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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. It is said that elemental composition of living organisms and that of inanimate objects (like earth’s crust) are similar in the sense that all the major elements are present in both. Then what would be the difference between these two . groups? Choose a correct answer from the following.
(a) Living organisms have more gold in them than inanimate objects
(b) Living organisms have more water in their body than inanimate objects
(c) Living organisms have more carbon, oxygen and hydrogen per unit mass than inanimate objects
(d) Living organisms have more calcium in them than inanimate objects.
Ans: (c)

Element % Weight of
Earth’s Crust Human Body
Hydrogen (H) 0.14 0.5
Carbon (C) 0.03 18.5
Oxygen(0) 46.6 65.0
Nitrogen (N) very little 3.3
Sulphur (S) 0.03 0.3
Sodium (Na) 2.8 0.2
Calcium (Ca) 3.6 1.5
Magnesium (Mg) 2.1 0.1
Silicon (Si) 27.7 negligible

Q2. Many elements are found in living organisms either free or in the form of compounds. One of the following is not found in living organisms.
(a) Silicon (b) Magnesium (c) Iron (d) Sodium
Ans: (a) See Answer 2.
Q3. Aminoacids, as the name suggests, have both an amino group and a carboxyl group in their structure. In addition, all naturally occurring aminoacids (those which are found in proteins) are called L-aminoacids. From this, can you guess from which compound can the simplest aminoacid be made?
(a) Formic acid (b) Methane (c) Phenol acid (d) Glycine
Ans: (d) Glycine is an amino acid (which have both an amino group and a carboxyl group in their structure).
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules Img 1

Q4. Many organic substances are negatively charged, e.g., acetic acid, while others are positively charged e.g., ammonium ion. An aminoacid under certain conditions would have both positive and negative charges simultaneously in the same molecule. Such a form of aminoacid is called
(a) Positively charged form (b) Negatively charged form
(c) Neutral form (d) Zwitterionic form
Ans: (d) In aqueous solution, the carboxyl group can lose a proton and amino group can accept a proton, giving rise to a dipolar ion called Zwitter ion. Zwitter ion is neutral but contains both positive and negative charges.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules Img 2

Q5. Sugars are technically called carbohydrates, referring to the fact that their formulae are only multiple of C(H20). Hexoses therefore have six carbons, twelve hydrogens and six oxygen atoms. Glucose is a hexose. Choose from among the following another hexose.
(a) Fructose (b) Erythrose ~(c) Ribulose (d) Ribose
Ans: (a) Sugars are technically called carbohydrates, referring to the fact that their formulae are only multiple of C(H20). Hexoses therefore have six carbons, twelve hydrogens and six oxygen atoms. E.g., glucose and fructose.

Q6. When you take cells or tissue pieces and grind them with an acid in a mortar and pestle, all the small biomolecules dissolve in the acid. Proteins polysaccharides and nucleic acids are insoluble in mineral acid and get precipitated. The acid soluble compounds include amino acids, nucleosides, small sugars etc. When one adds a phosphate group to a nucleoside one gets another acid soluble biomolecule called
(a) Nitrogen base
(b) Adenine
(c) Sugar phosphate
(d) Nucleotide
Ans: (d) Neucliotide = base + sugar + phosphate

Q7. When we homogenise any tissue in an acid, the acid soluble pool represents
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Cell membrane
(c) Nucleus (d) Mitochondria
Ans: (a) When we homogenise any tissue in an acid, the acid soluble pool represents cytoplasm.

Q8. The most abundant chemical in living organisms could be
(a) Protein (b) Water (c) Sugar (d) Nucleic acid
Ans: (b) Most abundant component of cell is water.

Component % of the total Cellular Mass
Water 70-90
Proteins 10-15
Nucleic acids 5-7
Carbohydrates 3
Lipids 2
Ions 1

 

Q9. A homopolymer has only one type of building block called monomer repeated V number of times. A heteropolymer has more than one type of monomer. Proteins are heteropolymers usually made of aminoacids. While a nucleic acid like DNA or RNA is made up of only 4 types of nucleotide monomers, proteins are made of
(a) 20 types of monomers (b) 40 types of monomers
(c) 30 types of monomers (d) only one type of monomer
Ans: (a) A homopolymer has only one type of building block called monomer repeated V number of times. A heteropolymer has more than one type of monomer. Proteins are heteropolymers usually made of amino acids. While a nucleic acid like DNA or RNA is made of of only 4 types of nucleotide monomers, proteins are made of 20 types of monomers.

Q10. Proteins perform many physiological functions. For example, some proteins function as enzymes. One of the following represents an additional function that some proteins discharge
(a) Antibiotics
(b) Pigment conferring colour to skin
(c) Pigment making colours of flowers
(d) Hormones
Ans: (d) Proteins perform many physiological functions. For example, some proteins function as enzymes. Hormones represents an additional function that some proteins discharge (like insulin).

Q11. Glycogen is a homopolymer made of
(a) Glucose units (b) Galactose units
(c) Ribose units (d) Amino acids
Ans: (a) Glycogen is a homopolymer made of glucose units.

Q12. The number of ‘ends’ in a glycogen molecule would be
(a) Equal to the number of branches plus one
(b) Equal to the number of branch points
(c) One ‘
(d) Two, one on the left side and another on the right side
Ans: (d) In a polysaccharide chain (say glycogen), the right end is called the reducing end and the left end is called the non-reducing end.

Q13. The primary structure of a protein molecule has
(a) Two ends (b) One end (c) Three ends (d) No ends
Ans: (a) The primary structure of a protein molecule has two ends.
A protein is imagined as a line, the left end represented by the first amino acid and the right end is represented by the last amino acid. The first amino acid is also called as N-terminal amino acid. The last amino acid is called the C-terminal amino acid.

Q14. Enzymes are biocatalysts. They catalyse biochemical reactions. In general they reduce activation energy of reactions. Many physico-chemical processes are enzyme mediated.’ Some examples of enzyme mediated reactions are given below. Tick the wrong entry.
(a) Dissolving C02 in water
(b) Unwinding the two strands of DNA .
(c) Hydrolysis of sucrose
(d) Formation of peptide bond
Ans: (a) Dissolving C02 in water is a physical process.

Very Short Answer Type Questions
Q1. Medicines are either man made (i.e., synthetic) or obtained from living organisms like plants, bacteria, animals etc. and hence the latter are called natural products. Sometimes natural products are chemically altered by man to reduce toxicity or side effects. Write against each of the following whether they were initially obtained as a natural product or as a synthetic chemical.
a. Penicillin
b. Sulfonamide
c. Vitamin C
d. Growth Hormone
Ans: a. Penicillin: Natural product
b. Sulfonamide: Synthetic chemical
c. Vitamin C: Natural product
d. Growth Hormone: Natural product

Q2. Select an appropriate chemical bond among ester bond, glycosidic bond, peptide bond and hydrogen bond and write against each of the following.
a. Polysaccharide
b. Protein
c. Fat
d. Water
Ans: a. Polysaccharide: Glycosidic bond
b. Protein: Peptide bond
c. Fat: Ester bond
d. Water: Hydrogen bond

Q3. Write the name of any one aminoacid, sugar, nucleotide and fatty acid.
Ans: Glycine (amino acid), Ribose (sugar), Cytidylic acid (nucleotide) and
Arachidonic acid (fatty acid).

Q4. Reaction given below is catalysed by oxidoreductase between two substrates A and A’, complete the reaction. A reduced + A‘ oxidised -»
Ans: A reduced + A’ oxidised —»A oxidised + A’ reduced

Q5. How are prosthetic groups different from co-factors?
Ans: Prosthetic groups are organic compounds and are distinguished from other cofactors in that they are tightly bound to the apoenzyme. For example, in peroxidase and catalase, which catalyze the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen, haem is the prosthetic group and it is a part of the active site of the enzyme.
Cofactor may be organic or inorganic (metal ions).

Q6. Glycine and Alanine are different with respect to one substituent on the a-carbon. What are the other common substituent groups?
Ans: The R-group in these proteinaceous amino acids could be a hydrogen (the amino acid is called glycine), a methyl group (alanine), hydroxy methyl (serine), etc.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules Img 3

 

Q7. Starch, Cellulose, Glycogen, Chitin are polysaccharides found among the following. Choose the one appropriate and write against each.
Cotton fibre __________
Exoskeleton of Cockroach __________
Liver __________
Peeled potato __________
Ans: Cotton fibre : Cellulose
Exoskeleton of Cockroach : Chitin
Liver: Glycogen
Peeled potato: Starch

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules Img 4

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Q4. Nucleic acids exhibit secondary structure, justify with example.
Ans: Nucleic acids exhibit a wide variety of secondary structures. For example, one of the secondary structures exhibited by DNA is the famous Watson—Crick model. This model says that DNA exists as a double helix. The two strands of polynucleotides are antiparallel, i.e. run in the opposite direction. The backbone is formed by the sugar-phosphate-sugar chain. The nitrogen bases are projected more or less perpendicular to this backbone but face inside. A and G of one strand compulsorily base pairs with T and C, respectively, on the other strand. There are two hydrogen bonds between A and T and three hydrogen bonds between G and C. Each strand appears like a helical staircase. Each step of ascent is represented by a pair of bases. At each step of ascent, the strand turns 36°. One full turn of the helical strand would involve ten steps or ten base pairs. Attempt drawing a line diagram. The pitch would be 34 A. The rise per base pair would be 3.4 A. This form of DNA with the above mentioned salient features is called B-DNA.

Q5. Comment on the statement “living state is a non-equilibrium steady state to be able to perform work”.
Ans: The most important fact of biological systems is that all living organisms exist in a steady-state characterised by concentrations of each of these biomolecules. These biomolecules are in a metabolic flux. Any chemical or physical process moves spontaneously to equilibrium. The steady state is a non-equilibrium state. One should remember from physics that systems at equilibrium cannot perform work. As living organisms work continuously, they cannot afford to reach equilibrium. Hence the living state is a non-equilibrium steady-state to be able to perform work; living process is a constant effort to prevent falling into equilibrium. This is achieved by energy input. Metabolism provides a mechanism for the production of energy. Hence the living state and metabolism are synonymous. Without metabolism there cannot be a living state.

Long Answer Type Questions
Q1. Formation of enzyme-substrate complex (ES) is the first step in catalysed reactions. Describe the other steps till the formation of product.
Ans: The catalytic cycle of an enzyme action can be described in the following steps:
(1) First, the substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme, fitting into the active site.
(2) The binding of the substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape, fitting more tightly around the substrate.
(3) The active site of the enzyme, now in close proximity of the substrate breaks the chemical bonds of the substrate and the new enzyme-product complex is formed.
(4) The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and the free enzyme is ready to bind to another molecule of the substrate and run through the catalytic cycle once again.

Q2. What are different classes of enzymes? Explain any two with the type of reaction they catalyse.
Ans: Enzymes are divided into 6 classes each with 4—13 subclasses and named accordingly by a four-digit number.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules Img 6

Q3. Nucleic acids exhibit secondary structure. Describe through Watson-Crick Model.
Ans: Nucleic acids exhibit a wide .variety of secondary structures. For example, one of the secondary structures exhibited by DNA is the famous Watson- Crick model. This model says that DNA exists as a double helix. The two strands of polynucleotides are antiparallel, i.e. run in the opposite direction. The backbone is formed by the sugar—phosphate—sugar chain. The nitrogen bases are projected more or less perpendicular to this backbone but face inside. A and G of one strand compulsorily base pairs with T and C, respectively, on the other strand. There are two hydrogen bonds between A
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules Img 7

and T and three hydrogen bonds between G and C. Each strand appears like a helical staircase. Each step of ascent is represented by a pair of bases. At each step of ascent, the strand turns 36°. One full turn of the helical strand would involve ten steps or ten base pairs. Attempt drawing a line diagram. The pitch would be 34 A. The rise per base pair would be 3.4 A. This form of DNA with the above mentioned salient features is called B-DNA.

Q4. What is the difference between a nucleotide and nucleoside? Give two examples of each with their structure.
Ans: Living organisms have a number of carbon compounds in which heterocyclic rings can be found. Some of these are nitrogen bases—adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil and thymine. When found attached to a sugar, they are called nucleosides. If a phosphate group is also found esterified to the sugar they are called nucleotides. Adenosine, guanosine, thymidine, uridine and cytidine are nucleosides. Adenylic acid, thymidylic acid, guanylic acid, uridylic acid and cytidylic acid are nucleotides.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 9 Biomolecules Img 8

Q5. Describe various forms of lipid with a few examples.
Ans: Lipids are generally water insoluble. They could be simple fatty acids. A fatty acid has a carboxyl group attached to an R-group. The R-group could be a methyl (-CH3), or ethyl (—C2H5) or higher number of-CH2 groups (1 carbon to 19 carbons). For example, palmitic acid has 16 carbons including carboxyl carbon. Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including the carboxyl carbon. Fatty acids could be saturated (without double bond) or unsaturated (with one or more C=C double bonds). Another simple lipid is glycerol which is trihydroxy propane.
• Many lipids have both glycerol and fatty acids. Here the fatty acids are found esterified with glycerol. They can be then monoglycerides,
diglycerides and triglycerides. These are also called fats and oils based on melting point. Oils have lower melting point (e.g., gingely oil) and hence remain as oil in winters.
• Some lipids have phosphorous and a phosphorylated organic compound in them. These are phospholipids. They are found in cell membrane. Lecithin is one example. Some tissues especially the neural tissues have lipids with more complex structures.

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. Meiosis in diploid organisms results in
(a) Production of gametes
(b) Reduction in the number of chromosomes
(c) Introduction of variation
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)‘ Meiosis in diploid organisms results in production of gametes, reduction in the number of chromosomes and introduction of variation.

Q2. At which stage of meiosis does the genetic constitution of gametes is finally
decided? –
(a) Metaphase-I (b) Anaphase-II (c) Metaphase-II (d) Anaphase-I
Ans: (d) At anaphase-I, stage of meiosis the genetic constitution of gametes is finally decided.

Q3. Meiosis occurs in organisms during
(a) Sexual reproduction
(b) Vegetative reproduction
(c) Both sexual and vegetative reproduction
(d) None of these
Ans: (a) Meiosis occurs in organisms during sexual reproduction. The production of offspring by sexual reproduction includes the fusion of two gametes, each with a complete haploid set of chromosomes. Gametes are produced through meiosis.

Q4. During anaphase-I of meiosis
(a) Homologous chromosomes separate
(b) Non-homologous chromosomes separate
(c) Sister chromatids chromosomes separate
(d) Non Sister chromatids chromosomes separate
Ans: (a) The homologous chromosomes separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres. Separation of homologous chromosomes at anaphase is called disjunction.

Q5. Mitosis is characterised by
(a) Reduction division
(b) Equal division
(c) Both reduction and equal division
(d) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
Ans: (b) Mitosis is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle, involving a major reorganisation of virtually all components of the cell. Since the number of chromosomes in the parent and progeny cells is the same, it is also called as equational division.

Q6. A bivalent of meiosis-I consists of
(a) Two chromatids and one centromere
(b) Two chromatids and two centromeres
(c) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(d) Four chromatids and four centromeres.
Ans: (c) A bivalent of meiosis-I consists of four chromatids and two centromeres.

Q7. Cells which are not dividing are likely to be at
(a) G, (b) G2 (C) G0 (d) S phase
Ans: (c) These cells that do not divide further exit G{ phase to enter an inactive stage is called quiescent stage (G0) of the cell cycle. G0 stage of cell denotes exit “of cell from cell cycle. During G0 stage of cell cycle, cell decides to undergo differentiation. Cells in G0 stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called on to do so depending on the requirement of the organism.

Q8. Which of the events listed below is not observed during mitosis?
(a) Chromatin condensation
(b) Movement of centrioles to opposite poles
(c) Appearance of chromosomes with two chromatids joined together at the centromere
(d) Crossing over
Ans: (d) Crossing over occurs in pachytene (it is a phase of meiosis-I). Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material (genes) between two homologous chromosomes. Crossing over is also an enzyme-mediated process and the enzyme involved is called recombinase. Crossing over leads to recombination of genetic material on the two chromosomes. Exchange of paternal and maternal chromosome material during pachytene is called crossing over.

Q9. Identify the wrong statement about meiosis.
(a) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(b) Four haploid cells are formed
(c) At the end of meiosis number of chromosomes are reduced to half
(d) Two cycles of DNA replication occur.
Ans: (d) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis-I and meiosis-II but only a single cycle of DNA replication.

Q10. Select the correct statement about G1 phase.
(a) Cell is metabolically inactive
(b) DNA in the cell does not replicate
(c) It is not a phase of synthesis of macromolecules
(d) Cell stops growing.
Ans: (b) During Gj phase the ceil is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA but proteins and RNA are synthesized.

Very Short Answer Type Questions
Q1. Between a prokaryote and an eukaryote, which cell has a shorter cell division time?
Ans: Prokaryotic cells has shorter cell division time than eukaryotic cells. A typical eukaryotic cell cycle is illustrated by human cells in culture. These cells divide once in approximately every 24 hours. In bacteria (E.coli) cell cycle is of 20 minutes.

Q2. Which of the phases of cell cycle is of longest duration?
Ans: Interphase

Q3. Name a stain commonly used to colour chromosomes.
Ans: Basic fuchsin, acetocarmine etc.

Q4. Which tissue of animals and plants exhibits meiosis?
Ans: Gohads (testes and ovary) in animals and sporangium in plants.

Q5. Given that the average duplication time of E.coli is 20 minutes, how much time will two E.coli cells take to become 32 cells?
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division Img 1
For formation of 32 cells, two E.coli cells takes 4 cycles. So total time will be 4 x 20 = 80 minutes

Q6. Which part of the human body should one use to demonstrate stages in mitosis?
Ans: Nail base or any somatic cell (diploid cell).

Q7. What attributes does a chromatid require to be classified as a chromosome?
Ans: Centromere

Q8. The diagram shows a bivalent at prophase-I of meiosis. Which of the four chromatids can cross over?
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division Img 2
Ans: Sister chromatids of homologous chromosome.

Q9. If a tissue has at a given time 1024 cells, how many cycles of mitosis had the original parental single cell undergone?
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division Img 3
Q10. An anther has 1200 pollen grains. How many pollen mother cells (pmc) must have been there to produce them?
Ans: 4 pollen grains are produced by 1 pmc
1200 pollen grains are produced by = 1200/4
= 300 pmc

Q11. At what stage of cell cycle does DNA synthesis take place?
Ans: S-phase (interphase)

Q12. It is said that the one cycle of cell division in human cells (eukaryotic cells) takes 24 hours. Which phase of the cycle, do you think occupies the maximum part of cell cycle?
Ans: It is significant to note that in the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of a human cell, cell division proper lasts for only about an hour. The interphase lasts more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle.

Q13. It is observed that heart cells do not exhibit cell division. Such cells do not
divide further and exit phase to enter an inactive stage called of cell cycle. Fill in the blanks.
Ans: It is observed that heart cells do not exhibit cell division. Such cells do not divide further and exit Gt phase to enter an inactive stage called G0 of cell cycle.

Q14. In which phase of meiosis are the following formed? Choose the answers from hint points given below.
a. Synaptonemal complex
b. Recombination nodules
c. Appearance/activation of enzyme recombinase
d. Termination of chiasmata
e. Interkinesis
f. Formation of dyad of cells
[Hints: (1) Zygotene, (2) Pachytene, (3) Pachytene, (4) Diakinesis, (5) After Telophase-I /before Meosis-II, (6) Telophase-I /after Meiosis-I]
Ans: a. Synaptonemal complex: zygotene
b. Recombination nodules: pachytene
c. Appearance/activation of enzyme recombinase: pachytene
d. Termination of chiasmata: diakinesis
e. Interkinesis: after Telophase-I /before Meosis-II
f. Formation of dyad of cells: Telophase-I /after Meiosis-I.

Short Answer Type Questions
Q1. State the role of centrioles other than spindle formation.
Ans: The centrioles form the basal body of cilia or flagella.

Q2. Mitochondria and plastids have their own DNA (genetic material). What is known about their fate during nuclear division like mitosis?
Ans: At the time of cytoplasmic division, organelles like mitochondria and plastids get distributed between the two daughter cells.

Q3. Label the diagram and also determine the stage at which this structure is visible.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division Img 4
Ans: This is a transition to metaphase
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division Img 5

Q4. A cell has 32 chromosomes. It undergoes mitotic division. What will be the chromosome number (TV) during metaphase? What would be the DNA content (Q during anaphase?
Ans: Chromosome number (N) during metaphase = 32 (N)
DNA content (C) during anaphase = 2C

Q5. While examining the mitotic stage in a tissue, one finds some cells with 16
chromosomes and some with 32 chromosomes. What possible reasons could you assign to this difference in chromosome number? Do you think cells with 16 chromosomes could have arisen from cells with 32 chromosomes or vice versa?
Ans: Cells with 16 chromosomes are produced by meiosis while that with 32 chromosomes are produced by mitosis.
• Cells with 16 chromosomes could have arisen from cells with 32 chromosomes through meiosis.
• Cells with 32 chromosomes could have arisen from cells with 16 chromosomes through fertilisation or syngamy.

Q6. The following events occur during the various phases of the cell cycle. Name the phase against each of the events.
a. Disintegration of nuclear membrane ________
b. Appearance of nucleolus ________
c. Division of centromere ________
d. Replication of DNA ________
Ans: a. Disintegration of nuclear membrane: Late prophase
b. Appearance of nucleolus: Telophase
c. Division of centromere: Anaphase
d. Replication of DNA: S-phase

Q7. Mitosis results in producing two cells which are similar to each other. What would be the consequence if each of the following irregularities occur during mitosis?
a. Nuclear membrane fails to disintegrate
b. Duplication of DNA does not occur
c. Centromeres do not divid
d. Cytokinesis does not occu;
Ans: a. Nuclear membrane fails to disintegrate: In this condition, mitosis
takes place within nucleus. This is called endoduplication.
b. Duplication of DNA does not occur: There will be no mitosis
c. Centromeres do not divide: Polyploidy appears
d. Cytokinesis does not occur: In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which multinucleate condition arises leading to the formation of syncytium (e.g., liquid endosperm in coconut)

Q8. Both unicellular and multicellular organisms undergo mitosis. What are the differences, if any, observed in the process between the two?
Ans:
• The growth of multicellular organisms is due to mitosis.
• The reproduction of unicellular organisms is due to mitosis.

Q9. Name the pathological condition when uncontrolled cell division occurs.
Ans: Cancer

Q10. Two key events take place, during S phase in animal cells, DNA replication and duplication of centriole. In which parts of the cell do events occur?
Ans: In animal cells, during the S phase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus, and the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm.

Q11. Comment on the statement—Meiosis enables the conservation of specific chromosome number of each species even though the process per se, results in a reduction of chromosome number.
Ans: Meiosis is the mechanism by which conservation of specific chromosome number of each species is achieved across generations in sexually reproducing organisms, even though the process, per se, paradoxically, results in reduction of chromosome number by half. But fertilisation restores the chromosome number.

Q12. Name a cell that is found arrested in diplotene stage for months and years. Comment in 2-3 lines how it completes cell cycle?
Ans: In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene can last for months or years.
• Lampbrush chromosomes or diplotene chromosome are found in diplotene
stage of most animal oocytes of frog or amphibians.
• Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in meiotic prophase. These chromosomes become normal after growth and thus completing the cell cycle.

Q13. How does cytokinesis in plant cells differ from that in animal cells?
Ans: In an animal cell, cytokinesis is achieved by the appearance of a furrow in the plasma membrane. The furrow gradually deepens and ultimately joins in the centre dividing the cell cytoplasm into two.
Plant cells however, are enclosed by a relatively inexte’nsible cell wall, therefore they undergo cytokinesis by a different mechanism. In plant cells, wall formation starts in the centre of the cell and grows outward to meet the existing lateral walls. The formation of the new cell wall begins with the formation of a simple precursor, called the cell-plate that represents the middle lamella between the walls of two adjacent cells.

Long Answer Type Questions
Q1. Comment on the statement— Telophase is reverse of prophase.
Ans: Prophase is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material. The chromosomal material becomes untangled during the process of chromatin condensation. At the beginning of the final stage of mitosis, i.e. telophase, the chromosomes that have reached their respective poles decondense and lose their individuality.
Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under the microscope, do not show golgi complexes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and the nuclear envelope. In the telophase stage nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters. Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform.

Q2. What are the various stages of meiotic prophase-I? Enumerate the chromosomal events during each stage?
Ans: Meiosis-I:
Prophase-I: Prophase of the first meiotic division is typically longer and more complex when compared to the prophase of mitosis. It has been further subdivided into the following five phases based on chromosomal behaviour, i.e. Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene and Diakinesis. During leptotene stage, the chromosomes become gradually visible under the light microscope.
• The compaction of chromosomes continues throughout leptotene. This is followed by the second stage of prophase-I called zygotene. During this stage chromosomes start pairing together and this process of association is called synapsis. Such paired chromosomes are called homologous chromosomes. Electron micrographs of this stage indicate that chromosome synapsis is accompanied by the formation of complex structure called synaptonemal complex.
• The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called a bivalent or a tetrad. However, these are more clearly visible at the next stage. The first two stages of prophase-I are relatively short-lived compared to the next stage that is pachytene. During this stage bivalent
. chromosomes now clearly appears as tetrads. This stage is characterised by the appearance of recombination nodules, the sites at which crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes. Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between two homologous chromosomes.
• Crossing over is also an enzyme-mediated process and the enzyme involved is called recombinase. Crossing over leads to the recombination of genetic material on the two chromosomes. Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed by the end of pachytene, leaving the chromosomes linked at the sites of crossing over.
• The beginning of diploteneis recognised by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and the tendency of the recombined homologous chromosomes of the bivalents to separate from each other except at the sites of crossovers. These X-shaped structures, are called chiasmata. In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene can last for months or years.
• The final stage of meiotic prophase-I is diakinesis. This is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata. During this phase the chromosomes are fully condensed and the meiotic spindle is assembled to prepare the homologous chromosomes for separation. By the end of diakinesis, the nucleolus disappears and the nuclear envelope also breaks down.

Q3. Differentiate between the events of mitosis and meiosis

Mitosis Meiosis
1. Take place in the somatic cells of the body. 1. Take place in the germ cells
2. Occurs in both sexually as well as asexually reproducing organisms. 2. Occurs only in sexually reproducing organisms.
3. Mitosis involves only one cycle of nuclear and cell division. 3. Meiosis          involves         two

sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis-I and meiosis-II.

4. The DNA replicates once for one cell division. 4. The DNA replicates once for two cell divisions.
5. The prophase is shorter. 5. Prophase is typically longer
6. Prophase is comparatively simple. 6. Prophase of the first meiotic division is more complex when compared to prophase of mitosis.
7. The cell divides only once and the chromosomes also divide only once. . 7. There are two cell divisions but the chromosomes divide only once.
8. Mitosis does not involves pairing                     of        homologous

chromosomes                       and

recombination between them.

8. Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between them.
9. Two cells are formed at the end of mitosis. 9. Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis.

Q4. Write brief note on the following:
a. Synaptonemal complex
b. Metaphase plate
Ans: a. Synaptonemal complex: During zygotene stage chromosomes start pairing together and this process of association is called synapsis. Such paired chromosomes are called homologous chromosomes. Electron micrographs of this stage indicate that chromosome synapsis is accompanied by the formation of complex structure called synaptonemal complex. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called a bivalent or a tetrad. However, these are more clearly visible at the next stage.
b. Metaphase plate: At this stage, metaphase chromosome is made up of two sister chromatids, which are held together by the centromere. Small disc-shaped structures at the surface of the centromeres are called kinetochores. These structures serve as the sites of attachment of spindle fibres (formed by the spindle fibres) to the chromosomes that are moved into position at the centre of the cell. Hence, the metaphase is characterised by all the chromosomes coming to lie at the equator with one chromatid of each chromosome connected by its kinetochore to spindle fibres from one pole and its sister chromatid connected by its kinetochore to spindle fibres from the opposite pole. The plane of alignment of the chromosomes at metaphase is referred to as the metaphase plate.

Q5. Write briefly the significance of mitosis and meiosis in multicellular organism.
Ans: Significance of Mitosis:
Mitosis or the equational division is usually restricted to the diploid cells only. However, in some lower plants mitosis usually results in the production of diploid daughter cells with identical genetic complement. The growth of multicellular organisms is due to mitosis. A very significant contribution of mitosis is cell repair. The cells of the upper layer of the epidermis, cells of the lining of the gut, and blood cells are being constantly replaced. Mitotic divisions in the meristematic tissues —the apical and the lateral cambium, result in a continuous growth of plants throughout their life.
Significance of Meiosis:
Meiosis is the mechanism by which conservation of specific chromosome number of each species is achieved across generations in sexually reproducing organisms, even though the process, per se, paradoxically, results in reduction of chromosome number by half. It also increases the genetic variability in the population of organisms from one generation to the next. Variations are very important for the process of evolution.

Q6. An organism has two pair of chromosomes (i.e., chromosome number = 4). Diagrammatically represent the chromosomal arrangement during different phases of meiosis-II.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 10 Cell Cycle and Cell Division Img 6

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. Which metal ion is a constituent of chlorophyll?
(a) Iron (b) Copper (c) Magnesium (d) Zinc
Ans: (c) Magnesium ion is a constituent of chlorophyll.

Q2. Which pigment acts directly to convert light energy to chemical energy?
(a) Chlorophyll a (b) Chlorophyll b
(c) Xanthophyll (d) Carotenoid
Ans: (a) Chlorophyll a pigment acts directly to convert light energy to chemical energy.

Q3. Which range of wavelength (in nm) is called photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)?
(a) 100-390 (b) 390-430 (c) 400-700 (d) 760-10000
Ans: (c) 400-700 range of wavelength (in nm) is called photosynthetically active radiation (PAR).

Q4. Which light range is least effective in photosynthesis?
(a) Blue (b) Green (c) Red (d) Violet
Ans: (b) Green light range is least effective in photosynthesis.

Q5. Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy from
(a) Sun (b) Infrared rays
(c) Organic substances (d) Inorganic chemicals
Ans: (d) Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy from inorganic chemicals.

Q6. Energy required for ATP synthesis in PSII comes from
(a) Proton gradient (b) Electron gradient
(c) Reduction of glucose (d) Oxidation of glucose
Ans: (a) Energy required for ATP synthesis in PSII comes from proton gradient.

Q7. During light reaction in photosynthesis, the following are formed
(a) ATP and sugar                                 
(b) Hydrogen, 02 and sugar
(c) ATP, hydrogen donor and 02         
(d) ATP, hydrogen and 02 donor
Ans: (c) During light reaction in photosynthesis the following are formed ATP, hydrogen donor/(NADPH) and 02.

Q8. Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because
(a) It can occur in dark also
(b) It does not directly depend on light energy
(c) It cannot occur during day light
(d) It occurs more rapidly at night
Ans: (b) Dark reaction in photosynthesis is called so because it does not directly depend on light energy.

Q9. PEP is primary C02 acceptor in
(a) C4 plants                                            
(b) C3 plants
(c) C2-plants                
 (d) Both C3 and C4 plants
Ans: (a) PEP is primary C02 acceptor in C4 plants.

Q10. Splitting of water is associated with
(a) Photosystem I
(b) Lumen of thylakoid
(c) Both Photosystem I and II
(d) Inner surface of thylakoid membrane
Ans: (d) Splitting of water is associated with inner surface of thylakoid membrane.

Q11. The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the light reaction is
(a) PSII, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSI, ferredoxin
(b) PSI, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSII, ferredoxin
(c) PSI, ferredoxin, PSII
(d) PSI, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSII, ferredoxin
Ans: (a) The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the light reaction is PSII, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PSI and ferredoxin.

Q12. The enzyme that is not found in a C3 plant is
(a)    RuBP Carboxylase                      
(b)     PEP Carboxylase
(c)     NADP reductase                           
(d)     ATP synthase
Ans: (b) The enzyme that is not found in a C3 plant is PEP Carboxylase.

Q13. The reaction that is responsible for the primary fixation C02 is catalysed by
(a) RuBP carboxylase
(b) PEP carboxylase
(c) RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase
(d) PGA synthase
Ans: (c) The reaction that is responsible for the primary fixation of C02 is catalysed by RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase.

Q14. When C02 is added to PEP, the first stable product synthesised is
(a)    Pyruvate                                        
(b)     Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
(c)     Phosphoglycerate                        
 (d)     Oxaloacetate
Ans: (d) When C02 is added to PEP, the first stable product synthesised is oxaloacetate.

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Examine the figure.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Img 1
a. Is this structure present in animal cell or plant cell?
b. Can these be passed on to the progeny? How?
c. Name the metabolic processes taking place in the places marked (1) and (2).
Ans: a. Plant cell.
b. Yes, through female gametes.
c. In part (1)— Photophosphorylation. In part (2)—Calvin cycle.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Img 2
Based on the above equation, answer the following questions:
a. Where does this reaction take place in plants?
b. What is the significance of this reaction?
Ans: a. Lumen of the thylakoids.
b. 02 is evolved during this reaction; moreover, electrons are made available to PS-II continuously.

Q3. Cyanobacteria and some other photosynthetic bacteria do not have chloroplasts. How do they conduct photosynthesis?
Ans: Cyanobacteria and other photosynthetic bacteria have thylakoids suspended freely in the cytoplasm (i.e., they are not enclosed in membrane), and they have bacteriochlorophyll.

Q4. a. NADP reductase enzyme is located on
b. Breakdown of proton gradient leads to release of
Ans: a. Grana-lamellae.
b. Energy.

Q5. Can girdling experiments be done in monocots? If yes, how? If no, why not?
Ans: No, because vascular bundles are scattered in monocot.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Img 3
Analyse the above reaction and’answer the following questions:
a. How many molecules of ATP and NADPH are required to fix one molecule of C02?
b. Where in the chloroplast does this process occur?
Ans: a. Three molecules of ATP and two molecules of NADPH are required to fix one molecule of C02
b. Stroma of chloroplast

Q7. Does moonlight support photosynthesis? Find out.
Ans: As the intensity of moonlight is much less than the sunlight, so it does not support photosynthesis.

Q8. Some of these terms/chemicals are associated with the C4 Explain.
a. Hatch and Slack pathway
b. Calvin cycle
c. PEP carboxylase
d. Bundle sheath cells
Ans: Though C4 plants have C4 oxaloacetic acid as is the first C02 fixation product they use the C3 pathway or Calvin cycle as the main biosynthetic pathway. C4 pathway is also called Hatch and Slack Pathway

  • 1° C02 acceptor in C4 plants is a 3-C molecule PEP (phosphoenol pyruvate) and is present in the mesophyll cells. The enzyme responsible for the fixation is PEPcase (PEP carboxylase) is found only in mesophyll cells. Bundle sheath cells lack PEPcase enzyme.
  • C4 acid (OAA) is formed by carboxylation is mesophyll cells; therefore, initial carboxylation reaction occurs in mesophyll cells (also in C3 pathway). OAA forms other 4-C compounds like malic acid or aspartic acid in the mesophyll cells itself, which are transported to the bundle sheath cells.
  • C02 released in the bundle sheath cells enters the C3 or the Calvin pathway, a pathway common to all plants. The bundle sheath cells are rich in RuBisCO enzyme (necessary for the C3 or the Calvin cycle), but lack PEPcase.
  • Calvin pathway in C4 plants takes place only in bundle sheath cells (because RuBisCO is present) but does not take place in the mesophyll cells because lack of RuBisCO enzyme in mesophyll cells of C4 plants like maize, sorghum, sugarcane, Jowar, Euphorbia, Atriplex,

Q9. Where is NADP reductase enzyme located in the chloroplast? What is the role of this enzyme in proton gradient development?
Ans: The NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the membrane. Along with electron that come from the acceptor of electrons of PSI protons are necessary for the reduction of NADP+ to NADPH + H+. These protons are also removed from the stroma.

Q10. ATPase enzyme consists of two parts. What are those parts? How are they arranged in the thylakoid membrane? Conformational change occurs in which part of the enzyme?
Ans: ATPase enzyme consists of two parts:
i.One portion called F0 is imbedded in the membrane and forms a transmembrane channel that carries out facilitated diffusion of protons across the membrane.
ii.The other portion is called ‘Fl and protrudes on the outer surface-of the thylakoid membrane on the side that faces stroma.

The breakdown of the gradient provides enough energy to cause a conformational change in the F, particle of the ATPase, which makes the enzyme synthesise several molecules of energy-packed ATP.

Q11. Which products formed during the light reaction of photosynthesis are used to drive the dark reaction?
Ans: ATP and NADPH

Q12.What is the basis for designating C3 and C4 pathways of photosynthesis?
Ans:The number of carbon atoms in first stable product of carbondioxide fixation is the basis for designating C3 and C4 pathways of photosynthesis.

Short Answer Type Questions
Q1.
Succulents are known to keep their stomata closed during the day to check transpiration. How do they meet their photosynthetic C02 requirements?
Ans: Succulent (water storing) plants such as cacti, euphorbias fix C02 into organic compound using PEP carboxylase at night, when the stomata are open.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Img 4
The. organic compound (malic acid) accumulates throughout the night and is decarboxylated during the day to produce C02.

Q2.Chlorophyll a is the primary pigment for light reaction. What are accessory pigments? What is their role in photosynthesis?
Ans: Accessory pigments are those pigments, which assist in photosynthesis by capturing energy from light of different wavelengths, e.g., chlorophyll b, Xanthophylls and carotenoids.

Role in Photosynthesis:

  1. They absorb wavelength of light not absorbed by chlorophyll a and transfer the energy to chlorophyll.
  2. They also protect chlorophyll a from photo-oxidation.

Q3. Do reactions of photosynthesis called, as ‘Dark Reaction’ need light? Explain.
Ans :ATP and NADPH are used to drive the processes leading to the synthesis of food, more accurately, sugars. This is the biosynthetic phase or dark reaction of photosynthesis. This process does not directly depend on the presence of light but is dependent on the products of the light reaction, i.e., ATP and NADPH, besides C02 and H20.

Q4. How are photosynthesis and respiration related to each other?
Ans: Photosynthesis and respiration are related to each other as

  1. Both processes take place in double membrane bound organelles.
  2. In both processes ATP synthesis takes place.
  3. In both processes electron transport system requires.

Q5.   If a green plant is kept in dark with proper ventilation, can this plant carry out photosynthesis? Can anything be given as a supplement to maintain its growth or survival?
Ans: No, this plant cannot photosynthesise in the absence of light. Only sunlight can be given as supplement to maintain its growth or survival.

Q6.Photosynthetic organisms occur at different depths in the ocean. Do they receive qualitatively and quantitatively the same light? How do they adapt to carry out photosynthesis under these conditions?
Ans: Photosynthetic organisms occur at different depths in the ocean. They do not receive qualitatively and quantitatively the same light. The spectral quality of solar radiation is also important for life. The UV component of the spectrum is harmful to many organisms while not all the colour components of the visible spectrum are available for marine plants living at different depths of the ocean. Plants at great depth contains some accessory pigments that can easily capture the light.

Q7. In tropical rain forests, the canopy is thick and shorter plants growing below it, receive filtered light. How are they able to carry out photosynthesis?
Ans: In tropical rain forests, the canopy is thick and shorter plants growing below it called sciophytes (shade loving plants). They can photosynthesise in very low light conditions. They have larger photosynthetic units and hence they are able to carry out photosynthesis in filtered light.

Q8. What conditions enable RuBisCO to function as an oxygenase? Explain the ensuing process.
Ans: In the first step of the Calvin pathway RuBP combines with C02 to form 2 molecules of 3PGA, that is catalysed by RuBisCO.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Img 5

Q9.Why does the rate of photosynthesis decrease at higher temperatures?
Ans: The rate of photosynthesis decreases at higher temperatures because at high temperatures the enzymes become denatured (destroy).

Q10. Explain how during light reaction of photosynthesis, ATP synthesis is a chemiosmotic phenomenon.
Ans: In the light reaction within the chloroplast, protons in the stroma decrease in number, while in the lumen there is accumulation of protons. This creates a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane as well as a measurable decrease in pH in the lumen. This gradient is important because it is the breakdown of this gradient that leads to release of energy. The gradient is broken down due to the movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma through the transmembrane channel of the F0 of the ATPase. The ATPase enzyme consists of two parts: one part called the F0 is embedded in the membrane and forms a transmembrane channel that carries out facilitated diffusion of protons across the membrane. The other portion is called F1 and protrudes on the outer surface of the thylakoid membrane on the side that faces the stroma. The breakdown of the gradient provides enough energy to cause a conformational change in the Fi particle of the ATPase, which makes the enzyme synthesise several molecules of energy-packed ATP.

Q11. Find out how Melvin Calvin worked out the complete biosynthetic pathway for synthesis of sugar.
Ans: Just after World War II, among the several efforts to put radioisotopes to beneficial use, the work of Melvin Calvin is exemplary. The use of radioactive C14 by him in algal photosynthesis studies led to the discovery that the first C02 fixation product was a 3-carbon organic acid. He also contributed to working out the complete biosynthetic pathway; hence, it was called Calvin cycle after him. The first product identified was 3-phosphoglyceric acid or in short PGA.

Q12. Six turns of Calvin cycle are required to generate one mole of glucose. Explain.
Ans: The fixation of 6 molecules of C02 and 6 turns of the cycle are required for the removal of one molecule of glucose from the pathway. Hence for every C02 molecule entering the Calvin cycle, 3 molecules of ATP and 2 of NADPH are required. To make one molecule of glucose 6 turns of the cycle are required.

In Out
Six C02 One glucose
18 ATP 18ADP
12 NADPH 12 NADP

 

Q13. Complete the flow chart for cyclic photophosphorylation of the photosystem-I

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Img 6
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Img 7

Q14. In what kind of plants do you come across ‘Kranz’ anatomy? To which conditions are those plants better adapted? How are these plants better adapted than the plants, which lack this anatomy?
Ans: On studying vertical sections of leaves, one of a C3 plant and the other of a C4 plant. The particularly large cells around the vascular bundles of the C4 pathway plants are called bundle sheath cells, and the leaves which have such anatomy are said to have ‘Kranz’ anatomy. ‘Kranz’ means ‘wreath’ and is a reflection of the arrangement of cells. The bundle sheath cells may form several layers around the vascular bundles; they are characterised by having a large number of chloroplasts, thick walls impervious to gaseous exchange and no intercellular spaces. Leaves of C4 plants – maize or sorghum lack photorespiration. In addition these plants show tolerance to higher temperatures. Plants that are adapted to dry tropical regions have the C4 pathway.

Q15. A process is occurring throughout the day, in ‘X’ organism. Cells are participating in this process. During this process ATP, C02 and water are evolved. It is not a light-dependent process.
a.Name the process.
b. Is it a catabolic or an anabolic process?
c .What could be the raw material of this process?
Ans: ‘ a. Respiration
b.Catabolic process (actually amphibolic pathway)
c.Glucose

Q16. Tomatoes, carrots and chillies are red in colour due to the presence of one pigment. Name the pigment. Is it a photosynthetic pigment?
Ans: Tomatoes, carrots and chillies are red in colour due to the presence of carotene pigment. It is an accessory photosynthetic pigment.

Q17. Why do we believe chloroplast and mitochondria to be semi-autonomous organelle?
Ans:
Mitochondria and Chloroplast are semi-autonomous organelles or endosymbionts of cells because they
i. Possess their own nucleic acid (DNA molecule).
ii. Can form some of the required protein but for most of the proteins these are dependent on nuclear DNA and cytoplasmic ribosome.
iii. Do not arise de novo.
iv. Have membrane similar to those of bacteria.

Q18. Observe the diagram and answer the following.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Img 8
a. Which group of plants exhibits these two types of cells?
b. What is the first product of C4 cycle?
c. Which enzyme is there in bundle sheath cells and mesophyll cells?
Ans: a. C4 plants
b. OAA (Oxaloacetic acid)
c. Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is present in the mesophyll cells. Enzyme Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase-oxygenase (RuBisCO) is present in bundle sheath cells.

Q19. A cyclic process is occurring in C3 plant, which is light dependent, and needs O2 This process does not produce energy rather it consumes energy.
a. Can you name the given process?
b. Is it essential for survival?
c. What are the end products of this process?
d. Where does it occur?
Ans: a. Photorespiration
b. No
c. C02 and NH3
d. Photorespiration involves a complex network of enzyme reactions that exchange metabolites between chloroplasts, leaf peroxisomes and mitochondria.

Q20. Suppose Euphorbia and maize are grown in the tropical area.
a. Which one of them do you think will be able to survive under such conditions?
b. Which one of them is more efficient in terms of photosynthetic activity?
c. What difference do you think are there in their leaf anatomy?
Ans: a. Euphorbia is a CAM plant while maize is a C4 plant. Both of them will be able to survive in the tropical areas.
b. Maize (as it is a C4 plant)
c. Leaves of maize plant show Kranz anatomy which is absent in Euphorbia leaves.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. Is it correct to say that photosynthesis occurs only in leaves of a plant? Besides leaves, what are the other parts that may be capable of carrying out photosynthesis? Justify.
Ans: Photosynthesis does take place in the green leaves of plants but it does so also in other green parts of the plants. The mesophyll cells in the leaves, have a large number of chloroplasts. Usually the chloroplasts align themselves along the walls of the mesophyll cells, such that they get the optimum quantity of the incident light.
• Photosynthetic or Assimilatory roots: They are green roots which are capable of PHS, e.g., Trapa bispinosa (water chestnut = Singhara), Tmospora (Gillow or Gurcha), Podostemum.
• Some plants of arid regions modify their stems into flattened (Opuntia), or fleshy cylindrical (Euphorbia) structures. These modified stems of indefinite growth are called phylloclades. They contain chlorophyll and carry out photosynthesis.
• One intemode long phylloclade or stem which is leaf like is called cladode. Cladode is capable of photosynthesis. Cladode is found in certain xerophytes, e.g., Ruscus and Asparagus.

Q2.The entire process of photosynthesis consists of a number of reactions. Where in the cell do each of these take place?
a. Synthesis of ATP and NADPH _________
b. Photolysis of water _________
c. Fixation of C02 _________
d. Synthesis of sugar molecule _________
e. Synthesis of starch _________
Ans: a. Synthesis of ATP and NADPH: Membrane system (Grana)
b. Photolysis of water: Inner side of the membrane of thylakoid
c. Fixation of C02: Stroma of chloroplast
d. Synthesis of sugar molecule: Stroma of chloroplast
e. Synthesis of starch: Stroma of chloroplast

Q3. Which property of the pigment is responsible for its ability to initiate the process of photosynthesis? Why is the rate of photosynthesis higher in the red and blue regions of the spectrum of light?
Ans: Pigments are substances that have an ability to absorb light, at specific wavelengths. This property of the pigment is responsible for its ability to initiate the process of photosynthesis.
The wavelengths at which there is maximum absorption by chlorophyll a, i. e. in the blue and the red regions, also shows higher rate of photosynthesis.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Img 9
Q4. What can we conclude from the statement that the action and absorption spectrum of photosynthesis overlap? At which wavelength do they show peaks?
Ans: The wavelengths at which therfe is maximum absorption by chlorophyll a, i.e. in the blue and the red regions, also shows higher rate of photosynthesis. Hence, we can conclude that chlorophyll a is the chief pigment associated with photosynthesis.
The action spectrum of photosynthesis superimposed on absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Img 10

Q5. Under what conditions are C4 plants superior to C3?
Ans: C4 plants are special:
i. They have a special type of leaf anatomy. ‘
ii: They tolerate higher temperatures. _
iii. They show a response to high light intensities.
iv. They lack a process called photorespiration.
v. They have greater productivity of biomass.

Q6. In the figure given below, the light line indicates action spectrum for photosynthesis and the black line indicates the absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a, answer the following:
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Img 11
a. What does the action spectrum indicate? How can we plot an action spectrum? Explain with an example.
b. How can we derive an absorption spectrum for any substance?
c. If chlorophyll a is responsible for light reaction of photosynthesis, why do the action spectrum and absorption spectrum not overlap?
Ans: a. Action spectrum of photosynthesis superimposed on absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a. The wavelengths at which there is maximum . absorption by chlorophyll a, i.e. in the blue and the red regions, also shows higher rate of photosynthesis. Hence, one can conclude that chlorophyll a is the chief pigment associated with photosynthesis.
b. Absorption spectrum for any substance can be derived by plotting the different wavelengths of light.
c. Though chlorophyll a is the major pigment responsible for trapping light, other thylakoid pigments like chlorophyll b, xanthophylls and carotenoids, which are called accessory pigments, also absorb light and transfer the energy to chlorophyll a. Indeed, they not only enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming light to be utilised for photosynthesis but also protect chlorophyll a from photo-oxidation. Hence, the action spectrum and absorption spectrum not overlap.

Q7. What are the important events and end products of the light reaction?
Ans. Light reactions or the ‘Photochemical’ phase include light absorption, water splitting, oxygen release, and the formation of high-energy chemical intermediates, ATP and NADPH. Several complexes are involved in the process. The pigments are organised into two discrete photochemical light harvesting complexes (LHC) within the Photosystem I (PS I) and Photosystem II (PS II). These are named in the sequence of their discovery, and not in the sequence in which they function during the light reaction. The LHC are made up of hundreds of pigment molecules bound to proteins. Each photosystem has all the pigments (except one molecule of chlorophyll a) forming a light harvesting system also called antennae. These pigments help to make photosynthesis more efficient by absorbing different wavelengths of light. The single chlorophyll a molecule forms the reaction centre. The reaction centre is different in both the photosystems. In PS I the reaction centre chlorophyll a has an absorption peak at 700 nm, hence is called P700,while in PS II it has absorption maxima at 680 nm, and is called P680.

Q8. In the diagram shown below label A, B, C. What type of phosphorylation is possible in this?
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Img 12
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants Img 13
Q9. Why is the RuBisCo enzyme more appropriately called RUBP Carboxylase- Oxygenase and what important role does it play in photosynthesis?
Ans: For ease of understanding, the Calvin cycle can be described under three stages: carboxylation, reduction and regeneration. Carboxylation is the fixation of C02 into a stable organic intermediate. Carboxylation is the most crucial step of the Calvin cycle where C02 is utilised for the carboxylation of RuBP. This reaction is catalysed by the enzyme RuBP carboxylase which results in the formation of two molecules of 3-PGA. Since this enzyme also has an oxygenation activity it would be more correct to call it RuBP carboxylase-oxygenase or RuBisCO.

Q10. What special anatomical features are displayed by leaves of C4 plants? How do they provide advantage over the structure of C3 plants?
Ans: Study vertical sections of leaves, one of a C3 plant and the other of a C4 plant. The particularly large cells around the vascular bundles of the C4 pathway plants are called bundle sheath cells, and the leaves which have such anatomy are said to have ‘Kranz’ anatomy. ‘Kranz’ means ‘wreath’ and is a reflection of the arrangement of cells. The bundle sheath cells may form several layers around the vascular bundles; they are characterised by having a large number of chloroplasts, thick walls impervious to gaseous exchange and no intercellular spaces. C4 plants lack photorespiration. In addition these plants show tolerance to higher temperatures. Plants that are adapted to dry tropical regions have the C4 pathway.
C4 plants are special:
i. They have a special type of leaf anatomy.
ii. They tolerate higher temperatures.
iii. They show a response to high light intensities.
iv. They lack a process called photorespiration.
v. They have greater productivity of biomass.

Q11. Name the two important enzynies of C3 and C4 pathway, respectively? What important role do they play in fixing C02?
Ans: The important enzyme of C3 pathway is RuBisCO and that of C4 pathway is PEPcase.
Carboxylation in the C3 pathway is the fixation of C02 into a stable organic intermediate. Carboxylation is the most crucial step of the Calvin cycle, where C02 is utilised for the carboxylation of RuBP. This reaction is catalysed by the enzyme RuBP carboxylase which results in the formation of two molecules of 3-PGA.
The primary C02 acceptor in the C4 pathway is a 3-carbon molecule phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) and is present in the mesophyll cells. The enzyme responsible for this fixation is PEP carboxylase or PEPcase.

Q12. Why is RuBisCo enzyme the most abundant enzyme in the world?
Ans: RuBisCo enzyme is the most abundant enzyme in the world because this enzyme is responsible for photosynthesis and present in all green parts of the plants including leaves.

Q13. Why does not photorespiration take place in C4 plants?
Ans: In C4 plants photorespiration does not occur. This is because they have a mechanism that increases the concentration of C02 at the enzyme site. This takes place when the C4 acid from the mesophyll is broken down in the bundle sheath cells to release C02 – this results in increasing the intracellular concentration of C02. In turn, this ensures that the RuBisCO functions as a carboxylase minimising the oxygenase activity.

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. Which of the following statements does not apply to reverse osmosis?
(a) It is used for water purification.
(b) In this technique, pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied to the system.
(c) It is a passive process.
(d) It is an active process.
Ans: (c) If pressure greater than the osmotic pressure is applied to the higher concentration, the direction of water flow through the membrane can be reverse. This is called reverse osmosis. Reverse osmosis occurs when water is moved across the membrane against the concentration gradient, from lower concentration to higher concentration. Reverse osmosis is an active process.

