NCERT Solutions for Class 7 Science Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Topics and Sub Topics in Class 7 Science Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants:

Q.1. Why do organisms need to take food?
Ans. Food is needed by all organisms for many purposes:
(a) The main function of food is to help in growth.
(b) Food provides energy for movements such as running, walking or raising our arm.
(c) Food is also needed for replacement and repairing damaged parts of body.
(d) Food gives us resistance to fight against diseases and protects us from infections

Q.3. How would you test the presence of starch in leaves?
Ans. The presence of starch in leaves can be tested by Iodine test. When we remove chlorophyll from leaf by boiling it in alcohol and then put 2 drops of iodine solution, its colour change to blue indicates the presence of starch.

Q.4. Give a brief description of the process of synthesis of food in green plants.
Ans. The green plants have chlorophyll in the leaves. The leaves use C02 and water to make food in presence of sunlight.

Q.5. Show with the help of a sketch that the plants are the ultimate source of food.

Q.6. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Green plants are called ________________ since they synthesise their own food.
(b) The food synthesised by the plants is stored as ________________ .
(c) In photosynthesis solar energy is captured by the pigment called ________________
(d) During photosynthesis plants take in ________________ and release ________________ .
Ans. (a) autotrophs (b) starch (c) chlorophyll (d) carbon dioxide, oxygen

Q.7. Name the following:
(i) A parasitic plant with yellow, slender and tubular stem.
(ii) A plant that has both autotrophic and heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
(iii) The pores through which leaves exchange gases.
Ans. (i) cuscuta (ii) Insectivorous plant (iii) Stomata

Q.8. Tick the correct answer:
(a) Amarbel is an example of:
(i) Autotroph (ii) Parasite (iii) Saprotroph (iv) Host

(b) The plant which traps and feeds on insects is:
(a) Cuscuta (ii) China rose {iii) Pitcher plant (iu) Rose
Ans. (a) (ii) Parasite (b) (iii) Pitcher plant

Q.9. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II:

Q.10. Mark T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if it is false:

(i) Carbon dioxide is released during photosynthesis. (T/F)
(ii) Plants which synthesise their food themselves are called saprotrophs. (T/F)
(iii) The product of photosynthesis is not a protein. (T/F)
(iv) Solar energy is converted into chemical energy during photosynthesis. (T/F)
Ans. (a) F (ii) F (iii) T (iu) T

Q.11.Choose the correct option from the following.
Which part of the plant takes in carbon dioxide from the air for photosynthesis?
(i) Root hair (ii) Stomata (iii) Leaf veins (iv) Sepals
Ans. (ii) Stomata

Q.12. Choose the correct option from the following:
Plants take carbon dioxide from the atmosphere mainly through their:
(i) Roots (ii) Stem (iii) Flowers (iv) Leaves
Ans. (iv) Leaves

NCERT SolutionsMathsScienceSocialEnglishSanskritHindiRD Sharma

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NCERT Solutions For Class 11 Financial Accounting – Recording of Transactions-I

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. State the three fundamental steps in the accounting process.
Answer : The fundamental steps in the accounting process are diagrammatically presented below.

Q2. Why is the evidence provided by source documents important to accounting?
Answer : The evidence provided by the source document is important in the following manners:
1. It provides evidence that a transaction has actually occurred.
2. It provides important and relevant information about date, amount, parties involved and other details of a particular transaction.
3. It acts as a proof in the court of law.
4. It helps in verifying transactions during the auditing process.

Students who have prepared for CA can visit CA Foundation Study Material.

Q3. Should a transaction be first recorded in a journal or ledger? Why?
Answer : A transaction should be recorded first in a journal because journal provides complete details of a transaction in one entry. Further, a journal forms the basis for posting the transactions into their respective accounts into ledger. Transactions are recorded in journal in chronological order, i.e. in the order of occurrence with the help of source documents. Journal is also known as ‘book of original entry’, because with the help of source document, transactions are originally recorded in books. The process of recording the transactions in journal and then in ledger is presented in the below given flow chart.

Q4. Are debits or credits listed first in journal entries? Are debits or credits indented?
Answer : As per the rule of double entry system, there are two columns of ‘Amount’ in the journal format namely ‘Debit Amount’ and ‘Credit Amount’. The way of recording in a journal is quite different from normal recording. Journal entry is recorded in journal format in which the ‘Debit Amount’ column is listed before the ‘Credit Amount’ column.
Credits are indented. Indentation is leaving a space before writing any word. Journal entry has its own jargon. While journalising, in the ‘Particulars’ column of journal format, debited account is written first and credited account is in the next line leaving some space, which is indentation.

Q5. Why are some accounting systems called double accounting systems?
Answer : Some accounting systems are called double accounting systems because under this system there are two aspects of every transaction, i.e., every transaction has dual effect. Every transaction affects two accounts simultaneously, that is represented by debiting one account and crediting the other account. It is based on the fact that if there is receiver, there should be a giver.

Q6. Give a specimen of an account.

Q7. Why are the rules of debit and credit same for both liability and capital?
Answer :
Every business acquires funds from internal as well as from external sources. According to the business entity concept, the amount borrowed from the external sources together with the internal sources like, capital invested by the proprietor, is termed as liability to the business. Business entity concept treats business and business owner separately. Capital of the owner is treated as liability to the business because the business has to repay the amount of capital to the owner, in case of closure of the business. As liability incurred is credited, in the same way, fresh capital introduced and net profit increases the owner’s capital, and so, capital is credited. On the other hand, if liability is paid, it reduces liability, and so, it is debited. Similarly, drawings from capital and net loss reduce the capital, and so, capital is debited. Thus the rules of debit and credit are same for both liability and capital.
Q8. What is the purpose of posting J.F numbers that are entered in the journal at the time entries are posted to the accounts?
Answer : J.F. number is the number that is entered in the ledger at the time of posting entries into their respective accounts. It helps in determining whether all transactions are properly posted in their accounts. It is recorded at the time of posting and not at the time of recording the transactions.
The purpose of entering J.F. number in the ledger is because of the below given benefits.
1. J.F. number helps in locating the entries of accounts in the journal book. In other words, J.F number helps to locate the position of the related journal entry and subsidiary book in the journal book.
2. J.F. number in accounts ensures that recording in the books of original entry has been posted or not.

Q9. What entry (debit or credit) would you make to: (a) increase revenue (b) decrease in expense, (c) record drawings (d) record the fresh capital introduced by the owner.
Answer :
1. Increase in revenue
Increase in revenue is credited as it increases the capital. Capital has credit balance and if capital increases, then it is credited.
2. Decrease in expense
Decrease in expense is credited as all expenses have debit balance. If expense decreases, then it is credited.
3. Record drawings
Capital has credit balance; if the capital increases, then it is credited. If capital decreases, then it is debited. Drawings are debited as they decrease the capital.
4. Record of fresh capital introduced by the owner- credit
Capital has credit balance, if capital increases, then it is credited. The introduction of fresh capital increases the balance of capital, and so, it is credited.

Q10. If a transaction has the effect of decreasing an asset, is the decrease recorded as a debit or as a credit? If the transaction has the effect of decreasing a liability, is the decrease recorded as a debit or as a credit?
Answer :If a transaction has a decreasing effect on an asset, then this decrease is recorded as credit. This is because, as all assets have debit balance and if assets decrease, then it is credited. For example, sale of furniture results in decrease in furniture (asset); so, the sale of furniture will be credited.
If a transaction has a decreasing effect on a liability, then this decrease is recorded as debit. This is because all liabilities have credit balance. If the liability increases, then it is credited and if the liability decreases, then it is debited. For example, payment to the creditors results in a decrease in the creditors (liability); so, the creditors account will be debited.

Numerical Questions

Q1. Prepare accounting equation on the basis of the following:
(a) Harsha started business with cash Rs 2,00,000
(b) Purchased goods from Naman for cash Rs 40,000
(c) Sold goods to Bhanu costing Rs 10,000/- Rs 12,000
(d) Bought furniture on credit Rs 7,000

Q2. Prepare accounting equation from the following:

Answer:

Q3. Mohit has the following transactions, prepare accounting equation:

Answer:

Q4. Rohit has the following transactions:

Prepare the Accounting Equation to show the effect of the above transactions on the assets, liabilities and capital.
Answer:

Q5. Use accounting equation to show the effect of the following transactions of M/s Royal Traders:

Answer:

Q6. Show the accounting equation on the basis of the following transaction:

Answer:

Q7. Show the effect of the following transactions on Assets, Liabilities and Capital through accounting equation:

Answer :

Q8. Show the effect of the following transaction on the accounting equation:

Answer :

Q9. Transactions of M/s. Vipin Traders are given below.
Show the effects on Assets, Liabilities and Capital with the help of accounting Equation.

Answer:

Q10. Bobby opened a consulting firm and completed these transactions during November, 2005:
(a) Invested Rs 4,00,000 cash and office equipment with Rs 1,50,000 in a business called Bobbie Consulting.
(b) Purchased land and a small office building. The land was worth Rs 1,50,000 and the building worth Rs 3,50,000. The purchase price was paid with Rs 2,00,000 cash and a long term note payable for Rs 8,00,000.
(c) Purchased office supplies on credit for Rs 12,000.
(d) Bobbie transferred title of motor car to the business. The motor car was worth Rs 90,000.
(e) Purchased for Rs 30,000 additional office equipment on credit.
(f) Paid Rs 75,00 salary to the office manager.
(g) Provided services to a client and collected Rs 30,000
(h) Paid Rs 4,000 for the month’s utilities.
(i) Paid supplier created in transaction (c).
(j) Purchase new office equipment by paying Rs 93,000 cash and trading in old equipment with a recorded cost of Rs 7,000.
(k) Completed services of a client for Rs 26,000. This amount is to be paid within 30 days.
(l) Received Rs 19,000 payment from the client created in transaction (k).
(m) Bobby withdrew Rs 20,000 from the business.
Analyse the above stated transactions and open the following T-accounts:
Cash, client, office supplies, motor car, building, land, long term payables, capital, withdrawals, salary, expense and utilities expense.
Answer :
(a) The transaction (a) increases assets by Rs 5,50,000 (cash Rs 4,00,000 and office equipment Rs 1,5,000) it will be debited and on the other hand it will increase the capital by Rs 5,50,000, so it will be credited in capital account.

(b)
Purchase of land and small office building are assets. On one hand, the purchase of these items will increase their individual accounts and this will increase the total amount of the assets in the business; so, both the accounts will be debited. On the other hand, payment in cash on the purchase of these assets will decrease the cash balance, so cash account will be credited to the extent of amount paid. After payment for building in cash, the balance of building account will be transferred to creditors for building account. This will increase the amount of the creditors, which in turn will increase the total liabilities of the business. Long term payables are regarded as loan to the business that will increase both cash balance (due to intake of loan) as well as liabilities of the business.

Q11. Journalise the following transactions in the books of Himanshu:

Answer:

Q12. Enter the following Transactions in the Journal of Mudit :

Answer :

Q13. Journalise the following transactions:

Answer :

Q14. Jouranlise the following transactions in the books of Harpreet Bros.:
(a) Rs 1,000 due from Rohit are now bad debts.
(b) Goods worth Rs 2,000 were used by the proprietor.
(c) Charge depreciation @ 10% p.a for two month on machine costing Rs 30,000.
(d) Provide interest on capital of Rs 1,50,000 at 6% p.a. for 9 months.
(e) Rahul become insolvent, who owed is Rs 2,000 a final dividend of 60 paise in a rupee is received from his estate.
Answer :

Q15. Prepare Journal from the transactions given below :

Answer :

Q16. Journalise the following transactions, post to the ledger:

Answer :

Q17. Journalise the following transactions is the journal of M/s. Goel Brothers and post them to the ledger.

Answer :

Q18. Give journal entries of M/s. Mohit traders; post them to the Ledger from the following transactions:

Answer :

Q19. Journalise the following transaction in the Books of the M/s. Bhanu Traders and Post them into the Ledger.

Answer :

Q20. Journalise the following transaction in the Book of M/s. Beauti tradeRs Also post them in the ledger.

Answer:

Q21. Journalise the following transaction in the books of Sanjana and post them into the ledger:

Answer :

Long Answer Type Questions:

Q1. Describe the events recorded in accounting systems and the importance of source documents in those systems?
Answer: It is beyond human capabilities to memorise each financial transaction and that is why, source documents have their own importance in accounting system. They are considered as an evidence of transactions and can be presented in the court of law. Transactions supported by evidence can be verified. Source documents also ensure that transactions recorded in the books are free from personal biases.
A few events that are supported by source document are given below.
1. Sale of goods worth Rs 200 on credit, supported by sales invoice/bill
2. Purchase of goods worth Rs 500 on credit, supported by purchase invoice/bill
3. Cash sales worth Rs 1,000, supported by cash memo
4. Cash purchase of goods worth Rs 400, supported by cash memo
5. Goods worth Rs 100 returned by customer, supported by credit note
6. Return of goods purchased on credit worth Rs 200, supported by debit note
7. Payment worth Rs 1,200 through bank, supported by cheques
8. Deposits into bank worth Rs 500, supported by pay-in slips.

Out of the above events, only those events that can be expressed in monetary terms, are recorded in the books of accounts. However, the non-monetary events are not recorded in accounts; for example, promotion of manger cannot be recorded but increment in salary can be recorded at the time when salary is paid or due.
Source document in accounting is important because of the below given reasons.
1. It provides evidence that transaction has actually occurred.
2. It provides information about the date, amount and parties involved and other details of a particular transactions.
3. It acts as an evidence in the count of law.
4. It helps in verifying the transaction during the auditing process.

Q2. Describe how debits and credits are used to analyse transactions.
Answer :
Debit originated from the Italian word debito, which in turn is derived from the Latin word debeo, which means ‘owed to proprietor’ and credit comes from the Italian word credito, which is derived from the Latin word credo, which means belief, i.e., ‘owed by proprietor’.

According to the dual aspect concept, all the business transactions that are recorded in the books of accounts, have two aspects- debit and credit. The dual aspect can be better understood by the help of an example; bought goods worth Rs 500 on cash. This transaction affects two accounts with the same amount simultaneously. As goods are brought in exchange of cash, so the cash balances in the business reduce by Rs 500, i.e. why the cash account is credited. Simultaneously, the amount of goods increases by Rs 500, so purchases account will be debited. Debit and credit depend on the nature of accounts involved; such as assets, expenses, income, liabilities and capital. There are five types of Accounts.

1. Assets- These include all properties or legal rights owned by a firm for its operations, such as cash in hand, plant and machinery, bank, land, building, etc. All assets have debit balance. If assets increase, they are debited and if assets decrease, they are credited.
For example, furniture purchased and payment made by cheque. The journal entry is:

Furniture A/c Dr.
To Bank A/c

Here, furniture and bank balance, both are assets to the firm. As furniture is purchased, so furniture account will increase, and will be debited. On the other hand, payment of furniture is being made by cheque that reduces the bank balance of the business, so bank account will be credited.

2. Expense- It is made to run business smoothly and to carry day to day business activites.
All expenses have debit balance. If an expense is incurred, it must be debited.
For example, rent paid. The journal entry is:
Rent A/c Dr.
To Cash A/c

Here, rent is an expense. All expenses have debit balance. Hence, rent is debited. On the other hand, as rent is paid in cash that reduces the cash balances, so cash account is credited.

3. Liability- Liability is an obligation of business. Increase in liability is credited and decrease in liability is debited.
For example, loan taken from bank. The journal entry is:

Bank A/c Dr.
To Bank Loan A/c
Here, loan from bank is a liability to the firm. As all liabilities have credit balance, so loan from bank has been credited because it increases the liabilities.

4. Income- Income means profit earned during an accounting period from any source. Income also means excess of revenue over its cost during an accounting period. Income has credit balance because it increases the balance of capital.
For example, rent received from tenant. The journal entry is:
Cash A/c Dr.
To Rent A/c
Here, rent is an income; hence, rent account has been credited and cash has been debited, as rent received increases the cash balances.

5. Capital- Capital is the amount invested by the proprietor in the business. Capital has credit balance. Increase in capital is credited and decrease in capital is debited
For example, additional capital introduced by owner. The journal entry is:
Cash A/c Dr.
To Capital A/c
As additional capital is introduced, so the amount of capital will increase, i.e. why, capital account is credited. On the other hand, as capital is introduced in form of cash, so the cash balances decrease, i.e. why, cash account is debited.

Q3. Describe how accounts are used to record information about the effects of transactions?
Answer :
Every transaction is recorded in the original book of entry (journal) in order of their occurrence; however, if we want to know that how much we receive from our debtors or how much to pay to the creditors, it is not possible to determine at a single movement. Hence, we prepare accounts to know the position of business activities in the meantime.
There are some steps to record transactions in accounts; it can be easily understood with the help of an example.
Sold goods to Mr A worth Rs 50,000 on 12th April and received payment Rs 40,000 on 25th April. The following journal entries will be recorded:

Step 1- Locate the account in ledger, i.e., Mr A’s Account.
Step 2- Enter the date of transaction in the date column of the debit side of Mr A’s Account.
Step 3- In the ‘Particulars’ column of the debit side of Mr A’s Account, the name of corresponding account is to be written, i.e., ‘Sales’.
Step 4- Enter the page number of the ledger in the Journal Folio (J.F.) column of Mr A’s Account.
Step 5- Enter the amount in the ‘Amount’ column.
Step 6- Same steps are to be followed to post entries in the credit side of Mr A’s Account.
Step 7- After entering all the transactions for a particular period, balance the account by totalling both sides and write the difference in shorter side, as ‘Balance c/d’.
Step 8- Total of account is to be written on either sides.

Q4 . What is a journal? Give a specimen of journal showing at least five entries.
Answer : Journal is derived from the French word Jour, means daily records. In this book, transactions are recorded in order of their occurrence, i.e., in chronological order from the source document. It is also termed as the book of original entry and each transaction is termed as journal entry.

Date- Date of transaction is recorded in the order of their occurrence.
Particulars- Details of business transactions like, name of the parties involved and the name of related accounts, are recorded.
L.F.- Page number of ledger account when entry is posted.
Debit Amount- Amount of debit account is written.
Credit Amount- Amount of credit account is written.

Q5. Differentiate between source documents and vouchers.
Answer :

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Solved CBSE Sample Paper 2021-2022 Class 10 Maths Standard and Basic with Solutions: Solving Pre Board CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard and Basic with Solutions Answers 2021-2022 Pdf Download to understand the pattern of questions ask in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for CBSE Class 10 Maths board exam and Score More marks. Here we have given CBSE Class 10 Maths Sample Papers. According to new CBSE Exam Pattern, MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Carries 20 Marks.

Board – Central Board of Secondary Education
Subject – CBSE Class 10 Maths
Year of Examination – 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016.

CBSE Sample Paper 2022 Class 10 Maths Standard and Basic with Solutions

CBSE Sample Paper 2022 Class 10 Maths Standard with Solutions Term 2

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 1
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 2
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 3
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 4
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 5
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 6 for Practice
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 7 for Practice
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 8 for Practice
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 9 for Practice

CBSE Sample Paper 2021-2022 Class 10 Maths Basic with Solutions Term 2

• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Term 2 Set 1
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Term 2 Set 2
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Term 2 Set 3
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Term 2 Set 4
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Term 2 Set 5
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Term 2 Set 6 for Practice
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Term 2 Set 7 for Practice
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Term 2 Set 8 for Practice
• CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Basic Term 2 Set 9 for Practice

CBSE Sample Paper 2021 Class 10 Maths Standard with Solutions (Old Pattern)

• CBSE Sample Paper 2020 Class 10 Maths Standard with Solution Set 1
• Maths Sample Paper Class 10 2020 Standard Solution Set 2
• Sample Paper Class 10 Maths Standard with Solution Set 3
• CBSE Class 10 Maths Standard Sample Paper Set 4 for Practice
• Sample Paper of Maths Standard Class 10 Set 5 for Practice

CBSE Sample Paper 2020-2021 Class 10 Maths Basic with Solutions (Old Pattern)

• CBSE Sample Paper 2020 Class 10 Maths Basic with Solution Set 1
• Class 10 Maths Basic Sample Paper 2020 Solved Set 2
• Sample Paper of Class 10 Maths Basic Set 3
• Maths Basic Sample Paper Class 10 Set 4 for Practice
• Sample Paper for Class 10 Maths Basic Set 5 for Practice

Download Formula Book for Class 10 Maths and Science

CBSE Sample Papers 2020 Maths Basic, Maths Standard, Science, Social Science, Hindi, English, and Sanskrit

How To Take CBSE Class 10 Maths Sample Papers?

Step 1 – Download the CBSE Class 10 Sample Question Papers or Pre Board Model Papers or Previous year question papers that you want to take.

Step 2 – Take the exam seriously just like you would take the real exam.

Step 3 – Evaluate your paper – mark the questions you couldn’t answer or get incorrect.

Step 4 – Revise the related concepts and topics.

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths 2019

Solved CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 for 2018-19 are tabulated as follows:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths With Solutions

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths With Solutions are tabulated as follows:

• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2019 Outside Delhi
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2019 Delhi
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2018
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2017 Outside Delhi Term 2
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2017 Delhi Term 2
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2016 Delhi Term 2
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2015 Delhi Term 2
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2014 Delhi Term 2
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2013 Delhi Term 2
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2012 Delhi Term 2
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2011 Delhi Term 2
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2016 Outside Delhi Term 2
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2015 Outside Delhi Term 2
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2014 Outside Delhi Term 2
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2013 Outside Delhi Term 2
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2012 Outside Delhi Term 2
• CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2011 Outside Delhi Term 2

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers class 10 Maths

Last 10 Years Question Papers for Class 10 Maths are tabulated as follows:

CBSE Topper Answer Sheet Class 10 Maths

Download PDF of Last 5 Years Toppers Answer Sheet Photo Copies from the following table.

CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question Paper Maths 2018

CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question papers for Maths 2018 with marking scheme for main exam and compartment exam are tabulated as follows:

CBSE Previous Year Question Paper Class 10 Maths 2017

CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question papers for Maths 2017 with marking scheme for main exam and compartment exam are tabulated as follows:

CBSE Previous Year Question Paper Class 10 Maths 2016

CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question papers for Maths 2016 with marking scheme for main exam and compartment exam are tabulated as follows:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2015

CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question papers for Maths 2015 with marking scheme for main exam and compartment exam are tabulated as follows:

CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths 2014

CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question papers for Maths 2014 with marking scheme for main exam and compartment exam are tabulated as follows:

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths SA2

CBSE Class 10 Sample Question papers for Maths 2017 SA2 are tabulated as follows:

Solved Papers For the Year 2017 :

• Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 SA2 Maths 2017 Set 1
• Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 SA2 Maths 2017 Set 2
• Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 SA2 Maths 2017 Set 3
• Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 SA2 Maths 2017 Set 4
• Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 SA2 Maths 2017  Set 5
• Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 SA2 Maths 2017 Set 6
• Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 SA2 Maths 2017 Set 7
• Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 SA2 Maths 2017 Set 8
• Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 SA2 Maths 2017 Set 9
• Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 SA2 Maths 2017 Set 10
• Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 SA2 Maths 2017 Set 11
• Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 SA2 Maths 2017 Set 12
• Solved CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 SA2 Maths 2017 Set 13

Unsolved Papers:

• Sample paper for Maths Set A
• Sample paper for Maths Set B
• Sample paper for Maths Set C
• Sample paper for Maths Set D

More Resources for CBSE Class 10:

• RD Sharma Class 10 Solutions
• Lakhmir Singh Physics Class 10
• Solved Sample Papers Class 10 Science

Importance of Solving CBSE Class 10 Maths Sample Papers

1. By solving the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths, students will get an idea of exam pattern, the types of questions asked and weightage of each section.
2. Solving CBSE Class 10 sample paper will be good practice for students.
3. These CBSE Maths Sample Papers covers all the important topics and also the questions which are repeated every year.
4. CBSE Class 10 Maths sample question paper will help the students to analyze their performance. This will also help with time management.
5. This will boost up the students’ confidence level.
6. After this much of practice, students will have a good idea about what to expect in exams.

We hope the CBSE Sample Questions papers for Class 10 Maths, help you. If you have any query regarding Maths Sample Questions papers for Class 10, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard and Basic with Solutions 2021-2022 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 15 questions. ALL questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 7 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has 2 case based questions of 4 marks each.
• Internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.

SECTION – A

Question 1.
The table shows the electronic structures of four elements.

(A) Identify which elements) will form covalent bonds with carbon.
Answer:
P and R

Detailed Answer:
The number of electrons are either lost or gained or shared by one atom of an element to achieve the nearest inert gas electronic configuration, gives us the valency of the eLement.

From the table, it is clear that P and R are non-metals. We know covalent bonds are formed between non-metals by sharing the electrons. In case of ‘P’ we see the formation of a double bond between two P atoms. An atom of ‘P’ has 6 electrons in L shell and it requires two more electrons to complete the octet as that of the nearest gas neon so each atom of ‘P’ shares two electrons with another atom of’P’ to give the structure?

The two electrons contributed by each ‘P’ atom give rise to two shared pairs of electrons so a double bond is formed two P atoms and ‘P’ is divalent i.e. P₂. P shares two electrons so its valency is 2.

In case of ‘R’, it has 7 electrons in its M shell and it requires one more electron to complete its octet as that of the nearest gas argon. So two ‘R’ atoms share their electrons to form a molecule of ‘R’ i.e. R₂. The electron dot structure of’R’ molecule is:

The shared pair constitutes a single covalent bond between two ‘R1 atoms and is represented by a single line (-). ‘R’ shares only one electron so its valency is 1.

In case of element ‘Q’ it has one valence electron, it is a metal, it can attain its stable configuration by losing one electron and form ionic or electrovalent bond Q⁺ + e^–.
‘S’ has already its stable configuration; it cannot gain or lose or share the electron and its valency is zero so it is an inert gas.

Related Theory
The two pairs of electrons on each P atom and three paurs of electrons on each R atom are not involved in bond formation and are called unshared pairs or lone pairs. The elements P and R are oxygen and chlorine atoms.

(B) “Carbon reacts with an element in the above table to form several compounds.” Give suitable reason. (2)
Answer:
Carbon has a valency four or Tetravalency & Catenation

Carbon is a non-metal with atomic number (z) equal to 6. Its electronic configuration is 2, 4. Thus, carbon has four valence electrons. It does not take part in the ionic bond formation as it can neither gain nor lose four electrons. Therefore, carbon completes its octet by sharing four electrons present in the valence shell with the electrons of other atoms. This means that carbon is tetravalent or has a valency of four. Carbon has the unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, gives rise to large molecules and the property is called catenation, Carbon can react with P and forms CP₂.

Carbon can also react with R and forms CR₄

Question 2.
The diagram below shows part of the periodic table.
(A) Which elements would react together to form covalent compounds?
(b) Between the two elements W and Z, which will have a bigger atomic radius? Why?

Answer:
(A) Y and Z
(B) W is bigger,

Reason:
Down the group number of shells increases

Detailed Answer: (A) In order to understand the reactivity of the given elements, we need to first find out the group and period of all elements.

As we can see from the above table ‘W’ belongs to second group and is a metal (metals are on the Left side of the modern periodic table). T and ‘Z’ are non-metals and belong to group 16 and 17 respectively. We know only non-meals react to form covalent compounds. Hence, elements T and ‘Z’ would react together to form covalent compounds.

‘Y’ belongs to group 16 and period 3 where ‘Z’ belongs to group 17 and period 2.

‘Y’ has 6 valence electrons and ‘Z’ has 7 valence electrons. Each ‘Z’ atom needs one electron to complete its octet and Y atom needs two electrons to attain stable configuration so each Y atom shares its two electrons with two ‘Z’ atoms to form Z₂Y.

The electron dot structure is given below:

Related Theory
‘W’ is metal and it can form electrovalent bond with Z and Y. Their formulae will be WZ and WY₂.

(B) Element W would have a bigger atomic radius than ‘Z’. Element ‘Z’ belongs to period 2 and ‘W’ belongs to period 4. The number of shells are more in W. Moreover, the size decreases as we move from left to right in a period due to effective nuclear charge. Increase in nuclear charge tends to pull the electrons closer to the nucleus and reduces the size of the atoms. Hence ‘Z’ is smaller in size.

The atomic size increases down the group as new shells are being added as we go down the group. This increases the distance between the outer most electrons and the nucleus. Thus ‘W’ has a bigger atomic radius than ‘Z’ as well as Y.

Related Theory
The atomic size refers to the radius of an atom. The atomic size is the distance between the centre of the nucleus and the outermost shell of an isolated atom and its unit is pm.

