will be profit/loss on revaluation?
(A) Loss ₹28.000
(B) Loss ₹40,000
(C) Profits ₹28,000
(D) Profits ₹40,000

Answer

Answer: A


52. X and Y are partners sharing profits in the ratio 5:3. They admitted Z for 1/5th profits, for which he paid ₹60,000 against capital and ₹30,000 against goodwill. Find the capital balance for each partner taking Z’s capital as base capital.
(A) ₹1,50,000; ₹60,000 and ₹60,000
(B) ₹1,50,000; ₹60,000 and ₹90,000
(C) ₹1,50,000; ₹90,000 and ₹60,000
(D) ₹1,50,000; ₹90,000 and ₹90,000

Answer

Answer: C


53. Ramesh and Suresh are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 1 respectively. Ramesh Capital is ₹1,02,000 and Suresh Capital is ₹73,000. They admit Mahesh and agree to give him 1/5th share in future profit. Mahesh brings ₹14,000 as his share of goodwill. He agrees to contribute capital in the new profit sharing ratio. How much capital will be brought by Mahesh? (C.S. Foundation, June 2013)
(A) ₹43,750
(B) ₹45,000
(C) ₹47,250
(D) ₹48,000

Answer

Answer: C


54. A and B are partners in a firm having capital balances of ₹54,000 and ?36,000 respectively. They admit C in partnership for 1/3rd share and C is to bring proportionate amount of capital. The capital amount of C would be : (C.S. Foundation, Dec. 2012)
(A) ₹90,000
(B) ₹45,000
(C) ₹5,400
(D) ₹36,000

Answer

Answer: B


55. A and B are in partnership sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. They take C as a new partner. Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹3,00,000 and C brings ₹30,000 as his share of goodwill in cash which is entirely credited to the Capital Account of A. New profit sharing ratio will be :
(A) 3 : 2 : 1
(B) 6 : 3 : 1
(C) 5 : 4 : 1
(D) 4 : 5 : 1

Answer

Answer: C


56. X and Tare partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4 : 3. Z is admitted for 1/5th share and he brings in ₹1,40,000 as his share of goodwill in cash of which ₹1,20,000 is credited to X and remaining amount to Y. New profit sharing ratio will be :
(A) 4 : 3 : 5
(B) 2 : 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 2 : 2
(D) 2 : 1 : 2

Answer

Answer: B


57. A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 3. Their Balance Sheet shows Machinery at ₹2,00,000; Stock at ₹80,000 and Debtors at ₹1,60,000. C is admitted and new profit sharing ratio is agreed at 6 : 9 : 5. Machinery is revalued at ₹1,40,000 and a provision is made for doubtful debts @5%. A’s share in loss on revaluation amount to ₹20,000. Revalued value of Stock will be :
(A) ₹62,000
(B) ₹1,00,000
(C) ₹60,000
(D) ₹98,000

Answer

Answer: D


58. A, B and C are partners sharing profits in ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. They agree to admit D into the firm. A. B and C agreed to give 1/3rd, 1/6th, 1/9th share of their profit. The share of profit of D will be :
Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 3 Admission of a Partner 3

Answer

Answer: D


59. X and Y are partners sharing profits in the ratio 2 : 3. They admitted Z for 1/5th share of profits, for which he paid ₹1,20,000 against capital and 760,000 as goodwill. Find the capital balances for each partner taking Z’s capital as base capital.
(A) ₹3,00,000, ₹1,20,000 and ₹1,20,000
(B) ₹3,00,000, ₹1,20,000 and ₹1,80,000
(C) ₹1,92,000, ₹2,88,000 and ₹1,20,000
(D) ₹3,00,000, ₹1,80,000 and ₹1,80,000

Answer

Answer: C


60. A, B, C and D are partners. A and B share 2/3rd of profits equally and C and D share remaining profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. Find the profit sharing ratio of A, B, C and D. (CPT; Dec. 2012)
(A) 5 : 5 : 3 : 2
(B) 7 : 7 : 6 : 4
(C) 2.5 : 2.5 : 8 : 6
(D) 3 : 9 : 8 : 3

Answer

Answer: A


61. Sacrificing ratio is used to distribute in case of admisstion of a partner : (CPT; Dec. 2012)
(A) Reserves
(B) Goodwill
(C) Revaluation Profit
(D) Balance in Profit and Loss Account

Answer

Answer: B


62. X and Y are partners in a firm with capital of ₹1,80,000 and ₹2,00,000. Z was admitted for 1/3rd share in profits and brings ₹3,40,000 as capital, calculate the amount of goodwill: (CPT; June 2012)
(A) ₹2,40,000
(B) ₹1,00,000
(C) ₹1,50,000
(D) ₹3,00,000

Answer

Answer: D


63. A and B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3. On admission, C brings ₹70,000 as cash and ₹43,000 against Goodwill. New profit ratio between A, B and C is 7 : 5 : 4. The sacrificing ratio of A and B is: (CPT; Dec. 2012)
(A) 3 : 1
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 4 : 5
(D) 5 : 9

Answer

Answer: A


We hope the given Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Admission of a Partner will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Admission of a Partner MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 4 Retirement or Death of a Partner

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Accountancy Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 4 Retirement or Death of a Partner. Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Accountancy Retirement or Death of a Partner MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Retirement or Death of a Partner Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Pdf

Select the Best Alternate :
1. Retinng partner is compensated for parting with the firm’s future profits in favour of remaining partners. The remaining partners contribute to such compensation amount in:
(A) Gaining Ratio
(B) Capital Ratio
(C) Sacrificing Ratio
(D) Profit Sharing Ratio

Answer

Answer: A


2. ‘Gaining Ratio’ means : (C.S. Foundation Dec. 2012)
(A) Old Ratio – New Ratio
(B) New Ratio – Old Ratio
(C) Old Ratio – Sacrificing Ratio
(D) New Ratio – Sacrificing Ratio

Answer

Answer: B


3. What treatment is made of accumulated profits and losses on the retirement of a partner?
(A) Credited to all partner’s capital accounts in old ratio.
(B) Debited to all partner’s capital accounts in old ratio.
(C) Credited to remaining partner’s capital accounts in new ratio.
(D) Credited to remaining partner’s capital accounts in gaining ratio.

Answer

Answer: A


4. At the time of retirement of a partner, profit on revaluation will be credited to :
(A) Capital Account of retiring partner
(B) Capital Accounts of all partners in the old profit sharing ratio.
(C) Capital Accounts of the remaining partners in their old profit sharing ratio
(D) Capital Accounts of the remaining partners in their new profit sharing ratio

Answer

Answer: B


5. What journal entry will be recorded for writing off the goodwill already existing in Balance Sheet at the time of retirement of a partner?
(A) Retiring Partner’s Capital A/c Dr. To Goodwill A/c
(B) All Partner’s Capital A/cs (including retiring) Dr. (in old ratio) To Goodwill A/c
(C) Remaining Partner’s Capital A/cs Dr. (in gaining ratio) To Goodwill A/c
(D) Remaining Partner’s Capital A/cs Dr. (in new ratio) To Goodwill A/c

Answer

Answer: B


6. What journal entry will be recorded for deceased partner’s share in profit from the closure of last balance sheet till the date of his death?
(A) Profit and Loss A/c To Deceased Partner’s Capital A/c Dr.
(B) Deceased Partner’s Capital A/c To Profit and Loss A/c Dr.
(C) Deceased Partner’s Capital A/c To Profit and Loss Suspense A/c Dr.
(D) Profit and Loss Suspense A/c To Deceased Partner’s Capital A/c Dr.

Answer

Answer: D


7. On retirement of a partner, goodwill will be credited to the Capital Account of:
(A) Retiring Partner
(B) Remaining Partners
(C) All Partners
(D) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: A


8. On the death of a partner, the amount due to him will be credited to :
(A) All partner’s Capital Accounts
(B) Remaining partner’s Capital Accounts
(C) His Executor’s Account
(D) Governments’ Revenue Account

Answer

Answer: C


9. How goodwill is recorded on the retirement of a partner?
(A) Remaining Partner’s Capital A/cs Dr. (In Gaining Ratio) To Retiring Partner’s Capital A/c (with his share of goodwill)
(B) Remaining Partner’s Capital A/cs Dr. (In New Ratio) To Retiring Partner’s Capital A/c (with his share of goodwill)
(C) Goodwill A/c Dr. To All Partner’s Capital A/cs (In Old Ratio)
(D) Goodwill A/c Dr. To Retiring Partner’s Capital A/c (with his share)

Answer

Answer: A


10. A, B and C are partners in 3 : 4 : 2. B wants to retire from the firm. The profit on revaluation on that date was ₹36,000. New ratio of A and C is 5 : 3. Profit on revaluation will be distributed as :
(A) A ₹16,000; B ₹12,000; C ₹8,000
(B) A ₹12,000; B ₹16,000; C ₹8,000
(C) A ₹22,500; C ₹13,500
(D) A ₹23,625; C ₹12,375

Answer

Answer: B


11. A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 2 : 1. If the new ratio on the retirement of A is 3 : 2, what will be the gaining ratio?
(A) 11: 14
(B) 3 : 2
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 14 : 11

Answer

Answer: D


12. P, Q and R are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 3. Q retires and P and R decide to share future profits equally. Gaining Ratio will be :
(A) 5 : 3
(B) 1 : 1
(C) 1 : 3
(D) 3 : 1

Answer

Answer: C


13. A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 1/2 : 1/4 : 1/4. New ratio on the retirement of B will be :
(A) 2 : 4
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 1/4 : 1/2

Answer

Answer: C


14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 1/4 : 3/10 : 9/20. The New ratio on the retirement of C will be :
(A) 6 : 5
(B) 5 : 6
(C) 4 : 3
(D) 4 : 10

Answer

Answer: B


15. X, Y and Z have been sharing profits in the ratio of 4 : 2 : 1 Z retires. X and Y take Z’s share equally. New profit sharing ratio will be :
(A) 5 : 2
(B) 5 : 3
(C) 9 : 5
(D) 4 : 2

Answer

Answer: C


16. P, Q and R have been sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. Q retires. His share is taken by P and R in the ratio of 2 : 1. New profit sharing ratio will be:
(A) 6 : 4
(B) 7 : 3
(C) 7 : 2
(D) 6 : 3

Answer

Answer: B


17. A, B and C share profits and losses of the firm equally. B retires from business and his share is purchased by A and C in the ratio of 2 : 3. New profit sharing ratio between A and C respectively would be : (C.S. Foundation, Dec. 2012)
(A) 01 : 01
(B) 02 : 02
(C) 07 : 08
(D) 03 : 05

Answer

Answer: C


18. P, Q and R have been sharing profits in the ratio of 8 : 5 : 3. P retires. Q takes 3/16th share from P and R takes 5/16th share from P. New profit sharing ratio will be :
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 10 : 6
(C) 9 : 7
(D) 5 : 3

Answer

Answer: A


19. A, B and C are equal partners. C retires. He surrenders 3/5th of his share in favour of A and 2/5 th in favour of B. New ratio will be :
(A) 3 : 2
(B) 8 : 7
(C) 7 : 8
(D) 2 : 3

Answer

Answer: B


20. P, Q and R are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. Q retires and his share was taken up by P and R in the ratio 3 : 2. New profit sharing ratio will be :
(A) 16 : 29
(B) 29 : 16
(C) 3 : 2
(D) 2 : 3

Answer

Answer: B


21. L, P and G are three partners sharing profits in the ratio 15 : 9 : 8. G retires. L and P decided to share profits in equal ratio. Gaining ratio will be :
(A) 15 : 9
(B) 9 : 15
(C) 7 : 1
(D) 1 : 7

Answer

Answer: D


22. On 1st April, 2019 A, B and C were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2 respectively. On this date B retires. The new profit sharing ratio of A and C will be 3 : 2. Gaining ratio will be :
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 1
(D) 5 : 2

Answer

Answer: A


23. B, P and L sharing profits in the ratio 4:3:2. B retires, P and L decided to share profits in future in the ratio of 5 : 3. Gaining ratio will be :
(A) 11 : 21
(B) 21 : 11
(C) 11 : 13
(D) 13 : 11

Answer

Answer: B


24. P, Q and R were partners sharing profits in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1 .Q retires and the new profit sharing ratio of P and R will be 3 : 1. Gaining ratio will be :
(A) 1 : 7
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 2
(D) 7 : 1

Answer

Answer: D


25. A, B and C are equal partners in a firm. B retires and the remaining partners decide to share the profits of the new firm in the ratio of 5 : 4. Gaining ratio will be :
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 5 : 4

Answer

Answer: C


26. A, B and C are partners sharing profit or loss in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. B retires and after B’s retirement A and C agreed to share profit or loss in the ratio of
3 : 2 in future. Their gaining ratio will be :
(A) 3 : 1
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 3 : 7
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: C


27. A, B and C are partners sharing profit or loss in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. C retires and after C’s retirement 4 and B agreed to share profit or loss in the ratio of 4 : 3 in future. Their gaining ratio will be :
(A) 3 : 2 W
(B) 4 : 3
(C) 3 : 4
(D) 1 : 1

Answer

Answer: B


28. A, B and C are partners sharing profit or loss in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. A retires and after A’s retirement B and C agreed to share profit or loss in the ratio of 3 : 4 in future. Their gaining ratio will be :
(A) 2 : 3
(B) 4 : 3
(C) 3 : 4
(D) 1 : 1

Answer

Answer: C


29. A, B and C were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1. The capital balance are ₹50,000 for A, ?₹70,000 for B, ₹35,000 for C. B decided to retire from the firm and balance in. reserve on the date was ₹25,000. If goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹30,000 and profit on revaluation was ₹7,500 then, what amount will be payable to B1
(A) ₹70,820
(B) ₹76,000
(C) ₹75,000
(D) ₹95,000

Answer

Answer: D


30. P, Q and R are sharing profits and losses equally. R retires and the goodwill is appearing in the books at ₹30,000. Goodwill of the firm is valued at . ₹1,50,000. Calculate the net amount to be credited to R’s Capital A/c.
(A) ₹60,000
(B) ₹50,000
(C) ₹40,000
(D) ₹10,000

Answer

Answer: C


31. Ram, Krishna and Ganesh were sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. Ram retires and Krishna and Ganesh share the future profits and losses equally. Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹1,00,000. Calculate the amount of goodwill to be debited to Krishna’s and Ganesha’s Capital A/c.
(A) ₹60,000 & ₹40,000
(B) ₹20,000 & ₹30,000
(C) ₹40,000 & ₹60,000
(D) ₹30,000 & ₹20,000

Answer

Answer: B


32. A, B and C are partners with profit sharing ratio 4 : 3 : 2. B retires and goodwill was valued ₹1,08,000. If A & C share profits in 5 : 3, find out the goodwill shared by A and C in favour of B.
(A) ₹22,500 and ₹13,500
(B) ₹16,500and ₹19,500
(C) ₹67,500 and ₹40,500
(D) ₹19,500 and ₹16,500

Answer

Answer: D


33. A, B and C are sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. B retires and on the day of B’s retirement Goodwill is valued at ₹60,000. A and C decided to share future profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. Journal entry will be :
(A) A’s Capital A/c Dr. 18,000 C’s Capital A/c Dr. 42,000 To B’s Capital A/c 60,000
(B) A’s Capital A/c Dr. 6,000 C’s Capital A/c Dr. 14,000 To B’s Capital A/c 20,000
(C) A’s Capital A/c Dr. 36,000 C’s Capital A/c Dr. 24,000 To B’s Capital A/c 60,000
(D) A’s Capital A/c Dr. 12,000 C’s Capital A/c Dr. 8,000 To B’s Capital A/c 20,000

Answer

Answer: B


34. P, Q and R share profits in the ratio of 5:4:3.// retires and the new ratio is 5 : 3. If R is given ?6,000 as goodwill, journal entry will be :
(A) P’s Capital A/c Dr. 1,000 Q’s Capital A/c Dr. 5,000 To R’s Capital A/c 6,000
(B) P’s Capital A/c Dr. 5,000 Q’s Capital A/c Dr. 1,000 To R’s Capital A/c 6,000
(C) P’s Capital A/c Dr. 3,750 Q’s Capital A/c Dr. 2,250 To R’s Capital A/c 6,000
(D) P’s Capital A/c Dr. 3,333 Q’s Capital A/c Dr. 2,667 To R’s Capital A/c 6,000

Answer

Answer: B


35. X, Y and Z were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. X retired and the new profit sharing ratio between Yand Z will be 5 : 4. On Xs retirement the goodwill of the firm was valued at ₹54,000. Journal entry will be :
(A) Y’s Capital A/c Dr. 24,000 Z’s Capital A/c Dr. 30,000 To X’s Capital A/c 54,000
(B) Y’s Capital A/c Dr. 15,000 Z’s Capital A/c Dr. 12,000 To X’s Capital A/c 27,000
(C) Y’s Capital A/c Dr. 12,000 Z’s Capital A/c Dr. 15,000 To X’s Capital A/c 27,000
(D) X’s Capital A/c Dr. 27,000 To Y’s Capital A/c 12,000 To Z’s Capital A/c 15,000

Answer

Answer: C


36. A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5. B retires and the goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹42,000. A and C decide to share profits in the ratio of 3 : 4. Journal entry will be :
(A) A’s Capital A/c Dr. 6,000 C’s Capital A/c Dr. 8,000 To B’s Capital A/c 14,000
(B) A’s Capital A/c Dr. 7,500 C’s Capital A/c Dr. 6,500 To B’s Capital A/c 14,000
(C) A’s Capital A/c Dr. 22,500 C’s Capital A/c Dr. 19,500 To B’s Capital A/c 42,000
(D) B’s Capital A/c Dr. 14,000 To Z’s Capital A/c 7,500 To C’s Capital A/c 6,500

Answer

Answer: B


37. P, Q and R were partners sharing profits in the ratio 5 : 3 : 2 respectively. P retires from the firm and Q and R decide to share future profits equally. Goodwill is valued at ₹50,000. Adjustment entry for goodwill will be :
(A) Q’s Capital A/c Dr. 15,000 R’s Capital A/c Dr. 10,000 To P’s Capital A/c 25,000
(B) Q’s Capital A/c Dr. 20,000 R’s Capital A/c To Dr. 30,000 T’s Capital A/c 50,000
(C) Q’s Capital A/c Dr. 12,500 R’s Capital A/c Dr. 12,500 To P’s Capital A/c 25,000
(D) Q’s Capital A/c Dr. 10,000 R’s Capital A/c Dr. 15,000 To P’s Capital A/c 25,000