Q2. Which one of the following will not directly affect transpiration?
(a) Temperature
(b) Light
(c) Wind speed
(d) Chlorophyll content of leaves
Ans: (d) The chlorophyll content of leaves will not directly affect transpiration, while temperature, light and wind speed directly affect the transpiration.

Q3. The lower surface of leaf will have more number of stomata in a
(a) Dorsiventral leaf
(b) Isobilateral leaf
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a) Usually, the lower surface of a dorsiventral (dicotyledonous) leaf has a greater number of stomata. On the upper surface, stomata may be even absent sometimes.

Q4. The form of sugar transported through phloem is
(a) Glucose (b) Fructose (c) Sucrose (d) Ribose
Ans: (c) Food, primarily sucrose, is transported by the vascular tissue phloem from a source to a sink.

Q5. The process of guttation takes place
(a) when the root pressure is high and the rate of transpiration is low
(b) when the root pressure is low and the rate of transpiration is high
(c) when the root pressure equals the rate of transpiration
(d) when the root pressure as well as rate of transpiration are high.
Ans: (a) The effect of root pressure is observable at night as well as early morning when evaporation is low. Excess water gets collected in the form of droplets around special openings of veins near the tip of grass blades and leaves of many herbaceous parts of plants such as Tropaeolum, Balsam and grasses. Such water loss in its liquid phase is known as guttation.

Q6. Which of the following is an example of imbibition?
(a) Uptake of water by root hair (b) Exchange of gases in stomata (c) Swelling of seed when put in soil (d) Opening of stomata
Ans: (c) Imbibition is a special type of diffusion. A classic example of imbibition is absorption of water by seeds and dry wood.

Q7. When a plant undergoes senescence, the nutrients may be
(a) accumulated
(b) bound to cell wall
(c) translocated
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c) Mineral ions are frequently remobilized (translocation), particularly from older senescing parts. Before the leaf fall in deciduous plants, minerals are translocated to other parts.

Q8. Water potential of pure water at standard temperature is equal to
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) Zero
(d) None of these
Ans: (c) The water potential of pure water at standard temperature is equal to zero.

Q9. Choose the correct option. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of fungus with root system which helps in A. Absorption of water B. Mineral nutrition
C. Translocation D. Gaseous exchange
(a) Only A
(b) Only B –
(c) Both A and B
(d) Both B and C
Ans: (c) Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association of fungus with root system which helps in absorption of water and mineral nutrition.

Q10. Based on the figure given below, which of the following statements is not correct?
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants Img 1
(a) Movement of solvent molecules will take place from chamber AtoB
(b) Movement of solute will take place from A to B
(c) Presence of a semipermeable is a prerequisite for this process to occur
(d) The direction and rate of osmosis depends on both the pressure gradient and concentration gradient.
Ans: (b) The movement of solute will take place from B to A

Q11. Match the following and choose the correct option.

A. Leaves (i) Anti-transpirant
B. Seed (ii) Transpiration
C. Roots (iii) Negative osmotic potential
D. Aspirin (iv) Imbibition ‘
E. Plasmolyzed cell (v) Absorption

Options:
(a) A—(ii), B—(iv), C—(v), D—(i), E—(iii)
(b) A—(iii), B—(ii), C—(iv), D—(i), E—(v)
(c) A—(i), B—(ii), C—(iii), D—(iv), E—(v)
(d) A—(v), B—(iv), C—(iii), D—(ii), E—(i)
Ans: (a)

A. Leaves (ii) Transpiration
B. Seed (iv) Imbibition
e. Roots (v) Absorption
D. Aspirin (i) Anti-transpirant
E. Plasmolyzed cell (ii) Negative osmotic potential

 

Q12. Mark the mismatched pair.
(a) Amyloplast—Store protein granule
(b) Elaioplast—Store oils or fats
(c) Chloroplasts—Contain chlorophyll pigments
(d) Chromoplasts—Contain coloured pigments other than chlorophyll
Ans: (a) Aleuroplasts—Store proteins
Amyloplast—Store carbohydrate (starch)
Very Short Answer Type Questions .
Q1. Smaller, lipid soluble molecules diffuse faster through cell membrane, but the movement of hydrophilic substances are facilitated by certain transporters which are chemically ________.
Ans: Protein

Q2. In a passive transport across a membrane, when two protein molecules move in opposite direction and independent of each other, it is called as ________
Ans: Antiport

Q3. Osmosis is a special kind of’diffusion, in which water diffuses across the cell membrane. The rate and direction of osmosis depends upon both ________
Ans: Pressure and concentration gradient

Q4. A flowering plant is planted in an earthen pot and irrigated. Urea is added to make the plant grow faster, but after some time the plant dies. This may be due to ________.
Ans: Exosmosis

Q5. Absorption of water from soil by dry seeds increases the ________ thus helping seedlings to come out of soil.
Ans: Pressure

Q6. Water moves up against gravity and even for a tree of 20 m height, the tip receives water within two hours. The most important physiological phenomenon which is responsible for the upward movement of water is _________
Ans: Transpiration pull

Q7. The plant cell cytoplasm is surrounded by both cell wall and cell membrane. The specificity of transport of substances are mostly across the cell membrane, because _________ .
Ans: The cell wall is freely permeable to water and substances in solutions but membrane is selectively permeable.

Q8. The C4 plants are twice as efficient as C3 plants in terms of fixing C02 but lose only _________ as much water as C3 plants for the same amount of C02 fixed.
Ans: Half

Q9. Movement of substances in xylem is unidirectional while in phloem it is bidirectional. Explain.
Ans: The direction of movement in the phloem can be upwards or downwards, i.e. bi-directional. This contrasts with that of the xylem where the movement is always unidirectional, i.e. upwards. Hence, unlike one-way flow of water in transpiration, food in phloem sap can be transported in any required direction, as it is a source of sugar and works as a sink to use, store or remove the sugar

Q10. Identify the process occurring in I, II and III.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants Img 2
Ans:
I—Uniport facilitated diffusion
II— Antiport facilitated diffusion
III— Symport facilitated diffusion

Q11. Given below is a table. Fill in the gaps.

Property Simple

diffusion

Facilitated

transport

Active

transport

i. Highly selective Yes
ii. Uphill transport Yes
iii. Requires ATP

Ans:

Property Simple

diffusion

Facilitated

transport

Active

transport

i. Highly selective No Yes Yes
ii. Uphill transport No No , Yes
iii. Requires ATP No No Yes

Q12. Define water potential and solute potential.
Ans: Water potential is considered as the potential energy of water. It is also taken as a measure of the difference between the potential energy in a given sample of wafer and pure water.
If a solute is dissolved in pure water, the solution is considered having fewer free water and hence the concentration of water decreases. Thus, all solutions have lower water potential than pure water. The magnitude of lowering in water potential due to dissolution of solute is called solute potential.

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We hope the NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 11 Transport in Plants, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. Which one of the following roles is not a characteristic of an essential element?
(a) Being a component of biomolecules
(b) Changing the chemistry of soil
(c) Being a structural component of energy-related chemical compounds
(d) – Activation or inhibition of enzymes
Ans: (b)
(i) Essential elements as components of biomolecules and hence structural elements of cells.
(ii) Essential elements that are components of energy-related chemical compounds in plants.
(iii) Essential elements that activate or inhibit enzymes.
(iv) Some essential elements can alter the osmotic potential of a cell.

Q2. Which one of the following statements can best explain the term critical concentration of an essential element?
(a) Essential element concentration below which plant growth is retarded
(b) Essential element concentration below which plant growth becomes enhanced
(c) Essential element concentration below which plant remains in the vegetative phase
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a) The concentration of the essential element below which plant growth is retarded is termed as critical concentration.

Q3. Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves. It indicates that the element is relatively immobile. Which one of the following elemental deficiency would show such symptoms?
(a) Sulphur (b) Magnesium (c) Nitrogen (d) Potassium
Ans: (a) The deficiency symptoms tend to appear first in the young tissues whenever the elements are relatively immobile and are not transported out of the mature organs, e.g., S and Ca.

Q4. Which one of the following symptoms is not due to manganese toxicity in plants?
(a) Calcium translocation in shoot apex is inhibited
(b) Deficiency in both Iron and Nitrogen is induced
(c) Appearance of brown spot surrounded by chlorotic veins
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Excess of manganese may, in fact, induce deficiencies of iron, magnesium and calcium.

Q5. Reaction carried out by N2 fixing microbes include
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition Img 1
Which of the following statements about those equations is not true?
(a) Step (i) is carried out by Nitrosomonas or Nitrococcus
(b) Step (ii) is carried out by Nitrobacter
(c) Both steps (i) and (ii) can be called nitrification
(d) Bacteria carrying out these steps are usually photoautotrophs
Ans:(d) Bacteria carrying out these steps are usually chemoautotrophs.

Q6. With regard to the Biological Nitrogen Fixation by Rhizobium in association with soyabean, which one of the following statement/statements does not hold true?
(a) Nitrogenase may require oxygen to its functioning
(b) Nitrogenase is Mo-Fe protein
(c) Leghaemoglobin is a pink coloured pigment
(d) Nitrogenase helps to convert N2 gas into two molecules of ammonia
Ans:(a) Nitrogenase is highly sensitive to molecular oxygen (02), thus requires
anaerobic conditions. Nodules have adaptations that ensure that the enzyme is protected from 02. To protect nitrogehase, nodule contains an 02-scavenger celled leghaemoglobin.

Q7. Match the element with its associated functions/roles and choose the correct option among the given below.

A. Boron (i)

V

Splitting of H20 to liberate 02 during photosynthesis
B. Manganese (ii) Needed for synthesis of auxins
C. Molybdenum (iii) Component of nitrogenase
D. Zinc (iv) Pollen germination
E. Iron (v) Component of ferredoxin

Options:
(a) A—(i), B—(ii), C—(iii). D—(iv), E—(v)
(b) A—(iv), B—(i), C—(iii), D—(ii), E—(v)
(c) . A—(iii), B—(ii), C—(iv), D—(v), E—(i)
(d) A—(ii), B—(iii), C—(v), D—(i), E—(iv)
Ans: (b)

A. Boron (iv) Pollen germination
B. Manganese (0 Splitting of H20 to liberate 02 during photosynthesis
C. Molybdenum (iii) Component of nitrogenase
D. Zinc (ii) Needed for synthesis of auxins
E. Iron (v) Component of ferredoxin

Q8. Plants can be grown in (Tick the incorrect option).
(a) Soil with essential nutrients
(b) Water with essential nutrients
(c) Either water or soil with essential nutrients
(d) Water or soil without essential nutrients
Ans: (d) Plants can be grown in soil with essential nutrients, water with essential nutrients and either water or soil with essential nutrients.

Very Short Answer Type Questions
Q1. Name a plant, which accumulates silicon.
Ans: Rice, sugarcane, etc.

Q2. Mycorrohiza is a mutualistic association. How do the organisms involved in this association gain from each other?
Ans: Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between a fungus and the roots of a vascular plant. Through mycorrhization, the plant obtains phosphate and other minerals, such as zinc and copper, from the soil. The fungus obtains nutrients, such as sugars, from the plant root.

Q3. Nitrogen fixation is shown by prokaryotes and not eukaryotes. Comment?
Ans: Very few living organisms can utilise the nitrogen in the form N2, available
abundantly in the air. Only certain prokaryotic species are capable of fixing nitrogen. The enzyme, nitrogenase which is capable of nitrogen reduction is present exclusively in prokaryotes. Such microbes are called N2-fixers.

Q4. Carnivorous plants like Nepenthes and Venus fly trap have nutritional adaptations. Which nutrient do they especially obtain and from where?
Ans: Carnivorous plants grow in nitrogen deficient soil but they utilise their nitrogen by killing the insect by some special structure.

Q5. Think of a plant which lacks chlorophyll. From where will it obtain nutrition? Give an example of such a type of plant.
Ans: Cuscuta, a parasitic plant that is commonly found growing on hedge plants, has lost its chlorophyll and leaves in the course of evolution. It derives its nutrition from the host plant which it parasitises.

Q6. Name an insectivorous angiosperm.
Ans: Nepenthes, Utricularia, Drosera, Dionea, etc.

Q7. A farmer adds Azotobacter culture to soil before sowing maize. Which mineral element is being replenished?
Ans: Nitrogen

Q8. What type of conditions are created by leghaemoglobin in the root nodule of a legume?
Ans: Anaerobic condition

Q9. What is common to Nepenthes, Utricularia and Drosera with regard to mode of nutrition?
Ans: All are carnivorous plant (angiosperms).

Q10. Plants with zinc deficiency show reduced biosynthesis of .
Ans: Auxin

Q11. Yellowish edges appear in leaves deficient in .
Ans: K (potassium)

Q12. Name the macronutrient which is a component of all organic compounds but is not obtained from soil.
Ans: Carbon

Q13. Name one non-symbiotic nitrogen fixing prokaryote.
Ans: (i) Free-living (non-symbiotic) and non photosynthetic aerobic N2-fixing microbes: Azotobacter and Beijernickia.
(ii) Free-living and anaerobic N2-fixing microbes: Rhodospirillum, Bacillus polymyxa and Clostridium.

Q14. Rice fields produce an important green house gas. Name it.
Ans: CH4 (methane) .

Q15. Complete the equation for reductive amination
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition Img 2

Q16. Excess of Mn in soil leads to deficiency of Ca, Mg and Fe. Justify.
Ans: Manganese competes with iron and magnesium for uptake and with magnesium for binding with enzymes. Manganese also inhibits calcium translocation in shoot apex. Therefore, excess of manganese may, in fact, induce deficiencies of iron, magnesium and calcium. Thus, what appears as symptoms of manganese toxicity may actually be the deficiency symptoms of iron, magnesium and calcium.

Short Answer Type Questions
Q1. How is sulphur important for plants? Name the amino acids in which it is present.
Ans: Sulphur, besides being present in some amino acids essential for protein synthesis, is also a constituent of several coenzymes, vitamins and ferredoxin which are involved in some biochemical pathway.

Q2. How are organisms like Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus of great significance in nitrogen cycle?
Ans: Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus carry out denitrification process wherein the nitrate present in the soil is reduced to nitrogen thus contributing to the atmospheric nitrogen.

Q3. Carefully observe the following figure:
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition Img 3
a. Name the technique shown in the figure and the scientist who demonstrated this technique for the first time.
b. Name at least three plants for which this technique can be employed for their commercial production.
c. What is the significance of aerating tube and feeding funnel in this setup?
Ans: a. Hydroponics, Julius von Sachs.
b. Tomato, seedless cucumber, lettuce.
c. Aerating tube ensures adequate aeration of the root for optimum growth of the plant. The funnel is used to release water and nutrients into the container with nutrient solution. This solution needs to be replaced every day or two for maximum growth.

Q4. Name the most crucial enzyme found in root nodules for N2 fixation. Does it require a special pink coloured pigment for its functioning? Elaborate.
Ans: Nitrogenase. Yes, it does require the presence of a pink-coloured pigment in the nodule called leghaemoglobin for its functioning. This pigment helps in scavenging oxygen as nitrogenase functions under anaerobic condition.

Q5. How are the terms ‘critical concentration’ and ‘deficient’ different from each other in terms of concentration of an essential element in plants? Can you find the values of ‘critical concentration’ and ‘deficient’ for minerals – Fe and Zn?
Ans: The concentration of the essential element below which plant growth is retarded is termed as critical concentration. The element is said to be deficient when present below the critical concentration. Yes. one can find the values of ‘critical concentration’ and ‘deficient’ for minerals – Fe and Zn through the hydroponics technique.

Q6. Carnivorous plants exhibit nutritional adaptation. Citing an example explain this fact.
Ans: Carnivorous plants have green leaves so they are autotrophic but they grow in nitrogen deficient soil. For nitrogen requirement they capture and digest the insects so they are partially heterotrophic nature.

Q7. A farrper adds/supplies Na, Ca, Mg and Fe regularly to his field and yet he observes that the plants show deficiency of Ca, Mg and Fe. Give a valid reason and suggest a way to help the farmer improve the growth of plants.
Ans: This is due to the manganese toxicity. Many a times, excess of an element may inhibit the uptake of another element. For example, the prominent symptom of manganese toxicity is the appearance of brown spots surrounded by chlorotic veins. Manganese competes with iron and magnesium for uptake and with magnesium for binding with enzymes. Manganese also inhibits calcium translocation in shoot apex. Therefore, excess of manganese may, in fact, induce deficiencies of iron, magnesium and calcium.
• The farmer should not supplies Mn to his field.

Long Answer Type Questions
Q1. It is observed that deficiency of a particular element showed its symptoms initially in older leaves and then in younger leaves.
a. Does it indicate that the element is actively mobilised or relatively immobile?
b. Name two elements which are highly mobile and two which are relatively immobile.
c. How is the aspect of mobility of elements important to horticulture and agriculture?
Ans: a. It is actively mobilised.
b. Highly mobile—nitrogen, magnesium Relatively immobile—calcium, boron
c. Symptoms of deficiency of mobile elements are more pronounced in older leaves and symptoms of deficiency of relatively immobile element appear first in younger leaves. This information can be utilised by horticulturist and agriculturist to get a broad idea of the deficiency elements in plants.

Q2. We find that Rhizobium forms nodules on the roots of leguminous plants. Also, Frankia another microbe forms nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of non-leguminous plant
Alnus.
a. Can we artificially induce the property of nitrogen fixation in a plant —leguminous or non-leguminous?
b. What kind of relationship is observed between mycorrihiza and pine trees?
c. Is it necessary for a microbe to be in close association with a plant to provide mineral nutrition? Explain with the help of one example.
Ans:  a. Yes, one can artificially induce the property of nitrogen fixation in a plant—leguminous or non-leguminous through genetic engineering which involves introduction of specific genes to the host plant that synthesises nitrogenase enzymes.
b. Symbiotic relationship
c. Yes, it is necessary for a microbe to be in close association with a plant to provide mineral nutrition as seen in leguminous plants. Species of rod-shaped Rhizobium has such relationship with the roots of several legumes such as alfalfa, sweet clover, sweet pea, lentils, garden pea, broad bean, clover beans, etc. The most common association on roots is as nodules. The nodule contains all the necessary biochemical components, such as the enzyme nitrogenase and leghaemoglobin. The enzyme nitrogenase is an Mo-Fe protein and catalyses the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia.

Q3. What are essential elements for plants? Give the criteria of essentiality. How are minerals classified depending upon the amount in which they are needed by the plants?
Ans: Essential elements: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorous, sulphur, potassium, calcium, magnesium, iron, manganese, copper, molybdenum, zinc, boron, chlorine and nickel.
Criteria for Essentiality:
The criteria for essentiality of an element are given below:
(a) The element must be absolutely necessary for supporting normal growth and reproduction. In the absence of the element, the plants do not complete their life cycle or set the seeds.
(b) The requirement of the element must be specific and not replaceable by another element. In other words, deficiency of any one element cannot be met by supplying some other element.
(c) The element must be directly involved in the metabolism of the plant. Based upon the above criteria only a few elements have been found to be absolutely essential for plant growth and metabolism. These elements are further divided into two broad categories based on their quantitative requirements.
(i) Macronutrients and
(ii) Micronutrients
Macronutrients are generally present in plant tissues in large amounts (in excess of 10 mmole kg~’ of dry matter). The macronutrients include carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorous, sulphur, potassium, calcium and magnesium. Of these, carbon, hydrogen and oxygen are mainly obtained from C02 and H20, while the others are absorbed from the soil as mineral nutrition.
Micronutrients or trace elements are needed in very small amounts (less than 10 mmole kg-1 of dry matter). These include iron, manganese, copper, molybdenum, zinc, boron, chlorine and nickel.

Q4. With the help of examples describe the classification of essential elements based on the function they perform.
Ans: Essential elements can also be grouped into four broad categories on the basis of their diverse functions. These categories are:
(i) Essential elements as components of biomolecules and hence structural elements of cells (e.g., carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen).
(ii) Essential elements that are components of energy-related chemical compounds in plants (e.g., magnesium in chlorophyll and phosphorous in ATP).
(iii) Essential elements that activate or inhibit enzymes, for example Mg2+ is an activator for both ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase and phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase, both of which are critical enzymes in photosynthetic carbon fixation; Zn +is an activator of alcohol dehydrogenase and Mo of nitrogenase during nitrogen metabolism.
(iv) Some essential elements can alter the osmotic potential of a cell. Potassium plays an important role in the opening and closing of stomata. Minerals also play role as solutes in determining the water potential of a cell.

Q5. We know that plants require nutrients. If we supply these in excess, will it be beneficial to the plants? If yes, how/ If no, why?
Ans: No, excess supply of nutrients is not beneficial for the plants. It is toxic to the plants. Any mineral ion concentration in tissues that reduces the dry weight of tissues by about 10% is considered toxic. Such critical concentrations vary widely among different micronutrients. The toxicity symptoms are difficult to identify. Toxicity levels for any element also vary for different plants. Many a times, excess of an element may inhibit the uptake of another element. For example, the prominent symptom of manganese toxicity is the appearance of brown spots surrounded by chlorotic veins. It is important to know that manganese competes with iron and magnesium for uptake and with magnesium for binding with enzymes. Manganese also inhibits calcium translocation in shoot apex. Therefore, excess of manganese may, in fact, induce deficiencies of iron, magnesium and calcium.

Q6. Trace the events starting from the coming in contact of Rhizobiwn to a leguminous root till nodule formation. Add a note on importance of leghaemoglobin.
Ans: Nodule Formation: Nodule formation involves a sequence of multiple interactions between Rhizobium and roots of the host plant. Principal stages in the nodule formation are summarised as follows: Rhizobia multiply and colonise the surroundings of roots and get attached to epidermal and root-hair cells. The root-hairs curl and the bacteria invade the root-hairs. An infection thread is produced carrying the bacteria into the cortex of the root, where they initiate the nodule formation in the cortex of the root. Then the bacteria are released from the thread into the cells which leads to the differentiation of specialised nitrogen fixing cells. The nodule thus formed, establishes a direct vascular connection with the host for exchange of nutrients.
Importance of leghemoglobin: The enzyme nitrogenase is highly sensitive to the molecular oxygen; it requires anaerobic conditions. The nodules have adaptations that ensure that the enzyme is protected from oxygen. To protect these enzymes, the nodule contains an oxygen scavenger called leghaemoglobin. It is interesting to note that these microbes live as aerobes under free-living conditions (where nitrogenase is not operational), but during nitrogen-fixing events, they become anaerobic (thus protecting the nitrogenase enzyme).

Q7. Give the biochemical events occurring in the root nodule of a pulse plant. What is the end product? What is its fate?
Ans: The nodule contains all the necessary biochemical components, such as the enzyme nitrogenase and leghaemoglobin. The enzyme nitrogenase is an Mo-Fe protein and catalyses the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia, the first stable product of nitrogen fixation.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition Img 4
• Glutamic acid is the main amino acid from which transfer of NH2 (amino group) takes place and other amino acids are formed through transamination. Enzyme transaminase catalyses all such reactions.
For example, the two most important amides (asparagine and glutamine) found in plants are a structural part of proteins.
• Asparagine formed from aspartic acid and glutamine is formed from glutamic acid by addition of amino group to each. The hydroxyl part of the acid is replaced by another NH2 radicle.

Q8. Hydroponics have been shown to be a successful technique for growing of plants. Yet most of the crops are still grown on land. Why?
Ans: The technique of growing plants in anutrient solution is known as hydroponics. Since, then a number of improvised methods have been employed to try and determine the mineral nutrients essential for plants. The essence of all these methods involves the culture of plants in a soil-free, defined mineral solution. These methods require purified water and mineral nutrient salts. Hydroponics has been successfully employed as a technique for the commercial production of vegetables such as tomato, seedless cucumber and lettuce.
Yet most of the crops are still grown on land because it must be emphasised that the nutrient solutions must be adequately aerated to obtain the optimum growth. On land no such conditions are required.

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We hope the NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Mineral Nutrition, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. The ultimate electron acceptor of respiration in an aerobic organism is
(a) Cytochrome (b) Oxygen
(c) Hydrogen (d) Glucose
Ans: (b) The ultimate electron acceptor of respiration in an aerobic organism is oxygen.

Q2. Phosphorylation of glucose during glycolysis is catalyzed by
(a) Phosphoglucomutase (b) Phosphoglucoisomerase
(c) Hexokinase (d) Phosphorylase
Ans: (c) Phosphorylation of glucose during glycolysis is catalyzed by hexokinase.

Q3. Pyruvic acid, the key product of glycolysis can have many metabolic fates. Under aerobic condition it forms
(a) Lactic acid
(b) C02 + H20
(c) Acetyl CoA + C02
(d) Ethanol + CO
Ans: (c) Pyruvic acid, the key product of glycolysis can have many metabolic fates. Under aerobic condition it forms Acetyl CoA + CO2.

Q4. Electron Transport System (ETS) is located in mitochondrial
(a) Outer membrane
(b) Inter membrane space
(c) Inner membrane
(d) Matrix
Ans: (c) Electron Transport System (ETS) is located in mitochondrial inner membrane.

Q5. Which of the following exhibits the highest rate of respiration? .
(a) Growing shoot apex
(b) Germinating seed
(c) Root tip
(d) Leaf bud
Ans: (b) Germinating seed exhibits the highest rate of respiration.

Q6. Mitochondria are called powerhouses of the cell. Which of the following observations support this statement?
(a) Mitochondria synthesise ATP
(b) Mitochondria have a double membrane .
(c) The en2ymes of the Krebs’ cycle and the cytochromes are found in mitochondria
(d) Mitochondria are found in almost all plant and animal cells
Ans: (a) Mitochondria are called powerhouses of the cell because mitochondria synthesise ATP.

Q7. The end product of oxidative phosphorylation is
(a) NADH
(b) Oxygen
(c) ADP
(d) ATP + H20
Ans: (d) The end product of oxidative phosphorylation isATP+H2o.

Q8. Match the following and choose the correct option from those given below.

Column A Column B
A. Molecular oxygen (i) a-Ketoglutaric acid
B. Electron acceptor (ii) Hydrogen acceptor
C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase (iii) Cytochrome C
D. Decarboxylation (iv) Acetyl Co A

(a) A—(ii), B—(iii), C—(iv), D—(i)
(b) A—(iii), B—(iv), C—(ii), D—(i)
(c) A—(ii), B—(i), C—(iii), D—(iv)
(d) A—(iv), B—(iii), C—(i), D—(ii)

Ans. (a)

A. Molecular oxygen (ii) Hydrogen acceptor
B. Electron acceptor (iii) Cytochrome C
C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase (iv) Acetyl Co A
D. Decarboxylation (i) a-Ketoglutaric acid

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Energy is released during the oxidation of compounds in respiration. How is this energy stored and released as and when it is needed?
Ans: Energy released during the oxidation of compounds in respiration is immediately stored in ATP in the form of chemical bonds.
ADP + iP + energy —> ATP
As and when needed, this bond energy is broken and utilised
ATP —> ADP + iP + energy

Q2. Explain the term “Energy Currency”. Which substance acts as energy currency in plants and animals?
Ans: Every function of the cell requires energy. Energy currency stores and releases the energy as and when needed in the cell. ATP is called energy currency in both plants and animals.

Q3. Different substrates get oxidized during respiration. How does Respiratory Quotient (RQ) indicate which type of substrate, i.e., carbohydrate, fat or protein is getting oxidized?
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants Img 1

Q5. When does anaerobic respiration occur in man and yeast?
Ans: In alcoholic fermentation (by yeast), incomplete oxidation of glucose occurs under anaerobic conditions by sets of reactions where pyruvic acid is converted to ethanol and C02.
PA —> Ethanol + C02
In animal cells also, like muscles during exercise, when oxygen is inadequate for cellular respiration pyruvic acid is reduced to lactic acid.

Q6. Which of the following will release more energy on oxidation? Arrange them in ascending order?
a. 1 g of fat b. 1 g of protein
c. 1 g of glucose
d. 0.5 g of protein + 0.5 g glucose
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants Img 2

Q7. The product of aerobic glycolysis in skeletal muscle and anaerobic fermentation in yeast are respectively ________ and ______.
Ans. The product of aerobic glycolysis in skeletal muscle and anaerobic fermentation in yeast are respectively pyruvic acid and ethanol + CO2.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. If a person is feeling dizzy, glucose or fruit juice is given immediately but not a cheese sandwich, which might have more energy. Explain.
Ans: Glucose or fruit juice is absorbed easily through the alimentary canal. In the cells glucose is oxidised and energy is released immediately. A cheese sandwich provides energy after digestion and absorption which takes long time.

Q2. What is meant by the statement “aerobic respiration is more efficient”?
Ans: Aerobic respiration is more efficient because fermentation accounts for
only a partial breakdown of glucose, whereas in aerobic respiration it is completely degraded to C02 and H20. Also, in fermentation there is a net gain of only two molecules of ATP for each molecule of glucose degraded to pyruvic acid, whereas many more molecules of ATP are generated under aerobic conditions.

Q3. Pyruvic acid is the end product of glycolysis. What are the three metabolic fates of pyruvic acid under aerobic and anaerobic conditions? Write in the space provided in the diagram.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants Img 3
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants Img 4

Q4. The energy yield in terms of ATP is higher in aerobic respiration than during anaerobic respiration. Why is there anaerobic respiration even in organisms that live in aerobic condition like human beings and angiosperms?
Ans: Anaerobic respiration even in organisms that live in aerobic condition like human beings and angiosperms due to the oxygen deficiency. In our skeletal muscles during strenuous exercise oxygen deficiency leads to anaerobic respiration. In germinating seeds anaerobic respiration leads to release of energy for emerging the seedling from the soil.

Q5. Oxygen is an essential requirement for aerobic respiration but it enters the respiratory process at the end? Discuss.
Ans: Although the aerobic process of respiration takes place only in the presence of oxygen, the role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage of the process. Yet, the presence of oxygen is vital, since it drives the whole process by removing hydrogen from the system. Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor.

Q6. Respiration is an energy releasing and enzymatically controlled catabolic process which involves a step-wise oxidative breakdown of organic substances inside living cells. In this statement about respiration explain the meaning of
1. Step-wise oxidative breakdown and
2. Organic substances (used as substrates).
Ans: 1. Step-wise oxidative breakdown: During oxidation within a cell, all the energy contained in respiratory substrates is not released free into
the cell, or in a single step. It is released in a series of slow step-wise reactions controlled by enzymes, and it is trapped as chemical energy in the form of ATP. Hence, it is important to understand that the energy released by oxidation in respiration is not (or rather cannot be) used directly but is used to synthesise ATP, which is broken down whenever (and wherever) energy needs to be utilised.
2. Organic substances (used as substrates): The compounds that are oxidised during this process are known as respiratory substrates. Usually carbohydrates are oxidised to release energy, but proteins, fats and even organic acids can be used as respiratory substances in some plants, under certain conditions.

Q7. Comment on the statement – Respiration is an energy producing process but ATP is being used in some steps of the process.
Ans: In the respiration pathway, there are some steps where energy is utilised for phosphorylation. For example, conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate consume one ATP. But at the end of the respiratory process many more ATP are produced.

Q8. The figure given below shows the steps in glycolysis. Fill in the missing steps A, B, C, D and also indicate whether ATP is being used up or released at step E?
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants Img 5
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants Img 6

Q9. Why is respiratory pathway referred to as an amphibolic pathway? Explain.
Ans: During breakdown and synthesis of protein, respiratory intermediates form the link. Breaking down processes within the living organism is catabolism, and synthesis is anabolism. Because the respiratory pathway is involved in both anabolism and catabolism, it would hence be better to consider the respiratory pathway as an amphibolic pathway rather than as a catabolic one.

Q10. We commonly call ATP as the energy currency of the cell. Can you think of some other energy carriers present in a cell? Name any two.
Ans: Yes, some other energy carriers are also present in a cell like GTP (guanosine triphosphate), ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and creatine phosphate.

Q11. ATP produced during glycolysis is a result of substrate level phosphorylation. Explain.
Ans: ATP produced during glycolysis is a result of substrate level phosphorylation because these ATP are produced without the electron transport system (ETS) and chemiosmosis.
During substrate level phosphorylation ATP is directly synthesised from ADP and inorganic phosphate (iP).

Q12. Do you know any step in the TCA cycle where there is substrate level phosphorylation. Which one?
Ans: During TCA cycle there is one step where substrate level phosphorylation takes place. This occurs during conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinic acid.

Q13. In a way green plants and cyanobacteria have synthesised all the food on the earth. Comment.
Ans: All the energy required for ‘life’ processes is obtained by oxidation of some macromolecules that we call ‘food’. Only green plants and cyanobacteria can prepare their own food; by the process of photosynthesis they trap light energy and convert it into chemical energy that is stored in the bonds of carbohydrates like glucose, sucrose and starch.

Q14.When a substrate is being metabolised, why does not all the energy that is produced get released in one step? It is released in multiple steps. What is the advantage of step-wise release?
Ans: The complete combustion of glucose, which produces C02 and H20 as end products, yields energy most of which is given out as heat.
C6H12O6  +  6O2  —> 6CO2+ 6H2O + Energy
If this energy is to be useful to the cell, it should be able to utilise it to synthesise other molecules that the cell requires. The strategy that the plant cell uses is to catabolise the glucose molecule in such a way that not all the liberated energy goes out as heat. The key is to oxidise glucose not in one step but. in several small steps enabling some steps to be just large enough such that the energy released can be coupled to ATP synthesis.

Q15. Respiration requires 02. How did the first cells on the earth manage to survive in an atmosphere that lacked 02?
Ans: During the process of respiration, oxygen is utilised, and carbon dioxide, water and energy are released as products. The combustion reaction requires oxygen. But some cells live where oxygen may or may not be available. There are sufficient reasons to believe that the first cells on this planet lived in an atmosphere that lacked oxygen. Even among present-day living organisms, we know of several that are adapted to anaerobic conditions.

Q16. It is known that red muscle fibres in animals can work for longer periods of time continuously. How is this possible?
Ans: Muscle contains a red coloured oxygen storing pigment called myoglobin. Myoglobin content is high in some of the muscles which gives a reddish appearance. Such muscles are called the Red fibres. These muscles also contain plenty of mitochondria which can utilise the large amount of oxygen stored in them for ATP production. These muscles, therefore, can also be called aerobic muscles.

Q17. The energy yield in terms of ATP is higher in aerobic respiration than during anaerobic respiration. Explain.
Ans: The energy yield in terms of ATP is higher in aerobic respiration than during anaerobic respiration because fermentation (anaerobic respiration) accounts
for only a partial breakdown erf glucose, whereas in aerobic respiration it is completely degraded to CO2 and H2O. So, in fermentation there is a net gain of only two molecules of ATP for each molecule of glucose degraded to pyruvic acid, whereas many more molecules of ATP are generated under aerobic conditions.

Q18. RuBP carboxylase, PEPcase, Pyruvate dehydrogenase, ATPase, cytochrome oxidase, Hexokinase, Lactate dehydrogenase. Select/choose enzymes from the list above which are involved in
a. Photosynthesis
b. Respiration
c. Both in photosynthesis and respiration
Ans: a. Photosynthesis: RuBP carboxylase, PEPcase, ATPase
b. Respiration: Hexokinase, ATPase, Pyruvate dehydrogenase, Cytochrome oxidase
c. Both in photosynthesis and respiration: ATPase

Q19. How does a tree trunk exchange gases with the environment although it lacks stomata?
Ans: In stems, the ‘living’ cells are organised in thin layers inside and beneath the bark. They also have openings called lenticels. The cells in the interior are dead and provide only mechanical support. Thus, most cells of a plant have at least a part of their surface in contact with air. This is also facilitated by the loose packing of parenchyma cells in leaves, stems and roots, which provide an interconnected network of air spaces.

Q20. Write two energy yielding reactions of glycolysis.
Ans: The conversion of BPGA to 3-phosphoglyceric acid (PGA), is an energy yielding process; this energy is trapped by the formation of ATP. Another ATP is synthesised during the conversion of PEP to pyruvic acid.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants Img 7
Q21. Name the site(s) of pyruvate synthesis. Also, write the chemical reaction wherein pyruvic acid dehydrogenase acts as a catalyst.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants Img 8

Q22.Mention the important series of events of aerobic respiration that occurs in the matrix of the mitochondrion as well as one that takes place in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion.
Ans: For aerobic respiration to take place within the mitochondria, the final product of glycolysis, pyruvate is transported from the cytoplasm into the mitochondria. The crucial events in aerobic respiration are:
The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms, leaving three molecules of C02.

The passing on of the electrons removed as part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular 02 with simultaneous synthesis of ATP. What is interesting to note is that the first process takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria while the second process is located on the inner membrane of the mitochondria.

Q23.Respiratory pathway is believed to be a catabolic pathway. However, nature of TCA cycle is amphibolic. Explain.
Ans: During breakdown and synthesis of protein, respiratory intermediates form the link. Breaking down processes within the living organism is catabolism, and synthesis is anabolism. Because the respiratory pathway is involved in both anabolism and catabolism, it would hence be better to consider the respiratory pathway as an amphibolic pathway rather than as a catabolic one.

Long Answer Type Questions
Q1. In the following flow chart, replace the symbols a,b,c and d with appropriate terms. Briefly explain the process and give any two application of it.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants Img 9
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants Img 10

Q2. Given below is a diagram showing ATP synthesis during aerobic respiration, replace the symbols A, B,C,D and E by appropriate terms given in the box.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Respiration in Plants Img 11

Q3. Oxygen is critical for aerobic respiration. Explain its role with respect to ETS.
Ans: Although the aerobic process of respiration takes place only in the presence of oxygen, the role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage of the process. Yet, the presence of oxygen is vital, since it drives the whole process by removing hydrogen from the system. Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor. Unlike photophosphorylation where it is the light energy that is utilised for the production of proton gradient required for phosphorylation, in respiration it is the energy of oxidation-reduction utilised for the same process. It is for this reason that the process is called oxidative phosphorylation.

Q4. Enumerate the assumptions that we undertake in making the respiratory balance sheet. Are these assumptions valid for a living system? Compare fermentation and aerobic respiration in this context.
Ans: The Respiratory Balance Sheet:
It is possible to make calculations of the net gain of ATP for every glucose molecule oxidised; but in reality this can remain only a theoretical exercise. These calculations can be made only on certain assumptions that:
There is a sequential, orderly pathway functioning, with one substrate forming the next and with glycolysis, TCA cycle and ETS pathway following one after another.
The NADH synthesised in glycolysis is transferred into the mitochondria and undergoes oxidative phosphorylation.
None of the intermediates in the pathway are utilised to synthesise any other compound.
Only glucose is being respired – no other alternative substrates are entering in the pathway at any of the intermediary stages. But this kind of assumptions are not really valid in a living system; all pathways work simultaneously and do not take place one after another; substrates enter the pathways and are withdrawn from it as and when necessary; ATP is utilised as and when needed; enzymatic rates are controlled by multiple means. Yet, it is useful to do this exercise to appreciate the beauty and efficiency of the living system in extraction and storing energy. Hence, there can be a net gain of 36 ATP molecules during aerobic respiration of one molecule of glucose.

Q5. Give an account of Glycolysis. Where does it occur? What are the end products? Trace the fate of these products in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Ans: Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell and is present in all living organisms. In this process, glucose undergoes partial oxidation to form two molecules of pyruvic acid. In plants, this glucose is derived from sucrose, which is the end product of photosynthesis, or from storage carbohydrates. Sucrose is converted into glucose and fructose by the enzyme, invertase, and these two monosaccharides readily enter the glycolytic pathway. Glucose and fructose are phosphorylated to give rise to glucose-6-phosphate by the activity of the enzyme hexokinase. This phosphorylated form of glucose then isomerises to produce fructose-6-phosphate. Subsequent steps of metabolism of glucose and fructose are same. In glycolysis, a chain of ten reactions,
under the control of different enzymes, takes place to produce pyruvate from glucose. Pyruvic acid is then the key product of glycolysis. The metabolic fate of pyruvate depends on the cellular need. There are three major ways in which different cells handle pyruvic acid produced by glycolysis. These are lactic acid fermentation, alcoholic fermentation and aerobic respiration. Fermentation takes place under anaerobic conditions in many prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes. For the complete oxidation of glucose to C02 and H20, however, organisms adopt Krebs’ cycle which is also called as aerobic respiration. This requires 02 supply.

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. Respiration in insects is called direct because ‘

(a) The cells exchange 02/C02 directly with the air in the tubes
(b) The tissues exchange 02/C02 directly with coelomic fluid
(c) The tissues exchange 02/C02 directly with the air outside through body surface
(d) “ Tracheal tubes exchange 02/C02 directly with the haemocoel which then exchange with tissues
Ans: (d) Respiration in insects is called direct because tracheal tubes exchange 02/C02 directly with the haemocoel which then exchange with tissues.

Q2.A person suffers punctures in his chest cavity in an accident, without any damage to the lungs, its effect could be
(a) Reduced breathing rate
(b) Rapid increase in breathing rate
(c) No change in respiration                 
(d) Cessation of breathing
Ans: (d)A person suffers punctures in his chest cavity in an accident, without any damage to the lungs, its effect could be cessation of breathing.

Q3. It is known that exposure to carbon monoxide is harmful to animals because
(a) It reduces C02 transport
(b) It reduces 02 transport
(c) It increases C02 transport               
(d) It increases 02 transport
Ans: (b) CO is a poisonous gas which binds with Hb more rapidly than 02 to form carboxyhaemoglobin. CO makes .the most stable combination with the Hb of blood. CO has 200-250 times more affinity for Hb as compared to 02. When the inhaled air contains CO gas then a person suffers from suffocation because product cannot dissociate so decreases free oxygen. So it reduces 02 transport.

Q4. Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal breathing.
(a) Inspiration is a passive process whereas expiration is active
(b) Inspiration is an active process whereas expiration is passive
(c) Inspiration and expiration are active processes
(d) Inspiration and expiration are passive processes
Ans: (b) Inspiration is an active process whereas expiration is passive.

Q5. Mark the incorrect statement in context to 02 binding to Hb.
(a) Lower pH
(b) Lower temperature
(c) Lower pC02                                       
(d) Higher p02
Ans:
(a) 02 binding to Hb occurs in the following conditions: lower temperature, lower pC02 and higher p02.

Q6.Mark the correct pair of muscles involved in the normal breathing in humans
(a)External and internal intercostal muscles
(b)Diaphragm and abdominal muscles
(c)Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
(d) Diaphragm and intercostal muscles
Ans: (d) Diaphragm and intercostal muscles involved in the normal breathing in humans. ,

Q7. Incidence of Emphysema—a respiratory disorder is high in cigarette smokers. In such cases
(a) The bronchioles are found damaged
(b) The alveolar walls are found damaged
(c) The plasma membrane is found damaged
(d) The respiratory muscles are found damaged
Ans: (b) Emphysema is a chronic disorderin which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is decreased.

Q8. Respiratory process is regulated by certain specialised centres in the brain. One of the following listed centres can reduce the inspiratory duration upon stimulation
(a) Medullary inspiratory centre (b) Pneumotaxic centre
(c) Apneustic centre (d) Chemosensitive centre
Ans: (b) Pneumotaxic centre can reduce the inspiratory duration upon stimulation.

Q9. C02 dissociates from carbaminohaemoglobin when
(a)    pC02 is high and p02 is low           
(b)     p02 is high and pC02 is low
(c)     pC02 and p02 are equal                 
(d)     None of the above
Ans: (b) C02 dissociates from carbaminohaemoglobin when p02 is high and pC02 is low,

Q10. In breathing movements, air volume can be estimated by .
(a)    Stethoscope                                     
(b)     Hygrometer
(c)    Sphygmomanometer                    
(d)     Spirometer
Ans: (d) In breathing movements, air volume can be estimated by spirometer.

Q11.From the following relationships between respiratory volumes and capacities, mark the correct option.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Img 1

i. Inspiratory Capacity (IC) = Tidal Volume + Inspiratory Residual Volume (IRV) ,
iii. Residual Volume (RV) = TLC – VC

Q12. The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve will show a right shift in case of
(a) High pC02                                          
(b) Highp02
(c) Low pC02                                           

(d) Less H+ concentration
Ans: (a) Curve shift is right in following conditions: (1) Decrease in p02, (2) Increase in pC02 (Bohr effect), (3) Increase in body temperature, (4) Increase in H+ ion concentration, (5) Decrease in pH, (6) Increase in 2, 3 diphosphoglycerate.

Q13. Match the following and mark the correct options

Animal Respiratory organ
A. Earthworm (0 Moist cuticle
B. Aquatic Arthropods (ii) Gills
C. Fishes (iii) Lungs
D. Birds/Reptiles (iv) Trachea

(a) A—(ii), B—(i), C—(iv), D—(iii)
(b) A—(i), B—(iv), C—(ii), D—(iii)
(c) A—(i), B—(iii), C—(ii), D—(iv)
(d) A—(i), B—(iv), C—(ii), D—(iii)

Ans: (d)

Animal Respiratory organ
A. Earthworm 0) Moist cuticle
B. Aquatic Arthropods (iv) Trachea
C. Fishes (ii) Gills
D. Birds/Reptiles (iii) Lungs

 

Very Short Answer Type Questions
Q1. Define the following terms
a. Tidal volume
b. Residual volume
c. Asthma
Ans: a. Tidal volume: Volume of air inspired or expired during a normal respiration. It is approx. 500 mL, i.e., a healthy man can inspire or expire approximately 6000 to 8000 mL of air per minute.
b. Residual volume: Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration. This averages 1100 mL to 1200 mL. Residual air mainly occurs in alveoli.
c. Asthma: Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles. In asthma, due to flattening of
tracheal vessels, alveoli are deprived of oxygen. Asthma is characterised by spasm in bronchial muscle.

Q2. A fluid-filled double membranous layer surrounds the lungs. Name it and mention its important function.
Ans: Pleural fluid is found in between the two membranes of lung and it reduces the friction on the lung surface.

Q3. Name the primary site of exchange of gases in our body?
Ans: Alveoli

Q4. Cigarette smoking causes emphysema. Give reason.
Ans: Cigarette smoking causes damage of the alveolar walls leading to decreased respiratory surfaces for exchange of gases.

Q5. What is the amount of 02 supplied to tissues through every 100 mL of oxygenated blood under normal physiological conditions?
Ans: 5 mL of oxygen/100 mL of oxygenated blood.

Q6. A major percentage (97%) of 02 is transported by RBCs in the blood. How does the remaining percentage (3%) of 02 transported?
Ans: Through Plasma

 

Q7. Arrange the following terms based on their volumes in an ascending order
a. Tidal Volume (TV)
b. Residual Volume (RV)
c. Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
d. Expiratory Capacity (EC)
Ans: a. Tidal Volume (TV): 500 mL
b. Residual Volume (RV): 1100 mL-200 mL
c. Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV): 2500 mL-3000 mL
d. Expiratory Capacity (EC): 1500 mL-1600 mL

Q8. Complete the missing terms
a. Inspiratory Capacity (IC) = _____+ IRV
b. _____ = TV + ERV
c. Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) = ERV + _____
Ans. a. Inspiratory Capacity (IC) = TV + IRV
b. EC = TV + ERV
c. Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) = ERV + RV

Q9. Name the organs of respiration in the following organisms:
a. Flatworm
b.Birds
c. Frog
d. Cockroach
Ans: a. Flatworm—Entire body surface
b. Birds—Lung
c. Frog—Lung and moist skin
d. Cockroach—Tracheal tubes

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. State the different modes of C02 transport in blood.
Ans: Nearly 20-25% of C02 by RBCs
Nearly 70% of C02 as bicarbonates Nearly 7% of C02 as dissolved state in plasma

Q2. Compared to 02, the diffusion rate of C02 through the diffusion membrane per unit difference in partial pressure is much higher. Explain.
Ans: Solubility is an important factor deciding diffusion rate. As the solubility of C02 is 20-25 times higher than 02, diffusion of C02 through the diffusion membrane per unit difference in partial pressure is much higher.

Q3. For completion of respiration process, write the given steps in sequential manner.                                                                        .

  1. Diffusion of gases (02 and C02) across alveolar membrane.
  2. Transport of gases by blood.
  3. Utilisation of 02 by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of C02.
  4. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and C02 rich alveolar air is released out.
  5. Diffusion of 02 and C02 between blood and tissues.

Ans: Respiration involves the following steps:

  1. Breathing or pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and C02 rich alveolar air is released out.
  2. Diffusion of gases (02 and C02) across alveolar membrane.
  3. Transport of gases by the blood.
  4. Diffusion of 02 and C02 between blood and tissues.
  5. Utilisation of 02 by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of C02.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. Explain the transport of 02 and C02 between alveoli and tissue with a diagram.
Ans:

  • Transport of gases: Blood is the medium of transport for 02 and C02. About 97% of 02 is transported by RBCs in the blood. The remaining 3% of 02 is carried in a dissolved state through the plasma. Nearly 20-25% of C02 is transported by RBCs whereas 70% of it is carried as bicarbonate. About 7% of C02 is carried in a dissolved state through plasma.
  • Transport of oxygen: Haemoglobin is a red coloured iron containing pigment present in the RBCs. 02 can bind with haemoglobin in a reversible manner to form oxyhaemoglobin. Each haemoglobin molecule can carry a maximum of four molecules of 02. Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of 02. Partial pressure of C02, hydrogen ion concentration and temperature are the other factors which can interfere with this binding. A sigmoid curve is obtained when percentage saturation of haemoglobin with 02 is plotted against the p02. This curve is called the Oxygen dissociation curve and is highly useful in studying the effect of factors like pC02, H+ concentration, etc., on binding of 02 with haemoglobin. In the alveoli, where there is high p02, low pC02, lesser H+ concentration and lower temperature, the factors are all favourable for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin, whereas in the tissues, where low p02, high pC02, high H+ concentration and higher temperature exist, the conditions are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhaemoglobin. This clearly indicates that 02 gets bound to haemoglobin in the lung surface and gets dissociated at the tissues. Every 100 mL of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 mL of 02 to the tissues under normal physiological conditions.
  • Transport of carbon dioxide: C02 is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin (about 20-25%). This binding is related to the partial pressure of C02. p02 is a major factor which could affect this binding. When pC02 is high and p02 is low as in the tissues, more binding of carbon dioxide occurs whereas, when the pC02 is low and p02 is high as in the alveoli, dissociation of C02 from carbamino-haemoglobin takes place, i.e., C02 which is bound to haemoglobin from the tissues is delivered at the alveoli. RBCs contain a very high concentration of the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase and minute quantities of the same is present in the plasma too. This enzyme facilitates the following reaction in both directions

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Img 2

At the tissue site where partial pressure of C02 is high due to catabolism, C02 diffuses into blood (RBCs and plasma) and forms HC02 and H+. At the alveolar site where pC02 is low, the reaction proceeds in the oppositedirection leading to the formation of C02 and H20. Thus, C02 trapped as bicarbonate at the tissue level and transported to the alveoli is released out as C02. Every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 mL of C02 to the alveoli.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Img 3

Q2. Explain the mechanism of breathing with neat labelled sketches.
Ans: Breathing involves two stages:
a. Inspiration: Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of diaphragm, which increases the volume of thoracic chamber in the anteroposterior axis. The contraction of external inter-costal muscles lifts up the ribs and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis also. Such an increase in thoracic volume leads to a similar increase in pulmonary volume resulting in decreased intra- pulmonary pressure to less than atmospheric pressure. This causes the movement of external air into the lungs, i.e., inspiration.
b. Expiration: The inter-costal muscles return the diaphragm and sternum to their normal positions with relaxation of the diaphragm. This reduces the thoracic volume and thereby the pulmonary volume. As a result an increase in intra-pulmonary pressure to slightly above the atmospheric pressure causes the expulsion of air from the lungs i.e., expiration.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases Img 4

Q3. Explain the role of neural system in regulation of respiration.
Ans: Human beings have a significant ability to maintain and moderate the respiratory rhythm to suit the demands of the body tissues. This is done by the neural system. A specialised centre present in the medulla region of the brain called respiratory rhythm centre is primarily responsible for this regulation. Another centre present in the pons region of the brain called pneumotaxic centre can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre. Neural signal from this centre “can reduce the duration of inspiration and thereby alter the respiratory rate. A chemosensitive area is situated adjacent to the rhythm centre which is highly sensitive to C02 and hydrogen ions. Increase in these substances can activate this centre, which in turn can signal the rhythm centre to make necessary adjustments in the respiratory process by which these substances can be eliminated. Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery also can recognise changes in C02 and H+ concentration and send necessary’ signals to the rhythm centre for remedial actions. The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.

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We hope the NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases help you. If you have any query regarding NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. Ethylene is used for
(a) Retarding ripening of tomatoes
(b) Hastening of ripening of fruits
(c) Slowing down ripening of apples
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans: (b) Ethylene is used for hastening of ripening of fruits.

Q2. Coconut water contains
(a) ABA
(b) auxin
(c) cytokinin
(d) gibberellin
Ans: (c) Coconut water contains cytokinin.