Question 3.
(A) Trace the path a male gamete takes to fertilise a female gamete after being released from the penis.
Answer:
Male gamete (sperm) travels in the female reproductive tract after being released. The path which it takes to fertilise the female gamete (egg) is vagina uterus, fallopian tube resulting in a zygote;

Alternatively accept the labelled figure of human female reproductive system indicating the passage of sperm from vagina to uterus bhd then to fallopian tube for fertilisation resulting in a zygote;

Detailed Answer:
A male gamete (sperm) produced in the testes of human males are introduced into the vagina of the female through penis during sexual intercourse. In this way, millions of male gametes are released into the vagina at a time. The sperms are very active and motile due to the presence of tail. The sperms move through vagina, the cervix into the uterus.

From uterus the sperms pass into the fallopian tube
Penis → Sperm → Vagina → Cervix → Uterus → Fattopian tube.

One of the (oviducts) fallopian tubes contains an ovum released by the ovary during ovulation. Only one sperm fuses with the ovum in the fallopian tube to form a zygote.

(B) State the number of sets of chromosomes present in a zygote. (2)
Answer:
Zygote has 2 sets of chromosomes alternatively accept 2n. No marks to be assigned for n or 3n.

Detailed Answer:
Zygote is a single cell which is formed by the fusion of a male gamete and a female gamete. The zygote has two copies of each chromosome, one each from male and female parents. Every gamete (germ cell) will take one chromosome from each pair and these may be of either male and female parents. When two gametes join, they wilL restore the normal number of chromosomes in the progeny, ensuring the stability of the DNA of the species. Therefore, we can say in a zygote, two sets (2n) of chromosomes are present.

Question 4.
Rajesh observed a patch of greenish black powdery mass on a stale piece of bread
(A) Name the organism responsible for this and its specific mode of asexual reproduction.
Answer:
The greenish black powdery mass on a stale piece of bread is due to bread mould Rhizopus which reproduces by spore formation.

Detailed Answer:
pore formation is an asexual mode of reproduction in bread mould (rhizopus). In spore formation, parent plant produces hundreds of microscopic spores in the sporangia which are reproductive parts. When the sporangium bursts open, the spores spread into the air.

(B) Name its vegetative and reproductive parts. (2)
Answer:
Hyphae or thread like structures are the vegetative part and tiny blob like structures or sporangia are the reproductive parts.

Detailed Answer:
When the spores get a suitable substratum and appropriate conditions (warm and humid atmosphere), the thread like structures (hyphae) are developed which are non-reproductive parts. Thin stems having blob like structures called sporangia which contains spore enclosed in a protective covering are formed. Spores are asexual reproductive units which would reproduce into more bread mould when they get appropriate conditions.

Question 5.
Mustard was growing in two fields- A and B. While Field A produced brown coloured seeds, field B produced yellow coloured seeds.
It was observed that in field A, the offsprings showed only the parental trait for consecutive generations, whereas in field B, majority of the offsprings showed a variation in the progeny.
OR
In an asexually reproducing species, if a trait X exists in 5% of a population and trait Y exists in 70% of the same population, which of the two trait is likely to have arisen earlier? Give reason. (2)
Answer:
In field A, the reason for parental trait in consecutive generations of the offsprings is self-pollination.
In field B, variation is seen to occur because of recombination of genes as cross-pollination is taking place.
OR
Trait Y which exists in 70% (larger fraction) of the population, is likely to have arisen earlier because in asexual reproduction, identical copies of DNA are produced and variations do not occur.

New traits come in the population due to sudden mutation and then are inherited. 70 % of the population with trait Y is likely to have been replicating that trait for a longer period than 5 % of population with trait X.

Detailed Answer:
In field A, the reason for potential trait for consecutive generation of the offsprings is due to self pollination of brown coloured seeds (BB).

Again self pollination of pure line brown seeds were undertaken to produce only brown seeds.

In field B, variations are seen in consecutive generations due to cross pollination between brown coloured seeds and yellow coloured seeds. The genetic material of two combines and the resulting seeds from that cross pollination will have characteristics of both and show new variants.

Case I:

F₂ Generation:

Variations are seen in second generation.
Phenotypic ratio :

Case II:

Phenotypic ratio :

Variants are seen in F₁ and F₂ generations.
OR
Variations in a species arise either due to errors in DNA copying or during sexual reproduction or due to mutations. But in a sexually reproducing species, no reshuffling of traits occurs. Appearance of a few new traits in the population is due to small inaccuracies during DNA copying. These very few traits wilL be. in very small proportion than the traits already present. Thus, trait Y which exists in 70% of population must have arisen earlier than that of trait X which occurs only in 5% of the population.

Question 6.
A simple motor is made in a school laboratory. A coil of wire is mounted on on axle between the poles of a horseshoe magnet, as illustrated.

In the example above, coil ABCD is horizontal and the battery is connected as shown.
(A) For this position, state the direction of the force on the arm AB.
(B) Why does the current in the arm BC not contribute to the turning force on the coil?
OR
A circuit contains a battery, a variable resistor and a solenoid. The figure below shows the magnetic field pattern produced by the current in the solenoid.

(A) State how the magnetic field pattern indicates regions where the magnetic field is stronger.
Answer:
downwards
OR
Relative closeness of field Lines indicates the strength of magnetic field. Since field Lines are crowded around the ends of the solenoid, hence these are the regions of strongest magnetism.

Detailed Answer:
When current flows through coil, arms AB and CD experience magnetic force. On applying Fleming’s left hand rule, the force acting on arm AB pushes it downwards and arm CD experiences force in the upward direction.

(B) What happens to the magnetic field when the current in the circuit is reversed? (2)
Answer:
Because BC is in the same direction as the direction of field lines. Force is minimum when the direction of current in the conductor is the same as that of the magnetic field. BC wilt not contribute as the force on this part of the coil wilt be cancelled by the force on DA.
OR
The direction of the field will also be reversed.

Related Theory
The reversal in the direction of flow of current through arms AB and CD also reverses the direction of force acting on these arms. The reversing of current in the coil ABCD in repeated after each half rotation and as a result, coil and axle continue to rotate in the same direction. Hence electrical energy is converted to mechanical energy.
OR
Concept Applied :
The pattern of magnetic field lines around a current carrying solenoid is similar to the pattern of the field with the magnetic field around a bar magnet. As it is clear from the figure, the magnetic field lines emerge from north pole and merge at south pole. \Ne know that stronger the magnetic field, closer are the field lines.

Related Theory
As the electric current in each circular loop of solenoid coil flows in the some direction, the magnetic fields of all the loops are added up and as a result, the magnetic field inside the solenoid coil becomes a strong field.

Question 7.
DDT was sprayed in a lake to regulate breeding of mosquitoes. How would it affect the trophic levels in the following food chain associated with a lake? Justify your answer.

OR
In the following food chain, vertical arrows indicate the energy lost to the environment and horizontal arrows indicate energy transferred to the next trophic level. Which one of the three vertical arrows (A, C and E) and which one of the two horizontal arrows (B and D) will represent more energy transfer? Give reason for your answer. (2)

Answer:
(1) DDT being a non- biodegradable pesticide will enter the food chain from the first trophic level i.e Plankton.
(2) Non – biodegradable pesticides accumulate progressively at each trophic level.
This phenomenon is known as biological magnification.
(3) HAWK will have the highest level of pesticide.
OR
A will represent more energy transfer as compared to C and E.
B will represent more energy transfer as compared to D.
When green plants are eaten by primary consumers, a great deal of energy is lost as heat to the environment, some amount goes into digestion and in doing work and the rest goes towards growth and reproduction. An average of 10% of the food eaten is made available for the next level of consumers. This loss of energy takes place at every trophic level.
Alternatively accept – In accordance with 10% law of transfer of energy in a food chain only 10% of energy available at one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level.

Detailed Answer:
DDT (which is banned in India) is a pesticide which is used in crop fields in an attempt to control pests, These are washed down into the aquatic bodies. From of here, they are absorbed by planktons alongwith minerals and water and in this way, they enter the food chain. Since, they are non-biodegradable, these persist as such for long period of time, when planktons are eaten by small fish. They enter into their bodies and so on they become more and more concentrated at each trophic level. That is why hawk has the maximum concentration of DDT of in this food chain.

Related Theory
In the soil, DDT enters in the food chain at the level of producers. From producers to herbivores and so on. The amount of DDT increases at each successive trophic LeveL. Humans being at the top in the food chain accumulate maximum concentration of toxic non-biodegradable substance in the body.
OR
Related Theory
Green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture 1% of energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves and transforms it into food energy by the process of photosynthesis. Deer is heribivore which feeds on green ptants and these herbivores in turn ore eaten up by tiger (carnivore), in this way transfer of energy takes place.

SECTION – B

Question 8.
Choose an element from period 3 of modern periodic table that matches the description given below in each instance. Give reason for your choice.
(A) It has a similar structure to diamond.
Answer:
Silicon
Reason: Tetrahedral structure
OR
Tetravalency or Four valeny and
OR
Covalent bonding like carbon

Detailed Answer: In order to understand and choose an element that matches the description of given elements, first we need to know the position of the elements given and the elements of third period (a, b and c in the boxes are fore questions given)

Silicon (Si) belongs to the same group as diamond and has four valence electrons. Silicon exhibits the property of catenation like carbon (diamond is an allotrope of carbon). Silicon forms compounds with hydrogen which have chains of upto seven or eight atoms but unlike carbon compounds, these compounds are very reactive.

(B) It has same valency as Lithium.
Answer:
Sodium
Reason: It has 1 valence electron like Lithium

Sodium (Na) belongs to the same group I as lithium (Li). Na and Li are alkali metals, have one valence electron and are electropositive in nature.

(C) It has variable valency and is a member of the Oxygen family (group 16). (3)
Answer:
Sulphur
Reason: it forms oxides SO₂ and SO₂

Sulphur (S) and Oxygen (O) belong to group 16 have 6 valence electrons and in order to achieve stability, sulphur like oxygen needs to gain two electrons. Sulphur lies in period 3 but it can have extended valency which ranges from -1 to +6. In case of SO₂ molecule, one atom of sulphur is bonded with two atoms of oxygen. For two atoms of oxygen total four electrons are needed. Therefore in this case (SO₂) the valency of ‘S’ is 4. Similarly in SO₃, the valency is 6 to satisfy the three oxygen atoms.

Valence shell of S has enough orbitals to accommodate more electrons. It has d-orbitals to accommodate electrons. That is why in SO₂, Sulphur shows +4 valency and in SO₃, it shown +6 valency.

Related Theory
The atomic size increases down the group because new shells are being added as we go down the group. Sulphur and sodium have more atomic radii than diamond and lithium respectively.

Question 9.
(A) How many isomers are possible for the compound with the molecular formula C₄H₈? Draw the electron dot structure of branched chain isomer.
(B) How will you prove that C₄H₈ and C₅H₁₀ are homologues?
OR
A carbon compound ‘A’ having melting point 156K and boiling point 351K, with molecular formula C₂H₆O is soluble in water in all proportions.
(A) Identify ‘A’ and draw its electron dot structure.
(B) Give the molecular formulae of any two homologues of ‘A’. (3)
Answer:
(A) Four

(B) C₄H₈ and C₅H₁₀ are homologues as they differ in:
(1) “- CH₂-”
(2) differ in 14u molecular mass
(3) Same functional group
(4) Same general formula
(Any two reasons)
OR
(A) Ethanol; C₂H₅OH

(B) CH₃OH and C₃H₇OH are homologues of ethanol
OR
CH₄O and C₃H₈O

Detailed Answer:
(A) The organic compounds having the same molecular formula but different structures are known as isomers. C₄H₈ is butene having general formula CnH2n (Alkene). There are four isomeric alkenes of formula C₄H₂n.

The isomers of C₄H₈ are:

(B) A homologous series is a group of organic compounds having similar structures and similar chemical properties in which the successive compounds differ by – CH₂ group.. The general fromula of the homologous series of alkenes in C_nH_2n where n is the number of carbon in one molecule of alkene.

• C₄H₈ and C₅H₁₀ can be represented by the general formula CnH2n.
• C₄H₈ and C₅H₁₀ are two adjacent homologues which differ by 1 carbon atom and 2 hydrogen atoms in their molecular formulae i.e. —CH₂.
• The difference in the molecular masses of these two homologues is 14 u.
• These two homologues show similar chemical properties.
• The members of homologous series show a gradual change in their physical properties with increase in molecular mass.

For example as the number of carbon atoms per molecule increases, melting points, boiling points and densities of its members also increase gradually.
OR
(A) A carbon compound ‘A’ having molecular formula C₂H₆O is ethanol. It is soluble in water in all proportions. C₂H₆O contains 2 carbon atoms so its parent alkane is ethane C₂H₆. It also contains alcohol group (—OH group) which is indicated by using -01 so we get the name ethanol:

(B) The preceeding homologue of C₂H₅OH is CH₃OH and succeeding homologue of C₂H₅OH is C₃H₇OH. The difference in the molecular formula of CH₃OH and C₅H₅OH is -CH₂ and C₂H₅OH and C₃H₇OH is also – CH₂ which is a characteristic of homologues, molecular mass of CH₃OH
= 1 × 12 + 3 × 1 + 1 × 16 + 1 × 1
= 12 + 3 + 16 + 1 = 32u

Molecular mass of C₂H₅OH
= 2 × 12 + 5 × 1 + 1 × 16 + 1 × 1
= 24 + 5 + 16 + 1 = 46u

Molecular mass of C₃H₇OH
= 3 × 12 + 7 × 1 + 1 × 16 + 1 × 1
= 36 + 7 + 16 + 1 = 60u

The difference in the molecular mass between the homologues is 14u.
We can call CH₃OH, C₂H₅OH and C₃H₇OH a homologous series as they differ by -CH₂ and their molecular masses differ by 14 u.

Question 10.
Two pea plants – one with round yellow seeds (RRYY) and another with wrinkled green (rryy) seeds produce Fi progeny that have round, yellow (RrYy) seeds.
When F₁ plants are self-pollinated, which new combination of characters is expected in F₂ progeny? How many seeds with these new combinations of characters will be produced when a total 160 seeds are produced in F₂ generation? Explain with reason. (3)
Answer:

• Round green
• Wrinkled yellow

New combinations are produced because of the independent inheritance of seed shape and seed colour traits.

Detailed Answer:
A cross between two plants having two pairs of contrasting characters is called dihybrid cross. One pea plant with round yellow seeds (RRYY) in which RR are the dominant genes for round shape whereas YY are the dominant genes for yellow colour. The other pea plant with wrinkled green seeds (rryy) in which rr are the recessive genes for wrinkled shape whereas yy are the recessive genes for green colour. When two contrasting pairs of traits (RRYY) and (rryy) were crossed, the F₁ progeny having (RrYy) round and yellow seeds were formed. In F₁ generation only dominant characters were expressed. The other characters (recessive) were not lost even when they are not expressed. When F₁ plants were self-pollinated, four types of combinations were seen. These included two parental types and two new combinations.




We can conclude that round and yellow seeds are dominant characters. Occurence of new combinations show that genes for round (seeds shape) and yellow seeds (seed colour) are inherited independently of each other.

Related Theory
Based on hybridisation experiment on garden pea plant, Mendel proposed the lows of inheritance.

• Law of Dominance
• Law of Segregation
• Law of Independent Assortment.

Question 11.
(A) It would cost a man f 3.50 to buy 1.0 kW h of electrical energy from the Main Electricity Board. His generator has a maximum power of 2.0 kW. The generator produces energy at this maximum power for 3 hours. Calculate how much it would cost to buy the same amount of energy from the Main Electricity Board.
Answer:
E = P × T So, E = 3 × 2 = 6 kWh
Cost of buying electricity from the main electricity board = 6 × 3.50 = ₹ 21.0

Detailed Answer:
P = 2.0 kWh
T = 3 hours

Cost of 1 kWh (1 unit) of electrical energy from board = 3.5
E = P × T
= 2.0 × 3 = 6 kWh
Cost of buying electricity from main electricity board = 6 × 3.50 = 21.00

Related Theory
The rate of which electric energy is consumed or dissipated in an electric circuit is power. The commercial unit of electric energy is kWh which is 1 unit of electrical energy.

(B) A student boils water in an electric kettle for 20 minutes. Using the same mains supply he wants to reduce the boiling time of water. To do so should he increase or decrease the length of the heating element? Justify your answer. (3)
Answer:
To reduce the boiling time using the same mains supply, the rate of heat production should be large. We know that P = V²/R. Since V is constant, R should be decreased. Since R is directly proportional to l so length should be decreased.

Detailed Answer:
The new is produced by the heating effect of electric current when electric current flows through the resistant element of the electric kettle the flowing charges suffer resistance.
OR
Related Theory:
Resistance is directly proportional to the length of the conductor, inversely proporitonal to the area of cross section of the conductor. ft is also dependent on the nature of the conductor.

Question 12.

In the above circuit, if the current reading in the ammeter A is 2A, what would be the value of R₁?
OR

Calculate the total resistance of the circuit and find the total current in the circuit. (3)
Answer:
5 ohm, 10 ohm and R₁ are in parallel

Now, 6 ohm, 6 ohm and Rp are in series
Thus.
R_eq = \(\frac{12+10 R_{1}}{3 R_{1}+10}\) ………..(1)
V = I Req

From the circuit
Req = \(\frac{30}{2}\) = 15 A ……….(2)

Equating (1) and (2)
\(\frac{12+10 R_{1}}{\left(3 R_{1}+10\right)}\) =15
\(\frac{10 R_{1}}{\left(3 R_{1}+10\right)}\) = 3
10 R₁ = (9 R₁ + 30)
Thus, R₁ = 30 ohm.
OR

R₃ and R₄ are in series hence the equivalent resistance of those two = R₅ = R₃ + R₄ = 4 ohms.
R₅ and R₂ are in in parallel let R₆ be the equivalent resistance for them. Hence R₆ = R₅ + R₂ (R₅ + R₂) = 100/20 = 5 ohms

Now R₁ and R₆ are in series and hence the final equivalent resistance of the entire circuit is R = R₁ + R₆ = 12 ohms

By Ohm’s law we know that V = IR hence I = V/R. Hence the current in the circuit is 24/12A = 2A

Concept Applied
The formulae used in this question are:
\(\frac{1}{R p}=\frac{1}{R_{1}}+\frac{1}{R_{2}}+\frac{1}{R_{3}}\)
R_s = R₁ + R₂ + R₃

Related Theory
When several resistors are joined in parallel the equivalent resistance is less than the value of the smallest individual resistance in the combination. When several resistors are joined in series the resistance of the combination equals the sum of their individual resistances R₁ R₂ R₃ and is thus greater than any individual resistance.

Question 13.
Gas A, found in the upper layers of the atmosphere, is a deadly poison but is essential for all living beings. The amount of this gas started declining sharply in the 1980s.
(A) Identify Gas A. How is it formed at higher Levels of the atmosphere?
Answer:
Gas A is Ozone. Alternatively accept the formula of the gas.

Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere is a product of UV radiation acting on oxygen (O₂) molecule. The higher energy UV radiations split apart some molecular oxygen (O₂) into free oxygen (0) atoms. These atoms then combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone.

Alternatively accept the following equations with the correct molecular formulae. No mark to be assigned if molecular formulae are not correct, when only the equation is written.

O + O₂ → O₃

Detailed Answer:
Ozone is a triatomic gas formed of three atoms of oxygen (03). Ozone layer absorbs the ultraviolet radiations of the sun and prevent them from reaching the earth.

(B) Why is it essential for all living beings? State the cause for the depletion of this gas. (3)
Answer:
Ozone shields the surface of the earth / protects living organisms from ultraviolet (UV) radiation released by the sun.
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are used as refrigerants / in fire extinguishers lead to depletion of ozone layer.

Related Theory
Ozone is present throughout the stratosphere. This rich zone of ozone in the stratosphere is called ozone layer or ozonosphere. Ozone hole was first discovered over Antartica in 1985. The thinning of ozone layer allows more UV radiations to pass through it which then strike the earth. These cause harmful effects an human beings, animals and plants.

In 1987, the UNEP succeeded in forgoing an agreement between nations to limit CFCs production to half the level. It was also recommond that alternate technology will be developed to replace the use of CFCs.

SECTION – C

This section has 02 case-based questions (14 and 15). Each case is followed by 03 sub-questions (A. B and C)
Parts A and B are compulsory. However, an internal choice has been provided in part C

Question 14.
Sahil performed an experiment to study the inheritance pattern of genes. He crossed tall pea plants (TT) with short pea plants (tt) arid obtained all tall plants in F₁ generation.
(A) What will be set of genes present in the F₁ generation?
(B) Give reason why only tall. plants are observed in F₁ progeny.
(C) When F₁ plants were self – pollinated, a total of 800 plants were produced. How many of these would be tall, medium height or short plants? Give the genotype of F₂ generation.
OR
When F₁ plants were cross – pollinated with plants having tt genes, a total of 800 plants were produced. How many of these would be tall, medium height or short plants? Give the genotype of F₂ generation.
Answer:
(A) Tt

(B) Traits Like ‘T’ are called dominant traits, while those that behave like ‘t’ are called recessive traits./Alternativel accept the definition of dominant and recessive traits with examples of T and t respectively /Alternatively accept the Law of Dominance with examples of T and t.

(C) Out of 800 plants 600 plants will be tall and 200 plants will be small 1 TT: 2Tt: 1 tt
OR
In the cross between Tt × t, 400 Tall. (Tt) and 400 short (tt) plants will be produced. 1 Tt: 1 tt

Concept Applied
Cross between the pea plants with one pair of contrasting characters is called a monohybrid cross. Here the contrasting character are the tallness and shortness of pea plants.

The set of genes in the F₁ generation is Tt The F₁ generation possess one factor of inheritance from each parent plant which was carried in gametes and ¡s dominant trait. Since all the plants in the F₁ generation have the factors Tt. so all of them are toll. When F₁ progeny was allowed to be self-pollinated. both the parental traits were expressed in definite proportion in F₂ generation.

OR
Monohybrid cross between F₁ plants (Tt) with plants having tt genes.

There will be 400 tall (Tt) and 400 short (tt) plants and there wilt be no medium height plants.

Question 15.
Ansari Sir was demonstrating an experiment in his class with the setup as shown in the figure below.

A magnet is attached to a spring. The magnet can go in and out of the stationary coil.
He lifted the Magnet and released it to make it oscillate through the coil. Based on your understanding of the phenomenon, answer the following questions.
(A) What is the principle which Ansari Sir is trying to demonstrate?
(B) What will be observed when the Magnet starts oscillating through the coil. Explain the reason behind this observation.
(C) Consider the situation where the Magnet goes in and out of the coil. State two changes which could be made to increase the deflection in the galvanometer.
OR
Is there any difference in the observations in the galvanometer when the Magnet swings in and then out of the stationary coil? Justify your answer.
Answer:
(A) Sir is trying to demonstrate the principle of Electromagnetic induction.
(B) There will be induced current in the coil due to relative motion between the magnet and the coil. Changing the magnetic field around the coil generates induced current.
(C) Using a stronger magnet, using a coil with more number of turns.
OR

• When the magnet moves into the coil, the galvanometer shows a momentary deflection towards one side say left.
• When the magnet moves out of the coil, the ammeter shows a momentary deflection now towards right,
• This is due to changing magnetic field /flux associated with the coil as the magnet moves in and out.
• Alternatively, the flux increases when the magnet goes in and it decreases when the magnet goes out.

Detailed Answer: (A)
The process by which a changing magnetic field in a conductor induces a current in another conductor is calLed electromagnetic induction. In practice, we can induce the current in a coil either by moving it in a magnetic field or by changing the magnetic field around it.

Related Theory
Motion of a magnet with respect to a coil produces an induced potential difference across its ends and as a result, an induced current is set in the circuit, when the magnet is brought nearer to the coil, a greater number of magnetic field lines, pass through the coil so the magnetic field around the coil increases. The magnetic field of the coil decreases if the magnet is moved away from the coil.

The magnitude of induced current depends on the strength of the magnet, the number of turns in the coil and the speed of the movement of magnet The induced current is found to be highest when the direction of motion of the coil is at right angle to the magnetic field.
OR
When the north pole of the magnet is brought towards the coil, a current flours and the galvanometer shows deflection to wards the right (a). If the magnet is moved away from the coil, the current flows in a direction opposite and the galvanometer shows deflection towards left (fig b).

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Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 2 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 15 questions. ALL questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 7 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has 2 case based questions of 4 marks each.
• Internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.

Section A

Question 1.
Answer the following questions:
(A) Menstruation is a monthly cycle in females. However, if fertilisation happens, menstruation will not occur. What changes can be expected if fertilisation does not occur? (1)
Answer:
The uterus prepares itself during every ovulation cycle in anticipation of a possible pregnancy. The lining of the uterus thickens so that it can give support to the developing embryo. When fertilisation does not occur, this lining disintegrates because it is no longer required. The fragments of the lining are shed along with blood and the discarded egg through the vagina. The discharge of discarded tissue is called menstruation.

(B) Sexually Transmitted Diseases are a real threat to the mankind. However, there are ways to prevent STDs. Can you give one example of STD caused by bacteria and virus each and suggest ways to prevent it. (1)
Answer:
Gonorrhoea is caused by bacteria and AIDS is caused by virus. These diseases can be prevented by responsible sexual behaviour such as use of condom during sexual intercourse, etc.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions:
(A) Why did Mendel choose garden pea plant for his experiments? Write two reasons. (1)
Answer:
Mendel choose garden pea plant for his experiments because:

• Pea plant has several contrasting characters like height, flower colour, seed colour and shape.
• Normally allows self pollination but cross pollination can also be done.
• It has short life span and also is easy to cultivate.

(B) List two contrasting visible characters of garden pea used by Mendel for his experiment. (1)
Answer:
Contrasting characters of garden pea plants:

• Colour of seeds:
• Dominant – Yellow
• Recessive – Green

Shape of seeds:

• Dominant – Round
• Recessive – Wrinkled.

Question 3.
Out of the two wires P and Q shown below which one has greater resistance? Justify it. (2)

OR
The voltage-current (V-l) graph of a metallic circuit at two different temperatures T₁ and T₂ is shown in figure. Which of the two temperatures is higher and why?

Answer:
It can be seen wire P has a length L and area of cross section A while the wire Q has a length of L and a area of cross section A/2. We know that resistance is directly proportional to length and inversely proportional to area of cross section. Hence the resistance of Q will be higher since its area of cross section is less than that of the wire P.
OR
We know that resistance of metals is directly proportional to the temperature. Higher temperature leads to higher resistance and vice-versa. In the graph T₂ has a higher resistance than T₁ hence the temperature T₂ is higher than T₁.

Question 4.
(A) In the given figure, two hydrogen atoms in atomic state are given. Draw a diagram of a hydrogen molecule from the given diagram. (1)

Answer:

(B) Chlorine has an atomic number of 17. By what process/es will it be able to attain a noble gas configuration. Illustrate with the help of diagram. (1)
Answer:
Electronic configuration of chlorine is 2, 8, 7. it requires only one more electron to attain a noble gas configuration. It can do so either by sharing one electron with other chlorine atom and thus forming a chlorine molecule. Or it can accept an electron from an electropositive element such as group 1 or 2 metals and form an ionic compound. In either way, it will attain a noble gas configuration.

Caution:
Students may only identify with one method and miss the other interaction. Chlorine can adopt both mechanisms such as covalent interaction with another similar atom and ionic interaction with a metal. Be careful to mention both methods.

Question 5.
(A) Elements P, Q, R and S have atomic numbers 11,15,17 and 18 respectively.

Identify which of them are reactive non-metals. Also, give reasons for your answer. (1)
Answer:
In order to understand the reactivity of elements, we need to first analyse the configuration of all elements.

As can be seen from the table above, we can assess the elements as follows:

• P is a metal as it easily loose an electron to gain stability.
• Q is a non-metal as it can gain three electrons to gain stability.
• R is a non-metal as it can gain one electron to gain stability.
• S is an inert gas as it has a completely filled shell and is stable.
• Thus, amongst the above elements, R is the most reactive non-metal as it requires only one electron to attain stability and Q is also a reactive non-metal that requires only three more electrons to gain stability.

Related Theory:
A nonmetal is a chemical element that usually gains electrons when reacting with a metal, and which forms an acid if combined with oxygen and hydrogen. Nonmetals display more variety in colour and state than do metals. About half are coloured or colourless gases whereas nearly all metals are silvery-grey solids. They tend to be poor conductors of heat and electricity with no structural uses, in contrast to most metals.

Caution:
Students need to mention all the reactive non-metals by comparing their electronic configuration.

(B) The properties of eka-aluminium predicted by Mendeleev are the same as the properties of later discovered element. Which element took its place in the Modern Periodic table? (1)
Answer:
Gallium was the element that took the place of eka-aluminium. It has similar properties as compared to that of aluminium and fit properly in the gap left by Mendeleev.