Answer

Answer: D


38. X, Y and Z are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5. Goodwill already appearing in their books at a value of ₹60,000. X retires and Yand decided to share future profits equally. Journal entry w ill be :
(A) F s Capital A/c To A’s Capital A/c Dr. 12,000 12,000
(B) Fs Capital A/c To/Fs Capital A/c Dr. 60,000 60,000
(C) Xs Capital A/c Dr. 2,400 Fs Capital A/c Dr. 3,600 Z’s Capital A/c To Goodwill A/c Dr. 6,000 12,000
(D) Xs Capital A/c Dr. 12,000 Fs Capital A/c Dr. 18,000 Z’s Capital A/c Dr. 30,000

Answer

Answer: D


39. A, B and C are partners in a firm sharing profit/loss in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1. On March 31, 2019, C died. Accounts are closed on Dec., 31 every year. The sales for the year 2018 was ₹6,00,000 and the profits were ?60,000. The sales for the period from Jan. 1, 2019 to March 31, 2019 were ?2,00,000. The share of deceased partner in the current year’s profits on the basis of sales is :
(A) ₹20,000
(B) ₹8,000
(C) ₹3,000
(D) ₹4,000

Answer

Answer: D


40. A, B and C were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1. Books are closed on 31st March every year. C dies on 5th November, 2018. Under the partnership deed, the executors of the deceased partner are entitled to his share of profit to the date of death, calculated on the basis of last year’s profit. Profit for the year ended 31st March, 2018 was ₹2,40,000. C’s share of profit will be :
(A) ₹28,000
(B) ₹32,000
(C) ₹28,800
(D) ₹48,000

Answer

Answer: C


41. P, Q and R were partners sharing profits in the ratio of their Capital ‘ contribution which were ₹6,00,000; ₹4,00,000 and ₹5,00,000 respectively. Their books are closed on 31st March every year. P dies on 24th August, 2018. Under the partnership deed, deceased partner is entitled to his share of profit/loss to the date of death based on the average profits of preceding three years. Profits were 2015 ₹50,000; 2016 ₹1,20,000 (Loss); 2017 ₹30,000 and 2018 ₹60,000. P’s share of profit/loss will be :
(A) ₹3,200
(B) ₹6,400
(C) ₹12,000
(D) ₹4,800

Answer

Answer: D


We hope the given Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 4 Retirement or Death of a Partner will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Retirement or Death of a Partner MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Dissolution of a Partnership Firm

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Accountancy Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Dissolution of a Partnership Firm. Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Accountancy Dissolution of a Partnership Firm MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Dissolution of a Partnership Firm Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Pdf

Select the Best Alternate and tally your answer with the Answers given at the end of the book:
1. In which condition a partnership firm is deemed to be dissolved?
(A) On a partner’s admission
(B) On retirement of a partner
(C) On expiry of the period of partnership
(D) On loss in partnership

Answer

Answer: C


2. Court can make an order to dissolve the firm when :
(A) Some partner has become fully mad
(B) Partnership deed is fully followed
(C) Continued future profits are expected
(D) Firm is running legal business

Answer

Answer: A


3. On dissolution of a firm, realisation account is debited with
(A) All assets to be realised
(B) All outside liabilities of the firm
(C) Cash received on sale of assets
(D) Any asset taken over by one of the partners

Answer

Answer: A


4. On dissolution of a firm, out of the proceeds received from the sale of assets will be paid first of all
(A) Partner’s Capital
(B) Partner’s Loan to Firm
(C) Partner’s additional capital
(D) Outside Creditors

Answer

Answer: D


5. At the time of dissolution of firm, “Loan of partners” (Loans given by partners to the firm) is paid out of the amount realised on sale of assets :
(A) After making the payment of loans given by third party
(B) After making the payment of balance of Capital Accounts of partners
(C) After making the payment of above (A) and (B)
(D) Before the payment of loans given by third party

Answer

Answer: A


6. At the time of dissolution of firm, at which stage the balance of partner’s capital accounts is paid?
(A) After making the payment to third party’s loans
(B) Before making the payment of partners in respect of their loans
(C) After making the payment to third party for their loans as well as partners loans
(D) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: C


7. On firm’s dissolution, which one of the following account should be prepared at the last?
(A) Realisation Account
(B) Partner’s Capital Accounts
(C) Cash Account
(D) Partner’s Loan Account

Answer

Answer: C


8. In the event of dissolution of a partnership firm, the provision for doubtful debts is transferred to :
(A) Realisation Account
(B) Partners Capital Accounts
(C) Sundry Debtors Account
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: A


9. On dissolution, if a partner undertakes to make payment of a liability of the firm is debited)
(A) Profit & Loss Account
(B) Realisation Account
(C) Partner’s Capital Account
(D) Cash Account

Answer

Answer: B


10. Unrecorded liability, when paid on dissolution of a firm is debited to :
(A) Partner’s Capital A/’cs
(B) Realisation A/c
(C) Liabilities A/c
(D) Asset A/c

Answer

Answer: B


11. On dissolution of a partnership firm, profit or loss on realisation is distributed among the partners
(A) In capital ratio
(B) In Profit sharing ratio
(C) Equally
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: B


12. On dissolution of the firm, amount received from sale of unrecorded asset is credited to :
(A) Partner’s Capital Accounts
(B) Profit and Loss Account
(C) Realisation Account
(D) Cash Account

Answer

Answer: C


13. Realisation A/c is a :
(A) Nominal A/c
(B) Real A/c
(C) Personal A/c
(D) Real A/c as well as Personal A/c

Answer

Answer: A


14. In the event of dissolution of firm, the partner’s personal assets are first used for payment of the :
(A) Firm’s liabilities
(B) The personal liabilites
(C) None of the two
(D) Any of the two

Answer

Answer: B


15. A partnership firm is compulsorily dissolved :
(A) When the business of the firm is declared illegal
(B) When a partner of the firm dies
(C) When a partner of the firm becomes insolvent
(D) When a partner transfers his share to some other person without the consent of other partners

Answer

Answer: A


16. At the time of firm’s dissolution, Balance of General Reserve shown in the Balance Sheet is credited to :
(A) Realisation Account
(B) Creditor’s Account
(C) Partner’s Capital Account
(D) Profit & Loss Account

Answer

Answer: C


17. On dissolution, goodwill account is transferred to):
(A) In the Capital Accounts of Partners
(B) On the credit of Cash Account
(C) On the Debit of Realisation Account
(D) On the Credit of Realisation Account

Answer

Answer: C


18. At the time of dissolution of partnership firm, fictitious assets are transferred to :
(A) Capital Accounts of Partners
(B) Realisation Account
(C) Cash Account
(D) Partners’ Loan Account

Answer

Answer: A


19. At time of dissolution of partnership firm, the balance of profit and loss account shown in the assets side of Balance sheet of the firm is transferred to:
(A) Realisation Account
(B) Cash Account
(C) Capital Accounts of partners
(D) Loan Accounts of partners

Answer

Answer: C


20. At the time of dissolution of partnership firm, the amount of ‘Bills Payable’ shown in the liability side of Balance Sheet is transferred to :
(A) Capital Accounts of Partners
(B) Realisation Account
(C) Cash Account
(D) Loan Account of Partners

Answer

Answer: B


21. On dissolution, the final balance of capital accounts are transferred to :
(A) Realisation Account
(B) Cash Account
(C) Profit & Loss Account
(D) Loan Accounts of Partners

Answer

Answer: B


22. Change in the existing agreement between the partners is called :
(A) Dissolution of Firm
(B) Dissolution of Partnership
(C) Dissolution of Business
(D) All of the Above

Answer

Answer: B


23. On dissolution, the balance of ‘Profit & Loss Account’ appearing on the assets side of a Balance Sheet is transferred to :
(A) On the debit of Realisation Account
(B) On the credit of Realisation Account
(C) On the debit of Partner’s Capital Accounts
(D) On the credit of Partner’s Capital Accounts

Answer

Answer: C


24. On dissolution of a firm, a partner paid ₹700 for firm’s realisation expenses. Which account will be debited?
(A) Cash Account
(B) Realisation Account
(C) Capital Account of the Partner
(D) Profit & Loss A/c

Answer

Answer: B


25. On taking responsibility of payment of realisation expenses by a partner, the account credited will be :
(A) Realisation Account
(B) Cash Account
(C) Capital Account of the Partne
(D) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: C


26. On dissolution of firm, loss calculate in realisation account is debited/credited to which account?
(A) Cash Account (Credit)
(B) Partners’ Capital Accoimts (Debit)
(C) Partners’ Capital Accounts (Credit)
(D) Realisation Account (Debit)

Answer

Answer: B


27. Profit or loss of realisation account is transferred to :
(A) Profit & Loss Account
(B) Capital Accounts of Partners
(C) Balance Sheet
(D) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: B


28. Which of the following is transferred to Realisation Account:
(A) Balance of Cash Account
(B) Balance of Profit & Loss Account
(C) Amount realised on sale of assets
(D) Reserves

Answer

Answer: C


29. Which of the following is not transferred to Realisation Account:
(A) Balance of Cash Account
(B) Balance of Reserves
(C) Balance of Profit & Loss Account
(D) All of the Above

Answer

Answer: D


30. On taking responsibility of payment of a liability of ₹50,000 by a partner, the account credited will be :
(A) Realisation Account
(B) Cash Account
(C) Capital Account of the Partner
(D) Liability Account

Answer

Answer: C


31. Cash balance shown in the Balance Sheet is shown on dissolution of firm in :
(A) Realisation Account
(B) Cash Account
(C) Capital Account
(D) None of the Account

Answer

Answer: B


32. On firm’s dissolution, on realisation of goodwill (which was shown in Balance Sheet) will be credited to :
(A) Cash A/c
(B) Realisation A/c
(C) Profit & Loss A/
(D) None of the A/c

Answer

Answer: B


33. On dissolution of a firm, its Balance Sheet revealed total creditors ₹50,000; Total Capital ₹48,000; Cash Balance ₹3,000. Its assets were realised at 12% less. Loss on realisation will be :
(A) ₹6,000
(B) ₹11,760
(C) ₹11,400
(D) ₹3,600

Answer

Answer: C


34. On firm’s dissolution, when a partner voluntarily gives his personal asset to firms’ creditor as payment, the account credited will be :
(A) Realisation A/c
(B) Partner’s Capital A/c
(C) Cash A/c
(D) None of the A/c

Answer

Answer: B


35. On dissolution, when a partner takes over an unrecorded asset, is credited :
(A) Capital Account of the Partner
(B) Cash Accoun
(C) Asset Account
(D) Realisation Account

Answer

Answer: D


36. On dissolution, when a partner takes over an asset is debited
(A) Realisation Account
(B) Partner’s Capital Account
(C) Cash Account
(D) Asset Account

Answer

Answer: B


37. In case of dissolution, assets are transferred to Realisation Account:
(A) At Book Value
(B) At Market Value
(C) Cost or Market Value, whichever is lower
(D) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: A


38. On dissolution, the balance of a partner’s capital account appearing on the assets side of a balance sheet is transferred to :
(A) On the Debit of Realisation Account
(B) On the Credit of Realisation Account
(C) On the Debit of Partner’s Capital Account
(D) On the Credit of Cash Account

Answer

Answer: C


39. On dissolution, partner’s loan is transferred to :
(A) Partner’s Capital Account
(B) Realisation Account
(C) Partner’s Loan Account
(D) Revaluation Account

Answer

Answer: C


40. Sundry Creditors amounted to ?8,000. These were paid at a discount of 5%. Realisation account will be debited by
(A) ₹8,000
(B) ₹7,600
(C) ₹400
(D) ₹8,400

Answer

Answer: B


41. There was an Unrecorded asset of ?2,000 which was taken over by a partner at ? 1,500. Partner’s Capital Account will be debited by
(A) ₹2,000
(B) ₹1,500
(C) ₹500
(D) ₹3,500

Answer

Answer: B


42. On dissolution of a firm, an unrecorded furniture of the value of ₹5,000 was taken up by a partner for ₹4,300. Which Account will be credited and by how much amount? :
(A) Cash Account by ₹4,300
(B) Realisation Account by ₹700
(C) Partner’s Capital Account by ₹5,000
(D) Realisation Account by ₹4,300

Answer

Answer: D


43. On the basis of following data, final payment to a partner on firm’s dissolution ‘ will be made : Debit balance of Capital Account ₹14,000; Share of his profit on realisation ₹43,000; Firm’s asset taken over by him for ₹17,000.
(A) ₹31,000
(B) ₹29,000
(C) ₹12,000
(D) ₹60,000

Answer

Answer: C


44. On payment of expenses of dissolution, account will be debited :
(A) Realisation Account
(B) Cash Account
(C) Profit & Loss Account
(D) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: A


45. An unrecorded asset was valued at ₹1,00,000. On firm’s dissolution, it was sold for 52%. Realisation account will be credited with :
(A) ₹52,000
(B) ₹48,000
(C) ₹1,00,000
(D) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: A


46. On firm’s dissolution, a partner undertook firm’s creditors at ? 17,000. In this case the account will be credited :
(A) Creditors A/c
(B) Cash A/c
(C) Realisation A/c
(D) Partner’s Capital A/c

Answer

Answer: D


47. On dissolution, losses are first of all met:
(A) Out of Capital
(B) Out of Profits
(C) Out of private assets of partners
(D) Out of loan from Bank

Answer

Answer: B


48. …………… is prepared at the time of dissolution :
(A) Revaluation Account
(B) Profit & Loss Account
(C) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
(D) Realisation Account

Answer

Answer: D


49. While transferring assets to realisation account is omitted to be transferred :
(A) Patents
(B) Goodwill
(C) Cash
(D) Investments

Answer

Answer: C


50. If total assets are ₹2,00,000; total liabilities are ₹40,000; amount realised on sale of assets is ₹1,75,000 and realisation expenses are ₹3,000, the profit or loss on realisation will be :
(A) Profit ₹12,000
(B) Loss ₹68,000
(C) Loss ₹28,000
(D) Loss ₹25,000

Answer

Answer: C


51. On dissolution of a firm, debtors were ₹17,000. Of these ₹500 became bad and the rest realised 60%. Which account will be debited and by how much amount?
(A) Realisation Account by ₹16,500
(B) Profit & Loss Account by ₹500
(C) Cash Account by ₹9,900
(D) Debtors Account by ₹7,100

Answer

Answer: C


52. In the Balance Sheet Total Debtors appear at ₹50,000 and Provision for Doubtful Debts appear at ₹1,500. How much amount will be realised from Debtors, if bad debts amount to ₹10,000 and remaining debtors are realised at a discount of 5%
(A) ₹38,000
(B) ₹36,500
(C) ₹36,575
(D) ₹39,500

Answer

Answer: A


53. How much amount will be paid to Creditors for ₹25,000 if ₹5,000 of the creditors are not to be paid and the remaining creditors agreed to accept 5% less amount?
(A) ₹18,750
(B) ₹19,000
(C) ₹19,750
(D) ₹20,000

Answer

Answer: B


54. P, a partner, is to bear all expenses of realisation for which he is to be paid ₹2,000. P had to pay realisation expenses of ₹2,500. How much amount will be debited to Realisation Account?
(A) ₹500
(B) ₹2,500
(C) ₹4,500
(D) ₹2,000

Answer

Answer: D


55. How much amount will be paid to A, if his opening capital is ₹2,00,000 and his share of realisation profit amounts to ₹10,000 and he has taken over assets valuing ₹25,000 from the firm?
(A) ₹2,35,000
(B) ₹1,65,000
(C) ₹2,15,000
(D) ₹1,85,000

Answer

Answer: D


56. Investments valued ₹2,00,000 were not shown in the books. One of the creditors took over these investments in full satisfaction of his debt of ₹2,20,000. How much amount will be deducted from creditors?
(A) ₹20,000
(B) ₹2,20,000
(C) ₹4,20,000
(D) ₹2,00,000

Answer

Answer: B


57. If creditors are ?25,000, capital is ?1,50,000 and cash balance is ?10,000, what will be the amount of sundry assets?
(A) ₹1,75,000
(B) ₹1,85,000
(C) ₹1,65,000
(D) ₹1,40,000

Answer

Answer: C


58. If opening capitals of partners are A ₹3,00,000, B ₹2,00,000 and C ₹1,00,000 and their drawings during the year are A ₹50,000, B ₹40,000 and C ₹30,000 and creditors are ₹60,000, what will be the amount of assets of the firm?
(A) ₹5,40,000
(B) ₹4,20,000
(C) ₹4,80,000
(D) ₹6,60,000

Answer

Answer: A


59. If total assets of a firm are ₹12,00,000 and total liabilities are ₹2,40,000, what will be the capitals of P, Q and R if they share profits in the ratio of their capitals and profit sharing ratio is 1 : 2 : 3 :
(A) P ₹4,80,000; Q ₹3,20,000; R ₹1,60,000
(B) P ₹1,60,000; Q ₹3,20,000; R ₹4,80,000
(C) P ₹2,00,000; Q ₹4,00,000; R ₹6,00,000
(D) P ₹6,00,000; Q ₹4,00,000; R ₹2,00,000

Answer

Answer: B


60. On dissolution of a firm, a partner’s capital account has a credit balance of ₹42,000. His share of profit in realisation account is ?9,000. He has paid firm’s realisation expenses ₹3,000. He will finally get a payment of:
(A) ₹39,000
(B) ₹42,000
(C) ₹54,000
(D) ₹48,000

Answer

Answer: C


61. On dissolution of a firm, a partner took over ₹17,000 investments for ₹14,000. Which one of the following account will be debited/credited with how much amount?
(A) Partner’s Capital Account Debit with ₹14,000
(B) Partner’s Capital Account Credit with ₹17,000
(C) Realisation Account Credit with ₹17,000
(D) Realisation Account Credit with ₹3,000