Q3. The effect of apical dominance can be overcome by which of the following hormone?
(a) IAA
(b) Ethylene
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Cytokinin
Ans: (d) The effect of apical dominance can be overcome by cytokinin hormone.

Q4. Match the following:

A. IAA (0 Herring sperm DNA
B. ABA (ii) Bolting
C. Ethylene (iii) Stomatal closure
D. GA (iv) Weed-free lawns
E. Cytokinins (v) Ripening of fruits

Ans: (a)

A. IAA (iv) Weed-free lawns
B. ABA (iii) Stomatal closure
C. Ethylene (v) Ripening of fruits
D. GA (ii) Bolting
E. Cytokinins (i) Herring sperm DNA

 

Q5. Apples are generally wrapped in waxed paper to
(a) prevent sunlight for changing its colour
(b) prevent aerobic respiration by checking the entry of 02
(c) prevent ethylene formation due to injury
(d) make the apples look attractive
Ans: (b) Apples are generally wrapped in waxed paper to prevent aerobic respiration by checking the entry of 02.

Q6. Growth can be measured in various ways. Which of these can be used as parameters to measure growth?
(a) Increase in cell number
(b) Increase in cell size
(c) Increase in length and weight
(d) All the above
Ans: (d) Growth can be measured in various ways. Increase in cell number, increase in cell size and increase in length and weight are used as parameters to measure growth.

Q7. The term synergistic action of hormones refers to
(a) when two hormones act together but bring about opposite effects
(b) when two hormones act together and contribute to the same function
(c) when one hormone affects more than one function
(d) when many hormones bring about any one function
Ans: (b) The term synergistic action of hormones refers to when two hormones act together and contribute to the same function.

Q8. Plasticity in plant growth means that
(a) plant roots are extensible
(b) plant development is dependent on the environment
(c) stems can extend
(d) none of the above
Ans: (b) Plasticity in plant growth means that plant development is dependent on the environment.

Q9. To increase sugar production in sugarcanes, they are sprayed with
(a) IAA
(b) cytokinin
(c) gibberellin
(d) ethylene
Ans: (c) To increase sugar production in sugarcanes, they are sprayed with gibberellin.

Q10. ABA acts antagonistic to
(a) ethylene
(b) cytokinin
(c) gibberellic acid
(d) IAA
Ans: (c) ABA acts antagonistic to gibberellic acid.

Q11. Monocarpic plants are those which
(a) bear flowers with one ovary
(b) flower once and die
(c) bear only one flower
(d) all of the above
Ans: (b) Monocarpic plants are flower once and die.

Q12. The photoperiod in plants is perceived at
(a) meristem
(b) flower
(c) floral buds
(d) leaves
Ans: (d) The photoperiod in plants is perceived at leaves.

Very Short Answer type Questions
Q1. Fill in the places with appropriate word/words.
a. A phase of growth which is maximum and fastest is .
b. Apical dominance as expressed in dicotyledonous plants is due to the
presence of more _____ in the apical bud than in the lateral ones.
c. In addition to auxin, a ________ must be supplied to culture medium to
obtain a good callus in plant tissue culture.
d. _________of a vegetative plants are the sites of photoperiodic perception.
Ans: a. Exponential/log phase of an S-curve.
b. Auxin/IAA
c. CytokininlKinetinl6 BAP/Zeatinletc.
d. Leaves

Q2. PJ.ant growth substances (PGS) have innumerable practical applications. Name the PGS you should use to
a. increase yield of sugar cane b. promote lateral shoot growth
c. cause sprouting of potato tuber d. inhibit seed germination
Ans: a. GA3/gibberellinlgibberellic acid
b. CytokininlzeatinlkinetinJKn
c. C2H4/Ethylene
d. ABA/Abscisic acid

Q3. A primary root grows from 5 cm to 19 cm in a week. Calculate the growth rate and relative growth rate over the period.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development Img 1

Q4. Gibberellins were first discovered in Japan when rice plants were suffering from bakane (the foolish seedling disease) caused by a fungus Gibberella fujikuroi.
a. Give two functions of this priytohormone.
b. Which property of Gibberellin caused foolish seedling disease in rice?
Ans: a. GA3 is used to speed up the malting process in brewing industry. Gibberellins also promote bolting (internode elongation just prior to flowering) in beet, cabbages and many plants with rosette habit.
b. Gibberellin causes foolish seedling disease in rice because it has the property of internode elongation.

Q5. Gibberellins promote the formation of _________ flowers on genetically _________ plants in Cannabis whereas ethylene promotes formation of _______ flowers
on genetically ____ plants.
Ans: Gibberellins promote the formation of male flowers on genetically female plants in Cannabis whereas ethylene promotes formation of female flowers on genetically male plants.

Q6. Classify the following plants into Long-Day Plants (LDP), Short-Day Plants (SDP) and Day-Neutral Plants (DNP) Xanthium, Henbane (Hyoscyamus niger), Spinach, Rice, Strawberry, Bryophyllum, Sunflower, Tomato, Maize.
Ans: Xanthium: (SDP)
Henbane (Hyoscyamus niger): (LDP)
Spinach: (LDP)
Rice: (SDP)
Strawberry: (SDP)
Bryophyllum: LSDP (Long short day plants)
Sunflower: (DNP)
Tomato: (DNP)
Maize: (DNP)

Q7. A farmer grows cucumber plants in his field. He wants to increase the number of female flowers in them. Which can plant growth regulator be applied to achieve this?
Ans: Ethylene (C2H4)

Q8. Where are the following hormones synthesised in plants?
a. IAA
b. Gibberellins
c. Cytokinins
Ans: a. IAA: Shoot tips and apical bud
b. Gibberellins: Root tips and young leaves
c. Cytokinins: Meristematic zones like root tips

Q9. In botanical gardens and tea gardens, gardeners trim the plants regularly so that they remain bushy. Does this practice have any scientific explanation?
Ans: Mostly in higher plants, the growing apical bud inhibits the growth of the lateral (axillary) buds, a phenomenon called apical dominance. Removal of shoot tips (decapitation) usually results in the growth of lateral buds. Hence, in botanical gardens and tea gardens, gardeners trim the plants regularly so that they remain bushy.

Q10. Light plays an important role ‘in the life of all organisms. Name any three physiological processes in plants which are affected by light.
Ans: Photoperiodism, phototropism and photosynthesis.

Q11. In the figure of Sigmoid growth curve given below, label segments 1,2 and 3
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development Img 2

Q12. Growth is one of the characteristics of all living organisms. Do unicellular organism also grow? If so, what are the parameters?
Ans: Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals are twin characteristics of growth. A multicellular organism grows by cell division. Unicellular organisms grow by cell division. One can easily observe this in in vitro cultures by simply counting the number of cells under the microscope.

Q13. The rice seedlings infected with fungus Gibberella fujikuroi is called foolish seedlings? What was the reason behind it?
Ans: The rice seedling infected with fungus Gibberella fujikuroi is called foolish seedlings because the fungus secreted a hormone gibberellin and causes excessive growth of rice plants. Plants become tall but unable to produce seeds so they are called foolish.

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. Nicotiana tobacum, a short-day plant, when exposed to more than critical period of light fails to flower. Explain.
Ans: a. Some plants require a periodic exposure to alternate light and dark for its flowering response. This phenomenon is termed photoperiodism.
b. The requirement of light exposure is critical. The SDP plants, when exposed to light period in excess of critical period fail to flower,
c. Those plants which require exposure to light period at critical or more than critical period for its flowering response are called long-dayplant.
d. Nicotiana tabacum fails to flower if exposed to more than critical period of light because it is an SDP.

Q2. What are the structural characteristics of
a. Meristematic cells near root tip
b. The cells in the elongation zone of the root
Ans: a. The meristematic cells near root tip are characterised by
• rich protoplasm
• large conspicuous nucleus
• thin and cellulosic cell wall -primary in nature
• fewer vacuoles
• greater number of mitochondria
• numerous (abundant) plasmodesmata
b. The cells in the elongation zone of a root are characterized by
• increased vacuolation
• enlarged size/dimension
• deposition of new cellulosic cell walls

Q3. Does the growth pattern in plants differ from that in animals? Do all the parts of plant grow indefinitely? If not, name the regions of plant, which can grow indefinitely.
Ans: Yes, the growth pattern in plants differ from that in animals. Plant growth is unique because plants retain the capacity for unlimited growth throughout their life. This ability of the plants is due to the presence of meristems at certain locations in their body. The cells of such meristems have the capacity to divide and self-perpetuate. The product, however, soon loses the capacity to divide and such cells make up the plant body. This form of growth wherein new cells are always being added to the plant body by the activity of the meristem is called the open form of growth.

Q4. Explain in 2-3 lines each of the following terms with the help of examples taken from different plant tissues.
a. Differentiation
b. De-differentiation
c. Re-differentiation
Ans: a. Differentiation: The cells derived from root apical and shoot-apical meristems and cambium differentiate and mature to perform specific functions. This act leading to maturation is termed as differentiation. During differentiation, cells undergo few to major structural changes both in their cell walls and protoplasm. For example, to form a tracheary element, the cells would lose their protoplasm. They also develop a very strong, elastic, lignocellulosic secondary cell walls, to carry water to long distances even under extreme tension.
b. De-differentiation: The living differentiated cells that by now have lost the capacity to divide can regain the capacity of division under certain conditions. This phenomenon is termed as de-differentiation. For example, formation of meristems – interfascicular cambium and cork cambium from fully differentiated parenchyma cells.
c. Re-differentiation: While doing de-differentiation, such meristems/ tissues are able to divide and produce cells that once again lose the capacity to divide but mature to perform specific functions, i.e., get re-differentiated, e.g., secondary xylem and secondary cortex.

Q5. Auxins are growth hormones capable of promoting cell elongation. They have been used in horticulture to promote growth, flowering and rooting. Write a line to explain the meaning of the following terms related to auxins.
a. Auxin precursors
b. Anti-auxins
c. Synthetic auxins
Ans: a. Auxin precursors: The substances that produce the auxin are called auxin precursors. For example, tryptophan is the auxin precursor.
b. Anti-auxins: The substances which inhibit the synthesis or transport of auxin are called anti-auxins. For example, TIBA (Triiodobenzoic acid) is anti-auxin compound.
c. Synthetic auxins: The artificially synthesised chemicals having auxin-like property are called synthetic auxins. For example, NAA
– (Naphthalene acetic acid) and 2, 4-D (2, 4-Dichloro phenoxyacetic acid).

Q6. The role of ethylene and abscisic acid is both positive and negative. Justify the statement.
Ans: Positive roles of ethylene: Influences of ethylene on plants include horizontal growth of seedlings, swelling of the axis and apical hook formation in dicot seedlings. Ethylene breaks seed and bud dormancy, initiates germination in peanut seeds, sprouting of potato tubers.
• Negative roles of ethylene: Ethylene promotes senescence and abscission of plant organs especially of leaves and flowers.
• Positive roles of abscisic acid: ABA plays an important role in seed development and maturation.
• Negative roles of abscisic acid: It acts as a general plant growth inhibitor and an inhibitor of plant metabolism. ABA inhibits seed germination. ABA stimulates the closure of stomata in the epidermis and increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stresses.

Q7. While experimentation, why do you think it is difficult to assign any effect seen to any single hormone?
Ans: Many hormones have synergistic and antagonistic effect with each other. So, while experimentation, it is difficult to assign any effect seen to any single hormone.

Q8. What is the mechanism underlying the phenomenon by which the terminal/ apical bud suppresses the growth of lateral buds? Suggest measures to overcome this phenomenon.
Ans: The phenomenon by which the terminal/apical bud suppresses the growth of lateral buds is called apical dominance. Apical dominance is due to auxin hormone secreted by apical buds. This can be overcome by decapitation (removal of apical buds) or the application of cytokinin.

Q9. In animals there are special glands secreting hormones, whereas there are no glands in plants. Where are plant hormones formed? How are the hormones translocated to the site of activity?
Ans: In plants, the hormones are formed by different tissues like shoot tips, root tips, meristematic tissues, leaves and apical buds, etc.
Hormones are translocated to the site of activity by vascular tissues (xylem and phloem)

Q10. Many discoveries in science have been accidental. This is true for plant hormones also. Can you justify this statement by giving an example? Also what term is used for such accidental findings?
Ans: The discovery of each of the five major groups of PGRs have been accidental. All this started with the observation of Charles Darwin and his son Francis Darwin when they observed that the coleoptiles of canary grass responded to unilateral illumination by growing towards the light source (phototropism). After a series of experiments, it was concluded that the tip of coleoptile was the site of transmittable influence that caused the bending of the entire coleoptile. Auxin was isolated by F.W. Went from tips of coleoptiles of oat seedlings. Such accidental findings or discoveries are known as serendipity.

Q11. To get carpet-like grass lawn are mowed regularly. Is there any scientific explanation for this?
Ans: To get a carpet-like grass lawns are mowed regularly because mowing causes decapitation which promotes the growth of lateral buds.

Q12. In a slide showing different types of cells, can you identify which type of the cell may be meristematic and the one which is incapable of dividing and how?
Ans: The meristematic cells are rich in protoplasm, possess large conspicuous nuclei. Their cell walls are primary in nature, thin and cellulosic with abundant plasmodesmatal connections. Cells incapable of dividing attain their maximal size in terms of wall thickening and protoplasmic modifications.

Q13. A rubber band stretches and reverts back to its original position. Bubble gum stretches, but it would not return to its original position. Is there any difference between the two processes? Discuss it with respect to plant growth (Hint: Elasticity (reversible), Plasticity (irreversible))
Ans: A rubber band stretches and reverts back to its original position, it is due to elasticity. Bubble gum stretches, but it would not return to its original position, this is due to plasticity.
• The meristematic cells are rich in protoplasm, possess large conspicuous nuclei. Their cell walls are primary in nature, thin, cellulosic and elastic with abundant plasmodesmatal connections.
• Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called plasticity,
e. g., heterophylly in cotton, coriander and larkspur. In such plants, the leaves of the juvenile plant are different in shape from those in mature plants.

Q14. Label the diagram
a. This is which part of a dicotyledonous plant?
b. If we remove part 1 from the plant, what will happen?

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Plant Growth and Development Img 3

Q15. Both animals and plants grow. Why do we say that growth and differentiation in plants is open and not so in animals? Does this statement hold true for sponges also?
Ans: Plant growth is unique because plants retain the capacity for unlimited growth throughout their life. This ability of the plants is due to the presence of meristems at certain locations in their body. The cells of such meristems have the capacity to divide and self-perpetuate. The product, however, soon loses the capacity to divide and such cells make up the plant body. This form of growth wherein new cells are always being added to the plant body by the
Plant Growtli and Development 167
activity of the meristem is called the open form of growth. Yes, this statement hold true for sponges also.

Q16. Define parthenocarpy. Name the plant hormone used to induce parthenocarpy.
Ans: Most fruits however develop only from the ovary and are called true fruits.
Although in most of the species, fruits are the results of fertilisation, there are a few species in which fruits develop without fertilisation. Such fruits are called parthenocarpic fruits. Banana is one such example. Parthenocarpy can be induced through the application of growth hormones (like gibberellin and auxin) and such fruits are seedless. Auxins induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes.

Q17. While eating watermelons, all of us wish it was seedless. As a plant physiologist can you suggest any method by which this can be achieved.
Ans: This can be achieved through parthenocarpy. Parthenocarpy can be induced through the application of growth hormones (like gibberellin and auxin) and such fruits are seedless.

Q18. A gardener finds some broad-leaved dicot weeds growing in his lawns. What can be done to get rid of the weeds efficiently?
Ans: The dicotyledonous plants grow by their apical shoot meristems while grasses (which make lawns) possess intercalary meristem. Certain auxins, such as synthetic 2, 4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D) when applied in excess can damage the shoot apical meristems but they do not cause any damage to the- intercalary meristems. Thus, when 2, 4-D is sprayed on lawns, only the dicots get killed and the lawns become free of weeds.

Q19. On germination a seed first produces shoots with leaves, flowers appear later,
a. Why do you think this happens?
b. How is this advantageous to the plant?
Ans: a. All organisms have to reach a certain stage of growth and maturity in their life, before they can reproduce sexually. That period of growth is called the juvenile phase. It is known as vegetative phase in plants. This phase is of variable durations in different organisms. The end of juvenile/ vegetative phase which marks the beginning of the reproductive phase can be seen easily in the higher plants when they come to flower.
b. This enables the plant to have sufficient time to reach maturity.

Q20. Fill in the blanks:
a. Maximum growth is observed in phase.
b. Apical dominance is due to .
c. initiate rooting. .
d. Pigment involved in Photoperception in flowering plants is .
Ans: a. Maximum growth is observed in log/exponential phase.
b. Apical dominance is due to auxin.
c. Auxins initiate rooting.
d. Pigment involved in Photoperception in flowering plants is
phytochrome.

Long Answer Type Questions ‘
Q1. Some varieties of wheat are known as spring wheat while others are called winter wheat. Former variety is sown, and planted in spring and is harvested by the end of the same season. However, winter varieties, if planted in spring, fail to flower or produce mature grains within a span of a flowering season. Explain, why?
Ans: There are plants for which flowering is either quantitatively or qualitatively dependent on exposure to low temperature. This phenomenon is termed vernalisation. It prevents precocious reproductive development late in the growing season, and enables the plant to have sufficient time to reach maturity. Vernalisation refers specially to the promotion of flowering by a period of low temperature. Some important food plants, wheat, barley, rye have two kinds of varieties: winter and spring varieties. The ‘spring’ variety are normally planted in the spring and come to flower and produce grain before the end of the growing season. Winter varieties, however, if planted in spring would normally fail to flower or produce mature grain within a span of a flowering season. Hence, they are planted in autumn. They germinate, and over winter come out as small seedlings, resume growth in the spring, and are harvested usually around mid-summer.

Q2. It is known that some varieties of wheat are sown in autumn but are harvested around next mid-summer.
a. ■ What could be the probable reason for this?
b. What term is used for this promotion of flowering under low temperature?
c. Which plant hormone can replace the cold treatment?
Ans: a. Winter varieties, if planted in spring would normally fail to flower or produce mature grain within a span of a flowering season. Hence, they are planted in autumn. They germinate, and over winter come out as small seedlings, resume growth in the spring, and are harvested usually around mid-summer.
b. Vernalisation
c. Gibberellin

Q3. Name a hormone which
a. is gaseous in nature
b. is responsible for phototropism
c. induces femaleness in flowers of cucumber
d. is used for killing weeds (dicots)
e. induces flowering in long day plants
Ans: a. Gaseous in nature: Ethylene (C2H4)
b. Responsible for phototropism: Auxin
c. Induces femaleness in flowers of cucumber: Ethylene (C2H4)
d. Used for killing weeds (dicots): Auxin
e. Induces flowering in long day plants: Gibberellin

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. Select what is not true of intestinal villi among the following
(a) They possess microvilli
(b) They increase the surface area
(c) They are supplied with capillaries and the lacteal vessels (d_) They only participate in digestion of fats
Ans: (d) They only participate in digestion of fats.

Q2. Hepato-pancreatic duct opens into the duodenum and carries
(a) Bile (b) Pancreatic juice
(c) Both bile and pancreatic juice (d) Saliva
Ans: (c) Hepato-pancreatic duct opens into the duodenum and carries both bile and pancreatic juice.

Q3. One of the following is not a common disorder associated with digestive system
(a) Tetanus (b) Diarrhoea (c) Jaundice (d) Dysentery
Ans: (a) Tetanus is not a common disorder associated with digestive system.

Q4. A gland not associated with the alimentary canal is
(a) Pancreas (b) Adrenal
(c) Liver (d) Salivary glands
Ans: (b) A gland not associated with the alimentary canal is adrenal (this is endocrine gland).

Q5. Match the two columns and select the correct among options given

Column I Column II
A. Biomacromolecules (i) Alimentary canal and of food associated gland
B. Human digestive system (ii) Embedded in jawbones
C. Stomach (iii) Outer wall of visceral organs
D. Thecodont (iv) Converted into simple substances
E. Serosa (v) J-shaped bag like structure

 

Options:
(a) A—(ii), B—(i), C—(v), D—(iii), E—(iv)
(b) A—(iv), B—(i), C—(v), D—(ii), E—(iii)
(c) A—(i), B—(ii), C—(iii), D—(iv), E—(v)
(d) A—(i), B—(iii), C—(ii), D—(iv), E-(v)

Ans. (b)

A. Biomacromolecules (iv) Converted into simple substances
B. Human digestive (i) Alimentary canal and of food associated
system gland
C. Stomach (v) J-shaped bag like structure
D. Thecodont (ii) Embedded in jawbones
E. Serosa (iii) Outer wall of visceral organs

6. Match the two columns and select the right one among options given

Column I Column II
A. Duodenum (i) A cartilagenous flap
B. Epiglottis (ii) Small blind sac
C. Glottis (Hi) ‘C’ shaped structure emerging from the stomach
D. Caecum (iv) Opening of wind pipe

(a) A—(i), B—(ii), C—(iii), D—(iv)
(b) A—(iv), B—(iii), C—(ii), D—(i)
(c) A—(iii), B—(i), C—(iv), D—(ii)
(d) A—(ii), B—(iv), C—(i), D—(iii)

A. Duodenum (iii) ‘C’ shaped structure emerging from the stomach
B. Epiglottis (i) A cartilagenous flap
C. Glottis (iv) Opening of wind pipe
D. Caecum (ii) Small blind sac

Q7. Match the enzymes with their respective substrates choose the right one among options given.

Column I Column II
A. Lipase (i) Dipeptides
B. Nuclease (ii) Fats
C. Carboxypeptidase (iii) Nucleic acids
D. Dipeptidases (iv) Proteins, peptones and proteoses

Options:
(a) A—(ii), B—(iii), C—(i), D—(iv)
(b) A—(iii), B—(iv), C—(ii), D—(i)
(c) A—(iii), B—(i), C—(iv), D—(ii)
(d) A—(ii), B—(iii), C—(iv), D—(i)

 

A. Lipase (ii) Fats
B. Nuclease (iii) Nucleic acids
C. Carboxypeptidase (iv) Proteins, peptones and proteoses
D. Dipeptidases (i) Dipeptides

Ans. (d)

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption Img 1

Q9. Liver is the largest gland and is associated with functions, choose one which is not correct
(a) Metabolism of carbohydrate
(b) Digestion of fat
(c) Formation of bile
(d) Secretion of hormone called gastrin
Ans: (d) Liver is the largest gland and is associated with functions metabolism of carbohydrate, digestion of fat and formation of bile.

Q10. Mark the right statement among the following
(a) Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme
(b) ’ Trypsinogen is secreted by intestinal mucosa
(c) Enterokinase is secreted by pancreas
(d) Bile contains trypsin
Ans: (a)
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption Img 2
Very Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. The food mixes thoroughly with the acidic gastric juice of the stomach by the churning movements of its muscular wall. What do we call the food then?
Ans: Chyme

Q2. Trypsinogen is an inactive enzyme of pancreatic juice. An enzyme, enterokinase, activates it. Which tissue/cells secrete this enzyme?/ How is it activated?
Ans: Intestinal mucosa

Q3. In which part of alimentary canal does absorption of water, simple sugars and alcohol takes place?
Ans: Stomach

Q4. Name the enzymes involved in the breakdown of nucleotides into sugars and bases.
Ans: Nucleotidases and Nucleosidases

Q5. Define digestion in one sentence.
Ans: The process of conversion of complex food substances in the digestive system to simple absorbable forms is called digestion.

Q6. What do we call the type of teeth attachment to j aw bones in which each tooth is embedded in a socket of jaws bones?
Ans: Thecodont

Q7. Stomach is located in upper left portion of the abdominal cavity and has three major parts. Name these three parts.
Ans: Cardiac, fundic and pyloric

Q8. Does gall bladder make bile?
Ans: No, it only stores.

Q9. Correct the following statements by deleting one of entries (given in bold).
a. Goblet cells are located in the intestinal mucosal epithelium and secrete chymotrypsin/mucus.
b. Fats are broken down into di- and monoglycerides with the help of amylase/lipases.
c. Gastric glands of stomach mucosa have oxyntic cell/chief cells which secrete HCl.
d. Saliva contains enzymes that digest starch/protein.
Ans: a. Goblet cells are located in the intestinal mucosal epithelium and secrete _ mucus.
b. Fats are broken down into di- and monoglycerides with the help of lipases.
c. Gastric glands of stomach mucosa have oxyntic cell which secrete HC1.
d. Saliva contains enzymes that digest starch.

Short Answer Type Questions
Q1. What is pancreas? Mention the major secretions of pancreas that are helpful in digestion.
Ans: Pancreas is a gland having exocrine and endocrine portions involved in secreting digestive enzymes as well as hormones. Major secretions of pancreas involved in digestion are inactive enzymes listed below:
a. Trypsinogen
b. Chymotrypsinogen
c. Procarboxypeptidases
d.Amylases
e. Lipases
f. Nucleases

Q2. Name the part of the alimentary canal where major absorption of digested food takes place. What are the absorbed forms of different kinds of food materials? ‘
Ans: Small intestine is the part of alimentary canal where digested food materials are mainly absorbed. Amino acids (proteins), monosaccharides like glucose, fructose, galactose, etc. (carbohydrate) and fatty acids and glycerol (fats) are different absorbable forms of food materials.

Q3. List the organs of human alimentary canal and name the major digestive glands with their location.
Ans: The alimentary canal begins with an anterior opening the mouth and then buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine and it opens out posteriorly through the anus.
The digestive glands associated with the alimentary canal include the salivary glands, the liver and the pancreas. Saliva is mainly produced by three pairs of salivary glands, the parotids (cheek), the sub-maxillary/sub¬mandibular (lower jaw) and the sublinguals (below the tongue). Liver is situated in the abdominal cavity, just below the diaphragm. The pancreas is situated between the limbs of the ‘C’-shaped duodenum.

Q4. What is the role of gall bladder? What may happen if it stops functioning or is removed?
Ans: The bile secreted by the hepatic cells passes through the hepatic ducts and is stored and concentrated in a thin muscular sac called the gall bladder. Bile helps in emulsification of fats, i.e., breaking down of the fats into very small micelles. Bile also activates lipases. If it stops functioning or is removed then digestion of fat will be affected.

Q5. Correct the statement given below by the right option shown in the bracket against them.
a. Absorption of amino acids and glycerol takes place in the (small intestine/ large intestine).
b. ‘The faeces in the rectum initiate a reflex causing an urge for its removal, (neural /hormonal)
c. Skin and eyes turn yellow in infection, (liver/stomach)
d. Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice in (infants/adults).
e. Pancreatic juice and bile are released through (intestinepancreatic/ hepato-pancreatic duct).
f. Dipeptides, disaccharides and glycerides are broken down into simple substances in region of small intestine, (jejunum/duodenum)
Ans: a. Absorption of amino acids and glycerol takes place in the small intestine.
b. The faeces in the rectum initiate a neural reflex causing an urge for its removal.
c. Skin and eyes turn yellow in infection of liver. .
d. Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice in infants.
e. Pancreatic juice and bile are released through hepato-pancreatic duct.
f. Dipeptides, disaccharides and glycerides are broken down into simple substances in duodenum region of small intestine.

Q6. What are three major types of cells found in the gastric glands? Name their secretions.
Ans: The mucosa of stomach has gastric glands. Gastric glands have three major types of cells namely
(i) mucus neck cells which secrete mucus;
(ii) peptic or chief cells which secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen; and
(iii) parietal or oxyntic cells which secrete HC1 and intrinsic factor (factor essential for absorption of vitamin B12).
Q7. How is the intestinal mucosa’protectcd from the acidic food entering from stomach?
Ans: The mucus and bicarbonates present in the gastric juice play an important role in lubrication and protection of the mucosal epithelium from excoriation by the highly concentrated hydrochloric acid.

Q8. How are the activities of gastro-intestinal tract regulated?
Ans: The activities of the gastro-intestinal tract are under neural and hormonal control for proper coordination of different parts. The sight, smell and/or the presence of food in the oral cavity can stimulate the secretion of saliva. Gastric and intestinal secretions are also, similarly, stimulated by neural signals. The muscular activities of different parts of the alimentary canal can also be moderated by neural mechanisms, both local and through CNS. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive juices is carried out by local hormones produced by the gastric and intestinal mucosa.

Q9. Distinguish between constipation and indigestion. Mention their major causes.
Ans: Constipation: In constipation, the faeces are retained within the rectum as the bowel movements occur irregularly.
Indigestion: In this condition, the food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness. The causes of indigestion are inadequate enzyme secretion, anxiety, food poisoning, over eating, and spicy food.

10. Describe the enzymatic action on fats in the duodenum.
Ans: In the duodenum fats are broken down by pancreatic lipases with the help of bile into di- and monoglycerides.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption Img 3

Long Answer Type Questions
Q1. A person had roti and dal for his lunch. Trace the changes in those during its passage through the alimentary canal.
Ans: The process of digestion is accomplished by mechanical and chemical processes. The buccal cavity performs two major functions, mastication of food and facilitation of swallowing. The teeth and the tongue with the help of saliva masticate and mix up the food thoroughly. Mucus in saliva helps in lubricating and adhering the masticated food particles into a bolus. The bolus is then conveyed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus by swallowing or deglutition. The bolus further passes down through the oesophagus by successive waves of muscular contractions called peristalsis. The gastro-oesophageal sphincter controls the passage of food into the stomach. The saliva secreted into the oral cavity contains electrolytes and enzymes, salivary amylase and lysozyme. The chemical process of digestion is initiated in the oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase. About 30% of starch is hydrolysed here by this enzyme (optimum pH 6.8) into a disaccharide – maltose.
• The stomach stores the food for 4-5 hours. The food mixes thoroughly with the acidic gastric juice of the stomach by the churning movements of its muscular wall and is called the chyme. The proenzyme pepsinogen, on exposure to hydrochloric acid gets converted into the active enzyme pepsin, the proteolytic enzyme of the stomach. Pepsin converts proteins into proteoses and peptones (peptides).
• The bile, pancreatic juice and the intestinal juice are the secretions
released into the small intestine. Pancreatic juice and bile are released through the hepato-pancreatic duct. The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes—trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidases,
amylases, lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice.
Proteins proteoses and peptones (partially hydrolysed proteins) in the chyme reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancretic juice as given below.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption Img 4

Q2. What are the various enzymatic types of glandular secretions in our gut helping digestion of food? What is the nature of end products obtained after complete digestion of food?
Ans: Enzymatic types of glandular secretions in our gut:
a. Salivary glands: Saliva is mainly produced by three pairs of salivary glands, the parotids (cheek), the sub-maxillary/sub-mandibular (lower jaw) and the sublinguals (below the tongue). These glands situated just outside the buccal cavity secrete salivary juice into the buccal cavity.
b. Gastric glands: The mucosa of stomach has gastric glands. Gastric glands have three major types of cells namely
(i) mucus neck cells which secrete mucus;
(ii) peptic or chief cells which secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen; and
(iii) parietal or oxyntic cells which secrete HC1 and intrinsic factor (factor essential for absorption of vitamin B12).
c. The bile, pancreatic juice and the intestinal juice are the secretions
released into the small intestine. Pancreatic juice and bile are released through the hepato-pancreatic duct. The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes—trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidases,
amylases, lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice. The bile released into the duodenum contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin), bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids but no enzymes.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption Img 5

Q3. Discuss mechanisms of absorption.
Ans: Mechanisms of absorption: Absorption is the process by which the end products of digestion pass through the intestinal mucosa into the blood or lymph. It is carried out by passive, active or facilitated transport mechanisms. Small amounts of monosaccharides like glucose, amino acids and some electrolytes like chloride ions are generally absorbed by simple diffusion. The passage of these substances into the blood depends upon the concentration gradients. However, some substances like glucose and amino acids are absorbed with the help of carrier proteins. This mechanism is called the facilitated transport.
Transport of water depends upon the osmotic gradient. Active transport occurs against the concentration gradient and hence requires energy. Various nutrients like amino acids, monosaccharides like glucose, electrolytes like Na+ are absorbed into the blood by this mechanism.

Q4. Discuss the role of hepato-pancrdatic complex in digestion of carbohydrate, protein and fat components of food.
Ans: The bile, pancreatic juice and the intestinal juice are the secretions released into the small intestine. Pancreatic juice and bile are released through the hepato-pancreatic duct. The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes— trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidases, amylases, lipases and nucleases. Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by the intestinal mucosa into active trypsin, which in turn activates the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice.
The bile released into the duodenum contains bile pigments (bilirubin and biliverdin), bile salts, cholesterol and phospholipids but no enzymes. Bile helps in emulsification of fats, i.e., breaking down of the fats into very small micelles. Bile also activates lipases.
Proteins proteoses and peptones (partically hydrolysed proteins) in the chime reaching the intestine are acted upon by the proteolytic enzymes of pancreatic juice as given below:
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption Img 6
Q5. Explain the process of digestion in the buccal cavity with a note on the arrangement of teeth.
Ans: The process of digestion in the buccal cavity: The buccal cavity performs two major functions, mastication of food and facilitation of swallowing. The teeth and the tongue with the help of saliva masticate and mix up the food thoroughly. Mucus in saliva helps in lubricating and adhering the masticated food particles into a bolus. The bolus is then conveyed into the pharynx and then into the oesophagus by swallowing or deglutition. The bolus further passes down through the oesophagus by successive waves of muscular contractions called peristalsis. The gastro-oesophageal sphincter controls the passage of food into the stomach. The saliva secreted into the oral cavity contains electrolytes and enzymes, salivary amylase and lysozyme. The chemical process of digestion is initiated in the oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting enzyme, the salivary amylase. About% of starch is hydrolysed here by this enzyme (optimum pH 6.8) into a disaccharide—maltose. Lysozyme present in saliva acts as an antibacterial agent that prevents infections.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Digestion and Absorption Img 7

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and Their Elimination

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and Their Elimination are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and Their Elimination.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and Their Elimination

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. The following substances are the excretory products in animals. Choose the least toxic from among them.
(a) Urea (b) Uric acid
(c) Ammonia (d) Carbon dioxide
Ans: (b) Ammonia is the most toxic form and requires large amount of water for its elimination, whereas uric acid, being the least toxic, can be removed with a minimum loss of water.

Q2. Filtration of the blood takes place at
(a) PCT (b) DCT
(c) Collecting ducts (d) Malpighian body
Ans: (d) Filtration of the blood takes place at malpighian body.

Q3. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. ADH—prevents conversion of angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin
b. Aldosterone—facilitates water reabsorption
c. ANF—enhances sodium reabsorption
d. Renin—causes vasodilation
Ans: (a) ADH is a hormone released from the posterior pituitary gland that causes an increase in blood pressure through reabsorption of water.

Q4. A large quantity of one of the following is removed from our body by lungs
(a) C02 only (b) H20 only
(c) C02 and H20 (d) Ammonia
Ans: (a) A large quantity of C02 is removed from our body by lungs.

Q5. The pH of human urine is approximately
(a) 6.5 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 7.5
Ans: (c) The pH of human urine is approximately 6.

Q6. Different types of excretory structures and animals are given below. Match them appropriately and mark the correct answer from among those given below:

Excretory structure/ organ Animals
A. Protonephridia (i) Prawn
B. Nephridia (ii) Cockroach
C. Malpighian tubules (iii) Earthworm
D. Green gland or Antennal gland (iv) Flatworms

Options:
(a) D—(i), (C)—(ii), B—(iii), A—(iv)
(b) B— (i), (C)—(ii), A—(iii), B—(iv)
(c) D—(i), (C)—(ii), A—(iii), B-(iv)
(d) B—(i), (C)—(ii), B—(iii), D—(iv)

Ans. (a)

Excretory structure/ organ Animals
A. Protonephridia (iv) Flatworms
B. Nephridia (iii) Earthworm
C. Malpighian tubules (ii) Cockroach                      •
D. Green gland or Antennal gland (i) Prawn

 

Q7. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Birds and land snails are uricotelic animals.
(b) Mammals and frogs are ureotelic animals.
(c) Aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects are ammonotelic animals.
(d) Birds and reptiles are ureotelic.
Ans: (d) Reptiles (snakes and lizards), birds, land snails and insects excrete nitrogenous wastes as uric acid in the form of pellet or paste with a minimum loss of water and are called uricotelic animals.

Q8. Which of the following pairs is wrong?
(a) Uricotelic — Birds (b) Ureotelic — Insects
(c) Ammonotelic — Tadpole (d) Ureotelic — Elephant
Ans: (b) Insects — Uricotelic

Q9. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a few conical masses called medullary pyramids projecting into the calyces.
(b) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal pelvis
(c) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule is called the renal corpuscle
(d) Renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) and distal convoluted tubule (DCT) of the nephron are situated in the cortical region of kidney
Ans: (b) The cortex extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal columns called Columns of Bertini.

Q10. The condition of accumulation of urea in the blood is termed as
(a) Renal Calculi (b) Glomerulonephritis
(c) Uremia (d) Ketonuria
Ans: (c) The condition of accumulation of urea in the blood is termed as uremia.

Q11. Which one of the following is also known as antidiuretic hormone?
(a) Oxytocin (b) Vasopressin (c) Adrenaline (d) Calcitonin
Ans: (b) Vasopressin is also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

Q12. Match the terms given in Column I with their physiological processes given in Column II and choose the correct answer

Column I Column II
A. Proximal convoluted tubule (i) Formation of concentrated urine
B. Distal convoluted tubule (ii) Filtration of blood
C. Henle’s loop (iii) Reabsorption of 70-80% of electrolytes
D. Counter-current mechanism (iv) Ionic balance
E. Renal corpuscle (v) Maintenance of concentration gradient in medulla

Options:

(a) A—(iii), B—(v), C—(iv), D—(ii), E—(i)
(b) A—(iii), B—(iv), C—(i), D—(v), E—(ii)
(c) A—(i), B—(iii), C—(ii), D—(v), E—(iv)
(d) A—(iii), B—(i), C—(iv), D—(v), E—(ii)

Ans: (b)

A. Proximal convoluted tubule (iii) Reabsorption of 70-80% of electrolytes
B. Distal convoluted tubule (iv) Ionic balance
C. Henle’s loop (i) Formation of concentrated urine
D. Counter-current mechanism (v) Maintenance of concentration gradient in medulla
E. Renal corpuscle (ii) Filtration of blood

Q13. Match the abnormal conditions given in Column A with their explanations given in Column B and choose the correct option.

Column A Column B
A. Glycosuria (i) Accumulation of uric acid in joints
B. Renal calculi (ii) Inflammation in glomeruli
C. Glomerulonephritis (iii) Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney
D. Gout (iv) Presence of glucose in urine

Options:
(a) A—(i), B—(iii), C—(ii), D—(iv)
(b) A—(iii), B—(ii), C—(iv), D—(i)
(c) A—(iv), B—(iii), C—(ii), D—(i)
(d) A—(iv), B—(ii), C—(iii), D—(i)

Ans. (c)

A. Glycosuria (iv) Presence of glucose in urine
B. Renal calculi (iii) Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney
C. Glomerulonephritis (ii) Inflammation in glomeruli
D. Gout (i) Accumulation of uric acid in joints

 

Q14. We can produce concentrated/dilute urine. This is facilitated by a special mechanism. Identify the mechanism.
(a) Reabsorption from PCT
(b) Reabsorption from collecting duct
(c) Reabsorption/secretion in DCT
(d) Counter current mechanism in Henle’s loop/Vasa recta
Ans: (d) We can produce concentrated/dilute urine. This is facilitated by a special mechanism called counter current mechanism in Henle’s loop/Vasa recta.

Q15. Dialysing unit (artificial kidney) contains a fluid which is almost same as plasma except that it has
(a) High glucose
(b) High urea
(c) No urea
(d) High uric acid
Ans: (c) Dialysing fluid = Plasma – nitrogenous wastes (urea)

Very Short Answer Type Questions
Q1. Where does the selective reabsorption of Glomerular filtrate take place?
Ans: DCT

Q2. What is the excretory product from kidneys of reptiles?
Ans: Uric acid

Q3. What is the composition of sweat produced by sweat glands?
Ans: Water, minerals, lactic acid and urea.

Q4. Identify the glands that perform the excretory function in prawns.
Ans: Antennal glands or green glands

Q5. What is the excretory structure in amoeba?
Ans: Contractile vacuole

Q6. The following abbreviations are used in the context of excretory functions, what do they stand for?
a.ANF
b. ADH
c. GFR
d. DCT
Ans: a. ANF—Atrial Natriuretic factor
b. ADH—Antidiuretic hormone
c. GFR—Glomerular Filtration Rate
d. DCT—Distal Convoluted Tubule
Q7. Differentiate Glycosuria from Ketonuria.
Ans: Glycosuria—Presence of glucose in urine.
Ketonuria—Presence of ketone bodies in urine.

Q8. What is the role of sebaceous glands?
Ans: Sebaceous glands eliminate certain substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes through sebum. This secretion provides a protective oily covering for the skin.

Q9. Name two actively transported substances in Glomerular filtrate.
Ans: Glucose and aminoacids

Q10. Mention any two metabolic disorders, which can be diagnosed by analysis of urine.
Ans: Glycosuria and ketonuria

Q11. What are the main processes of urine formation?
Ans: The main processes are filtration, reabsorption, secretion and concentration/ dilution

Q12. Sort the following into actively or passively transported substances during reabsorption of GFR:
glucose, aminoacids, nitrogenous wastes, Na+, water
Ans: Actively transported—Glucose, aminoacids and Na+
Passively transported—Nitrogenous wastes and water

Q13. Complete the following:
a. Urinary excretion = Tubular reabsorption + tubular secretion
b. Dialysis fluid = Plasma
Ans: a. Urinary excretion = Glomerular filtration – tubular reabsorption + tubular secretion
b. Dialysis fluid = Plasma – nitrogenous wastes

Q14. Mention the substances that exit from the tubules in order to maintain a concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium.
Ans: NaCl and Urea.

Q15. Fill in the blanks appropriately                  .

       Organ                              Excretory wastes

  1. Kidneys _____________________
  2. Lungs _____________________
  3. Liver _____________________
  4. Skin _____________________

Ans: a. Kidneys — Urea
b. Lungs — C02 and HzO
c. Liver — Bilirubin, biliverdin, cholesterol, degraded steroid hormones, vitamins and drugs
d. Skin — Sweat (NaCl, urea, lactic acid) and sebum (sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes).

Short Answer Type Questions
Q1. Show the structure of a renal corpuscle with the help of a diagram.
Ans:
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and Their Elimination Img 1

Q2. What is the role played by Renin-Angiotensin in the regulation of kidney function?
Ans: Renin is released from JGA on activation due to fall in the glomerular blood pressure/flow. Renin converts angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin-I and further to angiotensin-II. Angiotensin-II being a powerful vasoconstrictor, increase the glomerular blood pressure and thereby GFR. Angiotensin-II also activates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone. Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ and water from the distal parts of the tubule. This also leads to.an increase in blood pressure and thereby GFR. This is generally known as the Renin-Angiotensin mechanism.

Q3. Aquatic animals generally are ammonotelic in nature whereas terrestrial forms are not. Comment.
Ans: Ammonia is the most toxic form and requires large amount of water for its elimination, terrestrial adaptation necessitated the production of lesser toxic nitrogenous wastes like urea and uric acid for conservation of water. Mammals, many terrestrial amphibians and marine fishes mainly excrete urea and are called ureotelic animals. Ammonia produced by metabolism is converted into urea in the liver of these animals and released into the blood which is filtered and excreted out by the kidneys.

Q4. The composition of glomerular filtrate and urine is not same. Comment.
Ans: A comparison of the volume of the filtrate formed per day (180 litres per
day) with that of the urine released (1.5 litres), suggest that nearly 99% of the filtrate has to be reabsorbed by the renal tubules. This process is called reabsorption. For example, substances like glucose, amino acids, Na+, etc.,
in the filtrate are reabsorbed actively so, these substances are not present in urine.

Q5. What is the procedure advised for the correction of extreme renal failure? Give a brief account of it.
Ans: Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method in the correction of acute renal failures (kidney failure). A functioning kidney is used in transplantation from a donor, preferably a close relative, to minimise its chances of rejection by the immune system of the host. Modem clinical procedures have increased the success rate of such a complicated technique.

Q6. How have the terrestrial organisms adapted themselves for conservation of water?
Ans: Terrestrial adaptation necessitated the production of lesser toxic nitrogenous wastes like urea and uric acid for conservation of water. Mammals, many terrestrial amphibians and marine fishes mainly excrete urea and are called ureotelic animals. Ammonia produced by metabolism is converted into urea in the liver of these animals and released into the blood which is filtered and excreted out by the kidneys. Some amount of urea may be retained in the kidney matrix of some of these animals to maintain a desired osmolarity. Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects excrete nitrogenous wastes as uric acid ‘ in the form of pellet or paste with a minimum loss of water and are called uricotelic animals.

Q7. Label the parts in the following diagram
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and Their Elimination Img 2

Q8. Explain, why a haemodialysing uhit called’artificial kidney?
Ans: Malfunctioning of kidneys can lead to accumulation of urea in blood, a condition called uremia, which is highly harmful and may lead to kidney failure. In such patients, urea can be removed by a process called hemodialysis. Blood drained from a convenient artery is pumped into a dialysing unit (also called artificial kidney) after adding an anticoagulant like heparin. The unit contains a coiled cellophane tube surrounded by a fluid (dialysing fluid) having the same composition as that of plasma except the nitrogenous wastes. The porous cellophane membrane of the tube allows the passage of molecules based on concentration gradient. As nitrogenous wastes are absent in the dialysing fluid, these substances freely move out, thereby clearing the blood. The cleared blood is pumped back to the body through a vein after adding anti-heparin to it.

Q9. Comment upon the hormonal regulation of selective reabsorption.
Ans: Osmoreceptors in the body are activated by changes in blood volume, body fluid volume and ionic concentration. An excessive loss of fluid from the body can activate these receptors which stimulate the hypothalamus to release antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin from the neurohypophysis. ADH facilitates water reabsorption from latter parts of the tubule, thereby preventing diuresis.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. Explain the mechanism of formation of concentrated urine in mammals.
Ans: Mechanism of Concentration of the Filtrate:
Mammals have the ability to produce a concentrated urine. The Henle’s loop and vasa recta play a significant role in this. The flow of filtrate in the two limbs of Henle’s loop is in opposite directions and thus forms a counter current. The flow of blood through the two limbs of vasa recta is also in a counter current pattern. The proximity between the Henle’s loop and vasa recta, as well as the counter current in them help in maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary interstitium, i.e., from 300 mOsmo1L in the cortex to about 1200 mOsmolLin the inner medulla. This gradient is mainly caused by NaC1 and urea. NaC1 is transported by the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the descending limb of vasa recta. NaCl is returned to the interstitium by the ascending portion of vasa recta. Similarly, small amounts of urea enter the thin segment of the ascending limb of Henle’s ioop which is transported back to the interstitium by the collecting tubule. The above described transport of substances facilitated by the special arrangement of Henle’s loop and vasa recta is called the counter current mechanism. This mechanism helps to maintain a concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium. Presence of such interstitial gradient helps in an easy passage of water from the collecting tubule thereby concentrating the filtrate (urine). Human kidneys can produce urine nearly four times concentrated than the initial filtrate formed.

Q2. Draw a labelled diagram shewing reabsorption and secretion of major substances at different parts of the nephron.
Ans:
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and Their Elimination Img 3

Q3. Explain briefly, micturition and disorders of the excretory system.
Ans:
• Micturition: Urine formed by the nephrons is ultimately carried to the urinary bladder where it is stored till a voluntary signal is given by the central nervous system (CNS). This signal is initiated by the stretching of the urinary bladder as it gets filled with urine. In response, the stretch receptors on the walls of the bladder send signals to the CNS. The CNS passes on motor messages to initiate the contraction of smooth muscles of the bladder and simultaneous relaxation of the urethral sphincter causing the release of urine. The process of release of urine is called micturition and the neural mechanisms causing it is called the micturition reflex.
• Disorders of the Excretory System: Malfunctioning of kidneys can lead to accumulation of urea in blood, a condition called uremia, which is highly harmful and may lead to kidney failure. In such patients, urea can be removed by a process called hemodialysis. Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method in the correction of acute renal failures (kidney failure).
• Renal calculi: Stone or insoluble mass of crystallised salts (oxalates, etc.) formed within the kidney.
• Glomerulonephritis: Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney.

Q4. How does tubular secretion help in maintaining ionic and acid-base balance in body fluids?
Ans: During urine formation, the tubular cells secrete substances like H+, K+ and ammonia into the filtrate. Tubular secretion is also an important step in urine formation as it helps in the maintenance of ionic and acid base balance of body fluids.              .

  • PCT helps to maintain the pH and ionic balance of the body fluids by selective secretion of hydrogen ions, ammonia and potassium ions into the filtrate
  • DCT is also capable of selective secretion of hydrogen and potassium ions and NH3 to maintain the pH and sodium-potassium balance in blood.
  • Collecting duct also plays a role in the maintenance of pH and ionic balance of blood by the selective secretion of H+ and K+

Q5. The” glomerular filtrate in the loop of Henle gets concentrated in the descending and then gets diluted in the ascending limbs. Explain.
Ans: A hairpin shaped Henle’s loop has a descending and an ascending limb. Reabsorption is minimum in its ascending limb. However, this region plays a significant role in the maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary interstitial fluid. The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes. This concentrates the filtrate as it moves down. The ascending limb is impermeable to water but allows transport of electrolytes actively or passively. Therefore, as the concentrated filtrate pass upward, it gets diluted due to the passage of electrolytes to the medullary fluid.

Q6. Describe the structure of a human kidney with the help of a labelled diagram.
Ans: In humans, the excretory system consists of a pair of kidneys, one pair of
ureters, a urinary bladder and a urethra. Kidneys are reddish brown, bean shaped structures situated between the levels of last thoracic and third lumbar vertebra close to the dorsal inner wall of the abdominal cavity. Each kidney of an adult human measures 10-12 cm in length, 5-7 cm in width, 2-3 cm in thickness with an average weight of 120-170 g. Towards the centre of the inner concave surface of the kidney is a notch called hilum through which ureter, blood vessels and nerves enter. Inner to the hilum is a broad funnel shaped space called the renal pelvis with projections called calyces. The outer layer of kidney is a tough capsule. Inside the kidney, there are two zones, an outer cortex and an inner meditlla. The medulla is divided into a few conical masses (medullary pyramids) projecting into the calyces (sing.: calyx). The cortex extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal columns called Columns of Bertini. Each kidney has nearly one million complex tubular structures called nephrons, which are the functional units.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 19 Excretory Products and Their Elimination Img 4

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. Match the following and mark the correct option.

Column I Column II
A. Fast muscle fibres (i) Myoglobin
B. Slow muscle fibres (ii) Lactic acid
C. Actin filament (iii) Contractile unit
D. Sarcomere (iv) I-band

Options:
(a) A—(i), B—(ii), C—(iv), D—(iii)
(b) A—(ii), B—(i), C—(iii), D—(iv)
(c) A—(ii), B—(i), C—(iv), D—(iii)
(d) A—(iii), B—(ii), C—(iv), D—(i)

Ans. (c)

A. Fast muscle fibres (ii) Lactic acid
B. Slow muscle fibres (i) Myoglobin
C. Actin filament (iv) I-band
D. Sarcomere (iii) Contractile unit

Q2. Ribs are attached to
(a) Scapula (b) Sternum (c) Clavicle (d) Ilium
Ans: (b) Ribs are attached to sternum.

Q3. What is the type of movable joint present between the atlas and axis?
(a) Pivot (b) Saddle (c) Hinge (d) Gliding
Ans: (a) Pivot joint: Between atlas and axis called atlanto-axial joint.

Q4. ATPase of the muscle is located in
(a) Actinin (b) Troponin (c) Myosin (d) Actin
Ans: (c) ATPase of the muscle is located in head of myosin.

Q5. Intervertebral disc is found in the vertebral column of
(a) Birds (b) Reptiles (c) Mammals (d) Amphibians
Ans: (c) Intervertebral disc is found in the vertebral column of mammals.

Q6. Which one of the following is showing the correct sequential order of vertebrae in the vertebral column of human beings? ‘
(a) Cervical — lumbar — thoracic — sacral — coccygeal
(b) Cervical — thoracic — sacral — lumbar — coccygeal
(c) Cervical — sacral — thoracic — lumbar — coccygeal
(d) Cervical — thoracic — lumbar — sacral — coccygeal
Ans: (d) Cervical—thoracic—lumbar—sacral—coccygeal is the correct sequential order of vertebrae in the vertebral column of human beings.

Q7. Which one of the following options is incorrect?
(a) Hinge joint—between humerus and pectoral girdle
(b) Pivot joint—between atlas, axis and occipital condyle
(c) Gliding joint—between the carpals
(d) Saddle joint—between carpel and metacarpals of thumb
Ans: (a) Hinge joint—Knee joint and elbow joint

Q8. Knee joint and elbow joints are examples of
(a) Saddle joint (b) Ball and socket joint
(c) Pivot joint (d) Hinge joint
Ans: (d) Knee joint and elbow joints are examples of hinge joint.

