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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements:

Section Name Topic Name
6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements
6.1 Occurrence of Metals
6.2 Concentration of Ores
6.3 Extraction of Crude Metal from Concentrated Ore
6.4 Thermodynamic Principles of Metallurgy
6.5 Electrochemical Principles of Metallurgy
6.6 Oxidation Reduction
6.7 Refining
6.8 Uses of Aluminium, Copper, Zinc and Iron

NCERT IN TEXT QUESTIONS 

6.1. Which of the ores mentioned  can be concentrated by magnetic separation method?
Ans: Ores Which are magnetic in nature can be separated from non-magnetic gangue particles by magnetic separation method. For ex: ores of iron such as haemetite (Fe2O3), magnetite (Fe3O4), siderite (FeCO3) and iron pyrites (FeS2 ) being magnetic can be separated from non-magnetic silica and other impurities by magnetic separation method.

6.2. What is the significance of leaching in the extraction of aluminium?
Ans: Leaching or chemical separation is quite effective to purify bauxite an ore of aluminium associated with the impurities of iron oxide. The ore is leached with concentrated solution of NaOH to form a soluble complex leaving behind the impurities.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 1

6.3.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-3
Ans: This is explained on the basis of Keq, the equilibrium constant. In the given redox reaction, all reactants and products are solids at room temperature, so, there is no equilibrium between the reactants and products and hence the reactions does not occur at RT. At high temperature, Cr melts and values of TAS increases. As a result, the value of
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-4

6.4. Is it true that under certain conditions, Mg can reduce Al203 and Al can reduce MgO? What are those conditions?
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-5

NCERT EXRECISES

6.1. Copper can be extracted by hydrometallurgy but not zinc. Explain.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-1
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-2
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-3
But with water, these metals (Al, Mg, Ca and K) forms their corresponding ions with the evolution of H2 gas.
Thus, Al, Mg, Ca, K, etc., cannot be used to displace zinc from zinc solution, and only copper can be extracted by hydrometallurgy but not the zinc.

6.2.What is the role of depressant in froth-floatation process?
Ans: The role of depressant is to prevent one type of sulphide ore particles from forming the froth with air bubbles. NaCN is used as a depressant to separate lead sulphide (PbS) ore from zinc sulphide (ZnS) ore. NaCN forms a zinc complex, Na2[Zn(CN)4] on the surface of ZnS thereby preventing it from the formation of the froth.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-6
In this condition, only lead sulphide forms froth and thus can be separated from zinc sulphide ore.

6.3. Why is the extraction of copper from pyrites more difficult than that from its oxide ore through reduction?
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-4

6.4. Explain:
(i)Zone refining
(ii)Column chromatography.
Ans: (i) Zone refining: This method is used for production of semiconductors and other metals of very high purity, e.g., Ge, Si, B, Ca and In.
It is based on the principle that the impurities
are more soluble in the molten state (melt) than in the solid state of the metal.
The impure metal in the form of bar is heated at one end with a moving circular heater. As – the heater is slowly moved along the length of the rod, .the pure metal crystallises out of the melt whereas the impurities pass into the adjacent molten zone. Thi,s process is repeated several times till the impurities are completely driven to one end of the rod which is then cut off and discarded.
(ii) Chromatography: It is based on the principle that the different components of a mixture are adsorbed to different extents on an adsorbent.
In column chromatography, an adsorbent, such as alumina (Al2O3) or silica gel is packed in a column. This fonns the stationary phase. The mixture to be separated is dissolved in a suitable solvent (mobile phase) and applied to the top of the column. The adsorbed components are extracted (eluted) from the column with a suitable . solvent (eluent). The component which is more strongly adsorbed on the column takes longer time to travel through the column than a component which is weakly adsorbed. Thus, the various components of the mixture are seperated as they travel through absorbent (stationary phase).

6.5. Out of C and CO which is a better reducing agent at 673 K?
Ans: This can be explained thermodynamically, taking entropy and free energy changes into account.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-5
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-6
As can be seen from ΔG° Vs T plot (Ellingham diagram), lines for the reactions, C ——–> C02 and C ——–> CO cross at 983 K. Below 983 K, the reaction (a) is energetically more favourable but above 673 K, reaction (b) is favourable and preferred. Thus, below 673 K both C and CO can act as a reducing agent but since CO can be more easily oxidised to C02 than C to C02 , therefore, below 673 K, CO is more effective reducing agent than carbon.

6.6. Name the common elements present in anode mud in the electro-refining of copper. Why are they so present?
Ans: Anode mud contains metals like Ag, Au, Pt etc. which are less reactive than Cu. Actually, they are not in a position
to lose electrons though they constitute the electrode which acts as anode. All these metals are left as residue under anode (known as anode mud) while the entire copper present participates in the oxidation half reaction.
Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + 2e

6.7. Write down the reactions taking place in different zones in the blast furnace during the extraction of iron.
Ans: In the blast furnace reduction of iron oxides take place at different temperature ranges as shown below.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-7
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-8

6.8. Write chemical reactions taking place in the extraction of zinc from zinc blende.
Ans: The following processes are involved in the extraction of zinc from zinc blende:
(i) Concentration: Zinc blende ore is crushed and the concentration done by froth- floatation process.
(ii) Roasting: The concentrated ore is then roasted in presence of excess of air at about 1200 K as a result zinc oxide is formed.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-9
(iii) Reduction : Zinc oxide obtained above is mixed with powdered coke and heated to 1673 K in a fire clay retort where it is reduced ‘ to zinc metal.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-10
At 1673 K, zinc metal being volatile (boiling point 1180 K), distills over and is condensed.
(iv) Electrolytic refining: Impure zinc is made the anode while pure zinc strip is made the cathode. ZnSO4 solution acidified with dil. H2SO4 is the electrolyte used. On passing electric current, pure zinc gets deposited on the cathode.

6.9. State the role of silica in the metallurgy of copper.
Ans: Silica (SiO2) acts as an acidic flux in the metallurgy of copper and combines with FeO (the main impurity) to form FeSiO3 which is a slag.
byjus class 12 chemistry Chapter6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 16

6.10. What is meant by the term “chromatography”?
Ans: Chromatography is a technique used for separation, purification, identification and characterization of the components of a mixture whether coloured or colourless. The term chromatography was originally derived from the Greek word ‘chroma’ meaning colour and ‘graphy for writing because the method was first used for the separation of coloured substances (plant pigments) into individual components.

6.11. What criterion is followed for the selection of the stationary phase in chromatography?
Ans: In chromatography, particularly in adsorption chromatography, the stationary phase is the adsorbent. It should fulfil certain criteria for better results.
(i) It should have high but selective adsorption power.
(ii) The particles should be spherical in shape and of uniform size.
(iii) The adsorbent should not react chemically with the solvents used for elution or with the components of the mixture under investigation.
(iv) The adsorbent should contain as small amount of the soluble components as possible.
(v) The adsorbent should be catalytically inactive and must have a neutral surface.
(vi) The adsorbent should be easily available.
(vi) The adsorbent should be perfectly white.

6.12. Describe a method for refining nickel.
Ans: When impure nickel is heated in presence of CO at 330-350 K, it forms volatile nickel tetracarbonyl leaving behind the impurities. The nickel tetracarbonyl thus obtained is then heated to higher temperature (450-470K), then it undergoes thermal decomposition to give pure nickel.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-11
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-12

6.13. How can you separate alumina from silica in a bauxite ore associated with silica? Give equations, if any.
Ans: Pure alumina can be separated from silica in bauxite by Baeyer’s process. The bauxite ore associated with silica is heated with a concentrated solution of NaOH at 473-523 K and 35-36 bar pressure. Under these conditions, alumina dissolves as sodium meta-aluminate and silica as sodium silicate leaving behind the impurities.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-13
The resulting solution is filtered to remove the undissolved impurities, sodium meta-aluminate can be precipitated as hydrated aluminium oxide by passing CO2 vapours. The sodium silicate formed cannot be precipitated and can be filtered off.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-14

6.14. Giving examples, differentiate between ‘roasting’ and ‘calcination’.
Ans: Calcination is a process of converting carbonates and hydroxide ores of metals to their respective oxides by heating them, strongly below their melting points either in absence or limited supply of air.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-15
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-16
Roasting is a process of converting sulphide ores into its metallic oxides by heating strongly below its melting point in excess of air.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-17

6.15. How is ‘cast-iron’ different from ‘pig iron’?
Ans: Cast iron differs from pig iron with respect to the carbon contents. Whereas carbon contents in pig iron are nearly four percent (4%), cast iron contains carbon to the extent of nearly three percent (3%).

6.16. Differentiate between “minerals” and “ores’.
Ans: Minerals: The natural substances in which the metals or their compounds occur in the earth is called minerais.
Ores: The minerals from which the metals can be coaveniently and economically extracted are called ores.
Note : All ores are minerals but all minerals are not ores.

6.17. Why copper matte is put in silica lined converter?
Ans: Copper matte consists of Cu2S along with some unchanged FeS. When a blast of hot air is passed through molten matte placed in silica lined converter, FeS present in matte is oxidised to FeO which combines with silica (SiO2) to form FeSiO3slag.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-18
When whole of iron has been removed as slag, some of the Cu2S undergoes oxidation to form Cu20 which then reacts with more Cu2S to form copper metal.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-19
Thus, copper matte is heated in silica lined converter to remove FeS present in matte as FeSiO3 slag.

6.18. What is the role of cryolite in the metallurgy of aluminium?
Ans: (a) It lowers the fusion (melting) point of the bath from 2323 K to about 1140 K.
(b) It makes alumina a good conductor of electricity.

6.19. How is leaching carried out in case of low grade copper ores?
Ans: Leaching in case of low grade copper ores is carried out with acids in presence of air. In this process, copper is oxidised to Cu2+ ions which pass into the solution.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-20

6.20. Why is zinc not extracted from zinc oxide through reduction using CO?
Ans: The chemical reaction involving the reduction of ZnO by CO is :
ZnO(s) + CO(g) → Zn(s) + CO2(g)
The process is thermodynamically not feasible because there is hardly any change in entropy as a result of the reaction. This is quite evident from the physical states of the reactants and products involved in the reaction

6.21. The value of ΔfG° for formation of Cr2O3 is – 540 kJ mol-1 and that of Al203 is – 827 kJ mol-1 . Is the reduction of Cr2O3 possible with Al?
Ans: Chemical equation for the formation of Cr2O3 and Al203 are as follows :
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-21
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-22

6.22. Out of C and CO, which is a better reducing agent for ZnO?
Ans: The two reduction reactions are :
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-23
In the first case, there is increase in the magnitude of ΔS° while in the second case, it almost remains the same. In other words ΔG° will have more negative value in the first case when C(s) is used as the reducing agent than in the second case when CO(g) acts as the reducing agent. Therefore, C(s) is a better reducing agent.

6.23. The choice of a reducing agent in a particular case depends on thermodynamic factor. How far do you agree with this statement? Support your opinion with two examples.
Ans: We can study the choice of a reducing agent in a particular case using Ellingham diagram.
It is evident from the diagram that metals for which the standard free energy of formation oftheir oxides is more negative can reduce those metal oxides for which the standard free energy of formation of their respective oxides is less negative. It means that any metal will reduce the oxides of other metals which lie above it in the Ellingham diagram. This is because the standard free energy change (ΔrG°) of the combined redox reaction will be negative by an amount equal to the difference in Δf G° of the two metal oxides. Thus both Al and Zn can reduce FeO to Fe but Fe cannot reduce Al203 to A1 and ZnO to Zn. In the same way, G can reduce ZnO to Zn but not CO.
Note : Only that reagent will be preferred as reducing agent which will lead to decrease in free energy value (ΔG°) at a certain specific temperature.

6.24. Name the processes from which chlorine is obtained as a by-product What will happen if an aqueous solution of NaCl is subjected to electrolysis?
Ans: Down process is used for the preparation of sodium metal, where chlorine is obtained as a by- product. This -process involves the electrolysis of a fused mixture of NaCl and CaCl2 at 873 K.Sodium is discharged at the cathode while Cl2 is obtained at the anode as a by-product.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-24
If, an aqueous solution of NaCl is electrolysed, H2 is evolved at the cathode while Cl2 is obtained at the anode.

6.25. What is the role of graphite rod in the electrometallurgy of aluminium?
Ans: In the electrometallurgy of aluminium, oxygen gas is evolved at anode. O2 reacts with graphite or carbon (graphite electrodes) to form carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide. In case if some other metal electrodes is used as anode, then oxygen will react with aluminium formed during the process to form aluminium oxide(Al2O3) which will pass into the reaction mixture resulting into wastage of Al. Since graphite is cheaper than aluminium, its wastage or can be tolerated.

6.26. Outline the principles of refining of metals by the following methods:
(i)Zone refining
(ii)Electrolytic refining
(iii)Vapour phase refining
Ans: (i) Zone refining: This method is used for production of semiconductors and other metals of very high purity, e.g., Ge, Si, B, Ca and In.
It is, based on the principle that the impurities are more soluble in the molten state (melt) than in the solid state of the metal.
The impure metal in the form of bar is heated at one end with a moving circular heater. As the heater is slowly moved along the length of the rod, the pure metal crystallises out of the melt whereas the impurities pass into the adjacent molten zone. This process is repeated several times till the impurities are completely driven to one end of the rod which is then cut off and discarded.
(ii)Electrolytic refining: Many metals, such as Cu, Ag, Au, Al, Pb, etc., are purified by this method. The impure metals is made the anode while a thin sheet of pure metal acts as a cathode. The electrolytic solution consists of a salt or a complex salt solution of the metal. On passing the current, the pure metal is deposited on the cathode while the impurities fall down as anode mud.
(iii)Vapour-phase refining: The crude metal is freed from impurities by first converting it into a suitable volatile compound by heating it with a specific reagent at a lower temperature and then decomposing the volatile compound at some higher temperature to give the pure metal.
(a)Mond’s process: When impure nickel is heated is a current of CO at 330-350 K, it forms volatile nickel tetracarbonyl complex leaving behind the impurities. The complex then heated to a higher temperature (450-470K) when it undergoes thermal decomposition giving pure nickel.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-25
(b)Van Arkel method: This method is Used for preparing ultra-pure metals by removing all the oxygen and nitrogen present as impurities in metals like zirconium and titanium (which are used in space technology).Crude Zr is heated in an evacuated vessel with iodine at 870 K. Zirconium tetraiodide thus formed is separated. It is then decomposed by heating over a tungsten filament at 1800 – 2075 K to give pure Zr.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-26

6.27. Predict conditions under which Al might be expected to reduce MgO.
Ans: The equations for the formation of the two oxides are
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-27
If we look at the plots for the formation of the two oxides of the Ellingham diagram, we find that they intersect at certain point. The corresponding value of ΔG° becomes zero for the reduction of MgO by Al metal.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-28
This means that the reduction of MgO by Al metal can occur below this temperature. Aluminium (Al) metal can reduce MgO to Mg above this temperature because Δ°G for Al2O3 is less as compared to that of MgO.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements-29

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements:

Section Name Topic Name Section Name Topic Name
7 The p-Block Elements 7.12 Simple Oxides
7.1 Group 15 Elements 7.13 Ozone
7.2 Dinitrogen 7.14 Sulphur – Allotropic Forms
7.3 Ammonia 7.15 Sulphur Dioxide
7.4 Oxides of Nitrogen 7.16 Oxoacids of Sulphur
7.5 Nitric Acid 7.17 Sulphuric Acid
7.6 Phosphorus – Allotropic Forms 7.18 Group 17 Elements
7.7 Phosphine 7.19 Chlorine
7.8 Phosphorus Halides 7.20 Hydrogen Chloride
7.9 Oxoacids of Phosphorus 7.21 Oxoacids of Halogens
7.10 Group 16 Elements 7.22 Interhalogen Compounds
7.11 Dioxygen 7.23 Group 18 Elements

NCERT Solutions CBSE Sample Papers ChemistryClass 12 Chemistry

NCERT IN TEXT QUESTIONS 

7.1. Why are pentahalides more covalent than trihalidcs?
Ans: The group 15 elements have 5 e-1 s in their valence shell. It is difficult to lose 3e-1s to form E3+ and even more difficult to lose 5e-1 s to form E5+. Thus, they have very little tendency to form ionic compounds. Further, since the elements in +5 state have less tendency to lose e-1s than in the +3 state, elements in +5 state have more tendency to share e-1 s and hence pentahalides are more covalent than trihalides.

7.2. Why is BiH3 the strongest reducing agent amongst all the hydrides of group 15 elements? (C.B.S.E. 2013)
Ans: Down the group, the atomic size of the element (E) increases and the bond length of the corresponding E—H bond also increases. This adversely affects the bond dissociation enthalpy. This means that amongst the trihydrides of the members of nitrogen family, the bond dissociation enthalpy of Bi—H bond is the least. Therefore, BiH3 is the strongest reducing agent among the hydrides of group 15 elements.

7.3. Why is N2 less reactive at room temperature?
Ans: Due to presence of triple bond between two N-atoms (N = N), the bond dissociation energy of N2 is very high. As a result, N2 becomes less reactive at room temperature.

7.4. Mention the conditions required to maximise the yield of ammonia.
Ans: Ammonia is prepared by Haber’s process as given below:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-1

7.5. How does ammonia react with a solution of Cu2+?
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-2

7.6. What is the covalence of nitrogen in N2O5 ?
Ans: In N2O5 , each N-atom has four shared pairs of e-1 s as shown:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-3

7.7. Why is bond angle in \({ PH }_{ 4 }^{ + }\) ion higher than in PH3 ? (Pb. Board 2009)
Ans: In both PH3 and \({ PH }_{ 4 }^{ + }\) ion, the phosphorus atom is sp3 hybridised. However, in PH3 the central atom has apyramidal structure due to the presence of lone electron pair on the phosphorus atom.
tiwari academy class 12 chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 4Because of lone pair : shared pair repulsion which is more than that of shared pair : shared pair repulsion, the bond angle in PH3 is nearly 93-6°. In \({ PH }_{ 4 }^{ + }\) ion, there is no lone electron pair on the phosphorus atom. It has a tetrahedral structure with bond angle of 109°-28′. Thus, the bond angle in \({ PH }_{ 4 }^{ + }\) ion is higher than in PH3.

7.8. What happens when white phosphorus is heated with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO2?
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-4

7.9. What happens when PCl5 is heated?
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-5

7.10. Write a balanced equation for the hydrolytic reaction of PC is in heavy water.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-6

7.11. What is the basicity of H3PO4?
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-7

7.12. What happens when H3PO4 is heated?
Ans: On heating, H3POdisproportionates to form PH3 and H3PO4 with O.S. of-3and + 5.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-8

7.13. List the important sources of sulphur.
Ans: Sulphur mainly occurs in the combined states in earth’s crust in the form of sulphates and sulphides.
Sulphates : gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O); epsom (MgSO4.7H2O); baryte (BaSO4), etc.
Sulphides : Galena (PbS); zinc blende (ZnS); copper pyrites (CuFeS2); iron pyrites (FeS2), etc. Traces of sulphur occur’as H2S and in organic materials such as eggs, proteins, garlic, onion, mustard, hair and wool.

7.14. Write the order of thermal stability of the – hydrides of Group 16 elements.
Ans: The thermal stability of hydrides of group 16 elements decreases down the group. This is because down the group, size of the element (M) increases, M-H bond length increases and thus, stability of M-H bond decreases so that it can be broken down easily. Hence, we have order of thermal stability as H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te > H2PQ

7.15. Why is H2O a liquid and H2S a gas?
Ans: Due to high electronegativity of O than S, H2O undergoes extensive intermolecular H-bonding. As a result, H2O exists as an associated molecule in which each O is tetrahedrally surrounded by four H2O molecules. Therefore, H2O is a liquid at room temperature.
On the other hand,H2S does not undergo H- bonding. It exists as discrete molecules which are held together by weak van der waals forces of attraction. A small amount of energy is required to break these forces of attraction. Therefore, H2S is a gas at room temperature.

7.16. Which of the following does not react with oxygen directly? Zn, Ti, Pt, Fe
Ans: Platinum (Pt) is a noble metal and does not react with oxygen directly.

7.17. Complete the following reactions:
(i)C2H2 + O2 -> (ii) 4Al + 3 O2 ->
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-9

7.18. Why does O3 act as a powerful oxidising agent?
Ans: On heating, O3 readily decomposes to give O2 and nascent oxygen.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-10
Since nascent oxygen is very reactive, therefore, O3 acts as a powerful oxidising agent.

7.19. How is O3 estimated quantitatively?
Ans: When O3 is treated with excess of KI solution buffered with borate buffer (pH = 9.2), I2 is liberated quantitatively.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-11
The I2 thus liberated is titrated against a standard solution of sodium thiosulphate using starch as an indicator.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-12

7.20. What happens when sulp’hur dioxide is passed through an aqueous solution of Fe(III) salt?
Ans: SO2 acts as a reducing agent and reduces aqueous solution of Fe (III)salt to Fe (II) salt.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-13

7.21. Comment on the nature of two S-O bonds formed in S02 molecule. Are the two S-O bonds in this molecule equal ?
Ans: SO2 exists as an angular molecule with OSO bond angle of 119.5°. It a resonance hybrid of two canonical-forms:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-14

7.22. How is the presence of SO2 detected?
Ans: SOis a pungent smelling gas. It can be detected by two test:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-15

7.23. Mention three areas in which H2SO4 plays an important role.
Ans: (i) Sulphuric acid is used for the manufacture of a number of chemicals like hydrochloric acid, phosphoric acid, nitric acid along with a large number of organic compounds.
(ii) A mixture of concentrated nitric acid and concentrated sulphuric acid is used in the manufacture of explosives like picric acid, T.N.T, dynamite etc.
(iii) Dilute solution of acid is employed in petroleum refining in order to remove the unwanted impurities of sulphur.

Question 24.
Write the conditions to maximise the yield of H2SO4 by Contact process.
Solution:
The key step in the manufacture of sulphuric acid is oxidation of SO2 to SO3 in presence of V2O5 catalyst.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 8
The reaction is exothermic and reversible. Hence, low temperature and high pressure are the favourable conditions for maximum yield of SO3. In practice a pressure of 2 bar and temperature of 720 K is maintained.

Question 25.
Why is Ka2 « Ka1 for H2SO4 in water?
Solution:
H2SO4 is a very strong acid in water largely because of its first ionisation to H3O+ and HSO4– The ionisation of HSO4 to H3O+ and SO42- is very very small. That is why, Ka2« Ka1.

Question 26.
Considering the parameters such as bond dissociation enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy and hydration enthalpy, compare the oxidising powers of F2 and Cl2.
Solution:
The oxidising powers of both the members of halogen family are expressed in terms of their electron accepting tendency and can be compared as their standard reduction potential values.
F2 + 2e → 2F; E° = 2-87 V, Cl2 + 2e → 2Cl ; E° = 1-36 V
Since the E° of fluorine is more than that of chlorine, it is a stronger oxidising agent.
Explanation : Three factors contribute towards the oxidation potentials of both the halogens. These are :
(i) Bond dissociation enthalpy: Bond dissociation enthalpy of F2 (158 kJ mol-1) is less compared to that of Cl2 (242·6 kJ mol-1).
(ii) Electron gain enthalpy: The negative electron gain enthalpy of F (- 332·6 kJ mol-1) is slightly less than of Cl (-348·5 kJ mol-1).
(iii) Hydration enthalpy: The hydration enthalpy of F- ion (515 kJ mol-1) is much higher than that of Cl- ion (381 kJ mol-1) due to its smaller size.
From the available data, we may conclude that lesser bond dissociation enthalpy and higher hydration enthalpy compensate lower negative electron gain enthalpy of fluorine as compared to chlorine. Consequently, F2 is a more powerful oxidising agent than Cl2.

Question 27.
Give two examples to show the anomalous behaviour of fluorine.
Solution:

  1. Ionisation enthalpy, electro-negativity and electrode potential are higher for fluorine than the expected trends of other halogen.
  2. Fluorine does not show any positive oxidation state except in HOF.

Question 28.
Sea is the greatest source of some halogens. Comment.
Solution:
Sea water contains chlorides, bromides and iodides of sodium, potassium, magnesium and calcium but sodium chloride being the maximum makes sea water saline. Various sea weeds contain upto 0.5% iodine.

Question 29.
Give the reason for bleaching action of Cl2.
Solution:
Chlorine bleaches by oxidation Cl2 + H2O → HCl + HOCl → HCl + [O]
The nascent oxygen reacts with dye to make it colourless.

Question 30.
Name two poisonous gases which can be prepared from chlorine gas.
Solution:
COCl2 (phosgene), CCl3NO2 (tear gas)

Question 31.
Why is ICI more reactive than l2?
Solution:
In general, interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogens due to weaker X-X’ bonding than X-X bond. Thus, ICI is more reactive than I2.

Question 32.
Why is helium used in diving apparatus?
Answer:
Helium along with oxygen is used in the diving apparatus by the sea divers. Since it is very little soluble in blood, it reduces decompression and causes less discomfort to the diver in breathing. A mixture of helium and oxygen does not cause pain due to very low solubility of helium in blood as compared to nitrogen.

Question 33.
Balance the following equation :
XeF6 + H2O → XeO2F2 + 4HF
Solution:

Question 34.
Why has it been difficult to study the chemistry of radon?
Solution:
Radon is radioactive with very short half-life which makes the study of chemistry of radon difficult.

NCERT EXRECISES

7.1. Discuss the general characteristics of Group 15 elements with reference to their electronic configuration, oxidation state, atomic size, ionisation enthalpy and electronegativity.
Sol: In group 15 of the Periodic Table, the elements, nitrogen (7N), phosphorus (15P), arsenic (33As), antimony (51Sb) and bismuth (83Bi) are present. The elements of this group can exhibit various oxidation states ranging between -3 to + 5. Negative oxidation state will be exhibited when they combine with less electronegative element andpositive oxidation state will be exhibited with more electronegative element. Positive oxidation state becomes more favourable as we more down the group due to increasing metallic character & electropositivity. Although due to inert pair effect the stability of +5 state will also decrease. The only stable compound of Bi (V) is BiF5.
The atomic (covalent) and ionic radii (in a particular oxidation state) of the elements of nitrogen family (group 15) are smaller than the corresponding elements of carbon family (group 14). On moving down the group, the covalent and ionic radii (in a particular oxidation state) increase with increase in atomic number. There is a considerable increase in covalent radius from N to P. However, from As to Bi, only a small increase is observed.
As the size increases on moving down the group, the ionisation enthalpy increases. The ionisation enthalpy of nitrogen group elements is more than the corresponding elements of oxygen group. This is because of more stable half-filled outermost p- subshell of nitrogen group elements. Electronegativity decreases down the group with increase in atomic size.

7.2. Why is the reactivity of nitrogen different from that of phosphorus?
Sol: Molecular nitrogen exists as a diatomic molecule (N2) in which the two nitrogen atoms are linked to each other by triple bond (N≡N). It is a gas at room temperature. Multiple bonding is not possible in case of phosphorus due to its large size. It exists as P4 molecule (solid) in which P atoms are linked to one another by single covalent bonds. Because of greater bond dissociation enthalpy (946 kJ mol-1) of N≡N bond, molecular nitrogen is very less reactive as compared to molecular phosphorus.

7.3. Discuss the trends in chemical reactivity of group 15 elements.
Sol: Hydrides: All elements of group 15 form gaseous hydrides of the type MH3.
In all the hydrides the central atom is sp3 hybridized and their shape is pyramidal due to presence of lone pair of electrons.
(a)The basic strength of the hydrides decreases as we move down the group.
Thus, NH3 is the strongest base.
NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
(b)The thermal stability of the hydrides decreases as the atomic size increases, i.e., the M – H bond strength decreases which means reducing character increases.
(c)In the liquid state, the molecules of NH3are associated due to hydrogen bonding. The molecules of other hydrides are not associated.
(d)NH3 is soluble in water whereas other hydrides are insoluble.
(e)All the hydrides, except NH3, are strong reducing agents and react with metal ions (Ag+, Cu2+, etc.) to form phosphides, arsenides or antimonides.
Halides: The elements of group 15 form two series of halides MX3 and MX5.
(a)All the elements of the group form trihalides. The ionic character of trihalides increases as we move down the group. Except NCl3 all the trihalides are hydrolysed by water. This is due to the absence of d-orbitals in nitrogen.
(b)PF3 is not hydrolysed because fluorine being more electronegative than oxygen forms more stable bonds with phosphorus than P – O bonds.
(c)N cannot form NX5 because of non-availability of rforbitals. Bi cannot form BiX3 because of reluctance of 6s electrons of Bi to participate in bond formation.
(d)The hybridisation of M in MX3 is sp3 and shape is pyramidal. M in MX5 is sp3 as hybridised and shape is trigonal pyramidal. The axial bonds in MX5 are weaker and longer, So MX5 are less stable and decompose on heating eg:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-1
Oxides:
(a)Nitrogen forms a number of oxides. The rest of the members (P, As, Sb and Bi) of the group form two types of oxides : E203 and E2O5.
(b)The reluctance of P, As, Sb and Bi to enter into pπ -pπ multiple bonding leads to cage structures of their oxides and they exist as dimers, E4O6 and E5O10.
(c)The basic nature of die oxides increases with increase in atomic number of the element. Thus, the oxides of nitrogen (except N20 and NO), P (III) and As (III) are acidic, Sb (III) oxide is amphoteric and Bi (III) oxide is basic.

7.4. Why does NH3 form hydrogen bond but PH3 does not?
Sol: Nitrogen has an electronegativity value 3.0, which is much higher than that of H (2.1). As a result, N – H bond is quite polar and hence NH3 undergoes intermolecular H – bonding.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-2
Phosphorus have an electronegativity value 2-1. Thus, P – H bond is not polar and hence PH3 does not undergo H – bonding.

7.5. How is nitrogen prepared in the laboratory? Write the chemical equations of the reactions . involved.
Sol: In laboratory, nitrogen is prepared by heating an equimolar aqueous solution of ammonium chloride and sodium nitrite. As a result of double decomposition reaction, ammonium nitrite is formed. Ammonium nitrite is unstable and decompose to form nitrogen gas.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-3

7.6. How is ammonia manufactured industrially?
Sol: Commercially, by Haber’s process.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-4
iron oxide, K2O, Al20The optimum conditions for the production of NH3 are pressure of 200 atm and temperature of 100K.

7.7. Illustrate how copper metal can give different products on reaction with HN03.
Sol: On heating with dil HN03, copper gives copper nitrate and nitric oxide.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-5

7.8. Give the resonating structures of N02 and N2O5.
Sol: Resonating structures of N02 are:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-6

7.9. The HNH angle value is higher than HPH, H AsH and HSbH angles. Why?
(Hint: Can be explained on the basis of sp3 hybridisation in NH3 and only s-p bonding , between hydrogen and other elements of the group).
Sol: In all these cases, the central atom is sp3 hybridized. Three of the four sp3 orbitals form three σ-bonds, while the fourth contains the lone pair of electrons. On moving down from N to Sb, the electronegativity of the central atom goes on decreasing. As a result of this, bond  pairs of electrons lie away and away from the central atom. This is because of the force of repulsion between the adjacent bond pairs goes on decreasing and the bond angles keep on decreasing from NH3 to SbH3. Thus, bond angles are in the order:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-7

7.10. Why does R3P=0 exist but R3N=0 does not (R is an alkyl group) ?
Sol: Nitrogen does not have vacant d-orbitals on its valence shell. Therefore, it cannot extend its dπ-pπ bonding is not possible. As a result, the molecules of R3N = 0 does not exist. However, phosphorus and rest of the members of the group 15 have vacant d-orbitals in the valence shell which can be involved in dπ-pπ bonding. Under the circumstances, R3P=0 molecule can exist.

7.11. Explain why NH3 is basic while BiH3 is only feebly basic.
Sol: In both NH3 and BiH3, N and Bi have a lone paif of electrons on the central atom and hence should behave as Lewis bases. But NH3 is much more basic than BiH3. Since the atomic size of N is much smaller than that of Bi, therefore, electron density on N-atom is much higher than that on Bi-atom. Thus, the tendency of N in NH3 to donate its lone pair of electrons is much more in comparison to tendency of Bi in BiH3. Hence, NH3 is more basic than BiH3.

7.12. Nitrogen exists as diatomic molecule and phosphorus as P4. Why?
Sol: Nitrogen exists as a diatomic molecule having a triple bond between the two N-atoms, This is due its small size that it forms pπ-pπ multiple bonds with itself and with carbon /oxygen as well. On the other hand, phosphorus due to its larger size does not form multiple pπ-pπ bonds with itself. It prefers to form P – P single bonds and hence it exists as tetrahedral P4 molecule.

7.13. Write main differences between the properties of white phosphorus and red phosphorus.
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-8
Structure of white and red phosphorus are given below:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-9

7.14. Why does nitrogen show catenation properties less than phosphorus ? (C.B.S.E. Foreign 2009)
Sol: The valence shell electronic configuration of N is 2s22p3. In order to complete the octet, the two nitrogen atoms share three electron pairs in the valence p-sub-shell and get linked by triple bond (N=N). Thus molecular nitrogen exists as discrete diatomic species and there is no scope of any self linking or catenation involving a number of nitrogen atoms. However, in case of phosphorus, multiple bonding is not feasible due to comparatively large atomic size of the element. Molecular phosphorus exists as tetra-atomic molecule (P4) in white phosphorus. These tetrahedrons are further linked by covalent bonds to form red variety which is in polymeric form. Thus, catenation in nitrogen is less than in phosphorus.