Related Theory:
Mendeleev left some gaps in his Periodic Table. Instead of looking upon these gaps as defects, Mendeleev boldly predicted the existence of some elements that had not been discovered at that time. Mendeleev named them by prefixing a Sanskrit numeral, Eka (one) to the name of preceding element in the same group.

OR

(A) Name the neutral atom in the Periodic Table which has the same number of electrons as Na⁺ and F^–. Support your answer with suitable explanation. (1)

Answer:
In order to identify the element, we need to write the electronic configuration of Na⁺ and F^–

As can be seen in the above table, the number of electrons in Na⁺ and F^– is 10 (2 + 8 = 10). The element with atomic number 10 is Neon which is an inert gas.

Related Theory:
Monoatomic ions are formed by the addition or removal of electrons from an atom’s valence shell. The inner shells of an atom are filled with electrons that are tightly bound to the positively charged atomic nucleus and so do not participate in this kind of chemical interaction, but the valence shell can be very reactive depending on the atom and its electronic configuration. The process of gaining or losing electrons from a neutral atom or molecule is called ionization.

Caution:
Students need to analyse the answer step by step and write the electronic configuration according to the charges as shown in the elements.

(B) An atom of an element has the electronic configuration 2, 8, 5. To which period and group does it belong? (1)
Answer:
The electronic configuration of the element is 2, 8, 5. A look at the configuration enables us to understand the valency of the element to be 3 as it can lose three electrons to gain stability.

As is evident from the configuration, the valence electron is present in M shell which is the third shell. Thus, the element belongs to the 3^rd period.
As the number of valence electrons are 5, the element belongs to the 15^th group owing to the ten transition elements that are present in 3^rd period.
Thus, Period: 3^rd
Group: 15^th

Related Theory:
Groups and periods are two ways of categorizing elements in the periodic table. Periods are horizontal rows (across) the periodic table, while groups are vertical columns (down) the table. Atomic number increases as you move down a group or across a period.

Caution:
Students need to identify the shell with the period and valence electron with the group. They need to include the ten elements that are present between group 2 and group 13. Thus, the group no. wilt be 10 + 5 = 15 and not 5.

Question 6.
Female reproductive system has organs aligned in a way that facilitates formation and growth of foetus in it. In the given figure, label and identify the parts. (2)
(A) Site of fertilisation
(B) Production of eggs
(C) Site of implantation
(D) Entry of sperm

OR
What could be the importance and role of parts a, b and c in the given diagram?

Answer:
The internal structure of female reproductive system include the following parts:
(A) Fallopian tubes: The ova (egg cells) migrate from the ovaries to the uterus through the fallopian tubes, which are narrow tubes. An egg is fertilised by a sperm in the fallopian tubes.

(B) Ovaries: The ovaries are small oval-shaped glands in the female reproductive system that produce eggs and hormones.

(C) Uterus: The uterus (womb) is a hollow, pear-shaped organ that houses the developing foetus.

(D) Vagina: The vagina is a canal that connects the cervix to the outside world.
OR
a- Anther. It produces pollen grains which are the male gametes.
b- Style. It provides the path through which the pollen tube grows and reaches the ovary,
c- Ovary. It contains ovules and each ovule has an egg cell/female gamete. It develops into fruit after fertilisation.

Question 7.
‘The number of trophic Levels in a food chain is limited’. Justify the statement. (2)
Answer:
When green plants are eaten by primary consumers, a great amount of energy is lost as heat to the environment Some amount goes into digestion and in doing work and the rest goes towards growth and reproduction. Only 10 percent of the energy received by them is converted into their body mass which is available for the organisms of the next trophic levels. The longer the food chain, the less is the energy available to the final members of the food chain and that energy will be insufficient for their survival. So, the food chain is generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels only.

Section B

Question 8.
Shikhaj’s younger brother was playing with a magnet. Shikhaj advised him not to play with the magnet but his brother brought the magnet near the screen of the television that Shikhaj was watching. His TV got a permanent dark patch on the area where magnet was brought near the screen. His TV screen was partially damaged. Shikhaj immediately informed all his friends to be aware of such episodes at home.
(A) Why did TV get dark patch when magnet was brought closer? (2)
(B) Name two devices used at home which has electromagnetic effect in them. (1)
OR
Explain with the help of a labelled diagram the distribution of magnetic field due to current through a circular loop. Why is it that if a current carrying coil has n turns the field produced at any point is n times as large as that produced by a single turn? (3)
Answer:
(A) When a magnet was brought closer to the screen, the magnetic field of the magnet and the electromagnet in the T.V. interfered and spoiled its screen.

(B) DVDPlayerand Laptop has electromagnetic effect in them. A coil of wire wound around a bar of iron or other ferromagnetic material is an electromagnet. The coil and iron bar become magnetised when electric current travels through the wire.

Related Theory:
TV work or cathode rays which are fast moving electrons. Hence, in tree vicinity of a B-field the electrons lose their direction thereby changing or distorting the screen.
OR
In a current carrying circular loop direction of magnetic field lines can be found by the Right- Hand Thumb Rule. Thumb is showing direction of current and fingers show the direction of magnetic field lines. This means magnetic field lines are around the conducting wire. But circular shape of the conductor means that field lines at different points of the loop appear to be making many rings around the periphery of the loop. It can be visualized like many small rings looping around the periphery of a big ring. Effect of number of turns in a coiL we know that if number of turns in a coil is increased, then magnetic field will also increase. Due to this, strength of magnetic field increases with increased number of turns in a coil. Magnetic field lines through a circular loop are given below:

Question 9.
(A) Give the direction of induced current in the following figure. (1)

Answer:
The strength of the magnetic field is directly proportional to the relative closeness of field lines, therefore, region ‘a’ has a stronger magnetic field than region ‘b’.

Related Theory:
Poles: These are areas inside a magnet where the density of magnetic lines of forces is maximum.

Caution:
Many students erroneously believe that poles are where the field is maximum due to the poles being at the end. That is not true.

(B) Identify the poles of magnet in the figure. (1)

Answer:
The poles of a magnet are marked in the figure as we know that outside magnet field lines moves N → S and inside the Magnet field lines moves S → N.

Related Theory:
Magnetic lines of force form closed curves which emerge from N-pole of magnet and travels outside the magnet all the way to the S-pole whereas to complete the curve, the field entering the S-pole moves towards the N-pole inside the magnet

Caution:
Split/Slip rings are not for simple connection. They tend to create a continuous path in a rotating structure.

(C) A region ‘a’ has magnetic field lines relatively closer than another region ‘b’. Which region has a stronger magnetic field? Give a reason to support your answer. (1)
Answer:
Using Fleming’s right-hand rule.

• The direction of the induced current is anti-clockwise.
• The direction of the induced current is clockwise.

Question 10.
(A) What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem? (1)
Answer:
The decomposers breakdown complex organic substances into simpler inorganic substances that go into the soil and are used again by the plants in the nutrient cycle.

Related Theory:
There will be no recycling of matter between biotic and abiotic components of an ecosystem, because all the matter will remain locked upon in the dead bodies. Thus, the existence of life on this earth will become impossible.

(B) Why is improper disposal of waste a curse to the environment? (1)
Answer:
Wastes pollute our environment, air, soil and water, and cause harmful effects on all living organisms.

(C) State the essential function performed by ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere. (1)
Answer:
It shields the surface of the earth from ultraviolet (UV) radiation of the sun.

Related Theory:
Ozone layer depletiqn is one of the major problems for the atmosphere and also for all the living beings including the flora and fauna of this earth.

Question 11.
(A) An atom has electronic configuration 2, 8, 5. (2)
(i) Calculate the number of protons.
(ii) Is it a metal or non metal? Give reason.
Answer:
(i) The electronic configuration represents the arrangement of electrons in different shells. Thus, it also represents the total number of electrons in an element. Atomic number of an element is represented by number of electrons as well as number of protons.
Thus, number of protons is equal to 2 + 8 + 5 = 15 in the given atom.

(ii) As we can see the electronic configuration of atom is 2, 8, 5, the element requires only 3 more electrons to attain stability. The element can gain these 3 electrons to attain stability. Thus, the element behaves as a non metal as it gains electrons for attaining

Related Theory:
The nonmetals are located on the upper right side of the periodic table. Nonmetals are separated from metals by a line that cuts diagonally through the region of the periodic table. The nonmetals are in a minority on the periodic table, mostly located on the right-hand side of the periodic table. The exception is hydrogen, which behaves as a nonmetal at room temperature and pressure and is found on the upper left corner of the periodic table.

Under conditions of high pressure, hydrogen is predicted to behave as an alkali metal. Nonmetals have high ionization energies and electro negativities. They are generally poor conductors of heat and electricity. Solid nonmetals are generally brittle, with little or no metallic luster. Most nonmetals have the ability to gain electrons easily. Nonmetals display a wide range of chemical properties and reactivities.

Caution:
Students can get confused with the number of protons that has been asked in the question. In case ion is given instead of atom, there will be no change in the number of protons, but number of electrons will vary.

(B) An element Y with atomic number 7 reacts with oxygen to form a covalent oxide. Predict the nature of the oxide thus formed. Provide suitable explanation for your answer. (1)
Answer:
The element has atomic number 7, thus, the electronic configuration is 2, 5. The valency of element is 3. Electronic configuration of oxygen is 2, 6 and thus, its valency is 2.

Nature of the oxide: The element is a non metal as it belongs to group 15. The oxide thus formed is a non-metal oxide. Non metal oxides are acidic in nature.

Related Theory:
Non-metallic oxides are formed by the reaction of non-metals with oxygen. They react with a base to give salts and water. Let us consider the calcium hydroxide (base) reaction with carbon dioxide (non- metallic oxide) to produce salt and water.

Caution:
Identify the group of the element in order to classify the element as a non-metal

Question 12.
In order to attain a noble configuration, elements tend to either lose or gain electrons. This type of interaction leads to an ionic bond formation. On the other hand, few elements adopt to an entirely different mode of interaction where they share the electrons to attain a noble gas configuration.
(A) Which amongst the two mechanisms is adopted by carbon for attaining a noble gas configuration. (1)
(B) Why one method is preferred by carbon and the other mechanism is not feasible? (1)
(C) Based on this interaction, the compounds of carbon thus obtained are generally poor conductors of electricity. Explain. (1)
OR
(A) Identify the type of bond that is present between two identical non metallic atoms that shares an electron pair. (1)
(B) Amongst the homologous series in hydrocarbons, which one has the least number of hydrogen atoms?  (1)
(C) In case of nitrogen molecule, determine the total number of electrons involved in bonding. (1)
Answer:
(A) Carbon adopts a mutual sharing of electrons, which is, covalent bond formation to attain a noble gas configuration.

(B) For ionic bond formation, the two pathways can be adopted.
1. If carbon loses 4 electrons, it becomes C4+. But it would require a large amount of energy to remove four electrons leaving behind a carbon cation with six protons in its nucleus holding on to just two electrons.

2. If carbon accepts 4 electrons, it becomes C^4-. But it would be difficult for the nucleus with six protons to hold on to ten electrons, that is, four extra electrons.
Thus, it cannot form ionic interaction.
Due to these reasons, carbon adopts covalent interaction. It is feasible for carbon to share the electrons rather than transfer or accept the electrons.

(C) Carbon compounds are generally formed by covalent bond formation. Thus, it does not dissociate into ions. Thus, it is not possible to conduct electricity and thus are poor conductors of electricity.
OR
(A) A covalent bond is a chemical bond that involves the sharing of electron pairs between atoms. These electron pairs are known as shared pairs or bonding pairs, and the stable balance of attractive and repulsive forces between atoms, when they share electrons, is known as covalent bonding.

Caution:
Many students might get confused with non-metallic atoms. One needs to focus that elements of group 15, 16, 17 are known as purely non-metallic.

(B) Alkynes
Explanation: The general formula for alkynes is C_nH_2n-2. The general formula for alkanes is C_nH_2n+2 and that of alkene is C_nH_2n Thus, with the help of the formula, least number of hydrogens is present in alkynes.

Related Theory:
A homologous series is a sequence of compounds with the same functional group and similar chemical properties in which the members of the series can be branched or unbranched, or differ by -CH₂.

Caution:
Students might get confused with the number of carbon atoms instead of hydrogen atoms. They need to analyse it with the help of general formula of homologous series.

(C) 6 electrons
Explanation: Formation of nitrogen molecule involved triple bonding between the two nitrogen atoms. A single bond involves 2 electrons, therefore, three bonds equate to 6 electrons or 3 pairs of electrons.

Related Theory:
Nitrogen has five valence electrons, so it needs three more valence electrons to complete its octet. A nitrogen atom can fill its octet by sharing 3 electrons with another nitrogen atom, forming three covalent bonds, a so-called triple bond.

Caution:
Many students can give the answer 10 as they might give the total number of electrons involved in nitrogen molecule. The question specifically asks about bonding.

Question 13.
A woman has only daughters. Analyze the situation genetically and provide a suitable explanation. (3)
Answer:
A woman has only daughters. We know that the sex of the child is determined at the time of fertilization when male and female gametes fuse to form zygote. The male individual contains one X chromosome and one Y chromosome (XY) and the female individual contains two X chromosomes (XX).

If a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilizes an egg then the offspring will be a female child. This is because the offspring will have XX combination of sex chromosomes.

If a sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilizes an egg then the offspring will be a male child. This is because the offspring will have XY combination of sex chromosomes.

Thus the sex of the child is determined by the type of sperm that fuses with the ovum at the time of fertilization.

Section – C

This section has 02 case-based questions (14 and 15). Each case is followed by 03 sub-questions (A, B and C). Parts A and B are compulsory. However, an internal choice has been provided in part C.

Question 14.
Resistance is the property of a conductor to resist the flow of charges through it. The current which flows through a resistor is inversely proportional to its resistance, If the resistance is doubled the current gets halved. The resistance of the material depends on various factors. The resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent metals.

(A) A material has a resistivity of 10^-7 and the other has a resistivity of 10^-4. Which of them is a better insulator? (1)
(B) A wire of resistance 10 ohm is stretched to four times its length. What will be its new resistance? (1)
(C) A student writes the equation p = \(\frac{1}{A}\) His friend pointed out that the equation is  mathematically correct but physically not possible. Is his friend correct? Justify. (1)
OR
A charge of 10 coulombs is flowing through a wire for 10 minutes. If the work done is 10000 J what is the resistance of the wire? (1)
Answer:
(A) The materials with a resistivity 10^-7 has a lower resistivity and hence higher conductivity and hence it is a poorer insulator. That makes the other material with resistivity 10^-4 a better insulator owing to its higher resistivity.

(B) When a wire is stretched its length increases but its area decreases in proportion to the increase in length. This is due to the fact that the mass of the material remains constant which owing to its constant density means that the volume of the wire has to remain constant. Hence by stretching the wire to 4 times its length the area decreases by 4 times. Which means R = \(\frac{\rho l}{A}=\frac{\rho(4 l)}{A}=16 \frac{\rho l}{A}\). Hence the new resistance is 16 times higher than th original. So the new resistance is 160 Ohms.

(C) Mathematically any variable can be made to move around in an equation based on the availability of values of the other related variables. So mathematically it is correct. But when looked at it from the Physics point of view we see that the equation means that resistivity is proportional to resistance, area and length but that is not the case since in any material the resistivity is a constant quantity and does not depend on these three factors. Hence his friend is correct to point out that the equation is not.
OR
A charge of 10 coulombs is flowing through a wire for 10 minutes.
Given:
Q = 10 C,
t = 10 min = 600 s,
W = 10000 J.
We know that
W = Vlt
i = Q/t
and V = IR
When combined we get
W = Q²R/t
Hence R = Wt/Q²
Hence R = 10000 × 600/100
= 60000 Ohms.

Question 15.
The sexual act always has the potential to lead to pregnancy. Pregnancy will make major demands on the body and the mind of the woman, and if she is not ready for it, her health will be adversely affected. A short survey was conducted in a city and the result of the survey is depicted in the form of pie chart below:

(A) Which diseases could be caused due to indulgence in unprotected sexual intercourse? (1)
(B) What do you think is the difference between miscarriage and abortion? (1)
(C) Prenatal sex determination has been prohibited by law. What could be the reason for this?
OR
Reproduction is linked to stability of population of a species. Do you think this statement is correct? Justify the statement. (2)
Answer:
(A) The disease include bacterial infections such as gonorrhoea and syphilis, and viral infections such as warts and HIV-AIDS.

(B) Miscarriage is the unintended loss of pregnancy. Abortion is the planned and intended termination of pregnancy.

(C) To lessen the indiscrimination of female foeticide, the Indian government has passed legislation prohibiting prenatal sex determination. As a result, in some parts of our culture, the child sex ratio has been dropping at an alarming rate. As a result, the child sex ratio must be maintained. Preventing crimes connected to a lower female ratio in society, such as female and child trafficking, sexual assault and abuse against women and children, increased maternal mortality owing to forced abortions, and early marriages, can be avoided in the long run by outlawing prenatal sex determination.
OR
Every species has a threat to its life due to various factors like predators, natural calamities, diseases, etc. The natural cycle of life and death also removes a section of the population. Reproduction is a way to replenish the lost section of population. Thus, it can be said that reproduction is linked to the stability of population of a species.

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 15 questions. ALL questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 7 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has 2 case based questions of 4 marks each.
• Internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.

SECTION – A

Question 1.
A current flows in a wire running between the S and N poles of a magnet lying horizontally as shown in the figure below.

What will be the direction of force on the wire due to the magnet?
OR
A constant current flows in a horizontal wire in. the plane of the paper from east to west as shown in the figure.

What will be the direction of magnet field at a point directly below the wire? (2)
Answer:
The direction of force on the wire due to the magnet will be vertically downwards.

Explanation:
The direction of force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is given by Fleming’s left hand ruLe. Applying this rule, we find that force will act vertically downwards.
OR
The direction of magnetic field at a point directly below the wire will be from North to South.

Explanation:
If we observe the direction of the magnetic field by applying the right hand thumb rule, then we will find that the direction of the magnetic field is from north to south below the wire.

Question 2.
Three elements X, Y, and Z with their atomic numbers are given below:

Examine the given data and answer the following questions:
(A) How many valence electrons are present in Y? What is its valency? (1)
Answer:
Valence electrons present in Y are 8. Its valency is zero.

Explanation: The number of electrons present in the outermost orbit are called valence electrons. The electronic configuration is 2, 8, 8. Here the outermost shell has 8 electrons so valence electrons are 8. Outermost orbit of Y element has 8 electrons. Its outermost orbit has complete octet (fully filled orbit) so it cannot accommodate any other electron, therefore its valency is zero.

(B) Write the position of X and Z in the Modern Periodic Table. (1)
Answer:
X element will be present towards the right of the table as it is a non-metal.

Z element will be present towards the left of the periodic table.

Explanation: The number of valence electrons determine the group number. The number of shells determine the number of periods. In X the number of shells are 3, so it belongs to 3rd period and Z has four shells so it belongs of 4th period.

Question 3.
In the given figure, the various trophic levels are shown in a pyramid. At which trophic level is maximum energy available and why?

OR
Look at the given figure and find out which trophic level would have the maximum concentration of pesticides in their bodies and why? (2)

The maximum energy is available at T₁. At each trophic level, most of the energy available is utilised for respiration and excretion and other life processes and only ten percent of the available energy is passed on to the next level Because only 10% of the available energy can be passed on to the next trophic level, higher trophic levels have substantially less energy content and the number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited. The lower the trophic level higher will be energy content.

Hence, the greatest amount of energy is expected in trophic level T₁.
Hence, T₁ > T₂ > T₃ > T₃.
OR
The carnivores would have the highest concentration of chemicals in their bodies due to biological magnification. The successive increase in the concentration of some chemicals through different trophic levels of a food chain in an ecosystem is biological magnification. The pesticides are used to protect crops. Being non-biodegradable, these pesticides are not destroyed and they enter the food chain at the level of producer by absorption along with water and minerals. From producers they enter herbivores and from herbivores to cornivores. As they move up in the food chain, they become more and more concentrated at each level.

Question 4.
Trace and note the sequential series of events, that occurs in the female reproductive system post intercourse. How does these events lead to pregnancy? (2 )
Answer:
The sperms enter through the vaginal passage during sexual intercourse. They travel upwards and reach the oviduct where they may encounter the egg. The fertilised egg (zygote) starts dividing and forms a ball of cells or embryo. The embryo is implanted in the lining of the uterus where they continue to grow and develop organs to become foetus. The uterus prepares itself every month to receive and nurture the growing embryo. The lining thickens and is richly supplied with blood to nourish the growing embryo.

Question 5.
Identify and name the functional groups present in the following compounds:

Answer:
(A) Functional group: —OH
Name of the functional group: Alcohol

(B) Functional group:

Name of the functional group: Carboxylic acid

(C) Functional group:

Name of the functional group: Ketone

(D) Functional group:

Name of the functional group: Alkene

Question 6.
In human beings, the statistical probability of getting either a male or female child is 50:50. Give a suitable explanation. (2)
Answer:
During spermatogenesis in males, two types of gametes are produced. 50% of the gametes produced carry X chromosomes, whereas 50% of the gametes carry Y chromosome. On the other hand, females produce only one type of ovum containing X-chromosomes. There is an equal probability of fertilization of the ovum with the sperm carrying either X or Y chromosomes. The sex of the children will be determined by what they inherit from their father.

A child who inherits an X chromosome from her father will be a girl, and one who inherits a Y chromosome from him will be a boy.

Since the ratio of male gametes containing X chromosome and those containing Y chromosome is 50:50, the statistical probability of a male or a female infant is also 50:50.

Question 7.
What would be the ratio of chromosome numbers between an egg and a zygote? How is the sperm genetically different from the egg?
OR
(A) Pollination may occur without fertilization but fertilization will not take place without pollination. Give reasons
(B) Give an example of bisexual flower. What is its female reproductive part known as? (2)
Answer:
The ratio of chromosome numbers between egg and its zygote is 1:2.
Both sperm and egg contain half number of chromosomes, i.e., 23 chromosomes. Sperm is genetically different from the egg in the way that it contains either X or Y chromosome, whereas an egg always contains an X chromosome.
OR
(A) Pollination is just the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of stamen to the stigma of pistil. It is carried out by agents like wind, insect etc. For pollination to happen there is no need of fertilization of gametes i.e. their union. Fertilization is fusion of male and female gamete and this process is facilitated by pollination. By pollination, pollens are brought to eggs so that they can fuse and fertilisation can take place. Therefore, pollination may occur without fertilisation but fertilisation will not take place without pollination.

(B) A flower that contains both the male and female reproductive structures (stamen and pistil) is called a bisexual flower. Example: rose, hibiscus. Its female reproductive part is known as the carpel or pistil

SECTION – B

Question 8.
(A) Nichrome is used to make the element of electric heater. Why? (1)
Answer:
Nichrome is used to make the element of an electric heater because nichrome is an alloy which has high resistivity and high melting point.

(B) You have two metallic wires of resistances 60 and 30. How will you connect these wires to get an effective resistance of 20? (1)
Answer:
If the two wires are connected in parallel then the combination will give 2 ohms.
R₁ = 6Ω, R₂ = 3Ω
Effective resistanes = 2Ω
\(\frac{1}{R_{p}}=\frac{1}{R_{1}}+\frac{1}{R_{2}}\)
= \(\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{3}=\frac{1+2}{6}=\frac{3}{6}\)
R_p = 2 – Ω

(C) Calculate the number of electrons constituting one coulomb of charge. (1)
Answer:
I = q/t = ne/t where n = no of electrons,
e = electronic charge, t = time.
Hence, n = It/e = q/e
= 1 C/1.6 × 10^-19 = 6.25 × 10¹⁸ electrons

Question 9.
Carbon belongs to group 14 of the periodic table. It has four valence electrons. Suggest a method by which it forms stable compounds. Also provide reasons why compounds formed by carbon have low melting and boiling points. (3)
OR
(A) Determine the number of electrons . involved in bonding of isobutane. Also draw its structure. (2)
(B) In organic compounds, certain groups orient the physical and chemical properties of the compounds. Identify these parts and assign their rotes.
Answer:
As carbon belongs to group 14 of the Modern periodic table. It has 4 valence electrons and thus, carbon cannot lose 4 valence electrons or gain the same. Thus, it shares the 4 valence electrons with other atoms. Thus, its forms stable bonds called as covalent bonds. The compounds formed by this type of interaction are called as covalent compounds.
Covalent compounds generally have low melting and boiling points due to the presence of weak interactive forces present in such compounds. These forces can be easily broken and thus such compounds have low melting and boiling points.
OR
(A)

The total number of covalent bonds present in the above compound is 13. A single bond is formed by the sharing of two electrons. The above compound involves 13 single bonds, thus, 26 electrons are involved in the formation of iso butane.

Related Theory
Isobutane, also known as i-butane, 2-methylpropane or methylpropane, is a chemical compound with molecular formula HC(CH$3. It is an isomer of butane. Isobutane is a colourless, odourless gas. It is the simplest alkane with a tertiary carbon atom.

Caution
Students need to draw the structure of isobutane and then count the total number of bonds involved in formation of isobutane. Students need to convert the number of bonds into electrons before quoting down the answer.

(B) An organic compound consists of an alkyl group and functional group. The functional group largely determines physical and chemical properties of the compound. The alkyl group also helps in determining the physical properties of the compound to an extent.

Related Theory
Organic chemistry is dominated by the ’functional . group approach”, where organic molecules are deemed to be constructed from:
An inert hydrocarbon skeleton onto which functional groups (FGs) are attached or superimposed.

The functional group approach “works’ because the properties and reaction chemistry of a particular functional group (FG) can be remarkably independent of environment Therefore, it is only necessary to know about the chemistry of a few generic functions in order to predict the chemical behaviour of thousands of real organic chemicals.

An alkyl is a functional group of an organic chemical that contains only carbon and hydrogen atoms, which are arranged in a chain. They have general formula C_nH_2n+1.

Question 10.
(A) Is it possible that the food chain has more than six steps? Support your answer with reasons. (1 1/2)
Answer:
It is not possible that the food chain has more than six trophic levels. This is because of loss of 90% energy at each trophic level and only 10% of energy is available at each successive level. In a food chain having more than six steps, energy available to the top carnivore will not be sufficient for his survival.

(B) Give three characteristics of the food chain. (1 1/2)
Answer:
(i) A food chain is always straight and proceeds in a progressive straight line.
(ii) A food chain helps in understanding the food relationship and interaction among various organisms in an ecosystem
(iii) It also helps to understand the movement of toxic substances in an ecosystem and the problem of their biological magnification.

Question 11.
(A) Identify a, b, c and d In the given diagram and write their names. (2)

(B) Explain the process of fertilization in flowers. (1)
OR
(A) “The reduction in the weight of an organism due to starvation is not genetically controlled.” Comment on this statement. (1)
(B) When does the formation of new species occur? (1)
Answer:
(A) ‘a’ represents the pollen grain
‘b’ represents the pollen tube
‘c’ represents the ovary
‘d’ represents the female germ cell

(B) Fertilisation occurs when the male gamete present in a pollen grain joins with the female gamete or egg present in ovule. When the pollen grain falls on the stigma of the carpel, it bursts open and grows a pollen tube downward through the style towards the female gamete in the ovary. Here, zygote is formed which later grows into embryo. Zygote divides repeatedly to form an embryo within the ovule. Ovule develops a thick coat and gradually forms seed. Ovary of flowers develops and becomes a fruit
OR
(A) The reduction in the weight of an organism due to starvation is not genetically controlled as it will not change the DNA of the germ cell. It is an environmentally determined factor. Weight loss or gain occurs due to external factors such as food and is not genetically controlled. Hence, low weight parents can have heavy weight progeny due to difference in food habit.

(B) New species may be formed if DNA undergoes significant changes in germ cells and the chromosome number changes in the gamete. Changes in DNA will be inherited by the germ cells. Germ cells which when passes to the next generation will be inherited in the subsequent generation. Change in the chromosome number makes a change in the gametes which leads to change in the gene pool. This leads to new variations.

Question 12.
(A) An electric heater is rated at 2 KW electrical energy cost 4 per kWh. What is the cost of using the heater for 3 hours? (1)
Answer:
₹ 24
Given P = 2 kW, t= 3 hours, Rate( R) = ₹ 4 per kWh
Hence, Cost = PtR = 2 × 3 × 4 = ₹ 24

(B) Derive the equation P = VI from Joule’s law of heating equation. (2)
Answer:
The Joule’s law of heating equation states that W = l²Rt. Power is defined as P = W/t which gives P = l²R. Since V = IR from Ohm’s law hence we can replace R = V/l. We get P=VI.