Answer

Answer: A


62. On dissolution of firm, which item is debited to the realisation account?:
(A) Realisation expenses paid by partnert
(B) Balance of reserve fund
(C) Amount of unrecorded asset
(D) Creditor’s balance shown in the Balance Sheet

Answer

Answer: A


63. At the time of dissolution of a firm, Creditors are ₹70,000; Partners’ capital is ₹1,20,000; Cash Balance is ₹10,000. Other assets realised ₹1,50,000. Profit/Loss in the realisation account will be :
(A) ₹60,000 (Loss)
(B) ₹80,000 (Profit)
(C) ₹40,000 (Loss)
(D) ₹30,000 (Loss)

Answer

Answer: D


64. On dissolution of a firm, debtors ₹17,000 were shown in the Balance Sheet. Out of this ₹2,000 became bad. One debtor became insolvent. 70% were recovered from him out of ₹5,000. Full amount was recovered from the balance debtors. On account of this item, loss in realisation account will be :
(A) ₹5,100
(B) ₹1,500
(C) ₹3,500
(D) ₹2,000

Answer

Answer: C


65. X, Yand Z are partners in a firm in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. On firm’s dissolution, firm’s total assets are 7₹70,000, creditors are ₹15,000. Realisation expenses are ₹2,100. Assets realised 15% more than the book-value. Creditors were . paid 2% more. For profit/loss on realisation, Fs capital account will be debited/credited with :
(A) Credit ₹8,100
(B) Credit ₹2,700
(C) Debit ₹2,700
(D) Debit ₹2,400

Answer

Answer: B


66. On dissolution of a firm, firm’s Balance Sheet total is ₹77,000. On the assets side of the Balance Sheet items were shown preliminary expenses ₹2,000; Profit & Loss Account (Debit) Balance ₹4,000 and Cash Balance ₹1,800. Loss on realisation was ₹6,300. Total assets (including cash balance) realised will be :
(A) ₹69,200
(B) ₹71,000
(C) ₹64,700
(D) ₹62,900

Answer

Answer: C


67. On dissolution of a firm, partners’ capital accounts balance was ₹63,000; creditors balance was ₹12,000 and profit & loss account debit balance was ₹6,000. Profit on realisation of assets was ₹7,800. Total amount realised from assets was:
(A) ₹81,000
(B) ₹76,800
(C) ₹70,800
(D) ₹None

Answer

Answer: B


68. On dissolution of a firm, a partner took-over the investments of ₹15,000 at ₹19,000. By how much amount the Realisation Account will be credited?
(A) ₹4,000
(B) ₹19,000
(C) Nil
(D) ₹23,000

Answer

Answer: B


69. Anu, Bina and Charan are partners. The firm had given a loan of ₹20,000 to Bina. On the event of dissolution, the loan will be settled by : (C.B.S.E. Sample Paper, 2015)
(A) Transferring it to debit side of Realization Account.
(B) Transferring it to credit side of Realization Account.
(C) Transferring it to debit side of Bina’s Capital Account.
(D) Bina paying Anu and Charan privately.

Answer

Answer: C


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Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 Financial Statements of Not-for-Profit Organisations (N.P.O.)

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Accountancy Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 Financial Statements of Not-for-Profit Organisations (N.P.O.). Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Accountancy Financial Statements of Not-for-Profit Organisations (N.P.O.) MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Financial Statements of Not-for-Profit Organisations (N.P.O.) Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Pdf

Select the Best Alternate and tally your answer with the Answers given at the end of the book :
1. Receipts and Payments Account generally shows :
(A) A Debit balance
(B) A Credit balance
(C) Surplus or Deficit
(D) Capital Fund

Answer

Answer: A


2. Income and Expenditure Account records transactions of:
(A) Revenue nature only
(B) Capital nature only
(C) Both revenue and capital nature
(D) Income of only revenue nature and expenditure of revenue and capital nature.

Answer

Answer: A


3. Income and Expenditure Account reveals :
(A) Surplus or Deficiency
(B) Cash in Hand
(C) Net Profit
(D) Capital Account

Answer

Answer: A


4. The amount of ‘Subscription received from members’ by a Non-profit organi sation is shown in which of the following?
(A) Debit side of Income and Expenditure Account
(B) Credit side of Income and Expenditure Account
(C) Liability side of Balance Sheet
(D) Assets side of Balance Sheet

Answer

Answer: B


5. Donation received for a special purpose :
(A) Should be credited to Income and Expenditure Account
(B) Should be credited to separate account and shown in the Balance Sheet
(C) Should be shown on the assets side
(D) Should not be recorded at all.

Answer

Answer: B


6. Subscription received by a school for organising annual function is treated as:
(A) Capital Receipt (i.e., Liability)
(B) Revenue Receipt {i.e., Income)
(C) Asset
(D) Earned Income

Answer

Answer: A


7. The amount of ‘Entrance Fees’ received by a Non-profit organisation (if it is received regularly) is shown in which of the following?
(A) Liability side of Balance Sheet
(B) Assets side of Balance Sheet
(C) Debit side of Income and Expenditure Account
(D) Credit side of Income and Expenditure Account

Answer

Answer: D


8. Out of following items, which one is shown in the Receipts and Payments Account?
(A) Outstanding Salary
(B) Depreciation
(C) Life Membership Fees
(D) Accrued Subscription

Answer

Answer: C


9. Not-for-profit organisations prepare :
(A) Trading Account
(B) Trading & Profit and Loss Account
(C) Income and Expenditure Account
(D) All of the above

Answer

Answer: C


10. The Receipts and Payments Account is a summary of:
(A) Debit and Credit balance of Ledger Accounts
(B) Cash Receipts and Payments
(C) Expenses and Incomes
(D) Assets and Liabilities

Answer

Answer: B


11. Receipts and Payments Account is a :
(A) Personal Account
(B) Real Account
(C) Nominal Account
(D) Real and Nominal Account, both

Answer

Answer: B


12. Income and Expenditure Account is a :
(A) Personal Account
(B) Real Account
(C) Nominal Account
(D) Real and Nominal Account, both

Answer

Answer: C


13. Credit side balance in Income & Expenditure Account reveals :
(A) Excess of cash receipts overpayments
(B) Excess of cash payments over receipts
(C) Excess of expenditure over income
(D) Excess of income over expenditure

Answer

Answer: D


14. Source of income for a not-for-profit organisation is :
(A) Subscription from Members
(B) Donation
(C) Entrance Fees
(D) All of the above

Answer

Answer: D


15. Which of the following represent capital receipt:
(A) Life Membership Subscription
(B) Donation
(C) Subscription
(D) Interest on Investments

Answer

Answer: A


16. Amount received from sale of grass by a club should be treated as :
(A) Capital Receipt
(B) Revenue Receipt
(C) Asset
(D) Earned Income

Answer

Answer: B


17. The amount received for sale of old sports materials by a Non-profit organisation is shown in which of the following?
(A) Debit side of Income and Expenditure Account
(B) Liability side of Balance Sheet
(C) Credit side of Income and Expenditure Account
(D) Assets side of Balance Sheet

Answer

Answer: C


18. If there is a ‘Match Fund’, then match expenses and incomes are transferred to:
(A) Income and Expenditure A/c
(B) Assets side of Balance Sheet
(C) Liabilities side of Balance Sheet
(D) Both Income and Expenditure A/c and to Balance Sheet

Answer

Answer: C


19. Subscription received in advance during the current year is :
(A) an income
(B) an asset
(C) a liability
(D) none of these

Answer

Answer: C


20. Subscription received in cash during the year amounted to ₹40,000; subscription outstanding at the end of previous year was ₹1,500 and outstanding at the end of current year was ₹2,000. Subscription received in advance for next year was ₹800. The amount credited to Income & Expenditure Account will be:
(A) ₹38,700
(B) ₹39,700
(C) ₹40,300
(D) ₹41.300

Answer

Answer: B


21. Subscription received in cash during the year amounted to ₹5,00,000; subscription outstanding at the end of previous year was ₹20,000 and outstanding at the end of current year was ₹25,000. Subscription received in advance for next year was ₹8,000 and received in advance during previous year was ₹7,000. The amount credited to Income & Expenditure Account will be :
(A) ₹5,04,000
(B) ₹5,06,000
(C) ₹4,96,000
(D) ₹4,94,000

Answer

Answer: A


22. Subscription received in cash during the year amounted to 760,000; subscription received in advance for next year was 73,000 and received in advance during previous year was 72,000. Subscription in arrear at the end of current year was 75,400. The amount credited to Income & Expenditure Account will be :
(A) ₹53,600
(B) ₹66,400
(C) ₹55,600
(D) ₹64,400

Answer

Answer: D


23. Subscription received in cash during the year amounted to ₹3,00,000; subscription received in advance for next year was ₹10,000 and received in advance during previous year was ₹8,000. Subscription in arrear at the end of previous year was ₹18,000 and subscription in arrear at the end of current year was ₹12,000. The amount credited to Income & Expenditure Account will be :
(A) ₹2,96,000
(B) ₹3,04,000
(C) ₹2,92,000
(D) ₹3,08,000

Answer

Answer: C


24. What amount will be credited to the Income and Expenditure Account for the year ending 31st March, 2010 on the basis of the following information? :
Subscriptions received during the year 2009-10 were ₹4,00,000.
(A) ₹3,84,000
(B) ₹4,16,000
(C) ₹3,86,000
(D) ₹4,14,000

Answer

Answer: B


25. There are 200 members, each paying an annual subscription of 7 1,000; subscription received during the year 7 1,95,000; subscriptions received in advance at the beginning of the year 73,000 and at the end of the year 72,000. – Amount shown in Income & Expenditure Account will be :
(A) ₹2,00,000
(B) ₹1,96,000
(C) ₹1,94,000
(D) ₹2,01,000

Answer

Answer: A


26. The opening balance of Prize Fund was ₹32,800. During the year, donations reoeived towards this fund amounted to ₹15,400; amount spent on prizes was 712,300 and interest received on prize fund investment was ₹4,000. The closing balance of Prize Fund will be :
(A) ₹56,500
(B) ₹64,500
(C) ₹39,900
(D) ₹31,900

Answer

Answer: C


27. Salary paid in cash during the current year was ₹80,000; Outstanding salary at the end was ₹4,000; Salary paid in advance last year pertaining to the current year was ₹3,200; paid in advance during current year for next year was ₹5,000. The amount debited to Income and Expenditure Account will be:
(A) ₹85,800
(B) ₹77,800
(C) ₹82,200
(D) ₹74,200

Answer

Answer: C


28. Salary paid in cash during the current year was ₹30,000; Outstanding salary at the end of previous year was ₹2,000 and outstanding salary at the end of current year was ₹3,000. Salary paid in advance during current year for next year was ₹2,600. The amount debited to Income and Expenditure Account will be :
(A) ₹33,600
(B) ₹26,400
(C) ₹31,600
(D) ₹28,400

Answer

Answer: D


29. Salary paid for the year ended 31st March, 2010 amounted to ₹75,000. How much amount will be recorded in Income and Expenditure Account in the following case?
(A) ₹75,700
(B) ₹74,300
(C) ₹75,300
(D) ₹74,700

Answer

Answer: D


30. How much amount will be shown in Income and Expenditure Account in the following case?
During 2009-10 payment made for Stationery was ₹60,000.
(A) ₹57,800
(B) ₹62,200
(C) ₹61,800
(D) ₹58,200

Answer

Answer: A


31. How much amount will be shown in Income and Expenditure Account in the following case? :
Payment made for medicines during 2009-10 was ₹2,5 0,000.
(A) ₹2,53,000
(B) ₹2,47,000
(C) ₹2,57,000
(D) ₹2,43.000

Answer

Answer: B


32. If a General Donation of huge amount is received by a school, that donation is treated as :
(A) Revenue Receipt (Income)
(B) Capital Receipt (Liability)
(C) Assets
(D) Earned Income

Answer

Answer: B


33. If a general donation of smaller amount is received by a school, that donation will be shown in :
(A) Liability Side
(B) Asset Side
(C) Debit side of Receipt and Payment A/c
(D) Credit side of Receipt and Payment A/c

Answer

Answer: C


34. Out of the billowing items, which one is shown in the ‘Receipts and Payments Account” of a not for profit organisation?
(A) Accrued subscription
(B) Outstanding salary
(C) Depreciation
(D) None of these

Answer

Answer: D


35. Out of the following items, which is not shown in the ‘Receipts and Payments A/c’ of a not for profit organisation? ‘
(A) Subscription received in advance
(B) Subscription due
(C) Last year subscription received
(D) All of the above

Answer

Answer: B


36. Out of the following items, which is shown in the ‘Receipts and Payments A/c’ of a not for profit organisation?
(A) Subscription received in advance
(B) Last year subscription received
(C) Current year subscription received
(D) All of the above

Answer

Answer: D


We hope the given Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 Financial Statements of Not-for-Profit Organisations (N.P.O.) will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Financial Statements of Not-for-Profit Organisations (N.P.O.) MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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UPSEE Exam Pattern 2020 | Exam Dates, Exam Pattern and Subject Wise Distribution of Questions

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UPSEE Exam Pattern 2020: Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Technical University will conduct the Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Examination tentatively in April 2020. Candidates who will successfully submit the Application Form will be able to appear for the entrance exam. The examination authorities prescribe the definite pattern of the examination that the candidate must be aware of. The exam is held for admission to Under Graduate and Post Graduate courses in various courses such as Engineering, Management, etc.

It is important for the applicant that she/he must qualify for the entrance exam in order to proceed for the final admission further. The question paper for the admission to the B.Tech course will include the questions of the subjects related. Candidates must check the past question papers available online. It is crucial for the candidate they must know the format of the paper before appearing for the exam.

UPSEE Important Dates 2020

The applicant must be aware of the dates of the admission procedure of UPSEE 2020. It is important that they must keep visiting the official website on a regular basis for any latest updates. The schedule will mention the admission events. It is advised that once the admission schedule is available, the candidate must download and save it so as not to miss any important dates and events.

Find the tentative schedule in the tabular format below

EventsImportant Dates (Tentative)
UPTU Application Form 2020January 2020
Last date to submit the formMarch 2020
UPSEE Application Form Correction 2020March 2020
UPSEE Admit Card 2020April 2020
UPSEE Exam 2020April 2020
UPSEE Answer Key 2020April 2020
UPSEE Result will declareMay 2020
UPSEE Counselling 2020 will begin fromJune to July 2020
Spot Round Counselling will beginJuly 2020

UPSEE Exam Pattern 2020

The examination authorities of Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Examination (UPSEE) defines the set pattern of the examination. Candidates must make sure that they go through the sample pattern carefully and proceed with their preparation as accordingly. The candidate who has successfully submitted the Application Form can appear for the entrance exam. It is required that the applicant must be known to the topics that will be asked in the entrance examination.

The applicant must find the relevant topics and the syllabus which will guide for the preparation of the exam. The preparation for the entrance exam must be strategic and the applicant must also be known to the format of the examination paper. The exam pattern includes the duration of the exam, a number of questions asked in the exam, the format of the question papers and other details.

Find the UPSEE Exam Pattern 2020 from the tabular format below

ParticularsDetails
Mode of ExaminationPaper 1, 2, 3, and 4 will be conducted offline in OMR sheet;
Paper 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, and 11 will be conducted in online computer based standardized test
Language of ExamThe UPSEE 2020 Examination will be asked in English and Hindi Languages
Type of QuestionsQuestions in UPSEE 2020 will be objective type multiple choice questions
DurationThe exam will be conducted in 3 hours
Total QuestionsThere is going to be 150 questions
Total MarksCandidates can score up to 600 marks
Marking Scheme4 Marks for every correct answer
Negative MarkingsThere will be no Negative Markings

UPSEE Exam Subject Wise Distribution of Questions

Subject Wise Distribution of Questions in UPSEE Exam 2020

Name of PaperCourse NameSubjectsQuestionsMarks
Paper 1B. Tech.Physics50600
Chemistry50
Mathematics50
Paper 2B. Tech. (Bio-Technology)/ B. Pharm.Physics50600
Chemistry50
Biology50
Paper 6B.Tech. 2nd Year (for Engg. Diploma Holders)Diploma Holders in Engineering (Lateral Entry) Aptitude Test75300
Paper 8B.Tech. 2nd Year (for B. Sc. Graduates)B.Sc. Graduates in Engineering (Lateral Entry) Aptitude Test75300

We hope the detailed article on UPSEE Exam Pattern 2020 is helpful. If you have any doubt regarding this article or UPSEE Exam Pattern 2020, drop your comments in the comment section below and we will get back to you as soon as possible.

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UPSEE Eligibility Criteria 2020 | Course Wise Eligibility Details Available Here

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UPSEE Eligibility Criteria 2020: Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Technical University defines the eligibility criteria in order to apply for UPSEE Exam. Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Exam (UPSEE) is held for admission to Undergraduate and Postgraduate courses in various fields. Candidates planning on pursuing Engineering after 12th can appear for this exam for the B.Tech course. Candidates planning on applying must make sure that they fulfill the basic criteria as defined.

The aspirant must note that the criteria vary from course to course. The University explains the criteria in terms of Candidate’s Age, Nationality and Academic details. The candidates who not be able to satisfy the criteria cannot proceed for the admission procedure further. The authority will reject their Applications even if they are satisfying other terms and conditions. For more details regarding UPSEE Eligibility Criteria 2020, proceed for the article below.

UPSEE Exam Dates 2020

It is important for the candidates that they must be aware of the UPSEE Exam dates. The official schedule will release on the official website. Applicants are advised that they must keep visiting the website on a regular basis and keep themselves updated. The official datesheet will mention all the important dates and events. Once it is available, the applicant must save it so as not to miss any events.

Find the tentative schedule from the tabular format below

EventsImportant Dates (Tentative)
UPTU Application Form 2020January 2020
Last date to submit the formMarch 2020
UPSEE Application Form Correction 2020March 2020
UPSEE Admit Card 2020April 2020
UPSEE Exam 2020April 2020
UPSEE Answer Key 2020April 2020
UPSEE Result will declareMay 2020
UPSEE Counselling 2020 will begin fromJune to July 2020
Spot Round Counselling will beginJuly 2020

UPSEE Eligibility Criteria 2020

The candidates applying for B.Tech course through UPSEE Exam must make sure that they fulfill the eligibility criteria. The authority will mention the criteria in details in the Information Brochure. It will release in an online mode along with the Application Form. The candidate must go through the criteria details very carefully and then only proceed to fill the Application Form. The applicants must note that the criteria to apply for various courses vary. Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Technical University offers Undergraduate and Postgraduate courses in various fields such as Engineering, Management, Agriculture, etc. Candidates applying for the B.Tech course must go through the eligibility for the particular course only. They don’t need to fulfill the criteria for all the courses offered but only the course for which they will give UPSEE exam 2020.