7.15. Give the disproportionation reaction of H3 P03.
Sol: On heating, H3 P04 undergoes self – oxidation-reduction, i.e: disproportionation to form PH3.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-10

7.16. Can PCl5 act as an oxidising as well as a reducing agent Justify.
Sol: The oxidation state of P in PCl5 is+5. Since P has five electrons in its valence shell, therefore, it cannot donate electron and cannot increase its oxidation state beyond + 5, Thus, PCl5 cannot act as a reducing agent. It can act as oxidizing agent by itself undergoing reduction.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-11

7.17. Justify the placement of O, S, Se, Te and Po in the same group’of the periodic table in terms of electronic configuration, oxidation state and hydride formation.
Sol: (1)Electronic configuration:
O (At. no. = 8) = [He] 2s2 2p4
S (At. no. = 16) = [Ne] 3s2 3p4
Se (At. no. = 34) = [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p4
Te (At. no. = 52) = [Kr] 4d10 5s2 5p4 ,
Po (At. no. = 84) = [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p4 ,
Thus, all these elements have the same ns2 np4 (n = 2 to 6) valence shell electronic configuration, hence are justified to be placed in group 16 of the Periodic Table.
(2)Oxidation state : Two more electrons are needed to acquire the nearest noble gas configuration. Thus, the minimum oxidation state of these elements should be – 2. O and to some extent S show – 2 oxidation state. Other element being more electropositive than O and S, do not show negative oxidation state. As these contain six electrons, thus, maximum oxidation state shown by them is+ 6. Other oxidation state shown by them are + 2 and + 4. O do not show+4 and + 6 oxidation state, due to the absence of d-orbitals. Thus, on the basis of maximum and minimum oxidation states, these elements are justified to be placed in the same group 16 of the periodic table.
(3)Hydride formation: All these elements share two of their valence electrons with 1 s- orbital of hydrogen to form hydrides of the general formula EH2, i.e., H20, H2S, H2Se, H2Te and H2Po. Thus, on the basis of hydride formation, these elements are justified to be placed in the same group 16 of the Periodic Table.

7.18. Why is dioxygen a gas but sulphur a solid?
Sol: Due to the small size and high electronegativity, oxygen forms pπ- pπ multiple bonds. As a result, oxygen exists as diatomic (O2) molecules. These molecules are held together by weak van der Waal’s forces of attraction which can be overcome by collisions of the molecules at room temperature. Therefore, O2 is a gas at room temperature. Due to its bigger size and lower electronegativity, sulphur does not form pn-pn multiple bonds. It prefers to form S – S single bonds. S – S single bond is stronger then O-O single bond. Thus, sulphur has higher tendency for catenation than oxygen. Due to higher tendency for catenation and lower tendency for pπ – pπ multiple bonds sulphur exits as octa-atomic (Sg) molecule. Due to bigger size, the force of attraction holding the Sg molecules together are much stronger which cannot be overcome by collisions of molecules at room temperature. Therefore, sulphur is solid at room temperature.

7.19. Knowing the electron gain enthalpy values of O—>O and O—>O2- as -141 and 702 kJ mol-1 respectively, how can you account for the formation of a large number of oxides having O2- species and not O?
Sol: Let us consider the reaction of oxygen with monopositve metal, we can have two compounds. MO(O in -1 state) and M2O (O in -2 state). The energy required for formation of O-2 is compensated by increased coulombic attraction between M+ and O-2. Coulombic force of attraction, FA is proportional to product of charges on ions i.e.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-12
where q1 and q2 are charges on ions and r is distance between ions. Same logic can be applied if metal is dispositive.

7.20. Which aerosols deplete ozone?
Sol: Aerosols like chlorofluorocarbons (CFC’s), i.e., freon (CCl2F2), depletes the ozone layer by supplying Cl* free radicals which convert O3 to O2
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-13

7.21. Describe the manufacture of H2SO4 by contact process?
Sol: Preparation of sulphuric acid:By Contact Process: Burning of sulphur or sulphide ores in presence of oxygen to produce SO2. Catalytic oxidation of SO2 with O2to give SO3 in the presence of V2O5.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-14
Then SO3 made to react with sulphuric acid of suitable normality to obtain a thick oily liquid called oleum.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-15
Then oleum is diluted to obtain sulphuric acid of desired concentration.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-16
The sulphuric acid obtained by contact process is 96-98% pure.

7.22. How is SO2 an air pollutant?
Sol: (1) SOdissolves in moisture present in air to form H2SO4 which damages building materials especially marble (acid – rain).- CaCO3 + H2SO3 ——->CaSO3 + H20 + CO2
(2)It corrodes metals like Fe and steel. It also brings about fading and deterioration of fabrics, leather, paper, etc., and affecting the colour of paints.
(3)Even in low concentration (= 0.03 ppm), it has damaging effect on the plants. If exposed for a long time, i.e., a few days or weeks, it slows down the formation of chlorophyll i. e., loss of green colour. This is called chlorosis.
(4)It is strongly irritating to the respiratory track. It cause throat and eye irritation, resulting into cough, tears and redness in eyes. It also cause breathlessness and effects larynx i. e. „ voice box.

7.23. Why are halogens strong oxidising agents?
Sol: Members of the halogen family act as strong oxidising agents on account of their electron accepting tendency both in the molecular as well as atomic form.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements 32This is attributed to their high electronegativity, negative electron gain enthalpy values and alsp low bond dissociation enthalpies sinve they contain single covalent bonds(X — X) in their molecules. Fluorine is most reactive among the halogens and the reactivity down the group.

7.24. Explain why fluorine forms only one oxoacid, HOF.
Sol: Cl, Br and I form four series of oxo acids of general formula HOX, HOXO, HOXO2, and H0XO3. In these oxo-adds, the oxidation states of halogens are + 1, + 3, + 5, and + 7 respectively. However, due to high electronegativity, small size and absence of d-orbitals, F does not form oxo-acids with + 3, + 5 and + 7, oxidation states. It just forms one oxo-acid (HOF).

7.25. Explain why inspite of nearly the same electronegativity, nitrogen forms hydrogen bonding while chlorine does not.
Sol: Both .nitrogen (N) and chlorine (Cl) have electronegativity of 3.0. However, only nitrogen is involved in the hydrogen bonds (e.g., NH3) and not chlorine. This is due to smaller atomic size of nitrogen (atomic radius =70 pm) as compared to chlorine (atomic radius = 99) pm), therefore, N can cause greater polarisation of N-H bond than Cl in case of Cl—H bond.Consequently, N atom is involved in hydrogen bonding and not chlorine.

7.26. Write two uses of ClO2
Sol: (1) ClO2 is an excellent bleaching agent. It is 30 times stronger bleaching agent then the Cl2. It is used as a bleaching agerit for paper pulp in paper industry and in textile industry. (2) ClO2 is also a powerful oxidising agent and chlorinating agent. It acts as a germicide for disinfecting water. It is used for purifying drinking water.

7.27. Why are halogens coloured?
Sol: The halogens are coloured because their molecules absorb light in the visible region. As a result of which their electrons get excited to higher energy levels while the remaining light is transmitted. The color of halogens is the color of this transmitted light.

7.28. Write the reactions of F2 and Cl2 with water.
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-17

7.29. How can-you prepare Cl2 from HCl and HCl from CI2? Write reactions only.
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-18

7.30. What inspired N. Bartlett for carrying out reaction between Xe and PtF6?
Sol: N. Bartlett observed that PtF6 reacts with O2to give an compound O2+ [PtF6].
PtF6 (g) + O2 (g) ——–>O2+[PtF6]
Since the first ionization enthalpy of Xe (1170 kJ mol-1 )is fairly close to that of 02 molecule (1175 kJ mol-1 ), he thought that PtFshould also oxidise Xe to Xe+. This inspired Bartlett to carryout the reaction between Xe and PtF6. When PtF6 and Xe were made to react, a rapid reaction took place and a red solid, Xe+[PtF6] was obtained.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-19

7.31. What are the oxidation states of phosphorus in the following: –
(i) H3PO3 (ii)PCl3
(iii) Ca3P2(iv)Na3PO4
(v) POF3
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-20

7.32. Write balanced equations for the following:
(i) NaCl is heated witlrsulphuric acid in the presence of MnO2
(ii) Chlorine gas is passed into a solution of Nal in water.
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-21

7.33. How are xenon fluorides XeF2, XeF4 and XeFobtained?
Sol: XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 are obtained by direct reaction between Xe and F2 as follows:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-22

7.34. With which neutral molecule is ClO isoelectronic ? Is this molecule Lewis acid or base ? (Pb. Board 2009)
Sol: ClO has (17 + 8 + 1) = 26 electrons. It is iso-electronic with two neutral molecules.
Oxygen difluoride (OF2) : 8 + 18 = 26 electrons
Chlorine fluoride (ClF) : 17 + 9 = 26 electrons
Out of these, ClF can act as Lewis base. The atom chlorine has three lone electron pairs which it donates to form compounds like ClF3, ClF5 and ClF7.

7.35. How are XeOand XeOF4prepared?
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-23

7.36. Arrange the following in the order of property indicated for each set: –
(i) F2 , Cl2 , Br2 , I2 – increasing bond dissociation enthalpy.
(ii) HF, HCI, HBr, HI – increasing acid . strength.
(iii) NH3, PH3, AsH3, SbH3, BiH3 – increasing Sol. base strength.
Sol: (i) Bond dissociation enthalpy decreases as the bond distance increases from F2 to I2 due to increase in the size of the atom, on moving from F to I.
F – F bond dissociation enthalpy is smaller then the Cl – Cl and even smaller than Br – Br. This is because F atom is very small and have large electron-electron repulsion among the lone pairs of electrons in F2 molecule where they are much closer to each other than in case of Cl2. The increasing order of bond dissociation enthalphy is I, < F2 < Br2 < Cl2
(ii) Acid strength of HF, HCI, HBr and HI depends upon their bond dissociation enthalpies. Since the bond dissociation enthalpy of H – X bond decreases from H – F to H-l as the size of atom increases from F to I.
Thus, the acid strength order is HF < HCI < HBr < HI
The weak acidic strength of HF is also due to H-bonding due to which release of H becomes difficult.
(iii) NH3, PH3, ASH3, SbH3 and BiH3 behaves as Lewis bases due to the presence of lone pair of electrons on the central atom. As we move from N to Bi, size of atom increases. Electron density on central atom decreases and hence the basic strength decreases from NH3 to BiH3. Thus basic strength order is BiH3<SbH3<AsH3<PH3<NH3

7.37. Which one of the following does not exist ?
(i)XeOF4 (ii)NeF2
(iii)XeF4 (iv)XeF6
Sol: NeF2 does not exist. This is because the sum of first and second ionization enthalpies of Ne are much higher than those of Xe. Consequently, F2 can oxidise Xe to Xe2+ but cannot oxidise Ne to Ne2+.

7.38. Give the formula and describe the structure of a noble gas species which is isostructural with: (i) ICI4 (ii) IBr2 (iii) Br03
Ans: (i) ICI4: In ICI4, central atom I has seven valence electrons and one due to negative charge. Four out of these 8 electrons are utilized in forming four single bonds with four Cl atoms. Four remaining electrons constitutes the two lone pairs. It is arranged in square planar structure. ICI4 has 36 valence electrons. A noble gas species having 36 valence electrons is XeF4 (8 + 4 x 7 = 36). XeF4 is also square planar.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-24
(ii) IBr2: In IBr2, central atom I has eight electrons. Two of these are utilized in forming two single bonds with two Br atom. Six remaining electrons constitutes three lone pairs. It is arranged in linear structure.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-25
IBr2 has 22 valence electrons. A noble gas species having 22 valence electrons is XeF2 (8+2 x 7=22).
XeF2 is also linear.
(iii) In Br03 ion the central Br atom has 8 valence electrons (7 +1). Out of these, it shares 4 with two atoms of O forming Br = O bonds. Out of the remaining four .electrons, 2 are donated to the third O atom which accounts for its negative charge. The remaining 2 electrons constitute one lone pair. In order to minimise the force of repulsion, the structure of Br03 ion must be pyramidal. Br03 ion has (7 + 3 x 6 + 1) = 26 valence electrons and is isoelectronic as well as iso-structural with noble gas species Xe03 which has also 26(8 + 3 x 6) electrons.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p Block Elements-26

7.39. Why do noble gases have comparatively large atomic size?
Sol: The members of the noble gas family have comparatively large atomic size as compared to rest of the members present in the same period. Actually, for these elements, van der Waals’ radii are considered while for rest of the elements either covalent radii or metallic radii are taken into account. Since van der Waals’ radii arise simply due to van der Waals’ forces of attraction, these are expected to have comparatively large magnitude.

7.40. List the uses of neoirand argon gases.
Sol: Uses of Neon
Neon is used in discharge tubes and fluorescent bulbs for advertisement display purposes. Glow’of different colours ‘neon signs’ can be produced by mixing neon with other gases. Neon bulbs and used in botanical gardens and in green’ houses.
Uses of Argon
Argon is used mainly to provide an inert atmosphere in high temperature metallurgical processes such as arc welding of metals and alloys. In the laboratory, it is used for handling substance which are air sensitive.
It is used in filling incandescent and fluorescent lamps where its presence retards the sublimation of the filament and thus increases the life of the lamp.It is also used in “neon signs” for obtaining lights of different colours.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements:

Section Name Topic Name
8 The d – and f – Block Elements
8.1 Position in the Periodic Table
8.2 Electronic Configurations of the d-Block Elements
8.3 General Properties of the Transition Elements (d-Block)
8.4 Some Important Compounds of Transition Elements
8.5 The Lanthanoids
8.6 The Actinoids
8.7 Some Applications of d – and f -Block Elements

NCERT Solutions CBSE Sample Papers ChemistryClass 12 Chemistry

NCERT IN TEXT QUESTIONS 

8.1. Silver atom has completely filled d orbitals (4d10) in its ground state. How can you say that it is a transition element?
Ans: The outer electronic configuration of Ag (Z=47) is 4d105s1. It shows+1 and + 2 O.S. (in AgO and AgF2). And in + 2 O.S., the electronic configuration is d9 i.e, d-subshell is incompletely filled. Hence, it is a transition element.

8.2. In the series Sc(Z = 21) to (Z = 30), the enthalpy of atomisation of zinc is the lowest i.e., 126 kJ mol-1. Why?
Ans: The enthalpy of atomisation is directly linked with the stability of the crystal lattice and also the strength of the metallic bond. In case of zinc (3d104s2 configuration), no electrons from the 3d-orbitals are involved in the formation of metallic bonds since all the orbitals are filled. However, in all other elements belonging to 3d series one or more d-electrons are involved in the metallic bonds. This means that the metallic bonds are quite weak in zinc and it has therefore, lowest enthalpy of atomisation in the 3d series.

8.3. Which of the 3d series of the transition metals exhibits the largest number of oxidation states and why?
Ans: Manganese (Z = 25) shows maximum number of O.S. This is because its outer EC is 3d54s2. As 3d and 4s are close in energy, it has maximum number of e-1 s to loose or share. Hence, it shows O.S. from +2 to +7 which is the maximum number.

8.4.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-1
Ans.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-2

8.5. How would you account for the irregular variation of ionisation enthalpies (first and second) in the first series of the transition elements?
Ans:  There is a irregularity in the IE’s of 3d-series due to alternation of energies of 4s and 3d orbitals when an e-1 is removed. Thus, there is a reorganisation energy accompanying ionization. This results into release of exchange energy which increases as the number of e-1 s increases in the dn configuration. Cr has low 1st IE because loss of 1 e- gives stable EC (3d6). Zn has very high IE because e~ has to be removed from 4s orbital of the stable configuration (3d10 4s2) After the loss of one e, removal of 2nd e, becomes difficult. Hence, 2nd IE’s are higher and in general, increase from left to right. However, Cr and Cu show much higher values because 2nd e– has to be removed from stable configuration of Cr+ (3d5) and Cu+ (3d10)

8.6. Why is the highest oxidation state of a metal exhibited by its fluoride and oxide only? (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2010)
Ans: Both fluorine and oxygen have very high electronegativity values. They can oxidise the metals to the highest oxidation state. As a result, the highest oxidation states are shown by the fluorides and oxides of the metals; transition metals in particular.

8.7.Which is a stronger reducing agent Cr2+ or Fe2+ and why?
Ans: Cr2+ is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+. This is because E°(Cr3+/Cr2+) is negative (- 0.41V) whereas E°(Fe3+/Fe2+) is positive (+ 0.77 V). Thus, Cr2+ is easily oxidised to Fe3+ but Fe2+ cannot be easily oxidised to Fe3+.

8.8.Calculate the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment of M2+(aq) ion (Z = 27).
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-3

8.9.Explain why Cu+ ion is not stable in aqueous solutions?
Ans: Cu+ (aq) is not stable, while Cu2+ (aq) is stable. This is becuase ΔhydH of Cu2+(aq) is much higher than that of Cu+(aq) and hence it compensates for the 2nd IE of Cu. Thus, many Cu(I) compounds are unstable in aqueous solution and undergo disproportionation as follows :
2 Cu+ —–> Cu2+ + Cu

8.10. Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element than lanthanoid contraction. Why? (C.B.S.E. Sample Paper 2011, Jharkhand Board 2010)
Ans: The decrease or contraction in atomic radii, as well as ionic radii in actinoid elements (actinoid contraction), is more as compared to lanthanoid contraction because 5/ electrons have more poor shielding effect as compared to 4f electrons. Therefore, the effect of increased nuclear charge leading to contraction in size is more in case of actinoid elements.

NCERT EXRECISES

8.1. Write down the electronic configuration of (i) Cr3+ (ii) Pm3+ (iii) Cu+ (iv) Ce4+(v) Co2+ (vi) Lu2+(vii) Mn2+ (viii) Th4+.
Sol: (i) Cr3+ = [Ar]183d3
(ii)Pm3+ = [Xe]54 4f4
(iii)Cu+ = [Ar]18 3d10
(iv)Ce4+ = [Xe]54
(v)Co2+ = [Ar]18 3d7
(vi)Lu2+ = [Xe]54 4f14 5d1
(vii) Mn2+ = [Ar]18 3d5 (viii)Th4+= [Rn]86

8.2. Why are Mn2+ compounds more stable than Fe2+ towards oxidation to their+3 state?
Sol: Electronic configuration of Mn2+ is 3d5. This is a half-filled configuration and hence stable. Therefore, third ionization enthalpy is’very high, i. e., third electron cannot be lost easily. Electronic configuration of Fe2+ is 3d6. It can lose one electron easily to achieve a stable configuration 3d5.

8.3. Explain briefly how+2 state becomes more and more stable in the first half of the first row transition elements with increasing atomic number?
Sol: Here after losing 2 electrons from j-orbitals, the 3d-orbital gets gradually occupied with increase in atomic number. Since the number of unpaired electrons in 3d orbital increases, the stability of the cations (M2+) increases from Sc2+ to Mn2+.

8.4. To what extent do the electronic configurations decide the stability of oxidation states in the first series of the transition elements? Illustrate your answer with examples.
Sol: In the first series of transition elements, the oxidation states which lead to exactly half-filled or completely filled d-orbitals are more stable. For example, Mn (Z = 25) has electronic configuration [Ar] 3d5 4 s2. It shows oxidation states + 2 to + 7 but Mn (II) is most stable because of half-filled configuration [Ar] 3d5. Similarly Sc3+ is more stable then Sc+ and Fe3+ is more stable than Fe2+ due to half filled it f-orbitals.

8.5. What may be the stable oxidation state of the transition element with the following delectron configurations in the ground state of their atoms: 3d3,3d5, 3d8 and 3d4?
Sol: (a) 3d3 4s1 = + 5.
(b) 3d5 4s2 = + 2, + 7,3d5 4s1 =+6.
(c)3d84s2 = + 2.
(d)3d44s2 = 3d5 4s1 = + 6(and + 3).

8.6. Name the oxometal anions of the first series of the transition metals in which the metal exhibits the oxidation state equal to its group number.
Sol: Cr2072- and Cr042- (Group number = Oxidation state of Cr = 6).
Mn04  (Group number = Oxidation state of Mn = 7).

8.7. What is lanthanoid contraction? What are the consequences of lanthanoid contraction?
Sol: Lanthanoid Contraction : In the lanthanoids , the electrons are getting filled in the 4f-subshell. On moving from left to right, the nuclear charge increases and this increase is expected to be compensated by the increase in the magnitude of shielding effect by the 4 f- electrons However,
the f-electrons have very poor shielding effect. Consequently, the atomic and ionic radii decrease from left to right and this is knwon as lanthanoid contraction.
Consequences of lanthanoid Contraction
(a)Separation Lanthanoids: All the lanthanoids have quite similar properties and due to this reason they are difficult to separate.
(b)Variation in basic strength of hydroxides: Due to lanthanoid contraction, size of M3+ ions decreases and thus there is a corresponding increase in the covalent character in M—OH bond. Thus basic character of oxides and hydroxides decreases from La(OH)3 to Lu(OH)3.
(c)Similarity in the atomic sizes of the elements of second and third transition series present in the same group. The difference in the value of atomic radii of Y and La is quite, large as compared to the difference in the value of Zr and Hf. This is because of the lanthanoid contraction.
(d)Variation in standard reduciton potential: Due to lanthanoid contraction there is a small but steady increase in the standard reduction potential (E°) for the reduction process.
M3+ (aq) + 3e —–> 4 M(aq)
(e)Variation in physical properties like melting point, boiling point, hardness etc.

8.8. What are the characteristics of the transition . elements and why are they called transition elements? Which of the d-block elements may not be regarded as the transition elements?
Sol: General characteristics of transition elements.
(i)Electronic configuration – (n -1) d1-10 ns1-2
(ii)Metallic character – With the exceptions of Zn, Cd and Hg, they have typical metallic structures.
(iii)Atomic and ionic size-ions of same charge in a given series show progressive decrease in radius with increasing atomic number.
(iv)Oxidation state-Variable; ranging from+2 to +7.
(v)Paramagnetism – The ions with unpaired electrons are paramagnetic.
(vi)Ionisation enthalpy – Increases with increase in charge.
Formation of coloured ions – Due to presence of unpaired electrons.
(viii) Formation of complex compounds – Due to small size and high charge density of metal ions.
(ix)They possess catalj^c properties – Due to
their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states. .
(x)Formation of interstitial compounds.
(xi)Alloy formation.
They are called transition elements due to their incompletely filled d-orbitals in ground state or in any stable oxidation state and they are placed between s and p- block elements. Zn, Cd and Hg have fully filled d- orbitals in their ground state hence may not be regarded as the transition elements.

8.9. In what way are the electronic configuration of the transition elements different from non-transition elements?
Sol: Electronic configuration of transition elements : (n – 1)d1-10 ns1-2. Electronic configuration of non-transition elements : ns1-2 or ns2np1-6. From comparison, it is quite evident that the transition elements have incomplete d-orbitals (s- orbitals in some cases) while the non-transition elements have no d-orbitals present in the valence shells of their atoms. This is responsible for the difference in the characteristics of the elements belonging to these classess of elements.

8.10. What are the different oxidation states exhibited by the lanthanoids?
Sol: Lanthanides exhibits + 2, + 3 and + 4 oxidation states. The most common oxidation state of lanthanoids is +3.

8.11. Explain giving reasons:
(i)Transition metals and many of their compounds show paramagnetic behaviour.
(ii)The enthalpies of atomisation of the transition metals are high.
(iii)The transition metals generally form coloured compounds.
(iv)Transition metals and their many compounds act as good catalyst
Sol: (i) Magnetic properties: Transition elements and many of their compounds are paramagnetic, i.e., they are weakly attracted by a magnetic field. This is due to the presence of unpaired electrons in atoms, ions or molecules. The paramagnetic character increases as the number of . unpaired electrons increases. The paramagnetic character is measured in terms of magnetic moment and is given by
\(\mu =\sqrt { n(n+2) }\) where n – number of unpaired electrons.
(ii) Because of large number of unpaired electrons in d-orbitals of their atoms they have stronger interatomic intefactions and hence stronger metallic bonding between atoms resulting in higher enthalpies of atomisation.
(iii) Formation of coloured compounds (both in solid state as well as in aqueous solution) is another very common characteristics of transition metals. This is due to absorption of some radiation from visible light to cause d-d transition of electrons in transition metal atom. The d-orbitals do not have same energy and under the influence of ligands, the d-orbitals split into two sets of orbitals having different energies; transition of electrons can take place from one set of d-orbitals to another set within the same sub-shell. Such transitions are called d-d transitions. The energy difference for these d-d transitions fall in the visible region. When white light is incident on compounds of transition metals, they absorb a particular frequency and remaining colours are emitted imparting a characteristic colour to the complex. Zn2+ and Ti4+ salts are white because they do not absorb any radiation in visible region.
(iv)Catalytic properties: Many of transition metals and their compounds act as catalyst in variety of reactions, e.g., finely divided iron in manufacture of NH3 by Haber’s process, V2O5 or Pt in manufacture of H2S04 by Contact process, etc.). The catalytic activity is due to following two reasons.
(a)The ability of transition metal ion to pass ” easily from one oxidation state to another
and thus providing a new path to reaction with lower activation energy.
(b)The surface of transition metal acts as very good adsorbent and thus provides increased concentration of reactants on their surface causing the reaction to occur.

8.12. What are interstitial compounds? Why are such compounds well known for transition metals?
Sol: Transition metals form large number of interstitial compounds. They are able to entrap small atoms of elements like H, G, N, B, etc., in their crystal lattice and even can make weak bonds with them.
Due to formation of interstitial compounds, their malleability and ductility decreases and tensile . strength increases. Steel and cast iron are hard in comparison to wrought iron due to the presence of trapped carbon atoms in interstitial spaces.

8.13. How is the variability in oxidation states of transition metals different from that of the non-transition metals? Illustrate with examples.
Sol: The transition metals show a number of variable oxidation states due to the participation of (n – 1) d electrons in addition to ns electrons in the bond formation. They therefore, exhibit a large number of variable oxidation states. On the other hand, the non-transition metals generally belonging to s-block do not show variable oxidation states because by the loss of valence s-electrons, they acquire the configuration of the nearest noble gas elements.

In the p-block the lower oxidation states are favoured by the heavier members (due to inert pair effect), the opposite is true in the groups of d-block. For example, in group 6, Mo(VI) and W(VI) are found to be more stable than Cr(VI). Thus Cr(VI) in the form of dichromate in acidic medium is a strong oxidising agent, whereas MoO3 and WO3 are not.

8.14. Describe the preparation of potassium dichromate from iron chromite ore. What is the effect of increasing pH on a solution of potassium dichromate?
Sol: Potassium dichromate is prepared from chromate, which in turn is obtained by the fusion of chromite ore (FeCr2O3) with sodium or potassium carbonate in free excess of air. The reaction with sodium carbonate occurs as follows:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-1
The yellow solution of sodium chromate is filtered and acidified with sulphuric acid to give a solution from which orange sodium dichromate, Na2Cr,07.2H20 can be crystallised.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-2
Sodium dichromate is more soluble than potassium dichromate. The latter is therefore, prepared by treating the solution of sodium dichromate with potassium chloride.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-3
Orange crystals of potassium dichromate crystallise out. The chromates and dichromates depending upon pH of the solution. If pH of potassium dichromate is increased it is converted to yellow potassium chromate.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-4

8.15. Describe the oxidising action of potassium dichromate and write the ionic equations for its reaction with:
(i)iodide
(ii)iron (II) solution and
(iii)H2S
Sol: K2Gr207is a powerful oxidising agent. In dilute sulphuric acid medium the oxidation state of Cr changes from+6 to + 3. The oxidising action can be represented as follows:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-5

8.16. Describe the preparation of potassium permanganate. How does the acidified permanganate solution react with (i) iron (II) ions (ii) S02 and (iii) oxalic acid? Write the ionic, equations for the reactions.
Sol: Potassium permanganate (KMn04) is prepared by the fusion of a mixture of pyrolusite (Mn02),potassiufn hydroxide and oxygen, first green coloured potassium manganate is formed. 2MnO2 + 4KOH + 02 —> 2K2Mn04+2H20 The potassium manganate is extracted by water, which then undergoes disproportionation in neutral or acidic solution to give potassium permanganate.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-6

8.17. For M2+/M and M3+/M2+ systems the E° values
for some metals are as follows:
Cr2+/Cr   –> -0.9 V
Mn2+/Mn  –> -1.2V
Fe2+/Fe     –> -0.4 V
Cr3+/Cr2+  –> -0.4 V
Mn3+/Mn2+   –>+ 1.5V
Fe3+/Fe2+   –>+ 0.8V
(ii)the ease with which iron can be oxidised as compared to a similar process for either chromium or manganese metal.
Sol: (i) Cr3+/Cr2+ has negative reduction potential. Hence, Cr3+ cannot be reduced to Cr2+. Mn3+/Mn2+ has a large positive reduction potential. Hence, Mn3+ can be easily reduced to Mn2+. Fe3+/Fe2+ has small positive reduction potential. Hence, Fe3+ is more stable than Mn3+ but less stable than Cr3+.
(ii)From the E° values, the order of oxidation of the metal to the divalent cation is : Mn > Cr > Fe.

8.18. Predict which of the following will be coloured in aqueous solution?
Ti3+, V3+, Cu+, Sc3+, Mn2+, Fe3+, Co2+.
Sol: Only those ions will be coloured which have incomplete d-orbitals. The ions with either empty or filled d-orbitals are colourless. Keeping this in view, the coloured ions among the given list are :
Ti3+(3d1), V3+(3d2), Mn2+(3d5), Fe3+(3d5), Co2+ (3d7)
Sc3+ (3d°) and Cu+ (3d10) ions are colourless.

8.19. Compare the stability of +2 oxidation state for the elements of the first transition series.
Sol: In general, the stability of +2 oxidation state in first transition series decreases from left to right due to increase in the sum of first and second ionisation energies. However Mn2+ is more stable due to half filled d-orbitals (3d5) and Zn2+ is more stable due to completely filled d-orbitals (3d10).

8.20. Compare the chemistry of actinoids with that of the lanthanoids with special reference to
(i)electronic configuration,
(ii)atomic and ionic sizes and
(iii)oxidation state
(iv)chemical reactivity.
Sol: (i) Electronic configuration: The general electronic configuration of lanthanoids is [Xe]54 4f1-14 5d0-1  6s2 and that of actinoids is [Rn]86 5f0-14 6d0-1  7s2, lanthanoids . belong to 4 f series whereas actinoids belong to 5f-series.
(ii) Atomic and ionic sizes: Both lanthanoids and actinoids show decrease in size of their atoms or ions in + 3 oxidation state as we go from left to right. In lanthanoids, the decrease is called lanthanoid contraction whereas in actinoids, it is called actinoid contraction. The contratibn is greater from element to element in actinodes due to poorer shielding by 5f electrons.
(iii)Oxidation state: Lanthanoids show limited oxidation states (+ 2, + 3, + 4) out of which + 3 is most common whereas actinoids show +3, +4, +5, +6, +7 oxidation states.This is because of large energy gap between 4f 5d and 6s orbitals. However, actinoids show a large number of oxidation states because of small energy ap- between 5f 6d and Is orbitals.
(iv) Chemical reactivity: The earlier members
of the lanthanoids series are quite reactive similar to calcium but, with increase in atomic number, they behave more like aluminium. The metals combine with hydrogen when . gently heated in the gas. Carbides, Ln3C, Ln2C3 and LnC2 are formed when the metals are heated with carbon. They liberate hydrogen from dilute acid and burn in halogens to form halides. They form oxides M203 and hydroxides M(OH)3.
Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided. The action of boiling water on them gives a mixture of oxide and hydride and combination with most non-metals take place at moderate temperatures. HCl attacks all metals but most are slightly affected by nitric acid owing to the formation of protective oxide layers, alkalis have no action. Actinoids are more reactive than lanthanoids due to bigger atomic size and lower ionisation energy.

8.21. How would you account for the following:
(i) Of the d4 species, Cr2+ is strongly reducing while manganese (III) is strongly oxidizing.
(ii) Cobalt (II) is stable in aqueous solution but in the presence of complexing reagents it is easily oxidised.
(iii) The dconfiguration is very unstable in ions.
Sol: (i) E° value for Cr3+/Cr2+ is negative (-0-41 V) whereas E° values for Mn3+/Mn2+is positive (+1.57 V). Hence, Cr2+ ion can easily undergo oxidation to give Cr3+ ion and, therefore, act as strong reducing agent whereas Mn3+ can easily undergo’ reduction to give Mn2+ and hence act as an oxidizing agent.
(ii) Co (III) has .greater tendency to form coordination complexes than Co (II). Hence, in the presence of ligands, Co (II) changes to Co (III), i.e., is easily oxidized.
(iii) The ions with dx configuration have the tendency to lose the only electron present in d-subshell to acquire stable d° configuration. Hence, they are unstable and undergo oxidation or disproportionation.

8.22. What is meant by disproportionation? Give two examples of disproportionation reaction in aqueous solution
Sol: Disproportionation reactions are those in which the same substance undergoes oxidation as well as reduction, i.e., oxidation number of an element increases as well as decreases to form two different products.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-7

8.23. Which metal in the first transition metal series exhibits +1 oxidation state most frequently and why?
Sol: Cu with configuration [Ar] 4s13d10 exhibits +1 oxidation state and forms Cu+ ion because by losing one electron, the cation or positive ion acquires a stable configuration of d-orbitals (3d10).

8.24. Calculate the number of unpaired electrons in the following gaseous ions : Mn3+, Cr3+, V3+ and Ti3+. Which one of these is the most stable in aqueous solution.
Sol: Mn3+ = 3d1 = 4 unpaired electrons, Cr3+ = 3d3 = 3 electrons,V3+ = 3d2 = 2 electrons, Ti3+=3d1 = l electron.Out of these, Cr3+ is most stable in aqueous solution because of half-filled t2g level.

8.25. Give examples and suggest reasons for the following features of the transition metal chemistry:
(i) The lowest oxide of transition metal is basic the highest is amphoteric/ acidic.
(ii) A transition metal exhibits highest oxidation state ih oxides and fluorides.
(iii) The highest oxidation state is exhibited in oxoanions of a metal.
Sol: (i) The lower oxide of transition metal is basic because the metal atom has low oxidation state whereas higher once are acidic due to high oxidation state. For example, MnO is basic whereas Mn2O7is acidic. Oxides in lower oxidation state are ionic hence basic. Oxides in higher oxidation state are covalent hence acidic
(ii) A transition metal exhibits higher oxidation states in oxides and fluorides because oxygen and fluorine are highly electronegative elements, small in size and strongest oxidising agents. For example, osmium shows an oxidation states of + 6 in O5F6and vanadium shows an oxidation states of + 5 in V2O5.
(iii) Oxo metal anions have highest oxidation state, e.g., Cr in Cr2072- has an. oxidation state of + 6 whereas Mn in Mn04 has an oxidation state of + 7. This is again due to the combination of the metal with oxygen, which is highly electronegative and oxidizing agent.