Question 13.
(A) X, Y and Z are the elements of Dobereiner’s triad. If the atomic mass of X is 7 and that of Z is 39, what should be the atomic mass of Y? (1)
Answer:
As the elements X, Y and Z are the elements of Dobereiner’s triad, they will follow its principle. According to Dobereiner, when elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic masses, the arithmetic mean of the atomic masses of the first and third element in a triad is approximately equal to the atomic mass of the second element in that triad.
Therefore, (Atomic mass of x + Atomic mass of z)/2 = Atomic mass of y
= (7+39)/2
= 46/2
= 23
Atomic mass of Y = 23

(B) Element ‘X’ forms a chloride with the formula XCl₂, which is a solid with high melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of the periodic table as which of the following elements: Si, Mg, Al, Na. Explain with suitable reasoning. (2)
Answer:
The element X has a valency of 2 which is evident from the formula XCl2. As the melting point is high, then it must be an ionic compound. From the following elements, Na, Mg and Al are metals that can form ionic compounds. Now, the element needs to have the valency of 2. From amongst these elements, only Mg has valency of 2. Thus, the element is Magnesium, Mg.

An ionic compound is a chemical compound composed of ions held together by electrostatic forces termed ionic bonding. The compound is neutral overall, but consists of positively charged ions called cations and negatively charged ions called anions. Ionic compounds typically have high melting and boiling points, and are hard and brittle. As solids they are almost always electrically insulating, but when melted or dissolved they become highly conductive, because the ions are mobilized.

Caution
Students need to select the elements on the basis of the type of compound. As the melting point of the compound is high, it is ionic in nature. Also, determination of valency of elements is very important.

SECTION – C

This section has 02 case-based questions (14 and 15). Each case is followed by 03 sub-questions (A, B and C). Parts A and B are compulsory. However, an internal choice has been provided in part C.

Question 14.
The space surrounding a magnet in which magnetic force is exerted, is called a magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field lines at a place can be determined by using a compass needle. A compass needle placed near a magnet gets deflected due to the magnetic force exerted by the magnet. The north end of the needle of the compass indicates the direction of magnetic field at the point where it is placed. When the magnet shown in the diagram below is moving towards the coil, the galvanometer gives a reading to the right.

(A) What is the name of the effect being produced by the moving magnet? (1)
(B) State what happens to the needle shown on the galvanometer when the magnet is moving away from the coil. (1)
(C) If the magnet is moved towards the coil at a great speed, state two changes that you would notice in the galvanometer.
OR
List three sources of magnetic fields. Why can not two magnetic field lines intersect? (2)
Answer:
(A) Electromagnetic induction
The process by which a changing mangetic field in a conductor induces a current in another conductor is called electromagnetic induction. In practice, we can induce the current in a coil either by moving it in a magnetic field or by changing the magnetic field arount it.

Experiment:

• Take two differenet coils of copper wire having a large number of turns (say 50 and 100 turns respectively).
• Insert them over a non-conducting cylindrical roll as shown in the figure given below:

Current is induced in coil-2 when current in coil-1 is changed

(B) When the magnet is moving away from the coil the galvanometer gives a deflection to the left.
There will be induced current in the coil due to relative motion between the magnet and the coil. Changing the magnetic field around the coil generates induced current.

(C) If the magnet is moved towards the coil at a great speed, large deflection occurs to the right and that too more quickly.

OR
Three sources of magnetic fields are Electromagnet, permanent magnet, wire carrying current.

Two magnetic field lines never intersect because the resultant force on a north pole at any point can only be in one direction. But if two magnetic field lines intersect one another, then the resultant force on a north pole placed at the point of intersection will be along two directions, which is not possible.

Question 15.
Study the given data and answer the questions that follow:

(A) What is the term used for this type of cross? (1)
(B) What does the data for the column marked F₁ indicate? (1)
(C) Express the genotype of the (i) Parents (ii) F₁ Progeny (iii) F₂ Progeny.
OR
The two versions of a trait (character) are brought in the progeny by the male and female gametes. Explain (2)
Answer:
(A) The term used for this type is Monohybrid cross.

(B) The data for the column marked Fi indicates that tallness is dominant over dwarfness.

(C) The genotypes are:
(i) Parents TT, tt
(ii) F₁ progeny Tt

(iii) F₂ progency
1 : 2: 1
3 tall: 1 dwarf
Here TT are tall plants and tt are dwarf plants.

Explanation: Monohybrid cross

• In a monohybrid cross, only one of the two contrasting traits (characters) appeared in F₁ generation and both the parents traits appeared in certain proportion in F₂ generation.
• There is a pair of unit factors controlling height in a plant.
• In F₁ generation, only one character was expressed. Mendel called it as dominant trait. The trait which was not expressed was termed recessive trait The phenomenon of appearance of one of the contrasting traits in F₁ generation is termed as dominance.
• The traits are not lost when they are not expressed.
• When F₁ offsprings were self pollinated, both the parental traits were expressed in definite proportion in F₂ generation.

OR
The two versions of a trait which are brought in by the male and female gametes are situated on copies of the same chromosome. Each parent contributes one copy of the gene for a particular trait. Thus, there are two copies of each chromosome.

One of the chromosomes (of each pair) comes from the father through male gamete and the other chromosome (of each pair) comes from mother through the female gamete. After the process of fertilization, the zygote is produced having 23 pairs of chromosomes. Sex chromosomes carry genes for sexual characters.

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 15 questions. ALL questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 7 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has 2 case based questions of 4 marks each.
• Internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.

Section – A

Question 1.
Why are natural ecosystems relatively balanced? If you remove all the phyto¬planktons from a pond what will happen to it? (2)
Answer:
A natural ecosystem is a balanced system because it consists of producers (green plants), herbivores (consumers I) carnivores (consumer II) and decomposers. Organisms of an ecosystem are well adjusted with biotic components. In the natural ecosystem, there is provision of constant flow of energy through the food chains and recycling of nutrients through decomposers. Thus, a natural ecosystem is a self-sufficient system.

The removal of phytoplanktons from a pond ecosystem will stop constant flow of energy, distributing the whole food web in the pond. First Larva and small fishes will die in wants of food and ultimately fishes which feed on them will die.

Question 2.
Consider the following situations as shown in the diagrams.

The arrows indicate the directions of current in the two closely kept parallel wires (a) and (b). The intensity of current in same in both wires. Use necessary diagram to a certain which pair of wires will attract and which will rule each others? (2)
OR
Look at the given situations and answer the following questions.


(A) In fig. (a) the coil is facing the right hand side which is towards the magnet. Will the magnet get attracted or repelled? Why? (1)
(B) In fig. (b) the coil is facing the right hand side which is towards the magnet. The magnet is moving away from the coil. What will be the direction of current in the coil? (1)
Answer:
Let us look at case (i)

As per Ampere’s Right hand thumb rule the direction of magnetic filed will be given as follows.

As can be seen in the central region of both wires the magnetic filed has opposite direction. Hence this pair will attract.
Let us now Look at case (ii)

Again involving Ampere’s Right hand thumb rule we see.

The magnetic field in the region between the wires is of the same polarity. Hence they will repel each other.
OR
(A) Let us draw the diagram

Using Ampere’s thumb rule we can see that the coil facing the magnet generates a South pole. Since the north pole of the bar magnet is facing the south pole of coil hence the bar magnet will get attracted.

(B) Let us draw the diagram

Since the bar magnet is moving away hence by the third law of electromagnetic induction, also known as Lenz law, the coil will be induced with a current that generates a polarity to stop the magnet from moving away. Since North pole is moving away hence the coil generates a south pole which then can be used along with Thumb rule to see that the flow of induced current will be along A → B → C.

Question 3.
A red haired woman marries a brown haired man, and all the children are brown haired.
Explain this genetically. (2)
Answer:
A red haired woman marries a brown haired man, and all the children are brown haired. The brown hair colour genes are dominant to the red hair colour genes. When there was exchange of gametes in male and female the dominant character was brown hair and recessive character was red hair. That is why the children were having brown coloured hairs.

Question 4.
The given figure demonstrates the Periodic Table. Based on the figure, answer the following questions:

(A) Write a chemical reaction between R and S. (1)
(B) What type of ions will be formed by R and S? (1)
OR
The position of twelve elements in the Modern Periodic Table is given below where atomic numbers of elements are given in the parenthesis.

(A) Predict the nature of Si and Ge. (1)
(B) Identify the element with smallest atomic radii. (1)
Answer:
(A) R belongs to group 2, period 3, thus it is Magnesium, (Mg) and S belongs to group 17, period 3, thus it is Chlorine (Cl).
Mg + Cl₂ → MgCl₂
i.e. R + S₂ → RS₂
(B) As R belongs to Group 2, thus it has two valence electrons which it can easily lose to attain stable configuration. Thus, R will form a dipositive cation, R²⁺. S belongs to group 17 of the periodic table, thus it has seven valence electrons. It only requires one more electron to attain stable configuration. Thus, S will form a uni-negative anion, S^–.
OR
(A) Si and Ge fall under the category of metalloids as they fall under group 14 and 3^rd and 4^th period.
(B) From the given table, C has the smallest atomic radii based on the atomic radii trend.

Question 5.
In the given figure, identify the following parts:

(A) Part from where entry of sperms take place. (1/2)
(B) Site of implantation. (1/2)
(C) Organ where production of egg takes place. Write one more functions of labelled part (R). (1)
OR
List the changes which take place in given figure of a bisexual flower after fertilisation. (2)

Answer:
(A) P-Vagina
(B) Q-Uterus
(C) R-Ovary
Function of Ovary: Ovary produces the female hormone estrogen which is responsible for all the changes taking place in a girl during puberty.
OR
After fertilisation, zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The ovule develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed. The ovary grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit. The petals, sepals, stamens, style and stigma may shrivel and fall off.

Question 6.
Using the part of the periodic table given below answer the questions that follows:

The netural atom of an element E consists of 12 electrons in its atoms.
(A) In which period and group is E placed? (1/2)
Answer:
As the atom is neutral, therefore, the number of electrons is equal to the number of protons which reflects the atomic number of element E. Element E has atomic number equal to 12, thus its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 2. Based on the configuration, Element E belongs to 3rd period and 2nd group.

(B) Name the element E. (1/2)
Answer:
The element has atomic number 12 so its Magnesium, Mg.

(C) How many electrons E needs to lose or gain to achieve noble gas configuration. (1/2)
Answer:
As the electronic configuration of Mg is 2,8,2, it can easily lose the two valence electrons to attain stable noble gas configuration of Neon.

(D) Write the formulae of chloride of E? (1/2)
Answer:
The valency of Mg is 2 according to the combining capacity. Thus, the formula of its chloride will be:

Question 7.
(A) Sperm and eggs are the reproductive units of humans. In what way are sperms and eggs of humans different? Write the importance of this difference. (1)
Answer:
The main difference lies in the difference in the sex chromosome of sperm (male gamete) and egg (female gamete). The main difference between sperms and eggs of humans is that half of the sperms of a male (father) will have X chromosomes and the other half will have Y chromosomes. All the eggs of female (mother) will have only X chromosomes. The importance of this variation are
(i) If the father contributes X chromosome, then the baby born will be a girl.
(ii) If the father contributes Y chromosome, then the baby born will be a boy. Thus, the sperm determines the sex of a child.

(B) Give the common name and scientific name of the plant on which Mendel performed its experiments. (1)
Answer:
The common name of the plant on which Mendel performed his experiments is Pea plant. It’s scientific name is Pisum Sativum.

Section – B

Question 8.
(A) How is the direction of magnetic field at a point determined? (1)
Answer:
The direction of the magnetic field at a point can be found by placing a small magnetic compass at that point. The north end of the needle of a compass indicates the direction of magnetic field at a point where it is placed.

(B) What is the direction of magnetic field at the centre of a current-carrying circular loop? (1)
Answer:
The direction of magnetic field at the centre of a current-carrying circular loop is perpendicular to the plane of the loop.

(C) (i) What is the role of the split ring in an electric motor?
(ii) What is the role of carbon brush in a motor ? (1)
Answer:
(i) In an electric motor, the split ring acts as commutator. Due to its action, the direction of current flowing in motor coil reverses after half turn, giving rise to a continuous rotation of the coil and the axle.

(ii) A carbon brush is essentially a graphite brush which has two important properties of electrical conduction and lubrication. The brush allows the passage of curent from the external source to the rotating split rings while maintaining lubrication against wear and tear.

Question 9.
(A) Identify and name the third member of the alkane family and write its formula. (1½)
(B) Explain with appropriate reasons as to how many isomers are possible with the third member of the alkane family. (1\(\frac{1}{2}\))
OR
In electron dot structure, the valence shell electrons are represented by crosses or dots.
(A) The atomic number of chlorine is 17. Write its electronic configuration. (1½)
(B) Draw the electron dot structure of chlorine molecule. (1½)
Answer:
(A) The general formula of the alkane family is C_nH_2n+2. Here value of n = 3, thus, the formula for the third member of the alkane family is C₃H₈ and is called propane.
(B) Isomers are compounds with same molecular formula and different structural formula. Propane has only three carbon atoms which is not sufficient enough to exist in a branched form. Thus, propane does not exhibit isomerism.
OR
(A) The atomic number of chlorine atom is 17. Hence, the electronic configuration of Cl (17) would be:

(B) Chlorine molecule is formed by the formation of a single covalent bond between two chlorine atoms. The electron dot structure of chlorine molecule is:

Question 10.
Study the following circuit and answer the questions that follows:

(A) State the type of combination of two resistors in the circuit. (1)
(B) How much current is flowing through 0 10 ohms and (ii) 15 ohms resistor? (1)
(C) What is the ammeter reading? (1)
OR
Determine the following quantities for the circuit shown in the given figure:

(A) The equivalent resistance (1)
(B) The total current from the power supply and the current through each resistor (1)
(C) The voltage drop across each resistor and the power dissipated in each resistor (1)
Answer:

(A) Resistors in the circuit are connected in parallel combination.

(B) (i) Let Ii be the current flowing through
R₁ = 10 ohm.
Now I₁R₁ = V
I₁ = \(\frac{V}{R_{1}}=\frac{5}{10}\) = 0.5A

(ii) Let I2 be the current flowing through
R₂ = 15 ohm
Now I₂R₂ = V
I₂ = \(\frac{V}{R_{2}}=\frac{5}{15}\) = 0.33A

(C) Ammeter reading
= I₁ + I₂
= 0.5 A + 0.33 A
= 0.83 A
OR
Given circuit diagram:

(A) Equivalent resistance:
Resistances in series add up.
R = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
= 20Ω + 30Ω + 50Ω
= 1ooΩ

(B) Total current from the power supply:
Total current is determined by the voltage of the power supply and the equivalent resistance of the circuit.
I = \(\frac{V}{R}\) = \(\frac{125}{100}\) = 1.25 A
Current through each resistor:
Current is constant through resistors connected in series.

(C) Voltage drop across each resistor:
V₁ = IR₁ = 1.25A × 20Ω = 25 V
V₂ = IR₂ = 1.25A × 30Ω = 37.5 V
V₃ = IR₃ = 1.25A × 50Ω = 62.5 V
In a series circuit they should equal the voltage increase of the power supply.
V_total = V₁ + V₂ + V₃
125 V = 25 V+37.5 V+62.5 V
125 V = 125 V
The power dissipated in each resistor:
P1 = V₁ × I₁
= 25V × 1.25A
= 31.250 W

P2 = V₂ × I₂
= 37.5V × 1.25A
= 46.875 W

P3 = V₃ × I₃
= 62.5V × 1.25A
= 78.125 W

Question 11.
(A) Among all the periods, which one is incomplete and what are the important properties exhibited by all elements present in this period? (1)
Answer:
With reference to the Modern Periodic Table, the 7th period is incomplete even though it has 32 elements. It is because it consists of elements whose properties are not yet studied properly. One of the important characteristic of elements in this period are that they are radioactive in nature.

(B) When a Dobereiner triad is considered, the sum of atomic masses of extreme elements X and Z is 177.6 and difference of Z and Y is five times the number of protons present in neon atom. Identify X, Y and Z. (2)
Answer:
As given in the numerical,
Sum of atomic masses of extreme elements X and Z = 177.6
Difference of atomic masses. Z and Y = 5 × (Number of protons in Ne)
= 5 × 10 = 50
As X, Y and Z are Dobereiner’s triad, the sum of atomic masses of X and Z is 177.6 and the atomic mass of Y will be average of atomic masses of X and Z according to Dobereiner’s principle.
Atomic mass of Y = Avg. of atomic masses ofX and Z
= 177.6/2
= 88.8
Now the difference between Z and Y = 50
Substituting the value of Y = 88.8 in above equation, we get
Z – Y = 50
Z = 50 + Y
Z = 50 + 88.8
Z = 138.8
Now, substituting the values of Z and Y, we get the value of X
Atomic mass of Y = Avg of atomic masses of X and Z
88.8 = \(\frac{\begin{array}{c}
\text { atomic mass of } X+ \\
\text { atomic mass of } Z
\end{array}}{2}\)
= \(\frac{\text { Mass of } X+138.8}{2}\)
177.6 = Mass of X + 138.8
Mass of X = 177.6 – 138.8
= 38.8
Therefore, the elements X, Y and Z are Ca, Sr and Ba respectively which are elements of Dobereiner’s triads.

Question 12.
(A) If you collect a sample of water from lake or pond, you will find green filamentous organisms. Identify the organism and their mode of reproduction. (1)
Answer:
Organism is Spirogyra and mode of reproduction is fragmentation.

Related Theory:
Spirogyra simply breaks up into smaller pieces upon maturation. These pieces or fragments grow into new individuals.

Caution:
Do not confuse between fragmentation and regeneration. Regeneration is an ability of the organism to restore the amputed portion of the body.

(B) A stale bread will have fungal growth on it. You can observe the tiny blob-on- a-stick structures sitting on the hyphae. Name the blob structures. (1)
Answer:
Sporangia
Related Theory:
The blob structures are sporangia, which contain cells, or spores, that can eventually develop into new Rhizopus individuals.

(C) Some flowers have either stamen or pistil Can you give any two examples of such flowers? (1)
Answer:
Papaya and Watermelon
Related Theory:
Papaya and watermelon are unisexual flowers. They either contain stamen or pistil.

Question 13.
A non-biodegradable toxic chemical has entered into the food chain. Which type of food habit would you suggest to a man, vegetarian or non-vegetarian? Explain with the help of a food chain the food chain which you would suggest, is advantageous in another aspect. How? (3)
Answer:
Vegetarian food chain will be suggested in case of entry of non-biodegradable toxic chemicals into the food chain.
Non-biodegradnble chemicals get concentrated at every trophic level by the process of biological magnification. As the concentration increases with the number of trophic level in food chain, man will get high concentration of the chemicals in non-vegetarian food chain than in vegetarian food chain e.g.

Vegetarian food chain:

Non Vegetarian food chain:

Vegetarian food chain has advantages in terms of energy available to the man because it has less number of trophic levels. As 90% of energy is lost in the environment, at every trophic level, a lesser number of trophic levels will result in lesser energy loss.

Section – C

This section has 02 case-based questions (14 and IS). Each case is followed by 03 sub-questions (A, B and C). Parts A and B are compulsory. However, an internal choice has been provided in part C.

Question 14.
Fragmentation and regeneration are two different modes of reproduction. During fragmentation an organism on maturation splits which enables the creation of new individuals from the fragments. While, regeneration occurs where the organism has an ability to regrow certain parts of its body when it loses them. In some organisms, only certain specialized cells, proliferate making regeneration possible.

(A) Identify the organism and process shown in the figure. (1)
(B) Do you think humans can reproduce by
the fragmentation mode? (1)
(C) Do you think regeneration is same as reproduction? Justify your answer. (2)
OR
(C) (i) Sheela’s teacher explained the class that young boys and girls of 12-14 age undergo various physical changes. These changes are necessary and is an onset of adulthood. However, Sheela has not experienced any changes yet. She is curious to know about puberty and the changes that can take place in females during puberty. What are those changes? (1)
(ii) Male reproductive system is a complex network of various organs. Each organ has an important role to play. Which parts of human male reproductive system contribute fluid to the semen? Why do you think addition of semen is advantageous? (1)
Answer:
(A) The organims’is Planaria and the process shown in the figure is regeneration in Planaria.

(B) Humans cannot simply divide cell-by-cell. The reason is that many multi-cellular organisms, as we have seen, are not simply a random collection of cells. Specialised cells are organised as tissues, and tissues are organised into organs, which then have to be placed at definite positions in the body. In such a carefully organised situation, cell-by-cell division would be impractical.

(C) Regeneration is not the same as reproduction since most organisms would not normally depend on being cut up to be able to reproduce.
Also, in certain organisms, only a portion of the organism is regenerated, rather than the entire organism (Example, tail of a lizard can be regenerated). Reproduction, on the other hand, entails the creation of a completely new creature. As a result, we can distinguish between regeneration and reproduction.
OR
(C) (i) The period when the rate of general body growth begins to slow down and reproductive tissues begin to mature, is called puberty. Two changes observed in girls at the time of puberty are:
(a) the breast size begin to increase,
(b) menstruation starts
(c) hair growth in the pubic areas
Related Theory:
Adolescent and menstruating age might vary from person to person. It depends on various factors like heredity, nutrition, life-style, etc.

(ii) Prostate glands and seminal vesicles add fluid in the vas deferens. This makes transportation of sperms easier and also provides nutrition to the sperms.

Question 15.
For the flow of charge in a conductor metallic wire, gravity does not play any role. The electron moves only if there is a difference in electric potential. The chemical action with a cell generate the potential difference across the terminal of the cell, even when no current is drawn from it, potential difference set the charges in motion in the conductor produce an electric current, the cell has to expend its chemical energy stored in it

(A) We know that in conventional current positive charges move from higher potential to lower potential But we also know that the only positive charge in a conducting wire is the proton which is trapped inside the nucleus. So which particle is actually moving? How do you reconcile this knowledge with what you’ve studied about conventional current? (1)
(B) A charge of 10 coulombs is flowing through a wire for 10 minutes. If the work done is 10000 J, what is the resistance of the wire? (1)
(C) If the resistance of a wire is tripled without changing the nature of material or length of the wire, then what was changed and by how much? (2)
OR
Find the minimum resistance that can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 Ω.
Answer:
(A) In conductors it is the electrons which flow from lower potential to higher potential. This is known as electric current. Conventional current is the direction of electric current from the positive terminal of a cell to the negative terminal. Also electric current defines the direction of flow of opposite charges in a circuit. The protons don’t take part in the flow electric current at all.

(B) Given:
Q = 10 C,
t = 10 min = 600 s,
W = 10000 J.
We know that
W = VIt.
I = Q/t
and V = IR.
When combined we get
W = Q²R/t.
Hence, R = Wt/Q²
Hence, R = 10000 × 600/100
= 60000 Ohms.

(C) If the nature of material and length remains constant and yet the resistance changes then it means the area was changed. Since area is inversely proportional to the resistance hence the area was decreased to one-third of its actual value.
OR
For getting minimum resistance R we can connect five resistors in parallel combination.
Resistance of each part = \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Resistance are connected in parallel to have minimum resistance.

So, the minimum resistance that can be made by using five resistors each of \(\frac{1}{5}\)Ω is \(\frac{1}{25}\)Ω.

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 15 questions. ALL questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 7 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has 2 case based questions of 4 marks each.
• Internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.

SECTION – A

Question 1.
(A) Observe the given table and identify the element(s) that belong to the same group. Enumerate the reason for your answer. (1)

Answer:
For identification of elements that belong to the same group, we need to write the electronic configuration of these elements.

As is evident from the above table, elements Q and R have 7 valence electrons each. The group is determined with the help of valence electrons. Thus, they belong to the same group, group number 17.

Related Theory:
For neutral atoms, the number of valence electrons is equal to the atom’s main group number. The main group number for an element can be found from its column on the periodic table. The number of valence electrons of an element can be determined by the periodic table group (vertical column) in which the element is categorized. With the exception of groups 3-12 (the transition metals), the unit digit of the group number identifies how many valence electrons are associated with a neutral atom of an element listed under that particular column.

Caution
For identification of the elements, assess the group according to the valence electrons. Same number of valence electrons corresponds to the same chemical properties, and hence, same group.

(B) The eLements P, Q and R belong to groups 1, 14 and 17 respectiveLy of the Periodic Table. Which two elements will form Ionic compounds? Predict the formula of the compound. (1)
Answer:
For identifying which element will form ionic compounds, we need to compute the electronic configuration of these elements as shown below:

It is evident from the above table that the valency of the elements P, Q and R are 1, 4 and 1 respectively. Ionic compounds are formed by transfer of electrons whereas covalent compounds are formed by sharing of electrons. Element P and R can easily lose or gain electrons to attain stability whereas element Q cannot lose or gain 4 electrons to attain stability.

Thus, elements P and R can form ionic compounds. The formula of the compounds will be as follows:

Related Theory
An ionic bond is formed by the complete transfer of some electrons from one atom to another. The atom losing one or more electrons becomes a cation-a positively charged ion. The atom gaining one or more electron becomes an anion-a negatively charged ion.

Caution
Students need to identify the valencies of the elements correctly. Once that is done, students need to criss-cross the valencies to form the compound. Usually the mistake will be done when the valencies of the elements are different.

Question 2.
A magnetic compass needle is placed in the plane of paper near point Q as shown in figure. In which plane should a straight current carrying conductor be pLaced so that it passes through Q and there is no change in the deflection of the compass? Under what condition is the deflection maximum and why?

Answer:
When the magnetic field and direction of electric current are in the same plane, there would be deflection in the compass. For maximum deflection, magnetic field and direction of current should be in mutually perpendicular plane. So, for no deflection, conductors should be kept parallel to the magnetic compass. For maximum deflection, it should be placed perpendicular to the compass.

Related Theory
There is equation F = Bil sin θ (Not in syllabus) where F depends on i, l, B and angle θ.
For max F, sin θ = 1 when θ = 90°→ Perpendicular For min F, sin θ when θ = 0° → Parallel.

Caution
Though the given equation is not a part of your syllabus yet having a knowledge of it can help you in your understanding of many variable dynamics and relations.

Question 3.
(A) Rom reads a statement in a textbook which said “Genes controL characteristics or traits. Elaborate and justify this statement? (1)
Answer:
Tallness of a plant is a characteristic. Height of a plant depends on the amount of hormone secreted by the plant responsible for its tallness. The gene has the coding for the amount of hormone released. If the gene for that hormone has an alteration and makes its efficiency low, then the plant will be short. Thus, this shows that traits are controlled by gene.

(B) Traits acquired during the Lifetime (for example — Languages) of an individual not inherited. Justify this statement. (1)
Answer:
The traits can be inherited from one generation to the other only if there is a variation/change in DNA. The traits acquired during the lifetime of an individual may not bring change in the genes of DNA.

Question 4.
(A) Arrange the following in increasing order of boiLing point CH₄, C₃H₈, C₅H₁₂, C₂H₆, C₈H₁₈ (1)
Answer:
The increasing order of boiling points: C₈H₁₈ >C₅H₁₂ > C₃H₈ > C₂H₆ > CH₄

Explanation:
As the molecular mass increases by 14u after successive members of the homologous series, the boiling point increases as the Van der Waal’s interaction increases

(B) Identify the functional group present in the following; (1)

OR
Mention the 2nd and 4th member of CH₃OH. (2)
Answer:
(i) Ketone group , —CO—
(ii) Aldehyde group, —CHO
(iii) Halogen group, -X= Cl

Explanation:
In the case of ketone, the carbonyl group is surrounded by alkyl group.
In case of aldehyde group, the carbonyl group is terminally placed. In the last option, the hydrogen is replaced by halogen group.
OR
2nd member of CH₃OH is C₂H₅OH, and 4th member of CH₃OH is C₄H₁₄OH Explanation: CH₃OH is methanol which has alcohol as the functional group. The first member is CH4 in which one H is replaced with —OH. In a similar manner, the second member will be C_nH_2n+1—OH. Following this formula, we can determine the 2nd and 4th member of the series.

Question 5.
With the help of the given example in the given figure below, invoLving four organisms describe how energy flows through different trophic Levels. (Ref to Fig.: 1) (2)

OR
The figure shown below represent the energy flow in our biosphere. Refer to the diagram and answer the questions on the basis of the diagram given

(A) Name the boxes represented by P, Q, and R. (1)
(B) What is S and why is it linked with all three boxes? (1)
Answer:
Leaf captures the sun’s energy and uses it to make organic compounds through photosynthesis but, only 1% of the energy is converted into glucose during photosynthesis. When these leaves are eaten by caterpillar most of the energy 90% is lost as heat. Only 10% of energy reaches to the next level of the consumers.

Caution
Do not get confused between units given in question& J stands for joule (unit of energy)
OR
(A) P-Producers, Q- Herbivores, R-Carnivores,
(B) S-represents decomposers. As decomposers can breakdown the dead remains of all living organisms, the box S is linked with all three boxes that represent producers (plants), herbivores and carnivores,

Caution
The representation shown here does not depict the energy from the sun, and decam poser.