Q9. Macrophages and leucocytes exhibit
(a) Ciliary movement
(b) Flagellar movement
(c) Amoeboid movement
(d) Gliding movement
Ans: (c) Amoeboid movements: Some specialised cells in our body like macrophages and leucocytes in blood exhibit amoeboid movement. It is effected by pseudopodia formed by the streaming of protoplasm (as in Amoeba). Cytoskeletal elements like microfilaments are also involved in amoeboid movement.

Q10. Which one of the following is not a disorder of bone?
(a) Arthritis
(b) Osteoporosis
(c) Rickets
(d) Atherosclerosis
Ans: (d) Atherosclerosis is a disorder of circulatory system.

Q11. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Heart muscles are striated and involuntary
(b) The muscles of hands and legs are striated and voluntary
(c) The muscles located in the inner walls of alimentary canal are striated and involuntary
(d) Muscles located in the reproductive tracts are unstriated and involuntary
Ans:(c) The muscles located in the inner walls of alimentary canal are non- striated and involuntary.

Q12. Which one of the following statements is-true?
(a) Head of humerus bone articulates with acetabulum of pectoral girdle
(b) Head of humerus bone articulates with glenoid cavity of pectoral girdle
(c) Head of humerus bone articulates with a cavity called acetabulum of pelvic girdle
(d) Head of humerus bone articulates with a glenoid cavity of pelvic girdle
Ans: (b) Below the acromion is a depression called the glenoid cavity which articulates with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint.

Q13. Muscles with characteristic striations and involuntary are
(a) Muscles in the wall of alimentary canal
(b) Muscles of the heart
(c) Muscles assisting locomotion
(d) Muscles of the eyelids
Ans: (b) Muscles with characteristic striations and involuntary are muscles of the heart (Cardiac muscles).

Q14. Match the followings and mark the correct option.

Column I .                  Column II
A. Sternum (i) Synovial fluid
B. Glenoid cavity (ii) Vertebrae
C. Freely movable joint (iii) Pectoral girdle
D. Cartilaginous joint (iv) Flat bones

Options:

(a) A—(ii), B—(i), C—{iii), D—(iv)
(b) A—(iv), B—(iii), C—(i), D—(ii)
(c) A—(ii), B—(i), C—(iv), D—(iii)
(d) A—(iii), B—(i), C—(ii), D—(iv)

Ans. (b)

A. Sternum (iv) Flat bones
B. Glenoid cavity (iii) Synovial fluid
C. Freely movable joint (i) Pectoral girdle
D. Cartilaginous joint (ii) Yertebrae

 

Very Short Answer Type Questions
Q1. Name the cells/tissues in human body which
a. exhibit amoeboid movement
b. exhibit ciliary movement
Ans: a. Macrophages and leucocytes
b. Trachea, fallopian tube and bronchiole

Q2. Locomotion requires a perfect‘coordinated activity of muscular _____________, _______ , systems.
Ans: Skeletal and Neural

Q3. Sarcolemma, sarcoplasm and sarcoplasmic reticulum refer to a particular type of cell in our body. Which is this cell and to what parts of that cell do these names refer to?
Ans: Each muscle fibre or muscle cell is lined by the plasma membrane called sarcolemma enclosing the sarcoplasm. A muscle fibre is a syncytium as the sarcoplasm (cytoplasm) contains many nuclei. The endoplasmic reticulum, i. e., sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fibres is the store house of calcium ions.

Q4 .Label the different components of actin filament in the diagram given
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement Img 1
Q5. The. three tiny bones present in middle ear are called ear ossicles. Write them in correct sequence beginning from eardrum.
Ans: Malleus, incus and stapes.

Q6. What is the difference between the matrix of bones and cartilage?
Ans: Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres which give bone its strength.
The inter-cellular material of cartilage is solid and pliable which resists compression. Cell of cartilage are called chondrocytes which are enclosed in a small cavities (lacunae) within the matrix secreted by them.

Q7. Which tissue is afflicted by Myasthenia gravis? What is the underlying cause?
Ans: Myasthenia gravis: Auto-immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle.

Q8. How do our bone joints function without grinding noise and pain?
Ans: Our bone joints function without grinding noise and pain due to the presence of synovial fluid between bones.

Q9. Give the location of a ball and socket joint in a human body.
Ans: Ball and socket joint: Between humerus and pectoral girdle (shoulder joint). Between femur and acetabulum of pelvic girdle (hip joint). Total 4 ball and socket joints present in human body -2 shoulder joint and 2 hip joint.

Q10. Our forearm is made of three different bones. Comment.
Ans: The bones of the forearm are humerus, radius and ulna.

Q1. With respect to rib cage, explain the following:
a. Bicephalic ribs
b. True ribs
c. Floating ribs
Ans: a. Bicephalic ribs: Each rib is a thin flat bone connected dorsally to the vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum. It has two articulation surfaces on its dorsal end and is hence called bicephalic.
b. True ribs: First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs. Dorsally, they are attached to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.
c. Floating ribs: Last 2 pairs (11th and 12th) of ribs are not connected ventrally and are therefore, called floating ribs.

Q2. In old age, people often suffer from stiff and inflamed joints. What is this condition called? What are the possible reasons for these symptoms?
Ans: In old age, people suffer from stiff and inflamed joints, it is due to rheumatoid arthritis (autoimmune disorder)
Causes: (i) Inflammation of synovial membrane
(ii) Genetic factors (50% cases) .
(iii) Smoking
(iv) Vitamin-D deficiency

Q3. Exchange of calcium between bone and extracellular fluid takes place under the influence of certain hormones.

  1. What will happen if more of Ca + is in extracellular fluid?
  2. What will happen if very less amount of Ca++ is in the extracellular fluid?

Ans: a. If more of Ca++ is in extracellular fluid then it will be accumulated on the bones under the influence of thyrocalcitonin (TCT).
b. If very less amount of Ca++ is in the extracellular fluid then parathyroid hormone (PTFI) acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone resorption (dissolution/demineralisation). PTH also stimulates reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal tubules and increases Ca2+ absorption from the digested food.

Q4. Name at least two hormones which result in fluctuation of Ca++

Ans: Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) and Parathyroid Hormone (PTH).

Q5. Rahul exercises regularly by visiting a gymnasium. Of late he is gaining weight. What could be the reason? Choose the correct answer and elaborate.
a. Rahul has gained weight due to accumulation of fats in body.
b. Rahul has gained weight due to increased muscle and less of fat.
c. Rahul has gained weight because his muscle shape has improved.
d. Rahul has gained weight bdcause he is accumulating water in the body.
Ans: Rahul has gained weight due to increased muscle and less of fat.

Q6. Radha was running on a treadmill at a great speed for 15 minutes continuously. She stopped the treadmill and abruptly came out. For the next few minutes, she was breathing heavily/fast. Answer the following questions:
a. What happened to her muscles when she did strenuously exercise?
b. How did her breathing rate change?
Ans: a. Repeated activation of the muscles can lead to the accumulation of lactic acid due to anaerobic breakdown of glycogen in them, causing fatigue.
b. During strenuous exercise demand of oxygen also increases so breathing rate has been changed.

Q7. Write a few lines about Gout.
Ans: When metabolic waste-uric acid crystals are accumulated in bones, then it results into inflammation of bone and joints thereby causing pain. This disorder of skeletal system is called gout.

Q8. What is the source of energy for muscle contraction?
Ans: ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate)

Q9. What are the points for articulation of pelvic and pectoral girdles?
Ans: The components of pelvic girdle are ilium, ischium and pubis. It articulates with, femur through acetabulum. The components of pectoral girdle are scapula and clavicle. It is the glenoid cavity of pectoral girdle in which head . of humerus articulates.

Long Answer Type Questions

Q1. Calcium ion concentration in blood affects muscle contraction. Does it lead to tetany in certain cases? How will you correlate fluctuation in blood calcium with tetany?
Ans: Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system (CNS) via a motor neuron. A neural signal reaching this junction releases a neurotransmitter (acetyl choline) which generates an action potential in the sarcolemma. This spreads through the muscle fibre and causes the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm. Increase in Ca++ level leads to the binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on actin filaments and thereby remove the masking of active sites for myosin. Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the myosin head now binds to the exposed active sites on actin to form a cross-bridge. This pulls the attached actin filaments towards the centre of ‘A’ band. The ‘Z’ line attached to these actins are also pulled inwards thereby causing a shortening of the sarcomere, i.e., contraction. The process continues till the Ca++ ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic cisternae resulting in the masking of actin filaments.

Tetany: Rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle due to low Ca in body fluid.

Q2. An elderly woman slipped in th£ bathroom and had severe pain in her lower back. After X-ray examination doctors told her it is due to a slipped disc. What does that mean? How does it affect our health?
Ans: Displacement of intervertebral disc from’ their normal position is called slipped disc.
Effects:
i. Neck or lower back pain
ii. Muscular weakness
iii. Paralysis
iv. Sciatica

Q3. Explain sliding filament theory of muscle contraction with neat sketches.
Ans. Mechanism of muscle contraction: Mechanism of muscle contraction is best explained by the sliding filament theory which states that contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the thin filaments over the thick filaments. Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the Central Nervous System (CNS) via a motor neuron. A motor neuron alongwith the muscle fibres connected to it constitute a motor unit. The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called the neuromuscular junction or motor-end plate. A neural signal reaching this junction releases a neurotransmitter (acetyl choline) which generates an action potential in the sarcolemma. This spreads through the muscle fibre and causes the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm. Increase in Ca++ level leads to the binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on actin filaments and thereby remove the masking of active sites for myosin.Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the myosin head now binds to the exposed active sites on actin to form a cross-bridge. This pulls the attached

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement Img 2

actin filaments towards the centre of ‘A’ band. The ‘Z’ line attached to these actins are also pulled inwards thereby causing a shortening of the sarcomere, i.e., contraction. It is clear from the above steps, that during shortening of the muscle, i.e., contraction, the ‘I’ bands get reduced, whereas the ‘A’ bands retain the length. The myosin, releasing the ADP and P, goes back to its relaxed state. A new ATP binds and the cross-bridge is broken. The ATP is again hydrolysed by the myosin head and the cycle of cross-bridge formation and breakage is repeated causing further sliding. The process continues till the Ca++ ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic cistemae resulting in the masking of actin filaments. This causes the return of ‘Z’ lines back to their original position, i.e., relaxation.

Q5. Discuss the role of Ca2+ ions in muscle contraction. Draw neat sketches to illustrate your answer.
Ans: Muscle contraction is initiated by a neural signal, which after reaching neuromuscular junction or motor end plate releases a neurotransmitter, as a result an action potential in the sarcolemma is generated. Action potential spreads through muscle fibre and causes the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm. Increase in Ca2+ level leads to the binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on actin filaments and thereby removes the masking of active sites for myosin. Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the myosin head now binds to the exposed active site on actin to form a cross-bridge. This pulls the attached actin filaments towards the centre of ‘A’ band. The ‘Z’ line attached to these actins are also pulled inwards thereby causing shortening of the sarcomere, i.e., contraction.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 20 Locomotion and Movement Img 3
A new ATP binds to myosin head and the cross-bridge is broken. The ATP is again hydrolysed by the myosin head and the cycle of cross-bridge formation and breakage is repeated causing further sliding. The process continues till the Ca++ ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic cistemae resulting in masking of actin filaments and breakage of all cross-bridges. This cause the return of ‘Z’ lines along with filaments back to their original position, i.e., relaxation.

Q6. Differentiate between pectoral and pelvic girdle.
Ans: Pectoral and pelvic girdle help in the articulation of upper and lower limbs respectively. Each girdle is made of two equal halves. Each half of a pectoral girdle consists of clavicle and scapula. Scapula is a large triangular flat bone. There is glenoid cavity at the joint of scapula, clavicle and acromian process, which articulates with the head of humerus to form the shoulder joint. Each half of pelvic girdle is formed by three bones—ilium, ischium and pubis. At the point of their fusion; there is a cavity called acetabulum to which the head of femur articulates.

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. Which of the following cells does not exhibit phagocytic activity?
(a) Monocytes (b) Neutrophil (c) Basophil (d) Macrophage
Ans: (c) Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin, heparin, etc., and are involved in inflammatory reactions.

Q2. One of the common symptoms observed in people infected with Dengue fever is
(a) significant decrease in RBC count
(b) significant decrease in WBC count
(c) significant decrease in platelets count
(d) significant increase in platelets count
Ans: (c) One of the common symptoms observed in people infected with Dengue fever is significant decrease in platelets count.

Q3. Which among the followings is correct during each cardiac cycle?
(a) The volume of blood pumped out by the Rt and Lt ventricles is same
(b) The volume of blood pumped out by the Rt and Lt ventricles is different
(c) The volume of blood received by each atrium is different
(d) The volume of blood received by the aorta and pulmonary artery is different
Ans: (a) The volume of blood pumped out by the Rt and Lt ventricles is same.

Q4. The cardiac activity could be moderated by the autonomous neural system. Tick the correct answer
(a) The parasympathetic system stimulates heart rate and stroke volume
(b) The sympathetic system stimulates heart rate and stroke volume
(c) The parasympathetic system decreases the heart rate but increase stroke volume
(d) The sympathetic system decreases the heart rate but increase stroke volume
Ans: (b) A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata can moderate the cardiac function through autonomic nervous system (ANS). Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves (part of ANS) can increase the rate of heart beat, the strength of ventricular contraction and thereby the cardiac output. On the other hand, parasympathetic neural signals (another component of ANS) decrease the rate of heart beat, speed of conduction of action potential and thereby the cardiac output.

Q5. Mark the pair of substances among the following which is essential for coagulation of blood.
(a) Heparin and calcium ions (b) Calcium ions and platelet factors
(c) Oxalates and citrates (d) Platelet factors and heparin
Ans: (b) Calcium ions and platelet factors are essential for coagulation of blood.

Q6. ECG depicts the depolarisation and repolarisation processes during the cardiac cycle. In the ECG of a normal healthy individual one of the following waves is not represented.
(a) Depolarisation of atria (b) Repolarisation of atria
(c) Depolarisation of ventricles (d) Repolarisation of ventricles
Ans: (b) ECG depicts the depolarisation and repolarisation processes during the cardiac cycle. In the ECG of a normal healthy individual repolarisation of atria is not represented.

Q7. Which one of the following types of cells lack nucleus in humans
(a) RBC (b) Neutrophils (c) Eosinophils (d) Erythrocytes
Ans: (a and d) RBCs or erythrocytes lack nucleus in humans.

Q8. Which one of the following blood cells is involved in antibody production?
(a) B-lymphocytes (b) T-Lymphocytes
(c) RBC (d) Neutrophils
Ans: (a) B-lymphocytes cells are involved in antibody production.

Q9. The cardiac impulse is initiated and conducted further up to ventricle. The correct sequence of conduction of impulse is

Q10. Agranulocytes responsible for immune response of the body are
(a) Basophils (b) Neutrophils (c) Eosinophils (d) Lymphocytes
Ans: (d) Lymphocytes (20-25%) are of two major types—‘B’ and ‘T’ forms. Both B and T lymphocytes are responsible for immune responses of the body.

Q11. The second heart sound (dub) is associated with the closure of
(a) Tricuspid valve (b) Semilunar valves
(c) Bicuspid valve (d) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves
Ans: (b) The first heart sound (lub) is associated with the closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves whereas the second heart sound (dub) is associated with the closure of the semilunar valves.

Q12. Which of the following correctly explains a phase/event in cardiac cycle in a standard electrocardiogram?
(a) QRS complex indicates atrial contraction
(b) QRS complex indicates ventricular contraction
(c) Time between S and T represents atrial systole
(d) P-wave indicates beginning of ventricular contraction
Ans: (b)
• P-wave—Atrial depolarisation (atrial systole/contraction)
• QRScomplex—Ventriculardepolarisation(ventricularsystole/contraction)
• T-wave—Ventricular repolarisation (ventricular relaxation)

Q13. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) A person of ‘O’ blood group has anti ‘A’ and anti ‘B’ antibodies in his blood plasma
(b) A person of ‘B’ blood group cannot donate blood to a person of ‘A’ blood group
(c) Blood group is designated on the basis of the presence of antibodies in the blood plasma
(d) A person of AB blood group is universal recipient
Ans: (c) Blood group is designated on the basis of the antigen is present on the RBCs surface

Q14. What would be the cardiac output of a person having 72 heart beats per minute and a stroke volume of 50 mL?
(a) 360 mL (b) 3600 mL (c) 7200 mL (d) 5000 mL
Ans: (b) Cardiac output = Stroke volume x Heart rate = 50 x 72 = 3600 mL/min

Q15. Match the terms given under Column ‘A’ with their functions given under Column ‘B’ and select the answer from the options given below:

Column A Column B
A. Lymphatic system (i) Carries oxygenated blood
B. Pulmonary vein (ii) Immune Response
C. Thrombocytes (iii) To drain back the tissue fluid to the circulatory system
D. Lymphocytes (iv) Coagulation of blood

(a) A—(ii), B—(i), C—(iii), D—(iv)
(b) A—(iii), B—(i), C—(iv), D—(ii)
(c) A—(iii), B—(i), C—(ii), D—(iv)
(d) A—(ii), B—(i), C—(iii), D—(iv)

Ans: (b)

A. Lymphatic System (iii) To drain back the tissue fluid to the circulatory system
B. Pulmonary vein (i) Carries oxygenated blood
C. Thrombocytes (iv) Coagulation of blood
D. Lymphocytes (ii) Immune Response

 

Q16. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: Atria receive blood from all parts of the body which subsequently flows to ventricles.
Statement 2: Action potential generated at sino-atrial node passes from atria to ventricles.
(a) Action mentioned in Statement 1 is dependent on action mentioned in Statement 2.
(b) Action mentioned in Statement 2 is dependent on action mentioned in Statement 1.
(c) Actions mentioned in Statements 1 and 2 are independent of each other.
(d) Actions mentioned in Statements 1 and 2 are synchronous.
Ans: (b) Statement 1: Atria receive blood from all pans of the body which subsequently flows to ventricles.
Statement 2: Action potential generated at sino-atrial node passes from atria to ventricles.
Action mentioned in Statement 2 is dependent on action mentioned in Statement 1.
Very Short Answer Type Questions
Q1. Name the blood component which is viscous and straw coloured fluid.
Ans: Plasma .

Q2. Complete the missing word in the statement given below:
a. Plasma without _______ factors is called serum.
b. _______ and monocytes are phagocytic cells.
c. Eosinophils are associated with _______ reactions.
d. _______ ions play a significant role in clotting.
e. One can determine the heart beat rate by counting the number of _______ in an ECG.

Ans: a. Plasma without clotting factors is called serum.
b. Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytic cells.
c. Eosinophils are associated with allergic reactions.
d. Calcium ions play a significant role in clotting.
e. One can determine the heart beat rate by counting the number of QRS complex in an ECG.

Q3. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of a standard ECG. Label its different peaks
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation Img 2

Q4. Name the vascular connection that exists between the digestive tract and liver.
Ans: Hepatic portal system

Q5. Given below are the abnormal conditions related to blood circulation. Name the disorders.
a. Acute chest pain due to failure of 02 supply to heart muscles
b. Increased systolic pressure
Ans: a. Acute chest pain due to failure of 02 supply to heart muscles—Angina
b. Increased systolic pressure—Hypertension/high blood pressure

Q6. Which is coronary artery diseases caused due to narrowing of the lumen of arteries?
Ans: Atherosclerosis

Q7. Define the following terms and give their-locations?
a. Purkinje fibre
b.Bundle of His
Ans: a. Purkinje fibre—Right and left bundles give rise to minute fibres throughout the ventricular musculature of the respective sides and are called purkinje fibres. .
b. Bundle of His—Purkinje fibres alongwith right and left bundles are known as bundle of His and present in ventricles.

Q8. State the functions of the following in blood:
a. Fibrinogen b. Globulin
c. Neutrophils d. Lymphocytes
Ans: a. Fibrinogen—Fibrinogens are needed for clotting or coagulation of blood. ■
b. Globulin—Globulins primarily are involved in immunity, i.e., defense mechanisms of the body.
c. Neutrophils—Phagocytosis
d. Lymphocytes—Immunity

Q9. What physiological circumstances lead to’erythroblastosis foetalis?
Ans: A special case of Rh incompatibility (mismatching) has been observed between the Rh-negative blood of a pregnant mother with Rh-positive blood of the foetus.

Q10. Explain the consequences of a situation in which blood does not coagulate.
Ans: This situation leads to excessive loss of blood from body due to injury which
can be fatal.
Q11. What is the significance of time gap in the passage of action potential from sino-atrial node to the ventricle?
Ans: This time gap is significant for ventricular systole.

Q12. How will you interpret an electrocardiogram (ECG) in which time taken in QRS complex is higher.
Ans: Period of ventricular systole increases

Short Answer Type Questions

Q1. The walls of ventricles are much thicker than atria. Explain.
Ans: The walls of ventricles are much thicker than atria because they pump blood more strongly than the atria.

Q2. Differentiate between:
a.  Blood and Lymph
b. Basophils and Eosinophils
c. Tricuspid and Bicuspid valves
Ans: a. Blood and Lymph: Blood is a connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix, plasma and formed elements (RBCs, WBCs and Platelets). Blood flows in blood vascular system comprising heart, arteries and veins.
Lymph is a colourless fluid containing specialised lymphocytes (imparting immunity to the body), but devoid of RBCs. Lymph flows in the lymphatic system and it absorbs fats.

a. Blood    ‘ Lymph
1. It contains plasma, RBCs, WBCs and platelets 1. It contains plasma and lymphocytes
2. It is red in colour 2. It is colourless
3. Haemoglobin is present 3. Haemoglobin is absent
4. It transports nutrients and gases from heart to tissues and vice-versa 4. It transports infection fighting white blood cells from tissues to lymph nodes
b. Basophils Eosinophils
1. They constitute about 0.5-1% of WBCs 1. They constitute about 2-3% of WBCs
2. They secrete heparin,

histamine and serotonin

2. They resist infection
3. They are involved in inflammatory reaction 3. These are associated with allergic reactions
c. Tricuspid valve Bicuspid valve
1. It has three cusps. 1. It have two cusps.
2. It is present between right atrium and right ventricle 2. It is present between left atrium and left ventricle.

 

Q3. Briefly describe the following:
a. Anaemia
b. Angina Pectoris
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Hypertension
e. Heart failure
f. Erythroblastosis foetalis
Ans: a. Anaemia: Decrease in oxygen carrying capacity of blood either due to reduced RBCs production or low haemoglobin content is called anaemia.
b. Angina Pectoris: A symptom of acute chest pain appears when no enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscle. Angina can occur in men and women of any age but it is more common among the middle-aged ” and elderly. It occurs due to conditions that affect the blood flow.
c. Atherosclerosis: Sometimes deposition of calcium, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues occurs in the blood vessel (e.g., coronary artery) supplying blood to the heart muscles. This condition makes the lumen of arteries narrower affecting blood supply to heart; which leads to Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) also referred to as atherosclerosis.
d. Hypertension: If repeated checks of blood pressure of an individual is 140/90 (140 over 90) or higher, it shows hypertension. High blood pressure leads to heart diseases and also affects vital organs like brain and kidney.
e. Heart failure: Heart failure means the state of heart when it is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body. It is sometimes called congestive heart failure because congestion of the lungs is one of the main symptoms of this disease.
f. Erythroblastosis foetalis: A special case of Rh incompatibility (mismatching) has been observed between the Rh-negative blood of a pregnant mother with Rh-positive blood of the foetus! Rh antigens of the foetus do not get exposed to the Rh-negative blood of the mother in the first pregnancy as the two bloods are well separated by the placenta. However, during the delivery of the first child, there is a possibility of exposure of the maternal blood to small amounts of the Rh-positive blood from the foetus. In such cases, the mother starts preparing antibodies against Rh antigen in her blood. In case of her subsequent pregnancies, the Rh antibodies from the mother (Rh-negative) can leak
into the blood of the foetus (Rh-positive) and destroy the foetal RBCs. This could be fatal to the foetus or could cause severe anaemia and jaundice to the baby. This condition is called erythroblastosis foetalis. This can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the first child.

Q4. Explain the advantage of the complete partition of ventricle among birds and mammals and hence leading to double circulation.
Ans: Complete partition of ventricle among birds and mammals is advantageous because there is no mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the ventricle, so tissues of the body receive more oxygenated blood.

Q5. What is the significance of hepatic portal system in the circulatory system?
Ans: The hepatic portal vein carries blood from intestine to liver before it is
delivered to systemic circulation. This is significant because excess of nutrients like glucose is converted into glycogen in liver and stored there.

Q6. Explain the functional significance of lymphatic system?
Ans: As the blood passes through the capillaries in tissues, some water along with many small water soluble substances move out into the spaces between the cells of tissues leaving the larger proteins and most of the formed elements in the blood vessels. This fluid released out is called the interstitial fluid or tissue fluid. It has the same mineral distribution as that in plasma. Exchange of nutrients, gases, etc., between the blood and the cells always occur through this, fluid. An elaborate network of vessels called the lymphatic system collects this fluid and drains it back to the major veins. The fluid present in the lymphatic system is called the lymph. Lymph is a colourless fluid containing specialised lymphocytes which are responsible for the immune responses of the body. Lymph is also an important carrier for nutrients, hormones, etc. Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals present in the intestinal villi.

Q7. Write the features that distinguish between the two
a. Plasma and Serum
b. Open and Closed circulatory system
c. Sino-atrial node and Atrio-ventricular node

a. Plasma Serum
i. Blood without              formed

elements is called plasma

1. Plasma without clotting factor is called serum
2. Plasma has clotting factors 2. Serum does not have clotting factors
3. Plasma involved in blood coagulation 3. Serum does not involve in blood coagulation
b. Open circulatory system Closed circulatory system
1. Blood pumped by heart passes through large vessels into open spaces or body cavities called sinuses 1. Blood pumped by the heart is always circulated through a closed network of blood vessels
2. Less advantageous 2. More advantageous
3. Flow of fluid cannot be more precisely regulated 3. Flow of fluid can be more precisely regulated
4. It is present in arthropods molluscs, and hemichordates 4. It is found in annelids and chordates
c. Sino-atrial node Atrio-ventricular node
1. SA node is present in the right upper comer of the right atrium 1. AV node is present in the lower left comer of the right atrium
2. It initiates and maintains the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart 2. It passes the electrical impulses from SA node to AV bundle
3. It is also called pace-maker 3. It is also called pace-setter

 

Q9. Answer the following:
a. Name the major site where RBCs are formed.
b. Which part of heart is responsible for initiating and maintaining its rhythmic activity?
c. What is specific in the heart of crocodiles among reptilians?
Ans: a. Bone marrow
b. Sino-Atrial Node (SA Node)
c. Reptiles have 3-chambered heart but crocodiles have 4-chambered heart.

Long Answer Type Questions
Q1. Explain Rh-incompatibility in humans.
Ans: A special case of Rh-incompatibility (mismatching) has been observed between the Rh-negative blood of a pregnant mother with Rh-positive blood of the foetus. Rh antigens of the foetus do not get exposed to the Rh-negative blood of the mother in the first pregnancy as the two bloods are well separated by the placenta. However, during the delivery of the first child, there is a possibility of exposure of the maternal blood to small amounts of the Rh – positive blood from the foetus. In such cases, the mother starts preparing antibodies against Rh antigen in her blood. In case of her subsequent pregnancies, the Rh antibodies from the mother (Rh-negative) can leak into the blood of the foetus (Rh-positive) and destroy the foetal RBCs. This could be fatal to the foetus or could cause severe anaemia and jaundice to the baby. This condition is called erythroblastosis foetalis. This can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the first child.

Q2. Describe the events in cardiac cycle. Explain “double circulation”.
Ans:
• Cardiac cycle: To begin with, all the four chambers of heart are in a relaxed state, i.e., they are in joint diastole. As the tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open, blood from the pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the left and the right ventricle respectively through the left and right atria. The semilunar valves are closed at this stage. The SAN now generates an action potential which stimulates both the atria to undergo a simultaneous contraction—the atrial systole. This increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about 30%. The action potential is conducted to the ventricular side by the AVN and AV bundle from where the bundle of His transmits it through the entire ventricular musculature. This causes the ventricular muscles to contract (ventricular systole), the atria undergoes relaxation (diastole), coinciding with the ventricular systole. Ventricular systole increases the ventricular pressure causing the closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves due to attempted backflow of blood into the atria. As the ventricular pressure increases further, the semilunar valves guarding the pulmonary artery (right side) and the aorta (left side) are forced open, •allowing the blood in the ventricles to flow through these vessels into the circulatory pathways.
The ventricles now relax (ventricular diastole) and the ventricular pressure falls causing the closure of semilunar valves which prevents the backflow of blood into the ventricles. As the ventricular pressure declines further, the tricuspid and bicuspid valves are pushed open by the pressure in the atria exerted by the blood which was being emptied into them by the veins. The blood now once again moves freely to the ventricles. The ventricles and atria are now again in a relaxed (joint diastole) state, as earlier. Soon the SAN generates a new action potential and the events described above are repeated in that sequence and the process continues.
• Double circulation: The blood pumped by the right ventricle enters the pulmonary artery, whereas the left ventricle pumps blood into the aorta. The deoxygenated blood pumped into the pulmonary artery is passed on to the lungs from where the oxygenated blood is carried by the pulmonary veins into the left atrium. This pathway constitutes the pulmonary circulation. The oxygenated blood entering the aorta is carried by a network of arteries, arterioles and capillaries to the tissues from where the deoxygenated blood is collected by a system of venules, veins and vena cava and emptied into the right atrium. This is the systemic circulation. The systemic circulation provides nutrients, 02 and other essential substances to the tissues and takes C02 and other harmful substances away for elimination.

Q3. Explain different types of blood groups and donor compatibility by making a table.
Ans: ABO blood grouping is based* on the presence or absence of two surface antigens on the RBCs namely A and B. Similarly, the plasma of different individuals contain two natural antibodies anti-A and anti-B. Blood group ‘A’ carries antigen-A and antibodies-B. The donor’s group for blood group A are A and O. Blood group B carries antigen-B and antibodies-A. The donor’s group for blood group B are B and O. Blood group AB carries antigens A and B but no corresponding antibodies so, the compatible donor’s group for blood group AB are A, B, AB and O hence, blood group ‘AB’ is also called as “universal acceptor’’. Blood group ‘O’ carries no antigens but carries antibodies both A and B hence its compatible donor’s group is only ‘O’ but it is a compatible donor group for all the blood groups. A, B, AB and O hence, blood group ‘O’ is called as ‘universal donor’.

Blood groups and donor compatibility

Blood Group . Antigen on RBCs Antibodies in Plasma Donor’s

Compatibility

A A Anti-B A, O
B B Anti-A B, 0
AB A. B Nil AB, A, B, 0
0 ‘ Nil Anti – A, B 0

Q4. Write a short note on the following:
a. Hypertension
b. Coronary Artery Disease
Ans: a. Hypertension: If repeated checks of blood pressure of an individual is 140/90 (140 over 90) or higher, it shows hypertension. High blood pressure leads to heart diseases and also affects vital organs like brain and kidney.
b. Coronary Artery Disease: Coronary Artery Disease, often referred to as atherosclerosis, affects the vessels that supply blood to the heart muscle. It is caused by deposits of calcium, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues, which makes the lumen of arteries narrower.

Q5. In the diagrammatic presentation of heart given below, mark and label, SAN, AVN, AV bundles, bundle of His and Purkinje fibres.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation Img 3

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation Img 4

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination

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NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination are part of NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology. Here we have given NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination

Multiple Choice Questions

Q1. Chemicals which are released at the synaptic junction are called
(a) Hormones
(b) Neurotransmitters
(c) Cerebrospinal fluid
(d) Lymph
Ans: (b) Chemicals released at the synaptic junction are called neurotransmitters.

Q2. Potential difference across resting membrane is negatively charged. This is due to differential distribution of the following ions
(a)Na+ and K+ ions
(b) C03++and Cl“ ions
(c) Ca*+ and Mg++ ions                         
(d) Ca+4 and CL ions
Ans: (a) Potential difference across resting membrane is negatively charged. This is due to differential distribution of Na+ and K+ ions.

Q3. Resting membrane potential is maintained by
(a) Hormones (b) Neurotransmitters
(c) Ion pumps (d) None of the above
Ans: (c) Resting membrane potential is maintained by ion pumps.

Q4. The function of our visceral organs is controlled by
(a) Sympathetic and somatic neural system
(b) Sympathetic and parasympathetic neural system
(c) Central and somatic neural system.
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) The function of our visceral organs is controlled by sympathetic and parasympathetic neural systems.

Q5. Which of the following is not involved in knee-jerk reflex?
(a) Muscle spindle (b) Motor neuron
(c) Brain (d) Intemeurons
Ans: (c) Brain is not involved in knee-jerk reflex.

Q6. An area in the brain which is associated with strong emotions is
(a) Cerebral cortex (b) Cerebellum
(c) Limbic system (d) Medulla
Ans: (c) An area in the brain is associated with strong emotions is limbic system.

Q7. Mark the vitamin present in rhodopsin.
(a) VitA (b) Vit B (c) VitC (d) VitD
Ans: (a) Vit A is present in rhodopsin.

Q8. Human eyeball consists of three layers and it encloses
(a) Lens, iris, optic nerve
(b) Lens, aqueous humor and vitreous humor
(c) Cornea, lens, iris
(d) Cornea, lens, optic nerve
Ans: (b) Human eyeball consists of three layers and it encloses lens, aqueous humor and vitreous humor.

Q9. Wax gland present in the ear canal is called
(a) Sweat gland
(b) Prostate gland
(c) Cowper’s gland –
(d) Sebaceous gland/ceruminous gland
Ans: (d) Wax gland present in the ear canal is called sebaceous gland/ceruminous gland.

Q10. The “part of internal ear responsible for hearing is
(a) Cochlea (b) Semicircular canal
(c) Utriculus (d) Sacculus
Ans: (a) The part of internal ear responsible for hearing is cochlea.

Q11. The organ of Corti is a structure present in
(a) External ear (b) Middle ear
(c) Semicircular canal (d) Cochlea
Ans: (d) The organ of Corti is a structure present in cochlea.

Q12. While travelling to higher altitudes, people can feel pain in the ear and dizziness. Which part, among the following is involved?
(a) Cochlea, ear ossicles
(b) Tympanic membrane
(c) Eustachian tube, utricle, saccule and semicircular canals
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

Very Short Answer Type Questions
Q1. Rearrange the following in the correct order of involvement in electrical impulse movement: Synaptic knob, dendrites, cell body, Axon terminal, Axon
Ans: Dendrites—Cell body—Axon—Axon terminal—Synaptic knob.

Q2. Comment upon the role of ear in maintaining the balance of the body and posture.
Ans: The crista and macula are the specific receptors of the vestibular apparatus responsible for maintenance of balance of the body and posture.

Q3. Which cells of the retina enable us to see coloured objects around us?
Ans: Cone cells of the retina enable us to see the coloured objects around us.

Q4. Arrange the following in the order of reception and transmission of sound wave from the ear drum:
Cochlear nerve, external auditory canal, ear drum, stapes, incus, malleus, cochlea.
Ans: Ear drum, malleus, incus, stapes, cochlea, chochlear nerve.

Q5. During resting potential, the axonal membrane is polarised, indicate the movement of +ve and -ve ions leading to polarisation diagrammatically.
Ans: Neurons are excitable cells because their membranes are in a polarised state. Different types of ion channels are present on the neural membrane. These ion channels are selectively permeable to different ions. When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, i.e., resting, the axonal membrane is comparatively more permeable to potassium ions (K+) and nearly impermeable to sodium ions (Na+). Similarly, the membrane is impermeable to negatively charged proteins present in the axoplasm. Consequently, the axoplasm inside the axon contains high concentration of K+ and negatively charged proteins and low concentration of Na+. In contrast, the fluid outside the axon contains a “low concentration of K+, a high concentration of Na+ and thus form a concentration gradient. These ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by the active transport of ions by the sodium-potassium pump which transports 3 Na+ outwards for 2 K+ into the cell. As a result, the outer surface of the axonal membrane possesses a positive charge while its inner surface becomes negatively charged and therefore is polarised. The electrical potential difference across the resting plasma membrane is called as the resting potential.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination Img 1

Q6. Name the structures involved in fhe protection of the brain.
Ans: The human brain is well protected by the skull. Inside the skull, the brain is covered by cranial meninges consisting of an outer layer called dura mater, a very thin middle layer called arachnoid and an inner layer (which is in contact with the brain tissue) called pia mater. Piamater is a vascular membrane which is richly supplied with blood capillaries. Space between the duramater and arachnoid is called subdural space. Space between the arachnoid and pia mater is called subarachnoid space. Subarachnoid space is filled with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) which acts as a cushion for CNS from shocks.

Q7. Our reactions like aggressive behaviour, use of abusive words, restlessness etc. are regulated by brain, name the parts involved.
Ans: Limbic system and hypothalamus

Q8. What do grey and white matter in the brain represent?
Ans: The layer of cells which covers the cerebral hemisphere is called cerebral cortex and is thrown into prominent folds. The cerebral cortex is referred to as the grey matter due to its greyish appearance. The neuron cell bodies are concentrated here giving the colour. Fibres of the tracts are covered with the myelin sheath, which constitute the inner part of cerebral hemisphere. They give an opaque white appearance to the layer and, hence, is called the white matter.

Q9. Where is the hunger centre located in human brain?
Ans: Hypothalamus

Q10. Which sensory organ is involved in vertigo (sensation of oneself or objects spinning around)?
Ans: Vestibular apparatus of inner ear

Q11. While travelling at a higher altitude, a person complains of dizziness and vomiting sensation. Which part of the inner ear is disturbed during the journey?
Ans: Vestibular apparatus (saccule, utricle and semicircular canals)

Q12. Complete the statement by choosing appropriate match among the following:

(a) Resting potential (i) Chemicals involved in the transmission of impulses at synapses.
(b) Nerve impulse («) Gap between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons.
(c) Synaptic cleft (iii) Electrical potential difference across the resting neural membrane.
(d) N euro transmitters (iv) An electrical wave-like response of a neuron to a stimulation.

Ans:

(a) Resting potential (iii) Electrical potential difference across the resting neural membrane.
(b) Nerve impulse (iv) An electrical wave-like response of a neuron to a stimulation.
(c) Synaptic cleft (ii) Gap between the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons.
(d) N euro transmitters (i) Chemicals involved in the transmission of impulses at synapses.

Short Answer Type Questions
Q1. The major parts of the human neural system is depicted below. Fill in the empty boxes with appropriate words.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination Img 2

Q2. What is the difference between electrical transmission and chemical transmission?
Ans:

Electrical transmission Chemical transmission
1. Mediated by electrical synapses. 1. Mediated through neuro transmitters.
2. The membranes of pre- and post-synaptic neurons are in very close proximity. 2. The membranes of pre- and post- synaptic neurons are separated by synaptic cleft.
3. Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the synapses. 3. Neurotransmitters are involved in the transmission of impulses at the synapses.
4. This transmission is faster. 4. This transmission is slower.
5. These are rare in our system. 5. These are common in our system.

 

Q3. Neural system and computers share certain common features. Comment in five lines. (Hint: CPU, input-output devices).
Ans: Neural system and computers share certain common features. The neural system has brain as command and control centre similar to the computer that has CPU (Central processing unit). Sensory organs are input devices of neural system like the mouse and keyboard of the computer. Responses of the body are the output of the neural system.like the data analysis and typed material of the computer. Nerves are comparable to the wires of the computers.

Q4. If someone receives a blow on the back of neck, what would be the effect on the person’s CNS?
Ans: If someone receives a blow on the back of neck, it may result in the dislocation of the cervical vertebrae that may lead to the injury of the spinal cord passes through neural canal. Injury of spinal cord may lead to paralysis.

Q5. What is the function ascribed to Eustachian tube?
Ans: A Eustachian tube connects the middle ear cavity with the pharynx. The Eustachian tube helps in equalising the pressures on either sides of the ear drum.

Q6. Label the following parts in the given diagram using arrow.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination Img 3
a. Aqueous chamber
b. Cornea
c. Lens
d. Retina
e. Vitreous chamber
f. Blind spot
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination Img 4

Long Answer Type Questions
Q1. Explain the process of the transport and release of a neurotransmitter with the help of a labelled diagram showing a complete neuron, axon terminal and synapse.
Ans: A nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another through junctions called synapses. A synapse is formed by the membranes of a presynaptic neuron and a postsynaptic neuron, which may or may not be separated by a gap called synaptic cleft. At a chemical synapse, the membranes of the pre- and post-synaptic neurons are separated by a fluid-filled space called synaptic cleft. Chemicals called neurotransmitters are involved in the transmission of impulses at these synapses. The axon terminals contain vesicles filled with these neurotransmitters. When an impulse (action potential) arrives at the axon terminal, it stimulates the movement of the synaptic vesicles towards the membrane where they fuse with the plasma membrane and release their neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft. The released neurotransmitters bind to their specific receptors, present on the postsynaptic membrane. This binding opens ion channels allowing the entry of ions which can generate a new potential in the postsynaptic neuron. The new potential developed may be either excitatory or inhibitory.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination Img 5

Q2. Name the parts of human forebrain indicating their respective functions.
Ans: Forebrain:
The forebrain consists of cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus. Cerebrum forms_ the major part of the human brain. A deep cleft divides the cerebrum longitudinally into two halves, which are termed as the left and right cerebral hemispheres. The hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called corpus callosum. The layer of cells which covers the cerebral hemisphere is called cerebral cortex and is thrown into prominent folds. The cerebral cortex is referred to as the grey matter due to its greyish appearance. The neuron cell bodies are concentrated here giving the colour. The cerebral cortex contains motor areas, sensory areas and large regions that are neither clearly sensory nor motor in function. These regions called as the association areas are responsible for complex functions like intersensory associations, memory and communication. Fibres of the tracts are covered with the myelin sheath, which constitute the inner part of cerebral hemisphere. They give an opaque white appearance to the layer and, hence, is called the white matter. The cerebrum wraps around a structure called thalamus, which is a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling. Another very important part of the brain called hypothalamus lies at the base of the thalamus. The hypothalamus contains a number of centres which control body temperature, urge for eating and drinking. It also contains several groups of neurosecretory cells, which secrete hormones called hypothalamic hormones. The inner parts of cerebral hemispheres and a group of associated deep structures like amygdala, hippocampus, etc., form a complex structure called the limbic lobe or limbic system. Along with the hypothalamus, it is involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of emotional reactions (e.g., excitement, pleasure, rage and fear), and motivation.

Q3. Explain the structure of middle and internal ear with the help of diagram.
Ans: The middle ear contains three ossicles called malleus, incus and stapes which are attached to one another in a chainlike fashion. The malleus is attached to the tympanic membrane and the stapes is attached to the oval window of the cochlea. The ear ossicles increase the efficiency of transmission of sound waves to the inner ear. A Eustachian tube connects the middle ear cavity with the pharynx. The Eustachian tube helps in equalising the pressures on either sides of the ear drum.
NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination Img 6

• The fluid-filled inner ear called labyrinth consists of two parts, the bony and the membranous labyrinths. The bony labyrinth is a series of channels. Inside these channels lies the membranous labyrinth, which is surrounded by a fluid called perilymph. The membranous labyrinth is filled with a fluid called endolymph. The coiled portion of the labyrinth is called cochlea. The membranes constituting cochlea, the Reissner’s and basilar, divide the surrounding perilymph filled bony labyrinth into an upper scala vestibuli and a lower scala tympani. The space within cochlea called scala media is filled with endolymph. At the base of the cochlea, the scala vestibuli ends at the oval window, while the scala tympani terminates at the round window which opens to the middle ear. The organ of Corti is a structure located on the basilar membrane which contains hair cells that act as auditory receptors. The hair cells are present in rows on the internal side of the organ of Corti. The basal end of the hair cell is in close contact with the afferent nerve fibres. A large number of processes called stereo cilia are projected from the apical part of each hair cell. Above the rows of the hair cells is a thin elastic membrane called tectorial membrane.
• The inner ear also contains a complex system called vestibular apparatus, located above the cochlea. The vestibular apparatus is composed of three semi-circular canals and the otolith (macula is the sensory part of saccule and utricle). Each semi-circular canal lies in a different plane at right angles to each other. The membranous canals are suspended in the perilymph of the bony canals. The base of canals is swollen and is called ampulla, which contains a projecting ridge called crista ampullaris which has hair cells. The saccule and utricle contain a projecting ridge called macula. The crista and macula are the specific receptors of the vestibular apparatus responsible for maintenance of balance of the body and posture.

NCERT Exemplar Class 11 Biology Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination Img 7

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English Grammar for Class 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12

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Do you have a question about placing a semicolon or how to place adverbs in a sentence? If so, you have come to the right place and this article is a complete guide on English Grammar Usage and the rules pertaining to it. Each Grammatical Rule is explained in Plain English with several examples.

English Grammar isn’t that easy and the resources over here will help you improve your confidence while speaking or writing. Short and Simple explanations given will make it easy for you to remember. Clear explanations and examples given here will help you understand how the language is used. Put your Grammar Knowledge into Practice by doing the chapterwise exercises given for Various Classes.

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CBSE Class 10 English Grammar

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CBSE Class 9 English Writing

CBSE Class 9 English Grammar

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CBSE Class 8 English Grammar

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CBSE Class 7 English Reading

  1. Unseen Passages Type I for Class 7
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CBSE Class 7 English Grammar

  1. The Sentence Exercises for Class 7 with Answers
  2. Pronouns and Possessive Adjectives Exercises for Class 7 with Answers
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  4. Verb Exercises for Class 7 with Answers
  5. Tenses Exercises for Class 7 with Answers
  6. Articles Exercises for Class 7 with Answers
  7. Agreement of Verb and Subject Exercises for Class 7 with Answers
  8. Active and Passive Voice Exercises for Class 7 with Answers
  9. Reported Speech Exercises for Class 7 with Answers
  10. Word Power Exercises for Class 7 with Answers
  11. Modals Exercises for Class 7 with Answers
  12. Grammar Modals Exercises for Class 7 with Answers
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Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1

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Get access to Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 Relations and Functions, Relations and Functions Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Relations and Functions Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions

Question 1.
If R = {(a, a3): a is a prime number less than 5} be a relation. Find the range of R . (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Given, R = {{a, cd): a is a prime number less than 5}
We know that, 2 and 3 are the prime numbers less than 5.
So, a can take values 2 and 3.
Thus, R = {(2, 23), (3, 33)} = {(2, 8), (3, 27)}
Hence, the range of R is (8, 27}.

Question 2.
If f: {1,3, 4} → {1, 2, 5} and g: {1,2, 5} → {1, 3} given by f = {(1,2), (3, 5), (4,1)} and g = {(1,3), (2, 3), (5,1)}. Write down gof. (All India 2014C)
Answer:
Given, functions f:{1, 3, 4} → {1, 2, 5} and g : {1, 2, 5} → {1, 3} are defined as f = {(1, 2),(3, 5),(4, 1)} and g = {(1, 3),(2, 3),(5, 1)}
Therefore, f(1) = 2, f(3) = 5, f(4) = 1
and g(1) = 3, g (2) = 3, g(5) = 1
Now, gof: {1,3,4} → {1,3} and it is defined as
gof (1) = g[(f(1)] = g(2) = 3
gof(3) = g[f(3)] = g(5) = 1
gof (4) = g[f(4)] = g(1) = 3
∴ gof = {(1, 3), (3, 1), (4, 3)}

Question 3.
Let R is the equivalence relation in the set A = {0,1, 2, 3, 4, 5} given by R = {(a, b) : 2 divides (a – b)}. Write the equivalence class [0]. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Given, R = {(a, b):2 divides(a – b)}
and A = { 0,1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Clearly, [0] = {b ∈ A : (0, b) ∈ R}
= {b ∈ A: 2 divides (0 – b)}
= {b ∈ A : 2divides (-b)} = {0, 2, 4}
Hence, equivalence class of [0] = {0,2,4}.

Question 4.
If R = {(x, y): x + 2y = 8} is a relation on N, then write the range of R. (All India 2014)
Answer:
Given, the relation R is defined on the set of natural numbers, i.e. N as
R= {(x, y) : x + 2y = 8}
To find the range of R, x + 2y = 8 can be rewritten as y = \(\frac{8-x}{2}\)
On putting x = 2, we get y = \(\frac{8-2}{2}\) = 3
On puttmg x = 4, we get y = \(\frac{8-4}{2}\) = 2
On putting x = 6, we get y = \(\frac{8-6}{2}\) = 1
As, x, y ∈ N, therefore R = {(2, 3), (4, 2), (6, 1)}. Hence, the range of relation R is {3,2,1}.
Note: For x = 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, ……… we do not get y as natural number.

Question 5.
If A = {1, 2, 3}, S = {4, 5,6, 7} and f = {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6)} is a function from A to B. State whether f is one-one or not. (All India 2011)
Answer:
5. Given, A = {1, 2, 3} , B = {4, 5, 6, 7}
and f:A → Bis defined as f = {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6)}
i.e. f(1) = 4, f(2) = 5and f(3) = 6.
It can be seen that the images of distinct elements of A under f are distinct. So, f is one-one.

Question 6.
If f : R → R is defined by f{x) = 3x + 2, then define f[f(x)]. (Foreign 2011; Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Given, f(x) = 3x + 2
f[f(x)] – f(3x + 2) = 3 (3x + 2) + 2
= 9x + 6+ 2= 9x + 8

Question 7.
Write fog, if f: R → R and g:R → R are given by f(x) = |x| and g(x) = |5x – 2|. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Given, f(x) = |x|, g(x) = |5x – 2|
∴ fog (x) = f[g(x)] = f{15x – 2|}
= ||5x – 2||= |5x – 2| [∵ ||x|| = |x|]

Question 8.
Write fog, if f: R → R and g:R → R are given by f(x) = 8x3 and g(x) = xy3. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Given, f(x) = 8x3 and g(x) = x1/3
∴ fog ( x) = f[g(x)] = f(x1/3) = 8(x1/3)3 = 8x

Question 9.
State the reason for the relation R in the set {1, 2, 3} given by R = {(1, 2), (2,1)} not to be transitive. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
We know that for a relation to be transitive,
(x, y) ∈ R and (y, z) ∈ R ⇒ (x, z) ∈ R.
Here, (1, 2) ∈ R and (2,1) ∈ R but (1,1) ∉ R.
R is not transitive.

Question 10.
What is the range of the function.
f(x) = \(\frac{|x-1|}{x-1}\), x ≠ 1? (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Firstly, redefine the function by using the definition of modulus function, i.e by using
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 1
Further, simplify it to get the range

Given, function is f(x) = \(\frac{|x-1|}{x-1}\), x ≠ 1
The above function can be written as
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 2

Question 11.
If f: R → R is defined by f(x) = (3 – x3)1/3, then find fof(x). (All India 2010)
Answer:
Given function is f: R → R such that f(x) = (3 – x3)1/3.
Now, fof(x) = f[f(x)] = f[(3 – x3))1/3]
= [3 – {(3 – x3)1/3}3]1/3
= [3 – (3 – x3)]1/3 = (x3)1/3 = x

Question 12.
If f is an invertible function, defined as f(x) = \(\frac{3 x-4}{5}\), then write f-1(x). (Foreign 2010)
Answer:
Given, f(x) = \(\frac{3 x-4}{5}\) is an invertible function.
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 3

Question 13.
If f : R → R and g:R → R are given by f(x) = sin x and g(x) = 5x2, then find gof(x). (Foreign 2010)
Answer:
Given, f(x) = sin x and g(x) = 5x2.
30f{x) = g[f(x)] = g(sin x)
= 5(sin x)2 = 5sin2x

Question 14.
If f(x) = 27x3 and g(x) = xy3, then find gof(x). (Foreign 2010)
Answer:
Given, f(x) = 27x3 and g(x) = xy3
Now, gof(x) = g[f(x)] = g(27x3)
= (27x3)1/3 = (27)1/3.(x3)1/3
= (33)1/3 (x3)1/3 = 3x
∴ gof(x) = 3x

Question 15.
If the function f:R → R defined by f(x) = 3x – 4 is invertible, then find f-1. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
f-1 = \(\frac{x+4}{3}\)

Question 16.
Check whether the relation R defined on the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} as R = {(a, b): b = a + 1} is reflexive, symmetric or transitive. (All India 2019)
Answer:
The relation R on set A = {I, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} is defined as (a, b) ∈ R iff b = a + 1.
Therefore, R = {(1, 2),(2, 3), (3, 4), (4,5), (5, 6)}
Clearly, (a, a) ∉ R for any as a ∈ A. So, R is not reflexive on A.
We observe that (1, 2) ∈ R but (2,1) ∉ R.
So, R is not symmetric.
We also observe that (1, 2) ∈ R and (2, 3) ∈ R but (1, 3) ∉ R. So, R is not transitive.