8.26. Indicate the steps in the preparation of:
(i)K2Cr207from chromite ore
(ii)KMn04 from pyrolusite ore.
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-8

8.27. What are alloys? Name an alloy which contains some lanthanoid metals. Mention its uses.
Sol: An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of different metals or metals and non-metals.
Misch metal is an alloy of cerium (Ce). lanthanum (La), neodymium (Nd), iron (Fe) and traces of carbon, sulphur, aluminium etc. It is used in making parts of jet engines.

8.28. What are inner transition elements? Decide which of the following atomic numbers are the atomic numbers of the inner transition elements: 29,59,74,95,102,104.
Sol: The f-block elements in which the. last electron enters into f-sub shell-are called inner-transition elements. These include lanthanoids (Z=58 to 71) and actinoids (Z=90 to 103). Thus, the elements with atomic numbers 59,95 and 102 are the? inner transition elements.

8.29. The chemistry of the actinoid elements is not so smooth as that of the lanthanoids. Justify this statement by giving some examples from the oxidation state of these elements.
Sol: Lanthanoids show limited number of oxidation state, viz, + 2, + 3 and + 4 (out of which + 3 is most common). This is because of large energy gap between 4f 5d and 6s subshells. The dominant oxidation state of actinoids is also + 3 but they show a number of other oxidation states also. For example, uranium (Z=92) and plutonium (Z – 94), show + 3, + 4, + 5 and + 6, neptunium (Z = 94) shows + 3, +4, + 5 and + 7, etc. This is because of the small energy difference between. 5f, 6d and 7s orbitals of the actinoids.

8.30. Which is the last element in the series of the actinoids? Write the electronic configuration of this element. Comment on the possible oxidation state of this element
Sol: Last actinoid=Lawrencium (Z = 103)
Electronic configuration = [Rn]86 5f14 6d1 7s2 Possible oxidation state = + 3.

8.31 Use Hund’s rule to derive the electronic configuration of Ce3+ ion, and calculate its magnetic moment on the basis of ‘spin-only’ formula.
Sol.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-9

8.32. Name the members of the lanthanoid series which exhibit +4 oxidation state and those which exhibit +2 oxidation state. Try to co-relate this type of behaviour with the electronic configuration of these elements.
Sol: +4 oxidation state : 58Ce, 59Pr, 65Tb
+ 2 oxidation state : 60Nd, 62Sm, 63Eu, 69Tm, 70Yb.
In general +2 oxidation state is exhibited by the elements with configuration 5d06s2 so that two electrons may be easily lost. Similarly +4 oxidation state is shown by the elements which after losing four electrons acquire configuration either close to 4f0 or 4f7.

8.33. Compare the chemistry of actinoids with that of lanthanoids with reference to:
(i)Electronic configuration
(ii)Oxidation states
(iii)Chemical reactivity
Sol: (i)Electronic configuration : In lanthanoids 4f- orbitals are progressively filled whereas in actinoids 5f-orbitals are progressively filled.
(ii)Oxidation states : Lanthanoids shows +3 oxidation state. Some elements shows +2 and +4 oxidation state also. Actinoids shows +3, +4, +5 +6, +7 oxidation states. Although +3 and +4 are most common.
(iii)Chemical reactivity : Actinoids are more reactive than lanthanoids due to bigger atomic size and lower ionisation energy.

8.34. Write the electronic configurations of the elements with the atomic numbers 61,91,101 and 109.
Sol: Z=61 (Promethium, Pm) [Xe]544f55d0 6s2
Z = 91 (Protactinium, Pa) => [Rn]86 5f2 6d1 7s2
Z = 101 (Mendelevium, Md)=> [Rn]86 5f13 6d0 7s2
Z = 109 (Meitnerium, Mt) [Rn]86 5f14 6d7 7s2

8.35. Com pare the general characteristics of the first series of the transition metals with those of the second and third series metals in the respective vertical columns. Give special emphasis on the following points:
(i)electronic configurations
(ii)oxidation states
(iii)ionisation enthalpies and
(iv)atomic sizes
Sol: (i) Electronic configuration: The elements in the same vertical column generally have similar electronic configuration. First transition series shows only two exceptions, i.e., Cr = 3d5  4s1  and Cu = 3d10 4s1. But second transition series shows more exceptions, i.e., Y = 4d1 5s2, Nb = 4d1 , 5s1 , Mo=4d5  5s1 , Ru=4d1  5s1 , Rh=4d8  5s1 , Pd , =4d10 5s°, Ag=4d10 5s1 . In third transition, there are two exceptions, i.e„ Pt = 5d9  6s1  and Au = 5d10 6s1 .
Thus in the same vertical column, in a number of cases, the electronic configuration of the elements of three series are not similar.
(ii) Oxidation states: The elements in the same vertical column generally show similar oxidation states. The number of oxidation states shown by the elements in the middle of each series is maximum and minimum at the extreme ends.
(iii)Ionization enthalpies: The first ionization enthalpies in each series generally increases gradually as we more from left to right though some exceptions are observed in each series. The first ionization enthalpies of some elements in the second (4d) series are higher while some of them have lower value than the elements of 3d series in the same vertical column. However, the first ionization enthalpies of third (5d) series are higher than those of 3d and Ad series. This is because of weak shielding of nucleus by 4f-electrons in the 5d series.
(iv)Atomic sizes: In general, ions of the same charge or atoms in a given series show progressively decrease in radius with increasing atomic number though the decrease is quite small. But the size of the atoms of the Ad series is larger then the corresponding elements of the 3d series whereas size of elements of the 5d-series nearly the same as those of Ad series because of lanthanoid contraction.

8.36. Write down the number of 3d electrons in each of the following ions:Ti2+, V2+, Cr3+, Mn2+, Fe2+, Fe2+, Co2+, Ni2+ and Cu2+. Indicate how would you expect the five 3d orbitals to be occupied for these hydrated ions (octahedral).
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-10

8.37. Comment on the statement that elements of first transition series possess many properties different from those of the heavier transition elements.
Sol: The heavier transition elements belong to fourth (Ad) and fifth (5d) and sixth (6d) transition series. Their properties are expected to be different from the elements belonging to the first (3d) series due to the following reasons :
(i) The atomic radii of the elements belonging to Ad and 5d series are more due to greater number of electron shells. However, the difference in Ad and 5d transition elements are comparatively less because of lanthanoid contraction.
(ii) Because of stronger inter atomic bonding, the m.p. and b.p. of the elements of Ad and 5d series are higher.
(iii) Ionisation enthalpies are expected to decrease as we move from one series to the other. However, the values for the elements of 5d series are higher as compared to the elements belonging to the other two series due to lanthanoid contraction.
Actually atomic size decreases on account of it and effective nuclear charge increases. As a result, there is an increase in ionisation energy in case of 3d elements.

8.38. What can be inferred from the magnetic moment values of the following complex species?
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-11
Sol:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-12
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d and f Block Elements-13

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds:

Section Name Topic Name
9 Coordination Compounds
9.1 Werner’s Theory of Coordination Compounds
9.2 Definitions of Some Important Terms Pertaining to Coordination Compounds
9.3 Nomenclature of Coordination Compounds
9.4 Isomerism in Coordination Compounds
9.5 Bonding in Coordination Compounds
9.6 Bonding in Metal Carbonyls
9.7 Stability of Coordination Compounds
9.8 Importance and Applications of Coordination Compounds

NCERT Solutions CBSE Sample Papers ChemistryClass 12 Chemistry

NCERT INTEXT QUESTIONS

9.1. Write the formulas for the following coordination compounds:
(i)Tetraamminediaquacobalt(IlI) chloride
(ii)Potassium tetracyanidonickelate(II)
(iii)Tris(ethanp-1,2-diamine) chromium(III) chloride
(iv)Amminebromidochloridonitrito-N- platinatc(II)
(v)Dichloridobis(ethane-l ,2-diamine) platinum (IV) nitrate
(vi)Iron(III)hexacyanidoferrate(II)
Ans: (i) [CO(NH3)4(H2O)2]Cl3.
(ii)K2[Ni(CN)4]
(iii)[Cr(en)3]Cl3
(iv)[Pt (NH3) Br Cl (N02)]
(v)[PtCl2(en)2](N03)2
(vi)Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3

9.2. Write IUPAC names of following co-ordination compounds :
(a) [CO(NH3)6]Cl3
(b) [CO(NH3)Cl]Cl2
(C) K3[Fe(CN)6]
(d) [K3[Fe(C2O4)3]
(e) K2[PdCl4]
(f) [Pt(NH3)2ClNH2CH3]Cl. (C. B. S. E. Delhi2013)
Ans:
(a) hexaamminecobalt (III) chloride
(b) pentaamminechloridocobalt (III) chloride
(c) potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)
(d) potassium trioxalatoferrate (III)
(e) potassium tetrachloridoplatinum (II)
(f) diamminechlorido (methylamine) platinum(II) chloride.

9.3. Indicate the types of isomerism exhibited by the . . following complexes and draw the structures for these isomers:
(i)K[Cr(H2O)2(C2O4)2]
(ii)[CO(en)3]Cl3
(iii)[CO(NH3)5(NO2)(NO3)2], .
(iv)[Pt(NH3)(H2O)Cl2]
Ans: (i)(a) geometrical isomerism (cis and tram)
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-1
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-2
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-3

9.4. Give evidence that [Co(NH3)5Cl]S0and [Co(NH3)5S04]Cl  are ionisation isomers.
Ans: When dissolved in water, they give different ions in solution which can be tested by adding AgN03 solution and BaCl2 solution, i.e.,
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-4

9.5. Explain on the basis of valence bond theory that [Ni(CN)4]2- ion with square planar structure is diamagnetic and [NiCl4]2- ion with tetrahedral geometry is paramagnetic. (Rajasthan Board 2012)
Ans: Outer electronic configuration of nickel (Z = 28) in ground state is 3d84s2. Nickel in this complex is in + 2 oxidation state. It achieves + 2 oxidation state by the loss of the two 4s-electrons. The resulting Ni2+ ion has outer electronic configuration of 3d8. Since CN ion is a strong field, under its attacking influence, two unpaired electrons in the 3d orbitals pair up.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 6
Outer electronic configuration of nickel (Z = 28) in ground state is 3d84s2 Nickel in this complex is in + 2 oxidation state. Nickel achieves + 2 oxidation state by the loss of two 4s-electrons. The resulting Ni2+ ion has outer electronic configuration of 3d8. Since CP ion is a weak field ligand, it is not in a position to cause electron pairing.
byjus class 12 chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 7

9.6. [NiCl4]2- is paramagnetic while [Ni(CO)4] is diamagnetic though both are tetrahedraL Why?
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-7

9.7. [Fe(H2O)6]3+is strongly paramagnetic whereas [Fe(CN)6]3-is weakly paramagnetic. Explain.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-8
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-9

9.8. Explain[CO(NH3)6]2+ is an inner orbital complex.whereas [Ni(NH3)6]2+ is an outer orbital complex.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-10

9.9. Predict the number of unpaired electrons in the square planar [Pt(CN)4]2- ion.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-11

9.10. The hexaaquamanganese (II) ion contains five unpaired electrons while the hexacyano ion contains only one unpaired electron. Explain using crystal field theory.
Ans: Mn(II) ion has 3d5 configuration. In the presence of H2O molecules acting as weak field ligands, the distribution of these five electrons is \({ t }_{ 2 }^{ 3 }\)ge2 i. e., all the electrons remain unpaired to form a high spin complex. However, in the presence of CN acting as strong field ligands, the distribution of these electrons is \({ t }_{ 2g }^{ 5 }{ e }_{ g }^{ 0 }\) i.e., two t2g orbitals contain paired electrons while the third t2g orbital contains one unpaired electron. The complex formed is a low spin complex.

9.11. Calculate the overall complex dissociation equilibrium constant for the Cu(NH3)42+ ion, given that β4 for this complex is 2.1 x 1013.
Ans: Overall stability constant (β4) = 2.1 x 1013.
Thus, the overall dissociation constant is
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-14

NCERT EXRECISES

9.1. Explain the bonding in coordination compounds in terms of Werner’s postulates.
Ans: The main postulates of Werner’s theory of coordination compounds are as follows:
(a)Metals possess two types of valencies called
(i) primary valency which are ionisable; (ii) secondary valency which are non- ionisable
(b)Primary valency is satisfied by the negative ions and it is that which a metal exhibits in the formation of its simple salts.
(c)Secondary valencies are satisfied by neutral ligand or negative ligand and are those which metal exercises in the formation of its complex ions. Every cation has a fixed number of secondary valencies which are directed in space about central metal ion in certain fixed directions, e.g„ In CoCl3-6NH3, valencies between Co and Cl are primary valencies and valencies between Co and NH3 are secondary. In COCl3-6NH3 , six ammonia molecules linked to Co by secondary valencies are directed to six corners of a regular octahedron and thus account for structure of COCl3-6NH3 as follows:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-1
In modern theory, it is now referred as coordination number of central metal atom or ion.

9.2. FeSO4 solution mixed with (NH4)2SO4 solution in 1 : 1 molar ratio gives the test of Fe2+ ion but CuSO4 solution mixed with aqueous ammonia in 1 : 4 molar ratio does not give the test of Cu2+ ion. Explain why?
Ans: When FeSO4 and (NH4)2SO4 solutions are mixed in 1 : 1 molar ratio, a double salt known as Mohr’s salt is formed. It has the formula FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O. In aqueous solution, the salt dissociates as :
byjus class 12 chemistryy Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 12
The solution gives the tests for all the ions including Fe2+ ions. On the other hand, when CuSO4 and NH3 are mixed in the molar ratio of 1 : 4 in solution, a complex [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 is formed. Since the Cu2+ ions are a part of the complex entity (enclosed in square bracket), it will not give their characteristic tests as are given by Fe2+ ions.

9.3. Explain with two examples each of the following: coordination entity, ligand, coordination number, coordination polyhedron, homoleptic and heteroleptic.
Ans: Coordination entity: It constitutes of a central atom/ion bonded to fixed number of ions or molecules by coordinate bonds e.g. [COCl3(NH3)3], [Ni (CO)4] etc.
Ligand : The ions/molecules bound to central atom/ion in coordination entity are called ligands. Ligands in above examples are CL, NH3, CO Coordination number : This is the number of bond formed by central atom/ion with ligands. Coordination polyhedron : Spatial arrangement of ligands defining the shape of complex. In above cases Co and Ni polyhedron are octahedral and tetrahedral in [CoCl3 (NH3)3] and [Ni(CO)4] respectively.
Homoleptic : Metal is bound to only one kind of ligands eg Ni in[Ni(CO)4]
Heteroletric Metal is bound to more than one kind of ligandseg Coin [CoCl3(NH3)3]

9.4. What is meant by unidentate didentate and ambidentate ligands? Give two examples for each.
Ans: A molecule or an ion which has only one donor atom to form one coordinate bond with the central metal atom is called unidentate ligand, e.g,, Cl- and NH3.
A molecule or ion which contains two donor atoms and hence forms two coordinate bonds with the central metal atom is called adidentate
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-2
A molecule or an ion which contains two donor atoms but only one of them forms a coordinate bond at a time with the central metal atom is called
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-3

9.5. Specify the oxidation numbers of the metals in the following coordination entities:
(i) [Co(H2O)(CN)(en)2]2+ (ii) [CoBr2(en)2]+ (iii) [PtCl4]2- (iv) K3[Fe(CN)6] (v) [Cr(NH3)3CI3]
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-4

9.6. Using IUPAC norms, write the formulae for the following : (C.B.S.E. Foreign 2015)
(a) tetrahydroxozincate(II)
(b) hexaammineplatinum (TV)
(c) potassiumtetrachloridopalladate(II)
(d) tetrabromidocuprate (II)
(e) hexaaminecobalt(III) sulphate
(f) potassiumtetracyanonicklate (II)
(g) potassiumtrioxalatochromate(III)
(h) pentaamminenitrito-O-cobalt(III)
(i) diamminedichloridoplatinum(II)
(j) pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt (III). (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2012)
Ans: (a) [Zn(OH)4]2-
(b) [Pt(NH3)6]4+
(c) K2[PdCl4]
(d) [Cu(Br)4]2-
(e) [CO(NH3)6]2 (SO4)3
(f) K2[Ni(CN)4]
(g) K3 [Cr(OX)3]
(h) [CO(NH3)5ONO]2+
(i) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(j) [CO(NH3)5NO2]2+.

9.7. Using IUPAC norms write the systematic names of the following:
(i) [Co(NH3)6]CI3,
(ii)[Pt(NH3)2CI (NH2CH3)] Cl
(iii) [Ti(H20)6]3+
(iv) [Co(NH3)4Cl(N02)]CI
(v)|Mn(H20)6]2+
(vi)[NiCl4]2-
(vii)[Ni(NH3)6]CI2
(viii)[Co(en)3]3+
(ix) [Ni(CO)4]
Ans: (i) Hexaammine cobalt (III) chloride.
(ii) Diammine chlorido (methylamine) platinum (II) chloride.
(iii) Hexaaquatitanium (III) ion.
(iv) Tetraammine chlorido nitrito-N-cobalt (IV) chloride.
(v)Hexaaquamanganese (II) ion.
(vi)Tetrachloridonickelate (II) ion.
(vii)Hexaammine nickel (II) chloride.
(viii)Tris (ethane -1,2-diamine) cobalt (III) ion.
(ix) Tetra carbonyl nickel (0).

9.8. List various types of isomerism possible for coordination compounds, giving an example of each.
Ans: Coordination compounds exhibit stereo isomerism and structural isomerism.
Two types of stereoisomerism and their examples are as follows.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-5

9.9. How many geometrical isomers are possible in . the following coordination entities?
(i) [Cr(C2O4)3]3- (ii) [CoCl3(NH3)3]
Ans: (i) [Cr(C2O4)3]3- => No geometrical isomers
are possible in this coordination entity.
(ii) [Co(NH3)3 Cl3] => Two geometrical isomers are possible (fac and mer) in this coordination entity.

9.10. Draw the structures of optical isomers of
(i) [Cr(C2O4)3]3-
(ii)[PtCI2(en)2]2+
(iii)[Cr(NH3)2CI2(en)]+
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-6
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-7

9.11. Draw all the isomers (geometrical and optical) of
(i)[CoCl2(en)2]+
(ii)[Co(NH3) Cl (en)2]2+
(iii) [Co(NH3)2Cl2(en)]+
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-8

9.12. Write all the geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH3)(Br)(Cl) (Py)] and how many of these will exhibit optical isomerism?
Ans: Three isomers of[Pt(NH3)(Br)(Cl)(Py)] are possible.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-9
These are obtained by keeping the position of one of the ligand, say NH3 fixed and rotating the positions of others. This type of isomers do not show any optical isomerism. Optical isomerism only rarely occurs in square planar or tetrahedral complexes and that too when they contain unsymmetrical chelating ligand.

9.13.  Aqueous copper sulphate solution (blue in colour) gives: (i) a green precipitate with aqueous potassium fluoride and (ii)a bright green solution with aqueous potassium chloride. Explain these experimental results.
Ans: Aqueous CuS04 solution exists as [Cu(H20)4]S04 which has blue colour due to [Cu(H20)4]2+ ions.
(i) When KF is added, the weak H20 ligands are replaced by F ligands forming [CUF4]2- ions which is a green precipitate.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-10
(ii)When KCl is added, Cl ligands replace the weak H20 ligands forming [CuCl4]2- ion which has bright green colour.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-11

9.14. What is the coordination entity formed when excess of aqueons KCN is added to an aqueous solution of copper sulphate? Why is it that no precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained when H2S (g) is passed through this solution?
Ans: First cupric cyanide is formed which decomposes to give cuprous cyanide and cyanogen gas. Cuprous cyanide dissolves in excess of potassium cyanide to form the complex, K3[Cu(CN)4],
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-12
Thus, coordination entity formed in the above reaction is [Cu(CN)4]3-. As CN is a strong ligand, the complex ion is highly stable and does not dissociate/ionize to give Cu2+ ions. Hence, no precipitate,with H2S is formed.

9.15.  Discuss the nature of bonding in the following coordination entities on the basis of valence bond theory:
(i) [Fe(CN)6]4-
(ii) [FeF6]3-
(iii) [Co(C2O4)3]3-
(iv) [CoF6]3-
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-13
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-14

9.16. Draw figure to show the splitting of d-orbitals in an octahedral crystal field.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-15

9.17. What is spectrochemical series? Explain the difference between a weak field ligand and a strong field ligand.
Ans: The crystal field splitting, ∆0, depends upon the field produced by the ligand and charge on the metal ion. Some ligands are able to produce strong fields in which, the splitting will be large whereas others produce weak fields and consequently result in small splitting of d-orbitals. In general, ligands can be arranged in a series in the order of increasing field strength as given below :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds 28

9.18. What is crystal field splitting energy? How does the magnitude of Δ0 decide the actual configuration of d-orbitals in a coordination entity?
Ans: When the ligands approach a transition metal ion, the d-orbitals split into two sets, one with lower energy and the other with higher energy. The difference of energy between the two sets of orbitals is called crystal field splitting energy (Δ0 for octahedral field). If Δ0 < P (pairing energy), the fourth electron enters
one of the e°g, orbitals giving the configuration t32ge1g, thus forming high spin complexes. Such ligands for which Δ0 < P are called weak field ligands. If Δ0 > P, the fourth electron pairs up in one of the t2g orbitals giving the configuration t42ge1g thereby forming low spin complexes. Such ligands for which Δ0> P are called strong field ligands.

9.19. [Cr(NH3)6]3+ is paramagnetic while [Ni(CN)4]2- is diamagnetic. Explain why?
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-16

9.20. A solution of [Ni(H20)6]2+ is green but a solution of [Ni(CN)4]2-is colourless. Explain.
Ans: In [Ni(H20)6]2+, Ni is in + 2 oxidation state and having 3d8 electronic configuration, in which there are two unpaired electrons which do not pair in the presence of the weak H20 ligand. Hence, it is coloured. The d-d transition absorbs red light and the complementary light emitted is green.
In [Ni(CN)4]2- Ni is also in + 2 oxidation state and having 3d8 electronic configuration. But in presence of strong ligand CN the two unpaired electrons in the 3d orbitals pair up. Thus, there is no unpaired electron present. Hence, it is colourless.

9.21. [Fe(CN)6]4- and [Fe(H2O)6]2+ are of different colours in dilute solutions. Why?
Ans: In both the complexes, Fe is in + 2 oxidation state with d6 configuration. This means that it has four unpaired electrons.Both CN ion and H2O molecules which act as ligands occupy different relative positions in the spectrochemical series. They differ in crystal field splitting energy (∆0). Quite obviously, they absorb radiations corresponding to different wavelengths/frequencies from the visible region of light. (VIBGYOR) and the transmitted colours are also different. This means that the complexes have different colours in solutions.

9.22. Discuss the nature of bonding in metal carbonyls.
Ans: In metal carbonyl, the metal carbon bond (M – C) possess both the σ and π -bond character. The bond are formed by overlap of atomic orbital of metal with that of C-atom of carbon monoxide in following sequence:
(a)σ -bond is first formed between metal and carbon when a vacant d-orbital of metal atom overlaps with an orbital containing lone pair of electrons on C-atom of carbon monoxide (: C = O:)
(b)In addition to σ -bond in metal carbonyl, the electrons from filled d-orbitals of a transition metal atom/ ion are back donated into anti bonding π-orbitals of carbon monoxide. This stabilises the metal ligand bonding. The above two concepts are shown in following figure:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-17

9.23. Give the oxidation state, d-orbital occupation and coordination number of the central metal ion in the following complexes:
(i)K3[CO(C2O4)3I (ii) cis-[Cr(en)2Cl2]Cl (iii) (NH4)2[CoF4] (iv) [Mn(H20)6]SO4
Ans: (i) K3[Co(C2O4)3] =>[CO(C204)3]3-. x + 3 (-2) = -3 . Oxidation state, x=+3 Coordination number is also 6 as C2042- is didentate. Co+3 is a case in which all electrons are paired
(ii) cis – [Cr(en)2Cl2]+ Cl
x + 0—2 =+1
Oxidation state, x =+3
Coordination number is 6 as ‘en’ is didentate. Cr3+ is a cfi case, paramagnetic.
(iii) (NH4)2[COF4] = (NH4)22+[COF4]2-
x —4 =—2.
Oxidation state, x = + 2
Coordination number=4.
Co2+ is a d5 case, paramagnetic
(iv)[Mn(H20)6]2+S042-
x+0f+2
.•. Oxidation state, x- + 2
Coordination number is 6.
Mn+2 is a dcase, paramagnetic

9.24. Write down the IUPAC name for each of the following complexes and indicate the oxidation state, electronic configuration and coordination number. Also give stereochemistry and magnetic moment of the complex:
(i) K[Cr(H20)2(C204)2|-3H20 (ii) [Co(NH3)5CIlCl2 (iii) CrCI3(Py)3
(iv)Cs[FeCl4] (v)K4|Mn(CN)6|
Ans: (i) K[Cr(H20)2(C204)2|-3H20 IUPAC name is potassiumdiaquadioxalatochromate (III) hydrate.
Coordination number = 6
Oxidation state of Cr: x + 0 + 2 (-2) = – 1
.‘. x = + 3
Shape is octahedral Electronic configuration of Cr3+ = 3d3=t32gg .
Magnetic moment,
\(\mu =\sqrt { n(n+2 } =\sqrt { 3×5 } =\sqrt { 15 } BM\)
= 3-87 BM
(ii) [Co(NH3)5CIlCl2IUPAC name is pentaamminechloridocobalt (III) chloride Coordination number of Co = 6 Shape is octahedral.
Oxidation state of Co, x + 0 -1 = + 2 .’. x = + 3
Electronic configuration of Co3+ = 3d6 = t62gg   n=0, μ =0 .
(iii) CrCI3(Py)3. IUPAC name is
trichloridotripyridine chromium (III).
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-18

9.25. What is meant by stability of a coordination compound in solution? State the factors which govern stability of complexes.
Ans: Formation of a complex in solution is an equilibrium reaction. It may be represented as
\(M+4L\rightleftharpoons M{ \quad L }_{ 4 }\)
The equilibrium constant of this reaction is the measure of stability of the complex. Hence the equilibrium constant is also called as stability constant or Instability constant may be defined as equilibrium constant for reverse reaction. The formation of above complex may also be written in successive steps:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-19
Stability constant is written as
β4=K1K2K3K4.
Greater the stability constant, stronger is the metal-ligand bond.
The stability of complex will depend on
(a)nature of metal
(b)Oxidation state of metal
(c)Nature of ligand e g. chelating ligand form stabler complexes
(d)Greater the basic strength of the ligand, more will be the stability.

9.26. What is meant by the chelate effect? Give an example.
Ans: When a didentate or a polydentate ligand contains donor atoms positioned in such a way that when they coordinate with the central metal ion, a five or a six membered ring is formed, the effect is called chelate effect. For example,
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-20

9.27. Discuss briefly giving an example in each case the role of coordination compounds in :
(a) biological systems,
(b) analytical chemistry,
(c) medicinal chemistry, and
(d) extraction/metallurgy of metals.
Ans:
(i) Coordination compounds are of great importance in biological systems. The pigment responsible for photosynthesis, chlorophyll, is a coordination compound of magnesium. Haemoglobin, the red pigment 1 of blood which acts as oxygen carrier is a coordination compound of iron. Vitamin B12, cyanocobalamine, the anti- pernicious anaemia factor, is a coordination compound of cobalt. Among the other compounds of biological importance with coordinated metal ions are the enzymes like, carboxypeptidase A and carbonic anhydrase (catalysts of biological systems).

(ii) There is growing Interest in the use of chelate therapy in medicinal chemistry. An example is the treatment of problems caused by the presence of metals in toxic proportions in plant/animal systems. Thus, excess of copper and iron are removed by the chelating ligands D-penicillamine and desferrioxime B via the formation of coordination compounds.

EDTA is used in the treatment of lead poisoning. Some coordination compounds of platinum effectively inhibit the growth of tumours. Examples are: ds-platin and related compounds.

(iii) Coordination compounds find use in many qualitative and quantitative chemical analysis. The familiar colour reactions given by metal ions with a number of ligands (especially chelating ligands), as a result of formation of coordination entities, form the basis for their detection and estimation by classical and instrumental methods of analysis. Examples of such reagents include EDTA, DMG (dimethylglyoxime), a-nitroso- β-naphthol, cupron, etc.

(iv) Some important extraction processes of metals, like those of silver and gold, make use of complex formation. Gold, for example, combines with cyanide in the presence of oxygen and water to form the coordination entity [Au(CN)2]- in aqueous solution. Gold can be separated in metallic form from this solution by the addition of zinc.

9.28. How many ions are produced from the complex Co(NH3)6Cl2 in solution?
(i) 6
(ii) 4
(iii)3
(iv)2
Ans: Coordination number of cobalt = 6
Hence, the complex is [Co (NH3)6] Cl2. It ionizes in the solution as follows :
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-21
Thus, three ions are produced. Hence, the correct option is (iii)

9.29. Amongst the following ions? Which one has the highest magnetic moment value:
(i) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
(ii) [Fe(H20)6]2+ (iii) [Zn(H20)6]2+
Ans: The oxidation states are: Cr (III), Fe (II) and Zn (II).
Electronic configuration of Cr3+ = 3d3, unpaired electron = 3
Electronic configuration of Fe2+ = 3d6, unpaired electron = 4
Electronic configuration ofZn2+ = 3d10, unpaired electrons = 0
\(\mu =\sqrt { n\quad (n+2) }\)
where V is number of unpaiared electrons Hence, (ii) has highest value of magnetic moment.

9.30. The oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)4] is
(i)+1
(ii)+3
(iii)-1
(iv)-3
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-22

9.31. Amongst the following, the most stable complex is:
(i) [Fe(H2O)6] (ii) [Fe(NH3)6]3+
(iii) [Fe(C2O4)3]3- (iv) [FeCl6]3-
Ans: In each of the given complex, Fe is in + 3 oxidation state. As C2042-is didentate chelating ligand, it forms chelate rings and hence (iii) out of complexes given above is the most stable complex.

9.32. What will be the correct order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the following:[Ni(NO2)6]4-, [Ni(NH3)6]2+, [Ni(H20)6]2+?
Ans: As metal ion is fixed, the increasing field strengths, i.e., the CFSE values of the ligands from the spectro-chemical series are in the order: H20<NH3< NO2;
Thus, the energies absorbed for excitation will be in the order:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds-23

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether:

Section Name Topic Name
11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
11.1 Classification
11.2 Nomenclature
11.3 Structures of Functional Groups
11.4 Alcohols and Phenols
11.5 Some Commercially Important Alcohols
11.6 Ethers

NCERT Solutions CBSE Sample Papers ChemistryClass 12 Chemistry

NCERT TEXTBOOK QUESTIONS SOLVED

11.1. Classify the following as primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-1
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-2
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-3
Ans: Primary alcohols: (i), (ii), (iii)
Secondary alcohols: (iv), (v)
Tertiary alcohols: (vi)

11.2. Identify aliylic alcohols in the above examples.
Ans: (ii) and (iv) i.e. H2C=CH – CH2OH and
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-4

11.3. Name the following compounds according to IUPAC system.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-5
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-6
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-7

11.4. Show how are the following alcohols prepared by the reaction of a suitable  Grignard reagent on methanal ?
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-8
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-9
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-10

11.5. Write structures of the products of the following reactions:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-11
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-12

11.6. Give structures of the products you would expect when each of the following alcohol reacts with (a)HCl-ZnCl2 (b)HBrand (c) SOCl2
(i)Butan-1-ol
(ii)2-Methylbutan-2-ol
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-13
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-25

11.7. Predict the major product of acid catalysed dehydration of
(i) 1-nicthylcyclohcxanoland
(ii) butan-1-ol
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-14

11.8. Ortho and para nitrophenols are more acidic than phenol. Draw the resonance structures of the corresponding phenoxide ions.
Ans:
The resonance structures of o-and p- nitrophenoxide ions and phenoxide ion are given below:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-15
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-16

11.9; Write the equations involved in the following reactions:
(i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(ii) Kolbe’s reaction
Ans: (i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-17

11.10. Write the reactions of Williamson synthesis of 2-ethoxy-3-methylpentane starting from ethanol and 3-methylpentan-2-ol.
Ans: In Williamsons’s synthesis, the alkyl halide should be primary. Thus, the alkyl halide should be derived from ethanol and the alkoxide ion from 3-methylpentan-2-ol. The synthesis is as follows
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-18
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-19

11.11. Which of the following is an appropriate set of reactants for the preparation of l-methoxy-4- nitrobenzene and why?
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-20
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-21

11.12. Predict the products of the following reactions:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-22
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-23

NCERT EXRECISES

11.1. Write IUPAC names of the following compounds:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-1
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-2
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-3
Ans: (i) 2,2,4-Trimethylpentan-3-ol
(ii) 5-Ethylheptane-2,4-dioI
(iii) Butane-2,3-diol
(iv) Propane-1,2,3-triol
(v) 2-Methylphenol
(vi) 4-Methylphenol
(vii) 2,5-DimethylphenoI
(viii) 2,6-Dimethylphenol
(ix) 1-Methoxy-2-methylpropane
(x) Ethoxybenzene
(xi) 1-Phenoxyheptane
(xii) 2-Ethoxybutane

11.2. Write structures of the compounds whose IUPAC names are as follows:
(i)2-Methylbutan-2-ol
(ii)l-Phcnylpropan-2-ol
(iii)3,5-DimethyIhexane-l,3,5-triol
(iv)2,3-Dicthylphenol
(v)1-Ethoxypropane
(vi)2-Ethoxy-3-methylpentane
(vii) Cyclohexylmethanol
(viii) 3-Cyclohexylpcntan-3-ol
(ix)Cyclopcnt-3-en-l-ol
(x)4-ChIoro-3-ethylbutan-l-ol
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-4
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-5

11. 3. (a) Draw the structural formulas and write IUPAC names of all the isomeric alkanols with the molecular formula CsH12O
(b) Classify the isomers of alcohols given in part (a) as primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols.