Question 6.
How is the equal genetic contribution of male and female parents ensured in the progeny.
OR
“It is a possible that a trait is inherited but may not be express (iv)” Give a suitable example to justify this statement. (2)
Answer:
In human beings, equal genetic contribution of male and female parents is ensured in the progeny through inheritance of equal number of chromosomes from both parents. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes. All human chromosomes are not paired. Out of these 23 pairs, the first 22 pairs are known as autosomes and the remaining 1 pair is known as sex chromosomes represented as X and Y. FemaLes have a perfect pair of two X sex chromosomes and mates have a mismatched pair of one X and one Y sex chromosome.

During the course of reproduction, as fertilization process takes place, the male gamete (haploid) fuses with the female gamete (hapLoid) resulting in formation of the diploid zygote. The zygote in the progeny receives an equal contribution of genetic material from the parents. Out of 23 pairs of chromosomes in progeny, male parent contributes 22 autosomes and one X or Y chromosome while female parent contributes 22 autosomes and one X chromosome.
OR
It is possible that a trait is inherited but may not be expressed. This can be seen in the Mendel experiment. When pure tall pea plants are crossed with pure dwarf pea plants, only tall pea plants are obtained in Fi generation. On crossing tall plants of F₁, both tall and dwarf plants are obtained in F₂ generation in the ratio 3 : 1. Reappearance of the dwarf character, a recessive trait in F₂ generation shows that the dwarf trait was present in individuals of F₁ but it did not got expressed, i.e. it was merely concealed or suppressed in the first generation to re-emerge in the second generation.

Question 7.
(A) Why are most carbon compounds poor conductors of electricity? (1)
Answer:
Carbon has 4 valence electrons which has the ability to form 4 covalent bonds. Thus, it is able to form a stable octet and thus there is no extra electron present in carbon compounds to conduct electricity. Due to lack of free electrons, they are not able to conduct electricity.

(B) Write the name and structure of a saturated compound in which the carbon atoms are arranged in a ring. Give the number of single bonds present in this compound. (1)
Answer:
A saturated compound consists of single covalent bond. According to the question, a cyclic saturated compound consists of a ring like structure consisting of single covalent bonds. One such example is cyclohexane.

The number of single, covalent bonds in cyclohexane are 18 as follows:
C-H bonds: 12
C-C bonds: 6
Total number of single bonds: 18

SECTION – B

Question 8.
(A) If a harmful chemical enters the food chain comprising snakes, peacock, mice and plants, which of these organisms is likely to have the maximum concentration of this chemical in its body? (1)
(B) State the essential function performed by ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere. (1)
(C) Why do producers always occupy the first trophic level on every food chain? (1)
OR
Suggest one word for each of the following statement and elaborate them.
(A) The physical and biological world where we live. (1)
(B) Each level of food chain where transfer of energy takes place. (1)
(C) Organisms which depend on the producers either directly or indirectly for food. (1)
Answer:
(A) Peacock

Caution:
Students gets confused as examiner will change the name of organism at top level like Peacock or hawk

Related Theory:
If a pollutant enters at producer’s level the organism at the top or highest level of food chain will have maximum concentration of the pollutants. This phenomena is known as biological magnification

(B) It shields the surface of the earth from ultraviolet (UV) radiation of the sun.

Related Theory:
Ozone layer depletion is one of the major problems for the atmosphere and also for all the living beings including the flora and fauna of this earth.

(C) The first trophic level is always a green plant because only plants can utilize the radiant energy of the sun and transform it to chemical form during photosynthesis

Related Theory:
Producers (plants) have the most energy in a food chain or web (beside the sun) and they give an organism more energy than a primary consumer or secondary consumer would.
OR
(A) Ecosystem: An ecosystem consists of biotic components comprising living organisms and abiotic components comprising physical factors like temperature, rainfall, wind, soil and minerals.

(B) Trophic level: A trophic level is a group of creatures in an environment that share the same food chain level. Within a food chain, there are five basic trophic levels, each of which has a different nutritional relationship with the primary energy source.

(C) Consumers: The organisms that consume the food produced. either directly from producers or indirectly by feeding on other consumers. Classed as herbivores, carnivores, omnivores and parasites.

Question 9.
The figure given below depicts the process of asexual reproduction in Plasmodium.

(A) Name the process depicted in the figure and define it. (1½)
Answer:
The process depicted in the given figure is Multiple Fission.
Multiple fission can be defined as an asexual method of reproduction in organisms in which the parent organism splits to form many new organisms at the same time.

(B) What is meant by asexuaL reproduction? (1½)
Answer:
The production of a new organism from a single parent without the involvement of sex cells or gametes is called asexual reproduction. For example: Budding in Hydra.

Question 10.
Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of five 2 V cells, a 5 ohm resistor, a 10 ohm resistor, a 15 ohm resistor, an ammeter and a plug key, all connected in series. Calculate the electric current passing through the above circuit when the key is closed. (3)
OR
(A) Mention two special features of the material used as an element of an electric iron. (1)
(B) How does potential difference (V) across a resistor depend on current passing through it? What is nature of I-V graph obtained? (2)
Answer:
Circuit diagram will be:

It is given that five cells of 2 V are connected in series, so total voltage of the battery:
V = 2 × 5 = 10V
These resistor of 5 Ω, 10 Ω and 15 Ω are connected in senes, so the net resistance
R = 5Ω + 10Ω + 15ST = 30Ω

According to Ohm’s law
V = IR
and I = \(\frac{V}{R}\)
On substituting resultant voltage (V) as 10 V and resultant resistant as 30 Ω we get
I = \(\frac{10 \mathrm{~V}}{30 \Omega}\) = 0.33 A
The electric current passing through the above circuit when the key is closed will be 0.33 A.
OR
(A) High melting point, High resistance

(B) The potential difference across a wire is akin to the pressure applied across a pipe containing water. The more the pressure the more the water that flows through the pipe. Similarly the more the potential difference the more the current through the wire and vice-versa. This is known as the Ohm’s law. The constant of proportionality is known as Resistance of the wire. The l-V graph is a straight line passing through the origin and lying on the x-y plane.

Question 11.
Flowers follow either self-pollination or cross-pollination. What could be the advantages and disadvantages of self-pollination over cross-pollination? (3)
Answer:
Advantages of self pollination:

• Flowers do not depend on other agencies for pollination.
• No wastage of pollen grains occur and thus, economical.
• The offsprings produced are of the same genetic make-up, so purity of the race is maintained.

Disadvantages of self pollination:

• Continuous self-pollination results in production of water.
• No chances or very less chances of variations and evolution.
• Defective character of breed are not eliminated.

Question 12.
(A) Why does a current carrying conductor, experience a force when it is placed in a magnetic field? (1½)
Answer:
When a current-carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, the wire experiences a force due to the interaction between the external magnetic field and the magnetic field produced by the moving charges in the wire. The current carrying conductor generates it own magnetic field around it. This interacts with the external magnetic field. When two magnetic fields interact there will be attraction and repulsion between them based on the direction of the external magnetic field and the direction of the current in the conductor. That is why the conductor experiences a force.

(B) A circuit has a line of 5 A. How may lamps of rating 40 W, 220 V can simultaneously glow on this line safely? (1½)
Answer:
We know that,
I = \(\frac{P}{V}=\frac{40 \mathrm{~W}}{200 \mathrm{~V}}\)
= \(\frac{2}{11}\)
= 0.182 A

0.182 A or \(\frac{2}{11}\) A is required by one lamp.
Current rating i.e.
maximum current = 5 A
No. of lamps
= \(\frac{\text { Current rating }}{\text { Current throughone lamp }}=\frac{5}{0.18}\)
= 27 lamps

Question 13.
(A) Identify the part of the seed that helps in storing food during the germination process. (1)
Answer:
Cotyledon
During germination, the cotyledon stores food. The food is needed to release energy in order to foster the growth of the plant. The seeds could be of monocot or dicot type based on the number of cotyledons they have.

(B) Hydra and Planaria reproduce through a similar mode. In what way do you think the reproduction pattern in Hydra is different from Planaria? (1)
Answer:
Hydra reproduces by budding. In Hydra, a bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division at one specific site. These buds develop into tiny individuals and when fully mature, detach from the parent body and become new independent individuals.

Planaria reproduces by regeneration. PLanaria can be cut into any number of pieces and each piece grows into a complete organism. Hence it is different from budding process.

(C) Leishmania and Plasmodium both reproduce through fission process. Do you see any variation in the pattern of reproduction? If yes, how? (1)
Answer:
Plasmodium, divides into many daughter cells simultaneously by multiple fission. While in Leishmania, the organism divides into two halves longitudinally.

SECTION – C

This section has 02 case-based questions (14 and 15). Each case is followed by 03 sub-questions (A, B and C). Parts A and B are compulsory. However, an internal choice has been provided in part C.

Question 14.
The following figure shows a part of the periodic table in which the elements are arranged according to their atomic numbers. (The letters given here are not the chemical symbols of the elements).

(A) Which element has a bigger atom, ‘a’ or f? (1)
Answer:
‘a’ (size decreases from left to right in a period).

(B) Which element has a higher valency ‘i’ or ‘o’? (1)
Answer:
‘k’ (valency of ‘k’ = 3; valency of ‘o’ = 1).

(C) (i) Which element is more metallic ‘i’ or ‘k’? (1)
(ii) Select the letter represent a non-metal or valency 2. (1)
OR
(i) Why metals are called electropositive elements? (1)
(ii) Name two elements you would expect to show chemical reactions similar to sodium. What is the basis for your choice? (1)
Answer:
(i) ‘i’ (metallic character decreases from left to right in a period).
(ii) ‘f'(or ‘n’)
OR
(i) Metals are called electropositive elements since their atoms form positive ions by losing electrons.
(ii) Potassium, K and Cesium, Cs are the metals that would show chemical reactions similar to sodium. This is because they have the same number of electrons in the outermost shell.

Question 15.
Consider a situation. A bar magnet, North pole pointing downwards is falling from a certain height, as shown.

(A) Describe the vertical motion of the magnet as it approaches the solenoid and passes through it. (2)
(B) A magnetic compass shows a deflection when placed near a current carrying wire. How will the deflection of the compass get affected if the current in the wire is increased? Support your answer with a reason. (2)
OR
How does the magnetic field produced by a solenoid differ from that of a bar magnet? (2)
Answer:
(A) Initially when the magnet is far from the solenoid it will fall freely and accelerate downwards at a rate of 9.81 m/s².
As it approaches the solenoid its rapidly changing magnetic flux through the solenoid will induce a current in the solenoid.

Owing to law of electromagnetic induction the current in the solenoid will generate a magnetic field which will oppose the magnetic field due to the bar magnet, as shown.

This repulsive force will slow down the magnet. As the magnet passes through the coll this repulsion will increase which will further slow down the falling magnet. Hence on emerging out of the coil the induced current in the coil will again Oppose the movement of the magnet and will further slow it down.

So the magnet will fall to the ground at a much slower speed than what it would have fallen had the coil not been there.

(B) A magnetic compass is made of magnetised iron that points to the earth’s pole. When another magnet is brought close enough, the compass will point in the direction of the second magnet since its magnetic strength is greater than that of the earth.

When a current carrying wire is introduced close to a magnetic compass, the magnetic compass will deflect due to the production of a magnetic field. A wire carrying electric current will have a magnetic field that forms concentric rings around it. One of the magnet’s ends will attract, while the other will repel, depending on its orientation. Because the electric field is exactly proportional to the magnetic field intensity, the deflection will rise as the current is increased. We can say that the magnetic field is stronger when the electric field is strong.
OR
A solenoid is a coil of numerous circular turns of wire wrapped in the shape of a cylinder. A solenoid’s magnetic field lines, through which current passes, are extremely similar to those of a bar magnet. The coil’s one end acts as a magnetic north pole, while the other works as a magnetic south pole. A long solenoid produces a magnetic field that is identical to that produced by a bar magnet.

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 7 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 7 for Practice

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 15 questions. ALL questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 7 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has 2 case based questions of 4 marks each.
• Internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.

SECTION – A

Question 1.
(A) Find the value of current in the circuit given os below. (1)

(B) You have four resistors of 8Ω each. Show how would you connect these resistor to have effective resistance of 8Ω? (1)
OR
Calculate the equivalent resistance of the following network:

Question 2.
(A) Two carbon atoms cannot be Linked to each other by more than three covalent bonds. Why? (1)
(B) What will be the formula and electron dot structure of cyctopentane? (1)

Question 3.
Which of these organisms are capable of restoring damaged or missing cells, tissues, organs, and even entire body parts?

OR
Observe the diagrams shown below.

What are STDS? Which one of the contraceptive devices is used to prevent AIDS? (2)

Question 4.
The following table shows a part of the periodic table in which the elements are arranged according to their atomic numbers. (The letters given here are not the chemical symbols of the elements):

Giving reasons, answer the following:
(A) Which element has a bigger atom, ‘a’ or ‘r’? (1)
(B) Which element has a higher valency, ‘k’ or ‘o’? (1)

Question 5.
(A) In what form the 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic Level to the next in an ecosystem? (1)
(B) According to 10% law, only 10% of the energy entering a particular trophic level is available for transfer to the organisms of the next trophic level. What happens to the 90% energy? (1)

Question 6.
Identify the functional group present in the given sets of compounds.
(A) Propanal
(B) Propanoic acid
(C) Propanone
(D) Propanol (2)

Question 7.
Observe the cross shown below and predict what would be the ratio of F₂ progeny? Explain. (2)

OR
Two pea plants one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds produce F₂ progeny that have round, yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F₁ plants are selfed, the F₂ progeny will have a new combination of characters. Which traits will be expressed by the next generation? (2)

SECTION – B

Question 8.
The below diagram is a depiction of the human female reproductive system.

Label all the parts and write down why part B is ligated and sutured. (3)
OR
Observe the figure given alongside and label A, B, C, D and E and write the function of D. (3)

Question 9.
(A) What is the commercial unit of electrical energy? Represent it in terms of joules. (1)
(B) A battery of 9V is connected in series with resistors of 0.2 , 0.3 , 0.4,0.5 and 12 ohms respectively. How much current will flow through a 12 ohm resistor? (1)
(C) Why are coils of electric toasters and electric iron made of an alloy rather than a pure metal? (1)

Question 10.
List two contrasting visible characters of garden pea which Mendel used for his experiment. (3)
OR
Explain how Mendel interpreted his results to show that the traits may be dominant or recessive. (3)

Question 11.
(A) Draw a diagram to show magnetic field due to a bar magnet in a given region. (1)
(B) Mention the shape of the magnetic field lines around a current carrying straight conductor. (1)
(C) What is the role of the two conducting stationary brushes in a simple electric motor? (1)

Question 12.
(A) On detailed reserach, it was found that, in human beings, the statistical probability of getting either a male or female child is 50 : 50. Give a suitable explanation. (1½)
(B) Enlist the differences between acquired and inherited traits. Support your answer with an example. (1½)

Question 13.
What are decomposers? What will be the consequence of their absence in an ecosystem? (3)

SECTION – C

This section has 02 case-based questions (14 and 15). Each case is followed by 03 sub-questions (A, B and C). Parts A and B are compulsory. However, an internal choice has been provided in part C.

Question 14.
The magnetic field lines of an infinite wire are circular and centered at the wire and they are identical in every plane perpendicular to the wire as shown in the figure.

Since the field decreases with distance from the wire, the spacing of the field lines must increase correspondingly with distance. The direction of this magnetic field may be found with a second form of the right-hand rule. If you hold the wire with your right hand so that your thumb points along the current, then your fingers wrap around the wire in the same sense as B.
(A) A vertical wire carries an electric current out of the page. What is the direction of the magnetic field at point P located to the west from the wire? (1)

(B) A current carrying conductor is held in exactly vertical direction. In order to produce a clockwise magnetic field around the conductor, the current should be passed in the conductor. What will be the direction of the current? (1)
(C) What are the characteristics of magnetic field lines? (1½)
OR
A student plotted a variation of magnetic field around a straight current carrying wire and the distance from the wire where the magnetic field is measured. (1½)
OR
Study the graph below and find out the relationship between magentic field and distance.

A positive charge is moving towards a person. What will be the direction of magnetic field lines? (2)

Question 15.
Atoms of eight elements A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H have the same number of electron shells but different number of electrons in their outermost shells. It was found that elements A and G combine to form an ionic compound. This ionic compound is added in a small amount to almost all vegetables and dishes during cooking. Oxides of elements A and B are basic in nature while those of elements E and F are acidic. The oxide of element D is, however, almost netural. Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

(A) To which group or period of the periodic table do these elements belong? (1)
(B) What would be the nature of compound formed by a combindation of elements B and F? (1)
(C) (i) Which two of these elements could definitely be metals and which would be non metals? (1)
(ii) Which one of the eight elements is most likely to be found in gaseous state at room temperature? (1)
OR
(i) Identify the letter which represents metalloid from the above elements. Name that metalloid. (1)
(ii) Show the formation of a diatomic molecule of ‘G’ and predict its nature. (1)

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 7 for Practice appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 8 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 8 for Practice

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 15 questions. ALL questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 7 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has 2 case based questions of 4 marks each.
• Internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.

Section – A

Question 1.
Catenation is the ability of an atom to form bonds with other atoms of the same element. It is exhibited by both carbon and silicon. Compare the ability of the catenation of the two elements. Give reasons. (2)

Question 2.
Three 2 Ω resistors, A, B and C, are connected as shown in the figure given below. Each of them dissipates energy and can withstand a maximum power of 18 W without melting. Find the maximum current that can flow through the three resistors.

OR
A current of 1 ampere flows in a series circuit, containing an electric lamp and a conductor of 5 Ω when connected to a 10 V battery. Calculate the resistance of the electric lamp. Now, if a resistance of 10 Ω is connected in parallel with this series combination, what change (if any) will take place in the current flowing through 5 Ω conductor and potential difference across the lamp? (2)

Question 3.
Examine the given figures and answer the following questions.

(A) Identify parts P, Q, R and S in fig. (a). Write functions of each part. (1)

(B) Identify the organism and mode of reproduction in fig. (b). Explain the mode of reproduction. (1)

Question 4.
(A) In a food chain of frog, grass, insect and snake, assign a trophic level to frog. (1)
(B) Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances. Give examples. (1)

Question 5.
Observe the table given and answer the following questions.

(A) (i) Lithium, sodium and potassium are all metals that react with water to liberate hydrogen gas. Is there any similarity in the atoms of these elements? (1/2)
(ii) Helium is an un-reactive gas and neon is a gas of extremely low reactivity. What, if anything, do their atoms have in common? (1/2)

(B) A metal M forms an oxide having the formula M₂O₃. It belongs to period 3 in the modern periodic table. Write the atomic number and valency of the metal. (1)
OR
Observe the given table and answer the following questions.

(A) Arrange elements P, Q and R in increasing order of their atomic radii. (1)
(B) Arrange elements A, B and C in the order of their decreasing non-metallic character. (1)

Question 6.
Write the structural formulae of all the isomers of hexane. (2)

Question 7.
Observe the given figure and answer the questions:

(A) Identify the parts in human-female reproductive parts which are blocked to prevent pregnancy. How is sterilization done in males? (1)
(B) In human females reproductive system, which part’s lining gets thickened and to nourish the growing embryo ? What happens to it if egg/ovum is not fertilized? (1)
Or

(A) In human male reproductive system identify the part:
(i) in which testis are located
(ii) which adds secretions along the path of vas-deferens. (1)
(B) Write the functions of secretions which are secreted along the path of vas deferens. (1 )

Section – B

Question 8.
What would be the ratio of chromosome numbers between an egg and a zygote? How is the sperm genetically different from the egg? (3)

Question 9.
(A) Is Ohm’s law applicable to electrolytes? If yes, under what conditions? If no, why? (1)
(B) What are the properties of a fuse? (1)
(C) In the equation P = VI, V is inversely proportional to I whereas in the equation V = IR, V is directly proportional to I. Why such a paradox? (1)
OR
(A) What will be the resistance of a wire of length 300 m and cross-section area 1.0 mm² made up of material of resistivity 10^-7 ohm^-m? (1)
(B) What happens to the resistance as the conductor is made thicker? (1)
(C) Why alloy is commonly used in electrical heating devices like toaster etc? (1)

Question 10.
Observe the diagram given below and answer the questions.

(A) Identify the organism and part
(i) the non-reproductive part (1)
(ii) reproductive part (1)
(B) What are the factors responsible for the spread of bread mould on slices of bread? (1)
OR
Observe the diagram shown below.

Identify the organism and mode of reproduction. Explain also. (3)

Question 11.
What does the direction of thumb indicate in the right-hand thumb rule? In what way is this rule different from Fleming’s left-hand rule. (3)

Question 12.
In peas, a pure breeding tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure breeding short plant (tt). What will be the ratio of. pure tall plants to short plant in F₂ generation? (3)

Question 13.
(A) Make a food chain comprising grass hopper, grass, frog, hawk and snake? (1½)
(B) Indicate the flow of energy in an ecosystem. Why is it unidirectional? Justify. (1½)

Section – C

This section has 02 case-based questions (14 and 15). Each case is followed by 03 sub-questions (A, B and C).
Parts A and B are compulsory. However, an internal choice has been provided in part C.

Question 14.
The below table shows the Periodic Table of elements. The letters P, Q and U do not represent the actual symbols of elements

(A) Referring to the table, indicate the positions of R, S and T by writing the letters in the correct boxes of the Periodic Table above. (1)
(B) Which element among P, Q, R, S, T and U exist as monatomic gas? (1)
(C) (i) When U reacts with hydrogen, it forms a compound. Predict the colour observed when a red litmus paper is dipped in the solution of the compound. (1)
(ii) P can react with R to produce a gas. Name the gas. (1)
OR
(C) An element X (atomic number 17) reacts with an element Y (atomic number 20) to form a divalent halide.
(i) Where in the periodic table are elements X and Y placed? (1)
(ii) Classify X and Y as metal(s), non-metals) or metalloid(s). (1)

Question 15.
Fig. (a) shows magnetic field lines in a bar magnet. The compass needle gets deflected when brought near a bar magnet. The magnet exerts its influence in the surrounding region. The magnetic field is a quantity that has both direction and magnitude. Magnetic field lines have various properties. The direction of the magnetic field is taken to be the direction in which a north pole of the compass needle moves inside it. Fig. (b) show a current carrying conductor in the plane of the paper. (3)

(A) Why does a compass needle gets deflected when brought near a bar magnet? (1)
(B) Why does a current carrying conductor kept in a magnetic field experience force? What is the direction of force acting on the conductor? (1)
(C) (i) Why don’t two magnetic lines of force intersect each other? (1)
(ii) Kanchi draws magnetic field lines of field close to the axis of a current carrying circular loop. As she moves away from the centre of the circular loop she observes that the lines keep on diverging. How will you explain her observation? (1)
OR
In fig. (b) what are the directions of magnetic fields produced by it at points P and Q? Given r₁ > r₂, where will the strength of the magnetic field be larger? (2)

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 8 for Practice appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 6 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 6 for Practice

Time allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• All questions are compulsory.
• The question paper has three sections and 15 questions. ALL questions are compulsory.
• Section-A has 7 questions of 2 marks each; Section-B has 6 questions of 3 marks each, and Section-C has 2 case based questions of 4 marks each.
• Internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.

Section – A

Question 1.
Do all variations in a species have equal chances of surviving in the environment in which they find themselves?
OR
Mendel performed his first set of experiments on the pea plants. Why did Mendel choose pea plants as an experimental subject? (2)

Question 2.
A current through a horizontal power line flows in west to east direction.
(A) What is the direction of the magnetic field at a point directly above it and at a point directly below it? (1)
(B) Name the rule used to determine:
(i) The direction of force when a current carrying wire is placed in a strong magnetic field. (1/2)
(ii) Magnetic field in a current carrying conductor. (1/2)

Question 3.
(A) What is an ecosystem? (1)
(B) The number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited. Comment on this statement. (1)
OR
Which groups of organisms are not constituents of a food chain?
(A) Plankton, man, fish, grasshopper (1)
(B) Wolf, grass, snake, tiger (1)

Question 4.
The figure shows the pattern of magnetic field lines through a circular loop.

Mark the direction of:
(A) electric current in loop (1)
(B) magnetic field lines (1)

Question 5.
From the dihybrid cross shown below answer the following questions:

(A) Write the type of seeds produced in F₁ generation. (1/2)
(B) Write the type of seeds that were 9 : 3 : 3 :1 in ratio respectively. (1/2)
(C) Show the cross obtained after self pollination of F₁ progeny. (1)
OR
Given below is a depiction of Mendele’s experiment with the pea plants. An enclosed table shows the inheritance pattern in the F₂ generation. What would be the ratio of the next generation, if pure breeding of F₂ individuals (encircled) is done? (2)

Question 6.
Figure shows a 240 V AC mains circuit to which a number of appliances are connected and switched on.

(A) Calculate the power supplied to the circuit. (1)
(B) Calculate
(i) the current through the refrigerator,
(ii) the energy used by the fan in 3 hours,
(iii) the resistance of the filamen of one lamp. (1)

Question 7.

(A) What do the magnetic field lines depict in given figure? (1/2)
(B) State whether an alpha particle will experience any force in a magnetic field, if.
(i) it is placed in the field at rest.
(ii) it moves in the magnetic field parallel to field lines.
(iii) it moves in the magnetic field perpendicular to field Lines (1½)

Section B

Question 8.
Give reasons for the following:
(A) Non-metals have a tendency to form anions. (1)
(B) Cs atom is larger than Li atom. (1)
(C) Metals have a tendency to lose electrons. (1)
OR
(A) Give reasons for the following:
(i) Aluminium and Zinc have a tendency to form amphoteric oxides. (1)
(ii) Size of an element decreases on moving along the period. (1)
(B) An element ‘A’ belongs to the second period and group 13 of the Periodic Table. Find out the valency of A. (1)

Question 9.
What is placenta? Mention its role during pregnancy. (3)
OR
(A) Write the correct sequence of reproductive stages seen in flowering plants. (1½)
(B) Why does the number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a particular species remains constant? (1½)

Question 10.
Draw the diagram of a flower and label the four whorls. Write the names of gamete producing organs in the flower. (3)

Question 11.
The formula of four organic compounds are given below:

(A) Which one of the compounds is a saturated hydrocarbon? (1)
(B) Identify the organic acid from among the following and give its structural formula. (1)
(C) Which among (a) and (d) will be more reactive? Why? (1)

Question 12.
(A) Why are crop fields known as artificial ecosystems? (1½)
(B) What are the advantages of cloth bags over plastic bags during shopping? (1½)

Question 13.
Ashish observed the ears of all the students in the class and prepared a list of students having free and attached earlobes:

After calculations he found that 70% of students of his class have free earlobes whereas only 30% have attached ear lobes.
(A) Which ear lobes are dominant – free earlobes or attached earlobes? (1)
(B) Suggest a possible rule for the inheritance of earlobe types. (1)
(C) What are dominant traits? (1)

Section – C

This section has 02 case-based questions (14 and 15). Each case is followed by 03 sub-questions (A, B and C).
Parts A and B are compulsory. However, an internal choice has been provided in part C.

Question 14.
Pin was a very curious child, The wanted to establish a relationship between potential difference across to conductor and current flowering through it. For this he sets up an electric circuit comprising a nichrome wire, ammeter A, voltmeter V, plug key K and 5 cells of same voltage (let’s say 1.5 V each)

First, he used one cell as sources of current in the circuit and noted the reading of ammeter and voltmeter. Then he repeated the above steps using two, three, four and five cells, and noted the reading which are given in the table alongside:

(A) Plot a graph between V and 1 and calculate the resistance of that resistor. (1)
(B) Who gave the relationship between the current, I, flowing in a metallic wire and the potential difference across it terminals. Define the law used to calculate the resistance of that resistor. (1)
(C) Does the phenomenon/law hold good under all conditions? Comment. (2)
OR
Two identical resistors each of resistance 12 ohm are connected, (i) in series (ii) in parallel, in turn to a battery of 6 V. Calculate the ratio of power consumed in the combination of resistors in the two cases. (2)

Question 15.
The table represents a periodic table used in chemistry. Use the below periodic table to answer the following questions:

(A) Identify the element Located in group 2A and 4th period? Identify the period and group of element C? (1)
(B) Which element has the lowest electronegativity? (1 )
(C) Arrange (B²⁺, C³⁺, D^-1) ions in order of increasing ionic radius. (2)
OR
Write the electronic configuration of element D and its anion D^–. Compare its properties. (2)

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Science Term 2 Set 6 for Practice appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into five sections-Section A, B, C, D and E.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A: Question no. 1 to 5 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Section-B: Question no. 6 to 8 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section-C: Question no. 9 and 10 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• Section-D: Question no. 11 and 12 are Case Based questions.
• Section-E: Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 3 marks with two parts, 13.1 from History (1 mark) and 13.2 from Geography (2 marks).
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION-A [2 × 5 = 10]
(Very Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 1.
How did the Non-Cooperation Movement unfold in the cities and towns of India? (2)
Answer:

• The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities.
• Thousands of students left government-controlled schools and college.
• Many teachers resigned.
• Lawyers gave up their legal practices.
• The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras.
• Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires.
• Any other relevant point (Any two points)

Related Theory:
The Non-Cooperation movement unfolded in stages where people refused to cooperate with the British government without breaking any civil laws. For example, people stopped attending British established institutions like schools, colleges, offices, courts and initiated setting up alternative Indian institutions.