Question 17.
Let f : N → Y be a function defined as f(x) = 4x + 3, where, Y = {y ∈ N : y = 4x + 3, for some x ∈ N}. Show that f is invertible. Find its inverse. (All India 2019)
Answer:
Given, f: N → Y defined as f(x) = 4x + 3, where
Y = {y ∈ N : y = 4x + 3, x ∈ N}. Consider an arbitrary element y ∈ Y. Then, y = 4x + 3, for some x ∈ N
⇒ y – 3 = 4x ⇒ x = \(\frac{y-3}{4}\)

Suppose, a function g:Y → N, given by
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 4
Here, gof (x) = x, ∀ x ∈ N; therefore gof = IN
and fog(y) = y, ∀ y ∈ F; therefore fog = IY
So, f is invertible and f-1 = g,
i.e f-1(y) = \(\frac{y-3}{4}\)
or f-1(x) = \(\frac{x-3}{4}\)

Question 18.
Show that the relation R on IR defined as R = {(a, b) : (a ≤ b)}, is reflexive and transitive but not symmetric. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Given a relation R = {{a, b): a ≤ b} on IR (the set of real numbers).

Reflexivity:
Since, a ≤ a is true for all value of a ∈ IR.
(a,a) ∈ R ∀ a ∈ IR
Hence, the given relation is reflexive.

Transitivity
Let (a, b) ∈ R and (b, c) ∈ R be any arbitrary elements.
Then, we have a ≤ b and b ≤ c
⇒ a ≤ b ≤ c
⇒ a ≤ c
⇒ (a,c) ∈ R
Hence, the given relation is transitive.

Symmetricity:
Note that (2,3) ∈ R as 2 < 3
but (3, 2) ∉ R as 3 ≮ 2
Hence, the given relation is not symmetric.
Hence proved.

Question 19.
Prove that the function, f : N → N is defined by f(x) = x2 + x + 1 is one-one but not onto. Find inverse of f : N → S, where S is range of f. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Let x, y ∈ N such that
f(x) = f(y)
⇒ x2 + x + 1 = y2 + y + 1
⇒ (x – y)(x + y + 1) = 0 [∵ x + y + 1 ≠ 0]
⇒ x = y
f: N → N is one-one (1)
f is not onto because x2 + x +1 > 3, ∀ x ∈ N and so, 1,2 does not have their pre images.

Now, if S is the range of f, then f:N → S is one-one, onto and hence invertible.
⇒ fof-1 (x) = x, ∀ x ∈ S
⇒ f(f-1(x)) = x, ∀ x ∈ S
⇒ (f-1(x))2 + (f-1(x)) + 1 = x, ∀ x ∈ S
⇒ (f-1(x))2 + f-1(x) + 1 – x = 0
which is quadratic in f-1(x)
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 5

Question 20.
If f: W → W is defined as f(x) = x – 1, if x is odd and f(x) = x + 1, if x is even. Show that f is invertible. Find the inverse of f, where W is the set of all whole numbers. (Foreign 2014; All India 2011C)
Answer:
Given, f: W →W is defined as
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 6
One-one function Let x1, x2 ∈ W be any two numbers such that f(x1) = f(x2)

Case I:
When x1, and x2 are odd.
Then, f(x1) = f(x2) ⇒ x1 – I = x2 – I
⇒ x1 = x2

Case II:
When x1, and x2 are even.
Then, f(x1) = f(x2)
⇒ x1 + I = x2 + I
⇒ x1 = x2
Thus, in both cases,
f(x1) = f(x2) ⇒ x1 = x2

Case III:
When x1, is odd and x2 is even.
Then, x1 ≠ x2
Also, f(x1) is even and f(x2) is odd.
So, f(x1) ≠ f(x2)
Thus, x1 ≠ x2 ⇒ f(x1) ≠ f(x2)

Case IV:
When x1 is even and x2 is odd.
Then, x1 ≠ x2
Also, f(x1) is odd and f(x2) is even.
So, f(x1) ≠ f(x2)
Thus, x1 ≠ x2 ⇒ f(x1) ≠ f(x2)
Hence, from cases I, II, III and IV we can observe that, f(x) is a one-one function.

Onto function:
Clearly, any odd number 2y + 1 in the codomain W, is the image of 2y in the domain W.
Also, any even number 2y in the codomain W, is the image of 2y + 1 in the domain W.
Thus, every element in W (codomain) has a pre-image in W (domain).
So, f is onto.
Therefore, f is bijective and so it is invertible.
Let f(x) = y
⇒ x – 1 = y, if x is odd
and x + 1 = y, if x is even
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 7

Question 21.
If f,g :R → R are two functions defined as f(x) = |x| + x and g(x) = |x| – x, ∀ x ∈ R. Then, find fog and gof. (All India 2014C)
Answer:
Given, f(x) = |x| + x and g(x) = |x| – x, ∀ x ∈ R.
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 8
Thus, for x ≥ 0,gof (x) = g(f(x)) = g(2x) = 0
and for x < 0, gof(x) = g(f(x)) = g(0) = 0 ⇒ gof(x) = 0, ∀ x ∈ R Similarly, for x > 0, fog (x) = f(g(x)) = f(0) = 0
and for x < 0, fog (x) = f(g(x)) = f(-2x)
= 2(-2x) = -4x
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 9

Question 22.
If R is a relation defined on the set of natural numbers N as follows:
R = {(x, y) : x ∈ N, y ∈ N and 2x + y = 24}, then find the domain and range of the relation R . Also, find whether R is an equivalence relation or not. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Given, R = {(x, y) : x ∈ N, y ∈ N and 2x + y = 24}
∴ y = 24 – 2x
Now, x = 1 ⇒ y = 22;
x = 2 ⇒ y = 20;
x = 3 ⇒ y = 18;
x = 4 ⇒ y = 16;
x = 5 ⇒ y = 14;
x = 6 ⇒ y = 12;
x = 7 ⇒ y = 10;
x = 8 ⇒ y = 8
x = 9 ⇒ y = 6;
x = 10 ⇒ y = 4
and x = 11 ⇒ y = 2
So, domain of R= {1, 2, 3, …, 11} and range of R = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20, 22} and R = {(1, 22), (2, 20), (3, 18), (4, 16), (5, 14), (6, 12), (7, 10), (8, 8), (9, 6), (10, 4), (11, 2)}

Reflexive:
Since, for 1 ∈ domain of R,(1, 1) ∉ R.
So, R is not reflexive.

Symmetric:
We observe that (1, 22) ∉ R but (22, 1) ∈ R. So, R is not symmetric.

Transitive:
We observe that (7, 10) ∈ Rand (10, 4) ∈ R hut (7, 4) ∉ R. So, R is not transitive. Thus, R is neither reflexive nor symmetric nor transitive.
So, R is not an equivalence relation.

Question 23.
If A = R – {3} and B = R – {1}. Consider the function f :A → B defined by f(x) = \(\frac{x-2}{x-3}\) for all x ∈ A. Then, show that f is bijective. Find f-1(x). (Delhi 2014C; Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Given, a function f: A → B, where A = R – {3}
and B = R – {1}, defined by f(x) = \(\frac{x-2}{x-3}\).

One-one function:
Let x1, x2 ∈ A such that f(x1) = f(x2)
Then \(\frac{x_{1}-2}{x_{1}-3}=\frac{x_{2}-2}{x_{2}-3}\)
⇒ (x1 – 2)(x1 – 3) = (x2 – 2)(x1 – 3)
⇒ x1x2 – 3x1 – 2x2 + 6 = x1x2 – 3x2 – 21 + 6
⇒ – 3x1 – 2x2 = – 3x2 – 2x1
⇒ – 3 (x1 – x2) + 2 (x1 – x2) = 0
⇒ -(x1 – x2) = 0
Thus, f(x1) = f(x2)
⇒ x1 = x2, ∀ x1, x2 ∈ A
So, f(x) is a one-one function.

Onto function:
Let y ∈ B = R – {1} be any arbitrary element.
Then, f(x) = y
⇒ \(\frac{x-2}{x-3}\) = y ⇒ x – 2 = xy – 3y
⇒ x – xy = 2 – 3y
⇒ x(1 – y) = 2 – 3y
⇒ x = \(\frac{2-3 y}{1-y}\) or x = \(\frac{3 y-2}{y-1}\) ………(i)
Clearly, x = \(\frac{3 y-2}{y-1}\) is a real number for all y ≠ 1.
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 10
Hence, f(x) is an onto function.
Therefore, f(x) is a bijective function.
From Eq. (i), we get
f-1(y) = \(\frac{3 y-2}{y-1}\) or f-1(x) = \(\frac{3 x-2}{x-1}\)
which is the inverse function of f(x).

Question 24.
If A = {1, 2, 3, .. ,9} and R is the relation in A × A defined by (a , b) R(c, d), if a + d = b + c for (a,b), (c, d) in A × A. Prove that R is an equivalence relation. Also, obtain the equivalence class [(2, 5)]. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Given a relation R in A × A, where A = {1, 2, 3,…, 9}, defined as (a, b) R (c, d), if a + d = b + c.

Reflexive:
Let (a, b) be any arbitrary element of A × A. i.e. (a, b) ∈ A × A, where a,b ∈ A.
Now, as a + b = b + a [∵ addition is commutative]
∴ (a, b) R{a, b)
So, R is reflexive.

Symmetric:
Let (a, b), (c,d)e Ax A, such that (a, b)R(c, d). Then, a + d = b + c
⇒ b + c = a + d ⇒ c + b = d + a [∵ addition is commutative]
⇒ (c, d) R(a, b)
So, R is symmetric.

Transitive:
Let (a, b), (c, d), (e, f) ∈ A × A such that (a, b) R(c, d) and (c, d) R(e, f).
Then, a + d = b + c and c + f = d + e
On adding the above equations,
we get a + d + c + f = b + c + d + e
⇒ a + f = b + e ⇒ (a, b) R(e, f)
So, R is transitive.
Thus, R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive.
Hence, R is an equivalence relation.

Now, for [(2, 5)], we will find (c, d) ∈ A × A such that 2 + d = 5+ c or d-c = 3 (1/2)
Clearly, (2, 5) R(1, 4) as 4 – 1 = 3
(2, 5) R(2, 5) as 5 – 2 = 3
(2, 5) R(3, 6) as 6 – 3 = 3
(2, 5) R(4, 7) as 7 – 4 = 3
(2, 5) R(5, 8) as 8 – 5 = 3
and (2, 5) R(6, 9) as 9 – 6 = 3
Hence, equivalence class [(2, 5)]
= {(1, 4), (2, 5),(3, 6),(4, 7),(5, 8),(6, 9)}.

Question 25.
If the function R → R is given by f(x) = x2 + 2 and g:R → R is given by g(x) = \(\frac{x}{x-1}\), then find fog and gof, and hence find fog (2) and gof (- 3). (All India 2014)
Answer:
Given, f : R → R and g : R → R defined as
f(x) = x2 + 2 and g(x) = \(\frac{x}{x-1}\); x ≠ 1
Since, range f ⊆ domain g and range g ⊆ domain f
∴ fog and gof exist.
For any x ∈ R- {1}, we have (fog)(x) = f[g(x)]
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 11

Question 26.
If A = R-{2}, B = R-{1} and f: A → B is a function defined by f(x) = \(\frac{x-1}{x-2}\) , then show that f is one-one and onto. Hence, find f-1. (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
f-1 = \(\frac{2 x-1}{x-1}\)

Question 27.
Show that the function f in A = R – \(\left\{\frac{2}{3}\right\}\) defined as f(x) = \(\frac{4 x+3}{6 x-4}\) is one-one and onto. Hence, find f-1. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Given f(x) = \(\frac{4 x+3}{6 x-4}\)
where, x ∈ A = R – \(\left\{\frac{2}{3}\right\}\)

One-one function:
Let x1, x2 ∈ A = R – \(\left\{\frac{2}{3}\right\}\) such that f(x1) = f(x2).
Then, \(\frac{4 x_{1}+3}{6 x_{1}-4}=\frac{4 x_{2}+3}{6 x_{2}-4}\)
⇒ (4x1 + 3) (6x2 – 4) = (4x2 + 3) (6x2 – 4)
⇒ 24x1x2 – 16x1 + 18x2 – 12 = 24x1x2 – 16x2 + 18x1 – 12
⇒ – 34x1 = – 34x2
⇒ x1 = x2
So, f is one-one function.

Onto function:
Let y be an arbitrary element of A (codomain).
Then, f(x) = y
⇒ \(\frac{4 x+3}{6 x-4}\) = y
⇒ 4x + 3 = 6xy – 4y
⇒ 4x – 6xy = -4y – 3
⇒ x(4 – 6 y) = -(4y + 3)
⇒ x = \(\frac{-(4 y+3)}{4-6 y}\)
⇒ x = \(\frac{4 y+3)}{6 y-4}\)
Clearly, x = \(\frac{4 y+3)}{6 y-4}\) is a reaj number for all y ≠ \(\frac{4}{6}=\frac{2}{3}\)
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 12
Thus, for each y ∈ A (codomain), there exists
x = \(\frac{4 x+3}{6 x-4}\) ∈ A (domain) such that
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 13
Hence, f is onto function.
Since, f is bijective function, so its inverse exists.
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 14

Question 28.
Consider f: R+ → [4, ∞) given by f(x) = x2 + 4. Show that f is invertible with the inverse f-1 of f given by f-1(y) = \(\sqrt{y-4}\), where R+ is the set of all non-negative real numbers. (All India 2013; Foreign 2011)
Answer:
To show f(x) is an invertible function, we will show that f is both one-one and onto function.
Here, function f: R+ → [4, ∞) given by f(x) = x2 + 4.

One-one function:
Let x, y ∈ R+, such that
f(x) = f(y)
⇒ x2 + 4 = y2 + 4 ⇒ x2 = y2 ⇒ x = y
[∵ we take only positive sign as x, y ∈ R+]
Therefore, f is a one-one function.

Onto function:
For y ∈ [4, ∞), then there exists x ∈ R+ such that f(x) = y
⇒ y = x2 + 4
⇒ x2 = y – 4 ≥ 0 [∵ y > 4]
⇒ x = \(\sqrt{y-4}\) ≥ 0
[we take only positive sign, as x ∈ R+]
Therefore, for any y ∈ R+ (codomain), there exists x = \(\sqrt{y-4}\) ∈ R+ (domain) such that f(x) = \((\sqrt{y-4})=(\sqrt{y-4})^{2}\) + 4 = y – 4 + 4 = y
Therefore, f is onto function.
Since, f is one-one and onto and therefore f-1 exists.

Alternate Method:
Let us define g: [4, ∞) → R+
by g(y) = \(\sqrt{y-4}\)
Now, gof(x) = 4 (f(x)) = g(x2 + 4)
= \(\sqrt{\left(x^{2}+4\right)-4}=\sqrt{x^{2}}\) = x
and fog(y) = f[g(y)] = f(\(\sqrt{y-4}\))
= \((\sqrt{y-4})^{2}\) + 4 = (y – 4) + 4 = y
Thus, gof = I R+ and fog = I[4, ∞)
⇒ f is invertible and its inverse function is 5.
∴ f-1(y) = g(y) = \(\sqrt{y-4}\) or f-1(x) = \(\sqrt{x-4}\)

Question 29.
Show that f: N → N, given by
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 15
is bijective (both one-one and onto). (All India 2012)
Answer:
Given function is f: N → N such that
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 15

One-one function:
Let x1, x2 ∈ W be any two numbers such that f(x1) = f(x2)

Case I:
When x1, and x2 are odd.
Then, f(x1) = f(x2) ⇒ x1 – I = x2 – I
⇒ x1 = x2

Case II:
When x1, and x2 are even.
Then, f(x1) = f(x2)
⇒ x1 + I = x2 + I
⇒ x1 = x2
Thus, in both cases,
f(x1) = f(x2) ⇒ x1 = x2

Case III:
When x1, is odd and x2 is even.
Then, x1 ≠ x2
Also, f(x1) is even and f(x2) is odd.
So, f(x1) ≠ f(x2)
Thus, x1 ≠ x2 ⇒ f(x1) ≠ f(x2)

Case IV:
When x1 is even and x2 is odd.
Then, x1 ≠ x2
Also, f(x1) is odd and f(x2) is even.
So, f(x1) ≠ f(x2)
Thus, x1 ≠ x2 ⇒ f(x1) ≠ f(x2)
Hence, from cases I, II, III and IV we can observe that f(x) is a one-one function.

Onto function:
Let y ∈ N (codomain) be any arbitrary number.
If y is odd, then there exists an even number y + 1 ∈ N (domain) such that
f(y + 1) = (y + 1) – 1 = y
If y is even, then there exists an odd number y – 1 ∈ N (domain) such that
f(y – 1) = (y – 1) + 1 = y
Thus, every element in N (codomain) has a pre-image in N (domain).
Therefore, f(x) is an onto function.
Hence, the function f(x) is bijective.

Question 30.
If f: R → R is defined as f(x) = 10x + 7. Find the function g :R → R, such that gof = fog = IR. (All India 2011)
Answer:
Firstly, consider gof(x) = IR(x), further let f(x) is y equal to y and then transform x into y. Finally replace y by x.
Given, f(x) = 10x + 7
Also, gof = fog = IR
Now, gof = IR ⇒ gof(x) = IR(x)
⇒ g [f(x)] = x, ∀ x ∈ R [∵ IR(x) = x,Vxek]
⇒ g (10x + 7) = x, ∀ x ∈ R
Let 10x+ 7 = y => 10x = y-7
x = \(\frac{y-7}{10}\) ⇒ g(y) = \(\frac{y-7}{10}\), ∀ y ∈ k,
or g(x) = \(\frac{y-7}{10}\), ∀ x ∈ k

Question 31.
If f: R → R is the function defined by f(x) = 4x3 + 7, then show that f is a bijection. (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
The given function is f: R → R such that f(x) = 4x3 + 7
To show f is bijective, we have to show that f is one-one and onto.

One-one function:
Let x1, x2 ∈ R such that f(x1) = f(x2)
⇒ 4x13 + 7 = 4x23 + 7
⇒ 4x13 = 4x23 13 x13 – x23 = 0
⇒ (x1 – x2) (x12 + x1x2 + x22) = 0
⇒ (x1 – x2)[(x1 + \(\frac{x_{2}}{2}\))2 + \frac{3}{4}22] = 0
⇒ Either x1 – x2 = 0 …………..(i)
0r (x1 + \(\frac{x_{2}}{2}\))2 + \frac{3}{4}22 = 0 …………(ii)
But Eq. (ii) gives complex roots as x1, x2 ∈ R.
∴ x1 – x2 = 0 ⇒ x1 = x2
Thus, f(x1) = f(x2) ⇒ x1 = x2, ∀ x1, x2 ∈ R
Therefore, f(x) is a one-one function.

Onto function:
Let ye R (codomain) be any arbitrary number.
Then, f(x) = y ⇒ 4x3 + 7 = y ⇒ 4x3 = y – 7
⇒ x3 = \(\frac{y-7}{4}\) ⇒ x = \(\left(\frac{y-7}{4}\right)^{1 / 3}\)
which is a real number. [∵ y ∈ R]
Thus, for every y ∈ R (codomain), there exists
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 16
⇒ f(x) is an onto function.
Since, f(x) is both one-one and onto, so it is a bijective.

Question 32.
If Z is the set of all integers and R is the relation on Z defined as R = {(a, b):a,b ∈ Z and a – b is divisible by 5}. Prove that R is an equivalence relation. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
The given relation is R = {(a, b): a, b ∈ Z and a – b is divisible by 5}.
To prove R is an equivalence relation, we have to prove R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive.

Reflexive:
As for any x ∈ Z, we have x – x = 0, which is divisible by 5.
⇒ (x – x) is divisible by 5.
⇒ (x, x) ∈ R, V x ∈ Z Therefore, R is reflexive.

Symmetric:
Let (x, y) ∈ R, where x, y ∈ Z.
⇒ (x – y) is divisible by 5. [by definition of R]
⇒ x – y = 5A for some A ∈ Z.
⇒ y – x = 5(-A)
⇒ (y – x) is also divisible by 5.
⇒ (y, x) ∈ R
Therefore, R is symmetric.

Transitive:
Let (x, y) ∈ R,where x, y ∈ Z.
⇒ (x – y) is divisible by 5.
⇒ x – y = 5Afor some A ∈ Z Again, let (y, z) ∈ R, where y, z ∈ Z.
⇒ (y – 1) is divisible by 5.
⇒ y – z = 5B for some B ∈ Z.

Now, (x – y) + (y – 2) = 5A + 5B
⇒ x – z = 5(A + B)
⇒ (x – z) is divisible by 5 for some (A + B) ∈ Z
⇒ (x, z) ∈ R
Therefore, R is transitive.
Thus, R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive. Hence, it is an equivalence relation.

Note: If atleast one of the conditions, i.e. reflexive, symmetric and transitive, is not satisfied, then we say that the given relation is not an equivalence relation.

Question 33.
Show that the relation S in the set R of real numbers defined as S – {(a, b): a,b ∈ R and a ≤ b3} is neither reflexive nor symmetric nor transitive. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Here, the result is disproved by using some specific examples.
Given relation is
S = {(a, b) : a, b ∈ R and a ≤ b3}

Reflexive:
As \(\frac{1}{2} \leq\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{3}\), where \(\frac{1}{2}\) ∈ R, is not true
∴ \left(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\right) ∉ S
Therefore, S is not symmetric. (1)

Transitive:
As 3 ≤ \(\left(\frac{3}{2}\right)^{3}\) and \(\frac{3}{2} \leq\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)^{3}\) where 3, \(\frac{3}{2}, \frac{4}{3}\) ∈ S are true but 3 ≤ \(\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)^{3}\)
i.e (3, \(\frac{3}{2}\)) ∈ S and \(\left(\frac{3}{2}, \frac{4}{3}\right)\) ∈ S but (3, \(\frac{4}{3}\)) ∉ S
Therefore, S is not transitive.
Hence, S is neither reflexive nor symmetric nor transitive.

Question 34.
Show that the relation S in set A = {x ∈ Z: 0 ≤ x ≤ 12} given by S = {(a, b): a, b ∈ |a – b| is divisible by 4} is an equivalence relation. Find the set of all elements related to 1. (All India 2010)
Answer:
Given relation is S = {(a, b): |a – b| is divisible by 4 and a, b ∈ A}
and A = {x : x ∈ Z and 0 ≤ x ≤ 12}
Now, A can be written as
A = {0,1, 2, 3, …,12}

Reflexive:
As for any x ∈ A, we get |x – x| = 0, which is divisible by 4.
⇒ (x, x) ∈ S, ∀ x ∈ A
Therefore, S is reflexive.

Symmetric:
As for any (x, y) ∈ S, we get |x – y| is divisible by 4. [by using definition of given relation]
⇒ |x – y| = 4λ, for some λ ∈ Z
⇒|y- x| = 4λ, for some λ ∈ Z
⇒ (y, x) ∈ S
Thus, (x, y) ∈ S ⇒ (y, x) ∈ S, ∀ x, y ∈ A
Therefore, S is symmetric.

Transitive:
For any (x, y) ∈ S and (y, z) ∈ S, we get |x – y| is divisible by 4 and |y – z| is divisible by 4. [by using definition of given relation]
⇒ |x – y| = 4λ and |y – z| = 4μ, for some λ, μ ∈ Z.
Now, x – z = (x – y) + (y – z)
= ± 4λ + 4μ
= ± 4 (λ, + μ)
⇒ |x – z| is divisible by 4.
⇒ (x, z) ∈ S
Thus, (x, y) ∈ S and (y, z) ∈ S
=* (x, z) ∈ S, ∀ x, y, z ∈ A
Therefore, S is transitive.
Since, S is reflexive, symmetric and transitive, so it is an equivalence relation. Now, set of all elements related to 1 is {1,5,9}.

Question 35.
Show that the relation S defined on set N × N by (a, b) S (c, d) ⇒ a + d = b + c is an equivalence relation. (All India 2010)
Answer:
Given a relation R in A × A, where A = {1, 2, 3,…, 9}, defined as (a, b) R (c, d), if a + d = b + c.

Reflexive:
Let (a, b) be any arbitrary element of A × A. i.e. (a, b) ∈ A × A, where a,b ∈ A.
Now, as a + b = b + a [∵ addition is commutative]
∴ (a, b) R{a, b)
So, R is reflexive.

Symmetric:
Let (a, b), (c,d) ∈ A × A, such that (a, b)R(c, d). Then, a + d = b + c
⇒ b + c = a + d ⇒ c + b = d + a [∵ addition is commutative]
⇒ (c, d) R(a, b)
So, R is symmetric.

Transitive:
Let (a, b), (c, d), (e, f) ∈ A × A such that (a, b) R(c, d) and (c, d) R(e, f).
Then, a + d = b + c and c + f = d + e
On adding the above equations,
we get a + d + c + f = b + c + d + e
⇒ a + f = b + e ⇒ (a, b) R(e, f)
So, R is transitive.
Thus, R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive.
Hence, R is an equivalence relation.

Now, for [(2, 5)], we will find (c, d) ∈ A × A such that 2 + d = 5+ c or d-c = 3 (1/2)
Clearly, (2, 5) R(1, 4) as 4 – 1 = 3
(2, 5) R(2, 5) as 5 – 2 = 3
(2, 5) R(3, 6) as 6 – 3 = 3
(2, 5) R(4, 7) as 7 – 4 = 3
(2, 5) R(5, 8) as 8 – 5 = 3
and (2, 5) R(6, 9) as 9 – 6 = 3
Hence, equivalence class [(2, 5)]
= {(1, 4), (2, 5),(3, 6),(4, 7),(5, 8),(6, 9)}.

Question 36.
If f : X → Y is a function. Define a relation R on X given by R = {(a, b): f(a) = f(b)}. Show that R is an equivalence relation on X. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
The given function is f: X → Y and relation on X is R = {(a, b): f(a) = f(b)}

Reflexive:
Since, for every x ∈ X, we have
f(x) = f(x)
⇒ (x, x) ∈ R, ∀ x ∈ X
Therefore, R is reflexive.

Symmetric:
Let (x, y) ∈ R
Then, f(x) = f(y) ⇒ f(y) = f(x) ⇒ (x, y) ∈ R
Thus, (x, y) ∈ R ⇒ (y, x) ∈ R, ∀ x, y ∈ X
Therefore, R is symmetric.

Transitive:
Let x, y, z ∈ X such that
(x, y) ∈ S and (y, z) ∈ R
Then f(x) = f(y) ………..(i)
and f(y) = f(z) ………..(ii)

From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
f(x) = f(y)
⇒ (x, z) ∈ R
Thus, (x, y) ∈ R and (y, z) ∈ R
⇒ (x, z) ∈ R, ∀ x, y, z ∈ X
Therefore, R is transitive.
Since, R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive, so it is an equivalence relation.

Question 37.
Show that a function f: R → R given by f(x) = ax + b, a, b ∈ R, a ≠ 0 is a bijective. (Delhi 2010C)
Answer:
Given function f: R → R is such that f(x) = ax + b, a, b ∈ R, a ≠ 0
One-one function:
Let x1, x2 ∈ S such that
f(x1) = f(x2)
Then, ax1 + b = ax2 + b
⇒ ax1 = ax2
x1 = x2 [∵ a ≠ 0]
Thus, f(x1) = f(x2) ⇒ x1 = x2, ∀ x1, x2 ∈ R
Therefore, f(x) is a one-one function.

Onto function:
Let y ∈ R (codomain) be any arbitrary element.
Then, f(x) = y ⇒ ax + b = y
⇒ x = \(\frac{y-b}{a}\)
Clearly, x is a real number. [∵ y ∈ R]
Thus, for each y ∈ R (codomain), there exists x = \(\frac{y-b}{a}\) ∈ R (domain) such that
f(x) = f\(\left(\frac{y-b}{a}\right)\) = a\(\left(\frac{y-b}{a}\right)\) + b = y – b + b = y
Therefore, f(x) is an onto function.
As f(x) is both one-one and onto, so it is a bijective function.

Question 38.
Let A = {x ∈ Z: 0 ≤ x ≤ 12}. Show that R = {(a, b): a, b ∈ A, |a – b| is divisible by 4} is an equivalence relation. Find the set of all elements related to 1. Also, write the equivalence class [2]. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
The set of all elements related to [2]
= {a ∈ A : |2 – a| is divisible by 4}
= {2, 6,10}

(Given relation is S = {(a, b): |a – b| is divisible by 4 and a, b ∈ A}
and A = {x : x ∈ Z and 0 ≤ x ≤ 12}
Now, A can be written as
A = {0,1, 2, 3, …,12}

Reflexive:
As for any x ∈ A, we get |x – x| = 0, which is divisible by 4.
⇒ (x, x) ∈ S, ∀ x ∈ A
Therefore, S is reflexive.

Symmetric:
As for any (x, y) ∈ S, we get |x – y| is divisible by 4. [by using definition of given relation]
⇒ |x – y| = 4λ, for some λ ∈ Z
⇒|y- x| = 4λ, for some λ ∈ Z
⇒ (y, x) ∈ S
Thus, (x, y) ∈ S ⇒ (y, x) ∈ S, ∀ x, y ∈ A
Therefore, S is symmetric.

Transitive:
For any (x, y) ∈ S and (y, z) ∈ S, we get |x – y| is divisible by 4 and |y – z| is divisible by 4. [by using definition of given relation]
⇒ |x – y| = 4λ and |y – z| = 4μ, for some λ, μ ∈ Z.
Now, x – z = (x – y) + (y – z)
= ± 4λ + 4μ
= ± 4 (λ, + μ)
⇒ |x – z| is divisible by 4.
⇒ (x, z) ∈ S
Thus, (x, y) ∈ S and (y, z) ∈ S
=* (x, z) ∈ S, ∀ x, y, z ∈ A
Therefore, S is transitive.
Since, S is reflexive, symmetric and transitive, so it is an equivalence relation. Now, set of all elements related to 1 is {1,5,9}.)

Question 39.
Show that the function f: R → R defined by f(x) = \(\frac{x}{x^{2}+1}\), ∀ x ∈ R is neither one-one nor onto. Also, if g: R → R is defined as g(x) = 2x – 1, find fog (x). (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
We have, a function f: R → R defined by
f(x) = \(\frac{x}{x^{2}+1}\), ∀ x ∈ R
To show f is neither one-one nor onto.
(i) One-one:
Let x1, x2 ∈ R such that
f(x1) = f(x2)
⇒ \(\frac{x_{1}}{x_{1}^{2}+1}=\frac{x_{2}}{x_{2}^{2}+1}\)
⇒ x1 (x22 + 1) = x2(x12 + 1)
⇒ x1x22 + x1 = x2x12 + x2
⇒ x1x2(x2 – x1) = (x2 – x1)
⇒ (x2 – x1)(x1x2 – 1) = 0
⇒ x2 = x1 or x1x2 = 1
⇒ x1 = x2 or x1 = \(\frac{1}{x_{2}}\)
Here, f is not one-one as if we take.
In particular, x1 = 2 and x2 = \(\frac{1}{2}\), we get
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 17
∴ f is not one-one.

(ii) Onto:
Let y ∈ R (codomain) be any arbitrary element.
Consider, y = f(x)
∴ y = \(\frac{x}{x^{2}+1}\) ⇒ x2y + y = x
⇒ x2y – x + y = 0
⇒ x = \(\frac{1 \pm \sqrt{I-4 y^{2}}}{2 y}\), which does not exist for
1 – 4y2 < 0, i.e for y > \(\frac{1}{2}\) and y < \(\frac{-1}{2}\)

In particular for y = 1 ∈ R (codomain), there does not exist any x ∈ R (domain) such that f(x) = y. f is not onto. Hence, f is neither one-one nor onto. Now, it is given that g :R → R defined as g(x) = 2x – 1 g(x) = 2x – 1
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 18

Question 40.
Show that the relation R on the set Z of all integers defined by (x, y) ∈ R ⇔ (x – y) is divisible by 3 is an equivalence relation. (CBSE 2018C)
Answer:
The given relation is R = {(a, b): a, b ∈ Z and a – b is divisible by 5}.
To prove R is an equivalence relation, we have to prove R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive.

Reflexive:
As for any x ∈ Z, we have x – x = 0, which is divisible by 5. ⇒ (x – x) is divisible by 5.
⇒ (x, x) ∈ R, V x ∈ Z Therefore, R is reflexive.

Symmetric:
Let (x, y) ∈ R, where x, y ∈ Z. ⇒ (x -y) is divisible by 5. [by definition of R]
⇒ x – y = 5A for some A Z. ⇒ y-x = 5(-A) ⇒ (y- x) is also divisible by 5.
⇒ (y, x) ∈ R
Therefore, R is symmetric.

Transitive:
Let (x, y) ∈ R, where x, y ∈ Z.
⇒ (x – y) is divisible by 5.
⇒ x – y = 5Afor some A ∈ Z Again, let (y, z) ∈ R, where y, z ∈ Z.
⇒ (y – 1) is divisible by 5.
⇒ y – z = 5B for some B ∈ Z.

Now, (x – y) + (y – 2) = 5A + 5B
⇒ x – z = 5(A + B)
⇒ (x – z) is divisible by 5 for some (A + B) ∈ Z
⇒ (x, z) ∈ R
Therefore, R is transitive.
Thus, R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive. Hence, it is an equivalence relation.

Note: If atleast one of the conditions, i.e. reflexive, symmetric and transitive, is not satisfied, then we say that the given relation is not an equivalence relation.

Question 41.
Consider f: R+ → [-5, ∞) given by f(x) = 9x2 + 6x – 5. Show that f is invertible with f-1(y) = \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{y+6}-1}{3}\right)\). Hence find
(i) f-1(10)
(ii) y if -1(y) = \(\frac{4}{3}\)
where R+ is the set of all non-negative real numbers. (Delhi 2017; Foreign 2010)
Answer:
Here, function f: R+ → [-5, ∞) given by f(x) = 9x2 + 6x – 5
One-one function:
Let x1, x2 ∈ R+ such that
f(x1) = f(x2)
Then, 9x12 + 6x1 – 5 = 9x2 + 6x2 – 5
⇒ 9(x12 – x22) + 6(x1 – x2) = 0
⇒ 9(x1 + x2)(x1 – x2) + 6(x1 – x2) = 0
⇒ (x1 – x2)[9(x1 + x2) + 6] = 0
⇒ x1 – x2 = 0 [∵ x1, x2 ∈ R+ ∴ 9(x1 + x2 + 6 ≠ 0)
⇒ x1 = x2, ∀ x1, x2 ∈ R+
Therefore, f(x) is one-one function.

Onto function:
Let y be any arbitrary element of
Then, y = f(x)
y = 9x2 + 6x – 5
y = (3x + 1)2 – 1 – 5= (3x + 1)2 – 6
(3x + 1)2 = y + 6
3x + 1 = y/y + 6, as y ≥ -5 ⇒ y + 6 ≥ 0
x = \(\frac{\sqrt{y+6}-1}{3}\)
Therefore, f is onto, thereby range f = [- 5, ∞)
Let us define g:[-5, ∞) → R+ as g(y) = \(\frac{\sqrt{y+6}-1}{3}\)
Now, (gof)(x) = g[f(x)] = g(9x2 + 6x – 5)
= g(3x + 1)2 – 6)
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 19
= y + 6 – 6 = y
Therefore, gof = IR+ and fog = I[-5, ∞)
Hence, f is invertible and the inverse of f is given by
f-1(y) = g(y) = \(\frac{\sqrt{y+6}-1}{3}\)
(i) ∴ f-1(10) = \(\frac{\sqrt{10+6}-1}{3}=\frac{\sqrt{16}-1}{3}=\frac{4-1}{3}\) = 1
(ii) If f-1(y) = \(\frac{4}{3}\) ⇒ y = f(4/3) = 9(4/3)2 + 6(4/3) – 5
= 16 + 8 – 5 = 19

Question 42.
Consider f : R – \(\left\{-\frac{4}{3}\right\}\) → R – \(\left\{\frac{4}{3}\right\}\) given by f(x) = \(\frac{4 x+3}{3 x+4}\). Show that f is bijective. Find the inverse of f and hence find f-1(0) and x such that f-1(x) = 2. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Given, f: R – \(\left\{-\frac{4}{3}\right\}\) → R – \(\left\{\frac{4}{3}\right\}\)
defined as f(x) = \(\frac{4 x+3}{3 x+4}\)
Let x1, x2 ∈ R – \(\left\{-\frac{4}{3}\right\}\)
such that f(x1) = f(x2)
⇒ \(\frac{4 x_{1}+3}{3 x_{1}+4}=\frac{4 x_{2}+3}{3 x_{2}+4}\)
⇒ (4x1 + 3)(3x2 + 4) = (3x1 + 4)(4x2 + 3)
⇒ 12x1x2 + 16x1 + 9x2 + 12 = 12x1x2 + 9x1 + 16x2 + 12
⇒ 7x1 = 7x2 ⇒ x1 = x2 ⇒ f is one-one.
Let y ∈ R – \(\left\{-\frac{4}{3}\right\}\), such that y ≠ \(\frac{4}{3}\)

The function f is onto if there exist
x ∈ R – \(\left\{-\frac{4}{3}\right\}\), such that f(x) = y
Now, f(x) = y ⇒ \(\frac{4 x+3}{3 x+4}\) = y ⇒ 4x + 3 = y (3x + 4)
⇒ 4x + 3 = 3xy + 4y ⇒ 4x – 3xy = 4y – 3
⇒ x (4 – 3y) = 4y – 3
⇒ x = \(\frac{4 x+3}{3 x+4}\) ∈ R – \(\left\{-\frac{4}{3}\right\}\) (y ≠ \(\frac{4}{3}\))
Thus, for any y ∈ R – \(\left\{\frac{4}{3}\right\}\)
Since, f is one-one and onto, so f-1 exists
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 20

Question 43.
Let f: N → N be a function defined as f(x) – 9x2 + 6% – 5. Show that f: N → S, where S is the range of f, is invertible. Find the inverse of f and hence find f-1(43) and f-1(-3). (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
We have a mapping f: N → N given by
f(x) = 9x2 + 6x – 5

One-one function:
Let x1, x2 ∈ N. such that
f(x1) = f(x2)
Then, 9x12 + 6x1 – 5= 9x22 + 6x2 – 5
⇒ 9x12 + 6x1 = 9x22 + 6x2
⇒ 9(x12 – x22) + 6 (x1 – x2) = o
⇒ 3(x1 – x2)(x1 + x2) + 2(x1 – x2) = 0 [divide by 3]
⇒ (x1 – x2) (3x1 + 3x2 + 2) = 0
∴ x1 – x2 = 0 or 3x1 + 3x2 + 2 = 0
But 3x1 + 3x2 + 2 ≠ 0 [: x1, x2 ∈ N)
∴ x1 – x2 = 0 = x1 = x2
So, f is one-one function.

Onto function:
Obviously, f : N → S is an onto function, because S is the range of f.
Thus, f :N → S is one-one and onto function.
⇒ f is invertible function, so its inverse exists.
Let f(x) = y, then y = 9×2 + 6x – 5 (1)
⇒ y = (3x)2 + 2 – 3x – 1 + 1 – 6
⇒ y = (3x + 1)2 – 6
⇒ (3x + 1 )2 = y + 6
⇒ 3x + 1 = \(\sqrt{y+6}\) [taking positive square root as x ∈ N]
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 21

Question 44.
If f, g: R → R be two functions defined as f(x)= |x| + x and g(x)= |x| – x, ∀ x ∈ R. Then, find fog and gof. Hence find fog (-3), fog{ 5) and gof(-2). (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
(i) Given, f(x) = |x| + x and g(x) = |x| – x, ∀ x ∈ R.
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 8
Thus, for x ≥ 0,gof (x) = g(f(x)) = g(2x) = 0
and for x < 0, gof(x) = g(f(x)) = g(0) = 0 ⇒ gof(x) = 0, ∀ x ∈ R Similarly, for x > 0, fog (x) = f(g(x)) = f(0) = 0
and for x < 0, fog (x) = f(g(x)) = f(-2x)
= 2(-2x) = -4x
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 9

(ii) We have, gof(x) = 0, ∀ x ∈ R.
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 22
Clearly, fg(-3) = -4(-3) = 12,
fog(5) = 0 and gof(-2) = 0.

Question 45.
If N denotes the set of all natural numbers and R be the relation on N × N defined by (a, b) R (c, d), if ad(b + c) = bc(a + d). Show that R is an equivalence relation. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
We have, a relation R on N × N defined by (a, b)R(c, d), if ad(b + c) = bc(a + d).

Reflexive:
Let (a, b) ∈ N × N be any arbitrary element. We have to show {a, b) R {a, b), i.e. to show ab(b + a) = ba(a + b) which is trivally true as natural numbers are commutative under usual multiplication and addition.
Since, (a, b) ∈ N × N was arbitrary, therefore R is reflexive.

Symmetric:
Let (a, b), (c, d) ∈ N × N such that (a, b) R (c, d), i.e. ad(b + c) = bc(a + d) …(i)
To show, (c, d) R (a, b), i.e. to show cb(d + a) = da(c + b)
From Eq.(i), we have
ad(b + c) = bc(a + d)
⇒ da(c + b) = cb(d + a) [∵ natural numbers are commutative under usual addition and multiplication]
⇒ cb(d + a) = da(c + b)
⇒ (c, d) R (a, b)
Thus, R is symmetric.

Transitive:
Let (a, b), (c, d) and (e, f) ∈ N × N such that (a, b) R (c, d) and (c, d) R (e, f).
Now, (a, b) R (c, d) ⇒ ad(b + c) = bc(a + d)
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 23
⇒ af(e + b) = be(f + a)
⇒ af(b + e) = be(a + f)
⇒ (a, b) R (e, f)
⇒ R is transitive.
Thus, R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive, hence R is an equivalence relation.

Question 46.
Consider f: R+ → [-9, ∞) given by f(x) = 5x2 + 6x – 9. Prove that f is invertible with f-1(y) = \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{54+5 y}-3}{5}\right)\) [where, R+ is the set of all non-negative real numbers.] (All India 2015)
Answer:
Here, function f: R+ → [-5, ∞) given by f(x) = 9x2 + 6x – 5
One-one function:
Let x1, x2 ∈ R+ such that
f(x1) = f(x2)
Then, 9x12 + 6x1 – 5 = 9x2 + 6x2 – 5
⇒ 9(x12 – x22) + 6(x1 – x2) = 0
⇒ 9(x1 + x2)(x1 – x2) + 6(x1 – x2) = 0
⇒ (x1 – x2)[9(x1 + x2) + 6] = 0
⇒ x1 – x2 = 0 [∵ x1, x2 ∈ R+ ∴ 9(x1 + x2 + 6 ≠ 0)
⇒ x1 = x2, ∀ x1, x2 ∈ R+
Therefore, f(x) is one-one function.

Onto function:
Let y be any arbitrary element of
Then, y = f(x)
y = 9x2 + 6x – 5
y = (3x + 1)2 – 1 – 5= (3x + 1)2 – 6
(3x + 1)2 = y + 6
3x + 1 = y/y + 6, as y ≥ -5 ⇒ y + 6 ≥ 0
x = \(\frac{\sqrt{y+6}-1}{3}\)
Therefore, f is onto, thereby range f = [- 5, ∞)
Let us define g:[-5, ∞) → R+ as g(y) = \(\frac{\sqrt{y+6}-1}{3}\)
Now, (gof)(x) = g[f(x)] = g(9x2 + 6x – 5)
= g(3x + 1)2 – 6)
Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 1 19
= y + 6 – 6 = y
Therefore, gof = IR+ and fog = I[-5, ∞)
Hence, f is invertible and the inverse of f is given by
f-1(y) = g(y) = \(\frac{\sqrt{y+6}-1}{3}\)
(i) ∴ f-1(10) = \(\frac{\sqrt{10+6}-1}{3}=\frac{\sqrt{16}-1}{3}=\frac{4-1}{3}\) = 1
(ii) If f-1(y) = \(\frac{4}{3}\) ⇒ y = f(4/3) = 9(4/3)2 + 6(4/3) – 5
= 16 + 8 – 5 = 19

Question 47.
Let f: N → R be a function defined as f(x) = 4x2 + 12x + 15.Show that f:N → S, where S is the range of f, is invertible. Also, find the inverse of f. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
f-1(x) = \(\frac{\sqrt{x-6}-3}{2}\)

Question 48.
Show that the relation R in the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} given by R = {(a, b): |a – b| is divisible by 2}, is an equivalence relation. Write all the equivalence classes of R. (All India 2015C)
Answer:
(i) Given relation is S = {(a, b): |a – b| is divisible by 4 and a, b ∈ A}
and A = {x : x ∈ Z and 0 ≤ x ≤ 12}
Now, A can be written as
A = {0,1, 2, 3, …,12}

Reflexive:
As for any x ∈ A, we get |x – x| = 0, which is divisible by 4.
⇒ (x, x) ∈ S, ∀ x ∈ A
Therefore, S is reflexive.

Symmetric:
As for any (x, y) ∈ S, we get |x – y| is divisible by 4. [by using definition of given relation]
⇒ |x – y| = 4λ, for some λ ∈ Z
⇒|y- x| = 4λ, for some λ ∈ Z
⇒ (y, x) ∈ S
Thus, (x, y) ∈ S ⇒ (y, x) ∈ S, ∀ x, y ∈ A
Therefore, S is symmetric.

Transitive:
For any (x, y) ∈ S and (y, z) ∈ S, we get |x – y| is divisible by 4 and |y – z| is divisible by 4. [by using definition of given relation]
⇒ |x – y| = 4λ and |y – z| = 4μ, for some λ, μ ∈ Z.
Now, x – z = (x – y) + (y – z)
= ± 4λ + 4μ
= ± 4 (λ, + μ)
⇒ |x – z| is divisible by 4.
⇒ (x, z) ∈ S
Thus, (x, y) ∈ S and (y, z) ∈ S
⇒ (x, z) ∈ S, ∀ x, y, z ∈ A
Therefore, S is transitive.
Since, S is reflexive, symmetric and transitive, so it is an equivalence relation. Now, set of all elements related to 1 is {1,5,9}.

(ii) Clearly, [1] = {1, 3, 5}
[2] = {2, 4}
[3] = {1, 3, 5} [4] = {2, 4}
and [5] = {1, 3, 5}
Thus, [1 ] = [3] = [5] = {1, 3, 5} and [2] = [4] = {2,4}

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Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3

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Get access to Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 Matrices, Matrices Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Matrices Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions

Matrix and Operations on Matrices

Question 1.
If 3A – B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
5 & 0 \\
1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
4 & 3 \\
2 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) then find the value of matrix A. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 1

Question 2.
Find the value of x – y, if (Delhi 2019)
\(2\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 3 \\
0 & x
\end{array}\right]+\left[\begin{array}{ll}
y & 0 \\
1 & 2
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
5 & 6 \\
1 & 8
\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:
Given that,
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 2
Here, both matrices are equal, so we equate the corresponding elements,
2 + y = 5 and 2x + 2 = 8
⇒ y = 3 and 2x = 6 ⇒ x = 3
Therefore, x – y = 3 – 3 = 0

Question 3.
If A is a square matrix such that A2 = I, then find the simplified value of (A – I)3 + (A + I)3 – 7A. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Given, A2 = 7 ……. (i)
Now, (A – I)3 + (A + I)3 – 7A
= (A3 – 3A2I + 3AI2 – I) + (A3 + 3A2I + 3AI2 + I3) – 7A
= A3 – 3A2 + 3AI – I + A3 + 3A2 + 3AI + I – 7A
[∵ A2I = A2 and I3 = I3 = I]
= 2A3 + 6AI – 7A = 2A2 A + 6A – 7A [∵ AI = A]
= 2IA – A [from Eq. (1)]
= 2A – A = A [∵ IA = A]

Question 4.
Write the number of all possible matrices of order 2 × 2 with each entry 1, 2 or 3. (All India 2016)
Answer:
We know that, a matrix of order 2 × 2 has 4 entries. Since, each entry has 3 choices, namely 1, 2 or 3, therefore number of required matrices
34 = 3 × 3 × 3 × 3 = 81.

Question 5.
If [2 1 3] \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
-1 & 0 & -1 \\
-1 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{c}
1 \\
0 \\
-1
\end{array}\right]\) = A, then write the order of matrix A. (Foregin 2016)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 3
= [- 3 – I] = [- 4]1 × 1
∴ Order of matrix A is 1 × 1.

Question 6.
Write the element a of a 3 × 3 matrix A = [aij], whose elements are given by aij = \(\frac{|i-j|}{2}\) (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Given, A = [aij]3 × 3
where, aij = \(\frac{|i-j|}{2}\)
Now, a23 = \(\frac{|2-3|}{2}=\frac{|-1|}{2}=\frac{1}{2}\)
[put i = 2 and j = 3]

Question 7.
If [2x 3] \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 2 \\
-3 & 0
\end{array}\right]\) \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
3
\end{array}\right]\) = 0, find x. (Delhi 2015C)
Answer:
Given, matrix equation is
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 4
⇒ [2x2 – 9x + 12x] = [0]
⇒ 2x2 + 3x = 0
⇒ x(2x + 3) = 0
∴ x = 0 or x = – 3/2

Question 8.
If 2\(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 4 \\
5 & x
\end{array}\right]+\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & y \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
7 & 0 \\
10 & 5
\end{array}\right]\), then find (x – y). (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 5
On equating the corresponding elements, we get
8 + y = 0 and 2x + 1 = 5
⇒ y = – 8 and x = \(\frac{5-1}{2}\) = 2
∴ x – y = 2 – (-8) = 10

Question 9.
Solve the following matrix equation for x.
[x 1] \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 0 \\
-2 & 0
\end{array}\right]\) = 0 (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Given, \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
x & 1
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 0 \\
-2 & 0
\end{array}\right]\) = 0
By using matrix multiplication, we get
[x – 2 0] = [0 0]
On equating the corresponding elements, we get
x – 2 = 0
⇒ x = 2

Question 10.
If A is a square matrix such that A2 = A, then write the value of 7A — (I + A)3, where I is an identity matrix. (All India 2014)
Answer:
Given, A2 = A
Now, 7A – (I + A)3 = 7A – [I3 + A3 + 3I4(I + A)]
[∵ (x + y)3 = x3 + y3 + 3xy (x + y)]
= 7A – [I + A2.A + 3A(I + A)]
[∵ I3 = I and IA = A]
= 7A – (I + A . A + 3AI + 3A2)
[∵ A2 = A]
= 7A – (I + A + 3A + 3A)
[∵AI = A and A2 = AI]
= 7A – (I + 7A) = – 1

Question 11.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x-y & z \\
2 x-y & w
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
-1 & 4 \\
0 & 5
\end{array}\right]\), then find the value of x + y. (All India 2014)
Answer:
Given
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x-y & z \\
2 x-y & w
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
-1 & 4 \\
0 & 5
\end{array}\right]\)
On equating the corresponding elements, we get
x – y = – 1 …… (i)
and 2x – y = 0 …… (ii)
On solving the Eqs.(i) and (ii), we get
x = 1 and y = 2
∴ x + y = 1 + 2 = 3

Question 12.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
a+4 & 3 b \\
8 & -6
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 a+2 & b+2 \\
8 & a-8 b
\end{array}\right]\), then write the value of a – 2b. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Given,
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
a+4 & 3 b \\
8 & -6
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 a+2 & b+2 \\
8 & a-8 b
\end{array}\right]\)
On equating the corresponding elements, we get
∴ a + 4 = 2a+ 2 ……… (i)
3b = b + 2 ……. (ii)
and – 6 = a – 8b ……… (iii)
On solving the Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
a = 2 and b = 1
Now, a – 2b= 2 – 2(1) = 2 – 2 = 0

Question 13.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x \cdot y & 4 \\
z+6 & x+y
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
8 & w \\
0 & 6
\end{array}\right]\), then write the value of (x + y + z). (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Given,
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x \cdot y & 4 \\
z+6 & x+y
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
8 & w \\
0 & 6
\end{array}\right]\)
On equating the corresponding elements, we get
∴ x – y = 8 ……. (i)
Z + 6 = 0
⇒ z = – 6 ……… (ii)
and x + y = 6 ……… (iii)
Now, on adding Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get
x + y + z = 6 + (- 6) = 0

Question 14.
The elements a of a 3 × 3 matrix are given by aij = \(\frac{1}{2}\)|- 3i + j|. Write the value of element a32. (All India 2014C)
Answer:
\(\frac{7}{2}\)

Question 15.
If [2x 4]\(\left[\begin{array}{c}
x \\
-8
\end{array}\right]\) = 0, then find the positive value of x. (All India 2014C)
Answer:
Given,
[2x 4]\(\left[\begin{array}{c}
x \\
-8
\end{array}\right]\) = 0
On equating the corresponding elements, we get
⇒ 2x2 – 32 = 0
⇒ 2x2 = 32
⇒ x2 =16
⇒ x = ±4
∴ Positive value of x is 4.