Ans:
(a) The molecular formula C5H120 represents eight isomeric alkanols. These are :
vedantu class 12 chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids E3

(b) Praimary: (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) ; Secondary :(v), (vi), (viii) ; Tertiary : (vii)

11.4. Explain why propanol has higher boiling point than that of the hydrocarbon, butane?
Ans: The molecules of butane are held together by weak van der Waal’s forces of attraction while those of propanol are held together by stronger intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-8

11.5. Alcohols are comparatively more soluble in water than hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses. Explain this fact.
Ans: Alcohols can form hydrogen bonds with water and by breaking the hydrogen bonds already existing between water molecules. Therefore, they are soluble in water.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-9
On die other hand, hydrocarbons cannot from hydrogen bonds with water and hence are insoluble in water.

11.6. What is meant by hydroboration-oxidation reaction? Illustrate it with an example.
Ans: The addition of diborane to alkenes to form trialkyl boranes followed by their oxidation with alkaline hydrogen peroxide to form alcohols is called hydroboration-oxidation. For example,
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-10

11.7. Give the structures and IUPAC names of monohydric phenols of molecular formula, C7H8O.
Ans: The three isomers are:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-11

11.8. While separating a mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols by steam distillation, name the isomer which will be steam volatile. Give reason.
Ans: 0-N itrophenol is steam volatile due to chelation (intramolecular H – bonding) and hence can be separated by steam distillation from/Miitrophenol which is hot steam volatile because of intermolecular H-bonding.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-12

11.9. Give the equations of the reaction for the preparation of phenol from cumene.
Ans: This process has a great industrial importance because it gives the preparation of two very useful compounds i.e. phenol and acetone. The raw materials are benzene and propene and it initially proceeds by Friedel Crafts alkylation of benzene.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids E9
Oxygen is bubbled through the above solution to form cumene hydroperoxide which is decomposed with aqueous acid
solution to form phenol and acetone as follows:
vedantu class 12 chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids E9a

11.10. Write chemical reaction for the preparation of phenol from chlorobenzene.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-14

11.11. Write the mechanism of hydration of ethene to yield ethanol.
Ans: Direct addition of H20 to ethene in presence of an acid does not occur. Indirectly, ethene is first passed through concentrated H2S04, when ethyl hydrogen sulphate is formed.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-15

11.12. You are given benzene, cone. H2S04and NaOH. Write the equations for the preparation of phenol using these reagents.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-16

11.13. Show how will you synthesise
(i) 1 -phenylethanol from a suitable alkene.
(ii) cyclohexylmethanol using an alkyl halide by an SN2 reaction.
(iii) Pentan-l-ol using a suitable alkyl halide?
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-17

11.14. Give two reactions that show the acidic nature of phenol. Compare its acidity with that of ethanol.
Ans: The reactions showing acidic nature of phenol are:
(a) Reaction with sodium: Phenol reacts with active metals like sodium to liberate H, gas.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-18
(b) Reaction with NaOH: Phenol dissolves in NaOH to form sodium phenoxide and water.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-19
Phenol is more acidic than ethanol. This is due to the reason that phenoxide ion left after the loss of a proton from phenol is stabilized by resonance, while ethoxide ion left after less of a proton from ethanol, is not.

11.15. Explain why is orthonitrophenol more acidic than orthomethoxyphenol?
Ans: Nitro (NO2) group is an electron withdrawing group while methoxy (OCH3) group is electron releasing in nature. The release of H+ ion is therefore, easier from o-nitrophenol while it is quite difficult from o-methoxyphenol. Apart form that, o-nitrophenoxide ion is stabilised due to resonance o-nitrophenol is steam volatile while p-nitrophenol is not. This is on account of intramolecular hydrogen bonding in the molecules of o-nitrophenol. As a result, its boiling point is less than that of p-nitrophenol in which the molecules are linked by intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
It is interesting to note that in the substituted phenols, the nature and position of the substituent influences the boiling point of phenol.
For example: .o-nitrophenol is steam volatile while p-nitrophenol is not. This is supported by the fact that the boiling point temperature of o-nitrophenol (100°C) is less than that of p-nitrophenol, (279°C). In o-nitrophenol, there is intramolecular hydrogen bonding in OH and NO2 groups placed in a adjacent positions. However, these are linked by intermolecular hydrogen bonding in the p-isomers. It is quite obvious that extra energy is needed to the cleave the hydrogen bonds in the p-isomer. Consequently, its boiling point is more.
vedantu class 12 chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids E8
o-nnrophenol with lower boiling point is steam volatile while p-nitrophenol is not. This helps in the separation of the two isomers present in the liquid mixture.  On passing steam, o-nitropbenol volatilises and its vapours rise alongwith steam and after condensation, collect in the receiver p-nitrophenol is left behind in the distillation flask. e-nkrophenol p-nnrophenol.
On the contrary, o-methoxyphenoxide is destabilised since the electron density on the negatively charged oxygen tends to increase due to the electron releasing tendency of the methoxy(OCH3) group.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids E15
In the light of the above discussion, we may conclude that o-nitrophenol is a stronger acid (pKa = 7-23) than o-methoxyphenl  (pKa = 9.98)

11.16. Explain how does the – OH group attached to a carbon of benzene ring activate it towards electrophilic substitution?
Ans: Phenol may be regarded as a resonance hybrid of structures I-V, shown below.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-21
As a result of +R effect of the -OH group, the electron density in the benzene ring increases thereby facilitating the attack of an electrophile. In other words, presence of -OH group, activates the benzene ring towards electrophilic substitution reactions. Further, since the electron density is relatively higher at the two o-and one p-position, therefore electrophilic substitution occurs mainly at o-and p-positions.

11.17. Give equations of the following reactions:
(i) Oxidation of propan-l-ol with alkaline KMnO4 solution.
(ii) Bromine in CS2 with phenol.
(iii) Dilute HNO3 acid with phenol
(iv) Treating phenol with chloroform in presence of aqueous NaOH.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-22

11.18. Explain the following with an example
(i) Kolbe’s reaction
(ii) Reimer – Tiemann reaction –

(iii) Williamson ether synthesis
(iv) Unsymmetrical ether

Ans: (i) Kolbe’s reaction: Sodium phenoxide when heated with C02 at 400K under a pressure of 4-7 atmospheres followed by acidification gives 2-hydroxybenzoic acid (salicylic acid) as the major product along with a small amount of 4-hydroxybenzoic acid.This reaction is called Kolbe’s reaction.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-23
(ii) Reimer-Tiemann reaction: Treatment of phenol with CHC13 in presence of aqueous sodium or potassium hydroxide at 340 K followed by hydrolysis of the resulting product gives 2-hydroxybenzaldehyde (salicyialdehyde) as the major product. This reaction is called Reimer-Tiemann reaction.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-24
(iii) Williamson’s ether synthesis: It involves the treatment of an alkyl halide with a suitable sodium alkoxide to obtain ethers. The sodium alkoxide needed for the purpose is prepared by the action of sodium on a suitable alcohol. In this reaction alkyl halide should primary. Secondary and tertiary halides will predominantly give an alkene.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-25
(iv) Unsymmetrical ether: If the alkyl or aryl groups attached to the oxygen atom are different, ethers are called unsymmetrical ethers. For example, ethyl methyl ether, methyl phenyl ether, 4-chlorophenyl- 4-nitrophenyl ether, etc.

11.19. Write the mechanism of acid dehydration of ethanol to yield ethene.
Ans: The mechanism of dehydration of alcohols to form alkenes occur by the following three steps:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-26

11.20. How are the following conversions carried out?
(i) Propane → Propan-2-ol
(ii) Benzyl chloride → Benzyl alcohol
(iii) Ethyl mag. chloride → Propan-1-ol
(iv) Methyl mag. bromide → 2-Methylpropan-2-ol.
Ans:
vedantu class 12 chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids E20

11.21. Name the reagents used in the following reactions:
(i) Oxidation of a primary alcohol to carboxylic acid.
(ii) Oxidation of a primary alcohol to aldehyde.
(iii) Brominationofphenolto2,4,6-tribromophenol
(iv) Benzyl alcohol to benzoic acid.
(v) Dehydration of propan-2-oI to propene.
(vi) Butan-2-one to butan-2-oL .
Ans: (i) Acidified potassium dichromate or neutral/ acidic/ alkaline potassium permanganate.
(ii) Pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC), (C5H5NH)+ ClCrO3 in CH2Cl2
or Pyridinium dichromate (PDC),[(C5H5NH)2]2+Cr2O72-in CH2Cl2
(iii) Aqueous bromine, i.e., Br2/H2O.
(iv) Acidified or alkaline potassium permanganate.
(v) 85% H2S04 at 440 K.
(vi) Ni/H2 or NaBH4 or LiAlH4.

11.22. Give reason for the higher boiling point of ethanol in comparison to methoxymethane.
Ans: Ethanol undergoes intermolecular H-bonding due to the presence of a hydrogen atom attached to the electronegative oxygen atom. As a result, ethanol exists as associated molecules.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-28
Consequently, a large amount of energy is required to break these hydrogen bonds. Therefore, the boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of methoxymethane which does not form H-bonds.

11.23. Give IUPAC names of the following ethers.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-29
Ans: (i)1-Ethoxy-2-methylpropane
(ii) 2-Chlorlo-l-methoxy ethane
(iii) 4-Nitroanisole
(iv) 1-Methoxypropane
(v) 1 -Ethoxy-4 -4 – dimethyl cyclohexane
(vi)Ethoxybenzene

11,24. Write the names of the reagents and equations for the preparation of the following ethers by Williamson’s synthesis :
(i) 1-Propoxypropane
(ii) 2-Methoxy-2-methylpropane
(iii) Ethoxybenzene
(iv) Methoxyethane.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers ex 24

11.25. Illustrate with examples the limitations of Willamson synthesis for the preparation of certain types of ethers. 
Ans: Williamson’s synthesis is a versatile method for the synthesis of both symmetrical and unsymmetrical ethers. However, for the synthesis of unsymmetrical ethers, a proper choice of reactants is necessary. Since Williamson’s synthesis occurs by SN2 mechanism and primary alkyl halides are most reactive in Sn2 reaction, therefore, best yields of unsymmetrical ethers are obtained when the alkyl halides are primary and the alkoxide may be primary, secondary or tertiary. For example, tert-butylethyl ether is prepared by treating ethyl bromide with sodium tert-butoxide.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-31

11.26. How is 1-propoxypropane synthesised from propane-1-ol? Write mechanism of the reaction. (C.B.S.E. Sarnie Paper 2015)
Ans: Two methods can be used for the synthesis of 1-propoxypropane from propan-1-ol
By Williamson’s synthesis
The halogen derivative such as bromoderivative and sodium salt of the alcohol take part in the Williamson’s synthesis
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers ex 26
vedantu class 12 chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers ex 26a

11.27. Preparation of ethers by acid dehydration of secondary or tertiary alcohols is not a suitable method. Give reason.
Ans: Acid catalysed dehydration of primary alcohols to ethers occurs by SN2 reaction involving nucleophilic attack by the alcohol molecule on the protonated alcohol molecule.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-34
Under these conditions, 2° and 3° alcohols, however, give alkenes rather than ethers. The reason being that due to steric hindrance, nucleophilic attack by the alcohol molecule on the protonated alcohol molecule does not occur. Instead protonated 2° and 3° alcohols lose a molecule of water to form stable 2° and 3° carbocation. These carbocations prefer to lose a proton to form alkenes rather than undergoing nucleophilic attack by alcohol molecules to form ethers.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-35

11.28. Write the equation of the reaction of hydrogen iodide with (i)1-propoxypropane (ii)methoxybenzene, and (iii)benzyl ethyl ether
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-36
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-37

11.29. Explain the fact that in alkyl aryl ethers, alkoxy group :
(i) activates the benzene ring towards electrophilic substitution.
(ii) directs the incoming substituents towards ortho and para positions in the ring.
Ans:
(i) The alkoxy group (RO -) with lone electron pairs on the oxygen atom activates the ortho and para positions in the ring by + M (or + R) effect as shown below :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ehers ex 29
As the ortho and para positions in the ring become points of high electron density, the electrophiles prefer to attack these positions.

(ii) The alkoxy group directs the incoming group which is an electrophile towards the ortho and para positions in the ring. As a result, a mixture of isomeric products is formed.

11.30. Write the mechanism of the reaction of HI with methoxymethane.
Ans: When equimolar amounts of HI and methoxy methane are reacted, a mixture of methyl alcohol and methyl iodide is formed by the following mechanism:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-39

11.31. Write equations of the following reactions:
(i) Friedel-Crafts reaction -alkylation of anisole
(ii) Nitration of anisole.
(iii) Bromination of anisole in ethanoic acid medium
(iv) Friedel-Craft’s acetylation of anisole.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-40
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-41

11.32. Show how will you synthesise the following from appropriate alkenes.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids E22
Ans: All the alcohols are formed by the hydration of alkenes in the acidic medium. The addition follows Markownikov’s rule. 1-Methylcyclohexene can be used in the reaction.
vedantu class 12 chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids E22s
(ii)  4-Methylpent-3-ene upon hydration in the acidic medium will give the desired alcohol.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids E22d
(iii) Pent-2-ene gives the desired alcohol upon hydration in the presence of acid.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids E22b
(iv) The cyclic alkene used in this reaction is 2-cyclohexylbut-2-ene.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids E22c

11.33. When 3-methylbutant 2-ol is treated with HBr, the following reaction takes place:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-47
Give a mechanism for this reaction.
(Hint: The secondary carbocation formed in step II rearranges to a more stable tertiary carbocation by a hydride ion shift from 3rd carbon atom.)
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols Phenols and Ether-48
Protonation of the given alcohol followed by loss of water gives a 2° carbocation(I), which being unstable rearranges by 1,2-hydride shift to form the more stable 3° carbocation (II). Nucleophilic attack by Br ion on this carbocation (II) gives the final product.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids:

Section Name Topic Name
12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
12.1 Nomenclature and Structure of Carbonyl Group
12.2 Preparation of Aldehydes and Ketones
12.3 Physical Properties
12.4 Chemical Reactions
12.5 Uses of Aldehydes and Ketones
12.6 Nomenclature and Structure of Carboxyl Group
12.7 Methods of Preparation of Carboxylic Acids
12.8 Physical Properties
12.9 Chemical Reactions
12.10 Uses of Carboxylic Acids

NCERT INTEXT QUESTION

12.1. Write the structures of the following compounds:
(i) α-Methoxypropionaldehyde
(ii) 3-Hydroxybutanal
(iii) 2-Hydroxycyclopentane carbaldehyde
(iv) 4-OxopentanaI
(v) Di-sec.butylketone
(vi) 4-fluoroaeetophenone
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-1
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-2

12.2. Write the structures of the products of the following reactions:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids te2
Ans:
byjus class 12 chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids te2a

12.3. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points:
CH3CHO, CH3CH2OH, CH3OCH3, CH3CH2CH3
Ans: The order is : CH3CH2CH3 < CH3OCH3 < CH3CHO <CH3CH2OH
All these compounds have comparable molecular masses CH3CH2OH undergoes extensive intermolecular Il-bonding and thus its b.pt. is the highest. CH3CHO is more pdlar than CH3OCH3 so that dipole-dipoie interactions in CH3CHO are greater than in CH3OCH3. Thus, b.pt. of CH3CHO > CH3OCH3. CH3CH2CH3 has only weak van der waals forces between its molecules and hence has the lowest b.pt.

12.4. Arrange the following carbonyl compounds in increasing order of their reactivity in nucleophilic addition reactions :
(a) Ethanal, propanal, propanone, butanone
(b) Benzaldehyde, p-tolualdehyde, p-nitrobenzaldehyde, acetophenone
Ans: (a) The increasing order of reactivity of the carbonyl compounds towards nucleophilic addition reactions is :
butanone < propanone < propanal < ethanal
The reactivity is based upon two factors. These are: steric factors and electronic factors. 

(b) The increasing order of reactivity is :
acetophenone < p-tolualdehyde < benzaldehyde < p-nitrobenzaldehyde

Explanation:
Acetophenone being a ketone is the least reactive towards nucleophilic addition. All others are aldehydes. Among them, p-tolualdehyde is less reactive than benzaldehyde because CH3 group present at the para position w.r.t.  -CHO group will increase the electron density on the carbonyl carbon atom due to hyper conjugation effect. As a result, the nucleophile attack occurs to lesser extent as compared to benzaldehyde.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids te4

In p-nitrobenzaldehyde, the nitro group has an opposing effect. It is electron withdrawing in nature due to -I effect as well as -R effect. The electron density on the carbonyl carbon atom decreases and this favours the nucleophile attack.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids te4A

12.5. Predict the products of the following reactions:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-6
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-7
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-8

12.6. Give the 1UPAC names of the following compounds:
(i) PhCH2CH2COOH
(ii) (CH3)C=CHCOOH
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-9
Ans: (i) 3 – Phenylpropanoic acid
(ii) 3 – Methylbut-2-enoic acid
(iii) 2-Methylcyclohexanecarboxylic acid
(iv) 2,4,6 – Trinitrobenzoic acid

12.7. Show how each of the following compounds can be converted into benzoic acid.
(i) Ethylbenzene
(ii) Acetophenone
(iii) Bromobenzene
(iv) Phenylethene (styrene)
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-10
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-11

12.8. Which acid from each of the following pairs would you expect to be a stronger acid?
(i) CH3COOH or CH2FCOOH
(ii) CH2FCOOH or CH2ClCOOH
(iii) CH2FCH2CH2COOH or CH3CHFCH2COOH
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids te8
Ans:
Explanation: CH3 group with +I effect increases the electron density on the oxygen atom in O – H bond in the carboxyl group and cleavage of bond becomes diffcult. It therefore, decreases the acidic strength. The F atom has very strong -I effect, i.e., electron withdrawing influence. It decreases the electron density on the oxygen atom and cleavage of bond becomes easy. The acidic character therefore, increases. It is further related to the

  1. No. of F atoms present in the molecule.
  2.  Relative position of the F atom in the carbon atom chain.

In the light of the above discussion.
(i) CH2FCOOH is a stronger acid.
(ii) CH2FCOOH is a stronger acid.
(iii) CH3CHFCH2COOH is a stronger acid.
byjus class 12 chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids te8a

NCERT EXERCISES

12.1. What is meant by the following terms? Give an example of the reaction in each case.
(i) Cyanohydrin
(ii) Acetal
(iii) Semicarbazone

(iv) Aldol
(v) Hemiacetal
(vi) Oxime

(vii) Ketal
(viii) Imine
(ix) 2,4-DNP derivative

(x) Schiff’s base.
Ans: (i) Cyanohydrin: gem-Hydroxynitriles, i.e., compounds possessing hydroxyl and cyano groups on the same carbon atom are called cyanohydrins. These are produced by addition of HCN to aldehydes or ketones in a weakly basic medium.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-14

(ii) gem – Dialkoxy compounds in which the two alkoxy groups are present on the terminal carbon atom are called acetals. These are produced by the action of an aldehyde with two equivalents of a monohydric alcohol in presence of dry HCl gas.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-15
These are easily hydrolysed by dilute mineral acids to regenerate the original aldehydes. Therefore, these are used for the protection of aldehyde group in organic synthesis.

(iii) Semicarbazones are derivatives of aldehydes and ketones and are produced by action of semicarbazide on them in acidic medium.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-16

(iv) Aldols are P-hydroxy aldehydes or ketones and are produced by the condensation of two molecules of the same or one molecule each of two different aldehydes or ketones in presence of a dilute aqueous base. For example,
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-17

(v) gem – Alkoxyalcohols are called hemiacetals. These are produced by addition of one molecule of a monohydric alcohol to an aldehyde in presence of dry HCl gas.

(vi) Oximes are produced when aldehydes or ketones react with hydroxyl amine in weakly acidic medium.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-18

(vii) Ketals are produced when a ketone is heated with dihydric alcohols like ethylene glycol in presence of dry HCl gas or /3-toluene sulphonic acid (PTS).
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-19
These are easily hydrolysed by dilute mineral acids to regenerate the original ketones. Therefore, ketals are used for protecting keto groups in organic synthesis.

(viii) Compounds containing -C = N – group are called imines. These are produced when aldehydes and ketones react with ammonia derivatives.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-20

(ix)2, 4-Dinitrophenyl hydrazone (i.e., 2,4-DNP derivatives) are produced when aldehydes or ketones react with 2,4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine in weakly acidic medium.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-21

(x) Aldehydes and ketones react with primary aliphatic or aromatic amines to form azomethines or SchifFs bases.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-22

12.2. Name the following compounds according to IUPAC system of nomenclature:
(i) CH3CH (CH3)—CH2 CH2—CHO
(ii) CH3CH2COCH(C2H5)CH2CH2Cl
(iii) CH3CH=CHCHO
(iv) CH3COCH2COCH3

(v) CH3CH(CH3)CH2C(CH3)2COCH3
(vi) (CH3)3CCH2COOH.
(vii) OHCC6H4CHO-p
Ans: (i) 4-Methyl pentanal
(ii) 6-Chloro-4-ethylhexan-3-one
(iii) But-2-en-l-al
(iv) Pentane-2,4-dione
(v) 3,3,5-Trimethyl-hexan-2-one
(vi) 3,3-Dimethyl butanoic acid
(vii) Benzene-1,4-dicarbaldehyde

12.3. Draw the structures of the following compounds.
(i) 3-Methylbutanal
(ii) p-Methylbenzaldehyde
(iii) 4-Chloropentan-2-one
(iv) p, p’-Dihydroxybenzophenone
(v) p-Nitropropiophenone
(vi) 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one.
(vii) 3-Bromo-4-phenylpentanoic acid
(viii) Hex-2-en-4-ynoic acid
Ans:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids e3

12.4. Write the IUPAC names of the following ketones and aldehydes. Wherever possible, give also common names.
(i) CH3CO(CH2)4CH3
(ii) CH3CH2CH BrCH2CH(CH3)CHO
(iii) CH3(CH2)5CHO
(iv) Ph—CH=CH—CHO

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-25
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-26

12.5. Draw structures of the following derivatives:
(i) The 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone of benzaldehyde
(ii) Cydopropanone oxime
(iii) Acetaldehydedimethylacetal
(iv) The semicarbazone ofcyclobutanone
(v) The ethylene ketal of hexan-3-one
(vi) The methyl hemiacetal of formaldehyde
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-27

12.6. Predict the product when cyclohexanecarbaldehyde reacts with following reagents :
(i) C6H5MgBr followed by H30+
(ii) Tollen’s reagent
(iii) Semicarbazide in the weakly acidic medium
(iv) Excess of ethanol in the presence of acid
(v) Zinc amalgam and Cyclohexanecarbaldehyde Semicarbazide
Ans:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids e6
byjus class 12 chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids e6a

12.7. Which of the following compounds would undergo aldol condensation, which the Cannizzaro reaction and which neither? Write the structures of the expected products of aldol condensation and Cannizzaro reaction.
(i) Methanal
(ii) 2-Methylpentanal
(iii) Benzaldehyde.

(iv) Benzophenone
(v) Cyclohexanone
(vi) 1-Phenylpropanone

(vii) Phenylacetaldehyde
(viii) Butan-l-ol 1
(ix) 2,2-Dimethylbutanal

Ans: 2-Methylpertfanal, cyclohexanone, 1-phenylpropanone and phenylacetaldehyde contain one or more a-hydrogen and hence undergo aldol condensation. The reactions and the structures of the expected products are given below:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-29
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-30

12.8. How will you convert ethanal into the following compounds?
(i) Butane-1,3-diol
(ii) But-2-enal
(iii) But-2-enoic acid

Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-31

12.9. Write structural formulas and names of four possible aldol condensation products from propanal and butanal. In each case, indicate which aldehyde acts as nucleophile and which as electrophile.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-32

12.10. An organic compound with the molecular formula C9H10O forms 2,4-DNP derivative, reduces Tollen’s reagent, and undergoes Cannizzaro reaction. On vigorous oxidation, it gives 1,2-benzenedicarboxylic acid. Identify the compound. 
Ans: Since the given compound with molecular formula C9H10O forms a 2,4-DNP derivative and reduces Tollen’s reagent, it must be an aldehyde. Since it undergoes Cannizzaro reaction, therefore, CHO group is directly attached to die benzene ring.
Since on vigorous oxidation, it gives 1, 2-benzene dicarboxylic acid, therefore, it must be an ortho- substituted benzaldehyde. The only o-substituted aromatic aldehyde having molecular formula C9H10O is o-ethyl benzaldehyde. Ail the reactions can now be explained on the basis of this structure.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-33

12.11. An organic compound (A) (molecular formula C8H16O2) was hydrolysed with dilute sulphuric acid to give a carboxylic acid (B} and an alcohol (C). Oxidation of (C) with chromic acid produced (B). (Q on dehydration gives but-l-ene. Write equations for the reactions involved.
Ans: Since an ester A with molecular formula C8H16O2 upon hydrolysis gives carboxylic acid B and the alcohol C and oxidation of C with chromic acid produces the acid B, therefore, both the carboxylic acid B and alcohol C must contain the same number of carbon atoms.
Further, since ester A contains eight carbon atoms, therefore, both the carboxylic acid B and the alcohol C must contain four carbon atoms each.
Since the alcohol C on dehydration gives but-l-ene, therefore, C must be a straight chain alcohol, i.e., butan-l-ol.
If C is butan-l-ol, then the acid B must be butanoic acid and the ester A must be butyl butanoate.The chemical equations are as follows:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-34

12.12. Arrange the following in increasing order of the property indicated :
(i) Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Di tert. butyl ketone, Methyl tert. butyl ketone (reactivity towards HCN). (C.B.S.E. Sample Paper 2011, 2015, C.B.S.E. Delhi 2012)
(ii) CH3CH2CH(Br)COOH, CH3CH(Br)CH2COOH, (CH3)2CHCOOH, CH3CH2CH2COOH (acid strength) (C.B.S.E. Delhi2008)
(iii) Benzoic acid, 4-Nitrobenzoic acid, 3, 5-Dinitrobenzoic acid, 4-Methoxybenzoic acid (acid strength) 
(C.B.S.E. Sample Paper 2011, 2015; C.B.S.E. Delhi 2012, C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2015, Rajasthan Board 2015)
Ans: (i) Cyanohydrin derivatives are formed as a result of the reaction in which the nucleophile (CN ion) attacks the carbon atom of the carbonyl group. The order of reactivity

  • decreases with increase in +I effect of the alkyl group.
  • decreases with increase in steric hindrance due to the size as well as number of the alkyl groups. In the light of the above information, the decreasing order of reactivity is :
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids e12

(ii) We know that alkyl group with +I effect decreases the acidic strength. The +I effect of isopropyl group is more than that of n-propyl group. Similarly, bromine (Br) with -I-effect increases the acidic strength. Closer its position in the carbon atom chain w.r.t., carboxyl (COOH) group, more will be its -I-effect and stronger will be the acid. In the light of this, the increasing order of acidic strength is :
(CH3)2CHCOOH< CH3CH2CH2COOH < CH3CH(Br)CH2COOH < CH3CH2CH(Br) COOH
(iii) We have learnt that the electron donating group (OCH3) decreases the acidic strength of the benzoic acid. At the same time, the electron withdrawing group (N02) increases the same. Keeping this in mind, the increasing order of acidic strength is:
byjus class 12 chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids e12a

12.13. Give simple chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds.
(i) PropanalandPropanone
(ii) Acetophenone and Benzophenone

(iii) Phenol and Benzoic acid
(iv) Benzoic acid and Ethyl benzoate

(v) Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one
(vi) Benzaldehyde and Acetophenone.

(vii) EthanalandPropanal
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-37
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-38

12.14. Row will you prepare the following compounds from benzene? You may use any inorganic reagent and any organic reagent having not more than one carbon atom.
(i) Methyl benzoate
(ii) m-nitrobenzoic acid
(iii) p-nitrobenzoic acid

(iv) Phenylaceticacid
(v) p-nitrobenzaldehyde

Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-39
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-40

12.15. How will you bring about the following conversions in not more than two steps?
(i) PropanonetoPropene
(ii) Benzoic acid to Benzaldehyde
(iii) Ethanol to 3-Hydroxybutanal
(iv) Benzene to m-Nitroacetophenone
(v) Benzaldehyde to Benzophenone –
(vi) Bromobenzeneto 1-PhenylethanoL
(vii) Benzaldehyde to 3-Phenylpropan-1-ol.
(viii) Benzaldehyde to α Hydroxyphenylacetk acid
(ix) Benzoic acid to m-Nitrobenzy 1 alcohol
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-41
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-42
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-43

12.16. Describe the following:
(i) Acetylation
(ii) Cannizzaro reaction

(iii) Cross aldol condensation
(iv) Decarboxylation

Ans: (i) Acetylation refers to the process of introducing an acetyl group into a compound namely, the substitution of an acetyl group for an active hydrogen atom. Acetylation is usually carried out in presence of a base such as pyridine, dimethylanitine, etc.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-44
(ii) Cannizzaro reaction : Aldehydes which do not contain an a-hydrogen atom, when treated with concentrated alkali solution undergo disproportionation, i.e., self oxidation reduction. As a result, one molecule of the aldehyde is reduced to the corresponding alcohol at the cost of the other which is oxidised to the corresponding carboxylic acid. This reaction is called Cannizzaro reaction.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-45
(iii) Cross aldol condensation: Aldol condensation between two different aldehydes is called cross aldol condensation.If both aldehydes contain a-hydrogens, It gives a mixture of four products.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-46
(iv) Decarboxylation: The process of removal of a molecule of CO2 from a carboxylic acid is called decarboxylation. Sodium salts of carboxylic acids when heated with soda-lime undergoes decarboxylation to yield alkanes.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-47

12.17. Complete each synthesis by giving missing starting material, reagent or products.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-48
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-81
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-82
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-83

12.18. Give plausible explanation for each of the following:
(i) Cyclohexanone forms cyanohydrin in good yield but 2,2, fctrimethylcyclohexanone does not
(ii) There are two – NH2 groups in semicarbazide. However, only one is involved in the formation of semicarbazones.

(iii)During the preparation of esters from a carboxylic acid and an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst, the water or the ester should be removed as soon as it is formed.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-49
The yield of second reaction is very low because of the presence of three methyl groups at ex-positions with respect to the C = O, the nucleophilic attack by the CN ion does not occur due to steric hinderance. Since there is no such steric hindrance in cyclohexanone, therefore, nucleophilic attack by the CN ion occurs readily and hence cyclohexanone cyanohydrin is obtained in good yield.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-50
Although semicarbazide has two – NH2 groups but one of them (i.e., which is directly attached to C = O) is involved in resonance as shown above. As a result, electron density on N of this -NH2 group decreases and hence it does not act as a nucleophile. In contrast, the other -NH2 group (i.e.. attached to NH) is not involved in resonance and hence lone pair of electrons present on N atom of this -NH2 group is available for nucleophilic attack on the C = O group of aldehydes and ketones.’
(iii) The formation of esters from a carboxylic acid and an alcohol in presence of an acid catalyst is a reversible reaction.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-51
Thus to shift the equilibrium in the forward direction, the water or the ester formed should be removed as fast as it is formed.

12.19. An organic compound contains 69-77% carbon, 11-63 % hydrogen and rest oxygen. The molecular mass of the compound is 86. It does not reduce Tottens’ reagent but forms an addition compound with sodium hydrogensulphite and give positive iodoform test. On vigorous oxidation, it gives ethanoic and propanoic acid. Write the possible structure of the compound.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-52
Since the compound form sodium hydrogen sulphite addition product, therefore, it must be either an – aldehyde or methyl/ cyclic ketone. Since the compound does not reduce Tollens’ reagent therefore, it cannot be an aldehyde. Since the compound gives positive iodoform test, therefore, the given compound is a methyl ketone. Since the given compound on vigorous oxidation gives a mixture ofethanoic acid and propanoic acid, therefore, the methyl ketone is pentan-2-one, i.e.,
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-53

12.20. Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion, carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than on phenol. Why?
Ans: Consider the resonating structures of carboxylate ion and phenoxide ion.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids-80
In case of phenoxide ion, structures (V – VII) carry a negative charge on the less electronegative carbon atom.Therefore, their contribution towards the resonance stabilization of phenoxide ion is very small.
In structures I and II, (carboxylate ion), the negative charge is delocalized over two oxygen atoms while in structures III and IV, the negative charge on the oxygen atom remains localized only the electrons of the benzene ring are delocalized. Since delocalization of benzene electrons contributes little towards the stability of phenoxide ion therefore, carboxylate ion is much more resonance stabilized than phenoxide ion. Thus, the release of a proton from carboxylic acids is much easier than from phenols. In other words, carboxylic acids are stronger acids than phenols.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines:

Section Name Topic Name
13 Amines
13.1 Structure of Amines
13.2 Classification
13.3 Nomenclature
13.4 Preparation of Amines
13.5 Physical Properties
13.6 Chemical Reactions
13.7 Method of Preparation of Diazonium Salts
13.8 Physical Properties
13.9 Chemical Reactions
13.10 Importance of Diazonium Salts in Synthesis of Aromatic Compounds

NCERT INTEXT QUESTIONS

13.1. Classify the following amines as primary, secondary and tertiary:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-1
Ans: (i) 1° (ii) -3° (iii) 1° (iv) 2°

13.2. Write the structures of different isomeric amines corresponding to the molecular formula, C4H11N.
(i) Write the IUPAC names of all the isomers
(ii) What type of isomerism is exhibited by different types of amines?
Ans: Eight isomeric amines are possible
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry T2
Isomerism exhibited by different amines

  • Chain isomers: (i) and (ii) ; (iii) and (iv) ; (i) and (iv)
  • Position isomers: (ii) and (iii) ; (ii) and (iv)
  • Metamers: (v) and (vi) ; (vii) and (viii)
  • Functional isomers: All the three types of amines are the functional isomers of each other.