The Civil disobedience movement involved people breaking the existing civil laws.

Question 2.
Why is tourism considered as a trade? (2)
Answer:

• Foreign tourist’s arrival in the country contributing to foreign exchange.
• Many people are directly engaged in the tourism industry.
• Tourism provides support to local handicrafts.
• Tourists visit India for medical tourism, eco-tourism, adventure tourism, cultural tourism and business tourism
• Any other relevant point. (Any two points)

Explanation:
Tourism is considered as a trade because it adds to the strength of our economy by bringing in foreign currency. It also boosts the production of local goods and handicrafts which in turn provides employment to owners and workers of indigenous handicraft industries in India. Tourism also leads to development of infrastructure in India.

Question 3.
Differentiate between one party and two party system. (2)
Answer:
(A) One Party System:

• Countries, where only one party is allowed to control and run the government, are called one party system.
• Eg. In China only Communist Party is allowed to rule.
• Any other relevant point

(B) Two Party System:

• Countries where only two main parties contest elections are called Two Party System.
• The United States of America and United Kingdom are examples of Two Party System.
• Any other relevant point

Related Theory:
Multiple parties are allowed to exist even in the Two party or Bi-party system but power and authority only rotates between the two central and more powerful parties as mentioned in the answer.

Caution
For questions, where differentiating characteristics are asked, it is important for the students to carefully pick up points which explain the stark contrast between the two categories as asked in the question. For example, here, another feature of differentiation could have been that one party systems generally result in autocracies while two party systems might not necessarily result in autocracies. Flowever, this point doesn’t underline the difference as evidently as the mentioned points.

Question 4.
State the role of Reserve Bank of India. (2)
Answer:

• In India, the Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government.
• The RBI supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans.
• The RBI monitors the banks in actually maintaining cash balance.
• The RBI sees that the banks give loans not just to profit-making businesses and traders but also to small cultivators.
• Any other relevant point. (Any two points)

Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India is the sole regulator and issuer of Indian currency. It issues the notes of ₹ 2, 5,10, 20, 50, 100, 200, 500 and 2000 for circulation among the public. It is the Bank of the Banks and monitors their lending activities.

Related Theory:
The Reserve Bank of India is also the Banker of the government and a lender of last resort for atl the government, state governments and other financial institutions.

Question 5.
Read the data in the table given below and answer the questions that follow:
Total production of finished steel in India

(A) Compare the 2015-2016 and 2019-2020 data and give any one reason for the reduction of production of steel in 2019-2020. (1)
Answer:

• High costs
• Limited availability of coking coal
• Lower productivity of labour
• IrreguLar supply of energy
• Any other relevant point (Any one point)

Related Theory:
Steel is needed to manufacture a variety of engineering goods, construction material, defence, medical, telephonic, scientific equipment and a variety of consumer goods.

India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world but we are not able to perform to our full potential because:
(a) High costs and limited availability of coking coal which is one of the raw materials.
(b) Lower productivity of labour involved in this industry

Caution:
Students must not get distracted due to the given table and focus upon the keywords in the question. It is important for students to understand that the reason for reduction in production of steel would remain the same regardless of the years.

(B) Why is production and consumption of steel considered as an index of a country’s development? (1)
Answer:

• The steel products are used as a raw material in different industries.
• It is required for export.
• it provides machinery for ensuring country’s growth.
• Any other relevant point.

Related Theory
Production and consumption of steel is regarded as the index of a country’s development because it plays a major role in the development of every other industry.

SECTION -B [3 × 3 = 9]
(Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 6.
Why do most of the rural households still remain dependent on the informal sources of credit? Explain.
Answer:

• Limited availability of Banks in rural areas.
• People in the rural areas face problem with regard to documentation.
• Absence of collateral is one of the major reasons which prevents the poor from getting bank loans.
• Rural people get easy loans from the richer households through informal ways.
• Any other relevant point (Any three points)

Related Theory:
It is difficult for poor people to get loans from the Bank because they generally do not have any collateral to pledge as a security to borrow from the banks.

Caution:
It is important to differentiate between informal and formal sector loans. Formal sector loans are borrowed from banks and financial institutions. Informal sector loans are borrowed from moneylenders, Mahajans, Sahukars and relatives.
OR
How do Self Help Groups help borrowers to overcome the problem of lack of collateral? Explain. (3)
Answer:

• People can get timely loans for a variety of purposes and at a reasonable interest rate.
• SHGs are regular in their savings which can be used as monetary help.
• Members can take small loans without collateral to meet their needs.
• Due to timely repayment banks also lend loans to SHGs.
• Any other relevant point. (Any three points)

Related Theory:
Self Help Groups are created to ensure financial inclusion. They are important because they help poor men and women loan from formal resources instead of pushing them further towards debt trap by informal sources loons.

Question 7.
“Tribal peasants interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi and the idea of swaraj in another way and participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement differently.” Justify the statement. (3)
Answer:

• Spread of militant guerrilla movement in the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh.
• They were against colonial policies.
• Their livelihood was affected and their traditional rights were denied.
• Their leader Alluri Sitaram Raju was inspired by the Non-Cooperation Movement and persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking.
• He wanted liberation by the use of force.
• The rebels attacked police stations and carried on guerrilla warfare for achieving swaraj.
• Any other relevant point (To be evaluated as a whole)

Question 8.
Examine the role of Political Parties in a democratic country. (3)
Answer:

• Parties form and run governments.
• Parties play a decisive role in making policies for the country.
• They recruit leaders and train them.
• Parties that lose the election form the opposition.
• Parties shape public opinion.
• Parties provide the common man access to government machinery and welfare schemes.
• Any other relevant point (Any three points)

Caution
To underline the functions of any organization, it is important to incorporate all different types and fields. Such questions should be answered in points mainly to fetch full marks.

SECTION – C [5 × 2 = 10]
(Long Answer Type Questions)

Question 9.
‘Democracy’s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot be ignored.’ Support the statement with examples.
Answer:

• Democracy ensures that decision making will be based on norms and procedure.
• Every citizen has the right and means to examine the process of decision making.
• Democratic governments are accountable, legitimate and transparent governments.
• People have the right to choose their rulers.
• Democracy gives its citizens the right to information about the government and its functioning.
• A democratic government is the people’s own government and it is run by the people.
• Any other relevant point (Any five points)

Caution:
For questions which require the students to support the given statements with examples, students must try to incorporate real life examples. Examples help support points that are made in the answers by the students. For example in the question, it is important to incorporate how in India, democratic sentiment and political participation have increased. Coalition governments have been made and removed if they have not performed.
OR
‘There is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy in South Asia.’ Support the statement with examples. (5)
Answer:

• Democratic government is peoples own government.
• Countries from South Asia want democratic rights for people.
• Countries want to elect their representatives by themselves.
• Democracy provides dignity and freedom to its citizens.
• Democracy accommodates social diversity.
• Democracy is based on the idea of discussion and negotiation.
• Eg. India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Pakistan
• Any other relevant point (Any five points)

Question 10.
Examine the role of Information Technology in stimulating the process of globalization. (5)
Answer:

• Technology has been changing rapidly.
• Telecommunication facilities (telegraph, telephone including mobile phones, fox) are used to contact and access information.
• Helps to communicate from remote areas.
• Development of satellite communication devices.
• Computers have now entered almost every field of activity.
• One can obtain and share information through internet.
• Electronic mail (e-mail) and talk (voice-mail) across the world at negligible costs
• Has played a major role in spreading out production of services across countries
• Any other relevant point (Any five points)

OR
Assess the impact of globalization on India and its people. (5)
Answer:

• Globalization has resulted in more choices for the consumers
• This has improved the standard of living of people
• MNCs have increased their investments in industries such as cell-phones, auto-mobiles, electronics, soft drinks, etc.
• New jobs have been created.
• Some local companies that supply raw materials to MNCs have also benefited.
• Some local companies have been able to invest in newer technology and production methods.
• Globalisation has enabled some large companies such as Tata Motors, Infosys to emerge as multi-national companies.
• Companies providing services have also benefited by globalisation.
• Flexibility in labour laws
• Expansion of unorganised sector
• Stiff competition to the local producers
• Any other relevant point (Any five points)

Related Theory:
It is important to underline the bad impact of globalisation on people and producers.
Native producers have been destroyed because they do not produce materials which could compete with mechanized imported and cheap products. Indigenous industries are being destroyed because of Globalisation.

Caution
While analysing the impact of any phenomenon, it is important to underline both positive and negative effects.
The term ‘analyse’ involves unprejudiced deliberation upon the effects of the phenomenon of globalisation.

SECTION-D [4 × 2 = 8]
(Case Based Questions)

Question 11.
Read the given text and answer the following questions:
‘It is said of “passive resistance” that it is the weapon of the weak, but the power which is the subject of this article can be used only by the strong. This power is not passive resistance; indeed, it calls for intense activity. The movement in South Africa was not passive but active…

‘Satyagraha is not physical force. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary; he does not seek his destruction … In the use of satyagraha, there is no ill-will whatever.

‘Satyagraha is pure soul-force. Truth is the very substance of the soul. That is why this force is called satyagraha. The soul is informed with knowledge. In it burns the flame of love. … Nonviolence is the supreme dharma …‘It is certain that India cannot rival Britain or Europe in force of arms. The British worship the war-god and they can all of them become, as they are becoming, bearers of arms. The hundreds of millions in India can never carry arms. They have made the religion of non-violence their own…
(A) Why did Gandhiji consider nonviolence as supreme dharma? (1)
Answer:
Gandhiji adopted nonviolence as a philosophy and an ideal way of life. According to him philosophy of nonviolence is not a weapon of the weak; it is a weapon, which can be tried by all.

Explanation:
Gandhiji considered Non-violence as an individual’s supreme Dharma because Non-violence was the weapon of the strong. He believed that humans were rational and moral and Non-violence was one of the most important moral values that a man was supposed to cherish and observe.

Caution:
To answer questions which are Case Based, reading the passage multiple times is extremely important. Most answers are disguised between the lines.

(B) How was Gandhian satyagraha taken by the people who believed in his philosophy? (1)
Answer:
A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary; he does not seek his destruction. In the use of satyagraha, there is no ill-will.

(C) Why was Gandhian satyagraha considered as a novel way to resist injustice? (2)
Answer:

• One could win the battle through nonviolence.
• This could be done by appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.
• People – including the oppressors – had to be persuaded to see the truth, instead of being forced to accept truth through the use of violence.
• Any other relevant point (Any two points)

Explanation:
Gandhian Satyagraha was important and the most novel way to resist injustice because it left behind permanent consequences. It involved a change in the conscience of the oppressors permanently while violence only affected the surface of their perspectives and values.

Non-violent struggles are long and difficult but very effective. Violent struggles are quick and fizzle out easily.

Question 12.
Read the given text and answer the following questions:
Ever since humans appeared on the earth, they have used different means of communication. But, the pace of change, has been rapid in modern times. Long distance communication is far easier without physical movement of the communicator or receiver. Personal communication and mass communication including television, radio, press, films, etc. are the major means of communication in the country. The Indian postal network is the largest in the world. It handles parcels as well as personal written communications. Cards and envelopes are considered first-class mail and are airlifted between stations covering both land and air. The second-class mail includes book packets, registered newspapers and periodicals. They are carried by surface mail, covering land and water transport. To facilitate quick delivery of mails in large towns and cities, six mail channels have been introduced recently. They are called Rajdhani Channel, Metro Channel, Green Channel, Business Channel, Bulk Mail Channel and Periodical Channel.
(A) Examine the role of the Indian postal network. (1)
Answer:

• It has helped the country to engage in communication and social-economic development.
• It provides various facilities like speed post, business post, registered post, ordinary post.
• Any other relevant point (Any one)

(B) Differentiate between mass communication and personal communication. (1)
Answer:

• Mass Communication is the medium which provides entertainment as well as creates awareness among the masses. It includes radio, television, newspapers, magazines, books, films etc. whereas Personal Communication is between person to person.
• Any other relevant point (Any one)

(C) Analyse the significance of communication for a nation. (2)
Answer:

• This is the age of communication using the telephone, television, films, and the Internet
• Even books, magazines and newspapers are important means of communication.
• Various means of communication have connected the world closer.
• It is the source of entertainment and knowledge.
• Any other relevant point (Anyone)

Explanation:
Communication is the link between the lowest and the highest rungs of a society in a nation.

• Communication using the telephone, television, films, and the Internet helps in quicker and holistic development of the society.
• Books, magazines and newspapers are important means of communication which help in transfer of knowledge, ideas and opinions thereby moulding the citizens of a nation into ideal and enlightened people.
• It helps a country by connecting it to the entire world- therefore opening the gates of foreign trade, globalisation and diplomatic discussions.

SECTION -E [1 × 3 = 3]
(Map Skill Based Questions)

Question 13.
(A) On the given outline Political Map of India, identify the place marked as A with the help of following information and write its correct name on the line marked near it. (1)
(a) The place where Non Cooperation Movement was called off due to violence. (1)
Answer:
Chauri Chaura (UP)

(B) On the same given map of India, locate the following:
(a) Namrup Thermal Plant
OR
Noida Software Technology Park (1)
(b) Raja Sansi (Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee) International Airport (1)
Answer:

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into five sections-Section A, B, C, D and E.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A: Question no. 1 to 5 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Section-B: Question no. 6 to 8 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section-C: Question no. 9 and 10 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• Section-D: Question no. 11 and 12 are Case Based questions.
• Section-E: Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 3 marks with two parts, 13.1 from History (1 mark) and 13.2 from Geography (2 marks).
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION – A [2 × 5 = 10]
(Very Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 1.
How did the first world war lead to a rise in defence expenditure in India? (2)
Answer:
Due to the first world war, war loans, funds required to meet the needs of soldiers for food, uniforms, weapons and ammunition rose exponentially. The British Government was under a lot of debt and tried to offset it by levying taxes on Indian citizens to earn greater revenue. Thus, the defence expenditure of India grew exponentially.

Related Theory:
Income tax was introduced to balance the sudden rise in expenditure due to the first world war.

Question 2.
Agriculture and industry are not exclusive to each other. What does the given statement mean? (2)
Answer:
Agriculture and industry cannot develop or exist individually. Their development is integrated and development of each sector augments the development of the other. In other words, each of them are dependent upon the other for its existence and development.

Related Theory:
Agricultural products are primary sector goods. They are processed and turned into finished goods by the manufacturing sector. The sectors are both interconnected and cannot develop individually because the products of one sector become the raw material for another sector. Hence, they always go hand in hand.

Question 3.
The Supreme Court passed an order to reduce the influence of money and criminals in politics and political parties. Mention the measure taken by the Supreme Court in this regard. (2)
Answer:
The Supreme Court has made it mandatory for every candidate contesting the elections to file an affidavit giving details of the immovable and movable assets possessed by him and the criminal cases pending against him.

Related Theory:
An affidavit is a signed document submitted to an officer, where a person makes a sworn statement regarding her personal information. It has to be signed by a notarised officer.

Question 4.
Enlist two consequences of greater foreign investment and greater foreign trade. (2)
Answer:
Two consequences of greater foreign trade are:

1. Greater foreign investment and foreign trade leads to greater integration of production and markets across
   countries.
2. It also leads to greater economic development and regional growth across the country.

Related Theory:
Foreign trade helps native producers reach a wider customer and consumer base. International markets pay better for goods than native markets.

Question 5.
Read the data about people’s opinions expressed in forms of numbers about their support for democracy and answer the questions that follow:

Democracy is preferable Sometimes dictatorship is better ! Doesn’t matter to me
(A) According to the table, do you think Democracy is a popular form of government in these countries? (1)
(B) Which country do you think has the highest probability of having an autocratic government according to the given table? (1)
Answer:
(A) Yes, Democracy is a popular form of government in most of these countries according to the given data. Most votes are in favour of having a democratic form of government in their countries.

(B) According to the given table, Pakistan . has the highest probability of having an autocratic government. It has the highest number of citizens who do not care or would not want to have an democratic government.

Caution:
Data Based Questions involve application of the concepts learnt and understood in the classes. Here, in such questions, students should try to follow the question word by word. Keywords mentioned in the question direct the students to analyse the data accordingly.

Section-B [3 × 3 = 9]
(Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 6.
Why was the Lahore Congress session so consequential for the Indian national movement?
OR
Mahatma Gandhi once again decided to call off the Civil Disobedience movement and entered into a pact with Irwin on 5 March 1931. Support the statement by enlisting incidents which led up to the Gandhi-lrwin pact. (3)
Answer:
The Lahore Congress session is so important for the Indian national movement because of the following reasons:

• In December 1929, the Lahore Congress formalised the demand of ‘Purna Swaraj’ or complete independence for India for the first time. This was organised under the presidency of Jawaharlal Nehru.
• This session also declared that January 26th, 1930 would be celebrated as Independence Day.
• It was when people decided to take a pledge to struggle for complete independence. Resolution to fight for complete independence was declared for the first time in this session.

OR
Following circumstances led up to the Gandhi
Irwin pact:
1. Gandhi’s letter comprising 11 demands from the British Government was rejected by Irwin in 1930-31. Gandhi had launched the Civil disobedience movement and refused to participate in the first round table conference as a consequence.

2. Later, to appease him, Irwin promised to offer some concessions. To further the talks, Gandhi called off the Civil Disobedience movement and signed the Gandhi-lrwin pact

3. Through the pact, Lord Irwin released all the prisoners arrested during the movement while Mahatma Gandhi agreed to attend the Second Round Table Conference.

Question 7.
What is a Barter system? Why does it no longer function today? (3)
Answer:
A system where the goods are directly exchanged without the use of money as an exchange medium is called the barter system. Double coincidence of wants is an essential feature of the barter system. In this system, sellers agree to sell and buy each other’s commodities.

It is a difficult condition to achieve. It is extremely difficult and inconvenient to find a pair of sellers who want to buy the exact thing the other seller wants to sell. Hence it does not function anymore.

Question 8.
What does an ideal democratic government promise? Mention few points. (3)
Answer:
An ideal democratic government promises a lot of things. Few of these promises can be enlisted as:

1. It promise to conduct regular free and fair elections, open public debate on major policies and legislation.
2. It ensures transparency and citizens’ right to information about the government and its functions.
3. An ideal democratic government promises to follow procedures and is accountable to the people.

Section – C [5 × 2 = 10]
(Long Answer Type Questions)

Question 9.
The quality of democracy depends on the degree of public participation. Elaborate.
OR
“Mohammad Iqbal’s thoughts on communalism and separate electorates were radical and completely different from Gandhi’s.” Throw some light on Iqbal’s thoughts on communalism keeping the given statement in mind. (5)
Answer:
The quality of democracy depends on the degree of public participation. This can be argued as follows:

• To solve the problem of bad politics, ordinary people have to strive and influence leaders to perform better politics.
• It is difficult to reform politics if citizens simply criticise it from the outside. They have to participate and produce better alternatives.
• Public participation makes them aware and the leaders more responsible and accountable towards these enlightened people.
• If political parties felt that they were losing public support by not making reforms, they would become more serious about good governance.
• Political parties could be reformed only if people who wanted to bring reforms join them and lead them towards change.

OR
Mohammad Iqbal reiterated the importance of separate electorates for the muslims as a safeguard for political interests of the minority while Gandhi believed it obstructed the process of national integration.
1. Iqbal also believed that Communalism was indispensable to the formation of a harmonious whole in a country like India.

2. He asserted that Indian society was territorially different from European countries. The principle of European democracy could not be applied to India without recognising the significance and relevance of communal groups.

3. India is a land of racial and religious variety. He believed that those who understood the word “nation” to mean a kind of universal amalgamation in which no communal entity ought to retain its private individuality were wrong and hence separate electorates were necessary to retain private individualities.

Question 10.
Underline the significance of mass communication.
OR
Starting around 1991, some far-reaching changes in the economic policy were made in India. Elaborate upon these policies. (5)
Answer:
The significance of mass communications can be underlined in the following points:

• Mass communication provides mass entertainment.
• Creates awareness among people about programmes and policies through radio, television, newspapers, magazines, books and films without any prejudice based on caste, colour, gender or region.
• Information is spread through mass communication mediums like the All India Radio (Akashwani) through a variety of programmes in national, regional and local languages.
• Doordarshan and other channels broadcast a variety of programmes from entertainment, educational to sports, etc. for people of different age groups.
• Thus Mass communication is a source of information about the world and infotainment.

OR
The government decided in 1991 that Indian producers and companies were ready to compete with producers around the globe. It thus changed the economic policy of India:

• The government felt that this competition from opening the economy to the world would improve the performance of the producers within the country.
• The barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were also removed.
• This was done to invite investments from all over the world. This boosted our economic growth.
• The policies also involved invitations to prosperous foreign companies.
• The government invited foreign produers to set up factories and offices here which would lead to new employment and growth.

Section -D [4 × 2 = 8]
(Case Based Questions)

Question 11.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Rama is working in a neighbouring field. She works as an agricultural labourer. There are several months in the year when Rama has no work, and needs credit to meet the daily expenses. Expenses on sudden illnesses or functions in the family are also met through loans. Rama has to depend on her employer, a medium landowner in Sonpur, for credit. The landowner charges an interest rate of 5 per cent per month.

Rama repays the money by working for the landowner. Most of the time, Rama has to take a fresh loan, before the previous loan has been repaid. At present, she owes the landowner Rs 5,000. Though the landowner doesn’t treat her well, she continues to work for him since she can get loans from him when in need. Rama tells us that the only source of credit for the landless people in Sonpur are the landowner-employers.
(A) In the given case, why does Rama borrow money only from her landowner? (1)
Answer:
The only source of credit for the landless people in remotest parts of the country are the landowners and employers. There is no formal source of credit in such areas. It might also be possible that Rama borrows from the landowner because she has no collateral to pledge to the bank as a security.

(B) What is a suitable remedy for Rama to come out of this situation? (1)
Answer:
Rama should borrow from a formal sector credit source like a bank or a cooperative society instead.
Explanation: If Rama begins to borrow money from a bank, she might get it at a lesser rate of interest and would be able to settle her transaction with the Landowner once and for all. She would be out of the debt trap finally.

(C) What would be the outstanding amount
for Rama to repay to the landowner if she borrowed 6000 rupees from the landowner according to the terms of credit mentioned in the source for 5 months? (2)
Answer:
Principal (P) = ₹ 6000
Time = 5 months
Rate of Interest = 5% per month
Interest = ?
Amount = ?
Amount = P\(\left(1+\frac{r}{100}\right)^{\mathrm{t}}\)
Amount = 6000\(\left(1+\frac{5}{100}\right)^{5}\) = ₹ 7,657.7

Caution:
Always solve such questions by presenting each step clearly for step marking.

Question 12.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Production of goods in large quantities after processing from raw materials to more valuable products is called manufacturing. Do you know that paper is manufactured from wood, sugar from sugarcane, iron and steel from iron ore and aluminium from bauxite? Do you also know that some types of clothes are manufactured from yarn which itself is an industrial product? People employed in the secondary activities manufacture the primary materials into finished goods.

The workers employed in steel factories, cars, breweries, textile industries, bakeries etc. fall into this category. Some people are employed in providing services. In this chapter, we are mainly concerned with manufacturing industries which fall in the secondary sector. The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.
(A) What are the two types of manufacturing industries classified according to the capital investment? (1)
Answer:
According to the criterion of capital investment, they are classified into Small scale and Large Scale industries.
Small scale industries require less capital investment and the production is on a smaller scale, confined to two or more industry units.
Large scale industries require large capital investment and the production is on a huge scale, almost covering multiple states or even countries.

Related Theory:
An industry, when classified according to capital investment, is defined with reference to the maximum investment allowed on the assets of a unit. This limit has changed over a period of time. At present the maximum investment allowed is One crore rupees for small scale industries.

(B) What would happen to the economic prosperity of a country if there were no manufacturing industries located in it? (2)
Answer:
If a country had no manufacturing industries, it would be extremely difficult to sustain it because manufacturing industries produce goods and services which are both exported and consumed by the citizens of the country. Exports bring foreign currency in the country. Since, manufacturing industries are directly linked to the economic prosperity of a country, it will be difficult for such a country to progress economically.

Related Theory
It would have to rely on imports for the minutest requirements of food and sustenance. It will also have very few jobs Hence the country would be very poor.

(C) What would you do if you were the head of such a country? (1)
Answer:
If I were the head of such a country, I’d insist and invest in setting up some basic industries at the least to help sustain the citizens.

• I would encourage the citizens to research and develop new technologies, advanced methods and establish Iron and Steel, Textiles, Food industry in the first phase followed by other industries in the upcoming phases.
• This would help the country to develop and create more jobs.
• This would also increase their living standards and bring urbanisation.

Caution:
These are questions which provide a hypothetical scenario for the students to think, analyse and answer. To answer such questions, it is important that the students understand the holistic implications of a particular topic.

Section-E [1 × 3 = 3]
(Map Skill Based Questions)

Question 13.
(A) On the given outline Political Map of India, identify the place marked as A with the help of following information and write its correct name on the line marked near it.
(a) It is the place in Punjab where the Jallianwala Bagh Incident took place. (1)
(B) On the same given map of India, locate the following:
(a) Narora Nuclear Power Plant
OR
Gandhinagar Software Technology Park (1)
(b) Tuticorin Port (1 )

Answer:
(A) Amritsar
(B) (a) Narora Nuclear Power Plant
OR
Gandhinagar Software Technology Park
(b) Tuticorin Port

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 2 with Solutions appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 3 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into five sections-Section A, B, C, D and E.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A: Question no. 1 to 5 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Section-B: Question no. 6 to 8 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section-C: Question no. 9 and 10 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• Section-D: Question no. 11 and 12 are Case Based questions.
• Section-E: Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 3 marks with two parts, 13.1 from History (1 mark) and 13.2 from Geography (2 marks).
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION-A [2 × 5 = 10]
(Very Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 1.
Industrial locations are complex in nature. Support the given statement with two points. (2)
Answer:
Industrial locations are selected after keeping multiple factors in mind. Each factor must be satisfied before finally choosing one Location. These factors include easy availability of raw material labour, capital, power, transportation and market proximity etc. Hence, they are complex to find,

Related Theory:
To reduce the cost of production. ir is necessary for the businessmen or the industrialists ta find all the factors of production at the Least cost possible. This will increase their proflts

Question 2.
Satyagraha was a new concept introduced by Gandhi. What is the essence of this concept? (2)
Answer:
Satyagraha emphasised upon the need to search for the truth. It was a realisation of the power of truth. Satyagraha is pure soul- force. According to Gandhi, truth is the very substance of the soul. The force is called satyagraha.

Related Theory:
Satyagraha was the method used in multiple mass agitations which led Indians closer towards their Independence.

Question 3.
How has the production of goods and services changed over time? (2)
Answer:
The production of goods and services has completely evolved over time. Earlier, production was organised within different cities in a country, today it has spread across multiple countries according to favourable conditions and availability of factors of production.

Related Theory:
Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organised within countries. Only raw material, food stuff and finished products crossed the boundaries of a country.

Question 4.
How many parties are permitted to legally exist in a two party system? (2)
Answer:
In a two party system, power usually changes between two main parties. Several other parties may still legally exist, contest elections and win a few seats in the national legislatures.

Related Theory:
A two party system is found in the UK and the USA. They usually have two main parties but multiple parties are allowed to exist and function in their capacity. Power usually rotates between the two parties.

Question 5.
Study the data given on production of steel in India and China in the past few years and answer the questions that follow:

(A) Why has the production of steel not increased in India when compared to China? (1)
Answer:
India has not been able to perform to our full potential largely due to the following reasons:

• Lower productivity of labour
• Irregular supply of energy

(B) Which region in India has the highest concentration of Iron and Steel industries? (1)
Answer:
The Chotanagpur region of India which lies in Jharkhand and surrounding states has the highest concentration of Iron and Steel industries.

Caution
The key to answering data based questions is to focus upon the keywords asked in the question. They direct the students about the perspective with which the data has to be examined.