Question 16.
If 2\(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 3 \\
0 & x
\end{array}\right]+\left[\begin{array}{ll}
y & 0 \\
1 & 2
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
5 & 6 \\
1 & 8
\end{array}\right]\) then find the value of(x + y). (Delhi 2013C; All India 2012)
Answer:
8

Question 17.
Find the value of a, if (Delhi 2013)
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
a-b & 2 a+c \\
2 a-b & 3 c+d
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
-1 & 5 \\
0 & 13
\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:
1

Question 18.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
9 & -1 & 4 \\
-2 & 1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) = A + \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 2 & -1 \\
0 & 4 & 9
\end{array}\right]\), then find the matrix A. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Given, matrix equation can be rewritten as
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 6

NOTE: Two matrices can be subtracted only when their orders are same.

Question 19.
If matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
1 & -1 \\
-1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) and A2 = kA. then write the value of k. (All India 2013)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 7

Question 20.
If matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
2 & -2 \\
-2 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) and A2 = pA. then write the value of p. (All India 2013)
Answer:
19

Question 21.
If matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
3 & -3 \\
-3 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) and A2 = λA, then write the value of λ. (All India 2013)
Answer:
19

Question 22.
Simplify
cos θ \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\cos \theta & \sin \theta \\
-\sin \theta & \cos \theta
\end{array}\right]\) + sin θ \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\sin \theta & -\cos \theta \\
\cos \theta & \sin \theta
\end{array}\right]\) (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
First, multiply each element of the first matrix by cos θ and second matrix by sin θ and then use the matrix addition.
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 8

Question 23.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 3 \\
5 & 7
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & -3 \\
-2 & 4
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
-4 & 6 \\
-9 & x
\end{array}\right]\), write the value of x. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Given matrix equation is
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 9
On equating the corresponding elements, we get
x = 13

Question 24.
Find the value of y – x from following equation.
2\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x & 5 \\
7 & y-3
\end{array}\right]+\left[\begin{array}{cc}
3 & -4 \\
1 & 2
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
7 & 6 \\
15 & 14
\end{array}\right]\) (All India 2012)
Answer:
7

Question 25.
If \(x\left[\begin{array}{l}
2 \\
3
\end{array}\right]+y\left[\begin{array}{r}
-1 \\
1
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
10 \\
5
\end{array}\right]\), then write the value of x. (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 10
On equating the corresponding elements, we get
2x – y = 10 …… (i)
and 3x + y = 5 …… (ii)
On adding Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
5x = 15
∴ x = 3

Question 26.
If 3A – B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
5 & 0 \\
1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
4 & 3 \\
2 & 5
\end{array}\right]\), then find the matrix A. (Delhi 2012C)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 11

Question 27.
Write the value of x – y + z from following equation. (Foregin 2011)
\(\left[\begin{array}{c}
x+y+z \\
x+z \\
y+z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
9 \\
5 \\
7
\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:
Given matrix equation is
\(\left[\begin{array}{c}
x+y+z \\
x+z \\
y+z
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
9 \\
5 \\
7
\end{array}\right]\)
On equating the corresponding elements, we get
x + y+ z = 9 …… (i)
x + z = 5 …….. (ii)
and y + z = 7 ……. (iii)
On putting the value of x + z from Eq. (ii) in Eq. (i), we get
y + 5 = 9 ⇒ y = 4
On putting y = 4 in Eq. (iii), we get z = 3
Again, putting z = 3 in Eq. (ii), we get x = 2
∴ x – y + z = 2 – 4 + 3 = 1

Question 28.
Write the order of product matrix (Foreign 2011)
\(\left[\begin{array}{l}
1 \\
2 \\
3
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{lll}
2 & 3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:
Use the fact that if a matrix A has order m × n and other matrix B has order n × z, then the matrix AB has order m × z.
Let A = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
1 \\
2 \\
3
\end{array}\right]\) and B = [2, 3, 4]
Here, order of matrix A = 3 × 1
and order of matrix B = 1 × 3
∴ Order of product matrix AB = 3 × 3

Question 29.
If a matrix has 5 elements, then write all possible orders it can have. (All India 2011)
Answer:
Use the result that if a matrix has order m × n, then total number of elements in that matrix is mn.
Given, a matrix has 5 elements. So, possible order of this matrix are 5 × 1 and 1 × 5.

Question 30.
For a 2 × 2 matrix, A = [aij] whose elements are given by aij = i/j, write the value of a12. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 31.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x & x-y \\
2 x+y & 7
\end{array}\right]\) = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 1 \\
8 & 7
\end{array}\right]\), then find the value of y. (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
Given,
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x & x-y \\
2 x+y & 7
\end{array}\right]\) = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 1 \\
8 & 7
\end{array}\right]\)
On equating the corresponding elements, we get
x = 3 and x – y = 1
⇒ y = x – 1 = 3 – 1 = 2

Question 32.
From the following matrix equation, find the value of x. (Foreign 2010)
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x+y & 4 \\
-5 & 3 y
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{rr}
3 & 4 \\
-5 & 6
\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:
Given
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x+y & 4 \\
-5 & 3 y
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{rr}
3 & 4 \\
-5 & 6
\end{array}\right]\)
On equating the corresponding elements, we get
x + y = 3 … (i)
and 3y = 6 …. (ii)
From Eq. (ii), we get
y = 2
On substituting y = 2 in Eq. (i), we get
x + 2 = 3
⇒ x = 1

Question 33.
Find x from the matrix equation (Foreign 2010)
\(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 3 \\
4 & 5
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
2
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
5 \\
6
\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:
First, determine the multiplication of matrices in . LHS and then equate the corresponding elements of both sides.
Given matrix equation is
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 12
On equating the corresponding elements, we get
x + 6 ⇒ 5 x = – 1

Question 34
If \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 4 \\
2 & x
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
1
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{l}
19 \\
15
\end{array}\right]\), then find the value of x. (Foreign 2010)
Answer:
5

Question 35.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
\cos \alpha & -\sin \alpha \\
\sin \alpha & \cos \alpha
\end{array}\right]\) then for what value of α, A is an identity matrix? (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
First, put the given matrix A equal to an identity matrix and then equate the corresponding elements to get the value of α.
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 13
On equating the element a11 of both matrices, we get
cos α = 1
⇒ cos α = cos 0° [∵ cos 0° = 1]
∴ α = 0
Hence, for α = 0, A is an identity matrix.
[∵ sin 0 = 0]

Question 36.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 2 \\
3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 1 \\
2 & 5
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
7 & 11 \\
k & 23
\end{array}\right]\), then write the value of k, (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
17

Question 37.
If A is a matrix of order 3 × 4 and B is a matrix of order 4 × 3, then find order of matrix (AB). (DelhI 2010C)
Answer:
3 × 3

Question 38.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
x+y & 1 \\
2 y & 5
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
7 & 1 \\
4 & 5
\end{array}\right]\),then find the value of x. (Delhi 2010C)
Answer:
x = 5

Question 39.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{cr}
2 x+y & 3 y \\
0 & 4
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
6 & 0 \\
0 & 4
\end{array}\right]\), then find the value of x. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
x = 3

Question 40.
If \(\left[\begin{array}{cr}
3 y-x & -2 x \\
3 & 7
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{rr}
5 & -2 \\
3 & 7
\end{array}\right]\), then find the value of y. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
y = 2

Question 41.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
4 & 2 \\
-1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\), show that (A – 2I) (A – 3I) = 0. (All IndIa 2019C)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 14

Question 42.
Find a matrix A such that 2A – 3B + 5C = 0, where B = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
-2 & 2 & 0 \\
3 & 1 & 4
\end{array}\right]\) and C = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & 0 & -2 \\
7 & 1 & 6
\end{array}\right]\). (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Given, 2A – 3B + 5C = 0 ⇒ 2A = 3B – 5C
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 15

Question 43.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & 0 & 1 \\
2 & 1 & 3 \\
1 & -1 & 0
\end{array}\right]\) then find the values of (A2 – 5A). (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 16

Question 44.
Find matrix A such that (All India 2017)
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & -1 \\
1 & 0 \\
-3 & 4
\end{array}\right] A=\left[\begin{array}{cc}
-1 & -8 \\
1 & -2 \\
9 & 22
\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:
Let the order of A is m × n ∴ m = 2, n = 2
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 17
On equating corresponding elements both sides, we get
2x – s = – 1, x = 1, y = – 2 and 2y – t = – 8
At x = 1, 2x – s = – 1 ⇒ 2 × 1 – s = – 1
⇒ – s = – 1 – 2 = s = 3 and at y = – 2, 2y – t = – 8,
⇒ 2 × (- 2) – t = – 8
⇒ – 4 – t = – 8
⇒ t = 4
On putting x = 1, y = – 2, s = 3 and t = 4 in Eq. (i),
we get A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & -2 \\
3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 45.
Let A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & -1 \\
3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\), B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
5 & 2 \\
7 & 4
\end{array}\right]\), C = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 5 \\
3 & 8
\end{array}\right]\), find a matrix D such that CD – AB = 0. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 18

Question 46.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & 0 & 1 \\
2 & 1 & 3 \\
1 & -1 & 0
\end{array}\right]\), then find A2 – 5A + 4I and hence find a matrix X such that A2 – 5A + 4I + X = 0. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 19

Question 47.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}1 & -1 \\ 2 & -1\end{array}\right]\), B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
a & 1 \\
b & -1
\end{array}\right]\) and (A + B)2 = A2 + B2, then find the values of a and b. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 20
On equating the corresponding elements, we get
a2 + 2a + I = a2 + b – 1 ⇒ 2a – b = – 2
a – 1 = 0 ⇒ a = 1 ….. (ii)
2a – b + ab – 2 = ab – b
⇒ 2a – 2 = 0 ⇒ a = 1 ….. (iii)
and b = 4 …….(iv)
Since, a = 1 and b = 4 also satisfy Eq. (1). therefore
a = 1 and b = 4

Question 48.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & 0 & 1 \\
2 & 1 & 3 \\
1 & -1 & 0
\end{array}\right]\), then find value of A2 – 3A + 2I. (All India 2010)
Answer:
\(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & -1 & -1 \\
3 & -3 & -4 \\
-3 & 2 & 0
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 49.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 0 & 2 \\
0 & 2 & 1 \\
2 & 0 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) and A3 – 6A2 + 7A + kI3 = 0, find the value of k. (All India 2016)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 21
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 22

Transpose of a Matrix, Symmetric and Skew-Symmetric Matrices

Question 1.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 2 & 2 \\
2 & 1 & x \\
-2 & 2 & -1
\end{array}\right]\) is a matric satisfying AA’ = 9I, find x. (CBSE 2018C)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 23
On equating the corresponding elements, we get
4 + 2x = 0 and 5 + x2 = 9
⇒ x = – 2 and x2 = 4
⇒ x = – 2 and x = ±2
∴ The value of x is -2

Question 2.
If the matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
0 & a & -3 \\
2 & 0 & -1 \\
b & 1 & 0
\end{array}\right]\) is skew-symmetric, find the values of ‘a’ and ‘b’. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 24

Question 3.
Matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
0 & 2 b & -2 \\
3 & 1 & 3 \\
3 a & 3 & -1
\end{array}\right]\) is given to be symmetric, find the values of a and b.
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 25

Question 4.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
\cos \alpha & \sin \alpha \\
-\sin \alpha & \cos \alpha
\end{array}\right]\), then find a satisfying 0 < α < \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) when A + AT = √2 I2;
where AT is transpose of A. (All India 2016)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 26

Question 5.
If A = \(\left(\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 5 \\
7 & 9
\end{array}\right)\) is written as A = P + Q, where P is a symmetric matrix and Q is skew-symmetric matrix, then write the matrix P. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
We have A = \(\left(\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 5 \\
7 & 9
\end{array}\right)\) and A = P + Q. where P is symmetric matrix and Q is skew-symmetric matrix.
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 27

Question 6.
Write 2 × 2 matrix which is both symmetric and skew-symmetric. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
A null matrix of order 2 × 2, i.e. \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
0 & 0 \\
0 & 0
\end{array}\right]\) is both symmetric and skew-symmetric.

Question 7.
For what value of x, is the matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
0 & 1 & -2 \\
-1 & 0 & 3 \\
x & -3 & 0
\end{array}\right]\) a skew-symmetric matrix? (All India 2013)
Answer:
If A is a skew-symmetric matrix, then A = – AT, where AT is transpose of matrix A.
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 28

Question 8.
If AT = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
3 & 4 \\
-1 & 2 \\
0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
-1 & 2 & 1 \\
1 & 2 & 3
\end{array}\right]\), then find AT – BT (All India 2012)
Answer:
First, find the transpose of matrix 6 and then subtract the corresponding elements of both matrices AT and BT.
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 29

Question 9
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 2 \\
3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\), then find A + A’. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 30

Question 10.
If \(\left(\begin{array}{cc}
2 x+y & 3 y \\
0 & 4
\end{array}\right)=\left(\begin{array}{ll}
6 & 0 \\
6 & 4
\end{array}\right)\), then find the value of x. (All India 2010)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 31
We know that, if two matrices are equal, then their corresponding elements are equal.
∴ 2x + y = 6 ….. (i)
and 3y = 6 ….. (ii)
From Eq. (ii), we get
y = 2
On substituting y = 2 in Eq. (i), we get
2x+ 2 = 6
⇒ x +1 = 3
∴ x = 2

Question 11.
Show that all the diagonal elements of a skew-symmetric matrix are zero. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Let A = [aij] be a skew-symmetric matrix.
Then, aij = – aij for all i, j
Now, put i = j, we get
⇒ aii = – aii for all values of i
⇒ 2 aii = 0
⇒ aii = 0 for all values of i
∴ a11 = a22 = a33 = ….. = ann = 0
Hence, all the diagonal elements of a skew symmetric matrix are zero.
Hence proved.

Question 12.
Express the matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & 4 & -6 \\
7 & 3 & 5 \\
1 & -2 & 4
\end{array}\right]\) as the sum of a symmetric and skew-symmetric matrix. (All India 2015C)
Answer:
Any square matrix A can be expressed as the sum of a symmetric matrix and skew-symmetric matrix, i.e.
A = \(\frac{A+A^{\prime}}{2}+\frac{A-A^{\prime}}{2}\), where \(\frac{A+A^{\prime}}{2}\) and \(\frac{A-A^{\prime}}{2}\)
are symmetric and skew-symmetric matrices, respectively.
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 32
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 33
Thus, matrix A is expressed as the sum of symmetric matrix and skew-symmetric matrix.

Question 13.
For the following matrices A and B, verify that [AB]’ = B’A’;
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{r}
1 \\
-4 \\
3
\end{array}\right]\), B = [-1 2 1]. (All India 2010).
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 34

Question 14
Express the following matrix as a sum of a symmetric and a skew-symmetric matrices and verify your result: (All India 2010)
\(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & -2 & -4 \\
3 & -2 & -5 \\
-1 & 1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 35

Inverse of a Matrix by Elementary Operations

Question 1.
Use elementary column operation C2 → C2 – 2C1 in the matrix equation. (Foreign 2014)
\(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
4 & 2 \\
3 & 3
\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 2 \\
0 & 3
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 0 \\
1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:
Apply the given operation on the matrix of LHS and the second matrix of RHS,
Given matrix equation is
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 36

Question 2.
Using elementary row transformations (ERT), find inverse of matrix (Foreign 2010)
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
6 & 5 \\
5 & 4
\end{array}\right]\).
Answer:
First, write the matrix A as A = IA. Then, by applying elementary row transformations on A of LHS and same on I of RHS. convert the given matrix equation in the form of I = BA, where B gives the inverse of A.
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 37

Question 3.
Find A-1, by using elementary row transformations for matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 2 \\
7 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) (Foreign 2010)
Answer:
A-1 = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
5 & -2 \\
-7 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 4.
Using elementary row transformations, find inverse of matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 5 \\
1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
A-1 = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
3 & -5 \\
-1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 5.
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & 0 & -1 \\
5 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) (All India 2019; Foregin 2011)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 38

Question 6.
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
-1 & 1 & 2 \\
1 & 2 & 3 \\
3 & 1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) (Delhi 2019; 2012)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 39
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 40

Question 7.
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & 2 & -2 \\
-1 & 3 & 0 \\
0 & -2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) (Delhi 2019; 2018C; 2010)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 41

Question 8.
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 2 & 3 \\
2 & 5 & 7 \\
-2 & -4 & -5
\end{array}\right]\) (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Matrices Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 3 42

Question 9.
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & 3 & -2 \\
-3 & 0 & -1 \\
2 & 1 & 0
\end{array}\right]\) (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
A-1 = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -2 & -3 \\
-2 & 4 & 7 \\
-3 & 5 & 9
\end{array}\right]\)

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Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4

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Get access to Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 Determinants, Determinants Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Determinants Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions

Expansion of Determinant

Question 1.
Find |AB|, if A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
0 & -1 \\
0 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 5 \\
0 & 0
\end{array}\right]\). (All India 2019)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 1

Question 2.
Find the maximum value of (Delhi 2016)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 1 & 1 \\
1 & 1+\sin \theta & 1 \\
1 & 1 & 1+\cos \theta
\end{array}\right|\)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 2
= [(1 + sinθ)(1 + cosθ) – 1] – [1 + cosθ – 1] + [1 – 1 – sinθ]
= 1 + cosθ + sinθ + sinθcosθ – 1 – cosθ – sinθ
= sinθcosθ
= |\(\frac{1}{2}\)|(2sinθcosθ) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)sin2θ
We know that, maximum value of sin 2θ is 1.
∴ Δmax = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 1 = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 3.
If \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
x & \sin \theta & \cos \theta \\
-\sin \theta & -x & 1 \\
\cos \theta & 1 & x
\end{array}\right|\) = 8, write the value of x. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
We have, \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
x & \sin \theta & \cos \theta \\
-\sin \theta & -x & 1 \\
\cos \theta & 1 & x
\end{array}\right|\) = 8

On expanding along R1, we get
x (- x2 -1) – sinθ(- x sinθ – cosθ) + cosθ(- sinθ + x cosθ) = 8
⇒ – x3 – x + x sin2θ + sinθcosθ – sinθcosθ + x cos2θ = 8
⇒ – x3 – x + x (sin2θ + cos2θ) = 8
⇒ -x3 – x + x = 8 [∵ sin2θ + cos2θ = 1]
⇒ – x3 = 8 ⇒ x3 + 8 = 0 ⇒ x3 + 23 = 0
⇒ (x + 2)(x2 + 4 – 2x) = 0
⇒ x = -2 [∵ x2 – 2x + 4 = 0, gives imaginary values]

Question 4.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
5 & 6 & -3 \\
-4 & 3 & 2 \\
-4 & -7 & 3
\end{array}\right]\), then write the cofactor of the element a21 of its 2nd row. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Given, A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
5 & 6 & -3 \\
-4 & 3 & 2 \\
-4 & -7 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)

Now, Cofactors of a21 = (-1)\(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
6 & -3 \\
-7 & 3
\end{array}\right|\)
= -(18 – 21) = 3

Question 5.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 2 \\
3 & -1
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 3 \\
-1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\), write the value of |AB|. (Delhi 2015C)
Answer:
Clearly, |A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 2 \\
3 & -1
\end{array}\right|\) = -1 – 6 = – 7
and |B| = \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 3 \\
-1 & 1
\end{array}\right|\) = 1 + 3 = 4
∴ |AB| = |A|.|B| = (-7)(4) = -28

Question 6.
In the interval it π/2 < x < π, find the value of x for which the matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 \sin x & 3 \\
1 & 2 \sin x
\end{array}\right]\) is singular. (All India 2015C)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 3

Question 7.
If \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
2 x & 5 \\
8 & x
\end{array}\right|=\left|\begin{array}{rr}
6 & -2 \\
7 & 3
\end{array}\right|\), then write the value of x. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
First, expand both determinants, which gives ” equation in x and then solve that equation to find the value of x.
Given, \(\left|\begin{array}{rr}
2 x & 5 \\
8 & x
\end{array}\right|=\left|\begin{array}{rr}
6 & -2 \\
7 & 3
\end{array}\right|\)
⇒ 2x2 – 40 = 18 -(-14)
⇒ 2x2 – 40 = 32
⇒ 2x2 = 72
⇒ x2 = 36
∴ x = ± 6

Question 8.
If = \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
3 x & 7 \\
-2 & 4
\end{array}\right|=\left|\begin{array}{cc}
8 & 7 \\
6 & 4
\end{array}\right|\), then find the value of x. (All India 2014)
Answer:
Given, \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
3 x & 7 \\
-2 & 4
\end{array}\right|=\left|\begin{array}{cc}
8 & 7 \\
6 & 4
\end{array}\right|\)
x = -2

Question 9.
Write the value of the determinant (Delhi 2014C)
\(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
p & p+1 \\
p-1 & p
\end{array}\right|\)
Answer:
Let Δ = \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
p & p+1 \\
p-1 & p
\end{array}\right|\)

On expanding, we get
Δ = p2 – (p – 1)(p + 1)
⇒ Δ = p2 – (p2 – 12) [∵ a2 – b2 =(a + b) (a – b)]
⇒ Δ = p2 – p2 + 1
∴ Δ = 1

Question 10.
If \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
2 x & x+3 \\
2(x+1) & x+1
\end{array}\right|=\left|\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 5 \\
3 & 3
\end{array}\right|\), then find the value of x. (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Expand both determinants which gives equation in x and then solve that equation to find the value of x.
Given, \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
2 x & x+3 \\
2(x+1) & x+1
\end{array}\right|=\left|\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 5 \\
3 & 3
\end{array}\right|\)
⇒ 2x (x +1) – (x + 3) (2x + 2) = 3 – 15
⇒ 2x2 + 2x – (2x2 + 8x + 6) = -12
⇒ – 6x – 6 =-12 ⇒ 6x = 6
∴ x = 1

Question 11.
If \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
x+1 & x-1 \\
x-3 & x+2
\end{array}\right|=\left|\begin{array}{cc}
4 & -1 \\
1 & 3
\end{array}\right|\), then write the value of x. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Given, \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
x+1 & x-1 \\
x-3 & x+2
\end{array}\right|=\left|\begin{array}{cc}
4 & -1 \\
1 & 3
\end{array}\right|\)
∴ x = 2

Question 12.
If Aij is the cofactor of the element a of the determinant \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & -3 & 5 \\
6 & 0 & 4 \\
1 & 5 & -7
\end{array}\right|\), then write the value of a32 . A32. (All India 2013)
Answer:
Let Δ = \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & -3 & 5 \\
6 & 0 & 4 \\
1 & 5 & -7
\end{array}\right|\)
Here, a32 = 5
Given, Aij is the cofactor of the element aij of A.
∴ A32 = (-1)3+2\(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 5 \\
6 & 4
\end{array}\right|\) = -1(8 – 30) = 32
⇒ a32 . A32 = 5 × 32 = 110

Question 13.
If Δ = \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
5 & 3 & 8 \\
2 & 0 & 1 \\
1 & 2 & 3
\end{array}\right|\), write the cofactor of a23. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Cofactor of element a32
= (-1)3+2\(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
5 & 8 \\
2 & 1
\end{array}\right|\) = (-1)(5 – 16) = 11

Question 14.
If Δ = \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 2 & 3 \\
2 & 0 & 1 \\
5 & 3 & 8
\end{array}\right|\), write the minor of element a22. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Minor of elements a22 = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 3 \\
5 & 8
\end{array}\right|\) = 8 – 15 = -7

Question 15.
If Δ = \(=\left|\begin{array}{lll}
5 & 3 & 8 \\
2 & 0 & 1 \\
1 & 2 & 3
\end{array}\right|\), then write the minor of the element a23. (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Minor of the elements a23 = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
5 & 3 \\
1 & 2
\end{array}\right|\) = 10 – 3 = 7

Question 16.
For what value of x, A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2(x+1) & 2 x \\
x & x-2
\end{array}\right]\) is a singular matrix? (All India 2011C)
Answer:
For a singular matrix, |A| = 0. Use this relation and solve it.
We know that, a matrix A is said to be singular, if |A| = 0
∴ \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2(x+1) & 2 x \\
x & x-2
\end{array}\right]\) = 0
⇒ (2x + 2)(x – 2) – 2x2 = 0
⇒ 2x2 – 2x – 4 – 2x2 = 0
⇒ -2x = 4
∴ x = -2

Question 17.
For what value of x, the matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 x+4 & 4 \\
x+5 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) is a singular matrix? (All India 2011C)
Answer:
Let, A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 x+4 & 4 \\
x+5 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)
If matrix A is singular, then
|A| = 0
⇒ \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
2 x+4 & 4 \\
x+5 & 3
\end{array}\right|\) = 0
⇒ (2x + 4) × 3 – (x + 5) × 4 = 0
⇒ 6x + 12 – 4x – 20 = 0 ⇒ 2x = 8
∴ x = 4

Question 18.
For what value of x, the matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 x & 4 \\
x+2 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) is a singular matrix? (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
Given, A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 x & 4 \\
x+2 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)
∴ x = 4

Question 19.
For what value of x, matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
6-x & 4 \\
3-x & 1
\end{array}\right]\) is a singular matrix? (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
Given A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
6-x & 4 \\
3-x & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
∴ x = 2

Question 20.
For what value of x, the matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
5-x & x+1 \\
2 & 4
\end{array}\right]\) is a singular? (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Given A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
5-x & x+1 \\
2 & 4
\end{array}\right]\)
∴ x = 3

Question 21.
Evaluate \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
\cos 15^{\circ} & \sin 15^{\circ} \\
\sin 75^{\circ} & \cos 75^{\circ}
\end{array}\right|\). (All India 2011)
Answer:
Let Δ = \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
\cos 15^{\circ} & \sin 15^{\circ} \\
\sin 75^{\circ} & \cos 75^{\circ}
\end{array}\right|\)

On expanding, we get
A = (cos 15° cos 75° – sin 15° sin 75°)
= cos (15° + 75°) [∵ cos x cos y – sin x sin y = cos (x + y)]
= cos 90° = 0 [∵ cos 90° = 0]

Question 22.
If \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
x & x \\
1 & x
\end{array}\right|=\left|\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 4 \\
1 & 2
\end{array}\right|\), then write the positive value of x. (Foreign 2011; All India 2008C)
Answer:
Given, \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
x & x \\
1 & x
\end{array}\right|=\left|\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 4 \\
1 & 2
\end{array}\right|\)
On expanding, we get
x2 – x = 6 – 4
⇒ x2 – x – 2 = 0
⇒ (x – 2)(x + 1) = 0
∴ x = 2 or -1
Hence, the positive value of x is 2.

Question 23.
What is the value of determinant \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
0 & 2 & 0 \\
2 & 3 & 4 \\
4 & 5 & 6
\end{array}\right|\) ? (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Determinant can be easily expand along that row or column which have maximum zeroes.
Let Δ = \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
0 & 2 & 0 \\
2 & 3 & 4 \\
4 & 5 & 6
\end{array}\right|\)
Then, Δ = -1(12 – 16) [expanding along R1]
= -2(-4) = 8

Question 24.
Find the minor of the element of second row and third column (a23) in the following determinant \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & -3 & 5 \\
6 & 0 & 4 \\
1 & 5 & -7
\end{array}\right|\). (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Minor of elements a23 = 13

Question 25.
What positive value of x makes following pair of determinants equal? (All India 2010)
\(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
2 x & 3 \\
5 & x
\end{array}\right|,\left|\begin{array}{cc}
16 & 3 \\
5 & 2
\end{array}\right|\)
Answer:
Let \(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
2 x & 3 \\
5 & x
\end{array}\right|,\left|\begin{array}{cc}
16 & 3 \\
5 & 2
\end{array}\right|\)

On expanding, we get
2x2 – 15 = 32 – 15
⇒ 2x2 – 15 = 17
⇒ 2x2 = 32 ⇒ x2 = 16 ⇒ x = ± 4
Hence, for x = 4, given pair of determinants is equal.

Question 26.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
p & 2 \\
2 & p
\end{array}\right]\) and |A3| = 125 then find the value of p. (All India 2019)
Answer:
Given, A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
p & 2 \\
2 & p
\end{array}\right]\)
∴ |A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
p & 2 \\
2 & p
\end{array}\right|\) = p2 – 4
and |A3| = 125 ⇒ |A|3 = 125 [∵ |A|3 = |A3|]
⇒ (p2 – 4)3 = 125 ⇒ p2 – 4 = 5 ⇒ p2 = 9
⇒ p = ± 3

Properties of Determinants

Question 1.
If A is a square matrix satisfying A’A = I, write the value of |A|. (All India 2019)
Answer:
We have, A’A = I
⇒ |A’A| = |I| ⇒ |A’||A| = 1 [∵ | AB| = |A| |B|]
⇒ |A|2 = 1 [∵ |A’| = |A|]
⇒ |A| = ± 1

Question 2.
If A and B are square matrices of the same order 3, such that |A| = 2 and AB = 27. Write the value of |B|. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
We know that,
(i) |kA| = kn|A|, if A is square matrix of nth order
(ii) |AB| = |A| × |B|
Here, we have AB = 21 and n – 3
∴ |AB| = |2I| = 23|I|= 8.1 = 8 [∵|I| = 1]
⇒ |4||B| = 8
⇒ 2.|B| = 8 ⇒ |B|=4

Question 3.
Write the value of Δ = \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
x+y & y+z & z+x \\
z & x & y \\
-3 & -3 & -3
\end{array}\right|\). (All India 2015)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 4
On taking (x + y + z) common from R1 and -3
Δ = (x + y + z)(-3)\(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 1 & 1 \\
z & x & y \\
1 & 1 & 1
\end{array}\right|\)
= (x + y + z)(-3) × 0 [∵ R1 and R3 are identical]
= 0

Question 4.
Write the value of \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
2 & 7 & 65 \\
3 & 8 & 75 \\
5 & 9 & 86
\end{array}\right|\). (All India 2014C)
Answer:
Let Δ = \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
2 & 7 & 65 \\
3 & 8 & 75 \\
5 & 9 & 86
\end{array}\right|\)
On applying C3 → C3 – 9C2, we get
Δ = \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
2 & 7 & 2 \\
3 & 8 & 3 \\
5 & 9 & 5
\end{array}\right|\)
= 0 [∵ C1 and C3 are identical]

Question 5.
Let A be a square matrix of order 3 × 3. Write the value of |2A|, where |A| = 4. (All India 2012)
Answer:
We know that, for a square matrix A of order n,
|kA| = kn – |A|
Here, |2A| = 23.|A| [∵ order of A is 3 × 3]
= 23 × 4= 8 × 4 = 32 [put |A| = 4]

Question 6.
If the determinant of matrix A of order 3 × 3 is of value 4, then write the value of |3A|. (All India 2012C)
Answer:
We know that, for a square matrix A of order n,
|kA| = kn – |A|
Here, |3A| = 33.|A| [∵ order of A is 3 × 3]
= 108

Question 7.
Write the value of the determinant \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
102 & 18 & 36 \\
1 & 3 & 4 \\
17 & 3 & 6
\end{array}\right|\) (Foreign 2012)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 5

Question 8.
If A is a square matrix of order 3 and |3A| = k|A|, then write the value of k. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
We know that, if A is a square matrix of order n. Then, |pA|= pn|A|
Here, the matrix A is of order 3 × 3.
∴ |3A| = (3)3|A| = 27|A|
On comparing with given equation, we get
k = 27

Question 9.
What is the value of \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
4 & a & b+c \\
4 & b & c+a \\
4 & c & a+b
\end{array}\right|\)?
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 6

Question 10.
Using properties of determinants, show that (All India 2019)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
3 a & -a+b & -a+c \\
-b+a & 3 b & -b+c \\
-c+a & -c+b & 3 c
\end{array}\right|\) = 3(a + 6 + c) (ab + be + ca)
Answer:
Let the given determinant be A. Then,
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 7
= (a + b + c) [(2b + a) (2c + a) – (a – c) (a – b)]
= (a + b + c) [(abc + 2ab + 2ac + a2) – (a2 – ab – ac + bc)]
= 3(a + b + c) (ab + bc + ca)
Hence, Δ = 3(a + b + c) (ab + bc + ca)

Question 11.
Using properties of determinants, prove the following (Delhi 2019)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
a+b+c & -c & -b \\
-c & a+b+c & -a \\
-b & -a & a+b+c
\end{array}\right|\) = 2(a + b) (b + c) (c + a)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 8
= (a + b) (b + c) [1 {2(c + a) – 0}]
= 2(a+b)(b + c) (c + a) = RHS

Question 12.
Using properties of determinants, prove that
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
a^{2}+2 a & 2 a+1 & 1 \\
2 a+1 & a+2 & 1 \\
3 & 3 & 1
\end{array}\right|\) = (a – 1)3
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 9
On expanding along C3, we get
LHS = (a – 1)2 1 (a +1 – 2)
= (a – 1)2(a – 1) = (a – 1)3
= RHS
Hence Proved.

Question 13.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (CBSE 2018)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 1 & 1+3 x \\
1+3 y & 1 & 1 \\
1 & 1+3 z & 1
\end{array}\right|\) = 9 (3xyz + xy + yz + zx).
Answer:
Let Δ = \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 1 & 1+3 x \\
1+3 y & 1 & 1 \\
1 & 1+3 z & 1
\end{array}\right|\)
On taking common x from R1, ,y from R2 and z from R3 we get
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 10
= (3xyz + xy + yz + zx)[1 – {0 – (-9)}]
= 9(3xy + xy + yz + zx)
= RHS
Hence Proved.

Question 14.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (CBSE 2018C)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
5 a & -2 a+b & -2 a+c \\
-2 b+a & 5 b & -2 b+c \\
-2 c+a & -2 c+b & 5 c
\end{array}\right|\) = 12 (a + b + c) (ab + bc + ca).
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 11
[Applying R2 → R2 – R1 and R3 → R3 – R1]
Expanding along C1, we get
= (a + b + c)[1{(4b + 2a)(4c + 2a) – (-2b + 2a)(-2c + 2a) = 0 = 0]
= (a + b + c)[4{(2b + a)(2c – a) – (-b + a)(-c + a)]
(a + b + c)4[{4bc + 2ab + 2ac + a2 – (bc – ab – ac + a2)
= 4(a + b + c)[3bc + 3ab + 3ac]
= 12(a + b + c)(ab + bc + ca0
Hence Proved.

Question 15.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (Delhi 2017: All India 2017)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
x & x+y & x+2 y \\
x+2 y & x & x+y \\
x+y & x+2 y & x
\end{array}\right|\) = 9y2(x + y).
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 12
Now, on expanding along Rv we get
LHS = 3 (x + y) -1 . [(- 2y) . (-y) – (y) . <-y>]
= 3 (x + y) (2y2 + y2)
= 3 (x + y) (3y2)
= 9y2(x + y) = RHS
Hence proved.

Question 16.
If f(x) = \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
a & -1 & 0 \\
a x & a & -1 \\
a x^{2} & a x & a
\end{array}\right|\) using properties of determinants, find the value of f(2x) – f(x). (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
First, expand the determinants by using properties and then determine the required result.
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 13
Now, on expanding along R1, we get
f(x) = a[1 { a(x + a) + 1 (x2 + ax)}]
= a (ax + a2 + x2 + ax)
= a (x2 + 2ax + a2)
= a(x + a)2

f(2x) = a(2x + a)2
Now, f(2x) – f(x) = a(2x + a)2 – a(x + a)
= a[(2x + a)2 – (x + a)2]
= a[(2x + a + x + a) (2x + a – x – a)] [∵ (a + b) (a – b) = a2 – b2]
= a[(3x + 2a) (x)]
= x(3x + 2a) a

Question 17.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (Foreign 2015, 2009)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & a & a^{2} \\
a^{2} & 1 & a \\
a & a^{2} & 1
\end{array}\right|\) = (1 – a3)2
Or
Using properties of determinants, prove the following.
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & x & x^{2} \\
x^{2} & 1 & x \\
x & x^{2} & 1
\end{array}\right|\) = (1 – x3)2
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 14
On taking (1 – a) common from C1, and C2 respectively, we get
LHS = (1 + a + a2) (1 – a)2\(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
1 & a \\
-a & 1+a
\end{array}\right|\)
= (1 + a + a2) (1 – a)2 (1 + a + a2)
= {(1 + a + a2)(1 – a)}2
= (1 – a3)2
= RHS
[∵ (a2 + b2 + ab){a – b) = a3 – b3]

Question 18.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (All Indio 2015; Foreign 2014)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
a^{2} & b c & a c+c^{2} \\
a^{2}+a b & b^{2} & a c \\
a b & b^{2}+b c & c^{2}
\end{array}\right|\) = 4a2b2bc2
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 15
On expanding along C1, we get
LHS = abc [2b {c {a – c) + c(a + c)}]
= 2(ab2c) (2ac)
= 4a2b2c2 = RHS
Hence proved.

Question 19.
Using properties of determinants, solve the following for x. (All Indio 2015C, 2011)
\(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
a+x & a-x & a-x \\
a-x & a+x & a-x \\
a-x & a-x & a+x
\end{array}\right|\) = 0
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 16
On Expanding along C1, we get
(3a – x).1.\(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
2 x & 0 \\
0 & 2 x
\end{array}\right|\) = 0
⇒ (3a – x).2x.2x = 0
⇒ 4x2 (3a – x) = 0
∴ x = 0,3a

Question 20.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (Delhi 2015C)
\(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
(a+1)(a+2) & a+2 & 1 \\
(a+2)(a+3) & a+3 & 1 \\
(a+3)(a+4) & a+4 & 1
\end{array}\right|\) = 2
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 17
Now, on expanding along C3, we get
LHS = 4 (a + 2) – 4a – 10= 4a + 8 – 4a – 10
= – 2 = RHS
Hence proved.

Question 21.
Prove the following, using properties of determinants.
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
a+b+2 c & a & b \\
c & b+c+2 a & b \\
c & a & c+a+2 b
\end{array}\right|\) = 2(a + b + c)3 [Delhi 2014]
Or
Prove, using properties of determinants
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
x+y+2 z & x & y \\
z & y+z+2 x & y \\
z & x & z+x+2 y
\end{array}\right|\) = 2(x + y + z)3. (F0reiqn 2011; All India 2009C, 2008)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 18
On taking(a + b + c) common from R2 and R3 we get
LHS = 2 (a+b + c)3\(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
1 & a & b \\
0 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right|\)
On expanding along R3, we get
LHS = 2(a + b + c)3(1 – 0)
= 2(a + b + c)3 = RHS
Hence Proved
Or
Same as Above.

Question 22.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (Delhi 2014)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
x^{2}+1 & x y & x z \\
x y & y^{2}+1 & y z \\
x z & y z & z^{2}+1
\end{array}\right|\) = 1 + x2 + y2 + z2.
Or
Prove, using properties of determinants (All India 2011C; ForeIgn 2009)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
a^{2}+1 & a b & a c \\
a b & b^{2}+1 & b c \\
c a & c b & c^{2}+1
\end{array}\right|\) = 1 + a2 + b2 + c2.
Answer:
To Prove
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 19
On expanding along C1, we get
LHS = (1 + x2 + y2 + z2)[1 (1 – 0)]
= 1 + x2 + y2 + z2 = RHS
Hence proved.

Note: If we divide any row (or column) by a non-zero constant k, then we have to multiply the determinant by k.
or
Same as Above

Question 23.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (Delhi 2014)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
2 y & y-z-x & 2 y \\
2 z & 2 z & z-x-y \\
x-y-z & 2 x & 2 x
\end{array}\right|\) = (x + y + z)3
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 20
Now, on expanding along we get
LHS = (x + y + z) 1 . [0 + (x + y + z)2]
= (x + y+ z)3 = RHS
Hence Proved.

Question 24.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (All India 2014, 2010C)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
b+c & c+a & a+b \\
q+r & r+p & p+q \\
y+z & z+x & x+y
\end{array}\right|\) = 2\(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
a & b & c \\
p & q & r \\
x & y & z
\end{array}\right|\)
Answer:
To Prove
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 21

Question 25.
Using properties of determinants, prove that
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
1+a & 1 & 1 \\
1 & 1+b & 1 \\
1 & 1 & 1+c
\end{array}\right|\) = abc + bc + ca + ab (All India 2014, 2009)
Answer:
T0 Prove
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 22

Question 26.
Using properties of determinants, prove that
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
x+y & x & x \\
5 x+4 y & 4 x & 2 x \\
10 x+8 y & 8 x & 3 x
\end{array}\right|\) = x3 (All India 2014, 2009)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 23

Question 27.
Using properties of determinants, prove that
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
a+x & y & z \\
x & a+y & z \\
x & y & a+z
\end{array}\right|\) = a2(a + x + y + z) (F0reign 2014)
Answer:
First, we apply the operation C1 → C1 + C2 + C3 and then take (a + x + y + z) common factor from C,. Now, try to make two zeroes in C1, and expand the determinant along C1.
To Prove
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 24
On expanding along C1, we get
= (a + x + y + z)[1 (a2 – 0)]
= a2(a + x + y + z) = RHS
Hence Proved.

Question 28.
Using properties of determinants, prove that
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
x+\lambda & 2 x & 2 x \\
2 x & x+\lambda & 2 x \\
2 x & 2 x & x+\lambda
\end{array}\right|\) = (5x + λ)(λ – x)2 (F0reign 2014)
Or
Using properties of determinants, prove that
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
x+4 & 2 x & 2 x \\
2 x & x+4 & 2 x \\
2 x & 2 x & x+4
\end{array}\right|\) = (5x + 4)(4 – x)2 (Delhi 2011, 2009)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 25
On expanding along C1, we get
LHS = (5x + λ)[1(λ – x)2 – 0]
= (5x + λ)(λ – x)2
= RHS
Hence Proved
Or
Same as Above.

Question 29.
Using properties of determinants, prove that
\(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
a & a^{2} & b c \\
b & b^{2} & c a \\
c & c^{2} & a b
\end{array}\right|\) = (a – b)(b – c)(c – a) (bc + ca + ab) (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 26
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 27
On taking common (c – b) from R2, we get
LHS = (b – a) (c – a) (c – b)
= (b – a) (c – a) (c – b)\(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
b+a & b^{2}+a^{2}+a b \\
1 & c+b+a
\end{array}\right|\)
= (b – a)(c – a)(c – b) [(b + a) (c + b + a) – a2 – b2 – ab]
= (b – a)(c – a)(c – b)[bc + b2 + ab + ac + ab + a2 – a2 – b2 – ab]
= (a – b) (b – c) (c – a) (ab + bc + ca)
= RHS
Hence proved.

Question 30.
Show that Δ = Δ1, where (All India 2014C)
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 28
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 29

Question 31.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (All India 2014C, 2012)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
b+c & a & a \\
b & c+a & b \\
c & c & a+b
\end{array}\right|\) = 4abc
Answer:
First, apply R1 → R1 + R2 + R3 and then take a term common from R1 and solve it.
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 30
On expanding along R1, we get
LHS = 2{c(ab – 0) – b(0 – ac)}
= 2{abc + abc}
= 4abc
= RHS
Hence Proved

Question 32.
Using properties of determinants, prove that
\(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
1 & a & a^{3} \\
1 & b & b^{3} \\
1 & c & c^{3}
\end{array}\right|\) = (a – b)(b – c)(c – a)(a + b + c). (Delhi 2013C, 2009C)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 31
= (b – a)(c – a)[c2 + a2 + ac – (b2 + a2 + ab)] [expanding along C1]
= (b – a) (c – a) [c2 – b2 + ac – ab]
= (b – a)(c – a) [(c – b)(c + b) + a (c – b)]
= (b – a)(c -a)(c – b)(c + b + a)
= (a – b)(b – c)(c – a)(a + b+ c)
= RHS
Hence proved.

Question 33.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (All India 2013C, Delhi 2011C)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
a & b & c \\
a^{2} & b^{2} & c^{2} \\
b c & c a & a b
\end{array}\right|\) = (a – b)(b – c)(c – a)(ab + bc + ca)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 26
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 27
On taking common (c – b) from R2, we get
LHS = (b – a) (c – a) (c – b)
= (b – a) (c – a) (c – b)\(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
b+a & b^{2}+a^{2}+a b \\
1 & c+b+a
\end{array}\right|\)
= (b – a)(c – a)(c – b) [(b + a) (c + b + a) – a2 – b2 – ab]
= (b – a)(c – a)(c – b)[bc + b2 + ab + ac + ab + a2 – a2 – b2 – ab]
= (a – b) (b – c) (c – a) (ab + bc + ca)
= RHS
but replace row operations by column operations and column operations by row operations otherwise write LHS
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
a & b & c \\
a^{2} & b^{2} & c^{2} \\
b c & c a & a b
\end{array}\right|=\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
a & a^{2} & b c \\
b & b^{2} & c a \\
c & c^{2} & a b
\end{array}\right|\)

Question 34.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (Delhi 2012)
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 32
Answer:
To Prove
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 21
but replace column operations by row operations. Otherwise write
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 33

Question 35.
Using properties of determinants, prove the following (Delhi 2012, 2011C)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 1 & 1 \\
a & b & c \\
a^{3} & b^{3} & c^{3}
\end{array}\right|\) = (a – b)(b – c)(c – a)(a + b + c)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 31
= (b – a)(c – a)[c2 + a2 + ac – (b2 + a2 + ab)] [expanding along C1]
= (b – a) (c – a) [c2 – b2 + ac – ab]
= (b – a)(c – a) [(c – b)(c + b) + a (c – b)]
= (b – a)(c -a)(c – b)(c + b + a)
= (a – b)(b – c)(c – a)(a + b+ c)
= RHS
but replace column operations by row operations and row operations by column operations. Otherwise write
LHS = \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 1 & 1 \\
a & b & c \\
a^{3} & b^{3} & c^{3}
\end{array}\right|=\left|\begin{array}{lll}
1 & a & a^{3} \\
1 & b & b^{3} \\
1 & c & c^{3}
\end{array}\right|\)

Question 36.
Using properties of determinants, prove the following (Delhi 2019, 2012C, 2009)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
a & b & c \\
a-b & b-c & c-a \\
b+c & c+a & a+b
\end{array}\right|\) = a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc
Answer:
To Prove
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 34
On expanding along R1, we get
LHS = (a + b+ c).1.{(2b – a – c)(a – c) – (a – b)(b +c – 2a)}
= (a + b + c){2ab – a2 – ac – 2bc + ac + c2 – ab – ac + 2a2 + b2 + bc – 2ab}
=(a+ b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca)
= a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc

Question 37.
Using properties of determinants, prove the following (All India 2012C)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
a & b & c \\
a-b & b-c & c-a \\
b+c & c+a & a+b
\end{array}\right|\) = (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 35

Question 38.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (Delhi 2012C, 2010C, 2008C)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
\alpha & \beta & \gamma \\
\alpha^{2} & \beta^{2} & \gamma^{2} \\
\beta+\gamma & \gamma+\alpha & \alpha+\beta
\end{array}\right|\) = (α – β)(β – γ)(γ – α)(α + β + γ)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 36
Now, on expanding along R3, we get
LHS = (α + β + γ)(α – β)(β – γ)\(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 1 \\
\alpha+\beta & \beta+\gamma
\end{array}\right|\)
= (α + β + γ)(α – β)(β – γ)(β + γ – α – β)
= (α – β)(β – γ)( γ – α)(α + β + γ)
= RHS
Hence Proved.

Question 39.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (All India 2012C)
\(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
a^{2} & a^{2}-(b-c)^{2} & b c \\
b^{2} & b^{2}-(c-a)^{2} & c a \\
c^{2} & c^{2}-(a-b)^{2} & a b
\end{array}\right|\) = (a – b)(b – c)(c – a)(a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 37
Now, on Expanding along C2, we get
LHS = (a2 + b2 + c2)(a – b)(b – c)(-1)3+2(a + b + c)(-a + c)
= (a – b)(b – c)(c – a)(a + b + c)(a2 + b2 +c2)
= RHS
Hence Proved.

Question 40.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (Delhi 2011; All India 2011C)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
-a^{2} & a b & a c \\
b a & -b^{2} & b c \\
c a & c b & -c^{2}
\end{array}\right|\) = 4a2b2c2
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 38

Question 41.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (Delhi 2011; All India 2011C)
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
x & y & z \\
x^{2} & y^{2} & z^{2} \\
x^{3} & y^{3} & z^{3}
\end{array}\right|\) = xyz(x – y)(y – z)(z – x)
Answer:
To Prove
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 39
On taking (x – y) common from C1 and (y – z) from C2, we get
LHS = xyz(x – y)(y – z)\(\left|\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 1 \\
x+y & y+z
\end{array}\right|\)
= xyz(x – y)(y – z)[(y + z) – (x + y)]
= xyz(x – y)(y – z)(z – x)
= RHS
Hence Proved.

Question 42.
Using properties of determinants, solve the following for x. (Delhi 2011, 2010C)
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 40
Answer:
First, apply some properties, so that when we expand the determinant, it is easy to simplify.
Given,
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 41
On expanding along Cj, we get
⇒ 4 [3 (3x – 64) – 12 (2x – 27) + (x – 8) (3 × 2 – 3 × 6)] = 0
⇒ 4[9x – 192 – 24x + 324 + (x – 8)18] = 0
⇒ 4(3x – 12) = 0
⇒ 3x = 12
∴ x = 4

Question 43.
Using properties of determinants, solve the following for x. (All India 2011)
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 42
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 43
On expanding along C1, we get
(3x + a)[1(a × a – 0)] = 0
⇒ a2(3x + a) = 0
∴ x = \(-\frac{a}{3}\)

Question 44.
Prove, using properties of determinants (Foreign 2011)
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 44
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 20
Now, on expanding along we get
LHS = (x + y + z) 1 . [0 + (x + y + z)2]
= (x + y+ z)3 = RHS
Hence Proved.

Question 45.
Prove, using properties of determinants (Foreign 2011)
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 45
Answer:
First, we apply the operation C1 → C1 + C2 + C3 and then take (a + x + y + z) common factor from C,. Now, try to make two zeroes in C1, and expand the determinant along C1.
To Prove
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 24
On expanding along C1, we get
= (a + x + y + z)[1 (a2 – 0)]
= a2(a + x + y + z) = RHS
Hence Proved.

Question 46.
Prove that
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 46
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 47
On expanding along R1, we get
LHS = (a + b + c)2 [2bc(a2 + ab + ac + bc – bc)]
= (a + b + c)2 [2bc (a2 + ab + ac)]
= (a + b + c)2.2abc(a + b+c)
= 2abc(a + b + c)3 = RHS
Hence Proved.

Question 47.
Prove that
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 48
is divisible by (x + y + z) and hence find the quotient. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 49
On expanding along R1, we get = (x + y + z)2 (xy + xz + yz – x2 – y2 – z2) [1{(y – z)(z – y) – (y – x)(z – x)}]
= (x + y + z)2 (xy + xz + yz – x2 – y2 – z2) x [-(y2 + z2 – 2yz) – (yz – xy – xz + x2)]
= (x + y + z)2 (xy + xz + yz – x2 – y2 – z2) x [yz + xy + xz – x2 – y2 – z2]
⇒ Δ = (x + y + z)2 (xy + xz + yz – x2– y2 – z2)2
Here, we see that A is a multiple of x + y + z.
So, it is divisible by x + y + z.
Hence, the quotient is (x + y + z)(xy + xz + yz + x2 – y2 – z2)2

Question 48.
Using properties of determinants, prove that (All India 2015)
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 50
Or
Using properties of determinants, show the following (Delhi 2010)
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 51
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 52

Question 49.
Using properties of determinants, show that ΔABC is isosceles, if (All India 2016)
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 53
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 54
On expanding along R1, we get (cosB – cos A) (cos C- cos A)[1 + cosA + cos C – 1 – cos A – cosB] = 0
⇒ (cosB – cosA) (cosC – cosA) (cosC – cosB) = 0
cosB = cosA or cosC=cosA
or cosC = cosB
⇒ ∠B = ∠A
or ∠C = ∠A
or ∠C = ∠B
ΔABC is isosceles.

Question 50.
If a, b and c are all non-zero and
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 55
then, prove that \(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\) + 1 = 0 (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Consider \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
1+a & 1 & 1 \\
1 & 1+b & 1 \\
1 & 1 & 1+c
\end{array}\right|\) = 0 and
T0 Prove
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 22
From this, we get abc(1 + \(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\)) = 0
1 + \(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\) = 0
[∵ a, b and c are all non-zero constants]

Question 51.
If a, b, c are positive and unequal, show that the following determinant is negative. (All India 2010)
Δ = \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
a & b & c \\
b & c & a \\
c & a & b
\end{array}\right|\)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 56
On expanding along R1, we get
A = (a + b + c) [- (b – c)2 – (a – b) (a – c)]
= (a + b + c) [- (b2 + c2 – 2bc) – (a2 – ac – ab + bc)]
= (a + b + c)[-b2 – c2 + 2bc – a2 + ac +ab – bc]
= (a + b + c) (ab + bc + ca – a2 – b2 – c2)
= – (a + b + c)(a2 + b2 + c2 – ab – bc – ca)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) (a + b + c) (2a2 + 2b2 + 2c2 – 2ab – 2bc – 2ca) [multiplying and divide by 2]
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) (a + b+ c){(a – b)2 + (b – c)2 + (c – a)2} < 0 [∵ a, b, c > 0 and a ≠ b ≠ c]
Hence Proved.