UPSEE Eligibility Criteria Details

The candidates who are planning to apply for UPSEE 2020 for the admission to B.Tech course can go through the points below and the tabular format. It mentions the basic criteria in order to apply for the course.

  • The candidate must have qualified the UP Board Intermediate Examination or 10+2 or equivalent examination.
  • The Nationality of the candidate can be Indian/NRI/FN/PIO
  • There is no Age Criteria to apply for UPSEE 2020.
  • Candidates who are applying for UPSEE must have passed the qualifying examination from the Institution located in UP or their parents must have a domicile of UP. In case, the candidate has studied or passed the exam outside UP, they have to produce the domicile of their parents during the document verification procedure.
  • If the candidate’s parents are not a domicile of UP and candidate has passed the qualifying exam outside UP, they can for sure apply for the entrance exam. But they are considered for the admission to only 20% of the sanctioned seats of the Private Institutions which is affiliated to UP. In this case, the applicant will also not be provided with the Reservation Benefits. The seats further will be allotted to them based on UPSEE Merit List.

Find the details regarding the qualifying marks, Compulsory subjects and other basic criteria from the tabular format below

CourseCompulsory SubjectsAnyone of the following SubjectsQualifying Marks
B.Tech.Physics & MathematicsChemistry/Biotechnology/Biology/ Technical Vocational subjectCandidate must have passed the qualifying exam with minimum 45% marks (40% marks for SC/ST Category) in aggregate in three subjects. Also, the qualifying exam should be passed without grace.
B.Tech. (Bio-Technology)(i) Physics & (ii) Mathematics or BiologyChemistry/Biotechnology/Technical Vocational subjectCandidates are eligible for B.Tech. courses are also eligible for B.Tech Bio-Technology
B.Arch.Physics & MathematicsChemistry/Computer Science/Biology/Engineering Drawing/Technical Vocational subjectCandidate must obtain a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate and passed each subject individually without grace.
B.Tech. (Agriculture Engineering)

Agriculture discipline

Must have passed qualifying exam with minimum 45% aggregate marks (40% marks for SC/ST Category) in aggregate.
Also, who are eligible for B.Tech, are eligible for this course as well.

We hope the detailed article on UPSEE Eligibility Criteria 2020 is helpful. If you have any doubt regarding this article or UPSEE Eligibility Criteria 2020, drop your comments in the comment section below and we will get back to you as soon as possible.

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UPSEE Counselling 2019 (Started) | Get Seat Allotment & Procedure Here

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UPSEE Counselling 2019: The UPSEE or Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Examination (UPSEE) 2019 allotment results have been released on the official website of the competitive exam. The UPSEE allotment list for the first round of counseling, which is released by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Technical University, Uttar Pradesh (formerly U.P. Technical University, Lucknow), can be accessed from the official website. With the UPSEE 2019 allotment result, the admission process will be undertaken to various graduate and postgraduate courses in professional colleges in Uttar Pradesh.

The counseling procedure will be held for the students who cleared the UPSEE 2019 exam. You can check the results on the official UPSEE website. You will be called for counseling based on your rank in the merit list. Students will have to register first and then fill in your choices of courses. You will be allotted a seat after document verification and payment of fees. Read on to find out more about the entire process.

Latest Update:

UPSEE 2019 4th Round Seat Allotment Result has been released on 26th July 2019. Click Here to Check Allotment Result.

UPSEE 2019 Spot Round Counseling Notification has been released on 20th July 2019. Click Here to View Notice.

Online Registration and Choice Filling for Round 2 has been started on July, 8th and ends on 10th July 2019. Click here to fill Online registration and choice filling

UPSEE Counselling Important Dates 2019

Given below is the tentative schedule for UPSEE Counselling. It will give you an idea as to when you will be called. Keep the deadlines in mind and plan accordingly.

UPSEE Counselling Round – 1

Main UPSEE Counselling Round

EventStart DateEnd Date
Registration and Payment of FeeJune 26, 2019, 11:00July 2, 2019, 23:59
Document VerificationJune 27, 2019, 11:00July 3, 2019, 12:00
Online Choice LockingJune 29, 2019, 15:00July 4, 2019, 09:00
Seat AllotmentJuly 4, 2019, 15:00
Online Willingness (Freeze/Float)July 4, 2019,  15:00July 7, 2019,  23:59
Payment of Seat Confirmation (20000/12000)July 4, 2019,  15:00July 7, 2019,  23:59
Physical Reporting of Freeze Seat Candidates at PIJuly 5, 2019,  10:00July 29, 2019,  17

UPSEE Counselling Round – 2

For JEE Mains and CMAT qualifying Candidates and for those who missed or Chose FLOAT in the previous UPSEE counselling

EventStart DateEnd Date
Registration and Payment of Fee (Fresh Candidates)July 8, 2019,  11:00July 12, 2019,  23:59
Document VerificationJuly 8, 2019,  11:00July 13, 2019,  14:00
Online Choice LockingJuly 8, 2019,  11:00July 14, 2019,  23:59
Seat AllotmentJuly 15, 2019,  15:00
Online Willingness (Freeze/Float)July 15, 2019,  15:00July 19, 2019,  23:59
Payment of Seat Confirmation (20000/12000)July 15, 2019,  15:00July 19, 2019,  23:59
Online Withdrawal (Refund 15000/9000)July 15, 2019,  15:00July 20, 2019,  08:00
Physical Reporting of Freeze Seat Candidates at PIJuly 16, 2019,  10:00July 19, 2019,  17:00

UPSEE Counselling Round – 3

UPSEE Counselling For only SC Candidates

EventStart dateEnd date
Registration and Payment of Fee (Fresh Candidates)July 20, 2019,  11:00July 21, 2019,  23:59
Document VerificationJuly 21, 2019,  10:00July 22, 2019,  17:00
Online Choice LockingJuly 21, 2019,  10:00July 23, 2019,  09:00
Seat AllotmentJuly 23, 2019, 15:00
Online Willingness (Freeze/Float)July 23, 2019, 15:00July 25, 2019, 23:59
Payment of Seat ConfirmationJuly 23, 2019, 15:00July 25, 2019, 23:59
Online Withdrawal (Refund 10000/6000)July 23, 2019, 15:00July 26, 2019, 09:00
Physical Reporting of Freeze Seat Candidates at PIJuly 26, 2019, 10:00July 29, 2019, 17:00

UPSEE Counselling Round – 4

Open for people of all categories who missed or chose FLOAT in previous UPSEE Counselling rounds

EventStart dateEnd date
Seat AllotmentJuly 26, 2019, 15:00
Payment of Seat Confirmation (20000/12000)July 26, 2019, 15:00July 27, 2019, 23:59
Physical Reporting of Freeze Seat Candidates at PIJuly 27, 2019, 10:00July 29, 2019, 17:00

UPSEE Counselling Round – 5

Open for all, but will be conducted only if seats remain vacant

EventDates
Registration or form filling process Last Week of July 2019
Document Verification Last Week of July 2019
Choice selection and locking the preference First Week of August 2019
Results of The Seat Allotments First Week of August 2019

UPSEE Counselling Other Important Dates

EventStart dateEnd date
Internal Sliding in Govt CollegesJuly 30, 2019
Seat vacancy For Spot RoundJuly 31, 2019
Registration for Spot Round 1August 1, 2019, 11:00August 5, 2019, 23:59
Spot Counseling 1August 8, 2019, 10:00
Registration for Spot Round 2August 10, 2019, 11:00August 12, 2019, 23:59
Spot Counseling 2August 14, 2019, 10:00

UPSEE Counselling Procedure 2019

The counselling procedure contains 6 steps in total

  1. Registration (which includes document uploading and payment of counseling fee)
  2. Document verification
  3. Filling of choices
  4. Seat allotment result
  5. Seat confirmation
  6. Physical reporting at the college

You need to complete all the steps given above successfully to gain admission. Below, we give a detailed outline of each step.

UPSEE Counselling Registration 2019

Registration for UPSEE counseling 2019 will be through online mode. You need to register on the official website https://upsee.nic.in/publicinfo/public/home.aspx using your given credentials. Once registered, you will have to pay the counselling fee

  • General and OBC candidates – ₹20,000
  • SC and ST candidates – ₹12,000

You are also required to upload all the necessary documents to complete registration.

UPSEE Counselling Document Verification

You will have to upload all the necessary documents for verification. The size limit for the files is 200 KB. The documents to be uploaded are:

  1. UPSEE Admit Card 2019
  2. UPSEE Rank Card 2019
  3. Class XII Certificate & marks sheet
  4. Rural weightage certificate if applicable
  5. Domicile certificate
  6. Domicile certificate of his/ her parents (Father OR Mother) if the candidate has passed qualifying examination from outside of U.P
  7. Character certificate
  8. Certificate of Medical Fitness/ Undertaking of Medical Fitness
  9. Domicile certificate, if applicable.
  10. Category certificate for OBC/SC/ST, if applicable
  11. Subcategory certificate for Freedom fighters/Armed forces/ Physically handicapped as  applicable
  12. Income certificate for economically weak candidates
  13. GDDA category certificate, if applicable
  14. Other Documents required (only if applicable)

After this step is done. you will be provided with a One-time-password (OTP) for choice filling.

UPSEE Counselling Filling of Choices

You will have to fill in your preferred order of colleges and courses. You will be allotted your most preferred seat if vacant, then second and so on.

UPSEE Counselling Seat Allotment Result

On the basis of your rank and preference order, you will be allotted a seat.

Seat Confirmation

In this step, you have three options available to you: Freeze, Float and Withdraw.

  • Freeze: You are satisfied with the seat allotted to you and want to finalize it.
  • Float: You are not satisfied with the seat allotted to you and want to wait for the other rounds of counselling to see if your seat will be upgraded. (To one with higher preference)
  • Withdraw: You do not wish to participate further in the admission process. Your seat will be forfeited.

UPSEE Counselling Physical Reporting at College

  • After all the rounds of counseling are completed. you will have to report at the allotted college to complete the admission process.
  • The counseling process is straight forward and entirely via online mode. You need to register on the official website for counselling by uploading all the necessary documents and paying the counselling fee (depending on your category). Then, you will have to upload the necessary documents and certificates for online verification. Once this process is complete, you will be able to choose your preferred order of colleges and courses. Finally, a seat will be allotted to you based on merit.
  • At this stage, you can either choose to withdraw or stay in the admission process. If you choose to stay, you can either freeze the seat allotted to you or opt for float and hope for upgradation.
  • The last step will be to physically report at the allotted college to confirm your seat and finish the admission procedure.

We hope that this article cleared all your doubts regarding UPSEE Counselling 2019. Good luck!

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UPSEE 2020 – AKTU/UPTU Notification, Application Form, Exam Dates, Syllabus

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Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Examination (UPSEE) is a state level exam conducted by Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Technical University (AKTU), Uttar Pradesh for the admission to various Undergraduate and Postgraduate courses in engineering, Pharmacy, Management, etc. Candidates planning on taking admission to the B.Tech courses must fill the Application Form and submit it before the due date. The candidates who will qualify the exam can proceed for the admission to various institutes affiliated to the University.

UPSEE 2020 entrance exam will be in both online as well as offline mode. The applicant must make sure that they are fulfilling the basic eligibility as defined by the examination authorities. The examination authorities announce the result after the entrance test is held successfully. AKTU or UPTU conducts counseling for the final seat allotment to the applied course. For more details regarding UPSEE 2020, read the article below.

UPSEE Important Dates 2020

The candidates applying for UPSEE 2020 must check the official website on a regular basis. The website will mention the important dates for the admission including the events. The applicant must not miss any exam event and must keep themselves updated. It is advised that they must save and download the official schedule once it is available on the website.

Find UPSEE 2020 tentative dates in the tabular format below:

EventsImportant Dates (Tentative Dates)
UPSEE 2020 Application FormJanuary 2020
Last date to submit the UPSEE 2020 Application FormMarch 2020
UPSEE 2020 Application Form CorrectionMarch 2020
UPSEE 2020 Admit Card will release onApril 2020
UPSEE 2020 ExamApril 2020
UPSEE 2020 Answer Key will release onApril 2020
UPSEE 2020 Result will declare onMay 2020
UPSEE 2020 Counselling will begin fromJune to July 2020
Spot Round CounsellingLast week of July 2020

UPSEE Eligibility Criteria 2020

The candidates must fulfill the basic eligibility criteria in order to apply for UPSEE 2020. It is important that the applicant must go through the Information Brochure very carefully which will also mention the eligibility details. The eligibility details will vary as per the course which the candidate wishes to pursue. They must note that the applicant not fulling the criteria cannot proceed with the admission procedure further.

Find the basic UPSEE Eligibility Criteria 2020 from the points below

  • There is no age limit for the candidates applying for UPSEE 2020.
  • Candidates with India/NRI/FN/PIO nationality can apply for the exam.
  • For UPSEE 2020, the candidate must have studied their 12thfrom UP Board or 10+2 (or equivalent) with Maths and Physics as compulsory subjects and any one of the following subjects – Chemistry/Biotechnology/Biology/Technical Vocational Subject. The candidates applying for B.Tech Biotechnology must have studied Physics and Maths/Biology as their compulsory subjects.
  • The applicant must have secured at least 45% marks in their 10+2 (or equivalent) examination. The candidates from SC/ST category must secure 40% marks.
  • The candidate must meet the domicile requirements of the State.

UPSEE Application Form 2020

AKTU will release the UPSEE Application Form 2020 in an online mode on its official website. Candidates must fill the Application Form and submit it before the due date. The Application Form submission is an important procedure. The applicant who is planning on pursuing the engineering courses from the AKTU affiliated colleges must fill-up the form. The applicant is advised that they must read the instructions carefully before filling the Application. The University will also release the Information Brochure along with the Application form. Read the entire Information Brochure thoroughly. It will mention the important steps for filling the Application that the candidate must follow.

The candidate has to provide the Personal Details, Academic Information, Contact Details and upload important documents, photographs, and signature in the Application Form. They must make sure that the details in the form are valid and correct. The authorities will cross-check the information during the final admission. The candidate must register themselves first in order to fill the Application Form. The final Application Form submission is only after the Application Fee payment. The Brochure will mention the amount as well as the Application Fee payment mode.

UPSEE Admit Card 2019

Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam University will release the UPSEE Admit card 2020 in an online mode on the official website. The candidate must submit the Application Form successfully in order to download the Admit card. It is an important document which the applicant must bring on the examination day. The document consists of all the important details which is important for the applicant. The entry to the examination hall is prohibited without the Admit card. The login section to download the Admit Card will appear as per the announced date. The candidate must provide the correct details in the login section. Only the examination conducting body will release the Admit card and its availability is only in an online mode.

Once the UPSEE Admit card will release on the website, the applicant must download it. It is advised that they must go through the details on the Admit card very carefully. It mentions the candidate’s name, Application Number, Roll Number, Course Name, Date and Exam Time, Examination center and the instructions for the candidates on the entrance exam day. In case, if the candidate finds any detail on the Admit Card to be invalid or incorrect, they must contact the examination authorities immediately. It is important that the revised Admit card is released before the exam. The candidate must get the multiple Admit Card photocopies for the examination day as well as for the counseling round.

UPSEE Exam Pattern 2020

The candidates appearing for UPSEE 2020 exam must be aware of the examination pattern. It helps in exam preparation. The candidates must make sure that they go through the topics covered in the exam thoroughly. They must note that the topics will vary as per the course for which the candidate is appearing for. There will be a total of 11 papers. Paper 1,2,3,4 will be held in an offline mode. Paper 5,6,7,8,9, 10,11 will be in an online mode.

Go through the points below regarding UPSEE Exam Pattern 2020.

  • The language mode of the question will be in English and Hindi.
  • The pattern of the question paper is an objective type.
  • The exam duration for Paper 1,2,3 will be 3 hours. For Paper 4, the duration is 2 Hours and 20 minutes.
  • The question paper will have a total of 150 questions and will be marked out of 600 marks. The candidate can score a maximum of 500 marks.
  • There is No Negative Marking. 4 marks are allotted for each correct
Name of PaperCourse NameSubjectsQuestionsMarks
Paper 1B. Tech.Physics50600
Chemistry50
Mathematics50
Paper 2B. Tech. (Bio-Technology) / B. Pharm.Physics50600
Chemistry50
Biology50
Paper 6B.Tech. 2nd Year (for Engg. Diploma Holders) /Diploma Holders in Engineering (Lateral Entry) Aptitude Test75300
Paper 8B.Tech. 2nd Year (for B. Sc. Graduates)B.Sc. Graduates in Engineering (Lateral Entry) Aptitude Test75300

UPSEE Answer Key 2020

The University will release the Answer Key in an online mode on its official website. The authorities release the Answer Key a few hours after the exam is conducted. The Answer Key helps the candidate in the estimation of the possible marks that the candidate might secure in the exam. The University will release the login link in order to download the Answer Key. The applicant will have to log in using their Registration ID by entering their Username and Password. The Answer Key will mention the correct answers. The applicant must cross-check their responses in the Answer Sheet to the ones in the official Answer Key. They have to calculate the marks of the correct answers for the estimated score.

The authorities will also provide an opportunity of objecting the answers in the Anwer Key, in case the candidate finds them to be incorrect. The time frame is provided for the objections and the challenges. It is important that the applicant must object within the given time period. The candidates will have to send an email to upseegrievance@aktu.ac.in  with the following details such as Candidate’s Name, Roll Number, Application Number, Paper Number, Paper Code, Grievance Question Number, and Suggested Answers with Supporting Reasons. The authority will release the edited and the final answer key.