13.3. How will you convert:
(i) Benzene into aniline
(ii) Benzene into N,N-dimethylaniline
(iii) Cl-(CH2)4-Cl into Hexane -1,6- diamine
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-3

13.4. Arrange the following in increasing order of their basic strength :
(i) C2H5NH2, C6H5NH2, NH3, C6H5CH2NH2, (C2H5)2NH
(ii) C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N, C6H5NH2
(iii) CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N, C6HsNH2, C6H5CH2NH
2
Ans:
In general, the basic character of ammonia (NH3) and the amines is linked with the availability of the lone electrons pair on the nitrogen atom. In other words, these are all Lewis bases.
Amines act as Lewis bases due to the presence of lone electron paîr on the nitrogen atom. Since the nitrogen atom is sp³ hybridised, its electron attracting tendency is considerably reduced. It can readily lose its electron pair and acts as a base. For example, amines form hydroxides with water.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry T4
Here Kt is called dissociation constant for the base. Greater the Kb value stronger will be the base. The basic strength
of amines can also be expressed as pKb value which is related to Kb as :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry T4A
The Kb values are :
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry T4b

13.5. Complete the following acid-base reactions and name the products:
(i) CH3CH2CH2NH2+HCl ——–>
(ii) (C2H5)3 N+HCl ——–>
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-4

13.6. Write reactions of the final alkylation product of aniline with excess of methyl iodide in the presence of sodium carbonate solution.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-5

13.7. Write chemical reaction of aniline with benzoyl chloride and write the name of the product obtained.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-6

13.8. Write structures of different isomers corresponding to the molecular formula, C3H9N. Write IUPAC names of the isomers which will liberated N2 gas on treatment with nitrons acid.
Ans: In ‘all, four structural isomers are possible. These are:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-7

13.9. Convert:
(i) 3-Methylanilineinto3-nitrotoluene
(ii) Aniline into 1,3,5- Tribromo benzene
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-8

NCERT EXRECISES

13.1. Write IUPAC names of the following compounds and classify them into primary, secondary, and tertiary amines. 
(i) (CH3)2 CHNH2 (ii) CH3(CH2)2NH2 (iii) CH3NHCH(CH3)2
(iv) (CH3)3 CNH2 (v) C6H5NHCH3(vi) (CH3CH2)2NCH3
(vii)m-BrC6H4NH2
Ans: (i) Propan-2-amine(1°)
(ii) Propan-1-amine (1°),
(iii) N-Methylpropan-2-amine (2°).
(iv) 2-Methylpropan-2-amine(l°)
(v) N-MethylbenzenamineorN-methylaniline(2°)
(vi) N-Ethyl-N-methylethanamine (3°)
(vii) 3-Bromobenzenamine or 3-bromoaniline (1°)

13.2. Give one chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
(i)Methylamine and dimethylamine
(ii) Secondary and tertiary amines
(iii) Ethylamine and aniline
(iv) Aniline and benzylamine
(v) Aniline and N-Methylaniline.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-9
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-10

13.3. Account for the following
(i) pKb of aniline is more than that of methylamine
(ii) Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not.
(iii) Methylamine in water reacts with ferric chloride to precipitate hydrated ferric oxide.
(iv) Although amino group is o and p – directing in aromatic electrophilic substitution reactions, aniline on nitration gives a substantial amount of m-nitroaniline.
(v) Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(vi) Diazonium salts of aromatic amines are more stable than those of aliphatic amines.
(vii) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is preferred for synthesising primary amines.
Ans: (i) In aniline, the lone pair of electrons on the N-atom is delocalised over the benzene ring.
As a result, electron density on the nitrogen . atom decreases. Whereas in CH3NH2,+ I-effect of -CH3 group increases the electron density on the N-atom. Therefore, aniline is a weaker base than methylamine and hence its pKb value is higher than that of methylamine.
(ii) Ethylamine dissolves in water due to intermolecular H-bonding. However, in case of aniline, due to the large hydrophobic part, i.e., hydrocarbon part, the extent of H-bonding is very less therefore aniline is insoluble in water.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-11
(iii) Methylamine being more basic than water, accepts a proton from water liberating OH ions,
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-12
(iv) Nitration is usually carried out with a mixture of cone HNO3 + cone H2SO4. In presence of these acids, most of aniline gets protonated to form ahilinium ion. Therefore, in presence of acids, the reaction mixture consist of aniline and anilinium ion. Now, -NH2 group in aniline is activating and o, p-directing while the -+NH3 group in anilinium ion is deactivating and rw-directing: Nitration of aniline (due to steric hindrance at o-position) mainly gives p-nitroaniline, the nitration of anilinium ion gives m-nitroaniline. In actual practice, approx a 1:1 mixture of p-nitroaniline and m-nitroaniline is obtained. Thus, nitration of aniline gives a substantial amount of m-nitroaniline due to protonation of the amino group.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-13

13.4. Arrange the following:
(i) In decreasing order of pKb values:
C2H5NH2,C6H5NHCH3,(C2H5)2NH and C6H5NH2
(ii) In increasing order of basic strength:
C6H5NH2, C6H5N(CH3)2, (C2H5)2 NH and CH3NH2.
(iii) In increasing order of basic strength:
(а)Aniline,p-nitroaniline andp-toluidine
(b)C6H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, C6H5CH2NH2
(iv) In decreasing order of basic strength in gas phase:
C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N and NH3
(v) In increasing order of boiling point:
C2H5OH, (CH3)2NH, C2H5NH2
(vi) In increasing order of solubility in water:
C6H5NH2,(C2H5)2NH,C2H5NH2
Ans: (i) Due to delocalisation of lone pair of electrons of the N-atom over the benzene ring,C6H5NH2 and C6H5NHCH3 are far less basic than C2H5NH2 and (C2H,)2NH. Due to +I-effect of the -CH3 group, C6H5NHCH3 is little more basic that C6H5NH2. Among C2H5NH2 and (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)2NH is more basic than C2H5NHdue to greater+I-effect of two -C2H5 groups. Therefore correct order of decreasing pKb values is:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-14
(ii) Among CH3NH2 and (C2H5)2NH, primarily due to the greater +I-effect of the two -C2H5 groups over one -CH3 group, (C2H5)2NH is more basic than CH3NH2.In both C6H5NH2 and C6H5N(CH3)2 lone pair of electrons present on N-atom is delocalized over the benzene ring but C6H5N(CH3)2 is more basic due to +1 effect of two-CH3 groups.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-15
(iii) (a) The presence of electron donating -CH3 group increases while the presence of electron withdrawing -NO2 group decreases the basic strength of amines.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-16
(b) In C6H5NH2 and C6H5NHCH3, N is directly attached to the benzene ring. As a result, the lone pair of electrons on the N-atom is delocalised over the benzene ring. Therefore, both C6H5NH2 and C6H5NHCH3 are weaker base in comparison to C6H5CH2NH2. Among C6H5NH2 and C6H5NHCH3, due to +1 effect of-CH3 group C6H5NHCH3 is more basic.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-17
(iv) In gas phase or in non-aqueous solvents such as chlorobenzene etc, the solvation effects i. e., the stabilization of the conjugate acid due to H-bonding are absent. Therefore, basic strength depends only upon the +I-effect of the alkyl groups. The +I-effect increases with increase in number of alkyl groups.Thus correct order of decreasing basic strength in gas phase is,
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-18
(v) Since the electronegativity of O is higher than thalof N, therefore, alcohols form stronger H-bonds than amines. Also, the extent of H-bonding depends upon flie number of H-atoms on the N-atom, thus the extent of H-bonding is greater in primary amine than secondary amine.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-19
(vi) Solubility decreases with increase in molecular mass of amines due to increase in the size of the hydrophobic hydrocarbon part and with decrease is the number of H-atoms on the N-atom which undergo H-bonding.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-20

13.5. How will you convert:
(i) Ethanoic acid into methanamine
(ii) Hexanenitrile into 1-aminopentane

(iii) Methanol to ethanoic acid.
(iv) Ethanamine into methanamine

(v) Ethanoic acid into propanoic acid
(vi) Methanamine into ethanamine

(vii) Nitromethane into dimethylamine
(viii) Propanoic acid into ethanoic acid?

Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-21
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-22

13.6. Describe the method for the identification of primary, secondary and tertiary amines. Also write chemical equations of the reactions involved.
Answer:
The distinction in the three types of amines can be done by the following methods :
(i) Hinsberg’s Test:
This is a very useful test for the distinction of primary, secondary and tertiary amines. An amine is shaken with
Hinsberg’s reagent (benzene suiphonyl chloride) in the presence of excess of aqueous KOH solution. The reactions taking
place are given on the next page.

  1.  A primary amine forms N – alkyl benzene suiphonamide which dissolves in aqueous KOH solution to form potassium salt and upon acidification with dilute HCI regenerates the insoluble suiphonamide.
    tiwari academy class 12 chemistry e6
  2.  A secondary amine forms N, N – dialkylbenzene suiphonamide which remains insoluble in aqueous KOH and even after acidification with dilute HCl
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry e6a
  3. A tertiary amine does not react with benzene suiphonyl chloride and remains insoluble in aqueous KOH.
    However, on acidification with dilute HCI it gives a clear solution due to the formation of the ammonium salt.
    NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry e6b

(ii) Reaction with nitrous acid:
All the three types of amines, aliphatic as well as aromatic, react with nitrous acid under different conditions to form variety of products. Since nitrous acid is highly unstable, it is prepared in situ by the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on sodium nitrite.

(a) Primary aliphatic amines react with nitrous acid at low temperature (cold conditions) to form primary alcohol and
nitrogen gas accompanied by brisk effervescence. Nitrous acid is unstable in nature and is prepared in situ by reacting sodium
nitrite with dilute hydrochloric acid. For example,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry e6c
The reaction is used as a tesijôr primary aliphadc amines as no other amine evolves nitrogen with nurous acid.

(b) Primary aromatic amines
such as aniline react with nitrous acid under ice cold conditions (273 – 278 K) to form benzen diazonium salt. The reaction is known as diazotisation reaction.
tiwari academy class 12 chemistry e6d
in case, the temperature is allowed to rise above 278 K, benzene diazortium chloride is decomposed by water to form phenol.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry e6f
Aliphatic primary amines also react with nitrous acid to form alkyl diazonium salts in a similar manner. But these are
quite unstable and decompose to form a mixture of alcohols, alkenes and alkyl halides along with the evolution of N2 gas.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry e6g

(c) Secondary amines (both aliphatic and aromatic) react with nitrous acid to form nitrosoamines which separate as
Yellow oily liquids.

NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry e6h

(d) Tertiary aliphatic amines dissolve in a cold solution of nitrous acid to form salts which decompose on warming to
give nitrosoamine and alcohol. For example,
tiwari academy class 12 chemistry e6i
(e) Tertiary aromatic amines react with nitrous acid to give a coloured nitrosoderivative. This reaction is called
nitrosation and as a result, a hydrogen atom in the para position gets replaced by a nitroso (-NO) group. For example,
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry e6j

13.7. Write short notes on the following:
(i) Carbylamine reaction
(ii) Diazotisation
(iii) ‘Hofmann’s bromamide reaction

(iv) Coupling reaction
(v) Ammonolysis
(vi) Acetylation

(vii) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
Ans: (i) Carbylamine reaction: Both aliphatic and aromatic primary amines when warmed with chloroform and an alcoholic solution of KOH, produces isocyanides or carbylamines which have very unpleasant odours. This reaction is called carbylamine reaction.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-24
(ii) Diazotisation: The process of conversion of a primary aromatic amino compound into a diazonium salt, is known as diazotisation. This process is carried out by adding an aqueous solution of sodium nitrite to a solution of primary aromatic amine (e.g., aniline) in excess of HCl at a temperature below 5°C.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-25
(iii) Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction: When an amide is treated with bromine in alkali solution, it is converted to a primary amine that has one carbon atom less than the starting amide. This reaction is known as Hoffinann’s bromamide degradation reaction.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-26
(iv) Coupling reaction: In this reaction, arene diazonium salt reacts with aromatic amino compound (in acidic medium) or a phenol (in alkaline medium) to form brightly coloured azo compounds. The reaction generally takes place at para position to the hydroxy or amino group. If para position is blocked, it occurs at ortho position and if both ortho and para positions are occupied, than no coupling takes place.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-27
(v) Ammonolysis: It is a process of replacement of either halogen atom in alkyl halides (or aryl halides) or hydroxyl group in alcohols (or phenols) by amino group. The reagent used for ammonolysis is alcoholic ammonia. Generally, a mixture of primary, secondary and tertiary amine is formed.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-28
(vi) Acetylation: The process of introducing an acetyl (CH3CO-) group into molecule using acetyl chloride or acetic anhydride is called acetylation.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-29
(vii) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis: It is a method of preparation of pure aliphatic and aralkyl primary amines. Phthalimide on treatment with ethanolic KOH gives potassium phathalimide which on heating with a suitable alkyl Or aralkyl halides gives N-substituted phthalimides, which on hydrolysis with dil HCI or with alkali give primary amines.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-30

13.8. Accomplish the following conversions:
(i) Nitrobenzene to benzoic acid
(ii) Benzene to m-bromophenol

(iii) Benzoic acid to aniline
(iv) Aniline to 2,4,6-tribromofluorobenzene

(v) Benzyl chloride to 2-phenylethanamine
(vi) Chlorobenzene to p-Chloroaniline

(vii) Aniline to p-bromoaniIine
(viii)Benzamide to toluene

(ix) Aniline to benzyl alcohol.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-31
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-32
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-33

13.9. Give the structures of A,B and C in the following reaction:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-34
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-35
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-36

13.10. An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating forms compound ‘B’ which on heating with Brand KOH forms a compound ‘C’ of molecular formula C6H7N. Write the structures and IUPAC names of compounds A, B and C.
Ans:
From the available information, we find that ‘B’ upon heating with Br2 and KOH forms a compound ‘C’. The compound ‘B’ is
expected to be an acid amide. Since ‘B’ has been formed upon heating compound ‘A’ with aqueous ammonia, the compound ‘A’ is an aromatic acid.
It is benzoic acid. The reactions involved are given as follows:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry e10

13.11. Complete the following reactions:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-37
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-38
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-39

13.12. Why cannot aromatic primary amines be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis?
Ans: The success of Gabriel phthalimide reaction depends upon the nucleophilic attack by the phthalimide anion on the organic halogen compound.
Since aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reactions easily, therefore, arylamines, i.e., aromatic, primary amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide reaction.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-40

13.13. Write the reactions of (i) aromatic and (ii) aliphatic primary amines with nitrous acid.
Ans: Both aromatic and aliphatic primary amines react with HNO2 at 273-278 K to form aromatic and aliphatic diazonium salts respectively. But aliphatic diazonium salts are unstable even at this low temperature and thus decompose readily to form a mixture of compounds. Aromatic and aliphatic primary amines react with
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines-41

13.14. Give plausible explanation for each of the following:
(i) Why are amines less acidic than alcohols of comparable molecular masses?
(ii) Why do primary amines have higher boiling point than tertiary amines?
(iii) Why are aliphatic amines stronger bases than aromatic amines?
Ans: (i) Loss of proton from an amine gives an amide ion while loss of a proton from alcohol give an alkoxide ion.
R—NH2—>R—NH +H+
R—O —H—>R— O +H+ .
Since O is more electronegative than N, so it wijl attract positive species more strongly in comparison to N. Thus, RO~ is more stable than RNH®. Thus, alcohols are more acidic than amines. Conversely, amines are less acidic than alcohols.
(ii) Due to the presence of two H-atoms on N-atom of primary amines, they undergo extensive intermolecular H-bonding while tertiary amines due to the absence of H-atom on the N-atom do not undergo H-bonding. As a result, primary amines have higher boiling points than tertiary amines of comparable molecular mass.
(iii) Aromatic amines are far less basic than ammonia and aliphatic amines because of following reasons:
(a) Due to resonance in aniline and other aromatic amines, the lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom gets delocalised over the benzene ring and thus it is less easily available for protonation. Therefore, aromatic amines are weaker bases than ammonia and aliphatic amines.
(b) Aromatic amines arS more stable than corresponding protonated ion; Hence, they hag very less tendency to combine with a proton to form corresponding protonated ion, and thus they are less basic.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules:

Section Name Topic Name
14 Biomolecules
14.1 Carbohydrates
14.2 Proteins
14.3 Enzymes
14.4 Vitamins
14.5 Nucleic Acids
14.6 Hormones

NCERT INTEXT QUESTIONS

14.1. Glucose or sucrose are soluble in water but cyclohexane and benzene (simple six membred ring compounds) are insoluble in water Explain.
Ans: The .solubility of a solute in a given solvent follows the rule ‘ Like dissolves like’.Glucose contains five and sucrose contains eight -OH groups. These -OH groups form H-bonds with water. As a result of this extensive intermoleeular H-bonding, glucose and sucrose are soluble in water.On the other hand, benzene and cyclohexane do not contain -OH bonds and hence do not form H-bonds with water. Moreover, they are non-polar molecules and hence do not dissolve in polar water molecules.

14.2. What are the expected products of hydrolysis of lactose?
Ans: Lactose being a disaccharide gives two molecules of monosaccharides Le. one molecule each of D-(+) – glucose and D-(+)-galactbse.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules-1

14.3. How do you explain the absence of aldehyde group in the pentaacetate of D-glucose?
Ans: The cyclic hemiacetal form of glucose contains an -OH group at C-l which gets hydrolysed in aqueous solution to produce open chain aldehydic form which then reacts with NH2OH -to form corresponding oxime. Thus, glucose contains an aldehydic group. However, when glucose is reacted with acetic anhydride, the -OH group at C-l along with the other -OH groups at C-2, C-3, C-4 and C-6 form a pentaacetate.
Since the penta acetate of1 glucose does not contain a free -OH group at C-l, it cannot get hydrolysed in aqueous solution to produce open chain aldehydic form and hence glucose pentaacetate does not react with NH2OH to form glucose oxime. The reactions are shown as:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules-2

14.4. The melting points and solubility in water of a-amino acids are generally higher than those of corresponding haloacids. Explain.
Ans: a-amino acids as we all know, are dipolar in nature (\(\overset { + }{ N }\)H3-CHR-COO ) and have strong dipolar interactions. As a result, these are high melting solids. These are also involved in intermolecular hydrogen bonding with the  molecules of water and are therefore, water soluble. On the contrary, the haloacids RCH(X)COOH are not dipolar like a-amino acids. Moreover, only the carboxyl group of haloacids are involved in hydrogen bonding with the molecules of water and not the halogen atoms. These have therefore, comparatively less melting points and are also soluble in water to smaller extent.

14.5. Where does the water present in the egg go after boiling the egg?
Ans: When egg is boiled, proteins first undergo denaturation and then coagulation and the water present in the egg gets absorbed in coagulated protein, probably through H- bonding

14.6. Why cannot Vitamin C be stored in our body?
Ans: Vitamin C cannot be stored in the body because it is water soluble and is, therefore, easily excreted in urine.

14.7. Which products would be formed when a nucleotide from DNA containing thymine is hydrolysed?
Ans: Upon hydrolysis, nucleotide from DNA would form 2-deoxyribose and phosphoric acid along-with thymine.

14.8. When RNA is hydrolysed, there is no relationship among the quantities of different bases obtained. What does this fact suggest about the structure of RNA?
Ans: A DNA molecule has two strands in which the four complementary bases pair each other, i.e., cytosine (C) always pair with guanine (G) while thymine (T) always pairs with adenine (A). Thus, when a DNA molecule is hydrolysed, the molar amounts of cytosine is always equal to that of guanine and that of adenine is always equal to thymine.In RNA, there is no relationship between the quantities of four bases (C, G, A and U) obtained, therefore, the base pairing principle, i.e. A pairs with U and C pairs with G is not followed. Therefore, unlike DNA, RNA has a single strand.

NCERT EXRECISES

14.1. What are monosaccharides ?
Ans: Monosaccharides are carbohydrates Which cannot be hydrolysed to smaller molecules.Their general formula is (CH2O)n Where n=3-7 These are of two types: Those which contain an aldehyde group (-CHO) are called aldoses and those which contain a keto (C=O) group are called ketoses.
They are further classified as trioses , tetroses ,pentoses , hexoses and heptoses according as they contain 3,4,5,6, and 7 carbon atoms respectively.For example.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules-3

14.2. What are reducing sugars?
Ans: Reducing sugars are those which can act as reducing agents. They contain in them a reducing group which may be aldehydic (-CHO) or ketonic (>C=0) group. The characteristic reactions of reducing sugars are with Tollen’s reagent and Fehling solution. Non-reducing sugars donot give these reactions. For example, glucose, fructose, lactose etc. are reducing sugars. Sucrose is regarded as a non-reducing sugar because both glucose and fructose are linked through their aldehydic and ketonic groups by glycosidic linkage. Since these groups are not free, sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.

14.3. Write two main functions of carbohydrates in plants.
Ans: Two major functions of carbohydrates in plants are following
(a)Structural material for plant cell walls: The polysaccharide cellulose acts as the chief structural material of the plant cell walls.
(b)Reserve food material: The polysaccharide starch is the major reserve food material in the plants. It is stored in seeds and act as the reserve food material for the tiny plant till it is capable of making its own food by photosynthesis.

14.4. Classify the following into monosaccharides and disaccharides. Ribose, 2-deoxyribose, maltose, galactose, fructose and lactose.
Ans: Monosaccharides: Ribose, 2-deoxyribose, galactose and fructose. Disaccharides: Maltose and lactose.

14.5. What do you understand by the term glycosidic linkage?
Ans: The ethereal or oxide linkage through which two monosaccharide units are joined together by the loss of a water molecule to form a molecule of disaccharide is called the glycosidic linkage. The glycosidic linkage in maltpse molecule is shown below:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules-4

14.6. What is glycogen? How is it different from starch?
Ans: The carbohydrates are stored in animal body as glycogen. It is also called animal starch and its structure is similar toamylopectin which means that it is a branched chain polymer of α-D-glucose units in which the chain is formed by C1 – C4 glycosidic linkage whereas branching occurs by the formation of C1– C6 glycosidic linkage. One main difference between glycogen and amylopectin is the length of the chain. In amylopectin, the chain consists of 20 – 25 α – D – glucose molecules whereas in glycogen, there are 10 -14 molecules of α – D – glucose present. Glycogen is more branched than amylopectin. It is present mainly in liver, muscles and also in brain. Glycogen gets converted into glucose when the body needs it with the help of certain enzymes present in the body. Glycogen has also been found to be present in yeast and fungi.

Starch is a major source of carbohydrates which are very much essential to the human body since they supply energy to the body. It occurs as granules mainly in seeds, fruits, tubers and also in the roots of the plants. The chief commercial sources of starch are wheat, maize, rice, potatoes etc.

14.7. What are the hydrolysis products of (i) sucrose, and (ii) lactose?
Ans: Both sucrose and lactose are disaccharides. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives one molecule each of glucose and fructose but lactose on hydrolysis gives one molecule each of glucose and galactose.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules-5

14.8. What is the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose?
Ans: Starch consists of amylose and amylopectin. Amylose is a linear polymer of α-D-glucose while cellulose is a linear polymer of β -D- glucose. In amylose, C -1 of one glucose unit is connected to C – 4 of the other through α-glycosidic linkage. However in cellulose, C – 1 of one glucose unit is connected to C-4 of the other through β – glycosidic linkage. Amylopectin on the other hand has highly branched structure.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules-6

14.9. What happens when D-glucose is treated with . the following reagents.
(i) HI
(ii) Bromine water
(iii) HNO3

Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules-7

14.10. Enumerate the reactions of D-glucose which cannot be explained with open chain structure. (C.B.S.E. Delhi 2008, C.B.S.E. Sample Paper 2011)
Ans:
Open chain structure of D-glucose contains a free aldehydic group (- CHO). However, it does not give the following reactions:

  • D(+) glucose does not react with 2, 4 D.N.P.
  • D(+) glucose does not react with NaHSO3.
  • D(+) glucose does not restore the pink colour to Schiff’s reagent.
  • Penia acetyl glucose formed by carrying acetylation with acetic anhydride does not react with hydroxyl amine
    (NH2OH) which is the characteristic reaction of all aldehydes.
  • D( +) glucose is found to exist in two different crystalline forms which are named as α and β. Both these forms have actually been isolated. For example, α form with m.p. 419 K is obtained by the crystallisation of the saturated solution of glucose prepared at 303 K. Similarly, β-form with m.p. 423 K is isolated by carrying out the crystallisation of the saturated solution of glucose prepared at 371 K. Apart from that the a-form has a specific rotation (α) equal to + 112° while the β- form has specific rotation (α) equal to + 19°.

In the light of the limitations stated above, Tollen stated that an open chain structure for D(+) glucose is probably not practicable. He proposed a cyclic structure which is a hemiacetal structure. In this structure, the aldehydic (CHO) group
is involved in the form of a ring with the -OH group attached to C5 carbon. It is a six membered ring, often called ô-
oxide ring. The ring structure accounts for the two isomeric forms a and shown below.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry E10

14.11. What are essential and non-essential amino acids? Give two examples of each type.
Ans: α-Amino acids which are needed for good health and proper growth of human beings but are not synthesized by the human body are called- essential amino acids. For example, valine, leucine, phenylalanine, etc. On the other hand, α-amino acids which are needed for health and growth of human beings and are synthesized by the human body are called non-essential amino acids. For example, glycine, alanine, aspartic acid etc.

14.12. Define the following as related to proteins:
(i) Peptide linkage
(ii) Primary structure
(iii) Denaturation
Ans: (i) Peptide bond: Proteins are condensation polymers of α-amino acids in which the same or different α-amino acids are joined by peptide bonds. Chemically, a peptide bond is an amide linkage formed between – COOH group of one α-amino acid and -NH-, group of the other α-amino acid by lo;ss of a molecule of water. For example,
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules-8
(ii) Primary structure: Proteins may contain one or more polypeptide chains. Each . polypeptide chain has a large number of α-amino acids which are linked to one another in a specific manner. The specific sequence in which the various amino acids present in a protein linked to one another is called its primary structure. Any change in the sequence of α-amino acids creates a different protein.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules-9
(iii) Denaturation: Each protein in the biological system has a unique three-dimensional structure and has specific biologicalactivity. This is called native form of a protein. When a protein in its native form is subjected to a physical change such as change in temperature or a chemical change like change in pH, etc., hydrogen bonds gets broken. As a result, soluble forms of proteins such as globular proteins undergo coagulation or precipitation to give fibrous proteins which are insoluble in water. This coagulation also results in loss of biological activity of the proteins and this loss in biological activity, is called denaturation. During denaturation, 2° and 3° structures of proteins are destroyed but 1° structure remains intact.
The most common example of denaturation of proteins is the coagulation of albumin present in the white of an egg. When the egg is boiled hard, the soluble globular protein present in it is denatured and is converted into insoluble fibrous protein.

14.13. What are the common types of secondary structure of proteins?
Ans:
Secondary structure of protein refers to the shape in which a long polypeptide chain can exist. These are found to exist in two types :

  • α-helix structure
  • β-pleated sheet structure.

Secondary Structure of Proteins:
The long, flexible peptide chains of proteins are folded into the relatively rigid regular conformations called the
secondary structure. It refers to the conformation which the polvpeptide chains assume as a result of hydrogen bonding
between the > C= O and > N-H groups of different peptide bonds.
The type of secondary structure a protein will acquire, in general depends upon the size of the R-group. If the size of the
R-groups are quite large, the protein will acquire ct-helix structure. If on the other hand, the size of the R-groups are relatively
smaller, the protein will acquire a β – flat sheet structure.

(a) α-Helix structure: If the size of the R-groups are quite large, the hydrogen bonding occurs between > C = O group
of one amino acid unit and the > N-H group of the fourth amino acid unit within the same chain. As such the polypeptide
chain coils up into a spiral structure called right handed ct- helix structure. This type of structure is adopted by most of the
fibrous structural proteins such as those present in wool, hair and muscles. These proteins are elastic i.e., they can be
stretched. During this process, the weak hydrogen bonds causing the a – helix are broken. This tends to increase the length of
the helix like a spring. On releasing the tension, the hydrogen bonds are reformed, giving back the original helical shape.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry E13

(b) β—Flat sheet or β—Pleated sheet structure: If R-groups are relatively small, the peptide chains lie side by side in a zig
zag manner with alternate R-groups on the same side situated at fixed distances apart. The two such neighbouring chains are held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds. A number of such chains can be inter-bonded and this results in the formation of a flat sheet structure These chains may contract or bend a little in order to accommodate moderate sized R-groups. As a result, the sheet bends into parallel folds to form pleated sheet structure known as β – pleated sheet structure. These sheets are then stacked one above the other like the pages of a book to form a three dimensional structure. The protein fibrion in silk fibre has a β – pleated sheet structure. The characteristic mechanical properties of silk can easily be explained on the basis of its β – sheet structure. For example, silk is non-elastic since stretching leads to pulling the peptide covalent bonds. On the other hand, it can be bent easily like a stack of pages because during this process, the sheets slide over each other.

14.14. What types of bonding helps in stabilising the α-helix structure of proteins?
Ans: α-helix structure of proteins is stabilised through hydrogen bonding. (a) α -Helix structure. If the size of the R-groups are quite large, the hydrogen bonding occurs between > C = O group of one amino acid unit and the > N- H group of the fourth amino acid unit within the same chain. As such the polypeptide chain coils up into a spiral structure called right handed a—helix structure. This type of structure is adopted by most of the fibrous structural proteins such as those present in wool, hair and muscles. These proteins are elastic i.e., they can be stretched. During this process, the weak hydrogen bonds causing the α-helix are broken. This tends to increase the length of the helix like a spring. On releasing the tension, the hydrogen bonds are reformed, giving back the original helical shape.

14.15: Differentiate between globular and fibrous proteins.
Ans. (i) Fibrous proteins: These proteins consist of linear thread like molecules which tend to lie side by side (parallel) to form fibres. The polypeptide chains in them are held together usually at many points by hydrogen bonds and some disulphide bonds. As a result,intermolecular forces of attraction are very’ strong and hence fibrous proteins are insoluble in water. Further, these proteins are stable to moderate changes in temperature and pH. Fibrous proteins serve as the chief structural material of animal tissues.For example, keratin in skin, hair, nails and wool, collagen in tendons, fibrosis in silk and myosin in muscles.
(ii) Globular proteins: The polypeptide chain in these proteins is folded around itself in such a way so as to give the entire protein molecule an almost spheroidal shape. The folding takes place in such a manner that hydrophobic (non-polar) parts are pushed inwards and hydrophilic (polar) parts are pushed outwards. As a result, water molecules interact strongly with the polar groups and hence globular protein are water soluble. As compared to fibrous proteins, these are very sensitive to small changes of temperature and pH. This class of proteins include all enzymes, many hormones such as insulin from pancreas, thyroglobulin from thyroid gland, etc.

14.16. How do you explain the amphoteric behaviour of amino acids?
Ans: Amino acids contain an acidic (carboxyl group) and basic (amino group) group in the same molecule. In aqueous solution, they neutralize each other. The carboxyl group loses a proton while the amino group accepts it. As a result, a dipolar or zwitter ion is formed.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules-10
In zwitter ionjc form, a-amino acid show amphoteric behaviour as they react with both acids and bases.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules-11

14.17. What are enzymes?
Ans: Enzymes are biological catalyst. Each biological reaction requires a different enzyme. Thus, as compared to conventional catalyst enzymes are very specific and efficient in their action. Each type of enzyme has its own specific optimum conditions of concentration, pH and temperature at which it works best.

14.18. What is the effect of denaturation on the structure of proteins?
Ans: Denaturation of proteins is done either by change in temperature (upon heating) or by bringing a change in the pH of the medium. As a result, the hydrogen bonding is disturbed and the proteins lose their biological activity i.e., their nature changes. During the denaturation, both the tertiary and secondary structures of proteins are destroyed while the primary structures remain intact.

14.19. How are vitamins classified? Name the vitamin responsible for the coagulation of blood.
Ans: Vitamins are classified into two groups depending upon their solubility in water or fat: (i) Water soluble vitamins: These include vitamin B-complex (B1, B2, B5, i.e., nicotinic acid,B6, B12, pantothenic acid, biotin, i.e., vitamin H and folic acid) and vitamin C.
(ii) Fat soluble vitamins: These include vitamins A, D, E and K. They are stored in liver and adipose (fat storing) tissues. Vitamin K is responsible for coagulation of blood.

14.20. Why are vitamin A and vitamin C essential to us? Give their important sources.
Ans: Vitamin A is essential for us because its deficiency causes xerophthalmia (hardening of cornea of eye) and night blindness.
Sources: Fish liver oil, carrots, butter, milk, etc. Vitamin C is essential for us because its deficiency causes scurvy (bleeding of gums) and pyorrhea (loosening and bleeding of teeth). Sources: Citrous fruits, amla, green leafy vegetables etc.

14.21. What are nucleic acids ? Mention their two important functions.
Ans: Nucleic acids are biomolecules which are found in the nuclei of all living cell in form of nucleoproteins or chromosomes (proteins contains nucleic acids as the prosthetic group).
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules-12
Nucleic acids are of two types: deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid.(RNA).
The two main functions of nucleic acids are:
(a) DNA is responsible for transmission of hereditary effects from one generation to another. This is due to its unique property of replication, during cell division and two identical DNA strands are transferred to the daughter cells.
(b) DNA and RNA are responsible for synthesis of all proteins needed for the growth and maintenance of our body. Actually the proteins are synthesized by various RNA molecules (r-RNA, m-RNA) and t-RNA) in the cell but the message for the synthesis of a particular protein is coded in DNA.