Question 52.
Using properties of determinants, prove the following. (All India 2010)
\(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
x & x^{2} & 1+p x^{3} \\
y & y^{2} & 1+p y^{3} \\
z & z^{2} & 1+p z^{3}
\end{array}\right|\) = (1 + pxyz) (x – y)(y- z) (z – x)
Answer:
To Prove \(\left|\begin{array}{lll}
x & x^{2} & 1+p x^{3} \\
y & y^{2} & 1+p y^{3} \\
z & z^{2} & 1+p z^{3}
\end{array}\right|\)
= (1 + pxyz)(x – y)(y – z)(z – x)
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 57
[taking common p from C3, x from R1 y from R2 and z from R3 in 2nd determinant]
On interchanging C1 and C3 is 1st determinant, we get
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 58

Adjoint and Inverse of a Matrix

Question 1.
If for any 2 × 2 square matrix A, A(adj A) = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
8 & 0 \\
0 & 8
\end{array}\right]\), then write the value of |A|. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Given, A(adjA) = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
8 & 0 \\
0 & 8
\end{array}\right]\)
⇒ |A(adiA)| = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
8 & 0 \\
0 & 8
\end{array}\right|\)
⇒ |A||adi(A)| = 64 – 0
⇒ |A| |A|2 = 64 [∵ |adi A| = |A|n-1]
⇒ |A|2 = 64 ⇒ |A| = ±8

Question 2.
For what values of k the system of linear equations
x + y + z = 2
2x + y – z = 3
3x + 2y + kz = 4 has a unique solutions? (All India 2016)
Answer:
Given, system of linear equations is
x + y + z = 2
2x + y – z = 3
3x + 2y + kz = 4
It can be written in matrix form as
AX = B
Where, A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 1 & 1 \\
2 & 1 & -1 \\
3 & 2 & k
\end{array}\right]\), X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y \\
z
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
2 \\
3 \\
4
\end{array}\right]\)

The condition for the system of linear equations has a unique solution, is
A ≠ 0
∴ \(\left|\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & 1 & 1 \\
2 & 1 & -1 \\
3 & 2 & k
\end{array}\right|\) ≠ 0
⇒ 1(k + 2) – 1(2k + 3) + 1(4 – 3) ≠ 0
⇒ k + 2 – 2k – 3 + 1 ≠ 0 ⇒ -k ≠ 0
∴ k ≠ 0
Hence, for a unique solution k should be a non-zero real number.

Question 3.
Find |adj A|, if A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
5 & 2 \\
7 & 3
\end{array}\right]\). (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Given, A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
5 & 2 \\
7 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)
Clearly, |A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
5 & 2 \\
7 & 3
\end{array}\right|\) = 15 – 14 = 1

We know that, if A is a non-singular matrix of order n, then |adj (A) | = |A|n-1
∴ |adj(A)| = |A|2-1 ⇒ |adj(A) | = (1)2-1 = 1

Question 4.
If A is a square matrix of order 3 such that |adjA| = 64,then find |A|. (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
We know that, for a square matrix of order n,
|adj (A)|= |A|n-1
Here, the order of A is 3 × 3 therefore n- 3
Now, |adj (A)| =|A|3-1 = |A|2
Given, |adj (A)|= 64 ⇒ 64 =|A|2
⇒ (8)2 = |A|2
⇒ |A| = ±8 [taking square root]

Question 5.
Write A-1 for A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 5 \\
1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 59

Question 6.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
2 & 3 \\
5 & -2
\end{array}\right]\), then write A in terms of A. (All India 2011)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 60

Question 7.
Write the adjoint of the following matrix.
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & -1 \\
4 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) (All India 2010)
Answer:
Let A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
2 & -1 \\
4 & 3
\end{array}\right]\), then adj A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
C_{11} & C_{21} \\
C_{12} & C_{22}
\end{array}\right]\), where Cij denotes the cofactor of aij = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
3 & 1 \\
-4 & 2
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 8.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
3 & 1 \\
2 & -3
\end{array}\right]\), then find |adjA|. (Delhi 2010C)
Answer:
Given, A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
3 & 1 \\
2 & -3
\end{array}\right]\)
Clearly |A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 1 \\
2 & -3
\end{array}\right|\) = -9 – 3 = -11

We know that, if A is a non-singular matrix of order n, then |adj (A) | = |A|n-1
∴ |adj(A)| = |A|2-1 ⇒ |adj(A) | = (-11)2-1 = -11

Question 9.
If |A| = 2 where A is a 2 × 2 matrix, then find |adj A|. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
We know that, for a square matrix of order n,
|adj (A)|= |A|n-1
Here, the order of A is 2 × 2 therefore n = 2
Now, |adj (A)| =|A|2-1 = |A|1
Given, |adj (A)|= 4 ⇒ 4 =|A|2
⇒ (2)2 = |A|2
⇒ |A| = ±2 [taking square root]

Question 10.
Given A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & -3 \\
-4 & 7
\end{array}\right]\), compute A and show that 2A-1 = 9I – A (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 61

Question 11.
If A= \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & 3 \\
5 & -2
\end{array}\right]\) be such that A-1 = kA,then L —2J find the value of k. (CBSE 2010C)
Answer:
we get, A-1 = \(\frac{1}{19}\)A
On comparing with A-1 = kA (given), we get
k = \(\frac{1}{19}\)

Question 12.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & -2 & 3 \\
0 & -1 & 4 \\
-2 & 2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\), then find (A’)-1. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
We have, A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & -2 & 3 \\
0 & -1 & 4 \\
-2 & 2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
Now, |A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & -2 & 3 \\
0 & -1 & 4 \\
-2 & 2 & 1
\end{array}\right|\)
= 1(-1 – 8) + 2 (0 + 8) + 3(0 – 2) [expanding along R1]
= -9 + 16 – 6 = 1 ≠ 0
So, A is non-singular matrix and its inverse exists.
Cofactors of an element of |A| are given by
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 62

Question 13.
Find the adjoint of the matrix
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
-1 & -2 & -2 \\
2 & 1 & -2 \\
2 & -2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) and hence show that A(adj A) = |A|I3. (All India 2015)
Answer:
Given, \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
-1 & -2 & -2 \\
2 & 1 & -2 \\
2 & -2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
Let Aij be the cofactor of an element aij of |A|. Then, cofactors of elements of |A| are
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 63
Clearly, the adjoint of the matrix A is given by
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 64

Question 14.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & -1 \\
-1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) and lis the identity matrix of order 2, then show that A2 = 4A – 3I. Hence, find A-1. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 65
So, A is non-singular matrix and its inverse exists.
Now, pre-multiplying both sides of Eq. (iii) by A-1, we get
A-1.A2 = A-1.(4A – 3I)
⇒ (A-1.A) A = 4A-1 A – 3A-1.I
⇒ IA = 4I – 3A-1 [∵ A.A-1 = I = A-1A and A-1I = A-1]
⇒ A = 4I – 3A-1 [∵ IA = A = AI]
⇒ 3A-1 = 4I – A
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 66

Question 15.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & 3 \\
1 & -4
\end{array}\right]\), B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & -2 \\
-1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\), verify that (AB)-1 = B-1A-1. (All India 2015C)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 67
Thus, A, B and AB are non-singular matrices, so their inverse exists.
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 68

Question 16.
Show that for the matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & 1 & 1 \\
1 & 2 & -3 \\
2 & -1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\), A3 – 6A2 + 5A + 11I = O. Hence, find A-1. (All India 2019)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 69
⇒ A3 – 6A2 + 5A + 11I3 = 0
Now, multiplying both sides by A-1, we get
⇒ A-1 (A3 – 6A2 + 5A + 11I2) = A-1O [multiplying both sides by A-1]
⇒ A2 – 6A + 5I + 11A-1 = 0
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 70

Question 17.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 3 & 4 \\
2 & 1 & 2 \\
5 & 1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\), find A-1. Hence solve the system of equations
x + 3y + 4z = 8
2x + y + 2z = 5
and 5x + y + z = 7. (All India 2019)
Answer:
Here, |A| = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 3 & 4 \\
2 & 1 & 2 \\
5 & 1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
= Id – 2) – 3(2-10) + 4(2-5)
= -1 + 24 – 12 = 11 ≠ 0
Thus, A is invertible.
Clearly, the system has a unique solution given by
X = A-1B.
Now, the cofactors of |A| are
A11 = -1, A12 = 8, A13= -3
A21 = 1, A22 = -19, A23 = 14
A31 = 2, A32 = 6, A33 = -5
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 71
The given equations are
x + 3y + 4z = 8 …….(i)
2x + y + 2z = 5 ………(ii)
and 5x + y + z = 7 ………..(iii)
which can be written in matrix form as AX = B,
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 72

Question 18.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 1 & 1 \\
1 & 0 & 2 \\
3 & 1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\), find A-1. Hence, solve the system of equations x + y + z = 6, x + 2z = 7, 3x + y + z = 12. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
We have, A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 1 & 1 \\
1 & 0 & 2 \\
3 & 1 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
∴ |A| = 1(0 – 2) – 1(1 – 6) + 1(1 – 0)
= -2 + 5 + 1 = 4 ≠ 0
So, A is invertible.
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 73
Given, systems of the equations is x + y + z = 6, x + 2z = 7, 3x + y + z = 12,
which can be written in matrix form as AX = B where
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 74

Question 19.
If A =\(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & -3 & 5 \\
3 & 2 & -4 \\
1 & 1 & -2
\end{array}\right]\), A-1. Use it to solve the system of equations 2x – 3y + 5z = 11, 3x + 2y – 4z = -5, x + y – 2z = -3. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
We have, A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & -3 & 5 \\
3 & 2 & -4 \\
1 & 1 & -2
\end{array}\right]\)
Here |A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & -3 & 5 \\
3 & 2 & -4 \\
1 & 1 & -2
\end{array}\right|\)
= 2(- 4 + 4) + 3(- 6 + 4) + 5(3 – 2)
= -6+ 5 = -1 ≠ 0
Thus, A is a non-singular matrix, so A-1 exists and the cofactors of elements of |A| are
A11 = 0, A21 = -1, A31 = 2
A12 = 2, A22 = -9, A32 = 23
A13 = 1, A23 = -5, A33 = 13

Question 20.
Given A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
5 & 0 & 4 \\
2 & 3 & 2 \\
1 & 2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\), B-1 = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
1 & 3 & 3 \\
1 & 4 & 3 \\
1 & 3 & 4
\end{array}\right]\), compute (AB)-1. (CBSE 2018C)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 75
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 76

Question 21.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & 3 & 10 \\
4 & -6 & 5 \\
6 & 9 & -20
\end{array}\right]\), find A-1. Using A-1 solve the system of equations
\(\frac{2}{x}+\frac{3}{y}+\frac{10}{z}\) = 2
\(\frac{4}{x}-\frac{6}{y}+\frac{5}{z}\) = 5
and \(\frac{6}{x}+\frac{9}{y}-\frac{20}{z}\) – 4
Answer:
Let \(\frac{1}{x}\) = p, \(\frac{1}{y}\) = q and \(\frac{1}{z}\) = r
Then, the given equations becomes
2p + 3q + 10r =2
4p – 6q + 5r = 5
6p + 9q – 20r = – 4
This system can be written as AX = B, where
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 77
= 2(120 – 45) – 3(-80 – 30) + 10(36 + 36)
= 150 + 330 + 720 = 1200 ≠ 0
Thus, A is non-singular, therefore its inverse exists.
Therefore, the above system has a unique solution given by
X = A-1B
Cofactors of A are
A11 = 75, A21 =150, A31 = 75
A12 =110, A22 = -100, A32 = 30
A13 = 72, A23 = 0, A33 = -24
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 78

Question 22.
Determine the product of \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
-4 & 4 & 4 \\
-7 & 1 & 3 \\
5 & -3 & -1
\end{array}\right]\) \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & -1 & 1 \\
1 & -2 & -2 \\
2 & 1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) and then Use to solve the system of equations
x – y + z = 4
x – 2y – 2z = 9
and 2x + y + 3z = 1. (All India 2017, Delhi 2012C)
Answer:
First, find the product of given matrices and then find the inverse of coefficient matrix by using the obtained product and then by using concept of matrix method, find the values of x, y and z.
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 79
⇒ BA = 8I
⇒ BA(A-1) = 8I.RA-1 [post-multiplying both sides by A’]
⇒ B(AA-1) = 8I A-1
⇒ B = 8A-1 [∵ AA-1 = I]
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 80
On comparing corresponding elements, we get
x = 3, y = – 2 and z = -1

Question 23.
Use Products \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -1 & 2 \\
0 & 2 & -3 \\
3 & -2 & 4
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
-2 & 0 & 1 \\
9 & 2 & -3 \\
6 & 1 & -2
\end{array}\right]\)
to solve the system equations
x – y + 2z = 1
2y – 3z = 1
and 3x – 2y + 4z = 2. (Delhi 2017, Foreign 2011)
Answer:
x = 0, y = 5, z = 3

Question 24.
Using elementary transformations, find the inverse of the matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}
8 & 4 & 3 \\
2 & 1 & 1 \\
1 & 2 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) and use it to solve the following system of linear equations:
8x + 4y + 3z = 19
2x + y + z = 5
and x + 2y + 2z = 7. (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 81
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 82
Given system of equations can be written in matrix form as
AX = B,
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 83
On comparing the corresponding elements, we get
x = 1, y = 2 and z = 1.

Question 25.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
\cos \alpha & -\sin \alpha & 0 \\
\sin \alpha & \cos \alpha & 0 \\
0 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\), find adj A and verify that A(adj A) = (adj A) A = |A|I3. (Foregin 2016)
Answer:
We have, A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
\cos \alpha & -\sin \alpha & 0 \\
\sin \alpha & \cos \alpha & 0 \\
0 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\)
Clearly, the cofactors of elements of |A| are given by
A11 = Cos α; A12 = -sin α; A13 = 0
A21 = Sin ; A22 = cos ; A23 = 0
A31 = 0; A32 = 0 and A33 = 1
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 84
From Eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
A (adj A) = (adj A) . A = |A|I3

Question 26.
A total amount of ₹ 7000 is deposited in three different savings bank accounts with annual interest rates of 5%, 8% and 8 \(\frac{1}{2}\) %, respectively. The total annual interest from these three accounts is ₹ 550. Equal amounts have been deposited in the 5% and 8% savings accounts. Find the amount deposited in each of the three accounts, with the help of matrices. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Let ₹ x, ₹ y and ₹ z be invested in saving bank accounts at the rate of 5%, 8% and 8\(\frac{1}{2}\)%, respectively.
Then, according to given condition we have the following system of equations
x + y + z = 7000 ……….(i)
and \(\frac{5 x}{100}+\frac{8 y}{100}+\frac{17 z}{200}\) = 550 ……….(ii)
⇒ 10x + 16y + 17z = 110000 ……..(iii)
and x – y = 0 ……….(iv)
This system of equations can be written in matrix form as AX = B
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 85
So, A is non-singular matrix and its inverse exists.
Now, cofactors of elements of |A| are
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 86
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 87
On comparing the corresponding elements, we get x = 1125, y = 1125, z = 4750.
Hence, the amount deposited in each type of account is ₹ 1125, ₹ 1125and ₹ 4750, respectively.

Question 27.
Using matrices, solve the following system of equations.
x – y + 2z = 7
3x + 4y – 5z = – 5
and 2x – y + 3z = 12 (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
First, write the given system of equations in matrix ” form AX = 8. Then, determine the cofactors determinant A and A-1 and then use the relation X = A-1 8, to get the values of x, y and z.
Given, system of equations is
x – y + 2z = 7
3x + 4y – 5z = – 5
and 2x – y + 3z = 12
In matrix form, it can be written as
AX = B ……(i)
Where,
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 88
Here, |A| = 1 (12- 5) + 1 (9 + 10) + 2(-3- 8)
= 1 (7) + 1 (19) + 2 (-11)
= 7 + 19 – 22 = 4
⇒ |A| ≠ 0
So, A is non-singular and its inverse exists.
Now, cofactors of elements of |A| are
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 89
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 90

Question 28.
Using matrices, solve the following system of linear equations. x + y – z = 3, 2x + 3y + z = 10 and 3x – y – 7z = 1 (All India 2012; Delhi 2009C)
Answer:
x = 3, y = 1, z = 1

Question 29.
Using matrices, solve the following system of equations.
3x + 4y + 7z = 4,
2x – y + 3z = – 3
and x + 2y – 3z = 8 (All India 2012)
Answer:
x = 1, y = 2, z = -1

Question 30.
Using matrices, solve the following system of equations.
2x + 3y + 3z = 5, x-2y + z = -4 and 3x – y – 2z = 3 (All India 2012)
Answer:
x = 1, y = 2, z = -1

Question 31.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 2 & 1 \\
-1 & 1 & 1 \\
1 & -3 & 1
\end{array}\right]\), then find A-1 and hence solve the system of equations x + 2y + z = 4, -x + y + z = 0 and x – 3y + z = 4. (Delhi 2012C)
Answer:
A-1 = \(\frac{1}{10}\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
4 & -5 & 1 \\
2 & 0 & -2 \\
2 & 5 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)
x = 2, y = 0 and z = 2

Question 32.
Find A-1, where A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
1 & 2 & -3 \\
2 & 3 & 2 \\
3 & -3 & -4
\end{array}\right]\) solve the system of equations, x + 2y – 3z = – 4 2x + 3y + 2z = 2 and 3x – 3y – 4z = 11. (All India 2012C, 2010,2008)
Answer:
A-1 = \(\frac{1}{67}\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
-6 & 17 & 13 \\
14 & 5 & -8 \\
-15 & 9 & -1
\end{array}\right]\)
x = 3, y = -2 and z = 1

Question 33.
Using matrix method, solve the following system of equations. (Delhi 2011)
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 91
Answer:
First, let \(\frac{1}{x}\) = u, \(\frac{1}{y}\) = v and \(\frac{1}{z}\) = w and then reduce system of equations in terms of u, v and w. Get the values of u, v and w by using matrix method and then find x, y and z from above mentioned substitutions.

The given system of equations is
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 92
Let \(\frac{1}{x}\) = u, \(\frac{1}{y}\) = v and \(\frac{1}{z}\) = w, then system of x y z equations can be written as
2u + 3v + 10w = 4
4u – 6v + 5w = 1
and 6u + 9v – 20w = 2 …………(i)
Above system of Eqs. (i) can be written in matrix form as AX = B, where
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 93
Its solution is given by
X = A-1B …(ii)
Here, |A| = 2 (120 – 45) – 3 (-80 – 30) + 10(36+ 36)
= 2 (75) – 3 (-110) + 10 (72)
= 150 + 330 + 720 = 1200
⇒ |A| = 1200
Since, |A| ≠ 0, so A is non-singular and its inverse exists.
Now, cofactors of elements of |A| are
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 94
On putting the values X, A-1 and B in Eq. (ii), we get
Determinants Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 95

Question 34.
Using matrices, solve the following system of equations.
4x + 3y + 2z = 60
x + 2y + 3z = 45
and 6x + 2y + 3z = 70 (All India 2011)
Answer:
x = 5, y = 8, z = 8

Question 35.
Using matrices, solve the following system of equations. x + 2y + z = 7, x + 3z = 11 and 2x – 3y = 1 (All India 2011; Delhi 2008C)
Answer:
x = 2, y = 1 and z = 3

Question 36.
Using matrices, solve the following system of equations.
x + 2y – 3z = – 4 2x + 3y + 2z = 2 and 3x – 3y – 4z = 11 (All India 2011, 2008)
Answer:
x = 3, y = -2 and z = 1

Question 37.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & -1 & 1 \\
3 & 0 & -1 \\
2 & 6 & 0
\end{array}\right]\), then find A-1. Using A-1, Solve the following system of equations
2x – y + z = -3, 3x – z = 0 and 2x + 6y – z = 2. (All India 2011C)
Answer:
A-1 = \(\frac{1}{32}\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
6 & 6 & 1 \\
-2 & -2 & 5 \\
18 & -14 & 3
\end{array}\right]\); x = \(-\frac{1}{2}\); y = \(\frac{1}{2}\) and z = \(\frac{-3}{2}\)

Question 38.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -2 & 1 \\
0 & -1 & 1 \\
2 & 0 & -3
\end{array}\right]\), then find A-1 and hence solve the following system of equations
x – 2y + z = 0, -y+z=-2 and 2x – 3z = 10. (All India 2011C)
Answer:
A-1 = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & -6 & -1 \\
2 & -5 & -1 \\
2 & -4 & -1
\end{array}\right]\); x = 2, y = 0 and z = -2

Question 39.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -2 & 0 \\
2 & 1 & 3 \\
0 & -2 & 1
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
7 & 2 & -6 \\
-2 & 1 & -3 \\
-4 & 2 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) then find AB and hence solve system of equations
x – 2y = 10, 2x + y + 3z = 8 and -2y + z = 7. (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
AB = 11I, x = 4, y = -3 and z = 1

Question 40.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & -4 & 2 \\
2 & 3 & 5 \\
1 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right]\), then find A-1 and hence solve the following system of equations
3x – 4y + 2z = – 1, 2x + 3y + 5z = 7 and x + z = 2 (Delhi 2011 C)
Answer:
A-1 = \(\frac{1}{10}\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
-6 & 25 & -24 \\
-12 & 40 & -38 \\
10 & -40 & 40
\end{array}\right]\) and x = 3, y = 2, z = -1

Question 41.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
8 & -4 & 1 \\
10 & 0 & 6 \\
8 & 1 & 6
\end{array}\right]\) then find A-1 and hence solve the following system of equations
8x – 4y + 2 = 5 10x + 6z = 4 and 8x + y + 6z = \(\frac{5}{2}\). (All India 2010C)
Answer:
A-1 = \(\frac{1}{10}\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
-6 & 25 & -24 \\
-12 & 40 & -38 \\
10 & -40 & 40
\end{array}\right]\) and x = 1, y = \(\frac{1}{2}\), z = -1

Question 42.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -1 & 0 \\
2 & 3 & 4 \\
0 & 1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & 2 & -4 \\
-4 & 2 & -4 \\
2 & -1 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) then find AB. Use this to solve the system of equations
x – y = 3, 2x+ 3y + 4z = 17 and y + 2z = 7. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
AB = 6I and x = 2 y = -, z = 4

Question 43.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
3 & 2 & 1 \\
4 & -1 & 2 \\
7 & 3 & -3
\end{array}\right]\), then find A. Hence solve the following system of equations 3x + 2y + z = 6 4x – y + 2z = 5 and 7x + 3y – 3z = 7. (Delhi 2010C)
Answer:
A-1 = \(\frac{1}{62}\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
-3 & 9 & 5 \\
26 & -16 & -2 \\
19 & 5 & -11
\end{array}\right]\) and x = 1, y = 1, z = 1

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Chemical Reactions and Equations Class 10 Important Questions with Answers Science Chapter 1

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Get access to Important Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations to solve different types of questions in the exam. Previous Year Questions & Important Questions of Chemical Reactions and Equations Class 10 Science Chapter 1 will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Important Questions of Chemical Reactions and Equations Class 10 Science Chapter 1

 

Short Answer Type Questions[l] [2 Marks] -Year 2015

1.“We need to balance a skeltal chemical equation.” Give reason to justify the statement.
Answer. Skeltal chemical equation are unbalanced. We need to balance chemical equation because of law of conservation of mass. It states that ‘matter can neither be created nor be destroyed’. Therefore chemical equation must be balanced in each and every chemical reaction.

2.Giving an example list two information which make a chemical equation more useful (informative).
Answer.
(i) Physical state of reactants must be mentioned, e.g.
2H2 (g) + O2 (g)——– > 2H20 (l)
(ii) Condition in which reaction takes place are written on the arrow head, e.g.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-1
Consider the following chemical reaction
X + Barium chloride——–> Y + Sodium chloride
(White ppt)
(a) Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’
(b) The type of reaction
(a) ‘X’ is Na2SO4 and Y is BaSO4.
(b) The type of reaction
Na2SO4 + BaCl2—–> BaSO4 + 2NaCl
(White ppt)
The reaction is precipitation reaction. It is also called double displacement reaction.

CBSE Class 10 Science – More Resources

NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Science NCERT Exemplar Class 10 Science
CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question Papers  Class 10 Science Important Questions

4. Name the reducing agent in the following reaction:
3MnO2 + 4Al———— > 3Mn + 2Al2O3
State which is more reactive, Mn or A1 and why?
Answer. ‘Al’ is reducing agent.
‘AT is more reactive than Mn v ‘Al’ displaces Mn from its oxide.

5.(i) Write a balanced chemical equation for process of photosynthesis.
   (ii)When do desert plants take up carbon dioxide and perform photosynthesis?
Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-2
(ii) In desert plants the stomata are open at night. They take CO2 at night and is stored in the form of acid and is used during day time for photosynthesis.

Short Answer Type Questions[ll] [3 Marks] -Year 2015

6.A Name the type of chemical reaction represented by the following equation:
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-3
Answer.
(i) Combination reaction
(ii) Double displacement reaction (Precipitation reaction)
(iii) Decomposition reaction.

7. Write the chemical equation of the reaction in which the following changes have taken place with an example of each: 
(i) Change in colour
(ii) Change in temperature
(iii) Formation of precipitate
Answer.
(i)Cu (s) + 2AgNO3 (aq)———–> Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag
The solution will become blue in colour and shiny silver metal will be deposited.
(ii) NaOH + HCl ———–> NaCl +  H2O+ heat
The temperature will increase because heat will be evolved.
(iii) Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq)———–> Pbl2 (s) + 2KNO3 (aq)
Yellow ppt
Yellow precipitate of Pbl2will be formed.

8.State the type of chemical reactions and chemical equations that take place in the following:
(i) Magnesium wire is burnt in air.
(ii) Electric current is passed through water.
(iii) Ammonia and hydrogen chloride gases’are mixed.

Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-4

9.(a) Write the essential condition for the following reaction to take place:
2AgBr—-> 2Ag + Br2
Write one application of this reaction.
(b) Complete the following chemical equation of a chemical reaction 2FeS04 —
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-5
(c) What happens when water is added to quick line. Write chemical equation.
Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-6
This reaction is used in photography.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-7
(c) Slaked lime is formed with hissing sound and lot of heat is envolved.

10. 2g of ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube.
(i) List any two observations.
(ii) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place.
(iii) ‘Write the chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer.
(i) •Green colour of Fe SO4 disappears and reddish brown solid is formed.
• Smell of burning sulphur.
(ii) Decomposition reaction
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-8

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks] -Year 2015

11. (a) Define a balanced chemical equation. Why should an equation be balanced?
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reaction:
(i) Phosphorus burns in presence of chlorine to form phosphorus penta chloride.
(ii) Burning of natural gas.
(iii) The process of respiration.
Answer.
(a) Balanced chemical equation has an equal number of atoms of different elements in the reactants and products. According to law of conservation of mass, matter can neither be created nor be destroyed in a chemical reaction.
(b)(i) P4 (s) + 10Cl2 (g) ———> 4PCl5 (S)
(i)CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) ———> CO2 (g) + 2H2O(l) + heat energy
(iii) C6H12O6 (s) + 6O2 (g) + 6H2O ———> 6CO2 (aq) + 12H2O (l) + energy

12.(a) Explain two ways by which food industries prevent rancidity.
(b) Discuss the importance of decomposition reaction in metal industry with three points.
Answer.
(a) (i) Rancidity can be prevented by adding antioxidants to food containing
fat and oil, e.g. butylated hydroxy anisole is added to butter as antioxidant.
(ii) It can be prevented by packaging fat and oil containing foods in nitrogen gas.
(b) (i) Molten NaCl is electrolytically decomposed to form sodium metal.
(ii) Aluminium metal is obtained by electric decomposition of bauxite ore mixed with cryolite.
(iii) Carbonate ores are thermally decomposed to give metal oxide which on reduction give metal.

Short Answer Type Question[I] [2 Marks] -Year 2014

13. What is observed when a solution of potassium iodide solution is added to a solution of lead nitrate? Name the type of reaction. Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the above chemical reaction.
Answer.Yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. It is precipitation reaction.
Pb( NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq) —-> Pbl2 (s) + 2KNO3 (aq)
It is also called double displacement reaction.

short Answer Type Question[ll] [3 Marks] -Year 2014

14.Write chemical equation reactions taking place when carried out with the help of
(a) Iron reacts with steam
(b) Magnesium reacts with dil HCl
(c) Copper is heated in air.
Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-9

Long Answer Type Question [5 Marks] -Year 2014

15.(a) Write one example for each of decomposion reaction carried out with help of
(i) Electricity (ii) Heat (iii) Light
(b) Which of the following statements is correct and why copper can displace silver from silver nitrate and silver can displace copper from copper sulphate solution.
Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-10

Short Answer Type Questions[ll] [3 Marks] -Year 2013

16.Which products will be obtained when lead nitrate is heated simply. Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction? State the type of chemical reaction that occur in the change.
Answer. Lead monoxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen gas will be liberated.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-11
It is thermal decomposition reaction.

17. What is meant by skeltal type chemical equation? What does it represent? Using the equation for electrolytic decomposition of water, differentiate between a skeltal chemical equation and a balanced chemical equation.
Answer. The equations in which gaseous are written in atomic form instead of molecular form and equation is not balanced, are called skeltal type equation. They represent gaseous elements formed in atomic state and equation is not balanced
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-12

Short Answer Type Questions[l] [2 Marks]-Year 2012

18.Write balanced chemical equations for the following reactions.
(i) Silver bromide on exposure to sunlight decomposes into silver and bromine,
(ii) Sodium metal reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-13

19.Identify the type of reaction(s) in the following equations.
(i)CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2 H2O
(ii) Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI ——–>Pbl2 + 2KNOs
(iii) CaO +  H2O ——–> Ca(OH)2
(iv) CuSO4 + Zn ——–> ZnSO4 + Cu
Answer.
(i) Combustion reaction and oxidation reaction.
(ii)Double displacement reaction and precipitation reaction.
(iii) Combination reaction.
(iv) Displacement reaction.

20.Write balanced equation for the reaction between magnesium and hydrochloric acid. Name the product obtained, identify the type of reaction.
Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-14
The product formed is magnesium chloride and hydrogen gas.
It is a displacement reaction.

21.Describe an activity to observe what happens when quick lime is added to water taken in a beaker. State two important observations and name the type of reaction taking place.
Answer.
Aim: To observe what happens when quicklime is added to water taken in a beaker.
Materials Required:- Quicklime (calcium oxide), water, beaker.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-15
Procedure:
1. Take 5 g of calcium oxide in a beaker.
2. Add water to it slowly.
3. Touch the beaker.
4. Note down the observations.
Observation: Calcium oxide reacts with water
vigorously to form calcium hydroxide with the evolution of heat.
Chemical Reaction:
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-16
Conclusion: The reaction between CaO (Calcium oxide) and H2O is a combination reaction. It is an exothermic process because heat is evolved.

22.What is the colour of ferrous sulphate crystals? How does this colour change after heating?
Answer.The colour of ferrous sulphate is pale green. The colour changes to reddish brown on heating due to formation of iron (III) oxide.
Give an example each for thermal decomposition and photochemical decomposition reactions. Write relevant balanced chemical equations also.
Thermal decomposition reaction:
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-17
Photochemical decomposition reaction:
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-18

24. Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in it? Write two observations.
Answer. It is because displacement reaction takes place.
Iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution and forms pale green
coloured solution of FeS04 and reddish brown copper metal gets deposited.
Fe(s) + CuS04(aq) ——–> FeS04(aq) + Cu(s)

25. Translate the following statement into chemical equation and then balance it Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and a precipitate of barium sulphate. State the two types in which this reaction can be classified.
Answer. 3BaCl2(aq) + A12(S04)3(aq) ——–> 3BaS04(s) + 2AlCl3(aq)
It can be classified as double displacement as well as precipitation reaction.

26. Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of combination reactions? Write equations for these reactions.
Answer. In decomposition reaction, a compound is broken down into simpler compounds or elements, e.g.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-19
Combination reaction is a reaction in which two or more elements or compounds combine to form a new compound, e.g.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-20
Thus, decomposition and combination reactions are opposite to each other.

Short Answer Type Questions[ll] [3 Marks]  -Year 2012

27. The following diagram displays a chemical reaction. Observe carefully and answer the following questions
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-21
(a) Identify the type of chemical reaction that will take place and define it. How will the colour of the salt change?
Write the chemical equation of the reaction that takes place.
(c) Mention one commercial use of this salt.
Answer. (a) Photochemical decomposition reaction: Those reactions in which a compound breaks down into simple substances in presence of light are called photochemical decomposition reaction. The colour of salt will change from white to grey.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-22
(c) Silver chloride is used in photography.

28. What is rancidity? Mention any two ways by which rancidity can be prevented.
Answer. The process in which taste and smell of food gets spoiled is called rancidity. It happens due to oxidation.
Prevention from rancidity:
(i) Antioxidants are added to fatty acids to prevent oxidation, e.g. chips are packed in presence of nitrogen gas which prevents spoilage by oxidation.
(ii)Food should be kept in airtight container in refrigerator.

29.Write balanced chemical equation for the reactions that take place during respiration. Identify the type of combination reaction that takes place during this process and justify the name. Give one more example of this type of reaction.
Answer. CgH1206 + 6O2 —————> 6CO2 + 6H20 + heat
It is an exothermic combination reaction because heat is evolved.
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ————–>CO2 (g) + 2H20
Combustion of methane is another example of exothermic combination reaction.

30. What is redox reaction? Identify the substance oxidised and the substance reduced in the following reactions.
(i)2PbO + C —–> 2Pb + CO2
(ii)MnO2 + 4HCl —–> MnCl2 + 2H20 + Cl2
Answer. Those reactions in which oxidation and reduction takes place simultaneously are called redox reactions.
(i) PbO is getting reduced and C is getting oxidised.
(ii) MnOs is getting reduced and HCl is getting oxidised.

31. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions and identify the type of reaction in each case.
Thermite reaction, iron (III) oxide reacts with aluminium and gives molten iron and aluminium oxide.
Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-23
It is a displacement reaction because A1 is displacing Fe from Fe2O3.
Molten iron is used’for repairing broken railway tracks.

32. A solution of potassium chloride when mixed with silver nitrate solution, an insoluble white substance is formed. Write the chemical reaction involved and also mention the type of the chemical reaction?
Answer.

chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-24.
It is a double displacement reaction. It is also a precipitation reaction as AgCl is a white precipitate.

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark] -Year 2011

33.State one basic difference between a physical change and a chemical change.
Answer. In physical change, no new substance is formed, whereas in a chemical change, new substance(s) is/are formed.

34 What is meant by a chemical reaction?
Answer. The reaction representing a chemical change is called a chemical reaction.

35.AgN03(aq) + NaCl(aq)——————– > AgCl(s)4↓ + NaN03(aq)
FeS + H2S04————- > FeS04 + H2S↑
Consider the above mentioned two chemical equations with two different kinds of arrows (↑and ↓) along with product. What do these two different arrows indicate?
Ans,shows the gas is evolved whereas shows insoluble substance (precipitate) is formed.

36. Hydrogen being a highly inflammable gas and oxygen being a supporter of combustion, yet water which is a compound made up of hydrogen and oxygen is used to extinguish fire. Why?
Answer. It is because properties of compound (H2O) are different from properties of its constituting elements, i.e. H2and O2.

Short Answer Type Questions[l] [2 Marks] -Year 2011

37.Using a suitable chemical equation, justify that some chemical reactions are determined by:
(i) change in colour, (ii) change in temperature.
Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-25
38.(a) A solution of substance ‘X’ is used for white washing. What is the substance ‘X’? State the chemical reaction of ‘X’ with water.
(b) Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Answer.
(a) ‘X’ is calcium oxide (CaO).
CaO(s) + H2O(l) —–> Ca(OH)2(aq) + heat
(a) It is because iron displaces copper from CuS04 to form FeS04 which is pale green.
Fe(s) + CUS04 (aq)—–> FeS04(aq) + Cu(s)
Blue                       Pale green

39.Balance the following chemical equations.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-26
Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-27

40.Write the balanced equation for the. following reaction and identify the type of reaction in each case.
(i) Potassium bromide + Barium iodide—-> Potassium iodide + Barium bromide.
(ii) Hydrogen(g) + Chlorine(g)—-> Hydrogen chloride(g)
Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-28

41. A zinc plate was put into a solution of copper sulphate kept in a glass container. It was found that blue colour of the solution gets fader and fader with the passage of time. After few days, when zinc plate was taken out of the solution, a number of holes were observed on it.
(i) State the reason for changes observed on the zinc plate.
(ii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved.
Answer.
(i) It is because zinc has displaced copper from CuS04. Zinc metal has been used to form zinc sulphate, therefore, number of holes were observed.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-29

42. A white salt on heating decomposes to give brown fumes and a residue is left behind.
(i) Name the salt.
(ii) Write the equation for the decom-position reaction.
Answer.
(i) Lead nitrate is white salt.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-30

43. When a solution of potassium iodide is added to a solution of lead nitrate in a test tube, a reaction takes place.
(a) What type of reaction is this?
(b) Write a balanced chemical equation to represent the above reaction.
Answer.
(a) Double displacement as well as precipitation reaction.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-31

44. Define combination reaction. Give one example of a combination reaction which is also exothermic.
Answer. A reaction in which two elements or compounds combine to form a single compound is called combination reaction.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-32
It is also an exothermic reaction along with a combination reaction because heat is evolved.
Short Answer Type Questions[ll] [3 Marks]

45.(a) Classify the following reactions into different types.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-33
(b) Which of the above reaction(s) is/are precipitation reaction(s)? Why is a reaction called precipitation reaction?
Answer.
(a) (i) Precipitation reaction (Double displacement reaction)
(ii) Combination reaction (in) Decomposition reaction
(b) Reaction (i) is a precipitation reaction because one of the product formed is insoluble in water.

46. Write balanced equations for the following mentioning the type of reaction involved.
(i) Aluminium + Bromine —–> Aluminium bromide
(ii) Calcium carbonate—–> Calcium oxide + Carbon dioxide
(iii) Silver chloride—–>Silver + Chlorine
Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-34

47.(a) Why is respiration considered as an exothermic reaction?
(b) Define the terms oxidation and reduction.
(c) Identify the substance that is oxidised and reduced in the following reaction.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-35
Answer. (a) It is because heat is evolved during respiration.
(b) Oxidation is a process in which Ois added or H2 is removed or loss of electrons take place. Reduction is a process in which H2 is added or O2. is removed or gain of electrons take place.
(c) Zn is getting oxidised, CuO is getting reduced.

48. What is meant by
(i) precipitation reaction,
(ii) exothermic reaction,
(iii) oxidation reaction?
Write balanced chemical equations for an example of each.
Answer.(i) Precipitation reaction: The reaction in which two compounds exchange their
ions and the product formed is insoluble in water is called precipitation reaction.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-36
(ii) Exothermic reaction: The reaction in Which heat is evolved is known as exothermic reaction.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-37
(iii) Oxidation reaction: The reaction in which Og is added or H2 is removed or loss of electrons takes place is called oxidation reaction.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-38

49.You might have noted that when copper powder is heated in a china dish, the surface of copper powder becomes coated with a black colour substance.
(i) How has this black coloured substance formed?
(ii) What is that black substance?
(iii) Write the chemical equation of the reaction that takes place.
Answer.
(i) Copper reacts with oxygen to form copper oxide which is black, i.e. oxidation of copper takes place.
(ii)Copper oxide
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-39

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark] -Year 2010

50. What happens chemically when quicklime is added to water filled in a bucket?
Answer. Quicklime reacts with water to form slaked lime and produces lot of heat and hissing sound.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-40

51. On what basis is a chemical equation balanced?
Answer. A chemical reaction is balanced on the basis of law of conservation of mass.

52. What change in colour is observed when white silver chloride is left exposed to sunlight? State the type of chemical reaction in this change.
Answer. Silver chloride becomes grey. It is a photochemical decomposition reaction.

53. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction between sodium chloride
and silver nitrate indicating the physical state of the reactants and the products.
Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-41

Short Answer Type Questions[l] [2 Marks]

54. What happens when an aqueous solution of sodium sulphate reacts with an aqueous solution of barium chloride? State the physical conditions of reactants in which the reaction between them will not take place. Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction and name the type of reaction.
Answer. White precipitate of barium sulphate is formed.
If both reactants are in solid state, then the reaction will not take place between them.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-42
It is a double displacement as well as a precipitation reaction.

55. What is a redox reaction? When a magnesium ribbon burns in air with a dazzling flame and forms a white ash, is magnesium oxidised or reduced? Why?
Answer. The reactions in which oxidation (loss of electrons) and reduction (gain of electrons) take place simultaneously are called redox reactions.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-43
Magnesium is getting oxidised because it is losing electrons to form Mg2+ and oxygen is gaining electrons to form O2-, therefore it is getting reduced.

56. Write any two observations in an activity which may suggest that a chemical reaction has taken place. Give an example in support of your answer.
Answer. Any two of these observations will suggest chemical reaction has taken place.
(i) Change in state.
(ii)Change in colour.
(iii) Evolution of gas.
(iv)Change in temperature.
For example, lead nitrate is white crystalline solid which on heating gives yellowish brown solid (lead monoxide). A brown gas and a colourless gas is also evolved. It shows chemical reaction has taken place.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-44

57.When the powder of a common metal is heated in an open china dish, its colour turns black. However, when hydrogen is passed over the hot black substance so formed, it regains its original colour. Based on the above information, answer the following questions.
(i) What type of chemical reaction takes place in each of the two given steps?
(ii) Name the metal initially taken in the powder form. Write balanced chemical equations for both reactions.
Answer.
(i) In first step, oxidation takes place.In second step, redox reaction takes place.
(ii)Metal in the powder form is copper.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-45

Very Short Answer Type Questions [1 Mark] -Year 2009

58.In electrolysis of water, why is the volume of gas collected over one electrode double that of gas collected over the other electrode?
Answer.It is because water contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio of 2 : 1.

59.Balance the following chemical equations.
Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-46

Short Answer Type Questions[l] [2 Marks] -Year 2009

60. Name the products formed on strongly heating ferrous sulphate crystals. What type of chemical reaction occurs in this change?
Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-47
It is decomposition reaction.

61. What is an oxidation reaction? Give an example of oxidation reaction. Is oxidation an exothermic or an endothermic reaction?
Answer. The reaction in which oxygen or electronegative element is added or hydrogen or electropositive element is removed or loss of electrons takes place, is called an oxidation reaction, e.g. ,
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-48
Oxidation reactions are mostly exothermic in nature because heat is evolved in this process.

62. Describe an activity to demonstrate the change that takes place when white silver chloride is kept in sunlight. State the type of chemical reaction which takes place.
Answer.
Aim: To demonstrate the change that takes place when white silver chloride is kept in sunlight.
Materials Required: AgNO3(aq), NaCl(aq), test tubes.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-49
Procedure:
1. Take 5 ml of silver nitrate solution in a test tube.
2. Prepare sodium chloride solution in another test tube.
3. Add sodium chloride solution into test tube containing silver nitrate solution.
4. Observe the colour of silver chloride formed chloride to grey silver metal Dry it with the help of filter papers and place it on the watch glass.
5. Place the watch glass under sunlight for sometime.
6. Observe the colour of the silver chloride after sometime. Observation: White silver chloride turns grey in sunlight because silver metal is formed.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-50
Explanation: Silver chloride is photosensitive. It decomposes in presence of sunlight to form silver metal and chlorine gas.
Conclusion: Decomposition of silver chloride in presence of sunlight is photochemical decomposition reaction.

63.When magnesium ribbon burns in air or oxygen, a product is formed. State the type of chemical reaction and name the product formed in the reaction. Write balanced chemical equation of this reaction.
Answer.

chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-51
The type of reaction is combination reaction and the product formed is magnesium oxide.

64.Distinguish between a displacement reaction and a double displacement reaction. Identify the displacement and the double displacement reaction from the following reactions.
Answer.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-52
Displacement reaction is a reaction in which more reactive metal can displace less reactive metal from its salt solution.
Double displacement reaction are those reactions in which compounds exchange their ions to form two new compounds (?) Double displacement reaction (ii) Displacement reaction

65.When you have mixed the solutions of lead(II) nitrate and potassium iodide,
(i) what was the colour of the precipitate formed and can you name the precipitate?
(ii) write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
(iii) is this also a double displacement reaction?
Answer.
(i) The colour of the precipitate is yellow. The name of compound formed as a precipitate is Pbl2 (lead iodide).
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-53
(iii) Yes, it is also a double displacement reaction.

66.What do you mean by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give examples.
Answer.Exothermic reactions are those in which heat is evolved, e.g.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-54
Endothermic reactions are those reactions in which heat is absorbed, e.g.
chemical-reactions-and-equations-chapter-wise-important-questions-class-10-science-55

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Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2

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Get access to Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 Inverse Trigonometric Functions, Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions

Question 1.
Write the value of
tan-1 (√3) – cot-1 (- √3). (All India 2019,13)
Answer:
We have, tan-1 (√3) – cot-1 (-√3)
= tan-1 (√3) – {π – cot-1 (√3)} [∵ cot-1 (- x) = π – cot-1 x; x ∈ R]
= tan-1 √3 – π + cot-1 √3
= (tan-1 √3 + cot-1 √3) – π
= \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) – π = – \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) [∵ tan-1x + cot-1x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\); x ∈ R]
Which is the required principal value.

Question 2.
Find the principal value of
tan-1√3 – sec-1 (- 2). (CBSE 2018 C; All India 2012)
Answer:
We have, tan-1√3 – sec-1 (- 2)
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 1
Which is the required principal value.

Question 3.
If sin (sin-1\(\frac{1}{5}\) + cos-1x) = 1, then find the value of x. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 2

Question 4.
If tan-1x + tan-1 y = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\); xy < 1, then write the value of x + y + xy. (All India 2014)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 3

Question 5.
Write the value of cos-1\(\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)\) + 2 sin-1\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\). (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 4

Question 6.
Write the principal value of cos-1 [cos(680)°]. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
First we check the given angle lies in the principal value branch. If it is so, then use the property cos1 (cos θ) = θ, ∀θ ∈ [0, 180°]. Otherwise reduce the angle such that, it lies in principal value branch.

We know that, principal value branch of cos-1 x is [0, 180°].
Since, 680° ∉ [0, 180°], so write 680° as 2 × 360° – 40°
Now, cos-1 [cos(680)°] = cos-1 [cos(2 × 360° – 40°)]
= cos-1 (cos 4o°) [∵ cos(4π – θ) = cos θ]
Since, 40° ∈ [0, 180°]
∴ cos-1[cos(680°)] = 40° [∵ cos-1 (cos θ) = θ; ∀ θ ∈ [0, 1 80°]]
which is the required principal value.

Question 7.
Write the principal value of tan-1[sin\(\left(\frac{-\pi}{2}\right)\)]. (All India 2014C)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 5
which is the required principal value.

Question 8.
Find the value of the following.
cot (\(\frac{\pi}{2}\) – 2 cot-1√3) (All India 2014C)
Answer:
First, use cot\(\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\theta\right)\) = tan θ, then put
cot-1 √3 = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) and simplify it .
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 6

Question 9.
Write the principal value of the following.
\(\left[\cos ^{-1} \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}+\cos ^{-1}\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)\right]\) (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 7

Question 10.
Write the principal value of
tan-1 (1) + cos-1\(\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)\). (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 8

Alternate Method:
We have
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 9
which is the required principal value.

Question 11.
Write the value of tan (2 tan-1\(\frac{1}{5}\)). (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
We have,
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 10

Question 12.
Write the value of
tan-1\(\left[2 \sin \left(2 \cos ^{-1} \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)\right]\). (All India 2013)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 11

Question 13.
Write the value of cos-1 \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\) – 2 sin-1 \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\). (DeIh 2012)
Answer:
\(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\)

Question 14.
Using the principal values, write the value of cos-1\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\) + 2 sin-1\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\).
Answer:
\(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\)

Question 15.
Write the value of sin \(\left[\frac{\pi}{3}-\sin ^{-1}\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)\right]\) (Delhi 2011).
Answer:
We have,
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 12

Question 16.
Write the value of tan-1(tan \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\)). (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
First, we check the given angle lies in the principal value branch. If it is so, then use the property tan-1 (tan θ) = θ, ∀ θ ∈ \(\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\), Otherwise reduce the angle such that it lies in principal value branch.

We know that, principal value branch of tan-1 x is \(\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\).
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 13

Question 17.
Write the value of cos-1 (cos \(\frac{7 \pi}{6}\)). (Delhi 2011, 2009; All India 2009)
Answer:
We know that, the principal value branch of cos-1x is [0, π].
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 14

Question 18.
What is the principal value of
cos-1\(\left(\cos \frac{2 \pi}{3}\right)\) + sin-1\(\left(\sin \frac{2 \pi}{3}\right)\)? (All India 2011, 2009C. 2008)
Answer:
We know that, the principal value branch of cos-1 x is [0, π] and for sin-1 x is \(\left[-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right]\).
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 15

Question 19.
What is the principal value of tan-1 (- 1)? (Foreign 2011, 2o08c)
Answer:
We have,
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 16
Which is the required principal value.

Alternate Method:
We have,
tan-1 (-1) = – tan-1 (1) [∵ tan-1 x; x ∈ R]
= – tan-1(tan \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)) [∵ tan \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) = 1]
= \(\frac{-\pi}{4}\) [∵ tan-1 (tan θ) = θ; ∀ θ ∈ \(\left(\frac{-\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\)]
which is the required principal value.

Question 20.
Using the principal values, write the value of sin-1\(\left(-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)\). (All India 2011C, Delhi 2010)
Answer:
We have
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 17

Question 21.
Write the principal value of sin-1\(\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)\). (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
– \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)

Question 22.
What is the principal value of sin-1 (- 2)? (All India 2010)
Answer:
We have, sec-1 (-2) = π – sec-1 (2)
[∵ sec-1 (- x) = π – sec-1 (x); |x| ≥ 1
= π – sec-1(sec \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)) = π – \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
[∵ sec \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) = 2 and sec-1 (sec θ) = θ; ∀ θ ∈ [0, π] – \(\left\{\frac{\pi}{2}\right\}\)]
= \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\)
which is the required principal value.

Question 23.
What is the domain of the function sin-1 x? (Foregin 2010)
Answer:
The domain of the function sin-1 x is [-1, 1].

Question 24.
Using the principal values, find the value of cos-1\(\left(\cos \frac{13 \pi}{6}\right)\). (All India 2010C ).
Answer:
\(\frac{\pi}{6}\)

Question 25.
If tan-1 (√3) + cot-1 x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)‚ then find the value of x. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
Given, tan-1 √3 + cot-1 x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
⇒ tan-1 √3 = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) – cot-1 x
⇒ tan-1 √3 = tan-1 x
[∵ tan-1 x + cot-1 x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\); x ∈ R]
∴ x = √3

Question 26.
Prove that
3 sin-1x = sin-1(3x – 4x3), x ∈ \(\left[-\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\right]\). (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Consider, RHS = sin-1 (3x – 4x3) ……(i)
Let x = sin θ,
then θ = sin-1 x
Now, from Eq. (i), we get
RHS = sin-1 (3 sin θ – 4 sin3 θ)
= sin-1 (sin 3 θ) [∵ sin 3A = 3sin A – 4sin3 A]
= 3θ
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 18
= 3 sin-1 x [∵ θ = sin-1 x]
= LHS
Hence Proved.

Question 27.
Prove that
3 cos-1x = cos-1(4x3 – 3x), x ∈\(\left[\frac{1}{2}, 1\right]\).
Answer:
Consider, RHS = cos-1 (4x3 – 3x)
Let x = cos θ ⇒ θ = cos-1 x
Now, from Eq. (1), we get
RHS = cos-1 (4 cos3 θ – 3 cos θ)
= cos-1 (cos 3θ) [∵ cos 3A = 4 cos3 A – 3 cos A]
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 19
= 3 cos-1 x
= LHS
Hence proved.

Question 28.
Solve for X,
tan-1 (x + 1) + tan-1 (x – 1) = tan-1\(\frac{8}{31}\). (All India 2019,15)
Answer:
First, use the formula tan-1 x + tan-1 y = tan-1\(\left(\frac{x+y}{1-x y}\right)\); xy < 1, then simplify it and get the values of x. Further, verify the given equation by obtained values of x.

Given, tan-1(x + 1) + tan-1(x – 1) = tan-1 \(\frac{8}{31}\) …… (i)
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 20
⇒ 62x = 16 – 8x2
⇒ 8x2 + 62x – 16 = 0
⇒ 4x2 + 31x – 8 = 0
⇒ 4x2 + 32x – x – 8 = 0
⇒ 4x(x + 8) – 1 (x + 8) = 0
⇒ (x + 8) (4x – 1) = 0
∴ x = -8 or x = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
But x = – 8 gives LHS = tan-1 (- 7) + tan-1 (- 9)
= – tan-1 (7) – tan-1 (9),
which is negative, while RHS is positive.
So, x = – 8 is not possible.
Hence, x = \(\frac{1}{4}\) is the only solution of the given equation.