UPSEE Result 2020

AKTU will declare UPSEE 2020result in an online mode on the official website. The result will release tentatively in May 2020. Candidates have to check their result by providing the correct details in the login section. The authorities will release it on the website as per the announced date. The authorities will release the Result as per on the announced date. The Result will mention the important details including the candidate’s score in the exam. It is important that the applicant must qualify the exam in order to proceed for the admission procedure further. Once the authority announces the result, the candidate must keep visiting the website for the Merit List and counseling round. The candidate must check the details on the Result very carefully. In case if there is an error, they must contact the examination authorities immediately.

 UPSEE Cut Off 2020

The University will release the cut off on its official website. The authorities release the cut off in order to provide the expected marks that the candidate must aim to secure in their entrance exam. The university will release the cut off list tentatively in June 2020. The candidates must note that the cut off marks as prepared will vary as per the category from which the candidate belongs.

The applicant must check the cut off marks of the category to which they belong. There are various factors that are taken into consideration during the cut off list preparation including the number of seats, candidates appearing for the exam, maximum marks secured by the candidate in the entrance exam. UPSEE Cut off list is released in the form of an opening rank and closing rank. The candidate must secure the marks within the given range.

UPSEE Merit List 2020

The Merit List will release in an online mode on the official website. The University will release the Merit List tentatively in June 2020. It is an important document which will mention the candidate’s names who are selected for the admission procedure further and can proceed for the counseling round. The list mentions the names as per the rank provided on the basis of the marks secured in the examination. The applicant must note that their secured marks must be within the defined cut-off. As per the marks they are ranked in the Merit List.

The cases where there is a tie between two or more candidates where they secured the same marks in the entrance exam, the examination authorities will follow the below- mentioned procedure.

  • The candidates with the lower/lesser marks will be given the preference.
  • In case the tie persists, the applicant with a high score in Mathematics, Physics, and chemistry of Paper 1 will be given preference.
  • If there is still a tie, the candidate with older age will be given the preference.
  • The candidate with the lower Application Number will also be given the preference.
  • For Agricultural engineering, candidates with higher test score in AG-I, AG-II, and AG-III will be given the preferences.

UPSEE Counselling 2020

AKTU will conduct the counseling round for the final seat allotment to the applied course. The University will release the counseling information including the important dates through the online advertisements as well as in newspapers. Candidates must keep checking the sources regarding the counseling updates. The authorities will allow the seats to the candidates as per their choice and preference. UPSEE Counselling 2020 will be tentatively from June to July 2020 and the Spot counseling round is in last week of July 2020.

UPSEE Counselling 2020 is held in three rounds and the third round is a mop-up round. Only the qualified candidates can participate in the counseling round. The candidate must get themselves registered first for the counseling round. They have to upload the asked documents as well as pay the registration fee. After the successful registration, the candidate must proceed for the document verification procedure, choice filling and locking seat allotment and reporting to the allotted college for the final admission. The applicant must note that choice cannot be changed once locked. It will be important that they must physically appear for the counseling round at the allotted center along with the important documents.

FAQ’s On UPSEE

Question 1.
What are the important precautions that should be taken while filling On-Line Application Form?

Answer:

  • The applicant is supposed to fill up the form very carefully. It is advised that before filling the form, one should read the Information Brochure thoroughly.
  • Note down the APPLICATION FORM NUMBER displayed on the screen after Step 1.
  • Please do remember the PASSWORD chosen by you.
  • Give your Personal MOBILE PHONE NUMBER only.
  • Take Print-out of CONFIRMATION PAGE.

Question 2.
What are the other ways of filling the UPSEE Form other than On-Line Application through the Internet?

Answer:
On-Line Application is the only way for applying to UPSEE through website http://www.upsee.nic.in. There is no other way of applying to UPSEE-2016.

Question 3.
What should I do if size of image of my photograph exceeds the maximum limit of 100 KB?

Answer:
Refer to Brochure and see if your images are within the maximum size limit and in the proper format (JPEG). You may try reducing the resolution a little bit but not much if the size exceeds the maximum limit.

Question 4.
Do I have to send the Confirmation Page to the University?

Answer:
No. The candidate is NOT required to send a copy of Confirmation Page or any other document to the University at this stage. Although, the candidate is required to keep preserved at least one copy of the Confirmation Page for record and future communication.

We hope the detailed article on UPSEE 2020 is helpful. If you have any doubts regarding this article or UPSEE 2020, drop your comments in the comment section below and we will get back to you as soon as possible.

The post UPSEE 2020 – AKTU/UPTU Notification, Application Form, Exam Dates, Syllabus appeared first on Learn CBSE.

UPSEE Admit Card 2020 | AKTU/UPTU Admit Card Details Available Here

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UPSEE Admit Card 2020: Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Technical University will release the Admit Card for Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Examination (UPSEE) in an online mode on the official website. The candidate must submit the Application Form before the due date in order to appear for the exam and access the Admit Card. It is an important document mentioning the required details. The candidate cannot enter the examination hall in its absence.

UPSEE Admit card 2020 will release as per on the date as announced by the authorities. Candidate must keep visiting the University’s website for the regular update. The applicant must provide the correct credentials in the login section to download the Admit card. The document will release tentatively in April 2020. To read more details regarding UPSEE Admit card 2019, go through the article from below.

UPSEE Admit Card Dates 2020

Candidates appearing for UPSEE 2020 must keep visiting the University’s website on a regular basis for the Admit card release. The examination authority will release the Admit card as per on the date in the officially released schedule. Once the schedule is available, the aspirant must save it for the events and important dates.

Find UPSEE 2020 tentative schedule in the tabular format below

EventsImportant Dates (Tentative)
UPSEE Admit Card 2020 will releaseApril 2020
UPSEE 2020April 2020

UPSEE Admit Card 2020

AKTU will release the Admit card in an online mode on the official website. Candidates who will submit the Application form successfully can download the Admit card. It is a mandatory document which the candidate must bring on the entrance exam day. Its absence will prohibit the applicant from entering the examination center or appearing for the exam. The Login link to download the Admit card will appear as per on the announced date. It is important that the aspirant must provide the correct and valid credentials in order to download the Admit card successfully. The invalid login details will prohibit the applicant from downloading the Admit card.

Once the Admit card is available, the applicant must go through the details very carefully. Admit card mentions details such as the Candidate’s name, the Application number, Roll Number, Course Details, Date and Time of exam and the instructions that the applicant must follow on the examination day. In case if the applicant finds that the details on the Admit Card is incorrect, they must contact the examination authorities immediately. The revised Admit card must be issued before the examination day. The candidate is advised to get at least two to three Admit card photocopies, in case the downloaded one is lost or damaged. The Admit Card must be kept with care till the admission procedure is over.

UPSEE Admit Card 2020 – Steps to Download

Candidates must be known to the steps for downloading the Admit Card. It is important to avoid any form of error while accessing the document. Find the relevant steps in the points below:

  • Visit the official website of UPSEE
  • The Login section is already given on UPSEE page.
  • Candidate must enter Application number, Password and Security pin to access the Admit card. The credentials must be valid and correct.
  • UPSEE Admit Card 2020 will appear on the screen.
  • The candidate must go through the details carefully. In case of incorrect details, the applicant must contact the authorities.
  • Click on the download button and save the Admit card for future references.

Contents on UPSEE Admit Card 2020

Candidate must go through the content on the Admit card very carefully. The following details are mentioned on UPSEE Admit Card 2020:

  • Candidate’s Name
  • Application Number
  • Roll Number
  • Course Name
  • Category
  • Sub Category
  • Exam Date and Time
  • Gender
  • Examination center
  • Photograph and Signature of the candidate
  • Instructions to follow on the exam day.

UPSEE Admit Card 2020 – Important Points

The candidates are advised to go through the points below related to UPSEE Admit Card 2020. It will help in any form of query regarding the Admit Card:

  • The Admit Card will release in an online mode on the official website of Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Technical University.
  • Candidates must register themselves first in order to download the Admit card successfully.
  • The Admit Card will mention the important details such as the exam center. The information must be cross-checked by the candidate.
  • No form of editing or changes by the candidate on the Admit Card is acceptable by the authorities.
  • Any form of request regarding the change in the examination center will not be entertained.
  • Candidates cannot enter the examination hall or appear for the exam in the absence of UPSEE Admit Card 2020.

The post UPSEE Admit Card 2020 | AKTU/UPTU Admit Card Details Available Here appeared first on Learn CBSE.

UPSEE Application Form 2020 | AKTU/UPTU Notification, Application From, Procedure to Apply

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UPSEE Application Form 2020: Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Technical University releases the Application Form for UPSEE in an online mode. The University releases the form for the candidates who are planning on applying for the state exam. The forms will release tentatively in January 2020. The candidates qualifying this exam are eligible to proceed for the admission to the institutes affiliated to AKTU, Uttar Pradesh.

The University organizes Uttar Pradesh State Entrance Exam (UPSEE) for enrollment in Undergraduate and Postgraduate courses in various fields. Aspirants planning on pursuing their career in Engineering after class 12th can also appear for this exam. The candidate must fill the Application Form and submit it before the due date. It is an important procedure to follow. The University will also release the Information Brochure along with the Application Form. For more details, read the article below.

UPSEE Application Form Dates 2020

The candidates applying for the UPSEE Exam must know the official dates. The applicant must keep visiting the website on a regular basis for the updates. The Schedule will mention the important dates and events. Candidates must make sure that they do not miss the admission procedure, they cannot proceed otherwise.

Find the tentative UPSEE Application Form 2020 Schedule from the tabular format below

EventsImportant Dates (Tentative)
UPSEE Application Form 2020 will releaseJanuary 2020
Last date to submit the formMarch 2020
UPSEE Application Form CorrectionMarch 2020
UPSEE 2020April 2020

UPSEE Application Form 2020

AKTU will release UPSEE Application Form 2020 in an online mode on the official website. Candidates must fill and submit the form before the due date. Only the candidate submitting the form can proceed with the admission procedure further. There are various sections in the Application that the applicant must fill. They must make sure that the details in the form are valid and correct. The authorities will cross-check the information during the final admission. Candidates must read the Information Brochure very carefully before filling the Application Form. The University will release the brochure along with the Application Form.

The candidate has to provide the Personal details, academic information, Contact details and upload documents and photographs in the Application Form. The Brochure mentions the specifications for documents and photographs. The applicant must note that the final form of submission is only after the Application Fee payment. The Application fee amount will vary as per the category to which the candidate belongs. The payment can be done in an online mode through Credit Card, Debit card and Net Banking. The form will release tentatively in January 2020 and the last date to submit the form is in March 2020.

UPSEE Application Form 2020 – Steps to Fill

The candidate applying for the exam must know the steps for filling the form without any error. Information Brochure will also mention the important steps in details. Find the procedure of filling the UPSEE Application Form from below:

Registration and Filling the Application Form :

  • The candidate must register themselves first by visiting the official website to create an account.
  • They must provide basic details such as Personal information, Academic details, Contact details, etc.
  • After the details, the candidate must set up a security question and password. The candidate is provided with the Application Number and Password. This will work as a candidate’s username and Password for future activities.
  • Submit the entries and review the Application Form before clicking ‘Final Submit’ button.

Uploading Image and Signature

In this, the candidate has to upload their recent passport size image and signature in the provided section. The specifications for uploading the documents is mentioned in the Information Brochure. The image must be clear and concise. Any unclear or blurry image will be liable for rejection.

Application Fee Payment

The final step for the successful form submission is the Application Fee payment. The payment must be done through Credit Card or Debit Card or Net banking. A transaction number is generated after the successful payment. The applicant must keep it carefully.

Confirmation Page

After the successful Application Fee payment, the candidate must download the confirmation page stating the acceptance of the Application form. They must also take the printout of the confirmation page.

CategoryApplication Fee
Male/ Transgender applicants of General/ OBC CategoryRs 1300
Female, SC/ ST, and Physically Handicapped candidatesRs 650

UPSEE Application Form Correction 2020

AKTU provides an opportunity for the candidate for the Application Form correction. This opportunity is for the applicants who have submitted their form with some error. The examination body opens a window for the correction for few days after the Application procedure is over. The candidate has to login in their account using their Username and Password to edit their Application Form. The applicant must note though that the correction is allowed only in few fields. Find them in the points below:

  • Date of Birth
  • Applicant’s Name
  • Parent’s Domicile
  • Gender
  • Nationality
  • Aadhaar Details

The post UPSEE Application Form 2020 | AKTU/UPTU Notification, Application From, Procedure to Apply appeared first on Learn CBSE.

PFMS Scholarship 2019 | Login, Registration, Status, list, Renewal

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PFMS Scholarship 2019: The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a Government of India project that looks after social sector programs. It keeps track of the resources allocated to individuals. The Indian Central Government took this move to guarantee that the cash invested is channeled for the correct intent. PFMS provides applicants with different systems of scholarships.

Students must log on to the PFMS Login Scholarship Portal and upload the records as needed. It is essential that candidates applying for a 2019 PFMS Scholarship meet the qualifying requirements set out in the PFMS Information Bulletin. This assistance scheme is acknowledged in the assistance of scheme scheduling, budgeting and efficient tracking due to deficiencies in the current accounting system. In four countries, namely Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Mizoram, and Punjab, this scheme was first introduced. Read more details in this article about the PFMS Scholarship 2019 i.e. pfms.nic.in sc.

Latest Update:

Candidates can check their PFMS Scholarship Status for the session 2019-20 by providing the asked details in the Login section. They must provide the Username and password.

PFMS Scholarships 2019 List

PFMS Scholarship 2019 to Universities/College Students

PFMS Scholarship 2019 to Universities,College Students

PFMS 2019 Post Matric Scholarship for SC Students (pfms.nic.in sc)

PFMS 2019 Post Matric Scholarship for SC Students

PFMS/DBT Scholarship 2019 Pre-Matric Scholarship for SC Students

PFMS Scholarship 2019 Pre-Matric Scholarship for SC Students

PFMS Student Scholarship National Means cum Merit Scholarship

PFMS Student Scholarship National Means cum Merit Scholarship

PFMS Scholarship 2019 National Scheme for Incentive for the girl child for secondary education

PFMS Scholarship 2019 National Scheme for Incentive for the girl child for secondary education

pfms.nic.in scholarship 2019 Top Class Education Scheme for SC

pfms.nic.in scholarship for Post-Matric Scholarship for OBCs

pfms.nic.in scholarship for UP Gradation of Merit of SC Students

pfms.nic.in scholarship for Up gradation of Merit of SC Students

pfms.nic.in scholarship for Post-Matric Scholarship for OBCs

pfms.nic.in scholarship 2019 Top Class Education Scheme for SC

Scholarships for Students

PFMS Scholarship 2019 Registration

To apply for multiple types of scholarship provided by the Public Financial Management System, the applicant will have to enroll themselves. Application for the PFMS Scholarship 2019 will be a significant component and the applicant will have to provide the necessary information. The registration login link will be available on PFMS ‘ official website and the applicant will be required to enter the correct and valid details. The details provided for the successful registration will be the Scholarship Scheme Name, the passing year of Class 12 and the academic details.

The applicant must notify the information of the scholarship they apply for must be applicable and accurate. At the moment of the initial presentation of the application, the data will be cross-checked and if any of the details given are discovered to be invalid or inaccurate, the applicant will not be allowed to access the Scholarship.

The 2019 application of the PFMS Scholarship 2019 must be performed in an internet mode and there will be no other way to access the PFMS application form. To access the Scholarship, candidates will have to enroll themselves effectively. It should be observed that the applicant will be required to meet the eligibility requirements specified for the scholarship for which the applicant is eligible. The information brochure will also be published once the PFMS Scholarship 2019 enrollment portal for applicants is open.

At the time of registration, the bank account number, the IFSC code and the Mobile Number should be kept ready with the applicant. An OTP on the list will be sent by entering a valid phone number. The applicants must select their category. If the category is not discovered, the applicants must select General as their class. Check the name of the candidate in the PFMS Scholarship 2019 Portal list of qualified learners at pfms.nic.in scholarship.

How To Register for PFMS Scholarship 2019?

  • Visit the official website pfms.nic.in
  • Click on the section below Click on’ PFMS Scholarship 2019 Student Registration.’
  • On the register section, select the system “Scholarship for Universities / College Students.”
  • Together with the Education Board from which the applicant entered class 12, select the year of entering class 12.
  • Enter the bank account number and bank branch IFSC code.
  • Click the menu button, pick the category and press “Search.”
  • The system will search for the title and fill in the type presented on the display automatically.
  • Enter the mobile number, send an OTP to that code, fill in the OTP socket.
  • Click the “Verify” button and enter the email ID. Creating a user ID and password and filling in the captcha code below.
  • To complete the method, click on “Submit.”

Documents To Be Uploaded While PFMS Scholarship Registration

Registration Candidates applying for any type of a 2019 PFMS Scholarship will need to upload the papers while completing the application process and registering for the Scholarship.  It must ensure that the right Documents are downloaded in accordance with the information requirements. The downloaded papers must be applied as any discrepancy will prevent the applicant from applying for the 2019 system of PFMS Scholarship.

Find the list of papers to be downloaded from below in the PFMS Scholarship 2019

  • The candidate’s scanned copy of Passport shaped photo.
  • The photograph requirements will be stated in the Official Notice that the applicant will have to go through very closely.
  • False photo information will prevent the candidate from uploading the photo.
  • Scanned Marksheet copy that is supposed to be in PDF format.
  • Scanned The candidate’s signature as per the requirements.
  • Copy of the premium receipt scanned in a PDF file

PFMS Scholarship – Eligibility Criteria

It will be essential for applicants to ensure that they meet the specified PFMS Scholarship 2019 Scheme eligibility requirements for which they will apply. In the data brochure that will be published by the officials overseeing the Scholarship, the eligibility requirements will be detailed. At the moment of application of the application form, the entry requirements will be checked and if the individual is discovered not to meet the specified requirements, their application will not be approved and the candidate will not be deemed suitable for accessing the scholarship.

The Public Financial Management System provides different types of School-to-College PFMS Scholarships 2019, which makes it essential for the applicant to ensure that they meet the criteria of the scholarship they are applying for.  The fields to be filled out are Candidate Name, Mobile Number, E-mail I d, Birth Date, Gender, Category, Education Board, Standard or Class, Result of the Last Year, Marks Obtained, Grade, Institution Name, Parental Income, and Word Verification if involved in any work. Clicking on the show systems button will demonstrate the applicants’ all qualified systems.