14.22. What is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide?
Ans: A nucleoside contains only two basic components of nucleic acids i.e., a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base. It is formed when 1- position of pyrimidine (cytosine, thiamine or uracil) or 9-position of purine (guanine or adenine) base is attached to C -1 of sugar (ribose or deoxyribose) by a β-linkage. Nucleic acids are also called polynucleotides since the repeating structural unit of nucleic acids is a nucleotide.
A nucleotide contains all the three basic . components of nucleic acids, i.e., a phosphoric acid group, a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base. These are obtained by esterification of C5, – OH group of the pentose sugar by phosphoric acid.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules-13

14.23. The two strands in DNA are not identical but are complementary. Explain.
Ans: The two strands in DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds between purine base of one strand and pyrimidine base of the other and vice versa. Because of different sizes and geometries of the bases, the only possible pairing in DNA are G (guanine) and C (cytosine) through three H-bonds, (i.e.,C = G) and between A (adenine) and T (thiamine) through two H-bonds (i.e., A = T). Due to this base -pairing principle, the sequence of bases in one strand automatically fixes the sequence of bases in the other strand. Thus, the two strands are complimentary and not identical.

14.24. Write the important structural and functional differences between DNA and RNA.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules-14

14.25. What are the different types of RNA found in the cell?
Ans: There are three types of RNA:
(a) Ribosomal RNA (r RNA)
(b) Messenger RNA (m RNA)
(c) Transfer RNA (t RNA)

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers:

Section Name Topic Name
15 Polymers
15.1 Classification of Polymers
15.2 Types of Polymerisation Reactions
15.3 Molecular Mass of Polymers
15.4 Biodegradable Polymers
15.5 Polymers of Commercial Importance

NCERT INTEXT QUESTIONS

15.1. What are polymers?
Ans: Polymers are high molecular mass substances (103 — 107u) consisting of a very large number of simple repeating structural units joined together through covalent bonds in a linear fashion. They are also called macromolecules. Ex: polythene, nylon 6,6, bakelite, rubber, etc.

15.2. How are polymers classified on the basis of structure?
Ans: On the basis of structure, polymers are classified into three types. These are linear chain polymers, branched chain polymers and crossedlinkedpolymers.

1. Linear chain polymers: In this case, the monomer units are linked to one another to form long linear chains. These linear chains are placed one above the other and are closely packed in space. The close packing results in high densities, tensile strength and also high melting and boiling points. High density polyethene is a very common example of this type. Nylon, polyesters and PVC are also linear chain polymers.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry T2

2. Branched chain polymers: In this type of polymers, the monomer units are linked to form long chains which have also side chains or branched chains of different Lengths attached to them. As a result of branching, these polymers are not closely packed in space. They have low densities, low tensile strength as well as low melting and boiling points. Some common examples of such polymers are ; low density polyethene, amylopectin, starch, glycogen etc.

3. Cross: linked polymers. In these polymers, also called net—work polymers, the monomer units are linked together to form three dimensionaL net—work as shown in the figure. These are expected to be quite hard, rigid and brittle. Examples of cross linked polymers are bakelite, glyptal. melamine formaldehyde polymer etc.

15.3. Write the names of the monomers of the following polymers:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers-1
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers-2
Ans: (i) Hexamethylene diamine NH2-(CH2)6NH2 and adipic acid HOOC – (CH2)4 – COOH
(ii) Caprolactum
(iii) Tetrafluoroethene F2C = CF2

15.4. Classify the following as addition and condensation polymers:
Terylene, Bakelite, Polyvinyl chloride,Polythene
Ans: Addition polymers: Polyvinyl chloride, Polythene
Condensation polymers : Terylene, bakelite.

15.5. Explain the difference between Buna-N and Buna-S.
Ans: Both Buna-N and Buna-S are synthetic rubber and are co-polymers in nature. They differ in their constituents.
Buna-N: Constituents are : buta-1, 3-diene and acrylonitrile.
Buna-S: Constituents are : buta-1, 3-diene, and styrene. They condense in the presence of Na.

Buna – S: It is a co—polymer of 1. 3 – butadiene and styrene and is prepared by the polymerisation of these components in the
ratio of 3 : 1 in the presence of sodium.
byjus class 12 chemistry T5

Buna-N (Nitrile rubber):  h is a co-polymer of buta-1. 3-diene and acrylonitrile. It is formed as follows:
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry T5a

15.6. Arrange the following polymers in increasing order of their intermolecuiar forces.
(i) Nylon 6,6, Buna-S, Polythene
(ii) Nylon 6, Neoprene, Polyvinyl chloride
Ans: On the basis of intermolecuiar forces, polymers
are classified as elastomers, fibres and plastics. The increasing order of intermolecuiar forces is: Elastomer < Plastic < fibre.
Thus, we have
(i)Buns-S < Polythene < Nylon 6,6
(ii)Neoprene < Polyvinyl chloride < Nylon 6.

NCERT EXRECISES

15.1. Explain the terms polymer and monomer.
Ans: Polymers are high molecular mass substances consisting of a very large number of simple repeating structural units joined together through covalent bonds in a regular fashion. Polymers are also called macromolecules. Some examples are polythene, nylon-66, bakelite, rubber, etc. Monomers are the. simple and reactive molecules from which the polymers are prepared either by addition or condensation polymerisation. Some examples are ethene, vinyl chloride, acrylonitrile, phenol and formaldehyde etc.

15.2. What are natural and synthetic polymers ? Give two examples of each.
Ans:
1. Natural polymers: The polymers which occur in nature mostly in plants and animals are called natural polymers. A few common examples are starch, cellulose, proteins, rubber nucleic acids, etc. Among them, starch and cellulose are the polymers of glucose molecules. Proteins are formed from amino acids which may be linked in different ways. These have been discussed in detail in unit 15 on biomolecules. Natural rubber is yet another useful polymer which is obtained from the latex of the rubber tree. The monomer units are of the unsaturated hydrocarbon 2-methyl-i, 3-butadiene, also called isoprene.
Example of natural polymers: Natural rubber, cellulose, nucleic acids, proteins etc.

2. Synthetic polymers: The polymers which are prepared in the laboraroiy are called synthetic polymers. These are also called man made polymers and have been developed in the present century to meet the ever increasing demand of the modem civilisation.
Example of synthetic polymers: Dacron (or terylene), Bakelite, PVC, Nylon-66, Nylon-6 etc.

15.3. Distinguish between the terms homopolymer and copolymer and give an example of each.
Ans: Polymers whose repeating structural units are derived from only one type of monomer units are called homopolymers, e.g., PVC polyethene, PAN, teflon, polystyrene, nylon- 6 etc.
Polymers whose repeating structural units are derived from two or more types of monomer molecules are copolymers, e.g., Buna-S, Buna-N, nylon-66, polyester, bakelite.

15.4. How do you explain the functionality of a monomer?
Ans: Functionality of a monomer implies the number of bonding sites present in it. For example, monomers like propene, styrene, acrylonitrile have functionality of one which means that have one bonding site.
Monomers such as ethylene glycol, hexamethylenediamine, adipic acid have functionality of two which means that they have two bonding sites.

15.5. Define the term polymerisation?
Ans: It is a process of formation of a high molecular Sol. mass polymer from one or more monomers by linking together a large number of repeating structural units through covalent bonds.

15.6. Is (-NH — CHR—CO-)n a homopolymer or copolymer?
Ans: It is a homopolymer because the repeating structural unit has only one type of monomer, i.e., NH2—CHR—COOH.

15.7. In which classes, are the polymers classified on the basis of molecular forces?
Ans: Polymers are classified into four classes on the basis of molecular forces. These are:
elastomers, fibres, thermoplastic polymers and thermosetting polymers.

1. Elastomers: In these polymers, the intermolecular forces are the weakest. As a result, they can be readily stretched by applying small stress and regain their original shape when the stress is removed. The elasticity can be further increased by introducing some cross – links in the polymer chains. Natural rubber is the most popular example of elastomers. A few more examples are of: buna-S, buna-N and neoprene.

2. Fibres: Fibres represent a class of polymers which are thread-like and can be woven into fabrics in a number of ways. These are widely used for making clothes, nets, ropes, gauzes etc. Fibres possess high tensile strength because the chains possess strong intermolecular forces such as hydrogen bonding. These forces are also responsible for close packing of the chains. As a result, the fibres are crystalline in nature and have aJso sharp melting points. A few common polymers belonging to this class are nylon – 66, terylene and polyacrylonitrile etc.

3. Thermoplastics: These are linear polymers and have weak van der Waals forces acting in the various chains and are intermediate of the forces present in the elastomers and in the fibres. When heated, they melt and form a fluid which sets into a hard mass on cooling, Thus, they can be cast into different shapes by using suitable moulds. A few common examples are polyethene and polystyrene polyvinyls etc. These can be used for making toys, buckets, telephone apparatus, television cabinets etc.

4. Thermosetting plastics: These are normally semifluid substances with low molecular masses. When heated, they become hard and infusible due to the cross-linking between the polymer chains. As a result, they also become three dimensional in nature. They do not melt when heated. A few common thermosetting polymers are bakelite, melamine-formaldehyde, urea-formaldehyde and polyurethane etc.

15.8. How can you differentiate between addition and condensation polymerisatiop?
Ans: In addition polymerization, the molecules of the same or different monomers simply add on to one another leading to the formation of a macromolecules without elimination of small molecules like H2O, NH3 etc. Addition polymerization generally occurs among molecules containing double and triple bonds. For example, formation of polythene from ethene and neoprene from chloroprene, etc. In condensation polymerisation, two or more bifunctional trifimctional molecules undergo a series of independent condensation reactions usually with the elimination of simple molecules like water, alcohol, ammonia, carbon dioxide and hydrogen chloride to form a macromolecule. For example, nylon-6,6 is a condensation polymer of hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid formed by elimination of water molecules.

15.9. Explain the term copolymerisation and give two examples.
Ans: When two or more different monomers are allowed to polymerise together the product formed is called a copolymer, and the process in called copolymerisation. Example, Buna-S and Buna-N. Buna- S is a copolymer of 1, 3- butadiene and styrene while Buna-N is a copolymer of 1,3-butadiene and acrylonitrile.

15.10. Write the free radical mechanism for the polymerisation of ethene.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers-3
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers-4

15.11. Define thermoplastics and thermo setting polymers with two examples of each
Ans: Thermoplastics polymers are linear polymer which can be repeatedly melted and moulded again and again on heating without any change in chemical composition and mechanical strength. Examples are polythene and polypropylene.
Thermosetting polymers, on the other hand, are permanently setting polymers. Once on heating in a mould, they get hardened and set, and then cannot be softened again. This hardening on heating is due to cross- linking between different polymeric chains to give a three dimensional network solid. Examples are bakelite, melamine-foimaldehyde polymer etc.

15.12. Write the monomers used for gettingThe following polymers:
(i) Polyvinylchloride
(ii) Teflon (iii) Bakelite
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers-5

15.13. Write the name and structure of one of the common initiators used in free radical addition polymerisation.
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers-6

15.14. How does the presence of double bonds in rubber molecules influence their structure and reactivity?
Ans: Natural rubber is cis-polyisoprene and is obtained by 1, 4-polymerization of isoprene units. In this polymer, double bonds are located between C2 and C3 of each isoprene unit. These cis-double bonds do not allow the polymer chains to come closer for effective interactions and hence intermolecular forces are quite weak. As a result, natural rubber, i.e., cis-polyisoprene has a randomly coiled structure not the linear one and hence show elasticity.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers-7

15.15. Discuss the main purpose of vulcanisation of rubber.
Ans: Natural rubber has the following disadvantages:
(a) It is soft and sticky and becomes even more so at high temperatures and brittle at low temperatures. Therefore, rubber is generally used in a narrow temperature range (283-335 K) where its elasticity is maintained.
(b)It has large water absorption capacity, has low tensile strength and low resistance to abrasion.
(c)It is not resistant to the action of organic solvents.
(d)It is easily attacked by oxygen and other oxidising agents. .
To improve all these properties, natural rubber is vulcanised by heating it with about 5% sulphur at 373-415 K. The vulcanized rubber thus obtained has excellent elasticity over a larger range of temperature, has low water absorption tendency and is resistant to the action of organic solvents and oxidising agents.

15.16. What are the monomeric repeating units of Nylon-6 and Nylon 6,6?
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers-8

15.17. Write the names and structures of the monomers of the following polymers:
(i) Buna-S (ii) Buna-N (iii) Dacron (iv) Neoprene
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers-9

15.18. Identify the monomer in the following polymeric structures:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers-10
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers-11

15.19. How is dacron obtained from ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid?
Ans: Dacron is obtained by condensation polymerization of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid with the elimination of water molecules. The reaction is carried out at 420 – 460 K in presence of a catalyst consisting of a mixture of zinc acetate and antimony trioxide.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers-12

15.20. What is a biodegradable polymer ? Give an example of a biodegradable aliphatic polyester.
Ans: Polymers which disintegrate by themselves over a period of time due to environment degradation by bacteria, etc., are called biodegradable polymers. Example is PHBV, i. e., Poly-β-Hydroxybutyrate-co-β- Hydroxyvalerate.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers-13

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life:

Section Name Topic Name
16 Chemistry in Everyday Life
16.1 Drugs and their Classification
16.2 Drug-Target Interaction
16.3 Therapeutic Action of Different Classes of Drugs
16.4 Chemicals in Food
16.5 Cleansing Agents

NCERT INTEXT QUESTIONS

16.1. Sleeping pills are recommended by doctors to the patients suffering from sleeplessness but it is not advisable to take its doses without consultation with the doctor. Why?
Ans: Most of drugs taken in doses higher than recommended may produce harmful effects and act as poison and cause even death. Therefore, a doctor must always be consulted before taking the drug.

16.2. “Ranitidine is an antacid” With reference to which classification, has this statement been given?
Ans: Ranitidine is labelled as antacid since it is quite effective in neutralising the excess of acidity in the stomach. It is sold in the market under the trade name Zintac.

16.3. Why do we require artificial sweetening agents?
Ans: To reduce calorie intake and to protect teeth from decaying, we need artificial sweeteners.

16.4. Write the chemical equation for preparing sodium soap from glyceryl oleate and glyceryl palmitate. Structures of these compounds are given below:
(i) (C15H31COO)3C3H5-Glyceryl palmitate
(ii) (C17H32COO)3C3H5-Glyceryl oleate
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life-1
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life-2

16.5. Following type of non-ionic detergents are present in liquid detergents, emulsifying agents and wetting agents. Label the hydrophilic and hydrophobic part in the molecule. Identify the functional group (s) present in the molecule.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life-3
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life-4
Functional groups present in the detergent molecule are:
(i)ether
(ii)1°alcoholic group

NCERT EXRECISES

16.1. Why do we need to classify drugs in different ways?
Ans: Drugs are classified in following different ways:
(a) Based on pharmacological effect.
(b) Based on action on a particular biochemical process.
(c) Based on chemical structure.
(d) Based on molecular targets.
Each classification has its own usefulness.
(а) Classification based on pharmacological effect is useful for doctors because it provides them the whole range of drugs available for the treatment of a particular disease.
(b) Classification based on action on a particular biochemical proc*ess is useful for choosing the correct compound for designing the synthesis of a desired drug.
(c) Classification based on chemical structure helps us to design the synthesis of a number of structurally similar compounds having different substituents and then choosing the drug having least toxicity.
(d) Classification on the basis of molecular targets is useful for medical chemists so that they can design a drug which is most effective for a particular receptor site.

16.2. Explain the following as used in medicinal chemistry
(a) Lead compounds
(b) Target molecules or drug targets.

Ans:
(a) Lead compounds are the compounds which are effective in different drugs. They have specific chemical formulas and may be extracted either from natural sources (plants and animals) or may be synthesised in the laboratory.

(b) Target molecules or drug targets. An enzyme (E) functions by combining with the reactant (called substrate) denoted as ‘S’ to form an activated complex known as enzyme-substrate complex (E-S). The complex dissociates to form product and releases the enzyme for carrying out further activity.
NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Every Day Life e2

16.3. Name the macro molecules that are chosen as drug targets.
Ans: Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids and nucleic acids are chosen as drug targets.

16.4. Why the medicines should not be taken without consulting doctors?
Ans: No doubt medicines are panacea for most of the body ailments. But their wrong choice and overdose can cause havoc and may even prove to be fatal. Therefore, it is of utmost importance that the medicines should not be given without consulting doctors.

16.5. Define the term chemotherapy.
Ans: It is the branch of chemistry that deals with the treatment of diseases by using chemicals as medicines.

16.6. Which forces are involved in holding the drugs to the active site of enzymes?
Ans: The following forces are involved in holding the drugs to the active site of enzymes:
(a) Hydrogen bonding
(b) Ionic bonding
(c) Dipole-dipole interactions
(d) van der Waals interactions

16.7. Antacids and antiallergic drugs interfere with the function of histamines but do not interfere with the function of each other. Explain.
Ans: They donot interfere with the functioning of each other because they work on different receptors in the body.Histamine stimulates the secretion of pepsin and hydrochloric acid in the stomach. The drug cimetidine (antacid) was designed to prevent the interaction of histamine with the receptors present in the stomach wall. This resulted in release of lesser amount of acid. Antacid and antiallergic drugs work on different receptors.

16.8. Low level of noradrenaline is the cause of depression. What type of drugs are needed to cure this problem? Name two drugs.
Ans: In case of low level of neurotransmitter, . noradrenaline, tranquilizer (antidepressant) drugs are required because low levels of noradrenaline leads to depression. These drugs inhibit the enzymes which catalyse the degradation of noradrenaline. If the enzyme is inhibited, noradrenaline is slowly metabolized and can activate its receptor for longer periods of time thereby reducing depression. Two important drugs are iproniazid and phenylzine.

16.9. What is meant by the term broad spectrum antibiotics? Explain.
Ans: Broad spectrum antibiotics are effective against several different types or wide range of harmful bacteria. For example, tetracycline, chloramphenicol and of loxacin. Chloramphenicol can be used in case of typhoid, dysentry, acute fever, urinary infections, meningitis and pneumonia.

16.10. How do antiseptics differ from disinfectants ? Give one example of each.
Ans: Many times, the same substance can act as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant by changing the concentration of the solution used. For example, a 0.2 per cent solution of phenol acts as an antiseptic and its 1 percent solution is a disinfectant. Chlorine is used in India for making water fit for drinking at a concentration of 0.2 to 0.4 ppm (parts per million). Low concentration of sulphur dioxide is used for sterilizing squashes for preservation. A few points of distinction between antiseptics and disinfectants are listed.

Antiseptics Disinfectants
1. Can kill or prevent the growth of micro-organisms. 1.Can kill micro-organisms.
2. Do not harm the living tissues. Therefore, these can be applied to the skin. 2. Toxic to the living tissues. Therefore, these cannot be applied to the skin.
3. These are used for the dressing of wounds, ulcers and in the treatment of diseased skin. 3. These are used for disinfecting floors, toilets, drains, instruments etc.

16.11. Why are cimetidine and ranitidine better antacids than sodium hydrogencarbonate or magnesium or aluminium hydroxide?
Ans: If excess of NaHCO3 or Mg(OH)2 or Al(OH)3 is used, it makes the stomach alkaline and thus triggers the release of even more HCl which may cause ulcer in the stomach. In contrast, cimetidine and ranitidine prevent the interaction of histamine with the receptor cells in the stomach wall and thus release of HCl will be less as histamine stimulates the secretion of acid.

16.12. Name a substance which can be used as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant.
Ans: 0.2% solution of phenol acts as antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant.

16.13. What are the main constituents of dettol?
Ans: Chloroxylenol .and α-terpineol in a suitable solvent.
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life-5

16.14. What is tincture of iodine? What is its use?
Ans: 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol and water is called tincture of iodine. It is a powerful antiseptic. It is applied on wounds.

16.15. What are food preservatives?
Ans: Preservation has a major role in the food products. Chemically preserved squashes and crushes can be kept for a fairly long time even after opening the seal of bottle.
A preservative may be defined as the substance which is capable of inhibiting or arresting the process of fermentation, acidification or any other decomposition of food. Salting i.e. addition of table salt is a well known method for food preservation and was applied in ancient times for preserving raw mangoes, tamarind, meat, fish etc. Sugar syrup can also act as a preservative. Vinegar is a useful preservative for pickles. Apart from these, sulphur dioxide and benzoic acid can be employed for the preservation of food. The major source of sulphur dioxide is potassium metabisulphite (K2S2O5). It is fairly stable in neutral and alkaline medium but gets decomposed by weak acids such as carbonic, citric, tartane and malic acids. Benzoic acid is used either as such or in the form of sodium benzoate. However, sulphur dioxide has a better preservative action than sodium benzoate against bacteria and moulds. It also retards the development of yeast in juice but fails to arrest their multiplication once the number has reached a high value. Sorne salts of sorbic acid and propionic acid are also being used these days for the preservation of the food.
The use of preservatives must be properly controlled as their indiscriminate use is likely to be harmful. The preservative should not be injurious to health and should be also non-irritant.

16.16. Why is the use of aspartame limited to cold foods and drinks?
Ans: This is because it decomposes at baking or cooking temperatures and hence can be used only in cold foods and drinks as an artificial sweetener

16.17. What are artificial sweetening agents? Give two examples.
Ans: Artificial sweeteners are chemical substances which are sweet in taste but do not add any calories to our body. They are excreted as such through urine. For example, saccharin, aspartame, alitame etc.

16.18. Name the sweetening agent used in the preparation of sweets for a diabetic patient.
Ans: Saccharine, aspartame or alitame may be used in the preparation of sweets for a diabetic patient.

16.19. What problem arises in using alitame as artificial sweetener?
Ans: Alitame is a high potency artificial sweetener.Therefore, it is difficult to control the sweetness of the food to which it is added.

16.20. How are synthetic detergents better than soaps?
Ans: They can be used in hard water as well as in acidic solution. The reason being that sulphonic acids and their calcium and magnesium salts are soluble in water thus they do not form curdy white precipitate with hard water but the fatty acids and their calcium and magnesium salts of soaps are insoluble. Detergents also works in slightly acidic solution due to formation of soluble alkyl hydrogen sulphates. Soaps react with acidic solution to form insoluble fatty acids.

16.21. Explain the following terms with suitable examples:
(i) cationic detergents (ii) anionic detergents and (iii) non-ionic detergents
Ans: (i) Cationic detergents: These are quaternary ammonium salts, chlorides, acetates, bromides etc containing one or more long chain alkyl groups. For example, cetyltrimethyl ammonium chloride.
(ii) Anionic detergents are called so because a large part of their molecules are anions. ‘These are of two types:
(a) Sodium alkyl sulphates: For example, sodium lauryl sulphate, C11H23CH2OSO3 Na+.
(b) Sodium alkylbenzenesulphonates.Vor example, sodium 4-(l-dodecyl) benzenesu Iphphonate (SDS).
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life-6
(iii) Neutral or non-ionic detergents: These are esters of high molecular mass alcohols with fatty acids. These can also be obtained by treatment of long chain alcohols by with excess of ethylene oxide in presence of a base. For example, polyethylene glycol stearate,CH3(CH2)16COO (CH2CH2O)11 CH2CH2OH Polyethylene glycol stearate.

16.22. What are biodegradable and non-biodegradable detergents? Give one example of each.
Ans: Detergents having straight chain hydrocarbons are easily degraded (or decomposed) by microorganisms and hence are called biodegradable detergents while detergents containing branched hydrocarbon chains are not easily degraded by the microorganisms find hence are called non-biodegradable detergents. Consequently, non-biodegradable detergents accumulate in rivers and water ways thereby causing severe water pollution. Examples of biodegradable detergents are sodium lauryl sulphate, sodium 4-(-l-dodecyl) benzenesulphonate and sodium 4-(2-dodecyl) benzenesulphonate.
Examples of non-biodegradable detergents is sodium 4-(1, 3,5,7 – tetramethyloctyl) benzene sulphonate.

16.23. Why do soaps not work in hard water? (C.B.S.E. Outside Delhi 2009, 2011)
Ans: Soaps are water soluble sodium or potassium salts of higher fatty acids like palmitic acid (C15H31COOH), oleic acid (C17H33COOH) and stearic acid (C17H35COOH). Hard water contains certain calcium and magnesium salts which combine with soaps to form corresponding magnesium compounds. These being insoluble, get separated as curdy white precipitates resulting in wastage of soap.

16.24. Can you use soaps and synthetic detergents to check the hardness of water?
Ans: Soaps get precipitated as insoluble calcium and magnesium soaps in hard water but detergents do not. Therefore, soaps but not synthetic detergents can be used to check the hardness of water.

16.25. Explain the cleansing action of soaps.
Ans: Cleansing action of soaps : Soaps contain two parts, a large hydrocarbon which is a hydrophobic (water repelling) and a negative charged head, which is hydrophillic (water attracting). In solution water molecules being polar in nature, surround the ions & not the organic part of the molecule. When a soap is dissolved in water the molecules gather together as clusters, called micelles. The tails stick inwards & the head outwards. The hydrocarbon tail attaches itself to oily dirt. When water is agitated, the oily dirt tends to lift off from the dirty surface & dissociates into fragments. The solution now contains small globules of oil surrounded detergent molecules. The negatively charged heads present in water prevent the small globules from coming together and form aggregates. Thus the oily dirt is removed from the object.

16.26. If water contains dissolved calcium hydrogencarbonate, out of soaps and synthetic detergents, which one will you use for cleaning clothes?
Ans: Calcium hydrogencarbonate makes water hard. Therefore, soap cannot be used because it gets precipitated in hard water. On the other hand, a synthetic detergent does not precipitate in hard water because its calcium salt is also soluble in water. Therefore, synthetic detergents can be used for cleaning clothes in hard water.

16.27. Label the hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts in the following compounds.
(i)cCH3(CH2)10CH2OSO3 Na+
(ii) CH3(CH2)15 -N+(CH3)3Br
(iii) CH3(CH2)16C00(CH2CH2O)11CH2CH2OH
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life-7

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Reproduction in Organisms

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Reproduction in Organisms

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms:

Section Name Topic Name
1 Reproduction in Organisms
1.1 Asexual Reproduction
1.2 Sexual Reproduction
1.3 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. Why is reproduction essential for organisms?
Ans: Reproduction is the ability of living organisms to produce a young one similar to itself. It ensures continuity of a species generation after generation. Reproduction introduces variation in the organisms. Useful variations are essential for adaptation and evolution. Therefore, it is essential for organisms.

2. Which is a better mode of reproduction sexual or asexual? Why?
Ans: Sexual reproduction is a better mode of reproduction because of the following reasons:

  1. Variation : Since fusion of gametes from different parents occur during sexual reproduction, hence genetic recombination takes place causing variations.
  2. Evolution : Variation being a major factor of natural selection, therefore, it plays an important role in evolution.
  3. Adaptation : The offspring produced due to sexual reproduction adapt better to the changing environmental conditions.
  4. Vigour and Vitality : Genetic recombination, interaction, etc. during sexual reproduction provide vigour and vitality to the offspring.

3. Why is the offspring formed by asexual reproduction referred to as clone?
Ans: Asexual reproduction is a type of reproduction in which a single individual is capable of producing offspring. These offspring are not only genetically and morphologically similar to one another but also similar to their parent. Clone is the term given to individuals that are genetically and morphologically similar. Thus the offspring produced by asexual reproduction are called clones.

4. Offsprings formed due to sexual reproduction have better chances of survival. Why? Is this statement always true?
Ans: The offsprings obtained from sexual reproduction have better chances of survival because the genetic material of such organisms are formed from both the parents. Daughter organisms/offsprings show variation that leads to the evolution of species.

This statement is always true. The offspring produced due to sexual reproduction adapt better to the changing environmental conditions. Genetic recombination, interaction, etc. during sexual reproduction provide vigour and vitality to the offspring.

5. How does the progeny formed from asexual reproduction differ from those formed by sexual reproduction?
Ans: Production of offspring by a single parent without the formation and fiision of gametes is called asexual reproduction. It involves only mitotic cell division that gives rise the daughter cells which are genetically identical to the parent cell. Sexual reproduction is the production of offspring by two parents, male and female. It involves meiotic cell divisions producing haploid nuclei which on fusion produce offspring that are genetically different from their parents.

6. Distinguish between asexual and sexual reproduction. Why is vegetative reproduction also considered as a type of asexual reproduction?
Ans: The difference between asexual and sexual reproduction are as follows :
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-reproduction-in-organisms-1
In plants asexual reproduction is called vegetative reproduction because vegetative plant parts like rhizome, runner, sucker, tuber, bulb all are capable of producing off springs These parts give rise to daughter individuals without the involvement of two parents.

7. What is vegetative propagation? Give two suitable examples.
Ans: Vegetative propagation is the formation of new plants from vegetative units. In plants, the units of vegetative propagation are runner, rhizome, sucker, tuber, offset, bulb, etc. These are capable of producing new offsprings. These structures are called v vegetative propagules.

Modified tuberous roots of sweet potato, tapioca, yam, Dahlia and Tinospora can be propagated vegetatively when planted in soil. Small plants emerging from the buds (called eyes) of the potato tuber, from the rhizomes of banana and ginger are other examples.

8. Define:
(a)Juvenile phase
(b)Reproductive phase
(c)Senescent phase.
Ans: (a)Juvenile phase : All organisms have to reach a certain stage of growth and maturity in their life before they can reproduce sexually. That period of growth is called juvenile phase. However, this phase is known as vegetative phase in plants. This phase is of different durations in different organisms.
(b)Reproductive phase: The end of juvenile/ vegetative phase marks the beginning of reproductive phase. During this phase, the organisms produce offspring. In higher plants, this phase can be easily seen when they come to flower but in animals, the juvenile phase is followed by morphological and physiological changes prior to active reproductive behaviour. The reproductive phase is also of variable period in different organisms like some plants, flower throughout the year while others show seasonal flowering. In animals like birds lay eggs seasonally “but when in captivity (as in poultry farms) can be made to lay eggs throughout the year. Placental female mammals, undergo cyclical changes in reproductive organs during this phase.
(c) Senescent phase: It begins from the end of the reproductive phase. During this phase of life span, there is progressive deterioration in the body (like slowing of metabolism, etc.). Old age ultimately leads to death.

9. Higher organisms have resorted to sexual reproduction in spite of its complexity. Why?
Ans: Higher organisms have resorted to sexual reproduction in spite of its complexity because sexual reproduction results in multiplication and perpetuation of species and also contributes to evolution of species by introducing variation much more faster than asexual reproduction in a particular population. Sexual reproduction enables higher organisms to survive during unfavourable conditions.

10. Explain why meiosis and gametogenesis are always interlinked?
Ans: Gametogenesis is the process of formation of two types of haploid gametes (male and female). In gametogenesis, gametes are haploid in number and formed by meiosis so the chromosome number is haploid. Thus gametogenesis is always linked with meiosis.

11. Identify each part in a flowering plant and write whether it is haploid (n) or diploid (2n).
(a)Ovary ————————
(b)Anther ————————
(c)Egg ————————
(d)Pollen ————————
(e)Male gamete ————————
(f)Zygote ————————
Ans: (a)2n (b)2n (c)n (d)n (e)n (f)2n

12. Define external fertilization. Mention its disadvantages.
Ans: When fusion of the gametes takes place outside the body of the organisms, it is called external fertilization or external syngamy. The external medium like water is required for this form of fertilization. This form, is found in many aquatic animals like fishes, amphibians, majority of algae.
In this, parents release eggs and sperms in the surrounding water, then fertilization and development of offspring occur externally. Disadvantages of external fertilization:
(i)if occurs only in aquatic medium.
(ii)A chance factor is involved requiring synchronous release of gametes nearby and absence of turbulence of water.
(iii)There is no protection to young ones. They are vulnerable to a number of predators.

13. Differentiate between a zoospore and a zygote.
Ans: The zoospore is flagellated, motile, haploid or diploid spore formed inside a zoosporangium. It is the result of asexual reproduction.

The zygote is always diploid and formed by the fusion of gametes. It is usually non- flagellated and non-motile or motile. It is the net result of sexual reproduction.

14. Differentiate between gametogenesis from embryogenesis.
Ans: Differences between gametogenesis and embryogenesis are as follows :
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-reproduction-in-organisms-2

15. Describe the post-fertilization changes in a flower.
Ans: In sexual reproduction, events that occur after the formation of zygote are called post-fertilization events. In flowering plants, the zygote is formed inside the ovule. After fertilization the sepals, petals and stamens of the flower wither and fall off. But the pistil remains attached to the plant. The zygote develops into the embryo and the ovules develop into the seed. The ovary develops into die fruit that develops.a thick wall called pericarp which is protective in – function. After dispersal, seeds germinate under favourable conditions to produce new plants.

16. What is % bisexual flower? Collect five bisexual flowers from your neighbourhood and with the help of your teacher find out their common and scientific names.
Ans: Flowers in which male and female sex organs (stamens and carpels) are borne on the same flowers are called bisexual flowers. You can observe following bisexual flowers in your kitchen and colony gardens :
(i)Brassica (sarson) – Brassica campestris
(ii)Onion – Allium cepa
(iii)Garden Pea (Edible pea) – Pisum sativum
(iv)Petunia – Petunia hybrida
(v)China rose (shoe flower) – Hibiscus rosa- sinensis.

17. Examine a few flowers of any cucurbit plant and try to identify the staminate and pistillate flowers. Do you know any other plant that bears unisexual flowers?
Ans: The male or staminate flowers of cucurbits bear bright coloured petals and a prominent group of stamens. Male plants or staminate flowers do not bear fruits. The female or pistillate flowers bear fruits. In a fertilised young pistillate flower very small fruit is visible below petals and sepals. Some unisexual plants are : Papaya, Mulberry and Date-palm.