SECTION -B [3 × 3 = 9]
(Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 6.
Differentiate between dictatorships and democracy on the basis of economic development and decision making processes.
or
Enumerate a few reasons that make representative democracies necessary for large societies. (3)
Answer:
Dictatorship and democracy are different from each other in the given criteria in the following ways:

Caution
It is important to be stark clear while mentioning points in such questions. Students must make sure to exactly quote the criterion of differentiation atleast once in their points.
OR
Representative democracies are important for large societies because:

• Large societies need an important agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government. These representatives form that agency.
• Large societies also require a mechanism and institutions to support or restrain the government, make policies, execute or oppose them because if they were done directly, it would prove to be chaotic. Repesentative democracy is the solution to this requirement
• Representative democracy is important for large democracies to ensure that brute force or muscle power doesn’t become authoritative and assume control of the country.

Question 7.
Besides banks, the other major source of credit in rural areas is the cooperative societies. How do these cooperative societies function? (3)
Answer:
The cooperative societies function in the following ways:

• Cooperatives are formed of many members and can be created according to specific interests.
• Cooperatives accept deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative obtains a large loan from the bank.
• The funds loaned from the bank are thereafter used to provide loans to its members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending takes place. This is how cooperative societies function.

Question 8.
Pipelines are an important aLternative form of transportation to transport Liquids and gases. Do you agree? Support your stand. (3)
Answer:
Yes, pipelines are very effective means of transportation for liquids, solid slurries and gas. This can be asserted in the following ways:

• Pipelines do not require a lot of maintenance once laid down.
• Pipelines do not lead to energy or product leakage. They cause very little trans-shipment delays.
• Pipelines also save liquids and gas from evaporating or sublimation because they use covered pipes.

Caution
Questions which involve Yes or No as their answers must always be answered incorporating the points to support the student’s stand. They should be backed up by example and important points.

SECTION – C [5 × 2 = 10]
(Long Answer Type Questions)

Question 9.
Why was the Quit India Movement launched? Throw some light on the participants and main incidents.
OR
Enlist the ways in which credit helps in the development of agriculture and the agriculturists. (5)
Answer:
The Quit India movement was launched as a consequence of the failure of Cripps Mission. Leaders had hoped for honest devolution of powers after the World War II ended.

• When no such devolution took place, Mahatma Gandhi was severely disappointed and launched the ultimate national movement called the Quit India movement
• The Quit India movement was a culmination of the decades-long national independence movement.
• Gandhi delivered a do or die speech on its launching day signalling its significance.
• People observed hartals, and demonstrations and processions were accompanied by singing national songs and slogans.
• The movement was essentially a mass movement and saw participation from thousands of ordinary people, namely students, workers and peasants apart from the revolutionaries.

Women, such as Matangini Hazra in Bengal, Kanaklata Barua in Assam and Rama Devi in Odisha, participated in large numbers.
OR
Credit helps in the development of agriculture and the agriculturists in the following ways:

• The credit helps the farmers and farm labourers to meet the ongoing expenses of their farming activities and production.
• Credit allows them to purchase raw material like HYV seeds, fertilisers and other innovative equipment which they can use to further enhance their production even more.
• Credit also helps the farmers in arranging capital for irrigational facilities and investing in more advanced technologies.
• Farmers generally borrow money before harvesting and sowing seasons. Hence the credit also helps them post harvest.
• Credit also helps farmers by assisting them in their personal daily expenses, thus adding to their lifestyle.

Question 10.
It is important for the Indian textile manufacturers to improve the production of our domestic weaving sector instead of exporting yarn in large quantities. Validate the given statement.
OR
Industrialised countries can afford democracy but the poor need dictatorship to become rich. Do you agree? Validate your stand. (5)
Answer:
It is extremely important for Indian textile manufacturers to improve our domestic weaving sector instead of exporting premium quality yarn in large quantities.

The Indian weaving industry supplies low quality of fabric as it cannot use much of the high quality yarn produced in the country.

• Most of the production is in fragmented small units, which cater to the local market.
• The yarn produced in the country is of extremely high quality. This is a huge mismatch.
• The yarn has to be exported to various foreign countries. To use this amazing quality of yarn, our domestic weaving sector needs to be improved technologically.
• Exporting raw materials earns lesser revenue than exporting finished goods.
• New equipment along with some marketing and incentivising are required to help save the sector.

OR
No, I don’t agree with the given statement. This can be argued in the following ways:

• Democracies or dictatorships are not synonymous with any form of development. They are just forms of government They can only create a conducive atmosphere for development.
• Economic Development needs structural reforms to the benefit of the citizens keeping the interests of all the communities in mind. Dictatorships do not show a good performance in that area.
• Dictatorships only have slightly better rates of economic growth than Democracies. This does not translate into the assertion that dictatorships guarantee economic growth.
• Democracies ensure that the disadvantaged classes are protected and encouraged.
• Thus, this form of government is ideal for the poor classes to develop.

Caution:
Questions, where the student’s opinions are asked, can be answered either in a yes or no depending upon the choice of the student. It is important to however validate your stand and present examples to support it

SECTION-D [4 × 2 = 8]
(Case Based Questions)

Question 11.
Read the following sources and answer the questions that follow:
He felt the movement was turning violent in many places and satyagrahis needed to be properly trained before they would be ready for mass struggles. Within the Congress, some leaders were by now tired of mass struggles and wanted to participate in elections to the provincial councils that had been set up by the Government of India Act of 1919. They felt that it was important to oppose British policies within the councils, argue for reform and also demonstrate that these councils were not truly democratic. C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru formed the Swaraj Party within the Congress to argue for a return to council politics. But younger leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose pressed for more radical mass agitation and for full independence. In such a situation of internal debate and dissension two factors again shaped Indian politics towards the late 1920s. The first was the effect of the worldwide economic depression. Agricultural prices began to fall from 1926 and collapsed after 1930.
(A) Which movement is mentioned in the given source? Why did Mahatma Gandhi call it off? (1)
Answer:
The Non-Cooperation movement has been mentioned in the given source. Mahatma Gandhi called off the Non-Cooperation movement because he felt it was becoming very violent after the Chauri Chaura incident.

Caution:
Each movement was called off/on or relaunched for distinctive reasons and hence must be learned for students to be able to eliminate alternative options.

(B) Why were the leaders unhappy with the establishment of provincial councils by the Government of India act, 1919? (2)
Answer:
The leaders were very unhappy with the establishment of provincial councils by the Government of India act, 1919 because:

• Not enough power was given to Indian representatives through the reforms.
• Councils were not democratic in nature.

(C) Why did Gandhi feel that Satyagrahis lacked training? (1)
Answer:
Gandhi felt Satyagrahis lacked training because they were losing patience and turning violent thereby defeating the entire purpose of the movement

Related Theory:
Satyagrahis were told to be patient and not resort to violence in any case. They were encouraged to be self-reliant If they were resorting to violence, it meant they were not yet trained completely.

Question 12.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
We can understand the necessity of political parties by imagining a situation without parties. Every candidate in the elections will be independent. So no one will be able to make any promises to the people about any major policy changes. The government may be formed, but its utility will remain ever uncertain. Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency for what they do in the locality. But no one will be responsible for how the country will be run. We can also think about it by looking at the non-party based elections to the panchayat in many states. Although, the parties do not contest formally, it is generally noticed that the village gets split into more than one faction, each of which puts up a ‘panel’ of its candidates. This is exactly what the party does. That is the reason we find political parties in almost all countries of the world, whether these countries are big or small, old or new, developed or developing.
(A) Define the term “Independent Candidate”. (1)
Answer:
Independent candidates do not belong to any political party. They follow their own values and work for their own specific ideologies.

Caution:
Definitions should be extremely specific and precise.

(B) What do you think would be the situation of a political system without any political parties? (2)
Answer:
In a system without political parties, no public opinion on any political, social or economic issue would be formed. People would not be able to develop any awareness regarding democracy and rights. Independent Candidates would never be able to safeguard the interests of every community.

(C) Do you agree that a government formed of independent candidates will be unstable? (1)
Answer:
A government formed of independent candidates will definitely be unstable because there will be no cohesion between different leaders, their ideas and their methods of governing. Hence, it would be very temporary.

SECTION -E [1 × 3 = 3]
(Map Skill Based Questions)

Question 13.
(A) On the given outline Political Map of India, identify the place marked as A with the help of following information and write its correct name on the line marked near it.
(a) A session of the Indian National Congress was held here in September 1920. (1)
Answer:
Culcutta/Kolkata

(B) On the same given map of India, locate the following:
(a) Jamshedpur Iron and Steel Plant
OR
Kanpur Cotton Textile Industry (1)
(b) Raja Sansi Airport (1)

Answer:
(a) Jamshedpur Iron and Steel Plant
OR
Kanpur Cotton Textile Industry
(b) Raja Sansi Airport

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 3 with Solutions appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 4 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into five sections-Section A, B, C, D and E.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A: Question no. 1 to 5 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Section-B: Question no. 6 to 8 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section-C: Question no. 9 and 10 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• Section-D: Question no. 11 and 12 are Case Based questions.
• Section-E: Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 3 marks with two parts, 13.1 from History (1 mark) and 13.2 from Geography (2 marks).
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION-A [2 × 5 = 10]
(Very Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 1.
Differentiate between modern and ancient forms of currency based on their intrinsic values. (2)
Answer:
The modern form of currency doesn’t hove an intrinsic value while the ancient forms of currency do have an intrinsic value. Ancient currency was made of gold, silver or grains- which would still be valuable even when not authorised by the government. It could still be used for consumption or any other purpose if not as a medium of exchange. Modern currency is only paper and can’t be used for anything but as a medium of exchange.

Related Theory:
Modern currency does not have an intrinsic value of its own. It is just a paper that is authorised by the government to act as a medium of exchange. Ancient currency was valuable on its own without any authorisation from the government or the king.

Question 2.
What is meant by nationalisation? (2)
Answer:
Nationalisation is the complete transfer of a major branch of an industry or the whole group of industries or commerce from private businessmen to state/government ownership or control. Air transport in India was nationalised in 1953.

Related Theory:
Nationalisation of different industries and sectors take place to allow greater control to the state or the government.

Caution:
If the definition of a term is asked in a question, it is essential to mention the examples or at least mention the context in which the term is asked.

Question 3.
Over-regulation of political parties can be counterproductive. Do you agree? (2)
Answer:
Yes, over-regulation of political parties can make political parties feel suppressed. They will not be able to freely keep their point forward. This will defeat the point of creating them in the first place.

Related Theory:
Over regulation of political parties can deter the passion of the leaders to bring a change in the society of the country. This can prove counterproductive to their spirits.

Question 4.
Name one feature of the flag designed during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal. (2)
Answer:
It was a tricolour flag (red, green and yellow) and had eight lotuses representing eight provinces of British India, and a crescent moon, representing Hindus and Muslims.

Related Theory:
It is important for the students to distinctly understand and remember the features of the two different flags mentioned in the chapter.

Question 5.
Read the given data and answer the following questions.
In 2019 with 111 million tonnes of crude steel production, India ranked 2nd among the world crude steel producers. It is the largest producer of sponge iron. In 2019 per capita consumption of finished steel in the country was only around 74.3 kg per annum against the world average of 229.3 kg.
(A) Which country was the largest producer of Crude Steel in 2019? (1)
Answer:
China

(B) In 2019 per capita consumption of finished steel in the country was only around 74.3 kg per annum against the world average of 229.3 kg. Comment upon the growth of the manufacturing sector of India based on the given data. (1)
Answer:
The insufficient consumption of steel in the country shows that the manufacturing sector in the country has a stagnated growth. Production has not increased in recent years and manufacturing industries across the world are constructing and producing more goods than Indian industries.

Section-B [3 × 3 = 9]
(Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 6.
Why should credit be available at reasonable rates from the banks and cooperatives?
OR
How do people. participate in a market? Support your answer with three points. (3)
Answer:
Credit at reasonable interest rates should be available for all so that this loan may increase their incomes.

• High interest rates do not add to their incomes.
• They force the borrowers to spend all the profits earned by the loan in paying back interests.
• Credit at reasonable interest rates reduce the dependence of poor people on informal sources of credit.

OR
We participate in the market both as producers and consumers:

• As producers of goods and services, people are involved in sectors like agriculture, industry or services.
• As distributors of goods and services, we sell and distribute these final goods and services to people.
• As consumers we participate in the market when we purchase goods and services that we need and consume them.

Question 7.
Why was the Simon Commission instituted? Why were Indians against it? (3)
Answer:
The Simon Commission was instituted to review the working of the constitutional system set in place by the Government of India Act 1919 and suggest changes to bring efficiency. Indians were against the Simon commission because it had no Indian members even though it was about to review the working of the Indian constitutional system.

The absence of any Indian member showcased that the British were not serious about devolving any powers to the Indians.

Question 8.
Identify the reasons for the formation of multiple political parties in India. (3)
Answer:
There are multiple reasons for the formation of political parties:

• People are free to form political parties in a democracy like India.
• In a diverse country like India, there are multiple interests and no one political party has been able to address them all Hence new parties are formed to address interests of some community or the other.
• India has a large population. More and more people need representation everyday and hence political parties are formed for the same.

Section-C [5 × 2 = 10]
(Long Answer Type Questions)

Question 9.
Analyse how the Chauri Chaura incident affected the Non-Cooperation movement. Support your stand by giving a few points.
OR
Trace the evolution of the cotton textile industry in India. (5)
Answer:
Chauri Chaura incident occurred in 1922 in Gorakhpur, United Provinces (presently, Uttar Pradesh). A peaceful demonstration in a bazaar turned into a violent clash with the police where the protestors put the police station on fire thereby killing more than 10-15 policemen.

• The incident turned the movement extremely violent and hence Mahatma Gandhi called off the movement.
• Gandhi felt that the satyagrahis needed to be trained properly before launching any mass struggles.
• The Non-Cooperation movement suffered a huge setback because of this incident It lost support and disappointed the participants.

OR
The evolution of cotton textile industry in India can be traced as:

• In ancient India, cotton textiles were produced through charkhas, hand spinning and handloom weaving techniques. The handspun khadi provided employment to weavers in their homes as an indigenous cottage industry.
• Later, after the 18th century, power-looms came into use.
• During the colonial period, cotton based Indian products could not compete with the mill-made cloth from England and hence suffered a colossal setback.
• Today, the cotton textiles industry is very successful in our country and machines and advanced equipment support it
• We export yarn and cotton based products to Japan, U.S.A., U.IC, Russia, France, East European countries, Nepal Singapore, Sri Lanka and African countries.

Question 10 .
There is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world. Support the statement.
OR
Deposits with the banks are beneficial to the nation. Elaborate. (5 )
Answer:
There is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world. This is true because of the following reasons:

• A democratic government is people’s own government. It is chosen by them and removed by them. Its fate depends on the people.
• It promotes equality among citizens. It encourages them to fight for their liberty and be aware of various political issues and processes.
• It gives the people some room to improve mistakes. They can easily remove the government if they do not concur with their decisions.
• Democracy has the ability to generate its own support
• It gives people a fair chance to participate and influence the decision making processes.

OR
Deposits are extremely beneficial to the nation because:

• Deposits in the bank are a source of income for the government indirectly.
• They are a source of income for bank employees.
• The money deposited by the people in the banks are used to invest in huge infrastructural projects Like the construction of highways, railway stations, airports etc.
• Banks also use these deposits to lend money to farmers which in turn increase the production and economic activities of the farmers. This eradicates poverty.
• Banks also provide the depositors with interest thereby adding to their income and economic activities as well.

Related Theory:
The facility of cheques against demand deposits makes it possible to directly settle payments without the use of cash. Since demand deposits are accepted widely as a means of payment, along with currency, they constitute money in the modern economy.

Section – D [4 × 2 = 8]
(Case Based Questions)

Question 11.
Read the following sources and answer the questions that follow:
How could non-cooperation become a movement? Gandhiji proposed that the movement should unfold in stages, it should begin with the surrender of titles that the government awarded, and a boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils, schools, and foreign goods. Then, in case the government used repression, a full Civil Disobedience campaign would be launched.

Through the summer of 1920 Mahatma Gandhi and Shaukat Ali toured extensively, mobilising popular support for the movement. Many within the Congress were, however, concerned about the proposals. They were reluctant to boycott the council elections scheduled for November 1920, and they feared that the movement might lead to popular violence. In the months between September and December there was an intense tussle within the Congress.

For a while there seemed no meeting point between the supporters and the opponents of the movement. Finally, at the Congress session at Nagpur in December 1920, a compromise was worked out and the NonCooperation programme was adopted.
(A) How did Gandhi suggest that the Non-Cooperation movement unfold? (1)
Answer:
Gandhi suggested that the movement should unfold in stages with the first stage being about surrendering of the titles, latter stages can be about boycott of foreign goods and reliance on Indian alternatives.

(B) Which institutions were boycotted during the Non-Cooperation movement? (1)
Answer:
British institutions like civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils, schools were boycotted.

(C) How was the Non-Cooperation move¬ment received in the cities? (2)
Answer:
The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities and was received pretty well Students and citizens boycott all British led institutions. The movement fizzled out later during the beginning of 1922.

Question 12.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In India, roadways have preceded railways. They still have an edge over railways in view of the ease with which they can be built and maintained. The growing importance of road transport vis-a-vis rail transport is rooted in the following reasons; construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines, roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography, roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains such as the Himalayas, Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances, it also provides door-to-door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower, road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport such as they provide a link between railway stations, air and sea ports.ln India, roads are classified in the following six classes according to their capacity.
(A) Identify the mode of transport that can traverse high dissected terrain of mountainous regions like the Himalayas? (1)
Answer:
Roadways.
Explanation: Roadways can be easily built and maintained and can help in connecting the most dissected and undulating regions of the country to other parts of it They require less construction than railway tracks and pipelines.

Related Theory:
Pipelines are generally built in areas with plains and levelled lands

(B) Which features of Roadways make it the most popular form of transportation? (2)
Answer:
Roads are profitable for journey over shorter distances. Roads can traverse undulating topography.
Explanation: Roads negotiate higher gradients of slopes. Road transport is economical for transportation of few persons. Road transport is a feeder to other modes of transport.

(C) Mention two reforms which are required according to you to overcome the shortcomings of the roads found in India? (1)
Answer:
Some reforms required are:

1. Potholes are formed because of substandard material used by the contractors. There should be stricter regulation of raw materials before using them.
2. Unmetalled roads should be converted to metalled roads as fast as possible so as to make transportation easy for people coming from underdeveloped areas.

Caution:
To answer such questions, students need to recall the shortcomings of the road infrastructure found in India and then try to address them point by point.

Section-E [1 × 3 = 3]
(Map Skill Based Questions)

Question 13.
(A) On the given outline Political Map of India, identify the place marked as A with the help of following information and write its correct name on the line marked near it.
(a) Identify the place which is associated with calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement. (1)
(B) On the same given map of India, locate the following:
(a) New Mangalore Port
OR
Ramagundam Thermal Power Plant (1)
(b) Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant (1)

Answer:
(A) Chauri Chaura.
(B) (a) New Mangalore Port
OR
Ramagundam Thermal Power Plant
(b) Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 4 with Solutions appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 5 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into five sections-Section A, B, C, D and E.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A: Question no. 1 to 5 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Section-B: Question no. 6 to 8 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section-C: Question no. 9 and 10 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• Section-D: Question no. 11 and 12 are Case Based questions.
• Section-E: Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 3 marks with two parts, 13.1 from History (1 mark) and 13.2 from Geography (2 marks).
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION-A [2 × 5 = 10]
(Very Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 1.
Efficient means of transport is a prerequisite for fast development. What is the meaning of the given statement? (2)
Answer:
The given statement means that the pace of development of a country depends largely upon the movement of goods and services over space which is facilitated through transportation. Hence transportation is an extremely important pre-condition for development of a nation.

Related Theory:
Goods and services move from supply locales to demand locales through various forms of transportation.

Question 2.
How is transparency ensured in a democracy? (2)
Answer:
Democracy ensures that decision making is based on proper norms and procedures. These decisions are also displayed on public portals and government websites subject to the opinions of people. Hence, transparency is ensured.

Related Theory:
Transparency is essential for a democratic political system. It ensures the popularity of the government among the common citizens.

Question 3.
Why do MNCs set up production jointly with some of the local companies of these countries? (2)
Answer:
MNCs set up production with native companies to expand its market reach and customer base in the local market. Local companies have a huge indigenous market and customer base which the MNCs want to tap. This can only be possible either through collaboration or through acquiring these companies.

Related Theory:
MNCs want to widen their customer base and reach. To do this, they partner with local companies or buy their shares, doing which they get a say in their method of production.

Question 4.
Rich peasants supported the Civil disobedience movement initially. Mention one reason for their support. Why did they withdraw later? (2)
Answer:
The rich peasants supported the Civil disobedience movement to fight against high revenues which were collected by the British government. They were later disenchanted with the movement because it was called off suddenly by Gandhiji without achieving any goal.

Related Theory:
In the countryside, rich peasant communities – like the Patidars of Gujarat and the Jats of Uttar Pradesh were active in the movement. Being producers of commercial crops, they were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices. As their cash income disappeared, they found it impossible to pay the government’s revenue demand.

Question 5.
Study the data about political participation in India and answer the following questions.

(A) Interpret the trend of poLiticaL participation among Indian citizens ¡n the recent past. (1)
Answer:
The trend of political participation in India has been going stronger and upwards in the recent past. More and more people have been saying they feel closer to political parties than before according to the given table.

Related Theory:
Over the last three decades the proportion of those who report to be members of political parties in India has gone up steadily. The proportion of those who say they feel ‘close to a political party has also gone up in India in this period.

(B) If hypothetically, elections were held in oil the mentioned years, which year according to the given data ¡s most Likely to see the highest voter turnout In elections? (1)
Answer:
2004 is most likely to see the highest voter turnout because it had the highest people voting that they felt close to political parties.

Related Theory
Voter turnout is the percentage of people who actually vote in the elections out of those who are eligible to vote in them.

SECTION -B [3 × 3 = 9]
(Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 6.
Name a few regions which have extremely low densities of railway tracks? Explain the reasons behind the same. (3)
Answer:
Railway tracks are difficult to build in the following regions:

1. Mountains and hilly regions
2. Deserts
3. Swampy and marshy lands of forests.

The Railway network in the country has been largely influenced by physiographic, economic and administrative factors. Laying railway tracks is difficult in these regions because of high relief sparse population and lack of economic opportunities.

Question 7.
How do SEZs act as important tools of the government to attract foreign investment?
OR
Economic activities require loans or credit. Do you agree? (3)
Answer:
SEZs or Special Economic Zones can provide economies with relatively open enclaves characterized by considerably free imports and exports of goods and services without duties and trade barriers. They have simplified customs procedures, fewer impediments on foreign ownership, as well as world class residential, educational, communication and transportation-related infrastructure and access to electricity. These regions attract foreign investors because of all these facilities. Foreign companies want to establish their factories and units in this region.
OR
Economic activities require loans or credit essentially because:

• Credit helps borrowers like industrialists, builders and developers finish their incomplete production and infrastructural construction works. That adds to their revenue.
• Credit encourages middle class people to undertake economic activities which people are hesitant to do otherwise. For example, opening a new entrepreneurial venture, buying a house, etc.
• Credit increases people’s incomes and profits. It helps to increase the production of goods and services and adds employment opportunities.

Question 8.
Gandhi said Satyagraha was not a physical force. A satyagrahi did not inflict pain on the adversary. Elaborate on the concept of Satyagraha as advocated by Gandhi. (3)
Answer:
Gandhi was a firm believer of the power of truth. He believed that Satyagraha is a pure soul force because truth is the substance of the soul. Gandhi believed Satyagrahis would never seek vengeance and would win battles through Non-violence. Satyagrahis would persuade people to see the truth and not force them to accept it through violence. Satyagraha according to Gandhi was the weapon of the strong and not the weak.

SECTION – C [5 × 2 = 10]
(Long Answer Type Questions)

Question 9.
If you were the head of a bank, how would you make loans more beneficial for poor farmers and workers? Suggest any five measures.
OR
Water pollution caused by industries must not be overlooked. State how is water pollution caused and support the given statement. (5)
Answer:
Formal sector loans can be made beneficial for poor farmers and workers in the following ways:

• I would lay out guidelines to create greater awareness among farmers about formal sector loans through interactive sessions and door to door banking.
• I would see to it that the process of providing loans be made easier. It should be simple, fast and quick.
• I would make sure more branches are opened in rural sectors.
• I would make sure to expand the lending capacities of my bank to reduce the dependence of people on informal sources of credit
• I will also ensure that formal credit is distributed more equally so that the poor can benefit from cheaper loans.

OR
Water pollution is caused by organic and inorganic industrial wastes and effluents discharged into rivers. This must not be overlooked.

• Paper, pulp, chemical, textile and dyeing, petroleum refineries, tanneries and electroplating industries let out dyes, detergents, acids, salts in water bodies. This can cause exceptional harm to aquatic life.
• Chemicals which are disposed off in water bodies and later consumed by the stray animals consume can affect their digestive system fatally.
• Heavy metals like lead and mercury pesticides, fertilisers, synthetic chemicals with carbon, plastics and rubber, etc. settle into the water bodies and destroy the biodiversity of marine ecosystems.

Question 10.
Parties shape public opinion. Validate the statement.
OR
Indian leaders began to look into the past to discover India’s greatest achievements. Why was this done? Support your stand by giving 3 points. (5)
Answer:
Political parties shape public opinions in the following ways:

• Political parties highlight social and political issues by bringing them up in their agenda and political manifestos.
• Political parties organize rallies and demonstrations educating the citizens about various burning social and political issues in the process.
• Party members and leaders organize debates, interaction related activities and campaigns to understand the issues of people living all over the country.
• Pressure groups and Interest groups are also extensions of these political parties and their formation is another testament to the moulding of public opinion with respect to a certain issue.
• Opinions in the society crystallise on the lines parties take when they launch movements for various issues.

OR
Indian leaders began to look into the past to discover India’s greatest achievement because:

• Indian leaders wanted the citizens to be proud of their rich heritage.
• Leaders believed that if they could make the citizens understand that they were capable of ruling themselves on their own as an independent nation, British would no longer be able to rule them.
• The British government had portrayed otherwise and were justifying their atrocious administration on the fact that Indians were primitive and backward and that they required some civilising.
• Indian leaders began reviving the glorious past of India in order to expose the hypocrisy of the British government and the exploitation they had carried out during their rule.
• In doing so, they were able to borrow the motivation to fight and struggle for their independence from examples mentioned in legends, stories and folktales.

SECTION-D [4 × 2 = 8]
(Case Based Questions)

Question 11.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
How do we assess democracy’s outcomes? Over a hundred countries of the world today claim and practice some kind of democratic politics: they have formal constitutions, they hold elections, they have parties and they guarantee rights of citizens. While these features are common to most of them, these democracies are very much different from each other in terms of their social situations, their economic achievements and their cultures. Clearly, what may be achieved or not achieved under each of these democracies will be very different. But is there something that we can expect from every democracy, just because it is democracy?

Our interest in and fascination for democracy often pushes us into taking a position that democracy can address all socio-economic and political problems. If some of our expectations are not met, we start blaming the idea of democracy.
Or
we start doubting if we are living in a democracy. The first step towards thinking carefully about the outcomes of democracy is to recognise that democracy is just a form of government. It can only create conditions for achieving something. The citizens have to take advantage of those conditions and achieve those goals. Let us examine some of the things we can reasonably expect from democracy and examine the record of democracy.
(A) Democracy is just a form of government. What does the statement mean? (1)
Answer:
The given statement means that it can only create conditions for development and encourage the people to fight for the same. Hence democracy is not responsible for our socio-economic development. It is only responsible to create a conducive atmosphere for our development. Explanation: Democracy can only create conducive conditions for development of the society. It cannot develop the society unless the people really want to facilitate these conditions and achieve holistic growth.

Related Theory:
For all communities to grow, multiple factors like country’s economic activity, growth, trade relations, opportunities for development are involved.

(B) Mention any two features common to all democratic countries. (1)
Answer:
Two common features in all democracies are as follows:

1. They have formal constitutions.
2. They hold elections.

(C) Do you think democratic also countries differ from each other in some way? Validate your stand. (2)
Answer:
No two countries can be exactly the same in terms of administration, or their historical evolution. All the democratic countries across the world are also different from each other in terms of the following factors:

• Social situations
• Economic achievements and activities
• their Cultures
• their social make-up

Question 12.
Read the given source below and answer the questions that follow:
But the most common route for MNC investments is to buy up local companies and then to expand production. MNCs with huge wealth can quite easily do so. To take an example, Cargill Foods, a very large American MNC, has bought over smaller Indian companies such as Parakh Foods. Parakh Foods had built a large marketing network in various parts of India, where its brand was well-reputed. Also, Parakh Foods had four oil refineries, whose control has now shifted to Cargill. Cargill is now the largest producer of edible oil in India, with a capacity to make 5 million pouches daily!