PFMS Payment Status – PFMS Know Your Payments Status

Candidates who will receive information on the PFMS Scholarship 2019 such as application information or the status of the PFMS Student Scholarship can inspect the information of the grant as Payment by Aadhar Number and Account Number Payment.

PFMS Scholarship Status 2019 Payment by Aadhar Number

  • Enter the necessary domain amount of Aadhar.
  • To verify it, enter the Aadhar Number again.
  • Candidates must then verify the term.
  • They must join the letters as shown in the above picture. (Non-case delicate letters).
  • Click the Search button.

PFMS Scholarship 2019 Payment by Account Number 

  • Choose the bank, enter the bank’s first few letters.
  • Candidates must then register the number of the account.
  • Enter the account number of the candidate.
  • Enter the account number of the candidate to verify it again.
  • Candidates must then verify the term. They must join the letters as shown in the above picture. (Non-case delicate letters) Click the search button.

PFMS Student Scholarship 2019

PFMS is an Expenditure Department, Department of Finance, Govt, Central Plan Scheme Monitoring System. of India. Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a subsidy e-payment platform for both Aadhar-based & Non-Aadhar-based loan accounts through NPCI under Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)

PNB made DBT transfers to the beneficiaries covered by the plan through PFMS. The beneficiary must obtain the licensed agency’s PPA (Print Payment Advice) and submit the PPA for transactions at any of our offices.

PFMS Scholarship Renewal

Candidates registered in the PFMS 2019 scholarship program will be needed to renew their scholarship by offering the information and qualifications needed in the login chapter. The transfer of the Scholarship is a straightforward method in which the applicant is required to complete their registration after a few easy measures.

The restoration of the 2019 PFMS Scholarship will be essential for applicants who are hoping to access the Scholarship and have retained the academic record needed to be qualified for the renewed scholarship. The renewal of the scholarship will only be available on PFMS ‘ formal portal and there will be no other manner of doing this. It is essential for the applicant to follow the procedure very closely for the implementation of the 2019 PFMS Scholarship

Steps for PFMS Scholarship 2019 Renewal

We provide detailed measures for the candidate’s membership in the 2019 PFMS Scholarship for The Public Financial Management System Scholarship. The connection to the update will be given on the PFMS (pfms.nic.in college) formal portal. It is recommended that the applicant must remain up-to-date and must continue to visit the PFMS Portal on a periodic basis for any of the recent releases on the scholarship renewal schedules.

Go through the measures of the 2019 PFMS Scholarship Renewal from the following points.

  • Step – 1: The applicant already registered in the 2019 PFMS Scholarship program will have to attend the PFMS-pfms.nic.in formal documents.
  • Step – 2: On the page, there will be a connection to the’ PFMS Scholarship 2019 Student Registration.’ Candidates will need to pick the system they are planning to renew.
  • Step – 3: Candidates will have to pick the year in which they were or are registered in Class 12 and the board of education.
  • Step – 4: The IFSC Code and account amount must be provided by the candidate. Click the search key.
  • Step – 5: The scheme will automatically fill out the form if the applicant is already registered by pfms.nic.in sc for the 2019 PFMS Scholarship program.
  • Step – 6: The applicant must provide the mobile number and the applicant will receive an OTP. Please enter OTP.
  • Step – 7: Candidate will need to verify and provide the Email ID. Step 8: The candidate will need to create their User ID and Password in the next phase.
  • Step – 8: To submit the Renewal Application form, click on the submit button.

Important Points Regarding PFMS Scholarship 2019

Before continuing to complete the application form to apply for the key industry PFMS scholarship, the applicant must be conscious of a few points. It is essential that when applying for the PFMS Scholarship 2019, the applicant must prevent any type of mistake. It is essential that the candidate should continue to regularly visit the PFMS website.

Go through some of the significant points from below concerning the 2019 PFMS Scholarship:

  • The applicant will have to visit the pfms.nic.in on a periodic basis to maintain up to date with the recent data about the 2019 PFMS Scholarship program.
  • The Scholarship for the Financial System of Public Management (PFMS) offers different scholarships from school to college level.
  • Applicants must first log on to the portal of PFMS Scholarship 2019. It will be essential that, while applying, the applicant must provide the right information.
  • Before applying for the application form, it is essential for the applicant to have passed through the Information Bulletin in detail.
  • The applicant must be conscious of the PFMS Scholarship 2019 eligibility requirements for which they will apply. They will only be allowed to continue for the application form after securing the requirements.
  • The details in the application form must be valid and accurate since any type of inaccurate data will prevent the applicant from applying for the scholarship program.
  • Candidates will be prepared to verify the position of their application by giving either the Aadhaar Card amount or the Account Number.
  • The sum of the 2019 PFMS Scholarship will be transmitted straight to the account of the candidate.

PFMS Scholarship Portal – Benefits

The portal for the 2019 PFMS Scholarship is very helpful for learners as it enables to easily disburse the quantity of the grant.

The gateway of the 2019 PFMS Scholarship has many helpful characteristics listed below:

  • Direct Scholarship Amount Transfer: This gateway sends the quantity of scholarship straight to the learners.
  • Time-saving: Students can present their request on the 2019 PFMS Scholarship Portal in 10 minutes and because there is no documentation, the job is performed quickly.
  • Automatic Payments: The gateway of the PFMS Scholarship 2019 automates and handles all procedures linked to learners submitting, verifying, handling, sanctioning and disbursing scholarship.
  • Easy monitoring: Using their Ids and Passwords, it is very simple for a pupil to monitor their deposit status through this gateway.
  • Helpline: The gateway for the 2019 PFMS Scholarship has a helpline that learners can use for any request.
  • Scholarship Renewal: Students can easily renew their scholarship via the PFMS scholarship portal because they can use the same ID that they developed to log on to the portal at the start.
  • Alerts to learners: regular SMS alerts and emails are sent to learners at the multiple handling phases through this gateway.
  • Online help manual for learners: an online help guide is also given to aid fill out the form for students’ comfort.

PFMS Contact Number

Toll-Free Number: 1800 118 111

Email Id: pfms.helpdesk@gmail.com

FAQ’s on PFMS Scholarship

Question 1.
Can I create one deposit on pfms.nic.in sc for various kinds of beneficiaries?

Answer:
No, you can only pay at one moment for a single sort of Beneficiary.

Question 2.
Where can I access Excel’s Approved Payment Beneficiary List?

Answer:
E-Payment – Download data about the payment from pfms.nic.in sc.

Question 3.
Where can I verify a beneficiary’s deposit?

Answer:
You use the Payment Periodicity check to see if a beneficiary is due for payment.

Question 4.
What is PFMS’s full form?

Answer:
PFMS Means Public Financial Management System (PFMS).

Question 5.
What is a PFMS generated payment?

Answer:
PFMS stands for Public Financial Management System and is a platform for e-payment of subsidy under Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) to both Aadhar based & Non- Aadhar based bank accounts through NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India.

You can also find more Scholarship Articles for 12th passed, 10th passed Students and many more

The post PFMS Scholarship 2019 | Login, Registration, Status, list, Renewal appeared first on Learn CBSE.

IGNOU Exam Form 2019 (Released) | Important Dates, Exam Fee, Hall Ticket, and Form Submission 

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IGNOU Exam Form 2019: Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) has released the online notification for the Exam Form on its official website. Candidates who have completed their assignments can only fill the IGNOU Term End Examinations (TEE) Form. IGNOU Exam Forms are also available in the regional centers as well in the study centers. But, since the IGNOU exam form submission through offline mode has closed. Candidates can fill the IGNOU Term End Exam Form through online mode only. The registered candidates can fill the online IGNOU Exam Form on or before 20th October 2019. After 20th October also candidates can fill the online exam form till 5th November 2019 with the late fee.

IGNOU conducts the term end examinations in the month of June and December for all its courses. These are Diploma, Advanced Diploma, Certificate, and Advanced Certificate, Master’s Degree, Bachelor’s Degree, etc. Students fill up the exam form Dec 2019 for the various courses under these categories. These are B.Ed, M.Ed., Post Basic B.Sc. Nursing, BDP, B.Sc., M.Sc., M.Com, MSW, BSW, BA, MBA, BBA,  MTM, BTS, MCA, BCA, MA, B.Com, etc. Read the complete article to know all the information about IGNOU Exam Form.

Exam Form IGNOU 2019

Candidates make sure that they have submitted the assignments for the courses before filling the IGNOU Exam Form. Candidates can also check the June Term End examination result on the official website before filling the December exam form. IGNOU will conduct both the theory and practical exam in December 2019 for its various courses such as diploma, certificate, master’s degree, bachelor’s degree, etc. So, the students must fill up the exam form on or before the last date. Students who are pursuing various UG & PG courses from the open distance learning education university have to fill the exam form by paying the prescribed fees to appear in the exam.

Otherwise, they can not be allowed to appear in the IGNOU exam. The university established a total of 877 exam centers in different parts of the country to conduct the IGNOU exam. IGNOU hall ticket will be issued by the university to all the eligible students who fill up the exam form.

Admit card will be sent by post to the student’s address by the university. Students can also download the hall ticket from the university website 10 days before the beginning of the exam. It has published that the exams of FST-1 and BSHF101 courses will be conducted twice in December. Once conducted for the BA and B.Com students. Then, next conducted for the B.Sc. students and other courses.

The Datesheet has been changed accordingly and the dates for the courses are as follows:

FST-1 Exam Date 

  • For BA and BCom: 30th December 2019
  • For B.Sc and Other courses: 7th December 2019

BSHF-101 Exam Date

  • For BA and BCom:  9th December 2019
  • B.Sc and Other courses: 18th December 2019

IGNOU Exam Form Overview

Exam NameIGNOU Term End Examination
Conducting BodyIndira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)
Mode of ExamOffline
Official Websiteignou.ac.in

IGNOU Exam Form Important Dates

EventsDates
Start of Application FormSeptember 5, 2019
Last Date to Submit IGNOU TEE FormOctober 20, 2019
Last Date to Submit IGNOU TEE Form with Late Fee of Rs. 500/-October 21, 2019, to October 31, 2019
Last Date to Submit IGNOU TEE Form with Late Fee of Rs. 1000/-November 1, 2019, to November 5, 2019
Release Date of Hall TicketThird Week of November 2019
Exam DateDecember 2019

IGNOU Online Exam Form Submission Procedure

Refer to the following points to submit the IGNOU Exam Form Online.

  • Go to the official website of IGNOU @ http://www.ignou.ac.in/
  • Click on the ‘Online Submission Form for IGNOU TEE’.
  • Read the instructions carefully and click on ‘Proceed To Fill the Online Exam Form’.
  • Fill up the application form with the correct and required information.
  • Enter the course code, enrollment number and select the mode of payment to pay the exam fees.
  • On successful submission of the exam form, you will receive an acknowledgment with a control number. Keep the auto-generated control number safely for your future reference.
  • You can check the exam status through SEARCH OPTION after 72 hours of submitting the exam form.
  • Take a printout of the confirmation page and keep it safe for future usage.

IGNOU Exam Form Necessary Information

It is mandatory for the candidate to fill up the following information in IGNOU Exam Form.

  • Select the course code
  • Select the exam center code
  • Select practical exam
  • Select theory courses
  • Option code for MLIS is MLP and for BA, BCOM or BSC is BDP.

IGNOU Exam Form Fee

Candidates can pay their IGNOU Exam Fee online through Credit/Debit card/Net Banking. Once the exam fee will be paid, then it will not be refunded in any situation. So, candidates are advised to select courses carefully while filling the IGNOU December TEE form. The university will not consider the application form after the last date of submitting the exam form that is 5th November 2019. IGNOU Exam Fee for both the practical and theory are mentioned below:

Type of the ExamExam Fee
Practical Exam150/-
Theory Exam150/-

The exam conducted twice in the year. So, the last date of submitting the exam form with and without late fee is mentioned below:

IGNOU December TEELate Fee
5th September to 20th October 2019No
21st October to 31st October 2019Rs. 500/-
1st November to 5th November 2019Rs. 1000/-

IGNOU Exam Hall Ticket

IGNOU Hall Ticket will be released on its official website 10 days before the beginning of the exam. Candidates should enter their 9 digit enrollment number to download the IGNOU hall ticket. IGNOU Hall Ticket is a very important document for the candidates who appear for the December Term End examination. The university will not issue the hall ticket to the candidate in case the candidate fails to submit the relevant documents and exam fees.  Students must carry their Hall Ticket along with the Identity Card issued by the Regional Centre/University. Otherwise, they will not be allowed to sit in the IGNOU December Term End Exam.

IGNOU Admit Card

IGNOU Date Sheet 2019

IGNOU Exam Form Important Instructions

Some of the important instructions regarding IGNOU Exam Form are listed below:

  • Candidates should wait for 72 hours after paying the exam fee to receive any acknowledgment.
  • If candidates will not receive any acknowledgment after 72 hours, then they should again submit the IGNOU Exam Form 2019.
  • The officials will return the fee through the chargeback process in case of the unsuccessful payment.
  • Candidates who will get a refund through the chargeback process and still attend the IGNOU exam. Those candidate’s results will be withheld until the successful exam fee payment.
  • Candidates should provide their Aadhar Card details.
  • Students make sure to submit only those course fees which they will appear in the exam.
  • It is mandatory to submit the required number of solved assignments before the submission of exam form at their respective Study Centre.
  • The exam form authentication certificate should be duly signed by the Coordinator/Incharge of your Study Centre.
  • Candidates make sure that the registration for the courses is valid.
  • Candidates make sure to fill the course code and enrolment number correctly in the exam form.

IGNOU Exam Form Contact Details

For any assistance or queries, candidates should reach the IGNOU officials by any of the following ways:

Type of ContactContact Information
Email IDtermendexam@ignou.com
Phone011-29572209

FAQ’s on IGNOU Exam Form

Question 1.
When will be the IGNOU Term End Examinations conducted?

Answer:
IGNOU conducts the term end examinations in the month of June and December for all its courses. These are Diploma, Advanced Diploma, Certificate, and Advanced Certificate, Master’s Degree, Bachelor’s Degree, etc.

Question 2.
How will I get the IGNOU Exam Form?

Answer:
IGNOU has released the online notification for the Exam Form on its official website. IGNOU Exam Forms are available in the regional centers as well in the study centers. But, since the IGNOU exam form submission through offline mode has closed. Candidates can fill the IGNOU Term End Exam Form through online mode only.

Question 3.
What are the starting and closing date to fill and submit the IGNOU Exam Form?

Answer:
The starting date to fill and submit the IGNOU Exam Form is 5th September 2019. Whereas the last date to fill and submit the IGNOU Exam Form is 20th October 2019.

Question 4.
How much the exam fee will be paid for the IGNOU Term End Examination?

Answer:
IGNOU Exam Fee for both the practical and theory examination is Rs. 150/-.

Question 5.
Can I submit the IGNOU Exam Form after the last date of form submission?

Answer:
Yes, you can fill and submit the online IGNOU Exam Form till 5th November 2019 with the late fee. After 5th November, the university will not accept the exam form submission.

Hope this article will help you to know more about IGNOU Exam Form. For any queries related to IGNOU Exam Form, leave it in the comment box.

The post IGNOU Exam Form 2019 (Released) | Important Dates, Exam Fee, Hall Ticket, and Form Submission  appeared first on Learn CBSE.


PFMS Scholarship Status 2019-20 | Application, Eligibility, Benefits

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PFMS Scholarship Status 2019: PFMS Scholarship Status details are available here. The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is an Indian Government project that seems after social area programs. It has a track of the sources allotted to individuals. The Indian Central Government considered this movement to guarantee that the money invested is directed for the right purpose. PFMS presents applicants with various modes of scholarships. PFMS Scholarship Status Check from the below link.

Applicants must log in to the PFMS Scholarship Portal and upload the documents as required. It is necessary that applicants applying for a Scholarship under PFMS satisfy the qualifying requirements declared in the PFMS Information Bulletin. This compensation scheme is acknowledged in the support of plan scheduling, budgeting and effective tracking due to deficiencies in the modern accounting system. In four states, particularly Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Mizoram, and Punjab, this plan was first proposed. Know more aspects in this article about the PFMS Scholarship 2019 status i.e. pfms.nic.in sc.

List of PFMS Scholarships 2019

The list of scholarships provided by Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is mentioned below:

  • PFMS Scholarship 2019 to Universities/College Students
  • Post Matric Scholarship for SC Students
  • Pre-Matric Scholarship for SC Students
  • National Means cum Merit Scholarship
  • National Scheme for Incentive for the girl child for secondary education
  • Top Class Education Scheme for SC
  • UP Gradation of Merit of SC Students
  • Post-Matric Scholarship for OBCs

How to Check the PFMS Scholarship Payment Status?

Applicants who will get a notice on the PFMS Scholarship like application detail or the status of the PFMS Student Scholarship can examine the status through Payment by Aadhar Number and Account Number Payment. PFMS know your scholarship Status.

PFMS Scholarship Status by Aadhar Number

  • Enter the required domain amount of Aadhar.
  • To check it, enter the Aadhar Number again.
  • Candidates must then check the session.
  • They must join the letters
  • Click the Search button.

PFMS Scholarship Status by Account Number

  • Choose the bank name in which the candidate has his/her bank account
  • Aspirants must then record the number of the account.
  • Enter the bank account number of the candidate.
  • Enter the account number of the candidate again to recheck it.
  • Applicants must then check the session.
  • Click the search button.

PFMS - Payment by Account Number

PFMS Student Scholarship 2019

PFMS is an Expenditure Department, Department of Finance, Govt, Central Plan Scheme Monitoring System. of India. Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a premium e-payment platform for both Aadhar-based and Non-Aadhar-based loan accounts via NPCI under Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).

PNB did DBT transfers to the recipients reported by the plan via PFMS. The recipient must receive the licensed agency’s PPA (Print Payment Advice) and present the PPA for transactions at any of our offices.