18. Why are offspring of oviparous animals at a greater risk as compared to offspring of viviparous animals?
Ans: On the basis of the development of the zygote, animals are grouped into oviparous and viviparous. The oviparous animals such as reptiles and birds lay eggs. Their fertilised eggs are covered by hard calcareous shell and are laid in a safe place in the environment. After incubation period, young ones hatch out. In viviparous animals such as majority of mammals including human beings, the zygote develops into a young one inside the body of the female individual. After a certain growth period, the young ones are delivered by the female individual. Due to proper care and protection, the chances of survival of young ones are more in viviparous individuals. Oviparous offsprings are at a greater risk than viviparous ones.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants:

Section Name Topic Name
2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
2.1 Flower – A Fascinating Organ of Angiosperms
2.2 Pre-fertilisation : Structures and Events
2.3 Double Fertilisation
2.4 Post-fertilisation: Structures and Events
2.5 Apomixis and Polyembryony
2.6 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. Name the parts of anangiosperm flower in which development of male and female gametophytes take place.
Ans: Development of male gametophyte (micro- gametogenesis) occurs in pollen sac of anther up to 2 – celled stage. The female gametophyte develops (megagametogenesis) in the nucellus of ovule.

2. Differentiate between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis. Which type of cell division occurs during these events? Name the structures formed at the end of these two events?
Ans: Differences between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis are as follows –
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-sexual-reproduction-in-flowering-plants-1
Each microspore mother cell and megaspore mother cell contain two sets of chromosomes and are therefore diploid. The diploid megaspore mother cell and microspore mother cell enlarges and undergo meiosis to produce, four haploid cells called megaspores and microspores respectively.The chromosome number is reduced by half and therefore megaspores and microspores are haploid.
Microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis give rise to pollen grains and embryo sac respectively. Pollen grain is the male gametophyte and embryo sac represents the female gametophyte.

3. Arrange the following terms in the correct development sequence: Pollen grain, sporogenous tissue, microspore tetrad, pollen mother cell, male gametes.
Ans: The correct developmental sequence for the formation of male gametes is :
Sporogenous tissue —» Pollen mother cell —» Microspore tetrad —» Pollen grain —» Male gametes.

4. With a neat, labelled diagram, describe the parts of a typical angiosperm ovule.
Ans:
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-sexual-reproduction-in-flowering-plants-2
A typical angiospermic ovule is a small structure which is formed in the ovary. Ovule first develops as a projection on the placenta and composed of multilayered cellular tissue called the nucellus. The hypodermal cell of die nucellus enlarges and transformed into megaspore mother cell. This cell undergoes meiosis to produce four haploid cells only one of which develops & forms embryo sac (female gametophyte). An ovule may be surrounded by one or two protective layers called integuments, leaving a small opening at one end termed as micropyle which acts as passage for the entry of the pollen tube into the ovule. Thus, a typical ovule consists of a fully developed embryo sac with the nucellus and integuments.

5. What is meant by monosporic development of female gametophyte?
Ans: In majority of flowering plants one of the megaspores is functional while the other three degenerate. Only the functional megaspore develops into the female gametophyte or embryo sac. This method of development of embryo sac from a single megaspore is called monosporic development.

6. With a neat diagram explain the 7-celled, 8- nucleate nature of the female gametophyte.
Ans:
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-sexual-reproduction-in-flowering-plants-3
Embryo sac (or female gametophyte) is formed by three successive mitotic divisions that take place in the nucleus of megaspore.
The nucleus of the functional megaspore divides meiotically to form two nuclei which move to the opposite poles, forming the 2-nucleate embryo sac. Two more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions result in the formation of the 4-nucleate and later the 8-nucleate stages of the embryo sac. After the 8-nucleate stage, cell walls are laid down leading to the organisation of the typical female gametophyte or embryo sac. Six of the eight nuclei are grouped together at micropylar and chalazal end and form the egg apparatus and antipodals respectively. The large central cell left over with two polar nuclei. Thus, a typical female gametophyte consists of 7 cells with 8 nucleus.

7. What are chasmogamous flowers? Can cross-pollination occur in deistogamous flowers? Give reasons for your answer
Ans: Chasmogamous flowers are those flowers which are open with exposed anther and stigma.

Cleistogamous flowers are those flowers which do not open at all. In these flowers, the anthers and stigma lie close to each other, when anthers dehisce in the flower buds, the pollen grains come in the contact with stigma to effect pollination. So these flowers are invariably self-pollinated as the flowers remain closed and there is no chance of cross pollen landing on the stigma. Pollination and seed setting are assured even in the absence of pollinators

8. Mention two strategies evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers.
Ans: Continued self-pollination decreases the vigour and vitality of a particular race. Thus, flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self-pollination and to encourage cross-pollination.
Dichogamy and self-sterility are.two most common devices that ensure cross-pollination. Dichogamy – Maturation of anther and stigma at different times in a bisexual flower prevent self-pollination.
Self-sterility (or self-incompatibility) – Due to the presence of self-sterile gene in some flowers, pollen grains do not germinate on the stigma of that flowers. e.g.,- tobacco, potato.

9. What is self-incompatiblility? Why does self-pollination not lead to seed formation in self-incompatible species?
Ans: If a pistil carrying functional female gametes fails to set seeds following pollination with viable and fertile pollen, capable of bringing about fertilisation in another pistil, the two are said to be incompatible, and the phenomenon is known as sexual incompatibility. Sexual incompatibility may be interspecific (between individuals of different species) or intraspecific (between individuals of the same species). The latter is also called self-incompatibility. Self-incompatibility is a gene-physiological process. Incompatibility reactions are controlled by a single gene, called S-gene, which has several alleles. Pollen grains that possess the S-allele common to any one of the two alleles present in the cells of the pistil, will not be functional on that particular pistil. However, every pollen grain having no common S alleles with pistil would be functional on the pistil of a that plant. As self pollens are unable to fertilise the egg to form pmbryo, hence seeds are not formed in self-incompatible species.

10. What is bagging technique? How is it useful in a plant breeding programme?
Ans: It is the covering of emasculated flowers (removal of anthers in bud condition from a bisexual flower by a bag of butter paper or polythene in their bud condition i.e., before anthesis) to prevent contamination of its stigmas with unwanted pollens. When the stigmas of emasculated flowers mature the bags are removed, stigmas are dusted with pollen grains of desired male . plants by means of a presterilized brush and flowers are rebagged till fruit develop. This technique is mainly used in artificial hybridization. Plant breeders often use this technique to prevent the contamination of stigma of the flowers from unwanted pollen grains.

11. What b triple fusion? Where and how does it take place? Name the nuclei involved in triple fusion.
Ans: Fusion of second male gamete with die two polar nuclei located in the central cell to form the triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) is called triple fusion or vegetative fertilization. This process takes place in the embryo sac. After reaching the ovary, pollen tube enters into the embryo sac from the micropylar end. After penetration, the tip of the pollen tube ruptures releasing the two male gametes. The one male gamete fuses with the egg to form the diploid zygote. This process is called syngamy and the other male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei to form the triploid primary endosperm & this process is known as triple fusion. These two events of fertilization constitute the process of double fertilization.

12.Why do you think the zygote is dormant for sometime in a fertiUsed ovule?
Ans: The zygote after a period of rest develops into embryo. Most zygotes remain dormant till certain amount of endosperm forms. They do so, to provide assured nutrition to the developing embryo.

13. Differentiate between:
(a)hy pocotyl and epicotyl;
(b)coleoptile and coleorrhiza;
(c)integument and testa;
(d)perisperm and pericarp.
Ans:
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-sexual-reproduction-in-flowering-plants-4
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-sexual-reproduction-in-flowering-plants-5

14. Why is apple called a false fruit? Which Part(s) of the flower forms the fruit?
Ans: Botanically ripened ovary is called a true fruit. The fruits in which thalamus and other floral parts develop along with the ovary are called false fruits. For example – apple, strawberry, cashew etc. In apple the main edible portion of the fruit is the fleshy thalamus. Ovary forms the fruit after fertilization or without fertilization in parthenocarpic fruits.

15. What is meant by emasculation? When and why does a plant breeder employ this technique?
Ans: Removal of stamens or anthers of a bisexual flower without affecting the female reproductive organs is called emasculation. This technique is used in artificial hybridisation. In such crossing experiments it is important to make sure that only the desired pollen grains are used for pollination and the stigma is protected from contamination from unwanted pollens. This is achieved by emasculation and bagging technique. This technique is used to obtain desired variety of seeds.

16. If one can induce parthenocarpy through the application of growth substances, which fruits would you select to induce parthenocarpy and why?
Ans: Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless. They develop from ovary without fertilization. Banana, grapes, oranges, Pineapple, Guava, Watermelon, lemon are selected because these seedless of units are of high economic importance. The fruits in which seeds or seed part form edible portion (e.g.,Pomegranate) are not selected to induce parthenocarpy.

17. Explain the role of tapetum in the formation of pollen grain wall.
Ans: Tapetum is the innermost wall layer of anther. The cells of this layer have large nuclei and dense cytoplasm. This layer is of great physiological importance as most of the food material from outside passes through this layer. At maturity, these cells degenerate and provide nourishment to developing microspores or pollens inside. Tapetum is the layer, which secretes both enzymes and substances of hormonal nature.
The main function of tapetum is to provide nutrition to pollens but it also secretes some substances of utmost importance like :

  • Qallase enzyme : Tapetum secretes callase enzyme which dissolves callose substances by which four pollens of a pollen tetrad are united, hence separating microspores or pollens of a tetrad.
  • Ubisch bodies : These bodies of lipid nature are also secreted by tapetum. Ubisch bodies get covered with sporopollenin and thus increase thickness of exine (i.e., outer layer of pollen wall). Ubisch bodies are spheroidal and have diameter of only few microns. These are produced only by glandular tapetum (not by amoeboid tapetum).
  • Pollen kit substances : Tapetum also secretes pollen kit, outer most oily, thick, viscous, sticky, electron dense homogeneous coating of pollen grains of many entomophilous plants.

18. What is apomixis and what is its importance?
Ans: Apomixis is a mode of asexual reproduction that produces seeds without fertilization, e.g.- some species of Asteraceae and Grasses. This method is important in hybrid seed industry. Hybrids are extensively cultivated for increasing productivity. But the main drawback is that the hybrid seeds are to be produce every year because the seeds of the hybrid plants da not maintain hybrid characters for longer period due to segregation of characters. This can be avoided if apomixis can be introduced in hybrid seeds. For this reason scientists are trying hard to identify genes for apomixis.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Human Reproduction

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Human Reproduction

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction:

Section Name Topic Name
3 Human Reproduction
3.1 The Male Reproductive System
3.2 The Female Reproductive System
3.3 Gametogenesis
3.4 Menstrual Cycle
3.5 Fertilisation and Implantation
3.6 Pregnancy and Embryonic Development
3.7 Parturition and Lactation
3.8 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a)Humans reproduce————— (asexually/sexually).
(b)Humans are————— (oviparous, viviparous,ovoviviparous).
(c)Fertilization is————— in humans (external/internal).
(d)Male and female gametes are—————(diploid/haploid).
(e)Zygote is————— (diploid/haploid).
(f)The process of release of ovum from a mature follicle is called————— .
(g)Ovulation is induced by a hormone called—————
(h)The fusion of male and female gametes is called————— .
(i)Fertilization takes place in—————
(j)Zygote divides to form————— which is implanted in uterus.
(k)The structure which provides vascular connection between foetus and uterus is called————— .
Ans: (a) sexually
(b) viviparous
(c) internal
(d)haploid
(e)diploid
(f)ovulation
(g)LH (Luteinizing hormone)
(h)fertilization
(i)ampullary-isthmic junction (fallopian tube)
(j)blastocyst
(k)placenta (Umbilical cord)

2. Draw a labelled diagram of male reproductive system.
Ans:
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-human-reproduction-1

3. Draw a labelled diagram of female reproductive system.
Ans:
byjus class 12 biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 3

4. Write two major functions each of testis and ovary.
Ans: Testes are components of both the reproductive system (being gonads) and the endocrine system (being endocrine glands). The respective functions of the testes are – producing sperm (spermatozoa) by the process of spermatogenesis and producing male sex hormones, of which testosterone is the best-known. Testosterone stimulates development of testes and of male secondary sexual characteristics.

The ovaries have two major functions. One is the production of eggs or ova, and the second is the production of hormones or chemicals which regulate menstruation and other aspects of health and well-being, including sexual well-being. Estrogen and progesterone are the most important hormones which serve many functions like, they induce and maintain the physical changes during puberty and the secondary sex characteristics and they support maturation of the uterine endometrium in preparation for implantation for a fertilised egg, etc.

5. Describe the structure of a seminiferous tubule.
Ans: The seminiferous tubule is a structural unit in the adult testis. The seminiferous tubules are situated in testicular lobules. Seminiferous tubule consists of two types of cells – Sertoli or supporting cells & spermatogenic cellsl Sertoli cells, are elongated and pyramidal & partially envelop the spermatogenic cells. The cells provide nourishment to the developing spermatogenic cells. Spermatogenic cells are stacked in 4-8 layers. These cells divide several times & differentiate to produce spermatozoa. Between seminiferous tubules lie the interstitial cells or leydig cells which produces testosterone hormone.

6. What is spermatogenesis? Briefly describe the process of spermatogenesis.
Ans: Spermatogenesis is the process of producing sperms with half the number of chromosomes (haploid) as somatic cells. It occurs in seminiferous tubules. Sperm production begins at puberty continues throughout life with several hundred million sperms be ing produced each day. Once sperm are formed they move into the epididymis, where they mature and are stored. During spermatogenesis one spermatogonium produces 4 sperms. Spermatogenesis completes through the following phases – multiplicative phase, growth phase, maturation phase & spermiogenesis. In multiplicative phase the sperm mother cells divide by mitosis & produce spermatogonia. The spermatogonia grow in size to form large primary spermatocytes by getting nourishment from sertoli cells in growth phase. Maturation phase involves meiosis I in which primary spermatocytes divide to produce secondary spermatocyte and meiosis II which produces spermatids. Thus each primary spermatocyte gives rise to four haploid spermatids. Spermiogenesis or spermateliosis is process of formation of flagellated spermatozoa from spermatids. Spermiogenesis begins in the seminiferous tubules but usually completed in epididymis.
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-human-reproduction-3

7. Name the hormones involved in regulation of spermatogenesis.
Ans: The hormones involved in regulation of spermatogenesis are GnRH, LH, FSH and androgens.

Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to significant increase in the secretion of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH). The increased levels of GnRH then acts at the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of two gonadotropins – luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). LH acts at the Leydig cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens. Androgens, in turn, stimulate the process of spermatogenesis. FSH acts on the Sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors which help in the process of spermiogenesis.

8. Define spermiogenesis and spermiation.
Ans: Spermiogenesis is the process of transformation of spermatids into mature flagellated spermatozoa (sperms).Spermiation is the process of release of mature spermatozoa. In this spermatozoa are shed into the lumen of seminiferous tubule for transport.

9. Draw a labelled diagram of sperm.
Ans:
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-human-reproduction-5

10.What are the major components of seminal plasma?
Ans: Seminal plasma is the fluid in which sperm is ejaculated. Major components of seminal plasma are secretions from seminal vesicles, prostrate and bulbourethral gland and sperms from testis. It is rich in fructose and contains enzymes, citric acid, hormones like prostaglandins, calcium and clotting proteins.

11. What are the major functions of male accessory ducts and glands?
Ans: Male accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens. These ducts store and transport sperms from the testis to the outside through urethra. The male accessory glands include paired seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired bulbourethral glands. Secretions of these glands constitute the seminal plasma which is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes. The secretions of bulbourethral glands also helps in the lubrication of the penis.

12. What is oogenesis? Give a brief account of oogenesis.
Ans: The process of formation of a mature female gamete (ovum) is called oogenesis. It occurs in the ovaries of female reproductive system. Oogenesis is a discontinuous process it begins before birth, stops in midprocess & only resumes after menarch. It occurs in three phases : Multiplicative phase (formation of oogonia mitotically from the primary germ cells), Growth phase (growth of oogonia into primary oocyte) & Maturation phase (formation of mature ova from primary oocyte through meiosis). Maturation phase produces two haploid cells – Larger one called secondary oocyte & the smaller one called polar bodies (1st polar body). Meiosis II of secondary oocyte results in the formation of functional egg or ovum and a second polar body: The first polar body may also divide to form two polar bodies of equal sizes which do not take part in reproduction & ultimately degenerates. First maturation division may be completed in the ovaries just prior to ovulation but second one (Final) is completed outside the ovary after fertilization. Secondary oocyte is female gamete in which the 1st meiotic division is completed & second meiotic division (Metaphase stage) has begin. The egg is released at secondary oocyte stage under the effect of LH.
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-human-reproduction-4

13. Draw a labelled diagram of a section through ovary.
Ans:
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-human-reproduction-6

14. Draw a labelled diagram of a Graafian follicle.
Ans:
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-human-reproduction-7

15. Name the functions of the following:
(a) Corpus luteum
(b) Endometrium

(c) Acrosome
(d) Sperm tail

(e) Fimbriae
Ans: (a) Corpus luteum : The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone which is essential for maintenance of the endometriuip.
(b) Endometrium is necessary for implantation of the fertilized ovum and other events of pregnancy.
(c) The acrosome is filled with enzymes that help during fertilization of the ovum.
(d) Sperm tail: Tail facilitates sperm motility which is essential for fertilization.
(e) Fimbriae: Fimbriae help in collection of the ovum after ovulation.

16. Identify True/False statements. Correct each
false statement to make it true.
(a) Androgens are produced by Sertoli cells. (True/False)
(b) Spermatozoa get nutrition from sertoli cells. (True/False)
(c) Leydig cells are found in ovary. (True/ False)
(d) Leydig cells synthesize androgens. (True/ False)
(e) Oogenesis takes place in corpus luteum. (True/False)
(i) Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy. (True/False)
(g) Presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity or sexual – experience. (True/False)
Ans: (a) False, Androgens or male sex hormones (e.g, testosterone) are secreted by Leydig cells.
(b) True.
(c) False, Leydig cells are found in testis.
(d) True.
(e) False, Oogenesis takes place in ovary.
(f) True.
(g) True.

17. What is menstrual cycle? Which hormones regulate menstrual cycle?
Ans: Menstrual cycle is the cyclic change( itf’the reproductive tract of primate female. This period is marked by a characteristic event repeated almost every month (28 days with minor variation) in the form of a menstrual flow (i.e. shedding of the endometrium of the uterus with bleeding. It may be temporarily stopped only in pregnancy.
The hormones that regulates menstrual cycles are
(i) FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone),
(ii) LH (Luteinizing hormone),
(iii) Oestrogens,
(iv) Progesterone.

18. What is parturition ? Which hormones are involved in induction of parturition?
Solution:
Parturition (or labour) means child birth. Parturition is the sequence of actions by which a baby and the afterbirth (placenta) are expelled from the uterus at childbirth. The process usually starts spontaneously about 280 days after conception, but it may be started by artificial means.

The process of parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanisms involving cortisol, estrogen and oxytocin.

19. In our society the women are often blamed for giving birth to daughters. Can you explain why this is not correct?
Ans: The sex chromosome pattern in the human females is XX and that of male is XY. Therefore, all the haploid female gametes (ova) have the sex chromosome X, however, the haploid male gametes have either X or Y. Thus 50% of sperms carry the X-chromosome while the other 50% carry the Y-chromosome. After fusion of the male and female gametes, the zygote carries either XX or XY depending upon whether the sperm carrying X or Y fertilizes the ovum. The zygote carrying XX would be a female baby and XY would be a male baby. That is why it is correct to say that the sex of the baby is determined by the father.

20. How many eggs are released by a human ovary in a month? How many eggs do you think would have been released if the mother gave birth to identical twins? Would your answer change if the twins born were fraternal?
Ans: One egg is released by human ovary in a month. Identical twins: Identical twins are formed when a single fertilized egg splits into two genetically identical parts. The twins share the same DNA set, thus they may share many similar attributes. However, since physical appearance is influenced by environmental factors and not just genetics, identical twins can actually look very different.
Fraternal twins: These twins are formed when two fertilized eggs are formed. The twins share the different DNA set, thus they may share different attributes (dizygotic embryo).

21. How many eggs do you think were released by the ovary of a female dog which gave birth to 6 puppies?
Ans: Since dogs have multiple births, several eggs mature and are released at the same time. If fertilised, the egg will implant on the uterine wall. Dogs bear their litters roughly 9 weeks after fertilisation, although the length of gestation can vary from 56 to 72 days. An average litter consists of about six puppies, though this number may vary widely based on the breed of dog. On this basis 6 eggs were released by the ovary of a female dog which gave birth to 6 puppies.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health:

Section Name Topic Name
4 Reproductive Health
4.1 Reproductive Health – Problems and Strategies
4.2 Population Explosion and Birth Control
4.3 Medical Termination of Pregnancy
4.4 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
4.5 Infertility
4.6 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. What do you think is the significance of reproductive health in a society?
Ans: Reproductive health in a society is significant because the people are aware of
(i) birth control methods and advantages of small family,
(ii) sexually transmitted diseases and methods to avoid them,
(iii) importance breast feeding and post natal care of the mother and baby and
(iv) equal opportunities for the male and female children.

2. Suggest the aspects of reproductive health which need to be given special attention in the present scenario.
Ans: The aspects of reproductive health which need to be given special attention are :

  • Introduction of sex education in schools to give right information to the young minds about reproductive organs, accessory organs of reproduction, secondary sexual characters, adolescence and related changes, safe and hygienic sexual practices, STDs etc.
  • Providing knowledge about available birth control methods, care of pregnant mothers, post-natal care of the mother and child, importance of breast feeding etc.
  • Creating awareness about consequences of uncontrolled population growth and social evils (sex abuses and sex-related crimes, use of drugs, tobacco and alcohol etc.) among young people.

3. Is sex education necessary in schools? Why?
Ans: Yes, sex education is necessary in school.Because introduction of sex education in school encourage to provide the right or correct information to the young peoples so as to discourage children from believing in myths & having misconceptions about sex related aspects. Proper information about reproductive organs, safe & hygienic sexual practices, STD’s etc. would help people, those in the adolescent age group to lead a healthy reproductive life. In many countries, sexual education raises much contentious debate. Chief among the controversial points is whether covering child sexuality is valuable or detrimental; the use of birth control such as condoms and hormonal contraception, and the impact of such use on pregnancy, outside marriage, teenage pregnancy, and the transmission of STDs. Increasing support for abstinence – only sex education by conservative groups has been one of the primary causes of the controversies.

4. Do you think that reproductive health in our country has improved in the past 50 years? If yes, mention some such areas of improvement
Ans: Yes, in the last 50 years, reproductive health in our country has improved. Some such areas of improvement are (i) massive child immunization (ii) maternity and child health (iii) increasing use of contraceptives (iv) family planning.
Bringing sexual and reproductive health services to the millions of people living in countries which still suffer from short life expectancies, high levels of child and maternal mortality, child lSS&ur and illiteracy and poor overall health remains a major challenge for governments and non government organizations.

5. What are the suggested reasons for population explosion?
Ans: (i) Increased health facilities along with better living conditions had an explosive impact on the growth of population.
(ii) Decline in Death rate
(iii) Decline in Maternal Mortality Rate
(iv) Decline in Infant Mortality Rate
(v) Increase in the number of people in the reproductive age.

6. Is the use of contraceptives justified ? Give reasons.
Ans: Population in India is increasing at a very fast rate and such a growth necessitated intense use of contraceptive methods to bring all the fertile couples under its cover. It will help in bringing the birth rate down and consequently check the population growth. Therefore, the use of contraceptives is justified. It is essential to mention here that the selection of a suitable contraceptive method should be practiced in consultation with qualified doctors. The government provides these facilities free at the family planning centres. Contraceptives are given free or at nominal prices at these centres to the couples of reproductive age desirous of preventing conception.

7. Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive option. Why?
Ans: Removal of gonads or its parts is a surgical method, of sterilization. Vasectomy and tubectomy are carried out in males and females respectively. It will lead to infertility & both male and female will be dependent on hormones in their remaining life to regulate functioning of reproductive organs. These are very effective but their irreversibility is very poor, so they are not good options for contraception.

8. Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned? in our country. Is this ban necessary? Comment
Ans: Since Amniocentesis is misused to find out the sex of the foetus leading to female foeticides, it is necessary. It is the prenatal diagnostic
technique, that helps to find out chromosomal (genetic) disorders, metabolic disorders of the foetus; in extreme cases where the foetus is found to be suffering from an incurable disorder Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is banned. The solution to the problem is not ‘ passing more laws, such as banning sex determination ultrasounds but raising the social & economic status of women,

9. Suggest some methods to assist infertile couples to have children.
Ans: ART (Assisted Reproductive Technologies) is a term that describes several different methods used to help infertile couples. ART involves removing eggs from a woman’s body, mixing them with sperm in the laboratory and putting the embryos bath into a woman’s body.
Success rates vary depending on many factors.Something that affects the success rate of ART includes age of the partners, reason for infertility,type of ART, if the egg is fresh or frozen. Various methods are now available to help such couples are — in vitro fertilization, gamete intra fallopian transfer, intracytoplasmic sperm injection & artificial insemination.
(i) In vitro fertilization – Patient’s egg & her partner’s sperm are collected & mixed together in a laboratory to achieve fertilization outside the body. The embryo produced may then be transferred into the female patient. It is commonly knownas test tube baby programme.
(ii) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) – A procedure in which eggs are retrieved from a woman, mixed with sperm & immediately replaced in one or other of the women’s fallopian tubes so that they fertilize inside the body (invivo).
(iii) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)– In this method, sperm & eggs are retrieved from both the parents. A single sperm is injected directly into an egg, then the fertilized egg is implanted into the woman’s uterus.
(iv)Artificial insemination – In this technique, the semen is collected either from husband or a healthy donor & is artificially introduced either into the vagina or into the uterus of the female (IUI-Intra uterine insemination).

10. What are the measures one has to take to prevent from contracting STDs?
Ans: (i) Avoiding sex with unknown partner /multiple partners.
(ii) Always use condoms during intercourse.
(iii) In case of doubt, go for medical professional for early detection and get complete treatment if diagnosed with disease.
(iv) Education & counselling of persons at risk on ways to adopt safer sexual behaviour.

11. State True/False with explanation
(a) Abortions could happen spontaneously too. (True/False)
(b) Infertility is defined as the inability to produce a viable offspring and is always due to abnormalities/defects in the female partner. (True/False)
(c) Complete lactation could help as a natural method of contraception. (True/False)
(d) Creating awareness about sex related aspects is an effective method to improve reproductive health of the people. (True/False)
Ans: (a) True. Due to internal factors like incompatibility, abortion could happen spontaneously.
(b)False. It is due to abnormalities/defects in either male or female or both the partners.
(c)True, but it is limited to period up to six months after parturition.
(d)True. Creating awareness about sex-related aspects removes the myths and miconcep- tions about these problems.

12. Correct the following statements:
(a) Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
(b )Ail sexually transmitted diseases are completely curable.
(c) Oral pills are very popular contraceptives, among the rural women.
(d) In E.T. techniques, embryos are always transferred into the uterus.
Ans: (a) Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete transport & thereby prevent conception.
(b) Except for hepatitis-B, genital herpes, and HIV infections, other STD diseases are completely curable if detected early and treated properly.
(c) Oral pill are very popular contraceptives among the educated urban women.
(d) In E.T. techniques, embryos with 8 blastomeres are transferred into fallopian tube and more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Principles of Inheritance and Variation

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation:

Section Name Topic Name
5 PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION
5.1 Mendel’s Laws of Inheritance
5.2 Inheritance of One Gene
5.3 Inheritance of Two Genes
5.4 Sex Determination
5.5 Mutation
5.6 Genetic Disorders
5.7 MUTATION
5.8 GENETIC DISORDERS
5.9 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1.Mention the advantages of selecting pea plant for experiment by Mendel
Ans: Mendel select garden pea (Pisum Sativum) for the following reasons.
(i) It is an annual plant with short life span and gives results within 3 months.
(ii) The plant is grown easily and does not require after care except at the time of pollination.
(iii) F1 hybrids are fertile.
(iv) Seven pairs of contrasting characters easily detectable.
(v) True breeding self pollination.

2. Differentiate between the following –
(a) Dominance and Recessive
(b) Homozygous and Heterozygous
(c) Monohybrid and Dihybrid.
Ans: (a)The difference between dominance and recessive me:
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-principles-of-inheritance-and-variation-1
(b) Differences between homozygous and heterozygous individuals :
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-principles-of-inheritance-and-variation-2
(c) In breeding experiments when a cross is made between the individuals considering their same single character, it is called mono¬hybrid cross, while a cross is done consid¬ering two characters at fee same time is called dihybrid cross (Yellow Round * Green Wrinkled).

3. A diploid organism is heterozygous for 4 loci, how many types of gametes can be produced?
Ans: For a diploid organism, which is heterozygous for 4 loci, then 24 i.e. 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 16 types of gametes can be produced if the genes are not linked because for each heterozygous pair of genes there are two possibilities. So, for 4 pair the number of combination will be 16 gametes.

4. Explain the Law of Dominance using a monohybrid cross.
Ans: When two different factors (genes) or a pair of contrasting forms of a character are present in an organism, only one expresses itself in the F, generation and is termed as dominant while the other remains unexpressed and called recessive factors (gene).
A tall (TT) true breeding plant is crossed with a dwarf (tt) plant. The character of height is represented by‘T’ for tall‘t’ for dwarf are the alternate form as character of height. The Fj hybrid ‘Tt’ is Tall, showing that tall is dominant over dwarf while dwarf remains unexpressed in F, offspring due to phenomenon of dominance by tall factor or gene.In this Tt heterozygous has tall phenotype showing T is dominant over t allele.
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-principles-of-inheritance-and-variation-3

5. Define and design a test-cross.
Ans: When an individual is crossed with the homozygous recessive parent. It is called test cross.
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-principles-of-inheritance-and-variation-4
Test cross helps in establishing hetero/ homozygosity of dominant trait.

6. Using a Punnett Square, workout the distribution of phenotypic features in the first filial generation after a cross between a homozygous female and a heterozygous male for single locus.
Ans:
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-principles-of-inheritance-and-variation-5
Phenotype: All tall
Genotype ratio : TT: Tt 2:2 or 1:1

7. When a cross is made between tall plant with yellow seeds (TtYy) and tall plant with green seed (Ttyy), what proportions of phenotype in the offspring could be expected to be
(a)tali and green.
(b)dwarf and green.
Ans: A cross between tall plant with yellow seeds (TtYy) & tall plant with green seed (Ttyy) is given below.
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-principles-of-inheritance-and-variation-6

8. Two heterozygous parents are crossed. If the two loci are linked what would be the distribution of phenotypic features in F1 generation for a dihybrid cross?
Ans: Consider 2 characters Blue (B), long (L) seeds of a plant – both characters linked.
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-principles-of-inheritance-and-variation-7

9. Briefly mention the contribution of T.H. Morgan in genetics.
Ans: Thomas Hunt Morgan (1866-1945), an American geneticist and Nobel Prize winner of 1933, is considered as “Father of experimental genetics” for his work on and discovery of linkage, crossing over, sex linkage, criss cross inheritance, linkage maps, mutability of genes, etc. He is called fly man of genetics because of selecting fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster) as research, material in experimental genetics. It was largely due to his book, “The Theory of Gene”, that genetics was accepted as a distinct branch of biology. In 1910, he discovered linkage and distinguished linked and unlinked genes. Morgan and Castle (1911) proposed “Chromosome Theory of Linkage” showing that genes are located on the chromosomes and arranged in linear order. Morgan and Sturtevant (1911) found that frequency of crossing over (recombination) between two linked genes is directly proportional to the distance between the two. 1% recombination is considered to be equal to 1 centi Morgan (cM) or 1 map unit. He worked on sex linked inheritance and reported a white eyed male Drosophila in a population of red eyed and proved that gene of eye colour is located on X-chromosome. The male passed its genes on X-chromosomes to the daughter while the son gets genes on X-chromosome from the female (mother): It is called criss-cross inheritance.

10. What is pedigree analysis? Suggest how such an analysis, can be useful.
Ans: Pedigree analysis is study of pedigree for the transmission of particular trait and finding the possibility of absence or presence of that trait in homozygous or heterozygous state in a particular individual. Pedigree analysis helps-
(i) in analysis of transmission of character in family over generation.
(ii) in genetic counselling of disease like haemophilia.
(iii) to identify whether a particular genetic disease is due to recessive gene or a dominant gene.
(iv) to identify the possible origin of the defective gene in the family or in a population.

11. How is sex determined in human beings?
Ans: Sex determination refers to the mechanisms employed by organisms to produce offsprings that are of two different sexes. The sex of an individual is determined by the genetic information present in the individual’s sex chromosomes. Sex determination in human is done by XY type chromosome. In humans, females have two XX chromosomes and males have two different chromosomes (XY).

12. A child has blood group O. If the father has blood group A and mother of blood group B, work out the genotypes of the parents and the possible genotypes of the other off springs.
Ans:
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-principles-of-inheritance-and-variation-8

13. Explain the following terms with example
(a) Co-dominance
(b) Incomplete dominance
Ans: (a) Codominance : Codominance is the phenomenon of two contrasting alleles of the same gene lacking dominant recessive ratio and expressing themselves simultaneously when present together. E.g. ABO blood group system – Human blood group AB is formed when alleles of blood groups A and B are present together (IAIB). Such RBCs carry both antigen A & B showing that both die alleles are expressing their effect phenotypically & codominant.
(b) Incomplete dominance : Incomplete dominance may be defined as the partial /expression of both alleles in a heterozygote so that the phenotype is intermediate between those of two homozygotes. In this none of the allele is completely dominant, e.g., Pink colour flower in dog flower. In Mirabilis jalapa & Snapdragon or dog flowers, there are two types of flower colour in pure state-red & white. When the two types of plant are crossed, the hybrid or plants of Fj generation have pink flowers. The pink colour apparently appears either due to mixing of red & white colours (incomplete dominance) or expression of a single gene for pigmented flower which produces only pink colour.

14. What is point mutation? Give one example.
Ans: Mutations arising due to change in single base pair of DNA is called point mutation. Eg., sickle cell anaemia, haemophilia.

15. Who had proposed the chromosomal theory of the inheritance?
Ans: Chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by Sutton and Boveri independently in 1902. The two workers found a close similarity between the transmission of Mendelian hereditary factors (genes) and behaviour of chromosomes during gamete formation and fertilisation. They proposed that chromosomes were the carriers of the Mendelian factors. It is the chromosome and not genes which segregate and assort independently during meiosis and recombine at the time of fertilisation in the zygote. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was expanded by Morgan, Sturtevant and Bridges.