Question 29.
Find the value of sin (cos-1 + tan-1\(\frac{2}{3}\)). (All India 2019)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 21
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 22

Question 30.
Solve for x, tan-1 3x + tan-1 2x = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\). (Delhi 2019. 2015, 2013C)
Answer:
Given, tan-1 3x + tan-1 2x = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) …………. (i)
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 23
⇒ 5x = 1 – 6x2
⇒ 6x2 + 5x – 1 = 0
⇒ 6x2 + 6x – x – 1 = 0
⇒ 6x(x + 1) – 1(x + 1) = 0
⇒ (6x – 1) (x + 1) = 0
⇒ 6x – 1 = 0 or x + 1 = 0
∴ x = \(\frac{1}{6}\) or x = – 1
But x = – 1 does not satisfy the Eq. (1). as LHS becomes negative. So, x = \(\frac{1}{6}\) is the only solution of the given equation.

Question 31.
Solve tan-1 4x + tan-1 6x = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 24
⇒ 10x = 1 – 24x2
⇒ 24x2 + 10x – 1 = 0
⇒ 24x2 + 12x – 2x – 1 = 0
⇒ 12x(2x + 1) – 1 (2x + 1) = 0
⇒ (2x + 1) (12x – 1) = 0
⇒ 2x + 1 = 0
x = – \(\frac{1}{2}\)
or 12x – 1 = 0
x = \(\frac{1}{12}\)
But x = – \(\frac{1}{2}\) does not satisfy the given equation.
Hence, the required solution is x = \(\frac{1}{12}\)

Question 32.
If tan-1\(\frac{x-3}{x-4}\) + tan \(\frac{x+3}{x+4}=\frac{\pi}{4}\), then find the value of x. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Given
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 25

Question 33.
Prove that tan\(\left\{\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{1}{2} \cos ^{-1} \frac{a}{b}\right\}\) + tan\(\left\{\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{1}{2} \cos ^{-1}\left(\frac{a}{b}\right)\right\}\) = \(\frac{2 b}{a}\).
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 26

Question 34.
Solve the following equation for x.
cos(tan-1 x) = sin(cot-1\(\frac{3}{4}\)) (Delhi 2017, Foregin 2014; All India 2013)
Answer:
We have, cos(tan-1 x) = sin(cot– 1 \(\frac{3}{4}\)) …….. (i)
Let tan-1 x = θ and cot-1\(\frac{3}{4}\) = Φ ∀θ ∈ \(\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\)
and Φ ∈ (0, π)
⇒ tan θ = x and cot Φ = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
⇒ sec θ = \(\sqrt{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}\) and cosec Φ = \(\sqrt{1+\cot ^{2} \phi}\)
[taking positive square root as θ ∈ \(\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\) and Φ ∈ (θ, π)]
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 27
⇒ x = ± \(\frac{3}{4}\) [taking square root both sides]
But x = \(\frac{-3}{4}\) does not satisfy the given equation. Hence, the required solution is x = \(\frac{3}{4}\).

Question 35.
Prove that
\(\tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{5}+\tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{7}+\tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{3}+\tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{8}=\frac{\pi}{4}\) (DelhI 2018; Foreign 2015; Delhi 2008; 2008C)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 28

Question 36.
Solve for x,
2 tan-1x (cos x) = tan-1 (2 cosecx). (Delhi 2016; Foreign 2015, Delhi 2014C; All India 2009)
Answer:
Given equation is
2 tan-1 (cos x) = tan-1 (2 cosec x)
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 29
⇒ sin x cos x – sin2 x = 0
⇒ sin x (cos x – sin x) = 0
⇒ sin x = 0 or cos x = sin x
⇒ sin x = sin 0
or cot x = 1 = cot \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
∴ x = 0 or \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
But here at x = 0, the given equation does not exist.
Hence, x = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) is the only solution.

Question 37.
Solve for x,
tan-1(x – 1) + tan-1 x + tan-1(x + 1) = tan-1 3x (All India 2016)
Answer:
Given,
tan-1 (x – 1) + tan-1 x + tan-1 (x + 1) = tan-1 3x
⇒ tan-1 (x – 1) + tan-1 (x + 1) = tan-1 3x – tan-1 x
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 30
⇒ 2x(1 + 3x2) = 2x(2 – x2)
⇒ 2x[1 + 3x2 – (2 – x2)] = 0
⇒ x(4x2 – 1) = 0 ⇒ x = 0 or 4x2 – 1 = 0
∴ x = 0 or x = ± \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 38.
Prove that
tan-1\(\left(\frac{6 x-8 x^{3}}{1-12 x^{2}}\right)\) – tan-1\(\left(\frac{4 x}{1-4 x^{2}}\right)\) = tan-1 2x; |2x| < \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\). (All India 2016)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 31

Question 39.
Prove that
cot-1\(\left(\frac{\sqrt{1+\sin x}+\sqrt{1-\sin x}}{\sqrt{1+\sin x}-\sqrt{1-\sin x}}\right)\) = \(\frac{x}{2}\), 0 < x < \(\frac{\pi}{2}\), or x ∈ \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
(Foreign 2016; Delhi 2014, 2011; All India 2009)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 32

Alternate Method:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 33

Question 40.
Solve for x,
tan-1\(\left(\frac{x-2}{x-1}\right)\) – tan-1\(\left(\frac{x+2}{x+1}\right)\) = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
\(\sqrt{\frac{7}{2}},-\sqrt{\frac{7}{2}}\)

Question 41.
If sin [cot-1 (x + 1)] = cos (tan-1 x), then find x. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
– \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 42.
If(tan-1 x)2 + (cot-1 x)2 = \(\frac{5 \pi^{2}}{8}\), then find x. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 34
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 35

Question 43.
Prove the following.
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 37
(All India 2015)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 36

Question 44.
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 38
then find the value of θ. (Foregin 2015)
Answer:
First, convert each inverse trigonometric function in the form, of tan-1\(\left(\frac{x-y}{1+x y}\right)\)1 and then use the formula tan-1 \(\left(\frac{x-y}{1+x y}\right)\) = tan-1x – tan-1 y; xy > – 1 Further, simplify it and again use the above formula.
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 39

Question 45.
Prove that
2 tan-1\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\) + tan-1\(\left(\frac{1}{7}\right)\) = sin-1\(\left(\frac{31}{25 \sqrt{2}}\right)\) (All India 2015C)
Answer:
First, use the relation,
2 tan-1 x = tan-1\(\left(\frac{2 x}{1-x^{2}}\right)\); – 1 < x < 1 and then use tan-1 x + tan-1y = tan-1\(\left(\frac{x+y}{1-x y}\right)\); xy < 1
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 40
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 41

Question 46.
Solve the following equation for x.
tan-1\(\left(\frac{1-x}{1+x}\right)\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)tan-1x, x > 0
(All India 2015C, 2O14C, 2010, 2009C; Foreign 2011C, 2008C)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 42
⇒ 3x2 = 1 ⇒ x2 = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
⇒ x = ± \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
[∵ x > 0 given, so we do not take x = – \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)]
[∴ x = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) is the only solution of the given equation.]

Question 47.
Solve for x, tan-1x + 2 cot-1 x = \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\). (All India 2014C; Delhi 2009C)
Answer:
Given equation is tan-1 x + 2 cot-1 x = \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\)
Then, the given equation can be written as
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 43

Question 48.
Prove that
2 tan-1\(\left(\frac{1}{5}\right)\) + sec-1\(\left(\frac{5 \sqrt{2}}{7}\right)\) + 2 tan-1\(\left(\frac{1}{8}\right)=\frac{\pi}{4}\). (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 44

Question 49.
Prove that tan-1\(\left[\frac{\sqrt{1+x}-\sqrt{1-x}}{\sqrt{1+x}+\sqrt{1-x}}\right]\) = \(\frac{\pi}{4}-\frac{1}{2}\) cos-1x, – \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) ≤ x ≤ 1. (All India 2014, 2014C, 2011)
Answer:
To prove,
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 45

Question 50.
If tan-1 \(\left(\frac{x-2}{x-4}\right)\) + tan-1 \(\left(\frac{x+2}{x+4}\right)\) then find the value of x. (All India 2014)
Answer:
x = ± √2

Question 51.
Prove that
cos-1 (x) + cos-1\(\left\{\frac{x}{2}+\frac{\sqrt{3-3 x^{2}}}{2}\right\}\) = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\). (All India 2014C)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 46

Question 52.
Prove that
cot-1 7 + cot-1 8 + cot-1 18 = cot-1 3. (Forei9n 2014)
Answer:
To prove. cot-1 7 + cot-1 8 + cot-1 18 = cot-1 3
LHS = cot-1 7 + cot-1 8 + cot-1 18
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 47
Hence proved.

Question 53.
Prove that
sin-1\(\left(\frac{8}{17}\right)\) + sin-1\(\left(\frac{3}{5}\right)\) = cos-1\(\left(\frac{36}{85}\right)\). (All India 2014C; Delhi 2012, 2010C)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 48

Question 54.
Show that tan\(\left(\frac{1}{2} \sin ^{-1} \frac{3}{4}\right)=\frac{4-\sqrt{7}}{3}\). (All India 2013).
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 49
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 50

Question 55.
Solve for x, sin-1 (1 – x) – 2 sin-1 x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\). (All India 2013C)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 51
⇒ 1 – x = 1 – 2x2 [∵ sin-1 x = θ ⇒ x = sin θ]
⇒ 2x2 – x = 0
⇒ x(2x – 1) = 0
∴ x = 0 or x = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
For x = \(\frac{1}{2}\) , LHS = sin-1\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\) – 2 sin-1\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
= \(\frac{\pi}{6}-\frac{2 \pi}{6}=\frac{-\pi}{6} \neq \frac{\pi}{2}\)
∴ x = \(\frac{1}{2}\) is not a solution of given equation.
Hence, x = 0 is the only solution. (1)

Question 56.
Prove that sin-1\(\frac{8}{17}\) + sin-1\(\frac{3}{5}\) = tan-1\(\frac{77}{36}\). (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 52

Question 57.
Find the value of the following. (Delhi 2013)
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 53
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 54

Question 58.
Prove that (Delhi 2013; All India 2011, 2008C)
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 55
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 28

Question 59.
Prove that (Delhi 2012)
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 57
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 56

Question 60.
Prove that (All India 2012; Delhi 2010C, 2009)
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 58
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 59

Question 61.
Prove the following. (All India 2012)
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 60
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 61

Question 62.
Prove that
sin-1\(\left(\frac{63}{65}\right)\) = sin-1\(\left(\frac{5}{13}\right)\) + cos-1\(\left(\frac{3}{5}\right)\). (Foregin 2012).
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 62

Question 63.
Solve for x ,
2 tan-1(sin x) = tan-1(2 sec x), x ≠ \(\frac{\pi}{2}\). (Foregin 2012)
Answer:
\(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Question 64.
Find the value of
tan-1\(\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)\) – tan-1\(\left(\frac{x-y}{x+y}\right)\) (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 63

Question 65.
Prove that (All India 2011; Delhi 2009C, 2008C)
2 tan-1\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\) + tan-1\(\left(\frac{1}{7}\right)\) = tan-1\(\left(\frac{31}{17}\right)\).
Answer:
First, use the relation,
2 tan-1 x = tan-1\(\left(\frac{2 x}{1-x^{2}}\right)\); – 1 < x < 1 and then use tan-1 x + tan-1y = tan-1\(\left(\frac{x+y}{1-x y}\right)\); xy < 1
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 40
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 41

Question 66.
Prove that (Foregin 2011)
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 64
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 65
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 66

Alternate Method:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 67

Question 67.
Prove that tan-1 \(\frac{1}{4}\) + tan-1 \(\frac{2}{9}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) tan-1 \(\frac{4}{3}\). (All India 2011C)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 68

Question 68.
Solve for x, cos (2 sin-1 x) = \(\frac{1}{9}\); x > 0. (All India 2011C)
Answer:
Given equation is
cos (2 sin-1 x) = \(\frac{1}{9}\) , x > 0 ……. (i)
Put sin-1x = y
⇒ x = sin y
Then, Eq. (1) becomes, cos 2y = \(\frac{1}{9}\)
⇒ 1 – 2 sin2 y = \(\frac{1}{9}\) [∵ cos 2θ = 1 — 2s1n2 01(1)
⇒ 2 sin2 y = 1 – \(\frac{1}{9}\) = \(\frac{8}{9}\)
⇒ sin2 y = \(\frac{4}{9}\)
⇒ x2 = \(\frac{4}{9}\) [∵ sin y = x]
∴ x = ± \(\frac{2}{3}\) [taking square root]
But it is given that, x > 0.
∴ x = \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 69.
Prove that 2 tan-1 \(\frac{3}{4}\) – tan-1 \(\frac{17}{31}=\frac{\pi}{4}\). (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
First, use the relation
2 tan-1 x = tan-1\(\left(\frac{2 x}{1-x^{2}}\right)\) – 1 < x < 1 and then use the relation tan-1 x – tan-1 y = tan-1 \(\left(\frac{x-y}{1+x y}\right)\), xy > – 1 and get the required result.
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 69

Question 70.
Solve for x,
tan-1\(\left(\frac{2 x}{1-x^{2}}\right)\) + cot-1\(\left(\frac{1-x^{2}}{2 x}\right)\) = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\), – 1 < x < 1. (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 70

Question 71.
Prove that
tan-1 √x = \(\frac{1}{2}\) cos-1\(\left(\frac{1-x}{1+x}\right)\) , x ∈ (0, 1). (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
First, put √x = tan θ ⇒ θ = tan-1 √x and then use cos 2θ = \(\frac{1-\tan ^{2} \theta}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}\)
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 71

Question 72.
Prove that (Delhi 2010)
cos-1\(\left(\frac{12}{13}\right)\) + sin-1\(\left(\frac{3}{5}\right)\) = sin-1\(\left(\frac{56}{65}\right)\)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 62

Question 73.
Prove that
tan-1(1) + tan-1(2) + tan-1(3) = π. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
To prove,
tan-1(1) + tan-1(2) + tan-1(3) = π
LHS = tan-1(1) + tan-1(2) + tan-1(3)
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 72

Question 74.
Prove that
tan-1x + tan-1\(\left(\frac{2 x}{1-x^{2}}\right)\) = tan-1\(\left(\frac{3 x-x^{3}}{1-3 x^{2}}\right)\). (All India 2010).
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 73

Question 75.
Prove that
cos [tan-1{sin(cot-1 x)}] = \(\sqrt{\frac{1+x^{2}}{2+x^{2}}}\). (All India 2010).
Answer:
To prove, cos [tan-1 {sin (cot-1x}] = \(\sqrt{\frac{1+x^{2}}{2+x^{2}}}\)
LHS = cos (tan-1 {sin(cot-1 x)}]
Put cot-1 x = θ ⇒ x = cot θ
Then, LHS = cos (tan-1 (sin θ)]
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 74

Question 76.
Solve for x, cos-1x + sin-1\(\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)\) = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\). (All India 2010C)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 75
⇒ \(\frac{4 x^{2}}{4}\) = 1
∴ x2 = 1 ⇒ x = ± 1
But x = -1, does not satisfy the given equation.
Hence, x = 1 satisfy the given equation.

Question 77.
Prove that
2 tan-1 \(\frac{1}{3}\) + tan-1 \(\frac{1}{7}=\frac{\pi}{4}\). (All India 2010C)
Answer:
First, use the relation
2 tan-1 x = tan-1\(\left(\frac{2 x}{1-x^{2}}\right)\) – 1 < x < 1 and then use the relation tan-1 x – tan-1 y = tan-1 \(\left(\frac{x-y}{1+x y}\right)\), xy > – 1 and get the required result.
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 69

Question 78.
Solve for x, tan-1\(\frac{x}{2}\) + tan-1\(\frac{x}{3}=\frac{\pi}{4}\), (√6 > x > 0. (Delhi 210C)
Answer:
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 76
⇒ 5x = 6 – x2
⇒ x2 + 5x – 6 = 0
⇒ x2 + 6x – x – 6 = 0
⇒ x(x + 6) – 1(x + 6) = 0
⇒ (x – 1) (x + 6) = 0
∴ x = 1 or – 6
But it is given that. √6 > x > 0 ⇒ x > 0
∴ x = – 6 is rejected.
Hence. x =1 is the only solution of the given equation.

Question 79.
Solve for x, tan-1(x + 2) + tan-1(x – 2) = tan-1\(\left(\frac{8}{79}\right)\), x > 0 (Delhi 2010C)
Answer:
First, use the formula tan-1 x + tan-1 y = tan-1\(\left(\frac{x+y}{1-x y}\right)\); xy < 1, then simplify it and get the values of x. Further, verify the given equation by obtained values of x.

Given, tan-1(x + 1) + tan-1(x – 1) = tan-1 \(\frac{8}{31}\) …… (i)
Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 20
⇒ 62x = 16 – 8x2
⇒ 8x2 + 62x – 16 = 0
⇒ 4x2 + 31x – 8 = 0
⇒ 4x2 + 32x – x – 8 = 0
⇒ 4x(x + 8) – 1 (x + 8) = 0
⇒ (x + 8) (4x – 1) = 0
∴ x = -8 or x = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
But x = – 8 gives LHS = tan-1 (- 7) + tan-1 (- 9)
= – tan-1 (7) – tan-1 (9),
which is negative, while RHS is positive.
So, x = – 8 is not possible.
Hence, x = \(\frac{1}{4}\) is the only solution of the given equation.

The post Inverse Trigonometric Functions Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 2 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5

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Get access to Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 Continuity and Differentiability, Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions will help the students to score good marks in the board examination.

Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Important Questions with Solutions Previous Year Questions

Continuity

Question 1.
Determine the value of ‘k’ for which the following function is continuous at x = 3: (All India 2017)
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 1
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 2

Question 2.
Determine the value of the constant ‘k’ so that the function
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 3
is continuous at x = 0. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 4

Question 3
Find the values of p and q for which
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 5
is continuous at x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\). (Delhi 2016)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 56
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 6

Question 4.
If
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 7
is continuous at x = 0, then find the values of a and b. (All India 2015)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 9
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 10

Question 5.
Find the value of k, so that the function
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 11
is continuous at x = 0. (All India 2014C).
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 12

Alternate Method:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 13

Question 6.
If
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 14
and f is continuous at x = 0, then find the value of a. (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 15

Question 7.
Find the value of k, for which
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 16
is continuous at x = 0. (All India 2013)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 17

Question 8.
Find the value of k, so that the following function is continuous at x = 2. (Delhi 2012C)
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 18
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 19

Question 9.
Find the value of k, so that the function f defined by
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 20
is continuous at x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\). (Delhi 2012C; Foregin 2011)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 21

Question 10.
Find the value of a for which the function f is defined as
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 22
is continuous at x = 0. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 23
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 24

Question 11.
If the function f(x) given by
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 25
is continuous at x = 1, then find the values of a and b. (Delhi 2011; All India 2010)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 26
On substituting these values in Eq. (i), we get
5a – 2b = 3a + b = 11
⇒ 3a + b = 11 …… (ii)
and 5a – 2b = 11 ……. (iii)
On subtracting 3 × Eq. (iii) from 5 × Eq. (ii), we get
15a + 5b – 15a + 6b = 55 – 33
⇒ 11b = 22 ⇒ b = 2
On putting the value of b in Eq. (ii). we get
3a + 2 = 11 ⇒ 3a = 9 = a = 3
Hence, a = 3 and b = 2

Question 12.
Find the values of a and b such that the following function f(x) is a continuous function. (Delhi 2011)
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 27
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 28
is a continuous function. So, it is continuous at x = 2 and at x = 10.
∴ By definition.
(LHL)x=2 = (RHL)x=2 = f(2) …… (i)
and (LHL)x=10 = (RHL)x=10 = f(10) …… (ii)
Now, let us calculate LHL and RHL at x = 2.
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 29
Now, from Eq. (ii), we have
LHL= RHL
⇒ 10a + b = 21 ….. (iv)
On subtracting Eq. (iv) from Eq. (iii), we get
– 8a = – 16
⇒ a = 2
On putting a = 2 in Eq. (iv), we get
2a + b = 21 ⇒ b = 1
Hence, a = 2 and b = 1

Question 13.
Find the relationship between a and b, so that the function f defined by
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 30
is continuous at x = 3. (All India 2011)
Answer:
let
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 30
is a continuous at x = 3.
Then, LHL = RHL = f(3) ……. (i)
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 31
⇒ RHL = 3b + 3
From Eq.(i), we have
LHL = RHL ⇒ 3a + 1 = 3b + 3
Then, 3a – 3b = 2, which is the required relation between a and b.

Question 14.
Find the value of k, so that the function f defined by
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 32
is continuous at x = π. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 33

Question 15.
For what values of λ, is the function
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 34
is continuous at x = 0? (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 35
∵ LHL ≠ RHL, which is a contradiction to Eq. (i).
∴ There is no value of λ. for which f(x) is continuous at x = 0.

Question 16.
Discuss the continuity of the function f(x) at x = 1/2 , when f(x) is defined as follows. (Delhi 2011C)
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 36
Answer:
Here, we find LHL, RHL and f\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\).
If LHL = RHL = f\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\) then we say that f(x) is continuous at x = \(\frac{1}{2}\), otherwise f(x) discontinuous at x = \(\frac{1}{2}\).

Given function is
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 37

Question 17.
Find the value of α, if the function f(x) defined by
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 38
is continuous at x = 2. Also, discuss the continuity of f(x) at x = 3. (All India 2011C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 39

Question 18.
Find the values of a and b such that the function defined as follows is continuous. (Delhi 2010, 2010C)
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 40
Answer:
a = 3 and b = – 2

Question 19.
For what value of k, is the function defined by
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 41
continuous at x = 0?
Also, find whether the function is continuous at x = 1. (Delhi 2010, 2010C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 42

Question 20.
Find all points of discontinuity of f, where f is defined as follows.
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 43
Answer:
First, verify continuity of the given function at x = – 3 and x = 3. Then, point at which the given function is discontinuous will be the point of discontinuity.
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 44
⇒ RHL = 6
Also, f(- 3) = value of f(x) at x = – 3
= – (- 3) + 3
= 3 + 3 = 6
∵ LHL = RHL f(- 3)
∴ f(x) is continuous at x = – 3 So, x = – 3 is the point of continuity.

Continuity at x = 3
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 45
⇒ RHL = 20
∵ LHL ≠ RHL
∴ f is discontinuous at x = 3
Now, as f (x) is a polynomial function for x < – 3, – 3 < x < 3 and x > 3, so it is continuous in these intervals.
Hence, only x = 3is the point of discontinuity of f(x).

Differentiability

Question 1.
Differentiate \(e^{\sqrt{3 x}}\), with respect to x. (All India 2019)
Answer:
Let y = \(e^{\sqrt{3 x}}\)
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 46

Question 2.
If y = cos (√3x), then find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\). (All India 2019)
Answer:
Given, y = cos (√3x)
Differentiating w.r.t x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 47

Question 3.
If f(x) = x + 1, find \(\frac{d}{d x}\) (fof) (x). (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Given, f(x) = x + 1
⇒ f(f(x)) = f(x) + 1
⇒ fof(x) = x + 1 + 1
⇒ fof(x) = x + 2
Now, \(\frac{d}{d x}\) (fof)(x) = \(\frac{d}{d x}\)(x + 2) = 1

Question 4.
If f(x) = x + 7 and g(x) = x – 7, x ∈ R, then find the values of \(\frac{d}{d x}\) (fog) x. (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Given, f(x) = x + 7,
g(x) = x – 7, x ∈ R
Now, (fog) (x) = f[g(x)] = f(x – 7) = (x – 7) + 7
(fog) (x) = x
On differentiate w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d}{d x}\) (fog)(x) = \(\frac{d}{d x}\) (x) ⇒ \(\frac{d}{d x}\) (fog) (x) = 1

Question 5.
If y = x|x|, find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) for x < 0. (All India 2019)
Answer:
We have, y = x|x|
When, x < 0, then |x| = – x
∴ y = x(- x) = – x2
⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = – 2x

Question 6.
Differentiate tan-1 \(\left(\frac{1+\cos x}{\sin x}\right)\) with respect to x. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 48

Question 7.
Differentiate tan-1 \(\left(\frac{\cos x-\sin x}{\cos x+\sin x}\right)\) with respect to x. (CBSE 2018 C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 49

Question 8.
Find the value of c in Rolle’s theorem for the function f(x) = x3 – 3x in [-√3, 0]. (All India 2017)
Answer:
Given, f(x) = x3 – 3x in [-√3, 0]
We know that, according to Rolles theorem, if f(x) is continuous in [a, b] differentiable in (a, b) and f(a) = f(b), then there exist c ∈ (a, b) such that f’(c) = 0.
Here f(x), being a polynomial function, is continuous in [-√3, 0] and differentiable in (-√3, 0).
Also, f(-√3) = 0 = f(0)
∴ f'(c) = 0, for some c ∈ (- √3, 0) …… (ii)
Now, f’(x) = 3x2 – 3 [from Eq. (i)]
⇒ f’(c) = 3c2 – 3 = 0 [from Eq. (ii)]
⇒ c = ± 1
But C ∈ (-√3, 0) so neglecting positive value of c.
∴ c = – 1

Question 9.
Find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) at x = 1, y = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) if sin2 y + cos xy = K. (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
we have sin2 y + cos xy = k
On differentiating both sides w.r.t x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 50

Question 10.
If y = sin-1 (6x\(\sqrt{1-9 x^{2}}\)), < \(\frac{1}{3 \sqrt{2}}\) x < \(\frac{1}{3 \sqrt{2}}\) then find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\). (Delhi 2017)
Answer:
Given, y = sin-1(6x \(\sqrt{\left.1-9 x^{2}\right)}\))
y = sin-1(2.3x \(\sqrt{1-(3 x)^{2}}\))
put 3x = sin θ, then
y = sin-1 (2 sin θ\(\sqrt{1-\sin ^{2} \theta}\))
⇒ y = sin-1 (2 sin θ. cos θ)
⇒ y = sin-1 (sin 2θ)
⇒ y = 2θ
⇒ y = 2 sin-1(3x) [∵ θ = sin-1(3x)]
⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{2}{\sqrt{1-9 x^{2}}}\)
⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{6}{\sqrt{1-9 x^{2}}}\)

Question 11.
If (cos x)y = (cos y)x, then find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\). (All India 2019; Delhi 2012)
Answer:
First, take log on both sides, then differentiate both sides by using product rule.
Given, (cos x)y = (cos y)x
On taking log both sides, we get
log (cos x)y = log (cos y)x
⇒ y log (cos x) = x log(cos y)
[∵ log xn = n log x]
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 52

Question 12.
If \(\sqrt{1+y}+y \sqrt{1+x}=0\) = 0,(x ≠ y), then prove that \(\frac{d y}{d x}=-\frac{1}{(1+x)^{2}}\). (All India 2019: Foreign 2012; Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
First, solve the given equation and convert it into y = f(x) form. Then, differentiate to get the required result.
To prove \(\frac{d y}{d x}=-\frac{1}{(1+x)^{2}}\)
Given equation is \(\sqrt{1+y}+y \sqrt{1+x}\) = 0,
where x ≠ y, we first convert the given equation into y = f(x) form.
Clearly, x \(\sqrt{1+y}\) = – y \(\sqrt{1+x}\)
On squaring both sides, we get
⇒ x2 (1 + y) = y2 (1 + x)
⇒ x2 + x2y = y2 + y2x
⇒ x2 – y2 = y2x – x2y
⇒ (x – y) (x + y) = – xy (x – y)
[∵ a2 – b2 = (a – b) (a + b)]
⇒ (x – y) (x + y) + xy (x – y) = 0
⇒ (x – y) (x + y + xy) = 0
∴ Either x – y = 0 or x + y + xy = 0
Now, x – y = 0 ⇒ x = y
But it is given that x ≠ y.
So, it is a contradiction.
∴ x – y = 0 is rejected.
Now, consider y + xy + x = 0
⇒ y(1 + x) = – x ⇒ y = \(\frac{-x}{1+x}\)
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 53

Question 13.
If y = (sin-1 x)2 prove that
(1 – x2)\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) – x \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – 2 = 0 (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Given y = (sin-1 x)2
Differentiating on w.r.t x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 54

Question 14.
If (x – a)2 + (y – b)2 = c2, for some c > 0,
prove that
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 51
independent of a and b. (All India 2019)
Answer:
Given (x – a)2 + (y – b)2 = c2
Differentiating on w.r.t x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 55
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 56

Question 15.
If x = aet(sin t + cos t) and y = aet(sin t – cos t), then prove that \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{x+y}{x-y}\) (All India 2019)
Answer:
Given x = x = aet(sin t + cos t)
and y = aet(sin t – cos t)
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 57

Question 16.
Differentiate xsin x + (sin x)cos x with respect to x. (All IndIa 2019)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 58

Question 17.
If log (x2 + y2) = 2 tan-1\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) show that \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{x+y}{x-y}\) (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
log (x2 + y2) = 2 tan-1\(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\)
on differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 59

Question 18.
If xy – yx = ab, find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\). (Delhi 2019)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 60

Question 19.
If x = cos t + log tan\(\left(\frac{t}{2}\right)\), y = sin t, then find the values of \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d t^{2}}\) and \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) at t = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\). (Delhi 2019; All IndIa 2012 C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 62

Question 20.
If y = sin (sin x), prove that
\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) + tan x \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y cos x = 0. (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Given y = sin (sin x) ….. (i)
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = cos (sin x) . cos x ….. (ii)
Again. on differentiating both sides w.r.t. z.
we get
\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) = cos (sin x) . (- sin x) + cos x (- sin (sin x)) . cos x
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 63

Question 21.
If (x2 + y2)2 = xy, find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\). (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
We have (x2 + y2)2 = xy
on differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 64

Question 22.
If x = a(2θ – sin 2θ) and y = a(1 – cos 2θ), find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) when θ = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\). (CBSE 2018)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 65

Question 23.
If sin y = x cos(a + y), then show that
\(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{\cos ^{2}(a+y)}{\cos a}\).
Also, show that \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = cos a, when x = 0. (CBSE 2018 C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 66

Question 24.
If x = a sec3 θ and y = a tan3 θ, find \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) at θ = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\). (CBSE 2018C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 67

Question 25.
If y = etan-1x, prove that (1 + x2)\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) + (2x – 1)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0. (CBSE 2018 C)
Answer:
we have, y = etan-1x
on differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 68

Question 26.
If xy + yx = ab, then find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\). (All India 2017)
Answer:
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = \(\frac{-x^{y-1} \cdot y-y^{x} \log y}{x^{y} \log x+y^{x-1} \cdot x}\)

Question 27.
If ey (x + 1) = 1, then show that \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}=\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{2}\). (All India 2017)
Answer:
Given, ey (x + 1) = 1
On taking log both sides, we get
log [ey (x + 1) = log]
y + log(x + 1) = log 1 [∵ log ey = y]
On differentiating both sides w.r.t x, we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{1}{x+1}\) = 0 …… (i)
Again, differentiating both sides w.r.t. ‘x’, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 69

Question 28.
If y = xx, then prove that (Delhi 2016, 2014)
\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}-\frac{1}{y}\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{2}-\frac{y}{x}\) = 0 (Delhi 2016, 2014)
Answer:
Given y = xx
On taking log both sides, we get
log y = log xx
⇒ log y = x log x
On differentiating both sides w.r.t x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 70

Question 29.
Differentiate tan-1 \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{1+x^{2}}-1}{x}\right)\) w.r.t. sin-1 \(\left(\frac{2 x}{1+x^{2}}\right)\), when x ≠ 0. (Delhi 2016, 2014)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 71

Question 30.
If x = a sin 2t(1 + cos 2t)and
y = b cos 2t (1 – cos 2t), then find the values of \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) at t = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) and t = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\). (Delhi 2016; All India 2014)
Or
If x = a sin2t(1 + cos 2t) and y = b cos 2t (1 – cos 2t), then show that at t = \(\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{b}{a}\) (All India 2014).
Answer:
Given, x = a sin 21(1 + cos 2t)
and y = b cos 2t(1 – cos 2t)
On differentiating x and y separately w.r.t. t,
we get
\(\frac{d x}{d t}\) = a[sin 2t \(\frac{d}{d t}\)(1 + cos 2t) + (1 + cos 2t) \(\frac{d}{d t}\) (sin 2t)
[by using product rule of derivative]
= a [sin2t × (0 – 2 sin 2t) + (1 + cos 2t) (2 cos 2t)]
= a (- 2 sin2 2t + 2 cos 2t + 2 cos2 2t)
= a[2(cos2 2t – sin2 2t) + 2 cos 2t]
= a (2 cos 4t + 2 cos 2t) = 2a (cos 4t + cos 2t)
[∵ cos2 2θ – sin2 2θ = cos 4θ]
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 72
= 4a cos 3t cos t
and \(\frac{d y}{d t}\) = b[cos 2t \(\frac{d}{d t}\) (1 – cos 2t) + (1 – cos2t) \(\frac{d}{d t}\) (cos 2t)]
[by using product rule of derivative]
= b [cos 2t × (0 + 2 sin 2t) + (1 – cos 2t) (- 2 sin 2t)]
= b (2 sin 2t cos 2t – 2 sin 2t + 2 sin 2 t cos 2t)
= 2b (2 sin 2t cos 2t – sin 2t)
= 2b (sin 4 t – sin 2 t) [∵ 2 sin 2θ cos 2θ = sin 4θ]
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 73

Question 31.
If x cos(a + y) = cos y, then prove that \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{\cos ^{2}(a+y)}{\sin a}\). Hence, show that sin α \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) + sin 2 (α + y) \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0. (All India 2015).
Or
If cos y = x cos(α + y), where cos α ≠ ±1, prove that \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{\cos ^{2}(a+y)}{\sin a}\). (Foregin 2014).
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 74

Question 32.
Find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\), if y = sin-1 \(\left[\frac{6 x-4 \sqrt{1-4 x^{2}}}{5}\right]\) (All IndIa 2016).
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 75

Question 33.
Find the values of a and b, if the function f defined by
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 76
is differentiable at x = 1. (Foreign 2016)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 77
From Eq. (i), we have
Lf'(1) = Rf'(1)
⇒ 5 = b
⇒ b = 5
Now, on substituting b = 5 in Eq. (ii), we get
5 – a – 2 = 0
⇒ a = 3
Hence, a = 3 and b = 5.

Question 34.
If x = sin t and y = sin pt, then prove that
(1 – x2)\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) – x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + p2y = 0. (Foreign 2015)
Answer:
Given, x = sin t and y = sin pt
On differentiating x and y separately w.r.t t, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 78

Question 35
If y = tan-1\(\left(\frac{\sqrt{1+x^{2}}+\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}{\sqrt{1+x^{2}}-\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}\right)\), x2 ≤ 1, then find dy/ dx. (Delhi 2015)
Answer:
First, put x2 = sin θ, then reduce it in simplest form.
Further, differentiate it.
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 79

Question 36.
If x = a cos θ + b sin θ, y = a sin θ – b cos θ, then show that y2\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) – x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y = 0. (Delhi 2015. ForeIgn 2014 )
Answer:
Given x = a cos θ + b sin θ, ……. (i)
and y = a sin θ – b cos θ …….. (ii)
On differentiating both sides of Eqs. (i) and (ii) w.r.t. θ, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 80

Question 37.
Show that the function f(x) = |x + 1| + |x – il, for all x ∈ R, is not differentiable at the points x = – 1 and x = 1. (All India 2015)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 81

Question 38.
If y = em sin-1 x, then show that
(1 – x2)\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) – x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – m2 y = 0. (All India 2015).
Answer:
Given y = em sin-1 x
On differentiating both sides w.r.t x, we get,
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 82

Question 39.
If f(x) = \(\sqrt{x^{2}+1}\); g(x) = \(\frac{x+1}{x^{2}+1}\) and h(x) = 2x – 3 then find f’[h’{g’(x)}]. (All India 2015).
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 83

Question 40.
If y = \(\left(x+\sqrt{1+x^{2}}\right)^{n}\), then show that (1 + x2)\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) + x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = n2y. (Foregin 2015).
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 84

Question 41.
Find whether the following function is differentiable at x = 1 and x = 2 or not. (Foreign 2015).
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 85
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 86
∵ LHD = RHD
So, f(x) is differentiable at x = 2
Hence, f(x) is not differentiable at x = 1, but it differentiable at x = 2

Question 42.
For what value of λ, the function defined by
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 87
is continuous at x = 0? Hence, check the differentiability of f(x) at x = 0. (All India 2015C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 88

Question 43.
If y = (sin x)x + sin-1 √x,then find \(\mathrm{d} \frac{d y}{d x}\). (Delhi 2015C, 2013C)
Answer:
Given, y = (sin x)x + sin-1 √x …… (i)
Let u = (sin x)x ……. (ii)
Then, Eq. (i) becomes, y = u + sin-1 √x ….. (iii)
On taking log both sides of Eq. (ii), we get
log u = x log sin x
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 89

Question 44.
If y = \(\frac{x \cos ^{-1} x}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}\) – l0g\(\sqrt{1-x^{2}}\), then prove that \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{\cos ^{-1} x}{\left(1-x^{2}\right)^{3 / 2}}\) (Delhi 2015C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 90

Question 45.
Write the derivative of sin x with respect to cos x. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Let u = sin x
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. X, we get
\(\frac{d u}{d x}\) = cos x ……. (i)
Also, let v = cos x
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d v}{d x}\) = – sin x ……… (ii)
Now, \(\frac{d u}{d v}=\frac{d u}{d x} \times \frac{d x}{d v}=-\frac{\cos x}{\sin x}\) [from Eqs. (i) and (ii)]
∴ \(\frac{d u}{d v}\) = – cot x

Question 46.
If y = sin-1 {x,\(\sqrt{1-x}\) – \(\sqrt{1-x^{2}}\)} and 0 < x < 1, then find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\). (All India 2014C; Delhi 2010)
Answer:
First, convert the given expression in sin-1[x \(\sqrt{1-y^{2}}\) – y\(\sqrt{1-x^{2}}\)] form and then put x = sin Φ and y = sin Φ. Now, simplify the resulting expression and differentiate it.
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 91

Question 47.
If ex + ey = ex + y, prove that \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + ey – x = 0. (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
Given, ex + ey = ex + y ………… (i)
On dividing Eq.(i) by ex + y, we get
e-y + e-x = 1 ………. (ii)
On differentiating both sides of Eq. (ii) w.r.t. x,
We get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 92

Question 48.
Find the value of \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) at θ = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\), if
x = aeθ (sin θ – cos θ) and
y = aeθ (sin θ + cos θ). (All IndIa 2014)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 93

Question 49.
If x = α(cos t + log tan\(\frac{t}{2}\)) y = a sin t, then evaluate \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) at t = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\). (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
\(\frac{8 \sqrt{3}}{a}\)

Question 50.
If xm ym = (x + y)m + n, prove that \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{y}{x}\). (Foreign 2014)
Answer:
First, take log on both sides. Further, differentiate it to prove the required result.
Given xm yn = (x + y)m + n
On taking log both sides, we get
log (xm ym) = log(x + y)m + n
⇒ log(xm) + log(yn) = (m + n) log(x + y)
⇒ m log x + n log y = (m + n) log (x + y)
On differentiating both sides W:r.t. x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 94

Question 51.
Differentiate tan-1\(\left(\frac{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}{x}\right)\) w.r.t. cos-1(2x\(\sqrt{1-x^{2}}\)), when x ≠ 0. (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 95

Question 52.
Differentiate tan-1\(\left(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}\right)\) w.r.t. sin-1 (2x \(\sqrt{1-x^{2}}\)). (Delhi 2014)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 96

Question 53.
If y = Peax + Qebx, then show that \(\) – (a + b) \(\) + aby = 0. (All India 2014)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 97

Question 54.
If x = cos t(3 – 2 cos2 t)and y = sin t (3 – 2 sin2 t), then find the value of \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) at t = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\). (All India 2014)
Answer:
Given, x = cos t(3 – 2 cos2 t)
⇒ x = 3 cos t – 2 cos3 t
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. t, we get
\(\frac{d x}{d t}\) = 3(- sin t) – 2(3) cos2t (- sin t)
⇒ \(\frac{d x}{d t}\) =- 3 sin t + 6 cos t sin t ….. (i)
Also, y = sin t (3 – 2sin2 t)
⇒ y = 3 sin t – 2 sin3 t
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. t, we get
\(\frac{d y}{d t}\) = 3 cos t – 2 × 3 × sin2 t cos t
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 98

Question 55.
If (x – y) \(e^{\frac{x}{x-y}}\) = a, prove that y \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + x = 2y. (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 99

Question 56.
If x = a(cos t + t sin t)and y = a (sin t – t cos t), then find the value of \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) at t = \(\frac{\pi}{4}\). (Delhi 2014C)
Answer:
\(\frac{8 \sqrt{2}}{a \pi}\)

Question 57.
If y = tan-1 \(\left(\frac{a}{x}\right)\) + log \(\sqrt{\frac{x-a}{x+a}}\), prove that \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{2 a^{3}}{x^{4}-a^{4}}\) (All India 2014C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 100

Question 58.
If (tan-1 x)y + ycot x = 1, then find dy/dx. (All India 2014C)
Answer:
Let u = (tan-1 x)y and v = ycot x
Then, given equation becomes u + y = 1
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d u}{d x}+\frac{d v}{d x}\) = 0 ……. (i)
Now, u = (tan-1 x)
On taking log both sides, we get
log u = y 1og(tan-1 x)
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 101

Question 59.
If x = 2 cos θ – cos 2θ and y = 2 sin θ – sin 2θ, then prove that \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = tan \(\left(\frac{3 \theta}{2}\right)\). (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Given x = 2 cos θ – cos 2θ
and y = 2 sin θ – sin 2θ
On differentiating both sides w.r.t θ, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 102

Question 60.
If y = x log \(\left(\frac{x}{a+b x}\right)\), then prove that x3\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) = \(\left(x \frac{d y}{d x}-y\right)^{2}\). (Delhi 2013C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 103

Question 61.
If x = cos θ and y = sin3 θ, then prove that \(y \frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}+\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{2}\) = 3 sin2 θ(5 cos2 θ – 1). (All India 2013C)
Answer:
Given x = cos θ ……. (i)
and y = sin3 θ ……. (ii)
On differentiating both sides of Eqs. (i) and (ii) w.r.t θ, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 104

Question 62.
Differentiate the following function with respect to x.
(log x)x + xlog x (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Let y = (log x)x + xlog x
Also, let u = (log x)x and v = xlog x, then y = u + v
⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{d u}{d x}+\frac{d v}{d x}\) …… (i)
Now, consider u = (log x)x
On taking log both sides, we get
log u = log (log x)x = x log(log x)
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 105

Question 63.
If y = log[x + \(\sqrt{x^{2}+a^{2}}\)], then show that (x2 + a2)\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) + x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0 (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 106

Question 64.
Show that the function f(x) = |x – 3|, x ∈ R, is continuous but not differentiable at x = 3. (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 107

Question 65.
If x = a sin t and y = a[cos t + log tan (t/2)], then find \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) (Delhi 2013)
Answer:
\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) = \(\frac{-{cosec}^{2} t}{a \cos t}\)

Question 66.
Differentiate the following with respect to x.
sin-1\(\left[\frac{2^{x+1} \cdot 3^{x}}{1+(36)^{x}}\right]\) (All India 2013)
Answer:
First, put 6x equal to tan θ. so that it becomes some standard trigonometric function. Then, simplify the expression and then differentiate by using chain rule.
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 108

Question 67.
If x = a cos3 θ and y = a sin3 θ, then find the value of \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) at θ = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\). (All lndia 2013)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 109

Question 68.
If x sin(a + y) + sin a cos(a + y) = 0, then prove that = \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{\sin ^{2}(a+y)}{\sin a}\). (All IndIa 2013)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 110

Question 69.
If xy = ex – y, then prove that \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{\log x}{(1+\log x)^{2}}\) (All India 2013, Delhi 2010)
Or
If xy = ex – y, then prove that (All India 2011)
\(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{\log x}{\{\log (x e)\}^{2}}\)
Answer:
First, take log on both sides and convert it into y = f(x) form. Then, differentiate both sides to get required result.
Given, xy = ex – y
On taking log both sides, we get
y logex = (x – y)logee
⇒ y loge x = x – y [∵ logee = 1]
⇒ y(1 + log x) = x
⇒ y = \(\frac{x}{1+\log x}\)
On differentiating both sides w.r.t x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 111

Question 70.
If yx = ex – y, then prove that
\(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{(1+\log y)^{2}}{\log y}\) (All India 2013)
Answer:
First, take log on both sides and convert it into y = f(x) form. Then, differentiate both sides to get required result.
Given, xy = ex – y
On taking log both sides, we get
y logex = (x – y)logee
⇒ y loge x = x – y [∵ logee = 1]
⇒ y(1 + log x) = x
⇒ y = \(\frac{x}{1+\log x}\)
On differentiating both sides w.r.t x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 111

Question 71.
If sin y = x sin(a + y), then prove that
\(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{\sin ^{2}(a+y)}{\sin a}\) (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 74

Question 72.
If y = sin-1x, show that
(1 – x2)\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) – x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0.
Answer:
Given y = (sin-1 x)2
Differentiating on w.r.t x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 54

Question 73.
If x = \(\sqrt{a^{\sin ^{-1} t}}\) and y = \(\sqrt{a^{\cos ^{-1} t}}\) then show that \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{-y}{x}\). (All India 2012)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 112

Question 74.
Differentiate tan-1\(\left[\frac{\sqrt{1+x^{2}}-1}{x}\right]\) w.r.t. x. (All India 2012)
Answer:
\(\frac{l}{2\left(1+x^{2}\right)}\)

Question 75.
If y = (tan-1 x)2, then show that (x2 + 1)2 \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) + 2x(x2 + 1)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2 (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 113

Question 76.
If y = xsin x – cos x + \(\), then find \(\). (Delhi 2012C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 114

Question 77.
If x = a(cos t + t sin t) and y = a(sin t – t cos t), then find \(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}, \frac{d^{2} y}{d t^{2}}\) and \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\). (All India 2012)
Answer:
Given x = a(cos t + t sin t)
On differentiating both sides w.r.t t, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 115

Question 78.
If x = a(cos t + log tan \(\frac{t}{2}\)) and y = a sin t, find \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d t^{2}}\) and \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\). (All India 2012)
Answer:
\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) = \(\frac{\sin t \sec ^{4} t}{a}\)
Also, \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d t^{2}}\) = \(\frac{d}{d t}\left(\frac{d y}{d t}\right)\) = \(\frac{d}{d t}\)(a cos t) = – a sin t

Question 79.
Find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\), when y = xcot x + \(\frac{2 x^{2}-3}{x^{2}+x+2}\) (All IndIa 2012C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 116

Question 80.
If x = tan\(\left(\frac{1}{a} \log y\right)\), then show that (1 + x2)\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) + (2x – a)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0 (All India 2011)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 117

Question 81.
Differentiate xx cos x + \(\frac{x^{2}+1}{x^{2}-1}\) w.r.t x. (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
xx cos x [cos x – x log x sin x + log x cos x + \(\frac{4 x}{\left(x^{2}-1\right)^{2}}\)

Question 82.
If x = a (θ – sin θ), y = a (1 + cos θ), then find \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\). (Delhi 2011)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 118

Question 83.
Prove that
\(\frac{d}{d x}\left[\frac{x}{2} \sqrt{a^{2}-x^{2}}+\frac{a^{2}}{2} \sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{a}\right)\right]\) = \(\sqrt{a^{2}-x^{2}}\) (Foregin 2011)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 119

Question 84.
If y = log[x + \(\sqrt{x^{2}+1}\)], then prove that (x + 1)\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) + x\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0. (Foreign 2011)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 106

Question 85.
If log(\(\sqrt{1+x^{2}}\) – x) = y\(\sqrt{1+x^{2}}\), then show that (1 + x2)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + xy + 1 = 0. (All India 2011C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 120

Question 86.
If x = a(θ + sin θ) and y = a(1 – cos θ),then find \(\) (All India 2011C)
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{4 a} \sec ^{4} \frac{\theta}{2}\)

Question 87.
If y = a sin x + b cos x, then prove that y2 + \(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{2}\) = a2 + b2. (All India 2011C)
Answer:
First, we differentiate the given expression with respect to x and get first derivative of y. Then, put the value of y and first derivative of y in LHS of given expression and then solve it to get the required RHS.
To prove y2 + \(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{2}\) = a2 + b2
Given, y = a sin x + b cos x ….. (ii)
On differentiating both sides of Eq. (ii) w.r.t. x,
we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = a cos x – b sin x
Now, Let us take LHS of Eq. (i).
Here, LHS = y2 + \(\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{2}\)
On putting the value of y and dy/dx , we get
LHS = (a sin x + b cos x)2 + (a cos x – b sin x)2
= a2 sin2 x + b2 cos2 x + 2ab sin x cos x + a2 cos2 x + b2 sin2 x – 2ab sin x cos x
= a2 sin2 x + b2 cos2 x + a2 cos2 x + b2 sin2 x
= a2 (sin2 x + cos2 x) + b2 (sin2 x + cos2 x)
= a2 + b2 [∵ sin2 x + cos2 x = 1]
= RHS
Hence proved.

Question 88.
If x = a(cos θ + θ sin θ) and y = a(sin θ – θ cos θ), then find \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) (All India 2011C)
Answer:
\(\frac{\sec ^{3} \theta}{a \theta}\)

Question 89.
If x = a(θ – sin θ) and y = a(1 + cos θ), then find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) at θ = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\). (Delhi 2011C)
Answer:
Given x = a(θ – sin θ)
and y = a(1 + cos θ)
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. θ, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 121

Question 90.
If y (sin x – cos x)(sin x – cos x), \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) < x < \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\), then find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\). (All India 2010C)
Answer:
First, take log on both sides and then differentiate to get the required value of \(\frac{d y}{d x}\).
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 122

Question 91.
If y = cos-1\(\left[\frac{2 x-3 \sqrt{1-x^{2}}}{\sqrt{13}}\right]\), then find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\). (All India 2010C)
Answer:
In the given expression, put x = sin θ and simplify the resulting expression, then differentiate it.
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 123

Question 92.
If y = (cot-1 x)2, then show that
(x2 + 1)2 \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) + 2x(x2 + 1)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2. (Delhi 2010C)
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 113

Question 93.
If y = cosec-1x, x > 1, then show that x(x2 – 1)\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) + (2x2 – 1)\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0 (All India 2010)
Answer:
Given y = cosec-1x
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 124

Question 94.
If y = cos-1\(\left(\frac{3 x+4 \sqrt{1-x^{2}}}{5}\right)\), then find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\). (All India 2010)
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}\)

Question 95.
Show that the function defined as follows, is continuous at x = 1, x = 2 but not differentiable at x = 2. (Delhi 2010)
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 125
Answer:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 126

Continuity at x = 2:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 127
⇒ RHL = 6
Also, f(2) = 2(2)2 – 2 = 8 – 2 = 6
Since, LHL = RHL = f(2)
∴ f(x) is continuous at x = 2
Hence, f(x) is continuous at all indicated points.
Now, let us verify differentiability of the given function at x = 2

Differentiability at x = 2:
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 128
Since, LHD ≠ RHD
So, f(x) is not differentiable at x = 2
Hence. f(x) is continuous at x = 1 and x = 2 but not differentiable at x = 2
Hence Proved.

Question 96.
If y = ea cos-1 x, – 1 ≤ x ≤ 1, then show that
(1 – x2)\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) – x \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) – a2y = 0. (All IndIa 2010)
Answer:
Given y = em sin-1 x
On differentiating both sides w.r.t x, we get,
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 82

Question 97.
Find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\), if y = (cos x)x + (sin x)1/x. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
Given, y = (cos x)x + (sin x)1/x
Let u = (cos x)x and v = (sin x)1/x
Then, given equation becomes
y = u + v
on differentiating both sides w.r.t x, we get
⇒ \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{d u}{d x}+\frac{d v}{d x}\)
Consider, u = (cos x)x
On taking log both sides, we get
log u = log (cos x)x
⇒ log u = x log (cos X)
[∵ log mn = n log m]
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 129

Question 98.
If y = ex sin x, then prove that
\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) – 2\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2y = 0. (All India 2010C)
Answer:
First, find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) and \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) and then put their values along with value of y in LHS of proven expression.
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 130

Question 99.
If y = (x)x + (sin x)x, then find \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) (All India 2010C).
Answer:
Given, y = (x)x + (sin x)x
Let u = (x)x
and v = (sin x)x
Then, given equation becomes, y = u + v
On differentiating both sides w.r.t. x, we get
\(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{d u}{d x}+\frac{d v}{d x}\) …….. (i)
Consider, u = xx
On taking log both sides, we get
log u = log xx
⇒ log u = x log x [∵ log mn = n log m]
Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 131

The post Continuity and Differentiability Class 12 Maths Important Questions Chapter 5 appeared first on Learn CBSE.

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