PFMS Scholarship Benefits

The portal for the PFMS Scholarship is very important for students as it allows to efficiently distribute the amount of the reward. The gateway of the PFMS Scholarship has several helpful features listed below:

  • Direct Amount Transfer: This gateway transfers the amount of scholarship direct to the scholars.
  • Time-saving: Scholars can bestow their request on the 2019 PFMS Scholarship Portal in 10 minutes because there is no documentation required and the job is performed quickly.
  • Automatic Payments: The gateway of the PFMS Scholarship 2019 automates and controls all methods connected to learners presenting, verifying, handling, approving and distributing scholarship.
  • Easy monitoring: Using their Ids and Passwords, it is very easy for a student to observe their deposit status through this gateway.
  • Helpline: The gateway for the 2019 PFMS Scholarship has a helpline that scholars can use for any question.
  • Scholarship Renewal: Scholars can simply renew their scholarship via the PFMS scholarship portal by using the same ID that they produced to log in to the portal at the start.
  • Alerts to scholars: regular SMS alerts and emails are sent to scholars at the various handling forms through this gateway.
  • Online help guidebook for scholars: an online advice guide is also provided to help fill out the application for students’ ease.

PFMS Contact Number

Toll-Free Number: 1800 118 111

Email Id: pfms.helpdesk@gmail.com

FAQ’s on PFMS Scholarship Status

Question 1.
How can I check my PFMS scholarship status?

Answer:
Students can check the PFMS Status Scholarship by providing their Aadhaar Number or Bank Account details.

Question 2.
What is the PFMS Scholarship?

Answer:
Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a platform for e-payment of subsidy under Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) to both Aadhar based & Non- Aadhar based bank accounts through NPCI.

Question 3.
How can I get PFMS scholarship?

Answer:

  • The students should complete the 12th class and also be the top 20% of students.
  • Parent’s Annual income should be less than 6 Lakhs per annum.
  • The age of the candidate should be between 18 to 25 years and there is no relaxation in this condition.

Question 4.
What is the PFMS bank account?

Answer:
Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a platform for e-payment of subsidy under Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) to both Aadhar based and Non- Aadhar based bank accounts through NPCI. PNB has implemented DBT payments through PFMS for the beneficiaries covered under the scheme.

Question 5.
What is the purpose of PFMS?

Answer:
Facilitates a sound public financial management system for the Government by establishing an efficient fund flow system as well as a payment cum accounting network.

The post PFMS Scholarship Status 2019-20 | Application, Eligibility, Benefits appeared first on Learn CBSE.

IGNOU Courses | List of IGNOU Delhi Online Courses, Fee Structure

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IGNOU Courses 2020: Indira Gandhi National Open University announces a list of IGNOU 2020 courses along with a notice of admission to ignou.ac.in. Applicants seeking to apply for entry must follow the IGNOU 2020 courses once before filling out the online application form. The IGNOU courses include a maximum of 230 programs offered by the school, of which thirty-6 are postgraduate programs, fifteen are undergraduate programs along with another M.Psy, MBA, Ph.D., Diploma, Degree Systems.

The article mentions all the 2020 educational IGNOU courses offered by the school. Those planning to apply for their required IGNOU courses may carefully review the list of different tables below, which include all IGNOU 2020 courses, and make an informed decision for themselves as to which course they should apply.

The applications for IGNOU courses 2019 are from 5 November 2018 to 11 February 2019, for the period of January 2019 and from 14 May to 30 September for the phase of July 2019.

Applicants will remember that, for admissions to certain IGNOU programs, such as B.Ed., MBA, Post B.Sc. Nursing, and M.Ed., the college is undertaking an entrance test. Regarding IGNOU courses 2019 list and more related information such as fee structure, eligibility criteria, term-end test specifics, dates of entry, and so on, see below.

IGNOU Courses List 2020

Indra Gandhi National Open University provides a selection of courses to applicants who want to be enrolled in the university. Varsity offers a number of programs in UG, PG, Diploma, and Certification. It should be remembered that each of these IGNOU courses 2020 has its own eligibility criteria, which must be fulfilled by the applicants so that they can be accepted. The IGNOU programs are also divided into different schools led by Indira Gandhi National Open University.

There are 21 colleges, including the School of Humanities, the School of Social Sciences, the School of Engineering, the School of Agriculture, the School of Law, etc. IGNOU enrollment 2020 is for candidates pursuing admission to the UG / PG / Certificate / Diploma courses listed below. Candidates wishing to enroll in one of the IGNOU 2020 courses that take a look at the table below, which gives them a thorough breakdown of the IGNOU courses 2020, their fees, and their length.

ProgramNumber of IGNOU Courses offered
Master’s Degree36
Non-Credit Programmes6
Doctoral Degree43
Certificate48
M.Phil Programme10
Bachelor’s Degree15
Diploma22
Online Programmes1
PG & Advance Certificate12
PG & Advance Diploma37

IGNOU Courses Application Process

For the January 2020 term, applications for admission to different UG, PG, Diploma, Certificate in Korean Language and Culture, Certificate in Japanese Language and Post Graduate Certification in Acupuncture will start in the month of November/ December 2019.

The application form may be submitted online through the official IGNOU Exam Form website Applicants are recommended to access the prospectus and read the instructions carefully before filling out the form Applicants should recall their Username and Password for Subsequent Login Application fee may be charged using the following methods:

  • Credit Card (Master/Visa)
  • Debit Card (Master/Visa/Rupay)
  • Net Banking
  • ATM card (PNB)

IGNOU Fee

To order to complete the online registration, candidates may apply the fee using the following methods:

  • Credit Card (Master / Visa)
  • Debit Card (Master / Visa / Rupay)
  • Net Banking ATM Card (PNB)

After successful payment, candidates will be able to print/save the payment verification slip.

Note: Applicants were advised to download records from their originals. Once the applicant has submitted the file, the next button for the Application overview alternative can be pressed and the application form can be saved/printed for future reference.

IGNOU Under Graduate Courses 2020

Course NameTime DurationAmount Charged
Bachelor of Arts in Tourism Studies (BTS)At least 3 years and Maximum 6 yearsRs. 9,000/-
Bachelor of Computer Applications (BCA)At least 3 years and Maximum 6 yearsRs. 36,000/-
Bachelor of Social Work (BSW)At least 3 years and Maximum 6 yearsRs. 14,400/-
Bachelor of Library & Information Science (BLIS)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 6,000/-
Bachelor’s Degree Programmes (BDP)
B.A. B. Com. B. Sc.
At least 3 years and Maximum 6 yearsFor B.A. & B. Com Rs. 7,200/-
For B.Sc. Rs. 12,600/-
Bachelor’s Preparatory Programme (BPP)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 1,200/-
Bachelor of Education (BEd)At least 2 years maximum 5 yearsRs. 50,000/-
BSc Nursing (Post Basic) (BScN(PB))At least three years maximum five yearsRs. 45,000/-

IGNOU Diploma Courses 2020

Course nameTime DurationAmount Charged
Post Graduate Diploma in Library Automation & Networking (PGDLAN)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 18,000/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Disaster Management (PGDDM)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 6,000/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Gandhi & Peace Studies (PGDGPS)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 4,200/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Rural Development (PGDRD)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 2,400/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Counselling & Family Therapy (PGDCFT)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 16,800/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Translation (PGDT)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 3,600/-
Post Graduate Diploma in International Business Operations (PGDIBO)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 7,800/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Environment & Sustainable Development (PGDESD)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 6,600/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Analytical Chemistry (PGDAC)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 9,600/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Applied Statistics (PGDAST)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 7,200/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Journalism & Mass Communication (PGJMC)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 4,200/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Audio Programme Production (PGDAPP)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 12,000/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Higher Education (PGDHE)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 3,000/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Educational Technology (PGDET)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 6,600/-
Post Graduate Diploma in School Leadership & Management (PGDSLM)At least 1 year and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 6,000/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Educational Management & Administration (PGDEMA)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 6,600/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Pre- Primary Education (PGDPPED)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 9,600/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Adult Education (PGDAE)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 7,200/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Pharmaceutical Sales Management (PGDPSM)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 8,400/-
PG Diploma in Information Security (PGDIS)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 21,600/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Intellectual Property Rights (PGDIPR)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 10,200/-
PG Diploma in Criminal Justice (PGDCJ)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 10,800/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Urban Planning & Development (PGDUPDL)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 3,400/-
PG Diploma in Folklore & Culture Studies (PGDFCS)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 2,700/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Hospital & Health Management (PGDHHM)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 25,200/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Geriatric Medicine (PGDGM)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 25,200/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Maternal & Child Health (PGDMCH)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 27,600/-
Post Graduate Diploma in HIV Medicine Programme (PGDHIVM)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 60,000/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Food Safety & Quality Management (PGDFSQM)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 14,400/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Plantation Management (PGDPM)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 6,600/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Book Publishing (PGDBP)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 9,000/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Women’s & Gender Studies(PGDWGS)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 7,200/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Sustainability Science (PGDSS)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs.7000/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Social Work Counselling (PGDCOUN)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 15,000/-
Post Graduate Diploma in Mental Health (PGDMH)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 9,000/-
Diploma in Early Childhood Care & Education (DECE)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 2,400/-
Diploma in Nutrition & Health Education (DNHE)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 2,400/-
Diploma in Panchayat Level Administration & Development (DPLAD)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 3,600/-
Diploma in Tourism Studies (DTS)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 4,200/-
Diploma in Aquaculture (DAQ)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 7,800/-
Diploma in Creative Writing in English (DCE)At least 1 year and maximum 4 yearsRs. 3,600/-
Diploma Programme in Urdu (DUL)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 1,800/-
Diploma in HIV & Family Education (DAFE)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 1,500/-
Diploma in Business Process Outsourcing — Finance & Accounting (DBPOFA)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 19,200/-
Diploma in Women’s Empowerment & Development (DWED)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 3,600/-
Diploma in Paralegal Practice (DIPP)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 8,400/-
Diploma in Nursing Administration (DNA)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 10,800/
Diploma in Critical Care Nursing (DCCN)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 yearsRs. 6,000/-
Diploma in Value Added Products from Fruits & Vegetables (DVAPFV)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 14,400/-
Diploma in Dairy Technology (DDT)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 14,400/-
Diploma in Meat Technology (DMT)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 14,400/-
Diploma in Production of Value Added Products from Cereals, Pulses & Oilseeds (DPVCPO)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 13,200/-
Diploma in Fish Products Technology (DFPT)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 10,800/-
Diploma in Watershed Management (DWM)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 12,000/-
Diploma in Teaching German as a Foreign Language (DTG)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 7,000/-
Diploma in Retailing (DIR)At least 1 year and Maximum 3 YearsRs. 9,000/
Diploma in Event Management (DEVMT)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 8,000/-

IGNOU Post Graduate Courses 2020

Course nameTime DurationAmount Charged
Master of Computer Applications (MCA)At least 3 years and Maximum 6 yearsRs. 64,800/-
Master of Science (Dietetics & Food Services Management) (MSCDFSM)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 32,400/-
Master of Arts in Rural Development (MARD)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 10,800/-
Master of Science in Counselling & Family Therapy (MSCCFT)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 33,600/-
Master of Tourism & Travel Management (MTTM)At least 2 years and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 10,800/- for Category I
Rs. 13,200/- for Category II
Master of Arts in English (MEG)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 10,800/-
Masters in HindiAt least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 10,800/-
Master of Social Work (MSW)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 32,400/-
Master of Social Work (Counselling) (MSWC)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 36,000/-
Master of Arts in Philosophy (MAPY)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 10,800/-
Master of Arts in Education (MAEDU)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 16,200/-
Master of Arts in Economics (MEC)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 14,400/-
Master of Arts in History (MAH)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 10,800/-
Master of Arts in Political Science (MPS)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 10,800/-
Master of Arts in Public Administration (MPA)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 10,800/-
Master of Arts in Sociology (MSO)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 10,800/-
MA in Gandhi & Peace Studies (MGPS)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearRs. 10,800/-
Master of Arts in Psychology (MAPC)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 15,600/-
Master of Library & Information Science (MLIS)At least 1 year and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 10,800/-
Master in Anthropology (MAAN)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 16,800/-
Master of Arts (Development Studies) (MADVS)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 10,800/-
Master of Arts in Adult Education (MAAE)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 14,400/-
Master of Arts in Gender & Development Studies (MAGD)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 10,800/-
Master of Arts in Women’s & Gender Studies (MAWGS)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 14,400/-
Master of Arts in Distance Education (MADE)At least 2 years and Maximum 6 yearsRs. 10,800/-
Master of Commerce (MCOM)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 13,200/-
M.Sc. Mathematics with Applications in Computer Science (MSCMACS)At least 2 years and Maximum 4 yearsRs. 26,400/-
Master of Arts in Translation Studies (MATS)At least 2 years and Maximum 5 yearsRs. 10,800/-
Master of Business Administration (MBA)At least 2.5 years maximum of 8 yearsRs. 31,500
M.Ed.At least 2 years Maximum 4 yearsRs. 40,000/-

IGNOU Certificate Courses 2020

Course NameTime DurationAmount Charged
Advanced Certificate in Power Distribution Management (ACPDM)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 5,400/-
Advanced Certificate in Information Security (ACISE)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 5,400/-
Post Graduate Certificate in Adult Education (PGCAE)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 3,600/-
Post Graduate Certificate in Cyber Law (PGCCL)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 8,400/-
PG Certificate in Patent Practice (PGCPP)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 9,600/-
PG Certificate in Bangla-Hindi Translation (PGCBHT)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 1,800/-
PG Certificate in Malayalam-Hindi Translation (PGCMHT)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 1,800/-
Post Graduate Certificate in Agriculture Policy (PGCAP)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 3,600/-
Post Graduate Certificate in Gandhi & Peace Studies (PGCGPS)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 2,400/-
Post Graduate Certificate in Information & Assistive Technologies for the Instructors of Visually Impaired (PGCIATIVI)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs 6,000/-
Post Graduate Certificate in Geoinformatics (PGCGI)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs 6,000/-
Certificate in Visual Arts – Painting (CVAP)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 4,000/-
Certificate in Visual Arts – Applied Art (CVAA)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 4,000/-
Certificate in Performing Arts – Theatre Arts (CPATHA)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 4,000/-
Certificate in Performing Arts-Hindustani Music (CPAHM)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 4,000/-
Certificate in Performing Arts-Karnatak Music (CPAKM)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 4,000/-
Certificate in Performing Arts-Bharatanatyam (CPABN)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 4,000/-
Certificate in Arabic Language (CAL)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,800/-
Certificate in French Language (CFL)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 6,600/-
Certificate in Russian Language (CRUL)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.2,700/-
Certificate in Disaster Management (CDM)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 2,400/-
Certificate in Environmental Studies (CES)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 2,400/-
Certificate Programme in NGO Management (CNM)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,800/-
Certificate in Business Skills (CBS)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 3,000/-
Certificate in Teaching of English as a Second Language (CTE)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 2,400/-
Certificate in Functional English (Basic Level) (CFE)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 3,000/-
Certificate in Urdu Language (CUL)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,200/-
Certificate in HIV & Family Education (CAFE)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,000/-
Certificate in Social Work & Criminal Justice System (CSWCJS)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,400/-
Certificate in Health Care Waste Management (CHCWM)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 3,000/-
Certificate in Newborn & Infant Nursing (CNIN)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 6,600/-
Certificate in Maternal & Child Health Nursing (CMCHN)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 6,600/-
Certificate in Home Based Health Care (CHBHC)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 2,400/-
Certificate in Community Radio (CCR)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 6,600/-
Certificate in Tourism Studies (CTS)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,800/-
Certificate in Food & Nutrition (CFN)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,400/-
Certificate in Nutrition & Child Care (CNCC)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,800/-
Certificate in Rural Development (CRD)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,800/-
Certificate in Sericulture (CIS)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 4,200/-
Certificate in Organic Farming (COF)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 4,800/-
Certificate in Water Harvesting & Management (CWHM)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 2,400/-
Certificate in Poultry Farming (CPF)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 3,600/-
Certificate in Beekeeping (CIB)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,400/-
Certificate in Human Rights (CHR)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 2,400/-
Certificate in Consumer Protection (CCP)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,800/-
Certificate in Co-operation, Co-operative Law & Business Laws (CCLBL)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 8,400/-
Certificate in Anti Human Trafficking (CAHT)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,400/-
Certificate in International Humanitarian Law (CIHL)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.2,700/-
Certificate in Information Technology (CIT)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 4,800/-
Certificate in Guidance (CIG)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,400/-
Certificate in Communication & IT Skills (CCITSK)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 5,400/-
Certificate Programme in Laboratory Techniques (CPLT)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 4,200/-
Certificate Programme in Teaching of Primary School Mathematics (CTPM)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,800/-
Certificate Programme in Value Education (CPVE)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,800/-
Certificate in Energy Technology and Management (CETM)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 3,000/-
Certificate of Competency in Power Distribution (Electrical Technicians) (CCPD)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 3,600/-
Certificate in Library & Information Science (CLIS)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 2,000/-
Certificate Programme on Life & Thought of B.R. Ambedkar (CLTA)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 1,000/-
Certificate in First Aid (CFAID)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 3,500/-
Certificate in Tribal Studies (CTRBS)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,000/-
Appreciation Course on Environment (ACE)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,200/-
Appreciation Course on Population & Sustainable Development (ACPSD)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs.1,000/-
Certificate in Japanese Language(CJL)At least 1 years and Maximum 3 yearsRs.5,500/-
Certificate in Korean Language & Culture (CKLC)At least 6 months and Maximum 2 yearsRs. 2,500/-
Awareness Programme on Value Added Products from Fruits & Vegetables (APVPFV)At least 1.5 months and Maximum 6 monthsRs.1000/-

FAQ’s on IGNOU Courses

Question 1.
What are the IGNOU courses students are eligible for?

Answer:
At IGNOU, there are about 8 undergraduate courses, 30 postgraduate courses, 57 diplomas, 67 certificate courses.

Question 2.
What is the way to apply for IGNOU courses in 2020?

Answer:
Both offline and online is the application process for these courses.

Question 3.
Can multiple IGNOU courses be taken at once?

Answer:
Candidates may only follow a certification course with a one-year or longer term. Nevertheless, if the days of review or counseling of both topics conflict with each other, the school will not allow any changes.