16. Mention any two autosomal genetic disorders with their symptoms.
Ans: Sickle cell anaemia : Haemoglobin has less 02 transport, sickle shaped RBCs etc.
Phenylketonuria : Mental retardation (due to accumulation of phenylalanine in brain), hypopigmentation of skin & hair, eczema etc.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance:

Section Name Topic Name
6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance
6.1 The DNA
6.2 The Search for Genetic Material
6.3 RNA World
6.4 Replication
6.5 Transcription
6.6 Genetic Code
6.7 Translation
6.8 Regulation of Gene Expression
6.9 Human Genome Project
6.10 DNA Fingerprinting
6.11 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. Group the following as nitrogenous bases and nucleosides: Adenine, Cytidine, Thymine, Guanosine, Uracil and Cytosine.
Ans: Nitrogenous Bases – Adenine, Uracil and Cytosine, Thymine; Nucleosides – Cytidine, guanosine.

2. If a double stranded DNA has 20 per cent of cytosine, calculate the per cent of adenine in the DNA.
Ans: In a DNA molecule, the number of cytosine molecule is equal to guanine molecules & the number of adenine molecules are equal to thymine molecules. As a result, if a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, it has 20% of guanine. The remaining 60% includes both adenine & thymine which are in equal amounts. So, the percentage of adenine is 30%.

3. If the sequence of one strand of DNA is written as follows:
5′ – ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC – 3′
Write down the sequence of complementary strand in 5′ —> 3′ direction.
Ans: If the sequence of one strand of DNA is written as follows:
5′ – ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC – 3′
The sequence of the complementary strand in 5′ —> 3′ direction will be:
5′ – GCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCAT – 3′

4. If the sequence of the coding strand in a transcription unit is written as follows: 5-ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCA TGCATGC-3′
Write down the sequence of mRNA.
Ans: mRNA: 5′ -A U G CAU G CAU G C AU G CA UGCAUGCAUGC-3′.

5. Which property of DNA double helix led Watson and Crick to hypothesise semi-conservative mode of DNA replication? Explain
Ans: The antiparallel, double-stranded nature of the DNA molecule led Watson and Crick to hypothesise semi-conservative mode of DNA replication. They suggested that the two strands of DNA molecule uncoil and separate, and each strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a new (complementary) strand alongside it. The template and its complement, then form a new DNA double strand, identical to the original DNA molecule. The sequence of bases which should be present in the new strands can be easily predicted because these would be complementary to the bases present in the old strands. A will pair with T, T with A, C with G, and G with C. Thus, two daughter DNA molecules identical to the parent molecule are formed and each daughter DNA molecule consists of one old (parent) strand and one new strand. Since only one parent strand is conserved in each daughter molecule, this mode of replication is said to be semiconservative. Meselson and Stahl and Joseph Taylor, later proved it by experiments.

6. Depending upon the chemical nature of the template (DNA or RNA) and the nature of nucleic acids synthesized from it (DNA or RNA), list the types of nucleic acid polymerases.
Ans: (i) DNA dependent DNA polymerase – synthesis.
(ii) DNA dependent RNA polymerase – synthesis.
(iii) RNA dependent DNA polymerase – Retroviral nucleic acid.
(iv) RNA dependent RNA polymerase – cDNA synthesis.

7. How did Hershey and Chase differentiate between DNA and protein in their experiment white proving that DNA is the genetic material?
Ans: Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952) worked with viruses that infect bacteria called bacteriophages. In 1952, they chose a bacteriophage known as T2 for their experimental material.
They grew some viruses on a medium that contained radioactive phosphorus (p32) and some others on medium that contained radioactive sulphur (s35). Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive DNA but not radioactive protein because DNA contains phosphorus but protem does not. Similarly, viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained radioactive protein but not radio’active DNA because DNA does not contain sulphur.
Radioactive phages were allowed to attach to E. coli bacteria. Then, as the infection proceeded, the viral coats were removed from the bacteria by agitating them in a blender. The virus particles were separated from the bacteria by spinning them in a centrifuge. ,
Bacteria which was infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA were radioactive, indicating that DNA was the material that passed from the virus to the bacteria. Bacteria that were infected with viruses that had radioactive proteins were not radioactive. This indicates that proteins did not enter the bacteria from the viruses. DNA is therefore the genetic material that is passed from virus to bacteria.

8. Differentiate between the followings:
(a) Repetitive DNA and Satellite DNA
(b) mRNAand tRNA
(c) Template strand and Coding strand
Ans: (a) The main differences between repetitive DNA and satellite DNA are as following:
(b) The main difference between mRNA and tRNA are as following:
(c) The main difference between template strand and coding strand are as follows :

9. List two essential roles of ribosome during translation.
Ans: Two essential roles of ribiosomes during translation are ;o
(i) they provide surface for binding of mRNA in the groove of smaller sub unit of ribosome.
(ii) As larger sub unit of ribosome has peptidy transferase on its ‘P’ site, therefore, it helps in joining amino acids by forming peptide bonds. .

10. In the medium where E. coli was growing, lactose was added, which induced the lac operon. Then why does lac operon shut down some time after addition of lactose in the medium?
Ans: Lac operon is switched on, on adding lactose in medium, as lactose acts as inducer and makes repressor inactive by binding with it. When the lac operon system is switched on, β-galactosidase is formed, which converts lactose into glucose and galactose. As soon as all the lactose is consumed, repressor again becomes active and causes the system to switch off (shut down).

11. Explain (in one or two lines) the function of the followings:
(a) Promoter
(b) tRNA

(c) Exons
Ans: Promoter: It is one of the three components of a transcription unit that takes part in transcription. It is located at the start 5′ end and provides site for attachment of transcription factors (TATA Box) and RNA polymerase. tRNA: It takes part in the transfer of activated amino acids from cellular pool to ribosome for their taking part in protein formation.
Exons: In eukarytoes, DNA is mosaic of exons and introns. Exons are coding sequences of DNA which are transcribed and translated both.

12. Why is the Human genome project called a mega project?
Ans: Human genome project is called a mega project because
(i) it required bioinformatics data basing and other high speed computational devices for analysis, storage and retrieval of information.
(ii) it generated lot of information in the form of sequence annotation.
(iii) it was carried out in number of labs and coordinated on extensive scale.

13. What is DNA fingerprinting? Mention its application.
Ans: DNA fingerprinting or DNA typing is a technique of determining nucleotide sequences of certain areas (VNTRs) of DNA which are unique to each individual. Each person has a unique DNA fingerprint. Unlike a conventional fingerprint that occurs only on the fingertips and can be altered by surgery, a DNA fingerprint is the same for every cell, tissue and organ of a person. It cannot be changed by any known treatment. Applications of DNA fingerprinting are as follows:

  • Paternity disputes can be solved by DNA fingerprinting.
  • DNA fingerprinting technique is being used to identify genes connected with hereditary diseases.
  • It is useful in detection of crime and legal pursuits.
  • It can identify racial groups, their origin, historical migrations and invasions.

14. Briefly describe the following:
(a) Transcription
(b) Polymorphism
(c) Translation
(d) Bioinformatics

Ans: Transcription : It is DNA directed synthesis of RNA in which the RNA is transcribed on 3*—>5’ template strand of DNA in 5’—>3’ direction. Polymorphism: Variation at genetic level arisen due,to mutation, is called polymorphism. Such variations are unique at particular site of DNA, forming satellite DNA. The polymorphism in DNA sequences is the basis of genetic mapping and DNA finger printing.
Translation : Protein synthesis from mRNA, tRNA, rRNA.
Bioinformatics : Computational method of handling and analyzing biological databases.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Evolution

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Evolution

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Evolution:

Section Name Topic Name
7 Evolution
7.1 Origin of Life
7.2 Evolution of Life Forms – A Theory
7.3 What are the Evidences for Evolution?
7.4 What is Adaptive Radiation?
7.5 Biological Evolution
7.6 Mechanism of Evolution
7.7 Hardy – Weinberg Principle
7.8 A Brief Account of Evolution
7.9 Origin and Evolution of Man
7.10 Summary

NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 Questions From Textbook Solved

Evolution Chapter Class 12 NCERT  Q1. Explain antibiotic, resistance observed in bacteria in light of Darwinian selection theory.
Ans: According to Darwin, environment selects organisms with favourable variations and these organisms are allowed to survive. When a bacterial population encounters a particular antibiotic, those sensitive to it die. But some bacteria having mutations become resistant to the antibiotic. Such resistant bacteria survive and multiply quickly as the competing bacteria have died. Some the resistance providing genes become widespread and entire bacterial population becomes resistant.

Evolution Class 12 NCERT Solutions Q2. Find out from newspapers and popular science articles any new fossil discoveries or controversies about evolution
Ans: New fossil discoveries are as follows :

1. An international research team has recently discovered some amber fly specimens in El Sopalo cave (Cantabria, Spain). According to an article published in the scientific journal ‘Current Biology’, these specimens fed on nector and pollinated gymnosperm plants 105 million years ago.

2. Research conducted in Japan has revealed a very unusual new species of octocoral from a shallow coral reef in Okinawa, Japan. This new species can be considered as “living fossil,” and is related in many ways to the unusual blue coral.

3. The 48 million year old fossil, recovered from the Bridger Formation in Wyoming, is the first description of a new species, named Babibasiliscusalxiby the author, and
may represent the earliest clear member of the lizard group, Corytophanidae.

4. Neanderthals became extinct about 40,000 years ago but contributed on average one to three percent to the genomes of present day Eurasians. Researchers have now analysed DNA from a 37,000 to 42,000 year old human mandible in Romania and have found that six to nine percent of this person’s genome came from Neanderthals, more than any other human sequenced till date. Because large segments of this individual’s chromosomes are of Neanderthal origin, a Neanderthal was among his ancestors as recently as four to six generations back in his family tree. This shows that some of the first modern humans that came to Europe mixed with the local Neanderthals.

Chapter 7 Biology Class 12 NCERT Solutions Q3. Attempt giving a clear definition of the term species.
Ans: Species is population or group of individuals that have potential of interbreeding and are able to produce viable, fertile young ones but are reproductively isolated from members of other species.

Evolution NCERT Solutions  Q4. Try to trace the various components of human evolution (hint: brain size and function, skeletal structure, dietary preference, etc.)
Ans:
NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Chapter 7
Dietary preference:
Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus — herbivores Australopithecus Africans, Homo Carnivores habilis
Homo erectus, Homo sapinens — Omnivores

Evolution NCERT Solutions Class 12  Q5. Find out through internet and popular science articles whether animals other than man has self-consciousness.
Ans: Recent studies on self consciousness says gibbons are the nearest to human in this respect. Apes and orangutans came next. Among domestic animals, dog and other members of canidae family show subtle self consciousness.

Evolution NCERT  Q6.List 10 modern-day animals and using the” internet resources link it to a corresponding ancient fossil. Name both.
Ans: (i) Cockroach, Limulus (king crab), Neopilina, Latimaria (Fish) are fossil that has remain unchanged over years.
(ii) ‘Trilobites- fossil arthropods
(iii) Lung fishes – connecting link between fishes and amphibians
(iv) Peripatus – connecting link between annelids and arthropods .
(v) Woody mammoth – ice fossils
(vi) Gastropods – mould and cast fossil
(vii) Giant elk – amber fossil of asphalt
(viii) Dinosaur footprint – imprints

NCERT Solutions of Evolution Class 12  Q7. Practise drawing various animals and plants.
Ans: (1) Elephant
Evolution Chapter Class 12 NCERT
(2) Camel
Evolution Class 12 NCERT Solutions
(3) Dog
Chapter 7 Biology Class 12 NCERT Solutions
(4) Rose
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-evolution-5
(5) Dahlia
Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 NCERT Solutions
(6) hibiscus
Evolution Questions And Answers Class 12

Class 12 Biology Chapter 7 NCERT Solutions  Q8.Describe one example of adaptive radiation.
Ans: Darwin’s finches of the Galapagos islands had common ancestors but now have different types of modified beaks according to their food habits.

Evolution Questions And Answers Class 12 Q9. Can we call human evolution as adaptive radiation?
Ans: Yes, human evolution is an example of adaptive radiation as different species of human evolved across different areas of world as they diverged to different areas in following fashion.
(i) Hominid introduction occured in Africa and Asia:
(ii) Homo habilis lived in Africa – 2 million years ago.
(iii) Homo erectus- migrated to Asia and Europe and diverged into 2 species – Java Man and Peking Man.
(iv) Similarly Homo erectus – was followed by Homo sapiens.
(v) Primitive neanderthal man in Europe gave way to African cromagnon.
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-evolution-8

Evolution Class 12 NCERT Q10. Using various resources such as your school library or the internet and discussions with your teacher, trace the evolutionary stages of any one animal say horse.
Ans: Evolutionary stages of horse:
Eohippus – Mesohippus – Merychippus – Pliohippus – Equus.
Evolutionary trend:
(i) Increase in body size.
(ii) Elongation of neck.
(iii) Lengthening of limbs.
(iv) Enlargement of third digit.
(v) Increase in structural complexity of teeth for feeding on grass.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Human Health and Disease

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Human Health and Disease

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease:

Section Name Topic Name
8 Human Health and Disease
8.1 Common Diseases in Humans
8.2 Immunity
8.3 AIDS
8.4 Cancer
8.5 Drugs and Alcohol Abuse
8.6 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1.What are the various public health measures, which you would suggest as safeguard against infectious diseases?
Ans. The various public health measures against infectious diseases includes the following –
1.Education – People should be educated about the infectious diseases so that they may protect themselves against the infections.
2.A people suffering from any infections should be isolated to avoid its transmission to any other person.
3.Vaccination – People should get vaccination to avoid infection. Vaccination is available against cholera, typhoid, TB etc.
4.Sanitation – Sanitary surroundings can prevent spread of diseases. Public hygiene includes – suitable disposal of waste & human excreta; periodic cleaning and disinfection of water sources; observing normal practices of hygiene in public catering. Personal hygiene includes keeping the body clean, intake of clean drinking water, vegetables, fruits etc.
5.Eradication of vectors – The breeding places of vectors should be destroyed & adult vectors killed by appropriate methods.

2.In which way has the study of biology helped us to control infectious diseases?
Ans.The science that makes a study of diseases is called pathology, though in a broad sense it includes diagnostic, prophylactic and curative measures too. Pathology is a study of diseases of all kinds though we will confine ourselves to the diseases caused by a pathogenic organism, the reaction of the host as shown in the form of symptoms, the diagnosis made through a study of their symptoms, etiology of the pathogenic organism and finally steps undertaken to cure the host of its diseases, by eradicating and if it is not possible, by controlling the pathogen. In this way the study of biology helped us to control infectious diseases.

3. Hovy does the transmission of each of the following diseases take place?
(a)Amoebiasis (b) Malaria
(c)Ascariasis (d) Pneumonia
Ans. (a) Amoebiasis – It is usually contracted by ingesting water or food contaminated by amoebic cysts.
(b)Malaria – It is transmitted from one person to another by the female Anopheles mosquito. The mosquito picks up the parasite along with the blood when it bites an infected person. When this mosquito bites an other healthy person, the parasites migrate into his blood with the saliva, which the mosquito injects before sucking up blood to prevent its clotting.
(c)Ascariasis – Transmitted through water, vegetables, fruits etc. contaminated with the eggs of the parasites.
(d)Pneumonia – Spreads by cough & sneezes, by sharing drinking glass & eating utensils with an infected person.

4.What measures would you take to prevent water borne diseases?
Ans: Water borne diseases can be prevented by –
(i) Oral dehydration
(ii) Health education
(iii) Control of reservoirs
(iv) Immunization
(v) General hygiene, pure water

5. Discuss with your teacher what does ‘a suitable gene’ means, in the context of DNA vaccines.
Ans: A DNA vaccine consists of a suitable gene encoding an antigenic protein, inserted into a plasmid, and then incorporated into the cells in a target animal. The plasmid vaccine carrying the DNA (gene) enters the nucleus of target cells and produces RNA, and in turn the specific antigenic protein, because these proteins are recognized as foreign. When they are processed by the host cells and displayed on their surface, the immune system is alerted, which then triggers a range of immune responses.

6. Name the primary and secondary lymphoid organs.
Ans: Primary lymphoid organs – Bone marrow and thymils.
Secondary lymhoid organs – Spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils.

7. The following are some well-known abbreviations, which have been used in this chapter. Expand each one to its fall form:
(a) MALT
(b) CMI

(c) AIDS
(d)NACO

(e) HIV
Ans: (a) MALT – Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissue
(b) CMI-Cell-Mediated Immunity
(c) AIDS – Acquired Immuno Deficiency syndrome
(d) NACO – National AIDS Control Organization
(e) HIV – Human Immuno Deficiency Virus

8. Differentiate the following and give examples of each
(a) Innate and acquired immunity
(b) Active and passive immunity
Ans: (a) Innate & acquired immunity
Innate immunity, also called inherent, natural, non specific immunity, comprises all those defence elements with which an individual is bom & which are always available to protect a living body. It acts on many organisms and does not show specificity, e.g. Lysozyme present in secretions such as tears, catalyzes the hydrolysis of molecules in the cell walls of bacteria & interferon induces antiviral state in non infected cells. They act as physiological barriers & check the growth of many pathogenic micro-organisms. Acquired immunity, also called adaptive or specific immunity, is the immunity obtained either from the development of antibodies in .response to exposure to an antigen, as from vaccination or an attack of an infectious diseases or from the transmission of antibodies as from mother to foetus through the placenta.

(b) Active & passive immunity
Active immunity is acquired by catching & surviving an infectious disease or by vaccination with a weakened form of the diseases which makes the body to form antibodies. Whereas passive immunity is conferred by transfer of immune products like antibodies etc. from other individual

9. Draw a well-labelled diagram of an antibody
Ans:
ncert-solutions-for-class-12-biology-human-health-and-disease-1

10. What are the various routes by which trans-mission of human immunodeficiency virus takes place?
Ans: Various routes by which transmission of human immunodeficiency virus takes place are
(i) Illicit sexual contact.
(ii) Sexual contact with multiple partners.
(iii) Transfusion of the blood of infected person.
(iv) Intravenous drug users that shares needles are at high risk of contracting AIDS.

11. What is the mechanism by which the AIDS virus causes deficiency of immune system of the infected person?
Ans: HIV critically injures the immune system by infecting and eventually killing T-cells. Once the virus has infected a T cell, HIV copies its RNA into double stranded DNA copy by mearis of viral enzyme reverse transcriptase. This process is called reverse transcriptase because it violates the usual way in which genetic information is transcribed. Because reverse transcriptase lacks thg proofreading function that most DNA synthesizing enzymes have, many mutations arises as the virus replicates, further hindering the ability of the immune system to combat the virus. These mutations allow the virus to evolve rapidly resulting in the lost of vital cells. As a result of progressive destruction of its T-cells, the body is easily ravaged by a number of common infectious agents. In many instances, these infections would have caused little injury if there functional T-cells clones available.
Death ultimately results from the relentless attack of opportunistic pathogens or from the body’s inability to fight off malignancies.
virus. These mutations allow the virus to evolve rapidly resulting in the lost of vital cells. As a result of progressive destruction of its T-cells, the body is easily ravaged by a number of common infectious agents. In many instances, these infections would have caused little injury if there functional T-cells clones available.
Death ultimately results from the relentless attack of opportunistic pathogens or from the body’s inability to fight off malignancies.

12. How is a cancerous cell different from a normal cell?
Ans: Cancer is a disease characterized by the excessive and abnormal growth of certain cells. In a healthy individual, the growth of cells is balanced by the rate of cell loss. Thus, when one attains adult age, the size and cellular contents of various body organs remain constant. The balance between the growth of the cells and the rate of cell class may be dislocated by certain chemicals, physical stresses and viral agents. As a result, the normal growth of the cells may be transformed into cancerous one. Cancerous cells acquire the ability to invade new sites, a phenomenon called metastasis. They exhibit a number of alterations on cell surface, in the cytoplasm, and in their genes. These features are used for the identification of cancers.

13. Explain what is meant by metastasis.
Ans: Metastasis is the phenomenon in which cancer cells due to unregulated proliferation spread to distant sites through body fluids to develop secondary tumors. Only malignant tumors show the property of metastasis.

14. List the harmful effects caused by alcohol/drug abuse.
Ans: Harmful effects caused by alcohol abuse are –
(i) Alcohol generates more energy mostly in the form of heat, but at the same time, it dilates the blood vessels. Consequently the ‘heat generated is rapidly lost. Due to constant dilation, the arterial walls soon become brittle & rigid. Such a change in the property of blood vessels & deposition of alcoholic fat affect the working of heart.
(ii) Alcoholism leads to gastric ulcers & gastritis.
(iii) In chronic alcoholism, the axon of the nerve inflame thus causing neuritis.
(iv) Permanent damage to liver cells occur due to deposition of fats. The liver dries up & harden (cirrhosis).
Harmful effects caused by drug abuse are –
(i) Excessive doses of drugs may lead to coma & death due to respiratory failure, heart failure & cerebral haemorrhage.
(ii) Lack of interest in personal hygiene, withdrawal, isolation, depression, fatigue aggressive & rebellious behaviour etc.
(iii) Acquire serious infections like AIDS & hepatitis B, who take drugs intravenously.
(iv) The adverse effects of drugs are manifested in the form of reckless behaviour, vandalism & violence.

15. Do you think that friends can influence one to take alcohol/drugs? If yes, how may one protect himself/herself from such an influence?
Ans: Yes, friends can influence one to take drugs. Following measures can be taken:
(i) Avoiding undue peer pressure.
(ii) Not taking undue pressure of failures beyond its threshold.
(iii) Getting counselling from some counsellor
(iv) Seeking help from parents and peers
(v) Seeking medical help

16. Why is that once a person starts taking alcohol or drugs, it is difficult to get rid of this habit? Discuss it with your teacher.
Ans: Psychological & physiological dependence of an individual to the intake of certain kinds of drugs and alcohol is called addiction. Once a person start taking alcohol & drugs, it is very difficult to get rid this habit because addiction drive people to take them even when these are not needed or even when their use becomes self destructive. With repeated use of drugs, the tolerance level of the receptors present in the body increases, consequently, the receptors responds only to higher doses of drugs or alcohgl leading to greater intake & addiction. Thus, the addiction potential of drugs & alcohol, pull the user into a vicious circle leading to their regular use (abuse) from which he/she may not able to get out.

18. In your view what motivates youngsters to take to alcohol or drugs and how can this be avoided?
Ans: Human have probably been using mind – affecting drugs since time immemorial. The root cause of addiction of man to drugs, smoking and drinking has been due to his inability to make mental adjustments with stresses and strains, drudgery and extreme misery in daily life. As a temporary measure, to combat these adverse situations and to have a certain degree of mental relaxation, humans have been making an extensive use of stimulants, depressants and hallucinogens. Stimulants generally speed up body process, and depressants slow them. Hallucinogens can alter a person’s thoughts, feelings, and perception.
In preventing drug abuse, the role of parents
could be:
(i) Communicate openly with the children, listen to their problems patiently and teach them how to handle the problems.
(ii) Take interest in children’s activities and their friends circle.
(iii) Set an example for children by not taking drugs or alcohol.
(iv) Keep track of prescribed drugs in home.
(v) Learn as much as possible about drugs.

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production:

Section Name Topic Name
9 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
9.1 Animal Husbandry
9.2 Plant Breeding
9.3 Single Cell Proteins
9.4 Tissue Culture
9.5 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. Explain in brief the role of animal husbandry in human welfare.
Ans: Animal husbandry deals with the caring, feeding and management of domesticated animals. It includes poultry, farming and fisheries.
These animals are very useful for human beings because
(i) they provide products which are used as food like meat, milk, eggs, honey, etc.
(ii) there are some other substances obtained from animals which are beneficial to human beings like wool, silk, leather, bees wax etc.

2. If your family owned a dairy farm, what measures would you undertake to improve the quality and quantity of milk production?
Ans: To improve the quality & quantity of milk production, one should take care of the following points:
(i) Proper feeding of the cattle with good quality of food.
(ii) Clean and hygienic environment for cattles.
(iii) Proper medication.
(iv) Veterinary supervision.
(v) Selection of good breeds having high yielding capacity combined with resistance to disease.
(vi) Quality of breed.

3. What is meant by the term ‘breed’ ? What are the objectives of animal breeding?
Ans: A group of animals related by descent and similar in most characters like general appearance, features, size, configuration etc. is called a breed.
The main objectives of animal breeding are:

  • To produce high yielding varieties of animals like high milk producing cattle, more egg producing varieties of chicken, more wool bearing sheep varieties etc.
  • To produce drought varieties for doing work like cattle, etc.
  • To produce disease resistant varieties of the livestocks.

4. Name the methods employed in animal breeding. According to you which of the methods is best? Why?
Ans: Methods employed in animal breeding are
(i) Inbreeding
(ii) Out-breeding
(iii) Cross-breeding
(iv) Interspecific hybridization
(v) Artificial insemination
(vi) Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Cross breeding is the best method as it results in the development of superior traits of both the breeds and the progeny produced are fertile and there is no inbreeding depression.

5. What is apiculture? How is it important in our lives?
Ans: Apiculture is the rearing and breeding of honeybees for the production of honey .
It is important in our live as honeybees provide honey, which is a highly nutritive substance and beeswax is used in many industries. Honeybees also pollinate flowers of some very important plants like sunflower, apple, pear.

6. Discuss the role of fishery in enhancement of food production.
Ans: Fishery is an industry which is concerned with the catching, processing or selling of fish. The role of fishery in enhancement of food production is as follows :

  1. The fish flesh is an excellent source of protein. It has very little fat, carries a good amount of minerals and vitamins A and D and is rich in iodine.
  2. Fish oil extracted from the liver of the sharks, sawfishes, etc., has medicinal value.
  3. Shagreen, the skin of sharks and rays are used in polishing the wood and other materials.
  4. The silvery bony scales of cyprimids are used in the manufacture of artificial pearls.
  5. Fish glue is a sticky product obtained from the skin of cod and is used as gum.
  6. Fish waste after the extraction of oil is used as fertilizer.
  7. The fishing industry has brought a lot of income to the farmers in particular and the country in general because of “Blue Revolution” (fish production) in the same lines as ‘Green Revolution’ (for producing enough food for all).

7. Briefly describe various steps involved in plant breeding.
Ans: Plant breeding is a purposeful manipulation of plant species in order to create desired plant types that are better suited for cultivation, give better yields and are disease resistant. The given flow chart shows various steps involved in plant breeding.

8. Explain what is meant by biofortification.
Ans: Enhancement of nutritional quality of a crop by improving the content and quality of protein, fats, vitamins, minerals and micronutrient is called biofortification. It helps to improve public health.

9. Which part of the plant is best suited for making virus-free plants and why?
Ans: The apical and axillary meristems of plants are the best parts of the plant to make virus-free plants. This is because rate of division of meristematic cell is higher than rate of multiplication of virus and viruses are unable to invade newly formed meristematic cells. Hence, meristematic cells are free of virus although the whole plant is infected with virus. With the use of meristem, a healthy plant can be recovered from the diseased plant through micropropagation method.

10. What is the major advantage of producing plants by micro propagation?
Ans: It is faster method of producing a large number of plants. Plants formed by micro propagation are identical.

11. Find out the various components of the medium 12.used for propagation of an explant in vitro are ?
Ans: The various components of the medium used for propagation of an explant in vitro are
-Sucrose (source of energy & carbon)
-Inorganic salts
-Vitamins
-Growth regulators (auxins and cytokinins)

12. Name any five hybrid varieties of crop plants which have been developed in India.
Ans: Sonalika (wheat)
Himgiri (wheat)
Pusa Swamim (mustard)
PusaSem2 (bean)
Pusa Sawani (lady’s finger)

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Microbes in Human Welfare

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NCERT Solutions For Class 12 Biology Microbes in Human Welfare

Topics and Subtopics in NCERT Solutions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 10 Microbes in Human Welfare:

Section Name Topic Name
10 Microbes in Human Welfare
10.1 Microbes in Household Products
10.2 Microbes in Industrial Products
10.3 Microbes in Sewage Treatment
10.4 Microbes in Production of Biogas
10.5 Microbes as Biocontrol Agents
10.6 Microbes as Biofertilisers
10.7 Summary

QUESTIONS FROM TEXTBOOK SOLVED

1. Bacteria cannot be seen with the naked eyes, but these can be seen with the help of a microscope. If you have to carry a sample from your home to your biology laboratory to demonstrate the presence of microbes under a microscope, which sample would you carry and why?
Ans: Soil sample/water sample as they are the natural habitat of micro-organisms and can be directly observed.

2. Give examples to prove that microbes release, gases during metabolism.
Ans: There are lots of examples which prove, that microbes release gases during their metabolism. Some examples are as follows :

  • Dough, which is used for making dosa and idli is fermented by bacteria. The puffy appearance of dough is due to production of CO2 by fermentation process.
  • Swiss cheese is characterized by having the characteristic flavour and large holes. The large holes are formed due to the amount of CO2 released by a bacterium Propionibacterium sharmanii.

3. In which food would you find lactic acid bacteria? Mention some of their useful applications.
Ans: Milk, Curd and Cheese are coagulated product. Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) convert lactose sugar into lactic acid. They also improve the nutritional quality of curd by increasing vitamin B12. Lactic acid bacteria are also found in the stomach where they check disease causing microbes.

4. Name some traditional Indian foods made of wheat, rice and Bengal gram (or their products) which involve use of microbes.
Ans: A number of dishes can be prepared through fermentation process by using microbes. Some important traditional dishes made up of wheat, rice and Bengal gram or black gram (vernacular urad) are as follows :

  • Bread – It is a fermented preparation of wheat by Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
  • Dosa, upma and idli – They are fermented preparation of rice and black gram (urad). The two are allowed to ferment for 3-12 hrs with Leuconostoc and Streptococcus species of bacteria.

5. In which way have microbes played a major role in controlling diseases caused by harmful bacteria?
Ans: By production of antibiotics like penicillin, tetracyclin, by production of vaccines for herpes, TB, DPT, etc.

6. Name any two species of fungus, which are used in the production of the antibiotics.
Ans: Penicillium chrysogenum, P. notatum, produce penicillin and Cephalosporium produces cephalosporins.

7. What is sewage? In which way can sewage be harmful to us?
Ans: Sewage is waste water release from household and industrial applications. It is harmful as
(i) it decreases flora mid fauna of H2O.
(ii) contamination of H2O/food/soil.
(iii) dissemination of pathogenic bacteria.

8. What is the key difference between primary and secondary sewage treatment?
Ans: There are three stages of sewage treatment : primary, secondary and tertiary. Primary treatment is a physical process while secondary is a biological process and tertiary is a chemical process.

9. Do you think microbes can also be used as source of energy? If yes, how?
Ans: Yes, the microbes present in activated sludge are digested anaerobically to generate a biogas i.e. by release of inflammable biogas in biogas plant, which is a source of energy.
Use of microbial culture for SCP (single cell protein).

10. Microbes can be used to decrease the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. Explain how this can be accomplished.
Ans: Microbes can be used to decrease the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides. This can be accomplished by the use of biofertilizers. The main source of biofertilizers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria. They can provide plant nutrients at cheaper cost when compared with the chemical fertilizers. e.g.
(i) Use of leguminous plant with Rhizobium.
(ii) Use of sulphur fixing bacteria.
(iii) Use of hydrogen fixing bacterium.

11. Three water samples namely river water, untreated sewage water and secondary effluent discharged from a sewage treatment plant were subjected to BOD test. The samples were labelled A, B and C; but the laboratory attendant did not note which was which. The BOD values of the three samples A, B and C were recorded as 20 mg/L, 8 mg/Land 400 mg/L, respectively. Which sample of the water is most polluted? Can you assign the correct label to each assuming the river water is relatively clean?
Ans: The sample with BOD value of 400 mg/h is most polluted and should be levelled as B —> untreated sewage river H2O will be —> less BOD —> 8 mg/L – sample A.
Untreated water —> 2° effluent BOD —>River water 400 —> 20 —> 8 and so should be labelled as sample C.

12. Find out the name of the microbes from which cyclosporin A (an immuno suppressive drug) and statins (blood cholesterol lowering agents) are obtained.
Ans: Cyclosporin A (an immuno suppressive drug) is obtained from fungus Trichoderma polysporum while statins (blood cholesterol lowering agent) is obtained from yeast Monascus purpureus.

13. Find out the role of microbes in the following and discuss it with your teacher.
(a) Single cell protein (SCP)
(b) Soil
Ans: SCP – single cell protein is microbial yield/cell crop of bacterial, yeast, algae rich in protein. The protein content of microbial cell is very high. Dried cell of Pseudomonas grown on petroleum product has 69% protein and these proteins have all essential amino acids.

Soil : Microbes take part in formation and maintenance of soil. They add organic matter to freshly formed soil. The process is called humification. Some microbes act as biofertilizers and biopesticides.

14. Arrange the following in the decreasing order (most important first) of their importance, for the welfare of human society. Give reasons for your answer.Biogas, Citric acid, Penicillin and Curd.
Ans: Curd: Less important for society – as it depends on individual use and has only nutritions value.
Citric acid : Industrial use, not for dissipation in community.
Penicillin: Medicinal use of microbes, good for health of society, commercially more usable.
Biogas: Most important for community welfare as
(i) it reduces excreta, waste from community.
(ii) it produces inflammable gases, can be used as energy source.
(iii) it is a renewable source.
(iv) it has multidimensional utility.
(v) it is easily maintained and dissipated for community purpose.
So,Penicillin > Biogas > Curd > Citric acid.

15. How do biofertilizers enrich the fertility of the soil?
Ans: Biofertilizers enrich the fertility of the soil by:
(i) replenishment of lost nutrients like N2, phosphorus, iron, sulphur.
(ii) addition of required micronutrients and macronutrients.
(iii) making humus acid compost.
(iv) acting as scavanger.

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NCERT SolutionsMathsPhysicsChemistryBiologyScience

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