In fact, many of the top MNCs have wealth exceeding the entire budgets of the developing country governments. With such enormous wealth, imagine the power and influence of these MNCs! There’s another way in which MNCs control production. Large MNCs in developed countries place orders for production with small producers. Garments, footwear, sports items are examples of industries where production is carried out by a large number of small producers around the world.
(A) Define investments. (1)
Answer:
The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipment is called investment. For example, Foreign companies invest in the shares of Reliance or Tata Companies every year.
Caution
Answers with definitions should always be supplemented by examples.

(B) What are some ways for MNCs to control the production of local companies? (1)
Answer:
There are a variety of ways in which the MNCs are spreading their production and interacting with local producer companies in various countries across the globe.

• by using the local companies for supplies
• by closely competing with the local companies or buying them MNCs are exerting a strong influence on production at these distant locations.

(C) Which factors did Cargill Foods keep in mind while collaborating with Parakh Foods? (2)
Answer:
These are the factors which Cargill Foods kept in mind while collaborating with Parakh foods

• Parakh foods has an amazing access to local markets and their local consumer base is strong.
• Parakh foods own refineries which means easy availability of raw material

SECTION -E [1 × 3 = 3]
(Map Skill Based Questions)

Question 13.
(A) On the given outline Political Map of India, identify the place marked as A with the help of following information and write its correct name on the line marked near it.
(a) Identify the place where a session of Indian National Congress was held in December 1920. (1)
Answer:
Nagpur

(B) On the same given map of India, locate the following:
(a) Singrauli Thermal Power Plant
OR
Meenambakam Airport (1)
(b) Hyderabad Software Technology Park (1)

Answer:
(a) Singrauli Thermal Power Plant
OR
Meenambakam Airport

(b) Hyderabad Software Technology Park

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 5 with Solutions appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 8 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 8 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into five sections-Section A, B, C, D and E.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A: Question no. 1 to 5 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Section-B: Question no. 6 to 8 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section-C: Question no. 9 and 10 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• Section-D: Question no. 11 and 12 are Case Based questions.
• Section-E: Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 3 marks with two parts, 13.1 from History (1 mark) and 13.2 from Geography (2 marks).
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION – A [2 × 5 = 10]
(Very Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 1.
For some transactions, there might not be any actual transfer of money taking place now but a promise to pay money later. What is such a situation called? (2)

Question 2.
This tunnel connects Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley throughout the year. Identify the tunnel. (2)

Question 3.
How can a political party ensure gender equality? (2)

Question 4.
Observe the given picture and answer the following questions.

(A) What value does the Charkha featured in the centre of the picture stand for? (1)
(B) Elaborate upon the program of Swadeshi used in multiple national movements. (1)

Question 5.
Why is weaving highly decentralised in India? (2)

Section-B [3 × 3 = 9]
(Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 6.
Rajesh is a government employee and owns a few lands in Rajipur whereas Rohit is a construction worker. Both of them want to take a loan. Create a list of arguments and explain who would be able to arrange money from a formal source successfully and why?
OR
Give a few examples of small manufacturers who have been hit hard due to competition? (3)

Question 7.
People belonging to different communities, regions or language groups developed a sense of collective belonging. Elaborate upon the essence of the given statement. (3)

Question 8.
Identify the reasons behind the formation of multiple political parties in India. (3)

Section – C [5 × 2 = 10]
(Long Answer Type Questions)

Question 9.
Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its economic prosperity. Validate the given statement.
OR
Why was the Salt March one of the most important events in the history of the Indian National movement? (5)

Question 10.
A temple in Odisha has separate entry doors for Dalits and non-Dalits. They do not allow Dalits to enter the temple before 12 in the morning. Following this, a huge demonstration was staged in front of the temple against the discrimination. If you were the head of a democratic government, how would you tackle the given debacle?
OR
“Foreign trade integrates the markets in different countries.” Support the statement. (5)

Section-D [4 × 2 = 8]
(Case Based Questions)

Question 11.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In recent years, people have tried out some newer ways of providing loans to the poor. The idea is to organise rural poor, in particular women, into small Self Help Groups (SHGs) and pool (collect) their savings. A typical SHG has 15-20 members, usually belonging to one neighbourhood, who meet and save regularly. Saving per member varies from Rs. 25 to Rs. 100 or more, depending on the ability of the people to save. Members can take small loans from the group itself to meet their needs. The group charges interest on these loans but this is still less than what the moneylender charges. After a year or two, if the group is regular in savings, it becomes eligible for availing loan from the bank. Loan is sanctioned in tl:B name of the group and is meant to create self employment Opportunities for the members.
(A) Describe any two advantages of ‘Self Help Groups’ for the poor. (1)
(B) How do Self-help groups create various employment oppsortunities for their members? (2)
(C) Classify Self help groups into formal or informal sources of credit. (1)

Question 12.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Goods and services do not move from supply locales to demand locales on their own. The movement of these goods and services from their supply locations to demand locations necessitates the need for transport. Some people are engaged in facilitating these movements. These are known to be traders who make the products come to the consumers by transportation. Thus, the pace of development of a country depends upon the production of goods and services as well as their movement over space. Therefore, efficient means of transport are prerequisites for fast development. Movement of these goods and services can be over three important domains of our earth i.e. land, water and air. Based on these, transport can also be classified into land, water and air transport expanded far and wide.

Today, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast moving transport. Transport has been able to achieve this with the help of equally developed communication systems.
Therefore, transport, communication and trade are complementary to each other.
(A) Do you think trade is important for a country? If yes, support your answer with an example. (1)
(B) If you were the head of the department of trade of the central government, what reforms would you make to facilitate easier trade? (2)
(C) What facilitates the movement of goods and services from one place to another? (1)

Section – E [1 × 3 = 3]
(Map Skill Based Questions)

Question 13.
(A) On the given outline Political Map of India, identify the place marked as A with the help of following information and write its correct name on the line marked near it.
(a) Identify the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in December 1920. (1)
(B) On the same given map of India, locate the following:
(a) Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant
OR
Bengaluru Software Technology Park (1)
(b) Rajiv Gandhi Airport (1)

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 8 for Practice appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 7 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 7 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into five sections-Section A, B, C, D and E.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A: Question no. 1 to 5 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Section-B: Question no. 6 to 8 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section-C: Question no. 9 and 10 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• Section-D: Question no. 11 and 12 are Case Based questions.
• Section-E: Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 3 marks with two parts, 13.1 from History (1 mark) and 13.2 from Geography (2 marks).
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION-A [2 × 5 = 10]
(Very Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 1.
Mahatma Gandhi said that this feature of the British government revealed its most do oppressive face. Identify this feature. (2)

Question 2.
Define the term agglomeration economy. (2)

Question 3.
Parties do not keep membership registers, do hold organisational meetings, and do not conduct intemal elections regularly. Identify this challenge to political parties. (2)

Question 4.
Read the following data.
Effect Of Globalization on….
Percentage Saying “Better” of “Worse”
Average of 25 Countries Surveyed, (n = 25,000)

In terms of survey on the effects of Globalisation in various sectors on 25 countries, these were the results. Answer the following questions.
(A) Which sector has been affected by Globalisation in a negative way the most? (1)
(B) Which sector has been affected by Globalisation equally in a positive and negative manner? (1)

Question 5.
How do Non-democratic regimes react to social differences? (2)

SECTION -B [3 × 3 = 9]
(Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 6.
The first image of Bharat Mata created in the twentieth century. Enlist some of its features. (3)

Question 7.
Is the WTO responsible for smoothening the process of foreign trade across various countries? Has it been successful in doing so?
OR
The RBI sees that the banks give Loans not just to profit-making businesses and traders but also to small cultivators, small scale industries, to small borrowers etc. What are the other functions of the RBI? (3)

Question 8.
How can we increase transparency in a democracy? (3)

SECTION – C [5 × 2 = 10]
(Long Answer Type Questions)

Question 9.
What is the function of Election Commission mention a few reforms suggested by the Election Commission to change the nature of Indian politics.
OR
Analyse the reception of the Non¬Cooperation movement by middle classes in cities and towns. (5)

Question 10.
India has inland navigation waterways of 14,500 km in length. Mention in detail at least five national waterways.
OR
Critically analyse the impact of rising competition on native markets and producers. (5)

SECTION-D [4 × 2 = 8]
(Case Based Questions)

Question 11.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Why is it so? Banks are not present everywhere in rural India. Even when they are present, getting a loan from a bank is much more difficult than taking a loan from informal sources. As we saw for Megha, bank loans require proper documents and collateral. Absence of collateral is one of the major reasons which prevents the poor from getting bank loans. Informal lenders such as moneylenders, on the other hand, know the borrowers personally and hence are often willing to give a loan without collateral. The borrowers can, if necessary, approach the moneylenders even without repaying, their earlier loans. However, the moneylenders charge very high rates of interest, keep no records of the transactions and harass the poor borrowers. In recent years, people have tried out some newer ways of providing loans to the poor.
(A) Why are moneylenders willing to lend without collateral? (1)
(B) How is a bank able to lend money to people? (2)
(C) What types of borrowers are ideal borrowers for banks? (1)

Question 12.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Industrial locations are complex in nature. These are influenced by availability of raw material, labour, capital, power, and market, etc. It is rarely possible to find all these factors available at one place. Consequently, manufacturing activity tends to locate at the most appropriate place where all the factors of industrial location are either available or can be arranged at lower cost. After industrial activity starts, urbanisation follows. Sometimes, industries are located in or near the cities. Thus, industrialization and urbanization go hand in hand. Cities provide markets and also provide services such as banking, insurance, transport, labour, consultants and financial advice, etc to the industry. Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres known as agglomeration economies. Gradually, a large industrial agglomeration takes place.
(A) Where were most of the pre-independence industrial units situated? (1)
(B) How does a factory owner ensure the least cost of production? (1)
(C) Name four factors of production. (2)

SECTION -E [1 × 3 = 3]
(Map Skill Based Questions)

Question 13.
(A) On the given outLine Political Map of India, identify the pLace marked as A with the help of following information and write its correct name on the Line marked near it.
(a) Identify the place associated with calling off the Non-Cooperation Movement. (1)
(B) On the same given map of India, locote the following:
(a) Paradip Port
OR
Gandhinagar Software Technology Park
(b) Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 7 for Practice appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science with Solutions and marking scheme Term 2 Set 6 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 6 for Practice

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

• This Question paper is divided into five sections-Section A, B, C, D and E.
• All questions are compulsory.
• Section-A: Question no. 1 to 5 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
• Section-B: Question no. 6 to 8 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.
• Section-C: Question no. 9 and 10 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.
• Section-D: Question no. 11 and 12 are Case Based questions.
• Section-E: Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 3 marks with two parts, 13.1 from History (1 mark) and 13.2 from Geography (2 marks).
• There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
• In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION – A [2 × 5 = 10]
(Very Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 1.
Where and why did the famous Jallianwala bagh incident occur? (2)

Question 2.
Which goods were exported by colonies like India during the nineteenth and twentieth century? (2)

Question 3.
Observe the political symbol and answer the following questions.

(A) Identify the political party that uses this symbol to contest elections. (1)
(B) Who allots symbols to political parties? (1)

Question 4.
Railways in India bind the economic life of the country. Validate the statement. (2)

Question 5.
Do demand deposits constitute money in modern times? (2)

Section-B [3 × 3 = 9]
(Short Answer Type Questions)

Question 6.
Do you think democracy and economic development are interrelated? Validate your stand. (3)

Question 7.
Satyagraha was introduced by Gandhi after he came from South Africa as a novel method of mass agitation. Mention and explain three Satyagraha movements organised by Gandhi. (3)

Question 8.
There is a vast potential for development of tourism in all parts of the country. Validate the given statement.
OR
Most Jute mills are located in Bengal. Do you agree? Support your stand by giving three points. (3)

Section – C
(Long Answer Type Questions)

Question 9.
How did the rich peasant communities feel about the Civil Disobedience movement?
OR
The first challenge is the lack of internal democracy within parties. Elaborate upon the given statement. (5)

Question 10.
What are the sources of Informal Loans? Should there be a regulator for informal credit lenders? Will that solve the problem of debt traps? Elaborate your stand.
OR
The growing importance of road transport vis-a-vis rail transport is rooted in multiple factors or reasons. Enlist these reasons. (5 )

Section-D [4 × 2 = 8]
(Case Based Questions)

Question 11.
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
In recent years, the central and state governments in India are taking special steps to attract foreign companies to invest in India. Industrial zones, called Special Economic Zones (SEZs), are being set up. SEZs are to have world class facilities: electricity, water, roads, transport, storage, recreational and educational facilities. Companies who set up production units in the SEZs do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years. Government has also allowed flexibility in the labour laws to attract foreign investment. You have seen that the companies in the organised sector have to obey certain rules that aim to protect the workers’ rights. In recent years, the government has allowed companies to ignore many of these. Instead of hiring workers on a regular basis, companies hire workers “flexibly’ for short periods when there is intense pressure at work. This is done to reduce the cost of labour for the company. However, still not satisfied, foreign companies are demanding more flexibility in labour laws.
(A) Companies in the organised sector have to obey certain rules that aim to protect the workers’ rights. Name two such rules. (2)
(B) Do you think the kind of industrial development based on loose labour laws is sustainable? (1)
(C) Give one word to replace the bold phrase. (1)

Question 12.
Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:
As the movement spread, foreign cloth was boycotted, and liquor shops were picketed. Peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes, village officials resigned, and in many places forest people violated forest laws – going into Reserved Forests to collect wood and graze cattle. Worried by the developments, the colonial government began arresting the Congress leaders one by one. This led to violent clashes in many places. When Abdul Ghaffar Khan, a devout disciple of Mahatma Gandhi, was arrested in April 1930, angry crowds demonstrated in the streets of Peshawar, facing armoured cars and police firing. Many were killed. A month later, when Mahatma Gandhi himself was arrested, industrial workers in Sholapur attacked police posts, municipal buildings, law courts and railway stations – ail structures that symbolised British rule. A frightened government responded with a policy of brutal repression. Peaceful satyagrahis were attacked, women and children were beaten, and about 100,000 people were arrested.
(A) Mention a few programmes which were undertaken in the Civil Disobedience movement. (1)
(B) Why was the civil disobedience movement relaunched? (2)
(C) How did people react to the arrest of Mahatma Gandhi? (1)

Section-E [1 × 3 = 3]
(Map Skill Based Questions)

Question 13.
(A) On the given outline Political Map of India, identify the place marked as A with the help of following information and write its correct name on the line marked near it.
(a) Identify a place in Gujarat where satyagraha movement for cotton mill workers was held. (1)
(B) On the same given map of India, locate the following:
(a) Haldia Port
OR
Mumbai Software Technology Park (1)
(b) Bokaro Iron and Steel Plant (1)

The post CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Term 2 Set 6 for Practice appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Students can access the CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard with Solutions and marking scheme Set 1 will help students in understanding the difficulty level of the exam.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Maths Standard Term 2 Set 1 with Solutions

Time Allowed: 2 Hours
Maximum Marks: 40

General Instructions:

1. The question paper consists of 14 questions divided into 3 sections A, B, C.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section A comprises of 6 questions of 2 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in two questions.
4. Section B comprises of 4 questions of 3 marks each. Internal choice has been provided in one question.
5. Section C comprises of 4 questions of 4 marks each. An internal choice has been provided in one question. It contains two case study based questions

Section – A

Question 1.
Find the value of a₂₅ – a₁₅ for the AP: 6, 9, 12, 15, ………………………..
OR
If 7 times the seventh term of the AP is equal to 5 times the fifth term, then find the value of its 12^th term. (2)
Answer:
a = 6, d = 3 ;
a₂₅ = 6 + 24(3) = 78
a₁₅ = 6 + 14(3) = 48 ;
a₂₅ – a₁₅ = 78 – 48 = 30
Given A.P. is 6, 9, 12, 15 …..
a = 6, d = 9 – 6 = 3
Now, a₂₅ – a₁₅ = (a + 24d) – (a + 14d)
= 10d
= 10 x 3 = 30
OR
7(a + 6d) = 5 (a + 4 d)
⇒ 2a+ 22=0
⇒ a + lid = 0
⇒ t₁₂ = 0
Let a and d be the first term and the common difference of the A.P., respectively.

Now, 7 a₇ = 5a₅
7(a + 6d) = 5 (a + 4 d)
7a + 42d = 5a + 20d
2a = -22d
a = -11d ………………………………… (i)
a₁₂ = o + 11d
= -11d + 11d [From (i)]
= 0
Hence, the 12^th term of the A.P. is zero.

Question 2.
Find the value of m so that the quadratic equation mx (5x – 6) + 9 = 0 has two equal roots. (2)
Answer:
5mx² – 6mx + 9=0
b² – 4ac = 0
⇒ (-6m)² – 4(5m)(9) = 0
⇒ 36m(m – 5) = 0
⇒ m = 0, 5 ;
Rejecting m = 0
we get m = 5
Given quadratic equation is:
mx (5x – 6) + 9 =0
⇒ 5 mx² – 6 mx + 9 = 0
Since, the equation has equal roots,
∴ Discriminant = 0
⇒ b² – 4ac = 0
Here, a = 5m, b = -6m, c = 9
∴ (- 6m)² – 4 x 5m x 9 = 0
⇒ 36m² – 180m = 0
⇒ 36m(m – 5) = 0
⇒ m = 0, 5
But, m ≠ 0, as it does not satisfy the given equation.
∴ m = 5
Hence, the value of m is 5.

► Caution
The standard form of a quadratic equation is ax² + bx + c = 0, a ≠ 0.

Question 3.
From a point P, two tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle C(0, r). If OP = 2r, then find ∠APB. What type of triangle is APB? (2)

Answer:

Since, tangents are equally inclined to the line, joining the centre of the circle to their common external point.

Also, in ΔAPB,
AP = PB [∵ Tangents drawn from an external point are equal]
⇒ ∠ABP = ∠PAB = x° (say)
[Equal angles opposite to equal sides]

∴ ΔAPB is an equilateral triangle.

Question 4.
The curved surface area of a right circular cone is 12320 cm2. If the radius of its base is 56 cm, then find its height. (2)
Answer:

Given:
CSA of cone = 1232 cm² and radius (r) = 56 cm Let height of the cone be h cm.

We know,

Hence, height of the cone is 42 cm.

Question 5.
Mrs. Garg recorded the marks obtained by her students in the following table. She calculated the modal marks of the students of the class as 45. While printing the data, a blank was left. Find the missing frequency in the table given below. (2)

Answer:

Given: Modal marks = 45
∴ Modal class = 40 – 60
Let the missing frequency be x.

Hence, the value of missing frequency is 12.

Question 6.
If Ritu were younger by 5 years than what she really is, then the square of her age would have been 11 more than five times her present age. What is her present age?
OR
Solve for x: 9x² – 6px + (p² – q²) = 0 (2)
Answer:
Let the present age of Ritu be x years.
(x – 5)² = 5x + 11
x² – 15x + 14 = 0
(x – 14) (x – 1) = 0
x = 1 or 14
x = 14 years
(rejecting x = 1 as in that case Ritu’s age 5 years ago will be – ve)
Let, the present age of Ritu be x years.
Then, according to the question
(x – 5)² = 11 + 5x
⇒ x²– 10x+ 25 = 11 + 5x
⇒ x² – 15x + 14 = 0
⇒ x² – 14x – x + 14 = 0
⇒ x(x – 14) – 1 (x – 14) = 0
⇒ (x – 1) (x – 14) = 0
⇒ x = 1, 14
But x = 1 is not possible, as in this case, (x – 5) will be negative.
∴ x = 14
Hence, the present age of Ritu is 14 years.
OR

Given:
9x² – 6px + (p² – q²) = 0
Using quadratic formula, we have

Section – B

Question 7.
Following is the distribution of the long jump competition in which 250 students participated. Find the median distance jumped by the students. Interpret the median. (3)

Answer:

50% of students jumped below \(2 \frac{5}{62}\) m and 50% above it.

Here, \(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{2}=125\)

And, cumulative frequency just greater than 125 is 182, which belongs to class 2 – 3.
∴ Median ctass = 2 – 3
We know,

Hence, the median distance jumped by the students is 2.08 m.

Interpretation: HaLf of the students jumped above 2.08 m.

→ Caution
Remember cf is cumulative frequency of the class, preceding the median class and f is frequency of median class

Question 8.
Construct a pair of tangents to a circLe of radius 4 cm, which are inclined to each other at an angLe of 600. (3)
Answer:
Draw a circLe of radius 4 cm.
Draw OA and construct ∠AOB = 120°
Draw ∠OAP = ∠OBP = 90°
PA and PB ore required tangents

Steps of construction:

• Draw a circle with centre O and radius 4 cm.
• Take any point A on the circumference of the circLe and join CA.
• At point O, construct rAOB = 120e, such that the angle ray OB touches the circLe at point B.
• At points A and B, construct ∠OAX = 900 and ∠OBY = 900. Let rays AX and BY intersect each other at point P.

Thus, PA and PB are the required tangents to the circle which are inclined to each other at an angle of 60°.

→ Concept Applied
In quadrilateral OAPB,
∠OBP = ∠OAP = 90°
[∵ Tangent ⊥ Radius]

Also,
∠AOB + ∠OAP + ∠OBP + ∠APB = 360°
⇒ ∠AOB + 90°+ 90° + ∠APB =360°
⇒ ∠AOB + ∠APB = 1800
∵ ∠APB = 60° [Given]
∴ ∠AOB = 180° – 60°
= 120°
Hence, we constructed an angle of 120° at the centre of the circle.

Question 9.
The distribution given below shows the runs scored by batsmen in one-day cricket matches. Find the mean number of runs. (3)

Answer:

Hence, the mean number of runs is 110.67.

Question 10.
Two vertical poles of different heights are standing 20 m away from each other on the level ground. The angle of elevation of the top of the first pole from the foot of the second pole is 60° and angle of elevation of the top of the second pole from the foot of the first pole is 30°. Find the difference between the heights of two poles. (Take \(\sqrt{3}\) = 1-73)
OR
A boy 1.7 m tall is standing on a horizontal ground, 50 m away from a building. The angle of elevation of the top of the building from his eye is 60°. Calculate the height of the building. (Take \(latex\) = 1-73) (3)
Answer:

Let AB and CD be the two poles with AB > CD.
∴ ∠ADB 60°, ∠CBD = 30° and BD = 20 m

OR

Let AB be the boy and PQ be the building.

Section – C

Question 11.
The internet and externaL radii of a spherical shell are 3 cm and 5 cm respectively. It is melted and recast into a solid cylinder of diameter 14 cm, find the height of the cyLinder. Also find the total surface area of the cylinder. (Take π = \(\frac{22}{7}\)) (4)
Answer:
Volume of shell = Volume of cylinder

TSA of cylinder is:

For a sphericaL shelL:
Internal radius (r₁) = 3 cm
External radius (r₂) = 5 cm
For a solig cyLinder:
Diameter = 14 cm
∴ Radius (R) = 14/2 cm = 7cm
Let height of the cylinder be H cm.
Since, spherical shell is recast into a solid cylinder
∴ Volume of shell = Volume of cylinder

→ Concept Applied
When a solid is converted from one shape to another its volume remain same.

Question 12.
Prove that the angle between the two tangents drawn from an externat point to a circle is supplementary to the angLe subtended by the Line segment joining the points of contact to the centre.
OR
Two tangents W and TQ are drawn to a circLe with centre O from an externaL point T. Prove that ∠PTQ = 2∠OPQ. (4)

Answer:

Given:
A circle with centre O at which tangents PA and PB are drawn from an externat point P.

To prove: ∠APB = 180° – ∠AOB
or, ∠APB + ∠AOB = 180°
Proof: We know, tangent is perpendicular to radius at the point of contact.
∴ AP ⊥ OA, PB ⊥ OB
⇒ ∠OAP = 90°, ∠OBP = 90°
Now, in quadrilateral OAPB,
∠AOB + ∠OBP + ∠APB + ∠OAP = 360°
⇒ ∠AOB + 90° + ∠APB + 90° = 360°
⇒ ∠AOB + ∠APB = 360° – 180° = 180°
∴ ∠APB + ∠AOB = 180°
Hence, proved
OR


Given:
Tangents TP and TQ are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point T.

To prove: ∠PTQ = 2∠OPQ
Proof: We have,
∠OPT = 90°
[∵ Tangent Z Radius]
⇒ ∠OPQ + ∠TPQ = 90°
⇒ ∠OPQ = 90° – ∠TPQ …………………………….(i)
Now, we know, tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal in length. So, in ΔTPQ,
TP =TQ
⇒ ∠TQP = ∠TPQ
[Equal angles opposite to equal sides]
∴ ∠PTQ = 180° – ∠TQP – ∠TPQ
= 180° – 2∠TPQ = 2(90° – ∠TPQ)
⇒ ∠PTQ = 2(∠OPQ) [From (i)]
Hence, proved.

Question 13.
Case Study-1
Trigonometry in the form of triangulation forms the basis of navigation, whether it is by land, sea or air. GPS a radio navigation system helps to locate our position on earth with the help of satellites.

A guard, stationed at the top of a 240 m tower, observed an unidentified boat coming towards it. A clinometer or inclinometer is an instrument used for measuring angles or slopes(tilt). The guard used the clinometer to measure the angle of depression of the boat coming towards the lighthouse and found it to be 30°.

(Lighthouse of Mumbai Harbour. Picture credits – Times of India Travel)

(A) Make a labeled figure on the basis of the given information and calculate the distance of the boat from the foot of the observation tower. (2)

(B) After 10 minutes, the guard observed that the boat was approaching the tower and its distance from tower is reduced by 240(\(\sqrt{3}\) – 1)m. He immediately raised the alarm. What was the new angle of depression of the boat from the top of the observation tower? (2)
Answer:
(A)

Let PQ be the 240 m high tower and B be the position of boat.


Hence, distance of the boat from the foot of observation tower is 240\(\sqrt{3}\)m.

(B) Distance of boat from tower
= 240\(\sqrt{3}\) – 240(\(\sqrt{3}\) – 1)
= 240 m
Let the angle of depression = θ
\(\begin{aligned}
\tan \theta &=\frac{240}{240}=1 \\
\Rightarrow \quad \theta &=45^{\circ}
\end{aligned}\)
Let B be the position of boat after 10 minutes.

Let θ be the new angle of depression of boat from the top of tower PQ.

Hence, the new angLe of depression of boat from the top of the tower is 45°.

Question 14.
Case Study-2
Push-ups are a fast and effective exercise for building strength. These are helpful in almost all sports including athletics. While the push¬up primarily targets the muscles of the chest, arms, and shoulders, support required from other muscles helps in toning up the whole body.

Nitesh wants to participate in the push-up challenge. He can currently make 3000 push-ups in one hour. But he wants to achieve a target of3900 push-ups in 1 hour for which he practices regularly. With each day of practice, he is able to make 5 more push-ups in one hour as compared to the previous day. If on first day of practice he makes 3000 push-ups and continues to practice regularly till his target is achieved. Keeping the above situation in mind answer the following questions:

(A) Form an A.P representing the number of push-ups per day and hence find the minimum number of days he needs to practice before the day his goal is accomplished?
(B) Find the total number of push-ups performed by Nitesh up to the day his goal is achieved. (2)
Answer:
(A) 3000, 3005, 3010, …., 3900.
a_n = a + (n – 1 )d
3900 = 3900 + (n – 1)5
⇒ 900 = 5n – 5
⇒ 5 n = 905
⇒ n – 181
Minimum number of days of practice
= n – 1
= 180 days

Since, Nitesh makes 3000 push-ups on day one, and then increases 5 push-ups each successive day, so the A.P. is 3000, 3000 + 5, 3000 + 2(5), …i.e., 3000, 3005, 3010, 3015, ….

Now, we have
3000, 3005, 3010, 3015, ….. 3900
Here, a = 3000, d = 5, l = 3900
Let Nitesh took n days to make 3900 push-ups in one hour.
l = a + (n – 1)d
⇒ 3900 = 3000 + (n – 1) x 5
⇒ 900 = (n – 1) x 5
⇒ n – 1 = 180
⇒ n = 181
So, required minimum number of days
= n – 1 = 180

(B) \(S_{n}=\frac{n}{2}(a+l)\)
= \(\frac{181}{2}\) x (3000 + 3900)
= 624450 push-ups

From part (A), we have
a = 3000, l = 3900, n = 181

Hence, the total number of push-ups performed by Nitesh up to the day, his goaL is achieved, is 6,24,450.

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