The post IGNOU Courses | List of IGNOU Delhi Online Courses, Fee Structure appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers Pdf Download

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Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Free Download is very important for students who want to score good marks in their CBSE board examination. Students who can Practice CBSE Class 12 Business Studies Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to improve your score in Board Exams.

Business Studies MCQ Questions for Class 12 with Answers Pdf Download

  • Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management
  • Chapter 2 Principles of Management
  • Chapter 3 Business Environment
  • Chapter 4 Planning
  • Chapter 5 Organising
  • Chapter 6 Staffing
  • Chapter 7 Directing
  • Chapter 8 Controlling
  • Chapter 9 Financial Management
  • Chapter 10 Financial Market
  • Chapter 11 Marketing
  • Chapter 12 Consumer Protection

Practicing NCERT Business Studies MCQ Questions for Class 12 with Answers is one of the best ways to prepare for the CBSE Class 12 board exam. There is no substitute for consistent practice whether one wants to understand a concept thoroughly or one wants to score better. By practicing more 2nd Year Business Studies MCQs with Answers Pdf Download, students can improve their speed and accuracy which can help them during their board exam.

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Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Business Studies Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management. Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Nature and Significance of Management Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Pdf

1. Successful organisations do not achieve goals by chance but by following a deliberate process known as
(a) Planning
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Controlling
(d) Management

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) Management is considered to be a deliberate process as it involves creating an environment which is conducive to efficient and effective performance.


2. Management is essential for the organisations which are
(a) Non-profit organisations
(b) Service organisations
(c) Social organisations
(d) All of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) Management is essential for all types of organisations irrespective of their size or type.


3. Management contains a series of interrelated functions that include
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Directing
(d) All of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) Management as a process contains a series of functions namely planning, organising, staffing, directing and controlling.


4. People in the organisations carry out diverse tasks with the aim to achieve
(a) Different objectives
(b) Common objectives
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) Management seeks to integrate individual goals with organisational goals and ensure realisation of both.


5. Successful management ensures that
(a) Goals are achieved with least cost
(b) Timely achievement of goals
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Management aims to carry out the work in a manner that is completed within the stipulated time (effectiveness) and at the least cost (efficiency).


6. Efficiency is concerned with
(a) Doing the right thing
(b) Doing things right
(c) Achieving end results
(d) None of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) Efficiency aims at reduction of cost through optimum utilisation of resources and avoiding wastage of resources.


7. Effectiveness relates to
(a) Doing the right task
(b) Completing activities
(c) Achieving goals
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


8. Rohan works as a production manager in Global Enterprises Limited. He has been given the task of getting 1000 units of hand woven table mats manufactured at the cost of ₹150 per unit within 10 days. In order to be acknowledged as an effective manager, he must ensure that
(a) The cost of production does not exceed ₹150 per unit
(b) The work is completed within 10 days even at higher cost per unit
(c) The cost of production is less than ₹150 per unit
(d) All of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) The concept of effectiveness is related to the completion of the task within the stipulated time irrespective of the cost involved.


9. Jay is working as a marketing manager in a company. Has been given the task of selling 100000 units of a product at the cost of ₹100 per unit within 20 days. He is able to sell all the units within the stipulated time, but had to sell last 1000 units at 20% discount in order to complete the target. In such a situation, he will be considered to be
(a) An efficient manager
(b) An effective manager
(c) Both effective and efficient manager
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: b


10. Management is said to be poor if it is
(a) Efficient but ineffective
(b) Effective but inefficient
(c) Both inefficient and ineffective
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: c


11. Tarang Enterprises Limited is planning to increase its sales by 30% in the next quarter. Identify the feature of management being highlighted in the given statement.
(a) Management is all pervasive
(b) Management is a goal oriented process
(c) Management is a continuous process
(d) All of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) Management is considered to be goal oriented as an organisation is brought into existence for realisation of certain goals.


12. Management is equally important to run a political organisation as it is to run an economic organisation. Which feature of management is being reflected in the given statement?
(a) Management is goal oriented
(b) Management is multidimensional
(c) Management is all pervasive
(d) Management is a group activity

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Management is required in all types: economic, social or political, and sizes of organisations.


13. Management translates the works to be carried out in terms of goals to be achieved and assigns the means to achieve it. This statement relates to
(a) Management of work
(b) Management of people
(c) Management of operations
(d) All of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) Management is multidimensional in nature and involves three aspects, management of work is one of them.


14. Which of the following statements highlights that management is a group activity?
(a) Organisation is a collection of diverse individuals with different needs.
(b) Achievement of common goal requires teamwork and co-ordination of efforts in a common direction.
(c) Each member of the organisation may have different individual goals but they must travel together towards common goals.
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


15. Keeping in view the changes in the consumer demands and preferences ‘Tasitemaker Bakery’ has reduced the sugar and fat content in its products. This approach of business shows that management is
(a) An intangible force
(b) A group activity
(c) A dynamic function
(d) A multidimensional activity

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) In order to be successful, it is important that a business adapts itself to the changes in the taste and preferences of the consumers.


16. Which of the following is not an organisational objective of management?
(a) Earning enough revenue to cover costs
(b) Earning sufficient profits to cover risks of business
(c) Increase in the prospects of business in the long run
(d) Providing free education to their employees children

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) Providing free education to children is a social objective of management.


17. Management is considered important because
(a) It helps an organisation to adapt to the changes
(b) Seeks to integrate individual efforts
(c) It helps in development of the society
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


18. Management is considered to be an art because
(a) The principles of management have universal validity
(b) The principles of management have universal application
(c) Different principles of management are brought into effect differently by different managers
(d) It is not important for the practising managers to be a member of a professional association.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Management is based on personalised application of the knowledge and skills.


19. Which of the following statements is not relevant to the concept of “Management as an inexact science”?
(a) The principles of management lack universal validity
(b) The principles of management lack universal applicability
(c) The principles of management have to be modified according to the given situation
(d) Management involves dealing with human behaviour and outcomes cannot be predicted with utmost accuracy

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The principles of management are not universaly valid as they deal with human behaviour and the outcome of application of a principle cannot be predicted with utmost accuracy.


20. The authority-responsibility relationships that exist within the organisation give rise to
(a) Different functions within the organisation
(b) Different levels in the organisation
(c) Management as a multidimensional activity
(d) Management as a group activity

Answer

Answer: b


21. Which of the following is not a designation related to top level management?
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Chairman
(d) Production Manager

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Production Manager is a designation for middle level management.


22. Which of the following is not a designation related to middle level management?
(a) Operations Head
(b) Sales Manager
(c) Chief Operating Officer
(d) Divisional Manager

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Chief Operating Officer is a designation for top level management.


23. Which of the following is not a designation related to lower level management?
(a) Plant Superintendent
(b) Supervisors
(c) Section officers
(d) Marketing Manager

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Marketing Manager is a designation related to middle level management.


24. Which of the following is a function of top level management?
(a) Ensuring quality of output
(b) Assigning necessary duties and responsibilities to their departments
(c) Taking responsibility for all the activities of the business and its impact on the society
(d) Ensuring that the safety standards are maintained within the organisation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Ensuring quality of output; Ensuring the safety standards are maintained within the organisation – lower level management and assigning necessary duties and responsibilities to their departments – middle level management.


25. Which of the following statements does not pertain to middle level management?
(a) They are responsible for all the activities of the operational managers.
(b) They are responsible for the welfare and survival of the organisation.
(c) The interpreter the policies made by top level managers
(d) Co-operate with other departments for the smooth running of the organisation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) They are responsible for the welfare and survival of the organisation- top level management


26. Which of the following statements is not true for lower level management?
(a) Analyse the business environment and its implications for the survival of the business.
(b) Ensure the quality of the output
(c) They strive to reduce the wastage of resources
(d) They ensure that the safety standards are maintained within the organisation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Analyse the business environment and its implications for the survival of the business-top level management


27. Identify the level of management which does not interact with the work force directly.
(a) Supervisory management
(b) Operational management
(c) First line managers
(d) Middle level management

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) The middle level managers interact with the supervisory/operational/first-line managers who in turn interact with the workers directly.


28. The main task of this level of management is to determine the overall organisational objectives and strategies for their realisation.
(a) Operational management
(b) Middle level management
(c) First line managers
(d) Top level management

Answer

Answer: d


29. This level of management serves as a link between top level managers and first line managers.
(a) Supervisory level management
(b) Operational management
(c) Middle level management
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: c


30. Organising as a function of management involves deciding
(a) What activities and resources are required
(b) Who will do a particular task
(c) Where will it be done
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


31. The function of management related to grouping of activities to be carried out into departments and creating management hierarchy is
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Controlling
(d) Directing

Answer

Answer: b


32. This function of management relating to laying down the foundation for carrying out the other functions of management successfully is
(a) Organising
(b) Staffing
(c) Planning
(d) Controlling

Answer

Answer: c


33. Supervision, communication, motivation and leadership are the key elements of this • function of management.
(a) Directing
(b) Controlling
(c) Planning
(d) Organising

Answer

Answer: a


34. This function of Management related to placing the right person at the right job is
(a) Organising
(b) Staffing
(c) Planning
(d) Controlling

Answer

Answer: b


35. It is a force that binds all the functions Of management.
(a) Cooperation
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Planning
(d) Management hierarchy

Answer

Answer: b


36. Co-ordination is considered to be the essence of management because
(a) It is a common thread that runs through all the activities within the organisation
(b) It is implicit and inherent in all functions of the organisation
(c) It is a force that binds all the functions of management
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


37. Identify the process that provides the requisite amount, quality, timing and sequence of efforts, which ensures that planned objectives are achieved with a minimum of conflict.
(a) Management
(b) Planning
(c) Co-ordination
(d) Controlling

Answer

Answer: c


38. Identify the feature of co-ordination being highlighted in the given statement: “Coordination is not a one time function, it begins at the planning stage and continue till controlling.”
(a) Coordination ensures unity of action
(b) Coordination is an all pervasive function
(c) Coordination is a continuous process
(d) Coordination is a deliberate function

Answer

Answer: c


We hope the given Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Nature and Significance of Management will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Business Studies Nature and Significance of Management MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Principles of Management

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Business Studies Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Principles of Management. Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Business Studies Principles of Management MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Principles of Management Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Pdf

1. Which of the following statements is true with reference to principles of management?
(a) The principles of management have evolved.
(b) The principles of management are yet to be evolved.
(c) The principles of management are in the continuous process of evolution.
(d) None of the above.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Principles of Management are said to be evolutionary in nature as these principles have evolved over a long period of time with continuous practice and experimentation.


2. By profession, FW Taylor was a
(a) Mechanical engineer
(b) Mining engineer
(c) Psychologist
(d) Human resource officer

Answer

Answer: a


3. The principles of pure science is considered to be _________ in nature.
(a) Flexible
(b) Rigid
(c) Creative
(d) None of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Because they are applied in an absolute or in a static manner.


4. Which of the following statements best defines the techniques of management?
(a) It is a set of guidelines to take decisions and actions.
(b) It is a procedure which involves a series of steps to be taken.
(c) They are general rules for behaviour of individuals.
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: b


5. The principles of management have been developed on the basis of
(a) Observation
(b) Experimentation
(c) Personal experiences of the manager
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


6. Which of the following statements is/are true with reference to principles of management?
(a) The principles are guidelines to action.
(b) The principles denote a cause and effect relationship.
(c) Principles help the manager to take decisions while performing various management functions.
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: d


7. The principles of management are intended to be applied to all types and sizes of organisations. This statement reflects that the principles of management are
(a) General guidelines
(b) Flexible
(c) Universally applicable
(d) Mainly behavioural

Answer

Answer: c


8. The principles of management do not provide readymade straight jacket solutions to all management problems because
(a) The real business situations are complex.
(b) The real business situations are dynamic.
(c) The principles act as general guidelines.
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: d


9. Principles of management can be modified by the manager when the situation demands. This statement implies that the principles of management are
(a) Rigid
(b) Contingent
(c) Flexible
(d) Universally applicable

Answer

Answer: c


10. The principles of management enhance the understanding of relationship between human and material resources for the achievement of organisational goals. Identify the feature of the principles of management being described in the given statement.
(a) Cause and effect relationships
(b) Optimum utilisation of resources and effective administration
(c) Formed by practice and experimentation
(d) Mainly behavioural

Answer

Answer: d


11. The application of the principles of management has to be changed as per the requirements of the prevailing situation at a particular point of time. Which feature of the principles of management is being described in the given statement?
(a) Contingent
(b) Mainly behavioural
(c) Cause and effect relationship
(d) General guidelines

Answer

Answer: a


12. Principles of management emphasize on logical and rational decision making rather than on the basis of bias and prejudice. The given statement highlights that the knowledge of principles of management leads to
(a) Providing managers with useful insight into reality
(b) Scientific decisions
(c) Meeting changing environmental requirements
(d) All of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Principles of management are not based on rule of thumb/hit-and-trial method, but on a scientific approach.


13. ‘Rule of thumb’ refers to
(a) Use of personal judgement in handling management issues
(b) Adopting a hit-and-trial approach to resolve management problems
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: c


14. According to Taylor, “even a small production activity like loading figures of iron into boxes can be scientifically planned and managed. This can result in tremendous savings of human energy as well as wastage of time and materials.” Identify the related principle of scientific management.
(a) Harmony, not discord
(b) Science, not rule of thumb
(c) Development of each and every person to get his/her greatest efficiency and prosperity
(d) None of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Taylor believes that there was only one method to maximize efficiency which can be developed to study and analysis.


15. According to this principle of scientific management, “Scientific management has for its foundation the firm conviction that true interest of the management and workers are one and the same; the prosperity for the employer cannot exist for a long time unless it is accompanied by prosperity for the employees and vice versa.”
(a) Science, not rule of thumb
(b) Co-operation, not individualism
(c) Harmony, not discord
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: c


16. According to this principle of scientific management, the employees should be rewarded for their suggestions which results in substantial reduction in the cost.
(a) Science, not rule of thumb
(b) Co-operation, not individualism
(c) Harmony, not discord
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: b


17. According to Taylor, “each specialist is to be assigned work according to his/her qualities, the employees who possess technical mastery should be involved in planning work whereas those with energy and good health may be assigned execution work.” Name the related principle of scientific management.
(a) Functional foremanship
(b) Science, not rule of thumb
(c) Development of each and every person to his or her greatest efficiency and prosperity
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: c


18. Considering the fact that it is difficult to find one single person with all the needed qualities, Taylor suggested appointment of a specialist through this technique of scientific management. Identify the technique.
(a) Standardisation and simplification of work
(b) Method study
(c) Functional foremanship
(d) Motion study

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Through the technique of functional foremanship, Taylor suggested appointment eight specialists to monitor various aspects of a job.


19. The concept of Work Study techniques includes
(a) Time study
(b) Motion study
(c) Fatigue study
(d) All of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) The concept of work study includes time study, motion study, fatigue study and method study.


20. The objective of this technique of scientific management is to reduce a given line or a product to fixed type sizes and characteristics. Name the technique.
(a) Method study
(b) Differential piece wage system
(c) Standardisation and simplification of work
(d) Functional foremanship

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Through the technique of simplification, Taylor suggested elimination of unnecessary diversity of products.


21. This technique of scientific management helps in development of the concept of assembly line which is widely used in automobile companies these days as well. Identify the technique.
(a) Motion study
(b) Standardisation and simplification of work
(c) Method study
(d) lime study

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) The concept of assembly line is used extensively in automobile industries like Toyota, Ford etc. these days as well.


22. Which of the following is an objective of time study?
(a) To determine the number of workers to be employed
(b) To formulate suitable incentive schemes
(c) To calculate the labour costs
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


23. This technique of scientific management aims to determine the amount and frequency of rest intervals that should be provided to the employees during working hours.
(a) Time study
(b) Method study
(c) Motion study
(d) None of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) The correct answer is fatigue study.


24. The technique of differential piece rate system was developed by Taylor in order to
(a) Discriminate between efficient and inefficient workers
(b) Reward the efficient worker
(c) Motivate the inefficient workers to perform better
(d) All of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Through the technique of differential piece rate wage system, Taylor advocated . that efficient workers should be paid at a higher rate as compared to inefficient workers.


25. The application of this principle of management leads to higher production and better work for the same effort. Identify the related principle of general management.
(a) Discipline
(b) Equity
(c) Division of work
(d) Order

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) The application of principle of division of work enables an employee to gain proficiency in work by doing it repetitively over a period of time.


26. According to this principle of general management, “an organisation should safeguard against abuse of managerial power, but at the same time a manager should have the necessary authority to carry out his responsibility.” Name the principle of management being described in the given statement.
(a) Discipline
(b) Authority and responsibility
(c) Unity of command
(d) Unity of direction

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Through the principle of authority and responsibility, Taylor advocated that there should always be a balance between the authority granted and the • responsibility entrusted to an employee.


27. Name the principle of management suggested by Henri Fayol, which advocates that, “there should be good superiors at all levels, clear and fair agreement and judicious application of penalties.”
(a) Authority and responsibility
(b) Esprit De Corps
(c) Order
(d) None of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) The correct answer is Discipline.


28. According to Henri Fayol, if this principle of general management is violated, “authority is undermined, discipline is in jeopardy, order disturbed and stability threatened.” Identify the principle.
(a) Authority and responsibility
(b) Discipline
(c) Unity of command
(d) Equity

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) According to Fayol, there should be one and only one boss for every individual employee and dual subordination should be avoided.


29. Through this principle of management, Henri Fayol guides the managers to exhibit exemplary behaviour and advises that they should not fall into temptation of misusing their powers for personal benefit at the cost of general interest of the organisation. Which principle of management is being described in the above statement?
(a) Remuneration of employees
(b) Centralisation and decentralisation
(c) Subordination of individual interest to general interest
(d) Equity

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Through this principle, Fayol advocates that the interest of the organisation should supersede individual interest of an employee under all kinds of situations.


30. Which principle of general management advocates that, “Employee turnover should be minimised to maintain organisational efficiency.”?
(a) Stability of personnel
(b) Remuneration of employees
(c) Equity
(d) Esprit De Corps

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) According to Fayol, due care should be taken while carrying out the recruitment and selection process and the new recruits should be placed at a particular position for a sufficient tenure.


We hope the given Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Principles of Management will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Business Studies Principles of Management MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

The post Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 2 Principles of Management appeared first on Learn CBSE.

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